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Title 32: National Defense</TITLE>
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32</IDNO>

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<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Mar. 4, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="32:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32—National Defense--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense</E> 
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Office of the Secretary of Defense 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2
</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:1.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense
</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="32:1.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—OFFICE OF THE SECRETARY OF DEFENSE</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—ACQUISITION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—PILOT PROGRAM POLICY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2340 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 17549, Apr. 10, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 809 of Public Law 101-510, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1991,” as amended by section 811 of Public Law 102-484, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993” and Public Law 103-160, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994,” authorizes the Secretary of Defense to conduct the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program. In accordance with section 809 of Public Law 101-510, the Secretary may designate defense acquisition programs for participation in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program.
</P>
<P>(a) The purpose of the pilot programs is to determine the potential for increasing the efficiency and effectiveness of the acquisition process. Pilot programs shall be conducted in accordance with the standard commercial, industrial practices. As used in this policy, the term “standard commercial, industrial practice” refers to any acquisition management practice, process, or procedure that is used by commercial companies to produce and sell goods and services in the commercial marketplace. This definition purposely implies a broad range of potential activities to adopt commercial practices, including regulatory and statutory streamlining, to eliminate unique Government requirements and practices such as government-unique contracting policies and practices, government-unique specifications and standards, and reliance on cost determination rather than price analysis.
</P>
<P>(b) Standard commercial, industrial practices include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Innovative contracting policies and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Performance and commercial specifications and standards;
</P>
<P>(3) Innovative budget policies;
</P>
<P>(4) Establishing fair and reasonable prices without cost data;
</P>
<P>(5) Maintenance of long-term relationships with quality suppliers;
</P>
<P>(6) Acquisition of commercial and non-developmental items (including components); and
</P>
<P>(7) Other best commercial practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.2   Statutory relief for participating programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within the limitations prescribed, the applicability of any provision of law or any regulation prescribed to implement a statutory requirement may be waived for all programs participating in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program, or separately for each participating program, if that waiver or limit is specifically authorized to be waived or limited in a law authorizing appropriations for a program designated by statute as a participant in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program.
</P>
<P>(b) Only those laws that prescribe procedures for the procurement of supplies or services; a preference or requirement for acquisition from any source or class of sources; any requirement related to contractor performance; any cost allowability, cost accounting, or auditing requirements; or any requirement for the management of, testing to be performed under, evaluation of, or reporting on a defense acquisition program may be waived.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements in section 809 of Public Law 101-510, as amended by section 811 of Public Law 102-484, the requirements in any law enacted on or after the enactment of Public Law 101-510 (except to the extent that a waiver or limitation is specifically authorized for such a defense acquisition program by statute), and any provision of law that ensures the financial integrity of the conduct of a Federal Government program or that relates to the authority of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense may not be considered for waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.3   Regulatory relief for participating programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A program participating in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program will not be subject to any regulation, policy, directive, or administrative rule or guideline relating to the acquisition activities of the Department of Defense other than the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>, the Defense FAR Supplement (DFARS) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>, or those regulatory requirements added by the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Technology, the Head of the Component, or the DoD Component Acquisition Executive.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of this Department of Defense publication may be obtained from the Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Washington, DC 20402.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 2.3(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Provisions of the FAR and/or DFARS that do not implement statutory requirements may be waived by the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Technology using appropriate administrative procedures. Provisions of the FAR and DFARS that implement statutory requirements may be waived or limited in accordance with the procedures for statutory relief previously mentioned.
</P>
<P>(c) Regulatory relief includes relief from use of government-unique specifications and standards. Since a major objective of the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program is to promote standard, commercial industrial practices, functional performance and commercial specifications and standards will be used to the maximum extent practical. Federal or military specifications and standards may be used only when no practical alternative exists that meet the user's needs. Defense acquisition officials (other than the Program Manager or Commodity Manager) may only require the use of military specifications and standards with advance approval from the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Technology, the Head of the DoD Component, or the DoD Component Acquisition Executive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.4   Designation of participating programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pilot programs may be nominated by a DoD Component Head or Component Acquisition Executive for participation in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program. The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Technology shall determine which specific programs will participate in the pilot program and will transmit to the Congressional defense committees a written notification of each defense acquisition program proposed for participation in the pilot program. Programs proposed for participation must be specifically designated as participants in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program in a law authorizing appropriations for such programs and provisions of law to be waived must be specifically authorized for waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) Once included in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program, decision and approval authority for the participating program shall be delegated to the lowest level allowed in the acquisition regulations consistent with the total cost of the program (e.g., under DoD Directive 5000.1, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> an acquisition program that is a major defense acquisition program would be delegated to the appropriate Component Acquisition Executive as an acquisition category IC program)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) At the time of nomination approval, the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Technology will establish measures to judge the success of a specific program, and will also establish a means of reporting progress towards the measures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.5   Criteria for designation of participating programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Candidate programs must have an approved requirement, full program funding assured prior to designation, and low risk. Nomination of a candidate program to participate in the Defense Acquisition Pilot Program should occur as early in the program's life-cycle as possible. Developmental programs will only be considered on an exception basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Programs in which commercial or non-developmental items can satisfy the military requirement are preferred as candidate programs. A nominated program will address which standard commercial, industrial practices will be used in the pilot program and how those practices will be applied.
</P>
<P>(c) Nomination of candidate programs must be accompanied by a list of waivers being requested to Statutes, FAR, DFARS, DoD Directives 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and Instructions, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> and where applicable, DoD Component regulations. Waivers being requested must be accompanied by rationale and justification for the waiver. The justification must include:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 3 to § 2.4(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 3 to § 2.4(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The provision of law proposed to be waived or limited.
</P>
<P>(2) The effects of the provision of law on the acquisition, including specific examples.
</P>
<P>(3) The actions taken to ensure that the waiver or limitation will not reduce the efficiency, integrity, and effectiveness of the acquisition process used for the defense acquisition program; and
</P>
<P>(4) A discussion of the efficiencies or savings, if any, that will result from the waiver or limitation.
</P>
<P>(d) No nominated program shall be accepted until the Under Secretary of Defense has determined that the candidate program is properly planned.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="3" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 3—TRANSACTIONS OTHER THAN CONTRACTS, GRANTS, OR COOPERATIVE AGREEMENTS FOR PROTOTYPE PROJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 845, Pub. L. 103-160, 107 Stat. 1547, as amended. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 57383, Nov. 15, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part consolidates rules that implement section 845 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994, Public Law 103-160, 107 Stat. 1547, as amended, and have a significant impact on the public. Section 845 authorizes the Secretary of a Military Department, the Director of Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, and any other official designated by the Secretary of Defense, to enter into transactions other than contracts, grants, or cooperative agreements in certain situations for prototype projects that are directly relevant to weapons or weapon systems proposed to be acquired or developed by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.2   Background.</HEAD>
<P>“Other transactions” is the term commonly used to refer to the 10 U.S.C. 2371 authority to enter into transactions other than contracts, grants or cooperative agreements. “Other transactions” are generally not subject to the Federal laws and regulations limited in applicability to contracts, grants or cooperative agreements. As such, they are not required to comply with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and its supplements (48 CFR).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Secretary of a Military Department, the Directors of the Defense Agencies, and any other official designated by the Secretary of Defense to enter into transactions other than contracts, grants or cooperative agreements for prototype projects that are directly relevant to weapons or weapon systems proposed to be acquired or developed by the Department of Defense, under authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371. Such transactions are commonly referred to as “other transaction” agreements and are hereafter referred to as agreements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 35576, June 5, 2000. Redesignated at 67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency point of contact (POC).</I> The individual identified by the military department or defense agency as its POC for prototype OTs. 
</P>
<P><I>Agreements Officer.</I> An individual with the authority to enter into, administer, or terminate OTs for prototype projects and make related determinations and findings. 
</P>
<P><I>Approving Official.</I> The official responsible for approving the OTs acquisition strategy and resulting OT agreement. This official must be at least one level above the Agreements Officer and at no lower level than existing agency thresholds associated with procurement contracts. 
</P>
<P><I>Awardee.</I> Any business unit that is the direct recipient of an OT agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>Business unit.</I> Any segment of an organization, or an entire business organization which is not divided into segments. 
</P>
<P><I>Contracting activity.</I> An element of an agency designated by the agency head and delegated broad authority regarding acquisition functions. It includes elements designated by the Director of a Defense Agency which has been delegated contracting authority through its agency charter. 
</P>
<P><I>Contracting Officer.</I> A person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings as defined in Chapter 1 of Title 48, CFR, Federal Acquisition Regulation, Section 2.101(b).
</P>
<P><I>Cost-type OT.</I> Agreements where payments are based on amounts generated from the awardee's financial or cost records or that require at least one third of the total costs to be provided by non-Federal parties pursuant to statute or require submittal of financial or cost records/reports to determine whether additional effort can be accomplished for the fixed amount. 
</P>
<P><I>Fixed-price type OT.</I> Agreements where payments are not based on amounts generated from the awardee's financial or cost records. 
</P>
<P><I>Head of the contracting activity (HCA).</I> The official who has overall responsibility for managing the contracting activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Nontraditional Defense contractor.</I> A business unit that has not, for a period of at least one year prior to the date of the OT agreement, entered into or performed on (1) any contract that is subject to full coverage under the cost accounting standards prescribed pursuant to section 26 of the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act (41 U.S.C. 422) and the regulations implementing such section; or (2) any other contract in excess of $500,000 to carry out prototype projects or to perform basic, applied, or advanced research projects for a Federal agency, that is subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation. 
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract.</I> A contract awarded pursuant to the Federal Acquisition Regulation. 
</P>
<P><I>Project Manager.</I> The government manager for the prototype project.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified Independent Public Accountant.</I> An accountant that is licensed or works for a firm that is licensed in the state or other political jurisdiction where they operate their professional practice and comply with the applicable provisions of the public accountancy law and rules of the jurisdiction where the audit is being conducted. 
</P>
<P><I>Segment.</I> One of two or more divisions, product departments, plants, or other subdivisions of an organization reporting directly to a home office, usually identified with responsibility for profit and/or producing a product or service. 
</P>
<P><I>Senior Procurement Executive.</I> The following individuals:
</P>
<P>(1) Department of the Army—Assistant Secretary of the Army (Acquisition, Logistics and Technology); 
</P>
<P>(2) Department of the Navy—Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Research, Development and Acquisition); 
</P>
<P>(3) Department of the Air Force—Assistant Secretary of the Air Force (Acquisition). 
</P>
<P>(4) The Directors of Defense Agencies who have been delegated authority to act as Senior Procurement Executive for their respective agencies. 
</P>
<P><I>Single Audit Act.</I> Establishes uniform audit requirements for audits of state and local government, universities, and non-profit organizations that expend Federal awards. 
</P>
<P><I>Subawardee.</I> Any business unit of a party, entity or subordinate element performing effort under the OT agreement, other than the awardee. 
</P>
<P><I>Traditional Defense contractor.</I> Any business unit that does not meet the definition of a nontraditional Defense contractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 27457, May 20, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 16482, Mar. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.5   Appropriate use.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with statute, this authority may be used only when:
</P>
<P>(a) At least one nontraditional Defense contractor is participating to a significant extent in the prototype project; or
</P>
<P>(b) No nontraditional Defense contractor is participating to a significant extent in the prototype project, but at least one of the following circumstances exists:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one third of the total cost of the prototype project is to be paid out of funds provided by non-Federal parties to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The Senior Procurement Executive for the agency determines in writing that exceptional circumstances justify the use of a transaction that provides for innovative business arrangements or structures that would not be feasible or appropriate under a procurement contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.6   Limitations on cost-sharing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a nontraditional Defense contractor is not participating to a significant extent in the prototype project and cost-sharing is the reason for using OT authority, then the non-Federal amounts counted as provided, or to be provided, by the business units of an awardee or subawardee participating in the performance of the OT agreement may not include costs that were incurred before the date on which the OT agreement becomes effective. Costs that were incurred for a prototype project by the business units of an awardee or subawardee after the beginning of negotiations, but prior to the date the OT agreement becomes effective, may be counted as non-Federal amounts if and to the extent that the Agreements Officer determines in writing that:
</P>
<P>(1) The awardee or subawardee incurred the costs in anticipation of entering into the OT agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) It was appropriate for the awardee or subawardee to incur the costs before the OT agreement became effective in order to ensure the successful implementation of the OT agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) As a matter of policy, these limitations on cost-sharing apply any time cost-sharing may be recognized when using OT authority for prototype projects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.7   Comptroller General access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A clause must be included in solicitations and agreements for prototype projects awarded under authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371, that provide for total government payments in excess of $5,000,000 to allow Comptroller General access to records that directly pertain to such agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) The clause referenced in paragraph (a) of this section will not apply with respect to a party or entity, or subordinate element of a party or entity, that has not entered into any other contract, grant, cooperative agreement or “other transaction” agreement that provides for audit access by a government entity in the year prior to the date of the agreement. The clause must be included in all agreements described in paragraph (a) of this section in order to fully implement the law by covering those participating entities and their subordinate elements which have entered into prior agreements providing for Government audit access, and are therefore not exempt. The presence of the clause in an agreement will not operate to require Comptroller General access to records from any party or participating entity, or subordinate element of a party or participating entity, or subordinate element of a party or participating entity, which is otherwise exempt under the terms of the clause and the law.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The right provided to the Comptroller General in a clause of an agreement under paragraph (a) of this part, is limited as provided by subparagraph (c)(2) of this part in the case of a party to the agreement, an entity that participates in the performance of the agreement, or a subordinate element of that party or entity, if the only cooperative agreements or “other transactions” that the party, entity, or subordinate element entered into with government entities in the year prior to the date of that agreement are cooperative agreements or transactions that were entered into under 10 U.S.C. 2371 or Section 845 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160; 10 U.S.C. 2371 note).
</P>
<P>(c)(2) The only records of a party, other entity, or subordinate element referred to in subparagraph (c)(1) of this part that the Comptroller General may examine in the exercise of the right referred to in that subparagraph, are records of the same type as the records that the government has had the right to examine under the audit access clauses of the previous cooperative agreements or transactions referred to in such subparagraph that were entered into by that particular party, entity, or subordinate element.
</P>
<P>(d) The head of the contracting activity (HCA) that is carrying out the agreement may waive the applicability of the Comptroller General access requirement if the HCA determines it would not be in the public interest to apply the requirement to the agreement. The waiver will be effective with respect to the agreement only if the HCA transmits a notification of the waiver to the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives, the Comptroller General, and the Director, Defense Procurement before entering into the agreement. The notification must include the rationale for the determination.
</P>
<P>(e) The HCA must notify the Director, Defense Procurement of situations where there is evidence that the Comptroller General Access requirement caused companies to refuse to participate or otherwise restricted the Department's access to companies that typically do not do business with the Department.
</P>
<P>(f) In no case will the requirement to examine records under the clause referenced in paragraph (a) of this section apply to an agreement where more than three years have passed after final payment is made by the government under such an agreement.
</P>
<P>(g) The clause referenced in paragraph (a) of this section, must provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Comptroller General of the United States, in the discretion of the Comptroller General, shall have access to and the right to examine records of any party to the agreement or any entity that participates in the performance of this agreement that directly pertain to, and involve transactions relating to, the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Excepted from the Comptroller General access requirement is any party to this agreement or any entity that participates in the performance of the agreement, or any subordinate element of such party or entity, that, in the year prior to the date of the agreement, has not entered into any other contract, grant, cooperative agreement, or “other transaction” agreement that provides for audit access to its records by a government entity.
</P>
<P>(3)(A) The right provided to the Comptroller General is limited as provided in subparagraph (B) in the case of a party to the agreement, any entity that participates in the performance of the agreement, or a subordinate element of that party or entity if the only cooperative agreements or “other transactions” that the party, entity, or subordinate element entered into with government entities in the year prior to the date of that agreement are cooperative agreements or transactions that were entered into under 10 U.S.C. 2371 or Section 845 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160; 10 U.S.C. 2371 note).
</P>
<P>(B) The only records of a party, other entity, or subordinate element referred to in subparagraph (A) that the Comptroller General may examine in the exercise of the right referred to in that subparagraph are records of the same type as the records that the government has had the right to examine under the audit access clauses of the previous agreements or transactions referred to in such subparagraph that were entered into by that particular party, entity, or subordinate element.
</P>
<P>(4) This clause shall not be construed to require any party or entity, or any subordinate element of such party or entity, that participates in the performance of the agreement, to create or maintain any record that is not otherwise maintained in the ordinary course of business or pursuant to a provision of law.
</P>
<P>(5) The Comptroller General shall have access to the records described in this clause until three years after the date the final payment is made by the United States under this agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) The recipient of the agreement shall flow down this provision to any entity that participates in the performance of the agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 35576, June 5, 2000. Redesignated at 67 FR 54956, Aug. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.8   DoD access to records policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section provides policy concerning DoD access to awardee and subawardee records on OT agreements for prototype projects. This access is separate and distinct from Comptroller General access. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fixed-price type OT agreements.</I> (i) <I>General</I>—DoD access to records is not generally required for fixed-price type OT agreements. In order for an agreement to be considered a fixed-price type OT agreement, it must adequately specify the effort to be accomplished for a fixed amount and provide for defined payable milestones, with no provision for financial or cost reporting that would be a basis for making adjustment in either the work scope or price of the effort. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Termination considerations.</I> The need to provide for DoD access to records in the case of termination of a fixed-price type OT can be avoided by limiting potential termination settlements to an amount specified in the original agreement or to payment for the last completed milestone. However, if a fixed-price agreement provides that potential termination settlement amounts may be based on amounts generated from cost or financial records and the agreement exceeds the specified threshold, the OT should provide that DoD will have access to records in the event of termination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost-type OT agreements.</I> (i) <I>Single Audit Act</I>—In accordance with the requirements of Public Law 98-502, as amended by Public Law 104-156, 110 STAT. 1396-1404, when a business unit that will perform the OT agreement, or a subawardee, meets the criteria for an audit pursuant to the Single Audit Act, the DoD must have sufficient access to the entity's records to assure compliance with the provisions of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Traditional Defense contractors.</I> The DoD shall have access to records on cost-type OT agreements with traditional Defense contractors that provide for total Government payments in excess of $5,000,000. The content of the access to records clause shall be in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. The value establishing the threshold is the total value of the agreement including all options. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nontraditional Defense contractors.</I> The DoD should have access to records on cost-type OT agreements with nontraditional Defense contractors that provide for total Government payments in excess of $5,000,000. The content of the access to records clause should be in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. The value establishing the threshold is the total value of the agreement including all options. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>DoD access below threshold.</I> The Agreements Officer has the discretion to determine whether to include DoD access to records when the OT does not meet any of the requirements in (a)(2)(i) through (a)(2)(iii) of this section. The content of that access to records clause should be tailored to meet the particular circumstances of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Examples of cost-type OT agreements.</I> (A) An agreement that requires at least one-third cost share pursuant to statute. 
</P>
<P>(B) An agreement that includes payable milestones, but provides for adjustment of the milestone amounts based on actual costs or reports generated from the awardee's financial or cost records. 
</P>
<P>(C) An agreement that is for a fixed-Government amount, but the agreement provides for submittal of financial or cost records/reports to determine whether additional effort can be accomplished for the fixed amount. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subawardees.</I> When a DoD access to records provision is included in the OT agreement, the awardee shall use the criteria established in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (a)(2)(iii) of this section to determine whether DoD access to records clauses should be included in subawards. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Nontraditional Defense contractors</I>—(i) The Agreements Officers may deviate, in part or in whole, from the application of this access to records policy for a nontraditional Defense contractor when application of the policy would adversely impact the government's ability to incorporate commercial technology or execute the prototype project. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Agreements Officer will document: 
</P>
<P>(A) What aspect of the audit policy was not applied; 
</P>
<P>(B) Why it was problematic; 
</P>
<P>(C) What means will be used to protect the Government's interest; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Why the benefits of deviating from the policy outweigh the potential risks. 
</P>
<P>(iii) This determination will be reviewed by the approving official as part of the pre-award approval of the agreement and submitted to the agency POC within 10 days of award. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The agency POC will forward all such documentation received in any given fiscal year, to the Director, Defense Procurement by 15 October of each year. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Traditional Defense contractor.</I> (i) Any departure from this policy for other than nontraditional Defense contractors must be approved by the Head of the Contracting Activity prior to award and set forth the exceptional circumstances justifying deviation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Additionally, the justification will document: 
</P>
<P>(A) What aspect of the policy was not applied; 
</P>
<P>(B) Why it was problematic; 
</P>
<P>(C) What means will be used to protect the Government's interest; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Why the benefits of deviating from the policy outweigh the potential risks. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The HCA will forward documentation associated with such waivers in any given fiscal year, to the Director, Defense Procurement by 15 October of each year. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DoD access below the threshold.</I> When the Agreements Officer determines that access to records is appropriate for an agreement below the $5,000,000 threshold, the content, length and extent of access may be mutually agreed to by the parties, without documenting reasons for departing from the policy of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Flow down provisions.</I> The awardee shall submit justification for any exception to the DoD access to records policy to the Agreements Officer for subawardees. The Agreements Officer will review and obtain appropriate approval, as set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of DoD access to records clause.</I> When a DoD access to records clause is included as part of the OT agreement, address the following areas during the negotiation of the clause: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Frequency of audits.</I> Audits will be performed when the Agreements Officer determines it is necessary to verify statutory cost share or to verify amounts generated from financial or cost records that will be used as the basis for payment or adjustment of payment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Means of accomplishing audits.</I> (i) <I>Business units subject to the Single Audit Act</I>—When the awardee or subawardee is a state government, local government, or nonprofit organization whose Federal cost reimbursement contracts and financial assistance agreements are subject to the Single Audit Act (Public Law 98-502, as amended by Public Law 104-156, 110 STAT. 1396-1404), the clause must apply the provisions of that Act for purposes of performing audits of the awardee or subawardee under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Business units not subject to the Single Audit Act currently performing on procurement contracts.</I> The clause must provide that DCAA will perform any necessary audits if, at the time of agreement award, the awardee or subawardee is not subject to the Single Audit Act and is performing a procurement contract that is subject to the Cost Principles Applicable to Commercial Organizations (48 CFR part 31.2) and/or the Cost Accounting Standards (48 CFR part 99). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other business units.</I> DCAA or a qualified IPA may perform any necessary audit of a business unit of the awardee or subawardee if, at the time of agreement award, the business unit does not meet the criteria in (c)(2)(i) or (c)(2)(ii) of this section. The clause must provide for the use of a qualified IPA if such a business unit will not accept the agreement if the Government has access to the business unit's records. The Agreements Officer will include a statement in the file that the business unit is not performing on a procurement contract subject to the Cost Principles or Cost Accounting Standards at the time of agreement award, and will not accept the agreement if the government has access to the business unit's records. The Agreements Officer will also prepare a report (Part III to the annual report submission) for the Director, Defense Procurement that identifies, for each business unit that is permitted to use an IPA: the business unit's name, address and the expected value of its award. When the clause provides for use of an IPA to perform any necessary audits, the clause must state that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The IPA will perform the audit in accordance with Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards (GAGAS). Electronic copies of the standards may be accessed at <I>www.gao.gov.</I> Printed copies may be purchased from the U.S. Government Printing Office (for ordering information, call (202) 512-1800 or access the Internet Site at <I>www.gpo.gov</I>). 
</P>
<P>(B) The Agreements Officers' authorized representative has the right to examine the IPA's audit report and working papers for 3 years after final payment or three years after issuance of the audit report, whichever is later, unless notified otherwise by the Agreements Officer. 
</P>
<P>(C) The IPA will send copies of the audit report to the Agreements Officer and the Assistant Inspector General (Audit Policy and Oversight) [AIG(APO)], 400 Army Navy Drive, Suite 737, Arlington, VA 22202. 
</P>
<P>(D) The IPA will report instances of suspected fraud directly to the DoDIG. 
</P>
<P>(E) The Government has the right to require corrective action by the awardee or subawardee if the Agreements Officer determines (subject to appeal under the disputes clause of the agreement) that the audit has not been performed or has not been performed in accordance with GAGAS. The Agreements Officer should take action promptly once the Agreements Officer determines that the audit is not being accomplished in a timely manner or the audit is not performed in accordance with GAGAS but generally no later than twelve (12) months of the date requested by the Agreements Officer. The awardee or subawardee may take corrective action by having the IPA correct any deficiencies identified by the Agreements Officer, having another IPA perform the audit, or electing to have the Government perform the audit. If corrective action is not taken, the Agreements Officer has the right to take one or more of the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Withhold or disallow a specified percentage of costs until the audit is completed satisfactorily. The agreement should include a specified percentage that is sufficient to enhance performance of corrective action while also not being unfairly punitive. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Suspend performance until the audit is completed satisfactorily; and/or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Terminate the agreement if the agreements officer determines that imposition of either (c)(2)(iii)(E)(1) or (c)(2)(iii)(e)(2) of this section is not practical. 
</P>
<P>(F) If it is found that the awardee or subawardee was performing a procurement contract subject to Cost Principles Applicable to Commercial Organizations (48 CFR part 31.2) and/or Cost Accounting Standards (48 CFR part 99) at the time of agreement award, the Agreements Officer, or an authorized representative, has the right to audit records of the awardee or subawardee to verify the actual costs or reporting information used as the basis for payment or to verify statutorily required cost share under the agreement, and the IPA is to be paid by the awardee or subawardee. The cost of an audit performed in accordance with this policy is reimbursable based on the business unit's established accounting practices and subject to any limitations in the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of audit.</I> The Agreements Officer should coordinate with the auditor regarding the nature of any audit envisioned. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Length and extent of access</I>—(i) <I>Clauses that do not provide for use of an IPA.</I> The clause must provide for the Agreements Officer's authorized representative to have access to directly pertinent records of those business units of the awardee or subawardee's performing effort under the OT agreement, when needed to verify the actual costs or reporting used as the basis for payment or to verify statutorily required cost share under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clauses that provide for use of an IPA to perform the audits.</I> The clause must: 
</P>
<P>(A) Provide the Agreements Officer's authorized representative access to the IPA's audit reports and working papers to ensure that the IPA has performed the audit in accordance with GAGAS. 
</P>
<P>(B) State that the Government will make copies of contractor records contained in the IPA's work papers if needed to demonstrate that the audit was not performed in accordance with GAGAS. 
</P>
<P>(C) State that the Government has no direct access to any awardee or subawardee records unless it is found that the awardee or subawardee was performing a procurement contract subject to Cost Principles (48 CFR part 31) and/or Cost Accounting Standards (48 CFR part 99) at the time of agreement award. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Business Units subject to the Single Audit Act.</I> The clause must provide access to the extent authorized by the Single Audit Act. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Record Retention/Period of Access.</I> The clause must require that the awardee and subawardee retain, and provide access to, the records referred to in (c)(4)(i) and (c)(4)(ii) of this section for three years after final payment, unless notified of a shorter or longer period by the Agreements Officer. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Awardee flow down responsibilities.</I> Agreements must require awardees to include the necessary provisions in subawards that meet the conditions set forth in this DoD access to records policy. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DoDIG and GAO access.</I> In accordance with statute, if an agreement gives the Agreements Officer or another DoD component official access to a business unit's records, the DoDIG or GAO are granted the same access to those records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 27457, May 20, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.9   Follow-on production contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> A competitively awarded OT agreement for a prototype project that satisfies the condition set forth in law that requires non-Federal parties to the OT agreement to provide at least one-third of the costs of the prototype project may provide for the award of a follow-on production contract to the awardee of the OT prototype agreement for a specific number of units at specific target prices, without further competition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions.</I> The Agreements Officer must do the following in the award of the prototype project:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure non-Federal parties to the OT prototype agreement offer at least one-third of the costs of the prototype project pursuant to subsection (d)(1)(B)(i), 10 U.S.C. 2371 note.
</P>
<P>(2) Use competition to select parties for participation in the OT prototype agreement and evaluate the proposed quantity and target prices for the follow-on production units as part of that competition.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the production quantity that may be procured without further competition, by balancing of the level of the investment made in the project by the non-Federal parties with the interest of the Federal Government in having competition among sources in the acquisition of the product or products prototyped under the project.
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the production quantity and target prices in the OT prototype agreement and stipulate in the agreement that the Contracting Officer for the follow-on contract may award a production contract without further competition if the awardee successfully completes the prototype project and agrees to production quantities and prices that do not exceed those specified in the OT prototype agreement (<I>see</I> part 206.001 of the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> As a matter of policy, establishing target prices for production units should only be considered when the risk of the prototype project permits realistic production pricing without placing undue risks on the awardee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation.</I> (1) The Agreements Officer will need to provide information to the Contracting Officer from the agreement and award file that the conditions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) The information shall contain, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The competitive procedures used;
</P>
<P>(ii) How the production quantities and target prices were evaluated in the competition;
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of cost-share; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The production quantities and target prices set forth in the OT agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) The Project Manager will provide evidence of successful completion of the prototype project to the Contracting Officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 16482, Mar. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4-8" NODE="32:1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 4-8 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B [RESERVED]    " NODE="32:1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—DoD GRANT AND AGREEMENT REGULATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="21" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 21—DoD GRANTS AND AGREEMENTS—GENERAL MATTERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and 10 U.S.C. 113. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.100   What are the purposes of this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part of the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides general information about the Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System (DGARS).
</P>
<P>(b) Sets forth general policies and procedures related to DoD Components' overall management of functions related to assistance and certain other nonprocurement instruments subject to the DGARS (<I>see</I> § 21.205(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.200" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.200   What is the Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System (DGARS)?</HEAD>
<P>The Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System (DGARS) is the system of regulatory policies and procedures for the award and administration of DoD Components' assistance and other nonprocurement awards. DoD Directive 3210.6 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> established the DGARS.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Electronic copies may be obtained at the Washington Headquarters Services Internet site <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I> Paper copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.205   What types of instruments are covered by the DGARS?</HEAD>
<P>The Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System (DGARS) applies to the following types of funding instruments awarded by DoD Components:
</P>
<P>(a) All grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) Other nonprocurement instruments, as needed to implement statutes, Executive orders, or other Federal Governmentwide rules that apply to those other nonprocurement instruments, as well as to grants and cooperative agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.210   What are the purposes of the DGARS?</HEAD>
<P>The purposes of the DGARS are to provide uniform policies and procedures for DoD Components' awards, in order to meet DoD needs for:
</P>
<P>(a) Efficient program execution, effective program oversight, and proper stewardship of Federal funds.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance with relevant statutes; Executive orders; and applicable guidance, such as Office of Management and Budget (OMB) circulars.
</P>
<P>(c) Collection from DoD Components, retention, and dissemination of management and fiscal data related to awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.215" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.215   Who is responsible for the DGARS?</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (ASD(R&amp;E)), or his or her designee, develops and implements DGARS policies and procedures. He or she does so by issuing and maintaining the DoD publications that comprise the DGARS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.220" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.220   What publications are in the DGARS?</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations comprise the principal element of the DGARS. The ASD(R&amp;E) also may publish DGARS policies and procedures in DoD instructions and other DoD publications, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—The DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.300   What instruments are subject to the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations (DoDGARs)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The types of instruments that are subject to the DoDGARs vary from one portion of the DoDGARs to another. The types of instruments include grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements. Some portions of the DoDGARs apply to other types of assistance or nonprocurement instruments. The term “awards,” as defined in subpart F of this part, is used in this part to refer collectively to all of the types of instruments that are subject to one or more portions of the DoDGARs.
</P>
<P>(b) Note that each portion of the DoDGARs identifies the types of instruments to which it applies.
</P>
<P>(c) For convenience, the table in Appendix A to this part provides an overview of the applicability of the various portions of the DoDGARs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.305" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.305   What is the purpose of the DoDGARs?</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations provide uniform policies and procedures for the award and administration of DoD Components' awards. The DoDGARs are the primary DoD regulations for achieving the DGARS purposes described in § 21.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.310" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.310   Who ensures DoD Component compliance with the DoDGARs?</HEAD>
<P>The Head of each DoD Component that makes or administers awards, or his or her designee, is responsible for ensuring compliance with the DoDGARs within that DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.315" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.315   May DoD Components issue supplemental policies and procedures to implement the DoDGARs?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, Heads of DoD Components or their designees may issue regulations, procedures, or instructions to implement the DGARS or supplement the DoDGARs to satisfy needs that are specific to the DoD Component, as long as the regulations, procedures, or instructions do not impose additional costs or administrative burdens on recipients or potential recipients.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.320" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.320   Are there areas in which DoD Components must establish policies and procedures to implement the DoDGARs?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, Heads of DoD Components or their designees must establish policies and procedures in areas where uniform policies and procedures throughout the DoD Component are required, such as for:
</P>
<P>(a) Requesting class deviations from the DoDGARs (<I>see</I> §§ 21.335(b) and 21.340(a)) or exemptions from the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 6301 through 6308, that govern the appropriate use of contracts, grants, and cooperative agreements (<I>see</I> 32 CFR 22.220).
</P>
<P>(b) Designating one or more Grant Appeal Authorities to resolve claims, disputes, and appeals (<I>see</I> 32 CFR 22.815).
</P>
<P>(c) Reporting data on assistance awards and programs, as required by 31 U.S.C. chapter 61 (<I>see</I> subpart E of this part).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.325" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.325   Do acquisition regulations also apply to DoD grants and agreements?</HEAD>
<P>Unless the DoDGARs specify that they apply, policies and procedures in the following acquisition regulations that apply to procurement contracts do not apply to grants, cooperative agreements, technology investment agreements, or to other assistance or nonprocurement awards:
</P>
<P>(a) The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)(48 CFR parts 1-53).
</P>
<P>(b) The Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS)(48 CFR parts 201-270).
</P>
<P>(c) DoD Component supplements to the FAR and DFARS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.330" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.330   How are the DoDGARs published and maintained?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD publishes the DoDGARs in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
</P>
<P>(b) The location of the DoDGARs in the CFR currently is in transition. The regulations are moving from chapter I, subchapter C, title 32, to a new location in chapter XI, title 2 of the CFR. During the transition, there will be some parts of the DoDGARs in each of the two titles.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD publishes updates to the DoDGARs in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment.
</P>
<P>(d) A standing working group recommends revisions to the DoDGARs to the ASD(R&amp;E). The ASD(R&amp;E), Director of Defense Procurement, and each Military Department must be represented on the working group. Other DoD Components that make or administer awards may also nominate representatives. The working group meets when necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.335" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.335   Who can authorize deviations from the DoDGARs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Head of the DoD Component or his or her designee may authorize individual deviations from the DoDGARs, which are deviations that affect only one award, if the deviations are not prohibited by statute, executive order or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The ASD(R&amp;E) or his or her designee must approve in advance any deviation for a class of awards. Note that, as described at 2 CFR 1126.3, OMB concurrence also is required for some class deviations from requirements included in awards to institutions of higher education, nonprofit organizations, States, local governments, and Indian tribes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.340" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.340   What are the procedures for requesting and documenting deviations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) DoD Components must submit copies of justifications and agency approvals for individual deviations and written requests for class deviations to: Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering, ATTN: Basic Research, 3030 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3030.
</P>
<P>(b) Grants officers and agreements officers must maintain copies of requests and approvals for individual and class deviations in award files.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Authorities and Responsibilities for Making and Administering Assistance Awards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.400" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.400   To what instruments does this subpart apply?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements, which are legal instruments used to reflect assistance relationships between the United States Government and recipients.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.405" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.405   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the sources and flow of authority to make or administer assistance awards, and assigns the broad responsibilities associated with DoD Components' use of those instruments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.410" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.410   Must a DoD Component have statutory authority to make an assistance award?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, the use of an assistance instrument to carry out a program requires authorizing legislation. That is unlike the use of a procurement contract, for which Federal agencies have inherent, Constitutional authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.415" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.415   Must the statutory authority specifically mention the use of grants or other assistance instruments?</HEAD>
<P>No, the statutory authority described in § 21.410 need not specifically say that the purpose of the program is assistance or mention the use of any type of assistance instrument. However, the intent of the statute must support a judgment that the use of an assistance instrument is appropriate. For example, a DoD Component may judge that the principal purpose of a program for which it has authorizing legislation is assistance, rather than acquisition. The DoD Component would properly use an assistance instrument to carry out that program, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. chapter 63.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.420" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.420   Under what types of statutory authorities do DoD Components award assistance instruments?</HEAD>
<P>DoD Components may use assistance instruments under a number of statutory authorities that fall into three categories:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authorities that statutes provide to the Secretary of Defense.</I> These authorities generally are delegated by the Secretary of Defense to Heads of DoD Components, usually through DoD directives, instructions, or policy memoranda that are not part of the Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System. Examples of statutory authorities in this category are:
</P>
<P>(1) Authority under 10 U.S.C. 2391 to award grants or cooperative agreements to help State and local governments alleviate serious economic impacts of defense program changes (<I>e.g.,</I> base openings and closings, contract changes, and personnel reductions and increases).
</P>
<P>(2) Authority under 10 U.S.C. 2413 to enter into cooperative agreements with entities that furnish procurement technical assistance to businesses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorities that statutes may provide directly to Heads of DoD Components.</I> When a statute authorizes the Head of a DoD Component to use a funding instrument to carry out a program with a principal purpose of assistance, use of that authority requires no delegation by the Secretary of Defense. For example, 10 U.S.C. 2358 authorizes the Secretaries of the Military Departments, in addition to the Secretary of Defense, to perform research and development projects through grants and cooperative agreements. Similarly, 10 U.S.C. 2371 provides authority for the Secretaries of the Military Departments and Secretary of Defense to carry out basic, applied, or advanced research projects using assistance instruments other than grants and cooperative agreements. A Military Department's use of the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2358 or 10 U.S.C. 2371 therefore requires no delegation by the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authorities that arise indirectly as the result of statute.</I> For example, authority to use an assistance instrument may result from:
</P>
<P>(1) A federal statute authorizing a program that is consistent with an assistance relationship (<I>i.e.,</I> the support or stimulation of a public purpose, rather than the acquisition of a good or service for the direct benefit of the Department of Defense). In accordance with 31 U.S.C. chapter 63, such a program would appropriately be carried out through the use of grants or cooperative agreements. Depending upon the nature of the program (<I>e.g.,</I> research) and whether the program statute includes authority for any specific types of instruments, there also may be authority to use other assistance instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) Exemptions requested by the Department of Defense and granted by the Office of Management and Budget under 31 U.S.C. 6307, as described in 32 CFR 22.220.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.425" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.425   How does a DoD Component's authority flow to awarding and administering activities?</HEAD>
<P>The Head of a DoD Component, or his or her designee, may delegate to the heads of contracting activities (HCAs) within the Component, that Component's authority to make and administer awards, to appoint grants officers and agreements officers (<I>see</I> §§ 21.435 through 21.450), and to broadly manage the DoD Component's functions related to assistance instruments. The HCA is the same official (or officials) designated as the head of the contracting activity for procurement contracts, as defined at 48 CFR 2.101. The intent is that overall management responsibilities for a DoD Component's functions related to nonprocurement instruments be assigned only to officials that have similar responsibilities for procurement contracts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.430" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.430   What are the responsibilities of the head of the awarding or administering activity?</HEAD>
<P>When designated by the Head of the DoD Component or his or her designee (see 32 CFR 21.425), the head of the awarding or administering activity (<I>i.e.,</I> the HCA) is responsible for the awards made by or assigned to that activity. He or she must supervise and establish internal policies and procedures for that activity's awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.435" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.435   Must DoD Components formally select and appoint grants officers and agreements officers?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, each DoD Component that awards grants or enters into cooperative agreements must have a formal process (see § 21.425) for selecting and appointing grants officers and for terminating their appointments. Similarly, each DoD Component that awards or administers technology investment agreements must have a process for selecting and appointing agreements officers and for terminating their appointments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.440" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.440   What are the standards for selecting and appointing grants officers and agreements officers?</HEAD>
<P>In selecting grants officers and agreements officers, DoD Components must use the following minimum standards:
</P>
<P>(a) In selecting a grants officer, the appointing official must judge whether the candidate has the necessary experience, training, education, business acumen, judgment, and knowledge of assistance instruments and contracts to function effectively as a grants officer. The appointing official also must take those attributes of the candidate into account when deciding the complexity and dollar value of the grants and cooperative agreements to be assigned.
</P>
<P>(b) In selecting an agreements officer, the appointing official must consider all of the same factors as in paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, the appointing official must consider the candidate's ability to function in the less structured environment of technology investment agreements, where the rules provide more latitude and the individual must have a greater capacity for exercising judgment. Agreements officers therefore should be individuals who have demonstrated expertise in executing complex assistance and acquisition instruments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.445" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.445   What are the requirements for a grants officer's or agreements officer's statement of appointment?</HEAD>
<P>A statement of a grants officer's or agreements officer's appointment:
</P>
<P>(a) Must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) Must clearly state the limits of the individual's authority, other than limits contained in applicable laws or regulations. Information on those limits of a grants officer's or agreements officer's authority must be readily available to the public and agency personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) May, if the individual is a contracting officer, be incorporated into his or her statement of appointment as a contracting officer (<I>i.e.,</I> there does not need to be a separate written statement of appointment for assistance instruments).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.450" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.450   What are the requirements for a termination of a grants officer's or agreements officer's appointment?</HEAD>
<P>A termination of a grants officer's or agreements officer's authority:
</P>
<P>(a) Must be in writing, unless the written statement of appointment provides for automatic termination.
</P>
<P>(b) May not be retroactive.
</P>
<P>(c) May be integrated into a written termination of the individual's appointment as a contracting officer, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.455" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.455   Who can sign, administer, or terminate assistance instruments?</HEAD>
<P>Only grants officers are authorized to sign, administer, or terminate grants or cooperative agreements (other than technology investment agreements) on behalf of the Department of Defense. Similarly, only agreements officers may sign, administer, or terminate technology investment agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.460" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.460   What is the extent of grants officers' and agreements officers' authority?</HEAD>
<P>Grants officers and agreements officers may bind the Government only to the extent of the authority delegated to them in their written statements of appointment (<I>see</I> § 21.445).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.465" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.465   What are grants officers' and agreements officers' responsibilities?</HEAD>
<P>Grants officers and agreements officers should be allowed wide latitude to exercise judgment in performing their responsibilities, which are to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) Individual awards are used effectively in the execution of DoD programs, and are made and administered in accordance with applicable laws, Executive orders, regulations, and DoD policies.
</P>
<P>(b) Sufficient funds are available for obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) Recipients of awards receive impartial, fair, and equitable treatment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Information Reporting on Awards Subject to 31 U.S.C. Chapter 61</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.500" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.500   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes policies and procedures for compiling and reporting data related to DoD awards and programs that are subject to information reporting requirements of 31 U.S.C. chapter 61. That chapter of the U.S. Code requires the Office of Management and Budget to maintain a Governmentwide information system to collect data on Federal agencies' domestic assistance awards and programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.505" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.505   What is the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA)?</HEAD>
<P>The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) is a Governmentwide compilation of information about assistance programs. It covers all assistance programs and activities, regardless of the number of awards made under the program, the total dollar value of assistance provided, or the duration. In addition to programs using grants and agreements, covered programs include those providing assistance in other forms, such as payments in lieu of taxes or indirect assistance resulting from Federal operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.510" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.510   Why does the DoD report information to the CFDA?</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Program Information Act (31 U.S.C. 6101 through 6106), as implemented through OMB guidance at 2 CFR 200.202 requires the Department of Defense and other Federal agencies to provide certain information about their assistance programs to the OMB and the General Services Administration (GSA). The GSA makes this information available to the public by publishing it in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.515" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.515   Who reports the information for the CFDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each DoD Component that provides financial assistance must:
</P>
<P>(1) Report to the Defense Assistance Awards Data System (DAADS) Administrator all new programs and changes as they occur or as the DoD Component submits its annual updates to existing CFDA information. DAADS is further described in §§ 21.520 through 21.555.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify to the DAADS Administrator a point-of-contact who will be responsible for reporting the program information and for responding to inquiries related to it.
</P>
<P>(b) The DAADS Administrator is the Department of Defense's single liaison with whom DoD Components that collect and compile such program information work to report the information to OMB and GSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.520" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.520   What are the purposes of the Defense Assistance Awards Data System (DAADS)?</HEAD>
<P>Data from the Defense Assistance Awards Data System (DAADS) are used to provide:
</P>
<P>(a) DoD inputs to meet statutory requirements for Federal Governmentwide reporting of data related to obligations of funds by assistance instrument. 
</P>
<P>(b) A basis for meeting Governmentwide requirements to report to <I>USASpending.gov</I> (or any successor site designated by OMB) and for preparing other recurring and special reports to the President, the Congress, the Government Accountability Office, and the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Information to support policy formulation and implementation and to meet management oversight requirements related to the use of awards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51240, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.525" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.525   Who issues policy guidance for the DAADS?</HEAD>
<P>The Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (PDASD(R&amp;E)), or his or her designee, issues necessary policy guidance for the Defense Assistance Awards Data System.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.530" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.530   What are the responsibilities of the DAADS Administrator?</HEAD>
<P>The DAADS Administrator, consistent with guidance issued by the PDASD(R&amp;E):
</P>
<P>(a) Processes DAADS information twice a month and prepares recurring and special reports using such information.
</P>
<P>(b) Prepares, updates, and disseminates instructions for reporting information to the DAADS. The instructions are to specify procedures, formats, and editing processes to be used by DoD Components, including record layout, submission deadlines, media, methods of submission, and error correction schedules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.535" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.535   Do DoD Components have central points for collecting DAADS data?</HEAD>
<P>Each DoD Component must have a central point for collecting DAADS information from contracting activities within that DoD Component. The central points are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) For the Army: As directed by the U.S. Army Contracting Support Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) For the Navy: As directed by the Office of Naval Research.
</P>
<P>(c) For the Air Force: As directed by the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force, Acquisition Contracting Policy and Implementation Division (SAF/AQCP).
</P>
<P>(d) For the Office of the Secretary of Defense, Defense Agencies, and DoD Field Activities: Each Defense Agency must identify a central point for collecting and reporting DAADS information to the DAADS administrator. The DAADS Administrator serves as the central point for offices and activities within the Office of the Secretary of Defense and for DoD Field Activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.540" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.540   What are the duties of the DoD Components' central points for the DAADS?</HEAD>
<P>The office that serves, in accordance with § 21.535, as the central point for collecting DAADS information from contracting activities within each DoD Component must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish internal procedures to ensure reporting by contracting activities that make awards subject to 31 U.S.C. chapter 61.
</P>
<P>(b) Collect information required by the DAADS User Guide from those contracting activities, and report it to the DAADS Administrator, in accordance with §§ 21.545 through 21.555. Note that the DAADS User Guide, which a registered DAADS user may find at the Resources section of the DAADS website (<I>https://www.dmdc.osd.mil/daads/</I>), provides further information about required data elements and instructions for submitting data.
</P>
<P>(c) Submit to the DAADS Administrator any recommended changes to the DAADS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47153, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.545" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.545   Must DoD Components report every obligation to the DAADS?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, DoD Components' central points must collect and report the data required by the DD Form 2566 for each individual action that involves the obligation or deobligation of Federal funds for an award that is subject to 31 U.S.C. chapter 61.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.550" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.550   Must DoD Components relate reported actions to listings in the CFDA?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, DoD Components' central points must report each action as an obligation or deobligation under a specific programmatic listing in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA, see § 21.505). The programmatic listing to be shown is the one that provided the funds being obligated or deobligated. For example, if a grants officer or agreements officer in one DoD Component obligates appropriations of a second DoD Component's programmatic listing, the grants officer or agreements officer must show the CFDA programmatic listing of the second DoD Component on the DD Form 2566.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.555" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.555   When and how must DoD Components report to the DAADS?</HEAD>
<P>DoD Components must report:
</P>
<P>(a) Each obligating or deobligating action no later than 15 days after the date of the obligation or deobligation. Doing so enables DAADS to comply with the deadline in the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act of 2006 (Pub. L. 109-282; 31 U.S.C. 6101 note) to report to the Governmentwide data system (<I>USASpending.gov</I>) established to implement requirements of that Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Using a method and in a format permitted either by the DAADS User Guide described in § 21.540(b) or by agreement with the DAADS Administrator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.560" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.560   Must DoD Components assign numbers uniformly to awards?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, DoD Components must assign identifying numbers to all awards subject to this subpart, including grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements. The uniform numbering system parallels the procurement instrument identification (PII) numbering system specified in 48 CFR 204.70 (in the “Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement”), as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The first six alphanumeric characters of the assigned number must be identical to those specified by 48 CFR 204.7003(a)(1) to identify the DoD Component and contracting activity.
</P>
<P>(b) The seventh and eighth positions must be the last two digits of the fiscal year in which the number is assigned to the grant, cooperative agreement, or other nonprocurement instrument.
</P>
<P>(c) The 9th position must be a number:
</P>
<P>(1) “1” for grants.
</P>
<P>(2) “2” for cooperative agreements, including technology investment agreements that are cooperative agreements (see Appendix B to 32 CFR part 37).
</P>
<P>(3) “3” for other nonprocurement instruments, including technology investment agreements that are not cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P>(d) The 10th through 13th positions must be the serial number of the instrument. DoD Components and contracting activities need not follow any specific pattern in assigning these numbers and may create multiple series of letters and numbers to meet internal needs for distinguishing between various sets of awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.565" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.565   Must DoD Components' electronic systems accept Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) numbers?</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Components must comply with paragraph 5.e of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) policy directive entitled, “Requirement for a DUNS number in Applications for Federal Grants and Cooperative Agreements.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Paragraph 5.e requires electronic systems that handle information about grants and cooperative agreements (which, for the DoD, include Technology Investment Agreements) to accept DUNS numbers. Each DoD Component that awards or administers grants or cooperative agreements must ensure that DUNS numbers are accepted by each such system for which the DoD Component controls the system specifications. If the specifications of such a system are subject to another organization's control and the system can not accept DUNS numbers, the DoD Component must alert that organization to the OMB policy directive's requirement for use of DUNS numbers with a copy to: Director for Basic Research, OASD(R&amp;E), 3040 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3040.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This OMB policy directive is available at the Internet site <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/grants/grants_docs.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 34986, June 26, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.605" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.605   Acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>The acquiring (by purchase, lease, or barter) of property or services for the direct benefit or use of the United States Government (see more detailed definition at 48 CFR 2.101). In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 6303, procurement contracts are the appropriate legal instruments for acquiring such property or services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.610" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.610   Agreements officer.</HEAD>
<P>An official with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate technology investment agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.615" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.615   Assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The transfer of a thing of value to a recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States (<I>see</I> 31 U.S.C. 6101(3)). Grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements are examples of legal instruments used to provide assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.620" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.620   Award.</HEAD>
<P>A grant, cooperative agreement, technology investment agreement, or other nonprocurement instrument subject to one or more parts of the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.625" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.625   Contract.</HEAD>
<P>See the definition for procurement contract in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.630" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.630   Contracting activity.</HEAD>
<P>An activity to which the Head of a DoD Component has delegated broad authority regarding acquisition functions, pursuant to 48 CFR 1.601.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.635" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.635   Contracting officer.</HEAD>
<P>A person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings. A more detailed definition of the term appears at 48 CFR 2.101.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.640" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.640   Cooperative agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition “grant”), except that substantial involvement is expected between the Department of Defense and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the cooperative agreement. The term does not include “cooperative research and development agreements” as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.645" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.645   Deviation.</HEAD>
<P>The issuance or use of a policy or procedure that is inconsistent with the DoDGARs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.650" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.650   DoD Components.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Defense Agencies, and DoD Field Activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.655" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.655   Grant.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship:
</P>
<P>(a) Of which the principal purpose is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the Department of Defense's direct benefit or use.
</P>
<P>(b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between the Department of Defense and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the grant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.660" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.660   Grants officer.</HEAD>
<P>An official with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate grants or cooperative agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.665" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.665   Nonprocurement instrument.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument other than a procurement contract. Examples include instruments of financial assistance, such as grants or cooperative agreements, and those of technical assistance, which provide services in lieu of money.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.670" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.670   Procurement contract.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6303, reflects a relationship between the Federal Government and a State, a local government, or other recipient when the principal purpose of the instrument is to acquire property or services for the direct benefit or use of the Federal Government. See the more detailed definition for contract at 48 CFR 2.101.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.675" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.675   Recipient.</HEAD>
<P>An organization or other entity receiving an award from a DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.680" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.680   Technology investment agreements.</HEAD>
<P>A special class of assistance instruments used to increase involvement of commercial firms in defense research programs and for other purposes related to integrating the commercial and defense sectors of the nation's technology and industrial base. Technology investment agreements include one kind of cooperative agreement with provisions tailored for involving commercial firms, as well as one kind of other assistance transaction. Technology investment agreements are described more fully in 32 CFR part 37.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.5.6.1.17.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 21—Instruments to Which DoDGARs Portions Apply
</HEAD>
<P>I. For each DoDGARs part that DoD already has adopted in chapter XI of title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), the following table summarizes the general subject area that the part addresses and its applicability. All of the DoDGARs ultimately will be located in chapter XI of 2 CFR.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DoDGARs . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Which addresses . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applies to . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 1104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD's interim implementation of the OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants and cooperative agreements other than TIAs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 1108 (2 CFR part 1108)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Definitions of terms</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">terms used throughout the DoDGARs in chapter XI of 2 CFR other than the portion containing regulations implementing specific national policy requirements that provide their own definitions of terms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 1120 (2 CFR part 1120)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Award format</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants and cooperative agreements, other than TIAs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 1122 (2 CFR part 1122)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National policy requirements general award terms and conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants and cooperative agreements other than TIAs. Portions of this part apply to TIAs, but only as 32 CFR part 37 refers to them and makes them apply.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 1125 (2 CFR part 1125)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Governmentwide debarment and suspension requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">nonprocurement generally, including grants, cooperative agreements, TIAs, and any other instruments that are “covered transactions” under OMB guidance in 2 CFR 180.210 and 180.215, as implemented by 2 CFR part 1125, except acquisition transactions to carry out prototype projects (<E T="03">see</E> 2 CFR 1125.20).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parts 1126, 1128, 1130, 1132, 1134, 1136, and 1138 (subchapter D of 2 CFR chapter XI)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administrative Requirements Terms and Conditions for Cost-type Awards to Nonprofit and Governmental Entities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">cost-type grants and cooperative agreements other than TIAs. Portions of this subchapter apply to TIAs, but only as 32 CFR part 37 refers to them and makes them apply.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>II. For each DoDGARs part that will remain in subchapter C of chapter I of title 32 of the CFR, pending completion of the DoDGARs updating needed to fully implement OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 200 and for other purposes, the following table summarizes the general subject area that the part addresses and its applicability. All of the substantive content of these DoDGARs parts ultimately will be located in new parts in chapter XI of 2 CFR.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DoDGARs . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">which addresses . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">applies to . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 21 (32 CFR part 21), all but subparts D and E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Defense Grant and Agreement Regulatory System and the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“awards,” which are grants, cooperative agreements, technology investment agreements (TIAs), and other nonprocurement instruments subject to one or more parts of the DoDGARs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 21 (32 CFR part 21), subpart D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Authorities and responsibilities for assistance award and administration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants, cooperative agreements, and TIAs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 21 (32 CFR part 21), subpart E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Components' information reporting requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants, cooperative agreements, TIAs, and other nonprocurement instruments subject to reporting requirements in 31 U.S.C. chapter 61.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 22 (32 CFR part 22)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD grants officers' responsibilities for award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants and cooperative agreements other than TIAs. Portions of this part apply to TIAs, but only as 32 CFR part 37 refers to them and makes them apply.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 26 (32 CFR part 26)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Governmentwide drug-free workplace requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants, cooperative agreements and other financial assistance instruments, including TIAs, that are included in the definition of “award” at 32 CFR 26.605.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 28 (32 CFR part 28)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Governmentwide restrictions on lobbying</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants, cooperative agreements and other financial assistance instruments, including TIAs, that are included in the definitions of “Federal grant” and “Federal cooperative agreement” at 32 CFR 28.105.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 34 (32 CFR part 34)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administrative requirements for grants and agreements with for-profit organizations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grants and cooperative agreements other than TIAs (“award,” as defined in 32 CFR 34.2). Portions of this part apply to TIAs, but only as 32 CFR part 37 refers to them and makes them apply.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 37 (32 CFR part 37)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreements officers' responsibilities for award and administration of TIAs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TIAs. Note that this part refers to other portions of DoDGARs that apply to TIAs.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51241, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="22" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 22—DoD GRANTS AND AGREEMENTS—AWARD AND ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part outlines grants officers' and DoD Components' responsibilities related to the award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.105" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Other than the terms defined in this section, terms used in this part are defined in 32 CFR part 21, subpart F.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset.</I> An action whereby money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the Government for, a recipient is withheld to satisfy a delinquent debt the recipient owes the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced research.</I> Advanced technology development that creates new technology or demonstrates the viability of applying existing technology to new products and processes in a general way. Advanced research is most closely analogous to precompetitive technology development in the commercial sector (i.e., early phases of research and development on which commercial competitors are willing to collaborate, because the work is not so coupled to specific products and processes that the results of the work must be proprietary). It does not include development of military systems and hardware where specific requirements have been defined. It is typically funded in Advanced Technology Development (Budget Activity 3 and Research Category 6.3A) programs within Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&amp;E).
</P>
<P><I>Applied research.</I> Efforts that attempt to determine and exploit the potential of scientific discoveries or improvements in technology such as new materials, devices, methods and processes. It typically is funded in Applied Research (Budget Activity 2 and Research Category 6.2) programs within Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&amp;E). Applied research normally follows basic research but may not be fully distinguishable from the related basic research. The term does not include efforts whose principal aim is the design, development, or testing of specific products, systems or processes to be considered for sale or acquisition; these efforts are within the definition of “development.”
</P>
<P><I>Basic research.</I> Efforts directed toward increasing knowledge and understanding in science and engineering, rather than the practical application of that knowledge and understanding. It typically is funded within Basic Research (Budget Activity 1 and Research Category 6.1) programs within Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&amp;E). For the purposes of this part, basic research includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Research-related, science and engineering education, including graduate fellowships and research traineeships.
</P>
<P>(2) Research instrumentation and other activities designed to enhance the infrastructure for science and engineering research.
</P>
<P><I>Claim.</I> A written demand or written assertion by one of the parties to a grant or cooperative agreement seeking as a matter of right, the payment of money in a sum certain, the adjustment or interpretation of award terms, or other relief arising under or relating to a grant or cooperative agreement. A routine request for payment that is not in dispute when submitted is not a claim. The submission may be converted to a claim by written notice to the grants officer if it is disputed either as to liability or amount, or is not acted upon in a reasonable time.
</P>
<P><I>Debt.</I> Any amount of money or any property owed to a Federal Agency by any person, organization, or entity except another United States Federal Agency. Debts include any amounts due from insured or guaranteed loans, fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, or overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, fines and forfeitures, and all other claims and similar sources. Amounts due a nonappropriated fund instrumentality are not debts owed the United States, for the purposes of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt.</I> A debt:
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor fails to pay by the date specified in the initial written notice from the agency owed the debt, normally within 30 calendar days, unless the debtor makes satisfactory payment arrangements with the agency by that date; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to which the debtor has elected not to exercise any available appeals or has exhausted all agency appeal processes.
</P>
<P><I>Development.</I> The systematic use of scientific and technical knowledge in the design, development, testing, or evaluation of potential new products, processes, or services to meet specific performance requirements or objectives. It includes the functions of design engineering, prototyping, and engineering testing.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic commerce.</I> The conduct of business through the use of automation and electronic media, in lieu of paper transactions, direct personal contact, telephone, or other means. For grants and cooperative agreements, electronic commerce can include the use of electronic data interchange, electronic mail, electronic bulletin board systems, and electronic funds transfer for: program announcements or solicitations; applications or proposals; award documents; recipients' requests for payment; payment authorizations; and payments.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic data interchange.</I> The exchange of standardized information communicated electronically between business partners, typically between computers. It is DoD policy that DoD Component EDI applications conform to the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), Accredited Standards Committee (ASC) X-12 standard. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available from Accredited Standards Committee, X-12 Secretariat, Data Interchange Standards Association, 1800 Diagonal Road, Suite 355, Alexandria, VA 22314-2852; Attention: Manager Maintenance and Publications.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Electronic funds transfer.</I> A system that provides the authority to debit or credit accounts in financial institutions by electronic means rather than source documents (e.g., paper checks). Processing typically occurs through the Federal Reserve System and/or the Automated Clearing House (ACH) computer network. It is DoD policy that DoD Component EFT transmissions conform to the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), Accredited Standards Committee (ASC) X-12 standard.
</P>
<P><I>Historically Black colleges and universities.</I> Institutions of higher education determined by the Secretary of Education to meet the requirements of 34 CFR 608.2. Each DoD Component's contracting activities and grants officers may obtain a list of historically Black colleges and universities from that DoD Component's Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization office.
</P>
<P><I>Institution of higher education.</I> An educational institution that meets the criteria in section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1141(a)). Note, however, that institution of higher education has a different meaning in § 22.520, as given at § 22.520(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Minority institutions.</I> Institutions of higher education that meet the criteria for <I>minority institutions</I> specified in 10 U.S.C. 2323. Each DoD Component's contracting activities and grants officers may obtain copies of a current list of institutions that qualify as <I>minority institutions</I> under 10 U.S.C. 2323 from that DoD Component's Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization office (the list of <I>minority institutions</I> changes periodically, based on Department of Education data on institutions' enrollments of minority students).
</P>
<P><I>Research.</I> Basic, applied, and advanced research, as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Subaward.</I> An award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, made under a DoD grant or cooperative agreement by a recipient to an eligible subrecipient. The term includes financial assistance for substantive program performance by the subrecipient of a portion of the program for which the DoD grant or cooperative agreement was made. It does not include the recipient's procurement of goods and services needed to carry out the program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Selecting the Appropriate Instrument</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.200" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.200   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the bases for determining the appropriate type of instrument in a given situation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.205   Distinguishing assistance from procurement.</HEAD>
<P>Before using a grant or cooperative agreement, the grants officer shall make a positive judgment that an assistance instrument, rather than a procurement contract, is the appropriate instrument, based on the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) The grants officer must judge that the principal purpose of the activity to be carried out under the instrument is to stimulate or support a public purpose (i.e., to provide assistance), rather than acquisition (i.e., to acquire goods and services for the direct benefit of the United States Government). If the principal purpose is acquisition, then the grants officer shall judge that a procurement contract is the appropriate instrument, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. chapter 63 (“Using Procurement Contracts and Grant and Cooperative Agreements”). Assistance instruments shall not be used in such situations, except:
</P>
<P>(i) When a statute specifically provides otherwise; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When an exemption is granted, in accordance with § 22.220.
</P>
<P>(2) For research and development, the appropriate use of grants and cooperative agreements therefore is almost exclusively limited to the performance of selected basic, applied, and advanced research projects. Development projects nearly always shall be performed by contract or other acquisition transaction because their principal purpose is the acquisition of specific deliverable items (e.g., prototypes or other hardware) for the benefit of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee or profit.</I> Payment of fee or profit is consistent with an activity whose principal purpose is the acquisition of goods and services for the direct benefit or use of the United States Government, rather than an activity whose principal purpose is assistance. Therefore, the grants officer shall use a procurement contract, rather than an assistance instrument, in all cases where:
</P>
<P>(1) Fee or profit is to be paid to the recipient of the instrument; or
</P>
<P>(2) The instrument is to be used to carry out a program where fee or profit is necessary to achieving program objectives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.210   Authority for providing assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before a grant or cooperative agreement may be used, the grants officer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the program statute, the statute that authorizes the DoD Component to carry out the activity the principal purpose of which is assistance (see 32 CFR 21.410 through 21.420.
</P>
<P>(2) Review the program statute to determine if it contains requirements that affect the:
</P>
<P>(i) Solicitation, selection, and award processes. For example, program statutes may authorize assistance to be provided only to certain types of recipients; may require that recipients meet certain other criteria to be eligible to receive assistance; or require that a specific process shall be used to review recipients' proposals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Terms and conditions of the award. For example, some program statutes require a specific level of cost sharing or matching.
</P>
<P>(b) The grants officer shall ensure that the award of DoD appropriations through a grant or cooperative agreement for a research project meets the standards of 10 U.S.C. 2358, DoD's broad authority to carry out research, even if the research project is authorized under a statutory authority other than 10 U.S.C. 2358. The standards of 10 U.S.C. 2358 are that, in the opinion of the Head of the DoD Component or his or her designee, the projects must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Necessary to the responsibilities of the DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(2) Related to weapons systems and other military needs or of potential interest to the DoD Component.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.215" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.215   Distinguishing grants and cooperative agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a grants officer judges, in accordance with §§ 22.205 and 22.210, that either a grant or cooperative agreement is the appropriate instrument, the grants officer shall distinguish between the two instruments as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Grants shall be used when the grants officer judges that substantial involvement is not expected between the Department of Defense and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated in the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperative agreements shall be used when the grants officer judges that substantial involvement is expected. The grants officer should document the nature of the substantial involvement that led to selection of a cooperative agreement. Under no circumstances are cooperative agreements to be used solely to obtain the stricter controls typical of a contract.
</P>
<P>(b) In judging whether substantial involvement is expected, grants officers should recognize that “substantial involvement” is a relative, rather than an absolute, concept, and that it is primarily based on programmatic factors, rather than requirements for grant or cooperative agreement award or administration. For example, substantial involvement may include collaboration, participation, or intervention in the program or activity to be performed under the award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.220" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.220   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Under 31 U.S.C. 6307, “the Director of the Office of Management and Budget may exempt an agency transaction or program” from the requirements of 31 U.S.C. chapter 63. Grants officers shall request such exemptions only in exceptional circumstances. Each request shall specify for which individual transaction or program the exemption is sought; the reasons for requesting an exemption; the anticipated consequences if the exemption is not granted; and the implications for other agency transactions and programs if the exemption is granted. The procedures for requesting exemptions shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) In cases where 31 U.S.C. chapter 63 would require use of a contract and an exemption from that requirement is desired:
</P>
<P>(1) The grants officer shall submit a request for exemption, through appropriate channels established by his or her DoD Component (see 32 CFR 21.320(a)), to the Director of Defense Procurement and Acquisition Policy (DDP&amp;AP).
</P>
<P>(2) The DDP&amp;AP, after coordination with the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (ASD (R&amp;E)), shall transmit the request to OMB or notify the DoD Component that the request has been disapproved.
</P>
<P>(b) In other cases, the DoD Component shall submit a request for the exemption through appropriate channels to the ASD (R&amp;E). The ASD (R&amp;E) shall transmit the request to OMB or notify the DoD Component that the request has been disapproved.
</P>
<P>(c) Where an exemption is granted, documentation of the approval shall be maintained in the award file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003; 70 FR 49464, Aug. 23, 2005; 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Competition</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.300   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes DoD policy and implements statutes related to the use of competitive procedures in the award of grants and cooperative agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.305" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.305   General policy and requirement for competition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy to maximize use of competition in the award of grants and cooperative agreements. This also conforms with:
</P>
<P>(1) 31 U.S.C. 6301(3), which encourages the use of competition in awarding all grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P>(2) 10 U.S.C. 2374(a), which sets out Congressional policy that any new grant for research, development, test, or evaluation be awarded through merit-based selection procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) Grants officers shall use merit-based, competitive procedures (as defined by § 22.315) to award grants and cooperative agreements:
</P>
<P>(1) In every case where required by statute (e.g., 10 U.S.C. 2361, as implemented in § 22.310, for certain grants to institutions of higher education).
</P>
<P>(2) To the maximum extent practicable in all cases where not required by statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.310" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.310   Statutes concerning certain research, development, and facilities construction grants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions specific to this section.</I> For the purposes of implementing the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 2374 in this section, the following terms are defined:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Follow-on grant.</I> A grant that provides for continuation of research and development performed by a recipient under a preceding grant. Note that follow-on grants are distinct from incremental funding actions during the period of execution of a multi-year award.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New grant.</I> A grant that is not a follow-on grant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory requirement to use competitive procedures.</I> (1) A grants officer shall not award a grant by other than merit-based, competitive procedures (as defined by § 22.315) to an institution of higher education for the performance of research and development or for the construction of research or other facilities, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a new grant for research and development, there is a statute meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a follow-on grant for research and development, or of a grant for the construction of research or other facilities, there is a statute meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary of Defense submits to Congress a written notice of intent to make the grant. The grant may not be awarded until 180 calendar days have elapsed after the date on which Congress received the notice of intent. Contracting activities must submit a draft notice of intent with supporting documentation through channels to the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering.
</P>
<P>(2) Because subsequently enacted statutes may, by their terms, impose different requirements than set out in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, grants officers shall consult legal counsel on a case-by-case basis, when grants for the performance of research and development or for the construction of research or other facilities are to be awarded to institutions of higher education by other than merit-based competitive procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subsequent statutes.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2361 and 10 U.S.C. 2374, a provision of law may not be construed as requiring the award of a grant through other than the merit-based, competitive procedures described in § 22.315, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Institutions of higher education—new grants for research and development.</I> In the case of a new grant for research and development to an institution of higher education, such provision of law specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the particular institution of higher education involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) States that such provision of law modifies or supersedes the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2361 (a requirement that applies only if the statute authorizing or requiring award by other than competitive procedures was enacted after September 30, 1989); and
</P>
<P>(iii) States that the award to the institution of higher education involved is required by such provision of law to be made in contravention of the policy set forth in 10 U.S.C. 2374(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institutions of higher education—follow-on grants for research and development and grants for the construction of any research or other facility.</I> In the case of any such grant to an institution of higher education, such provision of law specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the particular institution of higher education involved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) States that such provision of law modifies or supersedes the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2361 (a requirement that applies only if the statute authorizing or requiring award by other than competitive procedures was enacted after September 30, 1989).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other entities—new grants for research and development</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> In the case of a new grant for research and development to an entity other than an institution of higher education, such provision of law specifically:
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies the particular entity involved;
</P>
<P>(B) States that the award to that entity is required by such provision of law to be made in contravention of the policy set forth in 10 U.S.C. 2374(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The requirement of paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to any grant that calls upon the National Academy of Sciences to:
</P>
<P>(A) Investigate, examine, or experiment upon any subject of science or art of significance to the Department of Defense or any Military Department; and
</P>
<P>(B) Report on such matters to the Congress or any agency of the Federal Government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.315" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.315   Merit-based, competitive procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Competitive procedures are methods that encourage participation in DoD programs by a broad base of the most highly qualified performers. These procedures are characterized by competition among as many eligible proposers as possible, with a published or widely disseminated notice. Competitive procedures include, as a minimum:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to prospective proposers.</I> The notice may be a notice of funding availability or Broad Agency Announcement that is publicly disseminated, with unlimited distribution, or a specific notice that is distributed to eligible proposers (a specific notice must be distributed to at least two eligible proposers to be considered as part of a competitive procedure). Requirements for notices are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The format and content of each notice must conform with the Governmentwide format for announcements of funding opportunities established by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in a policy directive entitled, “Format for Financial Assistance Program Announcements.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This OMB policy directive is available at the Internet site <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/grants/grants_docs.html</I> (the link is “Final Policy Directive on Financial Assistance Program Announcements”).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) In accordance with that OMB policy directive, DoD Components also must post on the Internet any notice under which domestic entities may submit proposals, if the distribution of the notice is unlimited. DoD Components are encouraged to simultaneously publish the notice in other media (<I>e.g.</I>, the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>), if doing so would increase the likelihood of its being seen by potential proposers. If a DoD Component issues a specific notice with limited distribution (<I>e.g.</I>, for national security considerations), the notice need not be posted on the Internet.
</P>
<P>(3) To comply with an OMB policy directive entitled, “Requirement to Post Funding Opportunity Announcement Synopses at Grants.gov and Related Data Elements/Format,” 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> DoD Components must post on the Internet a synopsis for each notice that, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, is posted on the Internet. The synopsis must be posted at the Governmentwide site designated by the OMB (currently <I>http://www.Grants.gov</I>). The synopsis for each notice must provide complete instructions on where to obtain the notice and should have an electronic link to the Internet location at which the notice is posted.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> This OMB policy directive is available at the Internet site <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/grants/grants_docs.html</I> (the link is “Office of Federal Financial Management Policy Directive on Use of Grants.Gov FIND”).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) In accordance with an OMB policy directive entitled, “Requirement for a DUNS Number in Applications for Federal Grants and Cooperative Agreements,” 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> each notice must include a requirement for proposers to include Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) numbers in their proposals. If a notice provides for submission of application forms, the forms must incorporate the DUNS number. To the extent that unincorporated consortia of separate organizations may submit proposals, the notice should explain that an unincorporated consortium would use the DUNS number of the entity proposed to receive DoD payments under the award (usually, a lead organization that consortium members identify for administrative matters). 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> This OMB policy directive is available at the Internet site <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/grants/grants_docs.html</I> (the link is “Use of a Universal Identifier by Grant Applicants”).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) At least two eligible, prospective proposers.
</P>
<P>(c) Impartial review of the merits of applications or proposals received in response to the notice, using the evaluation method and selection criteria described in the notice. For research and development awards, in order to be considered as part of a competitive procedure, the two principal selection criteria, unless statute provides otherwise, must be the:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical merits of the proposed research and development; and
</P>
<P>(2) Potential relationship of the proposed research and development to Department of Defense missions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49464, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34988, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.320" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.320   Special competitions.</HEAD>
<P>Some programs may be competed for programmatic or policy reasons among specific classes of potential recipients. An example would be a program to enhance U.S. capabilities for academic research and research-coupled graduate education in defense-critical, science and engineering disciplines, a program that would be competed specifically among institutions of higher education. All such special competitions shall be consistent with program representations in the President's budget submission to Congress and with subsequent Congressional authorizations and appropriations for the programs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Recipient Qualification Matters—General Policies and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.400" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.400   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to specify policies and procedures for grants officers' determination of recipient qualifications prior to award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.405" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.405   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Grants officers normally shall award grants or cooperative agreements only to qualified recipients that meet the standards in § 22.415. This practice conforms with the Governmentwide policy to do business only with responsible persons, which is stated in OMB guidance at 2 CFR 180.125(a) and implemented by the Department of Defense in 2 CFR part 1125.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> In exceptional circumstances, grants officers may make awards to recipients that do not fully meet the standards in § 22.415 and include special award conditions that are appropriate to the particular situation, in accordance with 32 CFR 34.4 for awards to for-profit organizations or as described in OMB guidance at 2 CFR 200.207 for awards to institutions of higher education, nonprofit organizations, States, local governments, and Indian tribes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49464, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34988, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.410" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.410   Grants officers' responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The grants officer is responsible for determining a recipient's qualification prior to award. The grants officer's signature on the award document shall signify his or her determination that either:
</P>
<P>(a) The potential recipient meets the standards in § 22.415 and is qualified to receive the grant or cooperative agreement; or
</P>
<P>(b) An award is justified to a recipient that does not fully meet the standards, pursuant to § 22.405(b). In such cases, grants officers shall document in the award file the rationale for making an award to a recipient that does not fully meet the standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.415" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.415   Standards.</HEAD>
<P>To be qualified, a potential recipient must:
</P>
<P>(a) Have the management capability and adequate financial and technical resources, given those that would be made available through the grant or cooperative agreement, to execute the program of activities envisioned under the grant or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Have a satisfactory record of executing such programs or activities (if a prior recipient of an award).
</P>
<P>(c) Have a satisfactory record of integrity and business ethics.
</P>
<P>(d) Be otherwise qualified and eligible to receive a grant or cooperative agreement under applicable laws and regulations (see § 22.420(c)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.420" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.420   Pre-award procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate method to be used and amount of effort to be expended in deciding the qualification of a potential recipient will vary. In deciding on the method and level of effort, the grants officer should consider factors such as:
</P>
<P>(1) DoD's past experience with the recipient;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the recipient has previously received cost-type contracts, grants, or cooperative agreements from the Federal Government; and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the prospective award and complexity of the project to be carried out under the award.
</P>
<P>(b) There is no DoD-wide requirement to obtain a pre-award credit report, audit, or any other specific piece of information. On a case-by-case basis, the grants officer will decide whether there is a need to obtain any such information to assist in deciding whether the recipient meets the standards in § 22.415 (a), (b), and (c).
</P>
<P>(1) Should the grants officer in a particular case decide that a pre-award credit report, audit, or survey is needed, he or she should consult first with the appropriate grants administration office (identified in § 22.710), and decide whether pre-existing surveys or audits of the recipient, such as those of the recipient's internal control systems under OMB guidance in subpart F of 2 CFR part 200, will satisfy the need (see § 22.715(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(2) If, after consulting with the grants administration office, the grants officer decides to obtain a credit report, audit, or other information, and the report or other information discloses that a potential recipient is delinquent on a debt to an agency of the United States Government, then:
</P>
<P>(i) The grants officer shall take such information into account when determining whether the potential recipient is qualified with respect to the grant or cooperative agreement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the grants officer decides to make the award to the recipient, unless there are compelling reasons to do otherwise, the grants officer shall delay the award of the grant or cooperative agreement until payment is made or satisfactory arrangements are made to repay the debt.
</P>
<P>(c) In deciding whether a recipient is otherwise qualified and eligible in accordance with the standard in § 22.415(d), the grants officer shall ensure that the potential recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not identified in the Exclusions area of the System for Award Management (SAM Exclusions) as being debarred, suspended, or otherwise ineligible to receive the award (SAM is at <I>www.sam.gov</I>). In addition to being a requirement for every new award, note that checking SAM Exclusions also is a requirement for subsequent obligations of additional funds, such as incremental funding actions, in the case of pre-existing awards to institutions of higher education, as described at § 22.520(e)(5). The grants officer's responsibilities include (see the OMB guidance at 2 CFR 180.425 and 180.430, as implemented by the Department of Defense at 2 CFR 1125.425) checking SAM Exclusions for:
</P>
<P>(i) Potential recipients of prime awards; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient's principals (as defined in OMB guidance at 2 CFR 180.995, implemented by the Department of Defense in 2 CFR part 1125), potential recipients of subawards, and principals of those potential subaward recipients, if DoD Component approval of those principals or lower-tier recipients is required under the terms of the award.
</P>
<P>(2) Has provided all certifications and assurances required by Federal statute, Executive order, or codified regulation, unless they are to be addressed in award terms and conditions at the time of award (see § 22.510).
</P>
<P>(3) Meets any eligibility criteria that may be specified in the statute authorizing the specific program under which the award is being made (see § 22.210(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Grants officers shall obtain each recipient's Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN, which may be the Social Security Number for an individual and Employer Identification Number for a business or non-profit entity) and notify the recipient that the TIN is being obtained for purposes of collecting and reporting on any delinquent amounts that may arise out of the recipient's relationship with the Government. Obtaining the TIN and so notifying the recipient is a statutory requirement of 31 U.S.C. 7701, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (section 31001(i)(1), Pub. L. 104-134).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49464, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34988, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—National Policy Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.505" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.505   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to supplement other regulations that implement national policy requirements, to the extent that it is necessary to provide additional guidance to DoD grants officers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.510" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.510   Certifications, representations, and assurances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certifications</I>—(1) <I>Policy.</I> Certifications of compliance with national policy requirements are to be obtained from recipients only for those national policies where a statute, Executive order, or codified regulation specifically states that a certification is required. Other national policy requirements may be addressed by obtaining representations or assurances (see paragraph (b) of this section). Grants officers should utilize methods for obtaining certifications, in accordance with Executive Order 12866 (3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 638), that minimize administration and paperwork.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) When necessary, grants officers may obtain individual, written certifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever possible, and to the extent consistent with statute and codified regulation, grants officers should identify the certifications that are required for the particular type of recipient and program, and consolidate them into a single certification provision that cites them by reference.
</P>
<P>(A) If a grants officer elects to have proposers incorporate certifications by reference into their proposals, he or she must do so in one of the two following ways. When required by statute or codified regulation, the solicitation must include the full text of the certifications that proposers are to provide by reference. In other cases, the grants officer may include language in the solicitation that informs the proposers where the full text may be found (<I>e.g.,</I> in documents or computer network sites that are readily available to the public) and offers to provide it to proposers upon request.
</P>
<P>(B) Appendix A to this part provides language that may be used for incorporating by reference the certification on lobbying, which currently is the only certification requirement that commonly applies to DoD grants and agreements. Because that certification is required by law to be submitted at the time of proposal, rather than at the time of award, Appendix A includes language to incorporate the certification by reference into a proposal.
</P>
<P>(C) Grants officers may incorporate certifications by reference in award documents when doing so is consistent with statute and codified regulation (that is not the case for the lobbying certification addressed in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section). The provision that a grants officer would use to incorporate certifications in award documents, when consistent with statute and codified regulation, would be similar to the provision in Appendix A to this part, except that it would be modified to state that the recipient is providing the required certifications by signing the award document or by accepting funds under the award.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representations and assurances.</I> Many national policies, either in statute or in regulation, require recipients of grants and cooperative agreements to make representations or provide assurances (rather than certifications) that they are in compliance with the policies. Part 1122 of the DoDGARs (2 CFR part 1122) provides standard wording of general award terms and conditions to address several of the more commonly applicable national policy requirements. These terms and conditions may be used to obtain required assurances and representations for national policy matters covered in part 1122 at the time of award, which is as effective and more efficient and less administratively burdensome than obtaining them at the time of each proposal. If any other assurances or representations must be obtained at the time of proposal, grants officers should use the most efficient method for doing so—<I>e.g.,</I> for a program that has a program announcement and applications using the standard application form (SF-424 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>), the program announcement should include the texts of the required assurances and representations and clearly state that the applicant's electronic signature of the SF-424 will serve to affirm its agreement with each representation or assurance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For copies of Standard Forms listed in this part, contact regional grants administration offices of the Office of Naval Research. Addresses for the offices are listed in the “Federal Directory of Contract Administration Services (CAS) Components,” which may be accessed through the Defense Contract Management Agency homepage at: <I>http://www.dcma.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49464, Aug. 23, 2005; 85 FR 51242, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.515" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.515   Provisions of annual appropriations acts.</HEAD>
<P>An annual appropriations act can include general provisions stating national policy requirements that apply to the use of funds (e.g., obligation through a grant or cooperative agreement) appropriated by the act. Because these requirements are of limited duration (the period during which a given year's appropriations are available for obligation), and because they can vary from year to year and from one agency's appropriations act to another agency's, the grants officer must know the agency(ies) and fiscal year(s) of the appropriations being obligated by a given grant or cooperative agreement, and may need to consult legal counsel if he or she does not know the requirements applicable to those appropriations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.520" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.520   Campus access for military recruiting and Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) The purpose of this section is to implement 10 U.S.C. 983 as it applies to grants. Under that statute, DoD Components are prohibited from providing funds to institutions of higher education that have policies or practices, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, restricting campus access of military recruiters or the Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC).
</P>
<P>(2) By addressing the effect of 10 U.S.C. 983 on grants and cooperative agreements, this section supplements the DoD's primary implementation of that statute in 32 CFR part 216, “Military Recruiting and Reserve Officer Training Corps Program Access to Institutions of Higher Education.” Part 216 establishes procedures by which the Department of Defense identifies institutions of higher education that have a policy or practice described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition specific to this section.</I> “Institution of higher education” in this section has the meaning given at 32 CFR 216.3, which is different than the meaning given at § 22.105 for other sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statutory requirement of 10 U.S.C. 983.</I> No funds made available to the Department of Defense may be provided by grant to an institution of higher education (including any subelement of such institution) if the Secretary of Defense determines that the institution (or any subelement of that institution) has a policy or practice that either prohibits, or in effect prevents:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of a Military Department from maintaining, establishing, or operating a unit of the Senior ROTC (in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 654 and other applicable Federal laws) at that institution (or any subelement of that institution);
</P>
<P>(2) A student at that institution (or any subelement of that institution) from enrolling in a unit of the Senior ROTC at another institution of higher education;
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of a Military Department or Secretary of Homeland Security from gaining access to campuses, or access to students (who are 17 years of age or older) on campuses, for purposes of military recruiting in a manner that is at least equal in quality and scope to the access to campuses and to students that is provided to any other employer; or
</P>
<P>(4) Access by military recruiters for purposes of military recruiting to the following information pertaining to students (who are 17 years of age or older) enrolled at that institution (or any subelement of that institution):
</P>
<P>(i) Names, addresses, and telephone listings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date and place of birth, levels of education, academic majors, degrees received, and the most recent educational institution enrolled in by the student.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Policy</I>—(1) <I>Applicability to cooperative agreements.</I> As a matter of DoD policy, the restrictions of 10 U.S.C. 983, as implemented by 32 CFR part 216, apply to cooperative agreements, as well as grants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deviations.</I> Grants officers may not deviate from any provision of this section without obtaining the prior approval of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering. Requests for deviations shall be submitted, through appropriate channels, to: Director for Basic Research, OASD(R&amp;E), 3040 Defense Pentagon, Washington, D.C. 20301-3040.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grants officers' responsibility.</I> (1) A grants officer shall not award any grant or cooperative agreement to an institution of higher education that has been identified pursuant to the procedures of 32 CFR part 216. Such institutions are identified as being ineligible in the Exclusions area of the System for Award Management (SAM Exclusions). The exclusion types in SAM Exclusions broadly indicate the nature of an institution's ineligibility, as well as the effect of the exclusion, and the Additional Comments field may have further details about the exclusion. Note that OMB guidance in 2 CFR 180.425 and 180.430, as implemented by the Department of Defense at 2 CFR part 1125, require a grants officer to check the SAM Exclusions prior to determining that a recipient is qualified to receive an award.
</P>
<P>(2) A grants officer shall not consent to a subaward of DoD funds to such an institution, under a grant or cooperative agreement to any recipient, if the subaward requires the grants officer's consent.
</P>
<P>(3) A grants officer shall include the following award term in each grant or cooperative agreement with an institution of higher education (note that this requirement does not flow down and that recipients are not required to include the award term in subawards):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“As a condition for receipt of funds available to the Department of Defense (DoD) under this award, the recipient agrees that it is not an institution of higher education (as defined in 32 CFR part 216) that has a policy or practice that either prohibits, or in effect prevents:
</P>
<P>(A) The Secretary of a Military Department from maintaining, establishing, or operating a unit of the Senior Reserve Officers Training Corps (in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 654 and other applicable Federal laws) at that institution (or any subelement of that institution);
</P>
<P>(B) Any student at that institution (or any subelement of that institution) from enrolling in a unit of the Senior ROTC at another institution of higher education;
</P>
<P>(C) The Secretary of a Military Department or Secretary of Homeland Security from gaining access to campuses, or access to students (who are 17 years of age or older) on campuses, for purposes of military recruiting in a manner that is at least equal in quality and scope to the access to campuses and to students that is provided to any other employer; or
</P>
<P>(D) Access by military recruiters for purposes of military recruiting to the names of students (who are 17 years of age or older and enrolled at that institution or any subelement of that institution); their addresses, telephone listings, dates and places of birth, levels of education, academic majors, and degrees received; and the most recent educational institutions in which they were enrolled.
</P>
<FP>If the recipient is determined, using the procedures in 32 CFR part 216, to be such an institution of higher education during the period of performance of this agreement, the Government will cease all payments of DoD funds under this agreement and all other DoD grants and cooperative agreements to the recipient, and it may suspend or terminate such grants and agreements unilaterally for material failure to comply with the terms and conditions of award.”</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) If an institution of higher education refuses to accept the award term in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the grants officer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine that the institution is not qualified with respect to the award. The grants officer may award to an alternative recipient.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transmit the name of the institution, through appropriate channels, to the Director for Accession Policy, Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Military Personnel Policy (ODUSD(MPP)), 4000 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000. This will allow ODUSD(MPP) to decide whether to initiate an evaluation of the institution under 32 CFR part 216, to determine whether it is an institution that has a policy or practice described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to any pre-existing award to an institution of higher education that currently is listed in SAM Exclusions pursuant to a determination under 32 CFR part 216, a grants officer:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall not obligate additional funds available to the DoD for the award. A grants officer therefore must check SAM Exclusions before approving an incremental funding action or other additional funding for any pre-existing award to an institution of higher education. The grants officer may not obligate the additional funds if the cause and treatment code indicates that the reason for an institution's SAM Exclusions listing is a determination under 32 CFR part 216 that institutional policies or practices restrict campus access of military recruiters or ROTC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not approve any request for payment submitted by such an institution (including payments for costs already incurred).
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Terminate the award unless he or she has a reason to believe, after consulting with the ODUSD(MPP), 4000 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000), that the institution may be removed from SAM Exclusions in the near term and have its eligibility restored; and
</P>
<P>(B) Suspend any award that is not immediately terminated, as well as all payments under it.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Post-award administration responsibilities of the Office of Naval Research (ONR).</I> As the DoD office assigned responsibility for performing field administration services for grants and cooperative agreements with institutions of higher education, the ONR shall disseminate the list it receives from the ODUSD(MPP) of institutions of higher education identified pursuant to the procedures of 32 CFR part 216 to:
</P>
<P>(1) ONR field administration offices, with instructions to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disapprove any payment requests under awards to such institutions for which post-award payment administration was delegated to the ONR; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Alert the DoD offices that made the awards to their responsibilities under paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (e)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Awarding offices in DoD Components that may be identified from data in the Defense Assistance Awards Data System (see 32 CFR 21.520 through 21.555) as having awards with such institutions for which post-award payment administration was not delegated to ONR. The ONR is to alert those offices to their responsibilities under paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 49465, Aug. 23, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 34988, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51243, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.525" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.525   Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>Grants officers shall include appropriate award terms or conditions, if a recipient's activities under an award will be subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3500, <I>et seq.</I>):
</P>
<P>(a) Generally, the Act only applies to Federal agencies—it requires agencies to obtain clearance from the Office of Management and Budget before collecting information using forms, schedules, questionnaires, or other methods calling either for answers to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identical questions from ten or more persons other than agencies, instrumentalities, or employees of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Questions from agencies, instrumentalities, or employees of the United States which are to be used for statistical compilations of general public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) The Act applies to similar collections of information by recipients of grants or cooperative agreements only when:
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient collects information at the specific request of the awarding Federal agency; or
</P>
<P>(2) The terms and conditions of the award require specific approval by the agency of the information collection or the collection procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.530" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.530   Metric system of measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory requirement.</I> The Metric Conversion Act of 1975, as amended by the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 (15 U.S.C. 205) and implemented by Executive Order 12770 (3 CFR, 1991 Comp., p. 343), states that:
</P>
<P>(1) The metric system is the preferred measurement system for U.S. trade and commerce.
</P>
<P>(2) The metric system of measurement will be used, to the extent economically feasible, in federal agencies' procurements, grants, and other business-related activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Metric implementation shall not be required to the extent that such use is likely to cause significant inefficiencies or loss of markets to United States firms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities.</I> DoD Components shall ensure that the metric system is used, to the maximum extent practicable, in measurement-sensitive activities supported by programs that use grants and cooperative agreements, and in measurement-sensitive outputs of such programs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Award</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.600" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.600   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth grants officers' responsibilities relating to the award document and other actions at the time of award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.605" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.605   Grants officers' responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>At the time of award, the grants officer is responsible for ensuring that:
</P>
<P>(a) The award:
</P>
<P>(1) Conforms to the award format specified in 2 CFR part 1120.
</P>
<P>(2) Includes appropriate general terms and conditions and any program-specific and award-specific terms and conditions needed to specify applicable administrative, national policy, and programmatic requirements. These requirements include:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal statutes or Executive orders that apply broadly to Federal or DoD grants and cooperative agreements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any requirements specific to the program, as prescribed in the program statute (see § 22.210(a)(2)), or specific to the funding, as stated in pertinent Congressional appropriations (see § 22.515).
</P>
<P>(b) Information about the award is reported to the Defense Assistance Award Data System (DAADS), in accordance with Subpart E of 32 CFR part 21.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In addition to the copy of the award document provided to the recipient, a copy is forwarded to the office designated to administer the grant or cooperative agreement, and another copy is forwarded to the finance and accounting office designated to make the payments to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) For any award subject to the electronic funds transfer (EFT) requirement described in § 22.810(b)(2), the grants officer shall include a prominent notification of that fact on the first page of the copies forwarded to the recipient, the administrative grants officer, and the finance and accounting office. On the first page of the copy forwarded to the recipient, the grants officer also shall include a prominent notification that the recipient, to be paid, must submit a Payment Information Form (Standard Form SF-3881 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>) to the responsible DoD payment office, if that payment office does not currently have the information (e.g., bank name and account number) needed to pay the recipient by EFT.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 5 to § 22.510(b).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003; 70 FR 49465, Aug. 23, 2005; 85 FR 51243, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Field Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.700" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.700   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes policies and procedures for administering grants and cooperative agreements. It does so in conjunction with 32 CFR part 34 and subchapter D of 2 CFR chapter XI, which prescribe administrative requirements for particular types of recipients.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51243, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.705" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.705   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DoD policy is to have each recipient deal with a single office, to the maximum extent practicable, for post-award administration of its grants and cooperative agreements. This reduces burdens on recipients that can result when multiple DoD offices separately administer grants and cooperative agreements they award to a given recipient. It also minimizes unnecessary duplication of field administration services.
</P>
<P>(b) To further reduce burdens on recipients, the office responsible for performing field administration services for grants and cooperative agreements to a particular recipient shall be, to the maximum extent practicable, the same office that is assigned responsibility for performing field administration services for contracts awarded to that recipient.
</P>
<P>(c) Contracting activities and grants officers therefore shall use cross-servicing arrangements whenever practicable and, to the maximum extent possible, delegate responsibility for post-award administration to the cognizant grants administration offices identified in § 22.710.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.710" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.710   Assignment of grants administration offices.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the policy stated in § 22.705(b), the DoD offices (referred to in this part as “grants administration offices”) that are assigned responsibility for performing field administration services for grants and cooperative agreements are (see the “Federal Directory of Contract Administration Services (CAS) Components” 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> for specific addresses of administration offices):
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The “Federal Directory of Contract Administration Services (CAS) Components” may be accessed through the Defense Contract Management Agency homepage at <I>http://www.dcma.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Regional offices of the Office of Naval Research, for grants and cooperative agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Institutions of higher education and laboratories affiliated with such institutions, to the extent that such organizations are subject to the cost principles in subpart E of 2 CFR part 200.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonprofit organizations that are subject to the cost principles in subpart E of 2 CFR part 200 if their principal business with the Department of Defense is research and development.
</P>
<P>(b) Field offices of the Defense Contract Management Agency, for grants and cooperative agreements with all other entities, including:
</P>
<P>(1) For-profit organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonprofit organizations identified in appendix VIII to 2 CFR part 200 that are subject to for-profit cost principles in 48 CFR part 31.
</P>
<P>(3) Nonprofit organizations subject to the cost principles in subpart E of 2 CFR part 200, if their principal business with the Department of Defense is other than research and development.
</P>
<P>(4) State and local governments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49466, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34989, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51243, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.715" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.715   Grants administration office functions.</HEAD>
<P>The primary responsibility of cognizant grants administration offices shall be to advise and assist grants officers and recipients prior to and after award, and to help ensure that recipients fulfill all requirements in law, regulation, and award terms and conditions. Specific functions include:
</P>
<P>(a) Conducting reviews and coordinating reviews, audits, and audit requests. This includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Advising grants officers on the extent to which audits by independent auditors (i.e., public accountants or Federal auditors) have provided the information needed to carry out their responsibilities. If a recipient has had an independent audit in accordance with subpart F of 2 CFR part 200, and the audit report disclosed no material weaknesses in the recipient's financial management and other management and control systems, additional preaward or closeout audits usually will not be needed (see §§ 22.420(b) and 22.825(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) Performing pre-award surveys, when requested by a grants officer, after providing advice described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Reviewing recipients' systems and compliance with Federal requirements, in coordination with any reviews and compliance audits performed by independent auditors under subpart F of 2 CFR part 200, or in accordance with the terms and conditions of the award. This includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviewing recipients' financial management, property management, and purchasing systems, to determine the adequacy of such systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining that recipients have drug-free workplace programs, as required under 32 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determining that governmental, university and nonprofit recipients have complied with requirements in subpart F of 2 CFR part 200, as implemented at subpart E of 2 CFR part 1128, to have single audits and submit audit reports to the Federal Audit Clearinghouse. If a recipient has not had a required audit, appropriate action must be taken (<I>e.g.,</I> contacting the recipient and coordinating with the Office of the Assistant Inspector General for Audit Policy and Oversight (OAIG(P&amp;O)), Office of the Deputy Inspector General for Inspections and Policy, Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (OIG, DoD), 4800 Mark Center Drive, Alexandria, VA 22350-1500).
</P>
<P>(4) Issuing timely management decisions, in accordance with DoD Instruction 7640.02, “Policy for Follow-up on Contract Audit Reports,” 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> on single audit findings referred by the OIG, DoD, under DoD Instruction 7600.10, “Audits of States, Local Governments, and Non-Profit Organizations.” 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Electronic copies may be obtained at the Washington Headquarters Services Internet site <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I> Paper copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 8 to this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Performing property administration services for Government-owned property, and for any property acquired by a recipient, with respect to which the recipient has further obligations to the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) Ensuring timely submission of required reports.
</P>
<P>(d) Executing administrative closeout procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) Establishing recipients' indirect cost rates, where the Department of Defense is the cognizant or oversight Federal agency with the responsibility for doing so.
</P>
<P>(f) Performing other administration functions (e.g., receiving recipients' payment requests and transmitting approved payment authorizations to payment offices) as delegated by applicable cross-servicing agreements or letters of delegation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49466, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34989, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51243, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Post-Award Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.800" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.800   Purpose and relation to other parts.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth grants officers' and DoD Components' responsibilities for post-award administration, by providing DoD-specific requirements on payments; debt collection; claims, disputes and appeals; and closeout audits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.805" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.805   Post-award requirements in other parts.</HEAD>
<P>Grants officers responsible for post-award administration of grants and cooperative agreements shall administer such awards in accordance with the following parts of the DoDGARs, as supplemented by this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Awards to domestic recipients.</I> Standard administrative requirements for grants and cooperative agreements with domestic recipients are specified in other parts of the DoDGARs, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For awards to domestic institutions of higher education, nonprofit organizations, States, local governments, and Indian tribes, requirements are specified in subchapter D of 2 CFR chapter XI.
</P>
<P>(2) For awards to domestic for-profit organizations, requirements are specified in 32 CFR part 34.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Awards to foreign recipients.</I> DoD Components shall use the administrative requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section, to the maximum extent practicable, for grants and cooperative agreements to foreign recipients.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.810" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.810   Payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section prescribes policies and grants officers' post-award responsibilities, with respect to payments to recipients of grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> (1) It is Governmentwide policy to minimize the time elapsing between any payment of funds to a recipient and the recipient's disbursement of the funds for program purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) It also is a Governmentwide requirement to use electronic funds transfer (EFT) in the payment of any grant unless the recipient has obtained a waiver in accordance with Department of the Treasury regulations at 31 CFR part 208. As a matter of DoD policy, this requirement applies to cooperative agreements, as well as grants. Within the Department of Defense, the Defense Finance and Accounting Service implements this EFT requirement, and grants officers have collateral responsibilities at the time of award, as described in § 22.605(c), and in post-award administration, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Expanding on these Governmentwide policies, DoD policy is for DoD Components to use electronic commerce, to the maximum extent practicable, in the portions of the payment process for grants and cooperative agreements for which grants officers are responsible. In cases where recipients submit each payment request to the grants officer, this includes using electronic methods to receive recipients' requests for payment and to transmit authorizations for payment to the DoD payment office. Using electronic methods will improve timeliness and accuracy of payments and reduce administrative burdens associated with paper-based payments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-award responsibilities.</I> In cases where the recipient submits each payment request to the grants officer, the administrative grants officer designated to handle payments for a grant or cooperative agreement is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing each payment request to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The request complies with the award terms.
</P>
<P>(ii) Available funds are adequate to pay the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) The recipient will not have excess cash on hand, based on expenditure patterns.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintaining a close working relationship with the personnel in the finance and accounting office responsible for making the payments. A good working relationship is necessary, to ensure timely and accurate handling of financial transactions for grants and cooperative agreements. Administrative grants officers:
</P>
<P>(i) Should be generally familiar with policies and procedures for disbursing offices that are contained in Chapter 19 of Volume 10 of the DoD Financial Management Regulation (the FMR, DoD 7000.14-R 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 8 to § 22.715(a)(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Shall forward authorizations to the designated payment office expeditiously, so that payments may be made in accordance with the timely payment guidelines in Chapter 19 of Volume 10 of the FMR. Unless alternative arrangements are made with the payment office, authorizations should be forwarded to the payment office at least 3 working days before the end of the period specified in the FMR. The period specified in the FMR is:
</P>
<P>(A) No more than seven calendar days after receipt of the recipient's request by the administrative grants officer, whenever electronic commerce is used (i.e., EDI to request and authorize payments and electronic funds transfer (EFT) to make payments).
</P>
<P>(B) No more than thirty calendar days after receipt of the recipient's request by the administrative grants officer, when it is not possible to use electronic commerce and paper transactions are used.
</P>
<P>(C) No more than seven calendar days after each date specified, when payments are authorized in advance based on a predetermined payment schedule, provided that the payment schedule was received in the disbursing office at least 30 calendar days in advance of the date of the scheduled payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall ensure that, for recipients not required to register in the System for Award Management, the recipients' Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) is included with each payment authorization forwarded to the payment office. This is a statutory requirement of 31 U.S.C. 3325, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (section 31001(y), Pub. L. 104-134).
</P>
<P>(iv) For each award that is required to be paid by EFT (see § 22.605(c) and (§ 22.810(b)(2)), shall prominently indicate that fact in the payment authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49467, Aug. 23, 2005; 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.815" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.815   Claims, disputes, and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Award terms.</I> Grants officers shall include in grants and cooperative agreements a term or condition that incorporates the procedures of this section for:
</P>
<P>(1) Processing recipient claims and disputes.
</P>
<P>(2) Deciding appeals of grants officers' decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of claims</I>—(1) <I>Recipient claims.</I> If a recipient wishes to submit a claim arising out of or relating to a grant or cooperative agreement, the grants officer shall inform the recipient that the claim must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted in writing to the grants officer for decision;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the nature and basis for the relief requested; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include all data that supports the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DoD Component claims.</I> Claims by a DoD Component shall be the subject of a written decision by a grants officer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)</I>—(1) <I>Policy.</I> DoD policy is to try to resolve all issues concerning grants and cooperative agreements by mutual agreement at the grants officer's level. DoD Components therefore are encouraged to use ADR procedures to the maximum extent practicable. ADR procedures are any voluntary means (e.g., mini-trials or mediation) used to resolve issues in controversy without resorting to formal administrative appeals (see paragraph (e) of this section) or to litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) The ADR procedures or techniques to be used may either be agreed upon by the Government and the recipient in advance (e.g., when agreeing on the terms and conditions of the grant or cooperative agreement), or may be agreed upon at the time the parties determine to use ADR procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a grants officer and a recipient are not able to resolve an issue through unassisted negotiations, the grants officer shall encourage the recipient to enter into ADR procedures. ADR procedures may be used prior to submission of a recipient's claim or at any time prior to the Grant Appeal Authority's decision on a recipient's appeal (see paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grants officer decisions.</I> (1) Within 60 calendar days of receipt of a written claim, the grants officer shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Prepare a written decision, which shall include the reasons for the decision; shall identify all relevant data on which the decision is based; shall identify the cognizant Grant Appeal Authority and give his or her mailing address; and shall be included in the award file; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the recipient of a specific date when he or she will render a written decision, if more time is required to do so. The notice shall inform the recipient of the reason for delaying the decision (e.g., the complexity of the claim, a need for more time to complete ADR procedures, or a need for the recipient to provide additional information to support the claim).
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the grants officer shall be final, unless the recipient decides to appeal. If a recipient decides to appeal a grants officer's decision, the grants officer shall encourage the recipient to enter into ADR procedures, as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Formal administrative appeals</I>—(1) <I>Grant appeal authorities.</I> Each DoD Component that awards grants or cooperative agreements shall establish one or more Grant Appeal Authorities to decide formal, administrative appeals in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section. Each Grant Appeal Authority shall be either:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual at a grade level in the Senior Executive Service, if civilian, or at the rank of Flag or General Officer, if military; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A board chaired by such an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Right of appeal.</I> A recipient has the right to appeal a grants officer's decision to the Grant Appeal Authority (but note that ADR procedures, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, are the preferred means for resolving any appeal).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appeal procedures</I>—(i) <I>Notice of appeal.</I> A recipient may appeal a decision of the grants officer within 90 calendar days of receiving that decision, by filing a written notice of appeal to the Grant Appeal Authority and to the grants officer. If a recipient elects to use an ADR procedure, the recipient is permitted an additional 60 calendar days to file the written notice of appeal to the Grant Appeal Authority and grants officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appeal file.</I> Within 30 calendar days of receiving the notice of appeal, the grants officer shall forward to the Grant Appeal Authority and the recipient the appeal file, which shall include copies of all documents relevant to the appeal. The recipient may supplement the file with additional documents it deems relevant. Either the grants officer or the recipient may supplement the file with a memorandum in support of its position. The Grant Appeal Authority may request additional information from either the grants officer or the recipient.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Decision.</I> The appeal shall be decided solely on the basis of the written record, unless the Grant Appeal Authority decides to conduct fact-finding procedures or an oral hearing on the appeal. Any fact-finding or hearing shall be conducted using procedures that the Grant Appeal Authority deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Representation.</I> A recipient may be represented by counsel or any other designated representative in any claim, appeal, or ADR proceeding brought pursuant to this section, as long as the representative is not otherwise prohibited by law or regulation from appearing before the DoD Component concerned.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Non-exclusivity of remedies.</I> Nothing in this section is intended to limit a recipient's right to any remedy under the law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.820" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.820   Debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section prescribes procedures for establishing debts owed by recipients of grants and cooperative agreements, and transferring them to payment offices for collection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Resolution of indebtedness.</I> The grants officer shall attempt to resolve by mutual agreement any claim of a recipient's indebtedness to the United States arising out of a grant or cooperative agreement (e.g., by a finding that a recipient was paid funds in excess of the amount to which the recipient was entitled under the terms and conditions of the award).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grants officer's decision.</I> In the absence of such mutual agreement, any claim of a recipient's indebtedness shall be the subject of a grants officer decision, in accordance with § 22.815(b)(2). The grants officer shall prepare and transmit to the recipient a written notice that:
</P>
<P>(1) Describes the debt, including the amount, the name and address of the official who determined the debt (e.g., the grants officer under § 22.815(d)), and a copy of that determination.
</P>
<P>(2) Informs the recipient that:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 calendar days of the grants officer's decision, the recipient shall either pay the amount owed to the grants officer (at the address that was provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section) or inform the grants officer of the recipient's intention to appeal the decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the recipient elects not to appeal, any amounts not paid within 30 calendar days of the grants officer's decision will be a delinquent debt.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the recipient elects to appeal the grants officer's decision the recipient has 90 calendar days, or 150 calendar days if ADR procedures are used, after receipt of the grants officer's decision to file the appeal, in accordance with § 22.815(e)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(iv) The debt will bear interest, and may include penalties and other administrative costs, in accordance with the debt collection provisions in Chapters 29, 31, and 32 of Volume 5 and Chapters 18 and 19 of Volume 10 of the DoD Financial Management Regulation (DoD 7000.14-R). No interest will be charged if the recipient pays the amount owed within 30 calendar days of the grants officer's decision. Interest will be charged for the entire period from the date the decision was mailed, if the recipient pays the amount owed after 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Follow-up.</I> Depending upon the response from the recipient, the grants officer shall proceed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the recipient pays the amount owed within 30 calendar days to the grants officer, the grants officer shall forward the payment to the responsible payment office.
</P>
<P>(2) If within 30 calendar days the recipient elects to appeal the grants officer's decision, further action to collect the debt is deferred, pending the outcome of the appeal. If the final result of the appeal is a determination that the recipient owes a debt to the Federal Government, the grants officer shall send a demand letter to the recipient and transfer responsibility for further debt collection to a payment office, as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If within 30 calendar days the recipient has neither paid the amount due nor provided notice of intent to file an appeal of the grants officer's decision, the grants officer shall send a demand letter to the recipient, with a copy to the payment office that will be responsible for collecting the delinquent debt. The payment office will be responsible for any further debt collection activity, including issuance of additional demand letters (see Chapter 19 of volume 10 of the DoD Financial Management Regulation, DoD 7000.14-R). The grants officer's demand letter shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the debt, including the amount, the name and address of the official that determined the debt (e.g., the grants officer under § 22.815(d)), and a copy of that determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the recipient that the debt is a delinquent debt that bears interest from the date of the grants officer's decision, and that penalties and other administrative costs may be assessed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the payment office that is responsible for the collection of the debt, and notify the recipient that it may submit a proposal to that payment office to defer collection, if immediate payment is not practicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administrative offset.</I> In carrying out the responsibility for collecting delinquent debts, a disbursing officer may need to consult grants officers, to determine whether administrative offset against payments to a recipient owing a delinquent debt would interfere with execution of projects being carried out under grants or cooperative agreements. Disbursing officers may also ask grants officers whether it is feasible to convert payment methods under grants or cooperative agreements from advance payments to reimbursements, to facilitate use of administrative offset. Grants officers therefore should be familiar with guidelines for disbursing officers, in Chapter 19 of Volume 10 of the Financial Management Regulation (DoD 7000.14-R), concerning withholding and administrative offset to recover delinquent debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.825" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.825   Closeout audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes DoD policy for obtaining audits at closeout of individual grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> Grants officers shall use their judgment on a case-by-case basis, in deciding whether to obtain an audit prior to closing out a grant or cooperative agreement (i.e., there is no specific DoD requirement to obtain an audit prior to doing so). Factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the award.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD's past experience with the recipient, including the presence or lack of findings of material deficiencies in recent:
</P>
<P>(i) Audits of individual awards; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Systems-wide financial audits and audits of the compliance of the recipient's systems with Federal requirements, under OMB guidance in subpart F of 2 CFR part 200, where that guidance is applicable. (See § 22.715(a)(1)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12164, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.6.8.1.7.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 22—Proposal Provision for Required Certification

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er23au05.028.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 49468, Aug. 23, 2005]





</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="26" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 26—GOVERNMENTWIDE REQUIREMENTS FOR DRUG-FREE WORKPLACE (FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>41U.S.C.701, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 66557, 66609, Nov. 26, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.100   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part carries out the portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended) that applies to grants. It also applies the provisions of the Act to cooperative agreements and other financial assistance awards, as a matter of Federal Government policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.105" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.105   Does this part apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Portions of this part apply to you if you are either— 
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient of an assistance award from the DOD Component; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A(n) DOD Component awarding official. (See definitions of award and recipient in §§ 26.605 and 26.660, respectively.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The following table shows the subparts that apply to you:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you are . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">see subparts . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) A recipient who is not an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) A recipient who is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, C and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) A(n) DOD Component awarding official</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, D and E.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.110" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.110   Are any of my Federal assistance awards exempt from this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to any award that the Head of the DOD Component or his or her designee determines that the application of this part would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the laws or regulations of a foreign government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.115" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.115   Does this part affect the Federal contracts that I receive?</HEAD>
<P>It will affect future contract awards indirectly if you are debarred or suspended for a violation of the requirements of this part, as described in § 26.510(c). However, this part does not apply directly to procurement contracts. The portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 that applies to Federal procurement contracts is carried out through the Federal Acquisition Regulation in chapter 1 of Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations (the drug-free workplace coverage currently is in 48 CFR part 23, subpart 23.5). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Recipients Other Than Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.200" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.200   What must I do to comply with this part?</HEAD>
<P>There are two general requirements if you are a recipient other than an individual. 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must make a good faith effort, on a continuing basis, to maintain a drug-free workplace. You must agree to do so as a condition for receiving any award covered by this part. The specific measures that you must take in this regard are described in more detail in subsequent sections of this subpart. Briefly, those measures are to—
</P>
<P>(1) Publish a drug-free workplace statement and establish a drug-free awareness program for your employees (see §§ 26.205 through 26.220); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Take actions concerning employees who are convicted of violating drug statutes in the workplace (see § 26.225). 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, you must identify all known workplaces under your Federal awards (see § 26.230). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.205   What must I include in my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must publish a statement that—
</P>
<P>(a) Tells your employees that the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance is prohibited in your workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies the actions that you will take against employees for violating that prohibition; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Lets each employee know that, as a condition of employment under any award, he or she: 
</P>
<P>(1) Will abide by the terms of the statement; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify you in writing if he or she is convicted for a violation of a criminal drug statute occurring in the workplace and must do so no more than five calendar days after the conviction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.210   To whom must I distribute my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must require that a copy of the statement described in § 26.205 be given to each employee who will be engaged in the performance of any Federal award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.215" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.215   What must I include in my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish an ongoing drug-free awareness program to inform employees about— 
</P>
<P>(a) The dangers of drug abuse in the workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Your policy of maintaining a drug-free workplace; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any available drug counseling, rehabilitation, and employee assistance programs; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The penalties that you may impose upon them for drug abuse violations occurring in the workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.220" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.220   By when must I publish my drug-free workplace statement and establish my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a new recipient that does not already have a policy statement as described in § 26.205 and an ongoing awareness program as described in § 26.215, you must publish the statement and establish the program by the time given in the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">then you . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) The performance period of the award is less than 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place as soon as possible, but before the date on which performance is expected to be completed. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) The performance period of the award is 30 days or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place within 30 days after award. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) You believe there are extraordinary circumstances that will require more than 30 days for you to publish the policy statement and establish the awareness program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">may ask the DOD Component awarding official to give you more time to do so. The amount of additional time, if any, to be given is at the discretion of the awarding official.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.225" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.225   What actions must I take concerning employees who are convicted of drug violations in the workplace?</HEAD>
<P>There are two actions you must take if an employee is convicted of a drug violation in the workplace: 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must notify Federal agencies if an employee who is engaged in the performance of an award informs you about a conviction, as required by § 26.205(c)(2), or you otherwise learn of the conviction. Your notification to the Federal agencies must— 
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include the employee's position title; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the identification number(s) of each affected award; 
</P>
<P>(4) Be sent within ten calendar days after you learn of the conviction; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Be sent to every Federal agency on whose award the convicted employee was working. It must be sent to every awarding official or his or her official designee, unless the Federal agency has specified a central point for the receipt of the notices. 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, within 30 calendar days of learning about an employee's conviction, you must either— 
</P>
<P>(1) Take appropriate personnel action against the employee, up to and including termination, consistent with the requirements of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the employee to participate satisfactorily in a drug abuse assistance or rehabilitation program approved for these purposes by a Federal, State or local health, law enforcement, or other appropriate agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.230" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.230   How and when must I identify workplaces?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must identify all known workplaces under each DOD Component award. A failure to do so is a violation of your drug-free workplace requirements. You may identify the workplaces— 
</P>
<P>(1) To the DOD Component official that is making the award, either at the time of application or upon award; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In documents that you keep on file in your offices during the performance of the award, in which case you must make the information available for inspection upon request by DOD Component officials or their designated representatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) Your workplace identification for an award must include the actual address of buildings (or parts of buildings) or other sites where work under the award takes place. Categorical descriptions may be used (<I>e.g.,</I> all vehicles of a mass transit authority or State highway department while in operation, State employees in each local unemployment office, performers in concert halls or radio studios). 
</P>
<P>(c) If you identified workplaces to the DOD Component awarding official at the time of application or award, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and any workplace that you identified changes during the performance of the award, you must inform the DOD Component awarding official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Recipients Who Are Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.300   What must I do to comply with this part if I am an individual recipient?</HEAD>
<P>As a condition of receiving a(n) DOD Component award, if you are an individual recipient, you must agree that— 
</P>
<P>(a) You will not engage in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance in conducting any activity related to the award; and 
</P>
<P>(b) If you are convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity, you will report the conviction: 
</P>
<P>(1) In writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 calendar days of the conviction. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the DOD Component awarding official or other designee for each award that you currently have, unless § 26.301 or the award document designates a central point for the receipt of the notices. When notice is made to a central point, it must include the identification number(s) of each affected award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.301" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.301   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Responsibilities of DOD Component Awarding Officials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.400" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.400   What are my responsibilities as a(n) DOD Component awarding official?</HEAD>
<P>As a(n) DOD Component awarding official, you must obtain each recipient's agreement, as a condition of the award, to comply with the requirements in— 
</P>
<P>(a) Subpart B of this part, if the recipient is not an individual; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart C of this part, if the recipient is an individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Violations of this Part and Consequences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.500" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.500   How are violations of this part determined for recipients other than individuals?</HEAD>
<P>A recipient other than an individual is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Head of the DOD Component or his or her designee determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart B of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The number of convictions of the recipient's employees for violating criminal drug statutes in the workplace is large enough to indicate that the recipient has failed to make a good faith effort to provide a drug-free workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.505" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.505   How are violations of this part determined for recipients who are individuals?</HEAD>
<P>An individual recipient is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Head of the DOD Component or his or her designee determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart C of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The recipient is convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.510" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.510   What actions will the Federal Government take against a recipient determined to have violated this part?</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient is determined to have violated this part, as described in § 26.500 or § 26.505, the DOD Component may take one or more of the following actions— 
</P>
<P>(a) Suspension of payments under the award; 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspension or termination of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Suspension or debarment of the recipient under 32 CFR Part 25, for a period not to exceed five years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.515" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.515   Are there any exceptions to those actions?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense or Secretary of a Military Department may waive with respect to a particular award, in writing, a suspension of payments under an award, suspension or termination of an award, or suspension or debarment of a recipient if the Secretary of Defense or Secretary of a Military Department determines that such a waiver would be in the public interest. This exception authority cannot be delegated to any other official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.605" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.605   Award.</HEAD>
<P><I>Award</I> means an award of financial assistance by the DOD Component or other Federal agency directly to a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term award includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal grant or cooperative agreement, in the form of money or property in lieu of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) A block grant or a grant in an entitlement program, whether or not the grant is exempted from coverage under the Governmentwide rule 32 CFR Part 33 that implements OMB Circular A-102 (for availability, see 5 CFR 1310.3) and specifies uniform administrative requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term award does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Technical assistance that provides services instead of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loans. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan guarantees. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interest subsidies. 
</P>
<P>(5) Insurance. 
</P>
<P>(6) Direct appropriations. 
</P>
<P>(7) Veterans' benefits to individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> any benefit to veterans, their families, or survivors by virtue of the service of a veteran in the Armed Forces of the United States). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.610" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.610   Controlled substance.</HEAD>
<P><I>Controlled substance</I> means a controlled substance in schedules I through V of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812), and as further defined by regulation at 21 CFR 1308.11 through 1308.15. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.615" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.615   Conviction.</HEAD>
<P><I>Conviction</I> means a finding of guilt (including a plea of nolo contendere) or imposition of sentence, or both, by any judicial body charged with the responsibility to determine violations of the Federal or State criminal drug statutes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.620" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.620   Cooperative agreement.</HEAD>
<P><I>Cooperative agreement</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition of grant in § 26.650), except that substantial involvement is expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. The term does not include cooperative research and development agreements as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.625" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.625   Criminal drug statute.</HEAD>
<P><I>Criminal drug statute</I> means a Federal or non-Federal criminal statute involving the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, use, or possession of any controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.630" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.630   Debarment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debarment</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency to prohibit a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions. A recipient so prohibited is debarred, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.632" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.632   DOD Component.</HEAD>
<P><I>DOD Component</I> means the Office of the Secretary of Defense, a Military Department, a Defense Agency, or the Office of Economic Adjustment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 66609, Nov. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.635" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.635   Drug-free workplace.</HEAD>
<P><I>Drug-free workplace</I> means a site for the performance of work done in connection with a specific award at which employees of the recipient are prohibited from engaging in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.640" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.640   Employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee</I> means the employee of a recipient directly engaged in the performance of work under the award, including— 
</P>
<P>(1) All direct charge employees; 
</P>
<P>(2) All indirect charge employees, unless their impact or involvement in the performance of work under the award is insignificant to the performance of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Temporary personnel and consultants who are directly engaged in the performance of work under the award and who are on the recipient's payroll. 
</P>
<P>(b) This definition does not include workers not on the payroll of the recipient (<I>e.g.,</I> volunteers, even if used to meet a matching requirement; consultants or independent contractors not on the payroll; or employees of subrecipients or subcontractors in covered workplaces). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.645" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.645   Federal agency or agency.</HEAD>
<P><I>Federal agency or agency</I> means any United States executive department, military department, government corporation, government controlled corporation, any other establishment in the executive branch (including the Executive Office of the President), or any independent regulatory agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.650" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.650   Grant.</HEAD>
<P><I>Grant</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship— 
</P>
<P>(a) The principal purpose of which is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the Federal Government's direct benefit or use; and 
</P>
<P>(b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.655" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.655   Individual.</HEAD>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.660" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.660   Recipient.</HEAD>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, unit of government (except a Federal agency) or legal entity, however organized, that receives an award directly from a Federal agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.665" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.665   State.</HEAD>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.670" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.7.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.670   Suspension.</HEAD>
<P><I>Suspension</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency that immediately prohibits a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions for a temporary period, pending completion of an investigation and any judicial or administrative proceedings that may ensue. A recipient so prohibited is suspended, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. Suspension of a recipient is a distinct and separate action from suspension of an award or suspension of payments under an award. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="28" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 28—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 319, Public Law 102-121 (31 U.S.C. 1352); 5 U.S.C. section 301; 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6737, 6752, Feb. 26, 1990, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 57 FR 6199, Feb. 21, 1992.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>See also Office of Management and Budget notice published at 54 FR 52306, December 20, 1989.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.100   Conditions on use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appropriated funds may be expended by the recipient of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement to pay any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any of the following covered Federal actions: the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a certification, set forth in Appendix A, that the person has not made, and will not make, any payment prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or a cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in Appendix B, if such person has made or has agreed to make any payment using nonappropriated funds (to include profits from any covered Federal action), which would be prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section if paid for with appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a statement, set forth in appendix A, whether that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in Appendix B, if that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.105" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(f), includes Federal executive departments and agencies as well as independent regulatory commissions and Government corporations, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 9101(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Federal action</I> means any of the following Federal actions:
</P>
<P>(1) The awarding of any Federal contract;
</P>
<P>(2) The making of any Federal grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The making of any Federal loan;
</P>
<P>(4) The entering into of any cooperative agreement; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<FP>Covered Federal action does not include receiving from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan. Loan guarantees and loan insurance are addressed independently within this part.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Federal contract</I> means an acquisition contract awarded by an agency, including those subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and any other acquisition contract for real or personal property or services not subject to the FAR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal cooperative agreement</I> means a cooperative agreement entered into by an agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal grant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government or a direct appropriation made by law to any person. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, loan insurance, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct United States cash assistance to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal loan</I> means a loan made by an agency. The term does not include loan guarantee or loan insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> have the meaning provided in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450B). Alaskan Natives are included under the definitions of Indian tribes in that Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Influencing or attempting to influence</I> means making, with the intent to influence, any communication to or appearance before an officer or employee or any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan guarantee</I> and <I>loan insurance</I> means an agency's guarantee or insurance of a loan made by a person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local government</I> means a unit of government in a State and, if chartered, established, or otherwise recognized by a State for the performance of a governmental duty, including a local public authority, a special district, an intrastate district, a council of governments, a sponsor group representative organization, and any other instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Officer or employee of an agency</I> includes the following individuals who are employed by an agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is appointed to a position in the Government under title 5, U.S. Code, including a position under a temporary appointment;
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the uniformed services as defined in section 101(3), title 37, U.S. Code; 
</P>
<P>(3) A special Government employee as defined in section 202, title 18, U.S. Code; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is a member of a Federal advisory committee, as defined by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, U.S. Code appendix 2.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, association, authority, firm, partnership, society, State, and local government, regardless of whether such entity is operated for profit or not for profit. This term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reasonable compensation</I> means, with respect to a regularly employed officer or employee of any person, compensation that is consistent with the normal compensation for such officer or employee for work that is not furnished to, not funded by, or not furnished in cooperation with the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reasonable payment</I> means, with respect to professional and other technical services, a payment in an amount that is consistent with the amount normally paid for such services in the private sector.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recipient</I> includes all contractors, subcontractors at any tier, and subgrantees at any tier of the recipient of funds received in connection with a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. The term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Regularly employed</I> means, with respect to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, an officer or employee who is employed by such person for at least 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for receipt of such contract, grant, loan, cooperative agreement, loan insurance commitment, or loan guarantee commitment. An officer or employee who is employed by such person for less than 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person shall be considered to be regularly employed as soon as he or she is employed by such person for 130 working days. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory or possession of the United States, an agency or instrumentality of a State, and a multi-State, regional, or interstate entity having governmental duties and powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.110" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.110   Certification and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, with each submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Award of a Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An award of a Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, upon receipt by such person of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000,
</P>
<FP>Unless such person previously filed a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Each person shall file a disclosure form at the end of each calendar quarter in which there occurs any event that requires disclosure or that materially affects the accuracy of the information contained in any disclosure form previously filed by such person under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. An event that materially affects the accuracy of the information reported includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A cumulative increase of $25,000 or more in the amount paid or expected to be paid for influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the person(s) or individual(s) influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the officer(s), employee(s), or Member(s) contacted to influence or attempt to influence a covered Federal action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who requests or receives from a person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) A subgrant, contract, or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal loan exceeding $150,000; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal cooperative agreement,
</P>
<FP>Shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, to the next tier above.
</FP>
<P>(e) All disclosure forms, but not certifications, shall be forwarded from tier to tier until received by the person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. That person shall forward all disclosure forms to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any certification or disclosure form filed under paragraph (e) of this section shall be treated as a material representation of fact upon which all receiving tiers shall rely. All liability arising from an erroneous representation shall be borne solely by the tier filing that representation and shall not be shared by any tier to which the erroneous representation is forwarded. Submitting an erroneous certification or disclosure constitutes a failure to file the required certification or disclosure, respectively. If a person fails to file a required certification or disclosure, the United States may pursue all available remedies, including those authorized by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(g) For awards and commitments in process prior to December 23, 1989, but not made before that date, certifications shall be required at award or commitment, covering activities occurring between December 23, 1989, and the date of award or commitment. However, for awards and commitments in process prior to the December 23, 1989 effective date of these provisions, but not made before December 23, 1989, disclosure forms shall not be required at time of award or commitment but shall be filed within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(h) No reporting is required for an activity paid for with appropriated funds if that activity is allowable under either subpart B or C.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Activities by Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.200" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.200   Agency and legislative liaison.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 28.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if the payment is for agency and legislative liaison activities not directly related to a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, providing any information specifically requested by an agency or Congress is allowable at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agency and legislative liaison activities are allowable at any time only where they are not related to a specific solicitation for any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Discussing with an agency (including individual demonstrations) the qualities and characteristics of the person's products or services, conditions or terms of sale, and service capabilities; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions and other activities regarding the application or adaptation of the person's products or services for an agency's use.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agencies and legislative liaison activities are allowable only where they are prior to formal solicitation of any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing any information not specifically requested but necessary for an agency to make an informed decision about initiation of a covered Federal action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions regarding the preparation of an unsolicited proposal prior to its official submission; and, 
</P>
<P>(3) Capability presentations by persons seeking awards from an agency pursuant to the provisions of the Small Business Act, as amended by Public Law 95-507 and other subsequent amendments. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only those activities expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6737, 6752, Feb. 26, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 57 FR 6199, 6200, Feb. 21, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.205   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 28.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or an extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “professional and technical services” shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6737, 6752, Feb. 26, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 57 FR 6199, 6200, Feb. 21, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.210   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>No reporting is required with respect to payments of reasonable compensation made to regularly employed officers or employees of a person. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities by Other Than Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.300   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 28.100 (a), does not apply in the case of any reasonable payment to a person, other than an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action, if the payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting requirements in § 28.110 (a) and (b) regarding filing a disclosure form by each person, if required, shall not apply with respect to professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “professional and technical services” shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons other than officers or employees of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action include consultants and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(f) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6737, 6752, Feb. 26, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 57 FR 6199, 6200, Feb. 21, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.400" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.400   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited herein shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such expenditure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see Appendix B) to be filed or amended if required herein, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<P>(c) A filing or amended filing on or after the date on which an administrative action for the imposition of a civil penalty is commenced does not prevent the imposition of such civil penalty for a failure occurring before that date. An administrative action is commenced with respect to a failure when an investigating official determines in writing to commence an investigation of an allegation of such failure.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to impose a civil penalty, and the amount of any such penalty, by reason of a violation by any person, the agency shall consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the effect on the ability of such person to continue in business, any prior violations by such person, the degree of culpability of such person, the ability of the person to pay the penalty, and such other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) First offenders under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $10,000, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $10,000 and $100,000, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(f) An imposition of a civil penalty under this section does not prevent the United States from seeking any other remedy that may apply to the same conduct that is the basis for the imposition of such civil penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.405" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.405   Penalty procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall impose and collect civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the Program Fraud and Civil Remedies Act, 31 U.S.C. sections 3803 (except subsection (c)), 3804, 3805, 3806, 3807, 3808, and 3812, insofar as these provisions are not inconsistent with the requirements herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.410" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.410   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each agency shall take such actions as are necessary to ensure that the provisions herein are vigorously implemented and enforced in that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.500" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.500   Secretary of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption authority.</I> The Secretary of Defense may exempt, on a case-by-case basis, a covered Federal action from the prohibition whenever the Secretary determines, in writing, that such an exemption is in the national interest. The Secretary shall transmit a copy of each such written exemption to Congress immediately after making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> It is the policy of the Department of Defense that exemptions under paragraph (a) of this section shall be requested only rarely and in exceptional circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> Each DoD Component that awards or administers Federal grants, Federal cooperative agreements, or Federal loans subject to this part shall establish procedures whereby:
</P>
<P>(1) A grants officer wishing to request an exemption for a grant, cooperative agreement, or loan shall transmit such request through appropriate channels to: Director for Research, ODDR&amp;E(R), 3080 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC. 20301-3080.
</P>
<P>(2) Each such request shall explain why an exemption is in the national interest, a justification that must be transmitted to Congress for each exemption that is approved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12188, Mar. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Agency Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.600" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.600   Semi-annual compilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall collect and compile the disclosure reports (see appendix B) and, on May 31 and November 30 of each year, submit to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives a report containing a compilation of the information contained in the disclosure reports received during the six-month period ending on March 31 or September 30, respectively, of that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The report, including the compilation, shall be available for public inspection 30 days after receipt of the report by the Secretary and the Clerk.
</P>
<P>(c) Information that involves intelligence matters shall be reported only to the Select Committee on Intelligence of the Senate, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives, and the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Information that is classified under Executive Order 12356 or any successor order shall be reported only to the Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate and the Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of Representatives or the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives (whichever such committees have jurisdiction of matters involving such information) and to the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The first semi-annual compilation shall be submitted on May 31, 1990, and shall contain a compilation of the disclosure reports received from December 23, 1989 to March 31, 1990.
</P>
<P>(f) Major agencies, designated by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are required to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives no later than with the compilations due on May 31, 1991. OMB shall provide detailed specifications in a memorandum to these agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) Non-major agencies are requested to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) Agencies shall keep the originals of all disclosure reports in the official files of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.605" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.605   Inspector General report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Inspector General, or other official as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, of each agency shall prepare and submit to Congress each year, commencing with submission of the President's Budget in 1991, an evaluation of the compliance of that agency with, and the effectiveness of, the requirements herein. The evaluation may include any recommended changes that may be necessary to strengthen or improve the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an agency that does not have an Inspector General, the agency official comparable to an Inspector General shall prepare and submit the annual report, or, if there is no such comparable official, the head of the agency shall prepare and submit the annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) The annual report shall be submitted at the same time the agency submits its annual budget justifications to Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual report shall include the following: All alleged violations relating to the agency's covered Federal actions during the year covered by the report, the actions taken by the head of the agency in the year covered by the report with respect to those alleged violations and alleged violations in previous years, and the amounts of civil penalties imposed by the agency in the year covered by the report.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.8.1.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 28—Certification Regarding Lobbying
</HEAD>
<HD2>Certification for Contracts, Grants, Loans, and Cooperative Agreements
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid, by or on behalf of the undersigned, to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of an agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) If any funds other than Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) The undersigned shall require that the language of this certification be included in the award documents for all subawards at all tiers (including subcontracts, subgrants, and contracts under grants, loans, and cooperative agreements) and that all subrecipients shall certify and disclose accordingly.
</P>
<P>This certification is a material representation of fact upon which reliance was placed when this transaction was made or entered into. Submission of this certification is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<HD2>Statement for Loan Guarantees and Loan Insurance
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned states, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>If any funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>Submission of this statement is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.





</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.8.8.1.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 28—Disclosure Form To Report Lobbying

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec23oc91.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec23oc91.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec23oc91.002.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="34" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 34—ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS FOR GRANTS AND AGREEMENTS WITH FOR-PROFIT ORGANIZATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part prescribes administrative requirements for awards to for-profit organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) Applicability to prime awards and subawards is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prime awards.</I> DoD Components shall apply the provisions of this part to awards to for-profit organizations. DoD Components shall not impose requirements that are in addition to, or inconsistent with, the requirements provided in this part, except:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with the deviation procedures or special award conditions in § 34.3 or § 34.4, respectively; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As required by Federal statute, Executive order, or Federal regulation implementing a statute or Executive order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subawards.</I> (i) Any legal entity (including any State, local government, university or other nonprofit organization, as well as any for-profit entity) that receives an award from a DoD Component shall apply the provisions of this part to subawards with for-profit organizations. It should be noted that subawards (see definition in § 34.2) are financial assistance for substantive programmatic performance and do not include recipients' procurement of goods and services.
</P>
<P>(ii) For-profit organizations that receive prime awards covered by this part shall apply to each subaward the administrative requirements that are applicable to the particular type of subrecipient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are definitions of terms as used in this part. Grants officers are cautioned that terms may be defined differently in this part than they are in other parts of the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations (DoDGARs).
</P>
<P><I>Advance.</I> A payment made by Treasury check or other appropriate payment mechanism to a recipient upon its request either before outlays are made by the recipient or through the use of predetermined payment schedules.
</P>
<P><I>Award.</I> A grant or a cooperative agreement other than a technology investment agreement (TIA). TIAs are covered by part 37 of the DoDGARs (32 CFR part 37). Portions of this part may apply to a TIA, but only to the extent that 32 CFR part 37 makes them apply.
</P>
<P><I>Cash contributions.</I> The recipient's cash outlay, including the outlay of money contributed to the recipient by third parties.
</P>
<P><I>Closeout.</I> The process by which the grants officer administering an award made by a DoD Component determines that all applicable administrative actions and all required work of the award have been completed by the recipient and DoD Component.
</P>
<P><I>Contract.</I> Either:
</P>
<P>(1) A procurement contract made by a recipient under a DoD Component's award or by a subrecipient under a subaward; or
</P>
<P>(2) A procurement subcontract under a contract awarded by a recipient or subrecipient.
</P>
<P><I>Cost sharing or matching.</I> That portion of project or program costs not borne by the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Disallowed costs.</I> Those charges to an award that the grants officer administering an award made by a DoD Component determines to be unallowable, in accordance with the applicable Federal cost principles or other terms and conditions contained in the award.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Component.</I> A Military Department, Defense Agency, DoD Field Activity, or organization within the Office of the Secretary of Defense that provides or administers an award to a recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment.</I> Tangible nonexpendable personal property charged directly to the award having a useful life of more than one year and an acquisition cost of $5,000 or more per unit. That definition applies for the purposes of the Federal administrative requirements in this part. However, the recipient's policy may be to use a lower dollar value for defining “equipment,” and nothing in this part should be construed as requiring the recipient to establish a higher limit for purposes other than the administrative requirements in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Excess property.</I> Property under the control of any DoD Component that, as determined by the head thereof, is no longer required for its needs or the discharge of its responsibilities.
</P>
<P><I>Expenditures.</I> See the definition for outlays in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Federally owned property.</I> Property in the possession of, or directly acquired by, the Government and subsequently made available to the recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Funding period.</I> The period of time when Federal funding is available for obligation by the recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Intellectual property.</I> Intangible personal property such as patents and patent applications, trademarks, copyrights, technical data, and software rights.
</P>
<P><I>Obligations.</I> The amounts of orders placed, contracts and grants awarded, services received and similar transactions during a given period that require payment by the recipient during the same or a future period.
</P>
<P><I>Outlays</I> or <I>expenditures.</I> Charges made to the project or program. They may be reported on a cash or accrual basis. For reports prepared on a cash basis, outlays are the sum of cash disbursements for direct charges for goods and services, the amount of indirect expense charged, the value of third party in-kind contributions applied and the amount of cash advances and payments made to subrecipients. For reports prepared on an accrual basis, outlays are the sum of cash disbursements for direct charges for goods and services, the amount of indirect expense incurred, the value of in-kind contributions applied, and the net increase (or decrease) in the amounts owed by the recipient for goods and other property received, for services performed by employees, contractors, subrecipients and other payees and other amounts becoming owed under programs for which no current services or performance are required.
</P>
<P><I>Personal property.</I> Property of any kind except real property. It may be:
</P>
<P>(1) Tangible, having physical existence (i.e., equipment and supplies); or
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible, having no physical existence, such as patents, copyrights, data and software.
</P>
<P><I>Prior approval.</I> Written or electronic approval by an authorized official evidencing prior consent.
</P>
<P><I>Program income.</I> Gross income earned by the recipient that is directly generated by a supported activity or earned as a result of the award. Program income includes, but is not limited to, income from fees for services performed, the use or rental of real or personal property acquired under federally-funded projects, the sale of commodities or items fabricated under an award, license fees and royalties on patents and copyrights, and interest on loans made with award funds. Interest earned on advances of Federal funds is not program income. Except as otherwise provided in program regulations or the terms and conditions of the award, program income does not include the receipt of principal on loans, rebates, credits, discounts, etc., or interest earned on any of them.
</P>
<P><I>Project costs.</I> All allowable costs, as set forth in the applicable Federal cost principles, incurred by a recipient and the value of the contributions made by third parties in accomplishing the objectives of the award during the project period.
</P>
<P><I>Project period.</I> The period established in the award document during which Federal sponsorship begins and ends.
</P>
<P><I>Property.</I> Real property and personal property (equipment, supplies, and intellectual property), unless stated otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Real property.</I> Land, including land improvements, structures and appurtenances thereto, but excludes movable machinery and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient.</I> A for-profit organization receiving an award directly from a DoD Component to carry out a project or program.
</P>
<P><I>Research.</I> Basic, applied, and advanced research activities. <I>Basic research</I> is defined as efforts directed toward increasing knowledge or understanding in science and engineering. <I>Applied research</I> is defined as efforts that attempt to determine and exploit the potential of scientific discoveries or improvements in technology, such as new materials, devices, methods, and processes. “Advanced research,” advanced technology development that creates new technology or demonstrates the viability of applying existing technology to new products and processes in a general way, is most closely analogous to precommercialization or precompetitive technology development in the commercial sector (it does not include development of military systems and hardware where specific requirements have been defined).
</P>
<P><I>Small award.</I> See the definition for this term in 2 CFR part 1108.
</P>
<P><I>Small business concern.</I> A concern, including its affiliates, that is independently owned and operated, not dominant in the field of operation in which it has applied for an award, and qualified as a small business under the criteria and size standards in 13 CFR part 121. For more details, grants officers should see 48 CFR part 19 in the “Federal Acquisition Regulation.”
</P>
<P><I>Subaward.</I> Financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, provided under an award by a recipient to an eligible subrecipient or by a subrecipient to a lower tier subrecipient. The term includes financial assistance when provided by any legal agreement, even if the agreement is called a contract, but the term includes neither procurement of goods and services nor any form of assistance which is excluded from the definition of “award” in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Subrecipient.</I> The legal entity to which a subaward is made and which is accountable to the recipient for the use of the funds provided.
</P>
<P><I>Supplies.</I> Tangible expendable personal property that is charged directly to the award and that has a useful life of less than one year or an acquisition cost of less than $5000 per unit.
</P>
<P><I>Suspension.</I> An action by a DoD Component that temporarily withdraws Federal sponsorship under an award, pending corrective action by the recipient or pending a decision to terminate the award by the DoD Component. Suspension of an award is a separate action from suspension of a participant under 2 CFR part 1125.
</P>
<P><I>Termination.</I> The cancellation of an award, in whole or in part, under an agreement at any time prior to either:
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which all work under an award is completed; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which Federal sponsorship ends, as given on the award document or any supplement or amendment thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Third party in-kind contributions.</I> The value of non-cash contributions provided by non-Federal third parties. Third party in-kind contributions may be in the form of real property, equipment, supplies and other expendable property, and the value of goods and services directly benefiting and specifically identifiable to the project or program.
</P>
<P><I>Unobligated balance.</I> The portion of the funds authorized by a DoD Component that has not been obligated by the recipient and is determined by deducting the cumulative obligations from the cumulative funds authorized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003; 72 FR 34998, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.3   Deviations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual deviations.</I> Individual deviations affecting only one award may be approved by DoD Components in accordance with procedures stated in 32 CFR 21.335(a) and 21.340.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Small awards.</I> DoD Components may apply less restrictive requirements than the provisions of this part when awarding small awards, except for those requirements which are statutory.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other class deviations.</I> For classes of awards other than small awards, the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering, or his or her designee, may grant exceptions from the requirements of this part when exceptions are not prohibited by statute. DoD Components shall request approval for such deviations in accordance with 32 CFR 21.335 (b) and 21.340.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003; 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.4   Special award conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Grants officers may impose additional requirements as needed, over and above those provided in this part, if an applicant or recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a history of poor performance;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not financially stable;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a management system that does not meet the standards prescribed in this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Has not conformed to the terms and conditions of a previous award; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is not otherwise responsible.
</P>
<P>(b) Before imposing additional requirements, DoD Components shall notify the applicant or recipient in writing as to:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the additional requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) The reason why the additional requirements are being imposed;
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the corrective action needed;
</P>
<P>(4) The time allowed for completing the corrective actions; and
</P>
<P>(5) The method for requesting reconsideration of the additional requirements imposed.
</P>
<P>(c) Any special conditions shall be promptly removed once the conditions that prompted them have been corrected.
</P>
<P>(d) Grants officers:
</P>
<P>(1) Should coordinate the imposition and removal of special award conditions with the cognizant grants administration office identified in 32 CFR 22.710.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall include in the award file the written notification to the recipient, described in paragraph (b) of this section, and the documentation required by 32 CFR 22.410(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Post-award Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Financial and Program Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.10   Purpose of financial and program management.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 34.11 through 34.17 prescribe standards for financial management systems; methods for making payments; and rules for cost sharing and matching, program income, revisions to budgets and program plans, audits, allowable costs, and fee and profit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.11   Standards for financial management systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recipients shall be allowed and encouraged to use existing financial management systems established for doing business in the commercial marketplace, to the extent that the systems comply with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and the minimum standards in this section. As a minimum, a recipient's financial management system shall provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Effective control of all funds. Control systems must be adequate to ensure that costs charged to Federal funds and those counted as the recipient's cost share or match are consistent with requirements for cost reasonableness, allowability, and allocability in the applicable cost principles (see § 34.17) and in the terms and conditions of the award.
</P>
<P>(2) Accurate, current and complete records that document for each project funded wholly or in part with Federal funds the source and application of the Federal funds and the recipient's required cost share or match. These records shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Contain information about receipts, authorizations, assets, expenditures, program income, and interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be adequate to make comparisons of outlays with budgeted amounts for each award (as required for programmatic and financial reporting under § 34.41. Where appropriate, financial information should be related to performance and unit cost data. Note that unit cost data are generally not appropriate for awards that support research.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that advance payments are authorized under § 34.12, procedures that minimize the time elapsing between the transfer of funds to the recipient from the Government and the recipient's disbursement of the funds for program purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) The recipient shall have a system to support charges to Federal awards for salaries and wages, whether treated as direct or indirect costs. Where employees work on multiple activities or cost objectives, a distribution of their salaries and wages will be supported by personnel activity reports which must:
</P>
<P>(i) Reflect an after the fact distribution of the actual activity of each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Account for the total activity for which each employee is compensated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Be prepared at least monthly, and coincide with one or more pay periods.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Federal Government guarantees or insures the repayment of money borrowed by the recipient, the DoD Component, at its discretion, may require adequate bonding and insurance if the bonding and insurance requirements of the recipient are not deemed adequate to protect the interest of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD Component may require adequate fidelity bond coverage where the recipient lacks sufficient coverage to protect the Federal Government's interest.
</P>
<P>(d) Where bonds are required in the situations described above, the bonds shall be obtained from companies holding certificates of authority as acceptable sureties, as prescribed in 31 CFR part 223, “Surety Companies Doing Business with the United States.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.12   Payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methods available.</I> Payment methods for awards with for-profit organizations are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reimbursement.</I> Under this method, the recipient requests reimbursement for costs incurred during a time period. In cases where the recipient submits each request for payment to the grants officer, the DoD payment office reimburses the recipient by electronic funds transfer or check after approval of the request by the grants officer designated to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance payments.</I> Under this method, a DoD Component makes a payment to a recipient based upon projections of the recipient's cash needs. The payment generally is made upon the recipient's request, although predetermined payment schedules may be used when the timing of the recipient's needs to disburse funds can be predicted in advance with sufficient accuracy to ensure compliance with paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selecting a method.</I> (1) The preferred payment method is the reimbursement method, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section
</P>
<P>(2) Advance payments, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, may be used in exceptional circumstances, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The grants officer, in consultation with the program official, must judge that advance payments are necessary or will materially contribute to the probability of success of the project contemplated under the award (e.g., as startup funds for a project performed by a newly formed company). The rationale for the judgment shall be documented in the award file.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash advances shall be limited to the minimum amounts needed to carry out the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recipients and the DoD Component shall maintain procedures to ensure that the timing of cash advances is as close as is administratively feasible to the recipients' disbursements of the funds for program purposes, including direct program or project costs and the proportionate share of any allowable indirect costs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Recipients shall maintain advance payments of Federal funds in interest-bearing accounts, and remit annually the interest earned to the administrative grants officer responsible for post-award administration (the grants officer shall forward the payment to the responsible payment office, for return to the Department of Treasury's miscellaneous receipts account), unless one of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The recipient receives less than $120,000 in Federal awards per year.
</P>
<P>(B) The best reasonably available interest bearing account would not be expected to earn interest in excess of $250 per year on Federal cash balances.
</P>
<P>(C) The depository would require an average or minimum balance so high that it would not be feasible within the expected Federal and non-Federal cash resources.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of payments.</I> For either reimbursements or advance payments, recipients shall be authorized to submit requests for payment at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Forms for requesting payment.</I> DoD Components may authorize recipients to use the SF-270, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> “Request for Advance or Reimbursement;” the SF-271, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> “Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs;” or prescribe other forms or formats as necessary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For copies of Standard Forms listed in this part, contact regional grants administration offices of the Office of Naval Research. Addresses for the offices are listed in the “Federal Directory of Contract Administration Services (CAS) Components,” which is available through the “CAS Directory” link at the Defense Contract Management Agency homepage (<I>http://www.dcma.mil</I>).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to this paragraph (d).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Timeliness of payments.</I> Payments normally will be made within 30 calendar days of the receipt of a recipient's request for reimbursement or advance by the office designated to receive the request (for further information about timeframes for payments, see 32 CFR 22.810(c)(3)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Precedence of other available funds.</I> Recipients shall disburse funds available from program income, rebates, refunds, contract settlements, audit recoveries, and interest earned on such funds before requesting additional cash payments.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withholding of payments.</I> Unless otherwise required by statute, grants officers shall not withhold payments for proper charges made by recipients during the project period for reasons other than the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient has failed to comply with project objectives, the terms and conditions of the award, or Federal reporting requirements, in which case the grants officer may suspend payments in accordance with § 34.52.
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient is delinquent on a debt to the United States (see definitions of “debt” and “delinquent debt” in 32 CFR 22.105). In that case, the grants officer may, upon reasonable notice, withhold payments for obligations incurred after a specified date, until the debt is resolved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.13   Cost sharing or matching.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable contributions.</I> All contributions, including cash contributions and third party in-kind contributions, shall be accepted as part of the recipient's cost sharing or matching when such contributions meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) They are verifiable from the recipient's records.
</P>
<P>(2) They are not included as contributions for any other federally-assisted project or program.
</P>
<P>(3) They are necessary and reasonable for proper and efficient accomplishment of project or program objectives.
</P>
<P>(4) They are allowable under § 34.17.
</P>
<P>(5) They are not paid by the Federal Government under another award, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Costs that are authorized by Federal statute to be used for cost sharing or matching; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Independent research and development (IR&amp;D) costs. In accordance with the for-profit cost principle in 48 CFR 31.205-18(e), use of IR&amp;D as cost sharing is permitted, whether or not the Government decides at a later date to reimburse any of the IR&amp;D as allowable indirect costs. In such cases, the IR&amp;D must meet all of the criteria in paragraphs (a) (1) through (4) and (a) (6) through (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) They are provided for in the approved budget, when approval of the budget is required by the DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(7) If they are real property or equipment, whether purchased with recipient's funds or donated by third parties, they must have the grants officer's prior approval if the contributions' value is to exceed depreciation or use charges during the project period (paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(4)(ii) of this section discuss the limited circumstances under which a grants officer may approve higher values). If a DoD Component requires approval of a recipient's budget (see paragraph (a)(6) of this section), the grants officer's approval of the budget satisfies this prior approval requirement, for real property or equipment items listed in the budget.
</P>
<P>(8) They conform to other provisions of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuing and documenting contributions</I>—(1) <I>Valuing recipient's property or services of recipient's employees.</I> Values shall be established in accordance with the applicable cost principles in § 34.17, which means that amounts chargeable to the project are determined on the basis of costs incurred. For real property or equipment used on the project, the cost principles authorize depreciation or use charges. The full value of the item may be applied when the item will be consumed in the performance of the award or fully depreciated by the end of the award. In cases where the full value of a donated capital asset is to be applied as cost sharing or matching, that full value shall be the lesser of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The certified value of the remaining life of the property recorded in the recipient's accounting records at the time of donation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The current fair market value. However, when there is sufficient justification, the grants officer may approve the use of the current fair market value of the donated property, even if it exceeds the certified value at the time of donation to the project. The grants officer may accept the use of any reasonable basis for determining the fair market value of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valuing services of others' employees.</I> When an employer other than the recipient furnishes the services of an employee, those services shall be valued at the employee's regular rate of pay plus an amount of fringe benefits and overhead (at an overhead rate appropriate for the location where the services are performed) provided these services are in the same skill for which the employee is normally paid.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Valuing volunteer services.</I> Volunteer services furnished by professional and technical personnel, consultants, and other skilled and unskilled labor may be counted as cost sharing or matching if the service is an integral and necessary part of an approved project or program. Rates for volunteer services shall be consistent with those paid for similar work in the recipient's organization. In those instances in which the required skills are not found in the recipient organization, rates shall be consistent with those paid for similar work in the labor market in which the recipient competes for the kind of services involved. In either case, paid fringe benefits that are reasonable, allowable, and allocable may be included in the valuation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Valuing property donated by third parties.</I> (i) Donated supplies may include such items as office supplies or laboratory supplies. Value assessed to donated supplies included in the cost sharing or matching share shall be reasonable and shall not exceed the fair market value of the property at the time of the donation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Normally only depreciation or use charges for equipment and buildings may be applied. However, the fair rental charges for land and the full value of equipment or other capital assets may be allowed, when they will be consumed in the performance of the award or fully depreciated by the end of the award, provided that the grants officer has approved the charges. When use charges are applied, values shall be determined in accordance with the usual accounting policies of the recipient, with the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) The value of donated space shall not exceed the fair rental value of comparable space as established by an independent appraisal of comparable space and facilities in a privately-owned building in the same locality.
</P>
<P>(B) The value of loaned equipment shall not exceed its fair rental value.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Documentation.</I> The following requirements pertain to the recipient's supporting records for in-kind contributions from third parties:
</P>
<P>(i) Volunteer services shall be documented and, to the extent feasible, supported by the same methods used by the recipient for its own employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The basis for determining the valuation for personal services and property shall be documented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.14   Program income.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DoD Components shall apply the standards in this section to the disposition of program income from projects financed in whole or in part with Federal funds.
</P>
<P>(b) Recipients shall have no obligation to the Government, unless the terms and conditions of the award provide otherwise, for program income earned:
</P>
<P>(1) From license fees and royalties for copyrighted material, patents, patent applications, trademarks, and inventions produced under an award. Note, however, that the Patent and Trademark Amendments (35 U.S.C. Chapter 18), as implemented in § 34.25, apply to inventions made under a research award.
</P>
<P>(2) After the end of the project period. If a grants officer anticipates that an award is likely to generate program income after the end of the project period, the grants officer should indicate in the award document whether the recipient will have any obligation to the Federal Government with respect to such income.
</P>
<P>(c) If authorized by the terms and conditions of the award, costs incident to the generation of program income may be deducted from gross income to determine program income, provided these costs have not been charged to the award.
</P>
<P>(d) Other than any program income excluded pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, program income earned during the project period shall be retained by the recipient and used in one or more of the following ways, as specified in program regulations or the terms and conditions of the award:
</P>
<P>(1) Added to funds committed to the project by the DoD Component and recipient and used to further eligible project or program objectives.
</P>
<P>(2) Used to finance the non-Federal share of the project or program.
</P>
<P>(3) Deducted from the total project or program allowable cost in determining the net allowable costs on which the Federal share of costs is based.
</P>
<P>(e) If the terms and conditions of an award authorize the disposition of program income as described in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, and stipulate a limit on the amounts that may be used in those ways, program income in excess of the stipulated limits shall be used in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event that the terms and conditions of the award do not specify how program income is to be used, paragraph (d)(3) of this section shall apply automatically to all projects or programs except research. For awards that support research, paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall apply automatically unless the terms and conditions specify another alternative or the recipient is subject to special award conditions, as indicated in § 34.4.
</P>
<P>(g) Proceeds from the sale of property that is acquired, rather than fabricated, under an award are not program income and shall be handled in accordance with the requirements of the Property Standards (see §§ 34.20 through 34.25).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.15   Revision of budget and program plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The budget plan is the financial expression of the project or program as approved during the award process. It may include either the sum of the Federal and non-Federal shares, or only the Federal share, depending upon DoD Component requirements. It shall be related to performance for program evaluation purposes whenever appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Recipients are required to report deviations from budget and program plans, and request prior approvals for budget and program plan revisions, in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Recipients shall immediately request, in writing, prior approval from the cognizant grants officer when there is reason to believe that within the next seven calendar days a programmatic or budgetary revision will be necessary for certain reasons, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient always must obtain the grants officer's prior approval when a revision is necessary for either of the following two reasons (i.e., these two requirements for prior approval may never be waived):
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the scope or the objective of the project or program (even if there is no associated budget revision requiring prior written approval).
</P>
<P>(ii) A need for additional Federal funding.
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient must obtain the grants officer's prior approval when a revision is necessary for any of the following six reasons, unless the requirement for prior approval is waived in the terms and conditions of the award (i.e., if the award document is silent, these prior approvals are required):
</P>
<P>(i) A change in a key person specified in the application or award document.
</P>
<P>(ii) The absence for more than three months, or a 25 percent reduction in time devoted to the project, by the approved project director or principal investigator.
</P>
<P>(iii) The inclusion of any additional costs that require prior approval in accordance with applicable cost principles for Federal funds and recipients' cost share or match, in § 34.17 and § 34.13, respectively.
</P>
<P>(iv) The inclusion of pre-award costs. All such costs are incurred at the recipient's risk (i.e., the DoD Component is under no obligation to reimburse such costs if for any reason the recipient does not receive an award, or if the award is less than anticipated and inadequate to cover such costs).
</P>
<P>(v) A “no-cost” extension of the project period that does not require additional Federal funds and does not change the approved objectives or scope of the project.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any subaward, transfer or contracting out of substantive program performance under an award, unless described in the application and funded in the approved awards. This provision does not apply to the purchase of supplies, material, or general support services, except that procurement of equipment or other capital items of property always is subject to the grants officer's prior approval under § 34.21(a), if it is to be purchased with Federal funds, or § 34.13(a)(7), if it is to be used as cost sharing or matching.
</P>
<P>(3) The recipient also must obtain the grants officer's prior approval when a revision is necessary for either of the following reasons, if specifically required in the terms and conditions of the award document (i.e., if the award document is silent, these prior approvals are not required):
</P>
<P>(i) The transfer of funds among direct cost categories, functions and activities for awards in which the Federal share of the project exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold and the cumulative amount of such transfers exceeds or is expected to exceed 10 percent of the total budget as last approved by the DoD Component. No DoD Component shall permit a transfer that would cause any Federal appropriation or part thereof to be used for purposes other than those consistent with the original intent of the appropriation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For awards that provide support for both construction and nonconstruction work, any fund or budget transfers between the two types of work supported.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 calendar days from the date of receipt of the recipient's request for budget revisions, the grants officer shall review the request and notify the recipient whether the budget revisions have been approved. If the revision is still under consideration at the end of 30 calendar days, the grants officer shall inform the recipient in writing of the date when the recipient may expect the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.16   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any recipient that expends $750,000 or more in a year under Federal awards shall have an audit made for that year by an independent auditor, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. The audit generally should be made a part of the regularly scheduled, annual audit of the recipient's financial statements. However, it may be more economical in some cases to have the Federal awards separately audited, and a recipient may elect to do so, unless that option is precluded by award terms and conditions, or by Federal laws or regulations applicable to the program(s) under which the awards were made.
</P>
<P>(b) The auditor shall determine and report on whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient has an internal control structure that provides reasonable assurance that it is managing Federal awards in compliance with Federal laws and regulations, and with the terms and conditions of the awards.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on a sampling of Federal award expenditures, the recipient has complied with laws, regulations, and award terms that may have a direct and material effect on Federal awards.
</P>
<P>(c) The recipient shall make the auditor's report available to DoD Components whose awards are affected.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirement for an annual independent audit is intended to ascertain the adequacy of the recipient's internal financial management systems and to curtail the unnecessary duplication and overlap that usually results when Federal agencies request audits of individual awards on a routine basis. Therefore, a grants officer:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall consider whether the independent audit satisfies his or her requirements, before requesting any additional audits; and
</P>
<P>(2) When requesting an additional audit, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit the scope of such additional audit to areas not adequately addressed by the independent audit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordinate the audit request with the Federal agency with the predominant fiscal interest in the recipient, as the agency responsible for the scheduling and distribution of audits. If DoD has the predominant fiscal interest in the recipient, the Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) is responsible for monitoring audits, ensuring resolution of audit findings, and distributing audit reports. When an additional audit is requested and DoD has the predominant fiscal interest in the recipient, DCMA shall, to the extent practicable, ensure that the additional audit builds upon the independent audit or other audits performed in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) There may be instances in which Federal auditors have recently performed audits, are performing audits, or are planning to perform audits, of a recipient. In these cases, the recipient and its Federal cognizant agency should seek to have the non-Federal, independent auditors work with the Federal auditors to develop a coordinated audit approach, to minimize duplication of audit work.
</P>
<P>(f) Audit costs (including a reasonable allocation of the costs of the audit of the recipient's financial statement, based on the relative benefit to the Government and the recipient) are allowable costs of DoD awards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49477, Aug. 23, 2005; 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.17   Allowable costs.</HEAD>
<P>Allowability of costs shall be determined in accordance with the cost principles applicable to the type of entity incurring the costs, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For-profit organizations.</I> Allowability of costs incurred by for-profit organizations that are recipients of prime awards from DoD Components, and those that are subrecipients under prime awards to other organizations, is to be determined in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(1) The for-profit cost principles in 48 CFR parts 31 and 231 (in the Federal Acquisition Regulation, or FAR, and the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, or DFARS, respectively).
</P>
<P>(2) The supplemental information on allowability of audit costs, in § 34.16(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other types of organizations.</I> Allowability of costs incurred by other types of organizations that may be subrecipients under a prime award to a for-profit organization is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Institutions of higher education, nonprofit organizations, States, local governments, and Indian tribes.</I> Allowability is determined in accordance with the cost principles in subpart E of OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 200. Note that 2 CFR 200.401(c) provides that a nonprofit organization listed in appendix VIII to 2 CFR part 200 is subject to the FAR and DFARS cost principles specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for for-profit organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hospitals.</I> Allowability is determined in accordance with the cost principles identified in appendix IX to 2 CFR part 200 (currently 45 CFR part 75).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.18   Fee and profit.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with 32 CFR 22.205(b), grants and cooperative agreements shall not:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide for the payment of fee or profit to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) Be used to carry out programs where fee or profit is necessary to achieving program objectives.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Property Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.20   Purpose of property standards.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 34.21 through 34.25 set forth uniform standards for management, use, and disposition of property. DoD Components shall encourage recipients to use existing property-management systems, to the extent that the systems meet these minimum requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.21   Real property and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior approval for acquisition with Federal funds.</I> Recipients may purchase real property or equipment in whole or in part with Federal funds under an award only with the prior approval of the grants officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title.</I> Title to such real property or equipment shall vest in the recipient upon acquisition. Unless a statute specifically authorizes a DoD Component to vest title in the recipient without further obligation to the Government, and the DoD Component elects to do so, the title shall be a conditional title. Title shall vest in the recipient subject to the conditions that the recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Use the real property or equipment for the authorized purposes of the project until funding for the project ceases, or until the property is no longer needed for the purposes of the project.
</P>
<P>(2) Not encumber the property without approval of the grants officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Use and dispose of the property in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal interest in real property or equipment offered as cost-share.</I> A recipient may offer the full value of real property or equipment that is purchased with recipient's funds or that is donated by a third party to meet a portion of any required cost sharing or matching, subject to the prior approval requirement in § 34.13(a)(7). If a recipient does so, the Government has a financial interest in the property, a share of the property value attributable to the Federal participation in the project. The property therefore shall be considered as if it had been acquired in part with Federal funds, and shall be subject to the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, and to the provisions of § 34.23.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use.</I> If real property or equipment is acquired in whole or in part with Federal funds under an award, and the award provides that title vests conditionally in the recipient, the real property or equipment is subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) During the time that the real property or equipment is used on the project or program for which it was acquired, the recipient shall make it available for use on other projects or programs, if such other use will not interfere with the work on the project or program for which the real property or equipment was originally acquired. Use of the real property or equipment on other projects will be in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities sponsored by DoD Components' grants, cooperative agreements, or other assistance awards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities sponsored by other Federal agencies' grants, cooperative agreements, or other assistance awards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities under Federal procurement contracts, or activities not sponsored by any Federal agency. If so used, use charges shall be assessed to those activities. For real property or equipment, the use charges shall be at rates equivalent to those for which comparable real property or equipment may be leased. The use charges shall be treated as program income.
</P>
<P>(2) After Federal funding for the project ceases, or when the real property or equipment is no longer needed for the purposes of the project, the recipient may use the real property or equipment for other projects, insofar as:
</P>
<P>(i) There are Federally sponsored projects for which the real property or equipment may be used. If the only use for the real property or equipment is for projects that have no Federal sponsorship, the recipient shall proceed with disposition of the real property or equipment, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipient obtains written approval from the grants officer to do so. The grants officer shall ensure that there is a formal change of accountability for the real property or equipment to a currently funded, Federal award.
</P>
<P>(iii) The recipient's use of the real property or equipment for other projects is in the same order of priority as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposition.</I> (1) When an item of real property or equipment is no longer needed for Federally sponsored projects, the recipient shall proceed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the property that is no longer needed is equipment (rather than real property), the recipient may wish to replace it with an item that is needed currently for the project. In that case, the recipient may use the original equipment as trade-in or sell it and use the proceeds to offset the costs of the replacement equipment, subject to the approval of the responsible agency (i.e., the DoD Component or the Federal agency to which the DoD Component delegated responsibility for administering the equipment).
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipient may elect to retain title, without further obligation to the Federal Government, by compensating the Federal Government for that percentage of the current fair market value of the real property or equipment that is attributable to the Federal participation in the project.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the recipient does not elect to retain title to real property or equipment (see paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section), or request approval to use equipment as trade-in or offset for replacement equipment (see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section), the recipient shall request disposition instructions from the responsible agency.
</P>
<P>(2) If a recipient requests disposition instructions, in accordance with paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, the responsible grants officer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) For equipment (but not real property), consult with the Federal program manager and judge whether the age and nature of the equipment warrant a screening procedure, to determine whether the equipment is useful to a DoD Component or other Federal agency. If a screening procedure is warranted, the responsible agency shall determine whether the equipment can be used to meet a DoD Component's requirement. If no DoD requirement is found, the responsible agency shall report the availability of the equipment to the General Services Administration, to determine whether a requirement for the equipment exists in other Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) For either real property or equipment, issue instructions to the recipient for disposition of the property no later than 120 calendar days after the recipient's request. The grants officer's options for disposition are to direct the recipient to:
</P>
<P>(A) Transfer title to the real property or equipment to the Federal Government or to an eligible third party provided that, in such cases, the recipient shall be entitled to compensation for its attributable percentage of the current fair market value of the real property or equipment, plus any reasonable shipping or interim storage costs incurred. If title is transferred to the Federal Government, it shall be subject thereafter to provisions for Federally owned property in § 34.22.
</P>
<P>(B) Sell the real property or equipment and pay the Federal Government for that percentage of the current fair market value of the property that is attributable to the Federal participation in the project (after deducting actual and reasonable selling and fix-up expenses, if any, from the sale proceeds). When the recipient is authorized or required to sell the real property or equipment, proper sales procedures shall be established that provide for competition to the extent practicable and result in the highest possible return.
</P>
<P>(3) If the responsible agency fails to issue disposition instructions within 120 calendar days of the recipient's request, as described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the recipient shall dispose of the real property or equipment through the option described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.22   Federally owned property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual inventory.</I> Recipients shall submit annually an inventory listing of all Federally owned property in their custody (property furnished by the Federal Government, rather than acquired by the recipient with Federal funds under the award), to the DoD Component or other Federal agency responsible for administering the property under the award.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use on other activities.</I> (1) Use of federally owned property on other activities is permissible, if authorized by the DoD Component responsible for administering the award to which the property currently is charged.
</P>
<P>(2) Use on other activities will be in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities sponsored by DoD Components' grants, cooperative agreements, or other assistance awards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities sponsored by other Federal agencies' grants, cooperative agreements, or other assistance awards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities under Federal procurement contracts, or activities not sponsored by any Federal agency. If so used, use charges shall be assessed to those activities. For real property or equipment, the use charges shall be at rates equivalent to those for which comparable real property or equipment may be leased. The use charges shall be treated as program income.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition of property.</I> Upon completion of the award, the recipient shall report the property to the responsible agency. The agency may:
</P>
<P>(1) Use the property to meet another Federal Government need (e.g., by transferring accountability for the property to another Federal award to the same recipient, or by directing the recipient to transfer the property to a Federal agency that needs the property, or to another recipient with a currently funded award).
</P>
<P>(2) Declare the property to be excess property and either:
</P>
<P>(i) Report the property to the General Services Administration, in accordance with the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949 (40 U.S.C. 483(b)(2)), as implemented by General Services Administration regulations at 41 CFR 101-47.202; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Dispose of the property by alternative methods, if there is statutory authority to do so (e.g., DoD Components are authorized by 15 U.S.C. 3710(i), the Federal Technology Transfer Act, to donate research equipment to educational and nonprofit organizations for the conduct of technical and scientific education and research activities. Such donations shall be in accordance with the DoD implementation of E.O. 12999 (3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 180), “Educational Technology: Ensuring Opportunity for All Children in the Next Century,” as applicable.) Appropriate instructions shall be issued to the recipient by the responsible agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.23   Property management system.</HEAD>
<P>The recipient's property management system shall include the following, for property that is Federally owned, and for equipment that is acquired in whole or in part with Federal funds, or that is used as matching share:
</P>
<P>(a) Property records shall be maintained, to include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturer's serial number, model number, Federal stock number, national stock number, or any other identification number.
</P>
<P>(3) Source of the property, including the award number.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether title vests in the recipient or the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisition date (or date received, if the property was furnished by the Federal Government) and cost.
</P>
<P>(6) Information from which one can calculate the percentage of Federal participation in the cost of the property (not applicable to property furnished by the Federal Government).
</P>
<P>(7) The location and condition of the property and the date the information was reported.
</P>
<P>(8) Ultimate disposition data, including date of disposal and sales price or the method used to determine current fair market value where a recipient compensates the Federal Government for its share.
</P>
<P>(b) Federally owned equipment shall be marked, to indicate Federal ownership.
</P>
<P>(c) A physical inventory shall be taken and the results reconciled with the property records at least once every two years. Any differences between quantities determined by the physical inspection and those shown in the accounting records shall be investigated to determine the causes of the difference. The recipient shall, in connection with the inventory, verify the existence, current utilization, and continued need for the property.
</P>
<P>(d) A control system shall be in effect to insure adequate safeguards to prevent loss, damage, or theft of the property. Any loss, damage, or theft of property shall be investigated and fully documented; if the property was owned by the Federal Government, the recipient shall promptly notify the Federal agency responsible for administering the property.
</P>
<P>(e) Adequate maintenance procedures shall be implemented to keep the property in good condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.24" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.24   Supplies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Title shall vest in the recipient upon acquisition for supplies acquired with Federal funds under an award.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon termination or completion of the project or program, the recipient shall retain any unused supplies. If the inventory of unused supplies exceeds $5,000 in total aggregate value and the items are not needed for any other Federally sponsored project or program, the recipient shall retain the items for use on non-Federal sponsored activities or sell them, but shall, in either case, compensate the Federal Government for its share.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.25" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.25   Intellectual property developed or produced under awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Patents.</I> Grants and cooperative agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Small business concerns shall comply with 35 U.S.C. Chapter 18, as implemented by 37 CFR part 401, which applies to inventions made under grants and cooperative agreements with small business concerns for research and development. 37 CFR 401.14 provides a standard clause that is required in such grants and cooperative agreements in most cases, 37 CFR 401.3 specifies when the clause shall be included, and 37 CFR 401.5 specifies how the clause may be modified and tailored.
</P>
<P>(2) For-profit organizations other than small business concerns shall comply with 35 U.S.C. 210(c) and Executive Order 12591 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 220) (which codifies a Presidential Memorandum on Government Patent Policy, dated February 18, 1983).
</P>
<P>(i) The Executive order states that, as a matter of policy, grants and cooperative agreements should grant to all for-profit organizations, regardless of size, title to patents made in whole or in part with Federal funds, in exchange for royalty-free use by or on behalf of the Government (i.e., it extends the applicability of 35 U.S.C. Chapter 18, to the extent permitted by law, to for-profit organizations other than small business concerns).
</P>
<P>(ii) 35 U.S.C. 210(c) states that 35 U.S.C. Chapter 18 is not intended to limit agencies' authority to agree to the disposition of rights in inventions in accordance with the Presidential memorandum codified by the Executive order. It also states that such grants and cooperative agreements shall provide for Government license rights required by 35 U.S.C. 202(c)(4) and march-in rights required by 35 U.S.C. 203.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Copyright, data and software rights.</I> Requirements concerning data and software rights are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient may copyright any work that is subject to copyright and was developed under an award. DoD Components reserve a royalty-free, nonexclusive and irrevocable right to reproduce, publish, or otherwise use the work for Federal purposes, and to authorize others to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless waived by the DoD Component making the award, the Federal Government has the right to:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain, reproduce, publish or otherwise use for Federal Government purposes the data first produced under an award.
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorize others to receive, reproduce, publish, or otherwise use such data for Federal purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procurement Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.30" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.3.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.30   Purpose of procurement standards.</HEAD>
<P>Section 34.31 sets forth requirements necessary to ensure:
</P>
<P>(a) Compliance of recipients' procurements that use Federal funds with applicable Federal statutes and executive orders.
</P>
<P>(b) Proper stewardship of Federal funds used in recipients' procurements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.31" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.3.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.31   Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The following requirements pertain to recipients' procurements funded in whole or in part with Federal funds or with recipients' cost-share or match:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Reasonable cost.</I> Recipients procurement procedures shall make maximum practicable use of competition, or shall use other means that ensure reasonable cost for procured goods and services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-award review of certain procurements.</I> Prior to awarding a procurement contract under an award, a recipient may be required to provide the grants officer administering the award with pre-award documents (e.g., requests for proposals, invitations for bids, or independent cost estimates) related to the procurement. Recipients will only be required to provide such documents for the grants officer's pre-award review in exceptional cases where the grants officer judges that there is a compelling need to do so. In such cases, the grants officer must include a provision in the award that states the requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contract provisions.</I> (1) Contracts in excess of the simplified acquisition threshold shall contain contractual provisions or conditions that allow for administrative, contractual, or legal remedies in instances in which a contractor violates or breaches the contract terms, and provide for such remedial actions as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) All contracts in excess of the simplified acquisition threshold shall contain suitable provisions for termination for default by the recipient or for termination due to circumstances beyond the control of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(3) All negotiated contracts in excess of the simplified acquisition threshold shall include a provision permitting access of the Department of Defense, the Comptroller General of the United States, or any of their duly authorized representatives, to any books, documents, papers, and records of the contractor that are directly pertinent to a specific program, for the purpose of making audits, examinations, excerpts, and transcriptions.
</P>
<P>(4) All contracts, including those for amounts less than the simplified acquisition threshold, awarded by recipients and their contractors shall contain the procurement provisions of Appendix A to this part, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reports and Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.40" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.4.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.40   Purpose of reports and records.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 34.41 and 34.42 prescribe requirements for monitoring and reporting financial and program performance and for records retention.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.41" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.4.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.41   Monitoring and reporting program and financial performance.</HEAD>
<P>Grants officers may use the provisions of subparts A and B of 2 CFR part 1134 for awards to for-profit organizations, or may include equivalent technical and financial reporting requirements that ensure reasonable oversight of the expenditure of appropriated funds. As a minimum, equivalent requirements must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Periodic reports (at least annually, and no more frequently than quarterly) addressing both program status and business status, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The program portions of the reports must address progress toward achieving program performance goals, including current issues, problems, or developments.
</P>
<P>(2) The business portions of the reports shall provide summarized details on the status of resources (federal funds and non-federal cost sharing or matching), including an accounting of expenditures for the period covered by the report. The report should compare the resource status with any payment and expenditure schedules or plans provided in the original award; explain any major deviations from those schedules; and discuss actions that will be taken to address the deviations.
</P>
<P>(3) When grants officers previously authorized advance payments, pursuant to § 34.12(a)(2), they should consult with the program official and consider whether program progress reported in the periodic report, in relation to reported expenditures, is sufficient to justify continued authorization of advance payments.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless inappropriate, a final performance report that addresses all major accomplishments under the award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 51244, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.42" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.4.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.42   Retention and access requirements for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth requirements for records retention and access to records for awards to recipients.
</P>
<P>(b) Financial records, supporting documents, statistical records, and all other records pertinent to an award shall be retained for a period of three years from the date of submission of the final expenditure report. The only exceptions are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If any litigation, claim, or audit is started before the expiration of the 3-year period, the records shall be retained until all litigation, claims or audit findings involving the records have been resolved and final action taken.
</P>
<P>(2) Records for real property and equipment acquired with Federal funds shall be retained for 3 years after final disposition.
</P>
<P>(3) When records are transferred to or maintained by the DoD Component that made the award, the 3-year retention requirement is not applicable to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(4) Indirect cost rate proposals, cost allocations plans, and related records, for which retention requirements are specified in § 34.42(g).
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of original records may be substituted for the original records if authorized by the grants officer.
</P>
<P>(d) The grants officer shall request that recipients transfer certain records to DoD Component custody when he or she determines that the records possess long term retention value. However, in order to avoid duplicate recordkeeping, a grants officer may make arrangements for recipients to retain any records that are continuously needed for joint use.
</P>
<P>(e) DoD Components, the Inspector General, Comptroller General of the United States, or any of their duly authorized representatives, have the right of timely and unrestricted access to any books, documents, papers, or other records of recipients that are pertinent to the awards, in order to make audits, examinations, excerpts, transcripts and copies of such documents. This right also includes timely and reasonable access to a recipient's personnel for the purpose of interview and discussion related to such documents. The rights of access in this paragraph are not limited to the required retention period, but shall last as long as records are retained.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless required by statute, no DoD Component shall place restrictions on recipients that limit public access to the records of recipients that are pertinent to an award, except when the DoD Component can demonstrate that such records shall be kept confidential and would have been exempted from disclosure pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) if the records had belonged to the DoD Component making the award.
</P>
<P>(g) Indirect cost proposals, cost allocation plans, and other cost accounting documents (such as documents related to computer usage chargeback rates), along with their supporting records, shall be retained for a 3-year period, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a recipient is required to submit an indirect-cost proposal, cost allocation plan, or other computation to the cognizant Federal agency, for purposes of negotiating an indirect cost rate or other rates, the 3-year retention period starts on the date of the submission. This retention requirement also applies to subrecipients submitting similar documents for negotiation to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) If the recipient or the subrecipient is not required to submit the documents or supporting records for negotiating an indirect cost rate or other rates, the 3-year retention period for the documents and records starts at the end of the fiscal year (or other accounting period) covered by the proposal, plan, or other computation.
</P>
<P>(h) If the information described in this section is maintained on a computer, recipients shall retain the computer data on a reliable medium for the time periods prescribed. Recipients may transfer computer data in machine readable form from one reliable computer medium to another. Recipients' computer data retention and transfer procedures shall maintain the integrity, reliability, and security of the original computer data. Recipients shall also maintain an audit trail describing the data transfer. For the record retention time periods prescribed in this section, recipients shall not destroy, discard, delete, or write over such computer data.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Termination and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.50" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.50   Purpose of termination and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 34.51 through 34.53 set forth uniform procedures for suspension, termination, enforcement, and disputes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.51" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.51   Termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards may be terminated in whole or in part only in accordance with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) By the grants officer, if a recipient materially fails to comply with the terms and conditions of an award.
</P>
<P>(2) By the grants officer with the consent of the recipient, in which case the two parties shall agree upon the termination conditions, including the effective date and, in the case of partial termination, the portion to be terminated.
</P>
<P>(3) By the recipient upon sending to the grants officer written notification setting forth the reasons for such termination, the effective date, and, in the case of partial termination, the portion to be terminated. The recipient must provide such notice at least 30 calendar days prior to the effective date of the termination. However, if the grants officer determines in the case of partial termination that the reduced or modified portion of the award will not accomplish the purposes for which the award was made, he or she may terminate the award in its entirety.
</P>
<P>(b) If costs are allowed under an award, the responsibilities of the recipient referred to in § 34.61(b), including those for property management as applicable, shall be considered in the termination of the award, and provision shall be made for continuing responsibilities of the recipient after termination, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.52" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.5.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.52   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedies for noncompliance.</I> If a recipient materially fails to comply with the terms and conditions of an award, whether stated in a Federal statute, regulation, assurance, application, or notice of award, the grants officer may, in addition to imposing any of the special conditions outlined in § 34.4, take one or more of the following actions, as appropriate in the circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Temporarily withhold cash payments pending correction of the deficiency by the recipient or more severe enforcement action by the grants officer and DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(2) Disallow (that is, deny both use of funds and any applicable matching credit for) all or part of the cost of the activity or action not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) Wholly or partly suspend or terminate the current award. In the case of termination, the recipient will be reimbursed for allowable costs incurred prior to termination, with the possible exception of those for activities and actions described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Withhold further awards for the project or program.
</P>
<P>(5) Take other remedies that may be legally available.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings and appeals.</I> In taking an enforcement action, the grants officer and DoD Component shall provide the recipient an opportunity for hearing, appeal, or other administrative proceeding to which the recipient is entitled under any statute or regulation applicable to the action involved (see § 34.53 and 32 CFR 22.815).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effects of suspension and termination.</I> Costs of a recipient resulting from obligations incurred by the recipient during a suspension or after termination of an award are not allowable unless the grants officer expressly authorizes them in the notice of suspension or termination or subsequently. Other recipient costs during suspension or after termination which are necessary and not reasonably avoidable are allowable if the costs:
</P>
<P>(1) Result from obligations which were properly incurred by the recipient before the effective date of suspension or termination, are not in anticipation of it, and in the case of a termination, are noncancellable; and
</P>
<P>(2) Would be allowable if the award were not suspended or expired normally at the end of the funding period in which the termination takes effect.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to debarment and suspension.</I> The enforcement remedies identified in this section, including suspension and termination, do not preclude a recipient from being subject to debarment and suspension under 2 CFR part 1125.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12188, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 34998, June 26, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.53" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.2.5.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.53   Disputes and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>Recipients have the right to appeal certain decisions by grants officers. In resolving such issues, DoD policy is to use Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) techniques, to the maximum practicable extent. See 32 CFR 22.815 for standards for DoD Components' dispute resolution and formal, administrative appeal procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—After-the-Award Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.60" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.60   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 34.61 through 34.63 contain procedures for closeout and for subsequent disallowances and adjustments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.61" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.61   Closeout procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cognizant grants officer shall, at least six months prior to the expiration date of the award, contact the recipient to establish:
</P>
<P>(1) All steps needed to close out the award, including submission of financial and performance reports, liquidation of obligations, and decisions on property disposition.
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule for completing those steps.
</P>
<P>(b) The following provisions shall apply to the closeout:
</P>
<P>(1) The responsible grants officer and payment office shall expedite completion of steps needed to close out awards and make prompt, final payments to a recipient for allowable reimbursable costs under the award being closed out.
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient shall promptly refund any unobligated balances of cash that the DoD Component has advanced or paid and that is not authorized to be retained by the recipient for use in other projects. For unreturned amounts that become delinquent debts, see 32 CFR 22.820.
</P>
<P>(3) When authorized by the terms and conditions of the award, the grants officer shall make a settlement for any upward or downward adjustments to the Federal share of costs after closeout reports are received.
</P>
<P>(4) The recipient shall account for any real property and personal property acquired with Federal funds or received from the Federal Government in accordance with §§ 34.21 through 34.25.
</P>
<P>(5) If a final audit is required and has not been performed prior to the closeout of an award, the DoD Component shall retain the right to recover an appropriate amount after fully considering the recommendations on disallowed costs resulting from the final audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.62" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.62   Subsequent adjustments and continuing responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The closeout of an award does not affect any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The right of the Department of Defense to disallow costs and recover funds on the basis of a later audit or other review.
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation of the recipient to return any funds due as a result of later refunds, corrections, or other transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) Audit requirements in § 34.16.
</P>
<P>(4) Property management requirements in §§ 34.21 through 34.25.
</P>
<P>(5) Records retention as required in § 34.42.
</P>
<P>(b) After closeout of an award, a relationship created under an award may be modified or ended in whole or in part with the consent of the grants officer and the recipient, provided the responsibilities of the recipient referred to in § 34.61(a), including those for property management as applicable, are considered and provisions made for continuing responsibilities of the recipient, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.63" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.63   Collection of amounts due.</HEAD>
<P>Any funds paid to a recipient in excess of the amount to which the recipient is finally determined to be entitled under the terms and conditions of the award constitute a debt to the Federal Government. Procedures for issuing the demand for payment and pursuing administrative offset and other remedies are described in 32 CFR 22.820.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.9.5.6.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 34—Contract Provisions
</HEAD>
<P>All contracts awarded by a recipient, including those for amounts less than the simplified acquisition threshold, shall contain the following provisions as applicable:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Equal Employment Opportunity</I>—All contracts shall contain a provision requiring compliance with E.O. 11246 (3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339), “Equal Employment Opportunity,” as amended by E.O. 11375 (3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684), “Amending Executive Order 11246 Relating to Equal Employment Opportunity,” and as supplemented by regulations at 41 CFR chapter 60, “Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Equal Employment Opportunity, Department of Labor.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Copeland “Anti-Kickback” Act (18 U.S.C. 874 and 40 U.S.C. 3145)</I>—All contracts and subawards in excess of $2000 for construction or repair awarded by recipients and subrecipients shall include a provision for compliance with the Copeland “Anti-Kickback” Act (18 U.S.C. 874), as supplemented by Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 3, “Contractors and Subcontractors on Public Building or Public Work Financed in Whole or in Part by Loans or Grants from the United States”). The Act provides that each contractor or subrecipient shall be prohibited from inducing, by any means, any person employed in the construction, completion, or repair of public work, to give up any part of the compensation to which he is otherwise entitled. The recipient shall report all suspected or reported violations to the responsible DoD Component.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C., chapter 37)</I>—Where applicable, all contracts awarded by recipients in excess of $100,000 for construction and other purposes that involve the employment of mechanics or laborers shall include a provision for compliance with Sections 102 and 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C., chapter 37), as supplemented by Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 5). Under Section 102 of the Act, each contractor shall be required to compute the wages of every mechanic and laborer on the basis of a standard work week of 40 hours. Work in excess of the standard work week is permissible provided that the worker is compensated at a rate of not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the basic rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of 40 hours in the work week. Section 107 of the Act is applicable to construction work and provides that no laborer or mechanic shall be required to work in surroundings or under working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous or dangerous. These requirements do not apply to the purchases of supplies or materials or articles ordinarily available on the open market, or contracts for transportation or transmission of intelligence.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rights to Inventions Made Under a Contract, Grant or Cooperative Agreement</I>—Contracts, grants, or cooperative agreements for the performance of experimental, developmental, or research work shall provide for the rights of the Federal Government and the recipient in any resulting invention in accordance with 37 CFR part 401, “Rights to Inventions Made by Nonprofit Organizations and Small Business Firms Under Government Grants, Contracts and Cooperative Agreements.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Clean Air Act</I> (42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended—Contracts and subawards of amounts in excess of $150,000 shall contain a provision that requires the recipient to agree to comply with all applicable standards, orders or regulations issued pursuant to the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Federal Water Pollution Control Act as amended (33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.</I>). Violations shall be reported to the responsible DoD Component and the Regional Office of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Byrd Anti-Lobbying Amendment (31 U.S.C. 1352)</I>—Contractors who apply or bid for an award of $100,000 or more shall file the required certification. Each tier certifies to the tier above that it will not and has not used Federal appropriated funds to pay any person or organization for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a member of Congress, officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a member of Congress in connection with obtaining any Federal contract, grant or any other award covered by 31 U.S.C. 1352. Each tier shall also disclose any lobbying with non-Federal funds that takes place in connection with obtaining any Federal award. Such disclosures are forwarded from tier to tier up to the recipient.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Debarment and Suspension (E.O.s 12549 and 12689)</I>—A contract award with an amount expected to equal or exceed $25,000 and certain other contract awards (see 2 CFR 1125.220, which implements OMB guidance at 2 CFR 180.220) shall not be made to parties identified in the Exclusions area of the System for Award Management (SAM Exclusions) as being currently debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded. This restriction is in accordance with the DoD adoption at 2 CFR part 1125 of the OMB guidance implementing E.O.s 12549 (3 CFR, 1986 Comp., p. 189) and 12689 (3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 235), “Debarment and Suspension.”
</P>
<P>8. <I>Wage Rate Requirements (Construction), formerly the Davis Bacon Act.</I> When required by Federal program legislation, you must take the following actions with respect to each construction contract for more than $2,000 to be awarded using funding provided under this award:
</P>
<P>a. Place in the solicitation under which the contract will be awarded a copy of the current prevailing wage determination issued by the Department of Labor;
</P>
<P>b. Condition the decision to award the contract upon the contractor's acceptance of that prevailing wage determination;
</P>
<P>c. Include in the contract the clauses specified at 29 CFR 5.5(a) in Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 5, “Labor Standards Provisions Applicable to Contracts Governing Federally Financed and Assisted Construction”) to require the contractor's compliance with the Wage Rate Requirements (Construction), as amended (40 U.S.C. 3141-44, 3146, and 3147); and
</P>
<P>d. Report all suspected or reported violations to the award administration office identified in this award.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Fly America requirements.</I> In each contract under which funds provided under this award might be used to participate in costs of international air travel or transportation for people or property, you must include a clause to require the contractor to:
</P>
<P>a. Comply with the International Air Transportation Fair Competitive Practices Act of 1974 (49 U.S.C. 40118, also known as the “Fly America” Act), as implemented by the General Services Administration at 41 CFR 301-10.131 through 301-10.143, which provides that U.S Government financed international air travel and transportation of personal effects or property must use a U.S. Flag air carrier or be performed under a cost sharing arrangement with a U.S. carrier, if such service is available; and
</P>
<P>b. Include the requirements of the Fly America Act in all subcontracts that might involve international air transportation.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Cargo preference for United States flag vessels.</I> In each contract under which equipment, material, or commodities may be shipped by oceangoing vessels, you must include the clause specified in Department of Transportation regulations at 46 CFR 381.7(b) to require that at least 50 percent of equipment, materials or commodities purchased or otherwise obtained with Federal funds under this award, and transported by ocean vessel, be transported on privately owned U.S. flag commercial vessels, if available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 12204, Mar. 12, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 49477, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34998, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51245, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="37" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 37—TECHNOLOGY INVESTMENT AGREEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.100   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes uniform policies and procedures for the DoD Components' award and administration of technology investment agreements (TIAs). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.105" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.105   Does this part cover all types of instruments that 10 U.S.C. 2371 authorizes?</HEAD>
<P>No, this part covers only TIAs, some of which use the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371 (<I>see</I> appendix B to this part). This part does not cover assistance instruments other than TIAs that use the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371. It also does not cover acquisition agreements for prototype projects that use 10 U.S.C. 2371 authority augmented by the authority in section 845 of Public Law 103-160, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.110" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.110   What type of instruments are technology investment agreements (TIAs)?</HEAD>
<P>TIAs are assistance instruments used to stimulate or support research. As discussed in appendix B to this part, a TIA may be either a kind of cooperative agreement or a type of assistance transaction other than a grant or cooperative agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.115" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.115   For what purposes are TIAs used?</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate goal for using TIAs, like other assistance instruments used in defense research programs, is to foster the best technologies for future defense needs. TIAs differ from and complement other assistance instruments available to agreements officers, in that TIAs address the goal by fostering civil-military integration (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part). TIAs therefore are designed to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Reduce barriers to commercial firms' participation in defense research, to give the Department of Defense (DoD) access to the broadest possible technology and industrial base. 
</P>
<P>(b) Promote new relationships among performers in both the defense and commercial sectors of that technology and industrial base. 
</P>
<P>(c) Stimulate performers to develop, use, and disseminate improved practices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.120" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.120   Can my organization award or administer TIAs?</HEAD>
<P>Your office may award or administer TIAs if it has a delegation of the authorities in 10 U.S.C. 2371, as well as 10 U.S.C. 2358. If your office is in a Military Department, it must have a delegation of the authority of the Secretary of that Military Department under those statutes. If your office is in a Defense Agency, it must have a delegation of the authority of the Secretary of Defense under 10 U.S.C. 2358 and 2371. Your office needs those authorities to be able to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Enter into cooperative agreements to stimulate or support research, using the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2358, as well as assistance transactions other than grants or cooperative agreements, using the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371. The reason that both authorities are needed is that a TIA, depending upon its patent rights provision (<I>see</I> appendix B to this part), may be either a cooperative agreement or a type of assistance transaction other than a grant or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) Recover funds from a recipient and reuse the funds for program purposes, as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2371 and described in § 37.580. 
</P>
<P>(c) Exempt certain information received from proposers from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2371 and described in § 37.420. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.125" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.125   May I award or administer TIAs if I am authorized to award or administer other assistance instruments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must have specific authorization to award or administer TIAs. Being authorized to award or administer grants and cooperative agreements is not sufficient; a grants officer is an agreements officer only if the statement of appointment also authorizes the award or administration of TIAs. 
</P>
<P>(b) You receive that authorization in the same way that you receive authority to award other assistance instruments, as described in 32 CFR 21.425 and 21.435 through 21.445. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.130" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.1.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.130   Which other parts of the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations apply to TIAs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) TIAs are explicitly covered in this part and part 21 of the DoD Grant and Agreement Regulations (DoDGARs). Part 21 (32 CFR part 21) addresses deviation procedures and other general matters that relate to the DoDGARs, to DoD Components' authorities and responsibilities for assistance instruments, and to requirements for reporting information about assistance awards. 
</P>
<P>(b) Two additional parts of the DoDGARs apply to TIAs, although they do not mention TIAs explicitly. They are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Part 1125 (2 CFR part 1125) on nonprocurement debarment and suspension, which applies because it covers nonprocurement instruments in general; 
</P>
<P>(2) Part 26 (32 CFR part 26), on drug-free workplace requirements, which applies because it covers financial assistance in general; and
</P>
<P>(3) Part 28 (32 CFR part 28), on lobbying restrictions, which applies by law (31 U.S.C. 1352) to TIAs that are cooperative agreements and as a matter of DoD policy to all other TIAs.
</P>
<P>(c) Portions of other DoDGARs parts apply to TIAs only as cited by reference in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 49477, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34999, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51245, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appropriate Use of Technology Investment Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.200" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.200   What are my responsibilities as an agreements officer for ensuring the appropriate use of TIAs?</HEAD>
<P>You must ensure that you use TIAs only in appropriate situations. To do so, you must conclude that the use of a TIA is justified based on: 
</P>
<P>(a) The nature of the project, as discussed in § 37.205; 
</P>
<P>(b) The type of recipient, addressed in § 37.210; 
</P>
<P>(c) The recipient's commitment and cost sharing, as described in § 37.215; 
</P>
<P>(d) The degree of involvement of the Government program official, as discussed in § 37.220; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Your judgment that the use of a TIA could benefit defense research objectives in ways that likely would not happen if another type of assistance instrument were used. Your answers to the four questions in § 37.225 should be the basis for your judgment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.205   What judgments must I make about the nature of the project?</HEAD>
<P>You must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Conclude that the principal purpose of the project is stimulation or support of research (<I>i.e.,</I> assistance), rather than acquiring goods or services for the benefit of the Government (<I>i.e.,</I> acquisition); 
</P>
<P>(b) Decide that the basic, applied, or advanced research project is relevant to the policy objective of civil-military integration (<I>see</I> appendix A of this part); and 
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that, to the maximum extent practicable, any TIA that uses the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371 (<I>see</I> appendix B of this part) does not support research that duplicates other research being conducted under existing programs carried out by the Department of Defense. This is a statutory requirement of 10 U.S.C. 2371. 
</P>
<P>(d) When your TIA is a type of assistance transaction other than a grant or cooperative agreement, satisfy the condition in 10 U.S.C. 2371 to judge that the use of a standard grant or cooperative agreement for the research project is not feasible or appropriate. As discussed in appendix B to this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) This situation arises if your TIA includes a patent provision that is less restrictive than is possible under the Bayh-Dole statute (because the patent provision is what distinguishes a TIA that is a cooperative agreement from a TIA that is an assistance transaction other than a grant or cooperative agreement). 
</P>
<P>(2) You satisfy the requirement to judge that a standard cooperative agreement is not feasible or appropriate when you judge that execution of the research project warrants a less restrictive patent provision than is possible under Bayh-Dole. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.210   To what types of recipients may I award a TIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a matter of DoD policy, you may award a TIA only when one or more for-profit firms are to be involved either in the: 
</P>
<P>(1) Performance of the research project; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The commercial application of the research results. In that case, you must determine that the nonprofit performer has at least a tentative agreement with specific for-profit partners who plan on being involved when there are results to transition. You should review the agreement between the nonprofit and for-profit partners, because the for-profit partners' involvement is the basis for using a TIA rather than another type of assistance instrument. 
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with the goals of civil-military integration, TIAs are most appropriate when one or more commercial firms (as defined at § 37.1250) are to be involved in the project. 
</P>
<P>(c) You are encouraged to make awards to consortia (a consortium may include one or more for-profit firms, as well as State or local government agencies, institutions of higher education, or other nonprofit organizations). The reasons are that: 
</P>
<P>(1) When multiple performers are participating as a consortium, they are more equal partners in the research performance than usually is the case with a prime recipient and subawards. All of them therefore are more likely to be directly involved in developing and revising plans for the research effort, reviewing technical progress, and overseeing financial and other business matters. That feature makes consortia well suited to building new relationships among performers in the defense and commercial sectors of the technology and industrial base, a principal objective for the use of TIAs. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, interactions among the participants within a consortium potentially provide a self-governance mechanism. The potential for additional self-governance is particularly good when a consortium includes multiple for-profit participants that normally are competitors within an industry. 
</P>
<P>(d) TIAs also may be used for carrying out research performed by single firms or multiple performers in prime award-subaward relationships. In awarding TIAs in those cases, however, you should consider providing for greater involvement of the program official or a way to increase self-governance (<I>e.g.,</I> a prime award with multiple subawards arranged so as to give the subrecipients more insight into and authority and responsibility for programmatic and business aspects of the overall project than they usually have). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.215" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.215   What must I conclude about the recipient's commitment and cost sharing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You should judge that the recipient has a strong commitment to and self-interest in the success of the project. You should find evidence of that commitment and interest in the proposal, in the recipient's management plan, or through other means. A recipient's self-interest might be driven, for example, by a research project's potential for fostering technology to be incorporated into products and processes for the commercial marketplace. 
</P>
<P>(b) You must seek cost sharing. The purpose of cost share is to ensure that the recipient incurs real risk that gives it a vested interest in the project's success; the willingness to commit to meaningful cost sharing therefore is one good indicator of a recipient's self-interest. The requirements are that: 
</P>
<P>(1) To the maximum extent practicable, the non-Federal parties carrying out a research project under a TIA are to provide at least half of the costs of the project. Obtaining this cost sharing, to the maximum extent practicable, is a statutory condition for any TIA under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2371, and is a matter of DoD policy for all other TIAs. 
</P>
<P>(2) The parties must provide the cost sharing from non-Federal resources that are available to them unless there is specific authority to use other Federal resources for that purpose (<I>see</I> § 37.530(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) You may consider whether cost sharing is impracticable in a given case, unless there is a non-waivable, statutory requirement for cost sharing that applies to the particular program under which the award is to be made. Before deciding that cost sharing is impracticable, you should carefully consider whether there are other factors that demonstrate the recipient's self-interest in the success of the current project. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.220" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.220   How involved should the Government program official be in the project?</HEAD>
<P>(a) TIAs are used to carry out cooperative relationships between the Federal Government and the recipient, which requires a greater level of involvement of the Government program official in the execution of the research than the usual oversight of a research grant or procurement contract. For example, program officials will participate in recipients' periodic reviews of research progress and will be substantially involved with the recipients in the resulting revisions of plans for future effort. That increased programmatic involvement before and during program execution with a TIA can reduce the need for some Federal financial requirements that are problematic for commercial firms. 
</P>
<P>(b) Some aspects of their involvement require program officials to have greater knowledge about and participation in business matters that traditionally would be your exclusive responsibility as the agreements officer. TIAs therefore also require closer cooperation between program officials and you, as the one who decides business matters. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.225" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.225   What judgment must I make about the benefits of using a TIA?</HEAD>
<P>Before deciding that a TIA is appropriate, you also must judge that using a TIA could benefit defense research objectives in ways that likely would not happen if another type of assistance instrument were used (<I>e.g.,</I> a cooperative agreement subject to all of the requirements of 32 CFR part 34). You, in conjunction with Government program officials, must consider the questions in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, to help identify the benefits that may justify using a TIA and reducing some of the usual requirements. In accordance with § 37.1020, you must document your answers to these questions in the award file. Note that you must give full concise answers only to questions that relate to the benefits that you perceive for using the TIA, rather than another type of funding instrument, for the particular research project. A simple “no” or “not applicable” is a sufficient response for other questions. The questions are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Will the use of a TIA permit the involvement in the research of any commercial firms or business units of firms that would not otherwise participate in the project? If so: 
</P>
<P>(1) What are the expected benefits of those firms' or divisions' participation (e.g., is there a specific technology that could be better, more readily available, or less expensive)? 
</P>
<P>(2) Why would they not participate if an instrument other than a TIA were used? You should identify specific provisions of the TIA or features of the TIA award process that enable their participation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Will the use of a TIA allow the creation of new relationships among participants at the prime or subtier levels, among business units of the same firm, or between non-Federal participants and the Federal Government that will help the DoD get better technology in the future? If so: 
</P>
<P>(1) Why do these new relationships have the potential for helping the DoD get technology in the future that is better, more affordable, or more readily available? 
</P>
<P>(2) Are there provisions of the TIA or features of the TIA award process that enable these relationships to form? If so, you should be able to identify specifically what they are. If not, you should be able to explain specifically why you think that the relationships could not be created if an assistance instrument other than a TIA were used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Will the use of a TIA allow firms or business units of firms that traditionally accept Government awards to use new business practices in the execution of the research that will help us get better technology, help us get new technology more quickly or less expensively, or facilitate partnering with commercial firms? If so: 
</P>
<P>(1) What specific benefits will the DoD potentially get from the use of these new practices? You should be able to explain specifically why you foresee a potential for those benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) Are there provisions of the TIA or features of the TIA award process that enable the use of the new practices? If so, you should be able to identify those provisions or features and explain why you think that the practices could not be used if the award were made using an assistance instrument other than a TIA. 
</P>
<P>(d) Are there any other benefits of the use of a TIA that could help the Department of Defense better meet its objectives in carrying out the research project? If so, you should be able to identify specifically what they are, how they can help meet defense objectives, what features of the TIA or award process enable the DoD to realize them, and why the benefits likely would not be realized if an assistance instrument other than a TIA were used. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51245, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.230" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.2.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.230   May I use a TIA if a participant is to receive fee or profit?</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with 32 CFR 22.205(b), you may not use a TIA if any participant is to receive fee or profit. Note that this policy extends to all performers of the research project carried out under the TIA, including any subawards for substantive program performance, but it does not preclude participants' or subrecipients' payment of reasonable fee or profit when making purchases from suppliers of goods (<I>e.g.,</I> supplies and equipment) or services needed to carry out the research. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Expenditure-Based and Fixed-Support Technology Investment Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.3.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.300   What is the difference between an expenditure-based and fixed-support TIA?</HEAD>
<P>The fundamental difference between an expenditure-based and fixed-support TIA is that: 
</P>
<P>(a) For an expenditure-based TIA, the amounts of interim payments or the total amount ultimately paid to the recipient are based on the amounts the recipient expends on project costs. If a recipient completes the project specified at the time of award before it expends all of the agreed-upon Federal funding and recipient cost sharing, the Federal Government may recover its share of the unexpended balance of funds or, by mutual agreement with the recipient, amend the agreement to expand the scope of the research project. An expenditure-based TIA therefore is analogous to a cost-type procurement contract or grant. 
</P>
<P>(b) For a fixed-support TIA, the amount of assistance established at the time of award is not meant to be adjusted later if the research project is carried out to completion. In that sense, a fixed-support TIA is somewhat analogous to a fixed-price procurement contract (although “price,” a concept appropriate to a procurement contract for buying a good or service, is not appropriate for a TIA or other assistance instrument for stimulation or support of a project). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.305" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.3.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.305   When may I use a fixed-support TIA?</HEAD>
<P>You may use a fixed-support TIA if: 
</P>
<P>(a) The agreement is to support or stimulate research with outcomes that are well defined, observable, and verifiable; 
</P>
<P>(b) You can reasonably estimate the resources required to achieve those outcomes well enough to ensure the desired level of cost sharing (<I>see</I> example in § 37.560(b)); and 
</P>
<P>(c) Your TIA does not require a specific amount or percentage of recipient cost sharing. In cases where the agreement does require a specific amount or percentage of cost sharing, a fixed-support TIA is not practicable because the agreement has to specify cost principles or standards for costs that may be charged to the project; require the recipient to track the costs of the project; and provide access for audit to allow verification of the recipient's compliance with the mandatory cost sharing. You therefore must use an expenditure-based TIA if you: 
</P>
<P>(1) Have a non-waivable requirement (<I>e.g.,</I> in statute) for a specific amount or percentage of recipient cost sharing; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Have otherwise elected to include in the TIA a requirement for a specific amount or percentage of cost sharing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.310" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.3.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.310   When would I use an expenditure-based TIA?</HEAD>
<P>In general, you must use an expenditure-based TIA under conditions other than those described in § 37.305. Reasons for any exceptions to this general rule must be documented in the award file and must be consistent with the policy in § 37.230 that precludes payment of fee or profit to participants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.315" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.3.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.315   What are the advantages of using a fixed-support TIA?</HEAD>
<P>In situations where the use of fixed-support TIAs is permissible (see §§ 37.305 and 37.310), their use may encourage some commercial firms' participation in the research. With a fixed-support TIA, you can eliminate or reduce some post-award requirements that sometimes are cited as disincentives for those firms to participate. For example, a fixed-support TIA need not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Specify minimum standards for the recipient's financial management system. 
</P>
<P>(b) Specify cost principles or standards stating the types of costs the recipient may charge to the project. 
</P>
<P>(c) Provide for financial audits by Federal auditors or independent public accountants of the recipient's books and records. 
</P>
<P>(d) Set minimum standards for the recipient's purchasing system. 
</P>
<P>(e) Require the recipient to prepare financial reports for submission to the Federal Government. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Competition Phase</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.400" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.400   Must I use competitive procedures to award TIAs?</HEAD>
<P>DoD policy is to award TIAs using merit-based, competitive procedures, as described in 32 CFR 22.315: 
</P>
<P>(a) In every case where required by statute; and 
</P>
<P>(b) To the maximum extent practicable in all other cases. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.405" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.405   What must my announcement or solicitation include?</HEAD>
<P>Your announcement, to be considered as part of a competitive procedure, must include the basic information described in 32 CFR 22.315(a). Additional elements for you to consider in the case of a program that may use TIAs are described in §§ 37.410 through 37.420. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.410" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.410   Should my announcement or solicitation state that TIAs may be awarded?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, once you consider the factors described in subpart B of this part and decide that TIAs are among the types of instruments that you may award pursuant to a solicitation, it is important for you to state that fact in the solicitation. You also should state that TIAs are more flexible than traditional Government funding instruments and that provisions are negotiable in areas such as audits and intellectual property rights that may cause concern for commercial firms. Doing so should increase the likelihood that commercial firms will be willing to submit proposals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.415" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.415   Should I address cost sharing in the announcement or solicitation?</HEAD>
<P>To help ensure a competitive process that is fair and equitable to all potential proposers, you should state clearly in the solicitation: 
</P>
<P>(a) That, to the maximum extent practicable, the non-Federal parties carrying out a research project under a TIA are to provide at least half of the costs of the project (see § 37.215(b)). 
</P>
<P>(b) The types of cost sharing that are acceptable; 
</P>
<P>(c) How any in-kind contributions will be valued, in accordance with §§ 37.530 through 37.555; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Whether you will give any consideration to alternative approaches a proposer may offer to demonstrate its strong commitment to and self-interest in the project's success, in accordance with § 37.215. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.420" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.4.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.420   Should I tell proposers that we will not disclose information that they submit?</HEAD>
<P>Your solicitation should tell potential proposers that: 
</P>
<P>(a) For all TIAs, information described in paragraph (b) of this section is exempt from disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)(codified at 5 U.S.C. 552) for a period of five years after the date on which the DoD Component receives the information from them.
</P>
<P>(b) As provided in 10 U.S.C. 2371, disclosure is not required, and may not be compelled, under FOIA during that period if: 
</P>
<P>(1) A proposer submits the information in a competitive or noncompetitive process that could result in their receiving a cooperative agreement for basic, applied, or advanced research under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2358 or any other type of transaction authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2371 (as explained in appendix B to this part, that includes all TIAs); and 
</P>
<P>(2) The type of information is among the following types that are exempt: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proposals, proposal abstracts, and supporting documents; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Business plans and technical information submitted on a confidential basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) If proposers desire to protect business plans and technical information for five years from FOIA disclosure requirements, they must mark them with a legend identifying them as documents submitted on a confidential basis. After the five-year period, information may be protected for longer periods if it meets any of the criteria in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) (as implemented by the DoD in subpart C of 32 CFR part 286) for exemption from FOIA disclosure requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Pre-Award Business Evaluation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.500" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.500   What must my pre-award business evaluation address?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must determine the qualification of the recipient, as described in §§ 37.510 and 37.515. 
</P>
<P>(b) As the business expert working with the program official, you also must address the financial aspects of the proposed agreement. You must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that the total amount of funding for the proposed effort is reasonable, as addressed in § 37.520. 
</P>
<P>(2) Assess the value and determine the reasonableness of the recipient's proposed cost sharing contribution, as discussed in §§ 37.525 through 37.555. 
</P>
<P>(3) If you are contemplating the use of a fixed-support rather than expenditure-based TIA, ensure that its use is justified, as explained in §§ 37.560 and 37.565. 
</P>
<P>(4) Address issues of inconsistent cost accounting by traditional Government contractors, should they arise, as noted in § 37.570. 
</P>
<P>(5) Determine amounts for milestone payments, if you use them, as discussed in § 37.575. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.505" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.505   What resources are available to assist me during the pre-award business evaluation?</HEAD>
<P>Administrative agreements officers of the Defense Contract Management Agency and the Office of Naval Research can share lessons learned from administering other TIAs. Program officials can be a source of information when you are determining the reasonableness of proposed funding (<I>e.g.,</I> on labor rates, as discussed in § 37.520) or establishing observable and verifiable technical milestones for payments (<I>see</I> § 37.575). Auditors at the Defense Contract Audit Agency can act in an advisory capacity to help you determine the reasonableness of proposed amounts, including values of in-kind contributions toward cost sharing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recipient Qualification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.510" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.510   What are my responsibilities for determining that a recipient is qualified?</HEAD>
<P>Prior to award of a TIA, your responsibilities for determining that the recipient is qualified are the same as those of a grants officer who is awarding a grant or cooperative agreement. Those responsibilities are described in subpart D of 32 CFR part 22. When the recipient is a consortium that is not formally incorporated, you have the additional responsibility described in § 37.515. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.515" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.515   Must I do anything additional to determine the qualification of a consortium?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the prospective recipient of a TIA is a consortium that is not formally incorporated, your determination that the recipient meets the standard at 32 CFR 22.415(a) requires that you, in consultation with legal counsel, review the management plan in the consortium's collaboration agreement. The purpose of your review is to ensure that the management plan is sound and that it adequately addresses the elements necessary for an effective working relationship among the consortium members. An effective working relationship is essential to increase the research project's chances of success. 
</P>
<P>(b) The collaboration agreement, commonly referred to as the articles of collaboration, is the document that sets out the rights and responsibilities of each consortium member. It binds the individual consortium members together, whereas the TIA binds the Government and the consortium as a group (or the Government and a consortium member on behalf of the consortium, as explained in § 37.1015). The document should discuss, among other things, the consortium's: 
</P>
<P>(1) Management structure. 
</P>
<P>(2) Method of making payments to consortium members. 
</P>
<P>(3) Means of ensuring and overseeing members' efforts on the project. 
</P>
<P>(4) Provisions for members' cost sharing contributions. 
</P>
<P>(5) Provisions for ownership and rights in intellectual property developed previously or under the agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Total Funding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.520" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.520   What is my responsibility for determining that the total project funding is reasonable?</HEAD>
<P>In cooperation with the program official, you must assess the reasonableness of the total estimated budget to perform the research that will be supported by the agreement. Additional guidance follows for: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Labor.</I> Much of the budget likely will involve direct labor and associated indirect costs, which may be represented together as a “loaded” labor rate. The program official is an essential advisor on reasonableness of the overall level of effort and its composition by labor category. You also may rely on your experience with other awards as the basis for determining reasonableness. If you have any unresolved questions, two of the ways that you might find helpful in establishing reasonableness are to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consult the administrative agreements officers or auditors identified in § 37.505. 
</P>
<P>(2) Compare loaded labor rates of for-profit firms that do not have expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts or assistance awards with a standard or average for the particular industry. Note that the program official may have knowledge about customary levels of direct labor charges in the particular industry that is involved. You may be able to compare associated indirect charges with Government-approved indirect cost rates that exist for many nonprofit and for-profit organizations that have Federal procurement contracts or assistance awards (note the requirement in § 37.630 for a for-profit participant to use Federally approved provisional indirect cost rates, if it has them). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Real property and equipment.</I> In almost all cases, the project costs may include only depreciation or use charges for real property and equipment of for-profit participants, in accordance with § 37.685. Remember that the budget for an expenditure-based TIA may not include depreciation of a participant's property as a direct cost of the project if that participant's practice is to charge the depreciation of that type of property as an indirect cost, as many organizations do. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Cost Sharing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.525" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.525   What is my responsibility for determining the value and reasonableness of the recipient's cost sharing contribution?</HEAD>
<P>You must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Determine that the recipient's cost sharing contributions meet the criteria for cost sharing and determine values for them, in accordance with §§ 37.530 through 37.555. In doing so, you must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that there are affirmative statements from any third parties identified as sources of cash contributions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Include in the award file an evaluation that documents how you determined the values of the recipient's contributions to the funding of the project. 
</P>
<P>(b) Judge that the recipient's cost sharing contribution, as a percentage of the total budget, is reasonable. To the maximum extent practicable, the recipient must provide at least half of the costs of the project, in accordance with § 37.215. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.530" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.530   What criteria do I use in deciding whether to accept a recipient's cost sharing?</HEAD>
<P>You may accept any cash or in-kind contributions that meet all of the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) In your judgment, they represent meaningful cost sharing that demonstrates the recipient's commitment to the success of the research project. Cash contributions clearly demonstrate commitment and they are strongly preferred over in-kind contributions. 
</P>
<P>(b) They are necessary and reasonable for accomplishment of the research project's objectives. 
</P>
<P>(c) They are costs that may be charged to the project under § 37.625 and § 37.635, as applicable to the participant making the contribution. 
</P>
<P>(d) They are verifiable from the recipient's records. 
</P>
<P>(e) They are not included as cost sharing contributions for any other Federal award. 
</P>
<P>(f) They are not paid by the Federal Government under another award, except: 
</P>
<P>(1) Costs that are authorized by Federal statute to be used for cost sharing; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Independent research and development (IR&amp;D) costs, as described at 32 CFR 34.13(a)(5)(ii), that meet all of the criteria in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. IR&amp;D is acceptable as cost sharing, even though it may be reimbursed by the Government through other awards. It is standard business practice for all for-profit firms, including commercial firms, to recover their research and development (R&amp;D) costs (which for Federal procurement contracts is recovered as IR&amp;D) through prices charged to their customers. Thus, the cost principles at 48 CFR part 31 allow a for-profit firm that has expenditure-based, Federal procurement contracts to recover through those procurement contracts the allocable portion of its R&amp;D costs associated with a technology investment agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.535" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.535   How do I value cost sharing related to real property or equipment?</HEAD>
<P>You rarely should accept values for cost sharing contributions of real property or equipment that are in excess of depreciation or reasonable use charges, as discussed in § 37.685 for for-profit participants. You may accept the full value of a donated capital asset if the real property or equipment is to be dedicated to the project and you expect that it will have a fair market value that is less than $5,000 at the project's end. In those cases, you should value the donation at the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The value of the property as shown in the recipient's accounting records (<I>i.e.,</I> purchase price less accumulated depreciation); or 
</P>
<P>(b) The current fair market value. You may accept the use of any reasonable basis for determining the fair market value of the property. If there is a justification to do so, you may accept the current fair market value even if it exceeds the value in the recipient's records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.540" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.540   May I accept fully depreciated real property or equipment as cost sharing?</HEAD>
<P>You should limit the value of any contribution of a fully depreciated asset to a reasonable use charge. In determining what is reasonable, you must consider: 
</P>
<P>(a) The original cost of the asset; 
</P>
<P>(b) Its estimated remaining useful life at the time of your negotiations; 
</P>
<P>(c) The effect of any increased maintenance charges or decreased performance due to age; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The amount of depreciation that the participant previously charged to Federal awards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.545" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.545   May I accept costs of prior research as cost sharing?</HEAD>
<P>No, you may not count any participant's costs of prior research as a cost sharing contribution. Only the additional resources that the recipient will provide to carry out the current project (which may include pre-award costs for the current project, as described in § 37.830) are to be counted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.550" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.550   May I accept intellectual property as cost sharing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In most instances, you should not count costs of patents and other intellectual property (<I>e.g.,</I> copyrighted material, including software) as cost sharing, because: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is difficult to assign values to these intangible contributions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Their value usually is a manifestation of prior research costs, which are not allowed as cost share under § 37.545; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Contributions of intellectual property rights generally do not represent the same cost of lost opportunity to a recipient as contributions of cash or tangible assets. The purpose of cost share is to ensure that the recipient incurs real risk that gives it a vested interest in the project's success. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may include costs associated with intellectual property if the costs are based on sound estimates of market value of the contribution. For example, a for-profit firm may offer the use of commercially available software for which there is an established license fee for use of the product. The costs of the development of the software would not be a reasonable basis for valuing its use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.555" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.555   How do I value a recipient's other contributions?</HEAD>
<P>For types of participant contributions other than those addressed in §§ 37.535 through 37.550, the general rule is that you are to value each contribution consistently with the cost principles or standards in § 37.625 and § 37.635 that apply to the participant making the contribution. When valuing services and property donated by parties other than the participants, you may use as guidance the provisions of 32 CFR 34.13(b)(2) through (5). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fixed-Support or Expenditure-Based Approach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.560" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.560   Must I be able to estimate project expenditures precisely in order to justify use of a fixed-support TIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To use a fixed-support TIA, rather than an expenditure-based TIA, you must have confidence in your estimate of the expenditures required to achieve well-defined outcomes. Therefore, you must work carefully with program officials to select outcomes that, when the recipient achieves them, are reliable indicators of the amount of effort the recipient expended. However, your estimate of the required expenditures need not be a precise dollar amount, as illustrated by the example in paragraph (b) of this section, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient is contributing a substantial share of the costs of achieving the outcomes, which must meet the criteria in § 37.305(a); and 
</P>
<P>(2) You are confident that the costs of achieving the outcomes will be at least a minimum amount that you can specify and the recipient is willing to accept the possibility that its cost sharing percentage ultimately will be higher if the costs exceed that minimum amount. 
</P>
<P>(b) To illustrate the approach, consider a project for which you are confident that the recipient will have to expend at least $800,000 to achieve the specified outcomes. You must determine, in conjunction with program officials, the minimum level of recipient cost sharing that you want to negotiate, based on the circumstances, to demonstrate the recipient's commitment to the success of the project. For purposes of this illustration, let that minimum recipient cost sharing be 40% of the total project costs. In that case, the Federal share should be no more than 60% and you could set a fixed level of Federal support at $480,000 (60% of $800,000). With that fixed level of Federal support, the recipient would be responsible for the balance of the costs needed to complete the project. 
</P>
<P>(c) Note, however, that the level of recipient cost sharing you negotiate is to be based solely on the level needed to demonstrate the recipient's commitment. You may not use a shortage of Federal Government funding for the program as a reason to try to persuade a recipient to accept a fixed-support TIA, rather than an expenditure-based instrument, or to accept responsibility for a greater share of the total project costs than it otherwise is willing to offer. If you lack sufficient funding to provide an appropriate Federal Government share for the entire project, you instead should rescope the effort covered by the agreement to match the available funding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.565" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.565   May I use a hybrid instrument that provides fixed support for only a portion of a project?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, for a research project that is to be carried out by a number of participants, you may award a TIA that provides for some participants to perform under fixed-support arrangements and others to perform under expenditure-based arrangements. This approach may be useful, for example, if a commercial firm that is a participant will not accept an agreement with all of the post-award requirements of an expenditure-based award. Before using a fixed-support arrangement for that firm's portion of the project, you must judge that it meets the criteria in § 37.305. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="28" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.28" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Accounting, Payments, and Recovery of Funds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.570" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.28.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.570   What must I do if a CAS-covered participant accounts differently for its own and the Federal Government shares of project costs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a participant has Federal procurement contracts that are subject to the Cost Accounting Standards (CAS) in part 30 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and the associated FAR Appendix (48 CFR part 30 and 48 CFR 9903.201-1, respectively), you must alert the participant during the pre-award negotiations to the potential for a CAS violation, as well as the cognizant administrative contracting officer (ACO) for the participant's procurement contracts, if you learn that the participant plans to account differently for its own share and the Federal Government's share of project costs under the TIA. This may arise, for example, if a for-profit firm or other organization subject to the FAR cost principles in 48 CFR parts 31 and 231 proposes to charge: 
</P>
<P>(1) Its share of project costs as independent research and development (IR&amp;D) costs to enable recovery of the costs through Federal Government procurement contracts, as allowed under the FAR cost principles; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal Government's share to the project, rather than as IR&amp;D costs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reason for alerting the participant and the ACO is that the inconsistent charging of the two shares could cause a noncompliance with Cost Accounting Standard (CAS) 402. Noncompliance with CAS 402 is a potential issue only for a participant that has CAS-covered Federal procurement contracts (note that CAS requirements do not apply to a for-profit participant's TIAs). 
</P>
<P>(c) For for-profit participants with CAS-covered procurement contracts, the cognizant ACO in most cases will be an individual within the Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA). You can identify a cognizant ACO at the DCMA by querying the contract administration team locator that matches contractors with their ACOs (currently on the World Wide Web at <I>http://alerts.dcmdw.dcma.mil/support,</I> a site that also can be accessed through the DCMA home page at <I>http://www.dcma.mil).</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.575" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.28.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.575   What are my responsibilities for determining milestone payment amounts?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you select the milestone payment method (<I>see</I> § 37.805), you must assess the reasonableness of the estimated amount for reaching each milestone. This assessment enables you to set the amount of each milestone payment to approximate the Federal share of the anticipated resource needs for carrying out that phase of the research effort. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal share at each milestone need not be the same as the Federal share of the total project. For example, you might deliberately set payment amounts with a larger Federal share for early milestones if a project involves a start-up company with limited resources. 
</P>
<P>(c) For an expenditure-based TIA, if you have minimum percentages that you want the recipient's cost sharing to be at the milestones, you should indicate those percentages in the agreement or in separate instructions to the post-award administrative agreements officer. That will help the administrative agreements officer decide when a project's expenditures have fallen too far below the original projections, requiring adjustments of future milestone payment amounts (<I>see</I> § 37.1105(c)). 
</P>
<P>(d) For fixed-support TIAs, the milestone payments should be associated with the well-defined, observable and verifiable technical outcomes (<I>e.g.,</I> demonstrations, tests, or data analysis) that you establish for the project in accordance with §§ 37.305(a) and 37.560(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.580" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.5.28.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.580   What is recovery of funds and when should I consider including it in my TIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recovery of funds refers to the use of the authority in 10 U.S.C. 2371 to include a provision in certain types of agreements, including TIAs, that require a recipient to make payments to the Department of Defense or another Federal agency as a condition of the agreement. Recovery of funds is a good tool in the right circumstances, at the discretion of the agreements officer and the awarding organization, but its purpose is not to augment program budgets. It may be used to recover funds provided to a recipient through a TIA or another Federal procurement or assistance instrument, and the recovery should not exceed the amounts provided. Recovery of funds is distinct from program income, as described in § 37.835. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2371, as implemented by policy guidance from the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller), the payment amounts may be credited to an existing account of the Department of Defense and used for the same program purposes as other funds in that account. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before you use the authority to include a provision for recovery of funds, note that 10 U.S.C. 2371 requires you to judge that it would not be feasible or appropriate to use for the research project a standard grant or cooperative agreement (in this instance, a “standard cooperative agreement” means a cooperative agreement without a provision for recovery of funds). You satisfy that 10 U.S.C. 2371 requirement when you judge that execution of the research project warrants inclusion of a provision for recovery of funds. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Award Terms Affecting Participants' Financial, Property, and Purchasing Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.600" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.600   Which administrative matters are covered in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart addresses “systemic” administrative matters that place requirements on the operation of a participant's financial management, property management, or purchasing system. Each participant's systems are organization-wide and do not vary with each agreement. Therefore, all TIAs should address systemic requirements in a uniform way for each type of participant organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.605" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.605   What is the general policy on participants' financial, property, and purchasing systems?</HEAD>
<P>The general policy for expenditure-based TIAs is to avoid requirements that would force participants to use different financial management, property management, and purchasing systems than they currently use for: 
</P>
<P>(a) Expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts and assistance awards in general, if they receive them; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Commercial business, if they have no expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts and assistance awards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.610" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.610   Must I tell participants what requirements they are to flow down for subrecipients' systems?</HEAD>
<P>If it is an expenditure-based award, your TIA must require participants to flow down the same financial management, property management, and purchasing systems requirements to a subrecipient that would apply if the subrecipient were a participant. For example, a for-profit participant would flow down to a university subrecipient the requirements that apply to a university participant. Note that this policy applies to subawards for substantive performance of portions of the research project supported by the TIA, and not to participants' purchases of goods or services needed to carry out the research. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="29" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Financial Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.615" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.615   What standards do I include for financial systems of for-profit firms?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To avoid causing needless changes in participants' financial management systems, your expenditure-based TIAs will make for-profit participants that currently perform under other expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts or assistance awards subject to the same standards for financial management systems that apply to those other awards. Therefore, if a for-profit participant has expenditure-based DoD assistance awards other than TIAs, your TIAs are to apply the standards in 32 CFR 34.11. You may grant an exception and allow a for-profit participant that has other expenditure-based Federal Government awards to use an alternative set of standards that meets the minimum criteria in paragraph (b) of this section, if there is a compelling programmatic or business reason to do so. For each case in which you grant an exception, you must document the reason in the award file. 
</P>
<P>(b) For an expenditure-based TIA, you are to allow and encourage each for-profit participant that does not currently perform under expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts or assistance awards (other than TIAs) to use its existing financial management system as long as the system, as a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Complies with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. 
</P>
<P>(2) Effectively controls all project funds, including Federal funds and any required cost share. The system must have complete, accurate, and current records that document the sources of funds and the purposes for which they are disbursed. It also must have procedures for ensuring that project funds are used only for purposes permitted by the agreement (<I>see</I> § 37.625). 
</P>
<P>(3) Includes, if advance payments are authorized under § 37.805, procedures to minimize the time elapsing between the payment of funds by the Government and the firm's disbursement of the funds for program purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.620" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.620   What financial management standards do I include for participants that are nonprofit?</HEAD>
<P>So as not to force system changes for any State, local government, institution of higher education, or other nonprofit organization, your expenditure-based TIA's requirements for the financial management system of any nonprofit participant are the same as those that apply to the participant's other Federal assistance awards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51245, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.625" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.625   What cost principles or standards do I require for for-profit participants?</HEAD>
<P>(a) So as not to require any firm to needlessly change its cost-accounting system, your expenditure-based TIAs are to apply the Government cost principles in 48 CFR parts 31 and 231 to for-profit participants that currently perform under expenditure-based Federal procurement contracts or assistance awards (other than TIAs) and therefore have existing systems for identifying allowable costs under those principles. If there are programmatic or business reasons to do otherwise, you may grant an exception from this requirement and use alternative standards as long as the alternative satisfies the conditions described in paragraph (b) of this section; if you do so, you must document the reasons in your award file. 
</P>
<P>(b) For other for-profit participants, you may establish alternative standards in the agreement as long as that alternative provides, as a minimum, that Federal funds and funds counted as recipients' cost sharing will be used only for costs that: 
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable and prudent person would incur in carrying out the research project contemplated by the agreement. Generally, elements of cost that appropriately are charged are those identified with research and development activities under the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (see Statement of Financial Accounting Standards Number 2, “Accounting for Research and Development Costs,” October 1974 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>). Moreover, costs must be allocated to DoD and other projects in accordance with the relative benefits the projects receive. Costs charged to DoD projects must be given consistent treatment with costs allocated to the participants' other research and development activities (<I>e.g.,</I> activities supported by the participants themselves or by non-Federal sponsors). 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB), 401 Merritt 7, P.O. Box 5116, Norwalk, CT 06856-5116. Information about ordering also may be found at the Internet site <I>http://www.fasb.org</I> or by telephoning the FASB at (800) 748-0659.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Are consistent with the purposes stated in the governing Congressional authorizations and appropriations. You are responsible for ensuring that provisions in the award document address any requirements that result from authorizations and appropriations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.630" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.630   Must I require a for-profit firm to use Federally approved indirect cost rates?</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the general policy in § 37.605, you must require a for-profit participant that has Federally approved indirect cost rates for its Federal procurement contracts to use those rates to accumulate and report costs under an expenditure-based TIA. This includes both provisional and final rates that are approved up until the time that the TIA is closed out. You may grant an exception from this requirement if there are programmatic or business reasons to do otherwise (<I>e.g.,</I> the participant offers you a lower rate). If you grant an exception, the participant must accumulate and report the costs using an accounting system and practices that it uses for other customers (<I>e.g.,</I> its commercial customers). Also, you must document the reason for the exception in your award file. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.635" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.635   What cost principles do I require a nonprofit participant to use?</HEAD>
<P>So as not to force financial system changes for any nonprofit participant, your expenditure-based TIA will provide that costs to be charged to the research project by any nonprofit participant must be determined to be allowable in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) Subpart E of OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 200, if the participant is a State, local government, Indian tribe, institution of higher education, or nonprofit organization. In conformance with 2 CFR 200.401(c) of that OMB guidance, a nonprofit organization listed in appendix VIII to 2 CFR part 200 is subject to the cost principles in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR subpart 31.2) and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (48 CFR subpart 231.2).
</P>
<P>(b) The cost principles identified in appendix IX to the OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 200 (see 45 CFR part 75), if the participant is a hospital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51245, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.640" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.640   Must I include a provision for audits of for-profit participants?</HEAD>
<P>If your TIA is an expenditure-based award, you must include in it an audit provision that addresses, for each for-profit participant: 
</P>
<P>(a) Whether the for-profit participant must have periodic audits, in addition to any award-specific audits, as described in § 37.645. Note that the DCAA or the Office of the Inspector General, DoD (OIG, DoD), can provide advice on the types and scope of audits that may be needed in various circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whether the DCAA or an independent public accountant (IPA) will perform required audits, as discussed in § 37.650. 
</P>
<P>(c) How frequently any periodic audits are to be performed, addressed in § 37.655. 
</P>
<P>(d) Other matters described in § 37.660, such as audit coverage, allowability of audit costs, auditing standards, and remedies for noncompliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.645" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.645   Must I require periodic audits, as well as award-specific audits, of for-profit participants?</HEAD>
<P>You need to consider requirements for both periodic audits and award-specific audits (as defined in § 37.1325 and § 37.1235, respectively). The way that your expenditure-based TIA addresses the two types of audits will vary, depending upon the type of for-profit participant. 
</P>
<P>(a) For for-profit participants that are audited by the DCAA or other Federal auditors, as described in §§ 37.650(b) and 37.655, you need not add specific requirements for periodic audits because the Federal audits should be sufficient to address whatever may be needed. Your inclusion in the TIA of the standard access-to-records provision for those for-profit participants, as discussed in § 37.915(a), gives the necessary access in the event that you or administrative agreements officers later need to request audits to address award-specific issues that arise. 
</P>
<P>(b) For each other for-profit participant, you: 
</P>
<P>(1) Should require that the participant have an independent auditor (<I>i.e.,</I> the DCAA or an independent public accountant) conduct periodic audits of its systems if it expends $750,000 or more per year in TIAs and other Federal assistance awards. A prime reason for including this requirement is that the Federal Government, for an expenditure-based award, necessarily relies on amounts reported by the participant's systems when it sets payment amounts or adjusts performance outcomes. The periodic audit provides some assurance that the reported amounts are reliable. 
</P>
<P>(2) Must ensure that the award provides an independent auditor the access needed for award-specific audits, to be performed at the request of the cognizant administrative agreements officer if issues arise that require audit support. However, consistent with the government-wide policies on single audits that apply to nonprofit participants (see § 37.665), you should rely on periodic audits to the maximum extent possible to resolve any award-specific issues. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.650" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.650   Who must I identify as the auditor for a for-profit participant?</HEAD>
<P>The auditor that you will identify in the expenditure-based TIA to perform periodic and award-specific audits of a for-profit participant depends on the circumstances, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) You may provide that an IPA will be the auditor for a for-profit participant that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section, but only if the participant will not agree to give the DCAA access to the necessary books and records for audit purposes. Note that the allocable portion of the costs of the IPA's audit may be reimbursable under the TIA, as described in § 37.660(b). The IPA should be the one that the participant uses to perform other audits (<I>e.g.,</I> of its financial statement), to minimize added burdens and costs. You must document in the award file the participant's unwillingness to give the DCAA access. The DCAA is to be the auditor if the participant grants the necessary access. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, you must identify the DCAA as the auditor for any for-profit participant that is subject to DCAA audits because it is currently performing under a Federal award that is subject to the: 
</P>
<P>(1) Cost principles in 48 CFR part 31 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and 48 CFR part 231 of the Defense FAR Supplement; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Cost Accounting Standards in 48 CFR chapter 99. 
</P>
<P>(c) If there are programmatic or business reasons that justify the use of an auditor other than the DCAA for a for-profit participant that meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section, you may provide that an IPA will be the auditor for that participant if you obtain prior approval from the Office of the Inspector General, DoD. You must submit requests for prior approval to the Assistant Inspector General (Auditing), 4800 Mark Center Drive, Alexandria, VA 22350-1500. Your request must include the name and address of the business unit(s) for which IPAs will be used. It also must explain why you judge that the participant will not give the DCAA the necessary access to records for audit purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> you may submit a statement to that effect from the participant). The OIG, DoD, will respond within five working days of receiving the request for prior approval, either by notifying you of the decision (approval or disapproval) or giving you a date by which they will notify you of the decision. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.655" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.655   Must I specify the frequency of IPAs' periodic audits of for-profit participants?</HEAD>
<P>If your expenditure-based TIA provides for periodic audits of a for-profit participant by an IPA, you must specify the frequency for those audits. You should consider having an audit performed during the first year of the award, when the participant has its IPA do its next financial statement audit, unless the participant already had a systems audit due to other Federal awards within the past two years. The frequency thereafter may vary depending upon the dollars the participant is expending annually under the award, but it is not unreasonable to require an updated audit every two to three years to reverify that the participant's systems are reliable (the audit then would cover the two or three-year period between audits). The DCAA is a source of advice on audit frequencies if your TIA provides for audits by IPAs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.660" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.660   What else must I specify concerning audits of for-profit participants by IPAs?</HEAD>
<P>If your expenditure-based TIA provides for audits of a for-profit participant by an IPA, you also must specify: 
</P>
<P>(a) What periodic audits are to cover. It is important that you specify audit coverage that is only as broad as needed to provide reasonable assurance of the participant's compliance with award terms that have a direct and material effect on the research project. Appendix C to this part provides guidance to for-profit participants and their IPAs that you may use for this purpose. The DCAA and the OIG, DoD, also can provide advice to help you set appropriate limits on audit objectives and scope. 
</P>
<P>(b) Who will pay for periodic and award-specific audits. The allocable portion of the costs of any audits by IPAs may be reimbursable under the TIA. The costs may be direct charges or allocated indirect costs, consistent with the participant's accounting system and practices. 
</P>
<P>(c) The auditing standards that the IPA will use. Unless you receive prior approval from the OIG, DoD, to do otherwise, you must provide that the IPA will perform the audits in accordance with the Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The electronic document may be accessed at <I>www.gao.gov.</I> Printed copies may be purchased from the U.S. Government Printing Office; for ordering information, call (202) 512-1800 or access the Internet site at <I>www.gpo.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(d) The available remedies for noncompliance. The agreement must provide that the participant may not charge costs to the award for any audit that the agreements officer, with the advice of the OIG, DoD, determines was not performed in accordance with the Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards or other terms of the agreement. It also must provide that the Government has the right to require the participant to have the IPA take corrective action and, if corrective action is not taken, that the agreements officer has recourse to any of the remedies for noncompliance identified in 32 CFR 34.52(a). 
</P>
<P>(e) The remedy if it later is found that the participant, at the time it entered into the TIA, was performing on a procurement contract or other Federal award subject to the Cost Accounting Standards at 48 CFR part 30 and the cost principles at 48 CFR part 31. Unless the OIG, DoD, approves an exception (see § 37.650(c)), the TIA's terms must provide that the DCAA will perform the audits for the agreement if it later is found that the participant, at the time the TIA was awarded, was performing under awards described in § 37.650(b) that gave the DCAA audit access to the participant's books and records. 
</P>
<P>(f) Where the IPA is to send audit reports. The agreement must provide that the IPA is to submit audit reports to the administrative agreements officer and the OIG, DoD. It also must require that the IPA report instances of fraud directly to the OIG, DoD. 
</P>
<P>(g) The retention period for the IPA's working papers. You must specify that the IPA is to retain working papers for a period of at least three years after the final payment, unless the working papers relate to an audit whose findings are not fully resolved within that period or to an unresolved claim or dispute (in which case, the IPA must keep the working papers until the matter is resolved and final action taken). 
</P>
<P>(h) Who will have access to the IPA's working papers. The agreement must provide for Government access to working papers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.665" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.665   Must I require nonprofit participants to have periodic audits?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, expenditure-based TIAs are assistance instruments subject to the Single Audit Act (31 U.S.C. 7501-7507), so nonprofit participants are subject to their usual requirements under that Act, as implemented by subpart F of 2 CFR part 200. Specifically, the requirements are the same as those in subpart E of 2 CFR part 1128 for grants and cooperative agreements to institutions of higher education, nonprofit organizations, States, local governments, and Indian tribes. Note that those requirements also apply to Federally Funded Research and Development Centers (FFRDCs) and other Government-owned, Contractor-Operated (GOCO) facilities administered by nonprofit organizations, because nonprofit FFRDCs and GOCOs are subject to the Single Audit Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.670" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.29.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.670   Must I require participants to flow down audit requirements to subrecipients?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Yes, in accordance with § 37.610, your expenditure-based TIA must require participants to flow down the same audit requirements to a subrecipient that would apply if the subrecipient were a participant. 
</P>
<P>(b) For example, a for-profit participant that is audited by the DCAA: 
</P>
<P>(1) Would flow down to a university subrecipient the Single Audit Act requirements that apply to a university participant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Could enter into a subaward allowing a for-profit participant, under the circumstances described in § 37.650(a), to use an IPA to do its audits. 
</P>
<P>(c) This policy applies to subawards for substantive performance of portions of the research project supported by the TIA, and not to participants' purchases of goods or services needed to carry out the research. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="30" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.30" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Property</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.685" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.30.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.685   May I allow for-profit firms to purchase real property and equipment with project funds?</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the two exceptions described in paragraph (b) of this section, you must require a for-profit firm to purchase real property or equipment with its own funds that are separate from the research project. You should allow the firm to charge to an expenditure-based TIA only depreciation or use charges for real property or equipment (and your cost estimate for a fixed-support TIA only would include those costs). Note that the firm must charge depreciation consistently with its usual accounting practice. Many firms treat depreciation as an indirect cost. Any firm that usually charges depreciation indirectly for a particular type of property must not charge depreciation for that property as a direct cost to the TIA. 
</P>
<P>(b) In two situations, you may grant an exception and allow a for-profit firm to use project funds, which includes both the Federal Government and recipient shares, to purchase real property or equipment (<I>i.e.,</I> to charge to the project the full acquisition cost of the property). The two circumstances, which should be infrequent for equipment and extremely rare for real property, are those in which you either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Judge that the real property or equipment will be dedicated to the project and have a current fair market value that is less than $5,000 by the time the project ends; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Give prior approval for the firm to include the full acquisition cost of the real property or equipment as part of the cost of the project (see § 37.535). 
</P>
<P>(c) If you grant an exception in either of the circumstances described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, you must make the real property or equipment subject to the property management standards in 32 CFR 34.21(b) through (d). As provided in those standards, the title to the real property or equipment will vest conditionally in the for-profit firm upon acquisition. Your TIA, whether it is a fixed-support or expenditure-based award, must specify that any item of equipment that has a fair market value of $5,000 or more at the conclusion of the project also will be subject to the disposition process in 32 CFR 34.21(e), whereby the Federal Government will recover its interest in the property at that time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.690" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.30.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.690   How are nonprofit participants to manage real property and equipment?</HEAD>
<P>For nonprofit participants, your TIA's requirements for vesting of title, use, management, and disposition of real property or equipment acquired under the award are the same as those that apply to the participant's other Federal assistance awards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.695" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.30.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.695   What are the requirements for Federally owned property?</HEAD>
<P>If you provide Federally owned property to any participant for the performance of research under a TIA, you must require that participant to account for, use, and dispose of the property in accordance with: 
</P>
<P>(a) 32 CFR 34.22, if the participant is a for-profit firm. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements that apply to the participant's other Federal awards, if it is an entity other than a for-profit firm. If the other Federal awards of a participant that is a GOCO or FFRDC administered by a nonprofit organization are procurement contracts, it is appropriate for you to specify the same property standards that apply to those Federal procurement contracts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.700" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.30.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.700   What are the requirements for supplies?</HEAD>
<P>Your expenditure-based TIA's provisions should permit participants to use their existing procedures to account for and manage supplies. A fixed-support TIA should not include requirements to account for or manage supplies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="31" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.31" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Purchasing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.705" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.31.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.705   What standards do I include for purchasing systems of for-profit firms?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If your TIA is an expenditure-based award, it should require for-profit participants that currently perform under DoD assistance instruments subject to the purchasing standards in 32 CFR 34.31 to use the same requirements for TIAs, unless there are programmatic or business reasons to do otherwise (in which case you must document the reasons in the award file). 
</P>
<P>(b) You should allow other for-profit participants under expenditure-based TIAs to use their existing purchasing systems, as long as they flow down the applicable requirements in Federal statutes, Executive orders or Governmentwide regulations (see appendix E to this part for a list of those requirements). 
</P>
<P>(c) If your TIA is a fixed-support award, you need only require for-profit participants to flow down the requirements listed in appendix F to this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.710" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.6.31.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.710   What standards do I include for purchasing systems of nonprofit organizations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) So as not to force system changes for any nonprofit participant, your expenditure-based TIA will provide that each nonprofit participant's purchasing system comply with standards that conform as much as practicable with requirements that apply to the participant's other Federal awards. 
</P>
<P>(b) If your TIA is a fixed-support award, you need only require nonprofit participants to flow down the requirements listed in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Award Terms Related to Other Administrative Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.800" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.800   Which administrative matters are covered in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart addresses “non-systemic” administrative matters that do not impose organization-wide requirements on a participant's financial management, property management, or purchasing system. Because an organization does not have to redesign its systems to accommodate award-to-award variations in these requirements, a TIA that you award may differ from other TIAs in the non-systemic requirements that it specifies for a given participant, based on the circumstances of the particular research project. To eliminate needless administrative complexity, you should handle some non-systemic requirements, such as the payment method, in a uniform way for the agreement as a whole. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="32" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Payments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.805" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.805   If I am awarding a TIA, what payment methods may I specify?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA may provide for: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Reimbursement,</I> as described in 32 CFR 34.12(a)(1), if it is an expenditure-based award. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance payments,</I> as described in 32 CFR 34.12(a)(2), subject to the conditions in 32 CFR 34.12(b)(2)(i) through (iii). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payments based on payable milestones.</I> These are payments made according to a schedule that is based on predetermined measures of technical progress or other payable milestones. This approach relies upon the fact that, as research progresses throughout the term of the agreement, observable activity will be taking place. The recipient is paid upon the accomplishment of the predetermined measure of progress. Fixed-support TIAs must use this payment method and each measure of progress appropriately would be one of the well-defined outcomes that you identify in the agreement (this does not preclude use of an initial advance payment, if there is no alternative to meeting immediate cash needs). There are cash management considerations when this payment method is used as a means of financing for an expenditure-based TIA (<I>see</I> § 37.575 and § 37.1105). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.810" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.810   What should my TIA's provisions specify for the method and frequency of recipients' payment requests?</HEAD>
<P>The procedure and frequency for payment requests depend upon the payment method, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) For either reimbursements or advance payments, your TIA must allow recipients to submit requests for payment at least monthly. You may authorize the recipients to use the forms or formats described in 32 CFR 34.12(d). 
</P>
<P>(b) If the payments are based on payable milestones, the recipient will submit a report or other evidence of accomplishment to the program official at the completion of each predetermined activity. The agreement administrator may approve payment to the recipient after receiving validation from the program manager that the milestone was successfully reached. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.815" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.815   May the Government withhold payments?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA must provide that the administrative agreements officer may withhold payments in the circumstances described in 32 CFR 34.12(g), but not otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.820" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.32.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.820   Must I require a recipient to return interest on advance payments?</HEAD>
<P>If your expenditure-based TIA provides for either advance payments or payable milestones, the agreement must require the recipient to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain in an interest-bearing account any advance payments or milestone payment amounts received in advance of needs to disburse the funds for program purposes unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient receives less than $120,000 in Federal grants, cooperative agreements, and TIAs per year; 
</P>
<P>(2) The best reasonably available interest-bearing account would not be expected to earn interest in excess of $1,000 per year on the advance or milestone payments; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The depository would require an average or minimum balance so high that it would not be feasible within the expected Federal and non-Federal cash resources for the project. 
</P>
<P>(b) Remit annually the interest earned to the administrative agreements officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Revision of Budget and Program Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.825" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.825   Must I require the recipient to obtain prior approval from the Government for changes in plans?</HEAD>
<P>If it is an expenditure-based award, your agreement must require the recipient to obtain the agreement administrator's prior approval if there is to be a change in plans that results in a need for additional Federal funding (this is unnecessary for a fixed-support TIA because the recipient is responsible for additional costs of achieving the outcomes). Other than that, the program official's substantial involvement in the project should ensure that the Government has advance notice of changes in plans. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.830" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.830   May I let a recipient charge pre-award costs to the agreement?</HEAD>
<P>Pre-award costs, as long as they are otherwise allowable costs of the project, may be charged to an expenditure-based TIA only with the specific approval of the agreements officer. All pre-award costs are incurred at the recipient's risk (<I>i.e.,</I> no DoD Component is obligated to reimburse the costs if for any reason the recipient does not receive an award or if the award is less than anticipated and inadequate to cover the costs). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Program Income</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.835" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.34.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.835   What requirements do I include for program income?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA should apply the standards of 32 CFR 34.14 for program income that may be generated. Note the need to specify whether the recipient is to have any obligation to the Federal Government with respect to program income generated after the end of the project period (the period, as established in the award document, during which Federal support is provided). Doing so is especially important if the TIA includes a provision for the recipient to return any amounts to the Federal Government (see § 37.580). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Intellectual Property</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.840" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.840   What general approach should I take in negotiating data and patent rights?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You should confer with program officials and legal counsel to develop an overall strategy for intellectual property that takes into account inventions and data that may result from the project and future needs the Government may have for rights in them. The strategy should take into account any intellectual property the Government is furnishing and any pre-existing proprietary information that the recipient is furnishing, as well as data and inventions that may be generated under the award (recognizing that new data and inventions may be less valuable without pre-existing information). All pre-existing intellectual property, both the Government's and the recipient's, should be marked to give notice of its status. 
</P>
<P>(b) Because TIAs entail substantial cost sharing by recipients, you must use discretion in negotiating Government rights to data and patentable inventions resulting from research under the agreements. The considerations in §§ 37.845 through 37.875 are intended to serve as guidelines, within which you necessarily have considerable latitude to negotiate provisions appropriate to a wide variety of circumstances that may arise. Your goal should be a good balance between DoD interests in:
</P>
<P>(1) Gaining access to the best technologies for defense needs, including technologies available in the commercial marketplace, and promoting commercialization of technologies resulting from the research. Either of these interests may be impeded if you negotiate excessive rights for the Government. One objective of TIAs is to help incorporate defense requirements into the development of what ultimately will be commercially available technologies, an objective that is best served by reducing barriers to commercial firms' participation in the research. In that way, the commercial technology and industrial base can be a source of readily available, reliable, and affordable components, subsystems, computer software, and other technological products and manufacturing processes for military systems. 
</P>
<P>(2) Providing adequate protection of the Government's investment, which may be weakened if the Government's rights are inadequate. You should consider whether the Government may require access to data or inventions for Governmental purposes, such as a need to develop defense-unique products or processes that the commercial marketplace likely will not address. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.845" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.845   What data rights should I obtain?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You should seek to obtain what you, with the advice of legal counsel, judge is needed to ensure future Government use of technology that emerges from the research, as long as doing so is consistent with the balance between DoD interests described in § 37.840(b). You should consider data in which you wish to obtain license rights and data that you may wish to be delivered; since TIAs are assistance instruments rather than acquisition instruments, however, it is not expected that data would be delivered in most cases. What generally is needed is an irrevocable, world-wide license for the Government to use, modify, reproduce, release, or disclose for Governmental purposes the data that are generated under TIAs (including any data, such as computer software, in which a recipient may obtain a copyright). A Governmental purpose is any activity in which the United States Government participates, but a license for Governmental purposes does not include the right to use, or have or permit others to use, modify, reproduce, release, or disclose data for commercial purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may negotiate licenses of different scope than described in paragraph (a) of this section when necessary to accomplish program objectives or to protect the Government's interests. Consult with legal counsel before negotiating a license of different scope. 
</P>
<P>(c) In negotiating data rights, you should consider the rights in background data that are necessary to fully utilize technology that is expected to result from the TIA, in the event the recipient does not commercialize the technology or chooses to protect any invention as a trade secret rather than by a patent. If a recipient intends to protect any invention as a trade secret, you should consult with your intellectual property counsel before deciding what information related to the invention the award should require the recipient to report. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.850" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.850   Should I require recipients to mark data?</HEAD>
<P>To protect the recipient's interests in data, your TIA should require the recipient to mark any particular data that it wishes to protect from disclosure with a legend identifying the data as licensed data subject to use, release, or disclosure restrictions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.855" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.855   How should I handle protected data?</HEAD>
<P>Prior to releasing or disclosing data marked with a restrictive legend (as described in § 37.850) to third parties, you should require those parties to agree in writing that they will: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use the data only for governmental purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Not release or disclose the data without the permission of the licensor (<I>i.e.,</I> the recipient). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.860" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.860   What rights should I obtain for inventions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You should negotiate rights in inventions that represent a good balance between the Government's interests (<I>see</I> § 37.840(b)) and the recipient's interests. As explained in appendix B to this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) You have the flexibility to negotiate patent rights provisions that vary from what the Bayh-Dole statute (Chapter 18 of Title 35, U.S.C.) requires in many situations. You have that flexibility because TIAs include not only cooperative agreements, but also assistance transactions other than grants or cooperative agreements. 
</P>
<P>(2) Your TIA becomes an assistance instrument other than a grant or cooperative agreement if its patent rights provision varies from what Bayh-Dole requires in your situation. However, you need not consider that difference in the type of transaction until the agreement is finalized, and it should not affect the provision you negotiate. 
</P>
<P>(b) As long as it is consistent with the balance between DoD interests described in § 37.840(b) and the recipient's interests, you should seek to obtain for the Government, when an invention is conceived or first actually reduced to practice under a TIA, a nonexclusive, nontransferrable, irrevocable, paid-up license to practice the invention, or to have it practiced, for or on behalf of the United States throughout the world. The license is for Governmental purposes, and does not include the right to practice the invention for commercial purposes. 
</P>
<P>(c) To provide for the license described in paragraph (b) of this section, your TIA generally would include the patent-rights clause that 37 CFR 401.14 specifies to implement the Bayh-Dole statute's requirements. Note that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The clause is designed specifically for grants, contracts, and cooperative agreements awarded to small businesses and nonprofit organizations, the types of funding instruments and recipients to which the entire Bayh-Dole statute applies. As explained in appendix B to this part, only two Bayh-Dole requirements (in 35 U.S.C. sections 202(c)(4) and 203) apply to cooperative agreements with other performers, by virtue of an amendment to Bayh-Dole at 35 U.S.C. 210(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) You may use the same clause, suitably modified, in cooperative agreements with performers other than small businesses and nonprofit organizations. Doing so is consistent with a 1983 Presidential memorandum that calls for giving other performers rights in inventions from Federally supported research that are at least as great as the rights that Bayh-Dole gives to small businesses and nonprofit organizations (<I>see</I> appendix B to this part for details). That Presidential memorandum is incorporated by reference in Executive Order 12591 (52 FR 13414, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 220), as amended by Executive Order 12618 (52 FR 48661, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 262). 
</P>
<P>(3) The clause provides for flow-down of Bayh-Dole patent-rights provisions to subawards with small businesses and nonprofit organizations. 
</P>
<P>(4) There are provisions in 37 CFR part 401 stating when you must include the clause (37 CFR 401.3) and, in cases when it is required, how you may modify and tailor it (37 CFR 401.5).
</P>
<P>(d) You may negotiate Government rights of a different scope than the standard patent-rights provision described in paragraph (c) of this section when necessary to accomplish program objectives and foster the Government's interests. If you do so: 
</P>
<P>(1) With the help of the program manager and legal counsel, you must decide what best represents a reasonable arrangement considering the circumstances, including past investments, contributions under the current TIA, and potential commercial markets. Taking past investments as an example, you should consider whether the Government or the recipient has contributed more substantially to the prior research and development that provides the foundation for the planned effort. If the predominant past contributor to the particular technology has been: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Government, then the TIA's patent-rights provision should be at or close to the standard Bayh-Dole provision. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipient, then a less restrictive patent provision may be appropriate, to allow the recipient to benefit more directly from its investments. 
</P>
<P>(2) You should keep in mind that obtaining a nonexclusive license at the time of award, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, is valuable if the Government later requires access to inventions to enable development of defense-unique products or processes that the commercial marketplace is not addressing. If you do not obtain a license at the time of award, you should consider alternative approaches to ensure access, such as negotiating a priced option for obtaining nonexclusive licenses in the future to inventions that are conceived or reduced to practice under the TIA. 
</P>
<P>(3) You also may consider whether you want to provide additional flexibility by giving the recipient more time than the standard patent-rights provision does to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the Government of an invention, from the time the inventor discloses it within the for-profit firm. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the Government whether it intends to take title to the invention. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Commercialize the invention, before the Government license rights in the invention become effective. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.865" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.865   Should my patent provision include march-in rights?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA's patent rights provision should include the Bayh-Dole march-in rights clause at paragraph (j)(1) of 37 CFR 401.14, or an equivalent clause, concerning actions that the Government may take to obtain the right to use subject inventions, if the recipient fails to take effective steps to achieve practical application of the subject inventions within a reasonable time. The march-in provision may be modified to best meet the needs of the program. However, only infrequently should the march-in provision be entirely removed (<I>e.g.,</I> you may wish to do so if a recipient is providing most of the funding for a research project, with the Government providing a much smaller share). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.870" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.870   Should I require recipients to mark documents related to inventions?</HEAD>
<P>To protect the recipient's interest in inventions, your TIA should require the recipient to mark documents disclosing inventions it desires to protect by obtaining a patent. The recipient should mark the documents with a legend identifying them as intellectual property subject to public release or public disclosure restrictions, as provided in 35 U.S.C. 205. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.875" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.35.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.875   Should my TIA include a provision concerning foreign access to technology?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with the objective of enhancing the national security by increasing DoD reliance on the U.S. commercial technology and industrial bases, you must include a provision in the TIA that addresses foreign access to technology developed under the TIA. 
</P>
<P>(b) The provision must provide, as a minimum, that any transfer of the: 
</P>
<P>(1) Technology must be consistent with the U.S. export laws, regulations and policies (<I>e.g.,</I> the International Traffic in Arms Regulation at chapter I, subchapter M, title 22 of the CFR (22 CFR parts 120 through 130), the DoD Industrial Security Regulation in DoD 5220.22-R, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> and the Department of Commerce Export Regulation at chapter VII, subchapter C, title 15 of the CFR (15 CFR parts 730 through 774), as applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Electronic copies may be obtained at the Washington Headquarters Services Internet site <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I> Paper copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Exclusive right to use or sell the technology in the United States must, unless the Government grants a waiver, require that products embodying the technology or produced through the use of the technology will be manufactured substantially in the United States. The provision may further provide that: 
</P>
<P>(i) In individual cases, the Government may waive the requirement of substantial manufacture in the United States upon a showing by the recipient that reasonable but unsuccessful efforts have been made to transfer the technology under similar terms to those likely to manufacture substantially in the United States or that under the circumstances domestic manufacture is not commercially feasible. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In those cases, the DoD Component may require a refund to the Government of some or all the funds paid under the TIA for the development of the transferred technology.
</P>
<P>(c) You may, but are not required to, seek to negotiate a domestic manufacture condition for transfers of nonexclusive rights to use or sell the technology in the United States, to parallel the one described for exclusive licenses in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if you judge that nonexclusive licenses for foreign manufacture could effectively preclude the establishment of domestic sources of the technology for defense purposes. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Financial and Programmatic Reporting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.880" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.880   What requirements must I include for periodic reports on program and business status?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA must include requirements that, as a minimum, include periodic reports addressing program and, if it is an expenditure-based award, business status. You must require submission of the reports at least annually, and you may require submission as frequently as quarterly (this does not preclude a recipient from electing to submit more frequently than quarterly the financial information that is required to process payment requests if the award is an expenditure-based TIA that uses reimbursement or advance payments under § 37.810(a)). The requirements for the content of the reports are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The program portions of the reports must address progress toward achieving program performance goals, including current issues, problems, or developments.
</P>
<P>(b) The business portions of the reports, applicable only to expenditure-based awards, must provide summarized details on the status of resources (federal funds and non-federal cost sharing), including an accounting of expenditures for the period covered by the report. The report should compare the resource status with any payment and expenditure schedules or plans provided in the original award; explain any major deviations from those schedules; and discuss actions that will be taken to address the deviations. You may require a recipient to separately identify in these reports the expenditures for each participant in a consortium and for each programmatic milestone or task, if you, after consulting with the program official, judge that those additional details are needed for good stewardship.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.885" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.885   May I require updated program plans?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to reports on progress to date, your TIA may include a provision requiring the recipient to annually prepare updated technical plans for the future conduct of the research effort. If your TIA does include a requirement for annual program plans, you also must require the recipient to submit the annual program plans to the agreements officer responsible for administering the TIA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.890" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.890   Must I require a final performance report?</HEAD>
<P>You need not require a final performance report that addresses all major accomplishments under the TIA. If you do not do so, however, there must be an alternative that satisfies the requirement in DoD Instruction 3200.14 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> to document all DoD Science and Technology efforts and disseminate the results through the Defense Technical Information Center (DTIC). An example of an alternative would be periodic reports throughout the performance of the research that collectively cover the entire project. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 3 to § 37.875(b)(1).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.895" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.895   How is the final performance report to be sent to the Defense Technical Information Center?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether your TIA requires a final performance report or uses an alternative means under § 37.890, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> you may include an award term or condition or otherwise instruct the recipient to submit the documentation, electronically if available, either: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Additional information on electronic submission to the DTIC can be found online, currently at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/dtic/submitting/elec_subm.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Directly to the DTIC; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To the office that is administering the award (for subsequent transmission to the DTIC).
</P>
<P>(b) If you specify that the recipient is to submit the report directly to the DTIC, you also: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must instruct the recipient to include a fully completed Standard Form 298, “Report Documentation Page,” with each document, so that the DTIC can recognize the document as being related to the particular award and properly record its receipt; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Should advise the recipient to provide a copy of the completed Standard Form 298 to the agreements officer responsible for administering the TIA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.900" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.900   May I tell a participant that information in financial and programmatic reports will not be publicly disclosed?</HEAD>
<P>You may tell a participant that: 
</P>
<P>(a) We may exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) a trade secret or commercial and financial information that a participant provides after the award, if the information is privileged or confidential information. The DoD Component that receives the FOIA request will review the information in accordance with DoD procedures at 32 CFR 286.23(h) (and any DoD Component supplementary procedures) to determine whether it is privileged or confidential information under the FOIA exemption at 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), as implemented by the DoD at 32 CFR 286.12(d). 
</P>
<P>(b) If the participant also provides information in the course of a competition prior to award, there is a statutory exemption for five years from FOIA disclosure requirements for certain types of information submitted at that time (see § 37.420). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.905" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.36.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.905   Must I make receipt of the final performance report a condition for final payment?</HEAD>
<P>If a final report is required, your TIA should make receipt of the report a condition for final payment. If the payments are based on payable milestones, the submission and acceptance of the final report by the Government representative will be incorporated as an event that is a prerequisite for one of the payable milestones. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="37" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records Retention and Access Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.910" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.37.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.910   How long must I require participants to keep records related to the TIA?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA must require participants to keep records related to the TIA (for which the agreement provides Government access under § 37.915) for a period of three years after submission of the final financial status report for an expenditure-based TIA or final programmatic status report for a fixed-support TIA, with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The participant must keep records longer than three years after submission of the final financial status report if the records relate to an audit, claim, or dispute that begins but does not reach its conclusion within the 3-year period. In that case, the participant must keep the records until the matter is resolved and final action taken. 
</P>
<P>(b) Records for any real property or equipment acquired with project funds under the TIA must be kept for three years after final disposition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.915" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.37.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.915   What requirement for access to a for-profit participant's records do I include in a TIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a for-profit participant currently grants access to its records to the DCAA or other Federal Government auditors, your TIA must include for that participant the standard access-to-records requirements at 32 CFR 34.42(e). If the agreement is a fixed-support TIA, the language in 32 CFR 34.42(e) may be modified to provide access to records concerning the recipient's technical performance, without requiring access to the recipient's financial or other records. Note that any need to address access to technical records in this way is in addition to, not in lieu of, the need to address rights in data (<I>see</I> § 37.845). 
</P>
<P>(b) For other for-profit participants that do not currently give the Federal Government direct access to their records and are not willing to grant full access to records pertinent to the award, there is no set requirement to include a provision in your TIA for Government access to records. If the audit provision of an expenditure-based TIA gives an IPA access to the recipient's financial records for audit purposes, the Federal Government must have access to the IPA's reports and working papers and you need not include a provision requiring direct Government access to the recipient's financial records. For both fixed-support and expenditure-based TIAs, you may wish to negotiate Government access to recipient records concerning technical performance. Should you negotiate a provision giving access only to specific Government officials (<I>e.g.,</I> the agreements officer), rather than a provision giving Government access generally, it is important to let participants know that the OIG, DoD, has a statutory right of access to records and other materials to which other DoD Component officials have access. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.920" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.37.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.920   What requirement for access to a nonprofit participant's records do I include in a TIA?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA must include for any nonprofit participant, including any FFRDC or GOCO administered by a nonprofit organization, the standard access-to-records requirement that subpart B of 2 CFR part 1136 specifies in Section F of OAR Article II (the standard wording for Section F of OAR Article II is provided in appendix B to 2 CFR part 1136).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Termination and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.925" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.7.38.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.925   What requirements do I include for termination and enforcement?</HEAD>
<P>Your TIA must apply the standards of 32 CFR 34.51 for termination, 32 CFR 34.52 for enforcement, and your organization's procedures implementing 32 CFR 22.815 for disputes and appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Executing the Award</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1000" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.39.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1000   What are my responsibilities at the time of award?</HEAD>
<P>At the time of the award, you must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that the award document contains the appropriate terms and conditions and is signed by the appropriate parties, in accordance with §§ 37.1005 through 37.1015. 
</P>
<P>(b) Document your analysis of the agreement in the award file, as discussed in § 37.1020. 
</P>
<P>(c) Provide information about the award to offices responsible for reporting, as described in § 37.1025. 
</P>
<P>(d) Distribute copies of the award document, as required by § 37.1045. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Award Document</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1005" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.39.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1005   What are my general responsibilities concerning the award document?</HEAD>
<P>You are responsible for ensuring that the award document is complete and accurate. Your objective is to create a document that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Addresses all issues; 
</P>
<P>(b) States requirements directly. It is not helpful to readers to incorporate statutes or rules by reference, without sufficient explanation of the requirements. You generally should not incorporate clauses from the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR parts 1-53) or Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (48 CFR parts 201-253), because those provisions are designed for procurement contracts that are used to acquire goods and services, rather than for TIAs or other assistance instruments. 
</P>
<P>(c) Is written in clear and concise language, to minimize potential ambiguity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1010" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.39.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1010   What substantive issues should my award document address?</HEAD>
<P>You necessarily will design and negotiate a TIA individually to meet the specific requirements of the particular project, so the complete list of substantive issues that you will address in the award document may vary. Every award document must address:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Project scope.</I> The scope is an overall vision statement for the project, including a discussion of the project's purpose, objectives, and detailed military and commercial goals. It is a critical provision because it provides a context for resolving issues that may arise during post-award administration. In a fixed-support TIA, you also must clearly specify the well-defined outcomes that reliably indicate the amount of effort expended and serve as the basis for the level of the fixed support (<I>see</I> §§ 37.305 and 37.560(a)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Project management.</I> You should describe the nature of the relationship between the Federal Government and the recipient; the relationship among the participants, if the recipient is an unincorporated consortium; and the overall technical and administrative management of the project. TIAs are used to carry out collaborative relationships between the Federal Government and the recipient. Consequently, there must be substantial involvement of the DoD program official (<I>see</I> § 37.220) and usually the administrative agreements officer. The program official provides technical insight, which differs from the usual technical oversight of a project. The management provision also should discuss how you and the recipient will make any modifications to the TIA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination, enforcement, and disputes.</I> Your TIA must provide for termination, enforcement remedies, and disputes and appeals procedures, in accordance with § 37.925. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding.</I> You must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Show the total amount of the agreement and the total period of performance. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the TIA is an expenditure-based award, state the Government's and recipient's agreed-upon cost shares. The award document should identify values for any in-kind contributions, determined in accordance with §§ 37.530 through 37.555, to preclude later disagreements about them. 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the amount of Federal funds obligated and the performance period for those obligated funds. 
</P>
<P>(4) State, if the agreement is to be incrementally funded, that the Government's obligation for additional funding is contingent upon the availability of funds and that no legal obligation on the part of the Government exists until additional funds are made available and the agreement is amended. You also must include a prior approval requirement for changes in plans requiring additional Government funding, in accordance with § 37.825. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment.</I> You must choose the payment method and tell the recipient how, when, and where to submit payment requests, as discussed in §§ 37.805 through 37.815. Your payment method must take into account sound cash management practices by avoiding unwarranted cash advances. For an expenditure-based TIA, your payment provision must require the return of interest should excess cash balances occur, in accordance with § 37.820. For any TIA using the milestone payment method described in § 37.805(c), you must include language notifying the recipient that post-award administrators may adjust amounts of future milestone payments if a project's expenditures fall too far below the projections that were the basis for setting the amounts (<I>see</I> § 37.575(c) and § 37.1105(c)). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records retention and access to records.</I> You must include the records retention requirement at § 37.910. You also must provide for access to for-profit and nonprofit participants' records, in accordance with § 37.915 and § 37.920. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Patents and data rights.</I> In designing the patents and data rights provision, you must set forth the minimum required Federal Government rights in intellectual property generated under the award and address related matters, as provided in §§ 37.840 through 37.875. It is important to define all essential terms in the patent rights provision. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Foreign access to technology.</I> You must include a provision, in accordance with § 37.875, concerning foreign access and domestic manufacture of products using technology generated under the award. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Title to, management of, and disposition of tangible property.</I> Your property provisions for for-profit and nonprofit participants must be in accordance with §§ 37.685 through 37.700. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Financial management systems.</I> For an expenditure-based award, you must specify the minimum standards for financial management systems of both for-profit and nonprofit participants, in accordance with §§ 37.615 and 37.620. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Allowable costs.</I> If the TIA is an expenditure-based award, you must specify the standards that both for-profit and nonprofit participants are to use to determine which costs may be charged to the project, in accordance with §§ 37.625 through 37.635, as well as § 37.830. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Audits.</I> If your TIA is an expenditure-based award, you must include an audit provision for both for-profit and nonprofit participants and subrecipients, in accordance with §§ 37.640 through 37.670. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Purchasing system standards.</I> You should include a provision specifying the standards in §§ 37.705 and 37.710 for purchasing systems of for-profit and nonprofit participants, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Program income.</I> You should specify requirements for program income, in accordance with § 37.835. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Financial and programmatic reporting.</I> You must specify the reports that the recipient is required to submit and tell the recipient when and where to submit them, in accordance with §§ 37.880 through 37.905. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Assurances for applicable national policy requirements.</I> You must incorporate assurances of compliance with applicable requirements in Federal statutes, Executive orders, or regulations (except for national policies that require certifications). Appendix D to this part contains a list of commonly applicable requirements that you need to augment with any specific requirements that apply in your particular circumstances (<I>e.g.,</I> general provisions in the appropriations act for the specific funds that you are obligating). 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Other routine matters.</I> The agreement should address any other issues that need clarification, including who in the Government will be responsible for post-award administration and the statutory authority or authorities for entering into the TIA (<I>see</I> appendix B to this part for a discussion of statutory authorities). In addition, the agreement must specify that it takes precedence over any inconsistent terms and conditions in collateral documents such as attachments to the TIA or the recipient's articles of collaboration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1015" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.39.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1015   How do I decide who must sign the TIA if the recipient is an unincorporated consortium?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the recipient is a consortium that is not formally incorporated and the consortium members prefer to have the agreement signed by all of them individually, you may execute the agreement in that manner. 
</P>
<P>(b) If they wish to designate one consortium member to sign the agreement on behalf of the consortium as a whole, you should not decide whether to execute the agreement in that way until you review the consortium's articles of collaboration with legal counsel. 
</P>
<P>(1) The purposes of the review are to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether the articles properly authorize one participant to sign on behalf of the other participants and are binding on all consortium members with respect to the research project; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess the risk that otherwise could exist when entering into an agreement signed by a single member on behalf of a consortium that is not a legal entity. For example, you should assess whether the articles of collaboration adequately address consortium members' future liabilities related to the research project (<I>i.e.,</I> whether they will have joint and severable liability). 
</P>
<P>(2) After the review, in consultation with legal counsel, you should determine whether it is better to have all of the consortium members sign the agreement individually or to allow them to designate one member to sign on all members' behalf. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reporting Information About the Award</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1020" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.40.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1020   What must I document in my award file?</HEAD>
<P>You should include in your award file an agreements analysis in which you: 
</P>
<P>(a) Briefly describe the program and detail the specific military and commercial benefits that should result from the project supported by the TIA. If the recipient is a consortium that is not formally incorporated, you should attach a copy of the signed articles of collaboration. 
</P>
<P>(b) Describe the process that led to the award of the TIA, including how you and program officials solicited and evaluated proposals and selected the one supported through the TIA. 
</P>
<P>(c) Explain how you decided that a TIA was the most appropriate instrument, in accordance with the factors in Subpart B of this part. Your explanation must include your answers to the relevant questions in § 37.225(a) through (d). 
</P>
<P>(d) Explain how you valued the recipient's cost sharing contributions, in accordance with §§ 37.530 through 37.555. For a fixed-support TIA, you must document the analysis you did (<I>see</I> § 37.560) to set the fixed level of Federal support; the documentation must explain how you determined the recipient's minimum cost share and show how you estimated the expenditures required to achieve the project outcomes. 
</P>
<P>(e) Document the results of your negotiation, addressing all significant issues in the TIA's provisions. For example, this includes specific explanations if you: 
</P>
<P>(1) Specify requirements for a participant's systems that vary from the standard requirements in §§ 37.615(a), 37.625(a), 37.630, or 37.705(a) in cases where those sections provide flexibility for you to do so. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that any audits are to be performed by an IPA, rather than the DCAA, where permitted under § 37.650. Your documentation must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The names and addresses of business units for which IPAs will be the auditors; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimated amounts of Federal funds expected under the award for those business units; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The basis (<I>e.g.,</I> a written statement from the recipient) for your judging that the business units do not currently perform under types of awards described in § 37.650(b)(1) and (2) and are not willing to grant the DCAA audit access. 
</P>
<P>(3) Include an intellectual property provision that varies from Bayh-Dole requirements. 
</P>
<P>(4) Determine that cost sharing is impracticable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1025" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.40.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1025   Must I report information to the Defense Assistance Awards Data System?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, you must give the necessary information about the award to the office in your organization that is responsible for preparing DD Form 2566, “DoD Assistance Award Action Report,” reports for the Defense Assistance Award Data System, to ensure timely and accurate reporting of data required by 31 U.S.C. 6101-6106 (<I>see</I> 32 CFR part 21, subpart E). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Distributing Copies of the Award Document</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1045" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.8.41.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1045   To whom must I send copies of the award document?</HEAD>
<P>You must send a copy of the award document to the: 
</P>
<P>(a) Recipient. You must include on the first page of the recipient's copy a prominent notice about the current DoD requirements for payment by electronic funds transfer (EFT). 
</P>
<P>(b) Office you designate to administer the TIA. You are strongly encouraged to delegate post-award administration to the regional office of the Defense Contract Management Agency or Office of Naval Research that administers awards to the recipient. When delegating, you should clearly indicate on the cover sheet or first page of the award document that the award is a TIA, to help the post-award administrator distinguish it from other types of assistance instruments. 
</P>
<P>(c) Finance and accounting office designated to make the payments to the recipient. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Post-Award Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1100" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1100   What are my responsibilities generally as an administrative agreements officer for a TIA?</HEAD>
<P>As the administrative agreements officer for a TIA, you have the responsibilities that your office agreed to accept in the delegation from the office that made the award. Generally, you will have the same responsibilities as a post-award administrator of a grant or cooperative agreement, as described in 32 CFR 22.715. Responsibilities for TIAs include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Advising agreements officers before they award TIAs on how to establish award terms and conditions that better meet research programmatic needs, facilitate effective post-award administration, and ensure good stewardship of Federal funds. 
</P>
<P>(b) Participating as the business partner to the DoD program official to ensure the Government's substantial involvement in the research project. This may involve attendance with program officials at kickoff meetings or post-award conferences with recipients. It also may involve attendance at the consortium management's periodic meetings to review technical progress, financial status, and future program plans. 
</P>
<P>(c) Tracking and processing of reports required by the award terms and conditions, including periodic business status reports, programmatic progress reports, and patent reports. 
</P>
<P>(d) Handling payment requests and related matters. For a TIA using advance payments, that includes reviews of progress to verify that there is continued justification for advancing funds, as discussed in § 37.1105(b). For a TIA using milestone payments, it includes making any needed adjustments in future milestone payment amounts, as discussed in § 37.1105(c). 
</P>
<P>(e) Coordinating audit requests and reviewing audit reports for both single audits of participants' systems and any award-specific audits that may be needed, as discussed in §§ 37.1115 and 37.1120. 
</P>
<P>(f) Responding, after coordination with program officials, to recipient requests for permission to sell or exclusively license intellectual property to entities that do not agree to manufacture substantially in the United States, as described in § 37.875(b). Before you grant approval for any technology, you must secure assurance that the Government will be able to use the technology (<I>e.g.,</I> a reasonable license for Government use, if the recipient is selling the technology) or seek reimbursement of the Government's investments. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 51246, Aug. 19, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1105" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1105   What additional duties do I have as the administrator of a TIA with advance payments or payable milestones?</HEAD>
<P>Your additional post-award responsibilities as an administrative agreements officer for an expenditure-based TIA with advance payments or payable milestones are to ensure good cash management. To do so, you must: 
</P>
<P>(a) For any expenditure-based TIA with advance payments or payable milestones, forward to the responsible payment office any interest that the recipient remits in accordance with § 37.820(b). The payment office will return the amounts to the Department of the Treasury's miscellaneous receipts account. 
</P>
<P>(b) For any expenditure-based TIA with advance payments, consult with the program official and consider whether program progress reported in periodic reports, in relation to reported expenditures, is sufficient to justify your continued authorization of advance payments under § 37.805(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) For any expenditure-based TIA using milestone payments, work with the program official at the completion of each payable milestone or upon receipt of the next business status report to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Compare the total amount of project expenditures, as recorded in the payable milestone report or business status report, with the projected budget for completing the milestone; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Adjust future payable milestones, as needed, if expenditures lag substantially behind what was originally projected and you judge that the recipient is receiving Federal funds sooner than necessary for program purposes. Before making adjustments, you should consider how large a deviation is acceptable at the time of the milestone. For example, suppose that the first milestone payment for a TIA you are administering is $50,000, and that the awarding official set the amount based on a projection that the recipient would have to expend $100,000 to reach the milestone (<I>i.e.,</I> the original plan was for the recipient's share at that milestone to be 50% of project expenditures). If the milestone payment report shows $90,000 in expenditures, the recipient's share at this point is 44% ($40,000 out of the total $90,000 expended, with the balance provided by the $50,000 milestone payment of Federal funds). For this example, you should adjust future milestones if you judge that a 6% difference in the recipient's share at the first milestone is too large, but not otherwise. Remember that milestone payment amounts are not meant to track expenditures precisely at each milestone and that a recipient's share will increase as it continues to perform research and expend funds, until it completes another milestone to trigger the next Federal payment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1110" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1110   What other responsibilities related to payments do I have?</HEAD>
<P>If you are the administrative agreements officer, you have the responsibilities described in 32 CFR 22.810(c), regardless of the payment method. You also must ensure that you do not withhold payments, except in one of the circumstances described in 32 CFR 34.12(g). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1115" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1115   What are my responsibilities related to participants' single audits?</HEAD>
<P>For audits of for-profit participant's systems, under §§ 37.640 through 37.660, you are the focal point within the Department of Defense for ensuring that participants submit audit reports and for resolving any findings in those reports. Nonprofit participants send their single audit reports to a Governmentwide clearinghouse. For those participants, the Office of the Assistant Inspector General (Auditing) should receive any DoD-specific findings from the clearinghouse and refer them to you for resolution, if you are the appropriate official to do so. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1120" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.9.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1120   When and how may I request an award-specific audit?</HEAD>
<P>Guidance on when and how you should request additional audits for expenditure-based TIAs is identical to the guidance for grants officers in 32 CFR 34.16(d). If you require an award-specific examination or audit of a for-profit participant's records related to a TIA, you must use the auditor specified in the award terms and conditions, which should be the same auditor who performs periodic audits of the participant. The DCAA and the OIG, DoD, are possible sources of advice on audit-related issues, such as appropriate audit objectives and scope. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Definitions of Terms Used in This Part</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1205" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1205   Advance.</HEAD>
<P>A payment made to a recipient before the recipient disburses the funds for program purposes. Advance payments may be based upon recipients' requests or predetermined payment schedules. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1210" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1210   Advanced research.</HEAD>
<P>Research that creates new technology or demonstrates the viability of applying existing technology to new products and processes in a general way. Advanced research is most closely analogous to precompetitive technology development in the commercial sector (<I>i.e.,</I> early phases of research and development on which commercial competitors are willing to collaborate, because the work is not so coupled to specific products and processes that the results of the work must be proprietary). It does not include development of military systems and hardware where specific requirements have been defined. It is typically funded in Research, Development, Test and Evaluation programs within Budget Activity 3, Advanced Technology Development. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1215" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1215   Agreements officer.</HEAD>
<P>An official with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate TIAs (<I>see</I> § 37.125). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1220" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1220   Applied research.</HEAD>
<P>Efforts that attempt to determine and exploit the potential of scientific discoveries or improvements in technology such as new materials, devices, methods and processes. It typically is funded in Research, Development, Test and Evaluation programs within Budget Activity 2, Applied Research (also known informally as research category 6.2) programs. Applied research normally follows basic research but may not be fully distinguishable from the related basic research. The term does not include efforts whose principal aim is the design, development, or testing of specific products, systems or processes to be considered for sale or acquisition; these efforts are within the definition of “development.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1225" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1225   Articles of collaboration.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement among the participants in a consortium that is not formally incorporated as a legal entity, by which they establish their relative rights and responsibilities (<I>see</I> § 37.515). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1230" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1230   Assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The transfer of a thing of value to a recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States (<I>see</I> 31 U.S.C. 6101(3)). Grants, cooperative agreements, and technology investment agreements are examples of legal instruments used to provide assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1235" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1235   Award-specific audit.</HEAD>
<P>An audit of a single TIA, usually done at the cognizant agreements officer's request, to help resolve issues that arise during or after the performance of the research project. An award-specific audit of an individual award differs from a periodic audit of a participant (as defined in § 37.1325). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1240" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1240   Basic research.</HEAD>
<P>Efforts directed toward increasing knowledge and understanding in science and engineering, rather than the practical application of that knowledge and understanding. It typically is funded within Research, Development, Test and Evaluation programs in Budget Activity 1, Basic Research (also known informally as research category 6.1). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1245" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1245   Cash contributions.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient's cash expenditures made as contributions toward cost sharing, including expenditures of money that third parties contributed to the recipient. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1250" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1250   Commercial firm.</HEAD>
<P>A for-profit firm or segment of a for-profit firm (<I>e.g.,</I> a division or other business unit) that does a substantial portion of its business in the commercial marketplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1255" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1255   Consortium.</HEAD>
<P>A group of research-performing organizations that either is formally incorporated or that otherwise agrees to jointly carry out a research project (see definition of “articles of collaboration,” in § 37.1225). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1260" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1260   Cooperative agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition of “grant,” in § 37.1295), except that substantial involvement is expected between the Department of Defense and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the cooperative agreement. The term does not include “cooperative research and development agreements” as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1265" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1265   Cost sharing.</HEAD>
<P>A portion of project costs that are borne by the recipient or non-Federal third parties on behalf of the recipient, rather than by the Federal Government. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1270" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1270   Data.</HEAD>
<P>Recorded information, regardless of form or method of recording. The term includes technical data, which are data of a scientific or technical nature, and computer software. It does not include financial, cost, or other administrative information related to the administration of a TIA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1275" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1275   DoD Component.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Secretary of Defense, a Military Department, a Defense Agency, or a DoD Field Activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1280" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1280   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Tangible property, other than real property, that has a useful life of more than one year and an acquisition cost of $5,000 or more per unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1285" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1285   Expenditure-based award.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal Government contract or assistance award for which the amounts of interim payments or the total amount ultimately paid (<I>i.e.,</I> the sum of interim payments and final payment) are subject to redetermination or adjustment, based on the amounts expended by the recipient in carrying out the purposes for which the award was made. Most Federal Government grants and cooperative agreements are expenditure-based awards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1290" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1290   Expenditures or outlays.</HEAD>
<P>Charges made to the project or program. They may be reported either on a cash or accrual basis, as shown in the following table: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.001.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1295" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1295   Grant.</HEAD>
<P>A legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship: 
</P>
<P>(a) The principal purpose of which is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the Department of Defense's direct benefit or use. 
</P>
<P>(b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between the Department of Defense and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1300" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1300   In-kind contributions.</HEAD>
<P>The value of non-cash contributions made by a recipient or non-Federal third parties toward cost sharing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1305" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1305   Institution of higher education.</HEAD>
<P>An educational institution that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Meets the criteria in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001); and 
</P>
<P>(b) Is subject to the provisions of OMB Circular A-110, “Administrative Requirements for Grants and Agreements with Institutions of Higher Education, Hospitals, and Other Non-Profit Organizations,” as implemented by the Department of Defense at 32 CFR part 32. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1310" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1310   Intellectual property.</HEAD>
<P>Inventions, data, works of authorship, and other intangible products of intellectual effort that can be owned by a person, whether or not they are patentable or may be copyrighted. The term also includes mask works, such as those used in microfabrication, whether or not they are tangible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1315" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1315   Nonprofit organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any corporation, trust, association, cooperative or other organization that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is operated primarily for scientific, educational, service, or similar purposes in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not organized primarily for profit; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Uses its net proceeds to maintain, improve, or expand the operations of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term includes any nonprofit institution of higher education or nonprofit hospital. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1320" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1320   Participant.</HEAD>
<P>A consortium member or, in the case of an agreement with a single for-profit entity, the recipient. Note that a for-profit participant may be a firm or a segment of a firm (<I>e.g.,</I> a division or other business unit). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1325" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1325   Periodic audit.</HEAD>
<P>An audit of a participant, performed at an agreed-upon time (usually a regular time interval), to determine whether the participant as a whole is managing its Federal awards in compliance with the terms of those awards. Appendix C to this part describes what such an audit may cover. A periodic audit of a participant differs from an award-specific audit of an individual award (as defined in § 37.1235). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1330" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1330   Procurement contract.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal Government procurement contract. It is a legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6303, reflects a relationship between the Federal Government and a State, a local government, or other recipient when the principal purpose of the instrument is to acquire property or services for the direct benefit or use of the Federal Government. See the more detailed definition of the term “contract” at 48 CFR 2.101. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1335" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1335   Program income.</HEAD>
<P>Gross income earned by the recipient or a participant that is generated by a supported activity or earned as a direct result of a TIA. Program income includes but is not limited to: income from fees for performing services; the use or rental of real property, equipment, or supplies acquired under a TIA; the sale of commodities or items fabricated under a TIA; and license fees and royalties on patents and copyrights. Interest earned on advances of Federal funds is not program income. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1340" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1340   Program official.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal Government program manager, scientific officer, or other individual who is responsible for managing the technical program being carried out through the use of a TIA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1345" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1345   Property.</HEAD>
<P>Real property, equipment, supplies, and intellectual property, unless stated otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1350" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1350   Real property.</HEAD>
<P>Land, including land improvements, structures and appurtenances thereto, but excluding movable machinery and equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1355" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1355   Recipient.</HEAD>
<P>An organization or other entity that receives a TIA from a DoD Component. Note that a for-profit recipient may be a firm or a segment of a firm (e.g., a division or other business unit). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1360" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1360   Research.</HEAD>
<P>Basic, applied, and advanced research, as defined in this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1365" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1365   Supplies.</HEAD>
<P>Tangible property other than real property and equipment. Supplies have a useful life of less than one year or an acquisition cost of less than $5,000 per unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1370" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1370   Termination.</HEAD>
<P>The cancellation of a TIA, in whole or in part, at any time prior to either: 
</P>
<P>(a) The date on which all work under the TIA is completed; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The date on which Federal sponsorship ends, as given in the award document or any supplement or amendment thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1375" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.10.42.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1375   Technology investment agreements.</HEAD>
<P>A special class of assistance instruments used to increase involvement of commercial firms in defense research programs and for other purposes (described in appendix A to this part) related to integrating the commercial and defense sectors of the nation's technology and industrial base. A technology investment agreement may be a cooperative agreement with provisions tailored for involving commercial firms (as distinct from a cooperative agreement subject to all of the requirements in 32 CFR part 34), or another kind of assistance transaction (<I>see</I> appendix B to this part). 



</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.12.42.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 37—What Is the Civil-Military Integration Policy That Is the Basis for Technology Investment Agreements?

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.003.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.12.42.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 37—What Type of Instrument Is a TIA and What Statutory Authorities Does It Use?

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.006.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.12.42.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 37—What Is the Desired Coverage for Periodic Audits of For-Profit Participants To Be Audited by IPAs?

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07au03.014.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.12.42.1.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 37—What Common National Policy Requirements May Apply and Need To Be Included in TIAs?
</HEAD>
<P>Whether your TIA is a cooperative agreement or another type of assistance transaction, as discussed in Appendix B to this part, the terms and conditions of the agreement must provide for recipients' compliance with applicable Federal statutes and regulations. This appendix lists some of the more common requirements to aid you in identifying ones that apply to your TIA. The list is not intended to be all-inclusive, however, and you may need to consult legal counsel to verify whether there are others that apply in your situation (<I>e.g.</I>, due to a provision in the appropriations act for the specific funds that you are using or due to a statute or rule that applies to a particular program or type of activity).
</P>
<HD2>A. Certifications
</HD2>
<P>One requirement that applies to all TIAs currently requires you to obtain a certification at the time of proposal. That requirement is in a Governmentwide common rule about lobbying prohibitions, which is implemented by the DoD at 32 CFR part 28. The prohibitions apply to all financial assistance. Appendix A to 32 CFR part 22 includes a sample provision that you may use, to have proposers incorporate the certification by reference into their proposals.
</P>
<HD2>B. Assurances That Apply to All TIAs
</HD2>
<P>DoD policy is to use a certification, as described in the preceding paragraph, only for a national policy requirement that specifically requires one. The usual approach to communicating other national policy requirements to recipients is to incorporate them as award terms or conditions, or assurances. Part 1122 of 2 CFR lists national policy requirements that commonly apply to DoD grants and cooperative agreements. It also has standard wording of general terms and conditions to incorporate the requirements in award documents. Of those requirements, the following six apply to all TIAs. (Note that TIAs must generally use the standard wording in 2 CFR part 1122 for the terms and conditions of these six requirements, but not the standard format.)
</P>
<P>1. Requirements concerning debarment and suspension in the OMB guidance in 2 CFR part 180, as implemented by the DoD at 2 CFR part 1125. The requirements apply to all nonprocurement transactions.
</P>
<P>2. Requirements concerning drug-free workplace in the Governmentwide common rule that the DoD has codified at 32 CFR part 26. The requirements apply to all financial assistance.
</P>
<P>3. Prohibitions on discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin in Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d, <I>et seq.</I>), as implemented by DoD regulations at 32 CFR part 195. These apply to all financial assistance. They require recipients to flow down the prohibitions to any subrecipients performing a part of the substantive research program (as opposed to suppliers from whom recipients purchase goods or services).
</P>
<P>4. Prohibitions on discrimination on the basis of age, in the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101, <I>et seq.</I>). They apply to all financial assistance and require flow down to subrecipients, as implemented by Department of Health and Human Services regulations at 45 CFR part 90.
</P>
<P>5. Prohibitions on discrimination on the basis of handicap, in section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), as implemented by Department of Justice regulations at 28 CFR part 41 and DoD regulations at 32 CFR part 56. They apply to all financial assistance recipients and require flow down to subrecipients.
</P>
<P>6. Preferences for use of U.S.-flag air carriers in the International Air Transportation Fair Competitive Practices Act of 1974 (49 U.S.C. 40118), commonly referred to as the “Fly America Act,” and implementing regulations at 41 CFR 301-10.131 through 301-10.143, which apply to uses of U.S. Government funds.
</P>
<HD2>C. Other National Policy Requirements
</HD2>
<P>Additional national policy requirements may apply in certain circumstances, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. If construction work is to be done under a TIA or its subawards, it is subject to the prohibitions in Executive Order 11246, as amended, on discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, or national origin. You must include the clause provided in 41 CFR 60-1.4(b) in any “federally assisted construction contract” (as defined in 41 CFR 60-1.3) under this award unless provisions of 41 CFR part 60-1 exempt the contract from the requirement. The clause will require the contractor to comply with equal opportunity requirements in 41 CFR chapter 60.
</P>
<P>2. If the research involves human subjects or animals, it is subject to the applicable requirements identified in appendix C of 2 CFR part 1122.
</P>
<P>3. If the research involves actions that may affect the human environment, it is subject to the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act in paragraph A.4.a of NP Article II, which is found in appendix B of 2 CFR part 1122. It also may be subject to one or more of the other requirements in paragraphs A.4.b through A.4.f, A.5, and A.6 of NP Article II, which concern flood-prone areas, coastal zones, coastal barriers, wild and scenic rivers, underground sources of drinking water, endangered species, and marine mammal protection.
</P>
<P>4. If the project may impact any property listed or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places, it is subject to the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966 (54 U.S.C. 306108) as specified in paragraph 11.a of NP Article IV, which is found in appendix D of 2 CFR part 1122.
</P>
<P>5. If the project has potential under this award for irreparable loss or destruction of significant scientific, prehistorical, historical, or archeological data, it is subject to the Archaeological and Historic Preservation Act of 1974 (54 U.S.C. Chapter 3125) as specified in paragraph 11.b of NP Article IV, which is found in appendix D of 2 CFR part 1122.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 47160, Aug. 7, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 49477, Aug. 23, 2005; 72 FR 34999, June 26, 2007; 85 FR 51247, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:1.1.1.3.10.12.42.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 37—What Provisions May A Participant Need to Include When Purchasing Goods or Services Under a TIA?
</HEAD>
<P>A. As discussed in § 37.705, you must inform recipients of any national policy requirements that flow down to their purchases of goods or services (<I>e.g.,</I> supplies or equipment) under their TIAs. Note that purchases of goods or services differ from subawards, which are for substantive research program performance.
</P>
<P>B. Appendix A to 32 CFR part 34 lists ten national policy requirements that commonly apply to firms' purchases under grants or cooperative agreements. Of those ten, two that apply to all recipients' purchases under TIAs are:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Byrd Anti-Lobbying Amendment (31 U.S.C. 1352).</I> A contractor submitting a bid to the recipient for a contract award of $100,000 or more must file a certification with the recipient that it has not and will not use Federal appropriations for certain lobbying purposes. The contractor also must disclose any lobbying with non-Federal funds that takes place in connection with obtaining any Federal award. For further details, see 32 CFR part 28, the DoD's codification of the Governmentwide common rule implementing this amendment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debarment and suspension.</I> A contract award with an amount expected to equal or exceed $25,000 and certain other contract awards (see 2 CFR 1125.220, which implements OMB guidance at 2 CFR 180.220) shall not be made to parties identified in the Exclusions area of the System for Award Management (SAM Exclusions) as being currently debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded. This restriction is in accordance with the DoD adoption at 2 CFR part 1125 of the OMB guidance implementing E.O.s 12549 (3 CFR, 1986 Comp., p. 189) and 12689 (3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 235), “Debarment and Suspension.”
</P>
<P>C. The following requirements apply to recipient's purchases under TIAs in the situations specified below:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Equal Employment Opportunity.</I> Although construction work should happen rarely under a TIA, the agreements officer in that case should inform the recipient that Department of Labor regulations at 41 CFR 60-1.4(b) prescribe a clause that must be incorporated into recipients' and subrecipients' construction contracts under their awards and subawards, respectively. Further details are provided in appendix B to part 22 of the DoDGARs (32 CFR part 22), in section b. under the heading “Nondiscrimination.” any “federally assisted construction contract” (as defined in 41 CFR 60-1.3) under the award unless provisions of 41 CFR part 60-1 exempt the contract from the requirement. The clause will require the contractor to comply with equal opportunity requirements in 41 CFR chapter 60.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Wage Rate Requirements (Construction), formerly the Davis Bacon Act.</I> When required by Federal program legislation, you must take the following actions with respect to each construction contract for more than $2,000 to be awarded using funding provided under this award:
</P>
<P>a. Place in the solicitation under which the contract will be awarded a copy of the current prevailing wage determination issued by the Department of Labor;
</P>
<P>b. Condition the decision to award the contract upon the contractor's acceptance of that prevailing wage determination;
</P>
<P>c. Include in the contract the clauses specified at 29 CFR 5.5(a) in Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 5, “Labor Standards Provisions Applicable to Contracts Governing Federally Financed and Assisted Construction”) to require the contractor's compliance with the Wage Rate Requirements (Construction), as amended (40 U.S.C. 3141-44, 3146, and 3147); and
</P>
<P>d. Report all suspected or reported violations to the award administration office identified in this award.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fly America requirements.</I> In each contract under which funds provided under this award might be used to participate in costs of international air travel or transportation for people or property, you must include a clause to require the contractor to:
</P>
<P>a. Comply with the International Air Transportation Fair Competitive Practices Act of 1974 (49 U.S.C. 40118, also known as the “Fly America” Act), as implemented by the General Services Administration at 41 CFR 301-10.131 through 301-10.143, which provides that U.S Government financed international air travel and transportation of personal effects or property must use a U.S. Flag air carrier or be performed under a cost sharing arrangement with a U.S. carrier, if such service is available; and
</P>
<P>b. Include the requirements of the Fly America Act in all subcontracts that might involve international air transportation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Cargo preference for United States flag vessels.</I> In each contract under which equipment, material, or commodities may be shipped by oceangoing vessels, you must include the clause specified in Department of Transportation regulations at 46 CFR 381.7(b) to require that at least 50 percent of equipment, materials or commodities purchased or otherwise obtained with Federal funds under this award, and transported by ocean vessel, be transported on privately owned U.S. flag commercial vessels, if available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51247, Aug. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—PERSONNEL, MILITARY AND CIVILIAN
</HEAD>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>For a revision of Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration, see 5 CFR part 900.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV5 N="44" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 44—SCREENING THE READY RESERVE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 10149.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 84241, Dec. 28, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 44.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This rule updates Department of Defense (DoD) policy and responsibilities for the screening of Ready Reservists under 10 U.S.C. 10149.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This rule applies to non-Federal employers of Ready Reservists filling key positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Extreme community hardship.</I> A situation that, because of a Reserve member's mobilization, may have a substantially adverse effect on the health, safety, or welfare of the community. Any request for a determination of such hardship will be made by the Reserve member and must be supported by documentation, as required by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive National Guard (ING).</I> Members of the National Guard in an inactive status in the Ready Reserve and attached to a specific National Guard unit. These members do not participate in training activities but mobilize with their unit of assignment or with other units within their State on partial or full mobilization. They are not subject to a call-up pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 12304.
</P>
<P><I>Individual Ready Reserve (IRR).</I> A manpower pool within the Ready Reserve of each of the RCs consisting of individuals who have had some training or who have served previously in the AC or in the Selected Reserve, and may have some period of their MSO remaining pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 651. The IRR consists of members of the Ready Reserve who are not in the Selected Reserve or the ING. Additionally, the IRR also includes some personnel who are participating in officer training programs or in the Armed Forces Health Professions Scholarship and Financial Assistance Programs.
</P>
<P><I>Key employee.</I> Any non-federal employee occupying a key position within an agency, company, local government, or organization.
</P>
<P><I>Key position.</I> A public or private civilian position, not a job series, designated by the employer and approved by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned) that cannot be vacated during war or national emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Mobilization.</I> The process by which the Armed Forces of the United States, or part of them, are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Ready Reserve.</I> The Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve liable for active duty as prescribed by law.
</P>
<P><I>Selected Reserve.</I> Those units and individuals within the Ready Reserve designated by their respective Military Service and approved by the Joint Chiefs of Staff as so essential to initial wartime missions that they have priority over all other reserves.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Members of the Ready Reserve shall be screened (see the appendix to this part for specific screening guidance) at least annually to meet the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 10149 and to provide a Ready Reserve force composed of members who:
</P>
<P>(1) Meet Military Service readiness standards of mental, moral, professional, and physical fitness and possess the military qualifications required in the various ranks, ratings, and specialties.
</P>
<P>(2) Are available immediately for active duty (AD) during a mobilization or as otherwise required by law.
</P>
<P>(b) Ready Reserve members whose immediate recall to AD during an emergency would create an extreme personal or community hardship shall be transferred to the Standby Reserve or the Retired Reserve, or shall be discharged, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) Ready Reserve members who occupy key positions shall be transferred to the Standby Reserve or the Retired Reserve, or shall be discharged, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) After a mobilization is ordered, no deferment, delay, or exemption from mobilization will be granted to Ready Reserve members because of their civilian employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) adjudicates, before mobilization, conflicts the Ready Reserve screening process has identified, but has not resolved, between the mobilization manpower needs of the civilian sector and the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASD(M&amp;RA)), under the USD(P&amp;R), coordinates resolution of conflicts between the mobilization manpower needs of the civilian sector and the Military Services identified but not resolved through the Ready Reserve screening process.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments and Commandant, United States Coast Guard, ensure coordination with the ASD(M&amp;RA) to resolve conflicts (identified, but not resolved through the Ready Reserve screening process) between the mobilization manpower needs of the civilian sector and the military. They will review petitions submitted by employers, take applicable action, and promptly transmit the results of that determination to the reservist concerned and their employer after making a determination in response to the petition. Materials provided or produced with regard to the petition will be retained by the Secretary Concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.11.0.42.6.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 44—Guidance for Employers of Ready Reservists
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers of Ready Reserve members. Prior to any mobilization action, employers of Ready Reserve members are encouraged to adopt personnel management procedures designed to prevent conflicts between the emergency manpower needs of civilian and military activities that may occur during a military mobilization requiring Ready Reserve participation. Employers are encouraged to assess the internal capabilities of their own positions and the organic capacity to sustain emergency manpower needs prior to a military mobilization which can produce an accurate listing of what they consider key positions to their organization. Employers, via the head of or suitable designee within an agency, company, local government, or organization, are encouraged to use the below key position guidelines as a reference for considering designations and, when applicable, petitioning the respective Military Service if a Ready Reserve member fills a key position. Nothing in this part shall reduce, limit, or eliminate in any manner any right or benefit provided by USERRA. Employers must ensure that key position determinations are not undertaken in a manner that would violate USERRA.
</P>
<P>(b) Key position guidelines:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate individual positions that are essential in nature to, and within, the organization as “key positions,” and require they will not be filled by Ready Reserve members to prevent such positions from being vacated during a mobilization.
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the following questions to determine whether an individual position should be designated as a key position:
</P>
<P>(i) Can the position be filled in a reasonable time after mobilization? (Note that this factor must not be the sole factor relied on in making a key position determination.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Does the position require technical or managerial skills that are possessed uniquely by the incumbent employee?
</P>
<P>(iii) Is the position associated directly with defense mobilization?
</P>
<P>(iv) Does the position include a mobilization or relocation assignment in a federal agency that has emergency functions, as designated by E.O. 12656?
</P>
<P>(v) Is the position directly associated with industrial or manpower mobilization, as designated in E.O.s 12656 and 12919?
</P>
<P>(vi) Are there other factors related to the national defense, health, or safety that will make the incumbent of the position unavailable for mobilization? These factors should not be applied more broadly than intended as to encompass an entire class of workers, nor misapplied to conflict with USERRA, its implementing regulations at 20 CFR part 1002, or other federal statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct an annual review of key positions and employees as noted herein.
</P>
<P>(4) Petition to the respective Military Service any findings for adjudication of specific Ready Reserve members filling critical positions, as needed.
</P>
<P>(5) When employers consider a Ready Reserve member as filling a key position within their organization, they should petition the applicable Reserve personnel center for discussion and adjudication. An employer may not take any employment action with regard to the position for which approval is sought based upon an employee or potential employee's military service until such time as the petition for approval has been approved by the relevant Service Secretary. Below is the list of Reserve personnel centers to which petitions shall be forwarded:
</P>
<FP-1><I>Army Reserve:</I> U.S. Army Human Resources, Command 1600 Spearhead Division, Avenue ATTN: AHRC-ROR-PPA, Fort Knox, KY 40122-5100, <I>https://www.hrc.army.mil/</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Navy Reserve:</I> Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command (Pers 91), 5720 Integrity Drive, Millington, TN 38055-9100, <I>https://www.public.navy.mil/bupers-npc/Pages/default.aspx</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Marine Corps Reserve:</I> Director, Marine Corps Individual Reserve Support Activity (MCIRSA), 2000 Opelousas Ave., New Orleans, LA 70114, <I>https://www.marforres.marines.mil/Major-Subordinate-Commands/Force-Headquarters-Group/Marine-Corps-Individual-Reserve-Support-Activity/</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Air Force Reserve:</I> Commander, Air Reserve Personnel Center/DPAM, 18420 E. Silver Creek Ave., Bldg. 390, MS 68, Buckley AFB, CO 80011, <I>https://www.arpc.afrc.af.mil/</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Coast Guard Reserve:</I> Commander (PSC-RPM), U. S. Coast Guard Personnel Service Center, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr Ave. SE, Stop 7200, Washington, DC 20593-7200, <I>https://www.dcms.uscg.mil/Our-Organization/Assistant-Commandant-for-Human-Resources-CG-1/Personnel-Service-Center-PSC/Reserve-Personnel-Management-PSC-RPM/</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Army and Air National Guard:</I> Submit petitions to the Adjutant General of the appropriate State, Territory, or the District of Columbia.


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="45" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 45—MEDICAL MALPRACTICE CLAIMS BY MEMBERS OF THE UNIFORMED SERVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2733a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 45.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.1   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The purpose of this part is to establish the rules and procedures for members of the uniformed services or their representatives to file claims for compensation for personal injury or death caused by the medical malpractice of a Department of Defense (DoD) health care provider. Claims under this part may be settled and paid by DoD under the Military Claims Act, Title 10, United States Code, Chapter 163, specifically section 2733a of Title 10 (hereinafter 10 U.S.C. 2733a, section 2733a, or the statute), as added to the Military Claims Act by section 731 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2020 (Pub. L. 116-92; 133 Stat. 1457). Claims are adjudicated under an administrative process. This administrative process follows a set of rules and procedures set forth in this part. These rules and procedures are based primarily on a number of detailed provisions in the statute.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relationship to military and veterans' compensation programs.</I> Federal law provides a comprehensive system of compensation for military members and their families in cases of death or disability incurred in military service. This system applies to all causes of death or disability incurred in service, whether due to combat injuries, training mishaps, motor vehicle accidents, naturally occurring illnesses, or household events, with limited exceptions (<I>e.g.,</I> when the member is absent without leave or the injury is due to the member's intentional misconduct or willful negligence). This comprehensive compensation system applies to cases of personal injury or death caused by medical malpractice incurred in service as it does to all other causes. This part provides for the possibility of separate compensation in certain cases of medical malpractice but in no other type of case. A medical malpractice claim under this part will have no effect on any other compensation the member or the member's family is entitled to under the comprehensive compensation system applicable to all members. However, if the U.S. Government makes a payment for harm caused by malpractice, this payment reduces the potential damages under this part as provided in § 45.11.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship to Healthcare Resolutions Program.</I> The medical malpractice claims process under this part is separate from the Military Health System Healthcare Resolutions Program. The Healthcare Resolutions Program, under Defense Health Agency Procedural Instruction 6025.17, is an independent, neutral, and confidential system that promotes full disclosure of factual information—including information involving adverse events and outcomes—and mediation of clinical conflicts. The program is part of the Military Health System's commitment to transparency, which also includes a patient's right to be heard as part of any quality assurance review of care provided. The Healthcare Resolutions Program is not involved in legal proceedings, compensation matters, or the adjudication of claims under this part. However, any member of the uniformed services may engage the Healthcare Resolutions Program to address non-monetary aspects of his or her belief that he or she has been harmed by medical malpractice by a DoD health care provider. Because it is not involved in claims or legal proceedings, the Healthcare Resolutions Program disengages when a claim is filed by a service member or his or her representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 40381, May 10, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.2   Claims payable and not payable in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This section sets forth a number of terms and conditions included in the statute (10 U.S.C. 2733a) that describe claims that are payable and not payable. Some of these terms and conditions are discussed in more detail in later sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim not otherwise payable.</I> As required by the statute (section 2733a(b)(5)), a claim under this Part may only be paid if it is not allowed to be settled and paid under any other provision of law. This limitation provides that it cannot be a claim allowed under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA), 28 U.S.C. 1346 and Chapter 171. Claims against the United States filed by members of the uniformed services or their representatives for personal injury or death incident to service are not allowed under the FTCA. These claims may be allowed under this Part if they meet the other applicable terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for filing claims.</I> (1) The statute (section 2733a(b)(4)) requires that a claim must be received by DoD in writing within two years after the claim accrues. For mailed claims, timeliness of receipt will be determined by the postmark.
</P>
<P>(2) There is a special rule for claims filed during calendar year 2020. Such claims must be presented to DoD in writing within three years after the claim accrues. The tolling provisions under the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act, 50 U.S.C. 3901-4043, are not applicable under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of applying the time limit for filing a claim, a claim accrues as of the latter of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the act or omission by a DoD health care provider that is the basis of the malpractice claim; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the claimant knew, or with the exercise of reasonable diligence should have known, of the injury and that malpractice was its possible cause.
</P>
<P>(4) State statutes of limitation or repose are inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No claim for attorney's fees or expenses in addition to statutorily allowed amount.</I>

In calculating the amount that may be paid under this part, consistent with section 2733a(c)(2), there is no additional amount permitted for attorneys' fees or expenses associated with filing a claim or participating in any process relating to the adjudication of the claim. The adjudication of claims under this part is not an adversarial proceeding and there is no prevailing party to be awarded costs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claims adjudication based on national standards.</I> As required by the statute (section 2733a(f)(2)(B)), claims are adjudicated based on national standards consistent with generally accepted standards used in a majority of States in adjudicating claims under the FTCA. The determination of the applicable law is without regard to the place of occurrence of the alleged medical malpractice giving rise to the claim or the military or executive department or service of the member of the uniformed services. Foreign law has no role in the case of claims arising in foreign countries. The legal standards set forth in other sections of this part apply to determinations with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether an act or omission by a DoD health care provider in the context of performing medical, dental, or related health care functions was negligent or wrongful, considering the specific facts and circumstances;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the personal injury or death of the member was proximately caused by a negligent or wrongful act or omission of a DoD health care provider in the context of performing medical, dental, or related health care functions, considering the specific facts and circumstances;
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements relating to proof of duty, breach of duty, and causation resulting in compensable injury or loss, subject to such exclusions as may be established by this Part; and
</P>
<P>(4) Calculation of damages that may be paid.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certain other claims not payable.</I> The generally accepted legal standards under FTCA that are required to be reflected in the adjudication of claims under this Part include certain exclusions that are part of FTCA law.
</P>
<P>(1) The due care and discretionary function exceptions apply to claims under this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The due care and discretionary function exceptions, 28 U.S.C. 2680(a), bar any claim based upon an act or omission of a DoD health care provider, exercising due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation or based upon the exercise or performance of any discretionary function or duty on the part of DoD or a DoD health care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The due care exception applies to any DoD health care provider's act, if carried out with due care, or omission, if omitted with due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation. The due care exception applies whether or not the statute or regulation is valid.
</P>
<P>(iii) The discretionary function exception applies to the exercise or performance or the failure to exercise or perform any discretionary function. The discretionary function exception applies whether or not the discretion involved was abused. It applies to any DoD health care provider's act or omission that is a permissible exercise of discretion under the applicable statutes, regulations, or directive and, by its nature, is susceptible to policy analysis. The discretionary function exception applies to DoD policy decisions regarding clinical practice, patient triage, force health protection, medical readiness, health promotion, disease prevention, medical screening, health assessment, resource management, hiring and retaining employees, selection of contractors, military standards, fitness for duty, duty limitations, and health information management, among other matters affecting or involving the provision of health care services.
</P>
<P>(2) The quarantine exception applies to claims under this part. This exception, consistent with 28 U.S.C. 2680(f), bars any claim for damages caused by the imposition or establishment of a quarantine by any agency of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(3) The combatant activities exception applies to claims under this part. This exception, consistent with 28 U.S.C. 2680(j), bars any claim arising out of the combatant activities of the military or naval forces, or the Coast Guard, in time of war.
</P>
<P>(4) The FTCA's exclusions under 28 U.S.C. 2674 of interest prior to judgment and punitive damages apply to any claim under this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Claims based on intentional or negligent infliction of emotional distress, other intentional torts, wrongful death/life, strict liability, products liability, informed consent, negligent credentialing, or joint and severable liability theories are not payable under this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Breach of medical confidentiality is not actionable under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.3   Authorized claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This section describes who may file a claim under this part. A claim may be filed only by a member of a uniformed service or an authorized representative on behalf of a member who is deceased or otherwise unable to file the claim due to incapacitation. A member of the uniformed services includes a cadet or midshipman from the military academies. It does not include an applicant to join a uniformed service or a delayed entry program recruit who has not been accessed into active duty.
</P>
<P>(1) As provided in section 2733a(b)(1), the claim must be filed by the member of the uniformed services who is the subject of the medical malpractice claim or by an authorized representative on behalf of such member who is deceased or otherwise unable to file the claim due to incapacitation.
</P>
<P>(2) In some circumstances, a claim otherwise payable under this part may be filed by or on behalf of a reserve component member. As provided in section 2733a(i)(3), those circumstances are that the claim is in connection with personal injury or death that occurred while the member was in a Federal duty status. This circumstance includes personal injury, death, or negligent diagnosis resulting from a negligent or wrongful act or omission that occurred while the member was in a Federal duty status. In the case of a member of the National Guard of the United States, a period of Federal duty status may be under Title 10, U.S. Code, or, based on 10 U.S.C. 12602, duty under title 32, U.S. Code. Other duty under State control is not covered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third party claims not allowed.</I> The statute only authorizes claims by members of the uniformed services. Thus, the regulation does not permit derivative claims or other claims from third parties alleging a separate injury as a result of harm to a member of the uniformed services. This prohibition includes claims by family members or survivors arising out of the circumstances of personal injury or death of a member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incident to service requirement.</I> Under section 2733a(a), the member's personal injury or death must be incident to service. An injury or death is incident to service if the medical care provided is based on the member's status under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.4   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A member of a uniformed service or, when applicable, an authorized representative may file a claim in writing. Any written claim will suffice as long as it is meets the requirements below and is signed by the claimant or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the claim.</I> The filed claim must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The factual basis for the claim, including identification of the conduct allegedly constituting malpractice (<I>e.g.,</I> the theory of liability and/or breach of the applicable standard of care);
</P>
<P>(2) A demand for a specified dollar amount;
</P>
<P>(3) If the claim is filed by an attorney, an affidavit from the claimant affirming the attorney's authority to file the claim on behalf of the claimant;
</P>
<P>(4) If the claim is filed by an authorized representative, an affidavit from the representative affirming his/her authority to file on behalf of the claimant;
</P>
<P>(5) If the claimant is not represented by an attorney, unless the alleged medical malpractice is within the general knowledge and experience of ordinary laypersons, an affidavit from the claimant affirming that the claimant consulted with a health care professional who opined that a DoD health care provider breached the standard of care that caused the alleged harm. Alternatively, if the claimant is represented by an attorney, unless the alleged medical malpractice is within the general knowledge and experience of ordinary laypersons, the claim must include an affidavit from the attorney affirming that the attorney consulted with a health care professional who opined that a DoD health care provider breached the standard of care that caused the alleged harm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information to file in support of claim.</I> In the investigation and adjudication of a claim, DoD will access pertinent DoD records and information systems regarding the member in order to consider fully all facts that have a bearing on the claim. This collection may include information in personnel and medical records, the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment System (DEERS), reports of investigation, medical quality assurance records, and other information. Upon DoD's request, a claimant must identify any pertinent health care providers outside of DoD, and provide a copy of his or her medical records from each of the identified health care providers, including a statement that the records are complete. A claimant must provide medical release(s) upon DoD's request, enabling DoD to obtain medical records from these health care providers. Claimants may submit any other relevant information they believe supports their claim, such as information regarding the medical care involved, the acts or omissions the claimant believes constitute malpractice, medical opinions from non-DoD providers, and evidence of pain and suffering or other harm.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substantiating the claim.</I> Under section 2733a(b)(6), DoD is allowed to pay a claim only if it is substantiated. The claimant has the burden to substantiate the claim by a preponderance of the evidence. Upon receipt of a claim, DoD may require that the claimant provide additional information DoD believes is necessary for adjudication of the claim, including the submission of an expert opinion at the claimant's expense. DoD may determine an expert opinion is not necessary when negligence is within the general knowledge and experience of ordinary laypersons, such as when a foreign object is unintentionally left in the body or an operation occurred on the wrong body part. DoD may take other steps necessary to adjudicate the claim accurately, including conducting interviews of health care providers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No discovery.</I> There is no discovery process for adjudication of claims under this part. However, claimants may obtain copies of records in DoD's possession that are part of their personnel and medical records in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a; DoD's Privacy Act regulation at 32 CFR part 310; and DoD Manual 6025.18, “Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule in DoD Health Care Programs.” Claimants are not entitled to attorney work product, attorney-client privileged communications, material that is part of a DoD Quality Assurance Program protected under 10 U.S.C. 1102, pre-decisional material, or other privileged information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52462, Aug. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.5   Elements of payable claim: facilities and providers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This section describes some of the necessary elements of a payable claim. The health care involved must occur in a covered military medical treatment facility (MTF) and be provided by a DoD health care provider acting within the scope of employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered MTF.</I> (1) As provided in section 2733a(b)(3) and (i)(1), the alleged act or omission constituting medical malpractice must have occurred in a covered MTF. For the purposes of this regulation, an MTF is a medical center, inpatient hospital, or ambulatory care center, as those facilities are described in 10 U.S.C. 1073d. Fixed dental clinics are also included.
</P>
<P>(2) A claim may not be based on health care services provided by DoD health care providers in any other location, such as in the field, battalion aid stations, ships, planes, deployed settings, or in any other place that is not a covered MTF.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DoD health care provider.</I> As provided in section 2733a(i)(2), a DoD health care provider is a member of the uniformed services, DoD civilian employee, or personal services contractor of the Department (under 10 U.S.C. 1091) authorized by DoD to provide health care services. A non-personal services contractor or a volunteer working in an MTF is not a DoD health care provider for purposes of a payable claim under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of employment.</I> As provided in section 2733a(b)(2), for a claim to be payable under this part, the DoD health care provider whose negligent or wrongful act or omission is the basis of a claim must be acting within the scope of employment, meaning that the provider was acting in furtherance of his or her duties in the MTF. For personal services contractors, “scope of employment” means the contractor was acting within the scope of his or her duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.6   Element of payable claim: negligent or wrongful act or omission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> To establish the element of a negligent or wrongful act or omission, a member of a uniformed service (“claimant”) allegedly harmed incident to service by medical malpractice must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that one or more DoD health care providers in a covered MTF acting within the scope of employment had a professional duty to the patient involved and by act or omission breached that duty which proximately caused the injury or death.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard of care.</I> The professional duty referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is a duty to exercise the same degree of skill, care, and knowledge ordinarily expected of providers in the same field or specialty in a comparable clinical setting. The standard of care is determined based on generally recognized national standards, not on the standards of a particular region, State or locality. However, standard of care in the military context may be impacted by the particular setting and the availability of resources in that setting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Breach of the standard of care.</I> A breach referred to in paragraph (a) occurs if the health care provider or providers by act or omission did not meet the standard of care.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Presenting evidence of the standard of care.</I> A claimant may present evidence to support what the claimant believes is the standard of care relevant to the care involved in the claim.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presenting evidence of a failure to meet the standard of care.</I> (1) A claimant may present evidence to support what the claimant believes demonstrates the failure of one or more DoD health care providers to meet the standard of care. That evidence may be based on the medical records of the patient involved and other documentary evidence of the acts or omissions of health care providers involved, including expert reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of an apology by a health care provider or any other DoD or Military Department personnel, such as hospital directors or commanders, to or regarding a patient will not be considered evidence of medical malpractice. Providers often apologize for unexpected or adverse outcomes independent of whether the provider's acts or omissions met the standard of care.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information DoD will consider in assessing whether there was a negligent or wrongful act or omission.</I> (1) In addition to the information submitted by the claimant, DoD may consider all relevant information in DoD records and information systems or otherwise available to DoD, including information prepared by or on behalf of DoD in connection with adjudication of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD will consider medical quality assurance records relevant to the health care provided to the patient. DoD's Clinical Quality Management Program features reviews of many circumstances of clinical care. Results of any such reviews of the care involved in the claim that occurred before or after the claim was filed may be considered by DoD in the adjudication of the claim. As required by 10 U.S.C. 1102, DoD medical quality assurance records are confidential. While such records may be used by DoD, any information contained in or derived from such records may not be disclosed to the claimant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.7   Element of payable claim: proximate cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) In a case otherwise payable under this part, a claimant must prove by a preponderance of evidence that a negligent or wrongful act or omission by one or more DoD health care providers was the proximate cause of the harm suffered by the member.
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 2733a(c)(1), DoD is liable for only the portion of compensable injury, loss, or damages attributable to the medical malpractice of a DoD health care provider. To the extent other causes contributed to the personal injury or death of the member, whether pre-existing, concurrent, or subsequent, the potential amount of compensation under this regulation will be reduced by that proportion of the alternative cause(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comparative negligence.</I> A rule of modified comparative negligence will apply to claims under this part. If a claimant was contributorily negligent in relation to the health care provided, damages will be reduced by the proportion of fault assigned to the Service member. If the claimant's own negligence constituted more than 50% of the fault, the claim is not payable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loss of chance or failure to diagnose.</I> A claimant may recover for loss of chance for a more favorable clinical outcome in the diagnosis and treatment of his or her illness or injury. The claimant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that one or more DoD health care providers in a covered MTF acting within the scope of employment had a professional duty to the claimant and by act or omission breached that duty and proximately caused harm. In proving that the claimant suffered harm, the claimant must prove that the lost chance for a better outcome or the failure to diagnose a condition is attributable to the provider or providers. The claimant must prove a substantial loss as opposed to a theoretical or de minimis loss. The portion of harm attributable to the breach of duty will be the percentage of chance lost in proportion to the overall clinical outcome. Damages will be calculated based on this portion of harm.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information DoD will consider in assessing proximate cause.</I> (1) In addition to the information submitted by the claimant, DoD may consider all relevant information in DoD records or information systems or otherwise available to DoD, including information prepared by or on behalf of DoD in connection with adjudication of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD may consider medical quality assurance records relevant to the health care provided to the patient. DoD's Clinical Quality Management Program features reviews of many circumstances of clinical care. Results of any such reviews of the care involved in the claim that occurred before or after the claim was filed may be considered by DoD in the adjudication of the claim. As required by 10 U.S.C. 1102, DoD medical quality assurance records are confidential. While such records may be used by DoD, any information contained in or derived from such records may not be disclosed to the claimant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52462, Aug. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.8   Calculation of damages: disability rating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For certain purposes relating to calculating damages for a member in a claim under this part, DoD will use the disability rating established in the DoD Disability Evaluation System under DoD Instruction 1332.18 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or otherwise established by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to assess the extent of the harm alleged to have been caused by medical malpractice. This rating is stated as a disability percentage under the VA Schedule for Rating Disabilities (VASRD) under 38 CFR part 4 or a successor provision. Under 10 U.S.C. 1216a, DoD is required to use the VASRD for assessing the degree of disability of a member under the Disability Evaluation System. DoD will use it for purposes of this part as well. A VASRD-based disability percentage represents the Government's estimate of the lost earning capacity attributable to an illness or injury incurred during military service. A Service member medically separated or retired through the Disability Evaluation System may receive distinct DoD and VA disability ratings. DoD will consider disability ratings, to the extent DoD deems pertinent, for other purposes relating to calculating damages, such as calculating loss of earning capacity and non-economic damages.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/133218p.pdf?ver=2018-05-24-133105-050.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Disability rating procedures.</I> (1) If a claimant disagrees with the disability rating received in the DoD or VA disability evaluation or claims processes, the member must pursue the appeal opportunities available within the DoD and/or VA to change the member's disability rating.
</P>
<P>(2) In any case in which a member has filed a claim under this part and also has a disability determination pending under DoD or VA disability evaluation or claims processes applicable to determinations or appeals, DoD may, in its discretion, hold in abeyance the claim under this part pending the outcome of the disability evaluation or claims process. DoD will notify the claimant that his or her claim is being held in abeyance.
</P>
<P>(3) In any case in which a member has not yet received a DoD or VA disability evaluation because the member is retained on active duty, DoD will use the VASRD as the standard for assessing the degree of disability of the member relevant to the member's claim under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.9   Calculation of damages: economic damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Economic damages are one component of a potential damages award. The claimant has the burden to prove the amount of economic damages by a preponderance of evidence. Estimates of future losses must be discounted to present value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of economic damages in personal injury cases.</I> Elements of economic damage are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Past expenses, including medical, hospital, and related expenses actually incurred. These expenses do not include health care services provided or paid for by DoD or VA.
</P>
<P>(2) Future medical, hospital, and related expenses. These expenses do not include health care goods and services for which the member is entitled to receive from, or be reimbursed for by, DoD (including TRICARE) or VA. Goods and services provided or paid for by DoD or VA are deemed sufficient to meet the claimant's needs for that particular type of good or service.
</P>
<P>(3) Past lost earnings unrelated to compensation as a member of the uniformed services. Appropriate documentation is required.


</P>
<P>(4) For future lost earnings:
</P>
<P>(i) Until DoD determines that the claimant is, or is expected to be, medically rehabilitated and able to resume employment;
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases of permanent incapacitation, until expiration of the claimant's work-life expectancy; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In cases of death, until the expiration of the claimant's work-life expectancy, after deducting for the claimant's personal consumption.
</P>
<P>(iv) Future lost earnings must be substantiated by appropriate documentation and claimants have an obligation to mitigate damages.
</P>
<P>(v) In addition, loss of retirement benefits is compensable and similarly discounted after appropriate deductions. Estimates for future lost earnings and retirement benefits must be discounted to present value.


</P>
<P>(5) Compensation when the claimant can no longer perform essential household services on his or her own behalf, including activities of daily living. This compensation does not include goods and services the member is entitled to receive from, or be reimbursed for by, DoD or VA. Goods and services provided or paid for by DoD or VA are deemed sufficient to meet the claimant's needs for that particular type of good or service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information DoD will consider in calculating economic damages.</I> In addition to the information submitted by the claimant, DoD may consider all relevant information in DoD records or information systems or otherwise available to DoD, including assessments from appropriate documentary sources and experts available to DoD.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disability discrimination.</I> An injury or condition does not result in lost earnings for purposes of, and is not compensable under, this part if the lost earnings stem from disability discrimination, which may be settled and paid under other provisions of law.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 40381, May 10, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.10   Calculation of damages: non-economic damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Non-economic damages are one component of a potential damages award. The claimant has the burden of proof on the amount of non-economic damages by a preponderance of evidence. DoD may request an interview of or statement from the claimant or other person with primary knowledge of the claimant. DoD may also require medical statements documenting the claimant's condition and, in cases of disfigurement, photographs documenting the claimant's condition.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of non-economic damages.</I> Non-economic damages include pain and suffering; physical discomfort; mental and emotional trauma or distress; loss of enjoyment of life; physical disfigurement; and the inability to perform daily activities that one performed prior to injury, such as recreational activities. Such damages are compensable as part of non-economic damages.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cap on non-economic damages.</I> In any claim under this part, total non-economic damages may not exceed a cap amount published by DoD via a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. DoD will periodically publish updates to this cap amount via <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, consistent with changes in prevailing amounts in the majority of the States with non-economic damages caps.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information DoD will consider in calculating non-economic damages.</I> In addition to the information submitted by the claimant, DoD may consider all relevant information in DoD records or otherwise available to DoD, including assessments from appropriate documentary sources and experts available to DoD.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52462, Aug. 26, 2022; 89 FR 40382, May 10, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.11   Calculation of damages: offsets for DoD and VA Government compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Total potential economic damages calculated under this part are reduced by offsetting most of the compensation otherwise provided or expected to be provided by DoD or VA for the same harm that is the subject of the medical malpractice claim. DoD has the burden to establish the applicability and amount of any offsets.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility for payments and benefits.</I> In determining the offsets that are applied to a medical malpractice damages award under this part, DoD presumes that a claimant will receive all the payments and benefits for which the claimant is expected to be eligible, whether or not the claimant has taken steps to obtain the payment or benefit or ultimately receives such payment or benefit. A claimant may present evidence that he or she is not eligible for a payment or benefit to rebut the presumption.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Present value of future payments and benefits.</I> In determining offsets under this section from economic damages, DoD will use the present value of future payments and benefits. Many such payments and benefits in cases of disability or death are lifetime benefits for members or survivors. With respect to any lifetime payments or benefits that may terminate upon the remarriage of a surviving spouse, DoD will not assume a remarriage. Estimates will be based on actuarial information provided by the Chief Actuary, DoD Office of the Actuary, taking into consideration methods and assumptions approved by the DoD Board of Actuaries and DoD Medicare-Eligible Retiree Health Care Board of Actuaries, respectively, as of the recent actuarial valuation date.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information considered.</I> In determining offsets under this section, DoD will consider all data available in DoD records or information systems, other U.S. Government records systems, and other information available to DoD. This data may include information on military pay and allowances, Disability Evaluation System outcomes, VA disability claims, marital status, number and ages of dependents, survivor benefits, and other information. Access to all such information will be in accordance with the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and applicable implementing regulations. Claimants must provide information not available to DoD, but requested by DoD, for the purpose of determining offsets.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefits and payments that may be considered as potential offsets.</I> The general rule is that potential damages calculated under this part may be offset only by DoD or VA payments and benefits that are primarily funded by Government appropriations. Potential damages calculated under this part are not offset by U.S. Government payments and benefits that are substantially funded by the military member. The following examples are provided for illustrative purposes only, are not all-inclusive, and are subject to adjustment as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) The following DoD and VA payments and benefits are primarily funded from Government appropriations and will be offset:
</P>
<P>(i) Disability retired pay in the case of retirement due to the disability caused by the alleged medical malpractice;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disability severance pay in the case of non-retirement disability separation caused by the alleged medical malpractice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Incapacitation pay.
</P>
<P>(iv) Involuntary and voluntary separation pays and incentives.
</P>
<P>(v) Death gratuity.
</P>
<P>(vi) Housing allowance continuation.
</P>
<P>(vii) Survivor Benefit Plan.
</P>
<P>(viii) VA disability compensation, to include Special Monthly Compensation, attributable to the disability resulting from the malpractice.
</P>
<P>(ix) VA Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, attributable to the disability resulting from the malpractice.
</P>
<P>(x) Special Survivor Indemnity Allowance.
</P>
<P>(xi) Special Compensation for Assistance with Activities of Daily Living.
</P>
<P>(xii) Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Fry Scholarship.
</P>
<P>(xiv) TRICARE coverage, including TRICARE-for-Life, for a disability retiree, family, or survivors. Future TRICARE coverage is part of the Government's compensation package for a disability retiree or survivor.
</P>
<P>(2) The following U.S. Government payments and benefits are substantially funded by the military members or are otherwise generally not eligible for consideration as potential offsets:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicemembers Group Life Insurance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Traumatic Servicemembers Group Life Insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Social Security disability benefits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Social Security survivor benefits.
</P>
<P>(v) Prior Government contributions to a Thrift Savings Plan.
</P>
<P>(vi) Commissary, exchange, and morale, welfare, and recreation facility access.
</P>
<P>(vii) Value of legal assistance and other services provided by DoD.
</P>
<P>(viii) Medical care provided while in active service or in an active status prior to death, retirement, or separation.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021; 86 FR 33885, June 28, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52462, Aug. 26, 2022; 89 FR 40382, May 10, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.12   Initial and Final Determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)<I> Denial of claim—deficient filing.</I> If a claim does not contain the information required by § 45.4(b), DoD will issue an Initial Determination stating that DoD will issue a Final Determination denying the claim unless the deficiency is cured.
</P>
<P>(1) DoD will provide the claimant 90 calendar days following receipt of the Initial Determination to cure the deficiency, unless an extension of time is granted for good cause by the DoD Component which issued the Initial Determination. The date of receipt of the Initial Determination will be presumed to be seven calendar days after the date the Initial Determination was mailed or emailed, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(2) If the claimant does not timely cure the deficiency, DoD will issue a Final Determination denying the claim for failure to cure the deficiency. A Final Determination issued under paragraph (a) of this section may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Denial of claim—failure to state a claim.</I> If a claim does not, based upon the information provided, state a claim cognizable under 10 U.S.C. 2733a or this interim final rule, DoD will issue an Initial Determination denying the claim. Such an Initial Determination may be appealed under the procedures in § 45.13.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of claim—absence of an expert report.</I> Where applicable, if the claimant initially does not submit an expert report in support of his or her claim and DoD intends to deny the claim, DoD will issue an Initial Determination stating that DoD will issue a Final Determination denying the claim in the absence of an expert report or manifest negligence. DoD will provide a meaningful explanation for the intent to deny the claim that includes the specific basis for the denial.
</P>
<P>(1) DoD will provide the claimant 90 calendar days following receipt of the Initial Determination by the claimant or, if the claimant is represented, by the claimant's representative, to submit an expert report, unless an extension of time is granted for good cause. The date of receipt of the Initial Determination will be presumed to be seven calendar days after the date the Initial Determination was mailed or emailed, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(2) If the claimant does not timely submit an expert report, DoD will issue a Final Determination denying the claim. A Final Determination issued under this paragraph (c) may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Initial Determination.</I> (1) Upon consideration of the information provided by the claimant and relevant information available to DoD, DoD will issue the claimant a written Initial Determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The Initial Determination may be in the form of a certified letter and/or an email. The Initial Determination may take the form of a grant of a claim and an offer of settlement or a denial of the claim. Subject to applicable confidentiality requirements, such as 10 U.S.C. 1102, privileged information, and paragraph (a) of this section, DoD will provide a meaningful basis for an offer of settlement or will provide a meaningful explanation for the denial of a claim that includes the specific basis for the denial.
</P>
<P>(3) The Initial Determination will include information on the claimant's right to appeal if the claimant does not agree with the Initial Determination.
</P>
<P>(4) The claimant may request reconsideration of the damages calculation contained in an Initial Determination if, within the time otherwise allowed to file an administrative appeal, the claimant identifies an alleged clear error—a definite and firm conviction that a mistake has been committed—in the damages calculation. The DoD Component that issued the Initial Determination will review the alleged clear error and will issue an Initial Determination on Reconsideration either granting or denying reconsideration of the Initial Determination and adjusting the damages calculation, if appropriate. The Initial Determination on Reconsideration will include information on the claimant's right to appeal under the procedures in § 45.13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52463, Aug. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.13   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This section describes the appeals process applicable to Initial Determinations under this part, which include Initial Determinations on Reconsideration. With the exception of Initial Determinations issued under § 45.12(a), in any case in which the claimant disagrees with an Initial Determination, the claimant has a right to file an administrative appeal. The claimant should explain why he or she disagrees with the Initial Determination, but may not submit additional information in support of the claim unless requested to do so by DoD. An appeal must be received within 90 calendar days of the date of receipt of the Initial Determination by the claimant or, if the claimant is represented, the claimant's representative, unless an extension of time is granted for good cause by the DoD Component that issued the Initial Determination. The date of receipt of the Initial Determination will be presumed to be seven calendar days after the date the Initial Determination was mailed or emailed, unless there is evidence to the contrary. If no timely appeal is received, DoD will issue a Final Determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeals Board.</I> Appeals will be decided by an Appeals Board administratively supported by the Office of the General Counsel, Defense Health Agency. Although there may be, in DoD's discretion, multiple offices that initially adjudicate claims under this part (such as offices in the Military Departments), there is a single DoD Appeals Board. The Appeals Board will consist of DoD attorneys designated by the Defense Health Agency from that agency and/or the Military Departments who are experienced in medical malpractice claims adjudication. Appeals Board members must not have had any previous role in the claims adjudication under appeal. The Appeals Board will consider cases in panels designated by the General Counsel of the Defense Health Agency of not fewer than three and no more than five Appeals Board members. Appeals are decided on a written record and decisions will be approved by a majority of the members. There is no adversarial proceeding and no hearing. There is no opposing party. The Appeals Board may obtain information or assessments from appropriate sources, including from the claimant, to assist in deciding the appeal. The Appeals Board is bound by the provisions of this part and will not consider challenges to them.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The claimant on appeal has the burden of proof by a preponderance of evidence that the claim is substantiated in the written record considered as a whole.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals Board decisions.</I> (1) Every claimant will be provided a written Final Determination on the claimant's appeal. The Final Determination may adopt by reference the Initial Determination or revise the Initial Determination, as appropriate. If the Final Determination revises the Initial Determination, DoD will provide a meaningful explanation of the basis for the revisions.
</P>
<P>(2) An Appeals Board decision is final and conclusive. 10 U.S.C. 2735.
</P>
<P>(3) The Appeals Board may reverse the Initial Determination to grant or deny a claim and may adjust the settlement amount contained in the Initial Determination either upwards or downwards as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52463, Aug. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.14   Final and conclusive resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative adjudication final.</I> As provided in 10 U.S.C. 2735, the adjudication and settlement of a claim under this part is final and conclusive and not subject to review in any court. Unlike the FTCA, the Military Claims Act, 10 U.S.C. chapter 163, which provides the authority for this part, does not give Federal courts jurisdiction over claims. Further, no claim under this Part may be paid unless the amount tendered is accepted by the claimant in full satisfaction.
</P>
<P>(b)<I> Additional terms of settlement agreement.</I> (1) Settlement agreements under this part will incorporate the requirement of section 2733a(g)(1) that no attorney may charge, demand, receive, or collect for services rendered, fees in excess of 20 percent of any claim payment amount under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Because settlement and payment of a claim under this part is under section 2733a(b)(5) conditional on the claim not being allowed to be settled and paid under any other provision of law, a settlement agreement under this part will include a provision that it bars any other claim against the United States or DoD health care providers arising from the same set of facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.12.0.42.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.15   Other claims procedures and administrative matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of damages.</I> In the event damages are awarded, the claimant or the claimant's estate is entitled to payment of those damages.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communication through counsel.</I> If the claimant is represented by counsel, all communications will be through the claimant's counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedies for filing false claims or making false statements.</I> Remedies available to the United States for filing false claims with Federal agencies or making false statements to Federal agencies and officials are applicable to claims and statements made in connection with claims under this part. Applicable authorities include 31 U.S.C. 3729 and 18 U.S.C. 1001. False claims and claims supported by false statements will be denied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports to the Defense Health Agency.</I> As provided in section 2733a(e), not later than 30 calendar days after a Final Determination of medical malpractice or the payment of all or a portion of a claim under this part, a report documenting that determination is sent to the Director, Defense Health Agency to be used for all necessary and appropriate purposes, including those actions undertaken as part of DoD's Clinical Quality Management Program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Monitoring claims adjudications under this part.</I> The General Counsel of the Defense Health Agency will monitor the performance of the claims adjudications structures and procedures under this part, including accounting for the number of claims processed under this part and the resolution of each claim and identifying means to enhance the effectiveness of the claims adjudication process.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authority for actions under this part.</I> To ensure consistency and compliance with statutory requirements, supplementation of the procedures in this part is not permitted without approval in writing by the General Counsel of the Department of Defense. The General Counsel of the Department of Defense, under DoD Directive 5145.01, “General Counsel of the Department of Defense,” may delegate in writing authority for making Initial and Final Determinations, and other actions by DoD officials under this part. As used in this part, and at DoD's discretion, “DoD” or “DoD Components” may include, but is not limited to, Military Departments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32208, June 17, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52463, Aug. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="47" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 47—ACTIVE DUTY SERVICE FOR CIVILIAN OR CONTRACTUAL GROUPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>38 U.S.C. 106 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 39993, Sept. 29, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 47.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This document:
</P>
<P>(a) Revises 32 CFR part 47 and implements Public Law 95-202.
</P>
<P>(b) Directs the Secretary of the Air Force to determine if an established group of civilian employees or contract workers provided service to the U.S. Armed Forces in a manner considered active military service for Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) Establishes the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board and the Advisory Panel.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, prescribes application procedures for groups and individuals, and clarifies the factors used to determine active duty (AD) service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, and by agreement with the Department of Transportation (DoT), the U.S. Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(b) Applies to any group application considered under Public Law 95-202 after September 11, 1989 and to any individual who applies for discharge documents as a member of a group recognized by the Secretary of the Air Force.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Armed conflict.</I> A prolonged period of sustained combat involving members of the U.S. Armed Forces against a foreign belligerent. The term connotes more than a military engagement of limited duration or for limited objectives, and involves a significant use of military and civilian forces.
</P>
<P>(a) Examples of armed conflict are World Wars I and II, and the Korean and Vietnam Conflicts.
</P>
<P>(b) Examples of military actions that are not armed conflicts are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The incursion into Lebanon in 1958, and the peacekeeping force there in 1983 and 1984.
</P>
<P>(2) The incursions into the Dominican Republic in 1965 and into Libya in 1986.
</P>
<P>(3) The intervention into Grenada in 1983.
</P>
<P><I>Civilian or contractual group.</I> An organization similarly situated to the Women's Air Forces Service Pilots (a group of Federal civilian employees attached to the U.S. Army Air Force in World War II). Those organization members rendered service to the U.S. Armed Forces during a period of armed conflict in a capacity that was then considered civilian employment with the Armed Forces, or the result of a contract with the U.S. Government, to provide direct support to the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P><I>Recognized group.</I> A group whose service the Secretary of the Air Force administratively has determined to have been “active duty for the purposes of all laws administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs”; i.e., VA benefits under 38 U.S.C. 101.
</P>
<P><I>Similarly situated.</I> A civilian or contractual group is similarly situated to the Women's Air Forces Service Pilots when it existed as an identifiable group at the time the service was being rendered to the U.S. Armed Forces during a period of armed conflict. Persons who individually provided support through civilian employment or contract, but who were not members of an identifiable group at the time the services were rendered, are not “similarly situated” to the Women's Air Forces Service Pilots of World War II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for consideration.</I> To be eligible to apply for consideration under Public Law 95-202 and this part, a group must:
</P>
<P>(1) Have been similarly situated to the Women's Air Forces Service Pilots of World War II.
</P>
<P>(2) Have rendered service to the United States in what was considered civilian employment with the U.S. Armed Forces either through formal Civil Service hiring or less formal hiring if the engagement was created under the exigencies of war, or as the result of a contract with the U.S. Government to provide direct support to the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(3) Have rendered that service during a period of armed conflict.
</P>
<P>(4) Consist of living persons to whom VA benefits can accrue.
</P>
<P>(5) Not have already received benefits from the Federal Government for the service in question.
</P>
<P>(b) A determination of AD service that is considered to be equivalent to active military service is made on the extent to which the group was under the control of the U.S. Armed Forces in support of a military operation or mission during an armed conflict. The extent of control exerted over the group must be similar to that exerted over military personnel and shall be determined by, but not necessarily limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Incidents favoring equivalency</I>—(i) <I>Uniqueness of service.</I> Civilian service (civilian employment or contractual service) is a vital element of the war-fighting capability of the Armed Forces. Civilian service during a period of armed conflict is not necessarily equivalent to active military service, even when performed in a combat zone. Service must be beyond that generally performed by civilian employees and must be occasioned by unique circumstances. For civilian service to be recognized under this part, the following factors must be present:
</P>
<P>(A) The group was created or organized by U.S. Government authorities to fill a wartime need or, if a group was not created specifically for a wartime need, but existed before that time, then its wartime mission was of a nature to substantially alter the organization's prewar character.
</P>
<P>(B) If the application is based on service in a combat zone, the mission of the group in a combat zone must have been substantially different from the mission of similar groups not in a combat zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Organizational authority over the group.</I> The concept of military control is reinforced if the military command authority determines such things as the structure of the civilian organization, the location of the group, the mission and activities of the group, and the staffing requirements to include the length of employment and pay grades of the members of the group.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Integration into the military organization.</I> Integrated civilian groups are subject to the regulations, standards, and control of the military command authority.
</P>
<P>(A) Examples include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Exchanging military courtesies.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Wearing military clothing, insignia, and devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Assimilating the group into the military organizational structure.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Emoluments associated with military personnel; i.e., the use of commissaries and exchanges, and membership in military clubs.
</P>
<P>(B) A group fully integrated into the military would give the impression that the members of the group were military, except that they were paid and accounted for as civilians.
</P>
<P>(C) Integration into the military may lead to an expectation by members of the group that the service of the group imminently would be recognized as active military service. Such integration acts in favor of recognition.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Subjection to military discipline.</I> During past armed conflicts, U.S. military commanders sometimes restricted the rights or liberties of civilian members as if they were military members.
</P>
<P>(A) Examples include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Placing members under a curfew.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Requiring members to work extended hours or unusual shifts.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Changing duty assignments and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Restricting proximity travel to and from the military installation.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Imposing dress and grooming standards.
</P>
<P>(B) Consequences for noncompliance might include a loss of some privilege, dismissal from the group, or trial under military law. Such military discipline acts in favor of recognition.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Subjection to military justice.</I> Military members are subject to the military criminal justice system. During times of war, “persons serving with or accompanying an Armed Force in the field” are subject to the military criminal justice code. Those who were serving with the U.S. Armed Forces may have been treated as if they were military and subjected to court-martial jurisdiction to maintain discipline. Such treatment is a factor in favor of recognition.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prohibition against members of the group joining the armed forces.</I> Some organizations may have been formed to serve in a military capacity to overcome the operation of existing laws or treaty or because of a governmentally established policy to retain individuals in the group as part of a civilian force. These factors act in favor of recognition.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Receipt of military training and/or achievement of military capability.</I> If a group employed skills or resources that were enhanced as the result of military training or equipment designed or issued for that purpose, this acts toward recognition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incidents not favoring equivalency</I>—(i) <I>Submission to the U.S. Armed Forces for protection.</I> A group that seeks protection and assistance from the U.S. Armed Forces and submits to military control for its own well-being is not deemed to have provided service to the Armed Forces equivalent to AD military service, even though the group may have been as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Armed by the U.S. military for defensive purposes.
</P>
<P>(B) Routed by the U.S. military to avoid the enemy.
</P>
<P>(C) Instructed by the U.S. military for the defense of the group when attacked by, or in danger of attack by, the enemy.
</P>
<P>(D) Otherwise submitted themselves to the U.S. military for sustenance and protection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Permitted to resign.</I> The ability of members to resign at will and without penalty acts against military control. Penalty may be direct and severe, such as confinement, or indirect and moderate, such as difficult and costly transportation from an overseas location.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prior recognition of group service.</I> Recognition of a group's service by agencies of State or local government does not provide support in favor of recognition under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Status of group in international law.</I> In addition to other factors, consideration will be given to whether members of the group were regarded and treated as civilians, or assimilated to the Armed Forces as reflected in treaties, customary international law, judicial decisions, and U.S. diplomatic practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Applications by groups previously denied a favorable determination by the Secretary of the Air Force shall be reconsidered under this part if the group submits evidence that is new, relevant, and substantive. Any request that the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board established hereunder (see § 47.5(b)) determines does not provide new, relevant, and substantive evidence shall be returned to the applicant with the reasons for nonacceptance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counsel Representation.</I> Neither the Department of Defense nor Department of Transportation shall provide representation by counsel or defray the cost of such representation with respect to any matter covered by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Force Management and Personnel) (ASD(FM&amp;P)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint a primary and an alternate member in the grade of O-6 or GM-15 or higher to the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Exercise oversight over the Military Departments and the U.S. Coast Guard for compliance with this Directive and in the issuance of discharge documents and casualty reports to members of recognized groups.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Air Force, as the designated Executive Agent of the Secretary of Defense for the administration of Public Law 95-202 shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board and the Advisory Panel.
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint as board president a member or employee of the Air Force in grade O-6 or GM-15 or higher.
</P>
<P>(3) Request the Secretary of Transportation to appoint an additional voting member from the U.S. Coast Guard when the board is considering the application of a group claiming active Coast Guard service.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a recorder and an assistant to maintain the records of the board and administer the functions of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide nonvoting legal advisors and historians.
</P>
<P>(6) Publish notices of group applications and other Public Law 95-202 announcements in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(7) Consider the rationale and recommendations of the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board.
</P>
<P>(8) Determine whether the service rendered by a civilian or contractual group shall be considered AD service to the U.S. Armed Forces for all laws administered by the VA. The decision of the Secretary of the Air Force is final. There is no appeal.
</P>
<P>(9) Notify the following persons in writing when a group determination is made (if the Secretary of the Air Force disagrees with the rationale or recommendations of the board, the Secretary of the Air Force shall provide the decision and reasons for it in writing to these persons):
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant(s) for the group.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Department of Veterans Affairs.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(v) The ASD (FM&amp;P).
</P>
<P>(vi) The Secretary of Transportation (when a group claims active Coast Guard service).
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of the Army, Secretary of the Navy, Secretary of the Air Force, and Commandant of the Coast Guard shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint to the board a primary and an alternate member in the grades of O-6 or GM-15 or higher from their respective Military Services.
</P>
<P>(2) Process applications for discharge documents from individuals claiming membership in a recognized group in accordance with applicable laws, Directives, the Secretary of the Air Force rationale and instrument effecting a group determination, and any other instructions of the board.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether the applicant was a member of a recognized group after considering the individual's evidence of membership and verifying the service against available Government records.
</P>
<P>(4) Issue a DD Form 214, “Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty,” and a DD Form 256, “Honorable Discharge Certificate,” or a DD Form 257, “General Discharge Certificate,” as appropriate, consistent with DoD Instruction 1336.1 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD Directive 1332.14 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and the implementing documents of the appropriate statutes of the Military Department concerned or the DoT and the instructions of the DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, if needed, from the U.S. Naval Publications and Forms Center, Attn: 1053, 5801 Tabor Avenue, Philadelphia, PA 19120.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 47.5(c)(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Issue a DD Form 1300, “Report of Casualty,” in accordance with DoD Instruction 1300.9 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> if a verified member was killed during the period of AD service.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 47.5(c)(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) Ensure that each DD Form 214, “Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty,” and each DD Form 1300, “Report of Casualty,” have the following statement entered in the “Remarks” section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This document, issued under Public Law 95-202 (38 U.S.C. 106 Note), administratively establishes active duty service for the purposes of Department of Veterans Affairs benefits.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(7) Determine the equivalent military pay grade, when required by the Department of Veterans Affairs. For VA benefits, a pay grade is needed only in cases when an individual was killed or received service-connected injuries or disease during the recognized period of AD service. A DD Form 1300 shall be issued with the equivalent pay grade annotated for a member who died during the recognized period of service. A DD Form 214 shall not include pay grade, unless the Department of Veterans Affairs requests that a grade determination be given. Determinations of equivalent grade shall be based on the following criteria in order of importance:
</P>
<P>(i) Officially recognized organizational grade or equivalent rank.
</P>
<P>(ii) The corresponding rank for civilian pay grade.
</P>
<P>(iii) If neither of the criteria in paragraphs (c)(7) (i) and (ii) of this section, and applies, only one of three grades may be issued; i.e., O-1, E-4, or E-1. Selection depends on the nature of the job performed, the level of supervision exercised, and the military privileges to which the individual was entitled.
</P>
<P>(8) Adjudicate applicant challenges to the period of AD service, characterization of service, or other administrative aspects of the discharge documents issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submitting group applications.</I> Applications on behalf of a civilian or contractual group shall be submitted to the Secretary of the Air Force using the instructions in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing group applications.</I> (1) When received, the recorder shall review the application for sufficiency and either return it for more information or accept it for consideration and announce acceptance in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) The recorder shall send the application to the appropriate advisory panel for historical review and analysis.
</P>
<P>(3) When received, the recorder shall send the advisory panel's report to the applicant for comment. The applicant's comments shall be referred to the advisory panel if significant disagreement requires resolution. Additional comments from the historians also shall be referred to the applicant for comment.
</P>
<P>(4) The DoD Civilian/Military Service Board shall consider the group application, as established, in paragraph (a) and paragraphs (b) (1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) After the Secretary of the Air Force makes a decision, the recorder shall notify the applicant of the decision and announce it in the “<E T="04">Federal Register.</E>”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submitting individual applications.</I> When a group is recognized, individual members may apply to the appropriate Military Department or to the Coast Guard for discharge documents. Submit applications on DD Form 2168, “Application for Discharge of Member or Survivor of Member of Group Certified to Have Performed Active Duty with the Armed Forces of the United States.” An application on behalf of a deceased or incompetent member submitted by the next of kin must be accompanied by proof of death or incompetence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.7.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 47—Instructions for Submitting Group Applications Under Public Law 95-202
</HEAD>
<P><I>A. In Submitting a Group Application:</I> 1. Define the group to include the time period that your group provided service to the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>2. Show the relationship that the group had with the U.S. Armed Forces, the manner in which members of the group were employed, and the services the members of the group provided to the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>3. Address each of the factors in § 47.4.
</P>
<P>4. Substantiate and document the application. (The burden of proof rests with the applicant.)
</P>
<P><I>B. Send Completed Group Applications To:</I> Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/MRC), DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board, Washington, DC 20330-1000.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.13.0.42.7.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 47—The DoD Civilian/Military Service Review Board and the Advisory Panel
</HEAD>
<HD2>A. Organization and Management
</HD2>
<P>1. The board shall consist of a president selected from the Department of the Air Force and one representative each from the OSD, the Department of the Army, the Department of the Navy, the Department of the Air Force, and the U.S. Coast Guard (when the group claims active Coast Guard service). Each member shall have one vote except that the president shall vote only to break a tie. The board's decision is determined by majority vote. The president and two voting members shall constitute a quorum.
</P>
<P>2. The advisory panel shall act as a nonvoting adjunct to the board. It shall consist of historians selected by the Secretaries of the Military Departments and, if required, by the Secretary of Transportation. The respective Military Departments and the DOT shall ensure that the advisory panel is provided with administrative and legal support.
</P>
<HD2>B. Functions
</HD2>
<P>1. The board shall meet in executive session at the call of the president, and shall limit its reviews to the following:
</P>
<P>a. Written submissions by an applicant on behalf of a civilian or contractual group. Presentations to the board are not allowed.
</P>
<P>b. Written report(s) prepared by the advisory panel.
</P>
<P>c. Any other relevant written information available.
</P>
<P>d. Factors established in this part for determining AD service.
</P>
<P>2. The board shall return to the applicant any application that does not meet the eligibility criteria established in § 47.4(a). The board only needs to state the reasons why the group is ineligible for consideration under this part.
</P>
<P>3. If the board determines that an application is eligible for consideration under § 47.4(a), the board shall provide, to the Secretary of the Air Force, a recommendation on the AD service determination for the group and the rationale for that recommendation that shall include, but not be limited to, a discussion of the factors listed in § 47.4.
</P>
<P>a. No factors shall be established that require automatic recognition. Neither the board nor the Secretary of the Air Force shall be bound by any method in reaching a decision.
</P>
<P>b. Prior group determinations made under Public Law 95-202 do not bind the board or the Secretary of the Air Force. The board and the Secretary of the Air Force fully and impartially shall consider each group on its own merit in relation to the factors listed in section D. of this Directive. 






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="49" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 49—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE HAVANA ACT OF 2021
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; Pub. L. 117-46, 135 STAT. 391; 22 U.S.C. 2680b.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 80394, Oct. 3, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 49.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14.0.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 49.1   Purpose and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under 22 U.S.C. 2680b(i), the Secretary of Defense may provide a payment for a qualifying injury to the brain to a covered employee or covered dependent, as defined in this part, who incurred a qualifying injury to the brain on or after January 1, 2016. The authority to provide such payments is at the discretion of the Secretary of Defense or the Secretary's designees.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations are issued in accordance with 22 U.S.C. 2680b(i)(4) and apply to covered employees of the Department of Defense (current and former employees) and covered dependents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 49.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14.0.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 49.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Covered dependent.</I> A family member, as defined in this section, of a current or former employee of the Department of Defense who, on or after January 1, 2016, accompanies the employee, while an employee of the Department, to an assigned duty location and becomes injured by reason of a qualifying injury to the brain.
</P>
<P><I>Covered employee.</I> A current or former employee of the Department of Defense who, on or after January 1, 2016, becomes injured by reason of a qualifying injury incurred while an employee of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> For purposes of this part, “employee” means an individual who has been appointed to a position in the civil service in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 2104(a)(1) or 5 U.S.C. 2105(a)(1), with the exception of employees paid from non-appropriated funds of an instrumentality of the United States under the jurisdiction of the armed forces who are not a citizen or national of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Family member.</I> for the purposes of determining “covered dependent”, a family member is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Children who at the time of the injury are unmarried and under 21 years of age or, regardless of age, are unmarried and due to mental and/or physical limitations are incapable of self-support. The term “children” includes natural offspring, step-children, adopted children, and those under permanent legal guardianship, or comparable permanent custody arrangement, of the employee, spouse or domestic partner as defined in 5 CFR 875.101 when dependent upon and normally residing with the guardian or custodial party, and U.S. citizen children placed for adoption if a U.S. court grants temporary guardianship of the child to the employee and specifically authorizes the child to reside with the employee in the country of assignment before the adoption is finalized;
</P>
<P>(2) Siblings (including stepsiblings, or adoptive siblings) of the employee, or the spouse when at the time of the injury such siblings were at least 51 percent dependent on the employee for support, unmarried and under 21 years of age, or regardless of age, were physically and/or mentally incapable of self-support;
</P>
<P>(3) Parents (including stepparents and legally adoptive parents) of the employee or of the spouse or of the domestic partner as defined in 5 CFR 875.101, when normally residing with the employee at the time of the injury; and
</P>
<P>(4) Spouse or domestic partner (as defined in 5 CFR 875.01) at the time of the injury.
</P>
<P><I>Other incident.</I> A new onset of physical manifestations that cannot otherwise be readily explained and that is designated under 22 U.S.C. 2680b.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying injury to the brain.</I> An injury to the brain that occurred in connection with war, insurgency, hostile act, terrorist activity, or other incidents designated under 22 U.S.C. 2680b, and that was not the result of the willful misconduct of the covered employee or covered dependent.
</P>
<P>(1) The individual must have an acute injury to the brain such as, but not limited to, a concussion, penetrating injury, or as a consequence of an event that leads to permanent alterations in brain function as demonstrated by confirming correlative findings on imaging studies (to include computed tomography scan (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging scan (MRI)) or electroencephalogram (EEG); or
</P>
<P>(2) A medical diagnosis of a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that required active medical treatment for 12 months or more; or
</P>
<P>(3) Acute onset of new persistent, disabling neurologic symptoms as demonstrated by confirming correlative findings on imaging studies (to include CT or MRI), or EEG, or physical exam, or other appropriate testing, and that required active medical treatment for 12 months or more.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 49.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14.0.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 49.3   Eligibility for payments by the Department of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department may provide a payment to covered employees as defined in this part, if the qualifying injury to the brain was assessed and diagnosed in person by a currently board-certified physician from the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology (ABPN), the American Osteopathic Board of Neurology and Psychiatry (AOBNP), the American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation (ABPMR), or the American Osteopathic Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation (AOBPMR); occurred on or after January 1, 2016; and occurred while the employee or former employee was a covered employee of the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department may provide a payment to a covered dependent, if the qualifying injury to the brain was assessed and diagnosed in person by a currently board-certified physician from the ABPN, AOBNP, ABPMR, or AOBPMR; occurred on or after January 1, 2016; and occurred while the covered dependent accompanied an employee of the Department at an assigned duty location.
</P>
<P>(c) Payment for a qualifying injury to the brain will be a non-taxable, one-time lump sum payment unless a second payment is authorized under paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The amount of payment is at the Department's discretion. The Department will determine the amount paid to each eligible person based on the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The responses on; DD Form 3220, “Eligibility Questionnaire for HAVANA Act Payments”; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the Department of Labor (Workers' Compensation) has determined that the requester has no reemployment potential for an indefinite future; or the Social Security Administration has approved the requester for Social Security Disability Insurance or Supplemental Security Income (SSI) for a disability; or a neurologist or physician certified by the ABPN, AOBNP, ABPMR, or AOBPMR has certified that the individual requires a full-time caregiver for activities of daily living, as defined by the Katz Index of Independence of Daily Living.
</P>
<P>(3) The award thresholds are based on Level III of the Senior Executive Schedule of the year in which the request for payment is approved: Base will be 75 percent of Level III pay, and Base Plus will be 100 percent of Level III pay.
</P>
<P>(4) If the requester meets any of the criteria listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the requester will be eligible to receive a Base Plus payment. Requesters whose board-certified physicians confirm that the definition of “qualifying injury to the brain” has been met but has not met any of the criteria listed in paragraph (d)(2), will be eligible to receive a Base payment. If a requester who received a Base payment later meets any of the criteria listed in paragraph (d)(2), the requester may apply for an additional payment that will be the difference between the Base and Base Plus payment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 49.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14.0.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 49.4   Consultation with the Department of State.</HEAD>
<P>When a covered employee or covered dependent seeks payment for an incident that occurred overseas under Secretary of State security responsibility, the Department will coordinate with the Department of State as appropriate in evaluating whether the incident is an “other incident” for purposes of establishing a qualifying injury or should be so designated.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 49.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.14.0.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 49.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) A covered employee or covered dependent may apply for a HAVANA Act payment if the covered individual has sustained a qualifying injury to the brain on or after January 1, 2016. To apply for the benefit, the applicant must submit the DD Form 3220, “Eligibility Questionnaire for HAVANA Act Payments,” claim form to the appropriate email address set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The claim form must be completed by a person eligible to file a claim, or by that person's legal guardian, a family member, or another individual authorized to act on behalf of the requestor and must be signed by a currently certified physician as listed in § 49.3(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The claim form and any additional documentation must be emailed to the following address: <I>dodhra.mc-alex.dcpas.mbx.dod-havana-act@mail.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must furnish additional documentation upon request provided that the applicant has access to such additional documentation.
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of the claim form, as well as the regulations and other information, may be obtained on the Defense Civilian Personnel Advisory Service website, <I>https://www.dcpas.osd.mil/havana-act-benefits-program</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other incident.</I> The Department will determine whether a covered employee or covered dependent has a qualifying injury to the brain as set forth in § 49.2(f)(2), and whether the incident causing the injury was in connection with war, insurgency, hostile act, or terrorist activity. The Department will, as appropriate or necessary, designate “other incidents” under 22 U.S.C. 2680b(j) for employees and dependents who were not, at the time of the incident, under the security responsibility of the Secretary of State or when operational control of overseas security responsibility for such employees or dependents was delegated to the Secretary of Defense. The Department will, as appropriate or necessary, make a recommendation to the Secretary of State that the incident should be deemed an “other incident designated by the Secretary of State” for purposes of 22 U.S.C. 2680b(i)(1)(D) (cross-referencing subparagraph 2680b(e)(4)) for incidents affecting employees or dependents who were, at the time of the incident, under the security responsibility of the Secretary of State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions.</I> For covered employees and covered dependents, the Director, Defense Civilian Personnel Advisory Service, in their discretion may approve payments pursuant to 22 U.S.C. 2680b(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals.</I> In the event of a decision to deny an application for payment under the HAVANA Act, the Department will notify the applicant in writing. Applicants may direct an appeal via the DoD HAVANA Act mailbox, <I>dodhra.mc-alex.dcpas.mbx.dod-havana-act@mail.mil,</I> to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Civilian Personnel Policy, within 60 days of the date of the notification of the denial. However, decisions concerning the amount paid are not subject to appeal. The Department will notify the applicant in writing of the decision on appeal.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="50" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 50—PERSONAL COMMERCIAL SOLICITATION ON DOD INSTALLATIONS 




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 38764, July 10, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="42" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements section 577 of Public Law No. 109-163 (2006) and establishes policy and procedures for personal commercial solicitation on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(b) Continues the established annual DoD registration requirement for the sale of insurance and securities on DoD installations overseas.
</P>
<P>(c) Identifies prohibited practices that may cause withdrawal of commercial solicitation privileges on DoD installations and establishes notification requirements when privileges are withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishes procedures for persons solicited on DoD installations to evaluate solicitors.
</P>
<P>(e) Prescribes procedures for providing financial education programs to military personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Does not apply to services furnished by residential service companies, such as deliveries of milk, laundry, newspapers, and related services to personal residences on the installation requested by the resident and authorized by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(c) Applies to all other personal commercial solicitation on DoD installations. It includes meetings on DoD installations of private, non-profit, tax-exempt organizations that involve commercial solicitation. Attendance at these meetings shall be voluntary and the time and place of such meetings are subject to the discretion of the installation commander or his or her designee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agent.</I> An individual who receives remuneration as a salesperson or whose remuneration is dependent on volume of sales of a product or products. (Also referred to as “commercial agent” or “producer”). In this part, the term “agent” includes “general agent” unless the content clearly conveys a contrary intent.
</P>
<P><I>“Authorized” Bank and/or Credit Union.</I> Bank and/or credit union selected by the installation commander through open competitive solicitation to provide exclusive on-base delivery of financial services to the installation under a written operating agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Banking institution.</I> An entity chartered by a State or the Federal Government to provide financial services.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial sponsorship.</I> The act of providing assistance, funding, goods, equipment (including fixed assets), or services to an MWR program or event by an individual, agency, association, company or corporation, or other entity (sponsor) for a specified (limited) period of time in return for public recognition or advertising promotions. Enclosure 9 of DoD Instruction 1015.10 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> provides general policy governing commercial sponsorship.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P><I>Credit union.</I> A cooperative nonprofit association, incorporated under the Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751), or similar state statute, for the purpose of encouraging thrift among its members and creating a source of credit at a fair and reasonable rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>DoD installation.</I> For the purposes of this part, any Federally owned, leased, or operated base, reservation, post, camp, building, or other facility to which DoD personnel are assigned for duty, including barracks, transient housing, and family quarters.
</P>
<P><I>DoD personnel.</I> For the purposes of this part, all active duty officers (commissioned and warrant) and enlisted members of the Military Departments and all civilian employees, including nonappropriated fund employees and special Government employees, of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Financial services.</I> Those services commonly associated with financial institutions in the United States, such as electronic banking (e.g., ATMs), in-store banking, checking, share and savings accounts, fund transfers, sale of official checks, money orders and travelers checks, loan services, safe deposit boxes, trust services, sale and redemption of U.S. Savings Bonds, and acceptance of utility payments and any other consumer-related banking services.
</P>
<P><I>General agent.</I> A person who has a legal contract to represent a company. See the definition of “Agent” in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance carrier.</I> An insurance company issuing insurance through an association reinsuring or coinsuring such insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance product.</I> A policy, annuity, or certificate of insurance issued by an insurer or evidence of insurance coverage issued by a self-insured association, including those with savings and investment features.
</P>
<P><I>Insurer.</I> An entity licensed by the appropriate department to engage in the business of insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Military services.</I> See Joint Publication 1-02, “DoD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See <I>http://www.dtic.mil/doctrine/jel/doddict/indexs.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P><I>Normal home enterprises.</I> Sales or services that are customarily conducted in a domestic setting and do not compete with an installation's officially sanctioned commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Personal commercial solicitation.</I> Personal contact, to include meetings, meals, or telecommunications contact, for the purpose of seeking private business or trade.
</P>
<P><I>Securities.</I> Mutual funds, stocks, bonds, or any product registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission except for any insurance or annuity product issued by a corporation subject to supervision by State insurance authorities.
</P>
<P><I>Suspension.</I> Temporary termination of privileges pending completion of a commander's inquiry or investigation.
</P>
<P><I>Withdrawal.</I> Termination of privileges for a set period of time following completion of a commander's inquiry or investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy to safeguard and promote the welfare of DoD personnel as consumers by setting forth a uniform approach to the conduct of all personal commercial solicitation and sales to them by dealers and their agents. For those individuals and their companies that fail to follow this policy, the opportunity to solicit on military installations may be limited or denied as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Command authority includes authority to approve or prohibit all commercial solicitation covered by this part. Nothing in this part limits an installation commander's inherent authority to deny access to vendors or to establish time and place restrictions on commercial activities at the installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Principal Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (PDUSD(P&amp;R)), under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and publish policies and procedures governing personal commercial solicitation on DoD installations consistent with the policy set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain and make available to installation commanders and appropriate Federal personnel the current master file of all individual agents, dealers, and companies who have their privileges withdrawn at any DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop and maintain a list of all State Insurance Commissioners' points of contact for DoD matters and forward this list to the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(b) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure implementation of this part and compliance with its provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) Require installations under their authority to report each instance of withdrawal of commercial solicitation privileges.
</P>
<P>(3) Submit lists of all individuals and companies who have had their commercial solicitation privileges withdrawn at installations under their authority to the PDUSD(P&amp;R) in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person has authority to enter a DoD installation to transact personal commercial solicitation as a matter of right. Personal commercial solicitation may be permitted only if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The solicitor is duly licensed under applicable Federal, State, or municipal laws and has complied with installation regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A specific appointment has been made for each meeting with the individual concerned. Each meeting is conducted only in family quarters or in other areas designated by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(iii) The solicitor agrees to provide each person solicited the personal commercial solicitation evaluation included in DD Form 2885 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> during the initial appointment. The person being solicited is not required to complete the evaluation. However, completed evaluations should be sent by the person who was solicited to the office designated by the installation commander on the back of the evaluation form.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Copies may be obtained from <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/forminfo/forminfopage2239.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) The solicitor agrees to provide DoD personnel with a written reminder, prior to their making a financial commitment, that free legal advice is available from the Office of the Staff Judge Advocate.
</P>
<P>(2) Solicitors on overseas installations shall be required to observe, in addition to the above, the applicable laws of the host country. Upon request, the solicitor must present documentary evidence to the installation commander that the company they represent, and its agents, meet the applicable licensing requirements of the host country.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Life insurance products and securities.</I> (1) Life insurance products and securities offered and sold to DoD personnel shall meet the prerequisites described in § 50.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Installation commanders may permit insurers and their agents to solicit on DoD installations if the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are met and if they are licensed under the insurance laws of the State where the installation is located. Commanders will ensure the agent's license status and complaint history are checked with the appropriate State or Federal regulators before granting permission to solicit on the installation.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, before approving insurance and financial product agents' requests for permission to solicit, commanders shall review the list of agents and companies currently barred, banned, or limited from soliciting on any or all DoD installations. This list may be viewed via the Personal <I>Commercial Solicitation Report</I> “quick link” at <I>http://www.commanderspage.com.</I> In overseas areas, the DoD Components shall limit insurance solicitation to those insurers registered under the provisions of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The conduct of all insurance business on DoD installations shall be by specific appointment. When establishing the appointment, insurance agents shall identify themselves to the prospective purchaser as an agent for a specific insurer.
</P>
<P>(5) Installation commanders shall designate areas where interviews by appointment may be conducted. The opportunity to conduct scheduled interviews shall be extended to all solicitors on an equitable basis. Where space and other considerations limit the number of agents using the interviewing area, the installation commander may develop and publish local policy consistent with this concept.
</P>
<P>(6) Installation commanders shall make disinterested third-party insurance counseling available to DoD personnel desiring counseling. Financial counselors shall encourage DoD personnel to seek legal assistance or other advice from a disinterested third-party before entering into a contract for insurance or securities.
</P>
<P>(7) In addition to the solicitation prohibitions contained in paragraph (d) of this section, DoD Components shall prohibit the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of DoD personnel representing any insurer, dealing directly or indirectly on behalf of any insurer or any recognized representative of any insurer on the installation, or as an agent or in any official or business capacity with or without compensation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The use of an agent as a participant in any Military Service-sponsored education or orientation program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The designation of any agent or the use by any agent of titles (for example, “Battalion Insurance Counselor,” “Unit Insurance Advisor,” “Servicemen's Group Life Insurance Conversion Consultant,”) that in any manner, states, or implies any type of endorsement from the U.S. Government, the Armed Forces, or any State or Federal agency or government entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of desk space for interviews for other than a specific prearranged appointment. During such appointment, the agent shall not be permitted to display desk signs or other materials announcing his or her name or company affiliation.
</P>
<P>(v) The use of an installation “daily bulletin,” marquee, newsletter, Web page, or other official notice to announce the presence of an agent and/or his or her availability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervision of on-base commercial activities.</I> (1) All pertinent installation regulations shall be posted in a place easily accessible to those conducting and receiving personal commercial solicitation on the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) The installation commander shall make available a copy of installation regulations to anyone conducting on-base commercial solicitation activities warning that failure to follow the regulations may result in the loss of solicitation privileges.
</P>
<P>(3) The installation commander, or designated representative, shall inquire into any alleged violations of this part or of any questionable solicitation practices. The DD Form 2885 is provided as a means to supervise solicitation activities on the installation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited practices.</I> The following commercial solicitation practices shall be prohibited on all DoD installations:
</P>
<P>(1) Solicitation of recruits, trainees, and transient personnel in a group setting or “mass” audience and solicitation of any DoD personnel in a “captive” audience where attendance is not voluntary.
</P>
<P>(2) Making appointments with or soliciting military or DoD civilian personnel during their normally scheduled duty hours.
</P>
<P>(3) Soliciting in barracks, day rooms, unit areas, transient personnel housing, or other areas where the installation commander has prohibited solicitation.
</P>
<P>(4) Use of official military identification cards or DoD vehicle decals by active duty, retired or reserve members of the Military Services to gain access to DoD installations for the purpose of soliciting. When entering the installation for the purpose of solicitation, solicitors with military identification cards and/or DoD vehicle decals must present documentation issued by the installation authorizing solicitation.
</P>
<P>(5) Procuring, attempting to procure, supplying, or attempting to supply non-public listings of DoD personnel for purposes of commercial solicitation, except for releases made in accordance with DoD Directive 5400.7. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) Offering unfair, improper, or deceptive inducements to purchase or trade.
</P>
<P>(7) Using promotional incentives to facilitate transactions or to eliminate competition.
</P>
<P>(8) Using manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent devices, schemes, or artifices, including misleading advertising and sales literature. All financial products, which contain insurance features, must clearly explain the insurance features of those products.
</P>
<P>(9) Using oral or written representations to suggest or give the appearance that the Department of Defense sponsors or endorses any particular company, its agents, or the goods, services, and commodities it sells.
</P>
<P>(10) DoD personnel making personal commercial solicitations or sales to DoD personnel who are junior in rank or grade, or to the family members of such personnel, except as authorized in Section 2-205 and 5-409 of the Joint Ethics Regulation, DoD 5500.7-R. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(11) Entering into any unauthorized or restricted area.
</P>
<P>(12) Using any portion of installation facilities, including quarters, as a showroom or store for the sale of goods or services, except as specifically authorized by DoD Directive 1330.17 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD Instructions 1015.10, 1000.15 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> and 1330.21. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> This does not apply to normal home enterprises that comply with applicable State and local laws and installation rules.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(13) Soliciting door to door or without an appointment.
</P>
<P>(14) Unauthorized advertising of addresses or telephone numbers used in personal commercial solicitation activities conducted on the installation, or the use of official positions, titles, or organization names, for the purpose of personal commercial solicitation, except as authorized in DoD 5500.7-R. Military grade and Military Service as part of an individual's name (e.g., Captain Smith, U.S. Marine Corps) may be used in the same manner as conventional titles, such as “Mr.”, “Mrs.”, or “Honorable”.
</P>
<P>(15) Contacting DoD personnel by calling a government telephone, faxing to a government fax machine, or by sending e-mail to a government computer, unless a pre-existing relationship (i.e., the DoD member is a current client or requested to be contacted) exists between the parties and the DoD member has not asked for contact to be terminated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial, suspension, and withdrawal of installation solicitation privileges.</I> (1) The installation commander shall deny, suspend, or withdraw permission for a company and its agents to conduct commercial activities on the base if such action is in the best interests of the command. The grounds for taking these actions may include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to meet the licensing and other regulatory requirements prescribed in this part or violations of the State law where the installation is located. Commanders will request that appropriate state officials determine whether a company or agent violated State law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Commission of any of the practices prohibited in paragraphs (b)(6) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Substantiated complaints and/or adverse reports regarding the quality of goods, services, and/or commodities, and the manner in which they are offered for sale.
</P>
<P>(iv) Knowing and willful violations of Public Law 90-321.
</P>
<P>(v) Personal misconduct by a company's agent or representative while on the installation.
</P>
<P>(vi) The possession of, and any attempt to obtain supplies of direct deposit forms, or any other form or device used by Military Departments to direct a Service member's pay to a third party, or possession or use of facsimiles thereof. This includes using or assisting in using a Service member's “MyPay” account or other similar Internet medium for the purpose of establishing a direct deposit for the purchase of insurance or other investment product.
</P>
<P>(vii) Failure to incorporate and abide by the Standards of Fairness policies contained in DoD Instruction 1344.9. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The installation commander may determine that circumstances dictate the immediate suspension of solicitation privileges while an investigation is conducted. Upon suspending solicitation privileges, the commander shall promptly inform the agent and the company the agent represents, in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) In suspending or withdrawing solicitation privileges, the installation commander shall determine whether to limit such action to the agent alone or extend it to the company the agent represents. This decision shall be based on the circumstances of the particular case, including, but not limited to, the nature of the violations, frequency of violations, the extent to which other agents of the company have engaged in such practices and any other matters tending to show the culpability of an individual and the company.
</P>
<P>(4) If the investigation determines an agent or company does not possess a valid license or the agent, company, or product has failed to meet other State or Federal regulatory requirements, the installation commander shall immediately notify the appropriate regulatory authorities.
</P>
<P>(5) In a withdrawal action, the commander shall allow the individual or company an opportunity to show cause as to why the action should not be taken. To “show cause” means an opportunity must be given for the aggrieved party to present facts on an informal basis for the consideration of the installation commander or the commander's designee. The installation commander shall make a final decision regarding withdrawal based upon the entire record in each case. Installation commanders shall report concerns or complaints involving the quality or suitability of financial products or concerns or complaints involving marketing methods used to sell these products to the appropriate State and Federal regulatory authorities. Also, installation commanders shall report any suspension or withdrawal of insurance or securities products solicitation privileges to the appropriate State or Federal regulatory authorities.
</P>
<P>(6) The installation commander shall inform the Military Department concerned of any denial, suspension, withdrawal, or reinstatement of an agent or company's solicitation privileges and the Military Department shall inform the Office of the PDUSD(P&amp;R), which will maintain a list of insurance and financial product companies and agents currently barred, banned, or otherwise limited from soliciting on any or all DoD installations. This list may be viewed at <I>http://www.commanderspage.com.</I> If warranted, the installation commander may recommend to the Military Department concerned that the action taken be extended to other DoD installations. The Military Department may extend the action to other military installations in the Military Department. The PDUSD(P&amp;R), following consultation with the Military Department concerned, may order the action extended to other Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(7) All suspensions or withdrawals of privileges may be permanent or for a set period of time. If for a set period, when that period expires, the individual or company may reapply for permission to solicit through the installation commander or Military Department originally imposing the restriction. The installation commander or Military Department reinstating permission to solicit shall notify the Office of the PDUSD(P&amp;R) and appropriate State and Federal regulatory agencies when such suspensions or withdrawals are lifted.
</P>
<P>(8) The Secretaries of the Military Departments may direct the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Boards in all geographical areas in which the grounds for withdrawal action have occurred to consider all applicable information and take action that the Boards deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(9) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the installation commander or other appropriate authority from requesting or instituting other administrative and/or criminal action against any person, including those who violate the conditions and restrictions upon which installation entry is authorized.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advertising and commercial sponsorship.</I> (1) The Department of Defense expects voluntary observance of the highest business ethics by commercial enterprises soliciting DoD personnel through advertisements in unofficial military publications when describing goods, services, commodities, and the terms of the sale (including guarantees, warranties, and the like).
</P>
<P>(2) The advertising of credit terms shall conform to the provisions of 15 U.S.C. 1601 as implemented by Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z according to 12 CFR part 226.
</P>
<P>(3) Solicitors may provide commercial sponsorship to DoD Morale, Welfare and Recreation programs or events according to DoD Instruction 1015.10. However, sponsorship may not be used as a means to obtain personal contact information for any participant at these events without written permission from the individual participant. In addition, commercial sponsors may not use sponsorship to advertise products and/or services not specifically agreed to in the sponsorship agreement.
</P>
<P>(4) The installation commander may permit organizations to display sales literature in designated locations subject to command policies. In accordance with DoD 7000.14-R, 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> Volume 7(a), distribution of competitive literature or forms by off-base banks and/or credit unions is prohibited on installations where an authorized on-base bank and/or credit union exists.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) <I>Educational programs.</I> (1) The Military Departments shall develop and disseminate information and provide educational programs for members of the Military Services on their personal financial affairs, including such subjects as insurance, Government benefits, savings, budgeting, and other financial education and assistance requirements outlined in DoD Instruction 1342.27. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> The Military Departments shall ensure that all instructors are qualified as appropriate for the subject matter presented. The services of representatives of authorized on-base banks and credit unions may be used for this purpose. Under no circumstances shall commercial agents, including representatives of loan, finance, insurance, or investment companies, be used for this purpose. Presentations shall only be conducted at the express request of the installation commander.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The Military Departments shall also make qualified personnel and facilities available for individual counseling on loans and consumer credit transactions in order to encourage thrift and financial responsibility and promote a better understanding of the wise use of credit, as prescribed in DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>(3) The Military Departments shall encourage military members to seek advice from a legal assistance officer, the installation financial counselor, their own lawyer, or a financial counselor, before making a substantial loan or credit commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Each Military Department shall provide advice and guidance to DoD personnel who have a complaint under DoD 1344.9 or who allege a criminal violation of its provisions, including referral to the appropriate regulatory agency for processing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(5) Banks and credit unions operating on DoD installations are required to provide financial counseling services as an integral part of their financial services offerings. Representatives of and materials provided by authorized banks and/or credit unions located on military installations may be used to provide the educational programs and information required by this part subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank or credit union operating on a DoD installation sells insurance or securities or has any affiliation with a company that sells or markets insurance or other financial products, the installation commander shall consider that company's history of complying with this part before authorizing the on-base financial institution to provide financial education.
</P>
<P>(ii) All prospective educators must agree to use appropriate disclaimers in their presentations and on their other educational materials. The disclaimers must clearly indicate that they do not endorse or favor any commercial supplier, product, or service, or promote the services of a specific financial institution.
</P>
<P>(6) Use of other non-government organizations to provide financial education programs is limited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Under no circumstances shall commercial agents, including employees or representatives of commercial loan, finance, insurance, or investment companies, be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) The limitation in paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section does not apply to educational programs and information regarding the Survivor Benefits Program and other government benefits provided by tax-exempt organizations under section (c)(23) of 26 U.S.C. 501 or by any organization providing such a benefit under a contract with the Government.
</P>
<P>(iii) Educators from non-government, non-commercial organizations expert in personal financial affairs and their materials may, with appropriate disclaimers, provide the educational programs and information required by this part if approved by a Presidentially-appointed, Senate-confirmed civilian official of the Military Department concerned. Presentations by approved organizations shall be conducted only at the express request of the installation commander. The following criteria shall be used when considering whether to permit a non-government, non-commercial organization to present an educational program or provide materials on personal financial affairs:
</P>
<P>(A) The organization must qualify as a tax-exempt organization under 5 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) or 5 U.S.C. 501(c)(23).
</P>
<P>(B) If the organization has any affiliation with a company that sells or markets insurance or other financial products, the approval authority shall consider that company's history of complying with this part.
</P>
<P>(C) All prospective educators must use appropriate disclaimers, in their presentations and on their other educational materials, which clearly indicate that they and the Department of Defense do not endorse or favor any commercial supplier, product, or service or promote the services of a specific financial institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.42.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.7   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The reporting requirements concerning the suspension or withdrawal of solicitation privileges have been assigned Report Control Symbol (RCS) DD-P&amp;R(Q)2182 in accordance with DoD 8910.1-M. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See footnote 1 to § 50.3.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.43.8.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 50—Life Insurance Products and Securities 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Life Insurance Product Content Prerequisites
</HD1>
<P>Companies must provide DoD personnel a written description for each product or service they intend to market to DoD personnel on DoD installations. These descriptions must be written in a manner that DoD personnel can easily understand, and fully disclose the fundamental nature of the policy. Companies must be able to demonstrate that each form to be used has been filed with and approved, where applicable, by the insurance department of the State where the installation is located. Insurance products marketed to DoD personnel on overseas installations must conform to the standards prescribed by the laws of the State where the company is incorporated.
</P>
<P>1. Insurance products, other than certificates or other evidence of insurance issued by a self-insured association, offered and sold worldwide to personnel on DoD installations, must:
</P>
<P>a. Comply with the insurance laws of the State or country in which the installation is located and the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>b. Contain no restrictions by reason of Military Service or military occupational specialty of the insured, unless such restrictions are clearly indicated on the face of the contract.
</P>
<P>c. Plainly indicate any extra premium charges imposed by reason of Military Service or military occupational specialty.
</P>
<P>d. Contain no variation in the amount of death benefit or premium based upon the length of time the contract has been in force, unless all such variations are clearly described in the contract.
</P>
<P>e. In plain and readily understandable language, and in type font at least as large as the font used for the majority of the policy, inform Service members of:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The availability and cost of government subsidized Servicemen's Group Life Insurance.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The address and phone number where consumer complaints are received by the State insurance commissioner for the State in which the insurance product is being sold.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> That the U.S. Government has in no way sanctioned, recommended, or encouraged the sale of the product being offered. With respect to the sale or solicitation of insurance on Federal land or facilitates located outside the United States, insurance products must contain the address and phone number where consumer complaints are received by the State insurance commissioner for the State which has issued the agent a resident license or the company is domiciled, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. To comply with paragraphs A.1.b., A.1.c. and A.1.d., an appropriate reference stamped on the first page of the contract shall draw the attention of the policyholder to any restrictions by reason of Military Service or military occupational specialty. The reference shall describe any extra premium charges and any variations in the amount of death benefit or premium based upon the length of time the contract has been in force.
</P>
<P>3. Variable life insurance products may be offered provided they meet the criteria of the appropriate insurance regulatory agency and the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>4. Insurance products shall not be marketed or sold disguised as investments. If there is a savings component to an insurance product, the agent shall provide the customer written documentation, which clearly explains how much of the premium goes to the savings component per year broken down over the life of the policy. This document must also show the total amount per year allocated to insurance premiums. The customer must be provided a copy of this document that is signed by the insurance agent.
</P>
<HD1>B. Sale of Securities
</HD1>
<P>1. All securities must be registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>2. All sales of securities must comply with the appropriate Securities and Exchange Commission regulations.
</P>
<P>3. All securities representatives must apply to the commander of the installation on which they desire to solicit the sale of securities for permission to solicit.
</P>
<P>4. Where the accredited insurer's policy permits, an overseas accredited life insurance agent—if duly qualified to engage in security activities either as a registered representative of the National Association of Securities Dealers or as an associate of a broker or dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission—may offer life insurance and securities for sale simultaneously. In cases of commingled sales, the allotment of pay for the purchase of securities cannot be made to the insurer.
</P>
<HD1>C. Use of the Allotment of Pay System
</HD1>
<P>1. Allotments of military pay for life insurance products shall be made in accordance with DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>2. For personnel in pay grades E-4 and below, in order to obtain financial counseling, at least seven calendar days shall elapse between the signing of a life insurance application and the certification of a military pay allotment for any supplemental commercial life insurance. Installation Finance Officers are responsible for ensuring this seven-day cooling-off period is monitored and enforced. The purchaser's commanding officer may grant a waiver of the seven-day cooling-off period requirement for good cause, such as the purchaser's imminent deployment or permanent change of station.
</P>
<HD1>D. Associations—General
</HD1>
<P>The recent growth and general acceptability of quasi-military associations offering various insurance plans to military personnel are acknowledged. Some associations are not organized within the supervision of insurance laws of either a State or the Federal Government. While some are organized for profit, others function as nonprofit associations under Internal Revenue Service regulations. Regardless of the manner in which insurance is offered to members, the management of the association is responsible for complying fully with the policies contained in this part.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.15.0.43.8.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 50—Overseas Life Insurance Registration Program 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Registration Criteria 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Initial Registration
</HD2>
<P>a. Insurers must demonstrate continuous successful operation in the life insurance business for a period of not less than 5 years on December 31 of the year preceding the date of filing the application.
</P>
<P>b. Insurers must be listed in Best's Life-Health Insurance Reports and be assigned a rating of B + (Very Good) or better for the business year preceding the Government's fiscal year for which registration is sought.
</P>
<HD2>2. Re-Registration
</HD2>
<P>a. Insurers must demonstrate continuous successful operation in the life insurance business, as described in paragraph A.1.a. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Insurers must retain a Best's rating of B + or better, as described in paragraph A.1.b. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. Insurers must demonstrate a record of compliance with the policies found in this part.


</P>
<HD2>3. Waiver Provisions
</HD2>
<P>Waivers of the initial registration or re-registration provisions shall be considered for those insurers demonstrating substantial compliance with the aforementioned criteria.
</P>
<HD1>B. Application Instructions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Applications Filed Annually.</I> Insurers must apply by June 30 of each year for solicitation privileges on overseas U.S. military installations for the next fiscal year beginning October 1. Applications e-mailed, faxed, or postmarked after June 30 shall not be considered.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application prerequisites.</I> A letter of application, signed by the President, Vice President, or designated official of the insurance company shall be forwarded to the Principal Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness), Attention: Morale, Welfare and Recreation (MWR) Policy Directorate, 4000 Defense, Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000. The registration criteria in paragraph A1.a. or A1.b. of this appendix must be met to satisfy application prerequisites. The letter shall contain the information set forth below, submitted in the order listed. Where criteria are not applicable, the letter shall so state.
</P>
<P>a. The overseas Combatant Commands (e.g., U.S. European Command, U.S. Pacific Command, U.S. Central Command, U.S. Southern Command) where the company presently solicits, or plans to solicit, on U.S. military installations.
</P>
<P>b. A statement that the company has complied with, or shall comply with, the applicable laws of the country or countries wherein it proposes to solicit. “Laws of the country” means all national, provincial, city, or county laws or ordinances of any country, as applicable.
</P>
<P>c. A statement that the products to be offered for sale conform to the standards prescribed in appendix A to this part and contain only the standard provisions such as those prescribed by the laws of the State where the company's headquarters are located.
</P>
<P>d. A statement that the company shall assume full responsibility for the acts of its agents with respect to solicitation. If warranted, the number of agents may be limited by the overseas command concerned.
</P>
<P>e. A statement that the company shall only use agents who have been licensed by the appropriate State and registered by the overseas command concerned to sell to DoD personnel on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>f. Any explanatory or supplemental comments that shall assist in evaluating the application.
</P>
<P>g. If the Department of Defense requires facts or statistics beyond those normally involved in registration, the company shall make separate arrangements to provide them.
</P>
<P>h. A statement that the company's general agent and other registered agents are appointed in accordance with the prerequisites established in section C of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. If a company is a life insurance company subsidiary, it must be registered separately on its own merits.
</P>
<HD1>C. Agent Requirements
</HD1>
<P>The overseas Combatant Commanders shall apply the following principles in registering agents:
</P>
<P>1. An agent must possess a current State license. This requirement may be waived for a registered agent continuously residing and successfully selling life insurance in foreign areas, who, through no fault of his or her own, due to State law (or regulation) governing domicile requirements, or requiring that the agent's company be licensed to do business in that State, forfeits eligibility for a State license. The request for a waiver shall contain the name of the State or jurisdiction that would not renew the agent's license.
</P>
<P>2. General agents and agents may represent only one registered commercial insurance company. This principle may be waived by the overseas Combatant Commander if multiple representations are in the best interest of DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>3. An agent must have at least 1 year of successful life insurance underwriting experience in the United States or its territories, generally within the 5 years preceding the date of application, in order to be approved for overseas solicitation.
</P>
<P>4. The overseas Combatant Commanders may exercise further agent control procedures as necessary.
</P>
<P>5. An agent, once registered in an overseas area, may not change affiliation from the staff of one general agent to another and retain registration, unless the previous employer certifies in writing that the release is without justifiable prejudice. Overseas Combatant Commanders will have final authority to determine justifiable prejudice. Indebtedness of an agent to a previous employer is an example of justifiable prejudice.
</P>
<HD1>D. Announcement of Registration
</HD1>
<P>1. Registration by the Department of Defense upon annual applications of insurers shall be announced as soon as practicable by notice to each applicant and by a list released annually in September to the appropriate overseas Combatant Commanders. Approval does not constitute DoD endorsement of the insurer or its products. Any advertising by insurers or verbal representation by its agents, which suggests such endorsement, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>2. In the event registration is denied, specific reasons for the denial shall be provided to the applicant.
</P>
<P>a. The insurer shall have 30 days from the receipt of notification of denial of registration (sent certified mail, return receipt requested) in which to request reconsideration of the original decision. This request must be in writing and accompanied by substantiating data or information in rebuttal of the specific reasons upon which the denial was based.
</P>
<P>b. Action by the Office of the PDUSD(P&amp;R) on a request for reconsideration is final.
</P>
<P>c. An applicant that is presently registered as an insurer shall have 90 calendar days from final action denying registration in which to close operations.
</P>
<P>3. Upon receiving an annual letter approving registration, each company shall send to the applicable overseas Combatant Commander a verified list of agents currently registered for overseas solicitation. Where applicable, the company shall also include the names and prior military affiliation of new agents for whom original registration and permission to solicit on base is requested. Insurers initially registered shall be furnished instructions by the Department of Defense for agent registration procedures in overseas areas.
</P>
<P>4. Material changes affecting the corporate status and financial condition of the company that occur during the fiscal year of registration must be reported to the MWR Policy Directorate at the address in paragraph B.2. of this appendix as they occur.
</P>
<P>a. The Office of the PDUSD(P&amp;R) reserves the right to terminate registration if such material changes appear to substantially affect the financial and operational standards described in section A of this appendix on which registration was based.
</P>
<P>b. Failure to report such material changes may result in termination of registration regardless of how it affects the standards.
</P>
<P>5. If an analysis of information furnished by the company indicates that unfavorable trends are developing that could adversely affect its future operations, the Office of the PDUSD(P&amp;R) may, at its option, bring such matters to the attention of the company and request a statement as to what action, if any, is considered to deal with such unfavorable trends.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="53" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 53—WEARING OF THE UNIFORM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 772.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 53.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.16.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes limitations on wearing of the uniform by members of the Armed Forces, and establishes policy with respect to wearing of the uniform by former members of the Armed Forces. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 1236, Jan. 30, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.16.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Members of the Armed Forces</I> (including retired members and members of reserve components). The wearing of the uniform is prohibited under any of the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) At any meeting or demonstration which is a function of, or sponsored by an organization, association, movement, group, or combination of persons which the Attorney General of the United States has designated, pursuant to E.O. 10450 as amended, as totalitarian, fascist, communist, or subversive, or as having adopted a policy of advocating or approving the commission of acts of force or violence to deny others their rights under The Constitution of the United States, or as seeking to alter the form of Government of the United States by unconstitutional means. 
</P>
<P>(2) During or in connection with the furtherance of political activities, private employment or commercial interests, when an inference of official sponsorship for the activity or interest could be drawn. 
</P>
<P>(3) Except when authorized by competent Service authority, when participating in activities such as public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies or any public demonstrations (including those pertaining to civil rights), which may imply Service Sanction of the cause for which the demonstration or activity is conducted. 
</P>
<P>(4) When wearing of the uniform would tend to bring discredit upon the Armed Forces. 
</P>
<P>(5) When specifically prohibited by regulations of the department concerned. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Former members of the Armed Forces.</I> (1) Unless qualified under another provision of this part or under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 772, former members who served honorably during a declared or undeclared war and whose most recent service was terminated under honorable conditions may wear the uniform in the highest grade held during such war service only upon the following occasions and in the course of travel incidents thereto: 
</P>
<P>(i) Military funerals, memorial services, weddings, and inaugurals. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Parades on national or State holidays; or other parades or ceremonies of a patriotic character in which any active or reserve U.S. military unit is taking part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Wearing of the uniform or any part thereof at any other time or for any other purpose is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medal of Honor holders.</I> Persons who have been awarded the Medal of Honor may wear the uniform at their pleasure except under the circumstances set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 1236, Jan. 30, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="56" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 56—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES ASSISTED OR CONDUCTED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 93-112, sec. 504 29 U.S.C. 794, as amended by Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2982; Pub. L. 93-112, sec. 7, 29 U.S.C. 706, as amended by Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1619; Executive Order 12250; Executive Order 12291; Executive Order 12067.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 15124, Apr. 8, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 56.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements section 504 of Public Law 93-112, “Rehabilitation Act of 1973,” September 26, 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794) (1976); section 111 of Pub. L. 93-516, “Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974,” December 7, 1974 (29 U.S.C. 706, 780, 790) (1976); section 119 of Pub. L. 95-602, “Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978,” November 6, 1978 (29 U.S.C. 794) (supp. III 1979); and Department of Justice Regulation, “Implementation of Executive Order 12250, Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Federally Assisted Programs,” August 11, 1981 (28 CFR part 41) to prohibit discrimination based on handicap in programs and activities receiving Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense and in programs and activities conducted by the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the National Guard Bureau, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to as “DoD Components”) insofar as they:
</P>
<P>(1) Extend Federal financial assistance to programs and activities that affect handicapped persons in the United States and that are covered by this part (see § 56.7(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct programs and activities that affect handicapped persons in the United States and that are covered by this part (see § 56.7(c)).
</P>
<P>(b) This part also applies to each recipient of Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense and to each program and activity that receives or benefits from such assistance, insofar as such recipient, program, or activity affects a handicapped person in the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Facility.</I> All or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, or other real or personal property or any interest in such property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal financial assistance.</I> Any grant, loan, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or any other arrangement by which the Federal Government provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Funds.
</P>
<P>(2) Services performed by Federal personnel, including technical assistance, counseling, training, and provision of statistical or expert information.
</P>
<P>(3) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of such property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of such property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handicapped person.</I> Any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. For purposes of this Directive as it relates to employment programs of recipients, such term does not include any individual who is an alcoholic or drug abuser and whose current use of alcohol or drugs prevents such individual from performing the duties of the job in question, or whose employment, by reason of such current alcohol or drug abuse, would constitute a direct threat to property or to the safety of others. As used in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment.</I> Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal and special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term includes such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments; cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and muscular dystrophy; multiple sclerosis; cancer; heart disease; diabetes; drug abuse; and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities.</I> Functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment.</I> Has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment.</I> Has: (i) A physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by a recipient or DoD Component as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical or a mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) None of the impairments defined above, but is treated by a recipient or DoD Component as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Historic properties.</I> Those properties listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Include; such as.</I> Not all the possible items are covered, whether like or unlike the ones named.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualified handicapped person.</I> A handicapped person who:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to employment, can perform the essential functions of the job in question with reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to services, meets the essential eligibility requirements for receiving the services in question.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recipient.</I> Any State or political subdivision or instrumentality thereof, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person that receives Federal financial assistance directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient, but not the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance. The term includes persons and entities applying to be recipients.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Substantial impairment.</I> A significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that no qualified handicapped person shall be subjected to discrimination on the basis of handicap under any program or activity that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance disbursed by a DoD Component or under any Federal program or activity that is conducted by a DoD Component. Guidelines for determining actions that discriminate against handicapped persons are prescribed in § 56.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) (ASD(MRA&amp;L)),</I> or designee, shall monitor compliance with this part. In discharging this responsibility, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate efforts of DoD Components to enforce this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Assist in the development of standards and procedures promulgated pursuant to § 56.9.
</P>
<P>(3) Perform the responsibilities assigned to the ASD(MRA&amp;L) in § 56.8, 9, and 10.
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise assist DoD Components in implementing this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Heads of DoD Components</I> shall comply with this part. In discharging this responsibility, they shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate a policy-level official to ensure compliance with this part receive and investigate complaints filed under this part and otherwise manage DoD Component responsibilities under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, of the name, position, location, and telephone number of persons selected by them to be policy-level officials within 15 calendar days of such a selection.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue guidelines pursuant to § 56.9.
</P>
<P>(4) Cooperate fully with the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, in that official's performance of the responsibilities assigned herein, including furnishing to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, in a timely fashion any requested reports and information.
</P>
<P>(5) Assign sufficient personnel to implement and to ensure effective enforcement of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.6   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each DoD Component shall maintain a log of all complaints that are filed with it or its recipients under this part. The log shall contain the complainant's name (last name, first, and middle initial) and address (street address, city, State, and zip code), the recipient's name (if this refers to a person, last name, first, and middle initial) and address (street address, city, State, and zip code), the nature of the complaint, and the current status of the complaint investigation or resolution. Each DoD Component shall submit a narrative summary report on complaints by memorandum to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, before July 15 and January 15 of each year. This reporting requirement has been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-M(SA)1596.
</P>
<P>(b) Each DoD Component shall submit a narrative report by memorandum to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, whenever, pursuant to enclosure 4 of this directive, the DoD Component notifies an applicant or recipient that noncompliance with this part is indicated. The report shall include the recipient's name (if this refers to a person, last name, first, and middle initial) and address (street address, city, State, and zip code), the date (YYMMDD) and nature of the finding, and the name of the applicable federally assisted program or activity. This reporting requirement has been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-M(AR)1597.
</P>
<P>(c) The recordkeeping requirements contained in § 56.9(c)(2), have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under 44 U.S.C. chapter 35 and have been assigned OMB No. 0704-0102.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.7   Programs and activities subject to this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all DoD Components and recipients of Federal financial assistance disbursed by a DoD Component insofar as the programs and activities of the DoD Components and recipients affect handicapped persons in the United States. Existing programs and activities that are assisted or conducted by a DoD Component and that are subject to this part but do not appear in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, are covered even though not listed. DoD Components must report new programs and activities that are subject to this part to the ASD (MRA&amp;L), or designee, within 15 calendar days of their creation or funding.
</P>
<P>(b) Federal financial assistance programs subject to this part include: (1) title 32, United States Code, sections 101-716 (1976 and supp. III 1979): the Army and Air National Guard.
</P>
<P>(2) Title 40, U.S. Code, sections 483, 484, and 512 (1976); title 49, U.S. Code, sections 1101 and 1107 (1976); and title 10, U.S. Code, sections 2541, 2544, 2571, 2576, 2662, 7308, 7541, 7542, 7545, 7546, and 7547 (1976 and supp. IV 1980): Various programs involving the loan or other disposition of surplus, obsolete, or unclaimed property.
</P>
<P>(3) Title 10 U.S. Code, sections 4307-4311 (1976), and the annual Department of Defense Appropriations Act: National Program for the Promotion of Rifle Practice.
</P>
<P>(4) Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5720.19E, “Navy Science Cruiser Program,” February 24, 1977.
</P>
<P>(5) Title 10 U.S. Code, section 9441 (1976 and supp. IV 1980): Civil Air Patrol.
</P>
<P>(6) Title 41 U.S. Code, sections 501-509 (supp. III 1979): Federal grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P>(7) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 426 (1976 and supp. III 1979): Army Corps of Engineers participation in cooperative investigations and studies concerning the erosion of shores of coastal and lake waters.
</P>
<P>(8) Title 33 U.S. Code, sections 426e-426h (1976): Army Corps of Engineers assistance in the construction of works for the restoration and protection of shores.
</P>
<P>(9) Title 16 U.S. Code, section 460d (1976): Construction and operation of public park and recreational facilities in water resource development projects under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of the Army.
</P>
<P>(10) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 701c-3 (1976): Payment to States of lease receipts from lands acquired by the United States for flood control, navigation, and allied purposes.
</P>
<P>(11) Title 33 U.S. Code, sections 558c and 702d-1 (1976); title 10, U.S. Code, sections 2668 and 2669 (1976); title 43, U.S. Code, section 961 (1976); and title 40, U.S. Code, section 319 (1976): Grants of easements without consideration, or at a nominal or reduced consideration, on land under the control of the Department of the Army at water resource development projects.
</P>
<P>(12) Title 33 U.S. Code, sections 540 and 577 (1976): Army Corps of Engineers assistance in the construction of small boat harbor projects.
</P>
<P>(13) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 701s (1976): Emergency bank protection works constructed by the Army Corps of Engineers for protection of highways, bridge approaches, and public works.
</P>
<P>(14) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 633 (1976): Army Corps of Engineers contracts for the protection, alteration, reconstruction, relocation, or replacement of structures and facilities.
</P>
<P>(15) Title 50 U.S. Code, section 453 (1976): Defense Logistics Agency loans of industrial equipment to educational institutions (Tools for Schools).
</P>
<P>(16) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 610 (1976): Provision of specialized services or technical information by the Army Corps of Engineers to State and local governments for the control of aquatic plant growths in rivers, harbors, and allied waters.
</P>
<P>(17) Title 42 U.S. Code, section 1962d-16 (1976): Provision of specialized services by the Army Corps of Engineers to any State for the preparation of comprehensive plans for drainage basins located within the boundaries of said State.
</P>
<P>(18) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 603a (1976): Provision of specialized services by the Army Corps of Engineers to improve channels for navigation.
</P>
<P>(19) Title 33 U.S. Code, section 701g (1976): Provision of specialized services by the Army Corps of Engineers to reduce flood damage.
</P>
<P>(20) Title 24 U.S. Code, sections 44c and 47 (1976): United States Soldiers' and Airmen's Home.
</P>
<P>(21) Title 10 U.S. Code, chapter 55, as implemented by DoD 6010.8-R, “Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS),” January 10, 1977.
</P>
<P>(c) All programs and activities conducted by the Department of Defense that affect handicapped persons in the United States are subject to this part. They include:
</P>
<P>(1) Promulgation of rules and regulations for public comment in a manner that grants handicapped persons a reasonable opportunity for such comment (such as by making cassette recordings of proposed rules).
</P>
<P>(2) Public meetings, conferences, or seminars sponsored or conducted by a DoD Component but held in nongovernmental buildings.
</P>
<P>(3) Public meetings, conferences, or seminars sponsored or conducted by a DoD Component or by a non-DoD organization but held in a DoD building.
</P>
<P>(4) Open houses, memorial services, tours, or other ceremonies held on or in DoD property.
</P>
<P>(5) Military museums.
</P>
<P>(6) Historic vessels.
</P>
<P>(7) Historic buildings and properties maintained by a DoD Component and properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local governmental body.
</P>
<P>(8) Schools operated by the Department of Defense within the United States pursuant to section 6 of Public Law 81-874, title 20, U.S. Code, section 241 (1976).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.8   Guidelines for determining discriminatory practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General prohibitions against discrimination.</I> (1) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefit of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that is conducted by the Department of Defense or that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient or DoD Component may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are equal to those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(iii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective as that afforded to others; or
</P>
<P>(v) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity granted to others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient or DoD Component may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different from regular programs or activities, even if such separate or different programs and activities are permissible under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient or DoD Component may not provide assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of handicap in providing any aid, benefit, or service to beneficiaries of the recipient's program or activity.
</P>
<P>(5) A recipient of DoD Component may not deny, on the basis of handicap, a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards.
</P>
<P>(6) A recipient or DoD Component may not use, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, criteria or methods of administration that:
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap;
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of the recipient's or DoD Component's program or activity with respect to handicapped persons; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Perpetuate discrimination by another recipient if both recipients are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same State.
</P>
<P>(7) In determining the site or location of a facility, a recipient or DoD Component may not make selections that:
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair, with respect to handicapped persons, the accomplishment of the objectives of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(8) Recipients and DoD Components shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(9) Recipients and DoD Components shall take appropriate steps to make communications with their applicants, employees, and beneficiaries available to persons with impaired vision and hearing.
</P>
<P>(10) This section may not be interpreted to prohibit the exclusion of:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who are not handicapped from benefits, programs, and activities limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons; or
</P>
<P>(ii) One class of handicapped persons from a program or activity limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(11) Recipients and DoD Components shall take appropriate steps to ensure that no handicapped individual is denied the benefits of, excluded from participation in, or otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving or benefiting from Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense or under any program or activity conducted by the Department of Defense because of the absence of auxiliary aids, such as certified sign-language interpreters, telecommunication devises (TDDs), or other telephonic devices for individuals with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions against employment discrimination by recipients.</I> (1) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) The prohibition against discrimination in employment applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Recruitment, advertising, and processing of applications for employment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Job assignments, job classifications, organizational structures, position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists.
</P>
<P>(v) Leaves of absence, sick leave, or any other leave.
</P>
<P>(vi) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(vii) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences and other related activities, and selection for leaves of absence for training.
</P>
<P>(viii) Programs and activities sponsored by the employer, including social and recreational programs.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not participate in a contractual or other relationship that subjects qualified handicapped applicants or employees to discrimination prohibited by this section, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, labor unions, organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient, and organizations providing training and apprenticeship programs.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified handicapped applicant or employee unless the recipient can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program. Reasonable accommodation includes providing ramps, accessible restrooms, drinking fountains, interpreters for deaf employees, readers for blind employees, amplified telephones, TDDs such as Teletypewriters or Telephone Writers (TTYs), and tactile signs on elevators.
</P>
<P>(5) A recipient may not use employment tests or criteria that discriminate against handicapped persons, and shall ensure that employment tests are adapted for use by persons who have handicaps that impair sensory, manual, or speaking skills.
</P>
<P>(6) A recipient may not conduct a preemployment medical examination or make a preemployment inquiry about whether an applicant is a handicapped person or about the nature or severity of a handicap. A recipient may make, however, a preemployment inquiry into an applicant's ability to perform job-related functions.
</P>
<P>(7) When a recipient is taking remedial action to correct the effects of past discrimination or is taking voluntary action to overcome the effects of conditions that have resulted in limited participation by handicapped persons in its federally assisted program or activity, the recipient may invite applicants for employment to indicate whether and to what extent they are handicapped if:
</P>
<P>(i) The recipient makes clear to the applicants that the information is intended for use solely in connection with its remedial action obligations or its voluntary affirmative action efforts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipient makes clear to the applicants that the information is being requested on a voluntary basis, that it will be kept confidential as provided in paragraph (b)(9) in this section, that refusal to provide it will not subject the applicants to any adverse treatment, and that it will be used only in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(8) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a recipient from conditioning an offer of employment on the results of a medical examination conducted prior to the employee's entrance on duty if:
</P>
<P>(i) All entering employees are subjected to such an examination, regardless of handicap.
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of such an examination are used only in accordance with this part which prohibits discrimination against a qualified handicapped person on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(9) Information obtained under this section concerning the medical condition or history of applicants shall be collected and maintained on separate forms that shall be accorded confidentiality as medical records, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Supervisors and managers may be informed about restrictions on the work or duties of handicapped persons and about necessary accommodations.
</P>
<P>(ii) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if a handicapping condition might require emergency treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Government officials investigating compliance with section 504, Pub. L. 93-112, and this part shall be provided relevant information upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program accessibility</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> No qualified handicapped person shall, because a recipient's or DoD Component's facilities are inaccessible to or not usable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense or under any program or activity conducted by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing facilities.</I> (i) A recipient or DoD Component shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This does not necessarily require a recipient or DoD Component to make each of its existing facilities or every part of an existing facility accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. For guidance in determining the accessibility of facilities, see chapter 18 of DoD 4270.1-M, “Department of Defense Construction Criteria Manual,” June 1, 1978, and Department of the Army, Office of the Chief of Engineers, Manual EM 1110-1-103, “Design for the Physically Handicapped,” October 15, 1976. Inquiries on specific accessibility design problems may be addressed to the ASD (MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(ii) When structural changes are necessary to make programs or activities in existing facilities accessible to the extent required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Such changes shall be made as soon as practicable, but not later than 3 years after the effective date of this part however, if the program or activity is a particular mode of transportation (such as a subway station) that can be made accessible only through extraordinarily expensive structural changes to, or replacement of, existing facilities and if other accessible modes of transportation are available, the DoD Component concerned may extend this period of time. This extension shall be for a reasonable and definite period, which shall be determined after consultation with the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(B) The recipient or DoD Component shall develop, with the assistance of interested persons or organizations and within a period to be established in each DoD Component's guidelines, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes.
</P>
<P>(C) The recipient or DoD Component shall make a copy of the transition plan available for public inspection. At a minimum, the plan shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identify physical obstacles in the recipient's or DoD Component's facilities that limit the accessibility of its program or activity to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve full program accessibility and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than 1 year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Indicate the person (last name, first, and middle initial) responsible for implementation of the transition plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) A recipient or DoD Component may comply with paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section, through such means as the acquisition or redesign of equipment, such as telecommunication or other telephonic devices; relocation of classes or other services to accessible buildings; assignment of aides to beneficiaries, such as readers or certified sign-language interpreters; home visits; delivery of health, welfare, or other services at accessible alternate sites; alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities in conformance with paragraph (c)(3) in this section; or any other method that results in making the program or activity of the recipient or DoD Component accessible to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) A recipient or DoD Component is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities when other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(v) In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, a recipient or DoD Component shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate with nonhandicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>New Construction.</I> New facilities shall be designed and constructed to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. Alterations to existing facilities shall be designed and constructed, to the maximum extent feasible, to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. For guidance in determining the accessibility of facilities, see chapter 18 of DoD 4270.1-M and Department of the Army, Office of the Chief of Engineers, Manual EM 1110-1-103. Inquiries about specific accessibility design problems may be addressed to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Historic properties.</I> (i) In the case of historic properties, program accessibility shall mean that, when viewed in their entirety, programs are readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. Because the primary benefit of historic properties is the experience of the property itself, DoD Components and recipients shall give priority to those methods of achieving program accessibility that make the historic property, or portions thereof, physically accessible to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Methods of achieving program accessibility include:
</P>
<P>(A) Making physical alterations that give handicapped persons access to otherwise inaccessible areas or features of historic properties.
</P>
<P>(B) Using audiovisual materials and devices to depict otherwise inaccessible areas or features of historic properties.
</P>
<P>(C) Assigning individuals to guide handicapped persons into or through otherwise inaccessible portions of historic properties.
</P>
<P>(D) Adopting other innovative methods.
</P>
<P>(iii) When program accessibility cannot be achieved without causing a substantial impairment of significant historic features, the DoD Component or recipient may seek a modification or waiver of access standards from the ASD (MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(A) A decision to grant a modification or waiver shall be based on consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Scale of the property, reflecting its ability to absorb alterations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Use of the property, whether primarily for public or private purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Importance of the historic features of the property to the conduct of the program.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Costs of alterations in comparison to the increase in accessibility.
</P>
<P>(B) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall review periodically any waiver granted under this paragraph and may withdraw it if technological advances or other changes warrant.
</P>
<P>(iv) The decision by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, to grant a modification or waiver of access standards is subject to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, as amended, and shall be made in accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation regulation on “Protection of Historic and Cultural Properties” (36 CFR part 800). When the property is federally owned or when Federal funds may be used for alterations, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall obtain the comments of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation when required by section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act and the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation regulation on “Protection of Historic and Cultural Properties” (36 CFR part 800) prior to effectuation of structural alterations.
</P>
<P>(v) DoD Component guidelines prepared in accordance with § 56.10 shall include a listing of all historic properties, including historic ships, subject to this part and a plan for compliance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Military museums.</I> (i) In the case of military museums, program accessibility shall mean that exhibits, displays, tours, lectures, circulating or traveling exhibits, and other programs of military museums are accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. Methods of meeting this requirement include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Museum programs may be made accessible to deaf and hearing-impaired persons by means such as training museum staff, such as docents, in sign language; providing qualified sign-language interpreters to accompany deaf or hearing-impaired visitors; ensuring that clear, concise language is used on all museum signs and display labels; providing amplification devices; or providing printed scripts for films, videotapes, lectures, or tours. DoD Components are encouraged to use “Museums and Handicapped Students: Guidelines for Educators,” published by the National Air and Space Museum, Smithsonian Institution, Washington, DC 20560.
</P>
<P>(B) Museum programs may be made accessible to blind and visually-impaired persons by means such as providing museum catalogues in a large-print edition printed over braille; providing cassette tapes, records, or discs for museum tours or exhibits; providing readers to accompany blind or visually impaired visitors; using large-print and braille display cards at exhibits; providing raised-line maps of the museum building; using raised-line drawings, reproductions, or models of large exhibits to facilitate tactile experiences when touching exhibits is prohibited; placing large-print and braille signs to identify galleries, elevators, restrooms, and other service areas; and permitting guide dogs in all museum facilities.
</P>
<P>(C) Museum programs may be made accessible to other physically impaired persons by means such as lowering display cases; spacing exhibits to facilitate movement; using ramps in galleries; increasing lighting in exhibit areas to facilitate viewing from a distance; providing places to sit in exhibit areas; making restrooms accessible; using large-print exhibit display cards to facilitate reading from a distance; and sensitizing museum staff to consider the needs of handicapped visitors when organizing exhibits.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD Component guidelines developed in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section shall identify military museums subject to paragraph (c) of this section and shall contain a plan for making museum programs accessible to handicapped persons. Technical assistance in the preparation and content of these plans may be obtained from the National Access Center, 1419 27th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20007 ((202) 333-1712 or TTY (202) 333-1339). In addition, community organizations that serve handicapped persons and handicapped persons themselves shall be consulted in the preparation of these plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> (1) A recipient or DoD Component shall make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified handicapped applicant or employee unless the recipient or DoD Component demonstrates to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program.
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable accommodation includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Making facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Job restructuring; part-time or modified work schedules; acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, such as telecommunication or other telephonic instruments; the provision of readers or certified sign-language interpreters; and similar actions.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of a recipient's or DoD Component's program, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall consider the following factors, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The overall size of the recipient's or DoD Component's program or activity, such as the number of employees, number and type of facilities, and size of budget.
</P>
<P>(ii) The size of the recipient's or DoD Component's operations, including the composition and structure of the recipient's or DoD Component's workforce.
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient or DoD Component may not deny any employment opportunity to a qualified handicapped employee or applicant for employment if the basis for the denial is the need to make reasonable accommodation to the physical or mental limitations of the employee or applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.9   Ensuring compliance with this part in Federal financial assistance programs and activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supplementary guidelines issued by DoD Components.</I> (1) Whenever necessary, DoD Components shall publish supplementary guidelines for each type of program or activity to which they disburse Federal financial assistance within 120 days of the effective date of this part or of the effective date of any subsequent statute authorizing Federal financial assistance to a new type of program or activity. DoD Components shall obtain approval of these supplementary guidelines from the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, before issuing them. Prior to their issuance, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall submit supplementary guidelines prepared pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the Coordination and Review Section, Civil Rights Division, Department of Justice, for review and approval. To the extent that supplementary guidelines issued by DoD Components deal with the employment of civilians in programs and activities subject to this part the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall also obtain the approval of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) in accordance with Executive Order 12067.
</P>
<P>(2) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, and DoD Components shall ensure that their supplementary guidelines conform to the requirements of this part and that they provide:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the types of programs and activities covered.
</P>
<P>(ii) Examples of prohibited practices likely to arise with respect to those types of programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of the data collection and reporting requirements of the recipients.
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures for processing and investigating complaints.
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures for hearings to determine compliance by recipients with this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) Requirements or suggestions for affirmative action on behalf of qualified handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(vii) Requirements for the dissemination of program and complaint information to the public.
</P>
<P>(viii) A description of the form of the assurances that must be executed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, and sample assurances.
</P>
<P>(ix) Requirements concerning the frequency and nature of postapproval reviews conducted pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) A period of time, provided for by § 56.8(c)(2)(ii)(B), for the development of a transition plan that sets out the steps necessary to complete structural changes that might be required by § 56.8(c).
</P>
<P>(xi) The maximum period of time that may be allowed for extensions that might be granted pursuant to § 56.8(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(xii) An appendix that contains a list of identified programs and activities of the type covered by the supplementary guidelines, including the names of the programs and activities and the authorizing statute, regulation, or directive for each program and activity.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Requirements for the recipient to designate a responsible official to coordinate the implementation of supplementary guidelines.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Requirements for any other actions or procedures necessary to implement this part.
</P>
<P>(3) When the head of a DoD Component determines that it would not be appropriate to include on or more of the provisions described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, in the supplementary guidelines of that DoD Component or that it is not necessary to issue such guidelines at all, the reasons for such determination shall be stated in writing and submitted to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, for review and approval. Once that determination is approved, the DoD Component shall make it available to the public upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) The heads of DoD Components, or designees, shall be responsible for keeping the supplementary guidelines current and accurate. When a DoD Component determines that a program or activity should be added to or deleted from the guidelines, the DoD Component shall notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required assurances.</I> (1) DoD Components shall require all recipients to file written assurances that their programs or activities will be conducted in accordance with this part and supplementary guidelines promulgated by DoD Components. If a recipient fails to provide an assurance that conforms to the requirements of this section, the DoD Component shall attempt to effect compliance pursuant to paragraphs (f) through (h) of this section, provided that if assistance is due and payable to the recipient based on an application approved prior to the effective date of this part the DoD Component shall continue the assistance while any proceedings required by paragraphs (n) through (v) of this section, are pending.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD Components shall advise each recipient of the required elements of the assurance and, with respect to each program or activity, of the extent to which those receiving assistance from recipients shall be required to execute similar assurances.
</P>
<P>(3) DoD Component shall ensure that each assurance:
</P>
<P>(i) Obligates the recipient to advise the DoD Component of any complaints received that allege discrimination against handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligates the recipient to collect and provide the items of information that the DoD Component lists in its supplementary guidelines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Is made applicable to any Federal financial assistance that might be disbursed by a DoD Component without the submission of a new application.
</P>
<P>(iv) Obligates the recipient, when the financial assistance is in the form of property, for the period during which the property is used under a financial assistance agreement or is possessed by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(v) Includes a provision recognizing that the U.S. Government has the right to seek judicial enforcement of section 504 and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation and consultation with interested persons and organizations.</I> (1) DoD Components shall require recipients to conduct, within 6 months of the effective date of this part or of first receiving Federal financial assistance disbursed by the Department of Defense, a self-evaluation with the assistance of interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations that represent them. When appropriate, DoD Components also shall require recipients to consult at least annually with such persons. The “Department of Health, Education, and Welfare Section 504 Technical Assistance Reserve Directory,” April 1980, shall be consulted to identify likely sources for consultation. In conducting its self-evaluation, each recipient shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the effects of its policies and practices with respect to its compliance with this part and the applicable DoD Component's supplementary guidelines.
</P>
<P>(ii) Modify any policies that do not meet such requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the discriminatory effects of any such policies or practices.
</P>
<P>(2) For at least 3 years following the completion of a self-evaluation required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a recipient shall maintain on file, make available for public inspection, and provide to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, upon request:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the interested persons (last names, first names, and middle initials) consulted.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of areas examined and problems identified, if any, with respect to those areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any modification made and remedial steps taken.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dissemination of information.</I> (1) Within 90 days of the effective date of this part or of first receiving assistance from the Department of Defense and on a continuing basis thereafter, each recipient shall notify beneficiaries and employees of their rights under this part and shall take appropriate steps to notify participants, beneficiaries, applicants for employment and employees, including those with impaired vision or hearing, and unions or professional organizations involved in collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient that the recipient does not discriminate on the basis of handicap in violation of this part. The notification shall state, when appropriate, that the recipient does not discriminate in admitting or providing access to or treating or employing persons in its programs and activities. Such notification may be accomplished by posting notices, publishing announcements in newspapers and magazines, placing notices in its publications, or distributing memoranda or other written communications.
</P>
<P>(2) If a recipient publishes or uses and makes available to participants, beneficiaries, applicants for employment, or employees recruitment materials or publications containing general information about the recipient's programs and activities, it shall include in those materials or publications a statement of the policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. This may be accomplished by including appropriate inserts in existing materials and publications or by revising and reprinting the materials and publications.
</P>
<P>(3) Understandable materials developed in accordance with this section shall be provided to ensure that all beneficiaries and employees of the recipient understand the information. In addition, recipients shall disseminate appropriate and comprehensive information about formal and informal complaint and appeal procedures, including directions on how and where to file complaints and to appeal DoD Component decisions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intimidation and interference.</I> Recipients and DoD Components shall take reasonable steps to ensure that no person intimidates, threatens, coerces, or discriminates against any individual for the purpose of retaliating against, interfering with, or discouraging the filing of a complaint, furnishing of information, or assisting or participating in an investigation, compliance review, hearing, or other activity related to the administration of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Staff responsibilities.</I> All DoD Component determinations of recipient compliance with this part shall be subject to reviews by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee. When responsibility for approving applications for Federal financial assistance disbursed by a DoD Component is assigned to regional or area offices of the DoD Component, personnel in such offices shall be designated to perform the functions described in paragraphs (h) and (o) through (w) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access to records and facilities.</I> Each recipient shall permit access to its premises by DoD officials during normal business hours when such access is necessary for conducting onsite compliance reviews or complaint investigations, and shall allow such officials to photograph facilities and to inspect and copy any books, records, accounts, and other material relevant to determining the recipient's compliance with this part. Information so obtained shall be used only in connection with the administration of this part. If the recipient does not have the information requested, it shall submit to the DoD Component a written report that contains a certification that the information is not available and describes the good-faith efforts made to obtain the information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Compliance review.</I> DoD Components shall determine the compliance of each recipient with this part as follows: (1) <I>General.</I> Whenever possible, DoD Components shall perform compliance reviews in conjunction with their review and audit efforts implementing title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Desk audit application review.</I> Before approving an application for Federal financial assistance, the DoD Component concerned shall make a written determination as to whether the recipient is in compliance with this part, based on a review of the assurance of compliance executed by a recipient pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, and other data submitted by the recipient. When a determination cannot be made from the assurance and other data submitted by the recipient, the DoD Component concerned shall require the recipient to submit additional information and shall take other steps as necessary to determine the recipient's compliance with this part. If this additional information demonstrates that the recipient is in compliance with this part, the DoD Component shall notify the recipient promptly that it is in compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preapproval onsite review.</I> (i) When a desk audit application review conducted pursuant to paragraph (h)(2) of this section indicates that the recipient might not be in compliance with this part, the DoD Component concerned may conduct a preapproval onsite review at the recipient's facilities before approving the disbursement of Federal financial assistance to the recipient. The DoD Component shall conduct such a review:
</P>
<P>(A) When appropriate, if a desk audit application review reveals that the recipient's compliance posture is questionable because of a history of discrimination complaints, current discrimination complaints, a noncompliance determination by another government agency or DoD Component, or other indications of possible noncompliance; or
</P>
<P>(B) If Federal financial assistance is requested for construction, except under extraordinary circumstances, to determine whether the location and design of the project would provide service on a nondiscriminatory basis, in conformity with § 56.8(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) Preapproval onsite reviews shall be conducted under DoD Component supplementary guidelines and in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (h)(4) of this section, concerning postapproval reviews.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Postapproval reviews.</I> DoD Components shall: (i) Establish and maintain effective programs of postapproval reviews.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such reviews of each recipient, the frequency and the nature of which shall be prescribed in the DoD Component supplementary guidelines implementing this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Require recipients periodically to submit compliance reports to them.
</P>
<P>(iv) Record the results of the reviews, including findings of fact and recommendations.
</P>
<P>(5) A DoD Component shall complete a review within 180 calendar days of initiating it unless an extension of time is granted by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, for good cause shown, and shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Find the recipient to be in compliance and notify the recipient of that finding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the recipient and the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, of a finding of probable noncompliance, pursuant to paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Filing of complaints against recipients.</I> (1) DoD Components shall establish and publish in their supplementary guidelines procedures for the prompt processing and disposition of complaints against recipients, consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A DoD Component shall consider all complaints that: (i) Are filed with it within 180 days of the alleged discrimination or within a longer period of time if an extension is granted for good cause by the DoD Component with the approval of the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Include the name, address, and telephone number, if any, of the complainant; the name and address of the recipient committing the alleged discrimination; a description of the acts or omissions considered to be discriminatory; and other pertinent information. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Are signed by the complainant or the complainant's authorized representative (legal counsel or a person with power of attorney granted by the complainant).
</P>
<P>(3) DoD Components shall transmit a copy of each complaint filed with them to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, within 10 calendar days after its receipt.
</P>
<P>(4) If the information in a complaint is incomplete, the DoD Component shall request the complainant to provide the additional information required. If the DoD Component does not receive this requested information within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, the case may be closed and the complainant so notified in writing.
</P>
<P>(5) If a complaint concerning a program or activity is filed with a DoD Component that does not have jurisdiction over it, the DoD Component shall refer the complaint to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, and advise the complainant in writing of such referral. The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, then shall refer the complaint to the appropriate DoD Component and so notify the complainant in writing.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Investigation by DoD components.</I> (1) DoD Components shall investigate complaints that involve recipients and that meet the standards described in paragraph (i) of this section, unless good cause for not investigating is stated in a written notification of the disposition of the complaint provided to the complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) If an investigation of a complaint is conducted, the DoD Component concerned shall maintain a case record that contains:
</P>
<P>(i) The name (last name, first, and middle initial), address (street address, city, State, and zip code), and telephone number of each person interviewed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies, transcripts, or summaries of pertinent documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) A reference to at least one program or activity conducted by the recipient and receiving Federal financial assistance disbursed by a DoD Component, and a description of the amount and nature of the assistance.
</P>
<P>(iv) A narrative report of the results of the investigation that contains references to relevant exhibits and other evidence that relates to the alleged violations.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Investigations by recipients.</I> (1) A DoD Component may require or permit recipients to investigate complaints alleging violation of this part. In such cases, the DoD Component shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the recipient investigates the complaints in accordance with the standards, procedures, and requirements prescribed in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the recipient to submit a written report of each complaint and investigation to the DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(iii) Retain a review responsibility over the investigation and disposition of each complaint.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that each complaint investigation is completed within 180 calendar days of the receipt of the complaint by the proper DoD Component, unless an extension of time is granted for good cause by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(v) Require the recipient to maintain a log of all complaints filed against it, as described in § 56.6(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) DoD Components that require or permit complaint investigations to be conducted by recipients shall review recipient complaint investigations pursuant to paragraphs (k) and (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Results of investigations.</I> (1) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complaint, the DoD Component, recipient, or the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall give written notification:
</P>
<P>(i) Of the disposition of the complaint to the complainant and, as the case may be, to the recipient or DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the complainant that within 30 calendar days of receipt of the written notification, the complainant may request that the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, review the findings in the notification pursuant to paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the complaint investigation results in a determination by the DoD Component that a recipient is not complying with this part the DoD Component shall proceed as prescribed in paragraph (n) through (v) of this section. If the DoD Component determines that the recipient is in compliance, the DoD Component shall submit the complete case file to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, within 15 calendar days after the notification of the disposition of the investigation to the complainant.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reviewing completed investigations.</I> (1) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, may review all completed investigations.
</P>
<P>(2) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall review the results of any investigation of a complaint if the complainant requests such a review pursuant to paragraph (l)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) After reviewing the results of an investigation, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, may:
</P>
<P>(i) Find that no further investigation is necessary and approve the results of the investigation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Request further investigation by the DoD Component; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Require the DoD Component to take appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Effecting compliance.</I> (1) When a compliance review or complaint investigation indicates that a recipient has violated this part, the applicable DoD Component's supplementary guidelines, or the assurances executed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the responsible DoD Component or the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall attempt to effect compliance in accordance with paragraphs (o) and (p) of this section. The inability of a DoD Component to comply with any time frame prescribed by this part does not relieve a recipient of the responsibility for compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD Component may require, when necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of this part, a recipient to take remedial action:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to handicapped persons who are no longer participants in the recipient's program or activity but who were participants in the program or activity when such discrimination occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to handicapped persons who would have been participants in the recipient's program or activity had the discrimination not occurred.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to handicapped persons presently in the recipient's program or activity, but not receiving full benefits or equal and integrated treatment within the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Written notice. </I> After evaluating the investigative report, the DoD Component shall issue to the recipient and, pursuant to paragraph (n)(2) of this section to the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, a written notice that:
</P>
<P>(1) Describes the apparent violation and the corrective actions necessary to achieve compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) Extends an offer to meet informally with the recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) Informs the recipient that failure to respond to the notice within 15 calendar days of its receipt shall result in the initiation of enforcement procedures described in paragraphs (r) through (v), of this section.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Attempting to achieve voluntary compliance by recipients.</I> (1) If a DoD Component issues a notice pursuant to paragraph (o) of this section, the DoD Component shall attempt to meet with the recipient and shall attempt to persuade it to take the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If a recipient agrees to take remedial steps to achieve compliance, the DoD Component shall require that the agreement be in writing and:
</P>
<P>(i) Be signed by the head of the DoD Component concerned, or designee, and by the principal official of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the action necessary to achieve compliance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Be made available to the public upon request.
</P>
<P>(iv) Be subject to the approval of the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(3) If satisfactory adjustment or a written agreement has not been achieved within 60 calendar days of the recipient's receipt of the notice issued pursuant to paragraph (o) of this section, the DoD Component shall notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, and state the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(4) The DoD Component shall initiate the enforcement actions prescribed in paragraphs (r) through (v) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The recipient does not respond to a notice pursuant to paragraph (o) of this section, within 15 calendar days of its receipt and satisfactory adjustments are not made within 45 calendar days of the date of the recipient's response; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD Component or the ASD (MRA&amp;L) determines at any time within 90 days after the recipient receives a notice pursuant to paragraph (o) of this section, that, despite reasonable efforts, it is not likely that the recipient will comply promptly and voluntarily.
</P>
<P>(5) If, pursuant to paragraph (p)(4) of this section, the DoD Component initiates enforcement action, it also shall continue its attempts to persuade the recipient to comply voluntarily.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Imposing sanctions</I>—(1) <I>Sanctions available.</I> If a DoD Component has taken action pursuant to paragraphs (o) and (p) of this section, the DoD Component may, by order, subject to paragraph (q)(2) and (q)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Terminate, suspend, or refuse to grant or continue assistance to such recipient.
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer the case to the Department of Justice for the initiation of enforcement proceedings at a Federal, State, or local level.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursue any remedies under State or local law.
</P>
<P>(iv) Impose other sanctions upon consultation with the ASD (MRASL), or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminating, suspending, or refusing to grant or continue assistance.</I> A DoD Component may not terminate or refuse to grant or continue Federal financial assistance unless:
</P>
<P>(i) Such action has been approved by the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD Component has given the recipient an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to the procedures set out in paragraph (r) of this section, and a finding of noncompliance has resulted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Thirty calendar days have elapsed since the Secretary of Defense has filed a written report describing the violation and action to be taken with the committees of the House of Representatives and Senate that have jurisdiction over the program or activity in which the violation of this part exists.
</P>
<P>(iv) Such action is limited to affect only the particular activity or program, or portion thereof, of the recipient where the violation exists.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other sanctions.</I> A DoD Component may not impose the sanctions set out in paragraphs (q)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD Component has given the recipient an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to paragraph (r) of this section, and a finding of noncompliance has resulted.
</P>
<P>(ii) The action has been approved by the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ten calendar days have elapsed since the mailing of a notice informing the recipient of its continuing failure to comply with this part the action necessary to achieve compliance, and the sanction to be imposed.
</P>
<P>(iv) During those 10 calendar days the DoD Component has made additional efforts to persuade the recipient to comply.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Hearings for recipients</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> When, pursuant to paragraph (q)(2)(ii) of this section, an opportunity for a hearing is given to a recipient, the DoD Component involved shall follow the procedures prescribed in paragraphs (r)(2) through (r)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> The DoD Component concerned shall notify the recipient of the opportunity for a hearing by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, when the recipient denies a tentative finding of noncompliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD Component shall ensure that the notice:
</P>
<P>(A) Describes the proposed sanctions to be imposed.
</P>
<P>(B) Cites the section of this part under which the proposed action is to be taken.
</P>
<P>(C) States the name and office of the DoD Component official who is responsible for conducting the hearing (hereafter referred to as the “responsible DoD official”).
</P>
<P>(D) Outlines the issues to be decided at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(E) Advises the recipient either of a date, not less than 20 calendar days after the date that the notice is received, by which the recipient may request that the matter be scheduled for a hearing, or of a reasonable time and place of a hearing that is subject to change for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a time and place for a hearing are set, the DoD Component shall give the recipient and the complainant, if any, reasonable notice of such time and place.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver of a hearing.</I> A recipient may waive a hearing and submit to the responsible DoD official, in writing, information or arguments on or before the date stated pursuant to paragraph (r)(2)(i)(E) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) A recipient waives its right to a hearing if it fails to request a hearing on or before a date stated pursuant to paragraph (r)(2)(i)(E) of this section, or fails to appear at a hearing that has been scheduled pursuant to that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a recipient waives its right to a hearing under this section, the responsible DoD official shall decide the issues and render a final decision that is based on the information available and that conforms to the requirements of paragraph (s)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing examiner.</I> Hearings shall be conducted by the responsible DoD official or by a hearing examiner designated by the official, provided that the hearing examiner shall be a field grade officer or civilian employee above the grade of GS-12 (or the equivalent) who is admitted to practice law before a Federal court or the highest court of a State, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Right to counsel.</I> In all proceedings under this section, the recipient and the DoD Component may be represented by counsel. The representation of the recipient will not be at U.S. Government expense.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Procedures.</I> Hearings authorized under this section shall be subject to the following: (i) Hearings shall be open to the public.
</P>
<P>(ii) Formal rules of evidence will not apply. The DoD Component concerned and the recipient shall be entitled to introduce all relevant evidence on the issues stated in the notice of hearing issued pursuant to paragraph (r)(2) of this section, and those designated by the responsible DoD official or the hearing examiner at the outset of or during the hearing. The responsible DoD official or hearing examiner, however, may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(iii) All witnesses may be examined or cross-examined, as the case may be, by each party.
</P>
<P>(iv) All parties shall have the opportunity to examine all evidence offered or admitted for the record.
</P>
<P>(v) A transcript of the proceedings shall be maintained in either electronic or typewritten form and made available to all parties.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Decisions</I>—(1) <I>Initial or proposed decisions by a hearing examiner.</I> If a hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner who is designated by the responsible DoD official pursuant to paragraph (r)(4) of this section, the hearing examiner shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Make an initial decision, if so authorized, that conforms to the requirements of paragraph (s)(4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Certify the entire record and submit to the responsible DoD official recommended findings and a proposed decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of initial decisions.</I> Initial decisions made by a hearing examiner pursuant to paragraph (s)(1)(i) of this section, shall be reviewed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A recipient may file exceptions to an initial decision within 30 calendar days of receiving notice of such initial decision. Reasons shall be stated for each exception.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the recipient does not file exceptions pursuant to paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section, the responsible DoD official may notify the recipient within 45 calendar days of the initial decision that the responsible DoD official will review the decisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) If exceptions are filed pursuant to paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section, or a notice of review is issued pursuant to paragraph (s)(2)(ii) of this section, the responsible DoD official shall review the initial decision and, after giving the recipient reasonable opportunity to file a brief or other written statement of its contentions, issue a final decision that addresses each finding and conclusion in the initial decision and each exception, if any. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the exceptions described in paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section are not filed and the responsible DoD official does not issue the notice of review described in paragraph (s)(2)(ii) of this section, the initial decision of the hearing examiner shall constitute the final decision of the responsible DoD official.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Decisions by the responsible DoD official who conducts a hearing or receives a certified record.</I> If a hearing examiner who is designated by the responsible DoD official certifies the entire record and submits recommended findings and a proposed decision to the responsible DoD official pursuant to paragraph (s)(1)(ii) of this section, or if the responsible DoD official conducts the hearing, after giving the recipient a reasonable opportunity to file a brief or other written statement of its contentions, the responsible DoD official shall render a final decision that conforms to paragraph (s)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contents of decisions.</I> Each decision of a hearing examiner or responsible DoD official shall state all findings and conclusions and identify each violation of this part. The final decision may contain an order pursuant to paragraph (q) of this section, providing for the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or continue all or some of the Federal financial assistance under the program or activity involved and contain terms, conditions, and other provisions that are consistent with and intended to achieve compliance with this Directive.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice of decisions and certifications.</I> The responsible DoD official shall provide a copy of any certified record of a hearing and any initial or final decision to the recipient and the complainant, if any.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review by the Secretary of Defense.</I> The responsible DoD official shall transmit promptly any final decision that orders a suspension, termination, or denial of Federal financial assistance through the ASD(MRA&amp;L) to the Secretary of Defense. The Secretary may;
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the decision;
</P>
<P>(ii) Vacate the decision; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Remit or mitigate any sanction imposed.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Restoring eligibility for financial assistance.</I> (1) A recipient that is affected adversely by a final decision issued under paragraph (s) of this section, may at any time request the responsible DoD official to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) If the responsible DoD official determines that the information supplied by the recipient demonstrates that it has satisfied the terms and conditions of the order entered pursuant to paragraph (s) of this section, and that is complying with and has provided reasonable assurance that it will continue to comply with this part the responsible DoD official shall restore such eligibility immediately.
</P>
<P>(3) If the responsible DoD official denies a request for restoration of eligibility, the recipient may submit a written request for a hearing that states why it believes the responsible DoD official erred in denying the request. Following such a written request, the recipient shall be given an expeditious hearing under rules of procedure issued by the responsible DoD official to determine whether the requirements described in paragraph (t)(2) of this section, have been met. While any such proceedings are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order issued under paragraph (s) of this section, shall remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Interagency cooperation and delegation.</I> (1) When several recipients are receiving assistance for the same or similar purposes from a DoD Component and another Federal agency, the DoD Component shall notify the ASD (MRA&amp;L), or designee. Such notification shall be in writing and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the programs and activities involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the amount of money expended on the programs and activities in the previous and current fiscal year by the DoD Component and the agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of the known primary recipients.
</P>
<P>(2) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall attempt to negotiate with the Federal agency a written delegation agreement that designates the agency or the DoD Component as the primary agency for purposes of ensuring compliance with section 504 of Public Law 93-112, as amended, and this part depending upon which of them administers a larger financial assistance program with the common recipients and other relevant factors. If necessary, the agreement shall establish procedures to ensure the enforcement of section 504 of Public Law 93-112, as amended, and this part. The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall provide written notification to recipients of an agreement reached under this subsection.
</P>
<P>(3) When several recipients are receiving assistance for the same or similar purposes from two or more DoD Components, the DoD Components may negotiate a proposed written delegation agreement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigns responsibility for ensuring that the recipient complies with this part to one of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides for the notification to recipients and the responsible program officials of the DoD Components involved of the assignment of enforcement responsibility.
</P>
<P>(4) No delegation agreement reached in accordance with paragraph (u)(3) to this section shall be effective until it is approved by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(5) When possible, existing delegation agreements relating to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 shall be amended to provide for the enforcement of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Any DoD Component conducting a compliance review or investigating a complaint of an alleged violation by a recipient shall notify any other affected agency or DoD Component through the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, upon discovery that the agency or DoD Component has jurisdiction over the program or activity in question and shall subsequently inform it of the finding made. Such reviews or investigations may be conducted on a joint basis.
</P>
<P>(7) When a compliance review or complaint investigation under this part reveals a possible violation of Executive Order 11246, titles VI or VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, or any other Federal law, the DoD Component shall notify the appropriate agency, through the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Coordination with sections 502 and 503.</I> (1) DoD Components shall use DoD 4270.1-M and Department of the Army, Office of the Chief of Engineers, Manual EM 1110-1-103, in developing requirements for the accessibility of facilities. If DoD Components encounter issues with respect to section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, that are not covered by these publications, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, may be consulted. If necessary, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall consult with the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board in resolving such problems.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD Components may advise recipients to consult directly with the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board in developing accessibility criteria.
</P>
<P>(3) DoD Components shall coordinate enforcement actions relating to the accessibility of facilities with the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board and shall notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, of such coordination.
</P>
<P>(4) If a recipient is also a Federal contractor subject to section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, and the regulations thereunder (41 CFR part 60-741) and if a DoD Component has reason to believe that the recipient is in violation thereof, the DoD Component shall coordinate enforcement actions with the Department of Labor, Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs. The DoD Component shall notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, of such coordination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.17.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.10   Ensuring compliance with this part in programs and activities conducted by the Department of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supplementary guidelines.</I> (1) Whenever necessary, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall publish supplementary guidelines for programs and activities that are conducted by DoD Components and that are subject to this Directive. Prior to their issuance, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall submit supplementary guidelines prepared pursuant to this subsection to the Coordination and Review Section, Civil Rights Division, Department of Justice, for review.
</P>
<P>(2) The heads of DoD Components, or designees, shall be responsible for keeping the supplementary guidelines described in this section current and accurate. When a DoD Component head determines that a program or activity should be added to or deleted from the guidelines, that official shall notify the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Staff responsibilities.</I> The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall determine DoD Component compliance with this part as it pertains to programs and activities that are conducted by DoD Components and are subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of complaints.</I> (1) Complaints of discrimination in a program or activity conducted by a DoD Component may be filed directly with the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD Components shall develop procedures, such as posters or other devices, to notify participants in the programs and activities listed in § 56.7(c) of their right to be free of discrimination because of handicap in those programs and activities and of their right to file complaints of discrimination with the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investigations of complaints.</I> (1) The ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall investigate complaints of discrimination in programs and activities that are conducted by DoD Components and are subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A case record of each investigation shall be compiled in accordance with § 56.9(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Results of investigations.</I> If the complaint investigation results in a determination by the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, that a DoD Component's program or activity is not complying with § 56.9, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall proceed as prescribed in § 56.9 (n) through (v). Hearings prescribed under § 56.9(r) however, need not be conducted. If the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, determines that the DoD Component is in compliance, the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, shall notify the complainant within 15 calendar days of such determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Written notice.</I> If an investigative report concludes that there has been a violation of this part in a program or activity conducted by a DoD Component and the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, accepts that conclusion, that official shall issue to the head of the DoD Component a written notice describing the apparent violation, the corrective actions necessary to achieve compliance, and a suspense date for completion of the corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effecting compliance.</I> When necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of this part the ASD(MRA&amp;L), or designee, may require a DoD Component to take remedial action similar to that in § 56.9(n)(2).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employment.</I> DoD Components that conduct Federal programs or activities covered by this part that involve employment of civilian persons to conduct such a program or activity must comply with section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, and the implementing rules and regulations of the EEOC. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="57" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 57—PROVISION OF EARLY INTERVENTION AND SPECIAL EDUCATION SERVICES TO ELIGIBLE DOD DEPENDENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2164, 20 U.S.C. 921-932 and chapter 33.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 36660, June 25, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 57.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities to implement, other than the funding and reporting provisions, chapter 33 of 20 U.S.C. (also known and hereinafter referred to in this part as “Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)”) pursuant to 20 U.S.C. 927(c) and 10 U.S.C. 2164(f) for:
</P>
<P>(1) Provision of early intervention services (EIS) to infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families, as well as special education and related services to children with disabilities entitled under this part to receive education services from the DoD in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921-932, 10 U.S.C. 2164, and DoD Directive 1342.20, “Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134220p.pdf</I>), and the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(2) Implementation of a comprehensive, multidisciplinary program of EIS for infants and toddlers with disabilities and their DoD civilian-employed and military families.
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of a free appropriate public education (FAPE), including special education and related services for children with disabilities who are eligible to enroll in DoDEA schools, as specified in their respective individualized education programs (IEP).
</P>
<P>(4) Monitoring of DoD programs providing EIS, or special education and related services for compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes a DoD Coordinating Committee to recommend policies and provide compliance oversight for early intervention and special education.
</P>
<P>(c) Authorizes the issuance of other guidance as necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Eligible infants, toddlers, and children receiving or entitled to receive early intervention services (EIS) or special education and related services from the DoD, whose parents have not elected voluntary enrollment in a non-Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA) school.
</P>
<P>(c) All schools operated under the oversight of the DoDEA, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS) operated by the DoD pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2164.
</P>
<P>(2) Department of Defense Dependents Schools (DoDDS) operated by the DoD pursuant to 20 U.S.C. 921-932 (hereinafter referred to as “overseas” schools).
</P>
<P>(d) Does not create any substantive rights or remedies not otherwise authorized by the IDEA or other relevant law; and may not be relied upon by any person, organization, or other entity to allege a denial of substantive rights or remedies not otherwise authorized by the IDEA or other relevant law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Age of majority.</I> The age when a person acquires the rights and responsibilities of being an adult. For purposes of this part, a child attains majority at age 18, unless the child has been determined by a court of competent jurisdiction to be incompetent, or, if the child has not been determined to be incompetent, he or she is incapable of providing informed consent with respect to his or her educational program.
</P>
<P><I>Alternate assessment.</I> An objective and consistent process that validly measures the performance of students with disabilities unable to participate, even with appropriate accommodations provided as necessary and as determined by their respective CSC, in a system-wide assessment.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative educational setting (AES).</I> A temporary setting in or out of the school, other than the setting normally attended by the student (e.g., alternative classroom, home setting, installation library) as determined by school authorities or the CSC, in accordance with § 57.6(b)(12) as the appropriate learning environment for a student because of a violation of school rules and regulations or disruption of regular classroom activities.
</P>
<P><I>Assistive technology device.</I> Any item, piece of equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially or off the shelf, modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional capabilities of children with disabilities. This term does not include a medical device that is surgically implanted or the replacement of that device.
</P>
<P><I>Assistive technology service.</I> Any service that directly assists an individual with a disability in the selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device. The term includes: Evaluating the needs of an individual with a disability, including a functional evaluation in the individual's customary environment; purchasing, leasing, or otherwise providing for the acquisition of assistive technology devices by individuals with disabilities; selecting, designing, fitting, customizing, adapting, applying, maintaining, repairing, or replacing assistive technology devices; coordinating and using other therapies, interventions, or services with assistive technology devices, such as those associated with existing educational and rehabilitative plans and programs; training or technical assistance for an individual with disabilities or the family of an individual with disabilities; and training or technical assistance for professionals (including individuals providing educational rehabilitative services), employers, or other individuals who provide services to, employ, or are otherwise substantially involved in the major life functions of an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Case study committee (CSC).</I> A school-level multidisciplinary team, including the child's parents, responsible for making educational decisions concerning a child with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Child-find.</I> An outreach program used by DoDEA, the Military Departments, and the other DoD Components to locate, identify, and evaluate children from birth to age 21, inclusive, who may require EIS or special education and related services. All children who are eligible to attend a DoD school under 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 fall within the scope of the DoD child-find responsibilities. Child-find activities include the dissemination of information to Service members, DoD employees, and parents of students eligible to enroll in DoDEA schools; the identification and screening of children; and the use of referral procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Children with disabilities.</I> Children, ages 3 through 21, inclusive, who are entitled to enroll, or are enrolled, in a DoD school in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921-932 and 10 U.S.C. 2164, have not graduated from high school or completed the General Education Degree, have one or more disabilities in accordance with section 1401(3) of the IDEA, and need and qualify for special education and related services.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant.</I> Person making an administrative complaint.
</P>
<P><I>Comprehensive system of personnel development (CSPD).</I> A system of personnel development that is developed in coordination with the Military Departments and the Director, DoDEA. CSPD is the training of professionals, paraprofessionals, and primary referral source personnel with respect to the basic components of early intervention, special education, and related services. CSPD may also include implementing innovative strategies and activities for the recruitment and retention of personnel providing special education and related services, ensuring that personnel requirements are established and maintaining qualifications to ensure that personnel necessary to carry out the purposes of this part are appropriately and adequately prepared to provide special education and related services. Training of personnel may include working within the military and with military families, the emotional and social development of children, and transition services from early intervention to preschool and transitions within educational settings and to post-secondary environments.
</P>
<P><I>Consent.</I> The permission obtained from the parent ensuring they are fully informed of all information about the activity for which consent is sought, in his or her native language or in another mode of communication if necessary, and that the parent understands and agrees in writing to the implementation of the activity for which permission is sought.
</P>
<P><I>Continuum of placement options.</I> Instruction in general education classes, special classes, special schools, home instruction, and instruction in hospitals and institutions; includes provision for supplementary services (such as resource room or itinerant instruction) to be provided in conjunction with regular class placement.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled substance.</I> As defined in Sections 801-971 of title 21, United States Code (also known as the “Controlled Substances Act, as amended”).
</P>
<P><I>Day.</I> A calendar day, unless otherwise indicated as a business day or a school day.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Business day.</I> Monday through Friday except for Federal and State holidays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>School day.</I> Any day, including a partial day, that children are in attendance at school for instructional purposes. School day has the same meaning for all children in school, including children with and without disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA).</I> The Department of Defense Education Activity is a DoD Field Activity under the direction, operation, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel &amp; Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) and the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness &amp; Force Management (ASD(R&amp;FM)). The mission of DoDEA is to provide an exemplary education by effectively and efficiently planning, directing, and overseeing the management, operation, and administration of the DoD Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS) and the DoD Dependents Schools (DoDDS), which provide instruction from kindergarten through grade 12 to eligible dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Defense Dependents Schools (DoDDS).</I> The overseas schools (kindergarten through grade 12) established in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921-932.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Defense Education Activity School.</I> A DDESS or DoDDS school operated under the oversight of DoDEA.
</P>
<P><I>Developmental Delay in children ages 3 through 7.</I> A child three through seven (or any subset of that age range, including ages 3 through 5) who is experiencing developmental delays, as defined for infants and toddlers at § 57.6(a)(4)(ii)(A) as measured by appropriate diagnostic instruments and procedures, in one or more of the following areas: Physical development, cognitive development, communication development, social or emotional development, or adaptive development, and who, by reason thereof, needs special education and related services. A child determined to have a developmental delay before the age of 7 may maintain that eligibility through age 9.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS).</I> The schools (pre-kindergarten through grade 12) established in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2164.
</P>
<P><I>Early intervention service provider.</I> An individual that provides early intervention services in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Educational and Developmental Intervention Services (EDIS).</I> Programs operated by the Military Departments to provide EIS to eligible infants and toddlers with disabilities, and related services to eligible children with disabilities in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>EIS.</I> Developmental services for infants and toddlers with disabilities, as defined in this part, that are provided under the supervision of a Military Department, including evaluation, individualized family service plan (IFSP) development and revision, and service coordination, provided at no cost to the child's parents (except for incidental fees also charged to children without disabilities).
</P>
<P><I>Extended school year (ESY) services.</I> Special education and related services that are provided to a child with a disability beyond the normal DoDEA school year, in accordance with the child's IEP, are at no cost to the parents, and meet the standards of the DoDEA school system.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation.</I> The method used by a multidisciplinary team to conduct and review the assessments of the child and other relevant input to determine whether a child has a disability and a child's initial and continuing need to receive EIS or special education and related services.
</P>
<P><I>Extracurricular and non-academic activities.</I> Services and activities including counseling services; athletics; transportation; health services; recreational activities; special interest groups or clubs sponsored by the DoDEA school system; and referrals to agencies that provide assistance to individuals with disabilities and employment of students, including employment by a public agency and assistance in making outside employment available.
</P>
<P><I>FAPE.</I> Special education and related services that are provided under the general supervision and direction of DoDEA at no cost to parents of a child with a disability, in conformity with an IEP, in accordance with the requirements of the IDEA and DoD guidance.
</P>
<P><I>Functional behavioral assessment.</I> A process for identifying the events that predict and maintain patterns of problem behavior.
</P>
<P><I>General education curriculum.</I> The curriculum adopted by the DoDEA school systems for all children from preschool through secondary school. To the extent applicable to an individual child with a disability, the general education curriculum can be used in any educational environment along a continuum of alternative placements.
</P>
<P><I>IEP.</I> A written document that is developed, reviewed, and revised at a meeting of the CSC, identifying the required components of the individualized education program for a child with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP).</I> A written document identifying the specially designed services for an infant or toddler with a disability and the family of such infant or toddler.
</P>
<P><I>Independent educational evaluation (IEE).</I> An evaluation conducted by a qualified examiner who is not an EDIS examiner or an examiner funded by the DoDEA school who conducted the evaluation with which the parent is in disagreement.
</P>
<P><I>Infants and toddlers with disabilities.</I> Children from birth up to 3 years of age, inclusive, who need EIS because:
</P>
<P>(1) They are experiencing developmental delays as measured by appropriate diagnostic instruments and procedures, in one or more of the following areas: Cognitive development, physical development including vision and hearing, communication development, social or emotional development, adaptive development; or
</P>
<P>(2) They have a diagnosed physical or mental condition that has a high probability of resulting in developmental delay.
</P>
<P><I>Inter-component.</I> Cooperation among DoD organizations and programs, ensuring coordination and integration of services to infants, toddlers, children with disabilities, and their families.
</P>
<P><I>Manifestation determination.</I> The process in which the CSC reviews all relevant information and the relationship between the child's disability and the child's behavior to determine whether the behavior is a manifestation of the child's disability.
</P>
<P><I>Mediation.</I> A confidential, voluntary, informal dispute resolution process that is provided at no charge to the parents, whether or not a due process petition has been filed, in which the disagreeing parties engage in a discussion of issues related to the provision of the child's EIS or special education and related services in accordance with the requirements of IDEA and this part, in the presence of, or through, a qualified and impartial mediator who is trained in effective mediation techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Medical services.</I> Those evaluative, diagnostic, and therapeutic, services provided by a licensed and credentialed medical provider to assist providers of EIS, regular and special education teachers, and providers of related services to develop and implement IFSPs and IEPs.
</P>
<P><I>Multidisciplinary.</I> The involvement of two or more disciplines or professions in the integration and coordination of services, including evaluation and assessment activities and development of an IFSP or an IEP.
</P>
<P><I>Native language.</I> When used with reference to an individual of limited English proficiency, the home language normally used by such individuals, or in the case of a child, the language normally used by the parents of the child.
</P>
<P><I>Natural environment.</I> A setting, including home and community, in which children without disabilities participate.
</P>
<P><I>Non-DoD school or facility.</I> A public or private school or other educational program not operated by DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Parent.</I> The natural, adoptive, or foster parent of a child, a guardian, an individual acting in the place of a natural or adoptive parent with whom the child lives, or an individual who is legally responsible for the child's welfare if that person contributes at least one-half of the child's support.
</P>
<P><I>Personally identifiable information.</I> Information that would make it possible to identify the infant, toddler, or child with reasonable certainty. Information includes: The name of the child, the child's parent or other family member; the address of the child; a personal identifier, such as the child's social security number or student number; or a list of personal characteristics or other information that would make it possible to identify the child with reasonable certainty.
</P>
<P><I>Primary referral source.</I> Parents and the DoD Components, including child development centers, pediatric clinics, and newborn nurseries, that suspect an infant or toddler has a disability and bring the child to the attention of the EDIS.
</P>
<P><I>Psychological services.</I> Psychological services include: Administering psychological and educational tests and other assessment procedures; interpreting assessment results; obtaining, integrating and interpreting information about child behavior and conditions relating to learning; consulting with other staff members in planning school programs to meet the special educational needs of children as indicated by psychological tests, interviews, direct observations, and behavioral evaluations; planning and managing a program of psychological services, including psychological counseling for children and parents; and assisting in developing positive behavioral intervention strategies.
</P>
<P><I>Public awareness program.</I> Activities or print materials focusing on early identification of infants and toddlers with disabilities. Materials may include information prepared and disseminated by a military medical department to all primary referral sources and information for parents on the availability of EIS. Procedures to determine the availability of information on EIS to parents are also included in that program.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified.</I> A person who meets the DoD-approved or recognized certification, licensing, or registration requirements or other comparable requirements in the area in which the person provides evaluation or assessment, EIS, special education or related services to an infant, toddler, or child with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitation counseling.</I> Services provided by qualified personnel in individual or group sessions that focus specifically on career development, employment preparation, achieving independence, and integration in the workplace and community of the student with a disability. The term also includes vocational rehabilitation services provided to a student with disabilities by vocational rehabilitation programs funded in accordance with the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. chapter 16.
</P>
<P><I>Related services.</I> Transportation and such developmental, corrective, and other supportive services, as required, to assist a child with a disability to benefit from special education under the child's IEP. The term includes services or consults in the areas of speech-language pathology; audiology services; interpreting services; psychological services; physical and occupational therapy; recreation including therapeutic recreation; social work services; and school nurse services designed to enable a child with a disability to receive a FAPE as described in the child's IEP; early identification and assessment of disabilities in children; counseling services including rehabilitation counseling; orientation and mobility services; and medical services for diagnostic or evaluative purposes. The term does not include a medical device that is surgically implanted or the replacement of such.
</P>
<P><I>Related services assigned to the Military Departments.</I> Medical and psychological services, audiology, and optometry for diagnostic or evaluative purposes, including consults, to determine whether a particular child has a disability, the type and extent of the disability, and the child's eligibility to receive special services. In the overseas and domestic areas, transportation is provided as a related service by the Military Department when transportation is prescribed in an IFSP for an infant or toddler, birth to 3 years of age, with disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Resolution meeting.</I> The meeting between parents and relevant school personnel, which must be convened within a specified number of days after receiving notice of a due process complaint and prior to the initiation of a due process hearing, in accordance with the IDEA and this part. The purpose of the meeting is for the parent to discuss the due process complaint and the facts giving rise to the complaint so that the school has the opportunity to resolve the complaint.
</P>
<P><I>Resolution period.</I> That period of time following a resolution meeting, the length of which is defined in this part, during which the school is afforded an opportunity to resolve the parent's concerns before the dispute can proceed to a due process hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Separate facility.</I> A school or a portion of a school, regardless of whether it is operated by DoD, attended exclusively by children with disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Serious bodily injury.</I> A bodily injury, which involves a substantial risk of death; extreme physical pain; protracted and obvious disfigurement; or protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty.
</P>
<P><I>Service coordination.</I> Activities of a service coordinator to assist and enable an infant or toddler and the family to receive the rights, procedural safeguards, and services that are authorized to be provided.
</P>
<P><I>Special education.</I> Specially designed instruction, which is provided at no cost to the parents, to meet the unique needs of a child with a disability, including instruction conducted in the classroom, in the home, in hospitals and institutions, and in other settings; and instruction in physical education.
</P>
<P><I>Supplementary aids and services.</I> Aids, services, and other supports that are provided in regular education classes or other educational-related settings, and in extracurricular and non-academic settings to enable children with disabilities to be educated with non-disabled children to the maximum extent appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Transition services.</I> A coordinated set of activities for a child with a disability that is designed to be within a results-oriented process, that is focused on improving the academic and functional achievement of the child with a disability to facilitate the child's movement from school to post-school activities, including post-secondary education, vocational education, integrated employment (including supported employment), continuing and adult education, adult services, independent living, or community participation, and is based on the individual child's needs, taking into account the child's strengths, preferences, and interests and includes instruction, related services, community experiences, the development of employment and other post-school adult living objectives, and when appropriate, acquisition of daily living skills and functional vocational evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>Transportation.</I> A service that includes transportation and related costs, including the cost of mileage or travel by taxi, common carrier, tolls, and parking expenses, that are necessary to: enable an eligible child with a disability and the family to receive EIS, when prescribed in a child's IFSP; enable an eligible child with a disability to receive special education and related services, when prescribed as a related service by the child's IEP; and enable a child to obtain an evaluation to determine eligibility for special education and related services, if necessary. It also includes specialized equipment, including special or adapted buses, lifts, and ramps needed to transport children with disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Weapon.</I> Defined in Department of Defense Education Activity Regulation 2051.1, “Disciplinary Rules and Procedures” (available at <I>http://www.dodea.edu/foia/iod/pdf/2051_1a.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families who (but for the children's age) would be entitled to enroll in a DoDEA school in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 shall be provided EIS.
</P>
<P>(b) The DoD shall engage in child-find activities for all children age birth to 21, inclusive, who are entitled by 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 to enroll or are enrolled in a DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(c) Children with disabilities who meet the enrollment eligibility criteria of 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 shall be provided a FAPE in the least restrictive environment, including if appropriate to the needs of the individual child, placement in a residential program for children with disabilities in accordance with the child's IEP and at no cost to the parents.
</P>
<P>(d) The Military Departments and DoDEA shall cooperate in the delivery of related services prescribed by section 1401(26) of the IDEA and this part as may be required to assist eligible children with disabilities to benefit from special education.
</P>
<P>(e) Children with disabilities who are eligible to enroll in a DoDEA school in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 shall not be entitled to provision of a FAPE by DoDEA, or to the procedural safeguards prescribed by this part in accordance with the IDEA, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor is assigned to an overseas area where a DoDEA school is available within the commuting area of the sponsor's overseas assignment, but the sponsor does not elect to enroll the child in a DoDEA school for reasons other than DoDEA's alleged failure to provide a FAPE; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor is assigned in the United States or in a U.S. territory, commonwealth, or possession and the sponsor's child meets the eligibility requirements for enrollment in a DoDEA school, but the sponsor does not elect to enroll the child in a DoDEA school for reasons other than DoDEA's alleged failure to provide a FAPE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ASD(R&amp;FM) under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish, in accordance with DoD Instruction 5105.18, “DoD Intergovernmental and Intragovernmental Committee Management Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/510518p.pdf</I>), a DoD Coordinating Committee to recommend policies regarding the provision of early intervention and special education services.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure the development, implementation and administration of a system of services for infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families and children with disabilities; and provide compliance oversight for early intervention and special education in accordance with DoD Directive 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R))” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/512402p.pdf</I>); 20 U.S.C. 921-932; the applicable statutory provision of the IDEA; 10 U.S.C. 2164; DoD Directive 1342.20 and implementing guidance authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Oversee DoD Component collaboration on the provision of services and transition support to infants, toddlers, and school-aged children.
</P>
<P>(4) Develop a DoD-wide comprehensive child-find system to identify eligible infants, toddlers, and children ages birth through 21 years, inclusive, who may require early intervention or special education services, in accordance with the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(5) Develop and provide guidance as necessary for the delivery of services for children with disabilities and for the protection of procedural rights consistent with the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Coordinate with the Secretaries of the Military Departments to ensure that their responsibilities, as detailed in paragraph (f) of this section, are completed.
</P>
<P>(7) Direct the development and implementation of a comprehensive system of personnel development (CSPD) for personnel serving infants and toddlers with disabilities and children with disabilities, and their families.
</P>
<P>(8) Develop requirements and procedures for compiling and reporting data on the number of eligible infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families in need of EIS and children in need of special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(9) Require DoDEA schools provide educational information for assignment coordination and enrollment in the Services' Exceptional Family Member Program or Special Needs Program consistent with DoD Instruction 1315.19, “Authorizing Special Needs Family Members Travel Overseas at Government Expense” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/131519p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(10) Identify representatives to serve on the Department of Defense Coordinating Committee on Early Intervention, Special Education, and Related Services (DoD-CC).
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure delivery of appropriate early intervention and educational services to eligible infants, toddlers, and children, and their families as appropriate pursuant to the IDEA and this part through onsite monitoring of special needs programs and submission of an annual compliance report.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the USD(P&amp;R) and consult with the General Counsel of the Department of Defense (GC, DoD) regarding the provision of EIS and related services.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversee development of provider workload standards and performance levels to determine staffing requirements for EIS and related services. The standards shall take into account the provider training needs, the requirements of this part, and the additional time required to provide EIS and related services in schools and the natural environments, and for the coordination with other DoD Components and other service providers, indirect services including analysis of data, development of the IFSP, transition planning, and designing interventions and accommodations.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and maintain an automated data system to support the operation and oversight of the Military Departments' delivery of EIS and related services.
</P>
<P>(4) Assign geographical areas of responsibility for providing EIS and related services under the purview of healthcare providers to the Military Departments. Periodically review the alignment of geographic areas to ensure that resource issues (e.g., base closures) are considered in the cost-effective delivery of services.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a system for measuring EIS program outcomes for children and their families.
</P>
<P>(6) Resolve disputes among the DoD Components providing EIS.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Defense Health Agency (DHA), under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(HA), shall identify representatives to serve on the DoD-CC.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, DoD Education Activity (DoDEA), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), and through the ASD(R&amp;FM), in accordance with DoD Directive 5124.02, shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Children who meet the enrollment eligibility criteria of 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 are identified and referred for evaluation if they are suspected of having disabilities, and are afforded appropriate procedural safeguards in accordance with the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Children who meet the enrollment eligibility criteria of 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164 shall be evaluated in accordance with the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part, as needed. If found eligible for special education and related services, they shall be provided a FAPE in accordance with an IEP, with services delivered in the least restrictive environment and procedural safeguards in accordance with the requirements of the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Records are maintained on the special education and related services provided to children in accordance with this part, pursuant to 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(4) Related services as prescribed in an IEP for a child with disabilities enrolled in a DoDEA school in the United States, its territories, commonwealths, or possessions are provided by DoDEA.
</P>
<P>(5) Transportation is provided by DoDEA in overseas and domestic areas as a related service to children with disabilities when transportation is prescribed in a child's IEP. The related service of transportation includes necessary accommodations to access and leave the bus and to ride safely on the bus and transportation between the child's home, the DoDEA school, or another location, as specified in the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(6) Appropriate personnel participate in the development and implementation of a CSPD.
</P>
<P>(7) Appropriate written guidance is issued to implement the requirements pertaining to special education and related services under 20 U.S.C. 921-932, 10 U.S.C. 2164, and the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(8) Activities to identify and train personnel to monitor the provision of services to eligible children with disabilities are funded.
</P>
<P>(9) DoDEA schools that operate pursuant to 20 U.S.C. 921-932 and 10 U.S.C. 2164 conduct child-find activities for all eligible children;
</P>
<P>(10) A free appropriate public education (FAPE) and procedural safeguards in accordance with IDEA and this part available to children with disabilities who are entitled to enroll in DoDEA schools under the enrollment eligibility criteria of 20 U.S.C. 921-932 or 10 U.S.C. 2164. However, a FAPE, or the procedural safeguards prescribed by the IDEA and this part, shall NOT be available to such children, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The sponsor is assigned to an overseas area where a DoDEA school is available within the commuting area of the sponsor's assignment, but the sponsor does not elect to enroll his or her child in a DoDEA school for reasons other than DoDEA's alleged failure to provide a FAPE; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sponsor is assigned in the United States or in a U.S. territory, commonwealth, or possession and the sponsor's child meets the eligibility requirements for enrollment in a DoDEA school, but the sponsor does not elect to enroll the child in a DoDEA school for reasons other than DoDEA's alleged failure to provide a FAPE.
</P>
<P>(11) The educational needs of children with and without disabilities are met comparably, in accordance with § 57.6(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(12) Educational facilities and services (including the start of the school day and the length of the school year) operated by DoDEA for children with and without disabilities are comparable.
</P>
<P>(13) All programs providing special education and related services are monitored for compliance with this part and with the substantive rights, protections, and procedural safeguards of the IDEA and this part at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(14) A report is submitted to the USD(P&amp;R) not later than September 30 of each year certifying whether all schools are in compliance with the IDEA and this part, and are affording children with disabilities the substantive rights, protections, and procedural safeguards of the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(15) Transition assistance is provided in accordance with IDEA and this part to promote movement from early intervention or preschool into the school setting.
</P>
<P>(16) Transition services are provided in accordance with IDEA and this part to facilitate the child's movement into different educational settings and post-secondary environments.
</P>
<P>(e) The GC, DoD shall identify representatives to serve on the DoD-CC.
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish educational and developmental intervention services (EDIS) to ensure infants and toddlers with disabilities are identified and provided EIS where appropriate, and are afforded appropriate procedural safeguards in accordance with the requirements of the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Staff EDIS with appropriate professional staff, based on the services required to serve children with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide related services required to be provided by a Military Department in accordance with the mandates of this part for children with disabilities. In the overseas areas served by DoDEA schools, the related services required to be provided by a Military Department under an IEP necessary for the student to benefit from special education include medical services for diagnostic or evaluative purposes; social work; community health nursing; dietary, audiological, optometric, and psychological testing and therapy; occupational therapy; and physical therapy. Transportation is provided as a related service by the Military Department when it is prescribed in a child's IFSP for an infant or toddler birth up to 3 years of age, inclusive, with disabilities. Related services shall be administered in accordance with guidance issued pursuant to this part, including guidance from the ASD(HA) on staffing and personnel standards.
</P>
<P>(4) Issue implementing guidance and forms necessary for the operation of EDIS in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide EIS to infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families, and related services to children with disabilities as required by this part at the same priority that medical care is provided to active duty military members.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide counsel from the Military Department concerned or request counsel from the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) to represent the Military Department in impartial due process hearings and administrative appeals conducted in accordance with this part for infants and toddlers birth up to 3 years of age, inclusive, with disabilities who are eligible for EIS.
</P>
<P>(7) Execute Departmental responsibilities under the Exceptional Family Member program (EFMP) prescribed by DoD Instruction 1315.19.
</P>
<P>(8) Train command personnel to fully understand their legal obligations to ensure compliance with and provide the services required by this part.
</P>
<P>(9) Fund activities to identify and train personnel to monitor the provision of services to eligible children with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(10) Require the development of policies and procedures for providing, documenting, and evaluating EDIS, including EIS and related services provided to children receiving special education in a DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(11) Maintain EDIS to provide necessary EIS to eligible infants and toddlers with disabilities and related services to eligible children with disabilities in accordance with this part and the substantive rights, protections, and procedural safeguards of the IDEA, § 57.6(a) and § 57.6(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(12) Implement a comprehensive, coordinated, inter-component, community-based system of EIS for eligible infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families using the procedures established in § 57.6(a) of this part and guidelines from the ASD(HA) on staffing and personnel standards.
</P>
<P>(13) Provide transportation for EIS pursuant to the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(14) Provide transportation for children with disabilities pursuant to the IDEA and this part. The Military Departments are to provide transportation for a child to receive medical or psychological evaluations at a medical facility in the event that the local servicing military treatment facility (MTF) is unable to provide such services and must transport the child to another facility.
</P>
<P>(15) Require that EDIS programs maintain the components of an EIS as required by the IDEA and this part, to include:
</P>
<P>(i) A comprehensive child-find system, including a system for making referrals for services that includes timelines and provides for participation by primary referral sources, and that establishes rigorous standards for appropriately identifying infants and toddlers with disabilities for services.
</P>
<P>(ii) A public awareness program focusing on early identification of infants and toddlers with disabilities to include:
</P>
<P>(A) Preparation of information materials for parents regarding the availability of EIS, especially to inform parents with premature infants or infants with other physical risk factors associated with learning or developmental complications.
</P>
<P>(B) Dissemination of those materials to all primary referral sources, especially hospitals and physicians, for distribution to parents.
</P>
<P>(C) A definition of developmental delay, consistent with § 57.6(g) of this part, to be used in the identification of infants and toddlers with disabilities who are in need of services.
</P>
<P>(D) Availability of appropriate EIS.
</P>
<P>(iii) A timely, comprehensive, multidisciplinary evaluation of the functioning of each infant or toddler and identification of the needs of the child's family to assist appropriately in the development of the infant or toddler.
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures for development of an Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) and coordination of EIS for families of eligible infants and toddlers with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(v) A system of EIS designed to support infants and toddlers and their families in the acquisition of skills needed to become functionally independent and to reduce the need for additional support services as toddlers enter school.
</P>
<P>(vi) A central directory of information on EIS resources and experts available to military families.
</P>
<P>(16) Implement a comprehensive system of personnel development consistent with the requirements of the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(17) Require that EDIS participate in the existing MTF quality assurance program, which monitors and evaluates the medical services for children receiving such services as described by this part. Generally accepted standards of practice for the relevant medical services shall be followed, to the extent consistent with the requirements of the IDEA including provision of EIS in a natural environment, to ensure accessibility, acceptability, and adequacy of the medical portion of the program provided by EDIS.
</P>
<P>(18) Require transition services to promote movement from early intervention, preschool, and other educational programs into different educational settings and post-secondary environments.
</P>
<P>(19) Direct that each program providing EIS is monitored for compliance with this part, and the substantive rights, protections, and procedural safeguards of the IDEA, at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(20) Submit a report to the USD(P&amp;R) not later than September 30 of each year stating whether all EDIS programs are in compliance with this part and are affording infants and toddlers the substantive rights, protections, and procedural safeguards of the IDEA, as stated in § 57.6(f) of this part.
</P>
<P>(21) Compile and report EDIS workload and compliance data using the system established by the ASD(HA) as stated in § 57.6(f).
</P>
<P>(g) The Director, DOHA, under the authority, direction, and control of the GC, DoD/Director, Defense Legal Services Agency, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure impartial due process hearings are provided in accordance with the IDEA and implementing guidance authorized by this part with respect to complaints related to special education and related services arising under the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure DOHA Department Counsel represents DoDEA in all due process proceedings arising under the IDEA for children age 3 through 21 who are eligible for special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure DOHA Department Counsel, upon request by a Military Department, represents the Military Department in due process proceedings arising under the IDEA for infants and toddlers birth up to 3 years of age with disabilities who are eligible for EIS.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure the DOHA Center for Alternative Dispute Resolution (CADR) maintains a roster of mediators qualified in special education disputes and, when requested, provides a mediator for complaints related to special education and related services arising under the IDEA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.18.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for the Provision of EIS for Infants and Toddlers with Disabilities</I>—(1) <I>General</I>.

 (i) There is an urgent and substantial need to:
</P>
<P>(A) Enhance the development of infants and toddlers with disabilities to minimize their potential for developmental delay and to recognize the significant brain development that occurs during a child's first 3 years of life.
</P>
<P>(B) Reduce educational costs by minimizing the need for special education and related services after infants and toddlers with disabilities reach school age.
</P>
<P>(C) Maximize the potential for individuals with disabilities to live independently.
</P>
<P>(D) Enhance the capacity of families to meet the special needs of their infants and toddlers with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) All procedures and services within EIS must be in accordance with the IDEA and the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification and screening.</I> (i) Each Military Department shall develop and implement in its assigned geographic area a comprehensive child-find and public awareness program, pursuant to the IDEA and this part, that focuses on the early identification of infants and toddlers who are eligible to receive EIS pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The military treatment facility (MTF) and Family Advocacy Program must be informed that EDIS will accept direct referrals for infants and toddlers from birth up to 3 years of age who are:
</P>
<P>(A) Involved in a substantiated case of child abuse or neglect; or
</P>
<P>(B) Identified as affected by illegal substance abuse or withdrawal symptoms resulting from prenatal drug exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) All other DoD Components will refer infants and toddlers with suspected disabilities to EDIS in collaboration with the parents.
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon receipt of a referral, EDIS shall appoint a service coordinator.
</P>
<P>(v) All infants and toddlers referred to the EDIS for EIS shall be screened to determine the appropriateness of the referral and to guide the assessment process.
</P>
<P>(A) Screening does not constitute a full evaluation. At a minimum, screening shall include a review of the medical and developmental history of the referred infant or toddler through a parent interview and a review of medical records.
</P>
<P>(B) If screening is conducted prior to the referral, or if there is a substantial or obvious biological risk, a screening following the referral may not be necessary.
</P>
<P>(C) If EDIS determines that an evaluation is not necessary based on screening results, EDIS will provide written notice to the parents in accordance with paragraph (a)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessment and evaluation</I>—(i) <I>Assessments and evaluations.</I> The assessment and evaluation of each infant and toddler must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be conducted by a multidisciplinary team.
</P>
<P>(B) Include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A review of records related to the infant's or toddler's current health status and medical history.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An assessment of the infant's or toddler's needs for EIS based on personal observation of the child by qualified personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An evaluation of the infant's or toddler's level of functioning in each of the following developmental areas, including a multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of the child and the identification of services appropriate to meet those needs.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Cognitive development.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Physical development, including functional vision and hearing.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Communication development.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Social or emotional development.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Adaptive development.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Informed clinical opinion of qualified personnel if the infant or toddler does not qualify based on standardized testing and there is probable need for services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Family assessments.</I> (A) Family assessments must include consultation with the family members.
</P>
<P>(B) If EDIS conducts an assessment of the family, the assessment must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Be voluntary on the part of the family.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be conducted by personnel trained to utilize appropriate methods and procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Be based on information provided by the family through a personal interview.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Incorporate the family's description of its resources, priorities, and concerns related to enhancing the infant's or toddler's development and the identification of the supports and services necessary to enhance the family's capacity to meet the developmental needs of the infant or toddler.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Standards for Assessment Selection and Procedures.</I> EDIS shall ensure, at a minimum, that:
</P>
<P>(A) Evaluators administer tests and other evaluations in the native language of the infant or toddler, or the family's native language, or other mode of communication, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so.
</P>
<P>(B) Assessment, evaluation procedures, and materials are selected and administered so as not to be racially or culturally discriminatory.
</P>
<P>(C) No single procedure is used as the sole criterion for determining an infant's or toddler's eligibility under this part.
</P>
<P>(D) Qualified personnel conduct evaluations and assessments.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Delivery of Intervention Services.</I> With parental consent, the delivery of intervention services may begin before the completion of the assessment and evaluation when it has been determined by a multidisciplinary team that the infant or toddler or the infant's or toddler's family needs the service immediately. Although EDIS has not completed all assessments, EDIS must develop an IFSP before the start of services and complete the remaining assessments in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligibility.</I> (i) The EDIS team shall meet with the parents and determine eligibility. The EIS team shall document the basis for eligibility in an eligibility report and provide a copy to the parents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Infants and toddlers from birth up to 3 years of age with disabilities are eligible for EIS if they meet one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The infant or toddler is experiencing a developmental delay in one or more of the following areas: Physical development; cognitive development; communication development; social or emotional development; or adaptive development, as verified by a developmental delay of two standard deviations below the mean as measured by diagnostic instruments and procedures in at least one area; a 25 percent delay in at least one developmental area on assessment instruments that yield scores in months; a developmental delay of 1.5 standard deviations below the mean as measured by diagnostic instruments and procedures in two or more areas; or a 20 percent delay in two or more developmental areas on assessment instruments that yield scores in months.
</P>
<P>(B) The infant or toddler has a diagnosed physical or mental condition that has a high probability of resulting in developmental delay. Includes conditions such as, chromosomal abnormalities; genetic or congenital disorders; severe sensory impairments; inborn errors of metabolism; disorders reflecting disturbance of the development of the nervous system; congenital infections; and disorders secondary to exposure to toxic substances, including fetal alcohol syndrome.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Timelines.</I> (i) EIS shall complete the initial evaluation and assessment of each infant and toddler (including the family assessment) in a timely manner ensuring that the timeline in paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section is met.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Military Department responsible for providing EIS shall develop procedures requiring that, if circumstances make it impossible to complete the evaluation and assessment within a timely manner (e.g., if an infant or toddler is ill), EDIS shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Document those circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) Develop and implement an appropriate interim IFSP in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>IFSP.</I> (i) The EDIS shall develop and implement an IFSP for each infant and toddler with a disability, from birth up to 3 years of age, who meets the eligibility criteria for EIS.
</P>
<P>(ii) EDIS shall convene a meeting to develop the IFSP of an infant or toddler with a disability. The meeting shall be scheduled as soon as possible following its determination that the infant or toddler is eligible for EIS, but not later than 45 days from the date of the referral for services.
</P>
<P>(iii) The IFSP team meeting to develop and review the IFSP must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The parent or parents of the infant or toddler.
</P>
<P>(B) Other family members, as requested by the parent, if feasible.
</P>
<P>(C) An advocate or person outside of the family if the parent requests that person's participation.
</P>
<P>(D) The service coordinator who has worked with the family since the initial referral of the infant or toddler or who is responsible for the implementation of the IFSP.
</P>
<P>(E) The persons directly involved in conducting the evaluations and assessments.
</P>
<P>(F) As appropriate, persons who shall provide services to the infant or toddler or the family.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a participant listed in paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section is unable to attend a meeting, arrangements must be made for the person's involvement through other means, which may include:
</P>
<P>(A) A telephone conference call or other electronic means of communication.
</P>
<P>(B) Providing knowledgeable, authorized representation.
</P>
<P>(C) Providing pertinent records for use at the meeting.
</P>
<P>(v) The IFSP shall contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the infant's or toddler's current developmental levels including physical, cognitive, communication, social or emotional, and adaptive behaviors based on the information from the evaluation and assessments.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the family's resources, priorities, and concerns about enhancing the infant's or toddler's development.
</P>
<P>(C) A statement of the measurable results or measurable outcomes expected to be achieved for the infant or toddler and the family. The statement shall contain pre-literacy and language skills, as developmentally appropriate for the infant or toddler, and the criteria, procedures, and timelines used to determine the degree to which progress toward achieving the outcomes is being made and whether modification or revision of the results and services are necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of the specific EIS based on peer-reviewed research, to the extent practicable, necessary to meet the unique needs of the infant or toddler and the family, including the frequency, intensity, and method of delivering services.
</P>
<P>(E) A statement of the natural environments in which EIS will be provided including a justification of the extent, if any, to which the services shall not be provided in a natural environment because the intervention cannot be achieved satisfactorily for the infant or toddler. The IFSP must include a justification for not providing a particular early intervention service in the natural environment.
</P>
<P>(F) The projected dates for initiation of services and the anticipated length, duration, and frequency of those services.
</P>
<P>(G) The name of the service coordinator who shall be responsible for the implementation of the IFSP and for coordination with other agencies and persons. In meeting these requirements, EDIS may:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Assign the same service coordinator appointed at the infant or toddler's initial referral for evaluation to implement the IFSP;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Appoint a new service coordinator; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Appoint a service coordinator requested by the parents.
</P>
<P>(H) A description of the appropriate transition services supporting the movement of the toddler with a disability to preschool or other services.
</P>
<P>(vi) EDIS shall explain the contents of the IFSP to the parents and shall obtain an informed, written consent from the parents before providing EIS described in the IFSP.
</P>
<P>(vii) The IFSP shall be implemented within ten business days of completing the document, unless the IFSP team, including the parents, documents the need for a delay.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a parent does not provide consent for participation in all EIS, EDIS shall still provide those interventions to which a parent does give consent.
</P>
<P>(ix) EDIS shall evaluate the IFSP at least once a year and the family shall be provided an opportunity to review the plan at 6-month intervals (or more frequently, based on the needs of the child and family). The purpose of the periodic review is to determine:
</P>
<P>(A) The degree to which progress toward achieving the outcomes is being made.
</P>
<P>(B) Whether modification or revision of the outcomes or services is necessary.
</P>
<P>(x) The review may be carried out by a meeting or by another means that is acceptable to the parents and other participants.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Transition from early intervention services.</I> (i) EDIS shall provide a written transition plan for toddlers receiving EIS to facilitate their transition to preschool or other setting, if appropriate. A transition plan must be recorded on the IFSP between the toddler's second and third birthday and not later than 90 days before the toddler's third birthday and shall include the following steps to be taken:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for discussions with, and training of, parents, as appropriate, regarding future transition from early intervention services, and for obtaining parental consent to facilitate the release of toddler records in order to meet child-find requirements of DoDEA, and to ensure smooth transition of services;
</P>
<P>(B) The specific steps to be taken to help the toddler adjust to, and function in, the preschool or other setting and changes in service delivery;
</P>
<P>(C) The procedures for providing notice of transition to the DoDEA CSC, for setting a pre-transition meeting with the CSC (with notice to parents), and for confirmation that child-find information, early intervention assessment reports, the IFSP, and relevant supporting documentation are transmitted to the DoDEA CSC;
</P>
<P>(D) Identification of transition services or other activities that the IFSP team determines are necessary to support the transition of the child.
</P>
<P>(ii) Families shall be included in the transition planning. EDIS shall inform the toddler's parents regarding future preschool, the child-find requirements of the school, and the procedures for transitioning the toddler from EIS to preschool.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not later than 6 months before the toddler's third birthday, the EDIS service coordinator shall obtain parental consent prior to release of identified records of a toddler receiving EIS to the DoD local school in order to allow the DoDEA school to meet child-find requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) The EDIS service coordinator shall initiate a pre-transition meeting with the CSC, and shall provide the toddler's early intervention assessment reports, IFSP, and relevant supporting documentation. The parent shall receive reasonable notice of the pre-transition meeting, shall receive copies of any documents provided to the CSC, and shall have the right to participate in and provide input to the pre-transition meeting.
</P>
<P>(v) As soon as reasonably possible following receipt of notice of a toddler potentially transitioning to preschool, the local DoDEA school shall convene a CSC. The CSC and EDIS shall cooperate to obtain parental consent, in accordance with IDEA and this part, to conduct additional evaluations if necessary.
</P>
<P>(vi) Based on the information received from EDIS, the CSC, coordinating with EDIS, will determine at the pre-transition meeting whether:
</P>
<P>(A) No additional testing or observation is necessary to determine that the toddler is eligible for special education and related services, in which case the CSC shall develop an eligibility report based on the EDIS early intervention assessment reports, IFSP, supporting documentation and other information obtained at the pre-transition meeting, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Additional testing or observation is necessary to determine whether the toddler is eligible for special education and related services, in which case the CSC shall develop an assessment plan to collect all required information necessary to determine eligibility for special education and obtain parental consent, in accordance with IDEA and this part, for evaluation in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) In the event that the toddler is first referred to EDIS fewer than 90 days before the toddler's third birthday, EDIS and the DoDEA school shall work cooperatively in the evaluation process and shall develop a joint assessment plan to determine whether the toddler is eligible for EIS or special education.
</P>
<P>(A) EDIS shall complete its eligibility determination process and the development of an IFSP, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) The CSC shall determine eligibility for special education.
</P>
<P>(viii) Eligibility assessments shall be multidisciplinary and family-centered and shall incorporate the resources of the EDIS as necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ix) Upon completion of the evaluations, the CSC shall schedule an eligibility determination meeting at the local school, no later than 90 days prior to the toddler's third birthday.
</P>
<P>(A) The parents shall receive reasonable notice of the eligibility determination meeting, shall receive copies of any documents provided to the CSC, and shall have the right to participate in and provide input to the meeting.
</P>
<P>(B) EDIS and the CSC shall cooperate to develop an eligibility determination report based upon all available data, including that provided by EDIS and the parents, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) If the toddler is found eligible for special education and related services, the CSC shall develop an individualized education program (IEP) in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, and must implement the IEP on or before the toddler's third birthday.
</P>
<P>(xi) If the toddler's third birthday occurs during the period June through August (the traditional summer vacation period for school systems), the CSC shall complete the eligibility determination process and the development of an IEP before the end of the school year preceding the toddler's third birthday. An IEP must be prepared to ensure that the toddler enters preschool services with an instructional program at the start of the new school year.
</P>
<P>(xii) The full transition of a toddler shall occur on the toddler's third birthday unless the IFSP team and the CSC determine that an extended transition is in the best interest of the toddler and family.
</P>
<P>(A) An extended transition may occur when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The toddler's third birthday falls within the last 6 weeks of the school year;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The family is scheduled to have a permanent change of station (PCS) within 6 weeks after a toddler's third birthday; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The toddler's third birthday occurs after the end of the school year and before October 1.
</P>
<P>(B) An extended transition may occur if the IFSP team and the CSC determine that extended EIS beyond the toddler's third birthday are necessary and appropriate, and if so, how long extended services will be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The IFSP team, including the parents, may decide to continue services in accordance with the IFSP until the end of the school year, PCS date, or until the beginning of the next school year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Extended services must be delivered in accordance with the toddler's IFSP, which shall be updated if the toddler's or family's needs change on or before the toddler's third birthday.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The CSC shall maintain in its records meeting minutes that reflect the decision for EDIS to provide an extended transition for the specified period.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Prior to the end of the extended transition period, the CSC shall meet to develop an IEP that shall identify all special education and related services that will begin at the end of the transition period and meet all requirements of the IDEA and this part, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The IFSP team and the CSC may jointly determine that the toddler should receive services in the special education preschool prior to the toddler's third birthday.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If only a portion of the child's services will be provided by the DoDEA school, the information shall be identified in the IFSP, which shall also specify responsibilities for service coordination and transition planning. The CSC shall develop an IEP that shall identify all services to be delivered at the school, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If all the toddler's services will be provided by the DoDEA school, the services will be delivered pursuant to an IEP developed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Transition activities and other services under the IFSP will terminate with the toddler's entry into the special education preschool.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Early entry into preschool services should occur only in exceptional circumstances (e.g., to facilitate natural transitions).
</P>
<P>(xiii) In the case of a child who may not be eligible for DoDEA preschool special education services, with the approval of the parents, EDIS shall make reasonable efforts to convene a conference among EDIS, the family, and providers of other services for children who are not eligible for special education preschool services (e.g., community preschools) in order to explain the basis for this conclusion to the parents and obtain parental input.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> (i) EDIS officials shall maintain all EIS records, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(ii) EIS records, including the IFSP and the documentation of services delivered in accordance with the IFSP, are educational records consistent with 32 CFR part 285 and shall not be placed in the child's medical record.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Procedural safeguards.</I> (i) Parents of an infant or toddler who is eligible for EIS shall be afforded specific procedural safeguards that must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The right to confidentiality of personally identifiable information in accordance with 32 CFR part 310, including the right of a parent to receive written notice and give written consent to the exchange of information between the Department of Defense and outside agencies in accordance with Federal law and 32 CFR part 310 and 32 CFR part 285.
</P>
<P>(B) The opportunity to inspect and review records relating to screening, evaluations and assessments, eligibility determinations, development and implementation of IFSPs.
</P>
<P>(C) The right to determine whether they or other family members will accept or decline any EIS, and to decline such a service after first accepting it without jeopardizing the provision of other EIS.
</P>
<P>(D) The right to written parental consent.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Consent must be obtained before evaluation of the infant or toddler in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Consent must be obtained before initiation of EIS in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If consent is not given, EDIS shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the parent:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Is fully aware of the nature of the evaluation and assessment or the services that would be available.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Understands that the infant or toddler will not be able to receive the evaluation and assessment or services unless consent is given.
</P>
<P>(E) The right to prior written notice.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prior written notice must be given to the parents of an infant or toddler entitled to EIS a reasonable time before EDIS proposes to initiate or change, or refuses to initiate or change the identification, evaluation, or placement of the infant or toddler, or the provision of appropriate EIS to the infant or toddler and any family member.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The notice must be in sufficient detail to inform the parents about:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The action that is being proposed or refused.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The reasons for taking the action.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Each of the procedural safeguards that are available in accordance with this section, including availability of mediation, administrative complaint procedures, and due process complaint procedures that are available for dispute resolution as described in paragraph (d) of this section, including descriptions of how to file a complaint and the applicable timelines.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The notice must be provided in language written for a general lay audience and in the native language of the parent or other mode of communication used by the parent, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so.
</P>
<P>(F) The right to timely administrative resolution of complaints.
</P>
<P>(G) The availability of dispute resolution with respect to any matter relating to the provision of EIS to an infant or toddler, through the administrative complaint, mediation and due process procedures described in paragraph (d) of this section, except the requirement to conduct a resolution meeting, in the event of a dispute between the Military Department concerned and the parents regarding EIS.
</P>
<P>(H) Any party aggrieved by the decision regarding a due process complaint filed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section shall have the right to bring a civil action in a district court of the United States of competent jurisdiction without regard to the amount in controversy.
</P>
<P>(ii) During the pendency of any proceeding or action involving a complaint by the parent of an infant or toddler with a disability relating to the provision of EIS, unless the parent and EDIS otherwise agree, the infant or toddler shall continue to receive the appropriate EIS currently being provided under the most recent signed IFSP or, if applying for initial EIS services, shall receive the services not in dispute.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Mediation and due process procedures.</I> Mediation and due process procedures, described in paragraph (d) of this section, except the requirement to conduct a resolution meeting, are applicable to early intervention when the Military Department concerned and the parents will be the parties in the dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for the provision of educational programs and services for children with disabilities, ages 3 through 21 years, inclusive</I>—(1) <I>Parent involvement and general provisions.</I> (i) The CSC shall take reasonable steps to provide for the participation of the parent(s) in the special education program of his or her child. School officials shall use devices or hire interpreters or other intermediaries who might be necessary to foster effective communications between the school and the parent about the child. Special education parental rights and responsibilities will be provided in the parent's native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, e.g., low incidence language or not a written language.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSC shall afford the child's parents the opportunity to participate in CSC meetings to determine their child's initial or continuing eligibility for special education and related services, to prepare or change the child's IEP, or to determine or change the child's placement.
</P>
<P>(iii) No child shall be required to obtain a prescription for a substance covered by the Controlled Substances Act, as amended, 21 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I> as a condition of attending school, receiving an evaluation, or receiving services.
</P>
<P>(iv) For meetings described in this section, the parent of a child with a disability and the DoDEA school officials may agree to use alternative means of meeting participation, such as video conferences and conference calls.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification and referral.</I> (i) DoDEA shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Engage in child-find activities to locate, identify, and screen all children who are entitled to enroll in DDESS in accordance with DoD Instruction 1342.26, “Eligibility Requirements for Minor Dependents to Attend Department of Defense Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134226p.pdf</I>) or in DoDDS in accordance with DoDEA Regulation 1342.13, “Eligibility Requirements for Education of Elementary and Secondary School-Age Dependents in Overseas Areas” (available at <I>http://www.dodea.edu/foia/iod/pdf/1342_13.pdf</I>) who may require special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(B) Cooperate with the Military Departments to conduct ongoing child-find activities and periodically publish any information, guidelines, and directions on child-find activities for eligible children with disabilities, ages 3 through 21 years, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct the following activities to determine if children may need special education and related services:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Review school records for information about student performance on system-wide testing and other basic skills tests in the areas of reading and language arts and mathematics.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Review school health data such as reports of hearing, vision, speech, or language tests and reports from healthcare personnel about the health status of a child. For children with disabilities, any health records or other information that tends to identify a child as a person with a disability must be maintained in confidential files that are not co-mingled with other records and that are available only to essential staff for the purpose of providing effective education and services to the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Review school discipline records and maintain the confidentiality of such records and any information that tends to identify a child as a person with a disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Participate in transition activities of children receiving EIS who may require special education preschool services.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoDEA school system officials, related service providers, or others who suspect that a child has a possible disabling condition shall submit a child-find referral to the CSC containing, at a minimum, the name and contact information for the child and the reason for the referral.
</P>
<P>(iii) The screening of a student by a teacher or specialist to determine appropriate instructional strategies for curriculum implementation shall not be considered to be an evaluation for eligibility for special education and related services and does not require informed consent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Incoming students.</I> The DoDEA school will take the following actions, in consultation with the parent, when a child transfers to a DoDEA school with an active IEP:
</P>
<P>(i) If the current IEP is from a non-DoDEA school:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly obtain the child's educational records including information regarding assessment, eligibility, and provision of special education and related services from the previous school.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide FAPE, including services comparable (<I>i.e.,</I> similar or equivalent) to those described in the incoming IEP, which could include extended school year services, in consultation with the parents, until the CSC:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Conducts an evaluation, if determined necessary by such agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Develops, adopts, and implements a new IEP, if appropriate, in accordance with the requirements of the IDEA and this part within 30 school days of receipt of the IEP.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the current IEP is from a DoDEA school, the new school must provide the child a FAPE, including services comparable to those described in the incoming IEP, until the new school either:
</P>
<P>(A) Adopts the child's IEP from the previous DoDEA school; or
</P>
<P>(B) Develops, adopts, and implements a new IEP that meets the requirements of the IDEA and this part within 30 school days of receipt of the incoming IEP.
</P>
<P>(iii) Coordinate assessments of children with disabilities who transfer with the child's previous school as quickly as possible to facilitate prompt completion of full evaluations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Referral by a parent.</I> A parent may submit a request for an evaluation if they suspect their child has a disability. The CSC shall ensure any such request is placed in writing and signed by the requesting parent and shall, within 15 school days, review the request and any information provided by the parents regarding their concerns, confer with the child's teachers, and gather information related to the educational concerns. Following a review of the information, the CSC shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Convene a conference among the parents, teachers, and one or more other members of the CSC to discuss the educational concerns and document their agreements. Following the discussion, the parents may agree that:
</P>
<P>(A) The child's needs are not indicative of a suspected disability and other supports and accommodations will be pursued;
</P>
<P>(B) Additional information is necessary and a pre-referral process will be initiated; or
</P>
<P>(C) Information from the conference will be forwarded to the CSC for action on the parent's request for an evaluation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 10 school days of receipt of information from the conference regarding the parents' request for evaluation, agree to initiate the preparation of an assessment plan for a full and comprehensive educational evaluation or provide written notice to the parent denying the formal evaluation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Referral by a teacher.</I> (i) Prior to referring a child who is struggling academically or behaviorally to the CSC for assessment and evaluation and development of an IEP, the teacher shall identify the child's areas of specific instructional need and target instructional interventions to those needs using scientific, research-based interventions as soon as the areas of need become apparent.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the area of specific instructional need is not resolved, the teacher shall initiate the pre-referral process involving other members of the school staff.
</P>
<P>(iii) If interventions conducted during pre-referral fail to resolve the area of specific instructional need, the teacher shall submit a formal referral to the CSC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assessment and evaluation.</I> (i) A full and comprehensive evaluation of educational needs shall be conducted prior to eligibility determination and before an IEP is developed or placement is made in a special education program, subject to the provisions for incoming students transferring to a DoDEA school as set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. When the school determines that a child should be evaluated for a suspected disability, the school will:
</P>
<P>(A) Issue a prior written notice to the parents of the school's intention to evaluate and a description of the evaluation in accordance with paragraph (b)(19) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide parents notice of procedural safeguards.
</P>
<P>(C) Request that the parent execute a written consent for the evaluation in accordance with paragraph (b)(17) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Make reasonable efforts to obtain the informed consent from the parent for an initial evaluation to determine whether the child is a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSC shall ensure that the following elements are included in a full and comprehensive assessment and evaluation of a child:
</P>
<P>(A) Screening of visual and auditory acuity.
</P>
<P>(B) Review of existing school educational and health records.
</P>
<P>(C) Observation in an educational environment.
</P>
<P>(D) A plan to assess the type and extent of the disability. A child shall be assessed in all areas related to the suspected disability. The assessment plan shall include, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An assessment of the nature and level of communication and the level of functioning academically, intellectually, emotionally, socially, and in the family.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An assessment of physical status including perceptual and motor abilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An assessment of the need for transition services for students 16 years and older.
</P>
<P>(iii) The CSC shall involve the parents in the assessment process in order to obtain information about the child's strengths and needs and family concerns.
</P>
<P>(iv) The CSC, where possible, shall conduct the evaluations in the geographic area where the child resides, and shall use all locally available community, medical, and school resources, including qualified examiners employed by the Military Departments, to accomplish the assessment and evaluation. At least one specialist with knowledge in each area of the suspected disability shall be a member of the multidisciplinary assessment team.
</P>
<P>(v) The CSC must obtain parental consent, in accordance with IDEA and this part, before conducting an evaluation. The parent shall not be required to give consent for an evaluation without first being informed of the specific evaluation procedures that the school proposes to conduct.
</P>
<P>(vi) The evaluation must be completed by the school within 45 school days following the receipt of the parent's written consent to evaluate in accordance with the school's assessment plan.
</P>
<P>(vii) The eligibility determination meeting must be conducted within 10 school days after completion of the school's formal evaluation.
</P>
<P>(viii) All DoD elements including the CSC and related services providers shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Use a variety of assessment tools and strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental, and academic information, including information provided by the parent, which may assist in determining:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the child has a disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The content of the child's IEP, including information related to enabling the child to be involved and progress in the general education curriculum or, for preschool children, to participate in appropriate activities.
</P>
<P>(B) Not use any single measure or assessment as the sole criterion for determining whether a child has a disability or determining an appropriate educational program for the child.
</P>
<P>(C) Use technically sound instruments that may assess the relative contribution of cognitive and behavioral factors, in addition to physical or developmental factors.
</P>
<P>(ix) The CSC and DoD related services providers shall ensure that assessment materials and evaluation procedures are:
</P>
<P>(A) Selected and administered so as not to be racially or culturally discriminatory.
</P>
<P>(B) Provided in the child's native language or other mode of communication and in the form most likely to yield accurate information on what the child knows and can do academically, developmentally, and functionally, unless it is clearly not feasible to so provide and administer.
</P>
<P>(C) Selected and administered to assess the extent to which the child with limited English proficiency has a disability and needs special education, rather than measuring the child's English language skills.
</P>
<P>(D) Validated for the specific purpose for which they are used or intended to be used.
</P>
<P>(E) Administered by trained and knowledgeable personnel in compliance with the instructions of the testing instrument.
</P>
<P>(F) Selected to assess specific areas of educational needs and strengths and not merely to provide a single general intelligence quotient.
</P>
<P>(G) Administered to a child with impaired sensory, motor, or communication skills so that the results accurately reflect a child's aptitude or achievement level or other factors the test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the child's impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills.
</P>
<P>(x) As part of an initial evaluation and as part of any reevaluation, the CSC shall review existing evaluation data on the child, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The child's educational records.
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluations and information provided by the parents of the child.
</P>
<P>(C) Current classroom-based, local, or system-wide assessments and classroom observations.
</P>
<P>(D) Observations by teachers and related services providers.
</P>
<P>(xi) On the basis of that review and input from the child's parents, identify what additional data, if any, are needed to determine:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the child has a particular category of disability or, in the case of a reevaluation of a child, whether the child continues to have such a disability.
</P>
<P>(B) The present levels of academic achievement and related developmental and functional needs of the child.
</P>
<P>(C) Whether the child needs special education and related services or, in the case of a reevaluation of a child, whether the child continues to need special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(D) Whether any additions or modifications to the special education and related services are needed to enable the child to meet the measurable annual goals set out in the IEP and to participate, as appropriate, in the general education curriculum.
</P>
<P>(xii) The CSC may conduct its review of existing evaluation data without a meeting.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The CSC shall administer tests and other evaluation materials as needed to produce the data identified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) and (xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Eligibility.</I> (i) The CSC shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Require that the full comprehensive evaluation of a child is accomplished by a multidisciplinary team including specialists with knowledge in each area of the suspected disability and shall receive input from the child's parent(s).
</P>
<P>(B) Convene a meeting to determine eligibility of a child for special education and related services not later than 10 school days after the child has been assessed by the school.
</P>
<P>(C) Afford the child's parents the opportunity to participate in the CSC eligibility meeting.
</P>
<P>(D) Determine whether the child is a child with a disability as defined by the IDEA and this part, and the educational needs of the child.
</P>
<P>(E) Issue a written eligibility determination report, including a synthesis of evaluation findings, that documents a child's primary eligibility in one of the disability categories described in paragraph (g) of this section, providing a copy of the eligibility determination report to the parent.
</P>
<P>(F) Determine that a child does NOT have a disability if the determinant factor is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Lack of appropriate instruction in essential components of reading;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Lack of instruction in mathematics; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Limited English proficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSC shall reevaluate the eligibility of a child with a disability every 3 years, or more frequently, if the child's educational or related services needs, including improved academic achievement and functional performance, warrant a reevaluation. School officials shall not reevaluate more often than once a year, unless the parents and the school officials agree otherwise.
</P>
<P>(A) The scope and type of the reevaluation shall be determined individually based on a child's performance, behavior, and needs during the reevaluation and the review of existing data.
</P>
<P>(B) If the CSC determines that no additional data are needed to determine whether the child continues to be a child with a disability, the CSC shall, in accordance with paragraph (b)(19) of this section, provide prior written notice to the child's parents of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The determination that no additional assessment data are needed and the reasons for their determination.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The right of the parents to request an assessment to determine whether the child continues to have a disability and to determine the child's educational needs.
</P>
<P>(C) The CSC is not required to conduct assessments for the purposes described in paragraph § 57.6(b)(7)(ii)(B), unless requested to do so by the child's parents.
</P>
<P>(iii) The CSC shall evaluate a child in accordance with paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section before determining that the child no longer has a disability.
</P>
<P>(iv) The CSC is not required to evaluate a child before the termination of the child's eligibility due to graduation from secondary school with a regular diploma, or due to exceeding the age of eligibility for FAPE.
</P>
<P>(v) When a child's eligibility has terminated due to graduation or exceeding the age of eligibility, the DoDEA school must provide the child, or the parent if the child has not yet reached the age of majority or is otherwise incapable of providing informed consent, with a summary of the child's academic achievement and functional performance.
</P>
<P>(A) The summary of performance must be completed during the final year of a child's high school education.
</P>
<P>(B) The summary must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Child's demographics.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Child's postsecondary goal.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Summary of performance in the areas of academic, cognitive, and functional levels of performance to include the child's present level of performance, and the accommodations, modifications, and assistive technology that were essential in high school to assist the student in achieving maximum progress.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Recommendations on how to assist the child in meeting the child's post-secondary goals.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>IEP</I>—(i) <I>IEP development.</I> (A) DoDEA shall ensure that the CSC develops and implements an IEP to provide FAPE for each child with a disability who requires special education and related services as determined by the CSC. An IEP shall be in effect at the beginning of each school year for each child with a disability eligible for special education and related services under the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(B) In developing the child's IEP, the CSC shall consider:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The strengths of the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The concerns of the parents for enhancing the education of their child.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The results of the initial evaluation or most recent evaluation of the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The academic, developmental, and functional needs of the child.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>IEP development meeting.</I> The CSC shall convene a meeting to develop the IEP of a child with a disability. The meeting shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be scheduled within 10 school days from the eligibility meeting following a determination by the CSC that the child is eligible for special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(B) Include as participants:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An administrator or school representative other than the child's teacher who is qualified to provide or supervise the provision of special education and is knowledgeable about the general education curriculum and available resources.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not less than one general education teacher of the child (if the child is, or may be, participating in the general education environment).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Not less than one special education teacher or, where appropriate, not less than one special education provider of such child.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The child's parents.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) An EIS coordinator or other representative of EIS, if the child is transitioning from EIS.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The child, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A representative of the evaluation team who is knowledgeable about the evaluation procedures used and can interpret the instructional implications of the results of the evaluation.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Other individuals invited at the discretion of the parents or school who have knowledge or special expertise regarding the child or the IDEA, including related services personnel, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>IEP content.</I> The CSC shall include in the IEP:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the child's present levels of academic achievement and functional performance including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) How the child's disability affects involvement and progress in the general education curriculum, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For preschoolers, how the disability affects participation in appropriate activities.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For children with disabilities who take an alternate assessment, a description of short-term objectives.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of measurable annual goals including academic and functional goals designed to meet:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The child's needs that result from the disability to enable the child to be involved in and make progress in the general education curriculum.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each of the child's other educational needs resulting from his or her disability.
</P>
<P>(C) A description of how the child's progress toward meeting the annual goals shall be measured, and when periodic progress reports will be provided to the parents.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of the special education and related services, supplementary aids and services (which are based on peer-reviewed research to the extent practicable and shall be provided to the child or on behalf of the child), and a statement of the program modifications or supports for school personnel that shall be provided for the child to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Advance appropriately toward attaining the annual goals.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be involved in and make progress in the general education curriculum and participate in extracurricular and other non-academic activities.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Be educated and participate with other children who may or may not have disabilities.
</P>
<P>(E) An explanation of the extent, if any, to which the child will not participate with non-disabled children in the regular class and in non-academic activities.
</P>
<P>(F) A statement of any individualized appropriate accommodations necessary to measure the child's academic achievement and functional performance on system-wide or district-wide assessments. If the CSC determines that the child shall take an alternate assessment of a particular system-wide or district-wide assessment of student achievement (or part of an assessment), a statement of why:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The child cannot participate in the regular assessment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The particular alternate assessment selected is appropriate for the child.
</P>
<P>(G) Consideration of the following special factors:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Assistive technology devices and services for all children.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Language needs for the child with limited English proficiency.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Instruction in Braille and the use of Braille for a child who is blind or visually impaired, unless the CSC determines, after an evaluation of the child's reading and writing skills, needs, and appropriate reading and writing media (including an evaluation of the child's future needs for instruction in Braille or the use of Braille) that instruction in Braille or the use of Braille is not appropriate for the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Interventions, strategies, and supports including positive behavioral interventions and supports to address behavior for a child whose behavior impedes his or her learning or that of others.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Language and communication needs, and in the case of a child who is deaf or hard of hearing, opportunities for direct communications with peers and professional personnel in the child's language and communication mode, academic level, and full range of needs, including opportunities for direct instruction in the child's communication mode.
</P>
<P>(H) A statement of the amount of time that each service shall be provided to the child, including the date for beginning of services and the anticipated frequency, number of required related services sessions to be provided by EDIS, location and duration of those services (including adjusted school day or an extended school year), and modifications.
</P>
<P>(I) A statement of special transportation requirements, if any.
</P>
<P>(J) Physical education services, specially designed if necessary, shall be made available to every child with a disability receiving a FAPE. Each child with a disability must be afforded the opportunity to participate in the regular physical education program available to non-disabled children unless the child is enrolled full-time in a separate facility or needs specially designed physical education, as prescribed in the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transition services.</I> (A) Beginning not later than the first IEP to be in effect when the child turns 16, or younger if determined appropriate by the CSC, and updated annually, thereafter, the IEP must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Appropriate measurable postsecondary goals based on age-appropriate transition assessments related to training, education, employment and, where appropriate, independent living skills.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The transition services, including courses of study, needed to assist the child in reaching postsecondary goals.
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning at least 1 year before the child reaches the age of majority (18 years of age), except for a child with a disability who has been determined to be incompetent in accordance with Federal or State law, a statement that the child has been informed of those rights that transfer to him or her in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Implementation of the IEP.</I> (i) The CSC shall ensure that all IEP provisions developed for any child entitled to an education by the DoDEA school system are fully implemented.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSC shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Seek to obtain parental agreement and signature on the IEP before delivery of special education and related services in accordance with that IEP is begun.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide a copy of the child's IEP to the parents.
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that the IEP is implemented as soon as possible following the IEP development meeting.
</P>
<P>(D) Ensure the provision of special education and related services, in accordance with the IEP.
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure that the child's IEP is accessible to each general education teacher, special education teacher, related service provider, and any other service provider who is responsible for its implementation, and that each teacher and provider is informed of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) His or her specific responsibilities related to implementing the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The specific accommodations, modifications, and supports that must be provided for the child in accordance with the IEP.
</P>
<P>(F) Review the IEP for each child periodically and at least annually in a CSC meeting to determine whether the child has been progressing toward the annual goals.
</P>
<P>(G) Revise the IEP, as appropriate, and address:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any lack of progress toward the annual goals and in the general education curriculum, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The results of any reevaluation.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information about the child provided by the parents, teachers, or related service providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The child's needs.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Placement and Least Restrictive Environment (LRE).</I> (i) The CSC shall determine the educational placement of a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The educational placement decision for a child with a disability shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Determined at least annually.
</P>
<P>(B) Made in conformity with the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(C) Made in conformity with the requirements of IDEA and this part for LRE.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A child with a disability shall be educated, to the maximum extent appropriate, with children who are not disabled.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A child with a disability shall not be removed from education in age-appropriate general education classrooms solely because of needed modifications in the general education classroom.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) As appropriate, the CSC shall make provisions for supplementary services to be provided in conjunction with general education placement.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Special classes, separate schooling, or other removal of a child with a disability from the general education environment shall occur only when the nature or severity of the disability is such that education in general education classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) In providing or arranging for the provision of non-academic and extracurricular services and activities, including meals, recess periods, assemblies, and study trips, the CSC shall ensure that a child with a disability participates with non-disabled children in those services and activities to the maximum extent appropriate to the needs of that child.
</P>
<P>(iv) In determining the LRE for an individual student, the CSC shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Consider the needs of the individual child as well as any potential harmful effect on the child or the quality of services that he or she needs.
</P>
<P>(B) Make a continuum of placement options available to meet the needs of children with disabilities for special education and related services. The options on this continuum include the general education classroom, special classes (a self-contained classroom in the school), home bound instruction, or instruction in hospitals or institutions.
</P>
<P>(v) When special schools and institutions may be appropriate, the CSC shall consider such placement options in coordination with the Area Special Education Office.
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a disciplinary placement, school officials shall follow the procedures set forth in paragraph (b)(13) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Extended School Year (ESY) services.</I> ESY services must be provided only if a child's IEP team determines that the services are necessary for the provision of FAPE to the child. DoDEA may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit ESY services to particular categories of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Unilaterally limit the type, amount, or duration of ESY services.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Discipline</I>—(i) <I>School discipline.</I> All regular disciplinary rules and procedures applicable to children attending a DoDEA school shall apply to children with disabilities who violate school rules and regulations or disrupt regular classroom activities, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) A manifestation determination must be conducted for discipline proposed for children with disabilities in accordance with DoDEA disciplinary rules and regulations and paragraph (b)(12)(v) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) The child subject to disciplinary removal shall continue to receive educational services in accordance with DoD disciplinary rules and regulations and paragraph (b)(12)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change of placement.</I> (A) It is a change of placement if a child is removed from his or her current placement for more than 10 consecutive school days or for a series of removals that cumulates to more than 10 school days during the school year that meets the criteria of paragraph (b)(12)(ii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) It is not a change of placement if a child is removed from his or her current academic placement for not more than 10 consecutive or cumulative days in a school year for one incident of misconduct. A child can be removed from the current educational placement for separate incidents of misconduct in the same school year (as long as those removals do not constitute a change of placement under IDEA) to the extent such a disciplinary alternative is applied to children without disabilities.
</P>
<P>(C) If a child has been removed from his or her current placement for more than 10 days in a school year, but not more than 10 consecutive school days, the CSC shall determine whether the child has been subject to a series of removals that constitute a pattern. The determination is made on a case-by-case basis and is subject to review by a hearing officer in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(5) of this section. The CSC will base its determination on whether the child has been subjected to a series of removals that constitute a pattern by examining whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The child's behavior is substantially similar to his or her behavior in previous incidents that resulted in the series of removals, and;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Additional factors such as the length of each removal, the total amount of time the child has been removed, and the proximity of the removals to one another.
</P>
<P>(D) On the date the decision is made to remove a child with a disability because of misconduct, when the removal would change the child's placement, the school must notify the parents of that decision and provide the parents the procedural safeguards notice described in paragraph (b)(19) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alternate educational setting determination, period of removal.</I> School personnel may remove a child with a disability for misconduct from his or her current placement:
</P>
<P>(A) To an appropriate interim alternate educational setting (AES), another setting, or suspension for not more than 10 consecutive school days to the extent those alternatives are applied to children without disabilities (for example, removing the child from the classroom to the school library, to a different classroom, or to the child's home), and for additional removals of not more than 10 consecutive school days in that same school year for separate incidents of misconduct as long as the CSC has determined that those removals do not constitute a pattern in accordance with paragraphs (b)(12)(ii) and (b)(12)(iv)(C) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) To an AES determined by the CSC for not more than 45 school days, without regard to whether the behavior is determined to be a manifestation of the child's disability, if the child, at school, on school-provided transportation, on school premises, or at a school-sponsored event:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Carries a weapon or possesses a weapon;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Knowingly possesses or uses illegal drugs or sells or solicits the sale of a controlled substance; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has inflicted serious bodily injury upon another person; or
</P>
<P>(C) To an AES determined by the CSC, another setting or suspension for more than 10 school days, where the behavior giving rise to the violation was determined by the CSC not to be a manifestation of the child's disability, in accordance with (b)(12)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) After an expedited hearing if school personnel believe that returning the child to his or her current educational placement is substantially likely to cause injury to the child or to others.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Required services during removal.</I> (A) If a child with a disability is removed from his or her placement for 10 cumulative school days or less in a school year, the school is required only to provide services comparable to the services it provides to a child without disabilities who is similarly removed.
</P>
<P>(B) If a child with a disability is removed from his or her placement for more than 10 school days, where the behavior that gave rise to the violation of the school code is determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(12)(v) of this section not to be a manifestation of the child's disability, or who is removed under paragraph (b)(12)(iii)(B) of this section irrespective of whether the behavior is determined to be a manifestation of the child's disability, the school must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Continue to provide the child with the educational services as identified by the child's IEP as a FAPE so as to enable the child to continue participating in the general education curriculum, although in another setting, and to progress toward meeting the goals set out in the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide, as appropriate, a functional behavioral assessment and behavioral intervention services and modifications designed to address the behavior violation so that it does not recur.
</P>
<P>(C) If a child with a disability has been removed for more than 10 cumulative school days and the current removal is for 10 consecutive school days or less, then the CSC must determine whether the pattern of removals constitutes a change of placement in accordance with paragraph (b)(12)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the CSC determines the pattern of removals is NOT a change of placement, then the CSC must determine the extent to which services are needed to enable the child to continue participating in the general education curriculum, although in another setting, and to progress toward meeting the goals set out in the child's IEP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the CSC determines that the pattern of removals IS a change of placement, then the CSC must conduct a manifestation determination.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Manifestation determination and subsequent action by CSC and school personnel.</I> (A) A principal must give the notice required and convene a manifestation determination meeting with the CSC within 10 school days of recommending, in accordance with DoDEA Regulation 2051.1, a disciplinary action that would remove a child with disabilities for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) More than 10 consecutive school days, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A period in excess of 10 cumulative school days when the child has been subjected to a series of removals that constitute a pattern.
</P>
<P>(B) The manifestation CSC will review all relevant information in the child's file (including the IEP, any teacher observations, and any information provided by the sponsor or parent) and determine whether the misconduct was a manifestation of the child's disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The misconduct must be determined to be a manifestation of the child's disability if it is determined the misconduct:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Was caused by the child's disability or had a direct and substantial relationship to the child's disability; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Was the direct result of the school's failure to implement the IEP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the determination is made that the misconduct was a manifestation of the child's disability, the CSC must:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Conduct a functional behavioral assessment, unless the school conducted a functional behavioral assessment before the behavior that resulted in the change of placement occurred, and implement a behavioral intervention plan for the child; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Review any existing behavioral intervention or disciplinary plan and modify it, as necessary, to address the behavior; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Revise the student's IEP or placement and delivery system to address the school's failure to implement the IEP and to ensure that the student receives services in accordance with the IEP.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Unless the parent and school agree to a change of placement as part of the modification of the behavioral intervention plan, the CSC must return the child to the placement from which the child was removed:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Not later than the end of 10 days of removal; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Not later than the end of 45 consecutive school days, if the student committed a weapon or drug offense or caused serious bodily injury for which the student was removed to an AES.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If the determination is made that the misconduct in question was the direct result of the school's failure to implement the IEP, the school must take immediate steps to remedy those deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If the determination is made that the behavior is NOT a manifestation of the child's disability, school personnel may apply the relevant disciplinary procedures in the same manner and for the same duration as the procedures that would be applied to children without disabilities, and must:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Forward the case and a recommended course of action to the school principal, who may then refer the case to a disciplinary committee for processing.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Reconvene the CSC following a disciplinary decision that would change the student's placement, to identify, if appropriate, an educational setting and delivery system to ensure the child receives services in accordance with the IEP.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Appeals of school decision regarding placement or manifestation determination.</I> (A) The parent of a child with a disability who disagrees with any decision regarding placement or manifestation determination, or a school that believes maintaining the current placement of the child is substantially likely to result in injury to the child or others, may appeal the decision by requesting an expedited due process hearing before a hearing officer by filing a petition in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A hearing officer, appointed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, hears and makes a determination regarding an appeal. In making the determination the hearing officer may:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Return the child with a disability to the placement from which the child was removed if the hearing officer determines that the removal was a violation of the authority of school personnel in accordance with this part or that the child's behavior was a manifestation of the child's disability; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Order a change of placement of the child with a disability to an appropriate interim AES for not more than 45 school days if the hearing officer determines that maintaining the child's current placement is substantially likely to result in injury to the child or to others.
</P>
<P>(C) At the end of the placement in the appropriate AES, the procedures for placement in an AES may be repeated, with the consent of the Area Director, if the school believes that returning the child to the original placement is substantially likely to result in injury to the child or to others.
</P>
<P>(D) When an appeal has been made by either the parent or the school, the child must remain in the interim AES pending the decision of the hearing officer or until the expiration of the specified time period, whichever occurs first, unless the parent and the DoDEA school system agree otherwise.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Children not yet determined eligible for special education.</I> (i) A child who has not been determined to be eligible for special education and related services and who is subject to discipline may assert any of the protections provided for in paragraph (b)(19) of this section if the school had knowledge that the child was a child with a disability before the behavior that precipitated the disciplinary action occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoDEA shall be deemed to have knowledge that a child is a child with a disability if, before the behavior that precipitated the disciplinary action occurred:
</P>
<P>(A) The parent of the child expressed concern in writing to a teacher of the child, the school principal or assistant principal, or the school special education coordinator that the child was in need of special education and related services;
</P>
<P>(B) The child presented an active IEP from another school;
</P>
<P>(C) The parent of the child requested an evaluation of the child; or
</P>
<P>(D) The teacher of the child or other school personnel expressed specific concerns about a pattern of behavior demonstrated by the child directly to the principal or assistant principal, the special education coordinator, or to another teacher of the child.
</P>
<P>(iii) A school is deemed NOT to have knowledge that a child is a child with a disability if:
</P>
<P>(A) The parent of the child has not allowed an evaluation of the child or the parent has revoked consent, in writing, to the delivery of the child's special education and related services, in accordance with this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) The child has been evaluated and determined not to be a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(iv) Conditions that apply if there is no basis of knowledge that the child is a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(A) If a school has no basis of knowledge that a child is a child with a disability prior to taking disciplinary measures against the child, the child may be subjected to the disciplinary measures applied to non-disabled children who engage in comparable behaviors in accordance with paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If a request is made for an evaluation of a child during the time period when the child is subjected to disciplinary measures:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The evaluation must be expedited.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the evaluation is completed, the child remains in his or her then current educational placement, which can include suspension or expulsion without educational services.
</P>
<P>(v) If the child is determined to be a child with a disability, taking into consideration information from the evaluation conducted by the agency and information provided by the parents, the school must provide special education and related services in accordance with an IEP.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Referral to and action by law enforcement and judicial authorities</I>—(i) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing prohibits a school from reporting a crime threatened or committed by a child with a disability to appropriate authorities, or prevents military, host-nation, or State law enforcement and judicial authorities from exercising their responsibilities with regard to the application of Federal, host-nation, and State law to crimes committed or threatened by a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transmittal of records.</I> An agency reporting a crime in accordance with this paragraph may transmit copies of the child's special education and disciplinary records only to the extent that the transmission is in accordance with 32 CFR part 285.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Children with disabilities who are placed in a non-DoDEA school or facility pursuant to an IEP.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Children with disabilities who are eligible to receive a DoDEA school education, but are placed in a non-DoD school or facility by DoDEA because a FAPE cannot be provided by DoD, shall have all the rights of children with disabilities who are enrolled in a DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(ii) A child with a disability may be placed at DoD expense in a non-DoD school or facility only if required by the IEP.
</P>
<P>(iii) DoDEA school officials shall initiate and conduct a meeting to develop an IEP for the child before placement. A representative of the non-DoD school or facility should attend the meeting. If the representative cannot attend, the DoDEA school officials shall communicate in other ways to facilitate participation including individual or conference telephone calls. A valid IEP must document the necessity of the placement in a non-DoD school or facility. The IEP must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be signed by an authorized DoDEA official before it becomes valid.
</P>
<P>(B) Include a determination that the DoDEA school system does not currently have and cannot reasonably create an educational program appropriate to meet the needs of the child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(C) Include a determination that the non-DoD school or facility and its educational program and related services conform to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DoD shall not be required to reimburse the costs of special education and related services if DoDEA made FAPE available in accordance with the requirements of the IDEA and a parent unilaterally places the child in a non-DoD school without the approval of DoDEA.
</P>
<P>(A) Reimbursement may be ordered by a hearing officer if he or she determines that DoDEA had not made FAPE available in a timely manner prior to enrollment in the non-DoDEA school and that the private placement is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) Reimbursement may be reduced or denied:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If, at the most recent CSC meeting that the parents attended prior to removal of the child from the DoDEA school, the parents did not inform the CSC that they were rejecting the placement proposed by the DoDEA school to provide FAPE to their child, including stating their concerns and their intent to enroll their child in non-DoD school at DoD expense.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, at least 10 business days (including for this purpose any holidays that occur on a Monday through Friday) prior to the removal of the child from the DoDEA school, the parents did not give written notice to the school principal or CSC chairperson of the information described in paragraph (b)(15)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If, the CSC informed the parents of its intent to evaluate the child, using the notice requirement described in paragraph (b)(6)(i) and paragraph (b)(19) of this section, but the parents did not make the child available; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Upon a hearing officer finding of unreasonableness with respect to actions taken by the parents.
</P>
<P>(C) Reimbursement may not be reduced or denied for failure to provide the required notice if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The DoDEA school prevented the parent from providing notice;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The parents had not received notification of the requirement that the school provide prior written notice required by paragraph (b)(19) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Compliance would result in physical or emotional harm to the child; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The parents cannot read and write in English.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Confidentiality of the records.</I> The DoDEA school and EDIS officials shall maintain all student records in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Parental consent</I>—(i) <I>Consent requirements.</I> The consent of a parent of a child with a disability or suspected of having a disability shall be obtained before:
</P>
<P>(A) Initiation of formal evaluation procedures to determine whether the child qualifies as a child with a disability and prior to conducting a reevaluation;
</P>
<P>(B) Initial provision of special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consent for initial evaluation.</I> If the parent of a child does not provide consent for an initial evaluation or fails to respond to a request for consent for an initial evaluation, then DoDEA may use the procedures described in paragraph (d) of this section to pursue an evaluation of a child suspected of having a disability.
</P>
<P>(A) Consent to evaluate shall not constitute consent for placement or receipt of special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(B) If a parent declines to give consent for evaluation, DoDEA shall not be in violation of the requirement to conduct child-find, the initial evaluation, or the duties to follow evaluation procedures or make an eligibility determination and write an IEP as prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Consent for reevaluation.</I> The school must seek to obtain parental consent to conduct a reevaluation. If the parent does not provide consent or fails to respond to a request for consent for a reevaluation, then the school may conduct the reevaluation without parental consent if the school can demonstrate that it has made reasonable efforts to obtain parental consent and documented its efforts. The documentation must include a record of the school's attempts in areas such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed records of telephone calls made or attempted and the results of those calls.
</P>
<P>(B) Copies of correspondence sent to the parents and any responses received.
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed records of visits made to the parents' home, place of employment or duty station, and the results of those visits.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Consent for the initial provision of special education and related services.</I> The school that is responsible for making a FAPE available to a child with a disability under this part must seek to obtain informed consent from the parent of such child before providing special education and related services to the child. If the parent refuses initial consent for services, the DoDEA school:
</P>
<P>(A) May not use the procedures described in paragraph (d) of this section (mediation and due process) to obtain agreement or a ruling that the special education and related services recommended by the child's CSC may be provided to the child without parental consent.
</P>
<P>(B) Shall not be considered to be in violation of the requirement to make a FAPE available to the child for its failure to provide those services to the child for which parental consent was requested.
</P>
<P>(C) Shall not be required to convene an IEP meeting or develop an IEP for the child.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Parent revocation of consent for continued special education and related services.</I> (i) Parents may unilaterally withdraw their children from further receipt of all special education and related services by revoking their consent for the continued provision of special education and related services to their children.
</P>
<P>(ii) Parental revocation of consent must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon receiving a written revocation of consent, the DoDEA school must cease the provision of special education and related services and must provide the parents prior written notice before ceasing the provision of services. The notice shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (b)(19) of this section and shall advise the parents:
</P>
<P>(A) Of any changes in educational placement and services that will result from the revocation of consent.
</P>
<P>(B) That the school will terminate special education and related services to the child on a specified date, which shall be within a reasonable time following the delivery of the written notice.
</P>
<P>(C) That DoDEA will not be considered to be in violation of the requirement to make FAPE available to the child because of the failure to provide the child with further special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(D) That the DoDEA school will not be deemed to have knowledge that the child is a child with a disability and the child may be disciplined as a general education student and will not be entitled to the IDEA discipline protections.
</P>
<P>(E) That the parents maintain the right to subsequently request an initial evaluation to determine if the child is a child with a disability who needs special education and related services and that their child will not receive special education and related services until eligibility has been determined.
</P>
<P>(F) That the DoDEA school will not challenge, through mediation or a due process hearing, the revocation of consent to the provision of special education or related services.
</P>
<P>(G) That while the school is not required to convene a CSC meeting or to develop an IEP for further provision of special education and related services, it is willing to convene a CSC meeting upon request of the parent prior to the date that service delivery ceases.
</P>
<P>(iv) Revocation of consent for a particular service:
</P>
<P>(A) Upon receiving a revocation of consent for a particular special education or related service, the DoDEA school must provide the parent prior written notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(19) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If parents disagree with the provision of a particular special education or related service and the school members of the CSC and the parents agree that the child would be provided a FAPE if the child did not receive that service, the child's IEP may be modified to remove the service.
</P>
<P>(C) If the parent and the school members of the CSC disagree as to whether the child would be provided a FAPE if the child did not receive a particular service, the parent may use the mediation or due process procedures under this part to obtain a determination as to whether the service with which the parent disagrees is or is not appropriate to his or her child and whether it is necessary to FAPE, but the school may not cease the provision of a particular service.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Procedural safeguards</I>—(i) <I>Parental rights.</I> Parents of children, ages 3 through 21 inclusive, with disabilities must be afforded procedural safeguards with respect to the provision of FAPE which shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The right to confidentiality of personally identifiable information in accordance with Federal law and DoD regulations.
</P>
<P>(B) The right to examine records and to participate in meetings with respect to assessment, screening, eligibility determinations, and the development and implementation of the IEP.
</P>
<P>(C) The right to furnish or decline consent in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The right to prior written notice when the school proposes to initiate or change, or refuses to initiate or change the identification, evaluation, educational placement, or provision of FAPE to a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A description of the action that is being proposed or refused.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) An explanation of why the agency proposes or refuses to take the action.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A description of each evaluation procedure, assessment, record, or report used as a basis for the proposed or refused action.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A description of the factors that were relevant to the agency's proposal or refusal.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) A description of any other options considered by the CSC and the reasons why those options were rejected.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Each of the procedural safeguards that is available in accordance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Sources for parents to contact to obtain assistance in understanding the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Dispute resolution procedures, including a description of mediation, how to file a complaint, due process hearing procedures, and applicable timelines.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The notice must be provided in language understandable to a lay person and in the native language of the parent or other mode of communication used by the parent, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so.
</P>
<P>(E) The right to obtain an independent educational evaluation (IEE) of the child.
</P>
<P>(F) The right to timely administrative resolution of complaints.
</P>
<P>(G) The availability of dispute resolution through the administrative complaint, mediation, and due process procedures described in paragraph (d) of this section with respect to any matter relating to the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child, or a FAPE for the child, age 3 through 21 years, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(H) The right of any party aggrieved by the decision regarding a due process complaint to bring a civil action in a district court of the United States of competent jurisdiction in accordance with paragraph (d)(21) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedural safeguards notice.</I> A DoDEA school shall not be required to give parents a copy of the procedural safeguards notice more than once a school year, except that a copy must be given to parents upon a request from the parents; upon initial referral for evaluation or parental request for evaluation; and upon receipt of the first due process complaint.
</P>
<P>(A) The procedural safeguards notice must include a full explanation of all of the procedural safeguards available, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Independent evaluation for children (3 through 21 years, inclusive).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Prior written notice.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Parental consent.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Access to educational records.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Dispute resolution procedures together with applicable timelines including:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The availability of mediation.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Procedures for filing a due process complaint and the required time period within which a due process complaint must be filed.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The opportunity for the DoDEA school system to resolve a due process complaint filed by a parent through the resolution process.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Procedures for filing an administrative complaint and for administrative resolution of the issues.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The child's placement during pendency of due process proceedings in accordance with paragraph (d)(18) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Procedures for children (3 through 21 years, inclusive) who are subject to placement in an interim AES.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Requirements for unilateral placement by parents of children in private schools at public expense.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Due process hearings, including requirements for disclosure of evaluation results and recommendations.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) The right to bring a civil action in a district court of the United States in accordance with paragraph (d)(21) of this section, including the time period in which to file such action.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) The possibility of an award of attorney's fees to the prevailing party in certain circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) The procedural safeguards notice must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Written in language understandable to the general public.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provided in the native language of the parent or other mode of communication used by the parent, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so. If the procedural safeguards notice is not translated into the native language of the parent, then the DoDEA school system shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The notice is translated orally or by other means for the parent in his or her native language or other mode of communication.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The parent understands the content of the notice.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) There is written evidence that the requirements above have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Independent Educational Evaluation (IEE)</I>—(A) <I>Obtaining an IEE.</I> The DoDEA school system shall provide to the parents, upon request for an IEE, information about the requirements to meet the DoDEA school system criteria, as set forth in paragraph (b)(19)(iii)(F) of this section, and identification of qualified resources available to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(iii)(F)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Right to IEE.</I> The parents of a child with a disability have a right to an IEE at the DoDEA school system expense if the parent disagrees with an evaluation obtained by the DoDEA school system, subject to paragraph (b)(19)(iii)(C) to (H) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Written request for IEE.</I> If a parent provides the DoDEA school system with a written request for an IEE funded by the school system, then the school system shall either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Agree to fund an appropriate IEE that meets the criteria the DoDEA school system would use for an initial evaluation of a child as set forth in paragraph (b)(19)(iii)(F) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Initiate a due process hearing in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, without unnecessary delay, and demonstrate that its evaluation was appropriate under this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the DoDEA school system initiates a due process hearing and the final decision is that the school system's evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has the right to an IEE, but not at public expense.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If a parent requests an IEE, the DoDEA school system may ask for the parent's reason why he or she objects to the school system's evaluation. However, the parent may not be compelled to provide an explanation and the DoDEA school system may not unreasonably delay either agreeing to fund an IEE that meets DoDEA school system criteria or initiating a due process hearing to defend its evaluation.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Parent-initiated evaluations.</I> If the parent obtains an IEE funded by the school system or shares with the DoDEA school system an evaluation obtained at private expense:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The results of the evaluation shall be considered by the DoDEA school if it meets the school system's criteria in any decision made with respect to the provision of FAPE to the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The results may be presented by any party as evidence at a due process hearing under this section regarding that child.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The DoDEA school system may not be required to fund an IEE that has been obtained by a parent if at a due process hearing initiated by either party and conducted under this section, the DoDEA school system demonstrates either that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The parentally obtained evaluation was not educationally appropriate or failed to meet agency criteria; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The DoDEA school system's evaluation was appropriate.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Hearing officer order for evaluation.</I> A hearing officer may only order an IEE at the DoDEA school system's expense as part of a due process hearing under this section if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The school system has failed to demonstrate its assessment was appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The school system has not already funded an IEE in response to a given school evaluation.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>DoDEA school system criteria.</I> An IEE provided at the DoDEA school system's expense must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Conform to the requirements of paragraph (b)(6)(viii) and (ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be conducted, when possible, in the geographic area where the child resides utilizing available qualified resources, including qualified examiners employed by the Military Department, in accordance with (b)(6)(iv) of this part, unless the parent can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the DoDEA school system or in a due process hearing filed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that the geographic limitation renders the IEE impossible.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Conditions.</I> Except for the criteria in paragraph (b)(19)(iii)(F) of this section, the DoDEA school system shall not impose conditions or timelines related to obtaining an IEE at the DoDEA school system expense.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Limitations.</I> A parent is entitled to only one IEE at DoDEA school system expense in response to a given DoDEA school system evaluation with which the parent disagrees.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Placement during due process, appeal, or civil procedures.</I> While an impartial due process proceeding, appeal proceeding, or civil proceeding is pending, unless the DoDEA school system and the parent of the child agree otherwise in writing, the child shall remain in his or her current placement, subject to the disciplinary procedures prescribed in paragraph (b)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Transfer of parental rights at age of majority.</I> (A) In the DoDEA school system, a child reaches the age of majority at age 18.
</P>
<P>(B) When a child with a disability reaches the age of majority (except for a child with a disability who has been determined to be incompetent in accordance with Federal or State law) the rights afforded to the parents in accordance with the IDEA and this part transfer to the child.
</P>
<P>(C) When a child reaches the age of majority, the DoDEA school shall notify the child and the parents of the transfer of rights.
</P>
<P>(D) When a child with a disability who has not been determined to be incompetent, but who does not have the ability to provide informed consent with respect to his or her educational program reaches the age of majority, the DoD shall appoint a parent or the parents of the child to represent the educational interests of the child throughout the period of eligibility for special education services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for provision of related services by the military departments to students with disabilities in a DoDDS</I>—(1) <I>Evaluation procedures.</I> (i) Upon request by a CSC, the responsible EDIS shall ensure that a qualified medical authority conducts or verifies a medical evaluation for use by the CSC in determining the medically related disability that results in a child's need for special education and related services, and shall oversee an EDIS evaluation used in determining a child's need for related services.
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical or related services evaluation, including necessary consultation with other medical personnel, shall be supervised by a physician or other qualified healthcare provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) The medical or related services evaluation shall be specific to the concerns addressed in the request from the CSC.
</P>
<P>(iv) The EDIS shall provide to the CSC an evaluation report that responds to the questions posed in the original request for an evaluation. The written report shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) Demographic information about the child, such as the child's name, date of birth, and grade level.
</P>
<P>(B) Behavioral observation of the child during testing.
</P>
<P>(C) Instruments and techniques used.
</P>
<P>(D) Evaluation results.
</P>
<P>(E) Descriptions of the child's strengths and limitations.
</P>
<P>(F) Instructional implications of the findings.
</P>
<P>(G) The impact of the child's medical condition(s), if applicable, on his or her educational performance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the EDIS that supports the DoDDS school requires assistance to conduct or complete an evaluation, the EDIS shall contact the MTF designated by the Military Department with geographic responsibility for the area where the EDIS is located.
</P>
<P>(vi) If EDIS determines that in order to respond to the CSC referral the scope of its assessment and evaluation must be expanded beyond the areas specified in the initial parental permission, EDIS must:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain parental permission for the additional activities.
</P>
<P>(B) Complete its initial evaluation by the original due date.
</P>
<P>(C) Notify the CSC of the additional evaluation activities.
</P>
<P>(vii) When additional evaluation information is submitted by EDIS, the CSC shall review all data and determine the need for program changes and the reconsideration of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(viii) An EDIS provider shall serve on the CSC when eligibility, placement, or requirements for related services that EDIS provides are to be determined.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>IEP</I>—(i) EDIS shall be provided the opportunity to participate in the IEP meeting.
</P>
<P>(ii) EDIS shall provide related services assigned to EDIS that are listed on the IEP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liaison with DoDDS.</I> Each EDIS shall designate a special education liaison officer to:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide liaison between the EDIS and DoDDS on requests for evaluations and other matters within their purview.
</P>
<P>(ii) Offer, on a consultative basis, training for school personnel on medical aspects of specific disabilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Offer consultation and advice as needed regarding the medical services provided at school (for example, tracheotomy care, tube feeding, occupational therapy).
</P>
<P>(iv) Participate with school personnel in developing and delivering in-service training programs that include familiarization with various conditions that impair a child's educational endeavors, the relationship of medical findings to educational functioning, related services, and the requirements of the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dispute resolution and due process procedures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This section establishes requirements for resolving disputes regarding the provision of EIS to an infant or toddler up to 3 years of age, or the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of a child (ages 3 through 21, inclusive), or the provision of a FAPE to such child in accordance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conferences.</I> Whenever possible, parties are encouraged to resolve disputes through the use of conferences at the lowest level possible between the parents and EDIS or the DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(i) Within a DoDEA school, problems should be brought first to the teacher, then the school administrator, and then the district office.
</P>
<P>(ii) At EDIS, problems should be brought first to the EDIS provider, then the EDIS program manager, and then the local MTF commander.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administrative complaints.</I> (i) A complaint filed with the responsible agency, relating to the provision of services under the IDEA and this part, other than due process complaints filed in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section, is known as an administrative complaint.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual or organization may file an administrative complaint alleging issues relating to services required to be delivered under the IDEA and this part with:
</P>
<P>(A) The Office of the Inspector General of a Military Department when the issue involves services or programs for infants and toddlers with disabilities, or related services provided by the Military Departments to children with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoDEA Director, Office of Investigations and Internal Review (OI&amp;IR) when the issue involves the services or programs for children ages 3 through 21, inclusive that are under the direction or control of the DoDEA school system.
</P>
<P>(iii) An administrative complaint alleging issues relating to services required to be delivered under the IDEA or this part must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the Military Service or the DoDEA school system has violated a requirement of the IDEA or this part.
</P>
<P>(B) The facts on which the statement is based.
</P>
<P>(C) The signature and contact information for the complainant.
</P>
<P>(D) If alleging violations with respect to specific children:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name of the school the child is attending.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and address of the residence of the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A description of the nature of the problem of the child, including facts relating to the problem.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A proposed resolution of the problem to the extent known and available to the complainant at the time the complaint is filed.
</P>
<P>(iv) An administrative complaint may not allege a violation that occurred more than 1 year prior to the date that the complaint is received.
</P>
<P>(v) The complainant filing an administrative complaint alleging issues related to services required to be delivered under the IDEA or this part must forward a copy of the complaint to the DoDEA school or EDIS clinic serving the child at the same time the complainant files the complaint with the appropriate authority in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Upon receipt of the complaint, the Inspector General of the Military Department concerned will notify the Secretary of the Military Department concerned, and the OI&amp;IR will notify the Director, DoDEA, of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of a complaint, the responsible Military Department Inspector General or the OCA shall, if warranted, promptly open an investigation consistent with its established procedures for investigating complaints.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The investigation shall afford the complainant an opportunity to submit additional information about the allegations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The investigation shall afford the DoDEA school system or the Military Department an opportunity to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Respond to the complaint;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Propose a resolution to the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) If the parties are willing, voluntarily engage in mediation of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The investigation shall produce a report consistent with those the investigating agency routinely provides, shall determine whether its findings support the complaint, and shall state whether the DoDEA school system or the Military Department is violating a requirement of the IDEA or this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) The findings and conclusions of the report of investigation related to the administrative complaint shall be made available to the complainant and members of the public in accordance with the standard operating procedures of the investigating activity and 32 CFR parts 285 and 310.
</P>
<P>(A) The investigating activity shall provide a copy of the report to the Director, DoDEA and the Secretary of a Military Department concerned or in accordance with the investigating activity's protocols.
</P>
<P>(B) The report shall be provided, to the extent practicable, within 60 days of initiating the investigation, unless extended by the complainant and the DoDEA school system or the Military Department.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned or the Director, DoDEA shall resolve complaints within their respective area of responsibility when the Military Service or the DoDEA school system is found to have failed to provide appropriate services consistent with the requirements of the IDEA or this part. Remediation may include corrective action appropriate to address the needs of the child such as compensatory services, or monetary reimbursement where otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(viii) When a complaint received under this section is also the subject of a due process complaint regarding alleged violations of rights afforded under the IDEA and this part, or contains multiple issues of which one or more are part of that due process complaint, the investigation activity shall set aside any issues alleged in the due process complaint until a hearing is concluded in accordance with the IDEA and this part. Any issue that is not part of the due process hearing must be resolved using the procedures of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) If an issue raised in a complaint filed under this section has been previously decided in a due process hearing involving the same parties:
</P>
<P>(A) The due process hearing decision is binding on that issue.
</P>
<P>(B) The Director, DoDEA or the Secretary of the Military Department concerned shall so inform the complainant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mediation.</I> (i) A parent, the Military Department concerned, or DoDEA may request mediation at any time, whether or not a due process petition has been filed, to informally resolve a disagreement on any matter relating to the provision of EIS to an infant or toddler (birth up to 3 years of age), or the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of a child (ages 3 through 21, inclusive), or the provision of a FAPE to such child.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mediation must be voluntary on the part of the parties and shall not be used to deny or delay a parent's right to a due process hearing or to deny other substantive or procedural rights afforded under the IDEA.
</P>
<P>(A) DoDEA school officials participate in mediation involving special education and related services; the cognizant Military Department participates in mediation involving EIS.
</P>
<P>(B) The initiating party's request must be written, include a description of the dispute, bear the signature of the requesting party, and be provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In the case of a parent initiating mediation, to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The local EDIS program manager in disputes involving EDIS; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The school principal in disputes involving a DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the case of the school or EDIS initiating mediation, to the parent.
</P>
<P>(C) Acknowledgment of the request for mediation shall occur in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(D) Agreement to mediate shall be provided in writing to the other party in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon agreement of the parties to mediate a dispute, the local EDIS or DoDEA school shall forward a request for a mediator to the Military Department or to DoDEA's Center for Early Dispute Resolution (CEDR), respectively.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mediator shall be obtained from the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) unless another qualified and impartial mediator is obtained by the Military Department or CEDR.
</P>
<P>(A) Where DOHA is used, the DOHA Center for Alternate Dispute Resolution (CADR) shall provide the mediator from its roster of mediators qualified in special education disputes.
</P>
<P>(B) Where the Military Department or DoDEA elects to secure a mediator through its own DoD Component resources, the mediator shall be selected from the Component's roster of mediators qualified in special education disputes, or by contract with an outside mediator duly qualified in special education disputes and who is trained in effective mediation techniques.
</P>
<P>(v) The Military Department or DoDEA through CEDR shall obtain a mediator within 15 business days of receipt of a request for mediation, or immediately request a mediator from the Director, DOHA, through the DOHA CADR.
</P>
<P>(vi) When requested, the Director, DOHA, through the CADR, shall appoint a mediator within 15 business days of receiving the request, unless a party provides written notice to the Director, DOHA that the party refuses to participate in mediation.
</P>
<P>(vii) Unless both parties agree otherwise, mediation shall commence in a timely manner after both parties agree to mediation.
</P>
<P>(viii) The parents of the infant, toddler, or child, and EDIS or the school shall be parties in the mediation. With the consent of both parties, other persons may attend the mediation.
</P>
<P>(ix) Mediation shall be conducted using the following rules:
</P>
<P>(A) The Military Department concerned shall bear the cost of the mediation process in mediations concerning EIS.
</P>
<P>(B) DoDEA shall bear the cost of the mediation process in mediations concerning special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(C) Discussions and statements made during the mediation process, and any minutes, statements or other records of a mediation session other than a final executed mediation agreement, shall be considered confidential between the parties to that mediation and are not discoverable or admissible in a due process proceeding, appeal proceeding, or civil proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(D) Mediation shall be confidential. The mediator may require the parties to sign a confidentiality pledge before the commencement of mediation.
</P>
<P>(E) Either party may request a recess of a mediation session to consult advisors, whether or not present, or to consult privately with the mediator.
</P>
<P>(F) The mediator shall ensure and the contract for mediation services shall require that any partial or complete resolution or agreement of any issue in mediation is reduced to writing, and that the written agreement is signed and dated by the parties, with a copy given to each party.
</P>
<P>(x) Any written agreement resulting from the mediation shall state that all discussions that occurred during the mediation process and all records of the mediation other than a final executed agreement shall be confidential and may not be discoverable or admissible as evidence in any subsequent due process proceeding, appeal proceeding, or civil proceeding, and shall be legally binding upon the parties and enforceable in a district court of the United States.
</P>
<P>(xi) All mediation sessions shall be held in a location that is convenient to both parties.
</P>
<P>(xii) No hearing officer or adjudicative body shall draw any inference from the fact that a mediator or a party withdrew from mediation or from the fact that mediation did not result in settlement of a dispute.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Due process complaint procedures.</I> (i) Parents of infants, toddlers, and children who are covered by this part and the cognizant Military Department or DoDEA, are afforded impartial hearings and administrative appeals after the parties have waived or participated in and failed to resolve a dispute through:
</P>
<P>(A) Mediation, in the case of an infant or toddler; or
</P>
<P>(B) A resolution process, or mediation in lieu of the resolution process prior to proceeding to a due process hearing in the case of a child (ages 3 through 21 years, inclusive).
</P>
<P>(ii) An impartial due process hearing is available to resolve any dispute concerning the provision of EIS to infants and toddlers with disabilities or with respect to any matter relating to the identification, evaluation, educational placement of, and the FAPE provided by the Department of Defense to children (ages 3 through 21, inclusive) who are covered by this part, in accordance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(A) Whenever the parents or the cognizant Military Department present a due process complaint (petition) in accordance with this part, an impartial due process hearing is available to resolve any dispute concerning the provision of EIS.
</P>
<P>(B) When the parents of children ages 3 through 21 years, inclusive, or the cognizant Military Department or DoDEA, present a due process complaint (petition) in accordance with this part relating to any matter regarding the identification, evaluation, placement, or the provision of FAPE, the parties shall first proceed in accordance with the requirements for a statutory resolution process in accordance with this part, after which time an impartial due process hearing is available to resolve the dispute set forth by the complaint.
</P>
<P>(iii) An expedited impartial due process hearing may be requested:
</P>
<P>(A) By a parent when the parent disagrees with the manifestation determination or any decision regarding the child's disciplinary placement.
</P>
<P>(B) By the school when it believes that maintaining a student in his or her current educational placement is substantially likely to result in injury to the student or others.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any party to a special education dispute may initiate a due process hearing by filing a petition stating the specific issues that are in dispute. The initiating party is the “petitioner” and the responding party is the “respondent.” The petition itself will remain confidential, in accordance with applicable law, not be released to those not a party to the litigation and its Personally Identifiable Information shall be protected in accordance with the DoD Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(v) Petitioner and respondent are each entitled to representation by counsel at their own expense. The parent and child may choose to be assisted by a personal representative with special knowledge or training with respect to the problems of disabilities rather than by legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(vi) To file a petition that affords sufficient notice of the issues and commences the running of relevant timelines, petitioners shall specifically include in the petition:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and residential address of the child and the name of the school the child is attending or the location of the EDIS serving the child.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the nature of the problem of the child relating to the proposed or refused initiation or change including facts (such as who, what, when, where, how, why of the problem).
</P>
<P>(C) A proposed resolution of the problem to the extent known and available to the petitioner at the time.
</P>
<P>(D) The signature of the parent, or if the petitioner is DoDEA or a Military Department, an authorized representative of that petitioner, or of the counsel or personal representative for the petitioner, and his or her telephone number and mailing address.
</P>
<P>(vii) When the cognizant Military Department or DoDEA petitions for a hearing, it shall additionally:
</P>
<P>(A) Inform the parent of the 10 business-day deadline (or 5 school days in the case of an expedited hearing) for filing a response that specifically addresses the issues raised in the petition.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the parent with a copy of this part.
</P>
<P>(viii) A special rule applies for expedited hearing requests. The petitioner must state, as applicable to his or her petition:
</P>
<P>(A) The disciplinary basis for the child's change in placement to an interim AES or other removal from the child's current placement.
</P>
<P>(B) The reasons for the change in placement.
</P>
<P>(C) The reasoning of the manifestation determination committee in concluding that a particular act of misconduct was not a manifestation of the child's disability.
</P>
<P>(D) How the child's current educational placement is or is not substantially likely to result in injury to the child or others.
</P>
<P>(ix) The petition or request for an expedited due process hearing must be delivered to:
</P>
<P>(A) The Director, DOHA, by mail to P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203, by fax to 703-696-1831, or email to <I>specialedcomplaint@osdgc.osd.mil.</I> Filing may also be made by hand delivery to the office of the Director, DOHA if approval from the Director, DOHA is obtained in advance of delivery.
</P>
<P>(B) The respondent by mail, fax, email, or hand delivery.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the petitioner is a parent of a child (ages of 3 through 21, inclusive), or a child (in the event that rights have been transferred in accordance with paragraph (b)(19) of this section, the respondent is DoDEA and the petition must be delivered to and received by the principal of the school in which the child is enrolled, or if the child is enrolled in the Non-DoD School Program (NDSP) to the DoDEA General Counsel (<I>generalcounsel@hq.dodea.edu</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the petitioner is the parent of an infant or toddler (birth up to 3 years of age), the respondent is the responsible Military Department and the petition must be delivered to and received by the EDIS manager.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the petitioner is the responsible Military Department or DoDEA, the petition must be delivered to and received by the parent of the child.
</P>
<P>(C) Filing of the due process petition with DOHA is considered complete when received by DOHA.
</P>
<P>(x) The timelines for requesting and conducting a due process hearing are:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Timelines for requesting a hearing.</I> A petitioner may not allege a violation that occurred more than 2 years before the date the petitioner knew, or should have known, about the alleged action that forms the basis of the complaint, unless the parent was prevented from requesting the hearing due to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Specific misrepresentation by DoDEA or EDIS that it had resolved the problem forming the basis of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The withholding of information by DoDEA or EDIS from the petitioning parent that was required to be provided to the parent in accordance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Timelines for conducting a due process hearing.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(5)(x)(D) and (d)(8)(ii) of this section, a hearing officer shall issue findings of fact and conclusions of law not later than 50 business days:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In a case involving EDIS, following the filing and service of a legally sufficient petition or amended petition in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In disputes involving a school and a child age 3 through 21, inclusive, following the filing and service of a legally sufficient petition or amended petition in accordance with this section and the hearing officer's receipt of notice that the 30-day resolution period concluded without agreement, the parties waived the resolution meeting, or the parties concluded mediation in lieu of the resolution process without reaching agreement.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Exceptions to the timelines for conduct of a hearing.</I> (<I>1</I>) When the hearing officer grants a request for discovery made by either party, as provided for in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, in which case the time required for such discovery does not count toward the 50 business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When the hearing officer grants a specific extension of time for good cause in accordance with paragraph (d)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Timeline for conducting an expedited hearing.</I> In the event of a petition for expedited hearing is requested, a DOHA hearing officer shall arrange for the hearing to be held not later than 20 school days (when school is in session) of the date the request is filed with DOHA, subject to the timeline for scheduling a resolution meeting and the 15 day resolution period requirements of this section. The hearing officer must make a determination within 10 school days after the hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Responses and actions required following receipt of a petition or request for expedited hearing.</I> (i) Immediately upon receipt of the petition, the Director, DOHA, shall appoint a hearing officer to take charge of the case.
</P>
<P>(A) The hearing officer shall immediately notify the parties of his or her appointment.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of notice that a hearing officer is appointed, the parties shall communicate all motions, pleadings, or amendments in writing to the hearing officer, with a copy to the opposing party, unless the hearing officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 10 business days of receipt of the petition (5 school days when school is in session in the case of a petition for an expedited hearing), the respondent shall deliver a copy of the written response to the petitioner and file the original written response with the hearing officer. Filing may be made by mail to P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203, by fax to 703-696-1831, by hand delivery if approved in advance by the hearing officer, or by email to <I>specialedcomplaint@osdgc.osd.mil.</I> If a hearing officer has not yet been appointed, the respondent will deliver the original written response to the Director, DOHA in accordance with paragraph (d)(5)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The respondent shall specifically address the issues raised in the due process hearing petition.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the respondent is the cognizant Military Department or DoDEA, the response shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of why the respondent proposed or refused to take the action at issue in the due process complaint.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of each evaluation procedure, assessment, record, or report the DoD Component used as the basis for the proposed or refused action.
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the options that the respondent considered and the reasons why those options were rejected.
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the other factors that are relevant to the respondent's proposed or refused action.
</P>
<P>(v) The respondent may file a notice of insufficient petition within 15 business days of receiving a petition if the respondent wishes to challenge the sufficiency of the petition for failure to state the elements required by the IDEA. Within 5 business days of receiving a notice of insufficient petition, the hearing officer will issue a decision and will notify the parties in writing of that determination.
</P>
<P>(vi) A response to the petitioner under (d)(6)(ii) of this section shall not be construed to preclude the respondent from asserting that the due process complaint was insufficient using the procedures available under (d)(6)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Parties may amend a petition only if:
</P>
<P>(A) The other party consents in writing to such amendment and is given the opportunity to resolve the complaint through the resolution process; or
</P>
<P>(B) The hearing officer grants permission, except that the hearing officer may not grant such permission at any time later than 5 days before a due process hearing is scheduled to begin.
</P>
<P>(viii) The filing of an amended petition resets the timelines for:
</P>
<P>(A) The conduct of a resolution meeting and the resolution period relating to the amended petition, and
</P>
<P>(B) All deadlines for responses and actions required following the receipt of the amended petition, and for conducting a due process hearing on the amended petition.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Statutory resolution process.</I> A resolution meeting shall be convened by DoDEA and a resolution period afforded, in accordance with this section, for any dispute in which a due process petition has been filed regarding the identification, evaluation, or educational placement, or the provision of FAPE for children ages 3 to 21, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(i) Within 15 calendar days of receiving the parent's petition for due process (7 calendar days in the case of an expedited hearing), DoDEA, through the pertinent school principal or superintendent, shall convene a dispute resolution meeting, which must be attended by:
</P>
<P>(A) The parents.
</P>
<P>(B) A legal representative of the parents if desired by the parents.
</P>
<P>(C) A DoDEA official designated and authorized by the District Superintendent or Area Director to exercise decision-making authority on behalf of DoDEA.
</P>
<P>(D) A DoDEA legal representative, only if the parents are represented by counsel at the resolution meeting.
</P>
<P>(E) The relevant members of the child's CSC who have specific knowledge of the facts identified in the petition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The parties may agree to mediate in lieu of conducting a resolution meeting or in lieu of completing the resolution period. The resolution meeting need not be held if the parties agree in writing to waive the meeting or agree to use the mediation process.
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to convene or participate in resolution meeting.
</P>
<P>(A) If DoDEA has offered to convene a resolution meeting and has been unable to obtain parental participation in the resolution meeting after making and documenting its reasonable efforts, DoDEA may, at the conclusion of the resolution period (30 days or 15 days in the case of an expedited hearing) request that a hearing officer dismiss the parent's due process complaint or request for an expedited due process hearing.
</P>
<P>(B) If DoDEA fails to convene a resolution meeting within 15 days of receipt of a due process complaint or if it fails to participate in the resolution meeting, the parent may request the hearing officer to immediately convene the due process hearing without waiting for the 30-day resolution period to expire.
</P>
<P>(iv) DoDEA shall have a 30-day resolution period, counted from the receipt of the complaint by the school principal, (15 days in the case of an expedited hearing request) within which to resolve the complaint to the satisfaction of the parents.
</P>
<P>(v) The resolution period may be adjusted because of one of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) Both parties agree in writing to waive the resolution meeting.
</P>
<P>(B) After the resolution meeting starts, but before the end of the applicable resolution period, the parties agree in writing that no agreement is possible and agree to waive the balance of the resolution period.
</P>
<P>(C) Both parties agree in writing to continue the resolution meeting at the end of the applicable resolution period, but later the parent or the school withdraws from the resolution process.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a partial or complete resolution to the dispute is reached at the resolution meeting, the parties must execute a written agreement that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Signed by both the parents and a representative of the school with authority to bind the school to the terms of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(B) Legally enforceable in a U.S. District Court of competent jurisdiction, unless the parties have voided the agreement within an agreement review period of 3 business days following the execution of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(vii) Discussions held, minutes, statements, and other records of a resolution meeting, and any final executed resolution agreement are not presumed confidential and therefore are discoverable and admissible in a due process proceeding, appeal proceeding, or civil proceeding, except when the parties have agreed to confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(viii) If DoDEA has not resolved the complaint to the satisfaction of the parents at the expiration of the resolution period or the adjusted resolution period, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) DoDEA shall provide written notice to the hearing officer, copy to the parents, within 3 business days (1 business day in the case of an expedited hearing) of the expiration of the resolution period or adjusted resolution period that the parties failed to reach agreement.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of that notification by the hearing officer, all of the applicable timelines for proceeding to a due process hearing under this section shall commence.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the parties execute a binding written agreement at the conclusion of the resolution period, and do not subsequently declare it void during the 3-business day agreement review period, then:
</P>
<P>(A) DoDEA shall provide written notice to the hearing officer, copy to the parents, at the conclusion of the agreement review period that the parties have reached an agreement for resolution of complaints set forth in the due process petition.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of that notification by the presiding hearing officer, no due process hearing shall proceed on the issues resolved.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>The due process hearing</I>—(i) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the due process hearing is to establish the relevant facts necessary for the hearing officer to reach a fair and impartial determination of the case.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hearing officer duties.</I> The hearing officer shall be the presiding officer, with judicial powers to manage the proceeding and conduct the hearing. Those powers shall include, but are not limited to, the authority to:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine the adequacy of pleadings.
</P>
<P>(B) Decide whether to allow amendment of pleadings, provided permission is granted to authorize the amendment not later than 5 days before a due process hearing occurs.
</P>
<P>(C) Rule on questions of timeliness and grant specific extension of time for good cause either on his or her own motion or at the request of either party.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Good cause includes the time required for mediation in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section where the parties have jointly requested an extension of time in order to complete mediation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the hearing officer grants an extension of time, he or she shall identify the length of the extension and the reason for the extension in the record of the proceeding. Any such extension shall be excluded from the time required to convene a hearing or issue a final decision, and at the discretion of the hearing officer may delay other filing dates specified by this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Rule on requests for discovery and discovery disputes.
</P>
<P>(E) Order an evaluation of the child at the expense of the DoDEA school system or the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P>(F) Rule on evidentiary issues.
</P>
<P>(G) Ensure a full and complete record of the case is developed.
</P>
<P>(H) Decide when the record in a case is closed.
</P>
<P>(I) Issue findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<P>(J) Issue a decision on substantive grounds based on a determination of whether the child received a FAPE. When the petition alleges a procedural violation, a hearing officer may find that a child did not receive a FAPE only if the procedural inadequacies:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Impeded the child's right to a FAPE;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Significantly impeded the parent's opportunity to participate in the decision-making process regarding the provision of FAPE to the child; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Caused a deprivation of educational benefits.
</P>
<P>(K) Order such relief as is necessary for the child to receive a FAPE or appropriate EIS, including ordering the DoDEA school system or the responsible Military Department to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Correct a procedural deficiency that caused a denial of a FAPE or appropriate EIS;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Conduct evaluations or assessments and report to the hearing officer;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Change the school-aged child's placement or order the child to an AES for up to 45 days;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Provide EIS or specific school-age educational or related services to a child to remedy a denial of FAPE, including compensatory services when appropriate and in accordance with the current early intervention or educational program; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Placement of a school-aged child in an appropriate residential program for children with disabilities at DoD expense, when appropriate under the law and upon a determination that DoDEA has failed to provide and cannot provide an otherwise eligible child with a FAPE at the appropriate DoD facility.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A residential program must be one that can address the specific needs of the child as determined by the DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The program should, whenever possible, be located near members of the child's family.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Attendees at the hearing.</I> Attendance at the hearing is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The parents and the counsel or personal representative of the parents.
</P>
<P>(ii) A representative of DoDEA or the EDIS concerned and the counsel representing DoDEA or the EDIS.
</P>
<P>(iii) Witnesses for the parties, including but not limited to the professional employees of DoDEA or the EDIS concerned and any expert witnesses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A person qualified to transcribe or record the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(v) Other persons with the agreement of the parties or the order of the hearing officer, in accordance with the privacy interests of the parents and the individual with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Discovery.</I> (i) Full discovery shall be available, with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, Rules 26-37, 28 U.S.C. appendix, serving as a guide to parties to a due process hearing or conducted in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) If voluntary discovery cannot be accomplished, a party seeking discovery may file a motion with the hearing officer to accomplish discovery. The hearing officer shall grant an order to accomplish discovery upon a showing that the document or information sought is relevant or reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence. An order granting discovery, or compelling testimony or the production of evidence shall be enforceable by all reasonable means within the authority of the hearing officer, to include the exclusion of testimony or witnesses, adverse inferences, and dismissal or summary judgment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Records compiled or created in the regular course of business, which have been provided to the opposing party at least 5 business days prior to the hearing, may be received and considered by the hearing officer without authenticating witnesses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of the written or electronic transcription of a deposition taken by a Military Department or DoDEA shall be made available by the Military Department or DoDEA without charge to the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Right to an open hearing.</I> The parents, or child who has reached the age of majority, have the right to an open hearing upon waiving, in writing, their privacy rights and those of the individual with disabilities who is the subject of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Location of hearing.</I> Subject to modification by the hearing officer for good cause shown or upon the agreement of the parties, the hearing shall be held:
</P>
<P>(i) In the DoDEA school district attended by the child (ages 3 through 21, inclusive):
</P>
<P>(ii) On the military installation of the EDIS serving infants and toddlers with disabilities; or
</P>
<P>(iii) At a suitable video teleconferencing facility convenient for the parents of the child involved in the hearing and available for the duration of a hearing.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Witnesses and documentary evidence.</I> (i) At least 5 business days prior to a hearing, the parties shall exchange lists of all documents and materials that each party intends to use at the hearing, including all evaluations and reports. Each party also shall disclose the names of all witnesses it intends to call at a hearing along with a proffer of the anticipated testimony of each witness.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least 10 business days prior to a hearing, each party must provide the name, title, description of professional qualifications, and summary of proposed testimony of any expert witness it intends to call at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to disclose documents, materials, or witnesses may result in the hearing officer barring their introduction at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Parties must limit evidence to the issues pleaded, except by order of the hearing officer or with the consent of the parties.
</P>
<P>(v) The rules of evidence shall be relaxed to permit the development of a full evidentiary record with the Federal Rules of Evidence, 28 U.S.C. appendix, serving as guide.
</P>
<P>(vi) All witnesses testifying at the hearing shall be advised by the hearing officer that under 18 U.S.C. 1001, it is a criminal offense to knowingly and willfully make a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation to a department or agency of the U.S. Government as to any matter within the jurisdiction of that department or agency, and may result in a fine or imprisonment.
</P>
<P>(vii) A party calling a witness shall bear the witness' travel and incidental expenses associated with testifying at the hearing. The DoDEA school system or the Military Department concerned shall pay such expenses if a witness is called by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(viii) The parties shall have the right to cross-examine witnesses testifying at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(ix) The hearing officer may issue an order compelling a party to make a specific witness employed by or under control of the party available for testimony at the party's expense or to submit specific documentary or physical evidence for inspection by the hearing officer or for submission into the record on motion of either party or on the hearing officer's own motion.
</P>
<P>(x) When the hearing officer determines that a party has failed to obey an order to make a specific witness available for testimony or to submit specific documentary or physical evidence in accordance with the hearing officer's order, and that such failure is in knowing and willful disregard of the order, the hearing officer shall so certify as a part of the written record in the case and may order appropriate sanctions.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Transcripts.</I> (i) A verbatim written transcription of any deposition taken by a party shall be provided to the opposing party in hardcopy written format or as attached to an electronic email with prior permission of the recipient. If a Military Department or DoDEA takes a deposition, the verbatim written transcript of that deposition shall be provided to the parent(s) without charge.
</P>
<P>(ii) A verbatim written transcription of the due process hearing shall be arranged by the hearing officer and shall be made available to the parties in hardcopy written format, or as an attachment to an electronic email, with prior permission of the recipient, on request and without cost to the parent(s), and a copy of the verbatim written transcript of the hearing shall become a permanent part of the record
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Hearing officer's written decision.</I> (i) The hearing officer shall make written findings of fact and conclusions of law and shall set forth both in a written decision addressing the issues raised in the due process complaint, the resolution of those issues, and the rationale for the resolution.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing officer's decision of the case shall be based on the record, which shall include the petition, the answer, the transcript of the hearing, exhibits admitted into evidence, pleadings or correspondence properly filed and served on all parties, and such other matters as the hearing officer may include in the record, if such matter is made available to all parties before the record is closed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hearing officer shall file the written decision with the Director, DOHA, and additionally provide the Director, DOHA with a copy of that decision from which all personally identifiable information has been redacted.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Director, DOHA, shall forward to parents and to the DoDEA or the EDIS concerned, copies, unredacted and with all personally identifiable information redacted, of the hearing officer's decision.
</P>
<P>(v) The decision of the hearing officer shall become final unless a timely notice of appeal is filed in accordance with paragraph (d)(17) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The DoDEA or the EDIS concerned shall implement the decision as soon as practicable after it becomes final.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Determination without hearing.</I> (i) At the request of a parent of an infant or toddler, birth to 3 years of age, when EIS are at issue, or of a parent of a child age 3 through 21, inclusive, or child who has reached the age of majority, when special education (including related services) are at issue, the requirement for a hearing may be waived, and the case may be submitted to the hearing officer on written documents filed by the parties. The hearing officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law and issue a written decision within the period fixed by paragraph (d)(5)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoDEA or the EDIS concerned may oppose a request to waive a hearing. In that event, the hearing officer shall rule on the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentary evidence submitted to the hearing officer in a case determined without a hearing shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(13) of this section. A party submitting such documents shall provide copies to all other parties.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Appeal of hearing officer decision.</I> (i) A party may appeal the hearing officer's findings of fact and decision by filing a written notice of appeal within 15 business days of receipt of the hearing officer's decision with the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board by mail to P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203, by fax to 703-696-1831, by email to <I>specialedcomplaint@osdgc.osd.mil,</I> or by hand delivery to the office of the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board if approval from the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board is obtained in advance of delivery. The notice of appeal must contain the appealing party's certification that a copy of the notice of appeal has been provided to the other party by mail.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 business days of filing the notice of appeal, the appealing party shall file a written statement of issues and arguments on appeal with the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board by mail to P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203, by fax to 703-696-1831, by email to <I>specialedcomplaint@osdgc.osd.mil,</I> or by hand delivery to the office of the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board if approval from the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board is obtained in advance of filing. The appealing party shall deliver a copy to the other party by mail.
</P>
<P>(iii) The non-appealing party shall file any reply within 20 business days of receiving the appealing party's statement of issues and arguments on appeal with the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board by mail to P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203, by fax to 703-696-1831, by email to <I>specialedcomplaint@osdgc.osd.mil,</I> or by hand delivery to the office of the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board if approval from the Chairperson, DOHA Appeal Board is obtained in advance of filing The non-appealing party shall deliver a copy of the reply to the appealing party by mail.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appeal filings with DOHA are complete upon transmittal. It is the burden of the appealing party to provide timely transmittal to and receipt by DOHA.
</P>
<P>(v) The DOHA Appeal Board, shall issue a decision on all parties' appeals within 45 business days of receipt of the matter.
</P>
<P>(vi) The determination of the DOHA Appeal Board shall be a final administrative decision and shall be in written form. It shall address the issues presented and set forth a rationale for the decision reached. A determination denying the appeal of a parent in whole or in part shall state that the parent has the right, in accordance with the IDEA, to bring a civil action on the matters in dispute in a district court of the United States of competent jurisdiction without regard to the amount in controversy.
</P>
<P>(vii) No provision of this part or other DoD guidance may be construed as conferring a further right of administrative review. A party must exhaust all administrative remedies afforded by this section before seeking judicial review of a determination.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Maintenance of current educational placement.</I> (i) Except when a child is in an interim AES for disciplinary reasons, during the pendency of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this section, unless the school and the parents otherwise agree, the child will remain in the then current educational placement.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the parent has appealed a decision to place a child in an interim AES, the child shall remain in the interim setting until the expiration of the prescribed period or the hearing officer makes a decision on placement, whichever occurs first, unless the parent and the school agree otherwise.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>General hearing administration.</I> The Director, DOHA, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Exercise administrative responsibility for ensuring the timeliness, fairness, and impartiality of the hearing and appeal procedures to be conducted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appoint hearing officers from the DOHA Administrative judges who shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be attorneys who are active members of the bar of the highest court of a State, U.S. Commonwealth, U.S. Territory, or the District of Columbia and permitted to engage in the active practice of law, who are qualified in accordance with DoD Instruction 1442.02, “Personnel Actions Involving Civilian Attorneys” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/144202p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) Possess the knowledge of and ability to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Understand the provisions of the IDEA and this part, and related Federal laws and legal interpretations of those regulations by Federal courts.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Conduct hearings in accordance with appropriate, standard legal practice.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Render and write decisions in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(C) Be disqualified from presiding in any individual case if the hearing officer:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has a personal or professional interest that conflicts with the hearing officer's objectivity in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is a current employee of, or military member assigned to, DoDEA or the Military Medical Department providing services in accordance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Publication and reporting of final decisions.</I> The Director, DOHA, shall ensure that hearing officer and appeal board decisions in cases arising in accordance with this section are published and indexed with all personally identifiable information redacted to protect the privacy rights of the parents who are parties in the due process hearing and the children of such parents, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Civil actions.</I> Any party aggrieved by the final administrative decision of a due process complaint shall have the right to file a civil action in a district court of the United States of competent jurisdiction without regard to the amount in controversy. The party bringing the civil action shall have 90 days from the date of the decision of the hearing officer or, if applicable, the date of the decision of the DOHA Appeal Board, to file a civil action.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DoD-CC on early intervention, special education, and related services</I>—(1) <I>Committee membership.</I> The DoD-CC shall meet at least annually to facilitate collaboration in early intervention, special education, and related services in the Department of Defense. The Secretary of Defense shall appoint representatives to serve on the DoD-CC who shall be full-time or permanent part-time government employees or military members from:
</P>
<P>(i) USD(P&amp;R), who shall serve as the Chair.
</P>
<P>(ii) Secretaries of the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Defense Health Agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) DoDEA.
</P>
<P>(v) GC, DoD.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The responsibilities of the DoD-CC include:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementation of a comprehensive, multidisciplinary program of EIS for infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision of a FAPE, including special education and related services, for children with disabilities who are enrolled full-time in the DoDEA school system, as specified in their IEP.
</P>
<P>(iii) Designation of a subcommittee on compliance to:
</P>
<P>(A) Advise and assist the USD(P&amp;R) in the performance of his or her responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(B) At the direction of the USD(P&amp;R), advise and assist the Military Departments and DoDEA in the coordination of services among providers of early intervention, special education, and related services.
</P>
<P>(C) Monitor compliance in the provision of EIS for infants and toddlers and special education and related services for children ages 3 to 21, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(D) Identify common concerns, facilitate coordination of effort, and forward issues requiring resolution to the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(E) Assist in the coordination of assignments of sponsors who have children with disabilities who are or who may be eligible for special education and related services through DoDEA or EIS through the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(F) Perform other duties as assigned by the USD(P&amp;R), including oversight for monitoring the delivery of services consistent with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Program monitoring and oversight.</I> (i) The USD(P&amp;R) shall monitor the implementation of the provisions of the IDEA and this part in the programs operated by the Department of Defense. The USD(P&amp;R) will carry out his or her responsibilities under this section primarily through the DoD-CC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The primary focus of monitoring shall be on:
</P>
<P>(A) Improving educational results and functional outcomes for all children with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensuring the DoD programs meet the requirements of the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitoring shall include the following priority areas and any additional priority areas identified by the USD(P&amp;R):
</P>
<P>(A) Provision of a FAPE in the LRE and the delivery of early intervention services.
</P>
<P>(B) Child-find.
</P>
<P>(C) Program management.
</P>
<P>(D) The use of dispute resolution including administrative complaints, due process and the mandatory resolution process, and voluntary mediation.
</P>
<P>(E) A system of transition services.
</P>
<P>(iv) The USD(P&amp;R) shall develop quantifiable indicators in each of the priority areas and such qualitative indicators necessary to adequately measure performance.
</P>
<P>(v) DoDEA and the Military Departments shall establish procedures for monitoring special services and reviewing program compliance in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) By January 1 of each calendar year, the DoD-CC shall identify any additional information required to support compliance activities that will be included in the next annual compliance report to be submitted no later than September 30 of that year. The results of monitoring program areas described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section shall be reported in a manner that does not result in the disclosure of data identifiable to individual children.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance reporting.</I> The Director, DoDEA, and the Military Departments shall submit reports to the DoD-CC not later than September 30 each year that summarize the status of compliance. The reports shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify procedures conducted at headquarters and at each subordinate level, including on-site visits, to evaluate compliance with the IDEA and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Summarize the findings and indicate the status of program compliance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe corrective actions required of the programs that did not meet the requirements of the IDEA and this part and identify the technical assistance that was or shall be provided to ensure compliance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Include applicable data on the operation of special education and early intervention in the Department of Defense. Data must be submitted in the format required by the DoD-CC to enable the aggregation of data across components. March 31 shall be the census date for counting children for the reporting period that begins on July 1 and ends on June 30 of the following year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>School level reporting.</I> (i) The reporting requirements for school aged children (3 through 21, inclusive) with disabilities shall also include:
</P>
<P>(A) Data to determine if significant disproportionality based on race and ethnicity is occurring with respect to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identification of school-aged children as children with disabilities including the identification of children as children with disabilities affected by a particular impairment described in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The placement of these children in particular educational settings.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The incidence, duration, and type of disciplinary suspensions and expulsions.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Removal to an interim AES, the acts or items precipitating those removals, and the number of children with disabilities who are subject to long-term suspensions or expulsions.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The number and percentage of school-aged children with disabilities, by race, ethnicity, limited English proficiency status, gender, and disability category, who are:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Receiving special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Participating in regular education.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In separate classes, separate schools or facilities, or public or private residential facilities.
</P>
<P>(B) The number of due process complaints requested, the number of hearings conducted, and the number of changes in placement ordered as a result of those hearings.
</P>
<P>(C) The number of mediations held and the number of settlement agreements reached through such mediations.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each year of age from age 16 through 21, children who stopped receiving special education and related services because of program completion (including graduation with a regular secondary school diploma) or other reasons, and the reasons why those children stopped receiving special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Early intervention reporting.</I> The reporting requirements for infants and toddlers with disabilities shall also include:
</P>
<P>(i) Data to determine if significant disproportionality based on race, gender, and ethnicity is occurring with respect to infants and toddlers with disabilities who:
</P>
<P>(A) Received EIS by criteria of developmental delay or a high probability of developing a delay.
</P>
<P>(B) Stopped receiving EIS because of program completion or for other reasons.
</P>
<P>(C) Received EIS in natural environments.
</P>
<P>(D) Received EIS in a timely manner as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of due process complaints requested and the number of hearings conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of mediations held and the number of settlement agreements reached through such mediations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>USD(P&amp;R) oversight.</I> (i) On behalf of the USD(P&amp;R), the DoD-CC shall make or arrange for periodic visits, not less than annually, to selected programs to ensure the monitoring process is in place; validate the compliance data and reporting; and address select focus areas identified by the DoD-CC and priority areas identified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. The DoD-CC may use other means in addition to periodic visits to ensure compliance with the requirements established in this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD-CC shall identify monitoring team members to conduct monitoring activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) For DoD-CC monitoring visits, the Secretaries of the Military Departments shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide necessary technical assistance and logistical support to monitoring teams during monitoring visits to facilities for which they are responsible.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide necessary travel funding and support for their respective team members.
</P>
<P>(C) Cooperate with monitoring teams, including making all pertinent records available to the teams.
</P>
<P>(D) Promptly implement monitoring teams' recommendations concerning early intervention and related services for which the Secretary concerned has responsibility, including those to be furnished through an inter-Service agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) For DoD-CC monitoring visits, the Director, DoDEA, shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide necessary technical assistance and logistical support to monitoring teams during monitoring visits to facilities for which he or she is responsible.
</P>
<P>(B) Cooperate with monitoring teams, including making all pertinent records available to the teams.
</P>
<P>(C) Promptly implement monitoring teams' recommendations concerning special education and related services for which the DoDEA school system concerned has responsibility.
</P>
<P>(v) The ASD(HA) shall provide technical assistance to the DoD monitoring teams when requested.
</P>
<P>(vi) The GC, DoD shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide legal counsel to the USD(P&amp;R), and, where appropriate, to DoDEA, monitored agencies, and monitoring teams regarding monitoring activities conducted pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide advice about the legal requirements of this part and Federal law to the DoDEA school systems, military medical commanders, military installation commanders, and to other DoD personnel as appropriate, in connection with monitoring activities conducted pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Types of disabilities in children ages 3 through 21.</I> A child may be eligible for services under paragraph (b) of this section if by reason of one of the following disabilities the child needs special education and related services.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Autism Spectrum Disorder.</I> A developmental disability significantly affecting verbal and nonverbal communication and social interaction that adversely affects a child's educational performance. Other characteristics often associated with autism are engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements, resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines, and unusual responses to sensory experiences. Essential features are typically but not necessarily manifested before age 3. Autism may include autism spectrum disorders such as but not limited to autistic disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, and Asperger's syndrome. The term does not apply if a child's educational performance is adversely affected primarily because the child has an emotional disturbance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deafness.</I> A hearing loss or deficit so severe that it impairs a child's ability to process linguistic information through hearing, with or without amplification, and affects the child's educational performance adversely.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deaf-blindness.</I> A combination of hearing and visual impairments causing such severe communication, developmental, and educational needs that the child cannot be accommodated in programs specifically for children with deafness or children with blindness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Developmental delay.</I> A significant discrepancy, as defined and measured in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) and confirmed by clinical observation and judgment, in the actual functioning of a child, birth through age 7, or any subset of that age range including ages 3 through 5, when compared with the functioning of a non-disabled child of the same chronological age in any of the following developmental areas: Physical, cognitive, communication, social or emotional, or adaptive development. A child determined to have a developmental delay before the age of 7 may maintain that eligibility through age 9.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emotional disturbance.</I> A condition confirmed by clinical evaluation and diagnosis and that, over a long period of time and to a marked degree, adversely affects educational performance and exhibits one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Inability to learn that cannot be explained by intellectual, sensory, or health factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inability to build or maintain satisfactory interpersonal relationships with peers and teachers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Inappropriate types of behavior or feelings under normal circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iv) A general pervasive mood of unhappiness or depression.
</P>
<P>(v) A tendency to develop physical symptoms or fears associated with personal or school problems.
</P>
<P>(vi) Includes children who are schizophrenic, but does not include children who are socially maladjusted unless it is determined they are emotionally disturbed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hearing impairment.</I> An impairment in hearing, whether permanent or fluctuating, that adversely affects a child's educational performance but is not included under the definition of deafness.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Intellectual disability.</I> Significantly below-average general intellectual functioning, existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior. This disability is manifested during the developmental period and adversely affects a child's educational performance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Orthopedic impairment.</I> A severe orthopedic impairment that adversely affects a child's educational performance. That term includes congenital impairments such as club foot or absence of some member; impairments caused by disease, such as poliomyelitis and bone tuberculosis; and impairments from other causes such as cerebral palsy, amputations, and fractures or burns causing contractures.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Other health impairment.</I> Limited strength, vitality, or alertness including a heightened alertness to environmental stimuli that results in limited alertness with respect to the educational environment, that is due to chronic or acute health problems and that adversely affects a child's educational performance. Such impairments may include, but are not necessarily limited to, attention deficit disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, heart condition, tuberculosis, rheumatic fever, nephritis, asthma, sickle cell anemia, hemophilia, seizure disorder, lead poisoning, leukemia, or diabetes.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Specific learning disability.</I> A disorder in one or more of the basic psychological processes involved in understanding or in using spoken or written language that may manifest itself as an imperfect ability to listen, think, speak, read, write, spell, remember, or do mathematical calculations. That term includes such conditions, recognizing that they may have been otherwise labeled with terms such as perceptual disabilities, brain injury, minimal brain dysfunction, dyslexia, and developmental aphasia. This term does not include learning problems that are primarily the result of visual, hearing, or motor disabilities; intellectual disability; emotional disturbance; or environmental, cultural, or economic differences.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Speech or language impairments.</I> A communication disorder such as stuttering; impaired articulation; limited, impaired or delayed capacity to use expressive and/or receptive language; or a voice impairment that adversely affects a child's educational performance.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Traumatic brain injury.</I> An acquired injury to the brain caused by an external physical force resulting in total or partial functional disability or psychosocial impairment (or both) that adversely affects educational performance. Includes open or closed head injuries resulting in impairments in one or more areas including cognition, language, memory, attention, reasoning, abstract thinking, judgment, problem solving, sensory, perceptual and motor abilities, psychosocial behavior, physical function, information processing, and speech. The term does not include brain injuries that are congenital or degenerative or brain injuries that are induced by birth trauma.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Visual impairment, including blindness.</I> An impairment of vision that, even with correction, adversely affects a child's educational performance. Term includes both partial sight and blindness. DoD also recognizes that a child may be eligible for services under paragraph (b) if they demonstrate “Multiple Disabilities” which DoD defines as: “Concomitant impairments (such as intellectual disability-blindness or intellectual disability-orthopedic impairment), the combination of which causes such severe educational needs that they cannot be accommodated in special education programs solely for one of the impairments. Multiple disabilities does not include deaf-blindness, which is set forth as its own type of disability at § 57.6(g)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="60" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 60—FAMILY ADVOCACY COMMAND ASSISTANCE TEAM (FACAT)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1794; 42 U.S.C. 13031.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 25676, May 6, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for implementation and use of the FACAT in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1794.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities and all other organizational entities in the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> An unmarried person under 18 years of age for whom a parent, guardian, foster parent, caregiver, employee of a residential facility, or any staff person providing out-of-home care is legally responsible. The term “child” means a biological child, adopted child, stepchild, foster child, or ward. The term also includes a sponsor's family member (except the sponsor's spouse) of any age who is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and for whom treatment in a DoD medical treatment program is authorized.
</P>
<P><I>Child abuse.</I> The physical or sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect of a child by a parent, guardian, foster parent, or by a caregiver, whether the caregiver is intrafamilial or extrafamilial, under circumstances indicating the child's welfare is harmed or threatened. Such acts by a sibling, other family member, or other person shall be deemed to be child abuse only when the individual is providing care under express or implied agreement with the parent, guardian, or foster parent.
</P>
<P><I>Child sexual abuse.</I> The employment, use, persuasion, inducement, enticement, or coercion of any child to engage in, or assist any other person to engage in, any sexually explicit conduct or simulation of such conduct for the purpose of producing a visual depiction of such conduct; or the rape, and in cases of caretaker or inter-familial relationships, statutory rape, molestation, prostitution, or other form of sexual exploitation of children, or incest with children.
</P>
<P><I>DoD-sanctioned activity.</I> A U.S. Government activity or a nongovernmental activity authorized by appropriate DoD officials to perform child care or supervisory functions on DoD controlled property. The care and supervision of children may be either its primary mission or incidental in carrying out another mission (e.g., medical care). Examples include Child Development Centers, Department of Defense Dependents Schools, Youth Activities, School Age/Latch Key Programs, Family Day Care providers, and child care activities that may be conducted as a part of a chaplain's program or as part of another Morale, Welfare, or Recreation Program.
</P>
<P><I>FACAT.</I> A multidisciplinary team composed of specially trained and experienced individuals who are on-call to provide advice and assistance on cases of child sexual abuse that involve DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Program Director (FAPD).</I> An individual designated by the Secretary of the Military Department or the head of another DoD Component to manage, monitor, and coordinate the FAP at the headquarters level.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Program Manager (FAPM).</I> An individual designated by the Secretary of the Military Department to manage, monitor, and coordinate the FAP at the headquarters level.
</P>
<P><I>Military criminal investigative organization (MCIO).</I> U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command, Naval Criminal Investigative Service, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations.
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-home care.</I> The responsibility of care for and/or supervision of a child in a setting outside the child's home by an individual placed in a caretaker role sanctioned by a DoD Component or authorized by a DoD Component as a provider of care. Examples include a child development center, school, recreation program, family child care, and child care activities that may be conducted as a part of a chaplain's program or as part of another morale, welfare, or recreation program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide a safe and secure environment for DoD personnel and their families by promoting the prevention, early identification, and intervention in all allegations of child abuse and neglect in accordance with DoD Directive 6400.1, “Family Advocacy Program (FAP)” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) Promote early identification and intervention in allegations of extrafamilial child sexual abuse in accordance with DoD Directive 6400.1 as it applies to DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P>(c) Provide a coordinated and comprehensive DoD response through the deployment of the FACAT to assist the Military Department upon DoD Component request to address allegations of extrafamilial child sexual abuse in DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P>(d) Foster cooperation among the DoD, other Federal agencies, and responsible civilian authorities when addressing allegations of extrafamilial child sexual abuse in DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P>(e) Promote timely and comprehensive reporting of all incidents covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(f) As appropriate, actively seek prosecution of alleged perpetrators to the fullest extent of the law.
</P>
<P>(g) Ensure that personally identifiable information, to include protected health information collected, used, and released by covered entities in the execution of this part is protected as required by DoD 6025.18-R, “DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602518r.pdf</I>) and 5 U.S.C. 552a as implemented in the Department of Defense by 32 CFR part 310.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)), under the authority, direction, and control of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Train, maintain, and support a team of full-time or permanent part-time federal officers or employees from various disciplines to comprise the FACAT and respond to child sexual abuse in DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop and coordinate criteria for determining the appropriate professional disciplines, support staff, and the required capabilities of FACAT members.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that policies and guidelines on activation and use of the FACAT are shared and coordinated with the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(5) Program, budget, and allocate funds for the FACAT.
</P>
<P>(6) Appoint the chief of the FACAT and team members, and provide required logistical support when the FACAT is deployed.
</P>
<P>(7) Coordinate the management and interaction of this effort with other Federal and civilian agencies as necessary.
</P>
<P>(8) Foster general awareness of FACAT goals and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure compliance with this part throughout their respective Departments.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish departmental procedures to implement with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Designate nominees for the FACAT upon request and ensure replacements are nominated when vacancies are indicated.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that commanders and staff are aware of the availability and proper use of the FACAT and the procedures for requesting a FACAT to assist in addressing extrafamilial child sexual abuse allegations covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Encourage timely and comprehensive reporting in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.19.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> Any person with a reasonable belief that an incident of child abuse has occurred in a DoD-sanctioned activity must report it to:
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate civilian agency in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13031 and 28 CFR 81.1-81.5.
</P>
<P>(2) The installation FAP as required by DoD Directive 6400.1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of suspected abuse</I>—(1) <I>Physical or emotional abuse or neglect.</I> If a report of suspected child physical abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect in a DoD-sanctioned activity is made to the FAP, the FAPM shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the appropriate military or civilian law enforcement agency, or multiple law enforcement agencies as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact the appropriate civilian child protective services agency, if any, to request assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sexual abuse.</I> If a report of suspected child sexual abuse in a DoD-sanctioned activity is made to the FAP, the FAPM, in addition to the procedures noted in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately notify the servicing MCIO and civilian law enforcement as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Forward the report DD Form 2951, “Initial Report of Suspected Child Sexual Abuse in DoD Operated or Sponsored Activities,” required by 10 U.S.C. 1794 through DoD Component FAP channels to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) within 72 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) Consult with the person in charge of the DoD-sanctioned activity and the appropriate law enforcement agency to estimate the number of potential victims and determine whether an installation response team may be appropriate to address the investigative, medical, psychological, and public affairs issues that may arise.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify the installation commander of the allegation and recommend whether an installation response team may be appropriate to assess the current situation and coordinate the installation's response to the incidents.
</P>
<P>(v) Submit a written follow-up report using DD Form 2952, “Closeout Report of Suspected Child Sexual Abuse in DoD Operated or Sponsored Activities,” through DoD Component channels regarding all allegations of child sexual abuse to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) when:
</P>
<P>(A) There have been significant changes in the status of the case;
</P>
<P>(B) There are more than five potential victims;
</P>
<P>(C) The sponsors of the victims are from different Military Services or DoD Components;
</P>
<P>(D) There is increased community sensitivity to the allegation; or
</P>
<P>(E) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) has requested a follow-up report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requesting a FACAT.</I> An installation commander may request a FACAT through appropriate DoD Component channels from the DASD(MC&amp;FP) when alleged child sexual abuse by a care provider in a DoD-sanctioned-activity has been reported and at least one of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Additional personnel are needed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Fully investigate a report of child sexual abuse by a care provider or employee in a DoD-sanctioned activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess the needs of the child victims and their families; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide supportive treatment to the child victims and their families.
</P>
<P>(2) The victims are from different Military Services or DoD Components, or there are multiple care providers who are the subjects of the report from different Military Services or DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(3) Significant issues in responding to the allegations have arisen between the Military Services or DoD Components and other Federal agencies or civilian authorities.
</P>
<P>(4) The situation has potential for widespread public interest that could negatively impact performance of the DoD mission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deployment of a FACAT.</I> (1) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) shall deploy a FACAT at the request of a DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(2) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) may deploy a FACAT at the request of the Head of the DoD Component without a request from the installation commander. Such circumstances include a case where:
</P>
<P>(i) The victims are from different Military Services or DoD Components, or there are multiple care providers who are the subjects of the report from different Military Services or DoD Components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant issues in responding to the allegations have arisen between the Military Services or DoD Components and other Federal agencies or civilian authorities; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The situation has potential for widespread public interest that could negatively impact performance of the DoD mission.
</P>
<P>(3) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) shall configure the FACAT based on the information and recommendations of the requestor, the installation FAPM, and the FAPD of the DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(4) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Request the FAPDs to identify several individuals from the FACAT roster who are available for deployment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Request, through the appropriate channels of the DoD Component, that the individuals' supervisors release them from normal duty positions to serve on temporary duty with the deploying FACAT.
</P>
<P>(5) The DASD(MC&amp;FP) shall provide fund citations to the FACAT members for their travel orders and per diem and shall provide information regarding travel arrangements. The FACAT members shall be responsible for preparing travel orders and making travel arrangements.
</P>
<P>(6) FACAT members who are subject to DoD Instruction 6025.13, “Medical Quality Assurance (MQA) and Clinical Quality Management in the Military Health System (MHS)” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602513p.pdf</I>) shall be responsible for arranging temporary clinical privileges in accordance with DoD 6025.13-R, “Military Health System (MHS) Clinical Quality Assurance (CQA) Program Regulation” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602513r.pdf</I>) at the installation to which they shall be deployed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FACAT tasks.</I> The FACAT shall meet with the installation's commanding officer, the MCIO, or designated response team to assess the current situation and assist in coordinating the installation's response to the incidents. Depending on the composition of the team, such tasks may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigating the allegations.
</P>
<P>(2) Conducting medical and mental health assessment of the victims and their families.
</P>
<P>(3) Developing and implementing plans to provide appropriate treatment and support for the victims and their families and for the non-abusing staff of the DoD-sanctioned activity.
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinating with local officials to manage public affairs tasks.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reports of FACAT activities.</I> The FACAT chief shall prepare three types of reports:
</P>
<P>(1) Daily briefs for the installation commander or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) Periodic updates to the FAPD of the DoD Component and to the DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</P>
<P>(3) An after-action brief for the installation commander briefed at the completion of the deployment and transmitted to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) and the FAPD of the DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="61" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 61—FAMILY ADVOCACY PROGRAM (FAP)
</HEAD>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Family Advocacy Program (FAP)</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a; 10 U.S.C. 1058(b), 1783, 1787, and 1794; Public Law 103-337, Section 534(d)(2).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 11780, Mar. 4, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 61.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is composed of several subparts, each containing its own purpose. This subpart establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for addressing child abuse and domestic abuse through the FAP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (referred to collectively in this subpart as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Alleged abuser.</I> An individual reported to the FAP for allegedly having committed child abuse or domestic abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> An unmarried person under 18 years of age for whom a parent, guardian, foster parent, caregiver, employee of a residential facility, or any staff person providing out-of-home care is legally responsible. The term means a biological child, adopted child, stepchild, foster child, or ward. The term also includes a sponsor's family member (except the sponsor's spouse) of any age who is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and for whom treatment in a DoD medical treatment program is authorized.
</P>
<P><I>Child abuse.</I> The physical or sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect of a child by a parent, guardian, foster parent, or by a caregiver, whether the caregiver is intrafamilial or extrafamilial, under circumstances indicating the child's welfare is harmed or threatened. Such acts by a sibling, other family member, or other person shall be deemed to be child abuse only when the individual is providing care under express or implied agreement with the parent, guardian, or foster parent.
</P>
<P><I>DoD-sanctioned activity.</I> A DoD-sanctioned activity is defined as a U.S. Government activity or a nongovernmental activity authorized by appropriate DoD officials to perform child care or supervisory functions on DoD controlled property. The care and supervision of children may be either its primary mission or incidental in carrying out another mission (<I>e.g.,</I> medical care). Examples include Child Development Centers, Department of Defense Dependents Schools, or Youth Activities, School Age/Latch Key Programs, Family Day Care providers, and child care activities that may be conducted as a part of a chaplain's program or as part of another Morale, Welfare, or Recreation Program.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic abuse.</I> Domestic violence or a pattern of behavior resulting in emotional/psychological abuse, economic control, and/or interference with personal liberty that is directed toward a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic violence.</I> An offense under the United States Code, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), or State law involving the use, attempted use, or threatened use of force or violence against a person, or a violation of a lawful order issued for the protection of a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Command Assistance Team (FACAT).</I> A multidisciplinary team composed of specially trained and experienced individuals who are on-call to provide advice and assistance on cases of child sexual abuse that involve DoD-sanctioned activities.
</P>
<P><I>Family advocacy committee (FAC).</I> The policy-making, coordinating, recommending, and overseeing body for the installation FAP.
</P>
<P><I>FAP.</I> A program designed to address prevention, identification, evaluation, treatment, rehabilitation, follow-up, and reporting of family violence. FAPs consist of coordinated efforts designed to prevent and intervene in cases of family distress, and to promote healthy family life.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Program Manager (FAPM).</I> An individual designated by a Secretary of a Military Department or the head of another DoD Component to manage, monitor, and coordinate the FAP at the headquarters level.
</P>
<P><I>Incident determination committee (IDC).</I> A multidisciplinary team of designated individuals working at the installation level, tasked with determining whether a report of domestic abuse or child abuse meets the relevant DoD criteria for entry into the Service FAP Central Registry as child abuse and domestic abuse incident. Formerly known as the Case Review Committee.
</P>
<P><I>Incident status determination.</I> The IDC determination of whether or not the reported incident meets the relevant criteria for alleged child abuse or domestic abuse for entry into the Service FAP central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse reports.
</P>
<P><I>New Parent Support Program (NPSP).</I> A standardized secondary prevention program under the FAP that delivers intensive, voluntary, strengths based home visitation services designed specifically for expectant parents and parents of children from birth to 3 years of age to reduce the risk of child abuse and neglect.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted reporting.</I> A process allowing an adult victim of domestic abuse, who is eligible to receive military medical treatment, including civilians and contractors who are eligible to receive military healthcare outside the Continental United States on a reimbursable basis, the option of reporting an incident of domestic abuse to a specified individual without initiating the investigative process or notification to the victim's or alleged offender's commander.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted reporting.</I> A process allowing a victim of domestic abuse to report an incident using current reporting channels, <I>e.g.</I> chain of command, law enforcement or criminal investigative organization, and FAP for clinical intervention.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Promote public awareness and prevention of child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide adult victims of domestic abuse with the option of making restricted reports to domestic abuse victim advocates and to healthcare providers in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06, “Domestic Abuse Involving DoD Military and Certain Affiliated Personnel” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640006p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Promote early identification; reporting options; and coordinated, comprehensive intervention, assessment, and support to:
</P>
<P>(1) Victims of suspected child abuse, including victims of extra-familial child abuse.
</P>
<P>(2) Victims of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(d) Provide assessment, rehabilitation, and treatment, including comprehensive abuser intervention.
</P>
<P>(e) Provide appropriate resource and referral information to persons who are not covered by this subpart, who are victims of alleged child abuse or domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(f) Cooperate with responsible federal and civilian authorities and organizations in efforts to address the problems to which this subpart applies.
</P>
<P>(g) Ensure that personally identifiable information (PII) collected in the course of FAP activities is safeguarded to prevent any unauthorized use or disclosure and that the collection, use, and release of PII is in compliance with 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(h) Develop program standards (PSs) and critical procedures for the FAP that reflect a coordinated community risk management approach to child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(i) Provide appropriate individualized and rehabilitative treatment that supplements administrative or disciplinary action, as appropriate, to persons reported to FAP as domestic abusers.
</P>
<P>(j) Maintain a central child abuse and domestic abuse database to:
</P>
<P>(1) Analyze the scope of child abuse and domestic abuse, types of abuse, and information about victims and alleged abusers to identify emerging trends, and develop changes in policy to address child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(2) Support the requirements of DoD Instruction 1402.5, “Criminal History Background Checks on Individuals in Child Care Services” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140205p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) Support the response to public, congressional, and other government inquiries.
</P>
<P>(4) Support budget requirements for child abuse and domestic abuse program funding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Collaborate with the DoD Component heads to establish programs and guidance to implement the FAP elements and procedures in § 61.6 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Program, budget, and allocate funds and other resources for FAP, and ensure that such funds are only used to implement the policies described in § 61.6 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management (ASD(R&amp;FM)) or designee will review FAP instructions and policies prior to USD(P&amp;R) signature.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) through the ASD(R&amp;FM), the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop DoD-wide FAP policy, coordinate the management of FAP with other programs serving military families, collaborate with federal and State agencies addressing FAP issues, and serve on intra-governmental advisory committees that address FAP-related issues.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the information included in notifications of extra-familial child sexual abuse in DoD-sanctioned activities is retained for 1 month from the date of the initial report to determine whether a request for a FACAT in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.03, “Family Advocacy Command Assistance Team” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640003p.pdf</I>) may be forthcoming.
</P>
<P>(3) Monitor and evaluate compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Review annual summaries of accreditation/inspection reviews submitted by the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(5) Convene an annual DoD Accreditation/Inspection Review Summit to review and respond to the findings and recommendations of the Military Departments' accreditation/inspection reviews.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments will:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish DoD Component policy and guidance on the development of FAPs, including case management and monitoring of the FAP consistent with 10 U.S.C. 1058(b), this subpart, and published FAP guidance, including DoD Instruction 6400.06 and DoD 6400.1-M, “Family Advocacy Program Standards and Self-Assessment Tool” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640001m.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Designate a FAPM to manage the FAP. The FAPM will have, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A masters or doctoral level degree in the behavioral sciences from an accredited U.S. university or college.
</P>
<P>(ii) The highest licensure in good standing by a State regulatory board in either social work, psychology, or marriage and family therapy that authorizes independent clinical practice.
</P>
<P>(iii) 5 years of post-license experience in child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(iv) 3 years of experience supervising licensed clinicians in a clinical program.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate efforts and resources among all activities serving families to promote the optimal delivery of services and awareness of FAP services.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish standardized criteria, consistent with DoD Instruction 6025.13, “Medical Quality Assurance (MQA) and Clinical Quality Management in the Military Health System (MHS)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602513p.pdf</I>) and DoD 6025.13-R, “Military Health System (MHS) Clinical Quality Assurance (CQA) Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602513r.pdf</I>), for selecting and certifying FAP healthcare and social service personnel who provide clinical services to individuals and families. Such staff will be designated as healthcare providers who may receive restricted reports from victims of domestic abuse as set forth in DoD Instruction 6400.06.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a process for an annual summary of installation accreditation/inspection reviews of installation FAP.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that installation commanders or Service-equivalent senior commanders or their designees:
</P>
<P>(i) Appoint persons at the installation level to manage and implement the local FAPs, establish local FACs, and appoint the members of IDCs in accordance with DoD 6400.1-M and supporting guidance issued by the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the installation FAP meets the standards in DoD 6400.1-M.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the installation FAP immediately reports allegations of a crime to the appropriate law enforcement authority.
</P>
<P>(7) Notify the DASD(MC&amp;FP) of any cases of extra-familial child sexual abuse in a DoD-sanctioned activity within 72 hours in accordance with the procedures in § 61.6 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) Submit accurate quarterly child abuse and domestic abuse incident data from the DoD Component FAP central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse incidents to the Director of the Defense Manpower Data Center in accordance with DoD 6400.1-M-1, “Manual for Child Maltreatment and Domestic Abuse Incident Reporting System” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640001m1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(9) Submit reports of DoD-related fatalities known or suspected to have resulted from an act of domestic abuse; child abuse; or suicide related to an act of domestic abuse or child abuse on DD Form 2901, “Child Abuse or Domestic Violence Related Fatality Notification,” by fax to the number provided on the form in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 or by other method as directed by the DASD(MC&amp;FP). The DD Form 2901 can be found at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/formsprogram.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) Ensure that fatalities known or suspected to have resulted from acts of child abuse or domestic violence are reviewed annually in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06.
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure the annual summary of accreditation/inspection reviews of installation FAPs are forwarded to OSD FAP as directed by DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</P>
<P>(12) Provide essential data and program information to the USD(P&amp;R) to enable the monitoring and evaluation of compliance with this subpart in accordance with DoD 6400.1-M-1.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure that PII collected in the course of FAP activities is safeguarded to prevent any unauthorized use or disclosure and that the collection, use, and release of PII is in compliance with 5 U.S.C. 552a, also known as “The Privacy Act of 1974,” as implemented in the DoD by 32 CFR part 310).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.1.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FAP Elements.</I> FAP requires prevention, education, and training efforts to make all personnel aware of the scope of child abuse and domestic abuse problems and to facilitate cooperative efforts. The FAP will include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prevention.</I> Efforts to prevent child abuse and domestic abuse, including public awareness, information and education about the problem in general, and the NPSP, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.05, specifically directed toward potential victims, offenders, non-offending family members, and mandated reporters of child abuse and neglect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct Services.</I> Identification, treatment, counseling, rehabilitation, follow-up, and other services, directed toward the victims, their families, perpetrators of abuse, and their families. These services will be supplemented locally by:
</P>
<P>(i) A multidisciplinary IDC established to assess incidents of alleged abuse and make incident status determinations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clinical case staff meeting (CCSM) to make recommendations for treatment and case management.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administration.</I> All services, logistical support, and equipment necessary to ensure the effective and efficient operation of the FAP, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Developing local memorandums of understanding with civilian authorities for reporting cases, providing services, and defining responsibilities when responding to child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of personal service contracts to accomplish program goals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Preparation of reports, consisting of incidence data.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evaluation.</I> Needs assessments, program evaluation, research, and similar activities to support the FAP.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Training.</I> All educational measures, services, supplies, or equipment used to prepare or maintain the skills of personnel working in the FAP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responding to FAP Incidents.</I> The USD(P&amp;R) or designee will establish procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) Reporting and responding to suspected child abuse consistent with 10 U.S.C. 1787 and 1794, 42 U.S.C. 13031, and 28 CFR part 81.
</P>
<P>(2) Providing victim advocacy services to victims of domestic abuse consistent with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and section 534(d)(2) of Public Law 103-337, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1995.”
</P>
<P>(3) Responding to restricted and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse consistent with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and 10 U.S.C. 1058(b).
</P>
<P>(4) Collection of FAP data into a central registry and analysis of such data in accordance with DoD 6400.1-M-1.
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinating a comprehensive DoD response, including the FACAT, to allegations of extra-familial child sexual abuse in a DoD-sanctioned activity in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.03 and 10 U.S.C. 1794.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification of Extra-Familial Child Sexual Abuse in DoD-Sanctioned Activities.</I> The names of the victim(s) and alleged abuser(s) will not be included in the notification. Notification will include:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Type of child care setting.
</P>
<P>(3) Number of children alleged to be victims.
</P>
<P>(4) Estimated number of potential child victims.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether an installation response team is being convened to address the investigative, medical, and public affairs issues that may be encountered.
</P>
<P>(6) Whether a request for the DASD(MC&amp;FP) to deploy a FACAT in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.03 is being considered.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—FAP Standards</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a, 10 U.S.C. chapter 47, 42 U.S.C. 13031.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 61.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.7   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is composed of several subparts, each containing its own purpose. The purpose of the overall part is to implement policy, assign responsibilities, and provide procedures for addressing child abuse and domestic abuse in military communities.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart prescribes uniform program standards (PSs) for all installation FAPs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.8   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to OSD, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (referred to collectively in this subpart as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.9   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, the following terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Alleged abuser.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Case.</I> One or more reported incidents of suspected child abuse or domestic abuse pertaining to the same victim.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical case staff meeting (CCSM).</I> An installation FAP meeting of clinical service providers to assist the coordinated delivery of supportive services and clinical treatment in child abuse and domestic abuse cases, as appropriate. They provide: clinical consultation directed to ongoing safety planning for the victim; the planning and delivery of supportive services, and clinical treatment, as appropriate, for the victim; the planning and delivery of rehabilitative treatment for the alleged abuser; and case management, including risk assessment and ongoing safety monitoring.
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Child abuse.</I> The physical or sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect of a child by a parent, guardian, foster parent, or by a caregiver, whether the caregiver is intrafamilial or extrafamilial, under circumstances indicating the child's welfare is harmed or threatened. Such acts by a sibling, other family member, or other person shall be deemed to be child abuse only when the individual is providing care under express or implied agreement with the parent, guardian, or foster parent.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical case management.</I> The FAP process of providing or coordinating the provision of clinical services, as appropriate, to the victim, alleged abuser, and family member in each FAP child abuse and domestic abuse incident from entry into until exit from the FAP system. It includes identifying risk factors; safety planning; conducting and monitoring clinical case assessments; presentation to the Incident Determination Committee (IDC); developing and implementing treatment plans and services; completion and maintenance of forms, reports, and records; communication and coordination with relevant agencies and professionals on the case; case review and advocacy; case counseling with the individual victim, alleged abuser, and family member, as appropriate; other direct services to the victim, alleged abuser, and family members, as appropriate; and case transfer or closing.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical intervention.</I> A continuous risk management process that includes identifying risk factors, safety planning, initial clinical assessment, formulation of a clinical treatment plan, clinical treatment based on assessing readiness for and motivating behavioral change and life skills development, periodic assessment of behavior in the treatment setting, and monitoring behavior and periodic assessment of outside-of-treatment settings.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic abuse.</I> Domestic violence or a pattern of behavior resulting in emotional/psychological abuse, economic control, and/or interference with personal liberty that is directed toward a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic violence.</I> An offense under the United States Code, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), or State law involving the use, attempted use, or threatened use of force or violence against a person, or a violation of a lawful order issued for the protection of a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Committee (FAC).</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Command Assistance Team (FACAT).</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Family Advocacy Program (FAP).</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>High risk for violence.</I> A level of risk describing families or individuals experiencing severe abuse or the potential for severe abuse, or offenders engaging in high risk behaviors such as making threats to cause grievous bodily harm, preventing victim access to communication devices, stalking, etc. Such cases require coordinated community safety planning that actively involves installation law enforcement, command, legal, and FAP.
</P>
<P><I>Home visitation.</I> A strategy for delivering services to parents in their homes to improve child and family functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Home visitor.</I> A person who provides FAP services to promote child and family functioning to parents in their homes.
</P>
<P><I>IDC.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Installation.</I> Any more or less permanent post, camp, station, base for the support or carrying on of military activities.
</P>
<P><I>Installation Family Advocacy Program Manager (FAPM).</I> The individual at the installation level designated by the installation commander in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing guidance to manage the FAP, supervise FAP staff, and coordinate all FAP activities. If the Service FAP headquarters implementing guidance assigns the responsibilities of the local FAPM between two individuals, the FAPM is the individual who has been assigned the responsibility for implementing the specific procedure.
</P>
<P><I>NPSP.</I> A standardized secondary prevention program under the FAP that delivers intensive, voluntary, strengths based home visitation services designed specifically for expectant parents and parents of children from birth to 3 years of age to reduce the risk of child abuse and neglect.
</P>
<P><I>Non-DoD eligible extrafamilial caregiver.</I> A caregiver who is not sponsored or sanctioned by the DoD. It includes nannies, temporary babysitters certified by the Red Cross, and temporary babysitters in the home, and other non-DoD eligible family members who provide care for or supervision of children.
</P>
<P><I>Non-medical counseling.</I> Short term, non-therapeutic counseling that is not appropriate for individuals needing clinical therapy. Non-medical counseling is supportive in nature and addresses general conditions of living, life skills, improving relationships at home and at work, stress management, adjustment issues (such as those related to returning from a deployment), marital problems, parenting, and grief and loss. This definition is not intended to limit the authority of the Military Departments to grant privileges to clinical providers modifying this scope of care consistent with current Military Department policy.
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-home care.</I> The responsibility of care for and/or supervision of a child in a setting outside the child's home by an individual placed in a caretaker role sanctioned by a Military Service or Defense Agency or authorized by the Service or Defense Agency as a provider of care, such as care in a child development center, school, recreation program, or family child care. part.
</P>
<P><I>Primary managing authority (PMA).</I> The installation FAP that has primary authority and responsibility for the management and incident status determination of reports of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted reporting.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Risk management.</I> The process of identifying risk factors associated with increased risk for child abuse or domestic abuse, and controlling those factors that can be controlled through collaborative partnerships with key military personnel and civilian agencies, including the active duty member's commander, law enforcement personnel, child protective services, and victim advocates. It includes the development and implementation of an intervention plan when significant risk of lethality or serious injury is present to reduce the likelihood of future incidents and to increase the victim's safety, continuous assessment of risk factors associated with the abuse, and prompt updating of the victim's safety plan, as needed.
</P>
<P><I>Safety planning.</I> A process whereby a victim advocate, working with a domestic abuse victim, creates a plan, tailored to that victim's needs, concerns, and situation, that will help increase the victim's safety and help the victim to prepare for, and potentially avoid, future violence.
</P>
<P><I>Service FAP headquarters.</I> The office designated by the Secretary of the Military Department to develop and issue Service FAP implementing guidance in accordance with DoD policy, manage the Service-level FAP, and provide oversight for Service FAP functions.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted reporting.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Victim.</I> A child or current or former spouse or intimate partner who is the subject of an alleged incident of child maltreatment or domestic abuse because he/she was allegedly maltreated by the alleged abuser.
</P>
<P><I>Victim advocate.</I> An employee of the Department of Defense, a civilian working under contract for the Department of Defense, or a civilian providing services by means of a formal memorandum of understanding between a military installation and a local victim advocacy service agency, whose role is to provide safety planning services and comprehensive assistance and liaison to and for victims of domestic abuse, and to educate personnel on the installation regarding the most effective responses to domestic abuse on behalf of victims and at-risk family members. The advocate may also be a volunteer military member, a volunteer civilian employee of the Military Department, or staff assigned as collateral duty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.10   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>According to subpart A of this part, it is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Promote early identification; reporting; and coordinated, comprehensive intervention, assessment, and support to victims of child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure that personally identifiable information (PII) collected in the course of FAP activities is safeguarded to prevent any unauthorized use or disclosure and that the collection, use, and release of PII is in compliance with 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.11   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management, the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)):
</P>
<P>(1) Monitors compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Collaborates with the Secretaries of the Military Departments to develop policies and procedures for monitoring compliance with the PSs in § 61.12 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Convenes an annual DoD Accreditation and Inspection Summit to review and respond to the findings and recommendations of the Military Departments' accreditation or inspection results.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop Service-wide FAP policy, supplementary standards, and instructions to provide for unique requirements within their respective installation FAPs to implement the PSs in this subpart as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Require all installation personnel with responsibilities in this subpart receive appropriate training to implement the PSs in § 61.12 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct accreditation and inspection reviews outlined in § 61.12 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.2.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.12   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purposes of the standards</I>—(1) <I>Quality Assurance (QA) to address child abuse and domestic abuse.</I> The FAP PSs provide DoD and Service FAP headquarters QA guidelines for installation FAP-sponsored prevention and clinical intervention programs. Therefore, the PSs presented in this section and cross referenced in the Index of FAP Topics in the Appendix to § 61.12 represent the minimal necessary elements for effectively dealing with child abuse and domestic abuse in installation programs in the military community.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum requirements for oversight, management, logistical support, procedures, and personnel requirements.</I> The PSs set forth minimum requirements for oversight, management, logistical support, procedures, and personnel requirements necessary to ensure all military personnel and their family members receive family advocacy services from the installation FAPs equal in quality to the best programs available to their civilian peers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measuring quality and effectiveness.</I> The PSs provide a basis for measuring the quality and effectiveness of each installation FAP and for systematically projecting fiscal and personnel resources needed to support worldwide DoD FAP efforts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installation response to child abuse and domestic abuse</I>—(1) <I>FAC</I>—(i) <I>PS 1: Establishment of the FAC.</I> The installation commander must establish an installation FAC and appoint a FAC chairperson in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance to serve as the policy-making, coordinating, and advisory body to address child abuse and domestic abuse at the installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 2: Coordinated community response and risk management plan.</I> The FAC must develop and approve an annual plan for the coordinated community response and risk management of child abuse and domestic abuse, with specific objectives, strategies, and measurable outcomes.
</P>
<P>The plan is based on a review of:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent installation needs assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) Research-supported protective factors that promote and sustain healthy family relationships.
</P>
<P>(C) Risk factors for child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(D) The most recent prevention strategy to include primary, secondary, and tertiary interventions.
</P>
<P>(E) Trends in the installation's risk management approach to high risk for violence, child abuse, and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(F) The most recent accreditation review or DoD Component Inspector General inspection of the installation agencies represented on the FAC.
</P>
<P>(G) The evaluation of the installation's coordinated community response to child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 3: Monitoring coordinated community response and risk management plan.</I> The FAC monitors the implementation of the coordinated community response and risk management plan. Such monitoring includes a review of:
</P>
<P>(A) The development, signing, and implementation of formal memorandums of understanding (MOUs) among military activities and between military activities and civilian authorities and agencies to address child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Steps taken to address problems identified in the most recent accreditation review of the FAP and evaluation of the installation's coordinated community response and risk management approach.
</P>
<P>(C) FAP recommended criteria to identify populations at higher risk to commit or experience child abuse and domestic abuse, the special needs of such populations, and appropriate actions to address those needs.
</P>
<P>(D) Effectiveness of the installation coordinated community response and risk management approach in responding to high risk for violence, child abuse, and domestic abuse incidents.
</P>
<P>(E) Implementation of the installation prevention strategy to include primary, secondary, and tertiary interventions.
</P>
<P>(F) The annual report of fatality reviews that Service FAP headquarters fatality review teams conduct. The FAC should also review the Service FAP headquarters' recommended changes for the coordinated community response and risk management approach. The coordinated community response will focus on strengthening protective factors that promote and sustain healthy family relationships and reduce the risk factors for future child abuse and domestic abuse-related fatalities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Coordinated Community Response</I>—(i) <I>PS 4: Roles, functions, and responsibilities.</I> The FAC must ensure that all installation agencies involved with the coordinated community response to child abuse and domestic abuse comply with the defined roles, functions, and responsibilities in DoD Instruction 6400.06 and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 5: MOUs.</I> The FAC must verify that:
</P>
<P>(A) Formal MOUs are established as appropriate with counterparts in the local civilian community to improve coordination on: Child abuse and domestic abuse investigations; emergency removal of children from homes; fatalities; arrests; prosecutions; and orders of protection involving military personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) Installation agencies established MOUs setting forth the respective roles and functions of the installation and the appropriate federal, State, local, or foreign agencies or organizations (in accordance with status-of-forces agreements (SOFAs)) that provide:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Child welfare services, including foster care, to ensure ongoing and active collaborative case management between the respective courts, child protective services, foster care agencies, and FAP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Medical examination and treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Mental health examination and treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Domestic abuse victim advocacy.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Related social services, including State home visitation programs when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Safety shelter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 6: Collaboration between military installations.</I> The installation commander must require that installation agencies have collaborated with counterpart agencies on military installations in geographical proximity and on joint bases to ensure coordination and collaboration in providing child abuse and domestic abuse services to military families. Collaboration includes developing MOUs, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 7: Domestic abuse victim advocacy services.</I> The installation FAC must establish 24 hour access to domestic abuse victim advocacy services through personal or telephone contact in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance for restricted reports of domestic abuse and the domestic abuse victim advocate services.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 8: Domestic abuse victim advocate personnel requirements.</I> The installation commander must require that qualified personnel provide domestic abuse victim advocacy services in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(A) Such personnel may include federal employees, civilians working under contract for the DoD, civilians providing services through a formal MOU between the installation and a local civilian victim advocacy service agency, volunteers, or a combination of such personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) All domestic abuse victim advocates are supervised in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>PS 9: 24-hour emergency response plan.</I> An installation 24-hour emergency response plan to child abuse and domestic abuse incidents must be established in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>PS 10: FAP Communication with military law enforcement.</I> The FAP and military law enforcement reciprocally provide to one another:
</P>
<P>(A) Within 24 hours, FAP will communicate all reports of child abuse involving military personnel or their family members to the appropriate civilian child protective services agency or law enforcement agency in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, and 28 CFR 81.2.
</P>
<P>(B) Within 24 hours, FAP will communicate all unrestricted reports of domestic abuse involving military personnel and their current or former spouses or their current or former intimate partners to the appropriate civilian law enforcement agency in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, and 28 CFR 81.2.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>PS 11: Protection of children.</I> The installation FAC in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance must set forth the procedures and criteria for:
</P>
<P>(A) The safety of child victim(s) of abuse or other children in the household when they are in danger of continued abuse or life-threatening child neglect.
</P>
<P>(B) Safe transit of such child(ren) to appropriate care. When the installation is located outside the continental United States, this includes procedures for transit to a location of appropriate care within the United States.
</P>
<P>(C) Ongoing collaborative case management between FAP, relevant courts, and child welfare agencies when military children are placed in civilian foster care.
</P>
<P>(D) Notification of the affected Service member's command when a dependent child has been taken into custody or foster care by local or State courts, or child welfare or protection agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk Management</I>—(i) <I>PS 12: PMA.</I> When an installation FAP receives a report of a case of child abuse or domestic abuse in which the victim is at a different location than the abuser, PMA for the case must be:
</P>
<P>(A) In child abuse cases:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sponsor's installation when the alleged abuser is the sponsor; a non-sponsor DoD-eligible family member; or a non-sponsor, status unknown.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The alleged abuser's installation when the alleged abuser is a non-sponsor active duty Service member; a non-sponsor, DoD-eligible extrafamilial caregiver; or a DoD-sponsored out-of-home care provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The victim's installation when the alleged abuser is a non-DoD-eligible extrafamilial caregiver.
</P>
<P>(B) In domestic abuse cases:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The alleged abuser's installation when both the alleged abuser and the victim are active duty Service members.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The alleged abuser's installation when the alleged abuser is the only sponsor.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The victim's installation when the victim is the only sponsor.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The installation FAP who received the initial referral when both parties are alleged abusers in bi-directional domestic abuse involving dual military spouses or intimate partners.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 13: Risk management approach</I>—(A) All installation agencies involved with the installation's coordinated community risk management approach to child abuse and domestic abuse must comply with their defined roles, functions, and responsibilities in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13031 and 28 CFR 81.2 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(B) When victim(s) and abuser(s) are assigned to different servicing FAPs or are from different Services, the PMA is assigned according to PS 12 (paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section), and both serving FAP offices and Services are kept informed of the status of the case, regardless of who has PMA.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 14: Risk assessments.</I> FAP conducts risk assessments of alleged abusers, victims, and other family members to assess the risk of re-abuse, and communicate any increased levels of risk to appropriate agencies for action, as appropriate. Risk assessments are conducted:
</P>
<P>(A) At least quarterly on all open FAP cases.
</P>
<P>(B) Monthly on FAP cases assessed as high risk and those involving court involved children placed in out-of-home care, child sexual abuse, and chronic child neglect.
</P>
<P>(C) Within 30 days of any change since the last risk assessment that presents increased risk to the victim or warrants additional safety planning.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 15: Disclosure of information in risk assessments.</I> Protected information collected during FAP referrals, intake, and risk assessments is only disclosed in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R, “DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602518r.pdf</I>) when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 16: Risk management and deployment.</I> Procedures are established to manage child abuse and domestic abuse incidents that occur during the deployment cycle of a Service member, in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.06, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance, so that when an alleged abuser Service member in an active child abuse or domestic abuse case is deployed:
</P>
<P>(A) The forward command notifies the home station command when the deployed Service member will return to the home station command.
</P>
<P>(B) The home station command implements procedures to reduce the risk of subsequent child abuse and domestic abuse during the reintegration of the Service member into the FAP case management process.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>IDC</I>—(i) <I>PS 17: IDC established.</I> An installation IDC must be established to review reports of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 18: IDC operations.</I> The IDC reviews reports of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse to determine whether the reports meet the criteria for entry into the Service FAP headquarters central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse incidents in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 19: Responsibility for training FAC and IDC members.</I> All FAC and IDC members must receive:
</P>
<P>(A) Training on their roles and responsibilities before assuming their positions on their respective teams.
</P>
<P>(B) Periodic information and training on DoD policies and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 20: IDC QA.</I> An IDC QA process must be established for monitoring and QA review of IDC decisions in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Organization and management of the FAP</I>—(1) <I>General organization of the FAP</I>—(i) <I>PS 21: Establishment of the FAP.</I> The installation commander must establish a FAP to address child abuse and domestic abuse in accordance with DoD policy and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 22: Operations policy.</I> The installation FAC must ensure coordination among the following key agencies interacting with the FAP in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) Family center(s).
</P>
<P>(B) Substance abuse program(s).
</P>
<P>(C) Sexual assault and prevention response programs.
</P>
<P>(D) Child and youth program(s).
</P>
<P>(E) Program(s) that serve families with special needs.
</P>
<P>(F) Medical treatment facility, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Mental health and behavioral health personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Social services personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Dental personnel.
</P>
<P>(G) Law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(H) Criminal investigative organization detachment.
</P>
<P>(I) Staff judge advocate or servicing legal office.
</P>
<P>(J) Chaplain(s).
</P>
<P>(K) Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA) school personnel.
</P>
<P>(L) Military housing personnel.
</P>
<P>(M) Transportation office personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 23: Appointment of an installation FAPM.</I> The installation commander must appoint in writing an installation FAPM to implement and manage the FAP. The FAPM must direct the development, oversight, coordination, administration, and evaluation of the installation FAP in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 24: Funding.</I> Funds received for child abuse and domestic abuse prevention and treatment activities must be programmed and allocated in accordance with the DoD and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance, and the plan developed under PS 3, described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Funds that OSD provides for the FAP must be used in direct support of the prevention and intervention for domestic abuse and child maltreatment; including management, staffing, domestic abuse victim advocate services, public awareness, prevention, training, intensive risk-focused secondary prevention services, intervention, record keeping, and evaluation as set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(B) Funds that OSD provides for the NPSP must be used only for secondary prevention activities to support the screening, assessment, and provision of home visitation services to prevent child abuse and neglect in vulnerable families in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.05.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 25: Other resources.</I> FAP services must be housed and equipped in a manner suitable to the delivery of services, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate telephones.
</P>
<P>(B) Office automation equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Handicap accessible.
</P>
<P>(D) Access to emergency transport.
</P>
<P>(E) Private offices and rooms available for interviewing and counseling victims, alleged abusers, and other family members in a safe and confidential setting.
</P>
<P>(F) Appropriate equipment for 24/7 accessibility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>FAP personnel</I>—(i) <I>PS 26: Personnel requirements.</I> The installation commander is responsible for ensuring there are a sufficient number of qualified FAP personnel in accordance with subpart A of this part, DoD Instruction 6400.06, and DoD Instruction 6400.05, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance. FAP personnel may consist of military personnel on active duty, employees of the federal civil service, contractors, volunteers, or a combination of such personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 27: Criminal history record check.</I> All FAP personnel whose duties involve services to children require a criminal history record check in accordance with DoD Instruction 1402.5, “Criminal History Background Checks on Individuals in Child Care Services” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140205p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 28: Clinical staff qualifications.</I> All FAP personnel who conduct clinical assessment of or provide clinical treatment to victims of child abuse or domestic abuse, alleged abusers, or their family members must have all of the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) A Master in Social Work, Master of Science, Master of Arts, or doctoral-level degree in human service or mental health from an accredited university or college.
</P>
<P>(B) The highest licensure in a State or clinical licensure in good standing in a State that authorizes independent clinical practice.
</P>
<P>(C) Two years of experience working in the field of child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(D) Clinical privileges or credentialing in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 29: Prevention and Education Staff Qualifications.</I> All FAP personnel who provide prevention and education services must have the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) A Bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college in any of the following disciplines:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Social work.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Psychology.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Marriage, family, and child counseling.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Counseling or behavioral science.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Nursing.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Education.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Community health or public health.
</P>
<P>(B) Two years of experience in a family and children's services public agency or family and children's services community organization, 1 year of which is in prevention, intervention, or treatment of child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(C) Supervision by a qualified staff person in accordance with the Service FAP headquarters policies.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 30: Victim advocate staff qualifications.</I> All FAP personnel who provide victim advocacy services must have these minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) A Bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college in any of the following disciplines:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Social work.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Psychology.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Marriage, family, and child counseling.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Counseling or behavioral science.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Criminal justice.
</P>
<P>(B) Two years of experience in assisting and providing advocacy services to victims of domestic abuse or sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(C) Supervision by a Master's level social worker.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>PS 31: NPSP staff qualifications.</I> All FAP personnel who provide services in the NPSP must have qualifications in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.05.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safety and home visits</I>—(i) <I>PS 32: Internal and external duress system established.</I> The installation FAPM must establish a system to identify and manage potentially violent clients and to promote the safety and reduce the risk of harm to staff working with clients and to others inside the office and when conducting official business outside the office.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 33: Protection of home visitors.</I> The installation FAPM must:
</P>
<P>(A) Issue written FAP procedures to ensure minimal risk and maximize personal safety when FAP or NPSP staff perform home visits.
</P>
<P>(B) Require that all FAP and NPSP personnel who conduct home visits are trained in FAP procedures to ensure minimal risk and maximize personal safety before conducting a home visit.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 34: Home visitors' reporting of known or suspected child abuse and domestic abuse.</I> All FAP and NPSP personnel who conduct home visits are to report all known or suspected child abuse in accordance with subpart A of this part and 42 U.S.C. 13031, and domestic abuse in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Management information system</I>—(i) <I>PS 35: Management information system policy.</I> The installation FAPM must establish procedures for the collection, use, analysis, reporting, and distributing of FAP information in accordance with subpart A of this part, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, DoD 6400.1-M-1 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy. These procedures ensure:
</P>
<P>(A) Accurate and comparable statistics needed for planning, implementing, assessing, and evaluating the installation coordinated community response to child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Identifying unmet needs or gaps in services.
</P>
<P>(C) Determining installation FAP resource needs and budget.
</P>
<P>(D) Developing installation FAP guidance.
</P>
<P>(E) Administering the installation FAP.
</P>
<P>(F) Evaluating installation FAP activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 36: Reporting of statistics.</I> The FAP reports statistics annually to the Service FAP headquarters in accordance with subpart A of this part and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance, including the accurate and timely reporting of:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>FAP metrics</I>—(<I>1</I>) The number of new commanders at the installation whom the Service FAP headquarters determined must receive the FAP briefing, and the number of new commanders who received the FAP briefing within 90 days of taking command.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of senior noncommissioned officers (NCOs) in pay grades E-7 and higher whom the Service FAP headquarters determined must receive the FAP briefing annually, and the number of senior NCOs who received the FAP briefing within the year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>NPSP metric</I>—(<I>1</I>) The number of high risk families who began receiving NPSP intensive services (two contacts per month) for at least 6 months in the previous fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of these families with no reports of child maltreatment incidents that met criteria for abuse for entry into the central registry (formerly, “substantiated reports”) within 12 months after their NPSP services ended, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.05.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Domestic abuse treatment metric</I>—(<I>1</I>) The number of allegedly abusive spouses in incidents that met FAP criteria for domestic abuse who began receiving and successfully completed FAP clinical treatment services during the previous fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of these spouses who were not reported as allegedly abusive in any domestic abuse incidents that met FAP criteria within 12 months after FAP clinical services ended.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Domestic abuse victim advocacy metrics.</I> The number of domestic abuse victims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Who receive domestic abuse victim advocacy services, and of those, the respective totals of domestic abuse victims who receive such services from domestic abuse victim advocates or from FAP clinical staff.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Who initially make restricted reports to domestic abuse victim advocates and the total of domestic abuse victims who initially make restricted reports to FAP clinical staff, and of each of those, the total of domestic abuse victims who report being sexually assaulted.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whose initially restricted reports to domestic abuse victim advocates became unrestricted reports, and the total of domestic abuse victims whose initially restricted reports to FAP clinical staff became unrestricted reports.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Initially making unrestricted reports to domestic abuse victim advocates and making unrestricted reports to FAP clinical staff and, of each of those, the total of domestic abuse victims who report being sexually assaulted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public awareness, prevention, NPSP, and training</I>—(1) <I>Public awareness activities</I>—(i) <I>PS 37: Implementation of public awareness activities in the coordinated community response and risk management plan.</I> The FAP public awareness activities highlight community strengths; promote FAP core concepts and messages; advertise specific services; use appropriate available techniques to reach out to the military community, especially to military families who reside outside of the military installation; and are customized to the local population and its needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 38: Collaboration to increase public awareness of child abuse and domestic abuse.</I> The FAP partners and collaborates with other military and civilian organizations to conduct public awareness activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 39: Components of public awareness activities.</I> The installation public awareness activities promote community awareness of:
</P>
<P>(A) Protective factors that promote and sustain healthy parent/child relationships.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The importance of nurturing and attachment in the development of young children.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Infant, childhood, and teen development.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Programs, strategies, and opportunities to build parental resilience.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Opportunities for social connections and mutual support.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Programs and strategies to facilitate children's social and emotional development.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Information about access to community resources in times of need.
</P>
<P>(B) The dynamics of risk factors for different types of child abuse and domestic abuse, including information for teenage family members on teen dating violence.
</P>
<P>(C) Developmentally appropriate supervision of children.
</P>
<P>(D) Creating safe sleep environments for infants.
</P>
<P>(E) How incidents of suspected child abuse should be reported in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, 28 CFR 81.2, and DoD Instruction 6400.03, “Family Advocacy Command Assistance Team” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640003p.pdf</I>) and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(F) The availability of domestic abuse victim advocates.
</P>
<P>(G) Hotlines and crisis lines that provide 24/7 support to families in crisis.
</P>
<P>(H) How victims of domestic abuse may make restricted reports of incidents of domestic abuse in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06.
</P>
<P>(I) The availability of FAP clinical assessment and treatment.
</P>
<P>(J) The availability of NPSP home visitation services.
</P>
<P>(K) The availability of transitional compensation for victims of child abuse and domestic abuse in accordance with DoD Instruction 1342.24, “Transitional Compensation for Abused Dependents” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134224p.pdf</I>) and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prevention activities</I>—(i) <I>PS 40: Implementation of prevention activities in the coordinated community response and risk management plan.</I> The FAP implements coordinated child abuse and domestic abuse primary and secondary prevention activities identified in the annual plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 41: Collaboration for prevention of child abuse and domestic abuse.</I> The FAP collaborates with other military and civilian organizations to implement primary and secondary child abuse and domestic abuse prevention programs and services that are available on a voluntary basis to all persons eligible for services in a military medical treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 42: Primary prevention activities.</I> Primary prevention activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Information, classes, and non-medical counseling as defined in § 61.3 to assist Service members and their family members in strengthening their interpersonal relationships and marriages, in building their parenting skills, and in adapting successfully to military life.
</P>
<P>(B) Proactive outreach to identify and engage families during pre-deployment, deployment, and reintegration to decrease the negative effects of deployment and other military operations on parenting and family dynamics.
</P>
<P>(C) Family strengthening programs and activities that facilitate social connections and mutual support, link families to services and opportunities for growth, promote children's social and emotional development, promote safe, stable, and nurturing relationships, and encourage parental involvement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 43: Identification of populations for secondary prevention activities.</I> The FAP identifies populations at higher risk for child abuse or domestic abuse from a review of:
</P>
<P>(A) Relevant research findings.
</P>
<P>(B) One or more relevant needs assessments in the locality.
</P>
<P>(C) Data from unit deployments and returns from deployment.
</P>
<P>(D) Data of expectant parents and parents of children 3 years of age or younger.
</P>
<P>(E) Lessons learned from Service FAP headquarters and local fatality reviews.
</P>
<P>(F) Feedback from the FAC, the IDC, and the command.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 44: Secondary prevention activities.</I> The FAP implements secondary prevention activities that are results-oriented and evidence-supported, stress the positive benefits of seeking help, promote available resources to build and sustain protective factors for healthy family relationships, and reduce risk factors for child abuse or domestic abuse. Such activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Educational classes and counseling to assist Service members and their family members with troubled interpersonal relationships and marriages in improving their interpersonal relationships and marriages.
</P>
<P>(B) The NPSP, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.05 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(C) Educational classes and counseling to help improve the parenting skills of Service members and their family members who experience parenting problems.
</P>
<P>(D) Health care screening for domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(E) Referrals to essential services, supports, and resources when needed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>NPSP</I>—(i) <I>PS 45: Referrals to NPSP.</I> The installation FAPM ensures that expectant parents and parents with children ages 0-3 years may self-refer to the NPSP or be encouraged to participate by a health care provider, the commander of an active duty Service member who is a parent or expectant parent, staff of a family support program, or community professionals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 46: Informed Consent for NPSP.</I> The FAPM ensures that parents who ask to participate in the NPSP are provided informed consent in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.05 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance to be:
</P>
<P>(A) Voluntarily screened for factors that may place them at risk for child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Further assessed using standardized and more in-depth measurements if the screening indicates potential for risk.
</P>
<P>(C) Receive home visits and additional NPSP services as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(D) Assessed for risk on a continuing basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 47: Eligibility for NPSP.</I> Pending funding and staffing capabilities, the installation FAPM ensures that qualified NPSP personnel offer intensive home visiting services on a voluntary basis to expectant parents and parents with children ages 0-3 years who:
</P>
<P>(A) Are eligible to receive services in a military medical treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(B) Have been assessed by NPSP staff as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At-risk for child abuse or domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Displaying some indicators of high risk for child abuse or domestic abuse, but whose overall assessment does not place them in the at-risk category.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Having been reported to FAP for an incident of abuse of a child age 0-3 years in their care who have previously received NPSP services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 48: Review of NPSP screening.</I> Results of NPSP screening are reviewed within 3 business days of completion. If the screening indicates potential for risk, parents are invited to participate in further assessment by a NPSP home visitor using standardized and more in-depth measurements.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 49: NPSP services.</I> The NPSP offers expectant parents and parents with children ages 0-3, who are eligible for the NPSP, access to intensive home visiting services that:
</P>
<P>(A) Are sensitive to cultural attitudes and practices, to include the need for interpreter or translation services.
</P>
<P>(B) Are based on a comprehensive assessment of research-based protective and risk factors.
</P>
<P>(C) Emphasize developmentally appropriate parenting skills that build on the strengths of the parent(s).
</P>
<P>(D) Support the dual roles of the parent(s) as Service member(s) and parent(s).
</P>
<P>(E) Promote the involvement of both parents when applicable.
</P>
<P>(F) Decrease any negative effects of deployment and other military operations on parenting.
</P>
<P>(G) Provide education to parent(s) on how to adapt to parenthood, children's developmental milestones, age-appropriate expectations for their child's development, parent-child communication skills, parenting skills, and effective discipline techniques.
</P>
<P>(H) Empower parents to seek support and take steps to build proactive coping strategies in all domains of family life.
</P>
<P>(I) Provide referral to additional community resources to meet identified needs.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>PS 50: NPSP protocol.</I> The installation FAPM ensures that NPSP personnel implement the Service FAP headquarters protocol for NPSP services, including the NPSP intervention plan with clearly measurable goals, based on needs identified by the standard screening instrument, assessment tools, the NPSP staff member's clinical assessment, and active input from the family.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>PS 51: Frequency of NPSP home visits.</I> NPSP personnel exercise professional judgment in determining the frequency of home visits based on the assessment of the family, but make a minimum of two home visits to each family per month. If at least two home visits are not provided to a high risk family enrolled in the program, NPSP personnel will document what circumstance(s) occurred to preclude twice monthly home visits and what services/contacts were provided instead.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>PS 52: Continuing NPSP risk assessment.</I> The installation FAPM ensures that NPSP personnel assess risk and protective factors impacting parents receiving NPSP home visitation services on an ongoing basis to continuously monitor progress toward intervention goals.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>PS 53: Opening, transferring, or closing NPSP cases.</I> The installation FAPM ensures that NPSP cases are opened, transferred, or closed in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>PS 54: Disclosure of information in NPSP cases.</I> Information gathered during NPSP screening, clinical assessments, and in the provision of supportive services or treatment that is protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, and 32 CFR part 310 is only disclosed in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training</I>—(i) <I>PS 55: Implementation of training requirements.</I> The FAP implements coordinated training activities for commanders, senior enlisted advisors, Service members, and their family members, DoD civilians, and contractors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 56: Training for commanders and senior enlisted advisors.</I> The installation commander or senior mission commander must require that qualified FAP trainers defined in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance provide training on the prevention of and response to child abuse and domestic abuse to:
</P>
<P>(A) Commanders within 90 days of assuming command.
</P>
<P>(B) Annually to NCOs who are senior enlisted advisors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 57: Training for other installation personnel.</I> Qualified FAP trainers as defined in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance conduct training (or help provide subject matter experts who conduct training) on child abuse and domestic abuse in the military community to installation:
</P>
<P>(A) Law enforcement and investigative personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) Health care personnel.
</P>
<P>(C) Sexual assault prevention and response personnel.
</P>
<P>(D) Chaplains.
</P>
<P>(E) Personnel in DoDEA schools.
</P>
<P>(F) Personnel in child development centers.
</P>
<P>(G) Family home care providers.
</P>
<P>(H) Personnel and volunteers in youth programs.
</P>
<P>(I) Family center personnel.
</P>
<P>(J) Service members.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 58: Content of training.</I> FAP training for personnel, as required by PS 56 and PS 57, located at paragraphs (d)(4)(ii) and (d)(4)(iii) of this section, includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Research-supported protective factors that promote and sustain healthy family relationships.
</P>
<P>(B) Risk factors for and the dynamics of child abuse and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(C) Requirements and procedures for reporting child abuse in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, 28 CFR 81.2, and DoD Instruction 6400.03.
</P>
<P>(D) The availability of domestic abuse victim advocates and response to restricted and unrestricted reports of incidents of domestic abuse in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06.
</P>
<P>(E) The dynamics of domestic abuse, reporting options, safety planning, and response unique to the military culture that establishes and supports competence in performing core victim advocacy duties.
</P>
<P>(F) Roles and responsibilities of the FAP and the command under the installation's coordinated community response to a report of a child abuse, including the response to a report of child sexual abuse in a DoD sanctioned child or youth activity in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD 6400.1-M-1, or domestic abuse incident, and actions that may be taken to protect the victim in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.06.
</P>
<P>(G) Available resources on and off the installation that promote protective factors and support families at risk before abuse occurs.
</P>
<P>(H) Procedures for the management of child abuse and domestic abuse incidents that happen before a Service member is deployed, as set forth in PS 16, located at paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(I) The availability of transitional compensation for victims of child abuse and domestic abuse in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a and DoD Instruction 6400.03, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 59: Additional FAP training for NPSP personnel.</I> The installation FAPM ensures that all personnel offering NPSP services are trained in the content specified in PS 58, located at paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section, and in DoD Instruction 6400.05.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FAP Response to incidents of child abuse or domestic abuse</I>—(1) <I>Reports of child abuse</I>—(i) <I>PS 60: Responsibilities in responding to reports of child abuse.</I> The installation commander in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance must issue local policy that specifies the installation procedures for responding to reports of:
</P>
<P>(A) Suspected incidents of child abuse in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, 28 CFR 81.2, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance, federal and State laws, and applicable SOFAs.
</P>
<P>(B) Suspected incidents of child abuse involving students, ages 3-18, enrolled in a DoDEA school or any children participating in DoD-sanctioned child or youth activities or programs.
</P>
<P>(C) Suspected incidents of the sexual abuse of a child in DoD-sanctioned child or youth activities or programs that must be reported to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.03 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(D) Suspected incidents involving fatalities or serious injury involving child abuse that must be reported to OSD FAP in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 61: Responsibilities during emergency removal of a child from the home.</I> (A) In responding to reports of child abuse, the FAP complies with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance and installation policies, procedures, and criteria set forth under PS 11, located at paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section, during emergency removal of a child from the home.
</P>
<P>(B) The FAP provides ongoing and direct case management and coordination of care of children placed in foster care in collaboration with the child welfare and foster care agency, and will not close the FAP case until a permanency plan for all involved children is in place.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 62: Coordination with other authorities to protect children.</I> The FAP coordinates with military and local civilian law enforcement agencies, military investigative agencies, and civilian child protective agencies in response to reports of child abuse incidents in accordance with subpart A of this part, 42 U.S.C. 13031, 28 CFR 81.2, and DoD 6400.1-M-1 and appropriate MOUs under PS 5, located at paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 63: Responsibilities in responding to reports of child abuse involving infants and toddlers from birth to age 3.</I> Services and support are delivered in a developmentally appropriate manner to infants and toddlers, and their families who come to the attention of FAP to ensure decisions and services meet the social and emotional needs of this vulnerable population.
</P>
<P>(A) FAP makes a direct referral to the servicing early intervention agency, such as the Educational and Developmental Intervention Services (EDIS) where available, for infants and toddlers from birth to 3 years of age who are involved in an incident of child abuse in accordance with 20 U.S.C. 921 through 932 and chapter 33.
</P>
<P>(B) FAP provides ongoing and direct case management services to families and their infants and toddlers placed in foster care or other out-of-home placements to ensure the unique developmental, physical, social-emotional, and mental health needs are addressed in child welfare-initiated care plans.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 64: Assistance in responding to reports of multiple victim child sexual abuse in dod sanctioned out-of-home care.</I> (A) The installation FAPM assists the installation commander in assessing the need for and implementing procedures for requesting deployment of a DoD FACAT in cases of multiple-victim child sexual abuse occurring in DoD-sanctioned or operated activities, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.03 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(B) The installation FAPM acts as the installation coordinator for the FACAT before it arrives at the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>PS 65: Responsibilities in Responding to Reports of Domestic Abuse.</I> Installation procedures for responding to unrestricted and restricted reports of domestic abuse are established in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Informed consent</I>—(i) <I>PS 66: Informed consent for FAP clinical assessment, intervention services, and supportive services or clinical treatment.</I> Every person referred for FAP clinical intervention and supportive services must give informed consent for such assessment or services. Clients are considered voluntary, non-mandated recipients of services except when the person is:
</P>
<P>(A) Issued a lawful order by a military commander to participate.
</P>
<P>(B) Ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction to participate.
</P>
<P>(C) A child, and the parent or guardian has authorized such assessment or services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 67: Documentation of informed consent.</I> FAP staff document that the person gave informed consent in the FAP case record, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and the Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 68: Privileged communication.</I> Every person referred for FAP clinical intervention and support services is informed of their right to the provisions of privileged communication by specified service providers in accordance with Military Rules of Evidence 513 and 514 in the Manual for Courts Martial, current edition (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/mcm.pdf,</I> Section III, pages III-34 to III-36.).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Clinical case management and risk management</I>—(i) <I>PS 69: FAP case manager.</I> A clinical service provider is assigned to each FAP referral immediately when the case enters the FAP system in accordance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 70: Initial risk monitoring.</I> FAP monitoring of the risk of further abuse begins when the report of suspected child abuse or domestic abuse is received and continues through the initial clinical assessment. The FAP case manager requests information from a variety of sources, in addition to the victim and the abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated), to identify additional risk factors and to clarify the context of the use of any violence, and ascertains the level of risk and the risk of lethality using standardized instruments in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.06, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 71: Ongoing risk assessment.</I> (A) FAP risk assessment is conducted from the clinical assessment until the case closes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) During each contact with the victim;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) During each contact with the abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whenever the abuser is alleged to have committed a new incident of child abuse or domestic abuse;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) During significant transition periods for the victim or abuser;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) When destabilizing events for the victim or abuser occur; or
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) When any clinically relevant issues are uncovered during clinical intervention services.
</P>
<P>(B) The FAP case manager monitors risk at least quarterly when civilian agencies provide the clinical intervention services or child welfare services through MOUs with such agencies.
</P>
<P>(C) The FAP case manager monitors risk at least monthly when the case is high risk or involves chronic child neglect or child sexual abuse.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 72: Communication of increased risk.</I> The FAPM communicates increases in risk or risk of lethality to the appropriate commander(s), law enforcement, or civilian officials. FAP clinical staff assess whether the increased risk requires the victim or the victim advocate to be urged to review the victim's safety plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clinical assessment</I>—(i) <I>PS 73: Clinical assessment policy.</I> The installation FAPM establishes procedures for the prompt clinical assessment of victims, abusers (whether alleged or adjudicated), and other family members, who are eligible to receive treatment in a military medical facility, in reports of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD 6025.18-R when applicable and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A prompt response based on the severity of the alleged abuse and further risk of child abuse or domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Developmentally appropriate clinical tools and measures to be used, including those that take into account relevant cultural attitudes and practices.
</P>
<P>(C) Timelines for FAP staff to complete the assessment of an alleged abuse incident.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 74: Gathering and disclosure of information.</I> Service members who conduct clinical assessments and provide clinical services to Service member abusers (whether alleged or adjudicated) must adhere to Service policies with respect to advisement of rights in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 47, also known as “The Uniform Code of Military Justice”. Clinical service providers must also seek guidance from the servicing legal office when a question of applicability arises. Before obtaining information about and from the person being assessed, FAP staff fully discuss with such person:
</P>
<P>(A) The nature of the information that is being sought.
</P>
<P>(B) The sources from which such information will be sought.
</P>
<P>(C) The reason(s) why the information is being sought.
</P>
<P>(D) The circumstances in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance under which the information may be released to others.
</P>
<P>(E) The procedures under 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance for requesting the person's authorization for such information.
</P>
<P>(F) The procedures under 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance by which a person may request access to his or her record.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 75: Components of clinical assessment.</I> FAP staff conducts or ensures that a clinical service provider conducts a clinical assessment of each victim, abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated), and other family member who is eligible for treatment in a military medical treatment facility, in accordance with PS 73, located at paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) An interview.
</P>
<P>(B) A review of pertinent records.
</P>
<P>(C) A review of information obtained from collateral contacts, including but not limited to medical providers, schools, child development centers, and youth programs.
</P>
<P>(D) A psychosocial assessment, including developmentally appropriate assessment tools for infants, toddlers, and children.
</P>
<P>(E) An assessment of the basic health, developmental, safety, and special health and mental health needs of infants and toddlers.
</P>
<P>(F) An assessment of the presence and balance of risk and protective factors.
</P>
<P>(G) A safety assessment.
</P>
<P>(H) A lethality assessment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 76: Ethical conduct in clinical assessments.</I> When conducting FAP clinical assessments, FAP staff treat those being clinically assessed with respect, fairness, and in accordance with professional ethics.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Intervention strategy and treatment plan</I>—(i) <I>PS 77: Intervention strategy and treatment plan for the alleged abuser.</I> The FAP case manager prepares an appropriate intervention strategy based on the clinical assessment for every abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated) who is eligible to receive treatment in a military treatment facility and for whom a FAP case is opened. The intervention strategy documents the client's goals for self, the level of client involvement in developing the treatment goals, and recommends appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Actions that may be taken by appropriate authorities under the coordinated community response, including safety and protective measures, to reduce the risk of another act of child abuse or domestic abuse, and the assignment of responsibilities for carrying out such actions.
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment modalities based on the clinical assessment that may assist the abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated) in ending his or her abusive behavior.
</P>
<P>(C) Actions that may be taken by appropriate authorities to assess and monitor the risk of recurrence.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 78: Commanders' access to relevant information for disposition of allegations.</I> FAP provides commanders and senior enlisted personnel timely access to relevant information on child abuse incidents and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse incidents to support appropriate disposition of allegations. Relevant information includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The intervention goals and activities described in PS 77, located at paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The alleged abuser's prognosis for treatment, as determined from a clinical assessment.
</P>
<P>(C) The extent to which the alleged abuser accepts responsibility for his or her behavior and expresses a genuine desire for treatment, provided that such information obtained from the alleged abuser was obtained in compliance with Service policies with respect to advisement of rights in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 47.
</P>
<P>(D) Other factors considered appropriate for the command, including the results of any previous treatment of the alleged abuser for child abuse or domestic abuse and his or her compliance with the previous treatment plan, and the estimated time the alleged abuser will be required to be away from military duties to fulfill treatment commitments.
</P>
<P>(E) Status of any child taken into protective custody.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 79: Supportive services plan for the victim and other family members.</I> The FAP case manager prepares a plan for appropriate supportive services or clinical treatment, based on the clinical assessments, for every victim or family member who is eligible to receive treatment in a military treatment facility, who expresses a desire for FAP services, and for whom a FAP case is opened. The plan recommends one or more appropriate treatment modalities or support services, in accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.05 and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 80: Clinical consultation.</I> All FAP clinical assessments and treatment plans for persons in incidents of child abuse or domestic abuse are reviewed in the CCSM, in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Intervention and treatment</I>—(i) <I>PS 81: Intervention services for abusers.</I> Appropriate intervention services for an abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated) who is eligible to receive treatment in a military medical program are available either from the FAP or from other military agencies, contractors, or civilian services providers, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Psycho-educationally based programs and services.
</P>
<P>(B) Supportive services that may include financial counseling and spiritual support.
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical treatment specifically designed to address risk and protective factors and dynamics associated with child abuse or domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(D) Trauma informed clinical treatment when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 82: Supportive services or treatment for victims who are eligible to receive treatment in a military treatment facility.</I> Appropriate supportive services and treatment are available either from the FAP or from other military agencies, contractors, or civilian services providers, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Immediate and ongoing domestic abuse victim advocacy services, available 24 hours per day through personal or telephone contact, as set forth in DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(B) Supportive services that may include financial counseling and spiritual support.
</P>
<P>(C) Psycho-educationally based programs and services.
</P>
<P>(D) Appropriate trauma informed clinical treatment specifically designed to address risk and protective factors and dynamics associated with child abuse or domestic abuse victimization.
</P>
<P>(E) Supportive services, information and referral, safety planning, and treatment (when appropriate) for child victims and their family members of abuse by non-caretaking offenders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 83: Supportive services for victims or offenders who are not eligible to receive treatment in a military treatment facility.</I> Victims must receive initial safety-planning services only and must be referred to civilian support services for all follow-on care. Offenders must receive referrals to appropriate civilian intervention or treatment programs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 84: Ethical conduct in supportive services and treatment for abusers and victims.</I> When providing FAP supportive services and treatment, FAP staff treats those receiving such supportive services or clinical treatment with respect, fairness, and in accordance with professional ethics.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 85: CCSM review of treatment progress.</I> Treatment progress and the results of the latest risk assessment are reviewed periodically in the CCSM in accordance with subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(A) Child sexual abuse cases are reviewed monthly in the CCSM.
</P>
<P>(B) Cases involving foster care placement of children are reviewed monthly in the CCSM.
</P>
<P>(C) All other cases are reviewed at least quarterly in the CCSM.
</P>
<P>(D) Cases must be reviewed within 30 days of any significant event or a pending significant event that would impact care, including but not limited to a subsequent maltreatment incident, geographic move, deployment, pending separation from the Service, or retirement.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>PS 86: Continuity of services.</I> The FAP case manager ensures continuity of services before the transfer or referral of open child abuse or domestic abuse cases to other service providers:
</P>
<P>(A) At the same installation or other installations of the same Service FAP headquarters.
</P>
<P>(B) At installations of other Service FAP headquarters.
</P>
<P>(C) In the civilian community.
</P>
<P>(D) In child welfare services in the civilian community.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Termination and case closure</I>—(i) <I>PS 87: Criteria for case closure.</I> FAP services are terminated and the case is closed when treatment provided to the abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated) is terminated and treatment or supportive services provided to the victim are terminated.
</P>
<P>(A) Treatment provided to the abuser(s) (whether alleged or adjudicated) is terminated only if either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The CCSM discussion produced a consensus that clinical objectives have been substantially met and the results of a current risk assessment indicate that the risk of additional abuse and risk of lethality have declined; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The CCSM discussion produced a consensus that clinical objectives have not been met due to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Noncompliance of such abuser(s) with the requirements of the treatment program.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Unwillingness of such abuser(s) to make changes in behavior that would result in treatment progress.
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment and supportive services provided to the victim are terminated only if either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The CCSM discussion produced a consensus that clinical objectives have been substantially met; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The victim declines further FAP supportive services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 88: Communication of case closure.</I> Upon closure of the case the FAP notifies:
</P>
<P>(A) The abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated) and victim, and in a child abuse case, the non-abusing parent.
</P>
<P>(B) The commander of an active duty victim or abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated).
</P>
<P>(C) Any appropriate civilian court currently exercising jurisdiction over the abuser (whether alleged or adjudicated), or in a child abuse case, over the child.
</P>
<P>(D) A civilian child protective services agency currently exercising protective authority over a child victim.
</P>
<P>(E) The NPSP, if the family has been currently receiving NPSP intensive home visiting services.
</P>
<P>(F) The domestic abuse victim advocate if the victim has been receiving victim advocacy services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 89: Disclosure of information.</I> Information gathered during FAP clinical assessments and during treatment or supportive services that is protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, and 32 CFR part 310 is only disclosed in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a, DoD 6025.18-R, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation and records management</I>—(1) <I>Documentation of NPSP cases</I>—(i) <I>PS 90: NPSP case record documentation.</I> For every client screened for NPSP services, NPSP personnel must document in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) The informed consent of the parents based on the services offered.
</P>
<P>(B) The results of the initial screening for risk and protective factors and, if the risk was high, document:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The assessment(s) conducted.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan for services and goals for the parents.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The services provided and whether suspected child abuse or domestic abuse was reported.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The parents' progress toward their goals at the time NPSP services ended.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 91: Maintenance, storage, and security of NPSP case records.</I> NPSP case records are maintained, stored, and kept secure in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 92: Transfer of NPSP case records.</I> NPSP case records are transferred in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 93: Disposition of NPSP records.</I> NPSP records are disposed of in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documentation of reported incidents</I>—(i) <I>PS 94: Reports of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse.</I> For every new reported incident of child abuse and unrestricted report of domestic abuse, the FAP documents, at a minimum, an accurate accounting of all risk levels, actions taken, assessments conducted, foster care placements, clinical services provided, and results of the quarterly CCSM from the initial report of an incident to case closure in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 95: Documentation of multiple incidents.</I> Multiple reported incidents of child abuse and unrestricted reports of domestic abuse involving the same Service member or family members are documented separately within one FAP case record.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 96: Maintenance, storage, and security of FAP case records.</I> FAP case records are maintained, stored, and kept secure in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PS 97: Transfer of FAP case records.</I> FAP case records are transferred in accordance with DoD 6025.18-R when applicable, 32 CFR part 310, and Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PS 98: Disposition of FAP records.</I> FAP records are disposed of in accordance with DoD Directive 5015.2, “DoD Records Management Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/501502p.pdf</I>) and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse incidents</I>—(i) <I>PS 99: Recording data into the Service FAP headquarters central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse incidents.</I> Data pertaining to child abuse and unrestricted domestic abuse incidents reported to FAP are added to the Service FAP headquarters central registry of child and domestic abuse incidents. Quarterly edit checks are conducted in accordance with Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures. Data that personally identifies the sponsor, victim, or alleged abuser are not retained in the central registry for any incidents that did not meet criteria for entry or on any victim or alleged abuser who is not an active duty member or retired Service member, DoD civilian employee, contractor, or eligible beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 100: Access to the DoD central registry of child and domestic abuse incidents.</I> Access to the DoD central registry of child and domestic abuse incidents and disclosure of information therein complies with DoD 6400.1-M-1 and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 101: Access to Service FAP headquarters central registry of child and domestic abuse reports.</I> Access to the Service FAP headquarters central registry of child and domestic abuse incidents and disclosure of information therein complies with DoD 6400.1-M-1 and Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation of restricted reports of domestic abuse</I>—(i) <I>PS 102: Documentation of</I> <I>restricted reports of domestic abuse.</I> Restricted reports of domestic abuse are documented in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 103: Maintenance, storage, security, and disposition of restricted reports of domestic abuse.</I> Records of restricted reports of domestic abuse are maintained, stored, kept secure, and disposed of in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and Service FAP headquarters policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fatality notification and review</I>—(1) <I>Fatality notification</I>—(i) <I>PS 104: Domestic abuse fatality and child abuse fatality notification.</I> The installation FAC establishes local procedures in compliance with Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance to report fatalities known or suspected to have resulted from an act of domestic abuse, child abuse, or suicide related to an act of domestic abuse or child abuse that involve personnel assigned to the installation or within its area of responsibility. Fatalities are reported through the Service FAP headquarters and the Secretaries of the Military Departments to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) in compliance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.06, and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 105: Timeliness of reporting domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities to DASD(MC&amp;FP).</I> The designated installation personnel report domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities through the Service FAP headquarters channels to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) within the timeframe specified in DoD Instruction 6400.06 in accordance with the Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 106: Reporting format for domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities.</I> Installation reports of domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities are reported on the DD Form 2901, “Child Abuse or Domestic Abuse Related Fatality Notification,” and in accordance with subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of fatalities</I>—(i) <I>PS 107: Information forwarded to the Service FAP headquarters fatality review.</I> The installation provides written information concerning domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities that involve personnel assigned to the installation or within its area of responsibility promptly to the Service FAP headquarters fatality review team in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and in the format specified in the Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 108: Cooperation with non-DoD fatality review teams.</I> Authorized installation personnel provide information about domestic abuse and child abuse fatalities that involve personnel assigned to the installation or within its area of responsibility to non-DoD fatality review teams in accordance with written MOUs and 5 U.S.C. 552a and 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>QA and accreditation or inspections</I>—(1) <I>QA</I>—(i) <I>PS 109: Installation FAP QA program.</I> The installation FAC will establish local QA procedures that address compliance with the PSs in this section in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 110: QA Training.</I> All FAP personnel must be trained in installation QA procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PS 111: Monitoring FAP compliance with PSs.</I> The installation FAPM monitors compliance of FAP personnel to installation QA procedures and the PSs in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accreditation or inspections</I>—(i) <I>PS 112: Accreditation or inspections.</I> The installation FAP undergoes accreditation or inspection at least every 4 years to monitor compliance with the PSs in this section, in accordance with subpart A of this part and Service FAP headquarters policies and guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PS 113: Review of accreditation and inspection results.</I> The installation FAC reviews the results of the FAP accreditation review or inspection and submits findings and corresponding corrective action plans to the Service FAP headquarters in accordance with its implementing policy and guidance.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Appendix to § 61.12—Index of FAP Topics
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Topic
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">PS number(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Page number(s)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Accreditation/inspection of FAP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Case manager</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Case closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33-34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Case transfer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92, 97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34-35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Central registry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Access to DoD central registry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Access to Service FAP Headquarters central registry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reporting of statistics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17-18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Child abuse reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25-26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coordination with other authorities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emergency removal of a child</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP and military law enforcement communication</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Protection of children</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Involving infants and toddlers birth to age three</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sexual abuse in DoD-sanctioned activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clinical assessment policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Components of FAP clinical assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ethical conduct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Gathering and disclosing information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Informed consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66-68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clinical consultation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collaboration between military installations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Continuity of services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coordinated community response</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7-9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emergency response plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP and military law enforcement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">MOUs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Criminal history record check</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disclosure of information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15, 54, 74, 90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12, 23, 28, 34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disposition of records
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Restricted reports of domestic abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Documentation
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Informed consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Multiple incidents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP cases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reports of child abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Restricted reports of domestic abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unrestricted reports of domestic abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Domestic abuse
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Clinical assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28-30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Clinical case management</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27-28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP and military law enforcement communication</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP case manager</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Informed consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Privileged communication</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Response to reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Victim advocacy services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emergency response plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FAC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7-9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coordinated community response and risk management plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Establishment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Monitoring of coordinated community response and risk management</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Risk management</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8, 11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Roles, functions, responsibilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FAP
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accreditation/inspection</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Clinical staff qualifications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coordinated community response and risk management plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Criminal history background check</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Establishment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP manager</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Funding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Internal and external duress system</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Management information system policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Metrics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17-18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP staff qualifications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operations policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Personnel requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Prevention and education staff qualifications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">QA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Victim advocate personnel requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Victim advocate staff qualifications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatality notification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reporting format</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Timeliness of report to OSD</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatality review</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cooperation with non-DoD fatality review teams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Service FAP headquarters fatality review process</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IDC
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Establishment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">QA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Training of IDC members</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Intervention strategy and treatment plan
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">CCSM review of treatment progress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Clinical consultation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commander's access to information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Communication of case closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Continuity of services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Criteria for case closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disclosure of information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ethical conduct in supportive services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Informed consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Intervention services for abusers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Intervention strategy and treatment plan for abusers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Supportive services and treatment for eligible victims</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Supportive services for ineligible victims</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Management information system</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35-36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17-18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reporting statistics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Domestic abuse offender treatment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Domestic abuse victim advocate metrics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP metrics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP metrics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MOU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metrics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17-18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Domestic abuse treatment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Domestic abuse victim advocacy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NPSP
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Continuing risk assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disclosure of information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disposition of records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Eligibility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Frequency of home visits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Informed consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Internal and external duress system</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Maintenance, storage, and security of records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Opening, transferring, and closing cases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Protection of home visitors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Protocol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Referrals to NPSP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reporting known or suspected child abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Screening</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Staff qualifications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Training for NPSP personnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transfer of NPSP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prevention activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20-21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Collaboration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Identification of populations for secondary prevention activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Implementation of activities in coordinated community response and risk management plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Primary prevention activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Secondary prevention activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PMA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Public awareness</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37-39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19-20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Collaboration to increase public awareness</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Components</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19-20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Implementation of activities in the annual FAP plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">QA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP QA program</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Monitoring FAP QA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Training</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Records Management
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disposition of FAP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disposition of NPSP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAP case records maintenance, storage, and security</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP case records maintenance, storage, and security</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transfer of FAP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transfer of NPSP records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unrestricted reports of domestic abuse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Risk management</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Assessments</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Case manager</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Communication of increased risk</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Deployment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disclosure of information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Initial risk monitoring</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ongoing risk assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Review and monitoring of the coordinated community response and risk management plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7, 8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">PMA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Training
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commanders and senior enlisted advisors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Content</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FAC and IDC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Implementation of training requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Installation personnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NPSP personnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">QA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Guidelines for Clinical Intervention for Persons Reported as Domestic Abusers</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. chapter 47, 42 U.S.C. 5106g, 42 U.S.C. 13031.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 61.25" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.25   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is composed of several subparts, each containing its own purpose. This subpart implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures for addressing child abuse and domestic abuse in military communities.
</P>
<P>(b) Restricted reporting guidelines are provided in DoD Instruction 6400.06, “Domestic Abuse Involving DoD Military and Certain Affiliated Personnel” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640006p.pdf</I>). This subpart prescribes guidelines for Family Advocacy Program (FAP) assessment, clinical rehabilitative treatment, and ongoing monitoring of individuals who have been reported to FAP by means of an unrestricted report for domestic abuse against:
</P>
<P>(1) Current or former spouses, or
</P>
<P>(2) Intimate partners.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.26" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.26   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to OSD, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to in this subpart as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.27" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.27   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, the following terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Abuser.</I> An individual adjudicated in a military disciplinary proceeding or civilian criminal proceeding who is found guilty of committing an act of domestic violence or a lesser included offense, as well as an individual alleged to have committed domestic abuse, including domestic violence, who has not had such an allegation adjudicated.
</P>
<P><I>Abuser contract.</I> The treatment agreement between the clinician and the abuser that specifies the responsibilities and expectations of each party. It includes specific abuser treatment goals as identified in the treatment plan and clearly specifies that past, present, and future allegations and threats of domestic abuse and child abuse or neglect will be reported to the active duty member's commander, to local law enforcement and child protective services, as appropriate, and to the potential victim.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical case management.</I> Defined in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical case staff meeting (CCSM).</I> Defined in subpart B of the part.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical intervention.</I> Defined in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic abuse.</I> Domestic violence or a pattern of behavior resulting in emotional/psychological abuse, economic control, and/or interference with personal liberty that is directed toward a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse;
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic violence.</I> An offense under the United States Code, the UCMJ, or State law involving the use, attempted use, or threatened use of force or violence against a person, or a violation of a lawful order issued for the protection of a person, who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>FAP Manager.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Incident determination committee.</I> Defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Intimate partner.</I> A person with whom the victim shares a child in common, or a person with whom the victim shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P><I>Risk management.</I> Defined in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Severe abuse.</I> Exposure to chronic pattern of emotionally abusive behavior with physical or emotional effects requiring hospitalization or long-term mental health treatment. In a spouse emotional abuse incident, this designation requires an alternative environment to protect the physical safety of the spouse. Exposure to a chronic pattern of neglecting behavior with physical, emotional, or educational effects requiring hospitalization, long-term mental health treatment, or long-term special education services. Physical abuse resulting in major physical injury requiring inpatient medical treatment or causing temporary or permanent disability or disfigurement; moderate or severe emotional effects requiring long-term mental health treatment; and may require placement in an alternative environment to protect the physical safety or other welfare of the victim. Sexual abuse involving oral, vaginal, or anal penetration that may or may not require one or more outpatient visits for medical treatment; may be accompanied by injury requiring inpatient medical treatment or causing temporary or permanent disability or disfigurement; moderate or severe emotional effects requiring long-term mental health treatment; and may require placement in an alternative environment to protect the physical safety or welfare of the victim.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted report.</I> A process allowing a victim of domestic abuse to report an incident using current reporting channels, <I>e.g.</I> chain of command, law enforcement or criminal investigative organization, and FAP for clinical intervention.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.28" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.28   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with subpart A of this part and DoD Instruction 6400.06, it is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Develop PSs and critical procedures for the FAP that reflect a coordinated community response to domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) Address domestic abuse within the military community through a coordinated community risk management approach.
</P>
<P>(c) Provide appropriate individualized and rehabilitative treatment that supplements administrative or disciplinary action, as appropriate, to persons reported to FAP as domestic abusers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.29" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.29   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)):
</P>
<P>(1) Sponsors FAP research and evaluation and participates in other federal research and evaluation projects relevant to the assessment, treatment, and risk management of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensures that research is reviewed every 3 to 5 years and that relevant progress and findings are distributed to the Secretaries of the Military Departments using all available Web-based applications.
</P>
<P>(3) Assists the Secretaries of the Military Departments to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify tools to assess risk of recurrence.
</P>
<P>(ii) Develop and use pre- and post-treatment measures of effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iii) Promote training in the assessment, treatment, and risk management of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments issue implementing guidance in accordance with this part. The guidance must provide for the clinical assessment, rehabilitative treatment, and ongoing monitoring and risk management of Service members and eligible beneficiaries reported to FAP for domestic abuse by means of an unrestricted report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.30" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.20.4.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.30   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principles for clinical intervention</I>—(1) <I>Components of clinical intervention.</I> The change from abusive to appropriate behavior in domestic relationships is a process that requires clinical intervention, which includes ongoing coordinated community risk management, assessment, and treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Military administrative and disciplinary actions and clinical intervention.</I> The military disciplinary system and FAP clinical intervention are separate processes. Commanders may proceed with administrative or disciplinary actions at any time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goals of clinical intervention.</I> the primary goals of clinical intervention in domestic abuse are to ensure the safety of the victim and community, and promote stopping abusive behaviors.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Therapeutic alliance</I>—(i) Although clinical intervention must address abuser accountability, clinical assessment and treatment approaches should be oriented to building a therapeutic alliance with the abuser so that he or she is sincerely motivated to take responsibility for his or her actions, improve relationship skills, and end the abusive behavior.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical intervention will neither be confrontational nor intentionally or unintentionally rely on the use of shame to address the abuser's behavior. Such approaches have been correlated in research studies with the abuser's premature termination of or minimal compliance with treatment.
</P>
<P>(A) It is appropriate to encourage abusers to take responsibility for their use of violence; however, in the absence of a strong, supportive, therapeutic relationship, confrontational approaches may induce shame and are likely to reduce treatment success and foster dropout. Approaches that create and maintain a therapeutic alliance are more likely to motivate abusers to seek to change their behaviors, add to their relationship skills, and take responsibility for their actions. Studies indicate that a strong therapeutic alliance is related to decreased psychological and physical aggression.
</P>
<P>(B) A clinical style that helps the abuser identify positive motivations to change his or her behavior is effective in strengthening the therapeutic alliance while encouraging the abuser to evaluate his or her own behavior. Together, the therapist and abuser attempt to identify the positive consequences of change, identify motivation for change, determine the obstacles that lie in the path of change, and identify specific behaviors that the abuser can adopt.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Criteria for clinical intervention approaches.</I> Clinical intervention approaches should reflect the current state of knowledge. This subpart recommends an approach (or multiple approaches) and procedures that have one or more of these characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrated superiority in formal evaluations in comparison to one or more other approaches.
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrated statistically significant success in formal evaluations, but not yet supported by a consensus of experts.
</P>
<P>(iii) The support of a consensus due to significant potential in the absence of statistically significant success.
</P>
<P>(iv) Significant potential when consensus does not yet exist.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Clinical intervention for female abusers.</I> Findings from research and clinical experience indicate that women who are domestic abusers may require clinical intervention approaches other than those designed specifically for male abusers.
</P>
<P>(i) Attention should be given to the motivation and context for their use of abusive behaviors to discover whether or not using violence against their spouse, former spouse, or intimate partner has been in response to his or her domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) Although both men and women who are domestic abusers may have undergone previous traumatic experiences that may warrant treatment, women's traumatic experiences may require additional attention within the context of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Professional standards.</I> Domestic abusers who undergo clinical intervention will be treated with respect, fairness, and in accordance with professional ethics. All applicable rights of abusers will be observed, including compliance with the rights and warnings in 10 U.S.C. 831, chapter 47, also known and referred to in this subpart as the “Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)” for abusers who are Service members.
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical service providers who conduct clinical assessments of or provide clinical treatment to abusers will adhere to Service policies with respect to the advisement of rights pursuant to the UCMJ, will seek guidance from the supporting legal office when a question of applicability arises, and will notify the relevant military law enforcement investigative agency if advisement of rights has occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical service providers and military and civilian victim advocates must follow the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, and other applicable laws, regulations, and policies regarding the disclosure of information about victims and abusers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals and agencies providing clinical intervention to persons reported as domestic abusers will not discriminate based on race, color, religion, gender, disability, national origin, age, or socioeconomic status. All members of clinical intervention teams will treat abusers with dignity and respect regardless of the nature of their conduct or the crimes they may have committed. Cultural differences in attitudes will be recognized, respected, and addressed in the clinical assessment process.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Clinical case management.</I> The FAP clinical service provider has the responsibility for clinical case management.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordinated community risk management</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A coordinated community response to domestic abuse is the preferred method to enhance victim safety, reduce risk, and ensure abuser accountability. In a coordinated community response, the training, policies, and operations of all civilian and military human service and FAP clinical service providers are linked closely with one another. Since no particular response to a report of domestic abuse can ensure that a further incident will not occur, selection of the most appropriate response will be considered one of coordinated community risk management.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibility for coordinated community risk management.</I> Overall responsibility for managing the risk of further domestic abuse, including developing and implementing an intervention plan when significant risk of lethality or serious injury is present, lies with:
</P>
<P>(i) The Service member's commander when a Service member is a domestic abuser or is the victim (or their military dependent is the victim) of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) The commander of the installation or garrison on which a Service member who is a domestic abuser or who is the victim (or their military dependent who is the victim) of domestic abuse may live.
</P>
<P>(iii) The commander of the military installation on which the civilian is housed for a civilian abuser accompanying U.S. military forces outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(iv) The FAP clinical service provider or case manager for liaison with civilian authorities in the event the abuser is a civilian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Implementation.</I> Coordinated community risk management requires:
</P>
<P>(i) The commander of the military installation to participate in local coalitions and task forces to enhance communication and strengthen program development among activities. In the military community, this may include inviting State, local, and tribal government representatives to participate in their official capacity as non-voting guests in meetings of the Family Advocacy Committee (FAC) to discuss coordinated community risk management in domestic abuse incidents that cross jurisdictions. (See subpart B of this part for FAC standards.)
</P>
<P>(A) Agreements with non-federal activities will be reflected in signed MOU.
</P>
<P>(B) Agreements may be among military installations of different Military Services and local government activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Advance planning through the installation FAC by:
</P>
<P>(A) The commander of the installation.
</P>
<P>(B) FAP and civilian clinical service providers.
</P>
<P>(C) Victim advocates in the military and civilian communities.
</P>
<P>(D) Military chaplains.
</P>
<P>(E) Military and civilian law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(F) Military supporting legal office and civilian prosecutors.
</P>
<P>(G) Military and civilian mental health and substance abuse treatment agencies.
</P>
<P>(H) DoDEA school principals or their designees.
</P>
<P>(I) Other civilian community agencies and personnel including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1)</I> Criminal and family court judges.
</P>
<P>(<I>2)</I> Court probation officials.
</P>
<P>(<I>3)</I> Child protective services agencies.
</P>
<P>(<I>4)</I> Domestic abuse shelters.
</P>
<P>(iii) FAP clinical service providers to address:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether treatment approaches under consideration are based on individualized assessments and directly address other relevant risk factors.
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the operational tempo of frequent and lengthy deployments to accomplish a military mission affects the ability of active duty Service members to complete a State-mandated treatment program.
</P>
<P>(C) Respective responsibilities for monitoring abusers' behavior on an ongoing basis, developing procedures for disclosure of relevant information to appropriate authorities, and implementing a plan for intervention to address the safety of the victim and community.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deployment.</I> Risk management of a Service member reported to FAP as a domestic abuser prior to a military deployment, when his or her deployment is not cancelled, or reported to FAP as a domestic abuser while deployed requires planning for his or her return to their home station.
</P>
<P>(i) The installation FAC should give particular attention to special and early returns so during deployment of a unit, the forward command is aware of the procedures to notify the home station command of regularly-scheduled and any special or early returns of such personnel to reduce the risk of additional abuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) An active duty Service member reported as a domestic abuser may be returned from deployment early for military disciplinary or civilian legal procedures, for rest and recuperation (R&amp;R), or, if clinical conditions warrant, for treatment not otherwise available at the deployed location and if the commander feels early return is necessary under the circumstances. To prevent placing a victim at higher risk, the deployed unit commander will notify the home station commander and the installation FAP in advance of the early return, unless operational security prevents such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clinical case management.</I> Ongoing and active case management, including contact with the victim and liaison with the agencies in the coordinated community response, is necessary to ascertain the abuser's sincerity and changed behavior. Case management requires ongoing liaison and contact with multiple information sources involving both military and surrounding civilian community agencies. Clinical case management includes:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial clinical case management.</I> Initial case management begins with the intake of the report of suspected domestic abuse, followed by the initial clinical assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Periodic clinical case management.</I> Periodic case management includes the FAP clinical service provider's assessment of treatment progress and the risk of recurrence of abuse. Treatment progress and the results of the latest risk assessment should be discussed whenever the case is reviewed at the CCSM.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Follow-up.</I> As a result of the risk assessment, if there is a risk of imminent danger to the victim or to another person, the FAP clinical service provider may need to notify:
</P>
<P>(A) The victim or other person at risk and the victim advocate to review, and possibly revise, the safety plan.
</P>
<P>(B) The appropriate military command, and military or civilian law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(C) Other treatment providers to modify their intervention with the abuser. For example, the provider of substance abuse treatment may need to change the requirements for monitored urinalysis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clinical assessment</I>—(1) <I>Purposes.</I> A structured clinical assessment of the abuser is a critical first step in clinical intervention. The purposes of clinical assessment are to:
</P>
<P>(i) Gather information to evaluate and ensure the safety of all parties—victim, abuser, other family members, and community.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess relevant risk factors, including the risk of lethality.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine appropriate risk management strategies, including clinical treatment; monitoring, controlling, or supervising the abuser's behavior to protect the victim and any individuals who live in the household; and victim safety planning.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial information gathering.</I> Initial information gathering and risk assessment begins when the unrestricted report of domestic abuse is received by FAP.
</P>
<P>(i) Since the immediacy of the response is based on the imminence of risk, the victim must be contacted as soon as possible to evaluate her or his safety, safety plan, and immediate needs. If a domestic abuse victim advocate is available, the victim advocate must contact the victim. If a victim advocate is not available, the clinician must contact the victim. Every attempt must be made to contact the victim via telephone or email to request a face-to-face interview. If the victim is unable or unwilling to meet face-to-face, the victim's safety, safety plan, and immediate needs will be evaluated by telephone.
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinician must interview the victim and abuser separately to maximize the victim's safety. Both victim and abuser must be assessed for the risk factors in paragraphs (c)(4) and (c)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The clinician must inform the victim and abuser of the limits of confidentiality and the FAP process before obtaining information from them. Such information must be provided in writing as early as practical.
</P>
<P>(B) The clinician must build a therapeutic alliance with the abuser using an interviewing style that assesses readiness for and motivates behavioral change. The clinician must be sensitive to cultural considerations and other barriers to the client's engagement in the process.
</P>
<P>(iii) The clinician must also gather information from a variety of other sources to identify additional risk factors, clarify the context of the use of any violence, and determine the level of risk. The assessment must include information about whether the Service member is scheduled to be deployed or has been deployed within the past year, and the dates of scheduled or past deployments. Such sources of information may include:
</P>
<P>(A) The appropriate military command.
</P>
<P>(B) Military and civilian law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) Medical records.
</P>
<P>(D) Children and other family members residing in the home.
</P>
<P>(E) Others who may have witnessed the acts of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(F) The FAP central registry of child maltreatment and domestic abuse reports.
</P>
<P>(iv) The clinician will request disclosure of information and use the information disclosed in accordance with 32 CFR part 310 and DoD 6025.18-R, “DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/602518r.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Violence contextual assessment.</I> The clinical assessment of domestic abuse will include an assessment of the use of violence within the context of relevant situational factors to guide intervention. Relevant situational factors regarding the use of violence include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exacerbating factors.</I> Exacerbating factors include whether either victim or domestic abuser:
</P>
<P>(A) Uses violence as an inappropriate means of expressing frustrations with life circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) Uses violence as a means to exert and maintain power and control over the other party.
</P>
<P>(C) Has inflicted injuries on the other party during the relationship, and the extent of such injuries.
</P>
<P>(D) Fears the other.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mitigating factors.</I> Mitigating factors include whether either victim or domestic abuser uses violence:
</P>
<P>(A) In self-defense.
</P>
<P>(B) To protect another person, such as a child.
</P>
<P>(C) In retaliation, as noted in the most recent incident or in the most serious incident.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lethality risk assessment.</I> The clinician must assess the risk for lethality in every assessment for domestic abuse, whether or not violence was used in the present incident. The lethality assessment will assess the presence of these factors:
</P>
<P>(i) For both victim and domestic abuser:
</P>
<P>(A) Increased frequency and severity of violence in the relationship.
</P>
<P>(B) Ease of access to weapons.
</P>
<P>(C) Previous use of weapons or threats to use weapons.
</P>
<P>(D) Threats to harm or kill the other party, oneself, or another (especially a child of either party).
</P>
<P>(E) Excessive use of alcohol and use of illegal drugs.
</P>
<P>(F) Jealousy, possessiveness, or obsession, including stalking.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the domestic abuser only:
</P>
<P>(A) Previous acts or attempted acts of forced or coerced sex with the victim.
</P>
<P>(B) Previous attempts to strangle the victim.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the victim only:
</P>
<P>(A) The victim's attempts or statements of intent to leave the relationship.
</P>
<P>(B) If the victim is a woman, whether the victim is pregnant and the abuser's attitude regarding the pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(C) The victim's fear of harm from the abuser to himself or herself or any child of either party or other individual living in the household.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Results of lethality risk assessment.</I> When one or more lethality factors are identified:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinician will promptly contact the appropriate commander and military or civilian law enforcement agency and the victim advocate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The commander or military law enforcement agency will take immediate steps to protect the victim, addressing the lethality factor(s) identified.
</P>
<P>(iii) The victim advocate will contact the victim to develop or amend any safety plan to address the lethality factor(s) identified.
</P>
<P>(iv) The commander will intensify ongoing coordinated community risk management and monitoring of the abuser.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assessment of other risk factors.</I> The clinician will separately assess the victim and abuser for other factors that increase risk for future domestic abuse. Such risk factors to be assessed include, but are not limited to, the abuser's:
</P>
<P>(i) Previous physical and sexual violence and emotional abuse committed in the current and previous relationships. The greater the frequency, duration, and severity of such violence, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of abuse to create and maintain power and control over others.
</P>
<P>(iii) Attitudes and beliefs directly or indirectly supporting domestic abusive behavior. The stronger the attitudes and beliefs, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(iv) Blaming of the victim for the abuser's acts. The stronger the attribution of blame to the victim, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(v) Denial that his or her abusive acts were wrong and harmful, or minimization of their wrongfulness and harmfulness.
</P>
<P>(vi) Lack of motivation to change his or her behavior. The weaker the motivation, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(vii) Physical and/or emotional abuse of any children in the present or previous relationships. The greater the frequency, duration, and severity of such abuse, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(viii) Physical abuse of pets or other animals. The greater the frequency, duration, and severity of such abuse, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(ix) Particular caregiver stress, such as the management of a child or other family member with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(x) Previous criminal behavior unrelated to domestic abuse. The greater the frequency, duration, and severity of such criminal behavior, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(xi) Previous violations of civil or criminal court orders. The greater the frequency of such violations, the greater the risk.
</P>
<P>(xii) Relationship problems, such as infidelity or significant ongoing conflict.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Financial problems.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Mental health issues or disorders, especially disorders of emotional attachment or depression and issues and disorders that have not been treated successfully.
</P>
<P>(xv) Experience of traumatic events during military service, including events that resulted in physical injuries.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Any previous physical harm, including head or other physical injuries, sexual victimization, or emotional harm suffered in childhood and/or as a result of violent crime outside the relationship.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Fear of relationship failure or of abandonment.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Periodic risk assessment.</I> The FAP clinical service provider will periodically conduct a risk assessment with input from the victim, adding the results of such risk assessments to the abuser's treatment record in accordance with subpart B of this part, and incorporating them into the abuser's clinical treatment plan and contract. Risk assessment will be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) At least quarterly, but more frequently as required to monitor safety when the current situation is deemed high risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the abuser is alleged to have committed a new incident of domestic abuse or an incident of child abuse.
</P>
<P>(iii) During significant transition periods in clinical case management, such as the change from assessment to treatment, changes between treatment modalities, and changes between substance abuse or mental health treatment and FAP treatment.
</P>
<P>(iv) After destabilizing events such as accusations of infidelity, separation or divorce, pregnancy, deployment, administrative or disciplinary action, job loss, financial issues, or health impairment.
</P>
<P>(v) When any clinically relevant issues are uncovered, such as childhood trauma, domestic abuse in a prior relationship, or the emergence of mental health problems.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Assessment of events likely to trigger the onset of future abuse.</I> The initial clinical assessment will include a discussion of potential events that may trigger the onset of future abuse, such as pregnancy, upcoming deployment, a unilateral termination of the relationship, or conflict over custody and visitation of children in the relationship.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Tools and instruments for assessment.</I> The initial clinical assessment process will include the use of appropriate standardized tools and instruments, Service-specific tools, and clinical interviewing. Unless otherwise indicated, the results from one or more of these tools will not be the sole determinant(s) for excluding an individual from treatment. The tools should be used for:
</P>
<P>(i) Screening for suitability for treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tailoring treatment approaches, modalities, and content.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reporting changes in the level of risk.
</P>
<P>(iv) Developing risk management strategies.
</P>
<P>(v) Making referrals to other clinical service providers for specialized intervention when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clinical treatment</I>—(1) <I>Theoretical approaches.</I> Based on the results of the clinical assessment, the FAP clinical service provider will select a treatment approach that directly addresses the abuser's risk factors and his or her use of violence. Such approaches include, but are not limited to, cognitive and dialectical behavioral therapy, psychodynamic therapy, psycho-educational programs, attachment-based intervention, and combinations of these and other approaches. See paragraph (a)(5) of this section for criteria for clinical intervention approaches.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment Planning.</I> A FAP clinical service provider will develop a treatment plan for domestic abuse that is based on a structured assessment of the particular relationship and risk factors present.
</P>
<P>(i) The treatment plan will not be based on a generic “one-size-fits-all” approach. The treatment plan will consider that people who commit domestic abuse do not compose a homogeneous group, and may include people:
</P>
<P>(A) Of both sexes.
</P>
<P>(B) With a range of personality characteristics.
</P>
<P>(C) With mental illness and those with no notable mental health problems.
</P>
<P>(D) Who abuse alcohol or other substances and/or use illegal drugs and those who do not.
</P>
<P>(E) Who combine psychological abuse with coercive techniques, including violence, to maintain control of their spouse, former spouse, or intimate partner and those who do not attempt to exert coercive control.
</P>
<P>(F) In relationships in which both victim and domestic abuser use violence (excluding self-defense).
</P>
<P>(ii) Due to the demographics of the military population, structure of military organizations, and military culture, it is often possible to intervene in a potentially abusive relationship before the individual uses coercive techniques to gain and maintain control of the other party. Thus, a reliance on addressing the abuser's repeated use of power and control tactics as the sole or primary focus of treatment is frequently inapplicable in the military community.
</P>
<P>(iii) Treatment objectives, when applicable, will seek to:
</P>
<P>(A) Educate the abuser about what domestic abuse is and the common dynamics of domestic abuse in order for the abuser to learn to identify his or her own abusive behaviors.
</P>
<P>(B) Identify the abuser's thoughts, emotions, and reactions that facilitate abusive behaviors.
</P>
<P>(C) Educate the abuser on the potential for re-abusing, signs of abuse escalation and the normal tendency to regress toward previous unacceptable behaviors.
</P>
<P>(D) Identify the abuser's deficits in social and relationship skills. Teach the abuser non-abusive, adaptive, and pro-social interpersonal skills and healthy sexual relationships, including the role of intimacy, love, forgiveness, development of healthy ego boundaries, and the appropriate role of jealousy.
</P>
<P>(E) Increase the abuser's empathic skills to enhance his or her ability to understand the impact of violence on the victim and empathize with the victim.
</P>
<P>(F) Increase the abuser's self-management techniques, including assertiveness, problem solving, stress management, and conflict resolution.
</P>
<P>(G) Educate the abuser on the socio-cultural basis for violence.
</P>
<P>(H) Identify and address issues of gender role socialization and the relationship of such issues to domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(I) Increase the abuser's understanding of the impact of emotional abuse and violence directed at children and violence that is directed to an adult but to which children in the family are exposed.
</P>
<P>(J) Facilitate the abuser's acknowledgment of responsibility for abusive actions and consequences of actions. Although the abuser's history of victimization should be addressed in treatment, it should never take precedence over his or her responsibility to be accountable for his or her abusive and/or violent behavior, or be used as an excuse, rationalization, or distraction from being held so accountable.
</P>
<P>(K) Identify and confront the abuser's issues of power and control and the use of power and control against victims.
</P>
<P>(L) Educate the abuser on the impact of substance abuse and its correlation to violence and domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(iv) These factors should inform treatment planning:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Special objectives for female abusers.</I> Findings from research and clinical experience indicate that clinical treatment based solely on analyses of male power and control may not be applicable to female domestic abusers. Clinical approaches must give special attention to the motivation and context for use of violence and to self-identified previous traumatic experiences.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Special Strategies for Grieving Abusers.</I> When grief and loss issues have been identified in the clinical assessment or during treatment, the clinician will incorporate strategies for addressing grief and loss into the treatment plan. This is especially important if a victim has decided to end a relationship with a domestic abuser because of the abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Abusers with significant attachment issues who are facing the end of a relationship with a victim are more likely to use lethal violence against the victim and children in the family. This is exemplified by the statement: “If I can't have you no one else can have you.”
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) They are also more likely to attempt suicide. This is exemplified by the statement: “Life without you is not worth living.”
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Co-Occurrence of substance abuse.</I> The coordinated community management of risk is made more difficult when the person committing domestic abuse also abuses alcohol or other substances. When the person committing domestic abuse also abuses alcohol or other substances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Treatment for domestic abuse will be coordinated with the treatment for substance abuse and information shared between the treatment providers in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Special consideration will be given to integrating the two treatment programs or providing them at the same time.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information about the abuser's progress in the respective treatment programs will be shared between the treatment providers. Providing separate treatment approaches with no communication between the treatment providers complicates the community's management of risk.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Co-occurrence of child abuse.</I> When a domestic abuser has allegedly committed child abuse, the clinician will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Notify the appropriate law enforcement agency and other civilian agencies as appropriate in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13031.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notify the appropriate child protective services agency and the FAP supervisor to ascertain if a FAP child abuse case should be opened in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06 and 42 U.S.C. 5106g.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Address the impact of such abuse of the child(ren) as a part of the domestic abuser clinical treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Seek to improve the abuser's parenting skills if appropriate in conjunction with other skills.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Continuously assess the abuser as a parent or caretaker as appropriate throughout the treatment process.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Address the impact of the abuser's domestic abuse directed against the victim upon children in the home as a part of the domestic abuser clinical treatment.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Occurrence of sexual abuse within the context of domestic abuse.</I> Although sexual abuse is a subset of domestic abuse, victims may not recognize that sexual abuse can occur in the context of a marital or intimate partner relationship. Clinicians should employ specific assessment strategies to identify the presence of sexual abuse within the context of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Deployment.</I> Deployment of an active duty Service member who is a domestic abuser is a complicating factor for treatment delivery.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A Service member who is scheduled to deploy in the near future may be highly stressed and therefore at risk for using poor conflict management skills.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) While on deployment, a Service member is unlikely to receive clinical treatment for the abuse due to mission requirements and unavailability of such treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A deployed Service member reported to FAP as a domestic abuser may return from deployment early for military disciplinary or civilian legal procedures, for R&amp;R, or if clinical conditions warrant early return from deployment for treatment not otherwise available at the deployed location and if the commander feels early return is necessary under the circumstances. The home station command and installation FAP must be notified in advance of the early return of a deployed Service member with an open FAP case, unless operational security prevents disclosure, so that the risk to the victim can be assessed and managed.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A Service member who is deployed in a combat operation or in an operation in which significant traumatic events occur may be at a higher risk of committing domestic abuse upon return.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The Service member may receive head injuries. Studies indicate that such an injury increases the risk of personality changes, including a lowered ability to tolerate frustration, poor impulse control, and an increased risk of using violence in situations of personal conflict. If the Service member has a history of a head injury prior to or during deployment, the clinician should ascertain whether the Service member received a medical assessment, was prescribed appropriate medication, or is undergoing current treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The Service member may suffer from depression prior to, during, or after deployment and may be at risk for post-traumatic stress disorder. Studies indicate that males who are depressed are at higher risk of using violence in their personal relationships. If the Service member presents symptoms of depression, the clinician should ascertain whether the Service member has received a medical assessment, was prescribed appropriate medication, or is undergoing current treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment modalities.</I> Clinical treatment may be provided in one or more of these modalities as appropriate to the situation:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Group therapy.</I> Group therapy is the preferred mode of treatment for domestic abusers because it applies the concept of problem universality and offers opportunities for members to support one another and learn from other group members' experiences.
</P>
<P>(A) The decision to assign an individual to group treatment is initially accomplished during the clinical assessment process; however, the group facilitator(s) should assess the appropriateness of group treatment for each individual on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(B) The most manageable maximum number of participants for a domestic abuser treatment group with one or two facilitators is 12.
</P>
<P>(C) A domestic abuser treatment group may be restricted to one sex or open to both sexes. When developing a curriculum or clinical treatment agenda for a group that includes both sexes, the clinician should consider that the situations in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (d)(3)(i)(C)(<I>3</I>) are more likely to occur in a group that includes both sexes.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Treatment-disruptive events such as sexual affairs or emotional coupling.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Jealousy on the part of the non-participant victim.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Intimidation of participants whose sex is in the minority within the group.
</P>
<P>(D) A group may have one or two facilitators; if there are two facilitators, they may be of the same or both sexes.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual treatment.</I> In lieu of using a group modality, approaches may be applied in individual treatment if the number of domestic abusers at the installation entering treatment is too small to create a group.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Conjoint treatment with substance abusers.</I> When small numbers of both domestic abusers and substance abusers make separate treatment groups impractical, therapists should consider combining abusers into the same group because co-occurrence of domestic abuse and substance abuse has been documented in scientific literature and the content for clinical treatment of domestic abuse and substance abuse is very similar. When domestic abusers and substance abusers are combined into the same group, the facilitator(s) must be certified in substance abuse treatment as well as meeting the conditions in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Conjoint treatment of victim and abuser.</I> Domestic abuse in a relationship may be low-level in severity and frequency and without a pervasive pattern of coercive control.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Limitations on Use.</I> Conjoint treatment may be considered in such cases where the abuser and victim are treated together, but only if all of these conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each of the parties separately and voluntarily indicates a desire for this approach.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any abuse, especially any violence, was infrequent, not severe, and not intended or likely to cause severe injury.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The risk of future violence is periodically assessed as low.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Each party agrees to follow safety guidelines recommended by the clinician.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The clinician:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Has the knowledge, skills, and abilities to provide conjoint treatment therapy as well as treat domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Fully understands the level of abuse and violence and specifically addresses these issues.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Takes appropriate measures to ensure the safety of all parties, including regular monitoring of the victim and abuser, using all relevant sources of information. The clinician will take particular care to ensure that the victim participates voluntarily and without fear and is contacted frequently to ensure that violence has not recurred.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contra-indications.</I> Conjoint treatment will be suspended or discontinued if monitoring indicates an increase in the risk for abuse or violence. Conjoint treatment will not be used if one or more of these factors are present:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The abuser:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Has a history or pattern of violent behavior and/or of committing severe abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Lacks a credible commitment or ability to maintain the safety of the victim or any third parties. For example, the abuser refuses to surrender personal firearms, ammunition, and other weapons.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Either the victim or the abuser or both:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Participates under threat, coercion, duress, intimidation, or censure, and/or otherwise participates against his or her will.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Has a substance abuse problem that would preclude him or her from substantially benefiting from conjoint treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Has one or more significant mental health issues (<I>e.g.,</I> untreated mood disorder or personality disorder) that would preclude him or her from substantially benefiting from conjoint treatment.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Couple's meetings.</I> Periodic case management meetings with the couple, as opposed to the ongoing conjoint therapy of a single victim and abuser, may be used only after the clinician (or clinicians) has made plans to ensure the safety of the victim. All couples meetings must be structured and co-facilitated by the clinician(s) providing treatment to the abusers and support for the victims to ensure support and protection for the victims.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Treatment contract.</I> Properly informing the abuser of the treatment rules is a condition for treating violations as a risk management issue. The clinician will prepare and discuss with the abuser an agreement between them that will serve as a treatment contract. The agreement will be in writing and the clinician will provide a copy to the abuser and retain a copy in the treatment record. The contract will include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Goals.</I> Specific abuser treatment goals, as identified in the treatment plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Time and attendance requirements.</I> The frequency and duration of treatment and the number of absences permitted.
</P>
<P>(A) Clinicians may follow applicable State standards specifying the duration of treatment as a benchmark unless otherwise indicated.
</P>
<P>(B) An abuser may not be considered to have successfully completed clinical treatment unless he or she has completed the total number of required sessions. An abuser may not miss more than 10 percent of the total number of required sessions. On a case-by-case basis, the facilitator should determine whether significant curriculum content has been missed and make-up sessions are required.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Crisis plan.</I> A response plan for abuser crisis situations (information on referral services for 24-hour emergency calls and walk-in treatment when in crisis).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Abuser responsibilities.</I> The abuser must agree to:
</P>
<P>(A) Abstain from all forms of domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Accept responsibility for previous abusive and violent behavior.
</P>
<P>(C) Abstain from purchasing or possessing personal firearms or ammunition.
</P>
<P>(D) Talk openly and process personal feelings.
</P>
<P>(E) Provide financial support to his or her spouse and children per the terms of an agreement with the spouse or court order.
</P>
<P>(F) Treat group members, facilitators, and clinicians with respect.
</P>
<P>(G) Contact the facilitator prior to the session when unable to attend a treatment session.
</P>
<P>(H) Comply with the rules concerning the frequency and duration of treatment, and the number of absences permitted.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Consequences of treatment contract violations.</I> Violation of any of the terms of the abuser contract may lead to termination of the abuser's participation in the clinical treatment program.
</P>
<P>(A) Violations of the abuser contract may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Subsequent incidents of abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unexcused absences from more than 10 percent of the total number of required sessions.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Statements or behaviors of the abuser that show signs of imminent danger to the victim.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Behaviors of the abuser that are escalating in severity and may lead to violence.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Non-compliance with co-occurring treatment programs that are included in the treatment contract.
</P>
<P>(B) If the abuser violates any of the terms of the abuser contract, the clinician or facilitator may terminate the abuser from the treatment program; notify the command, civilian criminal justice agency, and/or civilian court as appropriate; and notify the victim if contact will not endanger the victim.
</P>
<P>(C) The command should take any action it deems appropriate when notified that the abuser's treatment has been terminated due to a contract violation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Conditions of information disclosure.</I> The circumstances and procedures, in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies, under which information may be disclosed to the victim and to any court with jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(A) Past, present, and future acts and threats of child abuse or neglect will be reported to the member's commander; child protective services, when appropriate; and the appropriate military and/or civilian law enforcement agency in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies.
</P>
<P>(B) Recent and future acts and threats of domestic abuse will be reported to the member's commander, the appropriate military and/or civilian law enforcement agency, and the potential victim in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Complaints.</I> The procedures according to which the abuser may complain regarding the clinician or the treatment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Treatment outside the FAP.</I> If the abuser's treatment is provided by a clinician outside the FAP, the FAP clinical service provider will follow procedures in accordance with relevant laws, regulations, and policies regarding the confidentiality and disclosure of information. FAP may not close an open FAP case as resolved if the abuser does not consent to release of information from the outside provider confirming goal achievement, treatment progress, or risk reduction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Criteria for evaluating treatment progress and risk reduction.</I> The FAP clinical service provider will assess progress in treatment and reduction of risk consistent with subpart B of this part. If a risk factor is not addressed within the FAP but is being addressed by a secondary clinical service provider, the FAP clinical service provider will ascertain the treatment progress or results in consultation with the secondary clinical service provider. Treatment progress should be assessed periodically using numerous sources, especially, but not limited to, the victim. In making contact with the victim and in using the information, promoting victim safety is the priority. Progress in clinical treatment and risk reduction is indicated by a combination of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Abuser behaviors and attitudes.</I> An abuser is demonstrating progress in treatment when, among other indicators, he or she:
</P>
<P>(A) Demonstrates the ability for self-monitoring and assessment of his or her behavior.
</P>
<P>(B) Is able to develop a relapse prevention plan.
</P>
<P>(C) Is able to monitor signs of potential relapse.
</P>
<P>(D) Has completed all treatment recommendations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information from the victim and other relevant sources.</I> The abuser is demonstrating progress in treatment when the victim and other relevant sources of information state any one or combination of the following: That the abuser has:
</P>
<P>(A) Ceased all domestic abuse.
</P>
<P>(B) Reduced the frequency of non-violent abusive behavior.
</P>
<P>(C) Reduced the severity of non-violent abusive behavior.
</P>
<P>(D) Delayed the onset of abusive behavior.
</P>
<P>(E) Demonstrated the use of improved relationship skills.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reduced ratings on risk assessment variables that are subject to change.</I> The abuser has successfully reduced risk when the assessment of his or her risk is rated at the level the Military Service has selected for case closure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personnel qualifications</I>—(1) <I>Minimum qualifications.</I> All personnel who conduct clinical assessments of and provide clinical treatment to domestic abusers must have these minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(i) A master's or doctoral-level human service and/or mental health professional degree from an accredited university or college.
</P>
<P>(ii) The highest license in a State or clinical license in good standing in a State that authorizes independent clinical practice.
</P>
<P>(iii) 1 year of experience in domestic abuse and child abuse counseling or treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional training.</I> All personnel who conduct clinical assessments of and/or provide clinical treatment to domestic abusers must undergo this additional training:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 6 months of employment, orientation into the military culture. This includes training in the Service rank structures and military protocol.
</P>
<P>(ii) A minimum of 15 hours of continuing education units within every 2 years that are relevant to domestic abuse and child abuse. This includes, but is not limited to, continuing education in interviewing adult victims of domestic abuse, children, and domestic abusers, and conducting treatment groups.
</P>
<P>(iii) Service FAP Managers must develop policies and procedures for continued education with clinical skills training that validates clinical competence, and not rely solely on didactic or computer disseminated training to meet continuing education requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>QA</I>—(1) <I>QA procedures.</I> The FAP Manager must ensure that clinical intervention undergoes these QA procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) A quarterly peer review of a minimum of 10 percent of open clinical records that includes procedures for addressing any deficiencies with a corrective action plan
</P>
<P>(ii) A quarterly administrative audit of a minimum of 10 percent of open records that includes procedures for addressing any deficiencies with a corrective action plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>FAC responsibilities.</I> The installation FAC will analyze trends in risk management, develop appropriate agreements and community programs with relevant civilian agencies, promote military interagency collaboration, and monitor the implementation of such agreements and programs on a regular basis consistent with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evaluation and accreditation review.</I> The installation domestic abuse treatment program will undergo evaluation and/or accreditation every 4 years, including an evaluation and/or accreditation of its coordinated community risk management program consistent with subpart B of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="66" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 66—QUALIFICATION STANDARDS FOR ENLISTMENT, APPOINTMENT, AND INDUCTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 504, 505, 520, 532, 12102, 12201, and 12205.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 16270, Mar. 27, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 66.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the authority in DoD Directive 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R))” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/512402p.pdf</I>), this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Updates established policies and responsibilities for basic entrance qualification standards for enlistment, appointment, and induction into the Military Services and delegates the authority to specify certain standards to the Secretaries of the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes the standards for age, aptitude, citizenship, dependents, education, medical, character/conduct, physical fitness, and other disqualifying conditions, which are cause for non-qualification for military service. Other standards may be prescribed in the event of national emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) Sets standards designed to ensure that individuals under consideration for enlistment, appointment, or induction are able to perform military duties successfully, and to select those who are the most trainable and adaptable to Service life.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants for initial enlistment into the Military Services Regular and Reserve Components.
</P>
<P>(c) Applicants for appointment as commissioned or warrant officers in the Regular and Reserve Components.
</P>
<P>(d) Applicants for reenlistment following release from active duty into subsequent Regular or Reserve Components (including the Army National Guard of the United States and the Air National Guard of the United States) after a period of more than 6 months has elapsed since discharge.
</P>
<P>(e) Applicants for contracting into the Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC), and all other Military Services special officer personnel procurement programs, including the Military Service Academies.
</P>
<P>(f) All individuals being inducted into the Military Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adjudicating authority.</I> Any government official who is empowered to make findings or determinations concerning an alleged criminal offense (adult and juvenile) and establish responsibility for commission of the offense. Examples include judges, courts, magistrates, prosecutors, hearing officers, military commanders (for Article 15 actions pursuant to 10 U.S.C. chapter 47, suspension of dependent privileges, or similar actions), probation officers, juvenile referees, and parole officers or boards.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse adjudication (adult or juvenile).</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A finding, decision, sentence, or judgment by an adjudicating authority, against an individual, that was other than unconditionally dropped or dismissed or the individual was acquitted is considered adverse adjudication. If the adjudicating authority places a condition or restraint that leads to dismissal, drops the charges, acquits, or the records are later expunged, or the charge is dismissed after a certain period of time, the adjudication is still considered adverse. A suspension of sentence, not processed, or a dismissal after compliance with imposed conditions is also adverse adjudication. This includes fines and forfeiture of bond in lieu of trial.
</P>
<P>(2) A conviction for violating any federal law (including 10 U.S.C. chapter 47), or any State or municipal law or ordinance) is considered an adverse adjudication. For example, a shoplifter is reprimanded and required by the on-scene police officer, store security guard, or manager to pay for the item before leaving the store but is not charged, not found guilty, or is not convicted. In this situation, there is no adverse adjudication because no legal proceedings occurred and no adjudicating authority was involved.
</P>
<P><I>Conviction.</I> The act of finding a person guilty of a crime, offense, or other violation of the law by an adjudicating authority.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A spouse of an applicant for enlistment.
</P>
<P>(2) An unmarried step-child under the age of 18 living with the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) An unmarried biological child or unmarried adopted child of the applicant under the age of 18.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person living with the applicant who is, by law or in fact, dependent upon the applicant for support, or who is not living with the applicant and is dependent upon the applicant for over one-half of his or her support.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve components.</I> Includes the Army National Guard of the United States, the Army Reserve, the Navy Reserve, the Marine Corps Reserve, the Air National Guard of the United States, the Air Force Reserve, and the Coast Guard Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Restitution.</I> Any compensation in time, labor, or money for the adverse effects of an offense as a result of agreements from judicial or prosecutorial involvement. For example, an individual is adversely adjudicated for vandalism and is ordered by the adjudicating authority to replace or repair the damaged property.
</P>
<P><I>Service review.</I> A formal review of condition(s) or event(s) that, based on Service-specific standards, may make an applicant for enlistment ineligible to serve. Once a Service review is complete, the Service may grant an exception to policy to allow an individual to serve. These standards are subject to change at the discretion of the Service.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver.</I> A formal request to consider the suitability for service of an applicant who because of inappropriate conduct, dependency status, current or past medical conditions, or drug use may not be qualified to serve. Upon the completion of a thorough examination using a “whole person” review, the applicant may be granted a waiver. The applicant must have displayed sufficient mitigating circumstances that clearly justify waiver consideration. The Secretaries of the Military Departments may delegate the final approval authority for all waivers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 16270, Mar. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 64062, Sept. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Use common entrance qualification standards for enlistment, appointment, and induction into the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(b) Avoid inconsistencies and inequities based on ethnicity, gender, race, religion, or sexual orientation in the application of these standards by the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(c) Judge the suitability of individuals to serve in the Military Services on the basis of their adaptability, potential to perform, and conduct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASD(M&amp;RA)):
</P>
<P>(1) Acts as an advisor to the USD(P&amp;R) on the Reserve enlistment and appointment standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Acts as an advisor to the USD(P&amp;R) on the height and weight requirements of the standards in § 66.6.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensures the U.S. Military Entrance Processing Command assists the Military Services in implementing the standards in § 66.6.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)) acts as an advisor to the USD(P&amp;R) on the medical requirements of the standards in § 66.6.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee conformance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Recommend suggested changes to this part to the USD(P&amp;R) as necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish other Service-specific standards as necessary to implement this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Review all standards on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish procedures to grant waivers, accomplish reviews, and require individuals to meet the appropriate standards or be granted an exception pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 504(a).
</P>
<P>(6) Request approval from the USD(P&amp;R) for generalized exceptions to these standards as permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(7) Use the standards in § 66.6 to determine the entrance qualifications for all individuals being enlisted, appointed, or inducted into any component of the Military Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 16270, Mar. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 64063, Sept. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.6   Enlistment, appointment, and induction criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General eligibility criteria</I>—(1) <I>Entrance considerations.</I> Accession of qualified individuals will be a priority when processing applicants for the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility determination.</I> Eligibility will be determined by the applicant's ability to meet all requirements of this part, to include obtaining waivers. Applicants will not be enlisted, appointed, or inducted unless all requirements of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic eligibility criteria</I>—(1) <I>Age.</I> (i) To be eligible for Regular enlistment, the minimum age for enlistment is 17 years and the maximum age is 42 years in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 505. The maximum age for a prior service enlistee is determined by adding the individual's years of prior service to age 42. The Secretary concerned will establish enlistment age standards for the Reserve Components in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12102.
</P>
<P>(ii) Age limitations for appointment as a commissioned or warrant officer normally depend on the Military Service concerned. In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 532, most persons appointed as commissioned officers must be able to complete 20 years of active commissioned service before their 62nd birthday to receive a Regular commission.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12201, a person will be at least 18 years of age for appointment as a Reserve Officer. The maximum age qualification for initial appointment as a Reserve Officer will not be less than 47 years of age for individuals in a health profession specialty designated by the Secretary concerned as a specialty critically needed in wartime.
</P>
<P>(iv) In accordance with 32 U.S.C. 313, to be eligible for original enlistment in the National Guard, a person must be at least 17 years of age and under 45, or under 64 years of age and a former member of the Regular Army, Regular Navy, Regular Air Force, or Regular Marine Corps. To be eligible for reenlistment, a person must be under 64 years of age.
</P>
<P>(v) In accordance with 32 U.S.C. 313, to be eligible for appointment as an officer of the National Guard, a person must be at least 18 years of age and under 64 years of age.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Citizenship.</I> (i) To be eligible for Regular or Reserve enlistment, an individual must meet one of the conditions outlined in 10 U.S.C. 504(b); however, the Secretary concerned may authorize the enlistment of a person not described in this section if the Secretary determines that such enlistment is vital to the national interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) To be eligible for appointment as a commissioned officer (other than as a commissioned warrant officer) in the Regular Army, Regular Navy, Regular Air Force, or Regular Marine Corps, the individual must be a citizen of the United States as outlined in 10 U.S.C. 532. The Secretary of Defense (or the Secretary of Homeland Security for the Coast Guard, when not operating as a Service under the Navy), may waive the requirement of U.S. citizenship with respect to a person who has been lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence, or for a United States national otherwise eligible for appointment as a cadet or midshipman in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2107(a), when the Secretary determines that the national security so requires, but only for an original appointment in a grade below the grade of major or lieutenant commander.
</P>
<P>(iii) To be eligible for appointment as a Reserve Officer in an armed force, the individual must be a citizen of the United States or lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as the “Immigration and Nationality Act”) or have previously served in the Military Services or in the National Security Training Corps as outlined under 10 U.S.C. 12201.
</P>
<P>(iv) To be eligible for enlistment in the National Guard, a person must meet one of the conditions in 10 U.S.C. 504(b); however, the Secretary concerned may authorize the enlistment of a person not described in this section if the Secretary determines that such enlistment is vital to the national interest.
</P>
<P>(v) To become an officer of the Army National Guard of the United States or the Air National Guard of the United States, the individual must first be appointed to, and be federally recognized in, the same grade in the Army National Guard or the Air National Guard. In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12201, the individual must be a citizen of the United States or lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I> or have previously served in Military Service or in the National Security Training Corps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Education.</I> (i) Possession of a high school diploma is desirable, although not mandatory, for enlistment in any component of the Military Services. 10 U.S.C. 520 states that a person who is not a high school graduate may not be accepted for enlistment in the Military Services unless the score of that person on the Armed Forces Qualification Test (AFQT) is at or above the thirty-first percentile. 10 U.S.C. 520 also states that a person may not be denied enlistment in the Military Services solely because he or she does not have a high school diploma if his or her enlistment is needed to meet established strength requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bearers of an alternative credential (<I>e.g.,</I> General Educational Development certificates and certificates of attendance) and non-graduates may be assigned lower enlistment priority based on first-term attrition rates for those credentials. DoD Instruction 1145.01, “Qualitative Distribution of Military Manpower” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/114501p.pdf</I>) identifies the authority for establishing the qualitative distribution objectives for accessions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Educational requirements for appointment as a commissioned or warrant officer are determined by each Military Service. 10 U.S.C. 12205 establishes education requirements for certain Reserve appointments. Generally, and unless excepted under 10 U.S.C. 12205, a baccalaureate degree is required for appointment above the grade of first lieutenant in the Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps Reserves or lieutenant junior grade in the Navy Reserve, or to be federally recognized in a grade above the grade of first lieutenant as a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard. In addition, special occupations (<I>e.g.,</I> physician or chaplain) may require additional vocational credentials as determined by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Aptitude.</I> (i) Overall aptitude requirements for enlistment and induction are based on applicant scores on the AFQT derived from the Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery. Applicant scores are grouped into percentile categories. Persons who score in AFQT Category V (percentiles 1-9) are ineligible to enlist. In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 520, the number of persons who enlist in any Armed Force during any fiscal year (<I>i.e.,</I> accession cohort) who score in AFQT Category IV (percentiles 10-30) may not exceed 20 percent of the total number of persons enlisted by Service. DoD Instruction 1145.01 identifies the authority for establishing the qualitative distribution objectives for accessions.
</P>
<P>(ii) For officers and warrant officers, no single test or instrument is used as an aptitude requirement for appointment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical.</I> (i) In accordance with DoD Instruction 6130.03, “Medical Standards for Appointment, Enlistment, or Induction in the Military Services” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/613003p.pdf</I>), the pre-accession screening process will be structured to identify any medical condition, including mental health, that disqualifies an applicant for military service.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who fail to meet established medical standards, as defined in DoD Instruction 6130.03, may be considered for a medical waiver. Each Service's waiver authority for medical conditions will make a determination based on all available information regarding the issue or condition. Waiver requirements are outlined in § 66.7.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Physical fitness.</I> (i) In accordance with DoD Instruction 1308.3, “DoD Physical Fitness and Body Fat Programs Procedures” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/130803p.pdf</I>), all individuals must meet the pre-accession height and weight standards as prescribed in Table 1 of DoD Instruction 1308.3.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Military Services may have additional physical fitness screening requirements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dependency status.</I> (i) The Military Services may not enlist married individuals with more than two dependents under the age of 18 or unmarried individuals with custody of any dependents under the age of 18; however, the Secretary concerned may grant a waiver for particularly promising entrants. Waiver requirements are outlined in § 66.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Military Services will specify the circumstances under which individuals who have dependents may become commissioned officers or warrant officers; variations in policy may be affected by the commissioning source (<I>e.g.,</I> Service Academies, ROTC, or Officer Candidate School).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Character/conduct.</I> The underlying purpose of these enlistment, appointment, and induction standards is to minimize entrance of persons who are likely to become disciplinary cases, security risks, or who are likely to disrupt good order, morale, and discipline. The Military Services are responsible for the defense of the Nation and should not be viewed as a source of rehabilitation for those who have not subscribed to the legal and moral standards of society at-large. As a minimum, an applicant will be considered ineligible if he or she:
</P>
<P>(i) Is under any form of judicial restraint (bond, probation, imprisonment, or parole).
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a significant criminal record. 10 U.S.C. 504 prohibits any person who has been convicted of a felony from being enlisted in any of the Military Services; however, 10 U.S.C. 504 authorizes a waiver in meritorious cases. Except as limited by paragraph (b)(8)(iii) of this section, persons convicted of felonies may request a waiver to permit their enlistment. The waiver procedure is not automatic, and approval is based on each individual case. Waiver requirements are outlined in § 66.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a State or federal conviction, or a finding of guilty in a juvenile adjudication, for a felony crime of rape, sexual abuse, sexual assault, incest, any other sexual offense, or when the disposition requires the person to register as a sex offender. In these cases, the enlistment, appointment, or induction will be prohibited and no waivers are allowed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been previously separated from the Military Services under conditions other than honorable or for the good of the Military Service concerned.
</P>
<P>(v) Has exhibited antisocial behavior or other traits of character that may render the applicant unfit for service.
</P>
<P>(vi) Receives an unfavorable final determination by the DoD Consolidated Adjudication Facility on a completed National Agency Check with Law and Credit (NACLC) or higher-level investigation, which is adjudicated to the National Security Standards in accordance with Executive Order 12968, during the accession process.
</P>
<P>(A) An applicant may be accessed (including shipping him or her to training or a first duty assignment) provided that a NACLC or higher-level investigation was submitted and accepted by the investigative service provider (Office of Personnel Management (OPM)) and an advanced fingerprint was conducted, and OPM did not identify any disqualifying background information.
</P>
<P>(B) If NACLC adjudication is not completed until after accession, any additional disqualifying information identified during the adjudication should be transmitted to the appropriate personnel or human resource offices, as determined by the Services, for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Drugs and alcohol.</I> A current or history of alcohol dependence, drug dependence, alcohol abuse, or other drug abuse is incompatible with military life and does not meet military standards in accordance with DoD Instruction 6130.03. Pursuant to DoD Instruction 1010.01, “Military Personnel Drug Abuse Testing Program (MPDATP)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101001p.pdf</I>), the pre-accession screening process is structured to identify individuals with a history of drug (including pharmaceutical medications, illegal drugs and other substances of abuse) and alcohol abuse.
</P>
<P>(i) Drug use (to include illegal drugs, other illicit substances, and pharmaceutical medications), drug abuse, and alcohol abuse may be self-admitted by an applicant, discovered during the medical screening process, or identified by the drug and alcohol test (DAT), which is administered at the Military Entrance Processing Stations (MEPS) or other approved military processing facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Current or history of alcohol dependence, drug dependence, alcohol abuse, or other drug abuse may be a medically disqualifying condition based on the standards in accordance with DoD Instruction 6130.03. The MEPS Chief Medical Officer or equivalent, when the physical is not performed at MEPS, will make that determination based on all of the information available on a case-by-case basis. These instances will be treated as a medical disqualification and handled in accordance with the guidance provided in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals who test positive for illegal drugs on the DAT, which is administered as part of the accession physical, will be disqualified. A waiver may be requested. Waiver requirements are outlined in § 66.7.
</P>
<P>(iv) Service qualification standards, regarding drugs and alcohol, may be more restrictive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 16270, Mar. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 64063, Sept. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 66.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.21.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 66.7   Enlistment waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver requirements.</I> In accomplishing whole person reviews of enlistment eligibility, the following categories and combinations of categories would require a favorable waiver determination by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned for the applicant to be considered qualified. The waiver procedure is not automatic, and approval is based on each individual case. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Medical waiver.</I> A medical waiver is required for enlistment qualification of an applicant who has or may have had a disqualifying medical condition in accordance with DoD Instruction 6130.03.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dependent waiver.</I> A dependent waiver is required when an applicant is married with more than two dependents under the age of 18 or when an applicant is unmarried and has custody of any dependents under the age of 18.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conduct waiver.</I> In processing conduct waiver requests, the Military Services will require information about the “who, what, when, where, and why” of the offense in question; and letters of recommendation from responsible community leaders, such as school officials, clergy, and law enforcement officials, attesting to the applicant's character or suitability for enlistment. Waivers are not authorized for cases noted in § 66.6(b)(8)(iii).
</P>
<P>(i) A Conduct Waiver is required when the final finding of the courts or other adjudicating authority is a conviction or other adverse adjudication of:
</P>
<P>(A) One “major misconduct” offense, or;
</P>
<P>(B) Two “misconduct” offenses, or;
</P>
<P>(C) A pattern of misconduct.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) One “misconduct” offense and four “non-traffic” offenses.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Five or more “non-traffic” offenses.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use the Table of this section to determine the appropriate level of offense and applicable code. See paragraph (b) of this section for additional guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Drug waiver.</I> A drug waiver is required when an applicant or enlistee is confirmed positive for the presence of drugs at the time of the original or subsequent physical examination (<I>i.e.,</I> tests positive on the DAT at a MEPS or equivalent facility). Drug waivers for these applicants may be considered and granted or rejected only after the disqualification period established in section 6 of Enclosure 7 of DoD Instruction 1010.16, “Technical Procedures for the Military Personnel Drug Abuse Testing Program (MPDATP)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101016p.pdf</I>) ends.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classifying conduct offenses.</I> The procedures that will be used in the classifying and coding of all conduct offenses are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial classification.</I> Align the offense that is the subject of adverse adjudication with an offense from the Table of this section. As an exception, any offense classified as a felony under the appropriate State or federal jurisdiction will be treated as a major misconduct offense for DoD purposes regardless of where similar charges are listed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-similar offenses.</I> If unable to find a similar charge, the Military Services will:
</P>
<P>(i) Treat the offense as a major misconduct offense if the adjudicating authority can impose a maximum period of confinement that exceeds 1 year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat the offense as a misconduct offense if the adjudicating authority can impose a maximum period of confinement that exceeds 6 months but is not more than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Treat all other offenses as either other non-traffic offenses or traffic offenses, depending on the nature of the offense.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table to § 66.7—Conduct Waiver Codes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Offense code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Offense title
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">TRAFFIC OFFENSES</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bicycle ordinance violation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blocking or retarding traffic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contempt of court for minor traffic offenses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crossing yellow line; driving left of center.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disobeying traffic lights, signs, or signals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving on shoulder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving uninsured vehicle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving with blocked vision and/or tinted window.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving with expired plates or without plates.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving with suspended or revoked license.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving without license.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving without registration or with improper registration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving wrong way on one-way street.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to appear for traffic violations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to comply with officer's directive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to have vehicle under control.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to signal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to stop or yield to pedestrian.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">118</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to submit report after accident.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to yield right-of-way.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Faulty equipment such as defective exhaust, horn, lights, mirror, muffler, signal device, steering device, tail pipe, or windshield wipers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Following too closely.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hitchhiking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Improper backing such as backing into intersection or highway, backing on expressway, or backing over crosswalk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Improper blowing of horn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Improper passing such as passing on right, passing in no-passing zone, passing stopped school bus, or passing pedestrian in crosswalk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Improper turn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Invalid or unofficial inspection sticker or failure to display inspection sticker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">128</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jaywalking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaving key in ignition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaving scene of accident (when not considered hit and run).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">License plates improperly displayed or not displayed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operating overloaded vehicle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Racing, dragging, or contest for speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reckless, careless, or imprudent driving (considered a traffic offense when the fine is less than $300 and there is no confinement). Court costs are not part of a fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seat belt and/or child restraint violation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Skateboard, roller skate, or inline skate violation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">138</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spilling load on highway.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spinning wheels, improper start, zigzagging, or weaving in traffic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of noise control ordinance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other traffic offenses not specifically listed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">NON-TRAFFIC OFFENSES</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Altered driver's license or identification.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assault (simple assault with fine or restitution of $500 or less and no confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying concealed weapon (other than firearm); possession of brass knuckles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Check, worthless, making or uttering, with intent to defraud or deceive (less than $500).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Committing a nuisance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conspiring to commit misdemeanor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curfew violation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Damaging road signs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Discharging firearm through carelessness or within municipal limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disobeying summons; failure to appear (other than traffic).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disorderly conduct; creating disturbance; boisterous conduct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disturbing the peace.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drinking alcoholic beverages on public transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drunk in public.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dumping refuse near highway.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to appear, contempt of court (all offenses except felony proceedings).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">216</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to appear, contempt of court (felony proceedings).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to stop and render aid after accident.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fare and/or toll evasion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Harassment, menacing, or stalking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illegal betting or gambling; operating illegal handbook, raffle, lottery, or punchboard; cockfighting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indecent exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indecent, insulting, or obscene language communicated directly or by telephone to another person.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jumping turnstile (to include those States that adjudicate jumping a turnstile as petty larceny).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Juvenile adjudications such as beyond parental control, incorrigible, runaway, truant, or wayward.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Killing a domestic animal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Littering.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loitering.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Malicious mischief (fine or restitution of $500 or less and no confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pandering.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poaching.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purchase, possession, or consumption of alcoholic beverages or tobacco products by minor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removing property from public grounds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removing property under lien.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robbing an orchard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shooting from highway.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Throwing glass or other material in roadway.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trespass (non-criminal or simple).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful assembly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful manufacture, sale, possession, or consumption of liquor in public place.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful use of long-distance telephone calling card.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using or wearing unlawful emblem and/or identification.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vagrancy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vandalism (fine or restitution of $500 or less and no confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of fireworks laws.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of fish and game laws.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of leash laws.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of probation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other non-traffic offenses not specifically listed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">MISCONDUCT OFFENSES</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggravated assault, fighting, or battery (more than $500 fine or restitution or confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying of weapon on school grounds (other than firearm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">302</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concealment of or failure to report a felony.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">303</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contributing to delinquency of minor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">304</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crimes against the family (non-payment of court-ordered child support and/or alimony).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">305</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Criminal mischief (more than $500 fine or restitution or confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">306</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Criminal trespass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">307</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Desecration of grave.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">308</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domestic battery and/or violence not considered covered by 18 U.S.C. 922, referred to in this issuance as the “Lautenberg Amendment”).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">309</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driving while drugged or intoxicated; driving while ability impaired; permitting driving under the influence.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illegal or fraudulent use of a credit card or bank card (value less than $500).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">311</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Larceny or conversion (value less than $500).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">312</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaving scene of an accident or hit and run.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">313</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Looting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">314</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mailbox destruction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mailing of obscene or indecent matter (including e-mail).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">316</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Possession of marijuana or drug paraphernalia.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">317</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prostitution or solicitation for prostitution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">318</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reckless, careless, or imprudent driving (considered a misdemeanor when the fine is $300 or more or when confinement is imposed; otherwise, considered a minor traffic offense).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">319</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reckless endangerment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">320</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Resisting arrest or eluding police.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">321</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selling or leasing weapons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">322</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stolen property, knowingly receiving (value less than $500).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Throwing rocks on a highway; throwing missiles at sporting events; throwing objects at vehicles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">324</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unauthorized use or taking of a vehicle or conveyance from family member; joy riding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful carrying of firearms or carrying concealed firearm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">326</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful entry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">327</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use of telephone, Internet, or other electronic means to abuse, annoy, harass, threaten, or torment another.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">328</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vandalism (more than $500 fine or restitution or confinement).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Willfully discharging firearm so as to endanger life; shooting in public.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other misconduct offenses not specifically listed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">332</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">MAJOR MISCONDUCT OFFENSES</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggravated assault; assault with dangerous weapon; maiming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">401</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arson.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Attempt to commit a felony.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">403</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breaking and entering with intent to commit a felony.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">404</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bribery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Burglary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">406</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carjacking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">407</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carnal knowledge of a child.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">408</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying of weapon on school grounds (firearm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">409</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Check, worthless, making or uttering, with intent to defraud or deceive (over $500).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">410</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child abuse.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">411</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child pornography.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">412</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conspiring to commit a felony.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">413</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Criminal libel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">414</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domestic battery and/or violence as defined in the Lautenberg Amendment. (Waiver not authorized if applicant was convicted of this offense.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">415</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Embezzlement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">416</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extortion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">417</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Forgery, knowingly uttering or passing forged instrument (except for altered identification cards).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">418</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grand larceny or larceny (value of $500 or more).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">419</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grand theft auto.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hate crimes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">421</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illegal and/or fraudulent use of a credit card, bank card, or automated card (value of $500 or more).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">422</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indecent acts or liberties with a child; molestation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">423</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indecent assault.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">424</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidnapping or abduction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">425</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mail matter; abstracting, destroying, obstructing, opening, secreting, stealing, or taking (not including the destruction of mailboxes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">426</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manslaughter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">427</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Murder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">428</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narcotics or habit-forming drugs, wrongful possession or use (not including marijuana).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">429</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negligent or vehicular homicide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">430</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Perjury or subornation of perjury.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">431</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Possession or intent to use materials in a manner to make a bomb or explosive device to cause bodily harm or destruction of property.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">432</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public record; altering, concealing, destroying, mutilating, obligation, or removing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">433</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rape, sexual abuse, sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, incest, or other sex crimes. (See paragraph (b)(8)(iii) of § 66.6 of this part; waivers for these offenses are not authorized.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">434</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Riot.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">435</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robbery (including armed).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">436</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sale, distribution, or trafficking of cannabis (marijuana) or any other controlled substance (including intent).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">437</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sodomy (only when it is nonconsensual or involves a minor).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">438</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stolen property, knowingly received (value of $500 or more).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">439</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Terrorist threats (including bomb threats).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">440</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of civil rights.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">441</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other major misconduct offenses not specifically listed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">442</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">443</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved for future use.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 16270, Mar. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 64063, Sept. 19, 2016]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="67" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 67—EDUCATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR APPOINTMENT OF RESERVE COMPONENT OFFICERS TO A GRADE ABOVE FIRST LIEUTENANT OR LIEUTENANT (JUNIOR GRADE)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 12205.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 55517, Oct. 27, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 67.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides guidance for implementing policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes under 10 U.S.C. 12205 for identifying criteria for determining educational institutions that award baccalaureate degrees which satisfy the educational requirement for appointment of officers to a grade above First Lieutenant in the Army Reserve, Air Force Reserve, and Marine Corps Reserve, or Lieutenant (Junior Grade) in the Naval Reserve, or for officers to be federally recognized in a grade level above First Lieutenant as a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 67.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, and the Military Departments; the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff; and the Defense Agencies referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”). The term “Military Departments,” as used in this part, refers to the Departments of the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force. The term “Secretary concerned” refers to the Secretaries of the Military Departments. The term “Military Services” refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps. The term “Reserve components” refers to the Army Reserve, Army National Guard of the United States, Air Force Reserve, Air National Guard of the United States, Naval Reserve, Marine Corps Reserve.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 67.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Accredited educational institution.</I> An educational institution accredited by an agency recognized by the Secretary of Education.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying educational institution.</I> An educational institution that is accredited, or an unaccredited educational institution that the Secretary of Defense designates pursuant to § 67.6(a) and § 67.6(b).
</P>
<P><I>Unaccredited educational institution.</I> An educational institution not accredited by an agency recognized by the Secretary of Education.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 67.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy under 10 U.S.C. 12205 to require Reserve component officers to have at least a baccalaureate degree from a qualifying educational institution before appointment to a grade above First Lieutenant in the Army Reserve, Air Force Reserve or Marine Corps Reserve, or Lieutenant (Junior Grade) in the Naval Reserve, or for officers to be federally recognized in a grade above First Lieutenant as a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard.
</P>
<P>(b) Exempt from this policy is any officer who was:
</P>
<P>(1) Appointed to or recognized in a higher grade for service in a health profession for which a baccalaureate degree is not a condition of original appointment or assignment.
</P>
<P>(2) Appointed in the Naval Reserve or Marine Corps Reserve as a limited duty officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Appointed in the Naval Reserve for service under the Naval Aviation Cadet (NAVCAD) program or the Seaman to Admiral program.
</P>
<P>(4) Appointed to or recognized in a higher grade if appointed to, or federally recognized in, the grade of captain or, in the case of the Navy, lieutenant before October 1, 1995.
</P>
<P>(5) Recognized in the grade of captain or major in the Alaska Army National Guard, who resides permanently at a location in Alaska that is more than 50 miles from each of the cities of Anchorage, Fairbanks, and Juneau, Alaska, by paved road, and who is serving in a Scout unit or a Scout support unit.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Defense will designate an unaccredited educational institution as a qualifying educational institution for the purpose of meeting this educational requirement if that institution meets the criteria established in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 67.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Reserve Affairs, under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures by which an unaccredited educational institution can apply for DoD designation as a qualifying educational institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> DoD requirements and procedures for an unaccredited educational institution to apply for designation as a qualifying education institution.
</P>
<P>(3) Annually, provide to the Secretaries of the Military Departments a list of those unaccredited educational institutions that have been approved by the Department of Defense as a qualifying educational institution. This list shall include the year or years for which unaccredited educational institutions are designed as qualifying educational institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall establish procedures to ensure that after September 30, 1995, those Reserve component officers selected for appointment to a grade above First Lieutenant in the Army Reserve, Air Force Reserve, or Marine Corps Reserve, or Lieutenant (Junior Grade) in the Naval Reserve, or for officers to be federally recognized in a grade above First Lieutenant as a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard, who are required to hold a baccalaureate degree, were awarded a baccalaureate degree from a qualifying educational institution before appointment to the next higher grade. For a degree from an unaccredited educational institution that has been recognized as qualifying educational institution by the Department of Defense to satisfy the educational requirements of 10 U.S.C. 12205, the degree must not have been awarded more than 8 years before the date the officer is to be appointed, or federally recognized, in the grade of Captain in the Army Reserve, Army National Guard, Air Force Reserve, Air National Guard, or Marine Corps Reserve, or in the grade of Lieutenant in the Naval Reserve.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 67.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.22.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 67.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An unaccredited educational institution may obtain designation as a qualifying educational institution for a specific Reserve component officer who graduated from that educational institution by providing certification from registrars at three accredited educational institutions that maintain ROTC programs that their educational institutions would accept at least 90 percent of the credit hours earned by that officer at the unaccredited educational institution, as of the year of graduation.
</P>
<P>(b) For an unaccredited educational institution to be designated as a qualifying educational institution for a specific year, that educational institution must provide the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Reserve Affairs certification from the registrars at three different accredited educational institutions that maintain ROTC programs listing the major field(s) of study in which that educational institution would accept at least 90 percent of the credit hours earned by a student who was awarded a baccalaureate degree in that major field of study at the unaccredited educational institution.
</P>
<P>(c) For an unaccredited educational institution to be considered for designation as a qualifying educational institution, the unaccredited educational institution must submit the required documentation no later than January 1 of the year for which the unaccredited educational institution seeks to be designated a qualifying educational institution.
</P>
<P>(d) The required documentation must be sent to the following address: Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Reserve Affairs, Attn: DASD (M&amp;P), 1500 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1500.
</P>
<P>(e) Applications containing the required documentation may also be submitted at any time from unaccredited educational institutions requesting designation as a qualifying educational institution for prior school years.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="68" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 68—VOLUNTARY EDUCATION PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2005, 2006a, 2007.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 27737, May 15, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 68.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for the operation of voluntary education programs in the DoD.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy stating the eligibility criteria for tuition assistance (TA) and the requirement for a memorandum of understanding (MOU) from all educational institutions providing educational programs through the DoD TA Program.
</P>
<P>(c) Establishes policy that:
</P>
<P>(1) All educational institutions providing education programs through the DoD Tuition Assistance (TA) Program:
</P>
<P>(i) Will provide meaningful information to students about the financial cost and attendance at an institution so military students can make informed decisions on where to attend school.
</P>
<P>(ii) Will not use unfair, deceptive, and abusive recruiting practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Will provide academic and student support services to Service members and their families.
</P>
<P>(2) Creates rules to strengthen existing procedures for access to DoD installations by educational institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) Requires an annual review and notification process of uniform semester-hour (or equivalent) TA caps and annual TA ceilings.
</P>
<P>(4) Requires the Military Departments to provide their Service members with a joint services transcript (JST).
</P>
<P>(5) Implements the DoD Postsecondary Education Complaint System for Service members, spouses, and adult family members to register student complaints.
</P>
<P>(6) Authorizes the Military Departments to establish Service-specific TA eligibility criteria and management controls.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishes the Interservice Voluntary Education Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 68.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the DoD, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 68.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Academic.</I> Relating to education, educational studies, an educational institution, or the educational system.
</P>
<P><I>Academic skills.</I> Competencies in English, reading, writing, speaking, mathematics, and computer skills that are essential to successful job performance and new learning. Also referred to as functional or basic skills.
</P>
<P><I>Active Guard and Reserve (AGR).</I> National Guard or Reserve members of the Selected Reserve (SELRES) who are ordered to active duty or full-time National Guard duty for a period of 180 consecutive days or more for the purpose of organizing, administering, recruiting, instructing, or training the Reserve Component (RC) units or duties as prescribed in 10 U.S.C. 12310. All AGR members must be assigned against an authorized mobilization position in the unit they support. (Includes Navy full-time support (FTS), Marine Corps Active Reserve (ARs), and Coast Guard Reserve Personnel Administrators (RPAs)).
</P>
<P><I>American Council on Education (ACE).</I> The major coordinating body for all of the Nation's higher education institutions. Seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and publishes the “Guide to the Evaluation of Educational Experiences in the Armed Services.”
</P>
<P><I>Annual TA Ceiling.</I> The maximum dollar amount authorized for each Service member for TA per fiscal year. Each Service member participating in off-duty voluntary education programs will be entitled to the full amount authorized each fiscal year in accordance with DoD policy.
</P>
<P><I>Army/American Council on Education Registry Transcript System.</I> A document sent directly from the Army American Council on Education Registry Transcript System Center to the educational institution to articulate a soldier's military experience and training and the American Council on Education-recommended college credit for this training and experience. The JST consolidates data from the legacy Army/ACE Registry Transcript System.
</P>
<P><I>Degree requirements.</I> A document provided by the educational institution that outlines required courses and conditions to complete an educational program. The document presents the general education, major-related, and elective course requirements, degree competencies (e.g., foreign language, computer literacy), and other requirements (e.g., examination, thesis, dissertation, practicum, grade point average, credits by course level, or academic residency) for the specified program of study. This document becomes the basis for the evaluated educational plan.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Installation.</I> For the purposes of this Instruction, any active duty military, Reserve or National Guard owned, leased, or operated base, reservation, post, site, camp, building, or other facility to which DoD personnel are assigned for duty.
</P>
<P><I>Education advisor.</I> A professionally qualified, subject matter expert or program manager in the Education Services Series 1740 or possessing equivalent qualifications at the education center. The following position titles may also be used for an education advisor: Education Services Specialist, Education Services Officer (ESO), Voluntary Education Director, Navy College Office Director, and Education and Training Section (ETS) Chief.
</P>
<P><I>Education center.</I> A DoD installation facility, including office space, classrooms, laboratories, or other features, that is staffed with professionally qualified personnel and to conduct voluntary education programs. This may be located at an active duty military installation, Reserve and National Guard facility (state readiness center, armory, unit, etc.), or recruiting center (leased space inside a shopping mall or office building). For Navy, this is termed the “Navy College Office.”
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution. A</I> college, university, or other institution of higher education. For the purposes of this Instruction, the parent/home/main campus and any sub-campuses included in the signed MOU with DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution agent.</I> A lawful agent of the educational institution is limited to persons who have written authorization to act on behalf of the educational institutions.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution representative.</I> An employee of the educational institution.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible adult family member.</I> The adult family member, over the age of 18, of an active duty, Reserve, National Guardsman, or DoD civilian with a valid DoD identification card.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluated educational plan.</I> An individualized official academic document provided by the educational institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Articulates all degree requirements for degree completion or in the case of a non-degree program, all educational requirements for completion of the program;
</P>
<P>(2) Identifies all courses required for graduation in the individual's intended academic discipline and level of postsecondary study; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes an evaluation of all successfully completed prior coursework, and evaluated credit for military training and experience, and other credit sources applied to the institutional degree requirements. At a minimum, the evaluated educational plan will identify required courses and where appropriate, College Level Examination Program, DSST (formerly known as the DANTES Subject Standardized Tests) Program, and potential American Council on Education recommended college credits for training and experiences. For participating SOC Degree Network System institutions, the SOC Degree Network System Student Agreement serves as this evaluated educational plan. For some educational institutions this may be termed a degree audit.
</P>
<P><I>Individual Ready Reserve (IRR).</I> A manpower pool consisting principally of individuals who have had training, have previously served in the Active Component or in the SELRES, and have some period of their military service obligation or other contractual obligation remaining. Some individuals volunteer to remain in the IRR beyond their military service or contractual obligation and participate in programs providing a variety of professional assignments and opportunities for earning retirement points and military benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Joint services transcript (JST).</I> An official education transcript tool for documenting the recommended ACE college credits for a variety of professional military education, training courses, and occupational experience of Service members across the Services. The JST consolidates data from legacy documents such as the Army/ACE Registry Transcript System, the Sailor/Marine ACE Registry Transcript System, the Community College of the Air Force transcript, and the Coast Guard Institute transcript.
</P>
<P><I>Needs assessment.</I> A process used to determine the staffing requirements, course offerings, size of facilities, funding, or other standards for delivery of educational programs.
</P>
<P><I>Off-duty.</I> Time when the Service member is not scheduled to perform official duties.
</P>
<P><I>Ready Reserve.</I> Composed of military members of the Reserve and National Guard, organized in units or as individuals, or both, and liable for involuntary order to active duty in time of war or national emergency pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 12310 and 12301 and 14 U.S.C. 712 in the case of members of the Coast Guard Reserve. The Ready Reserve consists of the SELRES, the IRR, and the Inactive National Guard.
</P>
<P><I>Sailor/Marine American Council on Education Registry Transcript System.</I> A document sent directly from the Sailor/Marine ACE Registry Transcript System Operations Center to the educational institution to articulate a Sailor's or Marine's military experience and training and the American Council on Education recommended college credit for this training and experience. The JST consolidates data from the legacy Sailor/Marine ACE Registry Transcript System.
</P>
<P><I>Semester-hour TA cap.</I> The maximum dollar amount authorized for TA per semester-hour (or equivalent) credit. A Service will pay no more than the established DoD cap per semester-unit (or equivalent) for tuition.
</P>
<P><I>Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges (SOC).</I> A consortium of over 1,800 colleges and universities, created in 1972 that seeks to enhance the educational opportunities to Service members who may have difficulty in completing college programs due to frequent military moves.
</P>
<P><I>Third Party Education Assessment.</I> A third-party evaluation of voluntary education programs covered by the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU.
</P>
<P><I>Top-Up.</I> An option, under the Montgomery G.I. Bill and the Post-9/11 G.I. Bill, that enables active duty Service members and certain Reservists to receive from the VA those tuition costs that exceed or are not authorized in the amount of TA provided to the Service member by his or her Service. Entitlement is charged differently depending on which G.I. Bill program a Service member uses. The Montgomery G.I. Bill entitlement is charged based on the dollar amount of benefits VA pays to the individual. The Service member will be charged one month of entitlement for each payment received that is equal to the full-time monthly rate for the Montgomery G.I. Bill. The Post-9/11 entitlement is charged based on the enrolled amount of time and the individual's rate of pursuit during the period of enrollment. If a Service member is attending classes part-time or at the 1/2 time level, the charge is 1/2 month of Post-9/11 G.I. Bill benefits for each month enrolled and receiving G.I. Bill benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Troops-to-Teachers program (TTT).</I> A DoD program to assist transitioning Service members and veterans in meeting the requirements necessary to become a teacher and facilitating their subsequent employment.
</P>
<P><I>Tuition assistance (TA).</I> Funds provided by the Military Services or U.S. Coast Guard to pay a percentage of the charges of an educational institution for the tuition of an active duty, Reserve or National Guard member of the Military Services, or Coast Guard member, enrolled in approved courses of study during off-duty time.
</P>
<P><I>Voluntary education programs.</I> Continuing, adult, or postsecondary education programs of study that Service members elect to participate in during their off-duty time, and that are available to other members of the military community.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 68.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy, consistent with DoD Directive 1322.08E, “Voluntary Education Programs for Military Personnel” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/132208p.pdf</I>), that:
</P>
<P>(a) Members of the Military Services serving on active duty and members of the Selected Reserve (SELRES) will be afforded the opportunity to complete their high school education through a state-funded or Service component sponsored program; earn an equivalency diploma, improve their academic skills or level of literacy, enroll in career and technical education schools, receive college credit for military training and experience in accordance with the American Council on Education (ACE) Guide to the Evaluation of Educational Experiences in the Armed Services (available at <I>http://www.acenet.edu/news-room/Pages/Military-Guide-Online.aspx</I>), take tests to earn college credit, and enroll in postsecondary education programs that lead to industry-recognized credentials, and undergraduate and graduate degrees.
</P>
<P>(b) Service members' costs to participate in the DoD Voluntary Education Program as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2007, will be reduced through financial support, including TA that is administered uniformly across the Military Services. On an annual basis and no later than the end of the second quarter of the fiscal year, the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)), in coordination with the Military Departments, will review the uniform semester-hour (or equivalent) TA caps and annual TA ceilings to determine possible changes for the upcoming fiscal year. If there are any changes in the uniform semester-hour (or equivalent) caps and annual TA ceilings, a memorandum will be released from the USD(P&amp;R), in coordination with the Military Departments, and a corresponding notice will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) Professional education counseling will be readily available and easy to access so that Service members can make informed decisions concerning available educational opportunities and benefits. Education counseling will be provided by qualified professional (Education Services Series 1740 or an individual with equivalent qualifications) in sufficient numbers to operate voluntary education programs as determined by individual Service standards.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with Executive Order (E.O.) 13607:
</P>
<P>(1) Educational institutions receiving funding from federal military educational benefits programs, such as the DoD TA Program, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide meaningful information to students on the financial cost and attendance at an educational institution so military students can make informed decisions on where to attend school as stated in section 3 of Appendix A.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevent unfair, deceptive, and abusive recruiting practices that target Service members as defined by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act and as stated in section 3 of Appendix A.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide academic and student support services specific to the institutions' programs to all enrolled Service members, spouses and adult family members.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD will implement a centralized online complaint system for Service members, spouses, and adult family members that will register, track, and respond to student complaints. DoD or the assigned Military Service will work with educational institutions to resolve any filed complaints. Educational institutions having recurring, substantive complaints or demonstrating an unwillingness to resolve complaints may face a range of penalties from a directed Third Party Education Assessment to revocation of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU and removal from participation in the DoD TA Program. As appropriate, DoD will refer student complaints to other government agencies/regulators including but not limited to the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), Department of Justice (DOJ), Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), and Department of Education (ED).
</P>
<P>(e) Educational institutions accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by ED will be encouraged to provide degree programs on DoD installations and the Military Services will facilitate their operations on the DoD installations referred to in § 68.6(c).
</P>
<P>(f) To the extent that space is otherwise available, eligible adult family members of Service members, DoD civilian employees and their eligible adult family members, and military retirees may enroll in postsecondary education programs offered on a DoD installation at no cost to the individual Service TA programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 68.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(P&amp;R) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor implementation of and ensure compliance with this part and DoD Directive 1322.08E.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish rates of TA and ensure uniformity across the Military Services as required by DoD Directive 1322.08E and this part. The uniform semester-hour (or equivalent) TA caps and annual TA ceilings will be reviewed annually and if changed, a memorandum from the USD(P&amp;R) will be released following coordination with each of the Military Departments. Additionally, if the uniform TA rates are changed, a notice will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at approximately the start of the fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish, under the provisions of DoD Instruction 5105.18, “DoD Intergovernmental and Intragovernmental Committee Management Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/510518p.pdf</I>), the Interservice Voluntary Education Board, which will be composed of full-time or permanent part-time federal employees.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain a program to assess the effectiveness of the voluntary education programs.
</P>
<P>(5) Issue written supplemental guidance annually for the funding and operation of the Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES) for those items not reflected in paragraph (f) of § 68.6.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management (ASD(R&amp;FM)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide administrative assistance to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MCFP)), in support of the voluntary education programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Respond to matters that are referred by the DASD(MCFP).
</P>
<P>(c) The DASD(MCFP), under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(R&amp;FM), will:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor compliance with this part and DoD Directive 1322.08E and related issuances by personnel under his or her authority, direction, and control.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversee the DoD Voluntary Education Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide ongoing and routine clarifying guidance for the DoD Voluntary Education Program.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide representatives to professional education and cross-agency panels addressing issues impacting the DoD Voluntary Education Program, its regulatory scope, clientele, and partners.
</P>
<P>(5) Designate the Voluntary Education Chief within the Office of the DASD(MCFP) as the Chair of the Interservice Voluntary Education Board and oversee implementation of Board and DANTES procedures as detailed in § 68.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Oversee the DoD Postsecondary Education Complaint System through which Service members, spouses, and adult family members receiving federal military and veterans educational benefits can register on-line complaints that will be tracked and responded to by DoD, VA, ED, CFPB, DOJ, FTC, and other relevant agencies. The DoD Postsecondary Education Complaint System is web-based and accessible on-line at <I>https://afaems.langley.af.mil/pecs/DoDPECS.</I> This complaint system contains the uniform procedures for the processing of the complaint intake (DD Form 2961, “DoD Postsecondary Education Complaint Intake”).
</P>
<P>(7) Oversee the Third-Party Education Assessment, which is a third party review process to assess the quality, delivery, and coordination of the voluntary education programs provided to military personnel on the DoD installation, in the community, and via distance learning (DL). It assists in improving the quality of the delivery of these programs through recommendation to educational institutions, DoD installations, and the Military Services. DASD(MCFP) will monitor actions:
</P>
<P>(i) By the Military Services to resolve recommendations for improvement identified on the respective Military Service's installation during the Third Party Education Assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) By the DoD Voluntary Education Chief to resolve recommendations for improvement concerning educational institutions operating off the DoD installation or via DL identified during Third Party Education Assessments. These educational institutions will provide corrective actions taken within 6 months of the assessment to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief. In instances when the issue cannot be resolved within the 6 month timeframe, the educational institution will submit a status report every 3 months to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief until the recommendation is resolved.
</P>
<P>(8) Prepare written supplemental guidance annually for the USD(P&amp;R) regarding the funding and operation of DANTES for those items not reflected in paragraph (f) of § 68.6.
</P>
<P>(9) Oversee the policy of the JST.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Reserve Affairs (ASD(RA)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), will:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor compliance with this part and DoD Directive 1322.08E and related issuances by personnel under his or her authority, direction, and control.
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint a representative to serve on the Interservice Voluntary Education Board.
</P>
<P>(3) Arrange the assignment of, on a rotating basis, a field grade officer, to serve as the RC Advisor to the Voluntary Education Chief and a representative on the Interservice Voluntary Education Board.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretaries of the Military Departments will:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor compliance with this part and DoD Directive 1322.08E and related issuances by personnel under their respective authority, direction, and control.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish, maintain, coordinate, and operate voluntary education programs that encompass a broad range of educational experiences including, but not limited to, academic skills development, high school completion programs, vocational programs, career and technical programs, and programs leading to the award of undergraduate and graduate degrees.
</P>
<P>(3) Require that sufficient funding is available to provide Service members with TA support consistent with the requirements in § 68.6 and appendices A, B, C, D, and E to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Require that educational counseling is available to Service members so they will have sufficient information and guidance to plan an appropriate program of study. Educational counseling will be provided by qualified professional (Education Services Series 1740 or an individual with equivalent qualifications) individuals.
</P>
<P>(5) Require that voluntary education programs participate in the DoD-established third-party review process titled the Third Party Education Assessment.
</P>
<P>(i) Within 6 months of the Third Party Education Assessment on their installation, the responsible Military Service will resolve recommendations received as a result of the assessment and provide the resolutions to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief. In instances when the issue cannot be resolved within the 6 month timeframe, the Military Service will submit a status report every 3 months to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief until the recommendation is resolved.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the recommendation(s) requires involvement of an educational institution operating on their respective installation, the Military Service will coordinate the submission of corrective actions taken by the educational institution(s) through the appropriate Education Advisor, and forward the submission through their respective Military Service leadership to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief.
</P>
<P>(iii) Waivers to the Third Party Education Assessment must be submitted to and approved by the DoD Voluntary Education Chief.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide one representative to serve on the Interservice Voluntary Education Board responsible for their Services' voluntary education policy from each of the following Military Services: Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. Each Service representative's membership will be on a permanent basis and changed only when their voluntary education policy position is changed.
</P>
<P>(7) Assign, on a rotating basis, a senior enlisted Service member in the military pay grade E-9 to serve as the DANTES enlisted advisor.
</P>
<P>(8) Assign, on a rotating basis, a field-grade officer to serve as the DANTES RC advisor.
</P>
<P>(9) Require that military test control officers and test centers comply with the guidance and procedures published in the DANTES Examination Program Handbook, available at <I>http://www.dantes.doded.mil/Programs/Docs/DEPH_part1.pdf.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) Require that personnel who provide counseling, advice, and program management related to voluntary education programs have access to the DoD Voluntary Education homepage and other Web sites so they can provide current and accurate information to Service members.
</P>
<P>(11) Provide opportunities for Service members to access the Internet, where available, to enroll in and complete postsecondary courses that are part of their evaluated educational plan leading to an educational goal.
</P>
<P>(12) Submit requested quarterly and annual information for the Voluntary Education Management Information System (VEMIS) by the 20th day of the month after the end of each fiscal quarter for the quarterly reports and November 15th each year for the annual report. Reporting information includes, but is not limited to, voluntary education program data on enrollments, participation, and costs.
</P>
<P>(13) Respond to and resolve Service-specific student complaints received and managed through the DoD Postsecondary Education Complaint System.
</P>
<P>(14) Provide Service members with a JST. At a minimum, the JST will include documented military student data, courses, and military occupations evaluated by ACE, including descriptions, learning outcomes, and equivalent college credit recommendations, as well as national college-level exam results. The U.S. Air Force (USAF) will continue to use the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) to document its members' academic and military credit.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary of the Navy.</I> The Secretary of the Navy, as the DoD Executive Agent (DoD EA) for DANTES pursuant to DoD Directive 1322.08E and DoD Directive 5101.1, “DoD Executive Agent” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/510101p.pdf</I>), and in addition to the responsibilities in this section, will:
</P>
<P>(1) Transmit supplemental annual guidance issued by the USD(P&amp;R) to DANTES for those items not reflected in paragraph (f) of § 68.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Require that the Director, DANTES, provide updates on DANTES plans, operations, and activities to the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(3) Through its civilian personnel system, advertise the position of Director, DANTES, when the position is vacated and appoint the Director, DANTES, in accordance with the procedures outlined in § 68.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 68.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 68.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>TA for Service members participating in education programs.</I> (1) TA will be available for Service members participating in high school completion and approved courses from accredited undergraduate or graduate education programs or educational institutions. Approved courses are those that are part of an identified course of study leading to a postsecondary certificate or degree and non-degree oriented language courses integral to the Defense Language Transformation Roadmap (available at <I>http://www.defense.gov/news/Mar2005/d20050330roadmap.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(i) Use of TA for non-degree oriented language courses is limited to those published by the Under Secretary of Defense (P&amp;R) on the DoD Strategic Language List.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dominant-in-the-force languages and languages deemed by DoD as already having sufficient strategic capacity will not be funded under 10 U.S.C. 2007, except for assignments outside the continental United States.
</P>
<P>(2) TA will be applied as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For 100 percent of the cost of approved high school completion programs for Service members who have not been awarded a high school or equivalency diploma and who are enrolled in such programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) In support of the voluntary education of active duty Service members during their off-duty periods, each Military Service will pay all or a portion, as specified in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) through (F) of this section, of the charges of an educational institution for education during the member's off-duty periods. TA funding will only be paid to educational institutions accredited by an accrediting organization recognized by ED, approved VA funding, and certified to participate in federal student aid programs through the ED under Title IV of Public Law 89-329, also known and referred to in this part as the Higher Education Act of 1965. Whenever ED withdraws the recognition of any accrediting agency, an institution of higher education that meets the requirements of accreditation, eligibility, and certification on the day before such withdrawal, may, notwithstanding the withdrawal, continue to participate in the TA program for a period not to exceed 18 months from the date of the withdrawal of recognition.
</P>
<P>(A) When an educational institution's charges are equal to or less than the established cap per semester-hour of credit or its equivalent, the responsible Service will pay the entire amount charged by the educational institution. In computing credit equivalency, the following conversions will apply: 1 quarter-hour credit = 2/3 semester-hour credit; and 45 contact hours will be considered equivalent to 1 semester-hour credit when neither semester- nor quarter-hours are specified for the education for which the Service member is enrolled.
</P>
<P>(B) When an educational institution's charges exceed the established cap per semester-hour of credit, or its equivalent, the responsible Service, will pay no more than the established cap per semester-unit (or equivalent) for tuition.
</P>
<P>(C) Each Service member participating in off-duty, voluntary education will be allowed no more than the established annual ceiling, in aggregate, for each fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(D) Covered charges include those that are submitted to the Service by the educational institution for tuition only. Educational institutions that bundle tuition, fees, or books into a consolidated cost must detail the charges of fees and books separately for Service members participating in the TA program. Fees include any charge not directly related to course instruction including but not limited to costs associated with room, board, distance learning, equipment, supplies, books/materials, exams, insurance, parking, transportation, admissions, registration, or fines.
</P>
<P>(E) TA funds are not to be used for the purchase of books to include textbooks, ebooks, CDs/DVDs, or reference or instructional materials. Additionally, institutional education revenue generated from military TA funds cannot be used to support textbook grants or scholarships.
</P>
<P>(F) To be eligible to receive TA, a Service member must meet the minimum requirement of successfully completing basic training. RC members are exempt from the requirement to first attend basic training before authorized to receive TA. Additional, respective Service requirements must be met to include training qualification, unit assignment, and time in service criteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) The TA rate, credit-cap, and annual per capita ceiling, will be reviewed annually in consideration of inflation and other effects, and will be applicable uniformly whether instruction is delivered traditionally in-the-classroom or through distance education. Rates of TA other than as identified in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) through (F) of this section are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service-specific TA eligibility requirements.</I> (i) Service-specific eligibility criteria and management controls are determined by each Military Service.
</P>
<P>(ii) Service-specific TA eligibility criteria and management controls may include, but are not limited to, applying TA:
</P>
<P>(A) For courses leading to a certificate or required for a credentialing program. All payments for courses must comply with the allowable caps and ceilings.
</P>
<P>(B) For graduate studies through the master's degree level. All payments for courses must comply with the allowable caps and ceilings.
</P>
<P>(C) For same level degrees, subject to the availability of funds. However, TA is primarily intended to raise the academic degree level of the Service member.
</P>
<P>(4) TA is available to a commissioned officer on active duty, other than an officer serving in the Ready Reserves (addressed in paragraphs (a)(5)(i) and (a)(6)(i) of this section), only if the officer agrees to remain on active duty, for a period of at least 2 years after the completion of the education or training for which TA was paid (see 10 U.S.C. 2007).
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned may only make TA available to a member of the SELRES, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2007, under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a commissioned officer, the officer must agree to remain a member of the SELRES for at least 4 years after completion of the education or training for which TA is paid.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an enlisted member, the Secretary concerned may require the member of the SELRES to enter into an agreement to remain a member of the SELRES for up to 4 years after completion of the education or training for which TA is paid.
</P>
<P>(6) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned may only make TA available to a member of the IRR who has a military occupational specialty designated by the Secretary concerned pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2007 and only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a commissioned officer, the officer must agree to remain a member of the SELRES or IRR for at least 4 years after completion of the education or training for which TA was paid.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an enlisted member, the Secretary concerned may require the member of the IRR to enter into an agreement to remain a member of the IRR for up to 4 years after completion of the education or training for which TA is paid.
</P>
<P>(7) Members performing Active Guard and Reserve (AGR) duty under either 10 U.S.C. 12310 or active duty under 14 U.S.C. 712 are eligible for TA under paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned may make TA available to National Guard members in accordance with paragraph (a)(4), except for National Guard members assigned to the Inactive National Guard.
</P>
<P>(9) Reimbursement and repayment requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) If a commissioned officer or member of the RR does not fulfill a specified Service obligation as required by 10 U.S.C. 2007, they are subject to the repayment provisions of 37 U.S.C. 303a(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) For other conditions pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2005, the Secretary concerned may require a Service member to enter into a written agreement when providing advanced education assistance. If the Service member does not fulfill any terms or conditions as prescribed by the Secretary concerned, the Service member will be subject to the repayment provisions of 37 U.S.C. 303a(e).
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to 37 U.S.C. 303a(e), the Secretary concerned may establish procedures for determining the amount of the repayment required from the Service member and the circumstances under which an exception to the required repayment may be granted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reimbursement will be required from the Service member if a successful course completion is not obtained. For the purpose of reimbursement, a successful course completion is defined as a grade of “C” or higher for undergraduate courses, a “B” or higher for graduate courses and a “Pass” for “Pass/Fail” grades. Reimbursement will also be required from the Service member if he or she fails to make up a grade of “I” for incomplete within the time limits stipulated by the educational institution or 6 months after the completion of the class, whichever comes first. The Secretary of the Military Department will establish recoupment processes for unsuccessful completion of courses.
</P>
<P>(10) Students using TA must maintain a cumulative grade point average (GPA) of 2.0 or higher after completing 15 semester hours, or equivalent, in undergraduate studies, or a GPA of 3.0 or higher after completing 6 semester hours, or equivalent, in graduate studies, on a 4.0 grading scale. If the GPA for TA funded courses falls below these minimum GPA limits, TA will not be authorized and Service members will use alternative funding (such as financial aid or personal funds) to enroll in courses to raise the cumulative GPA to 2.0 for undergraduate studies or 3.0 for graduate studies.
</P>
<P>(11) TA will not be authorized for any course for which a Service member receives reimbursement in whole or in part from any other Federal source such as veterans' education benefits (GI Bill and other programs) and Service-funded programs (ROTC scholarship, education-related incentive or bonus, and advanced civil schooling) when the payment would constitute a duplication of benefits paid to that educational institution. Federal student aid loan, grant, and work-study programs will not be considered a duplication of benefit. Educational institutions have the responsibility to notify the Service if there is any duplication of benefits, determine the amount of credit that should be returned, and credit the amount back to the Service. The use of funds related to veterans' education benefits to supplement TA received by active duty and RC personnel is authorized in accordance with applicable VA guidelines.
</P>
<P>(12) Pell Grants may be used in conjunction with TA assistance to pay that portion of tuition costs not covered by TA.
</P>
<P>(13) TA will be provided for courses provided by educational institutions awarding degrees based on demonstrated competency, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Competency rates are equated to semester or quarter units of credit, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The educational institution publishes traditional grade correlations with “Pass/Fail” grades, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The educational institution provides a breakdown by course equivalent for Service members.
</P>
<P>(14) Enrollment in a professional practicum integral to these types of programs is also authorized. However, normal DoD TA caps and ceilings apply; the cost of expanded levels of enrollment over and above these enrollment levels and normal caps and ceilings must be borne by the student.
</P>
<P>(15) When used for postsecondary education, TA will be provided only for courses offered by postsecondary educational institutions whose home campus is operating within the United States, to include the District of Columbia and U.S. territories, which are accredited by a national or regional accrediting body recognized by the ED.
</P>
<P>(16) On a date to be determined, but not earlier than 60 days following the publication of this part in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> to receive TA, all educational institution home campuses must sign the revised DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) in appendices A, B, C, D, and E to this part, and the name of the educational institution must be posted on the DoD MOU Web site under the 'Participating Institutions' tab (located at <I>http://www.dodmou.com</I>). One signed, revised DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU with the educational institution's home campus will cover any program offered by the educational institution, regardless of location. The requirement to sign the revised DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU contained in this part applies to institutions with a previously approved and signed DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU posted on the DoD MOU Web site.
</P>
<P>(17) To the extent that any provision of the standard language of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU template in appendices A, B, C, D, and E to this part, results from DoD policy that conflicts with a state law or regulation, the DASD(MCFP) may authorize amending the standard language of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU template on a case-by-case basis to the extent permissible by Federal law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(18) A DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU with an educational institution may be suspended or terminated by DoD in these circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU with an educational institution may be terminated by the ASD(R&amp;FM) following written notice and an opportunity to respond for the failure to comply with any element of this part of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU. In addition, an otherwise qualified educational institution may be suspended from participating in the tuition assistance program by the ASD(R&amp;FM) following written notice and an opportunity to respond through either the termination of an existing DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU or the refusal by DoD to enter into a new DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU upon indictment of the educational institution or any senior official of the educational institution on a criminal charge related to the operation of the educational institution. The decision of the ASD(R&amp;FM) in either of these cases may be appealed to the USD(P&amp;R), and the decision of the USD(P&amp;R) will be deemed to be the final administrative action by DoD on the matter.
</P>
<P>(ii) An otherwise qualified educational institution may also be immediately suspended from participating in the tuition assistance program through either the termination of an existing DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU or the refusal to enter into a new DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU by the USD(P&amp;R) on national security grounds. Written notice of the action will be provided to the educational institution, and, if practicable without damaging national security, the written notice will include a short unclassified summary of the reasons for the action. Such a decision of the USD(P&amp;R) is only appealable to the Secretary of Defense, who has authorized the Deputy Secretary of Defense to act on such an appeal.
</P>
<P>(iii) The authorities pursuant to this paragraph are not delegable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines for establishing, maintaining, and operating voluntary education programs.</I> (1) Education programs established under this part by each Military Service will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide for the academic, technical, intellectual, personal, and professional development of Service members, thereby contributing to the readiness of the Military Services and the quality of life of Service members and their families.
</P>
<P>(ii) Increase Service members' opportunities for advancement and leadership by reinforcing their academic skills and occupational competencies with new skills and knowledge.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lead to a credential, such as a high school diploma, certificate, or college degree, signifying satisfactory completion of the educational program.
</P>
<P>(iv) Include an academic skills program, which allows personnel to upgrade their reading, writing, computation, and communication abilities in support of academic skills and military occupations and careers. Academic skills programs may include English as a Second Language, mathematics and basic science.
</P>
<P>(v) Include programs and college offerings that support findings from periodic needs assessments conducted by the appropriate DoD installation official (normally the Education Services Officer) for programs provided on the DoD installation. The DoD installation needs assessment process is used to determine such items as staffing requirements, course offerings, size of facilities, funding, or other standards for delivery of educational programs. Duplication of course offerings on a DoD installation should be avoided. However, the availability of similar courses through correspondence or electronic delivery will not be considered duplication.
</P>
<P>(vi) Be described in a publication or on-line source that includes on-installation educational programs, programs available at nearby DoD installations, and colleges and universities nearby the DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Military Service, in cooperation with community educational service providers, will provide support essential to operating effective education programs. This support includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate funds for program implementation, administration, and TA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequately trained staff to determine program needs, counsel students, provide testing services, and procure educational programs and services. Education counseling will be provided by qualified professional (Education Services Series 1740 or an individual with equivalent qualifications) individuals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate and appropriate classroom, laboratory, and office facilities and equipment, including computers to support local needs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Access to telecommunications networks, computers, and physical or online libraries at times convenient to active duty personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) In operating its programs, each Military Service will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide to newly assigned personnel, as part of their orientation to each new DoD installation or unit of assignment for RC personnel, information about voluntary education programs available at that DoD installation, unit, or State for RC personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain participants' educational records showing education accomplishments and educational goals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for the continuing professional development of their education services staff, including the participation of field staff in professional, as well as Service-sponsored, conferences, symposiums, and workshops.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide educational services, including TA counseling, academic advice and testing to their personnel and to personnel of other Services (including the U.S. Coast Guard when operating as a service in the Navy) who are assigned for duty at DoD installations of the host Service. These educational services will be provided by qualified professional (Education Services Series 1740 or an individual with equivalent qualifications) individuals in sufficient numbers to operate voluntary education programs as determined by individual Service standards. Outcomes from these educational services will include:
</P>
<P>(A) A prior learning assessment that includes a review of all education transcripts to include the JST, the CCAF transcript, and academic transcript recommendations for ACE recommended credit.
</P>
<P>(B) An assessment of the Service members' readiness to accomplish the degree requirements as outlined in the evaluated educational plan and a discussion of academic skills development programs.
</P>
<P>(C) Discussion and review of technical credentials that can be obtained concurrent to academic pursuits.
</P>
<P>(D) Discussion of credit-by-examination options.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of academic program options, leading to a degree plan.
</P>
<P>(F) Discussion with prospective military students on payment options and the use of education benefits for postsecondary courses to include the DoD TA Program, VA education benefit programs, State and federal grants and loans, commercial lending, and out-of-pocket costs for the Service member. Discussion will include streamlined tools and information to compare educational institutions using key measures of affordability and value through the VA eBenefits portal at <I>http://www.ebenefits.va.gov.</I> The eBenefits portal is updated by VA to facilitate access to school performance information and key federal financial aid documents.
</P>
<P>(v) Continually assess the state of its voluntary education programs and periodically conduct a formal needs assessment by the appropriate DoD installation official (normally the Education Services Officer) to ensure that the best possible programs are available to their members at each DoD installation or in their State or area command for RC personnel. It is essential that a formal needs assessment be conducted if there is a significant change in the demographic profile of the DoD installation population.
</P>
<P>(4) Eligible adult family members of Service members, DoD civilian employees and their eligible adult family members, and military retirees may participate in installation postsecondary education programs on a space-available basis at no cost to the individual Service TA programs.
</P>
<P>(5) At locations where an educational program that is offered on a DoD installation is not otherwise conveniently available outside the DoD installation, civilians who are not directly employed by the DoD or other Federal agencies, and who are not eligible adult family members of DoD personnel, may be allowed to participate in DoD installation educational programs. While such participation contributes to positive community relations, participation must be on a student-funded, space-available basis at no cost to the individual Service TA programs, after the registration of Service members, DoD civilian employees, eligible adult family members, and military retirees. Additionally, a review of these potential participants by the relevant DoD installation ethics counselor may be required as part of the installation commander's access requirements. Participation may also be subject to the terms of status-of-forces or other regulating agreements.
</P>
<P>(6) Education centers will maintain liaison with appropriate State planning and approving agencies and coordinating councils to ensure that planning agencies for continuing, adult, or postsecondary education are aware of the educational needs of military personnel located within their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(7) In supporting a high school completion program, each Military Service will:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that all Service members with less than a high school education have the opportunity to attain a high school diploma or its equivalent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that neither a Military Service nor DANTES issues a certificate or similar document to Service members based on performance on high school equivalency tests. Military Services will recognize attainment of high school completion or equivalency only after a State- or territory-approved agency has awarded the appropriate credential.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pay 100 percent of the cost of high school equivalency instruction or proficiency testing and credentialing for Service members.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that Service sponsored high school diploma programs are delivered by institutions that are State-funded or a Service component program accredited by a regional accrediting body or recognized by a State's secondary school authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for the responsible education advisor, on behalf of the installation commander, to follow to provide voluntary education programs and services from postsecondary educational institutions.</I> (1) Contacts by an educational institution with a Service member for the purpose of asking or encouraging the member to sign up for one of the educational institution's programs (assuming the program has some cost) are considered personal commercial solicitations. The responsible education advisor will ensure educational institutions comply with DoD Instruction 1344.07, “Personal Commercial Solicitation on DoD Installations” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134407p.pdf</I>) and all requirements established by the installation commander for solicitation. Materials available through the education center that provide basic information about the educational institution or its programs or services in compliance with this MOU will not be considered personal commercial solicitation including, but not limited to, brochures, flyers, and catalogs provided by the educational institution. The responsible education advisor will ensure adequate and appropriate materials are available at no cost to the Service member and at no additional charge to the educational institution meeting the requirements as stated in the policy section of this part and in compliance with the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible education advisor will limit DoD installation access to educational institutions or their agents meeting the requirements as stated in the policy section of this part and in compliance with the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU. Agents representing education institutions in the performance of contracted services are permitted DoD installation access only in accordance with the requirements of their contract and/or agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) Educational institutions interested in providing education, guidance, training opportunities, and participating in sanctioned education fairs on a DoD installation provide their requests to the responsible education advisor, who will review and analyze these requests on behalf of the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(4) The responsible education advisor will ensure all educational institutions and its agents granted access to DoD installations to provide education, guidance, training opportunities, and participate in sanctioned education fairs to Service members:
</P>
<P>(i) Adhere to federal law, DoD Instruction 1344.07, DoD Instruction 1322.19, “Voluntary Education Programs in Overseas Areas” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/132219p.pdf;</I> and the cognizant Military Service's policies and regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with applicable DoD installation policies and procedures designated by the installation commander on such matters as fire and safety, environment, physical security, personnel background checks, vehicle inspection and registration, and any other applicable statues or regulations designated by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor educational institutions and its agents granted access to a DoD installation to ensure they do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Use unfair, deceptive, abusive or fraudulent devices, schemes, or artifices, including misleading advertising or sales literature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Engage in unfair, deceptive, or abusive marketing tactics, such as during unit briefings or assemblies; engaging in open recruiting efforts; or distributing marketing materials on the DoD installation at unapproved locations or events.
</P>
<P>(iii) Market to or recruit newly assigned military personnel to the DoD installation, unless the Service member has received information about voluntary education programs and educational services available at that DoD installation, to include TA, from their education services staff or as part of their orientation to the new DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure educational institutions granted access to DoD installations to provide programs, services, or education guidance to their students meet these criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a signed Voluntary Education Partnership MOU with DoD.
</P>
<P>(ii) Are in compliance with State authorization requirements consistent with regulations issued by ED including 34 CFR 600.9. Educational institutions must meet the requirements of the state where services will be rendered to include compliance with all state laws as they relate to distance education.
</P>
<P>(iii) Are State approved for the use of veterans' education benefits. Copies of the certification will be filed with the appropriate State approving agency for the military or veteran student.
</P>
<P>(iv) Are certified to participate in federal student aid programs through the ED under Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965. Title IV certification may be provisional so long as the educational institution maintains eligibility to participate in the Federal Direct Loan Program.
</P>
<P>(v) Are accredited by a national or regional accrediting body recognized by the ED and conduct programs only from among those offered or authorized by the main administrative and academic office in accordance with standard procedures for authorization of degree programs by the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(7) DoD installations seeking an educational institution to provide on-installation education programs, through the responsible education advisor, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Communicate the educational needs of the DoD installation to a wide variety of potential providers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Seek favorable tuition rates, student services, and instructional support from providers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide to interested providers:
</P>
<P>(A) The level of services and instruction desired, and specific degree programs being sought.
</P>
<P>(B) A demographic profile of the DoD installation population and probable volume of participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(C) Facilities and level of security at no charge to the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(D) Cost associated with equipment and supporting services provided at the discretion of the DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of this part.
</P>
<P>(F) Special requirements, such as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Format (e.g., distance, evening, or weekend classes), independent study, short seminar, or other mode of delivery of instruction.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unique scheduling problems related to the operational mission of the DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any DoD installation restrictions, limitations, or special considerations relevant to using an alternate delivery system (e.g., DL).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Available computer hardware and supporting equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Electrical, satellite, and network capabilities at the site.
</P>
<P>(8) In evaluating proposals, responsible education advisors must ensure potential providers meet, at a minimum, these criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Programs satisfy objectives defined by the most recent needs assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Programs, courses, and completion requirements are the same as those at the provider's main administrative and academic campus.
</P>
<P>(iii) The educational institution granting undergraduate academic credit must adhere to the Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges (SOC) Principles and Criteria (available at <I>http://www.soc.aascu.org/socconsortium/PublicationsSOC.html</I>) regarding the transferability of credit, the awarding of credit for military training and experience, and residency requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provider is prepared to:
</P>
<P>(A) Offer academic counseling and flexibility in accommodating special military schedules.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure main administrative and academic office approval in faculty selection, assignment, and orientation; and participation in monitoring and evaluation of programs. Adjunct or part-time faculty will possess comparable qualifications as full-time permanent faculty members.
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct on-installation or online courses that carry identical credit values, represent the same content and experience, and use the same student evaluation procedures as courses offered through the main administrative and academic campus. All substantive course change requirements must follow the schools accreditation agencies requirements. If the educational institution's accrediting agency's substantive change policy requires new courses or program offerings to be submitted to the agency for approval, the educational institution will be required to submit such items for approval before admitting Service members using military TA.
</P>
<P>(D) Maintain the same admission and graduation standards that exist for the same programs at the main administrative and academic office, and include credits from courses taken at a branch or auxiliary campus of the same educational institution in establishing academic residency to meet degree requirements.
</P>
<P>(E) Provide library and other reference and research resources, in either print or electronic format, that are appropriate and necessary to support course offerings.
</P>
<P>(F) Establish procedures to maintain regular communication among central institutional academic leadership and administrators, and off-campus representatives and faculty. Any educational institution's proposal must specify these procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Provide students with regular and accessible academic and financial counseling services either electronically or in-person. At a minimum, this includes Title IV and VA education benefits.
</P>
<P>(H) Charge tuition that is not more than tuition charged to nonmilitary students.
</P>
<P>(I) Have established policies for awarding credit for military training by examinations, experiential learning, and courses completed using modes of delivery other than instructor-delivered, on-site classroom instruction.
</P>
<P>(J) Conduct programs only from among those offered or authorized by the main administrative and academic office in accordance with standard procedures for authorization of degree programs by the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements and procedures for educational institutions seeking access to the DoD installation solely to provide academic counseling or student support services to students.</I> (1) Educational institutions must meet the criteria in paragraphs (c)(6)(i) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational institutions must request access through the responsible education advisor via a written proposal. If a request is received from an educational institution seeking access to a joint DoD installation, the responsible education advisor from the education center will determine the appropriate Military Service to work the request. The request should include as a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Educational institution name and intent or purpose of the visit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Number and names of educational institution representatives that will be available.
</P>
<P>(iii) Counseling delivery method: By appointment or walk-in.
</P>
<P>(iv) Communication process used to inform students of their availability for counseling.
</P>
<P>(3) The responsible education advisor will review and analyze the request on behalf of the installation commander. The installation commander has the final authority to approve, deny, suspend, or withdraw DoD installation access permission from an educational institution, as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) If a request is received from an educational institution seeking access to a DoD installation, the responsible education advisor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Fully consider requests from those educational institutions complying with requirements as stated in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section and be consistent in treatment of educational institutions in accordance with this part. Also, consider the value to the Service member as it relates to geographic location, accessibility and mission tempo.
</P>
<P>(ii) If request is denied, provide a timely response to the educational institution and inform the educational institution they may reapply for access once reasons for denial are addressed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain copies of all correspondence in accordance with the DoD installation records management schedule and disposition, with a minimum time requirement of 2 years.
</P>
<P>(5) If a DoD installation grants access to an educational institution to provide guidance to their students, the educational institution and its agents will:
</P>
<P>(i) Only advise or counsel students at the education center or at a location approved by the responsible education advisor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain a record of students counseled and provide a copy to the education office. The record will annotate the type of program and the status of the Service member (current or reenrollment).
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with applicable DoD installation policies and procedures designated by the installation commander on such matters as fire and safety, environment, physical security, personnel background checks, vehicle inspection and registration, and any other applicable statues or regulations designated by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Interservice Voluntary Education Board.</I> Under the direction of the Voluntary Education Chief, the Interservice Voluntary Education Board is composed of full-time or permanent part-time employees of DoD or military members, and consists of one representative responsible for policy from the Office of the ASD(RA), and the senior voluntary education advisor responsible for policy each from the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. The Director, DANTES, will serve as an ex-officio member. Meeting quarterly, the Board will:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a forum for the exchange of information and discussion of issues related to voluntary education programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop recommendations for changes in policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop recommendations for DANTES' activities and operations that support voluntary education programs.
</P>
<P>(4) Review and prioritize DANTES activities that support DoD voluntary education programs, to include budget execution and recommend execution year adjustments.
</P>
<P>(5) Develop recommended policy and program guidance for DANTES for the Future-Year Defense Program.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DANTES.</I> (1) Guidance and recommendations for DANTES will be developed with the advice of the Interservice Voluntary Education Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The selection and rating of the Director, DANTES will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The DASD(MCFP) will convene and chair the search committee responsible for replacing the Director, DANTES, when the position is vacated. At the request of the USD(P&amp;R), the Secretaries of the Military Departments will provide a senior manager to sit on the search committee. The committee will recommend the best qualified candidate to the DoD EA for DANTES, for possible appointment as the Director, DANTES.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD EA for DANTES will designate the rater of the Director, DANTES. The Director, State Liaison and Educational Opportunity within the Office of the USD(P&amp;R), MCFP, will provide input to the DoD EA designated rater concerning the performance of the Director, DANTES.
</P>
<P>(3) DANTES will:
</P>
<P>(i) Support the Service voluntary education programs by executing the program outlined in this part and the annual USD(P&amp;R) supplemental guidance for those items not reflected in this paragraph of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide execution information to the Interservice Voluntary Education Board quarterly and provide information required to assist with the program objective memorandum development as requested by the Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Support DoD off-duty, voluntary education programs and conduct special projects and developmental activities in support of education-related DoD functions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Assist the Military Services in providing high-quality and valuable educational opportunities for Service members, their eligible adult family members, and DoD personnel, and assist personnel in achieving professional and personal educational objectives. This role includes the consolidated management of programs that prevent duplication of effort among the Services. Through its activities, DANTES supports DoD recruitment, retention, and the transition efforts.
</P>
<P>(v) Assume responsibilities and functions that include:
</P>
<P>(A) Managing and facilitating the delivery of a wide variety of examinations including the General Equivalency Diploma test, college admissions, and credit-by-examination programs.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon request, issuing transcripts for the United States Armed Forces Institute and the examination and certification programs.
</P>
<P>(C) Managing the contract through which former DoD Dependents Schools students can obtain copies of archived transcripts.
</P>
<P>(D) Managing the contract and functions related to the evaluation of educational experiences in the Military Services that are covered by the contract.
</P>
<P>(E) Providing or developing and distributing educational materials, reference books, counseling publications, educational software, and key educational resource information to Defense Agencies and DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(F) Managing the SOC program contract and related functions.
</P>
<P>(G) Managing the DoD contract that provides for periodic third-party reviews of DoD voluntary education programs titled the Third Party Education Assessment.
</P>
<P>(H) Managing the contract and data received on the voluntary education programs for the VEMIS, which includes gathering, collating, and verifying participation and cost data from the Services. Providing requisite consolidated reports to USD(P&amp;R). Requested data from the Military Services on voluntary education programs is located and stored at <I>https://afaems.langley.af.mil/vemis.</I> A user guide containing voluntary education program data and report information for the Military Services and DANTES is also available at this Web site, under the “Resources” tab.
</P>
<P>(I) Managing the DoD independent study catalog and its support systems, as required.
</P>
<P>(J) Negotiating, administering, and coordinating contracts for DoD Worldwide Education Symposiums in support of and in conjunction with the Interservice Voluntary Education Board.
</P>
<P>(K) Establishing, refining, updating, and maintaining information on worldwide education support of DoD off-duty, voluntary education programs on the Internet. Maintaining necessary infrastructure to ensure that information on the Internet is always current and available to leadership, agency personnel, the public, and others.
</P>
<P>(L) Administering the TTT program in accordance with section 1154 of chapter 58 of 10 U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(M) Monitoring new technological developments, providing reports, cost analyses, and recommendations on educational innovations, and conducting special projects requested by the Department of Defense and the Services, approved by the Interservice Voluntary Education Board, and as reflected and approved in DANTES' annual policy guidance.
</P>
<P>(N) Conducting staff development training on DANTES' policies, procedures, and practices related to voluntary education testing programs, and providing additional training as requested by the Office of the Secretary of Defense and the Services.
</P>
<P>(O) Serving as the Defense Media Activity's point of contact for information on DANTES programs for military personnel.
</P>
<P>(P) Providing support, as requested, to DoD and Service Quality of Life and Transition support programs.
</P>
<P>(Q) Providing other support in mission areas as directed by the USD(P&amp;R) and the DASD(MCFP).
</P>
<P>(R) Managing DoD contingency Tri-Service contracts, which provide educational opportunities for deployed Service members with guidance and oversight from the DoD Voluntary Education Chief.
</P>
<P>(S) Monitoring and maintaining liaison with the office responsible for consolidating and distributing the JST for the Services.
</P>
<P>(vi) Maintain liaison with education services officials of the Military Services, and appropriate Federal and State agencies and educational associations, in matters related to the DANTES mission and assigned functions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Serve on panels and working groups designated by the DASD(MCFP).
</P>
<P>(viii) Serve as the Executive Secretary at the Interservice Voluntary Education Board meeting convened annually to review DANTES programs and to develop recommendations for inclusion in annual policy guidance for DANTES. In this role, the Director, DANTES, will coordinate the meeting, prepare the agenda, review and analyze DANTES programs and initiatives outlined in the prior year's operational plan, and provide minutes after the meeting.
</P>
<P>(ix) Assist the Services in screening candidates for the DANTES Senior Enlisted Advisor and DANTES RC Advisor positions.
</P>
<P>(x) Maintain the repository for the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU between USD(P&amp;R) and partner educational institutions, to include Service-specific addendums (see the Appendix to this section for the template of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU). DANTES will:
</P>
<P>(A) Administer and update the system that is the repository of the MOUs per guidance from USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(B) Create, track, and maintain a centrally managed database for all signed documents.
</P>
<P>(C) Publish an Internet-based list of all educational institutions that have a signed DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU.
</P>
<P>(D) Generate reports in accordance with guidance from the USD(P&amp;R) and procedures in DTM 12-004, “DoD Internal Information Collections” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/DTM-12-004.pdf</I>) and DoD 8910-1-M, “Department of Defense Procedures for Management of Information Requirements” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/891001m.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(x) Provide data analyses and generate reports required by DoD and the Interservice Voluntary Education Board as needed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 27737, May 15, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 27976, May 25, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.7.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 68—DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) Between DoD Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) and [Name of Educational Institution]
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Preamble.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Providing access to quality postsecondary education opportunities is a strategic investment that enhances the U.S. Service member's ability to support mission accomplishment and successfully return to civilian life. A forward-leaning, lifelong learning environment is fundamental to the maintenance of a mentally powerful and adaptive leadership-ready force. Today's fast-paced and highly mobile environment, where frequent deployments and mobilizations are required to support the Nation's policies and objectives, requires DoD to sponsor postsecondary educational programs using a variety of learning modalities that include instructor-led courses offered both on- and off-installation, as well as distance learning options. All are designed to support the professional and personal development and progress of the Service members and our DoD civilian workforce.
</P>
<P>b. Making these postsecondary programs available to the military community as a whole further provides Service members, their eligible adult family members, DoD civilian employees, and military retirees ways to advance their personal education and career aspirations and prepares them for future vocational pursuits, both inside and outside of DoD. This helps strengthen the Nation by producing a well-educated citizenry and ensures the availability of a significant quality-of-life asset that enhances recruitment and retention efforts in an all-volunteer force.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purpose.</I>
</P>
<P>a. This MOU articulates the commitment and agreement educational institutions provide to DoD by accepting funds via each Service's tuition assistance (TA) program in exchange for education services.
</P>
<P>b. This MOU is not an obligation of funds, guarantee of program enrollments by DoD personnel, their eligible adult family members, DoD civilian employees, or retirees in an educational institution's academic programs, or a guarantee for DoD installation access.
</P>
<P>c. This MOU covers courses delivered by educational institutions through all modalities. These include, but are not limited to, classroom instruction, distance education (<I>i.e.</I>, web-based, CD-ROM, or multimedia) and correspondence courses.
</P>
<P>d. This MOU includes high school programs, academic skills programs, and adult education programs for military personnel and their eligible adult family members.
</P>
<P>e. This MOU articulates regulatory and governing directives and instructions:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility of DoD recipients is governed by Federal law, DoD Instruction 1322.25, DoD Directive 1322.08E, and the cognizant Military Service's policies, regulations, and fiscal constraints.
</P>
<P>(2) Postsecondary educational programs provided to Service members using TA on DoD installations outside of the United States, will be operated in accordance with guidance from DoD Instruction 1322.25, DoD Instruction 1322.19, section 1212 of Public Law 99-145, as amended by section 518 of Public Law 101-189; and under the terms of the Tri-Services contract currently in effect.
</P>
<P>f. This MOU is subject at all times to Federal law and the rules, guidelines, and regulations of DoD. Any conflicts between this MOU and such Federal law, rules, guidelines, and regulations will be resolved in favor of the Federal law, rules, guidelines, or regulations.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Educational Institution (Including Certificate and Degree Granting Educational Institutions) Requirements for TA.</I> Educational institutions must:
</P>
<P>a. Sign and adhere to requirements of this MOU, including Service-specific addendums as appropriate, prior to being eligible to receive TA payments.
</P>
<P>(1) Those educational institutions that have a current Voluntary Education Partnership MOU with DoD will sign this MOU:
</P>
<P>(a) At the expiration of their current MOU (renewal);
</P>
<P>(b) At the request of DoD or the specific Military Service holding a separate current MOU. The DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU (which includes the Service-specific addendums) is required for an educational institution to participate in the DoD TA Program. An “installation MOU” (which is separate from this MOU) is only required if an educational institution is operating on a DoD installation. The installation MOU:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Contains the installation-unique requirements that the responsible education advisor coordinated, documented, and retained; is approved by the appropriate Service voluntary education representative; and is presented to the installation commander for final approval.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Cannot conflict with the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU and governing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational institutions must comply with this MOU and the requirements in Service-specific addendums that do not conflict with governing Federal law and rules, guidelines, and regulations, which include, but are not limited to, Title 10 of the U.S. Code; DoD Directive 1322.08E, “Voluntary Education Programs for Military Personnel”; DoD Instruction 1322.25, “Voluntary Education Programs”; DoD Instruction 1322.19, “Voluntary Education Programs in Overseas Areas”; and all DoD installation requirements imposed by the installation commander, if the educational institution has been approved to operate on a particular base. Educational institutions failing to comply with the requirements set forth in this MOU may receive a letter of warning, be denied the opportunity to establish new programs, have their MOU terminated, be removed from the DoD installation, and may have the approval of the issuance of TA withdrawn by the Service concerned.
</P>
<P>b. Be accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by ED, approved for VA funding, and certified to participate in Federal student aid programs through ED under Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965.
</P>
<P>c. Comply with the regulatory guidance provided by DoD and the Services.
</P>
<P>d. Comply with state authorization requirements consistent with regulations issued by ED, including 34 CFR 600.9. Educational institutions must meet all State laws as they relate to distance education as required.
</P>
<P>e. Participate in the Third Party Education Assessment process when requested. This requirement applies not only to educational institutions providing courses on DoD installations, but also to those educational institutions that provide postsecondary instruction located off the DoD installation or via DL. Educational institutions may be selected for Third Party Education Assessment based on provider offerings (on-installation, off-installation, or DL), education benefits received (large provider in terms of enrollments or TA funds), or an observed promising practice. Educational institutions may also be selected as a result of reports of non-compliance with the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU, complaint(s) received, or negative information received from other government agencies and regulators. Educational institutions demonstrating an unwillingness to resolve findings may receive a range of penalties from a written warning to revocation of the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU and removal from participation in the DoD TA Program. As appropriate, Third Party Education Assessment findings will be shared with other government agencies/regulators including but not limited to CFPB, VA, ED, DOJ, and FTC.
</P>
<P>(1) If an educational institution is operating on the DoD installation, the educational institution will resolve the assessment report findings and provide corrective actions taken within 6 months of the Third Party Education Assessment to the responsible education advisor on the DoD installation, the appropriate Service Voluntary Education Chief, and the DoD Voluntary Education Chief.
</P>
<P>(2) If an educational institution is operating off the DoD installation or via DL, the educational institution will resolve the assessment report findings and provide corrective actions taken within 6 months of the Third Party Education Assessment to the DoD Voluntary Education Chief.
</P>
<P>(3) In instances when the resolution action cannot be completed within the 6 month timeframe, the educational institution will submit a status report every 3 months to the responsible education advisor on the DoD installation if the educational institution is operating on the DoD installation, and the DoD Voluntary Education Chief, until the recommendation is resolved.
</P>
<P>f. Before enrolling a Service member, provide each prospective military student with specific information to locate, explain, and properly use the following ED and CFPB tools:
</P>
<P>(1) The College Scorecard which is a consumer planning tool and resource to assist prospective students and their families as they evaluate options in selecting a school and is located at: <I>http://collegecost.ed.gov/scorecard/.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The College Navigator which is a consumer tool that provides school information to include tuition and fees, retention and graduation rates, use of financial aid, student loan default rates and features a cost calculator and school comparison tool. The College Navigator is located at: <I>http://nces.ed.gov/collegenavigator/.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The Financial Aid Shopping Sheet which is a model aid award letter designed to simplify the information that prospective students receive about costs and financial aid so they can easily compare institutions and make informed decisions about where to attend school. The shopping sheet can be accessed at: <I>http://www2.ed.gov/policy/highered/guid/aid-offer/index.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) The 'Paying for College' Web page which can be used by prospective students to enter the names of up to three schools and receive detailed financial information on each one and to enter actual financial aid award information. The tool can be accessed at: <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov/paying-for-college/.</I>
</P>
<P>g. Designate a point of contact or office for academic and financial advising, including access to disability counseling, to assist Service members with completion of studies and with job search activities.
</P>
<P>(1) The designated person or office will serve as a point of contact for Service members seeking information about available, appropriate academic counseling, financial aid counseling, and student support services at the educational institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The point of contact will have a basic understanding of the military tuition assistance program, ED Title IV funding, education benefits offered by the VA, and familiarity with institutional services available to assist Service members.
</P>
<P>(3) The point of contact does not need to be exclusively dedicated to providing these services and, as appropriate, may refer the Service member to other individuals with an ability to provide these services, both on- and off-campus.
</P>
<P>h. Before offering, recommending, arranging, signing-up, dispersing, or enrolling Service members for private student loans, provide Service members access to an institutional financial aid advisor who will make available appropriate loan counseling, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing a clear and complete explanation of available financial aid, including Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) Describing the differences between private and federal student loans to include terms, conditions, repayment and forgiveness options.
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosing the educational institution's student loan Cohort Default Rate (CDR), the percentage of its students who borrow, and how its CDR compares to the national average. If the educational institution's CDR is greater than the national average CDR, it must disclose that information and provide the student with loan repayment data.
</P>
<P>(4) Explaining that students have the ability to refuse all or borrow less than the maximum student loan amount allowed.
</P>
<P>i. Have a readmissions policy for Service members that:
</P>
<P>(1) Allows Service members and reservists to be readmitted to a program if they are temporarily unable to attend class or have to suspend their studies due to service requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Follows the regulation released by ED (34 CFR 668.18) regarding readmissions requirements for returning Service members seeking readmission to a program that was interrupted due to a Military service obligation, and apply those provisions to Service members that are temporarily unable to attend classes for less than 30 days within a semester or similar enrollment period due to a Military service obligation when such absence results in a withdrawal under institution policies. A description of the provisions for U.S. Armed Forces members and their families is provided in Chapter 3 of Volume 2 of the Federal Student Aid Handbook.
</P>
<P>j. Have policies in place compliant with program integrity requirements consistent with the regulations issued by ED (34 CFR 668.71-668.75 and 668.14) related to restrictions on misrepresentation, recruitment, and payment of incentive compensation. This applies to the educational institution itself and its agents including third party lead generators, marketing firms, or companies that own or operate the educational institution. As part of efforts to eliminate unfair, deceptive, and abusive marketing aimed at Service members, educational institutions will:
</P>
<P>(1) Ban inducements including any gratuity, favor, discount, entertainment, hospitality, loan, transportation, lodging, meals, or other item having a monetary value of more than a de minimis amount to any individual, entity, or its agents including third party lead generators or marketing firms other than salaries paid to employees or fees paid to contractors in conformity with all applicable laws for the purpose of securing enrollments of Service members or obtaining access to TA funds. Educational institution sponsored scholarships or grants and tuition reductions available to military students are permissible.
</P>
<P>(2) Refrain from providing any commission, bonus, or other incentive payment based directly or indirectly on securing enrollments or federal financial aid (including TA funds) to any persons or entities engaged in any student recruiting, admission activities, or making decisions regarding the award of student financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Refrain from high-pressure recruitment tactics such as making multiple unsolicited contacts (3 or more), including contacts by phone, email, or in-person, and engaging in same-day recruitment and registration for the purpose of securing Service member enrollments.
</P>
<P>k. Refrain from automatic program renewals, bundling courses or enrollments. The student and Military Service must approve each course enrollment before the start date of the class.
</P>
<P>l. The educational institution will obtain the approval of their accrediting agency for any new course or program offering, provided such approval is required under the substantive change requirements of the accrediting agency. Approval must be obtained before the enrollment of a Service member into the new course or program offering.
</P>
<P>m. If the educational institution is a member of the Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges (SOC), in addition to the requirements stated in paragraphs 3.a through 3.l of this MOU, the educational institution will:
</P>
<P>(1) Adhere to the SOC Principles, Criteria, and Military Student Bill of Rights. (located at <I>http://www.soc.aascu.org/socconsortium/PublicationsSOC.html</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Provide processes to determine credit awards and learning acquired for specialized military training and occupational experience when applicable to a Service member's degree program.
</P>
<P>(3) Recognize and use the ACE Guide to the Evaluation of Educational Experiences in the Armed Services to determine the value of learning acquired in military service. Award credit for appropriate learning acquired in military service at levels consistent with ACE Guide recommendations and/or those transcripted by CCAF, when applicable to a Service member's program.
</P>
<P>n. If an educational institution is not a member of SOC, in addition to the requirements stated in paragraphs 3.a. through 3.l. of this MOU, the educational institution will:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose its transfer credit policies and articulated credit transfer agreements before a Service member's enrollment. Disclosure will explain acceptance of credits in transfer is determined by the educational institution to which the student wishes to transfer and refrain from making unsubstantiated representations to students about acceptance of credits in transfer by another institution.
</P>
<P>(a) If the educational institution accepts transfer credit from other accredited institutions, then the educational institution agrees to evaluate these credits in conformity with the principles set forth in the Joint Statement on the Transfer and Award of Credit developed by members of the American Association of Collegiate Registrars and Admissions Officers, the American Council on Education, and the Council for Higher Education Accreditation. The educational institution will then award appropriate credit, to the extent practicable within the framework of its institutional mission and academic policies.
</P>
<P>(b) Decisions about the amount of transfer credit accepted, and how it will be applied to the student's program, will be left to the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose its policies on how they award academic credit for prior learning experiences, including military training and experiential learning opportunities provided by the Military Services, at or before a Service member's enrollment.
</P>
<P>(a) In so far as the educational institution's policies generally permit the award of credit for comparable prior learning experiences, the educational institution agrees to evaluate the learning experiences documented on the Service member's official Service transcripts, and, if appropriate, award credit.
</P>
<P>(b) The JST is an official education transcripts tool for documenting the recommended college credits for professional military education, training courses, and occupational experiences of Service members across the Services. The JST incorporates data from documents such as the Army/ACE Registry Transcript System, the Sailor/Marine ACE Registry Transcript System, the Community College of the Air Force transcript, and the Coast Guard Institute transcript.
</P>
<P>(c) Decisions about the amount of experiential learning credit awarded, and how it will be applied to the student's program, will be left to the educational institution. Once an educational institution has evaluated a particular military training or experiential learning opportunity for a given program, the educational institution may rely on its prior evaluation to make future decisions about awarding credit to Service members with the same military training and experience documentation, provided that the course content has not changed.
</P>
<P>(3) If general policy permits, award transfer credit or credit for prior learning to:
</P>
<P>(a) Replace a required course within the major;
</P>
<P>(b) Apply as an optional course within the major;
</P>
<P>(c) Apply as a general elective;
</P>
<P>(d) Apply as a basic degree requirement; or
</P>
<P>(e) Waive a prerequisite.
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose to Service members any academic residency requirements pertaining to the student's program of study, including total and any final year or final semester residency requirement at or before the time the student enrolls in the program.
</P>
<P>(5) Disclose basic information about the educational institution's programs and costs, including tuition and other charges to the Service member. This information will be made readily accessible without requiring the Service member to disclose any personal or contact information.
</P>
<P>(6) Before enrollment, provide Service members with information on institutional “drop/add,” withdrawal, and readmission policies and procedures to include information on the potential impact of military duties (such as unanticipated deployments or mobilization, activation, and temporary duty assignments) on the student's academic standing and financial responsibilities. For example, a Service member's military duties may require relocation to an area where he or she is unable to maintain consistent computer connectivity with the educational institution, which could have implications for the Service member's enrollment status. This information will also include an explanation of the educational institution's grievance policy and process.
</P>
<P>(7) Conduct academic screening and competency testing; make course placement based on student readiness.
</P>
<P>4. <I>TA Program Requirements for Educational Institutions.</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>One Single Tuition Rate.</I> All Service members attending the same educational institution, at the same location, enrolled in the same course, will be charged the same tuition rate without regard to their Service component. This single tuition rate includes active duty Service members and the National Guard and Reservists who are activated under Title 10 and using Title 10 Military Tuition Assistance, in order to assure that tuition rate distinctions are not made based on the Service members' branches of Service.
</P>
<P>(1) It is understood tuition rates may vary by mode of delivery (traditional or online), at the differing degree levels and programs, and residency designations (in-state or out-of-state). Tuition rates may also vary based on full-time or part-time status, daytime vs. evening classes, or matriculation date, such as in the case of a guaranteed tuition program.
</P>
<P>(2) It is also understood that some States have mandated State rates for Guard and Reservists within the State. (Those Guard and Reservists not activated on Title 10, U.S. Code orders).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Course Enrollment Information.</I> The educational institutions will provide course enrollment, course withdrawal, course cancellation, course completion or failure, grade, verification of degree completion, and billing information to the TA issuing Service's education office, as outlined in the Service's regulations and instructions.
</P>
<P>(1) Under section 1232g of title 20, United States Code (also known as “The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act” and hereinafter referred to as “FERPA”), DoD recognizes that educational institutions are required to obtain consent before sharing personally identifiable non-directory information with a third party. Service members must authorize the educational institutions to release and forward course enrollment information required in 4.b. to DoD prior to approval of course enrollment using tuition assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) If an educational institution wants to ensure confidentiality during the transmission of data to the third party, then the educational institution can contact the appropriate Service TA management point of contact to discuss security and confidentiality concerns prior to transmitting information.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Degree Requirements and Evaluated Educational Plans.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Educational institutions will disclose general degree requirements for the Service member's educational program (evaluated educational plan) to the member and his or her Service before the enrollment of the Service member at the educational institution. These requirements, typically articulated in the educational institution's course catalog, should:
</P>
<P>(a) Include the total number of credits needed for graduation.
</P>
<P>(b) Divide the coursework students must complete in accordance with institutional academic policies into general education, required, and elective courses.
</P>
<P>(c) Articulate any additional departmental or graduate academic requirements, such as satisfying institutional and major field grade point average requirements, a passing grade in any comprehensive exams, or completion of a thesis or dissertation.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to providing degree requirements, the educational institution will provide to Service members who have previous coursework from other accredited institutions and relevant military training and experiential learning an evaluated educational plan that indicates how many, if any, transfer credits it intends to award and how these will be applied toward the Service member's educational program. The evaluated educational plan will be provided within 60 days after admission to the educational institution in which the individual has selected a degree program and all required official transcripts have been received.
</P>
<P>(3) When a Service member changes his or her educational goal or major at the attending school and the Services' education advisor approves the change, then the educational institution will provide a new evaluated educational plan to the Service member and the Service within 60 days. Only courses listed in the Service member's evaluated educational plan will be approved for TA.
</P>
<P>(4) Degree requirements in effect at the time of each Service member's enrollment will remain in effect for a period of at least 1 year beyond the program's standard length, provided the Service member is in good academic standing and has been continuously enrolled or received an approved academic leave of absence. Adjustments to degree requirements may be made as a result of formal changes to academic policy pursuant to institutional or departmental determination, provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) They go into effect at least 2 years after affected students have been notified; or
</P>
<P>(b) In instances when courses or programs are no longer available or changes have been mandated by a State or accrediting body, the educational institution will identify low or no cost solutions, working with affected Service members to identify substitutions that would not hinder the student from graduating in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(5) Degree requirements and evaluated educational plans will meet educational requirements for credentialing in stated career field and graduates of a program will be eligible for relevant professional license or certification. Educational institutions will disclose any conditions (state or agency limitations) or additional requirements (training, experience, or exams) required to obtain relevant credentials.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Approved and TA Eligible Courses.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approved Courses.</I> If an eligible Service member decides to use TA, educational institutions will enroll him or her only after the TA is approved by the individual's Service. Service members will be solely responsible for all tuition costs without this prior approval. This requirement does not prohibit an educational institution from pre-registering a Service member in a course in order to secure a slot in the course. If a school enrolls the Service member before the appropriate Service approves Military TA, then the Service member could be responsible for the tuition. All Military TA must be requested and approved prior to the start date of the course. The Military TA is approved on a course-by-course basis and only for the specific course(s) and class dates that a Service member requests. If a military student “self-identifies” their eligibility and the Service has not approved the funding, then the Service member will be solely responsible for all tuition costs, not the Service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TA Eligible Courses.</I> Courses will be considered eligible for TA if they are:
</P>
<P>(a) Part of an individual's evaluated educational plan; or
</P>
<P>(b) Prerequisites for courses within the individual's evaluated educational plan; or
</P>
<P>(c) Required for acceptance into a higher-level degree program, unless otherwise specified by Service regulations.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Use of Financial Aid with TA.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) “Top-Up” eligible active duty DoD personnel may use their Montgomery or Post-9/11 G.I. Bill benefit in conjunction with TA funds from their Service to cover those course costs to the Service member that exceed the amount of TA paid by his or her Service. RC members who qualify for Montgomery G.I. Bill benefits may use those benefits concurrently with TA. RC members who have earned entitlement for the Post-9/11 G.I. Bill can use both VA education benefits and TA, but VA will only pay for the portion of tuition not covered by TA; therefore, the combination of VA education benefits and TA will not exceed 100 percent of the actual costs of tuition.
</P>
<P>(2) DoD personnel are entitled to consideration for all forms of financial aid that educational institutions make available to students at their home campus. Educational institution financial aid officers will provide information and application processes for Title IV student aid programs, scholarships, fellowships, grants, loans, etc., to DoD TA recipients.
</P>
<P>(3) Service members identified as eligible DoD TA recipients, who qualify for Pell Grants through ED's student aid program, will have their TA benefits applied to their educational institution's account prior to the application of their Pell Grant funds to their account. Unlike TA funds, which are tuition-restricted, Pell Grant funds are not tuition-restricted and may be applied to other allowable charges on the account.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Administration of Tuition.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The Services will provide TA in accordance with DoD- and Service-appropriate regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational institutions will comply with these requirements for the return of TA funds:
</P>
<P>(a) Return any TA Program funds directly to the Military Service, not to the Service member.
</P>
<P>(b) Up to the start date, return all (100 percent) TA funds to the appropriate Military Service when the Service member does not:
</P>
<P>(i) begin attendance at the institution or
</P>
<P>(ii) start a course, regardless of whether the student starts other courses
</P>
<P>(c) Return any TA funds paid for a course that is cancelled by the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(d) Have an institutional policy that returns any unearned TA funds on a proportional basis through at least the 60 percent portion of the period for which the funds were provided. TA funds are earned proportionally during an enrollment period, with unearned funds returned based upon when a student stops attending. In instances when a Service member stops attending due to a military service obligation, the educational institution will work with the affected Service member to identify solutions that will not result in a student debt for the returned portion.
</P>
<P>(3) Tuition charged to a Service member will in no case exceed the rate charged to nonmilitary students, unless agreed upon in writing by both the educational institution and the Service.
</P>
<P>(4) Educational institutions will provide their tuition charges for each degree program to the Services on an annual basis. Any changes in the tuition charges will be provided to and explained to all the Services, as soon as possible, but not fewer than 90 days prior to implementation.
</P>
<P>(a) Tuition charges at many public institutions are established by entities over which they have no jurisdiction, such as State legislatures and boards. As such, in some instances tuition decisions will not be made within the 90-day requirement window.
</P>
<P>(b) When this happens, the educational institution will request a waiver (via the DoD MOU Web page) and provide the Services with the new tuition charges. To the extent practicable by State law or regulation, Service members already enrolled will not be impacted by changes in tuition charges.
</P>
<P>(5) TA invoicing information is located in the Service-specific addendums attached to this MOU.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Course Cancellations.</I> Educational institutions are responsible for notifying Service members of class cancellations for both classroom and DL courses.
</P>
<P>h. <I>Materials and Electronic Accessibility.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Educational institutions will ensure that course materials are readily available, either electronically or in print medium, and provide information about where the student may obtain class materials at the time of enrollment or registration.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational institution representatives will refrain from encouraging or requiring students to purchase course materials prior to confirmation of sufficient enrollments to conduct the class. Students will be encouraged to verify course acceptance by CCAF (Air Force only) or other program(s), with the responsible education advisor before enrolling or requesting TA.
</P>
<P>(3) Educational institutions will provide, where available, electronic access to their main administrative and academic center's library materials, professional services, relevant periodicals, books, and other academic reference and research resources in print or online format that are appropriate or necessary to support the courses offered. Additionally, educational institutions will ensure adequate print and non-print media resources to support all courses being offered are available at base or installation library facilities, on-site Institution resource areas, or via electronic transmission.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Graduation Achievement Recognition.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The educational institution will issue, at no cost to the Government, documentation as proof of completion, such as a diploma or certificate, to each student who completes the respective program requirements and meets all financial obligations.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with Service requirements, the educational institution will report to the Service concerned those TA recipients who have completed a certificate, diploma, or degree program. Reporting will occur at least annually and include the degree level, major, and program requirements completion date.
</P>
<P>(3) The academic credentials for certificate, diploma, or degree completion will reflect the degree-granting educational institution and campus authorized to confer the degree.
</P>
<P>(a) If the Service member attends a branch of a large, multi-branch university system, the diploma may indicate the credential of the specific campus or branch of the educational institution from which the student received his or her degree.
</P>
<P>(b) Credentials will be awarded to Service members with the same institutional designation as non-Service members who completed the same course work for a degree from the same institution.
</P>
<P>(4) The educational institution will provide students with the opportunity to participate in a graduation ceremony.
</P>
<P>j. <I>Reporting Requirements and Performance Metrics.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The educational institution will provide reports via electronic delivery on all DoD TA recipients for programs and courses offered to personnel as required by the cognizant Service. This includes, but is not limited to, TA transactions, final course grades to include incompletes and withdrawals, degrees awarded, certificates earned, evaluated educational plans, courses offered, and military graduation. Educational institutions providing face-to-face courses on a DoD installation will provide a class roster to the responsible education advisor. The class roster will include information such as the name of the instructor, the first and last name of each student (military and non-military), the course title, the class meeting day(s), the start and ending time of the class, and the class location (e.g., building and room number).
</P>
<P>(a) All reporting and transmitting of this information will be done in conformity with all applicable privacy laws, including FERPA.
</P>
<P>(b) Educational institutions will respond to these requests in a timely fashion, which will vary based on the specific nature and scope of the information requested.
</P>
<P>(2) The cognizant Service may evaluate the educational institution's overall effectiveness in administering its academic program, courses, and customer satisfaction to DoD. A written report of the findings will be provided to the educational institution. The educational institution will have 90 calendar days to review the report, investigate if required, and provide a written response to the findings.
</P>
<P>(3) The Services may request reports from an educational institution at any time, but not later than 2 years after termination of the MOU with such educational institution. Responses to all requests for reports will be provided within a reasonable period of time, and generally within 14 calendar days. Institutional response time will depend on the specific information sought by the Services in the report.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Requirements and Responsibilities for the Delivery of On-Installation Voluntary Education Programs and Services</I>
</P>
<P>a. The requirements in this section pertain to educational institutions operating on a DoD installation.
</P>
<P>An installation MOU:
</P>
<P>(1) Is required if an educational institution is operating on a DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Contains only the installation-unique requirements coordinated by the responsible education advisor, with concurrence from the appropriate Service voluntary education representative, and approved by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(3) Cannot conflict with the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU and governing regulations.
</P>
<P>b. Educational institutions will:
</P>
<P>(1) Agree to have a separate installation MOU if they have a Service agreement to provide on-installation courses or degree programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the installation-unique requirements in the installation MOU.
</P>
<P>(3) Agree to coordinate degree programs offered on the DoD installation with the responsible education advisor, who will receive approval from the installation commander, prior to the opening of classes for registration.
</P>
<P>(4) Admit candidates to the educational institution's on-installation programs at their discretion; however, priority for registration in DoD installation classes will be given in the following order:
</P>
<P>(a) Service members.
</P>
<P>(b) Federally funded DoD civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(c) Eligible adult family members of Service members and DoD civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(d) Military retirees.
</P>
<P>(e) Non-DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the responsible education advisor, as appropriate, a tentative annual schedule of course offerings to ensure that the educational needs of the military population on the DoD installation are met and to ensure no course or scheduling conflicts with other on-installation programs.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide instructors for their DoD installation courses who meet the criteria established by the educational institution to qualify for employment as a faculty member on the main administrative and academic center.
</P>
<P>(7) Inform the responsible education advisor about cancellations for classroom-based classes on DoD installations per the guidelines set forth in the separate installation MOU.
</P>
<P>c. The Services' designated installation representative (usually the responsible education advisor), will be responsible for determining the local voluntary education program needs for the serviced military population and for selecting the off-duty educational programs to be provided on the DoD installation, in accordance with the Services' policies. The Service, in conjunction with the educational institution, will provide support services essential to operating effective educational programs. All services provided will be commensurate with the availability of resources (personnel, funds, and equipment). This support includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Classroom and office space, as available. The Service will determine the adequacy of provided space.
</P>
<P>(2) Repairs as required to maintain office and classroom space in “good condition” as determined by the Service, and utility services for the offices and classrooms of the educational institution located on the DoD installation (e.g., electricity, water, and heat).
</P>
<P>(3) Standard office and classroom furnishings within available resources. No specialized equipment will be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) Janitorial services in accordance with DoD installation facility management policies and contracts.
</P>
<P>d. The Service reserves the right to disapprove DoD installation access to any employee or agent of the educational institution employed to carry out any part of this MOU.
</P>
<P>e. Operation of a privately owned vehicle by educational institution employees on the DoD installation will be governed by the DoD installation's policies.
</P>
<P>f. The responsible education advisor will check with his or her Service's responsible office for voluntary education before allowing an educational institution to enter into an MOU with the DoD installation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Review, Modifications, Signatures, Effective Date, Expiration Date, and Cancellation Provision.</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>Review.</I> The signatories (or their successors) will review this MOU periodically in coordination with the Services, but no less than every 5 years to consider items such as current accreditation status, updated program offerings, and program delivery services.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Modifications.</I> Modifications to this MOU will be in writing and, except for those required due to a change in State or Federal law, will be subject to approval by both of the signatories below, or their successors.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Signatures.</I> The authorized signatory for DoD will be designated by the USD(P&amp;R). The authorized signatory for the educational institution will be determined by the educational institution.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Effective Date.</I> This MOU is effective on the date of the later signature.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Expiration Date.</I> This MOU will expire 5 years from the effective date, unless terminated or updated prior to that date in writing by DoD or the educational institution.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Cancellation Provision.</I> This MOU may be cancelled by either DoD or the educational institution 30 days after receipt of the written notice from the cancelling party. In addition, termination and suspension of an MOU with an educational institution may be done at any time for failure to follow a term of this MOU or misconduct in accordance paragraphs (a)(18)(i) through (a)(18)(iii) of § 68.6.
</P>
<FP-1>FOR THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>DESIGNATED SIGNATORY
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>DATE
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>FOR THE EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>PRESIDENT or Designee
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>DATE
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>


</FP-DASH>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.7.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 68—Addendum for Education Services Between [Name of Educational Institution] and the U.S. Air Force (USAF)
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Purpose.</I> This addendum is between (Name of Educational Institution), hereafter referred to as the “Institution,” and the United States Air Force (USAF). The purpose of this agreement is to provide guidelines and procedures for the delivery of educational services to Service members, DoD civilian employees, eligible adult family members, military retirees, and non-DoD personnel not covered in the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between the DoD Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness and the Institution. This addendum is not to be construed in any way as giving rise to a contractual obligation of the USAF to provide funds to the Institution that would be contrary to Federal law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Responsibilities.</I>
</P>
<P>a. USAF Education and Training Section (ETS) Chief. The USAF ETS Chief will:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain a continuing liaison with the designated Institution representative and be responsible for inspections and the acceptance of the Institution's services. The ETS Chief will assist the Institution representative to provide military and USAF culture orientation to the Institution personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) Review requests from Institutions with no on-installation MOU for permission of DoD installation access and space within the ETS to counsel current students, provide information briefings and materials, attend education fairs, and provide other informational services approved by the installation commander. Approval depends on the installation commander. Approval of any school eligible for Military TA will be extended equally to all such schools; same time allotment, space, and frequency.
</P>
<P>(3) Assist the Institution or refer them to the information technology contractor for training in the use of the Academic Institution Portal (AI Portal) regarding input of Institution information, degree offerings, tuition rates, grades, invoices, degree completions, and search tools pre-built into the USAF online Voluntary Education System.
</P>
<P>b. Institutions will:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint and designate an Institution representative to maintain a continuing liaison with the USAF ETS Chief.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide general degree requirements to each member for his or her education program and the ETS as soon as he or she makes known their intention to register with the Institution and while awaiting final evaluation of transfer credits.
</P>
<P>(3) Assume responsibility for the administration and proctoring of all course examinations not normally administered and proctored within the traditional, in-the-classroom setting.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide to airmen, upon their request, information on Institution policies including, but not limited to, course withdrawal dates and penalties, course cancellation procedures, course grade publication, billing practices, and policy regarding incompletion of a course. Face-to-face counseling is not required.
</P>
<P>(5) Register and use the AI Portal to input Institution basic information, degree offerings, tuition rates, invoice submission, course grades submission, degree completions, and to pull pre-established educational institution reports while conducting business with the USAF.
</P>
<P>(6) Submit one consolidated invoice per term via the AI Portal for each class in which active duty military airmen are enrolled using Mil TA. Submission will be made during the term, no earlier than after the final add/drop/census date, and no later than 30 calendar days after the end of the term.
</P>
<P>(7) Submit course grades via the AI Portal for each class in which active duty military airmen are enrolled using Mil TA. Submission will be made no later than 30 calendar days after the end of the term.
</P>
<P>(8) Adopt the AI Portal procedures for all payment processing. Institutions with a current waiver may continue to participate at the discretion of Air Force Voluntary Education Branch.
</P>
<P>(9) Provide a list of program graduates via the AI Portal consisting of student name, program title, program type (such as bachelor's degree), and date of graduation no later than 30 calendar days after the end of the term in which graduation requirements are completed. If the AI Portal is not available, provide directly to the base Education and Training Section.
</P>
<P>c. Institutions with no on-installation MOU are authorized to request permission for DoD installation access and space within the ETS to counsel current students, provide information briefings and materials, attend education fairs, and other informational services. Approval depends on the installation commander. If approval is granted, then all other permissions will be authorized equally for any school eligible for Military TA; the same time allotment, space, and frequency.
</P>
<P>d. All Institutions with an on-installation MOU or invitation for an on-installation activity, such as an educational fair, are authorized to counsel or provide information on any of their programs.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional Guidelines</I>
</P>
<P>a. In addition to DoD policy outlined in the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership MOU, the authorization of Mil TA is further governed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36-2306, as well as applicable policy and guidance.
</P>
<P>b. DoD installation access of non-DoD and non-installation personnel is at the discretion of the installation commander. Access once provided can be revoked at any time due to military necessity or due to conduct that violates DoD installation rules or policies.
</P>
<P>c. No off-base school will be given permanent space or scheduled for regularly recurring time on-base for student counseling.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.7.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 68—Addendum for Education Services Between [Name of Educational Institution] and the U.S. Army
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Purpose.</I> This addendum is between (Name of Educational Institution), hereafter referred to as the “Institution,” and the United States Army. The purpose of this agreement is to provide guidelines and procedures for the delivery of educational services to Service members, DoD civilian employees, eligible adult family members, military retirees, and non-DoD personnel not covered in the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding between the DoD Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness and the Institution. This addendum is not to be construed in any way as giving rise to a contractual obligation of the U.S. Army to provide funds to the Institution that would be contrary to Federal law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Responsibilities.</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>Army Education Services Officer (ESO):</I> In support of this addendum, the Army ESO will maintain a continuing liaison with a designated Institution representative and be responsible for inspections and the acceptance of the Institution's services. The ESO will provide assistance to the Institution representative to provide military and Army culture orientation to the Institution personnel.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Institutions.</I> The Institution will:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint and designate an Institution representative to maintain a continuing liaison with the Army ESO.
</P>
<P>(2) Adopt the GoArmyEd processes. GoArmyEd is the Army Continuing Education System (ACES) centralized and streamlined management system for the Army's postsecondary voluntary education programs. Existing MOUs or Memorandums of Agreement, Tri-Services contracts, or other contracts that Institutions may have with DoD installations and ACES remain in place and will be supplemented with DoD Instruction 1322.25.
</P>
<P>(3) Agree to all of the terms in the ACES policies and procedures, available at <I>https://www.hrc.army.mil/site/education/GoArmyEd_School_Instructions.html,</I> such as: Invoicing, grades, reports, library references, etc. For non-Letter of Instruction (LOI) institutions satisfying paragraph 3.f. of this MOU, any requirements in ACES policies and procedures requiring institutions to be a member of SOC are hereby waived.
</P>
<P>(4) Institutions currently participating with GoArmyEd as LOI and non-LOI schools, may continue to do so at the discretion of Headquarters, ACES. Non-LOI schools will be subject to the requirements of paragraphs 2.b.(2) and 2.b.(3) of this MOU only to the extent that their existing non-LOI agreement with the U.S. Army provides.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.7.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 68—Addendum for Education Services Between [Name Of Educational Institution] and the U.S. Marine Corps
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Purpose.</I> This addendum is between (Name of Educational Institution), hereafter referred to as the “Institution,” and the U.S. Marine Corps. The purpose of this agreement is to provide guidelines and procedures for the delivery of educational services to Service members, DoD civilian employees, eligible adult family members, military retirees, and non-DoD personnel not covered in the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding between the DoD Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness and the Institution. This addendum is not to be construed in any way as giving rise to a contractual obligation of the U.S. Marine Corps to provide funds to the Institution that would be contrary to Federal law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Responsibilities.</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>Marine Corps Education Services Officer (ESO):</I> In support of this addendum, the Marine Corps ESO will maintain a continuing liaison with a designated Institution representative and be responsible for inspections and the acceptance of the Institution's services. The ESO will provide assistance to the Institution representative to provide military and Marine Corps culture orientation to the Institution personnel.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Institution.</I> The Institution will:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint and designate an Institution representative to maintain a continuing liaison with the Marine Corps ESO.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide open enrollment during a designated time periods in courses conducted through media (e.g., portable media devices or computer-aided). Those courses will be on an individual enrollment basis.
</P>
<P>(3) When operating on a Marine Corps installation, provide all required equipment when the Institution provides instruction via media.
</P>
<P>(4) When operating on a Marine Corps installation, provide library services to the Marine Corps installation for students in the form of research and reference materials (e.g., books, pamphlets, magazines) of similar quality to the support provided students on the institution's home campus. Services will also include research and reference material in sufficient quantity to meet curriculum and program demands. Materials will be, at a minimum, the required readings of the instructor(s) for a particular course or program, or the ability for the student to request a copy of such material, from the institution's main library, without any inconvenience or charge to the student (e.g., a library computer terminal that may allow students to order material and have it mailed to their residence).
</P>
<P>(5) Permit employment of off-duty military personnel or Government civilian employees by the institution, provided such employment does not conflict with the policies set forth in DoD Regulation 5500.7-R. However, Government personnel employed in any way in the administration of this addendum will be excluded from such employment because of conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Billing Procedures, And Formal Grades.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Comply with wide area work flow process for invoicing tuition assistance available at <I>https://www.navycollege.navy.mil/links.</I>
</P>
<P>b. Grades will be submitted through the Navy College Management Information System grade entry application.
</P>
<P>c. Grade reports will be provided to the Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center within 30 days of term ending or completion of the course, whichever is earlier.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.23.0.43.7.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 68—Addendum for Education Services Between [Name of Educational Institution] and the U.S. Navy
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Purpose.</I> This addendum is between (Name of Educational Institution), hereafter referred to as the “Institution,” and the U.S. Navy. The purpose of this agreement is to provide guidelines and procedures for the delivery of educational services to Service members, DoD civilian employees, eligible adult family members, military retirees, and non-DoD personnel not covered in the DoD Voluntary Education Partnership Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between the DoD Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness and the Institution. This addendum is not to be construed in any way as giving rise to a contractual obligation of the Department of the Navy to provide funds to the Institution that would be contrary to Federal law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Responsibilities.</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>Commanding Officer responsible for execution of the Voluntary Education Program.</I> The commanding officer responsible for execution of the voluntary education program will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the local voluntary education program needs for the Navy population to be served and recommend to the installation commander the educational programs to be offered on the base;
</P>
<P>(2) Administer this agreement and provide program management support;
</P>
<P>(3) Manage the Navy College Program Distance Learning Partnership (NCPDLP) agreements.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Navy College Office (NCO):</I> In support of this addendum, the NCO will maintain a continuing liaison with the designated Institution representative and be responsible for inspections and the acceptance of the Institution's services. The NCO will provide assistance to the Institution representative to provide military and Navy culture orientation to the Institution personnel.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Institution.</I> The Institution will:
</P>
<P>(1) If a distance learning partner institution:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with NCPDLP agreements, if an institution participates in NCPDLP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a link to the institution through the Navy College Program Web site, only if designated as an NCPDLP school.
</P>
<P>(iii) Display the Institution's advertising materials (<I>i.e.</I>, pamphlets, posters, and brochures) at all NCOs, only if designated as an NCPDLP school.
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint and designate an Institution representative to maintain a continuing liaison with the NCO staff.
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with wide area work flow processes for invoicing of tuition assistance available at <I>https://www.navycollege.navy.mil/links.</I> Grades will be submitted to the Navy College Management Information System grade entry application.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure library resource arrangements are in accordance with the standards of the Institution's accrediting association and the State regulatory agency having jurisdiction over the Institution.
</P>
<P>(5) Respond to email messages from students within a reasonable period of time—generally within two workdays, unless extenuating circumstances would justify additional time.
</P>
<P>(6) Comply with host command procedures before starting instructor-based courses on any Navy installation. The NCO will negotiate a separate agreement with the Institution in concert with the host command procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) Mail an official transcript indicating degree completion, at no cost to the sailor or the Government to: Center for Personal and Professional Development, ATTN: Virtual Education Center, 1905 Regulus Ave., Suite 234, Virginia Beach, VA 23461-2009.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="69" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 69—SCHOOL BOARDS FOR DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE DOMESTIC DEPENDENT ELEMENTARY AND SECONDARY SCHOOLS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2164.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 60563, Nov. 29, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 69.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes policies and procedures for the establishment and operation of elected School Boards for schools operated by the Department of Defense (DoD) under 10 U.S.C. 2164, 32 CFR part 345, and Public Law 92-463.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 69.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Coast Guard when operating as a service of the Department of the Navy or by agreement between DoD and the Department of Transportation, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Unified and Specified Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The schools (prekindergarten through grade 12) operated by the DoD under 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 32 CFR part 345 within the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, Wake Island, Guam, American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Virgin Islands, known as DoD DDESS Arrangements.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to elected school boards established under state or local law for DoD DDESS special arrangements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 69.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Arrangements.</I> Actions taken by the Secretary of Defense to provide a free public education to dependent children under 10 U.S.C. 2164 through DoD DDESS arrangements or DoD DDESS special arrangements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>DDESS arrangement.</I> A school operated by the Department of Defense under 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 32 CFR 345 to provide a free public education for eligible children.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DDESS special arrangement.</I> An agreement, under 10 U.S.C. 2164, between the Secretary of Defense, or designee, and a local public education agency whereby a school or a school system operated by the local public education agency provides educational services to eligible dependent children of U.S. military personnel and federally employed civilian personnel. Arrangements result in partial or total Federal funding to the local public education agency for the educational services provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Parent.</I> The biological father or mother of a child when parental rights have not been legally terminated; a person who, by order of a court of competent jurisdiction, has been declared the father or mother of a child by adoption; the legal guardian of a child; or a person in whose household a child resides, provided that such person stands in <I>loco parentis</I> to that child and contributes at least one-half of the child's support.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 69.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each DoD DDESS arrangement shall have an elected school board, established and operated in accordance with this part and other pertinent guidance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Because members of DoD DDESS elected school boards are not officers or employees of the United States appointed under the Appointments Clause of the United States Constitution (Art. II, Sec. 2, Cl. 2), they may not exercise discretionary governmental authority, such as the taking of personnel actions or the establishment of governmental policies. This part clarifies the role of school boards in the development and oversight of fiscal, personnel, and educational policies, procedures, and programs for DoD DDESS arrangements, subject to these constitutional limitations.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD DDESS chain of command for matters relating to school arrangements operated under 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 32 CFR part 345 shall be from the Director, DoD DDESS, to the Superintendent of each school arrangement. The Superintendent will inform the school board of all matters affecting the operation of the local school arrangement. Direct liaison among the school board, the Director, and the Superintendent is authorized for all matters pertaining to the local school arrangement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 69.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Force Management Policy (ASD (FMP)), under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Make the final decision on all formal appeals to directives and other guidance submitted by the school board or Superintendent.
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure the Director, DoD DDESS shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure the establishment of elected school boards in DoD DDESS arrangements.
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor compliance by the Superintendent and school boards with applicable statutory and regulatory requirements, and this part. In the event of suspected noncompliance, the Director, DoD DDESS, shall take appropriate action, which will include notification of the Superintendent and the school board president of the affected DoD DDESS arrangement.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine when the actions of a school board conflict with an applicable statute, regulation, or other guidance or when there is a conflict in the views of the school board and the Superintendent. When such conflicts occur, the Director, DoD DDESS, shall assist the Superintendent and the school board in resolving them or direct that such actions be discontinued. Such disapprovals must be in writing to the school board and the Superintendent concerned and shall state the specific supporting reason or reasons. 
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure the school board for DoD DDESS arrangements shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the development and oversight of fiscal, personnel, and educational policies, procedures, and programs for the DoD DDESS arrangement concerned, consistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Approve agendas and prepare minutes for school board meetings. A copy of the approved minutes of school board meetings shall be forwarded to the Director, DoD DDESS, within 10 working days after the date the minutes are approved.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide to the Director, DoD DDESS, names of applicants for a vacancy in the Superintendent's position after a recruitment has been accomplished. The school board shall submit to the Director, DoD DDESS, a list of all applicants based on its review of the applications and interviews (either in person or telephonically) of the applicants. The list of applicants will be accompanied by the recommended choice of the school board. The Director will select the Superintendent and will submit written notice with justification to the school board if the recommendation of the school board is not followed.
</P>
<P>(4) Prepare an annual written on-site review of the Superintendent's performance for consideration by the Director, DoD DDESS. The written review shall be based on critical elements recommended by the school board and Superintendent and approved by the Director, DoD DDESS. The school board's review will be an official attachment to the Superintendent's appraisal.
</P>
<P>(5) Participate in the development of the school system's budget for submission to the Director, DoD DDESS, for his or her approval as endorsed by the school board; and participate in the oversight of the approved budget, in conjunction with the Superintendent, as appropriate for operation of the school arrangement.
</P>
<P>(6) Invite the Superintendent or designee to attend all school board meetings.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide counsel to the Superintendent on the operation of the school and the implementation of the approved budget.
</P>
<P>(8) Channel communications with school employees to the DoD DDESS Superintendent. Refer all applications, complaints, and other communications, oral or written, to the DoD DDESS Arrangement Superintendents.
</P>
<P>(9) Participate in the development of school policies, rules, and regulations, in conjunction with the Superintendent, and recommend which policies shall be reflected in the School Policy Manual. At a minimum, the Policy Manual, which shall be issued by the Superintendent, shall include following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the school philosophy.
</P>
<P>(ii) The role and responsibilities of school administrative and educational personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions for promulgation of an annual school calendar.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provisions on instructional services, including policies for development and adoption of curriculum and textbooks.
</P>
<P>(v) Regulations affecting students, including attendance, grading, promotion, retention, and graduation criteria, and the student code of rights, responsibilities, and conduct.
</P>
<P>(vi) School policy on community relations and noninstructional services, including maintenance and custodial services, food services, and student transportation.
</P>
<P>(vii) School policy and legal limits on financial operations, including accounting, disbursing, contracting, and procurement; personnel operations, including conditions of employment, and labor management regulations; and the processing of, and response to, complaints.
</P>
<P>(viii) Procedures providing for new school board member orientation.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other matters determined by the school board and the superintendent to be necessary.
</P>
<P>(10) Under 10 U.S.C. 2164(b)(4)(B), prepare and submit formal appeals to directives and other guidance that in the view of the school board adversely impact the operation of the school system either through the operation and management of DoD DDESS or a specific DoD DDESS arrangement. Written formal appeals with justification and supporting documentation shall be submitted by the school board or Superintendent to ASD(FMP). The ASD(FMP) shall make the final decision on all formal appeals. The Director, Dod DDESS, will provide the appealing body written review of the findings relating to the merits of the appeal. Formal appeals will be handled expeditiously by all parties to minimize any adverse impact on the operation of the DoD DDESS system.
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure school board operating procedures are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The school board shall operate from a written agenda at all meetings. Matters not placed on the agenda before the start of the meeting, but approved by a majority of the school board present, may be considered at the ongoing meeting and added to the agenda at that time.
</P>
<P>(2) A majority of the total number of school board members authorized shall constitute a quorum.
</P>
<P>(3) School board meetings shall be conducted a minimum of 9 times a year. The school board President or designee will provide school board members timely notice of all meetings. All regularly scheduled school board meetings will be open to the public. Executive session meetings may be closed under 10 U.S.C. 2164(d)(6).
</P>
<P>(4) The school board shall not be bound in any way by any action or statement of an individual member or group of members of the board except when such action or statement is approved by a majority of the school board members during a school board meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) School board members are eligible for reimbursement for official travel in accordance with the DoD Joint Travel Regulations and guidance issued by the Director, DoD DDESS.
</P>
<P>(6) School board members may be removed by the ASD (FMP) for dereliction of duty, malfeasance, or other grounds for cause shown. The school board concerned may recommend such removal with a two-thirds majority vote. Before a member may be removed, the member shall be afforded due process, to include written notification of the basis for the action, review of the evidence or documentation considered by the school board, and an opportunity to respond to the allegations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 69.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.24.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 69.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Composition of school board.</I> (1) The school board shall recommend to the Director, DoD DDESS, the number of elected school board voting members, which shall be not fewer than 3 and no more than 9, depending upon local needs. The members of the school board shall select by majority vote of the total number of school board members authorized at the beginning of each official school board term, one member to act as President and another to act as Vice President. The President and Vice President shall each serve for 1 year. The President shall preside over school board meetings and provide leadership for related activities and functions. The Vice President shall serve in the absence of the President. If the position of President is vacated for any reason, the Vice President shall be the President until the next regularly scheduled school board election. The resulting vacancy in the position of the Vice President shall be filled by the majority vote of all members of the incumbent board.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD DDESS Arrangement Superintendent, or designee, shall serve as a non-voting observer to all school board meetings. The Installation Commander, or designee, shall convey command concerns to the school board and the Superintendent and keep the school board and the Superintendent informed of changes and other matters within the host installation that affect school expenditures or operations.
</P>
<P>(3) School board members may not receive compensation for their service on the school board.
</P>
<P>(4) Members of the school board may not have any financial interest in any company or organization doing business with the school system. Waivers to this restriction may be granted on a case-by-case basis by the Director, DoD DDESS, in coordination with the Office of General Counsel of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electorate of the school board.</I> The electorate for each school board seat shall be composed of parents of the students attending the school. Each member of the electorate shall have one vote.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Election of school board members.</I> (1) To be elected as a member of the school board, an individual must be a resident of the military installation in which the DoD DDESS arrangement is located, or in the case of candidates for the Antilles Consolidated School System School Board, be the parent of an eligible child currently enrolled in the school system. Personnel employed by a DoD DDESS arrangement may not serve as school board members.
</P>
<P>(2) The board shall determine the term of office for elected members, not to exceed 3 years, and the limit on the number of terms, if any. If the board fails to set these terms by the first day of the first full month of the school year, the terms will be set at 3 years, with a maximum of 2 consecutive terms.
</P>
<P>(3) When there is a sufficient number of school board vacancies that result in not having a quorum, which is defined as a majority of seats authorized, a special election shall be called by the DoD DDESS Arrangement Superintendent or designee. A special election is an election that is held between the regularly scheduled annual school board election. The nomination and election procedures for a special election shall be the same as those of regularly scheduled school board elections. Individuals elected by special election shall serve until the next regularly scheduled school board election. Vacancies may occur due to the resignation, death, removal for cause, transfer, or disenrollment of a school board member's child(ren) from the DoD DDESS arrangement.
</P>
<P>(4) The board shall determine a schedule for regular elections. Parents shall have adequate notice of the time and place of the election. The election shall be by secret ballot. All votes must be cast in person at the time and place of the election. The candidate(s) receiving the greatest number of votes shall be elected as school board member(s).
</P>
<P>(5) Each candidate for school board membership must be nominated in writing by at least one member of the electorate to be represented by the candidate. Votes may be cast at the time of election for write-in candidates who have not filed a nomination petition if the write-in candidates otherwise are qualified to serve in the positions sought.
</P>
<P>(6) The election process shall provide staggered terms for board members; e.g., on the last day of the last month of each year, the term for some board members will expire.
</P>
<P>(7) The DoD DDESS Superintendent, in consultation with the school board, shall be responsible for developing the plans for nominating school board members and conducting the school board election and the special election process. The DoD DDESS Superintendent shall announce election results within 7 working days of the election.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="70" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 70—DISCHARGE REVIEW BOARD (DRB) PROCEDURES AND STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1553 and 38 U.S.C. 101 and 3103, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 37785, Aug. 26, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 70.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.1   Reissuance and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is reissued and:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes uniform policies, procedures, and standards for the review of discharges or dismissals under 10 U.S.C. 1553.
</P>
<P>(b) Provides guidelines for discharge review by application or on motion of a DRB, and the conduct of discharge reviews and standards to be applied in such reviews which are designed to ensure historically consistent uniformity in execution of this function, as required under Pub. L. 95-126.
</P>
<P>(c) Assigns responsibility for administering the program.
</P>
<P>(d) Makes provisions for public inspection, copying, and distribution of DRB documents through the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room.
</P>
<P>(e) Establishes procedures for the preparation of decisional documents and index entries.
</P>
<P>(f) Provides guidance for processing complaints concerning decisional documents and index entries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part 70 apply to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) and the Military Departments. The terms, “Military Services,” and “Armed Forces,” as used herein, refer to the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant.</I> A former member of the Armed Forces who has been discharged or dismissed administratively in accordance with Military Department regulations or by sentence of a court-martial (other than a general court-martial) and under statutory regulatory provisions whose application is accepted by the DRB concerned or whose case is heard on the DRB's own motion. If the former member is deceased or incompetent, the term “applicant” includes the surviving spouse, next-of-kin, or legal representative who is acting on behalf of the former member. When the term “applicant” is used in §§ 70.8 through 70.10, it includes the applicant's counsel or representative, except that the counsel or representative may not submit an application for review, waive the applicant's right to be present at a hearing, or terminate a review without providing the DRB an appropriate power of attorney or other written consent of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complainant.</I> A former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint under § 70.10 with respect to the decisional document issued in the former member's own case; or a former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint under § 70.10 stating that correction of the decisional document will assist the former member in preparing for an administrative or judicial proceeding in which the former member's own discharge will be at issue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counsel or Representative.</I> An individual or agency designated by the applicant who agrees to represent the applicant in a case before the DRB. It includes, but is not limited to: a lawyer who is a member of the bar of a Federal court or of the highest court of a State; an accredited representative designated by an organization recognized by the Administrator of Veterans Affairs; a representative from a State agency concerned with veterans affairs; and representatives from private organizations or local government agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discharge.</I> A general term used in this Directive that includes dismissal and separation or release from active or inactive military status, and actions that accomplish a complete severance of all military status. This term also includes the assignment of a reason for such discharge and characterization of service (32 CFR part 41).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Discharge Review.</I> The process by which the reason for separation, the procedures followed in accomplishing separation, and the characterization of service are evaluated. This includes determinations made under the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 3103(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discharge Review Board (DRB).</I> An administrative board constituted by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned and vested with discretionary authority to review discharges and dismissals under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1553. It may be configured as one main element or two or more elements as designated by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>DRB Panel.</I> An element of a DRB, consisting of five members, authorized by the Secretary concerned to review discharges and dismissals.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>DRB Traveling or Regional Panel.</I> A DRB panel that conducts discharge reviews in a location outside the National Capital Region (NCR).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hearing.</I> A review involving an appearance before the DRB by the applicant or on the applicant's behalf by a counsel or representative.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hearing Examination.</I> The process by which a designated officer of a DRB prepares a presentation for consideration by a DRB in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>National Capital Region (NCR).</I> The District of Columbia; Prince Georges and Montgomery Counties in Maryland; Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William Counties in Virginia; and all cities and towns included within the outer boundaries of the foregoing counties.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>President, DRB.</I> A person designated by the Secretary concerned and responsible for the supervision of the discharge review function and other duties as assigned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments</I> have the authority for final decision and the responsibility for the operation for their respective discharge review programs under 10 U.S.C. 1553.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)</I> (ASD(MRA&amp;L)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Resolve all issues concerning DRBs that cannot be resolved among the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure uniformity among the Military Departments in the rights afforded applicants in discharge reviews.
</P>
<P>(3) Modify or supplement the enclosures to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain the index of decisions and provide for timely modification of index categories to reflect changes in discharge review policies, procedures, and standards issued by the OSD and the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Secretary of the Army,</I> as the designated administrative focal point for DRB matters, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Effect necessary coordination with other governmental agencies regarding continuing applicability of this part and resolve administrative procedures relating thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) Review suggested modifications to this part, including implementing documents; monitor the implementing documents of the Military Departments; resolve differences, when practicable; recommend specific changes; provide supporting rationale to the ASD(MRA&amp;L) for decision; and include appropriate documentation through the Office of the ASD(MRA&amp;L) and the OSD Federal Register liaison officer to effect publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain the DD Form 293, “Application for Review of Discharge or Separation from the Armed Forces of the United States,” and republish as necessary with appropriate coordination of the other Military Departments and the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(4) Respond to all inquiries from private individuals, organizations, or public officials with regard to DRB matters. When the specific Military Service can be identified, refer such correspondence to the appropriate DRB for response or designate an appropriate activity to perform this task.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide overall guidance and supervision to the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room with staff augmentation, as required, by the Departments of the Navy and Air Force.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that notice of the location, hours of operation, and similar types of information regarding the Reading Room is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discharge review procedures are prescribed in § 70.8.
</P>
<P>(b) Discharge Review Standards are prescribed in § 70.9 and constitute the basic guidelines for the determination whether to grant or deny relief in a discharge review.
</P>
<P>(c) Complaint Procedures about decisional documents are prescribed in § 70.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.6   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> (1) The reporting requirement prescribed in § 70.8(n) is assigned Report Control Symbol DD-M(SA)1489.
</P>
<P>(2) All reports must be consistent with DoD Directive 5000.11, “Data Elements and Data Codes Standardization Program,” December 7, 1964.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of standard data elements.</I> The data requirements prescribed by this part shall be consistent with DoD 5000.12-M, “DoD Manual for Standard Data Elements,” December 1981. Any reference to a date should appear as (YYMMDD), while any name entry should appear as (Last name, first name, middle initial).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.7   Effective date and implementation.</HEAD>
<P>This part is effective immediately for the purpose of preparing implementing documents. DoD Directive 1332.28, March 29, 1978, is officially canceled, effective November 27, 1982. This part applies to all discharge review proceedings conducted on or after November 27, 1982. § 70.10 applies to all complaint proceedings conducted on or after September 28, 1982. Final action on complaints shall not be taken until September 28, 1982, unless earlier corrective action is requested expressly by the applicant (or the applicant's counsel) whose case is the subject of the decisional document. If earlier corrective action is requested, it shall be taken in accordance with § 70.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.8   Discharge review procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for review</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Applications shall be submitted to the appropriate DRB on DD Form 293, “Application for Review of Discharge or Separation from the Armed Forces of the United States,” with such other statements, affidavits, or documentation as desired. It is to the applicant's advantage to submit such documents with the application or within 60 days thereafter in order to permit a thorough screening of the case. The DD Form 293 is available at most DoD installations and regional offices of the Veterans Administration, or by writing to: DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> A motion or request for review must be made within 15 years after the date of discharge or dismissal. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicant's responsibilities.</I> An applicant may request a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Character of discharge.</I> Block 7 of DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in character of discharge (for example, General Discharge to Honorable Discharge; Other than Honorable Discharge to General or Honorable Discharge). Only a person separated on or after 1 October 1982 while in an entry level status may request a change from Other than Honorable Discharge to Entry Level Separation. A request for review from an applicant who does not have an Honorable Discharge shall be treated as a request for a change to an Honorable Discharge unless the applicant requests a specific change to another character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reason for discharge.</I> Block 7 of DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in the reason for discharge. If an applicant does not request a specific change in the reason for discharge, the DRB shall presume that the request for review does not involve a request for change in the reason for discharge. Under its responsibility to examine the propriety and equity of an applicant's discharge, the DRB shall change the reason for discharge if such a change is warranted. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant must ensure that issues submitted to the DRB are consistent with the request for change in discharge set forth in block 7 of the DD Form 293. If an ambiguity is created by a difference between an applicant's issue and the request in block 7, the DRB shall respond to the issue in the context of the action requested in block 7. In the case of a hearing, the DRB shall attempt to resolve the ambiguity under paragraph (a)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request for consideration of specific issues.</I> An applicant may request the DRB to consider specific issues which, in the opinion of the applicant, form a basis for changing the character of or reason for discharge, or both. In addition to the guidance set forth in this section, applicants should consult the other sections in this part (particularly paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and §§ 70.9 and 70.10 before submitting issues for consideration by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Submission of issues on DD Form 293.</I> Issues must be provided to the DRB on DD Form 293 before the DRB closes the review process for deliberation.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Issues must be clear and specific.</I> An issue must be stated clearly and specifically in order to enable the DRB to understand the nature of the issue and its relationship to the applicant's discharge.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Separate listing of issues.</I> Each issue submitted by an applicant should be listed separately. Submission of a separate statement for each issue provides the best means of ensuring that the full import of the issue is conveyed to the DRB.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Use of DD Form 293.</I> DD Form 293 provides applicants with a standard format for submitting issues to the DRB, and its use:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provides a means for an applicant to set forth clearly and specifically those matters that, in the opinion of the applicant, provide a basis for changing the discharge; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Assists the DRB in focusing on those matters considered to be important by an applicant;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Assists the DRB in distinguishing between a matter submitted by an applicant in the expectation that it will be treated as a decisional issue under paragraph (e) of this section, and those matters submitted simply as background or supporting materials;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Provides the applicant with greater rights in the event that the applicant later submits a complaint under § 70.10(d)(1)(iii) concerning the decisional document;
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Reduces the potential for disagreement as to the content of an applicant's issue.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> If the applicant makes an additional written submission, such as a brief, in support of the application, the applicant may incorporate by reference specific issues set forth in the written submission in accordance with the guidance on DD Form 293. The reference shall be specific enough for the DRB to identify clearly the matter being submitted as an issue. At a minimum, it shall identify the page, paragraph, and sentence incorporated. Because it is to the applicant's benefit to bring such issues to the DRB's attention as early as possible in the review, applicants who submit a brief are strongly urged to set forth all such issues as a separate item at the beginning of the brief. If it reasonably appears that the applicant inadvertently has failed expressly to incorporate an issue which the applicant clearly identifies as an issue to be addressed by the DRB, the DRB shall respond to such an issue under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
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<P>(E) <I>Effective date of the new Form DD 293.</I> With respect to applications received before November 27, 1982, the DRB shall consider issues clearly and specifically stated in accordance with the rules in effect at the time of submission. With respect to applications received on or after November 27, 1982, if the applicant submits an obsolete DD Form 293, the DRB shall accept the application, but shall provide the applicant with a copy of the new form and advise the applicant that it will only respond to issues submitted on the new form in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relationship of issues to character of or reason for discharge.</I> If the application applies to both character of and reason for discharge, the applicant is encouraged, but not required, to identify the issue as applying to the character of or reason for discharge (or both). Unless the issue is directed at the reason for discharge expressly or by necessary implication, the DRB will presume that it applies solely to the character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Relationship of issues to the standards for discharge review.</I> The DRB reviews discharges on the basis of issues of propriety and equity. The standards used by the DRB are set forth in § 70.9. The applicant is encouraged to review those standards before submitting any issue upon which the applicant believes a change in discharge should be based.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Issues concerning the equity of the discharge.</I> An issue of equity is a matter that involves a determination whether a discharge should by changed under the equity standards of § 70.9. This includes any issue, submitted by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, that is addressed to the discretionary authority of the DRB.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Issues concerning the propriety of a discharge.</I> An issue of propriety is a matter that involves a determination whether a discharge should be changed under the propriety standards of § 70.9. This includes an applicant's issue, submitted in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, in which the applicant's position is that the discharge must be changed because of an error in the discharge pertaining to a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, or other source of law (including a matter that requires a determination whether, under the circumstances of the case, action by military authorities was arbitrary, capricious, or an abuse of discretion). Although a numerical reference to the regulation or other sources of law alleged to have been violated is not necessarily required, the context of the regulation or a description of the procedures alleged to have been violated normally must be set forth in order to inform the DRB adequately of the basis for the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>The applicant's identification of an issue.</I> The applicant is encouraged, but not required, to identify an issue as pertaining to the propriety or the equity to the discharge. This will assist the DRB in assessing the relationship of the issue to propriety or equity under paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Citation of matter from decisions.</I> The primary function of the DRB involves the exercise of discretion on a case-by-case basis. See § 70.9(b)(3). Applicants are not required to cite prior decisions as the basis for a change in discharge. If the applicant wishes to bring the DRB's attention to a prior decision as background or illustrative material, the citation should be placed in a brief or other supporting documents. If, however, it is the applicant's intention to submit an issue that sets forth specific principles and facts from a specific cited decision, the following requirements apply with respect to applications received on or after November 27, 1982.
</P>
<P>(A) The issue must be set forth or expressly incorporated in the “Applicant's Issue” portion of DD Form 293. 
</P>
<P>(B) If an applicant's issue cites a prior decision (of the DRB, another Board, an agency, or a court), the applicant shall describe the specific principles and facts that are contained in the prior decision and explain the relevance of cited matter to the applicant's case. 
</P>
<P>(C) To ensure timely consideration of principles cited from unpublished opinions (including decisions maintained by the Armed Forces Discharge Review Board/Corrective Board Reading Room), applicants must provide the DRB with copies of such decisions or of the relevant portion of the treatise, manual, or similar source in which the principles were discussed. At the applicant's request, such materials will be returned.
</P>
<P>(D) If the applicant fails to comply with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(4)(iv) (A), (B), and (C), the decisional document shall note the defect, and shall respond to the issue without regard to the citation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identification by the DRB of issues submitted by an applicant.</I> The applicant's issues shall be identified in accordance with this section after a review of the materials noted under paragraph (c)(4), is made.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Issues on DD Form 293.</I> The DRB shall consider all items submitted as issues by an applicant on DD Form 293 (or incorporated therein) in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i). With respect to applications submitted before November 27, 1982, the DRB shall consider all issues clearly and specifically stated in accordance with the rules in effect at the time of the submission.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amendment of issues.</I> The DRB shall not request or instruct an applicant to amend or withdraw any matter submitted by the applicant. Any amendment or withdrawal of an issue by an applicant shall be confirmed in writing by the applicant. Nothing in this provision:
</P>
<P>(A) Limits the DRB's authority to question an applicant as to the meaning of such matter;
</P>
<P>(B) Precludes the DRB from developing decisional issues based upon such questions;
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<P>(C) Prevents the applicant from amending or withdrawing such matter any time before the DRB closes the review process for deliberation; or
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<P>(D) Prevents the DRB from presenting an applicant with a list of proposed decisional issues and written information concerning the right of the applicant to add to, amend, or withdraw the applicant's submission. The written information will state that the applicant's decision to take such action (or decline to do so) will not be used against the applicant in the consideration of the case.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional issues identified during a hearing.</I> The following additional procedure shall be used during a hearing in order to promote the DRB's understanding of an applicant's presentation. If, before closing the case for deliberation, the DRB believes that an applicant has presented an issue not listed on DD Form 293, the DRB may so inform the applicant, and the applicant may submit the issue in writing or add additional written issues at that time. This does not preclude the DRB from developing its own decisional issues.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notification of possible bar to benefits.</I> Written notification shall be made to each applicant whose record indicates a reason for discharge that bars receipt of benefits under 38 U.S.C. 3103(a). This notification will advise the applicant that separate action by the Board for Correction of Military or Naval Records or the Veterans Administration may confer eligibility for VA benefits. Regarding the bar to benefits based upon the 180 days consecutive unauthorized absence, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Such absence must have been included as part of the basis for the applicant's discharge under other than honorable conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such absence is computed without regard to the applicant's normal or adjusted expiration of term of service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conduct of reviews</I>—(1) <I>Members.</I> As designated by the Secretary concerned, the DRB and its panels, if any, shall consist of five members. One member of the DRB shall be designated as the president and may serve as a presiding officer. Other officers may be designated to serve as presiding officers for DRB panels under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Locations.</I> Reviews by a DRB will be conducted in the NCR and such other locations as designated by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of review.</I> An applicant, upon request, is entitled to:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Record review.</I> A review of the application, available service records, and additional documents (if any) submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hearing.</I> A review involving an appearance before the DRB by the applicant or counsel or representative (or both).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Applicant's expenses.</I> Unless otherwise specified by law or regulation, expenses incurred by the applicant, witnesses, counsel or representative will not be paid by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Withdrawal of application.</I> An applicant shall be permitted to withdraw an application without prejudice at any time before the scheduled review.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Failure to appear at a hearing or respond to a scheduling notice.</I> (i) Except as otherwise authorized by the Secretary concerned, further opportunity for a hearing shall not be made available in the following circumstances to an applicant who has requested a hearing:
</P>
<P>(A) When the applicant has been sent a letter containing the month and location of a proposed hearing and fails to make a timely response; or
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<P>(B) When the applicant, after being notified by letter of the time and place of the hearing, fails to appear at the appointed time, either in person or by representative, without having made a prior, timely request for a continuation, postponement, or withdrawal.
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<P>(ii) In such cases, the applicant shall be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing, and the DRB shall complete its review of the discharge. Further request for a hearing shall not be granted unless the applicant can demonstrate that the failure to appear or respond was due to circumstances beyond the applicant's control.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Continuance and postponements.</I> (i) A continuance of a discharge review hearing may be authorized by the president of the DRB or presiding officer of the panel concerned, provided that such continuance is of reasonable duration and is essential to achieving a full and fair hearing. When a proposal for continuance is indefinite, the pending application shall be returned to the applicant with the option to resubmit when the case is fully ready for review.
</P>
<P>(ii) Postponements of scheduled reviews normally shall not be permitted other than for demonstrated good and sufficient reason set forth by the applicant in a timely manner, or for the convenience of the government.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A discharge review shall not be subject to reconsideration except:
</P>
<P>(i) When the only previous consideration of the case was on the motion of the DRB; 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the original discharge review did not involve a hearing and a hearing is now desired, and the provisions of paragraph (b)(6) of this section do not apply;
</P>
<P>(iii) When changes in discharge policy are announced after an earlier review of an applicant's discharge, and the new policy is made expressly retroactive;
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<P>(iv) When the DRB determines that policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a Service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration, provided that such changes in policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded a respondent in such proceedings;
</P>
<P>(v) When an individual is to be represented by a counsel or representative, and was not so represented in any previous consideration of the case by the DRB;
</P>
<P>(vi) When the case was not previously considered under uniform standards published pursuant to Pub. L. 95-126 and such application is made within 15 years after the date of discharge; or
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<P>(vii) On the basis of presentation of new, substantial, relevant evidence not available to the applicant at the time of the original review. The decision whether evidence offered by an applicant in support of a request for reconsideration is in fact new, substantial, relevant, and was not available to the applicant at the time of the original review will be based on a comparison of such evidence with the evidence considered in the previous discharge review. If this comparison shows that the evidence submitted would have had a probable effect on matters concerning the propriety or equity of the discharge, the request for reconsideration shall be granted.
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<P>(9) <I>Availability of records and documents.</I> (i) Before applying for discharge review, potential applicants or their designated representatives may obtain copies of their military personnel records by submitting a General Services Administration Standard Form 180, “Request Pertaining to Military Records,” to the National Personnel Records Center (NPRC), 9700 Page Boulevard, St. Louis, MO 62132. Once the application for discharge review (DD Form 293) is submitted, an applicant's military records are forwarded to the DRBs where they cannot be reproduced. Submission of a request for an applicant's military records, including a request under the Freedom of Information Act (32 CFR part 286) or Privacy Act (32 CFR part 286a) after the DD Form 293 has been submitted, shall result automatically in the temporary suspension of processing of the application for discharge review until the requested records are sent to an appropriate location for copying, are copied, and are returned to the headquarters of the DRB. Processing of the application shall then be resumed at whatever stage of the discharge review process is practicable. Applicants are encouraged to submit any request for their military records before applying for discharge review rather than after submitting DD Form 293, to avoid delays in processing of applications and scheduling of reviews. Applicants and their counsel also may examine their military personnel records at the site of their scheduled review before the hearing. DRBs shall notify applicants of the dates the records are available for examination in their standard scheduling information.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the DRB is not authorized to provide copies of documents that are under the cognizance of another government department, office, or activity, applications for such information must be made by the applicant to the cognizant authority. The DRB shall advise the applicant of the mailing address of the government department, office, or activity to which the request should be submitted.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the official records relevant to the discharge review are not available at the agency having custody of the records, the applicant shall be so notified and requested to provide such information and documents as may be desired in support of the request for discharge review. A period of not less than 30 days shall be allowed for such documents to be submitted. At the expiration of this period, the review may be conducted with information available to the DRB.
</P>
<P>(iv) A DRB may take steps to obtain additional evidence that is relevant to the discharge under consideration beyond that found in the official military records or submitted by the applicant, if a review of available evidence suggests that it would be incomplete without the additional information, or when the applicant presents testimony or documents that require additional information to evaluate properly. Such information shall be made available to the applicant, upon request, with appropriate modifications regarding classified material.
</P>
<P>(A) In any case heard on request of an applicant, the DRB shall provide the applicant and counsel or representative, if any, at a reasonable time before initiating the decision process, a notice of the availability of all regulations and documents to be considered in the discharge review, except for documents in the official personnel or medical records and any documents submitted by the applicant. The DRB shall also notify the applicant or counsel or representative: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Of the right to examine such documents or to be provided with copies of the documents upon request; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Of the date by which such requests must be received; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Of the opportunity to respond within a reasonable period of time to be set by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(B) When necessary to acquaint the applicant with the substance of a classified document, the classifying authority, on the request of the DRB, shall prepare a summary of or an extract from the document, deleting all references to sources of information and other matters, the disclosure of which, in the opinion of the classifying authority, would be detrimental to the national security interests of the United States. Should preparation of such summary be deemed impracticable by the classifying authority, information from the classified sources shall not be considered by the DRB in its review of the case.
</P>
<P>(v) Regulations of a Military Department may be obtained at many installations under the jurisdiction of the Military Department concerned or by writing to the following address: DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), room 1E520, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Recorder/Secretary or Assistant.</I> Such a person shall be designated to assist in the functioning of each DRB in accordance with the procedures prescribed by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Hearings.</I> Hearings (including hearing examinations) that are conducted shall recognize the rights of the individual to privacy. Accordingly, presence at hearings of individuals other than those required shall be limited to persons authorized by the Secretary concerned or expressly requested by the applicant, subject to reasonable limitations based upon available space. If, in the opinion of the presiding officer, the presence of other individuals could be prejudicial to the interests of the applicant or the government, hearings may be held in closed session.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Evidence and testimony.</I> (i) The DRB may consider any evidence obtained in accordance with this part.
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<P>(ii) Formal rules of evidence shall not be applied in DRB proceedings. The presiding officer shall rule on matters of procedure and shall ensure that reasonable bounds of relevancy and materiality are maintained in the taking of evidence and presentation of witnesses.
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<P>(iii) Applicants undergoing hearings shall be permitted to make sworn or unsworn statements, if they so desire, or to introduce witnesses, documents, or other information on their behalf, at no expense to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicants may also make oral or written arguments personally or through counsel or representatives.
</P>
<P>(v) Applicants who present sworn or unsworn statements and witnesses may be questioned by the DRB. All testimony shall be taken under oath or affirmation unless the applicant specifically requests to make an unsworn statement.
</P>
<P>(vi) There is a presumption of regularity in the conduct of governmental affairs. This presumption can be applied in any review unless there is substantial credible evidence to rebut the presumption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision process.</I> (1) The DRB or the DRB panel, as appropriate, shall meet in plenary session to review discharges and exercise its discretion on a case-by-case basis in applying the standards set forth in § 70.9.
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<P>(2) The presiding officer is responsible for the conduct of the discharge review. The presiding officer shall convene, recess, and adjourn the DRB panel as appropriate and shall maintain an atmosphere of dignity and decorum at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) Each DRB member shall act under oath or affirmation requiring careful, objective consideration of the application. DRB members are responsible for eliciting all facts necessary for a full and fair hearing. They shall consider all information presented to them by the applicant. In addition, they shall consider available Military Service and health records, together with other records that may be in the files of the Military Department concerned and relevant to the issues before the DRB, and any other evidence obtained in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The DRB shall identify and address issues after a review of the following material obtained and presented in accordance with this part and the implementing instructions of the DRB: Available official records, documentary evidence submitted by or on behalf of an applicant, presentation of a hearing examination, testimony by or on behalf of an applicant, oral or written arguments presented by or on behalf of an applicant, and any other relevant evidence.
</P>
<P>(5) If an applicant who has requested a hearing does not respond to a notification letter or does not appear for a scheduled hearing, the DRB may complete the review on the basis of material previously submitted.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Application of standards.</I> (i) When a DRB determines that an applicant's discharge was improper (§ 70.9(b)), the DRB will determine which reason for discharge should have been assigned based upon the facts and circumstances before the discharge authority, including the Service regulations governing reasons for discharge at the time the applicant was discharged. Unless it is also determined that the discharge was inequitable (§ 70.9(c)), the provisions as to characterization in the regulation under which the applicant should have been discharged will be considered in determining whether further relief is warranted.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the DRB determines that an applicant's discharge was inequitable (see § 70.9(c)), any change will be based on the evaluation of the applicant's overall record of service and relevant regulations of the Military Service of which the applicant was a member.
</P>
<P>(7) Voting shall be conducted in closed session, a majority of the five members' votes constituting the DRB decision. Voting procedures shall be prescribed by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned.
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<P>(8) Details of closed session deliberations of a DRB are privileged information and shall not be divulged.
</P>
<P>(9) There is no requirement for a statement of minority views in the event of a split vote. The minority, however, may submit a brief statement of its views under procedures established by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(10) DRBs may request advisory opinions from staff officers of their Military Departments. These opinions are advisory in nature and are not binding on the DRB in its decision-making process.
</P>
<P>(11) The preliminary determinations required by 38 U.S.C. 3103(e) shall be made upon majority vote of the DRB concerned on an expedited basis. Such determination shall be based upon the standards set forth in § 70.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>The DRB shall:</I> (i) Address items submitted as issues by the applicant under paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Address decisional issues under paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prepare a decisional document in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Response to items submitted as issues by the applicant</I>—(1) <I>General guidance.</I> (i) If an issue submitted by an applicant contains two or more clearly separate issues, the DRB should respond to each issue under the guidance of this paragraph as if it had been set forth separately by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an applicant uses a “building block” approach (that is, setting forth a series of conclusions on issues that lead to a single conclusion purportedly warranting a change in the applicant's discharge), normally there should be a separate response to each issue.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nothing in this paragraph precludes the DRB from making a single response to multiple issues when such action would enhance the clarity of the decisional document, but such response must reflect an adequate response to each separate issue.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decisional issues.</I> An item submitted as an issue by an applicant in accordance with this part shall be addressed as a decisional issue under paragraph (e), in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) When the DRB decides that a change in discharge should be granted, and the DRB bases its decision in whole or in part on the applicant's issue; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the DRB does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, and the decision is based in whole or in part on the DRB's disagreement on the merits with an issue submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to items not addressed as decisional issues.</I> (i) If the applicant receives the full change in discharge requested (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted and the basis shall be addressed as a decisional issue. No further response is required to other issues submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the applicant does not receive the full change in discharge requested with respect to either the character of or reason for discharge (or both), the DRB shall address the items submitted by the applicant under paragraph (e) of this section (decisional issues) unless one of the following responses is applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Duplicate issues.</I> The DRB may state that there is a full response to the issue submitted by the applicant under a specified decisional issue. This response may be used only when one issue clearly duplicates another or the issue clearly requires discussion in conjunction with another issue.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Citations without principles and facts.</I> The DRB may state that the applicant's issue, which consists of a citation to a decision without setting forth any principles and facts from the decision that the applicant states are relevant to the applicant's case, does not comply with the requirements of paragraph (a)(4)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Unclear issues.</I> The DRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because the meaning of the item is unclear. An issue is unclear if it cannot be understood by a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Nonspecific issues.</I> The DRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because it is not specific. A submission is considered not specific if a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, cannot determine the relationship between the applicant's submission and the particular circumstances of the case. This response may be used only if the submission is expressed in such general terms that no other response is applicable. For example, if the DRB disagrees with the applicant as to the relevance of matters set forth in the submission, the DRB normally will set forth the nature of the disagreement under the guidance in paragraph (e) of this section, with respect to decisional issues, or it will reject the applicant's position on the basis of paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) or (d)(3)(ii)(B) of this section. If the applicant's submission is so general that none of those provisions is applicable, then the DRB may state that it cannot respond because the item is not specific.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decisional issues</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Under the guidance in this section, the decisional document shall discuss the issues that provide a basis for the decision whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge. In order to enhance clarity, the DRB should not address matters other than issues relied upon in the decision or raised by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Partial change.</I> When the decision changes a discharge, but does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, the decisional document shall address both the issues upon which change is granted and the issues upon which the DRB denies the full change requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relationship of issue to character of or reason for discharge.</I> Generally, the decisional document should specify whether a decisional issue applies to the character of or reason for discharge (or both), but it is not required to do so.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Relationship of an issue to propriety or equity.</I> (A) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to both propriety and equity, the DRB will consider it under both standards.
</P>
<P>(B) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to the propriety of the discharge (for example, by citing a propriety standard or otherwise claiming that a change in discharge is required as a matter of law), the DRB shall consider the issue solely as a matter of propriety. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(D) of this section, the DRB is not required to consider such an issue under the equity standards.
</P>
<P>(C) If the applicant's issue contends that the DRB is required as a matter of law to follow a prior decision by setting forth an issue of propriety from the prior decision and describing its relationship to the applicant's case, the issue shall be considered under the propriety standards and addressed under paragraph (e)(2) or (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) If the applicant's issue sets forth principles of equity contained in a prior DRB decision, describes the relationship to the applicant's case, and contends that the DRB is required as a matter of law to follow the prior case, the decisional document shall note that the DRB is not bound by its discretionary decisions in prior cases under the standards in § 70.9. However, the principles cited by the applicant, and the description of the relationship of the principles to the applicant's case, shall be considered under the equity standards and addressed under paragraph (e)(5) or (e)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(E) If the applicant's issue cannot be identified as a matter of propriety or equity, the DRB shall address it as an issue of equity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change of discharge: issues of propriety.</I> If a change in the discharge is warranted under the propriety standards in § 70.9 the decisional document shall state that conclusion and list the errors of expressly retroactive changes in policy that provide a basis for the conclusion. The decisional document shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the error or change in policy to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not granting the full change shall be addressed under the guidance in paragraph (e)(3) or (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Denial of the full change requested: issues of propriety.</I> (i) If the decision rejects the applicant's position on an issue of propriety, or if it is otherwise decided on the basis of an issue of propriety that the full change in discharge requested by the applicant is not warranted, the decisional document shall note that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The decisional document shall list reasons for its conclusion on each issue of propriety under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the DRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the particular circumstances in the case.
</P>
<P>(B) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstance, including a factor required by applicable Service regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the DRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise identified by members of the DRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall set forth the basis for relying on the presumption of regularity and explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the DRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption. 
</P>
<P>(C) If the DRB disagrees with the position of the applicant on an issue of propriety, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (e)(4)(iv) of this section).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The DRB may reject an applicant's position by stating that the applicant's issue of propriety is not a matter upon which the DRB grants a change in discharge, and by providing an explanation for this position. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with one or more other specified issues, the explanation will address all such specified issues. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the DRB agreed with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If the applicant takes the position that the discharge must be changed because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, the DRB may respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. If the organization empowered to correct the record is within the Department of Defense, the DRB should provide the applicant with a brief description of the procedures for requesting correction of the record. If the DRB on its own motion cites this issue as a decisional issue on the basis of equity, it shall address the issue under paragraph (d)(5) or (d)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) When an applicant's issue contains a general allegation that a certain course of action violated his or her constitutional rights, the DRB may respond in appropriate cases by noting that the action was consistent with statutory or regulatory authority, and by citing the presumption of constitutionality that attaches to statutes and regulations. If, on the other hand, the applicant makes a specific challenge to the constitutionality of the action by challenging the application of a statute or regulation in a particular set of circumstances, it is not sufficient to respond solely by citing the presumption of constitutionality of the statute or regulation when the applicant is not challenging the constitutionality of the statute or regulation. Instead, the response must address the specific circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Denial of the full change in discharge requested when propriety is not at issue.</I> If the applicant has not submitted an issue of propriety and the DRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of propriety to change the discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect. The DRB is not required to provide any further discussion as to the propriety of the discharge.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Change of discharge: issues of equity.</I> If the DRB concludes that a change in the discharge is warranted under the equity standards in § 70.9 the decisional document shall list each issue of equity upon which this conclusion is based. The DRB shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the issue to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not giving the full change requested shall be discussed under the guidance in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Denial of the full change in discharge requested: issues of equity.</I> (i) If the DRB rejects the applicant's position on an issue of equity, or if the decision otherwise provides less than the full change in discharge requested by the applicant, the decisional document shall note that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DRB shall list reasons for its conclusion on each issue of equity under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the DRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the exercise of discretion on the issue of equity in the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(B) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstance, including a factor required by applicable Service regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the DRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise identified by members of the DRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall set forth the basis for relying on the presumption of regularity and explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the DRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption. 
</P>
<P>(C) If the DRB disagrees with the position of the applicant on an issue of equity, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in paragraphs (e)(6)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The DRB may reject an applicant's position by explaining why the applicant's issue is not a matter upon which the DRB grants a change in discharge as a matter of equity. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with other specified issues, the explanation will address all such specified issues.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The DRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the DRB agreed with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If the applicant takes the position that the discharge should be changed as a matter of equity because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, the DRB may respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. However, the DRB will consider whether it should exercise its equitable powers to change the discharge on the basis of the alleged error. If it declines to do so, it shall explain why the applicant's position did not provide a sufficient basis for the change in the discharge requested by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(D) When the DRB concludes that aggravating factors outweigh mitigating factors, the DRB must set forth reasons such as the seriousness of the offense, specific circumstances surrounding the offense, number of offenses, lack of mitigating circumstances, or similar factors. The DRB is not required, however, to explain why it relied on any such factors unless the applicability or weight of such a factor is expressly raised as an issue by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(E) If the applicant has not submitted any issues and the DRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of equity for a change in discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect, and shall note that the major factors upon which the discharge was based are set forth in the service record portion of the decisional document. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>The recommendation of the DRB President</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The president of the DRB may forward cases for consideration by the Secretarial Reviewing Authority (SRA) under rules established by the Secretary concerned. There is no requirement that the President submit a recommendation when a case is forwarded to the SRA. If the president makes a recommendation with respect to the character of or reason for discharge, however, the recommendation shall be prepared under the guidance in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Format for recommendation.</I> If a recommendation is provided, it shall contain the president's views whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both). If the president recommends such a change, the particular change to be made shall be specified. The recommendation shall set forth the president's position on decisional issues and issues submitted by the applicant under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adoption of the DRB's decisional document.</I> The recommendation may state that the president has adopted the decisional document prepared by the majority. The president shall ensure that the decisional document meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adoption of the specific statements from the majority.</I> If the President adopts the views of the majority only in part, the recommendation shall cite the specific matter adopted from the majority. If the president modifies a statement submitted by the majority, the recommendation shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Response to issues not included in matter adopted from the majority.</I> The recommendation shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the majority:
</P>
<P>(A) The issues on which the president's recommendation is based. Each such decisional issue shall be addressed by the president under paragraph (e) of this section,
</P>
<P>(B) The president's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Reasons for rejecting the conclusions of the majority with respect to decisional issues which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in greater relief for the applicant than that afforded by the president's recommendation. Suh issues shall be addressed under the principles in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Secretarial reviewing authority (SRA)</I>—(1) <I>Review by the SRA.</I> The Secretarial Reviewing Authority (SRA) is the Secretary concerned or the official to whom Secretary's discharge review authority has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(i) The SRA may review the following types of cases before issuance of the final notification of a decision:
</P>
<P>(A) Any specific case in which the SRA has an interest.
</P>
<P>(B) Any specific case that the president of the DRB believes is of significant interest to the SRA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cases reviewed by the SRA shall be considered under the standards set forth in § 70.9.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Processing the decisional document.</I> (i) The decisional document shall be transmitted by the DRB president under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following guidance applies to cases that have been forwarded to the SRA except for cases reviewed on the DRB's own motion without the participation of the applicant or the applicant's counsel:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicant and counsel or representative, if any, shall be provided with a copy of the proposed decisional document, including the DRB president's recommendation to the SRA, if any. Classified information shall be summarized.
</P>
<P>(B) The applicant shall be provided with a reasonable period of time, but not less than 25 days, to submit to the SRA a rebuttal. An issue in rebuttal consists of a clear and specific statement by the applicant in support of or in opposition to the statements of the DRB or DRB president on decisional issues and other clear and specific issues that were submitted by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section. The rebuttal shall be based solely on matters in the record before when the DRB closed the case for deliberation or in the president's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review of the decisional document.</I> If corrections in the decisional document are required, the decisional document shall be returned to the DRB for corrective action. The corrected decisional document shall be sent to the applicant (and counsel, if any), but a further opportunity for rebuttal is not required unless the correction produces a different result or includes a substantial change in the discussion by the DRB (or DRB president) of the issues raised by the majority or the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>The Addendum of the SRA.</I> The decision of the SRA shall be in writing and shall be appended as an addendum to the decisional document under the guidance in this subsection.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>The SRA's decision.</I> The addendum shall set forth the SRA's decision whether there will be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both); if the SRA concludes that a change is warranted, the particular change to be made shall be specified. If the SRA adopts the decision recommended by the DRB or the DRB president, the decisional document shall contain a reference to the matter adopted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discussion of issues.</I> In support of the SRA's decision, the addendum shall set forth the SRA's position on decisional issues, items submitted as issues by an applicant in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, and issues raised by the DRB and the DRB president in accordance with the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Adoption of the DRB president's recommendation.</I> The addendum may state that the SRA has adopted the DRB president's recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Adoption of the DRB's proposed decisional document.</I> The addendum may state that the SRA has adopted the proposed decisional document prepared by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Adoption of specific statements from the majority or the DRB president.</I> If the SRA adopts the views of the DRB or the DRB president only in part, the addendum shall cite the specific statements adopted. If the SRA modifies a statement submitted by the DRB or the DRB president, the addendum shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Response to issues not included in matter adopted from the DRB or the DRB president.</I> The addendum shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the DRB or the DRB president:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A list of the issues on which the SRA's decision is based. Each such decisional issue shall be addressed by the SRA under paragraph (e) of this section. This includes reasons for rejecting the conclusion of the DRB or the DRB president with respect to decisional issues which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in change to the discharge more favorable to the applicant than that afforded by the SRA's decision. Such issues shall be addressed under the principles in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The SRA's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Response to the rebuttal.</I> (A) If the SRA grants the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted, the decisional issues shall be addressed under paragraph (e) of this section, and no further response to the rebuttal is required.
</P>
<P>(B) If the SRA does not grant the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), the addendum shall list each issue in rebuttal submitted by an applicant in accordance with this section, and shall set forth the response of the SRA under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the SRA rejects an issue in rebuttal, the SRA may respond in accordance with the principles in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the matter adopted by the SRA provides a basis for the SRA's rejection of the rebuttal material, the SRA may note that fact and cite the specific matter adopted that responds to the issue in rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the matter submitted by the applicant does not meet the requirements for rebuttal material in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Index entries.</I> Appropriate index entries shall be prepared for the SRA's actions for matters that are not adopted from the DRB's proposed decisional document.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>The decisional document.</I> A decisional document shall be prepared for each review. At a minimum, this document shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The circumstances and character of the applicant's service as extracted from available service records, including health records, and information provided by other Government authorities or the applicant, such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Information concerning the discharge at issue in the review, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Date (YYMMDD) of discharge.
</P>
<P>(B) Character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(C) Reason for discharge.
</P>
<P>(D) The specific regulatory authority under which the discharge was issued.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date (YYMMDD) of enlistment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Period of enlistment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Age at enlistment.
</P>
<P>(v) Length of service.
</P>
<P>(vi) Periods of unauthorized absence.
</P>
<P>(vii) Conduct and efficiency ratings (numerical or narrative).
</P>
<P>(viii) Highest rank received.
</P>
<P>(ix) Awards and decorations.
</P>
<P>(x) Educational level.
</P>
<P>(xi) Aptitude test scores.
</P>
<P>(xii) Incidents of punishment pursuant to Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice (including nature and date (YYMMDD) of offense or punishment).
</P>
<P>(xiii) Convictions by court-martial.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Prior military service and type of discharge received.
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the type of documents submitted by or on behalf of the applicant (including a written brief, letters of recommendation, affidavits concerning the circumstances of the discharge, or other documentary evidence), if any.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement whether the applicant testified, and a list of the type of witnesses, if any, who testified on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) A notation whether the application pertained to the character of discharge, the reason for discharge, or both.
</P>
<P>(5) The DRB's conclusions on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the character of or reason for discharge should be changed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific changes to be made, if any.
</P>
<P>(6) A list of the items submitted as issues on DD Form 293 or expressly incorporated therein and such other items submitted as issues by the applicant that are identified as inadvertently omitted under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(D) of this section. If the issues are listed verbatim on DD Form 293, a copy of the relevant portion of the Form may be attached. Issues that have been withdrawn or modified with the consent of the applicant need not be listed.
</P>
<P>(7) The response to the items submitted as issues by the applicant under the guidance in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) A list of decisional issues and a discussion of such issues under the guidance in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) Minority views, if any, when authorized under rules of the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P>(10) The recommendation of the DRB president when required by paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) The addendum of the SRA when required by paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) Advisory opinions, including those containing factual information, when such opinions have been relied upon for final decision or have been accepted as a basis for rejecting any of the applicant's issues. Such advisory opinions or relevant portions thereof that are not fully set forth in the discussion of decisional issues or otherwise in response to items submitted as issues by the application shall be incorporated by reference. A copy of opinions incorporated by reference shall be appended to the decision and included in the record of proceedings.
</P>
<P>(13) A record of the voting, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of votes for the DRB's decision and the number of votes in the minority, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DRB member's names (last name, first name, M.I.) and votes. The copy provided to the applicant may substitute a statement that the names and votes will be made available to the applicant at the applicant's request.
</P>
<P>(14) Index entries for each decisional issue under appropriate categories listed in the index of decisions.
</P>
<P>(15) An authentication of the document by an appropriate official.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Issuance of decisions following discharge review.</I> The applicant and counsel or representative, if any, shall be provided with a copy of the decisional document and of any further action in review. The applicant (and counsel, if any) shall be notified of the availability of the complaint process under § 70.10. Final notification of decisions shall be issued to the applicant with a copy to the counsel or representative, if any, and to the Military Service concerned.
</P>
<P>(1) Notification to applicants, with copies to counsel or representatives, shall normally be made through the U.S. Postal Service. Such notification shall consist of a notification of decision, together with a copy of the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(2) Notification to the Military Services shall be for the purpose of appropriate action and inclusion of review matter in personnel records. Such notification shall bear appropriate certification of completeness and accuracy.
</P>
<P>(3) Actions on review by superior authority, when occurring, shall be provided to the applicant and counsel or representative in the same manner as the notification of the review decision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Record of DRB proceedings.</I> (1) When the proceedings in any review have been concluded, a record thereof will be prepared. Records may include written records, electromagnetic records, videotape recordings, or a combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) At a minimum, the record will include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The application for review;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of the testimony in verbatim, summarized, or recorded form at the option of the DRB concerned;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentary evidence or copies thereof, considered by the DRB other than the Military Service record;
</P>
<P>(iv) Briefs and arguments submitted by or on behalf of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) Advisory opinions considered by the DRB, if any;
</P>
<P>(vi) The findings, conclusions, and reasons developed by the DRB;
</P>
<P>(vii) Notification of the DRB's decision to the cognizant custodian of the applicant's records, or reference to the notification document;
</P>
<P>(viii) Minority reports, if any;
</P>
<P>(ix) A copy of the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Final disposition of the Record of Proceedings.</I> The original record of proceedings and all appendices thereto shall in all cases be incorporated in the Military Service record of the applicant and the Military Service record shall be returned to the custody of the appropriate records holding facility. If a portion of the original record of the proceedings cannot be stored with the Military Service record, the Military Service record shall contain a notation as to the place where the record is stored. Other copies shall be filed and disposed of in accordance with appropriate Military Service regulations.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Availability of Discharge Review Board documents for inspection and copying.</I> (1) A copy of the decisional document prepared in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section shall be made available for public inspection and copying promptly after a notice of final decision is sent to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, identifying details of the applicant and other persons will be deleted from documents made available for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(i) Names, addresses, social security numbers, and Military Service numbers must be deleted. Written justification shall be made for all other deletions and shall be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each DRB shall ensure that there is a means for relating a decisional document number to the name of the applicant to permit retrieval of the applicant's records when required in processing a complaint under § 70.10.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other privileged or classified material contained in or appended to any documents required by this part to be furnished the applicant and counsel or representative or made available for public inspection and copying may be deleted therefrom only if a written statement of the basis for the deletions is provided the applicant and counsel or representative and made available for public inspection. It is not intended that the statement be so detailed as to reveal the nature of the withheld material.
</P>
<P>(4) DRB documents made available for public inspection and copying shall be located in the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room. The documents shall be indexed in a usable and concise form so as to enable the public, and those who represent applicants before the DRBs, to isolate from all these decisions that are indexed, those cases that may be similar to an applicant's case and that indicate the circumstances under or reasons for (or both) which the DRB or the Secretary concerned granted or denied relief.
</P>
<P>(i) The reading file index shall include, in addition to any other items determined by the DRB, the case number, the date, character of, reason and authority for the discharge. It shall also include the decisions of the DRB and reviewing authority, if any, and the issues addressed in the statement of findings, conclusions, and reasons. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The index shall be maintained at selected permanent locations throughout the United States. This ensures reasonable availability to applicants at least 30 days before a traveling panel review. A list of these locations shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Department of the Army. The index shall also be made available at sites selected for traveling panels or hearing examinations for such periods as the DRB or a hearing examiner is present and in operation. An applicant who has requested a traveling panel review or a hearing examination shall be advised in the notice of such review of the permanent index locations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room shall publish indexes quarterly for all DRBs. All DRBs shall be responsible for timely submission to the Reading Room of individual case information required for update of the indexes. In addition, all DRBs shall be responsible for submission of new index categories based upon published changes in policy, procedures, or standards. These indexes shall be available for public inspection or purchase (or both) at the Reading Room. When the DRB has accepted an application, information concerning the availability of the index shall be provided in the DRB's response to the application.
</P>
<P>(iv) Copies of decisional documents will be provided to individuals or organizations outside the NCR in response to written requests for such documents. Although the Reading Room shall try to make timely responses to such requests, certain factors such as the length of a request, the volume of other pending requests, and the impact of other responsibilities of the staff assigned to such duties may cause some delays. A fee may be charged for such documents under appropriate DoD and Department of the Army directives and regulations. The manual that accompanies the index of decisions shall notify the public that if an applicant indicates that a review is scheduled for a specific date, an effort will be made to provide requested decisional documents before that date. The individual or organization will be advised if that cannot be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(v) Correspondence relating to matters under the cognizance of the Reading Room (including requests for purchase of indexes) shall be addressed to: DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Privacy Act information.</I> Information protected under the Privacy Act is involved in the discharge review functions. The provisions of part 286a of this title shall be observed throughout the processing of a request for review of discharge or dismissal.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Information requirement.</I> Each Military Department shall provide the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense (Military Personnel and Force Management) DASD (MP&amp;FM), Office of the ASD (MRA&amp;L), with a semiannual report of discharge review actions in accordance with § 70.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 37785, Aug. 26, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 9855, Mar. 9, 1983; 48 FR 35644, Aug. 5, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.9   Discharge review standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objective of review.</I> The objective of a discharge review is to examine the propriety and equity of the applicant's discharge and to effect changes, if necessary. The standards of review and the underlying factors that aid in determining whether the standards are met shall be historically consistent with criteria for determining honorable service. No factors shall be established that require automatic change or denial of a change in discharge. Neither a DRB nor the Secretary of the Military Department concerned shall be bound by any methodology of weighting of the factors in reaching a determination. In each case, the DRB or the Secretary of the Military Department concerned shall give full, fair, and impartial considerations to all applicable factors before reaching a decision. An applicant may not receive a less favorable discharge than that issued at the time of separation. This does not preclude correction of clerical errors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Propriety.</I> (1) A discharge shall be deemed proper unless, in the course of discharge review, it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) There exists an error of fact, law, procedure, or discretion associated with the discharge at the time of issuance; and that the rights of the applicant were prejudiced thereby (such error shall constitute prejudicial error if there is substantial doubt that the discharge would have remained the same if the error had not been made); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A change in policy by the Military Service of which the applicant was a member, made expressly retroactive to the type of discharge under consideration, requires a change in the discharge. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a record associated with the discharge at the time of issuance involves a matter in which the primary responsibility for corrective action rests with another organization (for example, another Board, agency, or court), the DRB will recognize an error only to the extent that the error has been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for correcting the record.
</P>
<P>(3) The primary function of the DRB is to exercise its discretion on issues of equity by reviewing the individual merits of each application on a case-by-case basis. Prior decisions in which the DRB exercised its discretion to change a discharge based on issues of equity (including the factors cited in such decisions or the weight given to factors in such decisions) do not bind the DRB in its review of subsequent cases because no two cases present the same issues of equity.
</P>
<P>(4) The following applies to applicants who received less than fully Honorable administrative discharges because of their civilian misconduct while in an inactive reserve component and who were discharged or had their discharge reviewed on or after April 20, 1971: the DRB shall either recharacterize the discharge to Honorable without any additional proceedings or additional proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Court's Order of December 3, 1981, in <I>Wood v. Secretary of Defense</I> to determine whether proper grounds exist for the issuance of a less than Honorable discharge, taking into account that; 
</P>
<P>(i) An Other than Honorable (formerly undesirable) Discharge for an inactive reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have affected directly the performance of military duties;
</P>
<P>(ii) A General Discharge for an inactive reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have had an adverse impact on the overall effectiveness of the military, including military morale and efficiency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equity.</I> A discharge shall be deemed to be equitable unless:
</P>
<P>(1) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that the policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a Service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Current policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded a respondent in such proceedings; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is substantial doubt that the applicant would have received the same discharge if relevant current policies and procedures had been available to the applicant at the time of the discharge proceedings under consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of issuance, the discharge was inconsistent with standards of discipline in the Military Service of which the applicant was a member.
</P>
<P>(3) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that relief is warranted based upon consideration of the applicant's service record and other evidence presented to the DRB viewed in conjunction with the factors listed in this section and the regulations under which the applicant was discharged, even though the discharge was determined to have been otherwise equitable and proper at the time of issuance. Areas of consideration include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Quality of service, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Service history, including date of enlistment, period of enlistment, highest rank achieved, conduct or efficiency ratings (numerical or narrative);
</P>
<P>(B) Awards and decorations;
</P>
<P>(C) Letters of commendation or reprimand;
</P>
<P>(D) Combat service;
</P>
<P>(E) Wounds received in action;
</P>
<P>(F) Records of promotions and demotions;
</P>
<P>(G) Level of responsibility at which the applicant served;
</P>
<P>(H) Other acts of merit that may not have resulted in a formal recognition through an award or commendation;
</P>
<P>(I) Length of service during the service period which is the subject of the discharge review;
</P>
<P>(J) Prior military service and type of discharge received or outstanding postservice conduct to the extent that such matters provide a basis for a more thorough understanding of the performance of the applicant during the period of service which is the subject of the discharge review;
</P>
<P>(K) Convictions by court-martial;
</P>
<P>(L) Records of nonjudicial punishment;
</P>
<P>(M) Convictions by civil authorities while a member of the Service, reflected in the discharge proceedings or otherwise noted in military service records;
</P>
<P>(N) Records of periods of unauthorized absence;
</P>
<P>(O) Records relating to a discharge instead of court-martial.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capability to serve, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Total capabilities.</I> This includes an evaluation of matters, such as age, educational level, and aptitude scores. Consideration may also be given whether the individual met normal military standards of acceptability for military service and similar indicators of an individual's ability to serve satisfactorily, as well as ability to adjust to military service.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Family and Personal Problems.</I> This includes matters in extenuation or mitigation of the reason for discharge that may have affected the applicant's ability to serve satisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Arbitrary or capricious action.</I> This includes actions by individuals in authority that constitute a clear abuse of such authority and that, although not amounting to prejudicial error, may have contributed to the decision to discharge or to the characterization of service.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Discrimination.</I> This includes unauthorized acts as documented by records or other evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.10   Complaints concerning decisional documents and index entries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The procedures in this section—are established for the sole purpose of ensuring that decisional documents and index entries issued by the DRBs of the Military Departments comply with the decisional document and index entry principles of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) This section may be modified or supplemented by the DASD(MP&amp;FM).
</P>
<P>(3) The following persons may submit complaints:
</P>
<P>(i) A former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) with respect to the decisional document issued in the former member's own case; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who states that correction of the decisional document will assist the former member in preparing for an administrative or judicial proceeding in which the former member's own discharge will be at issue.
</P>
<P>(4) The Department of Defense is committed to processing of complaints within the priorities and processing goals set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section. This commitment, however, is conditioned upon reasonable use of the complaint process under the following considerations. The DRBs were established for the benefit of former members of the Armed Forces. The complaint process can aid such persons most effectively if it is used by former members of the Armed Forces when necessary to obtain correction of their own decisional documents or to prepare for discharge reviews. If a substantial number of complaints submitted by others interferes with the ability of the DRBs to process applications for discharge review in a timely fashion, the Department of Defense will adjust the processing goals to ensure that the system operates to the primary advantage of applicants.
</P>
<P>(5) The DASD(MP&amp;FM) is the final authority with respect to action on such correspondence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Joint Service Review Activity (JSRA).</I> A three member JSRA consisting of one judge advocate from each Military Department shall advise the DASD(MP&amp;FM). The operations of the JSRA shall be coordinated by a full-time administrative director, who shall serve as recorder during meetings of the JSRA. The members and the administrative director shall serve at the direction of the DASD(MP&amp;FM).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification and control of correspondence</I>—(1) <I>Address of the JSRA.</I> Correspondence with the OSD concerning decisional documents or index entries issued by the DRBs shall be addressed as follows: Joint Service Review Activity, OASD(MRA&amp;L) (MP&amp;FM), Washington, DC 20301.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Docketing.</I> All such correspondence shall be controlled by the administrative director through the use of a uniform docketing procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification.</I> Correspondence shall be reviewed by the administrative director and categorized either as a complaint or an inquiry in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Complaints.</I> A complaint is any correspondence in which it is alleged that a decisional document issued by a DRB or SRA contains a specifically identified violation of the Stipulation of Dismissal, Settlement Agreement, or related Orders in the <I>Urban Law</I> case or the decisional document or index entry principles of this Directive. A complainant who alleges error with respect to a decisional document issued to another person is encouraged to set forth specifically the grounds for determining that a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process cannot understand the basis for the decision. <I>See</I> paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inquiries.</I> An inquiry is any correspondence other than a complaint.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of complaints</I>—(1) <I>Guidance.</I> The following guidance applies to review of complaints:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Standards.</I> Complaints shall be considered under the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>The applicant's case.</I> A complaint by an applicant with respect to the decisional document issued in the applicant's own discharge review shall be considered under the Stipulation of Dismissal in the <I>Urban Law</I> case and other decisional document requirements applicable at the time the document was issued, including those contained in the Settlement Agreement and related Orders, subject to any limitations set forth therein with respect to dates of applicability. If the authority empowered to take corrective action has a reasonable doubt whether a decisional document meets applicable requirements of the <I>Urban Law</I> case or other applicable rules, the complaint shall be resolved in the applicant's favor.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Other cases.</I> With respect to all other complaints, the standard shall be whether a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process can understand the basis for the decision, including the disposition of issues raised by the applicant. This standard is designed to ensure that the complaint process is not burdened with the need to correct minor errors in the preparation of decisional documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Use of DD Form 293.</I> With respect to any decisional document issued on or after November 27, 1982, a complaint alleging failure of the DRB to address adequately matter not submitted on DD Form 293 or expressly incorporated therein will be resolved in the complainant's favor only if the failure to address the issue was arbitrary, capricious, or an abuse of discretion.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Scope of review.</I> When a complaint concerns a specific issue in the applicant's own discharge review, the complaint review process shall involve a review of all the evidence that was before the DRB or SRA, including the testimony and written submissions of the applicant, to determine whether the issue was submitted, and if so, whether it was addressed adequately with respect to the Stipulation of Dismissal, Settlement Agreement, or related Orders in the <I>Urban Law</I> case and other applicable provisions of this Directive. With respect to all other complaints about specific issues, the complaint review process may be based solely on the decisional document, except when the complainant demonstrates that facts present in the review in question raise a reasonable likelihood of a violation of applicable provisions of the Stipulation of Dismissal and a reasonable person, familiar with the discharge review process, could resolve the complaint only after a review of the evidence that was before the DRB.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Allegations pertaining to an applicant's submission.</I> The following additional requirements apply to complaints about modification of an applicant's issue or the failure to list or address an applicant's issue:
</P>
<P>(A) When the complaint is submitted by the applicant, and the record of the hearing is ambiguous on the question whether there was a meeting of minds between the applicant and the DRB as to modification or omission of the issue, the ambiguity will be resolved in favor of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(B) When the complaint is submitted by a person other than the applicant, it must set forth facts (other than the mere omission or modification of an issue) demonstrating a reasonable likelihood that the issue was omitted or modified without the applicant's consent.
</P>
<P>(C) When the complaint is rejected on the basis of the presumption of regularity, the response to the complaint must be set forth the reasons why the evidence submitted by the complainant was not sufficient to overcome the presumption.
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to decisional documents issued on or after the effective date of the amendments to § 70.8, any change in wording of an applicant's issue which is effected in violation of the principles set forth in § 70.8(a)(5)(iii) constitutes an error requiring corrective action. With respect to a decisional document issued before that date, corrective action will be taken only when there has been a complaint by the applicant or counsel with respect to the applicant's own decisional document and it is determined that the wording was changed or the issue was omitted without the applicant's consent.
</P>
<P>(E) If there are references in the decisional document to matters not raised by the applicant and not otherwise relied upon in the decision, there is no requirement under the <I>Urban Law</I> case that such matters be accompanied by a statement of findings, conclusions, or reasons. For example, when the DRB discusses an aspect of the service record not raised as an issue by the applicant, and the issue is not a basis for the DRB's decision, the DRB is not required to discuss the reasons for declining to list that aspect of the service record as an issue.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Guidance as to other types of complaints.</I> The following guidance governs other specified types of complaints:
</P>
<P>(A) The Stipulation of Dismissal requires only that those facts that are essential to the decision be listed in the decisional document. The requirement for listing specified facts from the military record was not established until March 29, 1978, in 32 CFR part 70 Decisional documents issued prior to that date are sufficient if they meet the requirements of the Stipulation.
</P>
<P>(B) When an applicant submits a brief that contains material in support of a proposed conclusion on an issue, the DRB is not required to address each aspect of the supporting material in the brief. However, the decisional document should permit the applicant to understand the DRB's position on the issue and provide reviewing authorities with an explanation that is sufficient to permit review of the DRB's decision. When an applicant submits specific issues and later makes a statement before the DRB that contains matter in support of that issue, it is not necessary to list such supporting matter as a separate issue.
</P>
<P>(C) For all decisional documents issued before November 27, 1982, failure to respond to an issue raised by an applicant constitutes error unless it reasonably may be inferred from the record that the DRB response relied on one of the exceptions listed in § 70.8(d)(3)(ii); (e)(3)(ii)(C) (<I>3</I>) through (<I>4</I>) and (e)(6)(ii)(C) (<I>3</I>) through (<I>4</I>). If the decisional document supports a basis for not addressing an issue raised by the applicant (for example, if it is apparent that resolving the issue in the applicant's favor would not warrant an upgrade), there is no requirement in the Stipulation of Dismissal that the decisional document explain why the DRB did not address the issue. With respect to decisional documents issued on or after November 27, 1982, a response shall be prepared in accordance with the decisional document principles set forth in § 70.8.
</P>
<P>(D) When a case is reviewed upon request of an applicant, and the DRB upgrades the discharge to “General,” the DRB must provide reasons why it did not upgrade to “Honorable” unless the applicant expressly requests lesser relief. This requirement applies to all requests for corrective action submitted by an applicant with respect to his or her decisional document. In all other cases, this requirement applies to decisional documents issued on or after November 9, 1978. When the DRB upgrades to General, its explanation for not upgrading to Honorable may consist of reference to adverse matter from the applicant's military record. When a discharge is upgraded to General in a review on the DRB's own motion, there is no requirement to explain why the discharge was not upgraded to Honorable.
</P>
<P>(E) There is no requirement under the Stipulation of Dismissal to provide reasons for uncontested findings. The foregoing applies to decisional documents issued before November 27, 1982. With respect to decisional documents issued on or after that date, the following guidance applies with respect to an uncontested issue of fact that forms the basis for a grant or denial of a change in discharge: the decisional document shall list the specific source of information relied upon in reaching the conclusion, except when the information is listed in the portion of the decisional document that summarizes the service record.
</P>
<P>(F) The requirements of § 70.8(e)(3) (ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) and (e)(6) (ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) with respect to explaining use of the presumption of regularity apply only to decisional documents issued on or after November 27, 1982. When a complaint concerning a decisional document issued before that date addresses the adequacy of the DRB's use of the presumption of regularity, or words having a similar import, corrective action will be required only if a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process can not understand the basis for relying on the presumption.
</P>
<P>(G) When the DRB balances mitigating factors against aggravating factors as the reason for a conclusion, the Stipulation of Dismissal does not require the statement of reasons to set forth the specific factors that were balanced if such factors are otherwise apparent on the fact of the decisional document. The foregoing applies to decisional documents prepared before November 27, 1982. With respect to decisional documents prepared after that date, the statements addressing decisional issues in such a case will list or refer to the factors supporting the conclusion in accordance with § 70.8(e)(6)(ii).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Documents that were the subject of a prior complaint.</I> The following applies to a complaint concerning a decisional document that has been the subject of prior complaints:
</P>
<P>(A) If the complaint concerns a decisional document that was the subject of a prior complaint in which action was completed, the complainant will be informed of the substance and disposition of the prior complaint, and will be further informed that no additional action will be taken unless the complainant within 30 days demonstrates that the prior disposition did not produce a decisional document that comports with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If the complaint concerns a decisional document that is the subject of a pending complaint, the complainant will be informed that he or she will be provided with the results of the pending complaint.
</P>
<P>(C) These limitations do not apply to the initial complaint submitted on or after the effective date of the amendments to this section by an applicant with respect to his or her own decisional document.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duties of the administrative director.</I> The administrative director shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Acknowledge receipt of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assign a docket number and note the date of receipt; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Forward the complaint to the Military Department concerned, except that the case may be forwarded directly to the DASD (MP&amp;FM) when the administrative director makes an initial determination that corrective action is not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administrative processing.</I> The following guidance applies to administrative processing of complaints:
</P>
<P>(i) Complaints normally shall be processed on a first-in/first-out basis, subject to the availability of records, pending discharge review actions, and the following priorities:
</P>
<P>(A) The first priority category consists of cases in which (<I>1</I>) there is a pending discharge review and the complainant is the applicant; and (<I>2</I>) the complainant sets forth the relevance of the complaint to the complainant's pending discharge review application.
</P>
<P>(B) The second priority category consists of requests for correction of the decisional document in the complainant's own discharge review case.
</P>
<P>(C) The third priority category consists of complaints submitted by former members of the Armed Forces (or their counsel) who state that the complaint is submitted to assist the former member's submission of an application for review.
</P>
<P>(D) The fourth priority category consists of other complaints in which the complainant demonstrates that correction of the decisional document will substantially enhance the ability of applicants to present a significant issue to the DRBs.
</P>
<P>(E) The fifth priority category consists of all other cases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Complainants who request consideration in a priority category shall set forth in the complaint the facts that give rise to the claim of placement in the requested category. If the complaint is relevant to a pending discharge review in which the complainant is applicant or counsel, the scheduled date of the review should be specified.
</P>
<P>(iii) The administrative director is responsible for monitoring compliance with the following processing goals:
</P>
<P>(A) The administrative director normally shall forward correspondence to the Military Department concerned within 3 days after the date of receipt specified in the docket number. Correspondence forwarded directly to the DASD(MP&amp;FM) under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, normally shall be transmitted within 7 days after the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>(B) The Military Department normally shall request the necessary records within 5 working days after the date of receipt from the administrative director. The Military Department normally shall complete action under paragraph (d)(4) of this section within 45 days after receipt of all necessary records. If action by the Military Department is required under paragraph (d)(9) of this section, normally it shall be completed within 45 days after action is taken by the DASD(MP&amp;FM).
</P>
<P>(C) The JSRA normally shall complete action under paragraph (d)(7) of this section at the first monthly meeting held during any period commencing 10 days after the administrative director receives the action of the Military Department under paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The DASD(MP&amp;FM) normally shall complete action under paragraph (d)(8) of this section within 30 days after action is taken by the JSRA under paragraph (d)(7) of this section or by the administrative director under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) If action is not completed within the overall processing goals specified in this paragraph, the complainant shall be notified of the reason for the delay by the administrative director and shall be provided with an approximate date for completion of the action.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the complaints are submitted in any 30 day period with respect to more than 50 decisional documents, the administrative director shall adjust the processing goals in light of the number of complaints and discharge review applications pending before the DRBs.
</P>
<P>(v) At the end of each month, the administrative director shall send each Military Department a list of complaints, if any, in which action has not been completed within 60 days of the docket date. The Military Department shall inform the administrative director of the status of each case.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Review of complaints by the Military Departments.</I> The Military Department shall review the complaint under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Rejection of complaint.</I> If the Military Department determines that all the allegations contained in the complaint are not specific or have no merit, it shall address the allegations using the format at attachment 1 (Review of Complaint).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial agreement.</I> If the Military Department determines that some of the allegations contained in the complaint are not specific or have no merit and that some of the allegations contained in the complaint have merit, it shall address the allegations using the format at attachment 1 and its DRB shall take appropriate corrective action in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Full agreement.</I> If the Military Department determines that all of the allegations contained in the complaint have merit, its DRB shall take appropriate corrective action in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other defects.</I> If, during the course of its review, the Military Department notes any other defects in the decisional document or index entries (under the applicable requirements of the <I>Urban Law</I> case or under this part) the DRB shall take appropriate corrective action under paragraph (d)(4)(v) of this section. This does not establish a requirement for the Military Department to review a complaint for any purpose other than to determine whether the allegations contained in the complaint are specific and have merit; rather, it simply provides a format for the Military Department to address other defects noted during the course of processing the complaint.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Appropriate corrective action.</I> The following procedures govern appropriate corrective action:
</P>
<P>(A) If a complaint concerns the decisional document in the complainant's own discharge review case, appropriate corrective action consists of amending the decisional document or providing the complainant with an opportunity for a new discharge review. An amended decisional document will be provided if the applicant requests that form of corrective action.
</P>
<P>(B) If a complaint concerns a decisional document involving an initial record review under the Special Discharge Review Program or the Pub. L. 95-126 rereview program, appropriate corrective action consists of (<I>1</I>) amending the decisional document; or (<I>2</I>) notifying the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to obtain a priority review using the letter providing at attachment 6. When the DRB takes corrective action under this provision by amending a decisional document, it shall notify the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to request a <I>de novo</I> review under the Special Discharge Review Program or under Pub. L. 95-126 rereview program, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) When corrective action is taken with respect to a decisional document in cases prepared under Pub. L. 95-126 the DRB must address issues previously raised by the DRB or the applicant during review of the same case during the SDRP only insofar as required by the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the DRB bases its decision upon issues previously considered during the SDRP, the new decisional document under Pub. L. 95-126 must address those issues;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, during consideration of the case under Pub. L. 95-126 the applicant presents issues previously considered during the SDRP, the new decisional document must address those issues; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a decisional document concerning an initial record review under Pub. L. 95-126 is otherwise defective and corrective action is taken after a request by the applicant for a priority review in response to the letter at attachment 6, the new decisional document shall address all issues previously raised by the applicant during the SDRP. 
</P>
<P>(D) Except for cases falling under paragraph (d)(4)(v)(B) of this section, if a complaint concerns a decisional document in which the applicant received an Honorable Discharge and the full relief requested, if any, with respect to the reason for discharge, appropriate corrective action consists of amending the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(E) In all other cases, appropriate corrective action consists of amending the decisional document or providing the applicant with the opportunity for a new review, except that an amended decisional document will be provided when the complainant expressly requests that form of corrective action.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Amended decisional documents.</I> One that reflects a determination by a DRB panel (or the SRA) as to what the DRB panel (or SRA) that prepared the defective decisional document would have entered on the decisional document to support its decision in this case.
</P>
<P>(A) The action of the amending authority does not necessarily reflect substantive agreement with the decision of the original DRB panel (or SRA) on the merits of the case.
</P>
<P>(B) A corrected decisional document created by amending a decisional document in response to a complaint will be based upon the complete record before the DRB (or the SRA) at the time of the original defective statement was issued, including, if available, a transcript, tape recording, videotape or other record of a hearing, if any. The new decisional document will be indexed under categories relevant to the new statements.
</P>
<P>(C) When an amended decisional document is required under paragraphs (d)(4)(v)(A) and (d)(4)(v)(D) of this section and the necessary records cannot be located, a notation to that effect will be made on the decisional document, and the applicant and counsel, if any, will be afforded an opportunity for a new review, and the complainant will be informed of the action.
</P>
<P>(D) When an amended decisional document is requested under paragraph (d)(4)(v)(C) and the necessary records cannot be located, a notation to that effect will be made on the decisional document, and the complainant will be informed that the situation precludes further action.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Time limit for requesting a new review.</I> An applicant who is afforded an opportunity to request a new review may do so within 45 days.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Interim notification.</I> When the Military Department determines that some or all of the allegations contained in the complaint are not specific or have no merit but its DRB takes corrective action under paragraph (d)(4)(ii) or (d)(4)(iv) of this section, the DRB's notification to the applicant and counsel, if any, and to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel, should include the following or similar wording: “This is in partial response to (your)/(a) complaint to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) dated ________ concerning ________ Discharge Review Board decisional document ________. A final response to (your)/(the) complaint, which has been returned to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) for further review, will be provided to you in the near future.”
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Final notification.</I> When the Discharge Review Board takes corrective action under paragraphs (d)(4)(iii) and (d)(9) of this section ________ its notification to the applicant and counsel, if any, and to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel, should include the following or similar wording: “This is in response to (your)/(a) complaint to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) dated ________ concerning ________ Discharge Review Board decisional document ________.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transmittal to the administrative director.</I> The Military Department shall return the complaint to the administrative Director with a copy of the decisional document and, when applicable, any of the following documents:
</P>
<P>(i) The “Review of Complaint.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the amendment to the decisional document and the accompanying transmittal letter or letters to the applicant and counsel, if any, and to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel.
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the notification to the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to request a new review, and a copy of the notification to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel, that the applicant has been authorized a new review.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review by the administrative director.</I> The administrative director shall review the complaint and accompanying documents to ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Military Department determined that any of the allegations contained in the complaint are not specific or have no merit, the JSRA shall review the complaint and accompanying documents. The JSRA shall address the allegations using the format at attachment 2 (Review of and Recommended Action on Complaint) and shall note any other defects in the decisional document or index entries not previously noted by the Military Department. This does not establish a requirement for the JSRA to review such complaints for any purpose other than to address the allegations contained in the complaint; rather, it simply provides a format for the JSRA to address other defects noted in the course of processing the complaint.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Military Department determined that all of the allegations contained in the complaint have merit and its DRB amended the decisional document, the amended decisional document shall be subject to review by the JSRA on a sample basis each quarter using the format at attachment 3 (Review of any Recommendation on Amended Decisional Document).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Military Department determined that all of the allegations contained in the complaint have merit and its DRB notified the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to request a new review, review of such corrective action is not required.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Review by the JSRA.</I> The JSRA shall meet for the purpose of conducting the reviews required in paragraphs (d)(6)(i), (d)(6)(ii), and (d)(9)(iii)(A) of this section. The Administrative director shall call meetings once a month, if necessary, or more frequently depending upon the number of matters before the JSRA. Matters before the JSRA shall be presented to the members by the recorder. Each member shall have one vote in determining matters before the JSRA, a majority vote of the members determining all matters. Determinations of the JSRA shall be reported to the DASD(MP&amp;FM) as JSRA recommendations using the prescribed format. If a JSRA recommendation is not unanimous, the minority member may prepare a separate recommendation for consideration by the DASD(MP&amp;FM) using the same format. Alternatively, the minority member may indicate “dissent” next to his signature on the JSRA recommendation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Review by the DASD(MP&amp;FM).</I> The DASD(MP&amp;FM) shall review all recommendations of the JSRA and the administrative director as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The DASD(MP&amp;FM) shall review complaints using the format at Attachment 4 (Review of and Action on Complaint). The DASD(MP&amp;FM) is the final authority in determining whether the allegations contained in a complaint are specific and have merit. If the DASD(MP&amp;FM) determines that no further action by the Military Department is warranted, the complainant and the Military Department shall be so informed. If the DASD(MP&amp;FM) determines that further action by the Military Department is required, the Military Department shall be directed to ensure that appropriate corrective action is taken by its DRB and the complainant shall be provided an appropriate interim response.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DASD(MP&amp;FM) shall review amended decisional documents using the format at attachment 5 (Review of and Action on Amended Decisional Document). The DASD(MP&amp;FM) is the final authority in determining whether an amended decisional document complies with applicable requirements of the <I>Urban Law</I> case and, when applicable, this Directive. If the DASD(MP&amp;FM) determines that no further corrective action by the Military Department is warranted, the Military Department shall be so informed. If the DASD(MP&amp;FM) determines that further corrective action by the Military Department is required, the Military Department shall be directed to ensure that appropriate corrective action is taken by its DRB.
</P>
<P>(iii) It is noted that any violation of applicable requirements of the <I>Urban Law</I> case is also a violation of this part. However, certain requirements under this part are not requirements under the <I>Urban Law</I> case. If the allegations contained in a complaint are determined to have merit or if an amended decisional document is determined to be defective on the basis of one of these additional requirements under this part the DASD(MP&amp;FM) determination shall reflect this fact.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Further action by the Military Department.</I> (i) With respect to a determination by the DASD (MP&amp;FM) that further action by the Military Department is required, its DRB shall take appropriate corrective action in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Military Department shall provide the administrative director with the following documents when relevant to corrective action taken in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the amendment to the decisional document and the accompanying transmittal letter or letters to the applicant and counsel, if any, and to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel.
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the notification to the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to request a new review, and a copy of the notification to the complainant, if other than the applicant or counsel, that the applicant has been authorized a new review.
</P>
<P>(iii) The administrative director shall review the documents relevant to corrective action taken in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section, and ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(A) If the DRB amended the decisional document, the amended decisional document shall be subject to review by the JSRA on a sample basis each quarter using the format at attachment 3 (Review of and Recommended Action on Amended Decisional Document).
</P>
<P>(B) If the DRB notified the applicant and counsel, if any, of the opportunity to request a new review, review of such corrective action is not required.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Documents required by the JSRA or DASD (MP&amp;FM).</I> Upon request, the Military Department shall provide the administrative director with other documents required by the JSRA or the DASD (MP&amp;FM) in the conduct of their reviews.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responses to inquiries.</I> The following procedures shall be used in processing inquiries:
</P>
<P>(1) The administrative director shall assign a docket number to the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative director shall forward the inquiry to the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P>(3) The Military Department shall prepare a response to the inquiry and provide the administrative director with a copy of the response.
</P>
<P>(4) The Military Department's response shall include the following or similar wording: “This is in response to your inquiry to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) dated ________ concerning ________.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Indexing.</I> The DRB concerned shall reindex all amended decisional documents and shall provide copies of the amendments to the decisional documents to the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disposition of documents.</I> The administrative director is responsible for the disposition of all Military Department, DRB, JSRA, and DASD (MP&amp;FM) documents relevant to processing complaints and inquiries.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Referral by the General Counsel, Department of Defense.</I> The Stipulation of Dismissal permits <I>Urban Law</I> plaintiffs to submit complaints to the General Counsel, DoD, for comment. The General Counsel, DoD, may refer such complaints to the Military Department concerned or to the JSRA for initial comment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decisional document and index entry principles.</I> The DASD (MP&amp;FM) shall identify significant principles concerning the preparation of decisional documents and index entries as derived from decisions under this section and other opinions of the Office of General Counsel, DoD. This review shall be completed not later than October 1 and April 1 of each year, or more frequently if deemed appropriate by the DASD (MP&amp;FM). The significant principles identified in the review shall be coordinated as proposed as amendments to the sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Implementation of amendments.</I> The following governs the processing of any correspondence that is docketed prior to the effective date of amendments to this section except as otherwise provided in such amendments:
</P>
<P>(1) Any further action on the correspondence shall be taken in accordance with the amendments; and
</P>
<P>(2) No revision of any action taken prior to the effective date of such amendments is required.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Attachment 1—Review of Complaint
</HD1>
<HD2>Military Department:
</HD2>
<HD2>Decisional Document Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Complainant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Docket Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Date of this Review:
</HD2>
<P>1. Specific allegation(s) noted:
</P>
<P>2. With respect in support of the conclusion, enter the following information:
</P>
<P>a. Conclusion whether corrective action is required.
</P>
<P>b. Reasons in support of the conclusion, including findings of fact upon which the conclusion is based.
</P>
<P>3. Other defects noted in the decisional document or index entries:
</P>
<FP>(Authentication)
</FP>
<HD1>Attachment 2—Joint Service Review Activity
</HD1>
<HD2>Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)
</HD2>
<HD3>Review by the Joint Service Review Activity
</HD3>
<HD2>Military Department:
</HD2>
<HD2>Decisional Document Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Complainant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Applicant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Docket Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Date of this Review:
</HD2>
<P>1. The Military Department's “Review of Complaint” is attached as enclosure 1.
</P>
<P>2. Specific Allegations: See part 1 of Military Department's “Review of Complaint” (enclosure 1).
</P>
<P>3. Specific allegation(s) not noted by the Military Department:
</P>
<P>4. With respect to each allegation, enter the following information:
</P>
<P>a. Conclusion as to whether corrective action is required.
</P>
<P>b. Reasons in support of the conclusion, including findings of fact upon which conclusion is based.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note.</HED>
<P>If JSRA agrees with the Military Departments, the JSRA may respond by entering a statement of adoption.</P></NOTE>
<P>5. Other defects in the decisional document or index entries not noted by the Military Departments:
</P>
<P>6. <I>Recommendation:</I>
</P>
<P>[ ] The complainant and the Military Department should be informed that no further action on the complaint is warranted.
</P>
<P>[ ] The Military Department should be directed to take corrective action consistent with the above comments.
</P>
<FP>Army Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Air Force Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Navy Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Recorder, JSRA
</FP>
<HD1>Attachment 3—Joint Service Review Activity
</HD1>
<HD2>Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)
</HD2>
<HD3>Review of Amended Decisional Document (Quarterly Review)
</HD3>
<HD2>Military Department:
</HD2>
<HD2>Decisional Document Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Complainant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Applicant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Docket Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Date of this Review:
</HD2>
<HD2>Recommendation:
</HD2>
<P>[ ] The amended decisional document complies with the requirements of the Stipulation of Dismissal and, when applicable, DoD Directive 1332.28. The Military Department should be informed that no further corrective action is warranted.
</P>
<P>[ ] The amended decisional document does not comply with the Stipulation of Dismissal or DoD Directive 1332.28 as noted herein. The Military Department should be directed to ensure that corrective action consistent with the defects noted is taken by its Discharge Review Board.
</P>
<FP>Army Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Air Force Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Navy Member, JSRA
</FP>
<FP>Recorder, JSRA
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Yes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. <E T="03">Date of discharge</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.1.; Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(1)(d)(i) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Date of discharge
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Character of discharge
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Reason for discharge
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">d. Specific regulatory authority under which discharge was issued
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. <E T="03">Service data.</E> (This requirement applies only in conjunction with Military Department Implementation of General Counsel, DoD, letter dated July 20, 1977, or to discharge reviews conducted on or after March 29, 1978.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.1.; Annex B, (June ____, 1982) para. 2-2 (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Date of enlistment
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Period of enlistment
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Age at enlistment
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">d. Length of service
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">e. Periods of unauthorized absence*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">f. Conduct and efficiency ratings (numerical and narrative)*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">g. Highest rank achieved
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">h. Awards and decorations*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">i. Educational level
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">j. Aptitude test scores
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">k. Art. 15s (including nature and date of offense or punishment)*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">l. Convictions by court-martial*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">m. Prior military service and type of discharge(s) received*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3. <E T="03">Reference to materials presented by applicant.</E> (This requirement applies only to discharge reviews conducted on or after March 29, 1978.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.2.; H.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Written brief*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Documentary evidence*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Testimony*
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4. <E T="03">Items submitted as issues.</E> (See issues worksheet)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5. <E T="03">Conclusions.</E> The decisional document must indicate clearly the DRB's conclusion concerning:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5. Dod Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.5.; Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977), paragraph 5.A.(1)(d)(iv) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Determination of whether a discharge upgraded under SDRP would have been upgraded under DoD Directive 1332.28. (This applies only to mandatory reviews under P.L. 95-126 or Special Discharge Review Program (SDRP)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Character of discharge, when applicable 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Reason for discharge, when applicable 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6. <E T="03">Reasons for conclusions.</E> The decisional document must list and discuss the items submitted as issues by the applicant; and list and discuss the decisional issues providing the basis for the DRB's conclusion concerning:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.7., H.8.; Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(1)(d)(v) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Whether a discharge upgraded under the SDRP would have been upgraded under DoD Directive 1332.28. (This applies only to mandatory rereviews under P.L. 95-126 or SDRP reviews.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Character of discharge, where applicable 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Reason for discharge, where applicable 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7. <E T="03">Advisory opinions</E>*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.12., Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(1)(f) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8. <E T="03">Recommendation of DRB President</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.12., Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(1)(g) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9. <E T="03">A record of voting</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.13., Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(3) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10. <E T="03">Indexing of decisional document</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.14., Stipulation (Jan. 31, 1977) para. 5.A.(5)(a) (reference (1)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11. <E T="03">Authentication of decisional document.</E> (This requirement applies only to discharge reviews conducted on or after March 29, 1978.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11. DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection H.15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12. <E T="03">Other</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12. As appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row">Explanation of items marked “No.”
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">    Key:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Yes: The decisional document meets the requirements of the Stipulation of Dismissal and, when applicable, DoD Directive 1332.28.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">No: The decisional document does not meet the requirements of the Stipulation of Dismissal or DoD Directive 1332.28.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NA: Not applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*Items marked by an asterisk do not necessarily pertain to each review. If the decisional document contains no reference to such an item, NA shall be indicated. When there is a specific complaint with respect to an item, the underlying discharge review record shall be examined to address the complaint.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> In this instance “when applicable” means all reviews except:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Mandatory rereviews under P.L. 95-126 or SDRP reviews.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Reviews in which the applicant requested only a change in the reason for discharge and the DRB did not raise the character of discharge as a decisional issue.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> In this instance “when applicable” means all reviews in which:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. The applicant requested a change in the reason for discharge.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. The DRB raised the reason for discharge as a decisional issue.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. A change in the reason for discharge is a necessary component of a change in the character of discharge.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Attachment 4—Issues Worksheets 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Listed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Addressed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Corrective action required
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. Decisional issues providing a basis for the conclusion regarding a change in the character of or reason for discharge. (DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection D.2):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Items submitted as issues by the applicant that are not identified as decisional issues. (DoD Directive 1332.28, enclosure 3, subsection D.3):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">☐
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Remarks:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This review may be made based upon the decisional document without reference to the underlying discharge review record except as follows: if there is an allegation that a specific contention made by the applicant to the DRB was not addressed by the DRB. In such a case, the complaint review process shall involve a review of all the evidence that was before the DRB, including the testimony and written submissions of the applicant, to determine whether the contention was made, and if so, whether it was addressed adequately with respect to the Stipulation of Dismissal and, when applicable, DoD Directive 1332.28.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">This review may be based upon the decisional document without reference to the regulation governing the discharge in question except as follows: if there is a specific complaint that the DRB failed to address a specific factor required by applicable regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the discharge in question [where such factors are a basis for denial of any of the relief requested by the applicant]. (The material in brackets pertains only to discharge reviews conducted on or before March 28, 1978.)</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Attachment 5—Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)
</HD1>
<HD2>Review of Complaint (DASD(MP&amp;FM))
</HD2>
<HD2>Military Department:
</HD2>
<HD2>Decisional Document Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Complainant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Applicant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Docket Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Date of this Review:
</HD2>
<P>1. Each allegation is addressed as follows:
</P>
<P>a. Allegation.
</P>
<P>b. Conclusion whether corrective action is required.
</P>
<P>c. Reasons in support of the conclusion, including findings of fact upon which the conclusion is based.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the DASD(MP&amp;FM) agrees with the JSRA, he may respond by entering a statement of adoption.</P></NOTE>
<P>2. Other defects noted in the decisional document or index entries:
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determinations:</I>
</P>
<P>[ ] No further action on the complaint is warranted.
</P>
<P>[ ] Corrective action consistent with the above comments is required.
</P>
<FP>Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense
</FP>
<FP>(Military Personnel &amp; Force Management)
</FP>
<HD1>Attachment 6—Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)
</HD1>
<HD2>Review of Amended Decisional Document (DASD (MP&amp;FM))
</HD2>
<HD2>Military Department:
</HD2>
<HD2>Decisional Document Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Complainant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Name of Applicant:
</HD2>
<HD2>Docket Number:
</HD2>
<HD2>Date of this Review:
</HD2>
<HD2>Recommendation:
</HD2>
<P>[ ] The amended decisional document complies with the requirements of the Stipulation of Dismissal and, when applicable, DoD Directive 1332.28. No further corrective action is warranted.
</P>
<P>[ ] The amended decisional document does not comply with the Stipulation of Dismissal or DoD Directive 1332.28 as noted herein. Further corrective action is required consistent with the defects noted in the attachment.
</P>
<FP>Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense
</FP>
<FP>(Military Personnel &amp; Force Management)
</FP>
<FP>Remarks:
</FP>
<HD1>Attachment 7
</HD1>
<FP>Dear ______:
</FP>
<P>It has been determined that the decisional document issued in your case by the (Army) (Navy) (Air Force) Discharge Review Board during the (Special Discharge Review Program) (rereview program under Pub. L. No. 95-126) should be reissued to improve the clarity of the statement of findings, conclusions, and reasons for the decision in your case. 
</P>
<P>In order to obtain a new decisional document you may elect one of the following options to receive a new review under the (Special Discharge Review Program) (rereview program mandated by Pub. L. No. 95-126):
</P>
<P>1. You may request a new review, including a personal appearance hearing if you so desire, by responding on or before the suspense date noted at the top of this letter. Taking this action will provide you with a priority review before all other classes of cases.
</P>
<P>2. You may request correction of the original decisional document issued to you by responding on or before the suspense date noted at the top of this letter. After you receive a corrected decisional document, you will be entitled to request a new review, including a personal appearance hearing if you so desire. If you request correction of the original decisional document, you will not receive priority processing in terms of correcting your decisional document or providing you with a new review; instead, your case will be handled in accordance with standard processing procedures, which may mean a delay of several months or more.
</P>
<P>If you do not respond by the suspense date noted at the top of this letter, no action will be taken. If you subsequently submit a complaint about this decisional document, it will be processed in accordance with standard procedures.
</P>
<P>To ensure prompt and accurate processing of your request, please fill out the form below, cut it off at the dotted line, and return it to the Discharge Review Board of the Military Department in which you served at the address listed at the top of this letter.
</P>
<FP>Check only one:
</FP>
<P>[ ] I request a new review of my case on a priority basis. I am requesting this priority review rather than requesting correction of the decisional document previously issued to me. I have enclosed DD Form 293 as an application for my new review.
</P>
<P>[ ] I request correction of the decisional document previously issued to me. I understand that this does not entitle me to priority action in correcting my decisional document. I also understand that I will be able to obtain a further review of my case upon my request after receiving the corrected decisional document, but that such a review will not be held on a priority basis.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Dates
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signatures
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Printed Name and Address
</FP>
<FP-DASH></FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 37785, Aug. 26, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 9856, Mar. 9, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.25.0.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.11   DoD semiannual report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Semiannual reports will be submitted by the 20th of April and October for the preceding 6-month reporting period (October 1 through March 31 and April 1 through September 30).
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting period will be inclusive from the first through the last days of each reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) The report will contain four parts:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Part 1.</I> Regular Cases.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Part 2.</I> Reconsideration of President Ford's Memorandum of January 19, 1977, and Special Discharge Review Program Cases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Part 3.</I> Cases Heard under Pub. L. 95-126 by waiver of 10 U.S.C. 1553, with regard to the statute of limitations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Part 4.</I> Total Cases Heard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Semiannual DRB Report—RCS DD-M(SA) 1489; Summary of Statistics for Discharge Review Board (FY  )
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Sample format]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Name of board
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Nonpersonal appearance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Personal appearance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Total
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent approved
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent approved
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
<br/>approved
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">  Identify numbers separately for traveling panels, regional panels, or hearing examiners, as appropriate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">  Use of additional footnotes to clarify or amplify the statistics being reported is encouraged.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="73" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 73—DOD DISCHARGE APPEAL REVIEW BOARD (DARB)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1553a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 94610, Nov. 29, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the DARB as the administrative body to conduct a final review of a petitioner's request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1553a. This part also provides the procedures for Service members (or their representatives) to request a final review, the standards that the DARB will apply when it reviews a petitioner's request, and the procedures following the DARB's recommended disposition of a request.
</P>
<P>(b) The DARB ensures that DoD-level policies, procedures, and standards related to the review of discharges and dismissals are uniformly and consistently applied across the military services. Reporting of the number of upgrades granted or denied pursuant to this final review process will also be made available for public inspection through the DoD Reading Room available at <I>https://boards.law.af.mil.</I> The term “Military Department” as used here in this part includes the Coast Guard. The terms, “Military Services,” and “Armed Forces,” refers to the Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Air Force, and Space Force.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Case file records.</I> All records that members of the BCM/NR have access to, not limited to what the BCM/NR analyst presents to the DARB. These records necessarily include the record of proceedings, exhibits, and findings and decisions of both the BCM/NR and DRB.
</P>
<P><I>Characterization of a discharge or dismissal.</I> The characterization of a discharge or dismissal is a determination reflecting a Service member's conduct and performance of duty while in military service during a specific period of military service. Administrative discharges can be characterized as honorable, general (under honorable conditions), other than honorable conditions, or can be described as uncharacterized (as in an entry-level separation). If a discharge is adjudged at a court-martial, the assigned characterization may be a bad-conduct discharge, or dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal. The term characterization of a discharge or dismissal is also referred to as a “character of discharge” or “character of service.”
</P>
<P><I>Characterization of less than honorable.</I> A characterization that is less than honorable includes a general under honorable conditions, other than honorable conditions, uncharacterized, bad-conduct discharge, dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal.
</P>
<P><I>DARB member.</I> A person authorized to review a DARB request and make a recommendation to the DARB president on whether the petitioner's request for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal should be granted, partially granted, or denied.
</P>
<P><I>Discharge Appeal Review Board (DARB).</I> An administrative board constituted by the Secretary of Defense and vested with the authority to conduct a final review of a request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1553a.
</P>
<P><I>Exhausted all remedies available.</I> Petitioner requested an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal and presented all evidence and arguments in support of their request to their respective Military Department's DRB and BCM/NR, including any materials not previously presented or considered by the board in making such determination when requesting reconsideration by the Military Department BCM/NR.
</P>
<P><I>Final review.</I> The process by which a petitioner's request for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal that was not granted at the respective Military Department's DRB and BCM/NR after the petitioner exhausted all remedies available to the petitioner is evaluated.
</P>
<P><I>New information.</I> Material not previously presented to, or considered by, the appropriate Military Department's BCM/NR.
</P>
<P><I>Petitioner.</I> A member or former member of the Armed Forces whose request for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal was not granted by the relevant Military Department's DRB and BCM/NR. If the member or former member is deceased or legally incompetent, the term “petitioner” includes the surviving spouse, next-of-kin, or legal representative who is acting on behalf of the member or former member. The term “petitioner” also includes a member or former member of the Armed Forces' counsel.
</P>
<P><I>Preponderance of the evidence.</I> A standard of proof, evidence which as a whole shows that the fact sought to be proved is more probable than not.
</P>
<P><I>Record review.</I> A review of the Service member's case file records.
</P>
<P><I>Service member.</I> A member or former member of the Armed Forces.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3   Membership and designation.</HEAD>
<P>The DARB is set up independently from the Military Departments' DRBs and BCM/NRs. The DARB is comprised of civilian government employees and consists of a President, Deputy Director, and at least three members for each panel. The DARB President and Deputy Director are appointed as inferior officers by the Secretary of Defense. The Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF), as the designated lead agent for the DARB, appoints DARB members and assigns them to a panel(s).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(P&amp;R) is responsible for directing the implementation of the DARB and serves as the Principal Staff Assistant with oversight of the DARB process, policies, procedures, and standards for the final review of a request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal under 10 U.S.C. 1553a. The USD(P&amp;R) must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that petitioners are afforded an opportunity to request a final review of their requests for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissals consistent with 10 U.S.C. 1553a;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that Secretary of Defense appoints the DARB President and DARB Deputy Director as inferior officers;
</P>
<P>(3) Review and approve any DARB or DARB-related policies or procedures that the Secretaries of the Military Departments or the DARB President develops before implementation of such policies or procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) Resolve all issues concerning the DARB that cannot be resolved between the DARB President and the Secretaries of the Military Departments; and
</P>
<P>(5) Modify or supplement this part as necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments have the authority to approve, partially approve, or disapprove a DARB's recommendation to upgrade or partially upgrade a petitioner's characterization of a discharge or dismissal. The Secretary of the Military Department's decision is the final agency action. If an upgrade or partial upgrade is approved, the Secretary of the Military Department is responsible for ensuring that all necessary administrative actions are taken to effect the change, including issuance of a new or corrected DD 214.
</P>
<P>(c) SECAF is responsible for the formation, operation, and management of the DARB. The SECAF must:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint DARB members to a panels and assign cases to ensure reviews are conducted in an impartial manner;
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint other staff as necessary for intake procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) Respond to all inquiries from private individuals, organizations, or public officials about DARB matters. When the specific Military Service can be identified, refer such correspondence to the appropriate Secretary of the Military Department; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure the timely online publication of annual reports as required by section 523 of the FY 2020 NDAA, Public Law 116-92.
</P>
<P>(d) The DARB President is responsible for administrating and overseeing the DARB. The DARB President may delegate their authority to the Deputy Director of the DARB, but no further delegation is authorized. The DARB President shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Review a DARB panel's recommendation and provide the final adjudication of the DARB recommendation regarding a petitioner's request for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop policy, procedures, and evaluation standards for the DARB, subject to review and approval by the SECAF and the USD(P&amp;R) before implementation of such policy, procedures, and evaluation standards.
</P>
<P>(e) The DARB Deputy Director is responsible for managing the DARB's day-to-day operations.
</P>
<P>(f) A DARB panel considers a petitioner's final review request properly brought before it, is responsible for performing a record review, applying DoD policies and standards, and if appropriate will make a recommendation to the DARB President on whether a petitioner's request for an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal should be granted, partially granted, or denied.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.5   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who is eligible for a final review?</I> To be eligible for a final review, the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The Service member's date of discharge or dismissal was on or after December 20, 2019;
</P>
<P>(2) Service member received a less than honorable characterization of service at the time of discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(3) All remedies available have been exhausted at the respective Military Department's DRB and BCM/NR; and
</P>
<P>(4) The request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal was denied or it was only partially granted at the respective Military Department's BCM/NR.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request a final review?</I> (1) In most cases, the petitioner is the Service member, and the final review relates to their military service records.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Service member is deceased or legally incompetent and incapable of acting on their own behalf, a spouse, next of kin, or legal representative may be able to act on behalf of the Service member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When can a petitioner request a final review?</I> (1) Petitioners must first exhaust all available remedies at their respective Military Department's DRB and BCM/NR before requesting a final review. The DARB will return an unexhausted request to the petitioner without considering it.
</P>
<P>(2) After exhausting their administrative remedies, Petitioners must request a final review within 365 calendar days after the date of receipt of their respective Military Department's BCM/NR decision. The DARB may deny an untimely request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How does a petitioner make a final review request?</I> (1) A request must be made in writing, but the completion of a DoD form is not required to request a final review. An email or letter requesting a final review is sufficient to make a request. Sample templates to request a final review can be accessed at <I>https://afrba-portal.cce.af.mil/#application-submission-darb.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The contents of a request must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) the petitioner's name, address, telephone number, and email address;
</P>
<P>(ii) the Service member's name if represented by counsel or a representative; and
</P>
<P>(iii) the BCM/NR docket number to assist the DARB in obtaining records from the respective Military Department's BCM/NR. If this information is not provided, the DARB may return the request without considering it.
</P>
<P>(3) Additional documentation may be needed in support of a request for review by the DARB. If requesting a final review on behalf of a Service member, proof of status or relationship documents are required and must be enclosed or attached to a request for a final review. Proof of status or relationship documentation may include a death certificate, marriage license, divorce decree, birth certificate, notarized power of attorney, and court appointment of conservatorship or guardianship. The DARB will return the request to the petitioner without considering it when a proper relationship to a Service member has not been shown.
</P>
<P>(4) If there is new information in support of a request to upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal, the DARB cannot review it. If the petitioner has new information, the petitioner must first seek reconsideration from the appropriate Military Department's BCM/NR to exhaust all remedies available.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where do petitioners send a final review request?</I> Petitioners may submit a request for a final review by mail or email. Requests by email are preferred and should be sent to the following address: <I>saf.mr.darb@us.af.mil.</I> Requests by mail should be sent to the following address: Air Force Review Boards Agency, SAF/MRBD (DARB), 3351 Celmers Lane, Joint Base Andrews, MD 20762-6435.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How do petitioners withdraw a final review request?</I> Petitioners may withdraw a request for a final review in writing at any time before the DARB panel's scheduled review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.6   Review procedures and standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Intake of final review requests.</I> (1) Before conducting a final review, DARB personnel will review submitted requests to ensure eligibility for a final review.
</P>
<P>(2) DARB personnel will provide notification to the petitioner to confirm receipt of the final review request. If it is determined that the petitioner is ineligible for a final review, DARB personnel will also notify the petitioner in writing of the reason(s) their request did not qualify for a final review.
</P>
<P>(3) Once a case intake is complete, DARB personnel will access or request case file records from the respective Military Department's BCM/NR and assign a DARB panel to consider the final review request.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is determined that a petitioner's case involves the adjudication of a Mental Health condition, a military or civilian health care provider will review the case file records to determine if a medical advisory opinion is required and missing. If the case file is missing a medical advisory opinion or other pertinent information the case will be returned the Military Department's BCM/NR for reconsideration or a document request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consideration of final review requests</I>—(1) <I>Scope of review.</I> The DARB's review is limited to the case file records related to a petitioner's request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal. The DARB is not authorized to review or address new information provided by a petitioner in support of a request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard of review.</I> In considering a petitioner's request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal, the DARB will review the Military Department's BCM/NR decision <I>de novo.</I> The DARB independently reviews the case file records, applies DoD discharge review polices and standards and applicable Military Service policies, and recommends an upgrade, if appropriate. This new review occurs without giving any deference to the Military Department's BCM/NR findings and decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DARB panel adjudication.</I> The DARB panel will consider the petitioner's request and case file records, examine pertinent DoD and Military Service regulations and policies, discuss the case and issues, and vote to determine whether a petitioner's request for an upgrade in the characterization of a discharge or dismissal should be granted, partially granted, or denied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>DARB panel recommendation.</I> A majority vote constitutes the recommended action of the DARB panel. The DARB panel will provide a written recommendation including the number of votes and any minority votes and their reason(s) for their recommendation. The written recommendation must provide a basis for their decision to deny a request to upgrade, to partially upgrade, or to fully upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal. The DARB panel's written recommendation will be submitted to the DARB President.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Review of the DARB panel's recommendation and the recommendation of the DARB.</I> The DARB President reviews the DARB panel's written recommendation and makes the recommendation for the DARB. The DARB President will submit the DARB's written recommended action to the SECAF.
</P>
<P>(i) If the DARB President approves the DARB panel's recommendation, the recommendation will constitute the recommended action of the DARB.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the DARB President disagrees with the DARB panel's recommendation, the DARB President will provide a new recommendation. This new recommendation will be in writing and will include the change to be made and the reasons for rejecting the recommendation of the DARB panel.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Discretionary review of the DARB's recommended action.</I> The DARB President's actions are subject to discretionary review by the SECAF.
</P>
<P>(i) The DARB's recommended action will be the final recommended action unless the SECAF exercises their discretionary review authority within 30 calendar days after the DARB President submits the recommendation to the SECAF.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the SECAF chooses to exercise their discretionary review authority to review the DARB's recommended action within 30 calendar days, and the SECAF changes the DARB's recommended action, the SECAF will provide a written recommendation with supporting reasons and the new recommendation will constitute the final recommended action.
</P>
<P>(iii) The SECAF may delegate, in writing, its discretionary authority to act on DARB recommendations to a Presidentially appointed, Senate-confirmed (PAS) official but further re-delegation is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration at the BCM/NR.</I> If it is unclear from the DARB's review whether the appropriate Military Department BCM/NR considered relevant evidence when it denied the requested discharge or dismissal upgrade, the DARB may return a case directly to the BCM/NR for reconsideration. If the Military Department BCM/NR concerned accepts the case for reconsideration, the petitioner will be notified in writing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.7   Final action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned will approve or disapprove the DARB's recommended action to upgrade or partially upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal within 90 calendar days. The Secretary of the Military Department must approve the DARB's recommended action unless the Secretary finds that the recommendation is not supported by the preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If the DARB recommends to deny an upgrade to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal and upholds the Military Department's BCM/NR decision, the DARB will notify the petitioner in writing of its final decision. If the DARB recommends to upgrade or partially upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal, the Secretary of the Military Department concerned will notify the petitioner in writing of its final decision.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Secretary of the Military Department approves the DARB recommendation, the petitioner will be notified of the approved change and any change to the characterization of a discharge or dismissal will be effective as of the date of discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Secretary of the Military Department disapproves the DARB recommendation, the Secretary concerned must provide the petitioner a written explanation detailing its rationale for disapproving the DARB's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments may delegate, in writing, the authority to act on DARB recommendations to a PAS official but further re-delegation is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary's or designee's action will be the final action. The petitioner has no right to a further review or to appeal this decision.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.26.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.8   Annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DARB President will submit draft reports to OUSD(P&amp;R) by the 1st of October for the preceding FY (October 1st through September 30th). The first report will be published on October 1, 2022, and the report will contain the DARB data for FY 2022.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting period will be inclusive from the first through the last days of each reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) The report will contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of requests received;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of requests rejected for failure to meet eligibility criteria for a final review;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of requests considered;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of requests returned to the BCM/NRs for reconsideration;
</P>
<P>(5) The number of recommendations to upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal granted by the Secretaries of the Military Departments pursuant to the DARB, to include the most common reasons for such upgrades; and
</P>
<P>(6) The number of recommendations to upgrade the characterization of a discharge or dismissal declined by the Secretaries of the Military Departments pursuant to the DARB, to include the most common reasons for such declinations.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual reports will be published on a publicly accessible DoD website; the reports can be accessed at <I>https://boards.law.af.mil/OSD_DARB.htm.</I>






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="74" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 74—APPOINTMENT OF DOCTORS OF OSTEOPATHY AS MEDICAL OFFICERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 3294, 5574, 8294.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>25 FR 14370, Dec. 31, 1960, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 74.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.27.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of Pub. L. 763, 84th Congress (70 Stat. 608), relating to the appointment of doctors of osteopathy as medical officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.27.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In the interest of obtaining maximum uniformity, the following criteria are established for the appointment of doctors of osteopathy as medical officers: 
</P>
<P>(a) To be eligible for appointment as Medical Corps officers in the Army and Navy or designated as medical officers in the Air Force, a doctor of osteopathy must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be a citizen of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be a graduate of a college of osteopathy whose graduates are eligible for licensure to practice medicine or surgery in a majority of the States, and be licensed to practice medicine, surgery, or osteopathy in one of the States or Territories of the United States or in the District of Columbia; 
</P>
<P>(3) Possess such qualifications as the Secretary concerned may prescribe for his service, after considering the recommendations for such appointment by the Surgeon General of the Army or the Air Force or the Chief of the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery of the Navy; 
</P>
<P>(4) Have completed a minimum of three years college work prior to entrance into a college of osteopathy; 
</P>
<P>(5) Have completed a four-year course with a degree of Doctor of Osteopathy from a school of osteopathy approved by the American Osteopathic Association; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Have had subsequent to graduation from an approved school of osteopathy 12 months or more of intern or residency training approved by the American Osteopathic Association. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="75" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 75—EXCEPTIONAL FAMILY MEMBER PROGRAM (EFMP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1781c.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 3690, Feb. 13, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides guidance and prescribes procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying a family member with special needs who is eligible for services as defined in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Processing DoD civilian employees who have family members with special needs for an overseas assignment.
</P>
<P>(b) Does not create any rights or remedies in addition to those already otherwise existing in law or regulation, and may not be relied upon by any person, organization, or other entity to allege a denial of such rights or remedies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Service members who have family members with special needs as described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) All DoD civilian employees in overseas locations and selectees for overseas positions who have family members with special needs as described in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Assistive technology device.</I> Any item, piece of equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially off the shelf modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional capabilities of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Assistive technology service.</I> Any service that directly assists an individual with a disability in the selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device.
</P>
<P><I>CONUS.</I> The 48 contiguous states of the United States, excluding Alaska, Hawaii, and U.S. territories or other overseas insular areas of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Early Intervention Services (EIS).</I> Developmental services for infants and toddlers with disabilities, as defined in 32 CFR part 57, that are provided under the supervision of a Military Department, including evaluation, IFSP development and revision, and service coordination provided at no cost to the child's parents.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluations.</I> Medical, psychological, and educational assessments required to define a medical or educational condition suspected after a screening procedure.
</P>
<P><I>Family member.</I> A dependent as defined by 37 U.S.C. 401, to include a spouse and certain children of a Service member, who is eligible to receive a DoD identification card, medical care in a DoD Military Treatment Facility, and command sponsorship or DoD-sponsored travel. To the extent authorized by law and in accordance with Service implementing guidance, the term may also include other nondependent family members of a Service member. For the purposes of § 75.6 of this part only, this definition also includes the dependents of a civilian employee on an overseas assignment, or being considered for an overseas assignment, who are, or will be, eligible to receive a DoD identification card during that overseas assignment. To the extent authorized by law and in accordance with Service implementing guidance, the term may also include other nondependent family members of a civilian employee on an overseas assignment, or being considered for an overseas assignment.
</P>
<P><I>Family member travel.</I> Refers to family member permanent change of station authorization that is requested by a Service member or civilian employee for the purposes of § 75.6 of this part only.
</P>
<P><I>Family support services.</I> Encompasses the non-clinical case management delivery of information and referral for families with special needs, including the development and maintenance of an individualized Services Plan (SP).
</P>
<P><I>Individualized Education Program (IEP).</I> A written document that is developed, reviewed, and revised at a meeting of the Case Study Committee, identifying the required components of the individualized education program for a child with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP).</I> A written document identifying the specially designed services for an infant or toddler with a disability and the family of such infant or toddler.
</P>
<P><I>Overseas.</I> Any location outside of the 48 contiguous United States including Alaska, Hawaii, and all U.S. Territories or other overseas insular areas of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Related services.</I> Transportation and such developmental, corrective, and other supportive services required to assist a child with a disability to benefit from special education under the child's IEP. The term includes services or consults in the areas of speech-language pathology, audiology services, interpreting services, psychological services, physical and occupational therapy, recreation (including therapeutic recreation), social work services, school nurse services designed to enable a child with a disability to receive a Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE) as described in the child's IEP, early identification and assessment of disabilities in children, counseling services (including rehabilitation counseling), orientation and mobility services, and medical services for diagnostic or evaluative purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Related services assigned to the military medical departments overseas.</I> Services provided by Educational and Developmental Intervention Services to Department of Defense Dependent School students for the development or implementation of an IEP, which are necessary for the student to benefit from special education. Those services may include medical services for diagnostic or evaluative purposes, social work, community health nursing, nutrition, occupational therapy, physical therapy, audiology, ophthalmology, and psychological testing and therapy.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible military department.</I> The Military Department responsible for providing EIS or related services in the geographic areas assigned under 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P><I>Special education.</I> Specially designed instruction (including instruction in physical education) provided at no cost to the parent to meet the unique needs of a child with a disability, conducted in the classroom, in the home, in hospitals and institutions, and in other settings.
</P>
<P><I>Special needs.</I> Includes special medical and educational needs of family members who meet the DoD criteria for enrollment in the EFMP as found in § 75.5 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Specialty care.</I> Specialized health care required for health maintenance and provided by a physician whose training focused primarily in a specific field, such as neurology, cardiology, rheumatology, dermatology, oncology, orthopedics, or ophthalmology.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The EFMP identifies family members with special needs, enrolls sponsors in the program, and participates in the coordination of assignments for active duty Service members in order for the special needs of family members to be considered during the assignment process.
</P>
<P>(b) Active duty Service members whose families include a member with special needs must enroll in the EFMP to ensure their family member's special needs are considered during the assignment process.
</P>
<P>(c) The special needs of a civilian employee's family member will not be considered in the selection of a civilian for an overseas position.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.3.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.5   DoD criteria for identifying family members with special needs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special medical needs.</I> Individuals who meet one or more of the criteria in this section will be identified as a family member with special medical needs:
</P>
<P>(1) Potentially life-threatening conditions or chronic (duration of 6 months or longer) medical or physical conditions requiring follow-up care from a primary care manager (to include pediatricians) more than once a year or specialty care.
</P>
<P>(2) Current and chronic (duration of 6 months or longer) mental health conditions (such as bi-polar, conduct, major affective, thought, or personality disorders); inpatient or intensive (greater than one visit monthly for more than 6 months) outpatient mental health service within the last 5 years; or intensive mental health services required at the present time. This includes medical care from any provider, including a primary care manager.
</P>
<P>(3) A diagnosis of asthma or other respiratory-related diagnosis with chronic recurring symptoms that involves one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Scheduled use of inhaled or oral anti-inflammatory agents or bronchodilators.
</P>
<P>(ii) History of emergency room use or clinic visits for acute asthma exacerbations or other respiratory-related diagnosis within the last year.
</P>
<P>(iii) History of one or more hospitalizations for asthma, or other respiratory-related diagnosis within the past 5 years.
</P>
<P>(4) A diagnosis of attention deficit disorder or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder that involves one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes a co-morbid psychological diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires multiple medications, psycho-pharmaceuticals (other than stimulants) or does not respond to normal doses of medication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requires management and treatment by a mental health provider (<I>e.g.,</I> psychiatrist, psychologist, social worker or psychiatric nurse practitioner).
</P>
<P>(iv) Requires the involvement of a specialty consultant, other than a primary care manager, more than twice a year on a chronic basis.
</P>
<P>(v) Requires modifications of the educational curriculum or the use of behavioral management staff.
</P>
<P>(5) A chronic condition that requires:
</P>
<P>(i) Adaptive equipment (such as an apnea home monitor, home nebulizer, wheelchair, custom-fit splints/braces/orthotics (not over-the-counter), hearing aids, home oxygen therapy, home ventilator, etc.).
</P>
<P>(ii) Assistive technology devices (such as communication devices) or services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Environmental or architectural considerations (such as medically required limited numbers of steps, wheelchair accessibility, or housing modifications and air conditioning).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special educational needs.</I> Family members of active duty Service members (regardless of location) and civilian employees appointed to an overseas location eligible for enrollment in a DoDEA school on a space-required basis will be identified as having special educational needs if they have, or are found eligible for, either an IFSP or an IEP under 32 CFR part 57.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.28.3.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.6   Civilian employees on overseas assignment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Vocabulary.</I> Section 75.3 provides definitions of “family member” that apply only to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee rights.</I> (1) The DoD Components must select civilian employees for specific positions based on job requirement and merit factors in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 2302, and 29 U.S.C. 791 through 794d. Selection for an overseas position must not be influenced by the special needs of a civilian employee's family member(s), or any other prohibited factor.
</P>
<P>(2) The civilian employee or selectee will be given comprehensive medical, dental, and educational information about the overseas community where the position is located to help the employee make an informed choice about accepting the position.
</P>
<P>(3) Refer to the Joint Travel Regulations (available at <I>https://www.defensetravel.dod.mil/Docs/perdiem/JTR.pdf</I>) for PCS travel and transportation allowances for eligible civilian employees and their family members.
</P>
<P>(4) Civilian employees or selectees assigned to positions overseas are generally responsible for obtaining medical and dental services and paying for such services, except services provided pursuant to 32 CFR part 57. Their family members may have access to the MHS on a space-available, reimbursable basis only, except for services pursuant to 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(i) DoDEA and the Military Medical Department responsible for the provision of related services to support DoDEA at the duty station are required to evaluate school-aged children (ages 3 through 21 years, inclusive) eligible for enrollment in a DoDEA school on a space- required basis and provide them with the special education and related services included in their IEPs in accordance with 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Military Departments are required to provide infants and toddlers (from birth up to 3 years of age, inclusive) eligible for enrollment in a DoDEA school on a space-required basis with the EIS identified in the IFSPs in accordance with 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing a civilian employee for an overseas position.</I> (1) When recruiting for an overseas position, DoD human resources representatives will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide information on the requirements of this part related to civilian employees or applicants for employment, including employee rights provided in DoD Instruction 1315.19.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide information on the availability of medical and educational services, including a point of contact for the applicant to ask about specific special needs. This information must be contained in any document used for recruitment for overseas positions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the following statements in recruitment information:
</P>
<P>(A) If an employee brings a child to an overseas location and that child is entitled to attend a DoD school on a space-required basis in accordance with DoDEA Regulation 1342.13 (available at <I>http://www.dodea.edu/aboutDoDEA/upload/1342_13.pdf</I>), DoDEA and the Military Department responsible for providing related services will ensure that the child, if eligible for special education, receives a free appropriate public education, including special education and related services pursuant to 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(B) If an employee brings an infant or toddler (up to 3 years of age) to an overseas location, and that infant or toddler, but for the child's age, is entitled to attend the DoDEA on a space-required basis in accordance with DoDEA Regulation 1342.13, then the Military Department responsible for EIS will provide the infant or toddler with the required EIS in accordance with the eligibility criteria consistent with 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(C) If an employee brings a family member to an overseas location who requires medical or dental care, then the employee will be responsible for obtaining and paying for such care. Access for civilian employees and their families to military medical and dental treatment facilities is on a space-available and reimbursable basis only.
</P>
<P>(2) When the gaining human resources representatives process a civilian for an overseas position where family member travel is authorized at government expense, then they must ask the selectee to determine whether a family member has special needs, using the criteria provided in § 75.5 of this part. All selectees must be asked only after they have been notified of their selection in accordance with 29 U.S.C. 791 through 794d, and 29 CFR 1630.14. If the selectee indicates that a family member has special needs:
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD civilian human resources representatives may not coerce or pressure the selectee to decline the job offer in light of that information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The selectee may voluntarily forward to the civilian human resources representative completed DD Forms 2792 or 2792-1 for each family member with special needs to provide information on the availability of medical and educational services. DD Form 2792-1 must be submitted if the selectee intends to enroll his or her child in a school funded by the DoD or a school in which DoD is responsible for paying the tuition for a space-required family member.
</P>
<P>(3) The gaining human resources activity will coordinate with the appropriate military medical and educational personnel on availability of services and inform the selectee in writing of the availability of medical, educational, and early intervention resources and services to allow the civilian employee to make an informed choice whether to accept the position. The notice will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Comprehensive medical, dental, and educational information on the overseas community where the position is located.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the local DoDEA facility and programs, specifying the programs for children with special education needs.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the local EIS available for infants and toddlers with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement indicating that the lack of EIS or special education resources (including related services assigned to the military medical departments) cannot serve as a basis for the denial of family travel at government expense and required services will be provided even if a local program is not currently established in accordance with 32 CFR part 57.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of EFMP Family Support Services.</I> Civilian employees may utilize EFMP family support services on a space-available basis.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="79" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 79—CHILD DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS (CDPs)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1783, 1791 through 1800, 2809, and 2812.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 28409, May 16, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 79.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Reissues DoD Instruction (DoDI) 6060.2 in accordance with the authority in DoD Directive (DoDD) 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R))” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/512402p.pdf</I>) and DoD Instruction 1342.22, “Military Family Readiness” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134222p.pdf</I>) and the requirements of DoDD 1020.1
</P>
<P>(b) Updates established policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for providing care to minor children (birth through age 12 years) of individuals who are eligible for care in DoD CDPs. This includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Center-based care and community-based care.
</P>
<P>(2) Family child care (FCC).
</P>
<P>(3) School-age care (SAC).
</P>
<P>(4) Supplemental child care.
</P>
<P>(c) Cancels DODI 6060.3
</P>
<P>(d) Implements 10 United States Code (U.S.C.) 1791 through 1800.
</P>
<P>(e) Authorizes the publication of supporting guidance for the implementation of CDP policies and responsibilities, including child development training modules, program aids, and other management tools.
</P>
<P>(f) Establishes the DoD Effectiveness Rating and Improvement System (ERIS), in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1791 through 1800.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation.</I> Verification that a CDP has been assessed by an appropriate, external national accrediting body and meets the standards of quality established by that body.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated family child care (FCC).</I> Home-based child care services that are provided by licensed individuals in homes located off of the installation, who agree to comply with the standards outlined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriated funds (APF).</I> Funds appropriated by Congress and received by the U.S. Government as tax dollars.
</P>
<P><I>APF employees.</I> Civilian employees hired by DoD Components with APF. Includes temporary employees, 18 years or older.
</P>
<P><I>Caregiver.</I> For the purpose of determining priority, a parent or an individual who performs the functions of a parent.
</P>
<P><I>Caregiving personnel.</I> Civilian employees of a CDP who are directly involved with the care and supervision of children and are counted in the staff to child ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Child development program (CDP).</I> Child care services for children of DoD personnel from birth through 12 years of age.
</P>
<P><I>CDP employee.</I> A civilian employed by the DoD to work in a DoD CDP (regardless of whether the employee is paid from APF or NAF).
</P>
<P><I>Child(ren).</I> A person under 18 years of age for whom a parent, guardian, or foster parent, is legally responsible.
</P>
<P><I>Child care fees.</I> NAF derived from fees paid by Military members and other authorized users of child care services provided at a military CDC or other DoD-approved facility-based CDP. Also referred to as user fees or parent fees.
</P>
<P><I>Child care hour.</I> One hour of care provided to one child. If a provider cares for six children for 10 hours, that is the equivalent of 60 child care hours.
</P>
<P><I>Combat related wounded warrior.</I> A term referring to the entire population of wounded, ill and injured Service members and veterans who have incurred a wound, illness, or injury for which the member was awarded the Purple Heart or whose wound, illness, or injury was incurred as a direct result of armed conflict or while engaged in hazardous service or in the performance of duty under conditions simulating war, or through an instrumentality of war.
</P>
<P><I>Direct care personnel.</I> Staff members whose main responsibility focuses on providing care to children and youth.
</P>
<P><I>DoD CDP Employee Wage Plan.</I> The wage plan that uses a NAF pay banding system to provide direct service personnel with rates of pay substantially equivalent to other employees at the installation with similar training, seniority, and experience. Pay increases and promotions are tied to completion of training. Completion of training is a condition of employment. This wage plan does not apply to CDPs constructed and operated by contractors under DoDI 1015.15, “Establishment, Management and Control of Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities and Financial Management of Supporting Resources” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101515p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>DoD Certification to Operate.</I> Certification issued to each DoD CDP after the program has been inspected by a representative(s) of the DoD Component or a major command, and found to be in compliance with DoD standards in § 79.6, paragraphs (a), (c)-(f), (i) and (j).
</P>
<P><I>DoD Child Abuse and Safety Hotline.</I> A hotline (found at DoD's Military Homefront Web site) required by 10 U.S.C. 1794 that enables parents and visitors to anonymously report suspected child abuse or safety violations at a military CDP or home.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible patron.</I> Patrons who qualify for CDP services, to include active duty Military Service members, DoD civilian employees paid from APF and NAF, Reserve Component Military Service members on inactive duty training, combat related wounded warriors, surviving spouses of military members who died from a combat related incident, eligible employees of DoD contractors, other Federal employees, and those acting in loco parentis of the aforementioned eligible patrons.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible employee of a DoD contractor.</I> An employee of a DoD contractor or subcontractor, or individual under contract or subcontract to DoD, who requires physical access to DoD facilities at least two days out of a work week.
</P>
<P><I>Facility-based program.</I> Refers to child care that is provided within a building, structure, or other improvement to real property. Does not include FCC homes.
</P>
<P><I>Family child care (FCC).</I> Home-based child care services that are provided for Military Service members, DoD civilian employees, or eligible employees of a DoD contractor by an individual who is certified by the Secretary of the Military Department or Director of the Defense Agency or DoD Field Activity concerned as qualified to provide those services, and provides those services for 10 hours or more per week per child on a regular basis for compensation. Also referred to as family home day care, family home care, child development homes, and family day care.
</P>
<P><I>FCC administrator.</I> DoD civilian employees or contract personnel, either APF or NAF, who are responsible for FCC program management, training, inspections, and other services to assist FCC providers. Includes program directors, monitors, outreach workers, United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) CACFP monitors, and administrative personnel.
</P>
<P><I>FCC provider.</I> An individual 18 years of age or older who provides child care for 10 hours or more per week per child on a regular basis in his or her home with the approval and certification of the commanding officer, and has responsibility for planning and carrying out a program that meets the children's needs at their various stages of development and growth.
</P>
<P><I>Family member.</I> For a Military Service member, the member's spouse or unmarried dependent child, or an unmarried dependent child of the member's spouse. For an eligible DoD civilian employee or eligible employee of a DoD contractor, the employee's spouse or same-sex domestic partner, or unmarried dependent child of the employee, employee's spouse, or the employee's same-sex domestic partner.
</P>
<P><I>Financial hardship.</I> A severe hardship resulting from, but not limited to: Sudden and unexpected illness or accident of the spouse or the same-sex domestic partner of an eligible DoD Civilian employee; loss of the spouse's or eligible DoD Civilian's same-sex domestic partner's employment or wages; property damage not covered by insurance; extraordinary and unforeseeable circumstances arising as a result of events beyond the control of the patron.
</P>
<P><I>Full-day care.</I> This care meets the needs of parents working outside the home who require child care services 6 hours or more per day on a regular basis, usually at least 4 days per week.
</P>
<P><I>Hourly care.</I> Care provided in a CDP that meets the needs of parents requiring short-term child care services on an intermittent basis. Hourly care includes on-site group care.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with a disability.</I> A handicapped person as defined in 32 CFR part 56, in accordance with 29 U.S.C. 705, also known as “Section 7 of The Rehabilitation Act of 1973,” as amended, and consistent with 42 U.S.C. 12102, also known as “The Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended”. Synonymous with the phrase “person with a disability.”
</P>
<P><I>Identification Action Team.</I> A multidisciplinary team that supports families of children with special needs that consider the needs of the child, the disability, and the environment of group care in child development facilities or home-based care, staffing needs and training requirements, and the resources of the program.
</P>
<P><I>Infant.</I> A child, aged birth through 12 months.
</P>
<P><I>In loco parentis.</I> In the place or position of a parent. An “in loco parentis” relationship is one in which a person takes on the role of a lawful parent by assuming the obligations and discharging the duties of a parent without formally becoming an adoptive parent or legal guardian. The child(ren) must reside with and be supported by the person. A special power of attorney to act “in loco parentis” is required to be on file.
</P>
<P><I>Military approved community based program.</I> Military approved child care available to geographically dispersed eligible families.
</P>
<P><I>Military CDP facility.</I> A facility on a military installation or operated by a DoD Component at which child care services are provided for Military Service members or DoD civilian employees or any other facility at which such child care services are provided that is operated by the Secretary of a Military Department.
</P>
<P><I>Military installation.</I> Defined in 32 CFR 238.3.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-age group.</I> A group of children that includes children from more than one age group.
</P>
<P><I>Multidisciplinary inspection team.</I> An inspection team led by a representative of the installation commander with authority to verify compliance with standards.
</P>
<P><I>Non-appropriated funds (NAF).</I> Funds derived from CDP fees paid by eligible patrons.
</P>
<P><I>NAF employees.</I> Civilian employees hired by DoD Components and compensated from NAFI funds. Includes temporary employees, 18 years or older.
</P>
<P><I>Off-site group care.</I> An option which provides child care on an occasional rather than a daily basis and allows on-site hourly group care when parents of children in care are attending command functions in the same facility.
</P>
<P><I>On-site group care.</I> A child care program that provides on-site hourly group child care when a parent or guardian of the children in care are attending the same function and are in the same facility.
</P>
<P><I>Operational hardship.</I> A program's inability to operate at full capacity due to documented staffing shortages.
</P>
<P><I>Parent.</I> The biological father or mother of a child; a person who, by order of a court of competent jurisdiction, has been declared the father or mother of a child by adoption; the legal guardian of a child; or a person in whose household a child resides at least 25 percent of the time in any month, provided that such person stands in loco parentis to that child and contributes at least one-half of the child's support.
</P>
<P><I>Parent board.</I> A group established pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1783 and 1795 comprised of parents who are also Military Service members, retired Military Service members, or spouses of Military Service members or retired Military Service members of children attending DoD CDPs, including FCC. This board shall act in an advisory capacity, providing recommendations for improving services. The board shall meet periodically with staff of the CDP. The board, with the advice of the program staff, shall be responsible for developing and overseeing the implementation of the parent participation program in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1795.
</P>
<P><I>Parent participation plan.</I> A planned group of activities and projects established by the Parent Board to encourage parents to volunteer in CDPs, including special events and activities (such as field trips, holiday events, and special curriculum programs), small group activities, special projects (such as playground improvement, procurement of equipment, and administrative aid), and parent education programs and training workshops to include child abuse prevention education for parents.
</P>
<P><I>Part-day care.</I> This care meets the needs of parents working outside the home who require child care services on a seasonal or regularly scheduled part-day basis for fewer than 6 hours per day, usually fewer than 4 days per week.
</P>
<P><I>Preschool-age.</I> Children 36 months through 5 years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-toddler.</I> A child 13 months through 24 months of age.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying children.</I> Children of an eligible patron or their spouse or the same-sex domestic partner of eligible DoD civilian employees.
</P>
<P><I>Resource and referral (R&amp;R).</I> A service that provides information about child care services on and off the installation to meet patrons' child care needs and maximize use of available sources of child care.
</P>
<P><I>Respite child care.</I> Care for children that provides a parent or guardian temporary respite from their role as a primary caregiver.
</P>
<P><I>Same-sex domestic partner.</I> A person in a same-sex domestic partnership with a uniformed service member, civilian employee or employee of a DoD contractor of the same-sex.
</P>
<P><I>Same-sex domestic partnership.</I> A committed relationship between two adults of the same-sex in which the partners:
</P>
<P>(1) Are each other's sole same-sex domestic partner and intend to remain so indefinitely;
</P>
<P>(2) Are not married (legally or by common law) to, joined in civil union with, or in a same-sex domestic partnership with anyone else;
</P>
<P>(3) Are at least 18 years of age and mentally competent to consent to contract;
</P>
<P>(4) Share responsibility for a significant measure of each other's common welfare and financial obligations;
</P>
<P>(5) Are not related in a way that, if they were of opposite sex, would prohibit legal marriage in the state or U.S. jurisdiction in which they reside; and,
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain a common residence and intend to continue the arrangement (or would maintain a common residence but for the requirements of military service, an assignment abroad, or other employment-related, financial, or similar obstacle).
</P>
<P><I>School age care (SAC).</I> Either facility-based or home-based care for children ages 6-12, or those attending kindergarten, who require supervision before and after school, or during duty hours, school holidays, or school closures.
</P>
<P><I>School-age children.</I> Children aged 6 years through 12, or attending kindergarten through sixth grade, enrolled in a SAC program.
</P>
<P><I>Screen time.</I> Time spent watching television, playing video games, or on the computer.
</P>
<P><I>Special needs.</I> Children with special needs are children who may need accommodations to make child care accessible or may otherwise require more than routine and basic care; including children with or at risk of disabilities, chronic illnesses and physical, developmental, behavioral, or emotional conditions that require health and related services of a type or amount beyond that required by children in general.
</P>
<P><I>Staff:child ratio.</I> The number of children for whom individual caregiving personnel or FCC providers shall be responsible.
</P>
<P><I>Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).</I> The sudden, unexplained death of an infant younger than 1 year old.
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental child care.</I> Child care programs and services that augment and support CDC and FCC programs to increase the availability of child care for military and DoD civilian employees. These may include, but are not limited to, resource and referral services, contract-provided services, short-term, hourly child care at alternative locations, and interagency initiatives.
</P>
<P><I>Support staff.</I> Person(s) responsible for providing services not directly related to direct child care services, such as, but not limited to, janitorial, food service, clerical, and administrative duties.
</P>
<P><I>Surviving spouse.</I> A spouse of a Service member who dies on active duty, active duty training, inactive duty training, or within 120 days after release from active duty if the death is due to a service-related disability.
</P>
<P><I>Third party administrator (TPA).</I> An independent organization or entity contracted to perform identified services on behalf of the plan administrator. These services may include clerical and administrative functions such as enrollment and claims administration, payment of subsidies to providers and information services.
</P>
<P><I>Toddler.</I> A child between the ages of 24 and 36 months of age.
</P>
<P><I>Total family income (TFI).</I> Includes all earned income including wages, salaries, tips, long-term disability benefits, voluntary salary deferrals, basic allowance for housing Reserve Component/Transit (BAH RC/T) and subsistence allowances and in-kind quarters and subsistence received by a Military Service member, civilian employee, a spouse, or, in the case of an eligible DoD civilian employee, the same-sex domestic partner, and anything else of value, even if not taxable, that was received for providing services. BAH RC/T and subsistence allowances mean the Basic Allowance for Quarters and the Basic Allowance for Subsistence received by military personnel and civilian personnel when provided (with respect to grade and status) and the value of meals and lodging furnished in-kind to military personnel residing on military bases.
</P>
<P><I>Training &amp; curriculum specialist</I>—Personnel whose main responsibility is providing training and oversight to other CDC or SAC employees.
</P>
<P><I>Unmet need.</I> The number of children whose parents cannot work outside the home because child care is not available.
</P>
<P><I>Waiting list.</I> List of children waiting for a CDP space and whose parents have requested space in a CDP and none is available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with DoD Instruction 1342.22, and 10 U.S.C. 1783, 1791 through 1800, 2809, and 2812, it is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that the CDPs support the mission readiness, family readiness, retention, and morale of the total force during peacetime, overseas contingency operations, periods of force structure change, relocation of military units, base realignment and closure, and other emergency situations (e.g. natural disasters, and epidemics). Although child care supports working parents, it is not an entitlement and parents must pay their share of the cost of child care.
</P>
<P>(b) Reduce the stress of families who have the primary responsibility for the health, safety and well-being of their children and help them balance the competing demands of family life and the DoD mission. CDPs provide access and referral to available, affordable, quality programs and services that meet the basic needs of children, from birth through 12 years of age, in a safe, healthy, and nurturing environment.
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct an annual internal certification process to ensure that all installation-operated CDPs are operating in accordance with all applicable Federal mandates and statutory requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Provide child care to support the personnel and the mission of DoD. Eligibility is contingent on the status of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible patrons include:
</P>
<P>(i) Active duty military personnel
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD civilian employees paid from either appropriated funds (APF) or non-appropriated funds (NAF).
</P>
<P>(iii) Reserve Component military personnel on active duty or inactive duty training status.
</P>
<P>(iv) Combat related wounded warriors.
</P>
<P>(v) Surviving spouses of Military members who died from a combat related incident.
</P>
<P>(vi) Those acting in loco parentis for the dependent child of an otherwise eligible patron.
</P>
<P>(vii) Eligible employees of DoD contractors.
</P>
<P>(viii) Others authorized on a space available basis.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of unmarried, legally separated parents with joint custody, or divorced parents with joint custody, children are eligible for child care only when they reside with the Military Service member or eligible civilian sponsor at least 25 percent of the time in a month that the child receives child care through a DoD program. There may be exceptions as addressed in § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(e) Promote the cognitive, social, emotional, cultural, language and physical development of children through programs and services that recognize differences in children and encourage self-confidence, curiosity, creativity, self-discipline, and resiliency.
</P>
<P>(f) Employ qualified direct program staff whose progression from entry level to positions of greater responsibility is determined by training, education, experience, and competency. Ensure that civilian employees maintain their achieved position and salary as they move within the military child care system.
</P>
<P>(g) Certify qualified FCC providers who can support the mission requirements of the installation.
</P>
<P>(h) Facilitate the availability and expansion of quality, affordable, child care off of military installations that meet the standards of this part to ensure that geographically dispersed eligible families have access to legally operating military-approved community-based child care programs.
</P>
<P>(i) Promote the early identification and reporting of alleged child abuse and neglect in DoD CDPs in accordance with DoD Directive 6400.1, “Family Advocacy Program (FAP)” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(j) Ensure that funding is available to meet Military Child Care Act requirements pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1791 through 1800 and protect the health, safety, and well-being of children in care.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management (ASD(R&amp;FM)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD (P&amp;R) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor compliance with this part by personnel under his or her authority, direction, and control.
</P>
<P>(2) Annually review and issue a child care fee policy based upon total family income (TFI) for use by programs in the DoD child development system of care.
</P>
<P>(b) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)), under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(R&amp;FM), shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Work across functional areas of responsibility and collaborate with other federal and non-governmental organizations to ensure access to a continuum of quality, affordable CDPs.
</P>
<P>(2) Program, budget, and allocate funds and other resources to meet the objectives of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue DD Form 2636, “Child Development Program, Department of Defense Certificate to Operate,” to the Military Departments for each CDP found to be in compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Require that the policies and related documents are updated and relevant to the program.
</P>
<P>(5) Report DoD Component program data to support legislative, research, and other requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish implementing guidance and ensure full implementation within 12 months of the publication date, consistent with this part, to monitor compliance through regular inspection of CDPs and follow-up oversight actions as needed.
</P>
<P>(2) Program, budget, and allocate funds and other resources to meet the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish a priority system for all patrons seeking to enroll children in CDPs in accordance with paragraph (a) of § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(4) Assess DoD Component demand and take appropriate action to address the child care capability needed on and off the installation in accordance with paragraph (g) of § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a hardship waiver policy to address financial and operational situations.
</P>
<P>(6) Submit fiscal year annual summary of operations reports to the DASD(MC&amp;FP) by December 30 of each year using Report Control Symbol DD-P&amp;R(A) 1884, “Department of Defense Child Development Program (CDP) Annual Summary of Operations.”
</P>
<P>(7) Require that background checks are conducted for individuals who have contact with children in DoD CDPs in accordance with DoDI 1402.5, “Criminal History Background Checks on Individuals in Child Care Services” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140205p.pdf</I>) and 32 CFR part 86 and paragraph (c)(1) of § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(8) Require that all individuals who have contact with children in a DoD CDP complete a DD Form X656 “Basic Criminal History and Statement of Admission”.
</P>
<P>(9) Require that each CDP establishes a Parent Board in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1783 and 1795.
</P>
<P>(10) Forward the results of DoD Component inspections to the DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure that all incidents that occur within a DoD CDP and involve allegations of child abuse or neglect, revocation of accreditation, or hospitalization of a child, are reported to DASD (MC&amp;FP) through the Office of Family Policy (OFP/CY) within 72 hours of the incident.
</P>
<P>(12) Notify the DASD(MC&amp;FP) through OFP/CY if, at any time, a facility in the CDP is closed due to a violation (see paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of § 79.6, for more information on violations).
</P>
<P>(13) Provide the DASD(MC&amp;FP) through OFP/CY with a copy of applications made in accordance with DoD Instruction 5305.5, “Space Management Procedures, National Capital Region” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/530505p.pdf</I>) and 40 U.S.C. 590 to the U.S. General Services Administration (GSA) for building space for use in providing child care for DoD personnel, and comply with GSA standards for funding and operation of child care programs in GSA-controlled space.
</P>
<P>(i) Where the DoD is the sole sponsoring agency and the space has been delegated to the DoD by the GSA, the space must comply with the requirements prescribed in this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the National Capital Region, space acquisition procedures in DoD Instruction 5305.5 shall be used to gain the assignment of space in Government-owned or Government-leased facilities from the GSA.
</P>
<P>(14) Require that CDPs follow the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and comply with generally accepted practices endorsed by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and Centers for Disease Control or the latest guidance provided by OFP/CY.
</P>
<P>(15) Establish and implement DoD Component-specific child care fees based on the DoD-issued fee policy on an annual basis, and issue supplemental guidance on fees for school-age programs, hourly care, preschool programs, DoD Component approved community-based programs, and FCC subsidies. Submit DoD Component-specific requests for waiver for any deviation from DoD policy, including selection of the high or low cost fee option, to the Office of the DASD (MC&amp;FP) through OFP/CY for approval.
</P>
<P>(16) Establish guidelines for communication between command, installation, and educational and behavioral support systems.
</P>
<P>(17) Require that all military installations under their authority follow guidance that addresses the ages and circumstances under which a child under 13 years of age can be left at home alone without adult supervision, also known as a “home alone policy,” or “self-care policy.” The installation commander should approve this policy in consultation with the installation director of the Family Advocacy Program. Guidance is consistent with or more stringent than applicable laws and ordinances of the State and country in which the installations are located.
</P>
<P>(18) Establish guidance and operating procedures to provide services for children with special needs in accordance with 32 CFR part 56, “Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Programs and Activities Assisted or conducted by the Department of Defense” that implement section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act for federally conducted and federally assisted programs and 42 U.S.C. 12102, “The American Disabilities Act” as they apply to children and youth with special needs.
</P>
<P>(i) Require procedures for reviewing and making reasonable accommodation for children with special needs that do not fundamentally alter the nature of the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the needs of the child, the disability, and the environment of group care in child development facilities or home-based care, staffing needs and training requirements, and the resources of the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Include CDPs as part of the Multidisciplinary Inclusion Action Team that supports families of children with special needs.
</P>
<P>(19) Establish guidance and operating procedures to provide services for children of the deployed.
</P>
<P>(20) Establish standard risk management procedures for responding to emergency or contingency situations. This includes, but is not limited to, natural disasters, pandemic disease outbreaks, allegations of child abuse or neglect, active shooter, or an installation or facility lockdown.
</P>
<P>(21) Require that vehicles used to transport children comply with Federal motor vehicle safety standards in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 30125 and applicable State or host nation requirements.
</P>
<P>(22) Notify applicable civilian patrons annually of their potential tax liability associated with child care subsidies, and ensure that information required by the third party administrator (TPA) is provided in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 129.
</P>
<P>(23) Require that a current plan to implement direct cash subsidies to military-approved child care providers to expand the availability of child care spaces and meet specialized child care needs, such as weekend and evening care, special needs, deployment support, and respite child care support, is in place.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments, in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Work with the Heads of the DoD Components to implement CDPs in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the OFP/CY of any Service-wide specific requirements that will require a waiver to deviate from existing policy.
</P>
<P>(e) The Installation Commanders (under the authority, direction, and control of the Secretary of the Military Department concerned) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Require that CDPs within his or her jurisdiction are in compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Require that child care fees are used in accordance with DoD Instruction 5305.5 and paragraph (c)(2) of § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(3) Require that CDP direct program staff are paid in accordance with Volume 1405 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, “DoD Civilian Personnel Management System: Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) Pay and Allowances” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/1400.25-V1405.pdf</I>). Ensure 75 percent of the program's direct program staff total labor hours are paid to direct program staff who are in benefit status.
</P>
<P>(4) Require that there are adequate numbers of qualified professional staff to manage the CDPs according to the Service manpower and child space staffing requirements and referenced in paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 79.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Manage child care priority policy, as directed by their respective DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(6) Manage hardship waiver policy (financial and operational), as directed by their respective DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(7) Review and validate the demand for installation child care capacity and take appropriate action to expand the availability of care as needed. See paragraph (h) of § 79.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) Convene a Parent Board, and ensure that a viable Parent Participation Program is in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1783 and 1795.
</P>
<P>(9) Implement mandated annual and periodic inspections and complete required corrective and follow-up actions within timeframes specified by their respective DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Directors of the Defense Agencies and DoD Field Activities.</I> In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, the Directors of the Defense Agencies and DoD Field Activities shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Require that CDPs within his or her jurisdiction are in compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Require that child care fees are used in accordance with DoD Instruction 5305.5 and paragraph (c)(2) of § 79.6.
</P>
<P>(3) Require that CDP direct program staff are paid in accordance with Volume 1405 of DoD Instruction 1400.25. Ensure 75 percent of the program's direct program staff total labor hours are paid to direct program staff who are in benefit status.
</P>
<P>(4) Require that there are adequate numbers of qualified professional staff to manage the CDPs according to the Service manpower and child space staffing requirements and referenced in paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 79.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Manage child care priority policy, as directed by their respective DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(6) Manage hardship waiver policy (financial and operational), as directed by their respective DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(7) Review and validate the demand for installation child care capacity and take appropriate action to expand the availability of care, as needed. See paragraph (h) of § 79.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) Convene a Parent Board, and require that a viable Parent Participation Program is in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1783 and 1795.
</P>
<P>(9) Implement mandated annual and periodic inspections and complete required corrective and follow-up actions within timeframes specified by their respective DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.29.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Priority System.</I> To the extent possible, CDPs shall be offered to the qualifying children of eligible patrons.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Priority 1.</I> The highest priority for full-time care shall be given to qualifying children from birth through 12 years of age of combat related wounded warriors, child development program direct care staff, single or dual active duty Military Service members, single or dual DoD civilian employees paid from APF and NAF, surviving spouses of military members who died from a combat related incident, and those acting in loco parentis on behalf of the aforementioned eligible patrons. With the exception of combat related wounded warriors, ALL eligible parents or caregivers residing with the child are employed outside the home.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Priority 2.</I> The second priority for full-time care shall be given equally to qualifying children from birth through 12 years of age of active duty Military Service members, DoD civilian employees paid from APF and NAF, surviving spouses of military members who died from a combat related incident, and those acting in loco parentis on behalf of the aforementioned eligible patrons, where a non-working spouse, or in the case of a DoD civilian employee with a same-sex domestic partner, is actively seeking employment. The status of actively seeking employment must be verified every 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Priority 3.</I> The third priority for full-time care shall be given equally to qualifying children from birth through 12 years of age of active duty Military Service members, DoD civilian employees paid from APF and NAF, surviving spouses of military members who died from a combat related incident, and those acting in loco parentis on behalf of the aforementioned eligible patrons, where a non-working spouse, or in the case of a DoD civilian employee with a same-sex domestic partner, is enrolled in an accredited post-secondary institution. The status of post-secondary enrollment must be verified every 90 days.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Space Available.</I> After meeting the needs of parents in priorities 1, 2, and 3, CDPs shall support the need for full-time care for other eligible patrons such as active duty Military Service members with non-working spouses, DoD civilian employees paid from APF and NAF with non-working spouses or same-sex domestic partners, eligible employees of DoD Contractors, Federal employees from non-DoD agencies, and military retirees on a space available basis. In this category, CDPs may also authorize otherwise ineligible patrons in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1783, 1791 through 1800, 2809, and 2812 to enroll in the CDP to make more efficient use of DoD facilities and resources.
</P>
<P>(5) Individual priorities will be determined based on the date of application with the DoD Component. Components may only establish sub-priorities if unique mission related installation requirements are identified by higher headquarters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of Care.</I> The types of care offered for children from birth through 12 years of age include 24/7 care and care provided on a full-day, part-day, short-term or intermittent basis.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Military-Operated CDPs.</I> Military-operated (on and off installation) CDPs generally include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>CDCs.</I> Reference Table 1 of this section of this part for standards of operation for CDCs. CDCs primarily offer care to children from birth to 5 years of age, but may also be used to provide SAC programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SAC Programs.</I> Reference Table 1 of this section for SAC standards of operation. SAC programs primarily offer care to children from 6 to 12 years of age. Care may be offered in CDCs and other installation facilities, such as youth centers and schools.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>FCC.</I> Reference Table 2 of this section for FCC standards of operation. Child care services are available to children from infancy through 12 years of age and are provided in government housing or in state licensed/regulated homes in the community.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Supplemental Child Care.</I> Services include short-term alternative child care options in approved settings on and off installation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Part-Day and Hourly Programs.</I> CDP space used for part-day and hourly programs, including programs to provide respite child care, shall not exceed 20 percent of the CDP program's capacity during duty hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Military Department, Defense Agency, and DoD Field Activity-Approved Supplemental Child Care Programs.</I> See paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administration, Funding and Oversight of Military Operated CDPs.</I> Unless otherwise noted, the requirements in this section apply to all DoD-operated CDPs.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Background Checks.</I> All background checks for individuals who have regular, recurring contact with children and youth in CDPs, including adult family members of FCC providers and any individual over the age of 18 living in a home where child care is provided, and persons who serve as substitute or backup providers, shall be conducted in accordance with 32 CFR part 86.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funding.</I> CDPs are funded by a combination of APF and NAF.
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of APF used to operate CDPs shall be no less than the amount collected through child care fees, except for CDCs that operate under a long-term facility's contract or lease-purchase agreement under 10 U.S.C. 2809 and 2812.
</P>
<P>(A) A family's child care fee category is determined based on an initial and subsequent annual verification of TFI. Families pay the child care fee assigned to that TFI category. A family's fees may only be adjusted once per year, with exceptions listed in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(E) of this section. TFI is determined utilizing DD Form 2652.
</P>
<P>(B) APF may be used to subsidize child care in military-approved civilian programs in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1791 through 1800.
</P>
<P>(C) DoD Components establishing child care fee assistance programs for their employees must contribute the amounts required to pay subsidies out of agency APFs.
</P>
<P>(D) FCC providers are private contractors. Fees are established between the provider and parent, unless such providers receive direct monetary subsidies. When FCC providers receive direct monetary subsidies to reduce the cost of care for the families they service, the installation commander or DoD Component shall determine relevant fees charged by FCC providers.
</P>
<P>(E) Fees may be adjusted:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) By the installation commander, Defense Agency Director, or DoD Field Activity Director:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) On a case-by-case basis for families who are facing financial hardship or unusual circumstances that merit review, in accordance with established DoD Component guidance.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For parents participating in an approved parent participation program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) By the DoD Components, Defense Agency Director, or DoD Field Activity Director:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) To accommodate an optional high market rate when it is necessary to pay higher wages to compete with local labor or at those installations where wages are affected by non-foreign area cost of living allowance (COLA), post differential or locality pay. The optional low market rate may be used in areas where costs for comparable care within the installation catchment area are significantly lower. A request to utilize the high or low market rate options must be submitted to OFP/CY for approval.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To reflect changes in employment status, relocation, and annual internal reviews that find inaccurate determination or calculation of TFI.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For CDP employees when CDC programs are facing operational hardships.
</P>
<P>(ii) Child Development Program Element APF may be used for:
</P>
<P>(A) Salaries of CDP employees.
</P>
<P>(B) Food.
</P>
<P>(C) Training and education.
</P>
<P>(D) Program accreditation fees and support services.
</P>
<P>(E) Travel and transportation.
</P>
<P>(F) Marketing, to include recruitment, retention, and participation efforts.
</P>
<P>(G) Supplies and equipment, to include lending libraries and training materials for use by FCC providers.
</P>
<P>(H) Local travel expenses incurred by FCC program staff using their private vehicles to perform government functions.
</P>
<P>(I) Direct monetary subsidies to FCC providers.
</P>
<P>(iii) To the maximum extent possible, child care fees shall cover the NAF cost of care, and NAF costs not covered by child care fees are to be minimized. Child care fees shall only be used for:
</P>
<P>(A) Compensation of direct care CDP employees who are classified as NAF employees, to include training and education, and recruitment and retention initiatives approved by the DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(B) Food-related expenses not paid by the USDA or DoD APFs.
</P>
<P>(C) Consumable supplies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility Requirements and Construction.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Minimum prescribed construction standards:
</P>
<P>(A) For all Marine Corps, Navy, and Air Force CDC facility construction, the Unified Facilities Criteria (UFC) 4-740-14, “Design: Child Development Centers” (see <I>http://www.wbdg.org/ccb/DOD/UFC/ufc_4_740_14.pdf</I>) apply.
</P>
<P>(B) For all Army CDC facility construction, the Army Standard for Child Development Centers (see <I>https://mrsi.usace.army.mil/fdt/Army%20Standards/CDC%20age%206wk%20to%205yr%20Army%20Standard.pdf</I>) apply.
</P>
<P>(C) When SAC is provided in youth facilities, UFC 4-740-06, “Youth Centers” (see <I>http://www.wbdg.org/ccb/DOD/UFC/ufc_4_740_06.pdf</I>) and Service-specific exceptions to the UFC apply.
</P>
<P>(D) State and local construction standards may be used but are not required, except if the CDC facility is located on an area over which the United States has no legislative jurisdiction and then only if State and local standards are more stringent than those in UFC 4-740-14.
</P>
<P>(ii) All facilities shall comply with the structural requirements of the National Fire Protection Association 101, “Life Safety Code®” 2012 (available at <I>http://www.nfpa.org/aboutthecodes/AboutTheCodes.asp?DocNum=101&amp; cookie%5Ftest=1</I>)
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oversight.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DoD Certification Inspection.</I> Installation-operated CDPs in which care is provided for 10 or more child care hours per week on a regular basis shall be certified to operate through inspections occurring no fewer than four (4) times a year. Inspections must be unannounced, and parent and staff feedback shall be solicited as part of the inspection process.
</P>
<P>(A) Three local inspections and one higher headquarters inspection shall be conducted to verify compliance with this part and DoD Component implementing guidance. Local inspection teams are led by a representative of the installation commander, Defense Agency Director, or Defense Field Activity Director, and a multidisciplinary team, to include human resource, fire, health, and safety proponents, with expertise and authority to verify compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Local inspections include an annual comprehensive health and sanitation inspections, annual comprehensive fire and safety inspections, and a multidisciplinary inspection whose team that includes parent representation. Community representation on the team by appropriate professionals is highly encouraged.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DoD Component inspection teams inspecting CDPs serving children birth through 12 years of age shall include staff possessing:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A baccalaureate degree in child development, early childhood education (ECE), home economics (early childhood emphasis), elementary education, special education, or other degree appropriate to the position filled from an accredited college;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Knowledge of child/youth development programs; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A combination of education and experience that provide knowledge comparable to that normally acquired through the successful completion of a 4-year degree (experience must include at least 3 years of full-time teaching or management experience with children of the appropriate age group).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Parents shall be interviewed as part of the DoD Component inspection. Additional inspections shall be conducted in response to program complaints in accordance with paragraph (b) of § 79.5.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Results of DoD Component inspections shall be provided by the DoD Component to the ODASD(MC&amp;FP) through OFP/CY. CDPs whose inspection results demonstrate compliance with this part shall receive DD Form 2636. Certificates shall be displayed in a prominent location in the CDP.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Inspection results shall be made available to parents. Results from inspections of CDC programs shall be available online.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Periodic, unannounced inspections shall be made by the ODASD(MC&amp;FP) to ensure compliance with the requirements in this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) In response to each inspection, a corrective action plan with appropriate timelines shall be developed to address any deficiencies identified during inspection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Violations.</I> The installation commander, Defense Agency Director or DoD Field Activity Director shall ensure the immediate remedy of any life-threatening violation of this part or other safety, health, and child welfare laws or regulations (discovered at an inspection or otherwise) at a DoD CDP, or he or she will close the facility (or affected parts of the facility).
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a violation that is not life-threatening, the commander of the major command under which the installation concerned operates, or the Director of the Defense Agency or DoD Field Activity concerned, may waive the requirement that the violation be remedied immediately for up to 90 days beginning on the date of discovery of the violation.
</P>
<P>(B) If the violation that is not life-threatening is not remedied by the end of that 90-day period, the facility or parts involved will be closed until the violation is remedied.
</P>
<P>(C) The Secretary of the Military Department, or Director of the Defense Agency or DoD Field Activity concerned, may request a waiver of the requirements of the preceding sentence to authorize the program to remain open in a case where the violation cannot reasonably be remedied within the 90-day period or in which major facility reconstruction is required. A waiver request must be submitted to OFP/CY for approval.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accreditation.</I> Eligible CDP facilities (excluding FCC) shall be accredited by a DoD-approved national accrediting body. CDP oversight is a statutory requirement involving an external nationally recognized accreditation process and internal DoD Certification process.
</P>
<P>(A) FCC providers shall be encouraged to seek accreditation from an appropriate national accrediting body.
</P>
<P>(B) The percentage of CDP facilities successfully achieving accreditation shall be reflected in the Annual Summary of Operations report referenced in § 79.5.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Monitoring.</I> There shall be a system in place to monitor FCC homes on a regular basis during all hours of operation. The following information shall be maintained for FCC providers:
</P>
<P>(A) Results of family interview.
</P>
<P>(B) Background check with suitability determination.
</P>
<P>(C) Inspection results.
</P>
<P>(D) Insurance.
</P>
<P>(E) Training records.
</P>
<P>(F) Monitoring visit records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Parent Board.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1783 and 1795, each CDP shall establish a Parent Board to discuss problems and concerns and to provide recommendations for improving CDPs. The Board, with the staff of the program, is responsible for coordinating a parent participation program.
</P>
<P>(i) The Board shall be composed only of parents of children enrolled in the installation CDP facilities that are Military Service members, retired Military Service members, or spouses of Military Service members or retired Military Service members, and chaired by such a parent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board shall meet periodically with the staff of the program and the installation commander, Defense Agency Director, or DoD Field Activity Director to discuss problems and concerns. Board recommendations shall be forwarded to the installation commander, Defense Agency Director, or DoD Field Activity Director for review and disposition. These recommendations are reviewed during the DoD certification inspection.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board shall coordinate a parent participation program with CDP staff to ensure parents are involved in CDP planning and evaluation. In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1795, parents participating in such program may be eligible for child care fees at a rate lower than the rate that otherwise applies.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Enrollment.</I> To enroll in the CDP, parents shall complete DD Form 2606 or electronic equivalent, DoD Child Development Program Request for Care Record. At the time of enrollment in an installation-based CDP, parents shall provide:
</P>
<P>(i) Child(ren)'s health and emergency contact information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation that children have been fully immunized.
</P>
<P>(A) Children who have not received their age-appropriate immunizations prior to enrollment and do not have a documented religious or medical exemption from routine childhood immunizations shall show evidence of an appointment for immunizations; the immunization series must be initiated within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(B) Children in SAC are not required to provide documentation if they are enrolled in a local public school system where proof of currency of vaccination is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Children's records shall be updated annually or as needed for their health, safety, or well-being.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Immunizations.</I> Children enrolling in or currently enrolled in DoD CDPs must provide written documentation of immunizations appropriate for the child's age. Per AR 40-562/BUMEDINST 6230.15A/AFJI 48-110/CG COMDTINST M6230.4F, “Immunizations and Chemoprophylaxis” (see <I>http://www.vaccines.mil/documents/969r40_562.pdf</I>), immunizations recommended by the ACIP are required.
</P>
<P>(i) All records shall be updated at least annually and kept on file. Any child not enrolled in a school system where proof of currency of vaccination is required must provide proof of currency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Children enrolled in a local public school system and volunteer sports coaches are excluded from this requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) A waiver for an immunization exemption may be granted for medical or religious reasons. Philosophical exemptions are not permitted. The DoD Component must provide guidance on the waiver process.
</P>
<P>(A) A statement from the child's health care provider is required if an immunization may not be administered because of a medical condition. The statement must document the reason why the child is exempt.
</P>
<P>(B) If an immunization is not administered because of a parent's religious beliefs, the parent must provide a written statement stating that he or she objects to the vaccination based upon religious beliefs.
</P>
<P>(C) During a documented outbreak of a contagious disease (as determined by local DoD Medical authorities) that has a vaccine, the child who is attending the program under an immunization waiver for that vaccine, will be excluded from the program for his or her protection and the safety of the other children and staff until the contagious period is over.
</P>
<P>(iv) Civilian employees (including specified regular volunteers) and FCC providers shall obtain appropriate immunization against communicable diseases in accordance with recommendations from the ACIP. The requirement for appropriate immunization is a condition of continued employment or active participation in the program or organization.
</P>
<P>(A) This requirement is waived if a current immunization, a protective titer, or a medical exemption is approved and documented. A waiver for an immunization exemption may also be granted for religious reasons. Philosophical exemptions are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoD Component must provide guidance on the waiver process. The DoD Component must approve all waivers and documentation of the waiver kept on file.
</P>
<P>(C) During a documented outbreak of a contagious disease, staff with a waiver will be excluded from the program for their protection and the safety of the other children and staff until the contagious period is over.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Child Abuse Prevention and Reporting.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1794, CDPs shall minimize the risk for child abuse.
</P>
<P>(i) CDPs shall have standard operating procedures for reporting cases of suspected child abuse and neglect, and all employees, employees of DoD contractors, individuals working with CDPs, providers, volunteers and parents shall be informed of child abuse prevention, and identification and reporting requirements. Staff shall be knowledgeable of the child abuse reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1794, the DoD Child Abuse and Safety Hotline telephone number shall be posted in highly visible areas, including the facility lobby, where parents have easy access to the telephone number. The hotline number shall be published in parent handbooks and other media.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Programming and Standards of Operation.</I> All CDPs shall establish a planned program of developmentally appropriate activities, and adhere to the standards of operation outlined in Tables 1 and 2 of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personnel.</I> Installation-based CDP personnel and FCC providers shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CDC Directors.</I> CDC directors shall have at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A baccalaureate degree in child development, ECE, home economics (early childhood emphasis), elementary education, special education, or other degree appropriate to the position filled from an accredited college; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A combination of education and experiences, which provide knowledge comparable to that normally acquired through the successful completion of the 4-year course of study in a child-related field.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SAC Directors.</I> Directors shall have at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A baccalaureate degree in a field of child or youth development, such as youth recreation, physical education, elementary education, secondary education, child development, psychology, social work, or other degree appropriate to the position filled from an accredited college; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A combination of education and experiences, which provide knowledge comparable to that normally acquired through the successful completion of the 4-year course of study in a child development or youth-related field.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training and Curriculum Specialists.</I> Each program within the CDP shall employ at least one training and curriculum specialist. Training and curriculum specialists shall have at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A baccalaureate degree with a major course of study directly related to child or youth development, ECE or an equivalent field of study from an accredited college, or a combination of education and experiences, which provide knowledge comparable to that normally acquired through the successful completion of the 4-year course of study in the field of child or youth development or ECE.
</P>
<P>(ii) Knowledge of early childhood or youth education principles, concepts, and techniques to develop, interpret, monitor, and evaluate the execution of curriculum and age-appropriate activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Knowledge of adult learning techniques and strategies and experience training adult learners.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ability to support DoD certification, accreditation, and staff credentialing (Child Development Associate (CDA), Associate of Arts (AA) Degree) by ensuring that required training is administered and successfully accomplished to meet statutory and program requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FCC Administrators.</I> FCC administrators shall have at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A baccalaureate degree with a major course of study directly related to child or youth development, family studies, or an equivalent field of study from an accredited university; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A combination of education and experiences, which provide knowledge comparable to that normally acquired through the successful completion of the 4-year course of study in the field of child or youth development or family studies.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>CDP Direct Care Personnel, Support Staff, and FCC Providers.</I> CDP direct care personnel and support staff, as a condition of employment, and FCC providers shall, as a condition of participation:
</P>
<P>(i) Be at least 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hold a high school diploma or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Read, speak, and write English.
</P>
<P>(iv) Successfully pass a pre-employment physical, maintain current immunizations and be physically and behaviorally capable of performing the duties of the job.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> Each CDP must have a DoD Component-approved training program. Satisfactory completion of training is a condition of employment for staff in a center-based program and for providers offering care in FCC homes.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CDP Management Personnel.</I> CDP management personnel, including CDP directors (CDC directors, FCC administrators, and SAC directors), shall receive annual training, which includes the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) Child abuse prevention, identification, and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Program administration, including APF and NAF financial management, funding metrics, and fiscal accountability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Staff development and personnel management.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevention of illness and injury and promotion of health.
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency procedures and preparedness.
</P>
<P>(vi) Working with children with special needs.
</P>
<P>(vii) Developmentally appropriate practices.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training and Curriculum Specialists.</I> Training and curriculum specialists shall receive annual training, to include the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) Child abuse prevention, identification, and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Developmentally appropriate practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Principles of adult learning.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevention of illness and injury and promotion of health.
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) Working with children with special needs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CDP Direct Care Personnel and FCC Providers.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Training requirements for direct care personnel (excluding FCC providers) shall be linked to the DoD CDP Employee Wage Plan implemented in response to 10 U.S.C. 1783, and 1791 through 1800 to include completion of the DoD-approved competency based training modules within DoD Component specified time frames.
</P>
<P>(ii) All newly hired CDP direct care personnel and FCC providers shall complete 40 hours of orientation. Orientation shall begin prior to working with children, with the full 40 hours completed within the first 90 days of employment. Orientation completion shall be documented for each direct care personnel or FCC provider. Orientation includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Working with children of different ages, including developmentally appropriate activities and environmental observations.
</P>
<P>(B) Age-appropriate guidance and discipline techniques.
</P>
<P>(C) Applicable regulations, policies, and procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Child safety and fire prevention.
</P>
<P>(E) Child abuse prevention, identification, and reporting.
</P>
<P>(F) Parent and family relations.
</P>
<P>(G) Health and sanitation procedures, including blood-borne pathogens, occupational health hazards for direct care personnel, and recognizing symptoms of illness.
</P>
<P>(H) Emergency health and safety procedures, including pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and first aid.
</P>
<P>(I) Safe infant sleep practices and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) prevention.
</P>
<P>(J) Nutrition, obesity prevention, and meal service.
</P>
<P>(K) Working with children with special needs.
</P>
<P>(L) Accountability and child supervision training.
</P>
<P>(M) For FCC providers only, infant and child (pediatric) CPR and first aid must be completed prior to accepting children for care. Training shall be updated as necessary to maintain current certifications.
</P>
<P>(N) For FCC providers only, training in business operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) CDP direct care personnel and FCC providers shall complete additional training specified by the DoD Component within 90 days of beginning work. The training shall include, at a minimum, in-depth training on the subjects covered in the orientation as well as infant and child (pediatric) CPR and first aid, which shall be updated as necessary to maintain current certifications.
</P>
<P>(iv) CDP direct care personnel and FCC providers shall complete a minimum of 24 hours per year of ongoing training by the DoD Component approved training program. Training shall include child abuse prevention, identification and reporting, safe infant sleep practices and SIDS prevention, working with children with special needs, and if required, administering medication.
</P>
<P>(v) Substitute FCC providers must complete a basic orientation and background checks prior to providing care. Such orientation includes child abuse prevention, identification and reporting, working with children with special needs, safety procedures and pediatric CPR and first aid, and SIDS prevention. The FCC provider's spouse may serve as a backup provider on a limited basis, as designated by the DoD Component and must complete the required substitute FCC provider training.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>CDP Support Staff.</I> CDP support staff shall participate in annual training related to the latest techniques and procedures in child care, including topics on child abuse prevention, identification and reporting, and other training related to their position.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Volunteers.</I> All volunteers shall be screened, trained, and supervised in accordance with DoD Instruction 1402.5 and 32 CFR part 86; and DoD Instruction 1100.21, “Voluntary Services in the Department of Defense” (see <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/110021p.pdf</I>) and DoD Component implementing guidance, as appropriate to their role. Volunteers may not be alone with children and are not counted in the staff ratio. All regularly scheduled volunteers shall be trained in:
</P>
<P>(1) Program orientation.
</P>
<P>(2) Age-appropriate learning activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Child abuse identification, reporting and prevention.
</P>
<P>(4) Age-appropriate guidance and discipline.
</P>
<P>(5) Working with children with special needs.
</P>
<P>(6) Child health and safety.
</P>
<P>(7) Safe infant sleep practices and SIDS prevention.
</P>
<P>(8) Emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(9) Applicable regulations and installation policy.
</P>
<P>(10) Role of the volunteer in the CDP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Supplemental Child Care.</I> On-site group care services are designed to provide occasional, intermittent care to children on an hourly basis, including respite child care.
</P>
<P>(1) When on-site group care is provided in an installation CDP facility by CDP staff members, the requirements of this part apply.
</P>
<P>(2) When on-site group care is provided in a non-CDP facility by CDP personnel and parents are not on site, the requirements of this part apply.
</P>
<P>(3) When on-site group care is provided in a non-CDP facility by CDP personnel and parents remain on site, the facility is not required to meet the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) When on-site group care is provided in an alternative facility by volunteers or parents, and the parent or guardian remain on site, the requirements of this part do not apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administration and Oversight of Community-Based Care Providers.</I> (1) <I>Types of Care.</I> Efforts shall be made to expand the availability of these programs through referrals to comparable programs off of the installation through participation in consortiums with other Federal and non-governmental entities.
</P>
<P>(i) Efforts shall be made to ensure quality, affordable child care options exist for all eligible patrons, including those who are geographically dispersed active duty military and their families. Community-based child care options are designed to supplement, not replace, child care programs on the installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Care may be delivered through military-approved community-based CDPs, utilizing a myriad of delivery systems, including existing child care facilities, schools, recreation and after-school and summer programs, and home-based care programs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Programs that support the needs of eligible deployed families in military-approved community-based child care programs where care is needed for a short-term basis during the deployment phase must meet the State licensing regulations and requirements and be inspected by an outside agency once a year. All other types of care must meet the intent of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Programs shall meet State licensing standards for background checks.
</P>
<P>(v) Military-approved community-based child care programs will be encouraged to participate in an evaluation process utilizing the ERIS in this section, a detailed assessment tool developed by the DoD to evaluate facility-based child care providers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsidies.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD Components may subsidize a portion of the cost of child care incurred by eligible active duty and DoD civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsidies resulting from the child care provided to children of active duty military members are excluded from gross income pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 134.
</P>
<P>(iii) Subsidies provided to DoD civilian employees may qualify for exclusion from gross income, provided the specific program used qualifies under 26 U.S.C. 129(d) and the employee receives the subsidy for an eligible purpose on behalf of an eligible child as described in 26 U.S.C. 21(a) and 21(b). Subsidies in excess of the excludable amounts will be treated as gross income under 26 U.S.C. 61. Employees are advised to consult with a qualified tax expert with questions or concerns related to taxability of child care subsidies.
</P>
<P>(iv) Child care programs and providers who offer their services under this provision must comply with the standards outlined in this part and must be approved by the plan administrator or designee prior to issuance of subsidy payments by a DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(v) The DoD Components are responsible for budgeting for child care subsidies and are not to establish a special fund out of which child care subsidies are paid, nor will eligible users of Military Child Development Programs be required to make a contribution as a condition of receiving a child care subsidy.
</P>
<P>(vi) The DoD Components have the discretion to amend or terminate their participation in a child care subsidy program under this plan at any time. The benefits in this section are not guaranteed and may be reduced by plan amendment.
</P>
<P>(vii) The OFP/CY will designate a TPA to administer the Military Department, Defense Agency, and DoD Field Activity civilian child care subsidy program for all DoD Components. Each civilian sponsor must register with the TPA contracted by the Defense Department.
</P>
<P>(A) The TPA shall annually document family and provider eligibility, TFI, child data, and other information required to comply with reporting requirements, in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 21(a), 21(b), 61, 129, and 134.
</P>
<P>(B) The TPA shall provide authorization and payment of child care subsidies to the provider. All subsidy payments shall be made to the child care provider.
</P>
<P>(C) The TPA shall comply with fee assistance guidelines established by the individual DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Augmented Program Support.</I> When possible, CDPs should utilize personnel, such as behavioral health consultants and school liaison officers to assist the program staff and parents with children's social-emotional development and behavior. These personnel shall assist staff, parents, and children in developing skills to respond to challenging behaviors and reduce stress for staff and participating children.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>CDC and SAC Standards of Operation, FCC Standards of Operation, and the ERIS.</I> (1) Table 1 outlines the minimum operational standards required for installation-based CDCs and SACs to receive the DoD Certificate to Operate. These standards implement the policy requirements of paragraphs (a), (c)-(f), and (i) of this section. When a SAC program operates within a CDC, SAC standards of operation shall be used for the SAC portion of the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Table 2 outlines the minimum operational standards required for installation-based and affiliated FCC providers to receive the DoD Certificate to Operate. These standards implement the policy requirements outlined in the body of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Table 3 outlines the operational standards for community-based child care facilities. These standards, in addition to the state licensing requirements, may be used to determine eligibility of child care subsidies under conditions designated by the DoD Components. Programs eligible to receive child care subsidies when the Service member is deployed must meet the state licensing requirements and be annually inspected.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—CDC and School-Age Programs Standards of Operations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">A. Administrative</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program has implemented the fee policy in accordance with current DoD and DoD Component guidance. If appropriate, the program has an approved waiver to utilize the high cost fee option.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75 percent of the program's total labor hours are paid to direct program staff who are in benefit status.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unannounced inspections are conducted by program staff following complaints.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">B. Facility</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Facility: Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The DoD Certificate to Operate is displayed in a prominent location.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Newly constructed CDP facilities follow the UFC or Service guidance for program capacity and capability.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility food service area supports the sanitary preparation and service of healthy foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All playgrounds, playground surfaces, and equipment meet American Society for Testing and Materials and Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a balance of sun and shade on the playground and a variety of surfaces, such as resilient surfaces, and natural elements. CDC playgrounds include equipment for riding, climbing, balancing, and swinging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program provides opportunities for active play every day, indoors and outdoors. Children have ample opportunity to do vigorous activities such as running, climbing, dancing, skipping, and jumping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programs use gardens to educate children about healthy eating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The square footage of useable space for each child in each activity room meets the requirements of the UFC or Service-specific guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound absorbing materials, such as ceiling tiles and rugs are used to minimize noise levels.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Areas used by children have adequate lighting for safety, evacuation, and security measures, are ventilated and kept at a comfortable temperature.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is adequate and convenient storage space for equipment and materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Individual space is provided for each child's belongings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supervised private areas where children can play or work alone or with a friend are available indoors and outdoors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bathrooms, drinking water, and hand-washing facilities are easily accessible to children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clean, sanitary drinking water is readily available at all times.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility includes a place for adults to take a break away from children, an adult bathroom, a secure place for staff to store their personal belongings, and an administrative area for planning or preparing materials that is separated from the children's areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility includes soft elements that help create a home-like environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Facility: CDC ONLY</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The square footage of activity space per child meets the requirements of the UFC or Service specifications for facilities built after 2002. A minimum of 50 square feet per child of activity space is provided for infants in facilities built prior to 2002.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If more than one care group occupies a single room, each group has its own defined physical space and primary interest centers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor play areas directly adjoin CDCs. Playgrounds for alternative program options must be accessible via a route free from hazards and are located within 1/8 mile from the facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Playgrounds are enclosed by a fence and meet the requirements of the UFC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The square footage of playground space per child meets the requirements of the UFC or Service specific guidelines. The playground area is capable of supporting 30 percent of the total capacity of the CDC in a center of 100 or more children, and all the children in centers with a capacity of fewer than 100 children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility has a designated place set aside for breastfeeding mothers who want to come during work to breastfeed, as well as a private area with an outlet (not a bathroom) for mothers to pump their breast milk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Facility: SAC ONLY</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There are separate male and female bathrooms for children as well as separate multi-unit restrooms for staff and visitors or a system to ensure that adults and teens do not use the bathrooms at the same time as children in SAC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">C. Health and Sanitation</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Health and Sanitation: Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A comprehensive health and sanitation inspection has been conducted within the last 12 months, corrective actions have been completed per specified timelines, and the inspection report is available for review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program shall require that all children enrolling in CDPs provide written documentation of immunizations appropriate for the child's age in accordance with Army Standard for Child Development Center. Children enrolled in the SAC program are not required to provide documentation if they are enrolled in a local public school system.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff employed by the CDP and regular volunteers shall be current for all immunizations recommended for adults by the ACIP of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. All must provide written documentation of immunization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a policy in place that addresses the daily informal screening for illness based on criteria established by the DoD Component. This policy also addresses admission back into the CDP after an illness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a policy in place that addresses food or other allergies, special accommodations, or potentially life-threatening conditions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Individual medical problems and accidents are recorded and reported to management staff and families, and a written record is kept of such incidents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Only physician-prescribed medications are administered; medications are only given with the written approval of the child's parents; and medications given are documented.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers have documented parental permission to apply basic topical care items such as sunscreen, insect repellant, and lotion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A plan exists for dealing with medical emergencies that include written parental consent forms, and transportation arrangements approved by the DoD Component.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Policies and procedures are followed for administering and storing medication. Designated staff are trained to administer medications, and the training is updated annually or as required by state laws.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility is cleaned daily, and as needed throughout the day. Food preparation areas, bathrooms, diapering areas, hand-washing facilities, and drinking fountains are sanitary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A sink with running water at a comfortable temperature of no more than 110 degrees temperature is very close to bathrooms and diapering areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff and children wash hands before and after eating, after toileting and diapering, after handling animals, after entering the facility from outdoors, before water play, after wiping their nose, and after any other activity when the hands become contaminated. Signs are posted reminding staff and children of proper hand-washing procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff and volunteers follow universal precautions to prevent transmission of blood-borne diseases and the program has a blood-borne pathogen procedure, as required by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program requires parents to provide proper attire for active play indoors and outdoors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At least one staff member, who has certification in first aid treatment, including CPR for infants and children and emergency management of choking, is always present. Current certificates are kept on file.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Health and Sanitation: CDC ONLY</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Infant equipment is washed and disinfected at least daily. Toys that are mouthed are removed immediately after mouthing and are washed and sanitized prior to being used by another child.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Individual bedding is washed at least once a week and used by only one child between washings. Individual cribs, cots, and mats are washed if soiled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diapering procedures are in accordance with national recommendations and are posted in diapering areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sinks used for diapering are not co-located with food service areas or the sink used for dishwashing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">D. Fire and Safety</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Fire and Safety: Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Comprehensive fire and safety inspections have been completed within the last 12 months, corrective actions have been completed per specified timelines, and the inspection reports are available for review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A safety walk-through of all play areas is conducted daily. Safety concerns are identified, documented, and corrected immediately or put off limits to children until they can be corrected.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The building, playground, and all equipment are maintained in safe, clean condition, are in good repair, and there are no observable safety hazards in the indoor and outdoor program space.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stairways and ramps are well lighted and equipped with handrails, where appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire extinguishers, smoke detectors, and carbon monoxide detectors, where required, are in working order, and documentation shows status is checked monthly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adequate first aid supplies are readily available and maintained. First aid supplies are available during field trips and outings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toys and materials do not present a choking hazard for children under age 3 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemicals and potentially dangerous products, such as medicine or cleaning supplies, are stored in original, labeled containers in locked cabinets inaccessible to children. Diluted bleach solution must be accessible to staff in an unlocked location, but inaccessible to children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a written plan for reporting and managing emergencies, including terrorist attacks, severe storm warnings, medical and pandemic emergencies, or a lost or missing child, which includes shelter in place and evacuation procedures. Staff and volunteers understand the plan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evacuation drills are conducted monthly at different times of the day or evening when children are in care. The drills are documented.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emergency telephone numbers including police, fire, rescue, and poison control services are posted by telephones and are available at all times.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff and regular volunteers are familiar with primary and secondary evacuation routes and practice evacuation procedures monthly with children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A system is in place to keep unauthorized people from taking children from the program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Smoking and use of tobacco is not permitted in the facility or in the sight or presence of children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Fire and Safety: CDC ONLY</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cribs meet the current CPSC guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CPSC crib safety guidelines are followed: infants are placed on their backs for sleeping; soft cushions, such as pillows, comforters, thick blankets, quilts, or bumper pads are not used in cribs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">E. Parent Involvement/Participation</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Parent Involvement/Participation: Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents have access to their children at all times, are helped to feel welcome and comfortable, and are treated with respect.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Written information is available to families, including operating policies and procedures, program philosophy, and a parent participation plan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programs are encouraged to include the culture and language of the families they serve. Families are encouraged to share their heritage and culture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents are offered a program orientation as a part of the child enrollment process.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents are informed about the program and curriculum and about policy or regulatory changes and other critical issues that could potentially affect the program, through newsletters, bulletin boards, technology, and other appropriate means.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Families are encouraged to participate in the planning and evaluation of the CDC and SAC programs with regards to their child's care and development. They are encouraged to be involved in the program in various ways, taking into consideration working parents and those with little spare time.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a parent board that meets on a scheduled basis through in-person or virtual meetings. The board meets periodically to provide opportunities for families to have input regarding policies, procedures, and plans for meeting children's needs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff work in collaborative partnerships with families, establishing and maintaining daily or ongoing two-way communication with children's parents to build trust, share changes in a child's physical or emotional state regularly, facilitate smooth transitions for children, and ensure that children's learning and developmental needs are met.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Policies ensure that staff and parents have an effective way of negotiating difficulties and differences that arise in their interactions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programs inform families on how to increase physical activity, improve nutrition, and reduce screen time (TV, video games, computers, etc.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program provides information to parents to ensure that each child has routine health assessment by the child's primary care provider, according to standards of the AAP, to include evaluation for nutrition-related medical problems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Parent Involvement/Participation: CDC ONLY</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Conferences are held at least once per year and at other times, as needed, to discuss children's progress, accomplishments, and difficulties at home and at the program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">F. Learning Activities and Interaction with Children</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Learning activities reflect the program's written statement of its philosophy and goals for children. This statement is available to all staff and families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program is designed to reasonably accommodate and be inclusive of all children, including those with identified disabilities as well as special learning, medical, and developmental needs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programs have established a planned program of developmentally appropriate activities that recognizes the individual differences of children and provides an environment that encourages children's self-confidence, self-help, life skills, curiosity, creativity, and self-discipline.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff include age-appropriate nutrition education activities in the curriculum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The daily schedule provides a balance of activities in consideration of the child's daily routine and experience.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff are engaged and interact frequently with children, speaking in a friendly, positive, and courteous manner, respectful of gender, race, religion, family background, special needs, and culture. The physical environment supports these interactions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff conduct smooth and unregimented transitions between activities and are flexible in changing planned or routine activities, as appropriate. Infants and toddlers are not expected to function in large group activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff use a variety of teaching strategies to enhance children's learning and development throughout the day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff addresses bullying and supports positive behavior by modeling appropriate behavior, responding consistently to issues, and encouraging children to resolve their own conflicts, when possible and appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The outdoor environment meets the needs of children, allows them to be independent and creative, and have access to a variety of age-appropriate outdoor equipment and games. Staff plan and participate in children's active play.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Program materials are in good condition, sufficient for the number of children in the program, developmentally appropriate for the age of the children, and appropriate to the activities offered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Screen time and the use of passive media is limited and developmentally appropriate. Media viewing and computer use is not permitted for children younger than 2 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">CDC Only</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a DoD Component-approved curriculum that supports school readiness. It is based on knowledge of child and youth development and learning, and assessment of individual needs and interests.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Developmentally appropriate activities emphasize concrete experiential learning and promote development in six developmental domains: social, physical, language and literacy, cognitive and intellectual, emotional, and cultural.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Individual observations of children's development and learning are written, compiled, assessed, and are used as a basis for planning appropriate learning activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Staff plan with families to make toileting, feeding, and the development of other self-regulation skills a positive experience for children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">SAC Only</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Developmentally appropriate activities encourage physical fitness; positive self-esteem; intellectual, social, and physical achievement; leadership skills and initiative; lifelong recreation skill; positive use of leisure time; moral development and community leadership; self-reliance and independence; and respect for diversity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAC daily schedules are flexible, provide stability without being rigid, allow youth to
<br/>meet their physical needs (e.g., water, food, restrooms) in a relaxed way, allow children to move smoothly from one activity to another (usually at their own pace), and facilitate smooth transitions when it is necessary for children to move as a group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Appropriate protected internet access and programs that teach technology are available.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">G. Nutrition and Food Service</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meals and snacks are a pleasant, social learning experience for children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The DoD Components will establish policies that are consistent with USDA guidelines for meals provided by parents. Under limited circumstances when meals are provided by parents, food storage and handling procedures are approved by local health and sanitation authorities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unless documented circumstances approved by the DoD Component prevent enrollment, all programs must enroll in the USDA CACFP (United States Department of Agriculture Child and Adult Care Food Program).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dietary modifications are made on the basis of recommendations by the child's primary medical care provider and are documented. Documentation is available for religious and medical dietary substitutions. Menus contain some vegetarian meals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program provides or posts menus showing all foods to be served during that month. Core and cyclical menus are approved by a nutritionist or registered dietician. Foods typical of the child's culture and religious preferences, as well as a variety of healthful foods that may not be familiar to the child, are included.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program provides healthy meals and snacks that include restrictions on the provision of juice and beverages with added sweeteners and no fried, high-fat, or highly salted foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meals and snacks are conducted using family-style dining. In SAC programs, snacks may be served buffet style.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">CDC Only</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program encourages, provides arrangements for, and supports breastfeeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is an accountability system in place for bottles, including bottles for breast milk. Bottle-feeding is done in such a way as to minimize disease and promote interaction. Infants are held for bottle-feeding, bottles are never propped, never heated in a crock pot or microwave, and infants are never put to sleep with a bottle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One adult should not feed more than one infant for bottle feeding, two children in high chairs, or three children who need assistance with feeding at the same time.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">H. Supervision of Children</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The following staffing requirements are met at all times, except during nap time (for CDC):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. For infants from birth to 12 months, there are never more than four children per staff member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. For pre-toddlers 13 months to 24 months, there are never more than five children per staff member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. For toddlers, 25 months to 36 months, there are never more than seven children per staff member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">d. For children 37 months through 5 years, there are never more than twelve children per staff member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">e. For children 6 years through 12 years, there are never more than fifteen children per staff member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">During rest time, the staff-to-child ratios for children over 24 months of age may increase to twice the non-napping staff-to-child ratio. Sufficient staff are required to remain in the building during rest time to meet the non-napping ratios and be available to assist with emergencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The following maximum group sizes are followed at all times:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. For infants birth to 12 months, there are never more than eight children per group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. For pre-toddlers 13 months to 24 months, there are never more than ten children per group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. For toddlers, 25 to 36 months, there are never more than fourteen children per group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">d. For children thirty-seven months through five years, there are never more than twenty-four children per group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">e. For SAC, there are never more than thirty children per group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In multi-age groupings, the Service may follow the ratio per age group. For example, four infants and five pre-toddlers equal a group of nine with two direct care personnel, or seven toddlers and twelve preschoolers equal a group of nineteen with two direct care personnel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Volunteers or persons under 18 years of age may not be counted in determining compliance with staff-to-child ratios and are not allowed to work alone with children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program has an accountability system in place. Each staff member has primary responsibility and accountability for a group of children. There is specific accountability for each child by one staff member. Systems are in place for accounting for children's whereabouts, especially during periods of transition and emergencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children are released only to their parents or guardian. Children may be released to a designee when signed permission is given by the parent or guardian.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Families are notified about procedures and policies for field trips. Families are notified of all activities outside the center.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children are under adult supervision at all times. Staff are not permitted to use personal electronic devices (including, but not limited to cell phones, iPods, smart phones, etc.) when supervising children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">CDC Only</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At least two staff members must be present with each group of children at all times. When one staff person is alone with a single ratio of children, the program director or designee frequently monitors the room through closed circuit television or visual access panels to ensure oversight by more than one adult. In this case, the staff member must have an initiated National Agency Check Investigation (NACI) and the program director or designee must have a completed NACI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Infants and toddlers spend the majority of the time interacting with staff who have primary responsibility for them each day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">SAC Only</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At least two paid staff members shall be present whenever children are in the facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adult volunteers may supplement paid staff during field trips and other activities away from the facility. Only paid staff are counted in the ratio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Signed permission is given by the parent allowing the child to self-release for a specific organized activity. Self-release procedures are consistent with the installation home alone policy or self-care policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">I. Child Abuse Prevention and Reporting</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Both CDC and SAC</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A NACI to include a name-based criminal history record check (State and Federal) and fingerprint check has been initiated on all staff. Background checks are tracked to ensure completion in a timely manner.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All individuals in a CDP who have contact with children have completed a DD Form X656 “Basic Criminal History and Statement of Admission”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Updates to the background checks are completed every five years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Newly hired staff without a completed background check are readily identifiable and work within line of sight of a staff member with a completed check.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hiring practices include careful checking of references of all potential employees and volunteers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program has a written guidance, discipline, and touch policy that is available to staff and families. Staff do not use corporal punishment or other negative discipline methods that hurt, humiliate, or frighten children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The program has a child abuse and neglect policy that includes reporting requirements for staff as well as procedures to be followed should a staff member be accused of abuse or neglect. This information is included in employee handbooks. All staff are knowledgeable of the policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The DoD Child Abuse and Safety Hotline telephone number is displayed in a highly visible area where parents can see it. The telephone number is published in parent handbooks and other brochures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The facility is designed in accordance with the Unified Facilities Criteria (UFC) 4-740-14, “Design: Child Development Centers,” to help minimize the risk of child abuse:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. Access to children by those not employed by the program is restricted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. Areas to which a child or children can be taken out of view of others are limited.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. All exit doors that do not open onto a fenced area have operating alarms, except the main entrance to the facility and the kitchen entrance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">d. Evening or weekend care is provided in rooms located near the front entryway to facilitate additional supervision by the front desk staff and parents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">e. In the CDC:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1) Children can be observed at all times by parents and supervisors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2) There is visual access into and throughout activity rooms used for care, including nap time. Closed-circuit television, vision panels, and convex mirrors are used as necessary to facilitate visual access.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">3) Diapering areas are visible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All persons other than employees and family members bringing in or picking up children sign in and out at the front desk or with appropriate personnel. Visitors to the CDP shall sign in and out of the facility and wear a visitors badge at all times while they are in the facility or on playgrounds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If transportation is provided for children by the program, vehicles are equipped with age-appropriate restraint devices in accordance with State and Federal requirements. The program maintains documentation that vehicles used in transporting children are appropriately licensed, inspected, and maintained. A current copy of the appropriate driver's license and Department of Motor Vehicles driving record is on file for staff members who transport children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In SAC programs, a procedure for accountability when a child fails to show for the program is in place and followed.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—FCC Standards of Operation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">A. Administrative</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The installation regulates FCC in accordance with DoD Component requirements, ensuring care is not permitted unless subject to inspection and approval.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processes are in place to support recruitment and retention of FCC providers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unannounced inspections are conducted by program staff following complaints.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">B. Home</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where applicable, the DoD Component has a process to register and certify homes located off the installation or in privatized government housing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The Certificate to Operate, issued by the DoD Component or designee, is displayed in a prominent location.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers can demonstrate proof of current liability insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a signed contract between each family and provider. Parents are informed of changes in the provider's household composition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children are cared for by the provider or an approved substitute. Parents and the FCC administrator are informed when a substitute provider will be caring for their children. Civilian members of the provider's household providing care as a substitute must be approved and trained. Active duty Military Service members may serve as substitute providers only under circumstances approved by the DoD component.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is adequate space indoors and outdoors in the home for the number of children in care to play, rest, and eat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">C. Health and Sanitation</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On installations, comprehensive fire, safety, and sanitation inspections have been completed within the last 12 months, and the inspection reports are available for review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider notifies parents and FCC of medical emergencies, communicable diseases or illness of the children, the provider, or the provider's family member(s). Health consultants will be informed based on installation policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children are informally screened daily for illness based on criteria established by the DoD Component. Children are readmitted after illness only when their presence no longer endangers the health of other children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Only physician-prescribed medications are administered; medications are only given with the written approval of the child's parents; and medications given are documented.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers have documented parental permission to apply basic topical care items such as sunscreen, insect repellant, and lotion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Procedures for diapering, hand washing, and toileting are followed in accordance with national recommendations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers follow universal precautions to prevent transmission of blood-borne diseases, and the provider has a blood-borne pathogen procedure, as required by OSHA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers and children wash hands before and after eating, after toileting and diapering, after handling animals, after entering the home from outdoors, before water play, after wiping their nose, and after any other activity when the hands become contaminated. Signs are posted reminding providers and children of proper hand-washing procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Homes are maintained in a sanitary manner.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Individual bedding is washed at least once a week and used by only one child between washings. Individual cribs, cots, and mats are washed if soiled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Infant equipment is washed and disinfected at least daily. Toys that are mouthed are removed immediately after mouthing and are washed and sanitized prior to being used by another child.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All windows used for ventilation are properly screened.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers do not consume alcohol while children are in care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Smoking is not permitted in the home or outdoor area while children are in care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">D. Fire and Safety</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There are policies in place to ensure the home operates to protect children against the risk of fire and safety hazards.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a policy to keep children protected from hazards stemming from poisoning, toxic materials, electrical shock, standing water, unsafe playground equipment, and strangulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a written plan for reporting and managing emergencies, including terrorist attacks, severe storm warnings, medical and pandemic emergencies, or a lost or missing child, which includes shelter in place and evacuation procedures. Providers and volunteers understand the plan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First aid supplies are readily available for emergencies and maintained.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evacuation drills are conducted monthly at different times of the day or evening when children are in care. The drills are documented.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a working landline or cellular phone within the home. Emergency telephone numbers including police, fire, rescue, and poison control services, and instructions are accessible or kept with the telephone(s).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers use safety gates to prevent children from falls. Door locks that can entrap children inside a bathroom or bedroom may be opened from the outside.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If there are firearms in the home, the ammunition must be removed from the firearm. Firearms and ammunition are stored separately in locked cabinets that are inaccessible to children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Young infants are placed on their backs for sleeping to lower the risk of SIDS. Soft cushions, pillows, thick blankets, and comforters are not used in cribs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers shall not permit children to sleep in family beds unless a separate bed is designated for the child and clean linens are provided.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cribs meet CPSC guidelines. The sides of infants' cribs shall be in a locked position when cribs are occupied and do not present a strangulation or entrapment hazard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers inform parents if they will be taking children from the home while they are in care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If transportation is provided for children by the provider, age-appropriate restraint devices are used, and appropriate safety precautions are taken.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A current copy of the driver's license and proof of insurance is on file for providers who transport children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">E. Parent Involvement/Participation</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents are given access to the home at all times when their children are present.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents are provided with a copy of policies governing FCC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider communicates regularly with parents and recognizes them as partners in the care of children, and there is a prominent place to display information for parents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents are provided with information about the importance of routine health supervision by the child's primary care provider, according to standards of the AAP, to include evaluation for nutrition-related medical problems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">F. Learning Activities and Interaction with Children</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Activities and experiences are provided daily that enhance children's physical, social, emotional, and cognitive development.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Activities include age-appropriate nutrition education.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There are enough toys and materials, home-made or purchased, to engage all the children in developmentally appropriate ways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toys, materials, and equipment are in good repair and are arranged so children are able to select and put toys and materials away with little or no assistance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A variety of daily activities is planned for indoors and outdoors. There is a balance between child-initiated and adult-directed activities. A daily schedule of activities is posted for parents to see.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider plans and participates in children's active play.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider interacts frequently with the children and shows them affection and respect. The provider speaks to children in a friendly, courteous manner.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children's routines are handled in a relaxed and individualized manner that promotes respect and opportunities to develop self-esteem, self-discipline, and learning by doing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Screen time (e.g., non-active video games) and the use of passive media, (e.g., television, audio tapes), are limited and developmentally appropriate. Media viewing and computer use are not permitted for children younger than 2 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider observes and evaluates each child's growth and development for program planning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">G. Nutrition and Meal Service</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unless documented circumstances prevent enrollment, providers are offered the opportunity to enroll in the USDA CACFP and all meals and snacks are prepared, handled, transported, and served according to USDA CACFP guidelines found in 7 CFR part 226.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers develop written menus showing all foods to be served during that month, and the menus are available to parents and guardians. Menus are posted for meals and snacks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dietary modifications are made on the basis of recommendations by the child's primary care provider and are documented. Documentation is available for religious and medical dietary substitutions. Menus contain some vegetarian meals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meals and snacks include restrictions on the provision of juice and beverages with added sweeteners and limited high-fat and salted foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Food is prepared, served and stored in a sanitary manner. If meals are provided by parents, food storage and handling procedures are approved by local health and sanitation authorities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All children present are served meals or snacks. Meals and snacks for toddlers, preschool, and school-age children use family-style dining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bottle-feeding is done in such a way as to minimize disease and promote interaction. Infants are held for bottle-feeding. Bottles are never propped, never heated in a crock pot or microwave, and infants are never put to sleep with a bottle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is an accountability system in place for bottles, including bottles for breast milk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The provider encourages, provides arrangements for, and supports breastfeeding. There is an accountability system in place for bottles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">H. Supervision of Children</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The maximum group size in a home is six children per provider, including the provider's own children under the age of eight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. When all children are under the age of two, the maximum group size at any one time is three.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. In mixed-age groups, the number of children under two years of age is limited to two children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. When all children are school-age, the maximum group size is eight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parents sign children in and out of the home on a daily basis. Children are only released to persons that parents have authorized in writing. Children may sign themselves out of the home consistent with the installation home alone policy or self-care policy and parental consent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers supervise all children in care both inside and outdoors. School-age children may be outside without direct supervision as long as they are within sight or sound of the provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">I. Child Abuse Prevention and Reporting</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Providers, substitute providers, and individuals age 18 and older living in the home, must complete a background check annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All individuals in a CDP who have contact with children have completed a DD Form X656 “Basic Criminal History and Statement of Admission”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The DoD Child Abuse and Safety Hotline telephone number is displayed in a highly visible area where parents can see it. The telephone number is published in parent materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children are never left alone with a visitor or another adult who is not authorized to care for children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">There is a guidance policy in place, and providers do not use corporal punishment or other negative discipline methods that hurt, humiliate, or frighten children.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—ERIS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Oversight</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">The State Child Care Licensing/Regulating Agency conducts an annual on-site inspection of the facility and program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">SCR 01—Staff-Child Ratio/Group Size (SCR)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SCR 01.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RATIO (number of children per child care provider/staff). Ratios must be equal to or lower than:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:4 or less for infants (birth to 12 months).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:5 or less for pre-toddlers (13-24 months).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:7 or less for toddlers (25-36 months).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:12 or less for preschool (37 months-5 years).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:15 or less for school age (6-12 years).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SCR 01.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GROUP SIZE (the total number of children within various age groups). Group size must be equal to or lower than:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eight or less for infants (birth to 12 months) with two caregiving staff per eight infants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ten or less for pre-toddlers (13-24 months) with two caregiving staff per ten pre-toddlers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourteen or less for toddlers (25-36 months) with two caregiving staff per fourteen toddlers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Twenty four or less for preschool (27 months-5 years) with two caregiving staff per twenty four preschoolers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Twenty four/thirty or less for school age (6-12 years) with two caregiving staff per twenty four/thirty school agers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SCR 01.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MULTI-AGE GROUPINGS (more than one age group in a room). No more than TWO AGE GROUPs may be combined within 18 month range (THIS DOES NOT APPLY TO SAC). Each age group is represented by appropriate ratio. Examples: two caregiving staff: four infants and five pre-toddlers; two caregiving staff: five pre-toddlers and seven toddlers; two caregiving staff: seven toddlers and twelve preschoolers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">BAC 02—Background Check/Child Abuse Prevention (BAC)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 2.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks are completed and documented for each employee or regular volunteer who is in contact with children, including management, administration, classroom, support staff, and individuals contracted for hire.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks are renewed and documented every 5 years for each employee or regular volunteer who is in contact with children, including management and administration, classroom staff, and support staff.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.03.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks include documentation of State Criminal History Repository completed for all states that an employee or prospective employee lists as current and former residences, in an employment application by using fingerprints.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.03.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks include documentation of FBI fingerprint check and name-based criminal history records check of law enforcement records completed for any States lived in by applicant during the past 5 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.03.c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks include documentation of a review of the State Child Abuse Registry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.03.d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background checks include a review of the State Sex Offender Registry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each employee and regular volunteer is trained annually about child abuse prevention, common symptoms, and signs of child abuse.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BAC 02.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All employees and regular volunteers are trained annually on HOW to report, WHERE to report, and WHEN to report possible child abuse or neglect.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">SR 03—Staff Requirements (SR)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SR 03.01.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Director has a minimum of a Bachelor's Degree (BA) in childhood education, child development, social work, nursing, or other child-related field AND experience working with the age groups enrolled in the program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In the event that the director does not have a BA degree in those areas, the director must have an AA degree and must be working toward the completion of a BA degree.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SR 03.01.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The director is not responsible for a classroom of children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SR 03.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The direct care personnel are at least 18 years old and have a high school diploma or a graduation equivalency diploma (GED).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">TRG 04—Training Requirements (TRG)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orientation is provided for each staff member and includes training on the following: early childhood development and education; child abuse recognition, prevention, and reporting; safety; first aid; proper hygiene; and positive guidance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.02.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is an annual training plan for directors. Topics shall include, but are not limited to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child abuse prevention and positive guidance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Universally accepted health and safety practices to include hand washing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emergency preparedness and evacuation procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social and emotional needs of children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Developmentally appropriate practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General management practices, such as financial management, facility management, staff development, and working with parents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safe sleep practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.02.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is an annual training plan for staff that include topics such as:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child abuse prevention and positive guidance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Universally accepted health and safety practices to include hand washing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social and emotional needs of children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Developmentally appropriate practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Staff complete forty hours of initial orientation training within the first three months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Staff are required to complete at least 24 hours of training per year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TRG 04.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least one staff member certified in emergency pediatric first aid treatment, including CPR for infants and children and emergency management of choking, is present in the facility during hours of operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">IMM 05—Immunizations (IMM)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IMM 05.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Children's records include EITHER:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Documentation of current age-appropriate immunizations, as recommended by the AAP; OR
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A letter of exception on file and a statement of medical religious exception.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IMM 05.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Staff files include a copy of a TB screening. Also included is documentation of a general health assessment or a physical examination completed during employment in-processing. Information is available at: <E T="03">http://www.cdc.gov/media/.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">SUP 06—Supervision/Guidance (SUP)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUP 06.01.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The written policies and practices of the program specify that staff supervise children at all times, including nap times. No child is left alone or unsupervised.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUP 06.01.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The written policies and practices of the program specify that children are released only to persons listed on the child's registration form or for whom the parents have provided written authorization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUP 06.01.c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The written policies and practices of the program specify that parent, or authorized adult, signs children in and out upon arrival and departure each day, and attendance records are kept.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A system is in place for accounting for school-age arriving from school or other activities without the parent (for example, children transported to the program by a school bus).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUP 06.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Organizational policy prohibits: punishment by spanking or hitting or other physical means, to include corporal punishment; isolation from adult sight; confinement, binding, humiliation, or verbal abuse; deprivation of food and water, outdoor play or activities, or other program components; inappropriate touch; and punishment for lapses in toilet training or refusing food.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DRL 07—Evacuation and Fire Drills (DRL)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRL 07.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The program has a written plan for emergency evacuation (for example, a plan for evacuating building occupants in case of fire, tornado, earthquake, hurricane, or other disaster that could pose a health and safety hazard).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRL 07.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Procedures are in place to ensure all children in attendance are accounted for during an evacuation drill or event.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRL 07.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is an automatic fire detection and alarm system in place, and it is operational.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRL 07.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A fire extinguisher is accessible and in operating condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRL 07.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire and emergency evacuation drill procedures are practiced at least monthly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">HWD 08—Hand Washing and Diapering (HWD)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HWD 08.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Policies are in place to ensure staff and children wash their hands with soap and warm running water:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before eating or food preparation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">After toileting or changing diapers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">After handling animals, and after any other activity when the hands may become contaminated to include returning from outside.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HWD 08.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toileting and diapering areas are not located in food preparation areas. The areas are in easily visible locations and are sanitary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">MED 09—Medication and Health (MED)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the program does not administer medications, proceed to 09.02.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.01.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The program has a written policy and clear procedures on administering medicine, proper storage, and labeling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.01.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If medication (prescription and/or over-the-counter) is administered, written parental permission is kept on file and instructions from a physician are required (“N/A” is allowed if no children currently receive medication).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.01.c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Designated staff are trained to administer the medicine, and the training is updated annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First aid kits are readily available and maintained.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.03.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programs provide healthy meals and snacks consistent the U.S. Dietary Guidelines and are encouraged to participate in the USDA CACFP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.03.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programs are encouraged to limit sugar-sweetened juices, beverages, and snacks, and high-fat and high-salt foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MED 09.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bottle-feeding is done in such a way to minimize disease and promote interaction. For example, infants are held for bottle-feeding, bottles are never propped, never heated in a crock pot or microwave, and infants are never put to sleep with a bottle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">EMG 10—Emergency Plan/Contact Information (EMG)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EMG 10.01.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is a written plan for reporting and managing a lost or missing child.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EMG 10.01.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is a written plan for reporting and managing injuries requiring medical or dental care, including hospitalization or serious injury.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EMG 10.01.c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is a written plan for reporting and managing abuse or neglect of a child.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EMG 10.01.d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is a written policy that requires all parents to provide emergency information to include:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multiple contact phone numbers (work, cellular, home).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emergency contact phone numbers (relatives or friends) authorized to pick up the child if parent cannot be reached.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The child's physician, dentist, and emergency room preference.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">OUT 11—Outdoor Play Area (OUT)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OUT 11.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The playground and all equipment are maintained in safe, clean condition, in good repair, and there are no observable safety hazards and no entrapment areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OUT 11.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Playground equipment is surrounded by resilient surfaces (e.g., fine, loose sand, wood chips, wood mulch) of an acceptable depth (9 inches) or by rubber mats manufactured for such use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OUT 11.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The playground equipment is arranged to ensure that a child is visible and supervision is maintained.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OUT 11.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is a plan to check and inspect playgrounds on a weekly basis. Each staff member is responsible for immediately reporting hazards or unsafe areas to the director.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">HAZ 12—Hazardous Materials and General Safety (HAZ)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accident protection and liability insurance coverage are maintained for children and adults.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All chemicals and potentially dangerous products, such as medicine or cleaning supplies are stored in original, labeled containers in locked cabinets inaccessible to children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poisonous or potentially harmful plants on the premises are inaccessible to children.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Children are protected from accidental drowning by limiting access to all bodies of water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical outlets are covered in all areas accessible to children, including corridors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toys and art supplies are made of safe, non-toxic, durable, and cleanable materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There are no items that could cause choking or strangulation.
<br/>Additional information is available at: <E T="03">http://www.cpsc.gov/.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.08.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Infants are placed on their backs for sleeping to lower the risk of SIDS.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.08.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Staff make sure that soft surfaces such as pillows, quilts, thick blankets, and soft bumpers are not used in the crib.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HAZ 12.09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The building has been inspected for dangerous substances such as lead, radon, formaldehyde, asbestos, etc., in accordance with State requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">PAR 13—Parent Involvement (PAR)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PAR 13.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Families are offered an orientation and information prior to enrolling to include: hours of operation, enrollment policies, program costs, inclusion of special needs children, and opportunities for parent involvement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PAR 13.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The program policy clearly includes open door policy; family members are welcome visitors in the program at all times.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PAR 13.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The program provides opportunities for communication between parents and staff verbally or in writing on a daily basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEV 14—Developmentally Appropriate Environment and Materials (DEV)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Standard</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Classrooms are arranged to facilitate a variety of activities for each age group and provide areas where children can play and work independently or with friends.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Classrooms are well lit, ventilated, and kept at a comfortable temperature.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.03.a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Staff offer a variety of developmentally appropriate activities and materials for children indoors and outdoors that are respective of children's race, gender, religion, family background, culture, age, and special needs and include:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Language and literacy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Physical development.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Health, safety, and nutrition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Creative expression.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cognitive development.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social and emotional development.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.03.b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weekly classroom schedules include opportunities for alternating periods of quiet and active play, child-initiated and teacher-initiated activity, and individual, small group, and large group activities. Schedules are available for parents to review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.03.c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programs provide an opportunity for physical activity on a daily basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEV 14.03.d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Screen time (e.g., non-active video games) and the use of passive media (e.g., television, audio tapes) are limited and developmentally appropriate.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="86" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 86—BACKGROUND CHECKS ON INDIVIDUALS IN DOD CHILD CARE SERVICES PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 2105, 10 U.S.C. chapter 47, and 42 U.S.C. 13041.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 55756, Sept. 17, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 86.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures to conduct criminal history checks on individuals involved in the provision of child care services for children under the age of 18 in DoD programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adjudication.</I> The evaluation of pertinent data in a background investigation, as well as any other available information that is relevant and reliable, to determine whether an individual is suitable for work.
</P>
<P><I>Adult.</I> An individual 18 years of age or older regarded in the eyes of the law as being able to manage his or her own affairs.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant.</I> A person upon whom a criminal history background check is, will be, or has been conducted, including individuals who have been selected or are being considered for a position subject to a criminal history background check, and individuals undergoing a recurring criminal history background check. Includes current employees.
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> A person under 18 years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Care provider.</I> Current or prospective individuals hired with appropriated funds (APF) and nonappropriated funds (NAFs) for education, treatment or healthcare, child care or youth activities; individuals employed under contract who work with children; and those who are certified for care. Individuals working within programs that include: Child Development Programs, DoD dependents schools, DoD-operated or -sponsored activities, foster care, private organizations on DoD installations, and youth programs.
</P>
<P><I>Child care services.</I> Care or services provided to children under the age of 18 in settings including child protective services (including the investigation of child abuse and neglect reports), social services, health and mental health care, child (day) care, education (whether or not directly involved in teaching), foster care, residential care, recreational or rehabilitative programs, and detention, correctional, or treatment services, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 13041.
</P>
<P><I>Class.</I> With regard to the designation of positions, a categorical descriptor identifying employee, contractor, provider, or volunteer positions by group rather than by individual position or title (<I>e.g.,</I> “doctors” or “individuals supervising children in a school”).
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> Any individual, firm, corporation, partnership, association, or other legal non-Federal entity that enters into a contract directly with DoD or a DoD Component to furnish supplies, services, or both including construction. Foreign governments or representatives of foreign governments that are engaged in selling to DoD or a DoD Component are defense contractors when acting in that context. A subcontractor is any supplier, distributor, vendor, or firm that furnishes supplies or services to or for a prime contractor or another subcontractor.
</P>
<P><I>Covered position.</I> Defined in volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, “DoD Civilian Personnel Management System” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140025v731.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Criminal history background checks.</I> A review of records, investigative reports, and other investigative elements to generate criminal history background findings to be used to make fitness or suitability determinations.
</P>
<P><I>Derogatory information.</I> Information that may reasonably justify an unfavorable personnel suitability or fitness determination because of the nexus between the issue or conduct and the core duties of the position.
</P>
<P><I>DoD affiliation.</I> A prior or current association, relationship, or involvement with the DoD or any elements of DoD, including the Military Departments.
</P>
<P><I>DoD-sanctioned programs.</I> Any program, facility, or service funded, or operated by the DoD, a Military Department or Service, or any agency, unit, or subdivision thereof. Examples include, but are not limited to, chapel programs, child development centers, family child care (FCC) programs, medical treatment facilities, Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA) schools, recreation and youth programs. These do not include programs operated by other State or Federal government agencies or private organizations without the official sanction of a DoD entity.
</P>
<P><I>Duties.</I> Those activities performed as an employee, contractor, provider, or volunteer that involve interaction with children, including any work performed in a child development program or DoDEA school.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> An individual, paid from funds appropriated by the Congress of the United States, or an individual employed by a NAF instrumentality in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 2105(c). Includes foreign nationals in accordance with Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, “DoD Civilian Personnel Management System” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/1400.25-V1231.pdf</I>), Military Service members working during their off-duty hours, and non-status, non-continuing temporary positions with specified employment periods not to exceed 1 year such as summer hires, student interns, and seasonal hires.
</P>
<P><I>FAP.</I> Defined in DoD Directive 6400.1, “Family Advocacy Program (FAP)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/640001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>FAP records check.</I> A review of FAP records maintained on an individual, including records maintained by the installation office and records in the Service Child and Spouse Abuse Central Registry in accordance with DoD Directive 6400.1. If the individual is the spouse or dependent of a Service member, this may entail review of records maintained on the sponsoring Service member. Installation and Service Central Registry checks are limited to identifying pending and met criteria incidents of maltreatment and do not include information related to incidents that did not meet criteria or any information contained in the clinical case record that is protected by section 1320d-6 or 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) criminal history background check.</I> An FBI identification record—often referred to as a criminal history record or a “rapsheet”—is a listing of certain information taken from fingerprint submissions retained by the FBI in connection with arrests and, in some instances, federal employment, naturalization, or military service. The process of responding to an identification record request is generally known as a criminal history background check.
</P>
<P><I>FCC.</I> Defined in DoD Instruction 6060.2, “Child Development Programs (CDPs)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/606002p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>FCC provider.</I> Defined in DoD Instruction 6060.2.
</P>
<P><I>FCC adult family members.</I> Any adult, 18 years of age or older, who resides in the home of an FCC provider for 30 or more consecutive days.
</P>
<P><I>Fitness.</I> The reference to a person's level of character and conduct determined necessary for an individual to perform work for, or on behalf of, a Federal Agency as an employee in the excepted service (other than in a position subject to suitability) or as a contractor employee.
</P>
<P><I>Fitness determination.</I> A decision, based on review of criminal history background check findings, that an individual is fit to perform duties in a position subject to criminal history background check. Fitness determinations will be “favorable,” meaning that the individual is fit to perform the duties, or “unfavorable,” meaning that the individual is not.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign nationals.</I> Individuals who are not citizens of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foster care providers.</I> A voluntary or court-mandated program that provides 24-hour care and supportive services in a family home or group facility, within government-owned or -leased quarters, for children and youth who cannot be properly cared for by their own family.
</P>
<P><I>Healthcare personnel.</I> Military, civilian, or contract staff involved in the delivery of healthcare services.
</P>
<P><I>Host-government check.</I> A criminal history background check conducted on foreign nationals in accordance with U.S. and host country treaties or agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Interim suitability or fitness determination.</I> Part of the pre-screening process in the identification and resolution of suitability or fitness issues, which occurs prior to the initiation of the required investigation. It involves the review of applications and other employment related documents. A favorable interim suitability or fitness determination is a status granted on a temporary basis, which permits individuals to work under line-of-sight supervision (LOSS) after the return of the advance FBI fingerprint check, pending completion of full investigative requirements and a final suitability determination.
</P>
<P><I>Investigative elements.</I> The records, reports, or other individual elements that comprise the whole of information collected during a criminal history background check and used to make a fitness or suitability determination.
</P>
<P><I>Installations records check (IRC).</I> A query of records maintained on an individual by programs and entities at the military installation where the individual lives, is assigned, or works, including military law enforcement and installation security records, drug and alcohol records, and FAP records for a minimum of 2 years before the date of the application.
</P>
<P><I>Investigative service provider (ISP).</I> The company or agency authorized to perform background investigations on personnel on behalf of the agency.
</P>
<P><I>Line of Sight Supervision (LOSS).</I> Continuous visual observation and supervision of an individual whose background check has not yet cleared, and has a favorable interim suitability or fitness determination, while engaged in child interactive duties, or in the presence of children in a DoD-sanctioned program or activity. The person providing supervision must have undergone a background check and received a final favorable suitability or fitness determination and be current on all periodic reinvestigations as required by this part.
</P>
<P><I>Met criteria.</I> Reported incident of alleged maltreatment found to meet DoD incident determination criteria for child abuse or domestic abuse and entry into the Service FAP central registry of child abuse and domestic abuse reports.
</P>
<P><I>Position.</I> An employee, contractor, provider, or volunteer role or function.
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary investigations.</I> Those investigative elements of a criminal history background check, including those specified in § 86.6(f), which must be favorably completed and reviewed before an individual may be permitted to perform duties under LOSS.
</P>
<P><I>Providers.</I> Individuals involved in child care services who have regular contact with children or may be alone with children in the performance of their duties. Includes FCC providers and individuals with overall management responsibility for child and youth programs.
</P>
<P><I>Regular contact with children.</I> Recurring and more than incidental contact with or access to children in the performance of their duties on a DoD installation, program, or as part of a DoD-sanctioned activity.
</P>
<P><I>Reinvestigation.</I> A criminal history background check conducted after the period of time prescribed by this part to ensure the individual remains eligible to provide child care services. Reinvestigation includes the same checks conducted for the initial investigation as outlined in § 86.6(b).
</P>
<P><I>Respite care providers.</I> Individuals who provide short-term care and supportive services in a family home or group facility within government-owned or -leased quarters.
</P>
<P><I>State criminal history repository (SCHR).</I> A repository of criminal information that lists past state convictions, current offender information, and criminal identification information (fingerprints, photographs, and other information or descriptions) that identify a person as having been the subject of a criminal arrest or prosecution. Checks of the SCHR may include the State child abuse and neglect repository and the State sex offender registry.
</P>
<P><I>Suitability determination.</I> A decision that a person is or is not suitable for a covered position within the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisor.</I> The person supervising individuals who are permitted to perform duties only under LOSS, who is not necessarily the same as an employee's supervisor for employment purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> ratings, assignment of duties).
</P>
<P><I>Volunteer.</I> There are two types of volunteers:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specified volunteers.</I> Individuals who could have extensive or frequent contact with children over a period of time. They include, but are not limited to, positions involving extensive interaction alone, extended travel, or overnight activities with children or youth. Coaches and long-term instructors are among those who fall in this category. Specified volunteers are designated by the DoD Component head. Background checks are required in accordance with § 86.6(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-specified volunteers.</I> Individuals who provide services that are shorter in duration than is required to perform a criminal history background check (<I>e.g.,</I> one-day class trip, class party). Because non-specified volunteers do not receive the same level of background checks as specified volunteers, non-specified volunteers must always be in line of sight of a staff member with a complete background check.
</P>
<P><I>Youth program.</I> Defined in DoD Instruction 6060.4, “Department of Defense (DoD) Youth Programs (YPs)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/606004p.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Individuals who have regular contact with children under 18 years of age in DoD-sanctioned child care services programs will undergo a criminal history background check in order to protect the health, safety and well-being of children in such programs.
</P>
<P>(b) All individuals who have regular contact with children under 18 years of age in DoD-sanctioned child care services programs and who also have a current or prior DoD affiliation must also undergo an IRC.
</P>
<P>(c) DoD Component heads are delegated the authority to make suitability determinations and take subsequent actions in cases involving applicants and appointees to covered positions as defined by 5 CFR 731.101, subject to the conditions in 5 CFR 731.103. This authority may be further delegated to authorized management officials, in writing, in accordance with volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P>
<P>(1) The DoD Consolidated Adjudications Facility is responsible for making favorable suitability determinations for civilian personnel in accordance with Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Civilian Personnel and Policy Memorandum, “Responsibilities Under the Department of Defense Suitability and Fitness Adjudications for Civilians Employees Programs,” August 26, 2013.
</P>
<P>(2) Military members are not subject to suitability adjudication under Volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, “DoD Civilian Personnel Management System” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140025v731.pdf</I>). Military members are subject to the background check requirements of DoD Instruction 5200.02, “Personnel Security Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520002_2014.pdf</I>) and § 86.6.
</P>
<P>(d) Suitability and fitness determinations for individuals subject to this part will follow the guidance of Volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25 for APF employees and Subchapter 1403 of DoD Instruction 1400.25 for NAF employees. Suitability and fitness are to be applied for the child care worker population in accordance with Volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25 for appropriated fund employees in covered positions as defined by 5 CFR part 731.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals who have received a favorable interim suitability or fitness determination based on the FBI criminal history background check are permitted to work under LOSS pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 13041(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness and Force Management (ASD(R&amp;FM)):
</P>
<P>(1) Ensures the conduct of criminal history background checks complies with DoD policy and the Criminal Justice Information Services Division of the FBI's operational and security policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Monitors DoD Component compliance with this part, applicable laws, and subsequent guidance issued by the applicable ISP.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(R&amp;FM), the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Civilian Personnel Policy (DASD(CPP)) oversees development of DoD Component policies and procedures for the background check initiation, completion, adjudication, and suitability or fitness determination process for civilian employees in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(R&amp;FM), the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)) oversees development of DoD Component policies and procedures related to the background check initiation, completion, adjudication, and fitness determination process for specified volunteers, FCC providers and adults residing in their home, and others as identified in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(R&amp;FM), the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Personnel Policy (DASD(MPP)):
</P>
<P>(1) Implements this part for military personnel in accordance with DoD Instruction 5200.02.
</P>
<P>(2) Institutes effective quality assurance and quality control systems for chaplains, support staff, specified volunteers, and contractors who provide support to religious programs and activities identified in § 86.6(a)(5)(v) and in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO) of the Department of Defense, the Director of Administration ensures that the adjudication of background investigations of individuals who have regular contact with children under 18 years of age in DoD-sanctioned programs considers the criteria for presumptive and automatic disqualification as specified in this part.
</P>
<P>(f) The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&amp;L)) establishes policies and procedures for the background check initiation, completion, adjudication, and fitness determination process for contractors in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) The DoD Component heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure Component compliance with the requirements of this part, applicable laws, and guidance for civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure compliance with suitability and fitness determination policies, requirements, and procedures for individuals in child care services in DoD programs as defined in 42 U.S.C. 13041 and DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure compliance with policies, requirements, and procedures for LOSS of individuals with a favorable interim suitability determination.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide support and resources as required to implement this part and any Component-specific policies, requirements, and procedures, and ensure implementation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.30.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for criminal history background checks.</I> (1) All criminal history background checks required by this part must be initiated, tracked, and overseen by properly trained and vetted individuals who have been determined to be responsible for personnel security pursuant to DoD Instruction 5200.02 or human resource functions pursuant to Volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25. Program managers, supervisors, and others not routinely performing personnel security and human resource functions are prohibited from managing the criminal history checks.
</P>
<P>(2) All employment applications completed by individuals subject to this part must comply with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 13041(d).
</P>
<P>(3) The DoD Component will ensure that only authorized ISPs are used.
</P>
<P>(4) When permitted by the host government, foreign government checks of individuals serving on DoD installations overseas must be requested directly by the employing Military Service or agency in accordance with Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25. As an alternative, DoD Components may request that overseas Military Service investigative elements obtain appropriate host-government checks and accept such checks if they are comparable to those required by 42 U.S.C. 13041. Where it is not possible to obtain criminal history checks comparable to those required by 42 U.S.C. 13041, foreign nationals will not be eligible for employment in child care services.
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals subject to criminal history background checks are:
</P>
<P>(i) All personnel employed or performing duties in DoD Child and Youth or other sanctioned child care services programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals providing in-home FCC.
</P>
<P>(iii) Personnel employed or performing duties in child and youth recreational and athletic programs (<I>e.g.,</I> Morale, Welfare, and Recreation), including instructors and, when working in a facility when children and youth are present, custodial personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals employed or performing duties in a DoDEA school (whether or not directly involved with teaching), including but not limited to teachers, administrators, other professional staff, aides, bus drivers, janitors, cafeteria workers, nurses, and attendants.
</P>
<P>(v) Chaplains, chaplains' assistants, religious program specialists, and other individuals employed or performing child care services duties for children under 18 years of age on a DoD installation or as part of a military-sanctioned program.
</P>
<P>(vi) Foster and respite child care providers on a DoD installation, program, or as part of a military-sanctioned activity.
</P>
<P>(vii) Health and mental health care personnel, employed or performing child care services duties on a DoD installation, in a DoD sanctioned program, or as part of a military-sanctioned activity, including but not limited to physicians, dentists, nurse practitioners, clinical social workers, physical therapists, speech-language pathologists, clinical support staff (including residents), registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, nursing assistants, play therapists, and technicians.
</P>
<P>(viii) Individuals employed or performing child care duties in social services, residential care, rehabilitation programs, detention, and correctional services on a DoD installation, program, or as part of a military-sanctioned activity.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other individuals reasonably expected to have regular contact with children on a DoD installation, in a DoD sanctioned program, or as part of a military-sanctioned activity, including specified volunteers and any person 18 years of age or older residing in an FCC, foster, or respite care home. Healthcare providers participating in TRICARE shall be governed by TRICARE policy.
</P>
<P>(6) The DoD Components will also determine any other classes of positions subject to criminal history background checks, taking care to ensure that all individuals who have regular contact with children when providing child care services are investigated and the requirement must pertain to the class as a whole.
</P>
<P>(7) Individuals designated in non-specified volunteer positions must always be under direct LOSS in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of background checks.</I> Procedures for conducting a background check on individuals in paragraphs (a)(5)(i) through (ix) of this section differ based on the employment status of the individual. Military members are subject to the background check requirements of DoD Instruction 5200.02 and this section. The FBI criminal history background checks for all categories of individuals must be fingerprint-based and fingerprints must be captured using an FBI-approved system. SCHR checks may require hardcopy fingerprint submissions. State checks must include the state child abuse and neglect repository and the state sex offender registry. The Component must request a check of the state child abuse and neglect repository and the State sex offender registry if they are not automatically checked as part of the standard SCHR check.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criminal history background checks for DoD civilian and military personnel who are investigated at the NACI or a higher level pursuant to DoD's personnel security program.</I> (i) DoD civilian and military personnel required by DoD Instruction 5200.02 to be investigated according to the requirements of the National Agency Check and Inquiries (NACI) or a higher level investigation and who have regular contact with children under 18 years of age in DoD-sanctioned programs will be investigated and adjudicated in accordance with the provisions of DoD Instruction 5200.02.
</P>
<P>(ii) These personnel will also be subject to the additional requirements of the Child Care National Agency Check and Inquiries (CNACI) and the criteria for presumptive and automatic disqualification as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criminal history background checks for civilian employees (APF and NAF).</I> (i) In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13041 and Volume 731 and Subchapter 1403 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, complete a CNACI, which includes an FBI criminal history background check conducted through the Criminal Justice Information Services Division of the FBI and SCHR checks through State repositories of all States that an employee or prospective employee lists as current and former residences on an employment application. Results of an advanced FBI fingerprint check must be provided before completion of the full CNACI to determine employment under LOSS.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals with a prior DoD affiliation must also complete an IRC, which includes an installation law enforcement check, drug and alcohol records check, and a check of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) records for a minimum of 2 years before the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criminal history background checks for FCC providers and contractors.</I> (i) In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13041, complete a CNACI, which includes an FBI criminal history background check conducted through the Criminal Justice Identification Services Division of the FBI and SCHR checks through State repositories of all States that a provider or contractor or prospective provider or contractor lists as current and former residences in an employment application. Results of an advanced FBI fingerprint check must be provided before completion of the full CNACI. Results for contractors may be used to determine employment under LOSS.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals with a prior DoD affiliation must also complete an IRC, including an installation law enforcement check, drug and alcohol records check, and a check of the FAP records for a minimum of 2 years before the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Criminal history background checks for others.</I> (i) In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 13041, only an FBI advanced fingerprint check is required for criminal history background checks for volunteers and persons 18 years of age or older residing in an FCC, foster, or respite care home.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals with a prior DoD affiliation must also complete an IRC to include: an installation law enforcement check, drug and alcohol records check, and a check of the FAP records for a minimum of 2 years before the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Timely completion.</I> To ensure timely completion, the DoD Components will establish procedures to initiate or request criminal history background check results, follow up to ensure checks have been completed, and address situations where there is a delay in receiving results. In no event will an individual subject to this part be presumed to have a favorable background check merely because there has been a delay in receiving the results of the requisite background check. If no response from the state(s) is received within 60 days, determinations based upon the CNACI report may be made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for disqualification based on results on criminal history background checks.</I> The ultimate decision to determine how to use information obtained from the criminal history background checks in selection for positions involving the care, treatment, supervision, or education of children must incorporate a common sense decision based upon all known facts. Adverse information is evaluated by the DoD Component who is qualified at the appropriate level of command in interpreting criminal history background checks. All information of record both favorable and unfavorable will be assessed in terms of its relevance, recentness, and seriousness. Likewise, positive mitigating factors should be considered. Final suitability decisions shall be made by that commander or designee. Criteria that will result in disqualification of an applicant require careful screening of the data. A disqualifying event may be the basis for a non-selection, withdrawal of a tentative offer of employment, ineligibility for facility access, removal from a contract, a suitability action under 5 CFR part 731, a probationary termination, an adverse action, or other appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criteria for automatic disqualification.</I> No person, regardless of circumstances, will be approved to provide child care services pursuant to this part if the background check discloses:
</P>
<P>(i) That the individual has been convicted in either a civilian or military court (to include any general, special or summary court-martial conviction) or received non-judicial punishment (under Article 15 or chapter 47 of Title 10, U.S.C., also known and referred to in this part as “the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)”) for any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A sexual offense.
</P>
<P>(B) Any criminal offense involving a child victim.
</P>
<P>(C) A felony drug offense.
</P>
<P>(ii) That the individual has been held to be negligent in a civil adjudication or administrative proceeding concerning the death or serious injury to a child or dependent person entrusted to the individual's care.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suitability and fitness determinations for individuals involved with the provision of child care services.</I> Suitability and fitness determinations for individuals subject to this part will be made in accordance with Volume 731, Volume 1231, and Subchapter 1403 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, and part 1201 of 5 U.S.C., as appropriate. The following may be the basis for non-selection, withdrawal of a tentative offer of employment, ineligibility for facility access, removal from a contract, a suitability action under DoD Instruction 1400.25, a probationary termination, an adverse action, or other appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criteria for presumptive disqualification.</I> Officials charged with making determinations pursuant to this part must include in the record a written justification for any favorable determination made where background check findings include any of the following presumptively disqualifying information:
</P>
<P>(i) A FAP record indicating that the individual met criteria for child abuse or neglect or civil adjudication that the individual committed child abuse or neglect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence of an act or acts by the individual that tend to indicate poor judgment, unreliability, or untrustworthiness in providing child care services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence or documentation of the individual's past or present dependency on or addiction to any controlled or psychoactive substances, narcotics, cannabis, or other dangerous drug without evidence of rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(iv) A conviction, including any general, special, or summary court-martial conviction, or non-judicial punishment under Article 15 of the UCMJ for:
</P>
<P>(A) A crime of violence committed against an adult.
</P>
<P>(B) Illegal or improper use, possession, or addiction to any controlled or psychoactive substances, narcotics, cannabis, or other dangerous drug.
</P>
<P>(v) A civil adjudication that terminated the individual's parental rights to his or her child, except in cases where the birth parent places his or her child for adoption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Evaluation of presumptively disqualifying information.</I> The DoD Components will establish and oversee procedures for the evaluation of presumptively disqualifying information for all categories of individuals in paragraph (b) of this section. Evaluation of presumptively disqualifying information for APF and NAF personnel must be in accordance with Volume 731 and Subchapter 1403 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, respectively.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for disqualification under LOSS.</I> If an investigation of an individual who is currently working under LOSS subsequently results in an unfavorable determination, the DoD Components will take action to protect children by reassigning or removing the individual from employment, contract, or volunteer status.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disputes and appeals.</I> The DoD Components will establish and oversee procedures for the communication of determinations and the appeal of unfavorable determinations for all categories of individuals in paragraph (b) of this section. The procedures for civilian personnel are subject to Volume 731 of DoD Instruction 1400.25 for APF employees and Subchapter 1403 of DoD Instruction 1400.25 for NAF employees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reinvestigation.</I> (1) All DoD civilian employees (both APF and NAF), contractors, military personnel, and any other individuals reasonably expected to have regular contact with children on a DoD installation, program, or as part of a military-sanctioned activity, including specified volunteers and any person 18 years of age or older residing in an FCC, foster, or respite care home, who continue to perform duties in the position for which their initial background check was conducted, must undergo a reinvestigation every 5 years. The reinvestigation must consist of the same check conducted for the initial investigation as outlined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) All FCC providers and adults residing in an FCC home must undergo an annual reinvestigation utilizing the Special Agreement Check (SAC) for childcare providers. The SAC reinvestigation consists of an update to the initial investigation as outlined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the reinvestigation results in an unfavorable determination, the DoD Components will take action to protect children by reassigning or removing the individual from employment, contract, or volunteer status.
</P>
<P>(4) If derogatory information surfaces within the 5 years before the reinvestigation, the DoD Component will take action to protect children by reassigning or suspending from having contact with children, any individual, contractor or volunteer until the case is resolved.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Self-reporting.</I> (1) Individuals who have regular contact with children under 18 years of age in DoD-sanctioned programs who have a completed background check are required to immediately report subsequent automatic disqualification criteria under paragraph (c)(1) of this section and presumptive disqualification criteria under paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (iv), and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD Components will establish procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Informing individuals of the requirement to immediately report any incident or conviction that may invalidate their prior background check and make them ineligible to work or have contact with children.
</P>
<P>(ii) Responding to and evaluating reports made by such individuals, and taking appropriate action until the case has been resolved or closed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Eligibility to perform duties under LOSS.</I> The DoD Components will establish Component-specific procedures, policies, and requirements, subject to the requirements of this paragraph, to permit applicants for whom a criminal history background check has been initiated but not yet completed, to perform duties under LOSS upon favorable findings of preliminary investigations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>No presumption of right.</I> No individual will be permitted to perform duties under LOSS in a position subject to criminal history background check without authorizing policy or other written permission from a DoD Component head.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preliminary investigations required.</I> No individual will be permitted to perform duties under LOSS in a position subject to criminal history background check unless the following investigative elements have been reviewed and determined favorably:
</P>
<P>(i) An IRC, including installation law enforcement records check, drug and alcohol records, and FAP records check for a minimum of 2 years before the date of the application if the individual has a preexisting DoD affiliation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Initial results from the advanced FBI fingerprint criminal history background check (not the full check).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for non-specified volunteers.</I> Due to the controlled, limited duration of an activity for these individuals, an advanced FBI fingerprint criminal history background check is not required. Non-specified volunteers will be permitted to perform duties and services under LOSS for the duration of the activity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supervisor requirements.</I> The supervisor must be a person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Has undergone and successfully completed the required background check.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has complied, as required, with the periodic reinvestigation requirement for a recurring criminal history background check.
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not previously exhibited reckless disregard for an obligation to supervise an employee, contractor, or volunteer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Video surveillance.</I> The use of video surveillance equipment to provide temporary oversight for individuals whose required background checks have been initiated but not completed is acceptable provided it is continuously monitored by an individual who has undergone and successfully completed all required background checks. This provision shall meet the intent of a flexible and reasonable alternative for “direct sight supervision.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conspicuous identification of individuals subject to LOSS.</I> Individuals permitted to perform duties solely under LOSS must be conspicuously marked by means of distinctive clothing, badges, wristbands, or other visible and apparent markings. The purpose of such markings must be communicated to staff, customers, parents, and guardians by conspicuous posting or printed information.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Permissible performance of duties without supervision.</I> Individuals otherwise required to perform duties only under LOSS may perform duties without supervision if:
</P>
<P>(i) Interaction with a child occurs in the presence of the child's parent or guardian;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interaction with children is in a medical facility, subject to supervisory policies of the facility, and in the presence of a mandated reporter of child abuse; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Interaction is necessary to prevent death or serious harm to the child, and supervision is impractical or unfeasible (<I>e.g.,</I> response to a medical emergency, emergency evacuation of a child from a hazardous location).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="89" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 89—INTERSTATE COMPACT ON EDUCATIONAL OPPORTUNITY FOR MILITARY CHILDREN
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2164, 20 U.S.C. 921-932.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 92659, Dec. 20, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 89.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the sense of Congress as set forth in section 539 of Public Law 111-84, this part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures to implement the Interstate Compact on Educational Opportunity for Military Children (referred to in this part as the “Compact”) within the DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the DoD, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>504 plan.</I> A plan required pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 794 specifying the modifications and accommodations for a child with a disability to meet the individual educational needs of that child as adequately as the needs of children without disabilities are met. The plans can include accommodations such as wheelchair ramps, blood sugar monitoring, an extra set of textbooks, a peanut-free lunch environment, home instruction, or a tape recorder or keyboard for taking notes.
</P>
<P><I>Children of military families.</I> School-aged children who are enrolled in kindergarten through twelfth grade and are in the households of Service members who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are on active duty, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1211;
</P>
<P>(2) Are active duty or veterans who are severely wounded, ill, or injured; or
</P>
<P>(3) Die on active duty or as a result of injuries sustained on active duty;
</P>
<P><I>Children of military members who are severely wounded, ill, or injured retain this designation for 1 year after discharge or retirement.</I> Children of military members who die on active duty or as a result of injuries sustained on active duty, retain this designation for 1 year after death.
</P>
<P><I>Deployment.</I> The period 1 month prior to the military members' departure from their home station on military orders through 6 months after return to their home station.
</P>
<P><I>DoDEA Committee.</I> A DoD committee established pursuant to this part by Director, DoDEA to advise DoDEA on compliance with provisions in § 89.8 by DoDEA schools. The DoDEA Committee also provides input to the ex-officio member of the Commission on issues arising from DoDEA school interactions with member States of the Compact, and acts as a counterpart to State Councils of member States.
</P>
<P><I>Education records.</I> Those official records, files, and data directly related to a child and maintained by the school or local educational agency (LEA) or state educational agency (SEA), including but not limited to, records encompassing all the material kept in the child's cumulative folder such as general identifying data, records of attendance and of academic work completed, records of achievement and results of evaluative tests, health data, disciplinary status, test protocols, and individualized education programs (IEPs).
</P>
<P><I>Ex-officio member of the Commission.</I> Non-voting member of the Commission who may include, but not be limited to, members of the representative organizations of military family advocates, LEA officials, parent and teacher groups, the DoD, the Education Commission of the State, the Interstate Agreement on the Qualification of Educational Personnel, and other interstate compacts affecting the education of children of military members.
</P>
<P><I>Extracurricular activity.</I> A voluntary activity sponsored by the school or LEA or SEA or an organization sanctioned by the LEA or SEA. Extracurricular activities include, but are not limited to, preparation for and involvement in public performances, contests, athletic competitions, demonstrations, displays, and club activities.
</P>
<P><I>IEP.</I> When a child is identified as a child with disabilities in accordance with Individuals With Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), he or she must have a written document that describes the special education supports and services the child will receive. The IEP is developed by a team that includes the child's parents and school staff.
</P>
<P><I>Interstate Compact on Education Opportunity for Military Children (the Compact).</I> An agreement approved through State legislation that requires member States to follow provisions supporting the transition of children of military families between school systems in member States. As part of joining the Compact, States agree to participate in the Commission and pay dues to the Commission to support its oversight of the Compact.
</P>
<P><I>LEA.</I> A public authority legally constituted by the State as an administrative agency to provide control of and direction for kindergarten through twelfth grade public educational institutions. For the purpose of administering the provisions of the Compact in § 89.8 of this part, DoDEA school districts as defined in 20 U.S.C. 932 are equivalent to an LEA.
</P>
<P><I>Member State.</I> A State that has enacted the Compact.
</P>
<P><I>MIC3.</I> The MIC3, also known as the Interstate Commission on Educational Opportunity for Military Children (sometimes referred to as the “Interstate Commission” or “the Commission”), is the governing body of the Compact composed of representatives from each member State, as well as various ex-officio members. The Commission provides general oversight of the agreement, creates and enforces rules governing the Compact, and promotes training and compliance with the Compact. Each member State will be allowed one vote on Compact matters, and the Commission will provide the venue for solving interstate issues and disputes.
</P>
<P><I>Military Family Education Liaison.</I> Individual appointed or designated by State Council of each member state to assist military families and the State in facilitating the implementation of the Compact. Military members and DoD civilian employees cannot perform this function.
</P>
<P><I>Military installation.</I> A base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship, or other activity under DoD jurisdiction, including any leased facility. (This term does not include any facility used primarily for civil works, rivers and harbors projects, or flood control projects.)
</P>
<P><I>Military representative as a liaison to a State Council.</I> Incumbent of a position designated by the DASD(MC&amp;FP), who performs the duties and responsibilities defined in § 89.5 of this part. The military representative is responsible for representing the interest of the DoD in fostering easier transition of children of military families according to their designation (installation representative, Military Department representative or statewide representative). The military representative will be a military member or DoD civilian who can remain in the position for at least 2 years and whose position has a direct interface with the State education system as part of official duties or has supervisory responsibility for those who do.
</P>
<P><I>Military representative to the DoDEA Committee.</I> Individual nominated to represent all four Services by the Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (OASA(M&amp;RA)), the Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Navy for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (OASN(M&amp;RA)), or the Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (OASAF(M&amp;RA)) on a rotational basis and appointed by the DASD(MC&amp;FP) for a 2-year term. Because DoDEA is a DoD Component the military representative may act as a full participant in the DoDEA Committee.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving State.</I> The State to which a child of a military family is sent, brought, or caused to be sent or brought.
</P>
<P><I>SEA.</I> A public authority similar to an LEA, legally constituted by the State as an administrative agency to provide control of and direction for kindergarten through twelfth grade public educational institutions for the entire State.
</P>
<P><I>Sending State.</I> The State from which a child of a military family is sent, brought, or caused to be sent or brought.
</P>
<P><I>State.</I> State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the Northern Marianas Islands and any other U.S. territory or possession. For purposes of administering the provisions of the Compact in § 89.8 of this part, DoD is considered a State and DoDEA is considered the equivalent of a State department of education for DoD.
</P>
<P><I>State Council.</I> A body that coordinates among government agencies, LEAs, and military installations concerning the member State's participation in and compliance with the Compact and the Commission activities. A member State may determine the membership of its own Council, but membership must include at least: The State superintendent of education; superintendent of a school district with a high concentration of military children; representative (as a liaison) from a military installation; one representative each from the legislative and executive branches of State government; and other offices and stakeholder groups the State Council deems appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Transition.</I> The formal and physical process of transferring from school to school; or the period of time in which a child moves from a school in the sending State to a school in the receiving State.
</P>
<P><I>Veteran.</I> A person who served in the military and who was discharged or released from the military under conditions other than dishonorable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the sense of Congress as set forth in section 539 of Public Law 111-84, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010” and DoD 5500.07-R, “Joint Ethics Regulations (JER)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/550007r.pdf</I>), it is DoD policy to support the intent of the Compact by reducing the difficulty children of military families (referred to in this part as “children” or “the child”) have in transferring between school systems because of frequent moves and deployment of their parents. DoD will support the Compact by:
</P>
<P>(a) Designating military liaisons, by position, to State Councils of member States, the DoDEA Committee, and the MIC3.
</P>
<P>(b) Implementing the intent of the Compact in the DoDEA to ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Timely enrollment of children in school so they are not penalized due to:
</P>
<P>(i) Late or delayed transfers of education records from the previous school district(s); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Differences in entrance or age requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Placement of children in educational courses and programs, including special educational services, so they are not penalized due to differences in attendance requirements, scheduling, sequencing, grading, or course content.
</P>
<P>(3) Flexible qualification and eligibility of children so they can have an equitable chance at participation in extracurricular, academic, athletic, and social activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Graduation within the same timeframe as the children's peers.
</P>
<P>(c) Promoting through DoDEA and the Military Departments:
</P>
<P>(1) Flexibility and cooperation among SEAs or LEAs, DoDEA, Military Departments, parents, and children to achieve educational success.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordination among the various State agencies, LEAs, and military installations regarding the State's participation in the Compact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASD(M&amp;RA)) oversees the implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(M&amp;RA), the DASD(MC&amp;FP):
</P>
<P>(1) Designates military representatives by position as liaisons to State councils, nominated by the Secretaries of the Military Departments by the procedures outlined in § 89.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Designates the DoD ex-officio member serving as a liaison to MIC3, insofar as DoD is invited to do so by MIC3.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintains a roster of designated liaisons to State councils in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(4) Monitors issues arising under the Compact:
</P>
<P>(i) Affecting children of military families attending and transferring between member State schools; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The implementation of § 89.8 of this part, affecting children of military families transferring between member state schools and DoDEA's schools (consisting of the Department of Defense Schools (DoDDS)—Europe, DoDDS—Pacific, and DDESS.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of ASD(M&amp;RA), the Director, DoDEA:
</P>
<P>(1) To the extent allowable by 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 20 U.S.C. 921-932, adjusts operating policies and procedures issued pursuant to DoD Directive 1342.20, “Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134220p.pdf</I>) to implement the provisions of the Compact described in § 89.8 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Informs boards and councils, described in DoD Instruction 1342.15, “Educational Advisory Committees and Councils” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134215p.pdf</I>) and DoD Instruction 1342.25, “School Boards for Department of Defense Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134225p.pdf</I>), of the Compact provisions in § 89.8 of this part and the DoDEA administration of these provisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Addresses disputes over provisions in § 89.8 of this part between member States and DoDEA. When differences cannot be resolved with a member State, works with MIC3 to resolve these disputes.
</P>
<P>(4) Establishes the DoDEA Committee to review compliance with the provisions in § 89.8 of this part and to address issues raised by the Secretaries of the Military Departments concerning the implementation of these provisions.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensures all personally identifiable information is collected, maintained, disseminated, and used in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensures that DoDEA schools comply with § 89.8 and that DoDEA school-level officials inform DoDEA students transferring to schools in member States of the benefits extended by receiving States under the Compact.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments:
</P>
<P>(1) Nominate military representatives by position, in accordance with the procedures outlined in § 89.7 of this part, for designation as liaisons to State Councils by the DASD(MC&amp;FP) when such DoD liaison is requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish departmental policies and procedures to inform military communities of:
</P>
<P>(i) The provisions of this part as it affects children of military families attending and transferring between member State schools; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions in § 89.8 of this part concerning students transferring between DoDEA and member State schools.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures to resolve issues or challenges raised by parents concerning the provisions of § 89.8 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>DoD implements policy in this part by:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishing a committee within DoDEA (referred to in this part as the “DoDEA Committee”).
</P>
<P>(b) Designating military representatives by position to serve as liaisons to the State Councils of the member States and the DoDEA Committee in accordance with procedures in § 89.7.
</P>
<P>(c) Designating the ex-officio member to serve as a liaison to MIC3 in accordance with § 89.5 and § 89.7.
</P>
<P>(d) Ensuring DoDEA compliance with the selected provisions of the Compact described in § 89.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.7   Representatives to State Councils, the DoDEA Committee and MIC3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Military Representatives designated by position as Liaisons to State Councils.</I> In accordance with section 3-201 of DoD 5500.07-R, incumbents of positions designated as liaisons to State Councils will:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a military member or a civilian employee of DoD who has a direct interface with the State education system as part of official duties or has supervisory responsibility for those who do.
</P>
<P>(2) Only represent DoD interests (not the interests of the State Council), and consequently may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Engage in management or control of the State Council (therefore, may not vote or make decisions on daily administration of council);
</P>
<P>(ii) Endorse or allow the appearance of DoD endorsement of the State Council or its events, products, services, or enterprises;
</P>
<P>(iii) Represent the State Council to third parties; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Represent the State Council to the U.S. Government, as prohibited by federal criminal statutes.
</P>
<P>(3) Make clear to the State Council that:
</P>
<P>(i) The opinions expressed by the representative do not bind DoD or any DoD Component to any action.
</P>
<P>(ii) If included on State Council Web sites, all references to the representative by name or title must indicate that they are the “Military Representative” as opposed to a council member.
</P>
<P>(4) Notify the chain of command of issues requiring policy decisions or actions requested of the military community within the State.
</P>
<P>(5) When called upon to act as the spokesperson for one or more than one installation:
</P>
<P>(i) Get feedback from the designated points of contact at each military installation within his or her responsibility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordinate proposed input to the State Council with the appropriate points of contact for each military installation within his or her responsibility.
</P>
<P>(iii) Act as a conduit for information between the State Council and each military installation within his or her responsibility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide feedback through the chain of command to the points of contact for each military installation within his or her responsibility and, as appropriate, to the OASA(M&amp;RA), the OASN(M&amp;RA), or the OASAF(M&amp;RA).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomination Process for Positions Designated as Liaisons to State Councils.</I> (1) In accordance with DoD 5500.07-R, liaison positions are nominated by the Military Departments and designated by the DASD(MC&amp;FP), not by State officials. Depending on the number of liaison positions required by State policy, designating liaison positions to a State Council will be accomplished according to the processes outlined in Table 1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Process for Designating Liaison Positions to State Councils
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If State statute concerning military representatives provides for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The State Commissioner
<br/>contacts:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Who requests a selection be made by:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Whereupon the official written designation is made by:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One representative for all military children in the State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OASA(M&amp;RA), OASN(M&amp;RA), or OASAF(M&amp;RA) responsible for providing a representative for the State listed in Table 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One representative for each Military Service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OASA(M&amp;RA), OASN(M&amp;RA), and OASAF(M&amp;RA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One representative for each military installation in the State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OASA(M&amp;RA), OASN(M&amp;RA) and OASAF(M&amp;RA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DASD(MC&amp;FP).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) When there is more than one military representative to a State Council (<I>e.g.,</I> one per installation or one per Military Department represented in the State), the incumbent of the position nominated by the responsible Military Department (Table 2) will serve as the lead military representative when DoD must speak with a single voice.
</P>
<P>(3) In circumstances where the State requests an individual by name, the DASD(MC&amp;FP) will forward the request to the individual's Military Department for consideration of designating the position which the individual encumbers. If that Military Department is different from the one designated in Table 2, the DASD(MC&amp;FP) will first obtain the concurrence of the responsible Military Department.
</P>
<P>(4) In accordance with the Compact, State officials appoint or designate the Military Family Education Liaison for the State. Service members and DoD civilians cannot be appointed or designated to fill this position for the State.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Military Department Areas of Authority for Selecting a Single Military Representative Position To Serve as a Liaison to the State Council
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Military department
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Areas of Authority
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Army</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alabama, Alaska, Colorado, Georgia, Hawaii, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, New York, Oklahoma, Pennsylvania, South Carolina, Texas, Vermont, Washington, West Virginia, Wisconsin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Navy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">American Samoa, California, Connecticut, District of Columbia, Florida, Guam, Maine, Mississippi, New Hampshire, North Carolina, Northern Marianas, Oregon, Puerto Rico, Rhode Island, Tennessee, Virginia, Virgin Islands.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Force</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arizona, Arkansas, Delaware, Idaho, Illinois, Massachusetts, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Jersey, New Mexico, North Dakota, Ohio, South Dakota, Utah, Wyoming.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Military Representative to the DoDEA Committee.</I> Membership of the DoDEA Committee will include a representative from one of the Military Services to represent all four Services. OASA(M&amp;RA), OASN(M&amp;RA), or OASAF(M&amp;RA) will nominate a representative on a rotational basis who will be designated for a 2-year term by the DASD(MC&amp;FP).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ex-Officio Member Serving as a Liaison to MIC3.</I> In accordance with section 3-201 of DoD 5500.07-R, the DoD ex-officio member to the Commission, must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a military member or a civilian employee of DoD who can remain in the position for at least 2 years and who has a direct interface with DoDEA and the U.S. public education system as part of official duties or has supervisory responsibility for those who do.
</P>
<P>(2) Attend as a liaison meetings of MIC3, its Executive Committee, and other standing committees where requested by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) Only represent DoD interests (not the interests of MIC3), and consequently may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Engage in management or control of MIC3 (therefore, may not vote or make decisions on daily administration of MIC3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Endorse or allow the appearance of DoD endorsement of MIC3, or its events, products, services, or enterprises;
</P>
<P>(iii) Represent the Commission to third parties; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Represent MIC3 to the U.S. Government, as prohibited by criminal statutes.
</P>
<P>(4) Make clear to MIC3 that:
</P>
<P>(i) The opinions expressed by the incumbent do not bind DoD or any DoD Component to any action.
</P>
<P>(ii) If included on MIC3 Web sites, all references to the incumbent by name or title must indicate that they are the “DoD Ex-Officio Member” as opposed to a MIC3 member.
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the chain of command of issues requiring policy decisions or actions requested of DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.31.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.8   Compact provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DoDEA Area School Districts Relationship With SEAs or LEAs in Member States.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For the purposes of DoD's implementation of the Compact in the schools it operates, DoDEA's area offices (DoDDS—Europe, DoDDS—Pacific, and DDESS) and their schools are considered as the equivalent of LEAs and SEAs, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) Each DoDEA area acts as the “receiving LEA” and “sending LEA” in working with LEAs or SEAs in member States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Articles IV Through VII of the Compact.</I> This section describes the specific duties that DoDEA's LEAs have as “sending” or “receiving” LEAs. DoDEA's duties under this section will reciprocate the duties assumed by member State LEAs or SEAs to children of military families, as expressed by their respective State's implementation of the Compact Articles IV through VII. DoDEA will implement the provisions described below, which, while retaining the intent of the Compact, have been modified as needed in the DoDEA context.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Article IV: Education Records and Enrollment</I>—(i) <I>Unofficial or “Hand-Carried” Education Records.</I> (A) If official education records cannot be released to the parents for transfer, the DoDEA custodian of the records, as the sending LEA shall provide to the parent a complete set of unofficial education records.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of the unofficial education records, the DoDEA school, as the school in the receiving LEA shall enroll and appropriately place the child as quickly as possible based on the information in the unofficial records, pending validation by the official records.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Official education records or transcripts.</I> (A) The DoDEA school, acting as the receiving LEA shall request the child's official education record from the school in the sending State at the same time as DoDEA school enrolls and conditionally places the child.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receipt of the request for a child's records, the school in DoDEA, acting as the sending LEA will provide the child's official education records to the school in the receiving State, within 10 work days. If there is a designated school staff break, records will be provided as soon as possible; however, the time will not exceed 10 work days after the return of staff. DoDEA will initiate actions to meet these deadlines without violating the disclosure rules of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Immunizations.</I> (A) Parents have 30 days from the date of enrolling their child in a DoDEA school to have their child(ren) immunized in accordance with DoDEA's immunization requirements, as the receiving LEA.
</P>
<P>(B) For a series of immunizations, parents must begin initial vaccinations of their child(ren) within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Entrance age.</I> (A) At the time of transition and regardless of the age of the child, the DoDEA school, acting as the receiving LEA, shall enroll the transitioning child at the grade level as the child's grade level (<I>i.e.,</I> in kindergarten through grade 12) in the sending state's LEA.
</P>
<P>(B) A child who has satisfactorily completed the prerequisite grade level in the sending state's LEA will be eligible for enrollment in the next higher grade level in DoDEA school, acting as the receiving LEA, regardless of the child's age.
</P>
<P>(C) To be admitted to a school in the receiving State, the parent or guardian of a child transferring from a DoDEA (sending) LEA must provide:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Official military orders showing the military member or the member's spouse was assigned to the sending State or commuting area of the State in which the child was previously enrolled. If the child was residing with a guardian other than the military member during the previous enrollment, proof of guardianship (as specified in the Compact) should be provided by the parent or guardian to the receiving LEA or SEA to establish eligibility under the Compact.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An official letter or transcript from the sending school authority that shows the student's record of attendance, academic information, and grade placement.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Evidence of immunization against communicable diseases.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Evidence of date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Article V: Placement and Attendance</I>—(i) <I>Course placement.</I> (A) As long as the course is offered by DoDEA, as the receiving LEA, it shall honor placement of a transfer student in courses based on the child's placement or educational assessment in the sending State school.
</P>
<P>(B) Course placement includes, but is not limited to, Honors, International Baccalaureate, Advanced Placement, vocational, technical, and career pathways courses.
</P>
<P>(C) Continuing the child's academic program from the previous school and promoting placement in academically and career challenging courses shall be a primary consideration when DoDEA considers the placement of a transferring child.
</P>
<P>(D) DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, may perform subsequent evaluations to ensure the child's appropriate course placement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Educational Program Placement.</I> (A) As long as the program is offered by DoDEA, acting as a receiving LEA, it will honor placement of the child in educational programs based on current educational assessments and placement in like programs in the sending State. Such programs include, but are not limited to, gifted and talented programs and English language learners.
</P>
<P>(B) The receiving State school may perform subsequent evaluations to ensure the child's appropriate educational program placement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special Education Services.</I> (A) DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, will initially provide comparable services to a child with disabilities based on his or her current IEP in compliance with 20 U.S.C. chapter 33, also known and referred to in this part as the “Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA),” as amended, and the requirements of Executive Order 13160. DoDEA may perform subsequent evaluations to ensure the child's appropriate placement consistent with IDEA.
</P>
<P>(B) DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, will make reasonable accommodations and modifications to address the needs of incoming children with disabilities, in compliance with the requirements of 29 U.S.C. 794 and Executive Order 13160, and subject to an existing 504 plan to provide the child with equal access to education.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Placement Flexibility.</I> DoDEA's administrative officials must have flexibility in waiving course or program prerequisites or other preconditions for placement in courses or programs offered under the jurisdiction of DoDEA.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Absences Related to Deployment Activities.</I> A child whose parent or legal guardian is an active duty Service member and has been called to duty for, is on leave from, or has immediately returned from deployment to a combat zone or combat support posting, will be granted additional excused absences under governing DoDEA rules.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Article VI: Eligibility for enrollment.</I> (i) <I>Eligibility in DoDEA Schools.</I> Eligibility of dependents of military members is governed by the laws in 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 20 U.S.C. 921 through 932 and their implementing regulations. Only children who are eligible to attend DoDEA schools may do so, regardless of their transition status.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for extracurricular participation.</I> DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, will facilitate the opportunity for transitioning children's inclusion in extracurricular activities, regardless of application deadlines, to the extent the children are otherwise qualified.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Article VII: Graduation.</I> To facilitate the child's on-time graduation, DoDEA will incorporate the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Waiver requirements.</I> (A) DoDEA administrative officials will waive specific courses required for graduation if similar course work has been satisfactorily completed in another LEA or provide reasonable justification for denial.
</P>
<P>(B) If DoDEA, as a receiving LEA, does not grant a waiver to a child who would qualify to graduate from the sending school, DoDEA will provide an alternative means of acquiring required coursework so that graduation may occur on time.
</P>
<P>(C) If DoDEA, as the receiving LEA, requires a graduation project, volunteer community service hours, or other DoDEA specific requirement, DoDEA may waive those requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exit exams.</I> (A) DoDEA, as a receiving LEA, must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Accept exit or end-of-course exams required for graduation from the sending State.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept national norm-referenced achievement tests.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provide alternative testing in lieu of testing requirements for graduation in the receiving from a DoDEA school.
</P>
<P>(B) If the alternatives in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section cannot be accommodated by DoDEA as the receiving LEA for a child transferring in his or her senior year, then the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(C) of this section will apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transfers during senior year.</I> (A) If a child transferring at the beginning or during his or her senior year is ineligible to graduate from DoDEA, as the receiving LEA, after all alternatives have been considered, DoDEA will request a diploma from the sending LEA or SEA. DoDEA will ensure the receipt of a diploma from the sending LEA or SEA, if the child meets the graduation requirements of the sending LEA or SEA.
</P>
<P>(B) If one of the States in question is not a member of this Compact, DoDEA, as a receiving state, will use best efforts to facilitate a transferring child's on-time graduation in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(A) and (b)(1)(iv)(B) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="93" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 93—ACCEPTANCE OF SERVICE OF PROCESS; RELEASE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION IN LITIGATION; AND TESTIMONY BY NSA PERSONNEL AS WITNESSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12333, 3 CFR, 1981 Comp., p. 200; 50 U.S.C. apps. 401, 402.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 51328, Oct. 11, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 93.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.1   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DoD Directive 5405.2, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> “Release of Official Information in Litigation and Testimony by DoD Personnel as Witnesses,” July 23, 1985, reprinted in 32 CFR part 97. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) E.O. 12333, United States Intelligence Activities, 3 CFR, 1981 Comp., p. 200, reprinted in 50 U.S.C. app. 401. 
</P>
<P>(c) The National Security Agency Act of 1959, Public Law No. 86-36, as amended, 50 U.S.C. app. 402. 
</P>
<P>(d) Rule 4, Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. 
</P>
<P>(e) DoD Instruction 7230.7, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> “User Charges”, January 29, 1985. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 93.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) 28 CFR 50.15.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.2   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements § 93.1(a) in the National Security Agency/Central Security Service including all field sites (hereinafter referred to collectively as NSA). The procedures herein are also promulgated pursuant to the NSA's independent authority, under § 1.12(b)(10) of E.O. 12333 referenced under § 93.1(b), to protect the security of its activities, information and employees. This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes mandatory procedures for service of process at NSA and for the release of official information in litigation by NSA personnel, through testimony or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended only to provide guidance for the internal operation of the NSA and does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law against the United States, the Department of Defense, or NSA. This part does not override the statutory privilege against the disclosure of the organization or any function of the NSA, of any information with respect to the activities thereof, or of the names, titles, salaries, or numbers of the persons employed by the NSA. See section 6(a) of the DoD Directive referenced under § 93.1(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of process.</I> Refers to the delivery of a summons and complaint, or other document the purpose of which is to give notice of a proceeding or to establish the jurisdiction of a court or administrative proceeding, in the manner prescribed by § 93.1(d), to an officer or agency of the United States named in court or administrative proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Demand.</I> Refers to the delivery of a subpoena, order, or other directive of a court of competent jurisdiction, or other specific authority, for the production, disclosure, or release of official information, or for the appearance and testimony of NSA personnel as witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NSA personnel.</I> (or NSA person) Includes present and former civilian employees of NSA (including non-appropriated fund activity employees), and present and former military personnel assigned to NSA. NSA personnel also includes non-U.S. nationals who perform services overseas for NSA under the provisions of status of forces or other agreements, and specific individuals hired through contractual agreements by or on behalf of NSA. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation.</I> Refers to all pretrial, trial, and post-trial stages of all existing or reasonably anticipated judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before civilian courts, commissions, boards, or other tribunals, foreign and domestic. It includes responses to discovery requests, depositions, and other pretrial proceedings, as well as responses to formal or informal requests by attorneys or others in situations involving litigation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official information.</I> Is information of any kind, in any storage medium, whether or not classified or protected from disclosure by § 93.l(c) that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is in the custody and control of NSA; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Relates to information in the custody and control of NSA; or
</P>
<P>(3) Was acquired by NSA personnel as part of their official duties or because of their official status within NSA. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General Counsel.</I> Refers to the NSA General Counsel (GC), or in the GC's absence, the NSA Deputy GC, or in both of their absences, the NSA Assistant GC (Administration/Litigation). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NSA attorney.</I> Refers to an attorney in the NSA Office of General Counsel (OGC).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>Official information that is not classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure, should generally be made reasonably available for use in Federal and State courts and by other governmental bodies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Release of official information in litigation.</I> NSA personnel shall not produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning any official information during litigation without the prior written approval of the GC. In exigent circumstances, the GC may issue oral approval, but a record of such approval will be made and retained in the OGC. NSA personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official NSA information, subjects, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the Department of Justice (DoJ). Upon a showing by the requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the NSA or the United States, the GC may, in writing, grant special authorization for NSA personnel to appear and testify at no expense to the United States. Official information may be released in litigation only in compliance with the following procedures. 
</P>
<P>(1) If official information is sought, through testimony or otherwise, by a litigation demand, the individual seeking such release or testimony must set forth, in writing and with as much specificity as possible, the nature and relevance of the official information sought. Subject to paragraph (a)(5) of this section, NSA personnel may only produce, disclose, release, comment upon or testify concerning those matters that were specified in writing and approved by the GC. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a litigation demand is made upon NSA personnel for official information or for testimony concerning such information, the person upon whom the demand was made shall immediately notify the OGC. After consultation and coordination with the DoJ, if required, the GC shall determine whether the individual is required to comply with the demand and shall notify the requester or the court or other authority of that determination. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a litigation demand requires a response before instructions from the GC are received, the GC shall furnish the requester or the court or other authority with a copy of § 93.1(a) and this part 93. The GC shall also inform the requester or the court or other authority that the demand is being reviewed, and seek a stay of the demand pending a final determination. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a court or other authority declines to stay the demand in response to action taken pursuant to paragraph 3 of this section, or if such court or other authority orders that the demand must be complied with notwithstanding the final decision of the GC, the NSA personnel upon whom the demand was made shall notify the GC of such ruling or order. If the GC determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the ruling or order will be sought, the affected NSA personnel shall comply with the demand or order. If directed by the GC, however, the affected NSA personnel must decline to provide the information. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The NSA personnel shall state the following to the Court:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> United States ex rel. <I>Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951) wherein the Supreme Court held that a government employee could not be held in contempt for following an agency regulation requiring agency approval before producing government information in response to a court order.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“I must respectfully advise the Court that under instructions given to me by the General Counsel of the National Security Agency, in accordance with Department of Defense Directive 5405.2 and NSA Regulation 10-62, I must respectfully decline to [produce/disclose] that information.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) In the event NSA personnel receive a litigation demand for official information originated by another U.S. Government component, the GC shall forward the appropriate portions of the request to the other component. The GC shall notify the requester, court, or other authority of the transfer, unless such notice would itself disclose classified information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of service of process.</I> The following are mandatory procedures for accepting service of process for NSA personnel sued or summoned in their official capacities, and for attempting service of process on NSA premises. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Service on NSA or on NSA personnel in their official capacities.</I> § 93.1(d) requires service of process on the NSA or NSA personnel sued or summoned in their official capacity to be made by serving the United States Attorney for the district in which the action is brought, and by sending copies of the summons and complaint by registered or certified mail to the Attorney General of the United States and to the NSA or such NSA personnel. Only the GC or an NSA attorney is authorized to accept the copies of the summons and complaint sent to the NSA or NSA personnel pursuant to § 93.1(d). Acceptance of the copies of the summons and complaint by the GC or an NSA attorney does not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to the validity of the service of process or of the jurisdiction of the court or other body. Such copies shall be sent by registered or certified mail to: General Counsel, National Security Agency, 9800 Savage Road, Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755-6000. The envelope shall be conspicuously marked “Copy of Summons and Complaint Enclosed.” Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, no other person may accept the copies of the summons and complaint for NSA or NSA personnel sued or summoned in their official capacities, including the sued or summoned NSA personnel, without the prior express authorization of the GC. 
</P>
<P>(i) Parties who wish to deliver, instead of sending by registered or certified mail, the copies of the service of process to NSA or to NSA personnel sued or summoned in their official capacities, will comply with the procedures for service of process on NSA premises in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Litigants may attempt to serve process upon NSA personnel in their official capacities at their residences or other places. Because NSA personnel are not authorized to accept such service of process, such service is not effective under § 93.1(d). NSA personnel should refuse to accept service. However, NSA personnel may find it difficult to determine whether they are being sued or summoned in their private or official capacity. Therefore, NSA personnel shall notify the OGC as soon as possible if they receive any summons or complaint that appears to relate to actions in connection with their official duties so that the GC can determine the scope of service. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service upon NSA personnel in their individual capacities on NSA premises.</I> Service of process is not a function of NSA. An NSA attorney will not accept service of process for NSA personnel sued or summoned in their individual capacities, nor will NSA personnel be required to accept service of process on NSA premises. Acceptance of such service of process in a person's individual capacity is the individual's responsibility. NSA does, however, encourage cooperation with the courts and with judicial officials. 
</P>
<P>(i) When the NSA person works at NSA Headquarters at Fort George G. Meade, Maryland, the process server should first telephone the OGC on (301) 688-6054, and attempt to schedule a time for the NSA person to accept process. If the NSA person's affiliation with NSA is not classified, the NSA attorney will communicate with the NSA person and serve as the contact point for the person and the process server. If the person consents to accept service of process, the NSA attorney will arrange a convenient time for the process server to come to NSA, and will notify the Security Duty Officer of the arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A process server who arrives at NSA during duty hours without first having contacted the OGC, will be referred to the Visitor Control Center (VCC) at Operations Building 2A. The VCC will contact the OGC. If an NSA attorney is not available, the process server will be referred to the Security Duty Officer, who will act in accordance with Office of Security (M5) procedures approved by the GC. Service of process will not be accepted during non-duty hours unless prior arrangements have been made by the OGC. For purposes of this part, duty hours at NSA Headquarters are 0800 to 1700, Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. A process server who arrives at NSA during non-duty hours without having made arrangements through the OGC to do so will be told to call the OGC during duty hours to arrange to serve process. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon being notified that a process server is at the VCC, an NSA attorney will review the service of process and determine whether the NSA person is being sued or summoned in his official or individual capacity. (If the person is being sued or summoned in his or her official capacity, the NSA attorney will accept service of process by noting on the return of service form that “service is accepted in official capacity only.”) If the person is being sued or summoned in his or her individual capacity, the NSA attorney will contact that person to see if that person will consent to accept service. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures at field activities.</I> Chiefs of NSA field activities may accept copies of service of process for themselves or NSA personnel assigned to their field component who are sued or summoned in their official capacities. Field Chiefs or their designees will accept by noting on the return of service form that “service is accepted in official capacity only.” The matter will then immediately be referred to the GC. Additionally, Field Chiefs will establish procedures at the field site, including a provision for liaison with local judge advocates, to ensure that service of process on persons in their individual capacities is accomplished in accordance with local law, relevant treaties, and Status of Forces Agreements. Such procedures must be approved by the GC. Field Chiefs will designate a point of contact to conduct liaison with the OGC. 
</P>
<P>(4) No individual will confirm or deny that the person sued or summoned is affiliated with NSA until a NSA attorney or the Field Chief has ascertained that the individual's relationship with NSA is not classified. If the NSA person's association with NSA is classified, service of process will not be accepted. In such a case, the GC must be immediately informed. The GC will then contact the DoJ for guidance. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Suits in Foreign Courts.</I> If any NSA person is sued or summoned in a foreign court, that person, or the cognizant Field Chief, will immediately telefax a copy of the service of process to the OGC. Such person will not complete any return of service forms unless advised otherwise by an NSA attorney. OGC will coordinate with the DoJ to determine whether service is effective and whether the NSA person is entitled to be represented at Government expense pursuant to § 93.1(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.6   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with the guidelines in § 93.1(e), NSA may charge reasonable fees to parties seeking, by request or demand, official information not otherwise available under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552. Such fees are calculated to reimburse the Government for the expense of providing such information, and may include: 
</P>
<P>(a) The costs of time expended by NSA employees to process and respond to the request or demand; 
</P>
<P>(b) Attorney time for reviewing the request or demand and any information located in response thereto, and for related legal work in connection with the request or demand; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for, produce, and copy the responsive information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.32.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.7   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The General Counsel.</I> The GC is responsible for overseeing NSA compliance with § 93.1(a) and this part 93, and for consulting with DoJ when appropriate. In response to a litigation demand requesting official information or the testimony of NSA personnel as witnesses, the GC will coordinate NSA action to determine whether official information may be released and whether NSA personnel may be interviewed, contacted, or used as witnesses. The GC will determine what, if any, conditions will be imposed upon such release, interview, contact, or testimony. In most cases, an NSA attorney will be present when NSA personnel are interviewed or testify concerning official information. The GC may delegate these authorities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Deputy Director for Plans and Policy (DDPP).</I> The DDPP will assist the GC, upon request, in identifying and coordinating with NSA components that have cognizance over official information requested in a litigation demand. Additionally, the DDPP will advise the GC on the classified status of official information, and, when necessary, assist in declassifying, redacting, substituting, or summarizing official information for use in litigation. The DDPP may require the assistance of other Key Component Chiefs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chiefs of Key Components and Field Activities.</I> Chiefs of Key Components and Field Activities shall ensure that their personnel are informed of the contents of this part 93, particularly of the requirements to consult with the OGC prior to responding to any litigation demand, and to inform the OGC whenever they receive service of process that is not clearly in their individual capacities. Field Chiefs will notify the OGC of the persons they designate under § 93.5(b)(3). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The Deputy Director for Administration (DDA).</I> Within 60 days of the date of this part, the DDA shall submit to the GC for approval procedures for the attempted delivery of service of process during duty hours when an attorney of the OGC is not available. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="94" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 94—NATURALIZATION OF ALIENS SERVING IN THE ARMED FORCES OF THE UNITED STATES AND OF ALIEN SPOUSES AND/OR ALIEN ADOPTED CHILDREN OF MILITARY AND CIVILIAN PERSONNEL ORDERED OVERSEAS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 301, 80 Stat. 379; 5 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 17540, Nov. 14, 1970, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 94.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes uniform procedures acceptable to the Immigration and Naturalization Service of the Department of Justice, to (a) facilitate the naturalization of aliens who have served honorably in the Armed Forces of the United States and to (b) militarily certify alien dependents seeking naturalization under the provisions of Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended, sections 319(b) and 323(c) (8 U.S.C. 1430(b) and 1434(c)); and furnishes policy guidance to the Secretaries of the Military Departments governing discharge or release from active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States of permanent-residence aliens who desire to be naturalized as U.S. citizens under the provisions of Act of June 27, 1952, section 328 (66 Stat. 249); 8 U.S.C. 1439. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to the Military Departments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permanent-residence alien</I> is an alien admitted into the United States under an immigration visa for permanent residence; or an alien, who, after admission without an immigrant visa, has had his status adjusted to that of an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Armed Forces of the United States</I> denotes collectively all components of the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.4   Policy and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Naturalization of an alien who has served honorably in the Armed Forces of the United States at any time.</I> (1) Under the provisions of Act of June 27, 1952, section 328 (66 Stat. 249); 8 U.S.C. 1439, an alien who has served in the Armed Forces of the United States for a period(s) totaling three (3) years may be naturalized if he: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has been lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Was separated from the military service under honorable conditions; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Files a petition while still in the military service, or within six (6) months after the termination of such service; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Can comply in all other respects with the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, except that (<I>a</I>) no period of residence or specified period of physical presence in the United States or the State in which the petition for naturalization is filed is required, and (<I>b</I>) residence within the jurisdiction of the court is not required. 
</P>
<P>(2) The prescribed 3-year period may be satisfied by a combination of active duty and inactive duty in a reserve status. 
</P>
<P>(3) An alien member desiring to fulfill naturalization requirements through military service shall not be separated prior to completion of three (3) full years of active duty unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) His performance or conduct does not justify retention, in which case he shall be separated in accordance with the provisions of part 41 of this subchapter and chapter 47, title 10, United States Code (Uniform Code of Military Justice), as appropriate; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) He is to be transferred to inactive duty in a reserve component in order to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Complete a reserve obligation under the provisions of part 50 of this subchapter, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Attend a recognized institution of learning under the early release program, as provided in DoD Instruction 1332.15, “Early Release of Military Enlisted Personnel for College or Vocational/Technical School Enrollment,” January 26, 1970. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Filed as part of original. Copies available from the U.S. Naval Publications and Forms Center, 5801 Tabor Avenue, Philadelphia, PA. 19120, Attention: Code 300.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Caution shall be exercised to ensure that an alien's affiliation with the Armed Forces of the United States, whether on active duty or on inactive duty in a reserve status, is not terminated even for a few days short of the 3-year statutory period, since failure to comply with the exact 3-year requirement of Act of June 27, 1952, section 328 (66 Stat. 249); 8 U.S.C. 1439 will automatically preclude a favorable determination by the Immigration and Naturalization Service on any petition for naturalization based on an alien's military service. 
</P>
<P>(5) During a period of hostilities, as designated by the President of the United States, the expeditious naturalization provisions outlined in paragraph (b) of this section, will take precedence over the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Naturalization of an alien who has served in the Armed Forces of the United States during a period of hostilities as designated by the President of the United States.</I> (1) Under the provisions of Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended, section 329 (8 U.S.C. 1440), an alien who serves honorably on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States during the period beginning February 28, 1961, and ending on a date designated by the President, by Executive order, as the date of termination of the Vietnam hostilities, or during any future period which President, by Executive order, shall designate as a period in which the Armed Forces of the United States are or were engaged in military operations involving armed conflict with a hostile foreign force, and who is otherwise eligible, may be naturalized whether or not he has been lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence, if the member was inducted, enlisted, or reenlisted in the United States (inclusive of Puerto Rico, Guam, Virgin Islands, Canal Zone, American Samoa, or Swains Island). 
</P>
<P>(i) The induction, enlistment, or reenlistment in the United States or its stated possessions must actually be in these land areas, in ports, harbors, bays, enclosed sea areas along their routes, or within a marginal belt of the sea extending from the coastline outward three (3) geographical miles. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Enlistment or reenlistment aboard a ship on the high seas or in foreign waters does not meet the requirements of Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended, section 329 (8 U.S.C. 1440). In such instances, the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section may apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each Military Department will establish procedures containing the provisions outlined in paragraphs (b)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section. In addition, each qualifying alien shall be advised of the liberalized naturalization provisions of the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended, section 329 (8 U.S.C. 1440), i.e., that the usual naturalization requirements concerning age, residence, physical presence, court jurisdiction and waiting periods are not applicable, and will be given appropriate assistance in processing his naturalization application in consonance with procedures contained in “Naturalization Requirements and General Information,” published by the U.S. Department of Justice (Form N-17). 
</P>
<P>(i) Military basic training and orientation programs will include advice and assistance to interested aliens in completing and submitting the application and other forms required to initiate naturalization proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, applicants should be advised that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Under the laws of certain foreign countries, military service in the Armed Forces of the United States may result in the loss of their native country citizenship but this same service may make them eligible for U.S. citizenship. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Their eligibility for naturalization, based upon the honorable service in an active duty status prescribed in the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended, section 329 (8 U.S.C. 1440) will be retained, even though they apply for naturalization after their return to the United States following the termination or completion of their overseas assignment, or after their honorable discharge from the Armed Forces of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If they are stationed at a base in the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, Guam, or the Virgin Islands, they should apply for citizenship only if they expect to be stationed at the base for at least 60 days following application. Unless the Immigration and Naturalization Service has at least 60 days in which to complete the case, there is no assurance that it can be completed before the applicant is transferred, since the processing procedures outlined below take time and are not entirely within the control of the Immigration and Naturalization Service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Every naturalization application must be processed when received by the Immigration and Naturalization Service. Special arrangements have been made to expedite the processing of petitions of alien members of the Armed Forces. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After processing, the alien applicant and two citizen witnesses must personally appear for examination by an officer of the Immigration and Naturalization Service in connection with the filing of a petition for naturalization in court. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Finally, the applicant must appear in person before the naturalization court on a date set by the court so that he may be admitted to citizenship. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) If the alien member is scheduled for overseas assignment where naturalization courts are not available, he should apply for naturalization on the earliest possible date but no later than 60 days before departure for overseas assignment. No assurance that processing will be completed before the applicant's departure for overseas will be given by the Immigration and Naturalization Service unless it has 60 days to complete the matter. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An alien serviceman who is serving overseas and has submitted or submits the required naturalization application and forms to the Immigration and Naturalization Service may not be granted ordinary leave, or Rest and Recuperation (R&amp;R) leave (where authorized in overseas areas) for naturalization purposes, unless a written notification from the Immigration and Naturalization Service has been received by the serviceman informing him that the processing of his application has been completed, and requesting him to appear with two U.S. citizen witnesses before a representative of the Immigration and Naturalization Service at a designated location for the purpose of completing the naturalization. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If possible, an applicant granted leave for such purposes should advise the Immigration and Naturalization Service when he expects to arrive in the leave area and, in any event, should contact the Immigration and Naturalization Service office immediately upon arrival in the area. Every effort will be made to complete the naturalization within the leave period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Naturalization of alien spouses and/or alien adopted children of military and civilian personnel ordered overseas.</I> Alien spouses and/or alien adopted children of military and civilian personnel of the Department of Defense who are authorized to accompany or join their sponsors overseas and who wish to obtain U.S. citizenship prior to departure will be given maximum assistance by commanders of military installations. 
</P>
<P>(1) DD Form 1278, “Certificate of Overseas Assignment to Support Application to File Petition for Naturalization,” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> will be issued to alien dependents by military commanders at the times indicated below in order that the alien may file such certificate with the nearest Immigration and Naturalization Service Office to initiate naturalization proceedings. Only DD Form 1278 will be accepted by the Immigration and Naturalization Service. Military commanders will not issue memoranda or letters of any kind in lieu thereof. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Filed as part of original. Copies may be obtained from Departments of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) When dependents are authorized automatic concurrent travel, DD Form 1278 will be issued not earlier than 90 days prior to the dependents' schedule date of travel. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When advance application for concurrent travel is required, DD Form 1278 will be issued after approval is received and not earlier than 90 days prior to the dependents' scheduled date of departure. 
</P>
<P>(iii) When concurrent travel is not authorized, DD Form 1278 will be issued after authorization for dependents' movement is received and not earlier than 90 days prior to the dependents' scheduled date of travel. 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of DD Form 1278, the alien will file this form, together with the application for petition for naturalization, Immigration and Naturalization Form N-400 (adult) or N-402 (child) as appropriate, if not previously filed, with the nearest office of the Immigration and Naturalization Service. The application must be accompanied by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Three identical photographs. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Form FD-358, Applicant Fingerprint Card, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Form G-325, Biographic Information. 
</P>
<P>(3) Further processing of the application for citizenship is as prescribed by the Immigration and Naturalization Service. 
</P>
<P>(4) Upon completion of the naturalization process, immediate application for passport should be made, in order that it can be issued prior to scheduled departure of the dependent for overseas. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.33.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.5   Forms required.</HEAD>
<P>The following forms required for naturalization purposes may be obtained from any office of the Immigration and Naturalization Service: 
</P>
<P>(a) N-400 Application to File a Petition for Naturalization (Adult) (Submit original form only). 
</P>
<P>(b) N-402 Application to File a Petition for Naturalization (Child) (Submit original form only). 
</P>
<P>(c) G-325 Biographic Information (Submit original and duplicate of multileaf form). 
</P>
<P>(d) G-325B Biographic Information (Submit original form only). 
</P>
<P>(e) FD-258 Applicant Fingerprint Card (Submit one completed card). 
</P>
<P>(f) N-426 Certificate of Military or Naval Service (Submit in triplicate). (Should be handled on a priority basis so as to avoid prejudicing the early completion of the naturalization process, particularly for an alien who may receive an overseas assignment.) 
</P>
<P>(g) “Naturalization Requirements and General Information,” published by the U.S. Department of Justice (Form N-17) describes the naturalization requirements and lists Immigration and Naturalization offices which process applications. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="97" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 97—RELEASE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION IN LITIGATION AND PRESENTATION OF WITNESS TESTIMONY BY DOD PERSONNEL (TOUHY REGULATION)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 57827, Sept. 22, 2022, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 97.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for the release of official information in litigation and the presentation of witness testimony by Department of Defense (DoD) personnel pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 301 and the Supreme Court's decision in <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Is intended only to provide guidance for the internal operations of the DoD, without displacing the responsibility of the Department of Justice to represent the United States in litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) Does not preclude official comments on matters in litigation.
</P>
<P>(d) Does not apply to the release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) Courts-martial convened by the authority of a Military Department.
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative proceedings or investigations conducted by or for a DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(3) Security-clearance adjudicative proceedings, including those conducted pursuant to DoD Directive 5220.6, “Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Review Program,” January 2, 1992, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/522006p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) Administrative proceedings conducted by or for the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or the Merit Systems Protection Board.
</P>
<P>(5) Negotiated grievance proceedings conducted in accordance with a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) Requests by Government counsel representing the United States or a Federal agency in litigation.
</P>
<P>(7) Disclosures to Federal, State, local, or foreign authorities related to investigations or other law-enforcement activities conducted by a DoD law-enforcement officer, agent, or organization.
</P>
<P>(e) Does not affect in any way existing laws or DoD programs governing:
</P>
<P>(1) The release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony in grand jury proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) Freedom of Information Act requests submitted pursuant to 32 CFR part 286, even if the records sought are related to litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Privacy Act requests submitted pursuant to 32 CFR part 310, even if the records sought are related to litigation.
</P>
<P>(4) The release of official information outside of litigation.
</P>
<P>(f) Does not create any right or benefit (substantive or procedural) enforceable at law against the DoD or the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Chief legal advisors.</I> (1) The General Counsel of the Department of Defense (GC DoD).
</P>
<P>(2) The General Counsel of a Military Department.
</P>
<P>(3) The Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
</P>
<P>(4) The Judge Advocate General of a Military Service.
</P>
<P>(5) The Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(6) The Staff Judge Advocate to a Combatant Commander.
</P>
<P>(7) The General Counsel to the Inspector General of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(8) The General Counsel of a Defense Agency.
</P>
<P>(9) The General Counsel of a DoD Field Activity.
</P>
<P>(10) The chief legal advisor of any other organizational entity within the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Court.</I> A Federal, State, or local court, tribunal, commission, board, or other adjudicative body of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Demand.</I> An order or subpoena by a court of competent jurisdiction for the production or release of official information or for the presentation of witness testimony by DoD personnel at deposition or trial.
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure.</I> The release of official information in litigation or the presentation of witness testimony by DoD personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation.</I> All pretrial (e.g., discovery), trial, and post-trial stages of existing judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before a civilian court, whether foreign or domestic.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation request.</I> Any written request by a party in litigation or the party's attorney for the production or release of official information or for the presentation of witness testimony by DoD personnel at deposition, trial, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Official information.</I> All information of any kind and however stored that is in the custody and control of the DoD, relates to information in the custody and control of the DoD, or was acquired by DoD personnel due to their official duties or status.
</P>
<P><I>Personnel.</I> (1) Present and former (e.g., retired, separated) Service members, including Service academy cadets and midshipmen.
</P>
<P>(2) Present and former (e.g., retired, separated) civilian employees of a DoD Component, including non-appropriated fund activity employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Present and former (e.g., retired, separated) employees of another Federal agency assigned to, detailed to, or otherwise affiliated with a DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-U.S. nationals who perform or have performed services overseas for any of the Military Services in accordance with a status of forces agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Any individuals who perform or have performed services for a DoD Component through a contractual arrangement.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD generally should make official information reasonably available for use in Federal, State, and foreign courts and other adjudicative bodies if the information is not classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.5   Responsibilities—GC DoD.</HEAD>
<P>The GC DoD has overall responsibility for the policy in this part, oversees the implementation of its procedures throughout the DoD, and provides supplemental guidance as appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.6   Responsibilities—DoD Component heads.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Component heads:
</P>
<P>(a) Implement the policy and procedures in this part and, through their chief legal advisors, provide guidance for their respective components.
</P>
<P>(b) Must issue or update, as appropriate, their respective components' implementing regulations within 180 days of October 24, 2022.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.7   Procedures—authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a litigation request or demand, and after any required coordination with the Department of Justice, the chief legal advisors (see § 97.3) are authorized to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether their respective DoD Components may release official information originated by or in the custody of such components.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether personnel assigned to, detailed to, or affiliated with their respective DoD Components may be contacted, interviewed, or used as witnesses concerning official information or, in exceptional circumstances, as expert witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) Impose conditions or limitations on disclosures approved pursuant to this paragraph (a) (e.g., approve the release of official information only to a Federal judge for in camera review).
</P>
<P>(4) Assert claims of privilege or protection before any court or adjudicative body.
</P>
<P>(b) The GC DoD may assume primary responsibility for responding to any litigation request or demand.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.8   Procedures—factors to consider.</HEAD>
<P>In making a determination pursuant to § 97.7(a), the chief legal advisors will consider whether:
</P>
<P>(a) The litigation request or demand is overbroad, unduly burdensome, or otherwise inappropriate under applicable law or court rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The disclosure would be improper (e.g., the information is irrelevant, cumulative, or disproportional to the needs of the case) under the rules of procedure governing the litigation from which the request or demand arose.
</P>
<P>(c) The official information or witness testimony is privileged or otherwise protected from disclosure under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) The disclosure would violate a statute, Executive order, regulation, or policy.
</P>
<P>(e) The disclosure would reveal:
</P>
<P>(1) Information properly classified pursuant to Volume 1 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program: Overview, Classification, and Declassification,” February 24, 2012, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/520001m_vol1.pdf?ver=2018-05-04-091448-843</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Controlled Unclassified Information pursuant to Volume 4 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program: Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI),” February 24, 2012, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/520001-V4p.PDF?ver=2018-05-09-115318-927</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) Technical data withheld pursuant to 32 CFR part 250.
</P>
<P>(4) Information protected by the Privacy Act, which may not be disclosed in the absence of written consent, a routine use, or other authority listed in 5 U.S.C. 552a(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Information otherwise exempt from unrestricted disclosure.
</P>
<P>(f) The disclosure would:
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with an ongoing enforcement proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Compromise a constitutional right.
</P>
<P>(3) Expose an intelligence source or confidential informant.
</P>
<P>(4) Divulge a trade secret or similar confidential information.
</P>
<P>(5) Be otherwise inappropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.9   Procedures—requirements and determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A litigation request or demand must describe, in writing and with specificity, the nature of the official information or witness testimony sought, its relevance to the litigation, and other pertinent details addressing the factors in § 97.8.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel who receive a litigation request or demand must notify their DoD Component's chief legal advisor immediately. Former personnel (e.g., retired Service members, separated employees, past contractors) must notify the chief legal advisor of the component to which they were last assigned.
</P>
<P>(c) If another DoD Component or Federal agency originated the responsive information or otherwise has the primary equity with respect to that information, the chief legal advisor will:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfer the litigation request or demand (or the appropriate portions) to such other component or agency for action.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the requesting party or issuing court.
</P>
<P>(3) In case of conflict, elevate to the GC DoD for resolution.
</P>
<P>(d) If the litigation request or demand requires a response before a determination can be made, the chief legal advisor will inform the requesting party or the issuing court that the request or demand is still under consideration. The chief legal advisor also may seek a stay from the court in question until a final determination is made.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon making a final determination pursuant to § 97.7(a), the chief legal advisor will inform the requesting party or issuing court.
</P>
<P>(f) If the chief legal advisor approves the release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony, personnel will limit the disclosure to those matters specified in the litigation request or demand, subject to any conditions imposed by the chief legal advisor. Personnel may not release, produce, comment on, or testify about any official information without the chief legal advisor's prior written approval.
</P>
<P>(g) If a court orders a disclosure that the chief legal advisor previously disapproved or has yet to approve, personnel must respectfully decline to comply with the court's order unless the chief legal advisor directs otherwise.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.10   Procedures—fees.</HEAD>
<P>Parties seeking official information by litigation request or demand may be charged reasonable fees in accordance with Volume 11A, Chapter 4 of DoD 7000.14-R, “Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation: Reimbursable Operations Policy: User Fees,” July 2016 (available at <I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/Portals/45/documents/fmr/current/11a/11a_04.pdf</I>), to reimburse expenses associated with the Government's response. These reimbursable expenses may include the cost of:
</P>
<P>(a) Materials and equipment used to search for, copy, and produce responsive information.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel time spent processing and responding to the request or demand.
</P>
<P>(c) Attorney time spent assisting with the Government's response, to include reviewing the request or demand and the potentially responsive information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.11   Procedures—expert or opinion testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personnel may not present expert or opinion testimony involving official information, except when:
</P>
<P>(1) The testimony is presented on behalf of the United States, a Federal agency, or any party represented by the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(2) The chief legal advisor of the DoD Component with primary equity has granted special written approval upon a showing of exceptional need or unique circumstances, but only if the anticipated testimony is not adverse to the interests of the DoD or the United States and is presented at no expense to the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) If a court orders the presentation of testimony disallowed by paragraph (a) of this section, personnel must respectfully decline to comply with the court's order unless the chief legal advisor directs otherwise.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.12.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 97—Litigation Requests and Demands to the Department of the Army
</HEAD>
<P>A litigation request or demand to the Department of the Army (DA) must be submitted at least 14 days before the desired date to the appropriate disclosure authority:
</P>
<P>(a) Staff Judge Advocates (SJAs), chief counsel, and legal advisors are the disclosure authorities for requests and demands involving unclassified information within the custody, control, or knowledge of their respective organizations when the United States has no interest in the litigation. Requests and demands will be processed by local legal offices (in consultation with Litigation Division as needed) subject to the limitations in this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Litigation Branch, Litigation Division, U.S. Army Legal Services Agency (USALSA), 9275 Gunston Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060, is the disclosure authority or may delegate disclosure authority for requests and demands involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Terrorism, espionage, nuclear weapons, or intelligence sources and methods.
</P>
<P>(2) Classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) Privileged information.
</P>
<P>(4) Technical data pursuant to 32 CFR part 250.
</P>
<P>(5) Safety records and information produced by commands, installation safety offices, or the U.S. Army Combat Readiness Command and Safety Center (USACRC).
</P>
<P>(6) Expert testimony.
</P>
<P>(7) All other matters not listed in this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Army Medical Center and Command Judge Advocates and supporting SJAs (in consultation with the Defense Health Agency as needed) are the disclosure authorities for requests and demands involving medical records or other information within the custody, control, or knowledge of their respective permanent station hospitals. For requests and demands involving factual testimony by medical providers, Commanders (in consultation with their legal advisors) are the disclosure authorities for their respective Medical Commands when the United States has no interest in the litigation.
</P>
<P>(d) The Contract Litigation &amp; Intellectual Property Division, USALSA, 9275 Gunston Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060, is the disclosure authority for requests and demands involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Patents, copyrights, trade secrets, or trademarks.
</P>
<P>(2) Taxation matters.
</P>
<P>(3) Bid protests or contract appeals before the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) or the Government Accountability Office, except that contracting officers (in coordination with their servicing SJAs and the Division-assigned trial attorney) may release official information for use in litigation before the ASBCA, pursuant to 48 CFR part 5, subpart 5.4 (the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)).
</P>
<P>(e) The Procurement Fraud Division, USALSA, 9275 Gunston Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060, is the disclosure authority for requests and demands involving procurement fraud matters, including <I>qui tam</I> actions.
</P>
<P>(f) The Environmental Law Division, USALSA, 9275 Gunston Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060, is the disclosure authority for requests and demands involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Energy, communication, transportation, or utility service proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) Environmental or natural resources matters, to include water rights and affirmative environmental cost recovery.
</P>
<P>(g) The Tort Litigation Branch, Litigation Division, USALSA, 9275 Gunston Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060, is the disclosure authority for requests and demands involving medical care cost recovery or property claims brought by the United States.
</P>
<P>(h) The Office of the Chief Counsel, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE), 441 G Street NW, Washington, DC, 20314-1000, is the disclosure authority for requests and demands involving USACE navigation, civil works, Clean Water Act 404 permit authority, environmental response activities, or real property functions.
</P>
<P>(i) DA personnel may not release Inspector General (IG) records or present testimony involving information obtained through the performance of IG duties, except with the approval of the Secretary of the Army, The Inspector General (TIG), the TIG Legal Advisor, or the Chief, Litigation Division.




</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.12.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 97—Litigation Requests and Demands to the Department of the Navy
</HEAD>
<P>A litigation request to the Department of the Navy must be submitted to the appropriate determining authority as defined in Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5820.8, “Release of Official Information for Litigation Purposes and Testimony by Department of the Navy Personnel,” August 27, 1991, as amended (available at <I>https://www.secnav.navy.mil/doni/Directives/05000%20General%20Management%20Security%20and%20Safety%20Services/05-800%20Laws%20and%20Legal%20Services/5820.8A%20CH-1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>As with all service of process on the Department of the Navy, a demand (subpoena or court order) must be delivered to the Naval Litigation Office using registered or certified mail, a commercial courier service, or a process server. The address for all service of process is: General Counsel of the Department of the Navy, Naval Litigation Office, 720 Kennon St. SE, Room 233, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5013.
</P>
<P>Answers to frequently asked questions on <I>Touhy</I> requests are available at <I>https://www.jag.navy.mil/organization/documents/Touhy_Requests.pdf.</I> Contact the Office of the General Counsel at 202-685-7039 or the Office of the Judge Advocate General at 202-685-5450 with any additional questions.








</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.34.0.43.12.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 97—Litigation Requests and Demands to the Department of the Air Force
</HEAD>
<P>A litigation request or demand to the Department of the Air Force must be submitted to the base-level or servicing Staff Judge Advocate for the installation or organization where the official information or witness is located.
</P>
<P>Should the information or witness be located in a Headquarters-level office, the request or demand must be submitted to the Commercial Litigation Field Support Center (for matters involving contracts, acquisition, and procurement) or to the Air Force General Litigation Division (for all other matters). Their addresses are: Commercial Litigation Field Support Center, AFLOA/JAQC, 1500 W. Perimeter Rd., Suite 4100, Joint Base Andrews, MD 20762; Air Force General Litigation Division, AFLOA/JACL, 1500 W Perimeter Rd., Suite 1370, 1st Floor, Joint Base Andrews, MD 20762. 






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="99" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 99—PROCEDURES FOR STATES AND LOCALITIES TO REQUEST INDEMNIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Access to Criminal History Records for National Security Purposes, of The Intelligence Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1986, Pub. L. No. 99-169, secs. 801-803, 99 Stat. 1002, 1008-1011 (1985) (codified in part at 5 U.S.C. 9101).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 42555, Nov. 25, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 99.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense (DoD), Office of Personnel Management (OPM), or Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) has the right to criminal history information of States and local criminal justice agencies in order to determine whether a person may:
</P>
<P>(1) Be eligible for access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(2) Be assigned to sensitive national security duties; or
</P>
<P>(3) Continue to be assigned to national security duties.
</P>
<P>(b) This part sets out the conditions under which the DoD, OPM, or CIA may sign an agreement to indemnify and hold harmless a State or locality against claims for damages, costs, and other monetary loss caused by disclosure or use of criminal history record information by one of these agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures set forth in this part do not apply to situations where a Federal agency seeks access to the criminal history records of another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) By law these provisions implementing 5 U.S.C. 9101 (b)(3) shall expire December 4, 1988, unless the duration of said section is extended or limited by Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.3   General definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of §§ 99.1 through 99.9 of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Criminal history record information:</I> information collected by criminal justice agencies on individuals consisting of identifiable descriptions and notations of arrests, indictments, information, or other formal criminal charges and any disposition arising therefrom, sentencing, correction supervision, and release. The term does not include identification information such as fingerprint records to the extent that such information does not indicate involvement of the individual in the criminal justice system. The term does not include those records of a State or locality sealed pursuant to law from access by State and local criminal justice agencies of that State or locality.
</P>
<P><I>Criminal justice agency:</I> Federal, State, and local agencies including (a) courts, or (b) a government agency or any subunit thereof which performs the administration of criminal justice pursuant to a statute or executive order, and which allocates a substantial part of its annual budget to the administration of criminal justice.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Defense:</I> the Defense Investigative Service, National Security Agency, Naval Investigative Service, Air Force Office of Special Investigations, and Army Intelligence and Security Command.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency:</I> the Department of Defense, the Office of Personnel Management, or the Central Intelligence Agency, or any other Federal agency subsequently authorized by Congress to obtain access to criminal history records information.
</P>
<P><I>Locality:</I> any local government authority or agency or component thereof within a State having jurisdiction over matters at a county, municipal or other local government level.
</P>
<P><I>State:</I> any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of Pacific Islands, and any other territory or possession of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.5   Eligibility for indemnification.</HEAD>
<P>As provided for under 5 U.S.C. 9101(b)(3), a State or locality may request an indemnification agreement.
</P>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an indemnification agreement a State or locality must have had a law in effect on December 4, 1985 that prohibited or had the effect of prohibiting the disclosure of criminal history record information to the DoD, OPM, or CIA.
</P>
<P>(b) A State or locality is also eligible for an indemnification agreement if it meets the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section, but nevertheless provided criminal history record information to the DoD, OPM, or CIA on or before December 4, 1985.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.7   Procedures for requesting an indemnification agreement.</HEAD>
<P>When requesting an indemnification agreement, the State or locality must notify each Federal agency as appropriate, at the address listed in the appendix to this part, of its eligibility of an indemnification agreement. It must also:
</P>
<P>(a) Certify that on December 4, 1985, the State or locality had in effect a law which prohibited or had the effect of prohibiting the disclosure of criminal history record information to the DoD, OPM, or CIA; and
</P>
<P>(b) Append to the request for an indemnification agreement a copy of such law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.9   Terms of indemnification.</HEAD>
<P>The terms of the Uniform Federal Agency Indemnification Agreement (UFAIA), must conform to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility:</I> The State or locality must certify that its law prohibits or has the effect of prohibiting the disclosure of criminal history record information to the DoD, OPM, or CIA for the purposes described in section 910.101(a) and that such law was in effect on December 4, 1985.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability:</I> (1) The Federal agency agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the State or locality from any claim for damages, costs and other monetary loss arising from the disclosure or negligent use by the DoD, OPM, or CIA of criminal history record information obtained from that State or locality pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 9101(b). The indemnification will include the officers, employees, and agents of the State or locality.
</P>
<P>(2) The indemnification agreement will not extend to any act or omission prior to the transmittal of the criminal history record information to the Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The indemnification agreement will not extend to any negligent acts on the part of the State or locality in compiling, transcribing or failing to delete or purge any of the information transmitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consent and access requirements:</I> (1) The Federal agency when requesting criminal history record information from the State or locality for the release of such information will attest that it has obtained the written consent of the individual under investigation after advising him or her of the purposes for which that information is intended to be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal agency will attest that it has advised that individual of the right to access that information. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purpose requirements:</I> The Federal agency will use the criminal history record information only for the purposes stated in § 910.101(a). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice, litigation and settlement procedures:</I> (1) The State or locality must give notice of any claim against it on or before the 10th day after the day on which claim against it is received, or it has notice of such a claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must be given to the Attorney General and to the U.S. Attorney of the district embracing the place wherein the claim is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Attorney General shall make all determinations regarding the settlement or defense of such claims. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.35.0.43.6.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 99—Addresses of Relevant U.S. Government Agencies
</HEAD>
<FP-1>Department of Defense, Office of the General Counsel, Room 3E988, Washington, DC 20301-1600
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of Personnel Management, Office of Federal Investigations, P.O. Box 886, Washington, DC 20044
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Central Intelligence Agency, Attention: Office of General Counsel, Washington, DC 20505 


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="103" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 103—SEXUAL ASSAULT PREVENTION AND RESPONSE (SAPR) PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 113, and Public Laws 106-65, 108-375, 109-163, 109-364, 110-417, 111-84, 111-383, 112-81, 112-239, 113-291, 113-66,113-291, and 114-92.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 42710, July 15, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 103.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is the Department of Defense's comprehensive SAPR program that provides policy guidance and assigns responsibilities for the prevention, response, and oversight of sexual assaults involving members of the U.S. Armed Forces and Reserve Component, to include the National Guard. The SAPR Program is supported by the policies identified in Appendix A to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the DoD (IG DoD), the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(2) National Guard and Reserve Component members who are sexually assaulted when performing active service, as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(d)(3), and inactive duty training. Refer to paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part for information on how to access DoD internal policy containing additional SAPR and healthcare services provided to such personnel and eligibility criteria for Restricted Reporting.
</P>
<P>(3) Military dependents 18 years of age and older who are eligible for treatment in the military healthcare system, at installations in the continental United States and outside of the continental United States (OCONUS), and who were victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than a spouse or intimate partner. An adult military dependent may file unrestricted or restricted reports of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(4) The following non-military personnel who are only eligible for limited healthcare (medical and mental health) services in the form of emergency care (see § 103.3), unless otherwise eligible to receive treatment in a military medical treatment facility. They will also be offered the limited SAPR services of a Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) and a SAPR Victim Advocate (VA) while undergoing emergency care OCONUS. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part. These limited healthcare and SAPR services shall be provided to:
</P>
<P>(i) DoD civilian employees and their family dependents 18 years of age and older when they are stationed or performing duties OCONUS and eligible for treatment in the military healthcare system at military installations or facilities OCONUS. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) U.S. citizen DoD contractor personnel when they are authorized to accompany the Armed Forces in a contingency operation OCONUS and their U.S. citizen employees (See 32 CFR part 158 and paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part).
</P>
<P>(5) Service members who are on active duty but were victims of sexual assault prior to enlistment or commissioning. They are eligible to receive full SAPR services and either reporting option.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to victims of sexual assault perpetrated by a spouse or intimate partner, or military dependents under the age of 18 who are sexually assaulted. For further information see paragraph (e) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part supersedes all policy and regulatory guidance within the DoD not expressly mandated by law that is inconsistent with its provisions, or that would preclude execution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Accessions training.</I> Training that a Service member receives upon initial entry into Military Service through basic military training.
</P>
<P><I>Case management group (CMG).</I> A multi-disciplinary group that meets monthly to review individual cases of Unrestricted Reports of sexual assault. The group facilitates monthly victim updates and system coordination, program accountability, and victim access to quality services. At a minimum, each group shall consist of the following additional military or civilian professionals who are involved and working on a specific case: SARC, SAPR VA, military criminal investigator, DoD law enforcement, healthcare provider and mental health and counseling services, chaplain, command legal representative or SJA, and victim's commander.
</P>
<P><I>Certification.</I> Refers to the process by which the Department credentials SARCs and SAPR VAs, assesses the effectiveness of sexual assault advocacy capabilities using a competencies framework, and evaluates and performs oversight over SARC and SAPR VA training. The certification criteria are established by the Department in consultation with subject-matter experts.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral misconduct.</I> Victim misconduct that might be in time, place, or circumstance associated with the victim's sexual assault incident. Collateral misconduct by the victim of a sexual assault is one of the most significant barriers to reporting assault because of the victim's fear of punishment. Some reported sexual assaults involve circumstances where the victim may have engaged in some form of misconduct (<I>e.g.,</I> underage drinking or other related alcohol offenses, adultery, fraternization, or other violations of certain regulations or orders).
</P>
<P><I>Confidential communication.</I> Oral, written, or electronic communications of personally identifiable information (PII) concerning a sexual assault victim and the sexual assault incident provided by the victim to the SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel in a Restricted Report. This confidential communication includes the victim's SAFE Kit and its information. See <I>https://www.archives.gov/cui.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Consent.</I> A freely given agreement to the conduct at issue by a competent person. An expression of lack of consent through words or conduct means there is no consent. Lack of verbal or physical resistance or submission resulting from the use of force, threat of force, or placing another person in fear does not constitute consent. A current or previous dating or social or sexual relationship by itself or the manner of dress of the person involved with the accused in the conduct at issue shall not constitute consent. A sleeping, unconscious, or incompetent person cannot consent.
</P>
<P><I>Credible information.</I> Information that, considering the source and nature of the information and the totality of the circumstances, is sufficiently believable to presume that the fact or facts in question are true.
</P>
<P><I>Credible report.</I> Either a written or verbal report made in support of an Expedited Transfer that is determined to have credible information.
</P>
<P><I>Crisis intervention.</I> Emergency non-clinical care aimed at assisting victims in alleviating potential negative consequences by providing safety assessments and connecting victims to needed resources. Either the SARC or SAPR VA will intervene as quickly as possible to assess the victim's safety and determine the needs of victims and connect them to appropriate referrals, as needed.
</P>
<P><I>Culturally competent care.</I> Care that provides culturally and linguistically appropriate services.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID).</I> A DoD database that captures uniform data provided by the Military Services and maintains all sexual assault data collected by the Military Services. This database shall be a centralized, case-level database for the uniform collection of data regarding incidence of sexual assaults involving persons covered by this part. DSAID will include information when available, or when not limited by Restricted Reporting, or otherwise prohibited by law, about the nature of the assault, the victim, the offender, and the disposition of reports associated with the assault. DSAID shall be available to the SAPRO and the DoD to develop and implement congressional reporting requirements. Unless authorized by law, or needed for internal DoD review or analysis, disclosure of data stored in DSAID will only be granted when disclosure is ordered by a military, Federal, or State judge or other officials or entities as required by law or applicable U.S. international agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Designated activity.</I> The agency that processes PCS or PCA for Expedited Transfers.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Air Force:</I> Air Force Personnel Center.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Army:</I> Human Resources Command for inter-installation transfers and the installation personnel center for intra-installation transfers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Navy:</I> Bureau of Naval Personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>U.S. Marine Corps:</I> The order writing section of Headquarters Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Air and Army National Guard:</I> The NGB or the Joint Forces Headquarters-State for the State involved.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency.</I> A situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent the loss of life, limb, sight, or body tissue to prevent undue suffering. Regardless of appearance, a sexual assault victim needs immediate medical intervention to prevent loss of life or undue suffering resulting from internal or external physical injuries, sexually transmitted infections, pregnancy, or psychological distress. Sexual assault victims shall be given priority as emergency cases regardless of evidence of physical injury.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency care.</I> Emergency medical care includes physical and emergency psychological medical services and a SAFE consistent with the most current version of U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women, “A National Protocol for Sexual Assault Medical Forensic Examinations, Adults/Adolescents.”
</P>
<P><I>Executive agent.</I> The Head of a DoD Component to whom the Secretary of Defense or the Deputy Secretary of Defense has assigned specific responsibilities, functions, and authorities to provide defined levels of support for operational missions, or administrative or other designated activities that involve two or more of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P><I>FAP.</I> A DoD program designated to address child abuse and domestic abuse in military families in cooperation with civilian social service agencies and military and civilian law enforcement agencies. Prevention, advocacy, and intervention services are provided to individuals who are eligible for treatment in military medical treatment facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Final disposition.</I> Actions taken to resolve the reported incident, document case outcome, and address the misconduct by the alleged perpetrator, as appropriate. It includes, but is not limited to, military justice proceedings, nonjudicial punishment, or administrative actions, including separation actions taken in response to the offense, whichever is the most serious action taken.
</P>
<P><I>Gender-responsive care.</I> Care that acknowledges and is sensitive to gender differences and gender-specific issues.
</P>
<P><I>Healthcare.</I> Medical (physical) and mental healthcare.
</P>
<P><I>Healthcare personnel.</I> Persons assisting or otherwise supporting healthcare providers in providing healthcare services (<I>e.g.,</I> administrative personnel assigned to a military MTF). Includes all healthcare providers.
</P>
<P><I>Healthcare provider.</I> Those individuals who are employed or assigned as healthcare professionals or are credentialed to provide healthcare services at an MTF, or who provide such care at a deployed location or otherwise in an official capacity. This also includes military personnel, DoD civilian employees, and DoD contractors who provide healthcare at an occupational health clinic for DoD civilian employees or DoD contractor personnel. Healthcare providers may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensed physicians practicing in the MHS with clinical privileges in obstetrics and gynecology, emergency medicine, family practice, internal medicine, pediatrics, urology, general medical officer, undersea medical officer, flight surgeon, psychiatrists, or those having clinical privileges to perform pelvic examinations or treat mental health conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensed advanced practice registered nurses practicing in the MHS with clinical privileges in adult health, family health, midwifery, women's health, mental health, or those having clinical privileges to perform pelvic examinations.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensed physician assistants practicing in the MHS with clinical privileges in adult, family, women's health, or those having clinical privileges to perform pelvic examinations.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensed registered nurses practicing in the MHS who meet the requirements for performing a SAFE as determined by the local privileging authority. This additional capability shall be noted as a competency, not as a credential or privilege.
</P>
<P>(5) A psychologist, social worker, or psychotherapist licensed and privileged to provide mental health care or other counseling services in a DoD or DoD-sponsored facility.
</P>
<P><I>Hospital facilities (Level 3).</I> Minimum operational functions required for a Level 3 hospital include: Command, control, and communications; patient administration; nutritional care; supply and services; triage; emergency medical treatment; preoperative care; orthopedics; general surgery; operating rooms and central materiel and supply services; anesthesia; nursing services (to include intensive and intermediate care wards); pharmacy; clinical laboratory and blood banking; radiology services; and hospital ministry team services.
</P>
<P><I>Installation.</I> A base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship, or other activity under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense, including any leased facility. It does not include any facility used primarily for civil works, rivers and harbors projects, flood control, or other projects not under the primary jurisdiction or control of the Department of Defense. For additional information see paragraph (ii) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Installation commander.</I> Commander of a base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship, or other activity under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense, including any leased facility. It does not include any facility used primarily for civil works, rivers and harbors projects, flood control, or other projects not under the primary jurisdiction or control of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Intimate partner.</I> A person with whom the victim shares a child in common or with whom the victim shares or has shared a common domicile. For additional information see paragraph (e) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Law enforcement.</I> Includes all DoD law enforcement units, security forces, and MCIOs.
</P>
<P><I>MCIOs.</I> The U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command, Naval Criminal Investigative Service, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations.
</P>
<P><I>Medical care.</I> Includes physical and psychological medical services.
</P>
<P><I>Military OneSource.</I> A DoD-funded program providing comprehensive information on every aspect of military life at no cost to active duty, National Guard, and Reserve members, and their families. Military OneSource has a mandatory reporting requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Military Services.</I> The term, as used in the SAPR Program, includes Army, Air Force, Navy, Marines, Reserve Components, and their respective Military Academies.
</P>
<P><I>Non-identifiable personal information.</I> Non-identifiable personal information includes those facts and circumstances surrounding the sexual assault incident or that information about the individual that enables the identity of the individual to remain anonymous. In contrast, personal identifying information is information belonging to the victim and alleged assailant of a sexual assault that would disclose or have a tendency to disclose the person's identity.
</P>
<P><I>Non-participating victim.</I> Victim choosing not to participate in the military justice system.
</P>
<P><I>Official investigative process.</I> The formal process a law enforcement organization uses to gather evidence and examine the circumstances surrounding a report of sexual assault.
</P>
<P><I>Open with limited information.</I> Entry in DSAID to be used in the following situations: Victim refused or declined services, victim opt-out of participating in investigative process, third-party reports, local jurisdiction refused to provide victim information, or civilian victim with military subject.
</P>
<P><I>Personal Identifiable Information.</I> Includes the person's name, other particularly identifying descriptions (<I>e.g.,</I> physical characteristics or identity by position, rank, or organization), or other information about the person or the facts and circumstances involved that could reasonably be understood to identify the person (<I>e.g.,</I> a female in a particular squadron or barracks when there is only one female assigned).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying conviction.</I> A State or Federal conviction, or a finding of guilty in a juvenile adjudication, for a felony crime of sexual assault and any general or special court-martial conviction for a UCMJ offense, which otherwise meets the elements of a crime of sexual assault, even though not classified as a felony or misdemeanor within the UCMJ. In addition, any offense that requires registration as a sex offender is a qualifying conviction.
</P>
<P><I>Re-victimization.</I> A pattern wherein the victim of abuse or crime has a statistically higher tendency to be victimized again, either shortly thereafter or much later in adulthood in the case of abuse as a child. This latter pattern is particularly notable in cases of sexual abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Recovery-oriented care.</I> Focus on the victim and on doing what is necessary and appropriate to support victim recovery, and also, if a Service member, to support that Service member to be fully mission capable and engaged.
</P>
<P><I>Respond, response, or response capability.</I> All locations, including deployed areas, have a 24 hour, 7 days per week, sexual assault response capability. The SARC shall be notified, respond, or direct a SAPR VA to respond, assign a SAPR VA, and offer the victim healthcare treatment and a SAFE. In geographic locations where there is no SARC onsite, the on-call SAPR VA shall respond, offer the victim healthcare treatment and a SAFE, and immediately notify the SARC of the sexual assault. The initial response is generally composed of personnel in the following disciplines or positions: SARCs, SAPR VAs, healthcare personnel, law enforcement, and MCIOs. Other responders are judge advocates, chaplains, and commanders. When victims geographically detached from a military installation, the SARC or SAPR VA will refer to local civilian providers or the DoD Safe Helpline for resources.
</P>
<P><I>Responders.</I> Includes first responders, who are generally composed of personnel in the following disciplines or positions: SARCs, SAPR VAs, healthcare personnel, law enforcement, and MCIOs. Other responders are judge advocates, chaplains, and commanders, but they are usually not first responders.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Reporting.</I> Reporting option that allows sexual assault victims to confidentially disclose the assault to specified individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel), and receive medical treatment, including emergency care, counseling, and assignment of a SARC and SAPR VA, without triggering an investigation. The victim's report provided to healthcare personnel (including the information acquired from a SAFE Kit), SARCs, or SAPR VAs will NOT be reported to law enforcement or to the command to initiate the official investigative process unless the victim consents or an established exception applies. The Restricted Reporting Program applies to Service members and their military dependents 18 years of age and older. Additional persons who may be entitled to Restricted Reporting are NG and Reserve members. DoD civilians and contractors are only eligible to file an Unrestricted Report. Only a SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel may receive a Restricted Report, previously referred to as Confidential Reporting.
</P>
<P><I>Safe Helpline.</I> A crisis support service for members of the DoD community affected by sexual assault. The DoD Safe Helpline is available 24/7 worldwide with “click, call, or text” user options for anonymous and confidential support; can be accessed by logging on to <I>www.safehelpline.org</I> or by calling 1-877-995-5247, and through the Safe Helpline mobile application; is to be utilized as the sole DoD hotline. However, the local base and installation SARC or SAPR VA contact information is not replaced.
</P>
<P><I>SAFE Kit.</I> The medical and forensic examination of a sexual assault victim under circumstances and controlled procedures to ensure the physical examination process and the collection, handling, analysis, testing, and safekeeping of any bodily specimens and evidence meet the requirements necessary for use as evidence in criminal proceedings. The victim's SAFE Kit is treated as a confidential communication when conducted as part of a Restricted Report.
</P>
<P><I>Safety assessment.</I> A set of guidelines and considerations post-sexual assault that the responsible personnel designated by the Installation Commander can follow to determine if a sexual assault survivor is likely to be in imminent danger of physical or psychological harm as a result of being victimized by or reporting sexual assault(s). The guidelines and considerations consist of a sequence of questions, decisions, referrals, and actions that responders can enact to contribute to the safety of survivors during the first 72 hours after a report, and during other events that can increase the lethality risk for survivors (<I>e.g.,</I> arrests or command actions against the alleged perpetrators). Types of imminent danger may include non-lethal, lethal, or potentially lethal behaviors; the potential harm caused by the alleged perpetrator, family/friend(s)/acquaintance(s) of the alleged perpetrator, or the survivors themselves (<I>e.g.,</I> harboring self-harm or suicidal thoughts). The safety assessment includes questions about multiple environments, to include home and the workplace. Survivors are assessed for their perception or experience of potential danger from their leadership or peers via reprisal or ostracism. The safety assessment contains a safety plan component that survivors can complete and take with them to help improve coping, social support, and resource access during their recovery period.
</P>
<P><I>SAPR Integrated Product Team (IPT).</I> A team of individuals that advises the USD(P&amp;R) and the Secretary of Defense on policies for sexual assault issues. The SAPR IPT serves as the implementation and oversight arm of the SAPR Program. It coordinates policy and reviews the DoD's SAPR policies and programs and monitors the progress of program elements. For additional information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>SAPR Program.</I> A DoD program for the Military Departments and the DoD Components that establishes SAPR policies to be implemented worldwide. The program objective is an environment and military community intolerant of sexual assault.
</P>
<P><I>SAPR VA.</I> A person who, as a victim advocate, shall provide non-clinical crisis intervention, referral, and ongoing non-clinical support to adult sexual assault victims. Support will include providing information on available options and resources to victims. The SAPR VA, on behalf of the sexual assault victim, provides liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters and reports directly to the SARC when performing victim advocacy duties. Personnel who are interested in serving as a SAPR VA are encouraged to volunteer for this duty assignment.
</P>
<P><I>SAPRO.</I> Serves as the DoD's single point of authority, accountability, and oversight for the SAPR program, except for legal processes and criminal investigative matters that are the responsibility of the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments and the IG, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>SARC.</I> The single point of contact at an installation or within a geographic area who oversees sexual assault awareness, prevention, and response training; coordinates medical treatment, including emergency care, for victims of sexual assault; and tracks the services provided to a victim of sexual assault from the initial report through final disposition and resolution.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary victimization.</I> The re-traumatization of the sexual assault, abuse, or rape victim. It is an indirect result of assault that occurs through the responses of individuals and institutions to the victim. The types of secondary victimization include victim blaming, inappropriate behavior or language by medical personnel and by other organizations with access to the victim post assault.
</P>
<P><I>Senior commander.</I> An officer, usually in the grade of O-6 or higher, who is the commander of a military installation or comparable unit and has been designated by the Military Service concerned to oversee the SAPR Program.
</P>
<P><I>Service member.</I> An active duty member of a Military Service. In addition, National Guard and Reserve Component members who are sexually assaulted when performing active service, as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(d)(3), and inactive duty training.
</P>
<P><I>Sexual assault.</I> Intentional sexual contact characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent. The term includes a broad category of sexual offenses consisting of the following specific UCMJ offenses: Rape, sexual assault, aggravated sexual contact, abusive sexual contact, forcible sodomy (forced oral or anal sex), or attempts to commit these acts.
</P>
<P><I>SVC.</I> Attorneys who are assigned to provide legal services in accordance with section 1716 of Public Law 113-66 and Service regulations. The Air Force, Army, National Guard, and Coast Guard refer to these attorneys as SVC. The Navy and Marine Corps refer to these attorneys as VLC.
</P>
<P><I>SVIP capability.</I> A distinct, recognizable group of appropriately skilled professionals, including MCIO investigators, judge advocates, victim witness assistance personnel, and administrative paralegal support personnel, who work collaboratively to:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigate and prosecute allegations of child abuse (involving sexual assault or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm), domestic violence (involving sexual assault or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm), and adult sexual assault (not involving domestic offenses)
</P>
<P>(2) Provide support for the victims of such offenses. For additional information see paragraph (bb) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Trauma informed care.</I> An approach to engage people with histories of trauma that recognizes the presence of trauma symptoms and acknowledges the role that trauma has played in their lives. Trauma-informed services are based on an understanding of the vulnerabilities or triggers of trauma survivors that traditional service delivery approaches may exacerbate, so that these services and programs can be more supportive and avoid re-traumatization.
</P>
<P><I>Victim.</I> A person who asserts direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a sexual assault. The term encompasses all persons 18 and over eligible to receive treatment in military medical treatment facilities.
</P>
<P><I>VLC.</I> Attorneys who are assigned to provide legal services in accordance with section 1716 of Public Law 113-66, “The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2014,” and Service regulations. The Air Force, Army, National Guard, and Coast Guard refer to these attorneys as SVC. The Navy and Marine Corps refer to these attorneys as VLC.
</P>
<P><I>VWAP.</I> Provides guidance for assisting victims and witnesses of crime from initial contact through investigation, prosecution, and confinement. Particular attention is paid to victims of serious and violent crime, including child abuse, domestic violence, and sexual misconduct. For additional information see paragraph (aa) of Appendix A to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the DoD SAPR policy and the DoD SAPR Program Unrestricted and Restricted Reporting options are available to Service members and their adult military dependents. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The DoD SAPR Program focuses on prevention, education and training, response capability (defined in § 103.3), victim support, reporting procedures, and appropriate accountability.
</P>
<P>(c) While a sexual assault victim may disclose information to whomever he or she chooses, an official report is made only when a DD Form 2910 is signed and filed with a SARC or SAPR VA, or when a Military Criminal Investigative Organization (MCIO) investigator initiates an investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) For Restricted and Unrestricted Reporting purposes, a report can be made to healthcare personnel, but healthcare personnel then immediately contact the SARC or SAPR VA to fill out the DD Form 2910.
</P>
<P>(e) State laws or regulations that require disclosure of PII of the adult sexual assault victim or alleged perpetrator to local or State law enforcement shall not apply, except when reporting is necessary to prevent or mitigate a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless a DD Form 2910 is filed with a SARC, a report to a Chaplain or military attorney may not result in the rendering of SAPR services or investigative action because of the privileges associated with speaking to these individuals. A Chaplain or military attorney should advise the victim to consult with a SARC to understand the full scope of services available or facilitate, with the victim's consent, contact with a SARC.
</P>
<P>(g) The SAPR Program shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Focus on the victim and on doing what is necessary and appropriate to support victim recovery, and also, if a Service member, to support that Service member to be fully mission capable and engaged. The SAPR Program shall provide care that is gender-responsive, culturally competent, and recovery-oriented. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Not provide policy for legal processes within the responsibility of the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments provided in 10 U.S.C. chapter 47 and the Manual for Courts-Martial or for criminal investigative matters assigned to the IG DoD.
</P>
<P>(h) Standardized SAPR requirements, terminology, guidelines, protocols, and guidelines for instructional materials shall focus on awareness, prevention, and response at all levels as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(i) The terms “Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)” and “SAPR Victim Advocate (VA),” as defined in § 103.3, shall be used as standard terms throughout the DoD to facilitate communications and transparency regarding SAPR capacity. For further information regarding SARC and SAPR VA roles and responsibilities, see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>SARC.</I> The SARC shall serve as the single point of contact for coordinating appropriate and responsive care for sexual assault victims. SARCs shall coordinate sexual assault victim care and sexual assault response when a sexual assault is reported. The SARC shall supervise SAPR VAs but may be called on to perform victim advocacy duties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SAPR VA.</I> The SAPR VA shall provide non-clinical crisis intervention and on-going support, in addition to referrals for adult sexual assault victims. Support will include providing information on available options and resources to victims.
</P>
<P>(j) An immediate, trained sexual assault response capability shall be available for each report of sexual assault in all locations, including in deployed locations. The response time may be affected by operational necessities but will reflect that sexual assault victims shall be treated as emergency cases. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(k) Victims of sexual assault shall be protected from coercion, retaliation, and reprisal. For additional information see paragraph (g) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(l) Victims of sexual assault shall be protected, treated with dignity and respect, and shall receive timely access to comprehensive healthcare (medical and mental health) treatment, including emergency care treatment and services. For additional information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(m) Emergency care for victims of sexual assault shall consist of emergency healthcare and the offer of a sexual assault forensic examination (SAFE). For additional information see paragraph (h) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Sexual assault patients shall be given priority and shall be treated as emergency cases. A sexual assault victim needs immediate medical intervention to prevent loss of life or suffering resulting from physical injuries (internal or external), sexually transmitted infections, pregnancy, and psychological distress. Individuals disclosing a recent sexual assault shall, with their consent, be quickly transported to the exam site, promptly evaluated, treated for serious injuries, and then, with the patient's consent, undergo a SAFE. For additional information see paragraph (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Sexual assault patients shall be treated as emergency cases, regardless of whether physical injuries are evident. Patients' needs shall be assessed for immediate medical or mental health intervention. Sexual assault victims shall be treated uniformly regardless of their behavior because when severely traumatized, sexual assault patients may appear to be calm, indifferent, submissive, jocular, angry, emotionally distraught, or even uncooperative or hostile towards those who are trying to help. For additional information see paragraph (h) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(n) There will be a safety assessment capability for the purposes of ensuring the victim, and possibly other persons, are not in physical jeopardy. A safety assessment will be available to all Service members, adult military dependents, and civilians who are eligible for SAPR services, even if the victim is not physically located on the installation. The installation commander or the deputy installation commander will identify installation personnel who have been trained and are able to perform a safety assessment of each sexual assault victim, regardless of whether he or she filed a Restricted or Unrestricted Report. Individuals tasked to conduct safety assessments must occupy positions that do not compromise the victim's reporting options. The safety assessment will be conducted as soon as possible, understanding that any delay may impact the safety of the victim.
</P>
<P>(o) Service members and their dependents who are 18 years of age or older covered by this part who are sexually assaulted have two reporting options: Unrestricted or Restricted Reporting. Unrestricted Reporting of sexual assault is favored by the DoD. For additional information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part. Protections are taken with PII solicited, collected, maintained, accessed, used, disclosed, and disposed during the treatment and reporting processes. For additional information see paragraph (j) of Appendix A to this part. The two reporting options are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Unrestricted Reporting allows an eligible person who is sexually assaulted to access healthcare and counseling and request an official investigation of the allegation using existing reporting channels (<I>e.g.,</I> chain of command, law enforcement, healthcare personnel, the SARC). When a sexual assault is reported through Unrestricted Reporting, a SARC shall be notified as soon as possible, respond, assign a SAPR VA, and offer the victim healthcare and a SAFE.
</P>
<P>(2) Restricted Reporting allows sexual assault victims to confidentially disclose the assault to specified individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel), in accordance with this part, and receive healthcare treatment, including emergency care, counseling, and assignment of a SARC and SAPR VA, without triggering an official investigation. The victim's report to healthcare personnel (including the information acquired from a SAFE Kit), SARCs, or SAPR VAs will not be reported to law enforcement or to the victim's command, to initiate the official investigative process, unless the victim consents or an established exception exists in State laws or federal regulations. When a sexual assault is reported through Restricted Reporting, a SARC shall be notified as soon as possible, respond, assign a SAPR VA, and offer the victim healthcare and a SAFE. For additional information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligibility for Restricted Reporting.</I> The Restricted Reporting option applies to Service members and their military dependents 18 years of age and older. For additional information, see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>DoD dual objectives.</I> The DoD is committed to ensuring victims of sexual assault are protected; treated with dignity and respect; and provided support, advocacy, and care. The DoD also strongly supports applicable law enforcement and criminal justice procedures that enable persons to be held accountable for sexual assault offenses and criminal dispositions, as appropriate. To achieve these dual objectives, DoD preference is for Unrestricted Reporting of sexual assaults to allow for the provision of victims' services and to pursue accountability. However, Unrestricted Reporting may represent a barrier for victims to access services, when the victim desires no command or law enforcement involvement. Consequently, the DoD recognizes a fundamental need to provide a confidential disclosure vehicle via the Restricted Reporting option.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Designated personnel authorized to accept a Restricted Report.</I> Only the SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel are designated as authorized to accept a Restricted Report.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>SAFE confidentiality under Restricted Reporting.</I> A SAFE and its information shall be afforded the same confidentiality as is afforded victim statements under the Restricted Reporting option. See paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part for additional information.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Disclosure of confidential communications.</I> In cases where a victim elects Restricted Reporting, the SARC, assigned SAPR VA, and healthcare personnel may not disclose confidential communications or SAFE Kit information to law enforcement or command authorities, either within or outside the DoD. In certain situations when information about a sexual assault comes to the commander's or law enforcement official's attention from a source independent of the Restricted Reporting avenues and an independent investigation is initiated, a SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel may not disclose confidential communications if obtained under Restricted Reporting. Improper disclosure of confidential communications protected under Restricted Reporting, improper release of healthcare information, and other violations of this policy or other laws and regulations are prohibited and may result in discipline pursuant to the UCMJ, or other adverse personnel or administrative actions. See paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part for additional information.
</P>
<P>(p) Eligible victims must be informed of the availability of legal assistance and the right to consult with an SVC/VLC in accordance with section 1716 of the NDAA for Fiscal Year (FY) 2014 (Pub. L. 113-66).
</P>
<P>(q) Enlistment or commissioning of personnel in the Military Services shall be prohibited and no waivers are allowed when the person has a qualifying conviction (see § 103.3) for a crime of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(r) The DoD shall provide support to an active duty Service member regardless of when or where the sexual assault took place.
</P>
<P>(s) Information regarding Unrestricted Reports should only be released to personnel with an official need to know or as authorized by law. Improper disclosure of confidential communications under Unrestricted Reporting or improper release of medical information are prohibited and may result in disciplinary action pursuant to the UCMJ or other adverse personnel or administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(t) The DoD will retain the DD Forms 2910, “Victim Reporting Preference Statement,” and 2911, “DoD Sexual Assault Forensic Examination (SAFE) Report,” for 50 years, regardless of whether the Service member filed a Restricted or Unrestricted Report as defined in this part. PII will be protected in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a, also known as the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) and 32 CFR part 310 and Public Law 104-191.
</P>
<P>(u) For document retention and SAFE Kit retention for Unrestricted Reports:
</P>
<P>(1) The SARC will enter the Unrestricted Report DD Form 2910 in the DSAID (see § 103.3) as an electronic record within 48 hours of the report, where it will be retained for 50 years from the date the victim signed the DD Form 2910. The DD Form 2910 is located at the DoD Forms Management Program website at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The DD Form 2911 shall be retained in accordance with the Department's internal policies. For further information, see paragraph (n) of Appendix A to this part. The DD Form 2911 is located at the DoD Forms Management Program website at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) If the victim had a SAFE, the SAFE Kit will be retained for 5 years in accordance with section 586 of Public Law 112-81, as amended by section 538 of Public Law 113-291. For further information see paragraph (n) of Appendix A to this part. When the forensic examination is conducted at a civilian facility through a memorandum of understanding (MOU) or a memorandum of agreement (MOA) with the DoD, the requirement for the handling of the forensic kit will be explicitly addressed in the MOU or MOA. The MOU or MOA with the civilian facility will address the processes for contacting the SARC and for contacting the appropriate DoD agency responsible for accepting custody of the SAFE.
</P>
<P>(4) Personal property retained as evidence collected in association with a sexual assault investigation will be retained for a period of 5 years. Personal property may be returned to the rightful owner of such property after the conclusion of all legal, adverse action and administrative proceedings related to such incidents in accordance with section 586 of the NDAA for FY 2012, as amended by section 538 of Public Law 113-291 and DoD regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) For document retention and SAFE Kit retention for Restricted Reports:
</P>
<P>(1) The SARC will retain a copy of the Restricted Report DD Form 2910 for 50 years, consistent with DoD guidance for the storage of PII. The 50-year time frame for the DD Form 2910 will start from the date the victim signs the DD Form 2910. For Restricted Reports, forms will be retained in a manner that protects confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(2) If the victim had a SAFE, the Restricted Report DD Form 2911 will be retained for 50 years, consistent with DoD guidance for the storage of PII. The 50-year time frame for the DD Form 2911 will start from the date the victim signs the DD Form 2910, but if there is no DD Form 2910, the timeframe will start from the date the SAFE Kit is completed. Restricted Report forms will be retained in a manner that protects confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(3) If the victim had a SAFE, the SAFE Kit will be retained for 5 years in a location designated by the Military Service concerned. When the forensic examination is conducted at a civilian facility through an MOU or a MOA with the DoD, the requirement for the handling of the forensic kit will be explicitly addressed in the MOU or MOA. The MOU or MOA with the civilian facility will address the processes for contacting the SARC and for contacting the appropriate DoD agency responsible for accepting custody of the forensic kit. The 5-year time frame will start from the date the victim signs the DD Form 2910, but if there is no DD Form 2910, the timeframe will start from the date the SAFE Kit is completed.
</P>
<P>(4) Personal property retained as evidence collected in association with a sexual assault investigation will be retained for a period of 5 years. In the event the report is converted to Unrestricted or an independent investigation is conducted, personal property may be returned to the rightful owner of such property after the conclusion of all legal, adverse action and administrative proceedings related to such incidents in accordance with section 586 of Public Law 112-81, as amended by section 538 of Public Law 113-291, and DoD regulations. However, victims who filed a Restricted Report may request the return of personal property obtained as part of the sexual assault forensic examination at any time in accordance with section 536 of Public Law 116-92, and DoD regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with the authority in DoD policy (see paragraph (t) of Appendix A to this part), the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop overall policy and provide oversight for the DoD SAPR Program, except legal processes in the UCMJ and criminal investigative matters assigned to the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments, the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, and IG DoD, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop strategic program guidance, joint planning objectives, standard terminology, and identify legislative changes needed to ensure the future availability of resources in support of DoD SAPR policies.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop metrics to measure compliance and effectiveness of SAPR training, awareness, prevention, and response policies and programs. Analyze data and make recommendations regarding the SAPR policies and programs to the Secretaries of the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(4) Monitor compliance with this part and internal policy (see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part), and coordinate with the Secretaries of the Military Departments regarding Service SAPR policies.
</P>
<P>(5) Collaborate with Federal and State agencies that address SAPR issues and serve as liaison to them as appropriate. Strengthen collaboration on sexual assault policy matters with U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs on the issues of providing high quality and accessible health care and benefits to victims of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(6) Oversee the DoD Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office (SAPRO). Serving as the DoD single point of authority, accountability, and oversight for the SAPR program, SAPRO provides recommendations to the USD(P&amp;R) on the issue of DoD sexual assault policy matters on prevention, response, and oversight. The SAPRO Director will be appointed from among general or flag officers of the Military Services or DoD employees in a comparable Senior Executive Service position in accordance with Public Law 112-81, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012.” The SAPRO Director is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementing and monitoring compliance with DoD sexual assault policy on prevention and response, except for legal processes in accordance with paragraph (kk) of Appendix A to this part and Public Law 114-92, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016,” and criminal investigative matters assigned to the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments, the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, and IG DoD, respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing technical assistance to the Heads of the DoD Components in addressing matters concerning SAPR.
</P>
<P>(iii) Acquiring quarterly and annual SAPR data from the Military Services, assembling annual congressional reports involving persons covered by this part and DoD Instruction 6495.02, and consulting with and relying on the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments and the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps in questions concerning disposition results of sexual assault cases in their respective Departments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishing reporting categories and monitoring specific goals included in the annual SAPR assessments of each Military Service, in their respective Departments.
</P>
<P>(v) Overseeing the creation, implementation, maintenance, and function of the DSAID, an integrated database that will meet congressional reporting requirements, support Service SAPR Program management, and inform DoD SAPRO oversight activities.
</P>
<P>(vi) Overseeing development of strategic program guidance and joint planning objectives for resources in support of the SAPR Program, and making recommendations on modifications to policy, law, and regulations needed to ensure the continuing availability of such resources (Pub. L. 113-66).
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), shall advise the USD(P&amp;R) on DoD sexual assault healthcare policies, clinical practice guidelines, related procedures, and standards governing DoD healthcare programs for victims of sexual assault. The ASD(HA) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct that all sexual assault patients be given priority, so that they shall be treated as emergency cases.
</P>
<P>(2) Require standardized, timely, accessible, and comprehensive medical care at MTFs for eligible persons who are sexually assaulted.
</P>
<P>(3) Require that medical care be consistent with established community standards for the healthcare of sexual assault victims and the collection of forensic evidence from victims. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish guidance for medical personnel that requires a SARC or SAPR VA to be called in for every incident of sexual assault for which treatment is sought at the MTFs, regardless of the reporting option.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of Department of Defense Human Resources Activity (DoDHRA), under the authority, direction, and control of USD(P&amp;R), shall provide operational support to the USD(P&amp;R) as outlined in paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The General Counsel of the DoD (GC DoD) shall provide legal advice and assistance on all legal matters, including the review and coordination of all proposed issuances and exceptions to policy and the review of all legislative proposals, affecting mission and responsibilities of the DoD SAPRO.
</P>
<P>(e) The Inspector General of the Department of Defense (IG DoD) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and oversee the promulgation of criminal investigative and law enforcement policy regarding sexual assault and establish guidelines for the collection and preservation of evidence with non-identifiable personal information on the victim, for the Restricted Reporting process, in coordination with the ASD(HA).
</P>
<P>(2) Oversee criminal investigations of sexual assault conducted by the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(3) Collaborate with the DoD SAPRO in the development of investigative policy in support of sexual assault prevention and response.
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish departmental policies and procedures to implement the SAPR Program consistent with the provisions of this part to include the military academies within their cognizance; monitor departmental compliance with this part and DoD internal policy. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate all Military Service SAPR policy changes with the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(3) In coordination with the USD(P&amp;R), implement recommendations regarding Military Service compliance and effectiveness of SAPR training, awareness, prevention, and response policies and programs.
</P>
<P>(4) Align Service SAPR strategic plans with the DoD SAPR Strategic Plan.
</P>
<P>(5) Align Service prevention strategies with the DoD Sexual Assault Prevention Strategy.
</P>
<P>(6) Utilize the terms “Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)” and “SAPR Victim Advocate (VA),” as defined in this part as standard terms to facilitate communications and transparency regarding sexual assault response capacity.
</P>
<P>(7) Establish the position of the SARC to serve as the SINGLE POINT OF CONTACT for ensuring that sexual assault victims receive appropriate and responsive care. The SARC should be a Service member, DoD civilian employee, or National Guard technician.
</P>
<P>(8) Direct that the SARC or a SAPR VA be immediately called in every incident of sexual assault on a military installation. There will be situations where a sexual assault victim receives medical care and a SAFE outside of a military installation through an MOU or MOA with a local private or public sector entity. In these cases, the MOU or MOA will require that a SARC be notified as part of the MOU or MOA.
</P>
<P>(9) Sexual assault victims shall be offered the assistance of a SARC and/or SAPR VA who has been credentialed by the D-SAACP. For further information see paragraph (w) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(10) Establish and codify Service SAPR Program support to Combatant Commands and Defense Agencies, either as a host activity or in a deployed environment.
</P>
<P>(11) Provide SAPR Program and obligation data to the USD(P&amp;R), as required.
</P>
<P>(12) Submit required data to DSAID. Require confirmation that a multi-disciplinary CMG tracks each open Unrestricted Report, is chaired by the installation commander (or the deputy installation commander), and that CMG meetings are held monthly for reviewing all Unrestricted Reports of sexual assaults. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(13) Provide annual reports of sexual assaults involving persons covered by this part and DoD Instruction 6495.02 to the DoD SAPRO for consolidation into the annual report to Congress in accordance with section 577 of Public Law 108-375.
</P>
<P>(14) Provide data connectivity, or other means, to authorized users to ensure all sexual assaults reported in theater and other joint environments are incorporated into the DSAID, or authorized interfacing systems for the documentation of reports of sexual assault, as required by section 563 of Public Law 110-417.
</P>
<P>(15) Ensure that Service data systems used to report case-level sexual assault information into the DSAID are compliant with DoD data reporting requirements, pursuant to section 563 of Public Law 110-417.
</P>
<P>(16) Require extensive, continuing in-depth SAPR training for DoD personnel and specialized SAPR training for commanders, senior enlisted leaders, SARCs, SAPR VAs, investigators, law enforcement officials, chaplains, healthcare personnel, and legal personnel. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(17) Require the installation SARC and the installation FAP staff to coordinate together when a sexual assault occurs as a result of domestic abuse or domestic violence or involves child abuse to ensure the victim is directed to FAP.
</P>
<P>(18) Oversee sexual assault training within the DoD law enforcement community.
</P>
<P>(19) Direct that Service military criminal investigative organizations require their investigative units to communicate with their servicing SARC and participate with the multi-disciplinary CMG. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(20) Establish procedures to ensure that, in the case of a general or special court-martial the trial counsel causes each qualifying victim to be notified of the opportunity to receive a copy of the record of trial (not to include sealed materials, unless approved by the presiding military judge or appellate court, classified information, or other portions of the record the release of which would unlawfully violate the privacy interests of any party, and without a requirement to include matters attached to the record under Rule for Courts-Martial (R.C.M.) 1103(b)(3) in U.S. Department of Defense, “Manual for Courts-Martial, United States”). A qualifying alleged victim is an individual named in a specification alleging an offense under Articles 120, 120b, 120c, or 125 of the UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 920, 920b, 920c, or 925), or any attempt to commit such offense in violation of Article 80 of the UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 880), if the court-martial resulted in any finding to that specification. If the alleged victim elects to receive a copy of the record of proceedings, it shall be provided without charge and within a timeframe designated by regulations of the Military Department concerned. The victim shall be notified of the opportunity to receive the record of the proceedings in accordance with R.C.M. 1103(g)(3)(C) in U.S. Department of Defense, “Manual for Courts-Martial, United States”.
</P>
<P>(21) Require that a completed DD Form 2701, “Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime,” be distributed to the victim. (DD Form 2701 is located at the DoD Forms Management Program website at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/</I> and in DoD Instruction 1030.2). For further information see paragraph (n) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(22) When drafting MOUs or MOAs with local civilian medical facilities to provide DoD-reimbursable healthcare (to include psychological care) and forensic examinations for Service members and TRICARE eligible sexual assault victims, require commanders to include the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) Local private or public sector providers notify the SARC or SAPR VA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Local private or public sector providers shall have processes and procedures in place to assess that local community standards meet or exceed those set forth in U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women, “A National Protocol for Sexual Assault Medical Forensic Examinations, Adults/Adolescents,” current version as a condition of the MOUs or MOAs.
</P>
<P>(23) Comply with collective bargaining obligations, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(24) Provide SAPR training and education for civilian employees of the military departments in accordance with section 585 of Public Law 112-81.
</P>
<P>(25) Require the SARCs and SAPR VAs to collaborate with designated Special Victim Investigation and Prosecution (SVIP) Capability personnel during all stages of the investigative and military justice process to ensure an integrated capability to the greatest extent possible. For further information see paragraphs (bb) and (cc) of Appendix A to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.6   Reporting options and sexual assault reporting procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting options.</I> Service members and military dependents 18 years and older who have been sexually assaulted have two reporting options: Unrestricted or Restricted Reporting. Unrestricted Reporting of sexual assault is favored by the DoD. However, Unrestricted Reporting may represent a barrier for victims to access services, when the victim desires no command or DoD law enforcement involvement. Consequently, the DoD recognizes a fundamental need to provide a confidential disclosure vehicle via the Restricted Reporting option. Regardless of whether the victim elects Restricted or Unrestricted Reporting, DoD shall maintain confidentiality of medical information. For further information see paragraph (j) of Appendix A to this part. DoD civilian employees and their family dependents and DoD contractors are only eligible for Unrestricted Reporting and for limited emergency care medical services at an MTF, unless that individual is otherwise eligible as a Service member or TRICARE beneficiary of the military health system to receive treatment in an MTF at no cost to them in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unrestricted reporting.</I> This reporting option triggers an investigation, command notification, and allows a person who has been sexually assaulted to access healthcare treatment and the assignment of a SARC and a SAPR VA. When a sexual assault is reported through Unrestricted Reporting, a SARC shall be notified, respond or direct a SAPR VA to respond, offer the victim healthcare treatment and a SAFE, and inform the victim of available resources. The SARC or SAPR VA will explain the contents of the DD Form 2910 and request that the victim elect a reporting option on the form. If the victim elects the Unrestricted Reporting option, a victim may not change from an Unrestricted to a Restricted Report. If the Unrestricted option is elected, the completed DD Form 2701, which sets out victims' rights and points of contact, shall be distributed to the victim in Unrestricted Reporting cases by DoD law enforcement agents. If a victim elects this reporting option, a victim may not change from an Unrestricted to a Restricted Report.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricted Reporting.</I> This reporting option does not trigger an investigation. The command is notified that “an alleged sexual assault” occurred but is not given the victim's name or other personally identifying information. Restricted Reporting allows Service members and military dependents who are adult sexual assault victims to confidentially disclose the assault to specified individuals (SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare personnel) and receive healthcare treatment and the assignment of a SARC and SAPR VA. A sexual assault victim can report directly to a SARC, who will respond or direct a SAPR VA to respond, offer the victim healthcare treatment and a SAFE, and explain to the victim the resources available through the DD Form 2910, where the reporting option is elected. The Restricted Reporting option is only available to Service members and adult military dependents. Restricted Reporting may not be available in a jurisdiction that requires mandatory reporting if a victim first reports to a civilian facility or civilian authority, which will vary by state, territory, and overseas agreements. See paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part for additional information. However, section 536 of the NDAA for FY 2016 preempts mandatory reporting laws, provided the victim first reports to an MTF, except when reporting is necessary to prevent or mitigate a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of an individual, thereby preserving the Restricted Reporting option. If a victim elects this reporting option, a victim may convert a Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report at any time. The conversion to an Unrestricted Report will be documented with a signature by the victim and the signature of the SARC or SAPR VA in the appropriate block on the DD Form 2910.
</P>
<P>(i) Only the SARC, SAPR VA, and healthcare personnel are designated as authorized to accept a Restricted Report. Healthcare personnel, to include psychotherapists and other personnel listed in Military Rule of Evidence (MRE) 513 of Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, “DoD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms,” who received a Restricted Report (meaning that a victim wishes to file a DD Form 2910 or have a SAFE) shall contact a SARC or SAPR VA. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A SAFE and the information contained in its accompanying Kit are provided the same confidentiality as is afforded victim statements under the Restricted Reporting option. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The victim's decision not to participate in an investigation or prosecution will not affect access to SARC and SAPR VA services, medical and psychological care, or services from an SVC or VLC. These services shall be made available to all eligible sexual assault victims.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a victim approaches a SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare provider and begins to make a report, but then changes his or her mind and leaves without signing the DD Form 2910 (the form where the reporting option is selected), the SARC, SAPR VA, or healthcare provider is not under any obligation or duty to inform investigators or commanders about this report and will not produce the report or disclose the communications surrounding the report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of confidential communications.</I> In cases where a victim elects Restricted Reporting, the SARC, SAPR VA, and healthcare personnel may not disclose confidential communications or the SAFE and the accompanying Kit to DoD law enforcement or command authorities, either within or outside the DoD. In certain situations, information about a sexual assault may come to the commander's or DoD law enforcement official's (to include MCIO's) attention from a source independent of the Restricted Reporting avenues and an independent investigation is initiated. In these cases, SARCs, SAPR VAs, and healthcare personnel are prevented from disclosing confidential communications under Restricted Reporting, unless an exception applies. An independent investigation does not, in itself, convert the Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent investigations.</I> Independent investigations are not initiated by the victim. If information about a sexual assault comes to a commander's attention from a source other than a victim (victim may have elected Restricted Reporting or where no report has been made by the victim), that commander shall immediately report the matter to an MCIO and an official (independent) investigation may be initiated based on that independently acquired information.
</P>
<P>(1) If there is an ongoing independent investigation, the sexual assault victim will no longer have the option of Restricted Reporting when:
</P>
<P>(i) DoD law enforcement informs the SARC of the investigation, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The victim has not already elected Restricted Reporting.
</P>
<P>(2) The timing of filing a Restricted Report is crucial. In order to take advantage of the Restricted Reporting option, the victim must file a Restricted Report by signing a DD Form 2910 before the SARC is informed of an ongoing independent investigation of the sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(i) If a SARC is notified of an ongoing independent investigation and the victim has not signed a DD Form 2910 electing Restricted Report, the SARC must inform the victim that the option to file a Restricted Report is no longer available. However, all communications between the victim and the victim advocate will remain privileged, subject to regulatory exceptions, except for the minimum necessary to make the Unrestricted Report.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an independent investigation begins after the victim has formally elected Restricted Reporting (by signing the DD Form 2910), the independent investigation has no impact on the victim's Restricted Report, and the victim's communications and SAFE Kit remain confidential, to the extent authorized by law and DoD regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mandatory reporting laws and cases investigated by civilian law enforcement.</I> Health care may be provided, and SAFE Kits may be performed in a civilian healthcare facility in civilian jurisdictions which may require certain personnel (usually health care personnel) to report the sexual assault to civilian agencies or law enforcement. In some cases, civilian law enforcement may take investigative responsibility for the sexual assault case, or the civilian jurisdiction may inform the military law enforcement or investigative community of a sexual assault that was reported to it. In such instances, it may not be possible for a victim to make a Restricted Report or it may not be possible to maintain the report as a Restricted Report. Consistent with the NDAA for FY 2016, to the extent possible, DoD will honor the Restricted Report; however, sexual assault victims need to be aware that the confidentiality afforded their Restricted Report is not guaranteed due to circumstances surrounding the independent investigation and requirements of individual State laws for civilian healthcare facilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initiating medical care and treatment upon receipt of report.</I> Healthcare personnel will initiate the emergency care and treatment of sexual assault victims, notify the SARC or the SAPR VA and make appropriate medical referrals for specialty care, if indicated. Upon receipt of a Restricted Report, only the SARC or the SAPR VA will be notified. There will be NO report to DoD law enforcement, a supervisory official, or the victim's chain of command by the healthcare personnel, unless an exception to Restricted Reporting applies or applicable law requires other officials to be notified. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Victim's perception of the military justice system.</I> The DoD seeks increased reporting by victims of sexual assault. The Restricted Reporting option is intended to give victims additional time and increased control over the release and management of their personal information and empowers them to seek relevant information and support to make more informed decisions about participating in the criminal investigation. A victim who receives support, appropriate care and treatment, and is provided an opportunity to make an informed decision about a criminal investigation is more likely to develop increased trust of the system which may increase a victim's desire to cooperate with an investigation and convert the Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resources for victims to report retaliation, reprisal, ostracism, maltreatment, sexual harassment, or to request an expedited/safety transfer or Military Protective Order (MPO)/Civilian Protective Order (CPO).</I> SARCs and SAPR VAs must inform victims of the resources available to report allegations of retaliation, reprisal, ostracism, maltreatment, sexual harassment, or to request a transfer or MPO. If the allegation is criminal in nature and the victim filed an Unrestricted Report, the crime should be immediately reported to an MCIO, even if the crime is not something normally reported to an MCIO (<I>e.g.,</I> victim's personal vehicle was defaced). Victims can seek assistance on how to report allegations by requesting assistance from:
</P>
<P>(1) A SARC or SAPR VA or SVC/VLC.
</P>
<P>(2) An SVC or VLC, trial counsel and VWAP, or a legal assistance attorney to facilitate reporting with a SARC or SAPR VA.
</P>
<P>(3) IG DoD, invoking whistle-blower protections. For further information see paragraph (g) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>SARC procedures.</I> The SARC shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve as the single point of contact to coordinate sexual assault response when a sexual assault is reported. All SARCs shall be authorized to perform victim advocate duties in accordance with Military Service regulations and will be acting in the performance of those duties.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with DoD Sexual Assault Advocate Certification requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Be trained in and understand the confidentiality requirements of Restricted Reporting and MRE 514. Training must include exceptions to Restricted Reporting and MRE 514.
</P>
<P>(4) Be authorized to accept reports of sexual assault along with the SAPR VA and healthcare personnel. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a 24 hour, 7 days per week, response capability to victims of sexual assault, to include deployed areas.
</P>
<P>(6) In accordance with policy, ensure a safety assessment is performed in every sexual assault case. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(i) SARCs shall respond to every Restricted and Unrestricted Report of sexual assault on a military installation, and the response shall be in person, unless otherwise requested by the victim. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the locality, the SARC may ask the SAPR VA to respond and speak to the victim.
</P>
<P>(A) There will be situations where a sexual assault victim receives medical care and a SAFE outside of a military installation under an MOU or MOA with local private or public sector entities. In these cases, pursuant to the MOU or MOA the SARC or SAPR VA shall be notified, and a SARC or SAPR VA shall respond.
</P>
<P>(B) When contacted by the SARC or SAPR VA, a sexual assault victim can elect not to speak to the SARC or SAPR VA, or the sexual assault victim may ask to schedule an appointment at a later time to speak to the SARC or SAPR VA.
</P>
<P>(iii) SARCs shall provide a response that recognizes the high prevalence of pre-existing trauma (prior to the present sexual assault incident) and empowers an individual to make informed decisions about all aspects in the reporting process and to access available resources.
</P>
<P>(iv) SARCs shall provide a response that is gender-responsive, culturally competent, and recovery-oriented.
</P>
<P>(v) SARCs shall offer appropriate referrals to sexual assault victims and facilitate access to referrals. Provide referrals at the request of the victim.
</P>
<P>(A) Encourage sexual assault victims to follow-up with the referrals and facilitate these referrals, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) In order to competently facilitate referrals, inquire whether the victim is a Reservist or an NG member to ensure that victims are referred to the appropriate geographic location.
</P>
<P>(7) Explain to the victim that the services of the SARC and SAPR VA are optional and these services may be declined, in whole or in part, at any time. The victim may decline advocacy services, even if the SARC or SAPR VA holds a position of higher rank or authority than the victim. Explain to victims the option of requesting a different SAPR VA (subject to availability, depending on locality staffing) or continuing without SAPR VA services.
</P>
<P>(i) Explain the available reporting options to the victim.
</P>
<P>(A) Assist the victim in filling out the DD Form 2910, where the victim elects to make a Restricted or Unrestricted Report. However, the victims, not the SARCs or SAPR VAs, must fill out the DD Form 2910. Explain that sexual assault victims have the right and ability to consult with an SVC/VLC before deciding whether to make a Restricted Report, Unrestricted Report, or no report at all. Additionally, the SARC or SAPR VA shall explain the eligibility requirements for an SVC/VLC, as well as the option to request SVC or VLC services even if the victim does not fall within the eligibility requirements.
</P>
<P>(B) Inform the victim that the DD Form 2910 signed by the victim will be uploaded to DSAID and retained for 50 years in Unrestricted Reports. The DD Forms 2910 and 2911 filed in connection with the Restricted Report shall be retained for 50 years, in a manner that protects confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(C) The SARC or SAPR VA shall inform the victim of any local or State sexual assault reporting requirements that may limit the possibility of Restricted Reporting. At the same time, the victims shall be briefed about the protections and exceptions to MRE 514.
</P>
<P>(ii) Give the victim a hard copy of the DD Form 2910 with the victim's signature. Advise the victim to keep the copy of the DD Form 2910 and the DD Form 2911 in their personal permanent records as these forms may be used by the victim in other matters before other agencies (<I>e.g.,</I> Department of Veterans Affairs) or for any other lawful purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain SAFE confidentiality to victims and the confidentiality of the contents of the SAFE Kit. Inform the victim that information concerning the prosecution shall be provided to them. For further information see paragraph (aa) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Activate victim advocacy 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, for all incidents of reported sexual assault occurring either on or off the installation involving Service members and other covered persons. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) Consult with command legal representatives, healthcare personnel, and MCIOs, (or when feasible, civilian law enforcement), to assess the potential impact of State laws or exceptions governing compliance with the Restricted Reporting option and develop or revise applicable MOUs and MOAs, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vi) Collaborate with MTFs within their respective areas of responsibility to establish protocols and procedures to direct notification of the SARC and SAPR VA for all incidents of reported sexual assault and facilitate ongoing training of healthcare personnel on the roles and responsibilities of the SARC and SAPR VAs.
</P>
<P>(vii) Collaborate with local private or public sector entities that provide medical care to Service members or TRICARE eligible beneficiaries who are sexual assault victims and a SAFE outside of a military installation through an MOU or MOA.
</P>
<P>(viii) Establish protocols and procedures with these local private or public sector entities to facilitate direct notification of the SARC for all incidents of reported sexual assault and facilitate training of healthcare personnel of local private or public sector entities on the roles and responsibilities of SARCs and SAPR VAs, for Service members and persons covered by this policy.
</P>
<P>(ix) Provide off installation referrals to civilian resources available to sexual assault victims, as needed.
</P>
<P>(x) Document and track the services referred to and requested by the victim from the time of the initial report of a sexual assault through the final case disposition or until the victim no longer desires services.
</P>
<P>(xi) Maintain in DSAID an account of the services referred to and requested by the victim for all reported sexual assault incidents, from medical treatment through counseling, and from the time of the initial report of a sexual assault through the final case disposition or until the victim no longer desires services. Should the victim return to the SARC or SAPR VA and request SAPR services after indicating that he or she no longer desired services, the case will be reopened and addressed at the CMG meeting.
</P>
<P>(xii) A SARC will open a case in DSAID as an “Open with Limited Information” case when there is no signed DD 2910 (<I>e.g.,</I> an independent investigation or third-party report, or when a civilian victim alleged sexual assault with a Service member subject) to comply with section 563(d) of Public Law 110-417 and to ensure system accountability.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Participate in the CMG to review individual cases of Unrestricted Reports of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Offer victims the opportunity to participate in surveys asking for victim feedback on the reporting experience. Inform victims regarding what the survey will ask them and uses of the data collected.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SAPR VA procedures.</I> (1) The SAPR VA shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with DoD Sexual Assault Advocate Certification requirements in D-SAACP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be trained in and understand the confidentiality requirements of Restricted Reporting and MRE 514. Training must include exceptions to Restricted Reporting and MRE 514.
</P>
<P>(iii) Facilitate care and provide referrals and non-clinical support to the adult victim of a sexual assault. Provide a response consistent with requirements for the SARC response. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Support will include providing information on available options and resources so the victim can make informed decisions about his or her case.
</P>
<P>(v) Be notified and immediately respond upon receipt of a report of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide coordination and encourage victim service referrals and ongoing non-clinical support to the victim of a reported sexual assault and facilitate care in accordance with the Sexual Assault Response Protocols prescribed SAPR Policy Toolkit located on <I>www.sapr.mil.</I> Assist the victim in navigating those processes required to obtain care and services needed. It is neither the SAPR VA's role nor responsibility to be the victim's mental health provider or to act as an investigator.
</P>
<P>(vii) Report directly to the SARC while carrying out sexual assault advocacy responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Healthcare professional procedures.</I> This paragraph (j) provides guidance on medical management of victims of sexual assault to ensure standardized, timely, accessible, and comprehensive healthcare for victims of sexual assault, to include the ability to elect a SAFE Kit. This policy is applicable to all MHS personnel who provide or coordinate medical care for victims of sexual assault covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Require that a SARC be immediately notified when a victim discloses a sexual assault so that the SARC can inform the victim of both reporting options (Restricted and Unrestricted) and all available services (<I>e.g.,</I> SVC/VLC, Expedited Transfers, Military Protective Orders, document retention mandates). The victim can then make an informed decision as to which reporting option to elect and which services to request (or none at all). The victim is able to decline services in whole or in part at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) There must be selection, training, and certification standards for healthcare providers performing SAFEs in MTFs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection.</I> (A) Have specified screening and selection criteria consistent with Public Law 112-81. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) In addition to the requirements in Public Law 104-191, licensed DoD providers eligible to take SAFE training must pass a National Agency Check that will determine if they have been convicted of sexual assault, child abuse, domestic violence, violent crime (as defined by the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Uniform Crime Reporting Program) or other felonies.
</P>
<P>(C) If the candidate is a non-licensed professional, he or she must meet the same screening standards as those for SARCs in the D-SAACP certification program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Training for healthcare providers performing SAFEs in MTFs.</I> Healthcare providers who may be called on to provide comprehensive medical treatment to a sexual assault victim, including performing SAFEs, are: Obstetricians, gynecologists, and other licensed practitioners (preferably family physicians, emergency medicine physicians, and pediatricians); advanced practice nurses with specialties in midwifery, women's health, family health, and pediatrics; physician assistants trained in family practice or women's health; and registered nurses. These individuals must receive specialized training aimed at preparing them to proficiently perform the duties of conducting a SAFE.
</P>
<P>(A) In addition to the responder training requirements and the healthcare personnel training requirements, healthcare providers performing SAFEs shall be trained and remain proficient in conducting SAFEs.
</P>
<P>(B) All providers conducting SAFEs must have documented education, training, and clinical practice in sexual assault examinations. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Certification.</I> (A) Provider must pass all selection and screening criteria.
</P>
<P>(B) Provider must submit documentation by trainer that healthcare provider has successfully completed SAFE training and is competent to conduct SAFEs independently. Documentation can be in the form of a certificate or be recorded in an electronic medical training tracking system.
</P>
<P>(C) Provider must obtain a letter of recommendation from her or his commander.
</P>
<P>(D) Upon successful completion of the selection, training, and certification requirements, the designated medical certifying authority will issue the certification for competency. Certification is good for 3 years from date of issue and must be reassessed and renewed at the end of the 3-year period.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases of MTFs that do not have an emergency department that operates 24 hours per day, require that a sexual assault forensic medical examiner be made available to a patient of the facility when a determination is made regarding the patient's need for the services of a sexual assault medical forensic examiner. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The MOU or MOA will require that a SARC be notified and that SAFE Kits be collected. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the forensic examination is conducted at a civilian facility through an MOU or a MOA with the DoD, the requirements for the handling of the forensic kit will be explicitly addressed in the MOU or MOA. The MOU or MOA with the civilian facility will address the processes for contacting the SARC and for contacting the appropriate DoD agency responsible for accepting custody of the forensic kit.
</P>
<P>(4) Require that MTFs that provide SAFEs for Service members or TRICARE eligible beneficiaries through an MOU or MOA with private or public sector entities verify initially and periodically that those entities meet or exceed standards of the recommendations for conducting forensic exams of adult sexual victims. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part. In addition, verify that as part of the MOU or MOA, a SARC or SAPR VA is notified and responds and meets with the victim in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(5) Require that medical providers providing healthcare to victims of sexual assault in remote areas or while deployed have access to the proper equipment for conducting forensic exams. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement procedures to provide the victim information regarding the availability of a SAFE Kit, which the victim has the option of refusing. If performed in the MTF, the healthcare provider shall use a SAFE Kit and the most current edition of the DD Form 2911.
</P>
<P>(7) Require that care provided to sexual assault victims shall be gender-responsive, culturally competent, and recovery-oriented.
</P>
<P>(8) In the absence of a properly trained DoD healthcare provider, the victim shall be offered the option to be transported to a non-DoD healthcare provider for the SAFE Kit, if the victim wants a forensic exam. Victims who are not beneficiaries of the Military Healthcare System shall be advised that they can obtain a SAFE Kit through a local civilian healthcare provider at no cost. For further information see paragraphs (h) and (ff) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(9) Upon completion of the SAFE, the sexual assault victim shall be provided with a hard copy of the completed DD Form 2911. Advise the victim to keep the copy of the DD Form 2911 in his or her personal permanent records as this form may be used by the victim in other matters before other agencies (<I>e.g.,</I> Department of Veterans Affairs) or for any other lawful purpose.
</P>
<P>(10) Require that healthcare personnel maintain the confidentiality of a Restricted Report to include communications with the victim, the SAFE, and the contents of the SAFE Kit, unless an exception to Restricted Reporting applies. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(11) Require that psychotherapy and counseling records and clinical notes pertaining to sexual assault victims contain only information that is required for diagnosis and treatment. Any record of an account of a sexual assault incident created as part of a psychotherapy exercise will remain the property of the patient making the disclosure and should not be retained within the psychotherapist's record.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely medical care.</I> To comply with the requirement to provide timely medical care, the Surgeons General of the Military Departments shall provide sexual assault victims with priority treatment as emergency cases, regardless of evidence of physical injury, recognizing that every minute a patient spends waiting to be examined may cause loss of evidence and undue trauma. Priority treatment as emergency cases includes activities relating to access to healthcare, coding, and medical transfer or evacuation, and complete physical assessment, examination, and treatment of injuries, including immediate emergency interventions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clinically stable.</I> Require the healthcare provider to consult with the victim, once clinically stable, regarding further healthcare options to the extent eligible, which shall include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Testing, prophylactic treatment options, and follow-up care for possible exposure to human immunodeficiency virus and other sexually transmitted diseases or infections (STD/I).
</P>
<P>(B) Assessment of the risk of pregnancy, options for emergency contraception, and any follow-up care and referral services to the extent authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(C) Assessment of the need for behavioral health services and provisions for a referral, if necessary or requested by the victim.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Safe kit collection and preservation.</I> For the purposes of the SAPR Program, forensic evidence collection and document and evidence retention shall be completed in accordance with established policy, taking into account the medical condition, needs, requests, and desires of each sexual assault victim covered by this part. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Medical services offered to eligible victims of sexual assault include the ability to elect a SAFE in addition to the general medical management related to sexual assault response, to include medical services and mental healthcare.
</P>
<P>(2) The forensic component includes gathering information in DD Form 2911 from the victim for the medical forensic history, an examination, documentation of biological and physical findings, collection of evidence from the victim, and follow-up as needed to document additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) The process for collecting and preserving sexual assault evidence for the Restricted Reporting option is the same as the Unrestricted Reporting option, except that the Restricted Reporting option does not trigger the official investigative process, and any evidence collected has to be placed inside the SAFE Kit, which is marked with the RRCN in the location where the victim's name would have otherwise been written. The victim's SAFE and accompanying Kit is treated as a confidential communication under this reporting option. The healthcare provider shall encourage the victim to obtain referrals for additional medical, psychological, chaplain, victim advocacy, or other SAPR services, as needed. The victim shall be informed that the SARC will assist them in accessing SAPR services.
</P>
<P>(4) The SARC or SAPR VA shall inform the victim of any local or State sexual assault reporting requirements that may limit the possibility of Restricted Reporting before proceeding with the SAFE.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon completion of the SAFE in an Unrestricted Reporting case, the healthcare provider shall package, seal, and label the evidence container(s) with the victim's name and notify the MCIO. The SAFE Kit will be retained for 5 years in accordance with section 586 of Public Law 112-81. When the forensic examination is conducted at a civilian facility through an MOU or a MOA with the DoD, the requirement for the handling of the forensic kit will be explicitly addressed in the MOU or MOA. The MOU or MOA with the civilian facility will address the processes for contacting the SARC and for contacting the appropriate DoD agency responsible for accepting custody of the forensic kit. Personal property retained as evidence collected in association with a sexual assault investigation may be returned to the rightful owner of such property after the conclusion of all legal, adverse action and administrative proceedings related to such incidents in accordance with section 538 of Public Law 113-291.
</P>
<P>(6) MOUs and MOAs, with off-base, non-military facilities for the purposes of providing medical care to eligible victims of sexual assault shall include instructions for the notification of a SARC (regardless of whether a Restricted or Unrestricted Report of sexual assault is involved), and procedures for the receipt of evidence and disposition of evidence back to the DoD law enforcement agency or MCIO. For further information see paragraph (c) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon completion of the SAFE in a Restricted Reporting case, the healthcare provider shall package, seal, and label the evidence container(s) with the RRCN and store it in accordance with Service regulations. The SAFE Kit will be retained for 5 years in a location designated by the Military Service concerned. When the forensic examination is conducted at a civilian facility through an MOU or an MOA with the DoD, the requirement for the handling of the forensic kit will be explicitly addressed in the MOU or MOA. The MOU or MOA with the civilian facility will address the processes for contacting the SARC and for contacting the appropriate DoD agency responsible for accepting custody of the forensic kit. The 5-year time frame will start from the date the victim signs the DD Form 2910, but if there is no DD Form 2910, the timeframe will start from the date the SAFE Kit is completed.
</P>
<P>(8) Any evidence and the SAFE Kit in Restricted Reporting cases shall be stored for 5 years from the date of the victim's Restricted Report of the sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(9) The SARC will contact the victim at the 1-year mark of the report to inquire whether the victim wishes to change his or her reporting option to Unrestricted.
</P>
<P>(i) If the victim does not change to Unrestricted Reporting, the SARC will explain to the victim that the SAFE Kit will be retained for a total of 5 years from the time the victim signed the DD Form 2910 (electing the Restricted Report) and will then be destroyed. The DD Forms 2910 and 2911 will be retained for 50 years in a manner that protects confidentiality. The SARC will emphasize to the victim that his or her privacy will be respected and he or she will not be contacted again by the SARC. The SARC will stress it is the victim's responsibility from that point forward, if the victim wishes to change from a Restricted to an Unrestricted Report, to affirmatively contact a SARC before the 5-year SAFE Kit retention period elapses.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the victim needs another copy of either of these forms, he or she can request it at this point, and the SARC shall assist the victim in accessing the requested copies within 7 business days. The SARC will document this request in the DD Form 2910.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least 30 days before the expiration of the 5-year SAFE Kit storage period, the DoD law enforcement or MCIO shall notify the installation SARC that the storage period is about to expire and confirm with the SARC that the victim has not made a request to change to Unrestricted Reporting or made a request for any personal effects.
</P>
<P>(iv) If there has been no change, then at the expiration of the storage period in compliance with established procedures for the destruction of evidence, the designated activity, generally the DoD law enforcement agency or MCIO, may destroy the evidence maintained under that victim's RRCN.
</P>
<P>(v) If, before the expiration of the 5-year SAFE Kit storage period, a victim changes his or her reporting preference to the Unrestricted Reporting option, the SARC shall notify the respective MCIO, which shall then assume custody of the evidence maintained by the RRCN from the DoD law enforcement agency or MCIO, pursuant to established chain of custody procedures. MCIO established procedures for documenting, maintaining, and storing the evidence shall thereafter be followed.
</P>
<P>(A) The DoD law enforcement agency, which will receive forensic evidence from the healthcare provider if not already in custody, and label and store such evidence shall be designated.
</P>
<P>(B) The designated DoD law enforcement agency must be trained and capable of collecting and preserving evidence in Restricted Reports prior to assuming custody of the evidence using established chain of custody procedures.
</P>
<P>(10) Evidence will be stored by the DoD law enforcement agency until the 5-year storage period for Restricted Reporting is reached or a victim changes to Unrestricted Reporting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.7   Case management for unrestricted reports of sexual assault.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> CMG oversight for Unrestricted Reports of adult sexual assaults is triggered by open cases in DSAID initiated by a DD Form 2910 or an investigation initiated by an MCIO. In a case where there is an investigation initiated by an MCIO, but no corresponding Unrestricted DD Form 2910:
</P>
<P>(1) The SARC would have no information for the CMG members. During the CMG, the MCIO would provide case management information to the CMG, including the SARC.
</P>
<P>(2) The SARC would open a case in DSAID indicating the case status as “Open with Limited Information.” The SARC will only use information from the MCIO to initiate an “Open with Limited Information” case in DSAID. In the event that there was a Restricted Report filed prior to the independent investigation, the SARC will not use any information provided by the victim, since that information is confidential.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The CMG members shall carefully consider and implement immediate, short-term, and long-term measures to help facilitate and assure the victim's well-being and recovery from the sexual assault. They will closely monitor the victim's progress and recovery and strive to protect the victim's privacy, ensuring only those with an official need to know have the victim's name and related details. Consequently, where possible, each case shall be reviewed independently, bringing in only those personnel associated with the case, as well as the CMG chair and co-chair.
</P>
<P>(2) The CMG chair shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Confirm that the SARCs and SAPR VAs have what they need to provide an effective SAPR response to victims.
</P>
<P>(ii) Require an update of the status of each MPO.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the victim has informed the SARC of an existing CPO, the chair shall require the SARC to inform the CMG of the existence of the CPO and its requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) After protective order documentation is presented at the CMG from the SARC or the SAPR VA, the DoD law enforcement agents at the CMG will document the information provided in their investigative case file, to include documentation for Reserve Component personnel in title 10 status.
</P>
<P>(v) At every CMG meeting, the CMG Chair will ask the CMG members if the victim, victim's family members, witnesses, bystanders (who intervened), SARCs and SAPR VAs, responders, or other parties to the incident have experienced any incidents of retaliation, reprisal, ostracism, or maltreatment. If any allegations are reported, the CMG Chair will forward the information to the proper authority or authorities (<I>e.g.,</I> MCIO, Inspector General, MEO). Discretion may be exercised in disclosing allegations of retaliation, reprisal, ostracism, or maltreatment when such allegations involve parties to the CMG. Retaliation, reprisal, ostracism, or maltreatment allegations involving the victim, SARCs, and SAPR VAs will remain on the CMG agenda for status updates, until the victim's case is closed or until the allegation has been appropriately addressed.
</P>
<P>(vi) The CMG chair will confirm that each victim receives a safety assessment as soon as possible. There will be a safety assessment capability. The CMG chair will identify installation personnel who have been trained and are able to perform a safety assessment of each sexual assault victim.
</P>
<P>(vii) The CMG chair will, if it has not already been done, immediately stand up a multi-disciplinary High-Risk Response Team if a victim is assessed to be in a high-risk situation. The purpose and the responsibility of the High-Risk Response Team is to continually monitor the victim's safety, by assessing danger and developing a plan to manage the situation.
</P>
<P>(viii) The High-Risk Response Team (HRRT) shall be chaired by the victim's immediate commander and, at a minimum, include the alleged offender's immediate commander; the victim's SARC and SAPR VA; the MCIO, the judge advocate, and the VWAP assigned to the case; victim's healthcare provider or mental health and counseling services provider; and the personnel who conducted the safety assessment. The responsibility of the HRRT members to attend the HRRT meetings and actively participate in them will not be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.36.0.43.8.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 103—Related Policies
</HEAD>
<P>The SAPR Program is supported by the following policies:
</P>
<P>(a) DoD Directive 6495.01, “Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Program,” Change 3, April 11, 2017 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/649501p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 101(d)(3) and 113, chapter 47,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and chapter 80 of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Chapter 47 is also known and referred to in this part as “The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).”</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) DoD Instruction 6495.02, “Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Program Procedures,” May 24, 2017, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/649502p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) 32 CFR part 158, “Operational Contract Support.”
</P>
<P>(e) DoD Manual 6400.01, Volume 2, “Family Advocacy Program (FAP): Child Abuse and Domestic Abuse Incident Reporting System,” August 11, 2016 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/640001m_vol2.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) Public Law 114-92, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016,” November 25, 2015.
</P>
<P>(g) DoD Directive 7050.06, “Military Whistleblower Protection,” April 17, 2015 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/705006p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(h) U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women, “A National Protocol for Sexual Assault Medical Forensic Examinations, Adults/Adolescents,” current version (available at <I>https://www.ncjrs.gov/pdffiles1/ovw/241903.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(i) 32 CFR part 310, “DoD Privacy Program.”
</P>
<P>(j) DoD Manual 6025.18, “Implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule in DOD Health Care Programs,” March 13, 2019 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/602518m.pdf?ver=2019-03-13-123513-717</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) Public Law 113-66, “The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2014,” December 2013.
</P>
<P>(l) Title 5, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(m) Public Law 104-191, “Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996,” August 21, 1996.
</P>
<P>(n) DoD Instruction 5505.18, “Investigation of Adult Sexual Assault in the Department of Defense,” March 22, 2017, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/550518p.pdf?ver=2018-02-13-125046-630</I>).
</P>
<P>(o) Sections 584, 585, and 586 of Public Law 112-81, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012,” December 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>(p) Public Law 113-291, “Carl Levin and Howard P. 'Buck' McKeon National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2015,” December 29, 2014.
</P>
<P>(q) DoD Manual 8910.01, Volume 1, “DoD Information Collections Manual: Procedures for DoD Internal Information Collections,” June 30, 2014, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/891001m_vol1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(r) Public Law 110-417, “The Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2009,” October 14, 2008.
</P>
<P>(s) DoD Instruction 5545.02, “DoD Policy for Congressional Authorization and Appropriations Reporting Requirements,” December 19, 2008 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/554502p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(t) DoD Directive 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)),” June 23, 2008 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/512402p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(u) Public Law 112-81, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012,” December 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>(v) Department of Defense 2014-2016 Sexual Assault Prevention Strategy,” April 30, 2014, <I>https://www.sapr.mil/index.php/prevention.</I>
</P>
<P>(w) DoD Instruction 6495.03, “Defense Sexual Assault Advocate Certification Program (D-SAACP),” September 10, 2015 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/649503p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(x) Section 577 of Public Law 108-375, “Ronald Reagan National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2005,” October 28, 2004.
</P>
<P>(y) U.S. Department of Defense, “Manual for Courts-Martial, United States,” current edition (available at <I>https://jsc.defense.gov/Portals/99/Documents/MCM2016.pdf?ver=2016-12-08-181411-957</I>).
</P>
<P>(z) Title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(aa) DoD Instruction 1030.2, “Victim and Witness Assistance Procedures,” June 4, 2004 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/103002p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(bb) DoD Instruction 5505.19, “Establishment of Special Victim Investigation and Prosecution (SVIP) Capability within the Military Criminal Investigative Organizations (MCIOs),” February 3, 2015, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/550519p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(cc) Directive-type Memorandum 14-003, “DoD Implementation of Special Victim Capability (SVC) Prosecution and Legal Support,” February 12, 2014, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dtm/DTM14003_2014.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(dd) Title 32, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(ee) Sections 561, 562, and 563 of Public Law 110-417, “Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2009,” October 14, 2008.
</P>
<P>(ff) U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women, “National Training Standards for Sexual Assault Medical Forensic Examiners,” current version (available at <I>https://www.ncjrs.gov/pdffiles/ovw/241903</I>).
</P>
<P>(gg) DoD Instruction 6025.13, “Medical Quality Assurance (MQA) and Clinical Quality Management in the Military Health System (MHS),” February 17, 2011, as amended (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/602513p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(hh) Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, “DoD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms,” current edition (available at <I>https://www.jcs.mil/Portals/36/Documents/Doctrine/pubs/dictionary.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD 4165.66-M, “Base Redevelopment and Realignment Manual,” March 1, 2006 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/416566m.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(jj) Public Law 111-84, National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010.
</P>
<P>(kk) 10 U.S.C. Chapter 47, Uniform Code of Military Justice.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="107" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 107—PERSONAL SERVICES AUTHORITY FOR DIRECT HEALTH CARE PROVIDERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1091; Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), part 37. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 11693, Mar. 25, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 107.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy under 10 U.S.C. 1091, “Contracts For Direct Health Care Providers,” and assigns responsibility for implementing the authority for personal services contracts for direct health care providers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) and the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(b) It applies only to personal services contracts awarded under 10 U.S.C. 1091 for direct health care providers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal Services Contract.</I> A contract that, by its express terms or as administered, makes the contractor personnel appear, in effect, to be government employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct Health Care Providers.</I> Health services personnel who participate in clinical patient care and services. This does not include personnel whose duties are primarily administrative or clerical, nor personnel who provide maintenance or security services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Department of Defense that when in-house sources are insufficient to support the medical mission of the Military Departments, personal services contracts under 10 U.S.C. 1091 may be executed.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the purpose of personal services contracts to facilitate mission accomplishment, maximize beneficiary access to military MTFs, maintain readiness capability, reduce use of the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS), and enhance quality of care by promoting the continuity of the patient/provider relationship.
</P>
<P>(c) Personal services contractors shall be subject to the same quality assurance, credentialing processes, and other standards as those required of military health care providers. In addition, providers, other than para-professionals, must be licensed in accordance with State or host country requirements to perform the contract services.
</P>
<P>(d) In establishing lines of authority and accountability, DoD supervisors may direct the activities of personal services contractors on the same basis as DoD employees. However, the rights, benefits, and compensation of personal services contractors shall be determined solely in accordance with the personal service contract.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests for personal services contracts contemplating reimbursement at the maximum rate of basic pay and allowances under 10 U.S.C. 1091 shall be approved at the major command level. The 0-6 grade shall be used sparingly and subsequently will be subject to review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each contract under 10 U.S.C. 1091 with an individual or with an entity, such as a professional corporation or partnership, for the personal services of an individual must contain language specifically acknowledging the individual as a personal services contractor whose performance is subject to supervision and direction by designated officials of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) The appearance of an employer-employee relationship created by the DoD supervision of a personal services contractor will normally support a limited recognition of the contractor as equal in status to a DoD employee in disposing of personal injury claims arising out of the contractor's performance. Personal injury claims alleging negligence by the contractor within the scope of his or her contract performance, therefore, will be processed as claims alleging negligence by DoD military or civil service personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) Compensation for personal services contractors under 10 U.S.C. 1091 shall be within the limits established in the Table of Authorized Compensation Rates (see enclosure 1). Prorated compensation based upon hourly, daily, or weekly rates may be awarded when a contractor's services are not required on a full-time basis. In all cases, however, a contractor may be compensated only for periods of time actually devoted to the delivery of services required by the contract.
</P>
<P>(d) Contracts for personal services entered into shall be awarded and administered pursuant to the provisions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), part 37 and DoD and departmental supplementary contracting provisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.6   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Military Departments shall be responsible for the management of the direct health care provider contracting program, ensuring that effective means of obtaining adequate quality care is achieved in compliance with the FAR, part 37. The portion of the Military Department regulations ensuring that compensation provided for a particular type of service is based on objective criteria and is not susceptible to individual favoritism shall be stressed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (OASD(HA)) shall be responsible for monitoring the personal services contracting program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.37.0.43.7.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Enclosure 1 to Part 107—Table of Authorized Compensation Rates
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Occupation/specialty group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Compensation rate not to exceed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pay grade
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Years of service
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I. Physicians and dentists</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II. Other individuals, including nurse practitioners, nurse anesthetists, and nurse midwives, but excluding paraprofessionals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 20 but less than 22.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III. All registered nurses, except those who are included in Group II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 16 but less than 18.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV. Paraprofessionals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 6 but less than 8.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="108" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 108—HEALTH CARE ELIGIBILITY UNDER THE SECRETARIAL DESIGNEE PROGRAM AND RELATED SPECIAL AUTHORITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1074(c); 10 U.S.C. 2559.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 72682, Nov. 26, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 108.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities under 10 U.S.C. 1074(c) for health care eligibility under the Secretarial Designee Program.
</P>
<P>(b) Implements the requirement of 10 U.S.C. 2559 that the United States receive reimbursement for inpatient health care provided in the United States to foreign military or diplomatic personnel or their dependents, except in certain cases covered by Reciprocal Health Care Agreements (RHCAs) between the Department of Defense and a foreign country.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Does not apply to health care services provided to coalition forces in operational settings, or to allied forces in overseas training exercises and similar activities. Also, does not apply to health care services provided to foreign nationals overseas under DoD Instruction 3000.05,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> DoD Instruction 2205.2,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or DoD Instruction 2310.08E.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/300005p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/220502p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/231008p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P><I>Secretarial Designee Program.</I> The program established under section 1074(c) to create by regulation an eligibility for health care services in military medical treatment facilities (MTFs) as well as dental treatment facilities for individuals who have no such eligibility under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General Policy.</I> The use of regulatory authority to establish DoD health care eligibility for individuals without a specific statutory entitlement or eligibility shall be used very sparingly, and only when it serves a compelling DoD mission interest. When used, it shall be on a reimbursable basis, unless non-reimbursable care is authorized by this part or reimbursement is waived by the Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel &amp; Readiness) (USD(P&amp;R)) or the Secretaries of the Military Departments when they are the approving authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign Military Personnel and Their Dependents.</I> (1) <I>MTF Care in the United States.</I> Foreign military personnel in the United States under the sponsorship or invitation of the Department of Defense, and their dependents approved by the Department of Defense to accompany them, are eligible for space-available care as provided in DoD Instruction 1000.13.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2559, in cases in which reimbursement is required by DoD Instruction 1000.13, a RHCA may provide a waiver of reimbursement for inpatient and/or outpatient care in the United States in a military medical treatment facility for military personnel from a foreign country and their dependents, if comparable care is made available to at least a comparable number of U.S. military personnel and their dependents in that foreign country. A disparity of 25 percent or less in the number of foreign personnel and dependents above U.S. personnel and dependents shall be considered within the range of comparable numbers.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100013p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Non-MTF Care in the United States.</I> Foreign military personnel in the United States under the sponsorship or invitation of the Department of Defense, and their dependents approved by the Department of Defense to accompany them, are not eligible for DoD payment for outpatient or inpatient care received from non-DoD providers, except for such personnel covered by the North Atlantic Treaty Organization Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) or the Partnership for Peace SOFA and authorized care under the TRICARE Standard program according to § 199.3 of title 32, Code of Federal Regulations, outpatient care may be provided as specified therein.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign Diplomatic or Other Senior Foreign Officials.</I> Foreign diplomatic or other senior foreign officials and the dependents of such officials may be provided inpatient or outpatient services in MTFs only in compelling circumstances, including both medical circumstances and mission interests, and through case-by-case approval.
</P>
<P>(1) In the United States, the approval authority is the USD(P&amp;R). The authority to waive reimbursement for care provided in the United States, to the extent allowed by law, is the USD(P&amp;R) or the Secretaries of the Military Departments when they are the approving authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests from the State Department or other agency of the U.S. Government will be considered on a reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(3) Under 10 U.S.C. 2559, reimbursement to the United States for care provided in the United States on an inpatient basis to foreign diplomatic personnel or their dependents is required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other Foreign Nationals.</I> Other foreign nationals (other than those described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section) may be designated as eligible for space-available care in MTFs only in extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<P>(1) The authority to waive reimbursement for care provided in the United States, to the extent allowed by law, is the USD(P&amp;R) or the Secretaries of the Military Departments when they are the approving authority. Waiver requests will only be considered based on a direct and compelling relationship to a priority DoD mission objective.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests from the State Department or other agency of the U.S. Government will be considered on a reimbursable basis. Such requests must be supported by the U.S. Ambassador to the country involved and the Geographical Combatant Commander for that area of responsibility and must be premised on critically important interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Invited Persons Accompanying the Overseas Force.</I> The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may designate as eligible for space-available care from the Military Health System outside the United States those persons invited by the Department of Defense to accompany or visit the military force in overseas locations or invited to participate in DoD-sponsored morale, welfare, and recreation activities. This authority is limited to health care needs arising in the course of the invited activities. Separate approval is needed to continue health care initiated under this paragraph in MTFs in the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of employees or affiliates of news organizations, all care provided under the authority of introductory paragraph (e) of this section is reimbursable. For other individuals designated as eligible under this paragraph (e), the designation may provide, to the extent allowed by law, for outpatient care on a non-reimbursable basis, and establish a case-by-case authority for waiver of reimbursement for inpatient care.
</P>
<P>(2) This paragraph (e) does not apply to employees of the Executive Branch of the United States or personnel affiliated with contractors of the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>U.S. Nationals Overseas.</I> Health care for U.S. nationals overseas is not authorized, except as otherwise provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>U.S. Government Civilian Employees and Contractor Personnel.</I> (1) Civilian employees of the Department of Defense and other government agencies, and employees of DoD contractors, and the dependents of such personnel are eligible for MTF care to the extent provided in DoD Instruction 1000.13.
</P>
<P>(2) Occupational health care services provided to DoD employees under 5 U.S.C. 7901, authorities cited in DoD Instruction 6055.1,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or under other authorities except 10 U.S.C. 1074(c) are not affected by this Instruction. The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may designate DoD civilian employees, applicants for employment, and personnel performing services for the Department of Defense under Federal contracts as eligible for occupational health care services required by the Department of Defense as a condition of employment or involvement in any particular assignment, duty, or undertaking.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/605501p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Any health care services provided by the Military Health System to employees of DoD non-appropriated fund instrumentalities shall be on a reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of DoD civilian employees forward deployed in support of U.S. military personnel engaged in hostilities, eligibility for MTF care (in addition to all eligibility for programs administered by the Department of Labor Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP)) is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Consistent with Policy Guidance for Provision of Medical Care to DoD Civilian Employees Injured or Wounded While Forward Deployed in Support of Hostilities,
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> DoD civilian employees who become ill, contract diseases, or are injured or wounded while so deployed are eligible for medical evacuation or health care treatment and services in MTFs at the same level and scope provided to military personnel, all on a non-reimbursable basis, until returned to the United States.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Copies available at OASD (Health Affairs/TMA FHP&amp;RP), 1200 Defense Pentagon, Room 3E1073, Washington, DC 20301-1200.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) DoD civilian employees who, subsequent to such deployment, and have been determined to have OWCP-compensable conditions are eligible for MTF care for such conditions, all on a non-reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) USD(P&amp;R) may, under compelling circumstances, approve additional eligibility for care in MTFs for other U.S. Government civilian employees who become ill or injured while so deployed, or other DoD civilian employees overseas.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contractor Personnel Authorized to Accompany U.S. Armed Forces.</I> In the case of contractor personnel authorized to accompany U.S. Armed Forces in deployed settings under DoD Instruction 3020.41,
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> MTF care may be provided as stated in DoD Instruction 3020.41.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/302041p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(h) <I>Emergency Health Care.</I> The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may designate emergency patients as eligible for emergency health care from MTFs in the United States pursuant to arrangements with local health authorities or in other appropriate circumstances. Such care shall be on a reimbursable basis, unless waived by the USD(P&amp;R) or the Secretaries of the Military Departments when they are the approving authority.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Research Subject Volunteers.</I> Research subjects are eligible for health care services from MTFs to the extent DoD Components are required by DoD Directive 3216.02 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> to establish procedures to protect subjects from medical expenses that are a direct result of participation in the research. Such care is on a non-reimbursable basis and limited to research injuries (unless the volunteer is otherwise an eligible health care beneficiary). Care is authorized during the pendency of the volunteer's involvement in the research, and may be extended further upon the approval of the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/321602p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(j) <I>Continuity of Care Extensions of Eligibility.</I> The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may establish temporary eligibility on a space-available basis for former members and former dependents of members of the seven Uniformed Services for a limited period of time, not to exceed 6 months, or in the case of pregnancy the completion of the pregnancy, after statutory eligibility expires when appropriate to allow completion or appropriate transition of a course of treatment begun prior to such expiration. In the case of a pregnancy covered by this paragraph, the designation of eligibility may include initial health care for the newborn infant. Care under this paragraph is authorized on a non-reimbursable basis for the former member or former dependent of member. Care under this paragraph for the newborn of those former members or former dependents is authorized but on a full reimbursable basis unless the Secretary of the Military Department elect to use Secretarial Designee status for the newborn.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Members of the Armed Forces.</I> The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may establish eligibility not specifically provided by statute for critical mission-related health care services for designated members of the Armed Forces, such as Reserve Component members not in a present duty status. This authority includes payment for health care services in private facilities to the extent authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1074(c). Care under this paragraph is non-reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Certain Senior Officials of the U.S. Government.</I> The officials and others listed in § 108.5 of this part are designated as eligible for space-available inpatient and outpatient health care services from the Military Health System on a reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Nonmedical Attendants.</I> The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the USD(P&amp;R) may designate as eligible for space available MTF care persons designated as nonmedical attendants as defined by 37 U.S.C. 411k(b). Costs of medical care rendered are reimbursable unless reimbursement is waived by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned or USD(P&amp;R). This authority is limited to health care needs arising while designated as a nonmedical attendant.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Patient Movement.</I> Provisions of this Instruction concerning inpatient care shall also apply to requests for patient movement through the medical evacuation system under DoD Instruction 6000.11.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> Aeromedical evacuation transportation assets are reserved for those individuals designated as Secretarial Designees who need transportation to attain necessary health care.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/600011p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(o) <I>Other Individuals Entitled to DoD Identification (ID) Card.</I> Other individuals entitled to a DoD ID card under DoD Instruction 1000.13 are eligible for space-available MTF health care to the extent provided in DoD Instruction 1000.13.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Reciprocity Among Military Departments.</I> Subject to the capabilities of the professional staff, the availability of space and facilities, and any other limitation imposed by the approving authority, all Services will provide medical treatment to individuals who have been granted Secretarial designee status by any of the Secretaries of the Military Departments. Each agreement must identify the specific MTF or geographical region in which medical care is requested, requiring close coordination among service program managers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.5   Eligible senior officials of the U.S. government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following individuals are Secretarial Designees for space-available care in MTFs on a reimbursable basis, unless specified otherwise by a Service Secretary:
</P>
<P>(1) The President and Vice President, and their spouses and minor children.
</P>
<P>(2) Members of Congress.
</P>
<P>(3) Members of the Cabinet.
</P>
<P>(4) Officials of the Department of Defense appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.
</P>
<P>(5) Article III Federal Judges. (Article III courts are: The Supreme Court of the United States, U.S. Courts of Appeal, U.S. District Courts, U.S. Court of International Trade, United States Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court, United States Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court of Review.)
</P>
<P>(6) Judges of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(7) Assistants to the President.
</P>
<P>(8) Director of the White House Military Office.
</P>
<P>(9) Former Presidents of the United States and their spouses, widows, and minor children.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.38.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.6   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(P&amp;R) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate requests for and where appropriate, grant exceptions to policy established by this part and DoD Directive 5124.02,
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> including waiver of reimbursement, to the extent allowed by law.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/512402p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Following approval of the USD(P) and in coordination with USD(P) and the GC, DoD, and in accordance with DoD Directive 5530.3,
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> begin negotiations, negotiate, and have the authority to sign RHCAs.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/553003p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The USD(P) shall evaluate requests and determine DoD mission interest for Secretarial Designee Status and RHCAs to identify those agreements that would be in the best interest of the Department of Defense and approve negotiations of RHCAs by the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(c) The USD(C) shall in coordination with USD(P&amp;R), establish appropriate reimbursement rates, including appropriate interagency rates and rates applicable to students in International Military Education and Training programs.
</P>
<P>(d) The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics shall evaluate requests for Exception to the Transportation Policy. The authority to grant such an exception is by USD(P&amp;R) or the Secretary of the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue, revise or modify as appropriate, regulations to comply with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint a Military Department representative who will administer the Secretarial Designee Program within the Military Department and coordinate with other DoD Components in its effective operation.
</P>
<P>(3) Where and when appropriate, the Military Department concerned shall coordinate with U.S. Transportation Command/Global Patient Movement Requirements Center.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify Secretarial Designees treated at MTFs.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide an annual consolidated list reflecting the number of Secretarial Designees within their departments, reasons for such designation, location where designee is receiving treatment, the costs and sources of funding, nature and duration of treatment and expiration date of designee status to USD(P&amp;R) and USD(C). The annual report is due 30 days after the start of the fiscal year reflecting the prior fiscal year's information.
</P>
<P>(i) In cases where the USD(P&amp;R) designates an individual as a Secretarial Designee, the Military Department concerned shall include this individual on any lists provided to USD(P&amp;R) and USD(C) for reporting purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually consolidate Secretarial Designee patient costs and forward those data to USD(P&amp;R) and OSD(C), along with a report of collection for reimbursable costs.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commanders of the Geographic Combatant Commands (GCCs) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Refer requests to waive reimbursement through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to the USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(2) Refer requests for Secretarial Designee status for medical care in the United States through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to USD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(3) Through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provide written annual reports to the USD(P&amp;R) and USD(C) reflecting the number of individuals designated as Secretarial Designees within their geographic area of responsibility, the reasons for such designation, the expected duration of such designation, the costs and sources of funding authorizing the support of such designee status for each designee.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify Secretarial Designees treated at MTFs within their geographic area of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide for an accounting and collection system for reimbursement of medical costs within their geographic area of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commander, United States Transportation Command shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate patient movement with all concerned Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request of the Military Department concerned or Commanders of the GCCs, determine availability of DoD transportation assets, or when cost effective, coordinate with civilian ambulance authorities, to effect transportation of Secretarial Designee as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure the Global Patient Movement Requirements Center, as the regulating agency, will consistently serve as the single point of contact for patient movement for Secretarial Designee patients using DoD assets upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) Annually consolidate Secretarial Designee patient listing who utilized the DoD patient movement system and forward to USD(P&amp;R) and USD(C).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="111" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 111—TRANSITIONAL COMPENSATION FOR ABUSED DEPENDENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1059.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 49459, Sept. 20, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 111.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for the payment of monthly Transitional Compensation (TC) to dependents of Service members separated for dependent abuse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (DoD), the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent abuse offense.</I> Conduct by an individual while a Military Service member on active duty for a period of more than 30 days that involves abuse of a then-current spouse or a dependent child of the Service member and that is a criminal offense under the Uniform Code of Military Justice or another criminal code applicable to the jurisdiction where the act of abuse is committed. The term “involves abuse of the then-current spouse or a dependent child” means that the criminal offense is against the person of that spouse or a dependent child. Crimes that may qualify as dependent-abuse offenses include sexual assault, rape, sodomy, assault, battery, murder, and manslaughter. (This is not an exhaustive or exclusive listing of dependent-abuse offenses, but is provided for illustrative purposes only. The facts and circumstances of a particular case should always be interpreted in a manner most favorable to the spouse or a dependent child of the member when determining whether the conduct constitutes a “dependent abuse offense.”)
</P>
<P><I>Dependent child.</I> As defined in 10 U.S.C. 1059.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange stores.</I> The Army and Air Force Exchange Service, the Navy Exchange, the Marine Corps Exchange, and the Coast Guard Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Parent.</I> The natural father or mother, or father or mother through adoption. For purposes of TC, parent does not include persons who have stood “in loco parentis” to a dependent child.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary concerned.</I> Includes the Secretary of the cognizant Military Department and the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security, when applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Service member.</I> Includes former Service members, where appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse.</I> An individual married to a Service member, but does not include a domestic partner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD will make monthly TC payments and provide other benefits described in this part for spouses or dependents of Service members who meet the eligibility requirements of 10 U.S.C. 1059 and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)):
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes and prescribes procedures for the payment of TC to dependents of Service members separated for dependent abuse.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversees compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security, when applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint representatives to coordinate requests for TC, approve requests (except exceptional eligibility requests), and forward those requests for payment in accordance with Chapter 60, Volume 7B of DoD 7000.14-R, “Department of Defense Financial Management Regulations (FMRs): Military Pay Policy—Retired Pay” (available at <I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/Portals/45/documents/fmr/Volume_07b.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Review and approve or disapprove requests for TC benefits in accordance with the exceptional eligibility authority in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1059. This responsibility may not be delegated.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure dependents who are victims of a dependent-abuse offense are aware of their eligibility to apply for TC.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish departmental guidance to implement this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.39.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recipients of payment.</I> The Secretary concerned makes TC payments to Service member dependents, former dependents, or court-appointed guardians as described by 10 U.S.C. 1059. If a recipient is incapable of handling his or her own affairs, payments may be made only to a court-appointed guardian.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payments.</I> (1) Payments begin in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1059.
</P>
<P>(2) Payments must continue for at least 12 months and no more than 36 months, as prescribed by the Secretary concerned. When the unserved portion of the Service member's obligated active duty service, as of the starting date of payment, is greater than 12 months and less than or equal to 36 months, payments continue for no less than the unserved portion.
</P>
<P>(i) For enlisted Service members, obligated active duty service is the time remaining on their terms of enlistment.
</P>
<P>(ii) For officers, obligated active duty service is indefinite unless an officer has a date of separation established. In that case, it is the time remaining until the date of separation.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of payment will be in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1059. Partial month entitlements are pro-rated. If a recipient dies, arrears of payments are not paid.
</P>
<P>(4) Payments will be stopped in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1059.
</P>
<P>(i) Payments will end on the first day of the first month following the month in which the Secretary concerned notifies the recipient of such transitional compensation in writing that the payment of TC will stop.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recipients are not required to repay amounts of TC received before the effective date payment is stopped, in accordance with paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; however, TC may be recouped for erroneous payments or payments made based on false information provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Forfeiture provisions.</I> In addition to 10 U.S.C. 1059, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The former spouse receiving TC must notify the Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS) within 30 days of remarriage or if the spouse or former spouse begins residing in the same household as the spouse or former spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Service member's dependent child is not living in the same household as the spouse or former spouse who forfeits TC, payments are made to each dependent child or his or her court-appointed guardian.
</P>
<P>(3) In order to continue benefits, the spouse or former spouse must annually certify to DFAS that he or she is not remarried and is not cohabitating with the Service member separated for the abuse. DFAS will provide a form for recertification of benefits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Coordination of benefits.</I> A spouse or former spouse may not concurrently receive TC payments and retired pay payments pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1059 and 1408(h), respectively. If a spouse or former spouse is eligible for both TC payments and retired pay payments, the spouse or former spouse chooses which of the two payments to receive. If the spouse or former spouse receives TC payments and later receives payments from a Service member's retired pay, any TC received concurrently with retired pay must be recouped.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Source of funds.</I> TC must be paid from operations and maintenance funds of the Department of the Service member.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application of procedures.</I> An individual must initiate a request for TC through a Service-appointed representative. The Service-appointed representative:
</P>
<P>(1) Collects data and validates the claim using DD Form 2698 (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2698.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Approves payment and forwards the application to DFAS unless otherwise submitted by the Secretary concerned in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1059.
</P>
<P>(g) Commissary and exchange benefits. (1) A recipient of TC is entitled to use commissary and exchange stores while receiving payments.
</P>
<P>(2) If a recipient entitled to use commissary and exchange stores is also entitled to use commissary and exchange stores under another provision of law, the entitlement is determined under the other provision of law and not paragraph (g)(1).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Medical benefits.</I> (1) The Secretary concerned will determine appropriate medical and dental care eligibility for TC recipients and affected dependents. At a minimum, an abused dependent who is receiving TC in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section may receive medical and dental care, including mental health services, in facilities of the Uniformed Services or through the TRICARE program as outlined in 10 U.S.C. 1076, 1077, and 1079.
</P>
<P>(2) Dental care may be provided on a space-available basis in facilities of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(3) Eligible dependents of a Service member who is retirement eligible, but who loses eligibility for retirement pay because of dependent-abuse misconduct, may receive medical and dental care in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1408(h).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="113" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 113—INDEBTEDNESS PROCEDURES OF MILITARY PERSONNEL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5520a(k) and 10 U.S.C. 113(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 1722, Jan. 5, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 113.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures under 32 CFR part 112 governing delinquent indebtedness of members of the Military Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard when it is not operating as a Military Service in the Navy by agreement with the Department of Transportation), the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Unified Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”). The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance.</I> The presence and participation of a member of the Military Services, or an attorney of the member's choosing, throughout the judicial proceeding from which the judgment was issued that is the basis for a request for enforcement through involuntary allotment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant.</I> The original judgment holder, a successor in interest, or attorney or agent thereof who requests an involuntary allotment from a member of the Military Services pursuant to DoD Directive 1344.9. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Pay subject to involuntary allotment.</I> For purposes of complying with 32 CFR part 112 and 5 U.S.C. 5520a(k), pay subject to involuntary allotment shall be determined by:
</P>
<P>(1) Including:
</P>
<P>(i) Basic pay but excluding reduction for education for education benefits under section 38 U.S.C. 1411 (“New G.I. Bill”). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Special pay (including enlistment and reenlistment bonuses). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Incentive pay. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Accrued leave payments (basic pay portion only).
</P>
<P>(v) Readjustment pay.
</P>
<P>(vi) Severance pay (including disability severance pay).
</P>
<P>(vii) Lump-sum Reserve bonus.
</P>
<P>(viii) Inactive duty training pay.
</P>
<P>(2) Excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) Retired pay (including) disability retired pay). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Retainer pay.
</P>
<P>(iii) Separation pay, Voluntary Separation Incentive (VSI), and Special Separation Benefit (SSB).
</P>
<P>(iv) Allowances paid under titles 10 and 37 of the United States Code (e.g., Chapter 53 of title 10 and Chapter 7 of title 37, respectively) and other reimbursements for expenses incurred in connection with duty in the Military Service or allowances in lieu thereof. 
</P>
<P>(v) Payments not specifically enumerated in § 113.3(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) After including the items in § 113.3(c)(1), subtracting the following pay items to compute the final earnings value of the pay subject to involuntary allotment:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal and State employment and income tax withholding (amount limited only to that which is necessary to fulfill member's tax liability). 
</P>
<P>(ii) FICA tax.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amounts mandatorily withheld for the United States Soldiers' and Airmen's Home.
</P>
<P>(iv) Deductions for the Servicemen's Group Life Insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(v) Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan.
</P>
<P>(vi) Indebtedness to the United States.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fines and forfeitures ordered by a court-martial or a commanding officer.
</P>
<P>(viii) Amounts otherwise required by law to be deducted from a member's pay (except payments under 42 U.S.C. 659, 661, 662, and 665).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preponderance of the evidence.</I> A greater weight of evidence that is more credible and convincing to the mind. That which best accords with reason and probability. (See Black's Law Dictionary 
<SU>2</SU>)
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Black's Law Dictionary, Fourth Edition, West Publishing Company, Saint Paul, Minnesota (1952).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Proper and Timely Manner.</I> A manner that under the circumstances does not reflect discredit on the Military Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy under 32 CFR part 112 that procedures be established for the processing of debt complaints against members of the Military Services and involuntary allotments from the pay of members of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(b) An involuntary allotment shall not exceed the lesser of 25 percent of a member's pay subject to involuntary allotment or the maximum percentage of pay subject to garnishment proceedings under the applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(c) The amount of an involuntary allotment under 32 CFR part 112 and this part when combined with deductions as a result of garnishments or statutory allotments for spousal support and child support under 42 U.S.C. 659, 661, 662, or 665, may not exceed the lesser of 25 percent of a member's pay subject to involuntary allotment or the maximum percentage of pay subject to garnishment proceedings under applicable State law. In any case in which the maximum percentage would be exceeded, garnishments and involuntary allotments for spousal and child support shall take precedence over involuntary allotments authorized under 32 CFR part 112 and this part. Involuntary allotments established under 32 CFR part 112 and this part shall be reduced or stopped as necessary to avoid exceeding the maximum percentage allowed.
</P>
<P>(d) The Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 note, 1601-1614, 1631-1646, 1661-1666j, and 1667-1667e) prescribes the general disclosure requirements that must be met by those offering or extending consumer credit and Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z (12 CFR 226) prescribes the specific disclosure requirements for both open-end and installment credit transactions. In place of Federal Government requirements, State regulations apply to credit transactions when the Federal Reserve Board has determined that the State regulations impose substantially similar requirements and provide adequate enforcement measures. Commanding officers, with the assistance of judge advocates, should check regulations of the Federal Reserve Board to determine whether Federal or State laws and regulations govern.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness shall monitor compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) shall ensure Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components shall ensure compliance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following procedures apply to the processing of debt complaints against members of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(1) It is incumbent on those submitting indebtedness complaints to show that they have met the disclosure requirements of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 note, 1601-1614, 1631-1646, 1661-1666j, and 1667-1667e) and Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z (12 CFR 226), and that they complied with the Standards of Fairness (appendix B to this part).
</P>
<P>(2) Creditors subject to Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z (12 CFR 226), and assignees claiming thereunder, shall submit with their debt complaint an executed copy of the Certificate of Compliance (appendix A to this part), and a true copy of the general and specific disclosures provided the member of the Military Service as required by the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 note, 1601-1614, 1631-1646, 1661-1666j, and 1667-1667e). Debt complaints that request assistance but do not meet these requirements will be returned without action to the claimant.
</P>
<P>(3) A creditor not subject to Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z (12 CFR 226), such as a public utility company, shall submit with the request a certificate that no interest, finance charge, or other fee is in excess of that permitted by the law of the State in which the obligation was incurred.
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign-owned company having debt complaints shall submit with its request a true copy of the terms of the debt (English translation) and shall certify that it has subscribed to the Standards of Fairness (appendix B to this part).
</P>
<P>(5) Debt complaints that meet the requirements of this part shall be processed by Department of Defense Components. “Processed” means that Heads of the Department of Defense Components, or designees, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Review all available facts surrounding the transaction forming the basis of the complaint, including the member's legal rights and obligations, and any defenses or counterclaims the member may have.
</P>
<P>(ii) Advise the member concerned that:
</P>
<P>(A) Just financial obligations are expected to be paid in a proper and timely manner, and what the member should do to comply with that policy;
</P>
<P>(B) Financial and legal counseling services are available under DoD Directive 1344.7 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> in resolving indebtedness; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 113.3(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) That a failure to pay a just debt may result in the creditor obtaining a judgment from a court that could form the basis for collection of pay from the member pursuant to an involuntary allotment.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a member acknowledges a debt as a result of creditor contact with a DoD Component, advise the member that assistance and counseling may be available from the on-base military banking office, the credit union serving the military field of membership, or other available military community service organizations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Direct the appropriate commander to advise the claimant that:
</P>
<P>(A) Those aspects of DoD policy prescribed in 32 CFR part 112.4, are pertinent to the particular claim in question; and
</P>
<P>(B) The member concerned has been advised of his or her obligations on the claim.
</P>
<P>(v) The commander's response to the claimant shall not undertake to arbitrate any disputed debt, or admit or deny the validity of the claim. Under no circumstances shall the response indicate whether any action has been taken, or will be taken, against the member as a result of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) The following procedures apply to the processing of involuntary allotments from the pay of members of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Involuntary allotment application.</I> (i) Regardless of the Service Affiliation of the member involved, with the exception of members of the Coast Guard an application to establish an involuntary allotment from the pay of a member of the Military Services shall be made by sending a completed DD Form 2653, “Involuntary Allotment Application” (appendix C to this part) to the appropriate address listed below. Applications sent to any other address shall be returned without action to the applicant.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(For Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps)
</FP>
<FP-1>Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland Center, Code L, P.O. Box 998002, Cleveland, OH 44199-8002
</FP-1>
<FP>(For Coast Guard only)
</FP>
<FP-1>Coast Guard Pay and Personnel Center (LGL), 444 S.E. Quincy Street, Topeka, KS 66683-3591</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Each application must include a copy of the final judgment certified by the clerk of court and such other documents as may be required by § 113.6(b)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(iii) A garnishment summons or order is insufficient to satisfy the final judgment requirement of § 113.6(b)(1)(ii) and is not required to apply for an involuntary allotment under this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Involuntary allotment applications must contain the following information, certifications, and acknowledgment:
</P>
<P>(A) The full name, social security number, and branch of Service of the military member against whose pay an involuntary allotment is sought. Although not required, inclusion of the member's current duty station and duty address on the application form will facilitate processing of the application.
</P>
<P>(B) The applicant's full name and address. If the applicant is not a natural person, the application must be signed by an individual with the authority to act on behalf of such entity. If the allotment is to be in favor of a person other than the original judgment holder, proof of the right to succeed to the interest of the original judgment holder is required and must be attached to the application.
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amount of the judgment. Additionally, if the judgment awarded interest, the total dollar amount of the interest on the judgment accrued to the date of application.
</P>
<P>(D) A certification that the judgment has not been amended, superseded, set aside, or satisfied; or, if the judgment has been satisfied in part, the extent to which the judgment remains unsatisfied.
</P>
<P>(E) A certification that the judgment was issued while the member was not on active duty (in appropriate cases). If the judgment was issued while the member was on active duty, a certification that the member was present or represented by an attorney of the member's choosing in the proceedings, or if the member was not present or represented by an attorney of the member's choosing, that the judgment complies with the Soldiers' and Sailors' Civil Relief Act of 1940, as amended (50 U.S.C. appendix sections 501-591).
</P>
<P>(F) A certification that the member's pay could be garnished under applicable State law and section 5520a(k) of the United States Code, if the member were a civilian employee.
</P>
<P>(G) A certification that, to the knowledge of the applicant, the debt has not been discharged in bankruptcy, nor has the member filed for protection from creditors under the bankruptcy laws of the United States.
</P>
<P>(H) A certification that if the judgment is satisfied prior to the collection of the total amount through the involuntary allotment process, the applicant will provide prompt notice that the involuntary allotment must be discontinued.
</P>
<P>(I) A certification that if the member overpays the amount owed on the judgment, the applicant shall refund the amount of overpayment to the member within 30 days of discovery or notice of the overpayment, whichever, is earlier, and that if the applicant fails to repay the member, the applicant understands he or she may be denied the right to collect by involuntary allotment on other debt reduced to judgments.
</P>
<P>(J) Acknowledgment that as a condition of application, the applicant agrees that neither the United States, nor any disbursing official or Federal employee whose duties include processing involuntary allotment applications and payments, shall be liable for any payment or failure to make payment from moneys due or payable by the United States to any person pursuant to any application made in accordance herewith.
</P>
<P>(v) The original and three copies of the application and supporting documents must be submitted by the applicant to DFAS.
</P>
<P>(vi) A complete “application package” (the DD Form 2653, supporting documentation, and three copies of the application and supporting documents), is required for processing of any request to establish an involuntary allotment pursuant to this part and 32 CFR part 112.
</P>
<P>(vii) Applications that do not conform to the requirements of this part shall not be processed. If an application is ineligible for processing, the application package shall be returned to the applicant with an explanation of the deficiency. In cases involving repeated false certifications by an applicant, the designated DFAS official may refuse to accept or process additional applications by that applicant for such period of time as the official deems appropriate to deter against such violations in the future.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Processing of involuntary allotment applications.</I> (i) Promptly upon receipt of DD Form 2653 (Appendix C to this part), the designated DFAS official shall review the “application package” to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part. If the application package is complete, the DFAS official shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Complete Section I of DD Form 2654, “Involuntary Allotment Notice and Processing” (Appendix D to this part), by inserting the name, social security number, rank, and branch of service of the military member against whom an application for involuntary allotment is being processed. Additionally, the DFAS official shall provide the due date for receipt of a response at DFAS. The due date shall be 90 days from the date DFAS mails the DD Form 2654 to the commander and member concerned as provided for in § 113.6(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(B) Mail one copy of the application package to the member and two copies of the application package, along with DD Form 2654, to the commander of the military member or other official as designated by the Military Service concerned during times of war, national emergency, deployment, or other similar circumstances, who may act for the commander, provided the Military Service concerned has provided DFAS with the name or position of the official and the appropriate address (hereinafter, the meaning of the term “commander” includes such other official).
</P>
<P>(C) Within 60 days of mailing the copies of the application package and DD Form 2654, DFAS shall provide notice to the member and the member's commander that automatic processing of the involuntary allotment application shall occur if a response (including notice of an approved extension as authorized in § 113.6(b)(2)(iii)(B) and (F), is not received by the due date specified in Section I of DD Form 2654. In the absence of a response, DFAS may automatically process the involuntary allotment application on the fifteenth calendar day after the date a response was due. When DFAS has received notice of an extension, automatic processing shall not begin until the fifteenth calendar day after the approved extension date.
</P>
<P>(D) Retain the original of the application package and DD Form 2654.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of an application, the commander shall determine if the member identified in Section I of DD Form 2654 is assigned or attached to the commander's unit and available to respond to the involuntary allotment application. If the member is not assigned or attached, or not available to respond (e.g., retired, in a prisoner of war status, or in a missing in action status), the commander will promptly complete Section II of DD Form 2654 and attach appropriate documentation supporting the determination. The commander will then mail the application package and DD Form 2654 to DFAS. Section II shall also be used by the commander to notify DFAS of extensions beyond the due date for a response contained in Section I of DD Form 2654. When such extensions are authorized, the commander will complete Section II, make a copy of Sections I and II, and promptly mail the copy to DFAS.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 5 days of receipt of an application package and DD Form 2654 from the designated DFAS official, the commander shall notify the member of the receipt of the application, provide the member a copy of the entire application package, and counsel the member using and completing Section III of DD Form 2654 about the following:
</P>
<P>(A) That an application for the establishment of an involuntary allotment for the lesser of 25 percent of the member's pay subject to involuntary allotment or the maximum percentage of pay subject to garnishment proceedings under the applicable State law has been received.
</P>
<P>(B) That the member has 15 calendar days from the date of receipt of the commander's notice to complete Section IV of DD Form 2654. That for good cause shown, the commander may grant an extension of reasonable time (normally not exceeding 30 calendar days) to submit a response. That during times of deployment, war, national emergency, assignment outside the United States, hospitalization, or other similar situations that prevent the member from obtaining necessary evidence or from responding in a timely manner, extensions exceeding 30 calendar days may be granted. That if the member fails to respond within the time allowed, the commander will note the member's failure to respond in Section V of DD Form 2654 and send the form to DFAS for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(C) That the member's response will either consent to the involuntary allotment or contest it.
</P>
<P>(D) That the member may contest the application for any one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) There has not been compliance with the procedural requirements of the Soldiers' and Sailors' Civil Relief Act of 1940, as amended (50 U.S.C. appendix sections 501-591) during the judicial proceeding upon which the involuntary allotment application is sought.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Exigencies of military duty” (as defined in 32 CFR part 112.3(d)) caused the “absence” of the member from appearance in a judicial proceeding forming the basis for the judgment upon which the application is sought.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information in the application is patently false or erroneous in material part.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The judgment has been fully satisfied, superseded, or set aside.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The judgment has been materially amended, or partially satisfied. When asserting this defense, the member shall include evidence of the amount of the judgment that has been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) There is a legal impediment to the establishment of the involuntary allotment (for example, the judgment debt has been discharged in bankruptcy, the judgment debtor has filed for protection from the creditors under the bankruptcy laws of the United States, the applicant is not the judgment holder nor a proper successor in interest to that holder, or the applicant has been enjoined by a Federal or state court from enforcing the judgment debt).
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Or other appropriate reasons that must be clearly specified and explained by the member.
</P>
<P>(E) That, if the member contests the involuntary allotment, the member shall provide evidence (documentary or otherwise) in support thereof. Furthermore, that any evidence submitted by the member may be disclosed to the applicant for the involuntary allotment.
</P>
<P>(F) That the member may consult with a legal assistance attorney, if reasonably available, or a civilian attorney at no expense to the government. That if a legal assistance attorney is available, the member should immediately arrange for an appointment. That the member may request a reasonable delay from the commander to obtain legal assistance (in cases where an approved delay will cause DFAS to receive the member's response after the due date identified in Section I of DD Form 2654, the commander must immediately notify the designated DFAS official of the delay, the date for an expected response, and the reason for the delay by completing Section II of DD Form 2654 and forwarding a copy of Sections I and II to DFAS). Additionally, that requests for extensions of time based on the need for legal assistance shall be denied to members who fail to exercise due diligence in seeking such assistance.
</P>
<P>(G) That if the member contests the involuntary allotment on the grounds that exigencies of military duty caused the absence of the member from the judicial proceeding at which the judgment was rendered, then the member's commander shall review and make the final determination on this contention, and notify the designated DFAS official of the commander's decision by completing Section V of DD Form 2654 and forwarding the form to DFAS.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In determining whether exigencies of military duty caused the absence of the member, the commander at the level designated by the Service concerned shall consider the definition of “exigencies of military duty” (as defined in 32 CFR part 112.3(d)).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Additionally, consideration shall be given to whether the commander at the time determined the military duties in question to be of such paramount importance that they prevented making the member available to attend the judicial proceedings, or rendered the member unable to timely respond to process, motions, pleadings, or orders of the court.
</P>
<P>(H) That if the member contests the involuntary allotment on any basis other than exigencies of military duty, the application package and DD Form 2654 shall be returned to the commander who shall forward it to the designated DFAS official for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(I) That if the member fails to respond to the commander within the time allowed under § 113.6(b)(2)(iii)(B), the commander shall notify the designated DFAS official of the member's failure to respond by completing Section V of DD Form 2654, and forwarding the form to DFAS.
</P>
<P>(iv) After counseling the member in accordance with § 113.6(b)(2)(iii)(A)-(I), the commander shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Date and sign Section III of DD Form 2654.
</P>
<P>(B) Obtain the member's acknowledgment of counseling by having the member sign the appropriate space on Section III of DD Form 2654.
</P>
<P>(C) Determine if the member consents to the involuntary allotment or needs the time authorized under this part to review the application package and take appropriate action. If the member consents to the involuntary allotment, the commander shall direct the member to appropriately complete Section IV of DD Form 2654. The commander must then complete the appropriate item in Section V and promptly forward the completed DD Form 2654 to the designated DFAS official.
</P>
<P>(D) Complete the appropriate items in Section V of DD Form 2654 when the member fails to respond within the time authorized for a response, or asserts that exigencies of military duty caused the absence of the member from an appearance in the judicial proceeding upon which the Involuntary Allotment Application is sought. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In determining whether exigencies of military duty caused the absence of the member, the commander, at the level designated by the Service concerned, shall consider the definition of “exigencies of military duty” (as defined in 32 CFR part 112.3(d)), the evidence provided by the member, any other reasonably available evidence (e.g., a copy of the member's personnel record), and whether the commander at the time determined the military duties in question to be of such paramount importance that they prevented making the member available to attend the judicial proceedings, or rendered the member unable to timely respond to process, motions, pleadings, or orders of the court. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The evidentiary standard for a commander to determine whether existences of military duty caused the absence of the member from an appearance in the judicial proceeding upon which the Involuntary Allotment Application is sought is a “preponderance of the evidence” (as defined in § 113.3(d) of this part). 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the commander has made a determination on exigencies of military duty, the commander must insert in Section V of DD Form 2654, the title and address of the appeal authority. 
</P>
<P>(E) Promptly following the date the member's response is due to the commander as determined by § 113.6(b)(2)(iii)(B), ensure that the DD Form 2654 is appropriately completed and mail the form, along with any response received from the member, to DFAS. 
</P>
<P>(F) Provide the member a copy of the completed DD Form 2654 within 5 days of mailing to the designated DFAS official. 
</P>
<P>(v) Upon receipt of DD Form 2654 and any additional evidence submitted by the member, the designated DFAS official shall conduct a review of the entire application package, DD Form 2654, and any evidence submitted by the member, to determine whether the application for an involuntary allotment should be approved and established. 
</P>
<P>(A) In those cases where the member's commander has completed Section V of DD Form 2654, and determined that exigencies of military duty caused the absence of the member from an appearance in a judicial proceeding upon which the involuntary allotment application is sought, the designated DFAS official shall deny the involuntary allotment application and provide the applicant written notice of the denial and the reason therefor. The designated DFAS official shall also advise the applicant that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The responsibility for determining whether exigencies of military duty existed belonged to the member's commander and the Military Department concerned. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The commander's decision may be appealed within 60 days of the date DFAS mailed the notice of the decision to the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An Appeal must be submitted to the appeal authority at the address provided by DFAS (as found in Section V of the DD Form 2654) in their written notice of denial, and that an appeal submitted to an appeal authority and address different from the one provided by DFAS may be returned without action. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An appeal must be submitted in writing and contain sufficient evidence to overcome the presumption that the commander's exigency determination was correct. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The appellate authority shall decide an appeal within 30 days of its receipt and promptly notify the applicant in writing of the decision. The 30 day decision period may be extended during times of deployment, war, national emergency, or other similar situations. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) If an appeal is successful, the applicant must submit a written request, along with a copy of the appellate authority's decision, to DFAS within 15 days of receipt of the appellate authority's decision. 
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receiving written notice that an applicant has successfully appealed a commander's determination on exigencies of military duty that resulted in denial of an involuntary allotment application, DFAS shall review the application in accordance with § 113.6(b)(2)(v)(C), and determine whether the involuntary allotment should be approved and initiated. 
</P>
<P>(C) In all cases, other than as described in § 113.6(b)(2)(v)(A), the designated DFAS official shall deny an involuntary allotment application, and give written notice to the applicant of the reason(s) for denial, if the designated DFAS official determines that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) There has not been compliance with the procedural requirements of the Soldier's and Sailor's Civil Relief Act of 1940, as amended (50 U.S.C. appendix sections 501-591) during the judicial proceeding upon which the involuntary allotment application is sought. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information in the application is patently false or erroneous in material part. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The judgment has been fully satisfied, superseded, or set aside. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The judgment has been materially amended, or partially satisfied. In such a case, the request for involuntary allotment may be approved only to satisfy that portion of the judgment that remains in effect and unsatisfied; the remainder of the request shall be denied. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) There is a legal impediment to the establishment of the involuntary allotment (for example, the judgment debt has been discharged in bankruptcy, the judgment debtor has filed for protection from the creditors under the bankruptcy laws of the United States, the applicant is not the judgment creditor nor a proper successor in interest to that creditor, or the applicant has been enjoined by a Federal or State court from enforcing the judgment debt). 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The member's pay is already subject to one or more involuntary allotments or garnishments that equal the lesser of 25 percent of the member's pay subject to involuntary allotment or the maximum percentage of pay subject to garnishment proceedings under the applicable State law. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The applicant has abused the processing privilege (e.g., an applicant, having been notified of the requirements of this part, repeatedly refuses or fails to comply therewith). 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Or other appropriate reasons that must be clearly explained to the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(D) In all cases other than as described in § 113.6(b)(2)(v) (A) and (C), the designated DFAS official shall approve the involuntary allotment application and establish an involuntary allotment against the pay subject to involuntary allotment of the member. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The designated DFAS official shall, at any time after establishing an involuntary allotment, cancel or suspend such allotment and notify the applicant of that cancellation if the member concerned, or someone acting on his or her behalf, submits legally sufficient proof, by affidavit or otherwise, that the allotment should not continue because of the existence of the factors enumerated in § 113.6(b)(2)(v)(A) and (C)(<I>1</I>)-(<I>8</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payments.</I> (i) Payment of an approved involuntary allotment under 32 CFR part 112 and this part shall commence within 30 days after the designated DFAS official has approved the involuntary allotment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments under this part shall not be required more frequently than once each month, and the designated official shall not be required to vary normal pay and disbursement cycles. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the designated DFAS official receives several applications on the same member of a Military Service, payments shall be satisfied on a first-come, first-served basis. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Payments shall continue until the judgment is satisfied or until canceled or suspended. 
</P>
<P>(A) DFAS shall collect the total judgment, including interest when awarded by the judgment. Within 30 days following collection of the amount of the judgment, including interest as annotated by the applicant in Section I of DD Form 2654, the applicant may submit a final statement of interest that accrued during the pay-off period. This final statement of interest request must be accompanied by a statement of account showing how the applicant computed the interest amount. DFAS will collect this post-application interest provided it is an amount owed pursuant to the judgment. DFAS shall not accept any further interest requests. 
</P>
<P>(B) Interest or other costs associated with the debt forming the basis for the judgment, but not included as an amount awarded by the judgment, shall not be paid to applicants for involuntary allotments. 
</P>
<P>(v) If the member is found not to be entitled to money due from or payable by the Military Services, the designated official shall return the application and advise the applicant that no money is due from or payable by the Military Service to the member. When it appears that pay subject to an involuntary allotment is exhausted temporarily or otherwise unavailable, the applicant shall be told why and for how long that money is unavailable, if known. Involuntary allotments shall be canceled on or before the date a member retires, is discharged, or is released from active duty. The designated DFAS official shall notify the applicant of the reason for cancellation. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Upon receiving notice from an applicant that a judgment upon which an involuntary allotment is based has been satisfied, vacated, modified, or set aside, the designated DFAS official shall promptly adjust or discontinue the involuntary allotment. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) may, in DoD 7000.14-R 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Volume 7, Part A, designate the priority to be given to involuntary allotments pursuant to 32 CFR part 112 and this part, among the deductions and collections taken from a member's pay, except that they may not give precedence over deductions required to arrive at a member's disposable pay for garnishments or involuntary allotments authorized by statute for alimony and child support payments. In the absence of a contrary designation by the Comptroller, all other lawful deductions (except voluntary allotments by the member) and collections shall take precedence over these involuntary allotments. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 113.3(b).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.7.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 113—Certificate of Compliance
</HEAD>
<P>I certify that the (Name of Creditor) upon extending credit 
</P>
<FP-DASH>to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>on 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP>complied with the full disclosure requirements of the Truth-in-Lending Act and Regulation Z, and the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (or the laws and regulations of State of ____________________), and that the attached statement is a true copy of the general and specific disclosures provided the obligor as required by law. 
</FP>
<P>I further certify that the Standards of Fairness set forth in DoD Directive 1344.9 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> have been applied to the consumer credit transaction to which this form refers. (If the unpaid balance has been adjusted as a consequence, the specific adjustments in the finance charge and the annual percentage rate should be set forth below.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Adjustments) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date of Certification) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH> 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of Creditor or Authorized Representative) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Street)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(City, State and Zip Code)


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.7.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 113—Standards of Fairness
</HEAD>
<P>1. No finance charge contracted for, made, or received under any contract shall be in excess of the charge that could be made for such contract under the law of the place in which the contract is signed in the United States by the military member. 
</P>
<P>a. In the event a contract is signed with a U.S. company in a foreign country, the lowest interest rate of the State or States in which the company is chartered or does business shall apply. 
</P>
<P>b. However, interest rates and service charges applicable to overseas military banking facilities shall be as established by the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>2. No contract or loan agreement shall provide for an attorney's fee in the event of default unless suit is filed, in which event the fee provided in the contract shall not exceed 20 percent of the obligation found due. No attorney fees shall be authorized if the attorney is a salaried employee of the holder. 
</P>
<P>3. In loan transactions, defenses that the debtor may have against the original lender or its agent shall be good against any subsequent holder of the obligation. In credit transactions, defenses against the seller or its agent shall be good against any subsequent holder of the obligation, provided that the holder had actual knowledge of the defense or under conditions where reasonable inquiry would have apprised the holder of this fact. 
</P>
<P>4. The military member shall have the right to remove any security for the obligation beyond State or national boundaries if the military member or family moves beyond such boundaries under military orders and notifies the creditor, in advance of the removal, of the new address where the security will be located. Removal of the security shall not accelerate payment of the obligation. 
</P>
<P>5. No late charge shall be made in excess of 5 percent of the late payment, or $5.00, whichever is the lesser amount, or as provided by law or applicable regulatory agency determination. Only one late charge may be made for any tardy installment. Late charges shall not be levied where an allotment has been timely filed, but payment of the allotment has been delayed. Late charges by overseas banking facilities are a matter of contract with the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligation may be paid in full at any time or through accelerated payments of any amount. There shall be no penalty for prepayment. In the event of prepayment, that portion of the finance charges that has inured to the benefit of the seller or creditor shall be prorated on the basis of the charges that would have been ratably payable had finance charges been calculated and payable as equal periodic payments over the terms of the contract, and only the prorated amount to the date of prepayment shall be due. As an alternative, the “Rule of 78” may be applied. 
</P>
<P>7. If a charge is made for loan insurance protection, it must be evidenced by delivery of a policy or certificate of insurance to the military member within 30 days. 
</P>
<P>8. If the loan or contract agreement provides for payments in installation, each payment, other than the down payment, shall be in equal or substantially equal amounts, and installments shall be successive and of equal or substantially equal duration. 
</P>
<P>9. If the security for the debt is repossessed and sold in order to satisfy or reduce the debt, the repossession and resale shall be governed by the laws of the State in which the security is requested. 
</P>
<P>10. A contract for personal goods and services may be terminated at any time before delivery of the goods or services without charge to the purchaser. However, if goods made to the special order of the purchaser result in preproduction costs, or require preparation for delivery, such additional costs shall be listed in the order form or contract. 
</P>
<P>a. No termination charge shall be made in excess of this amount. Contracts for delivery at future intervals may be terminated as to the undelivered portion. 
</P>
<P>b. The purchaser shall be chargeable only for that proportion of the total cost that the goods or services delivered bear to the total goods called for by the contract. (This is in addition to the right to rescind certain credit transactions involving a security interest in real estate provided by the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 note, 1601-1614, 1631-1646, 1661-1665a, 1666-1666j, and 1667-1667e) and Federal Reserve Board Regulation Z (12 CFR 226)). 





</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.7.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 113—Sample DD Form 2653, “Involuntary Allotment Application”

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.003.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.40.0.43.7.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 113—Sample DD Form 2654, “Involuntary Allotment Notice and Processing”

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja95.007.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="114" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 114—VICTIM AND WITNESS ASSISTANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. chapter 47; 10 U.S.C. 113, 1034, 1044, 1044e, 1058, 1059, and 1408; 18 U.S.C. 1512 through 1514; section 573 of Pub. L. 112-239, 126 Stat. 1632; sections 1701 and 1706 of Pub. L. 113-66, 127 Stat. 672; and section 533 of Pub. L. 113-291, 128 Stat. 3292.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 23476, Apr. 28, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 114.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures to assist victims and witnesses of alleged crimes committed in violation of 10 U.S.C. chapter 47, also known and referred to in this part as the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) The rights of crime victims under the UCMJ and required mechanisms for enforcement, in accordance with section 1701 of Public Law 113-66, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2014,” and in accordance with DoD standards for victim witness assistance services in the military community established in DoD Instruction 6400.07, “Standards for Victim Assistance Services in the Military Community,” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/640007p.pdf?ver=2018-07-06-073608-400</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Providing timely notification of information and assistance available to victims and witnesses of crime from initial contact through investigation, prosecution, and confinement in accordance with 18 U.S.C. 1512 through 1514, 32 CFR part 286, “DoD Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Program,” 32 CFR part 111, “Transitional Compensation for Abused Dependents,” DoD Instruction 1325.07, “Administration of Military Correctional Facilities and Clemency and Parole Authority,” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/132507p.pdf?ver=2019-02-19-075650-100</I>), DoD Directive 7050.06, “Military Whistleblower Protection,” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/705006p.pdf</I>), and 10 U.S.C. 113, 1034, 1059, and 1408; and section 1706 of Public Law 113-66.
</P>
<P>(3) Annual reporting requirements on assistance provided across the DoD to victims and witnesses of alleged crimes.
</P>
<P>(c) Provides for legal assistance for crime victims entitled to such services pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1044 and 1044e, and in accordance with Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) Memorandum, “Legal Assistance for Victims of Crimes” (available at <I>http://www.sapr.mil/public/docs/directives/Legal_Assistance_for_Victims_of_Crime-Memo.pdf</I>), and 10 U.S.C. 1565b, and as further prescribed by the Military Departments and National Guard Bureau policies.
</P>
<P>(d) Adopts section 573 of Public Law 112-239, “The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013,” January 2, 2013, requiring each Military Service to establish a special victim capability comprised of specially trained criminal investigators, judge advocates, paralegals, and victim and witness assistance personnel to support victims of covered special victim offenses. To de-conflict with victims' counsel programs, this distinct group of recognizable professionals will be referred to, at the DoD level, as the Special Victim Investigation and Prosecution (SVIP) capability.
</P>
<P>(e) Adopts the victim and witness portion of the special victim capability in accordance with) DoDI 5505.19, “Establishment of Special Victim Investigation and Prosecution (SVIP) Capability within the Military Criminal Investigative Organizations (MCIOs),” March 23, 2017 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/550519p.pdf?ver=2019-08-12-152401-387</I>), and Directive-type Memorandum (DTM) 14-003, “DoD Implementation of Special Victim Capability (SVC) Prosecution and Legal Support,” February 12, 2014, Incorporating Change 6, August 15, 2019 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dtm/DTM-14-003.pdf?ver=2019-08-15-102432-590</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) Adopts section 1716 of Public Law 113-66, and section 533 of the National Defense Authorization Act for 2015 (NDAA 2015), requiring the Military Services to provide legal counsel, known as Special Victims' Counsel or Victims' Legal Counsel, (SVC/VLC) to assist victims of alleged sex-related offenses in violation of Articles 120, 120a, 120b, 120c, 125 (before January 1, 2019) of the UCMJ, and attempts to commit any of these offenses under Article 80 of the UCMJ, who are eligible for legal assistance in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044 and 1044e, and as further prescribed by the Military Departments and National Guard Bureau policies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to any military or civilian victims or witnesses of alleged offenses under the UCMJ. This part also applies to OSD, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Central repository.</I> A headquarters office, designated by Service regulation, to serve as a clearinghouse of information on a confinee's status and to collect and report data on the delivery of victim and witness assistance, including notification of confinee status changes.
</P>
<P><I>Confinement facility victim witness assistance coordinator.</I> A staff member at a military confinement facility who is responsible for notifying victims and witnesses of changes in a confinee's status and reporting those notifications to the central repository.
</P>
<P><I>Court proceeding.</I> A preliminary hearing held pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ; a hearing under Article 39(a) of the UCMJ; a court-martial; a military presentencing hearing; or a military appellate hearing. Conferences, such as those between attorneys and the military judge pursuant to Rule for Courts-Martial (R.C.M.) 802 or between attorneys and preliminary hearing officers pursuant to Article 32, are not court proceedings for purposes of this part. If all or part of a court proceeding has been closed to the public by the military judge, preliminary hearing officer, or other official, the victims and witnesses will still be notified of the closed hearing as provided in this part, and of the reasons for the closure. In such a case, the military judge, preliminary hearing officer, or other official may place reasonable limits on the reasons disclosed, if such limits are necessary to protect the safety of any person, the fairness of the proceeding, or are otherwise in the interests of national security.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Component responsible official.</I> Person designated by each DoD Component head to be primarily responsible in the DoD Component for coordinating, implementing, and managing the victim and witness assistance program established by this part.
</P>
<P><I>Equal opportunity.</I> The right of all persons to participate in, and benefit from, programs and activities for which they are qualified. These programs and activities will be free from social, personal, or institutional barriers that prevent people from rising to the highest level of responsibility possible. Persons will be evaluated on individual merit, fitness, and capability, regardless of race, color, sex, national origin, or religion.
</P>
<P><I>Local responsible official.</I> Person designated by the DoD Component responsible official who has primary responsibility for identifying victims and witnesses of crime and for coordinating the delivery of services described in this part through a multidisciplinary approach. The position or billet of the local responsible official will be designated in writing by Service regulation. The local responsible official may delegate responsibilities in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Local Victim and Witness Assistance Council.</I> A regular forum held at the DoD installation, or regional command level, that promotes efficiencies, coordinates victim assistance-related programs, and assesses the implementation of victim assistance standards and victim assistance-related programs, in accordance with this part, DoD Instruction 6400.07, and any other applicable Service guidance.
</P>
<P><I>Military Department Clemency and Parole Board.</I> In accordance with DoD Instruction 1325.07, a board which assists the Military Department Secretary as the primary authority for administration and execution of clemency, parole, and mandatory supervised release policy and programs.
</P>
<P><I>Military services.</I> Refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, and the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and the Reserve Components, which include the Army and Air National Guards of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Protected communication.</I> (1) Any lawful communication to a Member of Congress or an IG.
</P>
<P>(2) A communication in which a member of the Armed Forces communicates information that the member reasonably believes evidences a violation of law or regulation, including a law or regulation prohibiting sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination, gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds or other resources, an abuse of authority, or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety, when such communication is made to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A Member of Congress, an IG, or a member of a DoD audit, inspection, investigation, or law enforcement organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person or organization in the chain of command; or any other person designated pursuant to regulations or other established administrative procedures to receive such communications.
</P>
<P><I>Reprisal.</I> Taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action, or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, for making or preparing to make a protected communication.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted reporting.</I> Defined in 32 CFR part 103.
</P>
<P><I>Special victim investigation and prosecution (SVIP) capability.</I> A distinct, recognizable group of appropriately skilled professionals, consisting of specially trained and selected military criminal investigative organization (MCIO) investigators, judge advocates, victim witness assistance personnel, and administrative paralegal support personnel who work collaboratively to:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigate allegations of adult sexual assault, domestic violence involving sexual assault and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm, and child abuse involving sexual assault and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide support for the victims of such covered offenses.
</P>
<P><I>Special victim offenses.</I> The designated criminal offenses of sexual assault, domestic violence involving sexual assault, and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm, and child abuse involving sexual assault and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm, in violation of the UCMJ. Sexual assault includes offenses under Articles 120 (rape and sexual assault in general), 120b (rape and sexual assault of a child), and 120c (other sexual misconduct), or forcible sodomy under Article 125 (before January 1, 2019) of the UCMJ or attempts to commit such offenses under Article 80 of the UCMJ. Aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm, in relation to domestic violence and child abuse cases, includes an offense as specified under Article 128 of the UCMJ (assault). The Military Services and National Guard Bureau may deem other UCMJ offenses appropriate for SVIP support, based on the facts and circumstances of specific cases, and the needs of victims.
</P>
<P><I>Special Victims' Counsel/Victims' Legal Counsel (SVC/VLC).</I> Legal counsel provided to assist eligible victims of alleged sex-related offenses in violation of Articles 120, 120a, 120b, 120c, and 125 (before January 1, 2019) of the UCMJ and attempts to commit any of these offenses under Article 80 of the UCMJ (or other offenses as defined by the Military Services), in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044, 1044e, and 1565b; section 1716 of Public Law 113-66; and section 533 of Public Law 113-291.
</P>
<P><I>Specially trained prosecutors.</I> Experienced judge advocates detailed by Military Department Judge Advocates Generals (TJAGs), the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, or other appropriate authority to litigate or assist with the prosecution of special victim cases and provide advisory support to MCIO investigators and responsible legal offices. Before specially trained prosecutors are detailed, their Service TJAG, Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, or other appropriate authority has determined they have the necessary training, maturity, and advocacy and leadership skills to carry out those duties.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted reporting.</I> Defined in 32 CFR part 103.
</P>
<P><I>Victim.</I> A person who has suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a crime committed in violation of the UCMJ. Victim assistance is limited to individuals eligible for military legal assistance under 10 U.S.C. 1044 and 1044e, and as further prescribed by the Military Departments' and National Guard Bureau's policies. Federal Departments and State and local agencies, as entities, are not eligible for services available to individual victims.
</P>
<P><I>Victim assistance personnel.</I> Personnel who are available to provide support and assistance to victims of alleged crimes consistent with their assigned responsibilities and in accordance with this part. They include part-time, full-time, collateral duty, and other authorized individuals, and may be domestic violence or sexual assault prevention and response coordinators (to include unit and uniformed victim advocates), Sexual Assault Response Coordinators, victim-witness assistance personnel, or military equal opportunity advisors.
</P>
<P><I>Victim assistance-related programs.</I> The SAPR Program; FAP; and the VWAP. A complainant under the DoD MEO Program may be referred by the MEO office to one of the victim assistance-related programs for additional assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Witness.</I> A person who has information or evidence about a criminal offense within the investigative jurisdiction of a DoD Component and who provides that knowledge to a DoD Component. When the witness is a minor, that term includes a parent or legal guardian, or other person responsible for the child. The term does not include an individual involved in the crime as an alleged perpetrator or accomplice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The DoD is committed to protecting the rights of victims and witnesses of alleged crimes and supporting their needs in the criminal justice process. The DoD Components will comply with all statutory and policy mandates and will take all additional actions within the limits of available resources to assist victims and witnesses of alleged crimes without infringing on the constitutional or other legal rights of a suspect or an accused.
</P>
<P>(b) DoD victim assistance services will focus on the victim and will respond, protect, and care for the victim from initiation of a report through offense disposition, if applicable, and will continue such support until the victim is no longer eligible for such services or the victim specifies to the local responsible official that he or she no longer requires or desires services.
</P>
<P>(c) Each DoD Component will provide particular attention and support to victims of serious, violent alleged crimes, including child abuse, domestic violence, and sexual assault. In order to ensure the safety of victims, and their families, victim assistance personnel shall respect the dignity and the privacy of persons receiving services, and carefully observe any safety plans and military or civilian protective orders in place.
</P>
<P>(d) Victim assistance services must meet DoD competency, ethical, and foundational standards established in DoD Instruction 6400.07, “Standards for Victim Assistance Services in the Military Community,” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/640007p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) Making or preparing to make or being perceived as making or preparing to make a protected communication, to include reporting a violation of law or regulation, including a law or regulation prohibiting rape, sexual assault, or other sexual misconduct, in violation of 10 U.S.C. 920 through 920c, sexual harassment, or unlawful discrimination, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1034, section 1709 of Public Law 113-66, and DoD Directive 7050.06, “Military Whistleblower Protection,” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/705006p.pdf</I>), shall not result in reprisal activity from management officials.
</P>
<P>(f) This part is not intended to, and does not, create any entitlement, cause of action, or defense at law or in equity, in favor of any person or entity arising out of the failure to accord to a victim or a witness the assistance outlined in this part. No limitations are hereby placed on the lawful prerogatives of the DoD or its officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)):
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes overall policy for victim and witness assistance and monitors compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Approves procedures developed by the Secretaries of the Military Departments that implement and are consistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintains the DoD Victim Assistance Leadership Council, in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.07, which advises the Secretary of Defense on policies and practices related to the provision of victim assistance and provides a forum that promotes efficiencies, coordinates victim assistance-related policies, and assesses the implementation of victim assistance standards across the DoD's victim assistance-related programs.
</P>
<P>(4) Submits an annual report to the Office for Victims of Crime, Department of Justice, identifying the number of specified notifications made to victims and witnesses of alleged crimes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, DoD Human Resources Activity, through the Defense Manpower Data Center, and under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), assists in formulating a data collection mechanism to track and report victim notifications from initial contact through investigation to disposition, to include prosecution, confinement, and release.
</P>
<P>(c) The Inspector General of the Department of Defense (DoD IG):
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes investigative policy and performs appropriate oversight reviews of the management of the Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) by the DoD military criminal investigative organizations (MCIOs). This is not intended to substitute for the routine managerial oversight of the program provided by the MCIOs, the USD(P&amp;R), the DoD Component heads, the DoD Component responsible officials, or the local responsible officials.
</P>
<P>(2) Investigates and oversees DoD Component Inspector General investigations of allegations or reprisal for making or preparing to make or being perceived as making or preparing to make a protected communication, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1034.
</P>
<P>(d) The DoD Component heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure compliance with this part, and establish policies and procedures to implement the VWAP within their DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(2) Designate the DoD Component responsible official for the VWAP, who will report annually to the USD(P&amp;R) using DD Form 2706, “Victim and Witness Assistance Annual Report” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2706.pdf</I>)
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for the assignment of personnel in sufficient numbers to enable those programs identified in the 10 U.S.C. 113 note to be carried out effectively.
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a central repository for confinee information for each Military Service, and establish procedures to ensure victims who so elect are notified of changes in inmate status.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain a Victim and Witness Assistance Council, when practicable, at each military installation, to ensure victim and witness service providers follow an interdisciplinary approach. These providers may include chaplains, sexual assault prevention and response personnel, family advocacy personnel, military treatment facility health care providers and emergency room personnel, family service center personnel, military equal opportunity personnel, judge advocates, SVC/VLCs, unit commanding officers, corrections personnel, and other persons designated by the Secretaries of the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain training programs to ensure Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) providers receive instruction to assist them in complying with this part. Training programs will include specialized training for VWAP personnel assigned to the SVIP capability, in accordance with § 114.6(c).
</P>
<P>(7) Designate local responsible officials in writing in accordance with Military Service regulations and § 114.6(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(8) Maintain oversight procedures to ensure establishment of an integrated support system capable of providing the services outlined in § 114.6, and meet the competency, ethical, and foundational standards established in DoD Instruction 6400.07. Such oversight may include coverage by DoD Component Inspectors General, staff assistance visits, surveys, and status reports.
</P>
<P>(9) Establish mechanisms for ensuring that victims are notified of and afforded the rights specified in the UCMJ, including the rights specified in Article 6b of the UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 806b) and R.C.M. 306.
</P>
<P>(10) Establish mechanisms for the enforcement of the rights specified in the UCMJ, including mechanisms for the application for such rights and for consideration and disposition of applications for such rights. At a minimum, such enforcement mechanisms will include the designation of an authority within each Military Service to receive and investigate complaints relating to the provision or violation of such rights and the establishment of disciplinary sanctions for responsible military and civilian personnel who wantonly fail to comply with the requirements relating to such rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.41.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Local responsible officials.</I> Local responsible officials:
</P>
<P>(1) Will coordinate to ensure that systems are in place at the installation level to provide information on available benefits and services, assist in obtaining those benefits and services, and provide other services required by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) May delegate their duties as appropriate, but retain responsibility to coordinate the delivery of required services.
</P>
<P>(3) May use an interdisciplinary approach involving the various service providers listed in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, to coordinate the delivery of information and services to be provided to victims and witnesses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comprehensive information and services to be provided to victims and witnesses</I>—(1) <I>Rights of crime victims.</I> Personnel directly engaged in the prevention, detection, investigation, and disposition of offenses, to include courts-martial, including law enforcement and legal personnel, commanders, trial counsel, and staff judge advocates, will ensure that victims are accorded their rights in accordance with Article 6b of UCMJ. A crime victim has the right to:
</P>
<P>(i) Be reasonably protected from the accused offender.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be provided with reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of:
</P>
<P>(A) A public hearing concerning the continuation of confinement before the trial of the accused.
</P>
<P>(B) A preliminary hearing pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ relating to the offense.
</P>
<P>(C) A court-martial relating to the offense.
</P>
<P>(D) A public proceeding of the Military Department Clemency and Parole Board hearing relating to the offense.
</P>
<P>(E) The release or escape of the accused, unless such notice may endanger the safety of any person.
</P>
<P>(iii) Be present at, and not be excluded from any public hearing or proceeding described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, unless the military judge or preliminary hearing officer of a hearing conducted pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ determines, after receiving clear and convincing evidence, that testimony by the victim would be materially altered if the victim observed that hearing or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iv) Be reasonably heard, personally or through counsel at:
</P>
<P>(A) A public hearing concerning the continuation of confinement before the court-martial of the accused.
</P>
<P>(B) Preliminary hearings conducted pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ and court-martial proceedings relating to Rules 412, 513, and 514 of the Military Rules of Evidence (M.R.E.) or regarding other rights provided by statute, regulation, or case law.
</P>
<P>(C) A public sentencing hearing relating to the offense.
</P>
<P>(D) A public Military Department Clemency and Parole Board hearing relating to the offense. A victim may make a personal appearance before the Military Department Clemency and Parole Board or submit an audio, video, or written statement.
</P>
<P>(v) Confer with the attorney for the U.S. Government in the case. This will include the reasonable right to confer with the attorney for the U.S. Government at any proceeding described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Crime victims who are eligible for legal assistance may consult with a military legal assistance attorney in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Victims of an alleged offense under Articles 120, 120a, 120b, or 120c or forcible sodomy under the UCMJ or attempts to commit such offenses under Article 80 of the UCMJ, who are eligible for legal assistance per Military Department or National Guard Bureau policies or in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044 or 1044e, may consult with a SVC/VLC in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Victims of these covered alleged offenses shall be informed by a sexual assault response coordinator (SARC), victim advocate, victim witness liaison, military criminal investigator, trial counsel, or other local responsible official that they have the right to consult with a SVC/VLC as soon as they seek assistance from the individual in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1565b, and as otherwise authorized by Military Department and National Guard Bureau policy.
</P>
<P>(C) All victims may also elect to seek the advice of a private attorney, at their own expense.
</P>
<P>(vi) Receive restitution as provided in accordance with State and Federal law.
</P>
<P>(vii) Proceedings free from unreasonable delay.
</P>
<P>(viii) Be treated with fairness and respect for his or her dignity and privacy.
</P>
<P>(ix) Express his or her views to the commander or convening authority as to disposition of the case.
</P>
<P>(x) Be prevented from, or charged for, receiving a medical forensic examination.
</P>
<P>(xi) Have a sexual assault evidence collection kit or its probative contents preserved, without charge.
</P>
<P>(xii) Be informed of any result of a sexual assault evidence collection kit, including a DNA profile match, toxicology report, or other information collected as part of a medical forensic examination, if such disclosure would not impede or compromise an ongoing investigation.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Be informed in writing of policies governing the collection and preservation of a sexual assault evidence collection kit.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Upon written request, receive written notification from the appropriate official with custody not later than 60 days before the date of the intended destruction or disposal.
</P>
<P>(xv) Upon written request, be granted further preservation of the kit or its probative contents.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Express a preference regarding whether the offense should be prosecuted by court-martial or in a civilian court with jurisdiction over the offense (for a victim of an alleged sex-related offense that occurs in the United States).
</P>
<P>(A) Victims expressing a preference for prosecution of the offense in a civilian court shall have the civilian authority with jurisdiction over the offense notified of the victim's preference for civilian prosecution by the convening authority.
</P>
<P>(B) The convening authority shall notify the victim of any decision by the civilian authority to prosecute or not prosecute the offense in a civilian court, if the convening authority learns of any decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial information and services.</I> (i) Immediately after identification of a crime victim or witness, the local responsible official, law enforcement officer, or criminal investigation officer will explain and provide information to each victim and witness, as appropriate, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The DD Form 2701, “Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2701.pdf</I>) or computer-generated equivalent will be used as a handout to convey basic information. Specific points of contact will be recorded on the appropriate form authorized for use by the particular Military Service.
</P>
<P>(B) Proper completion of this form serves as evidence that the local responsible official or designee, law enforcement officer, or criminal investigative officer notified the victim or witness of his or her rights, as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The date the form is given to the victim or witness shall be recorded by the delivering official. This serves as evidence the victim or witness was timely notified of his or her statutory rights.
</P>
<P>(ii) The local responsible official will explain the form to victims and witnesses at the earliest opportunity. This will include:
</P>
<P>(A) Information about available military and civilian emergency medical and social services, victim advocacy services for victims of domestic violence or sexual assault, and, when necessary, assistance in securing such services.
</P>
<P>(B) Information about restitution or other relief a victim may be entitled to, and the manner in which such relief may be obtained.
</P>
<P>(C) Information to victims of intra-familial abuse offenses on the availability of limited transitional compensation benefits and possible entitlement to some of the active duty Service member's retirement benefits pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1059 and 1408 and 32 CFR part 111.
</P>
<P>(D) Information about public and private programs available to provide counseling, treatment, and other support, including available compensation through Federal, State, and local agencies.
</P>
<P>(E) Information about the prohibition against intimidation and harassment of victims and witnesses, and arrangements for the victim or witness to receive reasonable protection from threat, harm, or intimidation from an accused offender and from people acting in concert with or under the control of the accused offender.
</P>
<P>(F) Information concerning military and civilian protective orders, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(G) Information about the military criminal justice process, the role of the victim or witness in the process, and how the victim or witness can obtain additional information concerning the process and the case in accordance with section 1704 of Public Law 113-66. This includes an explanation of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Victims' roles and rights during pretrial interviews with law enforcement, investigators, government counsel, and defense counsel and during preliminary hearings pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ, and section 1702 of Public Law 113-66.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Victims' rights when action is taken by the convening authority pursuant to Article 60 of the UCMJ, and during the post-trial/clemency phase of the process.
</P>
<P>(H) If necessary, assistance in contacting the people responsible for providing victim and witness services and relief.
</P>
<P>(I) If necessary, how to file a military whistleblower complaint with an Inspector General regarding suspected reprisal for making, preparing to make, or being perceived as making or preparing to make a protected communication in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1034 and DoD Directive 7050.06.
</P>
<P>(J) Information about the victim's right to seek the advice of an attorney with respect to his or her rights as a crime victim pursuant to Federal law and DoD policy. This includes the right of Service members and their dependents to consult a military legal assistance attorney in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, or a SVC/VLC in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information to be provided during investigation of a crime.</I> (i) If a victim or witness has not already received the DD Form 2701 from the local responsible official or designee, it will be provided by a law enforcement officer or investigator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Local responsible officials or law enforcement investigators and criminal investigators will inform victims and witnesses, as appropriate, of the status of the investigation of the crime, to the extent providing such information does not interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information and services to be provided concerning the prosecution of a crime.</I> (i) The DD Form 2702, “Court-Martial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2702.pdf</I>) will be used as a handout to convey basic information about the court-martial process. The date it is given to the victim or witness shall be recorded by the delivering official. If applicable, the following will be explained and provided by the U.S. Government attorney, or designee, to victims and witnesses:
</P>
<P>(A) Notification of crime victims' rights, to include the victim's right to express views as to disposition of the case to the responsible commander and convening authority.
</P>
<P>(B) Notification of the victim's right to seek the advice of an attorney with respect to his or her rights as a crime victim pursuant to Federal law and DoD policy. This includes the right of service members and their dependents to consult a military legal assistance attorney in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section or a SVC/VLC in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Consultation concerning the decisions to prefer or not prefer charges against the accused offender and the disposition of the offense if other than a trial by court-martial.
</P>
<P>(D) Consultation concerning the decision to refer or not to refer the charges against the accused offender to trial by court-martial and notification of the decision to pursue or not pursue court-martial charges against the accused offender.
</P>
<P>(E) Notification of the initial appearance of the accused offender before a reviewing officer or military judge at a public pretrial confinement hearing or at a preliminary hearing in accordance with Article 32 of the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(F) Notification of the release of the suspected offender from pretrial confinement.
</P>
<P>(G) Explanation of the court-martial process.
</P>
<P>(H) Before any court proceedings (as defined to include preliminary hearings conducted pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ, pretrial hearings conducted pursuant to Article 39(a) of the UCMJ, trial, and presentencing hearings), help with locating available services such as transportation, parking, child care, lodging, and courtroom translators or interpreters that may be necessary to allow the victim or witness to participate in court proceedings.
</P>
<P>(I) During the court proceedings, a private waiting area out of the sight and hearing of the accused and defense witnesses. In the case of proceedings conducted aboard ship or in a deployed environment, provide a private waiting area to the greatest extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(J) Notification of the scheduling, including changes and delays, of a preliminary hearing conducted pursuant to Article 32 of the UCMJ, and each court proceeding the victim is entitled to or required to attend will be made without delay. On request of a victim or witness whose absence from work or inability to pay an account is caused by the alleged crime or cooperation in the investigation or prosecution, the employer or creditor of the victim or witness will be informed of the reasons for the absence from work or inability to make timely payments on an account. This requirement does not create an independent entitlement to legal assistance or a legal defense against claims of indebtedness.
</P>
<P>(K) Notification of the recommendation of a preliminary hearing officer when an Article 32 preliminary hearing is held.
</P>
<P>(L) Consultation concerning any decision to dismiss charges or to enter into a pretrial agreement.
</P>
<P>(M) Notification of the disposition of the case, to include the acceptance of a plea of “guilty,” the rendering of a verdict, the withdrawal or dismissal of charges, or disposition other than court-martial, to specifically include non-judicial punishment under Article 15 of the UCMJ, administrative processing or separation, or other administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(N) Notification to victims of the opportunity to present to the court at sentencing, in compliance with applicable law and regulations, a statement of the impact of the crime on the victim, including financial, social, psychological, and physical harm suffered by the victim. The right to submit a victim impact statement is limited to the sentencing phase and does not extend to the providence (guilty plea) inquiry before findings.
</P>
<P>(O) Notification of the offender's sentence and general information regarding minimum release date, parole, clemency, and mandatory supervised release.
</P>
<P>(P) Notification of the opportunity to receive a copy of proceedings. The convening authority or subsequent responsible official must authorize release of a copy of the record of trial without cost to a victim of sexual assault as defined in R.C.M. 1104 of the MCM and Article 54(e) of the UCMJ. Victims of offenses other than sexual assault, and witnesses of any offenses, may also receive a copy of the record of trial, without cost, as determined by the Military Departments, which may be on a case-by-case basis, in categories of cases, or on the basis of particular criteria, for example, when it might lessen the physical, psychological, or financial hardships suffered as a result of a criminal act.
</P>
<P>(ii) After court proceedings, the local responsible official will take appropriate action to ensure that property of a victim or witness held as evidence is safeguarded and returned as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for information that is provided by law enforcement officials and U.S. Government counsel in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, requests for information relating to the investigation and prosecution of a crime (<I>e.g.,</I> investigative reports and related documents) from a victim or witness will be processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 286.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any consultation or notification required by paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section may be limited to avoid endangering the safety of a victim or witness, jeopardizing an ongoing investigation, disclosing classified or privileged information, or unduly delaying the disposition of an offense. Although the victim's views should be considered, this part is not intended to limit the responsibility or authority of the Military Service or the Defense Agency officials to act in the interest of good order and discipline.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information and services to be provided on conviction.</I> (i) Trial counsel will explain and provide services to victims and witnesses on the conviction of an offender in a court-martial. The DD Form 2703, “Post-Trial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime” (<I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2703.pdf</I>), will be used as a handout to convey basic information about the post-trial process.
</P>
<P>(ii) When appropriate, the following will be provided to victims and witnesses:
</P>
<P>(A) General information regarding the convening authority's action, the appellate process, the corrections process, work release, furlough, probation, parole, mandatory supervised release, or other forms of release from custody, and eligibility for each.
</P>
<P>(B) Specific information regarding the election to be notified of further actions in the case, to include the convening authority's action, hearings and decisions on appeal, changes in inmate status, and consideration for parole. The DD Form 2704, “Victim/Witness Certification and Election Concerning Prisoner Status” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2704.pdf</I>) will be explained and used for victims and appropriate witnesses to elect to be notified of these actions, hearings, decisions, and changes in the offender's status in confinement. The DD Form 2704-1, “Victim Election of Post-Trial Rights” (under development, will be available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/dd2500_2999/</I> once finalized) will be explained and used for victims to make elections about records of trial, submission of matters in clemency, and notifications of certain appellate proceedings.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For all cases resulting in a sentence to confinement, the DD Form 2704 will be completed and forwarded to the Service central repository, the gaining confinement facility, the local responsible official, and the victim or witness, if any, with appropriate redactions made by the delivering official.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Incomplete DD Forms 2704 received by the Service central repository must be accompanied by a signed memorandum detailing the reasons for the incomplete information, or they will be sent back to the responsible legal office for correction.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Do not allow an inmate access to DD Forms 2704 or attach a copy of the forms to any record to which the inmate has access. Doing so could endanger the victim or witness.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For all cases resulting in conviction but no sentence to confinement, the DD Form 2704 will be completed and forwarded to the Service central repository, the local responsible official, and the victim or witness, if any.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For all convictions with a qualifying victim, a DD Form 2704-1 will be completed for each victim and forwarded to the appropriate points of contact, as determined by the Military Department. This form may be included in the record of trial with appropriate redactions. If a qualifying victim personally signs and initials a declination to receive the record of trial or to submit matters in clemency, this form may satisfy the requirement for a written waiver. <I>See.</I> Rules for Courts-Martial 1103(g)(3)(C) and 1105A(f)(3).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The DD Forms 2704, 2704-1, and 2705, “Notification to Victim/Witness of Prisoner Status” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2705.pdf</I>), are exempt from release in accordance with 32 CFR part 286.
</P>
<P>(C) Specific information regarding the deadline and method for submitting a written statement to the convening authority for consideration when taking action on the case in accordance with Article 60 of the UCMJ and R.C.M. 1105A.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information and services to be provided on entry into confinement facilities.</I> (i) The victim and witness assistance coordinator at the military confinement facility will:
</P>
<P>(A) On entry of an offender into post-trial confinement, obtain the DD Form 2704 to determine victim or witness notification requirements. If the form is unavailable, ask the Service central repository whether any victim or witness has requested notification of changes in inmate status in the case.
</P>
<P>(B) When a victim or witness has requested notification of changes in inmate status on the DD Form 2704, and one of the events listed in paragraph (b)(6) of this section occurs, use the DD Form 2705, “Notification to Victim/Witness of Prisoner Status,” to notify the victim or witness.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date the DD Form 2705 is given to the victim or witness shall be recorded by the delivering official. This serves as evidence that the officer notified the victim or witness of his or her statutory rights.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Do not allow the inmate access to DD Form 2705 or attach a copy of the forms to any record to which the inmate has access. Doing so could endanger the victim or witness.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide the earliest possible notice of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The scheduling of a clemency or parole hearing for the inmate.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The results of the Service Clemency and Parole Board.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The transfer of the inmate from one facility to another.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The escape, immediately on escape, and subsequent return to custody, work release, furlough, or any other form of release from custody of the inmate.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The release of the inmate to supervision.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The death of the inmate, if the inmate dies while in custody or under supervision.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A change in the scheduled release date of more than 30 days from the last notification due to a disposition or disciplinary and adjustment board.
</P>
<P>(D) Make reasonable efforts to notify all victims and witnesses who have requested notification of changes in inmate status of any emergency or special temporary home release granted an inmate.
</P>
<P>(E) On transfer of an inmate to another military confinement facility, forward the DD Form 2704 to the gaining facility, with an information copy to the Service central repository.
</P>
<P>(ii) The status of victim and witness notification requests will be reported annually to the Service central repository.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Information and services to be provided on appeal.</I> (i) When an offender's case is docketed for review by a Court of Criminal Appeals, or is granted review by the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (C.A.A.F.) or by the U.S. Supreme Court, the U.S. Government appellate counsel or appropriate Military Service designee will ensure that all victims who have indicated a desire to be notified receive this information, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Notification of the scheduling, including changes and delays, of each public court proceeding that the victim is entitled to attend.
</P>
<P>(B) Notification of the decision of the court.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an offender's case is reviewed by the Office of the Judge Advocate General (TJAG) of the Military Department concerned, pursuant to Article 69 and Article 73 of the UCMJ, TJAG will ensure that all victims who have indicated a desire to be notified on DD Form 2704-1 receive notification of the outcome of the review.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Military Services may use the sample appellate notification letter found at Figure 1 of this section, or develop their own templates to keep victims informed of appellate court proceedings and decisions.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Information and services to be provided on consideration for parole or supervised release.</I> (i) Before the parole or supervised release of a prisoner, the military confinement facility staff will review the DD Form 2704 to ensure it has been properly completed. If there is a question concerning named persons or contact information, it will be immediately referred to the appropriate staff judge advocate for correction.
</P>
<P>(ii) When considering a prisoner for release on supervision, the military confinement facility commander will ensure that all victims and witnesses on the DD Form 2704 indicating a desire to be notified were given an opportunity to provide information to the Military Department Clemency and Parole Board in advance of its determination, as documented in the confinement file.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Reporting procedures.</I> (i) The DoD Component responsible official will submit an annual report using the DD Form 2706 to: Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Attention: Legal Policy Office, 4000 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000.
</P>
<P>(ii) The report will be submitted by March 15 for the preceding calendar year and will address the assistance provided to victims and witnesses of crime.
</P>
<P>(iii) The report will include:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of victims and witnesses who received a DD Form 2701 from law enforcement or criminal investigations personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) The number of victims and witnesses who received a DD Form 2702 from U.S. Government counsel, or designee.
</P>
<P>(C) The number of victims and witnesses who received a DD Form 2703 from U.S. Government counsel or designee.
</P>
<P>(D) The number of victims and witnesses who elected via the DD Form 2704 to be notified of changes in inmate status.
</P>
<P>(E) The number of victims who received a DD Form 2704-1 from U.S. Government counsel or designee.
</P>
<P>(F) The number of victims and witnesses who were notified of changes in inmate status by the confinement facility victim witness assistance coordinators via the DD Form 2705 or a computer-generated equivalent.
</P>
<P>(G) The cumulative number of inmates in each Military Service for whom victim witness notifications must be made by each Service's confinement facilities. These numbers are derived by totaling the number of inmates with victim or witness notification requirements at the beginning of the year, adding new inmates with the requirement, and then subtracting those confinees who were released, deceased, or transferred to another facility (<I>e.g.,</I> Federal, State, or sister Military Service) during the year.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Office of the USD(P&amp;R) will consolidate all reports submitted by each Military Service, and submit an annual report to the Bureau of Justice Statistics, and Office for Victims of Crime, Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special victim investigation and prosecution (SVIP) capability.</I> (1) In accordance with DTM 14-003, section 573 of Public Law 112-239, and DoD Instruction 5505.19, the Military Services will maintain a distinct, recognizable group of professionals to provide effective, timely, and responsive worldwide victim support, and a capability to support the investigation and prosecution of special victim offenses within the respective Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered special victim offenses include:
</P>
<P>(i) Unrestricted reports of adult sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unrestricted reports of domestic violence involving sexual assault and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Child abuse involving child sexual abuse and/or aggravated assault with grievous bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(3) Military Service SVIP programs will include, at a minimum, specially trained and selected:
</P>
<P>(i) Investigators from within MCIOs of the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Judge advocates to serve as prosecutors.
</P>
<P>(iii) VWAP personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) Paralegal or administrative legal support personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Each Military Service will maintain standards for the selection, training, and certification of personnel assigned to provide this capability. At a minimum, SVIP training must:
</P>
<P>(i) Focus on the unique dynamics of sexual assault, aggravated domestic violence, and child abuse cases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promote methods of interacting with and supporting special victims to ensure their rights are understood and respected.
</P>
<P>(iii) Focus on building advanced litigation, case management, and technical skills.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that all SVIP legal personnel understand the impact of trauma and how this affects an individual's behavior and the memory of a traumatic incident when interacting with a victim.
</P>
<P>(v) Train SVIP personnel to identify any safety concerns and specific needs of victims.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ensure SVIP personnel understand when specially trained pediatric forensic interviewers are required to support the investigation and prosecution of complex child abuse and child sexual abuse cases.
</P>
<P>(5) Each Military Service will maintain and periodically review measures of performance and effectiveness to objectively assess Service programs, policies, training, and services. At a minimum, these Service-level review measures will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Percentage of all preferred court-martial cases that involve special victim offenses in each fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage of special victim offense courts-martial tried by, or with the direct advice and assistance of, a specially trained prosecutor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance with DoD VWAP informational, notification, and reporting requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (9) of this section, to ensure victims are consulted with and regularly updated by special victim capability legal personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) Percentage of specially trained prosecutors and other legal support personnel having received additional and advanced training in topical areas.
</P>
<P>(6) The Military Services will also consider victim feedback on effectiveness of special victim prosecution and legal support services and recommendations for possible improvements, as provided in DoD survivor experience surveys or other available feedback mechanisms. This information will be used by the Military Services to gain a greater understanding of the reasons why a victim elected to participate or declined to participate at trial, and whether SVIP, VWAP, and other legal support services had any positive impact on this decision.
</P>
<P>(7) Designated SVIP capability personnel will collaborate with local DoD SARCs, sexual assault prevention and response victim advocates, Family Advocacy Program (FAP) managers, and domestic abuse victim advocates during all stages of the military justice process to ensure an integrated capability.
</P>
<P>(8) To support this capability, active liaisons shall be established at the installation level with these organizations and key individuals:
</P>
<P>(i) Local military and civilian law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) SARCs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Victim advocates.
</P>
<P>(iv) FAP managers.
</P>
<P>(v) Chaplains.
</P>
<P>(vi) Sexual assault forensic examiners and other medical and mental health care providers.
</P>
<P>(vii) Unit commanding officers.
</P>
<P>(viii) Other persons designated by the Secretaries of the Military Departments necessary to support special victims.
</P>
<P>(9) In cases of adult sexual assault the staff judge advocate or designated representative of the responsible legal office will participate in case management group meetings, in accordance with 32 CFR part 105, on a monthly basis to review individual cases. Cases involving victims who are assaulted by a spouse or intimate partner will be reviewed by FAP.
</P>
<P>(10) The staff judge advocate or designated representative of the responsible legal office will participate in FAP case review or incident determination meetings of domestic violence, spouse or intimate partner sexual assault, and child abuse cases in accordance with DoD Instruction 6400.06, “Domestic Abuse Involving DoD Military and Certain Affiliated Personnel” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/640006p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(11) In the case of a victim who is under 18 years of age and not a member of the Military Services, or who is incompetent, incapacitated, or deceased, the legal guardians of the victim or the representatives of the victim's estate, family members, or any other person designated as suitable by proper authority, may assume the victim's legal rights. Under no circumstances will an individual designated as representative have been accused of any crime against the victim.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretaries of the Military Departments may publish additional guidance or regulation regarding who, before referral, may designate an appropriate representative, such as the convening authority or other qualified local responsible official.
</P>
<P>(ii) In making a decision to appoint a representative, the designating authority should consider:
</P>
<P>(A) The age and maturity, relationship to the victim.
</P>
<P>(B) The physical proximity to the victim.
</P>
<P>(C) The costs incurred in effecting the appointment.
</P>
<P>(D) The willingness of the proposed designee to serve in such a role.
</P>
<P>(E) The previous appointment of a guardian by a court of competent jurisdiction or appropriate designating authority.
</P>
<P>(F) The preference of the victim, if known.
</P>
<P>(G) Any potential delay in any proceeding that may be caused by a specific appointment.
</P>
<P>(H) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative, legal guardian, or equivalent of a victim who is eligible, or in the case of a deceased victim, was eligible at the time of death for legal assistance provided by SVC/VLC, may elect legal representation for a SVC/VLC on behalf of the victim.
</P>
<P>(iv) A military judge's responsibilities for designating a representative are listed in R.C.M. 801(a)(6).
</P>
<P>(v) In the absence of an appointment of a legal representative, the victim may exercise his/her own legal and regulatory rights, as described herein. Where an appointment is required or discretionary, nothing in this policy precludes a victim from being appointed as his/her own legal representative, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Legal assistance for crime victims</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> Active and retired Service members and their dependents are eligible to receive legal assistance pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1044 and 1565b and Under Secretary for Defense for Personnel and Readiness Memorandum, “Legal Assistance for Sexual Assault Victims,” October 17, 2011.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information and services.</I> Legal assistance services for crime victims will include confidential advice and assistance for crime victims to address:
</P>
<P>(i) Rights and benefits afforded to the victim under law and DoD policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Role of the VWAP coordinator or liaison.
</P>
<P>(iii) Role of the victim advocate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Privileges existing between the victim and victim advocate.
</P>
<P>(v) Differences between restricted and unrestricted reporting, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(vi) Overview of the military justice system.
</P>
<P>(vii) Services available from appropriate agencies for emotional and mental health counseling and other medical services.
</P>
<P>(viii) The right to an expedited transfer, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ix) Availability of and protections offered by civilian and military protective orders.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special Victims' Counsel/Victims' Legal Counsel programs</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044, 1044e, and 1565b, section 1716 of Public Law 113-66, and section 533 of the Public Law 113-291, the Military Services provide legal counsel, known as SVC/VLC, to assist victims of alleged sex-related offenses including Articles 120, 120a, 120b, and 120c, forcible sodomy under Article 125 (before January 1, 2019) of the UCMJ, attempts to commit such offenses under Article 80 of the UCMJ, or other crimes under the UCMJ as authorized by the Service, who are eligible for legal assistance pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1044e and as further prescribed by the Military Departments and National Guard Bureau policies. Individuals eligible for SVC/VLC representation include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals entitled to military legal assistance under 10 U.S.C. 1044 and 1044e, and as further prescribed by the Military Departments and National Guard Bureau policies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Members of a reserve component of the armed forces, in accordance with section 533 of Public Law 113-291, and as further prescribed by the Military Departments and National Guard Bureau policies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Civilian employees of the Department of Defense not otherwise entitled to legal assistance, as provided for in section 532 of Public Law 114-92.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attorney-client information and services.</I> The types of legal services provided by SVC/VLC programs in each Military Service will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Legal consultation regarding the VWAP, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The rights and benefits afforded the victim.
</P>
<P>(B) The role of the VWAP liaison.
</P>
<P>(C) The nature of communication made to the VWAP liaison in comparison to communication made to a SVC/VLC or a legal assistance attorney pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1044.
</P>
<P>(ii) Legal consultation regarding the responsibilities and support provided to the victim by the SARC, a unit or installation sexual assault victim advocate, or domestic abuse advocate, to include any privileges that may exist regarding communications between those persons and the victim.
</P>
<P>(iii) Legal consultation regarding the potential for civil litigation against other parties (other than the DoD).
</P>
<P>(iv) Legal consultation regarding the military justice system, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The roles and responsibilities of the military judge, trial counsel, the defense counsel, and military criminal investigators.
</P>
<P>(B) Any proceedings of the military justice process in which the victim may observe or participate in person or through his or her SVC/VLC.
</P>
<P>(v) Accompanying or representing the victim at any proceedings when necessary and appropriate, including interviews, in connection with the reporting, investigation, and prosecution of the alleged sex-related offense.
</P>
<P>(vi) Legal consultation regarding eligibility and requirements for services available from appropriate agencies or offices for emotional and mental health counseling and other medical services.
</P>
<P>(vii) Legal representation or consultation and assistance:
</P>
<P>(A) In personal civil legal matters in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044.
</P>
<P>(B) In any proceedings of the military justice process in which a victim can participate as a witness or other party.
</P>
<P>(C) In understanding the availability of, and obtaining any protections offered by, civilian and military protecting or restraining orders.
</P>
<P>(D) In understanding the eligibility and requirements for, and obtaining, any available military and veteran benefits, such as transitional compensation benefits found in 10 U.S.C. 1059, 32 CFR part 111, “Transitional Compensation for Abused Dependents,” and other State and Federal victims' compensation programs.
</P>
<P>(E) The victim's rights and options at trial, to include the option to state a preference to decline participation or withdraw cooperation as a witness and the potential consequences of doing so.
</P>
<P>(viii) Legal representation or consultation regarding the potential criminal liability of the victim stemming from or in relation to the circumstances surrounding the alleged sex-related offense (collateral misconduct), regardless of whether the report of that offense is restricted or unrestricted in accordance with 32 CFR part 105. Victims may also be referred to the appropriate defense services organization for consultation on the potential criminal implications of collateral misconduct.
</P>
<P>(ix) Other legal assistance as the Secretary of Defense or the Secretaries of the Military Departments may authorize.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28ap20.021.gif"/>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="117" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 117—NATIONAL INDUSTRIAL SECURITY PROGRAM OPERATING MANUAL (NISPOM)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>32 CFR part 2004; E.O. 10865; E.O. 12333; E.O. 12829; E.O. 12866; E.O. 12968; E.O. 13526; E.O. 13563; E.O. 13587; E.O. 13691; Public Law 108-458; Title 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>; Title 50 U.S.C. Chapter 44; Title 50 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 83312, Dec. 21, 2020, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 117.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This rule implements policy, assigns responsibilities, establishes requirements, and provides procedures, consistent with E.O. 12829, “National Industrial Security Program”; E.O. 10865, “Safeguarding Classified Information within Industry”; 32 CFR part 2004; and DoD Instruction (DoDI) 5220.22, “National Industrial Security Program (NISP)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/522022p.pdf?ver=2018-05-01-073158-710</I>) for the protection of classified information that is disclosed to, or developed by contractors of the U.S. Government (USG) (hereinafter referred to in this rule as contractors).
</P>
<P>(b) This rule, also in accordance with E.O. 12829, E.O. 13587,”Structural Reforms To Improve the Security of Classified Networks and the Responsible Sharing and Safeguarding of Classified Information”; E.O. 13691, “Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing”; E.O. 12333, “United States Intelligence Activities”; 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as and referred to in this rule as the “AEA of 1954,” as amended); ” 50 U.S.C. Ch. 44 (also known as the “National Security Act of 1947,” as amended); 50 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as the “Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949,” as amended); Public Law 108-458 (also known as the “Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004”); and 32 CFR part 2004:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes industrial security procedures and practices, under E.O. 12829 or successor orders, to safeguard USG classified information that is developed by or disclosed to contractors of the USG.
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribes requirements, restrictions, and other safeguards to prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information and protect special classes of classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) Prescribes that contractors will implement the provisions of this part no later than 6 months from February 24, 2021, with the exception of requirements for reporting foreign travel to the Department of Defense prescribed in SEAD 3 and implemented through this rule. Contractors under the security cognizance of the Department of Defense will begin reporting foreign travel to the Department of Defense no later than 18 months from February 24, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83312, Dec. 21, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 46598, Aug. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This rule applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this rule as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(2) All executive branch departments and agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) All industrial, educational, commercial, or other non-USG entities granted access to classified information by the USG executive branch departments and agencies or by foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(4) The release of classified information by the USG to contractors, who are required to safeguard classified information released during all phases of the contracting, agreement (including cooperative research and development agreements), licensing, and grant processes, <I>i.e.,</I> the preparation and submission of bids and proposals, negotiation, award, performance, and termination. Also, it applies in situations involving a contract, agreement, license, or grant when actual knowledge of classified information is not required, but reasonable physical security measures cannot be employed to prevent aural or visual access to classified information, because there is the ability and opportunity to gain knowledge of classified information. It also applies to any other situation in which classified information or FGI that is furnished to a contractor requires protection in the interest of national security, but which is not released under a contract, license, certificate or grant.
</P>
<P>(b) This rule does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit in any manner the authority of USG executive branch departments and agencies to grant access to classified information under the cognizance of their department or agency to any individual designated by them. The granting of such access is outside the scope of the NISP and is accomplished pursuant to E.O. 12968, E.O. 13526, E.O. 13691, the AEA, and applicable disclosure policies.
</P>
<P>(2) Apply to criminal proceedings in the courts or authorize contractors or their employees to disclose classified information in connection with any criminal proceedings. Defendants and their representative in criminal proceedings in U.S. District Courts, Courts of Appeal, and the U.S. Supreme Court may gain access to classified information in accordance with 18 U.S.C. Appendix 3, Section 1, also known as and referred to in this rule as the “Classified Information Procedures Act,” as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.3   Acronyms and Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acronyms.</I> Unless otherwise noted, these acronyms and their terms are for the purposes of this rule.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>ACCM</I> alternative compensatory control measures
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>AEA</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>AUS</I> Australia
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CAGE</I> commercial and government entity
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CCIPP</I> classified critical infrastructure protection program
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CDC</I> cleared defense contractor
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CFIUS</I> Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CFR</I> Code of Federal Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CI</I> Counterintelligence
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CIA</I> Central Intelligence Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CNSS</I> Committee on National Security Systems
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CNWDI</I> critical nuclear weapons design information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>COMSEC</I> communications security
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>COR</I> central office of record
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CSA</I> cognizant security agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CSO</I> cognizant security office
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CUSR</I> Central United States Registry
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DCSA</I> Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DD</I> Department of Defense (forms only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DDTC</I> Directorate of Defense Trade Controls
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DGR</I> designated government representative
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DHS</I> Department of Homeland Security
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DNI</I> Director of National Intelligence
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DoD</I> Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DoDD</I> Department of Defense Directive
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DoDI</I> Department of Defense Instruction
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DoDM</I> Department of Defense Manual
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>DOE</I> Department of Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ECP</I> electronic communications plan
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>E.O.</I> Executive order
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FBI</I> Federal Bureau of Investigation
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FCL</I> facility (security) clearance
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FGI</I> foreign government information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FOCI</I> foreign ownership, control, or influence
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FRD</I> Formerly Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FSCC</I> Facility Security Clearance Certificate (NATO)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>FSO</I> facility security officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>GCA</I> government contracting activity
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>GCMS</I> government contractor monitoring station
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>GSA</I> General Services Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>GSC</I> government security committee
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>IDE</I> intrusion detection equipment
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>IDS</I> intrusion detection system
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>IFB</I> invitation for bid
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ISOO</I> Information Security Oversight Office
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ISSM</I> information system security manager
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ISSO</I> information systems security officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ITAR</I> International Traffic in Arms Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ITPSO</I> insider threat program senior official
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>KMP</I> key management personnel
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>LAA</I> limited access authorization
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>MFO</I> multiple facility organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NATO</I> North Atlantic Treaty Organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NDA</I> nondisclosure agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NIAG</I> NATO Industrial Advisory Group
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NID</I> national interest determination
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NISP</I> National Industrial Security Program
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NISPOM</I> National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NIST</I> National Institute for Standards and Technology
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NNPI</I> Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NNSA</I> National Nuclear Security Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NPLO</I> NATO Production Logistics Organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NRC</I> Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NRTL</I> nationally recognized testing laboratory
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NSA</I> National Security Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NSI</I> national security information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NTIB</I> National Technology and Industrial Base
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>OCA</I> original classification authority
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>OMB</I> Office of Management and Budget
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>PA</I> proxy agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>PCL</I> personnel (security) clearance
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>RD</I> Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>RFP</I> request for proposal
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>RFQ</I> request for quotation
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SAP</I> special access program
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SCA</I> security control agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SCI</I> sensitive compartmented information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SD</I> Secretary of Defense (forms only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SEAD</I> Security Executive Agent directive
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SF</I> standard form
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SMO</I> senior management official
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SSA</I> special security agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>SSP</I> systems security plan
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>TCP</I> technology control plan
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>TFNI</I> Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>TP</I> transportation plan
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>UK</I> United Kingdom
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>UL</I> Underwriters' Laboratories
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>U.S.C.</I> United States Code
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>USD (I&amp;S)</I> Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence and Security
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>USG</I> United States Government
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>USML</I> United States Munitions List
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>VAL</I> visit authorization letter
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>VT</I> voting trust</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this rule.
</P>
<P><I>Access</I> means the ability and opportunity to gain knowledge of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Access Permittee</I> means the holder of an Access Permit issued pursuant to the regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 725, “Permits For Access to Restricted Data.”
</P>
<P><I>ACCM</I> are security measures used by USG agencies to safeguard classified intelligence or operations when normal measures are insufficient to achieve strict need-to-know controls and where SAP controls are not required.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse information</I> means any information that adversely reflects on the integrity or character of a cleared employee, that suggests that his or her ability to safeguard classified information may be impaired, that his or her access to classified information clearly may not be in the interest of national security, or that the individual constitutes an insider threat.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means each entity that directly or indirectly controls, is directly or indirectly controlled by, or is under common control with, the ultimate parent entity.
</P>
<P><I>Agency(ies)</I> means any “Executive agency” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any “Military department” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the executive branch that releases classified information to private sector entities. This includes component agencies under another agency or under a cross-agency oversight office (such as ODNI with CIA), which are also agencies for purposes of this rule.
</P>
<P><I>Alarm service company</I> means an entity or branch office from which all of the installation, service, and maintenance of alarm systems are provided, and the monitoring and investigation of such systems are either provided by its own personnel or with personnel assigned by this location.
</P>
<P><I>Alarm system description form</I> means a form describing an alarm system and monitoring information.
</P>
<P><I>Approved security container</I> means a GSA approved security container originally procured through the Federal Supply system. The security containers bear the GSA Approval label on the front face of the container, which identifies them as meeting the testing requirements of the assigned federal specification and having been maintained according to Federal Standard 809.
</P>
<P><I>Approved vault</I> means a vault built to Federal Standard 832 and approved by the CSA.
</P>
<P><I>AUS community</I> consists of the Government of Australia entities and Australian non-governmental facilities identified on the DDTC website (<I>https://pmddtc.state.gov/</I>) at the time of export or transfer.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means a person who has a favorable determination of eligibility for access to classified information, has signed an approved nondisclosure agreement, and has a need-to-know.
</P>
<P><I>Branch office</I> means an office of an entity which is located somewhere other than the entity's main office location. A branch office is simply another location of the same legal business entity, and is still involved in the business activities of the entity.
</P>
<P><I>CCIPP</I> means security sharing of classified information under a designated critical infrastructure protection program with such authorized individuals and organizations as determined by the Secretary of Homeland Security.
</P>
<P><I>CDC</I> means a subset of contractors cleared under the NISP who have classified contracts with the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means comprehensive evaluation of an information system component that establishes the extent to which a particular design and implementation meets a set of specified security requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Classification guide</I> means a document issued by an authorized original classifier that identifies the elements of information regarding a specific subject that must be classified and prescribes the level and duration of classification and appropriate declassification instructions.
</P>
<P><I>Classified contract</I> means any contract, license, agreement, or grant requiring access to classified information by a contractor and its employees for performance. A contract is referred to in this rule as a “classified contract” even when the contract document and the contract provisions are not classified. The requirements prescribed for a “classified contract” also are applicable to all phases of precontract, license or grant activity, including solicitations (bids, quotations, and proposals), precontract negotiations, post-contract activity, or other government contracting activity (GCA) programs or projects which require access to classified information by a contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Classified covered information system</I> means an information system that is owned or operated by or for a cleared defense contractor and that processes, stores, or transmits information created by or for the DoD with respect to which such contractor is required to apply enhanced protection (<I>e.g.,</I> classified information). A classified covered information system is a type of covered network consistent with the requirements of Section 941 of Public Law 112-239 and 10 U.S.C. 391.
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means information that has been determined, pursuant to E.O. 13526, or any predecessor or successor order, and the AEA of 1954, as amended, to require protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security and which has been so designated. The term includes NSI, RD, and FRD.
</P>
<P><I>Classified meetings</I> means a conference, seminar, symposium, exhibit, convention, training course, or other such gathering during which classified information is disclosed.
</P>
<P><I>Classified visit</I> means a visit during which a visitor will require, or is expected to require, access to classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Classifier</I> means any person who makes a classification determination and applies a classification category to information or material. The determination may be an original classification action or it may be a derivative classification action. Contractors make derivative classification determinations based on classified source material, a security classification guide, or a contract security classification specification, or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared commercial carrier</I> means a carrier that is authorized by law, regulatory body, or regulation to transport SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL material and has been granted a SECRET facility clearance in accordance with the NISP.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared employees</I> means all employees of industrial or commercial contractors, licensees, certificate holders, or grantees of an agency, as well as all employees of subcontractors and personal services contractor personnel, and who are granted favorable eligibility determinations for access to classified information by a CSA or are being processed for eligibility determinations for access to classified information by a CSA. A contractor may give an employee access to classified information in accordance with the provisions of § 117.10(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>Closed area</I> means an area that meets the requirements of this rule for safeguarding classified material that, because of its size, nature, or operational necessity, cannot be adequately protected by the normal safeguards or stored during nonworking hours in approved containers.
</P>
<P><I>CNWDI</I> means a DoD category of TOP SECRET RD or SECRET RD information that reveals the theory of operation or design of the components of a thermonuclear or fission bomb, warhead, demolition munition, or test device. Specifically excluded is information concerning arming, fusing, and firing systems; limited life components; and total contained quantities of fissionable, fusionable, and high explosive materials by type. Among these excluded items are the components that DoD personnel set, maintain, operate, test or replace.
</P>
<P><I>Compromise</I> means an unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>COMSEC</I> means the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from USG telecommunications relating to national security and to ensure the authenticity of such communications.
</P>
<P><I>CONFIDENTIAL</I> means the classification level applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security that the original classification authority (OCA) is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P><I>Consignee</I> means a person, firm, or Government (<I>i.e.,</I> USG or foreign government) activity named as the receiver of a shipment; one to whom a shipment is consigned.
</P>
<P><I>Consignor</I> means a person, firm, or Government (<I>i.e.,</I> USG or foreign government) activity by which articles are shipped. The consignor is usually the shipper.
</P>
<P><I>Constant surveillance service</I> means a transportation protective service provided by a commercial carrier qualified by the Surface Deployment and Distribution Command to transport CONFIDENTIAL shipments. The service requires constant surveillance of the shipment at all times by a qualified carrier representative; however, an FCL is not required for the carrier. The carrier providing the service must maintain a signature and tally record for the shipment.
</P>
<P><I>Consultant</I> means an individual under contract, and compensated directly, to provide professional or technical assistance to a contractor in a capacity requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous evaluation</I> as defined in SEAD 6 is a personnel security investigative process to review the background of a covered individual who has been determined to be eligible for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position at any time during the period of eligibility. Continuous evaluation leverages a set of automated records checks and business rules, to assist in the ongoing assessment of an individual's continued eligibility. It supplements, but does not replace, the established personnel security program for scheduled periodic reinvestigations of individuals for continuing eligibility.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous monitoring program</I> means a system that facilitates ongoing awareness of threats, vulnerabilities, and information security to support organizational risk management decisions.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer</I> means a USG official who, in accordance with departmental or agency procedures, has the authority to enter into and administer contracts, licenses or grants and make determinations and findings with respect thereto, or any part of such authority. The term also includes the designated representative of the contracting officer acting within the limits of his or her authority.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any industrial, educational, commercial, or other entity that has been granted an entity eligibility determination by a CSA. This term also includes licensees, grantees, or certificate holders of the USG with an entity eligibility determination granted by a CSA. As used in this rule, “contractor” does not refer to contractor employees or other personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Cooperative agreement</I> means a legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition of “grant” in this subpart), except that substantial involvement is expected between USG and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the cooperative agreement. The term does not include “cooperative research and development agreements” as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a.
</P>
<P><I>Cooperative research and development agreement</I> means any agreement between one or more Federal laboratories and one or more non-Federal parties under which the Government, through its laboratories, provides personnel, services, facilities, equipment, intellectual property, or other resources with or without reimbursement (but not funds to non-Federal parties) and the non-Federal parties provide funds, personnel, services, facilities, equipment, intellectual property, or other resources toward the conduct of specified research or development efforts which are consistent with the missions of the laboratory; except that such term does not include a procurement contract or cooperative agreement as those terms are used in sections 6303, 6304, and 6305 of title 31.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate family</I> means an entity, its parents, subsidiaries, divisions, and branch offices.
</P>
<P><I>Counterintelligence</I> means information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorist activities, but not including personnel, physical, document or communications security programs.
</P>
<P><I>Courier</I> means a cleared employee, designated by the contractor, whose principal duty is to transmit classified material to its destination, ensuring that the classified material remains under their constant and continuous protection and that they make direct point-to-point delivery.
</P>
<P><I>CRYPTO</I> means the marking or designator that identifies unencrypted COMSEC keying material used to secure or authenticate telecommunications carrying classified or sensitive USG or USG-derived information. This includes non-split keying material used to encrypt or decrypt COMSEC critical software and software based algorithms.
</P>
<P><I>CSA</I> means an agency designated as having NISP implementation and security responsibilities for its own agencies (including component agencies) and any entities and non-CSA agencies under its cognizance. The CSAs are: DoD; DOE; NRC; ODNI; and DHS.
</P>
<P><I>CSO</I> means an organizational unit to which the head of a CSA delegates authority to administer industrial security services on behalf of the CSA.
</P>
<P><I>CUI</I> means information the USG creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the USG, that a law, regulation, or USG-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls. However, CUI does not include classified information or information a non-executive branch entity possesses and maintains in its own systems that did not come from, or was not created or possessed by or for, an executive branch agency or an entity acting for an agency.
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means an individual who has possession of, or is otherwise charged with, the responsibility for safeguarding classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Cybersecurity</I> means prevention of damage to, protection of, and restoration of computers, electronic communications systems, electronic communications services, wire communication, and electronic communication, including information contained therein, to ensure its availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation.
</P>
<P><I>Cyber incident</I> means actions taken through the use of computer networks that result in an actual or potentially adverse effect on an information system or the information residing therein.
</P>
<P><I>Declassification</I> means a date or event which coincides with the lapse of the information's national security sensitivity, as determined by the OCA. Declassification occurs when the OCA has determined that the classified information no longer requires, in the interest of national security, any degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure, and the information has had its classification designation removed or cancelled.
</P>
<P><I>Defense articles</I> means those articles, services, and related technical data, including software, in tangible or intangible form, which are listed on the United States Munitions List (USML) of the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR), as modified or amended. Defense articles exempt from the scope of ITAR section 126.17 are identified in Supplement No. 1 to Part 126 of the ITAR.
</P>
<P><I>Defense services</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Furnishing assistance (including training) to foreign persons, whether in the United States or abroad, in the design, development, engineering, manufacture, production, assembly, testing, repair, maintenance, modification, operation, demilitarization, destruction, processing or use of defense articles;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnishing to foreign persons any controlled technical data, whether in the United States or abroad; or
</P>
<P>(3) Providing military training of foreign units and forces, regular and irregular, including formal or informal instruction of foreign persons in the United States or abroad or by correspondence courses, technical, educational, or information publications and media of all kinds, training aid, orientation, training exercise, and military advice.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative classification</I> means the incorporating, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in new form information that is already classified, and marking the newly developed material consistent with the classification markings that apply to the source information. Derivative classification includes classifying information based on classification guidance. Duplicating or reproducing existing classified information is not derivative classification.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means any recorded information, regardless of the nature of the medium, or the method or circumstances of recording.
</P>
<P><I>Downgrade</I> means a determination by a declassification authority that information classified and safeguarded at a specified level will be classified and safeguarded at a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Embedded system</I> means an information system that performs or controls a function, either in whole or in part, as an integral element of a larger system or subsystem, such as, ground support equipment, flight simulators, engine test stands, or fire control systems.
</P>
<P><I>Empowered official</I> is defined in 22 CFR part 120.
</P>
<P><I>Entity</I> is a generic and comprehensive term which may include sole proprietorships, partnerships, corporations, limited liability companies, societies, associations, institutions, contractors, licensees, grantees, certificate holders, and other organizations usually established and operating to carry out a commercial, industrial, educational, or other legitimate business, enterprise, or undertaking, or parts of these organizations. It may reference an entire organization, a prime contractor, parent organization, a branch or division, another type of sub-element, a sub-contractor, subsidiary, or other subordinate or connected entity (referred to as “sub-entities” when necessary to distinguish such entities from prime or parent entities). It may also reference a specific location or facility, or the headquarters or official business location of the organization, depending upon the organization's business structure, the access needs involved, and the responsible CSA's procedures. The term “entity” as used in this rule refers to the particular entity to which an agency might release, or is releasing, classified information, whether that entity is a parent or subordinate organization. The term “entity” in this rule includes contractors.
</P>
<P><I>Entity eligibility determination</I> means an assessment by the CSA as to whether an entity is eligible for access to classified information of a certain level (and all lower levels). Entity eligibility determinations may be broad or limited to specific contracts, sponsoring agencies, or circumstances. A favorable entity eligibility determination results in eligibility to access classified information under the cognizance of the responsible CSA to the level approved. When the entity would be accessing categories of information such as RD or SCI for which the CSA for that information has set additional requirements, CSAs must also assess whether the entity is eligible for access to that category of information. Some CSAs refer to their favorable entity eligibility determinations as FCLs. However, a favorable entity eligibility determination for the DHS CCIPP is not equivalent to an FCL and does not meet the requirements for FCL reciprocity. A favorable entity eligibility determination does not convey authority to store classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Escort</I> means a cleared person, designated by the contractor, who accompanies a shipment of classified material to its destination. The classified material does not remain in the personal possession of the escort but the conveyance in which the material is transported remains under the constant observation and control of the escort.
</P>
<P><I>Extent of protection</I> means the designation (such as “Complete”) used to describe the degree of alarm protection installed in an alarmed area.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a plant, laboratory, office, college, university, or commercial structure with associated warehouses, storage areas, utilities, and components, that, when related by function and location, form an operating entity.
</P>
<P><I>FCL</I> means an administrative determination that, from a security viewpoint, an entity is eligible for access to classified information of a certain level (and all lower levels) (<I>e.g.,</I> a type of favorable entity eligibility determination used by some CSAs). An entity eligibility determination for the DHS CCIPP is not the equivalent of an FCL and does not meet the requirements for FCL reciprocity.
</P>
<P><I>FGI</I> means information that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided to the United States by a foreign government or governments, an international organization of governments, or any element thereof with the expectation, expressed or implied, that the information, the source of the information, or both, are to be held in confidence; or
</P>
<P>(2) Produced by the United States pursuant to, or as a result of, a joint arrangement with a foreign government or governments, an international organization of governments, or any element thereof, requiring that the information, the arrangement, or both are to be held in confidence.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign interest</I> means any foreign government, agency of a foreign government, or representative of a foreign government; any form of business enterprise or legal entity organized, chartered or incorporated under the laws of any country other than the United States or its territories, and any person who is not a citizen or national of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign national</I> means any person who is not a citizen or national of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign person</I> is defined in 31 CFR 800.224 for CFIUS purposes.
</P>
<P><I>FRD</I> means classified information removed from the Restricted Data category upon a joint determination by the DOE and DoD that such information relates primarily to the military utilization of atomic weapons and that such information can be adequately safeguarded as classified defense information.
</P>
<P><I>Freight forwarder (transportation agent)</I> means any agent or facility designated to receive, process, and transship U.S. material to foreign recipients. In the context of this rule, it means an agent or facility cleared specifically to perform these functions for the transfer of U.S. classified material to foreign recipients.
</P>
<P><I>GCA</I> means an element of an agency that the agency head has designated and delegated broad authority regarding acquisition functions. A foreign government may also be a GCA.
</P>
<P><I>Governing board</I> means an entity's board of directors, board of managers, board of trustees, or equivalent governing body.
</P>
<P><I>Grant</I> means a legal instrument which, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship: (a) Of which the principal purpose is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the USG's direct benefit or use; or, (b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between DoD and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. Throughout this rule, the term grant will include both the grant and cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means the entity that receives a grant or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Hand carrier</I> means a cleared employee, designated by the contractor, who occasionally hand carries classified material to its destination in connection with a classified visit or meeting. The classified material remains in the personal possession of the hand carrier except for authorized overnight storage.
</P>
<P><I>Home office</I> means the headquarters of a multiple facility entity.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial security</I> means that portion of information security concerned with the protection of classified information in the custody of U.S. industry.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P><I>Information security</I> means the system of policies, procedures, and requirements established pursuant to executive order, statute, or regulation to protect information that, if subjected to unauthorized disclosure, could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security. The term also applies to policies, procedures, and requirements established to protect unclassified information that may be withheld from release to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Information system</I> means an assembly of computer hardware, software, and firmware configured for the purpose of automating the functions of calculating, computing, sequencing, storing, retrieving, displaying, communicating, or otherwise manipulating data, information and textual material.
</P>
<P><I>Insider</I> means cleared contractor personnel with authorized access to any USG or contractor resource, including personnel, facilities, information, equipment, networks, and systems.
</P>
<P><I>Insider threat</I> means the likelihood, risk, or potential that an insider will use his or her authorized access, wittingly or unwittingly, to do harm to the national security of the United States. Insider threats may include harm to contractor or program information, to the extent that the information impacts the contractor or agency's obligations to protect classified NSI.
</P>
<P><I>Joint venture</I> means an association of two or more persons or entities engaged in a single defined project with all parties contributing assets and efforts, and sharing in the management, profits and losses, in accordance with the terms of an agreement among the parties.
</P>
<P><I>KMP</I> means an entity's senior management official (SMO), facility security officer (FSO), insider threat program senior official (ITPSO), and all other entity officials who either hold majority interest or stock in, or have direct or indirect authority to influence or decide issues affecting the management or operations of, the entity or classified contract performance.
</P>
<P><I>L access authorization</I> means an access determination that is granted by DOE or NRC based on a Tier 3 or successor background investigation as set forth in applicable national-level requirements and DOE directives. Within DOE and NRC, an “L” access authorization permits an individual who has an official “need to know” to access Confidential Restricted Data, Secret and Confidential Formerly Restricted Data, Secret and Confidential Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information, or Secret and Confidential National Security Information, required in the performance of official duties. An “L” access authorization determination is required for individuals with a need to know outside of DOE, NRC, DoD, and in limited cases NASA, to access Confidential Restricted Data.
</P>
<P><I>LAA</I> means security access authorization to CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET information granted to non-U.S. citizens requiring only limited access in the course of their regular duties.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means any product or substance on or in which information is embodied.
</P>
<P><I>Matter</I> means anything in physical form that contains or reveals classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Media</I> means physical devices or writing surfaces including but not limited to, magnetic tapes, optical disks, magnetic disks, large-scale integration memory chips, and printouts (but not including display media) onto which information is recorded, stored, or printed within an information system.
</P>
<P><I>MFO</I> means a legal entity (single proprietorship, partnership, association, trust, or corporation) composed of two or more entities (facilities).
</P>
<P><I>National of the United States</I> means a person who owes permanent allegiance to the United States. All U.S. citizens are U.S. nationals; however, not all U.S. nationals are U.S. citizens (for example, persons born in American Samoa or Swains Island).
</P>
<P><I>NATO information</I> means information bearing NATO markings, indicating the information is the property of NATO, access to which is limited to representatives of NATO and its member nations unless NATO authority has been obtained to release outside of NATO.
</P>
<P><I>NATO visits</I> means visits by personnel representing a NATO entity and relating to NATO contracts and programs.
</P>
<P><I>Need-to-know</I> means a determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient has a requirement for access to, knowledge of, or possession of the classified information to perform tasks or services essential to the fulfillment of a classified contract or program.
</P>
<P><I>Network</I> means a system of two or more information systems that can exchange data or information.
</P>
<P><I>NNPI</I> is classified or unclassified information concerning the design, arrangement, development, manufacture, testing, operation, administration, training, maintenance, and repair of the propulsion plants of naval nuclear-powered ships and prototypes, including the associated shipboard and shore-based nuclear support facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Non-DoD executive branch agencies</I> means the non-DoD agencies that have entered into agreements with DoD to receive NISP industrial security services from DoD. A list of these agencies is on the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency website at <I>https://www.dcsa.mil.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal information system</I> is defined in 32 CFR part 2002.
</P>
<P><I>NRTL</I> means a private sector organizations recognized by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration to perform certification for certain products to ensure that they meet the requirements of both the construction and general industry Occupational Safety and Health Administration electrical standards. Each NRTL is recognized for a specific scope of test standards.
</P>
<P><I>NSI</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to E.O. 13526 or predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and marked to indicate its classified status.
</P>
<P><I>NTIB</I> means the industrial bases of the United States and Australia, Canada, and the United Kingdom.
</P>
<P><I>NTIB entity</I> means a person that is a subsidiary located in the United States for which the ultimate parent entity and any intermediate parent entities of such subsidiary are located in a country that is part of the national technology and industrial base (as defined in section 2500 of title 10, United States Code); and that is subject to the foreign ownership, control, or influence requirements of the National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear weapon data</I> means Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data concerning the design, manufacture, or utilization (including theory, development, storage, characteristics, performance and effects) of nuclear explosives, nuclear weapons or nuclear weapon components, including information incorporated in or related to nuclear explosive devices. Nuclear weapon data is matter in any combination of documents or material, regardless of physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P><I>OCA</I> means an individual authorized in writing, either by the President, the Vice President, or by agency heads or other officials designated by the President, to classify information in the first instance.
</P>
<P><I>Original classification</I> means an initial determination that information requires, in the interest of national security, protection against unauthorized disclosure. Only USG officials who have been designated in writing may apply an original classification to information.
</P>
<P><I>Parent</I> means an entity that owns at least a majority of another entity's voting securities.
</P>
<P><I>PCL</I> means an administrative determination that an individual is eligible, from a security point of view, for access to classified information of the same or lower category as the level of the personnel clearance being granted.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contract</I> means a contract awarded by a GCA to a contractor for a legitimate USG purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contractor</I> means the contractor who receives a prime contract from a GCA.
</P>
<P><I>Privileged user</I> means a user that is authorized (and, therefore, trusted) to perform security-relevant functions that ordinary users are not authorized to perform.
</P>
<P><I>Proscribed information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) TOP SECRET information;
</P>
<P>(2) COMSEC information or material, excluding controlled cryptographic items when unkeyed or utilized with unclassified keys.
</P>
<P>(3) RD;
</P>
<P>(4) SAP information; or.
</P>
<P>(5) SCI.
</P>
<P><I>Protective security service</I> means a transportation protective service provided by a cleared commercial carrier qualified by DoD's Surface Deployment and Distribution Command to transport SECRET shipments.
</P>
<P><I>Q access authorization</I> means an access determination that is granted by DOE or NRC based on a Tier 5 or successor background investigation as set forth in applicable national-level requirements and DOE directives. Within DOE and the NRC, a “Q” access authorization permits an individual with an official “need to know” to access Top Secret, Secret and Confidential Restricted Data, Formerly Restricted Data, Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information, National Security Information, or special nuclear material in Category I or II quantities, as required in the performance of official duties. A “Q” access authorization is required for individuals with a need to know outside of DOE, NRC, DoD, and in a limited case NASA, to access Top Secret and Secret Restricted Data.
</P>
<P><I>Remote terminal</I> means a device communicating with an automated information system from a location that is not within the central computer facility.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means a controlled access area established to safeguard classified material that, because of its size or nature, cannot be adequately protected during working hours by the usual safeguards, but is capable of being stored during non-working hours in an approved repository or secured by other methods approved by the CSA.
</P>
<P><I>RD</I> means all data concerning (1) design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons; (2) the production of special nuclear material; or (3) the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but does not include data declassified or removed from the RD category pursuant to section 142 of the AEA.
</P>
<P><I>SAP</I> means any program that is established to control access and distribution and to provide protection for particularly sensitive classified information beyond that normally required for TOP SECRET, SECRET, or CONFIDENTIAL information. A SAP can be created or continued only as authorized by a senior agency official delegated such authority pursuant to E.O. 13526.
</P>
<P><I>Schedule 13D</I> means a form required by the Securities and Exchange Commission when a person or group of persons acquires beneficial ownership of more than 5% of a voting class of a company's equity securities registered under Section 12 of the “Securities Exchange Act of 1934” (available at: <I>https://www.sec.gov/fast-answers/answerssched13htm.html</I>).
</P>
<P><I>SCI</I> means a subset of classified national intelligence concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods or analytical processes that is required to be protected within formal access control systems established by the DNI.
</P>
<P><I>SECRET</I> means the classification level applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the OCA is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P><I>Security in depth</I> means a determination made by the CSA that a contractor's security program consists of layered and complementary security controls sufficient to deter and detect unauthorized entry and movement within the facility. Examples include, but are not limited to, use of perimeter fences, employee and visitor access controls, use of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), random guard patrols throughout the facility during nonworking hours, closed circuit video monitoring, or other safeguards that mitigate the vulnerability of open storage areas without alarms and security storage cabinets during nonworking hours.
</P>
<P><I>Security violation</I> means failure to comply with the policy and procedures established by this part that reasonably could result in the loss or compromise of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Shipper</I> means one who releases custody of material to a carrier for transportation to a consignee. (See also “Consignor.”)
</P>
<P><I>SMO</I> is the contractor's official responsible for the entity policy and strategy. The SMO is an entity employee occupying a position in the entity with ultimate authority over the facility's operations and the authority to direct actions necessary for the safeguarding of classified information in the facility. This includes the authority to direct actions necessary to safeguard classified information when the access to classified information by the facility's employees is solely at other contractor facilities or USG locations.
</P>
<P><I>Source document</I> means an existing document that contains classified information that is incorporated, paraphrased, restated, or generated in new form into a new document.
</P>
<P><I>Standard practice procedures</I> means a document prepared by a contractor that implements the applicable requirements of this rule for the contractor's operations and involvement with classified information at the contractor's facility.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontract</I> means any contract entered into by a contractor to furnish supplies or services for performance of a prime contract or a subcontract. It includes a contract, subcontract, purchase order, lease agreement, service agreement, request for quotation (RFQ), request for proposal (RFP), invitation for bid (IFB), or other agreement or procurement action between contractors that requires or will require access to classified information to fulfill the performance requirements of a prime contract.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor</I> means a supplier, distributor, vendor, or firm that enters into a contract with a prime contractor to furnish supplies or services to or for the prime contractor or another subcontractor. For the purposes of this rule, each subcontractor will be considered as a prime contractor in relation to its subcontractors.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means an entity in which another entity owns at least a majority of its voting securities.
</P>
<P><I>System software</I> means computer programs that control, monitor, or facilitate use of the information system; for example, operating systems, programming languages, communication, input-output controls, sorts, security packages, and other utility-type programs. Also includes off-the-shelf application packages obtained from manufacturers and commercial vendors, such as for word processing, spreadsheets, data base management, graphics, and computer-aided design.
</P>
<P><I>Technical data</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information, other than software, which is required for the design, development, production, manufacture, assembly, operation, repair, testing, maintenance or modification of defense articles. This includes information in the form of blueprints, drawings, photographs, plans, instructions or documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) Classified information relating to defense articles and defense services on the U.S. Munitions List and 600-series items controlled by the Commerce Control List.
</P>
<P>(3) Information covered by an invention secrecy order.
</P>
<P>(4) Software directly related to defense articles.
</P>
<P><I>TFNI</I> means classified information concerning the nuclear energy programs of other nations (including subnational entities) removed from the RD category under section 142(e) of the AEA after the DOE and the Director of National Intelligence jointly determine that it is necessary to carry out intelligence-related activities under the provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, and that it can be adequately safeguarded as NSI instead. This includes information removed from the RD category by past joint determinations between DOE and the CIA. TFNI does not include information transferred to the United States under an Agreement for Cooperation under the Atomic Energy Act or any other agreement or treaty in which the United States agrees to protect classified information.
</P>
<P><I>TOP SECRET</I> means the classification level applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the OCA is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P><I>Transmission</I> means sending information from one place to another by radio, microwave, laser, or other non-connective methods, as well as by cable, wire, or other connective medium. Transmission also includes movement involving the actual transfer of custody and responsibility for a document or other classified material from one authorized addressee to another.
</P>
<P><I>Transshipping activity</I> means a government activity to which a carrier transfers custody of freight for reshipment by another carrier to the consignee.
</P>
<P><I>UK community</I> consists of the UK Government entities with facilities and UK non-governmental facilities identified on the DDTC website (<I>https://www.pmddtc.state.gov/</I>) at the time of export.
</P>
<P><I>Unauthorized person</I> means a person not authorized to have access to specific classified information in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the 50 states and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>United States and its territorial areas</I> means the 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, Wake Island, Johnston Atoll, Kingman Reef, Palmyra Atoll, Baker Island, Howland Island, Jarvis Island, Midway Islands, Navassa Island, and Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Upgrade</I> means a determination that certain classified information, in the interest of national security, requires a higher degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure than currently provided, coupled with a change to the classification designation to reflect the higher degree.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. classified cryptographic information</I> means a cryptographic key and authenticators that are classified and are designated as TOP SECRET CRYPTO or SECRET CRYPTO. This means all cryptographic media that embody, describe, or implement classified cryptographic logic, to include, but not limited to, full maintenance manuals, cryptographic descriptions, drawings of cryptographic logic, specifications describing a cryptographic logic, and cryptographic software, firmware, or repositories of such software such as magnetic media or optical disks.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. person</I> means a United States citizen, an alien known by the intelligence agency concerned to be a permanent resident alien, an unincorporated association substantially composed of United States citizens or permanent resident aliens, or a corporation incorporated in the United States, except for a corporation directed and controlled by a foreign government or governments.
</P>
<P><I>Voting securities</I> means any securities that presently entitle the owner or holder thereof to vote for the election of directors of the issuer or, with respect to unincorporated entities, individuals exercising similar functions.
</P>
<P><I>Working hours</I> means the period of time when:
</P>
<P>(1) There is present in the specific area where classified material is located, a work force on a regularly scheduled shift, as contrasted with employees working within an area on an overtime basis outside of the scheduled work shift; and
</P>
<P>(2) The number of employees in the scheduled work force is sufficient in number and so positioned to be able to detect and challenge the presence of unauthorized personnel. This would, therefore, exclude janitors, maintenance personnel, and other individuals whose duties require movement throughout the facility.
</P>
<P><I>Working papers</I> means documents or materials, regardless of the media, which are expected to be revised prior to the preparation of a finished product for dissemination or retention.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>E.O. 12829 established the NISP to serve as a single, integrated, cohesive industrial security program to protect classified information and preserve our Nation's economic and technological interests.
</P>
<P>(a) When contracts, licenses, agreements, and grants to contractors require access to classified information, national security requires that this information be safeguarded in a manner equivalent to its protection within the executive branch of the USG.
</P>
<P>(b) National security requires that the industrial security program promote the economic and technological interests of the United States. Redundant, overlapping, or unnecessary requirements impede those interests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.5   Information collections.</HEAD>
<P>The information collection requirements are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Standard Form (SF) 328</I> “Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interest” (available at: <I>https://www.gsa.gov/forms-library/certificate-pertaining-foreign-interests</I>) in § 117.8 and § 117.11, is assigned Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 0704-0579. The expiration date of this information collection is listed in the DoD Information Collections System at <I>https://apps.sp.pentagon.mil/sites/dodiic/Pages/default.aspx.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NRC collection.</I> “Facility Security Clearance and Safeguarding of National Security Information and Restricted Data,” is assigned OMB Control Number: 3150-0047. Under this collection, NRC-regulated facilities and other organizations are required to provide information and maintain records to ensure that an adequate level of protection is provided to NRC-classified information and material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DOE collection.</I> “Security,” a NISP CSA information collection, is assigned OMB Control Number: 1910-1800. This information collection, which includes facility security clearance information, is used by the DOE to exercise management, oversight, and control over its contractors' management and operation of DOE's Government-owned contractor-operated facilities, and over its offsite contractors. The contractor management, oversight, and control functions relate to the ways in which DOE contractors provide goods and services for DOE organizations and activities in accordance with the terms of their contracts and the applicable statutory, regulatory, and mission support requirements of the Department. Information collected from private industry and private individuals is used to protect national security and critical assets entrusted to the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DoD collection.</I> “DoD Security Agreement,” is assigned OMB Control Number: 0704-0194. “National Industrial Security System,” a CSA information collection, is assigned OMB Control Number: 0704-0571, and is a DoD information collection used to conduct its monitoring and oversight of contractors. Department of Defense “Contract Security Classification Specification,” (available at: <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd0254.pdf</I> and available at: <I>https://www.dcsa.mil/is/nccs/</I>), is assigned OMB Control Number 0704-0567 and used by both DoD and agencies which have an industrial security agreement with DoD. “Defense Information System for Security,” is assigned OMB Control Number: 0704-0573. Defense Information System for Security is a DoD automated system for personnel security, providing a common, comprehensive medium to record, document, and identify personal security actions within DoD including submitting adverse information, verification of security clearance status, requesting investigations, and supporting continuous evaluation activities. It requires personal data collection to facilitate the initiation, investigation and adjudication of information relevant to DoD security clearances and employment suitability determinations for active duty military, civilian employees and contractors seeking such credentials. Joint Personnel Adjudicative System is assigned OMB Control Number: 0704-0496. Joint Personnel Adjudicative System is an information system which requires personal data collection to facilitate the initiation, investigation and adjudication of information relevant to DoD security clearances and employment suitability determinations for active duty military, civilian employees and contractors seeking such credentials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.6   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence &amp; Security (USD(I&amp;S)).</I> The USD(I&amp;S), on behalf of the Secretary of Defense, and in accordance with E.O. 12829, 32 CFR part 2004, and DoDI 5220.22:
</P>
<P>(1) Carries out the direction in section 201 of E.O. 12829 that the Secretary of Defense issue and maintain this rule and changes to it. The USD(I&amp;S) does so in consultation with all affected agencies (E.O. 12829 section 201), with the concurrence of the Secretary of Energy, the Chairman of the NRC, the DNI, and the Secretary of Homeland Security (E.O.12829 section 201), and in consultation with the ISOO Director (E.O. 12829 section 102).
</P>
<P>(2) Acts as the CSA for DoD.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides policy and management of the NISP for non-DoD executive branch agencies who enter into inter-agency security agreements with DoD to provide industrial security services required when classified information is disclosed to contractors in accordance with E.O. 12829, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Director, DCSA.</I> Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(I&amp;S), and in accordance with DoDI 5220.22 and DoD Directive (DoDD) 5105.42, “Defense Security Service (DSS)” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (available at: <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/510542p.pdf?ver=2019-01-14-090012-283</I>) the Director, DCSA:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> On June 20, 2020, the Secretary of Defense re-named the Defense Security Service (DSS) as the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA), as required by Executive Oder 13467, section 2.6(b)(i) (as amended by Executive Order 13968, Apr. 24, 2019, 84 FR 18125). Pursuant to Section 4 of E.O. 13968, references to DSS in DoD issuances should be deemed or construed to refer to DCSA.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Oversees and manages DCSA, which serves as the DoD CSO.
</P>
<P>(2) Administers the NISP as a separate program element on behalf of DoD GCAs and those agencies with agreements with DoD for security services.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides security oversight of the NISP as the DoD CSO on behalf of DoD components and those non-DoD executive branch agencies who enter into agreements with DoD as noted in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. The Director, DCSA, will be relieved of this oversight function for DoD special access programs (SAPs) when the Secretary of Defense or the Deputy Secretary of Defense approves a carve-out provision in accordance with DoDD 5205.07, “DoD SAP Policy” (available at: <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/520507p.pdf?ver=2020-02-04-142942-827</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary of Energy.</I> In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (h) of this section, the Secretary of Energy:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes procedures for the portions of this rule pertaining to information classified under the AEA (<I>i.e.,</I> RD, FRD, and TFNI), as nothing in the rule shall be construed to supersede the authority of the Secretary of Energy under the AEA.
</P>
<P>(2) Retains authority over access to information classified under the AEA.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspects and monitors contractor, licensee, certificate holder, and grantee programs and facilities that involve access to information classified under the AEA, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chairman of the NRC.</I> In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (h) of this section, the Chairman of the NRC:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes procedures for the portions of this rule that pertain to information under NRC programs classified under the AEA, other federal statutes, and executive orders.
</P>
<P>(2) Retains authority over access to information under NRC programs classified under the AEA, other federal statutes, and executive orders.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspects and monitors contractor, licensee, certificate holder, and grantee programs and facilities that involve access to information under NRC programs classified pursuant to the AEA, other federal statutes, and executive orders where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DNI.</I> In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (h) of this section, the DNI:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes procedures for the portions of this rule pertaining to intelligence sources, methods, and activities, including, but not limited to, SCI.
</P>
<P>(2) Retains authority over access to intelligence sources, methods, and activities, including SCI.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides guidance on the security requirements for intelligence sources and methods of information, including, but not limited to, SCI.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary of Homeland Security.</I> In accordance with E.O. 12829, E.O. 13691, and in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (h) of this section, the Secretary of Homeland Security:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes procedures for the portions of this rule that pertain to the CCIPP.
</P>
<P>(2) Retains authority over access to information under the CCIPP.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspects and monitors contractor, licensee, certificate holder, and grantee programs and facilities that involve access to CCIPP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>All the CSA heads.</I> The CSA heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee the security of classified contracts and activities under their purview.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide oversight of contractors under their security cognizance.
</P>
<P>(3) Minimize redundant and duplicative security review and audit activities of contractors, including such activities conducted at contractor locations where multiple CSAs have equities.
</P>
<P>(4) Execute appropriate intra-agency and inter-agency agreements to avoid redundant and duplicate reviews.
</P>
<P>(5) Designate one or more CSOs for security administration.
</P>
<P>(6) Designate subordinate officials, in accordance with governing policies, to act as the authorizing official. Authorizing officials will:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess and authorize contractors to process classified information on information systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct oversight of such information system processing and provide information system security guidelines in accordance with Federal information system security control policies, standards, and procedures. Minimize redundant and duplicative security review and audit activity of contractors, including such activity conducted at contractor locations where multiple CSAs have equities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Heads of component agencies.</I> In accordance with applicable CSA direction, the component agency heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee compliance with procedures identified by the applicable CSA or designated CSO.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide oversight of contractor personnel visiting or working on USG installations.
</P>
<P>(3) Promptly apprise the CSO of information received or developed that could adversely affect a cleared contractor, licensee, or grantee, and their employees, to hold an FCL or PCL, or that otherwise raises substantive doubt about their ability to safeguard classified information entrusted to them.
</P>
<P>(4) Propose changes to this rule as deemed appropriate and provide them to the applicable CSA for submission to the OUSD(I&amp;S) Counterintelligence, Law Enforcement and Security Directorate.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Director, ISOO.</I> The Director, ISOO:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversees the NSIP and agency compliance with it, in accordance with E.O. 12829.
</P>
<P>(2) Issues and maintains the NISP implementing directive (32 CFR part 2004), in accordance with E.O. 12829, to provide guidance to the CSAs and USG agencies under the NISP.
</P>
<P>(3) Chairs the NISP Policy Advisory Committee. Addresses complaints and suggestions from contractors, as detailed in the NISP Policy Advisory Committee bylaws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.7   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Contractors will protect all classified information that they are provided access to or that they possess. This responsibility applies at both contractor and USG locations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contractor Security Officials.</I> Contractors will appoint security officials who are U.S. citizens, except in exceptional circumstances (see § 117.9(m) and § 117.11(e)).
</P>
<P>(1) Appointed security officials listed in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Oversee the implementation of the requirements of this rule. Depending upon the size and complexity of the contractor's security operations, a single contractor employee may serve in more than one position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Undergo the same security training that is required for all other contractor employees pursuant to § 117.12, in addition to their position specific training.
</P>
<P>(iii) Be designated in writing with their designation documented in accordance with CSA guidance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Undergo a personnel security investigation and national security eligibility determination for access to classified information at the level of the entity's eligibility determination for access to classified information (<I>e.g.,</I> FCL level) and be on the KMP list for the cleared entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SMO.</I> The SMO will:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure the contractor maintains a system of security controls in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appoint a contractor employee or employees, in writing, as the FSO and appoint the same employee or a different employee as the ITPSO. The SMO may appoint a single employee for both roles or may appoint one employee as the FSO and a different employee as the ITPSO.
</P>
<P>(iii) Remain fully informed of the facility's classified operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make decisions based on classified threat reporting and their thorough knowledge, understanding, and appreciation of the threat information and the potential impacts caused by a loss of classified information.
</P>
<P>(v) Retain accountability for the management and operations of the facility without delegating that accountability to a subordinate manager.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FSO.</I> The FSO will:
</P>
<P>(i) Supervise and direct security measures necessary for implementing the applicable requirements of this rule and the related USG security requirements to ensure the protection of classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Complete security training pursuant to § 117.12 and as deemed appropriate by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>ITPSO.</I> The ITPSO will establish and execute an insider threat program.
</P>
<P>(i) If the appointed ITPSO is not also the FSO, the ITPSO will ensure that the FSO is an integral member of the contractor's insider threat program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ITPSO will complete training pursuant to § 117.12.
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity family may choose to establish an entity family-wide insider threat program with one senior official appointed, in writing, to establish, and execute the program as the ITPSO. Each cleared entity using the entity-wide ITPSO must separately appoint that person as its ITPSO for that facility. The ITPSO will provide an implementation plan to the CSA for executing the insider threat program across the entity family.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>ISSM.</I> Contractors who are, or will be, processing classified information on an information system located at the contractor facility will appoint an employee to serve as the ISSM. The ISSM must be eligible for access to classified information to the highest level of the information processed on the system(s) under their responsibility. The contractor will ensure that the ISSM is adequately trained and possesses technical competence commensurate with the complexity of the contractor's classified information system. The contractor will notify the applicable CSA if there is a change in the ISSM. The ISSM will oversee development, implementation, and evaluation of the contractor's classified information system program. ISSM responsibilities are in § 117.18.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employees performing security duties.</I> Those employees whose official duties include performance of NISP-related security functions will complete security training tailored to the security functions performed. This training requirement also applies to consultants whose official duties include security functions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other KMP.</I> In addition to the SMO, the FSO, and the ITPSO, the contractor will include on the KMP list, subject to CSA concurrence, any other officials who either hold majority interest or stock in the entity, or who have direct or indirect authority to influence or decide issues affecting the management or operations of the contractor or issues affecting classified contract performance. The CSA may either:
</P>
<P>(1) Require these KMP to be determined to be eligible for access to classified information as a requirement for the entity's eligibility determination or;
</P>
<P>(2) Allow the entity to formally exclude these KMP from access to classified information. The entity's governing board will affirm the exclusion by issuing a formal action (see table), and provide a copy of the exclusion action to the CSA. The entity's governing board will document this exclusion action.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)—Exclusion Resolutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of affirmation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Language to be used in exclusion action
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Affirmation for Exclusion from Access to Classified Information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Insert name and address of entity or name and position of officer, director, partner, or similar entity official or officials] will not require, will not have, and can be effectively and formally excluded from, access to all classified information disclosed to the entity and does not occupy a position that would enable them to adversely affect the organization's policies or practices in the performance of classified contracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Affirmation for Exclusion from Higher-level Classified Information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Insert name and address of entity or name and position of officer, director, partner, or similar entity official or officials] will not require, will not have, and can be effectively and formally excluded from access to [insert SECRET or TOP SECRET] classified information and does not occupy a position that would enable them to adversely affect the organization's policies or practices in the performance of [insert SECRET or TOP SECRET] classified contracts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Insider Threat Program.</I> Pursuant to this rule and CSA provided guidance to supplement unique CSA mission requirements, the contractor will establish and maintain an insider threat program to gather, integrate, and report relevant and available information indicative of a potential or actual insider threat, consistent with E.O. 13587 and Presidential Memorandum “National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards for Executive Branch Insider Threat Programs.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard practice procedures.</I> The contractor will implement all applicable provisions of this rule at each of its cleared facility locations. The contractor will prepare written procedures when the CSA determines them to be necessary to reasonably exclude the possibility of loss or compromise of classified information, and in accordance with additional CSA-provided guidance, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cooperation with Federal agencies.</I> Contractors will cooperate with Federal agencies and their officially credentialed USG or contractor representatives during official reviews, investigations concerning the protection of classified information, or personnel security investigations of present or former employees and others (<I>e.g.,</I> consultants or visitors). At a minimum, cooperation includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing suitable arrangements within the facility for conducting private interviews with employees during normal working hours;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing, when requested, relevant employment or personnel files, security records, supervisory files, records pertinent to insider threat (<I>e.g.,</I> security, cybersecurity, and human resources) and any other records pertaining to an individual under investigation that are, in the possession or control of the contractor or the contractor's representatives or located in the contractor's offices;
</P>
<P>(3) Providing access to employment and security records that are located at an offsite location; and
</P>
<P>(4) Rendering other necessary assistance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Security training and briefings.</I> Contractors will advise all cleared employees, including those assigned to USG locations or operations outside the United States, of their individual responsibility for classification management and for safeguarding classified information. Contractors will provide security training to cleared employees consisting of initial briefings, refresher briefings, and debriefings in accordance with § 117.12.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Security reviews</I>—(1) <I>USG reviews.</I> The applicable CSA will conduct recurring oversight reviews of contractors' NISP security programs to verify that the contractor is protecting classified information and implementing the provisions of this rule. The contractor's participation in the security review is required for maintaining the entity's eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Review cycle.</I> The CSA will determine the scope and frequency of security reviews, which may be increased or decreased consistent with risk management principles.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedures.</I> (A) The CSA will generally provide notice to the contractor of a forthcoming review, but may also conduct unannounced reviews at its discretion. The CSA security review may subject contractor employees and all areas and receptacles under the control of the contractor to examination.
</P>
<P>(B) The CSA will make every effort to avoid unnecessary intrusion into the personal effects of contractor personnel.
</P>
<P>(C) The CSA may conduct physical examinations of the interior space of containers not authorized to secure classified material. Such examinations will always be accomplished in the presence of a representative of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Controlled unclassified information (CUI).</I> 32 CFR part 2002 requires agencies to implement CUI requirements, but compliance with CUI requirements is outside the scope of the NISP and this rule. However, CSAs may conduct CUI assessments in conjunction with NISP USG reviews when:
</P>
<P>(A) The contractor is a participant in the NISP based on a requirement to access classified information;
</P>
<P>(B) A classified contract under the CSA's cognizance includes provisions for access to, or protection or handling of, CUI; and
</P>
<P>(C) The CSA has provided the contractor with specific guidance regarding the assessment criteria and methodology it will use for overseeing protection of the CUI being accessed, stored or transmitted by the contractor as part of the classified contract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contractor reviews.</I> Contractors will review their security programs on a continuing basis and conduct a formal self-inspection at least annually and at intervals consistent with risk management principles.
</P>
<P>(i) Self-inspections will include the review of the classified activity, classified information, classified information systems, conditions of the overall security program, and the insider threat program. They will have sufficient scope, depth, and frequency, and will have management support during the self-inspection and during remedial actions taken as a result of the self-inspection. Self-inspections will include the review of samples representing the contractor's derivative classification actions, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor will prepare a formal report describing the self-inspection, its findings, and its resolution of issues discovered during the self-inspection. The contractor will retain the formal report for CSA review until after the next CSA security review is completed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The SMO at the cleared facility will annually certify to the CSA, in writing, that a self-inspection has been conducted, that other KMP have been briefed on the results of the self-inspection, that appropriate corrective actions have been taken, and that management fully supports the security program at the cleared facility in the manner as described in the certification.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contractors working at USG locations.</I> Contractor employees performing work within the confines of a USG facility will safeguard classified information according to the procedures of the host installation or agency.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hotlines.</I> Federal agencies maintain hotlines to provide an unconstrained avenue for USG and contractor employees to report, without fear of reprisal, known or suspected instances of security irregularities and infractions concerning contracts, programs, or projects. These hotlines do not supplant the contractor's responsibility to facilitate reporting and timely investigations of security issues concerning its operations or personnel. Contractor personnel are encouraged to report information through established contractor channels. The hotline may be used as an alternate means to report this type of information. Contractors will inform all personnel that hotlines may be used for reporting issues of national security significance. Each CSA will post hotline information and telephone numbers on their websites for contractor access.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Agency agreements.</I> 32 CFR part 2004 and E.O. 12829 require non-CSA agency heads to enter into agreements with the Secretary of Defense as the Executive Agent for the NISP to provide industrial security services. The Secretary of Defense may also enter into agreements to provide services for other CSA's in accordance with 32 CFR part 2004 and E.O. 12829. Agency agreements establish the terms of the Secretary of Defense's (or the Secretary of Defense's designee's) responsibilities when acting as the CSA on behalf of these agency heads. The list of agencies for which the Secretary of Defense has agreed to render industrial security services is on the DCSA website at <I>https://www.dcsa.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Security cognizance.</I> The CSA will inform contractors if oversight has been delegated to a CSO.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Rule interpretations.</I> Contractors will forward requests for interpretations of this rule to their CSA in accordance with their CSA-provided guidance to supplement unique CSA mission requirements.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Waivers to this rule.</I> Contractors will submit any requests to waive provisions of this rule in accordance with CSA procedures, which may include periodic review of approved waivers. When submitting a request for a waiver, the contractor will, in writing, explain why it is impractical or unreasonable for the contractor to comply with the requirement it is asking to waive, identify alternative measures as prescribed by this rule, and include a proposed duration for the waiver. The contractor cannot implement a waiver unless the waiver is approved by the applicable CSA.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Complaints and suggestions.</I> Contractors may forward NISP administration complaints and suggestions to the Director of ISOO. However, contractors are encouraged to forward NISP administration complaints and suggestions to their respective CSA prior to forwarding to the ISOO.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>) NISP Administration Complaints and Suggestions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Addressee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Facsimile
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Email address
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Director, ISOO, National Archives and Records Administration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Room 100, Washington, DC 20408-0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202-357-5250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202-357-5907</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">isoo@nara.gov.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.8   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to this rule, Security Executive Agent Directive (SEAD) 3, (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/NCSC/documents/Regulations/SEAD-3-Reporting-U.pdf</I>) and CSA-provided guidance to supplement unique CSA mission requirements, contractors and their cleared employees are required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Report certain events that may have an effect on the status of the entity's or an employee's eligibility for access to classified information; report events that indicate an insider threat to classified information or to employees with access to classified information; report events that affect proper safeguarding of classified information; and report events that indicate classified information has been, or is suspected to be, lost or compromised.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish internal procedures to ensure employees with eligibility for access to classified information are aware of their responsibilities for reporting pertinent information to the FSO. The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide reports to the FBI, or other Federal authorities as required by this rule, the terms of a classified contract or other agreement, and by U.S. law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide complete information to enable the CSA to ascertain whether classified information is adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(iii) Submit reports to the FBI, the CSA, or the ISOO as specified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriately mark reports containing classified information in accordance with § 117.14.
</P>
<P>(4) Clearly mark a report containing information submitted in confidence as containing that information. When reports contain information pertaining to an individual, 5 U.S.C. 552a (also known as and referred to in this rule as “The Privacy Act of 1974, as amended,”) permits the withholding of certain information from the individual in accordance with specific exemptions, which include authority to withhold release of information to the extent that the disclosure of the information would reveal the identity of a source who furnished the information to the USG under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports to be submitted to the FBI.</I> The contractor will promptly submit a written report to the nearest field office of the FBI regarding information coming to the contractor's attention concerning actual, probable, or possible espionage, sabotage, terrorism, or subversive activities at any of its locations.
</P>
<P>(1) An initial report may be made by phone, but it must be followed up in writing (<I>e.g.,</I> email or formal correspondence), regardless of the FBI's disposition of the report.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor will promptly notify the CSA when they make a report to the FBI and provide the CSA a copy of the written report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports to be submitted to the CSA</I>—(1) <I>Adverse information.</I> Contractors are required to report adverse information coming to their attention concerning any of their employees determined to be eligible for access to classified information, in accordance with this rule, SEAD 3, and CSA-provided guidance. Contractors will not make reports based on rumor or innuendo.
</P>
<P>(i) The termination of employment of an employee does not negate the requirement to submit this report. If a contractor employee is assigned to a USG location, the contractor will furnish a copy of the report and its final disposition to the USG security point of contact for that location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to <I>Becker</I> v. <I>Philco,</I> 372 F.2d 771 (4th Cir. 1967), cert. denied 389 U.S. 979 (1967), and subsequent cases, a contractor may not be liable for defamation of an employee because of communications that are required of and made by a contractor to an agency of the United States under the requirements of this rule or under the terms of applicable contracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Suspicious contacts.</I> Contractors will report information pertaining to suspicious contacts with employees determined to be eligible for access to classified information, and pertaining to efforts to obtain illegal or unauthorized access to the contractor's cleared facility by any means, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Efforts by any individual, regardless of nationality, to obtain illegal or unauthorized access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Efforts by any individual, regardless of nationality, to elicit information from an employee determined eligible for access to classified information, and any contact which suggests the employee may be the target of an attempted exploitation by an intelligence service of another country. See SEAD 3 for specific information to be reported.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Change in status of employees determined eligible for access to classified information.</I> Contractors will report by means of the CSA-designated reporting mechanism information pertaining to changes in status of employees determined eligible for access to classified information such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Death.
</P>
<P>(ii) Change in name.
</P>
<P>(iii) Termination of employment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Change in citizenship.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Citizenship by naturalization.</I> Contractors will report if a non-U.S. citizen employee granted an LAA becomes a citizen through naturalization. The report will include:
</P>
<P>(i) City, county, and state where naturalized.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date naturalized.
</P>
<P>(iii) Court.
</P>
<P>(iv) Certificate number.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employees desiring not to be processed for a national security eligibility determination or not to perform classified work.</I> Contractors will report instances when an employee no longer wishes to be processed for a determination of eligibility for access to classified information or to continue having access to classified information, and the reason for that request.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Classified information nondisclosure agreement (NDA).</I> Contractors will report the refusal by an employee to sign the SF 312, “Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement,” (available at: <I>https://www.gsa.gov/cdnstatic/SF312-13.pdf?forceDownload=1</I>) or other approved NDA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Changed conditions affecting the contractor's eligibility for access to classified information.</I> Contractors are required to report certain events that affect the status of the entity eligibility determination (<I>e.g.,</I> FCL), affect the status of an employee's PCL, may indicate an employee poses an insider threat, affect the proper safeguarding of classified information, or indicate classified information has been lost or compromised, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Change of ownership or control of the contractor, including stock transfers that affect control of the entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Change of operating name or address of the entity or any of its locations determined eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any change to the information previously submitted for KMP including, as appropriate, the names of the individuals the contractor is replacing. A new complete KMP listing need be submitted only at the discretion of the contractor or when requested by the CSA. The contractor will provide a statement indicating:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the new KMP are cleared for access to classified information, and if cleared, to what level they are cleared and when they were cleared, their dates and places of birth, social security numbers, and citizenship.
</P>
<P>(B) Whether they have been excluded from access to classified information in accordance with § 117.7(b)(5)(ii).
</P>
<P>(C) Whether they have been temporarily excluded from access to classified information pending the determination of eligibility for access to classified information in accordance with § 117.9(g).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any action to terminate business or operations for any reason, imminent adjudication or reorganization in bankruptcy, or any change that might affect the validity of the contractor's eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(v) Any material change concerning the information previously reported concerning foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI). This report will be made by the submission of an updated SF 328, “Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests,” in accordance with CSA-provided guidance. When submitting this information, it is not necessary to repeat answers that have not changed. When entering into discussion, consultations, or agreements that may reasonably lead to effective ownership or control by a foreign interest, the contractor will report the details to the CSA in writing. If the contractor has received a Schedule 13D from the investor, the contractor will forward a copy with the report.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Changes in storage capability.</I> The contractor will report any changes in their storage requirement or capability to safeguard classified material.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Inability to safeguard classified material.</I> The contractor will report any emergency situation that renders their location incapable of safeguarding classified material as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Unsatisfactory conditions of a prime or subcontractors.</I> (i) Prime contractors, including subcontractors who have in turn subcontracted work, will report any information coming to their attention that may indicate that classified information cannot be adequately protected by a subcontractor, or other circumstances that may impact the validity of the eligibility for access to classified information of any subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subcontractors will report any information coming to their attention that may indicate that classified information cannot be adequately protected or other circumstances that may impact the validity of the eligibility for access to classified information of their prime contractor.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Dispositioned material previously terminated.</I> The contractor will make a report when the location or disposition of material previously terminated from accountability is subsequently discovered and brought back into accountability.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Foreign classified contracts.</I> Contractors will report any pre-contract negotiation or award not placed through a CSA or U.S. GCA that involves, or may involve:
</P>
<P>(i) The release or disclosure of U.S. classified information to a foreign interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Access to classified information furnished by a foreign interest.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Reporting of improper receipt of foreign government material.</I> The contractor will report to the CSA the receipt of classified material from foreign interests that is not received through USG channels.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Reporting by subcontractor.</I> Subcontractors will also notify their prime contractors if they make any reports to their CSA in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (c)(7) through (c)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports of loss, compromise, or suspected compromise.</I> The contractor will report any loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information, U.S. or foreign, to the CSA in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this section. Each CSA may provide additional guidance concerning the reporting time period. If the contractor is located on a USG facility, the contractor will submit the report to the CSA and to the head of the USG facility.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preliminary inquiry.</I> Immediately upon receipt of a security violation report involving classified information, the contractor will initiate a preliminary inquiry to ascertain all of the circumstances surrounding the presumed loss, compromise, or suspected compromise, including validation of the classification of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial report.</I> If the contractor's preliminary inquiry confirms that a loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of any classified information occurred, the contractor will promptly submit an initial report of the incident unless otherwise notified by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final report.</I> When the investigation has been completed, the contractor will submit a final report to the CSA which, in turn, will follow CSA procedures to notify the applicable GCA. The report will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Material and relevant information that was not included in the initial report.
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name and social security number of the individual or individuals primarily responsible for the incident, including a record of prior loss, compromise, or suspected compromise for which the individual had been determined responsible.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the corrective action taken to preclude a recurrence.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disciplinary action taken against the responsible individual or individuals, if any.
</P>
<P>(v) Specific reasons for reaching the conclusion that loss, compromise, or suspected compromise occurred or did not occur.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee information in compromise cases.</I> When requested by the CSA, the contractor will report information concerning an employee or other individual, determined to be responsible for the incident, when the information is needed by the CSA for the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Individual culpability reports.</I> Contractors will establish and enforce policies that provide for appropriate administrative or disciplinary actions taken against employees who violate the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>(1) Contractors will establish a system to manage and track information regarding employees with eligibility for access to classified information who violate the requirements of this rule in order to be able to identify patterns of negligence or carelessness, or to identify a potential insider threat.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors will establish and apply a graduated scale of administrative and disciplinary actions in the event of employee security violations or negligence in the handling of classified information. CSAs may provide guidance to contractors with examples of administrative or disciplinary actions that the contractor may consider implementing in the event of employee violations or negligence. Contractors are required to submit a final report to the CSA with the findings of an employee's culpability and what corrective actions were taken.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors will include a statement of the administrative or disciplinary actions taken against an employee in a final report to the CSA. A statement must be included when the individual responsible for a security violation can be determined. Contractors' final reports will indicate whether one or more of the following factors are evident:
</P>
<P>(i) Involved a deliberate disregard of security requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Involved negligence in the handling of classified material.
</P>
<P>(iii) Was not deliberate in nature but reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, negligence, or carelessness.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CDC cyber incident reports.</I> This paragraph applies only to CDCs and sets forth reporting requirements pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 391 and 393 and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement Clause 252.204-7012. The reporting requirements of paragraph (f) of this section are in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, which can include certain activities occurring on unclassified information systems. DoD will provide detailed reporting instructions for contractors affected by these references via industrial security letter in accordance with DoDI 5220.22.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reports to be submitted to the designated DoD CSO.</I> CDCs will immediately report to the DoD CSO, any cyber incident on a classified covered information system that has been approved by that CSO to process classified information.
</P>
<P>(i) At a minimum, the report will include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the technique or method used in the cyber incident.
</P>
<P>(B) A sample of the malicious software involved in the cyber incident, if discovered and isolated by the CDC,
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of information in connection with any DoD program that has been potentially compromised due to the cyber incident.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that is reported by the CDC (or derived from information reported by the CDC) will be safeguarded, used, and disseminated in a manner consistent with DoD procedures governing the handling of such information pursuant to Public Law 112-239 and 10 U.S.C. 391.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reports involving classified foreign government information will be reported to the Director, Defense Technology Security Administration (DoD).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reports on non-Federal information systems not authorized to process classified information.</I> CDCs will report cyber incidents on non-Federal, unclassified information systems in accordance with contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access to equipment and information by DoD personnel.</I> (i) The CDC will allow, upon request by DoD personnel, access by DoD personnel to additional equipment or information of the CDC that is necessary to conduct forensic analysis of reportable cyber incidents in addition to any analysis conducted by the CDC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CDC is only required to provide DoD access to equipment or information to determine whether information created by or for DoD in connection with any DoD program was successfully exfiltrated from a CDC's network or information system, and what information was exfiltrated from the CDC's network or information system.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reports to ISOO.</I> (1) Contractors will report instances of redundant or duplicative security review and audit activity by the CSAs to the Director, ISOO, for resolution.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors will report instances of CSAs duplicating processing to determine an entity's eligibility for access to classified information when there is an existing determination of an entity's eligibility for access to classified information by another CSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.9   Entity eligibility determination for access to classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section applies to all contractors with entity eligibility determinations, except as provided in § 117.22 for entity eligibility determinations for participation in the CCIPP under the cognizance of DHS.
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the entity being granted an entity eligibility determination for access to classified information, the responsible CSA must have determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) The entity is eligible for access to classified information to meet a legitimate USG or foreign government need.
</P>
<P>(ii) Access is consistent with national security interests.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA will provide guidance on processing entity eligibility determinations for entity access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) The determination of entity eligibility for access is separate from the determination of a classified information safeguarding capability (see § 117.15).
</P>
<P>(4) Neither the contractor nor its employees will be permitted access to classified information until the CSA has made an entity eligibility determination (<I>e.g.,</I> issued an FCL).
</P>
<P>(5) The requirement for a favorable entity eligibility determination (also referred to in some instances as an FCL) for a prime contractor includes instances where all access to classified information will be limited to subcontractors. A prime contractor must have a favorable entity eligibility determination at the same or higher classification level as its subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(6) Contractors are eligible for storage of classified material in connection with a legitimate USG or foreign government requirement if they have a favorable entity eligibility determination and a classified information safeguarding capability approved by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(7) An entity eligibility determination is valid for access to classified information at the same or lower classification level.
</P>
<P>(8) Each CSA will maintain a record of entity eligibility determinations made by that CSA.
</P>
<P>(9) A contractor will not use its favorable entity eligibility determination for advertising or promotional purposes. This does not prohibit the contractor from advertising employee positions that require a PCL in connection with the position.
</P>
<P>(10) A contractor or prospective contractor cannot apply for its own entity eligibility determination. A GCA or a currently cleared contractor may sponsor an entity for an entity eligibility determination at any point during the contracting or agreement life cycle at which the entity must have access to classified information to participate (including the solicitation or competition phase).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reciprocity.</I> If an entity has an appropriate, final entity eligibility determination, a CSA will not duplicate the entity eligibility determination processes performed by another CSA. If a CSA cannot acknowledge an entity eligibility determination to another CSA, the involved entity may be subject to duplicate processing in accordance with 32 CFR part 2004.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> To be eligible for an initial entity eligibility determination or to maintain an existing entity eligibility determination, the entity must:
</P>
<P>(1) Need access to classified information in connection with a legitimate USG or foreign government requirement, and access must be consistent with U.S. national security interests as determined by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(2) Be organized and existing:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the laws of the United States, one of the fifty States, the District of Columbia, or an organized U.S. territory (Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Marianas Islands, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the laws of an American Indian/Alaska Native tribal entity if:
</P>
<P>(A) The American Indian or Alaska Native tribe under whose laws the entity is chartered has been formally acknowledged by the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, of the U.S. Department of the Interior.
</P>
<P>(B) The contractor is organized and continues to exist, during the period of the eligibility under a tribal statue or code, or pursuant to a resolution of an authorized tribal legislative body.
</P>
<P>(C) The contractor has submitted or will submit records such as a charter, certificate of organization, or other applicable tribal documents and statute or code provisions governing the formation and continuation of the entity, for CSA determination that the entity is tribally chartered.
</P>
<P>(3) Be located in the United States or its territorial areas.
</P>
<P>(4) Have a record of integrity and lawful conduct in its business dealings.
</P>
<P>(5) Have a SMO, FSO, and ITPSO who have and who maintain eligibility for access to classified information and are not excluded from participating in USG contracts or agreements in accordance with § 117.7(b)(1) through § 117.7(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(6) Not be under FOCI to such a degree that a favorable entity eligibility determination for access to classified information would be inconsistent with the national interest, in the judgment of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(7) Maintain sufficient authorized and cleared employees to manage and implement the requirements of this rule in accordance with CSA guidance.
</P>
<P>(8) Not pose an unacceptable risk to national security interests, in the judgment of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(9) Meet all requirements governing access to classified information established by the CSA or the relevant authorizing law, regulation, or government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing the entity eligibility determination.</I> The CSA will assess the entity's eligibility for access to classified information based on its business structure.
</P>
<P>(1) At a minimum, the entity will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide CSA-requested documentation within timelines established by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have and identify the SMO.
</P>
<P>(iii) Appoint a U.S. citizen employee as the FSO.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appoint a U.S. citizen employee as the ITPSO.
</P>
<P>(v) Submit requests for personnel security investigations for the SMO, FSO, ITPSO, and those other KMP identified by the CSA as requiring eligibility for access to classified information in connection with the entity eligibility.
</P>
<P>(2) If the entity is under FOCI with a special security agreement (SSA) as the proposed method of FOCI mitigation, and the GCA requires the entity to have access to proscribed information, the CSA must consider the measures listed in § 117.11(d) as part of the entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other personnel eligibility determinations concurrent with the entity eligibility determination.</I> (1) Contractors may designate employees who require access to classified information during the negotiation of a contract or the preparation of a bid or quotation pertaining to a prime contract or a subcontract. These designated employees will be processed for a determination of eligibility for access to classified information (<I>i.e.,</I> PCL eligibility) concurrent with entity's entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The entity eligibility determination is not dependent on the PCL eligibility for access to classified information by such employees, provided none of these employees are among those listed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section. Even so, the employees will not be granted access to classified information until both a favorable entity eligibility determination and PCL eligibility has been granted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusion procedures.</I> If a CSA determines that certain KMP can be excluded from access to classified information, the contractor will follow the procedures in accordance with § 117.7(b)(5)(ii).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Temporary exclusions.</I> As a result of a changed condition, the SMO or other KMP who require eligibility for access to classified information in connection with the facility entity eligibility determination may be temporarily excluded from access to classified information while in the process of a PCL eligibility determination provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The SMO or other KMP are not appointed as the FSO or ITPSO. FSOs and ITPSOs may not be temporarily excluded. A cleared employee must always be appointed to fulfill the requirements of these positions in accordance with this rule.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee, cleared to the level of the entity eligibility determination, must be able to fulfill the NISP responsibilities of the temporarily excluded KMP in accordance with this rule while the temporary exclusion is in effect.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable CSA may provide additional guidance on the duration of a temporary exclusion from access to classified information based on circumstances, business structure, and other relevant security information.
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor's governing board affirms the exclusion action, and provides a copy of the exclusion action to the CSA. The organization's governing body will document this action.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(g)(4)</E> Temporary Exclusion Resolutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of affirmation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Language to be used in exclusion action
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Affirmation for Temporary Exclusion from Access to Classified Information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pending a final determination of eligibility for access to classified information by the U.S. Government, [insert name and position] will not require, will not have, and can be effectively and formally excluded from access to all classified information disclosed to the entity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Affirmation for Temporary Exclusion from Higher Level Classified Information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pending a final determination of eligibility for access to classified information at the [insert SECRET or TOP SECRET] level, [insert name and position] will not have, and can be effectively and formally excluded from access to higher-level classified information [specify which higher level of information].</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) <I>Interim entity eligibility determinations.</I> The CSA may make an interim entity eligibility determination for access to classified information, in the sole discretion of the CSA. See § 117.10(l) for access limitations that also apply to interim entity eligibility determinations.
</P>
<P>(i) An interim entity eligibility determination is made on a temporary basis pending completion of the full investigative requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the contractor with an interim entity eligibility determination is unable or unwilling to comply with the requirements of this rule and CSA-provided guidance regarding the process to obtain a final entity eligibility determination, the CSA will withdraw the interim entity eligibility.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple facility organizations.</I> The home office must have an entity eligibility determination at the same level as the highest entity eligibility determination of an entity within the MFO. The CSA will determine whether branch offices are eligible for access to classified information if the branch offices need access and meet all other requirements.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Parent-subsidiary relationships.</I> When a parent-subsidiary relationship exists, the CSA will process the parent and the subsidiary separately for entity eligibility determinations.
</P>
<P>(1) If the CSA determines the parent must be processed for an entity eligibility determination, then the parent must have an entity eligibility determination at the same or higher level as the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(2) When a parent and subsidiary or multiple cleared subsidiaries are collocated, a formal written agreement to use common security services may be executed by the entities, subject to the approval of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture may be granted eligibility for access to classified information if it meets the eligibility requirements in paragraph (c) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The joint venture must be established as a legal business entity (<I>e.g.</I> limited liability company, corporation, or partnership). A joint venture established by contract that is not also established as a legal business entity is not eligible for an entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The business entity operating as a joint venture must have been awarded a classified contract or sponsored by a GCA or prime contractor for an entity eligibility determination in advance of a potential award for which the business entity has bid pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The business entity operating as a joint venture must have an employee or employees appointed as security officials or KMP pursuant to § 117.7(b).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Consultants.</I> The responsible CSA will determine when there is a need for self-employed consultants requiring access to classified information to be considered for an entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Limited entity eligibility determination (Non-FOCI).</I> (1) The applicable CSA may choose to allow a GCA to request limited entity eligibility determinations for a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance and specific to the requesting GCA's classified information. This is not the same as a limited entity eligibility determination in situations involving FOCI, when the FOCI is not mitigated or negated.
</P>
<P>(i) Limited entity eligibility determinations (or FCLs) involving FOCI will be processed in accordance with § 117.11(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) This paragraph (paragraph (m) of this section) applies to limited entity eligibility determinations for purposes other than FOCI mitigation in accordance with 32 CFR part 2004. Additional guidance may be provided by the responsible CSA.
</P>
<P>(2) An entity must be sponsored for a limited entity eligibility determination by a GCA in accordance with the sponsorship requirements contained in paragraph (c) of this section. The contractor should be aware that the sponsorship request from the GCA to the CSA must also include:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of the compelling need for the limited entity eligibility determination that is in accordance with U.S. national security interests.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific reason(s) or rationale for limiting the entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) The GCA's formal acknowledgement and acceptance of the risk associated with this rationale.
</P>
<P>(3) The entity must otherwise meet the entity eligibility determination requirements set out in this rule.
</P>
<P>(4) Access limitations are inherent with the limited entity eligibility determination and are imposed upon all of the entity's employees regardless of citizenship.
</P>
<P>(5) Contractors should be aware that the CSA will document the requirements of each limited entity eligibility determination it makes, including the scope of, and any limitations on, access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(6) Contractors should be aware that the CSA will verify limited entity eligibility determinations only to the requesting GCA. In the case of multiple limited entity eligibility determinations for a single entity, the CSA verifies each one separately only to its requestor.
</P>
<P>(7) The applicable CSA administratively terminates the limited entity eligibility determination when there is no longer a need for access to the classified information for which the CSA approved the limited entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Termination of the entity eligibility determination.</I> Once granted, a favorable entity eligibility determination remains in effect until terminated or revoked. If the entity eligibility determination is terminated or revoked, the contractor will return all classified material in its possession to the appropriate GCA or dispose of the material as instructed by the CSA. The contractor should be aware that it may request an administrative termination or the CSA may:
</P>
<P>(1) After coordination with applicable GCAs, administratively terminate the entity eligibility determination because the contractor no longer has a need for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) Revoke an entity eligibility determination if the contractor is unable or unwilling to protect classified information or is unable to comply with the security requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Invalidation of the entity eligibility determination.</I> The CSA may invalidate an existing entity eligibility determination. While the entity eligibility determination is in an invalidated status, the contractor may not bid on or be awarded new classified contracts or solicitations. The contractor may continue to work on existing classified contracts if the GCA agrees.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Records maintenance.</I> Contractors will maintain the original CSA designated forms for the duration of the entity eligibility determination in accordance with CSA-provided guidance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.10   Determination of eligibility for access to classified information for contractor employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The CSA is responsible for determining an employee's eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(i) The contractor must determine that access to classified information is essential in the performance of tasks or services related to the fulfillment of a classified contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Access must be clearly consistent with U.S. national security interests as determined by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor may give an employee access to classified information at the same or lower level of classification as the level of the contractor's entity eligibility determination if the employee has:
</P>
<P>(A) A valid need-to-know for the classified information.
</P>
<P>(B) A USG favorable eligibility determination for access to classified information at the appropriate level; and
</P>
<P>(C) Signed a non-disclosure agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA will determine eligibility for access to classified information in accordance with SEAD 4 (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/NCSC/documents/Regulations/SEAD-4-Adjudicative-Guidelines-U.pdf</I>) and notify the contractor when eligibility has been granted.
</P>
<P>(i) The CSA will notify the contractor when an employee's eligibility has been denied, suspended, or revoked.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor will immediately deny access to classified information to any employee when notified of a denial, revocation, or suspension of eligibility regardless of the contractor employee's location.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee's performance is at a USG facility, the contractor will provide notification to the appropriate GCA of any denial, revocation, or suspension of eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors will annotate and maintain the accuracy of their employees' records in the system of record for contractor eligibility and access to classified information, when one has been designated by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(4) Within an MFO or within the same business organization, contractors may centrally manage eligibility for access to classified information and access to classified information records.
</P>
<P>(5) The contractor will limit requests for determinations of eligibility for access to classified information to the minimum number of employees and consultants necessary for operational efficiency in accordance with contractual obligations and other requirements of this rule. Requests for determinations of eligibility for access to classified information will not be used to establish a cache of cleared employees.
</P>
<P>(6) The contractor will not submit a request for an eligibility determination to one CSA if the employee applicant is known to be cleared or in process for eligibility for access to classified information by another CSA. In such cases, reciprocity of eligibility determination in accordance with SEAD 7 (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/NCSC/documents/Regulations/SEAD-7_BI_ReciprocityU.pdf</I>) shall be used. The contractor will provide the new CSA with the full name, date, and place of birth, social security number, clearing agency, and type of investigation for verification.
</P>
<P>(7) Contractors will not submit requests for determination of eligibility for access to classified information for individuals who are not their employees or consultants; nor will they submit requests for employees of subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(8) Access to SCI, SAP, FRD, and RD information is a determination made by the granting authority by the applicable USG granting authority for each category of information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigative requirements.</I> E.O. 13467, as amended, “Reforming Processes Related to Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information,” designates the Security and Suitability Executive Agents responsible for establishing the standards for investigative requirements that apply to contractors.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Investigative tiers.</I> The standards established in accordance with E.O. 13467, as amended, designate specific investigative tiers that are acceptable for access to classified information. An investigative tier is for positions designated as moderate risk, non-critical sensitive, and allow access to information classified at the L, CONFIDENTIAL, and SECRET levels. Another investigative tier is for positions designated as high risk, critical sensitive, special sensitive, and allow access to information classified at the Q, TOP SECRET, and SCI levels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investigative coverage.</I> (i) <I>Automated sources.</I> Investigative providers will use automation whenever possible to collect, verify, corroborate, or discover information about an individual, as documented on the request for investigation or developed from other sources, <I>i.e.,</I> automated record checks and inquiries.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interviews.</I> Interviews, if required, will cover areas of adjudicative concern.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Information Covered in Previous Investigations.</I> Information validated in a prior investigation, the results of which are not expected to change (<I>e.g.,</I> verification of education degree), will not be repeated as part of subsequent investigations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Polygraph.</I> Agencies with policies authorizing the use of the polygraph for purposes of determining eligibility for access to classified information may require polygraph examinations when necessary. If adjudicatively relevant information arises during the investigation or the polygraph examination, the investigation may be expanded to resolve the adjudicative concerns.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Financial disclosure.</I> When a GCA requires that a contractor employee complete a financial disclosure form, the contractor will ensure that the employee has the opportunity to complete and submit the form in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, and other applicable provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reinvestigation and Continuous Evaluation.</I> Contractor employees determined eligible for access to classified information will follow CSA guidance to complete reinvestigation and continuous evaluation or continuous vetting requirements. The contractor will validate that the employee requires continued eligibility for access to classified information before initiating the reinvestigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of U.S. citizenship.</I> A contractor will require each applicant for determination of eligibility for access to classified information who claims U.S. citizenship to provide evidence of citizenship to the FSO or other authorized representative of the contractor. All documentation must be the original or certified copies of the original documents.
</P>
<P>(1) Any document, or its successor, listed in this paragraph is an acceptable document to corroborate U.S. citizenship by birth, including by birth abroad to a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(i) A birth certificate certified with the registrar's signature, which bears the raised, embossed, impressed, or multicolored seal of the registrar's office.
</P>
<P>(ii) A current or expired U.S. passport or passport card that is unaltered and undamaged and was originally issued to the individual.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Department of State Form FS-240, “Consular Report of Birth Abroad of a Citizen of the United States of America.”
</P>
<P>(iv) A Department of State Form FS-545 or DS-1350, “Certification of Report of Birth.”
</P>
<P>(2) Any document, or its successor, listed in this paragraph is an acceptable document to corroborate U.S. citizenship by certification, naturalization, or birth abroad to a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(i) A U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services Form N-560 or N-561, “Certification of U.S. Citizenship.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services Form 550, 551, or 570, “Naturalization Certificate.”
</P>
<P>(iii) A valid or expired U.S. passport or passport card that is unaltered and undamaged and was originally issued to the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for completing the electronic version of the SF 86, “Questionnaire for National Security Positions.”</I> The electronic version of the SF 86 (available at: <I>https://www.opm.gov/forms/pdf_fill/sf86.pdf</I>) must be completed in e-QIP or its successor system by the contractor employee and reviewed by the FSO or other contractor employee(s) who has (have) been specifically designated by the contractor to review an employee's SF 86. The FSO or designee will:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the employee with written notification that review of the SF 86 by the FSO or other contractor employee is for adequacy and completeness and information will be used for no other purpose within the entity. The use and disclosure by the U.S. Government, and by U.S. Government contractors operating systems of records on behalf of a U.S. Government agency to accomplish an agency function, of the information provided by the employee on the SF-86 is governed by the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, and by the routine uses published by the USG in the applicable System of Records Notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Not share information from the employee's SF 86 within the entity and will not use the information for any purpose other than determining the adequacy and completeness of the SF 86.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fingerprint collection.</I> The contractor will submit fingerprints in accordance with CSA guidance. Contractors will use digital fingerprints whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Pre-employment eligibility determination action.</I> (1) If a potential employee requires access to classified information immediately upon commencement of employment, the contractor may submit a request for investigation prior to the date of employment, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) A written commitment for employment has been made by the contractor.
</P>
<P>(ii) The candidate has accepted the offer in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) The commitment for employment must indicate employment will commence within 45 days of the employee being granted eligibility for access to classified information at a level that allows them to perform the tasks or services associated with the contract or USG requirement for which they were hired.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors will comply with the requirements pursuant to paragraph (a) (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Classified information NDA.</I> The NDA designated by the CSA (<I>e.g.,</I> SF 312), is an agreement between the USG and an individual who is determined eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) An employee determined eligible for access to classified information must execute an NDA prior to being granted access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee must sign and date the NDA in the presence of a witness. The employee's and witness' signatures must bear the same date.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor will forward the executed NDA to the CSA for retention. The CSA may authorize the contractor to retain a copy of the form for administrative purposes, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) If the employee refuses to execute the NDA, the contractor will deny the employee access to classified information and submit a report to the CSA in accordance with § 117.8(c)(6).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reciprocity.</I> The applicable CSA is responsible for determining whether contractor employees have been previously determined eligible for access to classified information or investigated by an authorized investigative activity in accordance with SEAD 7 (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/NCSC/documents/Regulations/SEAD-7_BI_ReciprocityU.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(1) Any current eligibility determination for access to classified information that is based on an investigation of a scope that meets or exceeds that necessary for the required level of access will provide the basis for a new eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The prior investigation will be used without further investigation or adjudication unless the CSA becomes aware of significant derogatory information that was not previously adjudicated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Break in access.</I> There are circumstances when a contractor administratively terminates an employee's access to classified information solely because of no current requirement for such access. If the employee again requires access to classified information and has been in the contractor's continuous employment, and the employee again requires access to classified information, the contractor may provide access to classified information without further investigation, based on CSA guidance, so long as the employee remains eligible for access to classified information and has a current investigation of a scope that meets or exceeds that necessary for the access required and no new derogatory information is known. Any adverse information from or about the employee must continue to be reported while the employee maintains eligibility for access to classified information, even when access to classified information has been administratively terminated.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Break in employment.</I> (1) When an employee had a break in employment and now requires access to classified information, the contractor may provide access to classified information based on CSA guidance provided the employee remains eligible for access to classified information and has a current investigation of a scope that meets or exceeds that necessary for the access required.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor may not provide access to classified information to an employee who previously was eligible for access to classified information, but has had a break in employment that resulted in a loss of eligibility without a new eligibility determination by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Non-U.S. citizens.</I> (1) Contractors must make every effort to ensure that non-U.S. citizens are not employed in duties that may require access to classified information. However, compelling reasons may exist to grant access to classified information to a non-U.S. citizen. The CSA may grant such individuals a LAA in those rare circumstances where a non-U.S. citizen possesses unique or unusual skills or expertise that is urgently needed to support a specific USG contract involving access to specified classified information, and a cleared or clearable U.S. citizen is not readily available. The CSA will provide specific procedures for requesting an LAA, to include the need for approval by a GCA senior official.
</P>
<P>(2) An LAA granted under the provisions of this rule is not valid for access to:
</P>
<P>(i) TOP SECRET information.
</P>
<P>(ii) RD or FRD.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that has not been determined releasable by a USG designated disclosure authority to the country of which the individual is a citizen.
</P>
<P>(iv) Communications security (COMSEC) information.
</P>
<P>(v) Intelligence information.
</P>
<P>(vi) NATO information. Foreign nationals of a NATO member nation may be authorized access to NATO information provided:
</P>
<P>(A) The CSA obtains a NATO security clearance certificate from the individual's country of citizenship.
</P>
<P>(B) NATO access is limited to performance on a specific NATO contract.
</P>
<P>(vii) Information for which foreign disclosure has been prohibited in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(viii) Information provided to the USG in confidence by a third-party government.
</P>
<P>(ix) Classified information furnished by a third-party government.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Temporary eligibility for access to classified information.</I> In accordance with SEAD 8 (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/NCSC/documents/Regulations/SEAD-8_Temporary_Eligibility_U.pdf</I>), the CSA may grant temporary (previously called interim) eligibility for access to classified information, as appropriate, to applicants for access to TOP SECRET, SECRET, and CONFIDENTIAL information. This eligibility may only be granted if there is no evidence of adverse information that calls into question an individual's eligibility for access to classified information. If results are favorable following completion of full investigative requirements, the CSA will update the temporary eligibility determination for access to classified information to be final. In any case, a temporary eligibility determination shall not exceed one year unless approved by the applicable CSA in the system of record. Non-U.S. citizens are not eligible for access to classified information on a temporary basis.
</P>
<P>(1) A temporary SECRET or CONFIDENTIAL eligibility determination is valid for access to classified information at the level of the eligibility granted. Access to RD, COMSEC information, and NATO information requires a final SECRET eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(2) A temporary TOP SECRET eligibility determination is valid for access to TOP SECRET information. If an individual has a temporary TOP SECRET eligibility determination and has a final SECRET eligibility determination based on a previously completed investigation, the temporary TOP SECRET eligibility determination is valid for access to RD, NATO, and COMSEC information at the SECRET or CONFIDENTIAL level.
</P>
<P>(3) Access to SCI and SAP information based on a temporary eligibility determination is a determination made by the granting authority.
</P>
<P>(4) When a temporary eligibility determination has been made and derogatory information is subsequently developed, the CSA may withdraw the temporary eligibility pending completion of the processing that is a prerequisite to the final eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(5) When a temporary eligibility determination is withdrawn for an individual who is required to be eligible for access to classified information in connection with the entity eligibility determination for access to classified information, the contractor must remove the individual from access to classified information and any KMP position requiring PCL eligibility or the temporary entity eligibility determination will also be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(6) Withdrawal of a temporary eligibility determination is not a denial, termination, or revocation of eligibility under this rule and may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Consultants.</I> (1) A consultant will not access classified information off the premises of the using (hiring) contractor except in connection with authorized classified visits.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor may only assign a consultant outside the United States with responsibilities requiring access to classified information when:
</P>
<P>(i) The consultant agreement between the contractor and consultant includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Identification of the contract, license, or agreement that requires access to classified information, the level of classified information that is required, and access to FGI by the consultant while assigned outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(B) A formal agreement that prohibits the consultant from disclosing any classified information related to the contract, license, or agreement as required in paragraph (m)(i)(A) of this section to any party other than the USG or foreign government with which the consultant is meeting, and who possesses the requisite clearance and need to know.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consultant and the using contractor will jointly execute the consultant agreement setting forth respective security responsibilities. The contractor will retain an original signed copy of the agreement and will ensure its availability if requested by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor, in consultation with the applicable CSA as appropriate, will determine what threat briefing(s) the consultant should receive before the assignment, and conduct those briefings as part of the consultant's pre-assignment and recurring security training.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contractor provides notice of any changes to the consultant agreement to the applicable CSA during assessments or upon CSA request.
</P>
<P>(3) The using contractor will be the consumer of the consultant services as set forth in the consultant agreement.
</P>
<P>(4) For security administration purposes, a consultant will be considered an employee of the using contractor for compliance with this rule.
</P>
<P>(5) Consultants to GCAs are not under the purview of the NISP and will be processed for determination of eligibility by the GCA in accordance with GCA procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.11   Foreign Ownership, Control, or Influence (FOCI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Foreign investment can play an important role in maintaining the vitality of the U.S. industrial base. Therefore, it is the intent of the USG to allow foreign investment consistent with the national security interests of the United States. The following FOCI procedures for cleared U.S. entities are intended to mitigate the risks associated with FOCI by ensuring that foreign firms cannot undermine U.S. security to gain unauthorized access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) The CSA will consider a U.S. entity to be under FOCI when:
</P>
<P>(i) A foreign interest has the power to direct or decide issues affecting the entity's management or operations in a manner that could either:
</P>
<P>(A) Result in unauthorized access to classified information; or
</P>
<P>(B) Adversely affect performance of a classified contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign government is currently exercising, or could prospectively exercise, that power, whether directly or indirectly, such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Through ownership of the U.S. entity's securities, by contractual arrangements, or other means, or;
</P>
<P>(B) By the ability to control or influence the election or appointment of one or more members to the entity's governing board.
</P>
<P>(2) When the CSA has determined that an entity is under FOCI, the primary consideration will be the protection of classified information. The CSA will take whatever action is necessary to protect classified information, in coordination with other affected agencies as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) A U.S. entity that is in process for an entity eligibility determination for access to classified information and subsequently determined to be under FOCI is ineligible for access to classified information unless and until effective security measures have been put in place to negate or mitigate FOCI to the satisfaction of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(4) When a contractor determined to be under FOCI is negotiating an acceptable FOCI mitigation or negation measure in good faith, an existing entity eligibility determination may continue in effect so long as there is no indication that classified information is at risk of compromise in consultation with the applicable GCA. The applicable CSA may decide that circumstances involving the FOCI are such that the entity eligibility determination will be invalidated until implementation of an acceptable FOCI mitigation plan.
</P>
<P>(5) An existing entity eligibility determination will be invalidated if the contractor is unable or unwilling to negotiate and implement an acceptable FOCI mitigation or negation measure. An existing entity eligibility determination will be revoked if security measures cannot be taken to remove the possibility of unauthorized access to classified information or adverse effect on performance of classified contracts.
</P>
<P>(6) Changed conditions, such as a change in ownership, indebtedness, or a foreign intelligence threat, may justify certain adjustments to the security terms under which an entity is operating or, alternatively, that a different FOCI mitigation or negation method be employed. If a changed condition is of sufficient significance, it might also result in a determination that a contractor is no longer considered to be under FOCI, or, conversely, that a contractor is no longer eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(7) The USG reserves the right, and has the obligation, to impose any security method, safeguard, or restriction (including denial, termination or revocation of an entity eligibility determination) it believes necessary to ensure that unauthorized access to classified information is effectively precluded and performance of classified contracts is not adversely affected.
</P>
<P>(8) Nothing contained in this section affects the authority of a Federal agency head to limit, deny, or revoke access to classified information under its statutory, regulatory, or contract jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors.</I> Factors relating to the entity, relevant foreign interests, and the government of such foreign interests, as appropriate, will be considered in the aggregate to determine whether an applicant entity is under FOCI, its eligibility for access to classified information, and the protective measures required. These factors include:
</P>
<P>(1) Record of espionage against U.S. targets, either economic or government.
</P>
<P>(2) Record of enforcement actions against the entity for transferring technology without authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) Record of compliance with pertinent U.S. laws, regulations, and contracts or agreements.
</P>
<P>(4) Type and sensitivity of the information the entity would access.
</P>
<P>(5) Source, nature, and extent of FOCI, including whether foreign interests hold a majority or minority position in the entity, taking into consideration the immediate, intermediate, and ultimate parent entities.
</P>
<P>(6) Nature of any relevant bilateral and multilateral security and information exchange agreements.
</P>
<P>(7) Ownership or control, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, by a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other factor that indicates or demonstrates capability of foreign interests to control or influence the entity's operations or management.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> An entity is required to complete an SF 328 during the process for an entity eligibility determination or when significant changes occur to information previously submitted. In the case of a corporate family, the form may be a consolidated response rather than separate submissions from individual members of the corporate family based on CSA guidance.
</P>
<P>(1) If an entity provides any affirmative answers on the SF 328, or the CSA receives other information which indicates that the applicant entity may be under FOCI, the CSA will make a risk-based determination regarding the relative significance of the information in regard to:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the applicant is under FOCI.
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent and manner to which the FOCI represents a risk to the national security or may adversely impact classified contract performance.
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of actions, if any, that would be necessary to mitigate or negate the effects of FOCI to a level deemed acceptable to the USG. The CSA will advise entities on the CSA's appeal channels for disputing CSA FOCI determinations.
</P>
<P>(2) When an entity with a favorable eligibility determination enters into negotiations for the proposed merger, acquisition, or takeover by a foreign interest, the entity will submit notification to the CSA of the commencement of such negotiations.
</P>
<P>(i) The submission will include the type of transaction under negotiation (<I>e.g.,</I> stock purchase, asset purchase), the identity of the potential foreign interest investor, and a plan to negate or mitigate the FOCI by a method outlined in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity will submit copies of loan, purchase, and shareholder agreements, annual reports, bylaws, articles of incorporation, partnership agreements, other organizational documents, and reports filed with other Federal agencies to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FOCI action plans.</I> (1) When FOCI factors not related to ownership are present, the CSA will determine if positive measures will assure the CSA that the foreign interest can be effectively mitigated and cannot otherwise adversely affect performance on classified contracts. Examples of such measures include:
</P>
<P>(i) Modification or termination of loan agreements, contracts, and other understandings with foreign interests.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diversification or reduction of foreign-source income.
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstration of financial viability independent of foreign interests.
</P>
<P>(iv) Elimination or resolution of problem debt.
</P>
<P>(v) Assignment of specific oversight duties and responsibilities to board members.
</P>
<P>(vi) Formulation of special executive-level security committees to consider and oversee issues that affect the performance of classified contracts.
</P>
<P>(vii) Physical or organizational separation of the contractor component performing on classified contracts.
</P>
<P>(viii) Adoption of special board resolutions.
</P>
<P>(ix) Other actions that negate or mitigate foreign control or influence.
</P>
<P>(x) A combination of these methods, as determined by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(2) When FOCI factors related to ownership are present, methods the CSA may apply to negate or mitigate the risk of foreign ownership include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Board resolution.</I> (A) When a foreign interest does not possess voting interests sufficient to elect, or otherwise is not entitled to representation on the entity's governing board, a resolution(s) by the governing board may be adequate. In the resolution, the governing board will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identify the foreign shareholder.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Describe the type and number of foreign-owned shares.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Acknowledge the entity's obligation to comply with all industrial security program requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Certify that the foreign owner does not require, will not have, and can be effectively precluded from unauthorized access to all classified information entrusted to or held by the entity.
</P>
<P>(B) The governing board will provide for annual certifications to the CSA acknowledging the continued effectiveness of the resolution.
</P>
<P>(C) The entity will distribute to members of its governing board and to its KMP copies of such resolutions, and report in the entity's corporate records the completion of such distribution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Security control agreement (SCA).</I> When a foreign interest does not effectively own or control an entity (<I>i.e.,</I> the entity is under U.S. control), but the foreign interest is entitled to representation on the entity's governing board, an SCA may be adequate. At least one cleared U.S. citizen must serve as an outside director on the entity's governing board. There are no access limitations under an SCA.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>SSA.</I> When a foreign interest effectively owns or controls an entity, an SSA may be adequate. An SSA is an arrangement that, based upon an assessment of the source and nature of FOCI and FOCI factors, imposes various industrial security measures within an institutionalized set of entity practices and procedures. The SSA preserves the foreign owner's right to be represented on the entity's board or governing body with a direct voice in the entity's business management, while denying the foreign owner majority representation and unauthorized access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Requirement for a National Interest Determination (NID).</I> Unless otherwise prohibited by law or regulation (<I>e.g.,</I> Section 842 of Pub. L. 115-232), the applicable CSA must determine whether allowing an entity access to proscribed information under an SSA is consistent with national security interests of the U.S. with concurrence from controlling agencies, as applicable. Such NIDs will be made as part of an entity eligibility determination or because of a changed condition when a GCA requires an entity to have access to proscribed information and the CSA proposes an SSA as the mitigation measure. The NID can be program, project, or contract specific.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>NID process:</I> (<I>1</I>) The CSA makes a NID for TOP SECRET or SAP information to which the entity requires access. Contractors should be aware that DOE Order 470.4B provides additional information and requirements for processing NID requests for access to RD.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In cases in which any category of the proscribed information is controlled by another agency (ODNI for SCI, DOE for RD, the National Security Agency (NSA) for COMSEC), the CSA asks that controlling agency to concur or non-concur on the NID for that category of information.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The CSA informs the GCA and the entity when the NID is complete. In cases involving SCI, RD, or COMSEC, the CSA also informs the GCA and the entity when a controlling agency concurs or non-concurs on that agency's category of proscribed information. The entity may begin accessing a category of proscribed information once the CSA informs the GCA and the entity that the controlling agency concurs, even if other categories of proscribed information are pending concurrence.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An entity's access to SCI, RD, or COMSEC remains in effect so long as the entity remains eligible for access to classified information and the contract or agreement (or program or project) which imposes the requirement for access to those categories of proscribed information remains in effect, except under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The CSA, GCA, or controlling agency becomes aware of adverse information that impacts the entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The CSA's threat assessment pertaining to the entity indicates a risk to one of the categories of proscribed information.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The CSA becomes aware of any material change regarding the source, nature, and extent of FOCI.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The entity's record of NISP compliance, based on CSA reviews, becomes less than satisfactory. Consult DOE Order 470.4B for additional information and requirements for processing NID requests for access to RD.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Under any of the circumstances in paragraphs (d)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>4</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (d)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>4</I>)(<I>iv</I>) in this section, the CSA determines whether the entity remains eligible for access to classified information, it must change the FOCI mitigation measure in order to remain eligible for access to classified information, or the CSA must terminate or revoke the access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) When an entity is eligible for access to classified information that includes a favorable NID for SCI, RD, or COMSEC, the CSA does not have to request a new NID concurrence for the same entity if the access to classified information requirements for the relevant category of proscribed information and terms remain unchanged for:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Renewing the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) New task orders issued under the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A new contract or agreement that contains the same provisions as the previous one (this usually applies when the contract or agreement is for a program or project.)
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Renewing the SSA.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Under certain conditions, entities under an SSA may not require a NID for one or more categories of proscribed information in accordance with CSA-provided guidance. Categories of proscribed information for entities under SSAs not requiring a NID will be recorded in the CSA's system of record for entity eligibility determinations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Voting Trust (VT) or Proxy Agreement (PA).</I> The VT and the PA are arrangements that vest the voting rights of the foreign-owned stock in cleared U.S. citizens approved by the USG. Under a VT, the foreign owner transfers legal title its ownership interests in the entity to the trustees. Under a PA, the foreign owner's voting rights are conveyed to the proxy holders. Neither arrangement imposes any restrictions on the entity's eligibility to have access to classified information or to compete for classified contracts.
</P>
<P>(A) Establishment of a VT or PA involves the selection of trustees or proxy holders, all of whom must become members of the entity's governing board. Both arrangements must provide for the exercise of all prerogatives of ownership by the trustees or proxy holders with complete freedom to act independently from the foreign owners, except as provided in the VT or PA. The arrangements may limit the authority of the trustees or proxy holders by requiring approval be obtained from the foreign owner with respect to issues such as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sale or disposal of the entity's assets or a substantial part thereof.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pledges, mortgages, or other encumbrances on the entity's assets, capital stock, or ownership interests.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Mergers, consolidations, or reorganizations.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Dissolution.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Filing of a bankruptcy petition.
</P>
<P>(B) The trustees or proxy holders may consult with the foreign owner, or vice versa, where otherwise consistent with U.S. laws, regulations, and the terms of the VT or PA.
</P>
<P>(C) The trustees or proxy holders assume full responsibility for the foreign owner's voting interests and for exercising all governance and management prerogatives relating thereto to ensure the foreign owner will be insulated from the entity, thereby solely retaining the status of a beneficiary. The entity must be organized, structured, and financed to be capable of operating as a viable business entity and independent from the foreign owners' interests that required FOCI mitigation or negation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Combination measures.</I> The CSA may apply combinations of the measures in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (d)(2)(iv) in this section or other similar measures that effectively mitigate or negate the risks involved with foreign ownership.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited entity eligibility determination due to FOCI.</I> In accordance with the provisions of this section and CSA-provided guidance, a limited entity eligibility determination may be an option for a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance for entities under FOCI without mitigation or negation. Limitations on access to classified information are inherent with the granting of limited entity eligibility determinations and are imposed upon all of the entity's employees regardless of citizenship.
</P>
<P>(1) In exceptional circumstances, when an entity is under FOCI, the CSA may decide that a limited entity eligibility determination is appropriate when the entity is unable or unwilling to implement FOCI mitigation or negation measures, and the conditions in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section are met. This is not the same as a limited entity eligibility determination for purposes not related to FOCI. Information on limited entity eligibility determinations for purposes other than FOCI can be found in § 117.9(m). A CSA may decide that a limited entity eligibility is appropriate for an entity under FOCI if:
</P>
<P>(i) The limited entity eligibility determination is in accordance with national security interests and a GCA has informed the CSA that access to classified information by the contractor is essential to contract or agreement performance.
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an industrial security agreement with the foreign government of the country from which the FOCI is derived.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor meets all other entity eligibility requirements outlined in § 117.9(c) except that KMP, other than the FSO, may be citizens of the country from which the FOCI derives and the United States has obtained security assurances at the appropriate level from that country.
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. subsidiary of a foreign entity may be sponsored for a limited entity eligibility determination by a foreign government when the foreign government desires to award a contract or agreement to the U.S. subsidiary that involves access to only that classified information for which the foreign government is the OCA.
</P>
<P>(3) Limited entity eligibility determinations are specific to the classified information for the requesting GCA or foreign government and the single narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance the request was based on. The limited entity eligibility determination will only be verified to that GCA or foreign government for the authorized level of access to classified information and any limitations to that access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(4) A limited entity eligibility determination is not an option for contractors that require access to proscribed information when a foreign government has ownership or control over the entity.
</P>
<P>(5) Release of classified information must be in conformity with the U.S. National Disclosure Policy-1 (provided to designated disclosure authorities on a need-to-know basis from the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Policy, Defense Technology Security Administration).
</P>
<P>(6) A limited entity eligibility determination will be administratively terminated when there is no longer a need for the contractor to access the classified information for which it was sponsored. Administrative termination of one limited entity eligibility determination does not impact a contractor's other limited entity eligibility determinations.
</P>
<P>(7) If there is no industrial security agreement with the foreign government of the country from which the FOCI is derived, in extraordinary circumstances, a limited entity eligibility determination may also be granted if there is a compelling need to do so consistent with U.S. national security interests and the GCA has informed the applicable CSA that access to classified information by the contractor is essential to contract or agreement performance. Under this circumstance, the entity must follow all provisions of this rule.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualifications of trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors.</I> Individuals who serve as trustees, proxy holders, or outside directors must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Trustees and proxy holders must be resident U.S. citizens who can exercise governance and management prerogatives relating to their position in a way that ensures that the foreign owner can be effectively insulated from the entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Outside directors must be resident U.S. citizens who can exercise governance and management prerogatives relating to their position in a way that ensures that the foreign owner can be effectively separated from the entity's classified work.
</P>
<P>(3) New trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors must be completely disinterested individuals with no prior involvement with the entity, the entities with which it is affiliated, or the foreign owner.
</P>
<P>(4) The CSA may consider other circumstances that may affect an individual's eligibility to serve effectively including the number of boards on which the individual serves, the length of time serving on any other governance boards, and other factors in accordance with CSA-provided guidance.
</P>
<P>(5) Trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors must be determined eligible for access to classified information at the level of the entity eligibility determination for access to classified information. Individuals who are serving as trustees, proxy holders, or outside directors as part of a mitigation measure for the entity are not considered to have prior involvement solely by performing that role for purposes of paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Government security committee (GSC).</I> Under a VT, PA, SSA, or SCA, the contractor is required to establish a permanent committee of its board of directors, known as the GSC.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise approved by the CSA, the GSC consists of trustees, proxy holders, or outside directors and those officer directors who have been determined to be eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The members of the GSC are required to ensure that the contractor adheres to laws and regulations and maintains internal entity policies and procedures to safeguard classified information entrusted to it. The GSC ensures that violations of those policies and procedures are promptly investigated and reported to the appropriate authority when it has been determined that a violation has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor's FSO will be the principal advisor to the GSC and attend GSC meetings. The chairman of the GSC must concur with the appointment and replacement of FSOs selected by management. The FSO functions will be carried out under the authority of the GSC.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Additional procedures for FOCI mitigation or negation measures.</I> In addition to the basic requirements of the FOCI mitigation or negation agreement, the entity may be required to document and implement additional procedures based upon the circumstances of an entity's operations. Those additional procedures will be established in supplements to the FOCI mitigation agreement to allow for flexibility as circumstances change without having to renegotiate the entire agreement. When making use of supplements, the CSA does not consider the FOCI mitigation measure final until the CSA has approved the required supplements. These supplements may include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Technology control plan (TCP).</I> A TCP approved by the CSA will be developed and implemented by those entities cleared under a VT, PA, SSA and SCA and when otherwise deemed appropriate by the CSA. The TCP will prescribe all security measures determined necessary to reasonably prevent the possibility of access by non-U.S. citizen employees and visitors to information for which they are not authorized. The TCP will also prescribe measures designed to assure that access by non-U.S. citizens is strictly limited to only that specific information for which appropriate USG disclosure authorization has been obtained, <I>e.g.,</I> an approved export license or technical assistance agreement. Unique badging, escort, segregated work area, security indoctrination schemes, and other measures will be included, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic communications plan (ECP).</I> The contractor will develop and implement an ECP, subject to CSA approval, tailored to the contractor's operations to verify that electronic controls are in place for clear technical and logical separation of electronic communications and networks between the contractor, the foreign interest, and its affiliates. The purpose is to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of classified information to the foreign parent or its affiliates. The contractor will include in the ECP a detailed network description and configuration diagram that clearly delineates which networks will be shared and which will be protected from access by the foreign parent or its affiliates. The network description will address firewalls, remote administration, monitoring, maintenance, and separate email servers, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliated operations plan.</I> There may be circumstances when the parties to a transaction propose in the FOCI action plan that the U.S. contractor provides certain services for the foreign interest or enters into arrangements with the foreign interest, or the foreign interest provides services for or enters into arrangements with the U.S. contractor. In such circumstances, the contractor will document a plan, subject to CSA approval, outlining the entity's consolidated policies and procedures regarding the control of affiliated operations, regardless of whether such endeavors are administrative, operational, or commercial, performed directly or through third-party service providers, within the entity, or among any of the entity's controlled entities, or the foreign interest and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facilities location plan.</I> When a contractor is potentially collocated with or in close proximity to its foreign parent or an affiliate, the contractor will prepare a facilities location plan to assist the CSA in determining if the contractor is collocated or if the close proximity can be allowed under the FOCI mitigation plan. A U.S. entity generally cannot be collocated with the foreign parent or affiliate, <I>i.e.,</I> at the same address or in the same location.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual review and certification</I>—(1) <I>Annual review.</I> The CSA will meet at least annually, and otherwise as required by circumstances, with the GSCs of contractors operating under a VT, PA, SSA, or SCA to review the purpose and effectiveness of the clearance arrangement and to establish a common understanding of the operating requirements and their implementation. These reviews will include an examination of:
</P>
<P>(i) Acts of compliance or noncompliance with the approved security arrangement, standard rules, and applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Problems or impediments associated with the practical application or utility of the security arrangement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether security controls, practices, or procedures warrant adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual certification.</I> For contractors operating under a VT, PA, SSA, or SCA, the chairman of the GSC will submit to the CSA one year from the effective date of the agreement and annually thereafter, an implementation and compliance report. Such reports will include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the manner in which the contractor is carrying out its obligations under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes to security procedures, implemented or proposed, and the reasons for those changes.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of any acts of noncompliance, whether inadvertent or intentional, with a discussion of remedial measures, including steps taken to prevent such acts from recurring.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any changes, or impending changes, of KMP or key board members, including the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(v) Any changes or impending changes in the organizational structure or ownership, including any reorganizations, acquisitions, mergers, or divestitures.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other issues that could have a bearing on the effectiveness of the applicable agreement.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transactions involving foreign persons, and the Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States (CFIUS).</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The CFIUS is a USG interagency committee chaired by the Treasury Department that conducts assessments, reviews and investigations of transactions that could result in foreign control of a U.S. business, and certain non-controlling investments and certain real estate transactions involving foreign persons under 50 U.S.C. 4565.
</P>
<P>(2) In CFIUS cases where the acquired U.S. business requires access to classified information, the CFIUS assessment, review or investigation, as applicable, and the CSA industrial security FOCI review are carried out in parallel, but are separate processes with different time constraints and considerations.
</P>
<P>(3) The CSA will promptly advise the parties in a transaction under CFIUS review that would require FOCI negation or mitigation measures if consummated, to submit to the CSA a plan to negate or mitigate FOCI. If it appears that an agreement cannot be reached on material terms of a FOCI action plan, or if the U.S. person that is a party, or in applicable cases, a subject of the proposed transaction fails to comply with the FOCI reporting requirements of this rule, the CSA may recommend a full investigation of the transaction by the CFIUS to determine the effects on national security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.12   Security training and briefings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Contractors will provide all cleared employees with security training and briefings commensurate with their involvement with classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training materials.</I> Contractors may obtain security, threat awareness, and other education and training information and material from their CSA or other sources.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government provided briefings.</I> The CSA is responsible for providing initial security briefings to the FSO and for ensuring other briefings required for special categories of information are provided to the FSO.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FSO training.</I> Contractors will ensure the FSO and others performing security duties complete training considered appropriate by the CSA. Training requirements will be based on the contractor's involvement with classified information. Training may include an FSO orientation course, and for FSOs at contractor locations with a classified information safeguarding capability, an FSO program management course. Contractor FSOs will complete training within six months of appointment to the position of FSO. When determined by the applicable CSA, contractor FSOs must complete an FSO program management course within six months of the CSA approval to store classified information at the contractor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initial security briefings.</I> Prior to being granted access to classified information, contractors will provide employees with an initial security briefing that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Threat awareness, including insider threat awareness in accordance with paragraph (g) in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Counterintelligence (CI) awareness.
</P>
<P>(3) Overview of the information security classification system.
</P>
<P>(4) Reporting obligations and requirements, including insider threat.
</P>
<P>(5) Cybersecurity training for all authorized information system users in accordance with CSA-provided guidance pursuant to § 117.18(a)(1) and (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(6) Security procedures and duties applicable to the employee's position requirements (<I>e.g.</I> marking and safeguarding of classified information) and criminal, civil, or administrative consequences that may result from the unauthorized disclosure of classified information, even though the individual has not yet signed an NDA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CUI training.</I> While outside the requirements of the NISPOM, when a classified contract includes provisions for CUI training, contractors will comply with those contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insider threat training.</I> The designated ITPSO will ensure that contractor program personnel assigned insider threat program responsibilities and all other cleared employees complete training consistent with applicable CSA provided guidance.
</P>
<P>(1) The contractor will provide training to insider threat program personnel, including the contractor's designated ITPSO, on:
</P>
<P>(i) CI and security fundamentals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures for conducting insider threat response actions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable laws and regulations regarding the gathering, integration, retention, safeguarding, and use of records and data, including the consequences of misuse of such information.
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicable legal, civil liberties, and privacy policies and requirements applicable to insider threat programs.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor will provide insider threat awareness training to all cleared employees on an annual basis. Depending upon CSA specific guidance, a CSA may instead conduct such training. The contractor must provide all newly cleared employees with insider threat awareness training before granting access to classified information. Training will address current and potential threats in the work and personal environment and will include at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The importance of detecting potential insider threats by cleared employees and reporting suspected activity to the insider threat program designee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Methodologies of adversaries to recruit trusted insiders and collect classified information, in particular within information systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) Indicators of insider threat behavior and procedures to report such behavior.
</P>
<P>(iv) CI and security reporting requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor will establish procedures to validate all cleared employees who have completed the initial and annual insider threat training.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Derivative classification</I>—(1) <I>Initial training.</I> The contractor will ensure all employees authorized to make derivative classification decisions are trained in the proper application of the derivative classification principles, in accordance with CSA direction. Employees are not authorized to conduct derivative classification until they receive such training.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Refresher training.</I> In addition to the initial training, contractors will ensure all employees who conduct derivative classification receive training at least once every two years. Contractors will suspend an employee's derivative classification authority for any employee who does not receive such training at least once every two years. Training will emphasize the avoidance of over-classification and address:
</P>
<P>(i) Classification levels.
</P>
<P>(ii) Duration of classification.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification and markings.
</P>
<P>(iv) Classification prohibitions and limitations.
</P>
<P>(v) Sanctions and classification challenges.
</P>
<P>(vi) Security classification guides.
</P>
<P>(vii) Information sharing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record of training.</I> Contractors will retain records of the date of the most recent training (initial or refresher) and type of training provided to employees.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Information systems security.</I> All information system authorized users will receive training on the security risks associated with their user activities and responsibilities under the NISP. The contractor will determine the appropriate content of the training, taking into consideration assigned roles and responsibilities, specific security requirements, and the information system to which personnel are authorized access.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Temporary help suppliers.</I> A cleared temporary help supplier, or other contractor who employs cleared individuals solely for dispatch elsewhere, will be responsible for ensuring that required briefings (both initial and refresher training) are provided to their cleared personnel. The temporary help supplier or the using contractor may conduct these briefings.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Refresher training.</I> The contractor will provide all cleared employees with security education and training every 12 months. Refresher training will reinforce the information provided during the initial security briefing and will keep cleared employees informed of changes in security regulations and should also address issues or concerns identified during contractor self-reviews. Training methods may include group briefings, interactive videos, dissemination of instructional materials, or other media and methods. Contractors will maintain records about the programs offered and employee participation in them.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Debriefings.</I> Contractors will debrief cleared employees and annotate the debriefing in the appropriate contractor records when access to classified information is no longer needed; at the time of termination of employment (discharge, resignation, or retirement); when an employee's eligibility for access to classified information is terminated, suspended, or revoked; and upon termination of the entity eligibility determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.13   Classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Original classification.</I> Only a USG official designated or delegated the authority in writing can make an original classification decision.
</P>
<P>(1) An OCA classifies information pursuant to E.O. 13526 and 32 CFR part 2001, designates and marks it as TOP SECRET, SECRET, or CONFIDENTIAL, and, except as provided by statute, may use no other terms to identify classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The designation UNCLASSIFIED is used to identify information that does not meet the criteria for classification in accordance with E.O. 13526. In accordance with 32 CFR 2002, CUI implementing guidance (including the Marking Handbook) and any GCA-provided guidance, CUI commingled with classified information must be marked as CUI to alert users to its presence and sensitivity. The CUI regulation, guidance, and handbook are available at: <I>https://www.archives.gov/cui.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivative classification.</I> (1) Contractor personnel make derivative classification decisions when they incorporate, paraphrase, restate, or generate in new form, information that is already classified. They must mark the newly developed material consistently with the classification markings that apply to the source information.
</P>
<P>(2) Derivative classification is the classification of information based on guidance from an OCA, which may be either a properly marked source document or a current security classification guide provided by a GCA in accordance with E.O. 13526. The duplication or reproduction of existing classified information is not derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(3) A source document that does not contain portion markings, due to an ISOO-approved waiver, must contain a warning statement that it may not be used as a source for derivative classification in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.24(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) Classified information in email messages is marked pursuant to E.O. 13526 and 32 CFR part 2001. If an email is transmitted on a classified system, includes a classified attachment, and contains no classified information within the body of the email itself, the email serves as a transmittal document and is not a derivatively classified document. The email's overall classification must reflect the highest classification level present in the attachment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Derivative classification responsibilities.</I> Contractors will provide employees with pertinent classification guidance to fulfill their derivative classification responsibilities. All contractor employees authorized to make derivative classification decisions will:
</P>
<P>(1) Mark the face of each derivatively classified document with a classification authority block that includes the employee's name and position or personal identifier, the entity name, and when applicable, the division or the branch.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Figure 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1) Example of Industry Classification Authority Block
</P><P class="gpotbl_description"><E T="02">UNCLASSIFIED: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS FOR ILLUSTRATION PURPOSES ONLY</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Classified by: John Doe, Security Specialist, Entity ABC Security Division
<br/>Derived From: SecDef Memo, dtd 20101024, Subj: ______
<br/>Declassify On: 20201024</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Observe and respect original classification decisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Carry forward the pertinent classification markings to any newly created documents. For information derivatively classified based on multiple sources, the derivative classifier will carry forward:
</P>
<P>(i) The date or event for declassification that corresponds to the longest period of classification among the sources.
</P>
<P>(ii) A listing of the source materials.
</P>
<P>(4) Be trained, in accordance with § 117.12(h), in the proper application of the derivative classification principles at least once every two years.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever possible, use a classified addendum if classified information constitutes a small portion of an otherwise unclassified document.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Security classification guidance.</I> (1) Contractors should be aware the GCA will:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate appropriate security requirement clauses in a classified contract, IFB, RFP, RFQ, or all solicitations leading to a classified contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the contractor with the security classification guidance needed during performance of the contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide this guidance to the contractor in the contract security classification specification, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) The contract security classification specification, or equivalent, must identify the specific elements of classified information involved in the contract that require security protection.
</P>
<P>(3) At the discretion of the CSA, contractors may, to the extent possible, advise and assist in the development and any updates to or any revisions to the contract security classification specification, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor will comply with all aspects of the classification guidance.
</P>
<P>(i) Users of classification guides are encouraged to notify the originator of the guide when they acquire information that suggests the need for change in the instructions contained in the guide.
</P>
<P>(ii) Classification guidance is the exclusive responsibility of the GCA, and the final determination of the appropriate classification for the information rests with that activity. The contract security classification specification, or equivalent, is a contractual specification necessary for the performance of a classified contract. Challenges to classification status are in paragraph (e) in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the contractor receives a classified contract without a contract security classification specification, or equivalent, the contractor will notify the GCA. If the GCA does not respond with the appropriate contract security classification specification, or equivalent, the contractor will notify the CSA.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon completion of a classified contract, the contractor must return all USG provided or deliverable information to the custody of the USG.
</P>
<P>(i) If the GCA does not advise to the contrary, the contractor may retain copies of the USG material for a period of two years following the completion of the contract. The contract security classification specification, or equivalent, will continue in effect for this two-year period.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the GCA determines the contractor has a continuing need for the copies of the USG material beyond the two-year period, the GCA will issue a final contract security classification specification, or equivalent, for the classified contract and will include disposition instructions for the copies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Challenges to classification status.</I> (1) The contractor will address challenges to classification status with the GCA and request remedy when:
</P>
<P>(i) Information is classified improperly or unnecessarily.
</P>
<P>(ii) Current security considerations justify downgrading to a lower classification level or upgrading to a higher classification level.
</P>
<P>(iii) Security classification guidance is not provided, improper or inadequate.
</P>
<P>(2) If the GCA does not provide a remedy, and the contractor still believes that corrective action is required, the contractor will make a formal written challenge to the GCA. The challenge will include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description sufficient to identify the issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons why the contractor thinks that corrective action is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommendations for appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor will safeguard the information as required for its assigned or proposed level of classification, whichever is higher, until action is completed.
</P>
<P>(4) If the contractor does not receive a written answer from the GCA within 60 days, the contractor will request assistance from the CSA. If the contractor does not receive a response from the GCA within 120 days, the contractor may appeal the challenge to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel through ISOO.
</P>
<P>(5) The fact that a contractor has initiated such a challenge will not, in any way, serve as a basis for adverse action against the contractor by the USG. If a contractor believes that adverse action did result from a classification challenge, the contractor will promptly furnish full details to ISOO for resolution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractor developed information.</I> Whenever a contractor develops an unsolicited proposal or originates information not in the performance of a classified contract, the provisions of this paragraph apply.
</P>
<P>(1) If the information was previously identified as classified, it will be classified according to an appropriate classification guide, or source document, and appropriately marked.
</P>
<P>(2) If the information was not previously classified, but the contractor believes the information may or should be classified, the contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Protect the information as though classified at the appropriate level.
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit the information to the agency that has an interest for a classification determination. In such cases, clearly mark the material “CLASSIFICATION DETERMINATION PENDING; Protect as either TOP SECRET, SECRET, or CONFIDENTIAL.” This marking will appear conspicuously at least once on the material but no further markings are necessary until a classification determination is received.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be precluded from marking such material as entity-private or entity-proprietary information, unless the material was based upon information obtained from prior deliverables to the USG or was developed from USG material.
</P>
<P>(iv) Protect the information pending a final classification determination. The information may be CUI, if it is not classified. Only information that is owned by, produced by, produced for, or is under the control of the USG can be classified in accordance with E.O. 13526.
</P>
<P>(3) To be eligible for classification:
</P>
<P>(i) The information must incorporate classified information to which the contractor was given prior access.
</P>
<P>(ii) The information must be partially or wholly owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the USG.
</P>
<P>(4) 10 CFR 1045.21 includes provisions for the DOE with regard to privately generated RD, whereby the DOE may classify such information in accordance with the AEA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Improperly released classified information appearing in public media.</I> Improperly released classified information is not automatically declassified. When classified information has been improperly released, and even when that classified information has become publicly available, contractors will:
</P>
<P>(1) Continue to protect the information at the appropriate classification level until formally advised to the contrary by the GCA.
</P>
<P>(2) Bring any questions about the propriety of continued classification in these cases to the immediate attention of the GCA.
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the applicable CSA if an employee downloads the improperly released classified information to determine how to resolve a data spill.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Downgrading or declassifying classified information.</I> Information is downgraded or declassified based on the loss of sensitivity of the information due to the passage of time or on occurrence of a specific event. Downgrading or declassifying actions constitute implementation of a directed action based on a review by either the OCA or the USG-designated classification authority. Declassification is not an approval for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Downgrading.</I> Contractors will refer information for classification or downgrade to the GCA based on the guidance provided in a contract security classification specification, or equivalent, or upon formal notification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Declassification.</I> Contractors are not authorized to implement downgrading or declassification instructions even when the material is marked for automatic downgrading or declassification. If the material is marked for automatic declassification and the contractor notes that the date or event for the automatic declassification has occurred, the contractor will seek guidance from the GCA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>RD, FRD, and TFNI.</I> Protection requirements for RD, FRD, and TFNI are pursuant to § 117.23(e). Information about classification and declassification of RD, FRD, or TFNI documents is in § 117.23(e)(5).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.14   Marking requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose for marking.</I> (1) Physically marking classified information with appropriate classification markings serves to warn and inform holders of the information of the degree of protection required. Other notations facilitate downgrading and declassification, and aid in derivative classification actions.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors will clearly mark all classified information and material to convey to the holder the level of classification assigned, the portions that contain or reveal classified information, the period of time protection is required, the identity (by name and position or personal identifier) of the classifier, the source(s) for derivative classification, and any other notations required for protection of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marking guidance for classified information and material.</I> Contractors will use the marking guidance conveyed in 32 CFR 2001.22 through 2001.26, and its companion document, ISOO booklet “Marking Classified National Security Information,” (available at: <I>https://www.archives.gov/isoo/training/training-aids</I>) or CSA specific provided guidance for marking derivatively classified information and material and as required by applicable security classification guide. The special requirements for marking documents containing RD, FRD, and TFNI are addressed in § 117.23.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Marking guidance for CUI.</I> Contractors will use marking guidance conveyed in 32 CFR 2002.20, the CUI Marking Handbook (available at: <I>https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/documents/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1-20190524.pdf</I>), and agency policy to mark CUI in accordance with contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Working papers.</I> Working papers will be marked, destroyed, and retained in accordance with § 117.15(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Translations.</I> The contractor will mark translations of U.S. classified information into a language other than English with the appropriate U.S. markings and the foreign language equivalent to show the United States as the country of origin.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Marking wholly unclassified material.</I> The contractor will not mark or stamp wholly UNCLASSIFIED material as UNCLASSIFIED unless it is essential to convey to a recipient of such material that:
</P>
<P>(1) The material has been examined specifically with a view to impose a security classification and has been determined not to require classification by the GCA.
</P>
<P>(2) The material has been reviewed and has been determined to no longer require classification and it has been declassified by the applicable GCA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Marking miscellaneous material.</I> The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(1) Handle miscellaneous material developed in connection with the handling, processing, production, storage, and utilization of classified information in a manner that ensures adequate protection of the classified information involved.
</P>
<P>(2) Destroy the miscellaneous material at the earliest practical time, unless a requirement exists to retain such material. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, there is no requirement for the contractor to mark such material, but disposition and retention requirements in § 117.15(i) and (j) apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Marking training material.</I> The contractor will clearly mark unclassified documents or materials that are created to simulate or demonstrate classified documents or material to indicate the actual UNCLASSIFIED status of the information. For example, the contractor may use: MARKINGS ARE FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY, OTHERWISE UNCLASSIFIED or UNCLASSIFIED SAMPLE, or other similar marking.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Downgrading or declassification actions.</I> When a contractor removes documents or material that have been downgraded or declassified from storage for use or for transmittal outside the contractor location:
</P>
<P>(1) The documents or material must be re-marked pursuant to paragraph (i)(1)(i) or (i)(1)(ii) in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to taking any action to downgrade or declassify information, the contractor will seek guidance from the GCA. If the GCA approves such action, the contractor will cancel all old classification markings with the new markings substituted, whenever practical. For documents, at a minimum the outside of the front cover, the title page, the first page, and the outside of the back will reflect the new classification markings, or include the designation UNCLASSIFIED. The contractor will re-mark other material by the most practical method for the type of material involved to ensure that it is clear to the holder what level of classification is assigned to the material.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the GCA notifies contractors of downgrading or declassification actions that are contrary to the markings shown on the material, the contractor will re-mark material to indicate the change and notify other holders if further dissemination was made. The contractor will mark the material to indicate the:
</P>
<P>(A) Authority for the action.
</P>
<P>(B) Date of the action.
</P>
<P>(C) Identity and position of the individual taking the action.
</P>
<P>(2) If the volume of material is such that prompt re-marking of each classified item cannot be accomplished without unduly interfering with operations, the contractor may attach a downgrading and declassification notice to the inside of the file drawers or other storage container instead of the re-marking otherwise required.
</P>
<P>(3) When such documents or materials are withdrawn from the container solely for transfer to another container, or when the container is transferred from one place to another, the transfer may be made without re-marking if the notice is attached to the new container or remains with each shipment.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purpose of paragraphs (i)(2) and (i)(3) in this section, the contractor must include in the downgrading and declassification notice:
</P>
<P>(i) The authority for the downgrading or declassification action.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the action.
</P>
<P>(iii) The storage container to which it applies.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Upgrading action.</I> (1) When the contractor receives notice from the GCA to upgrade material to a higher level; for example, from CONFIDENTIAL to SECRET, the contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately enter the new markings on the material according to the notice to upgrade, and strike through all the superseded markings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter the authority for and the date of the upgrading action on the material.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure all records affected are stored at the appropriate level of security, including digital networks and systems. Upgrades requiring network or system adjustment will be coordinated with the GCA to mitigate or account for impact on the execution of the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor will notify all holders to whom they disseminated the material. The contractor will not mark the notice as classified unless it contains additional information warranting classification.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of material which was inadvertently released as UNCLASSIFIED, the contractor will mark and protect the notice as classified at the CONFIDENTIAL level, unless it contains additional information warranting a higher classification. The contractor will cite the applicable Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, or other classification guide on the “Derived From” line and mark the notice with an appropriate declassification instruction.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Dissemination of improperly marked information.</I> If the contractor inadvertently distributes classified material without the proper classification assigned to it, or without any markings to identify the material as classified, as appropriate, the contractor will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether all holders of the material are cleared and authorized access to it.
</P>
<P>(2) If recipients are authorized persons, and the contractor disseminated the information through authorized channels, promptly provide written notice to all holders of the proper classification to be assigned. The contractor will also include the classification source as well as declassification instructions in the notification.
</P>
<P>(3) Report compromises to the CSA in accordance with the provisions of § 117.8(d), if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the recipients of the material are not authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material cannot be accounted for.
</P>
<P>(iii) The material was transmitted through unauthorized channels.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Marking foreign government classified material.</I> Foreign government classified information will retain its original classification markings or will be assigned a U.S. classification that provides a degree of protection at least equivalent to that required by the foreign government entity that furnished the information in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.54. The equivalent U.S. classification and the country of origin will be marked on the front and back in English.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Foreign government restricted information and “in confidence” information.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Some foreign governments have a fourth level of classification that does not correspond to an equivalent U.S. classification that is identified as RESTRICTED information. In many cases, security agreements require RESTRICTED information to be protected as U.S. CONFIDENTIAL information.
</P>
<P>(2) Some foreign governments may have a category of unclassified information that is protected by law. This latter category is normally provided to other governments with the expectation that the information will be treated “In Confidence.” The foreign government or international organization must state that the information is provided in confidence and that it must be protected from release.
</P>
<P>(i) 10 U.S.C. 130c protects information provided “In Confidence” by foreign governments which is not classified but meets special requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) This provision also applies to RESTRICTED information which is not required by an agreement to be protected as classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor will not disclose information protected by this statutory provision to anyone except personnel who require access to the information in connection with the contract.
</P>
<P>(3) It is the responsibility of the foreign entity that awards the contract to incorporate requirements for the protection and marking of RESTRICTED or “In Confidence” information in the contract. The contractor will advise the CSA if requirements were not provided by the foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Marking U.S. documents containing FGI.</I> (1) U.S. documents containing FGI must be marked on the front, “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS (indicate country of origin) INFORMATION.” In addition, the portions must be marked to identify both the country and classification level, (<I>e.g.,</I> (UK-C), (GE-C)). The “Derived From” line will identify U.S. as well as foreign classification sources.
</P>
<P>(2) If the identity of the foreign government must be concealed, the front of the document will be marked “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS FOREIGN GOVERNMENT INFORMATION;” paragraphs will be marked FGI, together with the classification level (<I>e.g.,</I> (FGI-C)); and the “Derived From” line will indicate FGI in addition to any U.S. source. The identity of the foreign government will be maintained with the record copy of the document.
</P>
<P>(3) A U.S. document that contains FGI will not be downgraded below the highest level of FGI contained in the document or be declassified without the written approval of the foreign government that originated the information. Recommendations concerning downgrading or declassification will be submitted to the GCA or foreign government contracting authority, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Marking documents prepared for foreign governments.</I> Documents prepared for foreign governments that contain U.S. classified information and FGI will be marked as prescribed by the foreign government. In addition, they will be marked on the front, “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS UNITED STATES CLASSIFIED INFORMATION.” Portions will be marked to identify the U.S. classified information.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Marking requirements for transfers of defense articles to Australia (AUS) or the United Kingdom (UK).</I> Marking requirements for transfers of defense articles to AUS or the UK without a license or other written authorization are pursuant to § 117.19(i).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Commingling of RD and FRD.</I> Commingling of RD, FRD, and TFNI with national security information (NSI) in the same document should be avoided to the greatest degree possible. When mixing this information cannot be avoided, the marking requirements in 10 CFR part 1045, section 140(f) and declassification requirements of 10 CFR part 1045, section 155 apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.15   Safeguarding classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General safeguarding.</I> Contractors will be responsible for safeguarding classified information in their custody or under their control, with approval for such storage of classified information by the applicable CSA. Individuals are responsible for safeguarding classified information entrusted to them. Contractors will provide the extent of protection to classified information sufficient to reasonably protect it from loss or compromise.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Oral discussions.</I> Contractors will ensure that all cleared personnel are aware of the prohibition against discussing classified information over unsecured telephones, in public conveyances or places, or in any other manner that permits interception by unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>End of day security checks.</I> (i) Contractors that store classified material will establish a system of security checks at the close of each working day to verify that all classified material and security repositories have been appropriately secured.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors that operate multiple work shifts will perform the security checks at the end of the last working shift in which classified material was removed from storage for use. The checks are not required during continuous 24-hour operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Perimeter controls.</I> (i) Contractors authorized to store classified material will establish and maintain a system to deter and detect unauthorized introduction or removal of classified material from their facility without proper authority.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unauthorized introduction or removal of classified material can be reasonably prevented through technical means (<I>e.g.,</I> an intrusion detection system), which are encouraged, no further controls are necessary. The contractor will provide appropriate authorization to personnel who have a legitimate need to remove or transport classified material for passing through designated entry or exit points.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide appropriate authorization to personnel who have a legitimate need to remove or transport classified material for passing through designated entry or exit points.
</P>
<P>(B) Conspicuously post notices at all pertinent entries and exits that persons who enter or depart the facility are subject to an inspection of their personal, except under circumstances where the possibility of access to classified material is remote.
</P>
<P>(C) Limit inspections to buildings or areas where classified work is being performed.
</P>
<P>(D) Establish the extent, frequency, and location of inspections in a manner consistent with contractual obligations and operational efficiency. The contractor may use any appropriate random sampling technique.
</P>
<P>(E) Seek legal advice during the formulation of implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Submit significant problems pertaining to perimeter controls and inspections to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contractors will develop procedures for safeguarding classified material in emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(A) The procedures should be as simple and practical as possible and adaptable to any type of emergency that may reasonably arise.
</P>
<P>(B) Contractors will promptly report to the CSA any emergency situation that renders them incapable of safeguarding classified material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for Security Equipment.</I> Contractors will follow guidelines established in 32 CFR part 2001, when procuring storage and destruction equipment. Authorized repairs for GSA-approved security containers and vaults must be in accordance with Federal Standard 809.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage.</I> Contractors will store classified information and material in General Services Administration (GSA)-approved security containers, vaults built to Federal Standard 832, or an open storage area constructed in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.53. In the instance that an open storage area has a false ceiling or raised floor, contractors shall develop and implement procedures to ensure their structural integrity. Nothing in 32 CFR part 2001, should be construed to contradict or inhibit compliance with local laws or building codes, but the contractor will notify the applicable CSA if there are any conflicting issues that would inhibit compliance. Contractors will store classified material in accordance with the specific sections of 32 CFR 2001.43:
</P>
<P>(1) CONFIDENTIAL. See 32 CFR 2001.43(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) SECRET. See 32 CFR 2001.43(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) TOP SECRET Documents. See 32 CFR 2001.43(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS).</I> This paragraph specifies the minimum standards for an approved IDS when used for supplemental protection of TOP SECRET and SECRET material. The CSA will provide additional guidance for contingency protection procedures in the event of IDS malfunction, including contractors located in USG owned contractor operated facilities.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CSA approval.</I> (i) CSA approval is required before installing an IDS. The CSA will base approval of a new IDS on the criteria of Intelligence Community Directive 705 (available at: <I>https://www.dni.gov/files/documents/ICD/ICD_705_SCIFs.pdf</I>) and any applicable intelligence community standard, Underwriters Laboratories (UL) Standard 2050 (Government agencies with a role as a CSA or CSO may obtain this reference without charge; available at: <I>www.ul.com/contact</I>), or the CSA may base approval on written CSA-specific standards for the information to be protected.
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation will be performed by an alarm services company certified by a NRTL that meets the requirements in 29 CFR 1910.7 to perform testing and certification. The NRTL-approved alarm service company is responsible for completing the appropriate alarm system description form approved by the NRTL.
</P>
<P>(iii) All the intrusion detection equipment (IDE) used in the IDS installation will be tested and approved (or listed) by a NRTL, ensuring its proper operation and resistance from tampering. Any IDE that has not been tested and approved by a NRTL will require CSA approval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Central monitoring station.</I> (i) For the purpose of monitoring alarms, an equivalent level of monitoring service is available from multiple types of providers. The central monitoring station may be located at a one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Government contractor monitoring station (GCMS), formerly called a proprietary central station.
</P>
<P>(B) Cleared commercial central station.
</P>
<P>(C) Cleared protective signal service station (<I>e.g.,</I> fire alarm monitor).
</P>
<P>(D) Cleared residential monitoring station.
</P>
<P>(E) National industrial monitoring station.
</P>
<P>(ii) SECRET-cleared central station employees at the alarm monitoring station will be in attendance in sufficient number to monitor each alarmed area within the cleared contractor facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) The central monitoring station will be supervised continuously by a U.S. citizen who has eligibility for access to SECRET information.
</P>
<P>(iv) The IDS must be activated at the close of business whenever the area is not occupied by cleared personnel. Any IDS exit delay function must expire prior to the cleared personnel leaving the immediate area. A record will be maintained to identify the person or persons who are responsible for setting and deactivating the IDS.
</P>
<P>(v) Records will be maintained for 12 months indicating time of receipt of alarm, name(s) of security force personnel responding, time dispatched to facility or area, time security force personnel arrived, nature of alarm, and what follow-up actions were accomplished.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investigative response to alarms.</I> (i) Alarm response teams will ascertain if intrusion has occurred and, if possible, assist in the apprehension of the individuals involved.
</P>
<P>(A) If an alarm activation resets in a reasonable amount of time and no damage to the area is visible, then entrance into the area is not required and an initial response team may consist of uncleared personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) If the alarm activation does not reset and damage is observed, then a cleared response team must be dispatched. The initial uncleared response team must stay on station until relieved by the cleared response team. If a cleared response team does not arrive within 1 hour, then a report to the CSA must be made by the close of the next business day.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following resources may be used to investigate alarms: Proprietary security force personnel, central station guards, local law enforcement personnel, or a subcontracted guard service. The CSA may approve procedures for the use of entity cleared employees who can meet the minimum response requirements outlined in this section.
</P>
<P>(A) For a GCMS, trained proprietary or subcontractor security force personnel, cleared to the SECRET level and sufficient in number to be dispatched immediately to investigate each alarm, will be available at all times when the IDS is in operation.
</P>
<P>(B) For a commercial central station, protective signaling service station, or residential monitoring station, there will be a sufficient number of trained guards available to respond to alarms. Guards will be cleared only if they have the ability and responsibility to access the area or container(s) housing classified material (<I>i.e.,</I> keys to the facility have been provided or the personnel are authorized to enter the building or check the container or area that contains classified material).
</P>
<P>(C) Uncleared guards dispatched by a commercial central station, protective signaling service station, or residential monitoring station in response to an alarm will remain on the premises until a designated, cleared representative of the facility arrives, or for a period of not less than 1 hour, whichever comes first. If a cleared representative of the facility does not arrive within 1 hour following the arrival of the guard, the central control station must provide the CSA with a report of the incident that includes the name of the subscriber facility, the date and time of the alarm, and the name of the subscriber's representative who was contacted to respond. A report will be submitted to the CSA by the end of business on the next business day.
</P>
<P>(D) Subcontracted guards must be under a classified contract with either the installing alarm service company or the cleared facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) The response time will be in accordance with the provisions in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) in this section as applicable. When environmental factors (<I>e.g.,</I> traffic, distance) legitimately prevent meeting the requirements for TOP SECRET information, as indicated in paragraph (c)(3) in this section, the CSA may authorize up to a 30-minute response time. The CSA approval will be documented on the alarm system description form and the specified response time will be noted on the alarm certificate. The requirement for response is 80 percent within the time limits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Installation.</I> The IDS will be installed by an NRTL-approved entity or by an entity approved in writing by the CSA. When connected to a commercial central station, GCMS, national industrial monitoring station, or residential monitoring station, the service provided will include line security (<I>i.e.,</I> the connecting lines are electronically supervised to detect evidence of tampering or malfunction). The level of protection for the alarmed area will include all points of probable entry (perimeter doors and accessible windows) with magnetic contacts and motion detectors positioned in the probable intruder paths from the probable points of entry to the classified information. In accordance with Federal Standard 809, no IDS sensors (magnetic contacts or vibration detectors) will be installed on GSA-approved security containers. CSA authorization on the alarm system description form is required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) When line security is not available, installation will require two independent means of transmission of the alarm signal from the alarmed area to the monitoring station.
</P>
<P>(ii) Alarm installation provides a level of protection, <I>e.g.</I> UL's Extent 5, based on patrolling employees and CSA approval of security-in-depth.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where law enforcement personnel are the primary alarm response. Under those circumstances, the contractor must obtain written assurance from the police department regarding the ability to respond to alarms in the required response time.
</P>
<P>(iv) Alarm signal transmission is over computer-controlled data-networks (<I>e.g.,</I> internet, intranet). The CSA will provide specific acceptance criteria (<I>e.g.,</I> encryption requirements) for alarms monitored over data networks.
</P>
<P>(v) Alarm investigator response time exceeds the parameters outlined in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) in this section as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certification of compliance.</I> Evidence of compliance with the requirements of this section will consist of a valid (current) certification by an approved NRTL for the appropriate category of service. This certificate:
</P>
<P>(i) Will have been issued to the protected facility by the NRTL, through the alarm service company.
</P>
<P>(ii) Serves as evidence that the alarm service company that did the installation is:
</P>
<P>(A) Listed as furnishing security systems of the category indicated.
</P>
<P>(B) Authorized to issue the certificate of installation as representation that the equipment is in compliance with requirements established by NRTL for the class of alarm system.
</P>
<P>(C) Subject to the NRTL inspection program whereby periodic inspections are made of representative alarm installations by NRTL personnel to verify the correctness of certification practices.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exceptional cases.</I> (i) If the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(5) in this section cannot be met, the contractor may request CSA approval for an alarm system meeting one of these conditions, which will be documented on the alarm system description form:
</P>
<P>(A) Monitored by a central control station but responded to by a local (municipal, county, state) law enforcement organization.
</P>
<P>(B) Connected by direct wire to alarm receiving equipment located in a local (municipal, county, State) police station or public emergency service dispatch center. This alarm system is activated and deactivated by employees of the contractor, but the alarm is monitored and responded to by personnel of the monitoring police or emergency service dispatch organization. Personnel monitoring alarm signals at police stations or dispatch centers do not require PCLs. Police department response systems may be requested only when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The contractor facility is located in an area where central control station services are not available with line security or proprietary security force personnel, or a contractually-dispatched response to an alarm signal cannot be achieved within the time limits required by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) It is impractical for the contractor to establish a GCMS or proprietary guard force at that location. In this case, installation of these systems must use NRTL-approved equipment and be accomplished by an NRTL-approved entity meeting the applicable testing standard for the category of service.
</P>
<P>(ii) An installation proposal, explaining how the system would operate, will be submitted to the CSA. The proposal must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Sufficient justification for the granting of an exception and the full name and address of the police department that will monitor the system and provide the required response.
</P>
<P>(B) The name and address of the NRTL-approved entity that will install the system, and inspect, maintain, and repair the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The response times will be in accordance with the provisions in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) in this section as applicable. Arrangements will be made with the central monitoring station to immediately notify a contractor representative on receipt of the alarm. The contractor representative is required to go immediately to the facility to investigate the alarm and to take appropriate measures to secure the classified material.
</P>
<P>(iv) In exceptional cases where central station monitoring service is available, but no proprietary security force, central station, or subcontracted guard response is available, and where the police department does not agree to respond to alarms, and no other manner of investigative response is available, the CSA may approve cleared employees as the sole means of response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information controls</I>—(1) <I>Information management system.</I> Contractors will establish:
</P>
<P>(i) A system to verify that classified information in their custody is used or retained only for a lawful and authorized USG purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) An information management system to protect and control the classified information in their possession regardless of media, to include information processed and stored on authorized information systems.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Top secret information.</I> Contractors will establish controls for TOP SECRET information and material to validate procedures are in place to address accountability, need to know, and retention, e.g., demonstrating that TOP SECRET material stored in an electronic format on an authorized classified information system does not need to be individually numbered in series. These controls are in addition to the information management system and must be applied, unless otherwise directed by the applicable CSA, regardless of the media of the TOP SECRET information, to include information processed and stored on authorized information systems. Unless otherwise directed by the applicable CSA, the contractor will establish the following additional controls:
</P>
<P>(i) Designate TOP SECRET control officials to receive, transmit, and maintain access and accountability records to TOP SECRET information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct an annual inventory of TOP SECRET information and material.
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish a continuous receipt system for the transmittal of TOP SECRET information within and outside the contractor location.
</P>
<P>(iv) Number each item of TOP SECRET material in a series. Place the copy number on TOP SECRET documents, regardless of media, and on all associated transactions documents.
</P>
<P>(v) Establish a record of TOP SECRET material when the material is:
</P>
<P>(A) Completed as a finished document.
</P>
<P>(B) Retained for more than 180 days after creation, regardless of the stage of development.
</P>
<P>(C) Transmitted outside the contractor location.
</P>
<P>(vi) Establish procedures for destruction of TOP SECRET material by two authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(vii) Establish destruction records for TOP SECRET material and maintain the records for two years in accordance with § 117.13(d)(5) or in accordance with GCA requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Working papers.</I> Contractors will establish procedures for the control of classified working papers generated in the preparation of a finished document. The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Date working papers when they are created.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mark each page of the working papers with the highest classification level of any information contained in them and with the annotation “WORKING PAPERS.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Destroy working papers when no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mark in the same manner prescribed for a finished document at the same classification level if released outside the contractor location or retained for more than 180 days from the date of origin.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Combinations to locks.</I> Contractors will follow the guidance in 32 CFR 2001.45(a)(1) and 2001.43 (c) to address thresholds when combinations will be changed. Combinations to locks used to secure vaults, open storage areas, and security containers that are approved for the safeguarding of classified information will be protected in the same manner as the highest level of classified information that the vault, open storage area, or security container is used to protect.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information system passwords.</I> Contractors will follow the guidance established in 32 CFR 2001.45(a)(2) for the protection of passwords to information systems authorized to process and store classified information at the highest level of classification to which the information system is authorized.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reproduction of classified information.</I> Contractors will follow the guidance established in 32 CFR 2001.45(b) for the reproduction of classified information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transmission of classified information.</I> Contractors will establish procedures for transmitting and receiving classified information and material in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.46.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Top secret.</I> The contractor must have written authorization from the GCA to transmit TOP SECRET material outside the contractor location.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transmission outside the United States and its Territorial Areas.</I> The contractor may transmit classified material to a USG activity outside the United States or a U.S. territorial area only under the provisions of a classified contract or with written authorization from the GCA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commercial delivery entities.</I> The CSA may approve contractors to transmit SECRET or CONFIDENTIAL information within the United States and its territorial areas by means of a commercial delivery entity that is a current holder of the GSA contract for overnight delivery, and which provides nation-wide, overnight service with computer tracking and reporting features (a list of current contract holders may be found at: <I>https://www.archives.gov/isoo/faqs#what-is-overnightcarriers</I>). Such entities do not need to be determined eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to CSA approval, the contractor must establish and document procedures to ensure the proper protection of incoming and outgoing classified packages, including the street delivery address, for each cleared facility intending to use GSA-listed commercial delivery entities for overnight services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors will establish procedures for the use of commercial delivery entities in accordance with 32 CFR part 2001. The procedures will:
</P>
<P>(A) Confirm that the commercial delivery entity provides nationwide, overnight delivery service with automated in-transit tracking of the classified packages.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure the package integrity during transit and that incoming shipments are received by appropriately cleared personnel.
</P>
<P>(C) Not be used for COMSEC, NATO, or FGI.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Couriers and hand carriers.</I> Contractors may designate cleared employees as couriers or hand carriers. Contractors will:
</P>
<P>(i) Brief employees providing such services on their responsibility to safeguard classified information and keep classified material in their possession at all times.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide employees with an identification card or badge which contains the contractor's name and the name and a photograph of the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Make arrangements in advance of departure for overnight storage at a USG installation or at a cleared contractor's facility that has appropriate storage capability, if needed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Conduct an inventory of the material prior to departure and upon return. The employee will carry a copy of the inventory with them.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of commercial passenger aircraft.</I> The contractor may authorize cleared employees to hand carry classified material aboard commercial passenger aircraft.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Routine processing.</I> Employees hand carrying classified material are subject to routine processing by airline security agents. Hand-held packages will normally be screened by x-ray examination. If security personnel are not satisfied with the results of the inspection and requests the prospective passenger to open a classified package for visual examination, the traveler must inform the screener that the carry-on items contain USG classified information and cannot be opened. Under no circumstances may traveler or security personnel open the classified material unless required by customs or other government officials.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special processing.</I> The contractor will contact the appropriate air carrier in advance to explain the particular circumstances and obtain instructions on the special screening procedures to follow when:
</P>
<P>(A) Routine processing would subject the classified material to compromise or damage.
</P>
<P>(B) Visual examination is or may be required to successfully screen a classified package.
</P>
<P>(C) Classified material is in specialized containers, which due to its size, weight, or other physical characteristics cannot be routinely processed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Authorization letter.</I> Contractors will provide employees with written authorization to hand carry classified material on commercial aircraft that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Full name, date of birth, height, weight, and signature of the traveler and statement that he or she is authorized to transmit classified material.
</P>
<P>(B) Description of the type of identification the traveler will present on request.
</P>
<P>(C) Description of the material being hand carried, with a request that it be exempt from opening.
</P>
<P>(D) Identification of the points of departure, destination, and known transfer points.
</P>
<P>(E) Name, telephone number, and signature of the FSO, and the location and telephone number of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Escorts.</I> If an escort is necessary to ensure the protection of the classified information being transported, the contractor will assign a sufficient number to each classified shipment to ensure continuous surveillance and control over the shipment while in transit. The contractor will furnish escorts with specific written instructions and operating procedures prior to shipping that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of persons, including alternates, to whom the classified material is to be delivered.
</P>
<P>(ii) Receipting procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Means of transportation and the route to be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Duties of each escort during movement, during stops end route, and during loading and unloading operations.
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency and communication procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Destruction.</I> Contractors will:
</P>
<P>(1) Destroy classified material in their possession based on the disposition instructions in the contract security classification specification or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) Follow the guidance for destruction of classified material in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.47 and the destruction equipment standards in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.42(b). See <I>https://www.nsa.gov/resources/everyone/media-destruction/</I> and any CSA provided guidance for additional information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disclosure.</I> Contractors will establish processes by which classified information is disclosed only to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure to employees.</I> Contractors are authorized to disclose classified information to their cleared employees with the appropriate eligibility for access to classified information and need to know as necessary, including cleared employees across the MFO, when applicable, for the performance of tasks or services essential to the fulfillment of a classified contract or subcontract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to subcontractors.</I> (i) Contractors: 
</P>
<P>(A) Are authorized to disclose classified information to a cleared subcontractor with the appropriate entity eligibility determination (also known as a facility security clearance) and need to know when access to classified information is necessary for the performance of tasks or services essential to the fulfillment of a prime contract or a subcontract.
</P>
<P>(B) Will convey appropriate classification guidance for the classified information to be disclosed with the subcontract in accordance with § 117.13.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSA must have: 
</P>
<P>(A) Made a determination of eligibility for access to classified information for the subcontractor, at the same level, or higher, than the classified information to be disclosed, to allow for such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(B) Approved storage capability for classified material at the subcontractor location if a physical transfer of classified material occurs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure between parent and subsidiaries.</I> (i) Contractors: 
</P>
<P>(A) Are authorized to disclose classified information between parent and subsidiary entities with the appropriate entity eligibility determination (also known as a facility security clearance) and need to know when access to classified information is necessary for the performance of tasks or services essential to the fulfillment of a prime or subcontract.
</P>
<P>(B) Will convey appropriate classification guidance with the agreement or procurement action that necessitates the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>The CSA must have:</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) Made a determination of eligibility for access to classified information for both the parent and subsidiary, at the same level, or higher, than the classified information to be disclosed, to allow for such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(B) Approved storage capability for classified material at the parent and the subsidiary if a physical transfer of classified material occurs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure to federal agencies.</I> Contractors will not disclose classified information received or generated under a contract from one agency to any other federal agency unless specifically authorized by the agency that has classification jurisdiction over the information.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosure of classified information to foreign persons.</I> Contractors will not disclose classified information to foreign persons unless specified by the contract and release of the information is authorized in writing by the government agency having classification jurisdiction over the information involved, <I>i.e.</I> the DOE for RD and FRD (also see § 117.23), the NSA for COMSEC, the DNI for SCI, and all other executive branch departments and agencies for classified information under their respective jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Disclosure to other contractors.</I> Contractors will not disclose classified information to another contractor except in furtherance of a contract, subcontract, or other GCA purpose without the authorization of the GCA, if such authorization is required by contract.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosure of classified information in connection with litigation.</I> Contractors will not disclose classified information to:
</P>
<P>(i) Attorneys hired solely to represent the contractor in any civil or criminal case in federal or State courts unless the disclosure is specifically authorized by the agency that has jurisdiction over the information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any federal or state court except on specific instructions of the agency, which has jurisdiction over the information or the attorney representing the United States in the case.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Disclosure to the public.</I> Contractors will not disclose classified information to the public. Contractors will not disclose unclassified information pertaining to a classified contract to the public without prior review and clearance as specified in the Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, for the contract or as otherwise specified by the GCA. The procedures of this paragraph also apply to information pertaining to classified contracts intended for use in unclassified brochures, promotional sales literature, reports to stockholders, or similar material.
</P>
<P>(i) The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(A) Submit requests for approval through the activity specified in the GCA-provided classification guidance for the contract involved.
</P>
<P>(B) Include in each request the approximate date the contractor intends to release the information for public disclosure and identify the media to be used for the initial release.
</P>
<P>(C) Retain a copy of each approved request for release for a period of one inspection cycle for review by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(D) Clear all information developed subsequent to the initial approval through the appropriate office prior to public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless specifically prohibited by the GCA, the contractor does not need to request approval for disclosure of:
</P>
<P>(A) The fact that a contract has been received, including the subject of the contract or type of item in general terms provided the name or description of the subject is not classified.
</P>
<P>(B) The method or type of contract.
</P>
<P>(C) Total dollar amount of the contract unless that information equates to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A level of effort in a sensitive research area.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantities of stocks of certain weapons and equipment that are classified.
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the contract will require the hiring or termination of employees.
</P>
<P>(E) Other information that from time-to-time may be authorized on a case-by-case basis in a specific agreement with the contractor.
</P>
<P>(F) Information previously officially approved for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that has been declassified is not authorized for public disclosure. If the information is comingled with CUI, or qualifies as CUI once declassified, it will be marked and protected as CUI until it is decontrolled pursuant to 32 CFR part 2002 and reviewed for public release. If the information does not qualify as CUI, it will be protected in accordance with the basic safeguarding requirements in 48 CFR 52.204-21 and subject to the agency's public release procedures. Contractors will request approval for public disclosure of declassified information in accordance with the procedures of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disposition.</I> Contractors will:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for review of their classified holdings on a recurring basis to ensure the classified holdings are in support of a current contract or authorization to retain beyond the end of the contract period.
</P>
<P>(2) Destroy duplicate copies as soon as practical.
</P>
<P>(3) For disposition of classified material not received under a specific contract:
</P>
<P>(i) Return or destroy classified material received with a bid, proposal, or quote if the bid, proposal, or quote is not:
</P>
<P>(A) Submitted or is withdrawn within 180 days after the opening date of bids, proposals, or quotes.
</P>
<P>(B) Accepted within 180 days after notification that a bid, proposal, or quote has not been accepted.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the classified material was not received under a specific contract, such as material obtained at classified meetings or from a secondary distribution center, return or destroy the classified material within one year after receipt.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Retention.</I> The provisions of § 117.13(d)(5) apply for retention of classified material upon completion of a classified contract.
</P>
<P>(1) If contractors propose to retain copies of classified material beyond 2 years, the contractor will identify:
</P>
<P>(i) TOP SECRET material identified in a list of specific documents unless the GCA authorizes identification by subject and approximate number of documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL material may be identified by general subject and the approximate number of documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Contractors will include a statement of justification for retention beyond two years based on if the material:
</P>
<P>(A) Is necessary for the maintenance of the contractor's essential records.
</P>
<P>(B) Is patentable or proprietary data to which the contractor has the title.
</P>
<P>(C) Will assist the contractor in independent research and development efforts.
</P>
<P>(D) Will benefit the USG in the performance of other prospective or existing agency contracts.
</P>
<P>(E) Will benefit the USG in the performance of another active contract and will be transferred to that contract (specify contract).
</P>
<P>(2) If the GCA does not authorize retention beyond two years, the contractor will destroy all classified material received or generated in the performance of a classified contract unless it has been declassified or the GCA has requested that the material be returned.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Termination of security agreement.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions for retention outlined in paragraph (i) in this section, in the event that the CSA terminates the contractor's eligibility for access to classified information, the contractor will return all classified material in its possession to the GCA concerned, or dispose of such material in accordance with instructions from the CSA.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Safeguarding CUI.</I> While outside the requirements of the NISPOM, when a classified contract also includes provisions for protection of CUI, contractors will comply with those contract requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.16   Visits and meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Visits.</I> This paragraph applies when, for a lawful and authorized USG purpose, it is anticipated that classified information will be disclosed during a visit to a cleared contractor facility or to a USG facility.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Classified visits.</I> The number of classified visits will be held to a minimum. The contractor:
</P>
<P>(i) Must determine that the visit is necessary and the purpose of the visit cannot be achieved without access to, or disclosure of, classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Will establish procedures to ensure positive identification of visitors, appropriate PCL, and need-to-know prior to the disclosure of any classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Will establish procedures to ensure that visitors are only afforded access to classified information consistent with the purpose of the visit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Need-to-know determination.</I> The responsibility for determining need-to-know in connection with a classified visit rests with the individual who will disclose classified information during the visit. Need-to-know is generally based on a contractual relationship between the contractors. In other circumstances, disclosure of the information will be based on an assessment that the receiving contractor has a bona fide need to access the information in furtherance of a GCA purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Visits by USG representatives.</I> Representatives of the USG, when acting in their official capacities as inspectors, investigators, or auditors, may visit a contractor's facility, provided these representatives present appropriate USG credentials upon arrival.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Visit authorization.</I> (i) If a visit requires access to classified information, the host contractor will verify the visitor's PCL level. Verification of a visitor's PCL may be accomplished by a review of a CSA-designated database that contains the information or by a visit authorization letter (VAL) provided by the visitor's employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a CSA-designated database is not available and a VAL is required, contractors will include in all VALs:
</P>
<P>(A) Contractor's name, employee's name, address, and telephone number, assigned commercial and government entity (CAGE) code, if applicable, and certification of the level of the entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(B) Name, date and place of birth, and citizenship of the employee intending to visit.
</P>
<P>(C) Certification of the proposed visitor's PCL and any special access authorizations required for the visit.
</P>
<P>(D) Name of person(s) to be visited.
</P>
<P>(E) Purpose and sufficient justification for the visit to allow for a determination of the necessity of the visit.
</P>
<P>(F) Date or period during which the VAL is to be valid.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Long term visitors.</I> (i) When USG employees or employees of one contractor are temporarily stationed at another contractor's facility, the security procedures of the host contractor will govern.
</P>
<P>(ii) USG personnel assigned to or visiting a contractor facility and engaged in oversight of an acquisition program will retain control of their work product. Classified work products of USG employees will be handled in accordance with this rule. Contractor procedures will not require USG employees to relinquish control of their work products, whether classified or not, to a contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Contractor employees at USG installations will follow the security requirements of the host. This does not relieve the contractor from security oversight of their employees who are long-term visitors at USG installations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classified meetings.</I> This paragraph applies to a conference, seminar, symposium, exhibit, convention, training course, or other such gathering during which classified information is disclosed, hereafter called a “meeting.” Disclosure of classified information to large diverse audiences such as conferences increases security risks. Classified disclosure at such meetings may occur when it serves a government purpose and adequate security measures have been provided in advance.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Meeting conducted by a cleared contractor.</I> If conducted by a cleared contractor, the meeting is authorized by a USG agency that has agreed to assume security jurisdiction. The USG agency:
</P>
<P>(i) Must approve security arrangements, announcements, attendees, and the location of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(ii) May delegate certain responsibilities to a cleared contractor for the security arrangements and other actions necessary for the meeting under the general supervision of the USG agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for authorization.</I> Contractors desiring to conduct meetings that require sponsorship will submit their requests to the USG agency that has principal interest in the subject of each meeting. Requests for authorization will include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the USG purpose to be served by disclosing classified information at the meeting and why the use of conventional channels for release of the classified information will not advance those interests.
</P>
<P>(ii) The subject of the meeting and scope of classified topics, to include the classification level, to be disclosed at the meeting.
</P>
<P>(iii) The expected dates and location of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(iv) The general content of the proposed announcement or invitation to be sent to prospective attendees or participants.
</P>
<P>(v) The identity of any other non-government organization involved and a full description of the type of support it will provide.
</P>
<P>(vi) A list of any foreign representatives (including their nationality, name, organizational affiliation) whose attendance at the meeting is proposed.
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the security arrangements necessary for the meeting to comply with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Locations of meetings.</I> Classified sessions will be held only at a USG installation or a cleared contractor facility where adequate physical security and procedural controls have been approved. The authorizing USG agency is responsible for evaluating and approving the location proposed for the meeting.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security arrangements for meetings.</I> The contractor will develop the security measures and procedures to be used and obtain the authorizing agency's approval. The security arrangements must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Announcements.</I> Approval of the authorizing agency will be obtained for all announcements of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(A) Announcements will be unclassified and will be limited to a general description of topics expected to be presented, names of speakers, and administrative instructions for requesting invitations or participation. Classified presentations will not be solicited in the announcement.
</P>
<P>(B) When the meeting has been approved, announcements may only state that the USG agency has authorized the conduct of classified sessions and will provide necessary security assistance.
</P>
<P>(C) The announcement will further specify that security clearances and justification to attend classified sessions are to be forwarded to the authorizing agency or its designee.
</P>
<P>(D) Invitations to foreign persons will be sent by the authorizing USG agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clearance and need-to-know.</I> All persons in attendance at classified sessions will possess the requisite clearance and need-to-know for the information to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(A) Need-to-know will be determined by the authorizing agency or its designee based on the justification provided.
</P>
<P>(B) Attendance will be authorized only to those persons whose security clearance and justification for attendance have been verified by the security officer of the organization represented.
</P>
<P>(C) The names of all authorized attendees or participants must appear on an access list with entry permitted to the classified session only after verification of the attendee's identity based on presentation of official photographic identification such as a passport, contractor or USG identification card.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Presentations.</I> Classified information must be authorized for disclosure in advance by the USG agency having jurisdiction over the information to be presented.
</P>
<P>(A) Individuals making presentations at meetings will provide sufficient classification guidance to enable attendees to identify what information is classified and the level of classification.
</P>
<P>(B) Classified presentations will be delivered orally or visually.
</P>
<P>(C) Copies of classified presentation materials will not be distributed at the classified meeting, and any classified notes or electronic recordings of classified presentations will be classified, safeguarded, and transmitted as required by this rule.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Physical security.</I> The physical security measures for the classified sessions will provide for control of, access to, and dissemination of, the classified information to be presented and will provide for secure storage capability, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosure authority at meetings.</I> Authority to disclose classified information at meetings, whether disclosure is by officials of industry or USG, must be granted by the USG agency or activity that has classification jurisdiction over the information to be disclosed. Each contractor that desires to disclose classified information at a meeting is responsible for requesting and obtaining disclosure approvals. Associations are not responsible for ensuring that classified presentations and papers of other organizations have been approved for disclosure. A contractor desiring to disclose classified information at a meeting will:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain prior written authorization for each proposed disclosure of classified information from the USG agency having jurisdiction over the information involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Furnish a copy of the disclosure authorization to the USG agency sponsoring the meeting.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Requests to attend classified meetings.</I> Before a contractor employee can attend a classified meeting, the contractor will provide justification for why the employee requires access to the classified information, cite the classified contract or GCA program or project involved, and forward the information to the authorizing USG agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.17   Subcontracting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prime contractor responsibilities</I>—(1) <I>Responsibilities.</I> Before a prime contractor may release or disclose classified information to a subcontractor, or cause classified information to be generated by a subcontractor, a determination that access to classified information will be required and such access serves a legitimate USG requirement for the performance of a “classified contract” in accordance with § 117.9(a) must be made. Prime contractors are responsible for communicating the appropriate security requirements to all subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(i) A “security requirements clause” and a “Contract Security Classification Specification,” or equivalent, will be incorporated in the solicitation and in the subcontract. (See the “security requirements clause” in the prime contract.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The subcontractor must possess an appropriate entity eligibility determination and a classified information safeguarding capability if possession of classified information will be required.
</P>
<P>(A) If access to classified information will not be required in the pre-award phase, prospective subcontractors are not required to possess an entity eligibility determination to receive or bid on the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(B) If a prospective subcontractor requires access to classified information during the pre-award phase and does not have the appropriate entity eligibility determination or a classified information safeguarding capability, the prime contractor will request the CSA of the subcontractor to initiate the necessary action.
</P>
<P>(iii) If access to classified information will not be required, the contract is not a classified contract within the meaning of this rule. If the prime contract contains requirements for release or disclosure of protected information that is not classified, such as CUI, the requirements will be incorporated in the solicitation and the subcontract and are not covered by this rule.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prospective subcontractors entity eligibility determinations.</I> (i) The prime contractor will verify whether the prospective subcontractors have the appropriate entity eligibility determination and also a classified information safeguarding capability, if a subcontract requirement. This determination can be made if there is an existing contractual relationship between the parties involving classified information of the same or higher category, and must be verified by accessing the CSA-designated database, or by contacting the CSA.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a prospective subcontractor does not have the appropriate entity eligibility determination or a classified information safeguarding capability, the prime contractor will request that the CSA of the subcontractor initiate the necessary action.
</P>
<P>(A) Requests will include, at a minimum, the full name, address, and contact information for the requester; the full name, address, and contact information for a contact at the facility to be processed for an entity eligibility determination; the level of clearance and the required classified information safeguarding capability; and full justification for the request.
</P>
<P>(B) Requests for safeguarding capability will include a description, quantity, end-item, and classification of the information related to the proposed subcontract.
</P>
<P>(C) Other factors necessary to help the CSA determine if the prospective subcontractor meets the requirements of this rule will be identified, such as any special access requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lead time for entity eligibility determination when awarding to an uncleared subcontractor.</I> Requesting contractors will allow sufficient lead time in connection with the award of a classified subcontract to enable an uncleared bidder to be processed for the necessary entity eligibility determination. When the entity eligibility determination cannot be granted in sufficient time to qualify the prospective subcontractor for participation in the current procurement action, the CSA will continue the entity eligibility determination processing action to qualify the prospective subcontractor for future contract consideration provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The delay in processing the entity eligibility determination was not caused by a lack of cooperation on the part of the prospective subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Future classified negotiations may occur within 12 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is reasonable likelihood the subcontractor may be awarded a classified subcontract.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Subcontracting that involves access to FGI.</I> (A) A U.S. contractor may award a subcontract that involves access to FGI to another U.S. contractor after verifying with the CSA that the prospective subcontractor has the appropriate entity eligibility determination and a classified information storage capability, and review of the prime contract to determine if there are any contractual limitations for approval before awarding a subcontract. The contractor awarding a subcontract will provide appropriate security classification guidance and incorporate the pertinent security provisions in the subcontract.
</P>
<P>(B) The contractor cannot award subcontracts involving FGI to a contractor in a third country or to a U.S. entity with a limited entity eligibility determination based on third-country FOCI without the express written consent of the originating foreign government. The CSA will coordinate with the appropriate foreign government authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security classification guidance.</I> (1) Prime contractors will ensure that a Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, is incorporated in each classified subcontract.
</P>
<P>(i) When preparing classification guidance for a subcontract, the prime contractor may extract pertinent information from:
</P>
<P>(A) The Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, issued with the prime contract.
</P>
<P>(B) Security classification guides issued with the prime contract.
</P>
<P>(C) Any security guides that provide guidance for the classified information furnished to, or that will be generated by, the subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, prepared by the prime contractor will be certified by a designated official of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the absence of exceptional circumstances, the classification specification will not contain any classified information. If classified supplements are required as part of the Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, they will be identified and forwarded to the subcontractor by separate correspondence.
</P>
<P>(2) An original Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, will be included with each RFQ, RFP, IFB, or other solicitation to ensure that the prospective subcontractor is aware of the security requirements of the subcontract and can plan accordingly. An original Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, will also be included in the subcontract awarded to the successful bidder.
</P>
<P>(3) A revised Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, will be issued as necessary during the lifetime of the subcontract when the security requirements change.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for public release by a subcontractor will be forwarded through the prime contractor to the GCA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities upon completion of the subcontracts.</I> (1) Upon completion of the subcontract, the subcontractor may retain classified material received or generated under the subcontract for a two-year period, in accordance with the provisions in § 117.13(d)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) If retention is required beyond the two-year period, the subcontractor must request written retention authority through the prime contractor to the GCA, including the information required by § 117.15(j).
</P>
<P>(3) If retention authority is approved by the GCA, the prime contractor will issue a final Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, annotated to provide the retention period and final disposition instructions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of invalidation, marginal, or unsatisfactory conditions.</I> The prime contractor will be notified if the CSA discovers marginal or unsatisfactory conditions at the subcontractor's facility or if the CSA invalidates the subcontractor's facility clearance. Once notified, the prime contractor will follow the instructions received on what action, if any, should be taken in order to safeguard classified material relating to the subcontract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.18   Information system security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Contractor information systems that are used to capture, create, store, process, or distribute classified information must be properly managed to protect against unauthorized disclosure of classified information. The contractor will implement protective measures using a risk-based approach that incorporates minimum standards for their insider threat program in accordance with CSA-provided guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA will issue guidance based on requirements for federal systems, pursuant to 44 U.S.C. Ch. 35 of subchapter II, also known as the “Federal Information Security Modernization Act,” and as set forth in National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-37 (available at: <I>https://csrc.nist.gov/publications/detail/sp/800-37/rev-2/final</I>), Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) Instruction 1253 (available at: <I>https://www.cnss.gov/CNSS/openDoc.cfm?QwPYrAJ5Ldq+s+jvttTznQ==</I>), and other applicable CNSS and NIST publications (<I>e.g.,</I> NIST Special Publication 800-53).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information system security program.</I> The contractor will maintain an information system security program that supports overall information security by incorporating a risk-based set of management, operational, and technical security controls in accordance with CSA-provided guidance. The contractor will incorporate into the program:
</P>
<P>(1) Policies and procedures that reduce information security risks to an acceptable level and address information security throughout the information system life cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) Plans and procedures to assess, report, isolate, and contain data spills and compromises, to include sanitization and recovery methods.
</P>
<P>(3) Information system security training for authorized users, as required in CSA provided guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) Policies and procedures that address key components of the contractor's insider threat program, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) User activity monitoring network activity, either automated or manual.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sharing procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) A continuous monitoring program.
</P>
<P>(iv) Protecting, interpreting, storing, and limiting access to user activity monitoring automated logs to privileged users.
</P>
<P>(5) Processes to continually evaluate threats and vulnerabilities to contractor activities, facilities, and information systems to ascertain the need for additional safeguards.
</P>
<P>(6) Change control processes to accommodate configuration management and to identify security relevant changes that may require re-authorization of the information system.
</P>
<P>(7) Methods to ensure users are aware of rights and responsibilities through the use of banners and user agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contractor responsibilities</I>—(1) <I>Certification.</I> The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Certify to the CSA that the security program for information systems to process classified information addresses management, operation, and technical controls in accordance with CSA-provided guidelines.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide adequate resources to the information system security program and organizationally align to ensure prompt support and successful execution of a compliant information system security program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ISSM.</I> Contractors that are or will be processing classified information on an information system will appoint an employee ISSM. The contractor will confirm that the ISSM is adequately trained, has sufficient experience, and possesses technical competence commensurate with the complexity of the information system. The ISSM will:
</P>
<P>(i) Oversee the development, implementation, and evaluation of the contractor's information system program for contractor management, information system personnel, users, and others as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordinate with the contractor's insider threat senior program official so that insider threat awareness is addressed in the contractor's information system security program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Develop, document, and monitor compliance of the contractor's information system security program in accordance with CSA-provided guidelines for management, operational, and technical controls.
</P>
<P>(iv) Verify self-inspections are conducted at least every 12 months on the contractor's information systems that process classified information, and that corrective actions are taken for all identified findings.
</P>
<P>(v) Certify to the CSA in writing that the systems security plan (SSP) is implemented for each authorized information systems, specified in the SSP; the specified security controls are in place and properly tested; and the information system continues to function as described in the SSP.
</P>
<P>(vi) Brief users on their responsibilities with regard to information system security and verify that contractor personnel are trained on the security restrictions and safeguards of the information system prior to access to an authorized information system.
</P>
<P>(vii) Develop and maintain security documentation of the security authorization request to the CSA. Documentation may include:
</P>
<P>(A) SSPs.
</P>
<P>(B) Security assessment reports.
</P>
<P>(C) Plans of actions and milestones.
</P>
<P>(D) Risk assessments.
</P>
<P>(E) Authorization decision letters.
</P>
<P>(F) Contingency plans.
</P>
<P>(G) Configuration management plans.
</P>
<P>(H) Security configuration checklists.
</P>
<P>(I) System interconnection agreements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information systems security officer (ISSO).</I> The ISSM may assign an ISSO. If assigned, the ISSO will:
</P>
<P>(i) Verify the implementation of the contractor's information system security program as delegated by the ISSM.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure continuous monitoring strategies and verify corrective actions to the ISSM.
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct self-inspections and verify corrective actions to the ISSM.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information system users.</I> All information system users will:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the information system security program requirements as part of their responsibilities for protecting classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be accountable for their actions on an authorized information system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not share any authentication mechanisms (including passwords) issued for the control of their access to an information system.
</P>
<P>(iv) Protect authentication mechanisms at the highest classification level and most restrictive classification category of information to which the mechanisms permit access.
</P>
<P>(v) Be subject to monitoring of their activity on any classified network, understanding that the results of such monitoring can be used against them in a criminal, security, or administrative proceeding or action.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notify the ISSM or ISSO when access to a classified system is no longer required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information system security life-cycle.</I> The CSA-provided guidance on the information system security life-cycle is based on the risk management framework outlined in NIST special publication 800-37 that emphasizes:
</P>
<P>(1) Building security into information systems during initial development.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining continuous awareness of the current state of information system security.
</P>
<P>(3) Keeping contractor management informed to facilitate risk management decisions.
</P>
<P>(4) Supporting reciprocity of information system authorizations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Risk management framework.</I> The risk management framework is a seven-step process used for managing information system security-related risks. These steps will be used to help ensure security capabilities provided by the selected security controls are implemented, tested, validated, and approved by the USG authorizing official with a degree of assurance appropriate for the information system. This process accommodates an on-going risk mitigation strategy.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepare.</I> The contractor will execute essential activities at the organization, mission and business process, and system levels of the organization to help prepare the organization to manage its security and privacy risks using the Risk Management Framework.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categorize.</I> The contractor will categorize the information system and the information processed, stored, and transmitted by the information system based on an impact analysis. Unless imposed by contract, the information system baseline is moderate-confidentiality, low-integrity, and low-availability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Select.</I> The contractor will select an initial set of baseline security controls for the information system based on the security categorization; tailoring and supplementing the security control baseline as needed based on an organizational assessment of risk and local conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Implement.</I> The contractor will implement the security controls and document how the controls are deployed within the information system and the operational environment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assess.</I> The contractor will assess the security controls to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the information system. The contractor will review and certify to the CSA that all systems have the appropriate protection measures in place.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Authorize.</I> The CSA will use the information provided by the contractor to make a timely, credible, and risk-based decision to authorize the system to process classified information. The CSA must authorize the system before the contractor can use the system to process classified information.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Monitor.</I> The contractor will monitor and assess selected security controls in the information system on an ongoing basis:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectiveness of security controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of changes to the information system and the operational environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Analysis of the security impact of changes to the information system.
</P>
<P>(iv) Making appropriate reports to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unclassified information systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.</I> While outside the requirements of the NISPOM, contractors will comply with contract requirements regarding contractor information systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.19" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.19   International security requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section provides information and procedures governing the protection of classified information in international programs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of classified U.S. information to foreign interests</I>—(1) <I>Applicable federal law.</I> The transfer of articles, services, and related data to a foreign person, within or outside the United States, or the movement of such material or information to any destination outside of the legal jurisdiction of the United States constitutes an export. Depending on the nature of the articles or data, most exports are pursuant to (1) 22 U.S.C. chapter 39, also known and referred to in this rule as the “Arms Export Control Act,” (2) 50 U.S.C. 4801 <I>et seq.,</I> also known as the “Export Control Reform Act of 2018,” or (3) the AEA. This section applies to those exports that involve classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security agreements</I>—(i) Bilateral security agreements (<I>e.g.,</I> General Security of Information Agreements and General Security of Military Information Agreements) are negotiated with various foreign governments. Confidentiality requested by some foreign governments prevents a listing of the countries that have executed these agreements. The bilateral security agreement, negotiated through diplomatic channels:
</P>
<P>(A) Requires that each government provide substantially the same degree of protection to classified information released by the other government.
</P>
<P>(B) Contains provisions concerning limits on the use of each government's information, including restrictions on third-party transfers and proprietary rights.
</P>
<P>(C) Does not commit governments to share classified information, nor does it constitute authority to release classified material to that government.
</P>
<P>(D) Satisfies, in part, the eligibility requirements of the Arms Export Control Act concerning the agreement of the recipient foreign government to protect U.S. classified defense articles and classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicable CSA will provide a mechanism for contractors to access, for official purposes, classified general security agreements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Industrial security agreements have been negotiated with certain foreign governments that identify the procedures to be used when foreign government classified information is provided to U.S. industry and UUSG classified information is provided to foreign defense industry.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authorization for disclosure.</I> The GCA will provide disclosure guidance.
</P>
<P>(i) Contractors will only disclose non-public USG information to foreign persons in accordance with specified requirements of the contract. In the absence of any specified requirements the contractor will not disclose non-public USG information to foreign persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure authorization may be in the form of an export license or other export authorization by a cognizant export authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor may not use disclosure guidance provided by the GCA for a previous contract or program unless so instructed in writing by the GCA or the licensing authority.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure and export of classified information, authorized by an appropriate USG disclosure official, by a contractor will ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>International agreements.</I> Contractors may not disclose classified information until agreements are signed by the participating government and disclosure guidance and security arrangements are established. The export of technical data pursuant to such agreements may be exempt by approval of the Department of State or the Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Symposia, seminars, exhibitions, and conferences.</I> Contractors must assure that any foreign nationals who will be attending a classified gathering have the appropriate export license, disclosure authority, and security assurance on file.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Visits by foreign nationals to the contractor.</I> The contractor will limit disclosure of classified information to that specific information authorized in connection with an approved visit request and an export authorization, as required.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Temporary exports.</I> Classified articles, including articles that require the use of classified information for operation, exported for demonstration purposes must remain under U.S. control. The contractor must obtain an export authorization from the relevant authority (<I>i.e.,</I> from the Department of State in accordance with 22 CFR parts 120-130, also known as and referred to in this rule as the “International Traffic in Arms Regulations,” or from the Department of Commerce in accordance with 15 CFR parts 730-774, also known as the “Export Administration Regulations”).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Direct commercial arrangements.</I> (i) The disclosure of classified information may be authorized pursuant to a direct commercial sale with the appropriate export authorization. A direct commercial arrangement includes sales, loans, leases, or grants of classified items, including sales under a government agency sales financing program.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a proposed disclosure is in support of a foreign government requirement, the contractor should consult with U.S. in-country officials, normally the U.S. Security Assistance/Armaments Cooperation Office or Commercial Counselor.
</P>
<P>(A) Before a contractor makes a proposal to a foreign interest that involves the eventual disclosure of U.S. classified information, the contractor must obtain appropriate government disclosure authorization.
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure authorization does not equate with authorization for export. Export authorization must be obtained from the appropriate regulatory body.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor will request a FCL assurance for a foreign entity through the CSA from the security authority of the foreign entity's sponsoring government prior to entering into a contractual arrangement with the foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subcontract security provisions.</I> (i) A U.S. contractor may be authorized to enter into an agreement involving classified information with a foreign contractor. The U.S. contractor's empowered official will verify the contractor can release the information to a foreign person. Such agreements may include:
</P>
<P>(A) Award of a subcontract.
</P>
<P>(B) Department of State authorized manufacturing license agreement, technical assistance agreement, or other direct commercial arrangement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor will incorporate security provisions into the subcontract document or agreement, and provide security classification guidance by means of a Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor will provide a copy of the signed contract with the provisions and the classification guidance to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the export authorization specifies that additional security arrangements are necessary for performance on the contract, the contractor will incorporate those additional arrangements by appropriate provision in the contract or in a separate security document.
</P>
<P>(v) The contractor will prepare and maintain a written record that identifies the originator or source of classified information that will be used in providing classified defense articles, material or services to foreign customers. The contractor will maintain this listing with the contractor's record copy of the pertinent export authorization.
</P>
<P>(vi) The contractor will include the security provisions in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) in this section in all contracts and subcontracts involving classified information that are awarded to foreign contractors. Contractors must insert the bracketed contract specific information (<I>e.g.,</I> applicable country and disposition of classified material) where noted, when using the following security clauses in the contract.
</P>
<P>(A) All classified information and material furnished or generated under the contract will be protected to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The recipient will not release the information or material to any third party without disclosure authorization and export authorization, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The recipient will afford the information and material a degree of protection equivalent to that afforded it by the releasing government.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The recipient will not use the information and material for other than the purpose for which it was furnished without the prior written consent of the releasing government.
</P>
<P>(B) Classified information and material furnished or generated under this contract will be transferred through government channels or other channels specified in writing by the governments of the United States and [insert applicable country]. It will only be transferred to persons who have an appropriate security clearance and an official need for access to the information in order to perform on the contract.
</P>
<P>(C) Classified information and material furnished under the contract will be re-marked by the recipient with its government's equivalent security classification markings.
</P>
<P>(D) Classified information and material generated under the contract must be assigned a security classification as specified by the Contract Security Classification Specifications, or equivalent, provided with this contract.
</P>
<P>(E) All cases in which it is known or there is reason to believe that classified information or material furnished or generated under the contract has been lost or disclosed to unauthorized persons will be reported promptly and fully by the contractor to its government's security authorities.
</P>
<P>(F) Classified information and material furnished or generated pursuant to the contract will not be further provided to another potential contractor or subcontractor unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A potential contractor which is located in the United States or [insert applicable country] has been approved for access to classified information and material by the USG or [insert applicable country] security authorities; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If located in a third country, prior written USG consent is obtained.
</P>
<P>(G) Upon completion of the contract, all classified material furnished or generated pursuant to the contract will be [insert whether the material is to be returned or destroyed, or provide other instructions].
</P>
<P>(H) The recipient contractor will insert terms that substantially conform to the language of these provisions, including this one, in all subcontracts under this contract that involve access to classified information furnished or generated under this contract.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FGI</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The contractor will notify the csa when awarded contracts by a foreign interest that will involve access to classified information. The csa will oversee and ensure implementation of the security requirements of the contract on behalf of the foreign government, including the establishment of channels for the transfer of classified material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contract security requirements.</I> The foreign entity that awards a classified contract is responsible for providing appropriate security classification guidance and any security requirements clauses. The contractor will report to the CSA when a foreign entity fails to provide classification guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marking foreign government classified material.</I> Foreign government classified material will be marked in accordance with § 117.14(l).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Foreign Government RESTRICTED Information and “In Confidence” Information.</I> Foreign government RESTRICTED information and “in confidence” information will be marked in accordance with § 117.14(m).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Marking U.S. documents containing FGI.</I> U.S. documents containing FGI will be marked in accordance with § 117.14(n).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Marking documents prepared for foreign governments.</I> Marking documents prepared for foreign governments will be marked in accordance with § 117.14(o).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Storage and control.</I> Contractors will store foreign government material and control access generally in the same manner as U.S. classified material of an equivalent classification. Contractors will store foreign government material in a manner that will separate it from other material. Separation can be accomplished by establishing distinct files in a storage container or on an information system.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Disclosure and use limitations.</I> (i) FGI is provided by the foreign government to the United States. The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(A) Not disclose FGI to nationals of a third country, or to any other third party, or use it for any purpose other than that for which it was provided without the prior written consent of the originating foreign government.
</P>
<P>(B) Submit requests for other uses or further disclosure to the GCA for U.S. contracts, and through the CSA for direct commercial contracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval of the request by the foreign government does not eliminate the requirement for the contractor to obtain an export authorization.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Transfer.</I> The contractor will transfer FGI within the United States and its territories using the same channels as specified for U.S. classified information of an equivalent classification, except that contractors cannot use non-cleared express overnight carriers for FGI.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Reproduction.</I> The reproduction of foreign government TOP SECRET or equivalent information requires the written approval of the originating government.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Disposition.</I> The contractor:
</P>
<P>(i) Will destroy FGI on completion of the contract unless the contract specifically authorizes retention or return of the information to the U.S. GCA or foreign government that provided the information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must witness the destruction of TOP SECRET, execute a destruction certificate, and retain the destruction certificate for two years.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Reporting of improper receipt of foreign government material.</I> The contractor will report improper receipt of foreign government material in accordance with § 117.8(c)(13).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Subcontracting.</I> Subcontracting procedures will be in accordance with § 117.17(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International transfers of classified material</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This paragraph (d) contains the procedures for international transfers of classified material through government-to-government channels or other arrangements agreed to by the governments involved, otherwise referred to as government-to-government transfers. The requirements in this paragraph (d) do not apply to the transmission of classified material to usg activities outside the united states.
</P>
<P>(i) All international transfers of classified material must take place through channels approved by both governments. U.S. control of classified material must be maintained until the material is officially transferred to the intended recipient government through its designated government representative (DGR).
</P>
<P>(ii) To ensure government control, written transmission instructions must be prepared for all international transfers of classified material. The contractor is responsible for the preparation of instructions for direct commercial arrangements, and the GCA will prepare instructions for government arrangements.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor will contact the CSA at the earliest possible stage in deliberations that will lead to the international transfer of classified material. The CSA will advise the contractor on the transfer arrangements, identify the recipient government's DGR, appoint a U.S. DGR, and ensure that the transportation plan prepared by the contractor or foreign government is adequate.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contractor's empowered official is responsible for requests for all export authorizations, including ones that will involve the transfer of classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfers of freight</I>—(i) <I>Transportation plan (TP).</I> (A) A requirement to prepare a TP will be included in each arrangement that involves the international transfer of classified material as freight. The TP will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Describe requirements for the secure shipment of the material from the point of origin to the ultimate destination.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide for security requirements in the event the transfer cannot be made promptly.
</P>
<P>(B) The U.S. and recipient government DGRs will be identified in the TP as well as any requirement for an escort. When there are to be repetitive shipments, a notice of classified consignment will be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Government agency arrangements.</I> Classified material to be furnished to a foreign government under such transactions normally will be shipped via government agency-arranged transportation and be transferred to the foreign government's DGR within the recipient government's territory.
</P>
<P>(A) The government agency that executes the arrangement is responsible, in coordination with the recipient foreign government, for preparing a TP.
</P>
<P>(B) When the point of origin is a U.S. contractor facility, the GCA will provide the contractor with a copy of the TP and the applicable letter of offer and acceptance. If a freight forwarder will be involved in processing the shipment, the GCA will provide a copy of the TP to the freight forwarder.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Commercial arrangements.</I> (<I>1</I>) The contractor will prepare a TP in coordination with the receiving government. This requirement applies whether the material is moved by land, sea, or air, and applies to U.S. and foreign classified contracts.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After the CSA approves the TP, the CSA will forward it to the recipient foreign government security authorities for final coordination and approval. The CSA will notify the contractor upon the concurrence by the respective parties.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>International carriers.</I> The international transfer of classified material will be made using only ships, aircraft, or other carriers that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Are owned or chartered by the USG or under U.S. registry;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Are owned or chartered by or under the registry of the recipient government; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Are other than those described that are expressly authorized to perform this function in writing by the Designated Security Authority of the GCA and the security authorities of the foreign government involved. This authority cannot be delegated and this exception may be authorized only when a carrier described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A) or (d)(2)(iv)(B) in this section is not available and an urgent operational requirement dictates use of the exception.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Escorts.</I> (<I>1</I>) The contractor must provide escorts for international shipments of SECRET or CONFIDENTIAL material by air.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Escorts must have an eligibility determination and access to classified information at the classification level of the material being shipped.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Escorts are responsible for ensuring that the classified material being shipped is safeguarded in the event of an emergency stop en route, re-routing of the aircraft, or in the event that the recipient government's representative fails to meet the shipment at its destination.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The contractor does not have to provide escorts if:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The classified material is shipped by the Defense Transportation System or a U.S. military carrier.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The recipient government DGR has signed for the receipt of the classified material within the United States.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The classified material is shipped via a military carrier of the recipient government or a carrier owned by or registered to the recipient government.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The classified material is shipped via a cleared U.S. commercial freight carrier, so long as the contractor has a written agreement from the U.S. commercial freight carrier to provide an escort who is eligible for access to classified information and has access to classified information at the classification level of the material being shipped.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) There are exceptional circumstances, and procedures have been approved by both the USG and the recipient government.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Secure communications plan.</I> (i) The contractor is required to meet all requirements outlined in this section, as applicable, for the secure communications plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The secure communications plan may be approved within a program security instruction, SSP, or a government to government agreement by the designated security authorities. A separate memorandum of understanding or memorandum of agreement is not required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additionally, an SSP must be authorized in accordance with § 117.18 and the CSA provided guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Return of material for repair, modification, or maintenance.</I> (i) A foreign government or foreign contractor may return classified material to a U.S. contractor for repair, modification, or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The approved methods of return will be specified in either the GCA sales arrangement, the security requirements section of a direct commercial sales arrangement or, in the case of material transferred as freight, in the original TP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor, on receipt of notification that classified material is to be received, will notify the applicable CSA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of freight forwarders.</I> (i) A commercial freight forwarder may be used to arrange for the international transfer of classified material as freight.
</P>
<P>(A) The freight forwarder must be under contract to a USG agency, U.S. contractor, or the recipient foreign government.
</P>
<P>(B) The contract will describe the specific functions to be performed by the freight forwarder.
</P>
<P>(C) The responsibility for security and control of the classified material that is processed by freight forwarders remains with the USG until the freight is transferred to a DGR of the recipient government.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only freight forwarders that have a valid determination of eligibility for access to classified information and storage capability for classified material at the appropriate level are eligible to take custody or possession of classified material for delivery as freight to foreign recipients. Freight forwarders that only process unclassified paperwork and make arrangements for the delivery of classified material to foreign recipients do not require an eligibility determination for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A freight forwarder cannot serve as a DGR.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hand carrying classified material.</I> To meet contractual requirements, the CSA may authorize contractor employees to hand carry classified material outside the United States. SECRET is the highest level of classified material to be carried and it must be of such size and weight that the courier can retain it in his or her possession at all times.
</P>
<P>(i) The CSA will ensure that the contractor has made necessary arrangements with U.S. airport security and customs officials and that security authorities of the receiving government approve the plan. If the transfer is under a contract or a bilateral or multinational government program, the GCA will approve the request in writing. The contractor will notify the CSA of a requirement to hand carry at least 5 working days in advance of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The courier must be a full-time employee of the dispatching or receiving contractor who has been determined eligible and has been granted access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employing contractor will provide the courier with a courier certificate that is consecutively numbered and valid for one journey only. The journey may include more than one stop if approved by the CSA and secure government storage has been arranged at each stop. The courier will return the courier certificate to the dispatching contractor immediately on completion of the journey.
</P>
<P>(iv) Before commencement of each journey, the courier will read and initial the notes to the courier attached to the courier certificate and sign the courier declaration. The contractor will maintain the declaration until completion of the next CSA security review.
</P>
<P>(v) The dispatching contractor will inventory, wrap, and seal the material in the presence of the U.S. DGR. The contractor will place the address of the receiving security office and the return address of the dispatching contractor security office on the inner envelope or wrapping and mark it with the appropriate classification. The contractor will place the address of the receiving government's DGR on the outer envelope or wrapping along with the return address of the dispatching contractor.
</P>
<P>(vi) The dispatching contractor will prepare three copies of a receipt based on the inventory and list the classified material that is being sent. The dispatching contractor will retain one copy of the receipt. The contractor will pack the other two copies with the classified material. The contractor will obtain a receipt for the sealed package from the courier.
</P>
<P>(vii) The dispatching contractor will provide the receiving contractor with 24 work hours advance notification of the anticipated date and time of the courier's arrival and the identity of the courier. The receiving contractor must notify the dispatching contractor if the courier does not arrive within 8 hours of the expected time of arrival. The dispatching contractor will notify its DGR of any delay, unless officially notified otherwise of a change in the courier's itinerary.
</P>
<P>(viii) The receiving DGR will verify the contents and sign the receipts enclosed in the consignment. The receiving DGR will return one copy to the courier. On return, the courier will provide the executed receipt to the dispatching contractor.
</P>
<P>(ix) Throughout the journey, the courier will maintain the classified material under direct personal control. The courier will not leave the material unattended at any time during the journey, in the transport being used, in hotel rooms, in cloakrooms, or other such location, and will not deposit it in hotel safes, luggage lockers, or in luggage offices. In addition, the courier will not open envelopes or packages containing the classified material en route, unless required by customs or other government officials.
</P>
<P>(x) When inspection by government officials is unavoidable, the courier will request that the officials provide written verification that they have opened the package. The courier will notify their employing contractor as soon as possible. The contractor will notify the U.S. DGR. If the inspecting officials are not of the same country as the dispatching contractor, the CSA will notify the designated security authority in the country whose officials inspected the consignment. Under no circumstances will the courier hand over the classified material to customs or other officials for their custody.
</P>
<P>(xi) When carrying classified material, the courier will not travel by surface routes through third countries, except as authorized by the CSA. The courier will travel only on carriers described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) in this section, and will travel direct routes between the United States and the destination.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Classified material receipts.</I> (i) The U.S. DGR and the DGR of the ultimate foreign recipient will maintain a continuous chain of receipts to record international transfers of all classified material from the contractor through the dispatching DGR and recipient DGR to the ultimate foreign recipient. The dispatching contractor will retain:
</P>
<P>(A) An active suspense record until return of applicable receipts for the material.
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the external receipt that records the passing of custody of the package containing the classified material and each intermediate consignee in a suspense file until the receipt that is enclosed in the package is signed and returned.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor will initiate follow-up action through the CSA if the signed receipt is not returned within 45 days.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Contractor preparations for international transfers of classified material pursuant to direct commercial and foreign military sales.</I> To prepare for international transfers the contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify each party to be involved in the transfer in the applicable contract or agreement and in the license application or letter request.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the appropriate U.S. DGR when the material is ready.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the classified material is also ITAR-controlled, provide documentation or written certification by an empowered official (as defined in the ITAR) to the U.S. DGR. This documentation must verify that the classified shipment is within the limitation scope of the pertinent export authorization or an authorized exemption to the export authorization requirements, or is within the limitations of the pertinent GCA contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) Have the classified shipment ready for visual review and verification by the DGR. As a minimum this will include:
</P>
<P>(A) Preparing the packaging materials, address labels, and receipts for review.
</P>
<P>(B) Marking the contents with the appropriate U.S. classification or the equivalent foreign government classification, downgrading, and declassification markings, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) Ensuring that shipping documents (including, as appropriate, the shipper's export declaration) include the name and contact information for the CSA that validates the license or letter authorization, and the FSO or designee for the particular transfer.
</P>
<P>(D) Sending advance notification of the shipment to the CSA, the recipient, and to the freight forwarder, if applicable. The notification will require that the recipient confirm receipt of the shipment or provide notice to the contractor if the shipment is not received in accordance with the prescribed shipping schedule.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Transfers pursuant to an ITAR exemption.</I> (i) The contractor will provide to the DGR valid documentation (<I>i.e.,</I> license, export authorization, letter of offer and acceptance, or agreement) to verify the export authorization for classified technical data information or certain defense articles to be transferred under an exemption to the ITAR exemption. The documentation must include a copy of the Department of State Form DSP-83 associated with the original export authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) Classified technical data information or certain defense articles to be exported pursuant to ITAR exemptions will be supported by a written authorization signed by an authorized exemption official or exemption certifying official who has been appointed by the GCA's responsible disclosure authority.
</P>
<P>(A) The contractor will provide a copy of the authorization to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(B) The CSA will provide a copy of the authorization to the Department of State Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International visits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The contractor will establish procedures to monitor international visits by their employees and visits or assignments of foreign nationals to the contractor location. Doing so will ensure that the disclosure of, and access to, classified export-controlled articles related to classified information are limited to those that are approved by an export authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors cannot use visit authorizations to employ or otherwise acquire the services of foreign nationals that require access to export-controlled information. An export authorization is required for such situations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>International visits by U.S. contractor employees</I>—(i) <I>Types and purpose of international visits</I>—(A) <I>One-time visits.</I> A visit for a single, short-term occasion (normally 30 days or fewer) for a specified purpose.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Recurring visits.</I> Intermittent, recurring visits over a specified period of time, normally up to one year in duration, in support of a government-approved arrangement, such as an agreement, contract, or license. By agreement of the governments, the term of the authorization may be for the duration of the arrangement, subject to annual review, and validation.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Long-term visits.</I> A single visit for an extended period of time, normally up to one year, in support of an agreement, contract, or license.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Emergency visits.</I> A visit related to a specific government-approved contract, international agreement or announced request for proposal, and failure to make the visit could be reasonably expected to seriously jeopardize performance on the contract or program, or result in the loss of a contract opportunity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requests for visits.</I> Visit requests are necessary to make administrative arrangements and disclosure decisions and obtain security assurances.
</P>
<P>(A) Many foreign governments require the submission of a visit request for all visits to a government facility or a cleared contractor facility, even though classified information may not be involved. They may also require that the requests be received a specified number of days in advance of the visit.
</P>
<P>(B) The contractor can obtain information pertaining to the visit requirements of other governments and the NATO from the CSA. The contractor must obtain an export authorization if classified export controlled articles or technical data is to be disclosed or if information to be divulged is related to a classified USG program, unless the disclosure of the information is covered by other agreements, authorizations, or exemptions.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Request format.</I> Contractors will request a visit request template from the CSA. The contractor will forward the visit request to the security official designated by the CSA. The host for the visit should coordinate the visit in advance with appropriate government authorities who are required to approve the visit. It is the visitor's responsibility to ensure that such coordination has occurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Government agency programs.</I> The contractor will submit a visit request when contractor employees are to visit foreign government facilities or foreign contractors on USG orders in support of a government contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Requests for emergency visits.</I> The requester will include in the emergency visit request, and any other requirements in accordance with applicable CSA guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) The complete name, position, address, and telephone number of the person to be visited.
</P>
<P>(B) A knowledgeable foreign government point of contact.
</P>
<P>(C) The identification of the contract, agreement, or program and the justification for submission of the emergency visit request.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Requests for recurring visits.</I> Contractors will request recurring visit authorizations at the beginning of each program. After approval of the request, the contractor may arrange individual visits directly with the security office of the location to be visited subject to 5 working days advance notice.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Amendments.</I> (A) Once visit requests have been approved or are being processed, the contractor may amend them only to change, add, or delete names and change dates.
</P>
<P>(B) The contractor cannot amend visit requests to specify dates that are earlier than originally specified.
</P>
<P>(C) The contractor cannot amend emergency visit authorizations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classified visits by foreign nationals to U.S. contractors</I>—(i) <I>Requests for classified visits.</I> Requests for visits by foreign nationals to U.S. contractors that will involve the disclosure of classified information may require authorization by the Department of State. Classified visits by foreign nationals must be processed by government national security authorities on behalf of the contractor through the sponsoring foreign government (normally the visitor's embassy) to the USG for approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>USG approval.</I> The USG may approve or deny the request or decline to render a decision.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>USG-Approved Visits.</I> (<I>1</I>) USG approved classified visits cannot be used to avoid the export licensing requirements for commercial initiatives.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When the cognizant USG agency approves a classified visit, the notification of approval will contain instructions on the level and scope of classified and unclassified information authorized for disclosure, as well as any limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Final acceptance for the visit will be subject to the concurrence of the contractor. The contractor will notify the USG agency when a classified visit is not desired.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Visit request denials.</I> (<I>1</I>) If the USG agency does not approve the disclosure of the information related to the proposed classified visit, it will deny the classified visit request. The USG agency will advise the requesting government and the contractor to be visited of the reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The contractor may accept the visitor(s), but only information that is in the public domain may be disclosed during the classified visit.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Non-sponsorship.</I> The USG agency will decline to render a decision on a classified visit request that is not in support of a USG program. The USG agency will furnish a declination notice indicating that the classified visit is not USG-approved (<I>i.e.,</I> the classified visit is non-sponsored) to the requesting foreign government with an information copy to the U.S. contractor to be visited.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A declination notice does not preclude the classified visit, provided the contractor has, or obtains, an export authorization for the information involved and, has been notified that the requesting foreign government has provided the required security assurance of the proposed visitor to the USG agency in the original classified visit request.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) It is the contractor's responsibility to consult applicable export regulations to determine licensing requirements regarding the disclosure of export-controlled information during such classified visits by foreign nationals.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Visits to subsidiaries.</I> A classified visit request authorization for a classified visit to any element of a corporate family may be used for visits to other divisions or subsidiaries within the same corporate family in accordance with § 117.15(h)(3), provided disclosures are for the same purpose and the information to be disclosed does not exceed the parameters of the approved classified visit request.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Long-term classified visits and assignments of foreign nationals.</I> Extended classified visits and assignments of foreign nationals to contractor locations can be authorized only when it is essential pursuant to a contract or government agreement (<I>e.g.,</I> joint venture, liaison representative to a joint or multinational program, and direct commercial sale). The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Consult with its empowered official for guidance.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notify the CSA in advance of all long-term classified visits and assignments of foreign nationals.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provide the CSA with a copy of the approved classified visit authorization or the USG export authorization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Control of foreign visitors to U.S. contractors</I>—(i) <I>Contractor.</I> The contractor will:
</P>
<P>(A) Establish procedures to ensure that foreign visitors are not afforded access to classified information except as authorized by an export license, approved visit request, or other exemption to the licensing requirements.
</P>
<P>(B) Not inform the foreign visitor of the scope of access authorized or of the limitations imposed by the government.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Foreign visitors.</I> Foreign visitors will not be given custody of classified material except when they are acting as official couriers of the government and the CSA authorizes the transfer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Visitor records.</I> The contractor will maintain a record of foreign visitors for one year when the visit involves access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temporary approval of safeguarding.</I> (A) Classified U.S. and foreign government material at a U.S. contractor location is to remain under U.S. contractor custody and control and is subject to self-inspection and CSA security reviews.
</P>
<P>(B) This does not preclude the contractor from furnishing a foreign visitor with a security container for the temporary storage of classified material, consistent with the purpose of the visit or assignment, provided the CSA approves and responsibility for the container and its contents remains with the U.S. contractor.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The CSA may approve exceptions to this policy on a case-by-case basis for the storage of foreign government classified information furnished to the visitor by the visitor's government through government channels.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The CSA must approve such exceptions in advance in writing with agreement from the visitor's government. The agreed procedures will be included in the contractor's TCP, will require the foreign nationals to provide receipts for the material, and will include an arrangement for the CSA to ensure compliance, including provisions for the CSA to inspect and inventory the material.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>TCP.</I> A TCP is required to control access by foreign nationals assigned to, or employed by, cleared contractor facilities, and when foreign nationals visit cleared contractor facilities on a long-term or extended basis, unless the CSA determines that procedures already in place at the contractor's facility are adequate. The TCP will contain procedures to control access for all export-controlled information. A sample TCP may be obtained from the CSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractor operations abroad</I>—(1) <I>Access by contractor employees assigned outside the United States.</I> (i) Contractor employees assigned outside the United States, its possessions, or territories may have access to classified information in connection with performance on a specified U.S., NATO, or foreign government classified contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) The assignment of an employee who is a non-U.S. citizen outside the United States on programs that will involve access to classified information is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage, custody, and control of classified information abroad by contractor employees.</I> (i) The USG is responsible for the storage, custody, and control of classified information required by a U.S. contractor employee abroad. Therefore, the storage of classified information by contractor employees at any location abroad that is not under USG control is prohibited. The storage may be at a U.S. military facility, an American Embassy or consulate, or other location occupied by a USG organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor employee may be furnished a security container to temporarily store classified material at a USG agency overseas location. The decision to permit a contractor to temporarily store classified information must be approved in writing by the senior security official for the USG host organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor employee may be permitted to temporarily remove classified information from an overseas USG-controlled facility when necessary for the performance of a GCA contract or pursuant to an approved export authorization.
</P>
<P>(A) The responsible USG security official at the facility will verify that the contractor has an export authorization or other written USG approval to have the material, verify the need for the material to be removed from the facility, and brief the employee on handling procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In such cases, the contractor employee will sign a receipt for the classified material.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Arrangements will also be made with the USG custodian for the return and storage of the classified material during non-duty hours.
</P>
<P>(B) The security office at the USG facility will report violations of this policy to the applicable CSA.
</P>
<P>(iv) A contractor employee will not store classified information at overseas divisions or subsidiaries of U.S. entities incorporated or located in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(A) The divisions or subsidiaries may possess classified information that has been transferred to the applicable foreign government through government-to-government channels pursuant to an approved export authorization or other written USG authorization.
</P>
<P>(B) Access to this classified information at such locations by a U.S. contractor employee assigned abroad by the parent facility on a visit authorization in support of a foreign government contract or subcontract, is governed by the laws and regulations of the country in which the division or subsidiary is registered or incorporated. The division or subsidiary that has obtained the information from the foreign government will provide the access.
</P>
<P>(v) U.S. contractor employees assigned to foreign government or foreign contractor locations under a direct commercial sales arrangement will be subject to the host-nation's industrial security policies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transmission of classified material to employees abroad.</I> The transmission of classified material to a cleared contractor employee located outside the United States will be through USG channels.
</P>
<P>(i) If the material is to be used for other than USG purposes, an export authorization is required and a copy of the authorization, validated by the DGR, will accompany the material. The material will be addressed to a U.S. military organization or other USG organization (<I>e.g.,</I> an embassy).
</P>
<P>(ii) USG organization abroad will be responsible for custody and control of the material.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security briefings.</I> An employee being assigned outside the United States will be briefed on the security requirements of his or her assignment, including the handling, disclosure, and storage of classified information overseas.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NATO information security requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This section provides the security requirements needed to comply with the procedures established by the U.S. Security Authority for NATO Affairs Instruction 1-07 (available at: <I>http://archives.nato.int/informationobject/browse?topLod=0&amp;query=United+States+Security+Authority+for+NATO+Affairs+Instruction+1-07</I>) for safeguarding NATO information provided to U.S. industry.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>NATO security classification levels.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2) NATO Security Classification Levels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NATO security classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification level
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">COSMIC TOP SECRET</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top Secret.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NATO SECRET</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secret.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NATO CONFIDENTIAL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Confidential.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NATO RESTRICTED 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not correspond to an equivalent U.S. classification.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Pursuant to applicable NATO security regulations and United States Security Authority, NATO Instruction 1-07, security accreditation may be delegated to contractors for information systems processing only NATO RESTRICTED information. The contractor will be responsible for executing specific provisions under contract for the accreditation of such systems, and shall provide the Contracting Authority with a written statement confirming the information system has been accredited in compliance with the minimum requirements established in the contract security clause or contract Security Aspects Letter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>ATOMAL Classification Markings.</I> ATOMAL is a marking applied to U.S. RESTRICTED DATA or FORMERLY RESTRICTED DATA and UK Atomic information that has been released to the NATO.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(3) ATOMAL Classification Markings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ATOMAL marking
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification level
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">COSMIC TOP SECRET ATOMAL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top Secret.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NATO SECRET ATOMAL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secret.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NATO CONFIDENTIAL ATOMAL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Confidential.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>NATO contracts.</I> NATO contracts involving NATO-unique systems, programs, or operations are awarded by a NATO Production and Logistics Organization (NPLO), a designated NATO Management Agency, the NATO Research Staff, or a NATO Command. In the case of NATO infrastructure projects (<I>e.g.,</I> airfields, communications), the NATO contract is awarded by a contracting agency or prime contractor of the NATO nation responsible for the infrastructure project.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>NATO facility security clearance certificate (FSCC).</I> A NATO FSCC is required for a contractor to negotiate or perform on a NATO classified contract.
</P>
<P>(i) A U.S. entity qualifies for a NATO FSCC if it has an equivalent U.S. entity eligibility determination and its personnel have been briefed on NATO procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSA will provide the NATO FSCC to the requesting activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) A NATO FSCC is not required for GCA contracts involving access to NATO classified information.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Eligibility for personnel access to classified information.</I> Access to NATO classified information requires a final determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information at the equivalent level.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>NATO briefings.</I> Before having access to NATO classified information, the contractor will give employees a NATO security briefing that covers the requirements of this section and the consequences of negligent handling of NATO classified information. A representative of the CSA will give the initial briefing to the contractor. The contractor must conduct annual refresher briefings.
</P>
<P>(i) When access to NATO classified information is no longer required, the contractor will debrief the employees. The employees will sign a certificate stating that they have been briefed or debriefed, as applicable, and acknowledge their responsibility for safeguarding NATO information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor will maintain certificates for two years for NATO SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL, and three years for COSMIC TOP SECRET and all ATOMAL information. The contractor will maintain a record of all NATO briefings and debriefings in the CSA-designated database.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Access to NATO classified information by foreign nationals.</I> Foreign nationals of non-NATO nations may have access to NATO classified information only with the consent of the NATO Office of Security and the contracting activity.
</P>
<P>(i) Requests will be submitted to the Central U.S. Registry (CUSR).
</P>
<P>(ii) Access to NATO classified information may be permitted for citizens of NATO member nations, provided a NATO security clearance certificate is provided by their government and they have been briefed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Subcontracting for NATO contracts.</I> The contractor will obtain prior written approval from the NATO contracting activity and a NATO FSCC must be issued prior to awarding the subcontract. The contractor will forward the request for approval through the CSA.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Preparing and marking NATO documents.</I> All classified documents created by a U.S. contractor will be portion-marked. Any portion extracted from a NATO document that is not portion marked, must be assigned the classification that is assigned to the NATO document.
</P>
<P>(i) All U.S.-originated NATO classified documents will bear an assigned reference number and date on the first page. The reference numbers will be assigned as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The first element will be the abbreviation for the name of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(B) The second element will be the abbreviation for the highest classification followed by a hyphen and the 4-digit sequence number for the document within that classification that has been generated for the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(C) The third element will be the year; <I>e.g.,</I> MM/NS-0013/17.
</P>
<P>(ii) COSMIC TOP SECRET, NATO SECRET, and ATOMAL documents will bear the reference number on each page and a copy number on the cover or first page.
</P>
<P>(A) Copies of NATO documents will be serially numbered.
</P>
<P>(B) Pages will be numbered.
</P>
<P>(C) The first page, index, or table of contents will include a list, including page numbers, of all annexes and appendices.
</P>
<P>(D) The total number of pages will be stated on the first page.
</P>
<P>(E) All annexes or appendices will include the date of the original document and the purpose of the new text (addition or substitution) on the first page.
</P>
<P>(iii) One of the following markings will be applied to NATO documents that contain ATOMAL information:
</P>
<P>(A) “This document contains U.S. ATOMIC Information (RESTRICTED DATA or FORMERLY RESTRICTED DATA) made available pursuant to the NATO Agreement for Cooperation Regarding ATOMIC Information, dated 18 June 1964, and will be safeguarded accordingly.”
</P>
<P>(B) “This document contains UK ATOMIC Information. This information is released to NATO including its military and civilian agencies and member states on condition that it will not be released by the recipient organization to any other organization or government or national of another country or member of any other organization without prior permission from H.M. Government in the United Kingdom.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Working papers will be retained only until a final product is produced and in accordance with § 117.15(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Classification guidance.</I> Classification guidance will be in the form of a NATO security aspects letter and a security requirements checklist for NATO contracts, or a Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(i) If adequate classification guidance is not received, the contractor will contact the CSA for assistance.
</P>
<P>(ii) NATO classified documents and NATO information in other documents will not be declassified or downgraded without the prior written consent of the originating activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommendations concerning the declassification or downgrading of NATO classified information will be forwarded to the CUSR.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Further distribution.</I> The contractor will not release or disclose NATO classified information to a third party or outside the contractor's facility for any purpose without the prior written approval of the contracting agency.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Storage of NATO documents.</I> NATO classified documents will be stored as prescribed for U.S. documents of an equivalent classification level, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) NATO classified documents will not be comingled with other documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Combinations for containers used to store NATO classified information will be changed annually. The combination also will be changed when an individual with access to the container departs or no longer requires access to the container, and if the combination is suspected of being compromised.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the combination is recorded it will be marked with the highest classification level of documents stored in the container as well as to indicate the level and type of NATO documents in the container. The combination record must be logged and controlled in the same manner as NATO classified documents.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>International transmission.</I> The NATO has a registry system for the receipt and distribution of NATO documents within each NATO member nation. The central distribution point for the United States is the CUSR now located at 9301 Chapek Road, Building 1458, Fort Belvoir, Virginia 22060.
</P>
<P>(i) The CUSR establishes sub registries at USG organizations for further distribution and control of NATO documents. Sub registries may establish control points at contractor facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) COSMIC TOP SECRET, NATO SECRET, and all ATOMAL documents will be transferred through the registry system. NATO CONFIDENTIAL documents provided as part of NATO infrastructure contracts will be transmitted via government channels in compliance with paragraph (d) in this section.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Hand carrying.</I> NATO SECRET and NATO CONFIDENTIAL documents may be hand carried across international borders if authorized by the GCA. The courier will be issued a NATO Courier Certificate by the CSA. When hand carrying is authorized, the documents will be delivered to a U.S. organization at NATO, which will transfer them to the intended NATO recipient.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Reproduction.</I> Reproductions of COSMIC TOP SECRET and COSMIC TOP SECRET ATOMAL information will be performed by the responsible Registry. The reproduction of NATO SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL documents may be authorized to meet contractual requirements unless reproduction is prohibited by the contracting entity. Copies of COSMIC TOP SECRET, NATO SECRET, and ATOMAL documents will be serially numbered and controlled and accounted for in the same manner as the original.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Disposition.</I> (i) Generally, all NATO classified documents will be returned to the contracting activity that provided them on completion of the contract. Documents provided in connection with an invitation to bid also will be returned immediately if the bid is not accepted or submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) NATO classified documents may also be destroyed when permitted. COSMIC TOP SECRET and COSMIC TOP SECRET ATOMAL documents will be destroyed by the registry that provided the documents.
</P>
<P>(A) Destruction certificates are required for all NATO classified documents except NATO CONFIDENTIAL.
</P>
<P>(B) The destruction of COSMIC TOP SECRET, NATO SECRET, and all ATOMAL documents must be witnessed.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Accountability records.</I> Logs, receipts, and destruction certificates are required for NATO classified information. Records for NATO documents will be maintained separately from records of non-NATO documents (methods such as separate drawers of a container).
</P>
<P>(i) COSMIC TOP SECRET and all ATOMAL documents will be recorded on logs maintained separately from other NATO logs and will be assigned unique serial control numbers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Additionally, disclosure records bearing the name and signature of each person who has access are required for all COSMIC TOP SECRET, COSMIC TOP SECRET ATOMAL, and all other ATOMAL or NATO classified documents to which special access limitations have been applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum identifying data on logs, receipts, and destruction certificates will include the NATO reference number, short title, date of the document, classification, and serial copy numbers. Logs will reflect the short title, unclassified subject, and distribution of the documents.
</P>
<P>(iv) Receipts are required for all NATO classified documents except NATO CONFIDENTIAL.
</P>
<P>(v) Inventories will be conducted annually of all COSMIC TOP SECRET, NATO SECRET, and ATOMAL documents.
</P>
<P>(vi) Accountability records for ATOMAL documents will be retained for 10 years after transfer or destruction of the ATOMAL document. Destruction certificates will be retained for 10 years after destruction of the related ATOMAL documents.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Security violations and loss, compromise, or possible compromise.</I> The contractor will immediately report the loss, compromise, or suspected loss or compromise, as well as any other security violations involving NATO classified information to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Extracting from NATO documents.</I> Permission to extract from a COSMIC TOP SECRET or ATOMAL document will be obtained from the CUSR.
</P>
<P>(i) If extracts of NATO information are included in a U.S. document prepared for a non-NATO contract, the document will be marked with U.S. classification markings. The caveat, “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS NATO (level of classification) INFORMATION” also will be marked on the front cover or first page of the document. Additionally, each paragraph or portion containing the NATO information will be marked with the appropriate NATO classification, abbreviated in parentheses (<I>e.g.,</I> “NS” for NATO SECRET) preceding the portion or paragraph. Declassification and downgrading instructions shall indicate that the NATO information is exempt from declassification or downgrading without the prior consent of NATO, in the absence of other originator instructions, citing the reason “Foreign Government Information.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The declassification or downgrading of NATO information in a U.S. document requires the approval of the originating NATO activity. Requests will be submitted to the CUSR for NATO contracts, through the GCA for U.S. contracts, and through the CSA for non-NATO contracts awarded by a NATO member nation.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Release of U.S. information to NATO.</I> (i) Release of U.S. classified or export-controlled information to NATO requires an export authorization or other written disclosure authorization. When a document containing U.S. classified information is being prepared for NATO, the appropriate NATO classification markings will be applied to the document.
</P>
<P>(A) Documents containing U.S. classified information and U.S. classified documents that are authorized for release to NATO will be marked on the cover or first page “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS U.S. CLASSIFIED INFORMATION. THE INFORMATION IN THIS DOCUMENT HAS BEEN AUTHORIZED FOR RELEASE TO (cite the NATO organization) BY (cite the applicable license or other written authority).”
</P>
<P>(B) The CSA will provide transmission instructions to the contractor. The material will be addressed to a U.S. organization at NATO, which will then place the material into NATO security channels. The material will be accompanied by a letter to the U.S. organization that provides transfer instructions and assurances that the material has been authorized for release to NATO. The inner wrapper will be addressed to the intended NATO recipient.
</P>
<P>(C) Material to be sent to NATO via mail will be routed through the U.S. Postal Service and U.S. military postal channels to the U.S. organization that will make the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) A record will be maintained that identifies the originator and source of classified information that are used in the preparation of documents for release to NATO. The record will be provided with any request for release authorization.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Visits.</I> NATO visits will be handled in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section. A NATO Certificate of Security Clearance will be included with the visit request.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>NPLO and NATO industrial advisory group (NIAG) recurring visits.</I> NATO has established special procedures for recurring visits involving contractors, government departments and agencies, and NATO commands and agencies that are participating in a NPLO or NIAG contract or program. The NATO management office or agency responsible for the NPLO program will prepare a list of the government and contractor facilities participating in the program. For NIAG programs, the list will be prepared by the responsible NATO staff element. The list will be forwarded to the appropriate clearance agency of the participating nations, which will forward it to the participating contractor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Visitor record.</I> The contractor will maintain a record of NATO visits including those by U.S. personnel assigned to NATO. The records will be maintained for three years.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Security and export control violations involving foreign nationals.</I> Contractors will report any violation of administrative security procedures or export control regulations that would subject classified information to possible compromise by foreign visitors or foreign national employees to the applicable CSA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transfers of defense articles to the UK or AUS without a license or other written authorization</I>—(1) <I>Treaties with AUS and UK.</I> Exemptions in ITAR parts 126.16 and 126.17 implement the Defense Trade Cooperation Treaty between the Government of the United States of America and the Government of the UK of Great Britain and Northern Ireland and the Defense Trade Cooperation Treaty between the Government of the United States of America and the Government of AUS, also known as the “U.S.-UK Treaty” and “U.S.-AUS Treaty,” respectively, referred to collectively in this rule as “the Treaties.”
</P>
<P>(i) The Treaties provide a comprehensive framework for exports and transfers to the UK or AUS of certain classified and unclassified defense articles without a license or other written authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ITAR part 126, supplement no. 1 identifies those defense articles and services that are not eligible for export via treaty exemptions.
</P>
<P>(iii) This exemption applies to contractors registered with the DDTC and eligible to export defense articles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Defense articles.</I> Defense articles fall under the scope of the Treaties when they are in support of:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. and UK or U.S. and AUS combined military or counter-terrorism operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) U.S. and UK or U.S. and AUS cooperative security and defense research, development, production, and support programs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Mutually agreed specific security and defense projects where the government of the UK or AUS is the end-user.
</P>
<P>(iv) USG end-use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marking requirements.</I> Contractors are required to mark defense articles that fall under the scope of the treaty prior to transferring from the U.S. to the UK in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph. All other standard classification marking in accordance with § 117.14 also apply. When defense articles are returned from the UK or AUS to the United States, any defense articles marked as RESTRICTED in the manner shown in Table 4 purely for the purposes of the treaties will be considered to be unclassified and such marking will be removed.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(3) Classified U.S. Defense Article Markings
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">UNCLASSIFIED: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS FOR ILLUSTRATION PURPOSES ONLY
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Treaty with:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Marking
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
<br/>(for SECRET classified defense articles)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government of UK</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//CLASSIFICATION LEVEL USML/REL GBR AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//SECRET USML//REL GBR AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government of AUS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//CLASSIFICATION LEVEL USML/REL AUS AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//SECRET USML//REL AUS AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//”</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(3) Unclassified U.S. Defense Article Markings
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">UNCLASSIFIED: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS FOR ILLUSTRATION PURPOSES ONLY
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Treaty with:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Marking
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government of UK</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//RESTRICTED-USML//REL GBR AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government of AUS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">//RESTRICTED-USML//REL AUS AND USA TREATY COMMUNITY//</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Notice.</I> A notice will be included (<I>e.g.,</I> as part of the bill of lading) whenever defense articles are exported in accordance with the provisions of these treaties and the ITAR.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(4) Notice Text for Exported Defense Articles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Notice text</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">These U.S. Munitions List commodities are authorized by the U.S. Government under the U.S. [AUS or UK, as applicable] Defense Trade Cooperation Treaty for export only to [AUS or UK, as applicable] for use in approved projects, programs or operations by members of the [AUS or UK, as applicable] Community. They may not be retransferred or re-exported or used outside of an approve project, program, or operation, either in their original form or after being incorporated into other end-items, without the prior written approval of the U.S. Department of State.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) Defense articles (other than technical data) will be individually labeled with the appropriate identification; or, where such labeling is impracticable (<I>e.g.,</I> propellants, chemicals), will be accompanied by documentation (such as contracts or invoices) clearly associating the defense articles with the appropriate markings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical data (including data packages, technical papers, manuals, presentations, specifications, guides and reports), regardless of media or means of transmission (<I>i.e.,</I> physical, oral, or electronic), will be individually labeled with the appropriate identification detailed. Where such labeling is impracticable, the data will be accompanied by documentation (such as contracts or invoices) or oral notification clearly associating the technical data with the appropriate markings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Defense services will be accompanied by documentation (<I>e.g.</I> contracts, invoices, shipping bills, or bills of lading clearly labeled with the appropriate identification).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfers.</I> (i) All defense articles that fall under the scope of the Treaties must be transferred from the U.S. point of embarkation through channels approved by both the United States and the UK or the United States and AUS, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) For transfers of defense articles as freight, the contractor will prepare a transportation plan. For transfer of classified U.S. defense articles, a freight forwarder must have a valid entity eligibility determination and a classified information storage capability at the appropriate level. For unclassified U.S. defense articles transferred as freight, a freight forwarder is not required to be cleared.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Records.</I> Contractors will maintain records of exports, transfers, re-exports, or re-transfers of defense articles subject to the Treaties for a minimum of five years. The contractor will make records available to the CSA upon request. In accordance with the ITAR parts 126.16 and 126.17 the records will contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Port of entry or exit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date and time of export or import.
</P>
<P>(iii) Method of export or import.
</P>
<P>(iv) Commodity code and description of the commodity, including technical data.
</P>
<P>(v) Value of export.
</P>
<P>(vi) Justification for export under the Treaties.
</P>
<P>(vii) End-user or end-use.
</P>
<P>(viii) Identification of all U.S. and foreign parties to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ix) How export was marked.
</P>
<P>(x) Security classification of the export.
</P>
<P>(xi) All written correspondence with the USG on the export.
</P>
<P>(xii) All information relating to political contributions, fees, or commissions furnished or obtained, offered, solicited, or agreed upon, as outlined in the ITAR parts 126.16(m) or 126.17(m).
</P>
<P>(xiii) Purchase order, contract, or letter of intent.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Technical data actually exported.
</P>
<P>(xv) The internal transaction number for the electronic export information filing in the automated export system.
</P>
<P>(xvi) All shipping documentation (including, but not limited to, the airway bill, bill of lading, packing list, delivery verification, and invoice).
</P>
<P>(xvii) Statement of registration (Department of State Form DS-2032 (available at: <I>https://www.pmddtc.state.gov/sys_attachment.do?sysparm_referring_url=tear_off&amp;view=true&amp;sys_id=dabc05f6db6be344529d368d7c961984</I>)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.20   Critical Nuclear Weapon Design Information (CNWDI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section contains the special requirements for protection of CNDWI. The sensitivity of DoD CNWDI is such that access shall be granted to the absolute minimum number of employees who require it for the accomplishment of assigned responsibilities on a classified contract. Because of the importance of such information, special requirements have been established for its control. DoDI 5210.02, “Access to and Dissemination of Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data” (available at: <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/521002p.pdf?ver=2019-01-14-072742-700</I>) establishes these controls in the DoD.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Briefings.</I> Prior to having access to CNWDI, employees will be briefed on its sensitivity by the FSO or his or her alternate. The FSO will be initially briefed by a USG representative.
</P>
<P>(1) The briefing will include:
</P>
<P>(i) The definition of CNWDI.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reminder of the extreme sensitivity of the information.
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the individual's continuing responsibility for properly safeguarding CNWDI and for ensuring that dissemination is strictly limited to other personnel who have been authorized for access and have a need-to-know for the particular information.
</P>
<P>(2) The briefing will also be tailored to cover any special local requirements. Upon termination of access to CNWDI, the employee will be given an oral debriefing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Markings.</I> In addition to any other required markings, CNWDI material will be clearly marked in accordance with DoDI 5210.02. At a minimum, CNWDI documents will show such markings on the cover or first page. Portions of documents that contain CNWDI will be marked with an (N) or (CNWDI) following the classification of the portion; for example, TS (RD)(N) or TS(RD)(CNWDI).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subcontractors.</I> Contractors will not disclose CNWDI to subcontractors without the prior written approval of the GCA. This approval may be included in a contract security classification specification, or equivalent, other contract-related document, or by separate correspondence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transmission outside the facility.</I> Transmission of CNWDI outside the contractor's facility is authorized only to the GCA, or to a subcontractor as described in paragraph (d) of this section. Any other transmission must be approved by the GCA.
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to transmission to another cleared facility, the contractor will verify from the CSA that the facility has been authorized access to CNWDI. When CNWDI is transmitted to another facility, the inner wrapping will be addressed to the personal attention of the FSO or his or her alternate, and in addition to any other prescribed markings, the inner wrapping will be marked: “Critical Nuclear Weapon Design Information-DoD Instruction 5210.02 Applies.”
</P>
<P>(2) The same marking will be used on the inner wrapping of transmissions addressed to the GCA or other USG.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> Contractors will annotate CNWDI access in the CSA-designated database for all employees who have been authorized access to CNWDI.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nuclear weapon data.</I> Some nuclear weapon data is divided into Sigma categories, the protection of which is prescribed by DOE Order 452.8 (available at: <I>https://www.directives.doe.gov/directives-documents/400-series/0452.8-border/@@images/file</I>). However, certain nuclear weapon data has been re-categorized as CNWDI and is protected as described in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.21   COMSEC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The procedures in this section pertaining to classified COMSEC information will apply to contractors when the contractor:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires the use of COMSEC systems in the performance of a contract.
</P>
<P>(2) Is required to install, maintain, or operate COMSEC equipment for the USG.
</P>
<P>(3) Is required to accomplish research, development, or production of COMSEC systems, COMSEC equipment, or related COMSEC material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Instructions.</I> Specific requirements for the management and safeguarding of COMSEC material in industry are established in the COMSEC material control and operating procedures provided to the account manager of each industrial COMSEC account by the agency central office of record (COR) responsible for establishing the account. Such procedures that are above the baseline requirements detailed in the other sections of this rule will be contractually mandated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearance and access requirements.</I> (1) Before a COMSEC account can be established and a contractor may receive or possess COMSEC material accountable to a COR, individuals occupying the positions of FSO, COMSEC account manager, and alternate COMSEC account manager must have a final PCL appropriate for the material to be held in the account.
</P>
<P>(i) COMSEC account managers and alternate COMSEC account managers having access to operational TOP SECRET keying material marked as CRYPTO must have a final TOP SECRET security clearance based upon a current investigation of a scope that meets or exceeds that necessary for the access required.
</P>
<P>(ii) This requirement does not apply to contractors using only data transfer devices and seed key.
</P>
<P>(2) Before disclosure of COMSEC information to a contractor, GCAs must first verify with the CSA that appropriate COMSEC procedures are in place at the contractor facility. If procedures are not in place, the GCA will provide a written request and justification to the CSA to establish COMSEC procedures and a COMSEC account, if appropriate, at the facility and to conduct the initial COMSEC or cryptographic access briefings for the FSO and COMSEC account personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) Access to COMSEC information by a contractor requires a final entity eligibility determination and a USG-issued final PCL at the appropriate level; however, an Interim TOP SECRET entity eligibility determination or PCL is valid for access to COMSEC at the SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL levels.
</P>
<P>(4) If a COMSEC account will be required, the Contract Security Classification Specification, or equivalent, will contain a statement regarding the establishment of a COMSEC account as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishing a COMSEC account.</I> (1) When COMSEC material that is accountable to a COR is to be provided, acquired, or produced under a contract, the contracting officer will inform the contractor that a COMSEC account must be established. The contractor will forward the names of U.S. citizen employees who will serve as the COMSEC account manager and alternate COMSEC account manager to the CSA. The CSA will forward the names of the FSO, COMSEC account manager, and alternate COMSEC account manager, along with a contractual requirement for the establishment of a COMSEC account (using DD Form 254 or equivalent) to the appropriate COR, with a copy to the GCA, indicating that the persons have been cleared and COMSEC has been briefed.
</P>
<P>(2) The COR will then establish the COMSEC account and notify the CSA that the account has been established.
</P>
<P>(3) An individual may be appointed as the COMSEC account manager or alternate COMSEC account manager for more than one account only when approved by each COR concerned.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>COMSEC briefing and debriefing.</I> (1) All contractor employees who require access to classified COMSEC information in the performance of their duties will be briefed before access is granted. Depending on the nature of COMSEC access required, either a COMSEC briefing or a cryptographic access briefing will be given. The FSO, the COMSEC account manager, and the alternate COMSEC account manager will be briefed by a USG representative or their designee. Other contractor employees will be briefed by the FSO, the COMSEC account personnel, or other individual designated by the FSO. The purpose of the briefing is to ensure that the contractor understands:
</P>
<P>(i) The unique nature of COMSEC information and its unusual sensitivity.
</P>
<P>(ii) The special security requirements for the handling and protection of COMSEC information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The penalties prescribed in 18 U.S.C. 793, 794, and 798 for disclosure of COMSEC information.
</P>
<P>(2) COMSEC debriefings are not required.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor will maintain a record of all COMSEC briefings as specified by the appropriate COR.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>U.S. classified cryptographic information access briefing and debriefing requirements.</I> (1) U.S. classified cryptographic information does not include seed key or controlled cryptographic items.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor's employee may be granted access to U.S. classified cryptographic information only if the employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a final USG-issued eligibility determination appropriate to the classification of the U.S. cryptographic information to be accessed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a valid need-to-know to perform duties for, or on behalf of, the USG.
</P>
<P>(iv) Receives a security briefing appropriate to the U.S. Classified Cryptographic Information to be accessed.
</P>
<P>(v) Acknowledges the granting of access to classified information by executing Section I of Secretary of Defense (SD) Form 572, “Cryptographic Access Certification and Termination” (available at: <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/sd/sd0572.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(vi) Where so directed by a USG department or agency head, acknowledges the possibility of being subject to a CI scope polygraph examination that will be administered in accordance with department or agency directives and applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) An employee granted access to cryptographic information will be debriefed and execute Section II of the SD 572 not later than 90 days from the date access is no longer required.
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor will maintain the SD 572 for a minimum of five years following the debriefing.
</P>
<P>(5) Cryptographic access briefings must fully meet the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Destruction and disposition of COMSEC material.</I> The appropriate GCA representative, <I>e.g.,</I> the contracting officer representative, will provide directions to the contractor when accountable COMSEC material is to be destroyed. These directions may be provided in superseding editions of publications or by specific instructions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Subcontracting COMSEC work.</I> Subcontracts requiring the disclosure of classified COMSEC information will be awarded only upon the written approval of the GCA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unsolicited proposals.</I> Any unsolicited proposal for a COMSEC system, equipment, development, or study that may be submitted by a contractor to a USG agency will be forwarded to the Deputy National Manager for National Security Systems for review and follow up action at: Deputy National Manager for National Security Systems, NSA, Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755-6000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.22   DHS CCIPP.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> DHS will coordinate with other USG agencies that have an equity with a private sector entity and the CCIPP in accordance with § 117.6(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> (1) The Secretary of Homeland Security has the authority to determine the eligibility for personnel security clearances and to administer the sharing of relevant classified NSI with certain private sectors or non-federal partners for the purpose of furthering cybersecurity information sharing among critical infrastructure partners pursuant to E.O. 13691.
</P>
<P>(2) DHS provides security oversight and assumes security responsibilities similar to those of an FSO, unless otherwise provided in this section. Participating entities will cooperate with DHS security officials to ensure the entity is in compliance with requirements in this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.23   Supplement to this rule: Security Requirements for Alternative Compensatory Control Measures (ACCM), Special Access Programs (SAPs), Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI), Restricted Data (RD), Formerly Restricted Data (FRD), Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information (TFNI), and Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information (NNPI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Given the sensitive nature of Alternative Compensatory Control Measures (ACCM), SAPs, SCI, RD, FRD, TFNI, and NNPI, the security requirements prescribed in this section exceed baseline standards for this rule and must be applied, as applicable, through specific contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Compliance.</I> The contractor will comply with the security measures reflected in this section and other documents specifically referenced, when applied by the GCA or designee as part of a contract. Acceptance of the contract security measures is a prerequisite to any negotiations leading to program participation and an area accreditation (<I>e.g.,</I> an SCI facility or SAP facility accreditation).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CSA-imposed higher standards.</I> In some cases, security or sensitive factors of a CSA-created program may require security measures that exceed the standards of this section. In such cases, the CSA-imposed higher standards specifically detailed in the contract or conveyed through other applicable directives will be binding on USG and contractor participants. In cases of doubt over the specific provisions, the contractor should consult the program security officer and the contracting officer before taking any action or expending program-related funds. In cases of extreme emergencies requiring immediate attention, the action taken should protect the USG's interest and the security of the program from loss or compromise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waivers.</I> Every effort will be made to avoid waivers to established standards unless they are in the best interest of the USG. In those cases where waivers are deemed necessary, a request will be submitted in accordance with the procedures established by the CSA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intelligence information.</I> National intelligence is under the jurisdiction and control of the DNI, who establishes security policy for the protection of national intelligence and intelligence sources, methods, and activities. In addition to the guidance in this rule, contractors will follow Intelligence Community directives, policy guidance, standards, and specifications for the protection of classified national intelligence and SCI.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ACCM.</I> Contractors may participate in ACCMs, or be directed to participate, only when such access and the associated security plan are identified in DD Form 254 or equivalent. Care must be taken to ensure identification of the security plan does not disclose ACCM-protected data.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>ACCM contracts.</I> DoD contractors will implement the security requirements for ACCMs, when established by contract, in accordance with applicable statutes, E.O.s, CSA directives, instructions, manuals, regulations, standards, and memorandums.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-DoD with ACCMs.</I> Contractors performing on ACCM contracts issued by other than DoD GCAs will implement ACCM protection requirements imposed in their contracts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>SAPs</I>—(1) <I>DoD SAP contracts.</I> Contractors will implement the security requirements for SAPs codified in SAP-related policy, when established by contract. These documents include, but are not limited to, statutes, E.O.s, CSA directives, instructions, manuals, regulations, standards, memorandums, and other SAP security related policy documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-DoD SAPs.</I> Contractors performing on SAP contracts issued by non-DoD GCAs will implement SAP protection requirements imposed in their contracts. These requirements may be from, but are not limited to, statutes, E.O.s, CSA directives, instructions, manuals, regulations, standards, memorandums, and other SAP security related policy documents.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>RD, FRD, and TFNI</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This section describes some of the requirements for nuclear-related information designated RD, FRD, or TFNI in accordance with the AEA and 10 CFR part 1045. 10 CFR part 1045 contains the full requirements for classification and declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI. Information on safeguarding of RD by access permittees is contained in 10 CFR part 1016. For RD that is NNPI, the additional provisions of paragraph (f) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(i) The DOE is the sole authority for establishing requirements for classifying, accessing, handling, securing, and protecting RD. The DOE and the DoD share authority for the requirements for FRD. The DOE and ODNI share authority for establishing requirements for TFNI.
</P>
<P>(ii) RD, FRD, and TFNI categories are distinguished from the NSI category, which is governed in accordance with E.O. 13526.
</P>
<P>(A) RD, FRD, and TFNI have unique marking requirements and are not subject to automatic declassification. In addition, RD and FRD have special restrictions regarding foreign release.
</P>
<P>(B) It is necessary to differentiate between the handling of this information and NSI because of its direct relationship to our nation's nuclear deterrent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Some access requirements for RD and FRD exceed the requirements for NSI. Due to the unique national security implications of RD and FRD, and to facilitate maintaining consistency of codified requirement, they are not repeated in the baseline of this rule, but may be applied through specific contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) When RD is transclassified as TFNI, it is safeguarded as NSI. Such information will be labeled as TFNI. The label TFNI will be included on documents to indicate it is exempt from automatic declassification as specified in 10 CFR part 1045, the AEA, E.O. 13526, and 32 CFR part 2001.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unauthorized disclosures.</I> Contractors will report all unauthorized disclosures involving RD, FRD and TFNI information to the CSA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>International requirements.</I> The AEA provides for a program of international cooperation to promote common defense and security and to make available to cooperating nations the benefits of peaceful applications of atomic energy as widely as expanding technology and considerations of the common defense and security will permit.
</P>
<P>(i) Information controlled in accordance with the AEA, RD, and FRD may be shared with another nation only under the terms of an agreement for cooperation. The disclosure by a contractor of RD and FRD will not be permitted until an agreement is signed by the United States and participating governments, and disclosure guidance and security arrangements are established.
</P>
<P>(ii) RD and FRD will not be transmitted to a foreign national or regional defense organization unless such action is approved and undertaken under an agreement for cooperation between the United States and the cooperating entity and supporting statutory determinations, as prescribed in the AEA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Personnel security clearance and access.</I> Only the DOE, the NRC, the DoD, and the National Aeronautics and Space Agency can grant access to RD and FRD that is under their cognizance. Access to RD and FRD must be granted in accordance with the AEA. Baseline requirements for access to RD and FRD are codified in specific DoD, DOE, NRC, and the National Aeronautics and Space Agency directives and regulations. In addition, need-to-know and other restrictions on access apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Classification and declassification.</I> (i) All persons with access to RD and FRD must receive initial and periodic refresher training as required under § 1045.120 10 CFR. The training must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) What information is potentially RD and FRD.
</P>
<P>(B) Matter that potentially contains RD or FRD must be reviewed by an RD derivative classifier to determine whether it is RD or FRD.
</P>
<P>(C) The DOE must review matter that potentially contains RD or TFNI for public release and DOE or DoD must review matter that potentially contains FRD for public release.
</P>
<P>(D) RD derivative classification authority is required to classify or upgrade matter containing RD or FRD, or to downgrade the level of matter containing RD or FRD.
</P>
<P>(E) Only a person trained in accordance with § 1045.120 10 CFR may classify matter containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(F) Matter containing RD, FRD, and TFNI is not automatically declassified and only DOE-authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing RD. Only DOE or DoD authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing FRD.
</P>
<P>(G) How to submit a challenge if they believe RD, FRD, or TFNI information (<I>e.g.,</I> a guide topic) or matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is not properly classified.
</P>
<P>(H) Access requirements for matter marked as containing RD or FRD.
</P>
<P>(ii) All persons with access to TFNI must receive initial and periodic refresher training as required under § 1045.120 10 CFR. This training may be combined with the training for access to RD and FRD. The training must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) What information is potentially TFNI.
</P>
<P>(B) Only a person with appropriate training may determine if matter contains TFNI.
</P>
<P>(C) Marking requirements for matter containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(D) Matter containing TFNI is not automatically declassified and only DOE authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(E) How to submit a challenge if they believe TFNI information (<I>e.g.,</I> a guide topic) or matter containing TFNI is not properly classified.
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI must submit matter that potentially contains RD or FRD to an RD derivative classifier for review. If matter potentially contains TFNI, it must be submitted to a person trained to make TFNI determinations. Matter potentially containing RD, FRD, or TFNI must be reviewed, even if the potential RD, FRD, or TFNI is derived from the open literature. Prior to review, the matter must be marked as a working paper under 10 CFR 1045.140(c). If the matter is intended for pubic release and potentially contains RD or TFNI, it must be submitted to the DOE for review. If the matter is intended for public release and contains FRD, it must be submitted to the DOE or the DoD.
</P>
<P>(iv) Only RD derivative classifiers may classify matter containing RD or FRD. RD derivative classifiers must receive initial training and refresher training every two years as required under 10 CFR 1045.120. The training must include the content for persons with access to RD and FRD, along with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The use of classification guides, classification bulletins, and portion-marked source documents to classify matter containing RD and FRD.
</P>
<P>(B) What to do if applicable classification guidance is not available.
</P>
<P>(C) Limitations on an RD derivative classifier's authority to remove RD or FRD portions from matter.
</P>
<P>(D) Marking requirements for matter containing RD and FRD.
</P>
<P>(v) Only persons with appropriate training may review matter to determine if it contains TFNI. Training must be completed prior to making determinations and every two years after. The training must include the content for persons with access to TFNI and the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The markings applied to matter containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(B) Limitations on their authority to remove TFNI portions from matter.
</P>
<P>(C) Only DOE authorized persons may determine that classified matter no longer contains TFNI.
</P>
<P>(D) Only DOE-authorized persons may declassify matter marked as containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(E) The DOE must review matter that potentially contains TFNI for public release.
</P>
<P>(vi) RD derivative classifiers must use approved classification guides, classification bulletins, or portion-marked source documents as the basis for classifying matter containing RD and FRD.
</P>
<P>(vii) Persons trained to make TFNI determinations must use approved TFNI guidelines, classification guides, classification bulletins, or portion-marked source documents as the basis for classifying or upgrade matter containing TFNI.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Marking matter containing RD, FRD, and TFNI.</I> The front page of matter containing RD or FRD must have the highest classification level of the information on the top and bottom of the first page, the RD or FRD admonishment, the subject or title marking, and the classification authority block. Matter containing TFNI must include the TFNI identifier on each page unless the matter also contains RD or FRD, in which case the RD or FRD takes precedence.
</P>
<P>(i) Documents classified as RD or FRD must also include a Classification Authority Block with the RD derivative classifier's name and position, title, or unique identifier and the classification guide or source document (by title and date) used to classify the document. No declassification date or event may be placed on a document containing RD, FRD, or TFNI. If a document containing RD, FRD, or TFNI also contains NSI, “N/A to RD/FRD/TFNI” (as appropriate) must be placed on the “Declassify On:” line.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each interior page of matter containing RD or FRD must be clearly marked at the top and bottom with the overall classification level and category of the matter or the overall classification level and category of the page, whichever is preferred. The abbreviations “RD” or “FRD” may be used in conjunction with the matter classification (<I>e.g.,</I> SECRET//RD, CONFIDENTIAL//FRD).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(6)(<E T="01">ii</E>) RD and FRD Admonishment Markings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Document
<br/>containing
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Admonishment that must be included on the
<br/>front page of the document
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“RESTRICTED DATA
<br/>This document contains RESTRICTED DATA as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954. Unauthorized disclosure is subject to administrative and criminal sanctions.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FRD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“FORMERLY RESTRICTED DATA
<br/>Unauthorized disclosure subject to administrative and criminal sanctions. Handle as Restricted Data in foreign dissemination. Section 144b, AEA 1954.”</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Documents classified as RD or FRD must also include a Classification Authority Block with the RD derivative classifier's name and position, title, or unique identifier and the classification guide or source document (by title and date) used to classify the document.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other than the required subject or title markings, portion marking is permitted, but not required, for matter containing RD or FRD. Each agency that generates matter containing RD or FRD determines the policy for portion-marking matter generated within the agency. If matter containing RD or FRD is portion-marked, each portion containing RD or FRD must be marked with the level and category of the information in the portion (<I>e.g.,</I> SRD, CFRD, S//RD, C//FRD).
</P>
<P>(v) Additional information and requirements are in 10 CFR 1045.140. Requests for additional information about the classification and declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI can be directed to Agency RD Management Officials or the DOE Office of Classification at <I>outreach@hq.doe.gov</I> or at (301) 903-7567.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Declassification.</I> (i) No date or event for automatic declassification ever applies to RD, FRD, or TFNI documents, even if they contain classified NSI. RD, FRD, or TFNI documents remain classified until a positive action by a designated DOE official (for RD, FRD, or TFNI) or an appropriate DoD official (for FRD) is taken to declassify them.
</P>
<P>(ii) RD derivative classifiers may remove RD or FRD from portion-marked source matter if the resulting matter is not for public release. RD derivative classifiers cannot declassify matter marked as containing RD, FRD, and TFNI. Matter that potentially contains RD or TFNI must be sent to designated individuals in the DOE and those containing FRD must be sent to designated individuals in the DoD for declassification or removal of the RD, FRD, or TFNI prior to public release.
</P>
<P>(iii) Matter containing TFNI is excluded from the automatic declassification provisions of E.O. 13526 until the TFNI designation is properly removed by the DOE. When the DOE determines that a TFNI designation may be removed, any remaining classified information must be referred to the appropriate agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any matter marked as or that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI within a document intended for public release that contains RD or FRD subject area indicators must be reviewed by the appropriate DOE organization.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Challenges to RD, FRD, and TFNI.</I> A contractor employee who believes RD, FRD, or TFNI is classified improperly or unnecessarily may challenge that classification following the procedures established by the GCA. They may also send challenges directly to the Director, Office of Classification, AU-60/Germantown Building; U.S. Department of Energy; 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, at any time. Under no circumstance is an employee subject to retribution for challenging the classification status of RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Commingling.</I> Commingling of RD, FRD, and TFNI with NSI in the same document should be avoided to the greatest degree possible. When mixing this information cannot be avoided, the marking requirements in 10 CFR part 1045, section 140(f) and declassification requirements of 10 CFR part 1045, section 155 apply.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Protection of RD and FRD.</I> Most of the protection requirements for RD and FRD are similar to NSI and are based on the classification level. However, there are some protection requirements for certain RD information that may be applied through specific contract requirements by the GCA. These range from distribution limitations through the limitation of access to specifically authorized individuals to specific storage requirements, including the requirement for IDSs, and additional accountability records.
</P>
<P>(i) Any DOE contractor that violates a classified information security requirement may be subject to a civil penalty under the provisions of 10 CFR part 824.
</P>
<P>(ii) Certification is required for individuals authorized access to specific Sigma categories, as appropriate. Address questions regarding these requirements to<I> DOE's National Nuclear Security Administration, Office of Defense Programs.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) Storage and distribution requirements are determined by the classification level, category, and Sigma category. Sigma designation is not a requirement for all RD documents. Storage and distribution requirements will be dependent only on classification level and category.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Accountability.</I> In addition to TOP SECRET information, some SECRET RD information is considered accountable (<I>e.g.,</I> specific Sigma 14 matter). Each nuclear weapon data control point will keep a record of transactions involving Secret nuclear weapon data documents under its jurisdiction including origination, receipt, transmission, current custodian, reproduction, change of classification, declassification, and destruction.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Cybersecurity.</I> Classified databases, systems, and networks containing RD and FRD are protected under the requirements developed and distributed by the DOE Office of the Chief Information Officer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>NNPI.</I> NNPI is information associated with the Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program and is governed by Office of the Chief of Naval Operations Instruction (OPNAVINST) N9210.3, “Safeguarding of Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information” (available at: <I>https://www.secnav.navy.mil/doni/Directives/09000%20General%20Ship%20Design%20and%20Support/09-200%20Propulsion%20Plants%20Support/N9210.3%20(Unclas%20Portion).pdf</I>). Naval Reactors, a joint DOE/Department of Navy organization established under 50 U.S.C. 2406 and 2511, is responsible for the protection of this information. All contracts which grant access to NNPI must require compliance with the specific safeguarding requirements contained in OPNAVINST N9210.3. All waivers or deviations involving security requirements protecting NNPI require Naval Reactors' concurrence. Classified NNPI may not be processed on any contractor information system unless approved by the cognizant authorizing authority with concurrence from Naval Reactors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.24" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.42.0.43.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.24   Cognizant Security Office information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DoD.</I> Refer to the DCSA website (<I>https://www.dcsa.mil</I>) for a listing of office locations and areas of responsibility and for information on verification of facility clearances and safeguarding. In those cases where the cleared facility is located on a DoD installation the applicable DCSA field office can advise if the installation commander is providing security oversight.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>) DoD Cognizant Security Office
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Office name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Headquarters, CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">27130 Telegraph Rd., Quantico, VA 22134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(888) 282-7682</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>DOE.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>) DOE Cognizant Security Offices
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Office name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Headquarters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters Office of Security Operations (AU-40)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">19901 Germantown Road, Germantown, MD 20874</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 903-2177
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO, Clearance Agency, Central Verification Activity, Adjudicative Authority, and PCL and FCL databases</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE/National Nuclear Security Administration Office of Personnel and Facility Clearances and Classifications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pennsylvania &amp; H Street, Kirtland Air Force Base, Albuquerque, NM 87116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(505) 845-4154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Department of Energy, Idaho Operations Office</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">850 Energy Drive, Idaho Falls, ID 83401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(208) 526-2216</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>) DOE Cognizant Security Offices Continued
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Office name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO, Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Director, Naval Reactors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA-30, 1240 Isaac Hull Ave., SE., Washington Navy Yard, DC 20376</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(202) 781-6297
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Science Consolidated Service Center</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 Administration Road, P.O. Box 2001, Oak Ridge, TN 37830</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(865) 576-2140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Department of Energy, Pacific Northwest Site Office</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">902 Battelle Boulevard, Richland, WA 99354</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(888) 375-7665
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Department of Energy, Richland Operations Office</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">825 Jadwin Avenue, P.O. Box 550, Richland, WA 99352</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(509) 376-7411
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Department of Energy, Savannah River Operations Office</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Road 1A, Aiken, SC 29801</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(803) 725-6211</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>NRC.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>) NRC Cognizant Security Offices
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO, Adjudicative Authority, PCL and FCL databases, and Industrial Security Program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Director of Facilities and Security, Washington, DC 20555</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 415-8080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO, FCL Database and Industrial Security Program for Licensees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Information Security Branch, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20853</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 415-7048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clearance Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Director of Facilities and Security Personnel Security, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20853</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 415-8080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Central Verification Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Director of Security Facilities Security, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20853</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 415-8080</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>DHS.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>) DHS Cognizant Security Office
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mailing address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CSO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DHS Cognizant Security Office, ATTN: Chief Security Officer, 245 Murray Lane, M/S 0120-3, Washington, DC 20528</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(202) 447-5424;
<br/>(202) 447-5345</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="142" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 142—COPYRIGHTED SOUND AND VIDEO RECORDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 133. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 49452, Dec. 20, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 142.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 142.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides policy, prescribes procedures, and assigned responsibilities regarding the use of copyrighted sound and video recordings within the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 142.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 142.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part apply to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Unified and Specified commands, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not regulate the procurement or use of copyrighted works for authorized official purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 142.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 142.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy: (1) To recognize the rights to copyright owners by establishing specific guidelines for the use of copyrighted works by individuals within the DoD community, consistent with the Department's unique mission and worldwide commitments, and (2) Not to condone, facilitate, or permit unlicensed public performance or unlawful reproduction for private or personal use of copyrighted sound or video recordings, using government appropriated or nonappropriated-fund-owned or leased equipment or facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Although the policy expressed in this Directive takes into account the copyright law of the United States, the application of that law to specific situations is a matter for interpretation by the U.S. Copyright Office and the Department of Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 142.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 142.4   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Permission or licenses from copyright owners shall be obtained for public performance of copyrighted sound and video recordings.
</P>
<P>(b) Component procedures established pursuant to § 142.5, below provide guidance for determining whether a performance is “public.” These general principles will be observed:
</P>
<P>(1) A performance in a residential facility or a physical extension thereof is not considered a public performance.
</P>
<P>(2) A performance in an isolated area or deployed unit is not considered a public performance.
</P>
<P>(3) Any performance at which admission is charged normally would be considered a public performance.
</P>
<P>(c) Government audio and video duplicating equipment and appropriated funded playback equipment may not be used for reproduction of copyrighted sound or video recordings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 142.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.43.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 142.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Heads of DoD Components shall establish procedures to comply with this Directive and shall provide necessary local guidance and legal interpretation.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="147" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 147—ADJUDICATIVE GUIDELINES FOR DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12968 (60 FR 40245, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p 391).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 4573, Jan. 30, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Adjudication</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The following adjudicative guidelines are established for all United States Government civilian and military personnel, consultants, contractors, employees of contractors, licensees, certificate holders or grantees and their employees and other individuals who require access to classified information. They apply to persons being considered for initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information, to include sensitive compartmented information and special access programs and are to be used by government departments and agencies in all final clearance determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.2   Adjudicative process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The adjudicative process is an examination of a sufficient period of a person's life to make an affirmative determination that the person is eligible for a security clearance. Eligibility for access to classified information is predicated upon the individual meeting these personnel security guidelines. The adjudicative process is the careful weighing of a number of variables known as the whole person concept. Available, reliable information about the person, past and present, favorable and unfavorable, should be considered in reaching a determination. In evaluating the relevance of an individual's conduct, the adjudicator should consider the following actors:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature, extent, and seriousness of the conduct;
</P>
<P>(2) The circumstances surrounding the conduct, to include knowledgeable participation;
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency and recency of the conduct;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual's age and maturity at the time of the conduct;
</P>
<P>(5) The voluntariness of participation;
</P>
<P>(6) The presence or absence of rehabilitation and other pertinent behavioral changes;
</P>
<P>(7) The motivation for the conduct;
</P>
<P>(8) The potential for pressure, coercion, exploitation, or duress;
</P>
<P>(9) The likelihood of continuation of recurrence.
</P>
<P>(b) Each case must be judged on its own merits, and final determination remains the responsibility of the specific department or agency. Any doubt as to whether access to classified information is clearly consistent with national security will be resolved in favor of the national security.
</P>
<P>(c) The ultimate determination of whether the granting or continuing of eligibility for a security clearance is clearly consistent with the interests of national security must be an overall common sense determination based upon careful consideration of the following, each of which is to be evaluated in the context of the whole person, as explained further below:
</P>
<P>(1) Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Guideline B: Foreign influence.
</P>
<P>(3) Guideline C: Foreign preference.
</P>
<P>(4) Guideline D: Sexual behavior.
</P>
<P>(5) Guideline E: Personal conduct.
</P>
<P>(6) Guideline F: Financial considerations.
</P>
<P>(7) Guideline G: Alcohol consumption.
</P>
<P>(8) Guideline H: Drug involvement.
</P>
<P>(9) Guideline I: Emotional, mental, and personality disorders.
</P>
<P>(10) Guideline J: Criminal conduct.
</P>
<P>(11) Guideline K: Security violations.
</P>
<P>(12) Guideline L: Outside activities.
</P>
<P>(13) Guideline M: Misuse of Information Technology Systems.
</P>
<P>(d) Although adverse information concerning a single criterion may not be sufficient for an unfavorable determination, the individual may be disqualified if available information reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or emotionally unstable behavior. Notwithstanding, the whole person concept, pursuit of further investigations may be terminated by an appropriate adjudicative agency in the face of reliable, significant, disqualifying, adverse information.
</P>
<P>(e) When information of security concern becomes known about an individual who is currently eligible for access to classified information, the adjudicator should consider whether the person:
</P>
<P>(1) Voluntarily reported the information;
</P>
<P>(2) Was truthful and complete in responding to questions;
</P>
<P>(3) Sought assistance and followed professional guidance, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) Resolved or appears likely to favorably resolve the security concern; 
</P>
<P>(5) Has demonstrated positive changes in behavior and employment;
</P>
<P>(6) Should have his or her access temporarily suspended pending final adjudication of the information.
</P>
<P>(f) If after evaluating information of security concern, the adjudicator decides that the information is not serious enough to warrant a recommendation of disapproval or revocation of the security clearance, it may be appropriate to recommend approval with a warning that future incidents of a similar nature may result in revocation of access. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.3   Guideline A—Allegiance to the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> An individual must be of unquestioned allegiance to the United States. The willingness to safeguard classified information is in doubt if there is any reason to suspect an individual's allegiance to the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Involvement in any act of sabotage, espionage, treason, terrorism, sedition, or other act whose aim is to overthrow the Government of the United States or alter the form of government by unconstitutional means;
</P>
<P>(2) Association or sympathy with persons who are attempting to commit, or who are committing, any of the above acts;
</P>
<P>(3) Association or sympathy with persons or organizations that advocate the overthrow of the United States Government, or any state or subdivision, by force or violence or by other unconstitutional means;
</P>
<P>(4) Involvement in activities which unlawfully advocate or practice the commission of acts of force or violence to prevent others from exercising their rights under the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any state.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The individual was unaware of the unlawful aims of the individual or organization and severed ties upon learning of these;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual's involvement was only with the lawful or humanitarian aspects of such an organization;
</P>
<P>(3) Involvement in the above activities occurred for only a short period of time and was attributable to curiosity or academic interest;
</P>
<P>(4) The person has had no recent involvement or association with such activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.4   Guideline B—Foreign influence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> A security risk may exist when an individual's immediate family, including cohabitants and other persons to whom he or she may be bound by affection, influence, or obligation are not citizens of the United States or may be subject to duress. These situations could create the potential for foreign influence that could result in the compromise of classified information. Contacts with citizens of other countries or financial interests in other countries are also relevant to security determinations if they make an individual potentially vulnerable to coercion, exploitation, or pressure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) An immediate family member, or a person to whom the individual has close ties of affection or obligation, is a citizen of, or resident or present in, a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(2) Sharing living quarters with a person or persons, regardless of their citizenship status, if the potential for adverse foreign influence or duress exists; 
</P>
<P>(3) Relatives, cohabitants, or associates who are connected with any foreign government;
</P>
<P>(4) Failing to report, where required, associations with foreign nationals; 
</P>
<P>(5) Unauthorized association with a suspected or known collaborator or employee of a foreign intelligence service;
</P>
<P>(6) Conduct which may make the individual vulnerable to coercion, exploitation, or pressure by a foreign government;
</P>
<P>(7) Indications that representatives or nationals from a foreign country are acting to increase the vulnerability of the individual to possible future exploitation, coercion or pressure;
</P>
<P>(8) A substantial financial interest in a country, or in any foreign owned or operated business that could make the individual vulnerable to foreign influence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) A determination that the immediate family member(s) (spouse, father, mother, sons, daughters, brothers, sisters), cohabitant, or associate(s) in question are not agents of a foreign power or in a position to be exploited by a foreign power in a way that could force the individual to choose between loyalty to the person(s) involved and the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Contacts with foreign citizens are the result of official United States Government business;
</P>
<P>(3) Contact and correspondence with foreign citizens are casual and infrequent;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual has promptly complied with existing agency requirements regarding the reporting of contacts, requests, or threats from persons or organizations from a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(5) Foreign financial interests are minimal and not sufficient to affect the individual's security responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.5   Guideline C—Foreign preference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> When an individual acts in such a way as to indicate a preference for a foreign country over the United States, then he or she may be prone to provide information or make decisions that are harmful to the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(1) The exercise of dual citizenship;
</P>
<P>(2) Possession and/or use of a foreign passport;
</P>
<P>(3) Military service or a willingness to bear arms for a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(4) Accepting educational, medical, or other benefits, such as retirement and social welfare, from a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(5) Residence in a foreign country to meet citizenship requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) Using foreign citizenship to protect financial or business interests in another country;
</P>
<P>(7) Seeking or holding political office in the foreign country;
</P>
<P>(8) Voting in foreign elections;
</P>
<P>(9) Performing or attempting to perform duties, or otherwise acting, so as to serve the interests of another government in preference to the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) Dual citizenship is based solely on parents' citizenship or birth in a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(2) Indicators of possible foreign preference (e.g., foreign military service) occurred before obtaining United States citizenship;
</P>
<P>(3) Activity is sanctioned by the United States;
</P>
<P>(4) Individual has expressed a willingness to renounce dual citizenship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.6   Guidance D—Sexual behavior.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Sexual behavior is a security concern if it involves a criminal offense, indicates a personality or emotional disorder, may subject the individual to coercion, exploitation, or duress, or reflects lack of judgment or discretion. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Sexual orientation or preference may not be used as a basis for or a disqualifying factor in determining a person's eligibility for a security clearance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The adjudicator should also consider guidelines pertaining to criminal conduct (Guideline J) and emotional, mental and personality disorders (Guideline I) in determining how to resolve the security concerns raised by sexual behavior.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Sexual behavior of a criminal nature, whether or not the individual has been prosecuted;
</P>
<P>(2) Compulsive or addictive sexual behavior when the person is unable to stop a pattern or self-destructive or high-risk behavior or that which is symptomatic of a personally disorder;
</P>
<P>(3) Sexual behavior that causes an individual to be vulnerable to coercion, exploitation, or duress;
</P>
<P>(4) Sexual behavior of a public nature and/or that which reflects lack of discretion or judgment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The behavior occurred during or prior to adolescence and there is no evidence of subsequent conduct of a similar nature;
</P>
<P>(2) The behavior was not recent and there is no evidence of subsequent conduct of a similar nature;
</P>
<P>(3) There is no other evidence of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or emotional instability;
</P>
<P>(4) The behavior no longer serves as a basis for coercion, exploitation, or duress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.7   Guideline E—Personal conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Conduct involving questionable judgment, untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of candor, dishonesty, or unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations could indicate that the person may not properly safeguard classified information. The following will normally result in an unfavorable clearance action or administrative termination of further processing for clearance eligibility:
</P>
<P>(1) Refusal to undergo or cooperate with required security processing, including medical and psychological testing;
</P>
<P>(2) Refusal to complete required security forms, releases, or provide full, frank and truthful answers to lawful questions of investigators, security officials or other representatives in connection with a personnel security or trustworthiness determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying also include:</I> (1) Reliable, unfavorable information provided by associates, employers, coworkers, neighbors, and other acquaintances;
</P>
<P>(2) The deliberate omission, concealment, or falsification of relevant and material facts from any personnel security questionnaire, personal history statement, or similar form used to conduct investigations, determine employment qualifications, award benefits or status, determine security clearance eligibility or trustworthiness, or award fiduciary responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Deliberately providing false or misleading information concerning relevant and material matters to an investigator, security official, competent medical authority, or other representative in connection with a personnel security or trustworthiness determination;
</P>
<P>(4) Personal conduct or concealment of information that may increase an individual's vulnerability to coercion, exploitation, or duties, such as engaging in activities which, if known, may affect the person's personal, professional, or community standing or render the person susceptible to blackmail;
</P>
<P>(5) A pattern of dishonesty or rule violations, including violation of any written or recorded agreement made between the individual and the agency;
</P>
<P>(6) Association with persons involved in criminal activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The information was unsubstantiated or not pertinent to a determination of judgment, trustworthiness, or reliability;
</P>
<P>(2) The falsification was an isolated incident, was not recent, and the individual has subsequently provided correct information voluntarily;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual made prompt, good faith efforts to correct the falsification before being confronted with the facts;
</P>
<P>(4) Omission of material facts was caused or significantly contributed to by improper or inadequate advice of authorized personnel, and the previously omitted information was promptly and fully provided;
</P>
<P>(5) The individual has taken positive steps to significantly reduce or eliminate vulnerability to coercion, exploitation, or duress;
</P>
<P>(6) A refusal to cooperate was based on advice from legal counsel or other officials that the individual was not required to comply with security processing requirements and, upon being made aware of the requirement, fully and truthfully provided the requested information;
</P>
<P>(7) Association with persons involved in criminal activities has ceased.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.8   Guideline F—Financial considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> An individual who is financially overextended is at risk of having to engage in illegal acts to generate funds. Unexplained affluence is often linked to proceeds from financially profitable criminal acts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) A history of not meeting financial obligations;
</P>
<P>(2) Deceptive or illegal financial practices such as embezzlement, employee theft, check fraud, income tax evasion, expense account fraud, filing deceptive loan statements, and other intentional financial breaches of trust;
</P>
<P>(3) Inability or unwillingness to satisfy debts;
</P>
<P>(4) Unexplained affluence;
</P>
<P>(5) Financial problems that are linked to gambling, drug abuse, alcoholism, or other issues of security concern.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The behavior was not recent;
</P>
<P>(2) It was an isolated incident;
</P>
<P>(3) The conditions that resulted in the behavior were largely beyond the person's control (e.g., loss of employment, a business downturn, unexpected medical emergency, or a death, divorce or separation);
</P>
<P>(4) The person has received or is receiving counseling for the problem and there are clear indications that the problem is being resolved or is under control;
</P>
<P>(5) The affluence resulted from a legal source;
</P>
<P>(6) The individual initiated a good-faith effort to repay overdue creditors or otherwise resolve debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.9   Guideline G—Alcohol consumption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Excessive alcohol consumption often leads to the exercise of questionable judgment, unreliability, failure to control impulses, and increases the risk of unauthorized disclosure of classified information due to carelessness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Alcohol-related incidents away from work, such as driving while under the influence, fighting, child or spouse abuse, or other criminal incidents related to alcohol use;
</P>
<P>(2) Alcohol-related incidents at work, such as reporting for work or duty in an intoxicated or impaired condition, or drinking on the job;
</P>
<P>(3) Diagnosis by a credentialed medical professional (e.g., physician, clinical psychologist, or psychiatrist) of alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence; 
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluation of alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence by a licensed clinical social worker who is a staff member of a recognized alcohol treatment program;
</P>
<P>(5) Habitual or binge consumption of alcohol to the point of impaired judgment;
</P>
<P>(6) Consumption of alcohol, subsequent to a diagnosis of alcoholism by a credentialed medical professional and following completion of an alcohol rehabilitation program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The alcohol related incidents do not indicate a pattern;
</P>
<P>(2) The problem occurred a number of years ago and there is no indication of a recent problem;
</P>
<P>(3) Positive changes in behavior supportive of sobriety;
</P>
<P>(4) Following diagnosis of alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence, the individual has successfully completed impatient or outpatient rehabilitation along with aftercare requirements, participates frequently in meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous or a similar organization, has abstained from alcohol for a period of at least 12 months, and received a favorable prognosis by a credentialed medical professional or a licensed clinical social worker who is a staff member of a recognized alcohol treatment program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.10   Guideline H—Drug involvement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> (1) Improper or illegal involvement with drugs raises questions regarding an individual's willingness or ability to protect classified information. Drug abuse or dependence may impair social or occupational functioning, increasing the risk of an unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) Drugs are defined as mood and behavior altering substances, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) Drugs, materials, and other chemical compounds identified and listed in the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, as amended (e.g., marijuana or cannabis, depressants, narcotics, stimulants, and hallucinogens), 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inhalants and other similar substances.
</P>
<P>(3) Drug abuse is the illegal use of a drug or use of a legal drug in a manner that deviates from approved medical direction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Any drug abuse (see above definition);
</P>
<P>(2) Illegal drug possession, including cultivation, processing, manufacture, purchase, sale, or distribution;
</P>
<P>(3) Diagnosis by a credentialed medical professional (e.g., physician, clinical psychologist, or psychiatrist) of drug abuse or drug dependence; 
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluation of drug abuse or drug dependence by a licensed clinical social worker who is a staff member of a recognized drug treatment program; 
</P>
<P>(5) Failure to successfully complete a drug treatment program prescribed by a credentialed medical professional. Recent drug involvement, especially following the granting of a security clearance, or an expressed intent not to discontinue use, will almost invariably result in an unfavorable determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The drug involvement was not recent;
</P>
<P>(2) The drug involvement was an isolated or aberration event; 
</P>
<P>(3) A demonstrated intent not to abuse any drugs in the future;
</P>
<P>(4) Satisfactory completion of a prescribed drug treatment program, including rehabilitation and aftercare requirements, without recurrence of abuse, and a favorable prognosis by a credentialed medical professional.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.11   Guideline I—Emotional, mental, and personality disorders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern:</I> Emotional, mental, and personality disorders can cause a significant deficit in an individual's psychological, social and occupation functioning. These disorders are of security concern because they may indicate a defect in judgment, reliability, or stability. A credentialed mental health professional (e.g., clinical psychologist or psychiatrist), employed by, acceptable to or approved by the government, should be utilized in evaluating potentially disqualifying and mitigating information fully and properly, and particularly for consultation with the individual's mental health care provider.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) An opinion by a credentialed mental health professional that the individual has a condition or treatment that may indicate a defect in judgment, reliability, or stability;
</P>
<P>(2) Information that suggests that an individual has failed to follow appropriate medical advice relating to treatment of a condition, e.g., failure to take prescribed medication;
</P>
<P>(3) A pattern of high-risk, irresponsible, aggressive, anti-social or emotionally unstable behavior;
</P>
<P>(4) Information that suggests that the individual's current behavior indicates a defect in his or her judgment or reliability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) There is no indication of a current problem;
</P>
<P>(2) Recent opinion by a credentialed mental health professional that an individual's previous emotional, mental, or personality disorder is cured, under control or in remission and has a low probability of recurrence or exacerbation;
</P>
<P>(3) The past emotional instability was a temporary condition (e.g., one caused by a death, illness, or marital breakup), the situation has been resolved, and the individual is no longer emotionally unstable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.12   Guideline J—Criminal conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> A history or pattern of criminal activity creates doubt about a person's judgment, reliability and trustworthiness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Allegations or admissions of criminal conduct, regardless of whether the person was formally charged;
</P>
<P>(2) A single serious crime or multiple lesser offenses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The criminal behavior was not recent;
</P>
<P>(2) The crime was an isolated incident;
</P>
<P>(3) The person was pressured or coerced into committing the act and those pressures are no longer present in that person's life;
</P>
<P>(4) The person did not voluntarily commit the act and/or the factors leading to the violation are not likely to recur;
</P>
<P>(5) Acquittal;
</P>
<P>(6) There is clear evidence of successful rehabilitation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.13   Guideline K—Security violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Noncompliance with security regulations raises doubt about an individual's trustworthiness, willingness, and ability to safeguard classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include.</I> (1) Unauthorized disclosure of classified information;
</P>
<P>(2) Violations that are deliberate or multiple or due to negligence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include actions that:</I> (1) Were inadvertent;
</P>
<P>(2) Were isolated or infrequent;
</P>
<P>(3) Were due to improper or inadequate training;
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate a positive attitude towards the discharge of security responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.14   Guideline L—Outside activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Involvement in certain types of outside employment or activities is of security concern if it poses a conflict with an individual's security responsibilities and could create an increased risk of unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include any service, whether compensated, volunteer, or employment with:</I> (1) A foreign country;
</P>
<P>(2) Any foreign national;
</P>
<P>(3) A representative of any foreign interest;
</P>
<P>(4) Any foreign, domestic, or international organization or person engaged in analysis, discussion, or publication of material on intelligence, defense, foreign affairs, or protected technology.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) Evaluation of the outside employment or activity indicates that it does not pose a conflict with an individual's security responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual terminates the employment or discontinues the activity upon being notified that it is in conflict with his or her security responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.1.43.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.15   Guideline M—Misuse of Information technology systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The concern.</I> Noncompliance with rules, procedures, guidelines, or regulations pertaining to information technology systems may raise security concerns about an individual's trustworthiness, willingness, and ability to properly protect classified systems, networks, and information. Information Technology Systems include all related equipment used for the communication, transmission, processing, manipulation, and storage of classified or sensitive information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be disqualifying include:</I> (1) Illegal or unauthorized entry into any information technology system;
</P>
<P>(2) Illegal or unauthorized modification, destruction, manipulation or denial of access to information residing on an information technology system;
</P>
<P>(3) Removal (or use) of hardware, software, or media from any information technology system without authorization, when specifically prohibited by rules, procedures, guidelines or regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) Introduction of hardware, software, or media into any information technology system without authorization, when specifically prohibited by rules, procedures, guidelines or regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:</I> (1) The misuse was not recent or significant;
</P>
<P>(2) The conduct was unintentional or inadvertent;
</P>
<P>(3) The introduction or removal of media was authorized;
</P>
<P>(4) The misuse was an isolated event;
</P>
<P>(5) The misuse was followed by a prompt, good faith effort to correct the situation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Investigative Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.18   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The following investigative standards are established for all United States Government civilian and military personnel, consultants, contractors, employees of contractors, licensees, certificate holders or grantees and their employees and other individuals who require access to classified information, to include Sensitive Compartmented Information and Special Access Programs, and are to be used by government departments and agencies as the investigative basis for final clearance determinations. However, nothing in these standards prohibits an agency from using any lawful investigative procedures in addition to these requirements in order to resolve any issue identified in the course of a background investigation or reinvestigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.19" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.19   The three standards.</HEAD>
<P>There are three standards (Attachment D to this subpart part summarizes when to use each one):
</P>
<P>(a) The investigation and reinvestigation standards for “L” access authorizations and for access to confidential and secret (including all secret-level Special Access Programs not specifically approved for enhanced investigative requirements by an official authorized to establish Special Access Programs by section in 4.4 of Executive Order 12958) (60 FR 19825, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 33);
</P>
<P>(b) The investigation standard for “Q” access authorizations and for access to top secret (including top secret Special Access Programs) and Sensitive Compartmented Information;
</P>
<P>(c) The reinvestigation standard for continued access to the levels listed in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.20   Exception to periods of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Some elements of standards specify a period of coverage (e.g. seven years). Where appropriate, such coverage may be shortened to the period from the subject's eighteenth birthday to the present or to two years, whichever is longer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.21   Expanding investigations.</HEAD>
<P>Investigations and reinvestigations may be expanded under the provisions of Executive Order 12968 (60 FR 40245, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 391) and other applicable statutes and Executive Orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.22   Transferability.</HEAD>
<P>Investigations that satisfy the requirements of a given standard and are current meet the investigative requirements for all levels specified for the standard. They shall be mutually and reciprocally accepted by all agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.23   Breaks in service.</HEAD>
<P>If a person who requires access has been retired or separated from U.S. government employment for less than two years and is the subject of an investigation that is otherwise current, the agency regranting the access will, as a minimum, review an updated Standard Form 86 and applicable records. A reinvestigation is not required unless the review indicates the person may no longer satisfy the standards of Executive Order 12968 (60 FR 40245, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 391); (Attachment D to this subpart, Table 2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.24" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.24   The national agency check.</HEAD>
<P>The National Agency Check is a part of all investigations and reinvestigations. It consists of a review of;
</P>
<P>(a) Investigative and criminal history files of the FBI, including a technical fingerprint search;
</P>
<P>(b) OPM's Security/Suitability Investigations Index;
</P>
<P>(c) DoD's Defense Clearance and Investigations Index;
</P>
<P>(d) Such other national agencies (e.g., CIA, INS) as appropriate to the individual's background.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.8.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment A to Subpart B of Part 147—Standard A—National Agency Check With Local Agency Checks and Credit Check (NACLC)
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Standard A applies to investigations and reinvestigations for;
</P>
<P>(1) Access to CONFIDENTIAL and SECRET (including all SECRET-level Special Access Programs not specifically approved for enhanced investigative requirements by an official authorized to establish Special Access Programs by sect. 4.4 of Executive Order 12958) (60 FR 19825, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 333);
</P>
<P>(2) “L” access authorizations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For Reinvestigation: When to Reinvestigate.</I> The reinvestigation may be initiated at any time following completion of, but not later than ten years (fifteen years for CONFIDENTIAL) from the date of, the previous investigation or reinvestigation. (Attachment D to this subpart, Table 2, reflects the specific requirements for when to request a reinvestigation, including when there has been a break in service.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigative Requirements.</I> Investigative requirements are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Completion of Forms:</I> Completion of Standard Form 86, including applicable releases and supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National Agency Check:</I> Completion of a National Agency Check.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial Review:</I> Verification of the subject's financial status, including credit bureau checks covering all locations where the subject has resided, been employed, or attended school for six months or more for the past seven years.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Date and Place of Birth:</I> Corroboration of date and place of birth through a check of appropriate documentation, if not completed in any previous investigation; a check of Bureau of Vital Statistics records when any discrepancy is found to exist.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Local Agency Checks:</I> As a minimum, all investigations will include checks of law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction where the subject has lived, worked, and/or attended school within the last five years, and, if applicable, of the appropriate agency for any identified arrests. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expanding the Investigation:</I> The investigation may be expanded if necessary to determine if access is clearly consistent with the national security.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.8.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment B to Subpart B of Part 147—Standard B—Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI)
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Standard B applies to initial investigations for;
</P>
<P>(1) Access to TOP SECRET (including TOP SECRET Special Access Programs) and Sensitive Compartment Information;
</P>
<P>(2) “Q” access authorizations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigative Requirements.</I> Investigative requirements are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Completion of Forms:</I> Completion of Standard Form 86, including applicable releases and supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National Agency Check:</I> Completion of a National Agency Check.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National Agency Check for the Spouse or Cohabitant (if applicable):</I> Completion of a National Agency Check, without fingerprint cards, for the spouse or cohabitant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Date and Place of Birth:</I> Corroboration of date and place of birth through a check of appropriate documentation; a check of Bureau of Vital Statistics records when any discrepancy is found to exist.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Citizenship:</I> For individuals born outside the United States, verification of US citizenship directly from the appropriate registration authority; verification of US citizenship or legal status of foreign-born immediate family members (spouse, cohabitant, father, mother, sons, daughters, brothers, sisters).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Education:</I> Corroboration of most recent or most significant claimed attendance, degree, or diploma. Interviews of appropriate educational sources if education is a primary activity of the subject during the most recent three years.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employment:</I> Verification of all employments for the past seven years; personal interviews of sources (supervisors, coworkers, or both) for each employment of six months or more; corroboration through records or sources of all periods of unemployment exceeding sixty days; verification of all prior federal and military service, including discharge type. For military members, all service within one branch of the armed forces will be considered as one employment, regardless of assignments.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>References:</I> Four references, of whom at least two are developed; to the extent practicable, all should have social knowledge of the subject and collectively span at least the last seven years.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Former Spouse:</I> An interview of any former spouse divorced within the last ten years.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Neighborhoods:</I> Confirmation of all residences for the last three years through appropriate interviews with neighbors and through records reviews.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Financial Review:</I> Verification of the subject's financial status, including credit bureau checks covering all locations where subject has resided, been employed, and/or attended school for six months or more for the last seven years.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Local Agency Checks:</I> A check of appropriate criminal history records covering all locations where, for the last ten years, the subject has resided, been employed, and/or attended school for six months or more, including current residence regardless of duration.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If no residence, employment, or education exceeds six months, local agency checks should be performed as deemed appropriate.</P></NOTE>
<P>(13) <I>Public Records:</I> Verification of divorces, bankruptcies, and other court actions, whether civil or criminal, involving the subject.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Subject Interview:</I> A subject interview, conducted by trained security, investigative, or counterintelligence personnel. During the investigation, additional subject interviews may be conducted to collect relevant information, to resolve significant inconsistencies, or both. Sworn statements and unsworn declarations may be taken whenever appropriate.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Polygraph (only in agencies with approved personnel security polygraph programs):</I> In departments or agencies with policies sanctioning the use of the polygraph for personnel security purposes, the investigation may include a polygraph examination, conducted by a qualified polygraph examiner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expanding the Investigation.</I> The investigation may be expanded as necessary. As appropriate, interviews with anyone able to provide information or to resolve issues, including but not limited to cohabitants, relatives, psychiatrists, psychologists, other medical professionals, and law enforcement professionals may be conducted.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.8.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment C to Subpart B of Part 147—Standard C—Single Scope Background Investigation Periodic Reinvestigation (SSBI-PR)
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Standard C applies to reinvestigation for; 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access to TOP SECRET (including TOP SECRET Special Access Programs) and Sensitive Compartmented Information;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) “Q” access authorizations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to Reinvestigate.</I> The reinvestigation may be initiated at any time following completion of, but not later than five years from the date of, the previous investigation (see Attachment D to this subpart, Table 2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reinvestigative Requirements.</I> Reinvestigative requirements are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Completion of Forms:</I> Completion of Standard Form 86, including applicable releases and supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National Agency Check:</I> Completion of a National Agency Check (fingerprint cards are required only if there has not been a previous valid technical check of the FBI).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National Agency Check for the Spouse or Cohabitant (if applicable):</I> Completion of a National Agency Check, without fingerprint cards, for the spouse or cohabitant. The National Agency Check for the spouse or cohabitant is not required if already completed in conjunction with a previous investigation or reinvestigation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employment:</I> Verification of all employments since the last investigation. Attempts to interview a sufficient number of sources (supervisors, coworkers, or both) at all employments of six months or more. For military members, all services within one branch of the armed forces will be considered as one employment, regardless of assignments.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>References:</I> Interviews with two character references who are knowledgeable of the subject; at least one will be a developed reference. To the extent practical, both should have social knowledge of the subject and collectively span the entire period of the reinvestigation. As appropriate, additional interviews may be conducted, including with cohabitants and relatives.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Neighborhoods:</I> Interviews of two neighbors in the vicinity of the subject's most recent residence of six months or more. Confirmation of current residence regardless of length.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial Review—Financial Status:</I> Verification of the subject's financial status, including credit bureau checks covering all locations where subject has resided, been employed, and/or attended school for six months or more for the period covered by the reinvestigation;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Check of Treasury's Financial Data Base:</I> Agencies may request the Department of the Treasury, under terms and conditions prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, to search automated data bases consisting of reports of currency transactions by financial institutions, international transportation of currency or monetary instruments, foreign bank and financial accounts, and transactions under $10,000 that are reported as possible money laundering violations.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Local Agency Checks:</I> A check of appropriate criminal history records covering all locations where, during the period covered by the reinvestigation, the subject has resided, been employed, and/or attended school for six months or more, including current residence regardless of duration. (Note: If no residence, employment, or education exceeds six months, local agency checks should be performed as deemed appropriate.)
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Former Spouse:</I> An interview with any former spouse unless the divorce took place before the date of the last investigation or reinvestigation.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Public Records:</I> Verification of divorces, bankruptcies, and other court actions, whether civil or criminal, involving the subject since the date of the last investigation.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Subject Interview:</I> A subject interview, conducted by trained security, investigative, or counterintelligence personnel. During the reinvestigation, additional subject interviews may be conducted to collect relevant information, to resolve significant inconsistencies, or both. Sworn statements and unsworn declarations may be taken whenever appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expanding the Reinvestigation:</I> The reinvestigation may be expanded as necessary. As appropriate, interviews with anyone able to provide information or to resolve issues, including but not limited to cohabitants, relatives, psychiatrists, psychologists, other medical professionals, and law enforcement professionals may be conducted.



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.2.43.8.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment D to Subpart B of Part 147—Decision Tables

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Which Investigation to Request
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the requirement is for
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And the person has this access
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Based on this investigation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the investigation required is
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Using standard
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confidential Secret; “L”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NACLC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Out of date NACLC or SSBI
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conf, Sec; “L”
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Top Secret, SCI; “Q”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SSBI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None; Conf, Sec; “L”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current or out of date NACLC
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Out of date SSBI
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TS, SCI; “Q”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SSBI-PR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Reinvestigation Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">If the requirement is for
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">And the age of the investigation is
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Type required if there has been a break in service of
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0-23 months
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">24 months or more
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confidential</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 14 years. 11 mos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None (note 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NACLC
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yrs. or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NACLC
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Secret; “L”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 9 yrs 11 mos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None (note 1)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yrs. or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NACLC
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Top Secret, SCI; “Q”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 4 yrs. 11 mos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None (note 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SSBI
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 yrs or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SSBI-PR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> As a minimum, review an updated Standard Form 84 and applicable records. A reinvestigation (NACLC or SSBI-PR) is not required unless the review indicates the person may no longer satisfy the standards of Executive Order 12968.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Guidelines for Temporary Access</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.28" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.28   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The following minimum investigative standards, implementing section 3.3 of Executive Order 12968, <I>Access to Classified Information,</I> are established for all United States Government and military personnel, consultants, contractors, subcontractors, employees of contractors, licensees, certificate holders or grantees and their employees and other individuals who require access to classified information before the appropriate investigation can be completed and a final determination made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.29" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.29   Temporary eligibility for access.</HEAD>
<P>Based on a justified need meeting the requirements of section 3.3 of Executive Order 12968, temporary eligibility for access may be granted before investigations are complete and favorably adjudicated, where official functions must be performed prior to completion of the investigation and adjudication process. The temporary eligibility will be valid until completion of the investigation and adjudication; however, the agency granting it may revoke it at any time based on unfavorable information identified in the course of the investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.30" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.30   Temporary eligibility for access at the confidential and secret levels and temporary eligibility for “L” access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>As a minimum, such temporary eligibility requires completion of the Standard Form 86, including any applicable supporting documentation, favorable review of the form by the appropriate adjudicating authority, and submission of a request for an expedited National Agency Check with Local Agency Checks and Credit (NACLC).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.31" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.31   Temporary eligibility for access at the top secret levels and temporary eligibility for “Q” access authorization: For someone who is the subject of a favorable investigation not meeting the investigative standards for access at those levels.</HEAD>
<P>As a minimum, such temporary eligibility requires completion of the Standard Form 86, including any applicable supporting documentation, favorable review of the form by the appropriate adjudicating authority, and expedited submission of a request for a Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.32" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.32   Temporary eligibility for access at the top secret and SCI levels and temporary eligibility for “Q” access authorization: For someone who is not the subject of a current, favorable personnel or personnel-security investigation of any kind.</HEAD>
<P>As a minimum, such temporary eligibility requires completion of the Standard Form 86, including any applicable supporting documentation, favorable review of the form by the appropriate adjudicating authority, immediate submission of a request for an expedited Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI), and completion and favorable review by the appropriate adjudicating authority of relevant criminal history and investigative records of the Federal Bureau of Investigation and of information in the Security/Suitability Investigations Index (SII) and the Defense Clearance and Investigations Index (DCII).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.33" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.44.3.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.33   Additional requirements by agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Temporary eligibility for access must satisfy these minimum investigative standards, but agency heads may establish additional requirements based on the sensitivity of the particular, identified categories of classified information necessary to perform the lawful and authorized functions that are the basis for granting temporary eligibility for access. However, no additional requirements shall exceed the common standards for background investigations developed under section 3.2(b) of Executive Order 12968. Temporary eligibility for access is valid only at the agency granting it and at other agencies who expressly agree to accept it and acknowledge understanding of its investigative basis. It is further subject to limitations specified in sections 2.4(d) and 3.3 of Executive Order 12968, <I>Access to Classified Information.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="148" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 148—NATIONAL POLICY AND IMPLEMENTATION OF RECIPROCITY OF FACILITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12968 (60 FR 40245, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 391.) 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 4580, Jan. 30, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—National Policy on Reciprocity of Use and Inspections of Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.1   Interagency reciprocal acceptance.</HEAD>
<P>Interagency reciprocal acceptance of security policies and procedures for approving, accrediting, and maintaining the secure posture of shared facilities will reduce aggregate costs, promote interoperability of agency security systems, preserve vitality of the U.S. industrial base, and advance national security objectives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.2   Classified programs.</HEAD>
<P>Once a facility is authorized, approved, certified, or accredited, all U.S. Government organizations desiring to conduct classified programs at the facility at the same security level shall accept the authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation without change, enhancements, or upgrades. Executive Order, Safeguarding Directives, National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), the NISPOM Supplement, the Director of Central Intelligence Directives, interagency agreements, successor documents, or other mutually agreed upon methods shall be the basis for such acceptance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.3   Security review.</HEAD>
<P>After initial security authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation, subsequent security reviews shall normally be conducted no more frequently than annually. 
</P>
<P>Additionally, such reviews shall be aperiodic or random, and be based upon risk management principles. Security reviews may be conducted “for cause”, to follow up on previous findings, or to accomplish close-out actions. Visits may be made to a facility to conduct security support actions, administrative inquiries, program reviews, and approvals as deemed appropriate by the cognizant security authority or agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.4   Policy documentation.</HEAD>
<P>Agency heads shall ensure that any policy documents their agency issues setting out facilities security policies and procedures incorporate the policy set out herein, and that such policies are reasonable, effective, efficient, and enable and promote interagency reciprocity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.5   Identification of the security policy board.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies which authorize, approve, certify, or accredit facilities shall provide to the Security Policy Board Staff a points of contact list to include names and telephone numbers of personnel to be contacted for verification of authorized, approved, certified, or accredited facility status. The Security Policy Board Staff will publish a comprehensive directory of points of contact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.1.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.6   Agency review.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies will continue to review and assess the potential value added to the process of co-use of facilities by development of electronic data retrieval across government. As this review continues, agencies creating or modifying facilities databases will do so in a manner which facilitates community data sharing, interest of national defense or foreign policy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Guidelines for the Implementation and Oversight of the Policy on Reciprocity of use and Inspections of Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.10   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Redundant, overlapping, and duplicative policies and practices that govern the co-use of facilities for classified purposes have resulted in excessive protection and unnecessary expenditure of funds. Lack of reciprocity has also impeded achievement of national security objectives and adversely affected economic and technological interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Interagency reciprocal acceptance of security policies and procedures for approving, accrediting, and maintaining the secure posture of shared facilities will reduce the aggregate costs, promote interoperability of agency security systems, preserve the vitality of the U.S. industrial base, and advance national security objectives.
</P>
<P>(c) Agency heads, or their designee, are encouraged to periodically issue written affirmations in support of the policies and procedures prescribed herein and in the Security Policy Board (SPB) policy, entitled “Reciprocity of Use and Inspections of Facilities.”
</P>
<P>(d) The policies and procedures prescribed herein shall be applicable to all agencies. This document does not supersede the authority of the Secretary of Defense under Executive Order 12829 (58 FR 3479, 3 CFR 1993 Comp., p. 570); the Secretary of Energy or the Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Secretary of State under the Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Anti-Terrorism Act of 1986; the Secretaries of the military departments and military department installation Commanders under the Internal Security Act of 1950; the Director of Central Intelligence under the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, or Executive Order 12333; the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office under Executive Order 12829 or Executive Order 12958 (60 FR 19825, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 333); or substantially similar authority instruments assigned to any other agency head. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.11   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agency heads, or their designee, shall ensure that security policies and procedures for which they are responsible are reasonable, effective, and efficient, and that those policies and procedures enable and promote interagency reciprocity.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent reasonable and practical, and consistent with US law, Presidential decree, and bilateral and international obligations of the United States, the security requirements, restrictions, and safeguards applicable to industry shall be equivalent to those applicable within the Executive Branch of government.
</P>
<P>(c) Once a facility is authorized approved, certified, or accredited, all government organizations desiring to conduct classified programs at the facility at the same security level shall accept the authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation without change, enhancements, or upgrades.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency.</I> Any “executive agency,” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any “Military department” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the Executive Branch that comes into possession of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Classified Information.</I> All information that requires protection under Executive Order 12958, or any of its antecedent orders, and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Cognizant Security Agency (CSA).</I> Those agencies that have been authorized by Executive Order 12829 to establish an industrial security program for the purpose of safeguarding classified information disclosed or released to industry.
</P>
<P><I>Cognizant Security Office (CSO).</I> The office or offices delegated by the head of a CSA to administer industrial security in a contractor's facility on behalf of the CSA.
</P>
<P><I>Facility.</I> An activity of a government agency or cleared contractor authorized by appropriate authority to conduct classified operations or to perform classified work.
</P>
<P><I>Industry.</I> Contractors, licensees, grantees, and certificate holders obligated by contract or other written agreement to protect classified information under the National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P><I>National Security.</I> The national defense and foreign relations of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Senior Agency Official.</I> Those officials, pursuant to Executive Order 12958, designated by the agency head who are assigned the responsibility to direct and administer the agency's information security program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.13   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Senior Agency Official shall ensure that adequate reciprocity provisions are incorporated within his or her regulatory issuances that prescribe agency safeguards for protecting classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Senior Agency Official shall develop, implement, and oversee a program that ensures agency personnel adhere to the policies and procedures prescribed herein and the reciprocity provisions of the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
</P>
<P>(c) Each Senior Agency Official must ensure that implementation encourages reporting of instances of non-compliance, without fear of reprisal, and each reported instance is aggressively acted upon.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO), consistent with his assigned responsibilities under Executive Order 12829, serves as the central point of contact within Government to consider and take action on complaints and suggestions from industry concerning alleged violations of the reciprocity provisions of the NISPOM.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director, Security Policy Board Staff (D/SPBS) or his/her designee, shall serve as the central point of contact within Government to receive from Federal Government employees alleged violations of the reciprocity provisions prescribed herein and the policy “Reciprocity of Use and Inspections of Facilities” of the SPB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.4.45.2.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.14   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies that authorize, approve, certify, or accredit facilities shall provide to the SPB Staff a points of contact list to include names and telephone numbers of personnel to be contacted for verification of the status of facilities. The SPB Staff will publish a comprehensive directory of agency points of contact.
</P>
<P>(b) After initial security authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation, subsequent reviews shall normally be conducted no more frequently than annually. Additionally, such reviews shall be aperiodic or random, and be based upon risk-management principles. Security Reviews may be conducted “for cause”, to follow up on previous findings, or to accomplish close-out actions.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures employed to maximize interagency reciprocity shall be based primarily upon existing organizational reporting channels. These channels should be used to address alleged departures from established reciprocity requirements and should resolve all, including the most egregious instances of non-compliance.
</P>
<P>(d) Two complementary mechanisms are hereby established to augment existing organizational channels: (1) An accessible and responsive venue for reporting and resolving complaints/reported instances of non-compliance. Government and industry reporting channels shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government.</I> (A) Agency employees are encouraged to bring suspected departures from applicable reciprocity requirements to the attention of the appropriate security authority in accordance with established agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(B) Should the matter remain unresolved, the complainant (employee, Security Officer, Special Security Officer, or similar official) is encouraged to report the matter formally to the Senior Agency Official for resolution.
</P>
<P>(C) Should the Senior Agency Official response be determined inadequate by the complainant, the matter should be reported formally to the Director, Security Policy Board Staff (D/SPBS). The D/SPBS, may revisit the matter with the Senior Agency Official or refer the matter to the Security Policy Forum as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(D) Should the matter remain unresolved, the Security Policy Forum may consider referral to the SPB, the agency head, or the National Security Council as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Industry.</I> (A) Contractor employees are encouraged to bring suspected departures from the reciprocity provisions of the NISPOM to the attention to their Facility Security Officer (FSO) or Contractor Special Security Officer (CSSO), as appropriate, for resolution.
</P>
<P>(B) Should the matter remain unresolved, the complainant (employee, FSO, or CSSO) is encouraged to report the matter formally to the Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for resolution.
</P>
<P>(C) Should the CSO responses be determined inadequate by the complainant, the matter should be reported formally to the Senior Agency Official within the Cognizant Security Agency (CSA) for resolution.
</P>
<P>(D) Should the Senior Agency Official response be determined inadequately by the complainant, the matter should be reported formally to the Director, information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) for resolution.
</P>
<P>(E) The Director, ISOO, may revisit the matter with the Senior Agency Official or refer the matter to the agency head or the National Security Council as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) An annual survey administered to a representative sampling of agency and private sector facilities to assess overall effectiveness of agency adherence to applicable reciprocity requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) In coordination with the D/SPBS, the Director, ISOO, as Chairman of the NISP Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC), shall develop and administer an annual survey to a representative number of cleared contractor activities/employees to assess the effectiveness of interagency reciprocity implementation. Administration of the survey shall be coordinated fully with each affected Senior Agency Official.
</P>
<P>(ii) In coordination with the NISPPAC, the D/SPBS shall develop and administer an annual survey to a representative number of agency activities/personnel to assess the effectiveness of interagency reciprocity implementation. Administration of the survey shall be coordinated fully with each affected Senior Agency Official.
</P>
<P>(iii) The goal of annual surveys should not be punitive but educational. All agencies and departments have participated in the crafting of these facilities policies, therefore, non-compliance is a matter of internal education and direction.
</P>
<P>(e) Agencies will continue to review and assess the potential value added to the process of co-use of facilities by development of electronic data retrieval across government.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—REGULATIONS PERTAINING TO MILITARY JUSTICE 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="150" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 150—COURTS OF CRIMINAL APPEALS RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Article 66(f), Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. § 866(f) (1994)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 2017, Jan. 15, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 150.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.1   Name and seal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The titles of the Courts of Criminal Appeals of the respective services are:
</P>
<P>(1) “United States Army Court of Criminal Appeals.”
</P>
<P>(2) “United States Navy-Marine Corps Court of Criminal Appeals.”
</P>
<P>(3) “United States Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals.”
</P>
<P>(4) “United States Coast Guard Court of Criminal Appeals.”
</P>
<P>(b) Each Court is authorized a seal in the discretion of the Judge Advocate General concerned. The design of such seal shall include the title of the Court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.2   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The jurisdiction of the Court is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Review under Article 66.</I> All cases of trial by court-martial in which the sentence as approved extends to:
</P>
<P>(i) Death; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Dismissal of a commissioned officer, cadet or midshipman, dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, or confinement for 1 year or longer; and in which the accused has not waived or withdrawn appellate review.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review upon direction of the Judge Advocate General under Article 69.</I> All cases of trial by court-martial in which there has been a finding of guilty and a sentence:
</P>
<P>(i) For which Article 66 does not otherwise provide appellate review, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which the Judge Advocate General forwards to the Court for review pursuant to Article 69(d), and
</P>
<P>(iii) In which the accused has not waived or withdrawn appellate review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review under Article 62.</I> All cases of trial by court-martial in which a punitive discharge may be adjudged and a military judge presides, and in which the government appeals an order or ruling of the military judge that terminates the proceedings with respect to a charge or specification or excludes evidence that is substantial proof of a fact material to the proceedings, or directs the disclosure of classified information, imposes sanctions for nondisclosure of classified information, or refuses to issue or enforce a protective order sought by the United States to prevent the disclosure of classified information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Review under Article 73.</I> All petitions for a new trial in cases of trial by court-martial which are referred to the Court by the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extraordinary writs.</I> The Court may, in its discretion, entertain petitions for extraordinary relief including, but not limited to, writs of mandamus, writs of prohibition, writs of habeas corpus, and writs of error coram nobis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules on jurisdiction.</I> Nothing in this part shall be construed to extend or limit the jurisdiction of the Courts of Criminal Appeals as established by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.3   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>In cases referred to it for review pursuant to Article 66, the Court may act only with respect to the findings and sentence as approved by the convening authority. In reviewing a case or action under Article 69(d) or in determining an appeal under Article 62, the Court may act only with respect to matters of law. The Court may, in addition, review such other matters and take such other action as it determines to be proper under substantive law.e


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.4   Quorum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In panel.</I> When sitting in panel, a majority of the judges assigned to that panel constitutes a quorum for the purpose of hearing or determining any matter referred to the panel. The determination of any matter referred to the panel shall be according to the opinion of a majority of the judges participating in the decision. However, any judge present for duty may issue all necessary orders concerning any proceedings pending on panel and any judge present for duty, or a clerk of court or commissioner to whom the Court has delegated authority, may act on uncontested motions, provided such action does not finally dispose of a petition, appeal, or case before the Court.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>En banc.</I> When sitting as a whole, a majority of the judges of the Court constitutes a quorum for the purpose of hearing and determining any matter before the Court. The determination of any matter before the Court shall be according to the opinion of a majority of the judge participating in the decision. In the absence of a quorum, any judge present for duty may issue all necessary orders concerning any proceedings pending in the Court preparatory to hearing or decision thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.5   Place for filing papers.</HEAD>
<P>When the filing of a notice of appearance, brief, or other paper in the office of a Judge Advocate General is required by this part, such papers shall be filed in the office of the Judge Advocate General of the appropriate armed force or in such other place as the Judge Advocate General or rule promulgated pursuant to § 150.26 may designate. If transmitted by mail or other means, they are not filed until received in such office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.6   Signing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>All formal papers shall be signed and shall show, typewritten or printed, the signer's name, address, military grade (if any), and the capacity in which the paper is signed. Such signature constitutes a certification that the statements made therein are true and correct to the best of the knowledge, information, and belief of the persons signing the paper and that the paper is filed in good faith and not for purposes of unnecessary delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.7   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this part, by order of the Court, or by any applicable statute, the day of the act, event or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, or, when the act to be done is the filing of a paper in court, a day on which the office of the Clerk of the Court is closed due to weather or other conditions or by order of the Chief Judge, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor a holiday.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.8   Qualification of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>All counsel.</I> Counsel in any case before the Court shall be a member in good standing of the bar of a Federal Court, the highest court of a State or another recognized bar.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Military counsel.</I> Assigned appellate defense and appellate government counsel shall, in addition, be qualified in accordance with Articles 27(b)(1) and 70(a), Uniform Code of Military Justice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Admission.</I> Each Court may license counsel to appear before it. Otherwise, upon entering an appearance, counsel shall be deemed admitted pro hac vice, subject to filing a certificate setting forth required qualifications if directed by the Court.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension.</I> No counsel may appear in any proceeding before the Court while suspended from practice by the Judge Advocate General of the service concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.9   Conduct of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The conduct of counsel appearing before the Court shall be in accordance with rules of conduct prescribed pursuant to Rule for Courts-Martial 109 by the Judge Advocate General of the service concerned. However, the Court may exercise its inherent power to regulate counsel appearing before it, including the power to remove counsel from a particular case for misconduct in relation to that case. Conduct deemed by the Court to warrant consideration of suspension from practice or other professional discipline shall be reported by the Court to the Judge Advocate General concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.10   Request for appellate defense counsel.</HEAD>
<P>An accused may be represented before the Court by appellate counsel detailed pursuant to Article 70(a) or by civilian counsel provided by the accused, or both. An accused who does not waive appellate review pursuant to Rule for Courts-Martial 1110 shall, within 10 days after service of a copy of the convening authority's action under Rule for Courts-Martial 1107(h), forward to the convening authority or the Judge Advocate General:
</P>
<P>(a) A request for representation by military appellate defense counsel, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Notice that civilian counsel has been retained or that action has been taken to retain civilian counsel (must include name and address of civilian counsel), or 
</P>
<P>(c) Both a request for representation by military appellate defense counsel under paragraph (a) for this section and notice regarding civilian counsel under paragraph (b) of this section, or 
</P>
<P>(d) A waiver of representation by counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.11   Assignment of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a record of trial is referred to the court—
</P>
<P>(1) If the accused has requested representation by appellate defense counsel, pursuant to Article 70(c)(1), counsel detailed pursuant to Article 70(a) will be assigned to represented the accused; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the accused gives notice that he or she has retained or has taken action to retain civilian counsel, appellate defense counsel shall be assigned to represent the interests of the accused pending appearance of civilian counsel. Assigned defense counsel will continue to assist after appearance by civilian counsel unless excused by the accused; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the accused has neither requested appellate counsel nor given notice of action to retain civilian counsel, but has not waived representation by counsel, appellate defense counsel will be assigned to represent the accused, subject to excusal by the accused or by direction of the Court.
</P>
<P>(b) In any case—
</P>
<P>(1) The Court may request counsel when counsel have not been assigned.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to Article 70(c)(2), and subject to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, appellate defense counsel will represent the accused when the United States is represented by counsel before the Court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.12   Retention of civilian counsel.</HEAD>
<P>When civilian counsel represents an accused before the Court, the Court will notify counsel when the record of trial is received. If both civilian and assigned appellate defense counsel represent the accused, the Court will regard civilian counsel as primary counsel unless notified otherwise. Ordinarily, civilian counsel will use the accused's copy of the record. Civilian counsel may reproduce, at no expense to the government, appellate defense counsel's copy of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.13   Notice of appearance of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Military and civilian appellate counsel shall file a written notice of appearance with the Court. The filing of any pleading relative to a case which contains the signature of counsel constitutes notice of appearance of such counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.14   Waiver or withdrawal of appellate review.</HEAD>
<P>Withdrawals from appellate review, and waivers of appellate review filed after expiration of the period prescribed by the Rule for Courts-Martial 1110(f)(1), will be referred to the Court for consideration. At its discretion, the Court may require the filing of a motion for withdrawal, issue a show cause order, or grant the withdrawal without further action, as may be appropriate. The Court will return the record of trial, in a case withdrawn from appellate review, to the Judge Advocate General for action pursuant to Rule for Courts-Martial 1112.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.15   Assignments of error and briefs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> Appellate counsel for the accused may file an assignment of error if any are to be alleged, setting forth separately each error asserted. The assignment of errors should be included in a brief for the accused in the format set forth in Appendix B to this part. An original of all assignments of error and briefs, and as many additional copies as shall be prescribed by the Court, shall be submitted. Briefs and assignments of errors shall be typed or printed, double-spaced on white paper, and securely fastened at the top. All references to matters contained in the record shall show record page numbers and any exhibit designations. A brief on behalf of the government shall be of like character as that prescribed for the accused.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time for filing and number of briefs.</I> Any brief for an accused shall be filed within 60 days after appellate counsel has been notified of the receipt of the record in the Office of the Judge Advocate General. If the Judge Advocate General has directed appellate government counsel to represent the United States, such counsel shall file an answer on behalf of the government within 30 days after any brief and assignment of errors has been filed on behalf of an accused. Appellate counsel for an accused may file a reply brief no later than 7 days after the filing of a response brief on behalf of the government. If no brief is filed on behalf of an accused, a brief on behalf of the government may be filed within 30 days after expiration of the time allowed for the filing of a brief on behalf of the accused.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appendix.</I> The brief of either party may include an appendix. If an unpublished opinion is cited in the brief, a copy shall be attached in an appendix. The appendix may also include extracts of statutes, rules, or regulations. A motion must be filed under § 150.23, <I>infra,</I> to attach any other matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.16   Oral arguments.</HEAD>
<P>Oral arguments may be heard in the discretion of the Court upon motion by either party or when otherwise ordered by the Court. The motion of a party for oral argument shall be made no later than 7 days after the filing of an answer to an appellant's brief. Such motion shall identify the issue(s) upon which counsel seek argument. The Court may, on its own motion, identify the issue(s) upon which it wishes argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.17   En banc proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A party may suggest the appropriateness of consideration or reconsideration by the Court as a whole. Such consideration or reconsideration ordinarily will not be ordered except:
</P>
<P>(i) When consideration by the full Court is necessary to secure or maintain uniformity of decision, or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the proceedings involve a question of exceptional importance, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) When a sentence being reviewed pursuant to Article 66 extends to death.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases being reviewed pursuant to Article 66, a party's suggestion that a matter be considered initially by the Court as a whole must be filed with the Court within 7 days after the government files its answer to the assignment of errors, or the appellant files a reply under § 150.15(b). In other proceedings, the suggestion must be filed with the party's initial petition or other initial pleading, or within 7 days after the response thereto is filed. A suggestion for reconsideration by the Court as a whole must be made within the time prescribed by § 150.19 for filing a motion for reconsideration. No response to a suggestion for consideration or reconsideration by the Court as a whole may be filed unless the Court shall so order.
</P>
<P>(b) The suggestion of a party for consideration or reconsideration by the Court as a whole shall be transmitted to each judge of the Court who is present for duty, but a vote need not be taken to determine whether the cause shall be considered or reconsidered by the Court as a whole on such a suggestion made by a party unless a judge requests a vote.
</P>
<P>(c) A majority of the judges present for duty may order that any appeal or other proceeding be considered or reconsidered by the Court sitting as a whole. However, en banc reconsideration of an en banc decision will not be held unless at least one member of the original majority concurs in a vote for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(d) This rule does not affect the power of the Court <I>sua sponte</I> to consider or reconsider any case sitting as a whole.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.18   Orders and decisions of the Court.</HEAD>
<P>The Court shall give notice of its orders and decisions by immediately serving them, when rendered, on appellate defense counsel, including civilian counsel, if any, government counsel and the Judge Advocate General, or designee, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.19" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.19   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Court may, in its discretion and on its own motion, enter an order announcing its intent to reconsider its decision or order in any case not later than 30 days after service of such decision or order on appellate defense counsel or on the appellant, if the appellant is not represented by counsel, provided a petition for grant of review or certificate for review has not been filed with the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, or a record of trial for review under Article 67(b) has not been received by that Court. No briefs or arguments shall be received unless the order so directs.
</P>
<P>(b) Provided a petition for grant of review or certificate for review has not been filed with the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, or a record of trial for review under Article 67(b) or writ appeal has not been received by the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, the Court may, in its discretion, reconsider its decision or order in any case upon motion filed either:
</P>
<P>(1) By appellate defense counsel within 30 days after receipt by counsel, or by the appellant if the appellant is not represented by counsel, of a decision or order, or
</P>
<P>(2) By appellate government counsel within 30 days after the decision or order is received by counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) A motion for reconsideration shall briefly and directly state the grounds for reconsideration, including a statement of facts showing jurisdiction in the Court. A reply to the motion for reconsideration will be received by the Court only if filed within 7 days of receipt of a copy of the motion. Oral arguments shall not be heard on a motion for reconsideration unless ordered by the Court. The original of the motion filed with the Court shall indicate the date of receipt of a copy of the same by opposing counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) The time limitations prescribed by this part shall not be extended under the authority of §§ 150.24 or 150.25 beyond the expiration of the time for filing a petition for review or writ appeal with the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, except that the time for filing briefs by either party may be extended for good cause.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.20   Petitions for extraordinary relief, answer, and reply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for extraordinary relief.</I> A petition for extraordinary relief in the number of copies required by the Court shall be accompanied by proof of service on each party respondent and will contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A previous history of the case including whether prior actions have been filed or are pending for the same relief in this or any other court and the disposition or status of such actions;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise and objective statement of all facts relevant to the issue presented and of any pertinent opinion, order or ruling;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any pertinent parts of the record and all exhibits related to the petition if reasonably available and transmittable at or near the time the petition is filed;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the issue;
</P>
<P>(5) The specific relief sought;
</P>
<P>(6) Reasons for granting the writ;
</P>
<P>(7) The jurisdictional basis for relief sought and the reasons why the relief sought cannot be obtained during the ordinary course of appellate review;
</P>
<P>(8) If desired, a request for appointment of appellate counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format.</I> The title of the petition shall include the name, military grade and service number of each named party and, where appropriate, the official military or civilian title of any named party acting in an official capacity as an officer or agent of the United States. When an accused has not been named as a party, the accused shall be identified by name, military grade and service number by the petitioner and shall be designated as the real party in interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic petitions.</I> The Court will docket petitions for extraordinary relief submitted by electronic means. A petition submitted by electronic means will conclude with the full name and address of petitioner's counsel, if any, and will state when the written petition and brief, when required, were forwarded to the Court and to all named respondents, and by what means they were forwarded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to the Judge Advocate General.</I> Immediately upon receipt of any petition, the clerk shall forward a copy of the petition to the appropriate Judge Advocate General or designee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Briefs.</I> Each petition for extraordinary relief must be accompanied by a brief in support of the petition unless it is filed in propria persona. The Court may issue a show cause order in which event the respondent shall file an answer within 10 days of the receipt of the show cause order. The petitioner may file a reply to the answer within 7 days of receipt of the answer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial action by the Court.</I> The Court may dismiss or deny the petition, order the respondent to show cause and file an answer within the time specified, or take whatever other action it deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Oral argument and final action.</I> The Court may set the matter for oral argument. However, on the basis of the pleading alone, the Court may grant or deny the relief sought or make such other order in the case as the circumstances may require. This includes referring the matter to a special master, who need not be a military judge, to further investigate; to take evidence; and to make such recommendations as the Court deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.21   Appeals by the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restricted filing.</I> Only a representative of the government designated by the Judge Advocate General of the respective service may file an appeal by the United States under Article 62.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counsel.</I> Counsel must be qualified and appointed, and give notice of appearance in accordance with this part and those of the Judge Advocate General concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of appeal.</I> The appeal must include those documents specified by Rule for Courts-Martial 908 and by applicable regulations of the Secretary concerned. A certificate of the Notice of Appeal described in Rule for Courts-Martial 908(b)(3) must be included. The certificate of service must reflect the date and time of the military judge's ruling or order from which the appeal is taken, and the time and date of service upon the military judge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> All procedural Rules of the Court shall apply except as noted in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(1) The representative of the government designated by the Judge Advocate General shall decide whether to file the appeal with the Court. The trial counsel shall have 20 days from the date written notice to appeal is filed with the trial court to forward the appeal, including an original and two copies of the record of trial, to the representative of the government designated by the Judge Advocate General. The person designated by the Judge Advocate General shall promptly file the original record with the Clerk of the Court and forward one copy to opposing counsel. Appellate government counsel shall have 20 days (or more upon a showing of good cause made by motion for enlargement within the 20 days) from the date the record is filed with the Court to file the appeal with supporting brief with the Court. Should the government decide to withdraw the appeal after the record is received by the Court, appellate government counsel shall notify the Court in writing. Appellate brief(s) shall be prepared in the manner prescribed by § 150.15.
</P>
<P>(2) Appellee shall prepare an answer in the manner prescribed by § 150.15 and shall file such answer within 20 days after any filing of the government brief.
</P>
<P>(e) The government shall diligently prosecute all appeals by the United States and the Court will give such appeals priority over all other proceedings where practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.22   Petitions for new trial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether submitted to the Judge Advocate General by the accused in propria persona or by counsel for the accused, a petition for new trial submitted while the accused's case is undergoing review by a Court of Criminal Appeals shall be filed with an original and two copies and shall comply with the requirements of Rule for Courts-Martial 1210(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a petition for new trial submitted by other than appellate defense counsel, the Court will notify all counsel of record of such fact.
</P>
<P>(c) A brief in support of a petition for new trial, unless expressly incorporated in or filed with the petition, will be filed substantially in the format specified by § 150.15 no later than 30 days after the filing of the petition or receipt of the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section, whichever is later. An appellate's answer shall be filed no later than 30 days after the filing of an appellant's brief. A reply may be filed no later than 10 days after the filing of the appellee's answer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.23   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> All motions, unless made during the course of a hearing, shall state with particularity the relief sought and the grounds therefor. Motions, pleading, and other papers desired to be filed with the Court may be combined in the same document, with the heading indicating, for example “MOTION TO FILE (SUPPLEMENTAL ASSIGNMENT OF ERRORS) (CERTIFICATE OF CORRECTION) (SUPPLEMENTAL PLEADING)”; or “ASSIGNMENT OF ERRORS AND MOTION TO FILE ATTACHED REPORT OF MEDICAL BOARD”. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions to attach documents.</I> If a party desires to attach a statement of a person to the record for consideration by the Court on any matter, such statement shall be made either as an affidavit or as an unsworn declaration under penalty of perjury pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 1746. All documents containing language other than English shall have, attached, a certified English translation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Opposition.</I> Any opposition to a motion shall be filed within 7 days after receipt by the opposing party of service of the motion. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Leave to file.</I> Any pleading not authorized or required by this part, shall be accompanied by a motion for leave to file such pleading. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral argument.</I> Oral argument shall not normally be permitted on motions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.24" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.24   Continuances and interlocutory matters.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 150.19(d), the Court, in its discretion, may extend any time limits prescribed and may dispose of any interlocutory or other appropriate matter not specifically covered by this part, in such manner as may appear to be required for a full, fair, and expeditious consideration of the case. See § 150.4. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.25" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.25   Suspension of rules.</HEAD>
<P>For good cause shown, the Court acting as a whole or in panel may suspend the requirements or provisions of any of this part in a particular case on petition of a party or on its own motion and may order proceedings in accordance with its direction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.26" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.26   Internal rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Judge of the Court has the authority to prescribe internal rules for the Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.27" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.27   Recording, photographing, broadcasting, or telecasting of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The recording, photographing, broadcasting, or televising of any session of the Court or other activity relating thereto is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.28" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.28   Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>Proposed amendments to this part may be submitted to the Chief Judge of any Court named in § 150.1 or to a Judge Advocate General. Before acting on any proposed amendments not received from the Chief Judges, the Judge Advocates General shall refer them to the Chief Judges of the Courts for comment. The Chief Judges shall confer on any proposed changes, and shall report to the Judge Advocates General as to the suitability of proposed changes and their impact on the operation of the Courts and on appellate justice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.29.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 150—Format for Direction for Review in a Court of Criminal Appeals
</HEAD>
<HD3>In the United States ____________ 
<SU>1</SU> Court of Criminal Appeals
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>United States v. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Full 
<FTREF/>typed name, rank, service, &amp; service number of accused)
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Use “Army,” “Navy-Marine Corps,” “Air Force,” or “Coast Guard,” as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Direction for Review Case No. ________
</FP>
<FP>Tried at (location), on (date(s)) before a (type in court-martial) appointed by (convening authority) 
</FP>
<HD3>To the Honorable, the Judges of the United States ____________ Court of Criminal Appeals
</HD3>
<P>1. Pursuant to Article 69 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 869 (1994) and the Rules of Practice and Procedure for Courts of Criminal Appeals, Rule 2(b), the record of trial in the above-entitled case is forwarded for review.
</P>
<P>2. The accused was found guilty by a (type of court-martial) of a violation of Article(s) ________ of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, and was sentenced to (include entire adjudged sentence) on (insert trial date). The convening authority (approved the sentence as adjudged) (approved the following findings and sentence: ____________). The officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction (where applicable) took the following action: ____________. The case was received for review pursuant to Article 69 on (date).
</P>
<P>3. In review, pursuant to Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 66, it is requested that action be taken with respect to the following issues:
</P>
<FP>[set out issues here]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>The Judge Advocate General
</FP>
<P>Received a copy of the foregoing Direction for Review this ____________ (date).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Appellate Government Counsel
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address and telephone number
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Appellate Defense Counsel
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address and telephone number


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.46.0.43.29.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 150—Format for Assignment of Errors and Brief on Behalf of Accused (§ 150.15)
</HEAD>
<HD3>In the United States ____________ 
<SU>2</SU> Court of Criminal Appeals
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>United States v.
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Full
<FTREF/> typed name, rank, service, &amp; service number of accused), Appellant 
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Use “Army,” “Navy-Marine Corps,” “Air Force,” or “Coast Guard,” as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Assignment of Errors and Brief on Behalf of Accused Case No. ________ 
</FP>
<FP>Tried at (location), on (date(s)) before a (type of court-martial) appointed by (convening authority)
</FP>
<HD3>To the Honorable, the Judges of the United States ____________ Court of Criminal Appeals
</HD3>
<HD3>Statement of the Case
</HD3>
<P>[Set forth a concise summary of the chronology of the case, including the general nature of the charges, the pleas of the accused, the findings and sentence at trial, the action by the convening authority, and any other pertinent information regarding the proceedings.]
</P>
<HD3>Statement of Facts
</HD3>
<P>[Set forth those facts necessary to a disposition of the assigned errors, including specific page references and exhibit numbers. Answers may adopt appellant's or petitioner's statement of facts if there is no dispute, may state additional facts, or, if there is a dispute, may restate the facts as they appear from appellee's or respondent's viewpoint. The repetition of uncontroverted matters is not desired.]
</P>
<HD3>Errors and Argument
</HD3>
<P>[Set forth each error alleged in upper case letters, followed by separate arguments for each error. Arguments shall discuss briefly the question presented, citing and quoting such authorities as are deemed pertinent. Each argument shall include a statement of the applicable standard of review, and shall be followed by a specific prayer for the relief requested.]
</P>
<HD3>Appendix
</HD3>
<P>[The brief of either party may include an appendix containing copies of unpublished opinions cited in the brief, and extracts of statutes, rules or regulations pertinent to the assigned errors.]
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of counsel)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Name (and rank) of counsel, address and telephone number
</FP>
<HD3>Certificate of Filing and Service
</HD3>
<P>I certify that a copy of the foregoing was mailed or delivered to the Court and opposing counsel on (date).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Name (rank) (and signature)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address and telephone number 
</FP>
<FP>____________________ (Date)


</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="151" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 151—FOREIGN CRIMINAL AND CIVIL JURISDICTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. chapter 47, 10 U.S.C. 1037.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 18384, May 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 151.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures, supplemental to those provided in DoD Instruction 5525.01, “Foreign Criminal and Civil Jurisdiction,” which will be made available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/issuances/dodi/,</I> concerning trial by foreign criminal courts of, treatment in foreign prisons of, and the payment of counsel fees in certain civil cases for the following individuals, referred to collectively in this part as “dependents of DoD personnel,” when those individuals are in a foreign country as a result of accompanying DoD personnel who are assigned duty in that country:
</P>
<P>(a) Command-sponsored and non-command sponsored dependents of Armed Forces members;
</P>
<P>(b) Dependents of nationals and non-nationals of the United States who are serving with or accompanying the Military Services (referred to in this rule as “non-military DoD personnel”) in an area outside the United States and its territories and possessions, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico (referred to collectively in this rule as “outside the United States”);
</P>
<P>(c) Dependents of DoD personnel serving under a U.S. Chief of Mission are not considered to be “dependents of DoD personnel” for the purposes of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Armed Forces.</I> As set forth in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(4), the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard.
</P>
<P><I>Designated commanding officer (DCO).</I> The military officer who is designated by the appropriate geographic Combatant Commander to fulfill the duties outlined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>DoD personnel.</I> Armed Forces members and non-military DoD personnel. Armed Forces members and non-military DoD personnel serving under a U.S. Chief of Mission are not considered to be “DoD personnel” as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Non-military DoD personnel.</I> Nationals and non-nationals of the United States who are serving with or accompanying the Armed Forces in an area outside the United States and its territories and possessions, the northern Mariana Islands, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense will, for dependents of DoD personnel when those dependents are in a foreign country accompanying DoD personnel who are assigned duty to that foreign country:
</P>
<P>(1) Maximize the exercise of U.S. jurisdiction to the extent permissible under applicable status of forces agreements or other forms of jurisdiction arrangements.
</P>
<P>(2) Protect, to the maximum extent possible, the rights of dependents of DoD personnel who may be subject to criminal trial by foreign courts and imprisonment in foreign prisons.
</P>
<P>(3) Secure, where possible, the release of an accused to the custody of U.S. authorities pending completion of all foreign judicial proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretaries of the Military Departments ensure the adequacy of regulations in establishing an information and education policy on the laws and customs of the host country for dependents of DoD personnel assigned to foreign areas.
</P>
<P>(b) For each country in their respective assigned area of responsibility (AOR), the geographic Combatant Commanders:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee Command implementation of the procedures in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversee DCO responsibilities, as described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DCO responsibilities.</I> The DCOs:
</P>
<P>(1) Are responsible for formal invocation, where applicable, of the Senate resolution procedure in each foreign country where dependents of DoD personnel are present, consistent with the U.S. Senate Resolution of Ratification, with reservations, to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization Status of Forces Agreement, as agreed to by the Senate on July 15, 1953.
</P>
<P>(2) In cooperation with the appropriate U.S. Chief of Mission and to the maximum extent possible, ensure dependents of DoD personnel receive the same treatment, rights, and support as Armed Forces members when in the custody of foreign authorities, or when confined (pre-trial and post-trial) in foreign penal institutions. DCOs will work with the appropriate U.S. Chief of Mission to make appropriate diplomatic contacts for dependents of DoD personnel who are not U.S. nationals.
</P>
<P>(3) Report informally and immediately to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, the applicable geographic Combatant Commander, and the General Counsel and the Judge Advocate General of the respective Military Department or, in the case of the U.S. Marine Corps (USMC), to the General Counsel of the Navy and the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, or, in the case of the Coast Guard, the Judge Advocate General of the Coast Guard, about important new cases or important developments in pending cases. Important cases include, but are not limited to, instances of denial of the procedural safeguards under any applicable agreement; deficiency in the treatment or conditions of confinement in foreign penal institutions; or arbitrary denial of permission to visit dependents of DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Take additional steps that may be authorized under relevant international agreements with the receiving State to implement the policy of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.47.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request to foreign authorities not to exercise their criminal and civil jurisdiction over dependents.</I> The procedures in this section will be followed when it appears that foreign authorities may exercise criminal jurisdiction over dependents of DoD personnel:
</P>
<P>(1) When the DCO determines, after a careful consideration of all the circumstances, including consultation with the Department of Justice where the matter involves possible prosecution in U.S. civilian courts, that suitable action can be taken under existing U.S. laws or administrative regulations, the DCO may request the local foreign authorities to waive the exercise of criminal jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) When it appears possible that the accused may not obtain a fair trial, the commander exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the command to which such persons are attached or with which they are associated will communicate directly with the DCO, reporting the full facts of the case. The DCO will then determine, in the light of legal procedures in effect in that country, if there is a risk that the accused will not receive a fair trial. If the DCO determines that there is a risk that the accused will not receive a fair trial, the DCO will decide, after consultation with the U.S. Chief of Mission, whether a request should be submitted through diplomatic channels to foreign authorities seeking their assurances of a fair trial for the accused or, in appropriate circumstances, that they waive the exercise of jurisdiction over the accused. If the DCO so decides, a recommendation will be submitted through the geographic Combatant Commander and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to the Secretary of Defense. Copies must be provided to the Secretary concerned and the GC DoD.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Trial observers and trial observers' reports.</I> (1) U.S. observers at trials before courts of the receiving country (referred to in this section as “trial observers”) must attend and prepare formal reports in all cases of trials by foreign courts or tribunals of dependents of DoD personnel, except for minor offenses. In cases of minor offenses, the observer will attend the trial at the discretion of the DCO, but will not be required to make a formal report.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless directed by the DCO, trial observers are not required to attend all preliminary proceedings, such as scheduling hearings, but will attend the trial on the merits and other pre- and post-trial proceedings where significant procedural or substantive matters are decided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Trial observer reports regarding dependents of DoD personnel will be handled and processed pursuant to DoD Instruction 5525.01(4)(b-c).
</P>
<P>(2) The DCO, upon receipt of a trial observer report, will be responsible for determining whether:
</P>
<P>(i) There was any failure to comply with the procedural safeguards secured by the pertinent status of forces agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The accused received a fair trial under all the circumstances. Due regard should be given to those fair trial rights listed in DoD Instruction 5525.01 “Foreign Criminal and Civil Jurisdiction,” Enclosure 5, “Fair Trial Guarantees” that are relevant to the particular facts and circumstances of the trial. A trial will not be determined to be unfair merely because it is not conducted in a manner identical to trials held in the United States.
</P>
<P>(A) If the DCO believes that the procedural safeguards specified in pertinent agreements were denied or that the trial was otherwise unjust, the DCO will submit a recommendation as to appropriate action to rectify the trial deficiencies and otherwise to protect the rights or interests of the accused. This recommendation must include a statement of efforts taken or to be taken at the local level to protect the rights of the accused.
</P>
<P>(B) The DCO will submit the recommendation to the Secretary of Defense, through the Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (with an advance copy to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense); copies must be provided to the geographic Combatant Commander concerned, the General Counsel and the Judge Advocate General of the Military Department concerned or, in the case of the USMC, to the General Counsel of the Navy and the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, or, in the case of the Coast Guard, the Judge Advocate General of the Coast Guard, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counsel fees and related assistance for U.S. personnel not subject to the UCMJ.</I> In cases of exceptional interest to the Military Department concerned or the Department of Homeland Security involving non-military DoD personnel, the Secretary of that Military Department or the Secretary of Homeland Security may approve, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1037, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criminal cases.</I> Requests for the provision of counsel fees and payment of expenses in criminal cases may be approved in pre-trial, trial, appellate, and post-trial proceedings in any criminal case where:
</P>
<P>(i) The sentence that is normally imposed includes confinement, whether or not such sentence is suspended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Capital punishment might be imposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) An appeal is made from any proceeding in which there appears to have been a denial of the substantial rights of the accused;
</P>
<P>(iv) The case, although not within the criteria established in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, is considered to have significant impact on U.S. interests, including upon the relations of the Armed Forces with the host country.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civil cases.</I> Requests for provision of counsel fees and payment of expenses in civil cases may be granted in trial and appellate proceedings in civil cases where the case is considered to have a significant impact on the relations of the Armed Forces with the host country; or in cases brought against eligible non-military DoD personnel (and in exceptional cases, by such personnel) if the case is considered to involve any other U.S. interest.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Funding restrictions.</I> (i) No funds will be provided under this part in cases where the U.S. Government is—in actuality or in legal effect—the plaintiff or the defendant; all such cases shall be referred to the Department of Justice, Office of Foreign Litigation. No funds will be provided under this part in cases where the non-military DoD personnel member is a plaintiff without prior authorization of the Secretary of the Military Department concerned or the Secretary of Homeland Security. The provisions of this paragraph also are applicable to proceedings with civil aspects that are brought by eligible personnel as criminal cases in accordance with local law. Funds for the posting of bail or bond to secure the release of non-military DoD personnel from confinement will be used as provided by applicable Armed Force regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) No funds will be provided under paragraph (c)(2) of this section to a plaintiff who, if successful, will receive an award, in whole or in part, from the United States.
</P>
<P>(iii) As provided for in 10 U.S.C. 1037, a person on whose behalf a payment is made under this provision is not liable to reimburse the United States for that payment, unless he or she is responsible for the forfeiture of bail provided for him or her under this provision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of dependents confined in foreign penal institutions.</I> In cooperation with the appropriate U.S. Chief of Mission and to the maximum extent possible, military commanders will ensure that dependents of DoD personnel receive the same treatment, rights, and support as would be extended to Armed Forces members when in the custody of foreign authorities, or when confined (pretrial and post-trial) in foreign penal institutions. Commanders will work with the appropriate U.S. Chief of Mission to make appropriate diplomatic contacts for the categories of dependents described in this section who are not U.S. nationals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information policy.</I> The general public and the Congress must be provided promptly with the maximum information concerning status of forces matters that are consistent with the national interest. Information will be coordinated and provided to the public and the Congress in accordance with established procedures, including those in DoD Directive 5122.05, “Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (ATSD(PA))” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/512205_dodd_2017.pdf?ver=2017-08-07-125832-023</I>), 32 CFR part 286, 32 CFR part 310, and DoD Instruction 5400.04, “Provision of Information to Congress” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/540004p.pdf</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="152" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 152—REVIEW OF THE MANUAL FOR COURTS-MARTIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12473; 10 U.S.C. 47.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 36916, June 20, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 152.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements the requirement established by the President in Executive Order 12473 that the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM), United States, 1984, and subsequent editions, be reviewed annually.
</P>
<P>(b) Formalizes the Joint Service Committee (JSC) and defines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures of the JSC in reviewing and proposing changes to the MCM and proposing legislation to amend the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) (10 U.S.C., Chapter 47).
</P>
<P>(c) Provides for the designation of a Secretary of a Military Department to serve as the Executive Agent for the JSC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard by agreement with the Department of Homeland Security when it is not operating as a Service of the Department of the Navy), the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter collectively referred to as “the DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>To assist the President in fulfilling his responsibilities under the UCMJ, and to satisfy the requirements of Executive Order 12473, the Department of Defense shall review the Manual for Courts-Martial annually, and, as appropriate, propose legislation amending the UCMJ to ensure that the MCM and the UCMJ fulfill their fundamental purpose as a comprehensive body of military criminal law and procedure. The role of the JSC furthers these responsibilities. Under the direction of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, the JSC is responsible for reviewing the MCM and proposing amendments to it and, as necessary, to the UCMJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel to the Department of Defense shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Administer this part, to include coordination on and approval of legislative proposals to amend the UCMJ, approval of the annual review of the MEM, and coordination of any proposed changes to the MCM under OMB Circular A-19. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/circulars/index.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Designate the Secretary of a Military Department to serve as the joint Service provider for the JSC. The joint Service provider shall act on behalf of the JSC for maintaining the JSC's files and historical records, and for publication of the updated editions of the MCM to be distributed throughout the Department of Defense, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Invite the Secretary of Homeland Security to appoint representatives to the JSC.
</P>
<P>(4) Invite the Chief Judge of the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces to provide a staff member to serve as an advisor to the JSC.
</P>
<P>(5) Invite the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to provide a staff member from the Chairman's Office of Legal Counsel to serve as an advisor to the JSC.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that the Associate Deputy General Counsel (Military Justice and Personnel Policy), Office of the General Counsel, Department of Defense, shall serve as the General Counsel's representative to the JSC in a non-voting capacity. In addition, the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (USCAAF) and the Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff shall be invited to provide a staff member to serve as an advisor to the JSC in a non-voting capacity.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall ensure that the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments and the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps appoint representatives to the JSC.
</P>
<P>(c) The JSC shall further the DoD policy established in section 3 of this part and perform additional studies or other duties related to the administration of military justice, as the General Counsel of the Department of Defense may direct. (See DoD Directive 5105.18, “DoD Committee Management Program”. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>) The membership of the JSC shall consist of one representative of each of the following, who shall comprise the JSC Voting Group:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General of the Army.
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(3) The Judge Advocate General of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(4) The Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps; and
</P>
<P>(5) By agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, the Chief Counsel, United States Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(d) The JSC Working Group (WG) shall assist the JSC Voting Group in fulfilling its responsibilities under this part. The WG consists of non-voting representatives from each of the Services and may include the representatives from the USCAAF, and the Office of the Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
</P>
<P>(e) The JSC chairmanship rotates biennially among the Services in the following order: The Army, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Navy, and the Coast Guard. Due to its size and manning constraints, a Coast Guard's request not to be considered for JSC chairmanship shall be honored. The Military Service of the JSC Chairman shall provide an Executive Secretary for the JSC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.5   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>The foregoing policies and procedures providing guidelines for implementation of this part, as well as those contained in the appendix, are intended exclusively for the guidance of military personnel and civilian employees of the Department of Defense, and the United States Coast Guard by agreement of the Department of Homeland Security. These guidelines are intended to improve the internal management of the Federal Government and are not intended to create any right, privilege, or benefit, substantive of procedural, to any person or enforceable at law by any party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.48.0.43.6.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 152—Guidance to the Joint Service Committee (JSCA)
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review the Manual for Courts-Martial.</I> (1) The Joint Service Committee (JSC) shall conduct an annual review of the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM), in light of judicial and legislative developments in military and civilian practice, to ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) The MCM implements the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and reflects current military practice and judicial precedent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules and procedures of the MCM are uniform insofar as practicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The MCM applies, to the extent practicable, the principles of law and the rules of evidence generally recognized in the trial of criminal cases in United States district courts, but which are not contrary to or inconsistent with the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(iv) The MCM is workable throughout the worldwide jurisdiction of the UCMJ; and, 
</P>
<P>(v) The MCM is workable across the spectrum of circumstances in which courts-martial are conducted, including combat conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) During this review, any JSC voting member may propose for the Voting Group's consideration an amendment to the MCM. Proposed amendments to the MCM shall ordinarily be referred to the JSC Working Group (WG) for study. The WG assists the JSC in staffing various proposals, conducting studies of proposals and other military justice related topics at the JSC's direction, and making reports to the JSC. Any proposed amendment to the MCM, if approved by a majority of the JSC voting members, becomes a part of the annual review.
</P>
<P>(3) The JSC shall prepare a draft of the annual review of the MCM and forward it to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, on or about December 31st. The General Counsel of the Department of Defense may submit the draft of the annual review to the Code Committee established by Article 146 of the UCMJ, with an invitation to submit comments.
</P>
<P>(4) The draft of the annual review shall set forth any specific recommendations for changes to the MCM, including, if not adequately addressed in the accompanying discussion or analysis, a concise statement of the basis and purpose of any proposed change. If no changes are recommended, the draft review shall so state. If the JSC recommends changes to the MCM, the draft review shall so state. If the JSC recommends changes to the MCM, the public notice procedures of paragraph (d)(3) of this appendix are applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Changes to the Manual for Courts-Martial.</I> (1) By January 1st of each year, the JSC voting members shall ensure that a solicitation for proposed changes to the MCM is sent to appropriate agencies within their respective Services that includes, but is not limited to, the judiciary, the trial counsel and defense counsel organizations, and the judge advocate general schools.
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcement of each year's annual review of proposed changes to the MCM shall also invite members of the public to submit any new proposals for JSC consideration during subsequent JSC annual reviews.
</P>
<P>(3) When the JSC receives proposed changes to the MCM either by solicitation or <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, the JSC shall determine whether the proposal should be considered under paragraph (a)(2) of this appendix by determining if one or more of the JSC voting member(s) intends to sponsor the proposed change. The JSC shall determine when such sponsored proposals should be considered under the annual review process, taking into account any other proposals under consideration and any other reviews or studies directed by the General Counsel of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(4) Changes to the MCM shall be proposed as part of the annual review conducted under paragraph (a) of this appendix. When earlier implementation is required, the JSC may send proposed changes to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, for coordination under DoD Directive 5500.1. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Proposals to Amend the Uniform Code of Military Justice.</I> The JSC may determine that the efficient administration of military justice within the Armed Services requires amendments to the UCMJ, or that a desired amendment to the MCM makes necessary an amendment to the UCMJ. In such cases, the JSC shall forward to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, a legislative proposal to change the UCMJ. The General Counsel of the Department of Defense may direct that the JSC forward any such legislative proposal to the Code Committee for its consideration under Article 146, UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public Notice and Meeting.</I> (1) Proposals to amend the UCMJ are not governed by the procedures set out in this paragraph. (See DoD Directive 5105. 18. This paragraph applies only to the JSC recommendations to amend the MCM.)
</P>
<P>(2) It is DoD policy to encourage public participation in the JSC's review of the MCM. Notice that the Department of Defense, through the JSC, intends to propose changes to the MCM normally shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> before submission of such changes to the President. This notice is not required when the Secretary of Defense in his sole and unreviewable discretion proposes that the President issue the change without such notice on the basis that public notice procedures, as set forth in this part, are unnecessary or contrary to the sound administration of military justice, or a MCM change corresponding to legislation is expeditiously required to keep the MCM current and consistent with changes in applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) The Office of General Counsel of the Department of Defense shall facilitate publishing the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice required under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) The notice under this paragraph shall consist of the publication of the full text of the proposed changes, including discussion and analysis, unless the General Counsel of the Department of Defense determines that such publication in full would unduly burden the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the time and place where a copy of the proposed change may be examined, and the procedure for obtaining access to or a copy of the proposed change.
</P>
<P>(5) A period of not fewer than 60 days after publication of notice normally shall be allowed for public comment, but a shorter period may be authorized when the General Counsel of the Department of Defense determines that a 60-day period is unnecessary or is contrary to the sound administration of military justice. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice shall normally indicate that public comments shall be submitted to the Executive Secretary of the JSC.
</P>
<P>(6) The JSC shall provide notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and hold a public meeting during the public comments period, where interested persons shall be given a reasonable opportunity to submit views on any of the proposed changes contained in the annual review. Public proposals and comments to the JSC should include a reference to the specific provision to be changed, a rational for the proposed change, and specific and detailed proposed language to replace the current language. Incomplete submissions might be insufficient to receive the consideration desired. The JSC shall seek to consider all views presented at the public meeting as well as any written comments submitted during the 60-day period when determining the final form of any proposed amendments to the MCM.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Internal Rules and Record-Keeping.</I> (1) In furthering DoD policy, studying issues, or performing other duties relating to the administration of military justice, the JSC may establish internal rules governing its operation.
</P>
<P>(2) The JSC shall create a file system and maintain appropriate JSC records.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="153" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 153—CRIMINAL JURISDICTION OVER CIVILIANS EMPLOYED BY OR ACCOMPANYING THE ARMED FORCES OUTSIDE THE UNITED STATES, CERTAIN SERVICE MEMBERS, AND FORMER SERVICE MEMBERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 8947, Feb. 22, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 153.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements policies and procedures, and assigns responsibilities under the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act of 2000, as amended by section 1088 of the “Ronald W. Reagan National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2005,” October 28, 2004 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) for exercising extraterritorial criminal jurisdiction over certain military personnel, former service members of the United States Armed Forces, and over civilians employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States (U.S.).
</P>
<P>(b) Implements section 3266 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard by agreement with the Department of Homeland Security when it is not operating as a Service of the Department of the Navy), the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”). The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, and the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coast Guard.</I> The Coast Guard ordinarily operates as a separate branch of the Armed Forces in the Department of Homeland Security (DHS). However, upon Presidential Directive, the Coast Guard operates as a Service within the Department of the Navy and becomes part of the Department of Defense. By agreement with the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security, when the Coast Guard is operating as a separate Service within the DHS, this part shall apply to the Coast Guard to the extent permitted by the Act. Whether a provision of this Instruction applies to a Coast Guard case is determined by whether the Coast Guard is operating as a Service in the DHS or as a Service within the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(c) While some Federal criminal statutes are expressly or implicitly extraterritorial, many acts described therein are criminal only if they are committed within “the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States” or if they affect interstate or foreign commerce. Therefore, in most instances, Federal criminal jurisdiction ends at the nation's borders. State criminal jurisdiction, likewise, normally ends at the boundaries of each State. Because of these limitations, acts committed by military personnel, former service members, and civilians employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces in foreign countries, which would be crimes if committed in the U.S., often do not violate either Federal or State criminal law. Similarly, civilians are generally not subject to prosecution under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), unless Congress had declared a “time of war” when the acts were committed. As a result, these acts are crimes, and therefore criminally punishable, only under the law of the foreign country in which they occurred. See section 2 of Report Accompanying the Act (Report to Accompany H.R. 3380, House of Representatives Report 106-778, July 20, 2000 hereafter referred to as “the Report Accompanying the Act”). While the U.S. could impose administrative discipline for such actions, the Act and this part are intended to address the jurisdictional gap with respect to criminal sanctions.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part may be construed to deprive a court-martial, military commission, provost court, or other military tribunal of concurrent jurisdiction with respect to offenders or offenses that by statute or the law of war may be tried by court-martial, military commission, provost court, or other military tribunal (Section 3261(c) of title 18). In some cases, conduct that violates section 3261(a) of the Act may also violate the UCMJ, or the law of war generally. Therefore, for military personnel, military authorities would have concurrent jurisdiction with a U.S. District Court to try the offense. The Act was not intended to divest the military of jurisdiction and recognizes the predominant interest of the military in disciplining its service members, while still allowing for the prosecution of members of the Armed Forces with non-military co-defendants in a U.S. District Court under section 3261(d) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) This part, including its enclosures, is intended exclusively for the guidance of military personnel and civilian employees of the Department of Defense, and of the United States Coast Guard by agreement with the Department of Homeland Security. Nothing contained herein creates or extends any right, privilege, or benefit to any person or entity. See <I>United States</I> v. <I>Caceres,</I> 440 U.S. 741 (1979).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Accompanying the Armed Forces Outside the United States.</I> As defined in section 3267 of the Act, the dependent of:
</P>
<P>(1) A member of the Armed Forces; or
</P>
<P>(2) A civilian employee of the Department of Defense (including a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the Department); or
</P>
<P>(3) A DoD contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier); or
</P>
<P>(4) An employee of a DoD contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier); and
</P>
<P>(5) Residing with such member, civilian employee, contractor, or contractor employee outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(6) Not a national of or ordinarily resident in the host nation.
</P>
<P><I>Active Duty.</I> Full-time duty in the active military service of the United States. It includes full-time training duty, annual training duty, and attendance, while in the active military service, at a school designated as a service school by law or by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned. See section 101(d)(1) of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Armed Forces.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard. See section 101(a)(4) of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Arrest.</I> To be taken into physical custody by law enforcement officials.
</P>
<P><I>Charged.</I> As used in the Act and this part, this term is defined as an indictment or the filing of information against a person under the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. See the analysis to Section 3264 of the Report Accompanying the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Civilian Component.</I> A person or persons employed by the Armed Forces outside the United States, as defined in this section and section 3267(a)(1), as amended, of the Act. A term used in Status of Forces Agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent.</I> A person for whom a member of the Armed Forces, civilian employee, contractor (or subcontractor at any tier) has legal responsibility while that person is residing outside the United States with or accompanying that member of the Armed Forces, civilian employee, contractor (or subcontractor at any tier), and while that responsible person is so assigned, employed or obligated to perform a contractual obligation to the Department of Defense. For purposes of this part, a person's “command sponsorship” status while outside the United States is not to be considered in determining whether the person is a dependent within the meaning of this part, except that there shall be a rebuttable presumption that a command-sponsored individual is a dependent.
</P>
<P><I>Designated Commanding Officer (DCO).</I> A single military commander in each foreign country where U.S. Forces are stationed and as contemplated by DoD Directive 5525.1, Status of Forces Policy and Information.
</P>
<P><I>Detention.</I> To be taken into custody by law enforcement officials and placed under physical restraint.
</P>
<P><I>District.</I> A District Court of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Employed by the Armed Forces Outside the United States.</I> Any person employed as:
</P>
<P>(1) A civilian employee of the Department of Defense (including a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the Department); or
</P>
<P>(2) A civilian employee of any other Federal agency, or any provisional authority, to the extent such employment relates to supporting the mission of the Department of Defense overseas; or
</P>
<P>(3) A contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of the Department of Defense (including a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the Department of Defense); or
</P>
<P>(4) A contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of any other Federal agency, or any provisional authority, to the extent such employment relates to supporting the mission of the Department of Defense overseas; or
</P>
<P>(5) An employee of a contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of the Department of Defense (including a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the Department of Defense); or
</P>
<P>(6) An employee of a contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of any other Federal agency, or any provisional authority, to the extent such employment relates to supporting the mission of the Department of Defense overseas; and, when the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Is present or resides outside the United States in connection with such employment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a national of or ordinarily resident in the host nation.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Magistrate Judge.</I> As used in the Act and this part, this term includes both Judges of the United States and U.S. Magistrate Judges, titles that, in general, should be given their respective meanings found in the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. (See footnote 32 of the Report Accompanying the Act) The term does not include Military Magistrates or Military Judges, as prescribed by the UCMJ, or regulations of the Military Departments or the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Felony Offense.</I> Conduct that is an offense punishable by imprisonment for more than one year if the conduct had been engaged in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States. See sections 3261 of the Act and 18 U.S.C. 7. Although the Act, uses the conditional phrase “if committed within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States,” acts that would be a Federal crime regardless of where they are committed in the U.S., such as drug crimes contained in chapter 13 of title 21, United States Code, also fall within the scope of section 3261(a) of the Act. See the analysis to section 3261 of the Report Accompanying the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Host Country National.</I> A person who is not a citizen of the United States, but who is a citizen of the foreign country in which that person is located.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive Duty Training.</I> Duty prescribed for Reservists by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned under section 206 of title 37, United States Code, or any other provision of law; and special additional duties authorized for Reservists by an authority designated by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned and performed by them on a voluntary basis in connection with the prescribed training or maintenance activities of the units to which they are assigned. Inactive Duty Training includes those duties performed by Reservists in their status as members of the National Guard while in Federal service. See section 101(d)(7) of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Juvenile.</I> A person who has not attained his or her eighteenth birthday, as defined in section 5031 of title 18, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Military Department.</I> The Department of the Army, the Department of the Navy, and the Department of the Air Force. See section 101(a)(8) of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>National of the United States.</I> As defined in section 1101(a)(22), of title 8, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Outside the United States.</I> Those places that are not within the definition of “United States” below and, with the exception of subparagraph 7(9), those geographical areas and locations that are not within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, as defined in sections 7 of title 18, United States Code. The locations defined in subparagraph 7(9) of title 18, United States Code are to be considered “Outside the United States” for the purposes of this part. See 3261-3267 of title 18, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified Military Counsel.</I> Judge advocates assigned to or employed by the Military Services and designated by the respective Judge Advocate General, or a designee, to be professionally qualified and trained to perform defense counsel responsibilities under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Staff Judge Advocate.</I> A judge advocate so designated in the Army, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, or the Coast Guard; the principal legal advisor of a command in the Navy who is a judge advocate, regardless of job title. See Rule for Courts-Martial 103(17), Manual for Courts-Martial, United States (2002 Edition).
</P>
<P><I>Third Country National.</I> A person whose citizenship is that of a country other than the U.S. and the foreign country in which the person is located.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> As defined in section 5 of title 18, United States Code, this term, as used in a territorial sense, includes all places and waters, continental or insular, subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, except for the Panama Canal Zone.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel of the Department of Defense</I> shall provide initial coordination and liaison with the Departments of Justice and State, on behalf of the Military Departments, regarding a case for which investigation and/or Federal criminal prosecution under the Act is contemplated. This responsibility may be delegated entirely, or delegated for categories of cases, or delegated for individual cases. The General Counsel, or designee, shall advise the Domestic Security Section of the Criminal Division, Department of Justice (DSS/DOJ), as soon as practicable, when DoD officials intend to recommend that the DOJ consider the prosecution of a person subject to the Act for offenses committed outside the United States. The Assistant Attorney General, Criminal Division, Department of Justice, has designated the Domestic Security Section (DSS/DOJ) as the Section responsible for the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Inspector General of the Department of Defense</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to Section 4(d) of the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 3), “report expeditiously to the Attorney General whenever the Inspector General has reasonable grounds to believe there has been a violation of Federal criminal law.” This statutory responsibility is generally satisfied once an official/special agent of the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense notifies either the cognizant Department of Justice representative or the Assistant Attorney General (Criminal Division) of the “reasonable grounds.”
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to Section 8(c)(5) of the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 3), and 10 U.S.C. 141(b), ensure the responsibilities described in DoD Directive 5525.7, “Implementation of the Memorandum of Understanding Between the Department of Justice and the Department of Defense Relating to the Investigation and Prosecution of Certain Crimes,” January 22, 1985, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> to “implement the investigative policies [,m]onitor compliance by DoD criminal investigative organizations [, and p]rovide specific guidance regarding investigative matters, as appropriate” are satisfied relative to violations of the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act of 2000.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available from Internet site <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The <I>Heads of Military Law Enforcement Organizations and Military Criminal Investigative Organizations, or their Designees,</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the Commander and Staff Judge Advocate (or Legal Advisor) of the Combatant Command concerned, or designees, of an investigation of an alleged violation of the Act. Such notice shall be provided as soon as practicable. In turn, the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, or designee, shall be advised so as to ensure notification of and consultation with the Departments of Justice and State regarding information about the potential case, including the host nation's position regarding the case. At the discretion of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, other agencies and organizations (such as the Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Secretary of the Military Department that sponsored the person into the foreign country) shall be informed, as appropriate. Effective investigations lead to successful prosecutions and, therefore, these cases warrant close coordination and cooperation between the Departments of Defense, Justice, and State.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide briefings to, and coordinate with, appropriate local law enforcement authorities in advance or, if not possible, as soon thereafter as is practicable, of investigations or arrests in specific cases brought under the Act. If not previously provided to local law enforcement authorities, such briefings about the case shall, at a minimum, describe the Host Nation's position regarding the exercise of jurisdiction under the Act that followed from any briefings conducted pursuant to appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Domestic Security Section, Criminal Division, Department of Justice (DSS/DOJ)</I> has agreed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide preliminary liaison with the Department of Defense, coordinate initial notifications with other entities of the Department of Justice and Federal law enforcement organizations; make preliminary decisions regarding proper venue; designate the appropriate U.S. Attorney's Office; and coordinate the further assignment of DOJ responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate with the designated U.S. Attorney's office arrangements for a Federal Magistrate Judge to preside over the initial proceedings required by the Act. Although the assignment of a particular Federal Magistrate Judge shall ordinarily be governed by the jurisdiction where a prosecution is likely to occur, such an assignment does not determine the ultimate venue of any prosecution that may be undertaken. Appropriate venue is determined in accordance with the requirements of section 3238 of title 18, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate the assistance to be provided the Department of Defense with the U.S. Attorney's office in the district where venue for the case shall presumptively lie.
</P>
<P>(4) Continue to serve as the primary point of contact for DoD personnel regarding all investigations that may lead to criminal prosecutions and all associated pretrial matters, until such time as DSS/DOJ advises that the case has become the responsibility of a specific U.S. Attorney's Office.
</P>
<P>(e) The <I>Commanders of the Combatant Commands</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Assist the DSS/DOJ on specific cases occurring within the Commander's area of responsibility. These responsibilities include providing available information and other support essential to an appropriate and successful prosecution under the Act with the assistance of the Commanders' respective Staff Judge Advocates (or Legal Advisors), or their designees, to the maximum extent allowed and practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure command representatives are made available, as necessary, to participate in briefings of appropriate host nation authorities concerning the operation of this Act and the implementing provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine when military necessity in the overseas theater requires a waiver of the limitations on removal in section 3264(a) of the Act and when the person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act shall be moved to the nearest U.S. military installation outside the United States that is adequate to detain the person and facilitate the initial proceedings prescribed in section 3265(a) of the Act and this part. Among the factors to be considered are the nature and scope of military operations in the area, the nature of any hostilities or presence of hostile forces, and the limitations of logistical support, available resources, appropriate personnel, or the communications infrastructure necessary to comply with the requirements of section 3265 of the Act governing initial proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) Annually report to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, by the last day of February for the immediately preceding calendar year, all cases involving the arrest of persons for violations of the Act; persons placed in temporary detention for violations of the Act; the number of requests for Federal prosecution under the Act, and the decisions made regarding such requests.
</P>
<P>(5) Determine the suitability of the locations and conditions for the temporary detention of juveniles who commit violations of the Act within the Commander's area of responsibility. The conditions of such detention must, at a minimum, meet the following requirements: Juveniles alleged to be delinquent shall not be detained or confined in any institution or facility in which the juvenile has regular contact with adult persons convicted of a crime or awaiting trial on criminal charges; insofar as possible, alleged juvenile delinquents shall be kept separate from adjudicated delinquents; and every juvenile in custody shall be provided adequate food, heat, light, sanitary facilities, bedding, clothing, recreation, and medical care, including necessary psychiatric, psychological, or other care and treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) As appropriate, promulgate regulations consistent with and implementing this part. The Combatant Commander's duties and responsibilities pursuant to this part may be delegated.
</P>
<P>(f) The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, make provision for defense counsel representation at initial proceedings conducted outside the United States pursuant to the Act for those persons arrested or charged with violations of section 3261(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Issue regulations establishing procedures that, to the maximum extent practicable, provide notice to all persons covered by the Act who are not nationals of the United States but who are employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States, with the exception of individuals who are nationals of or ordinarily resident in the host nation, that they are potentially subject to the criminal jurisdiction of the United States under the Act. At a minimum, such regulations shall require that employees and persons accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States, who are not nationals of the United States, be informed of the jurisdiction of the Act at the time that they are hired for overseas employment, or upon sponsorship into the overseas command, whichever event is earlier applicable. Such notice shall also be provided during employee training and any initial briefings required for these persons when they first arrive in the foreign country. For employees and persons accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States who are not nationals of the United States, but who have already been hired or are present in the overseas command at the time this part becomes effective, such notice shall be provided within 60 days of the effective date of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure orientation training, as described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, is also provided for all U.S. nationals who are, or who are scheduled to be, employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States, including their dependents, and include information that such persons are potentially subject to the criminal jurisdiction of the United States under the Act.
</P>
<P>(i) For members of the Armed Forces, civilian employees of the Department of Defense and civilians accompanying the Armed Forces overseas, notice and briefings on the applicability of the Act shall, at a minimum, be provided to them and their dependents when travel orders are issued and, again, upon their arrival at command military installations or place of duty outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) For civilian employees, contractors (including subcontractors at any tier), and employees of contractors (including subcontractors at any tier) of any other Federal agency, or any provisional authority, permit such persons to attend the above-referenced briefings on a voluntary basis. In addition, to the maximum extent practicable, make available to representatives of such other Federal agencies or provisional authorities such notice and briefing materials as is provided to civilian employees, contractors, and contractor employees of the Department of Defense overseas.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to provide notice or orientation training pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section shall not create any rights or privileges in the persons referenced and shall not operate to defeat the jurisdiction of a court of the United States or provide a defense or other remedy in any proceeding arising under the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide training to personnel who are authorized under the Act and designated pursuant to this part to make arrests outside the United States of persons who allegedly committed a violation of section 3261(a) of the Act. The training, at a minimum, shall include the rights of individuals subject to arrest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Offenses and Punishments.</I> Section 3261(a) of the Act establishes a separate Federal offense under 18 U.S.C. for an act committed outside the United States that would be a felony crime as if such act had been committed within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, as defined in section 7 of 18 U.S.C. Charged as a violation of section 3261(a) of the Act, the elements of the offense and maximum punishment are the same as the crime committed within the geographical limits of section 7 of 18 U.S.C., but without the requirement that the conduct be committed within such geographical limits. See section 1 of the Section-By-Section Analysis and Discussion to section 3261 in the Report Accompanying the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Persons subject to this part.</I> This part applies to certain military personnel, former military service members, and persons employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States, and their dependents, as those terms are defined in section 153.3 of this part, alleged to have committed an offense under the Act while outside the United States. For purposes of the Act and this part, persons employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the U.S. are subject to the “military law” of the U.S., but only to the extent to which this term has been used and its meaning and scope have been understood within the context of a SOFA or any other similar form of international agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Military Service Members.</I> Military service members subject to the Act's jurisdiction are:
</P>
<P>(i) Only those active duty service members who, by Federal indictment or information, are charged with committing an offense with one or more defendants, at least one of whom is not subject to the UCMJ. See section 3261(d)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Members of a Reserve component with respect to an offense committed while the member was not on active duty or inactive duty for training (in the case of members of the Army National Guard of the United States or the Air National Guard of the United States, only when in Federal service), are not subject to UCMJ jurisdiction for that offense and, as such, are amenable to the Act's jurisdiction without regard to the limitation of section 3261(d)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Former Military Service Members.</I> Former military service members subject to the Act's jurisdiction are:
</P>
<P>(i) Former service members who were subject to the UCMJ at the time the alleged offenses were committed, but are no longer subject to the UCMJ with respect to the offense due to their release or separation from active duty.
</P>
<P>(ii) Former service members, having been released or separated from active duty, who thereafter allegedly commit an offense while in another qualifying status, such as while a civilian employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States, or while the dependent of either or of a person subject to the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Civilians Employed by the Armed Forces.</I> Civilian employees employed by the U.S. Armed Forces outside the United States (as defined in section 153.3), who commit an offense under the Act while present or residing outside the U.S. in connection with such employment, are subject to the Act and the provisions of this part. Such civilian employees include:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons employed by the Department of Defense (including a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the Department of Defense).
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons employed as a DoD contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier).
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees of a DoD contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier).
</P>
<P>(iv) Civilian employees, contractors (including subcontractors at any tier), and civilian employees of a contractor (or subcontractor at any tier) of any other Federal agency, or any provisional authority, to the extent such employment relates to supporting the mission of the Department of Defense overseas.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Civilians Accompanying the Armed Forces.</I> Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section, the following persons are civilians accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States who are covered by the Act and the provisions of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) Dependents of:
</P>
<P>(A) An active duty service member.
</P>
<P>(B) A member of the reserve component while the member was on active duty or inactive duty for training, but in the case of members of the Army National Guard of the United States or the Air National Guard of the United States, only when in Federal service.
</P>
<P>(C) A former service member who is employed by or is accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(D) A civilian employee of the Department of Defense (including non-appropriated fund instrumentalities of the Department of Defense).
</P>
<P>(E) A contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(F) An employee of a contractor (including a subcontractor at any tier) of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the person being the dependent of a person who is listed in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section, jurisdiction under the Act requires that the dependent also:
</P>
<P>(A) Reside with one of the persons listed in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Allegedly commit the offense while outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(C) Not be a national of, or ordinarily resident in, the host nation where the offense is committed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Command sponsorship of the dependent is not required for the Act and this part to apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the dependent is a juvenile, as defined in section 153.3, who engaged in conduct that is subject to prosecution under section 3261(a) of the Act, then the provisions of chapter 403 of title 18, United States Code would apply to U.S. District Court prosecutions.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Persons NOT Subject to the Act or the Procedures of this part.</I> (i) Persons who are the nationals of, or ordinarily resident in, the host nation where the offense is committed, regardless of their employment or dependent status.
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons, including citizens of the United States, whose presence outside the United States at the time the offense is committed, is not then as a member of the Armed Forces, a civilian employed by the Armed Forces outside the United States, or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(A) Persons (including members of a Reserve component) whose presence outside the United States at the time the offense is committed, is solely that of a tourist, a student, or a civilian employee or civilian accompanying any other non-federal agency, organization, business, or entity (and thereby can not be said to be employed by or accompanying the Armed Forces within the definitions of those terms as established by the Act, as modified) are not subject to the Act. Civilian employees of an agency, organization, business, or entity accompanying the Armed Forces outside the U.S. may, by virtue of the agency, organization, business, or entity relationship with the Armed Forces, be subject to the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Persons who are subject to the Act and this part remain so while present, on official business or otherwise (e.g., performing temporary duty or while in leave status), in a foreign country other than the foreign country to which the person is regularly assigned, employed, or accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons who have recognized dual citizenship with the United States and who are the nationals of, or ordinarily resident in, the host nation where the alleged conduct took place are not persons “accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States” within the meaning of the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Juveniles whose ages are below the minimum ages authorized for the prosecution of juveniles in U.S. District Court under the provisions of chapter 403 of title 18, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(v) Persons subject to the UCMJ (See sections 802 and 803 of title 10, United States Code) are not subject to prosecution under the Act unless, pursuant to section 3261(d) of the Act, the member ceases to be subject to the UCMJ or an indictment or information charges that the member committed the offense with one or more other defendants, at least one of whom is not subject to the UCMJ. A member of a Reserve component who is subject to the UCMJ at the time the UCMJ offense was committed is not relieved from amenability to UCMJ jurisdiction for that offense. Such reserve component members are not subject to the Act unless section 3261(d)(2) of the Act applies. Retired members of a regular component who are entitled to pay remain subject to the UCMJ after retiring from active duty. Such retired members are not subject to prosecution under the Act unless section 3261(d)(2) of the Act applies.
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether Coast Guard members and civilians employed by or accompanying the Coast Guard outside the United States, and their dependents, are subject to the Act and this part depends on whether at the time of the offense the Coast Guard was operating as a separate Service in the Department of Homeland Security or as a Service in the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Persons Having a Tenuous Nexus to the United States.</I> Third Country Nationals who are not ordinarily resident in the host nation, and who meet the definition of “a person accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States,” may have a nexus to the United States that is so tenuous that it places into question whether the Act's jurisdiction should be applied and whether such persons should be subject to arrest, detention, and prosecution by U.S. authorities. Depending on the facts and circumstances involved, and the relationship or connection of the foreign national with the U.S. Armed Forces, it may be advisable to consult first with the DSS/DOJ before taking action with a view toward prosecution. In addition, to facilitate consultation with the government of the nation of which the Third Country National is a citizen, the State Department should be notified of any potential investigation or arrest of a Third Country National.
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<P>(b) <I>Investigation, Arrest, Detention, And Delivery Of Persons To Host Nation Authorities</I>—(1) <I>Investigation.</I> (i) Investigations of conduct reasonably believed to constitute a violation of the Act committed outside the United States must respect the sovereignty of the foreign nation in which the investigation is conducted. Such investigations shall be conducted in accordance with recognized practices with host nation authorities and applicable international law, SOFA and other international agreements. After general coordination with appropriate host nation authorities, as referenced in Appendix A of this part, specific investigations shall, to the extent practicable, be coordinated with appropriate local law enforcement authorities, unless not required by agreement with host nation authorities.
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<P>(ii) When a Military Criminal Investigative Organization is the lead investigative organization, the criminal investigator, in order to assist DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative in making a preliminary determination of whether the case warrants prosecution under the Act, shall provide a copy of the Investigative Report, or a summary thereof, to the Office of the Staff Judge Advocate of the Designated Commanding Officer (DCO) at the location where the offense was committed for review and transmittal, through the Combatant Commander, to the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative. The Office of the Staff Judge Advocate shall also furnish the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative an affidavit or declaration from the criminal investigator or other appropriate law enforcement official that sets forth the probable cause basis for believing that a violation of the Act has occurred and that the person identified in the affidavit or declaration has committed the violation.
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<P>(iii) When the Defense Criminal Investigative Service (DCIS) is the lead investigative organization, the criminal investigator, in order to assist the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative in making a preliminary determination of whether the case warrants prosecution under the Act, shall provide a copy of the Investigative Report, or a summary thereof, to the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative. The criminal investigator shall also furnish the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative, an affidavit or declaration that sets forth the probable cause basis for believing that a violation of the Act has occurred and that the person identified in the affidavit or declaration has committed the violation. Within the parameters of 10 U.S.C. Chapter 47, the Inspector General may also notify the General Counsel of the Department of Defense and the DCO's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate at the location where the offense was committed, as appropriate.
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<P>(2) <I>Residence Information.</I> To the extent that it can be determined from an individual's personnel records, travel orders into the overseas theater, passport, or other records, or by questioning upon arrest or detention, as part of the routine “booking” information obtained, an individual's last known residence in the United States shall be determined and forwarded promptly to the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative. See <I>Pennsylvania</I> v. <I>Muniz,</I> 496 U.S. 582, at 601 (1990) and <I>United States</I> v. <I>D'Anjou,</I> 16 F. 3d 604 (4th Cir. 1993). The information is necessary to assist in determining what law enforcement authorities and providers of pretrial services, including those who issue probation reports, shall ultimately have responsibility for any case that may develop. Determination of the individual's “last known address” in the United States is also important in determining what Federal district would be responsible for any possible future criminal proceedings.
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<P>(i) Due to the venue provisions of section 3238 of 18 U.S.C. Chapter 212, Sections 3261-3267, the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative shall be consulted prior to removal of persons arrested or charged with a violation of the Act by U.S. law enforcement officials. The venue for Federal criminal jurisdiction over offenses committed on the high seas or elsewhere beyond the jurisdiction of a particular State or District (as would be required under the Act), is in the Federal district in which the offender is arrested or first brought. However, if the individual is not so arrested in or brought into any Federal district in the United States (i.e., is to be indicted, or information obtained, prior to the individual's return to the United States), then an indictment or information may be sought in the district of the person's last known residence. If no such residence is known, the indictment or information may be filed in the District of Columbia.
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<P>(ii) “First brought” connotes the location within the U.S. to which the person is returned in a custodial status.
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<P>(iii) “Last known residence” refers to that U.S. location where the person lived or resided. It is not necessarily the same as the person's legal domicile or home of record.
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<P>(iv) Prompt transmittal of venue information to the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative in the United States may prove helpful in determining whether a particular case may be prosecuted, and may ultimately be a pivotal factor in determining whether the host nation or the U.S. shall exercise its jurisdiction over the matter.
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<P>(v) The Investigative Report, and any affidavit or declaration, as well as all other documents associated with a case shall be transmitted promptly by the command Staff Judge Advocate to the DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative. This may be accomplished through the use of facsimile or other means of electronic communication.
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<P>(3) <I>Notice of Complaint or Indictment.</I> Upon receipt of information from command authorities or Defense Criminal Investigation Organizations (the Defense Criminal Investigation Service, the Army's Criminal Investigation Command, the Naval Criminal Investigative Service, and the Air Force Office of Special Investigations) that a person subject to jurisdiction under this Act has violated section 3261(a), the U.S. Attorney for the District in which there would be venue for a prosecution may, if satisfied that probable cause exists to believe that a crime has been committed and that the person identified has committed this crime, file a complaint under Federal Rule of Criminal Procedure 3. As an alternative, the U.S. Attorney may seek the indictment of the person identified. In either case, a copy of the complaint or indictment shall be provided to the Office of the Staff Judge Advocate of the overseas command that reported the offense. The DSS/DOJ and the designated U.S. Attorney representative will ordinarily be the source from which the command's Staff Judge Advocate is able to obtain a copy of any complaint or indictment against a person outside the United States who is subject to the jurisdiction under the Act. This may be accomplished through the use of facsimile or other means of electronic communication.
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<P>(4) <I>Arrest.</I> (i) Federal Rule of Criminal Procedure 4 takes the jurisdiction of the Act into consideration in stating where arrest warrants may be executed: “Location. A warrant may be executed, or a summons served, within the jurisdiction of the United States or anywhere else a federal statute authorizes an arrest.” The Advisory Committee Note explains that the new language reflects the enactment of the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act permitting arrests of certain military and Department of Defense personnel overseas.
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<P>(ii) The Act specifically authorizes persons in DoD law enforcement positions, as designated by the Secretary of Defense, to make arrests outside the United States, upon probable cause and in accordance with recognized practices with host nation authorities and applicable international agreements, those persons subject to the Act who violate section 3261(a) of the Act. Section 3262(a) of the Act constitutes authorization by law to conduct such functions pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 801-946 and therefore avoids possible restrictions of the Posse Comitatus Act regarding military personnel supporting civilian law enforcement agencies.
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<P>(iii) When the host nation has interposed no objections after becoming aware of the Act, arrests in specific cases shall, to the extent practicable, be first coordinated with appropriate local law enforcement authorities, unless not required by agreement with host nation authorities.
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<P>(iv) Military and civilian special agents assigned to the Defense Criminal Investigative Organizations are hereby authorized by the Secretary of Defense to make an arrest, outside the United States, of a person who has committed an offense under section 3261(a) of the Act. Civilian special agents assigned to Defense Criminal Investigative Organizations while performing duties outside the U.S. shall make arrests consistent with the standardized guidelines established for such agents, as approved in accordance with sections 1585a, 4027, 7480, and 9027 of title 10, United States Code.
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<P>(v) Military personnel and DoD civilian employees (including local nationals, either direct hire or indirect hire) assigned to security forces, military police, shore patrol, or provost offices at military installations and other facilities located outside the United States are also authorized to make an arrest, outside the United States, of a person who has committed an offense under section 3261(a) of the Act. This authority includes similarly-assigned members of the Coast Guard law enforcement community, but only when the Coast Guard is operating at such locations as a Service of the Department of the Navy.
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<P>(vi) Law enforcement personnel thus designated and authorized by the Secretary of Defense in this part may arrest a person, outside the United States, who is suspected of committing a felony offense in violation of section 3261(a) of the Act, when the arrest is based on probable cause to believe that such person violated section 3261(a) of the Act, and when made in accordance with applicable international agreements. Because the location of the offense and offender is outside the United States, it is not normally expected that the arrest would be based on a previously-issued Federal arrest warrant. Law enforcement personnel authorized to make arrests shall follow the Secretaries of the Military Departments' guidelines for making arrests without a warrant, as prescribed by 10 U.S.C. 1585a, 4027, 7480, and 9027. Authorizations issued by military magistrates under the UCMJ may not be used as a substitute for Federal arrest warrant requirements.
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<P>(vii) The foregoing authorization to DoD law enforcement personnel to arrest persons subject to Chapter 212 of title 18, United States Code, for violations of the Act is not intended as a limitation upon the authority of other Federal law enforcement officers to effect arrests when authorized to do so. (E.g., see 18 U.S.C. 3052 authorizing agents of the Federal Bureau of Investigation to make arrests “for any felony cognizable under the laws of the United States, 21 U.S.C. 878(a)(3) for the same authority for Drug Enforcement Administration agents, and 18 U.S.C. 3053 for the same authority for U.S. Marshals and their deputies.)
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<P>(5) <I>Temporary Detention.</I> (i) The Commander of a Combatant Command, or designee, may order the temporary detention of a person, within the Commander's area of responsibility outside the United States, who is arrested or charged with a violation of the Act. The Commander of the Combatant Command, or designee, may determine that a person arrested need not be held in custody pending the commencement of the initial proceedings required by section 3265 of the Act and paragraph (d) of this section. The Commander of the Combatant Command may designate those component commanders or DCO commanders who are also authorized to order the temporary detention of a person, within the commanding officer's area of responsibility outside the United States, who is arrested or charged with a violation of the Act.
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<P>(ii) A person arrested may be temporarily detained in military detention facilities for a reasonable period, in accordance with regulations of the Military Departments and subject to the following:
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<P>(A) Temporary detention should be ordered only when a serious risk is believed to exist that the person shall flee and not appear, as required, for any pretrial investigation, pretrial hearing or trial proceedings, or the person may engage in serious criminal misconduct (e.g., the intimidation of witnesses or other obstructions of justice, causing injury to others, or committing other offenses that pose a threat to the safety of the community or to the national security of the United States). The decision as to whether temporary detention is appropriate shall be made on a case-by-case basis. Section 3142 of title 18, United States Code provides additional guidance regarding conditions on release and factors to be considered.
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<P>(B) A person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act who is to be detained temporarily shall, to the extent practicable, be detained in areas that separate them from sentenced military prisoners and members of the Armed Forces who are in pretrial confinement pending trial by courts-martial.
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<P>(C) Separate temporary detention areas shall be used for male and female detainees.
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<P>(D) Generally, juveniles should not be ordered into temporary detention. However, should circumstances warrant temporary detention, the conditions of such temporary detention must, at a minimum, meet the following requirements: juveniles alleged to be delinquent shall not be detained or confined in any institution or facility in which the juvenile has regular contact with adult persons convicted of a crime or awaiting trial on criminal charges; insofar as possible, alleged juvenile delinquents shall be kept separate from adjudicated delinquents; and every juvenile in custody shall be provided with adequate food, heat, light, sanitary facilities, bedding, clothing, recreation, and medical care, including necessary psychiatric, psychological, or other care and treatment. Appointment of a guardian ad litem may be required under 18 U.S.C. 5034 to represent the interests of the juvenile when the juvenile's parents are not present or when the parents' interests may be adverse to that of the juvenile.
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<P>(iii) Persons arrested or charged with a violation of the Act, upon being ordered into temporary detention and processed into the detention facility, shall, as part of the processing procedures, be required to provide the location address of their last U.S. residence as part of the routine booking questions securing “biographical data necessary to complete booking or pretrial services.” See <I>United States</I> v. <I>D'Anjou,</I> 16 F. 3d 604 (4th Cir.1993). This information shall be recorded in the detention documents and made available to the DCO's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate. This information shall be forwarded with other case file information, including affidavits in support of probable cause supporting the arrest and detention, to the DSS/DOJ. The information is provided so that the DSS/DOJ may make appropriate preliminary decisions about venue. See paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
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<P>(A) Notice of the temporary detention of any person for a violation of the Act shall be forwarded through command channels, without unnecessary delay, to the Combatant Commander, who shall advise the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, as the representative of the Secretary of Defense, of all such detentions. At the discretion of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, other agencies and organizations (such as the Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Secretary of the Military Department that sponsored the person into the foreign country) shall be informed, as appropriate.
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<P>(B) Such notice shall include a summary of the charges, facts and circumstances surrounding the offenses, information regarding any applicable SOFA or other international agreements affecting jurisdiction in the case, and the reasons warranting temporary detention.
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<P>(iv) If military command authorities at the military installation outside the United States intend to request a person's detention by order of the Federal Magistrate Judge, the military representative assigned to the case shall gather the necessary information setting forth the reasons in support of a motion to be brought by the attorney representing the government at the initial proceeding conducted pursuant to section 3265 of the Act.
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<P>(v) This part is not intended to eliminate or reduce existing obligations or authorities to detain persons in foreign countries as required or permitted by agreements with host countries. See generally, <I>United States</I> v. <I>Murphy,</I> 18 M.J. 220 (CMA 1984).
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<P>(6) <I>Custody and Transport of Persons While in Temporary Detention.</I> (i) The Department of Defense may only take custody of and transport the person as specifically set forth in the Act. This is limited to delivery as soon as practicable to the custody of U.S. civilian law enforcement authorities for removal to the United States for judicial proceedings; delivery to appropriate authorities of the foreign country in which the person is alleged to have committed the violation of section 3261(a) of the Act in accordance with section 3263; or, upon a determination by the Secretary of Defense, or the Secretary's designee, that military necessity requires it, removal to the nearest U.S. military installation outside the United States adequate to detain the person and to facilitate the initial appearance described in 3265(a) of the Act.
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<P>(ii) Responsibility for a detained person's local transportation, escort, and custody requirements remains with the command that placed the person in temporary detention for a violation of section 3261(a) of the Act. This responsibility includes:
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<P>(A) Attendance at official proceedings and other required health and welfare appointments (e.g., appointments with counsel, medical and dental appointments, etc.).
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<P>(B) Delivery to host nation officials under section 3263 of the Act.
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<P>(C) Attendance at Initial Proceedings conducted under section 3265 of the Act.
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<P>(D) Delivery under the Act to the custody of U.S. civilian law enforcement authorities for removal to the United States.
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<P>(iii) A person who requires the continued exercise of custody and transportation to appointments and locations away from the detention facility, including delivery of the person to host nation officials under section 3263 of the Act, may be transferred under the custody of command authorities or those law enforcement officers authorized to make arrests in paragraphs (b)(4)(iv) and (b)(4)(v) of this section. Transportation of a detainee outside an installation shall be coordinated with the host nation's local law enforcement, as appropriate and in accordance with recognized practices.
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<P>(iv) Military authorities retain responsibility for the custody and transportation of a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act who is to be removed from one military installation outside the United States to another military installation outside the United States, including when the person is transferred under the provisions of section 3264(b)(5) of the Act. Unless otherwise agreed to between the sending and receiving commands, it shall be the responsibility of the sending command to make arrangements for the person's transportation and custody during the transport or transfer to the receiving command.
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<P>(v) In coordination with appropriate host nation authorities, U.S. civilian law enforcement authorities shall be responsible for taking custody of a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act and for the removal of that person to the United States for any pretrial or trial proceedings. DoD officials shall consult with the DSS/DOJ to determine which civilian law enforcement authority (i.e., U.S. Marshals Service, Federal Bureau of Investigations, Drug Enforcement Agency, or other Federal agency) shall dispatch an officer to the overseas' detention facility to assume custody of the person for removal to the United States. Until custody of the person is delivered to such U.S. civilian law enforcement authorities, military authorities retain responsibility for the custody and transportation of the person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act, to include transportation within the host nation to help facilitate the removal of the person to the United States under the Act.
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<P>(7) <I>Release From Temporary Detention.</I> When a person subject to the Act has been placed in temporary detention, in the absence of a Criminal Complaint or Indictment pursuant to the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, only the Commander who initially ordered detention, or a superior Commander, or a Federal Magistrate Judge, may order the release of the detained person. If a Criminal Complaint or Indictment exists, or if a Federal Magistrate Judge orders the person detained, only a Federal Magistrate Judge may order the release of the person detained. If a Federal Magistrate Judge orders the person temporarily detained to be released from detention, the Commander who ordered detention, or a superior Commander, shall cause the person to be released. When a person is released from detention under this provision, the Commander shall implement, to the extent practicable within the commander's authority, any conditions on liberty directed in the Federal Magistrate Judge's order. When the commander who independently ordered the person's temporary detention without reliance on a Federal Magistrate Judge's order, or a superior commander, orders a person's release before a Federal Magistrate Judge is assigned to review the matter, the commander may, within the commander's authority, place reasonable conditions upon the person's release from detention.
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<P>(i) A person's failure to obey the conditions placed on his or her release from detention, in addition to subjecting that person to the commander's, or Federal Magistrate Judge's order to be returned to detention, may consistent with the commander's authority and applicable policy, laws, and regulations, subject the person to potential criminal sanctions, or to administrative procedures leading to a loss of command sponsorship to the foreign country, as well as the possibility of additional disciplinary or adverse action.
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<P>(ii) A copy of all orders issued by a Federal Magistrate Judge concerning initial proceedings, detention, conditions on liberty, and removal to the United States shall promptly be provided to the Commander of the Combatant Command concerned and the Commander of the detention facility at which the person is being held in temporary detention.
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<P>(8) <I>Delivery of Persons to Host Nation Authorities.</I> (i) Persons arrested may be delivered to the appropriate authorities of the foreign country in which the person is alleged to have violated section 3261(a) of the Act, when:
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<P>(A) Authorities of a foreign country request that the person be delivered for trial because the conduct is also a violation of that foreign country's laws, and
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<P>(B) Delivery of the person is authorized or required by treaty or another international agreement to which the United States is a party.
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<P>(ii) Coast Guard personnel authorized to make arrests pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(v) of this section are also authorized to deliver persons to foreign country authorities, as provided in section 3263 of the Act.
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<P>(iii) Section 3263(b) of the Act calls upon the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the Secretary of State, to determine which officials of a foreign country constitute appropriate authorities to which persons subject to the Act may be delivered. For purposes of the Act, those authorities are the same foreign country law enforcement authorities as are customarily involved in matters involving foreign criminal jurisdiction under an applicable SOFA or other international agreement or arrangement between the United States and the foreign country.
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<P>(iv) No action may be taken under this part with a view toward the prosecution of a person for a violation of the Act if a foreign government, in accordance with jurisdiction recognized by the United States, has prosecuted or is prosecuting such person for the conduct constituting such offense(s), except upon the approval of the Attorney General or the Deputy Attorney General (or a person acting in either such capacity). See section 3261(b) of the Act. Requests for an exception shall be written and forwarded to the Combatant Commander. The Combatant Commander shall forward the request to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, as representative for the Secretary of Defense, for review and transmittal to the Attorney General of the United States. At the discretion of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, other agencies and organizations (such as the Legal Counsel to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Secretary of the Military Department that sponsored the person into the foreign country) shall be informed, as appropriate.
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<P>(v) Except for persons to be delivered to a foreign country, and subject to the limitations of section 3264 of the Act and paragraph (e)(5) of this section, persons arrested for conduct in violation of the Act shall, upon the issuance of a removal order by a Federal Magistrate Judge under section 3264(b) of the Act, be delivered, as soon as practicable, to the custody of U.S. civilian law enforcement authorities. See paragraph (b)(6)(iv) of this section.
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<P>(c) <I>Representation.</I> (1) <I>Civilian Defense Counsel.</I> (i) Civilian defense counsel representation shall not be at the expense of the Department of Defense or the Military Departments.
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<P>(ii) The Act contemplates that a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act shall be represented by a civilian attorney licensed to practice law in the United States. However, it is also recognized that in several host nations where there has been a long-standing military presence, qualified civilian attorneys (including lawyers who are U.S. citizens) have established law practices in these host nations to assist assigned U.S. personnel and to represent service members in courts-martial, or before host nation courts. With the consent of the person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act who wishes to remain in the foreign country, these lawyers can provide adequate representation for the limited purpose of any initial proceedings required by the Act. When the person entitled to an attorney or requests counsel, staff judge advocates at such locations should assemble a list of local civilian attorneys for the person's consideration. The list shall contain a disclaimer stating that no endorsement by the United States government or the command is expressed or implied by the presence of an attorney's name on the list.
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<P>(A) To the extent practicable, military authorities shall establish procedures by which persons arrested or charged with a violation of the Act may seek the assistance of civilian defense counsel by telephone. Consultation with such civilian counsel shall be in private and protected by the attorney-client privilege.
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<P>(B) Civilian defense counsel, at no expense to the Department of Defense, shall be afforded the opportunity to participate personally in any initial proceedings required by the Act that are conducted outside the United States. When civilian defense counsel cannot reasonably arrange to be personally present for such representation, alternative arrangements shall be made for counsel's participation by telephone or by such other means that enables voice communication among the participants.
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<P>(C) When at least one participant cannot arrange to meet at the location outside the United States where initial proceedings required by the Act are to be conducted, whenever possible arrangements should be made to conduct the proceedings by video teleconference or similar means. Command video teleconference communication systems should be used for this purpose, if resources permit, and if such systems are not otherwise unavailable due to military mission requirements. When these capabilities are not reasonably available, the proceedings shall be conducted by telephone or such other means that enables voice communication among the participants. See section 3265 of the Act.
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<P>(D) The above provisions regarding the use of teleconference communication systems apply to any detention proceedings that are conducted outside the United States under section 3265(b) of the Act.
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<P>(E) Civilian defense counsel practicing in host nations do not gain Department of Defense sponsorship, nor any diplomatic status, as a result of their role as defense counsel. To the extent practicable, notice to this effect shall be provided to the civilian defense counsel when the civilian defense counsel's identity is made known to appropriate military authorities.
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<P>(2) <I>Qualified Military Counsel.</I> (i) Counsel representation also includes qualified military counsel that the Judge Advocate General of the Military Department concerned determines is reasonably available for the purpose of providing limited representation at initial proceedings required by the Act and conducted outside the United States. By agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, Coast Guard commands and activities located outside the United States shall seek to establish local agreements with military commands for qualified military counsel from the Military Departments to provide similar limited representation in cases arising within the Coast Guard. The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall establish regulations governing representation by qualified military counsel. These regulations, at a minimum, shall require that the command's Staff Judge Advocate:
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<P>(ii) Prepare, update as necessary, and make available to a Federal Magistrate Judge upon request, a list of qualified military counsel who are determined to be available for the purpose of providing limited representation at initial proceedings.
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<P>(iii) Ensure that the person arrested or charged under the Act is informed that any qualified military counsel shall be made available only for the limited purpose of representing that person in any initial proceedings that are to be conducted outside the United States, and that such representation does not extend to further legal proceedings that may occur either in a foreign country or the United States. The person arrested or charged shall also be required, in writing, to acknowledge the limited scope of qualified military counsel's representation and therein waive that military counsel's further representation in any subsequent legal proceedings conducted within a foreign country or the United States. The “Acknowledgement of Limited Representation,” at appendix B of this part, may be used for this purpose. A copy of the “Acknowledgement of Limited Representation” shall be provided to the person arrested or charged under the Act, as well as to the qualified military counsel. The original acknowledgment shall be kept on file in the DCO's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate.
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<P>(iv) Provide available information that would assist the Federal Magistrate Judge make a determination that qualified civilian counsel are unavailable, and that the person arrested or charged under the Act is unable financially to retain civilian defense counsel, before a qualified military counsel who has been made available is assigned to provide limited representation. See Analysis and Discussion of Section 3265 (c), Report Accompanying the Act.
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<P>(3) <I>Union Representation.</I> Agency law enforcement officials shall comply with applicable Federal civilian employee rights and entitlements, if any, regarding collective bargaining unit representation under Chapter 71 of title 5, United States Code, during pretrial questioning and temporary detention procedures under this part.
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<P>(4) <I>Military Representative.</I> (i) To assist law enforcement officers and the U.S. Attorney's representative assigned to a case, a judge advocate, legal officer, or civilian attorney-advisor may be appointed as a military representative to represent the interests of the United States. As appropriate, the military representative may be appointed as a Special Assistant U.S. Attorney. The military representative shall be responsible for assisting the command, law enforcement, and U.S. Attorney representatives during pretrial matters, initial proceedings, and other procedures required by the Act and this part. These responsibilities include assisting the U.S. Attorney representative determine whether continued detention is warranted, and to provide information to the presiding Federal Magistrate Judge considering the following:
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<P>(ii) If there is probable cause to believe that a violation of the Act has been committed and that the person arrested or charged has committed it,
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<P>(iii) If the person being temporarily detained should be kept in detention or released from detention, and, if released, whether any conditions practicable and reasonable under the circumstances, should be imposed.
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<P>(d) <I>Initial Proceedings.</I> (1) A person arrested for or charged with a violation of the Act may be entitled to an initial appearance before a judge and/or a detention hearing (collectively, the “initial proceedings”). The initial proceedings are intended to meet the requirements of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. The initial proceedings are not required when the person under investigation for violating the Act has not been arrested or temporarily detained by U.S. military authorities, or the person's arrest or temporary detention by U.S. law enforcement authorities occurs after the person ceases to accompany or be employed by the Armed Forces outside the United States, or the arrest or detention takes place within the United States.
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<P>(2) The initial proceedings to be conducted pursuant to the Act and this part shall not be initiated for a person delivered to foreign country authorities and against whom the foreign country is prosecuting or has prosecuted the person for the conduct constituting such offense, except when the Attorney General or Deputy Attorney General (or a person acting in either such capacity) has approved an exception that would allow for prosecution in the United States may initial proceedings under the Act be conducted, under these circumstances. Requests for approval of such an exception shall be forwarded through the Commander of the Combatant Command to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, in accordance with paragraph (b)(8)(iv) of this section.
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<P>(3) Initial proceedings required by the Act and this part shall be conducted, without unnecessary delay. In accordance with the U.S. Supreme Court decision in <I>County of Riverside</I> v. <I>McLaughlin,</I> 500 U.S. 44 (1991), the initial appearance shall be conducted within 48 hours of the arrest. The initial proceedings required by the Act shall be conducted when:
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<P>(i) The person arrested has not been delivered to foreign country authorities under the provisions of section 3263 of the Act; or
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<P>(ii) The foreign country authorities having custody of the person delivers the person to U.S. military authorities without first prosecuting the person for such conduct as an offense under the laws of that foreign country.
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<P>(4) A Federal Magistrate Judge shall preside over the initial proceedings that are required by the Act and this part. The proceedings should be conducted from the United States using video teleconference methods, if practicable, and with all parties to the proceedings participating. In the event that there is no video teleconference capability, or the video teleconference capability is unavailable due to military requirements or operations, the parties to the proceeding shall, at a minimum, be placed in contact by telephone.
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<P>(5) Initial proceedings conducted pursuant to the Act and this part shall include the requirement for the person's initial appearance under the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. The Federal Magistrate Judge shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that an offense under section 3261(a) of the Act has been committed and that the identified person committed it. This determination is intended to meet the due process requirements to which the person is entitled, as determined by the U.S. Supreme Court in <I>Gerstein</I> v. <I>Pugh,</I> 420 U.S. 103 (1975).
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<P>(6) Initial proceedings shall also include a detention hearing where required under 18 U.S.C. 3142 and the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. A detention hearing may be required when:
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<P>(i) The person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act has been placed in temporary detention and the intent is to request continued detention; or
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<P>(ii) The United States seeks to detain a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act who has not previously been detained.
</P>
<P>(7) A detention hearing shall be conducted by a Federal Magistrate Judge. When the person arrested or charged requests, the detention hearing be conducted while the person remains outside the United States, detention hearing shall be conducted by the same Federal Magistrate Judge presiding over the initial proceeding and shall be conducted by telephone or other means that allow for voice communication among the participants, including the person's defense counsel. If the person does not so request, or if the Federal Magistrate Judge so orders, the detention hearing shall be held in the United States after the removal of the person to the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) In the event that the Federal Magistrate Judge orders the person's release prior to trial, and further directs the person's presence in the district in which the trial is to take place, the U.S. Attorney Office's representative responsible for prosecuting the case shall inform the military representative and the DCO's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate.
</P>
<P>(9) Under circumstances where the person suspected of committing an offense in violation of the Act has never been detained or an initial proceeding conducted, the presumption is that a trial date shall be established at which the defendant would be ordered to appear. Such an order would constitute an order under section 3264(b)(4) of the Act that “otherwise orders the person to be removed.” The person's failure to appear as ordered shall be addressed by the Court as with any other failure to comply with a valid court order.
</P>
<P>(10) The DCO's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate shall assist in arranging for the conduct of initial proceedings required by the Act and this part, and shall provide a military representative to assist the U.S. Attorney's Office representative in presenting the information for the Federal Magistrate Judge's review. The military representative shall also provide any administrative assistance the Federal Magistrate Judge requires at the location outside the United States where the proceedings shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Removal Of Persons To The United States Or Other Countries.</I> (1) In accordance with the limitation established by section 3264 of the Act, military authorities shall not remove, to the United States or any other foreign country, a person suspected of violating section 3261(a) of the Act, except when:
</P>
<P>(i) The person's removal is to another foreign country in which the person is believed to have committed a violation of section 3261(a) of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The person is to be delivered, upon request, to authorities of a foreign country under section 3263 of the Act and paragraph (b)(8) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The person is arrested or charged with a violation of the Act and the person is entitled to, and does not waive, a preliminary examination under Federal Rule of Criminal Procedure 5.1, in which case the person shall be removed to the U.S. for such examination; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The person's removal is ordered by a Federal Magistrate Judge. See paragraph (e)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(v) The Secretary of Defense, or the Secretary's designee, directs the person be removed, as provided in section 3264(b)(5) of the Act and paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal By Order Of A Federal Magistrate Judge.</I> Military authorities may remove a person suspected of violating section 3261(a) of the Act to the United States, when:
</P>
<P>(i) A Federal Magistrate Judge orders that the person be removed to the United States to be present at a detention hearing; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal Magistrate Judge orders the detention of the person prior to trial (See 18 U.S.C. 3142(e)) in which case the person shall be promptly removed to the United States for such detention; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal Magistrate Judge otherwise orders the person be removed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Removal By Direction of the Secretary of Defense or Designee.</I> The Secretary of Defense, or designee, may order a person's removal from a foreign country within the Combatant Command's geographic area of responsibility when, in his sole discretion, such removal is required by military necessity. See section 3264(b)(5) of the Act. Removal based on military necessity may be authorized in order to take into account any limiting factors that may result from military operations, as well as the capabilities and conditions associated with a specific location.
</P>
<P>(i) When the Secretary of Defense, or designee, determines that a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act should be removed from a foreign country, the person shall be removed to the nearest U.S. military installation outside the United States where the limiting conditions requiring such a removal no longer apply, and where there are available facilities and adequate resources to temporarily detain the person and conduct the initial proceedings required by the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The relocation of a person under this paragraph does not authorize the further removal of the person to the United States, unless that further removal is authorized by an order issued by a Federal Magistrate Judge under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Delegation.</I> The Commander of a Combatant Command, and the Commander's principal assistant, are delegated authority to make the determination, based on the criteria stated in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, that a person arrested or charged with a violation of the Act shall be removed from a foreign country under section 3264(b)(5) of the Act and this part. Further delegation is authorized, but the delegation of authority is limited to a subordinate commander within the command who is designated as a general court-martial convening authority under the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(4) A person who is removed to the United States under the provisions of the Act and this part and who is thereafter released from detention, and otherwise at liberty to return to the location outside the United States from which he or she was were removed, shall be subject to any requirements imposed by a Federal District Court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(5) Where a person has been removed to the United States for a detention hearing or other judicial proceeding and a Federal Magistrate Judge orders the person's release and permits the person to return to the overseas location, the Department of Defense (including the Military Department originally sponsoring the person to be employed or to accompany the Armed Forces outside the United States) shall not be responsible for the expenses associated with the return of the person to the overseas location, or the person's subsequent return travel to the United States for further court proceedings that may be required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.6.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 153—Guidelines
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Civilians employed by the Armed Forces outside the United States who commit felony offenses while outside the U.S. are subject to U.S. criminal jurisdiction under the Act, and shall be held accountable for their actions, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Civilians accompanying the Armed Forces outside the United States who commit felony offenses while outside the U.S. are subject to U.S. criminal jurisdiction under the Act, and shall be held accountable for their actions, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Former members of the Armed Forces who commit felony offenses while serving as a member of the Armed Forces outside the U.S., but who ceased to be subject to UCMJ court-martial jurisdiction without having been tried by court-martial for such offenses, are subject to U.S. criminal jurisdiction under the Act and shall be held accountable for their actions, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The procedures of this part and DoD actions to implement the Act shall comply with applicable Status of Forces Agreements, and other international agreements affecting relationships and activities between the respective host nation countries and the U.S. Armed Forces. These procedures may be employed outside the United States only if the foreign country concerned has been briefed or is otherwise aware of the Act and has not interposed an objection to the application of these procedures. Such awareness may come in various forms, including but not limited to Status of Forces Agreements containing relevant language, Diplomatic Notes or other acknowledgements of briefings, or case-by-case arrangements, agreements, or understandings with appropriate host nation officials.
</P>
<P>(e) Consistent with the long-standing policy of maximizing U.S. jurisdiction over its citizens, the Act and this part provide a mechanism for furthering this objective by closing a jurisdictional gap in U.S. law and thereby permitting the criminal prosecution of covered persons for offenses committed outside the United States. In so doing, the Act and this part provide, in appropriate cases, an alternative to a host nation's exercise of its criminal jurisdiction should the conduct that violates U.S. law also violate the law of the host nation, as well as a means of prosecuting covered persons for crimes committed in areas in which there is no effective host nation criminal justice system.
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the limitations imposed upon prosecutions by section 3261(b) of the Act, the Act and these procedures should be reserved generally for serious misconduct for which administrative or disciplinary remedies are determined to be inadequate or inappropriate. Because of the practical constraints and limitations on the resources available to bring these cases to successful prosecution in the United States, initiation of action under this part would not generally be warranted unless serious misconduct were involved.
</P>
<P>(g) The procedures set out in the Act and this part do not apply to cases in which the return of fugitive offenders is sought through extradition and similar proceedings, nor are extradition procedures applicable to cases under the Act.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:1.1.1.5.49.0.43.6.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 153—Acknowledgment of Limited Legal Representation (Sample)
</HEAD>
<P>1. I, ____________, have been named as a suspect or defendant in a matter to which I have been advised is subject to the jurisdiction of the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act of 2000 (section 3261, <I>et seq.,</I> of title 18, United States Code.); hereinafter referred to as “the Act”). I have also been informed that certain initial proceedings under 18 U.S.C. 3265 may be required under this Act, for which I am entitled to be represented by legal counsel.
</P>
<P>2. I acknowledge and understand that the appointment of military counsel for the limited purpose of legal representation in proceedings conducted pursuant to the Act is dependent upon my being unable to retain civilian defense counsel representation for such proceedings, due to my indigent status, and that qualified military defense counsel has been made available.
</P>
<P>3. Pursuant to the Act, ____________, a Federal Magistrate Judge, has issued the attached Order and has directed that that military counsel be made available:
</P>
<FP>____ For the limited purpose of representing me at an initial proceeding to be conducted outside the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3265, 
</FP>
<FP>____ For the limited purpose of representing me in an initial detention hearing to be conducted outside the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3265(b), 
</FP>
<P>4. ____________, military counsel, has been made available in accordance with Department of Defense Instruction 5525.bb, and as directed by the attached Order of a Federal Magistrate Judge.
</P>
<P>5. I (do) (do not) wish to be represented by ____________, military counsel ____ (initials).
</P>
<P>6. I understand that the legal representation of ____________, military counsel, is limited to:
</P>
<P>a. Representation at the initial proceedings conducted outside the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3265.
</P>
<FP>____ (Initials) 
</FP>
<P>b. The initial detention hearing to be conducted outside the United States pursuant to the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act of 2000 (18 U.S.C. 3261, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<FP>____ (Initials) 
</FP>
<P>c. Other proceedings (Specify):
</P>
<FP>____________. ____ (Initials) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Person To Be Represented By Military Counsel 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Witness* 
</FP>
<FP>Attachment:
</FP>
<FP>Federal Magistrate Judge Order 
</FP>
<P>(<E T="04">Note:</E> The witness must be a person other than the defense counsel to be made available for this limited legal representation.)


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—SECURITY


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="155" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 155—DEFENSE INDUSTRIAL PERSONNEL SECURITY CLEARANCE PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 10865, 3 CFR 1959-1963 Comp., p. 398, as amended by E.O. 10909, 3 CFR 1959-1963 Comp., p. 437; E.O. 11382, 3 CFR 1966-1970 Comp., p. 690; and E.O. 12829, 3 CFR 1993 Comp., p. 570.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part updates policy, responsibilities, and procedures of the Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Review Program implementing E.O. 10865, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 48565, Sept. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (IG, DoD), and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) By mutual agreement, also extends to other Federal Agencies that include:
</P>
<P>(1) Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<P>(2) Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P>(3) Department of Interior.
</P>
<P>(4) Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(5) Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(6) Department of State.
</P>
<P>(7) Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(8) Department of Treasury.
</P>
<P>(9) Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(10) Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P>(11) Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(12) General Accounting Office.
</P>
<P>(13) General Services Administration.
</P>
<P>(14) National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
</P>
<P>(15) National Science Foundation.
</P>
<P>(16) Small Business Administration.
</P>
<P>(17) United States Arms Control and Disarmament Agency.
</P>
<P>(18) United States Information Agency.
</P>
<P>(19) United States International Trade Commission.
</P>
<P>(20) United States Trade Representative.
</P>
<P>(c) Applies to cases that the Defense Industrial Security Clearance Office (DISCO) forwards to the “Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA)” for action under this part to determine whether it is clearly consistent with the national interest to grant or continue a security clearance for the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) Provides a program that may be extended to other security cases at the direction of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Command, Control, Communications, and Intelligence (ASD(C
<SU>3</SU>I)).
</P>
<P>(e) Does not apply to cases in which:
</P>
<P>(1) A security clearance is withdrawn because the applicant no longer has a need for access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(2) An interim security clearance is withdrawn by the DISCO during an investigation; or
</P>
<P>(3) A security clearance is withdrawn for administrative reasons that are without prejudice as to a later determination of whether the grant or continuance of the applicant's security clearance would be clearly consistent with the national interest.
</P>
<P>(f) Does not apply to cases for access to sensitive compartmented information or a special access program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 35464, July 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant.</I> Any U.S. citizen who holds or requires a security clearance or any immigrant alien who holds or requires a limited access authorization for access to classified information needed in connection with his or her employment in the private sector; any U.S. citizen who is a direct-hire employee or selectee for a position with the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and who holds or requires NATO certificates of security clearance or security assurances for access to U.S. or foreign classified information; or any U.S. citizen nominated by the Red Cross or United Service Organizations for assignment with the Military Services overseas. The term “applicant” does not apply to those U.S. citizens who are seconded to NATO by U.S. Departments and Agencies or to U.S. citizens recruited through such Agencies in response to a request from NATO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearance Decision.</I> A decision made in accordance with this part concerning whether it is clearly consistent with the national interest to grant an applicant a security clearance for access to Confidential, Secret, or Top Secret information. A favorable clearance decision establishes eligibility of the applicant to be granted a security clearance for access at the level governed by the documented need for such access, and the type of investigation specified for that level in 32 CFR part 154. An unfavorable clearance decision denies any application for a security clearance and revokes any existing security clearance, thereby preventing access to classified information at any level and the retention of any existing security clearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) All proceedings provided for by this part shall be conducted in a fair and impartial manner.
</P>
<P>(b) A clearance decision reflects the basis for an ultimate finding as to whether it is clearly consistent with the national interest to grant or continue a security clearance for the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as otherwise provided for by E.O. 10865, as amended, or this part, a final unfavorable clearance decision shall not be made without first providing the applicant with:
</P>
<P>(1) Notice of specific reasons for the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity to respond to the reasons.
</P>
<P>(3) Notice of the right to a hearing and the opportunity to cross-examine persons providing information adverse to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) Opportunity to present evidence on his or her own behalf, or to be represented by counsel or personal representative.
</P>
<P>(5) Written notice of final clearance decisions.
</P>
<P>(6) Notice of appeal procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions pursuant to this part shall cease upon termination of the applicant's need for access to classified information except in those cases in which:
</P>
<P>(1) A hearing has commenced;
</P>
<P>(2) A clearance decision has been issued; or
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's security clearance was suspended and the applicant provided a written request that the case continue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 48565, Sept. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense of Command, Control, Communications and Intelligence shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish investigative policy and adjudicative standards and oversee their application.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate with the General Counsel of the Department of Defense (GC, DoD) on policy affecting clearance decisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue clarifying guidance and instructions as needed.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel of the Department of Defense shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish guidance and provide oversight as to legal sufficiency of procedures and standards established by this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish the organization and composition of the DOHA.
</P>
<P>(3) Designate a civilian attorney to be the Director, DOHA.
</P>
<P>(4) Issue clarifying guidance and instructions as needed.
</P>
<P>(5) Administer the program established by this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Issue invitational travel orders in appropriate cases to persons to appear and testify who have provided oral or written statements adverse to the applicant relating to a controverted issue.
</P>
<P>(7) Designate attorneys to be Department Counsels assigned to the DOHA to represent the Government's interest in cases and related matters within the applicability and scope of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) Designate attorneys to be Administrative Judges assigned to the DOHA.
</P>
<P>(9) Designate attorneys to be Administrative Judge members of the DOHA Appeal Board.
</P>
<P>(10) Provide for supervision of attorneys and other personnel assigned or attached to the DOHA.
</P>
<P>(11) Develop and implement policy established or coordinated with the GC, DoD, in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(12) Establish and maintain qualitative and quantitative standards for all work by DOHA employees arising within the applicability and scope of this part.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure that the Administrative Judges and Appeal Board members have the requisite independence to render fair and impartial decisions consistent with DoD policy.
</P>
<P>(14) Provide training, clarify policy, or initiate personnel actions, as appropriate, to ensure that all DOHA decisions are made in accordance with policy, procedures, and standards established by this part.
</P>
<P>(15) Provide for maintenance and control of all DOHA records.
</P>
<P>(16) Take actions as provided for in § 155.6(b), and the additional procedural guidance in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(17) Establish and maintain procedures for timely assignment and completion of cases.
</P>
<P>(18) Issue guidance and instructions, as needed, to fulfill the foregoing responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(19) Designate the Director, DOHA, to implement paragraphs (b)(5) through (b)(18) of this section, under general guidance of the GC, DoD.
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components shall provide (from resources available to the designated DoD Component) financing, personnel, personnel spaces, office facilities, and related administrative support required by the DOHA.
</P>
<P>(d) The ASD(C
<SU>3</SU>I) shall ensure that cases within the scope and applicability of this part are referred promptly to the DOHA, as required, and that clearance decisions by the DOHA are acted upon without delay.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 35464, July 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants shall be investigated in accordance with the standards in 32 CFR part 154.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant is required to give, and to authorize others to give, full, frank, and truthful answers to relevant and material questions needed by the DOHA to reach a clearance decision and to otherwise comply with the procedures authorized by this part. The applicant may elect on constitutional or other grounds not to comply; but refusal or failure to furnish or authorize the providing of relevant and material information or otherwise cooperate at any stage in the investigation or adjudicative process may prevent the DOHA from making a clearance decision. If an applicant fails or refuses to:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide relevant and material information or to authorize others to provide such information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Proceed in a timely or orderly fashion in accordance with this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Follow directions of an Administrative Judge or the Appeal Board; then the Director, DOHA, or designee, may revoke any security clearance held by the applicant and discontinue case processing. Requests for resumption of case processing and reinstatement of a security clearance may be approved by the Director, DOHA, only upon a showing of good cause. If the request is denied, in whole or in part, the decision is final and bars reapplication for a security clearance for 1 year from the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(c) Each clearance decision must be a fair and impartial common sense determination based upon consideration of all the relevant and material information and the pertinent criteria in 32 CFR 154.7 and adjudication policy in appendix H to 32 CFR part 154, including as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Nature and seriousness of the conduct and surrounding circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) Frequency and recency of the conduct.
</P>
<P>(3) Age of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) Motivation of the applicant, and the extent to which the conduct was negligent, willful, voluntary, or undertaken with knowledge of the consequences involved.
</P>
<P>(5) Absence or presence of rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(6) Probability that the circumstances or conduct will continue or recur in the future.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever there is a reasonable basis for concluding that an applicant's continued access to classified information poses an imminent threat to the national interest, any security clearance held by the applicant may be suspended by the ASD(C
<SU>3</SU>I), with the concurrence of the GC, DoD, pending a final clearance decision. This suspension may be rescinded by the same authorities upon presentation of additional information that conclusively demonstrates that an imminent threat to the national interest no longer exists. Procedures in appendix A to this part shall be expedited whenever an applicant's security clearance has been suspended pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing contained in this part shall limit or affect the responsibility and powers of the Secretary of Defense or the head of another Department or Agency to deny or revoke a security clearance when the security of the nation so requires. Such authority may not be delegated and may be exercised only when the Secretary of Defense or the head of another Department or Agency determines that the hearing procedures and other provisions of this part cannot be invoked consistent with the national security. Such a determination shall be conclusive.
</P>
<P>(f) Additional procedural guidance is in appendix A to this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 35464, July 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.50.0.43.7.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 155—Additional Procedural Guidance
</HEAD>
<P>1. When the DISCO cannot affirmatively find that it is clearly consistent with the national interest to grant or continue a security clearance for an applicant, the case will be promptly referred to the DOHA.
</P>
<P>2. Upon referral, the DOHA shall make a prompt determination whether to grant or continue a security clearance, issue a statement of reasons (SOR) as to why it is not clearly consistent with the national interest to do so, or take interim actions, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>a. Direct further investigation.
</P>
<P>b. Propound written interrogatories to the applicant or other persons with relevant information.
</P>
<P>c. Requiring the applicant to undergo a medical evaluation by a DoD Psychiatric Consultant.
</P>
<P>d. Interviewing the applicant.
</P>
<P>3. An unfavorable clearance decision shall not be made unless the applicant has been provided with a written SOR that shall be as detailed and comprehensive as the national security permits. A letter of instruction with the SOR shall explain that the applicant or Department Counsel may request a hearing. It shall also explain the adverse consequences for failure to respond to the SOR within the prescribed time frame.
</P>
<P>4. The applicant must submit a detailed written answer to the SOR under oath or affirmation that shall admit or deny each listed allegation. A general denial or other similar answer is insufficient. To be entitled to a hearing, the applicant must specifically request a hearing in his or her answer. The answer must be received by the DOHA within 20 days from receipt of the SOR. Requests for an extension of time to file an answer may be submitted to the Director, DOHA, or designee, who in turn may grant the extension only upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>5. If the applicant does not file a timely and responsive answer to the SOR, the Director, DOHA, or designee, may discontinue processing the case, deny issuance of the requested security clearance, and direct the DISCO to revoke any security clearance held by the applicant.
</P>
<P>6. Should review of the applicant's answer to the SOR indicate that allegations are unfounded, or evidence is insufficient for further processing, Department Counsel shall take such action as appropriate under the circumstances, including but not limited to withdrawal of the SOR and transmittal to the Director for notification of the DISCO for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>7. If the applicant has not requested a hearing with his or her answer to the SOR and Department Counsel has not requested a hearing within 20 days of receipt of the applicant's answer, the case shall be assigned to an Administrative Judge for a clearance decision based on the written record. Department Counsel shall provide the applicant with a copy of all relevant and material information that could be adduced at a hearing. The applicant shall have 30 days from receipt of the information in which to submit a documentary response setting forth objections, rebuttal, extenuation, mitigation, or explanation, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>8. If a hearing is requested by the applicant or Department Counsel, the case shall be assigned to an Administrative Judge for a clearance decision based on the hearing record. Following issuance of a notice of hearing by the Administrative Judge, or designee, the applicant shall appear in person with or without counsel or a personal representative at a time and place designated by the notice of hearing. The applicant shall have a reasonable time to prepare his or her case. The applicant shall be notified at least 15 days in advance of the time and place of the hearing, which generally shall be held at a location in the United States within a metropolitan area near the applicant's place of employment or residence. A continuance may be granted by the Administrative Judge only for good cause. Hearings may be held outside of the United States in NATO cases, or in other cases upon a finding of good cause by the Director, DOHA, or designee.
</P>
<P>9. The Administrative Judge may require a prehearing conference.
</P>
<P>10. The Administrative Judge may rule on questions of procedure, discovery, and evidence and shall conduct all proceedings in a fair, timely, and orderly manner.
</P>
<P>11. Discovery by the applicant is limited to non-privileged documents and materials subject to control by the DOHA. Discovery by Department Counsel after issuance of an SOR may be granted by the Administrative Judge only upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>12. A hearing shall be open except when the applicant requests that it be closed, or when the Administrative Judge determines that there is a need to protect classified information or there is other good cause for keeping the proceeding closed. No inference shall be drawn as to the merits of a case on the basis of a request that the hearing be closed.
</P>
<P>13. As far in advance as practical, Department Counsel and the applicant shall serve one another with a copy of any pleading, proposed documentary evidence, or other written communication to be submitted to the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>14. Department Counsel is responsible for presenting witnesses and other evidence to establish facts alleged in the SOR that have been controverted.
</P>
<P>15. The applicant is responsible for presenting witnesses and other evidence to rebut, explain, extenuate, or mitigate facts admitted by the applicant or proven by Department Counsel, and has the ultimate burden of persuasion as to obtaining a favorable clearance decision.
</P>
<P>16. Witnesses shall be subject to cross-examination.
</P>
<P>17. The SOR may be amended at the hearing by the Administrative Judge on his or her own motion, or upon motion by Department Counsel or the applicant, so as to render it in conformity with the evidence admitted or for other good cause. When such amendments are made, the Administrative Judge may grant either party's request for such additional time as the Administrative Judge may deem appropriate for further preparation or other good cause.
</P>
<P>18. The Administrative Judge hearing the case shall notify the applicant and all witnesses testifying that 18 U.S.C. 1001 is applicable.
</P>
<P>19. The Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I>) shall serve as a guide. Relevant and material evidence may be received subject to rebuttal, and technical rules of evidence may be relaxed, except as otherwise provided herein, to permit the development of a full and complete record.
</P>
<P>20. Official records or evidence compiled or created in the regular course of business, other than DoD personnel background reports of investigation (ROI), may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge without authenticating witnesses, provided that such information has been furnished by an investigative agency pursuant to its responsibilities in connection with assisting the Secretary of Defense, or the Department or Agency head concerned, to safeguard classified information within industry under to E.O. 10865, as amended. An ROI may be received with an authenticating witness provided it is otherwise admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>21. Records that cannot be inspected by the applicant because they are classified may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge, provided the GC, DoD, has:
</P>
<P>a. Made a preliminary determination that such evidence appears to be relevant and material.
</P>
<P>b. Determined that failure to receive and consider such evidence would be substantially harmful to the national security.
</P>
<P>22. A written or oral statement adverse to the applicant on a controverted issue may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge without affording an opportunity to cross-examine the person making the statement orally, or in writing when justified by the circumstances, only in either of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>a. If the head of the Department or Agency supplying the statement certifies that the person who furnished the information is a confidential informant who has been engaged in obtaining intelligence information for the Government and that disclosure of his or her identity would be substantially harmful to the national interest; or
</P>
<P>b. If the GC, DoD, has determined the statement concerned appears to be relevant, material, and reliable; failure to receive and consider the statement would be substantially harmful to the national security; and the person who furnished the information cannot appear to testify due to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Death, severe illness, or similar cause, in which case the identity of the person and the information to be considered shall be made available to the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(2) Some other cause determined by the Secretary of Defense, or when appropriate by the Department or Agency head, to be good and sufficient.
</P>
<P>23. Whenever evidence is received under item 21. or 22., the applicant shall be furnished with as comprehensive and detailed a summary of the information as the national security permits. The Administrative Judge and Appeal Board may make a clearance decision either favorable or unfavorable to the applicant based on such evidence after giving appropriate consideration to the fact that the applicant did not have an opportunity to confront such evidence, but any final determination adverse to the applicant shall be made only by the Secretary of Defense, or the Department or Agency head, based on a personal review of the case record.
</P>
<P>24. A verbatim transcript shall be made of the hearing. The applicant shall be furnished one copy of the transcript, less the exhibits, without cost.
</P>
<P>25. The Administrative Judge shall make a written clearance decision in a timely manner setting forth pertinent findings of fact, policies, and conclusions as to the allegations in the SOR, and whether it is clearly consistent with the national interest to grant or continue a security clearance for the applicant. The applicant and Department Counsel shall each be provided a copy of the clearance decision. In cases in which evidence is received under items 21. and 22., the Administrative Judge's written clearance decision may require deletions in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>26. If the Administrative Judge decides that it is clearly consistent with the national interest for the applicant to be granted or to retain a security clearance, the DISCO shall be so notified by the Director, DOHA, or designee, when the clearance decision becomes final in accordance with item 36., below.
</P>
<P>27. If the Administrative Judge decides that it is not clearly consistent with the national interest for the applicant to be granted or to retain a security clearance, the Director, DOHA, or designee, shall expeditiously notify the DISCO, which shall in turn notify the applicant's employer of the denial or revocation of the applicant's security clearance. The letter forwarding the Administrative Judge's clearance decision to the applicant shall advise the applicant that these actions are being taken, and that the applicant may appeal the Administrative Judge's clearance decision.
</P>
<P>28. The applicant or Department Counsel may appeal the Administrative Judge's clearance decision by filing a written notice of appeal with the Appeal Board within 15 days after the date of the Administrative Judge's clearance decision. A notice of appeal received after 15 days from the date of the clearance decision shall not be accepted by the Appeal Board, or designated Board Member, except for good cause. A notice of cross appeal may be filed with the Appeal Board within 10 days of receipt of the notice of appeal. An untimely cross appeal shall not be accepted by the Appeal Board, or designated Board Member, except for good cause.
</P>
<P>29. Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Appeal Board shall be provided the case record. No new evidence shall be received or considered by the Appeal Board.
</P>
<P>30. After filing a timely notice of appeal, a written appeal brief must be received by the Appeal Board within 45 days from the date of the Administrative Judge's clearance decision. The appeal brief must state the specific issue or issues being raised, and cite specific portions of the case record supporting any alleged error. A written reply brief, if any, must be filed within 20 days from receipt of the appeal brief. A copy of any brief filed must be served upon the applicant or Department Counsel, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>31. Requests for extension of time for submission of briefs may be submitted to the Appeal Board or designated Board Member.
</P>
<P>A copy of any request for extension of time must be served on the opposing party at the time of submission. The Appeal Board, or designated Board Member, shall be responsible for controlling the Appeal Board's docket, and may enter an order dismissing an appeal in an appropriate case or vacate such an order upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>32. The Appeal Board shall address the material issues raised by the parties to determine whether harmful error occurred. Its scope of review shall be to determine whether or not:
</P>
<P>a. The Administrative Judge's findings of fact are supported by such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion in light of all the contrary evidence in the same record. In making this review, the Appeal Board shall give deference to the credibility determinations of the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>b. The Administrative Judge adhered to the procedures required by E.O. 10865, as amended and this part; or
</P>
<P>c. The Administrative Judge's rulings or conclusions are arbitrary, capricious, or contrary to law.
</P>
<P>33. The Appeal Board shall issue a written clearance decision addressing the material issues raised on appeal. The Appeal Board shall have authority to:
</P>
<P>a. Affirm the decision of the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>b. Remand the case to an Administrative Judge to correct identified error. If the case is remanded, the Appeal Board shall specify the action to be taken on remand; or
</P>
<P>c. Reverse the decision of the Administrative Judge if correction of identified error mandates such action.
</P>
<P>34. A copy of the Appeal Board's written clearance decision shall be provided to the parties. In cases in which evidence was received under items 21. and 22., the Appeal Board's clearance decision may require deletions in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>35. Upon remand, the case file shall be assigned to an Administrative Judge for correction of error(s) in accordance with the Appeal Board's clearance decision. The assigned Administrative Judge shall make a new clearance decision in the case after correcting the error(s) identified by the Appeal Board. The Administrative Judge's clearance decision after remand shall be provided to the parties. The clearance decision after remand may be appealed pursuant to items 28. to 35.
</P>
<P>36. A clearance decision shall be considered final when:
</P>
<P>a. A security clearance is granted or continued pursuant to item 2.;
</P>
<P>b. No timely notice of appeal is filed;
</P>
<P>c. No timely appeal brief is filed after a notice of appeal has been filed;
</P>
<P>d. The appeal has been withdrawn;
</P>
<P>e. When the Appeal Board affirms or reverses an Administrative Judge's clearance decision; or
</P>
<P>f. When a decision has been made by the Secretary of Defense, or the Department or Agency head, under item 23.
</P>
<P>The Director, DOHA, or designee, shall notify the DISCO of all final clearance decisions.
</P>
<P>37. An applicant whose security clearance has been finally denied or revoked by the DOHA is barred from reapplication for 1 year from the date of the initial unfavorable clearance decision.
</P>
<P>38. A reapplication for a security clearance must be made initially by the applicant's employer to the DISCO and is subject to the same processing requirements as those for a new security clearance application. The applicant shall thereafter be advised he is responsible for providing the Director, DOHA, with a copy of any adverse clearance decision together with evidence that circumstances or conditions previously found against the applicant have been rectified or sufficiently mitigated to warrant reconsideration.
</P>
<P>39. If the Director, DOHA, determines that reconsideration is warranted, the case shall be subject to this part for making a clearance decision.
</P>
<P>40. If the Director, DOHA, determines that reconsideration is not warranted, the DOHA shall notify the applicant of this decision. Such a decision is final and bars further reapplication for an additional one year period from the date of the decision rejecting the application.
</P>
<P>41. Nothing in this part is intended to give an applicant reapplying for a security clearance any greater rights than those applicable to any other applicant under this part.
</P>
<P>42. An applicant may file a written petition, under oath or affirmation, for reimbursement of loss of earnings resulting from the suspension, revocation, or denial of his or her security clearance. The petition for reimbursement must include as an attachment the favorable clearance decision and documentation supporting the reimbursement claim. The Director, DOHA, or designee, may in his or her discretion require additional information from the petitioner.
</P>
<P>43. Claims for reimbursement must be filed with the Director, DOHA, or designee, within 1 year after the date the security clearance is granted. Department Counsel generally shall file a response within 60 days after receipt of applicant's petition for reimbursement and provide a copy thereof to the applicant.
</P>
<P>44. Reimbursement is authorized only if the applicant demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence to the Director, DOHA, that all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>a. The suspension, denial, or revocation was the primary cause of the claimed pecuniary loss; and
</P>
<P>b. The suspension, denial, or revocation was due to gross negligence of the Department of Defense at the time the action was taken, and not in any way by the applicant's failure or refusal to cooperate.
</P>
<P>45. The amount of reimbursement shall not exceed the difference between the earnings of the applicant at the time of the suspension, revocation, or denial and the applicant's interim earnings, and further shall be subject to reasonable efforts on the part of the applicant to mitigate any loss of earnings. No reimbursement shall be allowed for any period of undue delay resulting from the applicant's acts or failure to act. Reimbursement is not authorized for loss of merit raises and general increases, loss of employment opportunities, counsel's fees, or other costs relating to proceedings under this part.
</P>
<P>46. Claims approved by the Director, DOHA, shall be forwarded to the Department or Agency concerned for payment. Any payment made in response to a claim for reimbursement shall be in full satisfaction of any further claim against the United States or any Federal Department or Agency, or any of its officers or employees.
</P>
<P>47. Clearance decisions issued by Administrative Judges and the Appeal Board shall be indexed and made available in redacted form to the public. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5383, Feb. 14, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 35464, July 12, 1994; 59 FR 48565, Sept. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="156" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 156—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE PERSONNEL SECURITY PROGRAM (PSP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12968, as amended; E.O. 10450, as amended; E.O. 10865, as amended; E.O. 13526; E.O. 12829, as amended; E.O. 13467; E.O. 13488; E.O. 12333, as amended; 5 U.S.C 301 and 7532; section 1072 of Pub. L. 110-181, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 278g-3; 40 U.S.C. 11331; 10 U.S.C. 1564; 50 U.S.C. 3343; 5 CFR parts 731, 731.101, 732, and 736; and HSPD-12.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 18163, Apr. 1, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part updates policies and responsibilities for the DoD Personnel Security Program (PSP) consistent with E.O. 12968, as amended; E.O. 10450, as amended; E.O. 10865, as amended; E.O. 13526; E.O. 12829, as amended; E.O. 13467; E.O. 13488; E.O. 12333, as amended; 5 U.S.C. 301 and 7532; section 1072 of Public Law 110-181, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 278g-3; 40 U.S.C. 11331; 10 U.S.C. 1564; 32 CFR parts 147, 154 through 156; 50 U.S.C. 3343; 5 CFR parts 731, 731.101, 732 and 736; and HSPD-12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the DoD, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a uniform DoD PSP to the extent consistent with standards and procedures in E.O. 12968, as amended; E.O. 10450, as amended; E.O. 10865, as amended; E.O. 13526; E.O. 12829, as amended; E.O. 13467; E.O. 13488; E.O. 12333, as amended; 32 CFR parts 147, 154 through 156; 5 CFR parts 731, 731.101, 732 and 736; 5 U.S.C. 301 and 7532; section 1072 of Public Law 110-181, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 278g-3; section 11331 of 40 U.S.C.; 10 U.S.C. 1564; 50 U.S.C. 3343; and the Intelligence Community Directive Number 704 (ICD 704) (available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dni.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) DoD PSP policies and procedures shall be aligned using consistent standards to the extent possible; provide for reciprocal recognition of existing investigations and adjudications; be cost-effective, timely, and provide efficient protection of the national interest; and provide fair treatment of those upon whom the Federal Government relies to conduct the Nation's business and protect national security.
</P>
<P>(c) Discretionary judgments used to determine eligibility for national security positions are an inherently governmental function and shall be performed by appropriately trained and favorably adjudicated Federal Government personnel or appropriate automated procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) No negative inference may be raised solely on the basis of mental health counseling. Such counseling may be a positive factor that, by itself, shall not jeopardize the rendering of eligibility determinations or temporary eligibility for access to national security information. However, mental health counseling, where relevant to adjudication for a national security position, may justify further inquiry to assess risk factors that may be relevant to the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(e) The DoD shall not discriminate nor may any inference be raised on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, or sexual orientation.
</P>
<P>(f) Discretionary judgments that determine eligibility for national security positions shall be clearly consistent with the national security interests of the United States. Any doubt shall be resolved in favor of national security.
</P>
<P>(g) No person shall be deemed to be eligible for a national security position merely by reason of Federal service or contracting, licensee, certificate holder, or grantee status, or as a matter of right or privilege, or as a result of any particular title, rank, position, or affiliation.
</P>
<P>(h) No person shall be appointed or assigned to a national security position when an unfavorable personnel security determination has been rendered.
</P>
<P>(i) Eligibility for national security positions shall be granted only to persons who are U.S. citizens for whom the investigative and adjudicative process has been favorably completed. However, based on exceptional circumstances where official functions must be performed prior to completion of the investigative and adjudicative process, temporary eligibility for access to classified information may be granted while the investigation is underway.
</P>
<P>(j) As an exception, a non-U.S. citizen who possesses an expertise that cannot be filled by a cleared or clearable U.S. citizen, may hold a national security position or be granted a limited access authorization to classified information in support of a specific DoD program, project, or contract following a favorable security determination by an authorized adjudication facility.
</P>
<P>(k) The DoD shall establish investigative and adjudicative policy and procedures to determine whether to issue, deny or revoke common access cards (CACs) in accordance with the standards of the Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD)-12 (available in the Public Papers of the Presidents of the United States: George W. Bush (2004, Book II, page 1765) found on the Internet at <I>http://www.gpo.gov/</I>); Office of Management and Budget Memorandum (OMB) M-05-24 (available on the Internet at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb</I>); Federal Information Processing Standards Publication 201-1 (FIPS 201-1) or successor (available on the Internet at <I>http://csrc.nist.gov/</I>); 48 CFR, Chapter 1, Parts 1-99 (Federal Acquisition Regulation); 48 CFR, Chapter 2, Parts 201-253 (Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement), and the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12,” dated July 31, 2008 (available on the Internet at <I>http://www.opm.gov/</I>), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(l) Information about individuals collected as part of the investigative and adjudicative process shall be managed in accordance with applicable laws and DoD policies, including those related to privacy and confidentiality, security of information, and access to information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop, coordinate, and oversee the implementation of policy, programs, and guidance for the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(2) In coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) and the General Counsel of the DoD (GC, DoD), develop policy for DoD personnel for the CAC personnel security investigation (PSI) and adjudication in accordance with HSPD-12; OMB Memorandum M-05-24; FIPS 201-1; and OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.”
</P>
<P>(3) In coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology and Logistics (USD(AT&amp;L)) and the GC, DoD, develop policy for contractor investigations for CAC adjudication, outside the purview of the National Industrial Security Program, under the terms of applicable contracts in accordance with HSPD-12; OMB Memorandum M-05-24; FIPS 201-1; the Federal Acquisition Regulation; the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; and OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.”
</P>
<P>(4) Issue guidance implementing the policy in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence &amp; Security (DUSD(I&amp;S)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(I) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the PSP is consistent, cost-effective, efficient, and balances the rights of individuals with the interests of national security.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop and publish revisions to 32 CFR Part 154.
</P>
<P>(3) Approve, coordinate, and oversee all DoD personnel security research initiatives and activities to improve the efficiency, effectiveness, and fairness of the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the Defense Security Service (DSS) provides education, training, and awareness support to the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(5) Serve as the primary contact between DoD, the Red Cross, United Service Organizations, and other organizations with direct DoD affiliation for all matters relating to the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, approve requests for exceptions to the DoD PSP relating to national security eligibility requirements for access to classified information except North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) classified information. Requests for exceptions involving access to NATO classified information shall be sent to the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Policy.
</P>
<P>(7) Develop guidance, interpretation, and clarification regarding the DoD PSP as needed.
</P>
<P>(8) Conduct oversight inspections of the DoD Components for implementation and compliance with DoD personnel security policy and operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(9) In furtherance of coordinated Government-wide initiatives under E.O. 13467, develop a framework setting forth an overarching strategy identifying goals, performance measures, roles and responsibilities, a communications strategy, and metrics to measure the quality of security clearance investigations and adjudications to ensure a sound DoD PSP that will continue to meet the needs of DoD.
</P>
<P>(c) The USD(AT&amp;L) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish acquisition policy, procedures, and guidance, in coordination with the USD(I) that facilitate DoD Component compliance with the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish regulatory requirements within the Federal Acquisition Regulation and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation for contracts and agreements that require non-DoD personnel to adhere to personnel security procedures in the performance of a contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) The Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USD(P)) is the approval authority for requests for exceptions to the DoD PSP involving access to NATO classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) The GC, DoD shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide advice and guidance as to the legal sufficiency of procedures and standards involved in implementing the DoD PSP and exercise oversight of the established administrative due process procedures of the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(2) Perform functions relating to the DoD PSP including the maintenance and oversight of the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA).
</P>
<P>(f) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate a senior agency official, consistent with the provisions of E.O. 12968, as amended, who shall direct and administer the DoD PSP consistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the policy and procedures regarding investigation and adjudication for CAC issuance and distribute this guidance to local and regional organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide funding to cover Component requirements for PSIs, adjudication, and recording of results to comply with the DoD PSP.
</P>
<P>(4) Enforce requirements for prompt reporting of significant derogatory information, unfavorable administrative actions, and adverse actions to the appropriate personnel security, human resources, and counterintelligence official(s), as appropriate, within their respective Component.
</P>
<P>(5) Perform functions relating to the DoD Security Professional Education Development Program to ensure the security workforce in their respective Component has the knowledge and skills required to perform security functional tasks.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide requested information and recommendations, as appropriate, on any aspect of this part and the DoD PSP to the USD(I).
</P>
<P>(7) Enforce the requirement that DoD personnel security adjudication system(s) of records, within their respective Components, shall only be used as a personnel security system of records and shall not be used as a pre-hiring screening tool.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.5   National security positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> The objective of the PSP is to ensure persons deemed eligible for national security positions remain reliable and trustworthy.
</P>
<P>(1) Duties considered sensitive and critical to national security do not always involve classified activities or classified matters. Personnel security procedures for national security positions are set forth in E.O. 12968, as amended; E.O. 10865, 32 CFR parts 154-155; ICD 704; and DoD Regulation 5220.22-R. The specific procedures applicable in each case type are set forth in DoD issuances.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees with access to automated systems that contain active duty, guard, or military reservists' personally identifiable information or information pertaining to Service members that are otherwise protected from disclosure by section 552a of title 5 United States Code, may be designated as national security positions within DoD, where such access has the potential to cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) Eligibility.</I> Investigative and adjudicative requirements for SCI eligibility shall be executed in accordance with this part and ICD 704.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjudication.</I> (1) Personnel security criteria and adjudicative standards are described in E.O. 12968, as amended; 32 CFR parts 147, 154 and 155; ICD 704, and DoD Regulation 5220.22-R, as applicable, in accordance with Adjudicative Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information and other types of protected information or assignment to national security positions. Adjudications of eligibility for national security positions, regardless of whether they involve access to classified information, must be made in accordance with the Adjudicative Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information.
</P>
<P>(2) When an unfavorable personnel security determination is rendered:
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals cannot be appointed or assigned to national security positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual currently occupying a national security position will be immediately removed from the national security position and placed, in accordance with agency policy, in an existing non-sensitive position if available. Placement in a non-sensitive position requires compliance with employment suitability standards. The national security position is not to be modified or a new position created to circumvent an unfavorable personnel security determination. The individual is to be placed in an appropriate status, in accordance with agency policy, until a final security determination is made. A final security determination is the granting, denial or revocation by an appropriate central adjudications facility or an appeal board decision, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) To ensure consistency and quality in determinations of eligibility for national security positions, adjudicators must successfully complete the full program of professional training provided by the DSS Center for Development of Security Excellence (or equivalent training) and be certified through the DoD Professional Certification Program for Adjudicators within 2 years of program implementation or, for new hires, within 2 years of eligibility for certification testing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal Procedures—Denial or Revocation of Eligibility.</I> Individuals may elect to appeal unfavorable personnel security determinations in accordance with the procedures set forth in E.O. 12968, as amended; parts 154 and 155 of 32 CFR; ICD 704, and DoD Regulation 5220.22-R as applicable or as otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Polygraph.</I> Under certain conditions, DoD Components are authorized to use polygraph examinations to resolve credible derogatory information developed in connection with a personnel security investigation; to aid in the related adjudication; or to facilitate classified access decisions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuous Evaluation.</I> All personnel in national security positions shall be subject to continuous evaluation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Financial Disclosure.</I> DoD Component implementation of the electronic financial disclosure requirement, consistent with E.O. 12968, shall be completed by the end of calendar year 2012.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reciprocal Acceptance of Eligibility Determinations.</I> (1) DoD reciprocally accepts existing national security eligibility determinations or clearances from other government agencies in accordance with E.O. 13467, OMB Memorandums “Reciprocal Recognition of Existing Personnel Security Clearances” dated December 12, 2005 (Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb</I>) and July 17, 2006 (Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Reciprocity for SCI eligibility shall be executed in accordance with ICD 704 and associated Director of National Intelligence guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) Personnel who have been determined eligible for national security positions should not be subjected to additional security reviews, completion of a new security questionnaire, or initiation of a new investigative check, unless credible derogatory information that was not previously adjudicated becomes known, or the previous adjudication was granted by a condition, deviation, or waiver pursuant the provisions of OMB Memorandums “Reciprocal Recognition of Existing Personnel Security Clearances” dated December 12, 2005, or there has been a break in service of more than 24 months. Exceptions for access to SCI or special access programs are listed in the OMB Memorandums “Reciprocal Recognition of Existing Personnel Security Clearances” dated July 17, 2006.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>National Security Agency (NSA)/Central Security Service (CSS).</I> Employees, contractors, military assignees, and others with similar affiliations with the NSA/CSS must maintain SCI eligibility for access to sensitive cryptologic information in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 23.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Wounded Warrior Security and Intelligence Internship Program.</I> PSIs in support of wounded warriors may be submitted and processed regardless of the time remaining in military service. Investigations will be accelerated through a special program code established by the Office of the USD(I) to ensure expedited service by the investigating and adjudicating agencies.
</P>
<P>(1) Category 2 wounded, ill, or injured uniformed service personnel who expect to be separated with a medical disability rating of 30 percent or greater may submit a PSI for Top Secret clearance with SCI eligibility prior to medical separation provided they are serving in or have been nominated for a wounded warrior internship program.
</P>
<P>(2) The investigations will be funded by the DoD Component that is offering the internship. If the DoD Component does not have funds available, the Military Service in which the uniform service personnel served may choose to fund the investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.6   Common access card (CAC) investigation and adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Individuals entrusted with access to Federal property, information systems, and any other information bearing on national security must not put the Government at risk or provide an avenue for terrorism.
</P>
<P>(1) All individuals requiring a CAC must meet credentialing standards of OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.” For those individuals who are subject to an interim credentialing decision before a security, suitability, or equivalent adjudication is completed, the OPM credentialing standards will be the basis for issuing or denying a CAC. The subsequent credentialing decision will be made upon receipt of the completed investigation from the ISP.
</P>
<P>(2) If an individual is found unsuitable for employment in a covered position under 5 CFR 731.101, ineligible for access to classified information under E.O. 12968, or disqualified from appointment in the excepted service or from working on a contract, the unfavorable decision is a sufficient basis for non-issuance or revocation of a CAC, but does not necessarily mandate this result.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigation.</I> A favorably adjudicated National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) is the minimum investigation required for a final credentialing determination for CAC.
</P>
<P>(1) An interim credentialing determination can be made based on the results of a completed National Agency Check or an Federal Bureau of Investigation National Criminal History Check (fingerprint check), and submission of a request for investigation (NACI or greater).
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals identified as having a favorably adjudicated investigation on record, equivalent to (or greater than) the NACI do not require an additional investigation for CAC issuance.
</P>
<P>(3) There is no requirement to reinvestigate CAC holders unless they are subject to reinvestigation for national security or suitability reasons as specified in applicable DoD issuances.
</P>
<P>(4) Existing CAC holders without the requisite background investigation on record must be investigated in accordance with OMB Memorandum M-05-24, “Implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12—Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors,” dated August 5, 2005.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjudication.</I> The ultimate determination whether to authorize CAC issuance or revoke the CAC must be an overall common-sense judgment after careful consideration of the basic and, if applicable, supplemental credentialing standards in OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12,” each of which is to be evaluated in the context of the whole person. These standards shall be evaluated to determine if there is a reasonable basis to believe that issuing a CAC to the individual poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(1) Each case is unique and must be judged on its own merits. To the extent pertinent to the individual case, when evaluating the conduct, the adjudicator should consider: the nature and seriousness of the conduct, the circumstances surrounding the conduct, the recency and frequency of the conduct, the individual's age and maturity at the time of the conduct, contributing external conditions, and the presence or absence of rehabilitation or efforts toward rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(2) Final credentialing standards are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Basic Credentialing Standards.</I> All CAC adjudications must apply the basic credentialing standards. CAC shall not be issued when a disqualifying factor cannot be mitigated.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Supplemental Credentialing Standards.</I> The supplemental credentialing standards, in addition to the basic credentialing standards, shall apply generally to individuals who are not subject to adjudication for eligibility for a sensitive position or access to classified information, suitability for Federal employment or fitness. These standards may be applied based on the risk associated with the position or work on the contract.
</P>
<P>(3) All interim and final adjudicative determinations shall be made by cleared and trained Federal Government personnel. Automated adjudicative processes shall be used to the maximum extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Adjudication decisions of CAC investigations shall be incorporated into the Consolidated Central Adjudication Facility as directed by the Deputy Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(5) CAC adjudicators must successfully complete formal training through a DoD adjudicator course from the DSS Center for Development of Security Excellence to achieve maximum consistency and fairness of decisions rendered.
</P>
<P>(6) Federal Government credentialing standards do not prohibit employment of convicted felons who have been released from correctional institutions, absent other issues, if they have demonstrated clear evidence of rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals.</I> CAC applicants or holders may appeal CAC denial or revocation.
</P>
<P>(1) No separate administrative appeal process is allowed when an individual has been denied a CAC as a result of a negative suitability determination under 5 CFR Part 731, an applicable decision to deny or revoke a security clearance, or based on the results of a determination to disqualify the person from an appointment in an excepted service position or from working on a contract for reasons other than eligibility for a Federal Credential as described in OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.” If a later denial or revocation of a CAC results from an applicable denial or revocation of a security clearance, suitability decision, or other action for which administrative process was already provided on grounds that support denial or revocation of a CAC, no separate appeal for CAC denial or revocation is allowed.
</P>
<P>(2) Initial civilian and contractor applicants who have been denied a CAC, and for whom an appeal is allowed under this paragraph, may elect to appeal to a three member board containing no more than one security representative from the sponsoring activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractor employees who have had their CAC revoked, and for whom an appeal is allowed under this paragraph, may appeal to DOHA under the established administrative process set out in 32 CFR Part 155.
</P>
<P>(4) Decisions following appeal are final.
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals whose CACs have been denied or revoked are eligible for reconsideration 1 year after the date of final denial or revocation, provided the sponsoring activity supports reconsideration. Individuals with a statutory or regulatory bar are not eligible for reconsideration while under debarment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign Nationals.</I> Special considerations for conducting background investigations of non-U.S. nationals (foreign nationals) are addressed in OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.” The following criteria shall be met prior to CAC issuance to foreign nationals:
</P>
<P>(1) The background investigation must be completed and favorably adjudicated before issuing CACs to foreign nationals.
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign nationals are not eligible to receive CAC on an interim basis.
</P>
<P>(3) At foreign locations:
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign national background investigations may vary based on standing reciprocity treaties concerning identity assurance and information exchange that exist between the United States and its allies. This includes foreign military, civilian, or contract support with a visit status and security assurance that has been confirmed, documented, and processed in accordance with USD(P) policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of background investigation may also vary based upon agency agreements with the host country when the foreign national CAC applicant (such as a DoD direct or indirect hire) has not resided in the United States for at least 3 of the past 5 years or is residing in a foreign country. The investigation must be consistent with NACI, to the extent possible, and include a fingerprint check against the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) criminal history database, an FBI Investigations Files (name check) search, and a name check against the Terrorist Screening Database.
</P>
<P>(4) At U.S.-based locations and in U.S. territories:
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign nationals who have resided in the United States or U.S. territory for 3 years or more must have a NACI or greater investigation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Components may delay the background investigation of foreign nationals who have resided in the U.S. or U.S. territory for less than 3 years until the individual has been in the U.S. or U.S. territory for 3 years. When the investigation is delayed, the Component may, in lieu of a CAC, issue an alternative facility access credential at the discretion of the relevant Component official based on a risk determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recording Final Adjudication.</I> Immediately following final adjudication, the sponsoring activity shall record the final eligibility determination (active, revoked, denied, etc.) in the OPM Central Verification System as directed by OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12,” and maintain local records for posting in a DoD repository when available.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reciprocity of CAC Determinations.</I> (1) The sponsoring activity shall not re-adjudicate CAC determinations for individuals transferring from another Federal department or agency, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Possession of a valid personal identity verification (PIV) card or CAC can be verified by the individual's former department or agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual has undergone the required NACI or other equivalent suitability, public trust, or national security investigation and received favorable adjudication from the former agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no break in service greater than 24 months and the individual has no actionable information since the date of the last completed investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) Interim CAC determinations are not eligible to be transferred or reciprocally accepted. Reciprocity shall be based on final favorable adjudication only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.51.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.7   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Continuous evaluation.</I> Defined in section 1.3(d) of E.O. 13467.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> Defined in E.O. 13467.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> Defined in E.O. 12968, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Limited access authorization.</I> Defined in 32 CFR Part 154.
</P>
<P><I>National security position.</I> (1) Any position in a department or agency, the occupant of which could bring about, by virtue of the nature of the position, a material adverse effect on the national security.
</P>
<P>(i) Such positions include those requiring eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other such positions include, but are not limited to, those whose duties include:
</P>
<P>(A) Protecting the nation, its citizens and residents from acts of terrorism, espionage, or foreign aggression, including those positions where the occupant's duties involve protecting the nation's borders, ports, critical infrastructure or key resources, and where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;
</P>
<P>(B) Developing defense plans or policies;
</P>
<P>(C) Planning or conducting intelligence or counterintelligence activities, counterterrorism activities and related activities concerned with the preservation of the military strength of the United States;
</P>
<P>(D) Protecting or controlling access to facilities or information systems where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;
</P>
<P>(E) Controlling, maintaining custody, safeguarding, or disposing of hazardous materials, arms, ammunition or explosives, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;
</P>
<P>(F) Exercising investigative or adjudicative duties related to national security, suitability, fitness or identity credentialing, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;
</P>
<P>(G) Exercising duties related to criminal justice, public safety or law enforcement, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security; or
</P>
<P>(H) Conducting investigations or audits related to the functions described in paragraphs (1)(ii)(B) through (G) of this definition, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of this part apply to positions in the competitive service, positions in the excepted service where the incumbent can be noncompetitively converted to the competitive service, and career appointments in the Senior Executive Service within the executive branch. Departments and agencies may apply the requirements of this part to other excepted service positions within the executive branch and contractor positions, to the extent consistent with law.
</P>
<P><I>Unacceptable risk.</I> Threat to the life, safety, or health of employees, contractors, vendors, or visitors; to the Government's physical assets or information systems; to personal property; to records, privileged, proprietary, financial, or medical records; or to the privacy of data subjects, which will not be tolerated by the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="157" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 157—DOD INVESTIGATIVE AND ADJUDICATIVE GUIDANCE FOR ISSUING THE COMMON ACCESS CARD (CAC)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>HSPD-12, E.O 13467, E.O. 13488, FIPS 201-2, and OPM Memorandum.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 55624, Sept. 17, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 157.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for investigating and adjudicating eligibility to hold a Common Access Card (CAC). The CAC is the DoD personal identity verification (PIV) credential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS), under agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreement with the Department of Commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Actionable information.</I> Information that potentially justifies an unfavorable credentialing determination.
</P>
<P><I>CAC.</I> The DoD Federal PIV card.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> Defined in Executive Order 13467, “Reforming Processes Related to Sustainability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information”.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor employee fitness.</I> Defined in E.O. 13467.
</P>
<P><I>Debarment.</I> A prohibition from taking a competitive service examination or from being hired (or retained in) a covered position for a specific time period..
</P>
<P><I>Drugs.</I> Mood and behavior-altering substances, including drugs, materials, and other chemical compounds identified and listed in 21 U.S.C. 801-830 (also known as “The Controlled Substances Act of 1970, as amended”) (e.g., marijuana or cannabis, depressants, narcotics, stimulants, hallucinogens), and inhalants and other similar substances.
</P>
<P><I>Drug abuse.</I> The illegal use of a drug or use of a legal drug in a manner that deviates from approved medical direction.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> Defined in E.O. 12968, “Access to Classified Information”.
</P>
<P><I>Fitness.</I> Defined in E.O. 13488, “Granting Reciprocity on Excepted Service and Federal Contractor Employee Fitness and Reinvestigating Individuals in Positions of Public Trust”.
</P>
<P><I>Fitness determination.</I> Defined in E.O. 13488.
</P>
<P><I>Logical and physical access.</I> Defined in E.O. 13467.
</P>
<P><I>Material.</I> Defined in 5 CFR part 731.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable basis.</I> A reasonable basis to believe occurs when a disinterested observer, with knowledge of the same facts and circumstances, would reasonably reach the same conclusion.
</P>
<P><I>Terrorism.</I> Defined in 19 U.S.C. 2331.
</P>
<P><I>Unacceptable risk.</I> A threat to the life, safety, or health of employees, contractors, vendors, or visitors; to the U.S. Government physical assets or information systems; to personal property; to records, including classified, privileged, proprietary, financial, and medical records; or to the privacy rights established by The Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, or other law that is deemed unacceptable when making risk management determinations.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. National.</I> Defined in U.S. OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12” (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/investigate/resources/final_credentialing_standards.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Individuals appropriately sponsored for a CAC consistent with DoD Manual 1000.13, Volume 1, “DoD Identification Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle,” January 23, 2014, (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100013_vol1.pdf</I>) must be investigated and adjudicated in accordance with this part. Individuals not CAC eligible may be processed for local or regional base passes in accordance with Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)) policy guidance for DoD physical access control consistent with DoD Regulation 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520008r.pdf</I>) and local installation security policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) A favorably adjudicated National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) or equivalent in accordance with revised Federal investigative standards is the minimum investigation required for a final credentialing determination for a CAC.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals requiring a CAC must meet the credentialing standards in accordance with the U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12”; and U.S. Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Introduction of Credentialing, Suitability, and Security Clearance Decision-Making Guide (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/investigate/resources/decision_making_guide.pdf</I>) and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) A CAC may be issued on an interim basis based on a favorable National Agency Check or a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) National Criminal History Check (fingerprint check) adjudicated by appropriate approved automated procedures or by a trained security or human resource (HR) specialist and successful submission to the investigative service provider (ISP) of a NACI, or a personnel security investigation (PSI) equal to or greater in scope than a NACI. Additionally, the CAC applicant must present two identity source documents, at least one of which is a valid Federal or State government-issued picture identification.
</P>
<P>(e) The subsequent final credentialing determination will be made upon receipt of the completed investigation from the ISP.
</P>
<P>(f) Discretionary judgments used to render an adjudicative determination for issuing the CAC are inherently governmental functions and must only be performed by trained U.S. Government personnel who have successfully completed required training and possess a minimum level of investigation (NACI or equivalent in accordance with revised Federal investigative standards). Established administrative processes in 32 CFR part 156 and DoD Directive 5220.6, “Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Review Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/522006p.pdf</I>) must be applied.
</P>
<P>(g) Adjudications rendered for eligibility for access to classified information, eligibility to hold a sensitive position, suitability, or fitness for Federal employment based on a NACI or higher level investigation may result in a concurrent CAC decision for that position.
</P>
<P>(h) Favorable credentialing adjudications from another Federal department or agency will be reciprocally accepted in accordance with conditions stated in the procedural guidance in this part. Reciprocity must be based on final favorable adjudication only.
</P>
<P>(i) CAC applicants or holders may appeal CAC denial or revocation in accordance with the conditions stated in the procedural guidance in this part. Appeals must be processed as indicated in the procedural guidance in this part.
</P>
<P>(j) Non-U.S. nationals at foreign locations are not eligible to receive a CAC on an interim basis. Special considerations for conducting background investigations of non-U.S. nationals are addressed in U.S. OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12.” An interim CAC may be issued to non-U.S. nationals in the U.S. or U.S. territories if they have resided in the U.S. or U.S. territory for at least 3 years, and they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section and paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of § 157.6.
</P>
<P>(k) Individuals who have been denied a CAC or have had a CAC revoked due to an unfavorable credentialing determination are eligible to reapply for a credential 1 year after the date of final adjudicative denial or revocation.
</P>
<P>(l) Individuals with a statutory or regulatory bar are not eligible for reconsideration while under debarment, see paragraph (d)(6) of § 157.6.
</P>
<P>(m) The Deputy Secretary of Defense directed all reports of investigations conducted as required for compliance with Homeland Security Presidential Directive-12, “Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>http://www.dhs.gov/homeland-security-presidential-directive-12</I>) to be sent to the consolidated DoD Central Adjudications Facility.
</P>
<P>(n) When eligibility is denied or revoked, CACs shall be recovered whenever practicable, and shall immediately be rendered inoperable. In addition, agencies' physical and logical access systems shall be immediately updated to eliminate the use of a CAC for access.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(I) must:
</P>
<P>(1) In coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) and the General Counsel of the Department of Defense (GC, DoD), establish adjudication procedures to support CAC credentialing decisions in accordance with DoD Manual 1000.13, Volume 1, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards; ID Card Life-Cycle”; U.S. Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12”; U.S. Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Introduction of Credentialing, Suitability, and Security Clearance Decision-Making Guide; Office of Management and Budget Memorandum M-05-24, “Implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12—Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/default/files/omb/memoranda/fy2005/m05-24.pdf</I>); U.S. Office of Personnel Management Federal Investigations Notice Number 06-04, “HSPD 12—Advanced Fingerprint Results” (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/extra/investigate/FIN06_04.pdf</I>); Homeland Security Presidential Directive-12, “Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors”; 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a and 7313; Federal Information Processing Standards Publication 201-2, “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsFIPS.html</I>); Executive Order 13467, “Reforming Processes Related to Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information”; Executive Order 13488, “Granting Reciprocity on Excepted Service and Federal Contractor Employee Fitness and Reinvestigating Individuals in Positions of Public Trust”; 15 U.S.C. 278g-3; 40 U.S.C. 11331; and U.S. Office of Personnel Management Federal Investigations Notice Number 10-05, “Reminder to Agencies of the Standards for Issuing Identity Credentials Under HSPD-12” (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/investigate/fins/2010/fin10-05.pdf</I>) for issuing a CAC to Service members and DoD civilian personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) In coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&amp;L)) and the GC, DoD, establish adjudication procedures to support a CAC credentialing decision for contractors in accordance with the terms of applicable contracts and the references cited in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Federal Acquisition Regulation (available at <I>http://www.acquisition.gov/far/current/pdf/FAR.pdf</I>), and the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (available at <I>http://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/dars/dfarspgi/current/index.html</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) Issue, interpret, and clarify CAC investigative and adjudicative guidance in coordination with the Suitability Executive Agent as necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The USD(P&amp;R) must, in coordination with the GC, DoD, implement CAC PSI and adjudication procedures established herein as necessary to support issuance of a CAC to Service members and DoD civilian personnel in accordance with the references cited in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The USD(AT&amp;L) must, in coordination with the GC, DoD, implement CAC PSI and adjudication procedures established by the USD(I) for contractors in accordance with the terms of applicable contracts and the references cited in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, Federal Acquisition Regulation, current edition; and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, current edition.
</P>
<P>(d) The GC, DoD must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide advice and guidance as to the legal sufficiency of procedures and standards involved in adjudicating CAC investigations.
</P>
<P>(2) Perform functions relating to the DoD Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD)-12 Program in accordance with DoD Directive 5220.6, “Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Review Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/522006p.pdf</I>) and DoD Directive 5145.01, “General Counsel of the Department of Defense” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/514501p.pdf</I>) including maintenance and oversight of the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) and its involvement in contractor CAC revocations as specified in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(B) of § 157.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate on USD(P&amp;R) implementation of CAC PSI and adjudication procedures, in accordance with the references cited in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for Service members and DoD civilian personnel, and USD(AT&amp;L) implementation of USD(I) procedures for CAC PSI and adjudication in accordance with the terms of applicable contracts and the references cited in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, Federal Acquisition Regulation and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement.
</P>
<P>(e) The Heads of the DoD Components must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with and implement this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide resources for PSIs, adjudication, appeals, and recording of final adjudicative results in a centralized database.
</P>
<P>(3) Require individuals sponsored for a CAC to meet eligibility requirements stated in DTM 08-003.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide appeals boards for those individuals appealing CAC denial or revocation as specified in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A) of § 157.6.
</P>
<P>(5) Enforce requirements for reporting of derogatory information, unfavorable administrative actions, and adverse actions to personnel security, HR, and counterintelligence official(s), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) Require all PSIs submitted for non-DoD personnel to be supported by and comply with DoD PIV procedures in contracts that implement requirements of paragraphs 4.1303 and 52.204-9 of Federal Acquisition Regulation, current edition.
</P>
<P>(7) Require all investigations and adjudications required for non-DoD personnel to be in response to a current, active contract or agreement and that the number of personnel submitted for investigation and adjudication does not exceed the specific requirements of that contract or agreement while ensuring compliance with HSPD-12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.52.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CAC Investigative Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Investigative Requirements.</I> (i) A personnel security investigation (NACI or greater) completed by an authorized ISP is required to support a CAC credentialing determination based on the established credentialing standards promulgated by OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12”.
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<P>(ii) Individuals identified as having a favorably adjudicated investigation on record, equivalent to or greater than the NACI, do not require an additional investigation for CAC issuance.
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<P>(iii) There is no requirement to reinvestigate CAC holders unless they are subject to reinvestigation for national security or suitability reasons as specified in applicable DoD issuances.
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<P>(2) <I>Submission of Investigations.</I> Investigative packages must be submitted promptly by HR or security personnel to the authorized ISP. Fingerprints for CAC applicants must be taken by HR or security personnel. DoD Components using the OPM as the ISP may request advanced fingerprint check results in accordance with OPM Federal Investigations Notice Number 06-04.
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<P>(3) <I>Reciprocity.</I> (i) The sponsoring Component must not re-adjudicate CAC determinations for individuals transferring from another Federal department or agency, provided:
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<P>(A) The individual's former department or agency verifies possession of a valid PIV.
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<P>(B) The individual has undergone the required NACI or other equivalent (or greater) suitability or national security investigation and received favorable adjudication from the former department or agency.
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<P>(C) There is no break in service 2 years or more and the individual has no actionable information since the date of the last completed investigation.
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<P>(ii) Interim CAC determinations are not eligible to be transferred or reciprocally accepted. Reciprocity must be based on final favorable adjudication only.
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<P>(4) <I>Foreign (Non-U.S.) Nationals.</I> DoD Components must apply the credentialing process and standards in this part to non-U.S. nationals who work as employees or contractor employees for the DoD. However, special considerations apply to non-U.S. nationals.
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<P>(i) <I>At Foreign Locations.</I> (A) DoD Components must initiate and ensure completion of a background investigation before applying the credentialing standards to a non-U.S. national at a foreign location. The background investigation must be favorably adjudicated before a CAC can be issued to a non-U.S. national at a foreign location. The type of background investigation may vary based on standing reciprocity treaties concerning identity assurance and information exchanges that exist between the U.S. and its allies or agency agreements with the host country.
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<P>(B) The investigation of a non-U.S. national at a foreign location must be consistent with a NACI, to the extent possible, and include a fingerprint check against the FBI criminal history database, an FBI investigations files (name check) search, and a name check against the terrorist screening database.
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<P>(ii) <I>At U.S.-Based Locations and in U.S. Territories (Other than American Samoa and Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands).</I> (A) Individuals who are non-U.S. nationals in the United States or U.S. territory for 3 years or more must have a NACI or equivalent investigation initiated after employment authorization is appropriately verified.
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<P>(B) Non-U.S. nationals who have been in the United States or U.S. territory for less than 3 years do not meet the investigative requirements for CAC issuance. DoD Components may delay the background investigation of a Non-U.S. national who has been in the U.S. or U.S. territory for less than 3 years until the individual has been in the United States or U.S. territory for at least 3 years. In the event of such a delay, an alternative facility access identity credential may be issued at the discretion of the relevant DoD Component official, as appropriate based on a risk determination in accordance with DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520008r.pdf</I>) and U.S. Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12.”
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<P>(C) The U.S. territories of American Samoa and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands are not included in the “United States” as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, as amended (Pub. L. 82-414).
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<P>(5) <I>Investigations Acceptable for CAC Adjudication.</I> A list of investigations acceptable for CAC adjudication is located in the Table. These investigations are equivalent to or greater than a NACI. This list will be updated by the USD(I) as revisions to the Federal investigative standards are implemented.
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<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table—Favorably Adjudicated Investigations Acceptable for CAC Adjudication
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Investigation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANACI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Access National Agency Check and Inquires.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BGI-0112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upgrade Background Investigation (1-12 months from LBI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BGI-1336</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upgrade Background Investigation (13-36 months from LBI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BGI-3760</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upgrade Background Investigation (37-60 months from LBI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BIPN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background Investigation plus Current National Agency Check.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BIPR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic Reinvestigation of Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BITN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Background Investigation (10 year scope).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CNCI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child Care National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IBI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interview Oriented Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">LBI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">LBIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited Background Investigation plus Current National Agency Check.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">LBIX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited Background Investigation—Expanded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MBI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate Risk Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MBIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate Risk Background Investigation plus Current National Agency Check.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MBIX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate Risk Background Investigation—Expanded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check/National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit Check plus Background Investigation Requested.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check and Inquires.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACLC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check with Law and Credit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check/National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit Check plus Single Scope B.I. Requested.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACW</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NACZ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit plus Special Investigative Inquiry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NLC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check, Local Agency Check and Credit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NNAC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Agency Check plus Written Inquires and Credit Plus Current National Agency Check.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NSI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NSI—NACI/Suitability Determination.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PRI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic Reinvestigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PRS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic Reinvestigation Secret.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PRSC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic Reinvestigation Secret or Confidential.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PPR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phased Periodic Reinvestigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SPR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secret Periodic Reinvestigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SSBI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single Scope Background Investigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SSBI-PR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic Reinvestigation for SSBI.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>CAC Adjudicative Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Guidance for Applying Credentialing Standards During Adjudication.</I> (i) As established in Homeland Security Presidential Directive-12, credentialing adjudication considers whether or not an individual is eligible for long-term access to Federally controlled facilities and/or information systems. The ultimate determination to authorize, deny, or revoke the CAC based on a credentialing determination of the PSI must be made after consideration of applicable credentialing standards in OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12.”
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<P>(ii) Each case is unique. Adjudicators must examine conditions that raise an adjudicative concern, the overriding factor for all of these conditions is unacceptable risk. Factors to be applied consistently to all information available to the adjudicator are:
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<P>(A) The nature and seriousness of the conduct. The more serious the conduct, the greater the potential for an adverse CAC determination.
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<P>(B) The circumstances surrounding the conduct. Sufficient information concerning the circumstances of the conduct must be obtained to determine whether there is a reasonable basis to believe the conduct poses a risk to people, property or information systems.
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<P>(C) The recency and frequency of the conduct. More recent or more frequent conduct is of greater concern.
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<P>(D) The individual's age and maturity at the time of the conduct. Offenses committed as a minor are usually treated as less serious than the same offenses committed as an adult, unless the offense is very recent, part of a pattern, or particularly heinous.
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<P>(E) Contributing external conditions. Economic and cultural conditions may be relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk if the conditions are currently removed or countered (generally considered in cases with relatively minor issues).
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<P>(F) The absence or presence of efforts toward rehabilitation, if relevant, to address conduct adverse to CAC determinations.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Clear, affirmative evidence of rehabilitation is required for a favorable adjudication (e.g., seeking assistance and following professional guidance, where appropriate; demonstrating positive changes in behavior and employment).
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Rehabilitation may be a consideration for most conduct, not just alcohol and drug abuse. While formal counseling or treatment may be a consideration, other factors (such as the individual's employment record) may also be indications of rehabilitation.
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<P>(iii) CAC adjudicators must successfully complete formal training through a DoD CAC adjudicator course from the Defense Security Service Center for Development of Security Excellence or a course approved by the Suitability Executive Agent.
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<P>(2) <I>Credentialing Standards.</I> HSPD-12 credentialing standards contained in OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12” must be used to render a final determination whether to issue or revoke a CAC based on results of a qualifying PSI.
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<P>(i) <I>Basic Standards.</I> CAC credentialing standards and the adjudicative guidelines described in paragraph (c) of this section are designed to guide the adjudicator who must determine, based on results of a qualifying PSI, whether CAC issuance is consistent with the basic standards, would create an unacceptable risk for the U.S. Government, or would provide an avenue for terrorism.
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<P>(ii) <I>Supplemental Standards.</I> The supplemental standards are intended to ensure that the issuance of a CAC to an individual does not create unacceptable risk. The supplemental credentialing standards must be applied, in addition to the basic credentialing standards. In this context, an unacceptable risk refers to an unacceptable risk to the life, safety, or health of employees, contractors, vendors, or visitors; to the Government's physical assets or information systems; to personal property; to records, including classified, privileged, proprietary, financial, or medical records; or to the privacy of data subjects.
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<P>The supplemental credentialing standards, in addition to the basic credentialing standards, must be used for CAC adjudication of individuals who are not also subject to the following types of adjudication:
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<P>(A) Eligibility to hold a sensitive position or for access to classified information,
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<P>(B) Suitability for Federal employment in the competitive service, or
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<P>(C) Qualification for Federal employment in the excepted service.
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<P>(3) <I>Application of the Standards.</I> (i) CAC credentialing standards shall be applied to all DoD civilian employees, Service members, and contractors who are CAC eligible, have been sponsored by a DoD entity, and require: (a) Physical access to DoD facilities or non-DoD facilities on behalf of DoD; (b) logical access to information systems (whether on site or remotely); or (c) remote access to DoD networks that use only the CAC logon for user authentication.
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<P>(ii) If an individual is found unsuitable for competitive civil service consistent with 5 CFR part 731, ineligible for access to classified information pursuant to E.O. 12968, or disqualified from appointment in the excepted service or from working on a contract, the unfavorable decision may be sufficient basis for non-issuance or revocation of a CAC, but does not necessarily mandate this result.
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<P>(4) <I>Adjudication.</I> The CAC adjudicators will consider the information provided by the CAC PSI in rendering a CAC credentialing determination. The determination will be unfavorable if there is a reasonable basis to conclude that a disqualifying factor in accordance with the basic CAC credentialing standards is substantiated, or when there is a reasonable basis to conclude that derogatory information or conduct relating to supplemental CAC credentialing standards presents an unacceptable risk for the U.S. Government.
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<P>(i) If a DoD Component or DOHA proposes to deny or revoke a CAC under conditions other than those cited in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the DoD Component or DOHA, as appropriate in accordance with paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, must issue the individual a written statement (also known as a letter of denial (LOD) or revocation (LOR)) identifying the disqualifying condition(s). The statement must contain a summary of the concerns and supporting adverse information, instructions for responding, and copies of the relevant CAC credentialing standards and adjudicative guidelines from this section. The written LOD or LOR must be as comprehensive and detailed as permitted by the requirements of national security and to protect sources that were granted confidentiality, and as allowed pursuant to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552 and 552a. (Section 552a is also known and hereinafter referred to as “The Privacy Act of 1974, as amended.”)
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<P>(ii) The individual may elect to respond in writing to the DoD Component or DOHA, as appropriate, within 30 calendar days from the date of the LOD or LOR. Failure to respond to the LOD or LOR will result in automatic CAC denial or revocation.
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<P>(iii) When, subsequent to issuance of an interim or final CAC, the U.S. Government receives credible information that raises questions as to whether a current CAC holder continues to meet the applicable credentialing standards, the DoD Component may reconsider the credentialing determination using the procedures in this part.
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<P>(5) <I>Denial or Revocation.</I> (i) DoD Components must deny or revoke a CAC if the individual fails to respond to the LOD or LOR within the specified time-frame or the response to the written statement has not provided a basis to reverse the decision.
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<P>(ii) Denial or revocation of a CAC must comply with applicable governing laws and regulations:
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<P>(A) The U.S. Coast Guard shall afford individuals appeal rights as established in applicable Department of Homeland Security and U.S. Coast Guard Issuances.
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<P>(B) CAC provides Service members with Geneva Convention protection in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.1, “Identification (ID) Cards Required by the Geneva Conventions” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100001p.pdf</I>), and authorized benefits (e.g. medical) and must not be revoked or denied pursuant to the provisions of this part. CAC for Military Service members will be surrendered only upon separation, discharge, or retirement.
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<P>(C) In certain instances a CAC provides other benefits or specific privileges to civilian employees (e.g. medical, post exchange and commissary) when assigned overseas long-term; or protected status to civilian employees and contractors who are accompanying U.S. forces during overseas deployments in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.1. CAC for DoD civilians or contractors in this circumstance will not be revoked pursuant to the provisions of this part, but may be surrendered as part of other adverse employment or contracting actions or procedures.
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<P>(iii) When eligibility is denied or revoked, the CAC shall be recovered whenever practicable, and shall immediately be rendered inoperable. In addition, agency's physical and logical access systems shall immediately be updated to eliminate the use of the CAC for access.
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<P>(6) <I>Appeals.</I> (i) Individuals who have been denied a CAC or have had a CAC revoked due to an unfavorable credentialing determination must be entitled to appeal the determination in accordance with the following procedures:
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<P>(A) Except as stated in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, new civilian and contractor applicants who have been denied a CAC may elect to appeal to a three member board composed of not more than one security representative and one human resources representative.
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<P>(B) Contractor employees who have had their CAC revoked may appeal the unfavorable determination to the DOHA in accordance with the established administrative process set out in DoD Directive 5220.6.
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<P>(ii) This appeal process does not apply when a CAC is denied or revoked as a result of either an unfavorable suitability determination consistent with 5 CFR part 731 or a decision to deny or revoke eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility for a sensitive national security position, since the person is already entitled to seek review in accordance with applicable suitability or national security procedures. Likewise, there is no right to appeal when the decision to deny the CAC is based on the results of a separate determination to disqualify the person from an appointment in the excepted service or to bar the person from working for or on behalf of a Federal department or agency.
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<P>(iii) The DoD Component will notify the individual in writing of the final determination and provide a statement that this determination is not subject to further appeal.
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<P>(7) <I>Recording Final Determination.</I> Immediately following final adjudication, the sponsoring activity must record the final eligibility determination (e.g., active, revoked, denied) in the OPM Central Verification System as directed by OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards Under HSPD-12.” DoD Component records will document the adjudicative rationale. Adjudicative records shall be made available to authorized recipients as required for appeal purposes.
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<P>(c) <I>Basic Adjudicative Standards.</I> (1) A CAC will not be issued to a person if the individual is known to be or reasonably suspected of being a terrorist.
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<P>(i) A CAC must not be issued to a person if the individual is known to be or reasonably suspected of being a terrorist. Individuals entrusted with access to Federal property and information systems must not put the U.S. Government at risk or provide an avenue for terrorism.
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<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include evidence that the individual has knowingly and willfully been involved with reportable domestic or international terrorist contacts or foreign intelligence entities, counterintelligence activities, indicators, or other behaviors described in DoD Directive 5240.06, “Counterintelligence Awareness and Reporting (CIAR)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/524006p.pdf</I>).
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<P>(2) A CAC will not be issued to a person if the employer is unable to verify the individual's claimed identity.
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<P>(i) A CAC must not be issued to a person if the DoD component is unable to verify the individual's claimed identity. To be considered eligible for a CAC, the individual's identity must be clearly authenticated. The CAC must not be issued when identity cannot be authenticated.
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<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
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<P>(A) The individual claimed it was not possible to provide two identity source documents from the list of acceptable documents in Form I-9, Office of Management and Budget No. 1115-0136, “Employment Eligibility Verification,”(available at <I>http://www.uscis.gov/files/form/i-9.pdf</I>) or provided only one identity source document from the list of acceptable documents.
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<P>(B) The individual did not appear in person as required by Federal Information Processing Standards Publication 201-2.
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<P>(C) The individual refused to cooperate with the documentation and investigative requirements to validate his or her identity.
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<P>(D) The investigation failed to confirm the individual's claimed identity.
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<P>(iii) No conditions can mitigate inability to verify the applicant's identity.
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<P>(3) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual has submitted fraudulent information concerning his or her identity.
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<P>(i) A CAC must not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual has submitted fraudulent information concerning his or her identity in an attempt to obtain the current credential.
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<P>(A) Substitution occurred in the identity proofing process; the individual who appeared on one occasion was not the same person that appeared on another occasion.
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<P>(B) The fingerprints associated with the identity do not belong to the person attempting to obtain a CAC.
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<P>(ii) No conditions can mitigate submission of fraudulent information in an attempt to obtain a current credential.
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<P>(4) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will attempt to gain unauthorized access to classified documents, information protected by the Privacy Act, information that is proprietary in nature, or other sensitive or protected information.
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<P>(i) Individuals must comply with information-handling regulations and rules. Individuals must properly handle classified and protected information such as sensitive or proprietary information.
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<P>(ii) Individuals should not attempt to gain unauthorized access to classified documents or other sensitive or protected information. Unauthorized access to U.S. Government information or improper use of U.S. Government information once access is granted may pose a significant risk to national security, may compromise individual privacy, and may make public information that is proprietary in nature, thus compromising the operations and missions of Federal agencies.
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<P>(iii) A CAC must not be issued if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will attempt to gain unauthorized access to classified documents, information protected by the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, information that is proprietary in nature, or other sensitive or protected information.
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<P>(iv) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include any attempt to gain unauthorized access to classified, sensitive, proprietary or other protected information.
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<P>(v) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
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<P>(A) Since the time of the last act or activities, the person has demonstrated a favorable change in behavior.
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<P>(B) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's ability to safeguard protected information.
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<P>(5) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will use an identity credential outside the workplace unlawfully or inappropriately.
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<P>(i) A CAC must not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will use an identity credential outside the workplace unlawfully or inappropriately.
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<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
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<P>(A) Documented history of fraudulent requests for credentials or other official documentation.
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<P>(B) Previous incidents in which the individual used credentials or other official documentation to circumvent rules or regulations.
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<P>(C) A history of incidents involving misuse of credentials that put physical assets or personal property at risk.
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<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
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<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's ability and willingness to use credentials lawfully and appropriately.
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<P>(6) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will use Federally-controlled information systems unlawfully, make unauthorized modifications to such systems, corrupt or destroy such systems, or engage in inappropriate uses of such systems.
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<P>(i) Individuals must comply with rules, procedures, guidelines, or regulations pertaining to information technology systems and properly protect sensitive systems, networks, and information. The individual should not attempt to use federally-controlled information systems unlawfully, make unauthorized modifications, corrupt or destroy, or engage in inappropriate uses of such systems. A CAC must not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe the individual will do so or has done so in the past.
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<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
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<P>(A) Illegal, unauthorized, or inappropriate use of an information technology system or component.
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<P>(B) Unauthorized modification, destruction, manipulation of information, software, firmware, or hardware to corrupt or destroy information technology systems or data.
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<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
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<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's ability and willingness to conform to rules and regulations for use of information technology systems.
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<P>(d) <I>Supplemental Adjudicative Standards.</I> (1) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe, based on the individual's misconduct or negligence in employment, that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
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<P>(i) An individual's employment misconduct or negligence may put people, property, or information systems at risk.
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<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
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<P>(A) A previous history of intentional wrongdoing on the job, disruptive, violent, or other acts that may pose an unacceptable risk to people, property, or information systems.
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<P>(B) A pattern of dishonesty or rule violations in the workplace which put people, property or information at risk.
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<P>(C) A documented history of misusing workplace information systems to view, download, or distribute pornography.
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<P>(D) Violation of written or recorded commitments to protect information made to an employer, such as breach(es) of confidentiality or the release of proprietary or other information.
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<P>(E) Failure to comply with rules or regulations for the safeguarding of classified, sensitive, or other protected information.
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<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
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<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current trustworthiness or good judgment relating to the safety of people and proper safeguarding of property and information systems.
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<P>(B) The individual was not adequately warned that the conduct was unacceptable and could not reasonably be expected to know that the conduct was wrong.
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<P>(C) The individual made prompt, good-faith efforts to correct the behavior.
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<P>(D) The individual responded favorably to counseling or remedial training and has since demonstrated a positive attitude toward the discharge of information-handling or security responsibilities.
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<P>(2) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe, based on the individual's criminal or dishonest conduct, that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's conduct involving questionable judgment, lack of candor, dishonesty, or unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations can raise questions about his or her reliability or trustworthiness and may put people, property, or information systems at risk. An individual's past criminal or dishonest conduct may put people, property, or information systems at risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(A) A single serious crime or multiple lesser offenses which put the safety of people at risk or threaten the protection of property or information. A person's convictions for burglary may indicate that granting a CAC poses an unacceptable risk to the U.S. Government's physical assets and to employees' personal property on a U.S. Government facility.
</P>
<P>(B) Charges or admission of criminal conduct relating to the safety of people and proper protection of property or information systems, regardless of whether the person was formally charged, formally prosecuted, or convicted.
</P>
<P>(C) Dishonest acts (e.g., theft, accepting bribes, falsifying claims, perjury, forgery, or attempting to obtain identity documentation without proper authorization).
</P>
<P>(D) Deceptive or illegal financial practices such as embezzlement, employee theft, check fraud, income tax evasion, expense account fraud, filing deceptive loan statements, or other intentional financial breaches of trust.
</P>
<P>(E) Actions involving violence or sexual behavior of a criminal nature that poses an unacceptable risk if access is granted to federally-controlled facilities or federally-controlled information systems. For example, convictions for sexual assault may indicate that granting a CAC poses an unacceptable risk to the life and safety of persons on U.S. Government facilities.
</P>
<P>(F) Financial irresponsibility may raise questions about the individual's honesty and put people, property or information systems at risk, although financial debt should not in and of itself be cause for denial.
</P>
<P>(G) Deliberate omission, concealment, or falsification of relevant facts or deliberately providing false or misleading information to an employer, investigator, security official, competent medical authority, or other official U.S. Government representative, particularly when doing so results in personal benefit or which results in a risk to the safety of people and proper safeguarding of property and information systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor in nature, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur.
</P>
<P>(B) Charges were dismissed or evidence was provided that the person did not commit the offense and details and reasons support his or her innocence.
</P>
<P>(C) Improper or inadequate advice from authorized personnel or legal counsel significantly contributed to the individual's omission, of information. When confronted, the individual provided an accurate explanation and made prompt, good-faith effort to correct the situation.
</P>
<P>(D) Evidence has been supplied of successful rehabilitation, including but not limited to remorse or restitution, job training or higher education, good employment record, constructive community involvement, or passage of time without recurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe, based on the individual's material, intentional false statement, deception, or fraud in connection with Federal or contract employment, that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(i) The individual's conduct involving questionable judgment, lack of candor, or unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations can raise questions about an individual's honesty, reliability, trustworthiness, and put people, property, or information systems at risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include material, intentional falsification, deception or fraud related to answers or information provided during the employment process for the current or a prior Federal or contract employment (e.g., on the employment application or other employment, appointment or investigative documents, or during interviews.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) The misstated or omitted information was so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur.
</P>
<P>(B) The misstatement or omission was unintentional or inadvertent and was followed by a prompt, good-faith effort to correct the situation.
</P>
<P>(4) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe, based on the nature or duration of the individual's alcohol abuse without evidence of substantial rehabilitation, that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's abuse of alcohol may put people, property, or information systems at risk. Alcohol abuse can lead to the exercise of questionable judgment or failure to control impulses, and may put people, property, or information systems at risk, regardless of whether he or she is diagnosed as an abuser of alcohol or alcohol dependent. A person's long-term abuse of alcohol without evidence of substantial rehabilitation may indicate that granting a CAC poses an unacceptable safety risk in a U.S. Government facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(A) A pattern of alcohol-related arrests.
</P>
<P>(B) Alcohol-related incidents at work, such as reporting for work or duty in an intoxicated or impaired condition, or drinking on the job.
</P>
<P>(C) Current continuing abuse of alcohol.
</P>
<P>(D) Failure to follow any court order regarding alcohol education, evaluation, treatment, or abstinence.
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual acknowledges his or her alcoholism or issues of alcohol abuse, provides evidence of actions taken to overcome this problem, and has established a pattern of abstinence (if alcohol dependent) or responsible use (if an abuser of alcohol).
</P>
<P>(B) The individual is participating in counseling or treatment programs, has no history of previous treatment or relapse, and is making satisfactory progress.
</P>
<P>(C) The individual has successfully completed inpatient or outpatient counseling or rehabilitation along with any required aftercare. He or she has demonstrated a clear and established pattern of modified consumption or abstinence in accordance with treatment recommendations, such as participation in an alcohol treatment program. The individual has received a favorable prognosis by a duly qualified medical professional or a licensed clinical social worker who is a staff member of a recognized alcohol treatment program.
</P>
<P>(5) A CAC will not be issued to a person if there is a reasonable basis to believe, based on the nature or duration of the individual's illegal use of narcotics, drugs, or other controlled substances without evidence of substantial rehabilitation, that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's abuse of drugs may put people, property, or information systems at risk. Illegal use of narcotics, drugs, or other controlled substances, to include abuse of prescription or over-the-counter drugs, can raise questions about his or her trustworthiness, or ability or willingness to comply with laws, rules, and regulations. For example, a person's long-term illegal use of narcotics without evidence of substantial rehabilitation may indicate that granting a CAC poses an unacceptable safety risk in a U.S. Government facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(A) Current or recent illegal drug use, serious narcotic, or other controlled substance offense.
</P>
<P>(B) A pattern of drug-related arrests or problems in employment.
</P>
<P>(C) Illegal drug possession, including cultivation, processing, manufacture, purchase, sale, or distribution of illegal drugs, or possession of drug paraphernalia.
</P>
<P>(D) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical professional (e.g., physician, clinical psychologist, or psychiatrist) of drug abuse or drug dependence.
</P>
<P>(E) Evaluation of drug abuse or drug dependence by a licensed clinical social worker who is a staff member of a recognized drug treatment program.
</P>
<P>(F) Failure to successfully complete a drug treatment program prescribed by a duly qualified medical professional.
</P>
<P>(G) Any illegal drug use after formally agreeing to comply with rules or regulations prohibiting drug use.
</P>
<P>(H) Any illegal use or abuse of prescription or over-the-counter drugs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was so infrequent, or happened under such circumstances that it is unlikely to recur (e.g., clear, lengthy break since last use; strong evidence the use will not occur again).
</P>
<P>(B) A demonstrated intent not to abuse any drugs in the future, such as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Abstaining from drug use.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Disassociating from drug-using associates and contacts.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Changing or avoiding the environment where drugs were used.
</P>
<P>(C) Abuse of prescription drugs followed a severe or prolonged illness during which these drugs were prescribed and abuse has since ended.
</P>
<P>(D) Satisfactory completion of a prescribed drug treatment program, including but not limited to rehabilitation and aftercare requirements without recurrence of abuse, and a favorable prognosis by a duly qualified medical professional.
</P>
<P>(6) A CAC will not be issued to a person if a statutory or regulatory bar prevents the individual's contract employment; or would prevent Federal employment under circumstances that furnish a reasonable basis to believe that issuance of a CAC poses an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose of this standard is to verify whether there is a bar on contract employment, and whether the contract employee is subject to a Federal employment debarment for reasons that also pose an unacceptable risk in the contracting context. For example, a person's 5-year bar on Federal employment based on a felony conviction related to inciting a riot or civil disorder, as specified in 5 U.S.C. 7313, may indicate that granting a CAC poses an unacceptable risk to persons, property, and assets in U.S. Government facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(A) A debarment was imposed by OPM, DoD, or other Federal agencies when the conduct poses an unacceptable risk to people, property, or information systems.
</P>
<P>(B) The suitability debarment was based on the presence of serious suitability issues when the conduct poses an unacceptable risk to people, property, or information systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) Applicant proves the reason(s) for the debarment no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(B) The debarment is job or position-specific and is not applicable to the job currently under consideration.
</P>
<P>(7) A CAC will not be issued to a person if the individual has knowingly and willfully engaged in acts or activities designed to overthrow the U.S. Government by force.
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals entrusted with access to U.S. Government property and information systems must not put the U.S. Government at risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Therefore, conditions that may be disqualifying include:
</P>
<P>(A) Illegal involvement in, support of, training to commit, or advocacy of any act of sabotage, espionage, treason or sedition against the United States of America.
</P>
<P>(B) Association or agreement with persons who attempt to or commit any of the acts in paragraph (d)(7)(ii)(A) of this section with the specific intent to further those unlawful aims.
</P>
<P>(C) Association or agreement with persons or organizations that advocate, threaten, or use force or violence, or use any other illegal or unconstitutional means in an effort to overthrow or influence the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(iii) Circumstances relevant to the determination of whether there is a reasonable basis to believe there is an unacceptable risk include:
</P>
<P>(A) The behavior happened so long ago, was minor, or happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current trustworthiness.
</P>
<P>(B) The person was not aware of the person's or organization's dedication to illegal, treasonous, or seditious activities or did not have the specific intent to further the illegal, treasonous, or seditious ends of the person or organization.
</P>
<P>(C) The individual did not have the specific intent to incite others to advocate, threaten, or use force or violence, or use any other illegal or unconstitutional means to engage in illegal, treasonous, or seditious activities.
</P>
<P>(D) The individual's involvement in the activities was for an official purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="158" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 158—OPERATIONAL CONTRACT SUPPORT (OCS) OUTSIDE THE UNITED STATES 




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 110-181; Pub. L. 110-417.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 26480, May 1, 2023, unless otherwise noted.








</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 158.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures for operational contract support (OCS), including contract support integration, contracting support, management, and deployment of defense contractor personnel in applicable operations outside the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to contracts and contractor personnel supporting DoD Components operating outside the United States in contingency operations, humanitarian assistance, or peace operations and other activities, including operations and exercises as determined by a Combatant Commander or as directed by the Secretary of Defense.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, the following terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition.</I> The acquiring by contract with appropriated funds of supplies or services (including construction) by and for the use of the Federal Government through purchase or lease, whether the supplies or services are already in existence or must be created, developed, demonstrated, and evaluated. Acquisition begins at the point when agency needs are established and includes the description of requirements to satisfy agency needs, solicitation and selection of sources, award of contracts, contract financing, contract performance, contract administration, and those technical and management functions directly related to the process of fulfilling agency needs by contract.
</P>
<P><I>Applicable operations.</I> Contingency operations, humanitarian assistance, or peace operations conducted outside the United States and other activities, including operations and exercises outside the United States as determined by a combatant commander (CCDR) or as directed by the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Austere environment.</I> Areas where applicable operations may be conducted that are in remote, isolated locations, where access to modern comforts and resources may be limited or non-existent.
</P>
<P><I>Civil augmentation program.</I> External support contracts designed to augment Military Department logistics capabilities with contracted support in both preplanned and short-notice operations.
</P>
<P><I>Contingency contract.</I> A legally binding agreement for supplies, services, and/or construction let by a U.S. Government contracting officer in the operational area, or that has a prescribed area of performance within an operational area.
</P>
<P><I>Contingency operation.</I> A military operation that is either designated by the Secretary of Defense as a contingency operation or becomes a contingency operation as a matter of law as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13).
</P>
<P><I>Contract administration.</I> The processes and procedures of contracting, from contract award through closeout, that includes oversight efforts by contracting professionals and designated non-contracting personnel to ensure that supplies, services, and/or construction are delivered and/or performed in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Contract support integration.</I> The coordination and synchronization of contracted support executed in a designated operational area in support of military operations.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting.</I> Purchasing, renting, leasing, or otherwise obtaining supplies or services from nonfederal sources. Contracting includes description (but not determination) of supplies and services required, selection, and solicitation of sources, preparation and award of contracts, and all phases of contract administration. It does not include making grants or cooperative agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer.</I> A person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings. The term includes certain authorized representatives of the contracting officer acting within the limits of their authority as delegated by the contracting officer. “Administrative contracting officer (ACO)” refers to a contracting officer who is administering contracts. “Termination contracting officer (TCO)” refers to a contracting officer who is settling terminated contracts. A single contracting officer may be responsible for duties in any or all of these areas.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting Officer's Representative (COR).</I> An individual, including a contracting officer's technical representative (COTR), designated and authorized in writing by the contracting officer to perform specific technical or administrative functions.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting support.</I> The coordination of contracts and execution of contracting authority by a warranted contracting officer that legally binds commercial entities to perform contractual requirements in support of DoD operational requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor management.</I> The oversight and integration of contractor personnel and associated equipment providing support to military operations.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor personnel.</I> Any individual, employed by a firm, corporation, partnership, or association, employed under contract with the DoD to furnish services, supplies, or construction. Contractor personnel may include U.S. citizens and host nation and third country national (TCN) individuals.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor personnel accountability.</I> The process of identifying, capturing, and recording the personally identifiable information and assigned permanent duty location of an individual contractor employee through the use of a designated database.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor personnel visibility.</I> Information on the daily location, movement, status, and identity of contractor personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Contractors Authorized to Accompany the Force (CAAF).</I> Contractor personnel and all tiers of subcontractor personnel authorized to accompany U.S. Armed Forces in applicable operations outside of the United States who have been afforded this status through the issuance of a Letter of Authorization (LOA). CAAF generally include all U.S. citizen and TCN employees not normally residing within the operational area whose area of performance is in the direct vicinity of the U.S. Armed Forces and who are routinely co-located with the U.S. Armed Forces. In some cases, CCDR subordinate commanders may designate mission-essential host nation (HN) or local national (LN) contractor personnel (<I>e.g.,</I> interpreters) as CAAF. CAAF includes contractor personnel previously identified as contractors deploying with the force. CAAF status does not apply to contractor personnel within U.S. territory working in support of contingency operations outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Defense contractor.</I> Any individual, firm, corporation, partnership, association, or other legal non-Federal entity that enters into a contract directly with the DoD to furnish services, supplies, or construction.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Components.</I> Includes the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands (CCMDs), the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities.
</P>
<P><I>Essential contractor service.</I> A service provided by a firm or an individual under contract to the DoD to support mission-essential functions, such as support of vital systems, including ships owned, leased, or operated in support of military missions or roles at sea; associated support activities, including installation, garrison, and base support services; and similar services provided to foreign military sales customers under the Security Assistance Program. Services are essential if the effectiveness of defense systems or operations has the potential to be seriously impaired by the interruption of these services, as determined by the appropriate functional commander or civilian equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Expeditionary Contract Administration (ECA).</I> Contract administration conducted during joint or other expeditionary operations. Formerly known as the Contingency Contract Administrative Services or CCAS.
</P>
<P><I>Expeditionary operations.</I> Activities organized to achieve a specific objective in a foreign country.
</P>
<P><I>External support contracts.</I> Contracts awarded by contracting organizations whose contracting authority does not derive directly from the theater support contracting head(s) of contracting activity or from systems support contracting authorities.
</P>
<P><I>Host nation (HN).</I> A nation that permits, either in writing or through other official provision of consent, government representatives or agencies and/or agencies of another nation to operate, under specified conditions, within its territory.
</P>
<P><I>Hostile environment.</I> Operational environment in which local government forces, whether opposed to or receptive to operations that a unit intends to conduct, do not have control of the territory and population in the intended operational area.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated personnel.</I> U.S. military, DoD civilians, and contractor personnel (and others designated by the President or Secretary of Defense) who are unaccounted for as an individual or a group while supporting an applicable operation and are, or may be, in a situation where they must survive, evade, resist, or escape.
</P>
<P><I>Law of war.</I> The treaties and customary international law binding on the United States that regulate: the resort to armed force; the conduct of hostilities and the protection of war victims in international and non-international armed conflict; belligerent occupation; and the relationships between belligerent, neutral, and non-belligerent States. Sometimes also called the “law of armed conflict” or “international humanitarian law,” the law of war is specifically intended to address the circumstances of armed conflict. Consult the DoD Law of War Manual (available at <I>https://dod.defense.gov/Portals/1/Documents/pubs/DoD%20Law%20of%20War%20Manual%20-%20June%202015%20Updated%20Dec%202016.pdf?ver=2016-12-13-172036-190</I>) for an authoritative statement on the law of war.
</P>
<P><I>Letter of authorization (LOA).</I> A document issued by a contracting officer or his or her designee that authorizes contractor personnel to accompany the force to travel to, from, and within an operational area, and outlines U.S. Government authorized support authorizations within the operational area, as agreed to under the terms and conditions of the contract. For more information, see 48 CFR subpart 225.3.
</P>
<P><I>Local national (LN).</I> An individual who is a permanent resident of the nation in which the United States is conducting operations.
</P>
<P><I>Long-term care.</I> A variety of services that help a person with comfort, personal, or wellness needs. These services assist in the activities of daily living, including such things as bathing and dressing. Sometimes known as custodial care.
</P>
<P><I>Mission-essential functions.</I> Those organizational activities that must be performed under all circumstances to achieve DoD component missions or responsibilities, as determined by the appropriate functional commander or civilian equivalent. Failure to perform or sustain these functions would significantly affect the DoD's ability to provide vital services or exercise authority, direction, and control.
</P>
<P><I>Non-CAAF.</I> Personnel who are not designated as CAAF, such as LN employees and non-LN employees who are permanent residents in the operational area or TCNs not routinely residing with the U.S. Armed Forces (and TCN expatriates who are permanent residents in the operational area), who perform support functions away from the close proximity of, and do not reside with, the U.S. Armed Forces. U.S. Government-furnished support to non-CAAF is typically limited to force protection, emergency medical care, and basic human needs (<I>e.g.,</I> bottled water, latrine facilities, security, and food when necessary) when performing their jobs in the direct vicinity of the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P><I>Operational area.</I> An overarching term encompassing more descriptive terms (such as area of responsibility and joint operations area) for geographic areas where military operations are conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Operational contract support (OCS).</I> The ability to orchestrate and synchronize the provision of integrated contract support and management of contractor personnel providing support to command-directed operations within a designated operational area.
</P>
<P><I>Operationally critical support.</I> A critical source of supply for airlift, sealift, intermodal transportation services, or logistical support that is essential to the mobilization, deployment, or sustainment of the U.S. Armed Forces in applicable operations.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contractor.</I> Any supplier, distributor, vendor, or firm that has entered into a contract with the United States government.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement centers.</I> Centers at selected installations that ensure necessary accountability, training, and processing actions are taken to prepare personnel for onward movement and deployment to a designated operational area.
</P>
<P><I>Requiring activity.</I> A military or other designated supported organization that identifies the need for and receives contracted support to meet mission requirements during military operations.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor.</I> Any supplier, distributor, vendor, or firm that furnishes supplies or services to or for a prime contractor or another subcontractor.
</P>
<P><I>Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker-Enterprise Suite (SPOT-ES).</I> A common joint database used to maintain contractor personnel visibility and accountability in applicable operations. References to SPOT-ES in this part will refer to that system or any database system that supersedes it.
</P>
<P><I>Systems support contract.</I> Contracts awarded by Military Service acquisition program management offices that provide fielding support, technical support, maintenance support, and, in some cases, repair parts support, for selected military weapon and support systems.
</P>
<P><I>Theater business clearance.</I> A CCDR policy or process to ensure visibility of and control over systems support and external support contracts executing or delivering support in designated areas of operations.
</P>
<P><I>Theater support contract.</I> A type of contract awarded by contracting officers deployed to an operational area serving under the direct contracting authority of the Military Service component, special operations force command, or designated joint contracting authority for the designated operation.
</P>
<P><I>Total force.</I> The organizations, units, and individuals that comprise the DoD resources for implementing the National Security Strategy. It includes DoD Active and Reserve Component military personnel, military retired members, DoD civilian personnel (including foreign national direct- and indirect-hires, as well as nonappropriated fund employees), contractor personnel, and host-nation support personnel. (For source information, see paragraph (a) of appendix A to this part.)
</P>
<P><I>Uncertain environment.</I> Operational environment in which host government forces, whether opposed to or receptive to operations that a unit intends to conduct, do not have totally effective control of the territory and population in the intended operational area.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Defense contractor personnel are part of the total force. (See paragraph (a) of appendix A of this part).
</P>
<P>(b) DoD Components implement OCS functions, including contract support integration, contracting support, and contractor management, during applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(c) DoD Components will use contracted support only in appropriate situations, consistent with 48 CFR subpart 7.5, 48 CFR subpart 207.5, and Office of Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP) Policy Letter 11-01 (available at <I>https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2011/09/12/2011-23165/publication-of-the-office-of-federal-procurement-policy-ofpp-policy-letter-11-01-performance-of</I>), and paragraph (b) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Generally, contractors are responsible for providing their employees with all life, mission, medical, logistics, and administrative support necessary to perform the contract. However, in many operations, especially in those in which conditions are austere, hostile, and/or non-permissive, the decision may be made that it is in the interest of the U.S. Government to allow for selected life, mission, medical, logistics, and administrative support to be provided to contractor personnel to ensure continuation of essential contractor services, consistent with DoD regulations. Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF) may receive U.S. Government-furnished support commensurate with the operational situation in accordance with the terms of the contract.
</P>
<P>(e) A common joint database (<I>i.e.,</I> the Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker-Enterprise Suite (SPOT-ES) or its successor) will be used to maintain contractor personnel visibility and accountability in applicable operations. References to SPOT-ES in this part will refer to that system or any database system that supersedes it for contractor personnel visibility and accountability.
</P>
<P>(f) Solicitations and contracts will:
</P>
<P>(1) Require defense contractors to provide personnel who are ready to perform contract duties in applicable operations and environments by verifying the medical, dental, and psychological fitness of their employees and, if applicable, by ensuring currency of any professional qualifications and associated certification requirements needed for employees to perform contractual duties.
</P>
<P>(2) Incorporate contractual terms and clauses into the contract that are consistent with applicable host nation (HN) laws and agreements or designated operational area performance considerations.
</P>
<P>(g) Contracts for highly sensitive, classified, cryptologic, or intelligence projects and programs must implement this rule to the maximum extent possible, consistent with applicable laws, Executive orders, presidential directives, and relevant DoD issuances. To the extent that contracting activities are unable to comply with this rule, they should submit a request for a waiver to the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD(A&amp;S)). Waiver requests should include specific information providing the rationale regarding the inability to comply with this rule. The USD(A&amp;S) will consider these requests in coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence and Security.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Planning considerations and requirements; requirements for publication.</I> CCDRs will make management policies and specific OCS requirements for contractual support available to affected contractor personnel. The Geographic Combatant Commander (GCC) OCS web page will set forth the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Theater business clearance (TBC) requirements for contracts currently being performed and delivering contracted support in the CCDR's AOR.
</P>
<P>(2) Restrictions imposed by applicable local laws, international law, status of forces agreements (SOFAs), and other agreements with the HN.
</P>
<P>(3) CAAF-related deployment requirements, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-deployment and required individual protective equipment (IPE) training.
</P>
<P>(ii) Physical health standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) Immunization and medical requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Deployment procedures and theater reception.
</P>
<P>(4) Reporting requirements for accountability and visibility of contractor personnel and associated contracts.
</P>
<P>(5) Operational security (OPSEC) plans and restrictions.
</P>
<P>(6) Force protection policies.
</P>
<P>(7) Personnel recovery procedures.
</P>
<P>(8) Availability of medical and other authorized U.S. Government support (AGS).
</P>
<P>(9) Redeployment procedures, including disposition of U.S. Government-furnished equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contractual relationships.</I> The contract provides the only legal basis for the contractual relationship between the DoD and the contractor. The contracting officer is the only individual with the legal authority to enter into such a binding relationship with the contractor.
</P>
<P>(1) Commanders have the ability to restrict installation access, and contractor personnel must comply with applicable CCDR and local commander force protection policies. However, military commanders or unit personnel do not have contracting authority over contractors or contractor personnel and may not direct contractors or contractor personnel to perform contractual tasks. Moreover, the contract does not provide a basis for commanders to exercise operational control or tactical control over contractors or their personnel or to assign or attach contractors or their personnel to a command or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) The contract must specify:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms and conditions under which the contractor is to perform, including minimum acceptable professional and technical standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) The method by which the contracting officer will notify the contractor of the deployment procedures to process contractor personnel who are deploying to the operational area.
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific contractual support terms and agreement between the contractor and DoD.
</P>
<P>(iv) The appropriate flow-down of provisions and clauses to subcontractors and state that the service performed by contractor personnel is not considered to be active duty or active service. For more information, see paragraph (c) in appendix A to this part, and 38 U.S.C. 106, “Active Duty Service Determinations for Civilian or Contractual Groups.”
</P>
<P>(3) The contract must contain applicable clauses to ensure efficient deployment, accountability, visibility, protection, and redeployment of contractor personnel and detail authorized levels of health service, sustainment, and other support that is authorized to be provided to contractor personnel supporting applicable operations outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on contractors performing inherently governmental functions.</I> (1) Paragraph (b) of appendix A of this part, 48 CFR subpart 7.5, 48 CFR subpart 207.5; Public Law 105-270 and Office of Management and Budget Circular No. A-76 (available at <I>https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/circulars/A76/a76_incl_tech_correction.pdf</I>) bar inherently governmental functions and duties from private sector performance.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractor personnel may provide support during applicable operations, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Transporting munitions and other supplies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing communications support.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performing maintenance functions for military equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing force protection and private security services.
</P>
<P>(v) Providing foreign language interpretation and translation services.
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing logistics services, such as billeting and messing.
</P>
<P>(vii) Intelligence surveillance and reconnaissance support.
</P>
<P>(viii) Commercial air assets.
</P>
<P>(3) The requiring official will review each service performed by contractor personnel in applicable operations on a case-by-case basis to ensure compliance with paragraph (b) of appendix A of this part and applicable laws and international agreements.
</P>
<P>(4) Restrictions on use of contractor personnel for private security services. A contractor may be authorized to provide private security services only if such authorization is consistent with applicable U.S., local, and international law, including applicable agreements with the HN or other applicable international agreements, and 32 CFR part 159. For more information, see paragraph (b) of appendix A of this part and 48 CFR subpart 252.2, which provide specific procedures and guidance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Combating trafficking in persons.</I> Trafficking in persons is a violation of U.S. law and internationally recognized human rights, and is incompatible with DoD core values.
</P>
<P>(1) 48 CFR subpart 222.17 and 48 CFR 52.222-50 also known and referred to as Combating Trafficking in Persons, describe how contractors, contracting officers and their representatives, and commanders must deter activities such as prostitution, forced labor, and other related activities contributing to trafficking in persons. For more information, see paragraph (d) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Contracts in support of applicable operations will include terms and provisions that require that the contractor remove personnel from the performance of the contract and return any of its personnel who have been determined to have engaged in any of the activities mentioned in paragraph (h)(4)(v)(H) of this section from the operational area to the home of record, point of origin, or an authorized location at the end of contract performance or sooner as directed by the contracting officer. Once notified of such an incident, the contracting officer will notify the commander responsible in the AOR and provide any information required to support an investigation. For more information, see 48 CFR subpart 222.17 and 48 CFR subpart 42.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Law of war compliance.</I> Contract work statements for contractors and their subcontractors must comply with the policies in paragraph (gg) of appendix A to this part and require contractors that engage in activities governed by the law of war to implement effective programs to prevent violations of the law of war by their employees and subcontractors, including programs for law of war dissemination and periodic training commensurate with each individual's duties and responsibilities. Paragraph (gg) of appendix A includes, among others, DoD policy that “[a]ll military and U.S. civilian employees, contractor personnel, and subcontractors assigned to or accompanying a DoD Component must report through their chain of command all reportable incidents, including those involving allegations of non-DoD personnel having violated the law of war.” Contracts in support of applicable operations must include provisions to require contractor employees to report reportable incidents as defined in paragraph (gg) of appendix A to this part to the appropriate Commander (<I>e.g.,</I> the commander of the unit they are accompanying or the installation to which they are assigned) or command-designated office.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CAAF designation, legal status, credentialing, and security clearance requirements</I>—(1) <I>CAAF designation.</I> (i) CAAF designation is provided to contractor personnel, including all tiers of subcontractor personnel, through a letter of authorization (LOA). CAAF generally include all U.S. citizen and third country national (TCN) employees not normally residing within the operational area whose area of performance is in the direct vicinity of the U.S. Armed Forces and who routinely are co-located with the U.S. Armed Forces, especially in non-permissive environments. Personnel co-located with the U.S. Armed Forces will be afforded CAAF status through an LOA.
</P>
<P>(ii) In some cases, CCDRs or subordinate commanders may designate mission-essential HN or LN contractor personnel as CAAF unless otherwise precluded by HN law, a SOFA, or other agreement. In general, LNs are only afforded CAAF status when they assume great personal risk to perform an essential function.
</P>
<P>(iii) Personnel who do not receive a CAAF designation are referred to as non-CAAF. Individuals' CAAF status may change depending on where their employers or the provisions of their contract details them to work. CAAF designation may affect, but does not necessarily affect, a person's legal status under the law of war and the treatment to which that person is entitled under the 1949 Geneva Conventions if that person falls into the power of the enemy during international armed conflict. Although CAAF are regarded as “persons authorized to accompany the armed forces,” personnel who are not CAAF may also receive this status under the law of war. For more information, see section 4.15 of paragraph (e) of appendix A of this part. In addition, although CAAF designation and access to AGS often coincide, CAAF status does not determine AGS provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal status.</I> In implementing this part, the DoD Component heads must abide by applicable laws, regulations, international agreements, and DoD policy as they relate to contractor personnel performing contractual support in support of applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>HN and third country laws.</I> All contractor personnel must comply with applicable HN and third country laws. The applicability of HN and third country laws may be affected by international agreements (<I>e.g.,</I> agreements between the United States and the HN) and customary international law (<I>e.g.,</I> limits imposed by customary international law on the reach of third country laws).
</P>
<P>(A) The United States, HN, or other countries may hire contractor personnel whose status may change (<I>e.g.,</I> from non-CAAF to CAAF) depending on where in the operational AOR their employers or the provisions of their contracts detail them to work.
</P>
<P>(B) CCDRs, as well as subordinate commanders, Military Service Component commanders, the Directors of the Defense Agencies, and Directors of DoD Field Activities should recognize limiting factors regarding the employment of LN and TCN personnel. Limiting factors include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Imported labor worker permits.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Workforce and hour restrictions.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Medical, life, and disability insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Taxes, customs, and duties.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Cost of living allowances.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Hardship differentials.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Hazardous duty pay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>U.S. laws.</I> U.S. citizens and CAAF, with some exceptions, are subject to U.S. laws and U.S. Government regulations.
</P>
<P>(A) All U.S. citizen and TCN CAAF are subject to potential prosecutorial action under the criminal jurisdiction of the United States, including, but not limited to, 18 U.S.C. 3261, also known and referred to in this part as the Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act of 2000 (MEJA). MEJA extends U.S. federal criminal jurisdiction to certain contractor personnel for offenses committed outside U.S. territory.
</P>
<P>(B) The March 10, 2008, Secretary of Defense Memorandum states that contractor personnel are subject to prosecution pursuant to 10 U.S.C. Chapter 47, also known and referred to in this part as the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), when serving overseas in support of a declared war or contingency, and provides guidance to commanders on the exercise of this UCMJ jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(C) Other U.S. law may allow prosecution of offenses by contractor personnel (<I>e.g.,</I> 18 U.S.C. 7).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>1949 Geneva Conventions.</I> The 1949 Geneva Conventions, including the Geneva Convention Relative to the Treatment of Prisoners of War, may be applicable to certain contractor personnel who fall into the power of the enemy during international armed conflict.
</P>
<P>(i) All contractor personnel may be at risk of injury or death incidental to enemy actions while supporting military operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractor personnel with CAAF status and other contractor personnel who have been authorized to accompany the U.S. Armed Forces and who are at risk of capture and detention by the enemy as prisoners of war will receive an appropriate identification card required by the Geneva Convention Relative to the Treatment of Prisoners of War, consistent with paragraph (f) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) CAAF may be used in support of applicable operations, consistent with the terms of U.S. Government authorization. If they fall into the power of the enemy during international armed conflict, contractor personnel with CAAF status are entitled to prisoner of war status.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credentialing.</I> Contracts must require CAAF to receive an identification card with the Geneva Convention's category of persons authorized to accompany the armed forces. For more information, see paragraphs (f) through (h) of appendix A to this part. At the time of identification card issuance, CAAF must present their SPOT-ES-generated LOA as proof of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(i) Sponsorship must incorporate the processes for confirming eligibility for an identification card. The sponsor is the person affiliated with the DoD or another Federal agency that takes responsibility for verifying and authorizing an applicant's need for a Geneva Convention identification card. A DoD official or employee must sponsor applicants for a common access card (CAC).
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who have multiple DoD personnel category codes (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual who is both a reservist and a contractor) will receive a separate identification card in each personnel category for which they are eligible. Individuals under a single personnel category code may not hold multiple current identification cards of the same form.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Security clearance requirements.</I> To the extent necessary, the contract must require the contractor to provide personnel who have the appropriate security clearance or who are able to satisfy the appropriate background investigation requirements to obtain access required to perform contractual requirements in support of the applicable operation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Considerations for support to contractors</I>—(1) <I>U.S. Government support.</I> Generally, contracts supporting applicable operations must require contractors to provide to their personnel all life, mission, medical, and administrative support necessary to perform the contractual requirements and meet CCDR guidance posted on the GCC OCS web page. In some operations, especially those in which conditions are austere, uncertain, or non-permissive, the CCDR may decide it is in the U.S. Government's interest for the DoD to allow contractor personnel access, consistent with DoD regulations, to selected AGS. The contract must state the level of access to AGS in its terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) In operations where conditions are austere, uncertain, or non-permissive, the contracting officer will consult with the requiring activity to determine if it is in the U.S. Government's interests to allow for selected life, mission, medical, and administrative support to certain contractor personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The solicitation and contract must specify the level of AGS that the U.S. Government will provide to contractor personnel and what support provided to the contractor personnel is reimbursable to the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(iii) Access to DoD benefits facilitated by the identification card may be granted to contractors under certain circumstances. For more information, see paragraph (i) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>IPE.</I> When necessary or directed by the CCDR, the contracting officer will include language in the contract authorizing the issuance of military IPE (<I>e.g.,</I> chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear (CBRN) protective ensemble, body armor, ballistic helmet) to contractor personnel as part of AGS.
</P>
<P>(i) Typically, IPE will be issued by the central issue facility at the deployment center before deployment to the designated operational area and must be accounted for and returned to the U.S. Government or otherwise accounted for, in accordance with appropriate DoD Component regulations, directives, and instructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractor personnel deployment training will include training on the proper care, fitting, and maintenance of protective equipment, whether issued by the U.S. Government or provided by the contractor in accordance with the contractual requirements. This training will include practical exercises within mission-oriented protective posture levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the terms and conditions of a contract require a contractor to provide IPE, such IPE must meet minimum standards as defined by the contract.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clothing.</I> Contractors, or their personnel, must provide their own personal clothing, including casual and work clothing required to perform the contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Generally, CCDRs will not authorize the issuance of military clothing to contractor personnel or will not allow the wearing of military or military look-alike uniforms. Contractor personnel are prohibited from wearing military clothing unless specifically authorized in writing by the CCDR. However, a CCDR or subordinate joint force commander (JFC) deployed forward may authorize contractor personnel to wear standard uniform items for operational reasons. Contracts must include terms and clauses that require that this authorization be provided in writing by the CCDR and that the uniforms are maintained in the possession of authorized contractor personnel at all times.
</P>
<P>(ii) When commanders issue any type of standard uniform item to contractor personnel, care must be taken to ensure that contractor personnel are distinguishable from military personnel through the use of distinctive patches, arm bands, nametags, or headgear, consistent with force protection measures, and that contractor personnel carry the CCDR's written authorization with them at all times.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Weapons.</I> Contractor personnel are not authorized to possess or carry firearms or ammunition during applicable operations, except as provided in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section and 32 CFR part 159. The contract will provide the terms and conditions governing the possession of firearms by contractor personnel. Information on all weapons authorized for contractors and their personnel will be entered into the SPOT-ES database.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mortuary affairs.</I> The DoD Mortuary Affairs Program, as described in paragraph (j) of appendix A to this part, covers all CAAF who die while performing contractual requirements in support of the U.S. Armed Forces. Mortuary affairs support and transportation will be provided on a reimbursable basis for the recovery, identification, and disposition of remains and personal effects of CAAF.
</P>
<P>(i) Every effort must be made to identify remains and account for un-recovered remains of contractor personnel and their dependents who die in military operations, training accidents, and other incidents. The remains of contractor personnel who die as the result of an incident in support of military operations are afforded the same dignity and respect afforded to remains of service members. For more information, see paragraph (k) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD may provide mortuary affairs support and transportation on a reimbursable basis for the recovery, identification, and disposition of remains and personal effects of non-CAAF at the request of the Department of State (DOS) and in accordance with this rule, applicable agreements with the HN, and applicable contract provisions. The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) will coordinate this support with the DOS, including for cost reimbursement to the DoD Component for the provision of this support.
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsibility for coordinating the transfer of non-CAAF remains to the HN or affected nation resides with the GCC in coordination with the DOS, through the respective embassies, or through the International Committee of the Red Cross, the International Federation of the Red Cross or Red Crescent Societies, as appropriate, and in accordance with applicable contract clauses.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Medical support and evacuation.</I> Generally, the DoD will provide only resuscitative care, stabilization, and hospitalization at military medical treatment facilities (MTFs) and assistance with patient movement in emergencies where loss of life, limb, or eyesight could occur. The DoD Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG) and the GCC OCS web pages contain theater-specific contract language to provide contract terms to clarify available healthcare for contractor personnel. During operations in austere, uncertain, or hostile environments, CAAF may encounter situations in which they cannot access adequate medical support in the local area.
</P>
<P>(i) All costs associated with the treatment and transportation of contractor personnel to the selected civilian facility are reimbursable to the U.S. Government and are the responsibility of contractor personnel, their employers, or their health insurance providers. For more information, see paragraph (l) of appendix A to this part. Nothing in this paragraph is intended to affect the allowability of costs incurred under a contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical support and evacuation procedures:
</P>
<P>(A) All CAAF will normally be afforded emergency medical and dental care if injured while supporting applicable operations. Additionally, non-CAAF who are injured while in the vicinity of the U.S. Armed Forces while supporting applicable operations also normally will receive emergency medical and dental care. Emergency medical and dental care includes medical care situations in which life, limb, or eyesight is jeopardized. Examples of emergency medical and dental care include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Examination and initial treatment of victims of sexual assault.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Refills of prescriptions for life-dependent drugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Repair of broken bones, lacerations, and infections.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Traumatic injuries to the teeth.
</P>
<P>(B) MTFs normally will not authorize or provide primary medical or dental care to CAAF. When required and authorized by the CCDR or subordinate JFC, this support must be specifically authorized under the terms and conditions of the contract and detailed in the corresponding LOA. Primary care is not authorized for non-CAAF. Primary care includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Routine inpatient and outpatient services.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Non-emergency evacuation.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Pharmaceutical support (with the exception of emergency refills of prescriptions for life-dependent drugs).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Non-emergency dental services.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Other medical support, as determined by the CCDR or JFC based on recommendations from the cognizant medical authority and the existing capabilities of the forward-deployed MTFs.
</P>
<P>(C) The DoD will not provide long-term care to contractor personnel.
</P>
<P>(D) The CCDR or subordinate commander has the authority to quarantine or restrict movement of contractor personnel. For more information, see paragraph (m) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(E) When CAAF are evacuated for medical reasons from the designated operational area to MTFs funded by the Defense Health Program, normal reimbursement policies will apply for services rendered by the facility. If CAAF require medical evacuation outside the United States, the sending MTF staff will assist the CAAF in making arrangements for transfer to a civilian facility of the CAAF's choice. When U.S. forces provide emergency medical care to LN contractor personnel, these patients will use HN transportation means, when possible, for evacuation or transportation to their local medical systems. For more information, see paragraph (n) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other AGS.</I> 48 CFR subpart 225.3 lists types of support that may be authorized for contractor personnel who are deployed with or otherwise provide support to applicable operations, which may include transportation to and within the operational area, mess operations, quarters, phone service, religious support, and laundry.
</P>
<P>(i) Contractor personnel of U.S. owned-contractors who are supporting DoD activities may be authorized the use of the military postal service. For more information, see paragraph (o) of appendix A to this part. The extent of postal support will be set forth in the contract. The provisions for postal support in such contracts must be reviewed and approved by the applicable CCDR, or the designated representative, and the Military Department concerned before execution of the contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Morale, welfare, and recreation and exchange services are authorized for contractor personnel who are U.S. citizens supporting DoD activities outside the United States. For more information, see paragraphs (p) and (q) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Accountability and visibility of contracts and contractor personnel.</I> (1) During applicable operations, contractors will use SPOT-ES as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) All CAAF will register in SPOT-ES by name.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-CAAF will be registered in SPOT-ES by name if they are performing on a DoD contract for at least 30 consecutive days unless a lesser number of days is requested by the CCDR or if they require access to a U.S. or coalition-controlled installation. Contracting officers will ensure non-CAAF who require access to U.S. or coalition-controlled installations are registered in SPOT-ES before requesting or receiving installation access.
</P>
<P>(iii) All private security contractor personnel and all other contractor personnel authorized to carry weapons, regardless of the length of the performance or contract value, will register in SPOT-ES by name.
</P>
<P>(iv) During operations other than contingency operations, humanitarian assistance, or peace operations, contractors will use SPOT-ES in situations required by the CCDR and as follows:
</P>
<P>(2) To account for:
</P>
<P>(i) All U.S. citizen and TCN contractor personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) All private security contractor personnel and all other contractor personnel authorized to carry weapons, where the designated area and place of performance are outside the United States, regardless of the length of performance or contract value.
</P>
<P>(3) The contracting officer will account for an estimated total number of LNs employed under the contract, by country or on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(4) Contract linguists will register in SPOT-ES in the same manner as other contractor personnel and will also be tracked using the Contract Linguist Enterprise-wide Database. For more information, see paragraph (r) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) LNs should be registered in SPOT-ES by name to improve data quality and reduce confusion during a transition to accountability requirements during a contingency operation, which will require by-name accountability.
</P>
<P>(6) The DoD has designated SPOT-ES as the joint web-based database to assist the CCDRs in maintaining awareness of the nature, extent, and potential risks and capabilities associated with contracted support for contingency operations, humanitarian assistance, and peacekeeping operations, or military exercises designated by the CCDR. To facilitate integration of contractors and other personnel, as directed by the USD(A&amp;S) or the CCDR, and to ensure the accurate forecasting and provision of accountability, visibility, force protection, medical support, personnel recovery, and other related support, the following procedures will help establish, maintain, and validate the accuracy of information in the database.
</P>
<P>(i) SPOT-ES will:
</P>
<P>(A) Serve as the central repository for deployment status and reporting on the contractor personnel as well as other U.S. Government agency contractor personnel, as applicable. For additional information, see paragraph (s) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Track information for all DoD contracts that are awarded in support of applicable operations outside of the United States, in accordance with the SPOT Business Rules and as directed by the USD(A&amp;S), 48 CFR subpart 225.3, or the CCDR. SPOT-ES will collect and report on:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total number of contractor personnel working under contracts entered into as of the end of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total number of contractor personnel performing security functions under contracts entered into with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The total number of contractor personnel killed or wounded who were performing under any contracts entered into with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide personnel accountability via unique identifier (<I>e.g.,</I> Electronic Data Interchange Personnel Identifier or Foreign Identification Number) of contractor personnel and other personnel, as directed by the USD(A&amp;S), 48 CFR subpart 225.3, or the CCDR.
</P>
<P>(D) Contain, or link to, minimum contract information necessary to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Establish and maintain accountability of the personnel in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Maintain information on specific equipment related to the performance of private security contracts.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Maintain oversight information on the contracted support in applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(E) Comply with:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The personnel identity protection program requirements found in paragraphs (t) and (u) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The DoD Information Enterprise architecture. For more information, see paragraph (v) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The interoperability and secure sharing of information requirements found in paragraphs (w) through (y) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before registering in SPOT-ES, contracting officers, company administrators, and U.S. Government administrators or authorities must meet minimum training requirements in the SPOT Business Rules.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor must enter all required data into SPOT-ES before its employees may deploy to or enter a theater of operations, and maintain such data, as directed by the USD(A&amp;S), 48 CFR subpart 225.3, or the CCDR.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contracting officer will enter the DoD contract services or capabilities for all contracts that are awarded in support of applicable operations, including theater support, external support, and systems support contracts, into SPOT-ES consistent with 48 CFR 252.225-7040.
</P>
<P>(v) In accordance with applicable acquisition policy and regulations and under the terms and conditions of each affected contract, all contractors awarded contracts that support applicable operations must input employee data and maintain accountability, by name, of designated contractor personnel in SPOT-ES as required by 48 CFR 252.225-7040.
</P>
<P>(A) Contractors must maintain current status of the daily location of their employees and, when requested, submit to the COR up-to-date, real-time information reflecting all personnel deployed or to be deployed in support of applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(B) Prime contractors must enter up-to-date information regarding their subcontractors at all tiers into SPOT-ES.
</P>
<P>(vi) In all cases, users providing classified information in response to the requirements of this part must report and maintain that information on systems approved for the level of classification of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(7) The contracting officer or his or her designee will ensure a SPOT-ES-generated LOA has been issued to all CAAF who are approved to deploy, as required by 48 CFR 252.225-7040, and selected non-CAAF (<I>e.g.,</I> LN and non-LN employees who are permanent residents in the operational area, or TCNs not routinely residing with the U.S. Armed Forces who perform support functions away from the close proximity of, and do not reside with, the U.S. Armed Forces, and private security contractors), pursuant to 48 CFR subpart 225.3, or as otherwise designated by the CCDR.
</P>
<P>(i) The contract will require that all contractor personnel issued an LOA carry the LOA with them at all times.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved].
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Theater admission requirements.</I> Special area, country, and theater personnel clearance documents must be current, in accordance with the DoD FCG, and coordinated with affected agencies to ensure that entry requirements do not adversely affect accomplishment of mission requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) CAAF employed in support of DoD missions are considered DoD-sponsored personnel for DoD FCG purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Contracting officers must ensure contracts include a requirement for contractor personnel to meet theater personnel clearance requirements and obtain personnel clearances through the Aircraft and Personnel Automated Clearance System before entering a designated theater of operations. For more information, see paragraph (z) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts must require contractor personnel to obtain proper identification credentials, such as passports, visas, and other documents required to enter and exit a designated operational area, and have a required Geneva Conventions identification card, or other appropriate DoD credential from the deploying center.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Deployment procedures.</I> Contracts must contain terms and conditions that detail the need for contractors to follow these credentialing requirements, as required by 48 CFR subpart 225.3, 48 CFR 252.225-7040, and as outlined in the DoD FCG. At a minimum, contracting officers must ensure that contracts address operational area-specific contract requirements and the means by which the DoD will inform contractor personnel of the requirements and procedures applicable to their deployment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deployment center designation.</I> A formally designated group, joint, or Military Department deployment center will be used to conduct deployment and redeployment processing for CAAF, unless contractor-performed theater admission preparation is authorized or waived by the CCDR or designee pursuant to DoDI 3020.41, “Operational Contract Support (OCS).” If the contract contains clauses that specify another U.S. Government-authorized process that incorporates all the functions of a deployment center, such process may also be used by a contractor to conduct deployment and redeployment processing for CAAF.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical preparation.</I> (i) In accordance with § 158.6, contracts must require that contractors provide medically and physically qualified contractor personnel to perform duties in applicable operations, as outlined in the contract.
</P>
<P>(A) Any CAAF deemed unsuitable to deploy during the deployment process due to medical or dental reasons will not be authorized to deploy.
</P>
<P>(B) The Secretary of Defense may direct immunizations as mandatory for CAAF performing essential contractor services.
</P>
<P>(C) For contracts that employ CAAF who are U.S. citizens, the contract must require that contractors make available the medical and dental records of deploying employees who authorize release for this purpose based on this section, applicable cognizant medical authority guidance, and relevant Military Department policy. These records should include current panographic x-rays. For more information, see paragraph (aa) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) U.S. Government personnel may not involuntarily immunize contractor personnel or require contractor personnel to involuntarily disclose their medical records. Therefore, the contracting officer will provide contractors time to notify and/or hire employees who voluntarily consent to U.S. Government medical requirements, including to receiving U.S. Government-required immunizations and disclosing their private medical information to the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(iii) All CAAF will receive medical threat pre-deployment briefings at the deployment center to communicate health risks and countermeasures in the designated operational area. For more information, see paragraph (bb) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(A) In accordance with GCC or JFC plans and orders, contracts must include terms and conditions that fully specify health readiness and force health protection capability, either as a responsibility of the contractor or the DoD Components, to ensure appropriate medical staffing in the operational area.
</P>
<P>(B) Health surveillance activities must include plans for CAAF. For more information, see paragraphs (bb) and (cc) of appendix A to this part. Section 158.6 of this rule further addresses deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) collection and other medical requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training.</I> Joint training policy and guidance applies to both members of the Military Services and contractor personnel. For more information, see paragraph (dd) of appendix A to this part. CCDRs will place standing training requirements on the GCC OCS web pages for reference by contractors. Other training requirements that are specific to an applicable operation will be placed on the GCC OCS web pages shortly after identifying the requirement so that contracting officers can incorporate the training requirement into the appropriate contracts as soon as possible. Training requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be included, or incorporated by reference, in contracts employing contractor personnel supporting applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Include specific requirements established by the CCDR and training required in accordance with this rule, 32 CFR part 159, and paragraphs (ee) through (hh) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deployment center procedures.</I> Affected contracts must require that all CAAF deploying from outside the operational area process through a designated deployment center or a U.S. Government-authorized, contractor-performed deployment processing facility before deploying to an applicable operation and redeploy in the same manner. Upon receiving the contracted company's certification that employees meet deployability requirements, the contracting officer or representative will digitally sign the LOA, which CAAF will then present to officials at the deployment center. The deployment process includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying registration in SPOT-ES.
</P>
<P>(ii) Issuing applicable U.S. Government-furnished equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Verifying the completion of medical and dental screening before arrival.
</P>
<P>(iv) Administering required theater-specific immunizations and medications not available through healthcare providers in the general public.
</P>
<P>(v) Verifying and, when necessary, providing required training, country and cultural awareness briefings, and other training and briefings, as required by the CCDR. Examples of required training include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Law of war, including the 1949 Geneva Conventions and DoD policy to implement the law of war.
</P>
<P>(B) Law and policy applicable to detainee operations and intelligence interrogation operations, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) General orders.
</P>
<P>(D) Standards of conduct.
</P>
<P>(E) Force protection.
</P>
<P>(F) Personnel recovery.
</P>
<P>(G) First aid.
</P>
<P>(H) Combating trafficking in persons.
</P>
<P>(I) OPSEC.
</P>
<P>(J) Anti-terrorism.
</P>
<P>(K) Counterintelligence reporting.
</P>
<P>(L) The use of CBRN protective ensemble.
</P>
<P>(M) Deployment health threats briefing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certification.</I> Contracts supporting applicable operations must include terms and conditions requiring contractors to certify to the authorized U.S. Government representative, before deployment, that each individual has completed all required deployment processing actions.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Legal.</I> Contractor personnel are not entitled to military legal assistance in-theater or at the deployment center. Individual contractor personnel must have their personal legal affairs in order (<I>e.g.,</I> preparing and completing powers of attorney, wills, trusts, and estate plans) before reporting to deployment centers.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Waivers.</I> For required contracted support of 17 days or less in an operational area, the CCDR or designee may waive a portion of the formal procedural requirements pursuant to DoDI 3020.41, “Operational Contract Support (OCS),” which may include the CCDR or designee waiving the requirement in writing for processing through a deployment center. However, the CCDR or designee may not waive the requirements to possess proper identification cards and to establish and maintain accountability for all contractor personnel, or any medical requirement without the prior approval of the cognizant medical authority or their designee. If a contract authorizes contractor personnel to be armed, the requirements of paragraphs (c)(4) and (k)(2) of this section may not be waived.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reception</I>—(1) <I>Designated reception site.</I> In applicable operations, all CAAF must enter into the operational area through a designated reception site.
</P>
<P>(i) Based upon a visual inspection of the LOA, the site will verify that contractor personnel are entered in SPOT-ES and meet theater-specific entry requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractor personnel already in the designated operational area when a contingency is declared must report to the designated reception site as soon as it is operational based on the terms and conditions of the contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) When entering a designated reception site for theater entry processing, if any CAAF does not have the proper documentation to perform in an area, he or she will be refused entry into the theater, and the contracting officer will notify the contractor to take the necessary action to resolve the issue. Should the contractor fail to take action, the CAAF individual will be sent back to his or her departure point, or directed to report to the Military Service Component command or Defense Agency responsible for that specific contract, for theater entrance processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contractor integration.</I> It is critical that CAAF brought into an operational area are properly integrated into the military operation through a formal reception process. At a minimum, they will:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet theater entry requirements and be authorized to enter the theater.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be accounted for in SPOT-ES.
</P>
<P>(iii) Possess any required IPE, including CBRN protective ensemble.
</P>
<P>(iv) Be authorized any contractually required AGS and force protection.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>In-theater management</I>—(1) <I>Conduct and discipline.</I> Contract terms and conditions must require that CAAF comply with CCDR theater orders, applicable directives, laws, and regulations. Non-CAAF who require base access to perform contractual requirements must follow base force protection and security-related procedures, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) The contracting officer may appoint a designee (usually a COR) as a liaison between the contracting officer and the contractor and requiring activity. This designee monitors and reports contractor performance and requiring activity concerns to the contracting officer. In emergency situations (<I>e.g.,</I> enemy or terrorist actions or natural disaster), the cognizant military commander may recommend or issue warnings or messages urging contractor personnel to take emergency actions to remove themselves from harm's way or to take other appropriate self-protective measures. During armed conflict, contractor personnel are not exempt from the authority that commanders may exercise to control the movement of persons and vehicles within the immediate vicinity of operations. For more information, see sections 5.2.2.1, 13.8, and 14.6 of paragraph (e) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor is responsible for disciplining contractor personnel, as necessary and appropriate. However, in accordance with 48 CFR 252.225-7040(h)(1), the contracting officer may direct the contractor, at its own expense, to remove and replace any contractor personnel who jeopardize or interfere with mission accomplishment, who threaten force protection measures, or who fail to comply with or violate applicable requirements of the contract. Such action may:
</P>
<P>(A) Include contractor personnel whose actual field performance (certification or professional standard) is below the contractual requirement.
</P>
<P>(B) Be taken at U.S. Government discretion without prejudice to the contractor's rights under any other provision of the contract. A commander also has the authority to take certain actions affecting contractor personnel, such as the ability to revoke or suspend security access or impose restrictions from access to military installations or specific worksites.
</P>
<P>(iii) CAAF, or individuals employed by or accompanying the Military Services outside the United States, are subject to potential prosecutorial action under the criminal jurisdiction of the United States, pursuant to sections 7, 2441, 2442, or 3261 of Title 18, U.S.C., or other provisions of U.S. law, including the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(A) Commanders possess significant authority to act whenever criminal acts are committed by anyone subject to the MEJA and UCMJ that relates to or affects the commander's responsibilities. This includes situations in which the alleged offender's precise identity or actual affiliation is undetermined. The March 10, 2008, Secretary of Defense Memorandum provides guidance to commanders on the exercise of this UCMJ jurisdiction over DoD contractor personnel serving with or accompanying the U.S. Armed Forces overseas during declared war and in contingency operations.
</P>
<P>(B) Contracting officers will ensure that contractors are aware of their employees' status and liabilities as CAAF and the required training associated with this status.
</P>
<P>(C) CCDRs retain authority to respond to an incident, restore safety and order, investigate, apprehend suspected offenders, and otherwise address the immediate needs of the situation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Department of Justice may prosecute misconduct under applicable Federal laws, including MEJA and 18 U.S.C. 2441. Contractor personnel also are normally subject to the domestic criminal law of the local country. When confronted with disciplinary problems involving contractor personnel, commanders should seek the assistance of their legal staff, the contracting officer responsible for the contract, and the contractor's management team.
</P>
<P>(v) In the event of an investigation of reported offenses allegedly committed by or against contractor personnel, appropriate investigative authorities will keep the contracting officer informed, to the extent possible without compromising the investigation, if the alleged offense has a potential contract performance implication.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Force protection and weapons issuance.</I> CCDRs must include contractor personnel in their force protection planning and communicate the results to contracting activities and contractors via the GCC OCS web page. In general, contractors are responsible for the security of their own personnel. Contractor personnel working within a U.S. military facility or in close proximity to the U.S. Armed Forces may receive incidentally the benefits of measures taken to protect the U.S. Armed Forces. For more information, see paragraph (ee) of appendix A to this part. However, where additional security is needed to achieve force protection, and it is not operationally or cost effective for contractors to do so individually, the commander may determine it is in the interests of the U.S. Government to provide security for contractor personnel. When security is provided through military means, contractor personnel should receive a level of force protection equal to that of DoD civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(i) When the CCDR deems military force protection and legitimate civil authority are unavailable or insufficient, he or she may authorize, in writing, contractor personnel to be armed for self-defense purposes only. In authorizing contractor personnel to be armed, the contractor, the armed contractor personnel, and the U.S. military must adhere to:
</P>
<P>(A) Applicable U.S., HN, and international law;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant SOFAs and other agreements;
</P>
<P>(C) Other arrangements with local authorities; and
</P>
<P>(D) The rules for the use of force, and guidance and orders regarding the possession, use, safety, accountability of weapons and ammunition that are issued by the CCDR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Depending on the operational situation and the specific circumstances of contractor personnel, the contractor may apply for its personnel to be armed for self-defense purposes on a case-by-case basis. The appropriate Staff Judge Advocate (or their designee) to the CCDR will review all applications to ensure there is a legal basis for approval. In reviewing applications, CCDRs will apply the criteria mandated for arming contractor personnel for private security services consistent with 32 CFR part 159.
</P>
<P>(A) In such cases, the contractor will validate to the contracting officer, or designee, that the contractor personnel have received weapons familiarization, qualification, and briefings regarding the rules for the use of force, in accordance with CCDR policies.
</P>
<P>(B) Acceptance of weapons by contractor personnel is voluntary. In accordance with paragraph (j) of 48 CFR 252.225-7040, the contract must require contractors to ensure that applicable U.S. law does not prohibit personnel from possessing firearms.
</P>
<P>(C) Contracts must require all contractor personnel to comply with applicable CCDR and local commander force protection policies. When armed for personal protection, the contract may only authorize contractor personnel to use force for self-defense and must require contractors to ensure that U.S. law does not prohibit its personnel from possessing firearms, in accordance with 48 CFR 252.225-7040(j). Unless not subject to local laws or HN jurisdiction by virtue of an international agreement or customary international law, the contract must include terms and conditions setting forth that the inappropriate use of force could subject contractor personnel to U.S. and/or local or HN prosecution and civil liability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personnel recovery, missing persons, and casualty reporting.</I> (i) The DoD personnel recovery program applies to all CAAF regardless of their citizenship. For more information, see paragraph (ii) of appendix A to this part. If a CAAF individual becomes isolated or unaccounted for, the contractor must promptly file a search and rescue incident report to the theater's personnel recovery architecture (<I>e.g.,</I> the component personnel recovery coordination cell or the CCMD joint personnel recovery center).
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon recovery following an isolating event, a CAAF returnee must enter the first of the three phases of reintegration. For more information, see paragraph (jj) of appendix A to this part. The contractor must offer the additional phases of reintegration to the returnee to ensure his or her physical and psychological well-being while adjusting to the post-captivity environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor must report all CAAF and non-CAAF casualties. For more information, see paragraph (s) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Redeployment procedures.</I> The considerations in this section apply during the redeployment of CAAF. At the end of the performance period of a contract, or in cases of early redeployment, CAAF must complete the redeployment process to adjust AGS requirements and turn in U.S. Government-provided equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preparation for redeployment.</I> CAAF must complete intelligence out-briefs and customs and immigration briefings and inspections in accordance with CCDR policy and applicable HN law. CAAF are subject to customs and immigration processing procedures at all designated stops and their final destination during their redeployment. CAAF returning to the United States are subject to U.S. reentry customs requirements in effect at the time of reentry.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transportation out of theater.</I> The terms and conditions of the contract will state whether the U.S. Government will provide transportation out of theater.
</P>
<P>(i) Upon completion of the deployment or other authorized release, the U.S. Government must provide contractor personnel transportation from the theater of operations to the location from which they deployed, in accordance with each individual's LOA and unless otherwise directed. If commercial transportation is not available, it should be stated in the LOA in accordance with paragraph (l) of appendix A to this part. CAAF are also required to depart from the operational area through the designated reception site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before redeployment, the contractor personnel, through his or her contractor, will coordinate exit times and transportation with the continental U.S. replacement center or designated reception site.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Redeployment center procedures.</I> In most instances, the deployment center or site that prepared the CAAF for deployment will serve as the return processing center. As part of CAAF redeployment processing, the designated reception site personnel will screen contractor records, recover U.S. Government-issued identification cards and equipment, and conduct debriefings, as appropriate. The returning CAAF will spend the minimum amount of time possible at the return processing center in order to complete the necessary administrative procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Contractor personnel must return all U.S. Government-issued identification and access badges (<I>e.g.,</I> badges, key cards, and other access devices, including CACs).
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractor personnel must return any issued clothing and equipment and report any lost, damaged, or destroyed clothing and equipment in accordance with procedures of the issuing facility. Contractor personnel also will receive a post-deployment medical briefing on signs and symptoms of potential diseases (<I>e.g.,</I> tuberculosis (TB)). As some countries hosting an intermediate staging base may not permit certain items to enter their territory, certain clothing and equipment, whether issued by the contractor, purchased by the employee, or provided by the DoD, may not be permitted to be removed from the AOR. In this case, CCDR or JFC guidance and contract terms and conditions will provide alternate methods of accounting for U.S. Government-issued equipment and clothing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Update to SPOT-ES.</I> Contracting officers or their designated representatives must verify that contractors have updated SPOT-ES to reflect their employee's change in status within three days of a contractor employee's redeployment, close out the deployment, and collect or revoke the LOA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transportation to home destination.</I> Transportation of CAAF from the deployment center or site to their home destinations is the employer's responsibility.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.6   Guidance for contractor medical and dental fitness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) DoD contracts requiring the deployment of CAAF must include medical and dental fitness standards as specified in this section. Under the terms and conditions of their contracts, contractors will employ personnel who meet such medical and dental fitness standards. With respect to contractor personnel covered by the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 791, <I>et seq.</I> or the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 12101, <I>et seq.,</I> these medical and dental fitness standards do not alter the legal obligations of DoD Components and contractors (as employers). Replacement of non-medically qualified contractor personnel already deployed to theater will be at the contractor's cost.
</P>
<P>(2) The GCC concerned will establish force health protection policies and programs for the protection of all forces assigned or attached to the command in accordance with applicable force health protection (FHP) requirements and medical and dental fitness standards in order to promote and sustain a healthy and ready force. For more information, see paragraph (kk) of appendix A to this part. The GCC concerned will establish a process for reviewing requests for exceptions to such requirements, on an individualized basis, and will ensure that a mechanism is in place to appropriately maintain records related to all approved and denied waivers, including any medical records.
</P>
<P>(3) The GCC concerned will ensure that medical fitness processes and procedures, to include those pertaining to removal of contractor personnel from the theater who are no longer medically qualified, at the contractor's expense, are posted on the GCC OCS web page. Contracting officers will incorporate the language concerning these processes and procedures into clauses for all contracts for performance in the AOR.
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise stated in the contract terms and conditions, all medical evaluations and treatment are the contractor's responsibility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical and dental evaluations.</I> (1) All CAAF deploying in support of an applicable operation are subject to medical and dental fitness standards pursuant to paragraph (kk) of appendix A to this part and CCDR guidance. Fitness standards pertain to the individual's ability to accomplish the tasks and duties unique to a particular operation and the ability to tolerate the environmental and operational conditions of the deployed location.
</P>
<P>(2) All CAAF must undergo a screening medical and dental assessment within 12 months before arrival at the designated deployment center or U.S. Government-authorized contractor-performed deployment processing facility. This screening assessment, conducted by the contractor's medical health provider, should emphasize diagnosing system disease conditions (<I>e.g.,</I> cardiovascular, pulmonary, orthopedic, neurologic, endocrinologic, dermatologic, psychological, visual, auditory, dental) that may preclude the CAAF from performing the functional requirements of the contract, especially in the austere work environments encountered in some applicable operations.
</P>
<P>(3) CAAF will receive a health threat and countermeasures briefing from the applicable Military Service before deployment to the operational area. For more information, see paragraph (bb) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) CAAF whose initial screening assessment or subsequent medical evaluation identifies any of the medical conditions listed in paragraph (j) of this section or identifies a requirement for extensive preventive dental case (see paragraph (j)(2)(xxv) of this section) are considered “not medically fit” for deployment unless their deployment is approved by a waiver.
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals who are deemed “not medically fit,” including those whose request for a waiver has been denied, following an individual assessment by a licensed medical provider are not authorized to deploy.
</P>
<P>(6) Non-CAAF shall be medically screened by a U.S. Government designee when required by the requiring activity and the contract, for the class of labor under consideration (<I>e.g.,</I> LNs working in a dining facility).
</P>
<P>(7) Contracts will require contractors to replace individuals who develop conditions that cause them to become medically unqualified to perform contractual requirements at any time during contract performance.
</P>
<P>(8) Contracts will require that CAAF complete a post-deployment health assessment in the Defense Medical Surveillance System at the end of their deployment or within 30 days of redeployment. For more information, see paragraph (bb) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Glasses and contact lenses.</I> (1) If contractor personnel require vision correction, they must have two pairs of glasses, and if applicable, eyeglass inserts for a chemical protective mask. The contractor personnel may also provide a written prescription to the supporting military medical component in order to prepare eyeglass inserts for use in a compatible chemical protective mask. If the type of protective mask to be issued is known and time permits, the military medical component should attempt to complete the preparation of eyeglass inserts before deployment.
</P>
<P>(2) Wearing contact lenses in a field environment is not recommended and is at the contractor personnel's own risk due to the potential for irreversible eye damage caused by debris, chemical or other hazards present, and the lack of ophthalmologic care in a field environment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medications.</I> Other than those force health protection prescription products provided by the U.S. Government to CAAF and selected non-CAAF, contracts must require that contractor personnel deploy with a minimum 90-day supply of any required medications obtained at their own expense. For more information, see paragraph (bb) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Contractor personnel must be informed that deployed medical units are equipped and staffed to provide emergency care to healthy adults and are unable to provide or replace many medications required for routine treatment of chronic medical conditions, such as high blood pressure, heart conditions, and arthritis.
</P>
<P>(2) The contract must require contractor personnel to review both the amount of the medication and its suitability in the foreign area with their personal physician and make any necessary adjustments before deploying. The contract must also hold the contractor personnel responsible for the re-supply of required medications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Comfort items.</I> The contract must require that contractor personnel take spare hearing-aid batteries, sunglasses, insect repellent, sunscreen, and any other supplies related to their individual physical requirements. DoD sources will not provide these items.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immunizations.</I> A list of immunizations, including those required for entry into the designated area of operations and those recommended by medical authorities, will be produced by the cognizant medical authority for each deployment; posted to the GCC OCS web page and DoD FCG; and incorporated in contracts for performance in the designated AOR.
</P>
<P>(1) The GCC, upon the recommendation of the cognizant medical authority, will provide contractor personnel who are deploying to the applicable theater of operation a list of the immunizations necessary to protect against the communicable diseases assessed to be a potential hazard in the applicable theater. The cognizant medical authority will prepare and maintain this list.
</P>
<P>(2) The contract must require that CAAF complete any mandatory immunizations, subject to any legally required exemptions, to complete the pre-deployment process.
</P>
<P>(3) During pre-deployment processing, the DoD will provide contractor personnel, at no cost to the contractor, any theater-specific immunizations and medications not available to the general public. Contractor personnel must obtain all other immunizations before arrival at the deployment center, documented on the International Certificate of Vaccinations of Prophylaxis as approved by the World Health Organization or the Department of Health and Human Services Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Form 731. However, the contract must stipulate that CAAF and selected non-CAAF obtain all other necessary immunizations before their arrival at the deployment center. The TB skin test is required for all contractor personnel within three months before they are deployed.
</P>
<P>(4) The DoD will provide theater-specific medical supplies and force health protection prescription products to CAAF and selected non-CAAF. Additionally, these personnel will receive deployment medication information sheets for all vaccines or deployment-related medications that are to be dispensed or administered.
</P>
<P>(5) Contractors will ensure that individuals with a positive TB skin test be evaluated for targeted diagnosis and treatment of latent TB infection in accordance with the procedures outlined in the World Health Organization Guidelines on the Management of Latent Tuberculosis Infection.
</P>
<P>(6) The contract must stipulate that CAAF and selected non-CAAF bring a current copy of the International Certificate of Vaccination or Prophylaxis to the pre-deployment processing center and to the operational area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Testing.</I> HIV testing is not mandatory for contractor personnel unless specified by the GCC CCDR or by host nation requirements. HIV testing, if required, must occur within one year before deployment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Armed Forces Repository of Specimen Samples for the Identification of Remains (AFRSSIR).</I> For identification of remains purposes, contractors whose CAAF members are U.S. citizens will obtain a dental panograph and will forward a specimen sample suitable for DNA analysis to, and ensure it is on file with, the AFRSSIR before or during deployment processing and recorded in SPOT-ES. The DoD Components must ensure that all contracts require CAAF who are U.S. citizens to provide DNA specimen samples for AFRSSIR as a condition of deployment. For more information, see paragraph (ll) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) All CAAF who are U.S. citizens processing through a deployment center will have a DNA specimen sample collected and forwarded to the AFRSSIR for storage. Contracts must require contractors to verify in SPOT-ES or its successor that AFRSSIR has received the DNA specimen sample or that the contractor has collected the DNA specimen sample.
</P>
<P>(2) If CAAF who are U.S. citizens do not process through a deployment center, or the contractor is authorized to process its own personnel, the contract must require that the contractor collect and forward DNA specimen samples for all contractor personnel who are deployed as CAAF to the AFRSSIR. Regardless of what specimen collection and storage arrangements are made, all contractors deploying CAAF who are U.S. citizens must provide the CAAF's name and Social Security number, location of the DNA specimen sample, facility contact information, and retrieval plan to AFRSSIR. If the AFRSSIR is not used and a CAAF who is a U.S. citizen becomes a casualty, the contractor must be able to retrieve identification media for use by the Armed Forces Medical Examiner (AFME) or other competent authority to conduct a medical-legal investigation of the incident and identification of the victim or victims. These records must be retrievable within 24 hours for forwarding to the AFME when there is a reported incident that would necessitate their use for identifying human remains. The contractor shall have access to the location of its employees' fingerprint, medical, and dental records, including panographs.
</P>
<P>(3) AFRSSIR is responsible for implementing special rules and procedures to ensure the protection of privacy interests in regards to the specimen samples and any DNA analysis of those samples. Specimen samples shall only be used for the purposes outlined in paragraph (ll) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Waivers related to medical and dental fitness standards.</I> Based on an individualized assessment, waivers may be appropriate for contractor personnel who have potentially disqualifying medical conditions if, with or without a reasonable accommodation:
</P>
<P>(1) The condition is not of such a nature it is likely to have a medically grave outcome or a negative impact on mission execution if it unexpectedly worsens.
</P>
<P>(2) The condition is stable and reasonably anticipated by the medical evaluator not to worsen during the deployment under contractor-provided medical care in-theater in light of the physical, physiological, psychological, environmental, and nutritional effects of the duties and location.
</P>
<P>(3) Any required ongoing health care or medications must be available or accessible to contractor personnel, independent of the military health system, and not be subject to special handling, storage, or other requirements (<I>e.g.,</I> refrigeration requirements and/or cold chain, electrical power requirements) that cannot be met in the specific theater of operations.
</P>
<P>(4) The condition does not and is not anticipated to require duty limitations that would preclude performance of contractual requirements or to require accommodation by the DoD component or requiring activity. When necessary, the cognizant medical authority (or delegated representative) is the appropriate authority to evaluate the suitability of an individual's limitations in theater.
</P>
<P>(5) There is no need for routine out-of-theater evacuation for continuing diagnostics or other evaluations.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Conditions usually precluding medical clearance.</I> This section is not intended to be comprehensive. A list of all possible diagnoses would be too expansive to list in this part. These are minimum requirements. Contractor personnel may have additional medical clearance requirements based on their occupation and local laws. It is the responsibility of the contractor to ensure that its employees' medical clearances comply with any applicable local occupation-specific medical requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) In general, the conditions in paragraph (b) of this section, based on an individual assessment pursuant to paragraph (bb) of appendix A to this part, are disqualifying. The medical evaluator will carefully consider whether climate; altitude; the nature of available food and housing available; the nature of medical, behavioral health, and dental services; or other environmental or operational factors may prove hazardous to the deploying person's heath because of a known physical or mental condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Medical clearance for deployment of persons with any of the conditions in this section may be granted by the contracting officer only after consultation with and approval of a waiver by the appropriate cognizant medical authority on behalf of the CCDR. The cognizant medical authority makes recommendations and serves as the CCDR's advisor on conditions precluding the medial clearance of deploying personnel; however, the CCDR is the final approval or disapproval authority except as provided in paragraph (k)(3) of this section. The cognizant medical authority or designated representative may determine if adequate treatment facilities and specialist support are available at the duty station for:
</P>
<P>(i) Physical or psychological conditions resulting in the inability to wear IPE effectively, if wearing IPE may be reasonably anticipated or required in the deployed location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditions that prevent safe administration of applicable immunizations, prescription products, or other health protection measures, including atropine, epinephrine, and/or 2-pam chloride auto-injectors, certain antimicrobials, antimalarials, and/or pyridostigmine bromide.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any chronic medical conditions that require frequent clinical visits, fail to respond to adequate conservative treatment, or necessitate significant limitation of physical activity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any medical conditions that require durable medical equipment or appliances or periodic evaluation or treatment by medical specialists not readily available in theater (<I>e.g.,</I> Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) machine for sleep apnea).
</P>
<P>(v) Any unresolved acute or chronic illness or injuries that would impair duty performance in a deployed environment during the duration of the deployment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Active TB or known blood-borne diseases that may be transmitted to others in a deployed environment. (For HIV infections, see paragraph (j)(2)(xvii) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(vii) An acute exacerbation of a physical or mental health condition that could affect duty performance.
</P>
<P>(viii) Recurrent loss of consciousness for any reason.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any medical condition that could result in sudden incapacitation including a history of stroke within the last 24 months, seizure disorders, and diabetes mellitus type I or II, treated with insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.
</P>
<P>(x) Hypertension not controlled with medication or that requires frequent monitoring to achieve control.
</P>
<P>(xi) Pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(xii) Cancers for which individuals are receiving continuing treatment or that require periodic specialty medical evaluations during the anticipated duration of the deployment.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Precancerous lesions that have not been treated or evaluated and that require treatment or evaluation during the anticipated duration of the deployment.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Any medical conditions that require surgery or for which surgery has been performed that requires rehabilitation or additional surgery to remove devices.
</P>
<P>(xv) Asthma that has a Forced Expiratory Volume-1 (FEV-1) of less than or equal to 50 percent of predicted FEV-1 despite appropriate therapy, that has required hospitalization at least two times in the last 12 months, or that requires daily systemic oral or injectable steroids.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Any musculoskeletal conditions that significantly impair performance of duties in a deployed environment.
</P>
<P>(xvii) HIV antibody positive with the presence of progressive clinical illness or immunological deficiencies. The contracting officer should consult the cognizant medical authority in all instances of HIV seropositivity before medical clearance for deployment.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Hearing loss. The requirement for use of a hearing aid does not necessarily preclude deployment. However, the individual must have sufficient unaided hearing to perform duties safely.
</P>
<P>(xix) Loss of vision. Best corrected visual acuity must meet job requirements to perform duties safely.
</P>
<P>(xx) Symptomatic coronary artery disease.
</P>
<P>(xxi) History of myocardial infarction within one year of deployment.
</P>
<P>(xxii) History of coronary artery bypass graft, coronary artery angioplasty, carotid endarterectomy, other arterial stenting, or aneurysm repair within one year of deployment.
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Cardiac dysrhythmias or arrhythmias, either symptomatic or requiring medical or electrophysiologic control, such as the presence of an implanted defibrillator and/or pacemaker.
</P>
<P>(xxiv) Heart failure.
</P>
<P>(xxv) Individuals without a dental exam within the last 12 months or who are likely to require dental treatment or reevaluation for oral conditions that are likely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months.
</P>
<P>(xxvi) Psychotic and/or bipolar disorders. For detailed guidance on deployment-limiting psychiatric conditions or psychotropic medications, see paragraph (mm) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(xxvii) Psychiatric disorders under treatment with fewer than three months of demonstrated stability.
</P>
<P>(xxviii) Clinical psychiatric disorders with residual symptoms that impair duty performance.
</P>
<P>(xxix) Mental health conditions that pose a substantial risk for deterioration or recurrence of impairing symptoms in the deployed environment.
</P>
<P>(xxx) Chronic medical conditions that require ongoing treatment with antipsychotics, lithium, or anticonvulsants.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Exceptions to medical standards (waivers).</I> If a contractor believes an individual CAAF with one of the conditions listed in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) through (xxx) of this section can, with or without reasonable accommodation, accomplish the essential duties of his or her tasks and duties and tolerate the environmental and operational conditions of the deployed location, the contractor may request a waiver for that individual through the contracting officer, using the process and procedures established by the GCC.
</P>
<P>(1) Contractors will include a summary of a detailed medical evaluation or consultation concerning the medical condition or conditions in the requests for waivers. Since maximization of mission accomplishment and the protection of the health of personnel are the ultimate goals, justification for the waiver will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Statement indicating the CAAF individual's qualifications and experience.
</P>
<P>(ii) The position the CAAF individual will occupy and the nature and scope of contractual duties assigned.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any known specific hazards of the position.
</P>
<P>(iv) Anticipated availability and need for care while deployed.
</P>
<P>(2) Waivers to deploy or permit continued service in a deployed environment by persons with any of the conditions in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) through (xxx) of this section require an individualized assessment and a recommendation from a cognizant medical authority. The GCC, or designee, is the final decision authority for medical waiver requests, except as provided in paragraph (k)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For CAAF individuals working with Special Operations Forces personnel, the Theater Special Operations Command Commander is the final decision authority for medical waiver requests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.53.0.43.7.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 158—Related Policies
</HEAD>
<P>The Operational Contract Support Outside the United States Program is supported by the following policies:
</P>
<P>(a) DoD Directive 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R))” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/512402p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) DoD Instruction 1100.22, “Policy and Procedures for Determining Workforce Mix” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/110022p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) DoD Directive 1000.20, “Active Duty Service Determinations for Civilian or Contractual Groups” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/100020p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) DoD Instruction 2200.01, “Combating Trafficking in Persons (CTIP)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/220001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) DoD Law of War Manual (June 2015, Updated Dec. 2016) (available at <I>https://dod.defense.gov/Portals/1/Documents/pubs/DoD%20Law%20of%20War%20Manual%20-%20June%202015%20Updated%20Dec%202016.pdf?ver=2016-12-13-172036-190</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) DoD Instruction 1000.01, “Identification (ID) Cards Required by the Geneva Conventions” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/100001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(g) DoD Instruction 1000.13, “Identification (ID) Cards for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/100013p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(h) DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle” Volume 1 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/100013_vol1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(i) DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle”, Volume 2 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/100013_vol2.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(j) DoD Directive 1300.22, “Mortuary Affairs Policy” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/130022p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) DoD Instruction 1300.18, “Department of Defense (DoD) Personnel Casualty Matters, Policies, and Procedures” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/130018p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(l) DoD Instruction 4515.13, “Air Transportation Eligibility” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/451513p.PDF</I>).
</P>
<P>(m) DoD Instruction 6200.03, “Public Health Emergency Management (PHEM) within the DoD” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/620003p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(n) DoD Instruction 6000.11, “Patient Movement (PM)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/600011p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(o) DoD Instruction 4525.09, “Military Postal Service” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/452509p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(p) DoD Instruction 1015.10, “Military Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) Programs” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/101510p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(q) DoD Instruction 1330.21, “Armed Services Exchange Regulations” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/133021p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(r) DoD Directive 5160.41E, “Defense Language, Regional Expertise, and Culture (LREC) Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/516041Ep.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(s) Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker (SPOT) Business Rules (available at <I>https://www.acq.osd.mil/log/LOG_CSD/spot.html</I>).
</P>
<P>(t) DoD 5400.11-R, “Department of Defense Privacy Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/540011r.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(u) DoD Manual 6025.18, “Implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) Privacy Rule in DoD Health Care Programs” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/602518m.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(v) DoD Directive 8000.01, “Management of the Department of Defense Information Enterprise (DoD IE)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/800001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(w) DoD Instruction 8320.02, “Sharing Data, Information, and Information Technology (IT) Services in the Department of Defense” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/832002p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(x) DoD Instruction 8330.01, “Interoperability of Information Technology, Including National Security Systems” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/833001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(y) DoD Instruction 8500.01, “Cybersecurity” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/850001_2014.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(z) DoD Directive 4500.54E, “DoD Foreign Clearance Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/450054E.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(aa) DoD Directive 6485.02E, “DoD Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)/Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Prevention Program (DHAPP) to Support Foreign Militaries” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/648502E.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(bb) DoD Instruction 6490.03, “Deployment Health” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/649003p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(cc) DoD Directive 6490.02E, “Comprehensive Health Surveillance” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/649002Ep.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(dd) CJCS Instruction 3500.01J, “Joint Training Policy for the Armed Forces of the United States” (available at <I>https://www.jcs.mil/Portals/36/Documents/Library/Instructions/CJCSI%203500.01J.pdf?ver=_ah_rbO2yB6Uw6QbvzC8pw%3d%3d</I>).
</P>
<P>(ee) DoD Instruction 2000.12, “DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/200012p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ff) DoD Directive 2310.01E, “DoD Detainee Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/231001e.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(gg) DoD Directive 2311.01, “DoD Law of War Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/231101p.pdf?ver=2020-07-02-143157-007</I>).
</P>
<P>(hh) DoD Directive 3115.09, “DoD Intelligence Interrogations, Detainee Debriefings, and Tactical Questioning” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/311509p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD Directive 3002.01, “Personnel Recovery in the Department of Defense” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/300201p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(jj) DoD Instruction 3002.03, “DoD Personnel Recovery—Reintegration of Recovered Personnel” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/300203p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(kk) DoD Directive 6200.04, “Force Health Protection (FHP)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/620004p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ll) DoD Instruction 5154.30, “Armed Forces Medical Examiner System (AFMES) Operations” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/515430p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(mm) Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs Memorandum, Clinical Practice Guidance for Deployment-Limiting Mental Disorders and Psychotropic Medications” October 7, 2013 (available at <I>https://health.mil/Reference-Center/Policies?query=deployment&amp;isDateRange=0&amp;broadVector=000&amp;newsVector=00000000&amp;refVector=000000000100000&amp;refSrc=1.</I>


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="159" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 159—PRIVATE SECURITY CONTRACTORS (PSCs) OPERATING IN CONTINGENCY OPERATIONS, HUMANITARIAN OR PEACE OPERATIONS, OR OTHER MILITARY OPERATIONS OR EXERCISES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 862, Pub. L. 110-181, 122 Stat. 253; Sec. 832, Sec 853, Pub. L. 110-417, 122 Stat. 4535; Sec. 831-833, Pub L. 111-383, 124 Stat. 4276.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49655, Aug. 11, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 159.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities and provides procedures for the regulation of the selection, accountability, training, equipping, and conduct of personnel performing private security functions under a covered contract. It also assigns responsibilities and establishes procedures for incident reporting, use of and accountability for equipment, rules for the use of force, and a process for administrative action or the removal, as appropriate, of PSCs and PSC personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 159.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (DoD), the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (hereafter referred to as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of State and other U.S. Federal agencies insofar as it implements the requirements of section 862 of Public Law 110-181, as amended. Specifically, in areas of operations which require enhanced coordination of PSC and PSC personnel working for U.S. Government (U.S.G.) agencies, the Secretary of Defense may designate such areas as areas of combat operations or other significant military operations for the limited purposes of this part. In such an instance, the standards established in accordance with this part would, in coordination with the Secretary of State, expand from covering only DoD PSCs and PSC personnel to cover all U.S.G.-funded PSCs and PSC personnel operating in the designated area.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a nonprofit nongovernmental organization receiving grants or cooperative agreements for activities conducted within an area of other significant military operations if the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary of State agree that such organization may be exempted. An exemption may be granted by the agreement of the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary of State under this paragraph (a)(3) on an organization-by-organization or area-by-area basis. Such an exemption may not be granted with respect to an area of combat operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Prescribes policies applicable to all:
</P>
<P>(1) DoD PSCs and PSC personnel on contract and subcontract, at any tier, performing private security functions in support of contingency operations, humanitarian or peace operations, or other military operations or exercises outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S.G.-funded PSCs and PSC personnel performing private security functions in an area of combat operations or, with the agreement of the Secretary of State, other significant military operations as designated by the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49655, Aug. 11, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 55283, Sept. 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 159.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Area of combat operations.</I> An area of operations designated as such by the Secretary of Defense for the purpose of this part, when enhanced coordination of PSCs working for U.S.G. agencies is required.
</P>
<P><I>Arming authority.</I> A Combatant Commander (CCDR) with responsibility for the applicable geographic area concerned, or a person or persons designated by that Commander who can authorize the arming of civilians under their authority or supervision for security functions or to permit the carrying of firearms for personal protection in support of operations outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Contingency operation.</I> Per 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13)(a), a military operation that is designated by the Secretary of Defense as a contingency operation, or that becomes a contingency operation as a matter of law in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13)(b).
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> The contractor, subcontractor, grantee, or other party carrying out the covered contract.
</P>
<P><I>Covered contract.</I> (1) A DoD contract for performance of services and/or delivery of supplies in an area of contingency operations, humanitarian or peace operations, or other military operations or exercises outside the United States or non-DoD Federal agency contract for performance of services and/or delivery of supplies in an area of combat operations or other significant military operations, as designated by the Secretary of Defense; a subcontract at any tier under such contracts; or a task order or delivery order issued under such contracts or subcontracts.
</P>
<P>(2) Excludes temporary arrangements entered into by non-DoD contractors for the performance of private security functions by individual indigenous personnel not affiliated with a local or expatriate security company.
</P>
<P><I>Other significant military operations.</I> (1) Activities, other than combat operations, as part of an overseas contingency operation that are carried out by U.S. Armed Forces in an uncontrolled or unpredictable high-threat environment where personnel performing security functions may be called upon to use deadly force.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an area of other significant military operations, the requirements of this part shall apply only upon agreement of the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary of State. Such an agreement of the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary of State may be made only on an area-by-area basis. With respect to an area of combat operations, the requirements of this part shall always apply.


</P>
<P><I>Private Security Contractor (PSC).</I> A company contracted by the U.S.G. to perform private security functions under a covered contract.
</P>
<P><I>Private security functions.</I> Activities engaged in by a contractor under a covered contract as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Guarding personnel, facilities, designated sites, or property of a Federal agency, the contractor or subcontractor, or a third party.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other activity for which personnel are required to carry weapons in the performance of their duties in accordance with the terms of their contract. For the DoD, DoD Instruction 3020.41, “Operational Contract Support (OCS)” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/302041p.pdf</I>) prescribes policies related to personnel allowed to carry weapons for self-defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors, including those performing private security functions, are not authorized to perform inherently governmental functions. In this regard, armed contractors are limited in the use of force to a defensive response to hostile acts or demonstrated hostile intent.
</P>
<P><I>PSC personnel.</I> Any individual performing private security functions under a covered contract.
</P>
<P><I>Total Force.</I> The organizations, units, and individuals that comprise DoD's resources for implementing the National Security Strategy. It includes the DoD Active and Reserve Component military personnel, DoD civilian personnel (including foreign national direct-hires as well as non-appropriated fund employees), contracted support, and host nation support personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49655, Aug. 11, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 55283, Sept. 9, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 159.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of section 862 of Public Law 110-181, as amended, the selection, training, equipping, and conduct of PSC personnel including the establishment of appropriate processes shall be coordinated between the DoD and the Department of State. Coordination shall encompass the contemplated use of PSC personnel during the planning stages of contingency operations so as to allow guidance to be developed under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and promulgated under § 159.5 in a timely manner that is appropriate for the needs of the contingency operation.
</P>
<P>(b) Combatant Commanders (CCDRs) with geographic Areas of Responsibility (AORs) will provide tailored PSC guidance and procedures for the operational environment in their Area of Responsibility (AOR) in accordance with this part, the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS).
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Published in Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Published in Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) In a designated area of combat operations or other significant military operations, the relevant Chief of Mission (COM) will be responsible for developing and issuing implementing instructions for non-DoD PSCs and their personnel consistent with the standards set forth by the CCDR for the applicable geographic AOR in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. The COM has the option to instruct non-DoD PSCs and their personnel to follow the guidance and procedures developed by the CCDR for the applicable geographic AOR and/or a sub unified commander or joint force commander (JFC) where specifically authorized by the Combatant Commander to do so and notice of that authorization is provided to non-DoD agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this part shall not apply to contracts entered into by elements of the intelligence community in support of intelligence activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49655, Aug. 11, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 55284, Sept. 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 159.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) will provide Department-wide policies on the total force manpower mix and labor sourcing, consistent with U.S. law, the FAR, the DFARS, and other applicable Federal policy documents, especially with respect to contracted services and restrictions on functions that contractors may and may not perform. The USD(P&amp;R) will ensure that policies specifically address circumstances where use of PSCs would be inherently governmental or where CCDRs with geographic AORs would need to assess where performance of the function by PSCs or total reliance on PSCs would constitute an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics (DASD(Logistics)), under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD(A&amp;S)) and through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Sustainment, monitors the registering, processing, and accounting of PSC personnel in areas of contingency operations, humanitarian or peace operations, or other military operations or exercises.
</P>
<P>(c) The Principal Director, Defense Pricing and Contracting (DPC), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(A&amp;S) and through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, ensures that the DFARS and (when appropriate, in consultation with the other members of the FAR Council) the FAR, provides appropriate guidance and publishes contracting requirements pursuant to this part and section 862 of Public Law 110-181.
</P>
<P>(d) The CJCS shall ensure that joint doctrine is consistent with the principles established by DoD Directive 3020.49, “Program Management for the Planning and Execution of Operational Contract Support” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/302049d.pdf?ver=fgxC1kzBqeIV4KpOv9pDTw%3d%3d</I>); DoD Instruction 3020.41, DoD Directive 5210.56, “Arming and the Use of Force” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/521056p.PDF?ver=PIvIb3eht0obgolnD0UCEw%3d%3d</I>); and this part.
</P>
<P>(e) CCDRs with responsibility for the AOR in which contingency operations, humanitarian or peace operations, or other military operations or exercises are occurring, and within which PSCs and PSC personnel perform under covered contracts, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide guidance and procedures, as necessary and consistent with the principles established by DoD Directive 3020.49, DoD Instruction 3020.41, DoD Instruction 1100.22, “Policy and Procedures for Determining Workforce Mix” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/110022p.pdf</I>); DFARS, 48 CFR 225.302, and this part, for the selection, training, accountability, and equipping of such PSC personnel and the conduct of PSCs and PSC personnel within their AOR. Individual training and qualification standards shall meet, at a minimum, one of the Military Departments' established standards. Within a Combatant Command (CCMD) with a designated geographic AOR, a sub unified commander or JFC shall be responsible for developing and issuing implementing procedures as warranted by the situation, operation, and environment, in consultation with the relevant COM in designated areas of combat operations or other significant military operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Through the Contracting Officer, the PSC should acknowledge that its personnel understand their obligation to comply with the terms and conditions of applicable covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue written authorization to the PSC identifying individual PSC personnel who are authorized to be armed. Rules for the Use of Force shall be included with the written authorization, if not previously provided. Rules for the Use of Force shall conform to the guidance in DoD Directive 5210.56 and the CJCS Instruction 3121.01B, “Standing Rules of Engagement/Standing Rules for the Use of Force for U.S. Forces.” Offerors' and contractors' access to the Rules for the Use of Force may be controlled in accordance with the terms of FAR, 48 CFR 52.204-2, “Security Requirements”; DFARS, 48 CFR 252.204-7000, “Disclosure of Information”; or both.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> CJCS Instruction 3121.01B provides guidance on the standing rules of engagement (SROE) and establishes standing rules for the use of force for DoD operations worldwide. This document is classified secret. CJCS Instruction 3121.01B is available via Secure internet Protocol Router Network at <I>https://jsportal.osd.smil.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Ensure that the procedures, orders, directives, and instructions prescribed in § 159.6 are available through a single location (including an internet website, consistent with security considerations and requirements).
</P>
<P>(f) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that all private security-related requirement documents are in compliance with the procedures listed in § 159.6 and the guidance and procedures issued by the CCMD of the applicable geographic AOR.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure private security-related solicitations and contracts contain the appropriate clauses in accordance with the applicable FAR and DFARS clauses and include additional mission-specific requirements as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) In coordination with the appropriate requiring activity (or activities), ensure the head of the contracting activity responsible for each covered contract takes appropriate steps to assign sufficient oversight personnel to the contract to verify that the contractor responsible for performing private security functions complies with the requirements of this part. This includes ensuring that the contracting officer coordinates with the requiring activity to nominate and appoint a qualified contracting officer's representative (COR) or other multiple or alternate CORs, in accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.72, “DoD Standard for Contracting Officer's Representative (COR) Certification” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/500072p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55284, Sept. 9, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 159.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.54.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 159.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standing Combatant Command (CCMD) guidance and procedures.</I> Each CCDR with a geographic AOR shall develop and publish guidance and procedures for PSCs and PSC personnel operating during contingency operations, humanitarian or peace operations, or other military operations or exercises within their AOR, consistent with applicable law; this part; applicable Military Department publications; and other applicable DoD issuances including DoD Directive 3020.49, DoD Instruction 1100.22, “Policy and Procedures for Determining Workforce Mix,” FAR, DFARS, DoD Instruction 3020.41, DoD Directive 2311.01E, “DoD Law of War Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/231101p.pdf?ver=2020-07-02-143157-007</I>); DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/520008rm.pdf</I>); CJCS Instruction 3121.01B,, and DoD Directive 5210.56. The guidance and procedures shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain, at a minimum, procedures to implement the following processes, and identify the organization responsible for managing these processes:
</P>
<P>(i) Registering, processing, accounting for and keeping appropriate records of PSCs and PSC personnel in accordance with DoD Instruction 3020.41.
</P>
<P>(ii) PSC verification that PSC personnel meet all the legal, training, and qualification requirements for authorization to carry a weapon in accordance with the terms and conditions of their contract and host country law. Weapons accountability procedures will be established and approved prior to the weapons authorization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Arming of PSC personnel. Requests for permission to arm PSC personnel shall be reviewed on a case-by-case basis by the appropriate Staff Judge Advocate to the CCDR of the geographic AOR (or a designee) to ensure there is a legal basis for approval. The request will then be approved or denied by the CCDR of the geographic AOR or a specifically identified designee, no lower than the flag officer level. Requests to arm non-DOD PSC personnel shall be reviewed and approved in accordance with § 159.4(c). Requests for permission to arm all PSC personnel shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of where PSC personnel will operate, the anticipated threat, and what property or personnel such personnel are intended to protect, if any.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of how the movement of PSC personnel will be coordinated through areas of increased risk or planned or ongoing military operations, including how PSC personnel will be rapidly identified by members of the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(C) A communication plan, to include a description of how relevant threat information will be shared between PSC personnel and U.S. military forces and how appropriate assistance will be provided to PSC personnel who become engaged in hostile situations. DoD contractors performing private security functions are only to be used in accordance with DoD Instruction 1100.22, “Policy and Procedures for Determining Workforce Mix,” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> that is, they are limited to a defensive response to hostile acts or demonstrated hostile intent.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/110022p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(D) Documentation of individual training covering weapons familiarization and qualification, rules for the use of force, limits on the use of force including whether defense of others is consistent with host nation Status of Forces Agreements or local law, the distinction between the rules of engagement applicable to military forces and the prescribed rules for the use of force that control the use of weapons by civilians, and the Law of Armed Conflict.
</P>
<P>(E) Written acknowledgment by the PSC and its individual PSC personnel, after investigation of background of PSC personnel by the contractor, verifying such personnel are not prohibited under U.S. law to possess firearms.
</P>
<P>(F) Written acknowledgment by the PSC and individual PSC personnel that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Inappropriate use of force by contractor personnel authorized to accompany the U.S. Armed Forces may subject such personnel to United States or host nation prosecution and civil liability.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This requirement is specific to arming procedures. Such written acknowledgement should not be construed to limit potential civil and criminal liability to conduct arising from “the use of weapons.” For example, PSC personnel could be held criminally liable for any conduct that would constitute a Federal offense (see MEJA, 18 U.S.C. 3261(a)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Proof of authorization to be armed must be carried by each PSC personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) PSC personnel may possess only U.S.G.-issued and/or -approved weapons and ammunition for which they have been qualified according to paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) PSC personnel were briefed about and understand limitations on the use of force.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Authorization to possess weapons and ammunition may be revoked for non-compliance with established rules for the use of force.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) PSC personnel are prohibited from consuming alcoholic beverages or being under the influence of alcohol while armed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Registration and identification in the Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker (or its successor database) of PSC personnel, weapons, armored vehicles, helicopters, and other vehicles operated by PSC personnel.
</P>
<P>(v) Reporting alleged criminal activity or other incidents involving PSCs or PSC personnel by another company or any other person. All incidents involving the following shall be reported and documented:
</P>
<P>(A) A weapon is discharged by an individual performing private security functions;
</P>
<P>(B) An individual performing private security functions is killed or injured in the performance of their duties;
</P>
<P>(C) A person other than an individual performing private security functions is killed or injured as a result of conduct by PSC personnel;
</P>
<P>(D) Property is destroyed as a result of conduct by a PSC or PSC personnel;
</P>
<P>(E) An individual performing private security functions has come under attack including in cases where a weapon is discharged against an individual performing private security functions or personnel performing such functions believe a weapon was so discharged; or
</P>
<P>(F) Active, non-lethal counter-measures (other than the discharge of a weapon) are employed by PSC personnel in response to a perceived immediate threat in an incident that could significantly affect U.S. objectives with regard to the military mission or international relations. (Active non-lethal systems include laser optical distracters, acoustic hailing devices, electro-muscular disruption devices, blunt-trauma devices like rubber balls and sponge grenades, and a variety of riot-control agents and delivery systems).
</P>
<P>(vi) The independent review and, if practicable, investigation of incidents reported pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(v)(A) through (a)(1)(v)(F) of this section and incidents of alleged misconduct by PSC personnel.
</P>
<P>(vii) Identification of ultimate criminal jurisdiction and investigative responsibilities, where conduct of U.S.G.-funded PSCs or PSC personnel are in question, in accordance with applicable laws to include a recognition of investigative jurisdiction and coordination for joint investigations (<I>i.e.,</I> other U.S.G. agencies, host nation, or third country agencies), where the conduct of PSCs and PSC personnel is in question.
</P>
<P>(viii) A mechanism by which a CCDR may, through the contracting officer, request an action by which PSC personnel who are non-compliant with contract requirements are removed from the designated operational area.
</P>
<P>(ix) Interagency coordination of administrative penalties or removal, as appropriate, of non-DoD PSC personnel who fail to comply with the terms and conditions of their contract, as they relate to this part.
</P>
<P>(x) Implementation of the training requirements contained below in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Specifically cover:
</P>
<P>(i) Matters relating to authorized equipment, force protection, security, health, safety, and relations and interaction with locals in accordance with DoD Instruction 3020.41.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing compliance with DoD approved business and operational standards for private security functions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Predeployment training requirements addressing, at a minimum, the identification of resources and assistance available to PSC personnel as well as country information and cultural training, and guidance on working with host country nationals and military personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) Rules for the use of force and graduated force procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) Requirements for the PSC to cooperate with any investigation conducted by the DoD, including by providing access to its employees and relevant information in its possession regarding the matter(s) under investigation.
</P>
<P>(vi) Requirements and procedures for direction, control and the maintenance of communications with regard to the movement and coordination of PSCs and PSC personnel, including specifying interoperability requirements. These include coordinating with the COM, as necessary, private security operations outside secure bases and U.S. diplomatic properties to include movement control procedures for all contractors, including PSC personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subordinate guidance and procedures.</I> A sub unified commander or JFC, in consultation with the COM, will issue guidance and procedures implementing the standing CCDR publications specified in paragraph (a) of this section, consistent with the situation and operating environment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation and coordination.</I> The COM and the CCDR with geographic AOR/sub unified commander or JFC shall make every effort to consult and coordinate responses to common threats and common concerns related to oversight of the conduct of U.S.G.-funded PSCs and their personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49655, Aug. 11, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 55285, Sept. 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="161" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 161—IDENTIFICATION (ID) CARDS FOR MEMBERS OF THE UNIFORMED SERVICES, THEIR DEPENDENTS, AND OTHER ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5703, 10 U.S.C. 1061-1064, 1072-1074, 1074a-1074c, 1076, 1076a, 1077, and 1095(k)(2); 18 U.S.C. 499, 506, 509, 701, and 1001; 10 U.S.C. 1408(h), 1044a, and chapter 1223.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Identification (ID) Cards for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures for the issuing of distinct DoD ID cards. The ID cards shall be issued to uniformed service members, their dependents, DoD civilian employees, and other eligible individuals and will be used as proof of identity and DoD affiliation.
</P>
<P>(b) Sets forth responsibilities and procedures for the DoD ID card life-cycle in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Prescribes the benefits for commissary; exchange; morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR); Military Health Services direct care in military treatment facilities (MTFs); and TRICARE civilian health care (CHC) in support of the members of the uniformed services, their dependents, and other eligible individuals, in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Provides procedures and defines acceptable documentation for enrollment and eligibility verification, as necessary, for DoD ID card issuance and as described in DoD Instruction 1000.13 and subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74875, Oct. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS), under agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreement with the Department of Commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>20/20/20, 20/20/15, or 10/20/10.</I> See definition of “former spouse.”
</P>
<P><I>Abused dependent.</I> Dependents of active duty uniformed service members:
</P>
<P>(1) Entitled to retired pay based on 20 or more years of service who, on or after October 23, 1992, while a member, are eligible to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct involving the abuse of the spouse or dependent child pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408(h); or
</P>
<P>(2) Not entitled to retired pay, who have received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, dismissal from a uniformed service as a result of a court martial conviction for an offense involving physical or emotional abuse of a spouse or child, or were administratively discharged as a result of such an offense, separated on or after November 30, 1993.
</P>
<P><I>Access to a DoD network.</I> User logon to a Windows active directory account on the Nonsecure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNet) or an authorized network operating system account on the NIPRNet.
</P>
<P><I>Access to a DoD network (remote).</I> Authorized NIPRNet users accessing a NIPRNet resource from:
</P>
<P>(1) Another NIPRNet resource outside of the originating domain; or
</P>
<P>(2) An authorized system that resides outside of the NIPRNet. This includes domain-level access from handheld devices. Remote access includes logon for the purposes of telework, Virtual Private Network, and remote administration by DoD or non-DoD personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty.</I> Full-time duty in the active military service of the United States. This includes full-time training duty, annual training duty, and attendance, while in the active military service, at a school designated as a service school by law or by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned. Active duty does not include full-time National Guard duty.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty for a period of more than 30 days.</I> Active duty under a call or order that does not specify a period of 30 days or less. When the “Active Duty for a Period of More than 30 Days” is established by consecutive sets of orders, their eligible dependents become entitled to TRICARE medical benefits on the first day of the set of orders that brings the period of active duty over 30 days.
</P>
<P><I>Adopted child.</I> A child adopted before the age of 21 or, if enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning, before the age of 23. Except for entitlement to medical care, a child with an incapacitating condition that existed before the age of 21 or that occurred while the child was a full-time student prior to the age of 23, may be adopted at any age provided it is determined that there is a BONA FIDE parent-child relationship. Surviving children adopted by a non-military member after the death of the sponsor remain eligible for medical care only.
</P>
<P><I>Annulled.</I> The status of an individual, whose marriage has been declared a nullity by a court of competent jurisdiction, that restores unremarried status to a widow, widower, or former spouse for reinstatement of benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Annulment decree.</I> An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that grants an annulment of a marriage.
</P>
<P><I>Attainment of age 65.</I> The first day of the month of the anniversary of the 65th birthday, unless the birthday falls on the first of the month. If the birthday is the first of the month, attainment of age 65 occurs on the first day of the preceding month.
</P>
<P><I>Benefits.</I> Entitlements or privileges that are assigned to a person or group of persons.
</P>
<P><I>CAC PIN reset (CPR).</I> A portable, single-purpose system capable of providing timely PIN reset capability to the field without requiring a Common Access Card (CAC) holder to return to a CAC issuance facility (i.e. Real-Time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS), workstation).
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of live birth.</I> A certificate authenticated by an attending physician or other responsible person from a U.S. hospital or a military treatment facility showing the name of at least one parent.
</P>
<P><I>Certified document.</I> A document that is certified as a true original and:
</P>
<P>(1) Conveys the appropriate seal or markings of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a means to validate the authenticity of the document by a reference or source number;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a notarized legal document or other document approved by a Judge Advocate, other members of the armed forces designated by law and regulations to have the powers set forth in 10 U.S.C 1044a, or other eligible persons in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044a; or
</P>
<P>(4) Has the appropriate certificate of authentication by a U.S. Consular Officer in the foreign country of issuance which attests to the authenticity of the signature and seal.
</P>
<P><I>Certified English translation.</I> See requirements for certified document.
</P>
<P><I>CHC.</I> Medical care provided through the TRICARE program including networks of CHC professionals, institutions, pharmacies, and suppliers to provide access to high-quality health care services.
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> A legitimate child, illegitimate child, stepchild, or adopted child of the sponsor, who is younger than 21 years of age. If 21 or older, the child may remain eligible if the child is:
</P>
<P>(1) 21 or 22 years old and enrolled in a full-time course of higher learning;
</P>
<P>(2) 21 or older but incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before the 21st birthday; or
</P>
<P>(3) 21 or 22 years old and was enrolled full-time in an accredited institution of higher learning but became incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical condition while a full-time student.
</P>
<P><I>Civilian employee.</I> DoD civilian employees, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 2105 are individuals appointed to positions by designated officials. Appointments to appropriated fund positions are either permanent or time-limited and the employees are on full-time, part-time, or intermittent work schedules. In some instances, the appointments are seasonal with either a full-time, part-time, or intermittent work schedule. Positions are categorized further as Senior Executive Service (SES), Competitive Service, and Excepted Service positions. In addition, DoD employs individuals paid from NAFs, as well as foreign national citizens outside the United States, its territories, and its possessions, in DoD activities overseas. The terms and conditions of host-nation citizen employment are governed by controlling treaties, agreements, and memoranda of understanding with the foreign nations.
</P>
<P><I>Civilian noncombatant personnel.</I> Personnel who have been authorized to accompany military forces of the United States in regions of conflict, combat, and contingency operations and who are liable to capture and detention by the enemy as POWs.
</P>
<P><I>Commissary.</I> A benefit granted to eligible personnel in accordance with this part and DoD Instruction 1330.17 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133017p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Competitive service positions.</I> See 5 U.S.C. 2102.
</P>
<P><I>Contingency operation.</I> Defined in Joint Publication 1-02 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/doctrine/new_pubs/jp1_02.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Contractor employee.</I> An employee of a firm, or individual under contract or subcontract to the DoD, designated as providing services or support to the Department.
</P>
<P><I>Contractors authorized to accompany the force.</I> Defined in Joint Publication 1-02.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-servicing.</I> Agreement amongst all uniformed services to assist Service members, regardless of the Service member's responsible uniformed service, and their dependents, for all ID card or benefits-related matters, when appropriate and not restricted by subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).</I> The definitive centralized person data repository of identity and enrollment and eligibility verification data and associated contact information on members of the DoD Components, members of the Uniformed Services, and other personnel as designated by the DoD, and their eligible dependents and associated contact information.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent.</I> An individual whose relationship to the sponsor leads to entitlement to benefits and privileges.
</P>
<P><I>Direct Care (DC).</I> Medical care that TRICARE provides through the health care resources of the uniformed services through their clinics and MTFs. This does not include any medical care provided through the TRICARE CHC network.
</P>
<P><I>Dissolution decree.</I> An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that grants dissolution of a marriage.
</P>
<P><I>Divorce decree.</I> An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that grants termination of a marriage.
</P>
<P><I>Dual eligible.</I> A person who is entitled to Medicare Part A and enrolled in Medicare Part B and is also entitled to TRICARE medical benefits, in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 106-398 and Public Law 102-190, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Years 1992 and 1993” (available at <I>http://thomas.loc.gov/cgi-bin/query/C?c102:./temp/∼c102UvpYbH</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Dual status.</I> A person who is entitled to privileges from two sources (e.g., a retired member, who is also the dependent of an active duty member; a retired-with-pay member who is employed overseas as a civilian by the U.S. Government and is qualified for logistical support because of that civilian employment; a member of a Reserve Component who is an eligible dependent of an active duty military sponsor; or a child, who is the natural child of one sponsor and the stepchild and member of a household of another sponsor).
</P>
<P><I>Eligibility documentation.</I> Properly certified birth certificate or certificate of live birth authenticated by attending physician or other responsible person from a U.S. hospital or a MTF showing the name of at least one parent; properly certified marriage certification; properly certified final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment of marriage and statements attesting to nonremarriage and status of employer-sponsored healthcare; court order for adoption or guardianship; statement of incapacity from a physician or personnel or medical headquarters of sponsor's parent uniformed service; letter from school registrar; retirement orders (providing entitlement to retired pay is established) or DD Form 214 “Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty;” DD Form 1300, “Report of Casualty;” certification from the Department of Veterans' Affairs of 100 percent disabled status; orders awarding Medal of Honor (MOH); formal determination of eligibility for Medicare Part A benefits from the Social Security Administration (SSA); civilian personnel records; and invitational travel orders.
</P>
<P><I>Entitlements.</I> Rights or authorities that are provided based on legislative statute.
</P>
<P><I>Entry level separation.</I> As defined in DoD Instruction 1332.14, “Enlisted Administrative Separations” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133214p.pdf</I>), an enlisted service member is considered in an entry-level status during the first 180 days of continuous active military service, or the first 180 days of continuous active service after a service break of more than 92 days of active service. A Service member of a Reserve Component who is not on active duty or who is serving under a call or order to active duty for 180 days or less begins entry-level status upon enlistment in a Reserve Component. Entry-level status for such a Service member of a Reserve Component terminates as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) 180 days after beginning training if the Service member is ordered to active duty for training for one continuous period of 180 days or more; or
</P>
<P>(2) 90 days after the beginning of the second period of active duty training if the Service member is ordered to active duty for training under a program that splits the training into two or more separate periods of active duty. For the purposes of characterization of service or description of separation, the Service member's status is determined by the date of notification as to the initiation of separation proceedings.
</P>
<P><I>Excepted service positions.</I> Defined in 5 U.S.C. 2103.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange.</I> A benefit that is extended to eligible individuals in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.21.
</P>
<P><I>Family member.</I> An individual who receives benefits based on his or her association to a sponsor. A family member is often a dependent.
</P>
<P><I>Federal employee.</I> Defined in 5 U.S.C. 2105.
</P>
<P><I>Federally controlled facility.</I> Defined in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Memorandum M-05-24, “Implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12—Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/default/files/omb/memoranda/fy2005/m05-24.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Federally controlled information systems.</I> (1) An information technology system (or information system), as defined by the Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (44 U.S.C. 3502(8)).
</P>
<P>(2) Information systems used or operated by an agency or by a contractor of an agency or other organization on behalf of an agency (44 U.S.C. 3544(a)(1)(A)).
</P>
<P><I>Financial dependency determination.</I> Service-level process used to determine whether the financial dependency of a dependent on a sponsor meets the requirement for benefits eligibility.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign affiliate.</I> A foreign national, including foreign civilian, foreign contractor, or foreign uniformed services personnel, who is sponsored by their government in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.20, “Visits and Assignments of Foreign Nationals” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523020p.pdf</I>) through an assignment, temporary duty, school, training, policy board, or other defined agreement to work or reside on a DoD facility, or require access to DoD networks on-site or remotely.
</P>
<P><I>Former member.</I> An individual who is eligible to receive retired pay, at age 60, for non-regular service pursuant to 10 U.S.C. chapter 1223 but who has been discharged and who maintains no military affiliation. These former members, at age 60, and their eligible dependents are entitled to medical care, commissary, exchange, and MWR privileges. Under age 60, they and their eligible dependents are entitled to commissary, exchange, and MWR privileges only.
</P>
<P><I>Former spouse.</I> An individual who was married to a uniformed services member for at least 20 years, and the member had at least 20 years of service creditable toward retirement, and the marriage overlapped as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) 20 years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 20 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/20). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce;
</P>
<P>(2) 20 years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 15 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/15). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce; or
</P>
<P>(3) A spouse whose marriage was terminated from a uniformed service member who has their eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct based on Service-documented abuse of the spouse and has 10 years of marriage, 20 years of creditable service for retirement, 10 years of overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 10/20/10). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce.
</P>
<P><I>Foster child.</I> A child without parental support and protection, placed with a person or family, usually by local welfare services or by court order. The foster parent(s) do not have custody, nor is there an adoption, but they are expected to treat the foster child as they would their own in regard to food, housing, clothing, and education. This is a non-medically entitled dependent.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time student.</I> A child who has not attained the age of 23, who is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, dependent on the member or former member for more than 50 percent of the child's support.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time work schedule.</I> Full-time employment with a basic 40-hour work week.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive National Guard (ING).</I> Part of the Army National Guard. These individuals are Reservists who are attached to a specific National Guard unit, but who do not participate in training activities. On mobilization, they shall mobilize with their assigned units. These members muster with their units once a year. Issuance of DD Form 1173-1 “United States Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card (Guard and Reserve Family Member)” to ING dependents is mandatory.
</P>
<P><I>Incapacitated person.</I> An individual who is impaired by physical disability, mental illness, mental deficiency, or other causes that prevent sufficient understanding or capacity to competently manage his or her own affairs.
</P>
<P><I>Individual Ready Reserve (IRR).</I> Trained individuals who have previously served in the active component or Selected Reserve (SelRes) and have time remaining on their military service obligation. Includes volunteers who do not have time remaining on the military service obligation, but are under contractual agreement to be a member of the IRR. These individuals are mobilization assets and may be called to active duty pursuant to the provisions of 10 U.S.C. chapter 1209. Issuance of DD Form 1173-1 to IRR dependents is mandatory.
</P>
<P><I>Institution of higher learning.</I> A college, university, or similar institution, including a technical or business school, offering post secondary-level academic instruction that leads to an associate or higher degree, if the school is empowered by the appropriate State education authority under State law to grant an associate or higher degree. When there is no State law to authorize the granting of a degree, the school may be recognized as an institution of higher learning if it is accredited for degree programs by a recognized accrediting agency. The term also includes a hospital offering educational programs at the post secondary level regardless of whether the hospital grants a post secondary degree. The term also includes an educational institution that is not located in a State that offers a course leading to a standard college degree or equivalent and is recognized as such by the Secretary of Education (or comparable official) of the country or other jurisdiction in which the institution is located.
</P>
<P><I>Intergovernmental Personnel Act personnel.</I> Employees covered by Public Law 91-648, “Intergovernmental Personnel Act of 1970.” The Intergovernmental Personnel Act mobility program provides temporary assignment of personnel between the Federal Government and State and local governments, colleges and universities, tribal governments, federally funded research and development centers, and other eligible organizations.
</P>
<P><I>Intermittent work schedule.</I> Employment without a regularly scheduled tour of duty.
</P>
<P><I>Invitational travel order (ITO).</I> The document authorizing travel by individuals either not employed by the government or employed in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 5703 intermittently in the government's service as consultants or experts and paid on a daily basis, when actually employed. ITOs include the names of accompanying dependents who may be eligible for DoD benefits in accordance with DoD policy and reciprocal international agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Letter of authorization (LOA).</I> A document generated by Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker (SPOT) that states the intended length of assignment, planned use of government facilities and privileges, and name of the approving governmental official.
</P>
<P><I>Letter from a school registrar.</I> A letter certifying enrollment in a full-time in-residence, or online course of study, leading to an associate degree or higher and listing an anticipated graduation date. Students attending two institutions less than full-time may not combine courses from both institutions to meet full-time student status. Most colleges and universities contract with third parties, such as the National Student Clearinghouse, to verify student enrollment. These third parties must comply with 20 U.S.C. 1232g and 34 CFR part 99 and are considered official agents of the institution for that purpose. Such documentation is considered equivalent to and accepted in lieu of a letter from the registrar's office. For graduate students, a letter of acceptance of enrollment signed by an authorized officer of the college or university is required to serve as the school letter.
</P>
<P><I>Marriage certificate.</I> State-certified record of marriage.
</P>
<P><I>Medical sufficiency statement.</I> A statement from a physician from a military treatment facility or approved TRICARE provider used in conjunction with eligibility and dependency determinations. The statement includes a recent medical or psychiatric evaluation and diagnosis, a statement of illness (including the date, child's age, and onset of incapacity), the current treatment being rendered, the prognosis for recovery, and the ability to become self-supporting.
</P>
<P><I>Medicare.</I> Health insurance for people age 65 or older, under 65 with certain disabilities, and any age with end-stage renal disease. The different parts of Medicare help cover specific services if certain conditions are met.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Medicare part A.</I> Covers hospice care, home health care, skilled nursing facilities, and inpatient hospital stays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medicare part B.</I> Covers doctors' services, outpatient hospital care, and other medical services that Part A does not cover, such as physical and occupational therapy. Other examples include X-rays, medical equipment, or limited ambulance service.
</P>
<P><I>Member.</I> An individual who is affiliated with a Service, either active duty, Reserve, active duty retired, or Retired Reserve. Retired members are not former members. Also referred to as the sponsor.
</P>
<P><I>MWR.</I> A benefit that is extended to eligible individuals in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10, “Military Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) Programs” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101510p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI).</I> Is the minimum investigation conducted by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) for federal employment in nonsensitive positions and for individuals requiring eligibility for logical and physical access. The NACI consists of a records check (of designated agencies of the Federal Government that maintain record systems containing information relevant to making a personnel security determination) plus Written Inquiries to law enforcement agencies, former employers and supervisors, references and schools covering the last 5 years.
</P>
<P><I>Nonappropriated fund (NAF) employees.</I> NAF employees are Federal employees within the Department who are paid from NAFs. 5 U.S.C. 2105 explains the status of NAF employees as Federal employees.
</P>
<P><I>Non-regular service retirement.</I> A person who, as a member of the Ready Reserve, serves on active duty or performs active service, after the date of the enactment of sections 647 and 1106 of Public Law 110-181 and may receive retired pay in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12731. Under these provisions the eligibility age for applying for retired pay shall be reduced below 60 years of age by 3 months for each aggregate of 90 days on which the member performs in any fiscal year after such date, providing the applicant is at least 50 years of age. However, the member must be age 60 to qualify for CHC and CD.
</P>
<P><I>Notarization.</I> The official fraud-deterrent process that assures that the signatures on a document are authentic and valid. The signature of any such person acting as notary, together with the title of that person's offices, is <I>prima facie</I> evidence that the signature is genuine, that the person holds the designated title, and that the person is authorized to perform a notarial act. A person acting as notary must be impartial.
</P>
<P><I>Part-time work schedule.</I> Part-time employment of 16 to 32 hours a week under a schedule consisting of an equal or varied number of hours per day.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent employee.</I> Career or career-conditional appointment in the Competitive or SES or an appointment in the Excepted Service that carries no restrictions or conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense).</I> An authorized placement agency in the United States or U.S. territories or possessions that must be licensed for adoption by the State, territory, or possession in which the adoption procedures will be completed. In all other locations, a request for recognition must be approved by the appropriate Assistant Secretary of the Military Department concerned or an appropriate official who has been delegated approval authority.
</P>
<P><I>Placement agreement.</I> An agreement between the State and the parent(s) placing the child in the legal custody of the parent(s). To establish the child as a pre-adoptive child, the placement agreement must include the intent to adopt.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-adoptive child.</I> With respect to determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, an unmarried person who is placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by any other source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption of the child by the member or former member, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Has not attained the age of 21; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, in fact dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of the child's support; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that occurs while a dependent of a member or former member and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, in fact dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of the child's support.
</P>
<P><I>Privileges.</I> Benefits or advantages allowed based on position, authority, relationship, or status and which may be removed by proper authority. Privileges are not necessarily “rights” specifically granted by law.
</P>
<P><I>Ready Reserve.</I> Military members of the National Guard and Reserve, organized in units or as individuals, liable for recall to active duty to augment the active components in time of war or national emergency. The Ready Reserve consists of three Reserve Component subcategories: The SelRes, the IRR, and the ING.
</P>
<P><I>Remarried parent.</I> A dependent parent of a deceased military member who loses dependency-based eligibility for benefits on remarriage.
</P>
<P><I>Retired Reserve entitled to pay at age 60 (Gray Area Retirees).</I> Reserve members who have completed 20 qualifying years for retirement and are entitled to receive pay at age 60, but have not yet reached age 60. Reserve Retirees and their dependents receive commissary, MWR, and exchange benefits until the sponsor receives retired pay. Individuals may be recalled to active duty in accordance with 10 U.S.C.
</P>
<P><I>Seasonal employment.</I> Annually recurring periods of work of less than 12 months each year. Seasonal employees generally are permanent employees who are placed in non-duty or non-pay status and recalled to duty in accordance with pre-established conditions of employment. Seasonal employees may have full-time, part-time, or intermittent work schedules.
</P>
<P><I>Selected Reserve (SelRes).</I> Those National Guard and Reserve units and individuals within the Ready Reserve designated by their respective Services and approved by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, as so essential to initial wartime missions that they have priority over all other Reserves. They must be prepared to mobilize within 24 hours. The issuance of DD Form 1173-1 to their dependents and participation in the Guard and Reserve DEERS Enrollment Program are mandatory.
</P>
<P><I>Service Project Officer (SPO).</I> The uniformed services, National Guard and Reserve Component, and agency-level office that coordinates with OUSD(P&amp;R) on policy and functional matters related to DEERS, RAPIDS, and Trusted Associate Sponsorship System (TASS), and manages ID card operations within the respective organization.
</P>
<P><I>SES positions.</I> Appropriated fund positions in an agency classified above General Service-15 pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5108 or in level 4 or 5 of the Executive Schedule, or an equivalent position, which is not required to be filled by an appointment by the President by and with the advice and consent of the Senate.
</P>
<P><I>Site security manager (SSM).</I> The SPO-appointed individual that manages the daily operations at a RAPIDS site to include managing users, cardstock, and consumables.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor.</I> The person affiliated to the DoD, uniformed service, or other Federal agency who is delegated the responsibility for verifying and authorizing an applicant's need for an ID card. This term also refers to the prime beneficiary who derives eligibility based on individual status rather than dependence upon or relationship to another person. This beneficiary receives benefits based on the beneficiary's direct affiliation to the DoD or other unformed service.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse.</I> A person legally married to a current, former, or retired uniformed service member, eligible civilian employee, or other eligible individual in accordance with subpart C of this part, regardless of sex or State of residence.
</P>
<P><I>Standby Reserve.</I> Personnel who maintain their military affiliation without being in the Ready Reserve, who have been designated key civilian employees, or who have a temporary hardship or disability. These individuals are not required to perform training and are not part of units. These individuals are trained and could be mobilized, if necessary, to fill manpower needs in specific skills.
</P>
<P><I>Stepchild.</I> A natural or adopted child of a spouse of a sponsor and who qualifies as a child.
</P>
<P><I>Surviving dependent.</I> The dependent of a member who died while on active duty under orders that specified a period of more than 30 days, or a member who died while in a retired with-pay status.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary assignment.</I> An appointment for a specified period not to exceed 1 year. A temporary assignment can be extended up to a maximum of 1 additional year.
</P>
<P><I>Transitional Health Care (THC).</I> A healthcare system, formerly known as Transition Assistance Management Program (TAMP), instituted in section 502 of Public Law 101-510. It includes pre-separation and separation services, the Continued Health Care Benefit Program, a voluntary insurance program for sponsors and eligible dependents separating from active service; pre-separation counseling service for separating uniformed services members; and various other transitional initiatives. Uniformed service members separated as uncharacterized entry-level separations do not qualify for THC. Section 706 of Public Law 108-375 replaced the TAMP with the THC program. Section 651 of Public Law 110-181 included the 2-year commissary and exchange privilege for involuntarily separated uniformed service members. The DoD added MWR to the benefit set and extended the same benefits to the eligible dependents. To qualify for benefits under this program, individuals must be separated with service characterized as honorable or general under honorable conditions meeting the separation reasons identified in 10 U.S.C. 1145. The THC program is a permanent program and made the medical eligibility 180 days for all eligible uniformed service members and eligible dependents. Enlisted uniformed service members discharged for reasons of misconduct, discharge in lieu of court-martial, or other reasons for which service normally is characterized as under other than honorable conditions are not eligible for transition benefits. Officers discharged as a result of resignation in lieu of trial by court-martial, or misconduct or moral or professional dereliction if the discharge could be characterized as under other than honorable conditions are not eligible for transition benefits. Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1145, the qualifying periods of active duty include:
</P>
<P>(1) A member who is involuntarily separated from active duty.
</P>
<P>(2) A member of a Reserve Component who is separated from active duty to which called or ordered in support of a contingency operation if the active duty is for a period of more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) A member who is separated from active duty for which the member is involuntarily retained in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12305 in support of a contingency operation.
</P>
<P>(4) A member who is separated from active duty served pursuant to a voluntary agreement of the member to remain on active duty for a period of less than 1 year in support of a contingency operation.
</P>
<P>(5) A member who receives a sole survivorship discharge (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 1174); or
</P>
<P>(6) A member who is separated from active duty who agrees to become a member of the SelRes. Section 734 of Public Law 110-417, which took effect on October 14, 2008 extended THC benefits to a uniformed service member who is separated from active duty who agrees to become a member of the SelRes of the Ready Reserve of a Reserve Component.
</P>
<P><I>Trusted Agent (TA).</I> An individual appointed by a TASM that serves as a sponsor for eligible populations within TASS, utilizes TASS to register data for the DD Form 1172-2 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/eforms/dd1172-2.pdf</I>), re-verifies CAC holder affiliation, and revokes CACs.
</P>
<P><I>Trusted Agent Security Manager (TASM).</I> An individual appointed by a SPO to oversee the activity for a specific TASS site and associated TAs. These individuals also serve in the TA role.
</P>
<P><I>Trusted Associate Sponsorship System (TASS) (formerly known as Contractor Verification System (CVS)).</I> A Web application used to verify that CAC applicants have the appropriate government sponsorship for the purpose of issuing CACs. The TASS web interface automates the DD Form 1172-2 for tracking the request process and updating DEERS with applicant information required for CAC issuance. The system also provides a mechanism for periodic re-verification of contractor eligibility to ensure that information is current and contractor CACs do not remain active when not appropriate. This capability will be expanded to support registration and background investigation confirmation for additional CAC eligible populations.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> The 50 United States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Unmarried.</I> A widow or widower who remarried and whose remarriage ended by death or divorce, or a former spouse of a sponsor whose subsequent remarriage ended by death or divorce.
</P>
<P><I>Unremarried.</I> A widow or widower who has never remarried, or a former spouse whose only remarriage was to the same military sponsor. Periods of marriage in this case may be combined to document eligibility for former spouse benefits.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. territories and possessions.</I> Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>VA rating determination letter.</I> A letter from the appropriate VA authorities that establishes that the uniformed service member has been rated as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment by the VA.
</P>
<P><I>Verifying Official (VO).</I> An individual who is responsible for validating eligibility of bona fide beneficiaries to receive benefits and entitlements.
</P>
<P><I>Voluntary acknowledgment of paternity.</I> A document recognized by relevant and applicable State law as establishing legal paternity. Such documents must be certified as a “true copy” by the appropriate state office.
</P>
<P><I>Ward.</I> An unmarried person who is placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or a U.S. territory or possession) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; is dependent on the member or former member for more than 50 percent of the person's support; resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may by regulation prescribe; is not a dependent of a member or a former member under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2); and either:
</P>
<P>(1) Has not attained the age of 21;
</P>
<P>(2) Has not attained the age of 23 and is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that occurred while the person was considered a dependent of the member or former member.
</P>
<P><I>Widow.</I> The female spouse of a deceased member of the uniformed Services.
</P>
<P><I>Widower.</I> The male spouse of a deceased member of the uniformed Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74875, Oct. 27, 2016; 89 FR 11179, Feb. 14, 2024; 90 FR 55044, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DoD policy that a distinct DoD ID card shall be issued to uniformed service members, their dependents, DoD civilian employees, and other eligible individuals and will be used as proof of identity and DoD affiliation.
</P>
<P>(b) DoD ID cards shall serve as the Geneva Convention Card for eligible personnel in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.1, “Identity Cards Required by the Geneva Convention” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100001p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) DoD ID cards shall be issued through a secure and authoritative process in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25, “DoD Personnel Identity Protection (PIP) Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100025p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) The CAC, a form of DoD ID card, shall serve as the Federal Personal Identity Verification (PIV) card for DoD implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12, “Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>http://www.dhs.gov/xabout/laws/gc_1217616624097.shtm</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) ID cards, in a form distinct from the CAC, shall be issued and will serve as proof of identity and DoD affiliation for eligible communities that do not require the Federal PIV card that complies with Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 and FIPS Publication 201-3, “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors” (available at <I>https://dx.doi.org/10.6028/NIST.FIPS.201-3</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74877, Oct. 27, 2016; 89 FR 11179, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(P&amp;R) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee implementation of the procedures within this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish overall policy and procedures for the issuance of ID cards to members of the uniformed services, their dependents, and other eligible individuals.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish minimum acceptable criteria for establishment and confirmation of personal identity, policy for the issuance of the DoD enterprise personnel identity credentials, and approve of additional systems under the PIP Program in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25.
</P>
<P>(4) Act as the Principal Staff Assistant (PSA) for the DEERS, the RAPIDS, and the Personnel Identity Protection (PIP) Program in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain the DEERS data system in support of the Department of Defense in accordance with applicable law and directives.
</P>
<P>(6) Develop and field the required RAPIDS infrastructure and all elements of field support to issue ID cards including but not limited to software distribution, hardware procurement and installation, on-site and depot-level hardware maintenance, on-site and Web-based user training and central telephone center support, and telecommunications engineering and network control center assistance.
</P>
<P>(7) In coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)), the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&amp;L)), and the DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) establish policy and oversight for CAC life-cycle compliance with FIPS Publication 201-3.
</P>
<P>(8) Establish procedures that will uniquely identify personnel with specific associations with the Department of Defense and maintain the integrity of the unique personnel identifier in coordination with the DoD Components in accordance with DoD Directive 8320.03, “Unique Identification (UID) Standards for a Net-Centric Department of Defense” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/832003p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Reserve Affairs (ASD(RA)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), shall develop policies and establish guidance for the National Guard and Reserve Component communities that affect benefits, entitlements, identity, and ID cards.
</P>
<P>(c) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&amp;FP)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), shall develop policy and procedures to determine eligibility for access to DoD programs for MWR; commissaries; exchanges; lodging; children and youth; DoD schools; family support; voluntary and post-secondary education; and other military community and family benefits that affect identity and ID cards.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, Defense Human Resources Activity (DHRA), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) and in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (h) of this section, shall, in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop policies and procedures for the oversight, funding, personnel staffing, direction, and functional management of the PIP Program.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate with the Principal Under Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)), and the ASD(RA) on changes to enrollment and eligibility policy and procedures pertaining to personnel, medical, and dental issues that affect the PIP Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop policies and procedures to support the functional requirements of the PIP Program, DEERS, and the DEERS client applications.
</P>
<P>(4) Secure funding in support of new requirements to support the PIP Program or the enrollment and eligibility functions of DEERS and RAPIDS.
</P>
<P>(5) Approve the addition or elimination of population categories eligible for ID cards in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(6) Establish the type and form of ID card issued to eligible populations categories and administer pilot programs to determine the suitable form of ID card for newly identified populations.
</P>
<P>(7) Determines and maintains a list of forms of documentation that are acceptable for the purpose of eligibility verification, in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(8) Through the Director, Defense Manpower Data Center:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides and maintains training on the examination and inspection of documentation for the purpose of eligibility verification for DEERS enrollment, record management, and ID card issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Supports and maintains the development of automated data feeds to DEERS that serve as authoritative eligibility sources for applicable DoD ID card-eligible personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Supports and maintains the development of the Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) as the application used to incorporate and collect eligibility documentation.
</P>
<P>(e) The USD(AT&amp;L) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Update the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), current edition (available at <I>http://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/dars/dfarspgi/current/index.html</I>) to support requirements for CAC and Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 for contracts.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the requirement for contractors to return CACs at the completion or termination of each individual's support on a specific contract is included in all applicable contracts.
</P>
<P>(f) The USD(I) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish policy for the use of DoD issued ID cards for physical access purposes in accordance with DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520008r.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Establish policy for military, civilian, and contractor employee background investigation, submission, and adjudication across the Department of Defense, in compliance with Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 and Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Cards Under HSPD-12” (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/investigate/resources/final_credentialing_standards.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(g) The DoD CIO shall:
</P>
<P>(1) In coordination with the USD(I), USD(P&amp;R), and USD(AT&amp;L), establish policy and oversight for CAC life-cycle compliance with Federal Information Processing Standards Publication 201-1.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide guidance regarding the use of DoD and non-DoD identification credentials on DoD information systems, including the Federal PIV cards, for authenticating to DoD network accounts and DoD private Web sites.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the DoD Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) conforms to all applicable FIPS to the greatest extent possible.
</P>
<P>(h) The OSD and DoD Component heads other than the Secretaries of the Military Departments, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and implement Component-level procedures for DoD directed policies and statutory requirements to support benefits eligibility through DEERS.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop and implement Component-level ID card life-cycle procedures to comply with the provisions of this Instruction.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure all DoD employees, uniformed service members, and all other eligible CAC applicants, including contractor employees and other affiliate CAC applicants, have met the background investigation requirements referenced in paragraph (a)(3) of § 161.6 of this part prior to approving CAC sponsorship and registration. Background investigation status must be verified and documented by the sponsor or sponsoring organization in conjunction with application for CAC issuance.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish processes and procedures as part of the normal check-in and check-out process for collection of the CAC for all categories of DoD personnel and contractor employees when there is a separation, retirement, termination, contract termination or expiration, or CAC revocation. Since CACs contain personally identifiable information (PII), they shall be treated and controlled in accordance with 32 CFR part 310, and DoD 5200.1-M, Volume 4, “DoD Information Security Program: Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol4.pdf</I>). CACs shall be returned to any RAPIDS issuance location for proper disposal in a timely manner once surrendered by the CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide appropriate space and staffing for all DoD ID card issuing operations, as well as reliable telecommunications to and from the Defense Information Systems Agency managed Non-Classified Internet Protocol Router Network.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide funding for CAC cardstock, printer consumables, and electromagnetically opaque sleeves to Defense Manpower Data Center (DMDC).
</P>
<P>(7) Protect cardstock and consumables in accordance with the guidelines and standards issued and maintained by DMDC.
</P>
<P>(8) In accordance with FIPS Publication 201-3, provide electromagnetic opaque sleeves or other comparable technologies to protect against any unauthorized contactless access to the cardholder unique identification number stored on the CAC.
</P>
<P>(9) Manage the distribution and locations of CAC personal identification number (PIN) reset workstations.
</P>
<P>(10) To the maximum extent possible, and in accordance with DoD Components' designated accrediting authority guidelines, ensure networked workstations are properly configured and available for CAC holders to use the User Maintenance Portal-Post Issuance Portal (UMP-PIP) service.
</P>
<P>(11) Oversee supervision of TASS TAs and TA security managers and ensure the number of contractors overseen by any TA is manageable.
</P>
<P>(12) Comply with the provisions of this part and provide timely and accurate support to the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure that the policies and procedures in subpart D of this part are implemented to protect the privacy of individuals in the collection, use, maintenance, and dissemination of personally identifiable information, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretaries of the Military Departments; Director, Division of Commissioned Corps Personnel and Readiness, USPHS; and Administrator, NOAA, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint project officers from a level that represents the Service position of the active, National Guard, and Reserve Components for personnel policy to serve on the Joint Uniformed Services Personnel Advisory Committee.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the provisions of this part and other related policy and procedural guidance from the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate with the Director, DoDHRA, through the Joint Uniformed Services Personnel Advisory Committee, to determine if the list of acceptable eligibility documentation needs to be amended to add new documents or remove outdated documents.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the policies and procedures in this subpart are implemented to protect the privacy of individuals in the collection, use, maintenance, and dissemination of personally identifiable information, in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74878, Oct. 27, 2016; 89 FR 11179, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 18543, Mar. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.1.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD ID card life cycle shall be supported by an infrastructure that is predicated on a systems-based model for credentialing as described in FIPS Publication 201-3. Paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section represent the baseline requirements for the life cycle of all DoD ID cards. The specific procedures and sequence of order for these items will vary based on the applicant's employment status or affiliation with the DoD and the type of ID card issued. Detailed procedures of the ID card life cycle for each category of applicant and type of ID card shall be provided by the responsible agency.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sponsorship and eligibility.</I> Sponsorship shall incorporate the processes for confirming eligibility for an ID card. The sponsor is the person affiliated with the DoD or other Federal agency who takes responsibility for verifying and authorizing the applicant's need for an ID card. Applicants for a CAC must be sponsored by a DoD government official or employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Registration and enrollment.</I> Sponsorship and enrollment information on the ID card applicant shall be registered in DEERS prior to card issuance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Background investigation.</I> Background investigation is required for those individuals eligible for a CAC. A background investigation is not currently required for those eligible for other forms of DoD ID cards. Sponsored CAC applicants shall not be issued a CAC without a favorably adjudicated background investigation stipulated in FIPS Publication 201-3. Applicants that have been denied a CAC based on an unfavorable adjudication of the background investigation may submit an appeal in accordance with FIPS Publication 201-3 and Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identity and eligibility verification.</I> Identity and eligibility verification shall be completed at a RAPIDS workstation. Verifying officials (VOs) shall inspect identity and eligibility documentation and RAPIDS shall authenticate individuals to ensure that ID cards are provided only to those sponsored and with a current affiliation with the DoD. RAPIDS shall also capture uniquely identifying characteristics that bind an individual to the information maintained on that individual in DEERS and to the ID card issued by RAPIDS. These characteristics may include, but are not limited to, digital photographs and fingerprints.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Issuance.</I> ID cards shall be issued at the RAPIDS workstation after all sponsorship, enrollment and registration, background investigation (CAC only), and identity and eligibility verification requirements have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Use and maintenance.</I> ID cards shall be used as proof of identity and DoD affiliation to facilitate access to DoD facilities and systems. Additionally, ID cards shall represent authorization for entitled benefits and privileges in accordance with DoD policies.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Retrieval and revocation.</I> ID cards shall be retrieved by the sponsor or sponsoring organization when the ID card has expired, when it is damaged or compromised, or when the card holder is no longer affiliated with the DoD or no longer meets the eligibility requirements for the card. The active status of an ID card shall be revoked within the DEERS and RAPIDS infrastructure and the PKI certificates on the CAC shall be revoked.
</P>
<P>(b) The guidelines and restrictions of this paragraph apply to all forms of DoD ID cards.
</P>
<P>(1) Any person willfully altering, damaging, lending, counterfeiting, or using these cards in any unauthorized manner is subject to fine or imprisonment or both, as prescribed in 18 U.S.C. 499, 506, 509, 701, and 1001. Section 701 of 18 U.S.C. prohibits photographing or otherwise reproducing or possessing DoD ID cards in an unauthorized manner, under penalty of fine or imprisonment or both. Unauthorized or fraudulent use of ID cards would exist if bearers used the card to obtain benefits and privileges to which they are not entitled. Examples of authorized photocopying include photocopying of DoD ID cards to facilitate medical care processing, check cashing, voting, tax matters, compliance with 50 U.S.C. appendix 501 (also known as “The Service member's Civil Relief Act”), or administering other military-related benefits to eligible beneficiaries. When possible, the ID card will be electronically authenticated in lieu of photographing the card.
</P>
<P>(2) International agreements (including status-of-forces agreements) and host-nation law may limit and/or define the types of support available to personnel in overseas areas. Although an ID card may be used to verify eligibility in the United States for access to, for example, commissary or exchange facilities, the use of such facilities overseas may be limited to persons who are stationed or performing temporary duty in a foreign country under official orders in support of a mutual defense mission with the host nation. ID cards shall be issued only for the purposes identified in and in accordance with this Instruction, and the Heads of the DoD Components shall use other means, such as ration cards, to implement provisions in international agreements or to prevent violations of applicable host-nation law. ID cards shall not be issued for the sole purpose of implementing provisions of international agreements or restrictions based on applicable host-nation law.
</P>
<P>(3) All ID cards are property of the U.S. Government and shall be returned upon separation, resignation, firing, termination of contract or affiliation with the DoD, or upon any other event in which the individual no longer requires the use of such ID card.
</P>
<P>(4) To prevent any unauthorized use, ID cards that are expired, invalidated, stolen, lost, or otherwise suspected of potential or actual unauthorized use shall be revoked in DEERS along with the PKI certificates on the CACs immediately revoked.
</P>
<P>(5) There are instances where graphical representations of ID cards are necessary to facilitate the DoD mission. When used and distributed, the replicas must not be the same size as the ID card, must have the word “SAMPLE” written on them, and shall not contain an individual's PII. All SAMPLE ID cards must be maintained in a controlled environment and shall not serve as a valid ID.
</P>
<P>(6) Individuals within the DoD who have multiple personnel category codes (e.g., an individual who is both a reservist and a contractor) shall be issued a separate ID card in each personnel category for which they are eligible. Multiple current ID cards of the same form (e.g., CAC) shall not be issued or exist for an individual under a single personnel category code.
</P>
<P>(7) ID cards shall not be amended, modified, or overprinted by any means. No stickers or other adhesive materials are to be placed on either side of an ID card. Holes shall not be punched into ID cards, except when a CAC has been requested by the next of kin for an individual who has perished in the line of duty. A CAC provided to next of kin shall have the status of the card revoked in DEERS, have the certificates revoked, and have a hole punched through the integrated circuit chip before it is released to the next of kin.
</P>
<P>(8) An ID card shall be in the personal custody of the individual to whom it was issued at all times. If required by military authority, it shall be surrendered for ID or investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CAC migration to Federal PIV requirements.</I> The DoD is migrating the CAC to meet the Federal requirements for credentialing contained within Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 and FIPS Publication 201-3. Migration will take place over multiple years as the card issuance hardware, software, and supporting systems and processes are upgraded. Successful migration will require coordination and collaboration within and among all CAC communities (e.g., personnel security, operational security, industrial security, information security, physical security, and information technology). The organizations listed in this section will support the migration in conjunction with the responsibilities listed in § 161.5:
</P>
<P>(1) The Director, DMDC shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Procure and distribute CAC consumables, including card stock, electromagnetically opaque sleeves, and printer supplies, commensurate with funding received from the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(ii) In coordination with the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Policy, establish an electronic process for securing CAC eligibility information on foreign government military, employee, or contract support personnel whose visit status and background investigation has been confirmed, documented, and processed in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.20, “Visits and Assignments of Foreign Nationals” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523020p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with FIPS Publication 201-3, electronically capture and store source documents in the identity-proofing process at the accession points for eligible ID card holders.
</P>
<P>(iv) Implement modifications to the CAC applets and interfaces, add contactless capability to the CAC platform and implement modifications to the CAC topology to support compliance with FIPS Publication 201-3.
</P>
<P>(v) Establish and implement procedures for capturing biometrics required to support CAC issuance, which includes fingerprints and facial images specified in FIPS Publication 201-3 and National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication 800-76-1, “Biometric Data Specification for Personal Identity Verification” (available at <I>http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-76-1/SP800-76-1_012407.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(vi) In coordination with the Executive Manager for DoD Biometrics and the Office of the USD(AT&amp;L), implement the capability to obtain two segmented images (primary and secondary) fingerprint minutiae from the full 10-print fingerprints captured as part of the initial background investigation process for CAC issuance.
</P>
<P>(vii) Maintain a capability for a CAC holder to reset or unlock PINs from a system outside of the CAC issuance infrastructure.
</P>
<P>(2) The Executive Manager for DoD Biometrics, as appointed by the Secretary of the Army as DoD Executive Agent for DoD Biometrics in accordance with DoD Directive 8521.01E, “Department of Defense Biometrics” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/852101p.pdf</I>), shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish biometric standards for collection, storage, and subsequent transmittal of biometric information in accordance with DoD Directive 8521.01E (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/852101p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) In coordination with the USD(P&amp;R), the USD(I), and the Heads of the DoD Components, establish capability for biometric collection and enrollment operations to support CAC issuance in accordance with 32 CFR part 310 and National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication 800-76-1 (available at <I>http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-76-1/SP800-76-1_012407.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) The Identity Protection and Management Senior Coordinating Group shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor the CAC and identity management related activities outlined within this Instruction in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100025p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain a configuration management process for the CAC and its related components to monitor DoD compliance with FIPS Publication 201-3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74878, Oct. 27, 2016; 89 FR 11179, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—DoD Identification (ID) Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.7   ID card life-cycle procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsorship and eligibility.</I> In accordance with this part, sponsorship shall incorporate the processes for confirming eligibility for an ID card. The sponsor is the person affiliated with the DoD or other Federal agency who takes responsibility for verifying and authorizing the applicant's need for an ID card. Applicants for a CAC shall be sponsored by a DoD Government official or employee.
</P>
<P>(1) The population categories and specific ID cards for which applicants are eligible are listed in Appendix 1 of this section. The majority of these populations are eligible to be sponsored for an ID card based on either their employment status with the DoD or their authorization to receive DoD benefits and entitlements. Examples of these population categories include, but are not limited to: Uniformed services personnel; DoD civilian employees; military retirees; certain DoD beneficiaries; and the eligible dependents for these categories.
</P>
<P>(2) Specific populations, listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of Appendix 1 of this section who are eligible to submit for the “U.S. DoD/Uniformed Service ID Card” may only be sponsored if they meet additional criteria. Examples of these population categories include DoD contractors, non-DoD Federal civilians, State employees, and other non-DoD personnel that have an affiliation with the DoD other than through employment or contract. Eligibility for these approved population categories is based on the DoD Government sponsor's determination of the type and frequency of access required to DoD facilities or networks. For the populations described in this paragraph, the applicant's sponsor must confirm that the applicant meets one of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Both physical access to a DoD facility and access, via logon, to DoD networks on-site or remotely. Access to the DoD network must require the use of a computer with Government-controlled configuration or use of a DoD-approved remote access procedure in accordance with the Defense Information Systems Agency Security Technical Implementation Guide, “Secure Remote Computing” (available at <I>http://iase.disa.mil/stigs/a-z.html</I> under “Remote. . .”).
</P>
<P>(ii) Remote access, via logon, to a DoD network using DoD-approved remote access procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical access to multiple DoD facilities or multiple non-DoD federally controlled facilities on behalf of the DoD (applicable to DoD contractors only) on a recurring basis for a period of 6 months or more.
</P>
<P>(A) The frequency of “recurring basis” for access shall be determined by the DoD Component concerned in coordination with installation security policies.
</P>
<P>(B) CAC eligibility for applicants requiring physical access to multiple DoD facilities on a recurring basis for less than 6 months are risk-based decisions that shall be made by the DoD Component concerned in coordination with installation security policies. These applicants may instead be eligible for local or regional base passes in accordance with Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)) and local installation security policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration and enrollment.</I> In accordance with this part, sponsorship and enrollment information about the ID card applicant shall be registered in the DEERS prior to card issuance.
</P>
<P>(1) For uniformed services personnel and DoD civilians, all submissions to DEERS must be made electronically via an authorized data source feed (e.g., Civilian Personnel Management Service). Data source feeds for additional population categories shall be approved and incorporated by the Office of the USD(P&amp;R) (OUSD(P&amp;R)) as they become available.
</P>
<P>(2) The population categories that are not registered via an authorized data source feed will be registered in DEERS via the RAPIDS using the DD Form 1172-2 or via the TASS (formerly known as CVS, as described in § 161.8 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Background Investigation.</I> In accordance with this subpart and DoDI 5200.46, “DoD Investigative and Adjudicative Guidance for Issuing the Common Access Card (CAC)” (available at: <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/ directives/corres/pdf/ 520046p.pdf</I>), a background investigation is required for those individuals eligible for a CAC. A background investigation is not currently required for those eligible for other forms of DoD ID cards. The use of the CAC, as the DoD Federal personal identity verification (PIV) card, is governed and supported by additional policies when compared to non-CAC ID cards. 

Sponsored CAC applicants shall not be issued a CAC without the required background investigation stipulated in DoDI 5200.46 and FIPS Publication 201-3.
</P>
<P>(1) A background investigation shall be initiated by the sponsoring organization before a CAC can be issued. The mechanisms required to verify completion of background investigation activities for DoD, military, and civilian CAC populations are managed within the DoD human resources and personnel security communities and are linked to the CAC issuance process. An automated means is not currently in place to confirm the vetting for populations other than DoD military and civilian personnel such as CAC-eligible contractors and non-DoD Federal civilian affiliates. When data is not available within the CAC issuance infrastructure on the background investigation status for an applicant, the sponsor shall be responsible for confirming that the required background investigation procedures comply with the DoD Instruction 5200.46 and FIPS Publication 201-3 before a CAC is authorized for issuance.
</P>
<P>(2) Issuance of a CAC requires, at a minimum, the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) fingerprint check with favorable results and successful submission of a NACI (or investigation approved in Federal Investigative Standards) to the Office of Personnel Management (OPM). Completed background investigations for CAC issuance shall be adjudicated in accordance with DoD Instruction 5200.46 and Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12” (available at <I>http://www.opm.gov/investigate/resources/final_credentialing_standards.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) Except for uniformed services members, special considerations for conducting background investigations of non-U.S. nationals are addressed in DoD Instruction 5200.46. Non-U.S. person CAC applicants that do not meet the criteria to complete a NACI (e.g., U.S. residency requirements), must meet one of the criteria in paragraph (c)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section prior to CAC issuance. CACs issued to these non-U.S. persons shall display a blue stripe as described in appendix 2 of this section. Procedures for the acceptance of this CAC shall be in accordance with DoD Instruction 5200.46 and Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.” The specific background investigation conducted on the non-U.S. person may vary based on governing international agreements. Non-U.S. persons must:
</P>
<P>(i) Possess (as foreign military, employee, or contract support personnel) a visit status and security assurance that has been confirmed, documented, and processed in accordance with international agreements pursuant to DoD Directive 5230.20, “Visits and Assignments of Foreign Nationals” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/ 523020p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) Meet (as direct or indirect DoD hire personnel overseas) the investigative requirements for DoD employment as recognized through international agreements pursuant to Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25, “DoD Civilian Personnel Management System: Employment of Foreign Nationals” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/html/CPM_table2.html</I>). In addition to these investigative requirements, a fingerprint check against the FBI criminal history database, an FBI investigations files (name check search), and a name check against the Terrorist Screening Database shall be required prior to CAC issuance in accordance with Office of Personnel Management Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Identity and eligibility verification.</I> In accordance with this part, identity and eligibility verification shall be completed at a RAPIDS workstation. VOs shall inspect identity and eligibility documentation and RAPIDS shall authenticate individuals to ensure that ID cards are provided only to those sponsored and who have a current affiliation with the DoD. RAPIDS shall also capture uniquely identifying characteristics that bind an individual to the information maintained in DEERS and to the ID card issued by RAPIDS. These characteristics may include, but are not limited to, digital photographs and fingerprints.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identity documents.</I> Applicants for initial ID card issuance shall submit two identity documents in original form as proof of identity. A VO at a RAPIDS workstation shall inspect and verify the documents presented by the applicant before ID card issuance. The identity documents must come from the list of acceptable primary and secondary documents included in the FIPS Publication 201-3 PIV Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements, or, for non-U.S. persons, other sources as outlined within paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section. Copies of the identity documentation may be accepted so long as they are certified documents. In accordance with FIPS Publication 201-3 PIV Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements, the identity documents shall be neither expired nor cancelled. The primary identity document shall be a State or Federal Government-issued picture ID. The identity documents shall be inspected for authenticity and scanned and stored in the DEERS in accordance with the DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide” upon issuance of an ID card. The requirement for the primary identity document to have a photo cannot be waived for initial ID card issuance, consistent with applicable statutory requirements. Identity documentation requirements for renewal or re-issuance are provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. When it has been determined that a CAC applicant has purposely misrepresented or not provided the applicant's true identity, the case shall be referred by the relevant RAPIDS Service Project office (SPO) to the sponsoring DoD or other Uniformed Service Component organization. The DoD or other Uniformed Service Component organization concerned shall initiate an investigation or provide appeals procedures as appropriate. Exceptions to the identity documentation requirements for initial ID card issuance are provided in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Children.</I> Children under the age of 18 applying for a dependent ID card are only required to provide documentation for the initial verification of eligibility or proof of relationship to the sponsor described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Documentation for non-U.S. persons.</I> At foreign locations, eligible non-U.S. persons may not possess identity documentation from the FIPS Publication 201-3 PIV Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements required for ID card issuance. These individuals shall still provide personal ID as required by the intent of this paragraph (d)(1). Non-U.S. persons within the United States and U.S. territories and possessions shall present a valid (unexpired) foreign passport as the primary form of identity source documentation. DoD organizations based outside the United States and U.S. territories and possessions should work with the local consular affairs office to determine guidelines for the appropriate identity documentation for eligible non-U.S. persons in accordance with agreements with host nations. It is recommended that a foreign passport be used as the primary form of identity source documentation for these individuals. The requirement for the primary identity document to have a photo cannot be waived. A foreign government issued ID with photograph may be used as a secondary document for ID card issuance. Additional documentation used to verify identity must be original or certified true copies. All documentation not in English must have a certified English translation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility documents.</I> ID card applicants may be required to provide documentation as initial verification of eligibility for benefits or proof of relationship to the sponsor. The eligibility documents shall be inspected for authenticity by the VO and scanned and stored in DEERS in accordance with the procedures in DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide.” Specifications and the types of documents and how they are utilized to verify eligibility for a member or dependent based on their status (e.g., Retired, Reservist, spouse, former spouse, child) shall be established by the uniformed services subject to the guidelines in this subpart. All documentation used to verify eligibility must be original or certified true copies. All documentation not in English must have a certified English translation. Eligibility documentation is not required when DEERS can verify eligibility via an authoritative source or process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DEERS verification.</I> The VO shall utilize DEERS to verify affiliation and eligibility for benefits as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Biometrics.</I> In accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25, ID card applicants shall provide two fingerprint biometric scans and a facial image, to assist with authenticating the applicant's identity and to bind the information maintained on that individual in DEERS and to the ID card issued by RAPIDS. These requirements shall be integrated into the ID card issuance processes in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(i) A digitized, full-face passport-type photograph will be captured for the facial image and stored in DEERS and shall have a plain white or off-white background. No flags, posters, or other images shall appear in the photo. All ID cards issued will display a photograph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two fingerprints are captured for storage within DEERS for applicable ID card applicants. The right and left index fingers shall normally be designated as the primary and secondary finger, respectively. However, if those fingers cannot be imaged, the primary and secondary designations shall be taken in the following order of priority: Right thumb, left thumb, right middle finger, left middle finger, right ring finger, left ring finger, right little finger, left little finger.
</P>
<P>(iii) If two fingerprints cannot be captured, the facial image will be the alternative for authenticating ID card applicants and ID card holders during the issuance process. Additionally, when verification or capture of biometrics is not possible, authorization will be provided by the RAPIDS SSM's digital signature. This transaction shall be subject to audit by DMDC and the uniformed services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuance.</I> In accordance with this part, ID cards shall be issued at the RAPIDS workstation after all sponsorship, enrollment and registration, background investigation (CAC only), and identity and eligibility verification requirements have been satisfied. Initial issuance of an ID card to an applicant will be contingent on satisfying the criteria in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cross-servicing.</I> The uniformed services agree to cross-service the issuance of ID cards when affiliation and eligibility can be verified in DEERS. When eligibility cannot be verified through DEERS, presentation of documentation shall be required. The uniformed services shall restrict cross-servicing for verification of the DD Form 1172-2 and eligibility documentation to the parent uniformed service for the categories in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (viii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Initial application for permanently incapacitated individuals over age 21 and temporarily incapacitated children over age 21.
</P>
<P>(ii) All dependent parents and parents-in-law.
</P>
<P>(iii) Illegitimate child of a male sponsor, whose paternity has not been judicially determined.
</P>
<P>(iv) Illegitimate child of spouse or sponsor.
</P>
<P>(v) Unremarried and unmarried former spouses applying for initial issuance of an ID card.
</P>
<P>(vi) Retiree from other services, and former members not currently enrolled in DEERS.
</P>
<P>(vii) Surviving dependents of Reserve Retirees on the sponsor's 60th birthday.
</P>
<P>(viii) Abused dependents.
</P>
<P>(ix) Wards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expiration dates</I>—(i) <I>CACs.</I> Except as noted in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, CACs shall be issued for a period not to exceed 3 years from the date of issuance or contract expiration date, whichever is shorter. Unfunded contract options shall be considered in the determination of the length of contract. For example, a contractor hired under DoD contract with a base year plus 2 option years shall be issued a CAC with a 3-year expiration. The expiration date of the PKI certificates on the CAC shall match the expiration date on the card.
</P>
<P>(A) CACs issued to DoD civilian employees, contractors, and other eligible personnel assigned overseas or deploying in support of contingency operations shall have an expiration date coinciding with their deployment period end date.
</P>
<P>(B) Service Academy students shall be issued 4-year cards with 3-year certificates.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Non-CAC ID cards.</I> (A) DD Form 1173, “United States Uniformed Services ID and Privilege Card” issued to dependents of DoD civilian employees, contractors, and other eligible personnel assigned overseas or deploying in support of contingency operations shall have an expiration date coinciding with their deployment period end date.
</P>
<P>(B) An indefinite DD Form 1173 will be issued to the dependents of retired Service members who are either 65 years of age or permanently incapacitated in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1060b.
</P>
<P>(C) All other non-CAC ID cards shall be given expiration dates in accordance with the guidance listed on <I>www.cac.mil</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Renewal and reissuance.</I> Consistent with applicable law, the applicant for ID renewal or reissuance shall be required to surrender the current DoD ID card that is up for renewal or reissuance except as indicated for lost and stolen ID cards in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section. An expired DoD ID card is an acceptable secondary form of ID for non-CAC ID card renewal or reissuance if identity document verification is required. To authenticate renewal or reissuance applicants, the VO shall visually compare the applicant against the facial image stored in DEERS. For applicants who have fingerprint biometrics stored in DEERS, live fingerprint biometrics samples shall be checked against the applicant's DEERS record. If the biometric check confirms the identity of the renewal or reissuance applicant then no additional documentation is required to verify identity other than the ID card that is being renewed or reissued (documentation may still be required to verify or re-verify eligibility as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section). As a general practice for renewal or re-issuance, two fresh fingerprint biometric captures may be stored for applicable personnel through the initial procedures in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section to support DMDC's biometric update schedule. If biometric information cannot be verified, the requirements for initial issuance shall apply or a temporary card may be issued in accordance with paragraph (e)(4) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) An ID card holder may apply for a renewal starting 90 days prior to the expiration of a valid ID. The SPO can provide exceptions to this requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) An ID card shall be reissued when printed information requires changes (e.g., pay grade, rank, change in eligibility), when any of the media (including printed data, magnetic stripe, bar codes, or integrated circuit chip) becomes illegible or inoperable, or when a CAC is known or suspected to be compromised.
</P>
<P>(iii) An ID card shall be reissued when it is reported lost or stolen. The individual reporting a lost or stolen ID card shall be required to provide a valid (unexpired) State or Federal Government-issued picture ID as noted in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, consistent with applicable law, when available. If the individual is unable to present the required identity documentation, a biometric verification shall be used as proof of identity as described in paragraph (e)(3)(iii)(A) of this section. The VO shall verify the cardholder's identity against the biometric information stored in DEERS and confirm the expiration date of the missing ID card. The individual shall also be required to present documentation from the local security office or ID card sponsor confirming that the ID card has been reported lost or stolen. This documentation must be scanned and stored in DEERS. For dependents, the DD Form 1172-2 serves as the supporting documentation for a lost or stolen card. For individuals sponsored through TASS, the replacement ID card shall have the same expiration date as the lost or stolen card.
</P>
<P>(A) If no identity documentation is available but biometric information (facial image or fingerprint when applicable) in the DEERS database can be verified by the VO, an ID card can be reissued to the individual upon the additional approval of a SSM. This transaction shall be digitally signed and audited.
</P>
<P>(B) If biometric information cannot be verified, the requirements for initial issuance shall apply or a temporary card may be issued in accordance with paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Temporary cards</I>—(i) <I>Temporary issuance of a CAC.</I> During contingency operations, in the event there is no communication with the DEERS database or the certificate authority, a temporary CAC may be issued with an abbreviated expiration date for a maximum of 10 days. The temporary card will not have PKI certificates and will be replaced as soon as the member can reach an online RAPIDS station or communications have been restored. Additionally, the temporary CAC does not communicate or imply eligibility to any DoD benefit. This capability will be enabled only at affected RAPIDS sites and must have approval granted by DMDC.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Temporary issuance of a Uniformed Services Identification card.</I> There are multiple scenarios under which a temporary Uniformed Services Identification card may be issued. The uniformed services shall develop standard processes and procedures for scenarios requiring issuance of a temporary DD Forms 2765 “Department of Defense/Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card” or DD 1173, including but not limited to those situations where the applicant needs to obtain the necessary legal documentation or the sponsor is unavailable to provide an authorizing signature.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple cards.</I> Individuals shall be issued a separate ID card for each population category for which they qualify as described in Appendix 1 of this section. In instances where an individual has been issued more than one ID card (e.g., an individual that is eligible for an ID card as both a Reservist and as a DoD contractor employee), only the ID card that most accurately depicts the capacity in which the individual is affiliated with the DoD should be utilized at any given time.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use and maintenance.</I> In accordance with this part, ID cards shall be used as proof of identity and DoD affiliation to facilitate access to DoD facilities and systems. Additionally, ID cards shall represent authorization for entitled benefits and privileges in accordance with DoD policies. The CAC, as the DoD Federal PIV card, is governed and supported by additional policies and infrastructure when compared to non-CAC ID cards. This section provides additional guidance on CAC use and maintenance:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access.</I> The granting of access privileges is determined by the facility or system owner as prescribed by the DoD.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accountability.</I> CAC holders will maintain accountability of their CAC at all times while affiliated with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PKI.</I> Using the RAPIDS platform, DoD PKI identity and PIV authentication certificates will be issued on the CAC at the time of card issuance in compliance with OPM Memorandum, “Final Credentialing Standards for Issuing Personal Identity Verification Cards under HSPD-12.” Email signature, email encryption, or PIV authentication certificates may also be available on the CAC either upon issuance or at a later time. If the person receiving a CAC does not have an organization email address assigned to them, they may return to a RAPIDS terminal or use milConnect to receive their email certificate when the email address has been assigned. To help prevent inadvertent disclosure of controlled information, email addresses assigned by an organization shall comply with DoD Instruction 8500.2, “Information Awareness (IA) Implementation” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/850002p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>milConnect.</I> DoD has a self-service Web site available that allows an authenticated CAC holder to add applets to the CAC, change the email address, add/update Email Signature and Email Encryption Certificates, and activate the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Authentication certificate. This capability can be utilized from any properly configured UNCLASSIFED networked workstation. The milConnect Web site is <I>https://www.dmdc.osd.mil/milconnect.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>CAC Personal ID Number (PIN) Reset.</I> DoD has manned workstations capable of resetting the PINs of a CAC holder with a locked card or forgotten PIN. These workstations are intended to provide alternative locations for CAC holders to service their cards other than RAPIDS issuance locations. To authenticate cardholders, live biometric samples shall be checked against the biometrics stored in DEERS prior to resetting CACs. This process requires the presence of a CPR trusted agent (CTA) or TASM or RAPIDS VO or SSM.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Retrieval and revocation.</I> In accordance with this part, ID cards shall be retrieved by the sponsor or sponsoring organization when the ID card has expired, when it is damaged or compromised, or when the card holder is no longer affiliated with the DoD or no longer meets the eligibility requirements for the card. The active status of the card shall be terminated within the DEERS and RAPIDS infrastructure. The CAC, as the DoD Federal PIV card, is governed and supported by additional policies and infrastructure when compared to non-CAC ID cards. This section provides additional guidance on CAC retrieval and revocation:
</P>
<P>(1) CACs shall be retrieved as part of the normal organizational or command-level check-out processes. The active status of the CAC shall also be terminated in special circumstances (e.g., absent without leave, unauthorized absence, missing in action) in accordance with organization or command-level security policies.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD sponsor or sponsoring organization is ultimately responsible for retrieving CACs from their personnel who are no longer supporting their organization or activity with the exception of transferring DoD civilian employees. Civilian employees transferring from one DoD Component to another as civilian employees (<I>e.g.,</I> Army civilian to Air Force civilian) will be permitted to retain their CAC during their transition for up to 30 days in accordance with the DoD CIO and USD(P&amp;R) joint memorandum, “Common Access Card Retention for Department of Defense Civilian Employees when Transferring Between Department of Defense Components.” CAC retrieval will be documented and treated as personally identifiable information, in accordance with DoD Regulation 5200.1-R, and 32 CFR part 310 and receipted to a RAPIDS site for disposition in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon loss, destruction, or revocation of the CAC, the certificates thereon are revoked and placed on the certificate revocation list in accordance with Assistant Secretary of Defense for Networks and Information Integration Certificate Policy, “X.509 Certificate Policy for the United States Department of Defense” (available at <I>http://jitc.fhu.disa.mil/pki/documents/dod_x509_certificate_policy_v9_0_9_february_2005.pdf</I>). All other situations that pertain to the disposition of the certificates are handled in accordance with Assistant Secretary of Defense for Networks and Information Integration Certificate Policy, “X.509 Certificate Policy for the United States Department of Defense” as implemented.


</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 1 to § 161.7—ID Card Descriptions and Population Eligibility Categories




</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> Paragraphs (b) through (e) of this appendix contain information on the CAC type of ID card. The remaining paragraphs in the appendix contain information on all other versions of DoD enterprise-wide ID cards. This appendix describes these cards and lists some of the categories of populations that are eligible to be sponsored for the cards under the guidelines described in paragraph (a) of § 161.7; additional ID-card eligible categories are codified in subpart C of this part. RAPIDS accesses DEERS information collected by the DD Form 1172-2 to generate all of the ID Cards identified in this appendix. The benefits and entitlements that support ID card eligibility for populations in this appendix are described in subpart C of this part. Guidelines and restrictions that pertain to all forms of DoD ID cards are included in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Armed Forces of the United States Geneva Conventions ID Card</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This CAC is the primary ID card for uniformed services members and shall be used to identify the member's eligibility for benefits and privileges administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part. The CAC shall also be used to facilitate standardized, uniform access to DoD facilities, and installations in accordance with Directive Type Memorandum 09-012, “Interim Policy Guidance for DoD Physical Access Control” (available at: <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/DTM-09-012.pdf</I>) and DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program,” and to computer systems in accordance with DoD Instruction 8520.02, “Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and Public Key (PK) Enabling,” (available at: <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/852002p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(i) The card shall also serve as ID for purposes of Geneva Convention requirements in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.01.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a member is captured as a hostage, detainee, or prisoner of war (POW), the card shall be shown to the capturing authorities, but, insofar as possible, should not be surrendered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Those populations eligible for this type of CAC include:
</P>
<P>(i) Members of the regular components of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Members of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of the Reserve Components.
</P>
<P>(iii) Members of the IRR of the Ready Reserve authorized in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary of Defense to perform duty in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 10147.
</P>
<P>(iv) Uniformed services members of NOAA and USPHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>U.S. DoD or Uniformed Services ID Card</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This CAC is the primary ID card for eligible civilian employees, contractors, and foreign national affiliates and shall be used to facilitate standardized, uniform access to DoD facilities, and installations in accordance with Directive Type Memorandum 09-012, “Interim Policy Guidance for DoD Physical Access Control” and DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program,” and computer systems in accordance with DoD Instruction 8520.02, “Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and Public Key (PK) Enabling.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> (i) DoD civilian employees are eligible for this CAC, to include:
</P>
<P>(A) Individuals appointed to appropriated fund and NAF positions.
</P>
<P>(B) USCG and NOAA civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(C) Permanent or time-limited employees on full-time, part-time, or intermittent work schedules for 6 months or more.
</P>
<P>(D) SES, Competitive Service, and Excepted Service employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligibility for additional populations shall be based on a combination of the personnel category and the DoD Government sponsor's determination of the type and frequency of access required to DoD networks and facilities described in paragraph (a) of § 161.7 of this subpart. These personnel categories include:
</P>
<P>(A) Non-DoD civilian employees to include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) State employees working in support of the National Guard.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) IPA employees.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Non-DoD Government Agency Civilian Personnel that are working in support of DoD but do not possess a Federal PIV card that is accepted by the sponsoring DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(B) DoD contractors.
</P>
<P>(C) USCG and NOAA contractors.
</P>
<P>(D) Persons whose affiliation with DoD is established through:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Direct and Indirect Hiring Overseas.</I> Non-U.S. citizens hired under an agreement with the host nation and paid directly by the uniformed services (direct hire) or paid by an entity other than the uniformed services for the benefits of the uniformed services (indirect hire).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Assignment as Foreign Military, Foreign Government Civilians, or Foreign Government Contractors to Support DoD Missions.</I> Non-U.S. citizens who are sponsored by their government as part of an official visit or assignment to work with DoD.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Procurement Contracts, Grant Agreements or Other Cooperative Agreements.</I> Individuals who have an established relationship between the U.S. Government and a State, a local government, or other recipient as specified in 31 U.S.C. 6303, 6304, and 6305.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>U.S. DoD or Uniformed Services ID and Privilege Card</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This CAC is the primary ID card for civilian employees, contractors, and foreign national military, as well as other eligible individuals entitled to benefits and privileges administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part. The CAC shall be used to facilitate standardized, uniform access to DoD facilities, and installations in accordance with Directive Type Memorandum 09-012, “Interim Policy Guidance for DoD Physical Access Control” and DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program,” and computer systems in accordance with DoD Instruction 8520.02, “Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and Public Key (PK) Enabling.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Specific population categories are entitled to benefits and privileges, in accordance with subpart C of this part, and shall be eligible for this CAC, to include:
</P>
<P>(i) DoD and uniformed services civilian employees when stationed or employed and residing in foreign countries for a period of at least 365 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD contractors when stationed or employed and residing in foreign countries for a period of at least 365 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) DoD Presidential appointees who have been appointed with the advice and consent of the Senate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Civilian employees of the Army and Air Force Exchange System, Navy Exchange System, and Marine Corps Exchange System and NAF activity employees of the Coast Guard Exchange Service.
</P>
<P>(v) Uniformed and non-uniformed full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services within the United States and U.S. territories and possessions, when required to reside in a household on a military installation.
</P>
<P>(vi) Uniformed and non-uniformed, full-time, paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services in foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(vii) Foreign military who meet the eligibility requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of § 161.7 and are in one of the categories in paragraphs (d)(2)(viii)(A) through (C) of this appendix. Those foreign military not meeting the eligibility requirements for CAC as described in paragraph (a)(2) of § 161.7 shall be issued a DD Form 2765 as described in paragraph (l) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>U.S. DoD or Uniformed Service Geneva Conventions ID Card for Civilians Accompanying the Armed Forces</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This CAC serves as the DoD and/or Uniformed Services Geneva Conventions ID card for civilians accompanying the uniformed services and shall be used to facilitate standardized, uniform access to DoD facilities, and installations in accordance with Directive Type Memorandum 09-012, “Interim Policy Guidance for DoD Physical Access Control” and DoD 5200.08-R, “Physical Security Program,” and computer systems in accordance with DoD Instruction 8520.02, “Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and Public Key (PK) Enabling.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> The following population categories are eligible for this CAC:
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency-essential employees as defined in DoD Directive 1404.10, “DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/140410p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors authorized to accompany the force (contingency contractor employees) as defined in Joint Publication 1-02 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/doctrine/new_pubs/jp1_02.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DD Form 2, “Armed Forces of the United States Identification Card (Reserve).</I>”—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for RC members not eligible for a CAC. Benefits and privileges shall be administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The DD Form 2S (RES) shall serve as ID for purposes of the Geneva Convention requirements in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.01.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a member is captured as a hostage, detainee, or POW, the DD Form 2S (RES), shall be shown to the capturing authorities, but, insofar as possible, should not be surrendered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Those populations eligible for the DD Form 2S (RES) include:
</P>
<P>(i) Ready Reserve, who are not otherwise entitled to either DD Form 2S (RET), “Armed Forces of the United States Geneva Conventions Identification Card (Retired) (Blue),” or a CAC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Standby Reserve.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Reserve Officers' Training Corps College Program students that have signed a contract leading to military service.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>DD Form 2S (Ret)</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for retired uniformed services members entitled to retired pay. Benefits and privileges shall be administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Members of the uniformed services who are entitled and in receipt of retired pay, or entitled and have waived their retired pay, are eligible for the DD 2S (RET).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>DD Form 2, “United States Uniformed Services Identification Card (Reserve Retired).</I>”—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for members of the National Guard or Reserves who have completed 20 creditable years of service and have elected to be transferred to the Retired Reserve. They will qualify for pay at age 60, or earlier if they have qualified contingency service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Members of the Reserve Components who are entitled to retired pay at age 60 (or earlier if they have qualified contingency service) and have not yet attained age 60 are eligible for the DD Form 2 (Reserve Retired).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DD Form 1173</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for dependents and other similar categories of individuals eligible for benefits and privileges administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Specific population categories entitled to benefits and privileges as described in subpart C of this part are eligible for the DD Form 1173 to include:
</P>
<P>(i) Dependents of active duty Service members of the regular components, Reserve Component Service members on active duty for more than 30 days, and retirees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Surviving dependents of active duty members.
</P>
<P>(iii) Surviving dependents of retired military members.
</P>
<P>(iv) Surviving dependents of MOH recipients and surviving dependents of honorably discharged veterans rated by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) as 100 percent disabled from a uniformed services-connected injury or disease at the time of his or her death.
</P>
<P>(v) Accompanying dependents of foreign military.
</P>
<P>(vi) Dependents of authorized civilian personnel overseas.
</P>
<P>(vii) Other benefits eligible categories as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>DD Form 1173-1, “Department of Defense Guard and Reserve Family Member Identification Card.”</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for dependents of Ready Reserve and Standby Reserve members not on active duty in excess of 30 days. When accompanied by a set of the sponsor's valid active duty orders, the card shall be used in place of a DD Form 1173 for a period of time not to exceed 270 days, if the member is called to active duty by congressional decree or Presidential call-up under 10 U.S.C. chapter 1209.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Eligible dependents of Reserve Component members and retirees as described in subpart C of this part are eligible for the DD Form 1173-1.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>DD Form 2764, “United States DoD/Uniformed Services Geneva Conventions Card.</I>”—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID for non-CAC eligible civilian noncombatant personnel who are deployed in conjunction with military operations overseas. The DD Form 2764 also replaces DD Form 489, “Geneva Conventions Identity Card for Civilians Who Accompany the Armed Forces.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Civilian noncombatant personnel who have been authorized to accompany U.S. forces in regions of conflict, combat, and contingency operations and who are liable to capture and detention by the enemy as POWs are eligible for the DD Form 2764 in accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.01.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>DD Form 2765</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This is the primary ID card for categories of individuals, other than current or retired members of the uniformed services, who are eligible for uniformed services benefits and privileges in their own right without requiring a current affiliation with another sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Those populations eligible for the DD Form 2765 include:
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign national military personnel described in paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this appendix that cannot meet all criteria for CAC issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Former members.
</P>
<P>(iii) Members eligible for transitional health care (THC). These individuals shall be eligible for DD Form 2765 showing expiration date for each benefit, as shown on the reverse of the card.
</P>
<P>(iv) MOH recipients.
</P>
<P>(v) DAV (rated 100 percent disabled by the Department of Veterans Affairs).
</P>
<P>(vi) DoD beneficiaries (eligible former spouses, widows, widowers, and abused dependents)
</P>
<P>(vii) Civilian personnel in the categories listed in paragraphs (l)(2)(vii)(A) through (D) of this appendix:
</P>
<P>(A) Other U.S. Government agency civilian employees when stationed or employed and residing in foreign countries for a period of at least 365 days.
</P>
<P>(B) Full-time paid personnel of the United Service Organization, when serving in foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(C) United Seaman's Service (USS) personnel in foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(D) Military Sealift Command (MSC) civil service marine personnel deployed to foreign countries on MSC-owned and -operated vessels.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>DoD Civilian Retiree Card</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> This ID shall only be used to establish DoD civilian retiree identity and previous affiliation with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Appropriated and NAF civilians that have retired from any DoD Service component or agency are eligible for the DoD Civilian Retiree Card. These civilians must have their retired status verified in DEERS before an ID card can be issued.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>NOAA Retired Wage Mariner and Family Member Card</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> The NOAA Retired Wage Mariner and Family Member Card is a sub-category of the DoD Civilian Retiree Card and shall be used to establish identity and affiliation with the DoD and to identify the individual's eligibility for benefits and privileges administered by the uniformed services as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> Retired Wage Mariners of NOAA and their dependents as described in subpart C of this part are eligible for the NOAA Retired Wage Mariners and Family Members Card.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 2 to § 161.7—Topology Specifications




</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Topology.</I> Graphical representations of all CACs are maintained at <I>www.cac.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CAC stripe color coding.</I> The CAC shall be color-coded as indicated in the Table to reflect the status of the holder of the card. If a person meets more than one condition as shown in the Table, priority will be given to the blue stripe to denote a non-U.S. citizen unless the card serves as a Geneva Conventions card.
</P>
<P>(1) If a person meets more than one condition as shown in the Table, priority will be given to the blue stripe to denote a non-U.S. citizen unless the card serves as a Geneva Conventions card.
</P>
<P>(2) FIPS Publication 201-3 reserves the color red to distinguish emergency first responder officials. Until the DoD implementation of Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 is complete, the color red will also be used to denote non-U.S. personnel in the same manner as the blue stripe in the Table (i.e., some cards with red stripes may continue to exist in circulation until the 3-year life cycle is complete).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table—CAC Stripe Color Coding
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No stripe
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. military and DoD civilian personnel or any personnel eligible for a Geneva Conventions card
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-U.S. personnel, including DoD contract employees (other than those persons requiring a Geneva Conventions card).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Green</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All U.S. citizen personnel under contract to the DoD (other than those persons requiring a Geneva Conventions card).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>CAC printed statements</I>—(1) Eligible individuals who are permanently assigned in foreign countries for at least 365 days (it should be noted that local nationals are in their home country, not a foreign country) will have the word “OVERSEAS” printed within the authorized patronage area of the CAC.
</P>
<P>(2) The authorized patronage area for eligible individuals permanently assigned within the United States and U.S. territories and possessions will be blank. Travel orders authorize access for these individuals while en route to the deployment site.
</P>
<P>(3) During a conflict, combat, or contingency operation, civilian employees with a U.S. DoD or Uniformed Services Geneva Conventions ID Card for Civilians Accompanying the Uniformed Services will be granted all commissary; exchange; MWR; and medical privileges available at the site of the deployment, regardless of the statements on the ID card. Contractor employees possessing this ID card shall receive the benefit of those commissary, exchange, MWR, and medical privileges that are accorded to such persons by international agreements in force between the United States and the host country concerned and their letter of authorization.
</P>
<P>(4) The medical area on the card for individuals on permanent assignment in a foreign country will contain the statement: “When TAD/TDY or stationed overseas on a space available fully reimbursable basis.” However, civilian employees and contractor employees providing support when forward deployed during a conflict, combat, or contingency operation are treated in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 10147 and chapters 1209 and 1223 and DoD Instruction 3020.41, “Operational Contract Support” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/302041p.pdf</I>), and the Deputy Secretary of Defense Memorandum, “Policy Guidance for Provision of Medical Care to Department of Defense Civilian Employees Injured or Wounded While Forward Deployed in Support of Hostilities” (available at <I>http://cpol.army.mil/library/nonarmy/dod_092407.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blood type indicators.</I> A blood type indicator is an optional data element on the ID card and will only appear on the card if the blood type is provided by an authoritative data source prescribed by TRICARE Management Activity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Organ donor indicators.</I> An organ donor indicator is an optional data element on the ID card and will only appear if the card applicant opts for this feature at the time of card issuance.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 74878, Oct. 27, 2016; 89 FR 11179-11180, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.8   ID card life-cycle roles and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section provides the roles and responsibilities associated with a series of processes and systems that support the ID card life-cycle. The requirements provided in this section may be supplemented by military Service guidance, DoD Component-level procedures and DMDC procedural and system documentation on DEERS, RAPIDS, TASS, and CPR.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separation of duties.</I> The ID card life-cycle includes a requirement for a separation of duties to support the issuance process. This rule requires more than one person to serve in an official role during the sponsorship and enrollment and issuance processes. Authorizing a RAPIDS SSM or VO to exercise the duties of a TASS TASM, TA, or sponsor would allow a single individual to control the ID card issuance process, from record creation to card issuance. Individuals serving in the role of a RAPIDS SSM or VO shall not exercise the role of the TASS TASM or TA or the role of the signatory sponsor on the DD Form 1172-2. (In the case of their own dependents, a RAPIDS SSM or VO can serve as the sponsor on the DD Form 1172-2 but cannot serve as the VO for card issuance.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DD Form 1172-2.</I> The DD Form 1172-2 shall be used to collect the information necessary to register ID card and CAC applicants in DEERS via RAPIDS who are not enrolled through an authorized personnel data feed or are not registered through TASS. The DD Form 577, “Appointment/Termination Record—Authorized Signature,” shall be used to verify the sponsoring individual's signature, when verification through RAPIDS is unavailable. This form is to be used primarily for DEERS enrollment and verification of initial and continued association for dependents and DoD affiliates (e.g., foreign national military). The DD Form 1172-2 shall also be used to add benefits conditions for eligible personnel in accordance with DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide” and subpart C of this part. Retention and disposition of the DD Form 1172-2 shall be in accordance with the uniformed services' regulatory instructions. In the absence of electronic verification of sponsorship for the enrollment or reenrollment of dependents, the sponsor signing block 65 in Section 5 of the DD Form 1172-2 for the ID card applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall be a uniformed services member, retiree, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or an individual entitled to DoD benefits in their own right, without requiring relationship to another sponsor, as described in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Must be a DoD ID card or CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(3) Shall establish the applicant's initial and continued relationship to the sponsor, affiliation with DoD, and need for a CAC card in accordance with this subpart and DoD Component-level procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>TASS.</I> TASS shall serve as the sponsorship and DEERS data registration tool for CAC-eligible DoD contractors and other populations as determined by the Director, DHRA. TASS employs an automated version of the DD Form 1172-2 to collect information necessary for DEERS enrollment. Organizations that use TASS shall adhere to the following guidelines on user roles:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Service Point of Contact (SPOC).</I> A DoD Component that utilizes TASS shall appoint a SPOC for TASS management and operation. The SPOC shall coordinate with the DMDC to establish a site with TASS capability. The SPOC shall create policies, operating procedures, and other supporting documentation in support of the Service or agency-specific implementation. The SPOC will oversee TASM registration, and provide any other required field support. The TASS SPOC:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor providing management support to the service or agency implementing TASS (a contractor cannot perform the TA or TASM role).
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be capable of sending and receiving digitally signed and encrypted email.
</P>
<P>(iv) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(v) Shall complete the training provided by DMDC for the TASM and TA roles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TASM.</I> The TASM will act as a TA and oversee the activity for TASS site TAs. A TASS TASM:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member or a DoD civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be capable of sending and receiving digitally signed and encrypted email.
</P>
<P>(iv) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(v) Shall complete the training provided by DMDC for the TASM role.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>TA.</I> TAs shall be sponsors for eligible populations within TASS and will utilize TASS to register data for the DD Form 1172-2, re-verify CAC holder affiliation, and revoke CACs in accordance with this part and the DMDC “Contractor Verification System TASS (CVS) TASM/TA and Applicant User Guides, Version 3.03” (available at <I>https://www.dmdc.osd.mil/appj/cvs/login</I>). Sponsoring an applicant is a multi-step process which includes establishing the individual's eligibility in accordance with paragraph (a) of § 161.7 of this subpart and verifying that the individual has the necessary background investigation completed to be issued a CAC in accordance with paragraph (c) of <I>§ 161.7</I> of this subpart. A TASS TA:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, a DoD civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a non DoD Federal agency employee approved by DHRA.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be capable of sending and receiving digitally signed and encrypted email.
</P>
<P>(iv) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(v) Shall complete the training provided by DMDC for the TA role.
</P>
<P>(vi) Shall manage no more than 100 active contractors at any given time within TASS. Exceptions to this limit can be authorized by the DoD Component concerned to address specific contract requirements that substantiate a need for a larger contractor-to-TA ratio. The DoD Component SPOC shall document any authorized exceptions to the 100-contractors limit and shall, at a minimum, conduct annual audits on the oversight functions of these specific TAs.
</P>
<P>(vii) Shall coordinate with their contracting personnel when establishing the contractor's initial and continued affiliation with DoD and need for CACs in accordance with agency or Component-level procedures.
</P>
<P>(viii) Shall coordinate with their contracting, human resources, or personnel security organizations to confirm that the appropriate background check has been completed for CAC applicants.
</P>
<P>(ix) Shall re-verify a CAC holder's need for a CAC every 6 months (180 days) within TASS.
</P>
<P>(x) Shall revoke the CAC within the TASS upon termination of employment or completion of affiliation with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(xi) Shall ensure that the CAC is retrieved upon the CAC holder's termination of employment or completion of affiliation with the DoD.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>RAPIDS.</I> RAPIDS must be operated in accordance with DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide.” RAPIDS shall be supported by:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>SSM.</I> The SSM shall manage the daily operations at a RAPIDS site to include managing users, cardstock, and consumables. The SPO shall assign a primary and secondary SSM to each site to ensure the site continues to function in the absence of one of the SSMs. The SSM shall perform all responsibilities of a RAPIDS user (VO), as well as all SSM responsibilities. The SSM shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Complete the training provided by DMDC for the SSM and VO roles.
</P>
<P>(v) Be responsible for supporting RAPIDS functions delineated in DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide.”
</P>
<P>(vi) Must have a favorably adjudicated NACI.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>VO.</I> The VO shall complete identity and eligibility verification and card issuance functions in accordance with this part. The VO:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall complete the training provided by DMDC for the VO role.
</P>
<P>(v) Be responsible for supporting RAPIDS functions delineated in DMDC, “Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) User Guide.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CPR.</I> Organizations that utilize CPR shall adhere to the guidelines in this section on user roles:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CPR project officer.</I> The CPR project officer (CPO) shall be appointed by the Service or Agency as the focal point for day-to-day CPR management and operation. The CPO:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Must establish sites with CPR capability, oversee CPR TASM registration, and ensure other required field support in accordance with DMDC and Service- or agency-level guidelines.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CPR TASM.</I> The CPR TASM manages the CPR trusted agent (CTA) operations. The CPR TASM:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall complete the required training and manage CTA operations in accordance with DMDC and Service- or agency-level guidelines.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CTA.</I> The CTA's primary role is to provide PIN reset. The CTA:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be a uniformed services member, civilian employee working for the sponsoring organization, or a DoD contractor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be a CAC holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall complete the required training and conduct CPR operations in accordance with DMDC and Service- or agency-level guidelines.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—DoD Identification (ID) Cards: Benefits for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 161.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.9   DoD benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The benefits population is defined by roles. There are roles that have a direct affiliation with the DoD, such as an active duty Service member, or those that have an association to someone who is affiliated, such as the spouse of an active duty member. This section reflects benefit eligibility established by law and associated DoD policy, and addresses the roles that receive benefits. These benefits can include civilian health care, direct care at an MTF, commissary, exchange, and MWR, which are conveyed on the authorized CAC or uniformed services ID card. Sections 161.10 through 161.22 identify the categories of eligible persons and their authorized benefits as they would be recorded in the Defense Eligibility Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS).
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 161.10 through 161.22 reflect the eligibility of persons for the benefits administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 and DoD Instruction 1330.17, “Armed Services Commissary Operations” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133017p.pdf</I>); DoD Instruction 1330.21, “Armed Services Exchange Regulations” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133021p.pdf</I>); and DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P>
<P>(1) Additional benefits may be authorized by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10, but are not printed on the DoD ID card; access to benefits may be facilitated in another manner in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P>
<P>(2) Installation commanders may never authorize benefits beyond those allowed by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10, but they may deny privileges indicated when base support facilities cannot handle the burden imposed as authorized by DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, and DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor's begin date for benefit eligibility is based on the date the sponsor begins their affiliation with the Department.
</P>
<P>(c) A dependent's begin date for benefit eligibility is based on the date the dependent becomes associated as an eligible dependent to an eligible sponsor.
</P>
<P>(d) Guidance on benefit eligibility begin dates and ID card expiration dates based on benefits will be maintained at <I>http://www.cac.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) Refer to the figure 1 to this subpart for abbreviations for the tables in this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Figure 1 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits Table Abbreviations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CHC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">civilian health care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">direct care at MTFs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">commissary privileges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MWR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MWR privileges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">exchange privileges.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.10   Benefits for active duty members of the uniformed services.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for active duty uniformed services members and their eligible dependents administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 55. Descriptions of benefits for National Guard and Reserve members and their eligible dependents are contained in § 161.11. Descriptions of benefits for surviving dependents of active duty uniformed services members are contained in § 161.17.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Active duty service members.</I> Active duty uniformed services members are eligible for benefits administered by the uniformed services as shown in Table 1 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Active Duty Members, Not Including National Guard or Reserve Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Dependents of active duty members.</I> Dependents of active duty members are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 2 to this subpart. Benefits for the eligible dependents of National Guard or Reserve members, non-regular Service retirees not yet age 60, or members entitled to retired pay or who are in receipt of retired pay for non-regular service, and non-regular Service retirees who are not in receipt of retired pay are identified in §§ 161.11 through 161.14.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Dependents of Active Duty Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary or Director may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another organization authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11180, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.11   Benefits For National Guard and Reserve members of the uniformed services.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for National Guard and Reserve members of the uniformed services and their eligible dependents. Benefits for members of the Retired Reserve and their eligible dependents are described in § 161.13. Benefits for surviving dependents of deceased National Guard and Reserve members are described in § 161.17.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>National Guard and Reserve members.</I> National Guard and Reserve members are eligible for benefits based on being ordered to periods of active duty or full-time National Guard duty or active status in the SelRes, including Ready Reserve and Standby Reserve and participation in the Reserve Officer Training Corps.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for National Guard and Reserve Members Not on Active Duty Greater Than 30 Days
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for National Guard and Reserve Members on Active Duty for Periods Greater Than 30 Days
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. This includes reported periods of early identification of Service members in support of a contingency operation in accordance with DoD Instruction 7730.54, “Reserve Components Common Personnel Data System (RCCPDS)” (available at <E T="03">http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/773054p.pdf</E>).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Dependents of National Guard or Reserve members.</I> Dependents of National Guard or Reserve members are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 5 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Dependents of National Guard or Reserve Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the sponsor is on active duty greater than 30 days. When the order to active duty period is greater than 30 days the eligibility for CHC and DC for eligible dependents begins on the same day the sponsor becomes eligible for active duty benefits.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent support of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11180, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.12   Benefits for former uniformed services members.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for former uniformed services members and their eligible dependents. Former members are eligible to receive retired pay, at age 60, for non-regular service in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 1223, but have been discharged from their respective Service or agency and maintain no military affiliation.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Former members and their eligible dependents.</I> Former members and their dependents are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 6 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Former Members and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the former member is age 60 or over and in receipt of retired pay for non-regular service; and is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA, or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010.”
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if former member is age 60 or over and in receipt of retired pay for non-regular service.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member, and is dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11181, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.13   Benefits for retired members of the uniformed services.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for retired uniformed service members entitled to retired pay and their eligible dependents. Retired uniformed service members are entitled to retired pay and eligible for benefits administered by the uniformed services in accordance with 10 U.S.C., DoD Instruction 1330.17, DoD Instruction 1330.21, DoD Instruction 1015.10, and TRICARE Policy Manual 6010.57-M (available at <I>http://www.tricare.mil/contracting/healthcare/t3manuals/change2/tp08/c8s9_1.pdf</I>). This includes voluntary, temporary, and permanent disability retired list (PDRL) retirees. Benefits for former members and their eligible dependents are described in § 161.12.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Retired members.</I> Benefits for voluntary retired members and PDRL retirees are shown in Table 7 to this subpart. Benefits for temporary disability retired list (TDRL) retirees are shown in Table 8 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Voluntary Retired Members and PDRL Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for TDRL Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. If not removed sooner, retention of the service member on the TDRL shall not exceed a period of 5 years. The uniformed service member must be returned to active duty, separated with or without severance pay, or retired as PDRL in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1210.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Retired Reserve.</I> Benefits for members of the Retired Reserve who have attained 20 creditable years of service, have not reached the age of 60, and are not in receipt of retired pay are shown in Table 9 to this subpart. When a Retired Reserve member is ordered to active duty greater than 30 days, their benefits will reflect what is shown in Table 10 to this subpart. When a Retired Reserve member is in receipt of retired pay under age 60 (non-regular Service retirement), or upon reaching age 60, their benefits will reflect what is shown in Table 11 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Retired Reserve Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Retired Reserve Members Ordered to Active Duty Greater Than 30 Days
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Non-Regular Service Retirement for Qualifying Ready Reserve Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if age 60 or over, and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Applied for or in receipt of retired pay in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1074. If in receipt of retired pay in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 12731, after the date of the enactment of section 647 of Public Law 110-181, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008,” the member must be age 60 to qualify for CHC and DC.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA, or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Dependents.</I> Dependents of retired uniformed services members entitled to retired pay, including TDRL and PDRL, non-regular Service retirees not yet age 60 not in receipt of retired pay; non-regular Service retirees entitled to retired pay in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 12731 after the date of the enactment of section 647 of Public Law 110-181; and non-regular Service retirees, age 60 or over, in receipt of retired pay for non-regular service in accordance with 10 U.S.C. chapter 1223, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 12 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Dependents of Retired Uniformed Services Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the sponsor is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Retired (as shown in Tables 7 and 8 to this subpart) and the dependent is not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA; or if entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. A National Guard or Reserve member on a period of active duty in excess of 30 days (as shown in Table 10 to this subpart). When the ordered to active duty period is greater than 30 days the eligibility for CHC and DC for the eligible dependents begins on the first day of the active duty period; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. A medically eligible non-regular Service Reserve Retiree, age 60 or over, as shown in Table 11 of this subpart.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if the sponsor is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Retired (as shown in Tables 7 and 8 to this subpart);
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. A National Guard or Reserve member on a period of active duty in excess of 30 days (as shown in Table 10 to this subpart). When the ordered to active duty period is greater than 30 days the eligibility for CHC and DC for the eligible dependents begins on the first day of the active duty period; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. A medically eligible non-regular Service Reserve Retiree, age 60 or over, as seen in Table 11 to this subpart.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member, and is dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the retired member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the retired member for over 50 percent of child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11182, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.14   Benefits for MOH recipients.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for MOH recipients and their dependents who are authorized pursuant to section 706 of Public Law 106-398, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001” and who are not otherwise entitled to military medical and dental care. Section 706 of Public Law 106-398 authorized MOH recipients not otherwise entitled to military medical and dental care and their dependents to be given care in the same manner that such care is provided to former uniformed service members who are entitled to military retired pay and the dependents of those former members. Eligibility for the benefits described in Table 13 to this subpart begins on the date of award of the MOH but no earlier than October 30, 2000.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for MOH Recipients and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the sponsor is a MOH recipient and is not otherwise entitled to medical care as of or after October 30, 2000 pursuant to section 706 of Public Law 106-398 and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if the sponsor is a MOH recipient and is not otherwise entitled to medical care as of or after October 30, 2000 pursuant to section 706 of Public Law 106-398.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member, and is dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the MOH recipient for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the MOH recipient for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11182, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.15   Benefits for Disabled American Veterans (DAV).</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for DAVs rated as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment by the VA and their eligible dependents. Neither DAVs nor their eligible dependents receive CHC or DC benefits from the DoD based on their affiliation. Honorably discharged veterans rated by the VA as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment from a service-connected injury or disease, and their dependents, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 14 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 100 Percent DAVs and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11183, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.16   Benefits for transitional health care members and dependents.</HEAD>
<P>This section shows the benefits for THC members and their eligible dependents. THC (formerly the TAMP) was instituted in section 502 of Public Law 101-510, “Department of Defense Appropriations Bill Fiscal Year 1991” effective October 1, 1990. Section 706 of Public Law 108-375, “National Defense Authorization Act of for Fiscal Year 2005” made the THC program permanent and made the medical eligibility 180 days for all eligible uniformed services members. Section 651 of Public Law 110-181 extended 2 years' commissary and exchange benefits to THC members. Section 734 of Public Law 110-417, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2009” extended THC benefits to uniformed service members separating from active duty who agree to become members of the SelRes of the Ready Reserve of a reserve component. Uniformed service members separated as uncharacterized entry-level separations do not qualify for THC.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for THC Members and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">THC Member (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4, 7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, medical entitlement for 180 days beginning on the date after the member separated from the qualifying active duty period. There is no exception based on entitlement to Medicare Part A. The THC eligible sponsor and eligible dependents receive the medical benefits as if they were active duty eligible dependents.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. No, if the member:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Separated on or after January 1, 2001, but before October 1, 2007.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Separated in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1145(a)(2)(F).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. Separated from active duty to join the SelRes or the Ready Reserve of a Reserve Component.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if the member was separated during the period beginning on October 1, 1990, through December 31, 2001, or after October 1, 2007. Entitlement shall be for 2 years, beginning on the date the member separated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member, and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">9. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11184, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.17   Benefits for surviving dependents.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the benefits for surviving dependents of active duty deceased uniformed services members, deceased National Guard and Reserve service members, deceased MOH recipients, and deceased 100 percent DAV. Surviving children who are adopted by a non-military member after the death of the sponsor remain eligible for all benefits as shown in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Surviving dependents of active duty deceased members.</I> Surviving dependents of members who died while on active duty under orders that specified a period of more than 30 days or members who died while in a retired with pay status are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 16 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of Active Duty Deceased Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, or Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the sponsor died on active duty (for dependents of National Guard or Reserve members or Retired Reserve members the period of active duty must be in excess of 30 days in order to qualify for the benefits in this table) and:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. If claims are filed less than 3 years from the date of death, there is no Medicare exception for the widow. After 3 years from the date of death, the widow is eligible if,
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Yes, for children regardless of the number of years from the date of death or entitlement to Medicare they are entitled.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the legal custody of the member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is or was at the time of the member's death dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member and is or was at the time of the member's death dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Surviving dependents of deceased National Guard and Reserve members not on an active duty period greater than 30 days.</I> The surviving dependents of National Guard and Reserve Service members are eligible for the benefits shown in Table 17 to this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) The National Guard or Reserve member died from an injury or illness incurred or aggravated while on active duty for a period of 30 days or less, on active duty for training, or on inactive duty training, or while traveling to or from the place at which the member was to perform, or performed, such active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1076 and 1086(c)(2) and if death occurred on or after October 1, 1985; or
</P>
<P>(2) The National Guard or Reserve member died from an injury, illness, or disease incurred or aggravated while performing, or while traveling to or from performing active duty for a period of 30 days or less, or active duty for training, or inactive duty training, or while performing service on funeral honors in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1074a and if death occurred on or after November 15, 1986.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of Deceased National Guard and Reserve Members Not on Active Duty for a Period Greater Than 30 Days
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, only if death occurred on or after 1 October 1985 in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1076, or on or after November 15, 1986, in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1074a.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the legal custody of the member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is or was at the time of the member's death dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Surviving dependents of deceased National Guard and Reserve members in receipt of their notice of eligibility (NOE), Retired Reserve members not yet age 60, and former members not in receipt of retired pay.</I> The surviving dependents of National Guard and Reserve members who have died before the age of 60 are eligible for the benefits shown in Table 18 to this subpart if the deceased sponsor was:
</P>
<P>(1) A Reserve member who had earned 20 qualifying years for retirement and received their NOE for retired pay at age 60, but had not transferred to the Retired Reserve.
</P>
<P>(2) A Retired Reserve member eligible for pay at age 60, not yet age 60.
</P>
<P>(3) A former member who had met time-in-service requirements.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of National Guard and Reserve Members Who Have Died Before Age 60
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on or after the date the member would have become age 60.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Surviving dependents of deceased National Guard and Reserve members who died in a non-reportable status.</I> The surviving dependents of National Guard and Reserve members are eligible for the benefits shown in Table 19 to this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) The member's death was unrelated to the member's service.
</P>
<P>(2) The member was not on active duty, active duty for training, or on inactive duty training, or while traveling to or from the place at which the member was to perform, or performed, such active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training.
</P>
<P>(3) The member was not eligible for retired pay.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of National Guard and Reserve Members Who Died in a Non-Reportable Status
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged, foster child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the legal custody of the member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on that sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Surviving dependents of deceased uniformed services retirees or deceased MOH recipients.</I> The surviving dependents of deceased uniformed services retirees or deceased MOH recipients are eligible for the benefits shown in Table 20 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of Deceased Uniformed Services Retirees and Deceased MOH Recipients
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of member, illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Deceased uniformed service member was a retired uniformed service member entitled to retired pay, including TDRL or PDRL, or a non-regular Service retiree, age 60 or over, in receipt of retired pay, and if the person is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA; or,
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Deceased MOH recipient was not otherwise entitled to medical care as of, or after October 30, 2000 in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 106-398 and if the person is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA; or,
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Entitled to Medicare Part A, hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. No, if the deceased uniformed service member was a non-regular Service Retiree in accordance with the provision of 10 U.S.C. 12731 after the enactment of Public Law 110-181, sections 647 and 1106. The eligible surviving dependents will become eligible for CHC and DC on the anniversary of the 60th birthday of the deceased uniformed service member. Eligibility for CHC also requires that the person is:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA; or,
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the deceased was a retired uniformed services member entitled to retired pay, including TDRL or PDRL, or a non-regular Service retiree, age 60 or over, in receipt of retired pay, or a deceased MOH recipient not otherwise entitled to medical care as of or after, October 30, 2000, or a deceased non-regular Service retiree entitled in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 12731 after the enactment of Public Law 110-181, sections 647 and 1106 on the anniversary of the 60th birthday of the deceased uniformed Service member.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a member or former member and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">9. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is, or was at the time of the member's death, dependent on the member for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Surviving dependents of 100 percent DAVs.</I> Surviving dependents of honorably discharged veterans rated as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment by the VA from a service-connected injury or disease at the time of the veteran's death are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 21 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Surviving Dependents of 100 Percent DAVs
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower (DoD Beneficiary):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, or illegitimate child of male member whose paternity has been judicially determined or voluntarily acknowledged, foster child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, was placed in the legal custody of the member or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months; and was at the time of the sponsor's death:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Dependent on the member for over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Residing with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of uniformed service or to receive institutional care as a result of a disability or incapacitation or under such other circumstances as the administering Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, and prior to the death of the member, the child had been placed in the home of the member or former member by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, dependent on the former member for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student, while a dependent of a member or former member and is, or was at the time of the member's or former member's death, dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on that sponsor for over 50 percent of the parent's support and residing in the sponsor's household at the time of the sponsor's death.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11184, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.18   Benefits for abused dependents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Abused dependents of active duty uniformed services members entitled to retired pay based on 20 or more years of service who, on or after October, 23, 1992, while a member, have their eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct involving the abuse of the spouse or dependent child pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408(h), are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 22 to this subpart. For the purposes of these benefits the eligible spouse or child may not reside in the household of the sponsor. See § 161.19 for additional information on abused dependents under the 10/20/10 former spouse rule.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 22 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Abused Dependents of Retirement Eligible Uniformed Services Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 18 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 18 Years and Over (If entitled above)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if a court order provides for an annuity for the spouse.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if a member of the household where the abuse occurred.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of child's support at the time the abuse occurred.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is older than 18 years old and is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 18, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. The spouse must have been married to the uniformed service member for at least 10 years, the uniformed service member must have completed 20 creditable years for retired pay, and they must have been married at least 10 years during the 20 years of creditable service (see § 161.19). The uniformed services shall prescribe specific procedures to verify the eligibility of an applicant.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Is older than 18 years old but has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and was dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent the child's support at the time the abuse occurred; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and was dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support at the time the abuse occurred.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Dependents of active duty uniformed service members (who have served for a continuous period greater than 30 days) not entitled to retired pay who have received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, dismissal from a uniformed service as a result of a court martial conviction for an offense involving physical or emotional abuse of the spouse or child, or was administratively discharged as a result of such an offense, separated on or after November 30, 1993, are eligible for transitional privileges in accordance with DoD Instruction 1342.24, “Transitional Compensation for Abused Dependents” (available at: <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/134224p.pdf</I>). For the purposes of these benefits the eligible spouse or child may not reside in the household of the sponsor. A maximum of up to 36 months of medical benefits can be granted by the uniformed services to the transitional compensation dependent.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 23 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Abused Dependents of Non-Retirement Eligible Uniformed Services Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 18 Years
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 18 Years and Over (If entitled above)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Residing with the member at the time of the dependent-abuse offense and not residing with the member while receiving transitional compensation for abused dependents.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Married to and residing with the member at the time of the dependent-abuse offense and while receiving transitional compensation for abused dependents.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. 18 years of age or older and incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before the age of 18 and who is (or was when a punitive or other adverse action was carried out on the member) dependent on the member for over one-half of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. 18 years of age or older, but less than 23 years of age, is enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning approved by the Secretary of Defense and who is (or was when a punitive or other adverse action was carried out on the member) dependent on the member for over one-half of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if receiving transitional compensation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11188, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.19" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.19   Benefits for former spouses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>20/20/20 former spouses.</I> Unremarried former spouses of a uniformed services member or retired member, married to the member or retired member for a period of at least 20 years, during which period the member or retired member performed at least 20 years of service that is creditable in determining the member's or retired member's eligibility for retired or retainer pay, or equivalent pay pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408 and 1072(2)(F), and the period of the marriage and the service overlapped by at least 20 years are eligible for benefits as shown in Tables 24 and 25 to this subpart. The benefit eligibility period begins on qualifying date of divorce from the uniformed services member.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>20/20/20 former spouses of an active duty, regular retired, or a non-regular retired sponsor at age 60.</I> 20/20/20 former spouses of an active duty, regular retired, or a non-regular retired sponsor at age 60 are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 24 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 24 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 20/20/20 Former Spouses of Active Duty, Regular Retired, and Non-Regular Retired Members at Age 60
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if the former spouse certifies in writing that the former spouse has no medical coverage under an employer-sponsored health plan.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance with the exception of those individuals who qualify in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>20/20/20 former spouses of a National Guard, Reserve member, or Retired Reserve member under age 60.</I> (i) In the case of former spouses of National Guard, Reserve, or Retired Reserve members or former members who are entitled to retired pay at age 60, but have not yet reached age 60, the former spouse is only entitled to commissary, MWR, and exchange benefits as shown in Table 25 to this subpart. When the Retired Reserve member or former member attains or would have attained, age 60, the former spouse will be entitled to benefits as shown in Table 24 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of former spouses of National Guard members or Reserve members ordered to active duty, or Retired Reserve members under age 60 recalled to active duty, they continue to receive benefits as shown in Table 25 to this subpart if the orders are for a period of 30 days or less. If the National Guard member, Reserve member, or recalled Retired Reserve member is on active duty orders in excess of 30 days, the former spouse will receive benefits as shown in Table 24 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 25 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 20/20/20 Former Spouses for Retired Reserve Under Age 60
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>20/20/15 former spouses.</I> Unremarried former spouses described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, with the period of overlap of marriage and the member's creditable service at least 15 years, but less than 20 years, are not eligible for the commissary, MWR, or exchange benefits.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>20/20/15 former spouses of an active duty, regular retired, or a non-regular retired sponsor at age 60.</I> 20/20/15 former spouses of an active duty, regular retired, or a non-regular retired sponsor at age 60 are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 26 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 26 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 20/20/15 Former Spouses of Active Duty, Regular Retired, and Non-Regular Retired at Age 60
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if former spouse certifies in writing that the former spouse has no medical coverage under an employer-sponsored health plan.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if the:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment of the marriage was before April 1, 1985; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Marriage ended on, or after, September 29, 1988, entitlements shall exist for 1 year, beginning on the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1076 and 1072(2)(H).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>20/20/15 former spouses of a Retired Reserve member under age 60.</I> (i) In the case of former spouses of Retired Reserve members or former members who are entitled to retired pay at age 60, but have not yet reached age 60, the former spouse has no entitlement prior to the Retired Reserve member or former member reaching age 60. The benefit eligible period is 1 year from the date of divorce. If any period of eligibility extends beyond the Retired Reserve or former member's 60th birthday then the former spouse will receive benefits as shown in Table 26 to this subpart for that period.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of former spouses of Reserve members or Retired Reserve members under age 60 recalled to active duty on orders for a period of 30 days or less they are not entitled to any benefits as shown in Table 27 to this subpart. If the Reserve member or recalled Retired Reserve member is on active duty orders in excess of 30 days, the former spouse will receive benefits as shown in Table 26 to this subpart if they are within 1 year from the date of divorce from the uniformed service member.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 27 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 20/20/15 Former Spouses of a Retired Reserve Member Under Age 60
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>10/20/10 former spouses.</I> Unremarried former spouses of a member or retired member, married to the member or retired member for a period of at least 10 years to a member or retired member who performed at least 20 years of service that is creditable in determining the member's or retired member's eligibility for retired or retainer pay, when the period of overlap of marriage and the member's creditable service was at least 10 years and the former spouse is in receipt of an annuity as a result of the member being separated from the service due to misconduct involving dependent abuse pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1408(h), are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 28 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 28 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for 10/20/10 Former Spouses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Remarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Not entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance through the SSA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Entitled to Medicare Part A hospital insurance and enrolled in Medicare Part B medical insurance or qualified as an exception in accordance with section 706 of Public Law 111-84.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. The spouse must have been married to the uniformed service member for at least 10 years, the uniformed service member must have completed 20 creditable years for retired pay, and they must have been married at least 10 years during the 20 years of creditable service (see § 161.18, paragraph (a)(1)). The uniformed services shall prescribe specific procedures to verify the eligibility of an applicant.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.20   Benefits for civilian personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Civilian personnel may be eligible for certain benefits described in this section based on their affiliation with DoD, Service-specific guidelines, or other authorizing conditions. The definition of “civilian personnel” (e.g., civilian employee, DoD contractor, Red Cross employee) is specific to each benefit set described.
</P>
<P>(a) Civilian personnel in the United States may be issued a DoD ID card as a condition of employment or assignment in accordance with subpart B of this part. Civilian personnel in the United States are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 29 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 29 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Civilian Personnel in the United States
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Civilian Employees, IPA Personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Non-DoD Government Agency Civilian Personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Contractors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, but the benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if working full-time on the installation in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10. Benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Civilian personnel residing on a military installation in the United States are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 30 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 30 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Civilian Personnel When Residing on a Military Installation in the United States
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Civilian Employees, IPA Personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, but benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, but subject to purchase restrictions, in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.21. Benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.21.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) DoD civilian personnel stationed or employed outside the United States and outside U.S. Territories and Possessions, and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 31 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 31 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for DoD Civilian Personnel Stationed or Employed Outside the United States and Outside U.S. Territories and Possessions and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Civilian Employee, IPA Personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Contractor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of employee, or Illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis. Medical care at uniformed services facilities shall be rendered in accordance with Service instructions. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if a U.S. citizen and on a fully-reimbursable basis in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17 (not a local hire).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if a U.S. citizen assigned overseas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor and is, dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">9. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Non-DoD Government agency civilian personnel stationed or employed outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and their dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 32 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 32 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Non-DoD Government Agency Civilian Personnel Stationed or Employed Outside the United States and Outside U.S. Territories and Possessions and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Non-DoD Government Agency Civilian Personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of employee, or Illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis. Medical care at uniformed services facilities shall be rendered in accordance with Service instructions. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17 and DoD Instruction 1330.21.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the dependent's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor and dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor and is, dependent on the member or former member for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Civilian personnel stationed or employed in U.S. Territories and Possessions and their dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 33 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 33 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Civilian Personnel Stationed or Employed in U.S. Territories and Possessions and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">DoD Civilian employee, IPA personnel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Non-DoD Government Agency Civilian Personnel; DoD contractor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of employee or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis only if residing in a household on a military installation. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17 and DoD Instruction 1330.21.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if working full-time on the installation in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10. Benefit will not be printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor and dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">9. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) DoD OCONUS hires are foreign nationals in host countries who are employed by U.S. forces, consistent with any agreement with the host country as defined in Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25. They are entered into DEERS for the purposes of issuing a CAC and are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 34 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 34 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for DoD OCONUS Hires
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, for appropriated fund and NAF foreign national employees assigned and working directly for DoD installations overseas, if not prohibited by Status of Forces Agreements, other international agreements, or local laws, and the installation commander determines it is in the best interest of the command. Annual recertification of the employee authorization is required in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10. Benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) Full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services in the United States and residing on a military installation and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 35 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 35 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the Red Cross Assigned to Duty With the Uniformed Services in the United States and Residing on a Military Installation and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of employee, illegitimate child of spouse, or foster child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, but subject to purchase restrictions in accordance with DoDI 1330.21.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) Full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services outside the United States and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 36 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 36 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the Red Cross Assigned to Duty With the Uniformed Services Outside the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of employee or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available basis at rates specified in uniformed services instructions. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if U.S. citizen assigned overseas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if a dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor and dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Full-time paid personnel of the United Service Organizations (USO) serving outside the United States and their accompanying dependents when residing in the same household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 37 to this subpart.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 37 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the USO and Accompanying Dependents Serving Outside the United States
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of employee, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if U.S. citizens assigned overseas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if a dependent of an authorized sponsor and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the member sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(j) Full-time paid personnel of the USS serving outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and their accompanying dependents, when residing in the same household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 38 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 38 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the USS Serving Outside the United States and Outside U.S. Territories and Possessions and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of employee, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis. Additional guidelines are contained in DoD Instruction 1100.22 and Volume 1231 of DoD Instruction 1400.25.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(k) MSC civil service Marine personnel deployed on MSC-owned and operated vessels outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 39 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 39 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for MSC Personnel Deployed on MSC-Owned and Operated Vessels Outside the United States and Outside U.S. Territories and Possessions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, on a space-available, fully reimbursable basis.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(l) Ship's officers and members of the crews of NOAA vessels are eligible for benefits in accordance with 33 U.S.C. 3074 as shown in Table 40 to this subpart. Ship's officers are not commissioned officers, but civilian employees of NOAA.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 40 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Ship's Officers and Members of the Crews of NOAA Vessels (NOAA Wage Mariner Employees)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of employee, Illegitimate child of spouse, or Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, Parent-by-Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the individual's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(m) Officers and crews of vessels, lighthouse keepers, and depot keepers of the former Lighthouse Service are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 41 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 41 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Officers and Crews of Vessels, Lighthouse Keepers, and Depot Keepers of the Former Lighthouse Service
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(n) Presidential appointees who have been confirmed by the Senate (PASs) are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 42 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 42 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Presidential Appointees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self
<br/>PAS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Designation for PASs and other designated civilian officials within the DoD and the Military Departments. This is a specific reimbursable care value at the interagency rate outside the National Capital Region.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if residing in quarters on DoD military installations.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(o) Contract surgeons overseas during the period of their contract are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 43 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 43 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Contract Surgeons Overseas
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Only during the period of their contract with the Surgeon General.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(p) State employees of the National Guard may be identified in DEERS for the purpose of issuing a CAC to access DoD networks. There are no benefits assigned and no dependent benefits are extended as shown in Table 44 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 44 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for State Guard Employees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11189, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.21   Benefits for retired civilian personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retired DoD civilian employees.</I> Retired appropriated and non-appropriated fund employees of the DoD are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 45 to this subpart. The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness Memorandum, “Department of Defense Civilian Retiree Identification Cards,” authorized the issuance of a DoD ID card to this population.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 45 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Retired DoD Civilian Employees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, but benefit is not printed on the DoD ID card and will be facilitated in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.10.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Retired NOAA Wage Mariner employees and their eligible dependents.</I> Retired NOAA Wage Mariners (including retired ship's noncommissioned officers and members of the crews of NOAA vessels and its predecessors), and their dependents are eligible for benefits in accordance with 33 U.S.C. 3074 as shown in Table 46 to this subpart. Surviving dependents of deceased retired NOAA wage mariners remain eligible for benefits in accordance with governing policies as shown in Table 46 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 46 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Retired NOAA Wage Mariner Employees and Their Eligible Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of record of female member, illegitimate child of male member, whose paternity has been judicially determined, or foster child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pre-adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, if dependent on an authorized sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor or former member as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determinations of dependency made on or after October 5, 1994, placed in the home of the sponsor by a placement agency (recognized by the Secretary of Defense) or by another source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption by the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11193, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.3.43.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.22   Benefits for foreign affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsored NATO and PFP personnel in the United States.</I> Active duty officer and enlisted personnel of NATO and PFP countries serving in the United States under the sponsorship or invitation of the DoD or a Military Service and their accompanying dependents living in the sponsor's U.S. household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 47 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 47 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Sponsored NATO and PFP Personnel and Accompanying Dependents in the United States
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, Illegitimate child of member, or Illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, for outpatient care no charge and for inpatient care at full reimbursable rate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Under orders issued by a U.S. Military Service; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Assigned military attaché duties in the United States and designated on reciprocal agreements with the Department of State.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, for outpatient care only.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if residing in the authorized sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Yes, if the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsored non-NATO personnel in the United States.</I> Active duty officer and enlisted personnel of non-NATO countries serving in the United States under DoD or Service sponsorship or invitation and their dependents, living in the non-NATO personnel's U.S. household, are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 48 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 48 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Sponsored Non-NATO Personnel and Accompanying Dependents in the United States
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of member, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, for outpatient care only on a reimbursable basis.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if under orders issued by a U.S. Military Service.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if residing in the authorized sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Non-sponsored NATO personnel in the United States.</I> Active duty officer and enlisted personnel of NATO countries who, in connection with their official NATO duties, are stationed in the United States but are not under DoD or Service sponsorship and their accompanying dependents living in the non-sponsored NATO personnel's U.S. household are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 49 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 49 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Non-Sponsored NATO and PFP Personnel in the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of member, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 3, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, for outpatient care no charge and for inpatient care at full reimbursable rate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, for outpatient care only.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>NATO and non-NATO personnel outside the United States.</I> Active duty officer and enlisted personnel of NATO and non-NATO countries serving outside the United States and outside their own country under DoD or Service sponsorship or invitation and their accompanying dependents living with the sponsor are eligible for benefits as shown in Table 50 to this subpart. These benefits may be extended to this category of personnel not under DoD or Service sponsorship or invitation when it is determined by the major overseas commander that the granting of such privileges is in the best interests of the United States and such personnel are connected with, or their activities are related to, the performance of functions of the Service establishment.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 50 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for NATO, PFP, and Non-NATO Personnel Outside the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of member, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Yes, for outpatient care only on a reimbursable basis.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor and dependent on over 50 percent support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if, for determination of dependency made on or after July 1, 1994, placed in the legal custody of the sponsor as a result of a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, and if dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support, and residing in the sponsor's household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States and the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Korean Augmentation to the U.S. Army (KATUSA).</I> Military service is mandatory for all Republic of Korea (ROK) male citizens. Those male citizens who speak English often become KATUSA serving with the U.S. Army forces in the ROK. This arrangement is provided for in the status of forces agreement between the United States and ROK. The KATUSAs are identified in DEERS for the purpose of issuing CACs for access to the U.S. installations in the ROK. No other benefits are provided as shown in Table 51 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 51 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for KATUSA
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign national civilians.</I> Civilian employees of a foreign government who are assigned a support role with the DoD or Military Services or attending school at one of the DoD or uniformed services advanced schools may be identified in DEERS for the purpose of issuing a CAC. The foreign national civilian must be sponsored by the DoD or a Military Service regardless of whether the foreign national civilian is from a NATO, PFP, or non-NATO country. There are no benefits assigned and no dependent benefits are extended as shown in Table 52 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 52 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Foreign National Civilians
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Foreign national contractors.</I> Contractor personnel, contracted to a foreign government, who are assigned a support role with the DoD or Military Services or as a representative of a foreign government at one of the DoD or uniformed services advanced schools may be identified in DEERS for the purpose of issuing a CAC for physical and logical access requirements. The foreign national contractor must be sponsored by the DoD or a Military Service regardless of whether the foreign national civilian is from a NATO, PFP, or a non-NATO country. There are no benefits assigned and no dependent benefits are extended as shown in Table 53 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 53 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Foreign National Contractors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) <I>Personnel subject to a Reciprocal Health Care Agreement (RHCA) in the United States.</I> For countries that have bilateral RHCAs with the DoD, RHCAs provide that a limited number of foreign force members and their dependents in the United States may be provided inpatient medical care at MTFs on a space-available basis without cost (except for a subsistence charge, if it applies). Provision of such care is contingent on comparable care being made available to a comparable number of U.S. military personnel and their dependents in the foreign country. Benefits are provided as shown in Table 54 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 54 to Subpart C of Part 161—Benefits for Foreign Force Members and Eligible Dependents Residing in the United States Who Are Covered by an RHCA
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CHC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MWR
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, Under 21 Years:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, adopted, stepchild, illegitimate child of member, or illegitimate child of spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children, Unmarried, 21 Years and Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent, Parent-in-Law, Stepparent, or Parent by Adoption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. As determined by the appropriate RHCA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Yes, if residing in the household of the authorized sponsor in the United States, the child:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Has not attained the age of 23, is enrolled in a full-time course of study at an institution of higher learning approved by the administering Secretary, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support; or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before age 21, or occurred before the age of 23 while a full-time student while a dependent of a sponsor, and is dependent on the sponsor for over 50 percent of the child's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74879, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11193, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—DoD Identification (ID) Cards: Eligibility Documentation Required for Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) Enrollment, Record Management, and ID Card Issuance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 74904, Oct. 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 161.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.6.55.4.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.23   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility documentation</I>—(1) <I>Basic requirements.</I> (i) ID card applicants must provide documentation as initial verification of eligibility for benefits or as proof of relationship to the sponsor. The sponsor is the prime beneficiary who derives eligibility based on individual status rather than dependence upon or relationship to another person, in accordance with § 161.7(a). When possible, DEERS records will be established and updated by authoritative data feeds.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual's DEERS record is established through the in-person presentation of identity documentation and, in some cases, eligibility documentation. Documentation verifying an ID card applicant's identity is always required in accordance with § 161.7(d)(1). Eligibility documentation may also be required to update a DEERS record to reflect a change in benefits or status.
</P>
<P>(A) Identity and eligibility documentation is reviewed for authenticity by a RAPIDS verifying official (VO) and incorporated into the individual's DEERS record as necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) The sponsor or DoD beneficiary must provide documentation to establish or terminate the relationship to a dependent within 30 days of the change.
</P>
<P>(C) The VO ensures that the DD Form 1172-2 is signed by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the sponsor refuses to sign or is physically unable to sign the application, the VO verifies that the dependency between the sponsor and dependent exists and includes reasons why the sponsor is not able to or will not sign the application on the DD Form 1172-2. The VO then signs in the sponsor signature block and in the verifier's block.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the sponsor is deceased, the DoD beneficiary signs on the beneficiary's own behalf or on behalf of the surviving dependent.
</P>
<P>(D) A VO may request additional documentation if there is any question of the authenticity of those presented.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eligible individuals presenting eligibility documentation not listed in this subpart must have the responsible uniformed service Judge Advocate General or local Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) review and verify the documentation. A written Judge Advocate General or SJA opinion may need to be submitted at ID card issuance, verifying the documentation's use for DEERS enrollment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documentation standards</I>—(i) <I>Certified documentation.</I> All documentation must be an original or certified document.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Foreign documentation.</I> Additional requirements are applied toward the verification of foreign eligibility documentation submitted to support enrollment of a dependent, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A full English language translation, which the translator has certified as complete and accurate, and the translator's certification of competency to translate from the foreign language into English, in accordance with 8 CFR 103.2(b)(3). Translation must be provided by a translator other than the individual presenting the document.
</P>
<P>(B) A written Judge Advocate General or local SJA opinion confirming use of the eligibility documentation, if the uniformed service member is stationed overseas.
</P>
<P>(C) Documentation that attests to the genuineness of the signature and seal, or the position of the foreign official who executed, issued, or certified the foreign documentation being presented to substantiate the dependency relationship to the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An accompanying original <I>apostille</I> (<I>i.e.,</I> certification) from a higher-level authority in the foreign country of issuance, for eligibility documents from countries that have adopted the Hague Convention Abolishing the Requirement of Legalisation for Foreign Public Documents, October 5, 1961 (copies may be obtained from the Internet at <I>https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=41</I>). Sponsors should contact their SJA for information on how to obtain an <I>apostille</I> from a member nation; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An accompanying original certificate of authentication by a U.S. Consular Officer in the foreign country of issuance, for eligibility documents from all other foreign nations. Sponsors should contact their SJA for information on how to request issuance of certificate(s) of authentication from a U.S. Consular official.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation for dependents</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (b) describes eligibility documentation required for eligible dependents of qualifying sponsors, including current, former, and retired uniformed service members, civilian employees, and other eligible individuals in accordance with subpart C of this part. Dependents who are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part must provide eligibility documentation that establishes the dependent's relationship to the sponsor and verifies eligibility, as shown in Tables 1 through 12 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) The uniformed services restrict cross-servicing for verification of the DD Form 1172-2 and eligibility documentation to the responsible uniformed service for certain categories of dependents, in accordance with § 161.7(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Service-specific requirements and processes are addressed in Air Force Instruction 36-3026, “Identification Cards for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Eligible Family Members, and Other Eligible Personnel” (available at: <I>http://static.e-publishing.af.mil/production/1/af_a1/publication/afi36-3026v1_ip/afi_36-3026_ip.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spouse.</I> A sponsor's spouse must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 1 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Spouse
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Common Law Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SJA opinion (Note 1) and Common law marriage certificate (Note 2) or Court order (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A written SJA opinion that a common law marriage is recognized in the relevant State or U.S. jurisdiction.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A common law marriage certificate certified by the State.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes a common law marriage.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Child, unmarried, under the age of 21.</I> A sponsor's dependent child, who is unmarried and under the age of 21, must have eligibility verified as shown in Tables 2 through 7 to this subpart. A child under the age of 21, who marries and subsequently divorces, may present a divorce decree and have eligibility reinstated, if the other requirements for a dependent child are met.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legitimate child.</I> A sponsor's legitimate child must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 2 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Legitimate Child
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legitimate Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legitimate Child Conceived Posthumously</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Director, DoDHRA memorandum (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240, “Consular Report of Birth Abroad,” may be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A memorandum signed by the Director, DoDHRA, establishing the eligibility for a child conceived of artificial insemination after the sponsor's death. The deceased sponsor's responsible uniformed service project office must submit all eligibility determination requests to DoDHRA, including documentation that:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Verifies the sponsor's intent to start a family, usually provided by the lab or clinic that assisted the couple with the in vitro process.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Provides the date of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. Provides the date of birth or expected date of birth of the child.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Pre-adoptive or adopted child.</I> A sponsor's pre-adoptive or adopted child must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 3 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Pre-Adoptive or Adopted Child
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pre-Adoptive Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Placement agreement (Note 2) or Court order (Note 2) or Document authorized by State or local law (Notes 2, 3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adopted Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Adoption decree (Note 4) or Court order (Note 4).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240 may be used in lieu of a birth certificate. When a placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) establishes the child's date of birth, it may also be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. The placement agreement, order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession), or other appropriate document from any other source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement must include the intent to adopt.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. An appropriate document from any other source authorized by State or local law with written approval from the responsible uniformed service Judge Advocate General or local SJA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes legal adoption of the child by the sponsor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Stepchild.</I> A sponsor's stepchild must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 4 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Stepchild
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stepchild</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Sponsor's marriage certificate (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240 may be used in lieu of a birth certificate. When a placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) establishes the child's date of birth, it may also be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A marriage certificate that establishes the relationship between the child's parent and the sponsor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) <I>Illegitimate child of record.</I> A male sponsor's illegitimate child of record must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 5 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Male Sponsor's Illegitimate Child of Record
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illegitimate child of record whose paternity has been judicially determined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Court document (Note 2) or Consent order of paternity (Note 3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illegitimate child of record whose paternity has not been judicially determined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and SJA opinion (Note 4) or Voluntary acknowledgment of paternity (Note 5).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240 may be used in lieu of a birth certificate. When a placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) establishes the child's date of birth, it may also be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes paternity.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A consent order of paternity, recognized by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession). An affidavit of paternity, recognized by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession), may be used in lieu of a consent order of paternity.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. A written SJA opinion, if the member is stationed in a foreign country.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. A voluntary acknowledgement of paternity signed by both parents and filed with the State.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Ward.</I> A sponsor's ward must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 6 to this subpart. The sponsor must certify on the DD Form 1172-2 that the sponsor is providing more than 50 percent of the dependent's support and that the ward resides in the sponsor's household in order to issue an ID card.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Ward
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Financial dependency determination (Note 2) and Placement agreement (Note 3) or Court document (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240 may be used in lieu of a birth certificate. When a placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) establishes the child's date of birth, it may also be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A financial dependency determination from the responsible service's Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS), or the service equivalent pay office, acknowledging that the sponsor is providing more than 50 percent of the dependent's support, or was at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes legal custody of the child by the sponsor for no less than 12 consecutive months.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) <I>Foster child.</I> A sponsor's foster child must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 7 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Foster Child
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate (Note 1) and Placement agreement (Note 2) or Court document (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A certificate of live birth or an FS-240 may be used in lieu of a birth certificate. When a placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) establishes the child's date of birth, it may also be used in lieu of a birth certificate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A placement agreement or an order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes the child's relationship to the sponsor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Child, unmarried, over the age of 21.</I> A sponsor's dependent child, who is unmarried and over the age of 21, must have eligibility verified as shown in Tables 8 and 9 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full-time student.</I> A sponsor's child who is between the ages of 21 and 23 and enrolled as a full-time student at an institution of higher learning must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 8 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Full-Time Student
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Full-Time Student</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 1) and Letter from school registrar (Note 2) and Sponsor's certification of 50 percent support (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 2 through 7 in this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A letter from the school registrar that establishes the child as a full-time student.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Sponsor's certification on the DD Form 1172-2 that he or she is providing more than 50 percent of the dependent's support.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Incapacitated child.</I> A sponsor must follow the Service-specific process for initial determination of an incapacitated dependent child. The incapacitated dependent child must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 9 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for an Incapacitated Child
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Incapacitated Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 1) and Medical sufficiency statement (Note 2) and Financial dependency determination (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 2 through 7 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A medical sufficiency statement issued by a physician in support of the military treatment facility or authorized TRICARE service provider, stating incapacitation, and dated within 90 days of application, as required by the sponsoring component. If applicable, the physician's statement must reflect that the incapacitation occurred after the 21st birthday but before the 23rd birthday, while the dependent was a full-time student.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A financial dependency determination from the responsible Service's DFAS, or the Service equivalent pay office, acknowledging that the sponsor is providing more than 50 percent of the dependent's support, or was at the time of the sponsor's death.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Parent.</I> A sponsor's dependent parent, parent-in-law, stepparent, or parent-by-adoption, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 10 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Parent
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Financial dependency determination (Note 1) and Birth certificate (Notes 2) and Marriage certificate (Note 3) or Adoption decree (Note 4).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A financial dependency determination from the responsible Service's DFAS, or the Service equivalent pay office, acknowledging that the sponsor is providing more than 50 percent of the dependent's support, or was at the time of the sponsor's death.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A birth certificate establishing parental relationship to the sponsor, or the sponsor's spouse.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A marriage certificate establishing a relationship to the sponsor's parent, or the sponsor's spouse's parent.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. An adoption decree establishing legal adoption of the sponsor, or the sponsor's spouse, by the parent, or parent-in-law.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation for surviving dependents.</I> This paragraph (c) describes eligibility documentation required for surviving dependents of deceased uniformed service members who are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part. Surviving dependents must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 11 to this subpart. For ID card issuance, the unremarried widow or widower must certify on the DD Form 1172-2 that the widow or widower has not remarried.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Surviving Dependent
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow or Widower:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate to sponsor (Note 1) and Death certificate of sponsor or DD Form 1300, “Report of Casualty,” (for sponsor only).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate to sponsor (Note 1) and Death certificate of sponsor or DD Form 1300, “Report of Casualty,” (for sponsor only) and Marriage certificate from subsequent marriage (Note 1) and Divorce decree from subsequent marriage (Note 2) or Death certificate from subsequent marriage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A common law marriage certificate, a court order, or a written SJA opinion that a common law marriage is recognized by the relevant State or U.S. jurisdiction is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation for abused dependents</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (d) describes eligibility documentation required for abused dependents of uniformed service members who are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) For the purposes of this paragraph (d), dependent children are limited to the sponsor's legitimate children, adopted children, and stepchildren, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1408(h). Their eligibility ends at age 18 unless otherwise eligible as full-time students (aged 18-23) or based on an incapacitation that existed before age 18 or occurred between the ages of 18 and 23 while a full-time student.
</P>
<P>(ii) Abused dependents are required to provide documentation that verifies eligibility as shown in Tables 12 and 13 to this subpart to the responsible uniformed service project office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abused dependent of a retirement-eligible service member.</I> An abused dependent of a retirement eligible service member must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 12 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for an Abused Dependent of a Retirement-Eligible Service Member
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD Form 2698 “Application for Transitional Compensation” (Note 1) and Letter from DFAS (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. DD Form 2698, approved by the responsible uniformed service.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A letter from DFAS, approving request to receive a portion of retired pay, or other approval from the service equivalent pay office.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 1 through 4 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Abused dependent of a non-retirement-eligible service member.</I> An abused dependent of a non-retirement-eligible Service member must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 13 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for an Abused Dependent of a Non-Retirement Eligible Service Member
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD Form 2698 (Note 1) and Dependent documentation (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. DD Form 2698, approved by the responsible uniformed service.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 1 through 4 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Documentation for former spouses.</I> This paragraph (e) describes eligibility documentation required for 20/20/20, 20/20/15, and 10/20/10 former spouses of current, former, and retired uniformed service members, who are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part. For ID card issuance, the unremarried former spouse must certify on the DD Form 1172-2 that the former spouse has not remarried. 10/20/10 former spouses, also known as abused former spouses of retirement-eligible Service members who are eligible under 10 U.S.C. 4108(h), should refer to paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section for more information. Eligible former spouses, as identified in subpart C of this part, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 14 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Former Spouse
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unremarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate to sponsor (Note 1) and Divorce decree from sponsor (Note 2) and Statement of service (Note 3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Unmarried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate to sponsor (Note 1) and Divorce decree from sponsor (Note 2) and Statement of service (Note 3) and Marriage certificate from subsequent marriage (Note 1) and Divorce decree from subsequent marriage (Note 2) or Death certificate from subsequent marriage.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A common law marriage certificate, a court order, or a written SJA opinion that a common law marriage is recognized in the relevant State or U.S. jurisdiction, is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Statement of service that establishes the uniformed service member's service. A complete set of DD Form 214, “Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty,” or dates of inclusive service for servicing personnel may be used in lieu of the statement of service.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation for uniformed service members</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (f) describes eligibility documentation required for current, former, and retired uniformed service members, Medal of Honor (MOH) recipients, 100 percent disabled American veterans (DAVs), and their eligible dependents, in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) MOH recipients must have their DEERS records updated manually, as indicated in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Current, former, and retired members identified in this paragraph (f) should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, under certain circumstances described in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, a Service member may have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Tables 15 through 21 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) All other uniformed service members should have their DEERS records updated by authoritative data feeds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active duty member.</I> An active duty member should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, under certain circumstances described in the notes of the table, an active duty member may have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 15 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for an Active Duty Member and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Active Duty Member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Military orders (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Military orders may be used at the service project officer level when DEERS verification is not available.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>National Guard and Reserve member.</I> A National Guard or Reserve member who is activated to active duty should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, under certain circumstances described in the notes of the table, a National Guard or Reserve member may have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 16 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a National Guard or Reserve Member and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Guard or Reserve Member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Military orders (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Military orders may be used at the service project officer level when DEERS verification is not available.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Retired reserve member.</I> A retired reserve member should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, a retired reserve member may also have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 17 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Retired Reserve Member and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retired Reserve Member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retired pay orders (Note 1) or DD Form 214 (Note 2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retired Reserve Member ordered to active duty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD Form 214 (Note 2) or Military order (Note 3) or Commissioning oath (Note 3) or Enlistment contract (Note 3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 4).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Retired pay orders, establishing the uniformed service member's eligibility for retired pay at age 60.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A DD Form 214 that establishes the uniformed service member's service can be used when DEERS verification is not available. A statement of service or dates of inclusive service for servicing personnel may be used in lieu of the DD Form 214.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Documentation establishing the uniformed service member being ordered to active duty for greater than 30 days.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Retired member.</I> A retired member should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, a retired member may also have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 18 to this subpart. Retired members include voluntary retired members, permanent disability retired list members, and temporary disability retired list members.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a Retired Member and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retired Member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retirement orders or Correction of military record (Note 1) or DD Form 214 (Note 2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A correction of military record can be used at the service project officer level when DEERS verification is not available.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A DD Form 214 that establishes the uniformed service member's service can be used when DEERS verification is not available. A statement of service or dates of inclusive service for servicing personnel may be used in lieu of the DD Form 214.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Transitional Health Care (THC) member.</I> A THC member should have eligibility updated in DEERS by an authoritative feed; however, a THC member may also have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 19 to this subpart to correct an ineligible condition.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a THC Member and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">THC Member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD Form 214 (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. DD Form 214, reflecting the appropriate separation program designator code for Transition Assistance (TA)-180 eligibility. Separation orders, reflecting the appropriate separation program designator code for TA-180 eligibility may be used in lieu of the DD Form 214.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(7) <I>MOH recipient.</I> A MOH recipient should have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 20 to this subpart. DoDHRA will update all MOH DEERS records.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a MOH Recipient and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MOH Recipient</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Confirmation of MOH status (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Confirmation of MOH status by DoDHRA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, must establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>100 percent DAV.</I> An honorably discharged veteran who has been rated as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) should have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 21 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for a 100 Percent DAV and Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100 Percent DAV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VA rating determination letter (Note 1) and DD Form 214 (Note 2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. VA rating determination letter that establishes eligibility as 100 percent disabled or incapable of pursuing substantially gainful employment.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A DD Form 214 that characterizes the uniformed service member's discharge as honorable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation for civilian personnel</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (g) describes eligibility documentation required for civilian personnel, and their dependents, when they are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part. Civilian personnel, as the sponsors, and their dependents, qualify for different benefits based on the sponsor's status in accordance with subpart C of this part. The definition of “civilian personnel” (e.g., civilian employee, DoD contractor, Red Cross employee) is specific to each eligibility set described. Civilian employees include both appropriated fund and nonappropriated fund employees, in accordance with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civilian personnel</I>—(i) <I>Civilian personnel residing on a military installation in the United States.</I> Civilian personnel residing on a military installation in the United States, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 22 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 22 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for Civilian Personnel Residing on a Military Installation in the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civilian: DoD civilian employee, DoD contractor, Intergovernmental Personnel Act personnel, non-DoD government agency civilian personnel under DoD sponsorship</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing the sponsor to reside on a military installation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 12 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Civilian personnel outside the United States.</I> Civilian personnel stationed outside the United States, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 23 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 23 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for Civilian Personnel Stationed Outside the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civilian: DoD civilian employee, DoD contractor, Intergovernmental Personnel Act personnel, non-DoD government agency civilian personnel under DoD sponsorship, DoD contractor authorized to accompany the Armed Forces (CAAF)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1) and SPOT LOA (Note 2, 3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dependent documentation (Note 4) and Travel authorization (Note 5) or SPOT LOA (Note 5).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component, indicating an assignment outside the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A SPOT LOA that designates the contractor as CAAF, if a CAAF in accordance with DoD Instruction 3020.41, “Operational Contract Support (OCS)” (available at: <E T="03">http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/302041p.pdf</E>).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A SPOT LOA, if applicable in accordance with Combatant Command guidance.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component or SPOT LOA authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Red Cross personnel.</I> Uniformed and non-uniformed full-time paid personnel of the Red Cross assigned to duty with the uniformed services and either residing on a military installation in the United States, or stationed outside the United States, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 24 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 24 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the Red Cross and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red Cross Employee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing the sponsor to reside on a military installation in the United States, or indicating an assignment outside the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>United Service Organizations (USO) personnel.</I> Full-time paid personnel of the USO serving outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 25 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 25 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for Full-Time Paid Personnel of the USO and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">USO Employee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>United Seaman's Service (USS) personnel.</I> USS personnel serving outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 26 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 26 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for USS Personnel and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">USS Employee (Self)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Military Sealift Command (MSC) personnel.</I> MSC personnel on MSC-owned and operated vessels outside the United States and outside U.S. territories and possessions, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 27 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 27 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for MSC Personnel Deployed on MSC-Owned and Operated Vessels and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MSC Employee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel authorization (Note 2) and Dependent documentation (Note 3).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A travel authorization produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. Eligible dependents, as identified in subpart C of this part, are required to establish their relationship to the sponsor, as specified in Tables 1 through 10 of this subpart, if the relationship has not previously been established.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) <I>Documentation for foreign affiliates.</I> This paragraph (h) describes eligibility documentation required for foreign affiliates, including foreign national military, civilian, and contractor personnel, and their dependents, when they are eligible for benefits in accordance with subpart C of this part. A foreign affiliate serving in the United States or outside the United States under the sponsorship or invitation of the DoD or a Military Service, and accompanying dependents, or a foreign affiliate serving in the United States in connection with their official duties but who are not under the sponsorship or invitation of the DoD or a Military Service, and accompanying dependents, must have eligibility verified by documentation shown in Table 28 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 28 to Subpart D of Part 161—Eligibility Documentation Required for Sponsored Foreign Affiliates in the United States and Accompanying Dependents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ITO (Note 1) or Foreign Visit Request (Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ITO (Note 2) or Foreign Visit Request (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. An ITO, Foreign Visit Request, or other document establishing the foreign affiliate's sponsorship to travel to the United States.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. An ITO, Foreign Visit Request, or letter produced by the sponsoring DoD Component authorizing eligible dependents to accompany the sponsor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>Documentation required to terminate eligibility in DEERS</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (i) describes documentation required to terminate eligibility in DEERS. When terminating eligibility in DEERS, documentation is required in accordance with Tables 29 through 31 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spouse.</I> A sponsor's spouse, former spouse, or surviving widow or widower, who does not qualify as a DoD beneficiary and no longer meets the eligibility requirements identified in subpart C of this part, must have eligibility terminated in DEERS by documentation shown in Table 29 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 29 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Terminate Eligibility of a Spouse in DEERS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Divorce decree (Note 1) or Death certificate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Former Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate from subsequent marriage (Note 2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Widow/Widower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate from subsequent marriage (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A common law marriage certificate, a court order, or a written SJA opinion that a common law marriage is recognized in the relevant State or U.S. jurisdiction, is also accepted.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Child.</I> A sponsor's child, who no longer meets the eligibility requirements identified in subpart C of this part, must have eligibility terminated in DEERS by documentation shown in Table 30 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 30 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Terminate Eligibility of a Child in DEERS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Child, Under Age 21:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Legitimate, Adopted, Pre-Adoptive, Illegitimate Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Adoption decree (Note 2) or Court order (Note 3) or Death certificate (Note 4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Stepchild</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Adoption decree (Note 2) or Court order (Note 3) or Death certificate (Note 4) or Divorce decree (Notes 5, 6).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ward, Foster Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Adoption decree (Note 2) or Court order (Note 3) or Death certificate (Note 4) or Dependency certification (Note 7).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Child, Over Age 21:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Full-Time Student</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Death certificate (Note 4) or Change in financial status (Note 7) or Letter from school registrar (Note 8).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Temporary or Permanent Incapacitated Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Death certificate (Note 4) or Change in financial status (Note 7) or Medical sufficiency statement (Note 9).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A marriage certificate, if the child marries.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. An adoption decree, if the child is adopted and the relationship to the sponsor is severed. This does not apply to surviving children adopted by a non-military member after the death of the sponsor in accordance with 32 CFR 199.3(f)(3).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. An order or appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession), affirming either the voluntary relinquishment or involuntary termination of parental rights and placing the child into custody of another guardian, or emancipating the child. In cases of involuntary termination, the Service project office should consult with the local SJA and confirm that the sponsor was properly notified of the involuntary termination proceedings and was given the opportunity to defend the sponsor's rights.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. A death certificate, if the child dies.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5. A final divorce decree, if the sponsor and the child's parent divorce in accordance with 32 CFR 199.3(f)(3).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">7. Sponsor certification on the DD Form 1172-2 that the sponsor is not providing more than 50 percent or that the child does not resides in the household.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">8. A letter from the school registrar that establishes the child is no longer a full-time student.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">9. A medical sufficiency statement issued by a physician in support of the military treatment facility or authorized TRICARE service provider, establishing the end of an incapacitation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Parent.</I> A sponsor's parent, including a parent-in-law, stepparent, or parent-by-adoption, who no longer meets the eligibility requirements, as identified in subpart C of this part, must have eligibility terminated in DEERS by documentation shown in Table 31 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 31 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Terminate Eligibility of a Parent in DEERS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Change in financial status (Note 1) or Divorce decree (Note 2) or Marriage certificate (Note 3) or Death certificate (Note 4) or.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. The sponsor, or the dependent parent, verifies that the sponsor is not providing more than 50 percent financial support for the parent.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. The relationship between the sponsor and the parent-in-law is terminated as a result of a divorce. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. The parent marries.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. The parent dies.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(j) <I>Documentation required to set data display restrictions in DEERS.</I> This paragraph (j) describes documentation required to request data display restrictions in DEERS. In certain circumstances, data display restrictions may be applied in DEERS to mask data elements from being viewed by affiliated family members by documentation shown in Table 32 to this subpart. Reasons and circumstances for restricting data may include, but are not limited to, personal preference and cases of abuse. Restricted data may include, but is not limited to, contact information such as an address, phone number, or email address.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 32 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Set Data Display Restrictions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor or Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DEERS Support Office request (Note 1) or Project Office request (Note 2) or Protective order (Note 3) or Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act request (Note 4).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A request to the DEERS Support Office asking for contact information to be restricted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A request to the Service DEERS/RAPIDS Project Office asking for the contact information to be restricted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. An order or other appropriate document from a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or U.S. territory or possession) that establishes a protective order.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. A request to restrict health information.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(k) To change an SSN in a DEERS record that was established by an authoritative feed (e.g., uniformed service member records, DoD civilian personnel records), the sponsor will need to consult the personnel office that established the authoritative feed.
</P>
<P>(2) To change an SSN in a DEERS record that was manually established (e.g., dependent records), the sponsor will need to go to a RAPIDS site for assistance.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 33 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Change an SSN in DEERS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social security cards (Note 1) and Social Security Administration letter (Note 2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social security cards (Note 1) and Social Security Administration letter (Note 2).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Social security cards issued by the Social Security Administration, establishing the old and new SSNs.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A letter from the Social Security Administration, explaining that a new SSN has been issued and stating that the individual will no longer use the old SSN.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(l) <I>Documentation required to change a name in DEERS.</I> This paragraph (m) describes documentation required to change a name in DEERS. Name changes based on a marriage, divorce, or death, are made at the time of enrollment or ID card issuance. An individual's name should be changed in DEERS with documentation shown in Table 34 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) To change a name in a DEERS record that was established by an authoritative feed (e.g., uniformed service member records, DoD civilian personnel records), the sponsor will need to first consult the personnel office that established the authoritative feed. If an immediate change is required, the sponsor may visit a RAPIDS site with the applicable documentation identified in Table 34 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) To change a name in a DEERS record that was manually established (e.g., dependent records), the sponsor will need to visit a RAPIDS site with the applicable documentation identified in Table 34 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 34 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Change a Name in DEERS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Court order or Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Divorce decree (Note 2) or Death decree (Note 3) or Social security cards (Note 4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spouse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Court order or Marriage certificate (Note 1) or Divorce decree (Note 2) or Death certificate (Note 3) or Social security cards (Note 4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Child</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Court order or Social security cards (Note 4).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. A marriage certificate to change an individual's last name to match the spouse's last name or to hyphenate the last name.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. A divorce decree to establish the individual's last name as the individual's last name before being married. A dissolution decree or annulment decree is also accepted. Additional documentation confirming name before being married may be required.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. A death certificate to establish the individual's last name as the individual's last name before being married. Additional documentation confirming name before being married may be required.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4. Social security cards issued by the Social Security Administration, establishing the individual's old full name and new full name.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(m) <I>Documentation required to correct an administrative error in DEERS</I>—(1) <I>Overview.</I> This paragraph (n) describes documentation required to correct administrative errors in DEERS.
</P>
<P>(i) To correct an administrative error in a DEERS record that was established and updated by authoritative feed, the sponsor should consult the personnel office that owns the authoritative feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) To correct an administrative error in a DEERS record that was established and updated manually, the sponsor, on behalf of a dependent, should seek the support of the uniformed service's DEERS Support Office Field Support personnel with documentation shown in Tables 35 through 37 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Name or date of birth.</I> An individual's name or date of birth, when incorrectly entered in DEERS, should be corrected with the documentation shown in Table 35 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 35 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Modify a Name or Date of Birth in DEERS To Correct an Administrative Error
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor or Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) Publication (Pub) 201-3, “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors,” Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements primary and secondary identity source documentation (Note).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Documentation from the FIPS Pub 201-3, PIV Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements primary and secondary identity source document lists that establishes name or date of birth.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Sex.</I> An individual's sex code, when incorrectly entered in DEERS, should be corrected with the documentation shown in Table 36 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 36 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Modify a Sex Code in DEERS To Correct an Administrative Error
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor or Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birth certificate and FIPS Pub 201-3 “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors,” Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements primary and secondary identity source documentation (Note).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Documentation from the FIPS Pub 201-3, PIV Identity Proofing and Registration Requirements primary and secondary identity source document lists that establishes gender.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>SSN.</I> An individual's SSN, when incorrectly entered in DEERS, should be corrected with the documentation shown in Table 37 to this subpart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 37 to Subpart D of Part 161—Documentation Required To Modify an SSN in DEERS To Correct an Administrative Error
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Documentation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sponsor or Dependent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Documentation establishing SSN (Note).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Government-issued documentation establishing SSN, including but not limited to, social security card, Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form W-2, “Wage and Tax Statement,” and Form SSA-1099, “Social Security Benefit Statement.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 74904, Oct. 27, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 11196, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 18543, Mar. 14, 2024; 90 FR 55044, Dec. 1, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="32:1.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—DEFENSE CONTRACTING


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="168a" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 168a—NATIONAL DEFENSE SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING GRADUATE FELLOWSHIPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2191.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 29844, July 23, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 168a.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168a.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes guidelines for the award of National Defense Science and Engineering Graduate (NDSEG) Fellowships, as required by 10 U.S.C. 2191. 
</P>
<P>(b) Authorizes, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2191 and consistent with DoD 5025.1, the publication of a regulation which will be codified at 32 CFR part 168b. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168a.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168a.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168a.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168a.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P><I>Sponsoring Agency.</I> A DoD Component or an activity that is designated to award NDSEG fellowships under § 168a.5(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168a.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168a.4   Policy and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sponsoring Agencies, in awarding NDSEG fellowships, shall award: 
</P>
<P>(1) Solely to U.S. citizens and nationals who agree to pursue graduate degrees in science, engineering, or other fields of study that are designated, in accordance with § 168a.5(b)(2), to be of priority interest to the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(2) Through a nationwide competition in which all appropriate actions have been taken to encourage applications from members of groups (including minorities, women, and disabled persons) that historically have been underrepresented in science and engineering. 
</P>
<P>(3) Without regard to the geographic region in which the applicant lives or the geographic region in which the applicant intends to pursue an advanced degree. 
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria for award of NDSEG fellowships shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's academic ability relative to other persons applying in the applicant's proposed field of study. 
</P>
<P>(2) The priority of the applicant's proposed field of study to the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168a.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.56.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168a.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Deputy Director, Defense Research and Engineering (Research and Advanced Technology) [DDDR&amp;E(R&amp;AT)], shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Administer this part and issue DoD guidance, as needed, for NDSEG fellowships. 
</P>
<P>(2) Designate those DoD Components that will award NDSEG fellowships, consistent with relevant statutory authority. 
</P>
<P>(3) Issue a regulation in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2191 and DoD 5025.1-M. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Heads of Sponsoring Agencies, or their designees, in coordination with a representative of the Deputy Director, Defense Research and Engineering (Research and Advanced Technology) [DDDR&amp;E(R&amp;AT)], shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Oversee the nationwide competition to select NDSEG fellowship recipients. 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine those science, engineering and other fields of priority interest to the Department of Defense in which NDSEG fellowships are to be awarded.
</P>
<P>(3) Prepare a regulation, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2191, that prescribes. 
</P>
<P>(i) Procedures for selecting NDSEG fellows. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The basis for determining the amounts of NDSEG fellowships. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum NDSEG fellowship amount that may be awarded to an individual during an academic year.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="170" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 170—CYBERSECURITY MATURITY MODEL CERTIFICATION (CMMC) PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; Sec. 1648, Pub. L. 116-92, 133 Stat. 1198.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 83214, Oct. 15, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification (CMMC) Program of the Department of Defense (DoD) and establishes requirements for defense contractors and subcontractors to implement prescribed cybersecurity standards for safeguarding Federal Contract Information (FCI) and Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI). This part (the CMMC Program) also establishes requirements for conducting an assessment of compliance with the applicable prescribed cybersecurity standard for contractor information systems that: process, store, or transmit FCI or CUI; provide security protections for systems which process, store, or transmit CUI; or are not logically or physically isolated from systems which process, store, or transmit CUI.
</P>
<P>(b) The CMMC Program provides DoD with a viable means of conducting the volume of assessments necessary to verify contractor and subcontractor implementation of required cybersecurity requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) The CMMC Program is designed to ensure defense contractors are properly safeguarding FCI and CUI that is processed, stored, or transmitted on defense contractor information systems. FCI and CUI must be protected to meet evolving threats and safeguard nonpublic, unclassified information that supports and enables the warfighter. The CMMC Program provides a consistent methodology to assess a defense contractor's implementation of required cybersecurity requirements. The CMMC Program utilizes the security standards set forth in the 48 CFR 52.204-21; National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication (SP) 800-171, <I>Basic Safeguarding of Covered Contractor Information Systems,</I> Revision 2, February 2020 (includes updates as of January 28, 2021) (NIST SP 800-171 R2); and selected requirements from the NIST SP 800-172, <I>Enhanced Security Requirements for Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information: A Supplement to NIST Special Publication 800-171,</I> February 2021 (NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021), as applicable (see table 1 to § 170.14(c)(4) for requirements, see § 170.2 for availability of NIST publications).
</P>
<P>(d) The CMMC Program balances the need to safeguard FCI and CUI and the requirement to share information appropriately with defense contractors in order to develop capabilities for the DoD. The CMMC Program is designed to ensure implementation of cybersecurity practices for defense contractors and to provide DoD with increased assurance that FCI and CUI information will be adequately safeguarded when residing on or transiting contractor information systems.
</P>
<P>(e) The CMMC Program creates no right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.2   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Material approved for incorporation by reference (IBR) is available for inspection at the Department of Defense (DoD) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DoD online: <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>; email: <I>osd.mc-alex.DoD-cio.mbx.cmmc-rule@mail.mil</I>; or phone: (202) 770-9100. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I>. The material may be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<P>(a) National Institute of Standards and Technology, U.S. Department of Commerce, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899; phone: (301) 975-8443; website: <I>https://csrc.nist.gov/publications/</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) FIPS PUB 200, Minimum Security Requirements for Federal Information and Information Systems, March 2006 (FIPS PUB 200 Mar2006); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(2) FIPS PUB 201-3, Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors, January 2022 (FIPS PUB 201-3 Jan2022); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(3) SP 800-37, Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations: A System Life Cycle Approach for Security and Privacy, Revision 2, December 2018 (NIST SP 800-37 R2); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(4) SP 800-39, Managing Information Security Risk: Organization, Mission, and Information System View, March 2011 (NIST SP 800-39 Mar2011); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(5) SP 800-53, Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations, Revision 5, September 2020 (includes updates as of December 10, 2020) (NIST SP 800-53 R5); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(6) SP 800-82r3, Guide to Operational Technology (OT) Security, September 2023 (NIST SP 800-82r3); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(7) SP 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment, September 2008 (NIST SP 800-115 Sept2008); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(8) SP 800-160, Volume 2, Developing Cyber-Resilient Systems: A Systems Security Engineering Approach, Revision 1, December 2021 (NIST SP 800-160 V2R1); IBR approved for § 170.4(b).
</P>
<P>(9) SP 800-171, Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information in Nonfederal Systems and Organizations, Revision 2, February 2020 (includes updates as of January 28, 2021), (NIST SP 800-171 R2); IBR approved for §§ 170.4(b) and 170.14(a) through (c).
</P>
<P>(10) SP 800-171A, Assessing Security Requirements for Controlled Unclassified Information, June 2018 (NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018); IBR approved for §§ 170.11(a), 170.14(d), 170.15(c), 170.16(c), 170.17(c), and 170.18(c).
</P>
<P>(11) SP 800-172, Enhanced Security Requirements for Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information: A Supplement to NIST Special Publication 800-171, February 2021 (NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021); IBR approved for §§ 170.4(b), 170.5(a), and 170.14(a) and (c).
</P>
<P>(12) SP 800-172A, Assessing Enhanced Security Requirements for Controlled Unclassified Information, March 2022 (NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022); IBR approved for §§ 170.4(b), 170.14(d), and 170.18(c).
</P>
<P>(b) International Organization for Standardization (ISO) Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401—1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; phone: +41 22 749 01 11; website: <I>www.iso.org/popular-standards.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E), Conformity assessment—Requirements for accreditation bodies accrediting conformity assessment bodies, Second edition, November 2017 (ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E)); IBR approved for §§ 170.8(b)(3), 170.9(b)(13), and 170.10(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E), Conformity assessment—Requirement for the operation of various types of bodies performing inspection, Second edition, March 1, 2012 (ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E)); IBR approved for §§ 170.8(a), (b)(1), (b)(3) and 170.9(b)(2) and (b)(13).
</P>
<P>(3) ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E), Conformity assessment—General requirements for bodies operating certification of persons, second edition, July 1, 2012 (ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E)); IBR approved for §§ 170.8(b)(2) and 170.10(a) and (b)(4), (7), and (8).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>The ISO/IEC standards incorporated by reference in this part may be viewed at no cost in “read only” format at <I>https://ibr.ansi.org</I>.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of this part apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) All DoD contract and subcontract awardees that will process, store, or transmit information, in performance of the DoD contract, that meets the standards for FCI or CUI on contractor information systems; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Private-sector businesses or other entities comprising the CMMC Assessment and Certification Ecosystem, as specified in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this part do not apply to Federal information systems operated by contractors or subcontractors on behalf of the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) CMMC Program requirements apply to all DoD solicitations and contracts pursuant to which a defense contractor or subcontractor will process, store, or transmit FCI or CUI on unclassified contractor information systems, including those for the acquisition of commercial items (except those exclusively for COTS items) valued at greater than the micro-purchase threshold except under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The procurement occurs during Implementation Phase 1, 2, or 3 as described in paragraph (e) of this section, in which case CMMC Program requirements apply in accordance with the requirements for the relevant phase-in period; or
</P>
<P>(2) Application of CMMC Program requirements to a procurement or class of procurements may be waived in advance of the solicitation at the discretion of DoD in accordance with all applicable policies, procedures, and approval requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD Program Managers or requiring activities are responsible for selecting the CMMC Status that will apply for a particular procurement or contract based upon the type of information, FCI or CUI, that will be processed on, stored on, or transmitted through a contractor information system. Application of the CMMC Status for subcontractors will be determined in accordance with § 170.23.
</P>
<P>(e) DoD is utilizing a phased approach for the inclusion of CMMC Program requirements in solicitations and contracts. Implementation of CMMC Program requirements will occur over four (4) phases:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Phase 1.</I> Begins on the effective date of the complementary 48 CFR part 204 CMMC Acquisition final rule. DoD intends to include the requirement for CMMC Statuses of Level 1 (Self) or Level 2 (Self) for all applicable DoD solicitations and contracts as a condition of contract award. DoD may, at its discretion, include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self) or Level 2 (Self) for applicable DoD solicitations and contracts as a condition to exercise an option period on a contract awarded prior to the effective date. DoD may also, at its discretion, include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) in place of the Level 2 (Self) CMMC Status for applicable DoD solicitations and contracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Phase 2.</I> Begins one calendar year following the start date of Phase 1. In addition to Phase 1 requirements, DoD intends to include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) for applicable DoD solicitations and contracts as a condition of contract award. DoD may, at its discretion, delay the inclusion of requirement for CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) to an option period instead of as a condition of contract award. DoD may also, at its discretion, include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) for applicable DoD solicitations and contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Phase 3.</I> Begins one calendar year following the start date of Phase 2. In addition to Phase 1 and 2 requirements, DoD intends to include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) for all applicable DoD solicitations and contracts as a condition of contract award and as a condition to exercise an option period on a contract awarded after the effective date. DoD intends to include the requirement for CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) for all applicable DoD solicitations and contracts as a condition of contract award. DoD may, at its discretion, delay the inclusion of requirement for CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) to an option period instead of as a condition of contract award.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Phase 4, full implementation.</I> Begins one calendar year following the start date of Phase 3. DoD will include CMMC Program requirements in all applicable DoD solicitations and contracts including option periods on contracts awarded prior to the beginning of Phase 4.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.4   Acronyms and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acronyms.</I> Unless otherwise noted, the following acronyms and their terms are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<FP-1>AC—Access Control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>APT—Advanced Persistent Threat
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AT—Awareness and Training
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C3PAO—CMMC Third-Party Assessment Organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CA—Security Assessment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAICO—CMMC Assessors and Instructors Certification Organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAGE—Commercial and Government Entity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CCA—CMMC-Certified Assessor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CCI—CMMC-Certified Instructor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CCP—CMMC-Certified Professional
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CFR—Code of Federal Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CIO—Chief Information Officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CM—Configuration Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CMMC—Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CMMC PMO—CMMC Program Management Office
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CNC—Computerized Numerical Control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CoPC—Code of Professional Conduct
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CSP—Cloud Service Provider
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CUI—Controlled Unclassified Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DCMA—Defense Contract Management Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DD—Represents any two-character CMMC Domain acronym
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DFARS—Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DIB—Defense Industrial Base
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DIBCAC—DCMA's Defense Industrial Base Cybersecurity Assessment Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoD—Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoDI—Department of Defense Instruction
</FP-1>
<FP-1>eMASS—Enterprise Mission Assurance Support Service
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ESP—External Service Provider
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR—Federal Acquisition Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FCI—Federal Contract Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FedRAMP—Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program
</FP-1>
<FP-1>GFE—Government Furnished Equipment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IA—Identification and Authentication
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ICS—Industrial Control System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IIoT—Industrial Internet of Things
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IoT—Internet of Things
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IR—Incident Response
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IS—Information System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IEC—International Electrotechnical Commission
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ISO/IEC—International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IT—Information Technology
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L#—CMMC Level Number
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MA—Maintenance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MP—Media Protection
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MSSP—Managed Security Service Provider
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NARA—National Archives and Records Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NAICS—North American Industry Classification System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NIST—National Institute of Standards and Technology
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N/A—Not Applicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ODP—Organization-Defined Parameter
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSA—Organization Seeking Assessment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSC—Organization Seeking Certification
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OT—Operational Technology
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PI—Provisional Instructor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PIEE—Procurement Integrated Enterprise Environment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PII—Personally Identifiable Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PLC—Programmable Logic Controller
</FP-1>
<FP-1>POA&amp;M—Plan of Action and Milestones
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PRA—Paperwork Reduction Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RM—Risk Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SAM—System of Award Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SC—System and Communications Protection
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SCADA—Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SI—System and Information Integrity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SIEM—Security Information and Event Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SP—Special Publication
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SPD—Security Protection Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SPRS—Supplier Performance Risk System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SSP—System Security Plan
</FP-1>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Access Control (AC)</I> means the process of granting or denying specific requests to obtain and use information and related information processing services; and/or entry to specific physical facilities (<I>e.g.,</I> Federal buildings, military establishments, or border crossing entrances), as defined in FIPS PUB 201-3 Jan2002 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation</I> means a status pursuant to which a CMMC Assessment and Certification Ecosystem member (person or organization), having met all criteria for the specific role they perform including required ISO/IEC accreditations, may act in that role as set forth in § 170.8 for the Accreditation Body and § 170.9 for C3PAOs. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation Body</I> is defined in § 170.8 and means the one organization DoD contracts with to be responsible for authorizing and accrediting members of the CMMC Assessment and Certification Ecosystem, as required. The Accreditation Body must be approved by DoD. At any given point in time, there will be only one Accreditation Body for the DoD CMMC Program. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)</I> means an adversary that possesses sophisticated levels of expertise and significant resources that allow it to create opportunities to achieve its objectives by using multiple attack vectors (<I>e.g.,</I> cyber, physical, and deception). These objectives typically include establishing and extending footholds within the information technology infrastructure of the targeted organizations for purposes of exfiltrating information, undermining or impeding critical aspects of a mission, program, or organization; or positioning itself to carry out these objectives in the future. The advanced persistent threat pursues its objectives repeatedly over an extended period-of-time, adapts to defenders' efforts to resist it, and is determined to maintain the level of interaction needed to execute its objectives, as is defined in NIST SP 800-39 Mar2011 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Affirming Official</I> means the senior level representative from within each Organization Seeking Assessment (OSA) who is responsible for ensuring the OSA's compliance with the CMMC Program requirements and has the authority to affirm the OSA's continuing compliance with the specified security requirements for their respective organizations. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Assessment</I> means the testing or evaluation of security controls to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for an information system or organization, as defined in §§ 170.15 through 170.18. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Level 1 self-assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by an OSA to evaluate its own information system when seeking a CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Level 2 self-assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by an OSA to evaluate its own information system when seeking a CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Level 2 certification assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by a C3PAO to evaluate the information system of an OSC when seeking a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Level 3 certification assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by the DCMA DIBCAC to evaluate the information system of an OSC when seeking a CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by an OSA to evaluate only the NOT MET requirements that were identified with POA&amp;M during the initial assessment, when seeking a CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (Self).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment</I> is the term for the activity performed by a C3PAO or DCMA DIBCAC to evaluate only the NOT MET requirements that were identified with POA&amp;M during the initial assessment, when seeking a CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) or Final Level 3 (DIBCAC) respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment Findings Report</I> means the final written assessment results by the third-party or government assessment team. The Assessment Findings Report is submitted to the OSC and to the DoD via CMMC eMASS. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Assessment objective</I> means a set of determination statements that, taken together, expresses the desired outcome for the assessment of a security requirement. Successful implementation of the corresponding CMMC security requirement requires meeting all applicable assessment objectives defined in NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) or NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Assessment Team</I> means participants in the Level 2 certification assessment (CMMC Certified Assessors and CMMC Certified Professionals) or the Level 3 certification assessment (DCMA DIBCAC assessors). This does not include the OSC participants preparing for or participating in the assessment. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Asset</I> means an item of value to stakeholders. An asset may be tangible (<I>e.g.,</I> a physical item such as hardware, firmware, computing platform, network device, or other technology component) or intangible (<I>e.g.,</I> humans, data, information, software, capability, function, service, trademark, copyright, patent, intellectual property, image, or reputation). The value of an asset is determined by stakeholders in consideration of loss concerns across the entire system life cycle. Such concerns include but are not limited to business or mission concerns, as defined in NIST SP 800-160 V2R1 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Asset Categories</I> means a grouping of assets that process, store or transmit information of similar designation, or provide security protection to those assets. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Authentication</I> is defined in FIPS PUB 200 Mar2006 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Authorized</I> means an interim status during which a CMMC Ecosystem member (person or organization), having met all criteria for the specific role they perform other than the required ISO/IEC accreditations, may act in that role for a specified time as set forth in § 170.8 for the Accreditation Body and § 170.9 for C3PAOs. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Capability</I> means a combination of mutually reinforcing controls implemented by technical means, physical means, and procedural means. Such controls are typically selected to achieve a common information security or privacy purpose, as defined in NIST SP 800-37 R2 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Cloud Service Provider (CSP)</I> means an external company that provides cloud services based on cloud computing. Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (<I>e.g.,</I> networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction. This definition is based on the definition for cloud computing in NIST SP 800-145 Sept2011. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Assessment and Certification Ecosystem</I> means the people and organizations described in subpart C of this part. This term is sometimes shortened to CMMC Ecosystem. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Assessment Scope</I> means the set of all assets in the OSA's environment that will be assessed against CMMC security requirements. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Assessor and Instructor Certification Organization (CAICO)</I> is defined in § 170.10 and means the organization responsible for training, testing, authorizing, certifying, and recertifying CMMC certified assessors, certified instructors, and certified professionals. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Instantiation of eMASS</I> means a CMMC instance of the Enterprise Mission Assurance Support Service (eMASS), a government owned and operated system. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Security Requirements</I> means the 15 Level 1 requirements listed in the 48 CFR 52.204-21(b)(1), the 110 Level 2 requirements from NIST SP 800-171 R2 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), and the 24 Level 3 requirements selected from NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Status</I> is the result of meeting or exceeding the minimum required score for the corresponding assessment. The CMMC Status of an OSA information system is officially stored in SPRS and additionally presented on a Certificate of CMMC Status, if the assessment was conducted by a C3PAO or DCMA DIBCAC. The potential CMMC Statuses are outlined in the paragraphs that follow. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final Level 1 (Self)</I> is defined in § 170.15(a)(1) and (c)(1). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional Level 2 (Self)</I> is defined in § 170.16(a)(1)(ii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final Level 2 (Self)</I> is defined in § 170.16(a)(1)(iii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO)</I> is defined in § 170.17(a)(1)(ii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Final Level 2 (C3PAO)</I> is defined in § 170.17(a)(1)(iii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC)</I> is defined in § 170.18(a)(1)(ii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Final Level 3 (DIBCAC)</I> is defined in § 170.18(a)(1)(iii). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Status Date</I> means the date that the CMMC Status results are submitted to SPRS or the CMMC instantiation of eMASS, as appropriate. The date of the Conditional CMMC Status will remain as the CMMC Status Date after a successful POA&amp;M closeout. A new date is not set for a Final that follows a Conditional. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>CMMC Third-Party Assessment Organization (C3PAO)</I> means an organization that has been authorized or accredited by the Accreditation Body to conduct Level 2 certification assessments and has the roles and responsibilities identified in § 170.9. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> is defined in 48 CFR 3.502-1.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor Risk Managed Assets</I> are defined in table 3 to § 170.19(c)(1). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)</I> is defined in 32 CFR 2002.4(h).
</P>
<P><I>Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Assets</I> means assets that can process, store, or transmit CUI. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment</I> means an assessment that is conducted by Government personnel in accordance with NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 and leveraging specific guidance in the DoD Assessment Methodology that:
</P>
<P>(i) Consists of:
</P>
<P>(A) A review of a contractor's Basic Assessment;
</P>
<P>(B) A thorough document review;
</P>
<P>(C) Verification, examination, and demonstration of a contractor's system security plan to validate that NIST SP 800-171 R2 security requirements have been implemented as described in the contractor's system security plan; and
</P>
<P>(D) Discussions with the contractor to obtain additional information or clarification, as needed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Results in a confidence level of “High” in the resulting score. (Source: 48 CFR 252.204-7020).
</P>
<P><I>Defense Industrial Base (DIB)</I> is defined in 32 CFR 236.2.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Assessment Methodology (DoDAM)</I> documents a standard methodology that enables a strategic assessment of a contractor's implementation of NIST SP 800-171 R2, a requirement for compliance with 48 CFR 252.204-7012. (Source: DoDAM Version 1.2.1)
</P>
<P><I>Enduring Exception</I> means a special circumstance or system where remediation and full compliance with CMMC <I>s</I>ecurity <I>r</I>equirements is not feasible. Examples include systems required to replicate the configuration of 'fielded' systems, medical devices, test equipment, OT, and IoT. No operational plan of action is required but the circumstance must be documented within a system security plan. Specialized Assets and GFE may be enduring exceptions. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> means an organization with a defined mission/goal and a defined boundary, using information systems to execute that mission, and with responsibility for managing its own risks and performance. An enterprise may consist of all or some of the following business aspects: acquisition, program management, financial management (<I>e.g.,</I> budgets), human resources, security, and information systems, information and mission management, as defined in NIST SP 800-53 R5 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>External Service Provider (ESP)</I> means external people, technology, or facilities that an organization utilizes for provision and management of IT and/or cybersecurity services on behalf of the organization. In the CMMC Program, CUI or Security Protection Data (<I>e.g.,</I> log data, configuration data), must be processed, stored, or transmitted on the ESP assets to be considered an ESP. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Federal Contract Information (FCI)</I> is defined in 48 CFR 4.1901.
</P>
<P><I>Government Furnished Equipment (GFE)</I> has the same meaning as “government-furnished property” as defined in 48 CFR 45.101.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial Control Systems (ICS)</I> means a general term that encompasses several types of control systems, including supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, distributed control systems (DCS), and other control system configurations that are often found in the industrial sectors and critical infrastructures, such as Programmable Logic Controllers (PLC). An ICS consists of combinations of control components (<I>e.g.,</I> electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic) that act together to achieve an industrial objective (<I>e.g.,</I> manufacturing, transportation of matter or energy), as defined in NIST SP 800-82r3 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Information System (IS)</I> is defined in NIST SP 800-171 R2 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Internet of Things (IoT)</I> means the network of devices that contain the hardware, software, firmware, and actuators which allow the devices to connect, interact, and freely exchange data and information, as defined in NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Operational plan of action</I> as used in security requirement CA.L2-3.12.2, means the formal artifact which identifies temporary vulnerabilities and temporary deficiencies (<I>e.g.,</I> necessary information system updates, patches, or reconfiguration as threats evolve) in implementation of requirements and documents how they will be mitigated, corrected, or eliminated. The OSA defines the format (<I>e.g.,</I> document, spreadsheet, database) and specific content of its operational plan of action. An operational plan of action does not identify a timeline for remediation and is not the same as a POA&amp;M, which is associated with an assessment for remediation of deficiencies that must be completed within 180 days. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Operational Technology (OT)</I> means programmable systems or devices that interact with the physical environment (or manage devices that interact with the physical environment). These systems or devices detect or cause a direct change through the monitoring or control of devices, processes, and events. Examples include industrial control systems, building management systems, fire control systems, and physical access control mechanisms, as defined in NIST SP 800-160 V2R1 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Organization-defined</I> means as determined by the OSA except as defined in the case of Organization-Defined Parameter (ODP). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Organization-Defined Parameters (ODPs)</I> means selected enhanced security requirements contain selection and assignment operations to give organizations flexibility in defining variable parts of those requirements, as defined in NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Note 1 to ODPs:</I> The organization defining the parameters is the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Organization Seeking Assessment (OSA)</I> means the entity seeking to undergo a self-assessment or certification assessment for a given information system for the purposes of achieving and maintaining any CMMC Status. The term OSA includes all Organizations Seeking Certification (OSCs). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Organization Seeking Certification (OSC)</I> means the entity seeking to undergo a certification assessment for a given information system for the purposes of achieving and maintaining the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) or Level 3 (DIBCAC). An OSC is also an OSA. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-Scope Assets</I> means assets that cannot process, store, or transmit CUI because they are physically or logically separated from information systems that do process, store, or transmit CUI, or are inherently unable to do so; except for assets that provide security protection for a CUI asset (see the definition for <I>Security Protection Assets</I>). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Periodically</I> means occurring at a regular interval as determined by the OSA that may not exceed one year. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Personally Identifiable Information</I> means information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, either alone or when combined with other information that is linked or linkable to a specific individual, as defined in NIST SP 800-53 R5 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&amp;M)</I> means a document that identifies tasks needing to be accomplished. It details resources required to accomplish the elements of the plan, any milestones in meeting the tasks, and scheduled completion dates for the milestones, as defined in NIST SP 800-115 Sept2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Prime Contractor</I> is defined in 48 CFR 3.502-1.
</P>
<P><I>Process, store, or transmit</I> means data can be used by an asset (<I>e.g.,</I> accessed, entered, edited, generated, manipulated, or printed); data is inactive or at rest on an asset (<I>e.g.,</I> located on electronic media, in system component memory, or in physical format such as paper documents); or data is being transferred from one asset to another asset (<I>e.g.,</I> data in transit using physical or digital transport methods). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Information Systems</I> means systems (and associated IT components comprising the system) that are configured based on government requirements (<I>e.g.,</I> connected to something that was required to support a functional requirement) and are used to support a contract (<I>e.g.,</I> fielded systems, obsolete systems, and product deliverable replicas). (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Risk</I> means a measure of the extent to which an entity is threatened by a potential circumstance or event, and is typically a function of:
</P>
<P>(i) The adverse impacts that would arise if the circumstance or event occurs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The likelihood of occurrence, as defined in NIST SP 800-53 R5 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Risk Assessment</I> means the process of identifying risks to organizational operations (including mission, functions, image, reputation), organizational assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation, resulting from the operation of a system. Risk Assessment is part of risk management, incorporates threat and vulnerability analyses, and considers mitigations provided by security controls planned or in place. Synonymous with risk analysis, as defined in NIST SP 800-39 Mar2011 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Security Protection Assets (SPA)</I> means assets providing security functions or capabilities for the OSA's CMMC Assessment Scope. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Security Protection Data (SPD)</I> means data stored or processed by Security Protection Assets (SPA) that are used to protect an OSC's assessed environment. SPD is security relevant information and includes but is not limited to: configuration data required to operate an SPA, log files generated by or ingested by an SPA, data related to the configuration or vulnerability status of in-scope assets, and passwords that grant access to the in-scope environment. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Specialized Assets</I> means types of assets considered specialized assets for CMMC: Government Furnished Equipment, Internet of Things (IoT) or Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT), Operational Technology (OT), Restricted Information Systems, and Test Equipment. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor</I> is defined in 48 CFR 3.502-1.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)</I> means a generic name for a computerized system that is capable of gathering and processing data and applying operational controls over long distances. Typical uses include power transmission and distribution and pipeline systems. SCADA was designed for the unique communication challenges (<I>e.g.,</I> delays, data integrity) posed by the various media that must be used, such as phone lines, microwave, and satellite. Usually shared rather than dedicated, as defined in NIST SP 800-82r3 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>System Security Plan (SSP)</I> means the formal document that provides an overview of the security requirements for an information system or an information security program and describes the security controls in place or planned for meeting those requirements. The system security plan describes the system components that are included within the system, the environment in which the system operates, how the security requirements are implemented, and the relationships with or connections to other systems, as defined in NIST SP 800-53 R5 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P><I>Temporary deficiency</I> means a condition where remediation of a discovered deficiency is feasible, and a known fix is available or is in process. The deficiency must be documented in an operational plan of action. A temporary deficiency is not based on an 'in progress' initial implementation of a CMMC security requirement but arises after implementation. A temporary deficiency may apply during the initial implementation of a security requirement if, during roll-out, specific issues with a very limited subset of equipment is discovered that must be separately addressed. There is no standard duration for which a temporary deficiency may be active. For example, FIPS-validated cryptography that requires a patch and the patched version is no longer the validated version may be a temporary deficiency. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>Test Equipment</I> means hardware and/or associated IT components used in the testing of products, system components, and contract deliverables. (CMMC-custom term)
</P>
<P><I>User</I> means an individual, or (system) process acting on behalf of an individual, authorized to access a system, as defined in NIST SP 800-53 R5 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.1.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.5   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Protection of FCI and CUI on contractor information systems is of paramount importance to the DoD and can directly impact its ability to successfully conduct essential missions and functions. It is DoD policy that defense contractors and subcontractors shall be required to safeguard FCI and CUI that is processed, stored, or transmitted on contractor information systems by applying specified security requirements. In addition, defense contractors and subcontractors may be required to implement additional safeguards defined in NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), implementing DoD specified parameters to meet CMMC Level 3 security requirements (see table 1 to § 170.14(c)(4)). These additional requirements are necessary to protect CUI being processed, stored, or transmitted in contractor information systems, when designated by a requirement for CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) as defined by a DoD program manager or requiring activity. In general, the Department will identify a requirement for a CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) for solicitations and resulting contracts supporting its most critical programs and technologies.
</P>
<P>(b) Program managers and requiring activities are responsible for identifying the CMMC Status that will apply to a procurement. Selection of the applicable CMMC Status will be based on factors including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Criticality of the associated mission capability;
</P>
<P>(2) Type of acquisition program or technology;
</P>
<P>(3) Threat of loss of the FCI or CUI to be shared or generated in relation to the effort;
</P>
<P>(4) Impacts from exploitation of information security deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other relevant policies and factors, including Milestone Decision Authority guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with the implementation plan described in § 170.3, CMMC Program requirements will apply to new DoD solicitations and contracts, and shall flow down to subcontractors who will process, store, or transmit FCI or CUI in performance of the subcontract, as described in § 170.23.
</P>
<P>(d) In very limited circumstances, and in accordance with all applicable policies, procedures, and requirements, a Service Acquisition Executive or Component Acquisition Executive in the DoD, or as delegated, may elect to waive inclusion of CMMC Program requirements in a solicitation or contract. In such cases, contractors and subcontractors will remain obligated to comply with all applicable cybersecurity and information security requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) The CMMC Program does not alter any separately applicable requirements to protect FCI or CUI, including those requirements in accordance with 48 CFR 52.204-21, <I>Basic Safeguarding of Covered Contractor Information Systems,</I> or covered defense information in accordance with 48 CFR 252.204-7012, <I>Safeguarding Covered Defense Information and Cyber Incident Reporting,</I> or any other applicable information protection requirements. The CMMC Program provides a means of verifying implementation of the security requirements set forth in 48 CFR 52.204-21, NIST SP 800-171 R2, and NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021, as applicable.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Government Roles and Responsibilities.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.6   CMMC PMO.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of the Department of Defense Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) Office of the Deputy CIO for Cybersecurity (DoD CIO(CS)) provides oversight of the CMMC Program and is responsible for establishing CMMC assessment, accreditation, and training requirements as well as developing and updating CMMC Program policies and implementing guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) The CMMC PMO is responsible for monitoring the CMMC AB's performance of roles assigned in this rule and acting as necessary to address problems pertaining to effective performance.
</P>
<P>(c) The CMMC PMO retains, on behalf of the DoD CIO(CS), the prerogative to review decisions of the CMMC Accreditation Body as part of its oversight of the CMMC program and evaluate any alleged conflicts of interest purported to influence the CMMC Accreditation Body's objectivity.
</P>
<P>(d) The CMMC PMO is responsible for sponsoring necessary DCSA activities including FOCI risk assessment and Tier 3 security background investigations for the CMMC Ecosystem members as specified in §§ 170.8(b)(4) and (5), 170.9(b)(3) through (5), 170.11(b)(3) and (4), and 170.13(b)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(e) The CMMC PMO is responsible for investigating and acting upon indications that an active CMMC Status has been called into question. Indications that may trigger investigative evaluations include, but are not limited to, reports from the CMMC Accreditation Body, a C3PAO, or anyone knowledgeable of the security processes and activities of the OSA. Investigative evaluations include, but are not limited to, reviewing pertinent assessment information, and exercising the right to conduct a DCMA DIBCAC assessment of the OSA, as provided for under the 48 CFR 252.204-7020.
</P>
<P>(f) If a subsequent DCMA DIBCAC assessment shows that adherence to the provisions of this rule and the required CMMC Status have not been achieved or maintained, the DIBCAC results will take precedence over any pre-existing CMMC Status recorded in SPRS, or its successor capability. The DoD will update SPRS to reflect that the OSA is out of compliance and does not meet DoD CMMC requirements. If the OSA is working on an active contract requiring CMMC compliance, then standard contractual remedies will apply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.7   DCMA DIBCAC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DCMA DIBCAC assessors in support of the CMMC Program will:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete CMMC Level 2 and Level 3 training.
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct Level 3 certification assessments and upload assessment results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS, or its successor capability.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue Certificates of CMMC Status resulting from Level 3 certification assessments.
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct Level 2 certification assessments of the Accreditation Body and prospective C3PAOs' information systems that process, store, and/or transmit CUI.
</P>
<P>(5) Create and maintain a process for assessors to collect the list of assessment artifacts to include artifact names, their return value of the hashing algorithm, the hashing algorithm used, and upload that data into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.
</P>
<P>(6) As authorized and in accordance with all legal requirements, enter and track, OSC appeals and updated results arising from Level 3 certification assessment activities into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.
</P>
<P>(7) Retain all records in accordance with DCMA-MAN 4501-04.
</P>
<P>(8) Conduct an assessment of the OSA, when requested by the CMMC PMO per §§ 170.6(e) and (f), as provided for under the 48 CFR 252.204-7019 and 48 CFR 252.204-7020.
</P>
<P>(9) Identify assessments that meet the criteria in § 170.20 and verify that SPRS accurately reflects the CMMC Status.
</P>
<P>(b) An OSC, the CMMC AB, or a C3PAO may appeal the outcome of its DCMA DIBCAC conducted assessment within 21 days by submitting a written basis for appeal with the requirements in question for DCMA DIBCAC consideration. Appeals may be submitted for review by visiting <I>www.dcma.mil/DIBCAC</I> for contact information, and a DCMA DIBCAC Quality Assurance Review Team will provide a written response or request additional supporting documentation.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—CMMC Assessment and Certification Ecosystem.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.8   Accreditation Body.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Roles and responsibilities.</I> The Accreditation Body is responsible for authorizing and ensuring the accreditation of CMMC Third-Party Assessment Organizations (C3PAOs) in accordance with ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and all applicable authorization and accreditation requirements set forth. The Accreditation Body is responsible for establishing the C3PAO authorization requirements and the C3PAO Accreditation Scheme and submitting both for approval by the CMMC PMO. At any given point in time, there will be only one Accreditation Body for the DoD CMMC Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> The CMMC Accreditation Body shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be US-based and be and remain a member in good standing of the Inter-American Accreditation Cooperation (IAAC) and become an International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) signatory, with a signatory status scope of ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(2) Be and remain a member in good standing of the International Accreditation Forum (IAF) with mutual recognition arrangement signatory status scope of ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(3) Achieve and maintain full compliance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and complete a peer assessment by other ILAC signatories for competence in accrediting conformity assessment bodies to ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), both within 24 months of DoD approval.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to achieving full compliance as set forth in this paragraph (b)(3), the Accreditation Body shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Authorize C3PAOs who meet all requirements set forth in § 170.9 as well as administrative requirements as determined by the Accreditation Body to conduct Level 2 certification assessments and issue Certificates of CMMC Status to OSCs based on the assessment results.
</P>
<P>(B) Require all C3PAOs to achieve and maintain the ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) requirements within 27 months of authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Accreditation Body shall accredit C3PAOs, in accordance with ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), who meet all requirements set forth in § 170.9 to conduct Level 2 certification assessments and issue Certificates of CMMC Status to OSCs based on the results.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the Accreditation Body's Board of Directors, professional staff, Information Technology (IT) staff, accreditation staff, and independent CMMC Certified Assessor staff complete a Tier 3 background investigation resulting in a determination of national security eligibility. This Tier 3 background investigation will not result in a security clearance and is not being executed for the purpose of government employment. The Tier 3 background investigation is initiated using the Standard Form (SF) 86 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/questionnaire-for-national-security-positions</I>) and submitted by DoD CIO Security to Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) for coordination for processing by the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA). These positions are designated as non-critical sensitive with a risk designation of “Moderate Risk” in accordance with 5 CFR 1400.201(b) and (d) and the investigative requirements of 5 CFR 731.106(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) Comply with Foreign Ownership, Control or Influence (FOCI) by:
</P>
<P>(i) Completing the Standard Form (SF) 328 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/certificate-pertaining-to-foreign-interests</I>), <I>Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests,</I> and submit it directly to Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) and undergo a National Security Review with regards to the protection of controlled unclassified information based on the factors identified in 32 CFR 117.11(b) using the procedures outlined in 32 CFR 117.11(c). The Accreditation Body must receive a non-disqualifying eligibility determination by the CMMC PMO to be recognized by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reporting any change to the information provided on its SF 328 by resubmitting the SF 328 to DCSA within 15 business days of the change being effective. A disqualifying eligibility determination, based on the results of the change, will result in the Accreditation Body losing its authorization or accreditation under the CMMC Program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identifying all prospective C3PAOs to the CMMC PMO. The CMMC PMO will sponsor the prospective C3PAO for a FOCI risk assessment conducted by the DCSA using the SF 328 as part of the authorization and accreditation processes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notifying prospective C3PAOs of the CMMC PMO's eligibility determination resulting from the FOCI risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(6) Obtain a Level 2 certification assessment in accordance with the procedures specified in § 170.17(a)(1) and (c). This assessment, conducted by DCMA DIBCAC, shall meet all requirements for a Final Level 2 (C3PAO) but will not result in a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO). The Level 2 certification assessment process must be performed every three years.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(8) Establish, maintain, and manage an up-to-date list of authorized and accredited C3PAOs on a single publicly accessible website and provide the list of these entities and their status to the DoD through submission in the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.
</P>
<P>(9) Provide the CMMC PMO with current data on C3PAOs, including authorization and accreditation records and status in the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. This data shall include the dates associated with the authorization and accreditation of each C3PAO.
</P>
<P>(10) Provide the DoD with information about aggregate statistics pertaining to operations of the CMMC Ecosystem to include the authorization and accreditation status of C3PAOs or other information as requested.
</P>
<P>(11) Provide inputs for assessor supplemental guidance to the CMMC PMO. Participate and support coordination of these and other inputs through DoD-led Working Groups.
</P>
<P>(12) Ensure that all information about individuals is encrypted and protected in all Accreditation Body information systems and databases.
</P>
<P>(13) Provide all plans that are related to potential sources of revenue, to include but not limited to: fees, licensing, processes, membership, and/or partnerships to the Department's CMMC PMO.
</P>
<P>(14) Ensure that the CMMC Assessors and Instructors Certification Organization (CAICO) is compliant with ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E)
</P>
<P>(15) Ensure all training products, instruction, and testing materials are of high quality and subject to CAICO quality control policies and procedures, to include technical accuracy and alignment with all applicable legal, regulatory, and policy requirements.
</P>
<P>(16) Develop and maintain an internal appeals process, as required by ISO/IEC 17020:2017(E), and render a final decision on all elevated appeals.
</P>
<P>(17) Develop and maintain a comprehensive plan and schedule to comply with all ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E), and DoD requirements for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics policies as set forth in the DoD contract. All policies shall apply to the Accreditation Body, and other individuals, entities, and groups within the CMMC Ecosystem who provide Level 2 certification assessments, CMMC instruction, CMMC training materials, or Certificates of CMMC Status on behalf of the Accreditation Body. All policies in this section must be approved by the CMMC PMO prior to effectivity in accordance with the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conflict of Interest (CoI) policy.</I> The CoI policy shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Include a detailed risk mitigation plan for all potential conflicts of interest that may pose a risk to compliance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E).
</P>
<P>(B) Require employees, Board directors, and members of any accreditation committees or appeals adjudication committees to disclose to the CMMC PMO, in writing, as soon as it is known or reasonably should be known, any actual, potential, or perceived conflict of interest with sufficient detail to allow for assessment.
</P>
<P>(C) Require employees, Board directors, and members of any accreditation committees or appeals adjudication committees who leave the board or organization to enter a “cooling off period” of one (1) year whereby they are prohibited from working with the Accreditation Body or participating in any and all CMMC activities described in Subpart C.
</P>
<P>(D) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to actively avoid participating in any activity, practice, or transaction that could result in an actual or perceived conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(E) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to disclose to Accreditation Body leadership, in writing, any actual or potential conflict of interest as soon as it is known, or reasonably should be known.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Code of Professional Conduct (CoPC) policy.</I> The CoPC policy shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Describe the performance standards by which the members of the CMMC Ecosystem will be held accountable and the procedures for addressing violations of those performance standards.
</P>
<P>(B) Require the Accreditation Body to investigate and resolve any potential violations that are reported or are identified by the DoD.
</P>
<P>(C) Require the Accreditation Body to inform the DoD in writing of new investigations within 72 hours.
</P>
<P>(D) Require the Accreditation Body to report to the DoD in writing the outcome of completed investigations within 15 business days.
</P>
<P>(E) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to represent themselves and their companies accurately; to include not misrepresenting any professional credentials or status, including CMMC authorization or CMMC Status, nor exaggerating the services that they or their company are capable or authorized to deliver.
</P>
<P>(F) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to be honest and factual in all CMMC-related activities with colleagues, clients, trainees, and others with whom they interact.
</P>
<P>(G) Prohibit CMMC Ecosystem members from participating in the Level 2 certification assessment process for an assessment in which they previously served as a consultant to prepare the organization for any CMMC assessment within 3 years.
</P>
<P>(H) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to maintain the confidentiality of customer and government data to preclude unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(I) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to report results and data from Level 2 certification assessments and training objectively, completely, clearly, and accurately.
</P>
<P>(J) Prohibit CMMC Ecosystem members from cheating, assisting another in cheating, or allowing cheating on CMMC examinations.
</P>
<P>(K) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to utilize official training content developed by a CMMC training organization approved by the CAICO in all CMMC certification courses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ethics policy.</I> The Ethics policy shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to report to the Accreditation Body within 30 days of convictions, guilty pleas, or no contest pleas to crimes of fraud, larceny, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, misrepresentation, perjury, false swearing, conspiracy to conceal, or a similar offense in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal, whether or not in connection with activities that relate to carrying out their role in the CMMC Ecosystem.
</P>
<P>(B) Prohibit harassment or discrimination by CMMC Ecosystem members in all interactions with individuals whom they encounter in connection with their roles in the CMMC Ecosystem.
</P>
<P>(C) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to have and maintain a satisfactory record of integrity and business ethics.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.9   CMMC Third-Party Assessment Organizations (C3PAOs).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Roles and responsibilities.</I> C3PAOs are organizations that are responsible for conducting Level 2 certification assessments and issuing Certificates of CMMC Status to OSCs based on the results. C3PAOs must be accredited or authorized by the Accreditation Body in accordance with the requirements set forth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> C3PAOs shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain authorization or accreditation from the Accreditation Body in accordance with § 170.8(b)(3)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the Accreditation Body policies for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics set forth in § 170.8(b)(17); and achieve and maintain compliance with ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) within 27 months of authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) Require all C3PAO company personnel participating in the Level 2 certification assessment process to complete a Tier 3 background investigation resulting in a determination of national security eligibility. This includes the CMMC Assessment Team and the quality assurance individual. This Tier 3 background investigation will not result in a security clearance and is not being executed for the purpose of government employment. The Tier 3 background investigation is initiated using the Standard Form (SF) 86 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/questionnaire-for-national-security-positions</I>). These positions are designated as non-critical sensitive with a risk designation of “Moderate Risk” in accordance with 5 CFR 1400.201(b) and (d) and the investigative requirements of 5 CFR 731.106(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Require all C3PAO company personnel participating in the Level 2 certification assessment process who are not eligible to obtain a Tier 3 background investigation to meet the equivalent of a favorably adjudicated Tier 3 background investigation. DoD will determine the Tier 3 background investigation equivalence for use with the CMMC Program only.
</P>
<P>(5) Comply with Foreign Ownership, Control or Influence (FOCI) by:
</P>
<P>(i) Completing and submitting Standard Form (SF) 328 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/certificate-pertaining-to-foreign-interests</I>), <I>Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests,</I> upon request from DCSA and undergo a National Security Review with regards to the protection of controlled unclassified information based on the factors identified in 32 CFR 117.11(b) using the procedures outlined in 32 CFR 117.11(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) Receiving a non-disqualifying eligibility determination from the CMMC PMO resulting from the FOCI risk assessment in order to proceed to a DCMA DIBCAC CMMC Level 2 assessment, as part of the authorization and accreditation process set forth in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reporting any change to the information provided on its SF 328 by resubmitting the SF 328 to DCSA within 15 business days of the change being effective. A disqualifying eligibility determination, based on the results of the change, will result in the C3PAO losing its authorization or accreditation.
</P>
<P>(6) Undergo a Level 2 certification assessment meeting all requirements for a Final Level 2 (C3PAO) in accordance with the procedures specified in § 170.17(a)(1) and (c), with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) The assessment will be conducted by DCMA DIBCAC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment will not result in a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) nor receive a Certificate of CMMC Status.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(8) Submit pre-assessment and planning material, final assessment reports, and CMMC certificates of assessment into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.
</P>
<P>(9) Unless disposition is otherwise authorized by the CMMC PMO, maintain all assessment related records for a period of six (6) years. Such records include any materials generated by the C3PAO in the course of an assessment, any working papers generated from Level 2 certification assessments; and materials relating to monitoring, education, training, technical knowledge, skills, experience, and authorization of all personnel involved in assessment activities; contractual agreements with OSCs; and organizations for whom consulting services were provided.
</P>
<P>(10) Provide any requested audit information, including any out-of-cycle from ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) requirements, to the Accreditation Body.
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure that all personally identifiable information (PII) is encrypted and protected in all C3PAO information systems and databases.
</P>
<P>(12) Meet the requirements for Assessment Team composition. An Assessment Team must include at least two people: a Lead CCA, as defined in § 170.11(b)(10), and at least one other CCA. Additional CCAs and CCPs may also participate on an Assessment Team.
</P>
<P>(13) Implement a quality assurance function that ensures the accuracy and completeness of assessment data prior to upload into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. Any individual fulfilling the quality assurance function must be a CCA and cannot be a member of an Assessment Team for which they are performing a quality assurance role. A quality assurance individual shall manage the C3PAO's quality assurance reviews as defined in paragraph (b)(14) of this section and the appeals process as required by paragraphs (b)(19) and (20) of this section and in accordance with ISO/IEC 17020:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(14) Conduct quality assurance reviews for each assessment, including observations of the Assessment Team's conduct and management of CMMC assessment processes.
</P>
<P>(15) Ensure that all Level 2 certification assessment activities are performed on the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(16) Maintain all facilities, personnel, and equipment involved in CMMC activities that are in scope of their Level 2 certification assessment and comply with all security requirements and procedures as prescribed by the Accreditation Body.
</P>
<P>(17) Ensure that all assessment data and information uploaded into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS assessment data is compliant with the CMMC assessment data standard as set forth in eMASS CMMC Assessment Import Templates on the CMMC eMASS website: <I>https://cmmc.emass.apps.mil</I>. This system is accessible only to authorized users.
</P>
<P>(18) Issue Certificates of CMMC Status to OSCs in accordance with the Level 2 certification assessment requirements set forth in § 170.17, that include, at a minimum, all industry CAGE codes associated with the information systems addressed by the CMMC Assessment Scope, the C3PAO name, assessment unique identifier, the OSC name, and the CMMC Status date and level.
</P>
<P>(19) Address all OSC appeals arising from Level 2 certification assessment activities. If the OSC or C3PAO is not satisfied with the result of the appeal either the OSC or the C3PAO can elevate the matter to the Accreditation Body for final determination.
</P>
<P>(20) Submit assessment appeals, review records, and decision results of assessment appeals to DoD using the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.10   CMMC Assessor and Instructor Certification Organization (CAICO).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Roles and responsibilities.</I> The CAICO is responsible for training, testing, authorizing, certifying, and recertifying CMMC assessors, instructors, and related professionals. Only the CAICO may make decisions relating to examination certifications, including the granting, maintaining, recertifying, expanding, and reducing the scope of certification, and suspending or withdrawing certification in accordance with current ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2). At any given point in time, there will be only one CAICO for the DoD CMMC Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> The CAICO shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the Accreditation Body policies for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics set forth in § 170.8(b)(17); and achieve and maintain ISO/IEC 17024(E) accreditation within 12 months of December 16, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(3) Train, test, and designate PIs in accordance with the requirements of this section. Train, test, certify, and recertify CCPs, CCAs, and CCIs in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure the instructor and assessor certification examinations are certified under ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), by a recognized US-based accreditor who is not a member of the CMMC Accreditation Body. The US-based accreditor must be a signatory to International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) or relevant International Accreditation Forum (IAF) Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) and must operate in accordance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(5) Establish quality control policies and procedures for the generation of training products, instruction, and testing materials.
</P>
<P>(6) Oversee development, administration, and management pertaining to the quality of training and examination materials for CMMC assessor and instructor certification and recertification.
</P>
<P>(7) Establish and publish an authorization and certification appeals process to receive, evaluate, and make decisions on complaints and appeals in accordance with ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(8) Address all appeals arising from the CCA, CCI, and CCP authorizations and certifications process through use of internal processes in accordance with ISO/IEC 17024:2012(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain records for a period of six (6) years of all procedures, processes, and actions related to fulfillment of the requirements set forth in this section and provide the Accreditation Body access to those records.
</P>
<P>(10) Provide the Accreditation Body information about the authorization and accreditation status of assessors, instructors, training community, and publishing partners.
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure separation of duties between individuals involved in testing activities, training activities, and certification activities.
</P>
<P>(12) Safeguard and require any CAICO training support service providers, as applicable, to safeguard the confidentiality of applicant, candidate, and certificate-holder information and ensure the overall security of the certification process.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure that all PII is encrypted and protected in all CAICO information systems and databases and those of any CAICO training support service providers.
</P>
<P>(14) Ensure the security of assessor and instructor examinations and the fair and credible administration of examinations.
</P>
<P>(15) Neither disclose nor allow any CAICO training support service providers, as applicable, to disclose CMMC data or metrics related to authorization or certification activities to any entity other than the Accreditation Body and DoD, except as required by law.
</P>
<P>(16) Require retraining and redesignation of PIs upon significant change to DoD's CMMC Program requirements. Require retraining and recertification of CCPs, CCAs, and CCIs upon significant change to DoD's CMMC Program requirements, as determined by the DoD or the CAICO.
</P>
<P>(17) Require CMMC Ecosystem members to report to the CAICO within 30 days of convictions, guilty pleas, or no contest pleas to crimes of fraud, larceny, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, misrepresentation, perjury, false swearing, conspiracy to conceal, or a similar offense in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal, whether or not in connection with activities that relate to carrying out their role in the CMMC Ecosystem.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.11   CMMC Certified Assessor (CCA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Roles and responsibilities.</I> CCAs, in support of a C3PAO, conduct Level 2 certification assessments of OSCs in accordance with NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2), the assessment processes defined in § 170.17, and the scoping requirements defined in § 170.19(c). CCAs must meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. A CCA may conduct Level 2 certification assessments and participate on a C3PAO Assessment Team.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> CCAs shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain and maintain certification from the CAICO in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 170.10. Certification is valid for 3 years from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the Accreditation Body policies for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics set forth in § 170.8(b)(17).
</P>
<P>(3) Complete a Tier 3 background investigation resulting in a determination of national security eligibility. This Tier 3 background investigation will not result in a security clearance and is not being executed for the purpose of government employment. The Tier 3 background investigation is initiated using the Standard Form (SF) 86 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/questionnaire-for-national-security-positions</I>). These positions are designated as non-critical sensitive with a risk designation of “Moderate Risk” in accordance with 5 CFR 1400.201(b) and (d) and the investigative requirements of 5 CFR 731.106(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Meet the equivalent of a favorably adjudicated Tier 3 background investigation when not eligible for a Tier 3 background investigation. DoD will determine the Tier 3 background investigation equivalence for use with the CMMC Program only.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(6) Be a CCP who has at least 3 years of cybersecurity experience, at least 1 year of assessment or audit experience, and at least one foundational qualification, aligned to at least the Intermediate Proficiency Level of the DoD Cyberspace Workforce Framework's Security Control Assessor (612) Work Role, from DoD Manual 8140.03, <I>Cyberspace Workforce Qualification and Management Program</I> (<I>https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/Library/DoDM-8140-03.pdf</I>). Information on the Work Role 612 can be found at <I>https://public.cyber.mil/dcwf-work-role/security-control-assessor/</I>.
</P>
<P>(7) Only use IT, cloud, cybersecurity services, and end-point devices provided by the authorized/accredited C3PAO that has been engaged to perform that OSA's Level 2 certification assessment and which has undergone a Level 2 certification assessment by DCMA DIBCAC (or higher) for all assessment activities. Individual assessors are prohibited from using any other IT, including IT that is personally owned, to include internal and external cloud services and end-point devices, to process, store, or transmit CMMC assessment reports or any other CMMC assessment-related information. The evaluation of assessment evidence within the OSC environment, using OSC tools, is permitted.
</P>
<P>(8) Immediately notify the responsible C3PAO of any breach or potential breach of security to any CMMC-related assessment materials under the assessors' purview.
</P>
<P>(9) Not share any information about an OSC obtained during CMMC pre-assessment and assessment activities with any person not involved with that specific assessment, except as otherwise required by law.
</P>
<P>(10) Qualify as a Lead CCA by having at least 5 years of cybersecurity experience, 5 years of management experience, 3 years of assessment or audit experience, and at least one foundational qualification aligned to Advanced Proficiency Level of the DoD Cyberspace Workforce Framework's Security Control Assessor (612) Work Role, from DoD Manual 8140.03, <I>Cyberspace Workforce Qualification and Management Program</I> (<I>https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/Library/DoDM-8140-03.pdf</I>). Information on the Work Role 612 can be found at <I>https://public.cyber.mil/dcwf-work-role/security-control-assessor/.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.12   CMMC Instructor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CMMC Provisional Instructor (PI) roles and responsibilities.</I> A CMMC Provisional Instructor (PI) teaches CCA and CCP candidates during the transitional period that ends 18 months after December 16, 2024. A PI is trained, tested, and designated to perform CMMC instructional duties by the CAICO to teach CCP and CCA candidates. PIs are designated by the CAICO after successful completion of the PI training and testing requirements set forth by the CAICO. A PI with a valid CCP certification may instruct CCP candidates, while a PI with a valid CCA certification may instruct CCP and CCA candidates. PIs are required to meet requirements in (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CMMC Certified Instructor (CCI) roles and responsibilities.</I> A CMMC Certified Instructor (CCI) teaches CCP, CCA, and CCI candidates and performs CMMC instructional duties. Candidate CCIs are certified by the CAICO after successful completion of the CCI training and testing requirements. A CCI is required to obtain and maintain assessor and instructor certifications from the CAICO in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 170.10 and in paragraph (c) of this section. A CCI with a valid CCP certification may instruct CCP candidates, while a CCI with a valid CCA certification may instruct CCP, CCA, and CCI candidates. Certifications are valid for 3 years from the date of issuance. CCIs are required to meet requirements in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> CMMC Instructors shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain and maintain instructor designation or certification, as appropriate, from the CAICO in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 170.10.
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain and maintain CCP or CCA certification to deliver CCP training.
</P>
<P>(3) Obtain and maintain a CCA certification to deliver CCA training.
</P>
<P>(4) Comply with the Accreditation Body policies for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics set forth in § 170.8(b)(17).
</P>
<P>(5) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the Accreditation Body and the CAICO annually with accurate information detailing their qualifications, training experience, professional affiliations, and certifications, and, upon reasonable request, submit documentation verifying this information.
</P>
<P>(7) Not provide CMMC consulting services while serving as a CMMC instructor; however, subject to the Code of Professional Conduct and Conflict of Interest policies, can serve on an assessment team.
</P>
<P>(8) Not participate in the development of exam objectives and/or exam content or act as an exam proctor while at the same time serving as a CCI.
</P>
<P>(9) Keep confidential all information obtained or created during the performance of CMMC training activities, including trainee records, except as required by law.
</P>
<P>(10) Not disclose any CMMC-related data or metrics that is PII, FCI, or CUI to anyone without prior coordination with and approval from DoD.
</P>
<P>(11) Notify the Accreditation Body or the CAICO if required by law or authorized by contractual commitments to release confidential information.
</P>
<P>(12) Not share with anyone any CMMC training-related information not previously publicly disclosed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.3.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.13   CMMC Certified Professional (CCP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Roles and responsibilities.</I> A CMMC Certified Professional (CCP) completes rigorous training on CMMC and the assessment process to provide advice, consulting, and recommendations to their OSA clients. Candidate CCPs are certified by the CAICO after successful completion of the CCP training and testing requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. CCPs are eligible to become CMMC Certified Assessors and can participate as a CCP on Level 2 certification assessments with CCA oversight where the CCA makes all final determinations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> CCPs shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain and maintain certification from the CAICO in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 170.10. Certification is valid for 3 years from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the Accreditation Body policies for Conflict of Interest, Code of Professional Conduct, and Ethics as set forth in § 170.8(b)(17).
</P>
<P>(3) Complete a Tier 3 background investigation resulting in a determination of national security eligibility. This Tier 3 background investigation will not result in a security clearance and is not being executed for the purpose of government employment. The Tier 3 background investigation is initiated using the Standard Form (SF) 86 (<I>www.gsa.gov/reference/forms/questionnaire-for-national-security-positions</I>). These positions are designated as non-critical sensitive with a risk designation of “Moderate Risk” in accordance with 5 CFR 1400.201(b) and (d) and the investigative requirements of 5 CFR 731.106(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Meet the equivalent of a favorably adjudicated Tier 3 background investigation when not eligible to obtain a Tier 3 background investigation. DoD will determine the Tier 3 background investigation equivalence for use with the CMMC Program only.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide all documentation and records in English.
</P>
<P>(6) Not share any information about an OSC obtained during CMMC pre-assessment and assessment activities with any person not involved with that specific assessment, except as otherwise required by law.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Key Elements of the CMMC Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.14   CMMC Model.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> The CMMC Model incorporates the security requirements from:
</P>
<P>(1) 48 CFR 52.204-21, <I>Basic Safeguarding of Covered Contractor Information Systems;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) NIST SP 800-171 R2, <I>Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information in Nonfederal Systems and Organizations</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2); and
</P>
<P>(3) Selected security requirements from NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021, <I>Enhanced Security Requirements for Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information: A Supplement to NIST Special Publication 800-171</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CMMC domains.</I> The CMMC Model consists of domains that map to the Security Requirement Families defined in NIST SP 800-171 R2 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CMMC level requirements.</I> CMMC Levels 1-3 utilize the safeguarding requirements and security requirements specified in 48 CFR 52.204-21 (for Level 1), NIST SP 800-171 R2 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) (for Level 2), and selected security requirements from NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) (for Level 3). This paragraph discusses the numbering scheme and the security requirements for each level.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Numbering.</I> Each security requirement has an identification number in the format—DD.L#-REQ—where:
</P>
<P>(i) DD is the two-letter domain abbreviation;
</P>
<P>(ii) L# is the CMMC level number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) REQ is the 48 CFR 52.204-21 paragraph number, NIST SP 800-171 R2 requirement number, or NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 requirement number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CMMC Level 1 security requirements.</I> The security requirements in CMMC Level 1 are those set forth in 48 CFR 52.204-21(b)(1)(i) through (xv).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CMMC Level 2 security requirements.</I> The security requirements in CMMC Level 2 are identical to the requirements in NIST SP 800-171 R2.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>CMMC Level 3 security requirements.</I> The security requirements in CMMC Level 3 are selected from NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021, and where applicable, Organization-Defined Parameters (ODPs) are assigned. Table 1 to this paragraph identifies the selected requirements and applicable ODPs that represent the CMMC Level 3 security requirements. ODPs for the NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 requirements are italicized, where applicable:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 170.14(<E T="01">c</E>)(4)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Security requirement No.*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMMC Level 3 security requirements
<br/>(selected NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 security requirement with DoD ODPs italicized)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) AC.L3-3.1.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Restrict access to systems and system components to only those information resources that are owned, provisioned, or issued by the organization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) AC.L3-3.1.3e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ <E T="03">secure information transfer solutions</E> to control information flows between security domains on connected systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) AT.L3-3.2.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide awareness training <E T="03">upon initial hire, following a significant cyber event, and at least annually</E><E T="03">,</E> focused on recognizing and responding to threats from social engineering, advanced persistent threat actors, breaches, and suspicious behaviors; update the training <E T="03">at least annually</E> or when there are significant changes to the threat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) AT.L3-3.2.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Include practical exercises in awareness training for <E T="03">all users, tailored by roles, to include general users, users with specialized roles, and privileged users,</E> that are aligned with current threat scenarios and provide feedback to individuals involved in the training and their supervisors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) CM.L3-3.4.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Establish and maintain an authoritative source and repository to provide a trusted source and accountability for approved and implemented system components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) CM.L3-3.4.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ automated mechanisms to detect misconfigured or unauthorized system components; after detection, <E T="03">remove the components or place the components in a quarantine or remediation network</E> to facilitate patching, re-configuration, or other mitigations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) CM.L3-3.4.3e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ automated discovery and management tools to maintain an up-to-date, complete, accurate, and readily available inventory of system components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) IA.L3-3.5.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identify and authenticate <E T="03">systems and system components, where possible,</E> before establishing a network connection using bidirectional authentication that is cryptographically based and replay resistant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) IA.L3-3.5.3e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ automated or manual/procedural mechanisms to prohibit system components from connecting to organizational systems unless the components are known, authenticated, in a properly configured state, or in a trust profile.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) IR.L3-3.6.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Establish and maintain a security operations center capability that operates <E T="03">24/7, with allowance for remote/on-call staff.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) IR.L3-3.6.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Establish and maintain a cyber-incident response team that can be deployed by the organization within <E T="03">24 hours.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) PS.L3-3.9.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ensure that organizational systems are protected if adverse information develops or is obtained about individuals with access to CUI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) RA.L3-3.11.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ <E T="03">threat intelligence, at a minimum from open or commercial sources, and any DoD-provided sources,</E> as part of a risk assessment to guide and inform the development of organizational systems, security architectures, selection of security solutions, monitoring, threat hunting, and response and recovery activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) RA.L3-3.11.2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct cyber threat hunting activities <E T="03">on an on-going aperiodic basis or when indications warrant,</E> to search for indicators of compromise in <E T="03">organizational systems</E> and detect, track, and disrupt threats that evade existing controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xv) RA.L3-3.11.3e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ advanced automation and analytics capabilities in support of analysts to predict and identify risks to organizations, systems, and system components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvi) RA.L3-3.11.4e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Document or reference in the system security plan the security solution selected, the rationale for the security solution, and the risk determination.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvii) RA.L3-3.11.5e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assess the effectiveness of security solutions <E T="03">at least annually or upon receipt of relevant cyber threat information, or in response to a relevant cyber incident,</E> to address anticipated risk to organizational systems and the organization based on current and accumulated threat intelligence.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xviii) RA.L3-3.11.6e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assess, respond to, and monitor supply chain risks associated with organizational systems and system components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xix) RA.L3-3.11.7e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Develop a plan for managing supply chain risks associated with organizational systems and system components; update the plan <E T="03">at least annually, and upon receipt of relevant cyber threat information, or in response to a relevant cyber incident.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xx) CA.L3-3.12.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct penetration testing <E T="03">at least annually or when significant security changes are made to the system,</E> leveraging automated scanning tools and ad hoc tests using subject matter experts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxi) SC.L3-3.13.4e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employ <E T="03">physical isolation techniques or logical isolation techniques or both</E> in organizational systems and system components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxii) SI.L3-3.14.1e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Verify the integrity of <E T="03">security critical and essential software</E> using root of trust mechanisms or cryptographic signatures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxiii) SI.L3-3.14.3e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ensure that <E T="03">specialized assets including IoT, IIoT, OT, GFE, Restricted Information Systems, and test equipment</E> are included in the scope of the specified enhanced security requirements or are segregated in purpose-specific networks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxiv) SI.L3-3.14.6e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use threat indicator information and effective mitigations obtained from, <E T="03">at a minimum, open or commercial sources, and any DoD-provided sources,</E> to guide and inform intrusion detection and threat hunting.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Roman numerals in parentheses before the Security Requirement are for numbering purposes only. The numerals are not part of the naming convention for the requirement.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Implementation.</I> Assessment of security requirements is prescribed by NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2). Descriptive text in these documents support OSA implementation of the security requirements and use the terms organization-defined and periodically. Except where referring to Organization-Defined Parameters (ODPs), organization-defined means as determined by the OSA. Periodically means occurring at regular intervals. As used in many requirements within CMMC, the interval length is organization-defined to provided contractor flexibility, with an interval length of no more than one year.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.15   CMMC Level 1 self-assessment and affirmation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 1 self-assessment.</I> To comply with CMMC Level 1 self-assessment requirements, the OSA must meet the requirements detailed in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. An OSA conducts a Level 1 self-assessment as detailed in paragraph (c) of this section to achieve a CMMC Status of Final Level 1 (Self).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 1 self-assessment requirements.</I> The OSA must complete and achieve a MET result for all security requirements specified in § 170.14(c)(2) to achieve the CMMC Status of Final Level 1 (Self). No POA&amp;Ms are permitted for CMMC Level 1. The OSA must conduct a self-assessment in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 170.15(c)(1) and submit assessment results in SPRS. To maintain compliance with the requirements for the CMMC Status of Final Level 1 (Self), the OSA must conduct a Level 1 self-assessment on an annual basis and submit the results in SPRS, or its successor capability.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Inputs to SPRS.</I> The Level 1 self-assessment results in the Supplier Performance Risk System (SPRS) shall include, at minimum, the following items:
</P>
<P>(A) CMMC Level.
</P>
<P>(B) CMMC Status Date.
</P>
<P>(C) CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(D) All industry CAGE code(s) associated with the information system(s) addressed by the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(E) Compliance result.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affirmation.</I> Affirmation of the Level 1 (Self) CMMC Status is required for all Level 1 self-assessments. Affirmation procedures are set forth in § 170.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract eligibility.</I> Prior to award of any contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self), OSAs must both achieve a CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self) and have submitted an affirmation of compliance into SPRS for all information systems within the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Level 1 self-assessment.</I> The OSA must conduct a Level 1 self-assessment scored in accordance with the CMMC Scoring Methodology described in § 170.24. The Level 1 self-assessment must be performed in accordance with the CMMC Level 1 scope requirements set forth in § 170.19(a) and (b) and the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The Level 1 self-assessment must be performed using the objectives defined in NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) for the security requirement that maps to the CMMC Level 1 security requirement as specified in table 1 to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. In any case where an objective addresses CUI, FCI should be substituted for CUI in the objective.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mapping table for CMMC Level 1 security requirements to the NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 objectives.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 170.15<E T="01">(c)(1)(ii)</E>—CMMC Level 1 Security Requirements Mapped to NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMMC Level 1 security requirements as set forth in § 170.14(c)(2)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AC.L1-b.1.i</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AC.L1-b.1.ii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AC.L1-b.1.iii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AC.L1-b.1.iv</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IA.L1-b.1.v</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IA.L1-b.1.vi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MP.L1-b.1.vii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PE.L1-b.1.viii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First phrase of PE.L1-b.1.ix (FAR b.1.ix *)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Second phrase of PE.L1-b.1.ix (FAR b.1.ix *)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Third phrase of PE.L1-b.1.ix (FAR b.1.ix *)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SC.L1-b.1.x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SC.L1-b.1.xi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SI.L1-b.1.xii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SI.L1-b.1.xiii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SI.L1-b.1.xiv</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SI.L1-b.1.xv</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14.5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Three of the 48 CFR 52.204-21 requirements were broken apart by “phrase” when NIST SP 800-171 R2 was developed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Additional guidance can be found in the guidance document listed in paragraph (b) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Artifact retention.</I> The artifacts used as evidence for the assessment must be retained by the OSA for six (6) years from the CMMC Status Date.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.16   CMMC Level 2 self-assessment and affirmation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 2 self-assessment.</I> To comply with Level 2 self-assessment requirements, the OSA must meet the requirements detailed in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. An OSA conducts a Level 2 self-assessment as detailed in paragraph (c) of this section to achieve a CMMC Status of either Conditional or Final Level 2 (Self). Achieving a CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self) also satisfies the requirements for a CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self) detailed in § 170.15 for the same CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 2 self-assessment requirements.</I> The OSA must complete and achieve a MET result for all security requirements specified in § 170.14(c)(3) to achieve the CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self). The OSA must conduct a self-assessment in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and submit assessment results in Supplier Performance Risk System (SPRS). To maintain compliance with the requirements for a CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self), the OSA must conduct a Level 2 self-assessment every three years and submit the results in SPRS, within three years of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 2 (Self).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Inputs to SPRS.</I> The Level 2 self-assessment results in the SPRS shall include, at minimum, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) CMMC Level.
</P>
<P>(B) CMMC Status Date.
</P>
<P>(C) CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(D) All industry CAGE code(s) associated with the information system(s) addressed by the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(E) Overall Level 2 self-assessment score (<I>e.g.,</I> 105 out of 110).
</P>
<P>(F) POA&amp;M usage and compliance status, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional Level 2 (Self).</I> The OSA has achieved the CMMC Status of Conditional Level 2 (Self) if the Level 2 self-assessment results in a POA&amp;M and the POA&amp;M meets all the CMMC Level 2 POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Plan of Action and Milestones.</I> A Level 2 POA&amp;M is allowed only in accordance with the CMMC POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>POA&amp;M closeout.</I> The OSA must remediate any NOT MET requirements, must perform a POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment, and must post compliance results to SPRS within 180 days of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 2 (Self). If the POA&amp;M is not successfully closed out within the 180-day timeframe, the Conditional Level 2 (Self) CMMC Status for the information system will expire. If Conditional Level 2 (Self) CMMC Status expires within the period of performance of a contract, standard contractual remedies will apply, and the OSA will be ineligible for additional awards with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self), or higher requirement, for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final Level 2 (Self).</I> The OSA has achieved the CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (Self) if the Level 2 self-assessment results in a passing score as defined in § 170.24. This score may be achieved upon initial self-assessment or as the result of a POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CMMC Status investigation.</I> The DoD reserves the right to conduct a DCMA DIBCAC assessment of the OSA, as provided for under the 48 CFR 252.204-7020. If the investigative results of a subsequent DCMA DIBCAC assessment show that adherence to the provisions of this part have not been achieved or maintained, these DCMA DIBCAC results will take precedence over any pre-existing CMMC Status. At that time, standard contractual remedies will be available and the OSA will be ineligible for additional awards with CMMC Status requirement of Level 2 (Self), or higher requirement, for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affirmation.</I> Affirmation of the Level 2 (Self) CMMC Status is required for all Level 2 self-assessments at the time of each assessment, and annually thereafter. Affirmation procedures are set forth in § 170.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract eligibility.</I> Prior to award of any contract or subcontract with requirement for CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self), the following two requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The OSA must achieve, as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a CMMC Status of either Conditional Level 2 (Self) or Final Level 2 (Self).
</P>
<P>(2) The OSA must submit an affirmation of compliance into SPRS, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Level 2 self-assessment of the OSA.</I> The OSA must conduct a Level 2 self-assessment in accordance with NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and the CMMC Level 2 scoping requirements set forth in §§ 170.19(a) and (c) for the information systems within the CMMC Assessment Scope. The Level 2 self-assessment must be scored in accordance with the CMMC Scoring Methodology described in § 170.24 and the OSA must upload the results into SPRS. If a POA&amp;M exists, a POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment must be performed by the OSA when all NOT MET requirements have been remediated. The POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment must be performed within 180-days of the Conditional CMMC Status Date. Additional guidance can be found in the guidance document listed in paragraph (c) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2 self-assessment with the use of Cloud Service Provider (CSP).</I> An OSA may use a cloud environment to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The CSP product or service offering is FedRAMP Authorized at the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline in accordance with the FedRAMP Marketplace; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSP product or service offering is not FedRAMP Authorized at the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline but meets security requirements equivalent to those established by the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline. FedRAMP Moderate or FedRAMP Moderate equivalent is in accordance with DoD Policy.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(c)(2), the OSA's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the CSP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope, which will also be assessed. As such, the security requirements from the Customer Responsibility Matrix (CRM) must be documented or referred to in the OSA's System Security Plan (SSP).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 2 self-assessment with the use of an External Service Provider (ESP), not a CSP.</I> An OSA may use an ESP that is not a CSP to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of the ESP, its relationship to the OSA, and the services provided are documented in the OSA's SSP and described in the ESP's service description and CRM.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ESP services used to meet OSA requirements are assessed within the scope of the OSA's assessment against all Level 2 security requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(c)(2), the OSA's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the ESP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope, which will also be assessed. As such, the security requirements from the CRM must be documented or referred to in the OSA's SSP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Artifact retention.</I> The artifacts used as evidence for the assessment must be retained by the OSA for six (6) years from the CMMC Status Date.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.17   CMMC Level 2 certification assessment and affirmation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 2 certification assessment.</I> To comply with Level 2 certification assessment requirements, the OSC must meet the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. An OSC undergoes a Level 2 certification assessment as detailed in paragraph (c) of this section to achieve a CMMC Status of either Conditional or Final Level 2 (C3PAO). Achieving a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) also satisfies the requirements for a CMMC Statuses of Level 1 (Self) and Level 2 (Self) set forth in §§ 170.15 and 170.16 respectively for the same CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 2 certification assessment requirements.</I> The OSC must complete and achieve a MET result for all security requirements specified in § 170.14(c)(3) to achieve the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO). The OSC must obtain a Level 2 certification assessment from an authorized or accredited C3PAO following the procedures outlined in paragraph (c) of this section. The C3PAO must submit the Level 2 certification assessment results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS, which then provides automated transmission to SPRS. To maintain compliance with the requirements for a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO), the Level 2 certification assessment must be completed within three years of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Inputs into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.</I> The Level 2 certification assessment results input into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS shall include, at minimum, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Date and level of the assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) C3PAO name.
</P>
<P>(C) Assessment unique identifier.
</P>
<P>(D) For each Assessor conducting the assessment, name and business contact information.
</P>
<P>(E) All industry CAGE codes associated with the information systems addressed by the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(F) The name, date, and version of the SSP.
</P>
<P>(G) CMMC Status Date.
</P>
<P>(H) Assessment result for each requirement objective.
</P>
<P>(I) POA&amp;M usage and compliance, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(J) List of the artifact names, the return value of the hashing algorithm, and the hashing algorithm used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO).</I> The OSC has achieved the CMMC Status of Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO) if the Level 2 certification assessment results in a POA&amp;M and the POA&amp;M meets all CMMC Level 2 POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Plan of Action and Milestones.</I> A Level 2 POA&amp;M is allowed only in accordance with the CMMC POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>POA&amp;M closeout.</I> The OSC must remediate any NOT MET requirements, must undergo a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment from a C3PAO, and the C3PAO must post compliance results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS within 180 days of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO). If the POA&amp;M is not successfully closed out within the 180-day timeframe, the Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO) CMMC Status for the information system will expire. If Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO) CMMC Status expires within the period of performance of a contract, standard contractual remedies will apply, and the OSC will be ineligible for additional awards with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO), or higher requirement, for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final Level 2 (C3PAO).</I> The OSC has achieved the CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) if the Level 2 certification assessment results in a passing score as defined in § 170.24. This score may be achieved upon initial certification assessment or as the result of a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CMMC Status investigation.</I> The DoD reserves the right to conduct a DCMA DIBCAC assessment of the OSC, as provided for under the 48 CFR 252.204-7020. If the investigative results of a subsequent DCMA DIBCAC assessment show that adherence to the provisions of this part have not been achieved or maintained, these DCMA DIBCAC results will take precedence over any pre-existing CMMC Status. At that time, standard contractual remedies will be available and the OSC will be ineligible for additional awards with CMMC Status requirement of Level 2 (C3PAO), or higher requirement, for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affirmation.</I> Affirmation of the Level 2 (C3PAO) CMMC Status is required for all Level 2 certification assessments at the time of each assessment, and annually thereafter. Affirmation procedures are provided in § 170.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract eligibility.</I> Prior to award of any contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO), the following two requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The OSC must achieve, as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a CMMC Status of either Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO) or Final Level 2 (C3PAO).
</P>
<P>(2) The OSC must submit an affirmation of compliance into SPRS, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Level 2 certification assessment of the OSC.</I> An authorized or accredited C3PAO must perform a Level 2 certification assessment in accordance with NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and the CMMC Level 2 scoping requirements set forth in § 170.19(a) and (c) for the information systems within the CMMC Assessment Scope. The Level 2 certification assessment must be scored in accordance with the CMMC Scoring Methodology described in § 170.24 and the C3PAO must upload the results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. Final results are communicated to the OSC through a CMMC Assessment Findings Report.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security requirement re-evaluation.</I> A security requirement that is NOT MET (as defined in § 170.24) may be re-evaluated during the course of the Level 2 certification assessment and for 10 business days following the active assessment period if all of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional evidence is available to demonstrate the security requirement has been MET;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cannot change or limit the effectiveness of other requirements that have been scored MET; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The CMMC Assessment Findings Report has not been delivered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>POA&amp;M.</I> If a POA&amp;M exists, a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment must be performed by a C3PAO within 180-days of the Conditional CMMC Status Date. Additional guidance can be found in § 170.21 and in the guidance document listed in paragraph (c) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Artifact retention and integrity.</I> The hashed artifacts used as evidence for the assessment must be retained by the OSC for six (6) years from the CMMC Status Date. To ensure that the artifacts have not been altered, the OSC must hash the artifact files using a NIST-approved hashing algorithm. The OSC must provide the C3PAO with a list of the artifact names, the return value of the hashing algorithm, and the hashing algorithm for upload into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. Additional guidance for hashing artifacts can be found in the guidance document listed in paragraph (h) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Level 2 certification assessment with the use of Cloud Service Provider (CSP).</I> An OSC may use a cloud environment to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The CSP product or service offering is FedRAMP Authorized at the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline in accordance with the FedRAMP Marketplace; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSP product or service offering is not FedRAMP Authorized at the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline but meets security requirements equivalent to those established by the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline. FedRAMP Moderate or FedRAMP Moderate equivalent is in accordance with DoD Policy.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(c)(2), the OSC's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the CSP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope. As such, the security requirements from the CRM must be documented or referred to in the OSC's SSP.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Level 2 certification assessment with the use of an External Service Provider (ESP), not a CSP.</I> An OSA may use an ESP that is not a CSP to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of the ESP, its relationship to the OSA, and the services provided are documented in the OSA's SSP and described in the ESP's service description and customer responsibility matrix.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ESP services used to meet OSA requirements are assessed within the scope of the OSA's assessment against all Level 2 security requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(c)(2), the OSA's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the ESP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope, which will also be assessed. As such, the security requirements from the CRM must be documented or referred to in the OSA's SSP.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.18   CMMC Level 3 certification assessment and affirmation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 3 certification assessment.</I> To comply with Level 3 certification assessment requirements, the OSC must meet the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. An OSC undergoes a Level 3 certification assessment as detailed in paragraph (c) of this section to achieve a CMMC Status of either Conditional or Final Level 3 (DIBCAC). A CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) for information systems within the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope is a prerequisite to undergo a Level 3 certification assessment. CMMC Level 3 recertification also has a prerequisite for a new CMMC Level 2 assessment. Achieving a CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) also satisfies the requirements for CMMC Statuses of Level 1 (Self), Level 2 (Self), and Level 2 (C3PAO) set forth in §§ 170.15 through 170.17 respectively for the same CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 3 certification assessment requirements.</I> The OSC must achieve a CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) on the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope, as defined in § 170.19(d), prior to initiating a Level 3 certification assessment, which will be performed by DCMA DIBCAC (<I>www.dcma.mil/DIBCAC</I>) on behalf of the DoD. The OSC must complete and achieve a MET result for all security requirements specified in table 1 to § 170.14(c)(4) to achieve the CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC). DCMA DIBCAC will submit the Level 3 certification assessment results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS, which then provides automated transmission to SPRS. To maintain compliance with the requirements for a CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC), the Level 3 certification assessment must be performed every three years for all information systems within the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope. In addition, given that compliance with Level 2 requirements is a prerequisite for applying for CMMC Level 3, a Level 2 (C3PAO) certification assessment must also be conducted every three years to maintain CMMC Level 3 (DIBCAC) status. Level 3 certification assessment must be completed within three years of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Final Level 3 (DIBCAC) or, if there was a POA&amp;M, then within three years of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Inputs into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS.</I> The Level 3 certification assessment results input into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS shall include, at minimum, the following items:
</P>
<P>(A) Date and level of the assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) For each Assessor(s) conducting the assessment, name and government organization information.
</P>
<P>(C) All industry CAGE code(s) associated with the information system(s) addressed by the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(D) The name, date, and version of the system security plan(s) (SSP).
</P>
<P>(E) CMMC Status Date.
</P>
<P>(F) Result for each security requirement objective.
</P>
<P>(G) POA&amp;M usage and compliance, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) List of the artifact names, the return value of the hashing algorithm, and the hashing algorithm used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC).</I> The OSC has achieved the CMMC Status of Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC) if the Level 3 certification assessment results in a POA&amp;M and the POA&amp;M meets all CMMC Level 3 POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Plan of Action and Milestones.</I> A Level 3 POA&amp;M is allowed only in accordance with the CMMC POA&amp;M requirements listed in § 170.21.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>POA&amp;M closeout.</I> The OSC must remediate any NOT MET requirements, must undergo a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment from DCMA DIBCAC, and DCMA DIBCAC must post compliance results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS within 180 days of the CMMC Status Date associated with the Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC). If the POA&amp;M is not successfully closed out within the 180-day timeframe, the Conditional Level 3 (DIBAC) CMMC Status for the information system will expire. If Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC) CMMC Status expires within the period of performance of a contract, standard contractual remedies will apply, and the OSC will be ineligible for additional awards with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final Level 3 (DIBCAC).</I> The OSC has achieved the CMMC Status of Final Level 3 (DIBCAC) if the Level 3 certification assessment results in a passing score as defined in § 170.24. This score may be achieved upon initial certification assessment or as the result of a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CMMC Status investigation.</I> The DoD reserves the right to conduct a DCMA DIBCAC assessment of the OSC, as provided for under the 48 CFR 252.204-7020. If the investigative results of a subsequent DCMA DIBCAC assessment show that adherence to the provisions of this part have not been achieved or maintained, these DCMA DIBCAC results will take precedence over any pre-existing CMMC Status. At that time, standard contractual remedies will be available and the OSC will be ineligible for additional awards with CMMC Status requirement of Level 3 (DIBCAC) for the information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope until such time as a new CMMC Status is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affirmation.</I> Affirmation of the Level 3 (DIBCAC) CMMC Status is required for all Level 3 certification assessments at the time of each assessment, and annually thereafter. Affirmation procedures are provided in § 170.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract eligibility.</I> Prior to award of any contract or subcontract with requirement for CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC), the following two requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The OSC must achieve, as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a CMMC Status of either Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC) or Final Level 3 (DIBCAC).
</P>
<P>(2) The OSC must submit an affirmation of compliance into SPRS, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Level 3 certification assessment of the OSC.</I> The CMMC Level 3 certification assessment process includes:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final Level 2 (C3PAO).</I> The OSC must achieve a CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) for information systems within the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope prior to the CMMC Level 3 certification assessment. The CMMC Assessment Scope for the Level 3 certification assessment must be equal to, or a subset of, the CMMC Assessment Scope associated with the OSC's Final Level 2 (C3PAO). Asset requirements differ for each CMMC Level. Scoping differences are set forth in § 170.19.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Initiating the Final Level 3 (DIBCAC).</I> The OSC (including ESPs that voluntarily elect to undergo a Level 3 certification assessment) initiates a Level 3 certification assessment by emailing a request to DCMA DIBCAC point of contact found at <I>www.dcma.mil/DIBCAC</I>. The request must include the Level 2 certification assessment unique identifier. DCMA DIBCAC will validate the OSC has achieved a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) and will contact the OSC to schedule their Level 3 certification assessment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Conducting the Final Level 3 (DIBCAC).</I> DCMA DIBCAC will perform a Level 3 certification assessment in accordance with NIST SP 800-171A Jun2018 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and NIST SP 800-172A Mar2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 170.2) and the CMMC Level 3 scoping requirements set forth in § 170.19(d) for the information systems within the CMMC Assessment Scope. The Level 3 certification assessment will be scored in accordance with the CMMC Scoring Methodology set forth in § 170.24 and DCMA DIBCAC will upload the results into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. Final results are communicated to the OSC through a CMMC Assessment Findings Report. For assets that changed asset category (<I>i.e.,</I> CRMA to CUI Asset) or assessment requirements (<I>i.e.,</I> Specialized Assets) between the Level 2 and Level 3 certification assessments, DCMA DIBCAC will perform limited checks of Level 2 security requirements. If the OSC had these upgraded asset categories included in their Level 2 certification assessment, then DCMA DIBCAC may still perform limited checks for compliance. If DCMA DIBCAC identifies that a Level 2 security requirement is NOT MET, the Level 3 assessment process may be paused to allow for remediation, placed on hold, or immediately terminated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security requirement re-evaluation.</I> A security requirement that is NOT MET (as defined in § 170.24) may be re-evaluated during the course of the Level 3 certification assessment and for 10 business days following the active assessment period if all of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional evidence is available to demonstrate the security requirement has been MET;
</P>
<P>(ii) The additional evidence does not materially impact previously assessed security requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The CMMC Assessment Findings Report has not been delivered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>POA&amp;M.</I> If a POA&amp;M exists, a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment will be performed by DCMA DIBCAC within 180-days of the Conditional CMMC Status Date. Additional guidance is located in § 170.21 and in the guidance document listed in paragraph (d) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Artifact retention and integrity.</I> The hashed artifacts used as evidence for the assessment must be retained by the OSC for six (6) years from the CMMC Status Date. The hashed artifacts used as evidence for the assessment must be retained by the OSC for six (6) years from the CMMC Status Date. To ensure that the artifacts have not been altered, the OSC must hash the artifact files using a NIST-approved hashing algorithm. Assessors will collect the list of the artifact names, the return value of the hashing algorithm, and the hashing algorithm used and upload that data into the CMMC instantiation of eMASS. Additional guidance for hashing artifacts can be found in the guidance document listed in paragraph (h) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Level 3 certification assessment with the use of Cloud Service Provider (CSP).</I> An OSC may use a cloud environment to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The OSC may utilize a CSP product or service offering that meets the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline. If the CSP's product or service offering is not FedRAMP Authorized at the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline, the product or service offering must meet security requirements equivalent to those established by the FedRAMP Moderate (or higher) baseline in accordance with DoD Policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of a CSP does not relieve an OSC of its obligation to implement the 24 Level 3 security requirements. These 24 requirements apply to every environment where the CUI data is processed, stored, or transmitted, when Level 3 (DIBCAC) is the designated CMMC Status. If any of these 24 requirements are inherited from a CSP, the OSC must demonstrate that protection during a Level 3 certification assessment via a Customer Implementation Summary/Customer Responsibility Matrix (CIS/CRM) and associated Body of Evidence (BOE). The BOE must clearly indicate whether the OSC or the CSP is responsible for meeting each requirement and which requirements are implemented by the OSC versus inherited from the CSP.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(d)(2), the OSC's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the CSP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope. As such, the security requirements from the CRM must be documented or referred to in the OSC's SSP.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Level 3 certification assessment with the use of an ESP, not a CSP.</I> An OSC may use an ESP that is not a CSP to process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of a contract or subcontract with a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of the ESP, its relationship to the OSC, and the services provided are documented in the OSC's SSP and described in the ESP's service description and customer responsibility matrix.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ESP services used to meet OSC requirements are assessed within the scope of the OSC's assessment against all Level 2 and Level 3 security requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with § 170.19(d)(2), the OSC's on-premises infrastructure connecting to the ESP's product or service offering is part of the CMMC Assessment Scope, which will also be assessed. As such, the security requirements from the CRM must be documented or referred to in the OSC's SSP.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.19" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.19   CMMC scoping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scoping requirement.</I> (1) The CMMC Assessment Scope must be specified prior to assessment in accordance with the requirements of this section. The CMMC Assessment Scope is the set of all assets in the OSA's environment that will be assessed against CMMC security requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements for defining the CMMC Assessment Scope for CMMC Levels 1, 2, and 3 are set forth in this section. Additional guidance regarding scoping can be found in the guidance documents listed in paragraphs (e) through (g) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CMMC Level 1 scoping.</I> Prior to performing a Level 1 self-assessment, the OSA must specify the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assets in scope for Level 1 self-assessment.</I> OSA information systems which process, store, or transmit FCI are in scope for CMMC Level 1 and must be self-assessed against applicable CMMC security requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets not in scope for Level 1 self-assessment</I>—(i) <I>Out-of-Scope Assets.</I> OSA information systems which do not process, store, or transmit FCI are outside the scope for CMMC Level 1. An endpoint hosting a VDI client configured to not allow any processing, storage, or transmission of FCI beyond the Keyboard/Video/Mouse sent to the VDI client is considered out-of-scope. There are no documentation requirements for out-of-scope assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specialized Assets.</I> Specialized Assets are those assets that can process, store, or transmit FCI but are unable to be fully secured, including: Internet of Things (IoT) devices, Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT) devices, Operational Technology (OT), Government Furnished Equipment (GFE), Restricted Information Systems, and Test Equipment. Specialized Assets are not part of the Level 1 CMMC Assessment Scope and are not assessed against CMMC security requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 1 self-assessment scoping considerations.</I> To scope a Level 1 self-assessment, OSAs should consider the people, technology, facilities, and External Service Providers (ESP) within its environment that process, store, or transmit FCI.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CMMC Level 2 Scoping.</I> Prior to performing a Level 2 self-assessment or Level 2 certification assessment, the OSA must specify the CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(1) The CMMC Assessment Scope for CMMC Level 2 is based on the specification of asset categories and their respective requirements as defined in table 3 to this paragraph (c)(1). Additional information is available in the guidance document listed in paragraph (f) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 170.19<E T="01">(c)(1)</E>—CMMC Level 2 Asset Categories and Associated Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OSA requirements
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMMC assessment requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Assets that are in the Level 2 CMMC Assessment Scope</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that process, store, or transmit CUI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the System Security Plan (SSP).
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assess against all Level 2 security requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Security Protection Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that provide security functions or capabilities to the OSA's CMMC Assessment Scope</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in SSP.
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assess against Level 2 security requirements that are relevant to the capabilities provided.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contractor Risk Managed Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that can, but are not intended to, process, store, or transmit CUI because of security policy, procedures, and practices in place
<br/>• Assets are not required to be physically or logically separated from CUI assets.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the SSP.
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Review the SSP:
<br/>• If sufficiently documented, do not assess against other CMMC security requirements, except as noted.
<br/>• If OSA's risk-based security policies, procedures, and practices documentation or other findings raise questions about these assets, the assessor can conduct a limited check to identify deficiencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• The limited check(s) shall not materially increase the assessment duration nor the assessment cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• The limited check(s) will be assessed against CMMC security requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Specialized Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that can process, store, or transmit CUI but are unable to be fully secured, including: Internet of Things (IoT) devices, Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT) devices, Operational Technology (OT), Government Furnished Equipment (GFE), Restricted Information Systems, and Test Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the SSP.
<br/>• Show these assets are managed using the contractor's risk-based security policies, procedures, and practices.
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Review the SSP.
<br/>• Do not assess against other CMMC security requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Assets that are not in the Level 2 CMMC Assessment Scope</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Out-of-Scope Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that cannot process, store, or transmit CUI; and do not provide security protections for CUI Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Prepare to justify the inability of an Out-of-Scope Asset to process, store, or transmit CUI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that are physically or logically separated from CUI assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that fall into any in-scope asset category cannot be considered an Out-of-Scope Asset
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• An endpoint hosting a VDI client configured to not allow any processing, storage, or transmission of CUI beyond the Keyboard/Video/Mouse sent to the VDI client is considered an Out-of-Scope Asset</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2)(i) Table 4 to this paragraph (c)(2)(i) defines the requirements to be met when utilizing an External Service Provider (ESP). The OSA must consider whether the ESP is a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) and whether the ESP processes, stores, or transmits CUI and/or Security Protection Data (SPD).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 170.19<E T="01">(c)(2)(i)</E>—ESP Scoping Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">When the ESP processes, stores, or transmits:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">When utilizing an ESP that is:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A CSP
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Not a CSP
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CUI (with or without SPD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The CSP shall meet the FedRAMP requirements in 48 CFR 252.204-7012</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the ESP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as part of the OSA's assessment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SPD (without CUI)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the CSP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as Security Protection Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the ESP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as Security Protection Assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neither CUI nor SPD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A service provider that does not process CUI or SPD does not meet the CMMC definition of an ESP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A service provider that does not process CUI or SPD does not meet the CMMC definition of an ESP.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The use of an ESP, its relationship to the OSA, and the services provided need to be documented in the OSA's SSP and described in the ESP's service description and customer responsibility matrix (CRM), which describes the responsibilities of the OSA and ESP with respect to the services provided. Note that the ESP may voluntarily undergo a CMMC certification assessment to reduce the ESP's effort required during the OSA's assessment. The minimum assessment type for the ESP is dictated by the OSA's DoD contract requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CMMC Level 3 scoping.</I> Prior to performing a Level 3 certification assessment, the CMMC Assessment Scope must be specified.
</P>
<P>(1) The CMMC Assessment Scope for Level 3 is based on the specification of asset categories and their respective requirements as set forth in table 5 to this paragraph (d)(1). Additional information is available in the guidance document listed in paragraph (g) of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 170.19<E T="01">(d)(1)</E>—CMMC Level 3 Asset Categories and Associated Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OSC requirements
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMMC assessment requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Assets that are in the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that process, store, or transmit CUI
<br/>• Assets that can, but are not intended to, process, store, or transmit CUI (defined as Contractor Risk Managed Assets in table 1 to paragraph (c)(1) of this section CMMC Scoping).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the System Security Plan (SSP).
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 and Level 3 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Limited check against Level 2 and assess against all Level 3 CMMC security requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Security Protection Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that provide security functions or capabilities to the OSC's CMMC Assessment Scope, irrespective of whether or not these assets process, store, or transmit CUI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the SSP.
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 and Level 3 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Limited check against Level 2 and assess against all Level 3 CMMC security requirements that are relevant to the capabilities provided.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Specialized Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that can process, store, or transmit CUI but are unable to be fully secured, including: Internet of Things (IoT) devices, Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT) devices, Operational Technology (OT), Government Furnished Equipment (GFE), Restricted Information Systems, and Test Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Document in the asset inventory
<br/>• Document asset treatment in the SSP.
<br/>• Document in the network diagram of the CMMC Assessment Scope.
<br/>• Prepare to be assessed against CMMC Level 2 and Level 3 security requirements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Limited check against Level 2 and assess against all Level 3 CMMC security requirements.
<br/>• Intermediary devices are permitted to provide the capability for the specialized asset to meet one or more CMMC security requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Assets that are not in the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Out-of-Scope Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that cannot process, store, or transmit CUI; and do not provide security protections for CUI Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Prepare to justify the inability of an Out-of-Scope Asset to process, store, or transmit CUI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that are physically or logically separated from CUI assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Assets that fall into any in-scope asset category cannot be considered an Out-of-Scope Asset
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• An endpoint hosting a VDI client configured to not allow any processing, storage, or transmission of CUI beyond the Keyboard/Video/Mouse sent to the VDI client is considered an Out-of-Scope Asset</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2)(i) Table 6 to this paragraph (d)(2)(i) defines the requirements to be met when utilizing an External Service Provider (ESP). The OSA must consider whether the ESP is a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) and whether the ESP processes, stores, or transmits CUI and/or Security Protection Data (SPD).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 170.19<E T="01">(d)(2)(i)</E>—ESP Scoping Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">When the ESP processes, stores, or transmits:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">When utilizing an ESP that is:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A CSP
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Not a CSP
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CUI (with or without SPD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The CSP shall meet the FedRAMP requirements in 48 CFR 252.204-7012</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the ESP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as part of the OSA's assessment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SPD (without CUI)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the CSP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as Security Protection Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The services provided by the ESP are in the OSA's assessment scope and shall be assessed as Security Protection Assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neither CUI nor SPD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A service provider that does not process CUI or SPD does not meet the CMMC definition of an ESP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A service provider that does not process CUI or SPD does not meet the CMMC definition of an ESP.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The use of an ESP, its relationship to the OSC, and the services provided need to be documented in the OSC's SSP and described in the ESP's service description and customer responsibility matrix (CRM), which describes the responsibilities of the OSC and ESP with respect to the services provided. Note that the ESP may voluntarily undergo a CMMC certification assessment to reduce the ESP's effort required during the OSA's assessment. The minimum. The minimum assessment type for the ESP is dictated by the OSC's DoD contract requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship between Level 2 and Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope.</I> The Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope must be equal to or a subset of the Level 2 CMMC Assessment Scope in accordance with § 170.18(a) (<I>e.g.,</I> a Level 3 data enclave with greater restrictions and protections within a Level 2 data enclave). Any Level 2 POA&amp;M items must be closed prior to the initiation of the Level 3 certification assessment. DCMA DIBCAC may check any Level 2 security requirement of any in-scope asset. If DCMA DIBCAC identifies that a Level 2 security requirement is NOT MET, the Level 3 assessment process may be paused to allow for remediation, placed on hold, or immediately terminated. For further information regarding scoping of CMMC Level 3 assessments please contact DCMA DIBCAC at <I>www.dcma.mil/DIBCAC/</I>.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.20   Standards acceptance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NIST SP 800-171 R2 DoD assessments.</I> In order to avoid duplication of efforts, thereby reducing the aggregate cost to industry and the Department, OSCs that have completed a DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment aligned with CMMC Level 2 Scoping will be given the CMMC Status of Final Level 2 (C3PAO) under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment.</I> An OSC that achieved a perfect score with no open POA&amp;M from a DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment conducted prior to the effective date of this rule, will be given a CMMC Status of Level 2 Final (C3PAO) with a validity period of three (3) years from the date of the original DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment. DCMA DIBCAC will identify assessments that meet these criteria and verify that SPRS accurately reflects the CMMC Status. Eligible DCMA DIBCAC High Assessments include ones conducted with Joint Surveillance in accordance with the DCMA Manual 2302-01 Surveillance. The scope of the Level 2 certification assessment is identical to the scope of the DCMA DIBCAC High Assessment. In accordance with § 170.17(a)(2), the OSC must also submit an affirmation in SPRS and annually thereafter to achieve contractual eligibility.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved].
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved].




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.21" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.21   Plan of Action and Milestones requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>POA&amp;M.</I> For purposes of achieving a Conditional CMMC Status, an OSA is only permitted to have a POA&amp;M for select requirements scored as NOT MET during the CMMC assessment and only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 1 self-assessment.</I> A POA&amp;M is not permitted at any time for Level 1 self-assessments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2 self-assessment and Level 2 certification assessment.</I> An OSA is only permitted to achieve the CMMC Status of Conditional Level 2 (Self) or Conditional Level 2 (C3PAO), as appropriate, if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The assessment score divided by the total number of CMMC Level 2 security requirements is greater than or equal to 0.8;
</P>
<P>(ii) None of the security requirements included in the POA&amp;M have a point value of greater than 1 as specified in the CMMC Scoring Methodology set forth in § 170.24, except SC.L2-3.13.11 CUI Encryption may be included on a POA&amp;M if encryption is employed but it is not FIPS-validated, which would result in a point value of 3; and
</P>
<P>(iii) None of the following security requirements are included in the POA&amp;M:
</P>
<P>(A) AC.L2-3.1.20 External Connections (CUI Data).
</P>
<P>(B) AC.L2-3.1.22 Control Public Information (CUI Data).
</P>
<P>(C) CA.L2-3.12.4 System Security Plan.
</P>
<P>(D) PE.L2-3.10.3 Escort Visitors (CUI Data).
</P>
<P>(E) PE.L2-3.10.4 Physical Access Logs (CUI Data).
</P>
<P>(F) PE.L2-3.10.5 Manage Physical Access (CUI Data).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 3 certification assessment.</I> An OSC is only permitted to achieve the CMMC Status of Conditional Level 3 (DIBCAC) if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The assessment score divided by the total number of CMMC Level 3 security requirements is greater than or equal to 0.8; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The POA&amp;M does not include any of following security requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) IR.L3-3.6.1e Security Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(B) IR.L3-3.6.2e Cyber Incident Response Team.
</P>
<P>(C) RA.L3-3.11.1e Threat-Informed Risk Assessment.
</P>
<P>(D) RA.L3-3.11.6e Supply Chain Risk Response.
</P>
<P>(E) RA.L3-3.11.7e Supply Chain Risk Plan.
</P>
<P>(F) RA.L3-3.11.4e Security Solution Rationale.
</P>
<P>(G) SI.L3-3.14.3e Specialized Asset Security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>POA&amp;M closeout assessment.</I> A POA&amp;M closeout assessment is a CMMC assessment that assesses only the NOT MET requirements that were identified with POA&amp;M in the initial assessment. The closing of a POA&amp;M must be confirmed by a POA&amp;M closeout assessment within 180-days of the Conditional CMMC Status Date. If the POA&amp;M is not successfully closed out within the 180-day timeframe, the Conditional CMMC Status for the information system will expire.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 2 self-assessment.</I> For a Level 2 self-assessment, the POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment shall be performed by the OSA in the same manner as the initial self-assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2 certification assessment.</I> For Level 2 certification assessment, the POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment must be performed by an authorized or accredited C3PAO.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 3 certification assessment.</I> For Level 3 certification assessment, DCMA DIBCAC will perform the POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.22" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.22   Affirmation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The OSA must affirm continuing compliance with the appropriate level self-assessment or certification assessment. An Affirming Official from each OSA, whether a prime or subcontractor, must affirm the continuing compliance of their respective organizations with the specified security requirement after every assessment, including POA&amp;M closeout, and annually thereafter. Affirmations are entered electronically in SPRS. The affirmation shall be submitted in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Affirming Official.</I> The Affirming Official is the senior level representative from within each Organization Seeking Assessment (OSA) who is responsible for ensuring the OSA's compliance with the CMMC Program requirements and has the authority to affirm the OSA's continuing compliance with the specified security requirements for their respective organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affirmation content.</I> Each CMMC affirmation shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, title, and contact information for the Affirming Official; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirmation statement attesting that the OSA has implemented and will maintain implementation of all applicable CMMC security requirements to their CMMC Status for all information systems within the relevant CMMC Assessment Scope.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affirmation submission.</I> The Affirming Official shall submit a CMMC affirmation in the following instances:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon achievement of a Conditional CMMC Status, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon achievement of a Final CMMC Status;
</P>
<P>(iii) Annually following a Final CMMC Status Date; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Following a POA&amp;M closeout assessment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission procedures.</I> All affirmations shall be completed in SPRS. The Department will verify submission of the affirmation in SPRS to ensure compliance with CMMC solicitation or contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Level 1 self-assessment.</I> At the completion of a Level 1 self-assessment and annually thereafter, the Affirming Official shall submit a CMMC affirmation attesting to continuing compliance with all requirements of the CMMC Status Level 1 (Self).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2 self-assessment.</I> At the completion of a Level 2 self-assessment and annually following a Final CMMC Status Date, the Affirming Official shall submit a CMMC affirmation attesting to continuing compliance with all requirements of the CMMC Status Level 2 (Self). An affirmation shall also be submitted at the completion of a POA&amp;M closeout self-assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 2 certification assessment.</I> At the completion of a Level 2 certification assessment and annually following a Final CMMC Status Date, the Affirming Official shall submit a CMMC affirmation attesting to continuing compliance with all requirements of the CMMC Status Level 2 (C3PAO). An affirmation shall also be submitted at the completion of a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Level 3 certification assessment.</I> At the completion of a Level 3 certification assessment and annually following a Final CMMC Status Date, the Affirming Official shall submit a CMMC affirmation attesting to continuing compliance with all requirements of the CMMC Status Level 3 (DIBCAC). Because C3PAOs and DCMA DIBCAC check for compliance with different requirements in their respective assessments, OSCs must annually affirm their CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) in addition to their CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC) to maintain eligibility for contracts requiring compliance with Level 3. An affirmation shall also be submitted at the completion of a POA&amp;M closeout certification assessment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.23" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.23   Application to subcontractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) CMMC requirements apply to prime contractors and subcontractors throughout the supply chain at all tiers that will process, store, or transmit any FCI or CUI on contractor information systems in the performance of the DoD contract or subcontract. Prime contractors shall comply and shall require subcontractors to comply with and to flow down CMMC requirements, such that compliance will be required throughout the supply chain at all tiers with the applicable CMMC level and assessment type for each subcontract as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a subcontractor will only process, store, or transmit FCI (and not CUI) in performance of the subcontract, then a CMMC Status of Level 1 (Self) is required for the subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(2) If a subcontractor will process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of the subcontract, then a CMMC Status of Level 2 (Self) is the minimum requirement for the subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(3) If a subcontractor will process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of the subcontract and the associated prime contract has a requirement for a CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO), then the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) is the minimum requirement for the subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(4) If a subcontractor will process, store, or transmit CUI in performance of the subcontract and the associated prime contract has a requirement for the CMMC Status of Level 3 (DIBCAC), then the CMMC Status of Level 2 (C3PAO) is the minimum requirement for the subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(b) As with any solicitation or contract, the DoD may provide specific guidance pertaining to flow-down.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.24" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.24   CMMC Scoring Methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This scoring methodology is designed to provide a measurement of an OSA's implementation status of the NIST SP 800-171 R2 security requirements (incorporated by reference elsewhere in this part, see § 170.2) and the selected NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 security requirements (incorporated by reference elsewhere in this part, see § 170.2). The CMMC Scoring Methodology is designed to credit partial implementation only in limited cases (<I>e.g.,</I> multi-factor authentication IA.L2-3.5.3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment findings.</I> Each security requirement assessed under the CMMC Scoring Methodology must result in one of three possible assessment findings, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Met.</I> All applicable objectives for the security requirement are satisfied based on evidence. All evidence must be in final form and not draft. Unacceptable forms of evidence include but are not limited to working papers, drafts, and unofficial or unapproved policies.
</P>
<P>(i) Enduring exceptions when described, along with any mitigations, in the system security plan shall be assessed as MET.
</P>
<P>(ii) Temporary deficiencies that are appropriately addressed in operational plans of action (<I>i.e.,</I> include deficiency reviews and show progress towards the implementation of corrections to reduce or eliminate identified vulnerabilities) shall be assessed as MET.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Not Met.</I> One or more applicable objectives for the security requirement is not satisfied. During an assessment, for each security requirement objective marked NOT MET, the assessor will document why the evidence does not conform.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Not Applicable (N/A).</I> A security requirement and/or objective does not apply at the time of the CMMC assessment. For example, Public-Access System Separation (SC.L2-3.13.5) might be N/A if there are no publicly accessible systems within the CMMC Assessment Scope. During an assessment, an assessment objective assessed as N/A is equivalent to the same assessment objective being assessed as MET.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scoring.</I> At each CMMC Level, security requirements are scored as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CMMC Level 1.</I> All CMMC Level 1 security requirements must be fully implemented to be considered MET. No POA&amp;M is permitted for CMMC Level 1, and self-assessment results are scored as MET or NOT MET in their entirety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CMMC Level 2 Scoring Methodology.</I> The maximum score achievable for a Level 2 self-assessment or Level 2 certification assessment is equal to the total number of CMMC Level 2 security requirements. If all CMMC Level 2 security requirements are MET, OSAs are awarded the maximum score. For each requirement NOT MET, the associated value of the security requirement is subtracted from the maximum score, which may result in a negative score.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures.</I> (A) Scoring methodology for Level 2 self-assessment and Level 2 certification assessment is based on all CMMC Level 2 security requirement objectives, including those NOT MET.
</P>
<P>(B) In the CMMC Level 2 Scoring Methodology, each security requirement has a value (<I>e.g.,</I> 1, 3 or 5), which is related to the designation by NIST as basic or derived security requirements. Per NIST SP 800-171 R2, the basic security requirements are obtained from FIPS PUB 200 Mar2006, which provides the high-level and fundamental security requirements for Federal information and systems. The derived security requirements, which supplement the basic security requirements, are taken from the security controls in NIST SP 800-53 R5.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For NIST SP 800-171 R2 basic and derived security requirements that, if not implemented, could lead to significant exploitation of the network, or exfiltration of CUI, five (5) points are subtracted from the maximum score. The basic and derived security requirements with a value of five (5) points include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Basic security requirements.</I> AC.L2-3.1.1, AC.L2-3.1.2, AT.L2-3.2.1, AT.L2-3.2.2, AU.L2-3.3.1, CM.L2-3.4.1, CM.L2-3.4.2, IA-L2-3.5.1, IA-L2-3.5.2, IR.L2-3.6.1, IR.L2-3.6.2, MA.L2-3.7.2, MP.L2-3.8.3, PS.L2-3.9.2, PE.L2-3.10.1, PE.L2-3.10.2, CA.L2-3.12.1, CA.L2-3.12.3, SC.L2-3.13.1, SC.L2-3.13.2, SI.L2-3.14.1, SI.L2-3.14.2, and SI.L2-3.14.3.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Derived security requirements.</I> AC.L2-3.1.12, AC.L2-3.1.13, AC.L2-3.1.16, AC.L2-3.1.17, AC.L2-3.1.18, AU.L2-3.3.5, CM.L2-3.4.5, CM.L2-3.4.6, CM.L2-3.4.7, CM.L2-3.4.8, IA.L2-3.5.10, MA.L2-3.7.5, MP.L2-3.8.7, RA.L2-3.11.2, SC.L2-3.13.5, SC.L2-3.13.6, SC.L2-3.13.15, SI.L2-3.14.4, and SI.L2-3.14.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For basic and derived security requirements that, if not implemented, have a specific and confined effect on the security of the network and its data, three (3) points are subtracted from the maximum score. The basic and derived security requirements with a value of three (3) points include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Basic security requirements.</I> AU.L2-3.3.2, MA.L2-3.7.1, MP.L2-3.8.1, MP.L2-3.8.2, PS.L2-3.9.1, RA.L2-3.11.1, and CA.L2-3.12.2.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Derived security requirements.</I> AC.L2-3.1.5, AC.L2- 3.1.19, MA.L2-3.7.4, MP.L2-3.8.8, SC.L2-3.13.8, SI.L2-3.14.5, and SI.L2-3.14.7.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) All remaining derived security requirements, other than the exceptions noted, if not implemented, have a limited or indirect effect on the security of the network and its data. For these, 1 point is subtracted from the maximum score.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Two derived security requirements, IA.L2-3.5.3 and SC.L2-3.13.11, can be partially effective even if not completely or properly implemented, and the points deducted may be adjusted depending on how the security requirement is implemented.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Multi-factor authentication (MFA) (CMMC Level 2 security requirement IA.L2-3.5.3) is typically implemented first for remote and privileged users (since these users are both limited in number and more critical) and then for the general user, so three (3) points are subtracted from the maximum score if MFA is implemented only for remote and privileged users. Five (5) points are subtracted from the maximum score if MFA is not implemented for any users.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) FIPS-validated encryption (CMMC Level 2 security requirement SC.L2-3.13.11) is required to protect the confidentiality of CUI. If encryption is employed, but is not FIPS-validated, three (3) points are subtracted from the maximum score; if encryption is not employed; five (5) points are subtracted from the maximum score.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) OSAs must have a System Security Plan (SSP) (CMMC security requirement CA.L2-3.12.4) in place at the time of assessment to describe each information system within the CMMC Assessment Scope. The absence of an up to date SSP at the time of the assessment would result in a finding that '<I>an assessment could not be completed due to incomplete information and noncompliance with 48 CFR 252.204-7012.</I>'
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For each NOT MET security requirement the OSA must have a POA&amp;M in place. A POA&amp;M addressing NOT MET security requirements is not a substitute for a completed requirement. Security requirements not implemented, whether described in a POA&amp;M or not, is assessed as 'NOT MET.'
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Specialized Assets must be evaluated for their asset category per the CMMC scoping guidance for the level in question and handled accordingly as set forth in § 170.19.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If an OSC previously received a favorable adjudication from the DoD CIO indicating that a security requirement is not applicable or that an alternative security measure is equally effective (in accordance with 48 CFR 252.204-7008 or 48 CFR 252.204-7012), the DoD CIO adjudication must be included in the system security plan to receive consideration during an assessment. A security requirement for which implemented security measures have been adjudicated by the DoD CIO as equally effective is assessed as MET if there have been no changes in the environment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CMMC Level 2 Scoring Table.</I> CMMC Level 2 scoring has been assigned based on the methodology set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 170.24<E T="01">(c)(2)(ii)</E>—CMMC Level 2 Scoring Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMMC Level 2 requirement categories
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Point value
<br/>subtracted from
<br/>maximum score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Basic Security Requirements:</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not implemented, could lead to significant exploitation of the network, or exfiltration of CUI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not implemented, has specific and confined effect on the security of the network and its data</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Derived Security Requirements:</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not implemented, could lead to significant exploitation of the network, or exfiltration of CUI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not completely or properly implemented, could be partially effective and points adjusted depending on how the security requirement is implemented:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Partially effective implementation—3 points.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Non-effective (not implemented at all)—5 points.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not implemented, has specific and confined effect on the security of the network and its data</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">If not implemented, has a limited or indirect effect on the security of the network and its data</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>CMMC Level 3 assessment scoring methodology.</I> CMMC Level 3 scoring does not utilize varying values like the scoring for CMMC Level 2. All CMMC Level 3 security requirements use a value of one (1) point for each security requirement. As a result, the maximum score achievable for a Level 3 certification assessment is equivalent to the total number of the selected subset of NIST SP 800-172 Feb2021 security requirements for CMMC Level 3, see § 170.14(c)(4). The maximum score is reduced by one (1) point for each security requirement NOT MET. The CMMC Level 3 scoring methodology reflects the fact that all CMMC Level 2 security requirements must already be MET (for the Level 3 CMMC Assessment Scope). A maximum score on the Level 2 certification assessment is required to be eligible to initiate a Level 3 certification assessment. The Level 3 certification assessment score is equal to the number of CMMC Level 3 security requirements that are assessed as MET.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.57.4.43.12.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 170—Guidance
</HEAD>
<P>Guidance documents include:
</P>
<P>(a) “CMMC Model Overview” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) “CMMC Assessment Guide—Level 1” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) “CMMC Assessment Guide—Level 2” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(d) “CMMC Assessment Guide—Level 3” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(e) “CMMC Scoping Guide—Level 1” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(f) “CMMC Scoping Guide—Level 2” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(g) “CMMC Scoping Guide—Level 3” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/</I>.
</P>
<P>(h) “CMMC Hashing Guide” available at <I>https://DoDcio.defense.gov/CMMC/.</I>




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="173" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 173—COMPETITIVE INFORMATION CERTIFICATE AND PROFIT REDUCTION CLAUSE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2202.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 42948, Oct. 25, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 173.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.58.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of the Competitive Information Certificate is to provide the Contracting Officer sufficient information and assurance to support award of a contract in those circumstances where certification is required.
</P>
<P>(b) Although a Competitive Information Certificate provides reasonable assurance to the Government, the possibility remains that even a diligent internal review by the contractor may fail to identify illegal or improper actions. The purpose of the Profit Reduction Clause is to ensure effective protection of the Government's interest in making contract awards when a Competitive Information Certification is required. The Profit Reduction Clause is required in all competitively awarded new contracts over $100,000 when a Competitive Information Certificate is required prior to award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.58.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.2   Competitive Information Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Competitive Information Certificate is required prior to award of all competitively awarded new contracts of a value exceeding $100,000 to contractors subject to the requirement.
</P>
<P>(1) Corporate activities required to provide the Certificate are corporations or corporate divisions which have been the subject of search warrants, or as to which other official information indicates such certification should be required, and their subsidiaries and affiliates. A list of contractors from whom certification is required is maintained and published as required under authority of the Department of Defense Procurement Task Force.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirement to provide the Certificate may be further limited to certain divisions or subsidiaries, contracts or programs upon the basis of official information, furnished by the contractor or otherwise, sufficient to establish to the satisfaction of the Department of Defense that the investigation is so limited. Such information may include copies of search warrants, subpoenas and affidavits from corporate officials concerning the scope and conduct of the investigation. The sufficiency of such information is solely within the discretion of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors from whom certification in certain instances is required will be relieved of the certification requirement when the Department of Defense determines that information developed in the “Ill Wind” investigation has been resolved in such a manner that certification is no longer required to protect the interests of the Government.
</P>
<P>(4) A Certificate will not be required prior to the exercise of options or noncompetitive award of contracts. This does not limit in any manner the Government's ability to inquire into, or require information concerning, the circumstances surrounding an underlying competitive award.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to information disclosed under paragraph (1) of the Certificate, the offeror must attach to the Certificate a written statement detailing what information was obtained, and how, when, and from whom it was obtained. This information shall be evaluated at the levels prescribed by the contracting component to determine whether award of the contract should be made to the offeror. If during this review it is determined that the offeror may have obtained an unfair competitive advantage from the information and that there is no other reason for denying award to the offeror, the reviewing authority shall consider whether action may be taken to neutralize the potential unfair competitive advantage. Any decision to deny award to an offeror based upon information disclosed in the Certificate shall be reviewed and approved by the Service Acquisition Executive.
</P>
<P>(c) This certificate and any accompanying statements required, must be executed by the offeror's corporate president or his designee at no more than one level below the president's level. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a contractor from whom certification is required is uncertain as to whether competitive information otherwise required to be disclosed was generally available to offerors, the uncertainty should be resolved by disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(e) Contracting Officers may continue to accept Certificates of Business Ethics and Integrity complying with the Interim rule in lieu of Competitive Information Certificates. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Competitive Information Certificate shall be in the following form:
</P>
<HD3>Competitive Information Certificate 
</HD3>
<P>(1) (Name of the offeror) certifies, to the best of its knowledge and belief, that 
</P>
<P>(i) With the exception of any information described in an attachment to this certificate, and any information the offeror reasonably believes was made generally available to prospective offerors, the offeror has not knowingly obtained, directly or indirectly from the Government, any written information or oral extract or account thereof relating to this solicitation which was 
</P>
<P>(A) Submitted to the Government by offerors or potential offerors in response to the Government's solicitation for bid or proposal; 
</P>
<P>(B) Marked by an offeror or potential offeror to indicate the information was submitted to the Government subject to an assertion of privilege against disclosure; 
</P>
<P>(C) Marked or otherwise identified by the Government pursuant to law or regulation as classified, source selection sensitive, or for official use only; or 
</P>
<P>(D) The disclosure of which to the offeror or potential offeror by a Government employee would, under the circumstances, otherwise violate law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The offeror named above 
</P>
<P>(A) Determined the prices in its offer independently, without, for the purpose of restricting competition, any consultation, communications, or agreement, directly or indirectly, with any other offeror or competitor relating to (<I>1</I>) those prices, (<I>2</I>) the intention to submit an offer, or (<I>3</I>), the methods or factors used to calculate the prices offered; 
</P>
<P>(B) Has not knowingly disclosed the prices in its offer, directly or indirectly, to any other offeror or competitor before bid opening (in the case of a sealed bid solicitation) or contract award (in the case of a negotiated solicitation) unless otherwise required by law; 
</P>
<P>(C) Has not attempted to induce any other concern to submit or not to submit an offer for the purpose of restricting competition. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The offeror has attached an accurate description of the internal review forming the basis for the certifications provided herein.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Corporate President or Designee.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.58.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.3   Profit reduction clause.</HEAD>
<P>The following profit reduction clause is required in all competitively awarded new contracts over $100,000 when a Competitive Information Certificate is required prior to award. 
</P>
<P>Profit Reduction for Illegal or Improper Activity 
</P>
<P>(a) The government, at its election, may reduce the contract price by the amount of any anticipated profit determined as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; if 
</P>
<P>(1) A person or business entity is convicted for violating 18 U.S.C. 201-224 (bribery, graft, and conflicts of interest), 18 U.S.C. 371 (conspiracy), 18 U.S.C. 641 (theft of public money, property, or records), 18 U.S.C. 1001 (false statements), 18 U.S.C. 1341 (fraud), 18 U.S.C. 1343 (fraud by wire) for any act in connection with or related to the obtaining of this contract; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Defense, or his designee, determines that the Competitive Information Certificate submitted by the offeror in connection with award of this contract 
</P>
<P>(i) Was materially false at the time it was filed, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the offeror's best knowledge and belief, was materially incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<FP>Prior to making such a determination, the Secretary or his designee, shall provide to the contractor a written statement of the action being considered and the basis therefor. The contractor shall have not less than 30 calendar days after receipt to submit in person, in writing, or through a representative, information and argument in opposition to the proposed reduction. The Secretary or his designee may, upon good cause shown, determine to reduce the contract price by less than the amount of any profit determined under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(b) The amount of anticipated profits referred to in § 173.3(a) shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a cost-plus-fixed-fee contract, the amount of the fee specified in the contract at the time of award; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of fixed-price-incentive-profit or cost-plus-incentive-fee contract, the amount of the target profit or fee specified in the contract at the time of award; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a firm-fixed-price contract, the amount of anticipated profit determined by the contracting officer, after notice to the contractor and opportunity to comment, from records or documents in existence prior to the date of the award of the contract. 
</P>
<P>(c) The rights and remedies of the government provided in this clause shall not be exclusive and are in addition to any other rights and remedies provided by law or under this contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="32:1.1.1.7.58.0.43.4.43" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 173—List of Contractors for Whom Certification Is Required
</HEAD>
<FP-1>Armtec, Incorporated, 410 Highway 19 South, Palatka, FL 32077
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Cubic Corporation, 9333 Balboa Avenue, San Diego, CA 92123 as to contracts originating in the following division:
</FP-2>
<FP-1>Cubic Defense Systems, Incorporated, San Diego, CA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Executive Resource Associates, 2011 Crystal Drive, suite 813, Arlington, VA 22202
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Hazeltine Corporation, 500 Commack Road, Commack, NY 11725 and all divisions and subsidiaries as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-1>Hazeltine Corporation, Electro-Acoustic Division, 115 Bay State Drive, Braintree, MA 02184
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hazeltine Corporation, Government Systems &amp; Products Division, Cuba Hill Road, Greenlawn, NY 11740
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hazeltine Research, Incorporated, 188 Industrial Drive, Elmhurst, IL 60126
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kane Paper Corporation, 2365 Milburn Avenue, Baldwin, NY 11510
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Litton Data Systems, Incorporated, 8000 Woodley Ave., Van Nuys, CA 91408
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loral Defense Systems Akron, 1210 Massillon Rd., Akron, OH 44315
</FP-1>
<FP-2>McDonnel Douglas Corporation, Banshee Rd., P.O. Box 516, St. Louis, MO 63166 as to contracts originating in the following division:</FP-2>
<FP-1>McDonnell Aircraft Company, St. Louis, MO
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Northrop Corporation, Ventura Division, 1515 Rancho Conejo Boulevard, Newbury Park, CA 91320
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Teledyne Electronics, 649 Lawrence Drive, Newbury Park, CA 91320
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Unisys Corporation, One Unisys Place, Detroit, MI 48232, as to contracts originating in the following divisions or subsidiaries:
</FP-2>
<FP-1>Unisys Corporation, Defense Systems Division, 3333 Pilot Knob Road, Eagan, MN
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unisys Corporation, Defense Systems Division, Neil Armstrong Boulevard, Eagan, MN
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unisys Shipboard &amp; Ground Systems Group, Marquis Avenue, Great Neck, NY 11020
</FP-1>
<FP-2>United Technologies Corporation, UT Bldg., Hartford, CT 06101 as to contracts originating in the following divisions or subsidiaries:
</FP-2>
<FP-1>Norden Systems, Incorporated
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pratt &amp; Whitney
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Varian Associates, Incorporated, 611 Hansen Way, Palo Alto, CA as to contracts originating in the following division:
</FP-2>
<FP-1>*
<FTREF/>Continental Electronics Manufacturing Company, Dallas, TX
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>*Firm suspended as of July 6, 1988.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>Whittaker Corporation (Lee Telecommunications Corporation (LTC), Route 1, Farmington, AR 72730)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zubier Enterprises, 6201 Pine Street, Harrisburg, PA.


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H" NODE="32:1.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H—CLOSURES AND REALIGNMENT


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="174" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 174—REVITALIZING BASE CLOSURE COMMUNITIES AND ADDRESSING IMPACTS OF REALIGNMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 113 and 10 U.S.C. 2687 <I>note.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 9919, Feb. 28, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.1.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and implements base closure laws and associated provisions of law relating to the closure and the realignment of installations. It does not address the process for selecting installations for closure or realignment.
</P>
<P>(b) Authorizes the publication of DoD 4165.66-M, “Base Redevelopment and Realignment Manual,” in accordance with DoD 5025.1-M 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>, “DoD Directive System Procedures,” March 2003. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/publ.html.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.1.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Installations in the United States selected for closure or realignment under a base closure law.
</P>
<P>(c) Federal agencies and non-Federal entities that seek to obtain real or personal property on installations selected for closure or realignment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.1.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Base closure law.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 10 U.S.C. § 101(a)(17)(B) and (C).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closure.</I> An action that ceases or relocates all current missions of an installation and eliminates or relocates all current personnel positions (military, civilian, and contractor), except for personnel required for caretaking, conducting any ongoing environmental cleanup, or property disposal. Retention of a small enclave, not associated with the main mission of the base, is still a closure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation.</I> Explaining and discussing an issue, considering objections, modifications, and alternatives; but without a requirement to reach agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date of approval.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in section 2910(8) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-510.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Excess property.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 40 U.S.C. § 102(3).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Installation.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in the definition for “military installation” in section 2910(4) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-510.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Local Redevelopment Authority</I> (LRA). This term has the same meaning as provided in the definition for “redevelopment authority” in section 2910(9) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-510.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Military Department.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).</I> The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, Pub. L. 91-190, 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Realignment.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in section 2910(5) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-510.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Secretary concerned.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(9)(A), (B), and (C).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Surplus property.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 40 U.S.C. 102(10).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Transition coordinator.</I> This term has the same meaning as used in section 2915 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994, Public Law 103-160. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.2.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Act expeditiously whether closing or realigning. Relocating activities from installations designated for closure will, when feasible, be accelerated to facilitate the transfer of real property for community reuse. In the case of realignments, the Department will pursue aggressive planning and scheduling of related facility improvements at the receiving location.
</P>
<P>(b) Fully utilize all appropriate means to transfer property. Federal law provides the Department with an array of legal authorities, including public benefit transfers, economic development conveyances at cost and no cost, negotiated sales to state or local government, conservation conveyances, and public sales, by which to transfer property on closed or realigned installations. Recognizing that the variety of types of facilities available for civilian reuse and the unique circumstances of the surrounding communities does not lend itself to a single universal solution, the Department will use this array of authorities in a way that considers individual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Rely on and leverage market forces. Community redevelopment plans and military conveyance plans should be integrated to the extent practical and should take account of any anticipated demand for surplus military land and facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) Collaborate effectively. Experience suggests that collaboration is the linchpin to successful installation redevelopment. Only by collaborating with the local community can the Department close and transfer property in a timely manner and provide a foundation for solid economic redevelopment.
</P>
<P>(e) Speak with one voice. The Department of Defense, acting through the DoD Components, will provide clear and timely information and will encourage affected communities to do the same.
</P>
<P>(f) Work with communities to address growth. The Department will work with the surrounding community so that the public and private sectors can provide the services and facilities needed to accommodate new personnel and their families. The Department recognizes that installation commanders and local officials, as appropriate (<I>e.g.</I>, State, county, and tribal), need to integrate and coordinate elements of their local and regional growth planning so that appropriate off-base facilities and services are available for arriving personnel and their families.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.2.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics shall issue DoD Instructions as necessary to further implement applicable public laws affecting installation closure and realignment implementation and shall monitor compliance with this part. All authorities and responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense—
</P>
<P>(1) Vested in the Secretary of Defense by a base closure law, but excluding those provisions relating to the process for selecting installations for closure or realignment;
</P>
<P>(2) Delegated from the Administrator of General Services relating to base closure and realignment matters;
</P>
<P>(3) Vested in the Secretary of Defense by any other provision relating to base closure and realignment in a national defense authorization act, a Department of Defense appropriations act, or a military construction appropriations act, but excluding section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993; or
</P>
<P>(4) Vested in the Secretary of Defense by Executive Order or regulation and relating to base closure and realignment, are hereby delegated to the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics.
</P>
<P>(b) The authorities and responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense delegated to the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics under paragraph (a) of this section are hereby re-delegated to the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment).
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components shall ensure compliance with this part and any implementing guidance.
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to the delegations in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Secretaries concerned shall exercise those authorities and responsibilities specified in subparts C through G of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The cost of recording deeds and other transfer documents is the responsibility of the transferee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Working with Communities and States</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.3.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.6   LRA and the redevelopment plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The LRA should have broad-based membership, including, but not limited to, representatives from those jurisdictions with zoning authority over the property. Generally, there will be one recognized LRA per installation.
</P>
<P>(b) The LRA should focus primarily on developing a comprehensive redevelopment plan based upon local needs. The plan should recommend land uses based upon an exploration of feasible reuse alternatives. If applicable, the plan should consider notices of interest received under a base closure law. This section shall not be construed to require a plan that is enforceable under state and local land use laws, nor is it intended to create any exemption from such laws.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Secretary concerned will develop a disposal plan and, to the extent practicable, complete the appropriate environmental documentation no later than 12 months after receipt of the redevelopment plan. The redevelopment plan will be used as part of the proposed Federal action in conducting environmental analyses required under NEPA.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event there is no LRA recognized by DoD or if a redevelopment plan is not received from the LRA within 9 months from the date referred to in section 2905(b)(7)(F)(iv) of Pub. L. 101-510, (unless an extension of time has been granted by the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment)), the Secretary concerned shall, after required consultation with the governor and heads of local governments, proceed with the disposal of property under applicable property disposal and environmental laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Real Property</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.7   Retention for DoD Component use and transfer to other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To speed the economic recovery of communities affected by closures and realignments, the Department of Defense will identify DoD and Federal interests in real property at closing and realigning installations as quickly as possible. The Secretary concerned shall identify such interests. The Secretary concerned will keep the LRA informed of these interests. This section establishes a uniform process, with specified timelines, for identifying real property that is available for use by DoD Components (which for purposes of this section includes the United States Coast Guard) or is excess to the needs of the Department of Defense and available for use by other Federal agencies, and for the disposal of surplus property for various purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary concerned should consider LRA input, if provided, in making determinations on the retention of property (location and size of cantonment area).
</P>
<P>(c) Within one week of the date of approval of the closure or realignment, the Secretary concerned shall issue a notice of availability to the DoD Components and other Federal agencies covering closing and realigning installation buildings and property available for transfer to the DoD Components and other Federal agencies. The notice of availability should describe the property and buildings available for transfer. Withdrawn public domain lands which the Secretary of the Interior has determined are suitable for return to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Interior (DoI) will not be included in the notice of availability.
</P>
<P>(d) To obtain consideration of a requirement for such available buildings and property, a DoD Component or Federal agency is required to provide a written, firm expression of interest for buildings and property within 30 days of the date of the notice of availability. An expression of interest must explain the intended use and the corresponding requirement for the buildings and property.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Within 60 days of the date of the notice of availability, the DoD Component or Federal agency expressing interest in buildings or property must submit an application for transfer of such property to a Military Department or Federal agency. In the case of a DoD Component that would normally, under the circumstances, obtain its real property needs from the Military Department disposing of the real property, the application should indicate the property would not transfer to another Military Department but should be retained by the current Military Department for the use of the DoD Component. To the extent a different Military Department provides real property support for the requesting DoD Component, the application must indicate the concurrence of the supporting Military Department.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 90 days of the notice of availability, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) should survey the air traffic control and air navigation equipment at the installation to determine what is needed to support the air traffic control, surveillance, and communications functions supported by the Military Department, and to identify the facilities needed to support the National Airspace System. FAA requests for property to manage the National Airspace System will not be governed by paragraph (h) of this section. Instead, the FAA shall work directly with the Military Department to prepare an agreement to assume custody of the property necessary for control of the airspace being relinquished by the Military Department.
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretary concerned will keep the LRA informed of the progress in identifying interests. At the same time, the LRA is encouraged to contact Federal agencies which sponsor public benefit conveyances for information and technical assistance. The Secretary concerned will provide to the LRA points of contact at the Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) DoD Components and Federal agencies are encouraged to discuss their plans and needs with the LRA, if an LRA exists. If an LRA does not exist, the consultation should be pursued with the governor or the heads of the local governments in whose jurisdiction the property is located. DoD Components and Federal agencies are encouraged to notify the Secretary concerned of the results of this consultation. The Secretary concerned, the Transition Coordinator, and the DoD Office of Economic Adjustment Project Manager are available to help facilitate communication between the DoD Components and Federal agencies, and the LRA, governor, and heads of local governments.
</P>
<P>(h) An application for property from a DoD Component or Federal agency must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A completed GSA Form 1334, <I>Request for Transfer</I> (for requests from DoD Components, a DD Form 1354 will be used). This must be signed by the head of the Component or agency requesting the property. If the authority to acquire property has been delegated, a copy of the delegation must accompany the form;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement from the head of the requesting Component or agency that the request does not establish a new program (<I>i.e.</I>, one that has never been reflected in a previous budget submission or Congressional action);
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the requesting Component or agency has reviewed its real property holdings and cannot satisfy its requirement with existing property. This review must include all property under the requester's accountability, including permits to other Federal agencies and outleases to other organizations;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the requested property would provide greater long-term economic benefits for the program than acquisition of a new facility or other property;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the program for which the property is requested has long-term viability;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that considerations of design, layout, geographic location, age, state of repair, and expected maintenance costs of the requested property clearly demonstrate that the transfer will prove more economical over a sustained period of time than acquiring a new facility;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the size of the property requested is consistent with the actual requirement;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that fair market value reimbursement to the Military Department will be made at the later of January of 2008, or at the time of transfer, unless this obligation is waived by the Office of Management and Budget and the Secretary concerned, or a public law specifically provides for a non-reimbursable transfer (this requirement does not apply to requests from DoD Components);
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the requesting DoD Component or Federal agency agrees to accept the care and custody costs for the property on the date the property is available for transfer, as determined by the Secretary concerned; and
</P>
<P>(10) A statement that the requesting agency agrees to accept transfer of the property in its existing condition, unless this obligation is waived by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary concerned will make a decision on an application from a DoD Component or Federal agency based upon the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirement must be valid and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed use is consistent with the highest and best use of the property;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed transfer will not have an adverse impact on the transfer of any remaining portion of the installation;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed transfer will not establish a new program or substantially increase the level of a Component's or agency's existing programs;
</P>
<P>(5) The application offers fair market value for the property, unless waived;
</P>
<P>(6) The proposed transfer addresses applicable environmental responsibilities to the satisfaction of the Secretary concerned; and
</P>
<P>(7) The proposed transfer is in the best interest of the Government.
</P>
<P>(j) When there is more than one acceptable application for the same building or property, the Secretary concerned shall consider, in the following order—
</P>
<P>(1) The need to perform the national defense missions of the Department of Defense and the Coast Guard;
</P>
<P>(2) The need to support the homeland defense mission; and
</P>
<P>(3) The LRA's comments as well as other factors in the determination of highest and best use.
</P>
<P>(k) If the Federal agency does not meet its commitment under paragraph (h)(8) of this section to provide the required reimbursement, and the requested property has not yet been transferred to the agency, the requested property will be declared surplus and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) Closing or realigning installations may contain “public domain lands” which have been withdrawn by the Secretary of the Interior from operation of the public land laws and reserved for use by the Department of Defense. Lands deemed suitable for return to the public domain are not real property governed by title 40, United States Code, and are not governed by the property management and disposal provisions of a base closure law. Public domain lands are under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of the Interior and administered by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) unless the Secretary of the Interior has withdrawn the lands and reserved them for another Federal agency's use.
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary concerned will provide the BLM with information about which, if any, public domain lands will be affected by the installation's closure or realignment.
</P>
<P>(2) The BLM will review the information to determine if any installations contain withdrawn public domain lands. The BLM will review its land records to identify any withdrawn public domain lands at the closing installations. Any records discrepancies between the BLM and Military Departments should be resolved. The BLM will notify the Secretary concerned as to the final agreed upon withdrawn and reserved public domain lands at an installation.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon agreement as to what withdrawn and reserved public domain lands are affected at closing installations, the BLM will initiate a screening of DoI agencies to determine if these lands are suitable for programs of the Secretary of the Interior.
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary concerned will transmit a Notice of Intent to Relinquish (see 43 CFR Part 2370) to the BLM as soon as it is known that there is no DoD Component interest in reusing the public domain lands. The BLM will complete the suitability determination screening process within 30 days of receipt of the Secretary's Notice of Intent to Relinquish. If a DoD Component is approved to reuse the public domain lands, the BLM will be notified and BLM will determine if the current authority for military use of these lands needs to be modified or amended.
</P>
<P>(5) If BLM determines the land is suitable for return, it shall notify the Secretary concerned that the intent of the Secretary of the Interior is to accept the relinquishment of the land by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(6) If BLM determines the land is not suitable for return to the DoI, the land should be disposed of pursuant to base closure law.
</P>
<P>(m) The Secretary concerned should make a surplus determination within six (6) months of the date of approval of closure or realignment, and shall inform the LRA of the determination. If requested by the LRA, the Secretary may postpone the surplus determination for a period of no more than six (6) additional months after the date of approval if the Secretary determines that such postponement is in the best interests of the communities affected by the closure or realignment.
</P>
<P>(1) In unusual circumstances, extensions beyond six months can be granted by the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment).
</P>
<P>(2) Extensions of the surplus determination should be limited to the portions of the installation where there is an outstanding interest, and every effort should be made to make decisions on as much of the installation as possible, within the specified timeframes.
</P>
<P>(n) Once the surplus determination has been made, the Secretary concerned shall follow the procedures in part 176 of this title.
</P>
<P>(o) Following the surplus determination, but prior to the disposal of property, the Secretary concerned may, at the Secretary's discretion, withdraw the surplus determination and evaluate a Federal agency's late request for excess property.
</P>
<P>(1) Transfers under this paragraph shall be limited to special cases, as determined by the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests shall be made to the Secretary concerned, as specified under paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section, and the Secretary shall notify the LRA of such late request.
</P>
<P>(3) Comments received from the LRA and the time and effort invested by the LRA in the planning process should be considered when the Secretary concerned is reviewing a late request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.8" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.8   Screening for properties covered by the Base Closure Community Redevelopment and Homeless Assistance Act of 1994, cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>The Departments of Defense and Housing and Urban Development have promulgated regulations to address state and local screening and approval of redevelopment plans for installations covered by the Base Closure Community Redevelopment and Homeless Assistance Act of 1994 (Pub. L. 103-421). The Department of Defense regulations can be found at part 176 of this title. The Department of Housing and Urban Development regulations can be found at 24 CFR part 586.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.9" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.9   Economic development conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary concerned may transfer real property and personal property to the LRA for purposes of job generation on the former installation. Such a transfer is an Economic Development Conveyance (EDC).
</P>
<P>(b) An LRA is the only entity eligible to receive property under an EDC.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary concerned shall use the completed application, along with other relevant information, to decide whether to enter into an EDC with an LRA. An LRA may submit an EDC application only after it adopts a redevelopment plan. The Secretary concerned shall establish a reasonable time period for submission of an EDC application after consultation with the LRA.
</P>
<P>(d) The application shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the adopted redevelopment plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A project narrative including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A general description of the property requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the intended uses.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the economic impact of closure or realignment on the local community.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the economic condition of the community and the prospects for redevelopment of the property.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of how the EDC is consistent with the overall redevelopment plan.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of how the EDC will contribute to short- and long-term job generation on the installation, including the projected number and type of new jobs it will assist in generating.
</P>
<P>(4) A business/operational plan for development of the EDC parcel, including at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A development timetable, phasing schedule, and cash flow analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) A market and financial feasibility analysis describing the economic viability of the project, including an estimate of net proceeds over the planned life of the redevelopment project, but in no event for less than fifteen years after the initial transfer of property, and the proposed consideration or payment to the Department of Defense. The proposed consideration should describe the methodology for payment and include draft documents or instruments proposed to secure such payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) A cost estimate and justification for infrastructure and other investments needed for redevelopment of the EDC parcel.
</P>
<P>(iv) A proposed local investment and financing plan for the development.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing why an EDC will more effectively enable achievement of the job generation objectives of the redevelopment plan regarding the parcel requested for conveyance than other federal real property disposal authorities.
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence of the LRA's legal authority to acquire and dispose of the property.
</P>
<P>(7) Evidence that:
</P>
<P>(i) The LRA has authority to perform the actions required of it, pursuant to the terms of the EDC, and
</P>
<P>(ii) That the officers submitting the application and making the representations contained therein on behalf of the LRA have the authority to do so.
</P>
<P>(8) A commitment from the LRA that the proceeds from any sale or lease of the EDC parcel (or any portion thereof) received by the LRA during at least the first seven years after the date of the initial transfer of property, except proceeds that are used to pay consideration to the Secretary concerned under paragraph (h) of this section, shall be used to support economic redevelopment of, or related to, the installation. In the case of phased transfers, the Secretary concerned shall require that this commitment apply during at least the first seven years after the date of the last transfer of property to the LRA. For the purposes of calculating this reinvestment period, a lease in furtherance of conveyance shall constitute a transfer. The use of proceeds to pay for, or offset the costs of, public investment on or related to the installation for any of the following purposes shall be considered a use to support the economic redevelopment of, or related to, the installation—
</P>
<P>(i) Road construction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transportation management facilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Storm and sanitary sewer construction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Police and fire protection facilities and other public facilities;
</P>
<P>(v) Utility construction;
</P>
<P>(vi) Building rehabilitation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Historic property preservation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Pollution prevention equipment or facilities;
</P>
<P>(vix) Demolition;
</P>
<P>(x) Disposal of hazardous materials and hazardous waste generated by demolition;
</P>
<P>(xi) Landscaping, grading, and other site or public improvements; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Planning for or the marketing of the development and reuse of the installation.
</P>
<P>(9) A commitment from the LRA to execute the agreement for transfer of the property and accept control of the property within a reasonable time, as determined by the Secretary concerned after consultation with the LRA, after the date of the property disposal record of decision. The determination of reasonable time should take account of the ability of the Secretary concerned to provide the deed covenants, or covenant deferral, provided for under section 120(h)(3) and (4) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9620(h)(3) and (4)).
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary concerned shall review the application and, to the extent practicable, provide a preliminary determination within 30 days of receipt as to whether the Military Department can accept the application for negotiation of terms and conditions, subject to the following findings:
</P>
<P>(1) The LRA submitting the application has been duly recognized by the DoD Office of Economic Adjustment;
</P>
<P>(2) The application is complete. With respect to the elements of the application specified in paragraph (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i) of this section, the Secretary concerned may accept the application for negotiation of terms and conditions without this element, provided the Secretary concerned is satisfied that the LRA has a reasonable plan in place to provide the element prior to transfer of the property; and
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed EDC will more effectively enable achievement of the job generation objectives of the redevelopment plan regarding the parcel requested than the application of other federal real property disposal authorities.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon acceptance of an EDC application, the Secretary concerned shall determine if the proposed terms and conditions are fair and reasonable. The Secretary concerned may propose and negotiate any alternative terms or conditions that the Secretary considers necessary. The following factors shall be considered, as appropriate, in evaluating the terms and conditions of the proposed transfer, including price, time of payment, and other relevant methods of compensation to the Federal government:
</P>
<P>(1) Local economic conditions and adverse impact of closure or realignment on the region and potential for economic recovery through an EDC.
</P>
<P>(2) Extent of short- and long-term job generation.
</P>
<P>(3) Consistency with the entire redevelopment plan.
</P>
<P>(4) Financial feasibility of the development and proposed consideration, including financial and market analysis and the need and extent of proposed infrastructure and other investments.
</P>
<P>(5) Extent of state and local investment, level of risk incurred, and the LRA's ability to implement the redevelopment plan. Higher risk assumed and investment made by the LRA should be recognized with more favorable terms and conditions, to encourage local investment to support job generation.
</P>
<P>(6) Current local and regional real estate market conditions, including market demand for the property.
</P>
<P>(7) Incorporation of other Federal agency interests and concerns, including the applicability of other Federal surplus property disposal authorities.
</P>
<P>(8) Economic benefit to the Federal Government, including protection and maintenance cost savings, environmental clean-up savings, and anticipated consideration from the transfer.
</P>
<P>(9) Compliance with applicable Federal, state, interstate, and local laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(g) The Secretary concerned shall negotiate the terms and conditions of each transaction with the LRA. The Secretary concerned shall have the discretion and flexibility to enter into agreements that specify the form of payment and the schedule.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The Secretary concerned may accept, as consideration, any combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash, including a share of the revenues that the local redevelopment authority receives from third-party buyers or lessees from sales and leases of the conveyed property (<I>i.e.,</I> a share of the revenues generated from the redevelopment project);
</P>
<P>(ii) Goods and services;
</P>
<P>(iii) Real property and improvements; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Such other consideration as the Secretary considers appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The consideration may be accepted over time.
</P>
<P>(3) All cash consideration for property at a military installation where the date of approval of closure or realignment is before January 1, 2005, shall be deposited in the account established under Section 2906(a) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (part A of title XXIX of Pub. L. 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note). All cash consideration for property at a military installation where the date of approval of closure or realignment is after January 1, 2005, shall be deposited in the account established under Section 2906A(a) of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (part A of title XXIX of Pub. L. 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note).
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary concerned may use in-kind consideration received from an LRA at any location under control of the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<P>(i) The LRA and the Secretary concerned may agree on a schedule for sale of parcels and payment participation.
</P>
<P>(j) Additional provisions shall be incorporated in the conveyance documents to protect the Department's interest in obtaining the agreed upon consideration, which may include such items as predetermined release prices, accounting standards, or other appropriate clauses designed to ensure payment and protect against fraudulent transactions. Every agreement for an EDC shall contain provisions allowing the Secretary concerned to recoup from the LRA such portion of the proceeds from a sale or lease by the LRA as the Secretary concerned determines appropriate if the LRA does not use the proceeds to support economic redevelopment of or related to the installation during the period specified in paragraph (d)(8) of this section. The Secretary concerned and an LRA may enter into a mutually agreed participation agreement which may include input by the Secretary concerned on the LRA's disposal of EDC parcels.
</P>
<P>(k) The Secretary concerned should take account of property value but is not required to formally determine the estimated fair market value of the property for any EDC. The consideration negotiated should be based on a business plan and development pro-forma that assumes the uses in the redevelopment plan. The Secretary concerned may determine the nature and extent of any additional information needed for purposes of an informed negotiation. This may include, but is not limited to, an economic and market analysis, construction estimates, a real estate pro forma analysis, or an appraisal. To the extent not prohibited by law, information used should be shared with the LRA.
</P>
<P>(l) After evaluating the application based upon the criteria specified in paragraph (f) of this section, and negotiating terms and conditions, the Secretary concerned shall present the proposed EDC to the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment) for formal coordination before announcing approval of the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 70880, Nov. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.11" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.11   Leasing of real property to non-Federal entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Leasing of real property to non-Federal entities prior to the final disposition of closing and realigning installations may facilitate state and local economic adjustment efforts and encourage economic redevelopment, but the Secretary concerned will always concentrate on the final disposition of real and personal property.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to leasing property at fair market value, to assist local redevelopment efforts the Secretary concerned may also lease real and personal property, pending final disposition, for less than fair market value if the Secretary determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) A public interest will be served as a result of the lease; and,
</P>
<P>(2) The fair market value of the lease is unobtainable or not compatible with such public benefit.
</P>
<P>(c) Pending final disposition of an installation, the Secretary concerned may grant interim leases which are short-term leases that make no commitment for future use or ultimate disposal. When granting an interim lease, the Secretary will generally lease to the LRA but can lease property directly to other entities. If the interim lease (after complying with NEPA) is entered into prior to completion of the final disposal decisions, the term may be for up to five years, including options to renew, and may contain restrictions on use. Leasing should not delay the final disposal of the property. After completion of the final disposal decisions, the term of the lease may be longer than five years.
</P>
<P>(d) If the property is leased for less than fair market value to the LRA and the interim lease permits the property to be subleased, the interim lease shall provide that rents from the subleases will be applied by the lessee to the protection, maintenance, repair, improvement, and costs related to the property at the installation consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2667. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.12" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.4.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.12   Leasing of transferred real property by Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary concerned may transfer real property that is still needed by a Federal agency (which for purposes of this section includes DoD Components) to an LRA provided the LRA agrees to lease the property to the Federal agency in accordance with all statutory and regulatory guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision whether to transfer property pursuant to such a leasing arrangement rests with the Secretary concerned. However, a Secretary shall only transfer property subject to such a leasing arrangement if the Federal agency that needs the property agrees to the leasing arrangement.
</P>
<P>(c) If the subject property cannot be transferred pursuant to such a leasing arrangement (<I>e.g.</I>, the relevant Federal agency prefers ownership, the LRA and the Federal agency cannot agree on terms of the lease, or the Secretary concerned determines that such a lease would not be in the Federal interest), such property shall remain in Federal ownership unless and until the Secretary concerned determines that it is surplus.
</P>
<P>(d) If a building or structure is proposed for transfer pursuant to this section, that which is leased by the Federal agency may be all or a portion of that building or structure.
</P>
<P>(e) Transfers pursuant to this section must be to an LRA.
</P>
<P>(f) Either existing Federal tenants or Federal agencies desiring to locate onto the property after operational closure may make use of such a leasing arrangement. The Secretary concerned may not enter into such a leasing arrangement unless:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a Defense Agency, the Secretary concerned is acting in an Executive Agent capacity on behalf of the Agency that certifies that such a leasing arrangement is in the interest of that Agency; or,
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a Military Department, the Secretary concerned certifies that such a leasing arrangement is in the best interest of the Military Department and that use of the property by the Military Department is consistent with the obligation to close or realign the installation in accordance with the recommendations of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) Property eligible for such a leasing arrangement is not surplus because it is still needed by the Federal Government. Even though the LRA would not otherwise have to include such property in its redevelopment plan, it should include the property in its redevelopment plan anyway to take into account the planned Federal use of such property.
</P>
<P>(h) The terms of the LRA's lease to the Federal Government should afford the Federal agency rights as close to those associated with ownership of the property as is practicable. The requirements of the General Services Administration (GSA) Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR part 570) are not applicable to the lease, but provisions in that regulation may be used to the extent they are consistent with this part. The terms of the lease are negotiable subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The lease shall be for a term of no more than 50 years, but may provide for options for renewal or extension of the term at the request of the Federal Government. The lease term should be based on the needs of the Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The lease, or any renewals or extensions thereof, shall not require rental payments.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (h)(2) of this section, if the lease involves a substantial portion of the installation, the Secretary concerned may obtain facility services for the leased property and common area maintenance from the LRA or the LRA's assignee as a provision of the lease.
</P>
<P>(A) Such services and common area maintenance shall be provided at a rate no higher than the rate charged to non-Federal tenants of the transferred property.
</P>
<P>(B) Such services and common area maintenance shall not include—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Municipal services that a State or local government is required by law to provide to all landowners in its jurisdiction without direct charge, including police protection; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Firefighting or security-guard functions.
</P>
<P>(C) The Federal agency may be responsible for services such as janitorial, grounds keeping, utilities, capital maintenance, and other services normally provided by a landlord. Acquisition of such services by the Federal agency is to be accomplished through the use of Federal Acquisition Regulation procedures or otherwise in accordance with applicable statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) The lease shall include a provision prohibiting the LRA from transferring fee title to another entity during the term of the lease, other than one of the political jurisdictions that comprise the LRA, without the written consent of the Federal agency occupying the leased property.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) The lease shall include an option specifying that if the Federal agency no longer needs the property before the expiration of the term of the lease, the remainder of the lease term may be satisfied by the same or another Federal agency that needs property for a similar use. (“Similar use” is a use that is comparable to or essentially the same as the use under the original lease, as determined by the Secretary concerned.)
</P>
<P>(ii)(B) If the tenant is a DoD Component, before notifying GSA of the availability of the leasehold, it shall determine whether any other DoD Component has a requirement for the leasehold; in doing so, it shall consult with the LRA. If another DoD Component has a requirement for the leasehold, that DoD Component shall be allowed to assume the leasehold for the remainder of its term. If no DoD Component has a requirement for the leasehold, the tenant shall notify GSA in accordance with paragraph (h)(5)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The Federal tenant shall notify the GSA of the availability of the leasehold. GSA will then decide whether to exercise this option after consulting with the LRA or other property owner. The GSA shall have 60 days from the date of notification in which to identify a Federal agency to serve out the term of the lease and to notify the LRA or other property owner of the new tenant. If the GSA does not notify the LRA or other property owner of a new tenant within such 60 days, the leasehold shall terminate on a date agreed to by the Federal tenant and the LRA or other property owner.
</P>
<P>(B) If the GSA decides not to exercise this option after consulting with the LRA or other property owner, the leasehold shall terminate on a date agreed to by the Federal tenant and the LRA or other property owner.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms of the lease shall provide that the Federal agency may repair and improve the property at its expense after consultation with the LRA.
</P>
<P>(i) Property subject to such a leasing arrangement shall be conveyed in accordance with the existing EDC procedures. The LRA shall submit the following in addition to the application requirements outlined in § 174.9(e) of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the parcel or parcels the LRA proposes to have transferred to it and then to lease to a Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(2) A written statement signed by an authorized representative of the Federal agency that it agrees to accept the lease of the property; and,
</P>
<P>(3) A statement explaining why such a leasing arrangement is necessary for the long-term economic redevelopment of the installation property.
</P>
<P>(j) The exact amount of consideration, or the formula to be used to determine that consideration, as well as the schedule for payment of consideration must be agreed upon in writing before transfer pursuant to this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Personal Property</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.13" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.5.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.13   Personal property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section outlines procedures to allow transfer of personal property to the LRA for the effective implementation of a redevelopment plan. Personal property does not include fixtures.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary concerned, supported by DoD Components with personal property on the installation, will take an inventory of the personal property, including its condition, within 6 months after the date of approval of closure or realignment. This inventory will be limited to the personal property located on the real property to be disposed of by the Military Department. The inventory will be taken in consultation with LRA officials. If there is no LRA, the Secretary concerned shall consult with the local government in whose jurisdiction the installation is wholly located, or a local government agency or a State government agency designated for that purpose by the Governor of the State. Based on these consultations, the installation commander will determine the items or category of items that have the potential to enhance the reuse of the real property.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for property subject to the exemptions in paragraph (e) of this section, personal property with potential to enhance the reuse of the real property shall remain at an installation being closed or realigned until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) One week after the Secretary concerned receives the redevelopment plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The date notified by the LRA that there will be no redevelopment plan;
</P>
<P>(3) 24 months after the date of approval of the closure or realignment of the installation; or
</P>
<P>(4) 90 days before the date of the closure or realignment of the installation.
</P>
<P>(d) National Guard property under the control of the United States Property and Fiscal Officer is subject to inventory and may be made available for redevelopment planning purposes.
</P>
<P>(e) Personal property may be removed upon approval of the installation commander or higher authority, as prescribed by the Secretary concerned, after the inventory required in paragraph (b) of this section has been sent to the LRA, when:
</P>
<P>(1) The property is required for the operation of a unit, function, component, weapon, or weapons system at another installation;
</P>
<P>(2) The property is uniquely military in character and is likely to have no civilian use (other than use for its material content or as a source of commonly used components). This property consists of classified items; nuclear, biological, and chemical items; weapons and munitions; museum property or items of significant historic value that are maintained or displayed on loan; and similar military items;
</P>
<P>(3) The property is not required for the reutilization or redevelopment of the installation (as jointly determined by the Secretary concerned and the LRA);
</P>
<P>(4) The property is stored at the installation for purposes of distribution (including spare parts or stock items) or redistribution and sale (DoD excess/surplus personal property). This property includes materials or parts used in a manufacturing or repair function but does not include maintenance spares for equipment to be left in place;
</P>
<P>(5) The property meets known requirements of an authorized program of a DoD Component or another Federal agency that would have to purchase similar items, and is the subject of a written request by the head of the DoD Component or other Federal agency. If the authority to acquire personal property has been delegated, a copy of the delegation must accompany the request. (For purposes of this paragraph, “purchase” means the DoD Component or Federal agency intends to obligate funds in the current quarter or next six fiscal quarters.) The DoD Component or Federal agency must pay packing, crating, handling, and transportation charges associated with such transfers of personal property;
</P>
<P>(6) The property belongs to a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) of the Department of Defense; separate arrangements for communities to purchase such property are possible and may be negotiated with the Secretary concerned;
</P>
<P>(7) The property is not owned by the Department of Defense, <I>i.e.</I>, it is owned by a Federal agency outside the Department of Defense or by non-Federal persons or entities such as a State, a private corporation, or an individual; or,
</P>
<P>(8) The property is needed elsewhere in the national security interest of the United States as determined by the Secretary concerned. This authority may not be re-delegated below the level of an Assistant Secretary. In exercising this authority, the Secretary may transfer the property to any DoD Component or other Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Personal property not subject to the exemptions in paragraph (e) of this section may be conveyed to the LRA as part of an EDC for the real property if the Secretary concerned makes a finding that the personal property is necessary for the effective implementation of the redevelopment plan.
</P>
<P>(g) Personal property may also be conveyed separately to the LRA under an EDC for personal property. This type of EDC can be made if the Secretary concerned determines that the transfer is necessary for the effective implementation of a redevelopment plan with respect to the installation. Such determination shall be based on the LRA's timely application for the property, which should be submitted to the Secretary upon completion of the redevelopment plan. The application must include the LRA's agreement to accept the personal property after a reasonable period and will otherwise comply with the requirements of §§ 174.9 and 174.10 of this part. The transfer will be subject to reasonable limitations and conditions on use.
</P>
<P>(h) Personal property that is not needed by a DoD Component or a tenant Federal agency or conveyed to an LRA (or a state or local jurisdiction in lieu of an LRA), or conveyed as related personal property together with the real property, will be transferred to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office for disposal in accordance with applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) Useful personal property not needed by the Federal Government and not qualifying for transfer to the LRA under an EDC may be donated to the community or LRA through the appropriate State Agency for Surplus Property (SASP) under 41 CFR part 102-37 surplus program guidelines. Personal property donated under this procedure must meet the usage and control requirements of the applicable SASP. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Maintenance and Repair</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.14" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.6.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.14   Maintenance and repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Facilities and equipment located on installations being closed are often important to the eventual reuse of the installation. This section provides maintenance procedures to preserve and protect those facilities and items of equipment needed for reuse in an economical manner that facilitates installation redevelopment.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to ensure quick reuse, the Secretary concerned, in consultation with the LRA, will establish initial levels of maintenance and repair needed to aid redevelopment and to protect the property for the time periods set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. Where agreement between the Secretary and the LRA cannot be reached, the Secretary will determine the required levels of maintenance and repair and its duration. In no case will these initial levels of maintenance:
</P>
<P>(1) Exceed the standard of maintenance and repair in effect on the date of approval of closure or realignment;
</P>
<P>(2) Be less than maintenance and repair required to be consistent with Federal Government standards for excess and surplus properties as provided in the Federal Management Regulations of the GSA, 41 CFR part 102;
</P>
<P>(3) Be less than the minimum levels required to support the use of such facilities or equipment for nonmilitary purposes; or,
</P>
<P>(4) Require any property improvements, including construction, alteration, or demolition, except when the demolition is required for health, safety, or environmental purposes, or is economically justified in lieu of continued maintenance expenditures.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the Secretary concerned determines that it is in the national security interest of the United States, the levels of maintenance and repair specified in paragraph (b) of this section shall not be changed until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) One week after the Secretary concerned receives the redevelopment plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The date notified by the LRA that there will be no redevelopment plan;
</P>
<P>(3) 24 months after the date of approval of the closure or realignment of the installation; or
</P>
<P>(4) 90 days before the date of the closure or realignment of the installation.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary concerned may extend the time period for the initial levels of maintenance and repair for property still under the Secretary's control for an additional period, if the Secretary determines that the LRA is actively implementing its redevelopment plan, and such levels of maintenance are justified.
</P>
<P>(e) Once the time period for the initial or extended levels of maintenance and repair expires, the Secretary concerned will reduce the levels of maintenance and repair to levels consistent with Federal Government standards for excess and surplus properties as provided in the Federal Management Regulations of the GSA, except in the case of facilities still being used to perform a DoD mission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Environmental Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.7.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.15   Indemnification under Section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993.</HEAD>
<P>Section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993, Pub. L. 102-484, as amended, provides for indemnification of transferees of closing Department of Defense properties under circumstances specified in that statute. The authority to implement this provision of law has been delegated by the Secretary of Defense to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense; therefore, this provision of law shall only be referred to or recited in any deed, sales agreement, bill of sale, lease, license, easement, right-of-way, or transfer document for real or personal property after obtaining the written concurrence of the Deputy General Counsel (Environment and Installations), Office of the General Counsel, Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.16" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.7.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.16   Real property containing explosive or chemical agent hazards.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Component controlling real property known to contain or suspected of containing explosive or chemical agent hazards from past DoD military munitions-related or chemical warfare-related activities shall, prior to transfer of the property out of Department of Defense control, obtain the DoD Explosives Safety Board's approval of measures planned to ensure protectiveness from such hazards, in accordance with DoD Directive 6055.9E, <I>Explosives Safety Management and the DoD Explosives Safety Board.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.17" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.7.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.17   NEPA.</HEAD>
<P>At installations subject to this part, NEPA analysis shall comply with the promulgated NEPA regulations of the Military Department exercising real property accountability for the installation, including any requirements relating to responsibility for funding the analysis. See 32 CFR parts 651 (for the Army), 775 (for the Navy), and 989 (for the Air Force). Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as releasing a Military Department from complying with its own NEPA regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.18" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.59.7.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.18   Historic preservation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The transfer, lease, or sale of National Register-eligible historic property to a non-Federal entity at installations subject to this part may constitute an “adverse effect” under the regulations implementing the National Historic Preservation Act (36 CFR 800.5(a)(2)(vii)). One way of resolving this adverse effect is to restrict the use that may be made of the property subsequent to its transfer out of Federal ownership or control through the imposition of legally enforceable restrictions or conditions. The Secretary concerned may include such restrictions or conditions (typically a real property interest in the form of a restrictive covenant or preservation easement) in any deed or lease conveying an interest in historic property to a non-Federal entity. Before doing so, the Secretary should first consider whether the historic character of the property can be protected effectively through planning and zoning actions undertaken by units of State or local government; if so, working with such units of State or local government to protect the property through these means is preferable to encumbering the property with such a covenant or easement.
</P>
<P>(b) Before including such a covenant or easement in a deed or lease, the Secretary concerned shall consider—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the jurisdiction that encompasses the property authorizes such a covenant or easement; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the Secretary can give or assign to a third party the responsibility for monitoring and enforcing such a covenant or easement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="175" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 175—INDEMNIFICATION OR DEFENSE, OR PROVIDING NOTICE TO THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE, RELATING TO A THIRD-PARTY ENVIRONMENTAL CLAIM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 113, 5 U.S.C. 301, section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993, Public Law 102-484, October 23, 1992, 106 Stat. 2371, as amended, and section 1502(e) of the Floyd D. Spence National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001, Pub. L. 106-398, October 30, 2000, 1014 Stat. 1654A-350, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 34475, July 20, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 175.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part describes the process for filing a request for indemnification or defense, or providing proper notice to DoD, of a third-party claim pursuant to section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993, Public Law 102-484, October 23, 1992, 106 Stat. 2371, as amended (hereafter “section 330”), or section 1502(e) of the Floyd D. Spence National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001, Public Law 106-398, October 30, 2000, 1014 Stat. 1654A-350, as amended (hereafter “section 1502(e)”). This process identifies the minimum information that a request for indemnification or defense or notice to DoD of a third-party claim for indemnification must include, where that information must be sent, how to make such a request or provide such a notice, the time limits that apply to such a request or notice, and other requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to—
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense and the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person or entity making a request for indemnification or defense, or providing notice to DoD, of a third-party claim pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e).
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a property that is subject to an earlier agreement containing different notification requirements, the requirement for notice to the Deputy General Counsel in sections 175.5 and 175.6 are in addition to those notification requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part alters the provisions of § 174.15 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Commercial delivery service.</I> Federal Express or United Parcel Service, or other similar service that provides for delivery of packages directly from the sender to the recipient for a fee, but excluding the United States Postal Service (USPS).
</P>
<P><I>Deputy General Counsel.</I> The Deputy General Counsel (Environment, Energy, and Installations), Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Received.</I> Actual physical receipt by the intended recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Request.</I> Any request for indemnification or defense made to the Department of Defense (DoD) by a requester pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e).
</P>
<P><I>Requester.</I> A person or entity making a request pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e). When the requester is acting by way of subrogation, the requester is subject to the same requirements and limitations as though it were the subrogor.
</P>
<P><I>Section 330.</I> Section 330 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993, Public Law 102-484, October 23, 1992, 106 Stat. 2371, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Section 1502(e).</I> Section 1502(e) of the Floyd D. Spence National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001, Public Law 106-398, October 30, 2000, 114 Stat. 1654A-350. (This provision applies only to certain portions of the former Naval Ammunition Support Detachment on the island of Vieques, Puerto Rico.)
</P>
<P><I>Third-party claim.</I> A claim from a person or entity (other than the requester) to a requester resulting from a suit, claim, demand or action, liability, judgment, cost or other fee, demanding, seeking, or otherwise requiring that the requester pay an amount, take an action, or incur a liability for alleged personal injury or property damage and such payment, action, or liability is eligible for indemnification or defense pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e). A third-party claim may consist of a notice, letter, order, compliance advisory, compliance agreement, or similar direction from a governmental regulatory authority exercising its authority to regulate the release or threatened release of any hazardous substance, pollutant or contaminant, or petroleum or petroleum derivative if the notice, letter, order, compliance advisory, compliance agreement, or similar notification imposes, directs, or demands requirements for environmental actions or asserts damages related thereto that are eligible for indemnification or defense pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel of the Department of Defense has been delegated the authorities and responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense under section 330 and section 1502(e), with certain limitations as to re-delegation.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel has re-delegated the authority and responsibility to adjudicate requests for indemnification or defense and to process notices to DoD of a third-party claim under section 330 and section 1502(e) to the Deputy General Counsel or, when the position of Deputy General Counsel is vacant, the acting Deputy General Counsel. The authority to acknowledge receipt of a request has been delegated to an Associate General Counsel under the Deputy General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.5   Notice to DoD relating to a third-party claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to file a notice to DoD of a third-party claim.</I> (1) Notice to DoD of receipt of a third-party claim, or intent to enter into, agree to, settle, or solicit such a claim, must be received by the Deputy General Counsel at the following address: Deputy General Counsel, Environment, Energy, and Installations, 1600 Defense Pentagon, Room 3B747, Washington, DC 20301-1600, (703-693-4895) or (703-692-2287).
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering or otherwise filing a notice of a third-party claim with any other office or location will not constitute proper notice for purposes of this part. Requesters should be aware that all delivery services, and particularly that of the USPS, to the Pentagon can be significantly delayed for security purposes and they should plan accordingly in order to meet any required filing deadlines under this part; use of a commercial delivery service may reduce the delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual notices.</I> A notice to DoD of a third-party claim must be filed separately for each person or entity that is filing the notice. Notices may not be filed jointly for a group, a class, or for multiple persons or entities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Means of filing a notice of a third-party claim.</I> A notice of a third-party claim must be submitted in writing by mail through the USPS or by a commercial delivery service. While the Deputy General Counsel will affirmatively acknowledge receipt of a notice of a third-party claim, it is recommended that a requester, whether using the USPS or a commercial delivery service, mail its notice by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or equivalent proof of delivery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to be included in a notice to DoD of a third-party claim.</I> A notice to DoD of a third-party claim must include, at a minimum, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A complete copy of the third-party claim, or, if not presented in writing, a complete summary of the claim, with the names of officers, employees, or agents with knowledge of any information that may be relevant to the claim or any potential defenses. The third-party claim may consist of a summons and complaint or, in the case of a third-party claim from a governmental regulatory authority, a notice, letter, order, compliance advisory, compliance agreement, or similar notification.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete copy of all pertinent records, including any deed, sales agreement, bill of sale, lease, license, easement, right-of-way, or transfer document for the facility for which the third-party claim is made.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester is not the first transferee from DoD, a complete copy of all intervening deeds, sales agreements, bills of sale, leases, licenses, easements, rights-of-way, or other transfer documents between the original transfer from DoD and the transfer to the current owner. If the requester is a lender who has made a loan to a person or entity who owns, controls, or leases the facility for which the request for indemnification is made that is secured by said facility, complete copies of all promissory notes, mortgages, deeds of trust, assignments, or other documents evidencing such a loan by the requester.
</P>
<P>(4) A complete copy of any insurance policies related to such facility.
</P>
<P>(5) If the notice to DoD of a third-party claim is being made by a representative, agent, or attorney in fact or at law, proof of authority to make the notice on behalf of the requester.
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence or proof of any claim, loss, or damage alleged to be suffered by the third-party claimant which the requester asserts is covered by section 330 or by section 1502(e).
</P>
<P>(7) In the case where a requester intends to enter into, agree to, settle, or solicit a third-party claim, a description or copy of the proposed claim, settlement, or solicitation, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(8) To the extent that any environmental response action has been taken, the documentation supporting such response action and its costs included in the request for indemnification.
</P>
<P>(9) To the extent that any environmental response action has been taken, a statement as to whether the remedial action is consistent with the National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan (part 300 of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations) or other applicable regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(10) A complete copy of any claims made by the requester to any other entity related to the conditions on the property which are the subject of the claim, and any responses or defenses thereto or made to any third-party claims, including correspondence, litigation filings, consultant reports, and other information supporting a claim or defense.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Entry, inspection, and samples.</I> The requester must provide DoD a right of entry at reasonable times to any facility, establishment, place, or property under the requester's control which is the subject of or associated with the requester's notice of third-party claim and must allow DoD to inspect or obtain samples from that facility, establishment, place, or property.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional information.</I> The Deputy General Counsel will advise a requester in writing of any additional information that must be provided to defend against a claim. Failure to provide the additional information in a timely manner may result in denial of a request for indemnification or defense for lack of information to adjudicate the claim.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When to file a notice to DoD of a third-party claim.</I> (1) A requester must, within 15 days of receiving a third-party claim, file with DoD a notice of such claim in accordance with this part. Failure to timely file such a notice, if it in any way compromises the ability of DoD to defend against such a claim pursuant to section 330(c) or section 1502(e)(3), will result in denial of any subsequent request for indemnification or defense resulting from such a claim. Requesters who take action in compliance with any such third-party claim, or any part of such claim, without first providing DoD with a notice of such claim in accordance with this section do so at their own risk.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester must, at least 30 days prior to the earlier of entering into, agreeing to, settling, or soliciting a third-party claim, file a notice to DoD of such intent in accordance with this part. Failure to file such a notice will compromise the ability of DoD to defend against such a claim pursuant to section 330(c) or section 1502(e)(3) and will result in denial of any subsequent request for indemnification or defense resulting from such a claim.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester may, if it believes more immediate notice to DoD is desirable or less than all the information required by paragraph (d) of this section is immediately available, contact the Deputy General Counsel using the phone numbers in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Any such contact does not constitute compliance with the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section unless and until the Deputy General Counsel subsequently provides written confirmation that the notice constitutes such compliance. Such written confirmation may be provided by electronic means.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>No implication from DoD action.</I> Any actions taken by DoD related to defending a claim do not constitute a decision by DoD that the requester is entitled to indemnification or defense.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice also constituting a request for indemnification or defense.</I> Notice of receipt of a third-party claim may also constitute a request for indemnification or defense if that notice complies with all applicable requirements for a request for indemnification or defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.60.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.6   Filing a request for indemnification or defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to file a request for indemnification or defense.</I> (1) In order to notify DoD in accordance with section 330(b)(1) or section 1502(e)(2)(A), a request for indemnification or defense pursuant to section 330 or section 1502(e) must be received by the Deputy General Counsel at the following address: Deputy General Counsel, Environment, Energy, and Installations, 1600 Defense Pentagon, Room 3B747, Washington, DC 20301-1600, (703-693-4895) or (703-692-2287).
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering or otherwise filing a request for indemnification or defense with any other office or location will not constitute proper notice of a request for purposes of section 330(b)(1) or section 1502(e)(2)(A). Requesters should be aware that all delivery services, and particularly that of the USPS, to the Pentagon can be significantly delayed for security purposes and they should plan accordingly in order to meet any required filing deadlines under this part; use of a commercial delivery service may reduce the delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file a request for indemnification or defense.</I> A request for indemnification must be received by the Deputy General Counsel within two years after the claim giving rise to the request accrues. A request for defense must be received by the Deputy General Counsel in sufficient time to allow the United States to provide the requested defense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Means of filing a request for indemnification or defense.</I> A request for indemnification or defense must be submitted in writing by mail through the USPS or by a commercial delivery service. While the Deputy General Counsel will affirmatively acknowledge receipt of a request for indemnification or defense, it is recommended that a requester, whether using the USPS or a commercial delivery service, mail its request by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or equivalent proof of delivery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual requests.</I> A request for indemnification or defense must be filed separately for each person or entity that is making the request. Requests may not be filed jointly for a group, a class, or for multiple persons or entities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information to be included in a request for indemnification or defense.</I> A request for indemnification or defense must include, at a minimum, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A complete copy of the third-party claim, or, if not presented in writing, a complete summary of the claim, with the names of officers, employees, or agents with knowledge of any information that may be relevant to the claim or any potential defenses.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete copy of all pertinent records, including any deed, sales agreement, bill of sale, lease, license, easement, right-of-way, or transfer document for the facility for which the request for indemnification or defense is made.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester is not the first transferee from DoD, a complete copy of all intervening deeds, sales agreements, bills of sale, leases, licenses, easements, rights-of-way, or other transfer documents between the original transfer from DoD and the transfer to the current owner. If the requester is a lender who has made a loan to a person or entity who owns, controls, or leases the facility for which the request for indemnification is made that is secured by said facility, complete copies of all promissory notes, mortgages, deeds of trust, assignments, or other documents evidencing such a loan by the requester.
</P>
<P>(4) A complete copy of any insurance policies related to such facility.
</P>
<P>(5) If the request for indemnification or defense is being made by a representative, agent, or attorney in fact or at law, proof of authority to make the request on behalf of the requester.
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence or proof of any claim, loss, or damage covered by section 330 or by section 1502(e).
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of a request for defense, a copy of the documents, such as a summons and complaint, or enforcement order, representing the matter against which the United States is being asked to defend.
</P>
<P>(8) To the extent that any environmental response action has been taken, the documentation supporting such response action and its costs included in the request for indemnification.
</P>
<P>(9) To the extent that any environmental response action has been taken, a statement as to whether the remedial action is consistent with the National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan (part 300 of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations) or other applicable regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(10) A complete copy of any claims made by the requester to any other entity related to the conditions on the property which are the subject of the claim, and any responses or defenses thereto or made to any third-party claims, including correspondence, litigation filings, consultant reports, and other information supporting a claim or defense.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entry, inspection, and samples.</I> The requester must provide DoD a right of entry at reasonable times to any facility, establishment, place, or property under the requester's control which is the subject of or associated with the requester's request for indemnification or defense and must allow DoD to inspect or obtain samples from that facility, establishment, place, or property.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional information.</I> The Deputy General Counsel will advise a requester in writing of any additional information that must be provided to adjudicate the request for indemnification or defense. Failure to provide the additional information in a timely manner may result in denial of the request for indemnification or defense.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Adjudication.</I> The Deputy General Counsel will adjudicate a request for indemnification or defense and provide the requester with DoD's determination of the validity of the request. Such determination will be in writing and sent to the requester by certified or registered mail.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Any such determination will provide that the requester may ask for reconsideration of the determination. Such reconsideration shall be limited to an assertion by the requester of substantial new evidence or errors in calculation. The requester may seek such reconsideration by filing a request to that effect. A request for reconsideration must be received by the Deputy General Counsel within 30 days after receipt of the determination by the requester. Such a request must be sent to the same address as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and provide the substantial new evidence or identify the errors in calculation. Such reconsideration will not extend to determinations concerning the law, except as it may have been applied to the facts. A request for reconsideration will be acted on within 30 days from the time it is received. If a request for reconsideration is made, the six month period referred to in section 330(b)(1) and section 1502(e)(2)(A) will commence from the date the requester receives DoD's denial of the request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Finality of adjudication.</I> An adjudication of a request for indemnification constitutes final administrative disposition of such a request, except in the case of a request for reconsideration under paragraph (i) of this section, in which case a denial of the request for reconsideration constitutes final administrative disposition of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="176" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 176—REVITALIZING BASE CLOSURE COMMUNITIES AND COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE—COMMUNITY REDEVELOPMENT AND HOMELESS ASSISTANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2687 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 35346, July 1, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 176.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements the Base Closure Community Redevelopment and Homeless Assistance Act, as amended (10 U.S.C. 2687 note), which instituted a new community-based process for addressing the needs of the homeless at base closure and realignment sites. In this process, Local Redevelopment Authorities (LRAs) identify interest from homeless providers in installation property and develop a redevelopment plan for the installation that balances the economic redevelopment and other development needs of the communities in the vicinity of the installation with the needs of the homeless in those communities. The Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) reviews the LRA's plan to see that an appropriate balance is achieved. This part also implements the process for identifying interest from State and local entities for property under a public benefit transfer. The LRA is responsible for concurrently identifying interest from homeless providers and State and local entities interested in property under a public benefit transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>CERCLA.</I> Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Communities in the vicinity of the installation.</I> The communities that constitute the political jurisdictions (other than the State in which the installation is located) that comprise the LRA for the installation. If no LRA is formed at the local level, and the State is serving in that capacity, the communities in the vicinity of the installation are deemed to be those political jurisdiction(s) (other than the State) in which the installation is located.
</P>
<P><I>Continuum of care system.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A comprehensive homeless assistance system that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A system of outreach and assessment for determining the needs and condition of an individual or family who is homeless, or whether assistance is necessary to prevent an individual or family from becoming homeless;
</P>
<P>(ii) Emergency shelters with appropriate supportive services to help ensure that homeless individuals and families receive adequate emergency shelter and referral to necessary service providers or housing finders;
</P>
<P>(iii) Transitional housing with appropriate supportive services to help those homeless individuals and families who are not prepared to make the transition to independent living;
</P>
<P>(iv) Housing with or without supportive services that has no established limitation on the amount of time of residence to help meet long-term needs of homeless individuals and families; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Any other activity that clearly meets an identified need of the homeless and fills a gap in the continuum of care.
</P>
<P>(2) Supportive services are services that enable homeless persons and families to move through the continuum of care toward independent living. These services include, but are not limited to, case management, housing counseling, job training and placement, primary health care, mental health services, substance abuse treatment, child care, transportation, emergency food and clothing family violence services, education services, moving services, assistance in obtaining entitlements, and referral to veterans services and legal services.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated Plan.</I> The plan prepared in accordance with the requirements of 24 CFR part 91.
</P>
<P><I>Day.</I> One calendar day including weekends and holidays.
</P>
<P><I>DoD.</I> Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>HHS.</I> Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Homeless person.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An individual or family who lacks a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence; and
</P>
<P>(2) An individual or family who has a primary nighttime residence that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A supervised publicly or privately operated shelter designed to provide temporary living accommodations (including welfare hotels, congregate shelters and transitional housing for the mentally ill);
</P>
<P>(ii) An institution that provides a temporary residence for individuals intended to be institutionalized; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) A public or private place not designed for, or ordinarily used as, a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings.
</P>
<P>(3) This term does not include any individual imprisoned or otherwise detained under an Act of the Congress or a State law.
</P>
<P><I>HUD.</I> Department of Housing and Urban Development.
</P>
<P><I>Installation.</I> A base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship or other activity under the jurisdiction of DoD, including any leased facility, that is approved for closure or realignment under the Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-526). as amended, or the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-510), as amended (both at 10 U.S.C. 2687, note).
</P>
<P><I>Local redevelopment authority (LRA).</I> Any authority or instrumentality established by State or local government and recognized by the Secretary of Defense, through the Office of Economic Adjustment, as the entity responsible for developing the redevelopment plan with respect to the installation or for directing implementation of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>NEPA.</I> National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4320).
</P>
<P><I>OEA.</I> Office of Economic Adjustment, Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Private nonprofit organization.</I> An organization, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any member, founder, contributor, or individual; that has a voluntary board; that has an accounting system or has designated an entity that will maintain a functioning accounting system for the organization in accordance with generally accepted accounting procedures; and that practices nondiscrimination in the provision of assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Public benefit transfer.</I> The transfer of surplus military property for a specified public purpose at up to a 100-percent discount in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 471 <I>et seq.</I> or 49 U.S.C. 47151-47153.
</P>
<P><I>Redevelopment plan.</I> A plan that is agreed by the LRA with respect to the installation and provides for the reuse or redevelopment of the real property and personal property of the installation that is available for such reuse and redevelopment as a result of the closure of the installation.
</P>
<P><I>Representative(s) of the homeless.</I> A State or local government agency or private nonprofit organization, including a homeless assistance planning board, that provides or proposes to provide services to the homeless.
</P>
<P><I>Substantially equivalent.</I> Property that is functionally suitable to substitute for property referred to in an approved Title V application. For example, if the representative of the homeless had an approved Title V application for a building that would accommodate 100 homeless persons in an emergency shelter, the replacement facility would also have to accommodate 100 at a comparable cost for renovation.
</P>
<P><I>Substantially equivalent funding.</I> Sufficient funding to acquire a substantially equivalent facility.
</P>
<P><I>Surplus property.</I> Any excess property not required for the needs and the discharge of the responsibilities of all Federal Agencies. Authority to make this determination, after screening with all Federal Agencies, rests with the Military Departments.
</P>
<P><I>Title V.</I> Title V of the Steward B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act of 1987 (42 U.S.C. 11411) as amended by the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160).
</P>
<P><I>Urban county.</I> A county within a metropolitan area as defined at 24 CFR 570.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.10" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.10   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part applies to all installations that are approved for closure/realignment by the President and Congress under Pub. L. 101-510 after October 25, 1994.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for inclusion under this process.</I> This part also applies to installations that were approved for closure/realignment under either Public Law 100-526 or Public Law 101-510 prior to October 25, 1994 and for which an LRA submitted a request for inclusion under this part to DoD by December 24, 1994. A list of such requests was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on May 30, 1995 (60 FR 28089).
</P>
<P>(1) For installations with Title V applications pending but not approved before October 25, 1994, the LRA shall consider and specifically address any application for use of buildings and property to assist the homeless that were received by HHS prior to October 25, 1994, and were spending with the Secretary of HHS on that date. These pending requests shall be addressed in the LRA's homeless assistance submission.
</P>
<P>(2) For installations with Title V applications approved before October 25, 1994 where there is an approved Title V application, but property has not been assigned or otherwise disposed of by the Military Department, the LRA must ensure that its homeless assistance submission provides the Title V applicant with:
</P>
<P>(i) The property requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) Properties, on or off the installation, that are substantially equivalent to those requested;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sufficient funding to acquire such substantially equivalent properties;
</P>
<P>(iv) Services and activities that meet the needs identified in the application; or,
</P>
<P>(v) A combination of the properties, funding, and services and activities described in § 176.10(b)(2)(i)-(iv) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Revised Title V process.</I> All other installations approved for closure or realignment under either Public Law 100-526 or Public Law 101-510 prior to October 25, 1994, for which there was no request for consideration under this part, are covered by the process stipulated under Title V. Buildings or property that were transferred or leased for homeless use under Title V prior to October 25, 1994, may not be reconsidered under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.15" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.15   Waivers and extensions of deadlines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After consultation with the LRA and HUD, and upon a finding that it is in the interest of the communities affected by the closure/realignment of the installation, DoD, through the Director of the Office of Economic Adjustment, may extend or postpone any deadline contained in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon completion of a determination and finding of good cause, and except for deadlines and actions required on the part of DoD, HUD may waive any provision of §§ 176.20 through 176.45 of this part in any particular case, subject only to statutory limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.20" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.20   Overview of the process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recognition of the LRA.</I> As soon as practicable after the list of installations recommended for closure or realignment is approved, DoD, through OEA, will recognize an LRA for the installation. Upon recognition, OEA shall publish the name, address, and point of contact for the LRA in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a newspaper of general circulation in the communities in the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the Military Department.</I> The Military Department shall make installation properties available to other DoD components and Federal agencies in accordance with the procedures set out at 32 CFR part 174. The Military Department will keep the LRA informed of other Federal interest in the property during this process. Upon completion of this process the Military Department will notify HUD and either the LRA or the Chief Executive Officer of the State, as appropriate, and publish a list of surplus property on the installation that will be available for reuse in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a newspaper of general circulation in the communities in the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of the LRA.</I> The LRA should begin to conduct outreach efforts with respect to the installation as soon as is practicable after the date of approval of closure/realignment of the installation. The local reuse planning process must begin no later than the date of the Military Department's <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of available property described at § 176.20(b). For those installations that began the process described in this part prior to August 17, 1995, HUD will, on a case-by-case basis, determine whether the statutory requirements have been fulfilled and whether any additional requirements listed in this part should be required. Upon the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication described in § 176.20(b), the LRA shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Publish, within 30 days, in a newspaper of general circulation in the communities in the vicinity of the installation, the time period during which the LRA will receive notices of interest from State and local governments, representatives of the homeless, and other interested parties. This publication shall include the name, address, telephone number and the point of contact for the LRA who can provide information on the prescribed form and contents of the notices of interest. The LRA shall notify DoD of the deadline specified for receipt of notices of interest. LRAs are strongly encouraged to make this publication as soon as possible within the permissible 30 day period in order to expedite the closure process.
</P>
<P>(i) In addition, the LRA has the option to conduct an informal solicitation of notices of interest from public and non-profit entities interested in obtaining property via a public benefit transfer other than a homeless assistance conveyance under either 40 U.S.C. 471 <I>et. seq.</I> or 49 U.S.C. 47151-47153. As part of such a solicitation, the LRA may wish to request that interested entities submit a description of the proposed use to the LRA and the sponsoring Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For all installations selected for closure or realignment prior to 1995 that elected to proceed under Public Law 103-421, the LRA shall accept notices of interest for not less than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) For installations selected for closure or realignment in 1995 or thereafter, notices of interest shall be accepted for a minimum of 90 days and not more than 180 days after the LRA's publication under § 176.20(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribe the form and contents of notices of interest.
</P>
<P>(i) The LRA may not release to the public any information regarding the capacity of the representative of the homeless to carry out its program, a description of the organization, or its financial plan for implementing the program, without the consent of the representative of the homeless concerned, unless such release is authorized under Federal law and under the law of the State and communities in which the installation concerned is located. The identity of the representative of the homeless may be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notices of interest from representatives of the homeless must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the homeless assistance program proposed, including the purposes to which the property or facility will be put, which may include uses such as supportive services, job and skills training, employment programs, shelters, transitional housing or housing with no established limitation on the amount of time of residence, food and clothing banks, treatment facilities, or any other activity which clearly meets an identified need of the homeless and fills a gap in the continuum of care;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the need for the program;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the extent to which the program is or will be coordinated with other homeless assistance programs in the communities in the vicinity of the installation;
</P>
<P>(D) Information about the physical requirements necessary to carry out the program including a description of the buildings and property at the installation that are necessary to carry out the program;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the financial plan, the organization, and the organizational capacity of the representative of the homeless to carry out the program; and,
</P>
<P>(F) An assessment of the time required to start carrying out the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notices of interest from entities other than representatives of the homeless should specify the name of the entity and specific interest in property or facilities along with a description of the planned use.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the notice required under § 176.20(c)(1), undertake outreach efforts to representatives of the homeless by contacting local government officials and other persons or entities that may be interested in assisting the homeless within the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(i) The LRA may invite persons and organizations identified on the HUD list of representatives of the homeless and any other representatives of the homeless with which the LRA is familiar, operating in the vicinity of the installation, to the workshop described in § 176.20(c)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) The LRA, in coordination with the Military Department and HUD, shall conduct at least one workshop where representatives of the homeless have an opportunity to:
</P>
<P>(A) Learn about the closure/realignment and disposal process;
</P>
<P>(B) Tour the buildings and properties available either on or off the installation;
</P>
<P>(C) Learn about the LRA's process and schedule for receiving notices of interest as guided by § 176.20(c)(2); and,
</P>
<P>(D) Learn about any known land use constraints affecting the available property and buildings.
</P>
<P>(iii) The LRA should meet with representatives of the homeless that express interest in discussing possible uses for these properties to alleviate gaps in the continuum of care.
</P>
<P>(4) Consider various properties in response to the notices of interest. The LRA may consider property that is located off the installation.
</P>
<P>(5) Develop an application, including the redevelopment plan and homeless assistance submission, explaining how the LRA proposes to address the needs of the homeless. This application shall consider the notices of interest received from State and local governments, representatives of the homeless, and other interested parties. This shall include, but not be limited to, entities eligible for public benefit transfers under either 40 U.S.C. 471 <I>et. seq.,</I> or 49 U.S.C. 47151-47153; representatives of the homeless; commercial, industrial, and residential development interests; and other interests. From the deadline date for receipt of notices of interest described at § 176.20(c)(1), the LRA shall have 270 days to complete and submit the LRA application to the appropriate Military Department and HUD. The application requirements are described at § 176.30.
</P>
<P>(6) Make the draft application available to the public for review and comment periodically during the process of developing the application. The LRA must conduct at least one public hearing on the application prior to its submission to HUD and the appropriate Military Department. A summary of the public comments received during the process of developing the application shall be included in the application when it is submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public benefit transfer screening.</I> The LRA should, while conducting its outreach efforts, work with the Federal agencies that sponsor public benefit transfers under either 40 U.S.C. 471 <I>et. seq.</I> or 49 U.S.C. 47151-47153. Those agencies can provide a list of parties in the vicinity of the installation that might be interested in and eligible for public benefit transfers. The LRA should make a reasonable effort to inform such parties of the availability of the property and incorporate their interests within the planning process. Actual recipients of property are to be determined by sponsoring Federal agency. The Military Departments shall notify sponsoring Federal agencies about property that is available based on the community redevelopment plan and keep the LRA apprised of any expressions of interest. Such expressions of interest are not required to be incorporated into the redevelopment plan, but must be considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 35346, July 1, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 9927, Feb. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.25" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.25   HUD's negotiations and consultations with the LRA.</HEAD>
<P>HUD may negotiate and consult with the LRA before and during the course of preparation of the LRA's application and during HUD's review thereof with a view toward avoiding any preliminary determination that the application does not meet any requirement of this part. LRAs are encouraged to contact HUD for a list of persons and organizations that are representatives of the homeless operating in the vicinity of the installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.30" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.30   LRA application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Redevelopment plan.</I> A copy of the redevelopment plan shall be part of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Homeless assistance submission.</I> This component of the application shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Information about homelessness in the communities in the vicinity of the installation. 
</P>
<P>(i) A list of all the political jurisdictions which comprise the LRA. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the unmet need in the continuum of care system within each political jurisdiction, which should include information about any gaps that exist in the continuum of care for particular homeless subpopulations. The source for this information shall depend upon the size and nature of the political jurisdictions(s) that comprise the LRA. LRAs representing: 
</P>
<P>(A) Political jurisdictions that are required to submit a Consolidated Plan shall include a copy of their Homeless and Special Needs Population Table (Table 1), Priority Homeless Needs Assessment Table (Table 2), and narrative description thereof from that Consolidated Plan, including the inventory of facilities and services that assist the homeless in the jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(B) Political jurisdictions that are part of an urban county that is required to submit a Consolidated Plan shall include a copy of their Homeless and Special Needs Population Table (Table 1), Priority Homeless Needs Assessment Table (Table 2), and narrative description thereof from that Consolidated Plan, including the inventory of facilities and services that assist the homeless in the jurisdiction. In addition, the LRA shall explain what portion of the homeless population and subpopulations described in the Consolidated Plan are attributable to the political jurisdiction it represents. 
</P>
<P>(C) A political jurisdiction not described by § 176.30(b)(1)(ii)(A) or § 176.30(b)(1)(ii)(B) shall submit a narrative description of what it perceives to be the homeless population within the jurisdiction and a brief inventory of the facilities and services that assist homeless persons and families within the jurisdiction. LRAs that represent these jurisdictions are not required to conduct surveys of the homeless population. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notices of interest proposing assistance to homeless persons and/or families.
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the proposed activities to be carried out on or off the installation and a discussion of how these activities meet a portion or all of the needs of the homeless by addressing the gaps in the continuum of care. The activities need not be limited to expressions of interest in property, but may also include discussions of how economic redevelopment may benefit the homeless; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of each notice of interest from representatives of the homeless for use of buildings and property and a description of the manner in which the LRA's application addresses the need expressed in each notice of interest. If the LRA determines that a particular notice of interest should not be awarded property, an explanation of why the LRA determined not to support that notice of interest, the reasons for which may include the impact of the program contained in the notice of interest on the community as described in § 176.30(b)(2)(iii); and,
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the impact that the implemented redevelopment plan will have on the community. This shall include information on how the LRA's redevelopment plan might impact the character of existing neighborhoods adjacent to the properties proposed to be used to assist the homeless and should discuss alternative plans. Impact on schools, social services, transportation, infrastructure, and concentration of minorities and/or low income persons shall also be discussed.
</P>
<P>(3) Legally binding agreements for buildings, property, funding, and/or services. 
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the legally binding agreements that the LRA proposes to enter into with the representative(s) of the homeless selected by the LRA to implement homeless programs that fill gaps in the existing continuum of care. The legally binding agreements shall provide for a process for negotiating alternative arrangements in the event that an environmental analysis conducted under § 176.45(b) indicates that any property identified for transfer in the agreement is not suitable for the intended purpose. Where the balance determined in accordance with § 176.30(b)(4) provides for the use of installation property as a homeless assistance facility, legally binding agreements must provide for the reversion or transfer, either to the LRA or to another entity or entities, of the buildings and property in the event they cease to be used for the homeless. In cases where the balance proposed by the LRA does not include the use of buildings or property on the installation, the legally binding agreements need not be tied to the use of specific real property and need not include a reverter clause. Legally binding agreements shall be accompanied by a legal opinion of the chief legal advisor of the LRA or political jurisdiction or jurisdictions which will be executing the legally binding agreements that the legally binding agreements, when executed, will constitute legal, valid, binding, and enforceable obligations on the parties thereto;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of how buildings, property, funding, and/or services either on or off the installation will be used to fill some of the gaps in the current continuum of care system and an explanation of the suitability of the buildings and property for that use; and, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the availability of general services such as transportation, police, and fire protection, and a discussion of infrastructure such as water, sewer, and electricity in the vicinity of the proposed homeless activity at the installation.
</P>
<P>(4) An assessment of the balance with economic and other development needs. 
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the manner in which the application balances the expressed needs of the homeless and the needs of the communities comprising the LRA for economic redevelopment and other development; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of how the LRA's application is consistent with the appropriate Consolidated Plan(s) or any other existing housing, social service, community, economic, or other development plans adopted by the jurisdictions in the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the outreach undertaken by the LRA. The LRA shall explain how the outreach requirements described at § 176.20(c)(1) and § 176.20(c)(3) have been fulfilled. This explanation shall include a list of the representatives of the homeless the LRA contacted during the outreach process.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public comments.</I> The LRA application shall include the materials described at § 176.20(c)(6). These materials shall be prefaced with an overview of the citizen participation process observed in preparing the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.35" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.35   HUD's review of the application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> HUD shall complete a review of each application no later than 60 days after its receipt of a completed application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards of review.</I> The purpose of the review is to determine whether the application is complete and, with respect to the expressed interest and requests of representatives of the homeless, whether the application:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Need.</I> Takes into consideration the size and nature of the homeless population in the communities in the vicinity of the installation, the availability of existing services in such communities to meet the needs of the homeless in such communities, and the suitability of the buildings and property covered by the application for use and needs of the homeless in such communities. HUD will take into consideration the size and nature of the installation in reviewing the needs of the homeless population in the communities in the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Impact of notices of interest. Takes into consideration any economic impact of the homeless assistance under the plan on the communities in the vicinity of the installation, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the plan is feasible in light of demands that would be placed on available social services, police and fire protection, and infrastructure in the community; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the selected notices of interest are consistent with the Consolidated Plan(s) of any other existing housing, social service, community economic, or other development plans adopted by the political jurisdictions in the vicinity of the installation.
</P>
<P>(3) Legally binding agreements. Specifies the manner in which the buildings, property, funding, and/or services on or off the installation will be made available for homeless assistance purposes. HUD will review each legally binding agreement to verify that:
</P>
<P>(i) They include all the documents legally required to complete the transactions necessary to realize the homeless use(s) described in the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) They include all appropriate terms and conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) They address the full range of contingencies including those described at § 176.30(b)(3)(i);
</P>
<P>(iv) They stipulate that the buildings, property, funding, and/or services will be made available to the representatives of the homeless in a timely fashion; and,
</P>
<P>(v) They are accompanied by a legal opinion of the chief legal advisor of the LRA or political jurisdiction or jurisdictions which will be executing the legally binding agreements that the legally binding agreements will, when executed, constitute legal, valid, binding, and enforceable obligations on the parties thereto.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Balance.</I> Balances in an appropriate manner a portion or all of the needs of the communities in the vicinity or the installation for economic redevelopment and other development with the needs of the homeless in such communities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Outreach.</I> Was developed in consultation with representatives of the homeless and the homeless assistance planning boards, if any, in the communities in the vicinity of the installation and whether the outreach requirements described at § 176.20(c)(1) and § 176.20(c)(3) have been fulfilled by the LRA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of determination.</I> (1) HUD shall, no later than the 60th day after its receipt of the application, unless such deadline is extended pursuant to § 176.15(a), send written notification both to DoD and the LRA of its preliminary determination that the application meets or fails to meet the requirements of § 176.35(b). If the application fails to meet the requirements, HUD will send the LRA:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the deficiencies in the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of the determination; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of how the LRA must address the determinations.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that no application is submitted and no extension is requested as of the deadline specified in § 176.20(c)(5), and the State does not accept within 30 days a DoD written request to become recognized as the LRA, the absence of such application will trigger an adverse determination by HUD effective on the date of the lapsed deadline. Under these conditions, HUD will follow the process described at § 176.40.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Opportunity to cure.</I> (1) The LRA shall have 90 days from its receipt of the notice of preliminary determination under § 176.35(c)(1) within which to submit to HUD and DoD a revised application which addresses the determinations listed in the notice. Failure to submit a revised application shall result in a final determination, effective 90 days from the LRA's receipt of the preliminary determination, that the redevelopment plan fails to meet the requirements of § 176.35(b).
</P>
<P>(2) HUD shall, within 30 days of its receipt of the LRA's resubmission send written notification of its final determination of whether the application meets the requirements of § 176.35(b) to both DOD and the LRA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.40" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.40   Adverse determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review and consultation.</I> If the resubmission fails to meet the requirements of § 176.35(b) or if no resubmission is received, HUD will review the original application, including the notices of interest submitted by representatives of the homeless. In addition, in such instances or when no original application has been submitted, HUD:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall consult with the representatives of the homeless, if any, for purposes of evaluation the continuing interest of such representatives in the use of buildings or property at the installation to assist the homeless;
</P>
<P>(2) May consult with the applicable Military Department regarding the suitability of the buildings and property at the installation for use to assist the homeless; and,
</P>
<P>(3) May consult with representatives of the homeless and other parties as necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of decision.</I> (1) Within 90 days of receipt of an LRA's revised application which HUD determines does not meet the requirements of § 176.35(b), HUD shall, based upon its reviews and consultations under § 176.40(a):
</P>
<P>(i) Notify DoD and the LRA of the buildings and property at the installation that HUD determines are suitable for use to assist the homeless, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify DoD and the LRA of the extent to which the revised redevelopment plan meets the criteria set forth in § 176.35(b).
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that an LRA does not submit a revised redevelopment plan under § 176.35(d), HUD shall, based upon its reviews and consultations under § 176.40(a), notify DoD and the LRA of the buildings and property at the installation that HUD determines are suitable for use to assist the homeless, either
</P>
<P>(i) Within 190 days after HUD sends its notice of preliminary adverse determination under § 176.35(c)(1), if an LRA has not submitted a revised redevelopment plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 390 days after the Military Department's <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of available property under § 176.20(b), if no redevelopment plan has been received and no extension has been approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.45" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.61.0.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.45   Disposal of buildings and property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public benefit transfer screening.</I> Not later than the LRA's submission of its redevelopment plan to DoD and HUD, the Military Development will conduct an official public benefit transfer screening in accordance with the Federal Property Management Regulations (41 CFR 101-47.303-2) based upon the uses identified in the redevelopment plan. Federal sponsoring agencies shall notify eligible applicants that any request for property must be consistent with the uses identified in the redevelopment plan. At the request of the LRA, the Military Department may conduct the official State and local public benefit screening at any time after the publication of available property described at § 176.20(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Environmental analysis.</I> Prior to disposal of any real property, the Military Department shall, consistent with NEPA and section 2905 of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, as amended (10 U.S.C. 2687 note), complete an environmental impact analysis of all reasonable disposal alternatives. The Military Department shall consult with the LRA throughout the environmental impact analysis process to ensure both that the LRA is provided the most current environmental information available concerning the installation, and that the Military Department receives the most current information available concerning the LRA's redevelopment plans for the installation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposal.</I> Upon receipt of a notice of approval of an application from HUD under § 176.35(c)(1) or § 176.35(d)(2), DoD shall dispose of buildings and property in accordance with the record of decision or other decision document prepared under § 176.45(b). Disposal of buildings and property to be used as homeless assistance facilities shall be to either the LRA or directly to the representative(s) of the homeless and shall be without consideration. Upon receipt of a notice from HUD under § 176.40(b), DoD will dispose of the buildings and property at the installation in consultation with HUD and the LRA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>LRA's responsibility.</I> The LRA shall be responsible for the implementation of and compliance with legally binding agreements under the application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reversions to the LRA.</I> If a building or property reverts to the LRA under a legally binding agreement under the application, the LRA shall take appropriate actions to secure, to the maximum extent practicable, the utilization of the building or property by other homeless representatives to assist the homeless. An LRA may not be required to utilize the building or property to assist the homeless.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="179" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 179—MUNITIONS RESPONSE SITE PRIORITIZATION PROTOCOL (MRSPP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2710 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 58028, Oct. 5, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 179.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Defense (the Department) is adopting this Munitions Response Site Prioritization Protocol (MRSPP) (hereinafter referred to as the “rule”) under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 2710(b). Provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2710(b) require that the Department assign to each defense site in the inventory required by 10 U.S.C. 2710(a) a relative priority for response activities based on the overall conditions at each location and taking into consideration various factors related to safety and environmental hazards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Defense Agencies and the Department Field Activities, and any other Department organizational entity or instrumentality established to perform a government function (hereafter referred to collectively as the “Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The rule in this part shall be applied at all locations:
</P>
<P>(1) That are, or were, owned by, leased to, or otherwise possessed or used by the Department, and
</P>
<P>(2) That are known to, or suspected of, containing unexploded ordnance (UXO), discarded military munitions (DMM), or munitions constituents (MC), and
</P>
<P>(3) That are included in the inventory established pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2710(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The rule in this part shall not be applied at the locations not included in the inventory required under 10 U.S.C. 2710(a). The locations not included in the inventory are:
</P>
<P>(1) Locations that are not, or were not, owned by, leased to, or otherwise possessed or used by the Department,
</P>
<P>(2) Locations neither known to contain, or suspected of containing, UXO, DMM, or MC,
</P>
<P>(3) Locations outside the United States,
</P>
<P>(4) Locations where the presence of military munitions results from combat operations,
</P>
<P>(5) Currently operating military munitions storage and manufacturing facilities,
</P>
<P>(6) Locations that are used for, or were permitted for, the treatment or disposal of military munitions, and
</P>
<P>(7) Operational ranges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>This part includes definitions for many terms that clarify its scope and applicability. Many of the terms relevant to this part are already defined, either in 10 U.S.C. 101, 10 U.S.C. 2710(e), or the Code of Federal Regulations. Where this is the case, the statutory and regulatory definitions are repeated here strictly for ease of reference. Citations to the U.S. Code or the Code of Federal Regulations are provided with the definition, as applicable. Unless used elsewhere in the U.S. Code or the Code of Federal Regulations, these terms are defined only for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means a natural obstacle or obstacles (<I>e.g.</I>, difficult terrain, dense vegetation, deep or fast-moving water), a man-made obstacle or obstacles (<I>e.g.</I>, fencing), and combinations of natural and man-made obstacles.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical agent (CA)</I> means a chemical compound (to include experimental compounds) that, through its chemical properties produces lethal or other damaging effects on human beings, is intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate persons through its physiological effects. Excluded are research, development, testing and evaluation (RDTE) solutions; riot control agents; chemical defoliants and herbicides; smoke and other obscuration materials; flame and incendiary materials; and industrial chemicals. (This definition is based on the definition of “chemical agent and munition” in 50 U.S.C. 1521(j)(1).)
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Agent (CA) Hazard</I> is a condition where danger exists because CA is present in a concentration high enough to present potential unacceptable effects (<I>e.g.</I>, death, injury, damage) to people, operational capability, or the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Warfare Materiel (CWM)</I> means generally configured as a munition containing a chemical compound that is intended to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate a person through its physiological effects. CWM includes V- and G-series nerve agents or H-series (mustard) and L-series (lewisite) blister agents in other-than-munition configurations; and certain industrial chemicals (<I>e.g.</I>, hydrogen cyanide (AC), cyanogen chloride (CK), or carbonyl dichloride (called phosgene or CG)) configured as a military munition. Due to their hazards, prevalence, and military-unique application, chemical agent identification sets (CAIS) are also considered CWM. CWM does not include riot control devices; chemical defoliants and herbicides; industrial chemicals (<I>e.g.</I>, AC, CK, or CG) not configured as a munition; smoke and other obscuration-producing items; flame and incendiary-producing items; or soil, water, debris, or other media contaminated with low concentrations of chemical agents where no CA hazards exist. For the purposes of this Protocol, CWM encompasses four subcategories of specific materials:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CWM, explosively configured</I> are all munitions that contain a CA fill and any explosive component. Examples are M55 rockets with CA, the M23 VX mine, and the M360 105-mm GB artillery cartridge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CWM, nonexplosively configured</I> are all munitions that contain a CA fill, but that do not contain any explosive components. Examples are any chemical munition that does not contain explosive components and VX or mustard agent spray canisters.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CWM, bulk container</I> are all non-munitions-configured containers of CA (e.g., a ton container) and CAIS K941, toxic gas set M-1 and K942, toxic gas set M-2/E11.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>CAIS</I> are military training aids containing small quantities of various CA and other chemicals. All forms of CAIS are scored the same in this rule, except CAIS K941, toxic gas set M-1; and CAIS K942, toxic gas set M-2/E11, which are considered forms of CWM, bulk container, due to the relatively large quantities of agent contained in those types of sets.
</P>
<P><I>Components</I> means the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Defense Agencies, the Department Field Activities, and any other Department organizational entity or instrumentality established to perform a government function.
</P>
<P><I>Defense site</I> means locations that are or were owned by, leased to, or otherwise possessed or used by the Department. The term does not include any operational range, operating storage or manufacturing facility, or facility that is used for or was permitted for the treatment or disposal of military munitions. (10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(1))
</P>
<P><I>Discarded military munitions (DMM)</I> means military munitions that have been abandoned without proper disposal or removed from storage in a military magazine or other storage area for the purpose of disposal. The term does not include UXO, military munitions that are being held for future use or planned disposal, or military munitions that have been properly disposed of consistent with applicable environmental laws and regulations. (10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(2))
</P>
<P><I>Explosive hazard</I> means a condition where danger exists because explosives are present that may react (<I>e.g.,</I> detonate, deflagrate) in a mishap with potential unacceptable effects (<I>e.g.,</I> death, injury, damage) to people, property, operational capability, or the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Military munitions</I> means all ammunition products and components produced for or used by the armed forces for national defense and security, including ammunition products or components under the control of the Department of Defense, the Coast Guard, the Department of Energy, and the National Guard. The term includes confined gaseous, liquid, and solid propellants; explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes, and incendiaries, including bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents; chemical munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunition, small arms ammunition, grenades, mines, torpedoes, depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers, and demolition charges; and devices and components of any item thereof. The term does not include wholly inert items, improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear components, other than nonnuclear components of nuclear devices that are managed under the nuclear weapons program of the Department of Energy after all required sanitization operations under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) have been completed. (10 U.S.C. 101(e)(4))
</P>
<P><I>Military range</I> means designated land and water areas set aside, managed, and used to research, develop, test, and evaluate military munitions, other ordnance, or weapon systems, or to train military personnel in their use and handling. Ranges include firing lines and positions, maneuver areas, firing lanes, test pads, detonation pads, impact areas, and buffer zones with restricted access and exclusionary areas. (40 CFR 266.201)
</P>
<P><I>Munitions and explosives of concern</I> distinguishes specific categories of military munitions that may pose unique explosives safety risks, such as UXO, as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(e)(5); discarded military munitions, as defined in 10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(2); or munitions constituents (<I>e.g.,</I> TNT, RDX), as defined in 10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(3), present in high enough concentrations to pose an explosive hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Munitions constituents</I> means any materials originating from UXO, discarded military munitions, or other military munitions, including explosive and nonexplosive materials, and emission, degradation, or breakdown elements of such ordnance or munitions. (10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(3))
</P>
<P><I>Munitions response</I> means response actions, including investigation, removal actions, and remedial actions, to address the explosives safety, human health, or environmental risks presented by UXO, discarded military munitions (DMM), or munitions constituents (MC), or to support a determination that no removal or remedial action is required.
</P>
<P><I>Munitions response area (MRA)</I> means any area on a defense site that is known or suspected to contain UXO, DMM, or MC. Examples are former ranges and munitions burial areas. An MRA comprises one or more munitions response sites.
</P>
<P><I>Munitions response site (MRS)</I> means a discrete location within an MRA that is known to require a munitions response.
</P>
<P><I>Operational range</I> means a range that is under the jurisdiction, custody, or control of the Secretary of Defense and that is used for range activities, or although not currently being used for range activities, that is still considered by the Secretary to be a range and has not been put to a new use that is incompatible with range activities. (10 U.S.C. 101(e)(3))
</P>
<P><I>Range</I> means a designated land or water area that is set aside, managed, and used for range activities of the Department of Defense. The term includes firing lines and positions, maneuver areas, firing lanes, test pads, detonation pads, impact areas, electronic scoring sites, buffer zones with restricted access, and exclusionary areas. The term also includes airspace areas designated for military use in accordance with regulations and procedures prescribed by the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration. (10 U.S.C. 101(e)(1)(A) and (B))
</P>
<P><I>Range activities</I> means research, development, testing, and evaluation of military munitions, other ordnance, and weapons systems; and the training of members of the armed forces in the use and handling of military munitions, other ordnance, and weapons systems. (10 U.S.C. 101(3)(2))
</P>
<P><I>Unexploded ordnance (UXO)</I> means military munitions that:
</P>
<P>(1) Have been primed, fuzed, armed, or otherwise prepared for action;
</P>
<P>(2) Have been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations, installations, personnel, or material; and
</P>
<P>(3) Remain unexploded, whether by malfunction, design, or any other cause. (10 U.S.C. 101(e)(5))
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means, in a geographic sense, the states, territories, and possessions and associated navigable waters, contiguous zones, and ocean waters of which the natural resources are under the exclusive management authority of the United States. (10 U.S.C. 2710(e)(10)) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In assigning a relative priority for response activities, the Department generally considers those MRSs posing the greatest hazard as being the highest priority for action. The priority assigned should be based on the overall conditions at each MRS, taking into consideration various factors relating to safety and environmental hazard potential.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the priority assigned to an MRS, other considerations (<I>e.g.,</I> availability of specific equipment, intended reuse, stakeholder interest) can affect the sequence in which munitions response actions at a specific MRS are funded.
</P>
<P>(c) It is Department policy to ensure that U.S. EPA, other federal agencies (as appropriate or required), state regulatory agencies, tribal governments, local restoration advisory boards or technical review committees, and local stakeholders are offered opportunities to participate in the application of the rule in this part and making sequencing recommendations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each Component shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Apply the rule in this part to each MRS under its administrative control when sufficient data are available to populate all the data elements within any or all of the three hazard evaluation modules that comprise the rule. Upon further delineation and characterization of an MRA into more than one MRS, Components shall reapply the rule to all MRSs within the MRA. In such cases where data are not sufficient to populate one or two of the hazard evaluation modules (<I>e.g.,</I> there are no constituent sampling data for the Health Hazard Evaluation [HHE] module), Components will assign a priority based on the hazard evaluation modules evaluated and reapply the rule once sufficient data are available to apply the remaining hazard evaluation modules.
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure that the total acreage of each MRA is evaluated using this rule (i.e., ensure the all MRSs within the MRA are evaluated).
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that EPA, other federal agencies (as appropriate or required), state regulatory agencies, tribal governments, local restoration advisory boards or technical review committees, local community stakeholders, and the current landowner (if the land is outside Department control) are offered opportunities as early as possible and throughout the process to participate in the application of the rule and making sequencing recommendations.
</P>
<P>(1) To ensure EPA, other federal agency, state regulatory agencies, tribal governments, and local government officials are aware of the opportunity to participate in the application of the rule, the Component organization responsible for implementing a munitions response at the MRS shall notify the heads of these organizations (or their designated point of contact), as appropriate, seeking their involvement prior to beginning prioritization. Records of the notification will be placed in the Administrative Record and Information Repository for the MRS.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to beginning prioritization, the Component organization responsible for implementing a munitions response at the MRS shall publish an announcement in local community publications requesting information pertinent to prioritization or sequencing decisions to ensure the local community is aware of the opportunity to participate in the application of the rule.
</P>
<P>(d) Establish a quality assurance panel of Component personnel to review, initially, all MRS prioritization decisions. Once the Department determines that its Components are applying the rule in a consistent manner and the rule's application leads to decisions that are representative of site conditions, the Department may establish a sampling-based approach for its Components to use for such reviews. This panel reviewing the priority assigned to an MRS shall not include any participant involved in applying the rule to that MRS. If the panel recommends a change that results in a different priority, the Component shall report, in the inventory data submitted to the Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment) (ODUSD[I&amp;E]), the rationale for this change. The Component shall also provide this rationale to the appropriate regulatory agencies and involved stakeholders for comment before finalizing the change.
</P>
<P>(e) Following the panel review, submit the results of applying the rule along with the other inventory data that 10 U.S.C. 2710(c) requires be made publicly available, to the ODUSD(I&amp;E). The ODUSD(I&amp;E) shall publish this information in the report on environmental restoration activities for that fiscal year. If sequencing decisions result in action at an MRS with a lower MRS priority ahead of an MRS with a higher MRS priority, the Component shall provide specific justification to the ODUSD(I&amp;E).
</P>
<P>(f) Document in a Management Action Plan (MAP) or its equivalent all aspects of the munitions responses required at all MRSs for which that MAP is applicable. Department guidance requires that MAP be developed and maintained at an installation (or Formerly Used Defense Site [FUDS] property) level and address each site at that installation or FUDS. For the FUDS program, a statewide MAP may also be developed.
</P>
<P>(g) Develop sequencing decisions at installations and FUDS with input from appropriate regulators and stakeholders (<I>e.g.,</I> community members of an installation's restoration advisory board or technical review committee), and document this development in the MAP. Final sequencing may be impacted by Component program management considerations. If the sequencing of any MRS is changed from the sequencing reflected in the current MAP, the Component shall provide information to the appropriate regulators and stakeholders documenting the reasons for the sequencing change, and shall request their review and comment on that decision.
</P>
<P>(h) Ensure that information provided by regulators and stakeholders that may influence the priority assigned to an MRS or sequencing decision concerning an MRS is included in the Administrative Record and the Information Repository.
</P>
<P>(i) Review each MRS priority at least annually and update the priority as necessary to reflect new information. Reapplication of the rule is required under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon completion of a response action that changes site conditions in a manner that could affect the evaluation under this rule.
</P>
<P>(2) To update or validate a previous evaluation at an MRS when new information is available.
</P>
<P>(3) To update or validate the priority assigned where that priority has been previously assigned based on evaluation of only one or two of the three hazard evaluation modules.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon further delineation and characterization of an MRA into MRSs.
</P>
<P>(5) To categorize any MRS previously classified as “evaluation pending.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The rule in this part comprises the following three hazard evaluation modules.
</P>
<P>(a) Explosive Hazard Evaluation (EHE) module.
</P>
<P>(1) The EHE module provides a single, consistent, Department-wide approach for the evaluation of explosive hazards. This module is used when there is a known or suspected presence of an explosive hazard. The EHE module is composed of three factors, each of which has two to four data elements that are intended to assess the specific conditions at an MRS. These factors are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Explosive hazard,</I> which has the data elements <I>Munitions Type</I> and <I>Source of Hazard</I> and constitutes 40 percent of the EHE module score. (See appendix A to this part, tables 1 and 2.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accessibility,</I> which has the data elements <I>Location of Munitions, Ease of Access,</I> and <I>Status of Property</I> and constitutes 40 percent of the EHE module score. (See appendix A, tables 3, 4, and 5.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Receptors, which has the data elements <I>Population Density, Population Near Hazard, Types of Activities/Structures,</I> and <I>Ecological and/or Cultural Resources</I> and constitutes 20 percent of the EHE module score. (See appendix A, tables 6, 7, 8, and 9.)
</P>
<P>(2) Based on MRS-specific information, each data element is assigned a numeric score, and the sum of these score is the EHE module score. The EHE module score results in an MRS being placed into one of the following ratings. (See appendix A, table 10.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>EHE Rating A (Highest)</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 92 to 100.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>EHE Rating B</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 82 to 91.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>EHE Rating C</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 71 to 81.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>EHE Rating D</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 60 to 70.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>EHE Rating E</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 48 to 59.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>EHE Rating F</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score from 38 to 47.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>EHE Rating G (Lowest)</I> is assigned to MRSs with an EHE module score less than 38.
</P>
<P>(3) There are also three other possible outcomes for the EHE module:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Evaluation pending.</I> This category is used when there are known or suspected UXO or DMM, but sufficient information is not available to populate the nine data elements of the EHE module.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No longer required.</I> This category is reserved for MRSs that no longer require an assigned priority because the Department has conducted a response, all objectives set out in the decision document for the MRS have been achieved, and no further action, except for long-term management and recurring reviews, is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No known or suspected explosive hazard.</I> This category is reserved for MRSs that do not require evaluation under the EHE module.
</P>
<P>(4) The EHE module rating shall be considered with the CHE and HHE module ratings to determine the MRS priority.
</P>
<P>(5) MRSs lacking information for determining an EHE module rating shall be programmed for additional study and evaluated as soon as sufficient data are available. Until an EHE module rating is assessed, MRSs shall be rated as “evaluation pending” for the EHE module.
</P>
<P>(b) Chemical Warfare Materiel Hazard Evaluation (CHE) module. (1) The CHE module provides an evaluation of the chemical hazards associated with the physiological effects of CWM. The CHE module is used only when CWM are known or suspected of being present at an MRS. Like the EHE module, the CHE module has three factors, each of which has two to four data elements that are intended to assess the conditions at an MRS.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>CWM hazard,</I> which has the data elements <I>CWM Configuration</I> and <I>Sources of CWM</I> and constitutes 40 percent of the CHE score. (See appendix A to this part, tables 11 and 12.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accessibility,</I> which focuses on the potential for receptors to encounter the CWM known or suspected to be present on an MRS. This factor consists of three data elements, <I>Location of CWM, Ease of Access,</I> and <I>Status of Property,</I> and constitutes 40 percent of the CHE score. (See appendix A, tables 13, 14, and 15.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Receptor,</I> which focuses on the human and ecological populations that may be impacted by the presence of CWM. It has the data elements <I>Population Density, Population Near Hazard, Types of Activities/Structures,</I> and <I>Ecological and/or Cultural Resources</I> and constitutes 20 percent of the CHE score. (See appendix A, tables 16, 17, 18, and 19.)
</P>
<P>(2) Similar to the EHE module, each data element is assigned a numeric score, and the sum of these scores (<I>i.e.</I>, the CHE module score) is used to determine the CHE rating. The CHE module score results in an MRS being placed into one of the following ratings. (See appendix A, table 20.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>CHE Rating A (Highest)</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 92 to 100.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CHE Rating B</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 82 to 91.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CHE Rating C</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 71 to 81.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CHE Rating D</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 60 to 70.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>CHE Rating E</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 48 to 59.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>CHE Rating F</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score from 38 to 47.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>CHE Rating G (Lowest)</I> is assigned to MRSs with a CHE score less than 38.
</P>
<P>(3) There are also three other potential outcomes for the CHE module:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Evaluation pending.</I> This category is used when there are known or suspected CWM, but sufficient information is not available to populate the nine data elements of the CHE module.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No longer required.</I> This category is reserved for MRSs that no longer require an assigned priority because the Department has conducted a response, all objectives set out in the decision document for the MRS have been achieved, and no further action, except for long-term management and recurring reviews, is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No known or suspected CWM hazard.</I> This category is reserved for MRSs that do not require evaluation under the CHE module.
</P>
<P>(4) The CHE rating shall be considered with the EHE module and HHE module ratings to determine the MRS priority.
</P>
<P>(5) MRSs lacking information for assessing a CHE module rating shall be programmed for additional study and evaluated as soon as sufficient data are available. Until a CHE module rating is assigned, the MRS shall be rated as “evaluation pending” for the CHE module.
</P>
<P>(c) Health Hazard Evaluation (HHE) module.
</P>
<P>(1) The HHE provides a consistent Department-wide approach for evaluating the relative risk to human health and the environment posed by MC. The HHE builds on the RRSE framework that is used in the Installation Restoration Program (IRP) and has been modified to address the unique requirements of MRSs. The HHE module shall be used for evaluating the potential hazards posed by MC and other chemical contaminants. The HHE module is intended to evaluate MC at sites. Any incidental nonmunitions-related contaminants may be addressed incidental to a munitions response under the MMRP.
</P>
<P>(2) The module has three factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Contamination Hazard Factor (CHF), which indicates MC, and any nonmunitions-related incidental contaminants present; this factor contributes a level of High (H), Middle (M), or Low (L) based on Significant, Moderate, or Minimal contaminants present, respectively. (See appendix A to this part, table 21.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptor Factor (RF), which indicates the receptors; this factor contributes a level of H, M, or L based on Identified, Potential, or Limited receptors, respectively. (See appendix A, table 21.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Migration Pathway Factor (MPF), which indicates environmental migration pathways, and contributes a level of H, M, or L based on Evident, Potential or Confined pathways, respectively. (See appendix A, table 21.)
</P>
<P>(3) The H, M, and L levels for the CHF, RF, and MPF are combined in a matrix to obtain composite three-letter combination levels that integrate considerations of all three factors. (See appendix A, table 22.)
</P>
<P>(4) The three-letter combination levels are organized by frequency, and the resulting frequencies result in seven HHE ratings. (See appendix A, table 23.)
</P>
<P>(i) HHE Rating A (Highest) is assigned to MRSs with an HHE combination level of high for all three factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) HHE Rating B is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of high for CHF and RF and medium for MPF (HHM).
</P>
<P>(iii) HHE Rating C is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of high for the CHF and RF and low for MPF (HHL), or high for CHF and medium for the RF and MPF (HMM).
</P>
<P>(iv) HHE Rating D is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of high for the CHF, medium for the RF, and low for the MPF (HML), or medium for all three factors (MMM).
</P>
<P>(v) HHE Rating E is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of high for the CHF and low for the RF and MPF (HLL), or medium for the CHF and RF and low for the MPF (MML).
</P>
<P>(vi) HHE Rating F is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of medium for the CHF and low for the RF and MPF (MLL).
</P>
<P>(vii) HHE Rating G (Lowest) is assigned to MRSs with a combination level of low for all three factors (LLL).
</P>
<P>(5) The HHE three-letter combinations are replaced by the seven HHE ratings. (See appendix A, table 24.)
</P>
<P>(6) There are also three other potential outcomes for the HHE module:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Evaluation pending.</I> This category is used when there are known or suspected MC, and any incidental nonmunitions-related contaminants present, but sufficient information is not available to determine the HHE module rating.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No longer required.</I> This category is reserved for MRSs that no longer require an assigned MRS priority because the Department has conducted a response, all objectives set out in the decision document for the MRS have been achieved, and no further action, except for long-term management and recurring reviews, is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No known or suspected munitions constituent hazard.</I> This rating is reserved for MRSs that do not require evaluation under the HHE module.
</P>
<P>(7) The HHE module rating shall be considered with the EHE and CHE module ratings to determine the MRS priority.
</P>
<P>(8) MRSs lacking information sufficient for assessing an HHE module rating shall be programmed for additional study and evaluated as soon as sufficient data are available. Until an HHR module rating is assigned, the MRS shall be classified as “evaluation pending” for the HHE module.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determining the MRS priority.</I> (1) An MRS priority is determined based on integrating the ratings from the EHE, CHE, and HHE modules. Until all three hazard evaluation modules have been evaluated, the MRS priority shall be based on the results of the modules completed.
</P>
<P>(2) Each MRS is assigned to one of eight MRS priorities based on the ratings of the three hazard evaluation modules, where Priority 1 indicates the highest potential hazard and Priority 8 the lowest potential hazard. Under the rule in this part, only MRSs with CWM can be assigned to Priority 1 and no MRS with CWM can be assigned to Priority 8. (See appendix A to this part, table 25.)
</P>
<P>(3) An “evaluation pending” rating is used to indicate that an MRS requires further evaluation. This designation is only used when none of the three modules has a numerical rating (<I>i.e.</I>, 1 through 8) and at least one module is rated “evaluation pending.” The Department shall develop program metrics focused on reducing the number of MRSs with a status of “evaluating pending” for any of the three modules. (See appendix A, table 25.)
</P>
<P>(4) A “no longer required” rating is used to indicate that an MRS no longer requires prioritization. The MRS will receive this rating when none of the three modules has a numerical (<I>i.e.</I>, 1 through 8) or an “evaluation pending” designation, and at least one of the modules is rated “no longer required.”
</P>
<P>(5) A rating of “no known or suspected hazard” is used to indicate that an MRS has no known or expected hazard. This designation is used only when the hazard evaluation modules are rated as “no known or suspected explosive hazard,” “no known or suspected CWM hazard,” and “no known or suspected MC hazard.” (See appendix A, table 25.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.7" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.7   Sequencing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sequencing considerations.</I> The sequencing of MRSs for action shall be based primarily on the MRS priority determined through applying the rule in this part. Generally, an MRS that presents a greater relative risk to human health, safety, or the environment will be addressed before an MRS that presents a lesser relative risk. Other factors, however, may warrant consideration when determining the sequencing for specific MRSs. In evaluating other factors in sequencing decisions, the Department will consider a broad range of issues. These other, or risk-plus factors, do not influence or change the MRS priority, but may influence the sequencing for action. Examples of factors that the Department may consider are:
</P>
<P>(1) Concerns expressed by regulators or stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(2) Cultural and social factors.
</P>
<P>(3) Economic factors, including economic considerations pertaining to environmental justice issues, economies of scale, evaluation of total life cycle costs, and estimated valuations of long-term liabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) Findings of health, safety, or ecological risk assessments or evaluations based on MRS-specific data.
</P>
<P>(5) Reasonably anticipated future land use, especially when planning response actions, conducting evaluations of response alternatives, or establishing specific response action objectives.
</P>
<P>(6) A community's reuse requirements at Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) installations.
</P>
<P>(7) Specialized considerations of tribal trust lands (held in trust by the United States for the benefit of any tribe or individual). The United States holds the legal title to the land and the tribe holds the beneficial interest.
</P>
<P>(8) Implementation and execution considerations (<I>e.g.</I>, funding availability; the availability of the necessary equipment and people to implement a particular action; examination of alternatives to responses that entail significant capital investments, a lengthy period of operation, or costly maintenance; alternatives to removal or treatment of contamination when existing technology cannot achieve established standards [<I>e.g.</I>, maximum contaminant levels]).
</P>
<P>(9) Mission-driven requirements.
</P>
<P>(10) The availability of appropriate technology (<I>e.g.</I>, technology to detect, discriminate, recover, and destroy UXO).
</P>
<P>(11) Implementing standing commitments, including those in formal agreements with regulatory agencies, requirements for continuation of remedial action operations until response objectives are met, other long-term management activities, and program administration.
</P>
<P>(12) Established program goals and initiatives.
</P>
<P>(13) Short-term and long-term ecological effects and environmental impacts in general, including injuries to natural resources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and documentation for sequencing decisions.</I> (1) Each installation or FUDS is required to develop and maintain a Management Action Plan (MAP) or its equivalent. Sequencing decisions, which will be documented in the MAP at military installations and FUDS, shall be developed with input from appropriate regulators and stakeholders (<I>e.g.</I>, community members of an installation's restoration advisory board or technical review committee). If the sequencing of an MRS is changed from the sequencing reflected in the current MAP, information documenting the reasons for the sequencing change will be provided for inclusion in the MAP. Notice of the change in the sequencing shall be provided to those regulators and stakeholders that provided input to the sequencing process.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the information on prioritization, the Components shall ensure that information provided by regulators and stakeholders that may influence the sequencing of an MRS is included in the Administrative Record and the Information Repository.
</P>
<P>(3) Components shall report the results of sequencing to ODUSD(I&amp;E) (or successor organizations). ODUSD(I&amp;E) shall compile the sequencing results reported by each Component and publish the sequencing in the report on environmental restoration activities for that fiscal year. If sequencing decisions result in action at an MRS with a lower MRS priority ahead of an MRS with a higher priority, specific justification shall be provided to the ODUSD(I&amp;E).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:1.1.1.8.62.0.43.8.44" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 179—Tables of the Munitions Response Site Prioritization Protocol
</HEAD>
<P>The tables in this Appendix are solely for use in implementing 32 CFR part 179.

</P>
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</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="S I" NODE="32:1.1.1.9" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTERS I-K [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="L" NODE="32:1.1.1.10" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER L—ENVIRONMENT 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="187" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 187—ENVIRONMENTAL EFFECTS ABROAD OF MAJOR DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE ACTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Title 10 U.S.C. 131.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 21786, Apr. 14, 1979, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 56 FR 64481, Dec. 10, 1991.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 187.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Executive Order 12114 provides the exclusive and complete requirement for taking account of considerations with respect to actions that do significant harm to the environment of places <I>outside</I> the United States. This part provides policy and procedures to enable Department of Defense (DoD) officials to be informed and take account of environmental considerations when authorizing or approving certain major Federal actions that do significant harm to the environment of places outside the United States. Its sole objective is to establish internal procedures to achieve this purpose, and nothing in it shall be construed to create a cause of action. Guidance for taking account of considerations with respect to the environment of places <I>within</I> the United States is set out in 32 CFR part 188 (under rev.) That guidance is grounded on legal and policy requirements different from those applicable to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 21786, Apr. 14, 1979. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 64481, Dec. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 187.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Unified and Specified Commands, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to as “DoD components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 187.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Environment</I> means the natural and physical environment, and it excludes social, economic, and other environments. Social and economic effects do not give rise to any requirements under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal Action</I> means an action that is implemented or funded directly by the United States Government. It does not include actions in which the United States participates in an advisory, information-gathering, representational, or diplomatic capacity but does not implement or fund the action; actions taken by a foreign government or in a foreign country in which the United States is a beneficiary of the action, but does not implement or fund the action; or actions in which foreign governments use funds derived indirectly from United States funding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign Nation</I> means any geographic area (land, water, and airspace) that is under the jurisdiction of one or more foreign governments; any area under military occupation by the United States alone or jointly with any other foreign government; and any area that is the responsibility of an international organization of governments. “Foreign nation” includes contiguous zones and fisheries zones of foreign nations. “Foreign government” in this context includes governments regardless of whether recognized by the United States, political factions, and organizations that exercise governmental power outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Global Commons</I> are geographical areas that are outside the jurisdiction of any nation, and include the oceans outside territorial limits and Antarctica. Global commons do not include contiguous zones and fisheries zones of foreign nations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Major Action</I> means an action of considerable importance involving substantial expenditures of time, money, and resources, that affects the environment on a large geographic scale or has substantial environmental effects on a more limited geographical area, and that is substantially different or a significant departure from other actions, previously analyzed with respect to environmental considerations and approved, with which the action under consideration may be associated. Deployment of ships, aircraft, or other mobile military equipment is not a major action for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>United States</I> means all States, territories, and possessions of the United States; and all waters and airspace subject to the territorial jurisdiction of the United States. The territories and possessions of the United States include the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Island, Guam, Palmyra Island, Johnston Atoll, Navassa Island, and Kingman Reef.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 187.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12114 is based on the authority vested in the President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States. The objective of the Order is to further foreign policy and national security interests while at the same time taking into consideration important environmental concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Defense acts with care in the global commons because the stewardship of these areas is shared by all the nations of the world. The Department of Defense will take account of environmental considerations when it acts in the global commons in accordance with procedures set out in Enclosure 1 and its attachment.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Defense also acts with care within the jurisdiction of a foreign nation. Treaty obligations and the sovereignty of other nations must be respected, and restraint must be exercised in applying United States laws within foreign nations unless Congress has expressly provided otherwise. The Department of Defense will take account of environmental considerations in accordance with Enclosure 2 and its attachments when it acts in a foreign nation.
</P>
<P>(d) Foreign policy considerations require coordination with the Department of State on communications with foreign governments concerning environmental agreements and other formal arrangements with foreign governments concerning environmental matters under this part.
</P>
<FP>Informal working-level communications and arrangements are not included in this coordination requirement. Consultation with the Department of State also is required in connection with the utilization of additional exemptions from this part as specified in paragraph C.3.b. of Enclosure 2. Coordination and consultation with the Department of State will be through the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs).
</FP>
<P>(e) Executive Order 12114, implemented by this part prescribes the exclusive and complete procedural measures and other actions to be taken by the Department of Defense to further the purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act with respect to the environment outside the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 187.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics)</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve as the responsible Department of Defense official for policy matters under Executive Order 12114 and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Modify or supplement any of the enclosures to this part in a manner consistent with the policies set forth in this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain liaison with the Council on Environmental Quality with respect to environmental documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Participate in determining whether a recommendation should be made to the President that a natural or ecological resource of global importance be designated for protection; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Consult with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs) on significant or sensitive actions or decisions affecting relations with another nation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs)</I> shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain liaison and conduct consultations with the Department of State as required under this part; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Serve as the responsible official, in consultation with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), for monitoring the continuing cooperation and the exchange of information with other nations concerning the environment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>General Counsel, DoD,</I> shall provide advice and assistance concerning the requirements of Executive Order 12114 and this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments, Directors of the Defense Agencies,</I> and <I>Commanders of the Unified and Specified Commands,</I> for operations under their jurisdiction, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare and consider environmental documents when required by this directive for proposed actions within their respective DoD component (this reporting requirement has been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-M(AR) 1327 (§ 187.6)); 
</P>
<P>(2) Insure that regulations and other major policy issuances are reviewed for consistency with Executive Order 12114 and this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) Designate a single point-of-contact for matters pertaining to this part; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Consult with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs) on significant or sensitive actions or decisions affecting relations with another nation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 21786, Apr. 14, 1979. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 64481, Dec. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 187.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 187.6   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The documents to be prepared under § 187.5(d) and Enclosures 1 and 2, “Requirements for Environmental Considerations—Global Commons,” and “Requirements for Environmental Considerations—Foreign Nations and Protected Global Resources,” respectively, are assigned Report Control Symbol DD-M(AR) 1327. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 21786, Apr. 14, 1979. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 64481, Dec. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.7.45" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Enclosure 1 to Part 187—Requirements for Environmental Considerations—Global Commons
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> This enclosure implements the requirements of Executive Order 12114 with respect to major Department of Defense actions that do significant harm to the environment of the global commons. The focus is not the place of the action, but the location of the environment with respect to which there is significant harm. The actions prescribed by this enclosure are the exclusive and complete requirement for taking account of environmental considerations with respect to Department of Defense activities that affect the global commons. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Actions included.</I> The requirements of this enclosure apply only to major Federal actions that do significant harm to the environment of the global commons. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Environmental Document Requirements</I>—1. <I>General.</I> When an action is determined to be a major Federal action that significantly harms the environment of the global commons, an environmental impact statement, as described below, will be prepared to enable the responsible decision-making official to be informed of pertinent environmental considerations. The statement may be a specific statement for the particular action, a generic statement covering the entire class of similar actions, or a program statement. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limitations on Actions.</I> Until the requirements of this enclosure have been met with respect to actions involving the global commons, no action concerning the proposal may be taken that does significant harm to the environment or limits the choice of reasonable alternatives. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Emergencies.</I> Where emergency circumstances make it necessary to take an action that does significant harm to the environment without meeting the requirements of this enclosure, the DoD component concerned shall consult with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics). This includes actions that must be taken to promote the national defense or security and that cannot be delayed, and actions necessary for the protection of life or property. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Combining Documents.</I> Environmental documents may be combined with other agency documents to reduce duplication. If an environmental impact statement for a particular action already exists, regardless of what Federal agency prepared it, no new statement is required by this part. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collective Statements.</I> Consideration should be given to the use of generic and program statements. Generic statements may include actions with relevant similarities such as common timing, environmental effects, alternatives, methods of implementation, or subject matter. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Tiering.</I> Consideration should be given to tiering of environmental impact statements to eliminate repetitive discussions of the same issue and to focus the issues. Tiering refers to the coverage of general matters in broader environmental impact statements, with succeeding narrower statements or environmental analyses that incorporate by reference the general discussion and concentrate only on the issues specific to the statement subsequently prepared. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Lead Agency.</I> When one or more other Federal agencies are involved with the Department of Defense in an action or program, a lead agency may be designated to supervise the preparation of the environmental impact statement. In appropriate cases, more than one agency may act as joint lead agencies. The following factors should be considered in making the lead agency designation: 
</P>
<P>a. The magnitude of agency involvement; 
</P>
<P>b. Which agency or agencies have project approval and disapproval authority; 
</P>
<P>c. The expert capabilities concerning the environmental effects of the action; 
</P>
<P>d. The duration of agency involvement; and 
</P>
<P>e. The sequence of agency involvement. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Categorical Exclusions.</I> The Department of Defense may provide categorical exclusions for actions that normally do not, individually or cumulatively, do significant harm to the environment. If an action is covered by a categorical exclusion no environmental assessment or environmental impact statement is required. Categorical exclusions will be established by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) and will be identified in Attachment 1 to this enclosure, to be entitled, “Categorical Exclusions—Global commons. “DoD components identifying recurring actions that have been determined, after analysis, not to do significant harm to the environment should submit recommendations for categorical exclusions and accompanying justification to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics). 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Environmental Assessments.</I> The purpose of an environmental assessment is to assist DoD components in determining whether an environmental impact statement is required for a particular action. The assessment should be brief and concise but should include sufficient information on which a determination can be made whether the proposed action is major and Federal, and whether it significantly harms the environment of the global commons. As a minimum, the assessment should include consideration of the need for the proposed action and the environmental effect of the proposed action. The environmental assessment will be made available to the public in the United States upon request, but there is no requirement that it be distributed for public comment. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Environmental Impact Statements.</I> 1. <I>General.</I> Environmental impact statements will be concise and no longer than necessary to permit an informed consideration of the environmental effects of the proposed action on the global commons and the reasonable alternatives. If an action requiring an environmental impact statement also has effects on the environment of a foreign nation or on a resource designated as one of global importance, the statement need not consider or be prepared with respect to these effects. The procedures for considering these effects are set out in Enclosure 2, of this part. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Draft Statement.</I> Environmental impact statements will be prepared in two stages and may be supplemented. The first, or draft statement, should be sufficiently complete to permit meaningful analysis and comment. The draft statement will be made available to the public, in the United States, for comment. The Department of State, the council on environmental Quality, and other interested Federal agencies will be informed of the availability of the draft statement and will be afforded an opportunity to comment. Contacts with foreign governments are discussed in § 187.4(d) and subsection D.11. of this enclosure. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Final statement.</I> Final statements will consider, either individually or collectively, substantive comments received on the draft statement. The final statement will be made available to the public in the United States. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Supplemental statement.</I> Supplements to the draft or final statement should be used when substantial changes to the proposed action are made relative to the environment of the global commons or when significant new information or circumstances, relevant to environmental concerns, bears on the proposed action or its environmental effects on the global commons. Supplemental statements will be circulated for comment as in subsection 2. of this enclosure unless alternative procedures are approved by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics). 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Statement content.</I> The statement will include: A section on consideration of the purpose of and need for the proposed action; a section on the environmental consequences of the proposed action and reasonable alternatives; a section that provides a succinct description of the environment of the global commons affected by the proposed action and reasonable alternatives; and a section that analyzes, in comparative form, the environmental effects on the global commons of the proposed action and reasonable alternatives. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Incomplete Information.</I> The statement should indicate when relevant information is missing due to unavailability or scientific uncertainty. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Hearings.</I> Public hearings are not required. consideration should be given in appropriate cases to holding or sponsoring public hearings. Factors in this consideration include: Foreign relations sensitivities; whether the hearings would be an infringement or create the appearance of infringement on the sovereign responsibilities of another government; requirements of domestic and foreign governmental confidentiality; requirements of national security; whether meaningful information could be obtained through hearings; time considerations; and requirements for commercial confidentiality. There is no requirement that all factors listed in this section be considered when one or more factors indicate that public hearings would not produce a substantial net benefit to those responsible for authorizing or approving the proposed action. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Decision.</I> Relevant environmental documents developed in accordance with this enclosure will accompany the proposal for action through the review process to enable officials responsible for authorizing or approving the proposed action to be informed and to take account of environmental considerations. One means of making an appropriate record with respect to this requirement is for the decision-maker to sign and date a copy of the environmental impact statement indicating that it has been considered in the decision-making process. Other means of making an appropriate record are also acceptable. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Timing.</I> No decision on the proposed action may be made until the later of 90 days after the draft statement has been made available and notice thereof published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or 30 days after the final statement has been made available and notice thereof published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The 90-day period and the 30-day period may run concurrently. Not less than 45 days may be allowed for public comment. The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) may, upon a showing of probable important adverse effect on national security or foreign policy, reduce the 30-day, 45-day, and 90-day periods. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Classified Information.</I> Environmental assessments and impact statements that address classified proposals will be safeguarded and classified information will be restricted from public dissemination in accordance with Department of Defense procedures (32 CFR part 159) established for such information under Executive Order 12065. The requirements of that Executive Order take precedence over any requirement of disclosure in this part. Only unclassified portions of environmental documents may be disseminated to the public. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Foreign Governments.</I> Consideration will be given to whether any foreign government should be informed of the availability of environmental documents. Communications with foreign governments concerning environmental agreements and other formal arrangements with foreign governments concerning environmental matters under this part will be coordinated with the Department of State. Informal, working-level communications and arrangements are not included in this coordination requirement. Coordination with the Department of State will be through the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 21786, Apr. 14, 1979. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 64481, Dec. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.63.0.43.7.46" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Enclosure 2 to Part 187—Requirements for Environmental Considerations—Foreign Nations and Protected Global Resources
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> This enclosure implements the requirements of Executive Order 12114 to provide for procedural and other actions to be taken to enable officials to be informed of pertinent environmental considerations when authorizing or approving certain major Department of Defense actions that do significant harm to the environment of a foreign nation or to a protected global resource.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Actions included.</I> 1. The requirements of this enclosure apply only to the following actions:
</P>
<P>a. Major Federal actions that significantly harm the environment of a foreign nation that is not involved in the action. The involvement of the foreign nation may be directly by participation with the United States in the action, or it may be in conjunction with another participating nation. The focus of this category is on the geographical location of the environmental harm and not on the location of the action.
</P>
<P>b. Major Federal actions that are determined to do significant harm to the environment of a foreign nation because they provide to that nation: (1) A product, or involve a physical project that produces a principal product, emission, or effluent, that is prohibited or strictly regulated by Federal law in the United States because its toxic effects on the environment create a serious public health risk; or (2) a physical project that is prohibited or strictly regulated in the United States by Federal law to protect the environment against radioactive substances. Included in the category of “prohibited or strictly regulated” are the following: asbestos, vinyl chloride, acrylonitrile, isocyanates, polychlorinated biphenyls, mercury, beryllium, arsenic, cadmium, and benzene.
</P>
<P>c. Major Federal actions outside the United States that significantly harm natural or ecological resources of global importance designated for protection by the President or, in the case of such a resource protected by international agreement binding on the United States, designated for protection by the Secretary of State. Such determinations by the President or the Secretary of State to be listed in Attachment 1 to this enclosure, entitled, “Protected Global Resources”.
</P>
<P>2. The actions prescribed by this enclosure are the exclusive and complete requirement for taking account of environmental considerations with respect to Federal actions that do significant harm to the environment of foreign nations and protected global resources as described in subsection B.1., of this enclosure. No action is required under this enclosure with respect to Federal actions that affect only the environment of a participating or otherwise involved foreign nation and that do not involve providing products or physical projects producing principal products, emissions, or effluents that are prohibited or strictly regulated by Federal law in the United States, or resources of global importance that have been designated for protection.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Environmental Document Requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> a. There are two types of environmental documents officials shall use in taking account of environmental considerations for actions covered by this enclosure:
</P>
<P>(1) Environmental studies—bilateral or multilateral environmental studies, relevant or related to the proposed action, by the United States and one or more foreign nations or by an international body or organization in which the United States is a member or participant; and
</P>
<P>(2) Environmental reviews—concise reviews of the environmental issues involved that are prepared unilaterally by the United States.
</P>
<P>b. This section identifies the procedures for the preparation of environmental studies or reviews when required by this enclosure and the exceptions from the requirement to prepare environmental studies or reviews. If an environmental document already exists for a particular action, regardless of what Federal agency prepared it, no new document is required by this enclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lead Agency.</I> When one or more other Federal agencies are involved with the Department of Defense in an action or program, a lead agency may be designated to supervise the preparation of environmental documentation. In appropriate cases, more than one agency may act as joint lead agencies. The following factors should be considered in making the lead agency designation:
</P>
<P>a. The magnitude of agency involvement;
</P>
<P>b. Which agency or agencies have project approval and disapproval authority;
</P>
<P>c. The expert capabilities concerning the environmental effects of the action;
</P>
<P>d. The duration of agency involvement; and
</P>
<P>e. The sequence of agency involvement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exemptions.</I> There are general exemptions from the requirements of this enclosure provided by Executive Order 12114, and the Secretary of Defense has the authority to approve additional exemptions.
</P>
<P>a. <I>General Exemptions.</I> The following actions are exempt from the procedural and other requirements of this enclosure under general exemptions established for all agencies by Executive Order 12114:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions that the DoD component concerned determines do not do significant harm to the environment outside the United States or to a designated resource of global importance.
</P>
<P>(2) Actions taken by the President. These include: Signing bills into law; signing treaties and other international agreements; the promulgation of Executive Orders; Presidential proclamations; and the issuance of Presidental decisions, instructions, and memoranda. This includes actions taken within the Department of Defense to prepare or assist in preparing recommendations, advice, or information for the President in connection with one of these actions by the President. It does not include actions taken within the Department of Defense to implement or carry out these instruments and issuances after they are promulgated by the President.
</P>
<P>(3) Actions taken by or pursuant to the direction of the President or a cabinet officer in the course of armed conflict. The term “armed conflict” refers to: hostilities for which Congress has declared war or enacted a specific authorization for the use of armed forces; hostilities or situations for which a report is prescribed by section 4(a)(1) of the War Powers Resolution, 50 U.S.C.A. 1543(a)(1) (Supp. 1978); and other actions by the armed forces that involve defensive use or introduction of weapons in situations where hostilities occur or are expected. This exemption applies as long as the armed conflict continues.
</P>
<P>(4) Actions taken by or pursuant to the direction of the President or a cabinet officer when the national security or national interest is involved. The determination that the national security or national interest is involved in actions by the Department of Defense must be made in writing by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics).
</P>
<P>(5) The activities of the intelligence components utilized by the Secretary of Defense under Executive Order 12036, 43 FR 3674 (1978). These components include the Defense Intelligence Agency, the National Security Agency, the offices for the collection of specialized intelligence through reconnaissance programs, the Army Office of the Assistant Chief of Staff for Intelligence, the Office of Naval Intelligence, and the Air Force Office of the Assistant Chief of Staff for Intelligence. 
</P>
<P>(6) The decisions and actions of the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs), the Defense Security Assistance Agency, and the other responsible offices within DoD components with respect to arms transfers to foreign nations. The term “arms transfers” includes the grant, loan, lease, exchange, or sale of defense articles or defense services to foreign governments or international organizations, and the extension or guarantee of credit in connection with these transactions. 
</P>
<P>(7) Votes and other actions in international conferences and organizations. This includes all decisions and actions of the United States with respect to representation of its interests at international organizations, and at multilateral conferences, negotiations, and meetings. 
</P>
<P>(8) Disaster and emergency relief actions. 
</P>
<P>(9) Actions involving export licenses, export permits, or export approvals, other than those relating to nuclear activities. This includes: Advice provided by DoD components to the Department of State with respect to the issuance of munitions export licenses under section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act, 22 U.S.C. 2778 (1976); advice provided by DoD components to the Department of Commerce with respect to the granting of export licenses under the Export Administration Act of 1969, 50 U.S.C. App. 2401-2413 (1970 &amp; Supp. V 1975); and direct exports by the Department of Defense of defense articles and services to foreign governments and international organizations that are exempt from munitions export licenses under section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act, 22 U.S.C. 2778 (1976). The term “export approvals” does not mean or include direct loans to finance exports. 
</P>
<P>(10) Actions relating to nuclear activities and nuclear material, except actions providing to a foreign nation a nuclear production or utilization facility, as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or a nuclear waste management facility. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Additional Exemptions.</I> The Department of Defense is authorized under Executive Order 12114 to establish additional exemptions that apply only to the Department's operations. There are two types of additional exemptions: Case-by-case and class. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Case-by-Case Exemptions.</I> Exemptions other than those specified above may be required because emergencies, national security considerations, exceptional foreign policy requirements, or other special circumstances preclude or are inconsistent with the preparation of environmental documentation and the taking of other actions prescribed by this enclosure. The following procedures apply for approving these exemptions: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Emergencies.</I> This category includes actions that must be taken to promote the national defense or security and that cannot be delayed, and actions necessary for the protection of life or property. The heads of the DoD components are authorized to approve emergency exemptions on a case-by-case basis. The Department of Defense is required to consult as soon as feasible with the Department of State and the Council on Environmental Quality with respect to emergency exemptions. The requirement to consult as soon as feasible is not a requirement of prior consultation. A report of the emergency action will be made by the DoD component head to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), who, with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs), shall undertake the necessary consultations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other Circumstances.</I> National security considerations, exceptional foreign policy requirements, and other special circumstances not identified in paragraph C.3.a. of this enclosure, may preclude or be inconsistent with the preparation of environmental documentation. In these circumstances, the head of the DoD component concerned is authorized to exempt a particular action from the environmental documentation requirements of this enclosure after obtaining the prior approval of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), who, with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs), shall consult, before approving the exemption, with the Department of State and the Council on Environmental Quality. The requirement for prior consultation is not a requirement for prior approval. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Class Exemptions.</I> Circumstances may exist where a class exemption for a group of related actions is more appropriate than a specific exemption. Class exemptions may be established by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), who, with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs), shall consult, before approving the exemption, with the Department of State and the Council on Environmental Quality. The requirement for prior consultation is not a requirement for prior approval. Requests for class exemptions will be submitted by the head of the DoD component concerned to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) after coordination with other interested DoD components. Notice of the establishment of a class exemption will be issued as Attachment 2 to this enclosure to be entitled, “Class Exemptions—Foreign Nations and Protected Global Resources.” 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Categorical Exclusions.</I> The Department of Defense is authorized by Executive Order 12114 to provide for categorical exclusions. A categorical exclusion is a category of actions that normally do not, individually or cumulatively, do significant harm to the environment. If an action is covered by a categorical exclusion, no environmental document is required. Categorical exclusions will be established by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), and will be identified in Attachment 3 to this enclosure to be entitled, “Categorical Exclusions—Foreign Nations and Protected Global Resources.” DoD components identifying recurring actions that have been determined, after analysis, not to do significant harm to the environment should submit requests for categorical exclusions and accompanying justification to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics). 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Environmental studies.</I> 1. <I>General.</I> Environmental studies are one of two alternative types of documents to be used for actions described by section B. of this enclosure.
</P>
<P>a. An environmental study is an analysis of the likely environmental consequences of the action that is to be considered by DoD components in the decision-making process. It includes a review of the affected environment, significant actions taken to avoid environmental harm or otherwise to better the environment, and significant environmental considerations and actions by the other participating nations, bodies, or organizations.
</P>
<P>b. An environmental study is a cooperative action and not a unilateral action undertaken by the United States. It may be bilateral or multilateral, and it is prepared by the United States in conjunction with one or more foreign nations, or by an international body or organization in which the United States is a member or participant. The environmental study, because it is prepared as a cooperative undertaking, may be best suited for use with respect to actions that provide strictly regulated or prohibited products or projects to a foreign nation (B.l.b.) and actions that affect a protected global resource (B.l.c.).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Department of State Coordination.</I> Communications with foreign governments concerning environmental studies and other formal arrangements with foreign governments concerning environmental matters under this directive will be coordinated with the Department of State. Informal, working-level communications and arrangements are not included in this coordination requirement. Coordination with the Department of State will be through the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Whether to Prepare an Environmental Study.</I> The judgment whether the action is one that would do significant harm to one of the environments covered by this enclosure normally will be made in consultation with concerned foreign governments or organizations. If a negative decision is made, the file will be documented with a record of that decision and the decision-makers who participated. If a decision is made to prepare a study then, except as provided by this enclosure, no action concerning the proposal may be taken that would do significant harm to the environment until the study has been completed and the results considered.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Content of the Study.</I> The document is a study of the environmental aspects of the proposed action to be considered in the decision-making process. The precise content of each study must be flexible because of such considerations as the sensitivity of obtaining information from foreign governments, the availability of useful and understandable information, and other factors identified under “Limitations,” (subsection D.6., of this enclosure). The study should, however, include consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>a. A general review of the affected environment;
</P>
<P>b. The predicted effect of the action on the environment;
</P>
<P>c. Significant known actions taken by governmental entities with respect to the proposed action to protect or improve the environment; and
</P>
<P>d. If no actions are being taken to protect or enhance the environment, whether the decision not to do so was made by the affected foreign government or international organization.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Distribution of the Study.</I> Except as provided under “Limitations,” (subsection D.6., of this enclosure), and except where classified information is involved, environmental studies will be made available to the Department of State, the Council on Environmental Quality, other interested Federal agencies, and, on request, to the public in the United States. Interested foreign governments also may be informed of the studies, subject to the “Limitations” (subsection D.6., of this enclosure) and controls on classified information, and furnished copies of the documents. No distribution is required prior to the preparation of the final version of the study or prior to taking the action that caused the study to be prepared.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Limitations.</I> The requirements with respect to the preparation, content, and distribution of environmental studies in the international context must remain flexible. The specific procedures must be determined on a case-by-case basis and may be modified where necessary to:
</P>
<P>a. Enable the component to act promptly. Considerations such as national security and foreign government involvement may require prompt action that must take precedence in the environmental review process;
</P>
<P>b. Avoid adverse impacts on relations between the United States and foreign governments and international organizations;
</P>
<P>c. Avoid infringement or the appearance of infringement on the sovereign responsibilities of another government. The collection of information and the preparation and distribution of environmental documentation for actions in which another nation is involved, or with respect to the environment and resources of another nation, unless done with proper regard to the sovereign authority of that nation, may be viewed by that nation as an interference in its internal affairs and its responsibility to evaluate requirements with respect to the environment;
</P>
<P>d. Ensure consideration of:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements of governmental confidentiality. This refers to the need to protect sensitive foreign affairs information and information received from another government with the understanding that it will be protected from disclosure regardless of its classification;
</P>
<P>(2) National security requirements. This refers to the protection of classified information and other national security interests;
</P>
<P>(3) Availability of meaningful information. Information on the environment of foreign nations may be unavailable, incomplete, or not susceptible to meaningful evaluation, particularly where the affected foreign nation is not a participant in the analysis. This may reduce or change substantially the normal content of the environmental study;
</P>
<P>(4) The extent of the participation of the DoD component concerned and its ability to affect the decision made. The utility of the environmental analysis and the need for an in-depth review diminishes as DoD's role and control over the decision lessens; and
</P>
<P>(5) International commercial, commercial confidentiality, competitive, and export promotion factors. This refers to the requirement to protect domestic and foreign trade secrets and confidential business information from disclosure. Export promotion factors includes the concept of not unnecessarily hindering United States exports.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Classified Information.</I> Classified information will be safeguarded from disclosure in accordance with the Department of Defense procedures (32 CFR 159) established for such information under Executive Order 12065. The requirements of that Executive Order take precedence over any requirement of disclosure in this directive.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Environmental Reviews.</I> 1. <I>General.</I> Environmental reviews are the second of the two alternative types of documents to be used for actions covered by section B. of this enclosure.
</P>
<P>a. An environmental review is a survey of the important environmental issues involved. It includes identification of these issues, and a review of what if any consideration has been or can be given to the environmental aspects by the United States and by any foreign government involved in taking the action.
</P>
<P>b. An environmental review is prepared by the DoD component concerned either unilaterally or in conjunction with another Federal agency. While an environmental review may be used for any of the actions identified by section B., it may be uniquely suitable, because it is prepared unilaterally by the United States, to actions that affect the environment of a nation not involved in the undertaking (B.l.a.).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Department of State Coordination.</I> Communications with foreign governments concerning environmental agreements and other formal arrangements with foreign governments concerning environmental matters under this enclosure will be coordinated with the Department of State. Informal working-level communications and arrangements are not included in this coordination requirement. Coordination with the Department of State will be through the Assistant Secretary of Defense (International Security Affairs).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Whether to Prepare an Environmental Review.</I> Sufficient information will be gathered, to the extent it is reasonably available, to permit an informed judgment as to whether the proposed action would do significant harm to the environments covered by this enclosure. If a negative decision is made, a record will be made of that decision and its basis. If a decision is made to prepare a review, then, except as provided by this enclosure, no action concerning the proposal may be taken that would do significant environmental harm until the review has been completed.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Content of the Review.</I> An environmental review is a survey of the important environmental issues associated with the proposed action that is to be considered by the DoD component concerned in the decision-making process. It does not include all possible environmental issues and it does not include the detailed evaluation required in an environmental impact statement under Enclosure 1 of this part. There is no foreign government or international organization participation in its preparation, and the content therefore may be circumscribed because of the availability of information and because of foreign relations sensitivities. Other factors affecting the content are identified under “Limitations,” (subsection E.6., of this enclosure). To the extent reasonably practical the review should include consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>a. A statement of the action to be taken including its timetable, physical features, general operating plan, and other similar broad-gauge descriptive factors;
</P>
<P>b. Identification of the important environmental issues involved;
</P>
<P>c. The aspects of the actions taken or to be taken by the DoD component that ameliorate or minimize the impact on the environment; and
</P>
<P>d. The actions known to have been taken or to be planned by the government of any participating and affected foreign nations that will affect environmental considerations. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Distribution.</I> Except as provided under “Limitations,” (subsection E.6., of this enclosure), and except where classified information is involved, environmental reviews will be made available to the Department of State, the Council on Environmental Quality, other interested Federal agencies, and, on request, to the public in the United States. Interested foreign governments also may be informed of the reviews and, subject to the “Limitations” (subsection E.6., of this enclosure) and controls on classified information, will be furnished copies of the documents on request. This provision for document distribution is not a requirement that distribution be made prior to taking the action that is the subject of the review.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Limitations.</I> The requirements with respect to the preparation, content, and distribution of environmental reviews in the international context must remain flexible. The specific procedures must be determined on a case-by-case basis and may be modified where necessary to:
</P>
<P>a. Enable the component to act promptly. Considerations such as national security and foreign government involvement may require prompt action that must take precedence in the environmental review process;
</P>
<P>b. Avoid adverse impacts on relations between the United States and foreign governments and international organizations;
</P>
<P>c. Avoid infringement or the appearance of infringement on the sovereign responsibilities of another government. The collection of information and the preparation and distribution of environmental documentation for actions in which another nation is involved or with respect to the environment and resources of another nation, unless done with proper regard to the sovereign authority of that nation, may be viewed by that nation as an interference in its internal affairs and its prerogative to evaluate requirements with respect to the environment; and
</P>
<P>d. Ensure consideration of:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements of governmental confidentiality. This refers to the need to protect sensitive foreign affairs information and information received from another government with the understanding that it will be protected from disclosure regardless of its classification;
</P>
<P>(2) National security requirements. This refers to the protection of classified information;
</P>
<P>(3) Availability of meaningful information. Information on the environment of foreign nations may be unavailable, incomplete, or not susceptible to meaningful evaluation, and this may reduce or change substantially the normal content of the environmental review;
</P>
<P>(4) The extent of the participation of the DoD component concerned and its ability to affect the decision made. The utility of the environmental analysis and the need for an in-depth review diminishes as the role of the Department of Defense and control over the decision lessens; and
</P>
<P>(5) International commercial, commercial confidentiality, competitive, and export promotion factors. This refers to the requirements to protect domestic and foreign trade secrets and confidential business information from disclosure. Export promotion factors includes the concept of not unnecessarily hindering United States exports.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Classified Information.</I> Classified information will be safeguarded from disclosure in accordance with the DoD procedures (32 CFR 159) established for such information under Executive Order 12065. The requirements of that Executive Order take precedence over any requirement of disclosure in this part.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="188" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 188—DOD ENVIRONMENTAL LABORATORY ACCREDITATION PROGRAM (ELAP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 3701; Pub. L. 106-554, 114 Stat. 2763.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 80998, Nov. 17, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 188.1" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures to be used by DoD personnel for the operation and management of the DoD ELAP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 188.2" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 188.3" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation.</I> Third-party attestation conveying formal demonstration of a laboratory's competence to carry out specific tasks.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation body (AB).</I> Authoritative organization that performs accreditation.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment.</I> Process undertaken by an AB to evaluate the competence of a laboratory, based on requirements contained in the DoD Quality Systems Manual for Environmental Laboratories (QSM), for a defined scope of accreditation.
</P>
<P><I>Change.</I> A reissuance of the DoD QSM containing minor changes to requirements or clarifications of existing requirements necessary to ensure consistent implementation.
</P>
<P><I>Complaint.</I> Defined in International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 17025:2005, “General Requirements for the Competence of Testing and Calibration Laboratories” (available for purchase at <I>http://www.iso.org/iso/store.htm</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Contractor project chemist.</I> Defined in Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics Memorandum, “Acquisitions Involving Environmental Sampling or Testing Services” (available at <I>http://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/dars/dfars/changenotice/2008/20080303/223.7.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Corrective action response.</I> Description, prepared by the laboratory, of specific actions to be taken to correct a deficiency and prevent its reoccurrence.
</P>
<P><I>Deficiency.</I> An unauthorized deviation from requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Definitive data.</I> Defined in DoD Instruction 4715.15, “Environmental Quality Systems” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/471515p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Environmental Data Quality Workgroup (EDQW) component principal.</I> A voting member of the DoD EDQW.
</P>
<P><I>Errata sheet.</I> A document prepared by the EDQW and issued by the EDQW chair, defining minor “pen and ink” changes that apply to the most recently issued version of the DoD QSM. Errata will be corrected in the next change or revision of the DoD QSM.
</P>
<P><I>Government chemist.</I> Defined in USD(AT&amp;L) Memorandum, “Acquisitions Involving Environmental Sampling or Testing Services.”
</P>
<P><I>Government oversight.</I> The set of activities performed by or on behalf of the DoD EDQW to provide assurance that ABs and assessors are providing thorough, consistent, objective, and impartial assessments within the specified scopes of accreditation and to identify opportunities for continual improvement of the DoD QSM and DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P><I>International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) mutual recognition arrangement (MRA).</I> An arrangement through which ABs are evaluated and accepted by their peers for conformance to ILAC rules and procedures. To be accepted into the ILAC MRA, the AB must become a signatory to its requirements; specifically, it must commit to maintain conformance with the current version of Deputy Secretary of Defense Memorandum, “Ensuring Quality of Information Disseminated to the Public by the Department of Defense”) and ensure that the laboratories it accredits comply with ISO/IEC 17025:2005.
</P>
<P><I>ILAC MRA peer evaluation.</I> The process through which ABs are assessed by other ABs and receive or maintain acceptance into the ILAC MRA.
</P>
<P><I>Project-specific laboratory approval.</I> The set of activities undertaken by the DoD EDQW to assess whether a laboratory is competent to perform specific tests, in the case where no DoD-ELAP accredited laboratory is able to perform the required tests.
</P>
<P><I>Quality system.</I> Defined in ISO/IEC 17025:2005.
</P>
<P><I>Recognition.</I> The acceptance of an AB by the EDQW based on its demonstrated commitment to maintain signatory status in the ILAC MRA and accept the DoD ELAP conditions and criteria for recognition.
</P>
<P><I>Revision.</I> A reissuance of the DoD QSM containing significant changes in requirements or scope. A significant change is one that could reasonably be expected to affect a laboratory's ability to comply with the requirement (<I>i.e.,</I> the laboratory is likely to have to make a change in its quality system or technical procedures in order to maintain compliance).
</P>
<P><I>Scope of accreditation.</I> Specific laboratory services, stated in terms of test method, matrix, and analyte, for which accreditation is sought or has been granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 188.4" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy, in accordance with DoD Instruction 4715.15, to implement the DoD ELAP for the collection of definitive data in support of the Defense Environmental Restoration Program (DERP) at all DoD operations, activities, and installations, including government-owned, contractor-operated facilities and formerly used defense sites.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 188.5" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments and Director, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).</I> The Director, DLA, is under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(AT&amp;L), through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness. The Secretaries of the Military Departments and Director, DLA:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide resources to support project-specific government oversight for the collection of definitive data in support of the DERP.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide resources to support project-specific laboratory approvals, if required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary of the Navy.</I> In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (a) of this section, the Secretary of the Navy plans, programs, and budgets for DoD EDQW activities necessary to support government oversight of the DoD ELAP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 188.6" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.64.0.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 188.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DoD ELAP Overview</I>—(1) <I>Introduction.</I> (i) DoD ELAP provides a unified DoD program through which commercial environmental laboratories can voluntarily demonstrate competency and document conformance to the international standard established in ISO/IEC 17025:2005 as implemented by the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security Memorandum, “DoD Quality Systems Manual for Environmental Laboratories” (available at <I>http://www.denix.osd.mil/edqw/upload/QSM-V4-2-Final-102510.pdf</I>) (referred to in this part as the “DoD Quality Systems Manual for Environmental Laboratories (QSM)”). The DoD QSM provides minimum quality systems requirements, based on ISO/IEC 17025:2005, for environmental laboratories performing testing for DoD.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD ELAP was developed in compliance with 15 U.S.C. 3701 (also known as the “National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act”). Support and guidance was provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, following procedures used to establish similar programs for other areas of testing. The DoD ELAP supports implementation of section 515 of Public Law 106-554, “Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001” and Office of Management and Budget Guidance, “Guidelines for Ensuring and Maximizing the Quality, Objectivity, Utility, and Integrity of Information Disseminated by Federal Agencies” (67 FR 8452) as implemented by Deputy Secretary of Defense Memorandum, “Ensuring Quality of Information Disseminated to the Public by the Department of Defense.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Using third party ABs operating in accordance with the international standard ISO/IEC 17011:2004(E), “Conformity Assessment—General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies Accrediting Conformity Assessment Bodies” (available for purchase at <I>http://www.iso.org/iso/store.htm</I>), the DoD ELAP:
</P>
<P>(A) Promotes interoperability among the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(B) Promotes fair and open competition among commercial laboratories.
</P>
<P>(C) Streamlines the process for identifying and procuring competent providers of environmental laboratory services.
</P>
<P>(D) Promotes the collection of data of known and documented quality.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authority.</I> Operation of the DoD ELAP is authorized by DoD Instruction 4715.15.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Program requirements.</I> (i) Pursuant to DoD Instruction 4715.15, laboratories seeking to perform testing in support of the DERP must be accredited in accordance with DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD ELAP applies to:
</P>
<P>(A) Environmental programs at DoD operations, activities, and installations, including government-owned, contractor-operated facilities and formerly used defense sites.
</P>
<P>(B) Permanent, temporary, and mobile laboratories regardless of their size, volume of business, or field of accreditation that generate definitive data.
</P>
<P>(iii) Participation in the program is voluntary and open to all laboratories that operate under a quality system conforming to ISO/IEC 17025:2005 and Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security Memorandum, “DoD Quality Systems Manual for Environmental Laboratories.” Laboratories may seek accreditation for any method they perform in accordance with documented procedures, including non-standard methods. Laboratories are free to select any participating AB for accreditation services.
</P>
<P>(iv) To participate in DoD ELAP, ABs must be U.S.-based signatories to the ILAC MRA and must operate in accordance with ISO/IEC 17011:2004(E).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Program oversight.</I> In accordance with Assistant Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Installations and Environment Memorandum, “DoD Environmental Data Quality Workgroup Charter” (available at <I>http://www.denix.osd.mil/edqw/upload/USA004743-10-Signed-Memo-to-DASs-DLA-DoD-Envir-Data-Quality-Workgroup-Charter-1Oct10-1.pdf</I>), the DoD EDQW:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides coordinated responses to legislative and regulatory initiatives.
</P>
<P>(ii) Responds to requests for DoD Component information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Develops and recommends department-wide policy related to sampling, testing, and quality assurance for environmental programs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Implements and provides oversight for the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(v) Includes technical experts from the Military Services and DLA as well as an EDQW component principal (voting) member from each of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(vi) Specifies the EDQW Navy principal, Director of Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM) 04XQ(LABS), serve as EDQW chair.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintaining the DoD QSM</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The DoD EDQW will maintain and improve the DoD QSM to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD QSM remains current in accordance with ISO/IEC 17025:2005.
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimum essential requirements are met.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requirements are clear, concise, and auditable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DoD QSM will efficiently and effectively support the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures</I>—(i) <I>Annual review.</I> At a minimum, the DoD EDQW will perform an annual review of the DoD QSM, based on feedback received from participants in DoD ELAP (<I>e.g.,</I> DoD Components, commercial laboratories, and ABs). The review will also address any revisions to ISO/IEC 17025:2005.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ongoing review.</I> As received, the DoD EDQW will respond to questions submitted through the Defense Environmental Network Information Exchange (DENIX) concerning the interpretation of DoD QSM requirements. DoD EDQW participants will forward all questions through their EDQW component principal to the DoD EDQW chair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Issuances.</I> The DoD EDQW chair will prepare DoD QSM updates:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Correspondence.</I> The DoD EDQW chair, in consultation with the EDQW component principals, will prepare correspondence (email or memorandum) providing responses to all written requests for clarification and interpretation of the DoD QSM. Depending on the significance of the issue, as determined by the EDQW chair, the response may also result in a posting to the frequently asked question (FAQ) section of the appropriate Web sites.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Errata sheets.</I> Minor corrections to the DoD QSM, such as typographical errors, may be made by the issuance of an errata sheet defining “pen and ink” changes that apply to the current version of the DoD QSM. Following concurrence by all EDQW component principals, errata sheets will be issued as needed by the DoD EDQW chair. Errata will be corrected in the next change or revision to the DoD QSM.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Changes.</I> Changes to the DoD QSM will be issued as necessary to reflect minor changes to requirements or clarifications of existing requirements that are necessary to ensure consistent implementation. Following concurrence by the EDQW component principals, changes will be issued by the DoD EDQW chair in the form of a complete DoD QSM.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The first change to DoD QSM Version 4 will be numbered Version 4.1, the second change will be Version 4.2, etc.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Changes to the DoD QSM will be posted on DENIX in place of the previous version or change of the DoD QSM.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Revisions.</I> A revision will be issued if one or more of the proposed changes could reasonably be expected to affect a laboratory's ability to comply with the requirement (<I>i.e.,</I> the laboratory is likely to have to make a change in its quality system or technical procedures).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Once EDQW component principals have reached consensus on the proposed revision, the DoD EDQW chair will forward the proposed revision to all participating DoD ELAP-accredited laboratories and ABs for review.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The DoD EDQW will review and respond to comments received from the DoD ELAP-accredited laboratories and ABs within the designated comment period.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Following concurrence by the EDQW component principals, revisions will be issued by the DoD EDQW chair in the form of a complete DoD QSM.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A revision of Version 4 will be issued as Version 5, a revision of Version 5 will be issued as Version 6, etc.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The final revised version of the DoD QSM will be posted on DENIX in place of the previous version including any DoD QSM updates.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Continual improvement.</I> The DoD EDQW will meet with the ABs on an annual basis to review lessons learned and identify additional opportunities for continual improvement of the DoD ELAP and the DoD QSM.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Data and records management.</I> Through NAVSEASYSCOM, the DoD EDQW will maintain all DoD QSM updates in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Manual M-5210.1, “Department of the Navy Records Management Program: Records Management Manual” (available at <I>http://doni.daps.dla.mil/SECNAV%20Manuals1/5210.1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognizing ABs</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The DoD EDQW will:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the procedures in this paragraph to evaluate and recognize third-party ABs in support of the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(B) Develop and maintain the application for recognition, the conditions and criteria for recognition and related forms, and review submitted AB applications for completeness and compliance with DoD ELAP requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD EDQW chair, following consultation with and concurrence by the EDQW component principals, grants or revokes AB recognition in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Candidate ABs must be U.S.-based signatories in good standing to the ILAC MRA. ABs must maintain ILAC recognition to maintain DoD ELAP recognition. Because the EDQW continually monitors AB performance, no pre-defined limits are placed on the duration of recognition; however, the EDQW may revoke recognition at any time, for cause, in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) Upon receipt of an application for recognition, the DoD EDQW will review the application package for completeness. A complete application package must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Application for recognition.
</P>
<P>(B) Signed acceptance of the conditions and criteria for DoD ELAP recognition.
</P>
<P>(C) Electronic copy of the AB's quality systems documentation.
</P>
<P>(D) Copy of the most recent ILAC MRA peer evaluation documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If necessary to complete the review, the DoD EDQW will request additional documentation from the applicant.
</P>
<P>(iii) The EDQW component principals will review the application package for compliance with requirements. Prior to granting recognition, the EDQW component principals must unanimously concur that all application requirements have been met.
</P>
<P>(iv) Once the EDQW component principals have completed review of the application package, the DoD EDQW chair will notify the AB, either granting recognition or citing specific reasons for not doing so (<I>i.e.,</I> indicating which areas of the application package are deficient).
</P>
<P>(v) Once recognition has been granted, the DoD EDQW chair will post the name and contact information of the AB on DENIX.
</P>
<P>(vi) With unanimous concurrence, the EDQW component principals may revoke recognition if the AB:
</P>
<P>(A) Violates any of the conditions or criteria for recognition.
</P>
<P>(B) Fails to operate in accordance with its documented quality system.
</P>
<P>(vii) Should it become necessary to revoke an AB's recognition, the DoD EDQW chair will notify the AB stating specific reasons for the revocation and remove the AB's name from the list of DoD ELAP-recognized ABs.
</P>
<P>(viii) If recognition is revoked, the AB must immediately cease to perform all DoD ELAP assessments.
</P>
<P>(ix) ABs who have been denied recognition, or ABs whose recognition has been revoked, may appeal that decision.
</P>
<P>(A) Within 15 calendar days of its receipt of a notice denying or revoking recognition, the AB must submit to the DoD EDQW chair a written statement with supporting documentation contesting the denial or revocation.
</P>
<P>(B) The submission must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clear, factual errors were made by the DoD EDQW during the review of the AB's application for recognition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The decision to revoke recognition was based on clear, factual errors, and that the AB would have been determined to meet all requirements for recognition if those errors had been corrected.
</P>
<P>(x) The DoD EDQW will have up to 30 calendar days to review the appeal and provide written notice to the AB either accepting the appeal and granting, or restoring, recognition, or explaining the basis for denying the appeal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Continual improvement.</I> The DoD EDQW will meet with ABs on an annual basis to review lessons learned and identify additional opportunities for continual improvement of the DoD ELAP. On a 5-year cycle, at minimum, the DoD EDQW will evaluate whether the process for evaluating and recognizing ABs is continuing to meet DoD needs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Data and records management.</I> Through NAVSEASYSCOM, the DoD EDQW, will maintain copies of all application packages and associated documentation in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Manual M-5210.1.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performing government oversight</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> DoD personnel will use the procedures in this paragraph to perform and document government oversight of the DoD ELAP. Government oversight will include monitoring the performance of AB assessors during laboratory assessments, reviewing laboratory assessment reports, observing ILAC MRA peer evaluations, and evaluating AB Web sites for content on accredited laboratories.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) DoD personnel performing oversight must observe, but must not participate in, laboratory assessments or ILAC MRA peer evaluations. Specifically, DoD personnel must not:
</P>
<P>(A) Offer specific advice to the laboratory regarding the development or implementation of quality systems or technical procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) Offer specific advice or direction to assessors or peer evaluators regarding accreditation processes, assessment procedures, or documentation of findings; or
</P>
<P>(C) Impede assessors, peer reviewers, or laboratory personnel in any way during the performance of their work, including technical procedures, document reviews, observations, interviews, and meetings.
</P>
<P>(ii) If, during the course of an assessment, questions by laboratory personnel or assessors are directed to DoD personnel, personnel must limit responses to specific text from the DoD QSM or published FAQs. DoD personnel must not render opinions regarding interpretation of the DoD QSM. If there are questions about the DoD QSM that require interpretation, DoD personnel must advise the assessor to contact the AB who may, if necessary, contact the DoD EDQW chair for a coordinated response.
</P>
<P>(iii) If DoD personnel observe any evidence of inappropriate practices on the part of assessors or laboratory personnel during the course of the assessment, they must record the observations and notify the DoD EDQW chair immediately (inappropriate practices are identified in the DoD QSM). DoD personnel must not call either the laboratory's or the assessor's attention to the specific practice in question.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personnel qualifications.</I> DoD personnel or contractors performing oversight must:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the government chemist or contractor project chemist requirements contained in the USD(AT&amp;L) Memorandum, “Acquisitions Involving Environmental Sampling or Testing Services.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a working knowledge of the DoD QSM requirements and be familiar with environmental test methods and instrumentation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Obey all laboratory instructions regarding health and safety precautions while in the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) The DoD EDQW will maintain an up-to-date calendar of scheduled assessments and peer evaluations based on input from the ABs, peer evaluators, and assigned oversight personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once an assessment or peer review has been scheduled, the EDQW component principals will determine if DoD oversight of the activity will be performed. The goal will be to observe a representative number of activities for each AB.
</P>
<P>(iii) The EDQW component principals will provide the DoD EDQW chair the names of personnel from their respective DoD Components who will participate in the oversight.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DoD EDQW chair will provide the AB with contact information for the oversight personnel.
</P>
<P>(v) If two or more DoD personnel are scheduled to monitor the assessment, the DoD EDQW chair will designate a lead that will be responsible for compiling an oversight report.
</P>
<P>(vi) The lead for the oversight activity will request a copy of the assessment plan from the AB's lead assessor and distribute it to other oversight personnel.
</P>
<P>(vii) The lead will review the assessment plan to determine the scope of accreditation and ensure that oversight personnel are assigned to monitor a cross-section of the assessment.
</P>
<P>(viii) Persons performing oversight will review previous oversight reports, if available, for the particular AB and assessors performing the assessment.
</P>
<P>(ix) Observing all health and safety protective measures, oversight personnel must accompany the assessor(s) as they witness procedures and conduct interviews, taking care not to interfere with the assessment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reporting.</I> Within 15 calendar days of the onsite assessment, the lead for the oversight activity will complete an oversight report and forward the completed report through the appropriate EDQW component principal to the DoD EDQW chair.
</P>
<P>(i) The DoD EDQW chair will provide copies of the report to the EDQW component principals for review.
</P>
<P>(ii) After review by the EDQW component principals, the DoD EDQW chair will provide a summary of the oversight report to the AB performing the assessment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Handling disputes.</I> Laboratories must follow the AB's dispute resolution process for all disputes concerning the assessment or accreditation of the laboratory, including disagreements involving an interpretation of the DoD QSM arising during the accreditation process.
</P>
<P>(i) In the event the laboratory and the AB are unable to resolve a disagreement concerning the interpretation of the DoD QSM, either the laboratory or the AB may request the DoD EDQW provide an interpretation of the DoD QSM. The DoD EDQW chair will provide a written response to the laboratory and the AB providing the DoD authoritative interpretation of the DoD QSM. No review of this interpretation will be available to the laboratory or the AB.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD EDQW will not consider or take a position on requests by either a laboratory or an AB on a dispute concerning accreditation of the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Continual improvement.</I> The DoD EDQW will:
</P>
<P>(i) Review the ABs' assessment reports and the DoD oversight reports to evaluate the thoroughness, consistency, objectivity, and impartiality of the DoD ELAP assessments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compare assessment reports across laboratories, ABs, and assessors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compare DoD ELAP findings to findings from previous assessments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify opportunities for continual improvement of the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(v) Meet with ABs on an annual basis to review lessons learned and identify additional opportunities for continual improvement of the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Data and records management.</I> Through NAVSEASYSCOM, the DoD EDQW will maintain copies of all oversight reports in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Manual M-5210.1.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conducting project-specific laboratory approvals</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The DoD EDQW will use the procedures in this paragraph to conduct project-specific laboratory approvals for specific tests in the rare instances when DoD is unable to identify a DoD ELAP-accredited laboratory capable of providing the required services. This will ensure that competent laboratories are used to support DoD environmental projects. Examples of these rare instances include:
</P>
<P>(i) The required method, matrix, or analyte is not included in the scope of accreditation for any existing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratories.
</P>
<P>(ii) The required method, matrix, and analyte combination is included in the scope of accreditation for an existing accredited laboratory; however, the laboratory is unable to meet one or more of the project-specific measurement performance criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) Project-specific laboratory approvals are not to be used as substitutes for the required DoD ELAP-accreditation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD EDQW will not perform project-specific laboratory approvals in cases where one or more DoD ELAP-accredited laboratories capable of meeting project-specific requirements are available.
</P>
<P>(iii) The project-specific laboratory approval is a one-time approval, the specific terms of which will be outlined in the approval notice issued by the DoD EDQW.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personnel qualifications.</I> DoD personnel and contractors assessing laboratories for the purpose of performing project-specific laboratory approvals must meet the government chemist or contractor project chemist requirements contained in USD(AT&amp;L) Memorandum, “Acquisitions Involving Environmental Sampling or Testing Services.” Personnel must have a working knowledge of the DoD QSM requirements and be familiar with required environmental test methods and instrumentation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) If a project-specific laboratory approval is requested, the DoD EDQW will request and review a copy of the project's quality assurance project plan (QAPP).
</P>
<P>(ii) If, after review of the QAPP, the DoD EDQW determines that an existing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratory is available to provide the required services, the laboratory contact information will be provided to the project manager requesting assistance.
</P>
<P>(iii) If, after review of the QAPP, the DoD EDQW determines that no existing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratory is available to provide the required services, the DoD EDQW will:
</P>
<P>(A) Work with the project team to determine whether the use of alternative procedures by an existing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratory is feasible;
</P>
<P>(B) Determine if the required services can be added to the scope of accreditation of an existing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratory; or
</P>
<P>(C) Work with the project team to identify a candidate laboratory for project-specific laboratory approval.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a project-specific approval is needed, the DoD EDQW will:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine the type of assessment required (on-site, document review, etc.).
</P>
<P>(B) Determine if additional funding is required to support the assessment. If additional funding is required, the DoD EDQW will provide a cost estimate and work with the project manager to establish funding.
</P>
<P>(v) If the DoD EDQW determines that a project-specific laboratory approval is warranted and resources (including funding and technical expertise) are available to support the assessment, the DoD EDQW chair will coordinate with the EDQW component principals to appoint an assessment team with appropriate technical backgrounds.
</P>
<P>(vi) The DoD EDQW chair will designate an assessment team leader. The assessment team leader will:
</P>
<P>(A) Request the documentation needed to perform the assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) Assign responsibilities for individual members of the assessment team, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) Coordinate the document reviews.
</P>
<P>(D) Lead the assessment team in the performance of the on-site assessment, if required.
</P>
<P>(E) Provide a report to the DoD EDQW chair. The report will identify whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The laboratory is capable of meeting all project-specific requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Documentation procedures are in place to provide data that are scientifically valid, defensible, and reproducible.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any deficiencies must be corrected prior to granting the project-specific laboratory approval.
</P>
<P>(vii) The DoD EDQW chair, with concurrence by the EDQW component principals, will issue a report to the project manager and laboratory detailing the results of the assessment and any deficiencies that must be corrected prior to granting a project-specific laboratory approval.
</P>
<P>(viii) Upon receipt of the laboratory's corrective action response, if required, the assessment team will:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the laboratory's corrective action response for resolving the deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the EDQW component principals with a final report describing the resolution of findings and containing recommendations on whether to grant the project-specific laboratory approval.
</P>
<P>(ix) The DoD EDQW chair, with concurrence by the EDQW component principals, will prepare a report for the DoD project manager describing the results of the assessment and the status and terms of the project-specific laboratory approval. Information about project-specific laboratory approvals will not be posted on Web sites listing DoD ELAP-accredited laboratories.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Continual improvement.</I> The EDQW component principals will review project-specific laboratory assessment reports to evaluate the thoroughness, consistency, objectivity, and impartiality of project-specific assessments and make recommendations for continual improvement of the DoD QSM and the DoD ELAP.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Data and records management.</I> Through NAVSEASYSCOM, the DoD EDQW will maintain copies of all laboratory records and project-specific assessment reports in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Manual M-5210.1.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Handling complaints</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The DoD EDQW will use the procedures in this paragraph to handle complaints concerning the processes established in the DoD ELAP or the DoD QSM. The DoD EDQW will document and resolve complaints promptly through the appropriate channels, consistently and objectively, and identify and implement any necessary corrective action arising from complaints. Complaints generally fall into one of four categories:
</P>
<P>(i) Complaints by any party against an accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(ii) Complaints by any party against an AB.
</P>
<P>(iii) Complaints by any party concerning any assessor acting on behalf of the AB.
</P>
<P>(iv) Complaints by any party against the DoD ELAP itself.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> The procedures in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(i) Do not address appeals by laboratories regarding accreditation decisions by ABs. Appeals to decisions made by ABs regarding the accreditation status of any laboratory must be filed directly with the AB in accordance with agreements in place between the laboratory and the AB.
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not designed to handle allegations of unethical or illegal actions as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not address complaints involving contractual requirements between a laboratory and its client. All contracting issues must be resolved with the contracting officer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) All complaints must be filed in writing to the EDQW chair. All complaints must provide the basis for the complaint (<I>i.e.,</I> the specific process or requirement in the DoD ELAP or the DoD QSM that has not been satisfied or is believed to need changing) and supporting documentation, including descriptions of attempts to resolve the complaint by the laboratory or the AB.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of the complaint, the DoD EDQW chair will assign a unique identifier to the complaint, send a notice of acknowledgement to the complainant, and forward a copy of the complaint to the EDQW component principals.
</P>
<P>(iii) In consultation with the EDQW component principals, the DoD EDQW chair will make a preliminary determination of the validity of the complaint. Following preliminary review, the actions available to the DoD EDQW chair include:
</P>
<P>(A) If the DoD EDQW chair determines the complaint should be handled directly between the complainant and the subject of the complaint, the DoD EDQW will refer the complaint to the laboratory, or AB, as appropriate. The DoD EDQW will notify the complainant of the referral, but will take no further action with respect to investigation of the complaint. The subject of the complaint will be expected to respond to the complainant in accordance with their established procedures and timelines. A copy of the response will be provided to the DoD EDQW.
</P>
<P>(B) If insufficient information has been provided to determine whether the complaint has merit, the DoD EDQW will return the complaint to the complainant with a request for additional supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(C) If the complaint appears to have merit and the parties to the complaint have been unable to resolve it, the DoD EDQW will investigate the complaint and recommend actions for its resolution.
</P>
<P>(D) If available information does not support the complaint, the DoD EDQW may reject the complaint.
</P>
<P>(E) If the complaint alleges inappropriate laboratory practices or other misconduct, the DoD EDQW chair will consult legal counsel to determine the recommended course of action.
</P>
<P>(iv) In all cases, the DoD EDQW will notify the complainant and any other entity involved in the complaint and explain the response of the EDQW to the complaint.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Continual improvement.</I> The DoD EDQW will look into root causes and trends in complaints to help identify actions that should be taken by the DoD EDQW, or any parties involved with DoD ELAP, to prevent recurrence of problems that led to the complaints.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Data and records management.</I> Through NAVSEASYSCOM, the DoD EDQW will maintain copies of all complaint documentation in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Manual M-5210.1.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="189-190" NODE="32:1.1.1.10.65" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 189-190 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 16, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="32:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32—National Defense--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter I</E>—Office of the Secretary of Defense (Continued) 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>191


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:2.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="32:2.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—OFFICE OF THE SECRETARY OF DEFENSE (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="M" NODE="32:2.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER M—MISCELLANEOUS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="191" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 191—THE DOD CIVILIAN EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY (EEO) PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 113.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 191.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements the DoD Humans Goals Charter; 29 U.S.C. 791, 792, 793, and 795; guidance from the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC); guidance from the Office of Personnel Management (OPM); Executive Order 11830; General Services Administration Order ADM 5420.71A; Executive Orders 11141; 11246 Part II, 11375, and 12086; Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-11; 42 U.S.C. 2000E-16; Executive Order 11478; 38 U.S.C. 2014; 29 U.S.C. 631(b) and 633a; 5 U.S.C. chapters 43 and 72; Secretary of Defense Policy on Sexual Harassment, July 17, 1981; Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs and Logistics) Multiple Addressee Memorandum, August 16, 1981; and 29 U.S.C. 206(d) by establishing the Civilian Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Program, to include affirmative action programs, consistent with guidance from the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), Office of Personnel Management (OPM), and the DoD Human Goals Charter.
</P>
<P>(b) Consolidates in a single document provisions of Secretary of Defense Multiple Addressee Memorandum, June 23, 1981; DoD Directive 1100.11, DoD Directive 1450.1, DoD Directive 5120.46, and DoD Directive 1100.15, therefore cancelling each document.
</P>
<P>(c) Authorizes, as an integral part of the Civilian EEO Program, the establishment of Special Emphasis Programs (SEPs) entitled the Federal Women's Program (FWP), the Hispanic Employment Program (HEP), and the Program for People with Disabilities (PPD), the Asian/Pacific Islander Employment Program (AEP), the American Indian/Alaskan Native Employment Program (AIEP), and the Black Employment Program (BEP).
</P>
<P>(d) Establishes the Defense Equal Opportunity Council (DEOC), the Civilian EEO Review Board, the SEP Boards.
</P>
<P>(e) Authorizes the issuance of DoD Instructions and Manuals to implement this part and guidance from standard-setting agencies such as EEOC and OPM, consistent with DoD 5025.1-M.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 10170, Mar. 11, 1991; 57 FR 35755, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) and activities supported administratively by OSD, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (as an element of the OSD for the purposes of this program), the Unified and Specified Commands, the Defense Agencies, the Army and Air Force Exchange Service, the National Guard Bureau, the Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, the Office of Civilian Health and Medical Programs of the Uniformed Services, and the DoD Dependents Schools (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Applies worldwide to all civilian employees and applicants for civilian employment within the Department of Defense in appropriated and non-appropriated fund positions.
</P>
<P>(c) Does not apply to military personnel, for whom equal opportunity is covered by DoD Directive 1350.2 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Covers Federal employment issues under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, even though DoD Directive 1020.1 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> implements section 504 with respect to programs conducted and assisted by the Department of Defense. The standards established under section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, (29 U.S.C. 791, 792, 793, and 795), are to be applied under section 504 of the Act with respect to civilian employees and applicants for civilian employment in Federal Agencies.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 10170, Mar. 11, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affirmative action.</I> A tool to achieve equal employment opportunity. A program of self-analysis, problem identification, data collection, policy statements, reporting systems, and elimination of discriminatory policies and practices, past and present.
</P>
<P><I>Age.</I> A prohibited basis discrimination. For purposes of this Directive, persons protected under age discrimination provisions are those 40 years of age or older, except when a maximum age requirement has been established by statute or the OPM. Aliens employed outside the limits of the United States are not covered by this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Discrimination.</I> Illegal treatment of a person or group based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, age, or disability.
</P>
<P><I>Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO).</I> The right of all persons to work and advance on the basis of merit, ability, and potential, free from social, personal, or institutional barriers of prejudice and discrimination. 
</P>
<P><I>Minorities.</I> All persons classified as black (not of Hispanic origin), Hispanic, Asian or Pacific Islander, and American Indian or Alaskan Native.
</P>
<P><I>National origin.</I> A prohibited basis for discrimination. An individual's place of origin or his or her ancestor's place of origin or the possession of physical, cultural, or linguistic characteristics of a national origin group.
</P>
<P><I>People with disabilities.</I> People who have physical or mental impairments that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. For purposes of this part, such term does not include any individual who is an alcoholic or drug abuser and whose current use of alcohol or drugs prevents such individual from performing the duties of the job in question, or whose employment, by reason of such current alcohol or drug abuse, would constitute a direct threat to property or to the safety of others. As used in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Physical or mental impairment.</I> Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal and special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Major life activities.</I> Functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Has a record of such impairment.</I> Has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment.</I> Has:
</P>
<P>(1) A physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by an employer as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(2) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitude of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(3) None of the impairments defined above but is treated by an employer as having an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Race.</I> A prohibited basis for discrimination. For purposes of this part, all persons are classified as black (not of Hispanic origin), Hispanic, Asian or Pacific Islander, American Indian or Alaskan Native, and White, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Black (not of Hispanic origin).</I> A person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hispanic origin.</I> A person of Mexican, Puerto Rican, Cuban, Central or South American or other Spanish culture or origin regardless of race.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Asian or Pacific Islander.</I> A person having origin in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian subcontinent, or the Pacific Islands. This area includes, for example, China, India, Japan, Korea, the Philippine Islands, and Samoa.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>American Indian or Alaskan Native.</I> A person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America, and who maintains cultural identification through tribal affiliation or community recognition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>White.</I> A person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, North Africa, or the Middle East.
</P>
<P><I>Religion.</I> Traditional systems of religious belief and moral or ethical beliefs as to what is right and wrong that are sincerely held with the strength of traditional religious views. The phrase “religious practice” as used in this part includes both religious observances and practices. DoD Components are expected to accommodate an employee's religious practices unless doing so causes undue hardship on the conduct of the Component's business.
</P>
<P><I>Sexual Harassment.</I> A form of sex discrimination that involves unwelcomed sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature when:
</P>
<P>(a) Submission to or rejection of such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person's job, pay, or career; or
</P>
<P>(b) Submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person, or
</P>
<P>(c) Such conduct interferes with an individual's performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment.
</P>
<FP>Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones implicit or explicit sexual behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a military member of civilian employee is engaging in sexual harassment. Similarly, any military member of civilian employee who makes deliberate or repeated unwelcomed verbal comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature is also engaging in sexual harassment.
</FP>
<P><I>Special Emphasis Program (SEPs).</I> Programs established as integral parts of the overall EEO program to enhance the employment, training, and advancement of a particular minority group, women, or people with disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Standard-setting agencies.</I> Non-DoD Federal Agencies authorized to establish Federal Government-wide EEO policy or program requirements. The term includes the EEOC; OPM: DoL, Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP); and OMB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15752, Apr. 19, 1989; 57 FR 35755, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD Policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Recognize equal opportunity programs, including affirmative action programs, as essential elements of readiness that are vital to the accomplishment of the DoD national security mission. Equal employment opportunity is the objective of affirmative action programs.
</P>
<P>(b) Develop and implement affirmative action programs to achieve the objective of a civilian work force in which the representation of minorities, women, and people with disabilities at all grade levels, in every occupational series, and in every major organization element is commensurate with the representation specified in EEOC and OPM guidance. Such programs, which shall be designed to identify, recruit, and select qualified personnel, shall be coordinated with the cognizant legal offices.
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that Civilian EEO Program activities for minorities, women, and people with disabilities are integrated fully into the civilian personnel management system.
</P>
<P>(d) Assess progress in DoD Component programs in accordance with the affirmative action goals of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(e) Prohibit discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, mental or physical disability, or age.
</P>
<P>(f) Eliminate barriers and practices that impede equal employment opportunity for all employees and applicants for employment, including sexual harassment in the work force and at work sites and architectural, transportation, and other barriers affecting people with disabilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15752, Apr. 19, 1989; 57 FR 35756, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Force Management and Personnel</I> (ASD(FM&amp;P)), or designee, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Represent the Secretary of Defense in all matters related to the DoD Civilian EEO Program, consistent with DoD Directive 5124.2 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Establish and chair the DEOC.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish a Civilian EEO Review Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) Develop policy and provide program oversight for the Civilian EEO Program. 
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure full implementation of this part, monitor progress of affirmative action program elements, and advise the Secretary of Defense on matters relating to the Civilian EEO Program. 
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that realistic goals that provide for significant continuing increases in the percentages of minorities, women, and people with disabilities in entry, middle, and higher grade positions in all organizations and occupations are set and accomplished until the overall DoD objective is met and sustained. 
</P>
<P>(7) Prepare a new DoD Human Goals Charter each time a new Secretary of Defense is appointed. 
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure fair, impartial, and timely investigation and resolution of complaints of discrimination in employment, including complaints of sexual harassment. 
</P>
<P>(9) Establish DoD SEPs for the FWP, HEP, HIP, AEP, AIEP, and BEP.
</P>
<P>(10) Establish DoD Special Emphasis Program Boards to assist with implementation of SEPs under this part. 
</P>
<P>(11) Establish DoD Civilian EEO Award Programs to provide for the annual issuance of Secretary of Defense Certificates of Merit to DoD Components and individuals for outstanding achievement in the major areas covered by this part, and to review all awards and management training programs within the Department of Defense to ensure that minorities, women, and people with disabilities receive full and fair consideration consistent with their qualifications and the applicable program criteria. 
</P>
<P>(12) Issue implementing instructions and other documents, as required, to achieve the goals of the DoD Civilian EEO Program and to provide policy direction and overall guidance to the DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>(13) Represent the Department of Defense on programmatic EEO matters with EEOC, OPM, the Department of Justice, other Federal Agencies, and Congress. 
</P>
<P>(14) Represent the Department of Defense on the Interagency Committee on Handicapped Employees under E.O. 11830, as amended, and the Council on Accessible Technology under General Services Administration Order ADM 5420.71A. 
</P>
<P>(15) Represent the Department of Defense at meetings and conferences of non-Federal organizations concerned with EEO programs, and coordinate DoD support of such organizations' activities with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) and with DoD General Counsel in accordance with DoD Directive 5410.18 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>, DoD Instruction 5410.19 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>, DoD Directive 5500.2 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>, and DoD Directive 5500.7 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>(16) Serve as the DoD liaison with the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP), Department of Labor (DoL), for the purpose of providing contract information, forwarding complaints of discrimination filed against DoD contractors, and implementing administrative sanctions imposed against DoD contractors for violations of E.O. 11141; E.O. 11246; as amended by E.O. 11375, E.O. 12088; and DoL implementing regulations. 
</P>
<P>(17) Ensure that the DoD FAR Supplement contains appropriate contract provisions for EEO for Government contractors and subcontractors under Executive Orders 11141, 11246 Part II, 11375, and 12086; Section 402 of the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974, as amended; Section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended; and DoL implementing regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Heads of DoD Components,</I> or their designees, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that all EEO policies are disseminated widely and that they are understood and implemented at all levels within their Components. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that their Components comply with EEOC and OPM guidance and this part and that minorities, women, and people with disabilities receive full and fair consideration for civilian employment in all grade levels, occupations, and major organizations, with special emphasis on mid-level and higher grades and executive-level jobs, including the Senior Executive Service (SES) and SES candidate pools. 
</P>
<P>(3) Treat equal opportunity and affirmative action programs as essential elements of readiness that are vital to accomplishment of the national security mission. 
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a Director of Civilian Equal Opportunity and allocate sufficient staff and other resources to ensure a viable EEO program under this Directive. This includes assignment of staff to be responsible for EEO and affirmative action programs generally and SEP Managers for the SEPs established under this part at the Component level. 
</P>
<P>(5) Establish DoD SEPs, for the FWP, HEP, PPD, AEP, AIEP, and BEP at Headquarters level and at all field activities levels unless exemptions are granted to field activities. Authority to grant exceptions to field activities of DoD Components is delegated to the Component Heads who, in turn, may redelegate this authority.
</P>
<P>(6) Require that EEO be included in critical elements in the performance appraisals of all supervisors, managers, and other Component personnel, military and civilian, with EEO responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure fair, impartial, and timely investigation and resolution of complaints of discrimination in employment, including complaints of sexual harassment. 
</P>
<P>(8) Set realistic Component goals and motivate subordinate managers and supervisors to set and meet their own goals until overall DoD and Component goals are met and sustained. 
</P>
<P>(9) Evaluate employment policies, practices, and patterns within their respective Components and identify and correct and institutional barriers that restrict opportunities for recruitment, employment, advancement, awards, or training for minorities, women, and people with disabilities and ensure that EEO officers and civilian personnel officers provide leadership in eliminating these barriers. 
</P>
<P>(10) Ensure that installations and activities establish focused external recruitment programs to produce employment applications from minorities, women, and people with disabilities who are qualified to compete effectively with internal DoD candidates for employment at all levels and in all occupations. 
</P>
<P>(11) Establish a continuing EEO educational program (including training in the prevention of sexual harassment) for civilian and military personnel who supervise civilian employees. 
</P>
<P>(12) Establish EEO Awards Programs to recognize individuals and organizational units for outstanding achievement in one or all of the major EEO areas covered by this part. 
</P>
<P>(13) Review all award and management training programs to ensure that minorities, women, and people with disabilities are considered, consistent with their qualifications and program criteria. 
</P>
<P>(14) At military installations having a civilian work force and military units, ensure that the Civilian EEO Program is managed by and conducted for civilian personnel only and that the Military Equal Opportunity Program is managed by and conducted for military personnel only. Any exceptions to this policy must be authorized by the Component head. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 10170, Mar. 11, 1991; 57 FR 35756, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Officials designated in this Directive shall allocate resources necessary to develop methods and procedures to ensure that all elements of this part are fully implemented and are in compliance with the spirit and intent of the DoD Human Goals Charter, laws, executive orders, regulatory requirements, and other Directive and Instructions governing the Civilian EEO Program within the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(b) Heads of DoD Components, in accordance with EEOC and OPM guidance and subject to oversight by and supplemental guidance from the ASD(FM&amp;P), or designee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop procedures for and implement an affirmative action program for minorities and women, consistent with section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended; E.O. 11478; guidance from EEOC; and guidance from OPM. 
</P>
<P>(2) Develop procedures for and implement an affirmative action program for people with disabilities consistent with section 501 of Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, and guidance from EEOC. 
</P>
<P>(3) Develop procedures for and implement an affirmative action program for disabled veterans, consistent with DoD Directive 1341.6. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> This program shall be consistent with the program established in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and coordinated with the Component's PPD manager.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Develop procedures for and implement systems for investigation and resolution of complaints of employment discrimination under section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended; sections 501, 503, and 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended and DoD Directive 1020.1; section 402 of the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974, as amended; the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended; guidance from EEOC; and applicable case law. 
</P>
<P>(5) Develop procedures for and implement a Federal Equal Opportunity Recruitment Program for minorities and women and a comparable special recruitment program for people with disabilities in accordance with the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978; EEOC instruction concerning affirmative action programs for people with disabilities; guidance from OPM; external recruitment programs to obtain employment applications from minorities, women, and people with disabilities who are competitive with internal DoD candidates for employment at all levels. 
</P>
<P>(6) Develop procedures for and implement all SEPs established under this part at the Component level. These SEPs shall be integral parts of the Civilian EEO Program and shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of this part and applicable EEOC and OPM guidance. 
</P>
<P>(7) Develop procedures for and implement a program to eliminate sexual harassment in Component work places, consistent with DoD Policy on Sexual Harassment memorandums, and to ensure compliance with the Equal Pay Act. 
</P>
<P>(8) Develop procedures for and implement a program of employment preference for spouses of military personnel, in accordance with DoD Instruction 1404.12. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) Develop procedures for and implement a selective placement program for people with disabilities in accordance with guidance from OPM. This program shall be consistent with the program established in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and coordinated with the Component's PPD manager. 
</P>
<P>(10) Develop procedures for and implement staffing initiatives, training and development programs, and upward mobility programs designed to increase the representation of qualified minorities, women, and people with disabilities on certificates of eligibility and accompanying lists of individuals eligible for special appointments that are provided to selecting officials at all levels within the Component. These programs should include SES candidate programs and shall be targeted in career field in which there is underrepresentation and a likelihood of vacancies (e.g., science and engineering positions). 
</P>
<P>(11) Develop procedures for and implement a program to evaluate all supervisors and managers with EEO responsibilities on their contributions to and support of the Component's EEO program. Specifically, Component SES and General Manager personnel, when appropriate, shall have their EEO responsibilities defined as a critical element in their performance appraisals in accordance with the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978. 
</P>
<P>(12) Develop procedures for an implement a program to participate in and conduct ceremonies, where appropriate, at all levels of the Component to observe nationally proclaimed or other specially-designated community activities that particularly affect minorities, women, and people with disabilities and that support the Civilian EEO Program. Military and civilian personnel should both participate whenever possible. Example of special observances include Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.'s Birthday, Black History Month, National Women's History Week, Women's Equality Day, Hispanic Heritage Week, National Disability Employment Awareness Month, and the Decade of Disabled Persons. 
</P>
<P>(13) Develop procedures for and implement a program to revise documents and change practices and policies that discriminate against civilian personnel on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, national origin, mental or physical disability, or age. 
</P>
<P>(14) Develop procedures for and implement and affirmative action program for the continued Federal employment of minorities, women, and people with disabilities who have lost their jobs in DoD Components because of contracting decisions made under OMB Circular No. A-76. (Under OMB Circular Federal employees have, in general, the right of first refusal of employment under these contracts.) 
</P>
<P>(15) Develop procedures for and implement a program for computer support of employees with disabilities consistent with DoD participation in activities of the Council on Accessible Technology in accordance with General Services Administration Order ADM 5420.71A.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15752, Apr. 19, 1989; 57 FR 35756, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.7   Civilian EEO program staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) EEO Managers, including SEP Managers and other staff who are responsible for EEO and affirmative action programs, shall function at a level that is sufficiently responsible with the assigned organization to enable them to communicate effectively the goals and objectives of the program and to enable them to obtain the understanding, support, and commitment of managers and other officials at all levels within the organization.
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be the responsibility of EEO Managers, SEP Managers, and other program staff to develop, coordinate, implement, and recommend to managers, other officials, and covered groups the policy, guidance, information, and activities necessary to attain the goals of the SEPs and the overall DoD Civilian EEO Program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.8   Defense equal opportunity council and EEO boards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DEOC shall be chaired by the ASD (FM&amp;P) and shall coordinate policy for and review civilian and military equal opportunity programs, monitor progress of program elements, and advise the secretary of Defense on pertinent matters. One of the mandates of the DEOC shall be to pursue an aggressive course of action to increase the numbers of minorities, women, and people with disabilities in management and executive positions at grades 13 and above, including the SES and, at the request of the Secretary of Defense, Schedule C, and other noncareer executive positions in the SES and on the Executive Schedule. Members of the DEOC shall include the assistant Secretary of Defense (Reserve Affairs), Director of Administration and Management, and the Assistant Secretaries with responsibility for personnel policy and reserve affairs in the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(b) The Civilian EEO Review Board shall be chaired by the ASD(FM&amp;P), or designee. The Board shall support the DEOC and shall be made up of designated EEO and personnel representatives from the DoD Components and such other individuals as may be necessary to carry out the work of the DEOC and implement this part. The Board shall work with career management officials, other key management officials, and union representatives in developing policies, programs, and objectives.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD SEP Boards shall be chaired by the DoD SEP Managers. These Boards shall be comprised of designated SEP Managers from the DoD Components and such other individuals as may be necessary to advise and assist in EEO activities and policy development in the Department of Defense. The Boards shall work with career management officials, other key management officials, and union representatives in developing policies, programs, and objectives. 
</P>
<P>(d) The DEOC, Civilian EEO Review Board, and each SEP Board established at the DoD level shall have a Charter that describes its organization, management, functions, and operating procedures, consistent with DoD Directive 5105.18. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 191.2(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) Civilian EEO Review Boards and SEP Boards may be established at Component, command, and installation levels as well as the DoD level to assist in program activities.
</P>
<P>(f) Members of covered groups should be represented on Civilian EEO Review Boards, SEP Boards, and subcommittees at all levels; and consideration should be given to participation by military personnel and by Federal employees who are union representatives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15752, Apr. 19, 1989; 57 FR 35756, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.9   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ASD(FM&amp;P) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit an annual report to the Secretary of Defense on the status of the DoD EEO program. This report shall be developed from existing documents, such as affirmative action plan accomplishment reports, civil rights budget reports, semiannual discrimination complaint reports, and Federal Equal Opportunity Recruitment Program reports, plus statistical data obtained from the Defense Manpower Data Center and reports of visits to DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit consolidated DoD annual reports on discrimination complaints to the EEOC in accordance with EEOC guidance. This reporting requirement is assigned Interagency Report Control Number 0288-EEO-NA.
</P>
<P>(b) Heads of DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit annual reports on discrimination complaints to the ASD(FM&amp;P), or designee, in accordance with guidance from the EEOC. This reporting requirement is assigned Interagency Report Control Number 0288-EEO-NA.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit copies of affirmative action program plan, affirmative action program plan updates, and affirmative action plan accomplishment reports for minorities, women, and people with disabilities to the ASD(FM&amp;P), or designee, in addition to copies of annual reports for the Federal Equal Opportunity Recruitment Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that designated officials submit information for an annual report on computer support of employees with disabilities and for reports on individual computer accommodations for employees with disabilities. These reporting requirements are assigned RCS DD-FM&amp;P (A) 1731 and RCS DD-FM&amp;P (AR) 1732.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 30990, Aug. 17, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15752, Apr. 19, 1989; 57 FR 35756, Aug. 11, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.1.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.10   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This part is effective May 21, 1987. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="192" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 192—EQUAL OPPORTUNITY IN OFF-BASE HOUSING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 56 FR 32964, July 18, 1991.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 192.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part: 
</P>
<P>(a) Revises 32 CFR part 192. 
</P>
<P>(b) Revises the references, policies, and procedures covering off-base housing and fair housing enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(c) Outlines discrimination complaint inquiries or investigative procedures and hearing requirements. 
</P>
<P>(d) Deletes the requirement for each Military Department to submit a semi-annual housing discrimination report to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Force Management and Personnel) (ASD(FM&amp;P)). 
</P>
<P>(e) Requires each Military Service to report to the ASD(FM&amp;P) any housing discrimination cases and their results in their Annual Military Equal Opportunity Assessment Report to the ASD(FM&amp;P). 
</P>
<P>(f) Requires each Military Department to maintain all completed or resolved housing discrimination cases. 
</P>
<P>(g) Emphasizes liaison with other Government (local, State, or Federal) agencies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32964, July 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), the Joint Staff, the Unified and Specified Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (IG, DoD), the Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (USUHS), the Defense Agencies, and DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”). The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. DoD civilian employees (as defined in § 192.3) will be offered the same services that members of the Armed Forces receive. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32964, July 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agent.</I> Real estate agency, manager, landlord, or owner of a housing facility doing business with DoD personnel or a housing referral service (HRS).
</P>
<P><I>Area outside the United States.</I> Foreign countries where DoD personnel reside. 
</P>
<P><I>Commander.</I> The military or civilian head of any installation, organization, or agency of the Department of Defense who is assigned responsibility for the off-base housing program. 
</P>
<P><I>Commuting area.</I> That area which is within a 1 hour commute by a privately-owned vehicle during rush hour and no farther than 30 miles from the installation, or within other limits to satisfy mission requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Complainant.</I> A member of the Armed Forces (or authorized dependent designated by the member) or a civilian employee of the Department of Defense (or authorized dependent designated by the civilian employee) who submits a complaint of discrimination under this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Discrimination.</I> An act, policy, or procedure that arbitrarily denies equal treatment in housing because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or familial status to an individual or group of individuals. 
</P>
<P><I>DoD personnel.</I> (1) Members of the Armed Forces (and their dependents) authorized to live off-base. 
</P>
<P>(2) DoD civilian employees (and their dependents) who are transferred from one place of residence to another because of job requirements or recruited for job opportunities away from their current place of residence in the United States, and all DoD U.S. citizen appropriated fund and nonappropriated fund civilian employees and their dependents outside the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Familial Status.</I> One or more individuals (who have not attained the age of 18 years) being domiciled with a parent or another person having legal custody of such an individual or individuals; or the designee of such parent or other person having such custody, with the written permission of such parent or other person. 
</P>
<P><I>Listed facility.</I> A suitable housing facility (not on restrictive sanction) listed with the HRS as available for occupancy by DoD personnel. 
</P>
<P><I>Minorities.</I> All persons classified as black (not of Hispanic origin), Hispanic, Asian or Pacific Islander, or American Indian or Alaskan native. 
</P>
<P><I>Relief for the complainant.</I> Action taken by a commander for the benefit of a complainant. 
</P>
<P><I>Restrictive sanctions.</I> Actions taken by a commander to prevent military personnel from moving to, or entering into a rental, lease, or purchase arrangement with, a housing facility, when its agent has been found to have discriminated against DoD personnel. Restrictive sanctions are effective against the agent and the facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Survey.</I> The procedure by which the HRS identifies housing resources to ascertain the availability of housing facilities for occupancy by DoD personnel. 
</P>
<P><I>Verifiers.</I> Volunteers used by the commander during the course of a housing discrimination investigation to determine if, in fact, housing discrimination is being practiced by an agent, as alleged. Verifiers are not required to be prospective tenants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that under DoD Directive 1350.2 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> the Department of Defense is fully committed to the goal of obtaining equal treatment for all DoD personnel. Specific guidance on off-base housing and fair housing enforcement is as follows: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of all DoD issuances listed in this part may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>National Housing Policy.</I> Federal law prohibits discrimination in housing in the United States against any person because of race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, handicap, or familial status. 
</P>
<P>(1) Title VIII of P.L. 90-284 contains the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The fair housing provisions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Outlines the responsibilities of the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) with regard to Public Law 90-284. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requires all Executive Departments and Agencies to administer housing and urban development programs and activities under their jurisdiction in a manner that shall reflect “affirmatively” the furthering of title VIII. 
</P>
<P>(2) Title IX of Public Law 90-284 makes it a crime to intimidate willfully or interfere with any person by force or threat because of that person's activities in support of fair housing. 
</P>
<P>(3) Title 42 U.S.C. 1982 prohibits discrimination in housing in the United States. This statute protects DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Public Law 100-430 amends title VIII of Public Law 90-284 by revising the procedures for the enforcement of fair housing requirements and adding protected classes of individuals.
</P>
<P>(5) Title VIII of Public Law 90-284, as amended by Public Law 100-430, does not limit the applicability of any reasonable local, State, or Federal restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy a dwelling. Additionally, provisions of such title VIII regarding familial status do not apply with respect to housing intended for, and solely occupied by, persons 62 years of age or older or intended and operated for occupancy, but at least one person 55 years of age or older. For guidance regarding housing occupied by those 55 years of age or older, use the statutory provision at section 805 b(2)(c), 102 Stat. 1623, of Public Law 100-430.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DoD Fair Housing Policy.</I> The Department of Defense intends that Federal fair housing law shall be supported and that DoD personnel shall have equal opportunity for available housing regardless of race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, handicap, or familial status.
</P>
<P>(1) That policy includes the objective of eliminating discrimination against DoD personnel in off-base housing. That objective is not achieved simply by finding a place to live in a particular part of town or in a particular facility for a specific person.
</P>
<P>(2) The intent is achieved when a person meeting the ordinary standards of character and financial responsibility is able to obtain off-base housing equally as any other person anywhere in the area surrounding a military installation, without suffering discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, handicap or familial status.
</P>
<P>(i) The accomplishment of this objective shall not be hampered by requiring the submission of a formal complaint of discrimination. A suspected discriminatory act, with or without the filing of a formal complaint, is a valid basis for investigation and, if discrimination is substantiated, imposition of restrictive sanctions.
</P>
<P>(ii) On substantiation that an agent practiced discrimination, restrictive sanctions shall be imposed for a minimum of 180 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) The fact that Public Law 90-284, 42 U.S.C. 1982, and Public Law 100-430 may or may not provide a remedy in a given case of discrimination affecting DoD personnel does not relieve a commander of the responsibility to ensure equal treatment and equal opportunity for such personnel or to impose restrictive sanctions against the agent and/or facility, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Military installations shall develop information programs to apprise Service members of the DoD policy and program for equal opportunity in off-base housing. Commanders should use local community resources, such as civil rights organizations, religious and service groups, and local information media, in support of their programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32964, July 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure nondiscrimination in referring DoD personnel to off-base housing facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Continue efforts (as described in DoD 4165.63-M 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to identify and solicit nondiscriminatory assurances for housing facilities within the commuting area, which are considered to be suitable for occupancy by Service members.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 192.4.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Ensure that an office and staff required by DoD 4165.63-M are available in conjunction with the cognizant staff judge advocate or other legal authority to advise Service members on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The procedures in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The application of Public Law 90-284, 42 U.S.C. 1982, and Public Law 100-430 in specific situations.
</P>
<P>(3) The rights of individuals to pursue remedies through civilian channels, without recourse and in addition to the procedures prescribed in this part, including the right to:
</P>
<P>(i) Make a complaint directly to the Department of HUD and/or to the Department of Justice (DoJ) in the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bring a private civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(d) Periodically review off-base housing procedures and policies to ensure effectiveness and compliance with this part. (Appendix A to this part is a checklist to help commanders with this review.)
</P>
<P>(e) Cooperate with other Government Agencies investigating housing discrimination complaints filed by Service members.
</P>
<P>(f) Ensure that each Military Service reports any housing discrimination cases and their results in the Annual Military Equal Opportunity Assessment Report required by DoD Instruction 1350.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32964, July 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appendix B to this part contains the detailed procedures for assisting Service members, investigating housing complaints, and reporting requirements for housing discrimination complaints.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint and investigative report required in section B., appendix B to this part is exempt from formal approval and licensing under DoD 7750.5-M. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 192.4.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6248, Feb. 22, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.7.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 192—Checklist for Commanders
</HEAD>
<P>A. Are all assigned personnel informed of the Equal Opportunity in Off-Base Housing Program requirements before obtaining housing off base?
</P>
<P>B. Is there an effective information program ensuring equal opportunity in off-base housing information program? 
</P>
<P>C. Are community resources being used to support the equal opportunity in off-base housing information program?
</P>
<P>D. Are housing discrimination complaints being processed within the required time?
</P>
<P>E. Are complainants being informed in writing of the results of housing discrimination inquiry and/or investigating actions?
</P>
<P>F. Are housing surveys being conducted periodically to obtain new listings?
</P>
<P>G. Are restrictive sanctions being imposed immediately for a minimum of 180 days on agents found to be practicing discrimination?
</P>
<P>H. Are the services of command representatives provided to assist applicants in their search for housing?
</P>
<P>I. Are HHS personnel and equal opportunity personnel aware of and sensitive to housing problems encountered by DoD personnel?
</P>
<P>J. Are equal opportunity in off-base housing reports being submitted accurately and on time?


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.2.0.1.7.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 192—Procedures and Reports
</HEAD>
<HD2>A. Off-Base Housing Procedures
</HD2>
<P>DoD personnel seeking off-base housing shall be processed as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Seen by an HRS when available (optional for DoD civilian personnel).
</P>
<P>2. Provided assistance in seeking temporary and permanent off-base housing, as follows:
</P>
<P>a. Counseling on the equal opportunity in off-base housing program with particular emphasis placed on reporting any indication of discrimination against DoD personnel in their search for housing.
</P>
<P>b. Counseling and personal assistance shall include the following services:
</P>
<P>(1) Offering to check by telephone the availability of selected listings. A record shall be made and retained for future reference of the date, time, and nature of any conversation confirming the availability of a facility. The race, color, religion, sex, national origin, handicap, or familial status of the applicant shall not be divulged. Caution must be exercised to ensure that a pattern of “confirmation only for minorities” does not develop.
</P>
<P>(2) Offering the services of a command representative (such as a unit sponsor or other designated person, when available) to accompany and assist the applicant in the search for housing.
</P>
<P>(3) Explaining various discriminatory methods that may be employed by agents. For instance, an agent may arbitrarily refuse to accept or consider the applicant as a tenant, falsely indicate the unit sought has been rented to another applicant, or refuse to make the unit available under the same terms and conditions as are ordinarily applied to applicants for the facilities. In such instances the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The agent shall be queried on the reasons why the unit is not available. After all reasonable steps have been taken to ascertain whether any valid nondiscriminatory reason can be shown for the agent's rejection of the applicant, and if there appears to be no such reason, a reasonable effort shall be made to persuade the agent to make the unit available to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) The incident shall be reported immediately by the command representative and the applicant to the HRS for appropriate command action.
</P>
<HD2>B. Complaint Procedures—United States
</HD2>
<P>Commanders shall ensure that all DoD personnel are informed of the scope and provisions of the DoD Equal Opportunity in Off-Base Housing Program and advised to report immediately to the HRS (when available) any form of discrimination encountered when seeking housing within a Civilian Community. Incidents should be reported to base agencies or command representatives when an HRS is not available (i.e., equal opportunity officer, unit commander, supervisor). A verbal or written statement of discriminatory policy by an agent is considered to be an act or incident of discrimination, and the investigative procedures outlined in this appendix shall be followed.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Inquiry into Complaint.</I> Complaints of off-base housing discrimination must receive prompt attention. An inquiry into the complaint shall begin within 3 working days after receipt of the complaint. The inquiry may be informal, but must be detailed sufficiently to determine if discrimination occurred. Upon receipt of a discrimination complaint, the HRS (if there is no HRS, a command designated representative) shall take the following action:
</P>
<P>a. Immediately notify the commander.
</P>
<P>b. Promptly interview the complainant to determine the details and circumstances of the alleged discriminatory act.
</P>
<P>c. Immediately telephone or visit the facility and/or agent concerned, if the complaint is received shortly after the time of the alleged act and it concerns the change in availability of a vacancy (i.e., “just rented,” etc.). Attempt to determine if a vacancy exists without making reference to the complaint received. Request the commander to authorize the use of verifiers, as necessary. (See this appendix, subsection B.2.)
</P>
<P>d. Advise the complainant of the provisions and procedures in this Instruction and of the right to pursue further actions through HUD, DoJ, and local or State agencies. Coordinate efforts with the Office of Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel to determine to what extent legal assistance can be provided to the complainant. Assist the complainant in completing seven signed, dated, and notarized copies of HUD Form 903, “Housing Discrimination Complaint.” The fact that a complainant might report an act of alleged discriminatory treatment, but declines completing a HUD Form 903, does not relieve the command of responsibility for making further inquiry and taking such subsequent actions, as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>e. Document the complainant's action for future reference and inform the commander of the results of the HRS preliminary inquiry and actions taken. The commander shall take action to assist the complainant in obtaining suitable housing. If, due to previous discriminatory practices in the community, suitable housing cannot be obtained by the complainant in a reasonable amount of time, the complainant and the commander may use this fact to justify a request for priority in obtaining military housing or for humanitarian reassignment. Reassignment action is a last resort and must be justified fully through command personnel channels.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of Verifiers.</I> Verifiers are authorized to determine if a vacancy exists and whether or not rental or such practices are discriminatory. Verifiers shall not be used only for determining sincerity or normal practices of an agent about whom the HRS has not received a housing discrimination complaint.
</P>
<P>a. When selecting and using verifiers, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) Verification of the vacancy shall be made expediently after alleged act of discrimination.
</P>
<P>(2) Verifiers may be volunteers. (The equal opportunity office is a possible source for identifying individuals to be used as verifiers.)
</P>
<P>(3) The purpose of verification is to isolate the attribute of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or familial status that is the suspected basis for the alleged discrimination against the complainant. Except for those attributes that are considered to be the source of the discrimination complaint, the verifier should possess attributes that are similar to the complainant. If two verifiers are used, one may possess similar attributes to the complainant. Ideally, two verifiers should be used.
</P>
<P>b. Instructions provided to the verifiers by HRS personnel should include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Explanation of the equal opportunity in off-base housing and off-base housing referral programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Verifiers are to obtain information only on agent and/or facility operating policies, practices, and procedures for subsequent determination of complaint validity.
</P>
<P>(3) Verifiers are not to make a verbal or written contract for the housing unit, pay any money, or say they want the housing unit.
</P>
<P>(4) Verifiers shall be knowledgeable concerning family composition, pets, and housing requirements of the complainant; they shall ask for identical housing requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) The following information shall be obtained by the verifier, if possible:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Concerning the Facility.</I> What is available? Does it meet the requirements of the complainant? Amount of rent or cost of facility? Deposit required? Is an application required? What is the time between filing an application and permission to move in? Are there minority families and/or singles in the facility? Make a note of the presence or absence of a vacancy sign, and any other information deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Concerning the Prospective Tenants/Purchasers.</I> If possible, ascertain criteria and qualifications that must be met (credit rating, salary, marital status, deposit, written application, etc.) and obtain a complete description of all procedures for becoming a tenant/purchaser including all steps from initial inquiry to moving in. Does the agent's subjective impression of the applicant appear to play any part in the decision to rent the unit?
</P>
<P>(6) The verifier's statement shall be completed immediately after the verification visit, if possible. It shall be accurate, objective, and factual. Include the following in the statement:
</P>
<P>(a) Date, time of visit, persons contacted, positions of persons contacted. Include any other pertinent information obtained during visit; i.e., length of time employed at facility, in addition to the information in this appendix, subparagraph B.2.b.(5), above.
</P>
<P>(b) When reconstructing a conversation, write in the first person and try to use direct quotes. Do not use pronouns such as “he,” “she,” or “they.” Clearly identify who said what to whom.
</P>
<P>(c) Sign and date statement. Give full name, address, telephone number (duty or home), race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap or familial status, as relevant to the complaint.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Complaint Process.</I> If the basic facts of the HRS preliminary inquiry appear to substantiate the complaint, the commander shall ensure that the following actions begin within 3 working days of receipt of the inquiry report:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Informal Hearing.</I> Give written notice to the agent explaining the nature of the complaint and the agent's right to request an informal hearing with the commander. The notification shall state specifically the nature of the discrimination complaint and the right of the agent to appear personally at the hearing, to be represented by an attorney, to present evidence, and to call witnesses. The notification also shall state that the agent has 5 days after receipt of the written notice to request a hearing. If no request is received within 5 days, the lack of response shall be considered as a waiver of the right to such hearing. The written notification either shall be delivered to the agent personally by a representative of the commander, or shall be sent to the agent by certified mail with return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Composition of an Informal Hearing.</I> The informal hearing shall be conducted by the commander or designee at a convenient location. The agent, agent's attorney, the complainant, the complainant's attorney, the equal opportunity officer, the HRS, the Staff Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel, or other designated persons may attend.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Record of Hearing.</I> A summary of the hearing shall be made a part of the complaint file.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Legal Review.</I> A legal review shall be accomplished following the inquiry and informal hearing (if applicable) and before the commander's final decision that the inquiry supports or fails to support the complaint. The summary and other pertinent documents shall be reviewed for content and completeness. A statement that such a review was conducted and signed by the Staff Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel performing the review shall be made a part of the case file. That statement shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any necessary explanatory remarks, including comments on the facts and evidence presented.
</P>
<P>(2) Information known about pending complaints brought by other parties on the same facility and/or agent.
</P>
<P>(3) Comments on the civil rights laws relevant to the particular case.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Commander's Decision.</I> The responsibility for imposition of restrictive sanctions rests with the commander and cannot be delegated. The commander's decision shall be based on a full and impartial review of all facts and the policies and requirements as stated in this part. The commander's options include the following:
</P>
<P>a. If the commander determines that more information is required, or for any reason further inquiry is deemed necessary, an officer shall be appointed from sources other than the HRS to conduct a formal inquiry or investigation, as the situation warrants. The officer, if not an attorney, shall be afforded the advice and assistance of a Staff Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel.
</P>
<P>b. If, in the commander's judgment, the inquiry or investigation fails to support the complaint the case shall be considered closed and the commander shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the complainant in writing of all actions taken and advise the complainant of rights to pursue further actions to include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The right to submit a complaint to the HUD and the DoJ.
</P>
<P>(b) The right to bring a private civil action in a State or Federal court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) The availability of legal assistance from their local Staff Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel in pursuing civil redress.
</P>
<P>(2) Summarize in the report file the practices giving rise to the complaint, the actions and results of the inquiry or investigation, and if discriminatory practices were found, written assurances from the agent on future facility and/or agent practices. The following statement, completed by the complainant, shall be included, as part of the case file: “I am (am not) satisfied with the efforts taken by the commander on my behalf to achieve satisfactory resolution of my off-base housing discrimination complaint.” If the complainant indicates a lack of satisfaction, the reasons must be included in the case file.
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the agent of the results of the inquiry by command correspondence if an informal hearing was held. Such correspondence should reiterate DoD policy and requirements for equal opportunity in off-base housing.
</P>
<P>(4) Forward unsubstantiated complaint reports and HUD Form 903 to the HUD and the DoJ if requested by the complainant.
</P>
<P>(5) Retain a copy of the report file for 2 years for future reference.
</P>
<P>c. If the inquiry or investigation supports the complainant's charge of discrimination and the discriminatory act is determined by the commander to conflict with DoD policy, the commander shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Impose restrictive sanctions against the agent and/or facility for a minimum of 180 days. Sanctions shall remain in effect until the requirements in this appendix, subparagraphs B.6.a.(1) or B.6.a.(2), below, are met. Restrictive sanctions shall be imposed when a suspected discriminatory act, despite the absence of a formal complaint, is investigated and found valid. The fact that a validated discrimination complaint and/or incident has been or is scheduled to be forwarded to another Agency (the HUD, the DoJ, etc.) is not cause for withholding sanction action pending the outcome of that Agency's further review or investigation. When imposing a restrictive sanction, the commander shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Remove the facility listing(s) from HRO files.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose restrictive sanctions against all facilities owned or operated by the agent concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) Place the facility on the restrictive sanction list maintained by the HRS. The restrictive sanction list shall be prepared on official letterhead stationery, signed by the commander, and include the authority for and conditions of the restrictive sanctions.
</P>
<P>(d) Inform the agent concerned by command correspondence that:
</P>
<P>(1) Restrictive sanctions have been imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons, nature, and minimum duration of the restrictions.
</P>
<P>(3) The action required for the removal of sanctions at the conclusion of the minimum period.
</P>
<FP>The notification of restrictive sanctions shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested or delivered to the agent personally by a command representative.
</FP>
<P>(e) Provide all DoD personnel reporting to the HRS with a copy of the restrictive sanction list, and advise members of the Armed Forces that they may not rent, lease, purchase, or reside in any of the listed facilities. Obtain a signed acknowledgment of receipt of the restrictive sanction list from the HRS using a DD Form 1746, “Application for Assignment to Housing.”
</P>
<P>(f) Advise other military installations of the restrictive sanction action taken when the sanctioned facility is located within the commuting area of their military installations.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the complainant in writing of all actions taken and advise the complainant that his or her case will receive continuing action to include, if the complainant requests, forwarding the case file to the HUD and/or the DoJ for action.
</P>
<P>(3) Before forwarding the report to the respective Military Department, prepare a memorandum outlining the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The base efforts made to obtain housing relief for the complainant.
</P>
<P>(b) The impact of restrictive sanctions on the off-base housing program and DoD personnel and their dependents.
</P>
<P>(c) Any other considerations deemed relevant.
</P>
<P>(4) Include a statement completed by the complainant for the case file. (See this appendix, subparagraph B.4.b.(3), above.)
</P>
<P>(5) If the act of discrimination falls within existing regulations, forward a copy of the complaint and investigation report directly to the HUD within 180 days after the occurrence of the alleged discriminating act, using HUD Form 903. The original report shall be sent to the appropriate HUD Regional Office or the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410. A copy of the complaint and investigation report shall be forwarded to the Civil Rights Division, Department of Justice, Washington, DC 20530.
</P>
<P>(6) When more than one complaint alleging discrimination in the same facility or by the same agent has been received, consolidate the complaints for the inquiry, legal review, and commander's memorandum.
</P>
<P>d. When a commander receives a complaint alleging further discrimination in a facility or by an agent after a completed case file has been closed, the commander shall forward the summary of the facts on the subsequent complaint, outlined in this enclosure, subparagraph B.4.c.(6), above. Include brief comments indicating the extent to which the new complaint affects the previous action.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Followup Actions.</I> After forwarding the report and all required attachments to the HUD and the DoJ, the commander shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>a. Cooperate with the HUD, the DoJ, and the local and State agency representatives during their investigation and processing of the case, should those entities seek assistance.
</P>
<P>b. Periodically determine the status of the case by maintaining liaison with the HUD office concerned. Contact shall be maintained until such time as the case is resolved by the HUD.
</P>
<P>c. Ensure that the complainant is kept informed directly by the HUD and/or the DoJ.
</P>
<P>d. Ensure that DoD personnel comply with the restrictive sanctions imposed on the facility and/or the agent. Housing personnel will comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Military personnel moving into or changing their place of residence in the commuting area of a military installation or activity may not enter into a rental, purchase, or lease arrangement with an agent or a facility that is under restrictive sanction.
</P>
<P>(2) Implement procedures for ensuring that DoD personnel seeking housing are made aware of, and are counselled on, current restrictive sanctions.
</P>
<P>(3) Sanctions are not applicable to the DoD personnel who may be residing in a facility when the sanction is imposed or to the extension or renewal of a rental or lease agreement originally entered into before the imposition of the sanction. Relocation of a military tenant within a restricted facility is prohibited without the written approval of the commander.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is determined that a member of the Armed Forces has intentionally taken residency in a restricted facility contrary to instructions received by Housing Referral personnel, the commander shall take appropriate disciplinary action against that number.
</P>
<P>(5) Periodically publish a current listing of restricted facilities in the base bulletin (or other appropriate means of internal distribution). Minimally, such publication shall occur when there has been an addition or deletion to the list.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Removal of Restrictive Sanction</I>
</P>
<P>a. A facility and/or agent may be removed from restrictive sanction only if one of the following actions is taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The restrictive sanction may be removed before completion of the 180 day restrictive period if an approved waiver request is obtained from the senior installation commander concerned, or designee. Consideration shall be given to lifting an imposed sanction only in exceptional circumstances and in conjunction with a written assurance of nondiscrimination from the agent concerned.
</P>
<P>(2) After completion of 180 days on restrictive sanction, if the agent provides written assurance of future nondiscrimination to the HRS.
</P>
<P>b. The commander shall inform the HRS, the equal opportunity office, and the agent in writing of the removal from restrictive sanction.
</P>
<P>7. <I>“Privacy Act” and “Freedom of Information Act” Inquiries.</I> Requests for information from reports of housing discrimination shall be processed in accordance with 32 CFR parts 285 and 286a.
</P>
<HD2>C. Compliant Procedures—Outside the United States
</HD2>
<P>Commanders of installations or activities outside the United States shall ensure that all DoD personnel, on reporting to the HRS, are clearly informed of the scope and provisions of the DoD Equal Opportunity in Off-Base Housing Program and advised to report immediately to the HRS any form of discrimination encountered as a tenant, prospective tenant, or purchaser. Incidents reported to base agencies or representatives other than the HRS (i.e., equal opportunity officer, unit commander, supervisor) shall be brought to the immediate attention of the HRS for appropriate action. On receiving a complaint of discrimination, the commander and HRS shall:
</P>
<P>1. Consult with the Staff Judge Advocate or other cognizant legal counsel to determine if the laws of the country concerned (or any subdivision thereof) prohibit any of the actions outlined in this appendix, section B., above.
</P>
<P>2. Take actions outlined in this appendix, section B, above, except that a HUD Form 903 shall not be completed because reports of cases arising outside the United States are not forwarded to the HUD or the DoJ. Complainants should understand that the fair housing provisions of the P.L. 90-284, “Civil Rights Act,” Title 42, United States, 1982, and Public Law 100-430, “Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988,” September 13, 1988, are not applicable in areas outside the United States.
</P>
<P>3. Determine, with legal advice, whether redress for the discriminatory act should be sought from authorities in the host country. Redress shall be based on the laws of the country (or subdivision thereof) concerned.
</P>
<HD2>D. Reporting Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. A copy of each complaint and investigative report that substantiates a housing discrimination shall be submitted to the appropriate Military Department (manpower and reserve affairs and/or the equal opportunity office) not later than 45 days from the date the case is completed. Under normal circumstances, the commander of the installation concerned shall complete the required investigation and processing complaints within 45 days from the date that a housing complaint is filed by a complainant.
</P>
<P>2. A copy of complaint and investigative reports that do not substantiate allegations of housing discrimination shall be kept on file at the installation level for a 24-month period beginning from the date the case was completed.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="193" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 193—HIGHWAYS FOR NATIONAL DEFENSE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 13016, Sept. 14, 1968, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 193.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 193.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth policy, responsibilities, and authority in matters pertaining to Department of Defense highway needs and, when appropriate, to the highway needs of other Federal agencies, during peacetime and emergencies in the United States and its territories and possessions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 193.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 193.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to all components of the Department of Defense. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 193.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 193.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In order to insure that the national defense is served by adequate, safe and efficient highway transportation, it shall be the policy of the DoD to (a) integrate the highway needs of the national defense into the civil highway programs of the various State and Federal agencies, and (b) cooperate with those agencies in matters pertaining to the use of public highways and in planning their development and construction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 193.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 193.4   Authorities and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Army, as the Single Manager for Military Traffic, Land Transportation, and Common-User Ocean Terminals (see DoD Directive 5160.53, Single Manager Assignment for Military Traffic, Land Transportation, and Common-User Ocean Terminals, March 24, 1967 (32 FR 5295)), is hereby designated as the Executive Agent for the Department of Defense (hereinafter referred to as the Executive Agent), in matters pertaining to public highways to serve the national defense in meeting both peacetime and mobilization highway transportation needs in the United States, its territories and possessions; and highway needs of other Federal agencies, when appropriate. The Executive Agent, or his designee, under the policy guidance of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Installations and Logistics), will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate the defense transportation interest in public highways, including the implementation of subsection (h), section 210 of Title 23 U.S. Code, and integrate foreseen DoD highway needs and operational requirements into the highway programs of the United States, its territories and possessions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Review and analyze DoD access road needs, and, when appropriate, those of other Federal agencies from the standpoint of approved transportation engineering practices, statutory provisions, and policies and procedures of the Bureau of Public Roads, Department of Transportation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Represent the DoD in matters pertaining to highways to serve the national defense in liaison with the Bureau of Public Roads, the American Association of State Highway Officials, and other appropriate Government and non-Government agencies. 
</P>
<P>(4) Certify on behalf of the Secretary of Defense to the appropriate Government agency, the public highway needs of the DoD and, when appropriate, the needs of other Federal agencies, as being important to the national defense. (See section 210, Title 23, U.S. Code.) 
</P>
<P>(5) Advise and assist the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) in matters pertaining to the (i) preparation and justification of budget requirements for defense access road needs, and (ii) transfer of funds appropriated for this purpose to the Bureau of Public Roads. 
</P>
<P>(6) Develop and maintain an efficient relationship between the design of military vehicles and State and Federal standards for the design of public highways to ensure the effective and efficient utilization of such highways by military vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide highway traffic engineering services to DoD components, when requested. 
</P>
<P>(8) Insure effective cooperation between the Department of Defense and state highway authorities in matters pertaining to special defense utilization of public highways. 
</P>
<P>(b) The other DoD Components will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain official liaison with the Executive Agent in matters pertaining to the provision of public highways to serve the national defense and the access road needs of new or expanded DoD installations and activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish the Executive Agent with information and data on current and potential access-road and highway-system needs on request. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments, or their designees, are authorized to act for the Secretary of Defense under the provisions of subsection (h) of section 210, Title 23, U.S. Code, in determining, in connection with the funding of contracts for the construction of classified military installations and facilities for ballistic missiles, that construction estimates and the bids of contractors did not include allowances for repairing road damages. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the Directors of DoD Agencies will program, budget, and finance for the responsibilities assigned by this part and their access road requirements (see Pub. L. 90-180, Military Construction Appropriation Act, fiscal year 1968, and successor statutes) in accordance with applicable program and financial guidelines and procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="194" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 194 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="195" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 195—NONDISCRIMINATION IN FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE—EFFECTUATION OF TITLE VI OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS ACT OF 1964
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 602, 78 Stat. 252; 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1; and the laws referred to in appendix A. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 195.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate the provisions of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (referred to in this part as the “Act”) to the end that no person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from any component of the Department of Defense. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Component</I> means the Office of the Secretary of Defense, a military department or a Defense agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsible Department official</I> means the Secretary of Defense or other official of the Department of Defense or component thereof who by law or by delegation has the principal responsibility within the Department or component for the administration of the law extending such assistance. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>United States</I> means the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and the territories and possessions of the United States, and the term “State” means any one of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>Federal financial assistance</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Grants and loans of Federal funds, 
</P>
<P>(2) The grant or donation of Federal property and interests in property, 
</P>
<P>(3) The detail of Federal personnel, 
</P>
<P>(4) The sale and lease of, and the permission to use (on other than a casual or transient basis), Federal property or any interest in such property without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to the recipient, and
</P>
<P>(5) Any Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>program</I> includes any program, project, or activity for the provision of services, financial aid, or other benefits to individuals, or for the provision of facilities for furnishing services, financial aid or other benefits to individuals. The services, financial aid, or other benefits provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance shall be deemed to include any services, financial aid, or other benefits provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance or with the aid of any non-Federal funds, property, or other resources required to be expended or made available for the program to meet matching requirements or other conditions which must be met in order to receive the Federal financial assistance, and to include any services, financial aid, or other benefits provided in or through a facility provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance or such non-Federal resources. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>facility</I> includes all or any portion of structures, equipment, or other real or personal property or interests therein, and the provision of facilities includes the construction, expansion, renovation, remodeling, alteration or acquisition of facilities. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any individual, in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, for any program, including any successor, assign, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary under any such program. 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>primary recipient</I> means any recipient which is authorized or required to extend Federal financial assistance to another recipient for the purpose of carrying out a program. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a responsible Department official, or by a primary recipient, as a condition to eligibility for Federal financial assistance, and the term “application” means such an application, request or plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.3   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to any program for which Federal financial assistance is authorized under a law administered by any component of the Department of Defense, including the federally assisted programs and activities listed in appendix A of this part. This directive applies to money paid, property transferred, or other Federal financial assistance extended under any such program after January 7, 1965 pursuant to an application approved prior to such date. This directive does not apply to: (a) Any Federal financial assistance by way of insurance guaranty contracts, (b) money paid, property transferred, or other assistance extended under any such program before January 7, 1965, (c) any assistance to any individual who is the ultimate beneficiary under any such program, or (d) any employment practice, under any such program, of any employer, employment agency, or labor organization, except as noted in § 195.4(b)(5) of this part. The fact that a program or activity is not listed in appendix A shall not mean, if title VI of the Act is otherwise applicable, that such program is not covered. Other programs under statutes now in force or hereinafter enacted may be added to this list by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17959, July 5, 1973. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program to which this (part) applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) A recipient under any program to which this part applies may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on the ground of race, color, or national origin: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny an individual any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide any service, financial aid, or other benefit to an individual which is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under the program; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient may not make selections with the purpose of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under any program to which this part applies, on the ground of race, color, or national origin; or with the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the Act or this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to his receipt of any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(v) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether he satisfies any admission, enrollment, quota, eligibility, membership or other requirement or condition which individuals must meet in order to be provided any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in the program through the provision of services or otherwise or afford him an opportunity to do so which is different from that afforded others under the program; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Deny a person the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory body which is an integral part of the program. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient, in determining the types of services, financial aid, or other benefits, or facilities which will be provided under any such program, or the class of individuals to whom, or the situations in which, such services, financial aid, other benefits, or facilities will be provided under any such program, or the class of individuals to be afforded an opportunity to participate in any such program, may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination because of their race, color, or national origin, or have the effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the program as respect individuals of a particular race, color, or national origin. 
</P>
<P>(3) As used in this section the services, financial aid, or other benefits provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance shall be deemed to include any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided in or through a facility provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) In administering a program regarding which the recipient has previously discriminated against persons on the ground of race, color, or national origin, the recipient must take affirmative action to overcome the effects of prior discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Even in the absence of such prior discrimination, a recipient in administering a program may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions which resulted in limiting participation by persons of a particular race, color, or national origin. 
</P>
<P>(5) Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is not to provide employment, but nevertheless discrimination on the grounds of race, color or national origin in the employment practices of the recipient or other persons subject to this Directive tends, on the grounds of race, color, or national origin of the intended beneficiaries, to exclude intended beneficiaries from participation in, to deny them benefits of, or to subject them to discrimination under any program to which this Directive applies, the recipient or other persons subject to this Directive are prohibited from (directly or through contractual or other arrangements) subjecting an individual to discrimination on the grounds of race, color, or national origin in its employment practices under such program (including recruitment or recruitment advertising; employment, layoff or termination; upgrading, demotion or transfer; rates of pay and/or other forms of compensation; and use of facilities), to the extent necessary to assure equality of opportunity to, and nondiscriminatory treatment of the beneficiaries. Any action taken by a component pursuant to this provision with respect to a state or local agency subject to Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration, 45 CFR part 70, shall be consistent with those standards and shall be coordinated with the U.S. Civil Service Commission. 
</P>
<P>(6) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this section does not limit the generality of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17959, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) shall be responsible for insuring that the policies of this part are effectuated throughout the Department of Defense. He may review from time to time as he deems necessary the implementation of these policies by the components of the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of each Military Department is responsible for implementing this part with respect to programs and activities receiving financial assistance from his Military Department; and the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) is responsible for similarly implementing this part with respect to all other components of the Department of Defense. Each may designate official(s) to fulfill this responsibility in accordance with § 195.2(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) or, after consultation with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower), the Secretary of each Military Department or other responsible Department official designated by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) may assign to officials of other departments or agencies of the Government, with the consent of such departments or agencies, responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the purposes of Title VI of the Act and this part (other than responsibility for final decision as provided in § 195.11), including the achievement of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the Department and within the Executive Branch of the Government in the application of Title VI and this part to similar programs and in similar situations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.6   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1)(i) Every application for Federal financial assistance to carry out a program to which this part applies, except a program to which paragraph (b) of this section applies, and every application for Federal financial assistance to provide a facility shall, as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application, contain or be accompanied by an assurance that the program will be conducted or the facility operated in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case where the Federal financial assistance is to provide or is in the form of personal property, or real property or interest therein or structures thereon, the assurance shall obligate the recipient, or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the property or structures are used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services and benefits, or for as long as the recipient retains ownership or possession of the property, whichever is longer. In all other cases the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended pursuant to the application. In any case in which Federal financial assistance is extended without an application having been made, such extension shall be subject to the same assurances as if an application had been made. The responsible Department official shall specify the form of the foregoing assurances for each program, and the extent to which like assurances will be required of subguarantees, contractors and subcontractors, transferees, successors in interest, and other participants in the program. Any such assurance shall include provisions which give the United States a right to seek its judicial enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of real property, structures or improvements thereon, or interest therein, which was acquired through a program of Federal financial assistance, or in the case where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property or interest therein from the Federal Government, the instrument effecting or recording the transfer, shall contain a covenant running with the land assuring nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits, or for as long as the recipient retains ownership or possession of the property, whichever is longer. Where no transfer of property is involved, but property is improved under a program of Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include such a covenant in any subsequent transfer of such property. Where the property is obtained from the Federal Government, such covenant may also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant where, in the discretion of the responsible Department official, such a condition and right of reverter is appropriate to the program under which the real property is obtained and to the nature of the grant and the grantee. In the event a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new, or improvement of existing facilities on such property for the purposes for which the property was transferred, the responsible Department official may agree, upon request of the transferee and if necessary to accomplish such financing, and upon such conditions as he deems appropriate, to forbear the exercise of such right to revert title for so long as the lien of such mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective. In programs receiving Federal financial assistance in the form, or for the acquisition of real property or an interest in real property, to the extent that rights to space on, over, or under any such property are included as part of the program receiving such assistance, the nondiscrimination requirements of this part shall extend to any facility located wholly or in part in such space. 
</P>
<P>(3) The assurance required in the case of a transfer of surplus personal property shall be inserted in a written agreement by and between the Department of Defense component concerned and the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuing State programs.</I> Every application by a State agency to carry out a program involving continuing Federal financial assistance to which this part applies shall as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application (1) contain or be accompanied by a statement that the program is (or, in the case of a new program, will be) conducted in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part, and (2) provide or be accompanied by provision for such methods of administration for the program as are found by the responsible Department official to give reasonable assurance that the applicant and all recipients of Federal financial assistance under such program will comply with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part. In cases of continuing State programs in which applications are not made, the extension of Federal financial assistance shall be subject to the same conditions under this subsection as if applications had been made. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assurances from institutions.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance to an institution of higher education, the assurance required by this section shall extend to admission practices and to all other practices relating to the treatment of students. 
</P>
<P>(2) The assurance required with respect to an institution of higher education, or any other institution, insofar as the assurance relates to the institution's practices with respect to admission or other treatment of individuals as students of the institution or to the opportunity to participate in the provision of services or other benefits to such individuals, shall be applicable to the entire institution unless the applicant establishes, to the satisfaction of the responsible Department official, that the institution's practices in designated parts or programs of the institution will in no way affect its practices in the program of the institution for which Federal financial assistance is sought, or the beneficiaries of or participants in such program. If in any such case the assistance sought is for the construction of a facility or part of a facility, the assurance shall in any event extend to the entire facility and to facilities operated in connection therewith. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Elementary and secondary schools.</I> The requirement of paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, with respect to any elementary or secondary school or school system shall be deemed to be satisfied if such school or school system (1) is subject to a final order of a court of the United States for the desegregation of such school or school system, and provides an assurance that it will comply with such order, including any future modification of such order, or (2) submits a plan for the desegregation of such school or school system which the responsible official of the Department of Health, Education, and Welfare determines is adequate to accomplish the purposes of the Act and this part, and provides reasonable assurance that it will carry out such plan; in any case of continuing Federal financial assistance the said Department officer may reserve the right to redetermine, after such period as may be specified by him, the adequacy of the plan to accomplish the purpose of the Act or this part within the earliest practicable time. In any case in which a final order of a court of the United States for the desegregation of such school or school system is entered after submission of such a plan, such plan shall be revised to conform to such final order, including any future modification of said order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17960, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.7   Compliance information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cooperation and assistance.</I> Each responsible Department official shall to the fullest extent practicable seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this part and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance reports.</I> Each recipient shall keep such records and submit to the responsible Department official timely, complete and accurate compliance reports at such times, and in such form and containing such information, as the responsible Department official may determine to be necessary to enable him to ascertain whether the recipient has complied or is complying with this part. In general, recipients should have available for the Department racial and ethnic data showing the extent to which members of minority groups are beneficiaries of federally assisted programs. In the case of any program under which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient, such other recipient shall also submit such compliance reports to the primary recipient as may be necessary to enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations imposed pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to sources of information.</I> Each recipient shall permit access by the responsible Department official during normal business hours to such of its books, records, accounts, and other sources of information, and its facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with this part. Where any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other institution or person and this institution or person shall fail or refuse to furnish this information, the recipient shall so certify in its report and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to beneficiaries and participants.</I> Each recipient shall make available to participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the program under which the recipient receives Federal financial assistance, and make such information available to them in such manner, as the responsible Department official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by the Act and this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17960, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.8   Conduct of investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Periodic compliance reviews.</I> The responsible Department official or his designee(s) shall from time to time review the practices of recipients to determine whether they are complying with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints.</I> Any person who believes himself or any specific class of individuals to be subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part may by himself or by a representative file with the responsible Department official a written complaint. A complaint must be filed not later than 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the responsible Department official. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigations.</I> The responsible Department official will make a prompt investigation whenever a compliance review, report, complaint, or any other information indicates a possible failure to comply with this part. The investigation should include, where appropriate, a review of the pertinent practices and policies of the recipient, the circumstances under which the possible noncompliance with this part occurred, and other factors relevant to a determination of whether the recipient has failed to comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resolution of matters.</I> (1) If an investigation pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section indicates a failure to comply with this part, the responsible Department official will so inform the recipient and the matter will be resolved by informal means whenever possible. If it has been determined that the matter cannot be resolved by informal means, action will be taken as provided in § 195.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an investigation does not warrant action pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the responsible Department official will so inform the recipient and the complainant, if any, in writing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</I> No recipient or other person shall intimidate, threaten, coerce, or discriminate against any individual for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by section 601 of the Act or this part, or because he has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this part. The identity of complainants shall not be disclosed except when necessary to carry out the purposes of this part including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or judicial proceeding arising thereunder. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17960, July 5, 1974. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.9   Procedure for effecting compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with this part, and if the noncompliance or threatened noncompliance cannot be corrected by informal means, compliance with this part may be effected by the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance or by any other means authorized by law as determined by the responsible Department official. Such other means may include, but are not limited to (1) a reference to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law of the United States (including other titles of the Act), or any assurance or other contractual undertaking, and (2) any applicable proceedings under State or local law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Noncompliance with § 195.6.</I> If an applicant fails or refuses to furnish an assurance required under § 195.6 or otherwise fails or refuses to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to that section Federal financial assistance may be refused in accordance with the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section. The component of the Department of Defense concerned shall not be required to provide assistance in such a case during the pendency of the administrative proceedings under such paragraph except that the component shall continue assistance during the pendency of such proceedings where such assistance is due and payable pursuant to an application therefor approved prior to the effective date of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section no order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall become effective until (1) the responsible Department official has advised the applicant or recipient of his failure to comply and has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (2) there has been an express finding, after opportunity for a hearing (as provided in § 195.10), of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to this part, (3) the action has been approved by the Secretary of Defense pursuant to § 195.11, and (4) the expiration of 30 days after the Secretary of Defense has filed with the committee of the House and the committee of the Senate having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and the grounds for such action. Any action to suspend or terminate or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance shall be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other applicant or recipient as to whom such a finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program, or part thereof, in which such noncompliance has been so found. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other means authorized by law.</I> No action to affect compliance by any other means authorized by law shall be taken until (1) the responsible Department official has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (2) the action has been approved by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower), (3) the recipient or other person has been notified of its failure to comply and of the action to be taken to effect compliance, and (4) the expiration of at least 10 days from the mailing of such notice to the recipient or other person. During this period of at least 10 days additional efforts shall be made to persuade the recipient or other person to comply with this part and to take such corrective action as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.10   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opportunity for hearing.</I> Whenever an opportunity for a hearing is required by § 195.9, reasonable notice shall be given by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected applicant or recipient. This notice shall advise the applicant or recipient of the action proposed to be taken, the specific provision under which the proposed action against it is to be taken, and the matters of fact or law asserted as the basis for this action, and either (1) fix a date not less than 20 days after the date of such notice within which the applicant or recipient may request of the responsible Department official that the matter be scheduled for hearing or (2) advise the applicant or recipient that the matter in question has been set down for hearing at a stated place and time. The time and place so fixed shall be reasonable and shall be subject to change for cause. The complainant, if any, shall be advised of the time and place of hearing. An applicant or recipient may waive a hearing and submit written information and argument. The failure of an applicant or recipient to request a hearing under this paragraph or to appear at a hearing for which a date has been set shall be deemed to be a waiver of the right to a hearing under section 602 of the Act and § 195.11(c) and consent to the making of a decision on the basis of such information as is available. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time and place of hearing.</I> Hearings shall be held at the offices of the responsible component of the Department of Defense in Washington, D.C., at a time fixed by the responsible Department official unless he determines that the convenience of the applicant or recipient or of the component requires that another place be selected. Hearings shall be held before the responsible Department official or, at his discretion, before a hearing examiner designated by him. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing examiner.</I> The examiner shall be a field grade officer or civilian employee above the grade of GS-12 (or the equivalent) who shall be a person admitted to practice law before a Federal court or the highest court of a State. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Right to counsel.</I> In all proceedings under this section, the applicant or recipient and the responsible component of the Department shall have the right to be represented by counsel. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The recipient shall receive an open hearing at which he or his counsel may examine any witnesses present. Both the responsible Department official and the applicant or recipient shall be entitled to introduce all relevant evidence on the issues as stated in the notice for hearing or as determined by the officer conducting the hearing at the outset of or during the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination shall be applied where reasonably necessary by the officer conducting the hearing. The hearing officer may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for record shall be open to examination by the parties and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record. All decisions shall be based upon the hearing record and written findings shall be made. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consolidated or joint hearings.</I> In cases in which the same or related facts are asserted to constitute noncompliance with this part with respect to two or more programs to which this part applies, or noncompliance with this part and the regulations of one or more other Federal departments or agencies issued under Title VI of the Act, the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower), the Secretary of a Military Department, or other responsible Department official designated by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) after consultation with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower) may, by agreement with such other departments or agencies where applicable, provide for the conduct of consolidated or joint hearings, and for the application to such hearings of appropriate procedures not inconsistent with this part. Final decisions in such cases, insofar as this part is concerned, shall be made in accordance with § 195.11. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 30 FR 133, Jan. 7, 1965. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.11   Decisions and notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Decision by person other than the responsible department official.</I> If the hearing is held by a hearing examiner such hearing examiner shall either make an initial decision, if so authorized, or certify the entire record including his recommended findings and proposed decision to the responsible Department official for a final decision, and a copy of such initial decision or certification shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient. Where the initial decision is made by the hearing examiner the applicant or recipient may within 30 days of the mailing of such notice of initial decision file with the responsible Department official his exceptions to the initial decision, with his reasons therefor. In the absence of exceptions, the responsible Department official may on his own motion within 45 days after the initial decision serve on the applicant or recipient a notice that he will review the decision. Upon the filing of such exceptions or of such notice of review the responsible Department official shall review the initial decision and issue his own decision thereon including the reasons therefor. In the absence of either exceptions or a notice of review the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the responsible Department official. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions on record or review by the responsible department official.</I> Whenever a record is certified to the responsible Department official for decision or he reviews the decision of a hearing examiner pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or whenever the responsible Department official conducts the hearing, the applicant or recipient shall be given reasonable opportunity to file with him briefs or other written statements of its contentions, and a copy of the final decision of the responsible Department official shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on record where a hearing is waived.</I> Whenever a hearing is waived pursuant to § 195.10(a), a decision shall be made by the responsible Department official on the record and a copy of such decision shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient, and to the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulings required.</I> Each decision of a hearing officer or responsible Department official shall set forth his ruling on each finding, conclusion, or exception presented, and shall identify the requirement or requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part with which it is found that the applicant or recipient has failed to comply. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Approval by the Secretary of Defense.</I> Any final decision of a responsible Department official which provides for the suspension or termination of, or the refusal to grant or continue Federal financial assistance, or the imposition of any other sanction available under this part or the Act, shall promptly be transmitted to the Secretary of Defense, who may approve such decision, may vacate it, or remit or mitigate any sanction imposed. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contents of orders.</I> The final decision may provide for suspension or termination of, or refusal to grant or continue Federal financial assistance, in whole or in part, under the program involved, and may contain such terms, conditions, and other provisions as are consistent with and will effectuate the purposes of the Act and this part, including provisions designed to assure that no Federal financial assistance will thereafter be extended under such program to the applicant or recipient determined by such decision to be in default in its performance of an assurance given by it pursuant to this part, or to have otherwise failed to comply with this part, unless and until it corrects its noncompliance and satisfies the responsible Department official that it will fully comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Post-termination proceedings.</I> (1) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order issued under paragraph (f) of this section shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance if it satisfies the terms and conditions of that order for such eligibility or if it brings itself into compliance with this part and provides reasonable assurance that it will fully comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order entered pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section may at any time request the responsible Department official to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance. Any such request shall be supported by information showing that the applicant or recipient has met the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section. If the responsible Department official determines that those requirements have been satisfied, he shall restore such eligibility. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the responsible Department official denies any such request, the applicant or recipient may submit a request for a hearing in writing, specifying why it believes such official to have been in error. It shall thereupon be given an expeditious hearing, with a decision on the record, in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the responsible Department official. The applicant or recipient will be restored to such eligibility if it proves at such a hearing that it satisfied the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section. While proceedings under this subsection are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order issued under paragraph (f) of this section shall remain in effect. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17960, July 5, 1973. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 32965, July 18, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.12   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Action taken pursuant to section 602 of the Act is subject to judicial review as provided in section 603 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.13   Effect on other issuances.</HEAD>
<P>All issuances heretofore issued by any officer of the Department of Defense or its components which impose requirements designed to prohibit any discrimination against individuals on the ground of race, color, or national origin under any program to which this part applies, and which authorize the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance to any applicant for or recipient of such assistance under such program for failure to comply with such requirements, are hereby superseded to the extent that such discrimination is prohibited by this part, except that nothing in this part shall be deemed to relieve any person of any obligation assumed or imposed under any such superseded regulation, order, instruction, or like direction prior to the effective date of this part. Nothing in this part, however, shall be deemed to supersede any of the following (including future amendments thereof): 
</P>
<P>(a) Executive Orders 10925 and 11114 and issuances thereunder,
</P>
<P>(b) The “Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration,” issued jointly by the Secretaries of Defense, of Health, Education, and Welfare, and of Labor, 28 FR 734, or
</P>
<P>(c) Executive Order 11063 and issuances thereunder, or any other issuances, insofar as such Order or issuances prohibit discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in any program or situation to which this part is inapplicable, or prohibit discrimination on any other ground. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 195.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 195.14   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of each Military Department shall submit regulations implementing this part to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.5.0.1.15.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 195—Programs to Which This Part Applies
</HEAD>
<P>1. The Army and Air National Guard (Title 32, United States Code). 
</P>
<P>2. Various programs involving loan or other disposition of surplus property (various general and specialized statutory provisions including: 40 United States Code 483, 484, 512; 49 United States Code 1101-1119; 10 United States Code 2541, 2542, 2543, 2572, 2662, 7308, 7541, 7542, 7545, 7546, 7547). 
</P>
<P>3. National Program for Promotion of Rifle Practice (10 United States Code 4307 and annual Department of Defense Appropriation Act). 
</P>
<P>4. National Defense Cadet Corps Program (10 United States Code 3540(b), 4651). 
</P>
<P>5. Office of Civil Defense assistance to programs of adult education in civil defense subjects (50 United States Code App. 2281 (e), (f)). 
</P>
<P>6. Office of Civil Defense radiological instruments grants (50 United States Code App. 2281(h)). 
</P>
<P>7. Office of Civil Defense program (with Public Health Service) for development of instructional materials on medical self-help (50 United States Code App. 2281 (e), (f)). 
</P>
<P>8. Office of Civil Defense university extension programs for civil defense instructor training (50 United States Code App. 2281 (e)). 
</P>
<P>9. Office of Civil Defense programs for survival supplies and equipment, survival training, emergency operating center construction, and personnel and administrative expenses (50 United States Code App. 2281(i), 2285). 
</P>
<P>10. Office of Civil Defense Shelter Provisioning Program (50 United States Code App. 2281(h)). 
</P>
<P>11. Office of Civil Defense assistance to students attending Office of Civil Defense schools (50 United States Code App. 2281(e)). 
</P>
<P>12. Office of Civil Defense loans of equipment or materials from OCD stockpiles for civil defense, including local disaster purposes (50 United States Code App. 2281). 
</P>
<P>13. Navy Science Cruiser Program (SecNav Instruction 5720.19A). 
</P>
<P>14. Civil Air Patrol (10 United States Code 9441). 
</P>
<P>15. Research grants made under the authority of Pub. L. 85-934 (42 United States Code 1892). 
</P>
<P>16. Contracts with nonprofit institutions of higher education or with nonprofit organizations whose primary purpose is the conduct of scientific research, wherein title to equipment purchased with funds under such contracts may be vested in such institutions or organizations under the authority of Pub. L. 85-934 (42 United States Code 1891). 
</P>
<P>17. Army Corps of Engineers participation in cooperative investigations and studies concerning erosion of shores of coastal and lake waters (33 United States Code 426). 
</P>
<P>18. Army Corps of Engineers assistance in the construction of works for the restoration and protection of shores and beaches (33 United States Code 426e-h). 
</P>
<P>19. Public park and recreational facilities at water resource development projects under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of the Army (16 United States Code 460d and Federal Water Project Recreation Act, Pub. L. 89-72, 79 Stat. 218, July 9, 1965). 
</P>
<P>20. Payment to States of proceeds of lands acquired by the United States for flood control, navigation, and allied purposes (33 United States Code 701-c-3). 
</P>
<P>21. Grants of easements without consideration, or at a nominal or reduced consideration, on lands under the control of the Department of the Army at water resource development projects (33 United States Code 558c and 702d-1; 10 United States Code 2668 and 2669); 43 United States Code 961; 40 United States Code 319). 
</P>
<P>22. Army Corps of Engineers assistance in the construction of small boat harbor projects (33 United States Code 540 and 577, and 47 Stat. 42, Feb. 10, 1932). 
</P>
<P>23. Emergency bank protection works constructed by the Army Corps of Engineers for protection of highways, bridge approaches, and public works (33 United States Code 701r). 
</P>
<P>24. Assistance to States and local interests in the development of water supplies for municipal and industrial purposes in connection with Army Corps of Engineers reservoir projects (Water Supply Act of 1958, 43 United States Code 390b). 
</P>
<P>25. Army Corps of Engineers contracts for remedial works under authority of section 111 of Act of July 3, 1958 (33 United States Code 633). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19291, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 31 FR 6831, May 7, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="196" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 196—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF SEX IN EDUCATION PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 52865, 52885, Aug. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.100" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.100   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these Title IX regulations is to effectuate Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (except sections 904 and 906 of those Amendments) (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688), which is designed to eliminate (with certain exceptions) discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, whether or not such program or activity is offered or sponsored by an educational institution as defined in these Title IX regulations. The effective date of these Title IX regulations shall be September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.105" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these Title IX regulations, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Administratively separate unit</I> means a school, department, or college of an educational institution (other than a local educational agency) admission to which is independent of admission to any other component of such institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Admission</I> means selection for part-time, full-time, special, associate, transfer, exchange, or any other enrollment, membership, or matriculation in or at an education program or activity operated by a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by an official of the Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance, or by a recipient, as a condition to becoming a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated agency official</I> means Assistant Secretary of Defense (Force Management Policy). 
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a local educational agency (LEA) as defined by 20 U.S.C. 8801(18), a preschool, a private elementary or secondary school, or an applicant or recipient that is an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under a law administered by the Federal agency that awards such assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1) A grant or loan of Federal financial assistance, including funds made available for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, construction, renovation, restoration, or repair of a building or facility or any portion thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Scholarships, loans, grants, wages, or other funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of students admitted to that entity, or extended directly to such students for payment to that entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant of Federal real or personal property or any interest therein, including surplus property, and the proceeds of the sale or transfer of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not, upon such sale or transfer, properly accounted for to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of the services of Federal personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sale or lease of Federal property or any interest therein at nominal consideration, or at consideration reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient or in recognition of public interest to be served thereby, or permission to use Federal property or any interest therein without consideration. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other contract, agreement, or arrangement that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance to any education program or activity, except a contract of insurance or guaranty. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of graduate higher education</I> means an institution that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Offers academic study beyond the bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree, whether or not leading to a certificate of any higher degree in the liberal arts and sciences; 
</P>
<P>(2) Awards any degree in a professional field beyond the first professional degree (regardless of whether the first professional degree in such field is awarded by an institution of undergraduate higher education or professional education); or
</P>
<P>(3) Awards no degree and offers no further academic study, but operates ordinarily for the purpose of facilitating research by persons who have received the highest graduate degree in any field of study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of professional education</I> means an institution (except any institution of undergraduate higher education) that offers a program of academic study that leads to a first professional degree in a field for which there is a national specialized accrediting agency recognized by the Secretary of Education. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of undergraduate higher education</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An institution offering at least two but less than four years of college-level study beyond the high school level, leading to a diploma or an associate degree, or wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree; or
</P>
<P>(2) An institution offering academic study leading to a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or body that certifies credentials or offers degrees, but that may or may not offer academic study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of vocational education</I> means a school or institution (except an institution of professional or graduate or undergraduate higher education) that has as its primary purpose preparation of students to pursue a technical, skilled, or semiskilled occupation or trade, or to pursue study in a technical field, whether or not the school or institution offers certificates, diplomas, or degrees and whether or not it offers full-time study. 
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient and that operates an education program or activity that receives such assistance, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Student</I> means a person who has gained admission. 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX</I> means Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Public Law 92-318, 86 Stat. 235, 373 (codified as amended at 20 U.S.C. 1681-1688) (except sections 904 and 906 thereof), as amended by section 3 of Public Law 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, by section 412 of the Education Amendments of 1976, Public Law 94-482, 90 Stat. 2234, and by Section 3 of Public Law 100-259, 102 Stat. 28, 28-29 (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688). 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX regulations</I> means the provisions set forth at §§ 196.100 through 196.605. 
</P>
<P><I>Transition plan</I> means a plan subject to the approval of the Secretary of Education pursuant to section 901(a)(2) of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681(a)(2), under which an educational institution operates in making the transition from being an educational institution that admits only students of one sex to being one that admits students of both sexes without discrimination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.110" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.110   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the designated agency official finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, such recipient shall take such remedial action as the designated agency official deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, a recipient may take affirmative action consistent with law to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted to alter any affirmative action obligations that a recipient may have under Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12086, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient education institution shall, within one year of September 29, 2000: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, in terms of the requirements of these Title IX regulations, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof concerning admission of students, treatment of students, and employment of both academic and non-academic personnel working in connection with the recipient's education program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any of these policies and practices that do not or may not meet the requirements of these Title IX regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of self-evaluation and related materials.</I> Recipients shall maintain on file for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the designated agency official upon request, a description of any modifications made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.115" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.115   Assurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Either at the application stage or the award stage, Federal agencies must ensure that applications for Federal financial assistance or awards of Federal financial assistance contain, be accompanied by, or be covered by a specifically identified assurance from the applicant or recipient, satisfactory to the designated agency official, that each education program or activity operated by the applicant or recipient and to which these Title IX regulations apply will be operated in compliance with these Title IX regulations. An assurance of compliance with these Title IX regulations shall not be satisfactory to the designated agency official if the applicant or recipient to whom such assurance applies fails to commit itself to take whatever remedial action is necessary in accordance with § 196.110(a) to eliminate existing discrimination on the basis of sex or to eliminate the effects of past discrimination whether occurring prior to or subsequent to the submission to the designated agency official of such assurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide real property or structures thereon, such assurance shall obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used to provide an education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> (1) The assurances required by paragraph (a) of this section, which may be included as part of a document that addresses other assurances or obligations, shall include that the applicant or recipient will comply with all applicable Federal statutes relating to nondiscrimination. These include but are not limited to: Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1681-1683, 1685-1688). 
</P>
<P>(2) The designated agency official will specify the extent to which such assurances will be required of the applicant's or recipient's subgrantees, contractors, subcontractors, transferees, or successors in interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.120" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.120   Transfers of property.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient sells or otherwise transfers property financed in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance to a transferee that operates any education program or activity, and the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not upon such sale or transfer properly accounted for to the Federal Government, both the transferor and the transferee shall be deemed to be recipients, subject to the provisions of §§ 196.205 through 196.235(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.125" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.125   Effect of other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of other Federal provisions.</I> The obligations imposed by these Title IX regulations are independent of, and do not alter, obligations not to discriminate on the basis of sex imposed by Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12087, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264; sections 704 and 855 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 295m, 298b-2); Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (29 U.S.C. 206); and any other Act of Congress or Federal regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law or other requirement that would render any applicant or student ineligible, or limit the eligibility of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules or regulations of private organizations.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any rule or regulation of any organization, club, athletic or other league, or association that would render any applicant or student ineligible to participate or limit the eligibility or participation of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, in any education program or activity operated by a recipient and that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.130" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.130   Effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for members of one sex than for members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.135" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.135   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carry out its responsibilities under these Title IX regulations, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such recipient alleging its noncompliance with these Title IX regulations or alleging any actions that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. The recipient shall notify all its students and employees of the name, office address, and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of recipient.</I> A recipient shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.140" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.140   Dissemination of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of policy.</I> (1) Each recipient shall implement specific and continuing steps to notify applicants for admission and employment, students and parents of elementary and secondary school students, employees, sources of referral of applicants for admission and employment, and all unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of sex in the educational programs or activities that it operates, and that it is required by Title IX and these Title IX regulations not to discriminate in such a manner. Such notification shall contain such information, and be made in such manner, as the designated agency official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by Title IX and these Title IX regulations, but shall state at least that the requirement not to discriminate in education programs or activities extends to employment therein, and to admission thereto unless §§ 196.300 through 196.310 do not apply to the recipient, and that inquiries concerning the application of Title IX and these Title IX regulations to such recipient may be referred to the employee designated pursuant to § 196.135, or to the designated agency official. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient shall make the initial notification required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within 90 days of September 29, 2000 or of the date these Title IX regulations first apply to such recipient, whichever comes later, which notification shall include publication in: 
</P>
<P>(i) Newspapers and magazines operated by such recipient or by student, alumnae, or alumni groups for or in connection with such recipient; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Memoranda or other written communications distributed to every student and employee of such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> (1) Each recipient shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalog, or application form that it makes available to any person of a type, described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> Each recipient shall distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex each publication described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and shall apprise each of its admission and employment recruitment representatives of the policy of nondiscrimination described in paragraph (a) of this section, and shall require such representatives to adhere to such policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.200" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.200   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 196.205 through 196.235(a), these Title IX regulations apply to every recipient and to each education program or activity operated by such recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.205" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.205   Educational institutions and other entities controlled by religious organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to any operation of an educational institution or other entity that is controlled by a religious organization to the extent that application of these Title IX regulations would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption claims.</I> An educational institution or other entity that wishes to claim the exemption set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall do so by submitting in writing to the designated agency official a statement by the highest-ranking official of the institution, identifying the provisions of these Title IX regulations that conflict with a specific tenet of the religious organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.210" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.210   Military and merchant marine educational institutions.</HEAD>
<P>These Title IX regulations do not apply to an educational institution whose primary purpose is the training of individuals for a military service of the United States or for the merchant marine. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.215" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.215   Membership practices of certain organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Social fraternities and sororities.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of social fraternities and sororities that are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), the active membership of which consists primarily of students in attendance at institutions of higher education. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>YMCA, YWCA, Girl Scouts, Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA), the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA), the Girl Scouts, the Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary youth service organizations.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of a voluntary youth service organization that is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), and the membership of which has been traditionally limited to members of one sex and principally to persons of less than nineteen years of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.220" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.220   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Admissions to educational institutions prior to June 24, 1973, are not covered by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administratively separate units.</I> For the purposes only of this section, §§ 196.225 and 196.230, and §§ 196.300 through 196.310, each administratively separate unit shall be deemed to be an educational institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of §§ 196.300 through 196.310.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply to each recipient. A recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 196.300 through 196.310. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Educational institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section as to recipients that are educational institutions, §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply only to institutions of vocational education, professional education, graduate higher education, and public institutions of undergraduate higher education. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education.</I> §§ 196.300 through 196.310 do not apply to any public institution of undergraduate higher education that traditionally and continually from its establishment has had a policy of admitting students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.225" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.225   Educational institutions eligible to submit transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to each educational institution to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1972; or
</P>
<P>(2) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1965, but thereafter admitted, as regular students, students of the sex not admitted prior to June 23, 1965. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provision for transition plans.</I> An educational institution to which this section applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 196.300 through 196.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.230" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.230   Transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of plans.</I> An institution to which § 196.225 applies and that is composed of more than one administratively separate unit may submit either a single transition plan applicable to all such units, or a separate transition plan applicable to each such unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of plans.</I> In order to be approved by the Secretary of Education, a transition plan shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address, and Federal Interagency Committee on Education Code of the educational institution submitting such plan, the administratively separate units to which the plan is applicable, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom questions concerning the plan may be addressed. The person who submits the plan shall be the chief administrator or president of the institution, or another individual legally authorized to bind the institution to all actions set forth in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) State whether the educational institution or administratively separate unit admits students of both sexes as regular students and, if so, when it began to do so. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe with respect to the educational institution or administratively separate unit any obstacles to admitting students without discrimination on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe in detail the steps necessary to eliminate as soon as practicable each obstacle so identified and indicate the schedule for taking these steps and the individual directly responsible for their implementation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Include estimates of the number of students, by sex, expected to apply for, be admitted to, and enter each class during the period covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> No policy or practice of a recipient to which § 196.225 applies shall result in treatment of applicants to or students of such recipient in violation of §§ 196.300 through 196.310 unless such treatment is necessitated by an obstacle identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and a schedule for eliminating that obstacle has been provided as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of past exclusion.</I> To overcome the effects of past exclusion of students on the basis of sex, each educational institution to which § 196.225 applies shall include in its transition plan, and shall implement, specific steps designed to encourage individuals of the previously excluded sex to apply for admission to such institution. Such steps shall include instituting recruitment programs that emphasize the institution's commitment to enrolling students of the sex previously excluded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.235" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.235   Statutory amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section, which applies to all provisions of these Title IX regulations, addresses statutory amendments to Title IX. 
</P>
<P>(b) These Title IX regulations shall not apply to or preclude: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any program or activity of the American Legion undertaken in connection with the organization or operation of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any program or activity of a secondary school or educational institution specifically for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The promotion of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection of students to attend any such conference; 
</P>
<P>(3) Father-son or mother-daughter activities at an educational institution or in an education program or activity, but if such activities are provided for students of one sex, opportunities for reasonably comparable activities shall be provided to students of the other sex; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any scholarship or other financial assistance awarded by an institution of higher education to an individual because such individual has received such award in a single-sex pageant based upon a combination of factors related to the individual's personal appearance, poise, and talent. The pageant, however, must comply with other nondiscrimination provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program or activity</I> or <I>program</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) All of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A local educational agency (as defined in section 8801 of title 20), system of vocational education, or other school system; 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship— 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(B) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other entity that is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Program or activity</I> does not include any operation of an entity that is controlled by a religious organization if the application of 20 U.S.C. 1681 to such operation would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For example, all of the operations of a college, university, or other postsecondary institution, including but not limited to traditional educational operations, faculty and student housing, campus shuttle bus service, campus restaurants, the bookstore, and other commercial activities are part of a “program or activity” subject to these Title IX regulations if the college, university, or other institution receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be construed to require or prohibit any person, or public or private entity, to provide or pay for any benefit or service, including the use of facilities, related to an abortion. Medical procedures, benefits, services, and the use of facilities, necessary to save the life of a pregnant woman or to address complications related to an abortion are not subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a penalty to be imposed on any person or individual because such person or individual is seeking or has received any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. Accordingly, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, employment, or other educational program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance because such individual has sought or received, or is seeking, a legal abortion, or any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Admission and Recruitment Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.300" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.300   Admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be denied admission, or be subjected to discrimination in admission, by any recipient to which §§ 196.300 through §§ 196.310 apply, except as provided in §§ 196.225 and §§ 196.230. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> (1) In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply shall not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Give preference to one person over another on the basis of sex, by ranking applicants separately on such basis, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for admission that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown to predict validly success in the education program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria that do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice that so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to § 196.235(d), shall treat disabilities related to pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admission, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.305" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.305   Preference in admission.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 196.300 through 196.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.310" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.310   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment.</I> A recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and admission of students. A recipient may be required to undertake additional recruitment efforts for one sex as remedial action pursuant to § 196.110(a), and may choose to undertake such efforts as affirmative action pursuant to § 196.110(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment at certain institutions.</I> A recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 apply shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at educational institutions, schools, or entities that admit as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 196.300 through 196.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.400" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.400   Education programs or activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in these Title IX regulations, no person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. Sections 196.400 through 196.455 do not apply to actions of a recipient in connection with admission of its students to an education program or activity of a recipient to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 do not apply, or an entity, not a recipient, to which §§ 196.300 through 196.310 would not apply if the entity were a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in §§ 196.400 through 196.455, in providing any aid, benefit, or service to a student, a recipient shall not, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(1) Treat one person differently from another in determining whether such person satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide different aid, benefits, or services or provide aid, benefits, or services in a different manner; 
</P>
<P>(3) Deny any person any such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject any person to separate or different rules of behavior, sanctions, or other treatment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Apply any rule concerning the domicile or residence of a student or applicant, including eligibility for in-state fees and tuition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against any person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in providing any aid, benefit, or service to students or employees; 
</P>
<P>(7) Otherwise limit any person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance administered by a recipient educational institution to study at a foreign institution.</I> A recipient educational institution may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other awards established by foreign or domestic wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments, or by acts of foreign governments and restricted to members of one sex, that are designed to provide opportunities to study abroad, and that are awarded to students who are already matriculating at or who are graduates of the recipient institution; <I>Provided,</I> that a recipient educational institution that administers or assists in the administration of such scholarships, fellowships, or other awards that are restricted to members of one sex provides, or otherwise makes available, reasonable opportunities for similar studies for members of the other sex. Such opportunities may be derived from either domestic or foreign sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aids, benefits or services not provided by recipient.</I> (1) This paragraph (d) applies to any recipient that requires participation by any applicant, student, or employee in any education program or activity not operated wholly by such recipient, or that facilitates, permits, or considers such participation as part of or equivalent to an education program or activity operated by such recipient, including participation in educational consortia and cooperative employment and student-teaching assignments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such recipient: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall develop and implement a procedure designed to assure itself that the operator or sponsor of such other education program or activity takes no action affecting any applicant, student, or employee of such recipient that these Title IX regulations would prohibit such recipient from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not facilitate, require, permit, or consider such participation if such action occurs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.405" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.405   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this section (including housing provided only to married students). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Housing provided by recipient.</I> (1) A recipient may provide separate housing on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) Housing provided by a recipient to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other housing.</I> (1) A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than that provided by such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A recipient which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take such reasonable action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing as is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(A) Proportionate in quantity; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person that provides all or part of such housing to students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.410" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.410   Comparable facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may provide separate toilet, locker room, and shower facilities on the basis of sex, but such facilities provided for students of one sex shall be comparable to such facilities provided for students of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.415" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.415   Access to course offerings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall not provide any course or otherwise carry out any of its education program or activity separately on the basis of sex, or require or refuse participation therein by any of its students on such basis, including health, physical education, industrial, business, vocational, technical, home economics, music, and adult education courses. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) With respect to classes and activities in physical education at the elementary school level, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. With respect to physical education classes and activities at the secondary and post-secondary levels, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not prohibit grouping of students in physical education classes and activities by ability as assessed by objective standards of individual performance developed and applied without regard to sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not prohibit separation of students by sex within physical education classes or activities during participation in wrestling, boxing, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where use of a single standard of measuring skill or progress in a physical education class has an adverse effect on members of one sex, the recipient shall use appropriate standards that do not have such effect. 
</P>
<P>(5) Portions of classes in elementary and secondary schools, or portions of education programs or activities, that deal exclusively with human sexuality may be conducted in separate sessions for boys and girls. 
</P>
<P>(6) Recipients may make requirements based on vocal range or quality that may result in a chorus or choruses of one or predominantly one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.420" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.420   Access to schools operated by LEAs.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient that is a local educational agency shall not, on the basis of sex, exclude any person from admission to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution of vocational education operated by such recipient; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other school or educational unit operated by such recipient, unless such recipient otherwise makes available to such person, pursuant to the same policies and criteria of admission, courses, services, and facilities comparable to each course, service, and facility offered in or through such schools. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.425" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.425   Counseling and use of appraisal and counseling materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Counseling.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of sex in the counseling or guidance of students or applicants for admission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of appraisal and counseling materials.</I> A recipient that uses testing or other materials for appraising or counseling students shall not use different materials for students on the basis of their sex or use materials that permit or require different treatment of students on such basis unless such different materials cover the same occupations and interest areas and the use of such different materials is shown to be essential to eliminate sex bias. Recipients shall develop and use internal procedures for ensuring that such materials do not discriminate on the basis of sex. Where the use of a counseling test or other instrument results in a substantially disproportionate number of members of one sex in any particular course of study or classification, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination in the instrument or its application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disproportion in classes.</I> Where a recipient finds that a particular class contains a substantially disproportionate number of individuals of one sex, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination on the basis of sex in counseling or appraisal materials or by counselors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.430" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.430   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, in providing financial assistance to any of its students, a recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of sex, provide different amounts or types of such assistance, limit eligibility for such assistance that is of any particular type or source, apply different criteria, or otherwise discriminate; 
</P>
<P>(2) Through solicitation, listing, approval, provision of facilities, or other services, assist any foundation, trust, agency, organization, or person that provides assistance to any of such recipient's students in a manner that discriminates on the basis of sex; or
</P>
<P>(3) Apply any rule or assist in application of any rule concerning eligibility for such assistance that treats persons of one sex differently from persons of the other sex with regard to marital or parental status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (1) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government that require that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein; <I>Provided,</I> that the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of nondiscriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Athletic scholarships.</I> (1) To the extent that a recipient awards athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid, it must provide reasonable opportunities for such awards for members of each sex in proportion to the number of students of each sex participating in interscholastic or intercollegiate athletics. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may provide separate athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid for members of each sex as part of separate athletic teams for members of each sex to the extent consistent with this paragraph (c) and § 196.450. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.435" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.435   Employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance by recipient in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in making employment available to any of its students: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure itself that such employment is made available without discrimination on the basis of sex; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not render such services to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in its employment practices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient that employs any of its students shall not do so in a manner that violates §§ 196.500 through 196.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.440" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.440   Health and insurance benefits and services.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to § 196.235(d), in providing a medical, hospital, accident, or life insurance benefit, service, policy, or plan to any of its students, a recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex, or provide such benefit, service, policy, or plan in a manner that would violate §§ 196.500 through 196.550 if it were provided to employees of the recipient. This section shall not prohibit a recipient from providing any benefit or service that may be used by a different proportion of students of one sex than of the other, including family planning services. However, any recipient that provides full coverage health service shall provide gynecological care. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.445" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.445   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status generally.</I> A recipient shall not apply any rule concerning a student's actual or potential parental, family, or marital status that treats students differently on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy and related conditions.</I> (1) A recipient shall not discriminate against any student, or exclude any student from its education program or activity, including any class or extracurricular activity, on the basis of such student's pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, unless the student requests voluntarily to participate in a separate portion of the program or activity of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may require such a student to obtain the certification of a physician that the student is physically and emotionally able to continue participation as long as such a certification is required of all students for other physical or emotional conditions requiring the attention of a physician. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient that operates a portion of its education program or activity separately for pregnant students, admittance to which is completely voluntary on the part of the student as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall ensure that the separate portion is comparable to that offered to non-pregnant students. 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to § 196.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability with respect to any medical or hospital benefit, service, plan, or policy that such recipient administers, operates, offers, or participates in with respect to students admitted to the recipient's educational program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its students, or in the case of a student who does not otherwise qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence for as long a period of time as is deemed medically necessary by the student's physician, at the conclusion of which the student shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.450" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.450   Athletics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be treated differently from another person, or otherwise be discriminated against in any interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics offered by a recipient, and no recipient shall provide any such athletics separately on such basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate teams.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient may operate or sponsor separate teams for members of each sex where selection for such teams is based upon competitive skill or the activity involved is a contact sport. However, where a recipient operates or sponsors a team in a particular sport for members of one sex but operates or sponsors no such team for members of the other sex, and athletic opportunities for members of that sex have previously been limited, members of the excluded sex must be allowed to try out for the team offered unless the sport involved is a contact sport. For the purposes of these Title IX regulations, contact sports include boxing, wrestling, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity.</I> (1) A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics shall provide equal athletic opportunity for members of both sexes. In determining whether equal opportunities are available, the designated agency official will consider, among other factors: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the selection of sports and levels of competition effectively accommodate the interests and abilities of members of both sexes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of equipment and supplies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduling of games and practice time; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Travel and per diem allowance; 
</P>
<P>(v) Opportunity to receive coaching and academic tutoring; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Assignment and compensation of coaches and tutors; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Provision of locker rooms, practice, and competitive facilities; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision of medical and training facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Provision of housing and dining facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(x) Publicity. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unequal aggregate expenditures for members of each sex or unequal expenditures for male and female teams if a recipient operates or sponsors separate teams will not constitute noncompliance with this section, but the designated agency official may consider the failure to provide necessary funds for teams for one sex in assessing equality of opportunity for members of each sex. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment period.</I> A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the elementary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the secondary or postsecondary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.455" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.455   Textbooks and curricular material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted as requiring or prohibiting or abridging in any way the use of particular textbooks or curricular materials. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Employment in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.500" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.500   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in employment, or recruitment, consideration, or selection therefor, whether full-time or part-time, under any education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all employment decisions in any education program or activity operated by such recipient in a nondiscriminatory manner and shall not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that could adversely affect any applicant's or employee's employment opportunities or status because of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not enter into any contractual or other relationship which directly or indirectly has the effect of subjecting employees or students to discrimination prohibited by §§ 196.500 through 196.550, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, and with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall not grant preferences to applicants for employment on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preferences has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of §§ 196.500 through 196.550 apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, application of nepotism policies, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications, and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, leave for pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including social or recreational programs; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.505" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.505   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for any employment opportunity that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use of such test or other criterion is shown to predict validly successful performance in the position in question; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative tests or criteria for such purpose, which do not have such disproportionately adverse effect, are shown to be unavailable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.510" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.510   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment and hiring.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and hiring of employees. Where a recipient has been found to be presently discriminating on the basis of sex in the recruitment or hiring of employees, or has been found to have so discriminated in the past, the recipient shall recruit members of the sex so discriminated against so as to overcome the effects of such past or present discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment patterns.</I> A recipient shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at entities that furnish as applicants only or predominantly members of one sex if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 196.500 through 196.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.515" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.515   Compensation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not make or enforce any policy or practice that, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(a) Makes distinctions in rates of pay or other compensation; 
</P>
<P>(b) Results in the payment of wages to employees of one sex at a rate less than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and that are performed under similar working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.520" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.520   Job classification and structure.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classify a job as being for males or for females; 
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority lists, career ladders, or tenure systems based on sex; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority systems, career ladders, or tenure systems for similar jobs, position descriptions, or job requirements that classify persons on the basis of sex, unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the positions in question as set forth in § 196.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.525" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.525   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Fringe benefits” defined.</I> For purposes of these Title IX regulations, <I>fringe benefits</I> means: Any medical, hospital, accident, life insurance, or retirement benefit, service, policy or plan, any profit-sharing or bonus plan, leave, and any other benefit or service of employment not subject to the provision of § 196.515. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to making fringe benefits available to employees or make fringe benefits available to spouses, families, or dependents of employees differently upon the basis of the employee's sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a fringe benefit plan that does not provide for equal periodic benefits for members of each sex and for equal contributions to the plan by such recipient for members of each sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a pension or retirement plan that establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or that otherwise discriminates in benefits on the basis of sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.530" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.530   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall not apply any policy or take any employment action: 
</P>
<P>(1) Concerning the potential marital, parental, or family status of an employee or applicant for employment that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is based upon whether an employee or applicant for employment is the head of household or principal wage earner in such employee's or applicant's family unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against or exclude from employment any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pregnancy as a temporary disability.</I> Subject to § 196.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, recovery therefrom, and any temporary disability resulting therefrom as any other temporary disability for all job-related purposes, including commencement, duration, and extensions of leave, payment of disability income, accrual of seniority and any other benefit or service, and reinstatement, and under any fringe benefit offered to employees by virtue of employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pregnancy leave.</I> In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its employees, or in the case of an employee with insufficient leave or accrued employment time to qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence without pay for a reasonable period of time, at the conclusion of which the employee shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began or to a comparable position, without decrease in rate of compensation or loss of promotional opportunities, or any other right or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.535" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.535   Effect of state or local law or other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitory requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with §§ 196.500 through 196.550 is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement that imposes prohibitions or limits upon employment of members of one sex that are not imposed upon members of the other sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits.</I> A recipient that provides any compensation, service, or benefit to members of one sex pursuant to a State or local law or other requirement shall provide the same compensation, service, or benefit to members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.540" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.540   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not in any advertising related to employment indicate preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the particular job in question. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.545" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.545   Pre-employment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marital status.</I> A recipient shall not make pre-employment inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for employment, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sex.</I> A recipient may make pre-employment inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for employment, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.550" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.550   Sex as a bona fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may take action otherwise prohibited by §§ 196.500 through 196.550 provided it is shown that sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for that action, such that consideration of sex with regard to such action is essential to successful operation of the employment function concerned. A recipient shall not take action pursuant to this section that is based upon alleged comparative employment characteristics or stereotyped characterizations of one or the other sex, or upon preference based on sex of the recipient, employees, students, or other persons, but nothing contained in this section shall prevent a recipient from considering an employee's sex in relation to employment in a locker room or toilet facility used only by members of one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.600" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.600   Notice of covered programs.</HEAD>
<P>Within 60 days of September 29, 2000, each Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the programs covered by these Title IX regulations. Each such Federal agency shall periodically republish the notice of covered programs to reflect changes in covered programs. Copies of this notice also shall be made available upon request to the Federal agency's office that enforces Title IX.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 196.605" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.6.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 196.605   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The investigative, compliance, and enforcement procedural provisions of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d) (“Title VI”) are hereby adopted and applied to these Title IX regulations. These procedures may be found at 32 CFR 195.7 through 195.12.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 52885, Aug. 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="197" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 197—HISTORICAL RESEARCH IN THE FILES OF THE OFFICE OF THE SECRETARY OF DEFENSE (OSD) 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, Executive Order 13526, 5 U.S.C. 552b, and Pub. L. 102-138.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 65935, Oct. 28, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 197.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part, in accordance with the authority in DoD Directive 5110.4, implements policy and updates procedures for the programs that permit authorized personnel to perform historical research in records created by or in the custody of Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) consistent with Executive Order 13526; DoD Manual 5230.30, “DoD Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523030m.pdf</I>); 32 CFR part 286; 32 CFR part 310; DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program” Volumes 1-4 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol1.pdf, http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol2.pdf,</I> <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol3.pdf,</I> and <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol4.pdf</I>); 36 CFR 1230.10 and 36 CFR part 1236; DoD Directive 5230.09, “Clearance of DoD Information for Public Release” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523009p.pdf</I>); and 32 CFR 197.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 197.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities in the National Capital Region that are serviced by Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) (referred to collectively in this part as the “WHS-Serviced Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) All historical researchers as defined in § 197.3.
</P>
<P>(c) Cabinet Level Officials, Former Presidential Appointees (FPAs) to include their personnel, aides and researchers, seeking access to records containing information they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in an official capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 197.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Access.</I> The availability of or the permission to consult records, archives, or manuscripts. The ability and opportunity to obtain classified, unclassified, or administratively controlled information or records.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic records.</I> Records stored in a form that only a computer can process and satisfies the definition of a federal record, also referred to as machine-readable records or automatic data processing records (including email).
</P>
<P><I>Historical researchers or requestors.</I> A person approved to conduct research in OSD files for historical information to use in a DoD approved project (<I>e.g.,</I> agency historical office projects, books, articles, studies, or reports), regardless of the person's employment status. Excluded are Military personnel assigned to OSD; OSD employees, contractors, and students conducting research in response to academic requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Records (also referred to as federal records or official records).</I> All books, papers, maps, photographs, machine-readable materials, or other documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics, made or received by an agency of the U.S. Government under federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business and preserved or appropriate for preservation by that agency or its legitimate successor as evidence of the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of the U.S. Government or because of the informational value of data in them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 197.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is OSD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Pursuant to Executive Order 13526, anyone requesting access to classified material must possess the requisite security clearance.
</P>
<P>(b) Members of the public seeking the declassification of DoD documents under the provisions of section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526 will contact the appropriate OSD Component as listed in DoD Manual 5230.30.
</P>
<P>(c) Records and information requested by FPA and approved historical researchers will be accessed at a facility under the control of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), NARA's Archives II in College Park, Maryland, a Presidential library, or an appropriate U.S. military facility or a DoD activity in accordance with Vol 3 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program,” February 24, 2012, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) Access to records and information will be limited to the specific records within the scope of the proposed research request over which OSD has authority and to any other records for which the written consent of other agencies with authority has been granted in accordance with Vol 3 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program,” February 24, 2012, as amended.
</P>
<P>(e) Access to unclassified OSD Component records and information will be permitted consistent with the restrictions of the exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b) (also known and referred to in this part as the “Freedom of Information Act” (FOIA), 32 CFR part 286, § 197.5 of this part, and consistent with 32 CFR part 310. The procedures for access to classified information will be used if the requested unclassified information is contained in OSD files whose overall markings are classified.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as otherwise provided in DoD Manual 5200.01 volume 3, no person may have access to classified information unless that person has been determined to be trustworthy and access is essential to the accomplishment of a lawful and authorized purpose.
</P>
<P>(g) Persons outside the Executive Branch who are engaged in approved historical research projects may be granted access to classified information, consistent with the provisions of Executive Order 13526 and DoD Manual 5200.01 volume 1 provided that the OSD official with classification jurisdiction over that information grants access.
</P>
<P>(h) Contractors working for Executive Branch agencies may be allowed access to classified OSD Component files provided the contractors meet all the required criteria for such access as an historical researcher including the appropriate level of personnel security clearance set forth in paragraphs (a) and (i) of this section. No copies of OSD records and information may be released directly to the contractors. The Washington Headquarters Services Records and Declassification Division (WHS/RDD) will be responsible for ensuring that the contractor safeguards the documents and the information is only used for the project for which it was requested per section 4.1 of Executive Order 13526, “Classified National Security Information,” December 29, 2009.
</P>
<P>(i) All DoD-employed requesters, to include DoD contractors, must have critical nuclear weapons design information (CNWDI) to access CNWDI information. All other non DoD and non-Executive Branch personnel must have a Department of Energy-issued “Q” clearance to access CNWDI information in accordance with DoD Manual 5220.22, “National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM),” February 28, 2006, as amended.
</P>
<P>(j) The removal of federal records and information from OSD custody is not authorized; this includes copies and email according to 36 CFR 1230.10. Copies of records and information that are national security classified will remain under the control of the agency.
</P>
<P>(k) Access for FPAs is limited to records they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as Presidential appointees, unless there is another basis for providing access in accordance with Vol 3 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program,” February 24, 2012, as amended.
</P>
<P>(l) Authorization is required from all agencies whose classified information is, or is expected to be, in the requested files prior to granting approval for access. Separate authorizations for access to records and information maintained in OSD Component office files or at the federal records centers will not be required in accordance with Vol 3 of DoD Manual 5200.01, “DoD Information Security Program,” February 24, 2012, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 197.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Administration (DA), Office of the Deputy Chief Management Officer (ODCMO), or designee is the approval authority for access to DoD information in OSD Component files and in files at the National Archives, Presidential libraries, and other similar institutions in accordance with DoD Directive 5110.4 and DoD Manual 5230.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>OSD Records Administrator.</I> Under the authority, direction, and control of the DA, ODCMO, the OSD Records Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Exercises approval authority for research access to OSD and WHS Serviced Components records, information, and the Historical Research Program.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintains records necessary to process and monitor each case.
</P>
<P>(3) Obtains all required authorizations.
</P>
<P>(4) Obtains, when warranted, the legal opinion of the General Counsel of the Department of Defense regarding the requested access.
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinates, with the originator, on the public release review on documents selected by the researchers for use in unclassified projects in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.09 and DoD Instruction 5230.29, “Security and Policy Review of DoD Information for Public Release” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523029p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(6) Coordinates requests with the OSD Historian.
</P>
<P>(7) Provides prospective researchers the procedures necessary for requesting access to OSD Component files.
</P>
<P>(c) The WHS-serviced Components heads, when requested:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether access is for a lawful and authorized government purpose or in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the specific records requested are within the scope of the proposed historical research.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the location of the requested records.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a point of contact to the OSD Records Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 197.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 197.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for historical researchers permanently assigned within the Executive Branch working on official projects.</I> (1) In accordance with § 197.5, the WHS-serviced Components heads, when requested, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Make a written determination that the requested access is essential to the accomplishment of a lawful and authorized U.S. Government purpose, stating whether the requested records can be made available. If disapproved, cite specific reasons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the location of the requested records, including accession and box numbers if the material has been retired to the Washington National Records Center (WNRC).
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a point of contact for liaison with the OSD Records Administrator if any requested records are located in OSD Component working files.
</P>
<P>(2) The historical researcher or requestor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit a request for access to OSD files to: OSD Records Administrator, WHS/Records and Declassification Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Suite 02F09-02, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
</P>
<P>(ii) All requests must be signed by an appropriate official and must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) The name(s) of the researcher(s) and any assistant(s), level of security clearance, and the federal agency, institute, or company to which the researcher is assigned.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement on the purpose of the project, including whether the final product is to be classified or unclassified.
</P>
<P>(C) An explicit description of the information being requested and, if known, the originating office, so that the identification and location of the information may be facilitated.
</P>
<P>(D) Appropriate higher authorization of the request.
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure researcher's security manager or personnel security office verifies his or her security clearances in writing to the OSD Records Administrator's Security Manager.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain the file integrity of the records being reviewed, ensuring that no records are removed and that all folders are replaced in the correct box in their proper order.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make copies of any documents pertinent to the project, ensuring that staples are carefully removed and that the documents are re-stapled before they are replaced in the folder.
</P>
<P>(v) Submit the completed manuscript for review prior to public presentation or publication to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WHS/Chief, Security Review Division, Office of Security Review, 1155 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1155.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) If the requester is an official historian of a federal agency requiring access to DoD records at the National Archives facilities or a Presidential library, the requested must be addressed directly to the pertinent facility with an information copy sent to the OSD Records Administrator. The historian's security clearances must be verified to the National Archives or the Presidential library.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of computers, laptops, computer tablets, personal digital assistants, recorders, or similar devices listed in § 197.6(f) is prohibited. Researchers will use letter-sized paper (approximately 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11 inches), writing on only one side of the page. Each page of notes must pertain to only one document.
</P>
<P>(4) The following applies to all notes taken during research:
</P>
<P>(i) All notes are considered classified at the level of the document from which they were taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate at the top of each page of notes the document:
</P>
<P>(A) Originator.
</P>
<P>(B) Date.
</P>
<P>(C) Subject (if the subject is classified, indicate the classification).
</P>
<P>(D) Folder number or other identification.
</P>
<P>(E) Accession number and box number in which the document was found.
</P>
<P>(F) Security classification of the document.
</P>
<P>(iii) Number each page of notes consecutively.
</P>
<P>(iv) Leave the last 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches on the bottom of each page of notes blank for use by the reviewing agencies.
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure the notes are legible, in English, and in black ink.
</P>
<P>(vi) All notes must be given to the staff at the end of each day. The facility staff will forward the notes to the OSD Records Administrator for an official review and release to the researcher.
</P>
<P>(5) The OSD Records Administrator will:
</P>
<P>(i) Process all requests from Executive Branch employees requesting access to OSD Component files for official projects.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine which OSD Component originated the requested records and, if necessary, request an access determination from the OSD Component and the location of the requested records, including but not limited to electronic information systems, databases or accession number and box numbers if the hardcopy records have been retired offsite.
</P>
<P>(iii) Request authorization for access from other OSD Component as necessary.
</P>
<P>(A) Official historians employed by federal agencies may have access to the classified information of any other agency found in DoD files, as long as authorization for access has been obtained from these agencies.
</P>
<P>(B) If the requester is not an official historian, authorization for access must be obtained from the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), National Security Council (NSC), Department of State (DOS), and any other non-DoD agency whose classified information is expected to be found in the files to be accessed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make a written determination as to the researcher's trustworthiness based on the researcher having been issued a security clearance.
</P>
<P>(v) Compile all information on the request for access to classified information, to include evidence of an appropriately issued personnel security clearance, and forward the information to the DA, ODCMO; OSD Component or designee, who will make the access determination.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notify the researcher of the authorization and conditions for access to the requested records or of the denial of access and the reason(s).
</P>
<P>(vii) Ensure that all conditions for access and release of information for use in the project are met.
</P>
<P>(viii) Make all necessary arrangements for the researcher to visit the review location and review the requested records.
</P>
<P>(ix) Provide all requested records and information under OSD control in electronic formats consistent with 36 CFR part 1236. For all other information, a staff member will be assigned to supervise the researcher's copying of pertinent documents at the assigned facility.
</P>
<P>(x) If the records are maintained in the OSD Component's working files, arrange for the material to be converted to electronic format for the researchers to review.
</P>
<P>(xi) Notify the National Archives, Presidential library, or military facility of the authorization and access conditions of all researchers approved to research OSD records held in those facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for the DOS Foreign Relations of the United States (FRUS) series.</I> (1) The DOS historians will:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit requests for access to OSD files. The request should list the names and security clearances for the historians doing the research and an explicit description, including the accession and box numbers, of the files being requested. Submit request to: OSD Records Administrator, WHS/Records and Declassification Division, 4800 Mark Center Dr, Suite 02F09-02, Alexandria, VA 22380-2100.
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit to the OSD Records Administrator requests for access for members of the Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation to documents copied by the DOS historians for the series or the files reviewed to obtain the documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Request that the DOS Diplomatic Security staff verify all security clearances in writing to the OSD Records Administrator's Security Manager.
</P>
<P>(iv) Give all document copies to the OSD Records Administrator staff member who is supervising the copying as they are made.
</P>
<P>(v) Submit any OSD documents desired for use or pages of the manuscript containing OSD classified information for declassification review prior to publication to the Chief, Security Review Division at: WHS/Chief, Security Review Division, Office of Security Review, 1155 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1155.
</P>
<P>(2) The OSD Records Administrator will:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the location of the records being requested by the DOS for the FRUS series according to Title IV of Public Law 102-138, “The Foreign Relations of the United States Historical Series.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Act as a liaison with the CIA, NSC, and any other non-OSD agency for access by DOS historians to records and information and such non-DoD agency classified information expected to be interfiled with the requested OSD records.
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain written verification from the DOS Diplomatic Security staff of all security clearances, including “Q” clearances.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make all necessary arrangements for the DOS historians to access, review, and copy documents selected for use in their research in accordance with procedures in accordance with § 197.6(a).
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a staff member to supervise document copying in accordance with the guidance provided in § 197.6(d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) Compile a list of the documents that were copied by the DOS historians.
</P>
<P>(vii) Scan and transfer copies to DOS in NARA an approved electronic format.
</P>
<P>(viii) Submit to the respective agency a list of CIA and NSC documents copied and released to the DOS historians.
</P>
<P>(ix) Process DOS Historian Office requests for members of the Advisory Committee on Historical Diplomatic Documentation with appropriate security clearances to have access to documents copied and used by the DOS historians to compile the FRUS series volumes or to the files that were reviewed to obtain the copied documents. Make all necessary arrangements for the Advisory Committee to review any documents that are at the WNRC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for historical researchers not permanently assigned to the Executive Branch.</I> (1) The WHS-serviced Components heads, when required, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Recommend to the DA, ODCMO, or his or her designee, approval or disapproval of requests to access OSD information. State whether access to, release, and clearance of the requested information is in the interest of national security and whether the information can be made available. If disapproval is recommended, specific reasons should be cited.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the location of the requested information, including but not limited to the office, component, information system or accession and box numbers for any records that have been retired to the WNRC.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a point of contact for liaison with the OSD Records Administrator if any requested records are located in OSD Component working files.
</P>
<P>(2) The OSD Records Administrator will:
</P>
<P>(i) Process all requests from non-Executive Branch researchers for access to OSD or WHS-serviced Components files. Certify via the WHS Security Officer that the requester has the appropriate clearances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine which OSD Component originated the requested records and, as necessary, obtain written recommendations for the research to review the classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain prior authorization to review their classified information from the DOS, CIA, NSC, and any other agency whose classified information is expected to be interfiled with OSD records.
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtain agreement from the researcher(s) and any assistant(s) that they will comply with conditions governing access to the classified information (see Figure to § 197.6).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28oc15.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er28oc15.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er28oc15.014.gif"/>
<P>(v) If the requester is an FPA, submit a memorandum after completion of the actions described in this part to WHS, Human Resources Directorate, Security Operations Division, requesting the issuance (including an interim) or reinstatement of an inactive security clearance for the FPA and any assistant and a copy of any signed form letters. The Security Division will contact the researcher(s) and any assistant(s) to obtain the forms required to reinstate or initiate the personnel security investigation to obtain a security clearance. Upon completion of the adjudication process, notify the OSD Records Administrator in writing of the reinstatement, issuance, or denial of a security clearance.
</P>
<P>(vi) Make a written determination as to the researcher's trustworthiness based on his or her having been issued a security clearance.
</P>
<P>(vii) Compile all information on the request for access to classified information, to include either evidence of an appropriately issued or reinstated personnel security clearance. Forward the information to the DA, ODCMO or designee, who will make the final determination on the applicant's eligibility for access to classified OSD or WHS-serviced Component files. If the determination is favorable, the DA, ODCMO or designee will then execute an authorization for access, which will be valid for not more than 2 years.
</P>
<P>(viii) Notify the researcher of the approval or disapproval of the request. If the request has been approved, the notification will identify the files authorized for review and specify that the authorization:
</P>
<P>(A) Is approved for a predetermined time period.
</P>
<P>(B) Is limited to the designated files.
</P>
<P>(C) Does not include access to records and/or information of other federal agencies, unless such access has been specifically authorized by those agencies.
</P>
<P>(ix) Make all necessary arrangements for the researcher to visit the WNRC and review any requested records that have been retired there, to include written authorization, conditions for the access, and a copy of the security clearance verification.
</P>
<P>(x) If the requested records are at the WNRC, make all necessary arrangements for the scanning of documents.
</P>
<P>(xi) If the requested records are maintained in OSD or WHS-serviced Component working files, make arrangements for the researcher to review the requested information and, if authorized, copy pertinent documents in the OSD or WHS-serviced Component's office. Provide the OSD Component with a copy of the written authorization and conditions under which the access is permitted.
</P>
<P>(xii) Compile a list of all the documents requested by the researcher.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Coordinate the official review on all notes taken and documents copied by the researcher.
</P>
<P>(xiv) If the classified information to be reviewed is on file at the National Archives, a Presidential library, or other facility, notify the pertinent facility in writing of the authorization and conditions for access.
</P>
<P>(3) The researcher will:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit a request for access to OSD Component files to OSD Records Administrator, WHS/Records and Declassification Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Suite 02F09-02, Alexandria VA 22350-3100. The request must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) As explicit a description as possible of the information being requested so that identification and location of the information may be facilitated.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement as to how the information will be used, including whether the final project is to be classified or unclassified.
</P>
<P>(C) A statement as to whether the researcher has a security clearance, including the level of clearance and the name of the issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(D) The names of any persons who will be assisting the researcher with the project. If the assistants have security clearances, provide the level of clearance and the name of the issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(E) A signed copy of their agreement (see Figure) to safeguard the information and to authorize a review of any notes and manuscript for a determination that they contain no classified information. Each project assistant must also sign a copy of the letter.
</P>
<P>(F) The forms necessary to obtain a security clearance, if the requester is an FPA without an active security clearance. Each project assistant without an active security clearance will also need to complete these forms. If the FPA or assistant have current security clearances, their personnel security office must provide verification in writing to the OSD Records Administrator's Security Manager.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain the integrity of the files being reviewed, ensuring that no records are removed and that all folders are replaced in the correct box in their proper order.
</P>
<P>(iii) If copies are authorized, give all copies to the custodian of the files at the end of each day. The custodian will forward the copies of the documents to the OSD Records Administrator for a declassification review and release to the requester.
</P>
<P>(A) For records at the WNRC, if authorized, provide the requested information in an electronic format. Review will occur only in the presence of an OSD Records Administrator staff member.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that all staples are carefully removed and that the documents are re-stapled before the documents are replaced in the folder.
</P>
<P>(C) Submit all classified and unclassified notes made from the records to the custodian of the files at the end of each day of research. The custodian will transmit the notes to the OSD Records Administrator for an official review and release to the researcher at the completion of researcher's project.
</P>
<P>(D) Submit the final manuscript to the OSD Records Administrator for forwarding to the Chief, Security Review Division, Office of Security Review, for a security review and public release clearance in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.09 and DoD 5220.22-M, “National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/522022m.pdf</I>) prior to publication, presentation, or any other public use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for document review for the FRUS series.</I> (1) When documents are being reviewed, a WHS/RDD staff member must be present at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) The records maybe reviewed at a Presidential Library Archives II, College Park Maryland, WNRC, Suitland, Maryland, or an appropriate military facility. All requested information will remain under the control of the WHS/RDD staff until a public release review is completed, and then provided in electronic formats.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requested records have been reviewed in accordance with the automatic declassification provisions of Executive Order 13526, any tabs removed during the research and copying must be replaced in accordance with DoD Manual 5200.01 volume 2.
</P>
<P>(4) The number of boxes to be reviewed will determine which of the following procedures will apply. The WHS/RDD staff member will make that determination at the time the request is processed. When the historian completes the review of the boxes, he or she must contact the WHS/RDD to establish a final schedule for scanning the documents. To avoid a possible delay, a tentative schedule will be established at the time that the review schedule is set.
</P>
<P>(i) For 24 boxes or fewer, review and scanning will take place simultaneously. Estimated time to complete scanning is 7 work days.
</P>
<P>(ii) For 25 boxes or more, the historian will review the boxes and mark the documents that are to be scanned using WHS/RDD authorized reproduction tabs.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the review occurs at facilities that OSD does not control ownership of the document, the documents must be given to the WHS/RDD staff member for transmittal for processing.
</P>
<P>(5) WHS/RDD will notify the historian when the documents are ready to be picked up. All administrative procedures for classified material transfers will be followed in accordance with DoD Manual 5200.01 volume 1 and DoD 5220.22-M and appropriate receipt for unclassified information will be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for copying documents.</I> (1) The records will be reviewed and copied at a Presidential Library, Archives II, College Park Maryland, WNRC, Suitland, Maryland, or an appropriate U.S. military facility.
</P>
<P>(2) If the requested records have been reviewed in accordance with the automatic declassification provisions of Executive Order 13526 any tabs removed during the research and copying must be replaced in accordance with DoD Manual 5200.01 volume 2.
</P>
<P>(3) The researcher will mark the documents that he or she wants to copy using WHS/RDD authorized reproduction tabs.
</P>
<P>(4) Any notes taken during the review process must be given to the WHS/RDD staff member present for transmittal to the WHS/RDD.
</P>
<P>(5) All reproduction charges are to the responsibility of the researcher.
</P>
<P>(6) All documents requested will be copied to an approved electronic format by WHS/RDD staff after official review.
</P>
<P>(i) The researcher will need to bring paper, staples, staple remover, and stapler.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the researcher completes the review of the boxes, he or she must contact the WHS/RDD to establish a final schedule for scanning the requested documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the documents are scanned, the WHS/RDD will notify the researcher.
</P>
<P>(iv) All questions pertaining to the review, copying, or transmittal of OSD documents must be addressed to the WHS/RDD staff member.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General guidelines for researching DoD records.</I> DoD records and information are unique and often cannot be replaced should they be lost or damaged. In order to protect its collections and archives, the OSD Records Administrator has set rules that researchers must follow.
</P>
<P>(1) Researchers will work in room assigned. Researchers are not allowed in restricted areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Special care must be taken in handling all records. Records may not be leaned on, written on, folded, traced from, or handled in any way likely to damage them.
</P>
<P>(3) Records should be kept in the same order in which they are presented.
</P>
<P>(4) Items that may not be brought into these research areas include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Briefcases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cases for equipment (laptop computers).
</P>
<P>(iii) Computers. This includes laptops, tablet computers, personal digital assistants, smart phones, and other similar devices.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cellular phones.
</P>
<P>(v) Computer peripherals including handheld document scanners and digital or analog cameras.
</P>
<P>(vi) Containers larger than 9.5″ × 6.25″ (<I>e.g.,</I> paper bags, boxes, backpacks, shopping bags, and sleeping bags).
</P>
<P>(vii) Food, drinks (includes bottled water) and cigarettes, cigars, or pipes.
</P>
<P>(viii) Handbags or purses larger than 9.5″ × 6.25″.
</P>
<P>(ix) Luggage.
</P>
<P>(x) Musical instruments and their cases.
</P>
<P>(xi) Newspapers.
</P>
<P>(xii) Outerwear (<I>e.g.,</I> raincoats and overcoats).
</P>
<P>(xiii) Pets (exception for service animals, <I>i.e.,</I> any guide dog or signal dog that is trained to provide a service to a person with a disability).
</P>
<P>(xiv) Scissors or other cutting implements.
</P>
<P>(xv) Televisions and audio or video equipment.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Umbrellas.
</P>
<P>(5) Eating, drinking, or smoking is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.7.2.1.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 197—Explanation of FOIA Exemptions and Classification Categories
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Explanation of FOIA Exemptions and Classification Categories</I>—(1) <I>Explanation of FOIA Exemptions.</I> Exemptions and their explanations are provided in the Table to Appendix A. See chapter III of 32 CFR part 286 for further information.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table to Appendix A—Explanation of FOIA Exemptions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exemption
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information currently and properly classified in the interest of national security.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information protected by another law that specifically exempts the information from public release.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information on trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a <E T="03">private</E> source which would cause substantial competitive harm to the source if disclosed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information of internal records that are deliberative in nature and are part of the decision making process that contain opinions and recommendations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records or information the release of which could reasonably be expected to constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of individuals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes that could: (a) Reasonably be expected to interfere with law enforcement proceedings; (b) deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or impartial adjudication; (c) reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of others; (d) disclose the identity of a confidential source; (e) disclose investigative techniques and procedures; or (f) reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information for the use of any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applies to records and information containing geological and geophysical information (including maps) concerning wells.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Classification Categories.</I> Information will not be considered for classification unless its unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable or describable damage to the national security in accordance with section 1.2 of Executive Order 13526, and it pertains to one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Military plans, weapons systems, or operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Foreign government information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Intelligence activities (including covert action), intelligence sources or methods, or cryptology;
</P>
<P>(iv) Foreign relations or foreign activities of the United States, including confidential sources;
</P>
<P>(v) Scientific, technological, or economic matters relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(vi) U.S. Government programs for safeguarding nuclear materials or facilities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Vulnerabilities or capabilities of systems, installations, infrastructures, projects, plans, or protection services relating to the national security; or
</P>
<P>(viii) The development, production, or use of weapons of mass destruction.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="199" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 199—CIVILIAN HEALTH AND MEDICAL PROGRAM OF THE UNIFORMED SERVICES (CHAMPUS)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. chapter 55.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 199.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes guidelines and policies for the administration of the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) for the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, the Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS) and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Geographic.</I> This part is applicable geographically within the 50 States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the United States possessions and territories, and in all foreign countries, unless specific exemptions are granted in writing by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agency.</I> The provisions of this part apply throughout the Department of Defense (DoD), the Coast Guard, the Commissioned Corps of the USPHS, and the Commissioned Corps of the NOAA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority and responsibility</I>—(1) <I>Legislative authority</I>—(i) <I>Joint regulations.</I> 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 authorizes the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, and the Secretary of Transportation jointly to prescribe regulations for the administration of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Administration.</I> 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 also authorizes the Secretary of Defense to administer CHAMPUS for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps under DoD jurisdiction, the Secretary of Transportation to administer CHAMPUS for the Coast Guard, when the Coast Guard is not operating as a service in the Navy, and the Secretary of Health and Human Services to administer CHAMPUS for the Commissioned Corps of the NOAA and the USPHS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organizational delegations and assignments</I>—(i) <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA)).</I> The Secretary of Defense, by 32 CFR part 367, delegated authority to the ASD(HA) to provide policy guidance, management control and coordination as required for CHAMPUS, and to develop, issue, and maintain regulations with the coordination of the Military Departments and consistent with DoD 5025.1-M. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Additional implementing authority is contained in DoD Directive 5105.46. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, if needed, from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained; if needed from the Naval Publications and Forms Center, 5801 Tabor Avenue, Code 301, Philadelphia, PA 19120.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Department of Health and Human Services.</I> The Secretary of Health and Human Services has delegated authority to the Assistant Secretary for Health, DHHS, to consult with the Secretary of Defense or a designee and to approve and issue joint regulations implementing 10 U.S.C. chapter 55. This delegation was effective April 19, 1976 (41 FR 18698, May 6, 1976). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Department of Transportation.</I> The Secretary of Transportation has delegated authority to the Commandant, United States Coast Guard, to consult with the Secretary of Defense or a designee and to approve an issue joint regulations implementing 10 U.S.C., chapter 55. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Office of CHAMPUS (OCHAMPUS).</I> By DoD Directive 5105.46, OCHAMPUS was established as an OSD field activity under the policy guidance and direction of the ASD(HA). The Director, OCHAMPUS, is directed to execute the following responsibilities and functions: 
</P>
<P>(A) Supervise and administer the programs and missions to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provide technical direction and guidance on organizational, administrative, and operational matters. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Conduct studies and research activities in the health care area to assist in formulating policy required to guide OCHAMPUS in carrying out its programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Enter into agreements through the Department of Defense with respect to the Military Departments or other U.S. Government entities, as required, for the effective performance of CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supervise and administer OCHAMPUS financial management activities to include: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Formulating budget estimates and justifications to be submitted to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense (Administration) (DASD(A)) for inclusion in the overall budget for the Office of the Secretary of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Ensuring the establishment and maintenance of necessary accounting records and submission of required financial reports to the DASD(A). 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Ensuring the effective execution of approved budgets. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Contract for claims processing services, studies and research, supplies, equipment, an other services necessary to carry out the CHAMPUS programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Monitor claims adjudication and processing contracts to ensure that CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries are fulfilling their obligations. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Convey appropriate CHAMPUS information to providers of care, practitioners, professional societies, health industry organizations, fiscal agents, hospital contractors, and others who have need of such information. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Collect, maintain, and analyze program cost and utilization data appropriate for preparation of budgets, fiscal planning, and as otherwise needed to carry out CHAMPUS programs and missions.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Arrange for the facilities logistical and administrative support to be provided by the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Execute such other functions as appropriate to administer the programs and missions assigned. 
</P>
<P>(B) Direct and control of the office, activities, and functions of OCHAMPUS Europe (OCHAMPUSEUR).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Director, OCHAMPUS, may also establish similar offices for OCHAMPUS Southern Hemisphere (OCHAMPUSSO) and OCHAMPUS Pacific (OCHAMPUSPAC).</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Develop for issuance, subject to approval by the ASD(HA), such policies or regulations as required to administer and manage CHAMPUS effectively.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Evidence of eligibility.</I> The Department of Defense, through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), is responsible for establishing and maintaining a listing of persons eligible to receive benefits under CHAMPUS. Identification cards or devices bearing information necessary for preliminary evidence of eligibility, subject to verification through the DEERS, shall be issued to eligible persons by the appropriate Uniformed Services (DoD 1341.1-M, “Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) Program Manual”).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical benefits program.</I> The CHAMPUS is a program of medical benefits provided by the U.S. Government under public law to specified categories of individuals who are qualified for these benefits by virtue of their relationship to one of the seven Uniformed Services. Although similar in structure in many of its aspects, CHAMPUS is not an insurance program in that it does not involve a contract guaranteeing the indemnification of an insured party against a specified loss in return for a premium paid. Further, CHAMPUS is not subject to those state regulatory bodies or agencies that control the insurance business generally.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Program funds.</I> The funds used by CHAMPUS are appropriated funds furnished by the Congress through the annual appropriation acts for the Department of Defense and the DHHS. These funds are further disbursed by agents of the government under contracts negotiated by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, under the provisions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). These agents (referred to in this part as CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries) receive claims against CHAMPUS and adjudicate the claims under this part and in accordance with administrative procedures and instructions prescribed in their contracts. The funds expended for CHAMPUS benefits are federal funds provided CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries solely to pay CHAMPUS claims, and are not a part of or obtained from the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary's funds related to other programs or insurance coverage. CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries are reimbursed for the adjudication and payment of CHAMPUS claims at a rate (generally fixed-price) prescribed in their contracts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Claims adjudication and processing.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, is responsible for making such arrangements as are necessary to adjudicate and process CHAMPUS claims worldwide.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The United States</I>—(i) <I>Contracting out.</I> The primary method of processing CHAMPUS claims in the United States is through competitively procured, fixed-price contracts. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is responsible for negotiating, under the provisions of the FAR, contracts for the purpose of adjudicating and processing CHAMPUS claims (and related supporting activities).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>In-house.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is authorized to adjudicate and process certain CHAMPUS claims in-house at OCHAMPUS, when it is determined to be in the best interests of CHAMPUS subject to applicable considerations set forth in OMB Circular A-76. Such in-house claims processing may involve special or unique claims, or all claims for a specific geographic area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outside the United States</I>—(i) <I>Special subsidiary office or contracting out.</I> For adjudicating and processing CHAMPUS claims for services or supplies provided outside the United States, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, has the option of either setting up a special subsidiary claims paying operation (such as OCHAMPUSEUR) or contracting out as described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section. Such claims paying operations are reviewed periodically to determine whether current arrangements continue to be appropriate and the most effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Support agreements.</I> In those situations outside the United States that demand special arrangements, the Director, OCHAMPUS, may enter into support agreements through the Department of Defense with any of the Military Departments or other government agency to process CHAMPUS claims in specific geographic locations. Such agreements may be negotiated for such period of time as the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may determine to be necessary to meet identified special demands.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recommendations for change to part.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall establish procedures for receiving and processing recommendations for changes to this part from interested parties.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CHAMPUS, claims forms.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is responsible for the development and updating of all CHAMPUS claim forms and any other forms necessary in the administration of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>The CHAMPUS handbook.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall develop the CHAMPUS, Handbook. The CHAMPUS Handbook is a general program guide for the use of CHAMPUS beneficiaries and providers and shall be updated, as required.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Program integrity.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall oversee all CHAMPUS personnel, fiscal intermediaries, providers, and beneficiaries to ensure compliance with this part. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall accomplish this by means of proper delegation of authority, separation of responsibilities, establishment of reports, performance evaluations, internal and external management and fiscal audits, personal or delegated reviews of CHAMPUS responsibilities, taking affidavits, exchange of information among state and Federal governmental agencies, insurers, providers and associations of providers, and such other means as may be appropriate. Compliance with law and this part shall include compliance with specific contracts and agreements, regardless of form, and general instructions, such as CHAMPUS policies, instructions, procedures, and criteria relating to CHAMPUS operation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Role of CHAMPUS Health Benefits Advisor (HBA).</I> The CHAMPUS HBA is appointed (generally by the commander of a Uniformed Services medical treatment facility) to serve as an advisor to patients and staff in matters involving CHAMPUS. The CHAMPUS HBA may assist beneficiaries or sponsors in applying for CHAMPUS benefits, in the preparation of claims, and in their relations with OCHAMPUS and CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries. However, the CHAMPUS HBA is not responsible for CHAMPUS policies and procedures and has no authority to make benefit determinations or obligate Government funds. Advice given to beneficiaries as to determination of benefits or level of payment is not binding on OCHAMPUS or CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Cooperation and exchange of information with other Federal programs.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall disclose to appropriate officers or employees of the DHHS:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Investigation for fraud.</I> The name and address of any physician or other individual actively being investigated for possible fraud in connection with CHAMPUS, and the nature of such suspected fraud. An active investigation exists when there is significant evidence supporting an initial complaint but there is need for further investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unnecessary services.</I> The name and address of any provider of medical services, organization, or other person found, after consultation with an appropriate professional association or appropriate peer review body, to have provided unnecessary services. Such information will be released only for the purpose of conducting an investigation or prosecution, or for the administration of titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act, provided that the information will be released only to the agency's enforcement branch and that the agency will preserve the confidentiality of the information received and will not disclose such information for other than program purposes.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Disclosure of information to the public.</I> Records and information acquired in the administration of CHAMPUS are records of the Department of Defense and may be disclosed in accordance with DoD Directive 5400.7 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>, DoD 5400.7-R 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>, and DoD 5400.11-R 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> (codified in 32 CFR parts 286 and 286a), constituting the applicable DoD Directives and DoD Regulations implementing the Freedom of Information and the Privacy Acts.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 2 to § 199.1(c)(2)(i)</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 199.1(c)(2)(i)</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 199.1(c)(2)(i)</P></FTNT>
<P>(n) <I>Discretionary authority.</I> When it is determined to be in the best interest of CHAMPUS, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is granted discretionary authority to waive any requirements of this part, except that any requirement specifically set forth in 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, or otherwise imposed by law, may not be waived. It is the intent that such discretionary authority be used only under very unusual and limited circumstances and not to deny any individual any right, benefit, or privilege provided to him or her by statute or this part. Any such exception granted by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall apply only to the individual circumstance or case involved and will in no way be construed to be precedent-setting.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Demonstration projects</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS may waive or alter any requirements of this regulation in connection with the conduct of a demonstration project required or authorized by law except for any requirement that may not be waived or altered pursuant to 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> At least 30 days prior to taking effect, OCHAMPUS shall publish a notice describing the demonstration project, the requirements of this regulation being waived or altered under paragraph (o)(1) of this section and the duration of the waiver or alteration. Consistent with the purpose and nature of demonstration projects, these notices are not covered by public comment practices under DoD Directive 5400.9 (32 CFR part 296) or DoD Instruction 6010.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, a “demonstration project” is a project of limited duration designed to test a different method for the finance, delivery or administration of health care activities for the uniformed services. Demonstration projects may be required or authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1092, any other statutory provision requiring or authorizing a demonstration project or any other provision of law that authorizes the activity involved in the demonstration project.”.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program.</I> The Secretary of Defense, or designee, may enter into an agreement (external or internal) providing for the sharing of resources between facilities of the uniformed services and facilities of a civilian health care provider or providers if the Secretary determines that such an agreement would result in the delivery of health care in a more effective, efficient or economical manner. This partnership allows CHAMPUS beneficiaries to receive inpatient and outpatient services through CHAMPUS from civilian personnel providing health care services in military treatment facilities and from uniformed service professional providers in civilian facilities. The policies and procedures by which partnership agreements may be executed are set forth in Department of Defense Instruction (DoDI) 6010.12, “Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program.” The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue policies, instructions, procedures, guidelines, standards, or criteria as may be necessary to provide support for implementation of DoDI 6010.12, to promulgate and manage benefit and financial policy issues, and to develop a program evaluation process to ensure the Partnership Program accomplishes the purpose for which it was developed. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Partnership agreements.</I> Military treatment facility commanders, based upon the authority provided by their representative Surgeons General of the military departments, are responsible for entering into individual partnership agreements only when they have determined specifically that use of the Partnership Program is more economical overall to the Government than referring the need for health care services to the civilian community under the normal operation of the CHAMPUS Program. All such agreements are subject to the review and approval of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, and the appropriate Surgeon General.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>External partnership agreements.</I> The external partnership agreement is an agreement between a military treatment facility Commander and a CHAMPUS-authorized institutional provider, enabling Uniformed Services health care personnel to provide otherwise covered medical care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries in a civilian facility. Authorized costs associated with the use of the facility will be financed through CHAMPUS under normal cost-sharing and reimbursement procedures currently applicable under the basic CHAMPUS. Savings will be realized under this type of agreement by using available military health care personnel to avoid the civilian professional provider charges which would otherwise be billed to CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Internal partnership agreements.</I> The internal partnership agreement is an agreement between a military treatment facility commander and a CHAMPUS-authorized civilian health care provider which enables the use of civilian health care personnel or other resources to provide medical care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries on the premises of a military treatment facility. These internal agreements may be established when a military treatment facility is unable to provide sufficient health care services for CHAMPUS beneficiaries due to shortages of personnel and other required resources. In addition to allowing the military treatment facility to achieve maximum use of available facility space, the internal agreement will result in savings to the Government by using civilian medical specialists to provide inpatient care in Government-owned facilities, thereby avoiding the civilian facility charges which would have otherwise been billed to CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficiary cost-sharing.</I> Beneficiary cost-sharing under the Partnership Program is outlined in § 199.4(f)(5) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reimbursement.</I> Reimbursement under the Partnership Program is outlined in § 199.14(f) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Beneficiary eligibility and authorized providers.</I> Existing requirements of this Regulation remain in effect as concerns beneficiary eligibility and authorized providers. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Range of benefits.</I> Health care services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries under the terms of the Partnership Program must be consistent with the CHAMPUS range of benefits outlined in this Regulation. The services rendered must be otherwise covered. Charges allowed for professional services provided under the Partnership Program may include costs of support personnel, equipment, and supplies when specifically outlined in the partnership agreement, However, all CHAMPUS coverage and provider requirements must be met. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Equality of benefits.</I> All claims submitted for benefits under CHAMPUS shall be adjudicated in a consistent, fair, and equitable manner, without regard to the rank of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>TRICARE program.</I> Many rules and procedures established in sections of this part are subject to revision in areas where the TRICARE program is implemented. The TRICARE program is the means by which managed care activities designed to improve the delivery and financing of health care services in the Military Health Services System(MHSS) are carried out. Rules and procedures for the TRICARE program are set forth in § 199.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 38754, Oct. 19, 1987; 53 FR 27961, July 26, 1988; 55 FR 43338, Oct. 29, 1990; 60 FR 52094, Oct. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In an effort to be as specific as possible as to the word and intent of CHAMPUS, the following definitions have been developed. While many of the definitions are general and some assign meaning to relatively common terms within the health insurance environment, others are applicable only to CHAMPUS; however, they all appear in this part solely for the purpose of the Program. Except when otherwise specified, the definitions in this section apply generally throughout this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific definitions. Abortion.</I> Abortion means the intentional termination of a pregnancy by artificial means done for a purpose other than that of producing a live birth. A spontaneous, missed or threatened abortion or termination of an ectopic (tubal) pregnancy are not included within the term “abortion” as used herein.
</P>
<P><I>Absent treatment.</I> Services performed by Christian Science practitioners for a person when the person is physically present.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Technically, “Absent Treatment” is an obsolete term. The current Christian Science terminology is “treatment through prayer and spiritual means,” which is employed by an authorized Christian Science practitioner either with the beneficiary being present or absent. However, to be considered for coverage under CHAMPUS, the beneficiary must be present physically when a Christian Science service is rendered, regardless of the terminology used.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Abuse.</I> For the purposes of this part, abuse is defined as any practice that is inconsistent with accepted sound fiscal, business, or professional practice which results in a CHAMPUS claim, unnecessary cost, or CHAMPUS payment for services or supplies that are: (1) Not within the concepts of medically necessary and appropriate care, as defined in this part, or (2) that fail to meet professionally recognized standards for health care providers. The term “abuse” includes deception or misrepresentation by a provider, or any person or entity acting on behalf of a provider in relation to a CHAMPUS claim.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Unless a specific action is deemed gross and flagrant, a pattern of inappropriate practice will normally be required to find that abuse has occurred. Also, any practice or action that constitutes fraud, as defined by this part, would also be abuse.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Abused dependent.</I> An eligible spouse or child, who meets the criteria in § 199.3 of this part, of a former member who received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge or was dismissed from a Uniformed Service as a result of a court-martial conviction for an offense involving physical or emotional abuse or was administratively discharged as a result of such an offense, <I>or</I> of a member or former member who has had their entitlement to receive retired pay terminated because of misconduct involving physical or emotional abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Accidental injury.</I> Physical bodily injury resulting from an external force, blow or fall, or the ingestion of a foreign body or harmful substance, requiring immediate medical treatment. Accidental injury also includes animal and insect bites and sunstrokes. For the purpose of CHAMPUS, the breaking of a tooth or teeth does not constitute a physical bodily injury.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty.</I> Full-time duty in the Uniformed Services of the United States. It includes duty on the active list, full-time training duty, annual training duty, and attendance while in the active Military Service, at a school designated as a Service school by law or by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty member.</I> A person on active duty in a Uniformed Service under a call or order that does not specify a period of 30 days or less.
</P>
<P><I>Activities of daily living.</I> Care that consists of providing food (including special diets), clothing, and shelter; personal hygiene services; observation and general monitoring; bowel training or management (unless abnormalities in bowel function are of a severity to result in a need for medical or surgical intervention in the absence of skilled services); safety precautions; general preventive procedures (such as turning to prevent bedsores); passive exercise; companionship; recreation; transportation; and such other elements of personal care that reasonably can be performed by an untrained adult with minimal instruction or supervision. Activities of daily living may also be referred to as “essentials of daily living”.
</P>
<P><I>Acupuncture.</I> The practice of inserting needles into various body parts to pierce specific peripheral nerves for the production of counter-irritation to relieve the discomfort of pain, induce surgical anesthesia, or for other treatment purposes.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Acupuncture is not covered by CHAMPUS.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Adequate Medical Documentation, Medical Treatment Records.</I> Adequate medical documentation contains sufficient information to justify the diagnosis, the treatment plan, and the services and supplies furnished. Under CHAMPUS, it is required that adequate and sufficient clinical records be kept by the health care provider(s) to substantiate that specific care was actually and appropriately furnished, was medically necessary and appropriate (as defined by this part), and to identify the individual(s) who provided the care. All procedures billed must be documented in the records. In determining whether medical records are adequate, the records will be reviewed under the generally acceptable standards such as the applicable Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) standards, the Peer Review Organization (PRO) standards (and the provider's state or local licensing requirements) and other requirements specified by this part. In general, the documentation requirements for a professional provider are not less in the outpatient setting than the inpatient setting. 
</P>
<P><I>Adequate medical documentation, mental health records.</I> Adequate medical documentation provides the means for measuring the type, frequency, and duration of active treatment mechanisms employed and progress under the treatment plan. Under CHAMPUS, it is required that adequate and sufficient clinical records be kept by the provider to substantiate that specific care was actually and appropriately furnished, was medically or psychologically necessary (as defined by this part), and to identify the individual(s) who provided the care. Each service provided or billed must be documented in the records. In determining whether medical records are adequate, the records will be reviewed under the generally acceptable standards (<I>e.g.,</I> the standards of an accrediting organization approved by the Director, and the provider's state or local licensing requirements) and other requirements specified by this part. The psychiatric and psychological evaluations, physician orders, the treatment plan, integrated progress notes (and physician progress notes if separate from the integrated progress notes), and the discharge summary are the more critical elements of the mental health record. However, nursing and staff notes, no matter how complete, are not a substitute for the documentation of services by the individual professional provider who furnished treatment to the beneficiary. In general, the documentation requirements of a professional provider are not less in the outpatient setting than the inpatient setting. Furthermore, even though a hospital that provides psychiatric care may be accredited under The Joint Commission (TJC) manual for hospitals rather than the behavioral health standards manual, the critical elements of the mental health record listed above are required for CHAMPUS claims.
</P>
<P><I>Adjunctive dental care.</I> Dental care which is medically necessary in the treatment of an otherwise covered medical (not dental) condition, is an integral part of the treatment of such medical condition and is essential to the control of the primary medical condition; or, is required in preparation for or as the result of dental trauma which may be or is caused by medically necessary treatment of an injury or disease (iatrogenic).
</P>
<P><I>Admission.</I> The formal acceptance by a CHAMPUS authorized institutional provider of a CHAMPUS beneficiary for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of illness, injury, pregnancy, or mental disorder.
</P>
<P><I>Adopted child.</I> A child taken into one's own family by legal process and treated as one's own child. In case of adoption, CHAMPUS eligibility begins as of 12:01 a.m. of the day of the final adoption decree.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>There is no CHAMPUS benefit entitlement during any interim waiting period.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>All-inclusive per diem rate.</I> The OCHAMPUS determined rate that encompasses the daily charge for inpatient care and, unless specifically excepted, all other treatment determined necessary and rendered as part of the treatment plan established for a patient, and accepted by OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Allowable charge.</I> The CHAMPUS-determined level of payment to physicians, other individual professional providers and other providers, based on one of the approved reimbursement methods set forth in § 199.14 of this part. Allowable charge also may be referred to as the CHAMPUS-determined reasonable charge.
</P>
<P><I>Allowable cost.</I> The CHAMPUS-determined level of payment to hospitals or other institutions, based on one of the approved reimbursement methods set fourth in § 199.14 of this part. Allowable cost may also be referred to as the CHAMPUS-determined reasonable cost.
</P>
<P><I>Ambulance.</I> A specially designed vehicle for transporting the sick or injured that contains a stretcher, linens, first aid supplies, oxygen equipment, and such lifesaving equipment required by state and local law, and that is staffed by personnel trained to provide first aid treatment. 
</P>
<P><I>Ambulatory Payment Classifications</I> (APCs). Payment of services under the TRICARE OPPS is based on grouping outpatient procedures and services into ambulatory payment classification groups based on clinical and resource homogeneity, provider concentration, frequency of service and minimal opportunities for upcoding and code fragmentation. Nationally established rates for each APC are calculated by multiplying the APC's relative weight derived from median costs for procedures assigned to the APC group, scaled to the median cost of the APC group representing the most frequently provided services, by the conversion factor.
</P>
<P><I>Ambulatory Surgery Center (ASC).</I> Any distinct entity that is classified by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as an Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC) under 42 CFR part 416 and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(x). Any ASC that would otherwise meet the CMS classification as an ASC but does not have a participation agreement with Medicare due to the nature of the patients they treat (<I>e.g.,</I> pediatric) must meet the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(x) in order to be a TRICARE authorized ASC. All ASCs must also enter into participation agreements with TRICARE as required by § 199.6(b)(4)(x) in order to be an authorized TRICARE provider of ASC services. Additionally, ASCs are prohibited from billing TRICARE beneficiaries for procedures that are not included in Medicare's ASC list of procedures allowable for facility fee payment in an ASC setting, unless the beneficiary agreed in advance in writing to pay for the non-covered services, in accordance with the “hold harmless” provision under § 199.6(b)(4)(x)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) and (<I>iii</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Amount in dispute.</I> The amount of money, determined under this part, that CHAMPUS would pay for medical services and supplies involved in an adverse determination being appealed if the appeal were resolved in favor of the appealing party. See § 199.10 for additional information concerning the determination of “amount in dispute” under this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Anesthesia services.</I> The administration of an anesthetic agent by injection or inhalation, the purpose and effect of which is to produce surgical anesthesia characterized by muscular relaxation, loss of sensation, or loss of consciousness when administered by or under the direction of a physician or dentist in connection with otherwise covered surgery or obstetrical care, or shock therapy. Anesthesia services do not include hypnosis or acupuncture. 
</P>
<P><I>Appealable issue.</I> Disputed questions of fact which, if resolved in favor of the appealing party, would result in the authorization of CHAMPUS benefits, or approval as an authorized provider in accordance with this part. An appealable issue does not exist if no facts are in dispute, if no CHAMPUS benefits would be payable, or if there is no authorized provider, regardless of the resolution of any disputed facts. See § 199.10 for additional information concerning the determination of “appealable issue” under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Appealing party.</I> Any party to the initial determination who files an appeal of an adverse determination or requests a hearing under the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate medical care.</I> (i) Services performed in connection with the diagnosis or treatment of disease or injury, pregnancy, mental disorder, or well-baby care which are in keeping with the generally accepted norms for medical practice in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The authorized individual professional provider rendering the medical care is qualified to perform such medical services by reason of his or her training and education and is licensed or certified by the state where the service is rendered or appropriate national organization or otherwise meets CHAMPUS standards; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The services are furnished economically. For purposes of this part, “economically” means that the services are furnished in the least expensive level of care or medical environment adequate to provide the required medical care regardless of whether or not that level of care is covered by CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P><I>Approved teaching programs.</I> For purposes of CHAMPUS, an approved teaching program is a program of graduate medical education which has been duly approved in its respective specialty or subspecialty by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education of the American Medical Association, by the Committee on Hospitals of the Bureau of Professional Education of the American Osteopathic Association, by the Council on Dental Education of the American Dental Association, or by the Council on Podiatry Education of the American Podiatry Association.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs).</I> An authority of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) includes any person designated by the Assistant Secretary to exercise the authority involved. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistive technology devices.</I> Equipment that generally does not treat an underlying injury, illness, disease or their symptoms. Assistive technology devices are authorized only under the Extended Care Health Option (ECHO). Assistive technology devices help an ECHO beneficiary overcome or remove a disability and are used to increase, maintain, or improve the functional capabilities of an individual. Assistive technology devices may include non-medical devices but do not include any structural alterations (<I>e.g.,</I> permanent structure of wheelchair ramps or alterations to street curbs) service animals (<I>e.g.,</I> Seeing Eye dogs, hearing/handicapped assistance animals, etc.) or specialized equipment and devices whose primary purpose is to enable the individual to engage in sports or recreational events. Assistive technology devices are authorized only under coverage criteria determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity to assist in the reduction of the disabling effects of a qualifying condition for individuals eligible to receive benefits under the ECHO program, as provided in § 199.5.
</P>
<P><I>Attending physician.</I> The physician who has the primary responsibility for the medical diagnosis and treatment of the patient. A consultant or an assistant surgeon, for example, would not be an attending physician. Under very extraordinary circumstances, because of the presence of complex, serious, and multiple, but unrelated, medical conditions, a patient may have more than one attending physician concurrently rendering medical treatment during a single period of time. An attending physician also may be a teaching physician.
</P>
<P><I>Augmentative communication device (ACD).</I> A voice prosthesis as determined by the Secretary of Defense to be necessary because of significant conditions resulting from trauma, congenital anomalies, or disease. Also referred to as Speech Generating Device.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized provider.</I> A hospital or institutional provider, physician, or other individual professional provider, or other provider of services or supplies specifically authorized to provide benefits under CHAMPUS in § 199.6 of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Automobile liability insurance.</I> Automobile liability insurance means insurance against legal liability for health and medical expenses resulting from personal injuries arising from operation of a motor vehicle. Automobile liability insurance includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Circumstances in which liability benefits are paid to an injured party only when the insured party's tortious acts are the cause of the injuries; and
</P>
<P>(2) Uninsured and underinsured coverage, in which there is a third-party tortfeasor who caused the injuries (i.e., benefits are not paid on a no-fault basis), but the insured party is not the tortfeasor.
</P>
<P><I>Backup hospital.</I> A hospital which is otherwise eligible as a CHAMPUS institutional provider and which is fully capable of providing emergency care to a patient who develops complications beyond the scope of services of a given category of CHAMPUS-authorized freestanding institutional provider and which is accessible from the site of the CHAMPUS-authorized freestanding institutional provider within an average transport time acceptable for the types of medical emergencies usually associated with the type of care provided by the freestanding facility.
</P>
<P><I>Balance billing.</I> A provider seeking any payment, other than any payment relating to applicable deductible and cost sharing amounts, from a beneficiary for CHAMPUS covered services for any amount in excess of the applicable CHAMPUS allowable cost or charge.
</P>
<P><I>Bariatric Surgery.</I> Surgical procedures performed to treat co-morbid conditions associated with morbid obesity. Bariatric surgery is based on two principles: (1) Divert food from the stomach to a lower part of the digestive tract where the normal mixing of digestive fluids and absorption of nutrients cannot occur (i.e., Malabsorptive surgical procedures); or (2) Restrict the size of the stomach and decrease intake (i.e., Restrictive surgical procedures).
</P>
<P><I>Basic program.</I> The primary medical benefits set forth in § 199.4, generally referred to as the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) as authorized under chapter 55 of title 10 United States Code, were made available to eligible beneficiaries under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary.</I> An individual who has been determined to be eligible for CHAMPUS benefits, as set forth in § 199.3 of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary liability.</I> The legal obligation of a beneficiary, his or her estate, or responsible family member to pay for the costs of medical care or treatment received. Specifically, for the purposes of services and supplies covered by CHAMPUS, beneficiary liability includes any annual deductible amount, cost-sharing amounts, or, when a provider does not submit a claim on a participating basis on behalf of the beneficiary, amounts above the CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost or charge. Beneficiary liability also includes any expenses for medical or related services and supplies not covered by CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P><I>Biotelemetry.</I> A diagnostic or monitoring procedure for the detection or measurement of human physiologic functions from a distance using a biotelemetry device to remotely monitor various vital signs of ambulatory patients. Biotelemetry may also be referred to as remote physiologic monitoring of physiologic parameters. See § 199.4.
</P>
<P><I>Birthing center.</I> A health care provider which meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b) of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Birthing room.</I> A room and environment designed and equipped to provide care, to accommodate support persons, and within which a woman with a low-risk, normal, full-term pregnancy can labor, deliver and recover with her infant.
</P>
<P><I>Brace.</I> An orthopedic appliance or apparatus (an orthosis) used to support, align, or hold parts of the body in correct position. For the purposes of CHAMPUS, it does not include orthodontic or other dental appliances. 
</P>
<P><I>CAHs.</I> A small facility that provides limited inpatient and outpatient hospital services primarily in rural areas and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(xvi).
</P>
<P><I>Cancer hospital.</I> A specialty hospital that is classified by CMS as a Cancer Hospital as specified in 42 CFR 412.23 and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Capped rate.</I> The maximum per diem or all-inclusive rate that CHAMPUS will allow for care.
</P>
<P><I>Case management.</I> Case management is a collaborative process which assesses, plans, implements, coordinates, monitors, and evaluates the options and services required to meet an individual's health needs, including mental health and substance use disorder needs, using communication and available resources to promote quality, cost effective outcomes.
</P>
<P><I>Case-mix index.</I> Case-mix index is a scale that measures the relative difference in resources intensity among different groups receiving home health services.
</P>
<P><I>Certified nurse-midwife.</I> An individual who meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(c) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Certified psychiatric nurse specialist.</I> A licensed, registered nurse who meets the criteria in § 199.6(c)(3)(iii)(G).
</P>
<P><I>CHAMPUS DRG-Based Payment System.</I> A reimbursement system for hospitals which assigns prospectively-determined payment levels to each DRG based on the average cost of treating all CHAMPUS patients in a given DRG.
</P>
<P><I>CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary.</I> An organization with which the Director, OCHAMPUS, has entered into a contract for the adjudication and processing of CHAMPUS claims and the performance of related support activities.
</P>
<P><I>CHAMPUS Health Benefits Advisors (HBAs).</I> Those individuals located at Uniformed Services medical facilities (on occasion at other locations) and assigned the responsibility for providing CHAMPUS information, information concerning availability of care from the Uniformed Services direct medical care system, and generally assisting beneficiaries (or sponsors). The term also includes “Health Benefits Counselor” and “CHAMPUS Advisor.” 
</P>
<P><I>Chemotherapy.</I> The administration of approved antineoplastic drugs for the treatment of malignancies (cancer) via perfusion, infusion, or parenteral methods of administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Child.</I> An unmarried child of a member or former member, who meets the criteria (including age requirements) in § 199.3 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Children's hospital.</I> A specialty hospital that is classified by CMS as a Children's Hospital as specified in 42 CFR 412.23 and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Chiropractor.</I> A practitioner of chiropractic (also called chiropraxis); essentially a system of therapeutics based upon the claim that disease is caused by abnormal function of the nerve system. It attempts to restore normal function of the nerve system by manipulation and treatment of the structures of the human body, especially those of the spinal column.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Services of chiropractors are not covered by CHAMPUS.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Christian science nurse.</I> An individual who has been accredited as a Christian Science Nurse by the Department of Care of the First Church of Christ, Scientist, Boston, Massachusetts, and listed (or eligible to be listed) in the Christian Science Journal at the time the service is provided. The duties of Christian Science nurses are spiritual and are nonmedical and nontechnical nursing care performed under the direction of an accredited Christian Science practitioner. There exist two levels of Christian Science nurse accreditation: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Graduate Christian Science nurse.</I> This accreditation is granted by the Department of Care of the First Church of Christ, Scientist, Boston, Massachusetts, after completion of a 3-year course of instruction and study. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Practical Christian Science nurse.</I> This accreditation is granted by the Department of Care of the First Church of Christ, Scientist, Boston, Massachusetts, after completion of a 1-year course of instruction and study.
</P>
<P><I>Christian Science practitioner.</I> An individual who has been accredited as a Christian Science Practitioner for the First Church, Scientist, Boston, Massachusetts, and listed (or eligible to be listed) in the Christian Science Journal at the time the service is provided. An individual who attains this accreditation has demonstrated results of his or her healing through faith and prayer rather than by medical treatment. Instruction is executed by an accredited Christian Science teacher and is continuous. 
</P>
<P><I>Christian Science sanatorium.</I> A sanatorium either operated by the First Church of Christ, Scientist, or listed and certified by the First Church of Christ, Scientist, Boston, Massachusetts. 
</P>
<P><I>Chronic medical condition.</I> A medical condition that is not curable, but which is under control through active medical treatment. Such chronic conditions may have periodic acute episodes and may require intermittent inpatient hospital care. However, a chronic medical condition can be controlled sufficiently to permit generally continuation of some activities of persons who are not ill (such as work and school). 
</P>
<P><I>Chronic renal disease (CRD).</I> The end stage of renal disease which requires a continuing course of dialysis or a kidney transplantation to ameliorate uremic symptoms and maintain life.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical psychologist.</I> A psychologist, certified or licensed at the independent practice level in his or her state, who meets the criteria in § 199.6(c)(3)(iii)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Clinical social worker.</I> An individual who is licensed or certified as a clinical social worker and meets the criteria listed in § 199.6.
</P>
<P><I>Clinically meaningful endpoints.</I> As used the definition of <I>reliable evidence</I> in this paragraph (b) and § 199.4(g)(15), the term clinically meaningful endpoints means objectively measurable outcomes of clinical interventions or other medical procedures, expressed in terms of survival, severity of illness or condition, extent of adverse side effects, diagnostic capability, or other effect on bodily functions directly associated with such results.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral visits.</I> Sessions with the patient's family or significant others for purposes of information gathering or implementing treatment goals.
</P>
<P><I>Combined daily charge.</I> A billing procedure by an inpatient facility that uses an inclusive flat rate covering all professional and ancillary charges without any itemization.
</P>
<P><I>Complications of pregnancy.</I> One of the following, when commencing or exacerbating during the term of the pregnancy:
</P>
<P>(i) Caesarean delivery; hysterectomy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pregnancy terminating before expiration of 26 weeks, except a voluntary abortion.
</P>
<P>(iii) False labor or threatened miscarriage.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nephritis or pyelitis of pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(v) Hyperemesis gravidarum.
</P>
<P>(vi) Toxemia.
</P>
<P>(vii) Aggravation of a heart condition or diabetes.
</P>
<P>(viii) Premature rupture of membrane.
</P>
<P>(ix) Ectopic pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(x) Hemorrhage.
</P>
<P>(xi) Other conditions as may be determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P><I>Confinement.</I> That period of time from the day of admission to a hospital or other institutional provider, to the day of discharge, transfer, or separation from the facility, or death. Successive admissions also may qualify as one confinement provided not more than 60 days have elapsed between the successive admissions, except that successive admissions related to a single maternity episode shall be considered one confinement, regardless of the number of days between admissions.
</P>
<P><I>Conflict of interest.</I> Includes any situation where an active duty member (including a reserve member while on active duty) or civilian employee of the United States Government, through an official federal position, has the apparent or actual opportunity to exert, directly or indirectly, any influence on the referral of CHAMPUS beneficiaries to himself or herself or others with some potential for personal gain or appearance of impropriety. For purposes of this part, individuals under contract to a Uniformed Service may be involved in a conflict of interest situation through the contract position. 
</P>
<P><I>Congenital anomaly.</I> A condition existing at or from birth that is a significant deviation from the common form or norm and is other than a common racial or ethnic feature. For purposes of CHAMPUS, congenital anomalies do not include anomalies relating to teeth (including malocclusion or missing tooth buds) or structures supporting the teeth, or to any form of hermaphroditism or sex gender confusion. Examples of congenital anomalies are harelip, birthmarks, webbed fingers or toes, or such other conditions that the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may determine to be congenital anomalies.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Also refer to § 199.4(e)(7) of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Consultation.</I> A deliberation with a specialist physician, dentist, or qualified mental health provider requested by the attending physician primarily responsible for the medical care of the patient, with respect to the diagnosis or treatment in any particular case. A consulting physician or dentist or qualified mental health provider may perform a limited examination of a given system or one requiring a complete diagnostic history and examination. To qualify as a consultation, a written report to the attending physician of the findings of the consultant is required.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Staff consultations required by rules and regulations of the medical staff of a hospital or other institutional provider do not qualify as consultation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Consultation appointment.</I> An appointment for evaluation of medical symptoms resulting in a plan for management which may include elements of further evaluation, treatment and follow-up evaluation. Such an appointment does not include surgical intervention or other invasive diagnostic or therapeutic procedures beyond the level of very simply office procedures, or basic laboratory work but rather provides the beneficiary with an authoritative opinion.
</P>
<P><I>Consulting physician or dentist.</I> A physician or dentist, other than the attending physician, who performs a consultation.
</P>
<P><I>Conviction.</I> For purposes of this part, “conviction” or “convicted” means that (1) a judgment of conviction has been entered, or (2) there has been a finding of guilt by the trier of fact, or (3) a plea of guilty or a plea of <I>nolo contendere</I> has been accepted by a court of competent jurisdiction, regardless of whether an appeal is pending. 
</P>
<P><I>Coordination of benefits.</I> The coordination, on a primary or secondary payer basis, of the payment of benefits between two or more health care coverages to avoid duplication of benefit payments. 
</P>
<P><I>Corporate services provider.</I> A health care provider that meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(f).
</P>
<P><I>Cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery.</I> Surgery that can be expected primarily to improve the physical appearance of a beneficiary, or that is performed primarily for psychological purposes, or that restores form, but does not correct or improve materially a bodily function.
</P>
<P><I>Cost-share.</I> The amount of money for which the beneficiary (or sponsor) is responsible in connection with otherwise covered inpatient and outpatient services (other than the annual fiscal year deductible or disallowed amounts) as set forth in §§ 199.4(f) and 199.5(b) of this part. Cost-sharing may also be referred to as “co-payment.”
</P>
<P><I>Custodial care.</I> The term “custodial care” means treatment or services, regardless of who recommends such treatment or services or where such treatment or services are provided, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Can be rendered safely and reasonably by a person who is not medically skilled; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is or are designed mainly to help the patient with the activities of daily living.
</P>
<P><I>Days.</I> Calendar days.
</P>
<P><I>Deceased member.</I> A person who, at the time of his or her death, was an active duty member of a Uniformed Service under a call or order that did not specify a period of 30 days or less.
</P>
<P><I>Deceased reservist.</I> A reservist in a Uniformed Service who incurs or aggravates an injury, illness, or disease, during, or on the way to or from, active duty training for a period of 30 days or less or inactive duty training and dies as a result of that specific injury, illness or disease.
</P>
<P><I>Deceased retiree.</I> A person who, at the time of his or her death, was entitled to retired or retainer pay or equivalent pay based on duty in a Uniformed Service. For purposes of this part, it also includes a person who died before attaining age 60 and at the time of his or her death would have been eligible for retired pay as a reservist but for the fact that he or she was not 60 years of age, and had elected to participate in the Survivor Benefit Plan established under 10 U.S.C. chapter 73.
</P>
<P><I>Deductible.</I> Payment by an individual beneficiary or family of a specific first dollar amount of the TRICARE allowable amount for otherwise covered outpatient services or supplies obtained in any program year. The dollar amount of deductible per individual or family is calculated as specified by law.
</P>
<P><I>Deductible certificate.</I> A statement issued to the beneficiary (or sponsor) by a TRICARE contractor certifying to deductible amounts satisfied by a beneficiary for any applicable program year.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).</I> An automated system maintained by the Department of Defense for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(1) Enrolling members, former members and their dependents, and
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying members', former members' and their dependents' eligibility for health care benefits in the direct care facilities and for CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Dental care.</I> Services relating to the teeth and their supporting structures.
</P>
<P><I>Dentist.</I> Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) or Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) who is licensed to practice dentistry by an appropriate authority.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent.</I> Individuals whose relationship to the sponsor (including NATO members who are stationed in or passing through the United States on official business when authorized) leads to entitlement to benefits under this part. (See § 199.3 of this part for specific categories of dependents).
</P>
<P><I>Deserter or desertion status.</I> A service member is a deserter, or in a desertion status, when the Uniformed Service concerned has made an administrative determination to that effect, or the member's period of unauthorized absence has resulted in a court-martial conviction of desertion. Administrative declarations of desertion normally are made when a member has been an unauthorized absentee for over 30 days, but particular circumstances may result in an earlier declaration. Entitlement to CHAMPUS benefits ceases as of 12:01 a.m. on the day following the day the desertion status is declared. Benefits are not to be authorized for treatment received during a period of unauthorized absence that results in a court-martial conviction for desertion. Dependent eligibility for benefits is reestablished when a deserter is returned to military control and continues, even though the member may be in confinement, until any discharge is executed. When a deserter status is later found to have been determined erroneously, the status of deserter is considered never to have existed, and the member's dependents will have been eligible continuously for benefits under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs).</I> Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) are a method of dividing hospital patients into clinically coherent groups based on the consumption of resources. Patients are assigned to the groups based on their principal diagnosis (the reason for admission, determined after study), secondary diagnoses, procedures performed, and the patient's age, sex, and discharge status.
</P>
<P><I>Diagnostic admission.</I> An admission to a hospital or other authorized institutional provider, or an extension of a stay in such a facility, primarily for the purpose of performing diagnostic tests, examinations, and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Director.</I> The Director of the Defense Health Agency, Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or Director, Office of CHAMPUS. Any references to the Director, Office of CHAMPUS, or OCHAMPUS, or TRICARE Management Activity, shall mean the Director, Defense Health Agency (DHA). Any reference to Director shall also include any person designated by the Director to carry out a particular authority. In addition, any authority of the Director may be exercised by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs).
</P>
<P><I>Director, OCHAMPUS.</I> An authority of the Director, OCHAMPUS includes any person designated by the Director, OCHAMPUS to exercise the authority involved. 
</P>
<P><I>Director, TRICARE Management Activity.</I> This term includes the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, the official sometimes referred to in this part as the Director, Office of CHAMPUS (or OCHAMPUS), or any designee of the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs who is designated for purposes of an action under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.).</I> A person who has received a degree in dentistry, that is, that department of the healing arts which is concerned with the teeth, oral cavity, and associated structures.
</P>
<P><I>Doctor of Medicine (M.D.).</I> A person who has graduated from a college of allopathic medicine and who is entitled legally to use the designation M.D.
</P>
<P><I>Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.).</I> A practitioner of osteopathy, that is, a system of therapy based on the theory that the body is capable of making its own remedies against disease and other toxic conditions when it is in normal structural relationship and has favorable environmental conditions and adequate nutrition. It utilizes generally accepted physical, medicinal, and surgical methods of diagnosis and therapy, while placing chief emphasis on the importance of normal body mechanics and manipulative methods of detecting and correcting faulty structure.
</P>
<P><I>Domiciliary care.</I> The term “domiciliary care” means care provided to a patient in an institution or homelike environment because:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing support for the activities of daily living in the home is not available or is unsuitable; or
</P>
<P>(2) Members of the patient's family are unwilling to provide the care.
</P>
<P><I>Donor.</I> An individual who supplies living tissue or material to be used in another body, such as a person who furnishes a kidney for renal transplant.
</P>
<P><I>Double coverage.</I> When a CHAMPUS beneficiary also is enrolled in another insurance, medical service, or health plan that duplicates all or part of a beneficiary's CHAMPUS benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Double coverage plan.</I> The specific insurance, medical service, or health plan under which a CHAMPUS beneficiary has entitlement to medical benefits that duplicate CHAMPUS benefits in whole or in part. Double coverage plans do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Medicaid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage specifically designed to supplement CHAMPUS benefits.
</P>
<P>(iii) Entitlement to receive care from the Uniformed Services medical facilities; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Entitlement to receive care from Veterans Administration medical care facilities; or
</P>
<P>(v) Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act for services and items provided in accordance with Part C of the IDEA that are medically or psychologically necessary in accordance with the Individual Family Service Plan and that are otherwise allowable under the CHAMPUS Basic Program or the Extended Care Health Option (ECHO).
</P>
<P><I>Dual compensation.</I> Federal Law (5 U.S.C. 5536) prohibits active duty members or civilian employees of the United States Government from receiving additional compensation from the government above their normal pay and allowances. This prohibition applies to CHAMPUS cost-sharing of medical care provided by active duty members or civilian government employees to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P><I>Duplicate equipment.</I> An item of durable equipment, durable medical equipment, or assistive technology items, as defined in this section that serves the same purpose that is served by an item of durable equipment, durable medical equipment, or assistive technology item previously cost-shared by TRICARE. For example, various models of stationary oxygen concentrators with no essential functional differences are considered duplicate equipment, whereas stationary and portable oxygen concentrators are not considered duplicates of each other because the latter is intended to provide the user with mobility not afforded by the former. Also, a manual wheelchair and electric wheelchair, both of which otherwise meet the definition of durable equipment or durable medical equipment, would not be considered duplicates of each other if each is found to provide an appropriate level of mobility. For the purpose of this Part, durable equipment, durable medical equipment, or assistive technology items that are essential in providing a fail-safe in-home life support system or that replace in-like-kind an item of equipment that is not serviceable due to normal wear, accidental damage, a change in the beneficiary's condition, or has been declared adulterated by the U.S. FDA, or is being or has been recalled by the manufacturer is not considered duplicate equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Durable equipment.</I> Equipment that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a medically necessary item, which can withstand repeated use;
</P>
<P>(2) Is primarily and customarily used to serve a medical purpose; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is generally not useful to an individual in the absence of an illness or injury. It includes durable medical equipment as defined in § 199.2, wheelchairs, iron lungs, and hospital beds. It does not include equipment (including wheelchairs) used or designed primarily for use in sports or recreational activities.
</P>
<P><I>Durable medical equipment.</I> Durable equipment that is medically appropriate to—
</P>
<P>(1) Improve, restore, or maintain the function of a malformed, diseased, or injured body part or can otherwise minimize or prevent the deterioration of the beneficiary's function or condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Maximize the beneficiary's function consistent with the beneficiary's physiological or medical needs.
</P>
<P><I>Economic interest.</I> (1) Any right, title, or share in the income, remuneration, payment, or profit of a CHAMPUS-authorized provider, or of an individual or entity eligible to be a CHAMPUS-authorized provider, resulting, directly or indirectly, from a referral relationship; or any direct or indirect ownership, right, title, or share, including a mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by one entity for another entity in a referral or accreditation relationship, which is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property and assets of the other entity.
</P>
<P>(2) A referral relationship exists when a CHAMPUS beneficiary is sent, directed, assigned or influenced to use a specific CHAMPUS-authorized provider, or a specific individual or entity eligible to be a CHAMPUS-authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(3) An accreditation relationship exists when a CHAMPUS-authorized accreditation organization evaluates for accreditation an entity that is an applicant for, or recipient of CHAMPUS-authorized provider status.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency inpatient admission.</I> An unscheduled, unexpected, medically necessary admission to a hospital or other authorized institutional provider for treatment of a medical condition meeting the definition of medical emergency and which is determined to require immediate inpatient treatment by the attending physician.
</P>
<P><I>Entity.</I> For purposes of § 199.9(f)(1), “entity” includes a corporation, trust, partnership, sole proprietorship or other kind of business enterprise that is or may be eligible to receive reimbursement either directly or indirectly from CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P><I>Essential Access Community Hospital (EACH).</I> A hospital that is designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as an EACH and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.14(a)(7)(vi).
</P>
<P><I>Extended Care Health Option (ECHO).</I> The TRICARE program of supplemental benefits for qualifying active duty family members as described in § 199.5.
</P>
<P><I>External Partnership Agreement.</I> The External Partnership Agreement is an agreement between a military treatment facility commander and a CHAMPUS authorized institutional provider, enabling Uniformed Services health care personnel to provide otherwise covered medical care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries in a civilian facility under the Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program. Authorized costs associated with the use of the facility will be financed through CHAMPUS under normal cost-sharing and reimbursement procedures currently applicable under the basic CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>External Resource Sharing Agreement.</I> A type External Partnership Agreement, established in the context of the TRICARE program by agreement of a military medical treatment facility commander and an authorized TRICARE contractor. External Resource Sharing Agreements may incorporate TRICARE features in lieu of standard CHAMPUS features that would apply to standard External Partnership Agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Extramedical individual providers of care.</I> Individuals who do counseling or nonmedical therapy and whose training and therapeutic concepts are outside the medical field, as specified in § 199.6 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary physical or psychological condition.</I> A complex physical or psychological clinical condition of such severity which results in the beneficiary being homebound as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Facility charge.</I> The term “facility charge” means the charge, either inpatient or outpatient, made by a hospital or other institutional provider to cover the overhead costs of providing the service. These costs would include building costs, <I>i.e.</I> depreciation and interest; staffing costs; drugs and supplies; and overhead costs, <I>i.e.</I>, utilities, housekeeping, maintenance, etc.
</P>
<P><I>Former member.</I> An individual who is eligible for, or entitled to, retired pay, at age 60, for non-Regular service in accordance with chapter 1223, title 10, United States Code but who has been discharged and who maintains no military affiliation. These former members, at age 60, and their eligible dependents are entitled to medical care, commissary, exchange, and MWR privileges. Under age 60, they and their eligible dependents are entitled to commissary, exchange, and MWR privileges only.
</P>
<P><I>Former spouse.</I> A former husband or wife of a Uniformed Service member or former member who meets the criteria as set forth in § 199.3(b)(2)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Fraud.</I> For purposes of this part, fraud is defined as (1) a deception or misrepresentation by a provider, beneficiary, sponsor, or any person acting on behalf of a provider, sponsor, or beneficiary with the knowledge (or who had reason to know or should have known) that the deception or misrepresentation could result in some unauthorized CHAMPUS benefit to self or some other person, or some unauthorized CHAMPUS payment, or (2) a claim that is false or fictitious, or includes or is supported by any written statement which asserts a material fact which is false or fictitious, or includes or is supported by any written statement that (a) omits a material fact and (b) is false or fictitious as a result of such omission and (c) is a statement in which the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact. It is presumed that, if a deception or misrepresentation is established <I>and</I> a CHAMPUS claim is filed, the person responsible for the claim had the requisite knowledge. This presumption is rebuttable only by substantial evidence. It is further presumed that the provider of the services is responsible for the actions of all individuals who file a claim on behalf of the provider (for example, billing clerks); this presumption may only be rebutted by clear and convincing evidence. 
</P>
<P><I>Freestanding.</I> Not “institution-affiliated” or “institution-based.”
</P>
<P><I>Full-time course of higher education.</I> A complete, progressive series of studies to develop attributes such as knowledge, skill, mind, and character, by formal schooling at a college or university, and which meets the criteria set out in § 199.3 of this part. To qualify as full-time, the student must be carrying a course load of a minimum of 12 credit hours or equivalent each semester.
</P>
<P><I>General staff nursing service.</I> All nursing care (other than that provided by private duty nurses) including, but not limited to, general duty nursing, emergency room nursing, recovery room nursing, intensive nursing care, and group nursing arrangements performed by nursing personnel on the payroll of the hospital or other authorized institution.
</P>
<P><I>Good faith payments.</I> Those payments made to civilian sources of medical care who provided medical care to persons purporting to be eligible beneficiaries but who are determined later to be ineligible for CHAMPUS benefits. (The ineligible person usually possesses an erroneous or illegal identification card.) To be considered for good faith payments, the civilian source of care must have exercised reasonable precautions in identifying a person claiming to be an eligible beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>Habilitation.</I> The provision of functional capacity, absent from birth due to congenital anomaly or developmental disorder, which facilitates performance of an activity in the manner, or within the range considered normal, for a human being.
</P>
<P><I>Handicap.</I> For the purposes of this part, the term “handicap” is synonymous with the term “disability.”
</P>
<P><I>High-risk pregnancy.</I> A pregnancy is high-risk when the presence of a currently active or previously treated medical, anatomical, physiological illness or condition may create or increase the likelihood of a detrimental effect on the mother, fetus, or newborn and presents a reasonable possibility of the development of complications during labor or delivery.
</P>
<P><I>Homebound.</I> A beneficiary's condition is such that there exists a normal inability to leave home and, consequently, leaving home would require considerable and taxing effort. Any absence of an individual from the home attributable to the need to receive health care treatment—including regular absences for the purpose of participating in therapeutic, psychosocial, or medical treatment in an adult day-care program that is licensed or certified by a state, or accredited to furnish adult day-care services in the—state shall not disqualify an individual from being considered to be confined to his home. Any other absence of an individual from the home shall not disqualify an individual if the absence is infrequent or of relatively short duration. For purposes of the preceding sentence, any absence for the purpose of attending a religious service shall be deemed to be an absence of infrequent or short duration. Also, absences from the home for non-medical purposes, such as an occasional trip to the barber, a walk around the block or a drive, would not necessarily negate the beneficiary's homebound status if the absences are undertaken on an infrequent basis and are of relatively short duration. An exception is made to the above homebound definitional criteria for beneficiaries under the age of 18 and those receiving maternity care. The only homebound criteria for these special beneficiary categories is written certification from a physician attesting to the fact that leaving the home would place the beneficiary at medical risk. In addition to the above, absences, whether regular or infrequent, from the beneficiary's primary residence for the purpose of attending an educational program in a public or private school that is licensed and/or certified by a state, shall not negate the beneficiary's homebound status.
</P>
<P><I>Home health discipline.</I> One of six home health disciplines covered under the home health benefit (skilled nursing services, home health aide services, physical therapy services, occupational therapy services, speech-language pathology services, and medical social services).
</P>
<P><I>Home health market basket index.</I> An index that reflects changes over time in the prices of an appropriate mix of goods and services included in home health services.
</P>
<P><I>Hospice care.</I> Hospice care is a program which provides an integrated set of services and supplies designed to care for the terminally ill. This type of care emphasizes palliative care and supportive services, such as pain control and home care, rather than cure-oriented services provided in institutions that are otherwise the primary focus under CHAMPUS. The benefit provides coverage for a humane and sensible approach to care during the last days of life for some terminally ill patients.
</P>
<P><I>Hospital, acute care (general and special).</I> An institution that meets the criteria as set forth in § 199.6(b)(4)(i) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Hospital, psychiatric.</I> An institution that meets the criteria as set forth in § 199.6(b)(4)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Illegitimate child.</I> A child not recognized as a lawful offspring; that is, a child born of parents not married to each other.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family.</I> The spouse, natural parent, child and sibling, adopted child and adoptive parent, stepparent, stepchild, grandparent, grandchild, stepbrother and stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law of the beneficiary, or provider, as appropriate. For purposes of this definition only, to determine who may render services to a beneficiary, the step-relationship continues to exist even if the marriage upon which the relationship is based terminates through divorce or death of one of the parents.
</P>
<P><I>Independent laboratory.</I> A freestanding laboratory approved for participation under Medicare and certified by the Health Care Financing Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Infirmaries.</I> Facilities operated by student health departments of colleges and universities to provide inpatient or outpatient care to enrolled students. When specifically approved by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, a boarding school infirmary also is included.
</P>
<P><I>Initial determination.</I> A formal written decision on a CHAMPUS claim, a request for benefit authorization, a request by a provider for approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider, or a decision disqualifying or excluding a provider as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS. Rejection of a claim or a request for benefit or provider authorization for failure to comply with administrative requirements, including failure to submit reasonably requested information, is not an initial determination. Responses to general or specific inquiries regarding CHAMPUS benefits are not initial determinations.
</P>
<P><I>In-out surgery.</I> Surgery performed in the outpatient department of a hospital or other institutional provider, in a physician's office or the office of another individual professional provider, in a clinic, or in a “freestanding” ambulatory surgical center which does not involve a formal inpatient admission for a period of 24 hours or more.
</P>
<P><I>Inpatient.</I> A patient who has been admitted to a hospital or other authorized institution for bed occupancy for purposes of receiving necessary medical care, with the reasonable expectation that the patient will remain in the institution at least 24 hours, and with the registration and assignment of an inpatient number or designation. Institutional care in connection with in and out (ambulatory) surgery is not included within the meaning of inpatient whether or not an inpatient number or designation is made by the hospital or other institution. If the patient has been received at the hospital, but death occurs before the actual admission occurs, an inpatient admission exists as if the patient had lived and had been formally admitted.
</P>
<P><I>Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility (IRF).</I> A facility classified by CMS as an IRF and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(xx) (which includes the requirement to be a Medicare participating provider).
</P>
<P><I>Institution-affiliated.</I> Related to a CHAMPUS-authorized institutional provider through a shared governing body but operating under a separate and distinct license or accreditation. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution-based.</I> Related to a CHAMPUS-authorized institutional provider through a shared governing body and operating under a common license and shared accreditation. 
</P>
<P><I>Institutional provider.</I> A health care provider which meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Intensive care unit (ICU).</I> A special segregated unit of a hospital in which patients are concentrated by reason of serious illness, usually without regard to diagnosis. Special lifesaving techniques and equipment regularly and immediately are available within the unit, and patients are under continuous observation by a nursing staff specially trained and selected for the care of this type patient. The unit is maintained on a continuing rather than an intermittent or temporary basis. It is not a postoperative recovery room nor a postanesthesia room. In some large or highly specialized hospitals, the ICUs may be further refined for special purposes, such as for respiratory conditions, cardiac surgery, coronary care, burn care, or neurosurgery. For the purposes of CHAMPUS, these specialized units would be considered ICUs if they otherwise conformed to the definition of an ICU.
</P>
<P><I>Intensive outpatient program (IOP).</I> A treatment setting capable of providing an organized day or evening program that includes assessment, treatment, case management and rehabilitation for individuals not requiring 24-hour care for mental health disorders, to include substance use disorders, as appropriate for the individual patient. The program structure is regularly scheduled, individualized and shares monitoring and support with the patient's family and support system.
</P>
<P><I>Intern.</I> A graduate of a medical or dental school serving in a hospital in preparation to being licensed to practice medicine or dentistry.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Partnership Agreement.</I> The Internal Partnership Agreement is an agreement between a military treatment facility commander and a CHAMPUS-authorized civilian health care provider which enables the use of civilian health care personnel or other resources to provide medical care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries on the premises of a military treatment facility under the Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program. These internal agreements may be established when a military treatment facility is unable to provide sufficient health care services for CHAMPUS beneficiaries due to shortages of personnel and other required resources.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Resource Sharing Agreement.</I> A type of Internal Partnership Agreement, established in the context of the TRICARE program by agreement of a military medical treatment facility commander and authorized TRICARE contractor. Internal Resource Sharing Agreements may incorporate TRICARE features in lieu of standard CHAMPUS features that would apply to standard Internal Partnership Agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Item, Service, or Supply.</I> Includes (1) any item, device, medical supply, or service claimed to have been provided to a beneficiary (patient) and listed in an itemized claim for CHAMPUS payment or a request for payment, or (2) in the case of a claim based on costs, any entry or omission in a cost report, books of account, or other documents supporting the claim. 
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory and pathological services.</I> Laboratory and pathological examinations (including machine diagnostic tests that produce hard-copy results) when necessary to, and rendered in connection with medical, obstetrical, or surgical diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury, or in connection with well-baby care. 
</P>
<P><I>Legitimized child.</I> A formerly illegitimate child who is considered legitimate by reason of qualifying actions recognized in law.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed practical nurse (L.P.N.).</I> A person who is prepared specially in the scientific basis of nursing; who is a graduate of a school of practical nursing; whose qualifications have been examined by a state board of nursing; and who has been authorized legally to practice as an L.P.N. under the supervision of a physician.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed vocational nurse (L.V.N.)</I> A person who specifically is prepared in the scientific basis or nursing; who is a graduate of a school of vocational nursing; whose qualifications have been examined by a state board of nursing; and who has been authorized legally to practice as a L.V.N. under the supervision of a physician.
</P>
<P><I>Life threatening conditions.</I> Diseases or conditions where the likelihood of death is high unless the course of the disease is interrupted and diseases or conditions with potentially fatal outcomes, where the end point of clinical trial analysis is survival.
</P>
<P><I>Long Term Care Hospital (LTCH).</I> A hospital that is classified by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as an LTCH and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(v) (which includes the requirement to be a Medicare participating provider).
</P>
<P><I>Low-risk pregnancy.</I> A pregnancy is low-risk when the basis for the ongoing clinical expectation of a normal uncomplicated birth, as defined by reasonable and generally accepted criteria of maternal and fetal health, is documented throughout a generally accepted course of prenatal care. 
</P>
<P><I>Major life activity.</I> Breathing, cognition, hearing, seeing, and age appropriate ability essential to bathing, dressing, eating, grooming, speaking, stair use, toilet use, transferring, and walking.
</P>
<P><I>Marriage and family therapist, certified.</I> An extramedical individual provider who meets the requirements outlined in § 199.6.
</P>
<P><I>Maternity care.</I> Care and treatment related to conception, delivery, and abortion, including prenatal and postnatal care (generally through the 6th post-delivery week), and also including treatment of the complications of pregnancy.
</P>
<P><I>Medicaid.</I> Those medical benefits authorized under Title XIX of the Social Security Act provided to welfare recipients and the medically indigent through programs administered by the various states.
</P>
<P><I>Medical.</I> The generally used term which pertains to the diagnosis and treatment of illness, injury, pregnancy, and mental disorders by trained and licensed or certified health professionals. For purposes of CHAMPUS, the term “medical” should be understood to include “medical, psychological, surgical, and obstetrical,” unless it is specifically stated that a more restrictive meaning is intended.
</P>
<P><I>Medical emergency.</I> The sudden and unexpected onset of a medical condition or the acute exacerbation of a chronic condition that is threatening to life, limb, or sight, and requires immediate medical treatment or which manifests painful symptomatology requiring immediate palliative efforts to alleviate suffering. Medical emergencies include heart attacks, cardiovascular accidents, poisoning, convulsions, kidney stones, and such other acute medical conditions as may be determined to be medical emergencies by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. In the case of a pregnancy, a medical emergency must involve a sudden and unexpected medical complication that puts the mother, the baby, or both, at risk. Pain would not, however, qualify a maternity case as an emergency, nor would incipient birth after the 34th week of gestation, unless an otherwise qualifying medical condition is present. Examples of medical emergencies related to pregnancy or delivery are hemorrhage, ruptured membrane with prolapsed cord, placenta previa, abruptio placenta, presence of shock or unconsciousness, suspected heart attack or stroke, or trauma (such as injuries received in an automobile accident). 
</P>
<P><I>Medically or psychologically necessary preauthorization.</I> A pre (or prior) authorization for payment for medical/surgical or psychological services based upon criteria that are generally accepted by qualified professionals to be reasonable for diagnosis and treatment of an illness, injury, pregnancy, and mental disorder.
</P>
<P><I>Medical supplies and dressings (consumables).</I> Necessary medical or surgical supplies (exclusive of durable medical equipment) that do not withstand prolonged, repeated use and that are needed for the proper medical management of a condition for which benefits are otherwise authorized under CHAMPUS, on either an inpatient or outpatient basis. Examples include disposable syringes for a diabetic, colostomy sets, irrigation sets, and ace bandages.
</P>
<P><I>Medically or psychologically necessary.</I> The frequency, extent, and types of medical services or supplies which represent appropriate medical care and that are generally accepted by qualified professionals to be reasonable and adequate for the diagnosis and treatment of illness, injury, pregnancy, and mental disorders or that are reasonable and adequate for well-baby care. 
</P>
<P><I>Medicare.</I> These medical benefits authorized under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act provided to persons 65 or older, certain disabled persons, or persons with chronic renal disease, through a national program administered by the DHHS, Health Care Financing Administration, Medicare Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Medication assisted treatment (MAT).</I> MAT for diagnosed opioid use disorder is a holistic modality for recovery and treatment that employs evidence-based therapy, including psychosocial treatments and psychopharmacology, and FDA-approved medications as indicated for the management of withdrawal symptoms and maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>Member.</I> An individual who is affiliated with a Service, either an active duty member, Reserve member, active duty retired member, or Retired Reserve member. Members in a retired status are not former members. Also referred to as the sponsor.
</P>
<P><I>Mental disorder, to include substance use disorder.</I> For purposes of the payment of CHAMPUS benefits, a mental disorder is a nervous or mental condition that involves a clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that is associated with a painful symptom, such as distress, and that impairs a patient's ability to function in one or more major life activities. A substance use disorder is a mental condition that involves a maladaptive pattern of substance use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress; impaired control over substance use; social impairment; and risky use of a substance(s). Additionally, the mental disorder must be one of those conditions listed in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. “Conditions Not Attributable to a Mental Disorder,” or V codes, are not considered diagnosable mental disorders. Co-occurring mental and substance use disorders are common and assessment should proceed as soon as it is possible to distinguish the substance related symptoms from other independent conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Mental health therapeutic absence.</I> A therapeutically planned absence from the inpatient setting. The patient is not discharged from the facility and may be away for periods of several hours to several days. The purpose of the therapeutic absence is to give the patient an opportunity to test his or her ability to function outside the inpatient setting before the actual discharge.
</P>
<P><I>Missing in action (MIA).</I> A battle casualty whose whereabouts and status are unknown, provided the absence appears to be involuntary and the service member is not known to be in a status of unauthorized absence.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Claims for eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries whose sponsor is classified as MIA are processed as dependents of an active duty service member.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Morbid obesity.</I> A body mass index (BMI) equal to or greater than 40 kilograms per meter squared (kg/m
<SU>2</SU>), or a BMI equal to or greater than 35 kg/m
<SU>2</SU> in conjunction with high-risk co-morbidities, which is based on the guidelines established by the National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute on the Identification and Management of Patients with Obesity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Body mass index is equal to weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Most-favored rate.</I> The lowest usual charge to any individual or third-party payer in effect on the date of the admission of a CHAMPUS beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>National Institutes of Health (NIH)-approved clinical trial.</I> An NIH-defined clinical trial, <I>i.e.,</I> a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of those interventions on health-related biomedical or behavioral outcomes, in which the NIH collaborates with the study sponsor to provide resources or other support towards the development of the clinical trial and/or analysis of its results. This support may include funding, design, implementation, data analysis, or reporting.
</P>
<P><I>Natural childbirth.</I> Childbirth without the use of chemical induction or augmentation of labor or surgical procedures other than episiotomy or perineal repair.
</P>
<P><I>Naturopath.</I> A person who practices naturopathy, that is, a drugless system of therapy making use of physical forces such as air, light, water, heat, and massage.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Services of a naturopath are not covered by CHAMPUS.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>NAVCARE clinics.</I> Contractor owned, staffed, and operated primary clinics exclusively serving uniformed services beneficiaries pursuant to contracts awarded by a Military Department.
</P>
<P><I>NIH-sponsored clinical trial.</I> An NIH-defined clinical trial, <I>i.e.,</I> a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of those interventions on health-related biomedical or behavioral outcomes, in which the NIH initiates, funds, manages, and otherwise oversees the clinical trial.
</P>
<P><I>No-fault insurance.</I> No-fault insurance means an insurance contract providing compensation for health and medical expenses relating to personal injury arising from the operation of a motor vehicle in which the compensation is not premised on whom may have been responsible for causing such injury. No-fault insurance includes personal injury protection and medical payments benefits in cases involving personal injuries resulting from operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Nonavailability statement.</I> A certification by a commander (or a designee) of a Uniformed Services medical treatment facility, recorded on DEERS, generally for the reason that the needed medical care being requested by a non-TRICARE Prime enrolled beneficiary cannot be provided at the facility concerned because the necessary resources are not available in the time frame needed.
</P>
<P><I>Nonparticipating provider.</I> A hospital or other authorized institutional provider, a physician or other authorized individual professional provider, or other authorized provider that furnished medical services or supplies to a CHAMPUS beneficiary, but who did not agree on the CHAMPUS claim form to participate or to accept the CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost or charge as the total charge for the services. A nonparticipating provider looks to the beneficiary or sponsor for payment of his or her charge, not CHAMPUS. In such cases, CHAMPUS pays the beneficiary or sponsor, not the provider.
</P>
<P><I>North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) member.</I> A military member of an armed force of a foreign NATO nation who is on active duty and who, in connection with official duties, is stationed in or passing through the United States. The foreign NATO nations are Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Federal Republic of Germany, Greece, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Turkey, and the United Kingdom.
</P>
<P><I>Not-for-profit entity.</I> An organization or institution owned and operated by one or more nonprofit corporations or associations formed pursuant to applicable state laws, no part of the net earnings of which inures, or may lawfully inure, to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual.
</P>
<P><I>Occupational therapist.</I> A person who is trained specially in the skills and techniques of occupational therapy (that is, the use of purposeful activity with individuals who are limited by physical injury of illness, psychosocial dysfunction, developmental or learning disabilities, poverty and cultural differences, or the aging process in order to maximize independence, prevent disability, and maintain health) and who is licensed to administer occupational therapy treatments prescribed by a physician.
</P>
<P><I>Off-label use of a drug or device.</I> A use other than an intended use for which the prescription drug, biologic or device is legally marketed under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Services Act. This includes any use that is not included in the approved labeling for an approved drug, licensed biologic, approved device or combination product; any use that is not included in the cleared statement of intended use for a device that has been determined by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to be substantially equivalent to a legally marketed predicate device and cleared for marketing; and any use of a device for which a manufacturer or distributor would be required to seek pre-market review by the FDA in order to legally include that use in the device's labeling.
</P>
<P><I>Office-based opioid treatment.</I> TRICARE authorized providers acting within the scope of their licensure or certification to prescribe outpatient supplies of the medication to assist in withdrawal management (detoxification) and/or maintenance of opioid use disorder, as regulated by 42 CFR part 8, addressing office-based opioid treatment (OBOT).
</P>
<P><I>Official formularies.</I> A book of official standards for certain pharmaceuticals and preparations that are not included in the <I>U.S. Pharmacopeia.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Opioid Treatment Program.</I> Opioid Treatment Programs (OTPs) are service settings for opioid treatment, either free standing or hospital based, that adhere to the Department of Health and Human Services' regulations at 42 CFR part 8 and use medications indicated and approved by the Food and Drug Administration. Treatment in OTPs provides a comprehensive, individually tailored program of medication therapy integrated with psychosocial and medical treatment and support services that address factors affecting each patient, as certified by the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) of the Department of Health and Human Services' Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration. Treatment in OTPs can include management of withdrawal symptoms (detoxification) from opioids and medically supervised withdrawal from maintenance medications. Patients receiving care for substance use and co-occurring disorders care can be referred to, or otherwise concurrently enrolled in, OTPs.
</P>
<P><I>Optometrist (Doctor of Optometry).</I> A person trained and licensed to examine and test the eyes and to treat visual defects by prescribing and adapting corrective lenses and other optical aids, and by establishing programs of exercises.
</P>
<P><I>Oral surgeon (D.D.S. or D.M.D.).</I> A person who has received a degree in dentistry and who limits his or her practice to oral surgery, that is, that branch of the healing arts that deals with the diagnosis and the surgical correction and adjunctive treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects of the mouth, the jaws, and associated structures.
</P>
<P><I>Orthopedic shoes.</I> Shoes prescribed by an orthopedic surgeon to effect changes in foot or feet position and alignment and which are not an integral part of a brace.
</P>
<P><I>Other allied health professionals.</I> Individual professional providers other than physicians, dentists, or extramedical individual providers, as specified in § 199.6 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Other special institutional providers.</I> Certain specialized medical treatment facilities, either inpatient or outpatient, other than those specifically defined, that provide courses of treatment prescribed by a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; when the patient is under the supervision of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy during the entire course of the inpatient admission or the outpatient treatment; when the type and level of care and services rendered by the institution are otherwise authorized in this part; when the facility meets all licensing or other certification requirements that are extant in the jurisdiction in which the facility is located geographically; which is accredited by the Joint Commission or other accrediting organization approved by the Director if an appropriate accreditation program for the given type of facility is available; and which is not a nursing home, intermediate facility, halfway house, home for the aged, or other institution of similar purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Outpatient.</I> A patient who has not been admitted to a hospital or other authorized institution as an inpatient.
</P>
<P><I>Ownership or control interest.</I> For purposes of § 199.9(f)(1), a “person with an ownership or control interest” is anyone who 
</P>
<P>(1) Has directly or indirectly a 5 percent or more ownership interest in the entity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is the owner of a whole or part interest in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by the entity or any of the property or assets thereof, which whole or part interest is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property and assets of the entity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is an officer or director of the entity if the entity is organized as a corporation; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Is a partner in the entity if the entity is organized as a partnership. 
</P>
<P><I>Partial hospitalization.</I> A treatment setting capable of providing an interdisciplinary program of medically monitored therapeutic services, to include management of withdrawal symptoms, as medically indicated. Services may include day, evening, night and weekend treatment programs which employ an integrated, comprehensive and complementary schedule of recognized treatment approaches. Partial hospitalization is a time-limited, ambulatory, active treatment program that offers therapeutically intensive, coordinated, and structured clinical services within a stable therapeutic environment. Partial hospitalization is an appropriate setting for crisis stabilization, treatment of partially stabilized mental disorders, to include substance disorders, and a transition from an inpatient program when medically necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Participating provider.</I> A CHAMPUS-authorized provider that is required, or has agreed by entering into a CHAMPUS participation agreement or by act of indicating “accept assignment” on the claim form, to accept the CHAMPUS-allowable amount as the maximum total charge for a service or item rendered to a CHAMPUS beneficiary, whether the amount is paid for fully by CHAMPUS or requires cost-sharing by the CHAMPUS beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>Part-time or intermittent home health aide and skilled nursing services.</I> Part-time or intermittent means skilled nursing and home health aide services furnished any number of days per week as long as they are furnished (combined) less than 8 hours each day and 28 or fewer hours each week (or, subject to review on a case-bay-case basis as to the need for care, less than 8 hours each day and 35 or fewer hours per week).
</P>
<P><I>Party to a hearing.</I> An appealing party or parties and CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Party to the initial determination.</I> Includes CHAMPUS and also refers to a CHAMPUS beneficiary and a participating provider of services whose interests have been adjudicated by the initial determination. In addition, a provider who has been denied approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider is a party to that initial determination, as is a provider who is disqualified or excluded as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS, unless the provider is excluded based on a determination of abuse or fraudulent practices or procedures under another federal or federally funded program. See § 199.10 for additional information concerning parties not entitled to administrative review under the CHAMPUS appeals and hearing procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Pastoral counselor.</I> An extramedical individual provider who meets the requirements outlined in § 199.6.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmaceutical Agent.</I> Drugs, biological products, and medical devices under the regulatory authority of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacist.</I> A person who is trained specially in the scientific basis of pharmacology and who is licensed to prepare and sell or dispense drugs and compounds and to make up prescriptions ordered by a physician.
</P>
<P><I>Physical medicine services or physiatry services.</I> The treatment of disease or injury by physical means such as massage, hydrotherapy, or heat.
</P>
<P><I>Physical therapist.</I> A person who is trained specially in the skills and techniques of physical therapy (that is, the treatment of disease by physical agents and methods such as heat, massage, manipulation, therapeutic exercise, hydrotherapy, and various forms of energy such as electrotherapy and ultrasound), who has been authorized legally (that is, registered) to administer treatments prescribed by a physician and who is entitled legally to use the designation “Registered Physical Therapist.” A physical therapist also may be called a physiotherapist.
</P>
<P><I>Physician.</I> A person with a degree of Doctor of Medicine (M.D.) or Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.) who is licensed to practice medicine by an appropriate authority.
</P>
<P><I>Physician in training.</I> Interns, residents, and fellows participating in approved postgraduate training programs and physicians who are not in approved programs but who are authorized to practice only in a hospital or other institutional provider setting, e.g., individuals with temporary or restricted licenses, or unlicensed graduates of foreign medical schools.
</P>
<P><I>Podiatrist (Doctor of Podiatry or Surgical Chiropody).</I> A person who has received a degree in podiatry (formerly called chiropody), that is, that specialized field of the healing arts that deals with the study and care of the foot, including its anatomy, pathology, and medical and surgical treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Preauthorization.</I> A decision issued in writing, or electronically by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, that TRICARE benefits are payable for certain services that a beneficiary has not yet received. The term prior authorization is commonly substituted for preauthorization and has the same meaning.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription drugs and medicines.</I> Drugs and medicines which at the time of use were approved for commercial marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and which, by law of the United States, require a physician's or dentist's prescription, except that it includes insulin for known diabetics whether or not a prescription is required. Drugs grandfathered by the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 may be covered under CHAMPUS as if FDA approved. Prescription drugs and medicines may also be referred to as “pharmaceutical agents”.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The fact that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration has approved a drug for testing on humans would not qualify it within this definition.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Preventive care.</I> Diagnostic and other medical procedures not related directly to a specific illness, injury, or definitive set of symptoms, or obstetrical care, but rather performed as periodic health screening, health assessment, or health maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>Primary caregiver.</I> An individual who renders to a beneficiary services to support the activities of daily living (as defined in § 199.2) and specific services essential to the safe management of the beneficiary's condition.
</P>
<P><I>Primary payer.</I> The plan or program whose medical benefits are payable first in a double coverage situation.
</P>
<P><I>PRIMUS clinics.</I> Contractor owned, staffed, and operated primary care clinics exclusively serving uniformed services beneficiaries pursuant to contracts awarded by a Military Department.
</P>
<P><I>Private room.</I> A room with one bed that is designated as a private room by the hospital or other authorized institutional provider.
</P>
<P><I>Profound hearing loss (adults).</I> An “adult” (a spouse as defined in section 32 CFR 199.3(b) of this part of a member of the Uniformed Services on active duty for more than 30 days) with a hearing threshold of:
</P>
<P>(1) 40 dB HL or greater in one or both ears when tested at 500, 1,000, 1,500, 2,000, 3,000, or 4,000Hz; or
</P>
<P>(2) 26 dB HL or greater in one or both ears at any three or more of those frequencies; or
</P>
<P>(3) A speech recognition score less than 94 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Profound hearing loss (children).</I> A “child” (an unmarried child of an active duty member who otherwise meets the criteria (including age requirements) in 32 CFR 199.3 of this part) with a 26dB HL or greater hearing threshold level in one or both ears when tested in the frequency range at 500, 1,000, 2,000, 3,000 or 4,000 Hz.
</P>
<P><I>Program year.</I> The appropriate year (<I>e.g.,</I> calendar year, fiscal year, rolling 12-month period, etc.) specified in the administration of TRICARE programs for application of unique requirements or limitations (<I>e.g.,</I> enrollment fees, deductibles, catastrophic loss protection, etc.) on covered health care services obtained or provided during the designated time period.
</P>
<P><I>Progress notes.</I> Progress notes are an essential component of the medical record wherein health care personnel provide written evidence of ordered and supervised diagnostic tests, treatments, medical procedures, therapeutic behavior and outcomes. In the case of mental health care, progress notes must include: the date of the therapy session; length of the therapy session; a notation of the patient's signs and symptoms; the issues, pathology and specific behaviors addressed in the therapy session; a statement summarizing the therapeutic interventions attempted during the therapy session; descriptions of the response to treatment, the outcome of the treatment, and the response to significant others; and a statement summarizing the patient's degree of progress toward the treatment goals. Progress notes do not need to repeat all that was said during a therapy session but must document a patient contact and be sufficiently detailed to allow for both peer review and audits to substantiate the quality and quantity of care rendered. 
</P>
<P><I>Prosthetic device (prosthesis).</I> An artificial substitute for a missing body part.
</P>
<P><I>Prosthetic or Prosthetic device (prosthesis).</I> A prosthetic or prosthetic device (prosthesis) determined by the Secretary of Defense to be necessary because of significant conditions resulting from trauma, congenital anomalies, or diseases.
</P>
<P><I>Prosthetic supplies.</I> Supplies that are necessary for the effective use of a prosthetic or prosthetic device.
</P>
<P><I>Provider.</I> A hospital or other institutional provider, a physician, or other individual professional provider, or other provider of services or supplies as specified in § 199.6 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Provider exclusion and suspension.</I> The terms “exclusion” and “suspension”, when referring to a provider under CHAMPUS, both mean the denial of status as an authorized provider, resulting in items, services, or supplies furnished by the provider not being reimbursed, directly or indirectly, under CHAMPUS. The terms may be used interchangeably to refer to a provider who has been denied status as an authorized CHAMPUS provider based on (1) a criminal conviction or civil judgment involving fraud, (2) an administrative finding of fraud or abuse under CHAMPUS, (3) an administrative finding that the provider has been excluded or suspended by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or a local licensing authority, (4) an administrative finding that the provider has knowingly participated in a conflict of interest situation, or (5) an administrative finding that it is in the best interests of the CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries to exclude or suspend the provider. 
</P>
<P><I>Provider termination.</I> When a provider's status as an authorized CHAMPUS provider is ended, other than through exclusion or suspension, based on a finding that the provider does not meet the qualifications, as set forth in § 199.6 of this part, to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P><I>Psychiatric emergency.</I> A psychiatric inpatient admission is an emergency when, based on a psychiatric evaluation performed by a physician (or other qualified mental health care professional with hospital admission authority), the patient is at immediate risk of serious harm to self or others as a result of a mental disorder and requires immediate continuous skilled observation at the acute level of care.
</P>
<P><I>Public facility.</I> A public authority or entity legally constituted within a State (as defined in this section) to administer, control or perform a service function for public health, education or human services programs in a city, county, or township, special district, or other political subdivision, or such combination of political subdivisions or special districts or counties as are recognized as an administrative agency for a State's public health, education or human services programs, or any other public institution or agency having administrative control and direction of a publicly funded health, education or human services program.
</P>
<P><I>Public facility adequacy.</I> An available public facility shall be considered adequate when the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, determines that the quality, quantity, and frequency of an available service or item otherwise allowable as a CHAMPUS benefit is sufficient to meet the beneficiary's specific disability related need in a timely manner.
</P>
<P><I>Public facility availability.</I> A public facility shall be considered available when the public facility usually and customarily provides the requested service or item to individuals with the same or similar disability related need as the otherwise equally qualified CHAMPUS beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified accreditation organization.</I> A not-for-profit corporation or a foundation that:
</P>
<P>(1) Develops process standards and outcome standards for health care delivery programs, or knowledge standards and skill standards for health care professional certification testing, using experts both from within and outside of the health care program area or individual specialty to which the standards are to be applied;
</P>
<P>(2) Creates measurable criteria that demonstrate compliance with each standard;
</P>
<P>(3) Publishes the organization's standards, criteria and evaluation processes so that they are available to the general public;
</P>
<P>(4) Performs on-site evaluations of health care delivery programs, or provides testing of individuals, to measure the extent of compliance with each standard;
</P>
<P>(5) Provides on-site evaluation or individual testing on a national or international basis;
</P>
<P>(6) Provides to evaluated programs and tested individuals time-limited written certification of compliance with the organization's standards;
</P>
<P>(7) Excludes certification of any program operated by an organization which has an economic interest, as defined in this section, in the accreditation organization or in which the accreditation organization has an economic interest;
</P>
<P>(8) Publishes promptly the certification outcomes of each program evaluation or individual test so that it is available to the general public; and
</P>
<P>(9) Has been found by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, to apply standards, criteria, and certification processes which reinforce CHAMPUS provider authorization requirements and promote efficient delivery of CHAMPUS benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified mental health provider.</I> Psychiatrists or other physicians; clinical psychologists, certified psychiatric nurse specialists, certified clinical social workers, certified marriage and family therapists, TRICARE certified mental health counselors, pastoral counselors under a physician's supervision, and supervised mental health counselors under a physician's supervision.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation therapy services.</I> The treatment of diseases by x-ray, radium, or radioactive isotopes when ordered by the attending physician.
</P>
<P><I>Rare diseases.</I> TRICARE/CHAMPUS defines a rare disease as any disease or condition that has a prevalence of less than 200,000 persons in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Referral.</I> The act or an instance of referring a TRICARE beneficiary to another authorized provider to obtain necessary medical treatment. Generally, when a referral is required to qualify health care as a covered benefit, only a TRICARE-authorized physician may make such a referral unless this regulation specifically allows another category of TRICARE-authorized provider to make a referral as allowed within the scope of the provider's license. In addition to referrals which may be required for certain health care to be a covered TRICARE benefit, the TRICARE Prime program under § 199.17 generally requires Prime enrollees to obtain a referral for care through a primary care manager (PCM) or other authorized care coordinator to avoid paying higher deductible and cost-sharing for otherwise covered TRICARE benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Registered nurse.</I> A person who is prepared specially in the scientific basis of nursing, who is a graduate of a school of nursing, and who is registered for practice after examination by a state board of nurse examiners or similar regulatory authority, who holds a current, valid license, and who is entitled legally to use the designation R.N.
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitation.</I> The reduction of an acquired loss of ability to perform an activity in the manner, or within the range considered normal, for a human being.
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitative therapy.</I> Any rehabilitative therapy that is necessary to improve, restore, or maintain function, or to minimize or prevent deterioration of function, of a patient and prescribed by a physician.
</P>
<P><I>Reliable evidence.</I> (1) As used in § 199.4(g)(15), the term reliable evidence means only:
</P>
<P>(i) Well controlled studies of clinically meaningful endpoints, published in refereed medical literature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Published formal technology assessments.
</P>
<P>(iii) The published reports of national professional medical associations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Published national medical policy organization positions; and
</P>
<P>(v) The published reports of national expert opinion organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) The hierarchy of reliable evidence of proven medical effectiveness, established by (1) through (5) of this paragraph, is the order of the relative weight to be given to any particular source. With respect to clinical studies, only those reports and articles containing scientifically valid data and published in the refereed medical and scientific literature shall be considered as meeting the requirements of reliable evidence. Specifically not included in the meaning of reliable evidence are reports, articles, or statements by providers or groups of providers containing only abstracts, anecdotal evidence or personal professional opinions. Also not included in the meaning of reliable evidence is the fact that a provider or a number of providers have elected to adopt a drug, device, or medical treatment or procedure as their personal treatment or procedure of choice or standard of practice.
</P>
<P><I>Representative.</I> Any person who has been appointed by a party to the initial determination as counsel or advisor and who is otherwise eligible to serve as the counsel or advisor of the party to the initial determination, particularly in connection with a hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Reservist.</I> A person who is under an active duty call or order to one of the Uniformed Services for a period of 30 days or less or is on inactive training.
</P>
<P><I>Resident (medical).</I> A graduate physician or dentist who has an M.D. or D.O. degree, or D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree, respectively, is licensed to practice, and who choose to remain on the house staff of a hospital to get further training that will qualify him or her for a medical or dental specialty.
</P>
<P><I>Residential treatment center (RTC).</I> A facility (or distinct part of a facility) which meets the criteria in § 199.6(b)(4)(vii).
</P>
<P><I>Respite care.</I> Respite care is short-term care for a patient in order to provide rest and change for those who have been caring for the patient at home, usually the patient's family.
</P>
<P><I>Retired category.</I> Retirees and their family members who are beneficiaries covered by 10 U.S.C. 1086(c), other than Medicare-eligible beneficiaries as described in 10 U.S.C. 1086(d).
</P>
<P><I>Retiree.</I> For ease of reference in this part only, and except as otherwise specified in this part, the term means a member or former member of a Uniformed Service who is entitled to retired, retainer, or equivalent pay based on duty in a Uniformed Service.
</P>
<P><I>Routine eye examinations.</I> The services rendered in order to determine the refractive state of the eyes.
</P>
<P><I>Sanction.</I> For purpose of § 199.9, “sanction” means a provider exclusion, suspension, or termination. 
</P>
<P><I>Secondary payer.</I> The plan or program whose medical benefits are payable in double coverage situations only after the primary payer has adjudicated the claim.
</P>
<P><I>Semiprivate room.</I> A room containing at least two beds. If a room is designated publicly as a semiprivate accommodation by the hospital or other authorized institutional provider and contains multiple beds, it qualifies as a semiprivate room for the purposes of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Serious physical disability.</I> Any physiological disorder or condition or anatomical loss affecting one or more body systems which has lasted, or with reasonable certainty is expected to last, for a minimum period of 12 contiguous months, and which precludes the person with the disorder, condition or anatomical loss from unaided performance of at least one Major Life Activity as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Severely debilitating conditions.</I> Diseases or conditions that cause major irreversible morbidity.
</P>
<P><I>Skilled nursing facility.</I> An institution (or a distinct part of an institution) that meets the criteria as set forth in § 199.6(b)(4)(vi).
</P>
<P><I>Skilled nursing services.</I> Skilled nursing services includes application of professional nursing services and skills by an RN, LPN, or LVN, that are required to be performed under the general supervision/direction of a TRICARE-authorized physician to ensure the safety of the patient and achieve the medically desired result in accordance with accepted standards of practice.
</P>
<P><I>Sole community hospital</I> (SCH). A hospital that is designated by CMS as an SCH and meets the applicable requirements established by § 199.6(b)(4)(xvii).
</P>
<P><I>Spectacles, eyeglasses, and lenses.</I> Lenses, including contact lenses, that help to correct faulty vision.
</P>
<P><I>Speech generating device (SGD).</I> See Augmentative Communication Device.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor.</I> A member or former member of a Uniformed Service upon whose status his or her dependents' eligibility for CHAMPUS is based. A sponsor also includes a person who, while a member of the Uniformed Services and after becoming eligible to be retired on the basis of years of service, has his or her eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct involving abuse of a spouse or dependent child. It also includes NATO members who are stationed in or passing through the United States on official business when authorized. It also includes individuals eligible for CHAMPUS under the Transitional Assistance Management Program.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse.</I> A lawful husband or wife, who meets the criteria in § 199.3 of this part, regardless of whether or not dependent upon the member or former member for his or her own support.
</P>
<P><I>State.</I> For purposes of this part, any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and each territory and possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State victims of crime compensation programs.</I> Benefits available to victims of crime under the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Student status.</I> A dependent of a member or former member of a Uniformed Service who has not passed his or her 23rd birthday, and is enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning.
</P>
<P><I>Substance use disorder rehabilitation facility (SUDRF).</I> A facility or a distinct part of a facility that meets the criteria in § 199.6(b)(4)(xiv).
</P>
<P><I>Supervised mental health counselor.</I> An extramedical individual provider who meets the requirements outlined in § 199.6.
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental insurance plan.</I> A health insurance policy or other health benefit plan offered by a private entity to a CHAMPUS beneficiary, that primarily is designed, advertised, marketed, or otherwise held out as providing payment for expenses incurred for services and items that are not reimbursed under CHAMPUS due to program limitations, or beneficiary liabilities imposed by law. CHAMPUS recognizes two types of supplemental plans, general indemnity plans, and those offered through a direct service health maintenance organization (HMO).
</P>
<P>(1) An indemnity supplemental insurance plan must meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) It provides insurance coverage, regulated by state insurance agencies, which is available only to beneficiaries of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is premium based and all premiums relate only to the CHAMPUS supplemental coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Its benefits for all covered CHAMPUS beneficiaries are predominantly limited to non-covered services, to the deductible and cost-shared portions of the pre-determined allowable charges, and/or to amounts exceeding the allowable charges for covered services.
</P>
<P>(iv) It provides insurance reimbursement by making payment directly to the CHAMPUS beneficiary or to the participating provider.
</P>
<P>(v) It does not operate in a manner which results in lower deductibles or cost-shares than those imposed by law, or that waives the legally imposed deductibles or cost-shares.
</P>
<P>(2) A supplemental insurance plan offered by a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) must meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The HMO must be authorized and must operate under relevant provisions of state law.
</P>
<P>(ii) The HMO supplemental plan must be premium based and all premiums must relate only to CHAMPUS supplemental coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The HMO's benefits, above those which are directly reimbursed by CHAMPUS, must be limited predominantly to services not covered by CHAMPUS and CHAMPUS deductible and cost-share amounts.
</P>
<P>(iv) The HMO must provide services directly to CHAMPUS beneficiaries through its affiliated providers who, in turn, are reimbursed by CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(v) The HMO's premium structure must be designed so that no overall reduction in the amount of the beneficiary deductibles or cost-shares will result. 
</P>
<P><I>Suppliers of portable X-ray services.</I> A supplier that meets the conditions of coverage of the Medicare program, set forth in the Medicare regulations (42 CFR 405.1411 through 405.1416 (as amended)) or the Medicaid program in the state in which the covered service is provided.
</P>
<P><I>Surgery.</I> Medically appropriate operative procedures, including related preoperative and postoperative care; reduction of fractures and dislocations; injections and needling procedures of the joints; laser surgery of the eye; and those certain procedures listed in § 199.4(c)(2)(i) of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Surgical assistant.</I> A physician (or dentist or podiatrist) who assists the operating surgeon in the performance of a covered surgical service when such assistance is certified as necessary by the attending surgeon, when the type of surgical procedure being performed is of such complexity and seriousness as to require a surgical assistant, and when interns, residents, or other house staff are not available to provide the surgical assistance services in the specialty area required. 
</P>
<P><I>Suspension of claims processing.</I> The temporary suspension of processing (to protect the government's interests) of claims for care furnished by a specific provider (whether the claims are submitted by the provider or beneficiary) or claims submitted by or on behalf of a specific CHAMPUS beneficiary pending action by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in a case of suspected fraud or abuse. The action may include the administrative remedies provided for in § 199.9 or any other Department of Defense issuance (e.g. DoD issuances implementing the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act), case development or investigation by OCHAMPUS, or referral to the Department of Defense-Inspector General or the Department of Justice for action within their cognizant jurisdictions. 
</P>
<P><I>Teaching physician.</I> A teaching physician is any physician whose duties include providing medical training to physicians in training within a hospital or other institutional provider setting.
</P>
<P><I>Telephonic consultations:</I> A covered consultation service conducted via telephone call between TRICARE-authorized providers, including a verbal and written report to the patient's treating/requesting physician or other TRICARE-authorized provider.
</P>
<P><I>Telephonic office visits.</I> A covered service provided via a telephone call between a beneficiary who is an established patient and a TRICARE-authorized provider. See § 199.4.
</P>
<P><I>Third-party billing agent.</I> Any entity that acts on behalf of a provider to prepare, submit and monitor claims, excluding those entities that act solely as a collection agency.
</P>
<P><I>Third-party payer.</I> Third-payer means an entity that provides an insurance, medical service, or health plan by contract or agreement, including an automobile liability insurance or no fault insurance carrier and a worker's compensation program or plan, and any other plan or program (e.g., homeowners insurance) that is designed to provide compensation or coverage for expenses incurred by a beneficiary for medical services or supplies. For purposes of the definition of “third-party payer,” an insurance, medical service, or health plan includes a preferred provider organization, an insurance plan described as Medicare supplemental insurance, and a personal injury protection plan or medical payments benefit plan for personal injuries resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>TRICARE is secondary payer to all third-party payers. Under limited circumstances described in § 199.8(c)(2) of this part, TRICARE payment may be authorized to be paid in advance of adjudication of the claim by certain third-party payers. TRICARE advance payments will not be made when a third-party provider is determined to be a primary medical insurer under § 199.8(c)(3) of this part.”</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Timely filing.</I> The filing of CHAMPUS claims within the prescribed time limits as set forth in § 199.7 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP).</I> The program established under 10 U.S.C. § 1145(a) and § 199.3(e) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment plan.</I> A detailed description of the medical care being rendered or expected to be rendered a CHAMPUS beneficiary seeking approval for inpatient and other benefits for which preauthorization is required as set forth in § 199.4(b). Medical care described in the plan must meet the requirements of medical and psychological necessity. A treatment plan must include, at a minimum, a diagnosis (either current International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) or current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)); detailed reports of prior treatment, medical history, family history, social history, and physical examination; diagnostic test results; consultant's reports (if any); proposed treatment by type (such as surgical, medical, and psychiatric); a description of who is or will be providing treatment (by discipline or specialty); anticipated frequency, medications, and specific goals of treatment; type of inpatient facility required and why (including length of time the related inpatient stay will be required); and prognosis. If the treatment plan involves the transfer of a CHAMPUS patient from a hospital or another inpatient facility, medical records related to that inpatient stay also are required as a part of the treatment plan documentation.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE certified mental health counselor.</I> An allied health professional who meets the requirements outlined in § 199.6.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Extra.</I> The preferred-provider option of the TRICARE program made available prior to January 1, 2018, under which TRICARE Standard beneficiaries may obtain discounts on cost sharing as a result of using TRICARE network providers.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE for Life.</I> The Medicare wraparound coverage option of the TRICARE program made available to an eligible beneficiary by reason of 10 U.S.C. 1086(d).
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System</I> (OPPS). OPPS is a hospital outpatient prospective payment system, based on nationally established APC payment amounts and standardized for geographic wage differences that includes operating and capital-related costs that are directly related and integral to performing a procedure or furnishing a service in a hospital outpatient department.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Prime.</I> The managed care option of the TRICARE program established under § 199.17.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE program.</I> The program established under § 199.17.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Reserve Select.</I> The program established under 10 U.S.C. 1076d and § 199.24 of this Part.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Retired Reserve.</I> The program established under 10 U.S.C. 1076e and § 199.25.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Select.</I> The self-managed, preferred-provider network option under the TRICARE Program established by 10 U.S.C. 1075 and § 199.17 to replace TRICARE Extra and Standard after December 31, 2017.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Standard.</I> The TRICARE program made available prior to January 1, 2018, covering health benefits contracted for under the authority of 10 U.S.C. section 1079(a) or 1086(a) and subject to the same rates and conditions as apply to persons covered under those sections.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE Young Adult.</I> The program authorized by and described in § 199.26 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform HMO benefit.</I> The health care benefit established by § 199.18.
</P>
<P><I>Uniformed Services.</I> The Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Commissioned Corps of the USPHS, and the Commissioned Corps of the NOAA.
</P>
<P><I>Veteran.</I> A person who served in the active military, naval, or air service, and who was discharged or released therefrom under conditions other than dishonorable.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Unless the veteran is eligible for “retired pay,” “retirement pay,” or “retainer pay,” which refers to payments of a continuing nature and are payable at fixed intervals from the government for military service neither the veteran nor his or her dependents are eligible for benefits under CHAMPUS.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Waiver of benefit limits.</I> Extension of current benefit limitations under the Case Management Program, of medical care, services, and/or equipment, not otherwise a benefit under the TRICARE/CHAMPUS program.
</P>
<P><I>Well-child care.</I> A specific program of periodic health screening, developmental assessment, and routine immunization for dependents under six years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Widow or Widower.</I> A person who was a spouse at the time of death of a member or former member and who has not remarried.
</P>
<P><I>Worker's compensation benefits.</I> Medical benefits available under any worker's compensation law (including the Federal Employees Compensation Act), occupational disease law, employers liability law, or any other legislation of similar purpose, or under the maritime doctrine of maintenance, wages, and cure.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray services.</I> An x-ray examination from which an x-ray film or other image is produced, ordered by the attending physician when necessary and rendered in connection with a medical or surgical diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury, or in connection with maternity or well-baby care. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 199.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.3   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth those persons who, by the provisions of 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, and the NATO Status of Forces Agreement, are eligible for CHAMPUS benefits. A determination that a person is eligible does not automatically entitle such a person to CHAMPUS payments. Before any CHAMPUS benefits may be extended, additional requirements, as set forth in other sections of this part, must be met. Additionally, the use of CHAMPUS may be denied if a Uniformed Service medical treatment facility capable of providing the needed care is available. CHAMPUS relies primarily on the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) for eligibility verification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CHAMPUS eligibles</I>—(1) <I>Retiree.</I> A member or former member of a Uniformed Service who is entitled to retired, retainer, or equivalent pay based on duty in a Uniformed Service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dependent.</I> Individuals whose relationship to the sponsor leads to entitlement to benefits. CHAMPUS eligible dependents include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Spouse.</I> A lawful husband or wife of a member or former member. The spouse of a deceased member or retiree must not be remarried. A former spouse also may qualify for benefits as a dependent spouse. A former spouse is a spouse who was married to a military member, or former member, but whose marriage has been terminated by a final decree of divorce, dissolution or annulment. To be eligible for CHAMPUS benefits, a former spouse must meet the criteria described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section <I>and</I> must qualify under the group defined in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>) or (b)(2)(i)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Must be unremarried; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must not be covered by an employer-sponsored health plan; and
</P>
<P>(C) Must have been married to a member or former member who performed at least 20 years of service which can be credited in determining the member's or former member's eligibility for retired or retainer pay; and
</P>
<P>(D) Must not be eligible for Part A of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare) except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (f)(3)(vii), (f)(3)(viii), and (f)(3)(ix) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Must not be the dependent of a NATO member; <I>and</I>
</P>
<P>(F) Must meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>) or (b)(2)(i)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The former spouse must have been married to the same member or former member for at least 20 years, at least 20 of which were creditable in determining the member's or former member's eligibility for retired or retainer pay. Eligibility continues indefinitely unless affected by any of the conditions of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the date of the final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment was before February 1, 1983, the former spouse is eligible for CHAMPUS coverage of health care received on or after January 1, 1985.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the date of the final decree of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment was on or after February 1, 1983, the former spouse is eligible for CHAMPUS coverage of health care which is received on or after the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The former spouse must have been married to the same member or former member for at least 20 years, and at least 15, but less than 20 of those married years were creditable in determining the member's or former member's eligibility for retired or retainer pay.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the date of the final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment is before April 1, 1985, the former spouse is eligible only for care received on or after January 1, 1985, or the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment, whichever is later. Eligibility continues indefinitely unless affected by any of the conditions of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the date of the final decree of divorce, dissolution or annulment is on or after April 1, 1985, but before September 29, 1988, the former spouse is eligible only for care received from the date of the decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment until December 31, 1988, or for two years from the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) If the date of the final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment is on or after September 29, 1988, the former spouse is eligible only for care received within the 365 days (366 days in the case of a leap year) immediately following the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Child.</I> A dependent child is an unmarried child of a member or former member who has not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday, except an incapacitated adopted child meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section, and who bears one of the following relationships to a member or former member of one of the Uniformed Services:
</P>
<P>(A) A legitimate child; or
</P>
<P>(B) An adopted child whose adoption has been legally completed on or before the child's twenty-first (21st) birthday; or
</P>
<P>(C) A legitimate stepchild; or
</P>
<P>(D) An illegitimate child of a <I>member or former member</I> whose paternity/maternity <I>has been</I> determined judicially, and the member or former member directed to support the child; or
</P>
<P>(E) An illegitimate child of a <I>member or former member</I> whose paternity/maternity <I>has not been</I> determined judicially, who resides with or in the home provided by the member or former member, and is or continues to be dependent upon the member or former member for over one-half of his or her support, or who was so dependent on the former member at the time of the former member's death; or
</P>
<P>(F) An illegitimate child of a <I>spouse of a member</I> who resides with or in a home provided by the member and is, and continues to be dependent upon the member for over one-half of his or her support; or
</P>
<P>(G) An illegitimate child of a <I>spouse of a former member</I> who resides with or in a home provided by a former member or the former member's spouse at the time of death of the former member, and is, or continues to be, or was, dependent upon the former member for more than one-half of his or her support at the time of death; or
</P>
<P>(H) An individual who falls into one of the following classes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>A student.</I> A child determined to be a member of one of the classes in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (b)(2)(ii)(G) of this section, who is not married, has passed his or her 21st birthday but has not passed his or her 23rd birthday, is dependent upon the member or former member for over 50 percent of his or her support or was dependent upon the member or former member for over 50 percent of his or her support on the date of the member's or former member's death, and is pursuing a full-time course of education in an institution of higher learning approved by the Secretary of Defense or the Department of Education (as appropriate) or by a state agency under 38 U.S.C. chapters 34 and 35. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Courses of education offered by institutions listed in the “Education Directory,” “Higher Education” or “Accredited Higher Institutions” issued periodically by the Department of Education meet the criteria approved by the Administering Secretary or the Secretary of Education. For determination of approval of courses offered by a foreign institution, by an institution not listed in either of the above directories, or by an institution not approved by a state agency pursuant to 38 U.S.C. chapters 34 and 35, a statement may be obtained from the Department of Education, Washington, D.C. 20202.</P></NOTE>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>An incapacitated child.</I> A child determined to be a member of one of the classes in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (b)(2)(ii)(G) of this section, who is not married and is incapable of self-support because of a mental or physical disability that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Existed before the child's twenty-first (21st) birthday; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Occurred between the ages of 21 and 23 while the child was enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning approved by the Administering Secretary or the Department of Education (see NOTE to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section), and is or was at the time of the member's or former member's death dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of his or her support; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The incapacity is continuous. (If the incapacity significantly improves or ceases at any time, CHAMPUS eligibility cannot be reinstated on the basis of the incapacity, unless the incapacity recurs and the beneficiary is under age 21, or is under age 23 and is enrolled as a full-time student under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section. If the child was not incapacitated after that date, no CHAMPUS eligibility exists on the basis of the incapacity. However, incapacitated children who marry and who subsequently become unmarried through divorce, annulment, or death of spouse, may be reinstated as long as they still meet all other requirements). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An institution of higher learning is a college, university, or similar institution, including a technical or business school, offering post-secondary level academic instruction that leads to an associate or higher degree, if the school is empowered by the appropriate State education authority under State law to grant an associate, or higher, degree. When there is no State law to authorize the granting of a degree, the school may be recognized as an institution of higher learning if it is accredited for degree programs by a recognized accrediting agency. The term also shall include a hospital offering educational programs at the post-secondary level regardless of whether the hospital grants a post-secondary degree. The term also shall include an educational institution that is not located in a State, that offers a course leading to a standard college degree, or the equivalent, and that is recognized as such by the Secretary of Education (or comparable official) of the country, or other jurisdiction, in which the institution is located (38 U.S.C. chapter 34, section 1661, and chapter 35, section 1701.
</P>
<P>Courses of education offered by institutions listed in the “Education Directory,” “Higher Education” or “Accredited Higher Institutions” issued periodically by the Department of Education meet the criteria approved by the Administering Secretary or the Secretary of Education. For determination of approval of courses offered by a foreign institution, by an institution not listed in either of the above directories, or by an institution not approved by a state agency pursuant to chapters 34 and 35 of 38 U.S.C., a statement may be obtained from the Department of Education, Washington, D.C. 20202.</P></NOTE>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>A child of a deceased reservist.</I> A child, who is determined to be a member of one of the classes in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (b)(2)(ii)(G) of this section, of a reservist in a Uniformed Service who incurs or aggravates an injury, illness, or disease, during, or on the way to or from, active duty training for a period of 30 days or less or inactive duty training, and the reservist dies as a result of that specific injury, illness or disease.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>An unmarried person.</I> An unmarried person placed in the home of a member or former member prior to adoption. To be a dependent child, the unmarried person must not have reached the age of 21 (or otherwise meets the requirements of a student or incapacitated child set out in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>1</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section) and has been placed in the home of the member or former member by a recognized placement agency or by any other source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of legal adoption by the member or former member.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Abused dependents</I>—(A) <I>Categories of abused dependents.</I> An abused dependent may be either a spouse or a child. Eligibility for either class of abused dependent results from being either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The spouse (including a former spouse) or child of a member who has received a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, or dismissal from a Uniformed Service as a result of a court-martial conviction for an offense involving physical or emotional abuse of the spouse or child, or was administratively discharged as a result of such an offense. Until October 17, 1998, Medical benefits are limited to care related to the physical or emotional abuse and for a period of 12 months following the member's separation from the Uniformed Service. On or after October 17, 1998, medical benefits can include all under the Basic Program and under the Extended Care Health Option for the period that the spouse or child is in receipt of transitional compensation under section 1059 of title 10 U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The spouse (including a former spouse) or child of a member or former member who while a member and as a result of misconduct involving abuse of the spouse or child has eligibility to receive retired pay on the basis of years of service terminated.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Requirements for categories of abused dependents</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Abused spouse.</I> As long as the spouse is receiving payments from the DoD Military Retirement Fund under court order, the spouse is eligible for health care under the same conditions as any spouse of a retired member. The abused spouse must:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, be a lawful husband or wife or a former spouse of the member; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, be a lawful husband or wife or a former spouse of the member or former member, and the spouse is receiving payments from the Department of Defense Military Retirement Fund under 10 U.S.C. 1408(h) pursuant to a court order; and
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Be a victim of the abuse; and
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Have been married to the member or former member at the time of the abuse; or
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) Be the natural or adoptive parent of a dependent child of the member or former member who was the victim of the abuse.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Abused child.</I> The abused child must:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, be a dependent child of the member or former member.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section,
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Have been a member of the household where the abuse occurred; and
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Be an unmarried legitimate child, including an adopted child or stepchild of the member or former member; and
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) Be under the age of 18; or
</P>
<P>(<I>D</I>) Be incapable of self support because of a mental or physical incapacity that existed before becoming 18 years of age and be dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of his or her support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>E</I>) If enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning recognized by the Secretary of Defense (for the purposed of 10 U.S.C. 1408(h)), be under 23 years of age and be dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of his or her support.
</P>
<P>(<I>F</I>) The dependent child is eligible for health care, regardless of whether any court order exists, under the same conditions as any dependent of a retired member.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>TAMP eligibles.</I> A former member, including his or her dependents, who is eligible under the provisions of the Transitional Assistance Management Program as described in paragraph (e) of this § 199.3.
</P>
<P>(iv) An unmarried person who is placed in the legal custody of a member or former member by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States) for a period of at least 12 consecutive months. The unmarried person shall be considered a dependent of the member or former member under this section provided he or she otherwise meets the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) Has not reached the age of 21 unless he or she otherwise meets the requirements of a student set out in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>1</I>) of this section or the requirements for being incapacitated as set out in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section and the incapacitation occurred while he or she was a dependent of the member or former member through court ordered legal custody;
</P>
<P>(B) Is dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of the person's support;
</P>
<P>(C) Resides with the member or former member unless separated by the necessity of military service or to receive institutional care as a result of disability or incapacitation or under such other authorized circumstances; and,
</P>
<P>(D) Is not a dependent of a member or former member under any other provision of law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligibility under TRICARE Senior Pharmacy Program.</I> Section 711 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001 (Public Law 106-398, 114 Stat. 1654) established the TRICARE Senior Pharmacy Program effective April 1, 2001. To be eligible for this program, a person is required to be: 
</P>
<P>(i) Medicare eligible, who is: 
</P>
<P>(A) 65 years of age or older; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Entitled to Medicare Part A; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Enrolled in Medicare Part B, except for a person who attained age 65 prior to April 1, 2001, is not required to enroll in Part B; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Otherwise qualified under one of the following categories: 
</P>
<P>(A) A retired uniformed service member who is entitled to retired or retainer pay, or equivalent pay including survivors who are annuitants; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A dependent of a member of the uniformed services described in one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A member who is on active duty for a period of more than 30 days or died while on such duty; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A member who died from an injury, illness, or disease incurred or aggravated while the member was: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) On active duty under a call or order to active duty of 30 days or less, on active duty for training, or on inactive duty training; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Traveling to or from the place at which the member was to perform or had performed such active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>Dependent under Section 711 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001 includes spouse, unremarried widow/widower, child, parent/parent-in-law, unremarried former spouse, and unmarried person in the legal custody of a member or former member, as those terms of dependency are defined and periods of eligibility are set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1072(2).</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Medal of Honor recipients.</I> (i) A former member of the armed forces who is a Medal of Honor recipient and who is not otherwise entitled to medical and dental benefits has the same CHAMPUS eligibility as does a retiree. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Immediate dependents.</I> CHAMPUS eligible dependents of a Medal of Honor Recipient are those identified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) of this section (except for former spouses) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section (except for a child placed in legal custody of a Medal of Honor recipient under (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>4</I>) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effective date.</I> The CHAMPUS eligibility established by paragraphs (b)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section is applicable to health care services provided on or after October 30, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reserve Component Members issued delayed-effective-date orders</I>—(i) <I>Member.</I> A member of a reserve component of the armed forces who is ordered to active duty for a period of more than 30 consecutive days in support of a contingency operation under a provision of law referred to in section 101(a)(13)(B) of Title 10, United States Code, that provides for active-duty service to begin on a date after the date of the issuance of the order.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dependents.</I> CHAMPUS eligible dependents under this paragraph (b)(5) are those identified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) (except former spouses) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effective date.</I> The eligibility established by paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section shall begin on or after November 6, 2003, and shall be effective on the later of the date that is:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of issuance of the order referred to in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) 180 days before the date on which the period of active duty is to begin.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Termination date.</I> The eligibility established by paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section ends upon entry of the member onto active duty (at which time CHAMPUS eligibility for the dependents of the member is established under paragraph (b)(2) of this section) or upon cancellation or amendment of the orders referred to in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section such that they no longer meet the requirements of that paragraph (b)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Beginning dates of eligibility.</I> (1) Beginning dates of eligibility depend on the class to which the individual belongs and the date the individual became a member of the class. Those who join after the class became eligible attain individual eligibility on the date they join.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning dates of eligibility for each class of spouse (<I>excluding spouses who are victims of abuse and eligible spouses of certain deceased reservists</I>) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A spouse of a member for:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical benefits authorized by the Dependents' Medical Care Act of 1956, December 7, 1956;
</P>
<P>(B) Outpatient medical benefits under the Basic Program, October 1, 1966;
</P>
<P>(C) Inpatient medical benefits under the Basic Program <I>and</I> benefits under the Extended Care Health Option, January 1, 1967;
</P>
<P>(ii) A spouse of a former member:
</P>
<P>(A) For medical benefits under the Basic Program, January 1, 1967.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A former spouse:
</P>
<P>(A) For medical benefits under the Basic Program, dates of beginning eligibility are as indicated for each category of eligible former spouse identified within paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning dates of eligibility for spouses who are victims of abuse (<I>excluding spouses who are victims of abuse of certain deceased reservists</I>) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) An abused spouse meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, including an eligible former spouse:
</P>
<P>(A) For medical and dental care for problems associated with the physical or emotional abuse under the Basic Program for a period of up to one year (12 months) following the person's separation from the Uniformed Service, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(B) For all medical and dental benefits under the Basic Program for the period that the spouse is in receipt of transitional compensation under section 1059 of title 10 U.S.C., October 17, 1998.
</P>
<P>(C) For medical and dental care for problems associated with the physical or emotional abuse under the Extended Care Health Option for a period up to one year (12 months) following the person's separation from the Uniformed Service, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(D) For all medical and dental benefits described in section 199.5 for the period that the spouse is in receipt of transitional compensation under section 1059 of title 10 U.S.C., October 17, 1998.
</P>
<P>(ii) An abused spouse meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, including an eligible former spouse:
</P>
<P>(A) For all benefits under the CHAMPUS Basic Program, October 23, 1992.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(4) Beginning dates of eligibility for spouses of certain deceased reservists, <I>including spouses who are victims of abuse of certain deceased reservists,</I> are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A spouse meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, including an eligible former spouse:
</P>
<P>(A) For benefits under the Basic Program, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(ii) An abused spouse of certain deceased reservists, meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) of this section, including an eligible former spouse, <I>for the limited benefits and period of eligibility</I> described in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For benefits under the Basic Program, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(B) For benefits under the Extended Care Health Option, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(iii) An abused spouse of certain deceased reservists, including an eligible former spouse, meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For benefits under the Basic Program, October 23, 1992.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option. 
</P>
<P>(5) Beginning dates of eligibility for each class of dependent children, (<I>excluding dependent children of certain deceased reservists, abused children and incapacitated children whose incapacity occurred between the ages of 21 and 23 while enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning</I>), are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Legitimate child, adopted child, or legitimate stepchild of a <I>member,</I> for:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical benefits authorized by the Dependents' Medical Care Act of 1956, December 7, 1956;
</P>
<P>(B) Outpatient medical benefits under the Basic Program, October 1, 1966;
</P>
<P>(C) Inpatient medical benefits under the Basic Program <I>and</I> benefits under the Extended Care Health Option, January 1, 1967;
</P>
<P>(ii) Legitimate child, adopted child or legitimate stepchild of <I>former members</I>:
</P>
<P>(A) For medical benefits under the Basic Program, January 1, 1967.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Illegitimate child of a male or female <I>member or former member</I> whose paternity/maternity has been determined judicially and the member or former member has been directed to support the child, for:
</P>
<P>(A) All benefits for which otherwise entitled, August 31, 1972.
</P>
<P>(B) Extended Care Health Option benefits limited to dependent children of <I>members</I> only, August 31, 1972.
</P>
<P>(iv) Illegitimate child of:
</P>
<P>(A) A male member or former member whose paternity <I>has not been</I> determined judicially:
</P>
<P>(B) A female member or former member who resides with, or in a home provided by the member or former member, or who was residing in a home provided by the member or former member at the time of the member's or former member's death, and who is or continues to be dependent on the member for over one-half of his or her support, or was so dependent on the member or former member at the time of death;
</P>
<P>(C) A spouse of a member or former member who resides with or in a home provided by the member or former member, or the parent who is the spouse of the member or former member or was the spouse of a member or former member at the time of death, and who is and continues to be dependent upon the member or former member for over one-half of his or her support, or was so dependent on the member or former member at the time of death; for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All benefits for which otherwise eligible, January 1, 1969.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Extended Care Health Option limited to dependent children of <I>members</I> only, January 1, 1969.
</P>
<P>(6) Beginning dates of eligibility for children of certain deceased reservists who meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>3</I>) of this section, <I>excluding incapacitated children</I> who meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Benefits under the Basic program, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not eligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option. 
</P>
<P>(7) Beginning dates of eligibility for children who are victims of abuse, <I>including incapacitated children</I> who meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) An abused child meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(<I>2</I>)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical and dental care for problems associated with the physical or emotional abuse under the Basic Program for a period of up to one year (12 months) following the person's separation from the Uniformed Service, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(B) For all medical and dental benefits under the Basic Program for the period that the child is in receipt of transitional compensation under section 1059 of title 10 U.S.C., October 17, 1998.
</P>
<P>(C) Medical and dental care for problems associated with the physical or emotional abuse under the Extended Care Health Option for a period up to one year (12 months) following the person's separation from the Uniformed Service, November 14, 1986.
</P>
<P>(D) For all medical and dental benefits described in section 199.5 for the period that the child is in receipt of transitional compensation under section 1059 of title 10 U.S.C., October 17, 1998.
</P>
<P>(ii) An abused child meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For all benefits under the CHAMPUS Basic Program, October 23, 1992.
</P>
<P>(B) Ineligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(8) Beginning dates of eligibility for incapacitated children who meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section, whose incapacity occurred between the ages of 21 and 23 while enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher learning approved by the Administering Secretary or the Department of Education, and, are or were at the time of the member's or former member's death, dependent on the member or former member for over one-half of their support, for:
</P>
<P>(i) All benefits for which otherwise entitled, October 23, 1992.
</P>
<P>(ii) Extended Care Health Option benefits limited to children of <I>members</I> only, October 23, 1992.
</P>
<P>(9) Beginning dates of eligibility for a child who meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>4</I>) and:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been placed in custody by a court:
</P>
<P>(A) All benefits for which entitled, July 1, 1994.
</P>
<P>(B) Extended Care Health Option benefits limited to children of <I>members</I> only, July 1, 1994.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been placed in custody by a recognized adoption agency:
</P>
<P>(A) All benefits for which entitled, October 5, 1994.
</P>
<P>(B) Extended Care Health Option benefits limited to children of <I>members</I> only, October 5, 1994.
</P>
<P>(iii) Has been placed in the home of a member by a placement agency or by any other source authorized by State or local law to provide adoption placement, in anticipation of the legal adoption of the member:
</P>
<P>(A) All benefits for which entitled, January 6, 2006.
</P>
<P>(B) Extended Care Health Option benefits limited to children of members only, January 6, 2006.
</P>
<P>(10) Beginning dates of eligibility for a retiree for:
</P>
<P>(i) Medical benefits under the Basic Program January 1, 1967.
</P>
<P>(ii) Retirees and their dependents are not eligible for benefits under the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dual eligibility.</I> Dual eligibility occurs when a person is entitled to benefits from two sources. For example, when an active duty member is also the dependent of another active duty member, a retiree, or a deceased active duty member or retiree, dual eligibility, that is, entitlement to direct care from the Uniformed Services medical care system and CHAMPUS is the result. Since the active duty status is primary, and it is the intent that all medical care be provided an active duty member through the Uniformed Services medical care system, CHAMPUS eligibility is terminated as of 12:01 a.m. on the day following the day the dual eligibility begins. However, any dependent children in a marriage of two active duty persons or of an active duty member and a retiree, are CHAMPUS eligible in the same manner as dependent children of a marriage involving only one CHAMPUS sponsor. Should a spouse or dependent who has dual eligibility leave active duty status, that person's CHAMPUS eligibility is reinstated as of 12:01 a.m. of the day active duty ends, if he or she otherwise is eligible as a dependent of a CHAMPUS sponsor.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>No CHAMPUS eligibility arises as the result of the marriage of two active duty members.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Eligibility under the Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP).</I> (1) A member of the armed forces is eligible for transitional health care if the member is:
</P>
<P>(i) A member who is involuntarily separated from active duty.
</P>
<P>(ii) A member of a Reserve component who is separated from active duty to which called or ordered in support of a contingency operation if the active duty is active duty for a period of more than 30 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(iii) A member who is separated from active duty for which the member is involuntarily retained under 10 U.S.C. 12305 in support of a contingency operation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A member who is separated from active duty served pursuant to a voluntary agreement of the member to remain on active duty for a period of less than 1 year in support of a contingency operation.
</P>
<P>(v) A member who receives a sole survivorship discharge (as defined in section 1174(i) of this title).
</P>
<P>(vi) A member who is separated from Active Duty who agrees to become a member of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of a reserve component.
</P>
<P>(2) A spouse (as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section except former spouses) and child (as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section) of a member described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section is also eligible for TAMP benefits under TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(3) TAMP benefits under TRICARE begin on the day after the member is separated from active duty, and, if such separation occurred on or after November 6, 2003, end 180 days after such date. TRICARE benefits available to both the member and eligible family members are generally those available to family members of members of the uniformed services under this Part. However, during TAMP eligibility, a member of a Reserve Component as described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, is entitled to dental care to which a member of the uniformed services on active duty for more than 30 days is entitled. Each branch of service will determine eligibility for its members and eligible family members and provide data to DEERS.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Changes in status which result in termination of CHAMPUS eligibility.</I> Changes in status which result in a loss of CHAMPUS eligibility as of 12:01 a.m. of the day following the day the event occurred, unless otherwise indicated, are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changes in the status of a member.</I> (i) When an active duty member's period of active duty ends, excluding retirement or death.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an active duty member is placed on desertion status (eligibility is reinstated when the active duty member is removed from desertion status and returned to military control).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A member serving a sentence of confinement in conjunction with a sentence of punitive discharge is still considered on active duty until such time as the discharge is executed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in the status of a retiree.</I> (i) When a retiree ceases to be entitled to retired, retainer, or equivalent pay for any reason, the retiree's dependents lose their eligibility unless the dependent is otherwise eligible (e.g., some former spouses, some dependents who are victims of abuse and some incapacitated children as outlined in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) A retiree also loses eligibility when no longer entitled to retired, retainer, or equivalent pay.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A retiree who waives his or her retired, retainer or equivalent pay is still considered a retiree for the purposes of CHAMPUS eligibility.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Attainment of entitlement to hospital insurance benefits (Part A) under Medicare except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (f)(3)(vii), (f)(3)(viii) and (f)(3)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes in the status of a dependent.</I> (i) Divorce, except for certain classes of former spouses as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and the member or former member's <I>own</I> children (i.e., legitimate, adopted, and judicially determined illegitimate children).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An unadopted stepchild loses eligibility as of 12:01 a.m. of the day following the day the divorce becomes final.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Annulment, except for certain classes of former spouse as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and the member or former member's <I>own</I> children (i.e., legitimate, adopted, and judicially determined illegitimate children). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An unadopted stepchild loses eligibility as of 12:01 a.m. of the day following the day the annulment becomes final.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Adoption, except for adoptions occurring after the death of a member or former member.
</P>
<P>(iv) Marriage of a child, except when the marriage is terminated by death, divorce, or annulment before the child is 21 or 23 if an incapacitated child as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Marriage of a widow or widower, except for the child of the widow or widower who was the stepchild of the deceased member or former member at the time of death. The stepchild continues CHAMPUS eligibility as other classes of dependent children.
</P>
<P>(vi) Attainment of entitlement to hospital insurance benefits (Part A) under Medicare except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (f)(3)(vii), (f)(3)(viii), and (f)(3)(ix) of this section. (This also applies to individuals living outside the United States where Medicare benefits are not available.) 
</P>
<P>(vii) Attainment of age 65, except for dependents of active duty members, beneficiaries not entitled to part A of Medicare, beneficiaries entitled to Part A of Medicare who have enrolled in Part B of Medicare, and as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. For those who do not retain CHAMPUS, CHAMPUS eligibility is lost at 12:01 a.m. on the first day of the month in which the beneficiary becomes entitled to Medicare.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the person is not eligible for Part A of Medicare, he or she must file a Social Security Administration, “Notice of Disallowance” certifying to that fact with the Uniformed Service responsible for the issuance of his or her identification card so a new card showing CHAMPUS eligibility can be issued. Individuals entitled only to supplementary medical insurance (Part B) of Medicare, but not Part A, or Part A through the Premium HI provisions (provided for under the 1972 Amendments to the Social Security Act) retain eligibility under CHAMPUS (refer to § 199.8 for additional information when a double coverage situation is involved).</P></NOTE>
<P>(viii) End stage renal disease. All beneficiaries, except dependents of active duty members, lose their CHAMPUS eligibility when Medicare coverage becomes available to a person because of chronic renal disease unless the following conditions have been met. CHAMPUS eligibility will continue if:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual is under 65 years old;
</P>
<P>(B) The individual became eligible for Medicare under the provisions of 42 U.S.C. 426-1(a);
</P>
<P>(C) The individual is enrolled in Part B of Medicare; and
</P>
<P>(D) The individual has applied and qualified for continued CHAMPUS eligibility through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).
</P>
<P>(ix) Individuals with certain disabilities. Each case relating to Medicare eligibility resulting from being disabled requires individual investigation. All beneficiaries except dependents of active duty members lose their CHAMPUS eligibility when Medicare coverage becomes available to a disabled person unless the following conditions have been met. CHAMPUS eligibility will continue if:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual is under 65 years old;
</P>
<P>(B) The individual became eligible for Medicare under the provisions of 42 U.S.C. 426(b)(2);
</P>
<P>(C) The individual is enrolled in Part B of Medicare except that in the case of a retroactive determination of entitlement to Medicare Part A hospital insurance benefits for a person under 65 years of age there is no requirement to enroll in Medicare Part B from the Medicare Part A entitlement date until the issuance of such retroactive determination; and
</P>
<P>(D) The individual has applied and qualified for continued CHAMPUS eligibility through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).
</P>
<P>(x) Disabled students, that is children age 21 or 22, who are pursuing a full-time course of higher education and who, either during the school year or between semesters, suffer a disabling illness or injury with resultant inability to resume attendance at the institution remain eligible for CHAMPUS medical benefits for 6 months after the disability is removed or until the student passes his or her 23rd birthday, whichever occurs first. However, if recovery occurs before the 23rd birthday and there is resumption of a full-time course of higher education, CHAMPUS benefits can be continued until the 23rd birthday. The normal vacation periods during an established school year do not change the eligibility status of a dependent child 21 or 22 years old in a full time student status. Unless an incapacitating condition existed before, and at the time of, a dependent child's 21st birthday, a dependent child 21 or 22 years old in student status <I>does not</I> have eligibility and <I>may not</I> qualify for eligibility under the requirements related to mental or physical incapacity as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reinstatement of CHAMPUS eligibility.</I> Circumstances which result in reinstatement of CHAMPUS eligibility are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>End Stage renal disease.</I> Unless CHAMPUS eligibility has been continued under paragraph (f)(3)(viii) of the section, when Medicare eligibility ceases for end-stage renal disease patients, CHAMPUS eligibility resumes if the person is otherwise still eligible. He or she is required to take action to be reinstated as a CHAMPUS beneficiary and to obtain a new identification card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disability.</I> Some disabilities are permanent, others temporary. Each case must be reviewed individually. Unless CHAMPUS eligibility has been continued under paragraph (f)(3)(ix) of this section, when disability ends and Medicare eligibility ceases, CHAMPUS eligibility resumes if the person is otherwise still eligible. Again, he or she is required to take action to obtain a new CHAMPUS identification card.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Enrollment in Medicare Part B.</I> For individuals whose CHAMPUS eligibility has terminated pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) or (f)(3)(vi) of this section due to beneficiary action to decline Part B of Medicare, CHAMPUS eligibility resumes, effective on the date Medicare Part B coverage begins, if the person subsequently enrolls in Medicare Part B and the person is otherwise still eligible.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Determination of eligibility status.</I> Determination of an individual's eligibility as a CHAMPUS beneficiary is the primary responsibility of the Uniformed Service in which the member or former member is, or was, a member, or in the case of dependents of a NATO military member, the Service that sponsors the NATO member. For the purpose of program integrity, the appropriate Uniformed Service shall, upon request of the Director, OCHAMPUS, review the eligibility of a specific person when there is reason to question the eligibility status. In such cases, a report on the results of the review and any action taken will be submitted to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures for determination of eligibility.</I> Procedures for the determination of eligibility are prescribed within the Department of Defense Instruction 1000.13 available at local military facilities personnel offices.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>CHAMPUS procedures for verification of eligibility.</I> (1) Eligibility for CHAMPUS benefits will be verified through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) maintained by the Uniformed Services, except for abused dependents as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. It is the responsibility of the CHAMPUS beneficiary, or parent, or legal representative, when appropriate, to provide the necessary evidence required for entry into the DEERS file to establish CHAMPUS eligibility and to ensure that all changes in status that may affect eligibility be reported immediately to the appropriate Uniformed Service for action.
</P>
<P>(2) Ineligibility for CHAMPUS benefits may be presumed in the absence of prescribed eligibility evidence in the DEERS file.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director, OCHAMPUS, shall issue guidelines as necessary to implement the provisions of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 46135, Aug. 24, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 9654, Feb. 9, 2001; 66 FR 16400, Mar. 26, 2001; 66 FR 40606, Aug. 3, 2001; 67 FR 15725, Apr. 3, 2002; 68 FR 23032, Apr. 30, 2003; 68 FR 32361, May 30, 2003; 69 FR 51564, Aug. 20, 2004; 69 FR 60554, Oct. 12, 2004; 70 FR 12802, Mar. 16, 2005; 72 FR 2447, Jan. 19, 2007; 75 FR 50883, Aug. 18, 2010; 76 FR 81367, Dec. 28, 2011; 77 FR 38176, June 27, 2012; 80 FR 55254, Sept. 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.4   Basic program benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The CHAMPUS Basic Program is essentially a supplemental program to the Uniformed Services direct medical care system. The Basic Program is similar to private insurance programs, and is designed to provide financial assistance to CHAMPUS beneficiaries for certain prescribed medical care obtained from civilian sources.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Scope of benefits.</I> Subject to all applicable definitions, conditions, limitations, or exclusions specified in this part, the CHAMPUS Basic Program will pay for medically or psychologically necessary services and supplies required in the diagnosis and treatment of illness or injury, including maternity care and well-baby care. Benefits include specified medical services and supplies provided to eligible beneficiaries from authorized civilian sources such as hospitals, other authorized institutional providers, physicians, other authorized individual professional providers, and professional ambulance service, prescription drugs, authorized medical supplies, and rental or purchase of durable medical equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impact of TRICARE program.</I> The basic program benefits set forth in this section are applicable to the basic CHAMPUS program. In areas in which the TRICARE program is implemented, certain provisions of § 199.17 will apply instead of the provisions of this section. In those areas, the provisions of § 199.17 will take precedence over any provisions of this section with which they conflict.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Persons eligible for Basic Program benefits.</I> Persons eligible to receive the Basic Program benefits are set forth in § 199.3 of this part. Any person determined to be an eligible CHAMPUS beneficiary is eligible for Basic Program benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to act for CHAMPUS.</I> The authority to make benefit determinations and authorize the disbursement of funds under CHAMPUS is restricted to the Director, OCHAMPUS; designated OCHAMPUS staff; Director, OCHAMPUSEUR; or CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries. No other persons or agents (such as physicians, staff members of hospitals, or CHAMPUS health benefits advisors) have such authority.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Status of patient controlling for purposes of cost-sharing.</I> Benefits for covered services and supplies described in this section will be extended either on an inpatient or outpatient cost-sharing basis in accordance with the status of the patient at the time the covered services and supplies were provided, unless otherwise specifically designated (such as for ambulance service or maternity care). For cost-sharing provisions, refer to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Right to information.</I> As a condition precedent to the provision of benefits hereunder, OCHAMPUS or its CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries shall be entitled to receive information from a physician or hospital or other person, institution, or organization (including a local, state, or U.S. Government agency) providing services or supplies to the beneficiary for which claims or requests for approval for benefits are submitted. Such information and records may relate to the attendance, testing, monitoring, or examination or diagnosis of, or treatment rendered, or services and supplies furnished to a beneficiary, and shall be necessary for the accurate and efficient administration of CHAMPUS benefits. Before a determination will be made on a request for preauthorization or claim of benefits, a beneficiary or sponsor must provide particular additional information relevant to the requested determination, when necessary. The recipient of such information shall in every case hold such records confidential except when:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of such information is authorized specifically by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure is necessary to permit authorized governmental officials to investigate and prosecute criminal actions, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure is authorized or required specifically under the terms of the Privacy Act or Freedom of Information Act (refer to § 199.1(m) of this part).
</P>
<FP>For the purposes of determining the applicability of and implementing the provisions of §§ 199.8, 199.11, and 199.12, or any provision of similar purpose of any other medical benefits coverage or entitlement, OCHAMPUS or CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries may release, without consent or notice to any beneficiary or sponsor, to any person, organization, government agency, provider, or other entity any information with respect to any beneficiary when such release constitutes a routine use published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with DoD 5400.11-R (Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a)). Before a person's claim of benefits will be adjudicated, the person must furnish to CHAMPUS information that reasonably may be expected to be in his or her possession and that is necessary to make the benefit determination. Failure to provide the requested information may result in denial of the claim.
</FP>
<P>(6) <I>Physical examinations.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may require a beneficiary to submit to one or more medical (including psychiatric) examinations to determine the beneficiary's entitlement to benefits for which application has been made or for otherwise authorized medically necessary services and supplies required in the diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury (including maternity and well-baby care). When a medical examination has been requested, CHAMPUS will withhold payment of any pending claims or preauthorization requests on that particular beneficiary. If the beneficiary refuses to agree to the requested medical examination, or unless prevented by a medical reason acceptable to OCHAMPUS, the examination is not performed within 90 days of initial request, all pending claims for services and supplies will be denied. A denial of payments for services or supplies provided before (and related to) the request for a physical examination is not subject to reconsideration. The medical examination and required beneficiary travel related to performing the requested medical examination will be at the expense of CHAMPUS. The medical examination may be performed by a physician in a Uniformed Services medical facility or by an appropriate civilian physician, as determined and selected by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee who is responsible for making such arrangements as are necessary, including necessary travel arrangements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Claims filing deadline.</I> For all services provided on or after January 1, 1993, to be considered for benefits, all claims submitted for benefits must, except as provided in § 199.7, be filed with the appropriate CHAMPUS contractor no later than one year after the services are provided. Unless the requirement is waived, failure to file a claim within this deadline waives all rights to benefits for such services or supplies. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Double coverage and third party recoveries.</I> CHAMPUS claims involving double coverage or the possibility that the United States can recover all or a part of its expenses from a third party, are specifically subject to the provisions of § 199.8 or § 199.12 of this part as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Nonavailability Statements within a 40-mile catchment area.</I> Unless required by action of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)) under this paragraph (a)(9), nonavailability statements are not required. If they are required by ASD(HA) action, in some geographic locations, CHAMPUS beneficiaries not enrolled in TRICARE Prime may be required to obtain a nonavailability statement from a military medical treatment facility in order to receive specifically identified health care services from a civilian provider. If the required care cannot be provided through the Uniformed Service facility, the hospital commander, or a designee, will issue a Nonavailability Statement (NAS) (DD Form 1251). Failure to secure such a statement may waive the beneficiary's rights to benefits under CHAMPUS/TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(i) With the exception of maternity services, the ASD(HA) may require an NAS prior to TRICARE cost-sharing for additional services from civilian sources if such services are to be provided to a beneficiary who lives within a 40-mile catchment area of an MTF where such services are available and the ASD(HA):
</P>
<P>(A) Demonstrates that significant costs would be avoided by performing specific procedures at the affected MTF or MTFs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Determines that a specific procedure must be provided at the affected MTF or MTFs to ensure the proficiency levels of the practitioners at the MTF or MTFs; or
</P>
<P>(C) Determines that the lack of NAS data would significantly interfere with TRICARE contract administration; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provides notification of the ASD(HA)'s intent to require an NAS under this authority to covered beneficiaries who receive care at the MTF or MTFs that will be affected by the decision to require an NAS under this authority; and
</P>
<P>(E) Provides at least 60-day notification to the Committees on Armed Services of the House of Representatives and the Senate of the ASD(HA)'s intent to require an NAS under this authority, the reason for the NAS requirement, and the date that an NAS will be required.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rules in effect at the time civilian medical care is provided apply. The applicable rules and regulations regarding Nonavailability Statements in effect at the time the civilian care is rendered apply in determining whether a NAS is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director, TMA is responsible for issuing the procedural rules and regulations regarding Nonavailability Statements. Such rules and regulations should address:
</P>
<P>(A) When and for what services a NAS is required. However, a NAS may not be required for services otherwise available at an MTF located within a 40-mile radius of the beneficiary's residence when another insurance plan or program provides the beneficiary's primary coverage for the services. This requirement for an NAS does not apply to beneficiaries enrolled in TRICARE Prime, even when those beneficiaries use the point-of-service option under § 199.17(n)(3) of this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) When and how notifications will be made to a beneficiary who is not enrolled in TRICARE Prime as to whether or not he or she resides in a geographic area that requires obtaining a NAS; and
</P>
<P>(C) What information relating to claims submissions, including the documentation, if any, that is required to document that a valid NAS was issued. However, when documentation of a NAS is required, then that documentation shall be valid for the adjudication of CHAMPUS claims for all related care otherwise authorized by this part which is received from a civilian source while the beneficiary resided within the Uniformed Service facility catchment area which issued the NAS.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any service subject to a NAS requirement under this paragraph (a)(9) and also subject to a preadmission (or other pre-service) authorization requirement under § 199.4 or § 199.15 of this part, the administrative processes for the NAS and pre-service authorization may be combined.
</P>
<P>(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(11) Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program. All benefits under the CHAMPUS program are subject to review under the CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program pursuant to Sec 199.15.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Implementing instructions.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS shall issue policies, procedures, instructions, guidelines, standards and/or criteria to implement this section.
</P>
<P>(14<I>) Confidentiality of substance use disorder treatment.</I> Release of any patient identifying information, including that required to adjudicate a claim, must comply with the provisions of section 543 of the Public Health Service Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 290dd-2), and implementing regulations at 42 CFR part 2, which governs the release of medical and other information from the records of patients undergoing treatment of substance use disorder. If the patient refuses to authorize the release of medical records which are, in the opinion of the Director, Defense Health Agency, or a designee, necessary to determine benefits on a claim for treatment of substance use disorder, the claim will be denied.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institutional benefits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Services and supplies provided by an institutional provider authorized as set forth in § 199.6 may be cost-shared only when such services or supplies: are otherwise authorized by this part; are medically necessary; are ordered, directed, prescribed, or delivered by an OCHAMPUS-authorized individual professional provider as set forth in § 199.6 or by an employee of the authorized institutional provider who is otherwise eligible to be a CHAMPUS authorized individual professional provider; are delivered in accordance with generally accepted norms for clinical practice in the United States; meet established quality standards; and comply with applicable definitions, conditions, limitations, exceptions, or exclusions as otherwise set forth in this part. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Billing practices.</I> To be considered for benefits under § 199.4(b), covered services and supplies must be provided and billed for by a hospital or other authorized institutional provider. Such billings must be fully itemized and sufficiently descriptive to permit CHAMPUS to determine whether benefits are authorized by this part. Depending on the individual circumstances, teaching physician services may be considered an institutional benefit in accordance with § 199.4(b) or a professional benefit under § 199.4(c). See paragraph (c)(3)(xiii) of this section for the CHAMPUS requirements regarding teaching physicians. In the case of continuous care, claims shall be submitted to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary at least every 30 days either by the beneficiary or sponsor or, on a participating basis, directly by the facility on behalf of the beneficiary (refer to § 199.7).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Successive inpatient admissions.</I> Successive inpatient admissions shall be deemed one inpatient confinement for the purpose of computing the active duty dependent's share of the inpatient institutional charges, provided not more than 60 days have elapsed between the successive admissions, except that successive inpatient admissions related to a single maternity episode shall be considered one confinement, regardless of the number of days between admissions. For the purpose of applying benefits, successive admissions will be determined separately for maternity admissions and admissions related to an accidental injury (refer to § 199.4(f)). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Related services and supplies.</I> Covered services and supplies must be rendered in connection with and related directly to a covered diagnosis or definitive set of symptoms requiring otherwise authorized medically necessary treatment. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Inpatient, appropriate level required.</I> For purposes of inpatient care, the level of institutional care for which Basic Program benefits may be extended must be at the appropriate level required to provide the medically necessary treatment except for patients requiring skilled nursing facility care. For patients for whom skilled nursing facility care is adequate, but is not available in the general locality, benefits may be continued in the higher level care facility. General locality means an area that includes all the skilled nursing facilities within 50 miles of the higher level facility, unless the higher level facility can demonstrate that the skilled nursing facilities are inaccessible to its patients. The decision as to whether a skilled nursing facility is within the higher level facility's general locality, or the skilled nursing facility is inaccessible to the higher level facility's patients shall be a CHAMPUS contractor initial determination for the purposes of appeal under § 199.10 of this part. CHAMPUS institutional benefit payments shall be limited to the allowable cost that would have been incurred in the skilled nursing facility, as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. If it is determined that the institutional care can be provided reasonably in the home setting, no CHAMPUS institutional benefits are payable. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>General or special education not covered.</I> Services and supplies related to the provision of either regular or special education generally are not covered. Such exclusion applies whether a separate charge is made for education or whether it is included as a part of an overall combined daily charge of an institution. In the latter instance, that portion of the overall combined daily charge related to education must be determined, based on the allowable costs of the educational component, and deleted from the institution's charges before CHAMPUS benefits can be extended. The only exception is when appropriate education is not available from or not payable by the cognizant public entity. Each case must be referred to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, for review and a determination of the applicability of CHAMPUS benefits. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Substance use disorder treatment exclusions.</I> (A) The programmed use of physical measures, such as electric shock, alcohol, or other drugs as negative reinforcement (aversion therapy) is not covered, even if recommended by a physician.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Domiciliary settings.</I> Domiciliary facilities generally referred to as halfway or quarterway houses are not authorized providers and charges for services provided by these facilities are not covered.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered hospital services and supplies</I>—(i) <I>Room and board.</I> Includes special diets, laundry services, and other general housekeeping support services (inpatient only).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General staff nursing services.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ICU.</I> Includes specialized units, such as for respiratory conditions, cardiac surgery, coronary care, burn care, or neurosurgery (inpatient only).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Operating room, recovery room.</I> Operating room and recovery room, including other special treatment rooms and equipment, and hyperbaric chamber.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Drugs and medicines.</I> Includes sera, biologicals, and pharmaceutical preparations (including insulin) that are listed in the official formularies of the institution or facility at the time of use. (To be considered as an inpatient supply, drugs and medicines must be consumed during the specific period the beneficiary is a registered inpatient. Drugs and medicines prescribed for use outside the hospital, even though prescribed and obtained while still a registered inpatient, will be considered outpatient supplies and the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section will apply.)
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Durable medical equipment, medical supplies, and dressings.</I> Includes durable medical equipment, medical supplies essential to a surgical procedure (such as artificial heart valve and artificial ball and socket joint), sterile trays, casts, and orthopedic hardware. Use of durable medical equipment is restricted to an inpatient basis.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If durable medical equipment is to be used on an outpatient basis or continued in outpatient status after use as an inpatient, benefits will be provided as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and cost-sharing will be on an outpatient basis (refer to paragraph (a)(4) of this section).</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) <I>Diagnostic services.</I> Includes clinical laboratory examinations, x-ray examinations, pathological examinations, and machine tests that produce hard-copy results. Also includes CT scanning under certain limited conditions.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Anesthesia.</I> Includes both the anesthetic agent and its administration.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Blood.</I> Includes blood, plasma and its derivatives, including equipment and supplies, and its administration.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Radiation therapy.</I> Includes radioisotopes.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Physical therapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Oxygen.</I> Includes equipment for its administration.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Intravenous injections.</I> Includes solution.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Shock therapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Chemotherapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Renal and peritoneal dialysis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Psychological evaluation tests.</I> When required by the diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Other medical services.</I> Includes such other medical services as may be authorized by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, provided they are related directly to the diagnosis or definitive set of symptoms and rendered by a member of the institution's medical or professional staff (either salaried or contractual) and billed for by the hospital.
</P>
<P>(xix) <I>Medication assisted treatment.</I> Covered drugs and medicines for the treatment of substance use disorder include the substitution of a therapeutic drug, with addictive potential, for a drug addiction when medically or psychologically necessary and appropriate medical care for a beneficiary undergoing supervised treatment for a substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Withdrawal management (detoxification).</I> For a beneficiary undergoing treatment for a substance use disorder, this includes management of a patient's withdrawal symptoms (detoxification).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered services and supplies provided by special medical treatment institutions or facilities, other than hospitals or RTCs—</I>(i) <I>Room and board.</I> Includes special diets, laundry services, and other general housekeeping support services (inpatient only).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General staff nursing services.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Drugs and medicines.</I> Includes sera, biologicals, and pharmaceutical preparations (including insulin) that are listed in the official formularies of the institution or facility at the time of use. (To be considered as an inpatient supply, drugs and medicines must be consumed during the specific period the beneficiary is a registered inpatient. Drugs and medicines prescribed for use outside the authorized institutional provider, even though prescribed and obtained while still a registered inpatient, will be considered outpatient supplies and the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section will apply.).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Durable medical equipment, medical supplies, and dressings.</I> Includes durable medical equipment, sterile trays, casts, orthopedic hardware and dressings. Use of durable medical equipment is restricted to an inpatient basis.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the durable medical equipment is to be used on an outpatient basis or continued in outpatient status after use as an inpatient, benefits will be provided as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, and cost-sharing will be on an outpatient basis (refer to paragraph (a)(4) of this section).</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) <I>Diagnostic services.</I> Includes clinical laboratory examinations, x-ray examinations, pathological examination, and machine tests that produce hard-copy results.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Blood.</I> Includes blood, plasma and its derivatives, including equipment and supplies, and its administration.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Physical therapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Oxygen.</I> Includes equipment for its administration.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Intravenous injections.</I> Includes solution.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Shock therapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Chemotherapy.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Psychological evaluation tests.</I> When required by the diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Renal and peritoneal dialysis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Skilled nursing facility (SNF) services.</I> Covered services in SNFs are the same as provided under Medicare under section 1861(h) and (i) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x(h) and (i)) and 42 CFR part 409, subparts C and D, except that the Medicare limitation on the number of days of coverage under section 1812(a) and (b) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395d(a) and (b)) and 42 CFR 409.61(b) shall not be applicable under TRICARE. Skilled nursing facility care for each spell of illness shall continue to be provided for as long as medically necessary and appropriate. For a SNF admission to be covered under TRICARE, the beneficiary must have a qualifying hospital stay meaning an inpatient hospital stay of three consecutive days or more, not including the hospital leave day. The beneficiary must enter the SNF within 30 days of leaving the hospital, or within such time as it would be medically appropriate to begin an active course of treatment, where the individual's condition is such that SNF care would not be medically appropriate within 30 days after discharge from a hospital. The skilled services must be for a medical condition that was either treated during the qualifying three-day hospital stay, or started while the beneficiary was already receiving covered SNF care. Additionally, an individual shall be deemed not to have been discharged from a SNF, if within 30 days after discharge from a SNF, the individual is again admitted to a SNF. Adoption by TRICARE of most Medicare coverage standards does not include Medicare coinsurance amounts. Extended care services furnished to an inpatient of a SNF by such SNF (except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(xiv)(C), (b)(3)(xiv)(F), and (b)(3)(xiv)(G) of this section) include:
</P>
<P>(A) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;
</P>
<P>(B) Bed and board in connection with the furnishing of such nursing care;
</P>
<P>(C) Physical or occupational therapy or speech-language pathology services furnished by the SNF or by others under arrangements with them by the facility;
</P>
<P>(D) Medical social services;
</P>
<P>(E) Such drugs, biological, supplies, appliances, and equipment, furnished for use in the SNF, as are ordinarily furnished for the care and treatment of inpatients; 
</P>
<P>(F) Medical services provided by an intern or resident-in-training of a hospital with which the facility has such an agreement in effect; and
</P>
<P>(G) Such other services necessary to the health of the patients as are generally provided by SNFs, or by others under arrangements with them made by the facility.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Other medical services.</I> Other medical services may be authorized by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, provided they are related directly to the diagnosis or definitive set of symptoms and rendered by a member of the institution's medical or professional staff (either salaried or contractual) and billed for by the authorized institutional provider of care.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Medication assisted treatment.</I> Covered drugs and medicines for the treatment of substance use disorder include the substitution of a therapeutic drug, with addictive potential, for a drug addiction when medically or psychologically necessary and appropriate medical care for a beneficiary undergoing supervised treatment for a substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Withdrawal management (detoxification).</I> For a beneficiary undergoing treatment for a substance use disorder, this includes management of a patient's withdrawal symptoms (detoxification).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Services and supplies provided by RTCs</I>—(i) <I>Room and board.</I> Includes use of residential facilities such as food service (including special diets), laundry services, supervised reasonable recreational and social activity services, and other general services as considered appropriate by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patient assessment.</I> Includes the assessment of each child or adolescent accepted by the RTC, including clinical consideration of each of his or her fundamental needs, that is, physical, psychological, chronological age, developmental level, family, educational, social, environmental, and recreational.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Diagnostic services.</I> Includes clinical laboratory examinations, x-ray examinations, pathological examinations, and machine tests that produce hard-copy results.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Psychological evaluation tests.</I> 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Treatment of mental disorders.</I> Services and supplies that are medically or psychologically necessary to diagnose and treat the mental disorder for which the patient was admitted to the RTC. Covered services and requirements for qualifications of providers are as listed in paragraph (c)(3)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Other necessary medical care.</I> Emergency medical services or other authorized medical care may be rendered by the RTC provided it is professionally capable of rendering such services and meets standards required by the Director, OCHAMPUS. It is intended, however, that CHAMPUS payments to an RTC should primarily cover those services and supplies directly related to the treatment of mental disorders that require residential care.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity.</I> In determining the medical or psychological necessity of services and supplies provided by RTCs, the evaluation conducted by the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee) shall consider the appropriate level of care for the patient, the intensity of services required by the patient, and the availability of that care. In addition to the criteria set forth in this paragraph (b)(4) of this section, additional evaluation standards, consistent with such criteria, may be adopted by the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee). RTC services and supplies shall not be considered medically or psychologically necessary unless, at a minimum, <I>all</I> the following criteria are clinically determined in the evaluation to be fully met: 
</P>
<P>(A) Patient has a diagnosable psychiatric disorder. 
</P>
<P>(B) Patient exhibits patterns of disruptive behavior with evidence of disturbances in family functioning or social relationships and persistent psychological and/or emotional disturbances. 
</P>
<P>(C) RTC services involve active clinical treatment under an individualized treatment plan that provides for: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Specific level of care, and measurable goals/objectives relevant to each of the problems identified; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Skilled interventions by qualified mental health professionals to assist the patient and/or family; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Time frames for achieving proposed outcomes; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Evaluation of treatment progress to include timely reviews and updates as appropriate of the patient's treatment plan that reflects alterations in the treatment regimen, the measurable goals/objectives, and the level of care required for each of the patient's problems, and explanations of any failure to achieve the treatment goals/objectives. 
</P>
<P>(D) Unless therapeutically contraindicated, the family and/or guardian must actively participate in the continuing care of the patient either through direct involvement at the facility or geographically distant family therapy. (In the latter case, the treatment center must document that there has been collaboration with the family and/or guardian in all reviews.) 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Extent of institutional benefits</I>—(i) <I>Inpatient room accommodations</I>—(A) <I>Semiprivate.</I> The allowable costs for room and board furnished an individual patient are payable for semiprivate accommodations in a hospital or other authorized institution, subject to appropriate cost-sharing provisions (refer to paragraph (f) of this section). A semiprivate accommodation is a room containing at least two beds. Therefore, if a room publicly is designated by the institution as a semiprivate accommodation and contains multiple beds, it qualifies as semiprivate for the purpose of CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Private.</I> A room with one bed that is designated as a private room by the hospital or other authorized institutional provider. The allowable cost of a private room accommodation is covered only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When its use is required medically and when the attending physician certifies that a private room is necessary medically for the proper care and treatment of a patient; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a patient's medical condition requires isolation; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) When a patient (in need of immediate inpatient care but not requiring a private room) is admitted to a hospital or other authorized institution that has semiprivate accommodations, but at the time of admission, such accommodations are occupied; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) When a patient is admitted to an acute care hospital (general or special) without semiprivate rooms.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Duration of private room stay.</I> The allowable cost of private accommodations is covered under the circumstances described in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) of this section until the patient's condition no longer requires the private room for medical reasons or medical isolation; or, in the case of the patient not requiring a private room, when a semiprivate accommodation becomes available; or, in the case of an acute care hospital (general or special) which does not have semiprivate rooms, for the duration of an otherwise covered inpatient stay. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Hospital (except an acute care hospital, general or special) or other authorized institutional provider without semiprivate accommodations.</I> When a beneficiary is admitted to a hospital (except an acute care hospital, general or special) or other institution that has no semiprivate accommodations, for any inpatient day when the patient qualifies for use of a private room (as set forth in paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(B) (<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section) the allowable cost of private accommodations is covered. For any inpatient day in such a hospital or other authorized institution when the patient does not require medically the private room, the allowable cost of semiprivate accommodations is covered, such allowable costs to be determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General staff nursing services.</I> General staff nursing services cover all nursing care (other than that provided by private duty nurses) including, but not limited to, general duty nursing, emergency room nursing, recovery room nursing, intensive nursing care, and group nursing arrangements. Only nursing services provided by nursing personnel on the payroll of the hospital or other authorized institution are eligible under paragraph (b) of this section. If a nurse who is not on the payroll of the hospital or other authorized institution is called in specifically to care for a single patient (individual nursing) or more than one patient (group nursing), whether the patient is billed for the nursing services directly or through the hospital or other institution, such services constitute private duty (special) nursing services and are not eligible for benefits under this paragraph (the provisions of paragraph (c)(2)(xv) of this section would apply).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ICU.</I> An ICU is a special segregated unit of a hospital in which patients are concentrated, by reason of serious illness, usually without regard to diagnosis. Special lifesaving techniques and equipment are available regularly and immediately within the unit, and patients are under continuous observation by a nursing staff specially trained and selected for the care of this type of patient. The unit is maintained on a continuing, rather than an intermittent or temporary, basis. It is not a postoperative recovery room or a postanesthesia room. In some large or highly specialized hospitals, the ICUs may be refined further for special purposes, such as for respiratory conditions, cardiac surgery, coronary care, burn care, or neurosurgery. For purposes of CHAMPUS, these specialized units would be considered ICUs if they otherwise conformed to the definition of an ICU.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Treatment rooms.</I> Standard treatment rooms include emergency rooms, operating rooms, recovery rooms, special treatment rooms, and hyperbaric chambers and all related necessary medical staff and equipment. To be recognized for purposes of CHAMPUS, treatment rooms must be so designated and maintained by the hospital or other authorized institutions on a continuing basis. A treatment room set up on an intermittent or temporary basis would not be so recognized.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Drugs and medicines.</I> Drugs and medicines are included as a supply of a hospital or other authorized institution only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) They represent a cost to the facility rendering treatment; 
</P>
<P>(B) They are furnished to a patient receiving treatment, and are related directly to that treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(C) They are ordinarily furnished by the facility for the care and treatment of inpatients.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Durable medical equipment, medical supplies, and dressings.</I> Durable medical equipment, medical supplies, and dressings are included as a supply of a hospital or other authorized institution only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If ordinarily furnished by the facility for the care and treatment of patients; and
</P>
<P>(B) If specifically related to, and in connection with, the condition for which the patient is being treated; and
</P>
<P>(C) If ordinarily furnished to a patient for use in the hospital or other authorized institution (except in the case of a temporary or disposable item); and 
</P>
<P>(D) Use of durable medical equipment is limited to those items provided while the patient is an inpatient. If such equipment is provided for use on an outpatient basis, the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Transitional use items.</I> Under certain circumstances, a temporary or disposable item may be provided for use beyond an inpatient stay, when such item is necessary medically to permit or facilitate the patient's departure from the hospital or other authorized institution, or which may be required until such time as the patient can obtain a continuing supply; or it would be unreasonable or impossible from a medical standpoint to discontinue the patient's use of the item at the time of termination of his or her stay as an inpatient.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Anesthetics and oxygen.</I> Anesthetics and oxygen and their administration are considered a service or supply if furnished by the hospital or other authorized institution, or by others under arrangements made by the facility under which the billing for such services is made through the facility.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inpatient mental health services.</I> Inpatient mental health services are those services furnished by institutional and professional providers for treatment of a nervous or mental disorder (as defined in § 199.2) to a patient admitted to a CHAMPUS-authorized acute care general hospital; a psychiatric hospital; or, unless otherwise exempted, a special institutional provider.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity.</I> In determining the medical or psychological necessity of acute inpatient mental health services, the evaluation conducted by the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee) shall consider the appropriate level of care for the patient, the intensity of services required by the patient, and the availability of that care. The purpose of such acute inpatient care is to stabilize a life-threatening or severely disabling condition within the context of a brief, intensive model of inpatient care in order to permit management of the patient's condition at a less intensive level of care. Such care is appropriate only if the patient requires services of an intensity and nature that are generally recognized as being effectively and safely provided only in an acute inpatient hospital setting. In addition to the criteria set forth in this paragraph (b)(6) of this section, additional evaluation standards, consistent with such criteria, may be adopted by the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee). Acute inpatient care shall not be considered necessary unless the patient needs to be observed and assessed on a 24-hour basis by skilled nursing staff, and/or requires continued intervention by a multidisciplinary treatment team; and in addition, at least one of the following criteria is determined to be met: 
</P>
<P>(A) Patient poses a serious risk of harm to self and/or others. 
</P>
<P>(B) Patient is in need of high dosage, intensive medication or somatic and/or psychological treatment, with potentially serious side effects. 
</P>
<P>(C) Patient has acute disturbances of mood, behavior, or thinking. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency admissions.</I> Admission to an acute inpatient hospital setting may be on an emergency or on a non-emergency basis. In order for an admission to qualify as an emergency, the following criteria, in addition to those in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, must be met: 
</P>
<P>(A) The patient must be at immediate risk of serious harm to self and or others based on a psychiatric evaluation performed by a physician (or other qualified mental health professional with hospital admission authority); and 
</P>
<P>(B) The patient requires immediate continuous skilled observation and treatment at the acute psychiatric level of care. 
</P>
<P>(iii)-(iv)[Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency inpatient hospital services.</I> In the case of a medical emergency, benefits can be extended for medically necessary inpatient services and supplies provided to a beneficiary by a hospital, including hospitals that do not meet CHAMPUS standards or comply with the nondiscrimination requirements under title VI of the Civil Rights Act and other nondiscrimination laws applicable to recipients of federal financial assistance, or satisfy other conditions herein set forth. In a medical emergency, medically necessary inpatient services and supplies are those that are necessary to prevent the death or serious impairment of the health of the patient, and that, because of the threat to the life or health of the patient, necessitate, the use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish such services. Emergency services are covered when medically necessary for the active medical treatment of the acute phases of substance withdrawal (detoxification), for stabilization and for treatment of medical complications for substance use disorder. The availability of benefits depends upon the following three separate findings and continues only as long as the emergency exists, as determined by medical review. If the case qualified as an emergency at the time of admission to an unauthorized institutional provider and the emergency subsequently is determined no longer to exist, benefits will be extended up through the date of notice to the beneficiary and provider that CHAMPUS benefits no longer are payable in that hospital.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Existence of medical emergency.</I> A determination that a medical emergency existed with regard to the patient's condition; 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Immediate admission required.</I> A determination that the condition causing the medical emergency required immediate admission to a hospital to provide the emergency care; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Closest hospital utilized.</I> A determination that diagnosis or treatment was received at the most accessible (closest) hospital available and equipped to furnish the medically necessary care.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Residential treatment for substance use disorder</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Rehabilitative care, to include withdrawal management (detoxification), in an inpatient residential setting of an authorized hospital or substance use disorder rehabilitative facility, whether free-standing or hospital-based, is covered on a residential basis. The medical necessity for the management of withdrawal symptoms must be documented. Any withdrawal management (detoxification) services provided by the substance use disorder rehabilitation facility must be under general medical supervision.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity of residential treatment for substance use disorder.</I> Residential treatment for substance use disorder will be considered necessary only if all of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(A) The patient has been diagnosed with a substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(B) The patient is experiencing withdrawal symptoms or potential symptoms severe enough to require inpatient care and physician management, or who have less severe symptoms that require 24-hour inpatient monitoring or the patient's addiction-related symptoms, or concomitant physical and emotional/behavioral problems reflect persistent dysfunction in several major life areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Services and supplies.</I> The following services and supplies are included in the per diem rate approved for an authorized residential treatment for substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Room and board.</I> Includes use of the residential treatment program facilities such as food service (including special diets), laundry services, supervised therapeutically constructed recreational and social activities, and other general services as considered appropriate by the Director, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Patient assessment.</I> Includes the assessment of each individual accepted by the facility, and must, at a minimum, consist of a physical examination; psychiatric examination; psychological assessment; assessment of physiological, biological and cognitive processes; case management assessment; developmental assessment; family history and assessment; social history and assessment; educational or vocational history and assessment; environmental assessment; and recreational/activities assessment. Assessments conducted within 30 days prior to admission to a residential treatment program for substance use disorder (SUD) may be used if approved and deemed adequate to permit treatment planning by the residential treatment program for SUD.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Psychological testing.</I> Psychological testing is provided based on medical and psychological necessity.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Treatment services.</I> All services, supplies, equipment and space necessary to fulfill the requirements of each patient's individualized diagnosis and treatment plan. All mental health services must be provided by a TRICARE authorized individual professional provider of mental health services. [Exception: Residential treatment programs that employ individuals with master's or doctoral level degrees in a mental health discipline who do not meet the licensure, certification, and experience requirements for a qualified mental health provider but are actively working toward licensure or certification may provide services within the all-inclusive per diem rate, but such individuals must work under the clinical supervision of a fully qualified mental health provider employed by the facility.]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Case management required.</I> The facility must provide case management that helps to assure arrangement of community based support services, referral of suspected child or elder abuse or domestic violence to the appropriate state agencies, and effective after care arrangements, at a minimum.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Professional mental health benefits.</I> Professional mental health benefits are billed separately from the residential treatment program per diem rate only when rendered by an attending, TRICARE authorized mental health professional who is not an employee of, or under contract with, the program for purposes of providing clinical patient care.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Non-mental health related medical services.</I> Separate billing will be allowed for otherwise covered non-mental health related services.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Psychiatric and substance use disorder partial hospitalization services</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Partial hospitalization services are those services furnished by a TRICARE authorized partial hospitalization program and authorized mental health providers for the active treatment of a mental disorder. All services must follow a medical model and vest patient care under the general direction of a licensed TRICARE authorized physician employed by the partial hospitalization program to ensure medication and physical needs of all the patients are considered. The primary or attending provider must be a TRICARE authorized mental health provider (see paragraph (c)(3)(ix) of this section), operating within the scope of his/her license. These categories include physicians, clinical psychologists, certified psychiatric nurse specialists, clinical social workers, marriage and family counselors, TRICARE certified mental health counselors, pastoral counselors, and supervised mental health counselors. All categories practice independently except pastoral counselors and supervised mental health counselors who must practice under the supervision of TRICARE authorized physicians. Partial hospitalization services and interventions are provided at a high degree of intensity and restrictiveness of care, with medical supervision and medication management. Partial hospitalization services are covered as a basic program benefit only if they are provided in accordance with paragraph (b)(9) of this section. Such programs must enter into a participation agreement with TRICARE; and be accredited and in substantial compliance with the specified standards of an accreditation organization approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity of psychiatric and SUD partial hospitalization services.</I> Partial hospitalization services will be considered necessary only if all of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(A) The patient is suffering significant impairment from a mental disorder (as defined in § 199.2) which interferes with age appropriate functioning or the patient is in need of rehabilitative services for the management of withdrawal symptoms from alcohol, sedative-hypnotics, opioids, or stimulants that require medically-monitored ambulatory detoxification, with direct access to medical services and clinically intensive programming of rehabilitative care based on individual treatment plans.
</P>
<P>(B) The patient is unable to maintain himself or herself in the community, with appropriate support, at a sufficient level of functioning to permit an adequate course of therapy exclusively on an outpatient basis, to include outpatient treatment program, outpatient office visits, or intensive outpatient services (but is able, with appropriate support, to maintain a basic level of functioning to permit partial hospitalization services and presents no substantial imminent risk of harm to self or others). These patients require medical support; however, they do not require a 24-hour medical environment.
</P>
<P>(C) The patient is in need of crisis stabilization, acute symptom reduction, treatment of partially stabilized mental health disorders, or services as a transition from an inpatient program.
</P>
<P>(D) The admission into the partial hospitalization program is based on the development of an individualized diagnosis and treatment plan expected to be effective for that patient and permit treatment at a less intensive level.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Services and supplies.</I> The following services and supplies are included in the per diem rate approved for an authorized partial hospitalization program:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Board.</I> Includes use of the partial hospital facilities such as food service, supervised therapeutically constructed recreational and social activities, and other general services as considered appropriate by the Director, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Patient assessment.</I> Includes the assessment of each individual accepted by the facility, and must, at a minimum, consist of a physical examination; psychiatric examination; psychological assessment; assessment of physiological, biological and cognitive processes; case management assessment; developmental assessment; family history and assessment; social history and assessment; educational or vocational history and assessment; environmental assessment; and recreational/activities assessment. Assessments conducted within 30 days prior to admission to a partial program may be used if approved and deemed adequate to permit treatment planning by the partial hospital program.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Psychological testing. Treatment services.</I> All services, supplies, equipment and space necessary to fulfill the requirements of each patient's individualized diagnosis and treatment plan. All mental health services must be provided by a TRICARE authorized individual professional provider of mental health services. [Exception: partial hospitalization programs that employ individuals with master's or doctoral level degrees in a mental health discipline who do not meet the licensure, certification, and experience requirements for a qualified mental health provider but are actively working toward licensure or certification, may provide services within the all-inclusive per diem rate, but such individuals must work under the clinical supervision of a fully qualified mental health provider employed by the partial hospitalization program.]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Case management required.</I> The facility must provide case management that helps to assure the patient appropriate living arrangements after treatment hours, transportation to and from the facility, arrangement of community based support services, referral of suspected child or elder abuse or domestic violence to the appropriate state agencies, and effective after care arrangements, at a minimum.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Educational services required.</I> Programs treating children and adolescents must ensure the provision of a state certified educational component which assures that patients do not fall behind in educational placement while receiving partial hospital treatment. CHAMPUS will not fund the cost of educational services separately from the per diem rate. The hours devoted to education do not count toward the therapeutic intensive outpatient program or full day program.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Family therapy required.</I> The facility must ensure the provision of an active family therapy treatment component, which assures that each patient and family participate at least weekly in family therapy provided by the institution and rendered by a TRICARE authorized individual professional provider of mental health services. There is no acceptable substitute for family therapy. An exception to this requirement may be granted on a case-by-case basis by the Clinical Director, or designee, only if family therapy is clinically contraindicated.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Professional mental health benefits.</I> Professional mental health benefits are billed separately from the partial hospitalization per diem rate only when rendered by an attending, TRICARE authorized mental health professional who is not an employee of, or under contract with, the partial hospitalization program for purposes of providing clinical patient care.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Non-mental health related medical services.</I> Separate billing will be allowed for otherwise covered, non-mental health related medical services.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Intensive psychiatric and substance use disorder outpatient services</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Intensive outpatient services are those services furnished by a TRICARE authorized intensive outpatient program and qualified mental health provider(s) for the active treatment of a mental disorder, to include substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity of intensive outpatient services.</I> In determining the medical or psychological necessity of intensive outpatient services, the evaluation conducted by the Director, or designee, shall consider the appropriate level of care, based on the patient's clinical needs and characteristics matched to a service's structure and intensity. In addition to the criteria set for this paragraph (b)(10) of this section, additional evaluation standards, consistent with such criteria, may be adopted by the Director, or designee. Treatment in an intensive outpatient setting shall not be considered necessary unless the patient requires care that is more intensive than an outpatient treatment program or outpatient office visits and less intensive than inpatient psychiatric care or a partial hospital program. Intensive outpatient services will be considered necessary only if the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(A) The patient is suffering significant impairment from a mental disorder, to include a substance use disorder (as defined in § 199.2), which interferes with age appropriate functioning. Patients receiving a higher intensity of treatment may be experiencing moderate to severe instability, exacerbation of severe/persistent disorder, or dangerousness with some risk of confinement. Patients receiving a lower intensity of treatment may be experiencing mild instability with limited dangerousness and low risk for confinement.
</P>
<P>(B) The patient is unable to maintain himself or herself in the community, with appropriate support, at a sufficient level of functioning to permit an adequate course of therapy exclusively in an outpatient treatment program or an outpatient office basis (but is able, with appropriate support, to maintain a basic level of functioning to permit a level of intensive outpatient treatment and presents no substantial imminent risk of harm to self or others).
</P>
<P>(C) The patient is in need of stabilization, symptom reduction, and prevention of relapse for chronic mental illness. The goal of maintenance of his or her functioning within the community cannot be met by outpatient office visits, but requires active treatment in a stable, staff-supported environment;
</P>
<P>(D) The admission into the intensive outpatient program is based on the development of an individualized diagnosis and treatment plan expected to be effective for that patient and permit treatment at a less intensive level.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Services and supplies.</I> The following services and supplies are included in the per diem rate approved for an authorized intensive outpatient program.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Patient assessment.</I> Includes the assessment of each individual accepted by the facility.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Treatment services.</I> All services, supplies, equipment, and space necessary to fulfill the requirements of each patient's individualized diagnosis and treatment plan. All mental health services must be provided by a TRICARE authorized individual qualified mental health provider. [Exception: Intensive outpatient programs that employ individuals with master's or doctoral level degrees in a mental health discipline who do not meet the licensure, certification, and experience requirements for a qualified mental health provider but are actively working toward licensure or certification, may provide services within the all-inclusive per diem rate but such individuals must work under the clinical supervision of a fully qualified mental health provider employed by the facility.]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Case management.</I> When appropriate, and with the consent of the person served, the facility should coordinate the care, treatment, or services, including providing coordinated treatment with other services.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Professional mental health benefits.</I> Professional mental health benefits are billed separately from the intensive outpatient per diem rate only when rendered by an attending, TRICARE authorized qualified mental health provider who is not an employee of, or under contract with, the program for purposes of providing clinical patient care.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Non-mental health related medical services.</I> Separate billing will be allowed for otherwise covered, non-mental health related medical services.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Opioid treatment programs</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Outpatient treatment and management of withdrawal symptoms for substance use disorder provided at a TRICARE authorized opioid treatment program are covered. If the patient is medically in need of management of withdrawal symptoms, but does not require the personnel or facilities of a general hospital setting, services for management of withdrawal symptoms are covered. The medical necessity for the management of withdrawal symptoms must be documented. Any services to manage withdrawal symptoms provided by the opioid treatment program must be under general medical supervision.
</P>
<P>(ii) Criteria for determining medical or psychological necessity of an opioid treatment program are set forth in 42 CFR part 8.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Services and supplies.</I> The following services and supplies are included in the reimbursement approved for an authorized opioid treatment program.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Patient assessment.</I> Includes the assessment of each individual accepted by the facility.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Treatment services.</I> All services, supplies, equipment, and space necessary to fulfill the requirements of each patient's individualized diagnosis and treatment plan. All mental health services must be provided by a TRICARE authorized individual professional provider of mental health services. [Exception: opioid treatment programs that employ individuals with degrees in a mental health discipline who do not meet the licensure, certification, and experience requirements for a qualified mental health provider but work under the clinical supervision of a fully qualified mental health provider employed by the facility.]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Case management.</I> Care, treatment, or services should be coordinated among providers and between settings, independent of whether they are provided directly by the organization or by an organization or by an outside source, so that the individual's needs are addressed in a seamless, synchronized, and timely manner.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Professional services benefit</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Benefits may be extended for those covered services described in paragraph (c) of this section that are provided in accordance with good medical practice and established standards of quality by physicians or other authorized individual professional providers, as set forth in § 199.6 of this part. Such benefits are subject to all applicable definitions, conditions, exceptions, limitations, or exclusions as maybe otherwise set forth in this or other Sections of this part. Except as otherwise specifically authorized, to be considered for benefits under paragraph (c) of this section, the described services must be rendered by a physician, or prescribed, ordered, and referred medically by a physician to other authorized individual professional providers. Further, except under specifically defined circumstances, there should be an attending physician in any episode of care. (For example, certain services of a clinical psychologist are exempt from this requirement. For these exceptions, refer to § 199.6.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Billing practices.</I> To be considered for benefits under paragraph (c) of this section, covered professional services must be performed personally by the physician or other authorized individual professional provider, who is other than a salaried or contractual staff member of a hospital or other authorized institution, and who ordinarily and customarily bills on a fee-for-service basis for professional services rendered. Such billings must be itemized fully and be sufficiently descriptive to permit CHAMPUS to determine whether benefits are authorized by this part. See paragraph (c)(3)(xiii) of this section for the requirements regarding the special circumstances for teaching physicians. For continuing professional care, claims should be submitted to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary at least every 30 days either by the beneficiary or sponsor, or directly by the physician or other authorized individual professional provider on behalf of a beneficiary (refer to § 199.7).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Services must be related.</I> Covered professional services must be rendered in connection with and directly related to a covered diagnosis or definitive set of symptoms requiring medically necessary treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Telehealth services.</I> Health care services covered by TRICARE and provided through the use of telehealth modalities including telephone services for: telephonic office visits; telephonic consultations; electronic transmission of data or biotelemetry or remote physiologic monitoring services and supplies, are covered services to the same extent as if provided in person at the location of the patient if those services are medically necessary and appropriate for such modalities. The Director will establish special procedures for payment for such services. Additionally, where appropriate, in order to incentive the use of telehealth services, the Director may modify the otherwise applicable beneficiary cost-sharing requirements in paragraph (f) of this section which otherwise apply.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered services of physicians and other authorized profession providers.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Surgery.</I> Surgery means operative procedures, including related preoperative and postoperative care; reduction of fractures and dislocations; injection and needling procedures of the joints; laser surgery of the eye; and the following procedures:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bronchoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Laryngoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thoracoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Catheterization of the heart
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arteriograph thoracic lumbar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Esophagoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gastroscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Proctoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sigmoidoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peritoneoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cystoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colonscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Upper G.I. panendoscopy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Encephalograph
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myelography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Discography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Visualization of intracranial aneurysm by intracarotid injection of dye, with exposure of carotid artery, unilateral
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ventriculography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insufflation of uterus and fallopian tubes for determination of tubal patency (Rubin's test of injection of radiopaque medium or for dilation)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Introduction of opaque media into the cranial arterial system, preliminary to cerebral arteriography, or into vertebral and subclavian systems
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intraspinal introduction of air preliminary to pneumoencephalography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intraspinal introduction of opaque media preliminary to myelography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intraventricular introduction of air preliminary to ventriculography</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall determine such additional procedures that may fall within the intent of this definition of “surgery.”</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Surgical assistance.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inpatient medical services.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Outpatient medical services.</I>
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Psychiatric services.</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Consultation services.</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Anesthesia services.</I>
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Radiation therapy services.</I>
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>X-ray services.</I>
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Laboratory and pathological services.</I>
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Physical medicine services or physiatry services.</I>
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Maternity care.</I>
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Well-child care.</I>
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Other medical care.</I> Other medical care includes, but is not limited to, hemodialysis, inhalation therapy, shock therapy, and chemotherapy. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall determine those additional medical services for which benefits may be extended under this paragraph.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A separate professional charge for the oral administration of approved antineoplastic drugs is not covered.</P></NOTE>
<P>(xv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Routine eye examinations.</I> Coverage for routine eye examinations is limited to dependents of active duty members, to one examination per calendar year per person, and to services rendered on or after October 1, 1984, except as provided under paragraph (c)(3)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extent of professional benefits</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple Surgery.</I> In cases of multiple surgical procedures performed during the same operative session, benefits shall be extended as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) One hundred (100) percent of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge for the major surgical procedure (the procedure for which the greatest amount is payable under the applicable reimbursement method); and
</P>
<P>(B) Fifty (50) percent of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge for each of the other surgical procedures;
</P>
<P>(C) Except that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the multiple surgical procedures include an incidental procedure, no benefits shall be allowed for the incidental procedure.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the multiple surgical procedures involve specific procedures identified by the Director, OCHAMPUS, benefits shall be limited as set forth in CHAMPUS instructions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Different types of inpatient care, concurrent.</I> If a beneficiary receives inpatient medical care during the same admission in which he or she also receives surgical care or maternity care, the beneficiary shall be entitled to the greater of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge for either the inpatient medical care or surgical or maternity care received, as the case may be, but not both; except that the provisions of this paragraph (c)(3)(ii) shall not apply if such inpatient medical care is for a diagnosed condition requiring inpatient medical care not related to the condition for which surgical care or maternity care is received, and is received from a physician other than the one rendering the surgical care or maternity care.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This provision is not meant to imply that when extra time and special effort are required due to postsurgical or postdelivery complications, the attending physician may not request special consideration for a higher than usual charge.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) <I>Need for surgical assistance.</I> Surgical assistance is payable only when the complexity of the procedure warrants a surgical assistant (other than the surgical nurse or other such operating room personnel), subject to utilization review. In order for benefits to be extended for surgical assistance service, the primary surgeon may be required to certify in writing to the nonavailability of a qualified intern, resident, or other house physician. When a claim is received for a surgical assistant involving the following circumstances, special review is required to ascertain whether the surgical assistance service meets the medical necessity and other requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) If the surgical assistance occurred in a hospital that has a residency program in a specialty appropriate to the surgery;
</P>
<P>(B) If the surgery was performed by a team of surgeons;
</P>
<P>(C) If there were multiple surgical assistants; or
</P>
<P>(D) If the surgical assistant was a partner of or from the same group of practicing physicians as the attending surgeon.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Aftercare following surgery.</I> Except for those diagnostic procedures classified as surgery in paragraph (c) of this section, and injection and needling procedures involving the joints, the benefit payments made for surgery (regardless of the setting in which it is rendered) include normal aftercare, whether the aftercare is billed for by the physician or other authorized individual professional provider on a global, all-inclusive basis, or billed for separately. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Cast and sutures, removal.</I> The benefit payments made for the application of a cast or of sutures normally covers the postoperative care including the removal of the cast or sutures. When the application is made in one geographical location and the removal of the cast or sutures must be done in another geographical location, a separate benefit payment may be provided for the removal. The intent of this provision is to provide a separate benefit only when it is impracticable for the beneficiary to use the services of the provider that applied the cast originally. Benefits are not available for the services of a second provider if those services reasonably could have been rendered by the individual professional provider who applied the cast or sutures initially.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Inpatient care, concurrent.</I> Concurrent inpatient care by more than one individual professional provider is covered if required because of the severity and complexity of the beneficiary's condition or because the beneficiary has multiple conditions that require treatment by providers of different specialties. Any claim for concurrent care must be reviewed before extending benefits in order to ascertain the condition of the beneficiary at the time the concurrent care was rendered. In the absence of such determination, benefits are payable only for inpatient care rendered by one attending physician or other authorized individual professional provider.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Consultants who become the attending surgeon.</I> A consultation performed within 3 days of surgery by the attending physician is considered a preoperative examination. Preoperative examinations are an integral part of the surgery and a separate benefit is not payable for the consultation. If more than 3 days elapse between the consultation and surgery (performed by the same physician), benefits may be extended for the consultation, subject to review.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Anesthesia administered by the attending physician.</I> A separate benefit is not payable for anesthesia administered by the attending physician (surgeon or obstetrician) or dentist, or by the surgical, obstetrical, or dental assistant.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Treatment of mental disorders, to include substance use disorder.</I> In order to qualify for CHAMPUS mental health benefits, the patient must be diagnosed by a TRICARE authorized qualified mental health professional practicing within the scope of his or her license to be suffering from a mental disorder, as defined in § 199.2
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covered diagnostic and therapeutic services.</I> CHAMPUS benefits are payable for the following services when rendered in the diagnosis or treatment of a covered mental disorder by a TRICARE authorized qualified mental health provider practicing within the scope of his or her license. Qualified mental health providers are: Psychiatrists or other physicians; clinical psychologists, certified psychiatric nurse specialists, certified clinical social workers, certified marriage and family therapists, TRICARE certified mental health counselors, pastoral counselors under a physician's supervision, and supervised mental health counselors under a physician's supervision.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Individual psychotherapy, adult or child.</I> A covered individual psychotherapy session is no more than 60 minutes in length. An individual psychotherapy session of up to 120 minutes in length is payable for crisis intervention.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Group psychotherapy.</I> A covered group psychotherapy session is no more than 90 minutes in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Family or conjoint psychotherapy.</I> A covered family or conjoint psychotherapy session is no more than 90 minutes in length. A family or conjoint psychotherapy session of up to 180 minutes in length is payable for crisis intervention.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Psychoanalysis.</I> Psychoanalysis is covered when provided by a graduate or candidate of a psychoanalytic training institution recognized by the American Psychoanalytic Association and when preauthorized by the Director, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Psychological testing and assessment.</I> Psychological testing and assessment is covered when medically or psychologically necessary. Psychological testing and assessment performed as part of an assessment for academic placement are not covered.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Administration of psychotropic drugs.</I> When prescribed by an authorized provider qualified by licensure to prescribe drugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Electroconvulsive treatment.</I> When provided in accordance with guidelines issued by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Collateral visits.</I> Covered collateral visits are those that are medically or psychologically necessary for the treatment of the patient.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Medication assisted treatment.</I> Medication assisted treatment, combining pharmacotherapy and holistic care, to include provision in office-based opioid treatment by an authorized TRICARE provider, is covered. The practice of an individual physician in office-based treatment is regulated by the Department of Health and Human Services' 42 CFR 8.12,

the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT), and the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), along with individual state and local regulations.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Therapeutic settings</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Outpatient psychotherapy.</I> Outpatient psychotherapy generally is covered for individual, family, conjoint, collateral, and/or group sessions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Inpatient psychotherapy.</I> Coverage of inpatient psychotherapy is based on medical or psychological necessity for the services identified in the patient's treatment plan.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Covered ancillary therapies.</I> Includes art, music, dance, occupational, and other ancillary therapies, when included by the attending provider in an approved inpatient, SUDRF, residential treatment, partial hospital, or intensive outpatient program treatment plan and under the clinical supervision of a qualified mental health professional. These ancillary therapies are not separately reimbursed professional services but are included within the institutional reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Review of claims for treatment of mental disorder.</I> The Director shall establish and maintain procedures for review, including professional review, of the services provided for the treatment of mental disorders.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Physical and occupational therapy.</I> Assessment and treatment services of a CHAMPUS-authorized physical or occupational therapist may be cost-shared when: 
</P>
<P>(A) The services are prescribed and monitored by a physician, certified physician assistant, certified nurse practitioner or Doctor of Podiatric Medicine (Podiatrist) acting within the scope of their license.
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose of the prescription is to reduce the disabling effects of an illness, injury, or neuromuscular disorder; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The prescribed treatment increases, stabilizes, or slows the deterioration of the beneficiary's ability to perform specified purposeful activity in the manner, or within the range considered normal, for a human being. 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Well-child care.</I> Benefits routinely are covered for well-child care from birth to under six years of age. These periodic health examinations are designed for prevention, early detection and treatment of disease and consist of screening procedures, immunizations and risk counseling.
</P>
<P>(A) The following services are covered when required as a part of the specific well-child care program and when rendered by the attending pediatrician, family physician, certified nurse practitioner, or certified physician assistant.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Newborn examination, heredity and metabolic screening, and newborn circumcision.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Periodic health supervision visits, in accordance with American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) guidelines, intended to promote the optimal health for infants and children to include the following services:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) History and physical examination and mental health assessment.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Vision, hearing, and dental screening.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Developmental appraisal to include body measurement.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Immunizations as recommenced by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Pediatric risk assessment for lead exposure and blood lead level test.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Tuberculosis screening.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Blood pressure screening.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Measurement of hemoglobin and hematocrit for anemia.
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Urinalysis.
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Health guidance and counseling, including breastfeeding and nutrition counseling.
</P>
<P>(B) Additional services or visits required because of specific findings or because the particular circumstances of the individual case are covered if medically necessary and otherwise authorized for benefits under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(C) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense, Health Services Financing, will determine when such services are separately reimbursable apart from the health supervision visit.
</P>
<P>(xii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Physicians in a teaching setting.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Teaching physicians.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>General.</I> The services of teaching physicians may be reimbursed on an allowable charge basis only when the teaching physician has established an attending physician relationship between the teaching physician and the patient or when the teaching physician provides distinct, identifiable, personal services (e.g., services rendered as a consultant, assistant surgeon, etc.). Attending physician services may include both direct patient care services or direct supervision of care provided by a physician in training. In order to be considered an attending physician, the teaching physician must:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Review the patient's history and the record of examinations and tests in the institution, and make frequent reviews of the patient's progress; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Personally examine the patient; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iiii</I>) Confirm or revise the diagnosis and determine the course of treatment to be followed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Either perform the physician's services required by the patient or supervise the treatment so as to assure that appropriate services are provided by physicians in training and that the care meets a proper quality level; and
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Be present and ready to perform any service performed by an attending physician in a nonteaching setting when a major surgical procedure or a complex or dangerous medical procedure is performed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Be personally responsible for the patient's care, at least throughout the period of hospitalization.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Direct supervision by an attending physician of care provided by physicians in training.</I> Payment on the basis of allowable charges may be made for the professional services rendered to a beneficiary by his/her attending physician when the attending physician provides personal and identifiable direction to physicians in training who are participating in the care of the patient. It is not necessary that the attending physician be personally present for all services, but the attending physician must be on the provider's premises and available to provide immediate personal assistance and direction if needed.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Individual, personal services.</I> A teaching physician may be reimbursed on an allowable charge basis for any individual, identifiable service rendered to a CHAMPUS beneficiary, so long as the service is a covered service and is normally reimbursed separately, and so long as the patient records substantiate the service.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Who may bill.</I> The services of a teaching physician must be billed by the institutional provider when the physician is employed by the provider or a related entity or under a contract which provides for payment to the physician by the provider or a related entity. Where the teaching physician has no relationship with the provider (except for standard physician privileges to admit patients) and generally treats patients on a fee-for-service basis in the private sector, the teaching physician may submit claims under his/her own provider number.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Physicians in training.</I> Physicians in training in an approved teaching program are considered to be “students” and may not be reimbursed directly by CHAMPUS for services rendered to a beneficiary when their services are provided as part of their employment (either salaried or contractual) by a hospital or other institutional provider. Services of physicians in training may be reimbursed on an allowable charge basis only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The physician in training is fully licensed to practice medicine by the state in which the services are performed, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The services are rendered outside the scope and requirements of the approved training program to which the physician in training is assigned.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other benefits</I>—(1) General. Benefits may be extended for the allowable charge of those other covered services and supplies described in paragraph (d) of this section, which are provided in accordance with good medical practice and established standards of quality by those other authorized providers described in § 199.6. Such benefits are subject to all applicable definitions, conditions, limitations, or exclusions as otherwise may be set forth in this or other chapters of this Regulation. To be considered for benefits under paragraph (d) of this section, the described services or supplies must be prescribed and ordered by a physician. Other authorized individual professional providers acting within their scope of licensure may also prescribe and order these services and supplies unless otherwise specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Billing practices.</I> To be considered for benefits under paragraph (d) of this section, covered services and supplies must be provided and billed for by an authorized provider as set forth in § 199.6 of this part. Such billing must be itemized fully and described sufficiently, even when CHAMPUS payment is determined under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, so that CHAMPUS can determine whether benefits are authorized by this part. Except for claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, whenever continuing charges are involved, claims should be submitted to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary at least every 30 days (monthly) either by the beneficiary or sponsor or directly by the provider. For claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, claims may be submitted only after the beneficiary has been discharged or transferred from the hospital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other covered services and supplies</I>—(i) <I>Blood.</I> If whole blood or plasma (or its derivatives) are provided and billed for by an authorized institution in connection with covered treatment, benefits are extended as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. If blood is billed for directly to a beneficiary, benefits may be extended under paragraph (d) in the same manner as a medical supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Durable equipment</I>—(A) Scope of benefit. (<I>1</I>) Durable equipment, which is for the specific use of the beneficiary and is ordered by an authorized individual professional provider listed in § 199.6(c)(3)(i), (ii) or (iii), acting within his or her scope of licensure shall be covered if the durable equipment meets the definition in § 199.2 and—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Provides the medically appropriate level of performance and quality for the medical condition present and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is not otherwise excluded by this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Items that may be provided to a beneficiary as durable equipment include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Durable medical equipment as defined in § 199.2;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Wheelchairs.</I> A wheelchair, which is medically appropriate to provide basic mobility, including reasonable additional costs for medically appropriate modifications to accommodate a particular physiological or medical need, may be covered as durable equipment. An electric wheelchair, or TRICARE approved alternative to an electric wheelchair (<I>e.g.,</I> scooter) may be provided in lieu of a manual wheelchair when it is medically indicated and appropriate to provide basic mobility. Luxury or deluxe wheelchairs, as described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section, include features beyond those required for basic mobility of a particular beneficiary are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Iron lungs.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Hospital beds.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Cardiorespiratory monitors under conditions specified in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether a prescribed item of durable equipment provides the medically appropriate level of performance and quality for the beneficiary's condition must be supported by adequate documentation. Luxury, deluxe, immaterial, or non- essential features, which increase the cost of the item relative to a similar item without those features, based on industry standards for a particular item at the time the equipment is prescribed or replaced for a beneficiary, are not authorized. Only the “base” or “basic” model of equipment (or more cost- effective alternative equipment) shall be covered, unless customization of the equipment, or any accessory or item of supply for any durable medical equipment, is essential, as determined by the Director (or designee), for—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Achieving therapeutic benefit for the patient;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Making the equipment serviceable; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Otherwise assuring the proper functioning of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cardiorespiratory monitor exception.</I> (<I>1</I>) When prescribed by a physician who is otherwise eligible as a CHAMPUS individual professional provider, or who is on active duty with a United States Uniformed Service, an electronic cardiorespiratory monitor, including technical support necessary for the proper use of the monitor, may be cost-shared as durable medical equipment when supervised by the prescribing physician for in-home use by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An infant beneficiary who has had an apparent life-threatening event, as defined in guidelines issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) An infant beneficiary who is a subsequent or multiple birth biological sibling of a victim of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) An infant beneficiary whose birth weight was 1,500 grams or less, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) An infant beneficiary who is a pre-term infant with pathologic apnea, as defined in guidelines issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Any beneficiary who has a condition or suspected condition designated in guidelines issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, for which the in-home use of the cardiorespiratory monitor otherwise meets Basic Program requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following types of services and items may be cost-shared when provided in conjunction with an otherwise authorized cardiorespiratory monitor:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Trend-event recorder, including technical support necessary for the proper use of the recorder.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Analysis of recorded physiological data associated with monitor alarms.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Professional visits for services otherwise authorized by this part, and for family training on how to respond to an apparent life threatening event.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Diagnostic testing otherwise authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Exclusions.</I> Durable equipment, which is otherwise qualified as a benefit is excluded from coverage under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Durable equipment for a beneficiary who is a patient in a type of facility that ordinarily provides the same type of durable equipment item to its patients at no additional charge in the usual course of providing its services.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Durable equipment, which is available to the beneficiary from a Uniformed Services Medical Treatment Facility.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Basis for reimbursement.</I> (<I>1</I>) Durable equipment may be provided on a rental or purchase basis. Coverage of durable equipment will be based on the price most advantageous to the government taking into consideration the anticipated duration of the medically necessary need for the equipment and current price information for the type of item. The cost analysis must include a comparison of the total price of the item as a monthly rental charge, a lease-purchase price, and a lump-sum purchase price and a provision for the time value of money at the rate determined by the U.S. Department of Treasury. If a beneficiary wishes to obtain an item of durable equipment with deluxe, luxury, immaterial or non-essential features, the beneficiary may agree to accept TRICARE coverage limited to the allowable amount that would have otherwise been authorized for a similar item without those features. In that case, the TRICARE coverage is based upon the allowable amount for the kind of durable equipment normally used to meet the intended purpose (<I>i.e.,</I> the standard item least costly). The provider shall not hold the beneficiary liable for deluxe, luxury, immaterial, or non- essential features that cannot be considered in determining the TRICARE allowable costs. However, the beneficiary shall be held liable if the provider has a specific agreement in writing from the beneficiary (or his or her representative) accepting liability for the itemized difference in costs of the durable equipment with deluxe, luxury, or immaterial features and the TRICARE allowable costs for an otherwise authorized item without such features.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In general, repairs of beneficiary owned durable equipment are covered when necessary to make the equipment serviceable and replacement of durable equipment is allowed when the durable equipment is not serviceable because of normal wear, accidental damage or when necessitated by a change in the beneficiary's condition. However, repairs of durable equipment damaged while using the equipment in a manner inconsistent with its common use, and replacement of lost or stolen rental durable equipment are excluded from coverage. In addition, repairs of deluxe, luxury, or immaterial features of durable equipment are excluded from coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Medical supplies and dressings (consumables)</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> In general, medical supplies and dressings (consumables) are those that do not withstand prolonged, repeated use. Such items must be related directly to an appropriate and verified covered medical condition of the specific beneficiary for whom the item was purchased and obtained from a medical supply company, a pharmacy, or authorized institutional provider. Examples of covered medical supplies and dressings are disposable syringes for a known diabetic, colostomy sets, irrigation sets, and elastic bandages. An external surgical garment specifically designed for use follow a mastectomy is considered a medical supply item.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>Generally, the allowable charge of a medical supply item will be under $100. Any item over this amount must be reviewed to determine whether it would qualify as a DME item. If it is, in fact, a medical supply item and does not represent an excessive charge, it can be considered for benefits under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) <I>Medically necessary food and medical equipment and supplies necessary to administer such food (other than durable medical equipment and supplies) when prescribed for dietary management of a covered disease or condition.</I> (<I>1</I>) Medically necessary food, including a low protein modified food product or an amino acid preparation product, may be covered when:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Furnished pursuant to the prescription, order, or recommendation of a TRICARE authorized provider acting within the provider's scope of license/certificate of practice, for the dietary management of a covered disease or condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is a specifically formulated and processed product (as opposed to a naturally occurring foodstuff used in its natural state) for the partial or exclusive feeding of an individual by means of oral intake or enteral feeding by tube;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Is intended for the dietary management of an individual who, because of therapeutic or chronic medical needs, has limited or impaired capacity to ingest, digest, absorb, or metabolize ordinary foodstuffs or certain nutrients, or who has other special medically determined nutrient requirements, the dietary management of which cannot be achieved by the modification of the normal diet alone;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Is intended to be used under medical supervision, which may include in a home setting; and
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Is intended only for an individual receiving active and ongoing medical supervision under which the individual requires medical care on a recurring basis for, among other things, instructions on the use of the food.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Medically necessary food does not include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Food taken as part of an overall diet designed to reduce the risk of a disease or medical condition or as weight-loss products, even if the food is recommended by a physician or other health care professional;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Food marketed as gluten-free for the management of celiac disease or non-celiac gluten sensitivity;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Food marketed for the management of diabetes; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Such other products as the Director, Defense Health Agency determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Covered disease or condition under paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) of this section means:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Medical conditions of malabsorption;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Pathologies of the alimentary tract or the gastrointestinal tract;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A neurological or physiological condition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Such other diseases or conditions the Director, Defense Health Agency determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Oxygen.</I> Oxygen and equipment for its administration are covered. Benefits are limited to providing a tank unit at one location with oxygen limited to a 30-day supply at any one time. Repair and adjustment of CHAMPUS-purchased oxygen equipment also is covered. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Ambulance.</I> Civilian ambulance service is covered when medically necessary in connection with otherwise covered services and supplies and a covered medical condition. For the purpose of TRICARE payment, ambulance service is an outpatient service (including in connection with maternity care) with the exception of otherwise covered transfers between hospitals which are cost-shared on an inpatient basis. Ambulance transfers from a hospital based emergency room to another hospital more capable of providing the required care will also be cost-shared on an inpatient basis. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The inpatient cost-sharing provisions for ambulance transfers only apply to otherwise covered transfers between hospitals, i.e., acute care, general, and special hospitals; psychiatric hospitals; and long-term hospitals.</P></NOTE>
<P>(A) Ambulance service cannot be used instead of taxi service and is not payable when the patient's condition would have permitted use of regular private transportation; nor is it payable when transport or transfer of a patient is primarily for the purpose of having the patient nearer to home, family, friends, or personal physician. Except as described in paragraph (d)(3)(v)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section transport must be to the closest appropriate facility by the least costly means. 
</P>
<P>(B) Vehicles such as medicabs or ambicabs function primarily as public passenger conveyances transporting patients to and from their medical appointments. No actual medical care is provided to the patients in transit. These types of vehicles do not qualify for benefits for the purpose of CHAMPUS payment. 
</P>
<P>(C) Except as described in paragraph (d)(3)(v)(C)(1)(<I>1</I>) of this section, ambulance services by other than land vehicles (such as a boat or airplane) may be considered only when the pickup point is inaccessible by a land vehicle, or when great distance or other obstacles are involved in transporting the patient to the nearest hospital with appropriate facilities and the patient's medical condition warrants speedy admission or is such that transfer by other means is contraindicated. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Advanced life support air ambulance and certified advanced life support attendant are covered services for solid organ and stem cell transplant candidates. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Advanced life support air ambulance and certified advanced life support attendant shall be reimbursed subject to standard reimbursement methodologies.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Drugs and medicines.</I> Drugs and medicines that by United States law require a prescription are also referred to as “legend drugs.” Legend drugs are covered when prescribed by a physician or other authorized individual professional provider acting within the scope of the provider's license and ordered or prescribed in connection with an otherwise covered condition or treatment, and not otherwise excluded by TRICARE. This includes Rh immune globulin.
</P>
<P>(A) Drugs administered by a physician or other authorized individual professional provider as an integral part of a procedure covered under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section (such as chemotherapy) are not covered under this subparagraph inasmuch as the benefit for the institutional services or the professional services in connection with the procedure itself also includes the drug used.
</P>
<P>(B) CHAMPUS benefits may not be extended for drugs not approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for commercial marketing. Drugs grandfathered by the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 may be covered under CHAMPUS as if FDA approved. 
</P>
<P>(C) Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs (drugs that by United States law do not require a prescription), in general, are not covered. However, insulin is covered for a known diabetic even in states that do not require a prescription for its purchase. In addition, OTC drugs used for smoking cessation are covered when all requirements under the TRICARE smoking cessation program are met as provided in paragraph (e)(30) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Medically necessary vitamins used for the management of a covered disease or condition pursuant to a prescription, order, or recommendation of a TRICARE authorized provider acting within the provider's scope of license/certificate of practice. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3)(vi)(D), the term “covered disease or condition” means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Medical conditions of malabsorption;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Pathologies of the alimentary tract or the gastrointestinal tract;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A neurological or physiological condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Pregnancy in relation to prenatal vitamins, with the limitation the prenatal vitamins that require a prescription in the United States may be covered for prenatal care only;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Such other disease or conditions the Director, Defense Health Agency determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vii) Prosthetics, prosthetic devices, and prosthetic supplies, as determined by the Secretary of Defense to be necessary because of significant conditions resulting from trauma, congenital anomalies, or disease. Additionally, the following are covered:
</P>
<P>(A) Any accessory or item of supply that is used in conjunction with the device for the purpose of achieving therapeutic benefit and proper functioning;
</P>
<P>(B) Services necessary to train the recipient of the device in the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(C) Repair of the device for normal wear and tear or damage;
</P>
<P>(D) Replacement of the device if the device is lost or irreparably damaged or the cost of repair would exceed 60 percent of the cost of replacement.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Orthopedic braces and appliances.</I> The purchase of leg braces (including attached shoes), arm braces, back braces, and neck braces is covered, orthopedic shoes, arch supports, shoe inserts, and other supportive devices for the feet, including special-ordered, custom-made built-up shoes or regular shoes subsequently built up, are not covered.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Diabetes Self-Management Training (DSMT).</I> A training service or program that educates diabetic patients about the successful self-management of diabetes. It includes the following criteria: Education about self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet, and exercise; an insulin treatment plan developed specifically for the patient who is insulin-dependent; and motivates the patient to use the skills for self-management. The DSMT service or program must be accredited by the American Diabetes Association.
</P>
<P>Coverage limitations on the provision of this benefit will be as determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special benefit information</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> There are certain circumstances, conditions, or limitations that impact the extension of benefits and that require special emphasis and explanation. This paragraph (e) sets forth those benefits and limitations recognized to be in this category. The benefits and limitations herein described also are subject to all applicable definitions, conditions, limitations, exceptions, and exclusions as set forth in this or other sections of this part, except as otherwise may be provided specifically in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abortion.</I> The statute under which CHAMPUS operates prohibits payment for abortions with one single exception—where the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term. Covered abortion services are limited to medical services and supplies only. Physician certification is required attesting that the abortion was performed because the mother's life would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term. Abortions performed for suspected or confirmed fetal abnormality (e.g., anencephalic) or for mental health reasons (e.g., threatened suicide) do not fall within the exceptions permitted within the language of the statute and are not authorized for payment under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Covered abortion services are limited to medical services or supplies only for the single circumstance outlined above and do not include abortion counseling or referral fees. Payment is not allowed for any services involving preparation for, or normal followup to, a noncovered abortion. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue guidelines describing the policy on abortion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Family planning.</I> The scope of the CHAMPUS family planning benefit is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Birth control (such as contraception)</I>—(A) <I>Benefits provided.</I> Benefits are available for services and supplies related to preventing conception, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Surgical inserting, removal, or replacement of intrauterine devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Measurement for, and purchase of, contraceptive diaphragms (and later remeasurement and replacement).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prescription contraceptives.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Surgical sterilization (either male or female).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Exclusions.</I> The family planning benefit does not include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prophylactics (condoms).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Spermicidal foams, jellies, and sprays not requiring a prescription.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Services and supplies related to noncoital reproductive technologies, including but not limited to artificial insemination (including any costs related to donors or semen banks), in-vitro fertilization and gamete intrafallopian transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Reversal of a surgical sterilization procedure (male or female).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Genetic testing.</I> Genetic testing essentially is preventive rather than related to active medical treatment of an illness or injury. However, under the family planning benefit, genetic testing is covered when performed in certain high risk situations. For the purpose of CHAMPUS, genetic testing includes to detect developmental abnormalities as well as purely genetic defects.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Benefits provided.</I> Benefits may be extended for genetic testing performed on a pregnant beneficiary under the following prescribed circumstances. The tests must be appropriate to the specific risk situation and must meet one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mother-to-be is 35 years old or older; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The mother- or father-to-be has had a previous child born with a congenital abnormality; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Either the mother- or father-to-be has a family history of congenital abnormalities; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The mother-to-be contracted rubella during the first trimester of the pregnancy; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Such other specific situations as may be determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, to fall within the intent of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Exclusions.</I> It is emphasized that routine or demand genetic testing is not covered. Further, genetic testing does not include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Tests performed to establish paternity of a child.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Tests to determine the sex of an unborn child.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transplants.</I> (i) <I>Organ transplants.</I> Basic Program benefits are available for otherwise covered services or supplies in connection with an organ transplant procedure, provided such transplant procedure is in accordance with accepted professional medical standards and is not considered unproven. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>General.</I> (<I>1</I>) Benefits may be allowed for medically necessary services and supplies related to an organ transplant for:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Evaluation of potential candidate's suitability for an organ transplant, whether or not the patient is ultimately accepted as a candidate for transplant. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Pre- and post-transplant inpatient hospital and outpatient services. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Pre- and post-operative services of the transplant team. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Blood and blood products. 
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) FDA approved immunosuppression drugs to include off-label uses when determined to be medically necessary for the treatment of the condition for which it is administered, according to accepted standards of medical practice. 
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Complications of the transplant procedure, including inpatient care, management of infection and rejection episodes. 
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Periodic evaluation and assessment of the successfully transplanted patient. 
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) The donor acquisition team, including the costs of transportation to the location of the donor organ and transportation of the team and the donated organ to the location of the transplant center. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) The maintenance of the viability of the donor organ after all existing legal requirements for excision of the donor organ have been met. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) TRICARE benefits are payable for recipient costs when the recipient of the transplant is a CHAMPUS beneficiary, whether or not the donor is a CHAMPUS beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Donor costs are payable when: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Both the donor and recipient are CHAMPUS beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The donor is a CHAMPUS beneficiary but the recipient is not. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The donor is the sponsor and the recipient is a CHAMPUS beneficiary. (In such an event, donor costs are paid as a part of the beneficiary and recipient costs.) 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The donor is neither a CHAMPUS beneficiary nor a sponsor, if the recipient is a CHAMPUS beneficiary. (Again, in such an event, donor costs are paid as a part of the beneficiary and recipient costs.) 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If the donor is not a CHAMPUS beneficiary, TRICARE benefits for donor costs are limited to those directly related to the transplant procedure itself and do not include any medical care costs related to other treatment of the donor, including complications. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) TRICARE benefits will not be allowed for transportation of an organ donor. 
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stem cell transplants.</I> TRICARE benefits are payable for beneficiaries whose conditions are considered appropriate for stem cell transplant according to guidelines adopted by the Executive Director, TMA, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Eyeglasses, spectacles, contact lenses, or other optical devices.</I> Eyeglasses, spectacles, contact lenses, or other optical devices are excluded under the Basic Program except under very limited and specific circumstances.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exception to general exclusion.</I> Benefits for glasses and lenses may be extended only in connection with the following specified eye conditions and circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Eyeglasses or lenses that perform the function of the human lens, lost as a result of intraocular surgery or ocular injury or congenital absence.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Notwithstanding the general requirement for U.S. Food and Drug Administration approval of any surgical implant set forth in paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section, intraocular lenses are authorized under CHAMPUS if they are either approved for marketing by FDA or are subject to an investigational device exemption.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) “Pinhole” glasses prescribed for use after surgery for detached retina.
</P>
<P>(C) Lenses prescribed as “treatment” instead of surgery for the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Contract lenses used for treatment of infantile glaucoma.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Corneal or scleral lenses prescribed in connection with treatment of keratoconus.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Scleral lenses prescribed to retain moisture when normal tearing is not present or is inadequate. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Corneal or scleral lenses prescribed to reduce a corneal irregularity other than astigmatism.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> The specified benefits are limited further to one set of lenses related to one of the qualifying eye conditions set forth in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section. If there is a prescription change requiring a new set of lenses (but still related to the qualifying eye condition), benefits may be extended for a second set of lenses, subject to specific medical review.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery.</I> For the purposes of CHAMPUS, cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery is surgery that can be expected primarily to improve physical appearance or that is performed primarily for psychological purposes or that restores form, but does not correct or improve materially a bodily function.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If a surgical procedure primarily restores function, whether or not there is also a concomitant improvement in physical appearance, the surgical procedure does not fall within the provisions set forth in this paragraph (e)(8).</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Limited benefits under CHAMPUS.</I> Benefits under the Basic Program generally are not available for cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery. However, under certain limited circumstances, benefits for otherwise covered services and supplies may be provided in connection with cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Correction of a congenital anomaly; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Restoration of body form following an accidental injury; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Revision of disfiguring and extensive scars resulting from neoplastic surgery.
</P>
<P>(D) Reconstructive breast surgery following a medically necessary mastectomy performed for the treatment of carcinoma, severe fibrocystic disease, other nonmalignant tumors or traumatic injuries.
</P>
<P>(E) Penile implants and testicular prostheses for conditions resulting from organic origins (i.e., trauma, radical surgery, disease process, for correction of congenital anomaly, etc.). Also, penile implants for organic impotency.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Organic impotence is defined as that which can be reasonably expected to occur following certain diseases, surgical procedures, trauma, injury, or congenital malformation. Impotence does not become organic because of psychological or psychiatric reasons.</P></NOTE>
<P>(F) Generally, benefits are limited to those cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery procedures performed no later than December 31 of the year following the year in which the related accidental injury or surgical trauma occurred, except for authorized postmastectomy breast reconstruction for which there is no time limitation between mastectomy and reconstruction. Also, special consideration for exception will be given to cases involving children who may require a growth period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General exclusions.</I> (A) For purposes of CHAMPUS, dental congenital anomalies such as absent tooth buds or malocclusion specifically are excluded.
</P>
<P>(B) Cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery procedures performed primarily for psychological reasons or as a result of the aging process also are excluded.
</P>
<P>(C) Procedures performed for elective correction of minor dermatological blemishes and marks or minor anatomical anomalies also are excluded.
</P>
<P>(D) Any procedures related to sex gender changes, except as provided in paragraph (g)(29) of this section, are excluded.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Noncovered surgery, all related services and supplies excluded.</I> When it is determined that a cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery procedure does not qualify for CHAMPUS benefits, all related services and supplies are excluded, including any institutional costs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example of noncovered cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery procedures.</I> The following is a partial list of cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery procedures that do not qualify for benefits under CHAMPUS. This list is for example purposes only and is not to be construed as being all-inclusive.
</P>
<P>(A) Any procedure performed for personal reasons to improve the appearance of an obvious feature or part of the body that would be considered by an average observer to be normal and acceptable for the patient's age or ethnic or racial background.
</P>
<P>(B) Cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgical procedures that are justified primarily on the basis of a psychological or psychiatric need.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Augmentation mammoplasties.</I> Augmentation mammoplasties, except for breast reconstruction following a covered mastectomy and those specifically authorized in paragraph (e)(8)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(D) Face lifts and other procedures related to the aging process.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Reduction mammoplasties.</I> Reduction mammoplasties (unless there is medical documentation of intractable pain, not amenable to other forms of treatment, resulting from large, pendulous breasts or unless performed as an integral part of an authorized breast reconstruction procedure under paragraph (e)(8)(i) of this section, including reduction of the collateral breast for purposes of ensuring breast symmetry) 
</P>
<P>(F) Panniculectomy; body sculpture procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Repair of sagging eyelids (without demonstrated and medically documented significant impairment of vision).
</P>
<P>(H) Rhinoplasties (without evidence of accidental injury occurring within the previous 6 months that resulted in significant obstruction of breathing).
</P>
<P>(I) Chemical peeling for facial wrinkles.
</P>
<P>(J) Dermabrasion of the face.
</P>
<P>(K) Elective correction of minor dermatological blemishes and marks or minor anatomical anomalies.
</P>
<P>(L) Revision of scars resulting from surgery or a disease process, except disfiguring and extensive scars resulting from neoplastic surgery.
</P>
<P>(M) Removal of tattoos.
</P>
<P>(N) Hair transplants.
</P>
<P>(O) Electrolysis.
</P>
<P>(P) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(Q)) Penile implant procedure for psychological impotency or as related to sex gender changes, as prohibited by section 1079 of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(R) Insertion of prosthetic testicles as related to sex gender changes, as prohibited by section 1079 of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Care related to non-covered initial surgery or treatment.</I> (i) Benefits are available for otherwise covered services and supplies required in the treatment of complications resulting from a non-covered incident of treatment (such as nonadjunctive dental care or cosmetic surgery) but only if the later complication represents a separate medical condition such as a systemic infection, cardiac arrest, and acute drug reaction. Benefits may not be extended for any later care or a procedure related to the complication that essentially is similar to the initial non-covered care. Examples of complications similar to the initial episode of care (and thus not covered) would be repair of facial scarring resulting from dermabrasion for acne.
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefits are available for otherwise covered services and supplies required in the treatment of complications (unfortunate sequelae) and any necessary follow-on care resulting from a non-covered incident of treatment provided in an MTF, when the initial non-covered service has been authorized by the MTF Commander and the MTF is unable to provide the necessary treatment of the complications or required follow-on care, according to the guidelines adopted by the Director, DHA, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Benefits are available for otherwise covered services and supplies required in the treatment of complications (unfortunate sequelae) and any necessary follow-on care resulting from a non-covered incident of treatment provided in the private sector pursuant to a properly granted waiver under § 199.16(f). The Director, DHA, or designee, shall issue guidelines for implementing this provision.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Dental.</I> TRICARE/CHAMPUS does not include a dental benefit. However, in connection with dental treatment for patients with developmental, mental, or physical disabilities or for pediatric patients age 5 or under, only institutional and anesthesia services may be provided as a benefit. Under very limited circumstances, benefits are available for dental services and supplies when the dental services are adjunctive to otherwise covered medical treatment. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adjunctive dental care: Limited.</I> Adjunctive dental care is limited to those services and supplies provided under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Dental care which is medically necessary in the treatment of an otherwise covered medical (not dental) condition, is an integral part of the treatment of such medical condition and is essential to the control of the primary medical condition. The following is a list of conditions for which CHAMPUS benefits are payable under this provision:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Intraoral abscesses which extend beyond the dental alveolus.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Extraoral abscesses.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Cellulitis and osteitis which is clearly exacerbating and directly affecting a medical condition currently under treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Removal of teeth and tooth fragments in order to treat and repair facial trauma resulting from an accidental injury.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Myofacial Pain Dysfunction Syndrome.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Total or complete ankyloglossia.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Adjunctive dental and orthodontic support for cleft palate.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The prosthetic replacement of either the maxilla or the mandible due to the reduction of body tissues associated with traumatic injury (e.g., impact, gun shot wound), in addition to services related to treating neoplasms or iatrogenic dental trauma.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The test of whether dental trauma is covered is whether the trauma is solely dental trauma. Dental trauma, in order to be covered, must be related to, and an integral part of medical trauma; or a result of medically necessary treatment of an injury or disease.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Dental care required in preparation for medical treatment of a disease or disorder or required as the result of dental trauma caused by the medically necessary treatment of an injury or disease (iatrogenic).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Necessary dental care including prophylaxis and extractions when performed in preparation for or as a result of in-line radiation therapy for oral or facial cancer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Treatment of gingival hyperplasia, with or without periodontal disease, as a direct result of prolonged therapy with Dilantin (diphenylhydantoin) or related compounds.
</P>
<P>(C) Dental care is limited to the above and similar conditions specifically prescribed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, as meeting the requirements for coverage under the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General exclusions.</I> (A) Dental care which is routine, preventative, restorative, prosthodontic, periodontic or emergency does not qualify as adjunctive dental care for the purposes of CHAMPUS except when performed in preparation for or as a result of dental trauma caused by medically necessary treatment of an injury or disease.
</P>
<P>(B) The adding or modifying of bridgework and dentures.
</P>
<P>(C) Orthodontia, except when directly related to and an integral part of the medical or surgical correction of a cleft palate or when required in preparation for, or as a result of, trauma to the teeth and supporting structures caused by medically necessary treatment of an injury or disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Preauthorization required.</I> In order to be covered, adjunctive dental care requires preauthorization from the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, in accordance with paragraph (a)(12) of this section. When adjunctive dental care involves a medical (not dental) emergency (such as facial injuries resulting from an accident), the requirement for preauthorization is waived. Such waiver, however, is limited to the essential adjunctive dental care related to the medical condition requiring the immediate emergency treatment. A complete explanation, with supporting medical documentation, must be submitted with claims for emergency adjunctive dental care. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Covered oral surgery.</I> Notwithstanding the above limitations on dental care, there are certain oral surgical procedures that are performed by both physicians and dentists, and that are essentially medical rather than dental care. For the purposes of CHAMPUS, the following procedures, whether performed by a physician or dentist, are considered to be in this category and benefits may be extended for otherwise covered services and supplies without preauthorization: 
</P>
<P>(A) Excision of tumors and cysts of the jaws, cheeks, lips, tongue, and roof and floor of the mouth, when such conditions require a pathological (histological) examination. 
</P>
<P>(B) Surgical procedures required to correct accidental injuries of the jaws, cheeks, lips, tongue, and roof and floor of the mouth.
</P>
<P>(C) Treatment of oral or facial cancer.
</P>
<P>(D) Treatment of fractures of facial bones.
</P>
<P>(E) External (extra-oral) incision and drainage of cellulitis.
</P>
<P>(F) Surgery of accessory sinuses, salivary glands, or ducts.
</P>
<P>(G) Reduction of dislocations and the excision of the temporomandibular joints, when surgery is a necessary part of the reduction.
</P>
<P>(H) Any oral surgical procedure that falls within the cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery definition is subject to the limitations and requirements set forth in paragraph (e)(8) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Extraction of unerupted or partially erupted, malposed or impacted teeth, with or without the attached follicular or development tissues, is not a covered oral surgery procedure except when the care is indicated in preparation for medical treatment of a disease or disorder or required as a result of dental trauma caused by the necessary medical treatment of an injury or illness. Surgical preparation of the mouth for dentures is not covered by CHAMPUS.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) <I>Inpatient hospital stay in connection with non-adjunctive, noncovered dental care.</I> Institutional benefits specified in paragraph (b) of this section may be extended for inpatient hospital stays related to noncovered, nonadjunctive dental care when such inpatient stay is medically necessary to safeguard the life of the patient from the effects of dentistry because of the existence of a specific and serious nondental organic impairment currently under active treatment. (Hemophilia is an example of a condition that could be considered a serious nondental impairment.) Preauthorization by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is required for such inpatient stays to be covered in the same manner as required for adjunctive dental care described in paragraph (e)(10)(iii) of this section. Regardless of whether or not the preauthorization request for the hospital admission is approved and thus qualifies for institutional benefits, the professional service related to the nonadjunctive dental care is not covered.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Anesthesia and institutional costs for dental care for children and certain other patients.</I> Institutional benefits specified in paragraph (b) of this section may be extended for hospital and in-out surgery settings related to noncovered, nonadjunctive dental care when such outpatient care or inpatient stay is in conjunction with dental treatment for patients with developmental, mental, or physical disabilities or for pediatric patients age 5 or under. For these patients, anesthesia services will be limited to the administration of general anesthesia only. Patients with developmental, mental, or physical disabilities are those patients with conditions that prohibit dental treatment in a safe and effective manner. Therefore, it is medically or psychologically necessary for these patients to require general anesthesia for dental treatment. Patients with physical disabilities include those patients having disabilities as defined in § 199.2 as a serious physical disability. Preauthorization by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, is required for such outpatient care or inpatient stays to be covered in the same manner as required for adjunctive dental care described in paragraph (e)(10)(iii) of this section. Regardless of whether or not the preauthorization request for outpatient care or hospital admission is approved and thus qualifies for institutional benefits, the professional service related to the nonadjunctive dental care is not covered, with the exception of coverage for anesthesia services.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Drug abuse.</I> Under the Basic Program, benefits may be extended for medically necessary prescription drugs required in the treatment of an illness or injury or in connection with maternity care (refer to paragraph (d) of this section). However, TRICARE benefits cannot be authorized to support or maintain an existing or potential drug abuse situation whether or not the drugs (under other circumstances) are eligible for benefit consideration and whether or not obtained by legal means. Drugs, including the substitution of a therapeutic drug with addictive potential for a drug of addiction, prescribed to beneficiaries undergoing medically supervised treatment for a substance use disorder as authorized under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section are not considered to be in support of, or to maintain, an existing or potential drug abuse situation and are allowed. The Director may prescribe appropriate policies to implement this prescription drug benefit for those undergoing medically supervised treatment for a substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limitations on who can prescribe drugs.</I> CHAMPUS benefits are not available for any drugs prescribed by a member of the beneficiary's family or by a nonfamily member residing in the same household with the beneficiary or sponsor.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Kinds of prescription drugs that are monitored carefully by CHAMPUS for possible abuse situations</I>—(A) <I>Narcotics.</I> Examples are Morphine and Demerol.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nonnarcotic analgesics.</I> Examples are Talwin and Darvon.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Tranquilizers.</I> Examples are Valium, Librium, and Meprobamate.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Barbiturates.</I> Examples are Seconal and Nembuttal.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Nonbarbituate hypnotics.</I> Examples are Doriden and Chloral Hydrate.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Stimulants.</I> Examples are amphetamines.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary responsibilities.</I> CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries are responsible for implementing utilization control and quality assurance procedures designed to identify possible drug abuse situations. The CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary is directed to screen all drug claims for potential overutilization and irrational prescribing of drugs, and to subject any such cases to extensive review to establish the necessity for the drugs and their appropriateness on the basis of diagnosis or definitive symptoms.
</P>
<P>(A) When a possible drug abuse situation is identified, all claims for drugs for that specific beneficiary or provider will be suspended pending the results of a review.
</P>
<P>(B) If the review determines that a drug abuse situation does in fact exist, all drug claims held in suspense will be denied.
</P>
<P>(C) If the record indicates previously paid drug benefits, the prior claims for that beneficiary or provider will be reopened and the circumstances involved reviewed to determine whether or not drug abuse also existed at the time the earlier claims were adjudicated. If drug abuse is later ascertained, benefit payments made previously will be considered to have been extended in error and the amounts so paid recouped.
</P>
<P>(D) Inpatient stays primarily for the purpose of obtaining drugs and any other services and supplies related to drug abuse also are excluded.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Unethical or illegal provider practices related to drugs.</I> Any such investigation into a possible drug abuse that uncovers unethical or illegal drug dispensing practices on the part of an institution, a pharmacy, or physician will be referred to the professional or investigative agency having jurisdiction. CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries are directed to withhold payment of all CHAMPUS claims for services and supplies rendered by a provider under active investigation for possible unethical or illegal drug dispensing activities.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Detoxification.</I> The above monitoring and control of drug abuse situations shall in no way be construed to deny otherwise covered medical services and supplies related to drug detoxification (including newborn, addicted infants) when medical supervision is required.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Domiciliary care.</I> The statute under which CHAMPUS operates also specifically excludes domiciliary care (refer to § 199.2 of this part for the definition of “Domiciliary Care”).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Examples of domiciliary care situations.</I> The following are examples of domiciliary care for which CHAMPUS benefits are not payable.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Home care is not available.</I> Institutionalization primarily because parents work, or extension of a hospital stay beyond what is medically necessary because the patient lives alone, are examples of domiciliary care provided because there is no other family member or other person available in the home.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Home care is not suitable.</I> Institutionalization of a child because a parent (or parents) is unable to provide a safe and nurturing environment due to a mental or substance use disorder, or because someone in the home has a contagious disease, are examples of why domiciliary care is being provided because the home setting is unsuitable.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Family unwilling to care for a person in the home.</I> A child who is difficult to manage may be placed in an institution, not because institutional care is medically necessary, but because the family does not want to handle him or her in the home. Such institutionalization would represent domiciliary care, that is, the family being unwilling to assume responsibility for the child.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benefits available in connection with a domiciliary care case.</I> Should the beneficiary receive otherwise covered medical services or supplies while also being in a domiciliary care situation, CHAMPUS benefits are payable for those medical services or supplies, or both, in the same manner as though the beneficiary resided in his or her own home. Such benefits would be cost-shared as though rendered to an outpatient.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>General exclusion.</I> Domiciliary care is institutionalization essentially to provide a substitute home—not because it is medically necessary for the beneficiary to be in the institution (although there may be conditions present that have contributed to the fact that domiciliary care is being rendered). CHAMPUS benefits are not payable for any costs or charges related to the provision of domiciliary care. While a substitute home or assistance may be necessary for the beneficiary, domiciliary care does not represent the kind of care for which CHAMPUS benefits can be provided.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>CT scanning</I>—(i) <I>Approved CT scan services.</I> Benefits may be extended for medically necessary CT scans of the head or other anatomical regions of the body when all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The patient is referred for the diagnostic procedure by a physician.
</P>
<P>(B) The CT scan procedure is consistent with the preliminary diagnosis or symptoms.
</P>
<P>(C) Other noninvasive and less costly means of diagnosis have been attempted or are not appropriate.
</P>
<P>(D) The CT scan equipment is licensed or registered by the appropriate state agency responsible for licensing or registering medical equipment that emits ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(E) The CT scan equipment is operated under the general supervision and direction of a physician.
</P>
<P>(F) The results of the CT scan diagnostic procedure are interpreted by a physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Review guidelines and criteria.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, will issue specific guidelines and criteria for CHAMPUS coverage of medically necessary head and body part CT scans.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Morbid obesity.</I> The TRICARE morbid obesity benefit is limited to those bariatric surgical procedures for which the safety and efficacy has been proven comparable or superior to conventional therapies and is consistent with the generally accepted norms for medical practice in the United States medical community. (See the definition of <I>reliable evidence</I> in § 199.2 of this part for the procedures used in determining if a medical treatment or procedure is unproven.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conditions for coverage.</I> (A) Payment for bariatric surgical procedures is determined by the requirements specified in paragraph (g)(15) of this section, and as defined in § 199.2(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Covered bariatric surgical procedures are payable only when the patient has completed growth (18 years of age or documentation of completion of bone growth) and has met one of the following selection criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The patient has a BMI that is equal to or exceeds 40 kg/m
<SU>2</SU> and has previously been unsuccessful with medical treatment for obesity.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The patient has a BMI of 35 to 39.9 kg/m
<SU>2</SU>, has at least one high-risk co-morbid condition associated with morbid obesity, and has previously been unsuccessful with medical treatment for obesity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Director, TMA, shall issue guidelines for review of the specific high-risk co-morbid conditions, exacerbated or caused by obesity based on the Reliable Evidence Standard as defined in § 199.2 of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of complications.</I> (A) Payment may be extended for repeat bariatric surgery when medically necessary to correct or treat complications from the initial covered bariatric surgery (a takedown). For instance, the surgeon in many cases will do a gastric bypass or gastroplasty to help the patient avoid regaining the weight that was lost. In this situation, payment is authorized even though the patient's condition technically may not meet the definition of morbid obesity because of the weight that was already lost following the initial surgery.
</P>
<P>(B) Payment is authorized for otherwise covered medical services and supplies directly related to complications of obesity when such services and supplies are an integral and necessary part of the course of treatment that was aggravated by the obesity.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusions.</I> CHAMPUS payment may not be extended for weight control services, weight control/loss programs, dietary regimens and supplements, appetite suppressants and other medications; food or food supplements, exercise and exercise programs, or other programs and equipment that are primarily intended to control weight or for the purpose of weight reduction, regardless of the existence of co-morbid conditions.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Maternity care.</I> (i) <I>Benefit.</I> The CHAMPUS Basic Program may share the cost of medically necessary services and supplies associated with maternity care which are not otherwise excluded by this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cost-share.</I> Maternity care cost-share shall be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) Inpatient cost-share formula applies to maternity care ending in childbirth in, or on the way to, a hospital inpatient childbirth unit, and for maternity care ending in a non-birth outcome not otherwise excluded by this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Ambulatory surgery cost-share formula applies to maternity care ending in childbirth in, or on the way to, a birthing center to which the beneficiary is admitted and from which the beneficiary has received prenatal care, or a hospital-based outpatient birthing room.
</P>
<P>(C) Outpatient cost-share formula applies to maternity care which terminates in a planned childbirth at home.
</P>
<P>(D) Otherwise covered medical services and supplies directly related to “Complications of pregnancy,” as defined in § 199.2 of this part, will be cost-shared on the same basis as the related maternity care for a period not to exceed 42 days following termination of the pregnancy and thereafter cost-shared on the basis of the inpatient or outpatient status of the beneficiary when medically necessary services and supplies are received.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Biofeedback Therapy.</I> Biofeedback therapy is a technique by which a person is taught to exercise control over a physiologic process occurring within the body. By using modern biomedical instruments the patient learns how a specific physiologic system within his body operates and how to modify the performance of this particular system.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefits Provided.</I> CHAMPUS benefits are payable for services and supplies in connection with electrothermal, electromyograph and electrodermal biofeedback therapy when there is documentation that the patient has undergone an appropriate medical evaluation, that their present condition is not responding to or no longer responds to other forms of conventional treatment, and only when provided as treatment for the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Adjunctive treatment for Raynaud's Syndrome.
</P>
<P>(B) Adjunctive treatment for muscle re-education of specific muscle groups or for treating pathological muscle abnormalities of spasticity, or incapacitating muscle spasm or weakness.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Payable benefits include initial intake evaluation. Treatment following the initial intake evaluation is limited to a maximum of 20 inpatient and outpatient biofeedback treatments per calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusions.</I> Benefits are excluded for biofeedback therapy for the treatment of ordinary muscle tension states or for psychosomatic conditions. Benefits are also excluded for the rental or purchase of biofeedback equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Provider Requirements.</I> A provider of biofeedback therapy must be a CHAMPUS-authorized provider. (Refer to § 199.6, “Authorized Providers). If biofeedback treatment is provided by other than a physician, the patient must be referred by a physician.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Implementation Guidelines.</I> The Director of OCHAMPUS shall issue guidelines as are necessary to implement the provision of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Cardiac rehabilitation.</I> Cardiac rehabilitation is the process by which individuals are restored to their optimal physical, medical, and psychological status, after a cardiac event. Cardiac rehabilitation is often divided into three phases. Phase I begins during inpatient hospitalization and is managed by the patient's personal physician. Phase II is a medically supervised outpatient program which begins following discharge. Phase III is a lifetime maintenance program emphasizing continuation of physical fitness with periodic followup. Each phase includes an exercise component, patient education, and risk factor modification. There may be considerable variation in program components, intensity, and duration.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefits Provided.</I> CHAMPUS benefits are available on an inpatient or outpatient basis for services and supplies provided in connection with a cardiac rehabilitation program when ordered by a physician and provided as treatment for patients who have experienced the following cardiac events within the preceding twelve (12) months:
</P>
<P>(A) Myocardial Infarction.
</P>
<P>(B) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft.
</P>
<P>(C) Coronary Angioplasty.
</P>
<P>(D) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty
</P>
<P>(E) Chronic Stable Angina (see limitations below).
</P>
<P>(F) Heart valve surgery. 
</P>
<P>(G) Heart or Heart-lung Transplantation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Payable benefits include separate allowance for the initial evaluation and testing. Outpatient treatment following the initial intake evaluation and testing is limited to a maximum of thirty-six (36) sessions per cardiac event, usually provided 3 sessions per week for twelve (12) weeks. Patients diagnosed with chronic stable angina are limited to one treatment episode (36 sessions) in a calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusions.</I> Phase III cardiac rehabilitation lifetime maintenance programs performed at home or in medically unsupervised settings are not covered.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Providers.</I> A provider of cardiac rehabilitation services must be a TRICARE authorized hospital (see § 199.6 (b)(4)(i)) or a freestanding cardiac rehabilitation facility that meets the requirements of § 199.6 (f). All cardiac rehabilitation services must be ordered by a physician.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Payment.</I> Payment for outpatient treatment will be based on an all inclusive allowable charge per session. Inpatient treatment will be paid based upon the reimbursement system in place for the hospital where the services are rendered.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Implementation Guidelines.</I> The Director of OCHAMPUS shall issue guidelines as are necessary to implement the provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Hospice care.</I> Hospice care is a program which provides an integrated set of services and supplies designed to care for the terminally ill. This type of care emphasizes palliative care and supportive services, such as pain control and home care, rather than cure-oriented services provided in institutions that are otherwise the primary focus under CHAMPUS. The benefit provides coverage for a humane and sensible approach to care during the last days of life for some terminally ill patients.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefit coverage.</I> CHAMPUS beneficiaries who are terminally ill (that is, a life expectancy of six months or less if the disease runs its normal course) will be eligible for the following services and supplies in lieu of most other CHAMPUS benefits:
</P>
<P>(A) Physician services.
</P>
<P>(B) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a registered professional nurse.
</P>
<P>(C) Medical social services provided by a social worker who has at least a bachelor's degree from a school accredited or approved by the Council on Social Work Education, and who is working under the direction of a physician. Medical social services include, but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Assessment of social and emotional factors related to the beneficiary's illness, need for care, response to treatment, and adjustment to care.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Assessment of the relationship of the beneficiary's medical and nursing requirements to the individual's home situation, financial resources, and availability of community resources.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Appropriate action to obtain available community resources to assist in resolving the beneficiary's problem.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Counseling services that are required by the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(D) Counseling services provided to the terminally ill individual and the family member or other persons caring for the individual at home. Counseling, including dietary counseling, may be provided both for the purpose of training the individual's family or other care-giver to provide care, and for the purpose of helping the individual and those caring for him or her to adjust to the individual's approaching death. Bereavement counseling, which consists of counseling services provided to the individual's family after the individual's death, is a required hospice service but it is not reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(E) Home health aide services furnished by qualified aides and homemaker services. Home health aides may provide personal care services. Aides also may perform household services to maintain a safe and sanitary environment in areas of the home used by the patient. Examples of such services are changing the bed or light cleaning and laundering essential to the comfort and cleanliness of the patient. Aide services must be provided under the general supervision of a registered nurse. Homemaker services may include assistance in personal care, maintenance of a safe and healthy environment, and services to enable the individual to carry out the plan of care. Qualifications for home health aides can be found in 42 CFR 484.36.
</P>
<P>(F) Medical appliances and supplies, including drugs and biologicals. Only drugs that are used primarily for the relief of pain and symptom control related to the individual's terminal illness are covered. Appliances may include covered durable medical equipment, as well as other self-help and personal comfort items related to the palliation or management of the patient's condition while he or she is under hospice care. Equipment is provided by the hospice for use in the beneficiary's home while he or she is under hospice care. Medical supplies include those that are part of the written plan of care. Medical appliances and supplies are included within the hospice all-inclusive rates.
</P>
<P>(G) Physical therapy, occupational therapy and speech-language pathology services provided for purposes of symptom control or to enable the individual to maintain activities of daily living and basic functional skills.
</P>
<P>(H) Short-term inpatient care provided in a Medicare participating hospice inpatient unit, or a Medicare participating hospital, skilled nursing facility (SNF) or, in the case of respite care, a Medicaid-certified nursing facility that additionally meets the special hospice standards regarding staffing and patient areas. Services provided in an inpatient setting must conform to the written plan of care. Inpatient care may be required for procedures necessary for pain control or acute or chronic symptom management. Inpatient care may also be furnished to provide respite for the individual's family or other persons caring for the individual at home. Respite care is the only type of inpatient care that may be provided in a Medicaid-certified nursing facility. The limitations on custodial care and personal comfort items applicable to other CHAMPUS services are not applicable to hospice care.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Core services.</I> The hospice must ensure that substantially all core services are routinely provided directly by hospice employees; i.e., physician services, nursing care, medical social services, and counseling for individuals and care givers. Refer to paragraphs (e)(19)(i)(A), (e)(19)(i)(B), (e)(19)(i)(C), and (e)(19)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-core services.</I> While non-core services (i.e., home health aide services, medical appliances and supplies, drugs and biologicals, physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language pathology and short-term inpatient care) may be provided under arrangements with other agencies or organizations, the hospice must maintain professional management of the patient at all times and in all settings. Refer to paragraphs (e)(19)(i)(E), (e)(19)(i)(F), (e)(19)(i)(G), and (e)(19)(i)(H) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Availability of services.</I> The hospice must make nursing services, physician services, and drugs and biologicals routinely available on a 24-hour basis. All other covered services must be made available on a 24-hour basis to the extent necessary to meet the needs of individuals for care that is reasonable and necessary for the palliation and management of the terminal illness and related condition. These services must be provided in a manner consistent with accepted standards of practice.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Periods of care.</I> Hospice care is divided into distinct periods of care. The periods of care that may be elected by the terminally ill CHAMPUS beneficiary shall be as the Director, TRICARE determines to be appropriate, but shall not be less than those offered under Medicare's Hospice Program.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Conditions for coverage.</I> The CHAMPUS beneficiary must meet the following conditions/criteria in order to be eligible for the hospice benefits and services referenced in paragraph (e)(19)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) There must be written certification in the medical record that the CHAMPUS beneficiary is terminally ill with a life expectancy of six months or less if the terminal illness runs its normal course.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Timing of certification.</I> The hospice must obtain written certification of terminal illness for each of the election periods described in paragraph (e)(19(vi)(B) of this section, even if a single election continues in effect for two, three or four periods.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Basic requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(19(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section the hospice must obtain the written certification no later than two calendar days after the period begins.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Exception.</I> For the initial 90-day period, if the hospice cannot obtain the written certifications within two calendar days, it must obtain oral certifications within two calendar days, and written certifications no later than eight calendar days after the period begins.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Sources of certification.</I> Physician certification is required for both initial and subsequent election periods.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For the initial 90-day period, the hospice must obtain written certification statements (and oral certification statements if required under paragraph (e)(19(vi)(A)(<I>i)(ii</I>) of this section) from:
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) The individual's attending physician if the individual has an attending physician; and
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) The medical director of the hospice or the physician member of the hospice interdisciplinary group.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For subsequent periods, the only requirement is certification by one of the physicians listed in paragraph (e)(19)(vi)(A)(<I>2)(i</I>)(<I>B</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The terminally ill beneficiary must elect to receive hospice care for each specified period of time; i.e., the two 90-day periods, a subsequent 30-day period, and a final period of unlimited duration. If the individual is found to be mentally incompetent, his or her representative may file the election statement. Representative means an individual who has been authorized under State law to terminate medical care or to elect or revoke the election of hospice care on behalf of a terminally ill individual who is found to be mentally incompetent.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The episodes of care must be used consecutively; i.e., the two 90-day periods first, then the 30-day period, followed by the final period. The periods of care may be elected separately at different times.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The initial election will continue through subsequent election periods without a break in care as long as the individual remains in the care of the hospice and does not revoke the election.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The effective date of the election may begin on the first day of hospice care or any subsequent day of care, but the effective date cannot be made prior to the date that the election was made.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The beneficiary or representative may revoke a hospice election at any time, but in doing so, the remaining days of that particular election period are forfeited and standard CHAMPUS coverage resumes. To revoke the hospice benefit, the beneficiary or representative must file a signed statement of revocation with the hospice. The statement must provide the date that the revocation is to be effective. An individual or representative may not designate an effective date earlier than the date that the revocation is made.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If an election of hospice benefits has been revoked, the individual, or his or her representative may at any time file a hospice election for any period of time still available to the individual, in accordance with § 199.4(e)(19)(vi)(B).
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A CHAMPUS beneficiary may change, once in each election period, the designation of the particular hospice from which he or she elects to receive hospice care. To change the designation of hospice programs the individual or representative must file, with the hospice from which care has been received and with the newly designated hospice, a statement that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The name of the hospice from which the individual has received care and the name of the hospice from which he or she plans to receive care.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The date the change is to be effective.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Each hospice will design and print its own election statement to include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Identification of the particular hospice that will provide care to the individual.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The individual's or representative's acknowledgment that he or she has been given a full understanding of the palliative rather than curative nature of hospice care, as it relates to the individual's terminal illness.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The individual's or representative's acknowledgment that he or she understands that certain other CHAMPUS services are waived by the election.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The effective date of the election.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The signature of the individual or representative, and the date signed.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The hospice must notify the CHAMPUS contractor of the initiation, change or revocation of any election.
</P>
<P>(C) The beneficiary must waive all rights to other CHAMPUS payments for the duration of the election period for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Care provided by any hospice program other than the elected hospice unless provided under arrangements made by the elected hospice; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Other CHAMPUS basic program services/benefits related to the treatment of the terminal illness for which hospice care was elected, or to a related condition, or that are equivalent to hospice care, except for services provided by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The designated hospice;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Another hospice under arrangement made by the designated hospice; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) An attending physician who is not employed by or under contract with the hospice program.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Basic CHAMPUS coverage will be reinstated upon revocation of the hospice election.
</P>
<P>(D) A written plan of care must be established by a member of the basic interdisciplinary group assessing the patient's needs. This group must have at least one physician, one registered professional nurse, one social worker, and one pastoral or other counselor.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In establishing the initial plan of care the member of the basic interdisciplinary group who assesses the patient's needs must meet or call at least one other group member before writing the initial plan of care.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least one of the persons involved in developing the initial plan must be a nurse or physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan must be established on the same day as the assessment if the day of assessment is to be a covered day of hospice care.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The other two members of the basic interdisciplinary group—the attending physician and the medical director or physician designee—must review the initial plan of care and provide their input to the process of establishing the plan of care within two calendar days following the day of assessment. A meeting of group members is not required within this 2-day period. Input may be provided by telephone.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Hospice services must be consistent with the plan of care for coverage to be extended.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The plan must be reviewed and updated, at intervals specified in the plan, by the attending physician, medical director or physician designee and interdisciplinary group. These reviews must be documented in the medical records.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The hospice must designate a registered nurse to coordinate the implementation of the plan of care for each patient.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The plan must include an assessment of the individual's needs and identification of the services, including the management of discomfort and symptom relief. It must state in detail the scope and frequency of services needed to meet the patient's and family's needs.
</P>
<P>(E) Complete medical records and all supporting documentation must be submitted to the CHAMPUS contractor within 30 days of the date of its request. If records are not received within the designated time frame, authorization of the hospice benefit will be denied and any prior payments made will be recouped. A denial issued for this reason is not an initial determination under § 199.10, and is not appealable.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Appeal rights under hospice benefit.</I> A beneficiary or provider is entitled to appeal rights for cases involving a denial of benefits in accordance with the provisions of this part and § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(20) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Home health services.</I> Home health services are covered when furnished by, or under arrangement with, a home health agency (HHA) that participates in the TRICARE program, and provides care on a visiting basis in the beneficiary's home. Covered HHA services are the same as those provided under Medicare under section 1861(m) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x(m)) and 42 CFR part 409, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefit coverage.</I> Coverage will be extended for the following home health services subject to the conditions of coverage prescribed in paragraph (e)(21)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Part-time or intermittent skilled nursing care furnished by a registered nurse or a licensed practical (vocational) nurse under the supervision of a registered nurse;
</P>
<P>(B) Physical therapy, speech-language pathology, and occupational therapy;
</P>
<P>(C) Medical social services under the direction of a physician;
</P>
<P>(D) Part-time or intermittent services of a home health aide who has successfully completed a state-established or other training program that meets the requirements of 42 CFR Part 484; 
</P>
<P>(E) Medical supplies, a covered osteoporosis drug (as defined in the Social Security Act 1861(kk), but excluding other drugs and biologicals) and durable medical equipment;
</P>
<P>(F) Medical services provided by an interim or resident-in-training of a hospital, under an approved teaching program of the hospital in the case of an HHA that is affiliated or under common control of a hospital; and
</P>
<P>(G) Services at hospitals, SNFs or rehabilitation centers when they involve equipment too cumbersome to bring to the home but not including transportation of the individual in connection with any such item or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditions for Coverage.</I> The following conditions/criteria must be met in order to be eligible for the HHA benefits and services referenced in paragraph (e)(21)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The person for whom the services are provided is an eligible TRICARE beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(B) The HHA that is providing the services to the beneficiary has in effect a valid agreement to participate in the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(C) Physician certifies the need for home health services because the beneficiary is homebound.
</P>
<P>(D) The services are provided under a plan of care established and approved by a physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan of care must contain all pertinent diagnoses, including the patient's mental status, the types of services, supplies, and equipment required, the frequency of visits to be made, prognosis, rehabilitation potential, functional limitations, activities permitted, nutritional requirements, all medications and treatments, safety measures to protect against injury, instructions for timely discharge or referral, and any additional items the HHA or physician chooses to include.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The orders on the plan of care must specify the type of services to be provided to the beneficiary, both with respect to the professional who will provide them and the nature of the individual services, as well as the frequency of the services.
</P>
<P>(E) The beneficiary must need skilled nursing care on an intermittent basis or physical therapy or speech-language pathology services, or have continued need for occupational therapy after the need for skilled nursing care, physical therapy, or speech-language pathology services has ceased.
</P>
<P>(F) The beneficiary must receive, and an HHA must provide, a patient-specific, comprehensive assessment that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Accurately reflects the patient's current health status and includes information that may be used to demonstrate the patient's progress toward achievement of desired outcomes;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Identifies the beneficiary's continuing need for home care and meets the beneficiary's medical, nursing, rehabilitative, social, and discharge planning needs.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Incorporates the use of the current version of the Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) items, using the language and groupings of the OASIS items, as specified by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity.
</P>
<P>(G) TRICARE is the appropriate payer.
</P>
<P>(H) The services for which payment is claimed are not otherwise excluded from payment.
</P>
<P>(I) Any other conditions of coverage/participation that may be required under Medicare's HHA benefit; <I>i.e.</I>, coverage guidelines as prescribed under Sections 1861(o) and 1891 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x(o) and 1395bbb), 42 CFR Part 409, Subpart E and 42 CFR Part 484.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Pulmonary rehabilitation.</I> TRICARE benefits are payable for beneficiaries whose conditions are considered appropriate for pulmonary rehabilitation according to guidelines adopted by the Executive Director, TMA, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(23) A speech generating device (SGD) as defined in § 199.2 of this part is covered as a voice prosthesis. The prosthesis provisions found in paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(24) A hearing aid, but only for a dependent of a member of the uniformed services on active duty and only if the dependent has a profound hearing loss as defined in § 199.2 of this part. Medically necessary and appropriate services and supplies, including hearing examinations, required in connection with this hearing aid benefit are covered.
</P>
<P>(25) Rehabilitation therapy as defined in § 199.2 of this part to improve, restore, or maintain function, or to minimize or prevent deterioration of function, of a patient when prescribed by a physician. The rehabilitation therapy must be medically necessary and appropriate medical care, rendered by an authorized provider, necessary to the establishment of a safe and effective maintenance program in connection with a specific medical condition, and must not be custodial care or otherwise excluded from coverage.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>National Institutes of Health clinical trials.</I> By law, and pursuant to an agreement between the Department of Defense and the Department of Health and Human Services, the general prohibition against CHAMPUS cost-sharing of unproven drugs, devices, and medical treatments or procedures may be waived by the Secretary of Defense in connection with clinical trials sponsored or approved by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) or an NIH Institute or Center if it is determined that such a waiver will promote access by covered beneficiaries to promising new treatments and contribute to the development of such treatments. A waiver shall only be exercised as authorized under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Demonstration waiver.</I> A waiver may be granted through a demonstration project established in accordance with Sec. 199.1(o) of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Continuous waiver</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> As a result of a demonstration project or rulemaking under which a waiver has been granted in connection with a National Institutes of Health (NIH)-sponsored or approved clinical trial, a determination may be made that it is in the best interest of the government and eligible beneficiaries to provide a waiver for CHAMPUS cost-sharing of routine services and supplies associated with the eligible clinical trial. Only those specified clinical trials identified under this paragraph (e)(26)(ii) and paragraph (e)(26)(iii) of this section have been authorized a continuous waiver under CHAMPUS. Continuous waivers specific to public health emergencies are described in paragraph (e)(26)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>National Cancer Institute (NCI) sponsored or approved cancer prevention, screening, and early detection clinical trials.</I> A continuous waiver under paragraph (e)(26) of this section has been granted for CHAMPUS cost-sharing for those eligible beneficiaries selected to participate in NCI-sponsored or approved Phase I, Phase II, Phase III, and Phase IV studies for the prevention and treatment of cancer.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care and testing required to determine eligibility for an NCI-sponsored or approved trial, including the evaluation for eligibility at the institution conducting the NCI-sponsored or approved study. CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care required as a result of participation in NCI-sponsored or approved studies. This includes purchasing and administering all approved chemotherapy agents (except for NCI-funded investigational drugs provided as part of the clinical trial) and all inpatient and outpatient care, including diagnostic and laboratory services not otherwise reimbursed under an NCI grant program if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The provider seeking treatment for an eligible beneficiary in an NCI approved protocol has obtained pre-authorization for the proposed treatment before initial evaluation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Such treatments are NCI-sponsored or approved Phase I, Phase II, Phase III, or Phase IV protocols;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The beneficiary continues to meet entry criteria for said protocol; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The institutional and individual providers are CHAMPUS authorized providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) CHAMPUS will not provide reimbursement for care rendered in the National Institutes of Health Clinical Center or costs associated with non-treatment research activities associated with the clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Cost-shares and deductibles applicable to CHAMPUS will also apply under the NCI-sponsored or approved clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The Director shall issue procedures and guidelines establishing NCI-sponsorship and approval of clinical trials and the administrative process by which individual patients apply for and receive cost-sharing under NCI-sponsored or approved cancer clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>NIH-sponsored and approved clinical trials for severely debilitating diseases, life-threatening diseases, and rare diseases.</I> The Secretary has approved a continuous waiver under paragraph (e)(26) of this section for CHAMPUS cost-sharing for those eligible beneficiaries selected to participate in NIH-sponsored or approved Phase I, Phase II, Phase III, and Phase IV clinical trials in which the clinical trial studies a new treatment or cure for a specific condition or the treatment of a currently uncontrolled symptom or aspect of that condition, provided that the condition is severely debilitating, life-threatening, or a rare disease.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care and testing required to determine eligibility for an NIH-sponsored or approved trial, including the evaluation for eligibility at the institution conducting the NIH-sponsored or approved study. CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care (including associated health complications) required as a result of participation in NIH-sponsored or approved studies. This includes purchasing and administering all approved pharmaceutical agents (except for sponsor-funded investigational drugs provided as part of the clinical trial) and all inpatient and outpatient care, including diagnostic, laboratory, rehabilitation, and home health services not otherwise reimbursed under an NIH grant program if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The provider seeking treatment for an eligible beneficiary in an NIH approved protocol has obtained pre-authorization for the proposed treatment before initial evaluation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Such treatments are NIH-sponsored or approved Phase I, Phase II, Phase III, or Phase IV protocols;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The beneficiary continues to meet entry criteria for said protocol; and,
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The institutional and individual providers are CHAMPUS authorized providers,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) CHAMPUS will not provide reimbursement for care rendered in the NIH Clinical Center or costs associated with non-treatment research activities associated with the clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Cost-shares and deductibles applicable to CHAMPUS will also apply under the NIH-sponsored or approved clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The Director shall issue procedures and guidelines establishing NIH-sponsorship and approval of clinical trials and the administrative process by which individual patients apply for and receive cost-sharing under eligible NIH-sponsored or approved clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Public health emergency or national emergency waiver</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> A waiver has been granted for CHAMPUS cost-sharing for eligible beneficiaries who participate in Phase I, II, III, or IV trials that are sponsored or approved by the NIH or an NIH Center or Institute for the purposes of treatment or prevention of a Government-recognized epidemic or pandemic that results in a national emergency or public health emergency.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Infectious disease health emergencies.</I> CHAMPUS will cover cost-sharing for those eligible beneficiaries selected to participate in NIH-sponsored or approved Phase I, II, III, and IV studies examining the treatment or prevention of an infectious disease (and any associated sequelae) that causes a pandemic or epidemic, when part of a national emergency declared by the President of the United States or a public health emergency declared by the Secretary of Health and Human Services. For eligible beneficiaries receiving covered services overseas, this coverage also includes pandemics and epidemics recognized by foreign governments and pandemics and epidemics recognized by the World Health Organization, although only NIH-approved clinical trials in the region experiencing the Government-recognized pandemic or epidemic qualify for coverage under this provision.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care and testing required to determine eligibility for an NIH-sponsored or approved trial, including the evaluation for eligibility at the institution conducting the NIH-sponsored or approved study. CHAMPUS will cost-share all medical care (including associated health complications) required as a result of participation in NIH-sponsored or approved studies. This includes purchasing and administering all approved pharmaceutical agents (except for NIH-funded investigational drugs provided as part of the clinical trial) and all inpatient and outpatient care, including diagnostic, laboratory, rehabilitation, and home health services not otherwise reimbursed under an NIH grant program if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Such treatments are NIH-sponsored or approved Phase I, Phase II, Phase III, or Phase IV protocols;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The beneficiary continues to meet entry criteria for said protocol; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The institutional and individual providers are CHAMPUS authorized providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) CHAMPUS will not provide reimbursement for care rendered in the NIH Clinical Center or costs associated with non-treatment research activities associated with the clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Cost-shares and deductibles applicable to CHAMPUS will also apply under the NIH-sponsored or approved clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Coverage of cost-sharing for those eligible beneficiaries selected to participate in a clinical trial that meets criteria under paragraph (e)(26)(iii)(B) of this section is effective the date the national or public health emergency is declared and does not terminate at the end of the emergency period.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The Director shall issue procedures and guidelines establishing NIH-sponsorship and approval of clinical trials and the administrative process by which individual patients apply for and receive cost-sharing under eligible NIH-sponsored or approved clinical trials.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A waiver has been authorized for CHAMPUS cost-sharing for those eligible beneficiaries selected to participate in NIH-sponsored or approved Phase I, II, III, and IV studies examining the treatment or prevention of Coronavirus Disease 2019 and its associated sequelae.</P></NOTE>
<P>(27) TRICARE will cost share forensic examinations following a sexual assault or domestic violence. The forensic examination includes a history of the event and a complete physical and collection of forensic evidence, and medical and psychological follow-up care. The examination for sexual assault also includes, but is not limited to, a test kit to retrieve forensic evidence, testing for pregnancy, testing for sexually transmitted disease and HIV, and medical services and supplies for prevention of sexually transmitted diseases, HIV, pregnancy, and counseling services.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Preventive care.</I> The following preventive services are covered:
</P>
<P>(i) Cervical, breast, colon and prostate cancer screenings according to standards issued by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, based on guidelines from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. The standards may establish a specific schedule that includes frequency, age specifications, and gender of the beneficiary, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Immunizations as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
</P>
<P>(iii) Well-child visits for children under 6 years of age as described in paragraph (c)(3)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Health promotion and disease prevention visits (which may include all of the services provided pursuant to § 199.17(f)(2)) for beneficiaries 6 years of age or older may be provided in connection with immunizations and cancer screening examinations authorized by paragraphs (e)(28)(i) and (ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(v) Breastfeeding support, supplies (including breast pumps and associated equipment), and counseling.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Physical examinations.</I> In addition to the health promotion and disease prevention visits authorized in paragraph (e)(28)(iv) of this section, the following physical examinations are specifically authorized:
</P>
<P>(i) Physical examinations for dependents of Active Duty military personnel who are traveling outside the United States. The examination must be required because of an Active Duty member's assignment and the travel is being performed under orders issued by a Uniformed Service. Any immunizations required for a dependent of an Active Duty member to travel outside of the United States is covered as a preventive service under paragraph (e)(28) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Physical examinations for beneficiaries ages 5-11 that are required for school enrollment and that are provided on or after October 30, 2000.
</P>
<P>(iii) Other types of physical examinations not listed above are excluded including routine, annual, or employment-requested physical examinations and routine screening procedures that are not part of medically necessary care or treatment or otherwise specifically authorized by statute.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Smoking cessation program.</I> The TRICARE smoking cessation program is a behavioral modification program to assist eligible beneficiaries who desire to quit smoking. The program consists of a pharmaceutical benefit; smoking cessation counseling; access to a toll-free quit line for non-medical assistance; and, access to print and internet web-based tobacco cessation materials.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability.</I> The TRICARE smoking cessation program is available to all TRICARE beneficiaries who reside in one of the 50 United States or the District of Columbia who are not eligible for Medicare benefits authorized under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act. In addition, pursuant to § 199.17, if authorized by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs), the TRICARE smoking cessation program may be implemented in whole or in part in areas outside the 50 states and the District of Columbia for active duty members and their dependents who are enrolled in TRICARE Prime (overseas Prime beneficiaries). In such cases, the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may also authorize modifications to the TRICARE smoking cessation program rules and procedures as may be appropriate to the overseas area involved. Notice of the use of this authority, not otherwise mentioned in this paragraph (e)(30), shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benefits.</I> There is no requirement for an eligible beneficiary to be diagnosed with a smoking related illness to access benefits under this program. The specific benefits available under the TRICARE smoking cessation program are:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Pharmaceutical agents.</I> Products available under this program are identified through the DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, consistent with the DoD Uniform Formulary in § 199.21. Smoking cessation pharmaceutical agents, including FDA-approved over-the-counter (OTC) pharmaceutical agents, are available through the TRICARE Mail Order Pharmacy (TMOP) or the MTF at no cost to the beneficiary. Smoking cessation pharmaceuticals through the TRICARE program will not be available at any retail pharmacies. A prescription from a TRICARE-authorized provider is required to obtain any pharmaceutical agent used for smoking cessation, including OTC agents. For overseas Prime beneficiaries, pharmaceutical agents may be provided either in the MTF or through the TMOP where such facility or service is available.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Face-to-face smoking cessation counseling.</I> Both individual and group smoking cessation counseling are covered. The number and mix of face-to-face counseling sessions covered under this program shall be determined by the Director, TMA; however, shall not exceed the limits established in paragraph (e)(30)(iii) of this section. A TRICARE-authorized provider listed in § 199.6 must render all counseling sessions.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Toll-free quit line.</I> Access to a non-medical toll-free quit line 7 days a week, 24 hours a day will be available. The quit line will be staffed with smoking cessation counselors trained to assess a beneficiary's readiness to quit, identify barriers to quitting, and provide specific suggested actions and motivational counseling to enhance the chances of a successful quit attempt. When appropriate, quit line counselors will refer beneficiaries to a TRICARE-authorized provider for medical intervention. The quit line may, at the discretion of the Director, TMA, include the opportunity for the beneficiary to request individual follow-up contact initiated by quit line personnel; however, the beneficiary is not required to participate in the quit line initiated follow-up. Printed educational materials on the effects of tobacco use will be provided to the beneficiary upon request. This benefit may be made available to overseas Prime beneficiaries should the ASD(HA) exercise his authority to do so and provide appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Web-based resources.</I> Downloadable educational materials on the effects of tobacco use will be available through the internet or other electronic media. This service may be made available to overseas Prime beneficiaries in all locations where web based resources are available. There shall be no requirement to create web based resources in any geographic area in order to make this service available.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Beneficiary or sponsor liability</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> As stated in the introductory paragraph to this section, the Basic Program is essentially a supplemental program to the Uniformed Services direct medical care system. To encourage use of the Uniformed Services direct medical care system wherever its facilities are available and appropriate, the Basic Program benefits are designed so that it is to the financial advantage of a CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor to use the direct medical care system. When medical care is received from civilian sources, a CHAMPUS beneficiary is responsible for payment of certain deductible and cost-sharing amounts in connection with otherwise covered services and supplies. By statute, this joint financial responsibility between the beneficiary or sponsor and CHAMPUS is more favorable for dependents of members than for other classes of beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dependents of members of the Uniformed Services.</I> CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor liability set forth for dependents of members is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual calendar year deductible for outpatient services and supplies.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) For care rendered all eligible beneficiaries prior to April 1, 1991, or when the active duty sponsor's pay grade is E-4 or below, regardless of the date of care:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Individual Deductible:</I> Each beneficiary is liable for the first fifty dollars ($50.00) of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable amount on claims for care provided in the same calendar year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Family Deductible:</I> The total deductible amount for all members of a family with the same sponsor during one calendar year shall not exceed one hundred dollars ($100.00).
</P>
<P>(B) For care rendered on or after April 1, 1991, for all CHAMPUS beneficiaries except dependents of active duty sponsors in pay grades E-4 or below.
</P>
<P>(<I>1) Individual Deductible:</I> Each beneficiary is liable for the first one hundred and fifty dollars ($150.00) of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable amount on claims for care provided in the same calendar year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2) Family Deductible:</I> The total deductible amount for all members of a family with the same sponsor during one calendar year shall not exceed three hundred dollars ($300.00).
</P>
<P>(C) CHAMPUS-<I>approved Ambulatory Surgical Centers or Birthing Centers.</I> No deductible shall be applied to allowable amounts for services or items rendered to active duty for authorized NATO dependents.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Allowable Amount does not exceed Deductible Amount.</I> If calendar year allowable amounts for two or more beneficiary members of a family total less than $100.00 ($300.00 if paragraph (f) (2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section applies), but more of the beneficiary members submit a claim for over $50.00 ($150.00 if paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section applies), neither the family nor the individual deductible will have been met and no CHAMPUS benefits are payable.
</P>
<P>(E) For any family the outpatient deductible amounts will be applied sequentially as the CHAMPUS claims are processed.
</P>
<P>(F) If the calendar year outpatient deductible under either paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(A) or (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section has been met by a beneficiary or a family through the submission of a claim or claims to a CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary in another geographic location from the location where a current claim is being submitted, the beneficiary or sponsor must obtain a deductible certificate from the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary where the applicable beneficiary or family calendar year deductible was met. Such deductible certificate must be attached to the current claim being submitted for benefits. Failure to obtain a deductible certificate under such circumstances will result in a second beneficiary or family calendar year deductible being applied. However, this second deductible may be reimbursed once appropriate documentation, as described in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(F) of this section, is supplied to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary applying the second deductible.
</P>
<P>(G) Notwithstanding the dates specified in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(A) and (f)(B)(2)(i) of this section in the case of dependents of active duty members of rank E-5 or above with Persian Gulf Conflict service, dependents of service members who were killed in the Gulf, or who died subsequent to Gulf service, and of members who retired prior to October 1, 1991, after having served in the Gulf War, the deductible shall be the amount specified in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A) of this section for care rendered prior to October 1, 1991, and the amount specified in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section for care rendered on or after October 1, 1991.
</P>
<P>(H) The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, may waive the annual individual or family calendar year deductible for dependents of a Reserve Component member who is called or ordered to active duty for a period of more than 30 days or a National Guard member who is called or ordered to fulltime federal National Guard duty for a period of more than 30 days in support of a contingency operation (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13)). For purposes of this paragraph, a dependent is a lawful husband or wife of the member and a child is defined in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (F) and (b)(2)(ii)(H)(1), (2), and (4) of § 199.3.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inpatient cost-sharing.</I> Dependents of members of the Uniformed Services are responsible for the payment of the first $25 of the allowable institutional costs incurred with each covered inpatient admission to a hospital or other authorized institutional provider (refer to § 199.6, including inpatient admission to a residential treatment center, substance use disorder rehabilitation facility residential treatment program, or skilled nursing facility), or the amount the beneficiary or sponsor would have been charged had the inpatient care been provided in a Uniformed Service hospital, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P><B>Note:</B> The Secretary of Defense (after consulting with the Secretary of Health and Human Services and the Secretary of Transportation) prescribes the fair charges for inpatient hospital care provided through Uniformed Services medical facilities. This determination is made each calendar year.


</P>
<P>(A) <I>Inpatient cost-sharing payable with each separate inpatient admission.</I> A separate cost-sharing amount (as described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section) is payable for each inpatient admission to a hospital or other authorized institution, regardless of the purpose of the admission (such as medical or surgical), regardless of the number of times the beneficiary is admitted, and regardless of whether or not the inpatient admissions are for the same or related conditions; except that successive inpatient admissions shall be deemed one inpatient confinement for the purpose of computing the inpatient cost-share payable, provided not more than 60 days have elapsed between the successive admissions. However, notwithstanding this provision, all admissions related to a single maternity episode shall be considered one confinement, regardless of the number of days between admissions (refer to paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multiple family inpatient admissions.</I> A separate cost-sharing amount is payable for each inpatient admission, regardless of whether or not two or more beneficiary members of a family are admitted at the same time or from the same cause (such as an accident). A separate beneficiary inpatient cost-sharing amount must be applied for each separate admission on each beneficiary member of the family.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Newborn patient in his or her own right.</I> When a newborn infant remains as an inpatient in his or her own right (usually after the mother is discharged), the newborn child becomes the beneficiary and patient and the extended inpatient stay becomes a separate inpatient admission. In such a situation, a new, separate inpatient cost-sharing amount is applied. If a multiple birth is involved (such as twins or triplets) and two or more newborn infants become patients in their own right, a separate inpatient cost-sharing amount must be applied to the inpatient stay for each newborn child who has remained as an inpatient in his or her own right.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Outpatient cost-sharing.</I> Dependents of members of the Uniformed Services are responsible for payment of 20 percent of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost or charge beyond the annual calendar year deductible amount (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section) for otherwise covered services or supplies provided on an outpatient basis by authorized providers.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Ambulatory surgery.</I> Notwithstanding the above provisions pertaining to outpatient cost-sharing, dependents of members of the Uniformed Services are responsible for payment of $25 for surgical care that is authorized and received while in an outpatient status and that has been designated in guidelines issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP).</I> Members of the Armed Forces (and their family members) who are eligible for TAMP under paragraph 199.3(e) of this Part are subject to the same beneficiary or sponsor liability as family members of members of the uniformed services described in this paragraph (f)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Former members and dependents of former members.</I> CHAMPUS beneficiary liability set forth for former members and dependents of former members is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual calendar year deductible for outpatient services or supplies.</I> The annual calendar year deductible for otherwise covered outpatient services or supplies provided former members and dependents of former members is the same as the annual calendar year outpatient deductible applicable to dependents of active duty members of rank E-5 or above (refer to paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A) or (B) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inpatient cost-sharing.</I> Inpatient admissions to a hospital or other authorized institutional provider (refer to § 199.6, including inpatient admission to a residential treatment center, substance use disorder rehabilitation facility residential treatment program, or skilled nursing facility) shall be cost-shared on an inpatient basis. The cost-sharing for inpatient services subject to the TRICARE DRG-based payment system and the TRICARE per diem system shall be the lesser of the respective per diem copayment amount multiplied by the total number of days in the hospital (except for the day of discharge under the DRG payment system), or 25 percent of the hospital's billed charges. For other inpatient services, the cost-share shall be 25% of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charges.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Outpatient cost-sharing.</I> Former members and dependents of former members are responsible for payment of 25 percent of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable costs or charges beyond the annual calendar year deductible amount (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section) for otherwise covered services or supplies provided on an outpatient basis by authorized providers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Former spouses.</I> CHAMPUS beneficiary liability for former spouses eligible under the provisions set forth in § 199.3 of this part is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual calendar year deductible for outpatient services or supplies.</I> An eligible former spouse is responsible for the payment of the first $150.00 of the CHAMPUS-determined reasonable costs or charges for otherwise covered outpatient services or supplies provided in any one calendar year. (Except for services received prior to April 1, 1991, the deductible amount is $50.00). The former spouse cannot contribute to, nor benefit from, any family deductible of the member or former member to whom the former spouse was married or of any CHAMPUS-eligible children.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inpatient cost-sharing.</I> Eligible former spouses are responsible for payment of cost-sharing amounts the same as those required for former members and dependents of former members.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Outpatient cost-sharing.</I> Eligible former spouses are responsible for payment of 25 percent of the CHAMPUS-determined reasonable costs or charges beyond the annual calendar year deductible amount for otherwise covered services or supplies provided on an outpatient basis by authorized providers. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cost-Sharing under the Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program.</I> Cost-sharing is dependent upon the type of partnership program entered into, whether external or internal. (See paragraph (p) of § 199.1, for general requirements of the Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>External Partnership Agreement.</I> Authorized costs associated with the use of the civilian facility will be financed through CHAMPUS under the normal cost-sharing and reimbursement procedures applicable under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Internal Partnership Agreement.</I> Beneficiary cost-sharing under internal agreements will be the same as charges prescribed for care in military treatment facilities.
</P>
<P>(6)-(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cost-sharing for services provided under special discount arrangements</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> With respect to services determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee) to be covered by § 199.14(e), the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee) has authority to establish, as an exception to the cost-sharing amount normally required pursuant to this section, a different cost-share amount that appropriately reflects the application of the statutory cost-share to the discount arrangement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific applications.</I> The following are examples of applications of the general rule; they are not all inclusive.
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of services provided by individual health care professionals and other noninstitutional providers, the cost-share shall be the usual percentage of the CHAMPUS allowable charge determined under § 199.14(e).
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of services provided by institutional providers normally paid on the basis of a pre-set amount (such as DRG-based amount under § 199.14(a)(1) or per-diem amount under § 199.14(a)(2)), if the discount rate is lower than the pre-set rate, the cost-share amount that would apply for a beneficiary other than an active duty dependent pursuant to the normal pre-set rate would be reduced by the same percentage by which the pre-set rate was reduced in setting the discount rate.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Waiver of deductible amounts or cost-sharing not allowed</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Because deductible amounts and cost sharing are statutorily mandated, except when specifically authorized by law (as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS), a provider may not waive or forgive beneficiary liability for annual deductible amounts or inpatient or outpatient cost sharing, as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for bad debts.</I> This general rule is not violated in cases in which a provider has made all reasonable attempts to effect collection, without success, and determines in accordance with generally accepted fiscal management standards that the beneficiary liability in a particular case is an uncollectible bad debt.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Remedies for noncompliance.</I> Potential remedies for noncompliance with this requirement include:
</P>
<P>(A) A claim for services regarding which the provider has waived the beneficiary's liability may be disallowed in full, or, alternatively, the amount payable for such a claim may be reduced by the amount of the beneficiary liability waived.
</P>
<P>(B) Repeated noncompliance with this requirement is a basis for exclusion of a provider.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Catastrophic loss protection for basic program benefits.</I> Calendar year limits, or catastrophic caps, on the amounts beneficiaries are required to pay are established as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dependents of active duty members.</I> The maximum family liability is $1,000 for deductibles and cost-shares based on allowable charges for Basic Program services and supplies received in a calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>All other beneficiaries.</I> For all other categories of beneficiary families (including those eligible under CHAMPVA) the calendar year cap is $3,000.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payment after cap is met.</I> After a family has paid the maximum cost-share and deductible amounts (dependents of active duty members $1,000 and all others $3,000), for a calendar year, CHAMPUS will pay allowable amounts for remaining covered services through the end of that calendar year.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(10):</HED>
<P>Under the Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001, the cap for beneficiaries other than dependents of active duty members was reduced from $7,500 to $3,000 effective October 30, 2000. Prior to this, the Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1993 reduced this cap from $10,000 to $7,500 on October 1, 1992. The cap remains at $1,000 for dependents of active duty members.</P></NOTE>
<P>(11) <I>Beneficiary or sponsor liability under the Pharmacy Benefits Program.</I> Beneficiary or sponsor liability under the Pharmacy Benefits Program is addressed in § 199.21.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Elimination of cost-sharing for certain preventive services.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Effective for dates of service on or after October 14, 2008, beneficiaries, subject to the limitation in paragraph (f)(12)(iii) of this section, shall not pay any cost-share for preventive services listed in paragraph (e)(28)(i) through (iv) of this section. The beneficiary shall not be required to pay any portion of the cost of these preventive services even if the beneficiary has not satisfied the deductible for that year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Beneficiaries who paid a cost-share for preventive services listed in paragraph (e)(28)(i) through (iv) of this section on or after October 14, 2008, may request reimbursement until January 28, 2013 according to procedures established by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) This elimination of cost-sharing for preventive services does not apply to any beneficiary who is a Medicare-eligible beneficiary. For purposes of this section, the term “Medicare-eligible” beneficiary is defined in 10 U.S.C. 1111(b) and refers to a person eligible for Medicare Part A.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate copayments and deductibles will apply for all services not listed in paragraph (e)(28) of this section, whether considered preventive in nature or not.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Special transition rule for the last quarter of calendar year 2017.</I> In order to transition deductibles and catastrophic caps from a fiscal year basis to a calendar year basis, the deductible amount and the catastrophic cap amount specified in paragraph (f) of this section will be applicable to the 15-month period of October 1, 2016 through December 31, 2017.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exclusions and limitations.</I> In addition to any definitions, requirements, conditions, or limitations enumerated and described in other sections of this part, the following specifically are excluded from the Basic Program: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Not medically or psychologically necessary.</I> Services and supplies that are not medically or psychologically necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of a covered illness (including mental disorder, to include substance use disorder) or injury, for the diagnosis and treatment of pregnancy or well-baby care except as provided in the following paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unnecessary diagnostic tests.</I> X-ray, laboratory, and pathological services and machine diagnostic tests not related to a specific illness or injury or a definitive set of symptoms except for cancer screening mammography and cancer screening papanicolaou (PAP) tests provided under the terms and conditions contained in the guidelines adopted by the Director, OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Institutional level of care.</I> Services and supplies related to inpatient stays in hospitals or other authorized institutions above the appropriate level required to provide necessary medical care.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Diagnostic admission.</I> Services and supplies related to an inpatient admission primarily to perform diagnostic tests, examinations, and procedures that could have been and are performed routinely on an outpatient basis.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If it is determined that the diagnostic x-ray, laboratory, and pathological services and machine tests performed during such admission were medically necessary and would have been covered if performed on an outpatient basis, CHAMPUS benefits may be extended for such diagnostic procedures only, but cost-sharing will be computed as if performed on an outpatient basis.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Unnecessary postpartum inpatient stay, mother or newborn.</I> Postpartum inpatient stay of a mother for purposes of staying with the newborn infant (usually primarily for the purpose of breast feeding the infant) when the infant (but not the mother) requires the extended stay; or continued inpatient stay of a newborn infant primarily for purposes of remaining with the mother when the mother (but not the newborn infant) requires extended postpartum inpatient stay. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Therapeutic absences.</I> Therapeutic absences from an inpatient facility, except when such absences are specifically included in a treatment plan approved by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. For cost-sharing provisions refer to § 199.14, paragraph (f)(3).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Custodial care.</I> Custodial care as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Domiciliary care.</I> Domiciliary care as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Rest or rest cures.</I> Inpatient stays primarily for rest or rest cures.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Amounts above allowable costs or charges.</I> Costs of services and supplies to the extent amounts billed are over the CHAMPUS determined allowable cost or charge, as provided for in § 199.14.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>No legal obligation to pay, no charge would be made.</I> Services or supplies for which the beneficiary or sponsor has no legal obligation to pay; or for which no charge would be made if the beneficiary or sponsor was not eligible under CHAMPUS; or whenever CHAMPUS is a secondary payer for claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, amounts, when combined with the primary payment, which would be in excess of charges (or the amount the provider is obligated to accept as payment in full, if it is less than the charges).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Furnished without charge.</I> Services or supplies furnished without charge. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Furnished by local, state, or Federal Government.</I> Services and supplies paid for, or eligible for payment, directly or indirectly by a local, state, or Federal Government, except as provided under CHAMPUS, or by government hospitals serving the general public, or medical care provided by a Uniformed Service medical care facility, or benefits provided under title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid) (refer to § 199.8 of this part).
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Study, grant, or research programs.</I> Services and supplies provided as a part of or under a scientific or medical study, grant, or research program, except as authorized under paragraph (e)(26) of this section.


</P>
<P>(15) <I>Unproven drugs, devices, and medical treatments or procedures.</I> By law, CHAMPUS can only cost-share medically necessary supplies and services. Any drug, device, or medical treatment or procedure, the safety and efficacy of which have not been established, as described in this paragraph (g)(15), is unproved and cannot be cost-shared by CHAMPUS except as authorized under paragraph 199.4(e)(26) of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) A drug, device, or medical treatment or procedure is unproven:
</P>
<P>(A) If the drug or device cannot be lawfully marketed without the approval or clearance of the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and approval or clearance for marketing has not been given at the time the drug or device is furnished to the patient.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(15)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>Although the use of drugs and medicines not approved by the FDA for commercial marketing, that is for use by humans, (even though permitted for testing on humans) is excluded from coverage as unproven, drugs grandfathered by the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 may be covered by CHAMPUS as if FDA approved.
</P>
<P>Certain cancer drugs, designated as Group C drugs (approved and distributed by the National Cancer Institute), and investigational drugs authorized by the FDA for treatment use under expanded access programs are not covered under TRICARE because they are not approved for marketing by the FDA. However, medical care related to the use of Group C drugs and investigational drugs authorized for treatment use under FDA expanded access programs can be cost-shared under TRICARE when the patient's medical condition warrants their administration, and the care is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice.


</P>
<P>CHAMPUS will consider coverage of off-label uses of drugs and devices that meet the definition of Off-Label Use of a Drug or Device in § 199.2(b). Approval for reimbursement of off-label uses requires review for medical necessity and also requires demonstrations from medical literature, national organizations, or technology assessment bodies that the off-label use of the drug or device is safe, effective, and in accordance with nationally accepted standards of practice in the medical community.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) If a medical device (as defined by 21 U.S.C. 321(h)) with an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) approved by the Food and Drug Administration is categorized by the FDA as experimental/investigational (FDA Category A).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>CHAMPUS will consider for coverage a device with an FDA-approved IDE categorized by the FDA as non-experimental/investigational (FDA Category B) for CHAMPUS beneficiaries participating in FDA approved clinical trials. Coverage of any such Category B device is dependent on its meeting all other requirements of the laws and rules governing CHAMPUS and upon the beneficiary involved meeting the FDA-approved IDE study protocols.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Unless reliable evidence shows that any medical treatment or procedure has been the subject of well-controlled studies of clinically meaningful endpoints, which have determined its maximum tolerated dose, its toxicity, its safety, and its efficacy as compared with standard means of treatment or diagnosis. (See the definition of <I>reliable evidence</I> in § 199.2 of this part for the procedures used in determining if a medical treatment or procedure is unproven.)
</P>
<P>(D) If reliable evidence shows that the consensus among experts regarding the medical treatment or procedure is that further studies or clinical trials are necessary to determine its maximum tolerated doses, its toxicity, its safety, or its effectiveness as compared with the standard means of treatment or diagnosis (see the definition of reliable evidence in § 199.2 for the procedures used in determining if a medical treatment or procedure is unproven). 
</P>
<P>(ii) CHAMPUS benefits for rare diseases are reviewed on a case-by-case basis by the Director, Office of CHAMPUS, or a designee. In reviewing the case, the Director, or a designee, may consult with any or all of the following sources to determine if the proposed therapy is considered safe and effective:
</P>
<P>(A) Trials published in refereed medical literature.
</P>
<P>(B) Formal technology assessments.
</P>
<P>(C) National medical policy organization positions.
</P>
<P>(D) National professional associations.
</P>
<P>(E) National expert opinion organizations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Care excluded.</I> This exclusion from benefits includes all services directly related to the unproven drug, device, or medical treatment or procedure. However, CHAMPUS may cover services or supplies when there is no logical or causal relationship between the unproven drug, device or medical treatment or procedure and the treatment at issue or where such a logical or causal relationship cannot be established with a sufficient degree of certainty. This CHAMPUS coverage is authorized in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Treatment that is not related to the unproven drug, device or medical treatment or procedure; e.g., medically necessary in the absence of the unproven treatment. 
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment which is necessary follow-up to the unproven drug, device or medical treatment or procedure but which might have been necessary in the absence of the unproven treatment.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Immediate family, household.</I> Services or supplies provided or prescribed by a member of the beneficiary's immediate family, or a person living in the beneficiary's or sponsor's household. 
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Double coverage.</I> Services and supplies that are (or are eligible to be) payable under another medical insurance or program, either private or governmental, such as coverage through employment or Medicare (refer to § 199.8 of this part).
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Nonavailability Statement required.</I> Services and supplies provided under circumstances or in geographic locations requiring a Nonavailability Statement (DD Form 1251), when such a statement was not obtained.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Preauthorization required.</I> Services or supplies which require preauthorization if preauthorization was not obtained. Services and supplies which were not provided according to the terms of the preauthorization. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may grant an exception to the requirement for preauthorization if the services otherwise would be payable except for the failure to obtain preauthorization.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Psychoanalysis or psychotherapy, part of education.</I> Psychoanalysis or psychotherapy provided to a beneficiary or any member of the immediate family that is credited towards earning a degree or furtherance of the education or training of a beneficiary or sponsor, regardless of diagnosis or symptoms that may be present.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Runaways.</I> Inpatient stays primarily to control or detain a runaway child, whether or not admission is to an authorized institution.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Services or supplies ordered by a court or other government agency.</I> Services or supplies, including inpatient stays, directed or agreed to by a court or other governmental agency. However, those services and supplies (including inpatient stays) that otherwise are medically or psychologically necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of a covered condition and that otherwise meet all CHAMPUS requirements for coverage are not excluded.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Work-related (occupational) disease or injury.</I> Services and supplies required as a result of occupational disease or injury for which any benefits are payable under a worker's compensation or similar law, whether or not such benefits have been applied for or paid; except if benefits provided under such laws are exhausted.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery.</I> Services and supplies in connection with cosmetic, reconstructive, or plastic surgery except as specifically provided in paragraph (e)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Surgery, psychological reasons.</I> Surgery performed primarily for psychological reasons (such as psychogenic).
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Electrolysis.</I>
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Dental care.</I> Dental care or oral surgery, except as specifically provided in paragraph (e)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Obesity, weight reduction.</I> Service and supplies related “solely” to obesity or weight reduction or weight control whether surgical or nonsurgical; wiring of the jaw or any procedure of similar purpose, regardless of the circumstances under which performed (except as provided in paragraph (e)(15) of this section).
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Sex gender changes.</I> Services and supplies related to sex gender change, also referred to as sex reassignment surgery, as prohibited by section 1079 of title 10, United States Code. This exclusion does not apply to surgery and related medically necessary services performed to correct sex gender confusion/intersex conditions (that is, ambiguous genitalia) which has been documented to be present at birth.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Therapy or counseling for sexual dysfunctions or sexual inadequacies.</I> Sex therapy, sexual advice, sexual counseling, sex behavior modification, psychotherapy for mental disorders involving sexual deviations (i.e., transvestic fetishm), or other similar services, and any supplies provided in connection with therapy for sexual dysfunctions or inadequacies.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Corns, calluses, and toenails.</I> Removal of corns or calluses or trimming of toenails and other routine podiatry services, except those required as a result of a diagnosed systemic medical disease affecting the lower limbs, such as severe diabetes.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Dyslexia.</I>
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Surgical sterilization, reversal.</I> Surgery to reverse surgical sterilization procedures.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Noncoital reproductive procedures including artifical insemination, in-vitro fertilization, gamete intrafallopian transfer and all other such reproductive technologies.</I> Services and supplies related to artificial insemination (including semen donors and semen banks), in-vitro fertilization, gamete intrafallopian transfer and all other noncoital reproductive technologies.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Nonprescription contraceptives.</I>
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Tests to determine paternity or sex of a child.</I> Diagnostic tests to establish paternity of a child; or tests to determine sex of an unborn child.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Preventive care.</I> Except as stated in paragraph (e)(28) of this section, preventive care, such as routine, annual, or employment-requested physical examinations and routine screening procedures.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Chiropractors and naturopaths.</I> Services of chiropractors and naturopaths whether or not such services would be eligible for benefits if rendered by an authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Counseling.</I> Educational, vocational, non-medical nutritional counseling, counseling for socioeconomic purposes, stress management, and/or lifestyle modification purposes, except the following are not excluded:
</P>
<P>(i) Services provided by a certified marriage and family therapist, pastoral or mental health counselor in the treatment of a mental disorder as specifically provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ix) of this section and in § 199.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diabetes self-management training (DSMT) as specifically provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Smoking cessation counseling and education as specifically provided in paragraph (e)(30) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Services provided by alcoholism rehabilitation counselors only when rendered in a CHAMPUS-authorized treatment setting and only when the cost of those services is included in the facility's CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost rate.
</P>
<P>(v) Medical nutritional therapy (also referred to as medical nutritional counseling) required in the administration of the medically necessary foods, services and supplies authorized in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) of this section, medically necessary vitamins authorized in paragraph (d)(3)(vi)(D) of this section, or when medically necessary for other authorized covered services.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Acupuncture.</I> Acupuncture, whether used as a therapeutic agent or as an anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Hair transplants, wigs/hair pieces/cranial prosthesis.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In accordance with section 744 of the DoD Appropriation Act for 1981 (Pub. L. 96-527), CHAMPUS coverage for wigs or hairpieces is permitted effective December 15, 1980, under the conditions listed below. Continued availability of benefits will depend on the language of the annual DoD Appropriation Acts.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Benefits provided.</I> Benefits may be extended, in accordance with the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge, for one wig or hairpiece per beneficiary (lifetime maximum) when the attending physician certifies that alopecia has resulted from treatment of a malignant disease and the beneficiary certifies that a wig or hairpiece has not been obtained previously through the U.S. Government (including the Veterans Administration).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusions.</I> The wig or hairpiece benefit does not include coverage for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Alopecia resulting from conditions other than treatment of malignant disease.
</P>
<P>(B) Maintenance, wig or hairpiece supplies, or replacement of the wig or hairpiece.
</P>
<P>(C) Hair transplants or any other surgical procedure involving the attachment of hair or a wig or hairpiece to the scalp.
</P>
<P>(D) Any diagnostic or therapeutic method or supply intended to encourage hair regrowth.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Education or training.</I> Self-help, academic education or vocational training services and supplies, unless the provisions of § 199.4, paragraph (b)(1)(v) relating to general or special education, apply.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Exercise/relaxation/comfort/sporting items or sporting devices</I>. Exercise equipment, to include items primarily and customarily designed for use in sports or recreational activities, spas, whirlpools, hot tubs, swimming pools health club memberships or other such charges or items.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Exercise.</I> General exercise programs, even if recommended by a physician and regardless of whether or not rendered by an authorized provider. In addition, passive exercises and range of motion exercises also are excluded, except when prescribed by a physician and rendered by a physical therapist concurrent to, and as an integral part of, a comprehensive program of physical therapy.
</P>
<P>(45) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(46) <I>Vision care.</I> Eye exercises or visual training (orthoptics).
</P>
<P>(47) <I>Eye and hearing examinations.</I> Eye and hearing examinations except as specifically provided in paragraphs (c)(2)(xvi), (c)(3)(xi), and (e)(24) of this section, or except when rendered in connection with medical or surgical treatment of a covered illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(48) <I>Prosthetic devices.</I> Prostheses other than those determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS to be necessary because of significant conditions resulting from trauma, congenital anomalies, or disease. All dental prostheses are excluded, except for those specifically required in connection with otherwise covered orthodontia directly related to the surgical correction of a cleft palate anomaly.
</P>
<P>(49) <I>Orthopedic shoes.</I> Orthopedic shoes, arch supports, shoe inserts, and other supportive devices for the feet, including special-ordered, custom-made built-up shoes, or regular shoes later built up.
</P>
<P>(50) <I>Eyeglasses.</I> Eyeglasses, spectacles, contact lenses, or other optical devices, except as specifically provided under paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(51) <I>Hearing aids.</I> Hearing aids or other auditory sensory enhancing devices, except those allowed in paragraph (e)(24) of this section.
</P>
<P>(52) <I>Telephone services.</I> Services or advice rendered by telephone are excluded. Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Medically necessary and appropriate Telephonic office visits are covered as authorized in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A diagnostic or monitoring procedure which incorporates electronic transmission of data or remote detection and measurement of a condition, activity, or function (biotelemetry) is not excluded when:
</P>
<P>(A) The procedure without electronic transmission of data or biotelemetry is otherwise an explicit or derived benefit of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The addition of electronic transmission of data or biotelemetry to the procedure is found by the Director, CHAMPUS, or designee, to be medically necessary and appropriate medical care which usually improves the efficiency of the management of a clinical condition in defined circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(C) The each data transmission or biotelemetry devices incorporated into a procedure that is otherwise an explicit or derived benefit of this section, has been classified by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, either separately or as a part of a system, for consistent use with the defined circumstances in paragraph (g)(52)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(53) <I>Air conditioners, humidifiers, dehumidifiers, and purifiers.</I>
</P>
<P>(54) <I>Elevators or chair lifts.</I>
</P>
<P>(55) <I>Alterations.</I> Alterations to living spaces or permanent features attached thereto, even when necessary to accommodate installation of covered durable medical equipment or to facilitate entrance or exit.
</P>
<P>(56) <I>Clothing.</I> Items of clothing or shoes, even if required by virtue of an allergy (such as cotton fabric as against synthetic fabric and vegetable-dyed shoes).
</P>
<P>(57) <I>Food, food substitutes.</I> Food, food substitutes, vitamins, or other nutritional supplements, including those related to prenatal care, except as authorized in paragraphs (d)(3)(iii)(B) and (d)(3)(vi)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(58) <I>Enuretic.</I> Enuretic conditioning programs, but enuretic alarms may be cost-shared when determined to be medically necessary in the treatment of enuresis. 
</P>
<P>(59) <I>Duplicate equipment.</I> As defined in § 199.2, duplicate equipment is excluded.
</P>
<P>(60) <I>Autopsy and postmortem.</I>
</P>
<P>(61) <I>Camping.</I> All camping even though organized for a specific therapeutic purpose (such as diabetic camp or a camp for emotionally disturbed children), and even though offered as a part of an otherwise covered treatment plan or offered through a CHAMPUS-approved facility.
</P>
<P>(62) <I>Housekeeper, companion.</I> Housekeeping, homemaker, or attendant services; sitter or companion.
</P>
<P>(63) <I>Non-covered condition/treatment, unauthorized provider.</I> All services and supplies (including inpatient institutional costs) related to a non-covered condition or treatment, including any necessary follow-on care or the treatment of complications, are excluded from coverage except as provided under paragraph (e)(9) of this section. In addition, all services and supplies provided by an unauthorized provider are excluded.
</P>
<P>(64) <I>Comfort or convenience.</I> Personal, comfort, or convenience items such as beauty and barber services, radio, television, and telephone.
</P>
<P>(65) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(66) <I>Megavitamin psychiatric therapy, orthomolecular psychiatric therapy.</I>
</P>
<P>(67) <I>Transportation.</I> All transportation except by ambulance, as specifically provided under paragraph (d), and except as authorized in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(68) <I>Travel.</I> All travel even though prescribed by a physician and even if its purpose is to obtain medical care, except as specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section in connection with a CHAMPUS-required physical examination and as specified in § 199.17(n)(2)(vi). 
</P>
<P>(69) <I>Institutions.</I> Services and supplies provided by other than a hospital, unless the institution has been approved specifically by OCHAMPUS. Nursing homes, intermediate care facilities, halfway houses, homes for the aged, or institutions of similar purpose are excluded from consideration as approved facilities under the Basic Program.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In order to be approved under CHAMPUS, an institution must, in addition to meeting CHAMPUS standards, provide a level of care for which CHAMPUS benefits are payable.</P></NOTE>
<P>(70)-(71) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(72) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(73) <I>Economic interest in connection with mental health admissions.</I> Inpatient mental health services (including both acute care and RTC services) are excluded for care received when a patient is referred to a provider of such services by a physician (or other health care professional with authority to admit) who has an economic interest in the facility to which the patient is referred, unless a waiver is granted. Requests for waiver shall be considered under the same procedure and based on the same criteria as used for obtaining preadmission authorization (or continued stay authorization for emergency admissions), with the only additional requirement being that the economic interest be disclosed as part of the request. This exclusion does not apply to services under the Extended Care Health Option (ECHO) in § 199.5 or provided as partial hospital care. If a situation arises where a decision is made to exclude CHAMPUS payment solely on the basis of the provider's economic interest, the normal CHAMPUS appeals process will be available.
</P>
<P>(74) <I>Not specifically listed.</I> Services and supplies not specifically listed as a benefit in this part. This exclusion is not intended to preclude extending benefits for those services or supplies specifically determined to be covered within the intent of this part by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, even though not otherwise listed. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The fact that a physician may prescribe, order, recommend, or approve a service or supply does not, of itself, make it medically necessary or make the charge an allowable expense, even though it is not listed specifically as an exclusion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(h) <I>Payment and liability for certain potentially excludable services under the Peer Review Organization program</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This subsection provides special rules that apply only to services retrospectively determined under the Peer Review organization (PRO) program (operated pursuant to § 199.15) to be potentially excludable (in whole or in part) from the basic program under paragraph (g) of this section. Services may be excluded by reason of being not medically necessary (paragraph (g)(1) of this section), at an inappropriate level (paragraph (g)(3) of this section), custodial care (paragraph (g)(7) of this section) or other reason relative to reasonableness, necessity or appropriateness (which services shall throughout the remainder of this subsection, be referred to as “not medically necessary”). (Also throughout the remainder of the subsection, “services” includes items and “provider” includes supplier). This paragraph does not apply to coverage determinations made by OCHAMPUS or the fiscal intermediaries which are not based on medical necessity determinations made under the PRO program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment for certain potentially excludable expenses.</I> Services determined under the PRO program to be potentially excludable by reason of the exclusions in paragraph (g) of this section for not medically necessary services will not be determined to be excludable if neither the beneficiary to whom the services were provided nor the provider (institutional or individual) who furnished the services knew, or could reasonably have been expected to know, that the services were subject to those exclusions. Payment may be made for such services as if the exclusions did not apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liability for certain excludable services.</I> In any case in which items or services are determined excludable by the PRO program by reason of being not medically necessary and payment may not be made under paragraph (h)(2) of this section because the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section are not met, the beneficiary may not be held liable (and shall be entitled to a full refund from the provider of the amount excluded and any cost share amount already paid) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The beneficiary did not know and could not reasonably have been expected to know that the services were excludable by reason of being not medically necessary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The provider knew or could reasonably have been expected to know that the items or services were excludable by reason of being not medically necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Criteria for determining that beneficiary knew or could reasonably have been expected to have known that services were excludable.</I> A beneficiary who receives services excludable by reason of being not medically necessary will be found to have known that the services were excludable if the beneficiary has been given written notice that the services were excludable or that similar or comparable services provided on a previous occasion were excludable and that notice was given by the OCHAMPUS, CHAMPUS PRO or fiscal intermediary, a group or committee responsible for utilization review for the provider, or the provider who provided the services.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Criteria for determining that provider knew or could reasonably have been expected to have known that services were excludable.</I> An institutional or individual provider will be found to have known or been reasonably expected to have known that services were excludable under this subsection under any one of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The PRO or fiscal intermediary had informed the provider that the services provided were excludable or that similar or reasonably comparable services were excludable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The utilization review group or committee for an institutional provider or the beneficiary's attending physician had informed the provider that the services provided were excludable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The provider had informed the beneficiary that the services were excludable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provider had received written materials, including notices, manual issuances, bulletins, guides, directives or other materials, providing notification of PRO screening criteria specific to the condition of the beneficiary. Attending physicians who are members of the medical staff of an institutional provider will be found to have also received written materials provided to the institutional provider.
</P>
<P>(v) The services that are at issue are the subject of what are generally considered acceptable standards of practice by the local medical community.
</P>
<P>(vi) Preadmission authorization was available but not requested, or concurrent review requirements were not followed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 199.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.5   TRICARE Extended Care Health Option (ECHO).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The TRICARE ECHO is essentially a supplemental program to the TRICARE Basic Program. It does not provide acute care nor benefits available through the TRICARE Basic Program.
</P>
<P>(2) The purpose of the ECHO is to provide an additional financial resource for an integrated set of services and supplies designed to assist in the reduction of the disabling effects of the ECHO-eligible dependent's qualifying condition. Services include those necessary to maintain, minimize or prevent deterioration of function of an ECHO-eligible dependent.
</P>
<P>(3) The Government's cost-share for ECHO or ECHO home health benefits during any program year is limited as stated in this section. In order to transition the program year from a fiscal year to a calendar year basis, the Government's annual cost-share limitation specified in paragraph (f) of this section shall be prorated for the last quarter of calendar year 2018 as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1079(f)(2)(A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> (1) The following categories of TRICARE/CHAMPUS beneficiaries with a qualifying condition are ECHO-eligible dependents:
</P>
<P>(i) A spouse, child, or unmarried person (as described in § 199.3(b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), or (b)(2)(iv)) of a member of the Uniformed Services on active duty for a period of more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) An abused dependent as described in § 199.3(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(iii) A spouse, child, or unmarried person (as described in § 199.3(b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), or (b)(2)(iv)), of a member of the Uniformed Services who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days and whose death occurs on or after October 7, 2001. In such case, an eligible surviving spouse remains eligible for benefits under the ECHO for a period of 3 years from the date the active duty sponsor dies. Any other eligible surviving dependent remains eligible for benefits under the ECHO for a period of three years from the date the active duty sponsor dies or until the surviving eligible dependent:
</P>
<P>(A) Attains 21 years of age, or
</P>
<P>(B) Attains 23 years of age or ceases to pursue a full-time course of study prior to attaining 23 years of age, if, at 21 years of age, the eligible surviving dependent is enrolled in a full-time course of study in a secondary school or in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education approved by Secretary of Defense and was, at the time of the sponsor's death, in fact dependent on the member for over one-half of such dependent's support.
</P>
<P>(iv) A spouse, child, or unmarried person (as defined in paragraphs § 199.3(b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), or (b)(2)(iv)) of a deceased member of the Uniformed Services who, at the time of the member's death was receiving benefits under ECHO, and the member at the time of death was eligible for receipt of hostile-fire pay, or died as a result of a disease or injury incurred while eligible for such pay. In such a case, the surviving dependent remains eligible for benefits under ECHO through midnight of the dependent's twenty-first birthday.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The following are qualifying conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mental retardation.</I> A diagnosis of moderate or severe mental retardation made in accordance with the criteria of the current edition of the “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders” published by the American Psychiatric Association.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Serious physical disability.</I> A serious physical disability as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Extraordinary physical or psychological condition.</I> An extraordinary physical or psychological condition as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Infant/toddler.</I> Beneficiaries under the age of 3 years who are diagnosed with a neuromuscular developmental condition or other condition that is expected to precede a diagnosis of moderate or severe mental retardation or a serious physical disability, shall be deemed to have a qualifying condition for the ECHO. The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee shall establish criteria for ECHO eligibility in lieu of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(i), (ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Multiple disabilities.</I> The cumulative effect of multiple disabilities, as determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee shall be used in lieu of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(i), (ii) or (iii) of this section to determine a qualifying condition when the beneficiary has two or more disabilities involving separate body systems.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loss of ECHO eligibility.</I> Eligibility for ECHO benefits ceases as of 12:01 a.m. of the day following the day that:
</P>
<P>(i) The sponsor ceases to be an active duty member for any reason other than death; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligibility based upon the abused dependent provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section expires; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Eligibility based upon the deceased sponsor provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this section expires; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Eligibility based upon a beneficiary's participation in the Transitional Assistance Management Program ends; or
</P>
<P>(v) The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee determines that the beneficiary no longer has a qualifying condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ECHO benefit.</I> Items and services that the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee has determined are capable of confirming, arresting, or reducing the severity of the disabling effects of a qualifying condition, includes, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Diagnostic procedures to establish a qualifying condition or to measure the extent of functional loss resulting from a qualifying condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Medical, habilitative, rehabilitative services and supplies, durable equipment and assistive technology (AT) devices that assist in the reduction of the disabling effects of a qualifying condition. Benefits shall be provided in the beneficiary's home or another environment, as appropriate. An AT device may be covered only if it is recommended in a beneficiary's Individual Educational Program (IEP) or, if the beneficiary is not eligible for an IEP, the AT device is an item or educational learning device normally included in an IEP and is preauthorized under ECHO as an integral component of the beneficiary's individual comprehensive health care services plan (including rehabilitation) as prescribed by a TRICARE authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(i) An AT device may be covered under ECHO only if it is not otherwise covered by TRICARE as durable equipment, a prosthetic, augmentation communication device, or other benefits under § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(ii) An AT device may include an educational learning device directly related to the beneficiary's qualifying condition when recommended by an IEP and not otherwise provided by State or local government programs. If an individual is not eligible for an IEP, an educational learning device normally included in the IEP may be authorized as if directly related to the beneficiary's qualifying condition and prescribed by a TRICARE authorized provider as part of the beneficiary's individual comprehensive health care services plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Electronic learning devices may include the hardware and software as appropriate. The Director, DHA, shall determine the types and (or) platforms of electronic devices and the replacement lifecycle of the hardware and its supporting software. All upgrades or replacements shall require a recommendation from the individual's IEP or the individual's comprehensive health care services plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) Duplicative or redundant hardware platforms are not authorized.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>When one or more electronic platforms such as a desktop computer, laptop, notebook or tablet can perform the same functions in relation to the teaching or educational objective directly related to the qualifying condition, it is the intent of this provision to allow only one electronic platform that may be chosen by the beneficiary. Duplicative or redundant platforms are not allowed; however, a second platform may be obtained, if the individual's IEP recommends one platform such as a computer for the majority of the learning objectives, but there exists another objective, which cannot be performed on that platform. In these limited circumstances, the beneficiary may submit a request with the above justification to the Director, TMA, who may authorize a second device.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) AT devices damaged through improper use of the device may not be replaced until the device would next be eligible for a lifecycle replacement.
</P>
<P>(vi) AT devices do not include equipment or devices whose primary purpose is to assist the individual to engage in sports or recreational activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Training that teaches the use of assistive technology devices or to acquire skills that are necessary for the management of the qualifying condition. Such training is also authorized for the beneficiary's immediate family. Vocational training, in the beneficiary's home or a facility providing such, is also allowed.
</P>
<P>(4) Special education as provided by the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act and defined at 34 CFR 300.26 and that is specifically designed to accommodate the disabling effects of the qualifying condition.
</P>
<P>(5) Institutional care within a state, as defined in § 199.2, in private nonprofit, public, and state institutions and facilities, when the severity of the qualifying condition requires protective custody or training in a residential environment. For the purpose of this section protective custody means residential care that is necessary when the severity of the qualifying condition is such that the safety and well-being of the beneficiary or those who come into contact with the beneficiary may be in jeopardy without such care.
</P>
<P>(6) Transportation of an ECHO beneficiary receiving benefits under paragraph (c)(5), and a medical attendant when necessary to assure the beneficiary's safety, to or from a facility or institution to receive authorized ECHO services or items.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Respite care.</I> TRICARE beneficiaries enrolled in ECHO are eligible for a maximum of 16 hours of respite care per month. Respite care is defined in §  199.2. Respite care services will be provided by a TRICARE-authorized HHA and will be designed to provide health care services for the covered beneficiary. The benefit will not be cumulative, that is, any respite hours not used in one month will not be carried over or banked for use on another occasion.
</P>
<P>(i) TRICARE-authorized home health agencies must provide and bill for all authorized ECHO respite care services through established TRICARE claims' mechanisms. No special billing arrangements will be authorized in conjunction with coverage that may be provided by Medicaid or other federal, state, community or private programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) For authorized ECHO respite care, TRICARE will reimburse the allowable charges or negotiated rates.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Government's cost-share incurred for these services accrues to the program year benefit limit of $36,000.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Other services.</I> (i) <I>Assistive services.</I> Services of qualified personal assistants, such as an interpreter or translator for ECHO beneficiaries who are deaf or mute and readers for ECHO beneficiaries who are blind, when such services are necessary in order for the ECHO beneficiary to receive authorized ECHO benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Equipment adaptation.</I> The allowable equipment and an AT device purchase shall include such services and modifications to the equipment as necessary to make the equipment usable for a particular ECHO beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Equipment maintenance.</I> Reasonable repairs and maintenance of the beneficiary owned or rented DE or AT devices provided by this section shall be allowed while a beneficiary is registered in the ECHO Program. Repairs of DE and/or AT devices damaged while using the item in a manner inconsistent with its common use, and replacement of lost or stolen rental DE are not authorized coverage as an ECHO benefit. In addition, repairs and maintenance of deluxe, luxury, or immaterial features of DE or AT devices are not authorized coverage as an ECHO benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ECHO Exclusions</I>—(1) <I>Basic Program.</I> Benefits allowed under the TRICARE Basic Program will not be provided through the ECHO.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inpatient care.</I> Inpatient acute care for medical or surgical treatment of an acute illness, or of an acute exacerbation of the qualifying condition, is excluded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Structural alterations.</I> Alterations to living space and permanent fixtures attached thereto, including alterations necessary to accommodate installation of equipment or AT devices to facilitate entrance or exit, are excluded.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Homemaker services.</I> Services that predominantly provide assistance with household chores are excluded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dental care or orthodontic treatment.</I> Both are excluded.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Deluxe travel or accommodations.</I> The difference between the price for travel or accommodations that provide services or features that exceed the requirements of the beneficiary's condition and the price for travel or accommodations without those services or features is excluded.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Equipment.</I> Purchase or rental of DE and AT devices otherwise allowed by this section is excluded when:
</P>
<P>(i) The beneficiary is a patient in an institution or facility that ordinarily provides the same type of equipment or AT devices to its patients at no additional charge in the usual course of providing services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The item is available to the beneficiary from a Uniformed Services Medical Treatment Facility; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The item has deluxe, luxury, immaterial or nonessential features that increase the cost to the Department relative to a similar item without those features; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The item is a duplicate DE or an AT device, as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(v) The item (or charge for access to such items through health club membership or other activities) is exercise equipment including an item primarily and customarily designed for use in sports or recreational activities, spa, whirlpool, hot tub, swimming pool, an electronic device used to locate or monitor the location of the beneficiary, or other similar items or charges.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Maintenance agreements.</I> Maintenance agreements for beneficiary owned or rented equipment or AT device are excluded.</P>
<P>(9) <I>No obligation to pay.</I> Services or items for which the beneficiary or sponsor has no legal obligation to pay are excluded.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Public facility or Federal government.</I> Services or items paid for, or eligible for payment, directly or indirectly by a public facility, as defined in § 199.2, or by the Federal government, other than the Department of Defense, are excluded for training, rehabilitation, special education, assistive technology devices, institutional care in private nonprofit, public, and state institutions and facilities, and if appropriate, transportation to and from such institutions and facilities, except when such services or items are eligible for payment under a state plan for medical assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid). Rehabilitation and assistive technology services or supplies may be available under the TRICARE Basic Program.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Study, grant, or research programs.</I> Services and items provided as a part of a scientific clinical study, grant, or research program are excluded.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Unproven status.</I> Drugs, devices, medical treatments, diagnostic, and therapeutic procedures for which the safety and efficacy have not been established in accordance with § 199.4 are excluded.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Immediate family or household.</I> Services or items provided or prescribed by a member of the beneficiary's immediate family, or a person living in the beneficiary's or sponsor's household, are excluded.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Court or agency ordered care.</I> Services or items ordered by a court or other government agency, which are not otherwise an allowable ECHO benefit, are excluded.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Excursions.</I> Excursions are excluded regardless of whether or not they are part of a program offered by a TRICARE-authorized provider. The transportation benefit available under ECHO is specified elsewhere in this section.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Drugs and medicines.</I> Drugs and medicines that do not meet the requirements of § 199.4 or § 199.21 are excluded.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Therapeutic absences.</I> Therapeutic absences from an inpatient facility or from home for a homebound beneficiary are excluded.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Custodial care.</I> Custodial care, as defined in § 199.2 is not a stand-alone benefit. Services generally rendered as custodial care may be provided only as specifically set out in this section.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Domiciliary care.</I> Domiciliary care, as defined in § 199.2, is excluded.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Respite care.</I> Respite care for the purpose of covering primary caregiver (as defined in § 199.2) absences due to deployment, employment, seeking of employment or to pursue education is excluded. Authorized respite care covers only the ECHO beneficiary, not siblings or others who may reside in or be visiting in the beneficiary's residence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>ECHO Home Health Care (EHHC).</I> The EHHC benefit provides coverage of home health care services and respite care services specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Home health care.</I> Covered ECHO home health care services are the same as, and provided under the same conditions as those services described in § 199.4(e)(21)(i), except that they are not limited to part-time or intermittent services. Custodial care services, as defined in § 199.2, may be provided to the extent such services are provided in conjunction with authorized ECHO home health care services, including the EHHC respite care benefit specified in this section. Beneficiaries who are authorized EHHC will receive all home health care services under EHHC and no portion will be provided under the Basic Program. TRICARE-authorized home health agencies are not required to use the Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) to assess beneficiaries who are authorized EHHC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respite care.</I> EHHC beneficiaries whose plan of care includes frequent interventions by the primary caregiver(s) are eligible for respite care services in lieu of the ECHO general respite care benefit. For the purpose of this section, the term “frequent” means “more than two interventions during the eight-hour period per day that the primary caregiver would normally be sleeping.” The services performed by the primary caregiver are those that can be performed safely and effectively by the average non-medical person without direct supervision of a health care provider after the primary caregiver has been trained by appropriate medical personnel. EHHC beneficiaries in this situation are eligible for a maximum of eight hours per day, 5 days per week, of respite care by a TRICARE-authorized home health agency. The home health agency will provide the health care interventions or services for the covered beneficiary so that the primary caregiver is relieved of the responsibility to provide such interventions or services for the duration of that period of respite care. The home health agency will not provide baby-sitting or child care services for other members of the family. The benefit is not cumulative, that is, any respite care hours not used in a given day may not be carried over or banked for use on another occasion. Additionally, the eight-hour respite care periods will not be provided consecutively, that is, a respite care period on one calendar day will not be immediately followed by a respite care period the next calendar day. The Government's cost-share incurred for these services accrue to the maximum yearly ECHO Home Health Care benefit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>EHHC eligibility.</I> The EHHC is authorized for beneficiaries who meet all applicable ECHO eligibility requirements and who:
</P>
<P>(i) Physically reside within the 50 United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or Guam; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Are homebound, as defined in § 199.2; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Require medically necessary skilled services that exceed the level of coverage provided under the Basic Program's home health care benefit; and/or
</P>
<P>(iv) Require frequent interventions by the primary caregiver(s) such that respite care services are necessary to allow primary caregiver(s) the opportunity to rest; and
</P>
<P>(v) Are case managed to include a reassessment at least every 90 days, and receive services as outlined in a written plan of care; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Receive all home health care services from a TRICARE-authorized home health agency, as described in § 199.6(b)(4)(xv), in the beneficiary's primary residence.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>EHHC plan of care.</I> A written plan of care is required prior to authorizing ECHO home health care. The plan must include the type, frequency, scope and duration of the care to be provided and support the professional level of provider. Reimbursement will not be authorized for a level of provider not identified in the plan of care.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>EHHC exclusions</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> ECHO Home Health Care services and supplies are excluded from those who are being provided continuing coverage of home health care as participants of the former Individual Case Management Program for Persons with Extraordinary Conditions (ICMP-PEC) or previous case management demonstrations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Respite care.</I> Respite care for the purpose of covering primary caregiver absences due to deployment, employment, seeking of employment or to pursue education is excluded. Authorized respite care covers only the ECHO beneficiary, not siblings or others who may reside in or be visiting in the beneficiary's residence.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cost-share liability</I>—(1) <I>No deductible.</I> ECHO benefits are not subject to a deductible amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor cost-share liability.</I> (i) Regardless of the number of family members receiving ECHO benefits or ECHO Home Health Care in a given month, the sponsor's cost-share is according to the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Monthly Cost-Share by Member's Pay Grade
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E-1 through E-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E-7 and O-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E-8 and O-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E-9, W-1, W-2 and O-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-3, W-4 and O-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-5 and O-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O-10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The Sponsor's cost-share shown in Table 1 in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section will be applied to the first allowed ECHO charges in any given month. The Government's share will be paid, up to the maximum amount specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, for allowed charges after the sponsor's cost-share has been applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) The provisions of § 199.18(d)(1) and (e)(1) regarding elimination of copayments for active duty family members enrolled in TRICARE Prime do not eliminate, reduce, or otherwise affect the sponsor's cost-share shown in Table 1 in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The sponsor's cost-share shown in Table 1 in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section does not accrue to the Basic Program's Catastrophic Loss Protection under 10 U.S.C. 1079(b)(5) as shown at §§ 199.4(f)(10) and 199.18(f).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Government cost-share liability</I>—(i) <I>ECHO.</I> The total Government share of the cost of all ECHO benefits, except ECHO Home Health Care (EHHC) and EHHC respite care, provided in a given program year to a beneficiary, may not exceed $36,000 after application of the allowable payment methodology.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ECHO home health care.</I> (A) The maximum annual program year Government cost-share per EHHC-eligible beneficiary for ECHO home health care, including EHHC respite care may not exceed the local wage-adjusted highest Medicare Resource Utilization Group (RUG-III) category cost for care in a TRICARE-authorized skilled nursing facility.
</P>
<P>(B) When a beneficiary moves to a different locality within the 50 United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or Guam, the annual program year cap will be recalculated to reflect the maximum established under paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A) of this section for the beneficiary's new location and will apply to the EHHC benefit for the remaining portion of that program year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Benefit payment</I>—(1) <I>Transportation.</I> The allowable amount for transportation of an ECHO beneficiary is limited to the actual cost of the standard published fare plus any standard surcharge made to accommodate any person with a similar disability or to the actual cost of specialized medical transportation when non-specialized transport cannot accommodate the beneficiary's qualifying condition related needs, or when specialized transport is more economical than non-specialized transport. When transport is by private vehicle, the allowable amount is limited to the Federal government employee mileage reimbursement rate in effect on the date the transportation is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment.</I> (i) The TRICARE allowable amount for DE or AT devices shall be calculated in the same manner as DME allowable through section 199.4 of this title, and accrues to the program year benefit limit specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cost-share. A cost-share, as provided by paragraph (f)(2) of this section, is required for each month in which equipment or an AT device is purchased under this section. However, in no month shall a sponsor be required to pay more than one cost-share regardless of the number of benefits the sponsor's dependents received under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For-profit institutional care provider.</I> Institutional care provided by a for-profit entry may be allowed only when the care for a specific ECHO beneficiary:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contracted for by a public facility as a part of a publicly funded long-term inpatient care program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is provided based upon the ECHO beneficiary's being eligible for the publicly funded program which has contracted for the care; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is authorized by the public facility as a part of a publicly funded program; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Would cause a cost-share liability in the absence of TRICARE eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Produces an ECHO beneficiary cost-share liability that does not exceed the maximum charge by the provider to the public facility for the contracted level of care.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>ECHO home health care and EHHC respite care.</I> (i) TRICARE-authorized home health agencies must provide and bill for all authorized home health care services through established TRICARE claims' mechanisms. No special billing arrangements will be authorized in conjunction with coverage that may be provided by Medicaid or other federal, state, community or private programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) For authorized ECHO home health care and respite care, TRICARE will reimburse the allowable charges or negotiated rates.
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum monthly Government reimbursement for EHHC, including EHHC respite care, will be based on the actual number of hours of EHHC services rendered in the month, but in no case will it exceed one-twelfth of the annual maximum Government cost-share as determined in this section and adjusted according to the actual number of days in the month the services were provided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Applicable part.</I> All provisions of this part, except the provisions of § 199.4 unless otherwise provided by this section or as directed by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee, apply to the ECHO.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Registration.</I> Active duty sponsors must register potential ECHO-eligible beneficiaries through the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee prior to receiving ECHO benefits. The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee will determine ECHO eligibility and update the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System accordingly. Unless waived by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee, sponsors must provide evidence of enrollment in the Exceptional Family Member Program provided by their branch of Service at the time they register their family member(s) for the ECHO.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Benefit authorization.</I> All ECHO benefits require authorization by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee prior to receipt of such benefits.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Documentation.</I> The sponsor shall provide such documentation as the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee requires as a prerequisite to authorizing ECHO benefits. Such documentation shall describe how the requested benefit will contribute to confirming, arresting, or reducing the disabling effects of the qualifying condition, including maintenance of function or prevention of further deterioration of function, of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Format.</I> An authorization issued by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee shall specify such description, dates, amounts, requirements, limitations or information as necessary for exact identification of approved benefits and efficient adjudication of resulting claims.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Valid period.</I> An authorization for ECHO benefits shall be valid until such time as the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee determines that the authorized services are no longer appropriate or required or the beneficiary is no longer eligible under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Authorization waiver.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee may waive the requirement for a written authorization for rendered ECHO benefits that, except for the absence of the written authorization, would be allowable as an ECHO benefit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Public facility use.</I> (A) An ECHO beneficiary residing within a state must demonstrate that a public facility is not available and adequate to meet the needs of their qualifying condition. Such requirements shall apply to beneficiaries who request authorization for training, rehabilitation, special education, assistive technology, and institutional care in private nonprofit, public, and state institutions and facilities, and if appropriate for beneficiaries receiving institutional care, transportation to and from such institutions and facilities. The maximum Government cost-share for services that require demonstration of public facility non-availability or inadequacy is limited to $36,000 per program year per beneficiary. State-administered plans for medical assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid) are not considered available and adequate facilities for the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The domicile of the beneficiary shall be the basis for the determination of public facility availability when the sponsor and beneficiary are separately domiciled due to the sponsor's move to a new permanent duty station or due to legal custody requirements.
</P>
<P>(C) Written certification, in accordance with information requirements, formats, and procedures established by the director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee that requested ECHO services or items cannot be obtained from public facilities because the services or items are not available and adequate, is a prerequisite for ECHO benefit payment for training, rehabilitation, special education, assistive technology, and institutional care in private nonprofit, public, and state institutions and facilities, and if appropriate, transportation to and from such institutions and facilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An administrator or designee of a public facility may make such certification for a beneficiary residing within the service area of that public facility.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee may determine, on a case-by-case basis, that apparent public facility availability or adequacy for a requested type of service or item cannot be substantiated for a specific beneficiary's request for ECHO benefits and therefore is not available.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A case-specific determination shall be based upon a written statement by the beneficiary (or sponsor or guardian acting on behalf of the beneficiary) which details the circumstances wherein a specific individual representing a specific public facility refused to provide a public facility use certification, and such other information as the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee determines to be material to the determination.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A case-specific determination of public facility availability by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee is conclusive and is not appealable under § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(4) Repair or maintenance of DE owned by the beneficiary or an AT device is exempt from the public facility-use certification requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) The requirements of this paragraph (h)(3)(v)(A) notwithstanding, no public facility use certification is required for services and items that are provided under Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act in accordance with the Individualized Family Services Plan and that are otherwise allowable under the ECHO.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Implementing instructions.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee shall issue TRICARE policies, instructions, procedures, guidelines, standards, and criteria as may be necessary to implement the intent of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Effective date.</I> All changes to this section are effective as of October 14, 2008, and claims for ECHO benefits provided on or after that date will be reprocessed retroactively to that date as necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 51564, Aug. 20, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 47092, Aug. 16, 2006; 72 FR 2447, Jan. 19, 2007; 75 FR 47711, Aug. 9, 2010; 79 FR 78713, Dec. 31, 2014; 81 FR 27329, May 6, 2016; 82 FR 45447, Sept. 29, 2017; 86 FR 36217, July 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.6   TRICARE—authorized providers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth general policies and procedures that are the basis for the CHAMPUS cost-sharing of medical services and supplies provided by institutions, individuals, or other types of providers. Providers seeking payment from the Federal Government through programs such as CHAMPUS have a duty to familiarize themselves with, and comply with, the program requirements. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Listing of provider does not guarantee payment of benefits.</I> The fact that a type of provider is listed in this section is not to be construed to mean that CHAMPUS will automatically pay a claim for services or supplies provided by such a provider. The provider who actually furnishes the service(s) must, in fact, meet all licensing and other requirements established by this part to be an authorized provider; the provider must not be the subject of sanction under § 199.9; and, cost-sharing of the services must not otherwise be prohibited by this part. In addition, the patient must in fact be an eligible beneficiary and the services or supplies billed must be authorized and medically necessary, regardless of the standing of the provider. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outside the United States or emergency situations within the United States.</I> Outside the United States or within the United States and Puerto Rico in emergency situations, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, after review of the facts, may provide payment to or on behalf of a beneficiary who receives otherwise covered services or supplies from a provider of service that does not meet the standards described in this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Only the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or the Secretary of Transportation, or their designees, may authorize (in emergency situations) payment to civilian facilities in the United States that are not in compliance with title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. For the purpose of the Civil Rights Act only, the United States includes the 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, Canal Zone, and the territories and possessions of the United States.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Dual compensation/Conflict of interest.</I> Title 5, United States Code, section 5536 prohibits medical personnel who are active duty Uniformed Service members or civilian employees of the Government from receiving additional Government compensation above their normal pay and allowances for medical care furnished. In addition, Uniformed Service members and civilian employees of the Government are generally prohibited by law and agency regulations and policies from participating in apparent or actual conflict of interest situations in which a potential for personal gain exists or in which there is an appearance of impropriety or incompatibility with the performance of their official duties or responsibilities. The Departments of Defense, Health and Human Services, and Transportation have a responsibility, when disbursing appropriated funds in the payment of CHAMPUS benefits, to ensure that the laws and regulations are not violated. Therefore, active duty Uniformed Service members (including a reserve member while on active duty and civilian employees of the United States Government shall not be authorized to be CHAMPUS providers. While individual employees of the Government may be able to demonstrate that the furnishing of care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries may not be incompatible with their official duties and responsibilities, the processing of millions of CHAMPUS claims each year does not enable Program administrators to efficiently review the status of the provider on each claim to ensure that no conflict of interest or dual compensation situation exists. The problem is further complicated given the numerous interagency agreements (for example, resource sharing arrangements between the Department of Defense and the Veterans Administration in the provision of health care) and other unique arrangements which exist at individual treatment facilities around the country. While an individual provider may be prevented from being an authorized CHAMPUS provider even though no conflict of interest or dual compensation situation exists, it is essential for CHAMPUS to have an easily administered, uniform rule which will ensure compliance with the existing laws and regulations. Therefore, a provider who is an active duty Uniformed Service member or civilian employee of the Government shall not be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. In addition, a provider shall certify on each CHAMPUS claim that he/she is not an active duty Uniformed Service member or civilian employee of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Utilization review and quality assurance.</I> Providers approved as authorized CHAMPUS providers have certain obligations to provide services and supplies under CHAMPUS which are (i) furnished at the appropriate level and only when and to the extent medically necessary under the criteria of this part; (ii) of a quality that meets professionally recognized standards of health care; and, (iii) supported by adequate medical documentation as may be reasonably required under this part by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, to evidence the medical necessity and quality of services furnished, as well as the appropriateness of the level of care. Therefore, the authorization of CHAMPUS benefits is contingent upon the services and supplies furnished by any provider being subject to pre-payment or post-payment utilization and quality assurance review under professionally recognized standards, norms, and criteria, as well as any standards or criteria issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, pursuant to this part. (Refer to §§ 199.4, 199.5, and 199.7 of this part.)
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exclusion of beneficiary liability.</I> In connection with certain utilization review, quality assurance and preauthorization requirements of section 199.4 of this part, providers may not hold patients liable for payment for certain services for which CHAMPUS payment is disallowed. With respect to such services, providers may not seek payment from the patient or the patient's family. Any such effort to seek payment is a basis for termination of the provider's authorized status.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Provider required.</I> In order to be considered for benefits, all services and supplies shall be rendered by, prescribed by, or furnished at the direction of, or on the order of a CHAMPUS-authorized provider practicing within the scope of his or her license.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Participating providers.</I> A CHAMPUS-authorized provider is a participating provider, as defined in § 199.2 under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mandatory participation.</I> (A) An institutional provider in § 199.6(b), in order to be an authorized provider under TRICARE, must be a participating provider for all claims.
</P>
<P>(B) A SNF or a HHA, in order to be an authorized provider under TRICARE, must enter into a participation agreement with TRICARE for all claims.
</P>
<P>(C) Corporate services providers authorized as CHAMPUS providers under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section must enter into a participation agreement as provided by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Voluntary participation</I>—(A) <I>Total claims participation: The participating provider program.</I> A CHAMPUS-authorized provider that is not required to participate by this part may become a participating provider by entering into an agreement or memorandum of understanding (MOU) with the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, which includes, but is not limited to, the provisions of paragraph (a)(13) of this section. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may include in a participating provider agreement/MOU provisions that establish between CHAMPUS and a class, category, type, or specific provider, uniform procedures and conditions which encourage provider participation while improving beneficiary access to benefits and contributing to CHAMPUS efficiency. Such provisions shall be otherwise allowed by this part or by DoD Directive or DoD Instruction specifically pertaining to CHAMPUS claims participation. Participating provider program provisions may be incorporated into an agreement/MOU to establish a specific CHAMPUS-provider relationship, such as a preferred provider arrangement.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Claim-specific participation.</I> A CHAMPUS-authorized provider that is not required to participate and that has not entered into a participation agreement pursuant to paragraph (a)(8)(ii)(A) of this section may elect to be a participating provider on a claim-by-claim basis by indicating “accept assignment” on each claim form for which participation is elected.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Claim-by-claim participation.</I> Individual providers that are not participating providers pursuant to paragraph (a)(8)(ii) of this section may elect to participate on a claim-by-claim basis. They may do so by signing the appropriate space on the claims form and submitting it to the appropriate TRICARE contractor on behalf of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Limitation to authorized institutional provider designation.</I> Authorized institutional provider status granted to a specific institutional provider applicant does not extend to any institution-affiliated provider, as defined in § 199.2, of that specific applicant.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Authorized provider.</I> A hospital or institutional provider, physician, or other individual professional provider, or other provider of services or supplies specifically authorized in this chapter to provide benefits under CHAMPUS. In addition, to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider, any hospital which is a CHAMPUS participating provider under paragraph (a)(7) of this section, shall be a participating provider for all care, services, or supplies furnished to an active duty member of the uniformed services for which the active duty member is entitled under 10 U.S.C. 1074(c). As a participating provider for active duty members, the CHAMPUS authorized hospital shall provide such care, services, and supplies in accordance with the payment rules of § 199.16 of this part. The failure of any CHAMPUS participating hospital to be a participating provider for any active duty member subjects the hospital to termination of the hospital's status as a CHAMPUS authorized provider for failure to meet the qualifications established by this part.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Balance billing limits</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Individual providers including providers salaried or under contract by an institutional provider and other providers who are not participating providers may not balance bill a beneficiary an amount that exceeds the applicable balance billing limit. The balance billing limit shall be the same percentage as the Medicare limiting charge percentage for nonparticipating practitioners and suppliers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Waiver.</I> The balance billing limit may be waived by the Director, OCHAMPUS on a case-by-case basis if requested by a CHAMPUS beneficiary. A decision by the Director, OCHAMPUS to waive or not waive the limit in any particular case is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Compliance.</I> Failure to comply with the balance billing limit shall be considered abuse and/or fraud and grounds of exclusion or suspension of the provider under § 199.9. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Medical records.</I> CHAMPUS-authorized provider organizations and individuals providing clinical services shall maintain adequate clinical records to substantiate that specific care was actually furnished, was medically necessary, and appropriate, and identify(ies) the individual(s) who provided the care. This applies whether the care is inpatient or outpatient. The minimum requirements for medical record documentation are set forth by all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The cognizant state licensing authority;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, or the appropriate Qualified Accreditation Organization as defined in § 199.2;
</P>
<P>(iii) Standards of practice established by national medical organizations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) This part.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Participation agreements.</I> A participation agreement otherwise required by this part shall include, in part, all of the following provisions requiring that the provider shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Not charge a beneficiary for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Services for which the provider is entitled to payment from CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(B) Services for which the beneficiary would be entitled to have CHAMPUS payment made had the provider complied with certain procedural requirements.
</P>
<P>(C) Services not medically necessary and appropriate for the clinical management of the presenting illness, injury, disorder or maternity;
</P>
<P>(D) Services for which a beneficiary would be entitled to payment but for a reduction or denial in payment as a result of quality review; and
</P>
<P>(E) Services rendered during a period in which the provider was not in compliance with one or more conditions of authorization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the applicable provisions of this part and related CHAMPUS administrative policy;
</P>
<P>(iii) Accept the CHAMPUS determined allowable payment combined with the cost-share, deductible, and other health insurance amounts payable by, or on behalf of, the beneficiary, as full payment for CHAMPUS allowed services;
</P>
<P>(iv) Collect from the CHAMPUS beneficiary those amounts that the beneficiary has a liability to pay for the CHAMPUS deductible and cost-share;
</P>
<P>(v) Permit access by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, to the clinical record of any CHAMPUS beneficiary, to the financial and organizational records of the provider, and to reports of evaluations and inspections conducted by state, private agencies or organizations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, prompt written notification of the provider's employment of an individual who, at any time during the twelve months preceding such employment, was employed in a managerial, accounting, auditing, or similar capacity by an agency or organization which is responsible, directly or indirectly for decisions regarding Department of Defense payments to the provider;
</P>
<P>(vii) Cooperate fully with a designated utilization and clinical quality management organization which has a contract with the Department of Defense for the geographic area in which the provider renders services;
</P>
<P>(viii) Obtain written authorization before rendering designated services or items for which CHAMPUS cost-share may be expected;
</P>
<P>(ix) Maintain clinical and other records related to individuals for whom CHAMPUS payment was made for services rendered by the provider, or otherwise under arrangement, for a period of 60 months from the date of service;
</P>
<P>(x) Maintain contemporaneous clinical records that substantiate the clinical rationale for each course of treatment, periodic evaluation of the efficacy of treatment, and the outcome at completion or discontinuation of treatment;
</P>
<P>(xi) Refer CHAMPUS beneficiaries only to providers with which the referring provider does not have an economic interest, as defined in § 199.2; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Limit services furnished under arrangement to those for which receipt of payment by the CHAMPUS authorized provider discharges the payment liability of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Implementing instructions.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue CHAMPUS policies, instructions, procedures, and guidelines, as may be necessary to implement the intent of this section. 
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Exclusion.</I> Regardless of any provision in this section, a provider who is suspended, excluded, or terminated under § 199.9 of this part is specifically excluded as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institutional providers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Institutional providers are those providers who bill for services in the name of an organizational entity (such as hospital and skilled nursing facility), rather than in the name of a person. The term “institutional provider” does not include professional corporations or associations qualifying as a domestic corporation under § 301.7701-5 of the Internal Revenue Service Regulations nor does it include other corporations that provide principally professional services. Institutional providers may provide medical services and supplies on either an inpatient or outpatient basis.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preauthorization.</I> Preauthorization may be required by the Director, OCHAMPUS for any health care service for which payment is sought under CHAMPUS. (See §§ 199.4 and 199.15 for further information on preauthorization requirements.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Billing practices.
</P>
<P>(A) Each institutional billing, including those institutions subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based reimbursement method or a CHAMPUS-determined all-inclusive rate reimbursement method, must be itemized fully and sufficiently descriptive for the CHAMPUS to make a determination of benefits.
</P>
<P>(B) Institutional claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based reimbursement method or a CHAMPUS-determined all-inclusive rate reimbursement method, may be submitted only after the beneficiary has been discharged or transferred from the institutional provider's facility or program.
</P>
<P>(C) Institutional claims for Residential Treatment Centers and all other institutional providers, except those listed in (B) above, should be submitted to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary at least every 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nondiscrimination policy.</I> Except as provided below, payment may not be made for inpatient or outpatient care provided and billed by an institutional provider found by the Federal Government to practice discrimination in the admission of patients to its services on the basis of race, color, or national origin. Reimbursement may not be made to a beneficiary who pays for care provided by such a facility and submits a claim for reimbursement. In the following circumstances, the Secretary of Defense, or a designee, may authorize payment for care obtained in an ineligible facility:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency care.</I> Emergency inpatient or outpatient care.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Care rendered before finding of a violation.</I> Care initiated before a finding of a violation and which continues after such violation when it is determined that a change in the treatment facility would be detrimental to the health of the patient, and the attending physician so certifies.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other facility not available.</I> Care provided in an ineligible facility because an eligible facility is not available within a reasonable distance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for qualifying as a CHAMPUS-approved institutional provider.</I> General and special hospitals otherwise meeting the qualifications outlined in paragraphs (b)(4) (i), (ii), and (iii), of this section are not required to request CHAMPUS approval formally.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>JCAH accreditation status.</I> Each CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary shall keep informed as to the current JCAH accreditation status of all hospitals and skilled nursing facilities in its area; and the provider's status under Medicare, particularly with regard to compliance with title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d(1)). The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall specifically approve all other authorized institutional providers providing services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. At the discretion of the Director, OCHAMPUS, any facility that is certified and participating as a provider of services under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare), may be deemed to meet CHAMPUS requirements. The facility must be providing a type and level of service that is authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Required to comply with criteria.</I> Facilities seeking CHAMPUS approval will be expected to comply with appropriate criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. They also are required to complete and submit CHAMPUS Form 200, “Required Information, Facility Determination Instructions,” and provide such additional information as may be requested by OCHAMPUS. An onsite evaluation, either scheduled or unscheduled, may be conducted at the discretion of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. The final determination regarding approval, reapproval, or disapproval of a facility will be provided in writing to the facility and the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of peer review rights.</I> All health care facilities subject to the DRG-based payment system shall provide CHAMPUS beneficiaries, upon admission, with information about peer review including their appeal rights. The notices shall be in a form specified by the Director, OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Surveying of facilities.</I> The surveying of newly established institutional providers and the periodic resurveying of all authorized institutional providers is a continuing process conducted by OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Institutions not in compliance with CHAMPUS standards.</I> If a determination is made that an institution is not in compliance with one or more of the standards applicable to its specific category of institution, CHAMPUS shall take immediate steps to bring about compliance or terminate the approval as an authorized institution in accordance with § 199.9(f)(2). 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Participation agreements required for some hospitals which are not Medicare-participating.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (B)(3), a hospital which is subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system but which is not a Medicare-participating hospital must request and sign an agreement with OCHAMPUS. By signing the agreement, the hospital agrees to participate on all CHAMPUS inpatient claims and accept the requirements for a participating provider as contained in paragraph (a)(8) of § 199.6. Failure to sign such an agreement shall disqualify such hospital as a CHAMPUS-approved institutional provider.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Categories of institutional providers.</I> The following categories of institutional providers may be reimbursed by CHAMPUS for services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries subject to any and all definitions, conditions, limitation, and exclusions specified or enumerated in this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hospitals, acute care, general and special.</I> An institution that provides inpatient services, that also may provide outpatient services (including clinical and ambulatory surgical services), and that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is engaged primarily in providing to inpatients, by or under the supervision of physicians, diagnostic and therapeutic services for the medical or surgical diagnosis and treatment of illness, injury, or bodily malfunction (including maternity).
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains clinical records on all inpatients (and outpatients if the facility operates an outpatient department or emergency room).
</P>
<P>(C) Has bylaws in effect with respect to its operations and medical staff.
</P>
<P>(D) Has a requirement that every patient be under the care of a physician.
</P>
<P>(E) Provides 24-hour nursing service rendered or supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a licensed practical nurse or registered professional nurse on duty at all times.
</P>
<P>(F) Has in effect a hospital utilization review plan that is operational and functioning.
</P>
<P>(G) In the case of an institution in a state in which state or applicable local law provides for the licensing of hospitals, the hospital:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is licensed pursuant to such law, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is approved by the agency of such state or locality responsible for licensing hospitals as meeting the standards established for such licensing.
</P>
<P>(H) Has in effect an operating plan and budget.
</P>
<P>(I) Is accredited by the JCAH or meets such other requirements as the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Secretary of Transportation, or the Secretary of Defense finds necessary in the interest of the health and safety of patients who are admitted to and furnished services in the institution.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Organ transplant centers.</I> To obtain TRICARE approval as an organ transplant center, the center must be a Medicare approved transplant center or meet the criteria as established by the Executive Director, TMA, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Organ transplant consortia.</I> TRICARE shall approve individual pediatric organ transplant centers that meet the criteria established by the Executive Director, TMA, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hospitals, psychiatric.</I> A psychiatric hospital is an institution which is engaged primarily in providing services to inpatients for the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders.
</P>
<P>(A) There are two major categories of psychiatric hospitals:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The private psychiatric hospital category includes both proprietary and the not-for-profit nongovernmental institutions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The second category is those psychiatric hospitals that are controlled, financed, and operated by departments or agencies of the local, state, or Federal Government and always are operated on a not-for-profit basis.
</P>
<P>(B) In order for the services of a psychiatric hospital to be covered, the hospital shall comply with the provisions outlined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. All psychiatric hospitals shall be accredited under an accrediting organization approved by the Director, in order for their services to be cost-shared under CHAMPUS. In the case of those psychiatric hospitals that are not accredited because they have not been in operation a sufficient period of time to be eligible to request an accreditation survey, the Director, or a designee, may grant temporary approval if the hospital is certified and participating under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare, Part A). This temporary approval expires 12 months from the date on which the psychiatric hospital first becomes eligible to request an accreditation survey by an accrediting organization approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(C) Factors to be considered in determining whether CHAMPUS will cost-share care provided in a psychiatric hospital include, but are not limited to, the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is the prognosis of the patient such that care provided will lead to resolution or remission of the mental illness to the degree that the patient is of no danger to others, can perform routine daily activities, and can be expected to function reasonably outside the inpatient setting?
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Can the services being provided be provided more economically in another facility or on an outpatient basis?
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Are the charges reasonable?
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Is the care primarily custodial or domiciliary? (Custodial or domiciliary care of the permanently mentally ill or retarded is not a benefit under the Basic Program.)
</P>
<P>(D) Although psychiatric hospitals are accredited under an accrediting organization approved by Director, their medical records must be maintained in accordance with accrediting organization's current standards manual, along with the requirements set forth in § 199.7(b)(3). The hospital is responsible for assuring that patient services and all treatment are accurately documented and completed in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Long Term Care Hospital (LTCH).</I> LTCHs must meet all the criteria for classification as an LTCH under 42 CFR part 412, subpart O, as well as all of the requirements of this part in order to be considered an authorized LTCH under the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(A) In order for the services of LTCHs to be covered, the hospitals must comply with the provisions outlined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. In addition, in order for services provided by such hospitals to be covered by TRICARE, they must be primarily for the treatment of the presenting illness.
</P>
<P>(B) Custodial or domiciliary care is not coverable under TRICARE, even if rendered in an otherwise authorized LTCH.
</P>
<P>(C) The controlling factor in determining whether a beneficiary's stay in a LTCH is coverable by TRICARE is the level of professional care, supervision, and skilled nursing care that the beneficiary requires, in addition to the diagnosis, type of condition, or degree of functional limitations. The type and level of medical services required or rendered is controlling for purposes of extending TRICARE benefits; not the type of provider or condition of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Skilled nursing facility.</I> A skilled nursing facility is an institution (or a distinct part of an institution) that is engaged primarily in providing to inpatients medically necessary skilled nursing care, which is other than a nursing home or intermediate facility, and which:
</P>
<P>(A) Has policies that are developed with the advice of (and with provisions for review on a periodic basis by) a group of professionals, including one or more physicians and one or more registered nurses, to govern the skilled nursing care and related medical services it provides.
</P>
<P>(B) Has a physician, a registered nurse, or a medical staff responsible for the execution of such policies.
</P>
<P>(C) Has a requirement that the medical care of each patient must be under the supervision of a physician, and provides for having a physician available to furnish necessary medical care in case of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(D) Maintains clinical records on all patients.
</P>
<P>(E) Provides 24-hour skilled nursing service that is sufficient to meet nursing needs in accordance with the policies developed as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(iv)(A) of this section, and has at least one registered professional nurse employed full-time.
</P>
<P>(F) Provides appropriate methods and procedures for the dispensing and administering of drugs and biologicals. 
</P>
<P>(G) Has in effect a utilization review plan that is operational and functioning.
</P>
<P>(H) In the case of an institution in a state in which state or applicable local law provides for the licensing of this type facility, the institution:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is licensed pursuant to such law, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is approved by the agency of such state or locality responsible for licensing such institutions as meeting the standards established for such licensing.
</P>
<P>(I) Has in effect an operating plan and budget.
</P>
<P>(J) Meets such provisions of the most current edition of the Life Safety Code 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> as are applicable to nursing facilities; except that if the Secretary of Health and Human Services has waived, for such periods, as deemed appropriate, specific provisions of such code which, if rigidly applied, would result in unreasonable hardship upon a nursing facility.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Compiled and published by the National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.</P></FTNT>
<P>(K) Is an authorized provider under the Medicare program, and meets the requirements of Title 18 of the social Security Act, sections 1819(a), (b), (c), and (d) (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a)-(d)).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If a pediatric SNF is certified by Medicaid, it will be considered to meet the Medicare certification requirement in order to be an authorized provider under TRICARE.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) <I>Residential treatment centers.</I> This paragraph (b)(4)(vii) establishes the definition of and eligibility standards and requirements for residential treatment centers (RTCs).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Organization and administration</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Definition.</I> A Residential Treatment Center (RTC) is a facility or a distinct part of a facility that provides to beneficiaries under 21 years of age a medically supervised, interdisciplinary program of mental health treatment. An RTC is appropriate for patients whose predominant symptom presentation is essentially stabilized, although not resolved, and who have persistent dysfunction in major life areas. Residential treatment may be complemented by family therapy and case management for community based resources. Discharge planning should support transitional care for the patient and family, to include resources available in the geographic area where the patient will be residing. The extent and pervasiveness of the patient's problems require a protected and highly structured therapeutic environment. Residential treatment is differentiated from:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Acute psychiatric care, which requires medical treatment and 24-hour availability of a full

range of diagnostic and therapeutic services to establish and implement an effective plan of care which will reverse life-threatening and/or severely incapacitating symptoms;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Partial hospitalization, which provides a less than 24-hour-per-day, seven-day-per-week treatment program for patients who continue to exhibit psychiatric problems but can function with support in some of the major life areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A group home, which is a professionally directed living arrangement with the availability of psychiatric consultation and treatment for patients with significant family dysfunction and/or chronic but stable psychiatric disturbances;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Therapeutic school, which is an educational program supplemented by psychological and psychiatric services;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Facilities that treat patients with a primary diagnosis of substance use disorder; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Facilities providing care for patients with a primary diagnosis of mental retardation or developmental disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Eligibility.</I> (<I>i</I>) In order to qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, every RTC must meet the minimum basic standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(4)(vii)(A) through (C) of this section, and as well as such additional elaborative criteria and standards as the Director determines are necessary to implement the basic standards.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, the facility is required to be licensed and operate in substantial compliance with state and federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The facility is currently accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The facility has a written participation agreement with OCHAMPUS. The RTC is not a CHAMPUS-authorized provider and CHAMPUS benefits are not paid for services provided until the date upon which a participation agreement is signed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(B) Participation agreement requirements. In addition to other requirements set forth in this paragraph (b)(4)(vii), for the services of an RTC to be authorized, the RTC shall have entered into a Participation Agreement with OCHAMPUS. The period of a participation agreement shall be specified in the agreement, and will generally be for not more than five years. In addition to review of a facility's application and supporting documentation, an on-site inspection by OCHAMPUS authorized personnel may be required prior to signing a Participation Agreement. Retroactive approval is not given. In addition, the Participation Agreement shall include provisions that the RTC shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render residential treatment center inpatient services to eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries in need of such services, in accordance with the participation agreement and CHAMPUS regulation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept payment for its services based upon the methodology provided in § 199.14(f) or such other method as determined by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Accept the CHAMPUS all-inclusive per diem rate as payment in full and collect from the CHAMPUS beneficiary or the family of the CHAMPUS beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4, and charges for services and supplies that are not a benefit of CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Make all reasonable efforts acceptable to the Director, to collect those amounts, which represents the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the provisions of § 199.8, and submit claims first to all health insurance coverage to which the beneficiary is entitled that is primary to CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Submit claims for services provided to CHAMPUS beneficiaries at least every 30 days (except to the extent a delay is necessitated by efforts to first collect from other health insurance). If claims are not submitted at least every 30 days, the RTC agrees not to bill the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family for any amounts disallowed by CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Certify that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) It is and will remain in compliance with the TRICARE standards and provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(vii) of this section establishing standards for Residential Treatment Centers; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) It will maintain compliance with the CHAMPUS Standards for Residential Treatment Centers Serving Children and Adolescents with Mental Disorders, as issued by the Director, except for any such standards regarding which the facility notifies the Director that it is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Designate an individual who will act as liaison for CHAMPUS inquiries. The RTC shall inform OCHAMPUS in writing of the designated individual;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Furnish OCHAMPUS, as requested by OCHAMPUS, with cost data certified by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director, OCHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Comply with all requirements of this section applicable to institutional providers generally concerning accreditation requirements, preauthorization, concurrent care review, claims processing, beneficiary liability, double coverage, utilization and quality review, and other matters;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Grant the Director, or designee, the right to conduct quality assurance audits or accounting audits with full access to patients and records (including records relating to patients who are not CHAMPUS beneficiaries) to determine the quality and cost-effectiveness of care rendered. The audits may be conducted on a scheduled or unscheduled (unannounced) basis. This right to audit/review includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Examination of fiscal and all other records of the RTC which would confirm compliance with the participation agreement and designation as a TRICARE authorized RTC;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Conducting such audits of RTC records including clinical, financial, and census records, as may be necessary to determine the nature of the services being provided, and the basis for charges and claims against the United States for services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Examining reports of evaluations and inspections conducted by federal, state and local government, and private agencies and organizations;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Conducting on-site inspections of the facilities of the RTC and interviewing employees, members of the staff, contractors, board members, volunteers, and patients, as required;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Audits conducted by the United States Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Other requirements applicable to RTCs.</I> (<I>1</I>) Even though an RTC may qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider and may have entered into a participation agreement with CHAMPUS, payment by CHAMPUS for particular services provided is contingent upon the RTC also meeting all conditions set forth in § 199.4 especially all requirements of § 199.4(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The RTC shall provide inpatient services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries in the same manner it provides inpatient services to all other patients. The RTC may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries in any manner, including admission practices, placement in special or separate wings or rooms, or provisions of special or limited treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The RTC shall assure that all certifications and information provided to the Director, incident to the process of obtaining and retaining authorized provider status is accurate and that it has no material errors or omissions. In the case of any misrepresentations, whether by inaccurate information being provided or material facts withheld, authorized status will be denied or terminated, and the RTC will be ineligible for consideration for authorized provider status for a two year period.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Christian Science sanatoriums.</I> The services obtained in Christian Science sanatoriums are covered by CHAMPUS as inpatient care. To qualify for coverage, the sanatorium either must be operated by, or be listed and certified by the First Church of Christ, Scientist.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Infirmaries.</I> Infirmaries are facilities operated by student health departments of colleges and universities to provide inpatient or outpatient care to enrolled students. Charges for care provided by such facilities will not be cost-shared by CHAMPUS if the student would not be charged in the absence of CHAMPUS, or if student is covered by a mandatory student health insurance plan, in which enrollment is required as a part of the student's school registration and the charges by the college or university include a premium for the student health insurance coverage. CHAMPUS will cost-share only if enrollment in the student health program or health insurance plan is voluntary.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An infirmary in a boarding school also may qualify under this provision, subject to review and approval by the Director, OCHAMPUS or a designee.</P></NOTE>
<P>(x) <I>Other special institution providers.</I> (A) <I>General.</I> (<I>1</I>) Care provided by certain special institutional providers (on either an inpatient or outpatient basis), may be cost-shared by CHAMPUS under specified circumstances and only if the provider is specifically identified in paragraph (b)(4)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The course of treatment is prescribed by a doctor of medicine or osteopathy.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The patient is under the supervision of a physician during the entire course of the inpatient admission or the outpatient treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The type and level of care and service rendered by the institution are otherwise authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The facility meets all licensing or other certification requirements that are extant in the jurisdiction in which the facility is located geographically.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Is other than a nursing home, intermediate care facility, home for the aged, halfway house, or other similar institution.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Is accredited by the JCAH or other CHAMPUS-approved accreditation organization, if an appropriate accreditation program for the given type of facility is available. As future accreditation programs are developed to cover emerging specialized treatment programs, such accreditation will be a prerequisite to coverage by CHAMPUS for services provided by such facilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To ensure that CHAMPUS beneficiaries are provided quality care at a reasonable cost when treated by a special institutional provider, the Director, OCHAMPUS may:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Require prior approval of all admissions to special institutional providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Set appropriate standards for special institutional providers in addition to or in the absence of JCAHO accreditation.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Monitor facility operations and treatment programs on a continuing basis and conduct onsite inspections on a scheduled and unscheduled basis.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Negotiate agreements of participation.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Terminate approval of a case when it is ascertained that a departure from the facts upon which the admission was based originally has occurred.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Declare a special institutional provider not eligible for CHAMPUS payment if that facility has been found to have engaged in fraudulent or deceptive practices.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In general, the following disclaimers apply to treatment by special institutional providers:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Just because one period or episode of treatment by a facility has been covered by CHAMPUS may not be construed to mean that later episodes of care by the same or similar facility will be covered automatically.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The fact that one case has been authorized for treatment by a specific facility or similar type of facility may not be construed to mean that similar cases or later periods of treatment will be extended CHAMPUS benefits automatically.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Types of providers.</I> The following is a list of facilities that have been designated specifically as special institutional providers. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Ambulatory surgical centers</I> (<I>ASC).</I> ASCs must meet all criteria for classification as an Ambulatory Surgical Center under 42 CFR part 416, as well as all of the requirements of this part, in order to be considered an authorized ASC under the TRICARE program. Care provided by an authorized TRICARE ASC may be cost-shared under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A childbirth procedure provided by a CHAMPUS-approved ASC shall not be cost-shared by CHAMPUS unless the surgical center is also a CHAMPUS-approved birthing center institutional provider as established by the birthing center provider certification requirement of this part, and then reimbursement of covered maternity care and childbirth services shall be subject to § 199.14(e).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) ASCs must demonstrate they have a valid participation agreement with Medicare, except as provided under paragraph (b)(4)(x)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section. In addition, in order to be considered an authorized TRICARE provider, ASCs must accept the requirements for a participating provider under paragraph (a)(13) of this section and must also enter into a participation agreement with TRICARE which includes a specific “hold harmless” provision under which the facility will agree not to bill the patient for services not on the Medicare ASC procedures list unless, the patient is advised in writing that the non-listed procedure is not covered by TRICARE and the patient agrees, in advance in writing, to be financially liable for the non-covered procedure.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) ASCs that do not have an agreement with Medicare due to the nature of the patients they treat (<I>e.g.,</I> pediatric patients) shall be accredited by the Joint Commission, the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care, Inc. (AAAHC), or such other accreditation as authorized by the Director, DHA and published in the implementing instructions. Additionally, these facilities must enter into participation agreements with TRICARE, including the hold harmless provisions under paragraph (b)(4)(x)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section, and accept the requirements for a participating provider under paragraph (a)(13) of this section in order to be an authorized TRICARE provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Birthing centers.</I> A birthing center is a freestanding or institution-affiliated outpatient maternity care program which principally provides a planned course of outpatient prenatal care and outpatient childbirth service limited to low-risk pregnancies; excludes care for high-risk pregnancies; limits childbirth to the use of natural childbirth procedures; and provides immediate newborn care.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Certification requirements.</I> A birthing center which meets the following criteria may be designated as an authorized CHAMPUS institutional provider:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The predominant type of service and level of care rendered by the center is otherwise authorized by this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The center is licensed to operate as a birthing center where such license is available, or is specifically licensed as a type of ambulatory health care facility where birthing center specific license is not available, and meets all applicable licensing or certification requirements that are extant in the state, county, municipality, or other political jurisdiction in which the center is located.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The center is accredited by a nationally recognized accreditation organization whose standards and procedures have been determined to be acceptable by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The center complies with the CHAMPUS birthing center standards set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The center has entered into a participation agreement with OCHAMPUS in which the center agrees, in part, to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Participate in CHAMPUS and accept payment for maternity services based upon the reimbursement methodology for birthing centers;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Collect from the CHAMPUS beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability under the participation agreement and the reimbursement methodology for birthing centers, and the amounts for services and supplies that are not a benefit of the CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Permit access by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, to the clinical record of any CHAMPUS beneficiary, to the financial and organizational records of the center, and to reports of evaluations and inspections conducted by state or private agencies or organizations; 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Submit claims first to all health benefit and insurance plans primary to the CHAMPUS to which the beneficiary is entitled and to comply with the double coverage provisions of this part; 
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Notify CHAMPUS in writing within 7 days of the emergency transport of any CHAMPUS beneficiary from the center to an acute care hospital or of the death of any CHAMPUS beneficiary in the center. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A birthing center shall not be a CHAMPUS-authorized institutional provider and CHAMPUS benefits shall not be paid for any service provided by a birthing center before the date the participation agreement is signed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>CHAMPUS birthing center standards.</I> (<I>1</I>) <I>Environment:</I> The center has a safe and sanitary environment, properly constructed, equipped, and maintained to protect health and safety and meets the applicable provisions of the “Life Safety Code” of the National Fire Protection Association. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Policies and procedures:</I> The center has written administrative, fiscal, personnel and clinical policies and procedures which collectively promote the provision of high-quality maternity care and childbirth services in an orderly, effective, and safe physical and organizational environment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Informed consent:</I> Each CHAMPUS beneficiary admitted to the center will be informed in writing at the time of admission of the nature and scope of the center's program and of the possible risks associated with maternity care and childbirth in the center.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Beneficiary care:</I> Each woman admitted will be cared for by or under the direct supervision of a specific physician or a specific certified nurse-midwife who is otherwise eligible as a CHAMPUS individual professional provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Medical direction:</I> The center has written memoranda of understanding (MOU) for routine consultation and emergency care with an obstetrician-gynecologist who is certified or is eligible for certification by the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology or the American Osteopathic Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology and with a pediatrician who is certified or eligible for certification by the American Board of Pediatrics or by the American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics, each of whom have admitting privileges to at least one backup hospital. In lieu of a required MOU, the center may employ a physician with the required qualifications. Each MOU must be renewed annually.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Admission and emergency care criteria and procedures.</I> The center has written clinical criteria and administrative procedures, which are reviewed and approved annually by a physician related to the center as required by paragraph (b)(4)(xi)(B)(<I>5</I>) above, for the exclusion of a woman with a high-risk pregnancy from center care and for management of maternal and neonatal emergencies.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Emergency treatment.</I> The center has a written memorandum of understanding (MOU) with at least one backup hospital which documents that the hospital will accept and treat any woman or newborn transferred from the center who is in need of emergency obstetrical or neonatal medical care. In lieu of this MOU with a hospital, a birthing center may have an MOU with a physician, who otherwise meets the requirements as a CHAMPUS individual professional provider, and who has admitting privileges to a backup hospital capable of providing care for critical maternal and neonatal patients as demonstrated by a letter from that hospital certifying the scope and expected duration of the admitting privileges granted by the hospital to the physician. The MOU must be reviewed annually.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Emergency medical transportation.</I> The center has a written memorandum of understanding (MOU) with at least one ambulance service which documents that the ambulance service is routinely staffed by qualified personnel who are capable of the management of critical maternal and neonatal patients during transport and which specifies the estimated transport time to each backup hospital with which the center has arranged for emergency treatment as required in paragraph (b)(4)(xi)(B)(<I>7</I>) above. Each MOU must be renewed annually. 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Professional staff.</I> The center's professional staff is legally and professionally qualified for the performance of their professional responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) <I>Medical records.</I> The center maintains full and complete written documentation of the services rendered to each woman admitted and each newborn delivered. A copy of the informed consent document required by paragraph (b)(4)(xi)(B)(<I>3</I>), above, which contains the original signature of the CHAMPUS beneficiary, signed and dated at the time of admission, must be maintained in the medical record of each CHAMPUS beneficiary admitted. 
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) <I>Quality assurance.</I> The center has an organized program for quality assurance which includes, but is not limited to, written procedures for regularly scheduled evaluation of each type of service provided, of each mother or newborn transferred to a hospital, and of each death within the facility. 
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) <I>Governance and administration.</I> The center has a governing body legally responsible for overall operation and maintenance of the center and a full-time employee who has authority and responsibility for the day-to-day operation of the center.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Psychiatric and substance use disorder partial hospitalization programs.</I> This paragraph (b)(4)(xii) establishes the definition of and eligibility standards and requirements for psychiatric and substance use disorder partial hospitalization programs.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Organization and administration</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Definition.</I> Partial hospitalization is defined as a time-limited, ambulatory, active treatment program that offers therapeutically intensive, coordinated, and structured clinical services within a stable therapeutic milieu. Partial hospitalization programs serve patients who exhibit psychiatric symptoms, disturbances of conduct, and decompensating conditions affecting mental health. Partial hospitalization is appropriate for those whose psychiatric and addiction-related symptoms or concomitant physical and emotional/behavioral problems can be managed outside the hospital for defined periods of time with support in one or more of the major life areas. A partial hospitalization program for the treatment of substance use disorders is an addiction-focused service that provides active treatment to children and adolescents, or adults aged 18 and over.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Eligibility.</I> (<I>i</I>) To qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, every partial hospitalization program must meet minimum basic standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(4)(xii)(A) through (D) of this section, as well as such additional elaborative criteria and standards as the Director determines are necessary to implement the basic standards. Each partial hospitalization program must be either a distinct part of an otherwise-authorized institutional provider or a free-standing program. Approval of a hospital by TRICARE is sufficient for its partial hospitalization program to be an authorized TRICARE provider. Such hospital-based partial hospitalization programs are not required to be separately authorized by TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To be approved as a TRICARE authorized provider, the facility is required to be licensed and operate in substantial compliance with state and federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The facility is required to be currently accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the Director. Each PHP authorized to treat substance use disorder must be accredited to provide the level of required treatment by an accreditation body approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The facility is required to have a written participation agreement with OCHAMPUS. The PHP is not a CHAMPUS-authorized provider and CHAMPUS benefits are not paid for services provided until the date upon which a participation agreement is signed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Participation agreement requirements.</I> In addition to other requirements set forth in this paragraph (b)(4)(xii), in order for the services of a PHP to be authorized, the PHP shall have entered into a Participation Agreement with OCHAMPUS. A single consolidated participation agreement is acceptable for all units of the TRICARE authorized facility granted that all programs meet the requirements of this part. The period of a Participation Agreement shall be specified in the agreement, and will generally be for not more than five years. The PHP shall not be considered to be a CHAMPUS authorized provider and CHAMPUS payments shall not be made for services provided by the PHP until the date the participation agreement is signed by the Director. In addition to review of a facility's application and supporting documentation, an on-site inspection by OCHAMPUS authorized personnel may be required prior to signing a participation agreement. The Participation Agreement shall include at least the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render partial hospitalization program services to eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries in need of such services, in accordance with the participation agreement and CHAMPUS regulation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept payment for its services based upon the methodology provided in § 199.14, or such other method as determined by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Accept the CHAMPUS all-inclusive per diem rate as payment in full and collect from the CHAMPUS beneficiary or the family of the CHAMPUS beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4, and charges for services and supplies that are not a benefit of CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Make all reasonable efforts acceptable to the Director to collect those amounts, which represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the provisions of § 199.8, and submit claims first to all health insurance coverage to which the beneficiary is entitled that is primary to CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Submit claims for services provided to CHAMPUS beneficiaries at least every 30 days (except to the extent a delay is necessitated by efforts to first collect from other health insurance). If claims are not submitted at least every 30 days, the PHP agrees not to bill the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family for any amounts disallowed by CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Certify that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) It is and will remain in compliance with the TRICARE standards and provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(xii) of this section establishing standards for psychiatric and substance use disorder partial hospitalization programs; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) It will maintain compliance with the CHAMPUS Standards for Psychiatric Substance Use Disorder Partial Hospitalization Programs, as issued by the Director, except for any such standards regarding which the facility notifies the Director, or designee, that it is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Designate an individual who will act as liaison for CHAMPUS inquiries. The PHP shall inform the Director, or designee, in writing of the designated individual;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Furnish OCHAMPUS, as requested by OCHAMPUS, with cost data certified by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Comply with all requirements of this section applicable to institutional providers generally concerning accreditation requirements, preauthorization, concurrent care review, claims processing, beneficiary liability, double coverage, utilization and quality review, and other matters;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Grant the Director, or designee, the right to conduct quality assurance audits or accounting audits with full access to patients and records (including records relating to patients who are not CHAMPUS beneficiaries) to determine the quality and cost-effectiveness of care rendered. The audits may be conducted on a scheduled or unscheduled (unannounced) basis. This right to audit/review includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Examination of fiscal and all other records of the PHP which would confirm compliance with the participation agreement and designation as a TRICARE authorized PHP provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Conducting such audits of PHP records including clinical, financial, and census records, as may be necessary to determine the nature of the services being provided, and the basis for charges and claims against the United States for services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Examining reports of evaluations and inspections conducted by federal, state and local government, and private agencies and organizations;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Conducting on-site inspections of the facilities of the PHP and interviewing employees, members of the staff, contractors, board members, volunteers, and patients, as required;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Audits conducted by the United States General Account Office.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Other requirements applicable to PHPs.</I> (<I>1</I>) Even though a PHP may qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider and may have entered into a participation agreement with CHAMPUS, payment by CHAMPUS for particular services provided is contingent upon the PHP also meeting all conditions set forth in § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The PHP may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries in any manner, including admission practices, placement in special or separate wings or rooms, or provisions of special or limited treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The PHP shall assure that all certifications and information provided to the Director incident to the process of obtaining and retaining authorized provider status is accurate and that is has no material errors or omissions. In the case of any misrepresentations, whether by inaccurate information being provided or material facts withheld, authorized provider status will be denied or terminated, and the PHP will be ineligible for consideration for authorized provider status for a two year period.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Hospice programs.</I> Hospice programs must be Medicare approved and meet all Medicare conditions of participation (42 CFR part 418) in relation to CHAMPUS patients in order to receive payment under the CHAMPUS program. A hospice program may be found to be out of compliance with a particular Medicare condition of participation and still participate in the CHAMPUS as long as the hospice is allowed continued participation in Medicare while the condition of noncompliance is being corrected. The hospice program can be either a public agency or private organization (or a subdivision thereof) which:
</P>
<P>(A) Is primarily engaged in providing the care and services described under § 199.4(e)(19) and makes such services available on a 24-hour basis.
</P>
<P>(B) Provides bereavement counseling for the immediate family or terminally ill individuals.
</P>
<P>(C) Provides for such care and services in individuals' homes, on an outpatient basis, and on a short-term inpatient basis, directly or under arrangements made by the hospice program, except that the agency or organization must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Ensure that substantially all the core services are routinely provided directly by hospice employees.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Maintain professional management responsibility for all services which are not directly furnished to the patient, regardless of the location or facility in which the services are rendered.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provide assurances that the aggregate number of days of inpatient care provided in any 12-month period does not exceed 20 percent of the aggregate number of days of hospice care during the same period.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Have an interdisciplinary group composed of the following personnel who provide the care and services described under § 199.4(e)(19) and who establish the policies governing the provision of such care/services:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A physician;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A registered professional nurse;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A social worker; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A pastoral or other counselor.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Maintain central clinical records on all patients.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Utilize volunteers.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The hospice and all hospice employees must be licensed in accordance with applicable Federal, State and local laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The hospice must enter into an agreement with CHAMPUS in order to be qualified to participate and to be eligible for payment under the program. In this agreement the hospice and CHAMPUS agree that the hospice will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Not charge the beneficiary or any other person for items or services for which the beneficiary is entitled to have payment made under the CHAMPUS hospice benefit.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Be allowed to charge the beneficiary for items or services requested by the beneficiary in addition to those that are covered under the CHAMPUS hospice benefit.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Meet such other requirements as the Secretary of Defense may find necessary in the interest of the health and safety of the individuals who are provided care and services by such agency or organization.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Substance use disorder rehabilitation facilities.</I> This paragraph (b)(4)(xiv) establishes the definition of eligibility standards and requirements for residential substance use disorder rehabilitation facilities (SUDRF).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Organization and administration</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Definition.</I> A SUDRF is a residential or rehabilitation facility, or distinct part of a facility, that provides medically monitored, interdisciplinary addiction-focused treatment to beneficiaries who have psychoactive substance use disorders. Qualified health care professionals provide 24-hour, seven-day-per-week, assessment, treatment, and evaluation. A SUDRF is appropriate for patients whose addiction-related symptoms, or concomitant physical and emotional/behavioral problems reflect persistent dysfunction in several major life areas. Residential or inpatient rehabilitation is differentiated from:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Acute psychoactive substance use treatment and from treatment of acute biomedical/emotional/behavioral problems; which problems are either life-threatening and/or severely incapacitating and often occur within the context of a discrete episode of addiction-related biomedical or psychiatric dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A partial hospitalization center, which serves patients who exhibit emotional/behavioral dysfunction but who can function in the community for defined periods of time with support in one or more of the major life areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A group home, sober-living environment, halfway house, or three-quarter way house;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Therapeutic schools, which are educational programs supplemented by addiction-focused services;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Facilities that treat patients with primary psychiatric diagnoses other than psychoactive substance use or dependence; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Facilities that care for patients with the primary diagnosis of mental retardation or developmental disability.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Eligibility.</I> (<I>i</I>) In order to become a TRICARE authorized provider, every SUDRF must meet minimum basic standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(4)(xiv)(A) through (C) of this section, as well as such additional elaborative criteria and standards as the Director determines are necessary to implement the basic standards.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To be approved as a TRICARE authorized provider, the SUDRF is required to be licensed and operate in substantial compliance with state and federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The SUDRF is currently accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the Director. Each SUDRF must be accredited to provide the level of required treatment by an accreditation body approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The SUDRF has a written participation agreement with OCHAMPUS. The SUDRF is not considered a TRICARE authorized provider, and CHAMPUS benefits are not paid for services provided until the date upon which a participation agreement is signed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Participation agreement requirements.</I> In addition to other requirements set forth in this paragraph (b)(4)(xiv), in order for the services of an inpatient rehabilitation center for the treatment of substance use disorders to be authorized, the center shall have entered into a Participation Agreement with OCHAMPUS. A single consolidated participation agreement is acceptable for all units of the TRICARE authorized facility. The period of a Participation Agreement shall be specified in the agreement, and will generally be for not more than five years. The SUDRF shall not be considered to be a CHAMPUS authorized provider and CHAMPUS payments shall not be made for services provided by the SUDRF until the date the participation agreement is signed by the Director. In addition to review of the SUDRF's application and supporting documentation, an on-site visit by OCHAMPUS representatives may be part of the authorization process. The Participation Agreement shall include at least the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render applicable services to eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries in need of such services, in accordance with the participation agreement and CHAMPUS regulation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept payment for its services based upon the methodology provided in § 199.14, or such other method as determined by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Accept the CHAMPUS-determined rate as payment in full and collect from the CHAMPUS beneficiary or the family of the CHAMPUS beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4, and charges for services and supplies that are not a benefit of CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Make all reasonable efforts acceptable to the Director to collect those amounts which represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the provisions of § 199.8, and submit claims first to all health insurance coverage to which the beneficiary is entitled that is primary to CHAMPUS;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Furnish OCHAMPUS with cost data, as requested by OCHAMPUS, certified to by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Certify that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) It is and will remain in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(xiv) of the section establishing standards for substance use disorder rehabilitation facilities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) It has conducted a self-assessment of the facility's compliance with the CHAMPUS Standards for Substance Use Disorder Rehabilitation Facilities, as issued by the Director and notified the Director of any matter regarding which the facility is not in compliance with such standards; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) It will maintain compliance with the CHAMPUS Standards for Substance Use Disorder Rehabilitation Facilities, as issued by the Director, except for any such standards regarding which the facility notifies the Director that it is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Designate an individual who will act as liaison for CHAMPUS inquiries. The SUDRF shall inform OCHAMPUS in writing of the designated individual;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Furnish OCHAMPUS, as requested by OCHAMPUS, with cost data certified by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Comply with all requirements of this section applicable to institutional providers generally concerning accreditation requirements, preauthorization, concurrent care review, claims processing, beneficiary liability, double coverage, utilization and quality review, and other matters;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Grant the Director, or designee, the right to conduct quality assurance audits or accounting audits with full access to patients and records (including records relating to patients who are not CHAMPUS beneficiaries) to determine the quality and cost effectiveness of care

rendered. The audits may be conducted on a scheduled or unscheduled (unannounced) basis. This right to audit/review included, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Examination of fiscal and all other records of the center which would confirm compliance with the participation agreement and designation as an authorized TRICARE provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Conducting such audits of center records including clinical, financial, and census records, as may be necessary to determine the nature of the services being provided, and the basis for charges and claims against the United States for services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Examining reports of evaluations and inspection conducted by federal, state and local government, and private agencies and organizations;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Conducting on-site inspections of the facilities of the SUDRF and interviewing employees, members of the staff, contractors, board members, volunteers, and patients, as required.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Audits conducted by the United States Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(C) Other requirements applicable to substance use disorder rehabilitation facilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Even though a SUDRF may qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider and may have entered into a participation agreement with CHAMPUS, payment by CHAMPUS for particular services provided is contingent upon the SUDRF also meeting all conditions set forth in § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The center shall provide inpatient services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries in the same manner it provides services to all other patients. The center may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries in any manner, including admission practices, placement in special or separate wings or rooms, or provisions of special or limited treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The substance use disorder facility shall assure that all certifications and information provided to the Director, incident to the process of obtaining and retaining authorized provider status, is accurate and that it has no material errors or omissions. In the case of any misrepresentations, whether by inaccurate information being provided or material facts withheld, authorized provider status will be denied or terminated, and the facility will be ineligible for consideration for authorized provider status for a two year period.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Home health agencies (HHAs).</I> HHAs must be Medicare approved and meet all Medicare conditions of participation under sections 1861(o) and 1891 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x(o) and 1395bbb) and 42 CFR part 484 in relation to TRICARE beneficiaries in order to receive payment under the TRICARE program. An HHA may be found to be out of compliance with a particular Medicare condition of participation and still participate in the TRICARE program as long as the HHA is allowed continued participation in Medicare while the condition of noncompliance is being corrected. An HHA is a public or private organization, or a subdivision of such an agency or organization, that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Engaged in providing skilled nursing services and other therapeutic services, such as physical therapy, speech-language pathology services, or occupational therapy, medical services, and home health aide services.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Makes available part-time or intermittent skilled nursing services and at least one other therapeutic service on a visiting basis in place of residence used as a patient's home.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Furnishes at least one of the qualifying services directly through agency employees, but may furnish the second qualifying service and additional services under arrangement with another HHA or organization.
</P>
<P>(B) Policies established by a professional group associated with the agency or organization (including at least one physician and one registered nurse) to govern the services and provides for supervision of such services by a physician or a registered nurse.
</P>
<P>(C) Maintains clinical records for all patients.
</P>
<P>(D) Licensed in accordance with State and local law or is approved by the State or local licensing agency as meeting the licensing standards, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) Enters into an agreement with TRICARE in order to participate and to be eligible for payment under the program. In this agreement the HHA and TRICARE agree that the HHA will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not charge the beneficiary or any other person for items or services for which the beneficiary is entitled to have payment under the TRICARE HHA prospective payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be allowed to charge the beneficiary for items or services requested by the beneficiary in addition to those that are covered under the TRICARE HHA prospective payment system.
</P>
<P>(F) Abide by the following consolidated billing requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The HHA must submit all TRICARE claims for all home health services, excluding durable medical equipment (DME), while the beneficiary is under the home health plan without regard to whether or not the item or service was furnished by the HHA, by others under arrangement with the HHA, or under any other contracting or consulting arrangement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Separate payment will be made for DME items and services provided under the home health benefit which are under the DME fee schedule. DME is excluded from the consolidated billing requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Home health services included in consolidated billing are:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Part-time or intermittent skilled nursing;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Part-time or intermittent home health aide services;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Physical therapy, occupational therapy and speech-language pathology;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Medical social services;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Routine and non-routine medical supplies;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) A covered osteoporosis drug (not paid under PPS rate) but excluding other drugs and biologicals;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Medical services provided by an intern or resident-in-training of a hospital, under an approved teaching program of the hospital in the case of an HHA that is affiliated or under common control of a hospital;
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Services at hospitals, SNFs or rehabilitation centers when they involve equipment too cumbersome to bring home.
</P>
<P>(G) Meet such other requirements as the Secretary of Health and Human Services and/or Secretary of Defense may find necessary in the interest of the health and safety of the individuals who are provided care and services by such agency or organization.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Critical Access Hospitals (CAHs).</I> CAHs must meet all conditions of participation under 42 CFR 485.601 through 485.645 in relation to TRICARE beneficiaries in order to receive payment under the TRICARE program. If a CAH provides inpatient psychiatric services or inpatient rehabilitation services in a distinct part unit, the distinct part unit must meet the conditions of participation in 42 CFR 485.647, with the exception of being paid under the inpatient prospective payment system for psychiatric facilities as specified in 42 CFR 412.1(a)(2) or the inpatient prospective payment system for rehabilitation hospitals or rehabilitation units as specified in 42 CFR 412.1(a)(3). Upon implementation of TRICARE's IRF PPS in § 199.14(a)(10), if a CAH provides inpatient rehabilitation services in a distinct part unit, the distinct part unit shall be paid under TRICARE's IRF PPS.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Sole community hospitals (SCHs).</I> SCHs must meet all the criteria for classification as an SCH under 42 CFR 412.92, in order to be considered an SCH under the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Intensive outpatient programs.</I> This paragraph (b)(4)(xviii) establishes standards and requirements for intensive outpatient treatment programs for psychiatric and substance use disorder.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Organization and administration</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Definition.</I> Intensive outpatient treatment (IOP) programs are defined in § 199.2. IOP services consist of a comprehensive and complimentary schedule of recognized treatment approaches that may include day, evening, night, and weekend services consisting of individual and group counseling or therapy, and family counseling or therapy as clinically indicated for children and adolescents, or adults aged 18 and over, and may include case management to link patients and their families with community based support systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Eligibility.</I> (<I>i</I>) In order to qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, every intensive outpatient program must meet the minimum basic standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(4)(xviii)(A) through (C) of this section, as well as additional elaborative criteria and standards as the Director determines are necessary to implement the basic standards. Each intensive outpatient program must be either a distinct part of an otherwise-authorized institutional provider or a free-standing psychiatric or substance use disorder intensive outpatient program. Approval of a hospital by TRICARE is sufficient for its IOP to be an authorized TRICARE provider. Such hospital-based intensive outpatient programs are not required to be separately authorized by TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, the IOP is required to be licensed and operate in substantial compliance with state and federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The IOP is currently accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the Director. Each IOP authorized to treat substance use disorder must be accredited to provide the level of required treatment by an accreditation body approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The facility has a written participation agreement with TRICARE. The IOP is not considered a TRICARE authorized provider and TRICARE benefits are not paid for services provided until the date upon which a participation agreement is signed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Participation agreement requirements.</I> In addition to other requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(xii) of this section, in order for the services of an IOP to be authorized, the IOP shall have entered into a Participation Agreement with TRICARE. A single consolidated participation agreement is acceptable for all units of the TRICARE authorized facility granted that all programs meet the requirements of this part. The period of a Participation Agreement shall be specified in the agreement, and will generally be for not more than five years. In addition to review of a facility's application and supporting documentation, an on-site inspection by DHA authorized personnel may be required prior to signing a participation agreement. The Participation Agreement shall include at least the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render intensive outpatient program services to eligible TRICARE beneficiaries in need of such services, in accordance with the participation agreement and TRICARE regulation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept payment for its services based upon the methodology provided in § 199.14, or such other method as determined by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Collect from the TRICARE beneficiary or the family of the TRICARE beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4, and charges for services and supplies that are not a benefit of TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Make all reasonable efforts acceptable to the Director to collect those amounts, which represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the provisions of § 199.8, and submit claims first to all health insurance coverage to which the beneficiary is entitled that is primary to TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Submit claims for services provided to TRICARE beneficiaries at least every 30 days (except to the extent a delay is necessitated by efforts to first collect from other health insurance). If claims are not submitted at least every 30 days, the IOP agrees not to bill the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family for any amounts disallowed by TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Free-standing intensive outpatient programs shall certify that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) It is and will remain in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(xii) of this section establishing standards for psychiatric and SUD IOPs;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) It has conducted a self-assessment of the facility's compliance with the CHAMPUS Standards for Intensive Outpatient Programs, as issued by the Director, and notified the Director of any matter regarding which the facility is not in compliance with such standards; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) It will maintain compliance with the TRICARE standards for IOPs, as issued by the Director, except for any such standards regarding which the facility notifies the Director, or a designee that it is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Designate an individual who will act as liaison for TRICARE inquiries. The IOP shall inform TRICARE, or a designee in writing of the designated individual;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Furnish OCHAMPUS with cost data, as requested by OCHAMPUS, certified by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Comply with all requirements of this section applicable to institutional providers generally concerning accreditation requirements, preauthorization, concurrent care review, claims processing, beneficiary liability, double coverage, utilization and quality review, and other matters;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Grant the Director, or designee, the right to conduct quality assurance audits or accounting audits with full access to patients and records (including records relating to patients who are not CHAMPUS beneficiaries) to determine the quality and cost effectiveness of care rendered. The audits may be conducted on a scheduled or unscheduled (unannounced) basis. This right to audit/review included, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Examination of fiscal and all other records of the center which would confirm compliance with the participation agreement and designation as an authorized TRICARE provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Conducting such audits of center records including clinical, financial, and census records, as may be necessary to determine the nature of the services being provided, and the basis for charges and claims against the United States for services provided CHAMPUS beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Examining reports of evaluations and inspection conducted by federal, state and local government, and private agencies and organizations;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Conducting on-site inspections of the facilities of the IOP and interviewing employees, members of the staff, contractors, board members, volunteers, and patients, as required.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Audits conducted by the United States Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Other requirements applicable to Intensive Outpatient Programs (IOP).</I> (<I>1</I>) Even though an IOP may qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider and may have entered into a participation agreement with CHAMPUS, payment by CHAMPUS for particular services provided is contingent upon the IOP also meeting all conditions set forth in § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The IOP may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries in any manner, including admission practices, placement in special or separate wings or rooms, or provisions of special or limited treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The IOP shall assure that all certifications and information provided to the Director incident to the process of obtaining and retaining authorized provider status is accurate and that is has no material errors or omissions. In the case of any misrepresentations, whether by inaccurate information being provided or material facts withheld, authorized provider status will be denied or terminated, and the IOP will be ineligible for consideration for authorized provider status for a two year period.
</P>
<P>(xix) <I>Opioid Treatment Programs (OTPs).</I> This paragraph (b)(4)(xix) establishes standards and requirements for Opioid Treatment Programs.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Organization and administration.</I> (<I>1</I>) <I>Definition.</I> Opioid Treatment Programs (OTPs) are defined in § 199.2. Opioid Treatment Programs (OTPs) are organized, ambulatory, addiction treatment services for patients with an opioid use disorder. OTPs have the capacity to provide daily direct administration of medications without the prescribing of medications. Medication supplies for patients to take outside of OTPs originate from within OTPs. OTPs offer medication assisted treatment, patient-centered, recovery-oriented individualized treatment through addiction counseling, mental health therapy, case management, and health education.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Eligibility.</I> (<I>i</I>) Every free-standing Opioid Treatment Program must be accredited by an accrediting organization recognized by Director, under the current standards of an accrediting organization, as well as meet additional elaborative criteria and standards as the Director determines are necessary to implement the basic standards. OTPs adhere to requirements of the Department of Health and Human Services' 42 CFR part 8, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's Center for Substance Abuse Treatment, and the Drug Enforcement Agency. OTPs must be either a distinct part of an otherwise authorized institutional provider or a free-standing program. Approval of hospitals by TRICARE is sufficient for their OTPs to be authorized TRICARE providers. Such hospital-based OTPs, if certified under 42 CFR 8, are not required to be separately authorized by TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider, OTPs are required to be licensed and operate in substantial compliance with state and federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) OTPs have a written participation agreement with OCHAMPUS. OTPs are not considered a TRICARE authorized provider, and CHAMPUS benefits are not paid for services provided until the date upon which a participation agreement is signed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(B) Participation agreement requirements. In addition to other requirements set forth in this paragraph (b)(4)(xix), in order for the services of OTPs to be authorized, OTPs shall have entered into a Participation Agreement with TRICARE. A single consolidated participation agreement is acceptable for all units of a TRICARE authorized facility. The period of a Participation Agreement shall be specified in the agreement, and will generally be for not more than five years. In addition to review of a facility's application and supporting documentation, an on-site inspection by DHA authorized personnel may be required prior to signing a participation agreement. The Participation Agreement shall include at least the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render services from OTPs to eligible TRICARE beneficiaries in need of such services, in accordance with the participation agreement and TRICARE regulation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept payment for its services based upon the methodology provided in § 199.14, or such other method as determined by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Collect from the TRICARE beneficiary or the family of the TRICARE beneficiary only those amounts that represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4, and charges for services and supplies that are not a benefit of TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Make all reasonable efforts acceptable to the Director to collect those amounts, which represent the beneficiary's liability, as defined in § 199.4;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the provisions of § 199.8, and submit claims first to all health insurance coverage to which the beneficiary is entitled that is primary to TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Submit claims for services provided to TRICARE beneficiaries at least every 30 days (except to the extent a delay is necessitated by efforts to first collect from other health insurance). If claims are not submitted at least every 30 days, OTPs agree not to bill the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family for any amounts disallowed by TRICARE;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Free-standing opioid treatment programs shall certify that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) It is and will remain in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(xii) of this section establishing standards for opioid treatment programs;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) It will maintain compliance with the TRICARE standards for OTPs, as issued by the Director, except for any such standards regarding which the facility notifies the Director, or a designee, that it is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Designate an individual who will act as liaison for TRICARE inquiries. OTPs shall inform TRICARE, or a designee, in writing of the designated individual;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Furnish TRICARE, or a designee, with cost data, as requested by TRICARE, certified by an independent accounting firm or other agency as authorized by the Director;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Comply with all requirements of this section applicable to institutional providers generally concerning accreditation requirements, claims processing, beneficiary liability, double coverage, utilization and quality review, and other matters;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Grant the Director, or designee, the right to conduct quality assurance audits or accounting audits with full access to patients and records (including records relating to patients who are not TRICARE beneficiaries) to determine the quality and cost effectiveness of care rendered. The audits may be conducted on a scheduled or unscheduled (unannounced) basis. This right to audit/review includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Examination of fiscal and all other records of OTPs which would confirm compliance with the participation agreement and designation as an authorized TRICARE provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Conducting such audits of OTPs' records including clinical, financial, and census records, as may be necessary to determine the nature of the services being provided, and the basis for charges and claims against the United States for services provided TRICARE beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Examining reports of evaluations and inspections conducted by federal, state and local government, and private agencies and organizations.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Other requirements applicable to OTPs.</I> (<I>1</I>) Even though OTPs may qualify as a TRICARE authorized provider and may have entered into a participation agreement with CHAMPUS, payment by CHAMPUS for particular services provided is contingent upon OTPs also meeting all conditions set forth in § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) OTPs may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries in any manner, including admission practices or provisions of special or limited treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) OTPs shall assure that all certifications and information provided to the Director incident to the process of obtaining and retaining authorized provider status is accurate and that is has no material errors or omissions. In the case of any misrepresentations, whether by inaccurate information being provided or material facts withheld, authorized provider status will be denied or terminated, and OTPs will be ineligible for consideration for authorized provider status for a two year period.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility (IRF).</I> IRFs must meet all the criteria for classification as an IRF under 42 CFR part 412, subpart B, and meet all applicable requirements established in this part in order to be considered an authorized IRF under the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(A) In order for the services of inpatient rehabilitation facilities to be covered, the facility must comply with the provisions outlined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. In addition, in order for services provided by these facilities to be covered by TRICARE, they must be primarily for the treatment of the presenting illness.
</P>
<P>(B) Custodial or domiciliary care is not coverable under TRICARE, even if rendered in an otherwise authorized inpatient rehabilitation facility.
</P>
<P>(C) The controlling factor in determining whether a beneficiary's stay in an inpatient rehabilitation facility is coverable by TRICARE is the level of professional care, supervision, and skilled nursing care that the beneficiary requires, in addition to the diagnosis, type of condition, or degree of functional limitations. The type and level of medical services required or rendered is controlling for purposes of extending TRICARE benefits; not the type of provider or condition of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(xxi) <I>Freestanding End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) facilities.</I> Freestanding ESRD facilities must be Medicare certified and meet all Medicare conditions for coverage as provided in 42 CFR part 494, and be classified as freestanding ESRD facilities by Medicare, in order to be approved as TRICARE-authorized institutional providers and receive payment under the TRICARE program. State licensing are not required in cases of a freestanding ESRD facility located in a State that does not license such facilities. Freestanding ESRD facilities are not hospital-affiliated nor hospital-based and are reimbursed based on the payment methodology established in § 199.14(c). Freestanding ESRD facilities render outpatient hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis services in the ESRD facility or in a patient's home for the treatment of ESRD and acute kidney injury (AKI).






























</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual professional providers of care</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Purpose.</I> This individual professional provider class is established to accommodate individuals who are recognized by 10 U.S.C. 1079(a) as authorized to assess or diagnose illness, injury, or bodily malfunction as a prerequisite for CHAMPUS cost-share of otherwise allowable related preventive or treatment services or supplies, and to accommodate such other qualified individuals who the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may authorize to render otherwise allowable services essential to the efficient implementation of a plan-of-care established and managed by a 10 U.S.C. 1079(a) authorized professional.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Professional corporation affiliation or association membership permitted.</I> Paragraph (c) of this section applies to those individual health care professionals who have formed a professional corporation or association pursuant to applicable state laws. Such a professional corporation or association may file claims on behalf of a CHAMPUS-authorized individual professional provider and be the payee for any payment resulting from such claims when the CHAMPUS-authorized individual certifies to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, in writing that the professional corporation or association is acting on the authorized individual's behalf.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Scope of practice limitation.</I> For CHAMPUS cost-sharing to be authorized, otherwise allowable services provided by a CHAMPUS-authorized individual professional provider shall be within the scope of the individual's license as regulated by the applicable state practice act of the state where the individual rendered the service to the CHAMPUS beneficiary or shall be within the scope of the test which was the basis for the individual's qualifying certification.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employee status exclusion.</I> An individual employed directly, or indirectly by contract, by an individual or entity to render professional services otherwise allowable by this part is excluded from provider status as established by this paragraph (c) for the duration of each employment.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Training status exclusion.</I> Individual health care professionals who are allowed to render health care services only under direct and ongoing supervision as training to be credited towards earning a clinical academic degree or other clinical credential required for the individual to practice independently are excluded from provider status as established by this paragraph (c) for the duration of such training.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of authorization</I>—(i) <I>Professional license requirement.</I> The individual must be currently licensed to render professional health care services in each state in which the individual renders services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. Such license is required when a specific state provides, but does not require, license for a specific category of individual professional provider. The license must be at full clinical practice level to meet this requirement. A temporary license at the full clinical practice level is acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Professional certification requirement.</I> When a state does not license a specific category of individual professional, certification by a Qualified Accreditation Organization, as defined in § 199.2, is required. Certification must be at full clinical practice level. A temporary certification at the full clinical practice level is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Education, training and experience requirement.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may establish for each category or type of provider allowed by this paragraph (c) specific education, training, and experience requirements as necessary to promote the delivery of services by fully qualified individuals.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Physician referral and supervision.</I> When physician referral and supervision is a prerequisite for CHAMPUS cost-sharing of the services of a provider authorized under this paragraph (c), such referral and supervision means that the physicians must actually see the patient to evaluate and diagnose the condition to be treated prior to referring the beneficiary to another provider and that the referring physician provides ongoing oversight of the course of referral related treatment throughout the period during which the beneficiary is being treated in response to the referral. Written contemporaneous documentation of the referring physician's basis for referral and ongoing communication between the referring and treating provider regarding the oversight of the treatment rendered as a result of the referral must meet all requirements for medical records established by this part. Referring physician supervision does not require physical location on the premises of the treating provider or at the site of treatment.
</P>
<P>(v) Subject to section 1079(a) of title 10, U.S.C., chapter 55, a physician or other health care practitioner who is eligible to receive reimbursement for services provided under Medicare (as defined in section 1086(d)(3)(C) of title 10 U.S.C., chapter 55) shall be considered approved to provide medical care authorized under section 1079 and section 1086 of title 10, U.S.C., chapter 55 unless the administering Secretaries have information indicating Medicare, TRICARE, or other Federal health care program integrity violations by the physician or other health care practitioner. Approval is limited to those classes of provider currently considered TRICARE authorized providers as outlined in 32 CFR 199.6. Services and supplies rendered by those providers who are not currently considered authorized providers shall be denied.












</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of providers.</I> Subject to the standards of participation provisions of this part, the following individual professional providers of medical care are authorized to provide services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Physicians.</I> (A) Doctors of Medicine (M.D.).
</P>
<P>(B) Doctors of Osteopathy (D.O.).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dentists.</I> Except for covered oral surgery as specified in § 199.4(e) of this part, all otherwise covered services rendered by dentists require preauthorization. 
</P>
<P>(A) Doctors of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.). 
</P>
<P>(B) Doctors of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.). 












</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other allied health professionals.</I> The services of the following individual professional providers of care are coverable on a fee-for-service basis provided such services are otherwise authorized in this or other sections of this part. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Clinical psychologist.</I> For purposes of CHAMPUS, a clinical psychologist is an individual who is licensed or certified by the state for the independent practice of psychology and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Possesses a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has had 2 years of supervised clinical experience in psychological health services of which at least 1 year is post-doctoral and 1 year (may be the post-doctoral year) is in an organized psychological health service training program; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) As an alternative to paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section is listed in the National Register of Health Service Providers in Psychology.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Doctors of Optometry.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Doctors of Podiatric Medicine or Podiatrists.</I>
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Certified nurse midwives.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A certified nurse midwife may provide covered care independent of physician referral and supervision, provided the nurse midwife is: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Licensed, when required, by the local licensing agency for the jurisdiction in which the care is provided; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Certified by the American College of Nurse Midwives. To receive certification, a candidate must be a registered nurse who has completed successfully an educational program approved by the American College of Nurse Midwives, and passed the American College of Nurse Midwives National Certification Examination. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The services of a registered nurse who is not a certified nurse midwife may be authorized only when the patient has been referred for care by a licensed physician and a licensed physician provides continuing supervision of the course of care. A lay midwife who is neither a certified nurse midwife nor a registered nurse is not a CHAMPUS-authorized provider, regardless of whether the services rendered may otherwise be covered. 
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Certified nurse practitioner.</I> Within the scope of applicable licensure or certification requirements, a certified nurse practitioner may provide covered care independent of physician referral and supervision, provided the nurse practitioner is: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A licensed, registered nurse; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Specifically licensed or certified as a nurse practitioner by the state in which the care was provided, if the state offers such specific licensure or certification; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Certified as a nurse practitioner (certified nurse) by a professional organization offering certification in the specialty of practice, if the state does not offer specific licensure or certification for nurse practitioners. 
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Certified Clinical Social Worker.</I> A clinical social worker may provide covered services independent of physician referral and supervision, provided the clinical social worker:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is licensed or certified as a clinical social worker by the jurisdiction where practicing; or, if the jurisdiction does not provide for licensure or certification of clinical social workers, is certified by a national professional organization offering certification of clinical social workers; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has at least a master's degree in social work from a graduate school of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work Education; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has had a minimum of 2 years or 3,000 hours of post-master's degree supervised clinical social work practice under the supervision of a master's level social worker in an appropriate clinical setting, as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Patients' organic medical problems must receive appropriate concurrent management by a physician.</P></NOTE>
<P>(G) <I>Certified psychiatric nurse specialist.</I> A certified psychiatric nurse specialist may provide covered care independent of physician referral and supervision. For purposes of CHAMPUS, a certified psychiatric nurse specialist is an individual who:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is a licensed, registered nurse; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has at least a master's degree in nursing from a regionally accredited institution with a specialization in psychiatric and mental health nursing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has had at least 2 years of post-master's degree practice in the field of psychiatric and mental health nursing, including an average of 8 hours of direct patient contact per week; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Is listed in a CHAMPUS-recognized, professionally sanctioned listing of clinical specialists in psychiatric and mental health nursing.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Certified physician assistant.</I> A physician assistant may provide care under general supervision of a physician (see § 199.14(j)(1)(ix) of this part for limitations on reimbursement). For purposes of CHAMPUS, a physician assistant must meet the applicable state requirements governing the qualifications of physician assistants and at least one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is currently certified by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants to assist primary care physicians, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has satisfactorily completed a program for preparing physician assistants that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Was at least 1 academic year in length;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Consisted of supervised clinical practice and at least 4 months (in the aggregate) of classroom instruction directed toward preparing students to deliver health care; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Was accredited by the American Medical Association's Committee on Allied Health Education and Accreditation; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has satisfactorily completed a formal educational program for preparing program physician assistants that does not meet the requirement of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(H)(<I>2</I>) of this section and had been assisting primary care physicians for a minimum of 12 months during the 18-month period immediately preceding January 1, 1987.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Anesthesiologist Assistant.</I> An anesthesiologist assistant may provide covered anesthesia services, if the anesthesiologist assistant:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Works under the direct supervision of an anesthesiologist who bills for the services and for each patient;
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The anesthesiologist performs a pre-anesthetic examination and evaluation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The anesthesiologist prescribes the anesthesia plan;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The anesthesiologist personally participates in the most demanding aspects of the anesthesia plan including, if applicable, induction and emergence;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The anesthesiologist ensures that any procedures in the anesthesia plan that he or she does not perform are performed by a qualified anesthesiologist assistant;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The anesthesiologist monitors the course of anesthesia administration at frequent intervals;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) The anesthesiologist remains physically present and available for immediate personal diagnosis and treatment of emergencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) The anesthesiologist provides indicated post-anesthesia care; and
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) The anesthesiologist performs no other services while he or she supervises no more than four anesthesiologist assistants concurrently or a lesser number if so limited by the state in which the procedure is performed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is in compliance with all applicable requirements of state law, including any licensure requirements the state imposes on nonphysician anesthetists; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is a graduate of a Master's level anesthesiologist assistant educational program that is established under the auspices of an accredited medical school and that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Is accredited by the Committee on Allied Health Education and Accreditation, or its successor organization; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Includes approximately two years of specialized basic science and clinical education in anesthesia at a level that builds on a premedical undergraduate science background.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The Director, TMA, or a designee, shall issue TRICARE policies, instructions, procedures, guidelines, standards, and criteria as may be necessary to implement the intent of this section.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA).</I> A certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide covered care independent of physician referral and supervision as specified by state licensure. For purposes of CHAMPUS, a certified registered nurse anesthetist is an individual who:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is a licensed, registered nurse; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is certified by the Council on Certification of Nurse Anesthetists, or its successor organization.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Other individual paramedical providers.</I> (<I>1</I>) The services of the following individual professional providers of care to be considered for benefits on a fee-for-service basis may be provided only if the beneficiary is referred by a physician for the treatment of a medically diagnosed condition and a physician must also provide continuing and ongoing oversight and supervision of the program or episode of treatment provided by these individual paramedical providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Licensed registered nurses.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Audiologists.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The services of the following individual paramedical providers of care to be considered for benefits on a fee-for-service basis may be provided only if: The beneficiary is referred by a physician, certified physician assistant, certified nurse practitioner, or podiatrist; and a physician, certified physician assistant, certified nurse practitioner, or podiatrist must also provide continuing and ongoing oversight and supervision of the program or episode of treatment provided by these individual paramedical providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Licensed registered physical therapist (PT), including a licensed or certified physical therapist assistant (PTA) performing under the supervision of a TRICARE-authorized PT. PTAs shall meet the qualifications specified by Medicare (42 CFR 484.115, or successor regulation) and the Director, DHA, shall issue policy adopting, to the extent practicable, Medicare's requirements for PTA supervision.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Licensed registered occupational therapist (OT), including a licensed or certified occupational therapy assistant (OTA) performing under the supervision of a TRICARE authorized OT. OTAs shall meet the qualifications specified by Medicare (42 CFR 484.115, or successor regulation) and the Director, DHA, shall issue policy adopting, to the extent practicable, Medicare's requirements for OTA supervision.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Licensed registered speech therapists (speech pathologists). In order to be considered for benefits on a fee-for-service basis, the services of a licensed registered speech therapist as an individual paramedical provider of care may be provided only if: (1) The beneficiary is referred by a physician, a certified physician assistant, or a certified nurse practitioner; and (2) a physician, a certified physician assistant, or a certified nurse practitioner must also provide continuing and ongoing oversight and supervision of the program or episode of treatment provided by these individual paramedical providers.
</P>
<P>(L) <I>Nutritionist.</I> The nutritionist must be licensed by the State in which the care is provided and must be under the supervision of a physician who is overseeing the episode of treatment or the covered program of services.
</P>
<P>(M) <I>Registered dietician.</I> The dietician must be licensed by the State in which the care is provided and must be under the supervision of a physician who is overseeing the episode of treatment or the covered program of services.
</P>
<P>(N) <I>TRICARE certified mental health counselor.</I> For the purposes of CHAMPUS, a TRICARE certified mental health counselor (TCMHC) must be licensed for independent practice in mental health counseling by the jurisdiction where practicing. In jurisdictions with two or more licenses allowing for differing scopes of independent practice, the licensed mental health counselor may only practice within the scope of the license he or she possesses. In addition, a TCMHC must meet the requirements of either paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(N)(<I>1</I>) or the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(N)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The requirements of this paragraph are that the TCMHC:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Must have passed the National Clinical Mental Health Counselor Examination (NCMHCE) or its successor as determined by the Director, TMA; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Must possess a master's or higher-level degree from a mental health counseling program of education and training accredited by the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs (CACREP); and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Must have a minimum of two (2) years of post-master's degree supervised mental health counseling practice which includes a minimum of 3,000 hours of supervised clinical practice and 100 hours of face-to-face supervision. Supervision must be provided by mental health counselors at the highest level of state licensure, psychiatrists, clinical psychologists, certified clinical social workers, or certified psychiatric nurse specialists who are licensed for independent practice in the jurisdiction where practicing and who are practicing within the scope of their licenses. Supervised clinical practice must be received in a manner that is consistent with the guidelines regarding knowledge, skills, and practice standards for supervision of the American Mental Health Counselors Association; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Is licensed or certified for independent practice in mental health counseling by the jurisdiction where practicing (see paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section for more specific information).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The requirements of this paragraph are that the TCMHC, prior to January 1, 2017:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Possess a master's or higher-level degree from a mental health counseling program of education and training accredited by CACREP and must have passed the National Counselor Examination (NCE); or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Possess a master's or higher-level degree from a mental health counseling program of education and training from either a CACREP or regionally accredited institution and have passed the NCMHCE; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Must have a minimum of two (2) years of post-master's degree supervised mental health counseling practice which includes a minimum of 3,000 hours of supervised clinical practice and 100 hours of face-to-face supervision. Supervision must be provided by mental health counselors at the highest level of state licensure, psychiatrists, clinical psychologists, certified clinical social workers, or certified psychiatric nurse specialists who are licensed for independent practice in the jurisdiction where practicing and who are practicing within the scope of their licenses. Supervised clinical practice must be received in a manner that is consistent with the guidelines regarding knowledge, skills, and practice standards for supervision of the American Mental Health Counselors Association; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Is licensed or certified for independent practice in mental health counseling by the jurisdiction where practicing (see paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section for more specific information).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Director, TRICARE Management Activity may amend or modify existing or specify additional certification requirements as needed to accommodate future practice and licensing standards and to ensure that all TCMHCs continue to meet educational, licensing, and clinical training requirements considered appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Extramedical individual providers.</I> Extramedical individual providers are those who do counseling or nonmedical therapy and whose training and therapeutic concepts are outside the medical field. The services of extramedical individual professionals are coverable following the CHAMPUS determined allowable charge methodology provided such services are otherwise authorized in this or other sections of the regulation.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Certified marriage and family therapists.</I> For the purposes of CHAMPUS, a certified marriage and family therapist is an individual who meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Recognized graduate professional education with the minimum of an earned master's degree from a regionally accredited educational institution in an appropriate behavioral science field, mental health discipline; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following experience:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Either 200 hours of approved supervision in the practice of marriage and family counseling, ordinarily to be completed in a 2- to 3-year period, of which at least 100 hours must be in individual supervision. This supervision will occur preferably with more than one supervisor and should include a continuous process of supervision with at least three cases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) 1,000 hours of clinical experience in the practice of marriage and family counseling under approved supervision, involving at least 50 different cases; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) 150 hours of approved supervision in the practice of psychotherapy, ordinarily to be completed in a 2- to 3-year period, of which at least 50 hours must be individual supervision; plus at least 50 hours of approved individual supervision in the practice of marriage and family counseling, ordinarily to be completed within a period of not less than 1 nor more than 2 years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) 750 hours of clinical experience in the practice of psychotherapy under approved supervision involving at least 30 cases; plus at least 250 hours of clinical practice in marriage and family counseling under approved supervision, involving at least 20 cases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is licensed or certified to practice as a marriage and family therapist by the jurisdiction where practicing (see paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(D) of this section for more specific information regarding licensure); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Agrees that a patients' organic medical problems must receive appropriate concurrent management by a physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Agrees to accept the CHAMPUS determined allowable charge as payment in full, except for applicable deductibles and cost-shares, and hold CHAMPUS beneficiaries harmless for noncovered care (i.e., may not bill a beneficiary for noncovered care, and may not balance bill a beneficiary for amounts above the allowable charge). The certified marriage and family therapist must enter into a participation agreement with the Office of CHAMPUS within which the certified marriage and family therapist agrees to all provisions specified above.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) As of the effective date of termination, the certified marriage and family therapist will no longer be recognized as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS. Subsequent to termination, the certified marriage and family therapist may only be reinstated as an authorized CHAMPUS extramedical provider by entering into a new participation agreement as a certified marriage and family therapist.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Pastoral counselors.</I> For the purposes of CHAMPUS, a pastoral counselor is an individual who meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Recognized graduate professional education with the minimum of an earned master's degree from a regionally accredited educational institution in an appropriate behavioral science field, mental health discipline; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following experience:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Either 200 hours of approved supervision in the practice of pastoral counseling, ordinarily to be completed in a 2- to 3-year period, of which at least 100 hours must be in individual supervision. This supervision will occur preferably with more than one supervisor and should include a continuous process of supervision with at least three cases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) 1,000 hours of clinical experience in the practice of pastoral counseling under approved supervision, involving at least 50 different cases; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) 150 hours of approved supervision in the practice of psychotherapy, ordinarily to be completed in a 2- to 3-year period, of which at least 50 hours must be individual supervision; plus at least 50 hours of approved individual supervision in the practice of pastoral counseling, ordinarily to be completed within a period of not less than 1 nor more than 2 years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) 750 hours of clinical experience in the practice of psychotherapy under approved supervision involving at least 30 cases; plus at least 250 hours of clinical practice in pastoral counseling under approved supervision, involving at least 20 cases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is licensed or certified to practice as a pastoral counselor by the jurisdiction where practicing (see paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(D) of this section for more specific information regarding licensure); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The services of a pastoral counselor meeting the above requirements are coverable following the CHAMPUS determined allowable charge methodology, under the following specified conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The CHAMPUS beneficiary must be referred for therapy by a physician; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A physician is providing ongoing oversight and supervision of the therapy being provided; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The pastoral counselor must certify on each claim for reimbursement that a written communication has been made or will be made to the referring physician of the results of the treatment. Such communication will be made at the end of the treatment, or more frequently, as required by the referring physician (refer to § 199.7).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Because of the similarity of the requirements for licensure, certification, experience, and education, a pastoral counselor may elect to be authorized under CHAMPUS as a certified marriage and family therapist, and as such, be subject to all previously defined criteria for the certified marriage and family therapist category, to include acceptance of the CHAMPUS determined allowable charge as payment in full, except for applicable deductibles and cost-shares (i.e., balance billing of a beneficiary above the allowable charge is prohibited; may not bill beneficiary for noncovered care). The pastoral counselor must also agree to enter into the same participation agreement as a certified marriage and family therapist with the Office of CHAMPUS within which the pastoral counselor agrees to all provisions including licensure, national association membership and conditions upon termination, outlined above for certified marriage and family therapist.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>No dual status will be recognized by the Office of CHAMPUS. Pastoral counselors must elect to become one of the categories of extramedical CHAMPUS provides specified above. Once authorized as either a pastoral counselor, or a certified marriage and family therapist, claims review and reimbursement will be in accordance with the criteria established for the elected provider category.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) <I>Supervised mental health counselor.</I> For the purposes of TRICARE, a supervised mental health counselor is an individual who does not meet the requirements of a TRICARE certified mental health counselor in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(N) of this section, but meets all of the following requirements and conditions of practice:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Minimum of a master's degree in mental health counseling or allied mental health field from a regionally accredited institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Two years of post-masters experience which includes 3,000 hours of clinical work and 100 hours of face-to-face supervision; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is licensed or certified to practice as a mental health counselor by the jurisdiction where practicing (see paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(D) of this section for more specific information); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) May only be reimbursed when:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The TRICARE beneficiary is referred for therapy by a physician; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A physician is providing ongoing oversight and supervision of the therapy being provided; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The mental health counselor certifies on each claim for reimbursement that a written communication has been made or will be made to the referring physician of the results of the treatment. Such communication will be made at the end of the treatment, or more frequently, as required by the referring physician (refer to § 199.7).
</P>
<P>(D) The following additional information applies to each of the above categories of extramedical individual providers:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) These providers must also be licensed or certified to practice as a certified marriage and family therapist, pastoral counselor or mental health counselor by the jurisdiction where practicing. In jurisdictions that do not provide for licensure or certification, the provider must be certified by or eligible for full clinical membership in the appropriate national professional association that sets standards for the specific profession.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Grace period for therapists or counselors in states where licensure/certification is optional. CHAMPUS is providing a grace period for those therapists or counselors who did not obtain optional licensure/certification in their jurisdiction, not realizing it was a CHAMPUS requirement for authorization. The exemption by state law for pastoral counselors may have misled this group into thinking licensure was not required. The same situation may have occurred with the other therapist or counselor categories where licensure was either not mandated by the state or was provided under a more general category such as “professional counselors.” This grace period pertains only to the licensure/certification requirement, applies only to therapists or counselors who are already approved as of October 29, 1990, and only in those areas where the licensure/certification is optional. Any therapist or counselor who is not licensed/certified in the state in which he/she is practicing by August 1, 1991, will be terminated under the provisions of § 199.9. This grace period does not change any of the other existing requirements which remain in effect. During this grace period, membership or proof of eligibility for full clinical membership in a recognized professional association is required for those therapists or counselors who are not licensed or certified by the state. The following organizations are recognized for therapists or counselors at the level indicated: Full clinical member of the American Association of Marriage and Family Therapy; membership at the fellow or diplomate level of the American Association of Pastoral Counselors; and membership in the National Academy of Certified Clinical Mental Health Counselors. Acceptable proof of eligibility for membership is a letter from the appropriate certifying organization. This opportunity for delayed certification/licensure is limited to the counselor or therapist category only as the language in all of the other provider categories has been consistent and unmodified from the time each of the other provider categories were added. The grace period does not apply in those states where licensure is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Christian Science practitioners and Christian Science nurses.</I> CHAMPUS cost-shares the services of Christian Science practitioners and nurses. In order to bill as such, practitioners or nurses must be listed or be eligible for listing in the Christian Science Journal 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> at the time the service is provided.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of this journal can be obtained through the Christian Science Publishing Company, 1 Norway Street, Boston, MA 02115-3122 or the Christian Science Publishing Society, P.O. Box 11369, Des Moines, IA 50340.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Other providers.</I> Certain medical supplies and services of an ancillary or supplemental nature are coverable by CHAMPUS, subject to certain controls. This category of provider includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Independent laboratory.</I> Laboratory services of independent laboratories may be cost-shared if the laboratory is approved for participation under Medicare and certified by the Medicare Bureau, Health Care Financing Administration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Suppliers of portable x-ray services.</I> Such suppliers must meet the conditions of coverage of the Medicare program, set forth in the Medicare regulations, or the Medicaid program in that state in which the covered service is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pharmacies.</I> Pharmacies must meet the applicable requirements of state law in the state in which the pharmacy is located. In addition to being subject to the policies and procedures for authorized providers established by this section, additional policies and procedures may be established for authorized pharmacies under § 199.21 of this part implementing the Pharmacy Benefits Program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ambulance companies.</I> Such companies must meet the requirements of state and local laws in the jurisdiction in which the ambulance firm is licensed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical equipment firms, medical supply firms, and Durable Medical Equipment, Prosthetic, Orthotic, Supplies providers/suppliers.</I> Any firm, supplier, or provider that is an authorized provider under Medicare or is otherwise designated an authorized provider by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mammography suppliers.</I> Mammography services may be cost-shared only if the supplier is certified by Medicare for participation as a mammography supplier, or is certified by the American College of Radiology as having met its mammography supplier standards.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extended Care Health Option Providers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Services and items cost-shared through § 199.5 must be rendered by a CHAMPUS-authorized provider. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Program for Persons with Disabilities (PFPWD) provider with TRICARE-authorized status on the effective date for the Extended Care Health Option (ECHO) Program shall be deemed to be a TRICARE-authorized provider until the expiration of all outstanding PFPWD benefit authorizations for services or items being rendered by the provider.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ECHO provider categories</I>—(i) <I>ECHO inpatient care provider.</I> A provider of residential institutional care, which is otherwise an ECHO benefit, shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) A not-for-profit entity or a public facility; and
</P>
<P>(B) Located within a state; and
</P>
<P>(C) Be certified as eligible for Medicaid payment in accordance with a state plan for medical assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid) as a Medicaid Nursing Facility, or Intermediate Care Facility for the Mentally Retarded, or be a TRICARE-authorized institutional provider as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, or be approved by a state educational agency as a training institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ECHO outpatient care provider.</I> A provider of ECHO outpatient, ambulatory, or in-home services shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) A TRICARE-authorized provider of services as defined in this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) An individual, corporation, foundation, or public entity that predominantly renders services of a type uniquely allowable as an ECHO benefit and not otherwise allowable as a benefit of § 199.4, that meets all applicable licensing or other regulatory requirements of the state, county, municipality, or other political jurisdiction in which the ECHO service is rendered, or in the absence of such licensing or regulatory requirements, as determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ECHO vendor.</I> A provider of an allowable ECHO item, such as supplies or equipment, shall be deemed to be a TRICARE-authorized vendor for the provision of the specific item, supply or equipment when the vendor supplies such information as the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee determines necessary to adjudicate a specific claim.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>ECHO provider exclusion or suspension.</I> A provider of ECHO services or items may be excluded or suspended for a pattern of discrimination on the basis of disability. Such exclusion or suspension shall be accomplished according to the provisions of § 199.9.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate services providers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) This corporate services provider class is established to accommodate individuals who would meet the criteria for status as a CHAMPUS authorized individual professional provider as established by paragraph (c) of this section but for the fact that they are employed directly or contractually by a corporation or foundation that provides principally professional services which are within the scope of the CHAMPUS benefit. With authorization of freestanding end stage renal disease (ESRD) facilities as TRICARE institutional providers under paragraph (b)(4)(xxi) of this section, corporate service provider status will not be authorized for the provision of ESRD services. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payment for otherwise allowable services may be made to a CHAMPUS-authorized corporate services provider subject to the applicable requirements, exclusions and limitations of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may create discrete types within any allowable category of provider established by this paragraph (f) to improve the efficiency of CHAMPUS management. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may require, as a condition of authorization, that a specific category or type of provider established by this paragraph (f): 
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain certain accreditation in addition to or in lieu of the requirement of paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Cooperate fully with a designated utilization and clinical quality management organization which has a contract with the Department of Defense for the geographic area in which the provider does business; 
</P>
<P>(C) Render services for which direct or indirect payment is expected to be made by CHAMPUS only after obtaining CHAMPUS written authorization; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Maintain Medicare approval for payment when the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, determines that a category, or type, of provider established by this paragraph (f) is substantially comparable to a provider or supplier for which Medicare has regulatory conditions of participation or conditions of coverage.
</P>
<P>(v) Otherwise allowable services may be rendered at the authorized corporate services provider's place of business, or in the beneficiary's home under such circumstances as the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, determines to be necessary for the efficient delivery of such in-home services. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may limit the term of a participation agreement for any category or type of provider established by this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(vii) Corporate services providers shall be assigned to only one of the following allowable categories based upon the predominate type of procedure rendered by the organization; 
</P>
<P>(A) Medical treatment procedures; 
</P>
<P>(B) Surgical treatment procedures; 
</P>
<P>(C) Maternity management procedures;
</P>
<P>(D) Rehabilitation and/or habilitation procedures; or
</P>
<P>(E) Diagnostic technical procedures.
</P>
<P>(viii) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, shall determine the appropriate procedural category of a qualified organization and may change the category based upon the provider's CHAMPUS claim characteristics. The category determination of the Director, OCHAMPUS, designee, is conclusive and may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of authorization.</I> An applicant must meet the following conditions to be eligible for authorization as a CHAMPUS corporate services provider:
</P>
<P>(i) Be a corporation or a foundation, but not a professional corporation or professional association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be institution-affiliated or freestanding as defined in § 199.2; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide:
</P>
<P>(A) Services and related supplies of a type rendered by CHAMPUS individual professional providers or diagnostic technical services and related supplies of a type which requires direct patient contact and a technologist who is licensed by the state in which the procedure is rendered or who is certified by a Qualified Accreditation Organization as defined in § 199.2; and
</P>
<P>(B) A level of care which does not necessitate that the beneficiary be provided with on-site sleeping accommodations and food in conjunction with the delivery of services; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Complies with all applicable organizational and individual licensing or certification requirements that are extant in the state, county, municipality, or other political jurisdiction in which the provider renders services; and
</P>
<P>(v) Be approved for Medicare payment when determined to be substantially comparable under the provisions of paragraph (f)(1)(iv)(D) of this section or, when Medicare approved status is not required, be accredited by a qualified accreditation organization, as defined in § 199.2; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Has entered into a participation agreement approved by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, which at least complies with the minimum participation agreement requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transfer of participation agreement.</I> In order to provide continuity of care for beneficiaries when there is a change of provider ownership, the provider agreement is automatically assigned to the new owner, subject to all the terms and conditions under which the original agreement was made.
</P>
<P>(i) The merger of the provider corporation or foundation into another corporation or foundation, or the consolidation of two or more corporations or foundations resulting in the creation of a new corporation or foundation, constitutes a change of ownership.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transfer of corporate stock or the merger of another corporation or foundation into the provider corporation or foundation does not constitute change of ownership.
</P>
<P>(iii) The surviving corporation or foundation shall notify the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, in writing of the change of ownership promptly after the effective date of the transfer or change in ownership.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pricing and payment methodology:</I> The pricing and payment of procedures rendered by a provider authorized under this paragraph (f) shall be limited to those methods for pricing and payment allowed by this part which the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, determines contribute to the efficient management of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Termination of participation agreement.</I> A provider may terminate a participation agreement upon 45 days written notice to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, and to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 199.6, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.7   Claims submission, review, and payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is responsible for ensuring that benefits under CHAMPUS are paid only to the extent described in this part. Before benefits can be paid, an appropriate claim must be submitted that includes sufficient information as to beneficiary identification, the medical services and supplies provided, and double coverage information, to permit proper, accurate, and timely adjudication of the claim by the CHAMPUS contractor or OCHAMPUS. Providers must be able to document that the care or service shown on the claim was rendered. This section sets forth minimum medical record requirements for verification of services. Subject to such definitions, conditions, limitations, exclusions, and requirements as may be set forth in this part, the following are the CHAMPUS claim filing requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CHAMPUS identification card required.</I> A patient shall present his or her applicable CHAMPUS identification card (that is, Uniformed Services identification card) to the authorized provider of care that identifies the patient as an eligible CHAMPUS beneficiary (refer to § 199.3 of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claim required.</I> No benefit may be extended under the Basic Program or Extended Care Health Option (ECHO) without submission of an appropriate, complete and properly executed claim form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Responsibility for perfecting claim.</I> It is the responsibility of the CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor or the authorized provider acting on behalf of the CHAMPUS beneficiary to perfect a claim for submission to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary. Neither a CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary nor OCHAMPUS is authorized to prepare a claim on behalf of a CHAMPUS beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Obtaining appropriate claim form.</I> CHAMPUS provides specific CHAMPUS forms appropriate for making a claim for benefits for various types of medical services and supplies (such as hospital, physician, or prescription drugs). Claim forms may be obtained from the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary who processes claims for the beneficiary's state of residence, from the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or from CHAMPUS health benefits advisors (HBAs) located at all Uniformed Services medical facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prepayment not required.</I> A CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor is not required to pay for the medical services or supplies before submitting a claim for benefits.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Deductible certificate.</I> If the calendar year outpatient deductible, as defined in § 199.4(f)(2) has been met by a beneficiary or a family through the submission of a claim or claims to a CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary in a geographic location different from the location where a current claim is being submitted, the beneficiary or sponsor must obtain a deductible certificate from the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary where the applicable individual or family calendar year deductible was met. Such deductible certificate must be attached to the current claim being submitted for benefits. Failure to obtain a deductible certificate under such circumstances will result in a second individual or family calendar year deductible being applied. However, this second deductible may be reimbursed once appropriate documentation, as described in this paragraph is supplied to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary applying the second deductible (refer to § 199.4 (f)(2)(i)(F)).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nonavailability Statement (DD Form 1251).</I> In some geographic locations or under certain circumstances, it is necessary for a CHAMPUS beneficiary to determine whether the required medical care can be provided through a Uniformed Services facility. If the required medical care cannot be provided by the Uniformed Services facility, a Nonavailability Statement will be issued. When required (except for emergencies), this Nonavailability Statement must be issued before medical care is obtained from civilian sources. Failure to secure such a statement will waive the beneficiary's rights to benefits under CHAMPUS, subject to appeal to the appropriate hospital commander (or higher medical authority).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Rules applicable to issuance of Nonavailability Statement.</I> Appropriate policy guidance may be issued as necessary to prescribe the conditions for issuance and use of a Nonavailability Statement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Beneficiary responsibility.</I> The beneficiary shall ascertain whether or not he or she resides in a geographic area that requires obtaining a Nonavailability Statement. Information concerning current rules may be obtained from the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary concerned, a CHAMPUS HBA or the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rules in effect at time civilian care is provided apply.</I> The applicable rules regarding Nonavailability Statements in effect at the time the civilian care is rendered apply in determining whether a Nonavailability Statement is required. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nonavailability Statement must be filed with applicable claim.</I> When a claim is submitted for CHAMPUS benefits that includes services for which a Nonavailability Statement is required, such statement must be submitted along with the claim form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information required to adjudicate a CHAMPUS claim.</I> Claims received that are not completed fully and that do not provide the following minimum information may be returned. If enough space is not available on the appropriate claim form, the required information must be attached separately and include the patient's name and address, be dated, and signed. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient's identification information.</I> The following patient identification information must be completed on every CHAMPUS claim form submitted for benefits before a claim will be adjudicated and processed: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Patient's full name.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patient's residence address.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Patient's date of birth.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Patient's relationship to sponsor.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If name of patient is different from sponsor, explain (for example, stepchild or illegitimate child).</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) <I>Patient's identification number (from DD Form 1173).</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Patient's identification card effective date and expiration date (from DD Form 1173).</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Sponsor's full name.</I>
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Sponsor's service or social security number.</I>
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Sponsor's grade.</I>
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Sponsor's organization and duty station.</I> Home port for ships; home address for retiree.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Sponsor's branch of service or deceased or retiree's former branch of service.</I>
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Sponsor's current status.</I> Active duty, retired, or deceased.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Patient treatment information.</I> The following patient treatment information routinely is required relative to the medical services and supplies for which a claim for benefits is being made before a claim will be adjudicated and processed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Diagnosis.</I> All applicable diagnoses are required; standard nomenclature is acceptable. In the absence of a diagnosis, a narrative description of the definitive set of symptoms for which the medical care was rendered must be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Source of care.</I> Full name of source of care (such as hospital or physician) providing the specific medical services being claimed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Full address of source of care.</I> This address must be where the care actually was provided, not a billing address.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Attending physician.</I> Name of attending physician (or other authorized individual professional provider).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Referring physician.</I> Name and address of ordering, prescribing, or referring physician.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Status of patient.</I> Status of patient at the time the medical services and supplies were rendered (that is, inpatient or outpatient).
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Dates of service.</I> Specific and inclusive dates of service. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Inpatient stay.</I> Source and dates of related inpatient stay (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Physicians or other authorized individual professional providers.</I> The claims must give the name of the individual actually rendering the care, along with the individual's professional status (e.g., M.D., Ph.D., R.N., etc.) and provider number, if the individual signing the claim is not the provider who actually rendered the service. The following information must also be included: 
</P>
<P>(A) Date each service was rendered. 
</P>
<P>(B) Procedure code or narrative description of each procedure or service for each date of service.
</P>
<P>(C) Individual charge for each item of service or each supply for each date.
</P>
<P>(D) Detailed description of any unusual complicating circumstances related to the medical care provided that the physician or other individual professional provider may choose to submit separately.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Hospitals or other authorized institutional providers.</I> For care provided by hospitals (or other authorized institutional providers), the following information also must be provided before a claim will be adjudicated and processed:
</P>
<P>(A) An itemized billing showing each item of service or supply provided for each day covered by the claim.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may approve, in writing, an alternative billing procedure for RTCs or other special institutions, in which case the itemized billing requirement may be waived. The particular facility will be aware of such approved alternate billing procedure.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Any absences from a hospital or other authorized institution during a period for which inpatient benefits are being claimed must be identified specifically as to date or dates and provide details on the purpose of the absence. Failure to provide such information will result in denial of benefits and, in an ongoing case, termination of benefits for the inpatient stay at least back to the date of the absence.
</P>
<P>(C) For hospitals subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system (see paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(D) of § 199.14), the following information is also required:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The principal diagnosis (the diagnosis established, after study, to be chiefly responsible for causing the patient's admission to the hospital).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All secondary diagnoses.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) All significant procedures performed.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The discharge status of the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The hospital's Medicare provider number.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The source of the admission.
</P>
<P>(D) Claims submitted by hospitals (or other authorized institutional providers) must include the name of the individual actually rendering the care, along with the individual's professional status (e.g., M.D., Ph.D., R.N., etc.). 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Prescription drugs and medicines (and insulin).</I> For prescription drugs and medicines (and insulin, whether or not a prescription is required) receipted bills must be attached and the following additional information provided:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of drug.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When the physician or pharmacist so requests, the name of the drugs may be submitted to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary directly by the physician or pharmacist.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Strength of drug.
</P>
<P>(C) Name and address of pharmacy where drug was purchased.
</P>
<P>(D) Prescription number of drug being claimed.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Other authorized providers.</I> For items from other authorized providers (such as medical supplies), an explanation as to the medical need must be attached to the appropriate claim form. For purchases of durable equipment under the ECHO it is necessary also to attach a copy of the authorization.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Nonparticipating providers.</I> When the beneficiary or sponsor submits the claim to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary (that is, the provider elects not to participate), an itemized bill from the provider to the beneficiary or sponsor must be attached to the CHAMPUS claim form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical records/medical documentation.</I> Medical records are of vital importance in the care and treatment of the patient. Medical records serve as a basis for planning of patient care and for the ongoing evaluation of the patient's treatment and progress. Accurate and timely completion of orders, notes, etc., enable different members of a health care team and subsequent health care providers to have access to relevant data concerning the patient. Appropriate medical records must be maintained in order to accommodate utilization review and to substantiate that billed services were actually rendered. 
</P>
<P>(i) All care rendered and billed must be appropriately documented in writing. Failure to document the care billed will result in the claim or specific services on the claim being denied CHAMPUS cost-sharing. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A pattern of failure to adequately document medical care will result in episodes of care being denied CHAMPUS cost-sharing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Cursory notes of a generalized nature that do not identify the specific treatment and the patient's response to the treatment are not acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The documentation of medical records must be legible and prepared as soon as possible after the care is rendered. Entries should be made when the treatment described is given or the observations to be documented are made. The following are documentation requirements and specific time frames for entry into the medical records: 
</P>
<P>(A) General requirements for acute medical/surgical services: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Admission evaluation report within 24 hours of admission. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Completed history and physical examination report within 72 hours of admission. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Registered nursing notes at the end of each shift.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Daily physician notes. 
</P>
<P>(B) Requirements specific to mental health services: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Psychiatric admission evaluation report within 24 hours of admission. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) History and physical examination within 24 hours of admission; complete report documented within 72 hours for acute and residential programs and within 3 working days for partial programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Individual and family therapy notes within 24 hours of procedure for acute, detoxification and Residential Treatment Center (RTC) programs and within 48 hours for partial programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Preliminary treatment plan within 24 hours of admission. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Master treatment plan within 5 calendar days of admission for acute care, 10 days for RTC care, 5 days for full-day partial programs and within 7 days for half-day partial programs.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Family assessment report within 72 hours of admission for acute care and 7 days for RTC and partial programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Nursing assessment report within 24 hours of admission. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Nursing notes at the end of each shift for acute and detoxification programs; every ten visits for partial hospitalization; and at least once a week for RTCs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Daily physician notes for intensive treatment, detoxification, and rapid stabilization programs; twice per week for acute programs; and once per week for RTC and partial programs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Group therapy notes once per week. 
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Ancillary service notes once per week. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A pattern of failure to meet the above criteria may result in provider sanctions prescribed under § 199.9.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Double coverage information.</I> When the CHAMPUS beneficiary is eligible for medical benefits coverage through another plan, insurance, or program, either private or Government, the following information must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Name of other coverage.</I> Full name and address of double coverage plan, insurance, or program (such as Blue Cross, Medicare, commercial insurance, and state program).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Source of double coverage.</I> Source of double coverage (such as employment, including retirement, private purchase, membership in a group, and law).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Employer information.</I> If source of double coverage is employment, give name and address of employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Identification number.</I> Identification number or group number of other coverage.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Right to additional information.</I> (i) As a condition precedent to the cost-sharing of benefits under this part or pursuant to a review or audit, whether the review or audit is prospective, concurrent, or retroactive, OCHAMPUS or CHAMPUS contractors may request, and shall be entitled to receive, information from a physician or hospital or other person, institution, or organization (including a local, state, or Federal Government agency) providing services or supplies to the beneficiary for whom claims or requests for approval for benefits are submitted. Such information and records may relate to the attendance, testing, monitoring, examination, diagnosis, treatment, or services and supplies furnished to a beneficiary and, as such, shall be necessary for the accurate and efficient administration of CHAMPUS benefits. This may include requests for copies of all medical records or documentation related to the episode of care. In addition, before a determination on a request for preauthorization or claim of benefits is made, a beneficiary, or sponsor, shall provide additional information relevant to the requested determination, when necessary. The recipient of such information shall hold such records confidential except when: 
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of such information is authorized specifically by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure is necessary to permit authorized governmental officials to investigate and prosecute criminal actions; or
</P>
<P>(C) Disclosure is authorized or required specifically under the terms of DoD Directive 5400.7 and 5400.11, the Freedom of Information Act, and the Privacy Act (refer to paragraph (m) of § 199.1 of this part).
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of determining the applicability of and implementing the provisions of §§ 199.8 and 199.9, or any provision of similar purpose of any other medical benefits coverage or entitlement, OCHAMPUS or CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries, without consent or notice to any beneficiary or sponsor, may release to or obtain from any insurance company or other organization, governmental agency, provider, or person, any information with respect to any beneficiary when such release constitutes a routine use duly published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with the Privacy Act. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Before a beneficiary's claim of benefits is adjudicated, the beneficiary or the provider(s) must furnish to CHAMPUS that information which is necessary to make the benefit determination. Failure to provide the requested information will result in denial of the claim. A beneficiary, by submitting a CHAMPUS claim(s) (either a participating or nonparticipating claim), is deemed to have given consent to the release of any and all medical records or documentation pertaining to the claims and the episode of care. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signature on CHAMPUS Claim Form</I>—(1) <I>Beneficiary signature.</I> CHAMPUS claim forms must be signed by the beneficiary except under the conditions identified in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section. The parent or guardian may sign for any beneficiary under 18 years.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification of identity.</I> This signature certifies that the patient identification information provided is correct.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certification of medical care provided.</I> This signature certifies that the specific medical care for which benefits are being claimed actually were rendered to the beneficiary on the dates indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Authorization to obtain or release information.</I> Before requesting additional information necessary to process a claim or releasing medical information, the signature of the beneficiary who is 18 years old or older must be recorded on or obtained on the CHAMPUS claim form or on a separate release form. The signature of the beneficiary, parent, or guardian will be requested when the beneficiary is under 18 years.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the care was rendered to a minor and a custodial parent or legal guardian requests information prior to the minor turning 18 years of age, medical records may still be released pursuant to the signature of the parent or guardian, and claims information may still be released to the parent or guardian in response to the request, even though the beneficiary has turned 18 between the time of the request and the response. However, any follow-up request or subsequent request from the parent or guardian, after the beneficiary turns 18 years of age, will necessitate the authorization of the beneficiary (or the beneficiary's legal guardian as appointed by a cognizant court), before records and information can be released to the parent or guardian.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) <I>Certification of accuracy and authorization to release double coverage information.</I> This signature certifies to the accuracy of the double coverage information and authorizes the release of any information related to double coverage. (Refer to § 199.8 of this part).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exceptions to beneficiary signature requirement.</I> (A) Except as required by paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, the signature of a spouse, parent, or guardian will be accepted on a claim submitted for a beneficiary who is 18 years old or older.
</P>
<P>(B) When the institutional provider obtains the signature of the beneficiary (or the signature of the parent or guardian when the beneficiary is under 18 years) on a CHAMPUS claim form at admission, the following participating claims may be submitted without the beneficiary's signature.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Claims for laboratory and diagnostic tests and test interpretations from radiologists, pathologists, neurologists, and cardiologists.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Claims from anesthesiologists.
</P>
<P>(C) Claims filed by providers using CHAMPUS-approved signature-on-file and claims submission procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provider's signature.</I> A participating provider (see paragraph (a)(8) of § 199.6) is required to sign the CHAMPUS claim form.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification.</I> A participating provider's signature on a CHAMPUS claim form:
</P>
<P>(A) Certifies that the specific medical care listed on the claim form was, in fact, rendered to the specific beneficiary for which benefits are being claimed, on the specific date or dates indicated, at the level indicated and by the provider signing the claim unless the claim otherwise indicates another individual provided the care. For example, if the claim is signed by a psychiatrist and the care billed was rendered by a psychologist or licensed social worker, the claim must indicate both the name and profession of the individual who rendered the care. 
</P>
<P>(B) Certifies that the provider has agreed to participate (providing this agreement has been indicated on the claim form) and that the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost will constitute the full charge or cost for the medical care listed on the specific claim form; and further agrees to accept the amount paid by CHAMPUS or the CHAMPUS payment combined with the cost-shared amount paid by, or on behalf of the beneficiary, as full payment for the covered medical services or supplies.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Thus, neither CHAMPUS nor the sponsor is responsible for any additional charges, whether or not the CHAMPUS-determined charge or cost is less than the billed amount.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any provider who signs and submits a CHAMPUS claim form and then violates this agreement by billing the beneficiary or sponsor for any difference between the CHAMPUS-determined charge or cost and the amount billed is acting in bad faith and is subject to penalties including withdrawal of CHAMPUS approval as a CHAMPUS provider by administrative action of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, and possible legal action on the part of CHAMPUS, either directly or as a part of a beneficiary action, to recover monies improperly obtained from CHAMPUS beneficiaries or sponsors (refer to § 199.6 of this part.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Physician or other authorized individual professional provider.</I> A physician or other authorized individual professional provider is liable for any signature submitted on his or her behalf. Further, a facsimile signature is not acceptable unless such facsimile signature is on file with, and has been authorized specifically by, the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary serving the state where the physician or other authorized individual professional provider practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hospital or other authorized institutional provider.</I> The provider signature on a claim form for institutional services must be that of an authorized representative of the hospital or other authorized institutional provider, whose signature is on file with and approved by the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claims filing deadline.</I> For all services provided on or after January 1, 1993, to be considered for benefits, all claims submitted for benefits must, except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, be filed with the appropriate CHAMPUS contractor no later than one year after the services are provided. Unless the requirement is waived, failure to file a claim within this deadline waives all rights to benefits for such services or supplies. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Claims returned for additional information.</I> When a claim is submitted initially within the claim filing time limit, but is returned in whole or in part for additional information to be considered for benefits, the returned claim, along with the requested information, must be resubmitted and received by the appropriate CHAMPUS contractor no later than the later of: 
</P>
<P>(i) One year after the services are provided; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 90 days from the date the claim was returned to the provider or beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception to claims filing deadline.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may grant exceptions to the claims filing deadline requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Types of exception.</I> (A) <I>Retroactive eligibility.</I> Retroactive CHAMPUS eligibility determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Administrative error.</I> Administrative error (that is, misrepresentation, mistake, or other accountable action) of an officer or employee of OCHAMPUS (including OCHAMPUSEUR) or a CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary, performing functions under CHAMPUS and acting within the scope of that official's authority.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Mental incompetency.</I> Mental incompetency of the beneficiary or guardian or sponsor, in the case of a minor child (which includes inability to communicate, even if it is the result of a physical disability).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Delays by other health insurance.</I> When not attributable to the beneficiary, delays in adjudication by other health insurance companies when double coverage coordination is required before the CHAMPUS benefit determination.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Other waiver authority.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS may waive the claims filing deadline in other circumstances in which the Director determines that the waiver is necessary in order to ensure adequate access for CHAMPUS beneficiaries to health care services. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for exception to claims filing deadline.</I> Beneficiaries who wish to request an exception to the claims filing deadline may submit such a request to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary having jurisdiction over the location in which the service was rendered, or as otherwise designated by the Director, OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(A) Such requests for an exception must include a complete explanation of the circumstances of the late filing, together with all available documentation supporting the request, and the specific claim denied for late filing. 
</P>
<P>(B) Each request for an exception to the claims filing deadline is reviewed individually and considered on its own merits.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other claims filing requirements.</I> Notwithstanding the claims filing deadline described in paragraph (d) of this section, to lessen any potential adverse impact on a CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor that could result from a retroactive denial, the following additional claims filing procedures are recommended or required.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Continuing care.</I> Except for claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, whenever medical services and supplies are being rendered on a continuing basis, an appropriate claim or claims should be submitted every 30 days (monthly) whether submitted directly by the beneficiary or sponsor or by the provider on behalf of the beneficiary. Such claims may be submitted more frequently if the beneficiary or provider so elects. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, also may require more frequent claims submission based on dollars. Examples of care that may be rendered on a continuing basis are outpatient physical therapy, private duty (special) nursing, or inpatient stays. For claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, claims may be submitted only after the beneficiary has been discharged or transferred from the hospital.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) Claims involving the services of marriage and family counselors, pastoral counselors, and supervised mental health counselors. CHAMPUS requires that marriage and family counselors, pastoral counselors, and supervised mental health counselors make a written report to the referring physician concerning the CHAMPUS beneficiary's progress. Therefore, each claim for reimbursement for services of marriage and family counselors, pastoral counselors, and supervised mental health counselors must include certification to the effect that a written communication has been made or will be made to the referring physician at the end of treatment, or more frequently, as required by the referring physician.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Preauthorization.</I> When specifically required in other sections of this part, preauthorization requires the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preauthorization must be granted before benefits can be extended.</I> In those situations requiring preauthorization, the request for such preauthorization shall be submitted and approved before benefits may be extended, except as provided in § 199.4(a)(11). If a claim for services or supplies is submitted without the required preauthorization, no benefits shall be paid, unless the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, has granted an exception to the requirement for preauthorization.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specifically preauthorized services.</I> An approved preauthorization specifies the exact services or supplies for which authorization is being given. In a preauthorization situation, benefits cannot be extended for services or supplies provided beyond the specific authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Time limit on preauthorization.</I> Approved preauthorizations are valid for specific periods of time, appropriate for the circumstances presented and specified at the time the preauthorization is approved. In general, preauthorizations are valid for 30 days. If the preauthorized service or supplies are not obtained or commenced within the specified time limit, a new preauthorization is required before benefits may be extended. For organ and stem cell transplants, the preauthorization shall remain in effect as long as the beneficiary continues to meet the specific transplant criteria set forth in the TRICARE/CHAMPUS Policy Manual, or until the approved transplant occurs. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment plan.</I> Each preauthorization request shall be accompanied by a proposed medical treatment plan (for inpatient stays under the Basic Program) which shall include generally a diagnosis; a detailed summary of complete history and physical; a detailed statement of the problem; the proposed treatment modality, including anticipated length of time the proposed modality will be required; any available test results; consultant's reports; and the prognosis. When the preauthorization request involves transfer from a hospital to another inpatient facility, medical records related to the inpatient stay also must be provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Claims for services and supplies that have been preauthorized.</I> Whenever a claim is submitted for benefits under CHAMPUS involving preauthorized services and supplies, the date of the approved preauthorization must be indicated on the claim form and a copy of the written preauthorization must be attached to the appropriate CHAMPUS claim.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advance payment prohibited.</I> No CHAMPUS payment shall be made for otherwise authorized services or items not yet rendered or delivered to the beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claims review.</I> It is the responsibility of the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary (or OCHAMPUS, including OCHAMPUSEUR) to review each CHAMPUS claim submitted for benefit consideration to ensure compliance with all applicable definitions, conditions, limitations, or exclusions specified or enumerated in this part. It is also required that before any CHAMPUS benefits may be extended, claims for medical services and supplies will be subject to utilization review and quality assurance standards, norms, and criteria issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee (see paragraph (a)(1)(v) of § 199.14 for review standards for claims subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Benefit payments.</I> CHAMPUS benefit payments are made either directly to the beneficiary or sponsor or to the provider, depending on the manner in which the CHAMPUS claim is submitted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Benefit payments made to beneficiary or sponsor.</I> When the CHAMPUS beneficiary or sponsor signs and submits a specific claim form directly to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary (or OCHAMPUS, including OCHAMPUSEUR), any CHAMPUS benefit payments due as a result of that specific claim submission will be made in the name of, and mailed to, the beneficiary or sponsor. In such circumstances, the beneficiary or sponsor is responsible to the provider for any amounts billed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit payments made to participating provider.</I> When the authorized provider elects to participate by signing a CHAMPUS claim form, indicating participation in the appropriate space on the claim form, and submitting a specific claim on behalf of the beneficiary to the appropriate CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary, any CHAMPUS benefit payments due as a result of that claim submission will be made in the name of and mailed to the participating provider. Thus, by signing the claim form, the authorized provider agrees to abide by the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost, whether or not lower than the amount billed. Therefore, the beneficiary or sponsor is responsible only for any required deductible amount and any cost-sharing portion of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost as may be required under the terms and conditions set forth in §§ 199.4 and 199.5 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CEOB.</I> When a CHAMPUS claim is adjudicated, a CEOB is sent to the beneficiary or sponsor. A copy of the CEOB also is sent to the provider if the claim was submitted on a participating basis. The CEOB form provides, at a minimum, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Name and address of provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) Services or supplies covered by claim for which CEOB applies.
</P>
<P>(iv) Dates services or supplies provided.
</P>
<P>(v) Amount billed; CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost; and amount of CHAMPUS payment.
</P>
<P>(vi) To whom payment, if any, was made.
</P>
<P>(vii) Reasons for any denial.
</P>
<P>(viii) Recourse available to beneficiary for review of claim decision (refer to § 199.10 of this part).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may authorize a CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary to waive a CEOB to protect the privacy of a CHAMPUS beneficiary.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Benefit under $1.</I> If the CHAMPUS benefit is determined to be under $1, payment is waived.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of the Active Duty Dependents Dental Plan to areas outside the United States.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA) may, under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1076a(h), extend the Active Duty Dependents Dental Plan to areas other than those areas specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for the eligible beneficiaries of members of the Uniformed Services. In extending the program outside the Continental United States, the ASD(HA), or designee, is authorized to establish program elements, methods of administration and payment rates and procedures to providers that are different from those in effect under this section in the Continental United States to the extent the ASD(HA), or designee, determines necessary for the effective and efficient operation of the plan outside the Continental United States. This includes provisions for preauthorization of care if the needed services are not available in a Uniformed Service overseas dental treatment facility and payment by the Department of certain cost-shares and other portions of a provider's billed charges. Other differences may occur based on limitations in the availability and capabilities of the Uniformed Services overseas dental treatment facility and a particular nation's civilian sector providers in certain areas. Otherwise, rules pertaining to services covered under the plan and quality of care standards for providers shall be comparable to those in effect under this section in the Continental United States and available military guidelines. In addition, all provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1076a shall remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>General assignment of benefits not recognized.</I> CHAMPUS does not recognize any general assignment of CHAMPUS benefits to another person. All CHAMPUS benefits are payable as described in this and other Sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 199.7, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.8   Double coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) In enacting TRICARE legislation, Congress clearly has intended that TRICARE be the secondary payer to all health benefit, insurance and third-party payer plans. 10 U.S.C. 1079(j)(1) specifically provides that a benefit may not be paid under a plan (CHAMPUS) covered by this section in the case of a person enrolled in, or covered by, any other insurance, medical service, or health plan, including any plan offered by a third-party payer (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 1095(h)(1)) to the extent that the benefit is also a benefit under the other plan, except in the case of a plan administered under title XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) The provision in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made applicable specifically to retired members, dependents, and survivors by 10 U.S.C. 1086(g). The underlying intent, in addition to preventing waste of Federal resources, is to ensure that TRICARE beneficiaries receive maximum benefits while ensuring that the combined payments of TRICARE and other health and insurance plans do not exceed the total charges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Double coverage plan.</I> A double coverage plan is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Insurance plan.</I> An insurance plan is any plan or program that is designed to provide compensation or coverage for expenses incurred by a beneficiary for medical services and supplies. It includes plans or programs for which the beneficiary pays a premium to an issuing agent as well as those plans or programs to which the beneficiary is entitled as a result of employment or membership in, or association with, an organization or group.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical service or health plan.</I> A medical service or health plan is any plan or program of an organized health care group, corporation, or other entity for the provision of health care to an individual from plan providers, both professional and institutional. It includes plans or programs for which the beneficiary pays a premium to an issuing agent as well as those plans or programs to which the beneficiary is entitled as a result of employment or membership in, or association with, an organization or group.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Third-party payer.</I> A third-party payer means an entity that provides an insurance, medical service, or health plan by contract or agreement, including an automobile liability insurance or no-fault insurance carrier and a workers' compensation program or plan, and any other plan or program (e.g., homeowners insurance, etc.) that is designed to provide compensation or coverage for expenses incurred by a beneficiary for medical services or supplies. For purposes of the definition of “third-party payer,” an insurance, medical service or health plan includes a preferred provider organization, an insurance plan described as Medicare supplemental insurance, and a personal injury protection plan or medical payments benefit plan for personal injuries resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions.</I> Double coverage plans do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Plans administered under title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid);
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage specifically designed to supplement CHAMPUS benefits (a health insurance policy or other health benefit plan that meets the definition and criteria under supplemental insurance plan as set forth in § 199.2(b));
</P>
<P>(iii) Entitlement to receive care from Uniformed Services medical care facilities; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Certain Federal Government programs, as prescribed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, that are designed to provide benefits to a distinct beneficiary population and for which entitlement does not derive from either premium payment of monetary contribution (for example, the Indian Health Service); or
</P>
<P>(v) State Victims of Crime Compensation Programs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of double coverage provisions.</I> CHAMPUS claims submitted for otherwise covered services or supplies and which involve double coverage shall be adjudicated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>TRICARE last pay.</I> For any claim that involves a double coverage plan as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, TRICARE shall be last pay <I>except</I> as may be authorized by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section. That is, TRICARE benefits may not be extended until all other double coverage plans have adjudicated the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TRICARE advance payment.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, may authorize payment of a claim in advance of adjudication of the claim by a double coverage plan and recover, under § 199.12, the TRICARE costs of health care incurred on behalf of the covered beneficiary under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The claim is submitted for health care services furnished to a covered beneficiary; and, 
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim is identified as involving services for which a third-party payer, other than a primary medical insurer, may be liable. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Primary medical insurer.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a “primary medical insurer” is an insurance plan, medical service or health plan, or a third-party payer under this section, the primary or sole purpose of which is to provide or pay for health care services, supplies, or equipment. The term “primary medical insurer” does not include automobile liability insurance, no-fault insurance, workers' compensation program or plan, homeowners insurance, or any other similar third-party payer as may be designated by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, in any policy guidance or instructions issued in implementation of this Part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waiver of benefits.</I> A CHAMPUS beneficiary may not elect to waive benefits under a double coverage plan and use CHAMPUS. Whenever double coverage exists, the provisions of this Section shall be applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lack of payment by double coverage plan.</I> Amounts that have been denied by a double coverage plan simply because a claim was not filed timely or because the beneficiary failed to meet some other requirement of coverage cannot be paid. If a statement from the double coverage plan as to how much that plan would have paid had the claim met the plan's requirements is provided to the CHAMPUS contractor, the claim can be processed as if the double coverage plan actually paid the amount shown on the statement. If no such statement is received, no payment from CHAMPUS is authorized. 


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations</I>—(1) <I>CHAMPUS and Medicare</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> In any case in which a beneficiary is eligible for both Medicare and CHAMPUS received medical or dental care for which payment may be made under Medicare and CHAMPUS, Medicare is always the primary payer except in the case of retroactive determinations of disability as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section. For dependents of active duty members, payment will be determined in accordance to paragraph (c) of this section. For all other beneficiaries eligible for Medicare, the amount payable under CHAMPUS shall be the amount of actual out-of-pocket costs incurred by the beneficiary for that care over the sum of the amount paid for that care under Medicare and the total of all amounts paid or payable by third party payers other than Medicare.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payment limit.</I> The total CHAMPUS amount payable for care under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section may not exceed the total amount that would be paid under CHAMPUS if payment for that care was made solely under CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Application of general rule.</I> In applying the general rule under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the first determination will be whether payment may be made under Medicare. For this purpose, Medicare exclusions, conditions, and limitations will be based for the determination.
</P>
<P>(A) For items or services or portions or segments of items or services for which payment may be made under Medicare, the CHAMPUS payment will be the amount of the beneficiary's actual out of pocket liability, minus the amount payable by Medicare, also minus amount payable by other third party payers, subject to the limit under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For items or services or segments of items or services for which no payment may be made under Medicare, the CHAMPUS payment will be the same as it would be for a CHAMPUS eligible retiree, dependent, or survivor beneficiary who is not Medicare eligible.
</P>
<P>(C) For Medicare beneficiaries who enroll in Medicare Part D, the Part D plan is primary and TRICARE is secondary payer. TRICARE will pay the beneficiary's out-of-pocket costs for Medicare and TRICARE covered medications, including the initial deductible and Medicare Part D cost-sharing amounts up to the initial coverage limit of the Medicare Part D plan. The Medicare Part D plan, although the primary plan, pays nothing during any coverage gap period. When the beneficiary becomes responsible for 100 percent of the drug costs under a Part D coverage gap period, the beneficiary may use the TRICARE pharmacy benefit as the secondary payer. TRICARE will cost share during the coverage gap to the same extent as it does under Section 199.21 for beneficiaries not enrolled in Medicare Part D plan. The beneficiary is responsible for the applicable TRICARE pharmacy cost-sharing amounts (and deductible if using a retail non-network pharmacy). Part D plan sponsors may offer a defined standard benefit, or an actuarially equivalent standard benefit. Part D plan sponsors may also offer alternative prescription drug coverage, which may consist of basic alternative coverage or enhanced alternative coverage. Therefore depending on the Part D plan that a beneficiary chooses, monthly premiums, coinsurances, co-pays, deductibles and benefit design may vary from plan to plan. TRICARE payment of the beneficiary's initial deductible, if any, along with payment of any beneficiary cost share count towards total spending on drugs, and may have the effect of moving the beneficiary more quickly through the initial phase of coverage to the coverage gap. Irrespective of the phase of the benefit in which a beneficiary may be, if a beneficiary is accessing a pharmacy under contract with his or her Part D plan, the provider will bill the Part D plan first, then TRICARE. If the beneficiary chooses to use his or her TRICARE pharmacy benefit during a coverage gap under Part D, the beneficiary may do so, but the beneficiary is responsible for the TRICARE cost-shares.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples of applications of general rule.</I> The following examples are illustrative. They are not all-inclusive.
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a Medicare-eligible beneficiary receiving typical physician office visit services, Medicare payment generally will be made. CHAMPUS payment will be determined consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a Medicare-eligible beneficiary residing and receiving medical care overseas, Medicare payment generally may not be made. CHAMPUS payment will be determined consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of a Medicare-eligible beneficiary receiving skilled nursing facility services a portion of which is payable by Medicare (such as during the first 100 days) and a portion of which is not payable by Medicare (such as after 100 days), CHAMPUS payment for the first portion will be determined consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section and for the second portion consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Application of catastrophic cap.</I> Only in cases in which CHAMPUS payment is determined consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, actual beneficiary out of pocket liability remaining after CHAMPUS payments will be counted for purposes of the annual catastrophic loss protection, set forth under § 199.4(f)(10). When a family has met the cap, CHAMPUS will pay allowable amounts for remaining covered services through the end of that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Retroactive determinations of disability.</I> In circumstances involving determinations of retroactive Medicare Part A entitlement for persons under 65 years of age, Medicare becomes the primary payer effective as of the date of issuance of the retroactive determination by the Social Security Administration. For care and services rendered prior to issuance of the retroactive determination, the CHAMPUS payment will be determined consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section notwithstanding the beneficiary's retroactive entitlement for Medicare Part A during that period.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Effect on enrollment in Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MA-PD) plan.</I> In the case of a beneficiary enrolled in a MA-PD plan who receives items or services for which payment may be made under both the MA-PD plan and CHAMPUS/TRICARE, a claim for the beneficiary's normal out-of-pocket costs under the MA-PD plan may be submitted for CHAMPUS/TRICARE payment. However, consistent with paragraph (c)(4) of this section, out-of-pocket costs do not include costs associated with unauthorized out-of-system care or care otherwise obtained under circumstances that result in a denial or limitation of coverage for care that would have been covered or fully covered had the beneficiary met applicable requirements and procedures. In such cases, the CHAMPUS/TRICARE amount payable is limited to the amount that would have been paid if the beneficiary had received care covered by the Medicare Advantage plan. If the TRICARE-Medicare beneficiary enrolls in a MA-PD drug plan, it generally will be governed by Medicare Part C, although plans that offer a prescription drug benefit must comply with Medicare Part D rules. The beneficiary has to pay the plan's monthly premiums and obtain all medical care and prescription drugs through the Medicare Advantage plan before seeking CHAMPUS/TRICARE payment. CHAMPUS/TRICARE payment for such beneficiaries may not exceed that which would be payable for a beneficiary under paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Effect of other double coverage plans, including medigap plans.</I> CHAMPUS is second payer to other third-party payers of health insurance, including Medicare supplemental plans.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Effect of employer-provided insurance.</I> In the case of individuals with health insurance due to their current employment status, the employer insurance plan shall be first payer, Medicare shall be the second payer, and CHAMPUS shall be the tertiary payer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CHAMPUS and Medicaid.</I> Medicaid is not a double coverage plan. In any double coverage situation involving Medicaid, CHAMPUS is always the primary payer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>TRICARE and Workers' Compensation.</I> TRICARE benefits are not payable for a work-related illness or injury that is covered under a workers' compensation program. Pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, however, the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, may authorize payment of a claim involving a work-related illness or injury covered under a workers' compensation program in advance of adjudication and payment of the workers' compensation claim and then recover, under § 199.12, the TRICARE costs of health care incurred on behalf of the covered beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extended Care Health Option (ECHO).</I> For those services or supplies that require use of public facilities, an ECHO eligible beneficiary (or sponsor or guardian acting on behalf of the beneficiary) does not have the option of waiving the full use of public facilities which are determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee to be available and adequate to meet a disability related need for which an ECHO benefit was requested. Benefits eligible for payment under a state plan for medical assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid) are never considered to be available in the adjudication of ECHO benefits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Primary payer.</I> The requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section notwithstanding, TRICARE is primary payer for services and items that are provided in accordance with the Individualized Family Service Plan as required by Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act and that are medically or psychologically necessary and otherwise allowable under the TRICARE Basic Program or the Extended Care Health Option.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prohibition against financial and other incentives not to enroll in a group health plan</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1097c, an employer or other entity is prohibited from offering TRICARE beneficiaries financial or other benefits as incentives not to enroll in, or to terminate enrollment in, a group health plan that is or would be primary to TRICARE. This prohibition applies in the same manner as section 1862(b)(3)(C) of the Social Security Act applies to incentives for a Medicare-eligible employee not to enroll in a group health plan that is or would be primary to Medicare.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of general rule.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section precludes offering to TRICARE beneficiaries an alternative to the employer primary plan unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The beneficiary has primary coverage other than TRICARE; or
</P>
<P>(B) The benefit is offered under a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code and is offered to all similarly situated employees, including non-TRICARE eligible employees; or
</P>
<P>(C) The benefit is offered under a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code and, although offered only to TRICARE-eligible employees, the employer does not provide any payment for the benefit nor receive any direct or indirect consideration or compensation for offering the benefit; the employer's only involvement is providing the administrative support for the benefits under the cafeteria plan, and the employee's participation in the plan is completely voluntary.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Documentation.</I> In the case of a benefit excluded by paragraph (d)(6)(ii)(C) of this section from the prohibition in paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, the exclusion is dependent on the employer maintaining in the employer's files a certification signed by the employer that the conditions described in paragraph (d)(6)(ii)(C) of this section are met, and, upon request of the Department of Defense, providing a copy of that certification to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Remedies and penalties.</I> (A) Remedies for violation of this paragraph (d)(6) include but are not limited to remedies under the Federal Claims Collection Act, 31 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Penalties for violation of this paragraph (d)(6) include a civil monetary penalty of up to $5,000 for each violation. The provisions of section 1128A of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a, (other than subsections (a) and (b)) apply to the civil monetary penalty in the same manner as the provisions apply to a penalty or proceeding under section 1128A.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (d)(6):
</P>
<P>(A) The term “employer” includes any State or unit of local government and any employer that employs at least 20 employees.
</P>
<P>(B) The term “group health plan” means a group health plan as that term is defined in section 5000(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 without regard to section 5000(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P>(C) The term “similarly situated” means sharing common attributes, such as part-time employees, or other bona fide employment-based classifications consistent with the employer's usual business practice. (Internal Revenue Service regulations at 26 CFR 54.9802-1(d) may be used as a reference for this purpose). However, in no event shall eligibility for or entitlement to TRICARE (or ineligibility or non-entitlement to TRICARE) be considered a bona fide employment-based classification.
</P>
<P>(D) The term “TRICARE-eligible employee” means a covered beneficiary under section 1086 of title 10, United States Code, Chapter 55, entitled to health care benefits under the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Procedures.</I> The Departments of Defense and Health and Human Services are authorized to enter into agreements to further carry out this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implementing instructions.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue such instructions, procedures, or guidelines, as necessary, to implement the intent of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986, as amended at 62 FR 35097, June 30, 1997; 62 FR 54384, Oct. 20, 1997; 63 FR 59232, Nov. 3, 1998; 64 FR 46141, Aug. 24, 1999; 66 FR 40607, Aug. 3, 2001; 67 FR 18827, Apr. 17, 2002; 68 FR 6618, Feb. 10, 2003; 68 FR 23032, Apr. 30, 2003; 68 FR 32361, May 30, 2003; 69 FR 51569, Aug. 20, 2004; 74 FR 55775, Oct. 29, 2009; 75 FR 18054, Apr. 9, 2010; 77 FR 38176, June 27, 2012; 82 FR 45447, Sept. 29, 2017; 85 FR 26355, May 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.9   Administrative remedies for fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This section sets forth provisions for invoking administrative remedies under CHAMPUS in situations involving fraud, abuse, or conflict of interest. The remedies impact institutional providers, professional providers, and beneficiaries (including parents, guardians, or other representatives of beneficiaries), and cover situations involving criminal fraud, civil fraud, administrative determinations of conflicts of interest or dual compensation, and administrative determinations of fraud or abuse. The administrative actions, remedies, and procedures may differ based upon whether the initial findings were made by a court of law, another agency, or the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(2) This section also sets forth provisions for invoking administrative remedies in situations requiring administrative action to enforce provisions of law, regulation, and policy in the administration of CHAMPUS and to ensure quality of care for CHAMPUS beneficiaries. Examples of such situations may include a case in which it is discovered that a provider fails to meet requirements under this part to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider; a case in which the provider ceases to be qualified as a CHAMPUS provider because of suspension or revocation of the provider's license by a local licensing authority; or a case in which a provider meets the minimum requirements under this part but, nonetheless, it is determined that it is in the best interest of the CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries that the provider should not be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative remedies set forth in this section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other remedies or sanctions authorized by law or regulation. For example, administrative action under this section may be taken in a particular case even if the same case will be or has been processed under the administrative procedures established by the Department of Defense to implement the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act. 
</P>
<P>(4) Providers seeking payment from the Federal Government through programs such as CHAMPUS have a duty to familiarize themselves with, and comply with, the program requirements. 
</P>
<P>(5) CHAMPUS contractors and peer review organizations have a responsibility to apply provisions of this regulation in the discharge of their duties, and to report all known situations involving fraud, abuse, or conflict of interest. Failure to report known situations involving fraud, abuse, or conflict of interest will result in the withholding of administrative payments or other contractual remedies as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Abuse.</I> The term “abuse” generally describes incidents and practices which may directly or indirectly cause financial loss to the Government under CHAMPUS or to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. For the definition of abuse, see § 199.2 of this part. The type of abuse to which CHAMPUS is most vulnerable is the CHAMPUS claim involving the overutilization of medical and health care services. To avoid abuse situations, providers have certain obligations to provide services and supplies under CHAMPUS which are: Furnished at the appropriate level and only when and to the extent medically necessary as determined under the provisions of this part; of a quality that meets professionally recognized standards of health care; and, supported by adequate medical documentation as may reasonably be required under this part by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, to evidence the medical necessity and quality of services furnished, as well as the appropriateness of the level of care. A provider's failure to comply with these obligations can result in sanctions being imposed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, under this section. Even when administrative remedies are not initiated under this section, abuse situations under CHAMPUS are a sufficient basis for denying all or any part of CHAMPUS cost-sharing of individual claims. The types of abuse or possible abuse situations under CHAMPUS include, but are not limited, to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A pattern of waiver of beneficiary (patient) cost-share or deductible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In a case of a legitimate bad debt write-off of patient cost-share or deductible, the provider's record should include documentation as to what efforts were made to collect the debt, when the debt was written off, why the debt was written off, and the amount of the debt written off.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Improper billing practices. Examples include, charging CHAMPUS beneficiaries rates for services and supplies that are in excess of those charges routinely charged by the provider to the general public, commercial health insurance carriers, or other federal health benefit entitlement programs for the same or similar services. (This includes dual fee schedules—one for CHAMPUS beneficiaries and one for other patients or third-party payers. This also includes billing other third-party payers the same as CHAMPUS is billed but accepting less than the billed amount as reimbursement. However, a formal discount arrangement such as through a preferred provider organization, may not necessarily constitute an improper billing practice.) 
</P>
<P>(3) A pattern of claims for services which are not medically necessary or, if medically necessary, not to the extent rendered. For example, a battery of diagnostic tests are given when, based on the diagnosis, fewer tests were needed. 
</P>
<P>(4) Care of inferior quality. For example, consistently furnishing medical or mental health services that do not meet accepted standards of care. 
</P>
<P>(5) Failure to maintain adequate medical or financial records. 
</P>
<P>(6) Refusal to furnish or allow the Government (for example, OCHAMPUS) or Government contractors access to records related to CHAMPUS claims. 
</P>
<P>(7) Billing substantially in excess of customary or reasonable charges unless it is determined by OCHAMPUS that the excess charges are justified by unusual circumstances or medical complications requiring additional time, effort, or expense in localities when it is accepted medical practice to make an extra charge in such cases. 
</P>
<P>(8) Unauthorized use of the term “Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS)” in private business. While the use of the term “CHAMPUS” is not prohibited by federal statute, misrepresentation or deception by use of the term “CHAMPUS” to imply an official connection with the Government or to defraud CHAMPUS beneficiaries may be a violation of federal statute. Regardless of whether the actual use of the term “CHAMPUS” may be actionable under federal statute, the unauthorized or deceptive use of the term “CHAMPUS” in private business will be considered abuse for purposes of this Section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fraud.</I> For the definition of fraud, see § 199.2 of this part. Examples of situations which, for the purpose of this part, are presumed to be fraud include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting CHAMPUS claims (including billings by providers when the claim is submitted by the beneficiary) for services, supplies, or equipment not furnished to, or used by, CHAMPUS beneficiaries. For example, billing or claiming services when the provider was on call (other than an authorized standby charge) and did not provide any specific medical care to the beneficiary; providing services to an ineligible person and billing or submitting a claim for the services in the name of an eligible CHAMPUS beneficiary; billing or submitting a CHAMPUS claim for an office visit for a missed appointment; or billing or submitting a CHAMPUS claim for individual psychotherapy when a medical visit was the only service provided. 
</P>
<P>(2) Billing or submitting a CHAMPUS claim for costs for noncovered or nonchargeable services, supplies, or equipment disguised as covered items. Some examples are: (i) Billings or CHAMPUS claims for services which would be covered except for the frequency or duration of the services, such as billing or submitting a claim for two one-hour psychotherapy sessions furnished on separate days when the actual service furnished was a two-hour therapy session on a single day, (ii) spreading the billing or claims for services over a time period that reduces the apparent frequency to a level that may be cost-shared by CHAMPUS, (iii) charging to CHAMPUS, directly or indirectly, costs not incurred or not reasonably allowable to the services billed or claimed under CHAMPUS, for example, costs attributable to nonprogram activities, other enterprises, or the personal expenses of principals, or (iv) billing or submitting claim on a fee-for-service basis when in fact a personal service to a specific patient was not performed and the service rendered is part of the overall management of, for example, the laboratory or x-ray department. 
</P>
<P>(3) Breach of a provider participation agreement which results in the beneficiary (including parent, guardian, or other representative) being billed for amounts which exceed the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost. 
</P>
<P>(4) Billings or CHAMPUS claims for supplies or equipment which are clearly unsuitable for the patient's needs or are so lacking in quality or sufficiency for the purpose as to be virtually worthless.
</P>
<P>(5) Billings or CHAMPUS claims which involve flagrant and persistent overutilization of services without proper regard for results, the patient's ailments, condition, medical needs, or the physician's orders. 
</P>
<P>(6) Misrepresentations of dates, frequency, duration, or description of services rendered, or of the identity of the recipient of the services or the individual who rendered the services. 
</P>
<P>(7) Submitting falsified or altered CHAMPUS claims or medical or mental health patient records which misrepresent the type, frequency, or duration of services or supplies or misrepresent the name(s) of the individual(s) who provided the services or supplies. 
</P>
<P>(8) Duplicate billings or CHAMPUS claims. This includes billing or submitting CHAMPUS claims more than once for the same services, billing or submitting claims both to CHAMPUS and the beneficiary for the same services, or billing or submitting claims both to CHAMPUS and other third-parties (such as other health insurance or government agencies) for the same services, without making full disclosure of material facts or immediate, voluntary repayment or notification to CHAMPUS upon receipt of payments which combined exceed the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge of the services involved. 
</P>
<P>(9) Misrepresentation by a provider of his or her credentials or concealing information or business practices which bear on the provider's qualifications for authorized CHAMPUS provider status. For example, a provider representing that he or she has a qualifying doctorate in clinical psychology when the degree is not from a regionally accredited university. 
</P>
<P>(10) Reciprocal billing. Billing or claiming services which were furnished by another provider or furnished by the billing provider in a capacity other than as billed or claimed. For example, practices such as the following: (i) One provider performing services for another provider and the latter bills as though he had actually performed the services (e.g., a weekend fill-in); (ii) providing service as an institutional employee and billing as a professional provider for the services; (iii) billing for professional services when the services were provided by another individual who was an institutional employee; (iv) billing for professional services at a higher provider profile than would be paid for the person actually furnishing the services, (for example, bills reflecting that an M.D. or Ph.D. performed the services when services were actually furnished by a licensed social worker, psychiatric nurse, or marriage and family counselor); or (v) an authorized provider billing for services which were actually furnished by an unauthorized or sanctioned provider. 
</P>
<P>(11) Submitting CHAMPUS claims at a rate higher than a rate established between CHAMPUS and the provider, if such a rate has been established. For example, billing or claiming a rate in excess of the provider's most favored rate limitation specified in a residential treatment center agreement. 
</P>
<P>(12) Arrangements by providers with employees, independent contractors, suppliers, or others which appear to be designed primarily to overcharge the CHAMPUS through various means (such as commissions, fee-splitting, and kickbacks) used to divert or conceal improper or unnecessary costs or profits. 
</P>
<P>(13) Agreements or arrangements between the supplier and recipient (recipient could be either a provider or beneficiary, including the parent, guardian, or other representative of the beneficiary) that result in billings or claims which include unnecessary costs or charges to CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conflict of Interest.</I> (1) Conflict of interest includes any situation where an active duty member of the Uniformed Services (including a reserve member while on active duty, active duty for training, or inactive duty training) or civilian employee of the United States Government, through an official federal position has the apparent or actual opportunity to exert, directly or indirectly, any influence on the referral of CHAMPUS beneficiaries to himself/herself or others with some potential for personal gain or the appearance of impropriety. Although individuals under contract to the Uniformed Services are not considered “employees,” such individuals are subject to conflict of interest provisions by express terms of their contracts and, for purposes of this part, may be considered to be involved in conflict of interest situations as a result of their contract positions. In any situation involving potential conflict of interest of a Uniformed Service employee, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may refer the case to the Uniformed Service concerned for appropriate review and action. If such a referral is made, a report of the results of findings and action taken shall be made to the Director, OCHAMPUS, by the Uniformed Service having jurisdiction within 90 days of receiving the referral. 
</P>
<P>(2) CHAMPUS cost-sharing shall be denied on any claim where a conflict of interest situation is found to exist. This denial of cost-sharing applies whether the claim is submitted by the individual who provided the care, the institutional provider in which the care was furnished, or the beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dual Compensation.</I> (1) Federal law (5 U.S.C. 5536) prohibits active duty members of the Uniformed Services or employees (including part-time or intermittent) appointed in the civil service of the United States Government from receiving additional compensation from the Government above their normal pay and allowances. This prohibition applies to CHAMPUS payments for care furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries by active duty members of the Uniformed Services or civilian employees of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(2) CHAMPUS cost-sharing of a claim shall be denied where the services or supplies were provided by an active duty member of the Uniformed Services or a civilian employee of the Government. This denial of CHAMPUS payment applies whether the claim for reimbursement is filed by the individual who provided the care, the institutional provider in which the care was furnished, or by the beneficiary.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Physicians of the National Health Service Corps (NHSC) may be assigned to areas where there is a shortage of medical providers. Although these physicians would be prohibited from accepting CHAMPUS payments as individuals if they are employees of the United States Government, the private organizations to which they may be assigned may be eligible for payment, as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) The prohibition against dual compensation does not apply to individuals under contract to the Uniformed Services or the Government. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative Remedies.</I> Administrative remedies available under CHAMPUS in this section are set forth below. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Provider exclusion or suspension.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall have the authority to exclude or suspend an otherwise authorized CHAMPUS provider from the program based on any criminal conviction or civil judgment involving fraud by the provider; fraud or abuse under CHAMPUS by the provider; exclusion or suspension of the provider by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or local licensing authority; participation in a conflict of interest situation by the provider; or, when it is in the best interests of the program or CHAMPUS beneficiaries to exclude or suspend a provider under CHAMPUS. In all cases, the exclusion or suspension of a provider shall be effective 15 calendar days from the date on the written initial determination issued under paragraph (h)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Criminal conviction or civil judgment involving fraud by a provider</I>—(A) <I>Criminal conviction involving CHAMPUS fraud.</I> A provider convicted by a Federal, state, foreign, or other court of competent jurisdiction of a crime involving CHAMPUS fraud, whether the crime is a felony or misdemeanor, shall be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS for a period of time as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. The CHAMPUS exclusion or suspension applies whether or not the provider, as a result of the conviction, receives probation or the sentence is suspended or deferred, and whether or not the conviction or sentence is under appeal.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Under the above paragraph (f)(1)(i)(A) of this section, an entity may be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS whenever the entity is found to have a person, convicted of a crime involving CHAMPUS fraud, who has a direct or indirect ownership or control interest (see § 199.2) of 5 percent or more in the entity, or is an officer, director, agent or managing employee of the entity. The entity will have an opportunity to provide evidence to show that the ownership or control relationship has ceased. While an entity will not be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS for employing a provider who has been sanctioned under this Section, the entity will be denied CHAMPUS payment for any services furnished by the sanctioned employee. As an authorized CHAMPUS provider, the entity is responsible for ensuring that all CHAMPUS claims involve services furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries by employees who meet all requirements under CHAMPUS for provider status.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) <I>Criminal conviction involving fraud of other Federal programs.</I> Any provider convicted by a Federal, state, or other court of competent jurisdiction of a crime involving another Federal health care or benefit program (such as plans administered under titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act, Federal Workmen's Compensation, and the Federal Employees Program (FEP) for employee health insurance), whether the crime is a felony or misdemeanor, shall be excluded from CHAMPUS for a period of time as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. The CHAMPUS exclusion or suspension applies whether or not the provider, as a result of the conviction, receives probation or the sentence is suspended or deferred, and whether or not the conviction or sentence is under appeal. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Criminal conviction involving fraud of non-Federal programs.</I> Any provider convicted by a Federal, state, foreign, or other court of competent jurisdiction of a crime involving any non-Federal health benefit program or private insurance involving health benefits may be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS for a period of time as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Civil fraud involving CHAMPUS.</I> If a judgment involving civil fraud has been entered (whether or not it is appealed) against a provider in a civil action involving CHAMPUS benefits (whether or not other Federal programs are involved), the provider shall be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS for a period determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Civil fraud involving other programs.</I> If a judgment involving civil fraud has been entered against a provider (whether or not it has been appealed) in a civil action involving other public or private health care programs or health insurance, the provider may be excluded or suspended for a period of time determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Administrative determination of fraud or abuse under CHAMPUS.</I> If the Director of the Defense Health Agency determines a provider committed fraud or abuse as defined in this part, the provider shall be excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS/TRICARE for a period of time determined by the Director. A final determination of an imposition of a civil money penalty (CMP) under 32 CFR part 200 shall constitute an administrative determination of fraud and abuse.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Administrative determination that the provider has been excluded or suspended by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or local licensing authority.</I> Any provider who is excluded or suspended by any other Federal health care program (for example, Medicare), shall be excluded or suspended under CHAMPUS. A provider who has his/her credentials revoked through a Veterans Administration or Military Department credentials review process and who is excluded, suspended, terminated, retired, or separated, shall also be excluded or suspended under CHAMPUS. The period of time of exclusion or suspension shall be determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Administrative determination that the provider has participated in a conflict of interest situation.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may exclude or suspend any provider who has knowingly been involved in a conflict of interest situation under CHAMPUS. The period of time of exclusion or suspension shall be determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. For purposes of this administrative determination, it will be presumed that a CHAMPUS provider knowingly participated in a conflict of interest situation if the provider employs, in the treatment of a CHAMPUS beneficiary (resulting in a CHAMPUS claim), any medical personnel who are active duty members of the Uniformed Services or civilian employees of the Government. The burden of proof to rebut this presumption rests with the CHAMPUS provider. Two exceptions will be recognized to the presumption that a conflict of interest exists. First, indirect CHAMPUS payments may be made to private organizations to which physicians of the National Health Service Corps (NHSC) are assigned. Second, any off-duty Government medical personnel employed in an emergency room of an acute care hospital will be presumed not to have had the opportunity to exert, directly or indirectly, any influence on the referral of CHAMPUS beneficiaries; therefore, CHAMPUS payments may be made to the employing hospital <I>provided</I> the medical care was not furnished directly by the off-duty Government medical personnel in violation of dual compensation provisions. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Administrative determination that it is in the best interests of the CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries to exclude or suspend a provider</I>—(A) <I>Unethical or improper practices or unprofessional conduct.</I> (<I>1</I>) In most instances, unethical or improper practices or unprofessional conduct by a provider will be program abuse and subject the provider to exclusion or suspension for abuse. However, in some cases such practices and conduct may provide an independent basis for exclusion or suspension of the provider by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such exclusions or suspensions may be based on findings or recommendations of state licensure boards, boards of quality assurance, other regulatory agencies, state medical societies, peer review organizations, or other professional associations. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>In any other case in which the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee), determines that exclusion or suspension of a provider is in the best interests of CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may exclude or suspend any provider if it is determined that the authorization of that particular provider under CHAMPUS poses an unreasonable potential for fraud, abuse, or professional misconduct. Any documented misconduct by the provider reflecting on the business or professional competence or integrity of the provider may be considered. Situations in which the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may take administrative action under this Section to protect CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries include, but are not limited to, a case in which it is determined that a provider poses an unreasonable potential cost to the Government to monitor the provider for fraud or abuse and to avoid the issuance of erroneous payments; or that the provider poses an unreasonable potential harm to the financial or health status of CHAMPUS beneficiaries; or that the provider poses any other unreasonable threat to the interests of CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS beneficiaries. One example of such circumstances involves a provider who, for his/her entire practice or for most of his/her practice, provides or bills for treatment that is not a CHAMPUS benefit, resulting in CHAMPUS frequently and repeatedly denying claims as non-covered services. This may occur when a professional provider furnishes sex therapy (a therapy which may be recognized by the provider's licensing authority but which is excluded from CHAMPUS coverage) and repeatedly submits CHAMPUS claims for the services. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provider termination.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall terminate the provider status of any provider determined not to meet the qualifications established by this part to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effective date of termination.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, the termination shall be retroactive to the date on which the provider did not meet the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(A) The retroactive effective date of termination shall not be limited due to the passage of time, erroneous payment of claims, or any other events which may be cited as a basis for CHAMPUS recognition of the provider notwithstanding the fact that the provider does not meet program qualifications. Unless specific provision is made in this part to “grandfather” or authorize a provider who does not otherwise meet the qualifications established by this part, all unqualified providers shall be terminated. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any claims cost-shared or paid under CHAMPUS for services or supplies furnished by the provider on or after the effective date of termination, even when the effective date is retroactive, shall be deemed an erroneous payment unless specific exception is provided in this part. All erroneous payments are subject to collection under § 199.11 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(C) If an institution is terminated as an authorized CHAMPUS provider, the institution shall immediately give written notice of the termination to any CHAMPUS beneficiary (or their parent, guardian, or other representative) admitted to, or receiving care at, the institution on or after the effective date of the termination. In addition, when an institution is terminated with an effective date of termination after the date of the initial determination terminating the provider, any beneficiary admitted to the institution prior to the effective date of termination (or their parent, guardian, or other representative) shall be notified by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, by certified mail of the termination, and that CHAMPUS cost-sharing of the beneficiary's care in the institution will cease as of the effective date of the termination. However, any beneficiary admitted to the institution prior to any grace period extended to the institution under paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section shall be advised that, if the beneficiary's care otherwise qualifies for CHAMPUS coverage, CHAMPUS cost-sharing of the care in the institution will continue in order to provide a reasonable period of transition of care; however the transitional period of CHAMPUS cost-sharing shall not exceed the last day of the month following the month in which the institution's status as a CHAMPUS provider is terminated. (This authorized CHAMPUS cost-sharing of the inpatient care received during the transition period is an exception to the general rule that CHAMPUS payment for care furnished after the effective date of termination of the provider's status shall be deemed to be an erroneous payment.) If a major violation under paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(B) of this section is involved, in order to ensure immediate action is taken to transfer beneficiaries to an approved provider, CHAMPUS cost-sharing shall not be authorized after the effective date of termination of the provider's status. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Institutions not in compliance with CHAMPUS standards.</I> If it is determined that an institution is not in compliance with one or more of the standards applicable to its specific category of institution under this part, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall take immediate steps to bring about compliance or terminate the status of the provider as an authorized CHAMPUS provider.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Minor violations.</I> An institution determined to be in violation of one or more of the standards shall be advised by certified mail of the nature of the discrepancy or discrepancies and will be given a grace period of 30 days to effect appropriate corrections. The grace period may be extended at the discretion of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, but in no event shall the extension exceed 90 days. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) CHAMPUS will not cost-share a claim for any beneficiary admitted during the grace period. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any beneficiary admitted to the institution prior to the grace period (or the beneficiary's parent, guardian, or other representative) will be notified by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in writing, of the minor violations and the grace period granted the institution to correct the violations. The beneficiary will also be advised that, if the beneficiary's care otherwise meets all requirements for CHAMPUS coverage, CHAMPUS cost-sharing will continue during the grace period. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the institution submits written notice before the end of the grace period that corrective action has been taken <I>and</I> if the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, determines that the corrective action has eliminated the minor violations, the provider will be advised that the institution is restored to full status as an authorized CHAMPUS provider as of 12:01 a.m. on the day written notice of correction was received by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or the day on which acceptable corrective action was completed in the judgment of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. Any beneficiary admitted to the institution prior to the grace period will be notified by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, of the corrective action and that the provider continues to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. CHAMPUS cost-sharing for any beneficiary admitted to the institution during the grace period shall be allowed only for care received after 12:01 a.m. on the day written notice of correction was received by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or the day on which acceptable corrective action was completed in the judgment of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If the institution has failed to give notification in writing before the end of the grace period that corrective action has been completed <I>or,</I> in the judgment of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, the institution has not completed acceptable corrective action during the grace period, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may initiate action to terminate the provider as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Major violations.</I> If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, determines that an institution is in violation of standards detrimental to life, safety, or health, or substantially in violation of approved treatment programs, immediate action shall be taken to terminate the institution as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. The institution shall be notified by telegram, certified mail, or express mail of the termination under this subparagraph, effective on receipt of the notice. The notice shall include a brief statement of the nature of violations resulting in the termination and advise the institution that an initial determination formalizing the administrative action of termination will be issued pursuant to paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section within 15 days. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beneficiary sanctions.</I> (i) With entitlement to CHAMPUS benefits based on public law, an eligible beneficiary will not be suspended or excluded from CHAMPUS. However, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may take action deemed appropriate and reasonable to protect the Government from those beneficiaries (including sponsors, parents, guardians, or representatives of beneficiaries) who have submitted false claims. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to § 199.11 of this part, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may recover erroneous payments on claims involving fraud or false or misleading statements. Remedies for recovery of the erroneous payments include the use of offset against future CHAMPUS payments. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Under policies adopted by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, individuals who, based on reliable information, have previously submitted fraudulent or false CHAMPUS claims, may be required to comply with any procedures (e.g., partial or total pre-payment audit or review, restriction to a designated primary care provider, etc.) which the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, deems appropriate to ensure that their future medical care and CHAMPUS claims (including the medical care and CHAMPUS claims submitted by or for members of their family) are valid. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Period of exclusion, suspension, or termination</I>—(1) <I>Exclusions or suspensions.</I> Except as otherwise required by paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall determine the period of exclusion or suspension for a provider using the factors set forth in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exclusion or suspension of a provider based on the provider's exclusion or suspension by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or a local licensing authority.</I> If the administrative action under CHAMPUS is based <I>solely</I> on the provider's exclusion or suspension by another agency, state, or local licensing authority, the period of exclusion or suspension under CHAMPUS shall be for the same length of time of exclusion or suspension imposed by the other agency, state, or local licensing authority. The provider may request reinstatement as an authorized CHAMPUS provider if reinstatement is achieved under the other program prior to the end of the period of exclusion or suspension. If the administrative action under CHAMPUS is not based <I>solely</I> on the provider's exclusion or suspension by another agency, state, or local licensing authority, the minimum period of exclusion or suspension shall be for the same period of exclusion or suspension imposed by the other agency, state, or local licensing authority. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Factors to be considered in determining the period of exclusion or suspension of providers under CHAMPUS.</I> In determining the period of exclusion or suspension of a provider, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may consider any or all of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) When the case concerns all or any part of the same issues which have been the subject of criminal conviction or civil judgment involving fraud by a provider: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The period(s) of sentence, probation, and other sanction imposed by court order against the provider may be presumed reasonable and adopted as the administrative period of exclusion or suspension under CHAMPUS, unless aggravating or mitigating factors exist. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If any aggravating factors exist, then cause exists for the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, to consider the factors set forth in paragraph (g)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, in imposing a period of administrative exclusion or suspension in excess of the period(s) of sentence, probation, and/or other sanctions imposed by court order. Examples of aggravating factors include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An administrative determination by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, that the basis for administrative exclusion or suspension includes an act(s) of fraud or abuse under CHAMPUS in addition to, or unrelated to, an act(s) of fraud included in the court conviction or civil judgment. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The fraudulent act(s) involved in the criminal conviction or civil judgment, or similar acts, were committed over a significant period of time; that is, one year or more. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The act(s) of fraud or abuse had an adverse physical, mental, or financial impact on one or more CHAMPUS beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The loss or potential loss to CHAMPUS is over $5,000. The entire amount of loss or potential loss to CHAMPUS due to acts of fraud and abuse will be considered, in addition to the amount of loss involved in the court conviction or civil judgment, regardless of whether full or partial restitution has been made to CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The provider has a prior court record, criminal or civil, or administrative record or finding of fraud or abuse. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If any mitigating factors exist, then cause may exist for the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, to reduce a period of administrative exclusion or suspension from any period(s) imposed by court conviction or civil judgment. Only the existence of either of the following two factors may be considered in mitigation: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The criminal conviction or civil judgment only involved three or fewer misdemeanor offenses, and the total of the estimated losses incurred (including any loss from act(s) not involved in the conviction or judgment) is less than $1,000, regardless of whether full or partial restitution has been made. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The criminal or civil court proceedings establish that the provider had a mental, emotional or physical condition, prior to or contemporaneous with the commission of the act(s), that reduced the provider's criminal or civil culpability. 
</P>
<P>(B) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may consider the following factors in determining a reasonable period of exclusion or suspension of a provider under CHAMPUS: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The nature of the claims and the circumstances under which they were presented; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The degree of culpability; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) History of prior offenses (including whether claims were submitted while the provider was either excluded or suspended pursuant to prior administrative action); 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Number of claims involved; 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Dollar amount of claims involved; 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Whether, if a crime was involved, it was a felony or misdemeanor;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If patients were injured financially, mentally, or physically; the number of patients; and the seriousness of the injury(ies); 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The previous record of the provider under CHAMPUS; 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Whether restitution has been made or arrangements for repayment accepted by the Government; 
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Whether the provider has resolved the conflict of interest situations or implemented procedures acceptable to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, which will prevent conflict of interest in the future; and, 
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Such other factors as may be deemed appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminations.</I> When a provider's status as an authorized CHAMPUS provider is ended, other than through exclusion or suspension, the termination is based on a finding that the provider does not meet the qualifications to be an authorized provider, as set forth in this part. Therefore, the period of termination in all cases will be indefinite and will end only after the provider has successfully met the established qualifications for authorized provider status under CHAMPUS and has been reinstated under CHAMPUS. Except as otherwise provided in this subparagraph, the following guidelines control the termination of authorized CHAMPUS provider status for a provider whose license to practice (or, in the case of an institutional provider, to operate) has been temporarily or permanently suspended or revoked by the jurisdiction issuing the license. 
</P>
<P>(i) Termination of the provider under CHAMPUS shall continue even if the provider obtains a license to practice in a second jurisdiction during the period of suspension or revocation of the provider's license by the original licensing jurisdiction. A provider who has licenses to practice in two or more jurisdictions and has one or more license(s) suspended or revoked will also be terminated as a CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(A) Professional providers shall remain terminated from the CHAMPUS until the jurisdiction(s) suspending or revoking the provider's license(s) to practice restores it or removes the impediment to restoration. 
</P>
<P>(B) Institutional providers shall remain terminated under CHAMPUS until their license is restored. In the event the facility is sold, transferred, or reorganized as a new legal entity, and a license issued under a new name or to a different legal entity, the new entity must submit an application to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the CHAMPUS provider status is terminated due to the loss of the provider's license, the effective date shall be retroactive to the date the provider lost the license; however, in the case of a professional provider who has licenses in two or more jurisdictions and submitted claims from a jurisdiction from which he/she had a valid license, the effective date of the termination will be 15 calendar days from the date of the written initial determination of termination for purposes of claims from the jurisdiction in which the provider still has a valid license. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Procedures for initiating and implementing the administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>Temporary suspension of claims processing.</I> (i) In general, temporary suspension of claims processing may be invoked to protect the interests of the Government for a period reasonably necessary to complete investigation or appropriate criminal, civil, and administrative proceedings. The temporary suspension only delays the ultimate payment of otherwise appropriate claims. When claims processing involving a participating provider is temporarily suspended, the participation agreement remains in full force and the provider cannot repudiate the agreement because of the delay in the final disposition of the claim(s). Once it has been determined appropriate to end the temporary suspension of claims processing, CHAMPUS claims which were the subject of the suspension and which are otherwise determined to be in compliance with the requirements of law and regulation, will be processed to completion and payment <I>unless</I> such action is deemed inappropriate as a result of criminal, civil, or administrative remedies ultimately invoked in the case. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When adequate evidence exists to determine that a provider or beneficiary is submitting fraudulent or false claims or claims involving practices that may be fraud or abuse as defined by this part, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may suspend CHAMPUS claims processing (in whole or in part) for claims submitted by the beneficiary or any CHAMPUS claims involving care furnished by the provider. The temporary suspension of claims processing for care furnished by a provider may be invoked against all such claims, whether or not the claims are submitted by the beneficiary or by the provider as a participating CHAMPUS provider. In cases involving a provider, notice of the suspension of claims processing may also be given to the beneficiary community either directly or indirectly through notice to appropriate military facilities, health benefit advisors, and the information or news media. 
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate evidence is any information sufficient to support the reasonable belief that a particular act or omission has occurred. 
</P>
<P>(B) Indictment or any other initiation of criminal charges, filing of a complaint for civil fraud, issuance of an administrative complaint under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act, or issuance of an initial determination under this part for submitting fraudulent or false claims or claims involving practices that may be fraud or abuse as defined by this part, shall constitute adequate evidence for invoking temporary suspension of claims processing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may suspend CHAMPUS claims processing without first notifying the provider or beneficiary of the intent to suspend payments. Following a decision to invoke a temporary suspension, however, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue written notice advising the provider or beneficiary that: 
</P>
<P>(A) A temporary suspension of claims processing has been ordered and a statement of the basis of the decision to suspend payment. Unless the suspension is based on any of the actions set forth in paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, the notice shall describe the suspected acts or omissions in terms sufficient to place the provider or beneficiary on notice without disclosing the Government's evidence. 
</P>
<P>(B) Within 30 days (or, upon written request received by OCHAMPUS during the 30 days and for good cause shown, within 60 days) from the date of the notice, the provider or beneficiary may: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Submit to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in writing, information (including documentary evidence) and argument in opposition to the suspension, provided the additional specific information raises a genuine dispute over the material facts, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Submit a written request to present in person evidence or argument to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. All such presentations shall be made at the Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (OCHAMPUS) in Aurora, Colorado, at the provider's or beneficiary's own expense. 
</P>
<P>(C) Additional proceedings to determine disputed material facts may be conducted unless: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The suspension is based on any of the actions set forth in paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, or, 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A determination is made, on the basis of the advice of the responsible Government official (e.g., an official of the Department of Justice, the designated Reviewing Official under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act, etc.), that the substantial interests of the Government in pending or contemplated legal or administrative proceedings based on the same facts as the suspension would be prejudiced. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the beneficiary or provider submits, either in writing or in person, additional information or argument in opposition to the suspension, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue a suspending official's decision which modifies, terminates, or leaves in force the suspension of claims processing. However, a decision to terminate or modify the suspension shall be without prejudice to the subsequent imposition of suspension of claims processing, imposition of sanctions under this § 199.9, the recovery of erroneous payments under § 199.11 of this part, or any other administrative or legal action authorized by law or regulation. The suspending official's decision shall be in writing as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) A written decision based on all the information in the administrative record, including any submission by the beneficiary or provider, shall be final in a case: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Based on any of the actions set forth in paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In which the beneficiary's or provider's submission does not raise a genuine dispute over material facts, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In which additional proceedings to determine disputed material facts have been denied on the basis of advice of a responsible Government official that the substantial interests of the Government in pending or contemplated legal or administrative proceedings would be prejudiced. 
</P>
<P>(B) In a case in which additional proceedings are necessary as to disputed material facts, the suspending official's decision shall advise the beneficiary or provider that the case has been referred for handling as a hearing under § 199.10 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(v) A suspension of claims processing may be modified or terminated for reasons such as: 
</P>
<P>(A) Newly discovered evidence; 
</P>
<P>(B) Elimination of any of the causes for which the suspension was invoked; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Other reasons the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A suspension of claims processing shall be for a temporary period pending the completion of investigation and any ensuing legal or administrative proceedings, unless sooner terminated by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, or as provided in this subparagraph. 
</P>
<P>(A) If legal or administrative proceedings are not initiated within 12 months after the date of the suspension notice, the suspension shall be terminated unless the Government official responsible for initiation of the legal or administrative action requests its extension, in which case it may be extended for an additional 6 months. In no event may a suspension extend beyond 18 months, unless legal or administrative proceedings have been initiated during that period. 
</P>
<P>(B) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall notify the Government official responsible for initiation of the legal or administrative action of the proposed termination of the suspension, at least 30 days before the 12-month period expires, to give the official an opportunity to request an extension. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of proposed administrative sanction.</I> (i) A provider shall be notified in writing of the proposed action to exclude, suspend, or terminate the provider's status as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. 
</P>
<P>(A) The notice shall state which sanction will be taken and the effective date of that sanction as determined in accordance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(B) The notice shall inform the provider of the situation(s), circumstance(s), or action(s) which form the basis for the proposed sanction and reference the paragraph of this part under which the administrative action is being taken. 
</P>
<P>(C) The notice will be sent to the provider's last known business or office address (or home address if there is no known business address.) 
</P>
<P>(D) The notice shall offer the provider an opportunity to respond within 30 days (or, upon written request received by OCHAMPUS during the 30 days and for good cause shown, within 60 days) from the date on the notice with either: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Documentary evidence and written argument contesting the proposed action; or, 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A written request to present in person evidence or argument to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. All such presentations shall be made at the Office of the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (OCHAMPUS) in Aurora, Colorado, at the provider's own expense. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial determination.</I> (i) If, after the provider has exhausted, or failed to comply with, the procedures specified in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, decides to invoke an administrative remedy of exclusion, suspension, or termination of a provider under CHAMPUS, written notice of the decision will be sent to the provider by certified mail. Except in those cases where the sanction has a retroactive effective date, the written notice shall be dated no later than 15 days before the decision becomes effective. For terminations under paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, the initial determination may be issued without first implementing or exhausting the procedures specified in paragraph (h)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial determination shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the sanction being invoked; 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the effective date of the sanction; 
</P>
<P>(C) A statement of the facts, circumstances, or actions which form the basis for the sanction and a discussion of any information submitted by the provider relevant to the sanction; 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of the factors considered in determining the period of sanction; 
</P>
<P>(E) The earliest date on which a request for reinstatement under CHAMPUS will be accepted; 
</P>
<P>(F) The requirements and procedures for reinstatement; and, 
</P>
<P>(G) Notice of the available hearing upon request of the sanctioned provider. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reinstatement procedures</I>—(i) <I>Restitution.</I> (A) There is no entitlement under CHAMPUS for payment (cost-sharing) of any claim that involves either criminal or civil fraud as defined by law, or fraud or abuse or conflict of interest as defined by this part. In addition, except as specifically provided in this part, there is no entitlement under CHAMPUS for payment (cost-sharing) of any claim for services or supplies furnished by a provider who does not meet the requirements to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider. In any of the situations described above, CHAMPUS payment shall be denied whether the claim is submitted by the provider as a participating claim or by the beneficiary for reimbursement. If an erroneous payment has been issued in any such case, collection of the payment will be processed under § 199.11 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(B) If the Government has made erroneous payments to a provider because of claims involving fraud, abuse, or conflicts of interest, restitution of the erroneous payments shall be made before a request for reinstatement as a CHAMPUS authorized provider will be considered. Without restitution or resolution of the debt under § 199.11 of this part, a provider shall not be reinstated as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. This is not an appealable issue under § 199.10 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of authorization as a CHAMPUS provider, a provider who is excluded or suspended under this § 199.9 and who submits participating claims for services furnished on or after the effective date of the exclusion or suspension is considered to have forfeited or waived any right or entitlement to bill the beneficiary for the care involved in the claims. Similarly, because a provider is expected to know the CHAMPUS requirements for qualification as an authorized provider, any participating provider who fails to meet the qualification requirements for CHAMPUS is considered to have forfeited or waived any right or entitlement to bill the beneficiary for the care involved in the CHAMPUS claims. If, in either situation, the provider bills the beneficiary, restitution to the beneficiary may be required by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, as a condition for consideration of reinstatement as a CHAMPUS authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Terminated providers.</I> A terminated provider who subsequently achieves the minimum qualifications to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider or who has had his/her license reinstated or the impediment to reinstatement removed by the appropriate licensing jurisdiction may submit a written request for reinstatement under CHAMPUS to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. If restitution or proper reinstatement of license is not at issue, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, will process the request for reinstatement under the procedures established for initial requests for authorized CHAMPUS provider status. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Providers (other than entities) excluded or suspended under CHAMPUS.</I> (A) A provider excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS (other than an entity excluded under § 199.9(f)(1)(i)) may seek reinstatement by submitting a written request to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, any time after the date specified in the notice of exclusion or suspension or any earlier date specified in an appeal decision issued in the provider's appeal under § 199.10 of this part. The request for reinstatement shall include: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Documentation sufficient to establish the provider's qualifications under this part to be a CHAMPUS authorized provider; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement from the provider setting forth the reasons why the provider should be reinstated, accompanied by written statements from professional associates, peer review bodies, and/or probation officers (if appropriate), attesting to their belief that the violations that led to exclusion or suspension will not be repeated. 
</P>
<P>(B) A provider entity excluded from CHAMPUS under § 199.9(f)(1)(i) may seek reinstatement by submitting a written request to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, with documentation sufficient to establish the provider's qualifications under this part to be a CHAMPUS authorized provider and either: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Documentation showing the CHAMPUS reinstatement of the excluded individual provider whose conviction led to the CHAMPUS exclusion or suspension of the provider entity; <I>or</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Documentation acceptable to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, that shows that the individual whose conviction led to the entity's exclusion: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Has reduced his or her ownership or control interest in the entity below 5 percent; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is no longer an officer, director, agent or managing employee of the entity; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Continues to maintain a 5 percent or more ownership or control interest in such entity, and that the entity due to circumstances beyond its control, is unable to obtain a divestiture.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Under paragraph (h)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the request for reinstatement may be submitted any time prior to the date specified in the notice of exclusion or suspension or an earlier date specified in the appeal decision issued under § 199.10 of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) <I>Action on request for reinstatement.</I> In order to reinstate a provider as a CHAMPUS authorized provider, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, must determine that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The provider meets all requirements under this part to be an authorized CHAMPUS provider; 
</P>
<P>(B) No additional criminal, civil, or administrative action has been taken or is being considered which could subject the provider to exclusion, suspension, or termination under this section; 
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of a provider entity, verification has been made of the divestiture or termination of the owner, controlling party, officer, director, agent or managing employee whose conviction led to the entity's exclusion, <I>or</I> that the provider entity should be reinstated because the entity, due to circumstances beyond its control, cannot obtain a divestiture of the 5 percent or more ownership or controlling interest by the convicted party.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of action on request for reinstatement</I>—(A) <I>Notice of approval of request.</I> If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, approves the request for reinstatement, he or she will: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Give written notice to the sanctioned party specifying the date when the authorized provider status under CHAMPUS may resume; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Give notice to those agencies and groups that were originally notified, in accordance with § 199.9(k), of the imposition of the sanction. General notice may also be given to beneficiaries and other parties as deemed appropriate by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Notice of denial of request.</I> If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, does not approve the request for reinstatement, written notice will be given to the provider. If established procedures for processing initial requests for authorized provider status are used to review the request for reinstatement, the established procedures may be used to provide the notice that the provider does not meet requirements of this part for such status. If the provider continues to be excluded, suspended, or terminated under the provisions of this section, the procedures set forth in this paragraph (h) may be followed in denying the provider's request for reinstatement. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reversed or vacated convictions or civil judgments involving CHAMPUS fraud.</I> (i) If a CHAMPUS provider is excluded or suspended <I>solely</I> on the basis of a criminal conviction or civil judgment involving a CHAMPUS fraud and the conviction or judgment is reversed or vacated on appeal, CHAMPUS will void the exclusion of a provider. Such action will not preclude the initiation of additional independent administrative action under this section or any other administrative remedy based on the same facts or events which were the subject of the criminal conviction or civil judgment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If an exclusion is voided under paragraph (h)(5)(i) of this section, CHAMPUS will make payment, either to the provider or the beneficiary (if the claim was not a participating claim) for otherwise authorized services under CHAMPUS that are furnished or performed during the period of exclusion. 
</P>
<P>(iii) CHAMPUS will also void the exclusion of any entity that was excluded under § 199.9(f)(1)(i) based <I>solely</I> on an individual's conviction that has been reversed or vacated on appeal. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When CHAMPUS voids the exclusion of a provider or an entity, notice will be given to the agencies and others that were originally notified, in accordance with § 199.9(k). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Evidence required for determinations to invoke administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Any relevant evidence may be used by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, if it is the type of evidence on which reasonable persons are accustomed to rely in the conduct of serious affairs, regardless of the existence of any common law or statutory rule that might make improper the admission of such evidence over objection in civil or criminal courts. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of evidence.</I> The types of evidence which the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may rely on in reaching a determination to invoke administrative remedies under this section include but are not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Results of audits conducted by or on behalf of the Government. Such audits can include the results of 100 percent review of claims and related records or a statistically valid sample audit of the claims or records. A statistical sampling shall constitute <I>prima facie</I> evidence of the number and amount of claims and the instances of fraud, abuse, or conflict of interest. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports, including sanction reports, from various sources including a peer review organization (PRO) for the area served by the provider; state or local licensing or certification authorities; peer or medical review consultants of the Government, including consultants for Government contractors; state or local professional societies; or other sources deemed appropriate by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Orders or documents issued by Federal, state, foreign, or other courts of competent jurisdiction which issue findings and/or criminal convictions or civil judgments involving the provider, and administrative rulings, findings, or determinations by any agency of the Federal Government, a state, or local licensing or certification authority regarding the provider's status with that agency or authority. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Suspending Administrative Action.</I> (1) All or any administrative action may be suspended by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, pending action in the case by the Department of Defense—Inspector General, Defense Criminal Investigative Service, or the Department of Justice (including the responsible United States Attorney). However, action by the Department of Defense—Inspector General or the Department of Justice, including investigation, criminal prosecution, or civil litigation, does not preclude administrative action by OCHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(2) The normal OCHAMPUS procedure is to suspend action on the administrative process pending an investigation by the Department of Defense—Inspector General or final disposition by the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(3) Though OCHAMPUS administrative action is taken independently of any action by the Department of Defense-Inspector General or by the Department of Justice, once a case is forwarded to the Department of Defense-Inspector General or the Department of Justice for legal action (criminal or civil), administrative action may be held in abeyance. 
</P>
<P>(4) In some instances there may be dual jurisdiction between agencies; as in, for example, the joint regulations issued by the Department of Justice and the Government Accounting Office regarding debt collection. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice to Other Agencies.</I> (1) When CHAMPUS excludes, suspends, or terminates a provider, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, will notify other appropriate agencies (for example, the Department of Health and Human Services and the state licensing agency that issued the provider's license to practice) that the individual has been excluded, suspended, or terminated as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS. An exclusion, suspension, or termination action is considered a public record. Such notice can include the notices and determinations sent to the suspended provider and other public documents such as testimony given at a hearing or exhibits or depositions given in a lawsuit or hearing. Notice may also be given to Uniformed Services Military Treatment Facilities, Health Benefit Advisors, beneficiaries and sponsors, the news media, and institutional providers if inpatient care was involved. 
</P>
<P>(2) If CHAMPUS has temporarily suspended claims processing, notice of such action normally will be given to the affected provider and Uniformed Services Medical Treatment Facilities, Health Benefits Advisors, beneficiaries, and sponsors. Notice may also be given to any information or news media and any other individual, professional provider, or institutional provider, as deemed appropriate. However, since a “temporary suspension of claims processing” is by definition not a final or formal agency action, the basis for the action generally will not be disclosed. It is noted that the basis for the action can be a result of questions arising from routine audits to investigation of possible criminal violations. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Compromise, Settlement, and Resolution Authority.</I> (1) In lieu of invoking any remedy provided by this Section, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may elect to enter into an agreement with the provider intended to correct the situation within an established time period and subject to any remedies deemed appropriate by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee. 
</P>
<P>(2) When it is in the best interest of CHAMPUS, the Director, OCHAMPUS, has the discretionary authority to waive an action or enter into compromise or settlement of administrative actions taken under this § 199.9. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Government-wide effect of exclusion or suspension from CHAMPUS.</I> As provided by section 2455 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act of 1994, Pub. L. 103-355, October 13 1994, and Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension from Federal Financial and Nonfinancial Assistance Programs,” February 18, 1986, any health care provider excluded or suspended from CHAMPUS under this section shall, as a general rule, also be debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from all other programs and activities involving Federal financial assistance. Among the other programs for which this debarment, suspension, or exclusion shall operate are the Medicare and Medicaid programs. This debarment, suspension, or termination requirement is subject to limited exceptions in the regulations governing the respective Federal programs affected. (Note: Other regulations related to this government-wide exclusion or suspension authority are 32 CFR Part 25 and 45 CFR Part 76.)
</P>
<P>(n) Third-party billing agents as defined in § 199.2(b) of this part, while not considered providers, are subject to the provisions of this section to the same extent as such provisions apply to providers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 25246, June 14, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 48445, Sept. 10, 1998; 78 FR 12954, Feb. 26, 2013; 85 FR 60705, Sept. 28, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.10   Appeal and hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This Section sets forth the policies and procedures for appealing decisions made by OCHAMPUS, OCHAMPUSEUR, and CHAMPUS contractors adversely affecting the rights and liabilities of CHAMPUS beneficiaries, CHAMPUS participating providers, and providers denied the status of authorized provider under CHAMPUS. An appeal under CHAMPUS is an administrative review of program determinations made under the provisions of law and regulation. An appeal cannot challenge the propriety, equity, or legality of any provision of law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial determination</I>—(i) <I>Notice of initial determination and right to appeal.</I> (A) OCHAMPUS, OCHAMPUSEUR, and CHAMPUS contractors shall mail notices of initial determinations to the affected provider or CHAMPUS beneficiary (or representative) at the last known address. For beneficiaries who are under 18 years of age or who are incompetent, a notice issued to the parent, guardian, or other representative, under established CHAMPUS procedures, constitutes notice to the beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(B) CHAMPUS contractors and OCHAMPUSEUR shall notify a provider of an initial determination on a claim only if the provider participated in the claim. (See § 199.7 of this part.) 
</P>
<P>(C) CHAMPUS peer review organizations shall notify providers and fiscal intermediaries of a denial determination on a claim. 
</P>
<P>(D) Notice of an initial determination on a claim processed by a CHAMPUS contractor or OCHAMPUSEUR normally will be made on a CHAMPUS Explanation of Benefits (CEOB) form. 
</P>
<P>(E) Each notice of an initial determination on a request for benefit authorization, a request by a provider for approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider, or a decision to disqualify or exclude a provider as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS shall state the reason for the determination and the underlying facts supporting the determination. 
</P>
<P>(F) In any case when the initial determination is adverse to the beneficiary or participating provider, or to the provider seeking approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider, the notice shall include a statement of the beneficiary's or provider's right to appeal the determination. The procedure for filing the appeal also shall be explained. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effect of initial determination.</I> (A) The initial determination is final unless appealed in accordance with this chapter, or unless the initial determination is reopened by the TRICARE Management Activity, the CHAMPUS contractor, or the CHAMPUS peer review organization.
</P>
<P>(B) An initial determination involving a CHAMPUS beneficiary entitled to Medicare Part A, who is enrolled in Medicare Part B, may be appealed by the beneficiary or their provider under this section of this Part only when the claimed services or supplies are payable by CHAMPUS and are not payable under Medicare. Both Medicare and CHAMPUS offer an appeal process when a claim for healthcare services or supplies is denied and most healthcare services and supplies are a benefit payable under both Medicare and CHAMPUS. In order to avoid confusion on the part of beneficiaries and providers and to expedite the appeal process, services and supplies denied payment by Medicare will not be considered for coverage by CHAMPUS if the Medicare denial of payment is appealable under Medicare. Because such claims are not considered for payment by CHAMPUS, there can be no CHAMPUS appeal. If, however, a Medicare claim or appeal results in some payment by Medicare, the services and supplies paid by Medicare will be considered for payment by CHAMPUS. In that situation, any decision to deny CHAMPUS payment will be appealable under this section. The following examples of CHAMPUS appealable issues involving Medicare-eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries are illustrative; they are not all-inclusive.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If Medicare processes a claim for a healthcare service or supply that is a Medicare benefit and the claim is denied by Medicare for a patient-specific reason, the claim is appealable through the Medicare appeal process. The Medicare decision will be final if the claim is denied by Medicare. The claimed services or supplies will not be considered for CHAMPUS payment and there is no CHAMPUS appeal of the CHAMPUS decision denying the claim.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If Medicare processes a claim for a healthcare service or supply that is a Medicare benefit and the claim is paid, either on initial submission or as a result of a Medicare appeal decision, the claim will be submitted to CHAMPUS for processing as a second payer to Medicare. If CHAMPUS denies payment of the claim, the Medicare-eligible beneficiary or their provider have the same appeal rights as other CHAMPUS beneficiaries and their providers under this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If Medicare processes a claim and the claim is denied by Medicare because it is not a healthcare service or supply that is a benefit under Medicare, the claim is submitted to CHAMPUS. CHAMPUS will process the claim under this Part 199 as primary payer (or as secondary payer if another double coverage plan exists). If any part of the claim is denied, the Medicare-eligible beneficiary and their provider will have the same appeal rights as other CHAMPUS beneficiaries and their providers under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Participation in an appeal.</I> Participation in an appeal is limited to any party to the initial determination, including CHAMPUS, and authorized representatives of the parties. Any party to the initial determination, except CHAMPUS, may appeal an adverse determination. The appealing party is the party who actually files the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Parties to the initial determination.</I> For purposes of the CHAMPUS appeals and hearing procedures, the following are not parties to an initial determination and are not entitled to administrative review under this section.
</P>
<P>(A) A provider disqualified or excluded as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS based on a determination of abuse or fraudulent practices or procedures under another Federal or federally funded program is not a party to the CHAMPUS action and may not appeal under this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) A beneficiary who has an interest in receiving care or has received care from a particular provider cannot be an appealing party regarding the exclusion, suspension, or termination of the provider under § 199.9 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(C) A sponsor or parent of a beneficiary under 18 years of age or guardian or an incompetent beneficiary is not a party to the initial determination and may not serve as the appealing party, although such persons may represent the appealing party in an appeal. 
</P>
<P>(D) A third party, such as an insurance company, is not a party to the initial determination and is not entitled to appeal even though it may have an indirect interest in the initial determination. 
</P>
<P>(E) A nonparticipating provider is not a party to the initial determination and may not appeal. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Representative.</I> Any party to the initial determination may appoint a representative to act on behalf of the party in connection with an appeal. Generally, the parent of a minor beneficiary and the legally appointed guardian of an incompetent beneficiary shall be presumed to have been appointed representative without specific designation by the beneficiary. The custodial parent or legal guardian (appointed by a cognizant court) of a minor beneficiary may initiate an appeal based on the above presumption. However, should a minor beneficiary turn 18 years of age during the course of an appeal, then any further requests to appeal on behalf of the beneficiary must be from the beneficiary or pursuant to the written authorization of the beneficiary appointing a representative. For example, if the beneficiary is 17 years of age and the sponsor (who is a custodial parent) requests a formal review, absent written objection by the minor beneficiary, the sponsor is presumed to be acting on behalf of the minor beneficiary. Following the issuance of the formal review, the sponsor requests a hearing; however if, at the time of the request for a hearing, the beneficiary is 18 years of age or older, the request must either be by the beneficiary or the beneficiary must appoint a representative. The sponsor, in this example, could not pursue the request for hearing without being appointed by the beneficiary as the beneficiary's representative. 
</P>
<P>(A) The representative shall have the same authority as the party to the appeal and notice given to the representative shall constitute notice required to be given to the party under this part.
</P>
<P>(B) To avoid possible conflicts of interest, an officer or employee of the United States, such as an employee or member of a Uniformed Service, including an employee or staff member of a Uniformed Service legal office, or a CHAMPUS advisor, subject to the exceptions in 18 U.S.C. 205, is not eligible to serve as a representative. An exception usually is made for an employee or member of a Uniformed Service who represents an immediate family member. In addition, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may appoint an officer or employee of the United States as the CHAMPUS representative at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The burden of proof is on the appealing party to establish affirmatively by substantial evidence the appealing party's entitlement under law and this part to the authorization of CHAMPUS benefits, approval of authorized CHAMPUS provider status, or removal of sanctions imposed under § 199.9 of this part. If a presumption exists under the provisions of this part or information constitutes <I>prima facie</I> evidence under the provisions of this part, the appealing party must produce evidence reasonably sufficient to rebut the presumption or <I>prima facie</I> evidence as part of the appealing party's burden of proof. CHAMPUS shall not pay any part of the cost or fee, including attorney fees, associated with producing or submitting evidence in support of an appeal. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evidence in appeal and hearing cases.</I> Any relevant evidence may be used in the administrative appeal and hearing process if it is the type of evidence on which reasonable persons are accustomed to rely in the conduct of serious affairs, regardless of the existence of any common law or statutory rule that might make improper the admission of such evidence over objection in civil or criminal courts. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Late filing.</I> If a request for reconsideration, formal review, or hearings is filed after the time permitted in this section, written notice shall be issued denying the request. Late filing may be permitted only if the appealing party reasonably can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, that the timely filing of the request was not feasible due to extraordinary circumstances over which the appealing party had no practical control. Each request for an exception to the filing requirement will be considered on its own merits. The decision of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, on the request for an exception to the filing requirement shall be final. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Appealable issue.</I> An appealable issue is required in order for an adverse determination to be appealed under the provisions of this section. Examples of issues that are not appealable under this section include:
</P>
<P>(i) A dispute regarding a requirement of the law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost or charge, since the methodology for determining allowable costs or charges is established by this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The establishment of diagnosis-related groups (DRGs), or the methodology for the classification of inpatient discharges within the DRGs, or the weighting factors that reflect the relative hospital resources used with respect to discharges within each DRG, since each of these is established by this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Certain other issues on the basis that the authority for the initial determination is not vested in CHAMPUS. Such issues include but are not limited to the following examples:
</P>
<P>(A) Determination of a person's eligibility as a CHAMPUS beneficiary is the responsibility of the appropriate Uniformed Service. Although OCHAMPUS, OCHAMPUSEUR, and CHAMPUS contractors must make determinations concerning a beneficiary's eligibility in order to ensure proper disbursement of appropriated funds on each CHAMPUS claim processed, ultimate responsibility for resolving a beneficiary's eligibility rests with the Uniformed Services. Accordingly, disputed question of fact concerning a beneficiary's eligibility will not be considered an appealable issue under the provisions of this section, but shall be resolved in accordance with § 199.3 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(B) Similarly, decisions relating to the issuance of a Nonavailability Statement (DD Form 1251) in each case are made by the Uniformed Services. Disputes over the need for a Nonavailability Statement or a refusal to issue a Nonavailability Statement are not appealable under this section. The one exception is when a dispute arises over whether the facts of the case demonstrate a medical emergency for which a Nonavailability Statement is not required. Denial of payment in this one situation is an appealable issue.
</P>
<P>(C) Any sanction, including the period of the sanction, imposed under § 199.9 of this part which is based solely on a provider's exclusion or suspension by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or a local licensing authority is not appealable under this section. The provider must exhaust administrative appeal rights offered by the other agency that made the initial determination to exclude or suspend the provider. Similarly, any sanction imposed under § 199.9 which is based solely on a criminal conviction or civil judgment against the provider is not appealable under this section. If the sanction imposed under § 199.9 is not based solely on the provider's criminal conviction or civil judgment or on the provider's exclusion or suspension by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or a local licensing authority, that portion of the CHAMPUS administrative determination which is in addition to the criminal conviction/civil judgment or exclusion/suspension by the other agency may be appealed under this section. 
</P>
<P>(v) A decision by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, as a suspending official when the decision is final under the provisions of § 199.9(h)(1)(iv)(A). 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Amount in dispute.</I> An amount in dispute is required for an adverse determination to be appealed under the provisions of this section, except as set forth below.
</P>
<P>(i) The amount in dispute is calculated as the amount of money CHAMPUS would pay if the services and supplies involved in dispute were determined to be authorized CHAMPUS benefits. Examples of amounts of money that are excluded by the Regulation from CHAMPUS payments for authorized benefits include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Amounts in excess of the CHAMPUS-determined allowable charge or cost.
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary's CHAMPUS deductible and cost-share amounts.
</P>
<P>(C) Amounts that the CHAMPUS beneficiary, or parent, guardian, or other responsible person has no legal obligation to pay.
</P>
<P>(D) Amounts excluded under the provisions of § 199.8 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of dispute for appeals involving a denial of a request for authorization in advance of obtaining care shall be the estimated allowable charge or cost for the services requested.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no requirement for an amount in dispute when the appealable issue involves a denial of a provider's request for approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider or the determination to exclude, suspend, or terminate a provider's authorized CHAMPUS provider status. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Individual claims may be combined to meet the required amount in dispute if all of the following exist:
</P>
<P>(A) The claims involve the same beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(B) The claims involve the same issue.
</P>
<P>(C) At least one of the claims so combined has had a reconsideration decision issued by OCHAMPUSEUR, a CHAMPUS contractor, or a CHAMPUS peer review organization. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A request for administrative review under this appeal process which involves a dispute regarding a requirement of law or regulation (paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section) or does not involve a sufficient amount in dispute (paragraph (a)(7) of this section) may not be rejected at the reconsideration level of appeal. However, an appeal shall involve an appealable issue and sufficient amount in dispute under these paragraphs to be granted a formal review or hearing.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Levels of appeal.</I> The sequence and procedures of a CHAMPUS appeal vary, depending on whether the initial determination was made by OCHAMPUS, OCHAMPUSEUR, a CHAMPUS contractor, or a CHAMPUS peer review organization. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appeal levels for initial determination made by OCHAMPUSEUR, CHAMPUS contractor, or CHAMPUS peer review organization.</I> (A) Reconsideration by OCHAMPUSEUR, CHAMPUS contractor, or CHAMPUS peer review organization. 
</P>
<P>(B) Formal review by OCHAMPUS (except for CHAMPUS peer review organization reconsiderations). 
</P>
<P>(C) Hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appeal levels for initial determination made by OCHAMPUS.</I> (A) Reconsideration by OCHAMPUSEUR or CHAMPUS contractor. 
</P>
<P>(B) Formal review by OCHAMPUS <I>except</I> (<I>1</I>) initial determinations involving the suspension of claims processing where the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, determines that additional proceedings are necessary as to disputed material facts and the suspending official's decision is not final under the provisions of § 199.9(h) (1)(iv)(A) or (<I>2</I>) initial determinations involving the sanctioning (exclusion, suspension, or termination) of CHAMPUS providers. Initial determinations involving these matters shall be appealed directly to the hearing level.
</P>
<P>(C) Hearing.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Appeal decision.</I> An appeal decision at any level may address all pertinent issues which arise under the appeal or are otherwise presented by the information in the case record (for example, the entire episode of care in the appeal), and shall not be limited to addressing the specific issue appealed by a party. In the case of sanctions imposed under § 199.9, the final decision may affirm, increase or reduce the sanction period imposed by CHAMPUS, or otherwise modify or reverse the imposition of the sanction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Any party to the initial determination made by the CHAMPUS contractor, or a CHAMPUS peer review organization may request reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requesting a reconsideration</I>—(i) <I>Written request required.</I> The request must be in writing, shall state the specific matter in dispute, and shall include a copy of the notice of initial determination (such as the CEOB form) made by OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or the CHAMPUS peer review organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Where to file.</I> The request shall be submitted to the office that made the initial determination (i.e., OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or the CHAMPUS peer review organization) or any other CHAMPUS contractor designated in the notice of initial determination. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Allowed time to file.</I> The request must be mailed within 90 days after the date of the notice of initial determination. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Official filing date.</I> A request for a reconsideration shall be deemed filed on the date it is mailed and postmarked. If the request does not have a postmark, it shall be deemed filed on the date received by OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor or the CHAMPUS peer review organization. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The reconsideration process.</I> The purpose of the reconsideration is to determine whether the initial determination was made in accordance with law, regulation, policies, and guidelines in effect at the time the care was provided or requested, or at the time of the initial determination and/or reconsideration decision involving a provider request for approval as an authorized provider under CHAMPUS. The reconsideration is performed by a member of the OCHAMPUSEUR, CHAMPUS contractor, or CHAMPUS peer review organization staff who was not involved in making the initial determination and is a thorough and independent review of the case. The reconsideration is based on the information submitted that led to the initial determination, plus any additional information that the appealing party may submit or OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or CHAMPUS peer review organization may obtain.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timeliness of reconsideration determination.</I> OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or CHAMPUS peer review organization normally shall issue its reconsideration determination no later than 60 days from the date of receipt of the request for reconsideration by OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or the CHAMPUS peer review organization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of reconsideration determination.</I> OCHAMPUSEUR, the CHAMPUS contractor, or the CHAMPUS peer review organization shall issue a written notice of the reconsideration determination to the appealing party at his or her last known address. The notice of the reconsideration must contain the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the issues or issue under appeal.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of law, regulation, policies, and guidelines that apply to the issue or issues under appeal.
</P>
<P>(iii) A discussion of the original and additional information that is relevant to the issue or issues under appeal.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the reconsideration upholds the initial determination or reverses it, in whole or in part, and the rationale for the action.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of the right to appeal further in any case when the reconsideration determination is less than fully favorable to the appealing party and the amount in dispute is $50 or more.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of reconsideration determination.</I> The reconsideration determination is final if either of the following exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount in dispute is less than $50.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appeal rights have been offered, but a request for formal review is not received by OCHAMPUS within 60 days of the date of the notice of the reconsideration determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal review.</I> Except as explained in this paragraph, any party to an initial determination made by OCHAMPUS, or a reconsideration determination made by the CHAMPUS contractor, may request a formal review by OCHAMPUS if the party is dissatisfied with the initial or reconsideration determination unless the initial or reconsideration determination is final under paragraph (b)(5) of this section; involves the sanctioning of a provider by the exclusion, suspension or termination of authorized provider status; involves a written decision issued pursuant to § 199.9(h)(1)(iv)(A) regarding the temporary suspension of claims processing; or involves a reconsideration determination by a CHAMPUS peer review organization. A hearing, but not a formal review level of appeal, may be available to a party to an initial determination involving the sanctioning of a provider or to a party to a written decision involving a temporary suspension of claims processing. A beneficiary (or an authorized representative of a beneficiary), but not a provider (except as provided in § 199.15), may request a hearing, but not a formal review, of a reconsideration determination made by a CHAMPUS peer review organization.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requesting a formal review.</I> (i) <I>Written request required.</I> The request must be in writing, shall state the specific matter in dispute, shall include copies of the written determination (notice of reconsideration determination or OCHAMPUS initial determination) being appealed, and shall include any additional information or documents not submitted previously.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Where to file.</I> The request shall be submitted to the Chief, Office of Appeals and Hearings, TRICARE Management Activity, 16401 East Centretech Parkway, Auroa, Colorado 80011-9066.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Allowed time to file.</I> The request shall be mailed within 60 days after the date of the notice of the reconsideration determination or OCHAMPUS initial determination being appealed.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Official filing date.</I> A request for a formal review shall be deemed filed on the date it is mailed and postmarked. If the request does not have a postmark, it shall be deemed filed on the date received by OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The formal review process.</I> The purpose of the formal review is to determine whether the initial determination or reconsideration determination was made in accordance with law, regulation, policies, and guidelines in effect at the time the care was provided or requested or at the time of the initial determination, reconsideration, or formal review decision involving a provider request for approval as an authorized CHAMPUS provider. The formal review is performed by the Chief, Office of Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, and is a thorough review of the case. The formal review determination shall be based on the information, upon which the initial determination and/or reconsideration determination was based, and any additional information the appealing party may submit or OCHAMPUS may obtain.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timeliness of formal review determination.</I> The Chief, Office of Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS, or a designee normally shall issue the formal review determination no later than 90 days from the date of receipt of the request for formal review by the OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of formal review determination.</I> The Chief, Office of Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS, or a designee shall issue a written notice of the formal review determination to the appealing party at his or her last known address. The notice of the formal review determination must contain the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the issue or issues under appeal.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of law, regulation, policies, and guidelines that apply to the issue or issues under appeal.
</P>
<P>(iii) A discussion of the original and additional information that is relevant to the issue or issues under appeal.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the formal review upholds the prior determination or determinations or reverses the prior determination or determinations in whole or in part and the rationale for the action.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of the right to request a hearing in any case when the formal review determination is less than fully favorable, the issue is appealable, and the amount in dispute is $300 or more.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of formal review determination.</I> The formal review determination is final if one or more of the following exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The issue is not appealable. (See paragraph (a)(6) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount in dispute is less than $300. (See paragraph (a)(7) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Appeal rights have been offered but a request for hearing is not received by OCHAMPUS within 60 days of the date of the notice of the formal review determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing.</I> Any party to the initial determination may request a hearing if the party is dissatisfied with the formal review determination and the formal review determination is not final under the provisions of paragraph (c)(5), of this section, <I>or</I> the initial determination involves the sanctioning of a provider under § 199.9 of this part and involves an appealable issue. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requesting a hearing</I>—(i) <I>Written request required.</I> The request shall be in writing, state the specific matter in dispute, include a copy of the appropriate initial determination or formal review determination being appealed, and include any additional information or documents not submitted previously. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Where to file.</I> The request shall be submitted to the Chief, Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS, Aurora, Colorado 80045-6900.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Allowed time to file.</I> The request shall be mailed within 60 days after the date of the notice of the initial determination or formal review determination being appealed. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Official filing date.</I> A request for hearing shall be deemed filed on the date it is mailed and postmarked. If a request for hearing does not have a postmark, it shall be deemed filed on the day received by OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing process.</I> A hearing is an administrative proceeding in which facts relevant to the appealable issue(s) in the case are presented and evaluated in relation to applicable law, regulation, policies, and guidelines in effect at the time the care in dispute was provided or requested; at the time of the initial determination, formal review determination, or hearing decision involving a provider request for approval under CHAMPUS as an authorized provider; or at the time of the act or event which is the basis for the imposition of sanctions under this part. A hearing, except for an appeal involving a provider sanction, generally shall be conducted as a nonadversary, administrative proceeding. However, an authorized party to any hearing, including CHAMPUS, may submit additional evidence or testimony relevant to the appealable issue(s) and may appoint a representative, including legal counsel, to participate in the hearing process. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timeliness of hearing.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within 60 days following receipt of a request for hearing, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, normally will appoint a hearing officer to hear the appeal. Copies of all records in the possession of OCHAMPUS that are pertinent to the matter to be heard or that formed the basis of the formal review determination shall be provided to the hearing officer and, upon request, to the appealing party.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing officer, except as otherwise provided in this Section, normally shall have 60 days from the date of written notice of assignment to review the file, schedule and hold the hearing, and issue a recommended decision to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may delay the case assignment to the hearing officer if additional information is needed that cannot be obtained and included in the record within the time period specified above. The appealing party will be notified in writing of the delay resulting from the request for additional information. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in such circumstances, will assign the case to a hearing officer within 30 days of receipt of all such additional information, or within 60 days of receipt of the request for hearing, whichever shall occur last.
</P>
<P>(iv) The hearing officer may delay submitting the recommended decision if, at the close of the hearing, any party to the hearing requests that the record remain open for submission of additional information. In such circumstances, the hearing officer will have 30 days following receipt of all such additional information including comments from the other parties to the hearing concerning the additional information to submit the recommended decision to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Representation at a hearing.</I> Any party to the hearing may appoint a representative to act on behalf of the party at the hearing, unless such person currently is disqualified or suspended from acting in another Federal administrative proceeding, or unless otherwise prohibited by law, this part, or any other DoD regulation (see paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section). A hearing officer may refuse to allow any person to represent a party at the hearing when such person engages in unethical, disruptive, or contemptuous conduct, or intentionally fails to comply with proper instructions or requests of the hearing officer, or the provisions of this part. The representative shall have the same authority as the appealing party and notice given to the representative shall constitute notice required to be given to the appealing party.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consolidation of proceedings.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may consolidate any number of proceedings for hearing when the facts and circumstances are similar and no substantial right of an appealing party will be prejudiced.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Authority of the hearing officer.</I> The hearing officer in exercising the authority to conduct a hearing under this part will be bound by 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 and this part. The hearing officer in addressing substantive, appealable issues shall be bound by policy manuals, instructions, procedures, and other guidelines issued by the ASD(HA), or a designee, or by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in effect for the period in which the matter in dispute arose. A hearing officer may not establish or amend policy, procedures, instructions, or guidelines. However, the hearing officer may recommend reconsideration of the policy, procedures, instructions or guidelines by the ASD(HA), or a designee, when the final decision is issued in the case.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disqualification of hearing officer.</I> A hearing officer voluntarily shall disqualify himself or herself and withdraw from any proceeding in which the hearing officer cannot give fair or impartial hearing, or in which there is a conflict of interest. A party to the hearing may request the disqualification of a hearing officer by filing a statement detailing the reasons the party believes that a fair and impartial hearing cannot be given or that a conflict of interest exists. Such request immediately shall be sent by the appealing party or the hearing officer to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, who shall investigate the allegations and advise the complaining party of the decision in writing. A copy of such decision also shall be mailed to all other parties to the hearing. If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, reassigns the case to another hearing officer, no investigation shall be required.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notice and scheduling of hearing.</I> The hearing officer shall issue by certified mail, when practicable, a written notice to the parties to the hearing of the time and place for the hearing. Such notice shall be mailed at least 15 days before the scheduled date of the hearing. The notice shall contain sufficient information about the hearing procedure, including the party's right to representation, to allow for effective preparation. The notice also shall advise the appealing party of the right to request a copy of the record before the hearing. Additionally, the notice shall advise the appealing party of his or her responsibility to furnish the hearing officer, no later than 7 days before the scheduled date of the hearing, a list of all witnesses who will testify and a copy of all additional information to be presented at the hearing. The time and place of the hearing shall be determined by the hearing officer, who shall select a reasonable time and location mutually convenient to the appealing party and OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Dismissal of request for hearing.</I> (i) <I>By application of appealing party.</I> A request for hearing may be dismissed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, at any time before the mailing of the final decision, upon the application of the appealing party. A request for dismissal must be in writing and filed with the Chief, Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS, or the hearing officer. When dismissal is requested, the formal review determination in the case shall be deemed final, unless the dismissal is vacated in accordance with paragraph (d)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>By stipulation of the parties to the hearing.</I> A request for a hearing may be dismissed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, at any time before to the mailing of notice of the final decision under a stipulation agreement between the appealing party and OCHAMPUS. When dismissal is entered under a stipulation, the formal review decision shall be deemed final, unless the dismissal is vacated in accordance with paragraph (d)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>By abandonment.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may dismiss a request for hearing upon abandonment by the appealing party.
</P>
<P>(A) An appealing party shall be deemed to have abandoned a request for hearing, other than when personal appearance is waived in accordance with § 199.10(d)(11)(xii), if neither the appealing party nor an appointed representative appears at the time and place fixed for the hearing and if, within 10 days after the mailing of a notice by certified mail to the appealing party by the hearing officer to show cause, such party does not show good and sufficient cause for such failure to appear and failure to notify the hearing officer before the time fixed for hearing that an appearance could not be made. 
</P>
<P>(B) An appealing party shall be deemed to have abandoned a request for hearing if, before assignment of the case to the hearing officer, OCHAMPUS is unable to locate either the appealing party or an appointed representative.
</P>
<P>(C) An appealing party shall be deemed to have abandoned a request for hearing if the appealing party fails to prosecute the appeal. Failure to prosecute the appeal includes, but is not limited to, an appealing party's failure to provide information reasonably requested by OCHAMPUS or the hearing officer for consideration in the appeal.
</P>
<P>(D) If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, dismisses the request for hearing because of abandonment, the formal review determination in the case shall be deemed to be final, unless the dismissal is vacated in accordance with paragraph (d)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For cause.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may dismiss for cause a request for hearing either entirely or as to any stated issue. If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, dismisses a hearing request for cause, the formal review determination in the case shall be deemed to be final, unless the dismissal is vacated in accordance with paragraph (d)(9)(v) of this section. A dismissal for cause may be issued under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) When the appealing party requesting the hearing is not a proper party under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, or does not otherwise have a right to participate in a hearing.
</P>
<P>(B) When the appealing party who filed the hearing request dies, and there is no information before the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, showing that a party to the initial determination who is not an appealing party may be prejudiced by the formal review determination.
</P>
<P>(C) When the issue is not appealable (see § 199.10(a)(6)). 
</P>
<P>(D) When the amount in dispute is less than $300 (see § 199.10(a)(7)). 
</P>
<P>(E) When all appealable issues have been resolved in favor of the appealing party.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Vacation of dismissal.</I> Dismissal of a request for hearing may be vacated by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, upon written request of the appealing party, if the request is received within 6 months of the date of the notice of dismissal mailed to the last known address of the party requesting the hearing.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Preparation for hearing.</I> (i) <I>Prehearing statement of contentions.</I> The hearing officer may on reasonable notice require a party to the hearing to submit a written statement of contentions and reasons. The written statement shall be provided to all parties to the hearing before the hearing takes place.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discovery.</I> Upon the written request of a party to the initial determination (including OCHAMPUS) and for good cause shown, the hearing officer will allow that party to inspect and copy all documents, unless privileged, relevant to issues in the proceeding that are in the possession or control of the other party participating in the appeal. The written request shall state clearly what information and documents are required for inspection and the relevance of the documents to the issues in the proceeding. Depositions, interrogatories, requests for admissions, and other forms of prehearing discovery are generally not authorized and the Department of Defense does not have subpoena authority for purposes of administrative hearings under this Section. If the hearing officer finds that good cause exists for taking a deposition or interrogatory, the expense shall be assessed to the requesting party, with copies furnished to the hearing officer and the other party or parties to the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Witnesses and evidence.</I> All parties to a hearing are responsible for producing, at each party's expense, meaning without reimbursement of payment by CHAMPUS, witnesses and other evidence in their own behalf, and for furnishing copies of any such documentary evidence to the hearing officer and other party or parties to the hearing. The Department of Defense is not authorized to subpoena witnesses or records. The hearing officer may issue invitations and requests to individuals to appear and testify without cost to the Government, so that the full facts in the case may be presented.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> (i) <I>Right to open hearing.</I> Because of the personal nature of the matters to be considered, hearings normally shall be closed to the public. However, the appealing party may request an open hearing. If this occurs, the hearing shall be open except when protection of other legitimate Government purposes dictates closing certain portions of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Right to examine parties to the hearing and their witnesses.</I> Each party to the hearing shall have the right to produce and examine witnesses, to introduce exhibits, to question opposing witnesses on any matter relevant to the issue even though the matter was not covered in the direct examination, to impeach any witness regardless of which party to the hearing first called the witness to testify, and to rebut any evidence presented. Except for those witnesses employed by OCHAMPUS at the time of the hearing, or records in the possession of OCHAMPUS, a party to a hearing shall be responsible, that is to say no payment or reimbursement shall be made by CHAMPUS for the cost or fee associated with producing witnesses or other evidence in the party's own behalf, or for furnishing copies of documentary evidence to the hearing officer and other party or parties to the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Taking of evidence.</I> The hearing officer shall control the taking of evidence in a manner best suited ascertain the facts and safeguard the rights of the parties to the hearing. Before taking evidence, the hearing officer shall identify and state the issues in dispute on the record and the order in which evidence will be received.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Questioning and admission of evidence.</I> A hearing officer may question any witness and shall admit any relevant evidence. Evidence that is irrelevant or unduly repetitious shall be excluded.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Relevant evidence.</I> Any relevant evidence shall be admitted, unless unduly repetitious, if it is the type of evidence on which responsible persons are accustomed to rely in the conduct of serious affairs, regardless of the existence of any common law or statutory rule that might make improper the admission of such evidence over objection in civil or criminal actions.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>CHAMPUS determination first.</I> The basis of the CHAMPUS determinations shall be presented to the hearing officer first. The appealing party shall then be given the opportunity to establish affirmatively why this determination is held to be in error.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Testimony.</I> Testimony shall be taken only on oath, affirmation, or penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Oral argument and briefs.</I> At the request of any party to the hearing made before the close of the hearing, the hearing officer shall grant oral argument. If written argument is requested, it shall be granted, and the parties to the hearing shall be advised as to the time and manner within which such argument is to be filed. The hearing officer may require any party to the hearing to submit written memoranda pertaining to any or all issues raised in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Continuance of hearing.</I> A hearing officer may continue a hearing to another time or place on his or her own motion or, upon showing of good cause, at the request of any party. Written notice of the time and place of the continued hearing, except as otherwise provided here, shall be in accordance with this part. When a continuance is ordered during a hearing, oral notice of the time and place of the continued hearing may be given to each party to the hearing who is present at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Continuance for additional evidence.</I> If the hearing officer determines, after a hearing has begun, that additional evidence is necessary for the proper determination of the case, the following procedures may be invoked:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Continue hearing.</I> The hearing may be continued to a later date in accordance with § 199.10(d)(11)(ix), above. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Closed hearing.</I> The hearing may be closed, but the record held open in order to permit the introduction of additional evidence. Any evidence submitted after the close of the hearing shall be made available to all parties to the hearing, and all parties to the hearing shall have the opportunity for comment. The hearing officer may reopen the hearing if any portion of the additional evidence makes further hearing desirable. Notice thereof shall be given in accordance with paragraph (d)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Transcript of hearing.</I> A verbatim taped record of the hearing shall be made and shall become a permanent part of the record. Upon request, the appealing party shall be furnished a duplicate copy of the tape. A typed transcript of the testimony will be made only when determined to be necessary by OCHAMPUS. If a typed transcript is made, the appealing party shall be furnished a copy without charge. Corrections shall be allowed in the typed transcript by the hearing officer solely for the purpose of conforming the transcript to the actual testimony.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Waiver of right to appear and present evidence.</I> If all parties waive their right to appear before the hearing officer for presenting evidence and contentions personally or by representation, it will not be necessary for the hearing officer to give notice of, or to conduct a formal hearing. A waiver of the right to appear must be in writing and filed with the hearing officer or the Chief, Appeals and Hearings, OCHAMPUS. Such waiver may be withdrawn by the party by written notice received by the hearing officer or Chief, Appeals and Hearings, no later than 7 days before the scheduled hearing or the mailing of notice of the final decision, whichever occurs first. For purposes of this Section, failure of a party to appear personally or by representation after filing written notice of waiver, will not be cause for finding of abandonment and the hearing officer shall make the recommended decision on the basis of all evidence of record.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Recommended decision.</I> At the conclusion of the hearing and after the record has been closed, the matter shall be taken under consideration by the hearing officer. Within the time frames previously set forth in this Section, the hearing officer shall submit to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, a written recommended decision containing a statement of findings and a statement of reasons based on the evidence adduced at the hearing and otherwise included in the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statement of findings.</I> A statement of findings is a clear and concise statement of fact evidenced in the record or conclusions that readily can be deduced from the evidence of record. Each finding must be supported by substantial evidence that is defined as such evidence as a reasonable mind can accept as adequate to support a conclusion.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Statement of reasons.</I> A reason is a clear and concise statement of law, regulation, policies, or guidelines relating to the statement of findings that provides the basis for the recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final decision</I>—(1) <I>Director, OCHAMPUS.</I> The recommended decision shall be reviewed by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, who shall adopt or reject the recommended decision or refer the recommended decision for review by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs). The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, normally will take action with regard to the recommended decision within 90 days of receipt of the recommended decision or receipt of the revised recommended decision following a remand order to the Hearing Officer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final action.</I> If the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, concurs in the recommended decision, no further agency action is required and the recommended decision, as adopted by the Director, OCHAMPUS, is the final agency decision in the appeal. In the case of rejection, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall state the reason for disagreement with the recommended decision and the underlying facts supporting such disagreement. In these circumstances, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may have a final decision prepared based on the record, or may remand the matter to the Hearing Officer for appropriate action. In the latter instance, the Hearing Officer shall take appropriate action and submit a new recommended decision within 60 days of receipt of the remand order. The decision by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, concerning a case arising under the procedures of this section, shall be the final agency decision and the final decision shall be sent by certified mail to the appealing party or parties. A final agency decision under paragraph (e)(1) of this section will not be relied on, used, or cited as precedent by the Department of Defense in the administration of CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Referral for review by ASD(HA).</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may refer a hearing case to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) when the hearing involves the resolution of CHAMPUS policy and issuance of a final decision which may be relied on, used, or cited as precedent in the administration of CHAMPUS. In such a circumstance, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall forward the recommended decision, together with the recommendation of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, regarding disposition of the hearing case.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ASD(HA).</I> The ASD(HA), or a designee, after reviewing a case arising under the procedures of this section may issue a final decision based on the record in the hearing case or remand the case to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, for appropriate action. A decision issued by the ASD(HA), or a designee, shall be the final agency decision in the appeal and a copy of the final decision shall be sent by certified mail to the appealing party or parties. A final decision of the ASD(HA), or a designee, issued under this paragraph (e)(2) may be relied on, used, or cited as precedent in the administration of CHAMPUS. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 33007, Sept. 1, 1987; 54 FR 25255, June 14, 1989; 55 FR 43341, Nov. 16, 1990; 56 FR 59880, Nov. 26, 1991; 66 FR 40607, Aug. 3, 2001; 68 FR 11973, Mar. 13, 2003; 68 FR 23033, Apr. 30, 2003; 68 FR 32362, May 30, 2003; 69 FR 6920, Feb. 12, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.11   Overpayments recovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Actions to recover overpayments arise when the government has a right to recover money, funds, or property from any person, partnership, association, corporation, governmental body or other legal entity, foreign or domestic, except another Federal agency, because of an erroneous payment of benefits under both CHAMPUS and the TRICARE program under this part. The term “Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services” (CHAMPUS) is defined in 10 U.S.C. 1072(2), referred to as the CHAMPUS basic program. Prior to January 1, 2018, the term “TRICARE program” referred to the triple-option of health benefits known as TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Extra, and TRICARE Standard. Specifically, TRICARE Standard was the TRICARE program under which the basic program of health care benefits generally referred to as CHAMPUS was made available to eligible beneficiaries under this Part 199. Effective January 1, 2018, the term “TRICARE program” is defined in 10 U.S.C. 1072(2) and includes TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Select and TRICARE for Life. It is the purpose of this section to prescribe procedures for investigation, determination, assertion, collection, compromise, waiver and termination of claims in favor of the United States for erroneous benefit payments arising out of the administration CHAMPUS and the TRICARE program. For the purpose of this section, references herein to TRICARE beneficiaries, claims, benefits, payments, or appeals shall include CHAMPUS beneficiaries, claims, benefits, payments, or appeals. A claim against several joint debtors arising from a single incident or transaction is considered one claim. The Director, or a designee, may pursue collection against all joint debtors and is not required to allocate the burden of payment between debtors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>Federal statutory authority.</I> The Federal Claims Collection Act, 31 U.S.C. 3701, <I>et seq.,</I> as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982 and the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (DCIA), provides the basic authority under which claims may be asserted pursuant to this section. The DCIA is implemented by the Federal Claims Collection Standards, joint regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury (Treasury) and the Department of Justice (DOJ) (31 CFR Parts 900-904), that prescribe government-wide standards for administrative collection, offset, compromise, suspension, or termination of agency collection action, disclosure of debt information to credit reporting agencies, referral of debts to private collection contractors for resolution, and referral to the Department of Justice for litigation to collect debts owed the Federal government. The regulations under this part are also issued under Treasury regulations implementing the DCIA (31 CFR part 285) and related statutes and regulations governing the offset of Federal salaries (5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K), administrative offset (31 U.S.C. 3716; 31 CFR part 285, subpart A); administrative offset of tax refunds (31 U.S.C. 3720A) and offset of military pay (37 U.S.C. 1007(c); Volume 7A, Chapter 50 and Volume 7B, Chapter 28 of the Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation, DOD 7000.14-R 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (DoDFMR)). 
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<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Other authority.</I> Federal claims may arise under authorities other than the federal statutes, referenced above. These include, but are not limited to:
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<P>(i) State worker's compensation laws.
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<P>(ii) State hospital lien laws.
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<P>(iii) State no-fault automobile statutes.
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<P>(iv) Contract rights under terms of insurance policies.
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<P>(c) <I>Policy.</I> The Director, TMA, or a designee, shall aggressively collect all debts arising out of its activities. Claims arising out of any incident, which has or probably will generate a claim in favor of the government, will not be compromised, except as otherwise provided in this section, nor will any person not authorized to take final action on the government's claim, compromise or terminate collection action. Title 28 U.S.C. 2415-2416 establishes a statute of limitation applicable to the government where previously neither limitations nor latches were available as a defense. Claims falling within the provisions of this statute will be referred to the Department of Justice without attempting administrative collection action, if such action cannot be accomplished in sufficient time to preclude the running of the statute of limitations.
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<P>(d) <I>Appealability.</I> This section describes the procedures to be followed in the recovery and collection of federal claims in favor of the United States arising from the operation of TRICARE. Actions taken under this section are not initial determinations for the purpose of the appeal procedures of § 199.10 of this part. However, the proper exercise of the right to appeal benefit or provider status determinations under the procedures set forth in § 199.10 of this part may affect the processing of federal claims arising under this section. Those appeal procedures afford a TRICARE beneficiary or participating provider an opportunity for administrative appellate review in cases in which benefits have been denied and in which there is an appealable issue. For example, a TRICARE contractor may erroneously make payment for services, which are excluded as TRICARE benefits because they are determined to be not medically necessary. In that event, the contractor will initiate recoupment action, and at the same time, the contractor will offer an administrative appeal as provided in § 199.10 of this part on the medical necessity issue raised by the adverse benefit determination. The recoupment action and the administrative appeal are separate actions. However, in an appropriate case, the pendency of the appeal may provide a basis for the suspension of collection in the recoupment case. If an appeal were resolved entirely in favor of the appealing party, it would provide a basis for the termination of collection action in the recoupment case.
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<P>(e) <I>Delegation.</I> Subject to the limitations imposed by law or contained in this section, the authority to assert, settle, and compromise or to suspend or terminate collection action arising on claims under the Federal Claims Collection Act has been delegated to the Director, TMA, or a designee.
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<P>(f) <I>Recoupment of erroneous payments.</I> (1) Erroneous payments are expenditures of government funds, which are not authorized by law or this part. Examples which are sometimes encountered in the administration of TRICARE include mathematical errors, payment for care provided to an ineligible person, payment for care which is not an authorized benefit, payment for duplicate claims, incorrect application of the deductible or co-payment or payment for services which were not medically necessary. Claims in favor of the government arising as the result of the filing of false TRICARE claims or other fraud fall under the cognizance of the Department of Justice. Consequently, procedures in this section apply to such claims only when specifically authorized or directed by the Department of Justice. (<I>See</I> 31 CFR 900.3.) Due to the nature of contractual agreements between network providers and TRICARE prime contractors, recoupment procedures may be modified or adapted to conform to network agreements. The provisions of § 199.11 shall apply if recoupment under the network agreements is not successful.
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<P>(2) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Paragraph (f) of this section and the paragraphs following contain requirements and procedures for the assertion, collection or compromise of, and the suspension or termination of collection action on claims for erroneous payments against a sponsor, patient, beneficiary, provider, physician or other supplier of products or services under TRICARE.
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<P>(ii) <I>Debtor defined.</I> As used herein, “debtor” means a sponsor, beneficiary, provider, physician, other supplier of services or supplies, or any other person who for any reason has been erroneously paid under TRICARE. It includes an individual, partnership, corporation, professional corporation or association, estate, trust or any other legal entity.
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<P>(iii) <I>Delinquency defined.</I> A debt is “delinquent” if it has not been paid by the date specified in the initial written demand for payment (that is, the initial written notification) or other applicable contractual agreement, unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by the date specified in the initial written demand for payment. A debt is considered delinquent if at any time after entering into a repayment agreement, the debtor fails to satisfy any obligations under that agreement.
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<P>(3) Claims arising from erroneous TRICARE payments in situations where the beneficiary has entitlement to an insurance, medical service, health and medical plan, including any plan offered by a third party payer as defined in 10 U.S.C. 1095(h)(1) or other government program, except in the case of a plan administered under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396, <I>et seq.</I>) through employment, by law, through membership in an organization, or as a student, or through the purchase of a private insurance or health plan, shall be recouped following the procedures in paragraph (f) of this section. If the other plan has not made payment to the beneficiary or provider, the contractor shall first attempt to recover the overpayment from the other plan through the contractor's coordination of benefits procedures. If the overpayment cannot be recovered from the other plan, or if the other plan has made payment, the overpayment will be recovered from the party that received the erroneous payment from TRICARE. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require recoupment from any sponsor, beneficiary, provider, supplier and/or the Medicare Program under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act in the event of a retroactive determination of entitlement to SSDI and Medicare Part A coverage made by the Social Security Administration as discussed in § 199.8(d) of this part.
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<P>(4) <I>Claim denials due to clarification or change.</I> In those instances where claim review results in the denial of benefits previously provided, but now denied due to a change, clarification or interpretation of the public law or this part, no recoupment action need be taken to recover funds expended prior to the effective date of such change, clarification or interpretation.
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<P>(5) <I>Good faith payment.</I> (i) The Department of Defense, through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), is responsible for establishing and maintaining a file listing of persons eligible to receive benefits under TRICARE. However, it is the responsibility of the Uniformed Services to provide eligible TRICARE beneficiaries with accurate and appropriate means of identification. When sources of civilian medical care exercise reasonable care and precaution identifying persons claiming to be eligible TRICARE beneficiaries, and furnish otherwise covered services and supplies to such persons in good faith, TRICARE benefits may be paid subject to prior approval by the Director, TMA, or a designee, notwithstanding the fact that the person receiving the services and supplies is subsequently determined to be ineligible for benefits. Good faith payments will not be authorized for services and supplies provided by a civilian source of medical care because of its own careless identification procedures.
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<P>(ii) When it is determined that a person was not a TRICARE beneficiary, the TRICARE contractor and the civilian source of medical care are expected to make all reasonable efforts to obtain payment or to recoup the amount of the good faith payment from the person who erroneously claimed to be the TRICARE beneficiary. Recoupment of good faith payments initiated by the TRICARE contractor will be processed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section.
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<P>(6) <I>Recoupment procedures.</I> (i) <I>Initial action.</I> When an erroneous payment is discovered, the TRICARE contractor normally will be required to take the initial action to effect recoupment. Such actions will be in accordance with the provisions of this part and the TRICARE contracts and will include a demand (or demands) for refund or an offset against any other TRICARE payment(s) becoming due the debtor. When the efforts of the TRICARE contractor to effect recoupment are not successful within a reasonable time, recoupment cases will be referred to the Office of General Counsel, TMA, for further action in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. All requests to debtors for refund or notices of intent to offset shall be in writing.
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<P>(ii) <I>Demand for payment.</I> Written demand(s) for payment shall inform the debtor of the following:
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<P>(A) The basis for and amount of the debt and the consequences of failing to cooperate to resolve the debt;
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<P>(B) The right to inspect and copy TRICARE records pertaining to the debt;
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<P>(C) The opportunity to request an administrative review by the TRICARE contractor; and that such a request must be received by the TRICARE contractor within 90 days from the date of the initial demand letter;
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<P>(D) That payment of the debt is due within 30 days from the date of the initial demand notification;
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<P>(E) That interest will be assessed on the debt at the Treasury Current Value of Funds rate, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, and will begin to accrue on the date of the initial demand letter; and that interest will be waived on the debt, or any portion thereof, which is paid within 30 days from the date of the initial demand notification letter;
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<P>(F) That administrative costs and penalties will be charged pursuant to 31 CFR 901.9;
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<P>(G) That collection by offset against current or subsequent claims or other amounts payable from the government may be taken;
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<P>(H) The opportunity to enter into a written agreement to repay the debt;
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<P>(I) The name, address, and phone number of a contact person or office that the debtor may contact regarding the debt.
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<P>(iii) A minimum of one demand letter is required. However, the specific content, timing and number of demand letters may be tailored to the type and amount of the debt, and the debtor's response, if any. Contractors' demand letters must be mailed or hand-delivered on the same date they are dated.
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<P>(iv) The initial or subsequent demand letters may also inform the debtor of the requirement to report delinquent debts to credit reporting agencies and to collection agencies, the requirement to refer debts to the Treasury Offset Program for offset from Federal income tax refunds and other amounts payable by the Government, offset from state payments, the requirement to refer debts to Treasury for collection and TRICARE policies concerning the referral of delinquent debts to the Department of Justice for enforced collection action. The initial or subsequent demand letter may also inform the debtor of TRICARE policies concerning waiver. When necessary to protect the Government's interest (for example to prevent the running of a statute of limitations), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions under this regulation, including referral to the Department of Justice for litigation. There should be no undue delay in responding to any communication received from the debtor. Responses to communications from debtors should be made within 30 days of receipt whenever feasible. If prior to the initiation of the demand process or at any time during or after completion of the demand process, the Director, TMA, or a designee, determines to pursue or is required to pursue offset, the procedures applicable to administrative offset, found at paragraph (f)(6)(v) of this section, must be followed. If it appears that initial collection efforts are not productive or if immediate legal action on the claim appears necessary, the claim shall be referred promptly by the contractor to the Office of General Counsel, TMA.
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<P>(v) <I>Collection by administrative offset.</I> Collections by offset will be undertaken administratively in every instance when feasible. Collections may be taken by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the common law or other applicable statutory authority. No collection by offset may be undertaken unless the debtor has been sent a written demand for payment, including the procedural safeguards described in paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section, unless the failure to take the offset would substantially prejudice the Government's ability to collect the debt, and the time before payment is to be made does not reasonably permit the time for sending written notice. Such prior offset must be promptly followed by sending a written notice and affording the debtor the opportunity for a review by the TRICARE contractor. Examples of erroneous payments include, but are not limited to, claims submitted by individuals ineligible for TRICARE benefits, claims submitted for non-covered services or supplies, claims for which payments by another insurance or health plan reduce TRICARE liability, and from claims made from participating providers in which payment was initially erroneously made to the beneficiary. The resolution of recoupment claims rarely involves issues of credibility or veracity and a review of the written record is ordinarily an adequate means to correct prior mistakes. For this reason, the pre-offset oral hearing requirements of the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR 901.3(e) do not apply to the recoupment of erroneous TRICARE payments. However, in instances where an oral hearing is not required, the debtor will be afforded an administrative review if the TRICARE contractor receives a written request for an administrative review within 90 days from the date of the initial demand letter. The appeals procedures described in § 199.10 of this part, afford a TRICARE beneficiary or participating provider an opportunity for an administrative appellate review, including under certain circumstances, the right to an oral hearing before a hearing officer when an appealable issue exists. TRICARE contractors may take administrative action to offset erroneous payments against other current TRICARE payments owing a debtor. Payments on the claims of a debtor pending at or filed subsequent to the time collection action is initiated should be suspended pending the outcome of the collection action so that these funds will be available for offset. All or part of a debt may be offset depending on the amount available for offset. Any requests for offset received from other agencies and garnishment orders issued by courts of competent jurisdiction will be forwarded to the Office of General Counsel, TMA. Unless otherwise provided by law, administrative offset of payments under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be conducted more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the TRICARE official or officials charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. This limitation does not apply to debts reduced to judgment. This section does not apply to debts arising under the Social Security Act, except as provided in 42 U.S.C. 404, payments made under the Social Security Act, except as provided for in 31 U.S.C. 3716(c), debts arising under, or payments made under, the Internal Revenue Code, except for offset of tax refunds or tariff laws of the United States; offsets against Federal salaries to the extent these standards are inconsistent with regulations published to implement such offsets under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716; offsets under 31 U.S.C. 3728 against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States; offset or recoupment under common law, state law, or federal statutes specifically prohibiting offset or recoupment of particular types of debts or offsets in the course of judicial proceedings, including bankruptcy.
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<P>(A) <I>Referral for centralized administrative offset.</I> When cost-effective, legally enforceable non-tax debts delinquent over 180 days that are eligible for collection through administrative offset shall be referred to Treasury for administrative offset, unless otherwise exempted from referral. Referrals shall include certification that the debt is past due and legally enforceable and that TMA has complied with all due process requirements of the statute-authorizing offset. Administrative offset, including administrative offset against tax refunds due debtors under 26 U.S.C. 6402, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3720A, shall be effected through referral for centralized administrative offset, after debtors have been afforded at least sixty (60) days notice required in paragraph (f)(6) of this section. Salary offsets shall be effected through referral for centralized administrative offset, after debtors have been afforded due process required by 5 U.S.C. 5514, in accordance with 31 CFR 285.7. Referrals for salary offset shall include certification that the debts are past due, legally enforceable debts and that TMA has complied with all due process requirements under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and applicable agency regulations. The Treasury, Financial Management Service (FMS) may waive the salary offset certification requirement set forth in 31 CFR 285.7, as a prerequisite to submitting the debt to FMS for offset from other payment types. If FMS waives the certification requirement, before an offset occurs, TMA will provide the employee with the notice and opportunity for a hearing as required by 5 U.S.C. 5514 and applicable regulations, and will certify to FMS that the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and applicable agency regulations have been met. TMA is not required to duplicate notice and administrative review or salary offset hearing opportunities before referring debts for centralized administrative offset when the debtor has been previously given them.
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<P>(B) <I>Referral for non-centralized administrative offset.</I> Unless otherwise prohibited by law, when centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate, past due legally enforceable non-tax-delinquent debts that are eligible for referral may be collected through non-centralized administrative offset through a request directly to the payment-authorizing agency. Referrals shall include certification that the debts are past due and that the agency has complied with due process requirements under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) or other applicable authority and applicable agency regulations concerning administrative offset. Generally, non-centralized administrative offsets will be made on an <I>ad hoc</I> case-by-case basis, in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payments to the debtor.
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<P>(vi) <I>Collection by transfer of debts to Treasury or a Treasury-designated debt collection center for collection through cross servicing.</I> (A) The Director, TMA or a designee, is required to transfer legally enforceable non-tax debts that are delinquent 180 days or more to Treasury for collection through cross-servicing (31 U.S.C. 3711(g); 31 CFR 285.12.) Debts referred or transferred to Treasury or Treasury-designated debt collection centers shall be serviced, collected, or compromised, or the collection action will be suspended or terminated, in accordance with the statutory requirements and authorities applicable to the collection of such debts. Agencies operating Treasury-designated debt collection centers are authorized to charge a fee for services rendered regarding referred or transferred debts. This fee may be paid out of amounts collected and may be added to the debt as an administrative cost. Referrals will include certification that the debts transferred are valid, legally enforceable debts, that there are no legal bars to collection and that the agency has complied with all prerequisites to a particular collection action under the applicable laws, regulations or policies, unless the agency and Treasury agree that Treasury will do so on behalf of the agency.
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<P>(B) The requirement of paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to any debt that:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in litigation or foreclosure.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Will be disposed of under an approved asset sale program.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Has been referred to a private collection contractor for a period of time acceptable to Treasury.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Will be collected under internal offset procedures within 3 years after the debt first became delinquent.
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Is exempt from this requirement based on a determination by the Secretary of the Treasury that exemption for a certain class of debt is in the best interest of the United States.
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<P>(vii) <I>Collection by salary offset.</I> When a debtor is a member of the military service or a retired member and collection by offset against other TRICARE payments due the debtor cannot be accomplished, and there have been no positive responses to a demand for payment, the Director, TMA, or a designee, may refer the debt for offset from the debtor's pay account pursuant to 37 U.S.C. 1007(c), as implemented by Volume 7A, Chapter 50 and Volume 7B, Chapter 28 of the DoDFMR. Collection from a Federal employee may be effected through salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514.
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<P>(A) For collections by salary offset the Director, TMA, or designee, will issue written notification, as required by 5 CFR 550.1104(d) at least 30 days before any offsets are taken. In addition, the notification will advise the employee that if he or she retires, resigns or his or her employment ends before collection of the debt is completed, collection may be made from subsequent payments of any nature due from the United States (e.g., final salary payment, lump-sum leave under 31 U.S.C. 3716 due the employee as of date of separation.) A debtor's involuntary payment of all or part of a debt being collected will not be construed as a waiver of any rights the debtor may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary or the employee's paying agency is directed by an administrative or judicial order to refund amounts deducted from his or her current pay. No interest will be paid on amounts waived or determined not to be owed unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.
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<P>(B) <I>Petition for hearing.</I> The notice of the proposed offset will advise the debtor of his or her right to petition for a hearing. The petition for hearing must be signed by the debtor or his or her representative and must state whether he or she is contesting debt validity, debt amount and/or the terms of the proposed offset schedule. It must explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence and witnesses, if any (in the case of an oral hearing and a summary of their anticipated testimony), which the debtor believes support his or her position, and include any supporting documentation. If contesting the terms of the proposed offset schedule, the debtor must provide financial information including a completed Department of Justice Financial Statement of Debtor form (OBD-500 or other form prescribed by DOJ), including specific details concerning income and expenses of the employee, his or her spouse and dependents for 1-year period preceding the debt notification and projected income and expenses for the proposed offset period and a statement of the reason why the debtor believes the salary offset schedule will impose extreme financial hardship. Upon receipt of the petition for hearing, the Director, TMA, or a designee, will complete reconsideration. If the Director, TMA, or a designee determines that the debt amount is not owed, that a less amount is owed, or that the terms of the employee's proposed offset schedule are acceptable, it will advise the debtor and request that the employee accept the results of the reconsideration in lieu of a hearing. If the employee declines to accept the results of reconsideration in lieu of a hearing, the debtor will be afforded a hearing. Ordinarily, a petition for hearing and required submissions that are not timely filed, shall be accepted after expiration of the deadline provided in the notice of the proposed offset, only when the debtor can demonstrate to the Director, TMA, or a designee, that the timely filing of the request was not feasible due to extraordinary circumstances over which the appealing party had no practical control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless he or she was otherwise aware of it). Each request for an exception to the timely filing requirement will be considered on its own merits. The decision of the Director, TMA, or a designee, on a request for an exception to the timely filing requirement shall be final.
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<P>(C) <I>Extreme financial hardship.</I> The maximum authorized amount that may be collected through involuntary salary offset is the lesser of 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay or the full amount of the debt. An employee who has petitioned for a hearing may assert that the maximum allowable rate of involuntary offset produces extreme financial hardship. An offset produces an extreme financial hardship if the offset prevents the employee from meeting the costs necessarily incurred for the essential expenses of the employee, employee's spouse and dependents. These essential expenses include costs incurred for food, housing, necessary public utilities, clothing, transportation and medical care. In determining whether the offset would prevent the employee from meeting the essential expenses identified above, the following shall be considered:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Income from all sources of the employee, the employee's spouse, and dependents;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The extent to which assets of the employee, employee's spouse and dependents are available to meet the offset and essential subsistence expenses;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether these essential subsistence expenses have been minimized to the greatest extent possible;
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<P>(<I>4</I>) The extent to which the employee or the employee's spouse can borrow money to meet the offset and other essential expenses; and
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<P>(<I>5</I>) The extent to which the employee and the employee's spouse and dependents have other exceptional expenses that should be taken into account and whether these expenses have been minimized.
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<P>(D) <I>Form and content of hearings.</I> The resolution of recoupment claims rarely involves issues of credibility or veracity and a review of the written record is ordinarily an adequate means to determine the validity or amount of the debt and/or the terms of a proposed offset schedule. The Director, TMA, or a designee, will determine whether an oral hearing is required. A debtor who has petitioned for a hearing, but who is not entitled to an oral hearing will be given an administrative hearing, based on the written documentation submitted by the debtor and the Director, TMA, or a designee. If the Director, TMA, or a designee, determines that the debtor should be afforded the opportunity for an oral hearing, the debtor may elect to have a hearing based on the written record in lieu of an oral hearing. The Director, TMA, or a designee, will provide the debtor (or his representative) notification of the time, date and location of the oral hearing to be held if the debtor has been afforded an oral hearing. Copies of records documenting the debt will be provided to the debtor or his representative (if they have not been previously provided), at least 3 calendar days prior to the date of the oral hearing. At oral hearings, the only evidence permitted, except oral testimony, will be that which was previously submitted as pre-hearing submissions. At oral hearings, the debtor may not raise any issues not previously raised with TMA. In the absence of good cause shown, a debtor who fails to appear at an oral hearing will be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing and salary offset may be initiated.
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<P>(E) <I>Costs for attendance at oral hearings.</I> Debtors and their witnesses will bear their own costs for attendance at oral hearings.
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<P>(F) <I>Hearing official's decision.</I> The Hearing Official's decision will be in writing and will identify the documentation reviewed. It will indicate the amount of debt that he or she determined is valid and shall state the amount of the offset and the estimated duration of the offset. The determination of a hearing official designated under this section is considered an official certification regarding the existence and amount of the debt and/or the terms of the proposed offset schedule for the purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. The Hearing Official's decision must be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days from the date the petition for hearing is received by the Office of General Counsel, TMA, unless the debtor requests, and the Hearing Official grants a delay in the proceedings. If a hearing official determines that the debt may not be collected by salary offset, but the Director, TMA, or a designee, finds the debt is still valid, the Director, TMA or a designee, may seek collection through other means, including but not limited to, offset from other payments due from the United States.
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<P>(viii) [Reserved]
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<P>(ix) <I>Collection of installments.</I> Debts, including interest, penalty and administrative costs shall be collected in one lump sum whenever possible. However, when the debtor is financially unable to pay the debt in one lump sum, the TRICARE contractor or the Director, TMA, or designee, may accept payment in installments. Debtors claiming that lump sum payment will create financial hardship may be required to complete a Department of Justice Financial Statement of Debtor form or provide other financial information that will permit TMA to verify such representations. TMA may also obtain credit reports to assess installment requests. Normally, debtors will make installment payments on a monthly basis. Installment payment shall bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. Except when a debtor can demonstrate financial hardship or another reasonable cause exists, installment payments should be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the debt in 3 years or less. (31 CFR 901.8(b)). Normally, installment payments of $75 or less will not be accepted unless the debtor demonstrates financial hardship. Any installment agreement with a debtor in which the total amount of deferred installments will exceed $750, should normally include an executed promissory agreement. Copies of installment agreements will be retained in the contractor's or TMA, Office of General Counsel's files.
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<P>(x) <I>Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</I> Title 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR 901.9, require the assessment of interest, penalty and administrative costs on delinquent debts. Interest shall accrue from the date the initial debt notification is mailed to the debtor. The rate of interest assessed shall be the rate of the current value of funds to the United States Treasury (the Treasury tax and loan account rate). The collection of interest on the debt or any portion of the debt, which is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest begins to accrue, shall be waived. The Director, TMA, or designee, may extend this 30-day period on a case-by-case basis, if it reasonably determines that such action is appropriate. The rate of interest as initially assessed shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness; except that where the debtor has defaulted on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, a new interest rate may be set which reflects the current value of funds to the Treasury at the time the new agreement is executed. Interest shall not be compounded; that is, interest shall not be charged on interest, penalties, or administrative costs required by this section. However, if a debtor defaults on a previous repayment agreement, charges that accrued but were not collected under the defaulted agreement, shall be added to the principal under the new repayment agreement. The collection of interest, penalties and administrative costs may be waived in whole or in part as a part of the compromise of a debt as provided in paragraph (g) of this section. In addition, the Director, TMA, or designee may waive in whole or in part, the collection of interest, penalties, or administrative costs assessed herein if he or she determines that collection would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interest of the United States. Some situations in which a waiver may be appropriate include:
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<P>(A) Waiver of interest consistent with 31 CFR 903.2(c)(2) in connection with a suspension of collection when a TRICARE appeal is pending under § 199.10 of this part where there is a substantial issue of fact in dispute.
</P>
<P>(B) Waiver of interest where the original debt arose through no fault or lack of good faith on the part of the debtor and the collection of interest would impose a financial hardship or burden on the debtor. Some examples in which such a waiver would be appropriate include: A debt arising when a TRICARE beneficiary in good faith files and is paid for a claim for medical services or supplies, which are later determined not to be covered benefits, or a debt arising when a TRICARE beneficiary is overpaid as the result of a calculation error on the part of the TRICARE contractor or TMA.
</P>
<P>(C) Waiver of interest where there has been an agreement to repay a debt in installments, there is no indication of fault or lack of good faith on the part of the debtor, and the amount of interest is so large in relation to the size of the installments that the debtor can reasonably afford to pay, that it is likely the debt will never be repaid in full. When a debt is paid in installments, the installment payments first will be applied to the payment of outstanding penalty and administrative cost charges, second, to accrued interest and then to principal. Administrative costs incurred as the result of a debt becoming delinquent (as defined in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section) shall be assessed against a debtor. These administrative costs represent the additional costs incurred in processing and handling the debt because it became delinquent. The calculation of administrative costs should be based upon cost analysis establishing an average of actual additional costs incurred in processing and handling claims against other debtors in similar stages of delinquency. A penalty charge, not exceeding six percent a year, shall be assessed on the amount due on a debt that is delinquent for more than 90 days. This charge, which need not be calculated until the 91st day of delinquency, shall accrue from the date that the debt became delinquent.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Referral to private collection agencies.</I> TMA shall use government-wide debt collection contracts to obtain debt collection services provided by private contractors in accordance with 31 CFR 901.5(b).
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Reporting delinquent debts to credit reporting agencies.</I> Delinquent consumer debts shall be reported to credit reporting agencies. Delinquent debts are debts which are not paid or for which satisfactory payment arrangements are not made by the due date specified in the initial debt notification letter, or those for which the debtor has entered into a written payment agreement and installment payments are past due 30 days or longer. Such referrals shall comply with the Bankruptcy Code and the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended. The provisions of the Privacy Act do not apply to credit bureaus (31 CFR 901.4(1)). There is no requirement to duplicate the notice and review opportunities before referring debts to credit bureaus. Debtors will be advised of the specific information to be transmitted (i.e., name, address, and taxpayer identification number, information about the debt). Procedures developed for such referrals must ensure that an accounting of the disclosures shall be kept which is available to the debtor; that the credit reporting agencies are provided with corrections and annotations of disagreements of the debtor; and that reasonable efforts are made to ensure that the information to be reported is accurate, complete, timely and relevant. When requested by a credit-reporting agency, verification of the information disclosed will be provided promptly. Once a claim has been reviewed and determined to be valid, a complete explanation of the claim will be given the debtor. When the claim is overdue, the individual will be notified in writing that payment is overdue; that within not less than 60 days, disclosure of the claim shall be made to a consumer reporting agency unless satisfactory payment arrangements are made, or unless the debtor requests an administrative review and demonstrates some basis on which the debt is legitimately disputed; and of the specific information to be disclosed to the consumer reporting agency. The information to be disclosed to the credit reporting agency will be limited to information necessary to establish the identity of the debtor, including name, address and taxpayer identification number; the amount, status and history of the claim; and the agency or program under which the claim arose. Reasonable action will be taken to locate an individual for whom a current address is not available. The requirements of this section do not apply to commercial debts, although commercial debts shall be reported to commercial credit bureaus. Treasury will report debts transferred to it for collection to credit reporting agencies on behalf of the Director, TMA, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Use and disclosure of mailing addresses.</I> In attempting to locate a debtor in order to collect or compromise a debt under this section, the Director, TMA, or a designee, may send a written request to the Secretary of the Treasury, or a designee, for current address information from records of the Internal Revenue Service. TMA may disclose mailing addresses obtained under this authority to other agencies and to collection agencies for collection purposes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compromise, suspension or termination of collection actions arising under the Federal Claims Collection Act</I>—(1) <I>Basic considerations.</I> Federal claims against the debtor and in favor of the United States arising out of the administration of TRICARE may be compromised or collection action taken thereon may be suspended or terminated in compliance with the Federal Claims Collection Act, 31 U.S.C. 3711, as implemented by the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR parts 900-904. The provisions concerning compromise, suspension or termination of collection activity pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3711 apply to debts, which do not exceed $100,000 or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any. If, after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections, the principal amount of a debt exceeds $100,000, or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General, exclusive of interest, penalties and administrative costs, the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with the DOJ.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authority.</I> TRICARE contractors are not authorized to compromise or to suspend or terminate collection action on TRICARE claims. Only the Director, TMA, or designee or Uniformed Services claims officers acting under the provisions of their own regulations are so authorized.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Basis for compromise.</I> A compromise should be for an amount that bears a reasonable relation to the amount that can be recovered by enforced collection procedures, with regard to the exemptions available to the debtor and the time collection will take. A claim may be compromised hereunder if the government cannot collect the full amount if:
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor or the estate of a debtor does not have the present or prospective ability to pay the full amount within a reasonable time;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost of collecting the claim does not justify enforced collection of the full amount; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The government is unable to enforce collection of the full amount within a reasonable time by enforced collection proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(iv) There is significant doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in court for the full amount claimed; or
</P>
<P>(v) The cost of collecting the claim does not justify enforced collection of the full amount.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Basis for suspension.</I> Collection action may be suspended for the following reasons if future collection action may be sufficiently productive to justify periodic review and action on the claim, considering its size and the amount, which may be realized thereon:
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor cannot be located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The debtor's financial condition is expected to improve; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The debtor is unable to make payments on the government's claim or effect a compromise at the time, but the debtor's future prospects justify retention of the claim for periodic review and action and;
</P>
<P>(A) The applicable statute of limitations has been tolled or started running anew; or
</P>
<P>(B) Future collections can be effected by administrative offset, notwithstanding the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations for litigation of claims with due regard to the 10-year limitation for administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716(e)(1); or
</P>
<P>(C) The debtor agrees to pay interest on the amount of the debt on which collection action will be temporarily suspended and such temporary suspension is likely to enhance the debtor's ability fully to pay the principal amount of the debt with interest at a later date.
</P>
<P>(iv) Consideration may be given by the Director, TMA, or designee to suspend collection action pending action on a request for a review of the government's claim against the debtor or pending an administrative review under § 199.10 of this part of any TRICARE claim or claims directly involved in the government's claim against the debtor. Suspension under this paragraph will be made on a case-by-case basis as to whether:
</P>
<P>(A) There is a reasonable possibility that the debt (in whole or in part) will be found not owing from the debtor;
</P>
<P>(B) The government's interest would be protected if suspension were granted by reasonable assurance that the debt would be recovered if the debtor does not prevail; and
</P>
<P>(C) Collection of the debt will cause undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(5) Collection action may be terminated for one or more of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) TMA cannot collect or enforce collection of any substantial amount through its own efforts or the efforts of others, including consideration of the judicial remedies available to the government, the debtor's future financial prospects, and the exemptions available to the debtor under state and federal law;
</P>
<P>(ii) The debtor cannot be located, and either;
</P>
<P>(iii) The costs of collection are anticipated to exceed the amount recoverable; or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is determined that the debt is legally without merit or enforcement of the debt is barred by any applicable statute of limitations; or
</P>
<P>(v) The debt cannot be substantiated; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The debt against the debtor has been discharged in bankruptcy. Collection activity may be continued subject to the provisions of the Bankruptcy Code, such as collection of any payments provided under a plan of reorganization or in cases when TMA did not receive notice of the bankruptcy proceedings.
</P>
<P>(6) In determining whether the debt should be compromised, suspended or terminated, the responsible TMA collection authority will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Age and health of the debtor; present and potential income; inheritance prospects; the possibility that assets have been concealed or improperly transferred by the debtor; and the availability of assets or income which may be realized by enforced collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicability of exemptions available to a debtor under state or federal law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Uncertainty as to the price which collateral or other property may bring at a forced sale;
</P>
<P>(iv) The probability of proving the claim in court because of legal issues involved or because of a bona fide dispute of the facts; the probability of full or partial recovery; the availability of necessary evidence and related pragmatic considerations. Debtors may be required to provide a completed Department of Justice Financial Statement of Debtor form (OBD-500 or such other form that DOJ shall prescribe) or other financial information that will permit TMA to verify debtors' representations. TMA may obtain credit reports or other financial information to enable it independently to verify debtors' representations.
</P>
<P>(7) Payment of compromised claims. (i) <I>Time and manner.</I> Compromised claims are to be paid in one lump sum whenever possible. However, if installment payments of a compromised claim are necessary, a legally enforceable compromise agreement must be obtained. Payment of the amount that TMA has agreed to accept as a compromise in full settlement of a TRICARE claim must be made within the time and in the manner prescribed in the compromise agreement. Any such compromised amount is not settled until full payment of the compromised amount has been made within the time and manner prescribed. Compromise agreements must provide for the reinstatement of the prior indebtedness, less sums paid thereon, and acceleration of the balance due upon default in the payment of any installment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Failure to pay the compromised amount.</I> Failure of any debtor to make payment as provided in the compromise agreement will have the effect of reinstating the full amount of the original claim, less any amounts paid prior to default.
</P>
<P>(iii) Effect of compromise, waiver, suspension or termination of collection action. Pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 6050P, compromises and terminations of undisputed debts totaling $600 or more for the year will be reported to the Internal Revenue Service in the manner prescribed. Amounts, other than those discharged in bankruptcy, will be included in the debtor's gross income for that year. Any action taken under paragraph (g) of this section regarding the compromise of a federal claim, or waiver or suspension or termination of collection action on a federal claim is not an initial determination for the purposes of the appeal procedures in § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Referrals for collection</I>—(1) <I>Prompt referral.</I> Federal claims of $2,500, exclusive of interest, penalties and administrative costs, or such other amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe on which collection action has been taken under the provisions of this section which cannot be collected or compromised or on which collection action cannot be suspended or terminated as provided herein, will be promptly referred to the Department of Justice for litigation in accordance with 31 CFR part 904. Such referrals shall be made as early as possible consistent with aggressive collection action made by TRICARE contractors and TMA. Referral will be made with sufficient time to bring timely suit against the debtor. Referral shall be made by submission of a completed Claims Collection Litigation Report (CCLR), accompanied by a signed Certificate of Indebtedness. Claims of less than the minimum amount shall not be referred unless litigation to collect such smaller claims is important to ensure compliance with TRICARE's policies or programs; the claim is being referred solely for the purpose of securing a judgment against the debtor, which will be filed as a lien against the debtor's property pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 3201 and returned to the referring office for enforcement; or the debtor has the clear ability to pay the claim and the Government effectively can enforce payment, with due regard for the exemptions available to the debtor under state and Federal law and judicial remedies available to the Government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preservation of evidence.</I> The Director, TMA, or a designee will take such action as is necessary to ensure that all files, records and exhibits on claims referred, hereunder, are properly preserved.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Claims involving indication of fraud, filing of false claims or misrepresentation.</I> Any case in which there is an indication of fraud, the filing of a false claim or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, shall be promptly referred to the Director, TMA, or designee. The Director, TMA, or a designee, will investigate and evaluate the case and either refer the case to an appropriate investigative law enforcement agency or return the claim for other appropriate administrative action, including collection action under this section. Payment on all TRICARE beneficiary or provider claims in which fraud, filing false claims or misrepresentation is suspected will be suspended until the Director, TMA, or designee, authorizes payment or denial of the claims. Collection action on all claims in which a suspicion of fraud, misrepresentation or filing false claims arises, will be suspended pending referral to the appropriate law enforcement agencies by the Director, TMA, or a designee. Only the Department of Justice has authority to compromise, suspend or terminate collection of such debts.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 71547, Nov. 25, 2008, as amended at 77 FR 38176, June 27, 2012; 82 FR 45447, Sept. 29, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.12   Third party recoveries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section deals with the right of the United States to recover from third-parties the costs of medical care furnished to or paid on behalf of TRICARE beneficiaries. These third-parties may be individuals or entities that are liable for tort damages to the injured TRICARE beneficiary or a liability insurance carrier covering the individual or entity. These third-parties may also include other entities who are primarily responsible to pay for the medical care provided to the injured beneficiary by reason of an insurance policy, workers' compensation program or other source of primary payment. 
</P>
<P><I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>Third-party payers.</I> This part implements the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1095b which, in general, allow the Secretary of Defense to authorize certain TRICARE claims to be paid, even though a third-party payer may be primary payer, with authority to collect from the third-party payer the TRICARE costs incurred on behalf of the beneficiary. (See § 199.2 for definition of “third-party payer.”) Therefore, 10 U.S.C. 1095b establishes the statutory obligation of third-party payers to reimburse the United States the costs incurred on behalf of TRICARE beneficiaries who are also covered by the third-party payer's plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal Medical Care Recovery Act</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> In many cases covered by this section, the United States has a right to collect under both 10 U.S.C. 1095b and the Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA), Public Law 87-693 (42 U.S.C. 2651 <I>et. seq.</I>). In such cases, the authority is concurrent and the United States may pursue collection under both statutory authorities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cases involving tort liability.</I> In cases in which the right of the United States to collect from an automobile liability insurance carrier is premised on establishing some tort liability on some third person, matters regarding the determination of such tort liability shall be governed by the same substantive standards as would be applied under the FMCRA including reliance on state law for determinations regarding tort liability. In addition, the provisions of 28 CFR part 43 (Department of Justice regulations pertaining to the FMCRA) shall apply to claims made under the concurrent authority of the FMCRA and 10 U.S.C. 1095b. All other matters and procedures concerning the right of the United States to collect shall, if a claim is made under the concurrent authority of the FMCRA and this section, be governed by 10 U.S.C. 1095b and this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appealability.</I> This section describes the procedures to be followed in the assertion and collection of third-party recovery claims in favor of the United States arising from the operation of TRICARE. Actions taken under this section are not initial determinations for the purpose of the appeal procedures of § 199.10 of this part. However, the proper exercise of the right to appeal benefit or provider status determinations under the procedures set forth in § 199.10 may affect the processing of federal claims arising under this section. Those appeal procedures afford a TRICARE beneficiary or participating provider an opportunity for administrative appellate review in cases in which benefits have been denied and in which there is a significant factual dispute. For example, a TRICARE contractor may deny payment for services that are determined to be excluded as TRICARE benefits because they are found to be not medically necessary. In that event the TRICARE contractor will offer an administrative appeal as provided in § 199.10 of this part on the medical necessity issue raised by the adverse benefit determination. If the care in question results from an accidental injury and if the appeal results in a reversal of the initial determination to deny the benefit, a third-party recovery claim may arise as a result of the appeal decision to pay the benefit. However, in no case is the decision to initiate such a claim itself appealable under § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statutory obligation of third-party payer to pay</I>—(1) <I>Basic Rule.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095b, when the Secretary of Defense authorizes certain TRICARE claims to be paid, even though a third-party payer may be primary payer (as specified under § 199.8(c)(2)), the right to collect from a third-party payer the TRICARE costs incurred on behalf of the beneficiary is the same as exists for the United States to collect from third-party payers the cost of care provided by a facility of the uniformed services under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and part 220 of this title. Therefore the obligation of a third-party payer to pay is to the same extent that the beneficiary would be eligible to receive reimbursement or indemnification from the third-party payer if the beneficiary were to incur the costs on the beneficiary's own behalf. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application of cost shares.</I> If the third-party payer's plan includes a requirement for a deductible or copayment by the beneficiary of the plan, then the amount the United States may collect from the third-party payer is the cost of care incurred on behalf of the beneficiary less the appropriate deductible or copayment amount. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Claim from the United States exclusive.</I> The only way for a third-party payer to satisfy its obligation under 10 U.S.C. 1095b is to pay the United States or authorized representative of the United States. Payment by a third-party payer to the beneficiary does not satisfy 10 U.S.C. 1095b.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assignment of benefits not necessary.</I> The obligation of the third-party to pay is not dependent upon the beneficiary executing an assignment of benefits to the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exclusions impermissible</I>—(1) <I>Statutory requirement.</I> With the same right to collect from third-party payers as exists under 10 U.S.C. 1095(b), no provision of any third-party payer's plan having the effect of excluding from coverage or limiting payment for certain care if that care is provided or paid by the United States shall operate to prevent collection by the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory application.</I> No provision of any third-party payer's plan or program purporting to have the effect of excluding or limiting payment for certain care that would not be given such effect under the standards established in part 220 of this title to implement 10 U.S.C. 1095 shall operate to exclude or limit payment under 10 U.S.C. 1095b or this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records available.</I> When requested, TRICARE contractors or other representatives of the United States shall make available to representatives of any third-party payer from which the United States seeks payment under 10 U.S.C. 1095b, for inspection and review, appropriate health care records (or copies of such records) of individuals for whose care payment is sought. Appropriate records which will be made available are records which document that the TRICARE costs incurred on behalf of beneficiaries which are the subject of the claims for payment under 10 U.S.C. 1095b were incurred as claimed and the health care service were provided in a manner consistent with permissible terms and conditions of the third-party payer's plan. This is the sole purpose for which patient care records will be made available. Records not needed for this purpose will not be made available.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Remedies.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095b, when the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, authorizes certain TRICARE claims to be paid, even though a third-party payer may be primary payer, the right to collect from a third-party payer the TRICARE costs incurred on behalf of the beneficiary is the same as exists for the United States to collect from third-party payers the cost of care provided by a facility of the uniformed services under 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(1) This includes the authority under 10 U.S.C. 1095(e)(1) for the United States to institute and prosecute legal proceedings against a third-party payer to enforce a right of the United States under 10 U.S.C. 1095b and this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This also includes the authority under 10 U.S.C. 1095(e)(2) for an authorized representative of the United States to compromise, settle or waive a claim of the United States under 10 U.S.C. 1095b and this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The authorities provided by the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended (31 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et. seq.</I>) and any implementing regulations (including § 199.11) regarding collection of indebtedness due the United States shall also be available to effect collections pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095b and this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Obligations of beneficiaries.</I> To insure the expeditious and efficient processing of third-party payer claims, any person furnished care and treatment under TRICARE, his or her guardian, personal representative, counsel, estate, dependents or survivors shall be required:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide information regarding coverage by a third-party payer plan and/or the circumstances surrounding an injury to the patient as a conditional precedent of the processing of a TRICARE claim involving possible third-party payer coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) To furnish such additional information as may be requested concerning the circumstances giving rise to the injury or disease for which care and treatment are being given and concerning any action instituted or to be instituted by or against a third person; and,
</P>
<P>(3) To cooperate in the prosecution of all claims and actions by the United States against such third person.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Responsibility for recovery.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, is responsible for insuring that TRICARE claims arising under 10 U.S.C. 1095b and this section (including claims involving the FMCRA) are properly referred to and coordinated with designated claims authorities of the uniformed services who shall assert and recover TRICARE costs incurred on behalf of beneficiaries. Generally, claims arising under this section will be processed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification and referral.</I> In most cases where civilian providers provide medical care and payment for such care has been by a TRICARE contractor, initial identification of potential third-party payers will be by the TRICARE contractor. In such cases, the TRICARE contractor is responsible for conducting a preliminary investigation and referring the case to designated appropriate claims authorities of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Processing TRICARE claims.</I> When the TRICARE contractor initially identifies a claim as involving a potential third-party payer, it shall request additional information concerning the circumstances of the injury or disease and/or the identify of any potential third-party payer from the beneficiary or other responsible party unless adequate information is submitted with the claim. The TRICARE claim will be suspended and no payment issued pending receipt of the requested information. If the requested information is not received, the claim will be denied. A TRICARE beneficiary may expedite the processing of his or her TRICARE claim by submitting appropriate information with the first claim for treatment of an accidental injury. Third-party payer information normally is required only once concerning any single accidental injury on episode of care. Once the third-party payer information pertaining to a single incident or episode of care is received, subsequent claims associated with the same incident or episode of care may be processed to payment in the usual manner. If, however, the requested third-party payer information is not received, subsequent claims involving the same incident or episode of care will be suspended or denied as stated above.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ascertaining total potential liability.</I> It is essential that the appropriate claims responsible for asserting the claim against the third-party payer receive from the TRICARE contractor a report of all amounts expended by the United States for care resulting from the incident upon which potential liability in the third party is based (including amounts paid by TRICARE for both inpatient and outpatient care). Prior to assertion and final settlement of a claim, it will be necessary for the responsible claims authority to secure from the TRICARE contractor updated information to insure that all amounts expended under TRICARE are included in the government's claim. It is equally important that information on future medical payments be obtained through the investigative process and included as a part of the government's claim. No TRICARE-related claim will be settled, compromised or waived without full consideration being given to the possible future medical payment aspects of the individual case.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1079a, all refunds and other amounts collected in the administration of TRICARE shall be credited to the appropriation available for that program for the fiscal year in which the refund or amount is collected. Therefore, the Department of Defense requires an annual report stating the number and dollar amount of claims asserted against, and the number and dollar amount of recoveries from third-party payers (including FMCRA recoveries) arising from the operation of the TRICARE. To facilitate the preparation of this report and to maintain program integrity, the following reporting requirements are established:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>TRICARE contractors.</I> Each TRICARE contractor shall submit on or before January 31 of each year an annual report to the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, covering the 12 months of the previous calendar year. This report shall contain, as a minimum, the number and total dollar of cases of potential third-party payer/FMCRA liability referred to uniformed services claims authorities for further investigation and collection. These figures are to be itemized by the states and uniformed services to which the cases are referred. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uniformed Services.</I> Each uniformed service will submit to the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee, an annual report covering the 12 calendar months of the previous year, setting forth, as a minimum, the number and total dollar amount of cases involving TRICARE payments received from TRICARE contractors, the number and dollar amount of cases involving TRICARE payments received from other sources, and the number and dollar amount of claims actually asserted against, and the dollar amount of recoveries from, third-payment payers or under the FMCRA. The report, itemized by state and foreign claims jurisdictions, shall be provided no later than February 28 of each year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Implementation of the reporting requirements.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee shall issue guidance for implementation of the reporting requirements prescribed by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 6619, Feb. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.13   TRICARE Dental Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> This section prescribes guidelines and policies for the delivery and administration of the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) of the Uniformed Services of the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, the Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Corps. The TDP is a premium based indemnity dental insurance coverage plan that is available to specified categories of individuals who are qualified for these benefits by virtue of their relationship to one of the seven (7) Uniformed Services and their voluntary decision to accept enrollment in the plan and cost share (when applicable) with the Government in the premium cost of the benefits. The TDP is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1076a, TRICARE dental program, and this section was previously titled the “Active Duty Dependents Dental Plan”. The TDP incorporates the former 10 U.S.C. 1076b, Selected Reserve dental insurance, and the section previously titled the “TRICARE Selected Reserve Dental Program”, § 199.21. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability</I>—(i) <I>Geographic scope.</I> (A) The TDP is applicable geographically within the fifty (50) States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands. These areas are collectively referred to as the “CONUS (or Continental United States) service area”. 
</P>
<P>(B) Extension of the TDP to areas outside the CONUS service area. In accordance with the authority cited in 10 U.S.C. 1076a(h), the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA)) may extend the TDP to areas other than those areas specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section for the eligible members and eligible dependents of members of the Uniformed Services. These areas are collectively referred to as the “OCONUS (or outside the Continental United States) service area”. In extending the TDP outside the CONUS service area, the ASD(HA), or designee, is authorized to establish program elements, methods of administration and payment rates and procedures to providers that are different from those in effect for the CONUS service area to the extent the ASD(HA), or designee, determines necessary for the effective and efficient operation of the TDP. This includes provisions for preauthorization of care if the needed services are not available in a Uniformed Service overseas dental treatment facility and payment by the Department of certain cost-shares (or co-payments) and other portions of a provider's billed charges for certain beneficiary categories. Other differences may occur based on limitations in the availability and capabilities of the Uniformed Service overseas dental treatment facility and a particular nation's civilian sector providers in certain areas. These differences include varying licensure and certification requirements of OCONUS providers, Uniformed Service provider selection criteria and local results of provider selection, referral, beneficiary pre-authorization and marketing procedures, and care for beneficiaries residing in distant areas. The Director, Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (OCHAMPUS) shall issue guidance, as necessary, to implement the provisions of paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B). Beneficiaries will be eligible for the same TDP benefits in the OCONUS service area although services may not be available or accessible in all OCONUS countries. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Agency.</I> The provisions of this section apply throughout the Department of Defense (DoD), the United States Coast Guard, the USPHS and NOAA.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusion of benefit services performed in military dental care facilities.</I> Except for emergency treatment, dental care provided outside the United States, services incidental to noncovered services, and services provided under paragraph (a)(2)(iv), dependents of active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve members enrolled in the TDP may not obtain those services that are benefits of the TDP in military dental care facilities, as long as those covered benefits are available for cost-sharing under the TDP. Enrolled dependents of active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve members may continue to obtain noncovered services from military dental care facilities subject to the provisions for space available care.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exception to the exclusion of services performed in military dental care facilities.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Dependents who are 12 years of age or younger and are covered by a dental plan established under this section may be treated by postgraduate dental residents in a dental treatment facility of the uniformed services under a graduate dental education program accredited by the American Dental Association if
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Treatment of pediatric dental patients is necessary in order to satisfy an accreditation standard of the American Dental Association that is applicable to such program, or training in pediatric dental care is necessary for the residents to be professionally qualified to provide dental care for dependent children accompanying members of the uniformed services outside the United States; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of pediatric patients at such facility is insufficient to support satisfaction of the accreditation or professional requirements in pediatric dental care that apply to such programs or students.
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<P>(B) The total number of dependents treated in all facilities of the uniformed services under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) in a fiscal year may not exceed 2,000.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority and responsibility</I>—(i) <I>Legislative authority</I>—(A) <I>Joint regulations.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1076a authorized the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, and the Secretary of Transportation, to prescribe regulations for the administration of the TDP. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Administration.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1073 authorizes the Secretary of Defense to administer the TDP for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps under DoD jurisdiction, the Secretary of Transportation to administer the TDP for the Coast Guard, when the Coast Guard is not operating as a service in the Navy, and the Secretary of Health and Human Services to administer the TDP for the Commissioned Corps of the USPHS and the NOAA Corps. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Organizational delegations and assignments</I>—(A) <I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA)).</I> The Secretary of Defense, by 32 CFR part 367, delegated authority to the ASD(HA) to provide policy guidance, management control, and coordination as required for all DoD health and medical resources and functional areas including health benefit programs. Implementing authority is contained in 32 CFR part 367. For additional implementing authority see § 199.1. Any guidelines or policy necessary for implementation of this § 199.13 shall be issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Evidence of eligibility.</I> DoD, through the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), is responsible for establishing and maintaining a listing of persons eligible to receive benefits under the TDP. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preemption of State and local laws.</I> (i) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103 and section 8025 (fourth proviso) of the Department of Defense Appropriations Act, 1994, DoD has determined that, in the administration of 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including, but not limited to, the assurance of uniform national health programs for Uniformed Service beneficiaries and the operation of such programs at the lowest possible cost to DoD, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States. This determination is applicable to the dental services contracts that implement this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, any State or local law relating to health or dental insurance, prepaid health or dental plans, or other health or dental care delivery or financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with the TDP contract. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to the TDP contract. (However, DoD may, by contract, establish legal obligations on the part of the dental plan contractor to conform with requirements similar or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations.) 
</P>
<P>(iii) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health or dental insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of the statutes identified in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD health services contracts, if those taxes, fees, or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD health and dental services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those applicable to the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Plan funds</I>—(i) <I>Funding sources.</I> The funds used by the TDP are appropriated funds furnished by the Congress through the annual appropriation acts for DoD, the Department of Health and Human Services and the Department of Transportation and funds collected by the Uniformed Services or contractor through payroll deductions or through direct billing as premium shares from beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disposition of funds.</I> TDP funds are paid by the Government (or in the case of direct billing, by the beneficiary) as premiums to an insurer, service, or prepaid dental care organization under a contract negotiated by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, under the provisions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) (48 CFR chapter 1). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Plan.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee provides an insurance policy, service plan, or prepaid contract of benefits in accordance with those prescribed by law and regulation; as interpreted and adjudicated in accord with the policy, service plan, or contract and a dental benefits brochure; and as prescribed by requirements of the dental plan contractor's contract with the Government. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Contracting out.</I> The method of delivery of the TDP is through a competitively procured contract. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, is responsible for negotiating, under provisions of the FAR, a contract for dental benefits insurance or prepayment that includes responsibility for: 
</P>
<P>(A) Development, publication, and enforcement of benefit policy, exclusions, and limitations in compliance with the law, regulation, and the contract provisions; 
</P>
<P>(B) Adjudicating and processing claims; and conducting related supporting activities, such as enrollment, disenrollment, collection of premiums, eligibility verification, provider relations, and beneficiary communications. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Role of Health Benefits Advisor (HBA).</I> The HBA is appointed (generally by the commander of an Uniformed Services medical treatment facility) to serve as an advisor to patients and staff in matters involving the TDP. The HBA may assist beneficiaries in applying for benefits, in the preparation of claims, and in their relations with OCHAMPUS and the dental plan contractor. However, the HBA is not responsible for the TDP's policies and procedures and has no authority to make benefit determinations or obligate the TDP's funds. Advice given to beneficiaries by HBAs as to determination of benefits or level of payment is not binding on OCHAMPUS or the dental plan contractor. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Right to information.</I> As a condition precedent to the provision of benefits hereunder, the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, shall be entitled to receive information from an authorized provider or other person, institution, or organization (including a local, State, or United States Government agency) providing services or supplies to the beneficiary for which claims for benefits are submitted. While establishing enrollment and eligibility, benefits, and benefit utilization and performance reporting information standards, the Government has established and does maintain a system of records for dental information under the TDP. By contract, the Government audits the adequacy and accuracy of the dental plan contractor's system of records and requires access to information and records to meet plan accountabilities, to assist in contractor surveillance and program integrity investigations and to audit OCONUS financial transactions where the Department has a financial stake. Such information and records may relate to attendance, testing, monitoring, examination, or diagnosis of dental disease or conditions; or treatment rendered; or services and supplies furnished to a beneficiary; and shall be necessary for the accurate and efficient administration and payment of benefits under this plan. To assist in claims adjudication, grievance and fraud investigations, and the appeals process, and before an interim or final determination can be made on a claim of benefits, a beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or individual Ready Reserve member must provide particular additional information relevant to the requested determination, when necessary. Failure to provide the requested information may result in denial of the claim and inability to effectively investigate the grievance or fraud or process the appeal. The recipient of such information shall in every case hold such records confidential except when: 
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of such information is necessary to the determination by a provider or the dental plan contractor of beneficiary enrollment or eligibility for coverage of specific services; 
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<P>(ii) Disclosure of such information is authorized specifically by the beneficiary; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure is necessary to permit authorized Government officials to investigate and prosecute criminal actions; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure constitutes a routine use of a routine use of a record which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected. This includes a standard and acceptable business practice commonly used among dental insurers which is consistent with the principle of preserving confidentiality of personal information and detailed clinical data. For example, the release of utilization information for the purpose of determining eligibility for certain services, such as the number of dental prophylaxis procedures performed for a beneficiary, is authorized; 
</P>
<P>(v) Disclosure is pursuant to an order from a court of competent jurisdiction; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Disclosure by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, is for the purpose of determining the applicability of, and implementing the provisions of, other dental benefits coverage or entitlement. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Utilization review and quality assurance.</I> Claims submitted for benefits under the TDP are subject to review by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, for quality of care and appropriate utilization. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, is responsible for appropriate utilization review and quality assurance standards, norms, and criteria consistent with the level of benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For most definitions applicable to the provisions of this section, refer to Sec. 199.2. The following definitions apply only to this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assignment of benefits.</I> Acceptance by a nonparticipating provider of payment directly from the insurer while reserving the right to charge the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member for any remaining amount of the fees for services which exceeds the prevailing fee allowance of the insurer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorized provider.</I> A dentist, dental hygienist, or certified and licensed anesthetist specifically authorized to provide benefits under the TDP in paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beneficiary.</I> A dependent of an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, or a member of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve, who has been enrolled in the TDP, and has been determined to be eligible for benefits, as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Beneficiary liability.</I> The legal obligation of the beneficiary, his or her estate, or responsible family member to pay for the costs of dental care or treatment received. Specifically, for the purposes of services and supplies covered by the TDP, beneficiary liability including cost-sharing amounts or any amount above the network maximum allowable charge where the provider selected by the beneficiary is not a participating provider or a provider within an approved alternative delivery system. In cases where a nonparticipating provider does not accept assignment of benefits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>By report.</I> Dental procedures which are authorized as benefits only in unusual circumstances requiring justification of exceptional conditions related to otherwise authorized procedures. These services are further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contingency operation.</I> Defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13) as a military operation designated as a contingency operation by the Secretary of Defense or a military operation that results in the exercise of authorities for ordering Reserve Component members to active duty without their consent and is therefore automatically a contingency operation. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cost-share.</I> The amount of money for which the beneficiary (or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member) is responsible in connection with otherwise covered dental services (other than disallowed amounts) as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. A cost-share may also be referred to as a “co-payment.” 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).</I> The automated system that is composed of two (2) phases: 
</P>
<P>(i) Enrolling all active duty, Reserve and retired service members, their dependents, and the dependents of deceased service members; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifying their eligibility for health care benefits in the direct care facilities and through the TDP. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Dental hygienist.</I> Practitioner in rendering complete oral prophylaxis services, applying medication, performing dental radiography, and providing dental education services with a certificate, associate degree, or bachelor's degree in the field, and licensed by an appropriate authority. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Dentist.</I> Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) or Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) who is licensed to practice dentistry by an appropriate authority. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Diagnostic services.</I> Category of dental services including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical oral examinations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Radiographic examinations; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Diagnostic laboratory tests and examinations provided in connection with other dental procedures authorized as benefits of the TDP and further defined in paragraph (e) of the section. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Endodontics.</I> The etiology, prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases and injuries affecting the dental pulp, tooth root, and periapical tissue as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Initial determination.</I> A formal written decision on a TDP claim, a request for TDP benefit pre-determination, a request by a provider for approval as an authorized provider, or a decision suspending, excluding or terminating a provider as an authorized provider under the TDP. Rejection of a claim or pre-determination, or of a request for benefit or provider authorization for failure to comply with administrative requirements, including failure to submit reasonably requested information, is not an initial determination. Responses to general or specific inquiries regarding TDP benefits are not initial determinations. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Nonparticipating provider.</I> A dentist or dental hygienist that furnished dental services to a TDP beneficiary, but who has not agreed to participate in the contractor's network and accept reimbursement in accordance with the contractor's network agreement. A nonparticipating provider looks to the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member for final responsibility for payment of his or her charge, but may accept payment (assignment of benefits) directly from the insurer or assist the beneficiary in filing the claim for reimbursement by the dental plan contractor. Where the nonparticipating provider does not accept payment directly from the insurer, the insurer pays the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, not the provider.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Oral and maxillofacial surgery.</I> Surgical procedures performed in the oral cavity as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Orthodontics.</I> The supervision, guidance, and correction of the growing or mature dentofacial structures, including those conditions that require movement of teeth or correction of malrelationships and malformations of their related structures and adjustment of relationships between and among teeth and facial bones by the application of forces and/or the stimulation and redirection of functional forces within the craniofacial complex as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Participating provider.</I> A dentist or dental hygienist who has agreed to participate in the contractor's network and accept reimbursement in accordance with the contractor's network agreement as the total charge (even though less than the actual billed amount), including provision for payment to the provider by the beneficiary (or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member) or any cost-share for covered services.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Party to the initial determination.</I> Includes the TDP, a beneficiary of the TDP and a participating provider of services whose interests have been adjudicated by the initial determination. In addition, provider who has been denied approval as an authorized TDP provider is a party to the initial determination, as is a provider who is suspended, excluded or terminated as an authorized provider, unless the provider is excluded or suspended by another agency of the Federal Government, a state, or a local licensing authority. 
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Periodontics.</I> The examination, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases affecting the supporting structures of the teeth as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Preventive services.</I> Traditional prophylaxis including scaling deposits from teeth, polishing teeth, and topical application of fluoride to teeth, as well as other dental services authorized in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Prosthodontics.</I> The diagnosis, planning, making, insertion, adjustment, refinement, and repair of artificial devices intended for the replacement of missing teeth and associated tissues as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Provider.</I> A dentist, dental hygienist, or certified and licensed anesthetist as specified in paragraph (f) of this section. This term, when used in relation to OCONUS service area providers, may include other recognized professions authorized to furnish care under laws of that particular country. 
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Restorative services.</I> Restoration of teeth including those procedures commonly described as amalgam restorations, resin restorations, pin retention, and stainless steel crowns for primary teeth as further defined in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility and enrollment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1076a, 1072(2)(A), (D), or (I), 1072(6), 10143 and 10144 set forth those persons who are eligible for voluntary enrollment in the TDP. A determination that a person is eligible for voluntary enrollment does not automatically entitle that person to benefit payments. The person must be enrolled in accordance with the provisions set forth in this section and meet any additional eligibility requirements in this part in order for dental benefits to be extended. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility</I>—(i) <I>Persons eligible.</I> Eligibility for the TDP is continuous in situations where the sponsor or member changes status between any of these eligible categories and there is no break in service or transfer to a non-eligible status. 
</P>
<P>(A) A person who bears one of the following relationships to an active duty member (under a call or order that does not specify a period of thirty (30) days or less) or a member of the Selected Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143) or Individual Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144): 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Spouse.</I> A lawful husband or wife, regardless of whether or not dependent upon the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Child.</I> To be eligible, the child must be unmarried and meet one of the requirements set forth in section 199.3(b)(2)(ii)(A)-(F) or 199.3(b)(2)(ii)(H).
</P>
<P>(B) A member of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143). 
</P>
<P>(C) A member of the Individual Ready Reserve of the Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144(b)) who is subject to being ordered to active duty involuntarily in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 12304. 
</P>
<P>(D) All other members of the Individual Ready Reserve of the Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144(a)). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of eligibility status and evidence of eligibility</I>—(A) <I>Eligibility determination responsibility of the Uniformed Services.</I> Determination of a person's eligibility for the TDP is the responsibility of the member's Uniformed Service. For the purpose of program integrity, the appropriate Uniformed Service shall, upon request of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, review the eligibility of a specified person when there is reason to question the eligibility status. In such cases, a report on the result of the review and any action taken will be submitted to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Procedures for determination of eligibility.</I> Uniformed Service identification cards do not distinguish eligibility for the TDP. Procedures for the determination of eligibility are identified in § 199.3(f)(2), except that Uniformed Service identification cards do not provide evidence of eligibility for the TDP. Although OCHAMPUS and the dental plan contractor must make determinations concerning a member or dependent's eligibility in order to ensure proper enrollment and proper disbursement of appropriated funds, ultimate responsibility for resolving a member or dependent's eligibility rests with the Uniformed Services. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Evidence of eligibility required.</I> Eligibility and enrollment in the TDP will be verified through the DEERS. Eligibility and enrollment information established and maintained in the DEERS file is the only acceptable evidence of TDP eligibility and enrollment. It is the responsibility of the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member or TDP beneficiary, parent, or legal representative, when appropriate, to provide adequate evidence for entry into the DEERS file to establish eligibility for the TDP, and to ensure that all changes in status that may affect eligibility are reported immediately to the appropriate Uniformed Service for action. Ineligibility for benefits is presumed in the absence of prescribed eligibility evidence in the DEERS file. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Enrollment</I>—(i) <I>Previous plans</I>—(A) <I>Basic Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan.</I> The Basic Active Duty Dependents Dental Plan was effective from August 1, 1987, up to the date of implementation of the Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan. The Basic Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan terminated upon implementation of the expanded plan. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan.</I> The Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan (also known as the TRICARE Family Member Dental Plan) was effective from August 1, 1993, up to the date of implementation of the TDP. The Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan terminates upon implementation of the TDP. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>TRICARE Dental Program (TDP)</I>—(A) <I>Election of coverage.</I> (<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve service members may voluntarily elect to enroll their eligible dependents and members of the Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve may voluntarily elect to enroll themselves following implementation of the TDP. In order to obtain TDP coverage, written or telephonic election by the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member must be made and will be accomplished by submission or telephonic completion of an application to the dental plan contractor. This election can also be accomplished via electronic means. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Eligible dependents of active duty members enrolled in the Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan at the time of implementation of the TDP will automatically be enrolled in the TDP. Eligible members of the Selected Reserve enrolled in the TRICARE Selected Reserve Dental Program at the time of implementation of the TDP will automatically be enrolled in the TDP. No election to enroll in the TDP will be required by the active duty or Selected Reserve member. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Premiums</I>—(<I>1</I>) Enrollment will be by either single or family premium as defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Single premium. One (1) covered eligible dependent or one (1) covered eligible Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Family premium. Two (2) or more covered eligible dependents. Under the family premium, all eligible dependents of the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member are enrolled. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exceptions.</I> (<I>i</I>) An active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member may elect to enroll only those eligible dependents residing in one (1) location when the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member has eligible dependents residing in two or more geographically separate locations (e.g., children living with a divorced spouse; a child attending college). 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Instances where a dependent of an active duty member requires a hospital or special treatment environment (due to a medical, physical handicap, or mental condition) for dental care otherwise covered by the TDP, the dependent may be excluded from TDP enrollment and may continue to receive care from a military treatment facility. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A member of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve may enroll separately from his or her eligible dependents. A member of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve does not have to be enrolled in order for his or her eligible dependents to enroll under the TDP. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Enrollment period</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>General.</I> Enrollment of eligible dependents or members is for a period of one (1) year followed by month-to-month enrollment as long as the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member chooses to continue enrollment. Active duty members may enroll their eligible dependents and eligible members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve may enroll themselves or their eligible dependents in the TDP provided there is an intent to remain on active duty or as a member of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve (or any combination thereof without a break in service or transfer to a non-eligible status) for a period of not less than one (1) year by the service member and their parent Uniformed Service. Beneficiaries enrolled in the TDP must remain enrolled for a minimum period of one (1) year unless one of the conditions for disenrollment specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) of this section is met. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Special enrollment period for Reserve component members ordered to active duty in support of contingency operations.</I> The mandatory twelve (12) month enrollment period does not apply to Reserve component members ordered to active duty (other than for training) in support of a contingency operation as designated by the Secretary of Defense. Affected Reserve component members may enroll in the TDP only if their orders specify that they are ordered to active duty in support of a contingency operation, as defined by 10 U.S.C., for a period of thirty-one (31) days or more. An affected Reserve component member must elect to enroll in the TDP and complete the enrollment application within thirty (30) days following entry on active duty or within sixty (60) days following implementation of the TDP. Following enrollment, beneficiaries must remain enrolled, with the member paying premiums, until the end of the member's active duty period in support of the contingency operation or twelve (12) months, whichever occurs first unless one of the conditions for disenrollment specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) of this section is met. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Continuation of enrollment from Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan.</I> Beneficiaries enrolled in the Expanded Active Duty Dependents Dental Benefit Plan at the time when TDP coverage begins must complete their two (2) year enrollment period established under this former plan except if one of the conditions for disenrollment specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) of this section is met. Once this original two (2) year enrollment period is met, the active duty member may continue TDP enrollment on a month-to-month basis. A new one (1) year enrollment period will only be incurred if the active duty member disenrolls and attempts to reenroll in the TDP at a later date. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Continuation of enrollment from TRICARE Selected Reserve Dental Program.</I> Beneficiaries enrolled in the TRICARE Selected Reserve Dental Program at the time when TDP coverage begins must complete their one (1) year enrollment period established under this former program except if one of the conditions for disenrollment specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) of this section is met. Once this original one (1) year enrollment period is met, the Selected Reserve member may continue TDP enrollment on a month-to-month basis. A new one (1) year enrollment period will only be incurred if the Selected Reserve member disenrolls and attempts to reenroll in the TDP at a later date. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Beginning dates of eligibility.</I> The beginning date of eligibility for TDP benefits is the first day of the month following the month in which the election of enrollment is completed, signed, and the enrollment and premium is received by the dental plan contractor, subject to a predetermined and publicized dental plan contractor monthly cut-off date, except that the date of eligibility shall not be earlier than the first day of the month in which the TDP is implemented. This includes any changes between single and family member premium coverage and coverage of newly eligible or enrolled dependents or members. 
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Changes in and termination of enrollment</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Changes in status of active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member.</I> When the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member is separated, discharged, retired, transferred to the Standby or Retired Reserve, his or her enrolled dependents and/or the enrolled Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member loses eligibility and enrollment as of 11:59 p.m. on the last day of the month in which the change in status takes place. When the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member is ordered to active duty for a period of more than 30 days without a break in service, the member loses eligibility and is disenrolled, if previously enrolled; however, their enrolled dependents maintain their eligibility and previous enrollment subject to eligibility, enrollment and disenrollment provisions described in this section and in the TDP contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Reserve component members separated from active duty in support of a contingency operation.</I> When a member of a reserve component who is separated from active duty to which called or ordered in support of a contingency operation if the active duty is for more than 30 days, the member becomes eligible for Transitional Health Care pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1145(a) and the member is entitled to dental care to which a member of the uniformed services on active duty for more than 30 days is entitled. Thus the member has no requirement for the TDP and is not eligible to purchase the TDP. Upon the termination of Transitional Health Care eligibility, the member regains TDP eligibility and is reenrolled, if previously enrolled.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Dependents of members separated from active duty in support of a contingency operation.</I> Dependents of a member of a reserve component who is separated from active duty to which called or ordered in support of a contingency operation if the active duty is active for more than 30 days maintain their eligibility and previous enrollment, subject to eligibility, enrollment and disenrollment provisions described in this section and in the TDP contract. During the member's Transitional Health Care eligibility, the dependents are considered family members of Reserve Component members.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Members separated from active duty and not covered by 10 U.S.C. 1145(a)(2)(B).</I> When the previously enrolled active duty member is transferred back to the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve, and is not covered by 10 U.S.C. 1145(a)(2)(B), without a break in service, the member regains TDP eligibility and is reenrolled; however, enrolled dependents maintain their eligibility and previous enrollment subject to eligibility, enrollment and disenrollment provisions described in this section and in the TDP contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Eligible dependents of an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member serving a sentence of confinement in conjunction with a sentence of punitive discharge are still eligible for the TDP until such time as the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member's discharge is executed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Survivor eligibility.</I> Eligible dependents of active duty members who die while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days and eligible dependents of members of the Ready Reserve (<I>i.e.,</I> Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve, as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143 and 10144(b) respectively) who die, shall be eligible for survivor enrollment in the TDP. During the period of survivor enrollment, the government will pay both the government and the eligible dependent's portion of the premium share. This survivor enrollment shall be up to (3) three years from the date of the member's death, except that, in the case of a dependent of the deceased who is described in 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(D) or (I), the period of survivor enrollment shall be the longer of the following periods beginning on the date of the member's death:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Three years.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The period ending on the date on which such dependent attains 21 years of age.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the case of such dependent who, at 21 years of age, is enrolled in a full-time course of study in a secondary school or in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education approved by the administering Secretary and was, at the time of the member's death, in fact dependent on the member for over one-half of such dependent's support, the period ending on the earlier of the following dates: The date on which such dependent ceases to pursue such a course of study, as determined by the administering Secretary; or the date on which such dependent attains 23 years of age.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Changes in status of dependent</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Divorce.</I> A spouse separated from an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member by a final divorce decree loses all eligibility based on his or her former marital relationship as of 11:59 p.m. of the last day of the month in which the divorce becomes final. The eligibility of the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member's own children (including adopted and eligible illegitimate children) is unaffected by the divorce. An unadopted stepchild, however, loses eligibility with the termination of the marriage, also as of 11:59 p.m. of the last day of the month in which the divorce becomes final. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Annulment.</I> A spouse whose marriage to an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member is dissolved by annulment loses eligibility as of 11:59 p.m. of the last day of the month in which the court grants the annulment order. The fact that the annulment legally declares the entire marriage void from its inception does not affect the termination date of eligibility. When there are children, the eligibility of the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member's own children (including adopted and eligible illegitimate children) is unaffected by the annulment. An unadopted stepchild, however, loses eligibility with the annulment of the marriage, also as of 11:59 p.m. of the last day of the month in which the court grants the annulment order. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Adoption.</I> A child of an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member who is adopted by a person, other than a person whose dependents are eligible for TDP benefits while the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member is living, thereby severing the legal relationship between the child and the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, loses eligibility as of 11:59 p.m. of the last day of the month in which the adoption becomes final. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Marriage of child.</I> A child of an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member who marries a person whose dependents are not eligible for the TDP, loses eligibility as of 11:59 p.m. on the last day of the month in which the marriage takes place. However, should the marriage be terminated by death, divorce, or annulment before the child is twenty-one (21) years old, the child again become eligible for enrollment as a dependent as of 12:00 a.m. of the first day of the month following the month in which the occurrence takes place that terminates the marriage and continues up to age twenty-one (21) if the child does not remarry before that time. If the marriage terminates after the child's 21st birthday, there is no reinstatement of eligibility. 
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) <I>Disabling illness or injury of child age 21 or 22 who has eligibility based on his or her student status.</I> A child twenty-one (21) or twenty-two (22) years old who is pursuing a full-time course of higher education and who, either during the school year or between semesters, suffers a disabling illness or injury with resultant inability to resume attendance at the institution remains eligible for the TDP for six (6) months after the disability is removed or until the student passes his or her 23rd birthday, whichever occurs first. However, if recovery occurs before the 23rd birthday and there is resumption of a full-time course of higher education, the TDP can be continued until the 23rd birthday. The normal vacation periods during an established school year do not change the eligibility status of a dependent child twenty-one (21) or twenty-two (22) years old in full-time student status. Unless an incapacitating condition existed before, and at the time of, a dependent child's 21st birthday, a dependent child twenty-one (21) or twenty-two (22) years old in student status does not have eligibility related to mental or physical incapacity as described in § 199.3(b)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>). 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Other</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Disenrollment because of no eligible beneficiaries.</I> When an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member ceases to have any eligible beneficiaries, enrollment is terminated for those enrolled dependents. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Option to disenroll as a result of a change in active duty station.</I> When an active duty member transfers with enrolled dependents to a duty station where space-available dental care for the enrolled dependents is readily available at the local Uniformed Service dental treatment facility, the active duty member may elect, within ninety (90) calendar days of the transfer, to disenroll their dependents from the TDP. If the active duty member is later transferred to a duty station where dental care for the dependents is not available in the local Uniformed Service dental treatment facility, the active duty member may reenroll their eligible dependents in the TDP provided the member, as of the date of reenrollment, otherwise meets the requirements for enrollment, including the intent to remain on active duty for a period of not less than one (1) year. This disenrollment provision does not apply to enrolled dependents of members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve or to enrolled members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Option to disenroll due to transfer to OCONUS service area.</I> When an enrolled dependent of an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member or an enrolled Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member relocates to locations within the OCONUS service area, the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member may elect, within ninety (90) calendar days of the relocation, to disenroll their dependents from the TDP, or in the case of enrolled members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve, to disenroll themselves from the TDP. The active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member may reenroll their eligible dependents, or in the case of members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve, may reenroll themselves in the TDP provided the member, as of the date of reenrollment, otherwise meets the requirements for enrollment, including the intent to remain on active duty or as a member of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve (or any combination thereof without a break in service or transfer to a non-eligible status) for a period of not less than one (1) year. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Option to disenroll after an initial one (1) year enrollment.</I> When a dependent's enrollment under an active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member or a Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member's own enrollment has been in effect for a continuous period of one (1) year, the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member may disenroll their dependents, or in the case of enrolled members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve may disenroll themselves at any time following procedures as set up by the dental plan contractor. Subsequent to the disenrollment, the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member may reenroll their eligible dependents, or in the case of members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve may reenroll themselves, for another minimum period of one (1) year. If, during any one (1) year enrollment period, the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member disenrolls their dependents, or in the case of members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve disenrolls themselves, for reasons other than those listed in this paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) or fails to make premium payments, dependents enrolled under the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, or enrolled members of the Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve, will be subject to a lock-out period of twelve (12) months. Following this period of time, active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve members will be able to reenroll their eligible dependents, or members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve will be able to reenroll themselves, if they so choose. The twelve (12) month lock-out period applies to enrolled dependents of a Reserve component member who disenrolls for reasons other than those listed in this paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E) or fails to make premium payments after the member has enrolled pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) TRICARE Dental Program coverage shall terminate for members who no longer qualify for the TRICARE Dental Program as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, with one exception. If a member is involuntarily separated from the Selected Reserve under other than adverse conditions, as characterized by the Secretary concerned, and TRICARE Dental Program coverage is in effect for the member and/or the family on the last day of his or her membership in the Selected Reserve; then the TRICARE Dental Program coverage that was actually in effect may terminate no earlier than 180 days after the date on which the member is separated from the Selected Reserve. This exception expires December 31, 2018.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Premium sharing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve members enrolling their eligible dependents, or members of the Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve enrolling themselves, in the TDP shall be required to pay all or a portion of the premium cost depending on their status. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Members required to pay a portion of the premium cost.</I> This premium category includes active duty members (under a call or order to active duty that does not specify a period of thirty (30) days or less) on behalf of their enrolled dependents. It also includes members of the Selected Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143) and the Individual Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144(b)) enrolled on their own behalf. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Members required to pay the full premium cost.</I> This premium category includes members of the Selected Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143), and the Individual Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144), on behalf of their enrolled dependents. It also includes members of the Individual Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144(a)) enrolled on their own behalf. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proportion of premium share.</I> The proportion of premium share to be paid by the active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Reserve member pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section is established by the ASD(HA), or designee, at not more than forty (40) percent of the total premium. The proportion of premium share to be paid by the Selected Reserve and Individual Reserve member pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section is established by the ASD(HA), or designee, at one hundred (100) percent of the total premium. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provision for increases in active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member's premium share.</I> (i) Although previously capped at $20 per month, the law has been amended to authorize the cap on active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member's premiums pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section to rise, effective as of January 1 of each year, by the percent equal to the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The percent by which the rates of basic pay of members of the Uniformed Services are increased on such date; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of one-half percent and the percent computed under 5 U.S.C. 5303(a) for the increase in rates of basic pay for statutory pay systems for pay periods beginning on or after such date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the legislation authorizing an increase in the monthly premium cap, the methodology for determining the active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member's TDP premium pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section will be applied as if the methodology had been in continuous use since December 31, 1993. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reduction of premium share for enlisted members.</I> For enlisted members in pay grades E-1 through E-4, the ASD(HA) or designee, may reduce the monthly premium these active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve members pay pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reduction of cost-shares for enlisted members.</I> For enlisted members in pay grades E-1 through E-4, the ASD(HA) or designee, may reduce the cost-shares that active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve members pay on behalf of their enrolled dependents and that members of the Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve pay on their own behalf for selected benefits as specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Premium payment method.</I> The active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member's premium share may be deducted from the active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member's basic pay or compensation paid under 37 U.S.C. 206, if sufficient pay is available. For members who are otherwise eligible for TDP benefits and who do not receive such pay and dependents who are otherwise eligible for TDP benefits and whose sponsors do not receive such pay, or if insufficient pay is available, the premium payment may be collected pursuant to procedures established by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Annual notification of premium rates.</I> TDP premium rates will be determined as part of the competitive contracting process. Information on the premium rates will be widely distributed by the dental plan contractor and the Government. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plan benefits</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Scope of benefits.</I> The TDP provides coverage for diagnostic and preventive services, sealants, restorative services, endodontics, periodontics, prosthodontics, orthodontics and oral and maxillofacial surgery. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority to act for the plan.</I> The authority to make benefit determinations and authorize plan payments under the TDP rests primarily with the insurance, service plan, or prepayment dental plan contractor, subject to compliance with Federal law and regulation and Government contract provisions. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, provides required benefit policy decisions resulting from changes in Federal law and regulation and appeal decisions. No other persons or agents (such as dentists or Uniformed Services HBAs) have such authority. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dental benefits brochure</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, shall establish a comprehensive dental benefits brochure explaining the benefits of the plan in common lay terminology. The brochure shall include the limitations and exclusions and other benefit determination rules for administering the benefits in accordance with the law and this part. The brochure shall include the rules for adjudication and payment of claims, appealable issues, and appeal procedures in sufficient detail to serve as a common basis for interpretation and understanding of the rules by providers, beneficiaries, claims examiners, correspondence specialists, employees and representatives of other Government bodies, HBAs, and other interested parties. Any conflict, which may occur between the dental benefits brochure and law or regulation, shall be resolved in favor of law and regulation. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Distribution.</I> The dental benefits brochure will be available through the dental plan contractor and will be distributed with the assistance of the Uniformed Services HBAs and major personnel centers at Uniformed Service installations and headquarters to all members enrolling themselves or their eligible dependents. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Alternative course of treatment policy.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may establish, in accordance with generally accepted dental benefit practices, an alternative course of treatment policy which provides reimbursement in instances where the dentist and beneficiary select a more expensive service, procedure, or course of treatment than is customarily provided. The alternative course of treatment policy must meet following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) The service, procedure, or course of treatment must be consistent with sound professional standards of dental practice for the dental condition concerned. 
</P>
<P>(B) The service, procedure, or course of treatment must be a generally accepted alternative for a service or procedure covered by the TDP for the dental condition. 
</P>
<P>(C) Payment for the alternative service or procedure may not exceed the lower of the prevailing limits for the alternative procedure, the prevailing limits or dental plan contractor's scheduled allowance for the otherwise authorized benefit procedure for which the alternative is substituted, or the actual charge for the alternative procedure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefits.</I> The following benefits are defined (subject to the TDP's exclusions, limitations, and benefit determination rules approved by OCHAMPUS) using the American Dental Association's Council on Dental Care Program's Code on Dental Procedures and Nomenclature. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may modify these services, to the extent determined appropriate based on developments in common dental care practices and standard dental insurance programs. 
</P>
<P>(i) Diagnostic and preventive services. Benefits may be extended for those dental services described as oral examination, diagnostic, and preventive services when performed directly by dentists and dental hygienists as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section. These include the following categories of service:
</P>
<P>(A) Diagnostic services. (<I>1</I>) Clinical oral examinations. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Radiographs and diagnostic imaging. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Tests and laboratory examinations. 
</P>
<P>(B) Preventive services. (<I>1</I>) Dental prophylaxis. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Topical fluoride treatment (office procedure). 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other preventive services. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Space maintenance (passive appliances). 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Sealants.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General services and services “by report</I>”. The following categories of services are authorized when performed directly by dentists or dental hygienists, as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section, only in unusual circumstances requiring justification of exceptional conditions directly related to otherwise authorized procedures. Use of the procedures may not result in the fragmentation of services normally included in a single procedure. The dental plan contractor may recognize a “by report” condition by providing additional allowance to the primary covered procedure instead of recognizing or permitting a distinct billing for the “by report” service. These include the following categories of general services: 
</P>
<P>(A) Unclassified treatment. 
</P>
<P>(B) Anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(C) Professional consultation.
</P>
<P>(D) Professional visits.
</P>
<P>(E) Drugs.
</P>
<P>(F) Miscellaneous services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Restorative services.</I> Benefits may be extended for restorative services when performed directly by dentists or dental hygienists, or under orders and supervision by dentists, as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section. These include the following categories of restorative services:
</P>
<P>(A) Amalgam restorations.
</P>
<P>(B) Resin restorations.
</P>
<P>(C) Inlay and onlay restorations.
</P>
<P>(D) Crowns.
</P>
<P>(E) Other restorative services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Endodontic services.</I> Benefits may be extended for those dental services involved in treatment of diseases and injuries affecting the dental pulp, tooth root, and periapical tissue when performed directly by dentists as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section. These include the following categories of endodontic services:
</P>
<P>(A) Pulp capping.
</P>
<P>(B) Pulpotomy and pulpectomy.
</P>
<P>(C) Endodontic therapy.
</P>
<P>(D) Apexification and recalcification procedures.
</P>
<P>(E) Apicoectomy and periradicular services.
</P>
<P>(F) Other endodontic procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Periodontic services.</I> Benefits may be extended for those dental services involved in prevention and treatment of diseases affecting the supporting structures of the teeth to include periodontal prophylaxis, gingivectomy or gingivoplasty, gingival curettage, etc., when performed directly by dentists as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section. These include the following categories of periodontic services:
</P>
<P>(A) Surgical services.
</P>
<P>(B) Periodontal services.
</P>
<P>(C) Other periodontal services.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prosthodontic services.</I> Benefits may be extended for those dental services involved in fabrication, insertion adjustment, relinement, and repair of artificial teeth and associated tissues to include removable complete and partial dentures, fixed crowns and bridges when performed directly by dentists as authorized under paragraph (f)(4) of this section. These include the following categories of prosthodontic services:
</P>
<P>(A) Prosthodontics (removable).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Complete and partial dentures.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Adjustments to dentures.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Repairs to complete and partial dentures.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Denture rebase procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Denture reline procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Other removable prosthetic services.
</P>
<P>(B) Prosthodontics (fixed).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fixed partial denture pontics.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fixed partial denture retainers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other partial denture services.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Orthodontic services.</I> Benefits may be extended for the supervision, guidance, and correction of growing or mature dentofacial structures, including those conditions that require movement of teeth or correction of malrelationships and malformations through the use of orthodontic procedures and devices when performed directly by dentists as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section to include in-process orthodontics. These include the following categories of orthodontic services:
</P>
<P>(A) Limited orthodontic treatment.
</P>
<P>(B) Minor treatment to control harmful habits.
</P>
<P>(C) Interceptive orthodontic treatment.
</P>
<P>(D) Comprehensive orthodontic treatment.
</P>
<P>(E) Other orthodontic services.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Oral and maxillofacial surgery services.</I> Benefits may be extended for basic surgical procedure of the extraction, reimplantation, stabilization and repositioning of teeth, alveoloplasties, incision and drainage of abscesses, suturing of wounds, biopsies, etc., when performed directly by dentists as authorized under paragraph (f) of this section. These include the following categories of oral and maxillofacial surgery services:
</P>
<P>(A) Extractions.
</P>
<P>(B) Surgical extractions.
</P>
<P>(C) Other surgical procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Alveoloplasty—surgical preparation of ridge for denture.
</P>
<P>(E) Surgical incision.
</P>
<P>(F) Repair of traumatic wounds.
</P>
<P>(G) Complicated suturing.
</P>
<P>(H) Other repair procedures.
</P>
<P>(ix) Exclusion of adjunctive dental care. Adjunctive dental care benefits are excluded under the TDP. For further information on adjunctive dental care benefits under TRICARE/CHAMPUS, see § 199.4(e)(10).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Benefit limitations and exclusions.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, may establish such exclusions and limitations as are consistent with those established by dental insurance and prepayment plans to control utilization and quality of care for the services and items covered by the TDP.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Limitation on reduction of benefits.</I> If a reduction in benefits is planned, the Secretary of Defense, or designee, may not reduce TDP benefits without notifying the appropriate Congressional committees. If a reduction is approved, the Secretary of Defense, or designee, must wait one (1) year from the date of notice before a benefit reduction can be implemented.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-shares, liability and maximum coverage</I>—(i) <I>Cost-shares.</I> The following table lists maximum active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member and dependent cost-shares for covered services for participating and nonparticipating providers of care (see paragraph (f)(6) of this section for additional active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve costs). These are percentages of the dental plan contractor's determined allowable amount that the active duty, Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve member or beneficiary must pay to these providers. For care received in the OCONUS service area, the ASD(HA), or designee, may pay certain cost-shares and other portions of a provider's billed charge for enrolled dependents of active duty members (under a call or order that does not specify a period of thirty (30) days or less), and for members of the Selected Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10143) and Individual Ready Reserve (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 10144(b)) enrolled on their own behalf.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">[In percent] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Covered services 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cost-share for pay grades E-1, E-2, E-3 and E-4 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cost-share for all other pay grades 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diagnostic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preventive, except Sealants</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emergency Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Professional Consultations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Professional Visits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Post Surgical Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basic Restorative (example: amalgams, resins, stainless steel crowns)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endodontic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Periodontic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General Anesthesia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Intravenous Sedation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Restorative (example: crowns, onlays, casts)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prosthodontics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medications</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orthodontic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Miscellaneous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Dental plan contractor liability.</I> When more than twenty-five (25) percent or more than two hundred (200) enrollees in a specific five (5) digit zip code area are unable to obtain a periodic or initial (non-emergency) dentistry appointment with a network provider within twenty-one (21) calendar days and within thirty-five (35) miles of the enrollee's place of residence, then the TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) will designate that area as “non-compliant with the access standard.” Once so designated, the dental program contractor will reimburse the beneficiary, or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, or the nonparticipating provider selected by enrollees in that area (or a subset of the area or nearby zip codes in other five (5) digit zip code areas as determined by TMA) at the level of the provider's usual fees less the applicable enrollee cost-share, if any. TMA shall determine when such area becomes compliant with the access standards. This access standard and associated liability does not apply to care received in the OCONUS service area.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum coverage amounts.</I> Beneficiaries are subject to an annual maximum coverage amount for non-orthodontic dental benefits and a lifetime maximum coverage amount for orthodontics as established by the ASD (HA) or designee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authorized providers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Beneficiaries may seek covered services from any provider who is fully licensed and approved to provide dental care or covered anesthesia benefits in the state where the provider is located. This includes licensed dental hygienists, practicing within the scope of their licensure, subject to any restrictions a state licensure or legislative body imposes regarding their status as independent providers of care.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorized provider status does not guarantee payment of benefits.</I> The fact that a provider is “authorized” is not to be construed to mean that the TDP will automatically pay a claim for services or supplies provided by such a provider. The Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, also must determine if the patient is an eligible beneficiary, whether the services or supplies billed are authorized and medically necessary, and whether any of the authorized exclusions of otherwise qualified providers presented in this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Utilization review and quality assurance.</I> Services and supplies furnished by providers of care shall be subject to utilization review and quality assurance standards, norms, and criteria established under the TDP. Utilization review and quality assurance assessments shall be performed under the TDP consistent with the nature and level of benefits of the plan, and shall include analysis of the data and findings by the dental plan contractor from other dental accounts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provider required.</I> In order to be considered benefits, all services and supplies shall be rendered by, prescribed by, or furnished at the direction of, or on the order of a TDP authorized provider practicing within the scope of his or her license. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Participating provider.</I> An authorized provider may elect to participate as a network provider in the dental plan contractor's network and any such election will apply to all TDP beneficiaries. The authorized provider may not participate on a claim-by-claim basis. The participating provide must agree to accept, within one (1) day of a request for appointment, beneficiaries in need of emergency palliative treatment. Payment to the participating provider is based on the methodology specified in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section. The fee or charge determinations are binding upon the provider in accordance with the dental plan contractor's procedures for participation in the network. Payment is made directly to the participating provider, and the participating provider may only charge the beneficiary the applicable percent cost-share of the dental plan contractor's allowable charge for those benefit categories as specified in paragraph (e) of this section, in addition to the full charges for any services not authorized as benefits.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Nonparticipating provider.</I> An authorized provider may elect to not participate for all TDP beneficiaries and request the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member to pay any amount of the provider's billed charge in excess of the dental plan contractor's determination of allowable charges (to include the appropriate cost-share). Neither the Government nor the dental plan contractor shall have any responsibility for any amounts over the allowable charges as determined by the dental plan contractor, except where the dental plan contractor is unable to identify a participating provider of care within thirty-five (35) miles of the beneficiary's place of residence with appointment availability within twenty-one (21) calendar days. In such instances of the nonavailability of a participating provider and in accordance with the provisions of the dental contract, the nonparticipating provider located within thirty-five (35) miles of the beneficiary's place of residence shall be paid his or her usual fees (either by the beneficiary or the dental plan contractor if the beneficiary elected assignment of benefits), less the percent cost-share as specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assignment of benefits.</I> A nonparticipating provider may accept assignment of benefits for claims (for beneficiaries certifying their willingness to make such assignment of benefits) by filing the claims completed with the assistance of the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member for direct payment by the dental plan contractor to the provider. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No assignment of benefits.</I> A nonparticipating provider for all beneficiaries may request that the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member file the claim directly with the dental plan contractor, making arrangements with the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member for direct payment by the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Alternative delivery system</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Alternative delivery systems may be established by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, as authorized providers. Only dentists, dental hygienists and licensed anesthetists shall be authorized to provide or direct the provision of authorized services and supplies in an approved alternative delivery system. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Defined.</I> An alternative delivery system may be any approved arrangement for a preferred provider organization, capitation plan, dental health maintenance or clinic organization, or other contracted arrangement which is approved by OCHAMPUS in accordance with requirements and guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Elective or exclusive arrangement.</I> Alternative delivery systems may be established by contract or other arrangement on either an elective or exclusive basis for beneficiary selection of participating and authorized providers in accordance with contractual requirements and guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Provider election of participation.</I> Otherwise authorized providers must be provided with the opportunity of applying for participation in an alternative delivery system and of achieving participation status based on reasonable criteria for timeliness of application, quality of care, cost containment, geographic location, patient availability, and acceptance of reimbursement allowance. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Limitation on authorized providers.</I> Where exclusive alternative delivery systems are established, only providers participating in the alternative delivery system are authorized providers of care. In such instances, the TDP shall continue to pay beneficiary claims for services rendered by otherwise authorized providers in accordance with established rules for reimbursement of nonparticipating providers where the beneficiary has established a patient relationship with the nonparticipating provider prior to the TDP's proposal to subcontract with the alternative delivery system. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Charge agreements.</I> Where the alternative delivery system employs a discounted fee-for-service reimbursement methodology or schedule of charges or rates which includes all or most dental services and procedures recognized by the American Dental Association's Council on Dental Care Program's Code on Dental Procedures and Nomenclature, the discounts or schedule of charges or rates for all dental services and procedures shall be extended by its participating providers to beneficiaries of the TDP as an incentive for beneficiary participation in the alternative delivery system. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Benefit payment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> TDP benefits payments are made either directly to the provider or to the beneficiary or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve member, depending on the manner in which the claim is submitted or the terms of the subcontract of an alternative delivery system with the dental plan contractor. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit payment.</I> Beneficiaries are not required to utilize participating providers. For beneficiaries who do use these participating providers, however, these providers shall not balance bill any amount in excess of the maximum payment allowed by the dental plan contractor for covered services. Beneficiaries using nonparticipating providers may be balance-billed amounts in excess of the dental plan contractor's determination of allowable charges. The following general requirements for the TDP benefit payment methodology shall be met, subject to modifications and exceptions approved by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee: 
</P>
<P>(i) Nonparticipating providers (or the Beneficiaries or active duty, Selected Reserve or Individual Ready Reserve members for unassigned claims) shall be reimbursed at the lesser of the provider's actual charge: Or the network maximum allowable charge for similar services for that same locality (region) or state, whichever is lower, subject to the exception listed in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, less any cost-share amount due for authorized services. The network maximum allowable charge is the maximum negotiated fee between the dental contractor and any TDP participating provider for similar services covered by the dental plan in that same locality (region) or state.
</P>
<P>(ii) Participating providers shall be reimbursed in accordance with the contractor's network agreements, less any cost-share amount due for authorized services.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest.</I> The provisions of § 199.9 shall apply except for § 199.9(e). All references to “CHAMPUS contractors”, “CHAMPUS beneficiaries” and “CHAMPUS providers” in § 199.9 shall be construed to mean the “dental plan contractor”, “TDP beneficiaries” and “TPD providers” respectively for the purposes of this section. Examples of fraud include situations in which ineligible persons not enrolled in the TDP obtain care and file claims for benefits under the name and identification of a beneficiary; or when providers submit claims for services and supplies not rendered to Beneficiaries; or when a participating provider bills the beneficiary for amounts over the dental plan contractor's determination of allowable charges; or when a provider fails to collect the specified patient cost-share amount. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Appeal and hearing procedures.</I> The provisions of § 199.10 shall apply except where noted in this section. All references to “CHAMPUS contractors”, “CHAMPUS beneficiaries”, “CHAMPUS participating providers” and “CHAMPUS Explanation of Benefits” in § 199.10 shall be construed to mean the “dental plan contractor”, “TDP beneficiaries”, “TDP participating providers” and “Dental Explanation of Benefits or DEOB” respectively for the purposes of this section. References to “OCHAMPUSEUR” in § 199.10 are not applicable to the TDP or this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> See § 199.10(a). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial determination</I>—(A) <I>Notice of initial determination and right to appeal.</I> See § 199.10(a)(1)(i). 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Effect of initial determination.</I> See § 199.10(a)(1)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Participation in an appeal.</I> Participation in an appeal is limited to any party to the initial determination, including OCHAMPUS, the dental plan contractor, and authorized representatives of the parties. Any party to the initial determination, except OCHAMPUS and the dental plan contractor, may appeal an adverse determination. The appealing party is the party who actually files the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Parties to the initial determination.</I> See §§ 199.10(a)(2)(i) and 199.10(a)(2)(i) (A), (B), (C) and (E). In addition, a third party other than the dental plan contractor, such as an insurance company, is not a party to the initial determination and is not entitled to appeal, even though it may have an indirect interest in the initial determination. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Representative.</I> See § 199.10(a)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Burden of proof.</I> See § 199.10(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Evidence in appeal and hearing cases.</I> See § 199.10(a)(4). 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Late filing.</I> If a request for reconsideration, formal review, or hearing is filed after the time permitted in this section, written notice shall be issued denying the request. Late filing may be permitted only if the appealing party reasonably can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the dental plan contractor, or the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, that timely filing of the request was not feasible due to extraordinary circumstances over which the appealing party had no practical control. Each request for an exception to the filing requirement will be considered on its own merits. The decision of the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, on the request for an exception to the filing requirement shall be final. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Appealable issue.</I> See §§ 199.10(a)(6), 199.10(a)(6)(i), 199.10(a)(6)(iv), including §§ 199.10(a)(6)(iv) (A) and (C), and 199.10(a)(6)(v) for an explanation and examples of non-appealable issues. Other examples of issues that are not appealable under this section include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the dental plan contractor-determined allowable charge since the methodology constitutes a limitation on benefits under the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) Certain other issues on the basis that the authority for the initial determination is not vested in OCHAMPUS. Such issues include but are not limited to the following examples: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A determination of a person's enrollment in the TDP is the responsibility of the dental plan contractor and ultimate responsibility for resolving a beneficiary's enrollment rests with the dental plan contractor. Accordingly, a disputed question of fact concerning a beneficiary's enrollment will not be considered an appealable issue under the provisions of this section, but shall be resolved in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and the dental plan contractor's enrollment policies and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Decisions relating to the issuance of a nonavailability statement (NAS) in each case are made by the Uniformed Services. Disputes over the need for an NAS or a refusal to issue an NAS are not appealable under this section. The one exception is when a dispute arises over whether the facts of the case demonstrate a dental emergency for which an NAS is not required. Denial of payment in this one situation is an appealable issue. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any decision or action on the part of the dental plan contractor to include a provider in their network or to designate a provider as participating is not appealable under this section. Similarly, any decision or action on the part of the dental plan contractor to exclude a provider from their network or to deny participating provider status is not appealable under this section. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Amount in dispute</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> An amount in dispute is required for an adverse determination to be appealed under the provisions of this section, except as set forth or further explained in § 199.10(a)(7)(ii), (iii) and (iv). 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Calculated amount.</I> The amount in dispute is calculated as the amount of money the dental plan contractor would pay if the services involved in the dispute were determined to be authorized benefits of the TDP. Examples of amounts of money that are excluded by this section from payments for authorized benefits include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amounts in excess of the dental plan contractor's—determined allowable charge. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The beneficiary's cost-share amounts. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Amounts that the beneficiary, or parent, guardian, or other responsible person has no legal obligation to pay. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Amounts excluded under the provisions of § 199.8 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Levels of appeal.</I> See § 199.10(a)(8)(i). Initial determinations involving the sanctioning (exclusion, suspension, or termination) of TDP providers shall be appealed directly to the hearing level. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Appeal decision.</I> See § 199.10(a)(9). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reconsideration.</I> See § 199.10(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Formal review.</I> See § 199.10(c). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> See §§ 1.99.10(d) and 199.10(d)(1) through (d)(5) and (d0(7) through (d)(12) for information on the hearing process. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority of the hearing officer.</I> The hearing officer, in exercising the authority to conduct a hearing under this part, will be bound by 10 U.S.C., chapter 55, and this part. The hearing officer in addressing substantive, appealable issues shall be bound by the dental benefits brochure applicable for the date(s) of service, policies, procedures, instructions and other guidelines issued by the ASD(HA), or a designee, or by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, in effect for the period in which the matter in dispute arose. A hearing officer may not establish or amend the dental benefits brochure, policy, procedures, instructions, or guidelines. However, the hearing officer may recommend reconsideration of the policy, procedures, instructions or guidelines by the ASD (HA), or a designee, when the final decisions is issued in the case. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Final decision.</I> See §§ 199.10(e)(1) and 199.10(e)(1)(i) for information on final decisions in the appeal and hearing process, with the exception that no recommended decision shall be referred for review by ASD(HA).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Implementing Instructions.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity or designee may issue TRICARE Dental Program policies, standards, and criteria as may be necessary to implement the intent of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 12860, Mar. 1, 2001; 66 FR 16400, Mar. 26, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 65174, Nov. 19, 2003; 69 FR 55359, Sept. 14, 2004; 70 FR 55252, Sept. 21, 2005; 71 FR 1696, Jan. 11, 2006; 71 FR 66872, Nov. 17, 2006; 72 FR 53685, Sept. 20, 2007; 76 FR 57643, Sept. 16, 2011; 76 FR 81367, Dec. 28, 2011; 80 FR 55254, Sept. 15, 2015; 81 FR 11667, Mar. 7, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.14   Provider reimbursement methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hospitals.</I> The CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost for reimbursement of a hospital shall be determined on the basis of one of the following methodologies. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CHAMPUS Diagnosis Related Group (DRG)-based payment system.</I> Under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, payment for the operating costs of inpatient hospital services furnished by hospitals subject to the system is made on the basis of prospectively-determined rates and applied on a per discharge basis using DRGs. Payments under this system will include a differentiation for urban (using large urban and other urban areas) and rural hospitals and an adjustment for area wage differences and indirect medical education costs. Additional payments will be made for capital costs, direct medical education costs, and outlier cases.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General</I>—(A) <I>DRGs used.</I> The CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system will use the same DRGs used in the most recently available grouper for the Medicare Prospective Payment System, except as necessary to recognize distinct characteristics of CHAMPUS beneficiaries and as described in instructions issued by the Director, OCHAMPUS. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Assignment of discharges to DRGs.</I> (<I>1</I>) The classification of a particular discharge shall be based on the patient's age, sex, principal diagnosis (that is, the diagnosis established, after study, to be chiefly responsible for causing the patient's admission to the hospital), secondary diagnoses, procedures performed and discharge status. In addition, for neonatal cases (other than normal newborns) the classification shall also account for birthweight, surgery and the presence of multiple, major and other neonatal problems, and shall incorporate annual updates to these classification features. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each discharge shall be assigned to only one DRG regardless of the number of conditions treated or services furnished during the patient's stay. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Basis of payment</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Hospital billing.</I> Under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, hospitals are required to submit claims (including itemized charges) in accordance with § 199.7(b). The CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary will assign the appropriate DRG to the claim based on the information contained in the claim. Any request from a hospital for reclassification of a claim to a higher weighted DRG must be submitted, within 60 days from the date of the initial payment, in a manner prescribed by the Director, OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Payment on a per discharge basis.</I> Under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, hospitals are paid a predetermined amount per discharge for inpatient hospital services furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Pricing of claims.</I> All final claims with discharge dates of September 30, 2014, or earlier that are reimbursed under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system are to be priced as of the date of admission, regardless of when the claim is submitted. All final claims with discharge dates of October 1, 2014, or later that are reimbursed under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system are to be priced as of the date of discharge.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Payment in full.</I> The DRG-based amount paid for inpatient hospital services is the total CHAMPUS payment for the inpatient operating costs (as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i)(C)(<I>5</I>) of this section) incurred in furnishing services covered by the CHAMPUS. The full prospective payment amount is payable for each stay during which there is at least one covered day of care, except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>)(<I>A</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Inpatient operating costs.</I> The CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system provides a payment amount for inpatient operating costs, including: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Operating costs for routine services, such as the costs of room, board, and routine nursing services; 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Operating costs for ancillary services, such as hospital radiology and laboratory services (other than physicians' services) furnished to hospital inpatients; 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Special care unit operating costs; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Malpractice insurance costs related to services furnished to inpatients. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Discharges and transfers</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Discharges.</I> A hospital inpatient is discharged when: 
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) The patient is formally released from the hospital (release of the patient to another hospital as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i)(C)(<I>6</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section, or a leave of absence from the hospital, will not be recognized as a discharge for the purpose of determining payment under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system); 
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) The patient dies in the hospital; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) The patient is transferred from the care of a hospital included under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to a hospital or unit that is excluded from the prospective payment system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Transfers.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (a)(1)(i)(C)(<I>6</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section, a discharge of a hospital inpatient is not counted for purposes of the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system when the patient is transferred: 
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) From one inpatient area or unit of the hospital to another area or unit of the same hospital; 
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) From the care of a hospital included under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to the care of another hospital paid under this system; 
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) From the care of a hospital included under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to the care of another hospital that is excluded from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system because of participation in a statewide cost control program which is exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>D</I>) From the care of a hospital included under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to the care of a uniformed services treatment facility. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Payment in full to the discharging hospital.</I> The hospital discharging an inpatient shall be paid in full under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Payment to a hospital transferring an inpatient to another hospital.</I> If a hospital subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system transfers an inpatient to another such hospital, the transferring hospital shall be paid a per diem rate (except that in neonatal cases, other than normal newborns, the hospital will be paid at 125 percent of that per diem rate), as determined under instructions issued by TSO, for each day of the patient's stay in that hospital, not to exceed the DRG-based payment that would have been paid if the patient had been discharged to another setting. For admissions occurring on or after October 1, 1995, the transferring hospital shall be paid twice the per diem rate for the first day of any transfer stay, and the per diem amount for each subsequent day, up to the limit described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) <I>Additional payments to transferring hospitals.</I> A transferring hospital may qualify for an additional payment for extraordinary cases that meet the criteria for long-stay or cost outliers. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>DRG system updates.</I> The CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system is modeled on the Medicare Prospective Payment System (PPS) and uses annually updated items and numbers from the Medicare PPS as provided for in this part and in instructions issued by the Director, DHA. The effective date of these items and numbers shall not correspond to that under Medicare PPS but shall be delayed until January 1, to align with TRICARE's program year reporting. This allows for an administrative simplicity that optimizes healthcare delivery by reducing existing administrative burden and costs.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicability of the DRG system</I>—(A) <I>Areas affected.</I> The CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system shall apply to hospitals' services in the fifty states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico, except that any state which has implemented a separate DRG-based payment system or similar payment system in order to control costs and is exempt from the Medicare Prospective Payment System may be exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system if it requests exemption in writing, and provided payment under such system does not exceed payment which would otherwise be made under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Services subject to the DRG-based payment system.</I> All normally covered inpatient hospital services furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries by hospitals are subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Services exempt from the DRG-based payment system.</I> The following hospital services, even when provided in a hospital subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, are exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. The services in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>4</I>) and (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>7</I>) through (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>9</I>) of this section shall be reimbursed under the procedures in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, and the services in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) and (a)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>6</I>) of this section shall be reimbursed under the procedures in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Services provided by hospitals exempt from the DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All services related to solid organ acquisition for CHAMPUS covered transplants by CHAMPUS-authorized transplantation centers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) All services related to heart and liver transplantation for admissions prior to October 1, 1998, which would otherwise be paid under the respective DRG.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) All services related to CHAMPUS covered solid organ transplantations for which there is no DRG assignment.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) All professional services provided by hospital-based physicians. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) All services provided by nurse anesthetists. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) All services related to discharges involving pediatric bone marrow transplants (patient under 18 at admission). 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) All services related to discharges involving children who have been determined to be HIV seropositive (patient under 18 at admission). 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) All services related to discharges involving pediatric cystic fibrosis (patient under 18 at admission).
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) For admissions occurring on or after October 1, 1990, and before October 1, 1994, and for discharges occurring on or after October 1, 1997, the costs of blood clotting factor for hemophilia inpatients. An additional payment shall be made to a hospital for each unit of blood clotting factor furnished to a CHAMPUS inpatient who is hemophiliac in accordance with the amounts established under the Medicare Prospective Payment System (42 CFR 412.115).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Hospitals subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.</I> All hospitals within the fifty states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico which are certified to provide services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries are subject to the DRG-based payment system except for the following hospitals or hospital units which are exempt. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Psychiatric hospitals.</I> A psychiatric hospital which is exempt from the Medicare Prospective Payment System is also exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. In order for a psychiatric hospital which does not participate in Medicare to be exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, it must meet the same criteria (as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee) as required for exemption from the Medicare Prospective Payment System as contained in 42 CFR 412.23. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Inpatient Rehabilitation Facilities (IRF).</I> Prior to implementation of the IRF PPS methodology described in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, an inpatient rehabilitation facility which is exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is also exempt from the TRICARE DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Psychiatric and rehabilitation units (distinct parts).</I> Prior to implementation of the IRF PPS methodology described in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, a rehabilitation unit which is exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is also exempt from the TRICARE DRG-based payment system. A psychiatric unit which is exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is also exempt from the TRICARE DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Long Term Care Hospitals.</I> Prior to implementation of the LTCH PPS methodology described in paragraph (a)(9) of this section, a long-term care hospital which is exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is also exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Hospitals within hospitals.</I> A hospital within a hospital which is exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is also exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. In order for a hospital within a hospital which does not participate in Medicare to be exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, it must meet the same criteria (as determined by the Director, TSO, or a designee) as required for exemption from the Medicare Prospective Payment System as contained in 42 CFR 412.22 and the criteria for one or more of the excluded hospital classifications described in § 412.23 of Title 42 CFR.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Sole community hospitals (SCHs).</I> Prior to implementation of the SCH reimbursement method described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, any hospital that has qualified for special treatment under the Medicare prospective payment system as an SCH (see subpart G of 42 CFR part 412) and has not given up that classification is exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Christian Science sanitoriums.</I> All Christian Science sanitoriums (as defined in paragraph (b)(4)(viii) of § 199.6) are exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Cancer hospitals.</I> Any hospital which qualifies as a cancer hospital under the Medicare standards and has elected to be exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system is exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. (See 42 CFR 412.94.) 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Hospitals outside the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.</I> A hospital is excluded from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system if it is not located in one of the fifty States, the District of Colubmia, or Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) <I>CAHs.</I> Effective December 1, 2009, any facility which has been designated and certified as a CAH as contained in 42 CFR Part 485.606 is exempt from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Hospitals which do not participate in Medicare.</I> Any hospital which is subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system and which otherwise meets CHAMPUS requirements but which is not a Medicare-participating provider (having completed a form HCA-1514, Hospital Request for Certification in the Medicare/Medicaid Program and a form HCFA-1561, Health Insurance Benefit Agreement) must complete a participation agreement with TRICARE. By completing the participation agreement, the hospital agrees to participate on all CHAMPUS inpatient claims and to accept the CHAMPUS-determined allowable amount as payment in full for these claims. Any hospital which does not participate in Medicare and does not complete a participation agreement with TRICARE will not be authorized to provide services to TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Substance Use Disorder Rehabilitation facilities.</I> With admissions on or after July 1, 1995, substance use disorder rehabilitation facilities, authorized under § 199.6(b)(4)(xiv), are subject to the DRG-based payment system.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination of payment amounts.</I> The actual payment for an individual claim under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system is calculated by multiplying the appropriate adjusted standardized amount (adjusted to account for area wage differences using the wage indexes used in the Medicare program) by a weighting factor specific to each DRG. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Calculation of DRG weights</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Grouping of charges.</I> All discharge records in the database shall be grouped by DRG. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Remove DRGs. Those DRGs that represent discharges with invalid data or diagnoses insufficient for DRG assignment purposes are removed from the database.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Indirect medical education standardization.</I> To standardize the charges for the cost effects of indirect medical education factors, each teaching hospital's charges will be divided by 1.0 plus the following ratio on a hospital-specific basis: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.042.gif"/>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Wage level standardization.</I> To standardize the charge records for area wage differences, each charge record will be divided into labor-related and nonlabor-related portions, and the labor-related portion shall be divided by the most recently available Medicare wage index for the area. The labor-related and nonlabor-related portions will then be added together. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Elimination of statistical outliers.</I> All unusually high or low charges shall be removed from the database. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Calculation of DRG average charge.</I> After the standardization for indirect medical education, and area wage differences, an average charge for each DRG shall be computed by summing charges in a DRG and dividing that sum by the number of records in the DRG. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Calculation of national average charge per discharge.</I> A national average charge per discharge shall be calculated by summing all charges and dividing that sum by the total number of records from all DRG categories. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>DRG relative weights.</I> DRG relative weights shall be calculated for each DRG category by dividing each DRG average charge by the national average charge. 


</P>
<P>(B) <I>Empty and low-volume DRGs.</I> For any DRG with less than ten (10) occurrences in the CHAMPUS database, the Director, TSO, or designee, has the authority to consider alternative methods for estimating CHAMPUS weights in these low-volume DRG categories.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Updating DRG weights.</I> The CHAMPUS DRG weights shall be updated or adjusted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DRG weights shall be recalculated annually using CHAMPUS charge data and the methodology described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a new DRG is created, CHAMPUS will, if practical, calculate a weight for it using an appropriate charge sample (if available) and the methodology described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In the case of any other change under Medicare to an existing DRG weight (such as in connection with technology changes), CHAMPUS shall adjust its weight for that DRG in a manner comparable to the change made by Medicare. 


</P>
<P>(D) <I>Calculation of the adjusted standardized amounts.</I> The following procedures shall be followed in calculating the CHAMPUS adjusted standardized amounts. (<I>1</I>) Differentiate large urban and other area charges. All charges in the database shall be sorted into large urban and other area groups (using the same definitions for these categories used in the Medicare program. The following procedures will be applied to each group. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indirect medical education standardization.</I> To standardize the charges for the cost effects of indirect medical education factors, each teaching hospital's charges will be divided by 1.0 plus the following ratio on a hospital-specific basis: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.043.gif"/>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Wage level standardization.</I> To standardize the charge records for area wage differences, each charge record will be divided into labor-related and nonlabor-related portions, and the labor-related portion shall be divided by the most recently available Medicare wage index for the area. The labor-related and nonlabor-related portions will then be added together. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Apply the cost to charge ratio.</I> Each charge is to be reduced to a representative cost by using the Medicare cost to charge ratio. This amount shall be increased by 1 percentage point in order to reimburse hospitals for bad debt expenses attributable to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Preliminary base year standardized amount. A preliminary base year standardized amount shall be calculated by summing all costs in the database applicable to the large urban or other area group and dividing by the total number of discharges in the respective group.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Update for inflation.</I> The preliminary base year standardized amounts shall be updated using an annual update factor equal to 1.07 to produce fiscal year 1988 preliminary standardized amounts. Therefore, any development of a new standardized amount will use an inflation factor equal to the hospital market basket index used by the Health Care Financing Administration in their Prospective Payment System. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The preliminary standardized amounts, updated for inflation, shall be divided by a system standardization factor so that total DRG outlays, given the database distribution across hospitals and diagnosis, are equal to the total charges reduced to costs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Labor and nonlabor portions of the adjusted standardized amounts.</I> The adjusted standardized amounts shall be divided into labor and nonlabor portions in accordance with the Medicare division of labor and nonlabor portions. 


</P>
<P>(E) <I>Adjustments to the DRG-based payments amounts.</I> The following adjustments to the DRG-based amounts (the weight multiplied by the adjusted standardized amount) will be made. Additional adjustments to DRG amounts are included in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.


</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Outliers.</I> The DRG-based payment to a hospital shall be adjusted for atypical cases. These outliers are those cases that have either an unusually short length-of-stay or extremely long length-of-stay or that involve extraordinarily high costs when compared to most discharges classified in the same DRG. Cases which qualify as both a length-of-stay outlier and a cost outlier shall be paid at the rate which results in the greater payment. 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Length-of-stay outliers.</I> Length-of-stay outliers shall be identified and paid by the fiscal intermediary when the claims are processed. 
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) <I>Short-stay outliers.</I> Any discharge with a length-of-stay (LOS) less than 1.94 standard deviations from the DRG's arithmetic LOS shall be classified as a short-stay outlier. Short-stay outliers shall be reimbursed at 200 percent of the per diem rate for the DRG for each covered day of the hospital stay, not to exceed the DRG amount. The per diem rate shall equal the DRG amount divided by the arithmetic mean length-of-stay for the DRG.
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) <I>Long-stay outliers.</I> Any discharge (except for neonatal services and services in children's hospitals) which has a length-of-stay (LOS) exceeding a threshold established in accordance with the criteria used for the Medicare Prospective Payment System as contained in 42 CFR 412.82 shall be classified as a long-stay outlier. Any discharge for neonatal services or for services in a children's hospital which has a LOS exceeding the lesser of 1.94 standard deviations or 17 days from the DRG's arithmetic mean LOS also shall be classified as a long-stay outlier. Long-stay outliers shall be reimbursed the DRG-based amount plus a percentage (as established for the Medicare Prospective Payment System) of the per diem rate for the DRG for each covered day of care beyond the long-stay outlier threshold. The per diem rate shall equal the DRG amount divided by the arithmetic mean LOS for the DRG. For admissions on or after October 1, 1997, the long stay outlier has been eliminated for all cases except children's hospitals and neonates. For admissions on or after October 1, 1998, the long stay outlier has been eliminated for children's hospitals and neonates.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Cost outliers.</I> Additional payment for cost outliers shall be made only upon request by the hospital.
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Cost outliers except those in children's hospitals or for neonatal services. Any discharge which has standardized costs that exceed a threshold established in accordance with the criteria used for the Medicare Prospective Payment System as contained in 42 CFR 412.84 shall qualify as a cost outlier. The standardized costs shall be calculated by multiplying the total charges by the factor described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>) of this section and adjusting this amount for indirect medical education costs. Cost outliers shall be reimbursed the DRG-based amount plus a percentage (as established for the Medicare Prospective Payment System) of all costs exceeding the threshold. Effective with admissions occurring on or after October 1, 1997, the standardized costs are no longer adjusted for indirect medical education costs.
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Cost outliers in children's hospitals for neonatal services. Any discharge for services in a children's hospital or for neonatal services which has standardized costs that exceed a threshold of the greater of two times the DRG-based amount or $13,500 shall qualify as a cost outlier. The standardized costs shall be calculated by multiplying the total charges by the factor described in paragraph (a)(1) (iii) (D) (<I>4</I>) of this section (adjusted to include average capital and direct medical education costs) and adjusting this amount for indirect medical education costs. Cost outliers for services in children's hospitals and for neonatal services shall be reimbursed the DRG-based amount plus a percentage (as established for the Medicare Prospective Payment System) of all costs exceeding the threshold. Effective with admissions occurring on or after October 1, 1998, standardized costs are no longer adjusted for indirect medical education costs. In addition, CHAMPUS will calculate the outlier payments that would have occurred at each of the 59 Children's hospitals under the FY99 outlier policy for all cases that would have been outliers under the FY94 policies using the most accurate data available in September 1998. A ratio will be calculated which equals the level of outlier payments that would have been made under the FY94 outlier policies and the outlier payments that would be made if the FY99 outlier policies had applied to each of these potential outlier cases for these hospitals. The ratio will be calculated across all outlier claims for the 59 hospitals and will not be hospital specific. The ratio will be used to increase cost outlier payments in FY 1999 and FY 2000, unless the hospital has a negotiated agreement with a managed care support contractor which would affect this payment. For hospitals with managed care support agreements which affect these payments, CHAMPUS will apply these payments if the increased payments would be consistent with the agreements. In FY 2000 the ratio of outlier payments (long stay and cost) that would have occurred under the FY 94 policy and actual cost outlier payments made under the FY 99 policy will be recalculated. If the ratio has changed significantly, the ratio will be revised for use in FY 2001 and thereafter. In FY 2002, the actual cost outlier cases in FY 2000 and 2001 will be reexamined. The ratio of outlier payments that would have occurred under the FY94 policy and the actual cost outlier payments made under the FY 2000 and FY 2001 policies. If the ratio has changed significantly, the ratio will be revised for use in FY 2003.
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) <I>Cost outliers for burn cases.</I> All cost outliers for DRGs related to burn cases shall be reimbursed the DRG-based amount plus a percentage (as established for the Medicare Prospective Payment System) of all costs exceeding the threshold. The standardized costs and thresholds for these cases shall be calculated in accordance with § 199.14(a)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>)(<I>A</I>) and § 199.14(a)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>)(<I>B</I>).


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Wage adjustment.</I> CHAMPUS will adjust the labor portion of the standardized amounts according to the hospital's area wage index. 

 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Indirect medical education adjustment.</I> The wage adjusted DRG payment will also be multiplied by 1.0 plus the hospital's indirect medical education ratio. 


</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Children's hospital differential.</I> With respect to claims from children's hospitals, the appropriate adjusted standardized amount shall also be adjusted by a children's hospital differential. 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Qualifying children's hospitals.</I> Hospitals qualifying for the children's hospital differential are hospitals that are exempt from the Medicare Prospective Payment System, or, in the case of hospitals that do not participate in Medicare, that meet the same criteria (as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee) as required for exemption from the Medicare Prospective Payment System as contained in 42 CFR 412.23. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Calculation of differential.</I> The differential shall be equal to the difference between a specially calculated children's hospital adjusted standardized amount and the adjusted standardized amount for fiscal year 1988. The specially calculated children's hospital adjusted standardized amount shall be calculated in the same manner as set forth in § 199.14(a)(1)(iii)(D), except that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) The base period shall be fiscal year 1988 and shall represent total estimated charges for discharges that occurred during fiscal year 1988. 
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) No cost to charge ratio shall be applied. 
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) Capital costs and direct medical education costs will be included in the calculation. 
</P>
<P>(<I>D</I>) The factor used to update the database for inflation to produce the fiscal year 1988 base period amount shall be the applicable Medicare inpatient hospital market basket rate. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Transition rule.</I> Until March 1, 1992, separate differentials shall be used for each higher volume children's hospital (individually) and for all other children's hospitals (in the aggregate). For this purpose, a higher volume hospital is a hospital that had 50 or more CHAMPUS discharges in fiscal year 1988.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Hold harmless provision.</I> At such time as the weights initially assigned to neonatal DRGs are recalibrated based on sufficient volume of CHAMPUS claims records, children's hospital differentials shall be recalculated and appropriate retrospective and prospective adjustments shall be made. To the extent practicable, the recalculation shall also include reestimated values of other factors (including but not limited to direct education and capital costs and indirect education factors) for which more accurate data became available.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) <I>No update for inflation.</I> The children's hospital differential, calculated (and later recalculated under the hold harmless provision) for the base period of fiscal year 1988, shall not be updated for subsequent fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) <I>Administrative corrections.</I> In connection with determinations pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(iii) (E)(<I>4</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section, any children's hospital that believes OCHAMPUS erroneously failed to classify the hospital as a high volume hospital or incorrectly calculated (in the case of a high volume hospital) the hospital's differential may obtain administrative corrections by submitting appropriate documentation to the Director, OCHAMPUS (or a designee).








</P>
<P>(F) <I>Updating the adjusted standardized amounts.</I> Beginning in FY 1989, the adjusted standardized amounts will be updated by the Medicare annual update factor, unless the adjusted standardized amounts are recalculated. 
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Annual cost pass-throughs</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Capital costs.</I> When requested in writing by a hospital, CHAMPUS shall reimburse the hospital its share of actual capital costs as reported annually to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary. Payment for capital costs shall be made annually based on the ratio of CHAMPUS inpatient days for those beneficiaries subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to total inpatient days applied to the hospital's total allowable capital costs. Reductions in payments for capital costs which are required under Medicare shall also be applied to payments for capital costs under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Costs included as capital costs.</I> Allowable capital costs are those specified in Medicare Regulation § 413.130, as modified by § 412.72.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Services, facilities, or supplies provided by supplying organizations.</I> If services, facilities, or supplies are provided to the hospital by a supplying organization related to the hospital within the meaning of Medicare Regulation § 413.17, then the hospital must include in its capital-related costs, the capital-related costs of the supplying organization. However, if the supplying organization is not related to the provider within the meaning of § 413.17, no part of the change to the provider may be considered a capital-related cost unless the services, facilities, or supplies are capital-related in nature and:
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) The capital-related equipment is leased or rented by the provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) The capital-related equipment is located on the provider's premises; and
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) The capital-related portion of the charge is separately specified in the charge to the provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Direct medical education costs.</I> When requested in writing by a hospital, CHAMPUS shall reimburse the hospital its actual direct medical education costs as reported annually to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary. Such teaching costs must be for a teaching program approved under Medicare Regulation § 413.85. Payment for direct medical education costs shall be made annually based on the ratio of CHAMPUS inpatient days for those beneficiaries subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to total inpatient days applied to the hospital's total allowable direct medical education costs. Allowable direct medical education costs are those specified in Medicare Regulation § 413.85.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information necessary for payment of capital and direct medical education costs. All hospitals subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system, except for children's hospitals, may be reimbursed for allowed capital and direct medical education costs by submitting a request to the CHAMPUS contractor. Beginning October 1, 1998, such request shall be filed with CHAMPUS on or before the last day of the twelfth month following the close of the hospitals' cost reporting period, and shall cover the one-year period corresponding to the hospital's Medicare cost-reporting period. The first such request may cover a period of less than a full year—from the effective date of the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to the end of the hospital's Medicare cost-reporting period. All costs reported to the CHAMPUS contractor must correspond to the costs reported on the hospital's Medicare cost report. An extension of the due date for filing the request may only be granted if an extension has been granted by HCFA due to a provider's operations being significantly adversely affected due to extraordinary circumstances over which the provider has no control, such as flood or fire. (If these costs change as a result of a subsequent audit by Medicare, the revised costs are to be reported to the hospital's CHAMPUS contractor within 30 days of the date the hospital is notified of the change). The request must be signed by the hospital official responsible for verifying the amounts and shall contain the following information.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The hospital's name.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The hospital's address.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The hospital's CHAMPUS provider number.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The hospital's Medicare provider number.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The period covered—this must correspond to the hospital's Medicare cost-reporting period.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Total inpatient days provided to all patients in units subject to DRG-based payment.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Total allowed CHAMPUS inpatient days provided in units subject to DRG-based payment.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Total allowable capital costs.
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Total allowable direct medical education costs.
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Total full-time equivalents for:
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Residents.
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Interns.
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) Total inpatient beds as of the end of the cost-reporting period. If this has changed during the reporting period, an explanation of the change must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>xii</I>) Title of official signing the report.
</P>
<P>(<I>xiii</I>) Reporting date.
</P>
<P>(<I>xiv</I>) The report shall contain a certification statement that any changes to the items in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii)(G)(<I>3</I>)(<I>vi</I>), (<I>vii</I>), (<I>viii</I>), (<I>ix</I>), or (<I>x</I>), which are a result of an audit of the hospital's Medicare cost-report, shall be reported to CHAMPUS within thirty (30) days of the date the hospital is notified of the change.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Special Programs and Incentive Payments.</I> (A) <I>Additional payment for new medical services and technologies.</I> TRICARE will make New Technology Add On Payments (NTAPs) adjustments to DRGs as provided in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>11</I>) of this section. The Director, Defense Health Agency (DHA), shall provide notice of the issuance of policies and guidelines adopting such adjustments together with any variations deemed necessary to address unique issues involving the beneficiary population or program administration.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Adoption of Medicare NTAPs.</I> For TRICARE covered services and supplies, TRICARE will adopt Medicare NTAPs as implemented under 42 CFR 412.87 under the same conditions as published by the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, except for pediatric cases.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Pediatric cases.</I> For pediatric NTAP DRGs, the TRICARE NTAP adjustment shall be modified to be set at 100 percent of the costs in excess of the Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) payment. As used in this paragraph, pediatric is defined as services and supplies provided to individuals under the age of 18, or who are being treated in a children's hospital or in a pediatric ward.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>TRICARE designated NTAP adjustments.</I> For categories of TRICARE covered services and supplies for which Medicare has not established an NTAP adjustment for DRGs, the Director, DHA may designate a TRICARE NTAP adjustment through a process using criteria to identify and select such new technology services/supplies similar to that utilized by Medicare under 42 CFR 412.87. The Director, DHA may then designate a TRICARE NTAP reimbursement adjustment through a process using a methodology similar to the Medicare methodology outlined in 42 CFR 412.88. This discretionary authority to designate TRICARE NTAP adjustments shall apply to services and supplies typically provided to TRICARE beneficiaries age 64 or younger when Medicare has not established an NTAP adjustment for such services/supplies. As with other discretionary authority under this part, a decision to designate a TRICARE category of services/supplies for an NTAP adjustment to DRGs and the amount of such an adjustment are not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10. The Director, DHA, shall select which new technologies may be designated as TRICARE NTAPs and will publish this list based on the eligibility criteria and reimbursement methodology provided in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>4</I>) through (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>11</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Eligibility requirements and reimbursement methodology for TRICARE designated NTAP adjustments.</I> A new medical service or technology represents an advance that substantially improves, relative to technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of TRICARE beneficiaries. The totality of the circumstances is considered when making a determination that a new medical service or technology represents an advance that substantially improves, relative to services or technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Criteria for improvement.</I> A determination that a new medical service or technology represents an advance that substantially improves, relative to services or technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of TRICARE beneficiaries means one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The new medical service or technology offers a treatment option for a patient population unresponsive to, or ineligible for, currently available treatments.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii)</I> The new medical service or technology offers the ability to diagnose a medical condition in a patient population where that medical condition is currently undetectable, or offers the ability to diagnose a medical condition earlier in a patient population than allowed by currently available methods and there must also be evidence that use of the new medical service or technology to make a diagnosis affects the management of the patient.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The use of the new medical service or technology significantly improves clinical outcomes relative to services or technologies previously available as demonstrated by one or more of the following seven outcomes: A reduction in at least one clinically significant adverse event, including a reduction in mortality or a clinically significant complication; A decreased rate of at least one subsequent diagnostic or therapeutic intervention; A decreased number of future hospitalizations or physician visits; A more rapid beneficial resolution of the disease process treatment including, but not limited to, a reduced length of stay or recovery time; An improvement in one or more activities of daily living; An improved quality of life; or A demonstrated greater medication adherence or compliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The totality of the information otherwise demonstrates that the new medical service or technology substantially improves, relative to technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Evidence.</I> Evidence from scientific literature may be sufficient to establish that a new medical service or technology represents an advance that substantially improves, relative to services or technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Prevalence.</I> The medical condition diagnosed or treated by the new medical service or technology may have a low prevalence among TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Subpopulation.</I> The new medical service or technology may represent an advance that substantially improves, relative to services or technologies previously available, the diagnosis or treatment of a subpopulation of patients with the medical condition diagnosed or treated by the new medical service or technology.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Newness criteria.</I> A medical service or technology may be considered new within 2 or 3 years after the point at which data begin to become available reflecting the inpatient hospital code assigned to the new service or technology (depending on when a new code is assigned and data on the new service or technology becomes available for DRG recalibration). After TRICARE has recalibrated the DRGs, based on available data, to reflect the costs of an otherwise new medical service or technology, the medical service or technology will no longer be considered “new” under the criterion of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) <I>Payment methodology.</I> For discharges involving new medical services or technologies that meet the criteria specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>4</I>) through (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>9</I>) and that are approved as TRICARE NTAPs per paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>11</I>) of this section, TRICARE payment will be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The CMS designated percentage of the estimated costs of the new technology or medical service, as published in 42 CFR 412.88; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The CMS designated percentage of the difference between the full DRG payment and the hospital's estimated cost for the case, as published in 42 CFR 412.88.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) <I>Publication and timing.</I> TRICARE may consider whether a new medical service or technology meets the eligibility criteria specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>4</I>) through (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>9</I>) of this section and announce the results on the NTAP website. In doing so, TRICARE only considers, for add-on payments for a particular fiscal year, an application for which the new medical device or product has received FDA marketing authorization by July 1 prior to the particular fiscal year; or the application is submitted under an alternative pathway to the FDA for which conditional NTAP approval for FDA marketing authorization is granted before July 1 of the fiscal year for which the applicant applied for new technology add-on payments.
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<P>(B) <I>Hospital Value Based Purchasing.</I> TRICARE will adopt the Medicare Hospital Value Based Purchasing (HVBP) Program adjustments to DRGs to incentivize hospitals as implemented under 42 CFR 412.160, when determined by the ASD(HA), as practicable. The Director, DHA, shall provide notice of the issuance of policies and guidelines adopting such adjustments together with any variations deemed necessary to address unique issues involving the beneficiary population or program administration.
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<P>(C) <I>Additional payment for new COVID-19 Treatments.</I> TRICARE will adopt the Medicare New COVID-19 Treatments Add-On Payments (NCTAP) adjustment to DRGs. New COVID-19 treatments shall be reimbursed the lesser of (1) 65 percent of the operating outlier threshold for the claim or (2) 65 percent of the amount by which the costs of the case exceed the standard DRG payment for an individual treated using new COVID-19 treatments discharged during the Secretary of Health and Human Services' declared public health emergency (PHE) through the end of the FY in which the PHE terminates.
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<P>(2) <I>CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system.</I> The CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system shall be used to reimburse for inpatient mental health hospital care in specialty psychiatric hospitals and units. Payment is made on the basis of prospectively determined rates and paid on a per diem basis. The system uses two sets of per diems. One set of per diems applies to hospitals and units that have a relatively higher number of CHAMPUS discharges. For these hospitals and units, the system uses hospital-specific per diem rates. The other set of per diems applies to hospitals and units with a relatively lower number of CHAMPUS discharges. For these hospitals and units, the system uses regional per diems, and further provides for adjustments for area wage differences and indirect medical education costs and additional pass-through payments for direct medical education costs.
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<P>(i) <I>Applicability of the mental health per diem payment system</I>—(A) <I>Hospitals and units covered.</I> The CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system applies to services covered (see paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section) that are provided in Medicare prospective payment system (PPS) exempt psychiatric specialty hospitals and all Medicare PPS exempt psychiatric specialty units of other hospitals. In addition, any psychiatric hospital that does not participate in Medicare, or any other hospital that has a psychiatric specialty unit that has not been so designated for exemption from the Medicare prospective payment system because the hospital does not participate in Medicare, may be designated as a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric specialty unit for purposes of the CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system upon demonstrating that it meets the same criteria (as determined by the Director, OCHAMPUS) as required for the Medicare exemption. The CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system does not apply to mental health services provided in other hospitals.
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<P>(B) <I>Services covered.</I> Unless specifically exempted, all covered hospitals' and units' inpatient claims which are classified into a mental health DRG (DRG categories 425-432, but not DRG 424) or an alcohol/drug abuse DRG (DRG categories 433-437) shall be subject to the mental health per diem payment system.
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<P>(ii) <I>Hospital-specific per diems for higher volume hospitals and units.</I> This paragraph describes the per diem payment amounts for hospitals and units with a higher volume of CHAMPUS discharges.
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<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) <I>Per diem amount.</I> A hospital-specific per diem amount shall be calculated for each hospital and unit with a higher volume of CHAMPUS discharges. The base period per diem amount shall be equal to the hospital's average daily charge in the base period. The base period amount, however, may not exceed the cap described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. The base period amount shall be updated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) In states that have implemented a payment system in connection with which hospitals in that state have been exempted from the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, psychiatric hospitals and units may have per diem amounts established based on the payment system applicable to such hospitals and units in the state. The per diem amount, however, may not exceed the cap amount applicable to other higher volume hospitals.
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<P>(B) <I>Cap</I>—(<I>1</I>) As it affects payment for care provided to patients prior to April 6, 1995, the base period per diem amount may not exceed the 80th percentile of the average daily charge weighted for all discharges throughout the United States from all higher volume hospitals.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Applicable to payments for care provided to patients on or after April 6, 1996, the base period per diem amount may not exceed the 70th percentile of the average daily charge weighted for all discharges throughout the United States from all higher volume hospitals. For this purpose, base year charges shall be deemed to be charges during the period of July 1, 1991 to June 30, 1992, adjusted to correspond to base year (FY 1988) charges by the percentage change in average daily charges for all higher volume hospitals and units between the period of July 1, 1991 to June 30, 1992 and the base year.
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<P>(C) <I>Review of per diem.</I> Any hospital or unit which believes OCHAMPUS calculated a hospital-specific per diem which differs by more than $5.00 from that calculated by the hospital or unit may apply to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, for a recalculation. The burden of proof shall be on the hospital.
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<P>(iii) <I>Regional per diems for lower volume hospitals and units.</I> This paragraph describes the per diem amounts for hospitals and units with a lower volume of CHAMPUS discharges.
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<P>(A) <I>Per diem amounts.</I> Hospitals and units with a lower volume of CHAMPUS patients shall be paid on the basis of a regional per diem amount, adjusted for area wages and indirect medical education. Base period regional per diems shall be calculated based upon all CHAMPUS lower volume hospitals' claims paid during the base period. Each regional per diem amount shall be the quotient of all covered charges divided by all covered days of care, reported on all CHAMPUS claims from lower volume hospitals in the region paid during the base period, after having standardized for indirect medical education costs and area wage indexes and subtracted direct medical education costs. Regional per diem amounts are adjusted in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(C) of this section. Additional pass-through payments to lower volume hospitals are made in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(D) of this section. The regions shall be the same as the Federal census regions.
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<P>(B) <I>Review of per diem amount.</I> Any hospital that believes the regional per diem amount applicable to that hospital has been erroneously calculated by OCHAMPUS by more than $5.00 may submit to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, evidence supporting a different regional per diem. The burden of proof shall be on the hospital.
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<P>(C) <I>Adjustments to regional per diems.</I> Two adjustments shall be made to the regional per diem rates.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Area wage index.</I> The same area wage indexes used for the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system (see paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>2</I>) of this section) shall be applied to the wage portion of the applicable regional per diem rate for each day of the admission. The wage portion shall be the same as that used for the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indirect medical education.</I> The indirect medical education adjustment factors shall be calculated for teaching hospitals in the same manner as is used in the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system (see paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section) and applied to the applicable regional per diem rate for each day of the admission.
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<P>(D) <I>Annual cost pass-through for direct medical education.</I> In addition to payments made to lower volume hospitals under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, CHAMPUS shall annually reimburse hospitals for actual direct medical education costs associated with services to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. This reimbursement shall be done pursuant to the same procedures as are applicable to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system (see paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(G) of this section).
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<P>(iv) <I>Base period and update factors</I>—(A) <I>Base period.</I> The base period for calculating the hospital-specific and regional per diems, as described in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (a)(2)(iii) of this section, is Federal fiscal year 1988. Base period calculations shall be based on actual claims paid during the period July 1, 1987 through May 31, 1988, trended forward to represent the 12-month period ending September 30, 1988 on the basis of the Medicare inpatient hospital market basket rate.
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<P>(B) <I>Alternative hospital-specific data base.</I> Upon application of a higher volume hospital or unit to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, the hospital or unit may have its hospital-specific base period calculations based on claims with a date of discharge (rather than date of payment) between July 1, 1987 through May 31, 1988 if it has generally experienced unusual delays in claims payments and if the use of such an alternative data base would result in a difference in the per diem amount of at least $5.00. For this purpose, the unusual delays means that the hospital's or unit's average time period between date of discharge and date of payment is more than two standard deviations longer than the national average.
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<P>(C) <I>Update factors</I>—(<I>1</I>) The hospital-specific per diems and the regional per diems calculated for the base period pursuant to paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) of this section shall remain in effect for federal fiscal year 1989; there will be no additional update for fiscal year 1989.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section, for subsequent federal fiscal years, each per diem shall be updated by the Medicare Inpatient Prospective Payment System update factor.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) As an exception to the update required by paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section, all per diems in effect at the end of fiscal year 1995 shall remain in effect, with no additional update, throughout fiscal years 1996 and 1997. For fiscal year 1998 and thereafter, the per diems in effect at the end of fiscal year 1997 will be updated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>).
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Hospitals and units with hospital-specific rates will be notified of their respective rates prior to the beginning of each Federal fiscal year. New hospitals shall be notified at such time as the hospital rate is determined. The actual amount of each regional per diem that will apply in any Federal fiscal year shall be posted to the Agency's official Web site at the start of that fiscal year.
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<P>(v) <I>Higher volume hospitals.</I> This paragraph describes the classification of and other provisions pertinent to hospitals with a higher volume of CHAMPUS patients.
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<P>(A) <I>In general.</I> Any hospital or unit that had an annual rate of 25 or more CHAMPUS discharges of CHAMPUS patients during the period July 1, 1987 through May 31, 1988 shall be considered a higher volume hospital has 25 or more CHAMPUS discharges, that hospital shall be considered to be a higher volume hospital during Federal fiscal year 1989 and all subsequent fiscal years. All other hospitals and units covered by the CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system shall be considered lower volume hospitals.
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<P>(B) <I>Hospitals that subsequently become higher volume hospitals.</I> In any Federal fiscal year in which a hospital, including a new hospital (see paragraph (a)(2)(v)(C) of this section), not previously classified as a higher volume hospital has 25 or more CHAMPUS discharges, that hospital shall be considered to be a higher volume hospital during the next Federal fiscal year and all subsequent fiscal years. The hospital specific per diem amount shall be calculated in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, except that the base period average daily charge shall be deemed to be the hospital's average daily charge in the year in which the hospital had 25 or more discharges, adjusted by the percentage change in average daily charges for all higher volume hospitals and units between the year in which the hospital had 25 or more CHAMPUS discharges and the base period. The base period amount, however, may not exceed the cap described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
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<P>(C) <I>Special retrospective payment provision for new hospitals.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, a new hospital is a hospital that qualifies for the Medicare exemption from the rate of increase ceiling applicable to new hospitals which are PPS-exempt psychiatric hospitals. Any new hospital that becomes a higher volume hospital, in addition to qualifying prospectively as a higher volume hospital for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(v)(B) of this section, may additionally, upon application to the Director, OCHAMPUS, receive a retrospective adjustment. The retrospective adjustment shall be calculated so that the hospital receives the same government share payments it would have received had it been designated a higher volume hospital for the federal fiscal year in which it first had 25 or more CHAMPUS discharges and the preceding fiscal year (if it had any CHAMPUS patients during the preceding fiscal year). Such new hospitals must agree not to bill CHAMPUS beneficiaries for any additional costs beyond that determined initially.
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<P>(D) <I>Review of classification.</I> Any hospital or unit which OCHAMPUS erroneously fails to classify as a higher volume hospital may apply to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, for such a classification. The hospital shall have the burden of proof.
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<P>(vi) <I>Payment for hospital based professional services.</I> Lower volume hospitals and units may not bill separately for hospital based professional mental health services; payment for those services is included in the per diems. Higher volume hospitals and units, whether they billed CHAMPUS separately for hospital based professional mental health services or included those services in the hospital's billing to CHAMPUS, shall continue the practice in effect during the period July 1, 1987 to May 31, 1988 (or other data base period used for calculating the hospital's or unit's per diem), except that any such hospital or unit may change its prior practice (and obtain an appropriate revision in its per diem) by providing to OCHAMPUS notice in accordance with procedures established by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee.
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<P>(vii) <I>Leave days.</I> CHAMPUS shall not pay for days where the patient is absent on leave from the specialty psychiatric hospital or unit. The hospital must identify these days when claiming reimbursement. CHAMPUS shall not count a patients's leave of absence as a discharge in determining whether a facility should be classified as a higher volume hospital pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section.
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<P>(viii) <I>Exemptions from the CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system.</I> The following providers and procedures are exempt from the CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system.
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<P>(A) <I>Non-specialty providers.</I> Providers of inpatient care which are not either psychiatric hospitals or psychiatric specialty units as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section are exempt from the CHAMPUS mental health per diem payment system. Such providers should refer to paragraph (a)(1) of this section for provisions pertinent to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
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<P>(B) <I>DRG 424.</I> Admissions for operating room procedures involving a principal diagnosis of mental illness (services which group into DRG 424) are exempt from the per diem payment system. They will be reimbursed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
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<P>(C) <I>Non-mental health services.</I> Admissions for non-mental health procedures in specialty psychiatric hospitals and units are exempt from the per diem payment system. They will be reimbursed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
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<P>(D) <I>Sole community hospitals (SCHs).</I> Prior to implementation of the SCH reimbursement method described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, any hospital that has qualified for special treatment under the Medicare prospective payment system as an SCH and has not given up that classification is exempt.
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<P>(E) <I>Hospitals outside the U.S.</I> A hospital is exempt if it is not located in one of the 50 states, the District of Columbia or Puerto Rico.
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<P>(ix) <I>Payment for psychiatric and substance use disorder rehabilitation partial hospitalization services, intensive outpatient psychiatric and substance use disorder services and opioid treatment services</I>—(A) <I>Per diem payments.</I> Psychiatric and substance use disorder partial hospitalization services, intensive outpatient psychiatric and substance use disorder services and opioid treatment services authorized by § 199.4(b)(9), (b)(10), and (b)(11), respectively, and provided by institutional providers authorized under § 199.6(b)(4)(xii), (b)(4)(xviii) and (b)(4)(xix), respectively, are reimbursed on the basis of prospectively determined, all-inclusive per diem rates pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (a)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section, with the exception of hospital-based psychiatric and substance use disorder and opioid services which are reimbursed in accordance with provisions of paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section and freestanding opioid treatment programs when reimbursed on a fee-for-service basis as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section. The per diem payment amount must be accepted as payment in full, subject to the outpatient cost-sharing provisions under § 199.4(f), for institutional services provided, including board, routine nursing services, group therapy, ancillary services (<I>e.g.,</I> music, dance, and occupational and other such therapies), psychological testing and assessment, overhead and any other services for which the customary practice among similar providers is included in the institutional charges, except for those services which may be billed separately under paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(B) of this section. Per diem payment will not be allowed for leave days during which treatment is not provided.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Partial hospitalization programs.</I> For any full-day partial hospitalization program (minimum of 6 hours), the maximum per diem payment amount is 40 percent of the average inpatient per diem amount per case established under the TRICARE mental health per diem reimbursement system during the fiscal year for both high and low volume psychiatric hospitals and units [as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section]. Intensive outpatient services provided in a PHP setting lasting less than 6 hours, with a minimum of 2 hours, will be paid as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(A)(2) of this section. PHP per diem rates will be updated annually by the Medicare update factor used for their Inpatient Prospective Payment System.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Intensive outpatient programs.</I> For intensive outpatient programs (IOPs) (minimum of 2 hours), the maximum per diem amount is 75 percent of the rate for a full-day partial hospitalization program as established in paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(A)(1) of this section. IOP per diem rates will be updated annually by the Medicare update factor used for their Inpatient Prospective Payment System.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Opioid treatment programs.</I> Opioid treatment programs (OTPs) authorized by § 199.4(b)(11) and provided by providers authorized under § 199.6(b)(4)(xix) will be reimbursed based on the variability in the dosage and frequency of the drug being administered and in related supportive services.
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<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Weekly all-inclusive per diem rate.</I> Methadone OTPs will be reimbursed the lower of the billed charge or the weekly all-inclusive per diem rate (the weekly national all-inclusive rate adjusted for locality), including the cost of the drug and related services (<I>i.e.,</I> the costs related to the initial intake/assessment, drug dispensing and screening and integrated psychosocial and medical treatment and support services). The bundled weekly per diem payments will be accepted as payment in full, subject to the outpatient cost-sharing provisions under § 199.4(f). The methadone per diem rate for OTPs will be updated annually by the Medicare update factor used for their Inpatient Prospective Payment System.
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Exceptions to per diem reimbursement.</I> When providing other medications which are more likely to be prescribed and administered in an office-based opioid treatment setting, but which are still available for treatment of substance use disorders in an outpatient treatment program setting, OTPs will be reimbursed on a fee-for-service basis (<I>i.e.,</I> separate payments will be allowed for both the medication and accompanying support services), subject to the outpatient cost-sharing provisions under § 199.4(f). OTPs' rates will be updated annually by the Medicare update factor used for their Inpatient Prospective Payment System.
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Discretionary authority.</I> The Director, TRICARE, will have discretionary authority in establishing the reimbursement methodologies for new drugs and biologicals that may become available for the treatment of substance use disorders in OTPs. The type of reimbursement (<I>e.g.,</I> fee-for-service versus bundled per diem payments) will be dependent on the variability of the dosage and frequency of the medication being administered, as well as the support services.
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<P>(B) <I>Services which may be billed separately.</I> Psychotherapy sessions and non-mental health related medical services not normally included in the evaluation and assessment of PHP, IOP or OTPs, provided by authorized independent professional providers who are not employed by, or under contract with, PHP, IOP or OTPs for the purposes of providing clinical patient care are not included in the per diem rate and may be billed separately. This includes ambulance services when medically necessary for emergency transport.
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<P>(3) <I>Reimbursement for inpatient services provided by a CAH.</I> (i) For admissions on or after December 1, 2009, inpatient services provided by a CAH, other than services provided in psychiatric and rehabilitation distinct part units, shall be reimbursed at allowable cost (<I>i.e.,</I> 101 percent of reasonable cost) under procedures, guidelines, and instructions issued by the Director, DHA, or designee. This does not include any costs of physicians' services or other professional services provided to CAH inpatients. Inpatient services provided in psychiatric distinct part units would be subject to the TRICARE mental health payment system. Inpatient services provided in rehabilitation distinct part units would be subject to billed charges. Upon implementation of TRICARE's IRF PPS, inpatient services provided in rehabilitation distinct part units would be subject to the TRICARE IRF PPS methodology in paragraph (a)(10) of this section.
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<P>(ii) The percentage amount stated in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is subject to possible upward adjustment based on a inpatient GTMCPA for TRICARE network hospitals deemed essential for military readiness and support during contingency operations under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
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<P>(4) The allowable cost for authorized care in all hospitals not subject to the TRICARE DRG-based payment system, the TRICARE mental health per-diem system, the TRICARE reasonable cost method for CAHs, the TRICARE reimbursement rules for SCHs, the TRICARE LTCH-PPS, or the TRICARE IRF PPS shall be determined on the basis of billed charges or set rates.
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<P>(i) The actual charge for such service made to the general public; or
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<P>(ii) The allowed charge applicable to the policyholders or subscribers of the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediary for comparable services under comparable circumstances, when extended to CHAMPUS beneficiaries by consent or agreement; or
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<P>(iii) The allowed charge applicable to the citizens of the community or state as established by local or state regulatory authority, excluding title XIX of the Social Security Act or other welfare program, when extended to CHAMPUS beneficiaries by consent or agreement.
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<P>(5) <I>CHAMPUS discount rates.</I> The CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost for authorized care in any hospital may be based on discount rates established under paragraph (l) of this section.
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<P>(6) <I>Hospital outpatient services.</I> This paragraph (a)(6) identifies and clarifies payment methods for certain outpatient services, including emergency services, provided by hospitals.
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<P>(i) <I>Outpatient Services Not Subject to Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS).</I> The following are payment methods for outpatient services that are either provided in an OPPS exempt hospital or paid outside the OPPS payment methodology under existing fee schedules or other prospectively determined rates in a hospital subject to OPPS reimbursement.
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<P>(A) <I>Laboratory services.</I> TRICARE payments for hospital outpatient laboratory services including clinical laboratory services are based on the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of the section. In the case of laboratory services for which the CMAC rates are established under that paragraph, a payment rate for the technical component of the laboratory services is provided. Hospital charges for an outpatient laboratory service are reimbursed using the CMAC technical component rate.
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<P>(B) <I>Rehabilitation therapy services.</I> Rehabilitation therapy services provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as rehabilitation therapy services covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(C) <I>Venipuncture.</I> Routine venipuncture services provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as such services covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section. Routine venipuncture services provided on an outpatient basis by institutional providers other than hospitals are also paid on this basis.
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<P>(D) <I>Radiology services.</I> TRICARE payments for hospital outpatient radiology services are based on the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of the section. In the case of radiology services for which the CMAC rates are established under that paragraph, a payment rate for the technical component of the radiology services is provided. Hospital charges for an outpatient radiology service are reimbursed using the CMAC technical component rate.
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<P>(E) <I>Diagnostic services.</I> TRICARE payments for hospital outpatient diagnostic services are based on the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of the section. In the case of diagnostic services for which the CMAC rates are established under that paragraph, a payment rate for the technical component of the diagnostic services is provided. Hospital charges for an outpatient diagnostic service are reimbursed using the CMAC technical component rate.
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<P>(F) <I>Ambulance services.</I> Ambulance services provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as ambulance services covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(G) <I>Durable medical equipment (DME) and supplies.</I> Durable medical equipment and supplies provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as durable medical equipment and supplies covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(H) <I>Oxygen and related supplies.</I> Oxygen and related supplies provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as oxygen and related supplies covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(I) <I>Drugs administered other than by oral method.</I> Drugs administered other than by oral method provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as drugs administered other than by oral method covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(J) <I>Professional provider services.</I> TRICARE payments for hospital outpatient professional provider services rendered in an emergency room, clinic, or hospital outpatient department, etc., are based on the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of the section. In the case of professional services for which the CMAC rates are established under that paragraph, a payment rate for the professional component of the services is provided. Hospital charges for an outpatient professional service are reimbursed using the CMAC professional component rate. If the professional outpatient hospital services are billed by a professional provider group, not by the hospital, no payment shall be made to the hospital for these services.
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<P>(K) <I>Facility charges.</I> TRICARE payments for hospital outpatient facility charges that would include the overhead costs of providing the outpatient service would be paid as billed. For the definition of facility charge, see § 199.2(b).
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<P>(L) <I>Ambulatory surgery services.</I> Hospital outpatient ambulatory surgery services shall be paid in accordance with § 199.14(d).
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<P>(ii) <I>Outpatient services subject to OPPS</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> Outpatient services provided in hospitals subject to Medicare OPPS as specified in 42 CFR 413.65 and 42 CFR 419.20, to include cancer and children's hospitals, will be paid in accordance with the provisions outlined in sections 1833t of the Social Security Act and its implementing Medicare regulation (42 CFR part 419) subject to exceptions as authorized by this paragraph (a)(6)(ii).
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<P>(B) Under the above governing provisions, TRICARE will recognize to the extent practicable, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1089(j)(2), Medicare's OPPS reimbursement methodology to include specific coding requirements, ambulatory payment classifications (APCs), nationally established APC amounts and associated adjustments (<I>e.g.,</I> discounting across geographical regions and outlier calculations).
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<P>(C) While TRICARE intends to remain as true as possible to Medicare's basic OPPS methodology, there will be some deviations required to accommodate TRICARE's unique benefit structure and beneficiary population as authorized under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1079(j)(2).
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<P>(D) TRICARE is also authorized to deviate from Medicare's basic OPPS methodology to establish special reimbursement methods, amounts, and procedures to encourage use of high-value products and discourage use of low-value products with respect to pharmaceutical agents provided as part of medical services from authorized providers. Therefore, drugs administered other than oral method provided on an outpatient basis by hospitals are paid on the same basis as drugs administered other than oral method covered by the allowable charge method under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
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<P>(E) <I>Temporary transitional payment adjustments (TTPAs).</I> Temporary transitional payment adjustments will be in place for all hospitals, both network and non-network, except for cancer and children's hospitals, in order to buffer the initial decline in payments upon implementation of TRICARE's OPPS.


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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>For network hospitals.</I> The temporary transitional payment adjustments will cover a four-year period. The four-year transition will set higher payment percentages for the ten Ambulatory Payment Classification (APC) codes 604-609 and 613-616, with reductions in each of the transition years. For non-network hospitals, the adjustments will cover a three year period, with reductions in each of the transition years. For network hospitals, under the TTPAs, the APC payment level for the five clinic visit APCs would be set at 175 percent of the Medicare APC level, while the five ER visit APCs would be increased by 200 percent in the first year of OPPS implementation. In the second year, the APC payment levels would be set at 150 percent of the Medicare APC level for clinic visits and 175 percent for ER APCs. In the third year, the APC visit amounts would be set at 130 percent of the Medicare APC level for clinic visits and 150 percent for ER APCs. In the fourth year, the APC visit amounts would be set at 115 percent of the Medicare APC level for clinic visits and 130 percent for ER APCs. In the fifth year, the TRICARE and Medicare payment levels for the 10 APC visit codes would be identical.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For non-network hospitals.</I> Under the TTPAs, the APC payment level for the five clinic and ER visit APCs would be set at 140 percent of the Medicare APC level in the first year of OPPS implementation. In the second year, the APC payment levels would be set at 125 percent of the Medicare APC level for clinic and ER visits. In the third year, the APC visit amounts would be set at 110 percent of the Medicare APC level for clinic and ER visits. In the fourth year, the TRICARE and Medicare payment levels for the 10 APC visit codes would be identical.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) An additional general temporary military contingency payment adjustment (GTMCPA) will also be available at the discretion of the Director, or a designee, at any time after implementation to adopt, modify and/or extend temporary adjustments to OPPS payments for TRICARE network hospitals deemed essential for military readiness and deployment in time of contingency operations. Any GTMCPAs to OPPS payments shall be made only on the basis of a determination that it is impracticable to support military readiness or contingency operations by making OPPS payments in accordance with the same reimbursement rules implemented by Medicare. For cancer and children's hospitals to qualify for the GTMCPA, they must meet the criteria in paragraphs (a)(6)(ii)(E)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this section. Cancer and children's hospitals that meet these criteria will be eligible to receive up to 115 percent of the hospital's costs for OPPS services. The criteria for adopting, modifying, and/or extending deviations and/or adjustments to OPPS payments shall be issued through CHAMPUS policies, instructions, procedures and guidelines as deemed appropriate by the Director, or a designee. GTMCPAs may also be extended to non-network hospitals on a case-by-case basis for specific procedures where it is determined that the procedures cannot be obtained timely enough from a network hospital. For such case-by-case extensions, “Temporary” might be less than three years at the discretion of the Director, or designee. The GTMCPA qualification criteria for cancer and children's hospitals follow:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Have 10 percent or more of its revenue come from TRICARE for care of ADSMs and ADDs;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Have 10,000 or more of its TRICARE visits paid under the OPPS for ADSMs and ADDs annually; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Be deemed as essential for TRICARE operations.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>For cancer and children's hospitals.</I> There are no temporary transitional payment adjustments in place. Reimbursement will be on the basis of OPPS, however, payments shall be adjusted so that these providers receive 100 percent of their costs. Adjustments shall be made on an annual basis, and within 180 days of the end of the OPPS year (OPPS Year is defined as April 1 through March 30) DHA will calculate the hospital's costs, utilizing the hospital-specific outpatient cost-to-charge ratio (CCR). The costs shall be calculated by multiplying the hospital's billed charges for OPPS services by the CCR. If the hospital's costs, as calculated by DHA, exceeded the payment that had been made under OPPS, the hospital shall receive an annual payment adjustment so that the hospital receives 100% of their costs.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Outpatient Services Subject to CAH Reasonable Cost Method.</I> For services on or after December 1, 2009, outpatient services provided by a CAH, shall be reimbursed at 101 percent of reasonable cost. This does not include any costs of physician services or other professional services provided to CAH outpatients.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>CAH Ambulance Services.</I> Effective for services provided on or after December 1, 2009, payment for ambulance services furnished by a CAH or an entity that is owned and operated by a CAH is the reasonable costs of the CAH or the entity in furnishing those services, but only if the CAH or the entity is the only provider or supplier of ambulance services located within a 35-mile drive of the CAH or the entity as specified under 42 CFR part 413.70(b)(5)(ii).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reimbursement for inpatient services provided by an SCH.</I> (i) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(j)(2), TRICARE payment methods for institutional care shall be determined, to the extent practicable, in accordance with the same reimbursement rules as those that apply to payments to providers of services of the same type under Medicare. TRICARE's SCH reimbursements approximate Medicare's for SCHs. Inpatient services provided by an SCH, other than services provided in psychiatric and rehabilitation distinct part units, shall be reimbursed through a two-step process.
</P>
<P>(ii) The first step referred to in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section will be to calculate the TRICARE allowable cost by multiplying the applicable TRICARE percentage by the billed charge amount on each institutional inpatient claim. The applicable TRICARE percentage is the greater of: the SCH's most recently available cost-to-charge ratio (CCR) from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' (CMS') inpatient Provider Specific File (after the ratio has been converted to a percentage), or the TRICARE allowed-to-billed ratio, defined as the ratio of the TRICARE allowed amounts (including discounts) to the amount of billed charges for TRICARE inpatient admissions at the SCH in FY 2012 (after it has been converted to a percentage). The TRICARE allowed-to-billed ratio in FY 2012 shall be reduced as follows (after the ratio has been converted to a percentage):
</P>
<P>(A) In the first year of implementation, 10 percentage points for network SCHs and 15 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(B) In the second year of implementation, 20 percentage points for network SCHs and 30 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(C) In the third year of implementation, 30 percentage points for network SCHs and 45 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(D) In the fourth year of implementation, 40 percentage points for network SCHs and 60 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(E) In the fifth year of implementation, 50 percentage points for network SCHs and 75 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(F) In the sixth year of implementation, 60 percentage points for network SCHs and 90 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(G) In the seventh year of implementation, 70 percentage points for network SCHs and 100 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(H) In the eighth year of implementation, 80 percentage points for network SCHs and 100 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(I) In the ninth year of implementation, 90 percentage points for network SCHs and 100 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(J) In the tenth year of implementation, 100 percentage points for network SCHs and 100 percentage points for non-network SCHs.
</P>
<P>(iii) The second step referred to in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section is a year-end adjustment. The year-end adjustment will compare the aggregate allowable costs over a 12-month period under paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section to the aggregate amount that would have been allowed for the same care using the TRICARE DRG-method (under paragraph (a)(1) of this section). In the event that the DRG method amount is the greater, the year-end adjustment will be the amount by which it exceeds the aggregate allowable costs. In addition, the year-end adjustment also may incorporate a possible upward adjustment for inpatient services based on a GTMCPA for TRICARE network hospitals under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) At the end of an SCH's transition period, when the SCH reaches its Medicare CCR, a special allowable cost shall be applicable for discharges that group to inpatient nursery and labor/delivery DRGs. For these discharges, instead of using the percentage of the SCH's Medicare cost-to-charge ratio (as described in paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section), the percentage will be 130 percent of the Medicare CCR.
</P>
<P>(v) The SCH reimbursement provisions of paragraphs (a)(7)(i) through (iv) of this section do not apply to any costs of physician services or other professional services provided to SCH inpatients (which are subject to individual provider payment provisions of this section), inpatient services provided in psychiatric distinct part units (which are subject to the CHAMPUS mental health per-diem payment system), or inpatient services provided in rehabilitation distinct part units (which are reimbursed on the basis of billed charges or set rates).
</P>
<P>(vi) The SCH payment system under this paragraph (a)(7) applies to hospitals classified by CMS as Essential Access Community Hospitals (EACHs).
</P>
<P>(vii) The SCH payment system under this paragraph (a)(7) does not apply to hospitals in States that are paid by Medicare and TRICARE under a cost containment waiver.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>General temporary military contingency payment adjustment for SCHs and CAHs.</I> (i) Payments under paragraph (a) of this section for inpatient services provided by SCHs and CAHs may be supplemented by a GTMCPA. This is a year-end discretionary, temporary adjustment that the TMA Director may approve based on all the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The hospital serves a disproportionate share of ADSMs and ADDs;
</P>
<P>(B) The hospital is a TRICARE network hospital;
</P>
<P>(C) The hospital's actual costs for inpatient services exceed TRICARE payments or other extraordinary economic circumstance exists; and,
</P>
<P>(D) Without the GTMCPA, DoD's ability to meet military contingency mission requirements will be significantly compromised.
</P>
<P>(ii) Policy and procedural instructions implementing the GTMCPA will be issued as deemed appropriate by the Director, TMA, or a designee. As with other discretionary authority under this Part, a decision to allow or deny a GTMCPA to a hospital is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Reimbursement for inpatient services provided by a Long Term Care Hospital (LTCH).</I> (i) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(i)(2), TRICARE payment methods for institutional care shall be determined, to the extent practicable, in accordance with the same reimbursement rules as those that apply to payments to providers of services of the same type under Medicare. The TRICARE-LTC-DRG reimbursement methodology shall be in accordance with Medicare's Medicare Severity Long Term Care Diagnosis Related Groups (MS-LTC-DRGs) as found in regulation at 42 CFR part 412, subpart O. Inpatient services provided in hospitals subject to the Medicare LTCH Prospective Payment System (PPS) and classified as LTCHs and also as specified in 42 CFR parts 412 and 413 will be paid in accordance with the provisions outlined in sections 1886(d)(1)(B)(IV) and 1886(m)(6) of the Social Security Act and its implementing Medicare regulation (42 CFR parts 412, 413, and 170) to the extent practicable. Under the above governing provisions, TRICARE will recognize, to the extent practicable, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(i)(2), Medicare's LTCH PPS methodology to include the relative weights, inpatient operating and capital costs of furnishing covered services (including routine and ancillary services), interrupted stay policy, short-stay and high cost outlier payments, site-neutral payments, wage adjustments for variations in labor-related costs across geographical regions, cost-of-living adjustments, payment adjustments associated with the quality reporting program, method of payment for preadmission services, and updates to the system. TRICARE will not be adopting Medicare's 25 percent threshold payment adjustment.


</P>
<P>(ii) Implementation of the TRICARE LTCH PPS will include a gradual transition to full implementation of the Medicare LTCH PPS rates as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For the first 12 months following implementation, the TRICARE LTCH PPS allowable cost will be 135 percent of Medicare LTCH PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(B) For the second 12 months of implementation, TRICARE LTCH PPS allowable cost will be 115 percent of the Medicare LTCH PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(C) For the third 12 months of implementation, and subsequent years, TRICARE LTCH PPS allowable cost will be 100 percent of the Medicare LTCH PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption.</I> The TRICARE LTCH PPS methodology under this paragraph does not apply to hospitals in States that are reimbursed by Medicare and TRICARE under a waiver that exempts them from Medicare's inpatient prospective payment system or the TRICARE DRG-based payment system, to Children's Hospitals, or to Neoplastic Disease Care Hospitals, respectively.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Reimbursement for inpatient services provided by Inpatient Rehabilitation Facilities (IRF).</I> (i) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(i)(2), TRICARE payment methods for institutional care shall be determined to the extent practicable, in accordance with the same reimbursement rules as those that apply to payments to providers of services of the same type under Medicare. The TRICARE IRF PPS reimbursement methodology shall be in accordance with Medicare's IRF PPS as found in 42 CFR part 412. Inpatient services provided in IRFs subject to the Medicare IRF prospective payment system (PPS) and classified as IRFs and also as specified in 42 CFR 412.604 will be paid in accordance with the provisions outlined in section 1886(j) of the Social Security Act and its implementing Medicare regulation found at 42 CFR part 412, subpart P to the extent practicable. Under the above governing provisions, TRICARE will recognize, to the extent practicable, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(i)(2), Medicare's IRF PPS methodology to include the relative weights, payment rates covering all operating and capitals costs of furnishing rehabilitative services adjusted for wage variations in labor-related costs across geographical regions, adjustments for the 60 percent compliance threshold, teaching adjustment, rural adjustment, high-cost outlier payments, low income payment adjustment, payment adjustments associated with the quality reporting program, and updates to the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implementation of the TRICARE IRF PPS will include a gradual transition to full implementation of the Medicare IRF PPS rates as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For the first 12 months of implementation, the TRICARE IRF PPS allowable cost will be 135 percent of Medicare IRF PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(B) For the second 12 months of implementation, the TRICARE IRF PPS allowable cost will be 115 percent of the Medicare IRF PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(C) For the third 12 months of implementation, and subsequent years, the TRICARE IRF PPS allowable cost will be 100 percent of the Medicare IRF PPS amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) The IRF PPS allowable cost in paragraph (a)(10)(ii) of this section may be supplemented by an inpatient general temporary military contingency payment adjustment (GTMCPA) for TRICARE authorized IRFs.
</P>
<P>(A) This is a year-end discretionary, temporary adjustment that the Director, DHA (or designee) may approve based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The IRF serves a disproportionate share of ADSMs and ADDs;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The IRF is a TRICARE network hospital;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The IRF's actual costs for inpatient services exceed TRICARE payments or other extraordinary economic circumstance exists; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Without the GTMCPA, DoD's ability to meet military contingency mission requirements will be significantly compromised.
</P>
<P>(B) Policy and procedural instructions implementing the GTMCPA will be issued as deemed appropriate by the Director, DHA (or designee). As with other discretionary authority under this part, a decision to allow or deny a GTMCPA to an IRF is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exemption.</I> The TRICARE IRF PPS methodology under this paragraph does not apply to hospitals in States that are reimbursed by Medicare and TRICARE under a waiver that exempts them from Medicare's inpatient prospective payment system or the TRICARE DRG-based payment system, to Children's hospitals, or to VA hospitals, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Skilled nursing facilities (SNFs)</I>—(1) <I>Use of Medicare prospective payment system and rates.</I> TRICARE payments to SNFs are determined using the same methods and rates used under the Medicare prospective payment system for SNFs under 42 CFR part 413, subpart J, except for children under age ten. SNFs receive a per diem payment of a predetermined Federal payment rate appropriate for the case based on patient classification (using the RUG classification system), urban or rural location of the facility, and area wage index.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment in full.</I> The SNF payment rates represent payment in full (subject to any applicable beneficiary cost shares) for all costs (routine, ancillary, and capital-related) associated with furnishing inpatient SNF services to TRICARE beneficiaries other than costs associated with operating approved educational activities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Education costs.</I> Costs for approved educational activities shall be subject to separate payment under procedures established by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity. Such procedures shall be similar to procedures for payments for direct medical education costs of hospitals under paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(G)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Resident assessment data.</I> SNFs are required to submit the same resident assessment data as is required under the Medicare program. (The residential assessment is addressed in the Medicare regulations at 42 CFR 483.20.) SNFs must submit assessments according to an assessment schedule. This schedule must include performance of patient assessments on the 5th, 14th, and 30th days of SNF care and at each successive 30 day interval of SNF admissions that are longer than 30 days. It must also include such other assessments that are necessary to account for changes in patient care needs. TRICARE pays a default rate for the days of a patient's care for which the SNF has failed to comply with the assessment schedule.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reimbursement of Freestanding End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) facilities.</I> (1) This paragraph (c)(1) establishes payment methods for dialysis provided by TRICARE authorized freestanding ESRD facilities. TRICARE shall reimburse a single, flat, per-session fee to TRICARE authorized freestanding ESRD facilities rendering hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis for treatment of ESRD or AKI. The flat, per-session fee will apply to renal dialysis services furnished in the ESRD facility or in a patient's home. All renal dialysis items and services furnished in the ESRD facility or in a patient's home are included in the flat per-session rate, except for those items and services listed in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Services included in the flat per-session rate must be furnished by an authorized TRICARE ESRD institutional provider:
</P>
<P>(A) Institutional charges (e.g., charges for facility use, use or treatment rooms, and general nursing services);
</P>
<P>(B) Routine laboratory services related to the dialysis session;
</P>
<P>(C) Pharmaceuticals and supplies related to the dialysis;
</P>
<P>(D) Home dialysis support services identified at 42 CFR 494.100;
</P>
<P>(E) Purchase and delivery of all necessary home dialysis supplies; and
</P>
<P>(F) Dialysis training for days 1-120.
</P>
<P>(ii) Services which may be billed separately:
</P>
<P>(A) Evaluation and management services provided by authorized individual professional providers. These services will continue to be reimbursed using existing reimbursement systems (e.g., CMAC).
</P>
<P>(B) Drugs, supplies, and devices listed by Medicare as eligible for Transitional Drug Add-on Payment Adjustment and Transitional Add-on Payment Adjustment for New and Innovative Equipment and Supplies under the Medicare ESRD PPS. These services will continue to be reimbursed using existing reimbursement systems (e.g., CMAC).
</P>
<P>(C) Professional services, supplies, and pharmaceuticals unrelated to dialysis care (e.g., if a flu shot is administered at the same time as dialysis treatment). These services will continue to be reimbursed using existing reimbursement systems (e.g., CMAC).
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishment of the flat rate:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Per session rate for treatment days 1-120.</I> The flat, per-session rate shall be equal to the current Medicare base rate, multiplied by the current Medicare adjustment factor applied to individuals aged 44-69 (7% for CY 22), and further multiplied by the current Medicare adjustment factor for the date of onset (32.7% for CY 2022). The Medicare factors utilized in subsequent years will be based on modifications made under 42 CFR part 413, subpart H, Medicare ESRD PPS.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Per session rate for treatment day 121 and beyond.</I> The flat, per-session rate shall be equal to the Medicare base rate, multiplied by the Medicare adjustment factor applied to individuals aged 44-69. The Medicare factors utilized in subsequent years will be based on modifications made under 42 CFR part 413, subpart H, Medicare ESRD PPS.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Wage adjustment.</I> The per-session rates in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section shall be wage adjusted using the wage adjustment factors and labor-related shares published in the most recent Medicare ESRD Final Rule at the time the annual per-session rates are posted.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Annual updates.</I> The per session rates will be updated within 90 days of publication of new Medicare base rates, and published to the TRICARE website at <I>www.health.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Dialysis training.</I> To account for training services and supplies, dialysis training sessions will receive a home dialysis training add-on payment for day treatment days 121 and after. The training add-on payment will not apply to treatment days 1-120, as the onset adjustment factor of 32.7% is applied to the per-session rate for treatment days 1-120.
</P>
<P>(2) The reimbursement methods established in paragraph (c)(1) of this section applies to freestanding ESRD facilities meeting the requirements established for TRICARE authorized freestanding ESRD facilities in § 199.6. For purposes of cost-sharing and copayments, treatment provided by freestanding ESRD facilities are considered outpatient specialty visits. The applicable copayments and cost-shares described in §§ 199.4 and 199.17(k)(2)(iii) shall apply. Hospital-based ESRD facilities are not subject to the provisions of this paragraph, and will continue to be reimbursed utilizing other applicable reimbursement systems (e.g., the Outpatient Prospective Payment System).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment of institutional facility costs for ambulatory surgery.</I> In general, TRICARE pays for institutional facility costs for ambulatory surgery on the basis of prospectively determined amounts, as provided in this paragraph, with the exception of ambulatory surgery procedures performed in hospital outpatient departments or CAHs, which are to be reimbursed in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(6)(ii) or (iii) of this section. Surgical services provided in Ambulatory Surgery Centers (ASCs) as defined in § 199.2(b) will be paid in accordance with the provisions outlined in section 1833(t) of the Social Security Act and its implementing Medicare regulation (42 CFR part 416). TRICARE will recognize, to the extent practicable, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1079(i)(2), Medicare's ASC reimbursement methodology to include specific coding requirements, prospectively determined rates, discounts for multiple surgical procedures, the scope of ASC services, covered surgical procedures, and the basis of payment as described in 42 CFR part 416 with the exception that TRICARE will implement no transitional payments. Payments to ASCs for covered procedures and services will be based on the lesser of the billed charge or the ASC payment rate. Payment for ambulatory surgery procedures is limited to those procedures that are reimbursed by Medicare in ASCs, with the exception of dental procedures that are covered by the TRICARE program, as described in § 199.4. In the absence of a Medicare ASC fee schedule rate, the payment for a covered dental procedure in ASCs will be based on the same rate under TRICARE's OPPS.

 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reimbursement of Birthing Centers.</I> (1) Reimbursement for maternity care and childbirth services furnished by an authorized birthing center shall be limited to the lower of the CHAMPUS established all-inclusive rate or the center's most-favored all-inclusive rate.
</P>
<P>(2) The all-inclusive rate shall include the following to the extent that they are usually associated with a normal pregnancy and childbirth: Laboratory studies, prenatal management, labor management, delivery, post-partum management, newborn care, birth assistant, certified nurse-midwife professional services, physician professional services, and the use of the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) The CHAMPUS established all-inclusive rate is equal to the sum of the CHAMPUS area prevailing professional charge for total obstetrical care for a normal pregnancy and delivery and the sum of the average CHAMPUS allowable institutional charges for supplies, laboratory, and delivery room for a hospital inpatient normal delivery. The CHAMPUS established all-inclusive rate areas will coincide with those established for prevailing professional charges and will be updated concurrently with the CHAMPUS area prevailing professional charge database.
</P>
<P>(4) Extraordinary maternity care services, when otherwise authorized, may be reimbursed at the lesser of the billed charge or the CHAMPUS allowable charge.
</P>
<P>(5) Reimbursement for an incomplete course of care will be limited to claims for professional services and tests where the beneficiary has been screened but rejected for admission into the birthing center program, or where the woman has been admitted but is discharged from the birthing center program prior to delivery, adjudicated as individual professional services and items.
</P>
<P>(6) The beneficiary's share of the total reimbursement to a birthing center is limited to the cost-share amount plus the amount billed for non-covered services and supplies.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reimbursement of Residential Treatment Centers.</I> The CHAMPUS rate is the per diem rate that CHAMPUS will authorize for all mental health services rendered to a patient and the patient's family as part of the total treatment plan submitted by a CHAMPUS-approved RTC, and approved by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee.
</P>
<P>(1) The all-inclusive per diem rate for RTCs operating or participating in CHAMPUS during the base period of July 1, 1987, through June 30, 1988, will be the lowest of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The CHAMPUS rate paid to the RTC for all-inclusive services as of June 30, 1988, adjusted by the Consumer Price Index—Urban (CPI-U) for medical care as determined applicable by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The per diem rate accepted by the RTC from any other agency or organization (public or private) that is high enough to cover one-third of the total patient days during the 12-month period ending June 30, 1988, adjusted by the CPI-U; or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The per diem rate accepted by the RTC from any other agency or organization includes the rates accepted from entities such as Government contractors in CHAMPUS demonstration projects.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) An OCHAMPUS determined capped per diem amount not to exceed the 80th percentile of all established CHAMPUS RTC rates nationally, weighted by total CHAMPUS days provided at each rate during the base period discussed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The all-inclusive per diem rates for RTCs which began operation after June 30, 1988, or began operation before July 1, 1988, but had less than 6 months of operation by June 30, 1988, will be calculated based on the lower of the per diem rate accepted by the RTC that is high enough to cover one-third of the total patient days during its first 6 to 12 consecutive months of operation, or the CHAMPUS determined capped amount. Rates for RTCs beginning operation prior to July 1, 1988, will be adjusted by an appropriate CPI-U inflation factor for the period ending June 30, 1988. A period of less than 12 months will be used only when the RTC has been in operation for less than 12 months. Once a full 12 months is available, the rate will be recalculated. 
</P>
<P>(3) For care on or after April 6, 1995, the per diem amount may not exceed a cap of the 70th percentile of all established Federal fiscal year 1994 RTC rates nationally, weighted by total CHAMPUS days provided at each rate during the first half of Federal fiscal year 1994, and updated to FY95. For Federal fiscal years 1996 and 1997, the cap shall remain unchanged. For Federal fiscal years after fiscal year 1997, the cap shall be adjusted by the Medicare update factor for hospitals and units exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system.
</P>
<P>(4) All educational costs, whether they include routine education or special education costs, are excluded from reimbursement except when appropriate education is not available from, or not payable by, a cognizant public entity.
</P>
<P>(i) The RTC shall exclude educational costs from its daily costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The RTC's accounting system must be adequate to assure CHAMPUS is not billed for educational costs.
</P>
<P>(iii) The RTC may request payment of educational costs on an individual case basis from the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, when appropriate education is not available from, or not payable by, a cognizant public entity. To qualify for reimbursement of educational costs in individual cases, the RTC shall comply with the application procedures established by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, including, but not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) As part of its admission procedures, the RTC must counsel and assist the beneficiary and the beneficiary's family in the necessary procedures for assuring their rights to a free and appropriate public education. 
</P>
<P>(B) The RTC must document any reasons why an individual beneficiary cannot attend public educational facilities and, in such a case, why alternative educational arrangements have not been provided by the cognizant public entity. 
</P>
<P>(C) If reimbursement of educational costs is approved for an individual beneficiary by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee, such educational costs shall be shown separately from the RTC's daily costs on the CHAMPUS claim. The amount paid shall not exceed the RTC's most-favorable rate to any other patient, agency, or organization for special or general educational services whichever is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(D) If the RTC fails to request CHAMPUS approval of the educational costs on an individual case, the RTC agrees not to bill the beneficiary or the beneficiary's family for any amounts disallowed by CHAMPUS. Requests for payment of educational costs must be referred to the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee for review and a determination of the applicability of CHAMPUS benefits. 
</P>
<P>(5) Subject to the applicable RTC cap, adjustments to the RTC rates may be made annually.
</P>
<P>(i) For Federal fiscal years through 1995, the adjustment shall be based on the Consumer Price Index-Urban (CPI-U) for medical care as determined applicable by the Director, OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of rates for Federal fiscal years 1996 and 1997:
</P>
<P>(A) For any RTC whose 1995 rate was at or above the thirtieth percentile of all established Federal fiscal year 1995 RTC rates normally, weighted by total CHAMPUS days provided at each rate during the first half of Federal fiscal year 1994, that rate shall remain in effect, with no additional update, throughout fiscal years 1996 and 1997; and
</P>
<P>(B) For any RTC whose 1995 rate was below the 30th percentile level determined under paragraph (f)(5)(ii)(A) of this section, the rate shall be adjusted by the lesser of: the CPI-U for medical care, or the amount that brings the rate up to that 30th percentile level.
</P>
<P>(iii) For subsequent Federal fiscal years after fiscal year 1997, RTC rates shall be updated by the Medicare update factor for hospitals and units exempt from the Medicare prospective payment system.
</P>
<P>(6) For care provided on or after July 1, 1995, CHAMPUS will not pay for days in which the patient is absent on leave from the RTC. The RTC must identify these days when claiming reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reimbursement of hospice programs.</I> Hospice care will be reimbursed at one of four predetermined national CHAMPUS rates based on the type and intensity of services furnished to the beneficiary. A single rate is applicable for each day of care except for continuous home care where payment is based on the number of hours of care furnished during a 24-hour period. These rates will be adjusted for regional differences in wages using wage indices for hospice care.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>National hospice rates.</I> CHAMPUS will use the national hospice rates for reimbursement of each of the following levels of care provided by or under arrangement with a CHAMPUS approved hospice program:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Routine home care.</I> The hospice will be paid the routine home care rate for each day the patient is at home, under the care of the hospice, and not receiving continuous home care. This rate is paid without regard to the volume or intensity of routine home care services provided on any given day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Continuous home care.</I> The hospice will be paid the continuous home care rate when continuous home care is provided. The continuous home care rate is divided by 24 hours in order to arrive at an hourly rate.
</P>
<P>(A) A minimum of 8 hours of care must be provided within a 24-hour day starting and ending at midnight.
</P>
<P>(B) More than half of the total actual hours being billed for each 24-hour period must be provided by either a registered or licensed practical nurse.
</P>
<P>(C) Homemaker and home health aide services may be provided to supplement the nursing care to enable the beneficiary to remain at home.
</P>
<P>(D) For every hour or part of an hour of continuous care furnished, the hourly rate will be reimbursed to the hospice up to 24 hours a day.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inpatient respite care.</I> The hospice will be paid at the inpatient respite care rate for each day on which the beneficiary is in an approved inpatient facility and is receiving respite care.
</P>
<P>(A) Payment for respite care may be made for a maximum of 5 days at a time, including the date of admission but not counting the date of discharge. The necessity and frequency of respite care will be determined by the hospice interdisciplinary group with input from the patient's attending physician and the hospice's medical director.
</P>
<P>(B) Payment for the sixth and any subsequent days is to be made at the routine home care rate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>General inpatient care.</I> Payment at the inpatient rate will be made when general inpatient care is provided for pain control or acute or chronic symptom management which cannot be managed in other settings. None of the other fixed payment rates (i.e., routine home care) will be applicable for a day on which the patient receives general inpatient care except on the date of discharge.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Date of discharge.</I> For the day of discharge from an inpatient unit, the appropriate home care rate is to be paid unless the patient dies as an inpatient. When the patient is discharged deceased, the inpatient rate (general or respite) is to be paid for the discharge date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of Medicare rates.</I> CHAMPUS will use the most current Medicare rates to reimburse hospice programs for services provided to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. It is CHAMPUS' intent to adopt changes in the Medicare reimbursement methodology as they occur; e.g., Medicare's adoption of an updated, more accurate wage index.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physician reimbursement.</I> Payment is dependent on the physician's relationship with both the beneficiary and the hospice program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Physicians employed by, or contracted with, the hospice.</I> (A) Administrative and supervisory activities (i.e., establishment, review and updating of plans of care, supervising care and services, and establishing governing policies) are included in the adjusted national payment rate.
</P>
<P>(B) Direct patient care services are paid in addition to the adjusted national payment rate.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Physician services will be reimbursed an amount equivalent to 100 percent of the CHAMPUS' allowable charge; i.e., there will be no cost-sharing and/or deductibles for hospice physician services.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Physician payments will be counted toward the hospice cap limitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Independent attending physician.</I> Patient care services rendered by an independent attending physician (a physician who is not considered employed by or under contract with the hospice) are not part of the hospice benefit.
</P>
<P>(A) Attending physician may bill in his/her own right.
</P>
<P>(B) Services will be subject to the appropriate allowable charge methodology.
</P>
<P>(C) Reimbursement is not counted toward the hospice cap limitation.
</P>
<P>(D) Services provided by an independent attending physician must be coordinated with any direct care services provided by hospice physicians. 
</P>
<P>(E) The hospice must notify the CHAMPUS contractor of the name of the physician whenever the attending physician is not a hospice employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Voluntary physician services.</I> No payment will be allowed for physician services furnished voluntarily (both physicians employed by, and under contract with, the hospice and independent attending physicians). Physicians may not discriminate against CHAMPUS beneficiaries; e.g., designate all services rendered to non-CHAMPUS patients as volunteer and at the same time bill for CHAMPUS patients. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unrelated medical treatment.</I> Any covered CHAMPUS services not related to the treatment of the terminal condition for which hospice care was elected will be paid in accordance with standard reimbursement methodologies; i.e., payment for these services will be subject to standard deductible and cost-sharing provisions under the CHAMPUS. A determination must be made whether or not services provided are related to the individual's terminal illness. Many illnesses may occur when an individual is terminally ill which are brought on by the underlying condition of the ill patient. For example, it is not unusual for a terminally ill patient to develop pneumonia or some other illness as a result of his or her weakened condition. Similarly, the setting of bones after fractures occur in a bone cancer patient would be treatment of a related condition. Thus, if the treatment or control of an upper respiratory tract infection is due to the weakened state of the terminal patient, it will be considered a related condition, and as such, will be included in the hospice daily rates. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cap amount.</I> Each CHAMPUS-approved hospice program will be subject to a cap on aggregate CHAMPUS payments from November 1 through October 31 of each year, hereafter known as “the cap period.”
</P>
<P>(i) The cap amount will be adjusted annually by the percent of increase or decrease in the medical expenditure category of the Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers (CPI-U).
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate cap amount (i.e., the statutory cap amount times the number of CHAMPUS beneficiaries electing hospice care during the cap period) will be compared with total actual CHAMPUS payments made during the same cap period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Payments in excess of the cap amount must be refunded by the hospice program. The adjusted cap amount will be obtained from the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) prior to the end of each cap period. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Calculation of the cap amount for a hospice which has not participated in the program for an entire cap year (November 1 through October 31) will be based on a period of at least 12 months but no more than 23 months. For example, the first cap period for a hospice entering the program on October 1, 1994, would run from October 1, 1994 through October 31, 1995. Similarly, the first cap period for hospice providers entering the program after November 1, 1993 but before November 1, 1994 would end October 31, 1995. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inpatient limitation.</I> During the 12-month period beginning November 1 of each year and ending October 31, the aggregate number of inpatient days, both for general inpatient care and respite care, may not exceed 20 percent of the aggregate total number of days of hospice care provided to all CHAMPUS beneficiaries during the same period.
</P>
<P>(i) If the number of days of inpatient care furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries exceeds 20 percent of the total days of hospice care to CHAMPUS beneficiaries, the total payment for inpatient care is determined follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate the ratio of the maximum number of allowable inpatient days of the actual number of inpatient care days furnished by the hospice to Medicare patients. 
</P>
<P>(B) Multiply this ratio by the total reimbursement for inpatient care made by the CHAMPUS contractor. 
</P>
<P>(C) Multiply the number of actual inpatient days in excess of the limitation by the routine home care rate. 
</P>
<P>(D) Add the amounts calculated in paragraphs (g)(6)(i) (B) and (C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compare the total payment for inpatient care calculated in paragraph (g)(6)(i)(D) of this section to actual payments made to the hospice for inpatient care during the cap period. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Payments in excess of the inpatient limitation must be refunded by the hospice program.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hospice reporting responsibilities.</I> The hospice is responsible for reporting the following data within 30 days after the end of the cap period:
</P>
<P>(i) Total reimbursement received and receivable for services furnished CHAMPUS beneficiaries during the cap period, including physician's services not of an administrative or general supervisory nature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Total reimbursement received and receivable for general inpatient care and inpatient respite care furnished to CHAMPUS beneficiaries during the cap period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total number of inpatient days furnished to CHAMPUS hospice patients (both general inpatient and inpatient respite days) during the cap period.
</P>
<P>(iv) Total number of CHAMPUS hospice days (both inpatient and home care) during the cap period.
</P>
<P>(v) Total number of beneficiaries electing hospice care. The following rules must be adhered to by the hospice in determining the number of CHAMPUS beneficiaries who have elected hospice care during the period:
</P>
<P>(A) The beneficiary must not have been counted previously in either another hospice's cap or another reporting year.
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary must file an initial election statement during the period beginning September 28 of the previous cap year through September 27 of the current cap year in order to be counted as an electing CHAMPUS beneficiary during the current cap year.
</P>
<P>(C) Once a beneficiary has been included in the calculation of a hospice cap amount, he or she may not be included in the cap for that hospice again, even if the number of covered days in a subsequent reporting period exceeds that of the period where the beneficiary was included.
</P>
<P>(D) There will be proportional application of the cap amount when a beneficiary elects to receive hospice benefits from two or more different CHAMPUS-certified hospices. A calculation must be made to determine the percentage of the patient's length of stay in each hospice relative to the total length of hospice stay.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Reconsideration of cap amount and inpatient limit.</I> A hospice dissatisfied with the contractor's calculation and application of its cap amount and/or inpatient limitation may request and obtain a contractor review if the amount of program reimbursement in controversy—with respect to matters which the hospice has a right to review—is at least $1000. The administrative review by the contractor of the calculation and application of the cap amount and inpatient limitation is the only administrative review available. These calculations are not subject to the appeal procedures set forth in § 199.10. The methods and standards for calculation of the hospice payment rates established by CHAMPUS, as well as questions as to the validity of the applicable law, regulations or CHAMPUS decisions, are not subject to administrative review, including the appeal procedures of § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Beneficiary cost-sharing.</I> There are no deductibles under the CHAMPUS hospice benefit. CHAMPUS pays the full cost of all covered services for the terminal illness, except for small cost-share amounts which <I>may be</I> collected by the individual hospice for outpatient drugs and biologicals and inpatient respite care.
</P>
<P>(i) The patient is responsible for 5 percent of the cost of outpatient drugs or $5 toward each prescription, whichever is less. Additionally, the cost of prescription drugs (drugs or biologicals) may not exceed that which a prudent buyer would pay in similar circumstances; that is, a buyer who refuses to pay more than the going price for an item or service and also seeks to economize by minimizing costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) For inpatient respite care, the cost-share for each respite care day is equal to 5 percent of the amount CHAMPUS has estimated to be the cost of respite care, after adjusting the national rate for local wage differences.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the individual cost-share liability for respite care during a hospice cost-share period may not exceed the Medicare inpatient hospital deductible applicable for the year in which the hospice cost-share period began. The individual hospice cost-share period begins on the first day an election is in effect for the beneficiary and ends with the close of the first period of 14 consecutive days on each of which an election is not in effect for the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reimbursement of Home Health Agencies (HHAs).</I> HHAs will be reimbursed using the same methods and rates as used under the Medicare HHA prospective payment system under Section 1895 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395fff) and 42 CFR Part 484, Subpart E except as otherwise necessary to recognize distinct characteristics of TRICARE beneficiaries and as described in instructions issued by the Director, TMA. Under this methodology, an HHA will receive a fixed case-mix and wage-adjusted national 60-day episode payment amount as payment in full for all costs associated with furnishing home health services to TRICARE-eligible beneficiaries with the exception of osteoporosis drugs and DME. The full case-mix and wage-adjusted 60-day episode amount will be payment in full subject to the following adjustments and additional payments:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Split percentage payments.</I> The initial percentage payment for initial episodes is paid to an HHA at 60 percent of the case-mix and wage adjusted 60-day episode rate. The residual final payment for initial episodes is paid at 40 percent of the case-mix and wage adjusted 60-day episode rate subject to appropriate adjustments. The initial percentage payment for subsequent episodes is paid at 50 percent of the case-mix and wage-adjusted 60-day episode rate. The residual final payment for subsequent episodes is paid at 50 percent of the case-mix and wage-adjusted 60-day episode rate subject to appropriate adjustments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Low-utilization payment.</I> A low utilization payment is applied when a HHA furnishes four or fewer visits to a beneficiary during the 60-day episode. The visits are paid at the national per-visit amount by discipline updated annually by the applicable market basket for each visit type.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Partial episode payment (PEP).</I> A PEP adjustment is used for payment of an episode of less than 60 days resulting from a beneficiary's elected transfer to another HHA prior to the end of the 60-day episode or discharge and readmission of a beneficiary to the same HHA before the end of the 60-day episode. The PEP payment is calculated by multiplying the proportion of the 60-day episode during which the beneficiary remained under the care of the original HHA by the beneficiary's assigned 60-day episode payment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Significant change in condition (SCIC).</I> The full-episode payment amount is adjusted if a beneficiary experiences a significant change in condition during the 60-day episode that was not envisioned in the initial treatment plan. The total significant change in condition payment adjustment is a proportional payment adjustment reflecting the time both prior to and after the patient experienced a significant change in condition during the 60-day episode. The initial percentage payment provided at the start of the 60-day episode will be adjusted at the end of the episode to reflect the first and second parts of the total SCIC adjustment determined at the end of the 60-day episode. The SCIC payment adjustment is calculated in two parts:
</P>
<P>(i) The first part of the SCIC payment adjustment reflects the adjustment to the level of payment prior to the significant change in the patient's condition during the 60-day episode.
</P>
<P>(ii) The second part of the SCIC payment adjustment reflects the adjustment to the level of payment after the significant change in the patient's condition occurs during the 60-day episode.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Outlier payment.</I> Outlier payments are allowed in addition to regular 60-day episode payments for beneficiaries generating excessively high treatment costs. The following methodology is used for calculation of the outlier payment:
</P>
<P>(i) TRICARE makes an outlier payment for an episode whose estimated cost exceeds a threshold amount for each case-mix group.
</P>
<P>(ii) The outlier threshold for each case-mix group is the episode payment amount for that group, the PEP adjustment amount for the episode or the total significant change in condition adjustment amount for the episode plus a fixed dollar loss amount that is the same for all case-mix groups.
</P>
<P>(iii) The outlier payment is a proportion of the amount of estimated cost beyond the threshold.
</P>
<P>(iv) TRICARE imputes the cost for each episode by multiplying the national per-visit amount of each discipline by the number of visits in the discipline and computing the total imputed cost for all disciplines.
</P>
<P>(v) The fixed dollar loss amount and the loss sharing proportion are chosen so that the estimated total outlier payment is no more than the predetermined percentage of total payment under the home health PPS as set by the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Services paid outside the HHA prospective payment system.</I> The following are services that receive a separate payment amount in addition to the prospective payment amount for home health services:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Durable medical equipment (DME).</I> Reimbursement of DME is based on the same amounts established under the Medicare Durable Medical Equipment, Prosthetics, Orthotics and Supplies (DMEPOS) fee schedule under 42 CFR part 414, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Osteoporosis drugs.</I> Although osteoporosis drugs are subject to home health consolidated billing, they continue to be paid on a cost basis, in addition to episode payments.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Accelerated payments.</I> Upon request, an accelerated payment may be made to an HHA that is receiving payment under the home health prospective payment system if the HHA is experiencing financial difficulties because there is a delay by the contractor in making payment to the HHA. The following are criteria for making accelerated payments:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Approval of payment.</I> An HHA's request for an accelerated payment must be approved by the contractor and TRICARE Management Activity (TMA).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount of payment.</I> The amount of the accelerated payment is computed as a percentage of the net payment for unbilled or unpaid covered services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Recovery of payment.</I> Recovery of the accelerated payment is made by recoupment as HHA bills are processed or by direct payment by the HHA.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Assessment data.</I> Beneficiary assessment data, incorporating the use of the current version of the OASIS items, must be submitted to the contractor for payment under the HHA prospective payment system.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Administrative review.</I> An HHA is not entitled to judicial or administrative review with regard to:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishment of the payment unit, including the national 60-day prospective episode payment rate, adjustments and outlier payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishment of transition period, definition and application of the unit of payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Computation of the initial standard prospective payment amounts.
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishment of case-mix and area wage adjustment factors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Changes in Federal Law affecting Medicare.</I> With regard to paragraph (b) and (h) of this section, the Department of Defense must, within the time frame specified in law and to the extent it is practicable, bring the TRICARE program into compliance with any changes in Federal Law affecting the Medicare program that occur after the effective date of the DoD rule to implement the prospective payment systems for skilled nursing facilities and home health agencies.
</P>
<P>(j) Reimbursement of individual health care professionals and other non-institutional, non-professional providers. The CHAMPUS-determined reasonable charge (the amount allowed by CHAMPUS) for the service of an individual health care professional or other non-institutional, non-professional provider (even if employed by or under contract to an institutional provider) shall be determined by one of the following methodologies, that is, whichever is in effect in the specific geographic location at the time covered services and supplies are provided to a CHAMPUS beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Allowable charge method</I>—(i) <I>Introduction</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The allowable charge method is the preferred and primary method for reimbursement of individual health care professionals and other non-institutional health care providers (covered by 10 U.S.C. 1079(h)(1)). The allowable charge for authorized care shall be the lower of the billed charge or the local CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge (CMAC). 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge.</I> Beginning in calendar year 1992, prevailing charge levels and appropriate charge levels will be calculated on a national level. There will then be calculated a national CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge (CMAC) level for each procedure, which shall be the lesser of the national prevailing charge level or the national appropriate charge level. The national CMAC will then be adjusted for localities in accordance with paragraph (j)(1)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limits on balance billing by nonparticipating providers.</I> Nonparticipating providers may not balance bill a beneficiary an amount which exceeds the applicable balance billing limit. The balance billing limit shall be the same percentage as the Medicare limiting charge percentage for nonparticipating physicians. The balance billing limit may be waived by the Director, OCHAMPUS on a case-by-case basis if requested by the CHAMPUS beneficiary (or sponsor) involved. A decision by the Director to waive or not waive the limit in any particular case is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Special rule for TRICARE Prime Enrollees.</I> In the case of a TRICARE Prime enrollee (see section 199.17) who receives authorized care from a non-participating provider, the CHAMPUS determined reasonable charge will be the CMAC level as established in paragraph (j)(1)(i)(B) of this section plus any balance billing amount up to the balance billing limit as referred to in paragraph (j)(1)(i)(C) of this section. The authorization for such care shall be pursuant to the procedures established by the Director, OCHAMPUS (also referred to as the TRICARE Support Office).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Special rule for certain TRICARE Standard Beneficiaries.</I> In the case of dependent spouse or child, as defined in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (F) and (b)(2)(ii)(H)(1), (2), and (4) of § 199.3, of a Reserve Component member serving on active duty pursuant to a call or order to active duty for a period of more than 30 days in support of a contingency operation under a provision of law referred to in section 101(a)(13)(B) of title 10, United States Code, the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, may authorize non-participating providers the allowable charge to be the CMAC level as established in paragraph (j)(l)(i)(B) of this section plus any balance billing amount up to the balance billing limit as referred to in paragraph (j)(l)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prevailing charge level.</I> (A) Beginning in calendar year 1992, the prevailing charge level shall be calculated on a national basis. 
</P>
<P>(B) The national prevailing charge level referred to in paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(A) of this section is the level that does not exceed the amount equivalent to the 80th percentile of billed charges made for similar services during the base period. The 80th percentile of charges shall be determined on the basis of statistical data and methodology acceptable to the Director, OCHAMPUS (or a designee).
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, the base period shall be a period of 12 calendar months and shall be adjusted once a year, unless the Director, OCHAMPUS, determines that a different period for adjustment is appropriate and publishes a notice to that effect in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Appropriate charge level.</I> Beginning in calendar year 1992, the appropriate charge level shall be calculated on a national basis. The appropriate charge level for each procedure is the product of the two-step process set forth in paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) (A) and (B) of this section. This process involves comparing the prior year's CMAC with the fully phased in Medicare fee. For years after the Medicare fee has been fully phased in, the comparison shall be to the current year Medicare fee. For any particular procedure for which comparable Medicare fee and CHAMPUS data are unavailable, but for which alternative data are available that the Director, OCHAMPUS (or designee) determines provide a reasonable approximation of relative value or price, the comparison may be based on such alternative data. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Step 1: Procedures classified.</I> All procedures are classified into one of three categories, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Overpriced procedures.</I> These are the procedures for which the prior year's national CMAC exceeds the Medicare fee. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Other procedures.</I> These are procedures subject to the allowable charge method that are not included in either the overpriced procedures group or the underpriced procedures group. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Underpriced procedures.</I> These are the procedures for which the prior year's national CMAC is less than the Medicare fee. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Step 2: Calculating appropriate charge levels.</I> For each year, appropriate charge levels will be calculated by adjusting the prior year's CMAC as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For overpriced procedures, the appropriate charge level for each procedure shall be the prior year's CMAC, reduced by the lesser of: the percentage by which it exceeds the Medicare fee or fifteen percent. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For other procedures, the appropriate charge level for each procedure shall be the same as the prior year's CMAC. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For underpriced procedures, the appropriate charge level for each procedure shall be the prior year's CMAC, increased by the lesser of: the percentage by which it is exceeded by the Medicare fee or the Medicare Economic Index. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Special rule for cases in which the CHAMPUS appropriate charge was prematurely reduced.</I> In any case in which a recalculation of the Medicare fee results in a Medicare rate higher than the CHAMPUS appropriate charge for a procedure that had been considered an overpriced procedure, the reduction in the CHAMPUS appropriate charge shall be restored up to the level of the recalculated Medicare rate. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Special rule for cases in which the national CMAC is less than the Medicare rate.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This paragraph will be implemented when CMAC rates are published.</P></NOTE>
<P>In any case in which the national CMAC calculated in accordance with paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section is less than the Medicare rate, the Director, TSO, may determine that the use of the Medicare Economic Index under paragraph (j)(1)(iii)(B) of this section will result in a CMAC rate below the level necessary to assure that beneficiaries will retain adequate access to health care services. Upon making such a determination, the Director, TSO, may increase the national CMAC to a level not greater than the Medicare rate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Calculating CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge levels for localities</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The national CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge level for each procedure will be adjusted for localities using the same (or similar) geographical areas and the same geographic adjustment factors as are used for determining allowable charges under Medicare. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Special locality-based phase-in provision</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>In general.</I> Beginning with the recalculation of CMACS for calendar year 1993, the CMAC in a locality will not be less than 72.25 percent of the maximum charge level in effect for that locality on December 31, 1991. For recalculations of CMACs for calendar years after 1993, the CMAC in a locality will not be less than 85 percent of the CMAC in effect for that locality at the end of the prior calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exception.</I> The special locality-based phase-in provision established by paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section shall not be applicable in the case of any procedure code for which there were not CHAMPUS claims in the locality accounting for at least 50 services. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Special locality-based waivers of reductions to assure adequate access to care.</I> Beginning with the recalculation of CMACs for calendar year 1993, in the case of any procedure classified as an overpriced procedure pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, a reduction in the CMAC in a locality below the level in effect at the end of the previous calendar year that would otherwise occur pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) and (j)(1)(iv) of this section may be waived pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(iii)(C) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Waiver based on balanced billing rates.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section such a reduction will be waived if there has been excessive balance billing in the locality for the procedure involved. For this purpose, the extent of balance billing will be determined based on a review of all services under the procedure code involved in the prior year (or most recent period for which data are available). If the number of services for which balance billing was not required was less than 60 percent of all services provided, the Director will determine that there was excessive balance billing with respect to that procedure in that locality and will waive the reduction in the CMAC that would otherwise occur. A decision by the Director to waive or not waive the reduction is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exception.</I> As an exception to the paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the waiver required by that paragraph shall not be applicable in the case of any procedure code for which there were not CHAMPUS claims in the locality accounting for at least 50 services. A waiver may, however, be granted in such cases pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Waiver based on other evidence that adequate access to care would be impaired.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS may waive a reduction that would otherwise occur (or restore a reduction that was already taken) if the Director determines that available evidence shows that the reduction would impair adequate access. For this purpose, such evidence may include consideration of the number of providers in the locality who provide the affected services, the number of such providers who are CHAMPUS Participating Providers, the number of CHAMPUS beneficiaries in the area, and other relevant factors. Providers or beneficiaries in a locality may submit to the Director, OCHAMPUS a petition, together with appropriate documentation regarding relevant factors, for a determination that adequate access would be impaired. The Director, OCHAMPUS will consider and respond to all such petitions. Petitions may be filed at any time. Any petition received by the date which is 120 days prior to the implementation of a recalculation of CMACs will be assured of consideration prior to that implementation. The Director, OCHAMPUS may establish procedures for handling petitions. A decision by the Director to waive or not waive a reduction is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Special locality-based exception to applicable CMACs to assure adequate beneficiary access to care.</I> In addition to the authority to waive reductions under paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(C) of this section, the Director may authorize establishment of higher payment rates for specific services than would otherwise be allowable, under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, if the Director determines that available evidence shows that access to health care services is severely impaired. For this purpose, such evidence may include consideration of the number of providers in the locality who provide the affected services, the number of providers who are CHAMPUS participating providers, the number of CHAMPUS beneficiaries in the locality, the availability of military providers in the location or nearby, and any other factors the Director determines relevant.
</P>
<P>(<I>1) Procedure.</I> Providers or beneficiaries in a locality may submit to the Director, a petition, together with appropriate documentation regarding relevant factors, for a determination that adequate access to health care services is severely impaired. The Director, will consider and respond to all petitions. A decision to authorize a higher payment amount is subject to review and determination or modification by the Director at any time if circumstances change so that adequate access to health care services would no longer be severely impaired. A decision by the Director, to authorize, not authorize, terminate, or modify authorization of higher payment amounts is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10 of the part.
</P>
<P>(<I>2) Establishing the higher payment rate(s).</I> When the Director, determines that beneficiary access to health care services in a locality is severely impaired, the Director may establish the higher payment rate(s) as he or she deems appropriate and cost-effective through one of the following methodologies to assure adequate access:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A percent factor may be added to the otherwise applicable payment amount allowable under paragraph (j)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A prevailing charge may be calculated, by applying the prevailing charge methodology of paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section to a specific locality (which need not be the same as the localities used for purposes of paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(A) of this section; or another government payment rate may be adopted, for example, an applicable state Medicaid rate).
</P>
<P>(<I>3) Application of higher payment rates.</I> Higher payment rates defined under paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(D) of this section may be applied to all similar services performed in a locality, or, if circumstances warrant, a new locality may be defined for application of the higher payments. Establishment of a new locality may be undertaken where access impairment is localized and not pervasive across the existing locality. Generally, establishment of a new, more specific locality will occur when the area is remote so that geographical characteristics and other factors significantly impair transportation through normal means to health care services routinely available within the existing locality.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Special locality-based exception to applicable CMACs to ensure an adequate TRICARE Prime preferred network.</I> The Director, may authorize reimbursements to health care providers participating in a TRICARE preferred provider network under § 199.17(p) of this part at rates higher than would otherwise be allowable under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, if the Director, determines that application of the higher rates is necessary to ensure the availability of an adequate number and mix of qualified health care providers in a network in a specific locality. This authority may only be used to ensure adequate networks in those localities designated by the Director, as requiring TRICAR preferred provider networks, not in localities in which preferred provider networks have been suggested or established but are not determined by the Director to be necessary. Appropriate evidence for determining that higher rates are necessary may include consideration of the number of available primary care and specialist providers in the network locality, availability (including reassignment) of military providers in the location or nearby, the appropriate mix of primary care and specialists needed to satisfy demand and meet appropriate patient access standards (appointment/waiting time, travel distance, etc.), the efforts that have been made to create an adequate network, other cost-effective alternatives, and other relevant factors. The Director, may establish procedures by which exceptions to applicable CMACs are requested and approved or denied under paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(E) of this section. A decision by the Director, to authorize or deny an exception is not subject to the appeal and hearing procedures of § 199.10. When the Director, determines that it is necessary and cost-effective to approve a higher rate or rates in order to ensure the availability of an adequate number of qualified health care providers in a network in a specific locality, the higher rate may not exceed the lesser of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount equal to the local fee for service charge for the service in the service area in which the service is provided as determined by the Director, based on one or more of the following payment rates:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Usual, customary, and reasonable;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The Health Care Financing Administration's Resource Based Relative Value Scale;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Negotiated fee schedules;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Global fees; or
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Sliding scale individual fee allowances.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount equal to 115 percent of the otherwise allowable charge under paragraph (j)(1) of the section for the service.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Special rules for 1991.</I> (A) Appropriate charge levels for care provided on or after January 1, 1991, and before the 1992 appropriate levels take effect shall be the same as those in effect on December 31, 1990, except that appropriate charge levels for care provided on or after October 7, 1991, shall be those established pursuant to this paragraph (j)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate charge levels will be established for each locality for which an appropriate charge level was in effect immediately prior to October 7, 1991. For each procedure, the appropriate charge level shall be the prevailing charge level in effect immediately prior to October 7, 1991, adjusted as provided in (j)(1)(v)(B) (<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For each overpriced procedure, the level shall be reduced by fifteen percent. For this purpose, overpriced procedures are the procedures determined by the Physician Payment Review Commission to be overvalued pursuant to the process established under the Medicare program, other procedures considered overvalued in the Medicare program (for which Congress directed reductions in Medicare allowable levels for 1991), radiology procedures and pathology procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For each other procedure, the level shall remain unchanged. For this purpose, other procedures are procedures which are not overpriced procedures or primary care procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For each primary care procedure, the level shall be adjusted by the MEI, as the MEI is applied to Medicare prevailing charge levels. For this purpose, primary care procedures include maternity care and delivery services and well baby care services.
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of this paragraph (j)(i)(v), “appropriate charge levels” in effect at any time prior to October 7, 1991 shall mean the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The prevailing charge levels then in effect, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The fiscal year 1988 prevailing charge levels adjusted by the Medicare Economic Index (MEI), as the MEI was applied beginning in the fiscal year 1989. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Special transition rule for 1992.</I> (A) For purposes of calculating the national appropriate charge levels for 1992, the prior year's appropriate charge level for each service will be considered to be the level that does not exceed the amount equivalent to the 80th percentile of billed charges made for similar services during the base period of July 1, 1986 to June 30, 1987 (determined as under paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(B) of this section), adjusted to calendar year 1991 based on the adjustments made for maximum CHAMPUS allowable charge levels through 1990 and the application of paragraph (j)(1)(v) of this section for 1991.
</P>
<P>(B) The adjustment to calendar year 1991 of the product of paragraph (j)(1)(vi)(A) of this section shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For procedures other than those described in paragraph (j)(1)(vi)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the adjustment to 1991 shall be on the same basis as that provided under paragraph (j)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For any procedure that was considered an overpriced procedure for purposes of the 1991 appropriate charge levels under paragraph (j)(1)(v) of this section for which the resulting 1991 appropriate charge level was less than 150 percent of the Medicare converted relative value unit, the adjustment to 1991 for purposes of the special transition rule for 1992 shall be as if the procedure had been treated under paragraph (j)(1)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section for purposes of the 1991 appropriate charge level.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Adjustments and procedural rules.</I> (A) The Director, OCHAMPUS may make adjustments to the appropriate charge levels calculated pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) and (j)(1)(v) of this section to correct any anomalies resulting from data or statistical factors, significant differences between Medicare-relevant information and CHAMPUS-relevant considerations or other special factors that fairness requires be specially recognized. However, no such adjustment may result in reducing an appropriate charge level.
</P>
<P>(B) The Director, OCHAMPUS will issue procedural instructions for administration of the allowable charge method.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Clinical laboratory services.</I> The allowable charge for clinical diagnostic laboratory test services shall be calculated in the same manner as allowable charges for other individual health care providers are calculated pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (j)(1)(iv) of this section, with the following exceptions and clarifications. 
</P>
<P>(A) The calculation of national prevailing charge levels, national appropriate charge levels and national CMACs for laboratory service shall begin in calendar year 1993. For purposes of the 1993 calculation, the prior year's national appropriate charge level or national prevailing charge level shall be the level that does not exceed the amount equivalent to the 80th percentile of billed charges made for similar services during the period July 1, 1991, through June 30, 1992 (referred to in this paragraph (j)(1)(viii) of this section as the “base period”). 
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of comparison to Medicare allowable payment amounts pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(iii) of this section, the Medicare national laboratory payment limitation amounts shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of establishing laboratory service local CMACs pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(iv) of this section, the adjustment factor shall equal the ratio of the local average charge (standardized for the distribution of clinical laboratory services) to the national average charge for all clinical laboratory services during the base period. 
</P>
<P>(D) For purposes of a special locality-based phase-in provision similar to that established by paragraph (j)(1)(iv)(B) of this section, the CMAC in a locality will not be less than 85 percent of the maximum charge level in effect for that locality during the base period. 
</P>
<P>(ix) The allowable charge for physician assistant services other than assistant-at-surgery shall be at the same percentage, used by Medicare, of the allowable charge for a comparable service rendered by a physician performing the service in a similar location. For cases in which the physician assistant and the physician perform component services of a procedure other than assistant-at-surgery (e.g., home, office, or hospital visit), the combined allowable charge for the procedure may not exceed the allowable charge for the procedure rendered by a physician alone. The allowable charge for physician assistant services performed as an assistant-at-surgery shall be at the same percentage, used by Medicare, of the allowable charge for a physician serving as an assistant surgeon when authorized as CHAMPUS benefits in accordance with the provisions of § 199.4(c)(3)(iii). Physician assistant services must be billed through the employing physician who must be an authorized CHAMPUS provider.
</P>
<P>(x) A charge that exceeds the CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge can be determined to be allowable only when unusual circumstances or medical complications justify the higher charge. The allowable charge may not exceed the billed charge under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Pharmaceutical agents utilized as part of medically necessary medical services.</I> In general, the TRICARE-determined allowed amount shall be equal to an amount determined to be appropriate, to the extent practicable, in accordance with the same reimbursement rules as apply to payments for similar services under Medicare. Under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1079(q), in the case of any pharmaceutical agent utilized as part of medically necessary medical services, the Director may adopt special reimbursement methods, amounts, and procedures to encourage the use of high-value products and discourage the use of low-value products, as determined by the Director. For this purpose, the Director may obtain recommendations from the Pharmaceutical and Therapeutics Committee under § 199.21 or other entities as the Director, DHA deems appropriate with respect to the relative value of products in a class of products subject to this paragraph (j)(1)(xi). Among the special reimbursement methods the Director may choose to adopt under this paragraph (j)(1)(xi) is to reimburse the average sales price of a product plus six percent of the median of the average sales prices of products in the product class or category. The Director shall issue guidance regarding the special reimbursement methods adopted and the appropriate reimbursement rates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bonus payments in medically underserved areas.</I> A bonus payment, in addition to the amount normally paid under the allowable charge methodology, may be made to physicians in medically underserved areas. For purposes of this paragraph, medically underserved areas are the same as those determined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for the Medicare program. Such bonus payments shall be equal to the bonus payments authorized by Medicare, except as necessary to recognize any unique or distinct characteristics or requirements of the TRICARE program, and as described in instructions issued by the Executive Director, TRICARE Management Activity. If the Department of Health and Human Services acts to amend or remove the provision for bonus payments under Medicare, TRICARE likewise may follow Medicare in amending or removing provision for such payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>All-inclusive rate.</I> Claims from individual health-care professional providers for services rendered to CHAMPUS beneficiaries residing in an RTC that is either being reimbursed on an all-inclusive per diem rate, or is billing an all-inclusive per diem rate, shall be denied; with the exception of independent health-care professionals providing geographically distant family therapy to a family member residing a minimum of 250 miles from the RTC or covered medical services related to a nonmental health condition rendered outside the RTC. Reimbursement for individual professional services is included in the rate paid the institutional provider. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative method.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, may, subject to the approval of the ASD(HA), establish an alternative method of reimbursement designed to produce reasonable control over health care costs and to ensure a high level of acceptance of the CHAMPUS-determined charge by the individual health-care professionals or other noninstitutional health-care providers furnishing services and supplies to CHAMPUS beneficiaries. Alternative methods may not result in reimbursement greater than the allowable charge method above. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reimbursement of Durable Medical Equipment, Prosthetics, orthotics and Supplies 9DMEPOS).</I> Reimbursement of DMEPOS may be based on the same amounts established under the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) DMEPOS fee schedule under 42 CFR part 414, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Reimbursement Under the Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program.</I> The Military-Civilian Health Services Partnership Program, as authorized by section 1096, chapter 55, title 10, provides for the sharing of staff, equipment, and resources between the civilian and military health care system in order to achieve more effective, efficient, or economical health care for authorized beneficiaries. Military treatment facility commanders, based upon the authority provided by their respective Surgeons General of the military departments, are responsible for entering into individual partnership agreements only when they have determined specifically that use of the Partnership Program is more economical overall to the Government than referring the need for health care services to the civilian community under the normal operation of the CHAMPUS Program. (See paragraph (p) of § 199.1 for general requirements of the Partnership Program.) 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reimbursement of institutional health care providers.</I> Reimbursement of institutional health care providers under the Partnership Program shall be on the same basis as non-Partnership providers. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reimbursement of individual health-care professionals and other non-institutional health care providers.</I> Reimbursement of individual health care professionals and other non-institutional health care providers shall be on the same basis as non-Partnership providers as detailed in paragraph (j) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Accommodation of Discounts Under Provider Reimbursement Methods</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The Director. OCHAMPUS (or designee) has authority to reimburse a provider at an amount below the amount usually paid pursuant to this section when, under a program approved by the Director, the provider has agreed to the lower amount. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special applications.</I> The following are examples of applications of the general rule; they are not all inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case and individual health care professionals and other non-institutional providers, if the discounted fee is below the provider's normal billed charge and the prevailing charge level (see paragraph (g) of this section), the discounted fee shall be the provider's actual billed charge and the CHAMPUS allowable charge. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of institutional providers normally paid on the basis of a pre-set amount (such as DRG-based amount under paragraph (a)(1) of this section or per-diem amount under paragraph (a)(2) of this section), if the discount rate is lower than the pre-set rate, the discounted rate shall be the CHAMPUS-determined allowable cost. This is an exception to the usual rule that the pre-set rate is paid regardless of the institutional provider's billed charges or other factors. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) This paragraph applies only when both the provider and the Director have agreed to the discounted payment rate. The Director's agreement may be in the context of approval of a program that allows for such discounts. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director of OCHAMPUS may establish uniform terms, conditions and limitations for this payment method in order to avoid administrative complexity. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Outside the United States.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall determine the appropriate reimbursement method or methods to be used in the extension of CHAMPUS benefits for otherwise covered medical services or supplies provided by hospitals or other institutional providers, physicians or other individual professional providers, or other providers outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Implementing Instructions.</I> The Director, OCHAMPUS, or a designee, shall issue CHAMPUS policies, instructions, procedures, and guidelines, as may be necessary to implement the intent of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13266, Apr. 10, 1990] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 199.14, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I>
</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.15   Quality and utilization review peer review organization program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to establish rules and procedures for the CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of program.</I> All claims submitted for health services under CHAMPUS are subject to review for quality of care and appropriate utilization. The Director, OCHAMPUS shall establish generally accepted standards, norms and criteria as are necessary for this program of utilization and quality review. These standards, norms and criteria shall include, but not be limited to, need for inpatient admission or inpatient or outpatient service, length of inpatient stay, intensity of care, appropriateness of treatment, and level of institutional care required. The Director, OCHAMPUS may issue implementing instructions, procedures and guidelines for retrospective, concurrent and prospective review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contractor implementation.</I> The CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program may be implemented through contracts administered by the Director, OCHAMPUS. These contractors may include contractors that have exclusive functions in the area of utilization and quality review, fiscal intermediary contractors (which perform these functions along with a broad range of administrative services), and managed care contractors (which perform a range of functions concerning management of the delivery and financing of health care services under CHAMPUS). Regardless of the contractors involved, utilization and quality review activities follow the same standards, rules and procedures set forth in this section, unless otherwise specifically provided in this section or elsewhere in this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical issues affected.</I> The CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program is distinguishable in purpose and impact from other activities relating to the administration and management of CHAMPUS in that the Peer Review Organization program is concerned primarily with medical judgments regarding the quality and appropriateness of health care services. Issues regarding such matters as benefit limitations are similar, but, if not determined on the basis of medical judgments, are governed by CHAMPUS rules and procedures other than those provided in this section. (See, for example, § 199.7 regarding claims submission, review and payment.) Based on this purpose, a major attribute of the Peer Review Organization program is that medical judgments are made by (directly or pursuant to guidelines and subject to direct review) reviewers who are peers of the health care providers providing the services under review.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Provider responsibilities.</I> Because of the dominance of medical judgments in the quality and utilization review program, principal responsibility for complying with program rules and procedures rests with health care providers. For this reason, there are limitations, set forth in this section and in § 199.4(h), on the extent to which beneficiaries may be held financially liable for health care services not provided in conformity with rules and procedures of the quality and utilization review program concerning medical necessity of care.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Medicare rules used as model.</I> The CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program, based on specific statutory authority, follows many of the quality and utilization review requirements and procedures in effect for the Medicare Peer Review Organization program, subject to adaptations appropriate for the CHAMPUS program. In recognition of the similarity of purpose and design between the Medicare and CHAMPUS PRO programs, and to avoid unnecessary duplication of effort, the CHAMPUS Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program will have special procedures applicable to supplies and services furnished to Medicare-eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries. These procedures will enable CHAMPUS normally to rely upon Medicare determinations of medical necessity and appropriateness in the processing of CHAMPUS claims as a second payer to Medicare. As a general rule, only in cases involving Medicare-eligible CHAMPUS beneficiaries where Medicare payment for services and supplies is denied for reasons other than medical necessity and appropriateness will the CHAMPUS claim be subject to review for quality of care and appropriate utilization under the CHAMPUS PRO program. TRICARE will continue to perform a medical necessity and appropriateness review for quality of care and appropriate utilization under the CHAMPUS PRO program where required by statute.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives and general requirements of review system</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Broadly, the program of quality and utilization review has as its objective to review the quality, completeness and adequacy of care provided, as well as its necessity, appropriateness and reasonableness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment exclusion for services provided contrary to utilization and quality standards.</I> (i) In any case in which health care services are provided in a manner determined to be contrary to quality or necessity standards established under the quality and utilization review program, payment may be wholly or partially excluded.
</P>
<P>(ii) In any case in which payment is excluded pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the patient (or the patient's family) may not be billed for the excluded services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Limited exceptions and other special provisions pertaining to the requirements established in paragraphs (b)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section, are set forth in § 199.4(h).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review of services covered by DRG-based payment system.</I> Application of these objectives in the context of hospital services covered by the DRG-based payment system also includes a validation of diagnosis and procedural information that determines CHAMPUS reimbursement, and a review of the necessity and appropriateness of care for which payment is sought on an outlier basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preauthorization and other utilization review procedures</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> all health care services for which payment is sought under TRICARE are subject to review for appropriateness of utilization as determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee.
</P>
<P>(A) The procedures for this review may be prospective (before the care is provided), concurrent (while the care is in process), or retrospective (after the care has been provided). Regardless of the procedures of this utilization review, the same generally accepted standards, norms and criteria for evaluating the medical necessity, appropriateness and reasonableness of the care involved shall apply. The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee, shall establish procedures for conducting reviews, including types of health care services for which preauthorization or concurrent review shall be required. Preauthorization or concurrent review may be required for categories of health care services. Except where required by law, the categories of health care services for which preauthorization or concurrent review is required may vary in different geographical locations or for different types of providers.
</P>
<P>(B) For healthcare services provided under TRICARE contracts entered into by the Department of Defense after October 30, 2000, medical necessity preauthorization will not be required for referrals for specialty consultation appointment services requested by primary care providers or specialty providers when referring TRICARE Prime beneficiaries for specialty consultation appointment services within the TRICARE contractor's network. However, the lack of medical necessity preauthorization requirements for consultative appointment services does not mean that non-emergent admissions or invasive diagnostic or therapeutic procedures which in and of themselves constitute categories of health care services related to, but beyond the level of the consultation appointment service, are not subject to medical necessity prior authorization. In fact many such health care services may continue to require medical necessity prior authorization as determined by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or a designee. TRICARE Prime beneficiaries are also required to obtain preauthorization before seeking health care services from a non-network provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preauthorization procedures.</I> With respect to categories of health care (inpatient or outpatient) for which preauthorization is required, the following procedures shall apply:
</P>
<P>(A) The requirement for preauthorization shall be widely publicized to beneficiaries and providers.
</P>
<P>(B) All requests for preauthorization shall be responded to in writing. Notification of approval or denial shall be sent to the beneficiary. Approvals shall specify the health care services and supplies approved and identify any special limits or further requirements applicable to the particular case.
</P>
<P>(C) An approved preauthorization shall state the number of days, appropriate for the type of care involved, for which it is valid. In general, preauthorizations will be valid for 30 days. If the services or supplies are not obtained within the number of days specified, a new preauthorization request is required. For organ and stem cell transplants, the preauthorization shall remain in effect as long as the beneficiary continues to meet the specific transplant criteria set forth in the TRICARE/CHAMPUS Policy Manual, or until the approved transplant occurs. 
</P>
<P>(D) For healthcare services provided under TRICARE contracts entered into by the Department of Defense after October 30, 2000, medical necessity preauthorization for specialty consultation appointment services within the TRICARE contractor's network will not be required. However, the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee, may continue to require or waive medical necessity prior (or pre) authorization for other categories of other health care services based on best business practice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payment reduction for noncompliance with required utilization review procedures.</I> (A) Paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section applies to any case in which:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A provider was required to obtain preauthorization or continued stay (in connection with required concurrent review procedures) approval.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The provider failed to obtain the necessary approval; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The health care services have not been disallowed on the basis of necessity, appropriateness or reasonableness.
</P>
<FP>In such a case, reimbursement will be reduced, unless such reduction is waived based on special circumstances. 
</FP>
<P>(B) In a case described in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, reimbursement will be reduced, unless such reduction is waived based on special circumstances. The amount of this reduction shall be at least ten percent of the amount otherwise allowable for services for which preauthorization (including preauthorization for continued stays in connection with concurrent review requirements) approval should have been obtained, but was not obtained.
</P>
<P>(C) The payment reduction set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(B) of this section may be waived by the Director, OCHAMPUS when the provider could not reasonably have been expected to know of the preauthorization requirement or some other special circumstance justifies the waiver. 
</P>
<P>(D) Services for which payment is disallowed under paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section may not be billed to the patient (or the patient's family). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hospital cooperation.</I> All hospitals which participate in CHAMPUS and submit CHAMPUS claims are required to provide all information necessary for CHAMPUS to properly process the claims. In order for CHAMPUS to be assured that services for which claims are submitted meet quality of care standards, hospitals are required to provide the Peer Review Organization (PRO) responsible for quality review with all the information, within timeframes to be established by OCHAMPUS, necessary to perform the review functions required by this paragraph. Additionally, all participating hospitals shall provide CHAMPUS beneficiaries, upon admission, with information about the admission and quality review system including their appeal rights. A hospital which does not cooperate in this activity shall be subject to termination as a CHAMPUS-authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation that the beneficiary has received the required information about the CHAMPUS PRO program must be maintained in the same manner as is the notice required for the Medicare program by 42 CFR 466.78(b).
</P>
<P>(2) The physician acknowledgment required for Medicare under 42 CFR 412.46 is also required for CHAMPUS as a condition for payment and may be satisfied by the same statement as required for Medicare, with substitution or addition of “CHAMPUS” when the word “Medicare” is used.
</P>
<P>(3) Participating hospitals must execute a memorandum of understanding with the PRO providing appropriate procedures for implementation of the PRO program.
</P>
<P>(4) Participating hospitals may not charge a CHAMPUS beneficiary for inpatient hospital services excluded on the basis of § 199.4(g)(1) (not medically necessary), § 199.4(g)(3) (inappropriate level), or § 199.4(g)(7) (custodial care) unless all of the conditions established by 42 CFR 412.42(c) with respect to Medicare beneficiaries have been met with respect to the CHAMPUS beneficiary. In such cases in which the patient requests a PRO review while the patient is still an inpatient in the hospital, the hospital shall provide to the PRO the records required for the review by the close of business of the day the patient requests review, if such request was made before noon. If the hospital fails to provide the records by the close of business, that day and any subsequent working day during which the hospital continues to fail to provide the records shall not be counted for purposes of the two-day period of 42 CFR 412.42(c)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Areas of review</I>—(1) <I>Admissions.</I> The following areas shall be subject to review to determine whether inpatient care was medically appropriate and necessary, was delivered in the most appropriate setting and met acceptable standards of quality. This review may include preadmission or prepayment review when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers of CHAMPUS beneficiaries from a hospital or hospital unit subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to another hospital or hospital unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) CHAMPUS admissions to a hospital or hospital unit subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system which occur within a certain period (specified by OCHAMPUS) of discharge from a hospital or hospital unit subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(iii) A random sample of other CHAMPUS admissions for each hospital subject to the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system.
</P>
<P>(iv) CHAMPUS admissions in any DRGs which have been specifically identified by OCHAMPUS for review or which are under review for any other reason.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DRG validation.</I> The review organization responsible for quality of care reviews shall be responsible for ensuring that the diagnostic and procedural information reported by hospitals on CHAMPUS claims which is used by the fiscal intermediary to assign claims to DRGs is correct and matches the information contained in the medical records. In order to accomplish this, the following review activities shall be done.
</P>
<P>(i) Perform DRG validation reviews of each case under review.
</P>
<P>(ii) Review of claim adjustments submitted by hospitals which result in the assignment of a higher weighted DRG.
</P>
<P>(iii) Review for physician's acknowledgement of annual receipt of the penalty statement as contained in the Medicare regulation at 42 CFR 412.46.
</P>
<P>(iv) Review of a sample of claims for each hospital reimbursed under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. Sample size shall be determined based upon the volume of claims submitted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Outlier review.</I> Claims which qualify for additional payment as a long-stay outlier or as a cost-outlier shall be subject to review to ensure that the additional days or costs were medically necessary and appropriate and met all other requirements for CHAMPUS coverage. In addition, claims which qualify as short-stay outliers shall be reviewed to ensure that the admission was medically necessary and appropriate and that the discharge was not premature.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedure review.</I> Claims for procedures identified by OCHAMPUS as subject to a pattern of abuse shall be the subject of intensified quality assurance review.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other review.</I> Any other cases or types of cases identified by OCHAMPUS shall be subject to focused review.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Actions as a result of review</I>—(1) <I>Findings related to individual claims.</I> If it is determined, based upon information obtained during reviews, that a hospital has misrepresented admission, discharge, or billing information, or is found to have quality of care defects, or has taken an action that results in the unnecessary admissions of an individual entitled to benefits, unnecessary multiple admission of an individual, or other inappropriate medical or other practices with respect to beneficiaries or billing for services furnished to beneficiaries, the PRO, in conjunction with the fiscal intermediary, shall, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny payment for or recoup (in whole or in part) any amount claimed or paid for the inpatient hospital and professional services related to such determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the hospital to take other corrective action necessary to prevent or correct the inappropriate practice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Advise the provider and beneficiary of appeal rights, as required by § 199.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify OCHAMPUS of all such actions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Findings related to a pattern of inappropriate practices.</I> In all cases where a pattern of inappropriate admissions and billing practices that have the effect of circumventing the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system is identified, OCHAMPUS shall be notified of the hospital and practice involved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Revision of coding relating to DRG validation.</I> The following provisions apply in connection with the DRG validation process set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the diagnostic and procedural information in the patient's medical record is found to be inconsistent with the hospital's coding or DRG assignment, the hospital's coding on the CHAMPUS claim will be appropriately changed and payments recalculated on the basis of the appropriate DRG assignment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the information stipulated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section is found not to be correct, the PRO will change the coding and assign the appropriate DRG on the basis of the changed coding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special procedures in connection with certain types of health care services or certain types of review activities</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Many provisions of this section are directed to the context of services covered by the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system. This section, however, is also applicable to other services. In addition, many provisions of this section relate to the context of peer review activities performed by Peer Review Organizations whose sole functions for CHAMPUS relate to the Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program. However, it also applies to review activities conducted by contractors who have responsibilities broader than those related to the quality and utilization review program. Paragraph (f) of this section authorizes certain special procedures that will apply in connection with such services and such review activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services not covered by the DRG-based payment system.</I> In implementing the quality and utilization review program in the context of services not covered by the DRG-based payment system, the Director, OCHAMPUS may establish procedures, appropriate to the types of services being reviewed, substantively comparable to services covered by the DRG-based payment system regarding obligations of providers to cooperate in the quality and utilization review program, authority to require appropriate corrective actions and other procedures. The Director, OCHAMPUS may also establish such special, substantively comparable procedures in connection with review of health care services which, although covered by the DRG-based payment method, are also affected by some other special circumstances concerning payment method, nature of care, or other potential utilization or quality issue. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Peer review activities by contractors also performing other administration or management functions</I>—(i) <I>Sole-function PRO versus multi-function PRO.</I> In all cases, peer review activities under the Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program are carried out by physicians and other qualified health care professionals, usually under contract with OCHAMPUS. In some cases, the Peer Review Organization contractor's only functions are pursuant to the quality and utilization review program. In paragraph (f)(3) of this section, this type of contractor is referred to as a “sole function PRO.” In other cases, the Peer Review Organization contractor is also performing other functions in connection with the administration and management of CHAMPUS. In paragraph (f)(3) of this section, this type of contractor is referred to as a “multi-function PRO.” As an example of the latter type, managed care contractors may perform a wide range of functions regarding management of the delivery and financing of health care services under CHAMPUS, including but not limited to functions under the Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special rules and procedures.</I> With respect to multi-function PROs, the Director, OCHAMPUS may establish special procedures to assure the independence of the Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization program and otherwise advance the objectives of the program. These special rules and procedures include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A reconsidered determination that would be final in cases involving sole-function PROs under paragraph (i)(2) of this section will not be final in connection with multi-function PROs. Rather, in such cases (other than any case which is appealable under paragraph (i)(3) of this section), an opportunity for a second reconsideration shall be provided. The second reconsideration will be provided by OCHAMPUS or another contractor independent of the multi-function PRO that performed the review. The second reconsideration may not be further appealed by the provider.
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures established by paragraphs (g) through (m) of this section shall not apply to any action of a multi-function PRO (or employee or other person or entity affiliated with the PRO) carried out in performance of functions other than functions under this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Procedures regarding initial determinations.</I> The CHAMPUS PROs shall establish and follow procedures for initial determinations that are substantively the same or comparable to the procedures applicable to Medicare under 42 CFR 466.83 to 466.104. In addition, these procedures shall provide that a PRO's determination that an admission is medically necessary is not a guarantee of payment by CHAMPUS; normal CHAMPUS benefit and procedural coverage requirements must also be applied.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Procedures regarding reconsiderations.</I> The CHAMPUS PROs shall establish and follow procedures for reconsiderations that are substantively the same or comparable to the procedures applicable to reconsiderations under Medicare pursuant to 42 CFR 473.15 to 473.34, except that the time limit for requesting reconsideration (see 42 CFR 473.20(a)(1)) shall be 90 days. A PRO reconsidered determination is final and binding upon all parties to the reconsideration except to the extent of any further appeal pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appeals and hearings.</I> (1) Beneficiaries may appeal a PRO reconsideration determination of OCHAMPUS and obtain a hearing on such appeal to the extent allowed and under the procedures set forth in § 199.10(d).
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3), a PRO reconsidered determination may not be further appealed by a provider.
</P>
<P>(3) A provider may appeal a PRO reconsideration determination to OCHAMPUS and obtain a hearing on such appeal to the extent allowed under the procedures set forth in § 199.10(d) if it is a determination pursuant to § 199.4(h) that the provider knew or could reasonably have been expected to know that the services were excludable.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of the hearing process, a PRO reconsidered determination shall be considered as the procedural equivalent of a formal review determination under § 199.10, unless revised at the initiative of the Director, OCHAMPUS prior to a hearing on the appeal, in which case the revised determination shall be considered as the procedural equivalent of a formal review determination under § 199.10.
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of § 199.10(e) concerning final action shall apply to hearings cases.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Acquisition, protection and disclosure of peer review information.</I> The provisions of 42 CFR part 476, except § 476.108, shall be applicable to the CHAMPUS PRO program as they are to the Medicare PRO program.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Limited immunity from liability for participants in PRO program.</I> The provisions of section 1157 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1320c-6) are applicable to the CHAMPUS PRO program in the same manner as they apply to the Medicare PRO program. Section 1102(g) of title 10, United States Code also applies to the CHAMPUS PRO program.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Additional provision regarding confidentiality of records</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1102 regarding the confidentiality of medical quality assurance records shall apply to the activities of the CHAMPUS PRO program as they do to the activities of the external civilian PRO program that reviews medical care provided in military hospitals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific applications.</I> (i) Records concerning PRO deliberations are generally nondisclosable quality assurance records under 10 U.S.C. 1102.
</P>
<P>(ii) Initial denial determinations by PROs pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section (concerning medical necessity determinations, DRG validation actions, etc.) and subsequent decisions regarding those determinations are not nondisclosable quality assurance records under 10 U.S.C. 1102.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information the subject of mandatory PRO disclosure under 42 CFR part 476 is not a nondisclosable quality assurance record under 10 U.S.C. 1102.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Obligations, sanctions and procedures.</I> (1) The provisions of 42 CFR 1004.1-1004.80 shall apply to the CHAMPUS PRO program as they do the Medicare PRO program, except that the functions specified in those sections for the Office of Inspector General of the Department of Health and Human Services shall be the responsibility of OCHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of 42 U.S.C. section 1395ww(f)(2) concerning circumvention by any hospital of the applicable payment methods for inpatient services shall apply to CHAMPUS payment methods as they do to Medicare payment methods.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director, or a designee, of CHAMPUS shall determine whether to impose a sanction pursuant to paragraphs (m)(1) and (m)(2) of this section. Providers may appeal adverse sanctions decisions under the procedures set forth in § 199.10(d).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Authority to integrate CHAMPUS PRO and military medical treatment facility utilization review activities.</I> (1) In the case of a military medical treatment facility (MTF) that has established utilization review requirements similar to those under the CHAMPUS PRO program, the contractor carrying out this function may, at the request of the MTF, utilize procedures comparable to the CHAMPUS PRO program procedures to render determinations or recommendations with respect to utilization review requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) In any case in which such a contractor has comparable responsibility and authority regarding utilization review in both an MTF (or MTFs) and CHAMPUS, determinations as to medical necessity in connection with services from an MTF or CHAMPUS-authorized provider may be consolidated.
</P>
<P>(3) In any case in which an MTF reserves authority to separate an MTF determination on medical necessity from a CHAMPUS PRO program determination on medical necessity, the MTF determination is not binding on CHAMPUS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 625, Jan. 8, 1990, as amended at 58 FR 58961, Nov. 5, 1993; 60 FR 52095, Oct. 5, 1995; 63 FR 48447, Sept. 10, 1998; 66 FR 40608, Aug. 3, 2001; 67 FR 42721, June 25, 2002; 68 FR 23033, Apr. 30, 2003; 68 FR 32363, May 30, 2003; 68 FR 44881, July 31, 2003; 70 FR 19266, Apr. 13, 2005; 81 FR 61098, Sept. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.16   Supplemental Health Care Program for active duty members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and applicability.</I> (1) The purpose of this section is to implement, with respect to health care services provided under the supplemental health care program for active duty members of the uniformed services, the provision of 10 U.S.C. 1074(c). This section of law authorizes DoD to establish for the supplemental care program the same payment rules, subject to appropriate modifications, as apply under CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to the program, known as the supplemental care program, which provides for the payment by the uniformed services to private sector health care providers for health care services provided to active duty members of the uniformed services. Although not part of CHAMPUS, the supplemental care program is similar to CHAMPUS in that it is a program for the uniformed services to purchase civilian health care services for active duty members. For this reason, the Director, OCHAMPUS assists the uniformed services in the administration of the supplemental care program.
</P>
<P>(3) This section applies to all health care services covered by the CHAMPUS. For purposes of this section, health care services ordered by a military treatment facility (MTF) provider for an MTF patient (who is not an active duty member) for whom the MTF provider maintains responsibility are also covered by the supplemental care program and subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation of providers concerning payment for supplemental health care for active duty members</I>—(1) <I>Hospitals covered by DRG-based payment system.</I> For a hospital covered by the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system to maintain its status as an authorized provider for CHAMPUS pursuant to § 199.6, that hospital must also be a participating provider for purposes of the supplemental care program. As a participating provider, each hospital must accept the DRG-based payment system amount determined pursuant to § 199.14 as payment in full for the hospital services covered by the system. The failure of any hospital to comply with this obligation subjects that hospital to exclusion as a CHAMPUS-authorized provider.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other participating providers.</I> For any institutional or individual provider, other than those described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that is a participating provider, the provider must also be a participating provider for purposes of the supplemental care program. The provider must accept the CHAMPUS allowable amount determined pursuant to § 199.14 as payment in full for the hospital services covered by the system. The failure of any provider to comply with this obligation subjects the provider to exclusion as a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General rule for payment and administration.</I> Subject to the special rules and procedures in paragraph (d) of this section and the waiver authority in paragraph (e) of this section, as a general rule the provisions of § 199.14 shall govern payment and administration of claims under the supplemental care program as they do claims under CHAMPUS. To the extent necessary to interpret or implement the provisions of § 199.14, related provisions of this part shall also be applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rules and procedure.</I> As exceptions to the general rule in paragraph (c) of this section, the special rules and procedures in this section shall govern payment and administration of claims under the supplemental care program. These special rules and procedures are subject to the TRICARE Prime Remote program for active duty service members set forth in paragraph (e) of this section and the waiver authority of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) There is no patient cost sharing under the supplemental care program. All amounts due to be paid to the provider shall be paid by the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Preauthorization by the Uniformed Services of each service is required for the supplemental care program except for services in cases of medical emergency (for which the definition in Sec. 199.2 shall apply) or in cases governed by the TRICARE Prime Remote program for active duty service members set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. It is the responsibility of the active duty members to obtain preauthorization for each service. With respect to each emergency inpatient admission, after such time as the emergency condition is addressed, authorization for any proposed continued stay must be obtained within two working days of admission.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the filing of claims and similar administrative matters for which this part refers to activities of the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries, for purposes of the supplemental care program, responsibilities for claims processing, payment and some other administrative matters may be assigned by the Director, OCHAMPUS to the same fiscal intermediaries, other contractor, or to the nearest military medical treatment facility or medical claims office.
</P>
<P>(4) The annual cost pass-throughs for capital and direct medical education costs that are available under the CHAMPUS DRG-based payment system are also available, upon request, under the supplemental care program. To obtain payment include the number of active duty bed days as a separate line item on the annual request to the CHAMPUS fiscal intermediaries.
</P>
<P>(5) For providers other than participating providers, the Director, OCHAMPUS may authorize payment in excess of CHAMPUS allowable amounts. No provider may bill an active duty member any amount in excess of the CHAMPUS allowable amount.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Members</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The TRICARE Prime Remote (TPR) program is available for certain active duty members of the Uniformed Services assigned to remote locations in the United States and the District of Columbia who are entitled to coverage of medical care, and the standards for timely access to such care, outside a military treatment facility that are comparable to coverage for medical care and standards for timely access to such care as exist under TRICARE Prime under § 199.17. Those active duty members who are eligible under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1074(c)(3) and who enroll in the TRICARE Prime Remote program, may not be required to receive routine primary medical care at a military medical treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility.</I> To receive health care services under the TRICARE Prime Remote program, an individual must be an active duty member of the Uniformed Services on orders for more than thirty consecutive days who meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a permanent duty assignment that is greater than fifty miles or approximately one hour drive from a military treatment facility or military clinic designated as adequate to provide the needed primary care services to the active duty service member; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to the assignment of such duty, resides at a location that is greater than fifty miles or approximately one hour from a military medical treatment facility or military clinic designated as adequate to provide the needed primary care services to the active duty service member.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Enrollment.</I> An active duty service member eligible for the TRICARE Prime Remote program must enroll in the program. If an eligible active duty member does not enroll in the TRICARE Prime Remote program, the member shall receive health care services provide under the supplemental health program subject to all requirements of this section without application of the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preauthorization.</I> If a TRICARE Prime network under § 199.17 exists in the remote location, the TRICARE Prime Remote enrolled active duty member will select or be assigned a primary care manager. In the absence of a TRICARE primary care manager in the remote location and if the active duty member is not assigned to a military primary care manager based on fitness for duty requirements, the TRICARE Prime Remote enrolled active duty member may use a local TRICARE authorized provider for primary health care services without preauthorization. Any referral for specialty care will require the TRICARE Prime Remote enrolled active duty member to obtain preauthorization for such services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver authority.</I> With the exception of statutory requirements, any restrictions or limitations pursuant to the general rule in paragraph (c) of this section, and special rules and procedures in paragraph (d) of this section, may be waived by the Director, OCHAMPUS, at the request of an authorized official of the uniformed service concerned, based on a determination that such waiver is necessary to assure adequate availability of health care services to active duty members.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Authorities.</I> (1) The Uniformed Services may establish additional procedures, consistent with this part, for the effective administration of the supplemental care program in their respective services. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs is responsible for the overall policy direction of the supplemental care program and the administration of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director, OCHAMPUS shall issue procedural requirements for the implementation of this section, including requirement for claims submission similar to those established by § 199.7.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23801, May 24, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 58963, Nov. 5, 1993; 67 FR 5479, Feb. 6, 2002; 71 FR 50348, Aug. 25, 2006] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.17   TRICARE program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> The TRICARE program is established for the purpose of implementing a comprehensive managed health care program for the delivery and financing of health care services in the Military Health System.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The TRICARE program implements a number of improvements primarily through modernized managed care support contracts that include special arrangements with civilian sector health care providers and better coordination between military medical treatment facilities (MTFs) and these civilian providers to deliver an integrated, health care delivery system that provides beneficiaries with access to high quality healthcare. Implementation of these improvements, to include enhanced access, improved health outcomes, increased efficiencies and elimination of waste, in addition to improving and maintaining operational medical force readiness, includes adoption of special rules and procedures not ordinarily followed under CHAMPUS or MTF requirements. This section establishes those special rules and procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Many of the provisions of this section are authorized by statutory authorities other than those which authorize the usual operation of the CHAMPUS program, especially 10 U.S.C. 1079 and 1086. The TRICARE program also relies upon other available statutory authorities, including 10 U.S.C. 1075 (TRICARE Select), 10 U.S.C. 1075a (TRICARE Prime cost sharing), 10 U.S.C. 1095f (referrals and pre-authorizations under TRICARE Prime), 10 U.S.C. 1099 (health care enrollment system), 10 U.S.C. 1097 (contracts for medical care for retirees, dependents and survivors: Alternative delivery of health care), and 10 U.S.C. 1096 (resource sharing agreements).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of the program.</I> The TRICARE program is applicable to all the uniformed services. TRICARE Select and TRICARE-for-Life shall be available in all areas, including overseas as authorized in paragraph (u) of this section. The geographic availability of TRICARE Prime is generally limited as provided in this section. The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may also authorize modifications to TRICARE program rules and procedures as may be appropriate to the area involved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rules and procedures affected.</I> Much of this section relates to rules and procedures applicable to the delivery and financing of health care services provided by civilian providers outside military treatment facilities. This section provides that certain rules, procedures, rights and obligations set forth elsewhere in this part (and usually applicable to CHAMPUS) are different under the TRICARE program. To the extent that TRICARE program rules, procedures, rights and obligations set forth in this section are not different from or otherwise in conflict with those set forth elsewhere in this part as applicable to CHAMPUS, the CHAMPUS provisions are incorporated into the TRICARE program. In addition, some rules, procedures, rights and obligations relating to health care services in military treatment facilities are also different under the TRICARE program. In such cases, provisions of this section take precedence and are binding.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Implementation based on local action.</I> The TRICARE program is not automatically implemented in all respects in all areas where it is potentially applicable. Therefore, not all provisions of this section are automatically implemented. Rather, implementation of the TRICARE program and this section requires an official action by the Director, Defense Health Agency. Public notice of the initiation of portions of the TRICARE program will be achieved through appropriate communication and media methods and by way of an official announcement by the Director identifying the military medical treatment facility catchment area or other geographical area covered.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Major features of the TRICARE program.</I> The major features of the TRICARE program, described in this section, include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Beneficiary categories.</I> Under the TRICARE program, health care beneficiaries are generally classified into one of several categories:
</P>
<P>(A) Active duty members, who are covered by 10 U.S.C. 1074(a).
</P>
<P>(B) Active duty family members, who are beneficiaries covered by 10 U.S.C. 1079 (also referred to in this section as “active duty family category”).
</P>
<P>(C) Retirees and their family members (also referred to in this section as “retired category”), who are beneficiaries covered by 10 U.S.C. 1086(c) other than those beneficiaries eligible for Medicare Part A.
</P>
<P>(D) Medicare eligible retirees and Medicare eligible retiree family members who are beneficiaries covered by 10 U.S.C. 1086(d) as each become individually eligible for Medicare Part A and enroll in Medicare Part B.
</P>
<P>(E) Military treatment facility (MTF) only beneficiaries are beneficiaries eligible for health care services in military treatment facilities, but not eligible for a TRICARE plan covering non-MTF care.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Health plans available.</I> The major TRICARE health plans are as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>TRICARE Prime.</I> “TRICARE Prime” is a health maintenance organization (HMO)-like program. It generally features use of military treatment facilities and substantially reduced out-of-pocket costs for care provided outside MTFs. Beneficiaries generally agree to use military treatment facilities and designated civilian provider networks and to follow certain managed care rules and procedures. The primary purpose of TRICARE Prime is to support the effective operation of an MTF, which exists to support the medical readiness of the armed forces and the readiness of medical personnel. TRICARE Prime will be offered in areas where the Director determines that it is appropriate to support the effective operation of one or more MTFs.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>TRICARE Select.</I> “TRICARE Select” is a self-managed, preferred provider organization (PPO) program. It allows beneficiaries to use the TRICARE provider civilian network, with reduced out-of-pocket costs compared to care from non-network providers, as well as military treatment facilities (where they exist and when space is available). TRICARE Select enrollees will not have restrictions on their freedom of choice with respect to authorized health care providers. However, when a TRICARE Select beneficiary receives services covered under the basic program from an authorized health care provider who is not part of the TRICARE provider network that care is covered by TRICARE but is subject to higher cost sharing amounts for “out-of-network” care. Those amounts are the same as under the basic program under § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>TRICARE for Life.</I> “TRICARE for Life” is the Medicare wraparound coverage plan under 10 U.S.C. 1086(d). Rules applicable to this plan are unaffected by this section; they are generally set forth in §§ 199.3 (Eligibility), 199.4 (Basic Program Benefits), and 199.8 (Double Coverage).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>TRICARE Standard.</I> “TRICARE Standard” generally referred to the basic CHAMPUS program of benefits under § 199.4. While the law required termination of TRICARE Standard as a distinct TRICARE plan December 31, 2017, the CHAMPUS basic program benefits under § 199.4 continues as the baseline of benefits common to the TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Comprehensive enrollment system.</I> The TRICARE program includes a comprehensive enrollment system for all categories of beneficiaries except TRICARE-for-Life beneficiaries. When eligibility for enrollment for TRICARE Prime and/or TRICARE Select exists, a beneficiary must enroll in one of the plans. Refer to paragraph (o) of this section for TRICARE program enrollment procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> (i) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103 the Department of Defense has determined that in the administration of 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including but not limited to the assurance of uniform national health programs for military families and the operation of such programs at the lowest possible cost to the Department of Defense, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, any State or local law relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with TRICARE regional contracts. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to the TRICARE regional contracts. (However, the Department of Defense may by contract establish legal obligations of the part of TRICARE contractors to conform with requirements similar or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations).
</P>
<P>(iii) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health or dental insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of the statutes identified in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD health services contracts, if those taxes, fees or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD health and dental services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those applicable to the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select health plans in general.</I> The two primary plans for beneficiaries in the active duty family category and the retired category (which does not include most Medicare-eligible retirees/dependents) are TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select. This paragraph (b) further describes the TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select health plans.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>TRICARE Prime.</I> TRICARE Prime is a managed care option that provides enhanced medical services to beneficiaries at reduced cost-sharing amounts for beneficiaries whose care is managed by a designated primary care manager and provided by an MTF or network provider. TRICARE Prime is offered in a location in which an MTF is located (other than a facility limited to members of the armed forces) that has been designated by the Director as a Prime Service Area. In addition, where TRICARE Prime is offered it may be limited to active duty family members if the Director determines it is not practicable to offer TRICARE Prime to retired category beneficiaries. TRICARE Prime is not offered in areas where the Director determines it is impracticable. If TRICARE Prime is not offered in a geographical area, certain active duty family members residing in the area may be eligible to enroll in TRICARE Prime Remote program under paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TRICARE Select.</I> TRICARE Select is the self-managed option under which beneficiaries may receive authorized basic program benefits from any TRICARE authorized provider. The TRICARE Select health care plan also provides enhanced program benefits to beneficiaries with access to a preferred-provider network with broad geographic availability within the United States at reduced out-of-pocket expenses. However, when a beneficiary receives services from an authorized health care provider who is not part of the TRICARE provider network, only basic program benefits (not enhanced Select care) are covered by TRICARE and the beneficiary is subject to higher cost sharing amounts for “out-of-network” care. Those amounts are the same as under the basic program under § 199.4.
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<P>(c) <I>Eligibility for enrollment in TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select.</I> Beneficiaries in the active duty family category and the retired category are eligible to enroll in TRICARE Prime and/or TRICARE Select as outlined in this paragraph (c). A retiree or retiree family member who becomes eligible for Medicare Part A is not eligible to enroll in TRICARE Select; however, as provided in this paragraph (c), some Medicare eligible retirees/family members may be allowed to enroll in TRICARE Prime where available. In general, when a retiree or retiree family member becomes individually eligible for Medicare Part A and enrolls in Medicare Part B, he/she is automatically eligible for TRICARE-for-Life and is required to enroll in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to verify eligibility. Further, some rules and procedures are different for dependents of active duty members and retirees, dependents, and survivors.
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<P>(1) <I>Active duty members.</I> Active duty members are required to enroll in Prime where it is offered. Active duty members shall have first priority for enrollment in Prime.
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<P>(2) <I>Dependents of active duty members.</I> Beneficiaries in the active duty family member category are eligible to enroll in Prime (where offered) or Select.
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<P>(3) <I>Survivors of deceased members.</I> (i) The surviving spouse of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days is eligible to enroll in Prime (where offered) or Select for a 3 year period beginning on the date of the member's death under the same rules and provisions as dependents of active duty members.
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<P>(ii) A dependent child or unmarried person (as described in § 199.3(b)(2)(ii) or (iv)) of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days whose death occurred on or after October 7, 2001, is eligible to enroll in Prime (where offered) or Select and is subject to the same rules and provisions of dependents of active duty members for a period of three years from the date the active duty sponsor dies or until the surviving eligible dependent:
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<P>(A) Attains 21 years of age; or
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<P>(B) Attains 23 years of age or ceases to pursue a full-time course of study prior to attaining 23 years of age, if, at 21 years of age, the eligible surviving dependent is enrolled in a full-time course of study in a secondary school or in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education approved by the Secretary of Defense and was, at the time of the sponsor's death, in fact dependent on the member for over one-half of such dependent's support.
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<P>(4) <I>Retirees, dependents of retirees, and survivors (other than survivors of deceased members covered under paragraph (c)(3) of this section).</I> All retirees, dependents of retirees, and survivors who are not eligible for Medicare Part A are eligible to enroll in Select. Additionally, retirees, dependents of retirees, and survivors who are not eligible for Medicare Part A based on age are also eligible to enroll in TRICARE Prime in locations where it is offered and where an MTF has, in the judgment of the Director, a significant number of health care providers, including specialty care providers, and sufficient capability to support the efficient operation of TRICARE Prime for projected retired beneficiary enrollees in that location.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Health benefits under TRICARE Prime</I>—(1) <I>Military treatment facility (MTF) care</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> All participants in Prime are eligible to receive care in military treatment facilities. Participants in Prime will be given priority for such care over other beneficiaries. Among the following beneficiary groups, access priority for care in military treatment facilities where TRICARE is implemented as follows:
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<P>(A) Active duty service members;
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<P>(B) Active duty service members' dependents and survivors of service members who died on active duty, who are enrolled in TRICARE Prime;
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<P>(C) Retirees, their dependents and survivors, who are enrolled in TRICARE Prime;
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<P>(D) Active duty service members' dependents and survivors of deceased members, who are not enrolled in TRICARE Prime; and
</P>
<P>(E) Retirees, their dependents and survivors who are not enrolled in TRICARE Prime. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(1), survivors of members who died while on active duty are considered as among dependents of active duty service members.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special provisions.</I> Enrollment in Prime does not affect access priority for care in military treatment facilities for several miscellaneous beneficiary groups and special circumstances. Those include Secretarial designees, NATO and other foreign military personnel and dependents authorized care through international agreements, civilian employees under workers' compensation programs or under safety programs, members on the Temporary Disability Retired List (for statutorily required periodic medical examinations), members of the reserve components not on active duty (for covered medical services), military prisoners, active duty dependents unable to enroll in Prime and temporarily away from place of residence, and others as designated by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs). Additional exceptions to the normal Prime enrollment access priority rules may be granted for other categories of individuals, eligible for treatment in the MTF, whose access to care is necessary to provide an adequate clinical case mix to support graduate medical education programs or readiness-related medical skills sustainment activities, to the extent approved by the ASD(HA).
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<P>(2) <I>Non-MTF care for active duty members.</I> Under Prime, non-MTF care needed by active duty members continues to be arranged under the supplemental care program and subject to the rules and procedures of that program, including those set forth in § 199.16.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Civilian sector Prime benefits.</I> Health benefits for Prime enrollees for care received from civilian providers are those under § 199.4 and the additional benefits identified in paragraph (f) of this section.
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<P>(e) <I>Health benefits under the TRICARE Select plan</I>—(1) <I>Civilian sector care.</I> The health benefits under TRICARE Select for enrolled beneficiaries received from civilian providers are those under § 199.4, and, in addition, those in paragraph (f) of this section when received from a civilian network provider.
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<P>(2) <I>Military treatment facility (MTF) care.</I> All TRICARE Select enrolled beneficiaries continue to be eligible to receive care in military treatment facilities on a space available basis.
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<P>(f) <I>Benefits under TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as specifically provided or authorized by this section, all benefits provided, and benefit limitations established, pursuant to this part, shall apply to TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select.
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<P>(2) <I>Preventive care services.</I> Certain preventive care services not normally provided as part of basic program benefits under § 199.4 are covered benefits when provided to Prime or Select enrollees by providers in the civilian provider network. Such additional services are authorized under 10 U.S.C. 1097, including preventive care services not part of the entitlement under 10 U.S.C. 1074d and services that would otherwise be excluded under 10 U.S.C. 1079(a)(10). Other authority for such additional services includes section 706 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017. The specific set of such services shall be established by the Director and announced annually before the open season enrollment period. Standards for preventive care services shall be developed based on guidelines from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Such standards shall establish a specific schedule, including frequency or age specifications for services that may include, but are not limited to:
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<P>(i) Laboratory and imaging tests, including blood lead, rubella, cholesterol, fecal occult blood testing, and mammography;
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<P>(ii) Cancer screenings (including cervical, breast, lung, prostate, and colon cancer screenings);
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<P>(iii) Immunizations;
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<P>(iv) Periodic health promotion and disease prevention exams;
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<P>(v) Blood pressure screening;
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<P>(vi) Hearing exams;
</P>
<P>(vii) Sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy;
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<P>(viii) Serologic screening; and
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<P>(ix) Appropriate education and counseling services. The exact services offered shall be established under uniform standards established by the Director.
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<P>(3) <I>Treatment of obesity.</I> Under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1097 and sections 706 and 729 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017, notwithstanding 10 U.S.C. 1079(a)(10), treatment of obesity is covered under TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select even if it is the sole or major condition treated. Such services must be provided by a TRICARE network provider and be medically necessary and appropriate in the context of the particular patient's treatment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>High value services.</I> Under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1097 and other authority, including sections 706 and 729 of the NDAA-17, for purposes of improving population-based health outcomes and incentivizing medical intervention programs to address chronic diseases and other conditions and healthy lifestyle interventions, the Director may waive or reduce cost sharing requirements for TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select enrollees for care received from network providers for certain health care services designated for this purpose. The specific services designated for this purpose will be those the Director determines provide especially high value in terms of better health outcomes. The specific services affected for any plan year will be announced by the Director prior to the open season enrollment period for that plan year. Services affected by actions of the Director under this paragraph (f)(4) may be associated with actions taken for high value medications under § 199.21(j)(3) for select pharmaceutical agents to be cost-shared at a reduced or zero dollar rate.
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<P>(5) <I>Other services.</I> In addition to services provided pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) through (4) of this section, other benefit enhancements may be added and other benefit restrictions may be waived or relaxed in connection with health care services provided to TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select enrollees. Any such other enhancements or changes must be approved by the Director based on uniform standards.
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<P>(g) <I>TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In geographic areas in which TRICARE Prime is not offered and in which eligible family members reside, there is offered under 10 U.S.C. 1079(p) TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members as an enrollment option. TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members (TPRADFM) will generally follow the rules and procedures of TRICARE Prime, except as provided in this paragraph (g) and otherwise except to the extent the Director determines them to be infeasible because of the remote area.
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<P>(2) <I>Active duty family member.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term “active duty family member” means one of the following dependents of an active duty member of the Uniformed Services:
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<P>(i) Spouse, child, or unmarried person, as defined in § 199.3(b)(2)(i), (ii), or (iv);
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<P>(ii) For a 3-year period, the surviving spouse of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days whose death occurred on or after October 7, 2001; and
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<P>(iii) The surviving dependent child or unmarried person, as defined in § 199.3(b)(2)(ii) or (iv), of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days whose death occurred on or after October 7, 2001. Active duty family member status is for a period of 3 years from the date the active duty sponsor dies or until the surviving eligible dependent:
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<P>(A) Attains 21 years of age; or
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<P>(B) Attains 23 years of age or ceases to pursue a full-time course of study prior to attaining 23 years of age, if, at 21 years of age, the eligible surviving dependent is enrolled in a full-time course of study in a secondary school or in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education approved by the Secretary of Defense and was, at the time of the sponsor's death, in fact dependent on the member for over one-half of such dependent's support.
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<P>(3) <I>Eligibility.</I> (i) An active duty family member is eligible for TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members if he or she is eligible for CHAMPUS and, on or after December 2, 2003, meets the criteria of paragraphs (g)(3)(i)(A) and (B) or paragraph (g)(3)(i)(C) of this section or on or after October 7, 2001, meets the criteria of paragraph (g)(3)(i)(D) or (E) of this section:
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<P>(A) The family member's active duty sponsor has been assigned permanent duty as a recruiter; as an instructor at an educational institution, an administrator of a program, or to provide administrative services in support of a program of instruction for the Reserve Officers' Training Corps; as a full-time adviser to a unit of a reserve component; or any other permanent duty designated by the Director that the Director determines is more than 50 miles, or approximately one hour driving time, from the nearest military treatment facility that is adequate to provide care.
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<P>(B) The family members and active duty sponsor, pursuant to the assignment of duty described in paragraph (g)(3)(i)(A) of this section, reside at a location designated by the Director, that the Director determines is more than 50 miles, or approximately one hour driving time, from the nearest military medical treatment facility adequate to provide care.
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<P>(C) The family member, having resided together with the active duty sponsor while the sponsor served in an assignment described in paragraph (g)(3)(i)(A) of this section, continues to reside at the same location after the sponsor relocates without the family member pursuant to orders for a permanent change of duty station, and the orders do not authorize dependents to accompany the sponsor to the new duty station at the expense of the United States.
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<P>(D) For a 3 year period, the surviving spouse of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days whose death occurred on or after October 7, 2001.
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<P>(E) The surviving dependent child or unmarried person as defined in § 199.3(b)(2)(ii) or (iv), of a member who dies while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days whose death occurred on or after October 7, 2001, for three years from the date the active duty sponsor dies or until the surviving eligible dependent:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Attains 21 years of age; or
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Attains 23 years of age or ceases to pursue a full-time course of study prior to attaining 23 years of age, if, at 21 years of age, the eligible surviving dependent is enrolled in a full-time course of study in a secondary school or in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education approved by the Secretary of Defense and was, at the time of the sponsor's death, in fact dependent on the member for over one-half of such dependent's support.
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<P>(ii) A family member who is a dependent of a reserve component member is eligible for TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members if he or she is eligible for CHAMPUS and meets all of the following additional criteria:
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<P>(A) The reserve component member has been ordered to active duty for a period of more than 30 days.
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<P>(B) The family member resides with the member.
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<P>(C) The Director, determines the residence of the reserve component member is more than 50 miles, or approximately one hour driving time, from the nearest military medical treatment facility that is adequate to provide care.
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<P>(D) “Resides with” is defined as the TRICARE Prime Remote residence address at which the family resides with the activated reservist upon activation.
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<P>(4) <I>Enrollment.</I> TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members requires enrollment under procedures set forth in paragraph (o) of this section or as otherwise established by the Director.
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<P>(5) <I>Health care management requirements under TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members.</I> The additional health care management requirements applicable to Prime enrollees under paragraph (n) of this section are applicable under TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members unless the Director determines they are infeasible because of the particular remote location. Enrollees will be given notice of the applicable management requirements in their remote location.
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<P>(6) <I>Cost sharing.</I> Beneficiary cost sharing requirements under TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members are the same as those under TRICARE Prime under paragraph (m) of this section, except that the higher point-of-service option cost sharing and deductible shall not apply to routine primary health care services in cases in which, because of the remote location, the beneficiary is not assigned a primary care manager or the Director determines that care from a TRICARE network provider is not available within the TRICARE access standards under paragraph (p)(5) of this section. The higher point-of-service option cost sharing and deductible shall apply to specialty health care services received by any TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members enrollee unless an appropriate referral/preauthorization is obtained as required by paragraph (n) of this section under TRICARE Prime. In the case of pharmacy services under § 199.21, where the Director determines that no TRICARE network retail pharmacy has been established within a reasonable distance of the residence of the TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members enrollee, cost sharing applicable to TRICARE network retail pharmacies will be applicable to all CHAMPUS eligible pharmacies in the remote area.
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<P>(h) <I>Resource sharing agreements.</I> Under the TRICARE program, any military medical treatment facility (MTF) commander may establish resource sharing agreements with the applicable managed care support contractor for the purpose of providing for the sharing of resources between the two parties. Internal resource sharing and external resource sharing agreements are authorized. The provisions of this paragraph (h) shall apply to resource sharing agreements under the TRICARE program.
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<P>(1) In connection with internal resource sharing agreements, beneficiary cost sharing requirements shall be the same as those applicable to health care services provided in facilities of the uniformed services.
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<P>(2) Under internal resource sharing agreements, the double coverage requirements of § 199.8 shall be replaced by the Third Party Collection procedures of 32 CFR part 220, to the extent permissible under such part. In such a case, payments made to a resource sharing agreement provider through the TRICARE managed care support contractor shall be deemed to be payments by the MTF concerned.
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<P>(3) Under internal or external resource sharing agreements, the commander of the MTF concerned may authorize the provision of services, pursuant to the agreement, to Medicare-eligible beneficiaries, if such services are not reimbursable by Medicare, and if the commander determines that this will promote the most cost-effective provision of services under the TRICARE program.
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<P>(4) Under external resource sharing agreements, there is no cost sharing applicable to services provided by military facility personnel. Cost sharing for non-MTF institutional and related ancillary charges shall be as applicable to services provided under TRICARE Prime or TRICARE Select, as appropriate.
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<P>(i) <I>General quality assurance, utilization review, and preauthorization requirements under the TRICARE program.</I> All quality assurance, utilization review, and preauthorization requirements for the basic CHAMPUS program, as set forth in this part (see especially applicable provisions in §§ 199.4 and 199.15), are applicable to Prime and Select except as provided in this chapter. Pursuant to an agreement between a military medical treatment facility and TRICARE managed care support contractor, quality assurance, utilization review, and preauthorization requirements and procedures applicable to health care services outside the military medical treatment facility may be made applicable, in whole or in part, to health care services inside the military medical treatment facility.
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<P>(j) <I>Pharmacy services.</I> Pharmacy services under Prime and Select are as provided in the Pharmacy Benefits Program (see § 199.21).
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<P>(k) <I>Design of cost sharing structures under TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The design of the cost sharing structures under TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select includes several major factors: beneficiary category (<I>e.g.,</I> active duty family member category or retired category, and there are some special rules for survivors of active duty deceased sponsors and medically retired members and their dependents); date of initial military affiliation (<I>i.e.,</I> before or on or after January 1, 2018), category of health care service received, and network or non-network status of the provider.
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<P>(2) <I>Categories of health care services.</I> This paragraph (k)(2) describes the categories of health care services relevant to determining copayment amounts.
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<P>(i) Preventive care visits. These are outpatient visits and related services described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. There are no cost sharing requirements for preventive care listed under §§ 199.4(e)(28)(i) through (iv) and 199.17(f)(2). Beneficiaries shall not be required to pay any portion of the cost of these preventive services even if the beneficiary has not satisfied any applicable deductible for that year.
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<P>(ii) Primary care outpatient visits. These are outpatient visits, not occurring in an ER or urgent care center, with the following provider specialties:
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<P>(A) General Practice.
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<P>(B) Family Practice.
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<P>(C) Internal Medicine.
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<P>(D) OB/GYN.
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<P>(E) Pediatrics.
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<P>(F) Physician's Assistant.
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<P>(G) Nurse Practitioner.
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<P>(H) Nurse Midwife.
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<P>(iii) Specialty care outpatient visits. This category applies to outpatient care provided by provider specialties other than those listed under primary care outpatient visits under paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section and not specifically included in one of the other categories of care (<I>e.g.,</I> emergency room visits etc.) under paragraph (k)(2) of this section. This category also includes partial hospitalization services, intensive outpatient treatment, and opioid treatment program services. The per visit fee shall be applied on a per day basis on days services are received, with the exception of opioid treatment program services reimbursed in accordance with § 199.14(a)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) which per visit fee will apply on a weekly basis.
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<P>(iv) Emergency room visits.
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<P>(v) Urgent care center visits.
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<P>(vi) Ambulance services. This is for ground ambulance services.
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<P>(vii) Ambulatory surgery. This is for facility-based outpatient ambulatory surgery services.
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<P>(viii) Inpatient hospital admissions.
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<P>(ix) Skilled nursing facility or rehabilitation facility admissions. This category includes a residential treatment center, or substance use disorder rehabilitation facility residential treatment program.
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<P>(x) Durable medical equipment, prosthetic devices, and other authorized supplies.
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<P>(xi) Outpatient prescription pharmaceuticals. These are addressed in § 199.21.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beneficiary categories further subdivided.</I> For purposes of both TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select, enrollment fees and cost sharing by beneficiary category (<I>e.g.,</I> active duty family member category or retired category) are further differentiated between two groups:
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<P>(i) Group A consists of Prime or Select enrollees whose sponsor originally enlisted or was appointed in a uniformed service before January 1, 2018.
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<P>(ii) Group B consists of Prime or Select enrollees whose sponsor originally enlisted or was appointed in a uniformed service on or after January 1, 2018.
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<P>(l) <I>Enrollment fees and cost sharing (including deductibles and catastrophic cap) amounts.</I> This paragraph (l) provides enrollment fees and cost sharing requirements applicable to TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select enrollees.
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<P>(1) <I>Enrollment fee and cost sharing under TRICARE Prime.</I> (i) For Group A enrollees:
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<P>(A) There is no enrollment fee for the active duty family member category.
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<P>(B) The retired category enrollment fee in calendar year 2018 is equal to the Prime enrollment fee for fiscal year 2017, indexed to calendar year 2018 and thereafter in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1097. The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may exempt survivors of active duty deceased sponsors and medically retired Uniformed Services members and their dependents from future increases in enrollment fees. The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may also waive the enrollment fee requirements for Medicare-eligible beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(C) The cost sharing amounts are established annually in connection with the open season enrollment period. An amount is established for each category of care identified in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, taking into account all applicable statutory provisions, including 10 U.S.C. chapter 55. The amount for each category of care may not exceed the amount for Group B as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1075a.
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<P>(D) The catastrophic cap is $1,000 for active duty families and $3,000 for retired category families.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Group B TRICARE Prime enrollees, the enrollment fee, catastrophic cap, and cost sharing amounts are as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1075a. The cost sharing requirements applicable to services not specifically addressed in the table set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1075a(b)(1) shall be determined by the Director, DHA.
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<P>(iii) For both Group A and Group B, for health care services obtained by a Prime enrollee but not obtained in accordance with the rules and procedures of Prime (<I>e.g.</I> failure to obtain a primary care manager referral when such a referral is required or seeing a non-network provider when Prime rules require use of a network provider and one is available) will not be paid under Prime rules but may be covered by the point-of-service option. For services obtained under the point-of-service option, the deductible is $300 per person and $600 per family. The beneficiary cost share is 50 percent of the allowable charges for inpatient and outpatient care, after the deductible. Point-of-service charges do not count against the annual catastrophic cap.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enrollment fee and cost sharing under TRICARE Select.</I> (i) For Group A enrollees:


</P>
<P>(A) The enrollment fee in calendar years 2018 through 2020 is zero and the catastrophic cap is as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1079 or 1086. The enrollment fee and catastrophic cap in 2021 and thereafter for certain beneficiaries in the retired category is as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1075(e), except the enrollment fee and catastrophic cap adjustment shall not apply to survivors of active duty deceased sponsors and medically retired Uniformed Services members and their dependents. Payment of TRICARE premiums and enrollment fees will be withheld from the retired, retainer or equivalent pay of these beneficiaries in the retired category to the maximum extent practicable upon complete implementation of this rule and thereafter. Appropriate processes to require and manage these allotments, to include frequency and method, as well as alternatives when allotments are not practicable, shall be determined by the Director, DHA. An exception may be made for certain survivors of active duty deceased sponsors and medically retired Uniformed Services members and their dependents, for which the enrollment fee and catastrophic cap adjustments shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(B) The cost sharing amounts for network care for Group A enrollees are calculated for each category of care described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section by taking into account all applicable statutory provisions, including 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, as if TRICARE Extra and Standard programs were still being implemented. When determined practicable, including efficiency and effectiveness in administration, the amounts established are converted to fixed dollar amounts for each category of care for which a fixed dollar amount is established by 10 U.S.C. 1075. When determined not to be practicable, as in the categories of care including ambulatory surgery, inpatient admissions, and inpatient skilled nursing/rehabilitation admissions, the calculated cost-sharing amounts are not converted to fixed dollar amounts. The fixed dollar amount for each category is set prospectively for each calendar year as the amount (rounded down to the nearest dollar amount) equal to 15% for enrollees in the active duty family beneficiary category or 20% for enrollees in the retired beneficiary category of the projected average allowable payment amount for each category of care during the year, as estimated by the Director. The projected average allowable payment amount for primary care (including urgent care) and specialty care outpatient appointments include payments for ancillary services (<I>e.g.,</I> laboratory and radiology services) that are provided in connection with the respective outpatient visit. As such, there is no separate cost sharing for these ancillary services.
</P>
<P>(C) The cost share for care received from non-network providers is as provided in § 199.4.
</P>
<P>(D) The annual deductible amount is as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1079 or 1086.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Group B TRICARE Select enrollees, the enrollment fee, annual deductible for services received while in an outpatient status, catastrophic cap., and cost sharing amounts are as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1075 and as consistent with this section. The cost sharing requirements applicable to services not specifically addressed in 10 U.S.C. 1075 shall be determined by the Director, DHA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special cost-sharing rules.</I> (i) There is no separate cost-sharing applicable to ancillary health care services obtained in conjunction with an outpatient primary or specialty care visit under TRICARE Prime or from network providers under TRICARE Select.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cost-sharing for maternity care services shall be determined in accordance with § 199.4(e)(16).


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special transition rule for the last quarter of calendar year 2017.</I> In order to transition enrollment fees, deductibles, and catastrophic caps from a fiscal year basis to a calendar year basis, the following special rules apply for the last quarter of calendar year 2017:
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<P>(A) A Prime enrollee's enrollment fee for the quarter is one-fourth of the enrollment fee for fiscal year 2017.
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<P>(B) The deductible amount and the catastrophic cap amount for fiscal year 2017 will be applicable to the 15-month period of October 1, 2016 through December 31, 2017.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Limit on out-of-pocket costs under TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Select.</I> For the purpose of this paragraph (m), out-of-pocket costs means all payments required of beneficiaries under paragraph (l) of this section, including enrollment fees, deductibles, and cost-sharing amounts, with the exception of point-of-service charges. In any case in which a family reaches their applicable catastrophic cap, all remaining payments that would have been required of the beneficiary under paragraph (l) of this section for authorized care, with the exception of applicable point-of-service charges pursuant to paragraph (l)(1)(iii) of this section, will be paid by the program for the remainder of that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Additional health care management requirements under TRICARE Prime.</I> Prime has additional, special health care management requirements not applicable under TRICARE Select.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary care manager.</I> (i) All active duty members and Prime enrollees will be assigned a primary care manager pursuant to a system established by the Director, and consistent with the access standards in paragraph (p)(5)(i) of this section. The primary care manager may be an individual, physician, a group practice, a clinic, a treatment site, or other designation. The primary care manager may be part of the MTF or the Prime civilian provider network. The enrollee will be given the opportunity to register a preference for primary care manager from a list of choices provided by the Director. This preference will be entered on a TRICARE Prime enrollment form or similar document. Preference requests will be considered, but primary care manager assignments will be subject to availability under the MTF beneficiary category priority system under paragraph (d) of this section and subject to other operational requirements. (ii) Prime enrollees who are dependents of active duty members in pay grades E-1 through E-4 shall have priority over other active duty dependents for enrollment with MTF PCMs, subject to MTF capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral and preauthorization requirements.</I> (i) Under TRICARE Prime there are certain procedures for referral and preauthorization.
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of this paragraph (n)(2), referral addresses the issue of who will provide authorized health care services. In many cases, Prime beneficiaries will be referred by a primary care manager to a medical department of an MTF if the type of care needed is available at the MTF. In such a case, failure to adhere to that referral will result in the care being subject to point-of-service charges. In other cases, a referral may be to the civilian provider network, and again, point-of-service charges would apply to a failure to follow the referral.
</P>
<P>(B) In contrast to referral, preauthorization addresses the issue of whether particular services may be covered by TRICARE, including whether they appear necessary and appropriate in the context of the patient's diagnosis and circumstances. A major purpose of preauthorization is to prevent surprises about coverage determinations, which are sometimes dependent on particular details regarding the patient's condition and circumstances. While TRICARE Prime has referral requirements that do not exist for TRICARE Select, TRICARE Select has some preauthorization requirements that do not exist for TRICARE Prime.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (n)(2), a beneficiary enrolled in TRICARE Prime is required to obtain a referral for care through a designated primary care manager (or other authorized care coordinator) prior to obtaining care under the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no referral requirement under paragraph (n)(2)(i) of this section in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) In emergencies;
</P>
<P>(B) For urgent care services for a certain number of visits per year (zero to unlimited), with the number specified by the Director and notice provided in connection with the open season enrollment period preceding the plan year; and
</P>
<P>(C) In any other special circumstances identified by the Director, generally with notice provided in connection with the open season enrollment period for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(iv) A primary care manager who believes a referral to a specialty care provider is medically necessary and appropriate need not obtain pre-authorization from the managed care support contractor before referring a patient to a network specialty care provider. Such preauthorization is only required with respect to a primary care manager's referral for:
</P>
<P>(A) Inpatient hospitalization;
</P>
<P>(B) Inpatient care at a skilled nursing facility;
</P>
<P>(C) Inpatient care at a rehabilitation facility; and
</P>
<P>(D) Inpatient care at a residential treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(v) The restrictions in paragraph (n)(2)(iv) of this section on preauthorization requirements do not apply to any preauthorization requirements that are generally applicable under TRICARE, independent of TRICARE Prime referrals, such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Under the Pharmacy Benefits Program under 10 U.S.C. 1074g and § 199.21.
</P>
<P>(B) For laboratory and other ancillary services.
</P>
<P>(C) Durable medical equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) The cost-sharing requirement for a beneficiary enrolled in TRICARE Prime who does not obtain a referral for care when it is required, including care from a non-network provider, is as provided in paragraph (l)(1)(iii) of this section concerning point of service care.
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of care for which preauthorization is not required under paragraph (n)(2)(iv) of this section, the Director may authorize a managed care support contractor to offer a voluntary pre-authorization program to enable beneficiaries and providers to confirm covered benefit status and/or medical necessity or to understand the criteria that will be used by the managed care support contractor to adjudicate the claim associated with the proposed care. A network provider may not be required to use such a program with respect to a referral.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrictions on the use of providers.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (n)(3) shall be applicable to health care utilization under TRICARE Prime, except in cases of emergency care and under point-of-service option (see paragraph (n)(4) of this section).
</P>
<P>(i) Prime enrollees must obtain all primary health care from the primary care manager or from another provider to which the enrollee is referred by the primary care manager or otherwise authorized.
</P>
<P>(ii) For any necessary specialty care and non-emergent inpatient care, the primary care manager or other authorized individual will assist in making an appropriate referral.
</P>
<P>(iii) Though referrals for specialty care are generally the responsibility of the primary care managers, subject to discretion exercised by the TRICARE Regional Directors, and established in regional policy or memoranda of understanding, specialist providers may be permitted to refer patients for additional specialty consultation appointment services within the TRICARE contractor's network without prior authorization by primary care managers.
</P>
<P>(iv) The following procedures will apply to health care referrals under TRICARE Prime:
</P>
<P>(A) The first priority for referral for specialty care or inpatient care will be to the local MTF (or to any other MTF in which catchment area the enrollee resides).
</P>
<P>(B) If the local MTF(s) are unavailable for the services needed, but there is another MTF at which the needed services can be provided, the enrollee may be required to obtain the services at that MTF. However, this requirement will only apply to the extent that the enrollee was informed at the time of (or prior to) enrollment that mandatory referrals might be made to the MTF involved for the service involved.
</P>
<P>(C) If the needed services are available within civilian preferred provider network serving the area, the enrollee may be required to obtain the services from a provider within the network. Subject to availability, the enrollee will have the freedom to choose a provider from among those in the network.
</P>
<P>(D) If the needed services are not available within the civilian preferred provider network serving the area, the enrollee may be required to obtain the services from a designated civilian provider outside the area. However, this requirement will only apply to the extent that the enrollee was informed at the time of (or prior to) enrollment that mandatory referrals might be made to the provider involved for the service involved (with the provider and service either identified specifically or in connection with some appropriate classification).
</P>
<P>(E) In cases in which the needed health care services cannot be provided pursuant to the procedures identified in paragraphs (n)(3)(iv)(A) through (D) of this section, the enrollee will receive authorization to obtain services from a TRICARE-authorized civilian provider(s) of the enrollee's choice not affiliated with the civilian preferred provider network.
</P>
<P>(iv) When Prime is operating in non-catchment areas, the requirements in paragraphs (n)(3)(iv)(B) through (E) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Point-of-service option.</I> TRICARE Prime enrollees retain the freedom to obtain services from civilian providers on a point-of service basis. Any health care services obtained by a Prime enrollee, but not obtained in accordance with the rules and procedures of Prime, will be covered by the point-of-service option. In such cases, all requirements applicable to health benefits under § 199.4 shall apply, except that there shall be higher deductible and cost sharing requirements (as set forth in paragraph (l)(1)(iii)) of this section). However, Prime rules may cover such services if the enrollee did not know and could not reasonably have been expected to know that the services were not obtained in accordance with the utilization management rules and procedures of Prime.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prime travel benefit.</I> In accordance with guidelines issues by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs), certain travel expenses may be reimbursed when a TRICARE Prime enrollee is referred by the primary care manager for medically necessary specialty care more than 100 miles away from the primary care manager's office. Such guidelines shall be consistent with appropriate provisions of generally applicable Department of Defense rules and procedures governing travel expenses.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>TRICARE program enrollment procedures.</I> There are certain requirements pertaining to procedures for enrollment in TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Select, and TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members. (These procedures do not apply to active duty members, whose enrollment is mandatory and automatic.)
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual open season enrollment.</I> (i) As a general rule, enrollment (or a modification to a previous enrollment) must occur during the open season period prior to the plan year, which is on a calendar year basis. The open season enrollment period will be of at least 30 calendar days duration. An enrollment choice will be applicable for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Open season enrollment procedures may include automatic re-enrollment in the same plan for the next plan year for enrollees or sponsors that will occur in the event the enrollee does not take other action during the open season period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions to the calendar year enrollment process.</I> The Director will identify certain qualifying events that may be the basis for a change in enrollment status during a plan year, such as a change in eligibility status, marriage, divorce, birth of a new family member, relocation, loss of other health insurance, or other events. In the case of such an event, a beneficiary eligible to enroll in a plan may newly enroll, dis-enroll, or modify a previous enrollment during the plan year. Initial payment of the applicable enrollment fee shall be collected for new enrollments in accordance with established procedures. Any applicable enrollment fee will be pro-rated. A beneficiary who dis-enrolls without enrolling at the same time in another plan is not eligible to enroll in a plan later in the same plan year unless there is another qualifying event. A beneficiary who is dis-enrolled for failure to pay a required enrollment fee installment is not eligible to re-enroll in a plan later in the same plan year unless there is another qualifying event. Generally, the effective date of coverage will coincide with the date of the qualifying event.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installment payments of enrollment fee.</I> The Director will establish procedures for installment payments of enrollment fees.

(4) <I>Effect of failure to enroll.</I> Beneficiaries eligible to enroll in Prime or Select and who do not enroll will no longer have coverage under the TRICARE program until the next annual open season enrollment or they have a qualifying event, except that they do not lose any statutory eligibility for space-available care in military medical treatment facilities. There is a limited grace period exception to this enrollment requirement for calendar year 2018, as provided in section 701(d)(3) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Automatic enrollment for certain dependents.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1097a, in the case of dependents of active duty members in the grade of E-1 to E-4, such dependents who reside in a catchment area of a military treatment facility shall be enrolled in TRICARE Prime. The Director may provide for the automatic enrollment in TRICARE Prime for such dependents of active duty members in the grade of E-5 and higher. In any case of automatic enrollment under this paragraph (o)(5), the member will be provided written notice and the automatic enrollment may be cancelled at the election of the member.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grace periods.</I> The Director may make provisions for grace periods for enrollment-related actions to facilitate effective operation of the enrollment program.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Civilian preferred provider networks.</I> A major feature of the TRICARE program is the civilian preferred provider network.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Status of network providers.</I> Providers in the preferred provider network are not employees or agents of the Department of Defense or the United States Government. Although network providers must follow numerous rules and procedures of the TRICARE program, on matters of professional judgment and professional practice, the network provider is independent and not operating under the direction and control of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Utilization management policies.</I> Preferred providers are required to follow the utilization management policies and procedures of the TRICARE program. These policies and procedures are part of discretionary judgments by the Department of Defense regarding the methods of delivering and financing health care services that will best achieve health and economic policy objectives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quality assurance requirements.</I> A number of quality assurance requirements and procedures are applicable to preferred network providers. These are for the purpose of assuring that the health care services paid for with government funds meet the standards called for in the contract and provider agreement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provider qualifications.</I> All preferred providers must meet the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(i) They must be TRICARE-authorized providers and TRICARE- participating providers. In addition, a network provider may not require payment from the beneficiary for any excluded or excludable services that the beneficiary received from the network provider (<I>i.e.,</I> the beneficiary will be held harmless) except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the beneficiary did not inform the provider that he or she was a TRICARE beneficiary, the provider may bill the beneficiary for services provided.
</P>
<P>(B) If the beneficiary was informed in writing that the specific services were excluded or excludable from TRICARE coverage and the beneficiary agreed in writing, in advance of the services being provided, to pay for the services, the provider may bill the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) All physicians in the preferred provider network must have staff privileges in a hospital accredited by The Joint Commission (TJC) or other accrediting body determined by the Director. This requirement may be waived in any case in which a physician's practice does not include the need for admitting privileges in such a hospital, or in locations where no accredited facility exists. However, in any case in which the requirement is waived, the physician must comply with alternative qualification standards as are established by the Director.
</P>
<P>(iii) All preferred providers must agree to follow all quality assurance, utilization management, and patient referral procedures established pursuant to this section, to make available to designated DoD utilization management or quality monitoring contractors medical records and other pertinent records, and to authorize the release of information to MTF Commanders regarding such quality assurance and utilization management activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) All preferred network providers must be Medicare participating providers, unless this requirement is waived based on extraordinary circumstances. This requirement that a provider be a Medicare participating provider does not apply to providers who not eligible to be participating providers under Medicare.
</P>
<P>(v) The network provider must be available to all TRICARE beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(vi) The provider must agree to accept the same payment rates negotiated for Prime enrollees for any person whose care is reimbursable by the Department of Defense, including, for example, Select participants, supplemental care cases, and beneficiaries from outside the area.
</P>
<P>(vii) All preferred providers must meet all other qualification requirements, and agree to comply with all other rules and procedures established for the preferred provider network.
</P>
<P>(viii) In locations where TRICARE Prime is not available, a TRICARE provider network will, to the extent practicable, be available for TRICARE Select enrollees. In these locations, the minimal requirements for network participation are those set forth in paragraph (p)(4)(i) of this section. Other requirements of this paragraph (p) will apply unless waived by the Director.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Access standards.</I> Preferred provider networks will have attributes of size, composition, mix of providers and geographical distribution so that the networks, coupled with the MTF capabilities (when applicable), can adequately address the health care needs of the enrollees. In the event that a Prime enrollee seeks to obtain from the managed care support contractor an appointment for care but is not offered an appointment within the access time standards from a network provider, the enrollee will be authorized to receive care from a non-network provider without incurring the additional fees associated with point-of-service care. The following are the access standards:
</P>
<P>(i) Under normal circumstances, enrollee travel time may not exceed 30 minutes from home to primary care delivery site unless a longer time is necessary because of the absence of providers (including providers not part of the network) in the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The wait time for an appointment for a well-patient visit or a specialty care referral shall not exceed four weeks; for a routine visit, the wait time for an appointment shall not exceed one week; and for an urgent care visit the wait time for an appointment shall generally not exceed 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency services shall be available and accessible to handle emergencies (and urgent care visits if not available from other primary care providers pursuant to paragraph (p)(5)(ii) of this section), within the service area 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
</P>
<P>(iv) The network shall include a sufficient number and mix of board certified specialists to meet reasonably the anticipated needs of enrollees. Travel time for specialty care shall not exceed one hour under normal circumstances, unless a longer time is necessary because of the absence of providers (including providers not part of the network) in the area. This requirement does not apply under the Specialized Treatment Services Program.
</P>
<P>(v) Office waiting times in nonemergency circumstances shall not exceed 30 minutes, except when emergency care is being provided to patients, and the normal schedule is disrupted.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Special reimbursement methods for network providers.</I> The Director, may establish, for preferred provider networks, reimbursement rates and methods different from those established pursuant to § 199.14. Such provisions may be expressed in terms of percentage discounts off CHAMPUS allowable amounts, or in other terms. In circumstances in which payments are based on hospital-specific rates (or other rates specific to particular institutional providers), special reimbursement methods may permit payments based on discounts off national or regional prevailing payment levels, even if higher than particular institution-specific payment rates.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Preferred provider network establishment.</I> (1) The any qualified provider method may be used to establish a civilian preferred provider network. Under this method, any TRICARE-authorized provider that meets the qualification standards established by the Director, or designee, may become a part of the preferred provider network. Such standards must be publicly announced and uniformly applied. Also under this method, any provider who meets all applicable qualification standards may not be excluded from the preferred provider network. Qualifications include:
</P>
<P>(i) The provider must meet all applicable requirements in paragraph (p)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provider must agree to follow all quality assurance and utilization management procedures established pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The provider must be a participating provider under TRICARE for all claims.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provider must meet all other qualification requirements, and agree to all other rules and procedures, that are established, publicly announced, and uniformly applies by the Director (or other authorized official).
</P>
<P>(v) The provider must sign a preferred provider network agreement covering all applicable requirements. Such agreements will be for a duration of one year, are renewable, and may be canceled by the provider or the Director (or other authorized official) upon appropriate notice to the other party. The Director shall establish an agreement model or other guidelines to promote uniformity in the agreements.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the above requirements, the Director, or designee, may establish additional categories of preferred providers of high quality/high value that require additional qualifications.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>General fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest requirements under TRICARE program.</I> All fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest requirements for the basic CHAMPUS program, as set forth in this part (see especially applicable provisions of § 199.9) are applicable to the TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(s) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Inclusion of Department of Veterans Affairs Medical Centers in TRICARE networks.</I> TRICARE preferred provider networks may include Department of Veterans Affairs health facilities pursuant to arrangements, made with the approval of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs), between those centers and the Director, or designated TRICARE contractor.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Care provided outside the United States.</I> The TRICARE program is not automatically implemented in all respects outside the United States. This paragraph (u) sets forth the provisions of this section applicable to care received outside the United States under the following TRICARE health plans.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>TRICARE Prime.</I> The Director may, in conjunction with implementation of the TRICARE program, authorize a special Prime program for command sponsored dependents of active duty members who accompany the members in their assignments in foreign countries. Under this special program, a preferred provider network may be established through contracts or agreements with selected health care providers. Under the network, Prime covered services will be provided to the enrolled covered dependents subject to applicable Prime deductibles, copayments, and point-of-service charges. To the extent practicable, rules and procedures applicable to TRICARE Prime under this section shall apply unless specific exemptions are granted in writing by the Director. The use of this authority by the Director for any particular geographical area will be published on the primary publicly available Internet Web site of the Department and on the publicly available Internet Web site of the managed care support contractor that has established the provider network under the TRICARE program. Published information will include a description of the preferred provider network program and other pertinent information. The Director shall also issue policies, instructions, and guidelines necessary to implement this special program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TRICARE Select.</I> The TRICARE Select option shall be available outside the United States except that a preferred provider network of providers shall only be established in areas where the Director determines that it is economically in the best interest of the Department of Defense. In such a case, the Director shall establish a preferred provider network through contracts or agreements with selected health care providers for eligible beneficiaries to receive covered benefits subject to the enrollment and cost-sharing amounts applicable to the specific category of beneficiary. When an eligible beneficiary, other than a TRICARE for Life beneficiary, receives covered services from an authorized TRICARE non-network provider, including in areas where a preferred provider network has not been established by the Director, the beneficiary shall be subject to cost-sharing amounts applicable to out-of-network care. To the extent practicable, rules and procedures applicable to TRICARE Select under this section shall apply unless specific exemptions are granted in writing by the Director. The use of this authority by the Director to establish a TRICARE preferred provider network for any particular geographical area will be published on the primary publicly available Internet Web site of the Department and on the publicly available Internet Web site of the managed care support contractor that has established the provider network under the TRICARE program. Published information will include a description of the preferred provider network program and other pertinent information. The Director shall also issue policies, instructions, and guidelines necessary to implement this special program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>TRICARE for Life.</I> The TRICARE for Life (TFL) option shall be available outside the United States. Eligible TFL beneficiaries may receive covered services and supplies authorized under § 199.4, subject to the applicable catastrophic cap, deductibles and cost-shares under § 199.4, whether received from a network provider or any authorized TRICARE provider not in a preferred provider network. However, if a TFL beneficiary receives covered services from a PPN provider, the beneficiary's out-of-pocket costs will generally be lower.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Administration of the TRICARE program in the state of Alaska.</I> In view of the unique geographical and environmental characteristics impacting the delivery of health care in the state of Alaska, administration of the TRICARE program in the state of Alaska will not include financial underwriting of the delivery of health care by a TRICARE contractor. All other provisions of this section shall apply to administration of the TRICARE program in the state of Alaska as they apply to the other 49 states and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Administrative procedures.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs), the Director, and MTF Commanders (or other authorized officials) are authorized to establish administrative requirements and procedures, consistent with this section, this part, and other applicable DoD Directives or Instructions, for the implementation and operation of the TRICARE program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 45448, Sept. 29, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 4333, Feb. 15, 2019; 85 FR 27927, May 12, 2020; 87 FR 33014, June 1, 2022; 87 FR 46886, Aug. 1, 2022; 89 FR 45767, May 24, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.20" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.20   Continued Health Care Benefit Program (CHCBP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The CHCBP is a premium-based temporary health care coverage program, authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1078a, and available to individuals who meet the eligibility and enrollment criteria as set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The CHCBP is not part of the TRICARE program. However, as set forth in this section, it functions under similar rules and procedures to the TRICARE Select program. Because the purpose of the CHCBP is to provide a continuation health care benefit for Department of Defense and the other uniformed services beneficiaries losing eligibility, it will be administered so that it appears, to the maximum extent practicable, to be part of the TRICARE Select program. Medical coverage under this program will be the same as the benefits payable under the TRICARE Select program. There is a cost for enrollment to the CHCBP and these premium costs must be paid by CHCBP enrollees before any care may be cost shared.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General provisions.</I> Except for any provisions the Director of the TRICARE Management Activity may exclude, the general provisions of § 199.1 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> Except as may be specifically provided in this section, to the extent terms defined in § 199.2 are relevant to the administration of the CHCBP, the definitions contained in that section shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to the TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility and enrollment.</I> (1) <I>Eligibility,</I> Enrollment in the CHCBP is open to any individual, except as noted in this section, who:
</P>
<P>(i) Ceases to meet the requirements for eligibility under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Who on the day before they cease to meet the eligibility requirements for such care they were covered under a health benefit plan under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or transitional healthcare under 10 U.S.C. 1145, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Who would otherwise not be eligible for any benefits under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145 except for CHCBP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following individuals are not eligible to enroll in CHCBP:
</P>
<P>(i) Members of uniformed services, who are discharged or released from active duty either voluntarily or involuntarily under conditions that are adverse.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who lost their eligibility or entitlement to care under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145 before October 1, 1994.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals who are locked out of other TRICARE programs per that program's requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Eligibility in the CHCBP is limited to individuals who lost their entitlement to benefits under the MHS on or after October 1, 1994. The effective date of their coverage under CHCBP shall begin on the day after they cease to be eligible for care under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notification of eligibility.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The Department of Defense and the other uniformed services (National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Public Health Service (PHS), and Coast Guard) will notify persons in the uniformed services eligible to receive health benefits under the CHCBP. In the case of a member who becomes (or will become) eligible for continued coverage, the Department of Defense shall notify the member of their rights for coverage as part of pre-separation counseling conducted under 10 U.S.C. 1142.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a dependent of a member or former member who become eligible for continued coverage under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The member or former member may submit to the CHCBP contractor a notice with supporting documentation of the dependent's change in status (including the dependent's name, address, and such other information needed); and
</P>
<P>(B) The CHCBP contractor, within fourteen (14) days after receiving such information, will inform the dependent of the dependent's rights under 10 U.S.C. 1142.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a former spouse of a member or former member who becomes eligible for continued coverage, the member, former member or former spouse may submit to the CHCBP contractor a notice of the former spouse's change in status. The CHCBP contractor within fourteen (14) days after receiving such information will notify the individual of their potential eligibility for CHCBP.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Election of coverage.</I> In order to obtain coverage under the CHCBP, a written election by the eligible beneficiary must be made within a prescribed time period.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a member discharged or released from active duty or full-time National Guard duty (whether voluntarily or involuntarily), or a RC member formerly eligible for care under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, the written election shall be submitted to the CHCBP contractor before the end of the 60-day period beginning on the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the discharge or release of the member; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date that the period of transitional health care applicable to the member under 10 U.S.C. 1145(a) ends; or
</P>
<P>(C) The date the member receives the notification required in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a child who ceases to meet the requirements for being an unremarried dependent child of a member or former member under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(D) or an unmarried dependent of a member or former member of the uniformed services under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(I), the written election shall be submitted to the CHCBP contractor before the end of the 60-day period beginning on the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that the dependent ceases to meet the definition of a dependent under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(D) or 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(I); or
</P>
<P>(B) The date that the dependent receives the notification required in paragraph (d)(3) of this section,
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of former spouse of a member or former member, the written election shall be submitted to the CHCBP contractor before the end of the 60-day period beginning on the date as of which the former spouse first ceases to meet the requirements for being considered a dependent under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2).
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of an unmarried surviving spouse of a member or former member of the uniformed services who on the day before the death of the member or former member was covered under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145(a), the written election shall be submitted to the CHCBP contractor within 60 days of the date of the member or former member's death.
</P>
<P>(v) A member of the uniformed services who is eligible for enrollment under paragraph (d)(1) of this section may elect self-only or family coverage. Family members who may be included in such family coverage are the spouse and children of the member.
</P>
<P>(vi) All other categories eligible for enrollment under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must elect self-only coverage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Enrollment.</I> To enroll in the CHCBP, an eligible individual must submit the completed enrollment form designated by the Director, TRICARE as well as any documentation as requested on the enrollment form to verify the applicant's eligibility for enrolling in CHCBP, and payment to cover the quarter's premium. The CHCBP contractor may request additional information and documentation to confirm the applicant's eligibility for CHCBP.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Period of coverage.</I> Except as noted below CHCBP coverage may not extend beyond 18 months from the date the individual becomes eligible for CHCBP. Although beneficiaries have sixty (60) days to elect coverage under the CHCBP, upon enrolling, the period of coverage must begin the day after entitlement or eligibility to a military health care plan ends as though no break in coverage had occurred notwithstanding the date the enrollment form with any applicable premium is submitted.
</P>
<P>(i) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a child of a member or former member, the date which is 36 months after the date on which the person first ceases to meet the requirements for being considered an unmarried dependent child under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(D) or 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(I).
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of an unremarried former spouse (as this term is defined in 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(G) or (H)) of a member or former member, the date which is 36 months after the later of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date on which the final decree of divorce, dissolution, or annulment occurs; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If applicable, the date the one-year extension of dependency under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(H) expires.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of an unremarried surviving spouse (widow or widower) (under 10 U.S.C. 1072(2)(B) or (C)) of a member or former member of the uniformed services who is not otherwise eligible for care under 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, the date which is 36 months after the date the surviving spouse becomes ineligible under 10 U.S.C chapter 55 or 10 U.S.C. 1145(a).
</P>
<P>(D) In the case of a former spouse of a member or former member (other than the former spouse whose marriage was dissolved after the separation of the member from the service unless such separation was by retirement), the period of coverage under the CHCBP is unlimited, if former spouse:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has not remarried before age of 55 after the marriage to the member or former member was dissolved; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Was eligible for TRICARE as a dependent or enrolled in CHCBP at any time during the 18 month period before the date of the divorce, dissolution, or annulment; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is receiving a portion of the retired or retainer pay of a member or former member or an annuity based on the retainer pay of the member; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Has a court order for payment of any portion of the retired or retainer pay or has a written agreement (whether voluntary or pursuant to a court order) which provides for an election by the member or former member to provide an annuity to the former spouse.
</P>
<P>(E) For the beneficiary who becomes eligible for the CHCBP by ceasing to meet the requirements for being considered an unmarried dependent child of a member or former member, health care coverage may not extend beyond the date which is 36 months after the date the member becomes ineligible for medical and dental care under 10 U.S.C. 1074(a) and any transitional health care under 10 U.S.C. 1145(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CHCBP benefits</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the provisions of § 199.4 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select under § 199.17.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of § 199.4 are not applicable to the CHCBP:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 199.4(a)(2) concerning eligibility.
</P>
<P>(ii) All provisions regarding requirements to use facilities of the uniformed services because CHCBP enrollees are not eligible to use those facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beneficiary liability.</I> For purposes of CHCBP coverage, the beneficiary deductible, catastrophic cap and cost share provisions of the TRICARE Select plan applicable to Group B beneficiaries under § 199.17(l)(2)(ii) shall apply based on the category of beneficiary (<I>e.g.,</I> Active Duty Family Member or Retiree Family) to which the CHCBP enrollee last belonged, except that for separating active duty members, amounts applicable to TRICARE Select Active Duty Family Members shall apply. The premium under paragraph (q) of this section applies instead of any TRICARE Select plan enrollment fee under § 199.17.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authorized providers.</I> The provisions of § 199.6 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claims submission, review, and payment.</I> The provisions of § 199.7 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program except no provisions regarding nonavailability statements shall apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Double coverage.</I> The provisions of § 199.8 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Administrative remedies for fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest.</I> The provisions of § 199.9 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Appeal and hearing procedures.</I> The provisions of § 199.10 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Overpayments recovery.</I> The provisions of § 199.11 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Third party recoveries.</I> The provisions of § 199.12 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Provider reimbursement methods.</I> The provisions of § 199.14 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Quality and Utilization Review Peer Review Organization Program.</I> The provisions of § 199.15 shall apply to the CHCBP as they do to TRICARE Select program.
</P>
<P>(o) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Special programs not applicable</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Special programs established under this part that are not part of the TRICARE Select program are not, unless specifically provided in this section, available to participants in the CHCBP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> The special programs referred to in paragraph (p)(1) of this section include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The Extended Care Health Option under § 199.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) The TRICARE Dental Program or Retiree Dental Program under § 199.13 and 199.22 respectively;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Supplemental Health Care Program under § 199.16; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The TRICARE Prime Program under § 199.17.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Premiums</I>—(1) <I>Rates.</I> Premium rates will be established by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) for two rate groups—individual and family. Eligible beneficiaries will select the level of coverage they require at the time of initial enrollment (either individual or family) and pay the appropriate premium payment. The rates are based on Federal Employees Health Benefits Program employee and agency contributions required for a comparable health benefits plan, plus an administrative fee. The administrative fee, not to exceed ten percent of the basic premium amount, shall be determined based on actual expected administrative costs for administration of the program. Premiums may be revised annually and shall be published when the premium amount is changed. Premiums will be paid by enrollees quarterly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effects of failure to make premium payments.</I> Failure by enrollees to submit timely and proper premium payments will result in denial of continued enrollment and denial of payment of medical claims. Premium payments that are late thirty (30) days or more past the start of the quarter for which payment is due will result in the termination of beneficiary enrollment. Beneficiaries denied continued enrollment due to lack of premium payments will not be allowed to reenroll. In such a case, benefit coverage will cease at the end of the ninety (90) day period for which a premium payment was received. Enrollees will be held liable for medical costs incurred after losing eligibility.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Procedures.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, may establish other rules and procedures for the administration of the CHCBP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 57639, Sept. 16, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 45457, Sept. 29, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.21" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.21   TRICARE Pharmacy Benefits Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) General—(1) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Title 10, U.S. Code, Section 1074g requires that the Department of Defense establish an effective, efficient, integrated pharmacy benefits program for the Military Health System. This law is independent of a number of sections of Title 10 and other laws that affect the benefits, rules, and procedures of TRICARE, resulting in changes to the rules otherwise applicable to TRICARE Prime, Standard, and Extra.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pharmacy benefits program.</I> (i) <I>Applicability.</I> The pharmacy benefits program, which includes the uniform formulary and its associated tiered co-payment structure, is applicable to all of the uniformed services. Geographically, except as specifically provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, this program is applicable to all 50 states and the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. In addition, if authorized by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA)), the TRICARE pharmacy benefits program may be implemented in areas outside the 50 states and the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. In such case, the ASD (HA) may also authorize modifications to the pharmacy benefits program rules and procedures as may be appropriate to the area involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicability exception.</I> The pharmaceutical benefit under the TRICARE smoking cessation program under § 199.4(e)(30) is available to TRICARE beneficiaries who are not entitled to Medicare benefits authorized under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act. Except as noted in § 199.4(e)(30), the smoking cessation program, including the pharmaceutical benefit, is not applicable or available to beneficiaries who reside overseas, including the U. S. territories of Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands, except that under the authority of § 199.17 active duty service members and active duty dependents enrolled in TRICARE Prime residing overseas, including the U. S. territories of Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands, shall have access to smoking cessation pharmaceuticals through either an MTF or the TMOP program where available.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uniform formulary.</I> The pharmacy benefits program features a uniform formulary of pharmaceutical agents as defined in § 199.2.
</P>
<P>(i) The uniform formulary will assure the availability of pharmaceutical agents in the complete range of therapeutic classes authorized as basic program benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) As required by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(2) and implemented under the procedures established by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, pharmaceutical agents in each therapeutic class are selected for inclusion on the uniform formulary based upon the relative clinical effectiveness and cost effectiveness of the agents in such class. If a pharmaceutical agent in a therapeutic class is determined by the Department of Defense Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee not to have a significant, clinically meaningful therapeutic advantage in terms of safety, effectiveness, or clinical outcome over other pharmaceutical agents included on the uniform formulary, the Committee may recommend it be classified as a non-formulary agent. In addition, if the evaluation by the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee concludes that a pharmaceutical agent in a therapeutic class is not cost effective relative to other pharmaceutical agents in that therapeutic class, considering costs, safety, effectiveness, and clinical outcomes, the Committee may recommend it be classified as a non-formulary agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pharmaceutical agents which are used exclusively in medical treatments or procedures that are expressly excluded from the TRICARE benefit by statute or regulation will not be considered for inclusion on the uniform formulary. Excluded pharmaceutical agents shall not be available as non-formulary agents, nor will they be cost-shared under the TRICARE pharmacy benefits program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For most definitions applicable to the provisions of this section, refer to § 199.2. The following definitions apply only to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Clinically necessary.</I> Also referred to as clinical necessity. Sufficient evidence submitted by a beneficiary or provider on behalf of the beneficiary that establishes that one or more of the following conditions exist: The use of formulary pharmaceutical agents is contraindicated; the patient experiences significant adverse effects from formulary pharmaceutical agents in the therapeutic class, or is likely to experience significant adverse effects from formulary pharmaceutical agents in the therapeutic class; formulary pharmaceutical agents result in therapeutic failure, or the formulary pharmaceutical agent is likely to result in therapeutic failure; the patient previously responded to a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent and changing to a formulary pharmaceutical agent would incur an unacceptable clinical risk; or there is no alternative pharmaceutical agent on the formulary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Therapeutic class.</I> A group of pharmaceutical agents that are similar in chemical structure, pharmacological effect, and/or clinical use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Over-the-counter drug.</I> A drug that is not subject to section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department of Defense Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The Department of Defense Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is established by 10 U.S.C. 1074g to assure that the selection of pharmaceutical agents for the uniform formulary is based on broadly representative professional expertise concerning relative clinical and cost effectiveness of pharmaceutical agents and accomplishes an effective, efficient, integrated pharmacy benefits program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composition.</I> As required by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(b), the committee includes representatives of pharmacies of the uniformed services facilities and representatives of providers in facilities of the uniformed services. Committee members will have expertise in treating the medical needs of the populations served through such entities and in the range of pharmaceutical and biological medicines available for treating such populations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Executive Council.</I> The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee may have an Executive Council, composed of those voting and non-voting members of the Committee who are military or civilian employees of the Department of Defense. The function of the Executive Council is to review and analyze issues relating to the operation of the uniform formulary, including issues of an inherently governmental nature, procurement sensitive information, and matters affecting military readiness. The Executive Council presents information to the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, but is not authorized to act for the Committee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uniform Formulary Beneficiary Advisory Panel.</I> As required by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(c), a Uniform Formulary Beneficiary Advisory Panel reviews and comments on the development of the uniform formulary. The Panel includes members that represent non-governmental organizations and associations that represent the views and interests of a large number of eligible covered beneficiaries, contractors responsible for the TRICARE retail pharmacy program, contractors responsible for the TRICARE mail-order pharmacy program, and TRICARE network providers. The panel will meet after each Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee quarterly meeting. The Panel's comments will be submitted to the Director, TRICARE Management Activity. The Director will consider the comments before implementing the uniform formulary or any recommendations for change made by the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee. The Panel will function in accordance with the Federated Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determinations regarding relative clinical and cost effectiveness for the selection of pharmaceutical agents for the uniform formulary</I>—(1) <I>Clinical effectiveness.</I> (i) It is presumed that pharmaceutical agents in a therapeutic class are clinically effective and should be included on the uniform formulary unless the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee finds by a majority vote that a pharmaceutical agent does not have a significant, clinically meaningful therapeutic advantage in terms of safety, effectiveness, or clinical outcome over the other pharmaceutical agents included on the uniform formulary in that therapeutic class. This determination is based on the collective professional judgment of the DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and consideration of pertinent information from a variety of sources determined by the Committee to be relevant and reliable. The DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee has discretion based on its collective professional judgment in determining what sources should be reviewed or relied upon in evaluating the clinical effectiveness of a pharmaceutical agent in a therapeutic class.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sources of information may include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical and pharmaceutical textbooks and reference books;
</P>
<P>(B) Clinical literature;
</P>
<P>(C) U.S. Food and Drug Administration determinations and information;
</P>
<P>(D) Information from pharmaceutical companies;
</P>
<P>(E) Clinical practice guidelines, and
</P>
<P>(F) Expert opinion.
</P>
<P>(iii) The DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee will evaluate the relative clinical effectiveness of pharmaceutical agents within a therapeutic class by considering information about their safety, effectiveness, and clinical outcome.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information considered by the Committee may include but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved and other studied indications;
</P>
<P>(B) Pharmacology;
</P>
<P>(C) Pharmacokinetics;
</P>
<P>(D) Contraindications; 
</P>
<P>(E) Warnings/precautions;
</P>
<P>(F) Incidence and severity of adverse effects;
</P>
<P>(G) Drug to drug, drug to food, and drug to disease interactions;
</P>
<P>(H) Availability, dosing, and method of administration;
</P>
<P>(I) Epidemiology and relevant risk factors for diseases/conditions in which the pharmaceutical agents are used;
</P>
<P>(J) Concomitant therapies;
</P>
<P>(K) Results of safety and efficacy studies;
</P>
<P>(L) Results of effectiveness/clinical outcomes studies, and
</P>
<P>(M) Results of meta-analyses.
</P>
<P>(2) Cost effectiveness. (i) In considering the relative cost effectiveness of pharmaceutical agents in a therapeutic class, the DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee shall evaluate the costs of the agents in relation to the safety, effectiveness, and clinical outcomes of the other agents in the class.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information considered by the Committee concerning the relative cost effectiveness of pharmaceutical agents may include but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Cost of the pharmaceutical agent to the Government;
</P>
<P>(B) Impact on overall medical resource utilization and costs;
</P>
<P>(C) Cost-efficacy studies;
</P>
<P>(D) Cost-effectiveness studies;
</P>
<P>(E) Cross-sectional or retrospective economic evaluations;
</P>
<P>(F) Pharmacoeconomic models;
</P>
<P>(G) Patent expiration dates;
</P>
<P>(H) Clinical practice guideline recommendations, and
</P>
<P>(I) Existence of existing or proposed blanket purchase agreements, incentive price agreements, or contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rules for best clinical effectiveness.</I> (i) Under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(10), the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee may recommend and the Director may, after considering the comments and recommendations of the Beneficiary Advisory Panel, approve special uniform formulary actions to encourage use of pharmaceutical agents that provide the best clinical effectiveness to covered beneficiaries and DoD, including consideration of better care, healthier people, and smarter spending. Such special actions may operate as exceptions to the normal rules and procedures under 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(2), (5) and (6) and the related provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Actions under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section may include a complete or partial exclusion from the pharmacy benefits program of any pharmaceutical agent the Director determines provides very little or no clinical effectiveness relative to similar agents to covered beneficiaries and DoD. A partial exclusion under this paragraph may take the form (as one example) of a limitation on the clinical conditions, diagnoses, or indications for which the pharmaceutical agent may be prescribed. A partial exclusion may be implemented through any means recommended by the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, including but not limited to preauthorization under paragraph (k) of this section. In the case of a partial exclusion, a pharmaceutical agent may be available on the non-formulary tier of the uniform formulary for limited purposes and for other purposes be excluded.
</P>
<P>(iii) Actions under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section may also include giving preferential status to any non-generic pharmaceutical agent of the uniform formulary by treating it for purposes of cost-sharing as a generic product.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Evaluation of pharmaceutical agents for determinations regarding inclusion on the uniform formulary.</I> The DoD Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee will periodically evaluate or re-evaluate individual pharmaceutical agents and therapeutic classes of pharmaceutical agents for determinations regarding inclusion or continuation on the uniform formulary. Such evaluation or re-evaluation may be prompted by a variety of circumstances including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Approval of a new pharmaceutical agent by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration;
</P>
<P>(2) Approval of a new indication for an existing pharmaceutical agent;
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in the clinical use of existing pharmaceutical agents;
</P>
<P>(4) New information concerning the safety, effectiveness or clinical outcomes of existing pharmaceutical agents;
</P>
<P>(5) Price changes;
</P>
<P>(6) Shifts in market share;
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduled review of a therapeutic class; and
</P>
<P>(8) Requests from Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee members, military treatment facilities, or other Military Health System officials.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Administrative procedures for establishing and maintaining the uniform formulary</I>—(1) <I>Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee determinations.</I> Determinations of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee are by majority vote and recorded in minutes of Committee meetings. The minutes set forth the determinations of the committee regarding the pharmaceutical agents selected for inclusion in the uniform formulary and summarize the reasons for those determinations. For any pharmaceutical agent (including maintenance medications) for which a recommendation is made that the status of the agent be changed from the formulary tier to the non-formulary tier of the uniform formulary, or that the agent requires a pre-authorization, the Committee shall also make a recommendation as to effective date of such change that will not be longer than 180 days from the final decision date but may be less. The minutes will include a record of the number of members voting for and against the Committee's action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficiary Advisory Panel.</I> Comments and recommendations of the Beneficiary Advisory Panel are recorded in minutes of Panel meetings. The minutes set forth the comments and recommendations of the Panel and summarize the reasons for those comments and recommendations. The minutes will include a record of the number of members voting for or against the Panel's comments and recommendations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uniform formulary final decisions.</I> The Director of the TRICARE Management Activity makes the final DoD decisions regarding the uniform formulary. Those decisions are based on the Director's review of the final determinations of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and the comments and recommendations of the Beneficiary Advisory Panel. No pharmaceutical agent may be designated as non-formulary on the uniform formulary unless it is preceded by such recommendation by the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee. The decisions of the Director of the TRICARE Management Activity are in writing and establish the effective date(s) of the uniform formulary actions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transition to the Uniform Formulary.</I> Beginning in Fiscal Year 2005, under an updated charter for the DoD P&amp;T Committee, the committee shall meet at least quarterly to review therapeutic classes of pharmaceutical agents and make recommendations concerning which pharmaceutical agents should be on the Uniform Formulary, the Basic Care Formulary (BCF), and Extended Core Formulary (ECF). The P&amp;T Committee will review the classes in a methodical, but expeditious manner. During the transition period from the previous methodology of formulary management involving only the MTFs and the TMOP Program, previous decisions by the predecessor DoD P&amp;T Committee concerning MTF and Mail Order Pharmacy Program formularies shall continue in effect. As therapeutic classes are reviewed under the new formulary management process, the processes established by this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative procedure for newly approved drugs.</I> In the case of a newly approved innovator drug, other than a generic drug, the innovator drug will, not later than 120 days after the date of approval by the Food and Drug Administration, be added to the uniform formulary unless prior to that date the P&amp;T Committee has recommended that the agent be listed as a non-formulary drug. If the Director, DHA subsequently approves that recommendation, the drug will be so listed. If the Director, DHA disapproves the recommendation to list the drug as non-formulary Third Tier, the drug will be then classified per the Director's decision. If, prior to the expiration of 120 days, the P&amp;T Committee recommends that the agent be added to the uniform formulary and the recommendation is approved by the Director, DHA, that will be done as soon as feasible. Pending action under this paragraph (g)(5), the newly approved pharmaceutical agent will be considered to be in a classification pending status and will be available to beneficiaries under Third Tier terms applicable to all other non-formulary agents.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Obtaining pharmacy services under the retail network pharmacy benefits program. </I>—(1) <I>Points of service.</I> There are four outpatient pharmacy points of service:
</P>
<P>(i) Military Treatment Facilities (MTFs);
</P>
<P>(ii) Retail network pharmacies: Those are non-MTF pharmacies that are a part of the network established for TRICARE retail pharmacy services;
</P>
<P>(iii) Retail non-network pharmacies: Those are non-MTF pharmacies that are not part of the network established for TRICARE retail pharmacy services, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) the TRICARE Mail Order Pharmacy (TMOP).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of formulary pharmaceutical agents</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Subject to paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) and (h)(2)(iii) of this section, formulary pharmaceutical agents are available under the Pharmacy Benefits Program from all points of service identified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability of formulary pharmaceutical agents at military treatment facilities (MTF).</I> Pharmaceutical agents included on the uniform formulary are available through facilities of uniformed services, consistent with the scope of health care services offered in such facilities and additional determinations by the P&amp;T Committee of the relative clinical effectiveness and cost effectiveness, based on costs to the Program associated with providing the agents to beneficiaries. The BCF is a subset of the uniform formulary and is a mandatory component of formularies at all full-service MTF pharmacies. The BCF contains the minimum set of pharmaceutical agents that each full-service MTF pharmacy must have on its formulary to support the primary care scope of practice for Primary Care Manager enrollment sites. Limited-service MTF pharmacies (e.g., specialty pharmacies within an MTF or pharmacies servicing only active duty military members) are not required to include the entire BCF on their formularies, but may limit their formularies to those BCF agents appropriate to the needs of the patients they serve. An ECF may list preferred agents in drug classes other than those covered by the BCF. Among BCF and ECF agents, individual MTF formularies are determined by local P&amp;T Committees based on the scope of health care services provided at the respective MTFs. All pharmaceutical agents on the local formulary of full-service MTF pharmacies must be available to all categories of beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pharmaceutical agents prescribed for smoking cessation are not available for coverage when obtained through a retail pharmacy. This includes network and non-network retail pharmacies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability of non-formulary pharmaceutical agents</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Non-formulary pharmaceutical agents are generally not available in military treatment facilities or in the retail point of service. They are available in the mail order program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability of non-formulary pharmaceutical agents at military treatment facilities.</I> Even when particular non-formulary agents are not generally available at military treatment facilities, they will be made available to eligible covered beneficiaries through the non-formulary special approval process as noted in this paragraph (h)(3)(ii) when there is a valid medical necessity for use of the non-formulary pharmaceutical agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Availability of clinically appropriate non-formulary pharmaceutical agents to members of the Uniformed Services.</I> The pharmacy benefits program is required to assure the availability of clinically appropriate pharmaceutical agents to members of the uniformed services, including, where appropriate, agents not included on the uniform formulary. Clinically appropriate pharmaceutical agents will be made available to members of the Uniformed Services, including, where medical necessity has been validated, agents not included on the uniform formulary. MTFs shall establish procedures to evaluate the clinical necessity of prescriptions written for members of the uniformed services for pharmaceutical agents not included on the uniform formulary. If it is determined that the prescription is clinically necessary, the MTF will provide the pharmaceutical agent to the member.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Availability of clinically appropriate pharmaceutical agents to other eligible beneficiaries at retail pharmacies or the TMOP.</I> Eligible beneficiaries will receive non-formulary pharmaceutical agents at the formulary cost-share when medical necessity has been established by the beneficiary and/or his/her provider. The peer review provisions of § 199.15 shall apply to the clinical necessity pre-authorization determinations. TRICARE may require that the time for review be expedited under the pharmacy benefits program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability of vaccines/immunizations.</I> This paragraph (h)(4) applies to the following three immunizations: H1N1 vaccine, seasonal influenza vaccine, and pneumococcal vaccine. A retail network pharmacy may be an authorized provider under the Pharmacy Benefits Program when functioning within the scope of its state laws to provide authorized vaccines/immunizations to an eligible beneficiary. The Pharmacy Benefits Program will cover the vaccine and its administration by the retail network pharmacy, including administration by pharmacists who meet the applicable requirements of state law to administer the vaccine. A TRICARE authorized vaccine/immunization includes vaccines/immunizations authorized as preventive care under the basic program benefits of § 199.4 of this Part, as well as such care authorized for Prime enrollees under the uniform HMO benefit of section 199.18. For Prime enrollees under the uniform HMO benefit, a referral is not required under paragraph (n)(2) of § 199.18 for preventive care vaccines/immunizations received from a retail network pharmacy that is a TRICARE authorized provider. Any additional policies, instructions, procedures, and guidelines appropriate for implementation of this benefit may be issued by the TMA Director, or designee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Availability of selected over-the-counter (OTC) drugs under the pharmacy benefits program.</I> Although the pharmacy benefits program generally covers only prescription drugs, in some cases over-the-counter drugs may be covered and may be placed on the uniform formulary.
</P>
<P>(i) An OTC drug may be included on the uniform formulary upon the recommendation of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and approval of the Director, DHA, based on a finding that it is cost-effective and clinically effective, as compared with other drugs in the same therapeutic class of pharmaceutical agents. Clinical need is judged by the criteria found in paragraph (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. Cost effectiveness is determined based on criteria found in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) OTC drugs placed on the uniform formulary, in general, will be treated the same as generic drugs on the uniform formulary for purposes of availability in MTF pharmacies, retail pharmacies, and the mail order pharmacy program and other requirements. However, upon the recommendation of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and approval of the Director, DHA, the requirement for a prescription may be waived for a particular OTC drug for certain emergency care treatment situations. In addition, a special copayment may be established under paragraph (i)(2)(xii) of this section for OTC drugs specifically used in certain emergency care treatment situations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cost-sharing requirements under the pharmacy benefits program</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(6), cost-sharing requirements are established in this section for the pharmacy benefits program independent of those established under other provisions of this Part. Cost-shares under this section partially defray government costs of administering the pharmacy benefits program when collected by the government for prescriptions dispensed through the retail network pharmacies or the TRICARE Mail Order Pharmacy. The higher cost-share paid for prescriptions dispensed by a non-network retail pharmacy is established to encourage the use of the most economical venue to the government. Cost-sharing requirements are based on the classification of a pharmaceutical agent as generic, formulary, or non-formulary, in conjunction with the point of service from which the agent is acquired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost-sharing amounts.</I> Active duty members of the uniformed services do not pay cost-shares or annual deductibles. For other categories of beneficiaries, after applicable annual deductibles are met, cost-sharing amounts prior to October 1, 2016, are set forth in this paragraph (i)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) For pharmaceutical agents obtained from a military treatment facility, there is no cost-sharing or annual deductible.
</P>
<P>(ii) For pharmaceutical agents obtained from a retail network pharmacy, the cost share will be as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(6), except that there is a $0 cost-share for vaccines/immunizations authorized as preventive care for eligible beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) For formulary and generic pharmaceutical agents obtained from a retail non-network pharmacy, except as provided in paragraph (i)(2)(vi) of this section, there is a 20 percent or $20.00 cost-share (whichever is greater) per prescription for up to a 30-day supply of the pharmaceutical agent.
</P>
<P>(iv) For pharmaceutical agents obtained under the TRICARE mail order program, the cost share will be as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1074g(a)(6), except that there is a $0 cost-share for smoking cessation pharmaceutical agents covered under the smoking cessation program.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) For TRICARE Prime beneficiaries there is no annual deductible applicable for pharmaceutical agents obtained from retail network pharmacies or the TRICARE mail-order program. However, for TRICARE Prime beneficiaries who obtain formulary or generic pharmaceutical agents from retail non-network pharmacies, an enrollment year deductible of $300 per person and $600 per family must be met after which there is a beneficiary cost-share of 50 percent per prescription for up to a 30-day supply of the pharmaceutical agent.
</P>
<P>(vii) For TRICARE Select beneficiaries the annual deductible which must be met before the cost-sharing amounts for pharmaceutical agents in paragraph (i)(2) of this section are applicable is as provided for each category of TRICARE Select enrollee in § 199.17(l)(2).
</P>
<P>(viii) For TRICARE beneficiaries not otherwise qualified to enroll in TRICARE Prime or Select, the annual deductible which must be met before the cost-sharing amounts for pharmaceutical agents in paragraph (i)(2) of this section are applicable is as provided in § 199.4(f).
</P>
<P>(ix) The TRICARE catastrophic cap limits apply to pharmacy benefits program cost-sharing.
</P>
<P>(x) For any year after 2027, the cost-sharing amounts under this paragraph shall be equal to the cost-sharing amounts for the previous year adjusted by an amount, if any, determined by the Director to reflect changes in the costs of pharmaceutical agents and prescription dispensing, rounded to the nearest dollar. These cost changes, if any, will consider costs under the TRICARE pharmacy benefits program calculated separately for each of the following categories based on prescriptions filled in the most recent period for which TRICARE cost data are available, updated to the current year, if necessary, by appropriate industry data:
</P>
<P>(A) Generic drugs in the retail point of service;
</P>
<P>(B) Formulary drugs in the retail point of service;
</P>
<P>(C) Generic drugs in the mail order point of service;
</P>
<P>(D) Formulary drugs in the mail order point of service;
</P>
<P>(E) Non-formulary drugs.
</P>
<P>(xi) For a Medicare-eligible beneficiary, the cost-sharing requirements may not be in excess of the cost-sharing requirements applicable to all other beneficiaries covered by 10 U.S.C. 1086.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Special copayment rule for OTC drugs in the retail pharmacy network.</I> As a general rule, OTC drugs placed on the uniform formulary under paragraph (h)(5) of this section will have copayments equal to those for generic drugs on the uniform formulary. However, upon the recommendation of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and approval of the Director, DHA, the copayment may be established at $0.00 for any particular OTC drug in the retail pharmacy network.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special cost-sharing rule when there is a clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent.</I> (i) When there is a clinical necessity for the use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent that is not otherwise excluded as a covered benefit, the pharmaceutical agent will be provided at the same co-payment as a formulary pharmaceutical agent can be obtained. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent is established when the beneficiary or their provider submits sufficient information to show that one or more of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(A) The use of formualry pharmaceutical agents is contraindicated; 
</P>
<P>(B) The patient experiences significant adverse effects from formulary pharmaceutical agents, or the provider shows that the patient is likely to experience significant adverse effects from formulary pharmaceutical agents;
</P>
<P>(C) Formulary pharmaceutical agents result in therapeutic failure, or the provider shows that the formulary pharmaceutical agent is likely to result in therapeutic failure;
</P>
<P>(D) The patient previously responded to a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent and changing to a formulary pharmaceutical agent would incur unacceptable clinical risk; or
</P>
<P>(E) There is no alternative pharmaceutical agent on the formulary.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information to establish clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent should be provided to TRICARE for prescriptions submitted to a retail network pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information to establish clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent should be provided as part of the claims processes for non-formulary pharmaceutical agents obtained through non-network points of service, claims as a result of other health insurance, or any other situations requiring the submission of a manual claim.
</P>
<P>(v) Information to establish clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent may be provided with the prescription submitted to the TMOP contractor.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information to establish clinical necessity for use of a non-formulary pharmaceutical agent may also be provided at a later date, but no later than sixty days from the dispensing date, as an appeal to reduce the non-formulary co-payment to the same co-payment as a formulary drug.
</P>
<P>(vii) The process of establishing clinical necessity will not unnecessarily delay the dispensing of a prescription. In situations where clinical necessity cannot be determined in a timely manner, the non-formulary pharmaceutical agent will be dispensed at the non-formulary co-payment and a refund provided to the beneficiary should clinical necessity be established.
</P>
<P>(viii) Peer review and appeal and hearing procedures. All levels of peer review, appeals, and grievances established by the Contractor for internal review shall be exhausted prior to forwarding to TRICARE Management Activity for a formal review. Procedures comparable to those established under §§ 199.15 and 199.10 of this part shall apply. If it is determined that the prescription is clinically necessary, the pharmaceutical agent will be provided to the beneficiary at the formulary cost-share. TRICARE may require that the time periods for peer review or for appeal and hearing be expedited under the pharmacy benefits program. For purposes of meeting the amount in dispute requirement of § 199.10(a)(7), the relevant amount is the difference between the cost shares of a formulary versus non-formulary drug. The amount for each of multiple prescriptions involving the same drug to treat the same medical condition and filled within a 12-month period may be combined to meet the required amount in dispute.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Use of generic drugs under the pharmacy benefits program.</I> (1) The designation of a drug as a generic, for the purpose of applying cost-shares at the generic rate, will be determined through the use of standard pharmaceutical references as part of commercial best business practices. Pharmaceutical agents will be designated as generics when listed with an “A” rating in the current Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (Orange Book) published by the Food and Drug Administration, or any successor to such reference. Generics are multisource products that must contain the same active ingredients, are of the same dosage form, route of administration and are identical in strength or concentration.
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacy benefits program generally requires mandatory substitution of generic drugs listed with an “A” rating in the current Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (Orange Book) published by the FDA and generic equivalents of grandfather or Drug Efficacy Study Implementation (DESI) category drugs for brand name drugs. In cases in which there is a clinical justification for a brand name drug in lieu of a generic equivalent, under the standards and procedures of paragraph (h)(3) of this section, the generic substitution policy is waived.
</P>
<P>(3) When a blanket purchase agreement, incentive price agreement, Government contract, or other circumstances results in a brand pharmaceutical agent being the most cost effective agent for purchase by the Government, the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee may also designate that the drug be cost-shared at the generic rate.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon the recommendation of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, a generic drug may be classified as non-formulary if it is less cost effective than non-generic formulary drugs in the same drug class.
</P>
<P>(5) The beneficiary copayment amount for any generic drug prescription may not exceed the total charge for that prescription.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Preauthorization of certain pharmaceutical agents.</I> (1) Selected pharmaceutical agents may be subject to prior authorization or utilization review requirements to assure medical necessity, clinical appropriateness and/or cost effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(2) The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee will assess the need to prior authorize a given agent by considering the relative clinical and cost effectiveness of pharmaceutical agents within a therapeutic class. Pharmaceutical agents that require prior authorization will be identified by a majority vote of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee. The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee will establish the prior authorization criteria for the pharamaceutical agent.
</P>
<P>(3) Prescriptions for pharmaceutical agents for which prior authorization criteria are not met will not be cost-shared under the TRICARE pharmacy benefits program.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, may issue policies, procedures, instructions, guidelines, standards or criteria to implement this paragraph (k).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>TRICARE Senior Pharmacy Program.</I> Section 711 of the Floyd D. Spence National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001 (Public Law 106-398, 114 Stat. 1654A-175) established the TRICARE Senior Pharmacy Program for Medicare eligible beneficiaries effective April 1, 2001. These beneficiaries are required to meet the eligibility criteria as prescribed in § 199.3 of this part. The benefit under the TRICARE Senior Pharmacy Program applies to prescription drugs and medicines provided on or after April 1, 2001.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Effect of other health insurance.</I> The double coverage rules of section 199.8 of this part are applicable to services provided under the pharmacy benefits program. For this purpose, the Medicare prescription drug benefit under Medicare Part D, prescription drug benefits provided under Medicare Part D plans are double coverage plans and such plans will be the primary payer, to the extent described in section 199.8 of this part. Beneficiaries who elect to use these pharmacy benefits shall provide DoD with other health insurance information.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Procedures.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity shall establish procedures for the effective operation of the pharmacy benefits program. Such procedures may include restrictions of the quantity of pharmaceuticals to be included under the benefit, encouragement of the use of generic drugs, implementation of quality assurance and utilization management activities, and other appropriate matters.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> (1) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103, the Department of Defense has determined that in the administration of 10 U.S.C. chapter 55, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including but not limited to the assurance of uniform national health programs for military families and the operation of such programs at the lowest possible cost to the Department of Defense, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (o)(1) of this section, any State or local law relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with TRICARE pharmacy contracts. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to the TRICARE pharmacy contracts. However, the Department of Defense may by contract establish legal obligations on the part of TRICARE contractors to conform with requirements similar or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (o)(1) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health or dental insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of the statutes identified in paragraph (o)(1) of this section. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD pharmacy services contracts, if those taxes, fees or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD pharmacy services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those applicable to the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>General fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest requirements under TRICARE pharmacy benefits program.</I> All fraud, abuse, and conflict of interest requirements for the basic CHAMPUS program, as set forth in this part 199 (see applicable provisions of § 199.9 of this part) are applicable to the TRICARE pharmacy benefits program. Some methods and procedures for implementing and enforcing these requirements may differ from the methods and procedures followed under the basic CHAMPUS program.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Pricing standards for retail pharmacy program</I>—(1) <I>Statutory requirement.</I> (i) As required by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(f), with respect to any prescription filled on or after the date of the enactment of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008, the TRICARE retail pharmacy program shall be treated as an element of the DoD for purposes of the procurement of drugs by Federal agencies under 38 U.S.C. 8126 to the extent necessary to ensure pharmaceuticals paid for by the DoD that are provided by pharmacies under the program to eligible covered beneficiaries under this section are subject to the pricing standards in such section 8126.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under paragraph (q)(1)(i) of this section, all covered drug TRICARE retail pharmacy network prescriptions are subject to Federal Ceiling Prices under 38 U.S.C. 8126.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manufacturer written agreement.</I> (i) A written agreement by a manufacturer to honor the pricing standards required by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(f) and referred to in paragraph (q)(1) of this section for pharmaceuticals provided through retail network pharmacies shall with respect to a particular covered drug be a condition for:
</P>
<P>(A) Inclusion of that drug on the uniform formulary under this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Availability of that drug through retail network pharmacies without preauthorization under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered drug not under an agreement under paragraph (q)(2)(i) of this section requires preauthorization under paragraph (k) of this section to be provided through a retail network pharmacy under the Pharmacy Benefits Program. This preauthorization requirement does not apply to other points of service under the Pharmacy Benefits Program.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (q)(2), a covered drug is a drug that is a covered drug under 38 U.S.C. 8126, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A drug that is not a covered drug under 38 U.S.C. 8126;
</P>
<P>(B) A drug provided under a prescription that is not covered by 10 U.S.C. 1074g(f);
</P>
<P>(C) A drug that is not provided through a retail network pharmacy under this section;
</P>
<P>(D) A drug provided under a prescription which the TRICARE Pharmacy Benefits Program is the second payer under paragraph (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) A drug provided under a prescription and dispensed by a pharmacy under section 340B of the Public Health Service Act; or
</P>
<P>(F) Any other exception for a drug, consistent with law, established by the Director, TMA.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirement of this paragraph (q)(2) may, upon the recommendation of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, be waived by the Director, TMA if necessary to ensure that at least one drug in the drug class is included on the Uniform Formulary. Any such waiver, however, does not waive the statutory requirement referred to in paragraph (q)(1) that all covered TRICARE retail network pharmacy prescriptions are subject to Federal Ceiling Prices under 38 U.S.C. 8126; it only waives the exclusion from the Uniform Formulary of drugs not covered by agreements under this paragraph (q)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refund procedures.</I> (i) Refund procedures to ensure that pharmaceuticals paid for by the DoD that are provided by retail network pharmacies under the pharmacy benefits program are subject to the pricing standards referred to in paragraph (q)(1) of this section shall be established. Such procedures may be established as part of the agreement referred to in paragraph (q)(2), or in a separate agreement, or pursuant to § 199.11.
</P>
<P>(ii) The refund procedures referred to in paragraph (q)(3)(i) of this section shall, to the extent practicable, incorporate common industry practices for implementing pricing agreements between manufacturers and large pharmacy benefit plan sponsors. Such procedures shall provide the manufacturer at least 70 days from the date of the submission of the TRICARE pharmaceutical utilization data needed to calculate the refund before the refund payment is due. The basis of the refund will be the difference between the average non-federal price of the drug sold by the manufacturer to wholesalers, as represented by the most recent annual non-Federal average manufacturing prices (non-FAMP) (reported to the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA)) and the corresponding FCP or, in the discretion of the manufacturer, the difference between the FCP and direct commercial contract sales prices specifically attributable to the reported TRICARE paid pharmaceuticals, determined for each applicable NDC listing. The current annual FCP and the annual non-FAMP from which it was derived will be applicable to all prescriptions filled during the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iii) A refund due under this paragraph (q) is subject to § 199.11 of this part and will be treated as an erroneous payment under that section.
</P>
<P>(A) A manufacturer may under section 199.11 of this part request waiver or compromise of a refund amount due under 10 U.S.C. 1074g(f) and this paragraph (q).
</P>
<P>(B) During the pendency of any request for waiver or compromise under paragraph (q)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, a manufacturer's written agreement under paragraph (q)(2) shall be deemed to exclude the matter that is the subject of the request for waiver or compromise. In such cases the agreement, if otherwise sufficient for the purpose of the condition referred to in paragraph (q)(2), will continue to be sufficient for that purpose. Further, during the pendency of any such request, the matter that is the subject of the request shall not be considered a failure of a manufacturer to honor a requirement or an agreement for purposes of paragraph (q)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) In addition to the criteria established in § 199.11, a request for waiver may also be premised on the voluntary removal by the manufacturer in writing of a drug from coverage in the TRICARE Pharmacy Benefit Program.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of disputes by the manufacturer of the accuracy of TMA's utilization data, a refund obligation as to the amount in dispute will be deferred pending good faith efforts to resolve the dispute in accordance with procedures established by the Director, TMA. If the dispute is not resolved within 60 days, the Director, TMA will issue an initial administrative decision and provide the manufacturer with opportunity to request reconsideration or appeal consistent with procedures under section 199.10 of this part. When the dispute is ultimately resolved, any refund owed relating to the amount in dispute will be subject to an interest charge from the date payment of the amount was initially due, consistent with section 199.11 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Remedies.</I> In the case of the failure of a manufacturer of a covered drug to honor a requirement of this paragraph (q) or to honor an agreement under this paragraph (q), the Director, TMA, in addition to other actions referred to in this paragraph (q), may take any other action authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Beneficiary transition provisions.</I> In cases in which a pharmaceutical is removed from the uniform formulary or designated for preauthorization under paragraph (q)(2) of this section, the Director, TMA may for transitional time periods determined appropriate by the Director or for particular circumstances authorize the continued availability of the pharmaceutical in the retail pharmacy network or in MTF pharmacies for some or all beneficiaries as if the pharmaceutical were still on the uniform formulary.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Refills of maintenance medications for eligible covered beneficiaries through the mail order pharmacy program</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Consistent with section 702 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2015, this paragraph requires that for non-generic covered maintenance medications, beneficiaries are generally required to obtain their prescription through the national mail-order pharmacy program or through military treatment facility pharmacies. For purposes of this paragraph, eligible covered beneficiaries are those defined under sections 1072 and 1086 of title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medications covered.</I> The Director, DHA, will establish, maintain, and periodically revise and update a list of non-generic covered maintenance medications subject to the requirement of paragraph (r)(1) of this section. The current list will be accessible through the TRICARE Pharmacy Program Internet Web site and by telephone through the TRICARE Pharmacy Program Service Center. Each medication included on the list will meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) It will be a medication prescribed for a chronic, long-term condition that is taken on a regular, recurring basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) It will be clinically appropriate to dispense the medication from the mail order pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(iii) It will be cost effective to dispense the medication from the mail order pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(iv) It will be available for an initial filling of a 30-day or less supply through retail pharmacies.
</P>
<P>(v) It will be generally available at military treatment facility pharmacies for initial fill and refills.
</P>
<P>(vi) It will be available for refill through the national mail-order pharmacy program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refills covered.</I> For purposes of the program under paragraph (r)(1) of this section, a refill is:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsequent filling of an original prescription under the same prescription number or other authorization as the original prescription; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A new original prescription issued at or near the end date of an earlier prescription for the same medication for the same patient.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waiver of requirement.</I> A waiver of the general requirement to obtain maintenance medication prescription refills from the mail order pharmacy or military treatment facility pharmacy will be granted in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) There is a blanket waiver for prescription medications that are for acute care needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) There is a blanket waiver for prescriptions covered by other health insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is a case-by-case waiver to permit prescription maintenance medication refills at a retail pharmacy when necessary due to personal need or hardship, emergency, or other special circumstance. This waiver is obtained through an administrative override request to the TRICARE pharmacy benefits manager under procedures established by the Director, DHA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Procedures.</I> Under the program established by paragraph (r)(1) of this section, the Director, DHA will establish procedures for the effective operation of the program. Among these procedures are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The Department will implement the program by utilizing best commercial practices to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) An effective communication plan that includes efforts to educate beneficiaries in order to optimize participation and satisfaction will be implemented.
</P>
<P>(iii) Beneficiaries with active retail prescriptions for a medication on the maintenance medication list will be notified that their medication is included under the program. Beneficiaries will be advised that they may receive two 30 day fill at retail while they transition their prescription to the mail order program.
</P>
<P>(iv) Requests for a third fill at retail will result in 100% patient cost shares and will be blocked from any TRICARE payments and the beneficiary advised to call the pharmacy benefits manager (PBM) for assistance.
</P>
<P>(v) The PBM will provide a toll free number to assist beneficiaries in transferring their prescriptions from retail to the mail order program. With the beneficiary's permission, the PBM will contact the physician or other health care provider who prescribed the medication to assist in transferring the prescription to the mail order program.
</P>
<P>(vi) In any case in which a beneficiary required under paragraph (r) of this section to obtain a maintenance medication prescription refill from national mail order pharmacy program and attempts instead to refill such medications at a retail pharmacy, the PBM will also maintain the toll free number to assist the beneficiary. This assistance may include information on how to request a waiver, consistent with paragraph (r)(4)(iii) of this section, or in taking any other appropriate action to meet the beneficiary's needs and to implement the program.
</P>
<P>(vii) The PBM will ensure that a pharmacist is available at all times through the toll-free telephone number to answer beneficiary questions or provide other appropriate assistance.
</P>
<P>(6) This program will remain in effect indefinitely with any adjustments or modifications required by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17048, Apr. 1, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 11292, Mar. 17, 2009; 74 FR 55776, Oct. 29, 2009; 74 FR 65438, Dec. 10, 2009; 75 FR 63397, Oct. 15, 2010; 76 FR 41065, July 13, 2011; 78 FR 13241, Feb. 27, 2013; 78 FR 75247, Dec. 11, 2013; 80 FR 46798, Aug. 6, 2015; 80 FR 44272, July 27, 2015; 81 FR 76310, Nov. 2, 2016; 82 FR 45458, Sept. 29, 2017; 83 FR 63577, Dec. 11, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.22" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.22   TRICARE Retiree Dental Program (TRDP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> The TRDP is a premium based indemnity dental insurance coverage program that will be available to certain retirees and their surviving spouses, their dependents, and certain other beneficiaries, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The TRDP is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1076c.
</P>
<P>(1) The Director will, except as authorized in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, make available a premium based indemnity dental insurance plan for eligible TRDP beneficiaries specified in paragraph (d) of this section consistent with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The TRDP premium based indemnity dental insurance program under paragraph (a) of this section may be provided by allowing eligible beneficiaries specified in paragraph (d) of this section to enroll in an insurance plan under chapter 89A of title 5, United States Code that provides benefits similar to those benefits provided under paragraph (f) of this section. Such enrollment shall be authorized pursuant to an agreement entered into between the Department of Defense and the Office of Personnel Management which agreement, in the event of any inconsistency, shall take precedence over provisions in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General provisions.</I> (1) At a minimum, benefits are the diagnostic services, preventive services, basic restorative services (including endodontics), oral surgery services, and emergency services specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Additional services comparable to those contained in paragraph (e)(2) of § 199.13 may be covered pursuant to benefit policy decisions made by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) Premium costs for this coverage will be paid by the enrollee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic scope.</I> (i) The TRDP is applicable to authorized providers in the 50 United States and the District of Columbia, Canada, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD (HA)) may extend the TRDP to geographic areas other than those specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. In extending the TRDP overseas, the ASD (HA) is authorized to establish program elements, methods of administration, and payment rates and procedures that are different from those in effect for the areas specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section to the extent the ASD (HA), or designee, determines necessary for the effective and efficient operation of the TRDP. These differences may include, but are not limited to, specific provisions for preauthorization of care, varying licensure and certification requirements for foreign providers, and other differences based on limitations in the availability and capabilities of the Uniformed Services overseas dental treatment facilities and a particular nation's civilian sector providers in certain areas. The Director, TRICARE Management Activity shall issue guidance, as necessary, to implement the provisions of this paragraph. TRDP enrollees residing in overseas locations will be eligible for the same benefits as enrollees residing in the continental United States, although dental services may not be available or accessible in all locations.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as otherwise provided in this section or by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) or designee, the TRDP is administered in a manner similar to the TRICARE Dental Program under § 199.13 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) The TRDP shall be administered through a contract.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as may be specifically provided in this section, to the extent terms defined in § 199.2 and § 199.13(b) are relevant to the administration of the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program, the definitions contained in § 199.2 and § 199.13(b) shall apply to the TRDP as they do to TRICARE/CHAMPUS and the TRICARE Dental Program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility and enrollment</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> Enrollment in the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program is open to:
</P>
<P>(i) Members of the Uniformed Services who are entitled to retired pay, or former members of the armed forces who are Medal of Honor recipients and who are not otherwise entitled to dental benefits; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Members of the Retired Reserve under the age of 60;
</P>
<P>(iii) Eligible dependents of a member described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section who are covered by the enrollment of the member; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Eligible dependents of a member described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section when the member is not enrolled in the program and the member meets at least one of the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1)(iv)(A) through (C) of this section. Already enrolled members must satisfy any remaining enrollment commitment prior to enrollment of dependents becoming effective under this paragraph, at which time the dependent-only enrollment will continue on a voluntary basis as specified in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. Members must provide documentation to the TRDP contractor giving evidence of compliance with paragraphs (d)(1)(iv)(A), (B), or (C) of this section at the time of application for enrollment of their dependents under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(A) The member is enrolled under Section 1705 of Title 38, United States Code, to receive ongoing, comprehensive dental care from the Department of Veterans Affairs pursuant to Section 1712 of Title 38, United States Code, and 38 CFR 17.93, 17.161, or 17.166. Authorization of such dental care must be confirmed in writing by the Department of Veterans Affairs. 
</P>
<P>(B) The member is enrolled in a dental plan that is available to the member as a result of employment of the member that is separate from the Uniformed Service of the member, and the dental plan is not available to dependents of the member as a result of such separate employment by the member. Enrollment in this dental plan and the exclusion of dependents from enrollment in the plan must be confirmed by documentation from the member's employer or the dental plan's administrator. 
</P>
<P>(C) The member is prevented by a current and enduring medical or dental condition from being able to obtain benefits under the TRDP. The specific medical or dental condition and reason for the inability to use the program's benefits over time, if not apparent based on the condition, must be documented by the member's physician or dentist.
</P>
<P>(v) The unremarried surviving spouse and eligible child dependents of a deceased member who died while in status described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section; the unremarried surviving spouse and eligible child dependents who receive a surviving spouse annuity; or the unremarried surviving spouse and eligible child dependents of a deceased member who died while on active duty for a period of more than 30 days and whose eligible dependents are not eligible or no longer for the TRICARE Dental Program.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraphs (<E T="01">d</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iii</E>), (<E T="01">d</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iv</E>), and (<E T="01">d</E>)(1)(<E T="01">v</E>):</HED>
<P>Eligible dependents of Medal of Honor recipients are described in § 199.3(b)(2)(i) (except for former spouses) and § 199.3(b)(2)(ii) (except for a child placed in legal custody of a Medal of Honor recipient under § 199.3(b)(2)(ii)(H)(<I>4</I>)).</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Notification of eligibility.</I> The contractor will notify persons eligible to receive dental benefits under the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Election of coverage.</I> In order to initiate dental coverage, election to enroll must be made by the member or eligible dependent. Enrollment in the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program is voluntary and will be accomplished by submission of an application to the TRDP contractor. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enrollment periods</I>—(i) <I>Enrollment period for basic benefits.</I> The initial enrollment for the basic dental benefits described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall be for a period of 24 months followed by month-to-month enrollment as long as the enrollee remains eligible and chooses to continue enrollment. An enrollee's disenrollment from the TRDP at any time for any reason, including termination for failure to pay premiums, is subject to a lockout period of 12 months. After any lockout period, eligible individuals may elect to reenroll and are subject to a new initial enrollment period. The enrollment periods and conditions stipulated in this paragraph apply only to the basic benefit coverage described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Effective with the implementation of an enhanced benefit program, new enrollments for basic coverage will cease. Enrollees in the basic program at that time may continue their enrollment for basic coverage, subject to the applicable provisions of this section, as long as the contract administering that coverage is in effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Enrollment period for enhanced benefits.</I> The initial enrollment period for enhanced benefit coverage described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be established by the Director, TMA, or designee, to be a period of not less than 12 months and not more than 24 months. The initial enrollment period shall be followed by renewal enrollment periods of up to 12 months as long as the enrollee chooses to continue enrollment and remains eligible. An enrollee who chooses not to continue enrollment upon completion of an enrollment period may re-enroll at any time. However, an enrollee who is disenrolled from the TRDP before completion of an initial or subsequent enrollment period for reasons other than those in paragraphs in (d)(5)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section shall incur a lockout period of 12 months before re-enrollment can occur. Former enrollees who re-enroll following a lockout period or following a period of disenrollment after completion of an enrollment period must comply with all provisions that apply to new enrollees, including a new enrollment commitment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Termination of coverage</I>—(i) <I>Involuntary termination.</I> TRDP coverage is terminated when the member's entitlement to retired pay is terminated, the member's status as a member of the Retired Reserve is terminated, a dependent child loses eligible child dependent status, or a surviving spouse remarries.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Voluntary termination.</I> All enrollee requests for termination of TRDP coverage before the completion of an enrollment period shall be submitted to the TRDP contractor for determination of whether the enrollee qualifies to be disenrolled under paragraphs (d)(5)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Enrollment grace period.</I> Regardless of the reason, TRDP coverage shall be cancelled, or otherwise terminated, upon request from an enrollee if the request is received by the TRDP contractor within 30 calendar days following the enrollment effective date and there has been no use of TRDP benefits under the enrollment during that period. If such is the case, the enrollment is voided and all premium payments are refunded. However, use of benefits during this 30-day enrollment grace period constitutes acceptance by the enrollee of the enrollment and the enrollment period commitment. In this case, a request for termination of enrollment under paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A) of this section will not be honored, and premiums will not be refunded.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Extenuating circumstances.</I> Under limited circumstances, TRDP enrollees shall be disenrolled by the contractor before the completion of an enrollment period commitment upon request by an enrollee if the enrollee submits written, factual documentation that independently verifies that one of the following extenuating circumstances occurred during the enrollment period. In general, the circumstances must be unforeseen and long-term and must have originated after the effective date of TRDP coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The enrollee is prevented by a serious medical condition from being able to utilize TRDP benefits,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The enrollee would suffer severe financial hardship by continuing TRDP enrollment; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any other circumstances which the Secretary considers appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Effective date of voluntary termination.</I> For cases determined to qualify for disenrollment under the grace period provisions in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A) of this section, enrollment is completely nullified effective from the beginning date of coverage. For cases determined to qualify for disenrollment under the extenuating circumstances provisions in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, the effective date of disenrollment is the first of the month following the contractor's initial determination on the disenrollment request or the first of the month following the last use of TRDP benefits under the enrollment, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Appeal process for denied voluntary enrollment termination.</I> An enrollee has the right to appeal the contractor's determination that a disenrollment request does not qualify under paragraphs (d)(5)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section. The enrollee may appeal that determination by submitting a written appeal to the TMA, Office of Appeals and Hearings, with a copy of the contractor's determination notice and relevant documentation supporting the disenrollment request. This appeal must be received by TMA within 60 days of the date on the contractor's determination notice. The burden of proof is on the enrollee to establish affirmatively by substantial evidence that the enrollee qualifies to be disenrolled under paragraphs (d)(5)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section. TMA will issue written notification to the enrollee and the contractor of its appeal determination within 60 days from the date of receipt of the appeal request. That determination is final.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Continuation of dependents' enrollment upon death of enrollee.</I> Coverage of a dependent in the TRDP under an enrollment of a member or surviving spouse who dies during the period of enrollment shall continue until the end of that period and may be renewed by (or for) the dependent, so long as the premium paid is sufficient to cover continuation of the dependent's enrollment. Coverage may be terminated when the premiums paid are no longer sufficient to cover continuation of the enrollment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Premium payments.</I> Persons enrolled in the dental plan will be responsible for paying the full cost of the premiums in order to obtain the dental insurance.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Premium payment method.</I> The premium payment may be collected pursuant to procedures established by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effects of failure to make premium payments.</I> Failure to make premium payments will result in the enrollee's disenrollment from the TRDP and a lockout period of 12 months. Following this period of time, eligible individuals will be able to re-enroll.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Member's payment of premiums.</I> The cost of the TRDP monthly premium will be paid by the enrollee. Interested beneficiaries may contact the dental contractor-insurer to obtain the enrollee premium cost.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan benefits.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee, may modify the services covered by the TRDP to the extent determined appropriate based on developments in common dental care practices and standard dental programs. In addition, the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee, may establish such exclusions and limitations as are consistent with those established by dental insurance and prepayment plans to control utilization and quality of care for the services and items covered by the TRDP.
</P>
<P>(1) The minimum TRDP benefit is basic dental care to include diagnostic services, preventive services, restorative services, endodontic services, periodontic services, oral surgery services, and other general services. The following is the minimum TRDP covered dental benefit:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Diagnostic services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Clinical oral examinations.
</P>
<P>(B) Radiographs and diagnostic imaging.
</P>
<P>(C) Tests and laboratory examinations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preventive services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Dental prophylaxis.
</P>
<P>(B) Topical fluoride treatment (office procedure).
</P>
<P>(C) Sealants.
</P>
<P>(D) Other preventive services.
</P>
<P>(E) Space maintenance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Restorative services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Amalgam restorations.
</P>
<P>(B) Resin-based composite restorations.
</P>
<P>(C) Other restorative services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Endodontic services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Pulp capping.
</P>
<P>(B) Pulpotomy and pulpectomy.
</P>
<P>(C) Root canal therapy.
</P>
<P>(D) Apexification and recalcification procedures.
</P>
<P>(E) Apicoectomy and periradicular services.
</P>
<P>(F) Other endodontic procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Periodontic Services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Surgical services.
</P>
<P>(B) Periodontal services.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Oral surgery.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Extractions.
</P>
<P>(B) Surgical extractions.
</P>
<P>(C) Alveoloplasty.
</P>
<P>(D) Biopsy.
</P>
<P>(E) Other surgical procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Other general services.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Palliative (emergenery) treatment of dental pain.
</P>
<P>(B) Therapeutic drug injection.
</P>
<P>(C) Other drugs and/or medicaments.
</P>
<P>(D) Treatment of postsurgical complications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enhanced benefits.</I> In addition to the minimum TRDP services in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, other services that are comparable to those contained in paragraph (e)(2) of § 199.13 may be covered pursuant to TRDP benefit policy decisions made by the Director, OCHAMPUS, or designee. In general, these include additional diagnostic and preventive services, major restorative services, prosthodontics (removable and fixed), additional oral surgery services, orthodontics, and additional adjunctive general services (including general anesthesia and intravenous sedation). Enrollees in the basis plan will be given an enrollment option at the time the enhanced plan is implemented.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative course of treatment policy.</I> The Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee, may establish, in accordance with generally accepted dental benefit practices, an alternative course of treatment policy which provides reimbursement in instances where the dentist and TRDP enrollee select a more expensive service, procedure, or course of treatement than in customarily provided. The alternative course of treatment policy must meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The service, procedure, or course of treatment must be consistent with sound professional standards of generally accepted dental practice for the dental condition concerned.
</P>
<P>(ii) The service, procedure, or course of treatment must be a generally accepted alternative for a service or procedure covered by the TRDP for the dental condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Payment for the alternative service or procedure may not exceed the lower of the prevailing limits for the alternative procedure, the prevailing limits or dental plan contractor's scheduled allowance for the otherwise authorized benefit procedure for which the alternative is substituted, or the actual charge for the alternative procedure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maximum coverage amounts.</I> Each enrollee is subject to an annual maximum coverage amount for non-orthodontic dental benefits and, if an orthodontic benefit is offered, a lifetime maximum coverage amount for orthodontics as established by the Director, TRICARE Management Activity, or designee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Annual notification of rates.</I> TRDP premiums will be determined as part of the competitive contracting process. Information on the premium rates will be widely distributed.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Authorized providers.</I> The TRDP enrollee may seek covered services from any provider who is fully licensed and approved to provide dental care in the state where the provider is located.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Benefit payment.</I> Enrollees are not required to utilize the special network of dental providers established by the TRDP contractor. For enrollees who do use these network providers, however, providers shall not balance bill any amount in excess of the maximum payment allowable by the TRDP. Enrollees using non-network providers may balance billed amounts in excess of allowable charges. The maximum payment allowable by the TRDP (minus the appropriate cost-share) will be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) Billed charges; or
</P>
<P>(2) Usual, Customary and Reasonable rates, in which the customary rate is calculated at the 50th percentile of billed charges in that geographic area, as measured in an undiscounted charge profile in 1995 or later for that geographic area (as defined by three-digit zip code).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Appeal procedures.</I> All levels of appeal established by the contractor shall be exhausted prior to an appeal being filed with the TMA. Procedures comparable to those established for appeal of benefit determinations under § 199.10 of this part shall apply together with the procedures for appeal of voluntary disenrollment determinations described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> (1) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103, the Department of Defense has determined that in the administration of chapter 55 of title 10, U.S. Code, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including but not limited to the assurance of uniform national health programs for military families and the operation of such programs at the lowest possible cost to the Department of Defense, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States. This determination is applicable to the dental services contracts that implement this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (l)(1) of this section, any State or local law or regulation pertaining to health or dental insurance, prepaid health or dental plans, or other health or dental care delivery, administration, and financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program contract. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program contract. (However, the Department of Defense may, by contract, establish legal obligations on the part of the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program contractor to conform with requirements similar to or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations).
</P>
<P>(3) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (l)(2) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health or dental insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of section 1103. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD health services contracts, if those taxes, fees or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For the purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD health and dental services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those applicable to the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Administration.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) or designee may establish other rules and procedures for the administration of the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 66993, Dec. 23, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 48913, Aug. 10, 2000; 65 FR 49492, Aug. 14, 2000; 66 FR 9658, Feb. 9, 2001; 67 FR 4354, Jan. 30, 2002; 67 FR 15725, Apr. 3, 2002; 72 FR 54213, Sept. 24, 2007; 72 FR 64537, Nov. 16, 2007; 73 FR 59504, Oct. 9, 2008; 82 FR 45458, Sept. 29, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.23" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.23   Special Supplemental Food Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> This section prescribes guidelines and policies for the delivery and administration of the Special Supplemental Food Program for Women, Infants, and Children Overseas (WIC Overseas Program). The purpose of the WIC Overseas Program is to provide supplemental foods and nutrition education, at no cost, to eligible persons and to serve as an adjunct to good health care during critical times of growth and development, in order to prevent the occurrence of health problems, including drug and other substance abuse, and to improve the health status of program participants. The benefit is similar to the benefit provided under the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) administered Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For most definitions applicable to the provisions of this section, refer to sec. 199.2. The following definitions apply only to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicant.</I> Pregnant women, breastfeeding women, postpartum women, infants, and children who are applying to receive WIC Overseas benefits, and the breastfed infants of applicant breastfeeding women. This term also includes individuals who are currently participating in the Program but are re-applying because their certification is about to expire.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Breastfeeding women.</I> Women up to 1-year postpartum who are breastfeeding their infants. Their eligibility will end on the last day of the month of their infant's first birthday.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certification.</I> The implementation of criteria and procedures to assess and document each applicant's eligibility for the Program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Children.</I> Persons who have had their first birthday but have not yet attained their fifth birthday. Their eligibility will end on the last day of the month of their fifth birthday.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Competent Professional Authority (CPA).</I> An individual on the staff of the WIC Overseas office authorized to determine nutritional risk, prescribe supplemental foods, and design nutrition education programs. The following are authorized to serve as a competent professional authority: physicians, nutritionists, registered nurses, and dieticians may serve as a competent professional authority. Additionally, a CPA may be other persons designated by the regional program manager who meet the definition of CPA prescribed by the USDA as being professionally competent to evaluate nutritional risk. The definition also applies to an individual who is not on the staff of the WIC Overseas office but who is qualified to provide data upon which nutritional risk determinations are made by a competent professional authority on the staff of the local WIC Overseas office.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contract brand.</I> The brand of a particular food item that has been competitively selected by the DoD to be the exclusive supplier of that type of food item to the program.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Date-to-use.</I> The date by which the drafts must be used to purchase food items.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Department.</I> The Department of Defense (DoD), unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Dependent.</I> (i) A spouse, or (ii) An unmarried child who is:
</P>
<P>(A) Under 21 years of age; or
</P>
<P>(B) Incapable of self-support because of mental or physical incapacity and is in fact dependent on the member for more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the child's support; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Is under 23 years of age, is enrolled in a full-time course of study in an institution of higher education and is in fact dependent on the member for more than one-half of the child's support.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Drafts.</I> Food instruments, similar to a voucher (whether paper, card or other approved access device or method), issued in the WIC Overseas offices to program participants. Participants may redeem their drafts at participating commissaries and NEXMARTs for the types and quantities of foods specified on the face of the draft.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Economic unit.</I> All individuals contributing to or subsidizing the income of a household, whether they physically reside in that household or not.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Eligible civilian.</I> An eligible civilian is a person who is not a member of the armed forces and who is: 
</P>
<P>(i) A dependent of a member of the armed forces residing with the member outside the United States, whether or not that dependent is command sponsored, or
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee of a military department who is a national of the United States and is residing outside the United States in connection with such individual's employment or a dependent of such individual residing with the employee outside the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee of a Department of Defense contractor who is a national of the United States and is residing outside the United States in connection with such individual's employment or a dependent of such individual residing with the employee outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Family.</I> A group of related or non-related individuals who are one economic unit.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Hematological test.</I> A test of an applicant's or participant's blood as described in 7 CFR part 246.7(e).
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Income guidelines.</I> Income poverty guidelines published by the U.S. DHHS. These guidelines are adjusted annually by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), with each annual adjustment effective July 1 of each year. For purposes of WIC Overseas Program income eligibility determinations, income guidelines shall mean the income guidelines published by the DHHS pertaining to the State of Alaska.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Infants.</I> Persons under 1 year of age.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>National of the U.S.</I> A person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a citizen of the U.S.; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a citizen of the United States, but who owes permanent allegiance to the United States, as determined in accordance with the Immigration and Nationality Act.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>NEXMART.</I> Navy Exchange Market.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Nutrition education.</I> Individual or group sessions and the provision of materials designed to improve health status, achieve positive change in dietary habits, and emphasize relationships between nutrition and health, all in keeping with the individual's personal, cultural, and socioeconomic preferences.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Nutritional risk.</I> (i) The presence of detrimental or abnormal nutritional conditions detectable by biochemical, physical, developmental or anthropometric data, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other documented nutritionally related medical conditions, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Documented evidence of dietary deficiencies that impair or endanger health, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Conditions that directly affect the nutritional health of a person, such as alcoholism or drug abuse, or
</P>
<P>(v) Conditions that predispose persons to inadequate nutritional patterns, habits of poor nutritional choices or nutritionally related medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Participants.</I> Pregnant women, breastfeeding women, postpartum women, infants, and children who are receiving supplemental foods or food instruments under the WIC Overseas Program, and the breastfed infants of participant breastfeeding women.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Postpartum Women.</I> Women up to 6 months after the end of their pregnancy. Their eligibility will end on the last day of the sixth month after their delivery.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Pregnant Women.</I> Women determined to have one or more embryos or fetuses in utero. Pregnant women are eligible to receive WIC benefits through 6 weeks postpartum, at which time they reapply for the program as postpartum or breastfeeding women.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Rebate.</I> The amount of money refunded under cost containment procedures to the Department from the manufacturer of a contract brand food item.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Regional Lead Agent.</I> The designated major military medical center that acts as the regional lead agent, having tri-service responsibility for the development and execution of a single, integrated health care network.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Supplemental foods.</I> Foods containing nutrients determined by nutritional research to be lacking in the diets of certain pregnant, breastfeeding, and postpartum women, infants, and children. WIC Overseas may substitute different foods providing the nutritional equivalent of foods prescribed by Domestic WIC programs, as required by 10 U.S.C. 1060a(c)(1)(B).
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Verification.</I> Verification of drafts is a review before payment out of Defense Health Program funds to determine whether the commissary or NEXMART complied with applicable date-to-use, food specification, and other redemption criteria.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification of eligibility.</I> (1) to the extent practicable, participants shall be certified as eligible to receive Program benefits according to income and nutritional risk certification guidelines contained in regulations published by the USDA pertaining to the Women, Infants, and Children program required under 7 CFR 246.7(d)(2)(iv)(B). Applicants must meet the following eligibility criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet one of the participant type requirements: be a member of the armed forces on duty overseas; a family member/dependent of a member of the armed forces on duty overseas; a U.S. national employee of a military department serving overseas; a family member of a U.S. national employee of a DoD contractor serving overseas; a family member of a U.S. national employee of a DoD contractor serving overseas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reside in the geographic area served by the WIC Overseas office;
</P>
<P>(iii) Meet the income criteria specified in this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Meet the nutrition risk criteria specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In terms of income eligibility, the following apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The Department of Defense shall use the Alaska income poverty guidelines published by the DHHS for making determinations regarding income eligibility for the Program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Program income eligibility guidelines shall be adjusted annually to conform to annual adjustments made by the DHHS.
</P>
<P>(iii) For income eligibility, the Program may consider the income of the family during the past 12 months and the family's current rate of income to determine which indicator accurately reflects the family's status.
</P>
<P>(iv) A pregnant woman who is ineligible for participation in the Program because she does not meet income criteria shall be deemed eligible if the criteria would be met by increasing the number of individuals in her family (economic unit) by the number of children in utero.
</P>
<P>(v) The Program shall define income according to USDA regulations with regard to the USDA-administered WIC Program. In particular—
</P>
<P>(A) A basic allowance for housing is excluded from income as required by section 674 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2000.
</P>
<P>(B) The value of in-kind housing benefits is excluded from income as required under USDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(C) Cost of living allowances for duty outside the continental U.S. (OCONUS) is excluded from income as required under 7 CFR 246.7(d)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<P>(D) Public assistance and welfare payments are included in income.
</P>
<P>(3) Participants must be found to be at nutritional risk to be eligible for program benefits.
</P>
<P>(i) A Competent Professional Authority (CPA) shall determine if an applicant is at nutritional risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) At the request of the program, applicants shall provide, according to schedules set by the USDA in 7 CFR 246.7(e) (unless deemed impracticable), nutritional risk data as a condition of certification in the Program. Such data includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Anthropometric measurements,
</P>
<P>(B) The results of hematological tests,
</P>
<P>(C) Physical examination,
</P>
<P>(D) Dietary information, or
</P>
<P>(E) Developmental testing
</P>
<P>(iii) A pregnant woman who meets all other eligibility criteria and for whom a nutritional risk assessment cannot immediately be completed will be considered presumptively eligible to participate in the Program for a period up to 60 days.
</P>
<P>(iv) Infants under 6 months of age may be deemed to be at nutritional risk if the infant's mother was a Program participant during pregnancy or if medical records document that the mother was at nutritional risk during pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(v) Unless otherwise specified herein or in 7 CFR 246.7(e), required nutritional risk data shall be provided to, or obtained by, the WIC Overseas Program office within 90 days of enrollment.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that it is impracticable for the WIC Overseas Program to adhere to the income and nutritional risk eligibility guidelines contained in USDA regulations, the Director, TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) may waive the Department's use of USDA WIC Program eligibility criteria by determining that it is impracticable to use these standards to certify participants in the WIC Overseas Program.
</P>
<P>(i) Such determination shall consider relevant practical, administrative, national security, financial factors and existing Department policies and their application to the population served by the WIC Overseas Program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Absent a written finding of impracticability described in section 199.23(c)(4), the eligibility criteria for the WIC program, contained in USDA regulations shall apply.
</P>
<P>(5) An applicant for the WIC Overseas Program who presents a valid WIC Program Verification of Certification card, which is issued to participants in the domestic WIC Program when they intend to move, shall be considered eligible for participation in the WIC Overseas Program for the duration of the individual's current domestic WIC certification period, as long as he/she is an eligible service/family member or eligible civilian/family member.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Program benefits.</I> (1) Drafts. WIC participants shall be issued drafts that may be redeemed for supplemental food prescribed under the program.
</P>
<P>(i) Drafts shall at a minimum list the food items to be redeemed and the date-to-use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Food items listed on the draft must be approved for use under the Program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Drafts generally shall allow for a three-month supply of food items for each participant, unless the participant's nutritional status necessitates more frequent contacts with the WIC Overseas office.
</P>
<P>(iv) Participating commissaries and NEXMARTS shall accept the drafts in exchange for approved food items.
</P>
<P>(v) Commissary and NEXMART personnel shall be trained on verification and processing of drafts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Program guidelines shall provide for training of new participants in how to redeem drafts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supplemental Food.</I> Participants shall redeem drafts for appropriate food packages at intervals determined in accordance with the USDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) The Director, TMA shall identify to the Defense Commissary Agency (DeCA) and NEXCOM a list of food items approved for the WIC Overseas Program. This list shall be developed in consultation with the USDA and shall include information regarding the appropriate package and/or container sizes and quantities available for participants, as well as the frequency with which food items can be acquired. Additions and/or deletions of food items from this list shall be communicated to the commissaries and NEXMARTS on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) A CPA shall prescribe appropriate foods from among the approved list to be included in food packages.
</P>
<P>(iii) A CPA shall coordinate documentation of medical need when such documentation is a prerequisite for prescribing certain food items.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Director, TMA may authorize changes regarding the supplemental foods to be made available in the WIC Overseas Program when local conditions preclude strict compliance or when such compliance is impracticable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nutrition Education.</I> Nutrition education shall be provided to all participants at intervals prescribed in USDA regulations at 7 CFR Part 246.11.
</P>
<P>(i) The WIC Overseas nutrition education program shall be locally overseen by a CPA based on guidance and materials provided by TMA. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Nutrition education and its means of delivery be tailored to the greatest extent practicable to the specific nutritional, cultural, practical, and other needs of the participant. Participant profiles created during certification may be used in designing appropriate nutrition education. A CPA may develop individual care plans, as necessary, consistent with USDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nutrition education shall consist of sessions wherein individual participants or groups of participants meet with a CPA in an interactive setting such that participants can ask, and the CPA can answer, questions related to nutrition practices. In addition, nutrition education shall utilize prepared educational materials and/or Internet sites. Both the sessions and the information materials shall be designed to improve health status, achieve positive change in dietary habits, and emphasize relationships between nutrition and health. Individual and group sessions can be accomplished through, among other things, face-to-face meetings, remote tele-videoconferencing, real-time computer-based distance learning, or other means.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nutrition education services shall generally be provided to participants twice during each 6-month certification period, unless a different schedule is specified in USDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) The nutrition education program shall promote breastfeeding as the optimal method of infant nutrition, encourage pregnant participants to breastfeed unless contraindicated for health reasons, and educate all participating women about the harmful effects of substance abuse.
</P>
<P>(vi) Individual participants shall not be denied supplemental food due to the failure to attend scheduled nutrition education sessions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial management.</I> The Department shall establish procedures to provide for the verification of drafts prior to payment.
</P>
<P>(i) Verification may utilize sampling techniques.
</P>
<P>(ii) Payment of drafts shall be made out of Defense Health Program funds.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rebate agreements.</I> (1) DoD is authorized to enter into an agreement with a manufacturer of a particular brand of a food item that provides for the exclusive supply to the program of the same or similar types of food items by that manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement shall identify a contract brand of food item.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the agreement, the manufacturer shall rebate to the Department an agreed portion of the amounts paid by DoD for the procurement of the contract brand.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD shall use competitive procedures under title 10, chapter 137 to select the contract brand.
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts rebated shall be credited to the appropriation available for carrying out the program and shall be applied against expenditures for the program in the same period as the other sums in the appropriation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Administrative appeals and civil rights.</I> (1) Applicants who are denied certification or participants that are denied recertification shall be provided with a notice of ineligibility. The notice shall include information on the applicant's right to appeal the determination and instructions on doing so.
</P>
<P>(2) Benefits shall not be provided while an appeal is pending when an applicant is denied benefits, a participant's certification has expired or a participant becomes categorically ineligible.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for appeal shall be submitted in writing within five working days. If the decision is an adverse one it shall include notice to the applicant of his further appeal rights as reflected in (iii) below, and that he/she has five working days to effect any such appeal.
</P>
<P>(4) Appeal reviews shall be conducted in the first instance by the CPA or team leader in charge of the local WIC Overseas office.
</P>
<P>(i) Written notice of a decision shall be provided to the applicant within five working days.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the appeal is upheld, retroactive benefits shall not be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) At an applicant's request a denied appeal may be forwarded to the regional program manager for review, who will provide a decision on the appeal within 5 working days.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the regional program manager denies the appeal, there shall be no further right of appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) Complaints about discriminatory treatment shall be handled in accordance with procedures established at each local WIC Overseas site.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operations and Administration.</I> (1) Information collected about WIC Overseas applicants and participants shall be collected, maintained, and disclosed in accordance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Information and personnel security requirements shall be consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 15678, Mar. 26, 2004, as amended at 90 FR 5632, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.24" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.24   TRICARE Reserve Select.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select offers the TRICARE Select self-managed, preferred-provider network option under § 199.17 to qualified members of the Selected Reserve, their immediate family members, and qualified survivors under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purpose.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select is a premium-based health plan that is available for purchase by members of the Selected Reserve and certain survivors of Selected Reserve members as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory Authority.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1076d.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of the Program.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select is applicable in the 50 United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and, to the extent practicable, other areas where members of the Selected Reserve serve. In locations other than the 50 states of the United States and the District of Columbia, the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may authorize modifications to the program rules and procedures as may be appropriate to the area involved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Major Features of TRICARE Reserve Select.</I> The major features of the program include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>TRICARE Select rules applicable.</I> (A) Unless specified in this section or otherwise prescribed by the Director, provisions of TRICARE Select under § 199.17 apply to TRICARE Reserve Select.
</P>
<P>(B) Certain special programs established in 32 CFR part 199 are not available to members covered under TRICARE Reserve Select. These include the Extended Care Health Option (§ 199.5), the Special Supplemental Food Program (see § 199.23), and the Supplemental Health Care Program (§ 199.16), except when referred by a Military Treatment Facility (MTF) provider for incidental consults and the MTF provider maintains clinical control over the episode of care. The TRICARE Dental Program (§ 199.13) is independent of this program and is otherwise available to all members of the Selected Reserve and their eligible family members whether or not they purchase TRICARE Reserve Select coverage. The Continued Health Care Benefits Program (§ 199.20) is also independent of this program and is otherwise available to all members who qualify.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Premiums.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select coverage is available for purchase by any Selected Reserve member if the member fulfills all of the statutory qualifications. A member of the Selected Reserve covered under TRICARE Reserve Select shall pay 28 percent of the total amount that the ASD(HA) determines on an appropriate actuarial basis as being appropriate for that coverage. There is one premium rate for member-only coverage and one premium rate for member and family coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Procedures.</I> Under TRICARE Reserve Select, Reserve Component members who fulfilled all of the statutory qualifications may purchase either the member-only type of coverage or the member-and-family type of coverage by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format along with an initial payment of the applicable premium. Rules and procedures for purchasing coverage and paying applicable premiums are prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Benefits.</I> When their coverage becomes effective, TRICARE Reserve Select beneficiaries receive the TRICARE Select benefit including access to military treatment facility services and pharmacies, as described in §§ 199.17 and 199.21. TRICARE Reserve Select coverage features the deductible, catastrophic cap and cost share provisions of the TRICARE Select plan applicable to Group B active duty family members under § 199.17(l)(2)(ii) for both the member and the member's covered family members; however, the TRICARE Reserve Select premium under paragraph (c) of this section applies instead of any TRICARE Select plan enrollment fee under § 199.17. Both the member and the member's covered family members are provided access priority for care in military treatment facilities on the same basis as active duty service members' dependents who are not enrolled in TRICARE Prime as described in § 199.17(d)(1)(i)(D).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications for TRICARE Reserve Select coverage</I>—(1) <I>Ready Reserve member.</I> A Ready Reserve member qualifies to purchase TRICARE Reserve Select coverage prior to January 1, 2030, if the Service member meets the criteria listed in both paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. Beginning January 1, 2030, only the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is necessary for qualification.
</P>
<P>(i) Is a member of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of the Armed Forces, or a member of the Individual Ready Reserve of the Armed Forces who has volunteered to be ordered to active duty pursuant to the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 12304 in accordance with section 10 U.S.C. 10144(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not enrolled in, or eligible to enroll in, a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. chapter 89. That statute has been implemented under 5 CFR part 890 as the Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) program. For purposes of the FEHB program, the terms “enrolled,” “enroll” and “enrollee” are defined in 5 CFR 890.101. Further, the member (or certain former member involuntarily separated) no longer qualifies for TRICARE Reserve Select when the member (or former member) has been eligible for coverage to be effective in a health benefits plan under the FEHB program for more than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TRICARE Reserve Select survivor.</I> If a qualified Service member dies while in a period of TRICARE Reserve Select coverage, the immediate family member(s) of such member is qualified to purchase new or continue existing TRICARE Reserve Select coverage for up to six months beyond the date of the member's death as long as they meet the definition of immediate family members as specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section. This applies regardless of type of coverage in effect on the day of the TRICARE Reserve Select member's death.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>TRICARE Reserve Select premiums.</I> Members are charge premiums for coverage under TRICARE Reserve Select that represent 28 percent of the total annual premium amount that the Director determines on an appropriate actuarial basis as being appropriate for coverage under the TRICARE Select benefit for the TRICARE Reserve Select eligible population. Premiums are to be paid monthly, except as otherwise provided through administrative implementation, pursuant to procedures established by the Director. The monthly rate for each month of a calendar year is one-twelfth of the annual rate for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual establishment of rates.</I> TRICARE Reserve Select monthly premium rates shall be established and updated annually on a calendar year basis for each of the two types of coverage, member-only and member- and-family as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Starting with calendar year 2009, the appropriate actuarial basis for purposes of this paragraph (c) shall be determined for each calendar year by utilizing the actual reported cost of providing benefits under this section to members and their dependents during the calendar years preceding such calendar year. Reported actual TRS cost data from calendar years 2006 and 2007 was used to determine premium rates for calendar year 2009. This established pattern will be followed to determine premium rates for all calendar years subsequent to 2009.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Premium adjustments.</I> In addition to the determinations described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, premium adjustments may be made prospectively for any calendar year to reflect any significant program changes or any actual experience in the costs of administering TRICARE Reserve Select.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Survivor premiums.</I> A surviving family member of a Reserve Component service member who qualified for TRICARE Reserve Select coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will pay premium rates as follows. The premium amount shall be at the member-only rate if there is only one surviving family member to be covered by TRICARE Reserve Select and at the member and family rate if there are two or more survivors to be covered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The Director may establish procedures for the following.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purchasing coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified member to purchase one of two types of coverage: Member-only coverage or member and family coverage. Immediate family members of a qualified member as specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section may be included in such family coverage. To purchase either type of TRICARE Reserve Select coverage for effective dates of coverage described below, members and survivors qualified under either paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section must submit a request in the appropriate format, along with an initial payment of the applicable premium required by paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuation coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified member or qualified survivor to purchase TRICARE Reserve Select coverage with an effective date immediately following the date of termination of coverage under another TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Qualifying event.</I> Procedures for qualifying events in TRICARE Select plans under § 199.17(o) shall apply to TRICARE Reserve Select coverage. Additionally, the Director may identify other events unique to needs of the Reserve Components as qualifying events.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Enrollment.</I> Procedures for enrollment in TRICARE Select plans under § 199.17(o) shall apply to TRICARE Reserve Select enrollment. Generally, the effective date of coverage will coincide with the first day of a month unless enrollment is due to a qualifying event and a different date on or after the qualifying event is required to prevent a lapse in health care coverage.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Survivor coverage under TRICARE Reserve Select.</I> Procedures may be established for a surviving family member of a Reserve Component service member who qualified for TRICARE Reserve Select coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to purchase new TRICARE Reserve Select coverage or continue existing TRICARE Reserve Select coverage for up to six months beyond the date of the member's death. The effective date of coverage will be the day following the date of the member's death.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination.</I> Termination of coverage for the TRS member/survivor will result in termination of coverage for the member's/survivor's family members in TRICARE Reserve Select. Procedures may be established for coverage to be terminated as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage shall terminate when members or survivors no longer qualify for TRICARE Reserve Select as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, with one exception. If a member is involuntarily separated from the Selected Reserve under other than adverse conditions, as characterized by the Secretary concerned, and is covered by TRICARE Reserve Select on the last day of his or her membership in the Selected Reserve, then TRICARE Reserve Select coverage may terminate up to 180 days after the date on which the member was separated from the Selected Reserve. This applies regardless of type of coverage. This exception expires December 31, 2018.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage may terminate for members, former members, and survivors who gain coverage under another TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with the provisions of § 199.17(o)(2) coverage terminates for members/survivors who fail to make premium payments in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) Coverage may be terminated for members/survivors upon request at any time by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Re-enrollment following termination.</I> Absent a new qualifying event, members/survivors (subject to paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section) are not eligible to re-enroll in TRICARE Reserve Select until the next annual open season.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Processing.</I> Upon receipt of a completed request in the appropriate format, enrollment actions will be processed into DEERS in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Periodic revision.</I> Periodically, certain features, rules or procedures of TRICARE Reserve Select may be revised. If such revisions will have a significant effect on members' or survivors' costs or access to care, members or survivors may be given the opportunity to change their type of coverage or terminate coverage coincident with the revisions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> (1) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103, the Department of Defense has determined that in the administration of chapter 55 of title 10, U.S. Code, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including but not limited to the assurance of uniform national health programs for military families and the operation of such programs, at the lowest possible cost to the Department of Defense, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States. This determination is applicable to contracts that implement this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, any State or local law or regulation pertaining to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery, administration, and financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with TRICARE Reserve Select. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to TRICARE Reserve Select. (However, the Department of Defense may, by contract, establish legal obligations on the part of DoD contractors to conform with requirements similar to or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations with respect to TRICARE Reserve Select).
</P>
<P>(3) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of 10 U.S.C. 1103. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD health services contracts, if those taxes, fees or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For the purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD health services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those applicable to the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administration.</I> The Director may establish other rules and procedures for the effective administration of TRICARE Reserve Select, and may authorize exceptions to requirements of this section, if permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Terminology.</I> The following terms are applicable to the TRICARE Reserve Select program.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coverage.</I> This term means the medical benefits covered under the TRICARE Select program as further outlined in § 199.17 whether delivered in military treatment facilities or purchased from civilian sources.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate family member.</I> This term means spouse (except former spouses) as defined in § 199.3(b)(2)(i), or child as defined in § 199.3(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified member.</I> This term means a member who has satisfied all the criteria that must be met before the member is authorized for TRS coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified survivor.</I> This term means an immediate family member who has satisfied all the criteria that must be met before the survivor is authorized for TRS coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 46383, Aug. 20, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 57641, Sept. 16, 2011; 80 FR 55254, Sept. 15, 2015; 82 FR 45458, Sept. 29, 2017; 86 FR 67862, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.25" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.25   TRICARE Retired Reserve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> TRICARE Retired Reserve offers the TRICARE Select self-managed, preferred-provider network option under § 199.17 to qualified members of the Retired Reserve, their immediate family members, and qualified survivors under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purpose.</I> As specified in paragraph (c) of this section, TRICARE Retired Reserve is a premium-based health plan that is available for purchase by any Retired Reserve member who is qualified for non-regular retirement, but is not yet 60 years of age, unless that member is either enrolled in, or eligible to enroll in, a health benefit plan under Chapter 89 of Title 5, United States Code, as well as certain survivors of Retired Reserve members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory Authority.</I> TRICARE Retired Reserve is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1076e.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of the Program.</I> TRICARE Retired Reserve is geographically applicable to the same extent as specified in 32 CFR 199.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Major Features of TRICARE Retired Reserve.</I> The major features of the program include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>TRICARE Select rules applicable.</I> (A) Unless specified in this section or otherwise prescribed by the ASD (HA), provisions of TRICARE Select under § 199.17 apply to TRICARE Retired Reserve.
</P>
<P>(B) Certain special programs established in 32 CFR part 199 are not available to members covered under TRICARE Retired Reserve. The Extended Health Care Option (ECHO) program (sec. 199.5) is not included. The Supplemental Health Care Program (sec. 199.16) is not included, except when a TRICARE Retired Reserve covered beneficiary is referred by a Military Treatment Facility (MTF) provider for incidental consults and the MTF provider maintains clinical control over the episode of care. The TRICARE Retiree Dental Program (sec. 199.13) is independent of this program and is otherwise available to all members who qualify for the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program whether or not they purchase TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage. The Continued Health Care Benefits Program (sec. 199.13) is also independent of this program and is otherwise available to all members who qualify for the Continued Health Care Benefits Program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Premiums.</I> TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage is available for purchase by any Retired Reserve member if the member fulfills all of the statutory qualifications as well as certain survivors. A member of the Retired Reserve or qualified survivor covered under TRICARE Retired Reserve shall pay the amount equal to the total amount that the ASD(HA) determines on an appropriate actuarial basis as being appropriate for that coverage. There is one premium rate for member-only coverage and one premium rate for member and family coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Procedures.</I> Under TRICARE Retired Reserve, Retired Reserve members (or their survivors) who fulfilled all of the statutory qualifications may purchase either the member-only type of coverage or the member and family type of coverage by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format along with an initial payment of the applicable premium. Procedures for purchasing coverage and paying applicable premiums are prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Benefits.</I> When their coverage becomes effective, TRICARE Retired Reserve beneficiaries receive the TRICARE Select benefit including access to military treatment facilities on a space available basis and pharmacies, as described in § 199.17. TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage features the deductible, cost sharing, and catastrophic cap provisions of the TRICARE Select plan applicable to Group B retired members and dependents of retired members under § 199.17(l)(2)(ii); however, the TRICARE Reserve Select premium under paragraph (c) of this section applies instead of any TRICARE Select plan enrollment fee under § 199.17. Both the member and the member's covered family members are provided access priority for care in military treatment facilities on the same basis as retired members and their dependents who are not enrolled in TRICARE Prime as described in § 199.17(d)(1)(i)(E).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications for TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage—(1) Retired Reserve Member.</I> A Retired Reserve member qualifies to purchase TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage if the member meets both the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a member of a Reserve component of the armed forces who is qualified for a non-regular retirement at age 60 under chapter 1223 of title 10, U.S.C., but who is not yet age 60 and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not enrolled in, or eligible to enroll in, a health benefits plan under chapter 89 of title 5, U.S.C. That statute has been implemented under part 890 of title 5, CFR as the Federal Employee Health Benefits (FEHB) program. For purposes of the FEHB program, the terms “enrolled,” “enroll” and “enrollee” are defined in § 890.101 of title 5, CFR.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retired Reserve Survivor.</I> If a qualified member of the Retired Reserves dies while in a period of TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage, the immediate family member(s) of such member shall remain qualified to purchase new or continue existing TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage until the date on which the deceased member of the Retired Reserve would have attained age 60 as long as they meet the definition of immediate family members specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section. This applies regardless whether either member-only coverage or member and family coverage was in effect on the day of the TRICARE Retired Reserve member's death.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>TRICARE Retired Reserve premiums.</I> Members are charged for coverage under TRICARE Retired Reserve that represent the full cost of the program as determined by the Director utilizing an appropriate actuarial basis for the provision of the benefits provided under the TRICARE Select program for the TRICARE Retired Reserve eligible beneficiary population. Premiums are to be paid monthly, except as otherwise provided through administrative implementation, pursuant to procedures established by the Director. The monthly rate for each month of a calendar year is one-twelfth of the annual rate for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual establishment of rates.</I>—(i) TRICARE Retired Reserve monthly premium rates shall be established and updated annually on a calendar year basis by the ASD(HA) for each of the two types of coverage, member-only coverage and member-and-family coverage as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate actuarial basis used for calculating premium rates shall be one that most closely approximates the actual cost of providing care to the same demographic population as those enrolled in TRICARE Retired Reserve as determined by the ASD(HA). TRICARE Retired Reserve premiums shall be based on the actual costs of providing benefits to TRICARE Retired Reserve members and their dependents during the preceding years if the population of Retired Reserve members enrolled in TRICARE Retired Reserve is large enough during those preceding years to be considered actuarially appropriate. Until such time that actual costs from those preceding years becomes available, TRICARE Retired Reserve premiums shall be based on the actual costs during the preceding calendar years for providing benefits to the population of retired members and their dependents in the same age categories as the retired reserve population in order to make the underlying group actuarially appropriate. An adjustment may be applied to cover overhead costs for administration of the program by the government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Premium adjustments.</I> In addition to the determinations described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, premium adjustments may be made prospectively for any calendar year to reflect any significant program changes or any actual experience in the costs of administering the TRICARE Retired Reserve Program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Survivor Premiums.</I> A surviving family member of a Retired Reserve member who qualified for TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage as described herein will pay premium rates at the member-only rate if there is only one surviving family member to be covered by TRICARE Retired Reserve and at the member-and-family rate if there are two or more survivors to be covered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The Director may establish procedures for the following.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purchasing Coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified member to purchase one of two types of coverage: Member-only coverage or member and family coverage. Immediate family members of the Retired Reserve member as specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section may be included in such family coverage. To purchase either type of TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage for effective dates of coverage described below, Retired Reserve members and survivors qualified under either paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section must submit a request in the appropriate format, along with an initial payment of the applicable premium required by paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuation Coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified member or qualified survivor to purchase TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage with an effective date immediately following the date of termination of coverage under another TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Qualifying event.</I> Procedures for qualifying events in TRICARE Select plans under § 199.17(o) shall apply to TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Enrollment.</I> Procedures for enrollment in TRICARE Select plans under § 199.17(o) shall apply to TRICARE Retired Reserve enrollment. Generally, the effective date of coverage will coincide with the first day of a month unless enrollment is due to a qualifying event and a different date on or after the qualifying event is required to prevent a lapse in health care coverage.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Survivor coverage under TRICARE Retired Reserve.</I> Procedures may be established for a surviving family member of a qualified Retired Reserve member who qualified for TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to purchase new TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage or continue existing TRICARE Retired Reserve coverage. Procedures similar to those for qualifying life events may be established for a qualified surviving family member to purchase new or continuing coverage with an effective date coinciding with the day of the member's death. Procedures similar to those for open enrollment may be established for a qualified surviving family member to purchase new coverage at any time with an effective date coinciding with the first day of a month.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination.</I> Termination of coverage for the TRR member/survivor will result in termination of coverage for the member's/survivor's family members in TRICARE Retired Reserve. Procedures may be established for coverage to be terminated as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage shall terminate when members or survivors no longer qualify for TRICARE Retired Reserve as specified in paragraph (c) of this section. For purposes of this section, the member or their survivor no longer qualifies for TRICARE Retired Reserve when the member has been eligible for coverage in a health benefits plan under Chapter 89 of Title 5, U.S.C. for more than 60 days. Further, coverage shall terminate when the Retired Reserve member attains the age of 60 or, if survivor coverage is in effect, when the deceased Retired Reserve member would have attained the age of 60.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage may terminate for members, former members, and survivors who gain coverage under another TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with the provisions of § 199.17(o)(2) coverage terminates for members/survivors who fail to make premium payments in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) Coverage may be terminated for members/survivors upon request at any time by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Re-enrollment following termination.</I> Absent a new qualifying event, members/survivors are not eligible to re-enroll in TRICARE Retired Reserve until the next annual open season.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Processing.</I> Upon receipt of a completed request in the appropriate format, enrollment actions will be processed into DEERS in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Periodic revision.</I> Periodically, certain features, rules or procedures of TRICARE Retired Reserve may be revised. If such revisions will have a significant effect on members' or survivors' costs or access to care, members or survivors may be given the opportunity to change their type of coverage or terminate coverage coincident with the revisions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I>— (1) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1103, the Department of Defense has determined that in the administration of chapter 55 of title 10, U.S. Code, preemption of State and local laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods is necessary to achieve important Federal interests, including but not limited to the assurance of uniform national health programs for military families and the operation of such programs, at the lowest possible cost to the Department of Defense, that have a direct and substantial effect on the conduct of military affairs and national security policy of the United States. This determination is applicable to contracts that implement this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the determination set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, any State or local law or regulation pertaining to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery, administration, and financing methods is preempted and does not apply in connection with TRICARE Retired Reserve. Any such law, or regulation pursuant to such law, is without any force or effect, and State or local governments have no legal authority to enforce them in relation to TRICARE Retired Reserve. (However, the Department of Defense may, by contract, establish legal obligations on the part of DoD contractors to conform with requirements similar to or identical to requirements of State or local laws or regulations with respect to TRICARE Retired Reserve).
</P>
<P>(3) The preemption of State and local laws set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes State and local laws imposing premium taxes on health insurance carriers or underwriters or other plan managers, or similar taxes on such entities. Such laws are laws relating to health insurance, prepaid health plans, or other health care delivery or financing methods, within the meaning of 10 U.S.C. 1103. Preemption, however, does not apply to taxes, fees, or other payments on net income or profit realized by such entities in the conduct of business relating to DoD health services contracts, if those taxes, fees or other payments are applicable to a broad range of business activity. For the purposes of assessing the effect of Federal preemption of State and local taxes and fees in connection with DoD health services contracts, interpretations shall be consistent with those of the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program under 5 U.S.C. 8909(f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administration.</I> The Director may establish other rules and procedures for the effective administration of TRICARE Retired Reserve, and may authorize exceptions to requirements of this section, if permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Terminology.</I> The following terms are applicable to the TRICARE Retired Reserve program.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coverage.</I> This term means the medical benefits covered under the TRICARE Select program as further outlined in § 199.17 whether delivered in military treatment facilities or purchased from civilian sources.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate family member.</I> This term means spouse (except former spouses) as defined in paragraph 199.3(b)(2)(i) of this part, or child as defined in paragraph 199.3 (b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified member.</I> This term means a member who has satisfied all the criteria that must be met before the member is authorized for TRR coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified survivor.</I> This term means an immediate family member who has satisfied all the criteria that must be met before the survivor is authorized for TRR coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 47455, Aug. 6, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 78702, Dec. 31, 2014; 82 FR 45459, Sept. 29, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 199.26" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 199.26   TRICARE Young Adult.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> The TRICARE Young Adult (TYA) program offers options of medical benefits provided under the TRICARE program to qualified unmarried adult children of TRICARE-eligible uniformed service sponsors who do not otherwise have eligibility for medical coverage under a TRICARE program at age 21 (23 if enrolled in a full-time course of study at an approved institution of higher learning, and the sponsor provides over 50 percent of the student's financial support), and are under age 26.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purpose.</I> As specified in paragraph (c) of this section, TYA is a premium-based health option that is available for purchase by any qualified adult child as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The TYA program allows a qualified adult child to purchase TRICARE coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory authority.</I> TYA is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1110b.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of the program.</I> TYA is geographically applicable to the same extent as specified in § 199.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Major features of TYA.</I> (i) <I>TRICARE rules applicable.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Unless specified in this section or otherwise prescribed by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD (HA)), provisions of this part apply to TYA.
</P>
<P>(B) The TRICARE Dental Program (§ 199.13) and the TRICARE Retiree Dental Program (§ 199.22) are not covered under TYA.
</P>
<P>(C) TRICARE Select is available to all TYA-eligible young adult dependents.
</P>
<P>(D) TRICARE Prime is available to TYA-eligible young adult dependents, provided that TRICARE Prime (including the Uniformed Services Family Health Plan) is available in the geographic location where the TYA enrollee resides. TYA-eligible young adults are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Dependents of sponsors on active duty orders written, or otherwise continuously, for more than 30 days or covered by TAMP (under § 199.3(e));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Dependents of sponsors who are retired members other than retired members of the Retired Reserve; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Survivors of members who died while on active duty for more than 30 days or while receiving retired or retainer pay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Premiums.</I> TYA coverage is a premium based program that an eligible young adult dependent may purchase. There is only individual coverage, and a premium shall be charged for each dependent even if there is more than one qualified dependent in the uniformed service sponsor's family that qualifies for TYA coverage. Dependents qualifying for TYA status can purchase individual TRICARE Select or TRICARE Prime coverage (as applicable) according to the rules governing the TRICARE option for which they are qualified on the basis of their uniformed service sponsor's TRICARE-eligible status (active duty, retired, Selected Reserve, or Retired Reserve) and the availability of a desired option in their geographic location. Premiums shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Procedures.</I> Under TYA, qualified dependents under paragraph (b) of this section may purchase individual TYA coverage by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format along with an initial payment of the applicable premium. Procedures for purchasing coverage and paying applicable premiums are prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Benefits.</I> When their TYA coverage becomes effective, qualified beneficiaries receive the benefit of the TRICARE option that they selected, including, if applicable, access to military treatment facilities and pharmacies. TYA coverage features the cost share, deductible and catastrophic cap provisions applicable to Group B beneficiaries based on the program selected, <I>i.e.,</I> the TRICARE Select program under § 199.17(l)(2)(ii) or the TRICARE Prime program under § 199.17(l)(ii), as well as the status of their military sponsor. Access to military treatment facilities under the system of access priorities in § 199.17(d)(1) is also based on the program selected as well as the status of the military sponsor. Premiums are not credited to deductibles or catastrophic caps; however, TYA premiums shall apply instead of any applicable TRICARE Prime or Select enrollment fee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility for TRICARE Young Adult coverage</I>—(1) <I>Young Adult Dependent.</I> A young adult dependent qualifies to purchase TYA coverage if the dependent meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Would be a dependent child under 10 U.S.C. 1072, but for exceeding the age limit under that section (abused dependents and NATO dependents are not eligible for TYA coverage); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a dependent under the age of 26; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not enrolled, or eligible to enroll, for medical coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored health plan as defined in section 5000A(f)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not otherwise eligible under § 199.3; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is not a member of the uniformed services.
</P>
<P>(2) The dependents' sponsor is responsible for keeping the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) current with eligibility data through the sponsor's Service personnel office. Using information from the DEERS, the TRICARE regional contractors have the responsibility to validate a dependent's qualifications to purchase TYA coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>TRICARE Young Adult premiums.</I> Qualified young adult dependents are charged premiums for coverage under TYA that represent the full cost of the program, including reasonable administrative costs, as determined by the Director utilizing an appropriate actuarial basis for the provision of TRICARE benefits for the TYA-eligible beneficiary population. Separate premiums shall be established for TRICARE Select and Prime plans. There may also be separate premiums based on the uniformed services sponsor's status. Premiums are to be paid monthly, except as otherwise provided through administrative implementation, pursuant to procedures established by the Director. The monthly rate for each month of a calendar year is one-twelfth of the annual rate for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual establishment of rates.</I> (i) Monthly premium rates shall be established and updated annually on a calendar year basis by the ASD(HA) for TYA individual coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate actuarial basis used for calculating premium rates shall be one that most closely approximates the actual cost of providing care to a similar demographic population (based on age and health plans) as those enrolled in TYA, as determined by the ASD(HA). TYA premiums shall be based on the actual costs of providing benefits to TYA dependents during the preceding years if the population of TYA enrollees is large enough during those preceding years to be considered actuarially appropriate. Until such time that actual costs from those preceding years become available, TYA premiums shall be based on the actual costs during the preceding calendar years for providing benefits to the population of similarly aged dependents to make the underlying group actuarially appropriate. An adjustment may be applied to cover overhead costs for administration of the program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Premium adjustments.</I> In addition to the determinations described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, premium adjustments may be made prospectively for any calendar year to reflect any significant program changes mandated by legislative enactment, including but not limited to significant new programs or benefits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The Director may establish procedures for the following.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purchasing coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified dependent to purchase individual coverage. To purchase TYA coverage for effective dates of coverage described below, qualified dependents must submit a request in the appropriate format, along with an initial payment of the applicable premium required by paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuation coverage.</I> Procedures may be established for a qualified dependent to purchase TYA coverage with an effective date immediately following the date of termination of coverage under another TRICARE program. Application for continuation coverage must be made within 30 days of the date of termination of coverage under another TRICARE program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Enrollment.</I> Procedures for enrollment in TRICARE plans under § 199.17(o) shall apply to a qualified dependent purchasing TYA coverage. Generally, the effective date of coverage will coincide with the first day of a month unless enrollment is due to a qualifying event and a different date on or after the qualifying event is required to prevent a lapse in health care coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination.</I> Procedures may be established for TYA coverage to be terminated as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) Loss of eligibility or entitlement for coverage by the sponsor will result in termination of the dependent's TYA coverage unless otherwise specified. The effective date of the sponsor's loss of eligibility for care will also be the effective date of termination of benefits under the TYA program unless specified otherwise.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Active duty military sponsor.</I> TYA coverage ends effective the date of military sponsor's separation from military service, unless the dependent would be eligible under section 199.3(e) of this Part but for the dependent's age, for the duration of the Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP) eligibility or until reaching age 26, whichever comes first. Upon the death of an active duty sponsor, dependents eligible for Transitional Survivor coverage may purchase TYA coverage if otherwise qualified.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Selected Reserve (Sel Res) Sponsor.</I> Sel Res sponsors must be currently enrolled in TRICARE Reserve Select (TRS) before a young adult dependent is eligible to purchase TYA. If TRS coverage is terminated by the sponsor, TYA coverage ends effective the same termination date as the sponsor. If the Sel Res sponsor dies while enrolled in TRS, the young adult dependent is eligible to purchase TYA coverage for six months after the date of death of the Sel Res sponsor, if otherwise qualified.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Retired Reserve Sponsor.</I> Retired Reserve members not yet eligible for retired or retainer pay must be enrolled in TRICARE Retired Reserve (TRR) to establish TYA eligibility for their young adult dependents. If TRR coverage is terminated by the sponsor, the TYA coverage for the young adult dependent ends effective the same date as the sponsor's termination of coverage under TRR. If the retired reserve sponsor dies while enrolled in TRR, the young adult dependent may continue to purchase TYA coverage until the date on which the deceased member would have attained age 60, if otherwise qualified. If the Retired Reserve member dies and is not enrolled in TRR, there is no eligibility for TYA coverage until the sponsor would have reached age 60. On the date the Retired Reserve member would have reached 60, a young adult dependent who otherwise qualifies for TYA qualifies as a dependent of a deceased retired sponsor and can purchase TYA coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure of a young adult dependent to maintain the eligibility qualifications in paragraph (b) of this section shall result in the termination of coverage under the TYA program. The effective date of termination shall be the date upon which the adult young dependent failed to meet any of the prerequisite qualifications. If a subsequent change in circumstances re-establishes eligibility (such as losing eligibility for an eligible employer-sponsored plan), the young adult dependent may re-enroll for coverage under the TYA program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Coverage may also be terminated due to a change in the sponsor's status, and the young adult dependent must re-qualify and reapply for TYA coverage within 30 days of termination to preclude a gap in coverage.
</P>
<P>(iv) Termination of coverage results in denial of claims for services with a date of service after the effective date of termination.
</P>
<P>(v) Coverage may be terminated for young adult dependents upon request at any time by submitting a completed request in the appropriate format in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) In accordance with the provisions of § 199.17(o)(2), coverage terminates for young adult dependents who fail to make premium payments in accordance with established procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Absent a new qualifying event, young adults are not eligible to re-enroll in TYA until the next annual open season.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligibility for the Continued Health Care Benefit Program.</I> Upon termination of eligibility to purchase TYA coverage, dependents may purchase coverage for up to 36 months through the Continued Health Care Benefit Program under § 199.20 unless locked out of TYA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changing coverage.</I> Upon application and payment of appropriate premiums, qualified dependents already enrolled in and who are current in their premium payments may elect to change to another TRICARE program for which the qualified dependent is eligible based on the sponsor's eligibility and the geographic location of the qualified young adult dependent. Upon change in sponsor status (for example, active duty to retired status), TYA coverage may be automatically transferred to the appropriate TRICARE option consistent with the sponsor's new status. Recurring TYA premiums may be adjusted accordingly. Administrative processes may be established for changes in program enrollment; however, no change shall be effective until the applicable premium has been paid.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I>—The preemption provisions of § 199.17(a)(7) are applicable to the TYA program.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administration.</I> The Director may establish other processes, policies and procedures for the effective administration of the TYA Program and may authorize exceptions to requirements of this section, if permitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32119, May 29, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 45460, Sept. 29, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.8.0.1.26.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 199—Acronyms
</HEAD>
<FP-1>AFR—Air Force Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR—Army Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASD (HA)—Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CCLR—Claims Collection Litigation Report
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CEOB—CHAMPUS Explanation of Benefits
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CFR—Code of Federal Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CHAMPUS—Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CRD—Chronic Renal Disease
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CT—Computerized Tomography
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DASD (A)—Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense (Administration) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D.D.S.—Doctor of Dental Surgery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DEERS—Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DHHS—Department of Health and Human Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D.M.D.—Doctor of Dental Medicine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DME—Durable Medical Equipment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D.O.—Doctor of Osteopathy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoD—Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DSM-III—Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (Third Edition)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ECHO—Extended Care Health Option
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EEG—Electroencephalogram
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EST—Electroshock Therapy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR—Federal Acquisition Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FEHBP—Federal Employees Health Benefits Program
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FMCRA—Federal Medical Care Recovery Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FR—Federal Register
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HBA—Health Benefits Advisor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HL—Hearing Threshold Level
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hz—Hertz
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ICD-9-CM—International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ICU—Intensive Care Unit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IQ—Intelligence Quotient
</FP-1>
<FP-1>JCAH—Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L.P.N.—Licensed Practical Nurse
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L.V.N.—Licensed Vocational Nurse
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MBD—Minimal Brain Dysfunction
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MCO—Marine Corps Order
</FP-1>
<FP-1>M.D.—Doctor of Medicine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MIA—Missing in Action
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NATO—North Atlantic Treaty Organization
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NAVMILPERSCOMINST—Navy Military Personnel Command Instruction 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NAVPERS—Navy Personnel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NOAA—National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OCHAMPUS—Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OCHAMPUSEUR—Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services for Europe
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OCHAMPUSPAC—Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services for the Pacific Area
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OCHAMPUSSO—Office of Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services for the Southern Hemisphere 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OMB—Office of Management and Budget
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PKU—Phenylketonuria
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R.N.—Registered Nurse
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RTC—Residential Treatment Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SNF—Skilled Nursing Facility
</FP-1>
<FP-1>STF—Specialized Treatment Facility
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U.S.C.—United States Code
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USPHS—U.S. Public Health Service
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24008, July 1, 1986, as amended at 62 FR 35097, June 30, 1997; 63 FR 48448, Sept. 10, 1998; 69 FR 44952, July 28, 2004; 69 FR 51569, Aug. 20, 2004]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="200" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 200—CIVIL MONEY PENALTY AUTHORITIES FOR THE TRICARE PROGRAM


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. chapter 55; 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 60705, Sept. 28, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.100" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.100   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements section 1128A of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a) (the Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part—
</P>
<P>(1) Provides for the imposition of civil money penalties and, as applicable, assessments against persons who have committed an act or omission that violates one or more provisions of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sets forth the appeal rights of persons subject to a penalty and assessment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.110" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.110   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, with respect to terms not defined in this section but defined in 32 CFR 199.2, the definition in such § 199.2 shall apply. For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Assessment</I> means the amounts described in this part and includes the plural of that term.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means an application for payment for an item or service under TRICARE/CHAMPUS.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Health Agency or DHA</I> means the Director of the Defense Health Agency or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Items and services or items or services</I> includes without limitation, any item, device, drug, biological, supply, or service (including management or administrative services), including, but not limited to, those that are listed in an itemized claim for program payment or a request for payment; for which payment is included in any TRICARE/CHAMPUS reimbursement method, such as a prospective payment system or managed care system; or that are, in the case of a claim based on costs, required to be entered in a cost report, books of account, or other documents supporting the claim (whether or not actually entered).
</P>
<P><I>Knowingly</I> means that a person, with respect to an act, has actual knowledge of the act, acts in deliberate ignorance of the act, or acts in reckless disregard of the act, and no proof of specific intent to defraud is required.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means having a natural tendency to influence, or be capable of influencing, the payment or receipt of money or property.
</P>
<P><I>Non-separately-billable item or service</I> means an item or service that is a component of, or otherwise contributes to the provision of, an item or a service, but is not itself a separately billable item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Inspector General or OIG</I> means the Office of Inspector General of the Department of Defense; the Defense Criminal Investigative Service (DCIS); or the Office of Inspector General for the Defense Health Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Overpayment</I> means any funds that a person receives or retains under TRICARE/CHAMPUS to which the person, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under such program.
</P>
<P><I>Penalty</I> means the amount described in this part and includes the plural of that term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, trust or estate, partnership, corporation, professional association or corporation, or other entity, public or private.
</P>
<P><I>Preventive care,</I> for purposes of the definition of the term “remuneration” as set forth in this section and the preventive care exception to section 231(h) of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), means any service that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a prenatal service or a post-natal well-baby visit or is a specific clinical service covered by TRICARE; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is reimbursable in whole or in part by TRICARE as a preventive care service.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable request,</I> with respect to § 200.200(b)(6), means a written request, signed by a designated representative of the OIG and made by a properly identified agent of the OIG during reasonable business hours. The request will include: A statement of the authority for the request, the person's rights in responding to the request, the definition of “reasonable request” and “failure to grant timely access” under this part, the deadline by which the OIG requests access, and the amount of the civil money penalty or assessment that could be imposed for failure to comply with the request, and the earliest date that a request for reinstatement would be considered.
</P>
<P><I>Remuneration,</I> for the purposes of this part, is consistent with the definition in section 1128A(i)(6) of the Social Security Act and includes the waiver of copayment, coinsurance and deductible amounts (or any part thereof) and transfers of items or services for free or for other than fair market value. The term “remuneration” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) The waiver of coinsurance and deductible amounts by a person, if the waiver is not offered as part of any advertisement or solicitation; the person does not routinely waive coinsurance or deductible amounts; and the person waives coinsurance and deductible amounts after determining in good faith that the individual is in financial need or failure by the person to collect coinsurance or deductible amounts after making reasonable collection efforts.
</P>
<P>(2) Any permissible practice as specified in section 1128B(b)(3) of the Act or in regulations issued by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Differentials in coinsurance and deductible amounts as part of a benefit plan design (as long as the differentials have been disclosed in writing to all beneficiaries, third party payers and providers), to whom claims are presented.
</P>
<P>(4) Incentives given to individuals to promote the delivery of preventive care services where the delivery of such services is not tied (directly or indirectly) to the provision of other services reimbursed in whole or in part by TRICARE, Medicare or an applicable State health care program. Such incentives may include the provision of preventive care, but may not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Cash or instruments convertible to cash; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An incentive the value of which is disproportionally large in relationship to the value of the preventive care service (<I>i.e.,</I> either the value of the service itself or the future health care costs reasonably expected to be avoided as a result of the preventive care).
</P>
<P>(5) Items or services that improve a beneficiary's ability to obtain items and services payable by TRICARE, and pose a low risk of harm to TRICARE beneficiaries and the TRICARE program by—
</P>
<P>(i) Being unlikely to interfere with, or skew, clinical decision making;
</P>
<P>(ii) Being unlikely to increase costs to Federal health care programs or beneficiaries through overutilization or inappropriate utilization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not raising patient safety or quality-of-care concerns.
</P>
<P>(6) The offer or transfer of items or services for free or less than fair market value by a person if—
</P>
<P>(i) The items or services consist of coupons, rebates, or other rewards from a retailer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The items or services are offered or transferred on equal terms available to the general public, regardless of health insurance status; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The offer or transfer of the items or services is not tied to the provision of other items or services reimbursed in whole or in part by the program under chapter 55 of title 10, U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(7) The offer or transfer of items or services for free or less than fair market value by a person, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The items or services are not offered as part of any advertisement or solicitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The offer or transfer of the items or services is not tied to the provision of other items or services reimbursed in whole or in part by the program under chapter 55 of title 10, U.S. Code;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is a reasonable connection between the items or services and the medical care of the individual; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The person provides the items or services after determining in good faith that the individual is in financial need.
</P>
<P><I>Request for payment</I> means an application submitted by a person to any person for payment for an item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the person upon whom the Department has imposed, or proposes to impose, a penalty and/or assessment.
</P>
<P><I>Separately billable item or service</I> means an item or service for which an identifiable payment may be made under a Federal health care program, <I>e.g.,</I> an itemized claim or a payment under a prospective payment system or other reimbursement methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Should know, or should have known,</I> means that a person, with respect to information, either acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information or acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. For purposes of this definition, no proof of specific intent to defraud is required.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE or TRICARE/CHAMPUS or CHAMPUS</I> means any program operated under the authority of 32 CFR part 199.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.120" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.120   Liability for penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person was responsible for a violation described in this part, each such person may be held separately liable for the entire penalty prescribed by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person was responsible for a violation described in this part, an assessment may be imposed, when authorized, against any one such person or jointly and severally against two or more such persons, but the aggregate amount of the assessments collected may not exceed the amount that could be assessed if only one person was responsible.
</P>
<P>(c) Under this part, a principal is liable for penalties and assessments for the actions of his or her agent acting within the scope of his or her agency. The provision in this paragraph (c) does not limit the underlying liability of the agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.130" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.130   Assessments.</HEAD>
<P>The assessment in this part is in lieu of damages sustained by the Department because of the violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.140" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.140   Determinations regarding the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, in determining the amount of any penalty or assessment in accordance with this part, the DHA will consider the following factors—
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and circumstances of the violation;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree of culpability of the person against whom a civil money penalty and assessment is proposed. It should be considered an aggravating circumstance if the respondent had actual knowledge where a lower level of knowledge was required to establish liability (<I>e.g.,</I> for a provision that establishes liability if the respondent “knew or should have known” a claim was false or fraudulent, it will be an aggravating circumstance if the respondent knew the claim was false or fraudulent). It should be a mitigating circumstance if the person took appropriate and timely corrective action in response to the violation. For purposes of this part, corrective action must include disclosing the violation to the DHA by initiating a self-disclosure and fully cooperating with the DHA's review and resolution of such disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) The history of prior offenses. Aggravating circumstances include, if at any time prior to the violation, the individual—or in the case of an entity, the entity itself; any individual who had a direct or indirect ownership or control interest (as defined in section 1124(a)(3) of the Act) in a sanctioned entity at the time the violation occurred and who knew, or should have known, of the violation; or any individual who was an officer or a managing employee (as defined in section 1126(b) of the Act) of such an entity at the time the violation occurred—was held liable for criminal, civil, or administrative sanctions in connection with a program covered by this part or in connection with the delivery of a health care item or service;
</P>
<P>(4) Other wrongful conduct. Aggravating circumstances include proof that the individual—or in the case of an entity, the entity itself; any individual who had a direct or indirect ownership or control interest (as defined in section 1124(a)(3) of the Act) in a sanctioned entity at the time the violation occurred and who knew, or should have known, of the violation; or any individual who was an officer or a managing employee (as defined in section 1126(b) of the Act) of such an entity at the time the violation occurred—engaged in wrongful conduct, other than the specific conduct upon which liability is based, relating to a government program or in connection with the delivery of a health care item or service. The statute of limitations governing civil money penalty proceedings does not apply to proof of other wrongful conduct as an aggravating circumstance; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other matters as justice may require. Other circumstances of an aggravating or mitigating nature should be considered if, in the interests of justice, they require either a reduction or an increase in the penalty or assessment to achieve the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) After determining the amount of any penalty and assessment in accordance with this part, the DHA considers the ability of the person to pay the proposed civil money penalty or assessment. The person shall provide, in a time and manner requested by the DHA, sufficient financial documentation, including, but not limited to, audited financial statements, tax returns, and financial disclosure statements, deemed necessary by the DHA to determine the person's ability to pay the penalty or assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) If the person requests a hearing in accordance with § 200.2002, the only financial documentation subject to review is that which the person provided to the DHA during the administrative process, unless the Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) finds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the person from providing the financial documentation to the DHA in the time and manner requested by the DHA prior to the hearing request.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the amount of any penalty and assessment to be imposed under this part the following circumstances are also to be considered—
</P>
<P>(1) If there are substantial or several mitigating circumstances, the aggregate amount of the penalty and assessment should be set at an amount sufficiently below the maximum permitted by this part to reflect that fact.
</P>
<P>(2) If there are substantial or several aggravating circumstances, the aggregate amount of the penalty and assessment should be set at an amount sufficiently close to or at the maximum permitted by this part to reflect that fact.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless there are extraordinary mitigating circumstances, the aggregate amount of the penalty and assessment should not be less than double the approximate amount of damages and costs (as defined by paragraph (e)(2) of this section) sustained by the United States, or any State, as a result of the violation.
</P>
<P>(4) The presence of any single aggravating circumstance may justify imposing a penalty and assessment at or close to the maximum even when one or more mitigating factors is present.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The standards set forth in this section are binding, except to the extent that their application would result in imposition of an amount that would exceed limits imposed by the United States Constitution.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount imposed will not be less than the approximate amount required to fully compensate the United States, for its damages and costs, tangible and intangible, including, but not limited to, the costs attributable to the investigation, prosecution, and administrative review of the case.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Department or the DHA to settle any issue or case as provided by § 200.1530 or to compromise any penalty and assessment as provided by § 200.1550.
</P>
<P>(4) Penalties and assessments imposed under this part are in addition to any other penalties, assessments, or other sanctions prescribed by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.150" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.150   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The DHA is delegated authority from the Secretary to impose civil money penalties and, as applicable, assessments against any person who has violated one or more provisions of this part. The delegation of authority includes all powers to impose and compromise civil money penalties, assessments under section 1128A of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Civil Money Penalties (CMPs) and Assessments for False or Fraudulent Claims and Other Similar Misconduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.200" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.200   Basis for civil money penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DHA may impose a penalty, assessment against any person who it determines has knowingly presented, or caused to be presented, a claim that was for—
</P>
<P>(1) An item or service that the person knew, or should have known, was not provided as claimed, including a claim that was part of a pattern or practice of claims based on codes that the person knew, or should have known, would result in greater payment to the person than the code applicable to the item or service actually provided;
</P>
<P>(2) An item or service for which the person knew, or should have known, that the claim was false or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(3) An item or service furnished during a period in which the person was excluded from participation under 32 CFR 199.9(f) or by another Federal health care program (as defined in section 1128B(f) of the Act) to which the claim was presented;
</P>
<P>(4) A physician's services (or an item or service) for which the person knew, or should have known, that the individual who furnished (or supervised the furnishing of) the service—
</P>
<P>(i) Was not licensed as a physician;
</P>
<P>(ii) Was licensed as a physician, but such license had been obtained through a misrepresentation of material fact (including cheating on an examination required for licensing); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Represented to the patient at the time the service was furnished that the physician was certified by a medical specialty board when he or she was not so certified; or
</P>
<P>(5) An item or service that a person knew, or should have known was not medically necessary, and which is part of a pattern of such claims.
</P>
<P>(b) The DHA may impose a penalty and, where authorized, an assessment against any person who it determines—
</P>
<P>(1) Arranges or contracts (by employment or otherwise) with an individual or entity that the person knows, or should know, is excluded from participation in Federal health care programs for the provision of items or services for which payment may be made under such a program;
</P>
<P>(2) Orders or prescribes a medical or other item or service during a period in which the person was excluded from a Federal health care program, in the case when the person knows, or should know, that a claim for such medical or other item or service will be made under such a program;
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly makes, or causes to be made, any false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact in any application, bid, or contract to participate or enroll as a provider of services or a supplier under a Federal health care program;
</P>
<P>(4) Knows of an overpayment and does not report and return the overpayment in accordance with section 1128J(d) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(5) Knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or used, a false record or statement material to a false or fraudulent claim for payment for items and services furnished under a Federal health care program; or
</P>
<P>(6) Fails to grant timely access to records, documents, and other material or data in any medium (including electronically stored information and any tangible thing), upon reasonable request, to the OIG, for the purpose of audits, investigations, evaluations, or other OIG statutory functions. Such failure to grant timely access means:
</P>
<P>(i) Except when the OIG reasonably believes that the requested material is about to be altered or destroyed, the failure to produce or make available for inspection and copying the requested material upon reasonable request or to provide a compelling reason why they cannot be produced, by the deadline specified in the OIG's written request; and
</P>
<P>(ii) When the OIG has reason to believe that the requested material is about to be altered or destroyed, the failure to provide access to the requested material at the time the request is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.210" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.210   Amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties.</I>
<SU>1</SU> (1) Except as provided in this section, the DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $20,504 for each individual violation that is subject to a determination under this subpart.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The penalty amounts in this section are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 32 CFR part 269. The maximum penalty amount is based on the most recent statutory adjustment included in the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 and includes the cost of living multiplier for 2019, based on the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the month of October 2018, not seasonally adjusted, is 1.02522, as indicated in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Memorandum M-19-04.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) For each individual violation of § 200.200(b)(1), the DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $20,504 for each separately billable or non-separately-billable item or service provided, furnished, ordered, or prescribed by an excluded individual or entity.
</P>
<P>(3) The DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $100,522 for each false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact in violation of § 200.200(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) The DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $100,522 for each false record or statement in violation of § 200.200(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) The DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $20,504 for each item or service related to an overpayment that is not reported and returned in accordance with section 1128J(d) of the Act in violation of § 200.200(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(6) The DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $30,757 for each day of failure to grant timely access in violation of § 200.200(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessments.</I> (1) Except for violations of § 200.200(b)(1) and (3), the DHA may impose an assessment for each individual violation of § 200.200, of not more than 3 times the amount claimed for each item or service.
</P>
<P>(2) For violations of § 200.200(b)(1), the DHA may impose an assessment of not more than 3 times—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount claimed for each separately billable item or service provided, furnished, ordered, or prescribed by an excluded individual or entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The total costs (including salary, benefits, taxes, and other money or items of value) related to the excluded individual or entity incurred by the person that employs, contracts with, or otherwise arranges for an excluded individual or entity to provide, furnish, order, or prescribe a non-separately-billable item or service.
</P>
<P>(3) For violations of § 200.200(b)(3), the DHA may impose an assessment of not more than 3 times the total amount claimed for each item or service for which payment was made based upon the application containing the false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of material fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.220" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.220   Determinations regarding the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>In considering the factors listed in § 200.140—
</P>
<P>(a) It should be considered a mitigating circumstance if all the items or services or violations included in the action brought under this part were of the same type and occurred within a short period of time, there were few such items or services or violations, and the total amount claimed or requested for such items or services was less than $5,000.
</P>
<P>(b) Aggravating circumstances include—
</P>
<P>(1) The violations were of several types or occurred over a lengthy period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) There were many such items or services or violations (or the nature and circumstances indicate a pattern of claims or requests for payment for such items or services or a pattern of violations);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount claimed or requested for such items or services, or the amount of the overpayment was $50,000 or more;
</P>
<P>(4) The violation resulted, or could have resulted, in patient harm, premature discharge, or a need for additional services or subsequent hospital admission; or
</P>
<P>(5) The amount or type of financial, ownership, or control interest or the degree of responsibility a person has in an entity was substantial with respect to an action brought under § 200.200(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—CMPs and Assessments for Anti-Kickback Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.300" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.300   Basis for civil money penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>The DHA may impose a penalty and an assessment against any person who it determines in accordance with this part has violated section 1128B(b) of the Act by unlawfully offering, paying, soliciting, or receiving remuneration to induce or in return for the referral of business paid for, in whole or in part, by TRICARE/CHAMPUS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.310" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.310   Amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties.</I>
<SU>2</SU> The DHA may impose a penalty of not more than $100,522 for each offer, payment, solicitation, or receipt of remuneration that is subject to a determination under § 200.300.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The penalty amounts in this section are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 32 CFR part 269. The maximum penalty amount is based on the most recent statutory adjustment included in the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 and includes the cost of living multiplier for 2019, based on the CPI-U for the month of October 2018, not seasonally adjusted, is 1.02522, as indicated in OMB Memorandum M-19-04.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Assessments.</I> The DHA may impose an assessment of not more than 3 times the total remuneration offered, paid, solicited, or received that is subject to a determination under § 200.300. Calculation of the total remuneration for purposes of an assessment shall be without regard to whether a portion of such remuneration was offered, paid, solicited, or received for a lawful purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.320" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.320   Determinations regarding the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>In considering the factors listed in § 200.140:
</P>
<P>(a) It should be considered a mitigating circumstance if all the items, services, or violations included in the action brought under this part were of the same type and occurred within a short period of time; there were few such items, services, or violations; and the total amount claimed or requested for such items or services was less than $5,000.
</P>
<P>(b) Aggravating circumstances include—
</P>
<P>(1) The violations were of several types or occurred over a lengthy period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) There were many such items, services, or violations (or the nature and circumstances indicate a pattern of claims or requests for payment for such items or services or a pattern of violations);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount claimed or requested for such items or services or the amount of the remuneration was $50,000 or more; or
</P>
<P>(4) The violation resulted, or could have resulted, in harm to the patient, a premature discharge, or a need for additional services or subsequent hospital admission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Procedures for the Imposition of CMPs and Assessments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1500" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1500   Notice of proposed determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the DHA proposes a penalty and, when applicable, an assessment, as applicable, in accordance with this part, the DHA must serve on the respondent, in any manner authorized by Rule 4 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, written notice of the DHA's intent to impose a penalty and if applicable an assessment. The notice will include—
</P>
<P>(1) Reference to the statutory basis for the penalty and the assessment;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the violation for which the penalty, and assessment are proposed (except in cases in which the DHA is relying upon statistical sampling in accordance with § 200.1580, in which case the notice shall describe those claims and requests for payment constituting the sample upon which the DHA is relying and will briefly describe the statistical sampling technique used by the DHA);
</P>
<P>(3) The reason why such violation subjects the respondent to a penalty, and an assessment;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of the proposed penalty and assessment (where applicable);
</P>
<P>(5) Any factors and circumstances described in this part that were considered when determining the amount of the proposed penalty and assessment; and
</P>
<P>(6) Instructions for responding to the notice, including—
</P>
<P>(i) A specific statement of the respondent's right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that failure to request a hearing within 60 days permits the imposition of the proposed penalty, assessment, without right of appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person upon whom the DHA has proposed the imposition of a penalty, and/or an assessment, may appeal such proposed penalty, and/or assessment to the Departmental Appeals Board in accordance with § 200.2002. The provisions of subpart P of this part govern such appeals.
</P>
<P>(c) If the respondent fails, within the time period permitted, to exercise his or her right to a hearing under this section, any penalty, and/or assessment becomes final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1510" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1510   Failure to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the respondent does not request a hearing within 60 days after the notice prescribed by § 200.1500(a) is received, as determined by § 200.2002(c), by the respondent, the DHA may impose the proposed penalty and assessment, or any less severe penalty and assessment. The DHA shall notify the respondent in any manner authorized by Rule 4 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure of any penalty and assessment that have been imposed and of the means by which the respondent may satisfy the judgment. The respondent has no right to appeal a penalty, an assessment with respect to which he or she has not made a timely request for a hearing under § 200.2002.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1520" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1520   Collateral estoppel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a final determination pertaining to the respondent's liability for acts that violate this part has been rendered in any proceeding in which the respondent was a party and had an opportunity to be heard, the respondent shall be bound by such determination in any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In a proceeding under this part, a person is estopped from denying the essential elements of the criminal offense if the proceeding—
</P>
<P>(1) Is against a person who has been convicted (whether upon a verdict after trial or upon a plea of guilty or nolo contendere) of a Federal crime charging fraud or false statements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Involves the same transactions as in the criminal action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1530" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1530   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The DHA has exclusive authority to settle any issues or case without consent of the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1540" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1540   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 1128A(e) of the Social Security Act authorizes judicial review of a penalty and an assessment that has become final. The only matters subject to judicial review are those that the respondent raised pursuant to § 200.2021, unless the court finds that extraordinary circumstances existed that prevented the respondent from raising the issue in the underlying administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) A respondent must exhaust all administrative appeal procedures established by the Secretary or required by law before a respondent may bring an action in Federal court, as provided in section 1128A(e) of the Social Security Act, concerning any penalty and assessment imposed pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Administrative remedies are exhausted when a decision becomes final in accordance with § 200.2021(j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1550" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1550   Collection of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a determination by the Secretary has become final, collection of any penalty and assessment will be the responsibility of the Defense Health Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) A penalty or an assessment imposed under this part may be compromised by the DHA and may be recovered in a civil action brought in the United States district court for the district where the claim was presented or where the respondent resides.
</P>
<P>(c) The amount of penalty or assessment, when finally determined, or the amount agreed upon in compromise, may be deducted from any sum then or later owing by the United States Government or a State agency to the person against whom the penalty or assessment has been assessed.
</P>
<P>(d) Matters that were raised, or that could have been raised, in a hearing before an ALJ or in an appeal under section 1128A(e) of the Social Security Act may not be raised as a defense in a civil action by the United States to collect a penalty or assessment under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1560" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1560   Notice to other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a penalty and/or an assessment becomes final, the following organizations and entities will be notified about such action and the reasons for it: Department of Health and Human Service (HHS) Office of Inspector General, the appropriate State or local medical or professional association; the appropriate quality improvement organization; as appropriate, the State agency that administers each State health care program; the appropriate TRICARE Contractor; the appropriate State or local licensing agency or organization (including the Medicare and Medicaid State survey agencies); and the long-term-care ombudsman.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1570" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1570   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>No action under this part will be entertained unless commenced, in accordance with § 200.1500(a), within 6 years from the date on which the violation occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.1580" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.1580   Statistical sampling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In meeting the burden of proof in § 200.2015, the DHA may introduce the results of a statistical sampling study as evidence of the number and amount of claims and/or requests for payment, as described in this part, that were presented, or caused to be presented, by the respondent. Such a statistical sampling study, if based upon an appropriate sampling and computed by valid statistical methods, shall constitute prima facie evidence of the number and amount of claims or requests for payment, as described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Once the DHA has made a prima facie case, as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the burden of production shall shift to the respondent to produce evidence reasonably calculated to rebut the findings of the statistical sampling study. The DHA will then be given the opportunity to rebut this evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the DHA establishes a number and amount of claims subject to penalties using a statistical sampling study, the DHA may use the results of the study to extrapolate a total amount of overpaid funds to be collected pursuant to 32 CFR 199.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 200.1590-200.1990" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 200.1590-200.1990   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Appeals of CMPs and Assessments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2001" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2001   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Civil money penalty cases</I> refer to all proceedings arising under any of the statutory bases for which the DHA has been delegated authority to impose civil money penalties under TRICARE.
</P>
<P><I>DAB</I> refers to the Department of Health and Human Services, Departmental Appeals Board or its delegate, or other administrative appeals decision maker designated by the Director, DHA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2002" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2002   Hearing before an ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party sanctioned under any criteria specified in this part may request a hearing before an ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) In civil money penalty cases, the parties to the proceeding will consist of the respondent and the DHA.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for a hearing will be made in writing to the DAB; signed by the petitioner or respondent, or by his or her attorney; and sent by certified mail. The request must be filed within 60 days after the notice, provided in accordance with § 200.1500, is received by the petitioner or respondent. For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the notice letter will be presumed to be 5 days after the date of such notice unless there is a reasonable showing to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(d) The request for a hearing will contain a statement as to the specific issues or findings of fact and conclusions of law in the notice letter with which the petitioner or respondent disagrees, and the basis for his or her contention that the specific issues or findings and conclusions were incorrect.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ will dismiss a hearing request where—
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner's or the respondent's hearing request is not filed in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner or respondent withdraws his or her request for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner or respondent abandons his or her request for a hearing; or
</P>
<P>(4) The petitioner's or respondent's hearing request fails to raise any issue which may properly be addressed in a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2003" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2003   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise limited by this part, all parties may—
</P>
<P>(1) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by an attorney;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct discovery of documents as permitted by this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Agree to stipulations of fact or law which will be made part of the record;
</P>
<P>(5) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(6) Present and cross-examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(7) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(8) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law after the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Fees for any services performed on behalf of a party by an attorney are not subject to the provisions of section 206 of title II of the Act, which authorizes the Secretary to specify or limit these fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2004" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2004   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to—
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses at hearings and the production of documents at or in relation to hearings;
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of documentary discovery as permitted by this part;
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives, parties, and witnesses;
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact; and
</P>
<P>(13) Conduct any conference, argument or hearing in person or, upon agreement of the parties, by telephone.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to—
</P>
<P>(1) Find invalid or refuse to follow Federal statutes or regulations or secretarial delegations of authority;
</P>
<P>(2) Enter an order in the nature of a directed verdict;
</P>
<P>(3) Compel settlement negotiations;
</P>
<P>(4) Enjoin any act of the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(5) Review the exercise of discretion by the DHA to impose a CMP or assessment under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2005" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2005   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) will communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This section does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2006" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2006   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will schedule at least one prehearing conference, and may schedule additional prehearing conferences as appropriate, upon reasonable notice to the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact or as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of other parties) and written argument;
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery of documents as permitted by this part;
</P>
<P>(9) The time and place for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to encourage the fair, just and expeditious disposition of the proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(11) Potential settlement of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will issue an order containing the matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2007" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2007   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party may make a request to another party for production of documents for inspection and copying which are relevant and material to the issues before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, the term documents includes information, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained in this section will be interpreted to require the creation of a document, except that requested data stored in an electronic data storage system will be produced in a form accessible to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for documents, requests for admissions, written interrogatories, depositions, and any forms of discovery, other than those permitted under paragraph (a) of this section, are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(d) This section will not be construed to require the disclosure of interview reports or statements obtained by any party, or on behalf of any party, of persons who will not be called as witnesses by that party, or analyses and summaries prepared in conjunction with the investigation or litigation of the case, or any otherwise privileged documents.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) When a request for production of documents has been received, within 30 days, the party receiving that request will either fully respond to the request, or state that the request is being objected to and the reasons for that objection. If objection is made to part of an item or category, the part will be specified. Upon receiving any objections, the party seeking production may then, within 30 days or any other time frame set by the ALJ, file a motion for an order compelling discovery. (The party receiving a request for production may also file a motion for protective order any time prior to the date the production is due.)
</P>
<P>(2) The ALJ may grant a motion for protective order or deny a motion for an order compelling discovery if the ALJ finds that the discovery sought—
</P>
<P>(i) Is irrelevant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is unduly costly or burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will unduly delay the proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Seeks privileged information.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may extend any of the time frames set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2008" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2008   Exchange of witness lists, witness statements, and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing, the ALJ will order the parties to exchange witness lists, copies of prior written statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 200.2016.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If at any time a party objects to the proposed admission of evidence not exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the ALJ will determine whether the failure to comply with paragraph (a) of this section should result in the exclusion of such evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the ALJ finds that extraordinary circumstances justified the failure to timely exchange the information listed under paragraph (a) of this section, the ALJ must exclude from the party's case-in-chief:
</P>
<P>(i) The testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ finds that extraordinary circumstances existed, the ALJ must then determine whether the admission of such evidence would cause substantial prejudice to the objecting party. If the ALJ finds that there is no substantial prejudice, the evidence may be admitted. If the ALJ finds that there is substantial prejudice, the ALJ may exclude the evidence, or at his or her discretion, may postpone the hearing for such time as is necessary for the objecting party to prepare and respond to the evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within a reasonable period of time prior to the hearing, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2009" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2009   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may make a motion requesting the ALJ to issue a subpoena if the appearance and testimony are reasonably necessary for the presentation of a party's case.
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance of an individual in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section may also require the individual (whether or not the individual is a party) to produce evidence authorized under § 200.2007 at or prior to the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) When a subpoena is served by a respondent or petitioner on a particular individual or particular office of the DHA, the DHA may comply by designating any of its representatives to appear and testify.
</P>
<P>(d) A party seeking a subpoena will file a written motion not less than 30 days before the date fixed for the hearing, unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request will:
</P>
<P>(1) Specify any evidence to be produced;
</P>
<P>(2) Designate the witnesses; and
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the address and location with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found.
</P>
<P>(e) The subpoena will specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any evidence the witness is to produce.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 15 days after the written motion requesting issuance of a subpoena is served, any party may file an opposition or other response.
</P>
<P>(g) If the motion requesting issuance of a subpoena is granted, the party seeking the subpoena will serve it by delivery to the individual named, or by certified mail addressed to such individual at his or her last dwelling place or principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(h) The individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within 10 days after service.
</P>
<P>(i) The exclusive remedy for contumacy by, or refusal to obey a subpoena duly served upon, any person is specified in section 205(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2010" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2010   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena will pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage will accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the DHA, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2011" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2011   Form, filing, and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Forms.</I> (1) Unless the ALJ directs the parties to do otherwise, documents filed with the ALJ will include an original and two copies.
</P>
<P>(2) Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding will contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number, and a designation of the paper, such as motion to quash subpoena.
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading and paper will be signed by, and will contain the address and telephone number of the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative.
</P>
<P>(4) Papers are considered filed when they are mailed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the ALJ or the Secretary will, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document will be made by delivering a copy, or placing a copy of the document in the United States mail, postage prepaid and addressed, or with a private delivery service, to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by an attorney, service will be made upon such attorney in lieu of the party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the manner of service, will be proof of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2012" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2012   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued under this part, the time begins with the day following the act, event or default, and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday observed by the Federal Government, in which event it includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays observed by the Federal Government will be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional 5 days will be added to the time permitted for any response. This paragraph (c) does not apply to requests for hearing under § 200.2002.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2013" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2013   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application to the ALJ for an order or ruling will be by motion. Motions will state the relief sought, the authority relied upon and the facts alleged, and will be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions will be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 10 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ will make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2014" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2014   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or attorney, for failing to comply with an order or procedure, for failing to defend an action or for other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing. Such sanctions will reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct. Such sanction may include—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of refusal to provide or permit discovery under the terms of this part, drawing negative factual inferences or treating such refusal as an admission by deeming the matter, or certain facts, to be established;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibiting a party from introducing certain evidence or otherwise supporting a particular claim or defense;
</P>
<P>(3) Striking pleadings, in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(4) Staying the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(5) Dismissal of the action;
</P>
<P>(6) Entering a decision by default; and
</P>
<P>(7) Refusing to consider any motion or other action that is not filed in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(b) In civil money penalty cases commenced under section 1128A of the Social Security Act or under any provision in this part which incorporates section 1128A(c)(4) of the Social Security Act, the ALJ may also order the party or attorney who has engaged in any of the acts described in paragraph (a) of this section to pay attorney's fees and other costs caused by the failure or misconduct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2015" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2015   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the petitioner or respondent should be found liable under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) With regard to the burden of proof in civil money penalty cases under this part—
</P>
<P>(1) The respondent or petitioner, as applicable, bears the burden of going forward and the burden of persuasion with respect to affirmative defenses and any mitigating circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(2) The DHA bears the burden of going forward and the burden of persuasion with respect to all other issues.
</P>
<P>(c) The burden of persuasion will be judged by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing will be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A hearing under this part is not limited to specific items and information set forth in the notice letter to the petitioner or respondent. Subject to the 15-day requirement under § 200.2008, additional items and information, including aggravating or mitigating circumstances that arose or became known subsequent to the issuance of the notice letter, may be introduced by either party during its case-in-chief unless such information or items are—
</P>
<P>(i) Privileged; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Deemed otherwise inadmissible under § 200.2017.
</P>
<P>(2) After both parties have presented their cases, evidence may be admitted on rebuttal even if not previously exchanged in accordance with § 200.2008.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2016" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2016   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing will be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony (other than expert testimony) may be admitted in the form of a written statement. The ALJ may, at his or her discretion, admit prior sworn testimony of experts which has been subject to adverse examination, such as a deposition or trial testimony. Any such written statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witnesses, in a manner that allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing will be exchanged as provided in § 200.2008.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid repetition or needless consumption of time; and
</P>
<P>(3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ will permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination of witnesses as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This does not authorize exclusion of—
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity pro se or designated as the party's representative; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual engaged in assisting the attorney for the Inspector General (IG).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2017" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2017   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ will not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, for example, to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ must exclude irrelevant or immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence must be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement made in this action will be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) Evidence of crimes, wrongs, or acts other than those at issue in the instant case is admissible in order to show motive, opportunity, intent, knowledge, preparation, identity, lack of mistake, or existence of a scheme. Such evidence is admissible regardless of whether the crimes, wrongs, or acts occurred during the statute of limitations period applicable to the acts which constitute the basis for liability in the case, and regardless of whether they were referenced in the DHA's notice sent in accordance with § 200.1500.
</P>
<P>(h) The ALJ will permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(i) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record will be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(j) The ALJ may not consider evidence regarding the issue of willingness and ability to enter into and successfully complete a corrective action plan when such evidence pertains to matters occurring after the submittal of the case to the Secretary. The determination regarding the appropriateness of any corrective action plan is not reviewable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2018" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2018   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ and the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by any person, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) For good cause, the ALJ may order appropriate redactions made to the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2019" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2019   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ will fix the time for filing such briefs which are not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2020" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2020   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will issue an initial decision, based only on the record, which will contain findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may affirm, increase or reduce the penalties, assessment proposed or imposed by the DHA.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will issue the initial decision to all parties within 120 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs, if permitted, has expired. The decision will be accompanied by a statement describing the right of any party to file a notice of appeal with the DAB and instructions for how to file such appeal. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph (c), he or she will notify the parties of the reason for the delay and will set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, unless the initial decision is appealed to the DAB, it will be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the ALJ serves the parties with a copy of the decision. If service is by mail, the date of service will be deemed to be 5 days from the date of mailing.
</P>
<P>(e) If an extension of time within which to appeal the initial decision is granted under § 200.2021(a), except as provided in § 200.2022(a), the initial decision will become final and binding on the day following the end of the extension period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2021" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2021   Appeal to DAB.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may appeal the initial decision of the ALJ to the DAB by filing a notice of appeal with the DAB within 30 days of the date of service of the initial decision. The DAB may extend the initial 30 day period for a period of time not to exceed 30 days if a party files with the DAB a request for an extension within the initial 30 day period and shows good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) If a party files a timely notice of appeal with the DAB, the ALJ will forward the record of the proceeding to the DAB.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of appeal will be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions. Any party may file a brief in opposition to exceptions, which may raise any relevant issue not addressed in the exceptions, within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief. The DAB may permit the parties to file reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(d) There is no right to appear personally before the DAB or to appeal to the DAB any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ, except on the timeliness of a filing of the hearing request.
</P>
<P>(e) The DAB will not consider any issue not raised in the parties' briefs, nor any issue in the briefs that could have been raised before the ALJ but was not.
</P>
<P>(f) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the DAB that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is relevant and material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to adduce such evidence at such hearing, the DAB may remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) The DAB may decline to review the case, or may affirm, increase, reduce, reverse, or remand any penalty or assessment determined by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(h) The standard of review on a disputed issue of fact is whether the initial decision is supported by substantial evidence on the whole record. The standard of review on a disputed issue of law is whether the initial decision is erroneous.
</P>
<P>(i) Within 120 days after the time for submission of briefs and reply briefs, if permitted, has expired, the DAB will issue to each party to the appeal a copy of the DAB's decision and a statement describing the right of any petitioner or respondent who is found liable to seek judicial review.
</P>
<P>(j) Except with respect to any penalty or assessment remanded by the ALJ, the DAB's decision, including a decision to decline review of the initial decision, becomes final and binding 60 days after the date on which the DAB serves the parties with a copy of the decision. If service is by mail, the date of service will be deemed to be 5 days from the date of mailing.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) Any petition for judicial review must be filed within 60 days after the DAB serves the parties with a copy of the decision. If service is by mail, the date of service will be deemed to be 5 days from the date of mailing.
</P>
<P>(2) In compliance with 28 U.S.C. 2112(a), a copy of any petition for judicial review filed in any U.S. Court of Appeals challenging a final action of the DAB will be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the General Counsel of the DHA. The petition copy will be time-stamped by the clerk of the court when the original is filed with the court.
</P>
<P>(3) If the General Counsel of the DHA receives two or more petitions within 10 days after the DAB issues its decision, the General Counsel of the DHA will notify the U.S. Judicial Panel on Multidistrict Litigation of any petitions that were received within the 10-day period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2022" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2022   Stay of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a CMP case under section 1128A of the Act, the filing of a respondent's request for review by the DAB will automatically stay the effective date of the ALJ's decision.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) After the DAB renders a decision in a CMP case, pending judicial review, the respondent may file a request for stay of the effective date of any penalty or assessment with the ALJ. The request must be accompanied by a copy of the notice of appeal filed with the Federal court. The filing of such a request will automatically act to stay the effective date of the penalty or assessment until such time as the ALJ rules upon the request.
</P>
<P>(2) The ALJ may not grant a respondent's request for stay of any penalty or assessment unless the respondent posts a bond or provides other adequate security.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will rule upon a respondent's request for stay within 10 days of receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.2023" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.9.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.2023   Harmless error.</HEAD>
<P>No error in either the admission or the exclusion of evidence, and no error or defect in any ruling or order or in any act done or omitted by the ALJ or by any of the parties, including Federal representatives or TRICARE contractors is ground for vacating, modifying, or otherwise disturbing an otherwise appropriate ruling or order or act, unless refusal to take such action appears to the ALJ or the DAB inconsistent with substantial justice. The ALJ and the DAB at every stage of the proceeding will disregard any error or defect in the proceeding that does not affect the substantial rights of the parties.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="202" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 202—RESTORATION ADVISORY BOARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I> and 10 U.S.C. 2705.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 27618, May 12, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.1   Purpose, scope, definitions, and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part to establish regulations regarding the scope, characteristics, composition, funding, establishment, operation, adjournment, and dissolution of Restoration Advisory Boards (RABs).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope of responsibilities of RABs.</I> The purpose of a RAB is to provide:
</P>
<P>(1) An opportunity for stakeholder involvement in the environmental restoration process at Department of Defense (DoD) installations. Stakeholders are those parties that may be affected by environmental restoration activities at the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) A forum for the early discussion and continued exchange of environmental restoration program information between DoD installations, regulatory agencies, tribes, and the community.
</P>
<P>(3) An opportunity for RAB members to review progress, participate in a dialogue with, and provide comments and advice to the installation's decision makers concerning environmental restoration matters. Installations shall give careful consideration to the comments provided by the RAB members.
</P>
<P>(4) A forum for addressing issues associated with environmental restoration activities under the Defense Environmental Restoration Program (DERP) at DoD installations, including activities conducted under the Military Munitions Response program (MMRP) to address unexploded ordnance, discarded military munitions, and the chemical constituents of munitions. Environmental groups or advisory boards that address issues other than environmental restoration activities are not governed by this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Community RAB member</I> shall mean those individuals identified by community members and appointed by the Installation Commander to participate in a RAB who live and/or work in the affected community or are affected by the installation's environmental restoration program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Environmental restoration</I> shall include the identification, investigation, research and development, and cleanup of contamination from hazardous substances, including munitions and explosives of concern, and pollutants and contaminants.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installation</I> shall include active and closing DoD installations and formerly used defense sites (FUDS).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Installation Commander</I> shall include the Commanding Officer or the equivalent of a Commanding Officer at active installations; the Installation Commander or other Military Department officials who close the facility and are responsible for its disposal at Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) installations; or the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Project Management District Commander at FUDS.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Public participants</I> shall include anyone else who may want to attend the RAB meetings, including those individuals that may not live and/or work in the affected community or may not be affected by the installation's environmental restoration program but would like to attend and provide comments to the RAB.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stakeholders</I> are those parties that may be affected by environmental restoration activities at an installation, including family members of military personnel and civilian workers, local and state governments and EPA for NPL properties, tribal community members and indigenous people, and current landowners, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tribes</I> shall mean any Federally-recognized American Indian and Alaska Native government as defined by the most current Department of Interior/Bureau of Indian Affairs list of tribal entities published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to Section 104 of the Federally Recognized Tribe Act.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>RAB adjournment</I> shall mean when an Installation Commander, in consultation with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), state, tribes, RAB members, and the local community, as appropriate, close the RAB based on a determination that there is no longer a need for a RAB or when community interest in the RAB declines.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>RAB dissolution</I> shall mean when an Installation Commander, with the appropriate Military Component's Environmental Deputy Assistant Secretary's approval, disbands a RAB that is no longer fulfilling the intended purpose of advising and providing community input to an Installation Commander and decision makers on environmental restoration projects. Installation Commanders are expected to make every reasonable effort to ensure that a RAB performs its role as effectively as possible and a concerted attempt is made to resolve issues that affect the RAB's effectiveness. There are circumstances, however, that may prevent a RAB from operating effectively or fulfilling its intended purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other public involvement activities.</I> A RAB should complement other community involvement efforts occurring at an installation; however, it does not replace other types of community outreach and participation activities required by applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability of regulations to existing RABs.</I> The regulations in this part apply to all RABs regardless of when the RAB was established.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidance.</I> The Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environment shall issue guidance regarding the scope, characteristics, composition, funding, establishment, operation, adjournment, and dissolution of RABs pursuant to this rule. The issuance of any such guidance shall not be a precondition to the establishment of RABs or the implementation of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.2   Criteria for establishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining if sufficient interest warrants establishing a RAB.</I> A RAB should be established when there is sufficient and sustained community interest, and any of the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The closure of an installation involves the transfer of property to the community,
</P>
<P>(2) At least 50 local citizens petition the installation for creation of a RAB,
</P>
<P>(3) Federal, state, tribal, or local government representatives request the formation of a RAB, or
</P>
<P>(4) The installation determines the need for a RAB. To determine the need for establishing a RAB, an installation should:
</P>
<P>(i) Review correspondence files,
</P>
<P>(ii) Review media coverage,
</P>
<P>(iii) Consult local community members,
</P>
<P>(iv) Consult relevant government officials, and
</P>
<P>(v) Evaluate responses to communication efforts, such as notices placed in local newspapers and, if applicable, announced on the installation's Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility for forming or operating a RAB.</I> The installation shall have lead responsibility for forming and operating a RAB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Converting existing Technical Review Committees (TRCs) to RABs.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2705(d)(1), a RAB may fulfill the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 2705(c), which directs DoD to establish TRCs. DoD recommends that, where TRCs or similar advisory groups already exist, the TRC or similar advisory group be considered for conversion to a RAB, provided there is sufficient and sustained interest within the community.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.3   Notification of formation of a Restoration Advisory Board.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to establishing a RAB, an installation shall notify potential stakeholders of its intent to form a RAB. In announcing the formation of a RAB, the installation should describe the purpose of a RAB and discuss opportunities for membership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.4   Composition of a RAB.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership.</I> At a minimum, each RAB shall include representatives from DoD and the community. RAB community membership shall be well balanced and reflect the diverse interests within the local community.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government representation.</I> The RAB may also include representatives from the EPA at the discretion of the Regional Administrator of the appropriate EPA Regional Office, and state, tribal, and local governments, as appropriate. At closing installations where BRAC Cleanup Teams (BCT) exist, representatives of the BCT may also serve as the government representative(s) of the RAB. The Department encourages individuals and agencies involved with BRAC to participate in RABs at closing installations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community representation.</I> Community RAB members should live and/or work in the affected community or be affected by the installation's environmental restoration program. While DoD encourages individual tribal members to participate on RABs, RABs in no way replace or serve as a substitute forum for the government-to-government relationship between DoD and Federally-recognized tribes.
</P>
<P>(i) To support the objective selection of community RAB members, installations will use a selection panel comprised of community members to nominate community RAB members. The Installation Commander, in consultation with the state, tribal, and local governments and EPA, as appropriate, will identify community interests and solicit names of individuals who can represent these interests on the selection panel. The panel will establish the procedures for nominating community RAB members, the process for reviewing community interest, and criteria for selecting community RAB members. The panel will transmit the list of RAB nominees to the Installation Commander for appointment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Following the panel nominations, the Installation Commander, in consultation with the state and EPA, as appropriate, will review the nominations to ensure the panel fairly represents the local community. The Installation Commander will accept or reject the entire list of RAB nominees for appointment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chairmanship.</I> Each RAB established shall have two co-chairs, one representing the DoD installation and the other the community. Co-chairs shall be responsible for directing and managing the RAB operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compensation for community members of the RAB.</I> The community co-chair and community RAB members serve voluntarily. DoD will not compensate them for their participation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Operating Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.5   Creating a mission statement.</HEAD>
<P>The installation and community co-chair, in conjunction with the RAB members, shall determine the RAB mission statement in accordance with guidance provided by the DoD Components.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.6   Selecting co-chairs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DoD installation co-chair.</I> The DoD installation co-chair shall be selected by the Installation Commander or equivalent, or in accordance with Military Component-specific guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Community co-chair.</I> The community co-chair shall be selected by the community RAB members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.7   Developing operating procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Each RAB shall develop a set of operating procedures and the co-chairs are responsible for carrying them out. Areas that should be addressed in the procedures include:
</P>
<P>(a) Clearly defined goals and objectives for the RAB, as determined by the co-chairs in consultation with the RAB,
</P>
<P>(b) Meeting announcements,
</P>
<P>(c) Attendance requirements of members at meetings,
</P>
<P>(d) Development, approval and distribution procedures for the minutes of RAB meetings,
</P>
<P>(e) Meeting frequency and location,
</P>
<P>(f) Rules of order,
</P>
<P>(g) The frequency and procedures for conducting training,
</P>
<P>(h) Procedures for selecting or replacing co-chairs and selecting, replacing, or adding RAB members,
</P>
<P>(i) Specifics on the size of the RAB, periods of membership, and co-chair length of service,
</P>
<P>(j) Review of public comments and responses,
</P>
<P>(k) Participation of the general public,
</P>
<P>(l) Keeping the public informed about proceedings of the RAB,
</P>
<P>(m) Discussing the agenda for the next meeting and issues to be addressed, and
</P>
<P>(n) Methods for resolving disputes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.8   Training RAB members.</HEAD>
<P>Training is not required for RAB members. It may be advisable, however, to provide RAB members with some initial orientation training regarding the purpose and responsibilities of the RAB, familiarization on cleanup technologies, chemicals of concern, and sampling protocols, as well as informing them of the availability of independent technical advice and document review through EPA's Technical Assistant Grant program and DoD's Technical Assistance for Public Participation (TAPP) program, to enable them to fulfill their responsibilities. Training should be site-specific and beneficial to RAB members. The DoD installation may also provide in-house assistance to discuss technical issues. Funding for training activities must be within the scope of administrative support for RABs, as permitted in § 202.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.9   Conducting RAB meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public participation.</I> RAB meetings shall be open to the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The installation co-chair shall prepare and publish a timely public notice in a local newspaper of general circulation announcing each RAB meeting. If applicable, it is recommended that the meeting also be announced on the installation's Web site.
</P>
<P>(2) Each RAB meeting shall be held at a reasonable time and in a manner or place reasonably accessible to and usable by all participants, including persons with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Presentation materials and readable maps should be provided to all meeting participants as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Interested persons shall be permitted to attend, appear before, or file statements with any RAB, subject to such reasonable rules or regulations as may be prescribed. Open solicitation of public comments shall be permitted and members of the public will have a designated time on the agenda to speak to the RAB committee as a whole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of discussions.</I> The installation shall give careful consideration to all comments provided by individual RAB members. Group consensus is not a prerequisite for RAB input. Each member of the RAB may provide advice as an individual; however, when a RAB decides to vote or poll for consensus, only community members should participate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Meeting minutes.</I> The installation co-chair, in coordination with the community co-chair, shall prepare the minutes of each RAB meeting.
</P>
<P>(1) The RAB meeting minutes shall contain a record of the persons present; a complete and accurate description of matters discussed and comments received; and copies of all reports received, issued, or approved by the RAB. The accuracy of all minutes shall be certified by the RAB co-chairs. RAB minutes should be kept in the information repository; however, if the RAB minutes reflect decision-making, copies should also be documented in the Administrative Record.
</P>
<P>(2) The records, reports, minutes, appendixes, working papers, drafts, studies, agenda, or other documents that were made available to or prepared for or by each RAB shall be available for public inspection and copying at a publicly accessible location, such as the information repositories established under the installation's Community Relations Plan, a public library, or in the offices of the installation to which the RAB reports, until the RAB ceases to exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.10   RAB adjournment and dissolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>RAB adjournment</I>—(1) <I>Requirements for RAB adjournment.</I> An Installation Commander may adjourn a RAB with input from the community when there is no longer a need for a RAB or when community interest in the RAB no longer exists. An Installation Commander may consider adjourning the RAB in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) A record of decision has been signed for all DERP sites on the installation,
</P>
<P>(ii) An installation has achieved response complete at all sites and no further environmental restoration decisions are required,
</P>
<P>(iii) An installation has all remedies in place,
</P>
<P>(iv) The RAB has achieved the desired end goal as defined in the RAB Operating Procedures,
</P>
<P>(v) There is no longer sufficient, sustained community interest, as documented by the installation with RAB community members and community-at-large input, to sustain the RAB. The installation shall continue to monitor for any changes in community interest that could warrant reactivating or reestablishing the RAB, or
</P>
<P>(vi) The installation has been transferred out of DoD control and day-to-day responsibility for making restoration response decisions has been assumed by the transferee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjournment procedures.</I> If the Installation Commander is considering adjourning the RAB, the Installation Commander shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult with EPA, state, tribes, RAB members, and the local community, as appropriate, regarding adjourning the RAB and consider all responses before making a final decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) Document the rationale for adjournment in a memorandum in a memorandum for inclusion in the Administrative Record, notify the public of the decision through written notice to the RAB members and through publication of a notice in a local newspaper of general circulation, and describe other ongoing public involvement opportunities that are available if the Installation Commander decides to adjourn the RAB.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RAB dissolution</I>—(1) <I>Requirements for RAB dissolution.</I> An Installation Commander may recommend dissolution of a RAB when a RAB is no longer fulfilling the intended purpose of advising and providing community input to an Installation Commander and decision makers on environmental restoration projects as described in § 202.1(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dissolution procedures.</I> If the Installation Commander is considering dissolving the RAB, the Installation Commander shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult with EPA, state, tribal and local government representatives, as appropriate, regarding dissolving the RAB.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the RAB community co-chair and members in writing of the intent to dissolve the RAB and the reasons for doing so and provide the RAB members 30 days to respond in writing. The Installation Commander shall consider RAB member responses, and in consultation with EPA, state, tribal and local government representatives, as appropriate, determine the appropriate actions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the public of the proposal to dissolve the RAB and provide a 30-day public comment period on the proposal, if the Installation Commander decides to proceed with dissolution. At the conclusion of the public comment period, the Installation Commander will review the public comments, consult with EPA, state, tribal and local government representatives, as appropriate, and, if the Installation Commander still believes dissolution is appropriate, render a recommendation to that effect.
</P>
<P>(iv) Send the recommendation, responsiveness summary, and all supporting documentation via the chain-of-command to the Military Component's Environmental Deputy Assistant Secretary (or equivalent) for approval or disapproval. The Military Component's Environmental Deputy Assistant Secretary (or equivalent) shall notify the Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment) (or equivalent) of the decision to approve or disapprove the request to dissolve the RAB and the rationale for that decision.
</P>
<P>(v) Document the recommendation, responsiveness summary, and the rationale for dissolution in a memorandum for inclusion in the Administrative Record, notify the public of the decision through written notice to the RAB members and through publication of a notice in a local newspaper of general circulation and describe other ongoing public involvement opportunities that are available, once the Military Component's Environmental Deputy Assistant Secretary (or equivalent) makes a final decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reestablishing an adjourned or dissolved RAB.</I> An Installation Commander may reestablish an adjourned or dissolved RAB if there is sufficient and sustained community interest in doing so, and there are environmental restoration activities still ongoing at the installation or that may start up again. Where a RAB is adjourned or dissolved and environmental restoration activities continue, the Installation Commander should reassess community interest at least every 24 months. When all environmental restoration decisions have been made and required remedies are in place and are properly operating at an installation, reassessment of the community interest for reestablishing the RAB is not necessary. When additional environmental restoration decisions have to be made resulting from subsequent actions, such as long-term management and five-year reviews, the installation will reassess community interest for reestablishing the RAB. Where the reassessment finds sufficient and sustained community interest at previously adjourned or dissolved RABs, the Installation Commander should reestablish a RAB. Where the reassessment does not find sufficient and sustained community interest in reestablishing the RAB, the Installation Commander shall document in a memorandum for the record the procedures followed in the reassessment and the findings of the reassessment. This document shall be included in the Administrative Record for the installation. If there is interest in reestablishment at a previously dissolved RAB, but the Installation Commander determines that the same conditions exist that required the original dissolution, he or she will request, through the chain-of-command to the Military Component's Deputy Assistant Secretary, an exception to reestablishing the RAB. If those conditions no longer exist at a previously dissolved RAB, and there is sufficient and sustained interest in reestablishment, the Installation Commander should recommend to the Deputy Assistant Secretary that the RAB be reestablished. The Deputy Assistant Secretary will take the Installation Commander's recommendation under advisement and may approve that RAB for reestablishment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment.</I> If the Installation Commander intends to recommend dissolution of a RAB or reestablish a dissolved RAB, the Installation Commander shall notify the public of the proposal to dissolve or reestablish the RAB and provide a 30-day public comment period on the proposal. At the conclusion of the public comment period, the Installation Commander shall review public comments; consult with EPA and state, tribal, or local government representatives, as appropriate; prepare a responsiveness summary; and render a recommendation. The recommendation, responsiveness summary, and all supporting documentation should be sent via the chain-of-command to the Military Component's Environmental Deputy Assistant Secretary (or equivalent) for approval or disapproval. The Installation Commander shall notify the public of the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.11   Documenting RAB activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The installation shall document information on the activities of a RAB in the Information Repository. These activities shall include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Installation's efforts to survey community interest in forming a RAB,
</P>
<P>(2) Steps taken to establish a RAB where there is sufficient and sustained community interest,
</P>
<P>(3) How the RAB relates to the overall community involvement program, and
</P>
<P>(4) Steps taken to adjourn, dissolve, or reestablish the RAB.
</P>
<P>(b) When RAB input has been used in decision-making, it should be documented as part of the Administrative Record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 27617, May 12, 2006; 71 FR 30719, May 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Support, Funding, and Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.12   Administrative support and eligible expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative support.</I> Subject to the availability of funding, the installation shall provide administrative support to establish and operate a RAB.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible administrative expenses for a RAB.</I> The following activities specifically and directly associated with establishing and operating a RAB shall qualify as an administrative expense of a RAB:
</P>
<P>(1) RAB establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) Membership selection.
</P>
<P>(3) Training if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) Site specific and benefits the establishment and operation of a RAB.
</P>
<P>(ii) Relevant to the environmental restoration activities occurring at the installation.
</P>
<P>(4) Meeting announcements.
</P>
<P>(5) Meeting facilities.
</P>
<P>(6) Meeting facilitators, including translators.
</P>
<P>(7) Preparation of meeting agenda materials and minutes.
</P>
<P>(8) RAB-member mailing list maintenance and RAB materials distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Funding.</I> Subject to the availability of funds, administrative support to RABs may be funded as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At active installations, administrative expenses for a RAB shall be paid using funds from the Military Component's Environmental Restoration accounts.
</P>
<P>(2) At BRAC installations, administrative expenses for a RAB shall be paid using BRAC funds.
</P>
<P>(3) At FUDS, administrative expenses for a RAB shall be paid using funds from the Environmental Restoration account for the Formerly Used Defense Sites program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.13   Technical assistance for public participation.</HEAD>
<P>Community members of a RAB or TRC may request technical assistance for interpreting scientific and engineering issues with regard to the nature of environmental hazards at the installation and environmental restoration activities conducted, or proposed to be conducted, at the installation in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2705(e) and the TAPP regulations located in 32 CFR Part 203.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.10.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.14   Documenting and reporting activities and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The installation at which a RAB is established shall document the activities and meeting minutes and record the administrative expenses associated with the RAB in the information repository at a publicly accessible location. Installations shall use internal department and Military Component-specific reporting mechanisms to submit required information on RAB activities and expenditures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="203" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 203—TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE FOR PUBLIC PARTICIPATION (TAPP) IN DEFENSE ENVIRONMENTAL RESTORATION ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2705.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 5261, Feb. 2, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 203.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Part 203 is issued under the authority of section 2705 of Title 10, United States Code. In 1994, Congress authorized the Department of Defense (DoD) to develop a program to facilitate public participation by providing technical assistance to local community members of Restoration Advisory Boards (RABs) and Technical Review Committees (TRCs) (section 326 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1995, Pub.L. 103-337). In 1996, Congress revised this authority (section 324 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1996, Pub.L. 104-112). It is pursuant to this revised authority, which is codified as new subsection (3) of section 2705, that the Department of Defense issues this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.2   Purpose and availability of referenced material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the Technical Assistance for Public Participation (TAPP) program for the Department of Defense. It sets forth policies and procedures for providing technical assistance to community members of TRCs and RABs established at DoD installations in the United States and its territories. This part sets forth the procedures for the Department of Defense to accept and evaluate TAPP applications, to procure the assistance desired by community members of RABs and TRCs, and to manage the TAPP program. These provisions are applicable to all applicants/recipients of technical assistance as discussed in § 203.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any reference to documents made in this part necessary to apply for TAPP (e.g., the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circulars or DoD forms) are available through the DoD installations, the military department headquarters, or from the Department of Defense, Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security (DUSD(ES)), 3400 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3400.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the following terms shall have the meaning set forth:
</P>
<P><I>Affected.</I> Subject to an actual or potential health or environmental threat arising from a release or a threatened release at an installation where the Secretary of Defense is planning or implementing environmental restoration activities including a response action under the Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act as amended (CERCLA), corrective action under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), or other such actions under applicable Federal or State environmental restoration laws. This would include actions at active, closing, realigning, and formerly used defense installations. Examples of affected parties include individuals living in areas adjacent to installations whose health is or may be endangered by the release of hazardous substances at the facility.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant.</I> Any group of individuals that files an application for TAPP, limited by this part to community members of the RAB or TRC.
</P>
<P><I>Application.</I> A completed formal written request for TAPP that is submitted to the installation commander or to the identified decision authority designated for the installation. A completed application will include a TAPP project description.
</P>
<P><I>Assistance provider.</I> An individual, group of individuals, or company contracted by the Department of Defense to provide technical assistance under the Technical Assistance for Public Participation program announced in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Assistance provider's project manager.</I> The person legally authorized to obligate the organization executing a TAPP purchase order to the terms and conditions of the DoD's regulations and the contract, and designated by the provider to serve as the principal contact with the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Community Co-chair.</I> The individual selected by the community members of the RAB/TRC to represent them.
</P>
<P><I>Community member.</I> A member of the RAB or TRC who is also a member of the affected community. For the purpose of this part, community members do not include local, State, or Federal government officials acting in any official capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Community point of contact.</I> The community member of the RAB or TRC designated in the TAPP application as the focal point for communications with the Department of Defense regarding the TAPP procurement process. The community point of contact is responsible for completing the reporting requirements specified in § 203.14 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Contact.</I> A written agreement between the installation or other instrumentality of the Department of Defense and another party for services or supplies necessary to complete the TAPP project. Contracts include written agreements and subagreements for professional services or supplies necessary to complete the TAPP projects, agreements with consultants, and purchase orders.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer.</I> The Federal official designated to manage the contract used to fulfill the TAPP request by the RAB or TRC.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> Any party (e.g., Technical Assistance Provider) to whom the installation or other instrumentality of the Department of Defense awards a contract. In the context of this part, it is synonymous with assistance provider.
</P>
<P><I>Cost estimate.</I> An estimate of the total funding required for the assistance provider to complete the TAPP project.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Component.</I> The military services including the Army, Navy, Marine Corps, and Air Force and those defense agencies with an environmental restoration program.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Component Deputy Assistant Secretary.</I> The individual in the office of the Secretary of the Army, Navy, Air Force responsible for making environmental decisions for their component or the director of the Defense Agencies.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Installation.</I> A facility that is controlled or operated or otherwise possessed by a department, or agency of the United States Department of Defense within the United States and its territories. In the context of this part, formerly used defense sites (FUDS) are included within the definition of a DoD Installation.
</P>
<P><I>DoD RAB Co-chair.</I> The individual selected by the installation commander, or equivalent, to serve as the installation co-chair of the RAB, represent DoD's interests, serve as liaison with community RAB members, and advocate RAB concerns within the installation staff.
</P>
<P><I>EPA.</I> The United States Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Firm fixed price contract.</I> A contract wherein funding is fixed, prior to the initiation of a contract, for an agreed upon service or product.
</P>
<P><I>Formerly Used Defense Site (FUDS).</I> A site that has been owned by, leased to, possessed by, or otherwise under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense. The FUDS program does not apply to those sites outside U.S. jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase order.</I> An offer by the Government to buy supplies or services from a commercial source, upon specified terms and conditions, the total cost of which cannot exceed the small purchase limit of $100,000. Purchase orders are governed by Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR) (48 CFR part 13), and the Simplified Acquisition Procedures (SAP).
</P>
<P><I>Restoration Advisory Board (RAB).</I> The RAB is a forum for representatives of the Department of Defense, local community, and EPA and/or State, local, and tribal officials to discuss and exchange information about the installation's environmental restoration program. The RAB provides stakeholders an opportunity make their views known, review progress and participate in dialogue with the decision makers.
</P>
<P><I>Statement of Work.</I> That portion of a contract which describes the actual work to be done by means of specifications or minimum requirements, quantities, performance dates, time and place of performance, and quality requirements. It is key to any procurement because it is the basis for the contractor's response and development of proposed costs.
</P>
<P><I>TAPP approval.</I> Signifies that the Department of Defense has approved the eligibility of the proposed TAPP project and will, subject to the availability of funds, undertake an acquisition to obtain the services specified in the TAPP application submitted by the RAB or TRC. The government will conduct the acquisition in accordance with all of the applicable rules and requirements of the FAR and the SAP. Approval does not constitute an agreement to direct an award to a specific source if such an action would be contrary to the FAR.
</P>
<P><I>TAPP project description.</I> A discussion of the assistance requested that includes the elements listed in Section 203.10 of this part. The project description should contain sufficient detail to enable the Department of Defense to determine the nature and eligibility of the project, identify potential providers and estimate costs, and prepare a statement of work to begin the procurement process.
</P>
<P><I>Technical assistance.</I> Those activities specified in § 203.10 of this part that will contribute to the public's ability to provide input to the decision-making process by improving the public's understanding of overall conditions and activities. Technical assistance may include interpreting technical documents; assessing technologies; participating in relative risk evaluations, understanding health implications; and, training.
</P>
<P>Technical assistance does not include those activities prohibited under Section 203.11 of this part, such as litigation or underwriting legal actions; political activity; generation of new primary data such as well drilling and testing, including split sampling; reopening final DoD decisions or conducting disputes with the Department of Defense; or epidemiological or health studies, such as blood or urine testing.
</P>
<P><I>Technical Review Committee (TRC).</I> A group comprised of the Department of Defense, EPA, State, and local authorities and a public representative of the community formed to meet the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 2705(c), the Department of Defense Environmental Restoration Program. Primarily functioning to review installation restoration documents, these committees are being expanded and modified at installations where interest or need necessitates the creation of a RAB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.4   Major components of the TAPP process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense will issue purchase orders to technical assistance, facilitation, training, and other public participation assistance providers subject to the purchase limit per order as resources continue to be available. If multiple purchase orders are needed to assist community members of a particular RAB or TRC, the combined sum of these purchase orders cannot exceed $100,000 or, during any one year, the lesser of $25,000 or 1 percent of the installation's total projected environmental restoration cost-to-complete. Note that these limitations refer to the maximum allowable technical assistance funding per RAB/TRC. Resources available within a given year may vary. These limitations apply unless a waiver is granted by the DoD Component Secretary or equivalent for the installation in question. The $100,000 total and $25,000 annual limitations may be waived, as appropriate, to reflect the complexity of response action, the nature and extent of contamination at the installation, the level of activity at the installation, projected total needs as identified by the TAPP recipient, the size and diversity of the affected population, and the ability of the TAPP recipient to identify and raise funds from other sources.
</P>
<P>(b) Community members of the RAB/TRC will provide a description of the services requested (TAPP Project Description) and, if desired, the names of one or more proposed technical assistance providers to the DoD RAB Co-Chair, who will ensure the application is submitted to the installation commander or other designated authority and to the appropriate DoD contracting office. Technical assistance providers proposed by the community members of a RAB or TRC at each DoD installation that meets the minimum set of organizational qualifications guidelines provided by the Department of Defense in § 203.12 of this part will be added to the governments list of bidders for the proposed procurement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.5   TAPP process.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides an overview of the TAPP process. Specific details referred to in this section can be found in subsequent sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>TAPP funding.</I> Funding for this TAPP program will come from the Environmental Restoration Accounts established for Army, Navy, and Air Force for operational installations. The funding for Defense Agencies' operating installations will be from the Defense-Wide Environmental Restoration Account. Funding will be from the component's base closure account for transferring or closing installations. Funding for Formerly Used Defense Sites will come from the Environmental Restoration Account established for Formerly Used Defense Sites. After justification of the TAPP proposal, each DoD Component will make funds available from their individual installation's environmental restoration or BRAC accounts, considering a number of factors related to the restoration program at the installation and its impact upon the community. These factors include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Closure status.
</P>
<P>(2) Budget.
</P>
<P>(3) Installation restoration program status.
</P>
<P>(4) Presence (or absence) of alternate funding.
</P>
<P>(5) Relative risk posed by sites at the installation.
</P>
<P>(6) Type of task to be funded.
</P>
<P>(7) Community concern.
</P>
<P>(8) Available funding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identification of proposed TAPP project.</I> Eligible applicants of RABs and TRCs, established in § 203.7 of this part, should determine whether a TAPP project is required to assist the community members of the RAB or TRC to interpret information regarding the nature and extent of contamination or the proposed remedial actions. Eligibility requirements for TAPP projects are described in §§ 203.10 and 203.11 of this part. In keeping with the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 2705(e), the RAB or TRC must be able to demonstrate that the technical expertise necessary for the proposed TAPP project is not available through the Federal, State, or local agencies responsible for overseeing environmental restoration at the installation, or that the selection of an independent provider will contribute to environmental restoration activities and the community acceptance of such activities. In addition, the Department of Defense encourages the RAB or TRC to seek other available sources of assistance prior to submitting a request for TAPP in order to preserve limited resources. These sources include DoD's installation restoration contractor, or other DoD contractors or personnel, EPA or state regulatory personnel, volunteer services from local universities or other experts, or assistance from state and local health and environmental organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>TAPP project request.</I> The RAB or TRC should notify the installation of its intent to pursue TAPP upon the determination that other sources of assistance are unavailable or unlikely to contribute to the community acceptance of environmental restoration activities at the installation and should prepare a formal request specifying the type of assistance required and, if desired, one or more sources for this assistance. Details concerning this request are stated in § 203.9 of this part. The RAB or TRC must certify to the Department of Defense that the TAPP request represents a request by a majority of the community members of the RAB or TRC. The RAB or TRC should ensure that the request meets the eligibility requirements specified in §§ 203.10 and 203.11 of this part. Furthermore, the RAB or TRC may outline additional criteria for the Department of Defense to consider in the selection of a provider (such as knowledge of local environmental conditions or specific technical issues, a prior work history within the study area which has relevant specific circumstances or unique challenges, or other relevant expertise or capabilities), keeping in mind that providers must meet the minimum technical qualifications outlined in § 203.12 of this part. The formal request should be submitted to the installation commander or designated decision authority, either directly, or through the DoD RAB Co-chair. The installation commander, or other designated decision authority, will review the proposed project to determine whether the proposed project conforms to the eligibility requirements. If the installation commander, or other designated authority, fails to approve the project request, the rationale for that decision will be provided to the RAB/TRC in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purchase orders.</I> Upon receipt of a completed TAPP request, the installation will begin the procurement process necessary to obtain the desired services by means of a purchase order or will forward the request to the contracting authority designated by the DoD Component to act for that installation. The government is required to follow the rules and regulations for purchase orders as outlined in the FAR (48 CFR part 13). As a result, the government cannot direct awards to a specified supplier unless the procurement is under $2,500, and then only if the cost is comparable to other suppliers. For procurements over $2,500 but under $100,000, the acquisition is reserved for small businesses, unless there is a reasonable expectation that small businesses could not provide the best scientific and technological sources consistent with the demands of the proposed acquisition for the best mix of cost, performance, and schedules. Furthermore, the award must be on a competitive basis. In addition to proposing potential providers, the application for technical assistance may indicate specific criteria or qualifications that are deemed necessary by the RAB/TRC for the completion of the project to their satisfaction. This information will be used to assist the Department of Defense in preparing a bidders list. The Department of Defense will solicit bids from those providers meeting the criteria and will select a provider offering the best value to the government. Should the procurement process identify a qualified respondent other than the proposed provider(s) identified by the RAB/TRC or fail to identify any qualified respondents, the RAB/TRC will be consulted prior to the award of a purchase order. If the Department of Defense determines that the TAPP request represents an eligible project for which no funds are available, it will ask the RAB or TRC to specify whether the project should be reconsidered upon the availability of additional funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The applicant must assure that copies of delivered reports are made available to the Department of Defense and must comply with the reporting requirements established in § 203.14 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.6   Cost principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Non-profit contractors must comply with the cost principles in OMB Circular A-122. Copies of the circular may be obtained from EOP Publications, 725 17th NW, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503.
</P>
<P>(b) For-profit contractors and subcontractors must comply with the cost principles in the FAR (48 CFR part 31).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.7   Eligible applicants.</HEAD>
<P>Eligible applicants are community members of RABs or TRCs. Furthermore, the RABs or TRCs must be comprised of at least three community members to ensure community interests are broadly represented. The applicant must certify that the request represents the wishes of a simple majority of the community members of the RAB or TRC. Certification includes, but is not limited to, the results of a roll call vote of community members of the RAB or TRC documented in the meeting minutes. Other requirements of the application are detailed in § 203.9 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.8   Evaluation criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Defense will begin the TAPP procurement process only after it has determined that all eligibility and responsibility requirements listed in §§ 203.6, 203.7, and 203.9 of this part are met, and after review of the specific provider qualifications as submitted in the narrative section of the application. In addition, the proposed TAPP project must meet the eligibility criteria as specified in §§ 203.10 and 203.11 of this part. Projects that fail to meet those requirements relating to the relevance of the proposed project to the restoration activities at the installation will not be approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.9   Submission of application.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant must submit a TAPP application to begin the TAPP procurement process. The application form is included as appendix A of this part and can be obtained from the DoD installation, the DoD Component headquarters, or directly from the Department of Defense, Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security, 3400 Defense Pentagon, Washington, D.C. 20301-3400. The applications will not be considered complete until the following data elements have been entered into the form:
</P>
<P>(a) Installation.
</P>
<P>(b) Source of TAPP request (names of RAB or TRC).
</P>
<P>(c) Certification of majority request.
</P>
<P>(d) RAB/TRC contact point for TAPP project.
</P>
<P>(e) Project title.
</P>
<P>(f) Project type (e.g. data interpretation, training, etc.).
</P>
<P>(g) Project purpose and description (descriptions, time and locations of products or services desired).
</P>
<P>(h) Statement of eligibility of project.
</P>
<P>(i) Proposed provider, if known.
</P>
<P>(j) Specific qualifications or criteria for provider.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.10   Eligible activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) TAPP procurements should be pursued by the RAB or TRC only to the extent that Federal, State, or local agencies responsible for overseeing environmental restoration at the facility do not have the necessary technical expertise for the proposed project, or the proposed technical assistance will contribute to the efficiency, effectiveness, or timeliness of environmental restoration activities at the installation and is likely to contribute to community acceptance of those activities.
</P>
<P>(b) TAPP procurements may be used to fund activities that will contribute to the public's ability to provide advice to decision-makers by improving the public's understanding of overall conditions and activities. Categories of eligible activities include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interpret technical documents.</I> The installation restoration program documents each stage of investigation and decision-making with technical reports that summarize data and support cleanup decisions. Technical assistance may be provided to review plans and interpret technical reports for community members of RABs and TRCs. These reports include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Installation restoration program site studies, engineering documents, such as site inspections, remedial investigations, feasibility studies, engineering evaluation and cost analyses, and decision documents (including records of decision);
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk assessments, including baseline and ecological risk assessments conducted by the installation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Health assessments, such as those conducted by the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assess technologies.</I> Technical assistance may be provided to help RAB/TRC community members understand the function and implications of those technologies selected to investigate or clean up sites at the installation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participate in relative risk site evaluations.</I> Technical assistance may be provided to help RAB/TRC community members contribute to the relative risk evaluation process for specific sites.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Understand health implications.</I> Technical assistance may be provided to help RAB/TRC community members interpret the potential health implications of cleanup levels or remedial technologies, or to explain the health implications of site contaminants and exposure scenarios.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Training, where appropriate.</I> Technical trainers on specific restoration issues may be appropriate in circumstances where RAB/TRC members need supplemental information on installation restoration projects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.11   Ineligible activities.</HEAD>
<P>The following activities are ineligible for assistance under the TAPP program:
</P>
<P>(a) Litigation or underwriting legal actions, such as paying for attorney fees or paying for a technical assistance provider to assist an attorney in preparing legal action or preparing for and serving as an expert witness at any legal proceeding regarding or affecting the site.
</P>
<P>(b) Political activity and lobbying as defined by OMB Circular A-122.
</P>
<P>(c) Other activities inconsistent with the cost principles stated in OMB Circular A-122, “Cost Principles for Non-Profit Organizations.”
</P>
<P>(d) Generation of new primary data, such as well drilling and testing, including split sampling.
</P>
<P>(e) Reopening final DoD decisions, such as the Records of Decision (see limitations on judicial review of remedial actions under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) Section 113(h)) or conducting disputes with the Department of Defense).
</P>
<P>(f) Epidemiological or health studies, such as blood or urine testing.
</P>
<P>(g) Community outreach efforts, such as renting a facility and conducting public meetings, or producing and distributing newsletters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.12   Technical assistance for public participation provider qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A technical assistance provider must possess the following credentials:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrated knowledge of hazardous or toxic waste issues and/or laws.
</P>
<P>(2) Academic training in a relevant discipline (e.g., biochemistry, toxicology, environmental sciences, engineering).
</P>
<P>(3) Ability to translate technical information into terms understandable to lay persons.
</P>
<P>(b) A technical assistance provider should possess the following credentials:
</P>
<P>(1) Experience working on hazardous or toxic waste problems.
</P>
<P>(2) Experience in making technical presentations.
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstrated writing skills.
</P>
<P>(4) Previous experience working with affected individuals or community groups or other groups of individuals.
</P>
<P>(c) The technical assistance provider's qualifications will vary according to the type of assistance to be provided. Community members of the RAB/TRC may suggest additional provider qualifications as part of the application for technical assistance. These additional qualifications may be used by the Department of Defense to target the most appropriate providers during the procurement process. Examples of such criteria could include prior work in the area, knowledge of local environmental conditions or laws, specific technical capabilities, or other relevant expertise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.13   Procurement.</HEAD>
<P>Procurements will be conducted as purchase orders in accordance with the FAR (48 CFR part 13). Under these procedures, procurements not exceeding $100,000 are reserved exclusively for small businesses, and will be conducted as competitive procurements. Procurements below a value of $2,500 are considered “micro-purchases.” These procurements do not require the solicitation of bids and may be conducted at the discretion of the contracting officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.14   RAB/TRC reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The community point of contact of the RAB or TRC must submit a report, to be provided to the installation and to DUSD(ES), to enable the Department of Defense to meet DoD reporting requirements to Congress. This report should include a description of the TAPP project, a summary of services and products obtained, and a statement regarding the overall satisfaction of the community member of the RAB or TRC with the quality of service and/or products received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.15   Method of payment.</HEAD>
<P>The SAP set forth in FAR (48 CFR part 13) require purchase orders to be conducted on a firm-fixed-price basis, unless otherwise authorized by agency procedures. The Department of Defense anticipates all TAPP awards to be firm-fixed-price procurements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.16   Record retention and audits.</HEAD>
<P>The recipient technical assistance providers shall keep and preserve detailed records in connection with the contract reflecting acquisitions, work progress, reports, expenditures and commitments, and indicate the relationship to established costs and schedules.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.17   Technical assistance provider reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each technical assistance provider shall submit progress reports, financial status reports, materials prepared for the RAB/TRC, and a final report to the DoD installation for the TAPP project as specified by the specific purchase order agreement. The final report shall document TAPP project activities over the entire period of support and shall describe the achievements with respect to stated TAPP project purposes and objectives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.18   Conflict of interest and disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Defense shall require each prospective assistance provider on any contract to provide, with its bid or proposal:
</P>
<P>(a) Information on its financial and business relationship with the installation, RAB/TRC members, or any/all potentially responsible parties (PRPs) at the site, and with their parent companies, subsidiaries, affiliates, subcontractors, contractors, and current clients or attorneys and agents. This disclosure requirement encompasses past and anticipated financial and business relationships, including services related to any proposed or pending litigation, with such parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Certification that, to the best of its knowledge and belief, it has disclosed such information or no such information exists.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that it shall disclose immediately any such information discovered after submission of its bid or after award. The contracting officer shall evaluate such information and shall exclude any prospective contractor if the contracting officer determines the prospective contractor has a potential conflict of interest that is both significant and cannot be avoided or otherwise resolved. If, after award, the contracting officer determines that a conflict of interest exists that is both significant and cannot be avoided or resolved, the contract will be terminated for cause.
</P>
<P>(d) Contractors and subcontractors may not be technical assistance providers to community members of RABs/TRCs at an installation where they are performing cleanup activities for the Federal or State government or any other entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.19" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.19   Appeals process.</HEAD>
<P>DoD Components will establish an appeals process to settle potential disputes between the Department of Defense and the public regarding certain decisions arising out of the TAPP process. The Department of Defense recognizes that the RAB/TRC may disagree with the findings of the installation commander that a proposed TAPP project is ineligible, either because of the availability of alternate sources of assistance or because the project does not meet the eligibility criteria established in this part. It is in the best interests of the Department of Defense and the community members of RABs and TRCs to anticipate and avoid disputes and to work cooperatively to resolve potential differences of opinion. However, in certain circumstances, the RAB/TRC community members may feel that their needs were not adequately served by the decisions of the Department of Defense. In this instance, the hierarchical structure and chain-of-command within each DoD Component will serve as the avenue for appeal. Appeals will be considered within the chain-of-command, and, in general, will be resolved at the lowest level possible. The highest level of appeal will be at the DoD Component Deputy Assistant Secretary level with authority over the DERP and BRAC environmental programs. Inherently governmental functions, such as the procurement process governed by the FAR, are not subject to appeal.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.11.0.1.20.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 203—Technical Assistance for Public Participation Request Form

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er02fe98.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er02fe98.007.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="207" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 207 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="208" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 208—NATIONAL SECURITY EDUCATION PROGRAM (NSEP) AND NSEP SERVICE AGREEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 1901-1912, 50 U.S.C. 1903, 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 87450, Dec. 5, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.1   208.1 Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements the responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense for administering NSEP.
</P>
<P>(b) Updates DoD policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures and requirements for administering and executing the NSEP service agreement in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
</P>
<P>(c) Modifies requirements related to the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) Assigns oversight of NSEP to the Defense Language and National Security Education Office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative agent, and all recipients of awards by NSEP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative agent.</I> Organization that will administer, direct, and manage resources for NSEP.
</P>
<P><I>Boren Fellowship.</I> A competitive award granted for graduate study under NSEP.
</P>
<P><I>Boren Scholarship.</I> A competitive award granted for undergraduate study abroad under NSEP.
</P>
<P><I>Critical area.</I> Determined by the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the members of the National Security Education Board, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37 and 50 U.S.C. 1903.
</P>
<P><I>Critical foreign language.</I> Determined by the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the members of the National Security Education Board in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
</P>
<P><I>Deferral of the NSEP service agreement.</I> Official NSEP documentation signed by the Director, NSEP, or his or her designee, by which an NSEP award recipient pursuing approved, qualified further education is allowed to postpone meeting the service deadline.
</P>
<P>(1) A deferral reschedules the date by which an NSEP award recipient must begin to fulfill service.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified further education includes, but is not limited to, no less than half-time enrollment in any degree-granting, accredited institution of higher education worldwide or participation in an academic fellowship program (<I>e.g.,</I> Fulbright Fellowship, Thomas R. Pickering Foreign Affairs Fellowship).
</P>
<P>(3) A deferral is calculated by first calculating the length of enrollment in the degree program from start date to anticipated graduation date, and then adding the length of enrollment in the degree program to the service deadline.
</P>
<P>(4) Approvals of deferrals will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P><I>Extension of the NSEP service agreement.</I> Official NSEP documentation signed by the ASD(R), through the DASD(FE&amp;T), by which an NSEP award recipient who has completed award requirements, reached the service deadline, and is actively seeking to fulfill the NSEP service agreement in a well-documented manner is allowed to extend the service deadline. An extension reschedules the date by which an NSEP award recipient must complete the service required in the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Intelligence Community.</I> The U.S. Intelligence Community is a coalition of 17 agencies and organizations within the executive branch that work both independently and collaboratively to gather the intelligence necessary to conduct foreign relations and national security activities.
</P>
<P><I>Language proficiency.</I> The U.S. Government relies on the Interagency Language Roundtable (ILR) scale to determine language proficiency. According to the ILR scale:
</P>
<P>(1) 0 is No Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) 0+ is Memorized Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(3) 1 is Elementary Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(4) 1+ is Elementary Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(5) 2 is Limited Working Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(6) 2+ is Limited Working Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(7) 3 is General Professional Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(8) 3+ is General Professional Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(9) 4 is Advanced Professional Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(10) 4+ is Advanced Professional Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(11) 5 is Functional Native Proficiency.
</P>
<P><I>NSEP Service Approval Committee.</I> Committee of key NSEP staff members who review the merits of all requests for service credit, deferrals, extensions, or waivers of the NSEP service agreement, including adjudication of all cases involving award recipients who decline job offers, in order to provide recommendations to the Director, NSEP.
</P>
<P><I>Other federal agencies.</I> Includes any federal government agency, department, bureau, office or any other federal government organization of any nature other than the Department of Defense or any component, agency, department, field activity or any other subcomponent of any kind within or subordinate to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P><I>Program end date.</I> Official end of an NSEP award recipient's program, as set forth within the individual's NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Request of service credit in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement.</I> Written request made through submission of a DD Form 2753 to the NSEP office, documenting how employment an NSEP award recipient held or holds complies with fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC).</I> College program offered at colleges and universities across the United States that prepares young adults to become officers in the U.S. Military. In exchange for a paid college education and a guaranteed post-college career, cadets commit to serve in the Military after graduation. Each Service branch has its own take on ROTC.
</P>
<P><I>Satisfactory academic progress.</I> Maintenance of academic standards at both home and host institution(s) for every NSEP award recipient for the duration of the study program.
</P>
<P><I>Service deadline.</I> Date by which NSEP award recipient must begin to fulfill the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver of the NSEP service agreement.</I> Official NSEP documentation, signed by the ASD(R), through the DASD(FE&amp;T), by which an NSEP award recipient is relieved of responsibilities associated with the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Work in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement.</I> Upon completion of the NSEP award recipient's study program, such individual must seek employment in the DoD, Department of Homeland Security (DHS), Department of State (DOS), or the Intelligence Community, or if no suitable position is available, anywhere in the U.S. Government in a position with national security responsibilities. If such individual is unsuccessful in finding a federal position after making a good faith effort to do so, award recipient agrees to seek employment in the field of education in a position related to the study supported by such scholarship or fellowship. The award recipient further agrees to fulfill the service requirement, as described in this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) NSEP assist in making available to DoD and other federal entities, as applicable, personnel possessing proficiency in languages and foreign regional expertise critical to national security by providing scholarships and fellowships pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a). These scholarships and fellowships will be awarded to:
</P>
<P>(1) Students who are U.S. citizens, to pursue qualifying undergraduate and graduate study in domestic and foreign education systems to assist in meeting national security needs for professionals with in-depth knowledge of world languages and cultures, and who enter into an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. 1902(b); or
</P>
<P>(2) Students who are U.S. citizens who are native speakers of a foreign language identified as critical to the national security of the United States, but who are not proficient at a professional level in the English language with respect to reading, writing, and other skills, to enable such students to pursue English language studies at institutions of higher education. Recipients must agree to enter into an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. 1902(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Grants will be awarded to institutions of higher education for programs in critical areas pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a) and 1902(f) to implement a national system of programs to produce advanced language expertise critical to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) An NSEP award recipient must enter into an NSEP service agreement before receipt of an award as required by 50 U.S.C. chapter 37. The award recipient must agree to maintain satisfactory academic progress and work in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement until all service requirements are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(d) All NSEP award recipients who are government employees or members of the uniformed services at the time of award must confirm that they have resigned from such employment or service before receiving support for their NSEP-funded overseas study. These stipulations apply to all individuals, including employees of a department, agency, or entity of the U.S. Government and members of the uniformed services, including members of a Reserve Component of the uniformed services. ROTC participants who are also members of a Reserve Component must be in an inactive, non-drilling status during the course of their NSEP-funded overseas study.
</P>
<P>(e) Neither DoD nor the U.S. Government is obligated to provide, or offer work or employment to, award recipients as a result of participation in the program. All federal agencies are encouraged to assist in placing NSEP award recipients upon successful completion of the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)), the ASD(R):
</P>
<P>(1) Develops programs, processes, and policies to support NSEP award recipients in fulfilling their NSEP service agreement through internships or employment in federal service pursuant to 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
</P>
<P>(2) Determines, pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a), after consultation with the National Security Education Board, which countries, languages, and disciplines are critical and in which there are deficiencies of knowledgeable personnel within federal entities.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R) through the ASD(R), and in coordination with the Director, Department of Defense Human Resources Activity (DoDHRA), the DASD(FE&amp;T), or his or her designee:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes available competitive scholarship, fellowship, and English for Heritage Language Speakers (EHLS) awards to U.S. citizens who wish to engage in study for the purposes of national security in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
</P>
<P>(2) Manages, oversees, and monitors compliance of NSEP service agreements on behalf of the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Advises NSEP award recipients who are seeking federal or national security positions on how to fulfill their NSEP service agreement in national security positions.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintains documentation of successful completion of federal service or initiates debt collection procedures for those NSEP recipients who fail to comply with the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Works with agencies or offices in the U.S. Government to identify potential employment opportunities for NSEP award recipients and make employment opportunities and information readily available to all award recipients.
</P>
<P>(6) Approves or disapproves all DD Form 2573 written requests for service credit, deferrals, extensions, or waivers of the NSEP service agreement, including adjudication of all cases involving award recipients who decline job offers.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), and in coordination with the DASD(FE&amp;T), the Director, DoDHRA:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides administrative and operational support to NSEP.
</P>
<P>(2) Provides fiscal management and oversight to ensure all funds provided for NSEP are separately and visibly accounted for in the DoD budget.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NSEP award recipients.</I> The award recipient of any scholarship or fellowship award through NSEP will:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain satisfactory academic progress in the course of study for which assistance is provided, according to the regularly prescribed standards and practices of the institution in which the award recipient is matriculating.
</P>
<P>(2) As a condition of receiving an award, sign an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. chapter 37, which among other requirements, must acknowledge an understanding and agreement by the award recipient that failure to maintain satisfactory academic progress constitutes grounds upon which the award may be terminated and trigger the mandatory requirement to return to the U.S. Treasury the scholarship, fellowship, or EHLS funds provided to the award recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the DASD(FE&amp;T) within ten business days if advised of failure to maintain academic progress by the institution of matriculation.
</P>
<P>(4) Notify the DASD(FE&amp;T) in a timely manner and in advance of the service deadline should any request for deferral, extension, or waiver become necessary.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Deferrals.</I> NSEP award recipients actively seeking to fulfill the NSEP service agreement in a well-documented manner may request approval of a one-year extension of their service deadline. Approvals of deferrals for pursuit of education will be considered on a case-by-case basis. Renewal of a deferral may be granted if adequately justified.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extensions.</I> A thorough outline describing all further plans to complete the NSEP service agreement must accompany all extension requests. No more than two extensions may be granted to an NSEP award recipient.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Waivers.</I> (A) In extraordinary circumstances, an NSEP award recipient may be relieved of responsibilities associated with the NSEP service agreement. As a result of receiving a waiver, the award recipient will no longer receive job search assistance from NSEP; is no longer a beneficiary of the special hiring advantages available to award recipients who have a service requirement; and will not be eligible to receive NSEP letters of certification, or endorsements or recommendations. Upon request, the NSEP office will continue to certify that the award recipient received an NSEP scholarship or fellowship.
</P>
<P>(B) The DASD(FE&amp;T), will consider requests for extensions and waivers of the NSEP service agreement only under special circumstances as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The request must set forth the basis, situation, and causes which support the requested action. The award recipient must submit requests electronically on <I>www.nsepnet.org</I> or to <I>nsep@nsep.gov.</I> Final approval of work in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement, deferrals, extensions, and waivers rest with, and are at the discretion of, the DASD(FE&amp;T).
</P>
<P>(5) Immediately upon successful completion of the award program and either completion of the degree for which the award recipient is matriculated or withdrawal from such degree program, begin the federal job search. Award recipients should concurrently seek positions within DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, the DHS, or DOS.
</P>
<P>(6) Work to satisfy all service requirements in accordance with applicable NSEP service agreements until all NSEP service requirements are satisfied. Work in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement must be wholly completed within five years of the award recipient's first date of service unless an approved deferral or extension has been granted.
</P>
<P>(7) Work for the total period of time specified in the NSEP service agreement either consecutively in one organization, or through follow-on employment in two or more organizations.
</P>
<P>(8) Repay the U.S. Treasury the award funds provided to the award recipient if the requirements of the NSEP service agreement are not met.
</P>
<P>(9) Submit DD Form 2753 to NSEP no later than one month after termination of the period of study funded by NSEP and annual reports thereafter until the NSEP service requirement is satisfied. The DD Form 2753 will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any requests for deferrals, extensions, or waivers with adequate support for such requests.
</P>
<P>(ii) The award recipient's current status (<I>e.g.,</I> not yet graduated from, or terminated enrollment in, the degree program pursued while receiving NSEP support; engaged in work in fulfillment of the requirement.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Updated contact information.
</P>
<P>(10) Notify the ASD(R), through the DASD(FE&amp;T), within ten business days of any changes to the award recipient's mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and requirements applicable to NSEP aard recipients</I>—(1) <I>NSEP service agreement.</I> Award recipients of any scholarship, fellowship, or EHLS award through this program must comply with the terms of the NSEP service agreement they signed. NSEP awards entered into before the date of this part will be governed by the laws, regulations, and policies in effect at the time that the award was made. The NSEP service agreement for recipients awarded as of the date of this part will:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b) outlines requirements for NSEP award recipients to fulfill their federal service requirement through work in positions that contribute to the national security of the United States. An emphasis is placed on work within one of four organizations: DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, DHS, or DOS. On a case-by-case basis, NSEP may consider employment with a federal contractor of one of these four priority organizations as meeting the service requirement should the award recipient provide adequate documentary evidence that the salary for the position is funded by the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stipulate that absent the availability of a suitable position in the four priority organizations or a contractor thereof, award recipients may satisfy the service requirement by serving in any federal agency or office in a position with national security responsibilities. It will also stipulate that absent the availability of a suitable position in DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, DHS, DOS, a contractor thereof, or any federal agency with national security responsibilities, award recipients may satisfy the service requirement by working in the field of education in a discipline related to the study supported by the program if the recipient satisfactorily demonstrates to the Secretary of Defense through the Director, NSEP, that no position is available in the departments, agencies, and offices covered by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Implementation.</I> The NSEP service agreement will be implemented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to receiving assistance, the award recipient must sign an NSEP service agreement. The award recipient will submit to the NSEP Administrative Agent, in advance of program of study start date, any proposed changes to the approved award program (<I>i.e.,</I> course and schedule changes, withdrawals, course or program incompletions, unanticipated or increased costs).
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum length of service requirement for undergraduate scholarship, graduate fellowship, and EHLS award recipients is one year. The duration of the service requirement for graduate fellowship award recipients is equal to the duration of assistance provided by NSEP.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), undergraduate scholarship students must begin fulfilling the NSEP service agreement within three years of completion or termination of their undergraduate degree program.
</P>
<P>(iv) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), graduate fellowship students must begin fulfilling the NSEP service agreement within two years of completion or termination of their graduate degree program.
</P>
<P>(v) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), EHLS award recipients must begin fulfilling the service requirement within three years of completion of their program.
</P>
<P>(vi) The award recipient must accept a reasonable offer of employment, as defined by the Director, NSEP, or his or her designee, in accordance with the NSEP service agreement, at a salary deemed by the hiring organization as commensurate with the award recipient's education level, and consistent with the terms and conditions of the NSEP service agreement.
</P>
<P>(vii) The award recipient will annually submit a DD Form 2753 to NSEP until all NSEP service agreement requirements are satisfied. The DD Form 2753 must be received and reviewed by the NSEP Service Approval Committee. The receipt of a completed DD Form 2753 will be acknowledged through official correspondence from NSEP. Award recipients who do not submit the DD Form 2753 as required will be notified by NSEP of the intent to pursue collection action.
</P>
<P>(viii) If the award recipient fails to maintain satisfactory academic progress for any term in which assistance is provided, probationary measures of the host institution will apply to the award recipient. Failure to meet the institution's requirements to resume satisfactory academic progress within the prescribed guidelines of the institution will result in the termination of assistance to the award recipient.
</P>
<P>(ix) Extenuating circumstances, such as illness of the award recipient or a close relative, death of a close relative, or an interruption of study caused by the host institution, may be considered acceptable reasons for non-satisfactory academic progress. The award recipient must notify the NSEP Administrative Agent of any extenuating circumstances within 10 business days of occurrence. The NSEP Administrative Agent will review these requests to determine what course of action is appropriate and make a recommendation to NSEP for final determination. The DASD(FE&amp;T) will upon receipt of the NSEP Administrative Agent recommendation, determine by what conditions to terminate or reinstate the award to the award recipient.
</P>
<P>(x) NSEP award recipients may apply to the DASD(FE&amp;T) for a deferral of the NSEP service agreement requirement if pursuing qualified further education.
</P>
<P>(xi) NSEP award recipients may apply to the DASD(FE&amp;T), to receive an extension of the NSEP service agreement requirement if actively seeking to fulfill the NSEP service agreement in a well-documented manner.
</P>
<P>(xii) In extraordinary circumstances an NSEP award recipient may request a waiver to be relieved of responsibilities associated with the NSEP service agreement. Conditions for requesting a waiver to the NSEP service agreement may include:
</P>
<P>(A) Situations in which compliance is either impossible or would involve extreme hardship to the award recipient.
</P>
<P>(B) Interruptions in service due to temporary physical or medical disability or other causes beyond the award recipient's control.
</P>
<P>(C) Unreasonable delays in the hiring process not caused by the award recipient, including delays in obtaining a security clearance if required for employment.
</P>
<P>(D) Hiring freezes that adversely affect award recipients who are seeking positions with the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(E) Permanent physical or medical disability that prevent the award recipient from fulfilling the obligation.
</P>
<P>(F) Inability to complete the NSEP service agreement due to terminations or interruptions of work beyond the award recipient's control.
</P>
<P>(G) Death of the award recipient.
</P>
<P>(xiii) In cases where assistance to the award recipient is terminated, the amount owed to the U.S. Government is equal to the support received from NSEP. Repayment to the U.S. Treasury must be made within a period not to exceed six months from expiration of the service deadline. Noncompliance with repayment requirements will result in the initiation of standard U.S. Government collection procedures to obtain payment for overdue indebtedness, unless a waiver is specifically granted by the DASD(FE&amp;T). Further job search assistance to an award recipient will be denied if any outstanding debt remains unpaid as a result of an award termination.
</P>
<P>(A) Repayment to the U.S. Treasury for the amount of assistance provided becomes due, either in whole or in part, if the award recipient fails to fulfill the NSEP service agreement. Award recipients who do not submit the SAR as required will be notified by NSEP of the intent to pursue collection action. Noncompliance with repayment requirements will result in the initiation of standard U.S. Government collection procedures to obtain payment for overdue indebtedness, unless a waiver is specifically granted by the DASD(FE&amp;T).
</P>
<P>(B) Repayment recovery procedures will include one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Voluntary repayment schedule arranged between the award recipient and the administrative agent.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deduction from accrued pay, compensation, amount of retirement credit, or any other amount due the employee from the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Such other methods as are provided by law for recovery of amounts owed to the U.S. Government.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="209" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 209 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="210" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 210—ENFORCEMENT OF STATE TRAFFIC LAWS ON DOD INSTALLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>63 Stat. 377, as amended, 18 U.S.C. 13; 40 U.S.C. 318a through d., 40 U.S.C. 612.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 58306, Dec. 1, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 210.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policies pursuant to the requirements of DoD Directive 6055.4, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> “Department of Defense Traffic Safety Program,” November 7, 1978, and to authority delegated to the Secretary of Defense under Enclosure 1 for the enforcement, on DoD military installations, of those state vehicular and pedestrian traffic laws that cannot be assimilated under U.S.C., Title 18, section 13.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 58306, Dec. 1, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 13285, Apr. 1, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part apply to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Unified and Specified Commands, and the Defense Agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions encompass all persons who operate or control a motor vehicle or otherwise use the streets of a military installation over which the United States exercises exclusive or concurrent legislative jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions govern only vehicular and traffic offenses or infractions that cannot be assimilated under 18 U.S.C. 13, thereby precluding application of state laws to traffic offenses committed on military installations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Department of Defense that an effective, comprehensive traffic safety program be established and maintained at all military installations as prescribed in DoD Directive 6055.4. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(b) State vehicular and pedestrian traffic laws that are now or may hereafter be in effect shall be expressly adopted and made applicable on military installations to the extent provided by this part. All persons on a military installation shall comply with the vehicular and pedestrian traffic laws of the state in which the installation is located.
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to the authority established in the Enclosure 1 to DoD Directive 5525.4 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>, installation commanders of all DoD installations in the United States and over which the United States has exclusive or concurrent legislative jurisdiction are delegated the authority to establish additional vehicular and pedestrian traffic rules and regulations for their installations. All persons on a military installation shall comply with locally established vehicular and pedestrian traffic rules and regulations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 210.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) A person found guilty of violating, on a military installation, any state vehicular or pedestrian traffic law or local installation vehicular or pedestrian traffic rule or regulation made applicable to the installation under the provisions of this part is subject to a fine of not more than $50 or imprisonment for not more than 30 days, or both, for each violation (40 U.S.C. 318c).
</P>
<P>(e) A copy of this part shall be posted in an appropriate place on the DoD installation concerned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 58306, Dec. 1, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 13285, Apr. 1, 1991; 56 FR 42939, Aug. 30, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics) shall modify this part as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Secretaries of the Military Departments shall comply with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="211" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 211—MISSION COMPATIBILITY EVALUATION PROCESS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Public Law 111-383, Section 358, as amended by Public Law 112-81, Section 331.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 73088, Dec. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes procedures pursuant to section 358 of the Ike Skelton National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2011 to provide:
</P>
<P>(a) A formal review of projects for which applications are filed with the Secretary of Transportation under 49 U.S.C. 44718, to determine if they pose an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) An informal review of a renewable energy development or other energy project in advance of the filing of an application with the Secretary of Transportation under 49 U.S.C. 44718.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Persons filing applications with the Secretary of Transportation for proposed projects pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718, when such applications are received by the Department of Defense from the Secretary of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(c) A State, Indian tribal, or local official, a landowner, or a developer of a renewable energy development or other energy project seeking a review of such project by DoD.
</P>
<P>(d) Members of the general public from whom comments are received on notices of actions being taken by the Department of Defense under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adverse impact on military operations and readiness.</I> Any adverse impact upon military operations and readiness, including flight operations research, development, testing, and evaluation and training, that is demonstrable and is likely to impair or degrade the ability of the armed forces to perform their warfighting missions.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant.</I> An entity filing an application with the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718, and whose proper application has been provided by the Secretary of Transportation to the Clearinghouse.
</P>
<P><I>Armed forces.</I> This term has the same meaning as provided in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(4) but does not include the Coast Guard.
</P>
<P><I>Clearinghouse.</I> The DoD Siting Clearinghouse, established under the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment).
</P>
<P><I>Congressional defense committees.</I> The—
</P>
<P>(1) Committee on Armed Services and the Committee on Appropriations of the Senate; and
</P>
<P>(2) Committee on Armed Services and the Committee on Appropriations of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Days.</I> All days are calendar days but do not include Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Landowner.</I> A person, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity, that owns a fee interest in real property on which a proposed project is planned to be located.
</P>
<P><I>Military readiness.</I> Includes any training or operation that could be related to combat readiness, including testing and evaluation activities.
</P>
<P><I>Mitigation.</I> Actions taken by either or both the DoD or the applicant to ensure that a project does not create an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Proposed project.</I> A proposed project is the project as described in the application submitted to the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 and transmitted by the Secretary of Transportation to the Clearinghouse.
</P>
<P><I>Requester.</I> A developer of a renewable energy development or other energy project, a State, Indian tribal, or local official, or a landowner seeking an informal review by the DoD of a project.
</P>
<P><I>Section 358.</I> Section 358 of the Ike Skelton National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2011, Public Law 111-383.
</P>
<P><I>Unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.</I> The construction, alteration, establishment, or expansion, or the proposed construction, alteration, establishment, or expansion, of a structure or sanitary landfill that would:
</P>
<P>(1) Endanger safety in air commerce, related to the activities of the DoD.
</P>
<P>(2) Interfere with the efficient use and preservation of the navigable airspace and of airport traffic capacity at public-use airports, related to the activities of the DoD.
</P>
<P>(3) Significantly impair or degrade the capability of the DoD to conduct training, research, development, testing, and evaluation, and operations or to maintain military readiness.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> The several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealths of Puerto Rico and the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Midway and Wake Islands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, any other territory or possession of the United States, and associated navigable waters, contiguous zones, and territorial seas and the airspace of those areas.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is an objective of the Department of Defense to ensure that the robust development of renewable energy sources and the increased resiliency of the commercial electrical grid may move forward in the United States, while minimizing or mitigating any adverse impacts on military operations and readiness.
</P>
<P>(b) The participation of the DoD in the process of the Federal Aviation Administration conducted pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 shall be conducted in accordance with this part. No other process shall be used by a DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part shall be construed as affecting the authority of the Secretary of Transportation under 49 U.S.C. 44718.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to subsection (e)(4) of section 358, the Deputy Secretary of Defense is designated as the senior officer. Only the senior officer may convey to the Secretary of Transportation a determination that a project filed with the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to subsection (b)(1) of section 358, the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics is designated as the senior official. Only the senior official may provide to the senior officer a recommendation that the senior officer determine a project filed with the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to subsection (e)(1) of section 358, the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment), in coordination with the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense (Readiness) and the Principal Deputy Director, Operational Test and Evaluation, shall review a proper application for a project filed pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 and received from the Secretary of Transportation and provide a preliminary assessment of the level of risk of adverse impact on military operations and readiness that would arise from the project and the extent of mitigation that may be needed to address such risk.
</P>
<P>(d) Pursuant to subsection (b)(1) of section 358, the Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment) is designated as the lead organization. Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, there is, within the Office of the Deputy Under Secretary, a DoD Siting Clearinghouse. The Clearinghouse:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall have a governing board organized in accordance with DoD Instruction 5105.18, DoD Intergovernmental and Intragovernmental Committee Management Program.
</P>
<P>(2) Has an executive director who is a Federal Government employee, appointed by the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations &amp; Environment).
</P>
<P>(3) Performs such duties as assigned in this part and as the Deputy Under Secretary directs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Project Evaluation Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.6   Initiating a formal DoD review of a proposed project.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A formal review of a proposed project begins with the receipt from the Secretary of Transportation by the Clearinghouse of a proper application filed with the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718.
</P>
<P>(1) The Clearinghouse will convey the application as received to those DoD Components it believes may have an interest in reviewing the application.
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD Components that receive the application shall provide their comments and recommendations on the application to the Clearinghouse no later than 20 days after they receive the application.
</P>
<P>(3) Not later than 30 days after receiving the application from the Secretary of Transportation, the Clearinghouse shall evaluate all comments and recommendations received and take one of three actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine that the proposed project will not have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness, in which case it shall notify the Secretary of Transportation of such determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine that the proposed project will have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness but that the adverse impact involved is sufficiently attenuated that it does not require mitigation. When the Clearinghouse makes such a determination, it shall notify the Secretary of Transportation of such determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine that the proposed project may have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness. When the Clearinghouse makes such a determination it shall immediately—
</P>
<P>(A) Notify the applicant of the determination of the Clearinghouse and offer to discuss mitigation with the applicant to reduce the adverse impact;
</P>
<P>(B) Designate one or more DoD Components to engage in discussions with the applicant to attempt to mitigate the adverse impact;
</P>
<P>(C) Notify the Secretary of Transportation that the Department of Defense has determined that the proposed project may have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness, and, if the cause of the adverse impact is due to the proposed project exceeding an obstruction standard set forth in subpart C of part 77 of title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, identify the specific standard and how it would be exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(D) Notify the Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security that the Clearinghouse has offered to engage in mitigation discussions with the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant must provide to the Clearinghouse its agreement to discuss the possibility of mitigation within five days of receipt of the notification from the Clearinghouse.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicant agrees to enter into discussions with the DoD to seek to mitigate an adverse impact, the designated DoD Components shall engage in discussions with the applicant to attempt to reach agreement on measures that would mitigate the adverse impact of the proposed project on military operations and readiness. The Clearinghouse shall invite the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration and the Secretary of Homeland Security to participate in such discussions. The Clearinghouse may also invite other Federal agencies to participate in such discussions.
</P>
<P>(1) Such discussions shall not extend more than 90 days beyond the initial notification to the applicant, unless both the designated DoD Components and the applicant agree, in writing, to an extension of a specific period of time.
</P>
<P>(i) If agreement between the applicant and the designated DoD Components has not been reached on mitigation measures by that time and no extension has been mutually agreed to, the designated DoD Components shall notify the Clearinghouse of the results of the discussions and the analysis and recommendations of the Components with regard to the proposed project as it is proposed after discussions.
</P>
<P>(ii) If agreement between the applicant and the designated DoD Components has been reached on mitigation measures that remove the adverse impact of the proposed project on military operations and readiness, the DoD Components shall notify the Clearinghouse of the agreement. If the mitigation measures entail modification to the proposed project, the applicant shall notify the Secretary of Transportation of such agreement and amend its application accordingly.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant and the designated DoD Components are unable to reach agreement on mitigation, the Clearinghouse shall review the analysis and recommendations of the DoD Components and determine if the proposed project as it may have been modified by the applicant after discussions would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Clearinghouse determines that the proposed project as it may have been modified by the applicant after discussions would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, it shall make a recommendation to the senior official to that effect. If the Clearinghouse determines, contrary to the recommendations of the DoD Components, that the proposed project as it may have been modified by the applicant after discussions would not result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, it shall make a recommendation to the senior official to that effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the senior official concurs with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse, the senior official shall make a recommendation to the senior officer that is consistent with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse. If the senior official does not agree with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse, the senior official may make a recommendation to the senior officer to that effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) The senior officer shall consider the recommendation of the senior official, and, after giving full consideration to mitigation actions available to the DoD and those agreed to by the applicant, determine whether the proposed project as it may have been modified by the applicant would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States. If the senior officer makes such a determination, the senior officer shall convey that determination to the Secretary of Transportation, identifying which of the three criteria in § 211.3 creates the unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any mitigation discussions engaged in by the Department of Defense pursuant to this part shall not be binding upon any other Federal agency, nor waive required compliance with any other law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant does not agree to enter into discussions with the DoD to seek to mitigate an adverse impact, the Clearinghouse shall review the analysis and recommendations of the designated DoD Components and determine if the proposed project would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Clearinghouse determines that the proposed project would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, it shall make a recommendation to the senior official to that effect. If the Clearinghouse determines, contrary to the recommendations of the DoD Components, that the proposed project would not result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, it shall make a recommendation to the senior official to that effect.
</P>
<P>(2) If the senior official concurs with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse, the senior official shall make a recommendation to the senior officer that is consistent with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse. If the senior official does not agree with the recommendation of the Clearinghouse, the senior official may make a recommendation to the senior officer to that effect.
</P>
<P>(3) The senior officer shall consider the recommendation of the senior official, and, after giving full consideration to mitigation actions available to the DoD and those agreed to by the applicant, determine whether the proposed project would result in an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States. If the senior officer makes such a determination, the senior officer shall convey that determination to the Secretary of Transportation, identifying which of the three criteria in § 211.3 creates the unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) The Clearinghouse may, on behalf of itself, the senior official, or the senior officer, seek an extension of time from the Secretary of Transportation for consideration of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.7   Initiating an informal DoD review of a proposed project.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An informal review of a project begins with the receipt from a requester by the Clearinghouse of a request for an informal review. In seeking an informal review, the requester shall provide the following information to the Clearinghouse:
</P>
<P>(1) The geographic location of the project including its latitude and longitude,
</P>
<P>(2) The height of the project,
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the project.
</P>
<P>(4) The requester is encouraged to provide as much additional information as is available. The more information provided by the requester, the greater will be the accuracy and reliability of the resulting DoD review. When a request for an informal review includes information that is proprietary or competition sensitive, requesters are encouraged to mark the documents they submit accordingly.
</P>
<P>(b) The Clearinghouse shall, within five days of receiving the information provided by the requester, convey that information to those DoD Components it believes may have an interest in reviewing the request.
</P>
<P>(1) The DoD Components that receive the request from the Clearinghouse shall provide their comments and recommendations on the request to the Clearinghouse no later than 30 days after they receive the request.
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 50 days after receiving the request from the requester, the Clearinghouse shall evaluate all comments and recommendations received and take one of three actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine that the project will not have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness, in which case it shall notify the requester of such determination. In doing so, the Clearinghouse shall also advise the requester that the informal review by the DoD does not constitute an action under 49 U.S.C. 44718 and that neither the DoD nor the Secretary of Transportation are bound by the determination made under the informal review.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine that the project will have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness but that the adverse impact involved is sufficiently attenuated that it does not require mitigation. The Clearinghouse shall notify the requester of such determination. In doing so, the Clearinghouse shall also advise the requester that the informal review by the DoD does not constitute an action under 49 U.S.C. 44718 and that neither the DoD nor the Secretary of Transportation are bound by the determination made under the informal review.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine that the project will have an adverse impact on military operations and readiness.
</P>
<P>(A) When the requester is the project proponent, the Clearinghouse shall immediately—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Notify the requester of the determination and the reasons for the conclusion of the Clearinghouse and advise the requester that the DoD would like to discuss the possibility of mitigation to reduce any adverse impact; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Designate one or more DoD Components to engage in discussions with the requester to attempt to mitigate the adverse impact.
</P>
<P>(B) When the requester is a State, Indian tribal, or local official or a landowner, notify the requester of the determination and the reasons for that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(c) If the requester is the project proponent and agrees to enter into discussions with the DoD to seek to mitigate an adverse impact, the designated DoD Components shall engage in discussions with the requester in an attempt to reach agreement on measures that would mitigate the adverse impact of the project on military operations and readiness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.8   Inquiries received by DoD Components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An inquiry received by a DoD Component other than the Clearinghouse relating to an application filed with the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44718 shall be forwarded to the Clearinghouse by the DoD Component except when that DoD Component has been designated by the Clearinghouse to engage in discussions with the entity making the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for informal DoD review or any other inquiry related to matters covered by this part and received by a DoD Component other than the Clearinghouse shall be forwarded to the Clearinghouse by that Component except when that DoD Component has been designated by the Clearinghouse to engage in discussions with the entity making the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.9   Mitigation options.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In discussing mitigation to avoid an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, the DoD Components designated to discuss mitigation with an applicant or requester shall, as appropriate and as time allows, analyze the following types of DoD mitigation to determine if they identify feasible and affordable actions that may be taken to mitigate adverse impacts of projects on military operations and readiness:
</P>
<P>(1) Modifications to military operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Modifications to radars or other items of military equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Modifications to military test and evaluation activities, military training routes, or military training procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) Providing upgrades or modifications to existing systems or procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) The acquisition of new systems by the DoD and other departments and agencies of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) In discussing mitigation to avoid an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, the applicant or requester, as the case may be, should consider the following possible actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Modification of the proposed structure, operating characteristics, or the equipment in the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(2) Changing the location of the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(3) Limiting daily operating hours or the number of days the equipment in the proposed structure is in use in order to avoid interference with military activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Providing a voluntary contribution of funds to offset the cost of measures undertaken by the Secretary of Defense to mitigate adverse impacts of the project on military operations and readiness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.10   Reporting determinations to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not later than 30 days after making a determination of unacceptable risk pursuant to § 211.6, the senior officer shall submit to the congressional defense committees a report on such determination and the basis for such determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Such a report shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of the operational impact that led to the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) A discussion of the mitigation options considered.
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of why the mitigation options were not feasible or did not resolve the conflict.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Communications and Outreach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.11   Communications with the Clearinghouse.</HEAD>
<P>All communications to the Clearinghouse by applicants, requesters, or members of the public should be addressed to: Executive Director, DoD Siting Clearinghouse, Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment), Room 5C646, 3400 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3400, or, if by electronic mail, to <I>DoDSitingClearinghouse@osd.mil.</I> Additional information about the Clearinghouse and means of contacting it are available at the following URL: <I>http://www.acq.mil/ie/sch.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.12   Public outreach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD shall establish a Web site accessible to the public that—
</P>
<P>(1) Lists the applications that the DoD is currently considering.
</P>
<P>(2) Identifies the stage of the action, e.g., preliminary review, referred for mitigation discussions, determined to be an unacceptable risk.
</P>
<P>(3) Indicates how the public may provide comments to the DoD.
</P>
<P>(b) The Clearinghouse shall publish a handbook to provide applicants, requesters, and members of the public with necessary information to assist them in participating in the Mission Compatibility Evaluation Process.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="212" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 212—PROCEDURES AND SUPPORT FOR NON-FEDERAL ENTITIES AUTHORIZED TO OPERATE ON DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE (DOD) INSTALLATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 2554; 10 U.S.C. 2606; and 36 U.S.C. 300110 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 59506, Oct. 9, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 212.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements 32 CFR part 213.
</P>
<P>(b) Updates responsibilities and procedures to define and reestablish a framework for non-Federal entities authorized to operate on Department of Defense (DoD) installations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(2) Non-Federal entities authorized to operate on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Military relief societies.
</P>
<P>(2) Banks or credit unions according to 32 CFR part 230.
</P>
<P>(3) Support provided under Innovative Readiness Training according to DoD Directive 1100.20. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of unclassified DoD Directives, Instructions, Publications, and Administrative Instructions may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>DoD installation:</I> As used in this instruction, a base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship, or other activity under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense, including any leased facility or, in the case of an activity in a foreign country, under the operational control of the Department of Defense. This term does not include any facility used primarily for civil works, rivers and harbor projects, or flood control projects.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal entities.</I> A self-sustaining organization, incorporated or unincorporated, that is not an agency or instrumentality of the Federal government. This part addresses only those entities that operate on DoD installations with the express consent of the installation commander or higher authority. Membership of these organizations consists of individuals acting exclusively outside the scope of any official capacity as officers, employees, or agents of the Federal Government. Non-Federal entities include a State, interstate, Indian tribal, or local government, as well as private organizations.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> As used in this part, the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, Johnston Atoll, Kingman Reef, Midway Island, Nassau Island, Palmyra Island, Wake Island, and any other territory or possession of the United States, and associated navigable waters, including the territorial seas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy, consistent with 32 CFR part 213, that procedures be established for the operation of non-Federal entities on DoD installations to prevent official sanction, endorsement, or support by the DoD Components except as authorized in DoD 5500.7-R and applicable law. The Department recognizes that non-Federal entity support of Service members and their families can be important to their welfare. Non-Federal entities are not entitled to sovereign immunity and privileges accorded to Federal agencies and instrumentalities. The DoD Components shall take action to preclude unauthorized expenditures of appropriated funds, commissary surcharge, or nonappropriated funds (NAF) in support of these organizations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Principal Deputy Under Secretary for Personnel and Readiness, under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness and in coordination with the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Installations and Environment and subject to DoD Directive 4165.6, shall be responsible for implementing policy and oversight of non-Federal entities on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Be aware of all non-Federal entities operating on installations under their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct reviews to ensure installation commanders periodically review facilities, programs, and services provided by non-Federal entities operating on DoD installations. Installation commanders will also review membership provisions and the original purpose for which each organization was originally approved. Substantial changes to those original conditions shall necessitate further review, documentation, and approval for continued permission to operate on the installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To prevent the appearance of official sanction or support by the Department of Defense:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-Federal entities may not use the seals, logos, or insignia of the Department of Defense or any DoD Component, DoD organizational unit, or DoD installation on organization letterhead, correspondence, titles, or in association with organization programs, locations, or activities.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-Federal entities operating on DoD installations may use the name or abbreviation of the Department of Defense, a DoD Component, organizational unit, or installation in its name provided that its status as a non-Federal entity is apparent and unambiguous and there is no appearance of official sanction or support by the Department of Defense. The following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The non-Federal entity must have approval from the appropriate DoD organization whose name or abbreviation is to be used before using the name or abbreviation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any use of the name or abbreviation of a DoD Component, organizational unit, or installation must not mislead members of the public to assume a non-Federal entity is an organizational unit of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(iii) A non-Federal entity must prominently display the following disclaimer on all print and electronic media mentioning the entity's name confirming that the entity is not a part of the Department of Defense: “THIS IS A NON-FEDERAL ENTITY. IT IS NOT A PART OF THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE OR ANY OF ITS COMPONENTS AND IT HAS NO GOVERNMENTAL STATUS.” This disclaimer must also be provided in appropriate oral communications and public announcements when the name of the entity is used.
</P>
<P>(b) Activities of non-Federal entities covered by this part shall not in any way prejudice or discredit the DoD Components or other Federal Government agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to DoD Directive 4165.6 as it relates to real property, installation commanders shall approve written agreements that indicate permission to operate on the installation and any logistical support that will be provided. DoD personnel acting in an official capacity will not execute any charter that will serve as the legal basis for the non-Federal entity. The nature, function, and objectives of a non-Federal entity covered by this part shall be delineated in articles of incorporation, a written constitution, bylaws, charters, articles of agreement, or other authorization documents before receiving approval from the installation commander to operate on the installation. That documentation shall also include:
</P>
<P>(1) Description of eligible membership in the non-Federal entity.
</P>
<P>(i) No person because of race, color, creed, sex, age, disability, or national origin shall be unlawfully denied membership, unlawfully excluded from participation, or otherwise subjected to unlawful discrimination by any non-Federal entity or other private organization covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation commanders will distribute information on procedures for individuals to follow when they suspect unlawful discrimination by the organization.
</P>
<P>(2) Designation of management responsibilities, including the accountability for assets, satisfaction of liabilities, disposition of any residual assets on dissolution, and other documentation that shows responsible financial management.
</P>
<P>(3) A certification indicating that members understand they are personally liable, as provided by law, if the assets of the non-Federal entity are insufficient to discharge all liabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) Guidance relating to professional scouting organizations operating at U.S. military installations located overseas can be found in DoD Instruction 1015.9.
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with DoD 5500.7-R, which contains a policy on sponsorship of non-Federal entities by DoD personnel acting in an official capacity, DoD personnel acting in an official capacity shall not execute charters that serve as the legal basis for the creation of Boy Scouts organizations (including Boy Scouts, Cub Scout Packs, or Venturer Crews).
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, Decision No. 1999 CV 02424, while such chartering is not allowed, nothing in this part is intended to preclude, if otherwise authorized by law or regulation, DoD support to Boy Scouts or their official affiliates; Boy Scouts activities on DoD installations; or sponsorship of Boy Scout organizations by DoD personnel in their personal capacity. Existing charters executed by DoD personnel in their official capacity shall be terminated or amended to substitute sponsorship by an appropriate individual, volunteer, group, or organization, consistent with DoD policy. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Paragraph mandated by “Partial Settlement Agreement Between Plaintiffs and Secretary Rumsfeld”, United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, No. 1999 CV 02424 (<I>Eugene Winkler, et al.,</I> v. <I>Chicago School Reform Board of Trustees, et al.</I>)</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) A non-Federal entity covered by this part shall not offer programs or services on DoD installations that compete with appropriated or NAF activities, but may, when specifically authorized, supplement those activities.
</P>
<P>(1) Installation commanders, or higher authorities if the installation commander has not been delegated such authority, will determine if the services of a non-Federal entity conflict with or detract from local DoD programs. The cognizant commander has discretionary authority over the operations of non-Federal entities on DoD installations. Commanders are authorized to eliminate duplication of services, particularly when these services compete with the installation's revenue-generating activities.
</P>
<P>(2) Background checks are required for employees and volunteers of non-Federal entities who have contact with children under the age of 18 in DoD- operated, -contracted, or community-based programs that are used to supplement or expand child care or youth services, according to DoD Instruction 1402.5.
</P>
<P>(e) Non-Federal entities covered by this part shall be self-sustaining, primarily through dues, contributions, service charges, fees, or special assessment of members. There shall be no financial assistance to such an entity from a NAF Instrumentality (NAFI) in the form of contributions, repairs, services, dividends, or other donations of money or other assets. Fundraising and membership drives are governed by DoD 5500.7-R.
</P>
<P>(f) Non-Federal entities are not entitled to DoD support. However, support may be provided when it is consistent with and supportive of the military mission of the DoD Component concerned. Such support may be provided only when it can be offered within the capability of the installation commander without detriment to the commander's ability to fulfill the military mission, and when it is permitted under applicable Status of Forces Agreements. The DoD Components may provide logistical support to non-Federal entities with appropriated funds to the extent authorized by DoD 5500.7-R and applicable law. NAFI funds or assets shall not be directly or indirectly transferred to non-Federal entities according to DoD Instruction 1015.15.
</P>
<P>(g) Personal and professional participation in non-Federal entities by DoD employees is governed by DoD 5500.7-R. DoD personnel acting in an official capacity will not execute charters that serve as the legal basis for any non-Federal entity or other private organization.
</P>
<P>(h) Neither appropriated fund activities nor NAFIs may assert any claim to the assets, or incur or assume any obligation, of any non-Federal entity covered by this part, except as may arise out of contractual relationships or as provided by law. Property shall not be abandoned on the installation by a non-Federal entity and may only be acquired by the DoD installation by purchase or through donation agreed to by the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(i) The non-Federal entity shall have adequate insurance, as defined by the DoD Component concerned, to protect against liability and property damage claims or other legal actions that may arise due to its activities, those of its members, or the operation of its equipment or devices. The DoD Components will not assume liability (through insurance or other means) for any activities or assets of non-Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(j) Non-Federal entities shall comply with applicable fire and safety regulations; environmental laws; local, State, and Federal tax codes; and any other applicable statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(k) Income from a non-Federal entity or its activities shall not accrue to individual members of a non-Federal entity except through wages and salaries as employees of the non-Federal entity or as award recognition for services rendered to the non-Federal entity or military community. This prohibition is not meant to preclude operation of investment clubs, in which the investment of members' personal funds result in a return on investment directly and solely to the individual members.
</P>
<P>(l) Employees of non-Federal entities are not employees of the United States or of an instrumentality of the United States. Applicable laws on labor standards for employment shall be observed, including worker's compensation insurance. Employees of non-Federal entities shall not participate in NAF employee benefit programs based upon their affiliation with the non-Federal entity.
</P>
<P>(m) Non-Federal entities that have statutory authorization for particular support are listed at Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(n) Certain unofficial activities conducted on DoD installations do not need formal authorization because of the limited scope of their activities. Examples are office coffee funds, flower funds, and similar small, informal activities and funds. The DoD Components shall establish the basis upon which such informal activities and funds shall operate.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.17.0.1.7.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 212—Non-Federal Entities Having Statutory Authorization for Particular Support

 
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-Federal entity 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Authority 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Certain banks and credit unions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chapter 1770 of title 12, United States Code (U.S.C.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 32, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 230.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">United Service Organization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 220101 of title 36, U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 32, CFR, part 213.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between DoD and the United Service Organization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Labor organizations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 5, U.S.C., Chapter 71.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD 1400.25-M, subchapter 711.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined Federal Campaign</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Executive Order 12353.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 5, CFR, part 950.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Instruction 5035.1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Instruction 5035.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American Registry of Pathology</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 177 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Henry M. Jackson Foundation for the Advancement of Military Medicine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 178 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American National Red Cross</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2552 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2602 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of The Army Memorandum. “Support to the Red Cross During Times of Conflict”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 32, CFR, part 213.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MOU between the Department of Justice and American Red Cross.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boy Scouts Jamborees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2554 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Girl Scouts International Events (Transportation)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2555 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Instruction 1015.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shelter for Homeless</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2556 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Military Associations; Assistance at National Conventions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2558 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Directive 5410.18.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Instruction 5410.19.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Veterans' Organizations (Beds and Barracks)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2551 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">United Seamen's Service Organization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2604 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title 32, CFR, part 213.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scouting: Cooperation and Assistance in Foreign Areas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2606 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Instruction 1015.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civil Air Patrol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 9441 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 9442 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 40301 of title 36 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assistance for certain youth and charitable organizations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 508 of title 32 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Directive 1100.20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Presidential Inaugural Ceremonies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2553 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Specified Sporting Events (Olympics)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2564 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD Directive 2000.15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire Protection Agreements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 1856 of title 42 U.S.C. <E T="03">et seq.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Armed Services Young Men's Christian Association</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2012 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 2648 of title 10 U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 508 of title 32, U.S.C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MOU between DoD and the Armed Services YMCA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Support for Youth Organizations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 1058 of Public Law 109-163 (Note to Section 301 of title 5 U.S.C.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 8126 of Public Law 109-148 (Note to Section 101 of title 10 U.S.C. and Section 301 of title 5 U.S.C.).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="213" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 213—SUPPORT FOR NON-FEDERAL ENTITIES AUTHORIZED TO OPERATE ON DOD INSTALLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2554 and 2606.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 56012, Oct. 2, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 213.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authorizes 32 CFR part 212.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities under DoD Directive 5124.8 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for standardizing support to non-Federal entities authorized to operate on DoD installations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Designates the Secretary of the Army as the DoD Executive Agent (DoD EA) according to DoD Directive 5101.1: 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) For DoD support to the Boy Scouts of America (BSA) and Girl Scouts of the United States of America (GSUSA) local councils and organizations in areas outside of the United States 10 U.S.C. 2606. DoD support will also cover the periodic national jamboree according to 10 U.S.C. 2606.
</P>
<P>(2) To perform the annual audit of the American Red Cross (ARC) accounts and to prepare and submit the annual report to Congress according to 36 U.S.C. 300110.
</P>
<P>(3) To provide the ARC with the necessary deployment support.
</P>
<P>(d) Designates the Secretary of the Air Force as the DoD EA responsible for conducting the Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE) program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”) and non-Federal entities authorized to operate on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(b) Shall not revise, modify, or rescind any Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between a non-Federal entity and the U.S. Government or the Department of Defense or their implementing arrangements in existence as of the effective date of this Directive. Additionally, the Directive shall not revise, modify, or rescind any MOU between the Department of Justice (DoJ) and the Department of Defense that is in existence as of the effective date of this Directive. Any such agreements shall, as they expire, come up for renewal, or as circumstances otherwise permit, be revised to conform to this Directive and any implementing guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) Does not apply to banks or credit unions addressed in DoD Directive 1000.11 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> or the Civil Air Patrol according to 10 U.S.C. 2554, 2606 and 9441.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P><I>Non-federal entities.</I> A non-Federal entity is generally a self-sustaining, non-Federal person or organization, established, operated, and controlled by any individual(s) acting outside the scope of any official capacity as officers, employees, or agents of the Federal Government. This Directive addresses only those entities that may operate on DoD installations with the express consent of the installation commander or higher authority under applicable regulations. Non-Federal entities may include elements of state, interstate, Indian tribal, and local government, as well as private organizations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) DoD support for non-Federal entities shall be in accordance with relevant statutes as well as DoD 5500.7-R 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>. In accordance with DoD 5500.7-R and to avoid preferential treatment, DoD support should be uniform, recognizing that non-Federal entity support of Service members and their families can be important to their welfare.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Under DoD Directive 5124.8 procedures shall be established as Instructions and agreements for the operation of non-Federal entities on DoD installations and for the prohibition of official sanction, endorsement, or support by the DoD Components and officials, except as authorized by DoD 5500.7-R and applicable law. Instructions and agreements must be compatible with the primary mission of the Department and provide for Congressionally authorized support to non-Federal entities on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with DoD 5500.7-R, installation commanders or higher authority may authorize, in writing, logistical support for events, including fundraising events, sponsored by non-Federal entities covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Installation commanders or higher authority may coordinate with non-Federal entities in order to support appropriated or nonappropriated fund activities on DoD installations, so long as the support provided by the non-Federal entities does not compete with appropriated or nonappropriated fund activities.
</P>
<P>(e) Non-Federal entities are not entitled to sovereign immunity and the privileges given to Federal entities and instrumentalities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.18.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Principal Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (PDUSD(P&amp;R)), under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be responsible for implementing all policy matters and Office of the Secretary of Defense oversight of non-Federal entities on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop procedures and execute any necessary agreements to implement policy for the operation of non-Federal entities on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(3) Assign responsibilities to the DoD Components to accomplish specific oversight and administrative responsibilities with respect to non-Federal entities operating on DoD installations.
</P>
<P>(4) Oversee the activities of the designated DoD EA, assessing the need for continuation, currency, effectiveness, and efficiency of the DoD EA according to 10 U.S.C. 2554 and 2606. Make recommendations for establishment of additional DoD EA assignments and arrangements as necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Army, as the designated DoD EA, and according to 10 U.S.C. 2554 and 2606, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Perform the audit of the annual ARC accounts and prepare and submit the annual report according to 36 U.S.C. 300110 and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate support to the BSA and GSUSA according to DoD Instruction 1015.9 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> and this part.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Provide necessary deployment support to ARC according to an approved DoD and ARC MOU. Initially, the Army will cover costs, except those paid by the ARC. The Army will then be reimbursed, upon its request, by the entity directly benefiting from the ARC support.
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a point of contact to coordinate matters regarding the DoD EA responsibilities, functions, and authorities.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of the Air Force, as the designated DoD EA with responsibility for conducting the AFE program, shall administer the AFE program according to 10 U.S.C. 2554 and 2606, DoD Instruction 1330.13 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>, and this part to include the following:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Annually determine with the other DoD Components and the PDUSD(P&amp;R) the scope of the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Budget, fund, and maintain accountability for approved appropriated fund expenses. Develop and implement supplemental guidance to identify allowable expenses and reimbursements.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide centralized services for selecting, declining, scheduling, and processing entertainment groups for overseas.
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a point of contact to coordinate matters regarding the DoD EA responsibilities, functions, and authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="216" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 216—MILITARY RECRUITING AND RESERVE OFFICER TRAINING CORPS PROGRAM ACCESS TO INSTITUTIONS OF HIGHER EDUCATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 983.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 16527, Apr. 28, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 216.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements 10 U.S.C. 983.
</P>
<P>(b) Updates policy and responsibilities relating to the management of covered schools that have a policy of denying or effectively preventing military recruiting personnel access to their campuses or access to students on their campuses in a manner that is at least equal in quality and scope to the access to campuses and to students provided to any other employer, or access to student-recruiting information. The term “equal in quality and scope” means the same access to campus and students provided by the school to the any other nonmilitary recruiters or employers receiving the most favorable access. The focus is not on the content of a school's recruiting policy, but instead on the result achieved by the policy and compares the access provided military recruiters to that provided other recruiters. Therefore, it is insufficient to comply with the statute (10 U.S.C. 983) if the policy results in a greater level of access for other recruiters than for the military.
</P>
<P>(c) Updates policy and responsibilities relating to the management of covered schools that have an anti-ROTC policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard when it is operating as a Military Service in the Navy), the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”). This part also applies, by agreement with the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), to the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a service in the Department of Homeland Security. The policies herein also affect the Departments of Transportation, Homeland Security, Energy (National Nuclear Security Administration), the Central Intelligence Agency, and any department or agency in which regular appropriations are made in the Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, Education, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act. The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, the Navy, the Marine Corps, the Air Force, and the Coast Guard, including their Reserve or National Guard Components. The term “Related Agencies” as used herein refers to the Armed Forces Retirement Home, the Corporation for National and Community Service, the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, the National Commission on Libraries and Information Science, the National Council on Disability, the National Education Goals Panel, the National Labor Relations Board, the National Mediation Board, the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, the Social Security Administration, the Railroad Retirement Board and the United States Institute of Peace.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Anti-ROTC policy.</I> A policy or practice whereby a covered school prohibits or in effect prevents the Secretary of Defense from maintaining, establishing, or efficiently operating a unit of the Senior ROTC at the covered school, or prohibits or in effect prevents a student at the covered school from enrolling in a Senior ROTC unit at another institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered funds.</I> “Covered funds” is defined in 10 U.S.C. 983 as any funds made available for the Departments of Defense, Transportation, Homeland Security, or National Nuclear Security Administration of the Department of Energy, the Central Intelligence Agency, or any department or agency in which regular appropriations are made in the Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, as well as in Related Agencies Appropriations Act (excluding any Federal funds provided to an institution of higher education, or to an individual, to be available solely for student financial assistance, related administrative costs, or costs associated with attendance).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered school.</I> An institution of higher education, or a subelement of an institution of higher education, subject to the following clarifications:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination (§ 216.5(a)) affecting only a subelement of a parent institution (see § 216.3(f)) effects a limitation on the use of funds (see § 216.4 (a)) applicable to the parent institution as a whole, including the institution's offending subelement and all of its subelements, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) When an individual institution of higher education that is part of a single university system (<I>e.g.</I>, University of (State) at (City)—a part of that state's university system) has a policy or practice that prohibits, or in effect prevents, access to campuses or access to students on campuses in a manner that is at least equal in quality and scope to the access to its campus and students as it provides to any other employer, or access to student-recruiting information by military recruiters, or has an anti-ROTC policy, as defined in this rule, it is only that individual institution within that university system that is affected by the loss of Federal funds. This limited effect applies even though another campus of the same university system may or may not be affected by a separate determination under § 216.5 (a). The funding of a subelement of the offending individual institution of a single university system, if any, will also be withheld as a result of the policies or practices of that offending individual institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enrolled.</I> Students are “enrolled” when registered for at least one credit hour of academic credit at the covered school during the most recent, current, or next term. Students who are enrolled during the most recent term, but who are no longer attending the institution, are included.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equal in quality and scope.</I> The term means the same access to campus and students provided by the school to the any other nonmilitary recruiters or employers receiving the most favorable access. The focus is not on the content of a school's recruiting policy, but instead on the result achieved by the policy and compares the access provided military recruiters to that provided other recruiters. Therefore, it is insufficient to comply with the statute if the policy results in a greater level of access for other recruiters than for the military. The U.S. Supreme Court further explained that “the statute does not call for an inquiry into why or how the ‘other employer’ secured its access * * * We do not think that the military recruiter has received equal ‘access’ [when a law firm is permitted on campus to recruit students and the military is not]—regardless of whether the disparate treatment is attributable to the military's failure to comply with the school's nondiscrimination policy.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution of higher education.</I> A domestic college, university, or other institution (or subelement thereof) providing postsecondary school courses of study, including foreign campuses of such domestic institutions. The term includes junior colleges, community colleges, and institutions providing courses leading to undergraduate and post-graduate degrees. The term does not include entities that operate exclusively outside the United States, its territories, and possessions. A subelement of an institution of higher education is a discrete (although not necessarily autonomous) organizational entity that may establish policies or practices affecting military recruiting and related actions (<I>e.g.</I>, an undergraduate school, a law school, a medical school, other graduate schools, or a national laboratory connected or affiliated with that parent institution). For example, the School of Law of XYZ University is a subelement of its parent institution (XYZ University).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Military recruiters.</I> Personnel of DoD whose current assignment or detail is to a recruiting activity of the DoD.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pacifism.</I> Opposition to war or violence, demonstrated by refusal to participate in military service.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Student.</I> An individual who is 17 years of age or older and is enrolled at a covered school.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Student-recruiting information.</I> For those students currently enrolled, the student's name, address, telephone listing, age (or year of birth), place of birth, level of education (<I>e.g.</I>, freshman, sophomore, or degree awarded for a recent graduate), most recent educational institution attended, and current major(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Under 10 U.S.C. 983, no covered funds may be provided by contract or grant (to include payment on such contracts or grants previously obligated) to a covered school if the Secretary of Defense determines that the covered school:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a policy or practice (regardless of when implemented) that either prohibits or in effect prevents the Secretary of Defense or Secretary of Homeland Security from obtaining, for military recruiting purposes, access to campuses or access to students on campuses that is at least equal in quality and scope, as defined in § 216.3(d), to the access to campuses and to students provided to any other employer, or access to directory information on students;
</P>
<P>(2) Has failed to disseminate military visit information or alerts at least on par with nonmilitary recruiters since schools offering such services to nonmilitary recruiters must also send e-mails, post notices, etc., on behalf of military recruiters to comply with the Solomon Amendment;
</P>
<P>(3) Has failed to schedule visits at times requested by military recruiters that coincide with nonmilitary recruiters' visits to campus if this results in a greater level of access for other recruiters than for the military (<I>e.g.</I>, offering non-military recruiters a choice of a variety of dates for on-campus interviews while only offering the military recruiters the final day of interviews), as schools must ensure that their recruiting policies operate such that military recruiters are given access to students equal to that provided to any other employer;
</P>
<P>(4) Has failed to provide military recruiters with a mainstream recruiting location amidst nonmilitary employers to allow unfettered access to interviewees since military recruiters must be given the same access as recruiters who comply with a school's nondiscrimination policy;
</P>
<P>(5) Has failed to enforce time, place, and manner policies established by the covered school such that the military recruiters experience an inferior or unsafe recruiting climate, as schools must allow military recruiters on campus and must assist them in whatever way the school assists other employers;
</P>
<P>(6) Has through policy or practice in effect denied students permission to participate, or has prevented students from participating, in recruiting activities; or
</P>
<P>(7) Has an anti-ROTC policy or practice, as defined in this rule, regardless of when implemented.
</P>
<P>(b) The limitations established in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to a covered school if the Secretary of Defense determines that the covered school:
</P>
<P>(1) Has ceased the policies or practices defined in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a long-standing policy of pacifism (see § 216.3(j)) based on historical religious affiliation;
</P>
<P>(3) When not providing requested access to campuses or to students on campus, certifies that all employers are similarly excluded from recruiting on the premises of the covered school, or presents evidence that the degree of access by military recruiters is the same access to campuses or to students on campuses provided to the nonmilitary recruiters;
</P>
<P>(4) When not providing any student-recruiting information, certifies that such information is not maintained by the covered school; or that such information already has been provided to the Military Service concerned for that current semester, trimester, quarter, or other academic term, or within the past 4 months (for institutions without academic terms); or
</P>
<P>(5) When not providing student-recruiting information for a specific student certifies that the student concerned has formally requested, in writing, that the covered school withhold this information from all third parties.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered school may charge military recruiters a fee for the costs incurred in providing access to student-recruiting information when that institution can certify that such charges are the actual costs, provided that such charges are reasonable, customary and identical to fees charged to other employers.
</P>
<P>(d) An evaluation to determine whether a covered school maintains a policy or practice covered by paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section shall be undertaken when:
</P>
<P>(1) Military recruiting personnel are prohibited, or in effect prevented, from the same access to campuses or access to students on campuses provided to nonmilitary recruiters, or are denied access to student-recruiting information;
</P>
<P>(2) Information or alerts on military visits are not distributed at least on par with nonmilitary recruiters since schools offering such services to nonmilitary recruiters must also send e-mails, post notices, etc., on behalf of the military recruiter to comply with the Solomon Amendment;
</P>
<P>(3) Military recruiters are prohibited from scheduling their visits at requested times that coincide with nonmilitary recruiters' visits to its campus if this results in a greater level of access for other recruiters than for the military as schools must ensure their recruiting policy operates in such a way that military recruiters are given access to students equal to that provided to any other employer;
</P>
<P>(4) Military recruiters do not receive a mainstream recruiting location amidst nonmilitary employers to allow unfettered access to interviewees since military recruiters must be given the same access as recruiters who comply with the school's nondiscrimination policy;
</P>
<P>(5) The school has failed to enforce time, place, and manner policies established by that school such that military recruiters experience an unsafe recruiting climate, as schools must allow military recruiters on campus and must assist them in whatever way the school chooses to assist other employers;
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence is discovered of an institution-sponsored policy or practice that in effect denied students permission to participate, or prevented students from participating in recruiting activities.
</P>
<P>(7) The costs being charged by the school for providing student-recruiting information are believed by the military recruiter to be excessive, and the school does not provide information sufficient to support a conclusion that such are the actual costs, provided that they are reasonable and customary, and are identical to those costs charged to other employers; or
</P>
<P>(8) The covered school is unwilling to declare in writing, in response to an inquiry from a representative of a DoD Component or a representative from the Department of Homeland Security, that the covered school does not have a policy or practice of prohibiting, or in effect preventing, the Secretary of a Military Department or Secretary of Homeland Security from the same access to campuses or access to students on campuses provided to nonmilitary recruiters, or access to student-recruiting information by military recruiters for purposes of military recruiting.
</P>
<P>(e) An evaluation to determine whether a covered school has an anti-ROTC policy covered by paragraph (a)(7) of this section shall be undertaken when:
</P>
<P>(1) A Secretary of a Military Department or designee cannot obtain permission to establish, maintain, or efficiently operate a unit of the Senior ROTC; or
</P>
<P>(2) Absent a Senior ROTC unit at the covered school, students cannot obtain permission from a covered school to participate, or are effectively prevented from participating, in a unit of the Senior ROTC at another institution of higher education.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The PDUSD(P&amp;R), under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Not later than 45 days after receipt of the information described in paragraphs (b)(3) and (c)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform the Office of Naval Research (ONR) and the Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service that a final determination will be made so those offices can make appropriate preparations to carry out their responsibilities should a covered school be determined ineligible to receive federal funds.
</P>
<P>(ii) Make a final determination under 10 U.S.C. 983, as implemented by this part, and notify any affected school of that determination and its basis, and that the school is therefore ineligible to receive covered funds as a result of that determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disseminate to Federal entities affected by the decision, including the DoD Components and the GSA, and to the Secretary of Education and the head of each other department and agency the funds of which are subject to the determination, the names of the affected institutions identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives of the affected institutions identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Inform the affected school identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section that its funding eligibility may be restored if the school provides sufficient new information that the basis for the determination under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 45 days after receipt of a covered school's request to restore its eligibility:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether the funding status of the covered school should be changed, and notify the applicable school of that determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the parties reflected in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(iii), and (a)(1)(iv) of this section when a determination of funding ineligibility (paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section) has been rescinded.
</P>
<P>(3) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> each determination of the PDUSD(P&amp;R) that a covered school is ineligible for contracts and grants made under 10 U.S.C. 983, as implemented by this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least once every 6 months a list of covered schools that are ineligible for contracts and grants by reason of a determination of the Secretary of Defense under 10 U.S.C. 983, as implemented by this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Enter information into the Excluded Parties List System 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> about each covered school that the PDUSD(P&amp;R) determines to be ineligible for contracts and grants under 10 U.S.C. 983 and/or this part, generally within 5 days of making the determination.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Excluded Parties List System (EPLS) is the system that the General Services Administration maintains for Executive Branch agencies, with names and other pertinent information of persons who are debarred, suspended, or otherwise ineligible for Federal procurement and/or covered non-procurement transactions.</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) Provide ONR with an updated list of the names of institutions identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section whenever the list changes due to an institution being added to or dropped from the list, so that ONR can carry out its responsibilities for post-award administration of DoD Components' contracts and grants with institutions of higher education.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide the Office of the Deputy Chief Financial Officer, DoD, and the Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service with an updated list of the names of institutions identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section whenever the list changes due to an institution being added or dropped from the list, so those offices can carry out their responsibilities related to cessation of payments of prior contract and grant obligations to institutions of higher education that are on the list.
</P>
<P>(8) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the list of names of affected institutions that have changed their policies or practices such that they are determined no longer to be in violation of 10 U.S.C. 983 and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the Secretary of Homeland Security shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify covered schools that, by policy or practice, prohibit, or in effect prevent, the same access to campuses or access to students on campuses provided to nonmilitary recruiters, or access to student-recruiting information by military recruiters for military recruiting purposes.
</P>
<P>(i) When requests by military recruiters to schedule recruiting visits are unsuccessful, the Military Service concerned, and the Office of the Secretary of Homeland Security when the Coast Guard is operating as a service in the Department of Homeland Security, shall seek written confirmation of the school's present policy from the head of the school through a letter of inquiry. A letter similar to that shown in Appendix A of this part shall be used, but it should be tailored to the situation presented. If written confirmation cannot be obtained, oral policy statements or attempts to obtain such statements from an appropriate official of the school shall be documented. A copy of the documentation shall be provided to the covered school, which shall be informed of its opportunity to forward clarifying comments within 30 days to accompany the submission to the PDUSD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(ii) When a request for student-recruiting information is not fulfilled within a reasonable period, normally 30 days, a letter similar to that shown in Appendix A shall be used to communicate the problem to the school, and the inquiry shall be managed as described in § 216.5.(b)(1)(ii). Schools may stipulate that requests for student-recruiting information be in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify covered schools that, by policy or practice, deny establishment, maintenance, or efficient operation of a unit of the Senior ROTC, or deny students permission to participate, or effectively prevent students from participating in a unit of the Senior ROTC at another institution of higher education. The Military Service concerned, and the Office of the Secretary of Homeland Security when the Coast Guard is operating as a service in the Department of Homeland Security, shall seek written confirmation of the school's policy from the head of the school through a letter of inquiry. A letter similar to that shown in Appendix B of this part shall be used, but it should be tailored to the situation presented. If written confirmation cannot be obtained, oral policy statements or attempts to obtain such statements from an appropriate official of the school shall be documented. A copy of the documentation shall be provided to the covered school, which shall be informed of its opportunity to forward clarifying comments within 30 days to accompany the submission to the PDUSD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate responses to the letter of inquiry, and other such evidence obtained in accordance with this part, and submit to the PDUSD(P&amp;R) the names and addresses of covered schools that are believed to be in violation of policies established in § 216.4. Full documentation shall be furnished to the PDUSD(P&amp;R) for each such covered school, including the school's formal response to the letter of inquiry, documentation of any oral response, or evidence showing that attempts were made to obtain either written confirmation or an oral statement of the school's policies.
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components and Secretary of Homeland Security shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the PDUSD(P&amp;R) with the names and addresses of covered schools identified as a result of evaluation(s) required under § 216.4(d) and (e).
</P>
<P>(2) Take immediate action to deny obligations of covered funds to covered schools identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, and to restore eligibility of covered schools identified under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.6   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The information requirements identified at § 216.5(b) and (c)(1) have been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-P&amp;R-(AR)-2038 in accordance with DoD 8910.1-M 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.7.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 216—Military Recruiting Sample Letter of Inquiry
</HEAD>
<FP>(Tailor letter to situation presented)
</FP>
<FP>Dr. John Doe,
</FP>
<FP-2> <I>President, ABC University, Anywhere, USA 12345-9876.</I>
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Dr. Doe: I understand that military recruiting personnel [have been unable to recruit or have been refused student-recruiting information 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> at (subelement of) ABC University)] by a policy or practice of the school. Specifically, military recruiting personnel have reported [here state policy decisions or practices encountered]. [If preliminary information coming to the attention of a Military Service indicates that other Military Services' recruiting representatives have been similarly informed of the policy or experienced a similar practice affecting their ability for military recruiting purposes to have the access or information require, so state.]
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Student-recruiting information refers to a student's name, address, telephone listing, age (or year of birth), level of education (e.g., freshman, sophomore, or degree awarded for a recent graduate), and major(s).</P></FTNT>
<P>Current Federal law (10 U.S.C. 983) denies the use of certain Federal funds through grants or contracts, to include payment on such contracts or grants previously obligated, (excluding any Federal funding to an institution of higher education, or to an individual, to be available solely for student financial assistance, related administrative costs, or costs associated with attendance) from appropriations of the Departments of Defense, Transportation, Labor, Health and Human Services, Education, and related agencies to institutions of higher education (including any subelements of such institutions) that have a policy or practice of denying military recruiting personnel access to campuses or access to students on campuses, in a manner that is at least equal in quality and scope (as explained in § 216.3 of Title 32, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 216), as it provides to nonmilitary recruiters, or access to student recruiting information. Implementing regulations are codified at Title 32, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 216.
</P>
<P>This letter provides you an opportunity to clarify your institution's policy regarding military recruiting on the campus of [University]. In that regard, I request, within the next 30 days, a written policy statement of the institution with respect to access to campus and students by military recruiting personnel. Your response should highlight any difference between access for military recruiters and access for recruiting by other potential employers.
</P>
<P>Based on this information and any additional facts you can provide, Department of Defense officials will make a determination as to your institution's eligibility to receive funds by grant or contract. That decision may affect eligibility for funding from appropriations of the Departments of Defense, Transportation, Labor, Health and Human Services, Education, and related agencies. Should it be determined that [University] as an institution of higher education (or any subelement of the institution) is in violation of the aforementioned statutes and regulations, such funding would be stopped, and the institution of higher education (including any subelements of the institution) would remain ineligible to receive such funds until and unless the Department of Defense determines that the institution has ceased the offending policies and practices.
</P>
<P>I regret that this action may have to be taken. Successful recruiting requires that Department of Defense recruiters have equal access to students on the campuses of colleges and universities [and student-recruiting information], and at the same time, have effective relationships with the officials and student bodies of those institutions. I hope it will be possible to identify and correct any policies or practices that inhibit military recruiting at your school. [My representative, (name), is] [I am] available to answer any of your questions by telephone at [telephone number]. I look forward to your reply.
</P>
<FP> Sincerely,


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.19.0.1.7.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 216—ROTC Sample Letter of Inquiry
</HEAD>
<FP>(Tailor letter to situation presented)
</FP>
<FP>Dr. Jane Smith,
</FP>
<FP-2> <I>President, ABC University, Anywhere, USA 12345-9876.</I>
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Dr. Smith: I understand that ABC University has [refused a request from a Military Department to establish a Senior ROTC unit at your institution] [refused to continue existing ROTC programs at your institution][prevented students from participation at a Senior ROTC program at another institution] by a policy or practice of the University.
</P>
<P>Current Federal law (10 U.S.C. 983) denies the use of certain Federal funds through grants or contracts, to include payment on such contracts or grants previously obligated, (excluding any Federal funding to an institution of higher education, or to an individual, to be available solely for student financial assistance, related administrative costs, or costs associated with attendance) from appropriations of the Departments of Defense, Transportation, Labor, Health and Human Services, Education, and related agencies to institutions of higher education (including any subelements of such institutions) that have a policy or practice of prohibiting or preventing the Secretary of Defense from maintaining, establishing, or efficiently operating a Senior ROTC unit. Implementing regulations are codified at Title 32, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 216.
</P>
<P>This letter provides you an opportunity to clarify your institution's policy regarding ROTC access on the campus of ABC University. In that regard, I request, within the next 30 days, a written statement of the institution with respect to [define the problem area(s)].
</P>
<P>Based on this information, Department of Defense officials will make a determination as to your institution's eligibility to receive the above-referenced funds by grant or contract. That decision may affect eligibility for funding from appropriations of the Departments of Defense, Transportation, Labor, Health and Human Services, Education, and related agencies. Should it be determined that [University] as an institution of higher education (or any subelement of the institution) is in violation of the aforementioned statutes and regulations, such funding would be stopped, and the institution of higher education (including any subelements of the institution) would remain ineligible to receive such funds until and unless the Department of Defense determines that the institution has ceased the offending policies and practices.
</P>
<P>I regret that this action may have to be taken. Successful officer procurement requires that the Department of Defense maintain a strong ROTC program. I hope it will be possible to [define the correction to the aforementioned problem area(s)]. [My representative, (name), is] [I am] available to answer any of your questions by telephone at [telephone number]. I look forward to your reply.
</P>
<FP> Sincerely,




</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="218" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 218—GUIDANCE FOR THE DETERMINATION AND REPORTING OF NUCLEAR RADIATION DOSE FOR DOD PARTICIPANTS IN THE ATMOSPHERIC NUCLEAR TEST PROGRAM (1945-1962)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 98-542, 98 Stat. 2725 (38 U.S.C. 354 Note.)
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 42521, Oct. 21, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 218.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.1   Policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon request by the Veterans Administration in connection with a claim for compensation, or by a veteran or his or her representative, available information shall be provided by the applicable Military Service which shall include all material aspects of the radiation environment to which the veteran was exposed and shall include inhaled, ingested and neutron doses. In determining the veteran's dose, initial neutron, initial gamma, residual gamma, and internal (inhaled and ingested) alpha, beta, and gamma shall be considered. However, doses will be reported as gamma dose, neutron dose, and internal dose. The minimum standards for reporting dose estimates are set forth in § 218.4.
</P>
<P>(b) The basic means by which to measure dose from exposure to ionizing radiation is the film badge. Of the estimated 220,000 Department of Defense participants in atmospheric nuclear weapons tests, about 145,000 have film badge dose data available. The information contained in the records has been reproduced in a standard format and is being provided to each military service, which can use the film badge dose data to obtain a radiation dose for a particular individual from that service. This is done upon request from the individual, the individual's representative, the Veterans Administration, or others as authorized by the Privacy Act. Upon request, the participant or his or her authorized representative will be informed of the specific methodologies and assumptions employed in estimating his or her dose. The participant can use this information to obtain independent options regarding exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) From 1945 through 1954, the DoD and Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) policy was to issue badges only to a portion of the personnel in a homogeneous unit such as a platoon of a battalion combat team, Naval ship or aircraft crew. Either one person was badged in a group performing the same function, or only personnel expected to be exposed to radiation were badged. After 1954, the policy was to badge all personnel. But, some badges were unreadable and some records were lost or destroyed, as in the fire at the Federal Records Center in St. Louis. For these reasons the Nuclear Test Personnel Review (NTPR) Program has focused on determining the radiation dose for those personnel (about 75,000) who were not issued film badges or for whom film badge records are not available.
</P>
<P>(d) In order to determine the radiation dose to individuals for whom film badge data are not available, alternative approaches are used as circumstances warrant. All approaches require investigation of individual or group activities and their relationship to the radiological environment. First, if it is apparent that personnel were not present in the radiological environment and had no other potential for exposure, then their dose is zero. Second, if some members of a group had film badge readings and others did not—and if all members had a common relationship with the radiological enviroment—then doses for unbadged personnel can be calculated. Third, where sufficient badge readings or a common relationship to the radiological environment does not exist, dose reconstruction is performed. This involves correlating a unit's or individual's detailed activities with the quantitively determined radiological environment. The three approaches are described as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities of an individual or his unit are researched for the period of participation in an atmospheric nuclear test. Unit locations and movements are related to areas of radiation. If personnel were far distant from the nuclear detonation(s), did not experience fallout or enter a fallout area, and did not come in contact with radioactive samples or contaminated objects, they were judged to have received no dose.
</P>
<P>(2) Film badge data from badged personnel may be used to estimate individual doses for unbadged personnel. First, a group of participants must be identified that have certain common characteristics and a similar potential for exposure to radiation. Such characteristics are: Individuals must be doing the same kind of work, referred to as activity, and all members of the group must have a common relationship to the radiological environment in terms of time, location or other factors. Identification of these groups is based upon research of historical records, technical reports or correspondence. A military unit may consist of several groups or several units may comprise a single group. Using proven statistical methods, the badge data for each group is examined to determine if it adequately reflects the entire group, is valid for use in statistical calculations, or if the badge data indicate the group should be sub-divided into smaller groups. For a group that meets the tests described above, the mean dose, variance and confidence limits are determined. An estimated dose equal to 95% probability that the actual exposure did not exceed the estimate is assigned to unbadged personnel. This procedure is statistically sound and will insure that unbadged personnel are assigned doses much higher than the average/mean for the group.
</P>
<P>(3) Dose reconstruction is performed if film badge data are unavailable for all or part of the period or radiation exposure, if film badge data are partially available but cannot be used statistically for calculations, special activities are indicated for specific individuals, or if other types of radiation exposures are indicated. In dose reconstruction, the conditions of exposure are reconstructed analytically to arrive at a radiation dose. Such reconstruction is not a new concept; it is standard scientific practice used by health physicists when the circumstances of a radiation exposure require investigation. The underlying method is in each case the same. The radiation environment is characterized in time and space, as are the activities and geometrical position of the individual. Thus, the rate at which radiation is accrued is determined throughout the time of exposure, from which the total dose is integrated. An uncertainty analysis of the reconstruction provides a calculated mean dose with confidence limits. The specific method used in a dose reconstruction depends on what type of data are available to provide the required characterizations as well as the nature of the radiation environment. The radiation environment is not limited to the gamma radiation that would have been measured by a film badge, but also includes neutron radiation for personnel sufficiently close to a nuclear detonation, as well as beta and alpha radiation (internally) for personnel whose activities indicate the possibility of inhalation or ingestion of radioactive particles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.2   General procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The following procedures govern the approach taken in dose determination: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use individual film badge data where available and complete, for determining the external gamma dose. 
</P>
<P>(b) Identify group activities and locations for period(s) of possible exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) Qualitatively assess the radiation environment in order to delineate contaminated areas. If no activities occurred in these areas, and if no other potential for exposure exists, a no dose received estimate is made.
</P>
<P>(d) If partial film badge data are available, define group(s) of personnel with common activities and relationships to radiation environment.
</P>
<P>(e) Using standard statistical methods, verify from the distribution of film badge readings whether the badged sample adequately represents the intended group.
</P>
<P>(f) Calculate the mean external gamma dose, with variance and confidence limits, for each unbadged population. Assign a dose equal to 95% probability that actual exposure did not exceed the assigned dose. 
</P>
<P>(g) If badge data is not available for a statistical calculation, conduct a dose reconstruction. 
</P>
<P>(h) For dose reconstruction, define radiation environment through use of all available scientific data, e.g., measurements of radiation intensity, decay, radioisotopic composition.
</P>
<P>(i) Quantitatively relate activities shielding, position, and other factors to radiation environment as a function of time. Integrate dose throughout period of exposure.
</P>
<P>(j) Where possible, calculate mean dose with confidence limits; otherwise calculate best estimate dose or, if data are too sparse, upper limit dose.
</P>
<P>(k) Compare calculations with available film badge records to verify the calculated doses. Whether or not film badge data is available, calculate initial and internal doses where identified as a meaningful contribution to the total dose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.3   Dose reconstruction methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Concept.</I> The specific methodology consists of the characterization of the radiation environments to which participants through all relevant activities, were exposed. The environments, both initial and residual radiation are corrected with the activities of participants to determine accrued doses due to initial radiation, residual radiation and/or inhaled/ingested radioactive material, as warranted by the radiation environment and the specific personnel activities. Due to the range of activities, times, geometries, shielding, and weapon characteristics, as well as the normal spread in the available data pertaining to the radiation environment, an uncertainty analysis is performed. This analysis quantifies the uncertainties due to time/space variations, group size, and available data. Due to the large amounts of data, an automated (computer-assisted) procedure is often used to facilitate the data-handling and the dose integration, and to investigate the sensitivity to variations in the parameters used. The results of the gamma data calculations are then compared with film badge data as they apply to the specific period of the film badges and to the comparable activities of the exposed personnel, in order to validate the procedure and to identify personnel activities that could have led to atypical doses. Radiation dose from neutrons and dose commitments due to inhaled or ingested radioactive material are not detected by film badges. Where required, these values are calculated and recorded separately.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Characterization of the radiological environment.</I> (1) This step describes and defines the radiological conditions as a function of time for all locations of concern, that is, where personnel were positioned or where personnel activities took place. The radiation environment is divided into two standard categories—initial radiation and residual radiation.
</P>
<P>(2) The initial radiation environment results from several types of gamma and neutron emissions. Prompt neutron and gamma radiation are emitted at the time of detonation, while delayed neutrons and fission-product gamma, from the decay of radioactive products in the fireball, continue to be emitted as the fireball rises. In contrast to these essentially point sources of radiation, there is gamma radiation from neutron interactions with air and soil, generated within a fraction of a second. Because of the complexity of these radiation sources and their varied interaction properties with air and soil, it is necessary to obtain solutions of the Boltzmann radiation transport equation. The radiation environment thus derived includes the effects of shot-specific parameters such as weapon type and yield, neutron and gamma output, source and target geometry, and atmospheric conditions. The calculated neutron and gamma radiation environments are checked for consistency with existing measured data as available. In those few cases displaying significant discrepancies that cannot be resolved, an environment based on extrapolation of the data is used if it leads to a larger calculated dose.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining the residual radiation environment, all possible sources are considered including radioactive clouds, radiation that may have been encountered from other tests, and radioactive debris that may have been deposited in water during oceanic tests. The residual radiation environment is divided into two general components—neutron-activated material that subsequently emits, over a period of time, beta and gamma radiation; and radioactive debris from the fission reaction or from unfissioned materials that emit alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. Because residual radiation decays, the characterization of the residual environment is defined by the radiation intensity as a function of type and time. Radiological survey data are used to determine specific intensities at times of personnel exposure. Interpolation and extrapolation are based on known decay characteristics of the individual materials that comprise the residual contamination. In those rare cases where insufficient radiation data exist to adequately define the residual environment, source data are obtained from the appropriate weapon design laboratory and applied in standard radiation transport codes to determine the initial radiation at specific distances from the burst. This radiation, together with material composition and characteristics, leads to description of the neutron-activated field for each location and time of interest. In all cases observed data, as obtained at the time of the operation, are used to calibrate the calculations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Activities of participants.</I> This step uses all official records, augmented by personnel interviews where gaps exist, to depict a scenario of activities for each individual or definable group. When a dose reconstruction is performed for a specific individual, information available from the individual is accepted unless demonstrably inaccurate. For military units, whose operations were closely controlled and further constrained by radiological safety monitors, the scenario is usually well defined. The same is true for observers, who were restricted to specific locations both during and after the nuclear burst. Ships' locations and activities are usually known with a high degree of precision from deck logs. Aircraft tracks and altitudes are also usually well defined. Personnel engaged in scientific experiments often kept logs of their activities; moreover, the locations of their experiments are usually a matter of record. Where the records are insufficiently complete for the degree of precision required to determine radiation exposure, participants' comments are used and reasonable judgements are made to further the analysis. Possible variations in the activities, as well as possible individual deviations from group activities, with respect to both time and location, are considered in the uncertainty analysis of the radiation dose calculations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of dose.</I> (1) The initial radiation doses to close-in personnel (who were normally positioned in trenches at the time of detonation) are calculated from the above-ground environment by simulating the radiation transport into the trenches. Various calculational approaches, standard in health physics, are employed to relate in-trench to above-trench doses for each source of radiation. Detailed modeling of the human body, in appropriate postures in the trench, is performed to calculate the gamma dose that would have been recorded on a film badge and the maximum neutron dose. The neutron, neutron-generated gamma, and prompt gamma doses are accrued during such a short time interval that the posture in a trench could not be altered significantly during this exposure. The fission-product gamma dose, however, is delivered over a period of many seconds. Therefore, the possibility of individual reorientation (e.g., standing up) in the trench is considered.
</P>
<P>(2) The calculation of the dose from residual radiation follows from the characterized radiation environment and personnel activities. Because radiation intensities are calculated for a field (i.e., in two spatial dimensions) and in time, the radiation intensity is determinable for each increment of personnel activity regardless of direction or at what time. The dose from exposure to a radiation field is obtained by summing the contribution (product of intensity and time) to dose at each step. The dose calculated from the radiation field does not reflect the shielding of the film badge afforded by the human body. This shielding has been determined for pertinent body positions by the solution of radiation transport equations as applied to a radiation field. Conversion factors are used to arrive at a calculated film badge dose, which not only facilitates comparison with film badge data, but serves as a substitute for an unavailable film badge reading.
</P>
<P>(3) The calculation of the dose from inhaled or ingested radioactivity primarily involves the determination of what radiosotopes entered the body in what quantity. Published conversion factors are then applied to these data to arrive at the radiation dose and future dose commitments to internal organs. Inhalation or ingestion of radioactive material is calculated from the radioactive environment and the processes of making these materials inhalable or ingestible. Activities and processes that cause material to become airborne (such as wind, decontamination or traffic) are used with empirical data on particle lofting to determine airborne concentrations under specific circumstances. Volumetric breathing rates and durations of exposure are used to calculate the total material intake. Data on time-dependent weapon debris isotopic composition and the above-mentioned conversion factors are used to calculate the dose commitment to the body and to specific body organs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Uncertainty analysis.</I> Because of the uncertainties associated with the radiological data or calculations used in the absence of data, as well as the uncertainties with respect to personnel activities, confidence limits are determined where possible for group dose calculations. The uncertainty analysis quantifies the errors in available data or in the model used in the absence of data. Confidence limits are based on the uncertainty of all relevant input parameters, and thus vary with the quality of the input data. They also consider the possible range of doses due to the size of the exposure group being examined. Typical sources of error include orientation of the weapons, specific weapon yields, instrument error, fallout intensity data, time(s) at which data were obtained, fallout decay rate, route of personnel movements, and arrival/stay times for specific activities. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Comparison with film badge records.</I> (1) Calculations of gamma dose were compared with film badge records for two military units at Operation PLUMBBOB to initially validate this methodology. Where all parameters relating to radiation exposure were identified, direct comparison of gamma dose calculations with actual film badge readings was possible. Resultant correlations provided high confidence in the methodology. 
</P>
<P>(2) Film badge data may, in some cases, be unrepresentative of the total exposure of a given individual or group; nevertheless, they are extremely useful for direct comparison of incremental doses for specific periods, e.g., validating the calculations for the remaining, unbadged period of exposure. Moreover, a wide distribution of film badge data often leads to more definitive personnel grouping for dose calculations and to further investigation of the reason(s) for such distribution. In all cases, personnel film badge data are not used in the dose calculations, but rather are used solely for comparison with and validation of the calculations. For dose reconstructions accomplished to date, comparison has been favorable and within the confidence limits of the calculations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.4   Dose estimate reporting standards.</HEAD>
<P>The following minimum standards for reporting dose estimates shall be uniformly applied by the Military Services when preparing information in response to an inquiry by the Veterans Administration, in connection with a claim for compensation, or by a veteran or his or her representative. The information shall include all material aspects of the radiation environment to which the veteran was exposed and shall include inhaled, ingested, and neutron doses, when applicable. In determining the veteran's dose, initial neutron, initial gamma, residual gamma, and internal (inhaled and ingested) alpha, beta, and gamma shall be considered. However, doses will be reported as gamma dose, neutron dose, and internal dose. To the extent to which the information is available, the responses will address the following questions: 
</P>
<P>(a) Can it be documented that the veteran was a test participant? If so, what tests did he attend and what were the specifics of these tests (date, time, yield (unless classified) type, location and other relevant details)? 
</P>
<P>(b) What unit was the man in? What were the mission and activities of the units at the test?
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent to which the available records indicate, what were his duties at the test?
</P>
<P>(d) Can you corroborate the specific information relevant to the potential exposure provided by the claimant to the Veterans Administration and forwarded to the Department of Defense? What is the impact of these specific activities on the claimant's reconstructed dose?
</P>
<P>(e) Is there any recorded radiation exposure for the individual? Does this recorded exposure cover the full period of test participation? What are the uncertainties associated with the recorded film badge dose? 
</P>
<P>(f) If recorded dosimetry data is unavailable or incomplete, what is the dose reconstruction for the most probable dose, with error limits, if available? 
</P>
<P>(g) Is there evidence of a neutron or internal exposure? What is the reconstruction?
</P>
<FP>Upon request, the participant or his or her authorized representative will be informed of the specific methodologies and assumptions employed in estimating his or her dose. 


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="219" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 219—PROTECTION OF HUMAN SUBJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 42 U.S.C. 300v-1(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 7272, January 19, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 219.101" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.101   To what does this policy apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as detailed in § 219.104, this policy applies to all research involving human subjects conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by any Federal department or agency that takes appropriate administrative action to make the policy applicable to such research. This includes research conducted by Federal civilian employees or military personnel, except that each department or agency head may adopt such procedural modifications as may be appropriate from an administrative standpoint. It also includes research conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal Government outside the United States. Institutions that are engaged in research described in this paragraph and institutional review boards (IRBs) reviewing research that is subject to this policy must comply with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Department or agency heads retain final judgment as to whether a particular activity is covered by this policy and this judgment shall be exercised consistent with the ethical principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research.- Belmont Report. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. 1979.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Department or agency heads may require that specific research activities or classes of research activities conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal department or agency but not otherwise covered by this policy comply with some or all of the requirements of this policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with this policy requires compliance with pertinent federal laws or regulations that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(f) This policy does not affect any state or local laws or regulations (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(g) This policy does not affect any foreign laws or regulations that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections to human subjects of research.
</P>
<P>(h) When research covered by this policy takes place in foreign countries, procedures normally followed in the foreign countries to protect human subjects may differ from those set forth in this policy. In these circumstances, if a department or agency head determines that the procedures prescribed by the institution afford protections that are at least equivalent to those provided in this policy, the department or agency head may approve the substitution of the foreign procedures in lieu of the procedural requirements provided in this policy. Except when otherwise required by statute, Executive Order, or the department or agency head, notices of these actions as they occur will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or will be otherwise published as provided in department or agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise required by law, department or agency heads may waive the applicability of some or all of the provisions of this policy to specific research activities or classes of research activities otherwise covered by this policy, provided the alternative procedures to be followed are consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> Except when otherwise required by statute or Executive Order, the department or agency head shall forward advance notices of these actions to the Office for Human Research Protections, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), or any successor office, or to the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency, and shall also publish them in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or in such other manner as provided in department or agency procedures. The waiver notice must include a statement that identifies the conditions under which the waiver will be applied and a justification as to why the waiver is appropriate for the research, including how the decision is consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(j) Federal guidance on the requirements of this policy shall be issued only after consultation, for the purpose of harmonization (to the extent appropriate), with other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, unless such consultation is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(k) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(l) Compliance dates and transition provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means this subpart as published in the 2016 edition of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>2018 Requirements</I> means the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects requirements contained in this part. The general compliance date for the 2018 Requirements is January 21, 2019. The compliance date for § 219.114(b) (cooperative research) of the 2018 Requirements is January 20, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Research subject to pre-2018 requirements.</I> The pre-2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research, unless the research is transitioning to comply with the 2018 Requirements in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB under the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review was waived pursuant to § 219.101(i) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination was made that the research was exempt under § 219.101(b) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transitioning research.</I> If, on or after July 19, 2018, an institution planning or engaged in research otherwise covered by paragraph (l)(3) of this section determines that such research instead will transition to comply with the 2018 Requirements, the institution or an IRB must document and date such determination.
</P>
<P>(i) If the determination to transition is documented between July 19, 2018, and January 20, 2019, the research shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Beginning on the date of such documentation through January 20, 2019, comply with the pre-2018 Requirements, except that the research shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Section 219.102(l) of the 2018 Requirements (definition of research) (instead of § 219.102(d) of the pre-2018 Requirements);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Section 219.103(d) of the 2018 Requirements (revised certification requirement that eliminates IRB review of application or proposal) (instead of § 219.103(f) of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Section 219.109(f)(1)(i) and (iii) of the 2018 Requirements (exceptions to mandated continuing review) (instead of § 219.103(b), as related to the requirement for continuing review, and in addition to § 219.109, of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning on January 21, 2019, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the determination to transition is documented on or after January 21, 2019, the research shall, beginning on the date of such documentation, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research subject to 2018 Requirements.</I> The 2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB on or after January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review is waived pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section on or after January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination is made that the research is exempt on or after January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(m) Severability: Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">82 FR 7272, Jan. 19, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 28516, June 19, 2018.]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.102" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.102   Definitions for purposes of this policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification</I> means the official notification by the institution to the supporting Federal department or agency component, in accordance with the requirements of this policy, that a research project or activity involving human subjects has been reviewed and approved by an IRB in accordance with an approved assurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical trial</I> means a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of the interventions on biomedical or behavioral health-related outcomes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department or agency head</I> means the head of any Federal department or agency, for example, the Secretary of HHS, and any other officer or employee of any Federal department or agency to whom the authority provided by these regulations to the department or agency head has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal department or agency</I> refers to a federal department or agency (the department or agency itself rather than its bureaus, offices or divisions) that takes appropriate administrative action to make this policy applicable to the research involving human subjects it conducts, supports, or otherwise regulates (<I>e.g.,</I> the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the U.S. Department of Defense, or the Central Intelligence Agency).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Human subject</I> means a living individual about whom an investigator (whether professional or student) conducting research:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains information or biospecimens through intervention or interaction with the individual, and uses, studies, or analyzes the information or biospecimens; or (ii) Obtains, uses, studies, analyzes, or generates identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intervention</I> includes both physical procedures by which information or biospecimens are gathered (<I>e.g.,</I> venipuncture) and manipulations of the subject or the subject's environment that are performed for research purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interaction</I> includes communication or interpersonal contact between investigator and subject.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Private information</I> includes information about behavior that occurs in a context in which an individual can reasonably expect that no observation or recording is taking place, and information that has been provided for specific purposes by an individual and that the individual can reasonably expect will not be made public (<I>e.g.,</I> a medical record).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identifiable private information</I> is private information for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the information.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>An identifiable biospecimen</I> is a biospecimen for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the biospecimen.
</P>
<P>(7) Federal departments or agencies implementing this policy shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon consultation with appropriate experts (including experts in data matching and re-identification), reexamine the meaning of “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, and “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This reexamination shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. If appropriate and permitted by law, such Federal departments and agencies may alter the interpretation of these terms, including through the use of guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon consultation with appropriate experts, assess whether there are analytic technologies or techniques that should be considered by investigators to generate “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or an “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This assessment shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. Any such technologies or techniques will be included on a list of technologies or techniques that produce identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This list will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> after notice and an opportunity for public comment. The Secretary, HHS, shall maintain the list on a publicly accessible Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity, or department or agency (including federal, state, and other agencies).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>IRB</I> means an institutional review board established in accord with and for the purposes expressed in this policy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>IRB approval</I> means the determination of the IRB that the research has been reviewed and may be conducted at an institution within the constraints set forth by the IRB and by other institutional and federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legally authorized representative</I> means an individual or judicial or other body authorized under applicable law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research. If there is no applicable law addressing this issue, <I>legally authorized representative</I> means an individual recognized by institutional policy as acceptable for providing consent in the nonresearch context on behalf of the prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public health authority</I> means an agency or authority of the United States, a state, a territory, a political subdivision of a state or territory, an Indian tribe, or a foreign government, or a person or entity acting under a grant of authority from or contract with such public agency, including the employees or agents of such public agency or its contractors or persons or entities to whom it has granted authority, that is responsible for public health matters as part of its official mandate.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Research</I> means a systematic investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge. Activities that meet this definition constitute research for purposes of this policy, whether or not they are conducted or supported under a program that is considered research for other purposes. For example, some demonstration and service programs may include research activities. For purposes of this part, the following activities are deemed not to be research:
</P>
<P>(1) Scholarly and journalistic activities (<I>e.g.,</I> oral history, journalism, biography, literary criticism, legal research, and historical scholarship), including the collection and use of information, that focus directly on the specific individuals about whom the information is collected.
</P>
<P>(2) Public health surveillance activities, including the collection and testing of information or biospecimens, conducted, supported, requested, ordered, required, or authorized by a public health authority. Such activities are limited to those necessary to allow a public health authority to identify, monitor, assess, or investigate potential public health signals, onsets of disease outbreaks, or conditions of public health importance (including trends, signals, risk factors, patterns in diseases, or increases in injuries from using consumer products). Such activities include those associated with providing timely situational awareness and priority setting during the course of an event or crisis that threatens public health (including natural or man-made disasters).
</P>
<P>(3) Collection and analysis of information, biospecimens, or records by or for a criminal justice agency for activities authorized by law or court order solely for criminal justice or criminal investigative purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized operational activities (as determined by each agency) in support of intelligence, homeland security, defense, or other national security missions.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Written,</I> or <I>in writing,</I> for purposes of this part, refers to writing on a tangible medium (<I>e.g.,</I> paper) or in an electronic format.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.103" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.103   Assuring compliance with this policy—research conducted or supported by any Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution engaged in research that is covered by this policy, with the exception of research eligible for exemption under § 219.104, and that is conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, shall provide written assurance satisfactory to the department or agency head that it will comply with the requirements of this policy. In lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, individual department or agency heads shall accept the existence of a current assurance, appropriate for the research in question, on file with the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, and approved for Federal-wide use by that office. When the existence of an HHS-approved assurance is accepted in lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, reports (except certification) required by this policy to be made to department and agency heads shall also be made to the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office. Federal departments and agencies will conduct or support research covered by this policy only if the institution has provided an assurance that it will comply with the requirements of this policy, as provided in this section, and only if the institution has certified to the department or agency head that the research has been reviewed and approved by an IRB (if such certification is required by § 219.103(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) The assurance shall be executed by an individual authorized to act for the institution and to assume on behalf of the institution the obligations imposed by this policy and shall be filed in such form and manner as the department or agency head prescribes.
</P>
<P>(c) The department or agency head may limit the period during which any assurance shall remain effective or otherwise condition or restrict the assurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Certification is required when the research is supported by a Federal department or agency and not otherwise waived under § 219.101(i) or exempted under § 219.104. For such research, institutions shall certify that each proposed research study covered by the assurance and this section has been reviewed and approved by the IRB. Such certification must be submitted as prescribed by the Federal department or agency component supporting the research. Under no condition shall research covered by this section be initiated prior to receipt of the certification that the research has been reviewed and approved by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) For nonexempt research involving human subjects covered by this policy (or exempt research for which limited IRB review takes place pursuant to § 219.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8)) that takes place at an institution in which IRB oversight is conducted by an IRB that is not operated by the institution, the institution and the organization operating the IRB shall document the institution's reliance on the IRB for oversight of the research and the responsibilities that each entity will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy (<I>e.g.,</I> in a written agreement between the institution and the IRB, by implementation of an institution-wide policy directive providing the allocation of responsibilities between the institution and an IRB that is not affiliated with the institution, or as set forth in a research protocol).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.104" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.104   Exempt research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise required by law or by department or agency heads, research activities in which the only involvement of human subjects will be in one or more of the categories in paragraph (d) of this section are exempt from the requirements of this policy, except that such activities must comply with the requirements of this section and as specified in each category.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of the exemption categories for research subject to the requirements of subparts B, C, and D: Application of the exemption categories to research subject to the requirements of 45 CFR part 46, subparts B, C, and D, is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subpart B.</I> Each of the exemptions at this section may be applied to research subject to subpart B if the conditions of the exemption are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart C.</I> The exemptions at this section do not apply to research subject to subpart C, except for research aimed at involving a broader subject population that only incidentally includes prisoners.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart D.</I> The exemptions at paragraphs (d)(1), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (8) of this section may be applied to research subject to subpart D if the conditions of the exemption are met. Paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section only may apply to research subject to subpart D involving educational tests or the observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section may not be applied to research subject to subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Except as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the following categories of human subjects research are exempt from this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Research, conducted in established or commonly accepted educational settings, that specifically involves normal educational practices that are not likely to adversely impact students' opportunity to learn required educational content or the assessment of educators who provide instruction. This includes most research on regular and special education instructional strategies, and research on the effectiveness of or the comparison among instructional techniques, curricula, or classroom management methods.
</P>
<P>(2) Research that only includes interactions involving educational tests (cognitive, diagnostic, aptitude, achievement), survey procedures, interview procedures, or observation of public behavior (including visual or auditory recording) if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 219.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Research involving benign behavioral interventions in conjunction with the collection of information from an adult subject through verbal or written responses (including data entry) or audiovisual recording if the subject prospectively agrees to the intervention and information collection and at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(A) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(B) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 219.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this provision, benign behavioral interventions are brief in duration, harmless, painless, not physically invasive, not likely to have a significant adverse lasting impact on the subjects, and the investigator has no reason to think the subjects will find the interventions offensive or embarrassing. Provided all such criteria are met, examples of such benign behavioral interventions would include having the subjects play an online game, having them solve puzzles under various noise conditions, or having them decide how to allocate a nominal amount of received cash between themselves and someone else.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves deceiving the subjects regarding the nature or purposes of the research, this exemption is not applicable unless the subject authorizes the deception through a prospective agreement to participate in research in circumstances in which the subject is informed that he or she will be unaware of or misled regarding the nature or purposes of the research.
</P>
<P>(4) Secondary research for which consent is not required: Secondary research uses of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are publicly available;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information, which may include information about biospecimens, is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, the investigator does not contact the subjects, and the investigator will not re-identify subjects;
</P>
<P>(iii) The research involves only information collection and analysis involving the investigator's use of identifiable health information when that use is regulated under 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, subparts A and E, for the purposes of “health care operations” or “research” as those terms are defined at 45 CFR 164.501 or for “public health activities and purposes” as described under 45 CFR 164.512(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The research is conducted by, or on behalf of, a Federal department or agency using government-generated or government-collected information obtained for nonresearch activities, if the research generates identifiable private information that is or will be maintained on information technology that is subject to and in compliance with section 208(b) of the E-Government Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3501 note, if all of the identifiable private information collected, used, or generated as part of the activity will be maintained in systems of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and, if applicable, the information used in the research was collected subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) Research and demonstration projects that are conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, or otherwise subject to the approval of department or agency heads (or the approval of the heads of bureaus or other subordinate agencies that have been delegated authority to conduct the research and demonstration projects), and that are designed to study, evaluate, improve, or otherwise examine public benefit or service programs, including procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs, possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures, or possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs. Such projects include, but are not limited to, internal studies by Federal employees, and studies under contracts or consulting arrangements, cooperative agreements, or grants. Exempt projects also include waivers of otherwise mandatory requirements using authorities such as sections 1115 and 1115A of the Social Security Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Federal department or agency conducting or supporting the research and demonstration projects must establish, on a publicly accessible Federal Web site or in such other manner as the department or agency head may determine, a list of the research and demonstration projects that the Federal department or agency conducts or supports under this provision. The research or demonstration project must be published on this list prior to commencing the research involving human subjects.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Taste and food quality evaluation and consumer acceptance studies:
</P>
<P>(i) If wholesome foods without additives are consumed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food is consumed that contains a food ingredient at or below the level and for a use found to be safe, or agricultural chemical or environmental contaminant at or below the level found to be safe, by the Food and Drug Administration or approved by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<P>(7) Storage or maintenance for secondary research for which broad consent is required: Storage or maintenance of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for potential secondary research use if an IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determinations required by § 219.111(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(8) Secondary research for which broad consent is required: Research involving the use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for secondary research use, if the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens was obtained in accordance with § 219.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of informed consent or waiver of documentation of consent was obtained in accordance with § 219.117;
</P>
<P>(iii) An IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determination required by § 219.111(a)(7) and makes the determination that the research to be conducted is within the scope of the broad consent referenced in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section; and (iv) The investigator does not include returning individual research results to subjects as part of the study plan. This provision does not prevent an investigator from abiding by any legal requirements to return individual research results.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 219.105-219.106" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 219.105-219.106   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.107" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.107   IRB membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB shall have at least five members, with varying backgrounds to promote complete and adequate review of research activities commonly conducted by the institution. The IRB shall be sufficiently qualified through the experience and expertise of its members (professional competence), and the diversity of its members, including race, gender, and cultural backgrounds and sensitivity to such issues as community attitudes, to promote respect for its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects. The IRB shall be able to ascertain the acceptability of proposed research in terms of institutional commitments (including policies and resources) and regulations, applicable law, and standards of professional conduct and practice. The IRB shall therefore include persons knowledgeable in these areas. If an IRB regularly reviews research that involves a category of subjects that is vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with these categories of subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each IRB shall include at least one member whose primary concerns are in scientific areas and at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB shall include at least one member who is not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) No IRB may have a member participate in the IRB's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB may, in its discretion, invite individuals with competence in special areas to assist in the review of issues that require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the IRB. These individuals may not vote with the IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.108" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.108   IRB functions and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to fulfill the requirements of this policy each IRB shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have access to meeting space and sufficient staff to support the IRB's review and recordkeeping duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and maintain a current list of the IRB members identified by name; earned degrees; representative capacity; indications of experience such as board certifications or licenses sufficient to describe each member's chief anticipated contributions to IRB deliberations; and any employment or other relationship between each member and the institution, for example, full-time employee, part-time employee, member of governing panel or board, stockholder, paid or unpaid consultant;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and follow written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting its initial and continuing review of research and for reporting its findings and actions to the investigator and the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining which projects require review more often than annually and which projects need verification from sources other than the investigators that no material changes have occurred since previous IRB review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB of proposed changes in a research activity, and for ensuring that investigators will conduct the research activity in accordance with the terms of the IRB approval until any proposed changes have been reviewed and approved by the IRB, except when necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the subject.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and follow written procedures for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB; appropriate institutional officials; the department or agency head; and the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, or the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency of
</P>
<P>(i) Any unanticipated problems involving risks to subjects or others or any serious or continuing noncompliance with this policy or the requirements or determinations of the IRB; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any suspension or termination of IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when an expedited review procedure is used (as described in § 219.110), an IRB must review proposed research at convened meetings at which a majority of the members of the IRB are present, including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas. In order for the research to be approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those members present at the meeting.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.109" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.109   IRB review of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by this policy, including exempt research activities under § 219.104 for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption (under § 219.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7), and (8)).
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB shall require that information given to subjects (or legally authorized representatives, when appropriate) as part of informed consent is in accordance with § 219.116. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in § 219.116, be given to the subjects when in the IRB's judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) An IRB shall require documentation of informed consent or may waive documentation in accordance with § 219.117.
</P>
<P>(d) An IRB shall notify investigators and the institution in writing of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity, or of modifications required to secure IRB approval of the research activity. If the IRB decides to disapprove a research activity, it shall include in its written notification a statement of the reasons for its decision and give the investigator an opportunity to respond in person or in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB shall conduct continuing review of research requiring review by the convened IRB at intervals appropriate to the degree of risk, not less than once per year, except as described in § 219.109(f).
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Unless an IRB determines otherwise, continuing review of research is not required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Research eligible for expedited review in accordance with § 219.110;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research reviewed by the IRB in accordance with the limited IRB review described in § 219.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8);
</P>
<P>(iii) Research that has progressed to the point that it involves only one or both of the following, which are part of the IRB-approved study:
</P>
<P>(A) Data analysis, including analysis of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, or
</P>
<P>(B) Accessing follow-up clinical data from procedures that subjects would undergo as part of clinical care.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) An IRB shall have authority to observe or have a third party observe the consent process and the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.110" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.110   Expedited review procedures for certain kinds of research involving no more than minimal risk, and for minor changes in approved research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of HHS has established, and published as a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a list of categories of research that may be reviewed by the IRB through an expedited review procedure. The Secretary will evaluate the list at least every 8 years and amend it, as appropriate, after consultation with other federal departments and agencies and after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A copy of the list is available from the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An IRB may use the expedited review procedure to review the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Some or all of the research appearing on the list described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the reviewer determines that the study involves more than minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minor changes in previously approved research during the period for which approval is authorized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption under § 219.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7) and (8).
</P>
<P>(2) Under an expedited review procedure, the review may be carried out by the IRB chairperson or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the chairperson from among members of the IRB. In reviewing the research, the reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the IRB except that the reviewers may not disapprove the research. A research activity may be disapproved only after review in accordance with the nonexpedited procedure set forth in § 219.108(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB that uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members advised of research proposals that have been approved under the procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The department or agency head may restrict, suspend, terminate, or choose not to authorize an institution's or IRB's use of the expedited review procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.111" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.111   Criteria for IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to approve research covered by this policy the IRB shall determine that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks to subjects are minimized:
</P>
<P>(i) By using procedures that are consistent with sound research design and that do not unnecessarily expose subjects to risk, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever appropriate, by using procedures already being performed on the subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits, if any, to subjects, and the importance of the knowledge that may reasonably be expected to result. In evaluating risks and benefits, the IRB should consider only those risks and benefits that may result from the research (as distinguished from risks and benefits of therapies subjects would receive even if not participating in the research). The IRB should not consider possible long-range effects of applying knowledge gained in the research (<I>e.g.,</I> the possible effects of the research on public policy) as among those research risks that fall within the purview of its responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection of subjects is equitable. In making this assessment the IRB should take into account the purposes of the research and the setting in which the research will be conducted. The IRB should be particularly cognizant of the special problems of research that involves a category of subjects who are vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Informed consent will be sought from each prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in accordance with, and to the extent required by, § 219.116.
</P>
<P>(5) Informed consent will be appropriately documented or appropriately waived in accordance with § 219.117.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the research plan makes adequate provision for monitoring the data collected to ensure the safety of subjects.
</P>
<P>(7) When appropriate, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of HHS will, after consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's privacy office and other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, issue guidance to assist IRBs in assessing what provisions are adequate to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of conducting the limited IRB review required by § 219.104(d)(7)), the IRB need not make the determinations at paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, and shall make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens is obtained in accordance with the requirements of § 219.116(a)(1)-(4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Broad consent is appropriately documented or waiver of documentation is appropriate, in accordance with § 219.117; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is a change made for research purposes in the way the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are stored or maintained, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(b) When some or all of the subjects are likely to be vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, additional safeguards have been included in the study to protect the rights and welfare of these subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.112" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.112   Review by Institution</HEAD>
<P>Research covered by this policy that has been approved by an IRB may be subject to further appropriate review and approval or disapproval by officials of the institution. However, those officials may not approve the research if it has not been approved by an IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.113" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.113   Suspension or Termination of IRB Approval of Research.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB shall have authority to suspend or terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with the IRB's requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious harm to subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's action and shall be reported promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, and the department or agency head.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.114" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.114   Cooperative Research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cooperative research projects are those projects covered by this policy that involve more than one institution. In the conduct of cooperative research projects, each institution is responsible for safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects and for complying with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any institution located in the United States that is engaged in cooperative research must rely upon approval by a single IRB for that portion of the research that is conducted in the United States. The reviewing IRB will be identified by the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research or proposed by the lead institution subject to the acceptance of the Federal department or agency supporting the research.
</P>
<P>(2) The following research is not subject to this provision:
</P>
<P>(i) Cooperative research for which more than single IRB review is required by law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which any Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research determines and documents that the use of a single IRB is not appropriate for the particular context.
</P>
<P>(c) For research not subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an institution participating in a cooperative project may enter into a joint review arrangement, rely on the review of another IRB, or make similar arrangements for avoiding duplication of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.115" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.115   IRB Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution, or when appropriate an IRB, shall prepare and maintain adequate documentation of IRB activities, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific evaluations, if any, that accompany the proposals, approved sample consent forms, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries to subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of IRB meetings, which shall be in sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the IRB; the vote on these actions including the number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of controverted issues and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of continuing review activities, including the rationale for conducting continuing review of research that otherwise would not require continuing review as described in § 219.109(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all correspondence between the IRB and the investigators.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of IRB members in the same detail as described in § 219.108(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(6) Written procedures for the IRB in the same detail as described in § 219.108(a)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(7) Statements of significant new findings provided to subjects, as required by § 219.116(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(8) The rationale for an expedited reviewer's determination under § 219.110(b)(1)(i) that research appearing on the expedited review list described in § 219.110(a) is more than minimal risk.
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation specifying the responsibilities that an institution and an organization operating an IRB each will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy, as described in § 219.103(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by this policy shall be retained for at least 3 years, and records relating to research that is conducted shall be retained for at least 3 years after completion of the research. The institution or IRB may maintain the records in printed form, or electronically. All records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by authorized representatives of the Federal department or agency at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.116" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.116   General Requirements for Informed Consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> General requirements for informed consent, whether written or oral, are set forth in this paragraph and apply to consent obtained in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Broad consent may be obtained in lieu of informed consent obtained in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section only with respect to the storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of identifiable private information and identifiable biospecimens. Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials is described in paragraph (e) of this section. General waiver or alteration of informed consent is described in paragraph (f) of this section. Except as provided elsewhere in this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Before involving a human subject in research covered by this policy, an investigator shall obtain the legally effective informed consent of the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) An investigator shall seek informed consent only under circumstances that provide the prospective subject or the legally authorized representative sufficient opportunity to discuss and consider whether or not to participate and that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence.
</P>
<P>(3) The information that is given to the subject or the legally authorized representative shall be in language understandable to the subject or the legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(4) The prospective subject or the legally authorized representative must be provided with the information that a reasonable person would want to have in order to make an informed decision about whether to participate, and an opportunity to discuss that information.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for broad consent obtained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Informed consent must begin with a concise and focused presentation of the key information that is most likely to assist a prospective subject or legally authorized representative in understanding the reasons why one might or might not want to participate in the research. This part of the informed consent must be organized and presented in a way that facilitates comprehension.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed consent as a whole must present information in sufficient detail relating to the research, and must be organized and presented in a way that does not merely provide lists of isolated facts, but rather facilitates the prospective subject's or legally authorized representative's understanding of the reasons why one might or might not want to participate.
</P>
<P>(6) No informed consent may include any exculpatory language through which the subject or the legally authorized representative is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject's legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, in seeking informed consent the following information shall be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the study involves research, an explanation of the purposes of the research and the expected duration of the subject's participation, a description of the procedures to be followed, and identification of any procedures that are experimental;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any reasonably foreseeable risks or discomforts to the subject;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any benefits to the subject or to others that may reasonably be expected from the research;
</P>
<P>(4) A disclosure of appropriate alternative procedures or courses of treatment, if any, that might be advantageous to the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained;
</P>
<P>(6) For research involving more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation and an explanation as to whether any medical treatments are available if injury occurs and, if so, what they consist of, or where further information may be obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research subjects' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury to the subject;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that participation is voluntary, refusal to participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled, and the subject may discontinue participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled; and
</P>
<P>(9) One of the following statements about any research that involves the collection of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that identifiers might be removed from the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens and that, after such removal, the information or biospecimens could be used for future research studies or distributed to another investigator for future research studies without additional informed consent from the subject or the legally authorized representative, if this might be a possibility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the subject's information or biospecimens collected as part of the research, even if identifiers are removed, will not be used or distributed for future research studies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, one or more of the following elements of information, when appropriate, shall also be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the particular treatment or procedure may involve risks to the subject (or to the embryo or fetus, if the subject is or may become pregnant) that are currently unforeseeable;
</P>
<P>(2) Anticipated circumstances under which the subject's participation may be terminated by the investigator without regard to the subject's or the legally authorized representative's consent;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional costs to the subject that may result from participation in the research;
</P>
<P>(4) The consequences of a subject's decision to withdraw from the research and procedures for orderly termination of participation by the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that significant new findings developed during the course of the research that may relate to the subject's willingness to continue participation will be provided to the subject;
</P>
<P>(6) The approximate number of subjects involved in the study;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the subject's biospecimens (even if identifiers are removed) may be used for commercial profit and whether the subject will or will not share in this commercial profit;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement regarding whether clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to subjects, and if so, under what conditions; and
</P>
<P>(9) For research involving biospecimens, whether the research will (if known) or might include whole genome sequencing (<I>i.e.,</I> sequencing of a human germline or somatic specimen with the intent to generate the genome or exome sequence of that specimen).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Elements of broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.</I> Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens (collected for either research studies other than the proposed research or nonresearch purposes) is permitted as an alternative to the informed consent requirements in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If the subject or the legally authorized representative is asked to provide broad consent, the following shall be provided to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), and (b)(8) and, when appropriate, (c)(7) and (9) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the types of research that may be conducted with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This description must include sufficient information such that a reasonable person would expect that the broad consent would permit the types of research conducted;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens that might be used in research, whether sharing of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens might occur, and the types of institutions or researchers that might conduct research with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be stored and maintained (which period of time could be indefinite), and a description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be used for research purposes (which period of time could be indefinite);
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the subject or legally authorized representative will be provided details about specific research studies, a statement that they will not be informed of the details of any specific research studies that might be conducted using the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, including the purposes of the research, and that they might have chosen not to consent to some of those specific research studies;
</P>
<P>(6) Unless it is known that clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to the subject in all circumstances, a statement that such results may not be disclosed to the subject; and
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to questions about the subject's rights and about storage and use of the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related harm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research or demonstration project is to be conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local government officials and is designed to study, evaluate, or otherwise examine:
</P>
<P>(A) Public benefit or service programs;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs;
</P>
<P>(C) Possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(D) Possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the waiver or alteration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General waiver or alteration of consent</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the requested waiver or alteration;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves using identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, the research could not practicably be carried out without using such information or biospecimens in an identifiable format;
</P>
<P>(iv) The waiver or alteration will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever appropriate, the subjects or legally authorized representatives will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Screening, recruiting, or determining eligibility.</I> An IRB may approve a research proposal in which an investigator will obtain information or biospecimens for the purpose of screening, recruiting, or determining the eligibility of prospective subjects without the informed consent of the prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, if either of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator will obtain information through oral or written communication with the prospective subject or legally authorized representative, or
</P>
<P>(2) The investigator will obtain identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens by accessing records or stored identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Posting of clinical trial consent form.</I> (1) For each clinical trial conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, one IRB-approved informed consent form used to enroll subjects must be posted by the awardee or the Federal department or agency component conducting the trial on a publicly available Federal Web site that will be established as a repository for such informed consent forms.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the clinical trial determines that certain information should not be made publicly available on a Federal Web site (<I>e.g.</I> confidential commercial information), such Federal department or agency may permit or require redactions to the information posted.
</P>
<P>(3) The informed consent form must be posted on the Federal Web site after the clinical trial is closed to recruitment, and no later than 60 days after the last study visit by any subject, as required by the protocol.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preemption.</I> The informed consent requirements in this policy are not intended to preempt any applicable Federal, state, or local laws (including tribal laws passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that require additional information to be disclosed in order for informed consent to be legally effective.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emergency medical care.</I> Nothing in this policy is intended to limit the authority of a physician to provide emergency medical care, to the extent the physician is permitted to do so under applicable Federal, state, or local law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.117" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.117   Documentation of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, informed consent shall be documented by the use of a written informed consent form approved by the IRB and signed (including in an electronic format) by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. A written copy shall be given to the person signing the informed consent form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the informed consent form may be either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written informed consent form that meets the requirements of § 219.116. The investigator shall give either the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative adequate opportunity to read the informed consent form before it is signed; alternatively, this form may be read to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) A short form written informed consent form stating that the elements of informed consent required by § 219.116 have been presented orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, and that the key information required by § 219.116(a)(5)(i) was presented first to the subject, before other information, if any, was provided. The IRB shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the subject or the legally authorized representative. When this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Only the short form itself is to be signed by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. However, the witness shall sign both the short form and a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining consent shall sign a copy of the summary. A copy of the summary shall be given to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in addition to a copy of the short form.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An IRB may waive the requirement for the investigator to obtain a signed informed consent form for some or all subjects if it finds any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the only record linking the subject and the research would be the informed consent form and the principal risk would be potential harm resulting from a breach of confidentiality. Each subject (or legally authorized representative) will be asked whether the subject wants documentation linking the subject with the research, and the subject's wishes will govern;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the subjects or legally authorized representatives are members of a distinct cultural group or community in which signing forms is not the norm, that the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and provided there is an appropriate alternative mechanism for documenting that informed consent was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which the documentation requirement is waived, the IRB may require the investigator to provide subjects or legally authorized representatives with a written statement regarding the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.118" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.118   Applications and proposals lacking definite plans for involvement of human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Certain types of applications for grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts are submitted to Federal departments or agencies with the knowledge that subjects may be involved within the period of support, but definite plans would not normally be set forth in the application or proposal. These include activities such as institutional type grants when selection of specific projects is the institution's responsibility; research training grants in which the activities involving subjects remain to be selected; and projects in which human subjects' involvement will depend upon completion of instruments, prior animal studies, or purification of compounds. Except for research waived under § 219.101(i) or exempted under § 219.104, no human subjects may be involved in any project supported by these awards until the project has been reviewed and approved by the IRB, as provided in this policy, and certification submitted, by the institution, to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.119" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.119   Research undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Except for research waived under § 219.101(i) or exempted under § 219.104, in the event research is undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects, but it is later proposed to involve human subjects in the research, the research shall first be reviewed and approved by an IRB, as provided in this policy, a certification submitted by the institution to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research, and final approval given to the proposed change by the Federal department or agency component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.120" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.120   Evaluation and disposition of applications and proposals for research to be conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head will evaluate all applications and proposals involving human subjects submitted to the Federal department or agency through such officers and employees of the Federal department or agency and such experts and consultants as the department or agency head determines to be appropriate. This evaluation will take into consideration the risks to the subjects, the adequacy of protection against these risks, the potential benefits of the research to the subjects and others, and the importance of the knowledge gained or to be gained.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of this evaluation, the department or agency head may approve or disapprove the application or proposal, or enter into negotiations to develop an approvable one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.121" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.121   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.122" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.122   Use of Federal funds.</HEAD>
<P>Federal funds administered by a Federal department or agency may not be expended for research involving human subjects unless the requirements of this policy have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.123" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.123   Early termination of research support: Evaluation of applications and proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head may require that Federal department or agency support for any project be terminated or suspended in the manner prescribed in applicable program requirements, when the department or agency head finds an institution has materially failed to comply with the terms of this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) In making decisions about supporting or approving applications or proposals covered by this policy the department or agency head may take into account, in addition to all other eligibility requirements and program criteria, factors such as whether the applicant has been subject to a termination or suspension under paragraph (a) of this section and whether the applicant or the person or persons who would direct or has/have directed the scientific and technical aspects of an activity has/have, in the judgment of the department or agency head, materially failed to discharge responsibility for the protection of the rights and welfare of human subjects (whether or not the research was subject to federal regulation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.124" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.21.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.124   Conditions.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any research project or any class of research projects the department or agency head of either the conducting or the supporting Federal department or agency may impose additional conditions prior to or at the time of approval when in the judgment of the department or agency head additional conditions are necessary for the protection of human subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="220" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 220—MEDICAL BILLING FOR HEALTHCARE SERVICES PROVIDED BY DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE MILITARY MEDICAL TREATMENT FACILITIES TO CIVILIAN NON-BENEFICIARIES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 1095, 1097b(b), 1079b; 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3717; and 42 U.S.C. 2651.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 220.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1095, 1097b(b), and 1079b. In general, 10 U.S.C. 1095 establishes the statutory obligation of third party payers to reimburse the United States the reasonable charges of healthcare services provided by facilities of the Uniformed Services to covered beneficiaries who are also covered by a third party payer's plan. Section 1097b(b) elaborates on the methods for computation of reasonable charges. Section 1079b addresses charges for civilian patients who are not normally beneficiaries of the Military Health System. This part establishes the Department of Defense interpretations and requirements applicable to all healthcare services subject to 10 U.S.C. 1095, 1097b(b), and 1079b.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all facilities of the Uniformed Services; the Department of Transportation administers this part with respect to facilities to the Coast Guard, not the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies to pathology services provided by the Armed Forces Institute of Pathology. However, in lieu of the rules and procedures otherwise applicable under this part, the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may establish special rules and procedures under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 176 and 177 in relation to cooperative enterprises between the Armed Forces Institute of Pathology and the American Registry of Pathology.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 57740, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.2   Statutory obligation of third party payer to pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic rule.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(a)(1), a third party payer has an obligation to pay the United States the reasonable charges for healthcare services provided in or through any facility of the Uniformed Services to a covered beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under the third party payer's plan. The obligation to pay is to the extent that the beneficiary would be eligible to receive reimbursement or indemnification from the third party payer if the beneficiary were to incur the costs on the beneficiary's own behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of cost shares.</I> If the third party payer's plan includes a requirement for a deductible or copayment by the beneficiary of the plan, then the amount the United States may collect from the third party payer is the reasonable charge for the care provided less the appropriate deductible or copayment amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim from United States exclusive.</I> The only way for a third party payer to satisfy its obligation under 10 U.S.C. 1095 is to pay the facility of the uniformed service or other authorized representative of the United States. Payment by a third party payer to the beneficiary does not satisfy 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assignment of benefits or other submission by beneficiary not necessary.</I> The obligation of the third party payer to pay is not dependent upon the beneficiary executing an assignment of benefits to the United States. Nor is the obligation to pay dependent upon any other submission by the beneficiary to the third party payer, including any claim or appeal. In any case in which a facility of the Uniformed Services makes a claim, appeal, representation, or other filing under the authority of this part, any procedural requirement in any third party payer plan for the beneficiary of such plan to make the claim, appeal, representation, or other filing must be deemed to be satisfied. A copy of the completed and signed DoD insurance declaration form will be provided to payers upon request, in lieu of a claimant's statement or coordination of benefits form. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preemption of conflicting State laws.</I> Any provision of a law or regulation of a State or political subdivision thereof that purports to establish any requirement on a third party payer that would have the effect of excluding from coverage or limiting payment, for any health care services for which payment by the third party payer under 10 U.S.C. 1095 or this part is required, is preempted by 10 U.S.C. 1095 and shall have no force or effect in connection with the third party payer's obligations under 10 U.S.C. 1095 or this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 41101, Sept. 9, 1992; 65 FR 7727, Feb. 16, 2000; 67 FR 57740, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.3   Exclusions impermissible.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory requirement.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1095(b), no provision of any third party payer's plan having the effect of excluding from coverage or limiting payment for certain care if that care is provided in a facility of the uniformed services shall operate to prevent collection by the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rules.</I> Based on the statutory requirement, the following are general rules for the administration of 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) Express exclusions or limitations in third party payer plans that are inconsistent with 10 U.S.C. 1095(b) are inoperative.
</P>
<P>(2) No objection, precondition or limitation may be asserted that defeats the statutory purpose of collecting from third party payers. 
</P>
<P>(3) Third party payers may not treat claims arising from services provided in facilities of the uniformed services less favorably than they treat claims arising from services provided in other hospitals. 
</P>
<P>(4) No objection, precondition or limitation may be asserted that is contrary to the basic nature of facilities of the uniformed services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific examples of impermissible exclusion.</I> The following are several specific examples of impermissible exclusions, limitations or preconditions. These examples are not all inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Care provided by a government entity.</I> A provision in a third party payer's plan that purports to disallow or limit payment for services provided by a government entity or paid for by a government program (or similar exclusion) is not a permissible ground for refusing or reducing third party payment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No obligation to pay.</I> A provision in a third party payer's plan that purports to disallow or limit payment for services for which the patient has no obligation to pay (or similar exclusion) is not a permissible ground for refusing or reducing third party payment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion of military beneficiaries.</I> No provision of an employer sponsored program or plan that purports to make ineligible for coverage individuals who are uniformed services health care beneficiaries shall be permissible.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No participation agreement.</I> The lack of a participation agreement or the absence of privity of contract between a third party payer and a facility of the uniformed services is not a permissible ground for refusing or reducing third party payment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medicare carve-out and Medicare secondary payer provisions.</I> A provision in a third party payer plan, other than a Medicare supplemental plan under § 220.10, that seeks to make Medicare the primary payer and the plan the secondary payer or that would operate to carve out of the plan's coverage an amount equivalent to the Medicare payment that would be made if the services were provided by a provider to whom payment would be made under Part A or Part B of Medicare is not a permissible ground for refusing or reducing payment as the primary payer to the facility of the Uniformed Services by the third party payer unless the provision: 
</P>
<P>(i) Expressly disallows payment as the primary payer to all providers to whom payment would not be made under Medicare (including payment under Part A, Part B, a Medicare HMO, or a Medicare+Choice plan); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is otherwise in accordance with applicable law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 41101, Sept. 9, 1992; 65 FR 7728, Feb. 16, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.4   Reasonable terms and conditions of health plan permissible.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory requirement.</I> The statutory obligation of the third party to pay is not unqualified. Under 10 U.S.C. 1095(a)(1) (as noted in § 220.2 of this part), the obligation to pay is to the extent the third party payer would be obliged to pay if the beneficiary incurred the costs personally.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Based on the statutory requirement, after any impermissible exclusions have been made inoperative (see § 220.3 of this part), reasonable terms and conditions of the third party payer's plan that apply generally and uniformly to services provided in facilities other than facilities of the uniformed services may also be applied to services provided in facilities of the uniformed services.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided by 10 U.S.C. 1095, this part, or other applicable law, third party payers are not required to treat claims arising from services provided in or through facilities of the Uniformed Services more favorably than they treat claims arising from services provided in other facilities or by other health care providers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific examples of permissible terms and conditions.</I> The following are several specific examples of permissible terms and conditions of third party payer plans. These examples are not all inclusive.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Generally applicable coverage provisions.</I> Generally applicable provisions regarding particular types of medical care or medical conditions covered by the third party payer's plan are permissible grounds to refuse or limit third party payment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Generally applicable utilization review provisions.</I> (i) Reasonable and generally applicable provisions of a third party payer's plan requiring pre-admission screening, second surgical opinions, retrospective review or other similar utilization management activities may be permissible grounds to refuse or reduce third party payment if such refusal or reduction is required by the third party payer's plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such provisions are not permissible if they are applied in a manner that would result in claims arising from services provided by or through facilities of the Uniformed Services being treated less favorably than claims arising from services provided by other hospitals or providers. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Such provisions are not permissible if they would not affect a third party payer's obligation under this part. For example, concurrent review of an inpatient hospitalization would generally not affect the third party payer's obligation because of the DRG-based, per-admission basis for calculating reasonable charges under § 220.8(a) (except in long stay outlier cases, noted in § 220.8(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrictions in HMO plans.</I> Generally applicable exclusions in Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) plans of non-emergency or non-urgent services provided outside the HMO (or similar exclusions) are permissible. However, HMOs may not exclude claims or refuse to certify emergent and urgent services provided within the HMO's service area or otherwise covered non-emergency services provided out of the HMO's service area. In addition, opt-out or point-of-service options available under an HMO plan may not exclude services otherwise payable under 10 U.S.C. 1095 or this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for establishing reasonable terms and conditions.</I> In order to establish that a term or condition of a third party payer's plan is permissible, the third party payer must provide appropriate documentation to the facility of the Uniformed Services. This includes, when applicable, copies of explanation of benefits (EOBs), remittance advice, or payment to provider forms. It also includes copies of policies, employee certificates, booklets, or handbooks, or other documentation detailing the plan's health care benefits, exclusions, limitations, deductibles, co-insurance, and other pertinent policy or plan coverage and benefit information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 7728, Feb. 16, 2000; 67 FR 57740, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.5   Records available.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(c), facilities of the uniformed services, when requested, shall make available to representatives of any third party payer from which the United States seeks payment under 10 U.S.C. 1095 for inspection and review appropriate health care records (or copies of such records) of individuals for whose care payment is sought. Appropriate records which will be made available are records which document that the services which are the subject of the claims for payment under 10 U.S.C. 1095 were provided as claimed and were provided in a manner consistent with permissible terms and conditions of the third party payer's plan. This is the sole purpose for which patient care records will be made available. Records not needed for this purpose will not be made available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.6   Certain payers excluded.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medicare and Medicaid.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1095(d), claims for payment from the Medicare or Medicaid programs (titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act) are not authorized. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplemental plans.</I> CHAMPUS (see 32 CFR part 199) supplemental plans and income supplemental plans are excluded from any obligation to pay under 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third party payer plans prior to April 7, 1986.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1095 is not applicable to third party payer plans which have been in continuous effect without amendment or renewal since prior to April 7, 1986. Plans entered into, amended or renewed on or after April 7, 1986, are subject to 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Third party payer plans prior to November 5, 1990, in connection with outpatient care.</I> The provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this section concerning outpatient services are not applicable to third party payer plans:
</P>
<P>(1) That have been in continuous effect without amendment or renewal since prior to November 5, 1990; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For which the facility of the Uniformed Services or other authorized representative for the United States makes a determination, based on documentation provided by the third party payer, that the policy or plan clearly excludes payment for such services. Plans entered into, amended or renewed on or after November 5, 1990, are subject to this section, as are prior plans that do not clearly exclude payment for services covered by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 41101, Sept. 9, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.7   Remedies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(e)(1), the United States may institute and prosecute legal proceedings against a third party payer to enforce a right of the United States under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(e)(2), an authorized representative of the United States may compromise, settle or waive a claim of the United States under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The authorities provided by 31 U.S.C. 3701, <I>et seq.,</I> 28 CFR part 11, and 4 CFR parts 101-104 regarding collection of indebtedness due the United States shall be available to effect collections pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) A third party payer may not, without the consent of a U.S. Government official authorized to take action under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part, offset or reduce any payment due under 10 U.S.C. 1095 or this part on the grounds that the payer considers itself due a refund from a facility of the Uniformed Services. A request for refund must be submitted and adjudicated separately from any other claims submitted to the third party payer under 10 U.S.C. 1095 or this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 7728, Feb. 16, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.8   Reasonable charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Section 1095(f) and section 1097b(b) both address the issue of computation of rates. Between them, the effect is to authorize the calculation of all third party payer collections on the basis of reasonable charges and the computation of reasonable charges on the basis of per diem rates, all-inclusive per-visit rates, diagnosis related groups rates, rates used by the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) program to reimburse authorized providers, or any other method the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) considers appropriate and establishes in this part. Such rates, representative of costs, are also endorsed by section 1079(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The general rule is that reasonable charges under this part are based on the rates used by CHAMPUS under 32 CFR 199.14 to reimburse authorized providers. There are some exceptions to this general rule, as outlined in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inpatient institutional and professional services on or after October 1, 2017.</I> Reasonable charges for inpatient institutional services provided on or after October 1, 2017, are based on either of two methods as determined by the ASD(HA). The first uses the CHAMPUS Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) payment system rates under 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1). Certain adjustments are made to reflect differences between the CHAMPUS payment system and MHS billing solutions. Among these are to include in the inpatient hospital service charges adjustments related to direct medical education and capital costs (which in the CHAMPUS system are handled as annual pass through payments). Additional adjustments are made for long stay outlier cases. The second method uses Itemized Resource Utilization (IRU) rates based on the cost to provide inpatient institutional resources. Like the CHAMPUS system, inpatient professional services are not included in the inpatient institutional services charges calculated under either methodology, but are billed separately in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In lieu of either method described in this paragraph (b), the method in effect prior to April 1, 2003 (described in paragraph (c) of this section), may continue to be used for a period of time after April 1, 2003, if the ASD(HA) determines that effective implementation requires a temporary deferral.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inpatient hospital and inpatient professional services before April 1, 2003</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Prior to April 1, 2003, the computation of reasonable charges for inpatient institutional and professional services is reasonable costs based on diagnosis related groups (DRGs). Costs shall be based on the inpatient full reimbursement rate per hospital discharge, weighted to reflect the intensity of the principal diagnosis involved. The average charge per case shall be published annually as an inpatient standardized amount. A relative weight for each DRG shall be the same as the DRG weights published annually for hospital reimbursement rates under CHAMPUS pursuant to 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1). The method in effect prior to April 1, 2003 (as described in this paragraph (c)), may continue to be used for a period of time after April 1, 2003, if the ASD(HA) determines that effective implementation requires a temporary deferral of the method described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard amount.</I> The standard amount is determined by dividing the total costs of all inpatient care in all military treatment facilities by the total number of discharges. This produces a single national standardized amount. The Department of Defense is authorized, but not required by this part, to calculate three standardized amounts, one for large urban, other urban/rural, and overseas area, utilizing the same distinctions in identifying the first two areas as is used for CHAMPUS under 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1). Using this applicable standardized amount, the Department of Defense may make adjustments for area wage rates and indirect medical education costs (as identified in paragraph (c)(4) of this section), producing for each inpatient facility of the Uniformed Services a facility-specific “adjusted standardized amount” (ASA).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DRG relative weights.</I> Costs for each DRG will be determined by multiplying the standardized amount per discharge by the DRG relative weight. For this purpose, the DRG relative weights used for CHAMPUS pursuant to 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1) shall be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjustments for outliers, area wages, and indirect medical education.</I> The Department of Defense may, but is not required by this part, to adjust charge determinations in particular cases for length-of-stay outliers (long stay and short stay), cost outliers, area wage rates, and indirect medical education. If any such adjustments are used, the method shall be comparable to that used for CHAMPUS hospital reimbursements pursuant to 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1)(iii)(E), and the calculation of the standardized amount under paragraph (a)(2) of this section will reflect that such adjustments will be used.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identification of professional and institutional charges.</I> For purposes of billing third party payers other than automobile liability and no-fault insurance carriers, inpatient billings are subdivided into two categories:
</P>
<P>(i) Institutional charges (which refer to routine service charges associated with the facility encounter or hospital stay and ancillary charges).


</P>
<P>(ii) Professional charges (which refers to professional services provided by physicians and certain other providers).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical services and subsistence charges included.</I> Medical services charges pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1078 or subsistence charges pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1075 are included in the claim filed with the third party payer pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095. For any patient of a facility of the Uniformed Services who indicates that he or she is a beneficiary of a third party payer plan, the usual medical services or subsistence charge will not be collected from the patient to the extent that payment received from the payer exceeds the medical services or subsistence charge. Thus, except in cases covered by § 220.8(k), payment of the claim made pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095 which exceeds the medical services or subsistence charge, will satisfy all of the third party payer's obligation arising from the care provided by the facility of the Uniformed Services on that occasion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reasonable charges for professional services.</I> The CHAMPUS Maximum Allowable Charge rate table, established under 32 CFR 199.14(h), is used for determining the appropriate charge for professional services in an itemized format, based on Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) methodology. This applies to outpatient professional charges only prior to implementation of the method described in paragraph (b) of this section, and to all professional charges, both inpatient and outpatient, thereafter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Miscellaneous Healthcare services.</I> Some special services are provided by or through facilities of the Uniformed Services for which reasonable charges are computed based on reasonable costs. Those services are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The charge for ambulance services is based on the full costs of operating the ambulance service.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to inpatient institutional charges in the Burn Center at Brooke Army Medical Center, the ASD(HA) may establish an adjustment to the rate otherwise applicable under the payment methodologies under this section to reflect unique attributes of the Burn Center.


</P>
<P>(3) Charges for dental services (including oral diagnosis and prevention, periodontics, prosthodontics (fixed and removable), implantology, oral surgery, orthodontics, pediatric dentistry and endodontics) will be based on a full cost of the dental services.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to service provided prior to January 1, 2003, reasonable charges for anesthesia services will be based on an average DoD cost of service in all Military Treatment Facilities. With respect to services provided on or after January 1, 2003, reasonable charges for anesthesia services will be based on an average cost per minute of service in all Military Treatment Facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) The charge for immunizations, allergen extracts, allergic condition tests, and the administration of certain medications when these services are provided by or through a facility of the Uniformed Services or a separate immunizations or shot clinic, are based either on CHAMPUS prevailing rates or on IRU rates based on the cost to provide these items, exclusive of any costs considered for purposes of any outpatient visit. A separate charge shall be made for each immunization, injection or medication administered.
</P>
<P>(6) The charges for pharmacy, durable medical equipment and supply resources are based either on CHAMPUS prevailing rates or on IRU rates based on the cost to provide these items, exclusive of any costs considered for purposes of any outpatient visit. A separate charge shall be made for each item provided.


</P>
<P>(7) Charges for aero-medical evacuation will be based on the full cost of the aero-medical evacuation services.
</P>
<P>(8) Ambulatory (outpatient) institutional services on or after October 1, 2017. Reasonable charges for institutional facility charges for ambulatory services provided on or after October 1, 2017, are based on any of three methods as determined by the ASD(HA). The first uses the CHAMPUS Ambulatory Payment Classification (APC) and Ambulatory Surgery Center (ASC) payment system rates under 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1)(ii) and (iii) and 32 CFR 199.14(d) respectively. The second uses a bundled MHS Ambulatory Procedure Visit (APV) payment system rate charge reflected by the average cost of providing an APV exclusive of professional services. The third method uses IRU rates based on the cost to provide ambulatory institutional resources. Like the CHAMPUS system, ambulatory professional services are not included in the ambulatory institutional facility charges calculated under any of the three methodologies, but are billed separately in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special rule for services ordered and paid for by a facility of the Uniformed Services but provided by another provider.</I> In cases where a facility of the Uniformed Services purchases ancillary services or procedures, from a source other than a Uniformed Services facility, the cost of the purchased services will be added to the standard rate. Examples of ancillary services and other procedures covered by this special rule include (but are not limited to): laboratory, radiology, pharmacy, pulmonary function, cardiac catheterization, hemodialysis, hyperbaric medicine, electrocardiography, electroencephalography, electroneuromyography, pulmonary function, inhalation and respiratory therapy and physical therapy services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special rule for TRICARE Resource Sharing Agreements.</I> Services provided in facilities of the Uniformed Services in whole or in part through personnel or other resources supplied under a TRICARE Resource Sharing Agreement under 32 CFR 199.17(h) are considered for purposes of this part as services provided by the facility of the Uniformed Services. Thus, third party payers will receive a claim for such services in the same manner and for the same charges as any similar services provided by a facility of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Alternative determination of reasonable charges.</I> Any third party payer that can satisfactorily demonstrate a prevailing rate of payment in the same geographic area for the same or similar aggregate groups of services that is less than the charges prescribed under this section may, with the agreement of the facility of the Uniformed Services (or other authorized representatives of the United States), limit payments under 10 U.S.C. 1095 to that prevailing rate for those services. The determination of the third party payer's prevailing rate shall be based on a review of valid contractual arrangements with other facilities or providers constituting a majority of the services for which payment is made under the third party payer's plan. This paragraph does not apply to cases covered by § 220.11.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exception authority for extraordinary circumstances.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may authorize exceptions to this section, not inconsistent with law, based on extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 41101, Sept. 9, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 49002, Sept. 26, 1994; 61 FR 6542, Feb. 21, 1996; 62 FR 941, Jan. 7, 1997; 65 FR 7728, Feb. 16, 2000; 67 FR 57740, Sept. 12, 2002; 85 FR 51351, Aug. 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.9   Rights and obligations of beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No additional cost share.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(a)(2), uniformed services beneficiaries will not be required to pay to the facility of the uniformed services any amount greater than the normal medical services or subsistence charges (under 10 U.S.C. 1075 or 1078). In every case in which payment from a third party payer is received, it will be considered as satisfying the normal medical services or subsistence charges, and no further payment from the beneficiary will be required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of healthcare services unaffected.</I> The availability of healthcare services in any facility of the Uniformed Services will not be affected by the participation or nonparticipation of a Uniformed Services beneficiary in a health care plan of a third party payer. Whether or not a Uniformed Services beneficiary is covered by a third party payer's plan will not be considered in determining the availability of healthcare services in a facility of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to disclose information and cooperate with collection efforts.</I> (1) Uniformed Services beneficiaries are required to provide correct information to the facility of the Uniformed Services regarding whether the beneficiary is covered by a third party payer's plan. Such beneficiaries are also required to provide correct information regarding whether particular health care services might be covered by a third party payer's plan, including services arising from an accident or workplace injury or illness. In the event a third party payer's plan might be applicable, a beneficiary has an obligation to provide such information as may be necessary to carry out 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part, including identification of policy numbers, claim numbers, involved parties and their representatives, and other relevant information. 
</P>
<P>(2) Uniformed Services beneficiaries are required to take other reasonable steps to cooperate with the efforts of the facility of the Uniformed Services to make collections under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part, such as submitting to the third party payer (or other entity involved in adjudicating a claim) any requests or documentation that might be required by the third party payer (or other entity), if consistent with this part, to facilitate payment under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Intentionally providing false information or willfully failing to satisfy a beneficiary's obligations are grounds for disqualification for health care services from facilities of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mandatory disclosure of Social Security account numbers.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095(k)(2), every covered beneficiary eligible for care in facilities of the Uniformed Services is, as a condition of eligibility, required to disclose to authorized personnel his or her Social Security account number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 21748, May 29, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 41102, Sept. 9, 1992; 63 FR 11600, Mar. 10, 1998; 65 FR 7729, Feb. 16, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.10   Special rules for Medicare supplemental plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory obligation of Medicare supplemental plans to pay.</I> The obligation of a Medicare supplemental plan to pay shall be determined as if the facility of the Uniformed Services were a medicare-eligible provider and the services provided as if they were Medicare-covered services. A Medicare supplemental plan is required to pay only to the extent that the plan would have incurred a payment obligation if the services had been furnished by a Medicare eligible provider.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inpatient hospital care charges.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of § 220.8, charges to Medicare supplemental plans for inpatient hospital care services provided to beneficiaries of such plans shall not, for any admission, exceed the Medicare inpatient hospital deductible amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Only one deductible charge shall be made per hospital admission (or Medicare benefit period), regardless of whether the admission is to a facility of the Uniformed Services or a Medicare certified civilian hospital. To ensure that a Medicare supplemental insurer is not charged the inpatient hospital deductible twice when an individual who is entitled to benefits under both DoD retiree benefits and Medicare, the following payment rules apply:
</P>
<P>(i) If a dual beneficiary is first admitted to a Medicare-certified hospital and is later admitted to a facility of the Uniformed Services within the same benefit period initiated by the admission to the Medicare-certified hospital, the facility of the Uniformed Services shall not charge the Medicare supplemental insurance plan an inpatient hospital deductible.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a dual beneficiary is admitted first to a facility of the Uniformed Services and secondly to a Medicare-certified hospital within 60 days of discharge from the facility of the Uniformed Services, the facility of the Uniformed Services shall refund to the Medicare supplemental insurer any inpatient hospital deductible that the insurer paid to the facility of the Uniformed Services so that it may pay the deductible to the Medicare-certified hospital.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charges for Healthcare services other than inpatient deductible amount.</I> (1) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) may establish charge amounts for Medicare supplemental plans to collect reasonable charges for inpatient and outpatient copayments and other services covered by the Medicare supplemental plan. Any such schedule of charge amounts shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be based on percentage amounts of the per diem, per visit and other rates established by § 220.8 comparable to the percentage amounts of beneficiary financial responsibility under Medicare for the service involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include adjustments, as appropriate, to identify major components of the all inclusive per diem or per visit rates for which Medicare has special rules.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for offsets and/or refunds to ensure that Medicare supplemental insurers are not required to pay a limited benefit more than one time in cases in which beneficiaries receive similar services from both a facility of the uniformed services and a Medicare certified provider; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Otherwise conform with the requirements of this section and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If collections are sought under paragraph (c) of this section, the effective date of such collections will be prospective from the date the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) provides notice of such collections, and will exempt policies in continuous effect without amendment or renewal since the date the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) provides notice of such collections.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medicare claim not required.</I> Notwithstanding any requirement of the Medicare supplemental plan policy, a Medicare supplemental plan may not refuse payment to a claim made pursuant to this section on the grounds that no claim had previously been submitted by the provider or beneficiary for payment under the Medicare program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exclusion of Medicare supplemental plans prior to November 5, 1990.</I> This section is not applicable to Medicare supplemental plans:
</P>
<P>(1) That have been in continuous effect without amendment since prior to November 5, 1990; and
</P>
<P>(2) For which the facility of the Uniformed Services (or other authorized representative of the United States) makes a determination, based on documentation provided by the Medicare supplemental plan, that the plan agreement clearly excludes payment for services covered by this section. Plans entered into, amended or renewed on or after November 5, 1990, are subject to this section, as are prior plans that do not clearly exclude payment for services covered by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 41102, Sept. 9, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 49003, Sept. 26, 1994; 67 FR 57742, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.11   Special rules for automobile liability insurance and no-fault automobile insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Active duty members covered.</I> In addition to Uniformed Services beneficiaries covered by other provisions of this part, this section also applies to active duty members of the Uniformed Services. As used in this section, “beneficiaries” includes active duty members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of concurrent applicability of the Federal Medical Care Recovery Act</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In many cases covered by this section, the United States has a right to collect under both 10 U.S.C. 1095 and the Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA), Pub. L. 87-693 (42 U.S.C. 2651 <I>et seq.</I>). In such cases, the authority is concurrent and the United States may pursue collection under both statutory authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cases involving tort liability.</I> In cases in which the right of the United States to collect from the automobile liability insurance carrier is premised on establishing some tort liability on some third person, matters regarding the determination of such tort liability shall be governed by the same substantive standards as would be applied under the FMCRA including reliance on state law for determinations regarding tort liability. In addition, the provisions of 28 CFR part 43 (Department of Justice regulations pertaining to the FMCRA) shall apply to claims made under the concurrent authority of the FMCRA and 10 U.S.C. 1095. All other matters and procedures concerning the right of the United States to collect shall, if a claim is made under the concurrent authority of the FMCRA and this section, be governed by 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of automobile liability insurance and no-fault automobile insurance plans prior to November 5, 1990.</I> This section is not applicable to automobile liability insurance and no-fault automobile insurance plans:
</P>
<P>(1) That have been in continuous effect without amendment since prior to November 5, 1990; and
</P>
<P>(2) For which the facility of the Uniformed Services (or other authorized representative of the United States) makes a determination, based on documentation provided by the third party payer, that the policy or plan clearly excludes payment for services covered by this section. Plans entered into, amended or renewed on or after November 5, 1990, are subject to this section, as are prior plans that do not clearly exclude payment for services covered by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 41103, Sept. 9, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.12   Medical billing for healthcare services provided by DoD Military Medical Treatment Facilities to civilian non-beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This section applies to all persons who receive reimbursable care in a military medical treatment facility (MTF) on or after June 21, 2023, and who are not covered beneficiaries of the Department of Defense (DoD) as defined in § 220.14, other than persons who receive care in an MTF pursuant to an agreement between the United States and a foreign government or other entity.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to third persons (or their insurers) with a tort liability under the Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA) (42 U.S.C. 2651) or third-party payers under 10 U.S.C. 1095. The discounts and waivers implemented by this section may not be used to reduce the value of the care and treatment that is recoverable from those third persons (or their insurers) under the FMCRA or 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Military Health System (MHS) Modified Payment and Waiver Program (MPWP).</I> The MHS MPWP is a DoD program to implement an enacted Fiscal Year 2023 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA-23) amendment to section 1079b of title 10, United States Code (U.S.C.). Section 716 of the NDAA-23 amended 10 U.S.C. 1079b to require, inter alia, the Director of the Defense Health Agency (DHA) to reduce fees that would otherwise be charged to civilian non-beneficiaries for medical care according to a sliding scale and to implement a catastrophic fee waiver to prevent severe financial harm. It also granted the Director of the DHA with discretionary authority to issue waivers of fees for medical care if the provision of such care enhances the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) of healthcare providers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered payer.</I> A third-party payer or other insurance, medical service, or health plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered by a covered payer.</I> A medical item or service is deemed to be covered by a covered payer when:
</P>
<P>(i) The patient possesses health insurance that is in effect on the date(s) that the item or service was provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) The health insurance plan provides coverage for the geographic area where the care was delivered;
</P>
<P>(iii) The care provided to the patient is an item or service covered by the terms of the insurance plan, and;
</P>
<P>(iv) The health insurance plan provides coverage for care rendered in a U.S. Government/DoD facility;
</P>
<P>(v) The insurer agrees to pay the facility directly;
</P>
<P>(vi) The insurer agrees to provide the facility with an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) that details how the insurer processed the claims according to the insurance plan; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The patient authorizes the DoD to file insurance claims against the insurance policy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-covered item or service.</I> A medical item or service that is not covered by the terms of the insurance plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Third-party payer</I> and <I>insurance, medical service, or health plan</I> have the meaning given those terms in 10 U.S.C. 1095(h).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Knowledges, Skills, and Abilities (KSAs).</I> KSAs are a set of clinical skill requirements that a healthcare provider needs in order to provide medical care or treatment in the deployed environment. The extent to which a patient's care enhances KSAs will be determined via the DD Form 3201-1A by competent medical authority at the treating MTF.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reasonable value of medical care.</I> Reasonable value of medical care is defined in § 220.8. The reasonable value of medical care is based on the amount billed by the MTF before application of any sliding scale discount, catastrophic fee waiver, or other discount or waiver under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notifications concerning MHS MPWP.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)) will maintain a public website containing information about the MHS MPWP, applicable forms (with links to the forms), and a fee discount calculator. The DoD will notify non-beneficiary patients of the availability of the MHS MPWP. Information about the MHS MPWP will be posted in MTFs (<I>e.g.,</I> in waiting rooms and information desks) and included in DoD patient invoices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirement to complete a DD Form 2569.</I> MTFs will present the DD Form 2569, “Third Party Collection Program/Medical Services Account/Other Health Insurance,” to all patients. It will also be available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/dd2500_2999/.</I> All patients (regardless of insurance status) must complete the DD Form 2569.
</P>
<P>(1) Before applying for the MHS MPWP, all patients (regardless of health insurance status) must fully complete (including by signing) the DD Form 2569 and ensure that a current and accurate DD Form 2569 is on file with the applicable MTF. Successful completion of these steps is a condition of eligibility for the MHS MPWP.
</P>
<P>(2) For patients with health insurance, the DoD will file insurance claims on behalf of the patient. Patients with health insurance who do not consent to allowing the DoD to file health insurance claims on their behalf will not be eligible for the MHS MPWP (inclusive of the discount and waiver portions).
</P>
<P>(3) The DoD may use a completed DD Form 2569 for multiple episodes of care. Unless a DD Form 2569 completed within the preceding 12 months for the patient is available, the DoD will solicit an updated DD Form 2569 from patients who receive a subsequent episode of care from the MTF. However, the lack of an updated form will not preclude the DoD from filing additional claims against encounters for the patient.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notifications on medical invoices.</I> In addition to any notifications otherwise already required by law, regulation, or DoD policy, all DoD invoices will notify patients that-
</P>
<P>(1) Patients must consent to DoD filing insurance claims on their behalf to be eligible for the MHS MPWP;
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD will suspend fee assessment and patient billing actions against the debtor for up to 120 days while the DoD is pursuing an insurance claim or claim against a third-party payer;
</P>
<P>(3) For patients who are covered by a covered payer, the DoD will only bill the patient for the insurer-assigned copays, coinsurance, deductibles, nominal fees, and non-covered services;
</P>
<P>(4) The patient demonstrates potential eligibility for the MHS MPWP fee discounts and catastrophic fee waivers by completing and submitting DD Form 2569 and DD Form 3201, which may result in a discount of their medical invoice after pursuit or recovery of claims against third party payers (instructions for demonstrating eligibility, including deadline, will also be included);
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to sliding fee discounts and catastrophic fee waivers, patients may request a waiver under 10 U.S.C. 1079b(b) by submitting a DD Form 3201-1, “Request for Medical Debt Waiver, Military Health System Modified Payment and Waiver Program.” Patients may be considered for a partial or full waiver if they previously applied to and were approved for the MHS MPWP discount program, and it did not sufficiently mitigate financial harm and if the applicable care provided is determined to enhance the KSAs of DoD healthcare providers, as confirmed by competent medical authority competent medical authority at the MTF that provided the care. Confirmation will be done by the competent medical authority on the DD Form 3201-1A. Waivers under 10 U.S.C. 1079b(b) may result in information reporting to the Internal Revenue Service and issuance of a Form 1099-C, Cancellation of Debt. The waived amount(s) may constitute gross income to the patient under 26 U.S.C. 61;
</P>
<P>(6) If fees or charges (including those reduced under the MHS MPWP) become delinquent due to non-payment, the DoD will establish a debt for the delinquent amount and commence efforts to collect the established debt, which may include transfer to the Department of the Treasury in accordance with applicable authority; and
</P>
<P>(7) That invoices issued after reduction or waiver of charges under the MHS MPWP will reflect the date by which an unpaid account will become delinquent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DoD medical billing rates.</I> Annually, the ASD(HA) publishes the rates that DoD uses for medical billing. Except for reasons listed in § 220.8(f) or (g) of this part, the DoD rate will be used for all non-beneficiary billing, including billing to either the insurer or patient.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>For non-covered items or services.</I> In any instance where an item or service is not covered by a covered payer, the DoD will bill the patient for the full amount of the service.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>For patients who are potentially covered by a covered payer.</I> In any instance where a patient submits a DD Form 2569 that indicates that the patient possesses valid health insurance, the DoD will suspend any collections against the patient to allow time for the claim remittance to be processed by the insurer and for a valid EOB to be received, or until 120 days have passed since filing for payment from the insurance company, whichever comes first. Upon receipt of an EOB, the DoD will bill the patient only for those amounts that are designated by the insurance company as a copay, coinsurance, deductible, nominal fee, or non-covered service. If insurance remittance and an EOB are not received within 120 days of filing of a claim, the DoD will deem the item or service to be a non-covered service. If insurance remittance and an EOB are received after 120 days have elapsed, the DoD will deposit the remittance and adjust the patient's account accordingly. The DoD will issue to the patient a revised medical invoice reflecting updated balances. MTFs will engage in standard denials management practices, including providing supporting documentation and participating in appeal processes, to facilitate the resolution of disputed claims.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Actions when an insurance payment and/or EOB is received.</I> When the DoD receives an insurance payment and/or an EOB, the DoD will post all payments and adjustments for those items or services that are deemed as covered by a covered payer against the bill in the manner prescribed by the EOB. The DoD will bill the patient for any remaining copays, co-insurance, deductibles, nominal fees and non-covered services.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Application for the MHS MPWP (DD Form 3201).</I> All DoD invoices generated for non-covered beneficiaries will include a statement that all patients applying for the MHS MPWP must complete DD Form 3201 and must include instructions on how to apply (<I>i.e.,</I> the deadline and where to submit the application). Processing of the application will be logged on the last page of the DD Form 3201. Applicants to the MHS MPWP will be notified of the status of their application via the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) For approved applications, the DoD will issue to the patient a modified medical invoice reflecting the adjusted balance due after applying the sliding fee and/or catastrophic fee waiver and including a revised (reset) payment due date. The invoice modified to reflect fee adjustments or waiver under the MHS MPWP will include notification of the requirement to transfer delinquent debts to the Department of the Treasury if, after any modification under the MHS MPWP, an unpaid invoice becomes delinquent.
</P>
<P>(2) For disapproved applications, the DoD will issue a letter reflecting the reason why the application was disapproved. The letter will inform the patient of their right to reapply should their financial circumstances change.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Requirements to apply to the MHS MPWP.</I> (1) To apply to the MHS MPWP all patients must:
</P>
<P>(i) Complete a DD Form 2569 (even in cases where the patient possesses no health insurance). Insurance remittances must be applied before the patient can be considered for the MHS MPWP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Complete a DD Form 3201, “Application for Military Health System Modified Payment and Waiver Program.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Attach a copy of the patient's (or guarantor's if the patient is a minor) most recently filed Federal Income Tax Return to the DD Form 3201.
</P>
<P>(iv) Attach a copy of the patient's (or guarantor's if the patient is a minor) last two pay stubs.
</P>
<P>(v) Indicate whether their injury/disease was caused by a third party and provide explanatory information.
</P>
<P>(2) Patients applying for the MHS MPWP are required to certify whether or not they filed a Federal Income Tax Return for the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(i) If the patient did not file a Federal Income Tax Return for the preceding year, the patient must certify this in the space provided on the DD Form 3201.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the patient has no verifiable income, the patient must certify this and provide a certification of their current annual income amount in the space provided on the DD Form 3201.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the patient has certified to having no verifiable income and has neither a tax return nor pay stubs, other information may be used to validate the patient's lack of income including, but not limited to, the last two bank statements (savings and checking), or a Social Security benefits letter verifying that no benefits are being received.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the patient believes that hospitalization/care occurred as the result of an action for which another party may be responsible, then to be eligible for the MHS MPWP, the patient must agree to cooperate and assist the United States to recover the cost of care from said party in the space provided on the DD Form 3201.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Basis to assign a Sliding Fee Discount/Catastrophic Fee Waiver</I>—(1) <I>MHS Discount Calculator.</I> Once a year, the ASD(HA) will promulgate an MHS Discount Calculator. The initial calculator will assign a 100 percent sliding fee discount and no stratified nominal fee to applicants to the MHS MPWP whose annual household income is at or below 100 percent of the applicable year's Federal Poverty Guidelines (FPGs); and a 100 percent sliding fee discount plus a stratified nominal fee to applicants whose annual household income is greater than 100 percent and at or below 400 percent of the FPGs current at the time of application. Applicants with annual household income of greater than 400 percent of the applicable year's FPGs will not be eligible for a sliding fee discount; but may be eligible for a catastrophic fee waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Catastrophic Fee Waiver.</I> For applicants who exceed the 400 percent threshold but whose household income is at or below 600 percent of the FPGs, the calculator will assign an ASD(HA)-approved maximum percentage that may be charged monthly based on the patient's monthly household income. The maximum percentage will be set to 5 percent. The monthly household income will be multiplied by 5 percent and the result will be multiplied by 36 months to derive the amount of downward adjustment to the patient's bill. Amounts that exceed the recalculated amount will be waived. If the original bill is less than the recalculated bill, the original bill will remain as the balance owed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nominal fee.</I> Once a year, the ASD(HA) will publish a stratified nominal inpatient and outpatient fee. The nominal fee will be assigned in any case where the sliding fee results in a 100 percent waiver of the medical invoice and the patient's income is above 100 percent and up to 400 percent of the applicable year's FPGs. Stratified nominal fees are generally established in a manner that is equitable with what military retirees enrolled in the TRICARE program would be required to pay in the private sector for comparable services. Nominal fees do not apply to catastrophic fee waivers. The initial nominal stratified fees are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(3)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Household income falls within the below Federal poverty guidelines
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inpatient fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Outpatient fee
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0%-100%</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101%-120%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121%-140%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">141%-160%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161%-180%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">181%-200%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">201%-220%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">221%-240%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">241%-260%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">261%-280%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">281%-300%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301%-320%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">321%-340%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">341%-360%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">361%-380%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">381%-400%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(m) <I>Notification of approved/disapproved MHS MPWP applications.</I> Unless additional time is needed (<I>e.g.,</I> to verify a patient's documentation), the DoD shall generally determine whether a patient has demonstrated eligibility for the MHS MPWP within 30 business days of receipt of the complete application. The DoD will suspend DoD collection actions (excluding the processing of insurance claims) against the patient during the review.
</P>
<P>(1) For approved applications, the DoD will issue to the patient a modified medical invoice reflecting the adjusted balance due after applying the sliding fee and/or catastrophic fee waiver. The invoice modified to reflect fee adjustments under the MHS MPWP will include notification of the requirement to transfer delinquent debts to the Department of the Treasury if, after any modification under the MHS MPWP, an unpaid invoice becomes delinquent.
</P>
<P>(2) For disapproved applications, the DHA will issue a letter by U.S. mail to the patient's last known address reflecting the reason why the application was disapproved. The letter will inform the patient of the right to reapply should the patient's financial circumstances change.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Collection in installments.</I> Patients approved for a sliding scale fee reduction or catastrophic fee waiver shall have amounts collected in installments for a term not to exceed 72 months. Patients may choose to pay their balance in a lump sum payment.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Application for a 10 U.S.C. 1079b(b) waiver</I>—(1) <I>Basis for a waiver.</I> Waivers may be granted when:
</P>
<P>(i) The patient has provided the DoD with a completed DD Form 2569 (even for patients who possess no valid health insurance) and applicable insurance payments have been applied;
</P>
<P>(ii) The patient has previously submitted a completed application to the MHS MPWP (32 CFR 220.12(k)) and was approved for any applicable discounts;
</P>
<P>(iii) The patient submitted a DD Form 3201-1, “Request for Medical Debt Waiver, Military Health System Modified Payment and Waiver Program,” requesting waiver of already discounted fees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A DoD competent medical authority at the treating MTF confirms in writing (on the DD Form 3201-1A, “MHS Modified Payment and Waiver Program (MPWP) Medical Skills Sustainment Scoring Worksheet”) that the care provided to the patient enhanced the KSAs of the DoD healthcare provider. The completed DD Form 3201-1A yields whether a partial or full waiver of already discounted fees may be applied.
</P>
<P>(v) If the conditions in paragraphs (o)(1)(i) through (iv) are met, the Director of DHA may exercise discretionary authority to waive the medical invoice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method to request a waiver.</I> Patients must submit a completed DD Form 3201-1, “Request for Medical Debt Waiver Military Health System Modified Payment and Waiver Program.” All DoD invoices will include the address where a patient may submit a waiver request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to a request for waiver.</I> Unless additional time is needed (<I>e.g.,</I> to verify a patient's documentation), the DoD shall generally make a decision on the request within 90 days. The DoD will provide a response in writing to the patient, as well as a copy of the medical invoice reflecting the balance due. Waivers that are approved under 10 U.S.C. 1079b(b) will require reporting to the IRS and issuance of an IRS Form 1099-C when required by 26 U.S.C. 6050P.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Debts transferred to Treasury that are subsequently processed through insurance.</I> In any instance where a debt is transferred to Treasury and a lower balance is assigned to a Treasury-managed debt due to a claim being subsequently processed through insurance, the DoD shall recall the debt back to the DoD for management actions and notify Treasury to delete the debt from its systems and reverse any adverse reporting that occurred against the debt.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Delinquent Accounts.</I> Delinquent accounts will be processed in accordance with the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 and its implementing regulation 31 CFR parts 900-904 (Federal Claims Collection Standards).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Applications for MHS MPWP Received for Delinquent Accounts Transferred to the Department of the Treasury.</I> Individuals may still submit an application for the MHS MPWP after their account has been transferred to the Cross-Servicing Program (“Cross-Servicing”) of the Department of the Treasury, Bureau of the Fiscal Service; however, any reductions to the medical invoice from the MPWP may be subject to interest, penalties, and costs. When patients apply to the MHS MPWP after their accounts were transferred to Cross-Servicing, their debts will remain at Cross-Servicing unless and until the DoD determines that they are eligible for a reduction under the MHS MPWP. The DoD may recall the debt from Cross-Servicing after it determines that the debt is eligible for a reduction under the MHS MPWP. Patients may request reconsideration for the MHS MPWP when their financial circumstances appear to have significantly changed.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Reporting to IRS and Furnishing of IRS Forms 1099-C (Cancellation of Debt).</I> The DoD will report to IRS, and furnish to patients, IRS Forms 1099-C for all 10 U.S.C. 1079b(b) waivers issued during the previous calendar year where required by 26 U.S.C. 6050P. IRS reporting will not be done for portions of a bill which have been adjusted downwards due to insurance processing, or by assignment of a sliding fee/catastrophic fee waiver to the debt under 10 U.S.C. 1079b(c)(2) or (3). The IRS Forms 1099-C will reflect amounts waived under the DHA Director's discretionary authority.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Refunds not permitted for amounts previously paid.</I> Except for circumstances specified in paragraphs (p) and (u)(3) of this section, financial relief under the MHS MPWP may only be granted for amounts still due by the patient; an application for financial relief cannot be used to obtain a refund for any amounts previously paid.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Claims involving tortfeasors and third-party payers.</I> No discount or waiver of fees under 10 U.S.C. 1079b shall be interpreted to be applicable to tortfeasors under the FMCRA, 42 U.S.C. 2651, or third-party payers under 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(1) For patients who indicate that their injury/disease was caused by a third party, DoD MTFs will follow procedures established under the Medical Affirmative Claims program.
</P>
<P>(2) Patients who have a remaining balance after insurance remittances or recoveries from third-party tortfeasors may apply for relief of any remaining medical debt.
</P>
<P>(3) Payments toward the medical debt that were made by the patient prior to settlement of the claim with the tortfeasor will be offset against any balances owed by the patient or may be refunded to the patient if no balance is owed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5313, Feb. 6, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.13   Special rules for workers' compensation programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic rule.</I> Pursuant to the general duty of third party payers under 10 U.S.C. 1095(a)(1) and the definitions of 10 U.S.C. 1095(h), a workers' compensation program or plan generally has an obligation to pay the United States the reasonable charges for healthcare services provided in or through any facility of the Uniformed Services to a Uniformed Services beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under a workers' compensation program due to an employment related injury, illness, or disease. Except to the extent modified or supplemented by this section, all provisions of this part are applicable to any workers' compensation program or plan in the same manner as they are applicable to any other third party payer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rules for lump-sum settlements.</I> In cases in which a lump-sum workers' compensation settlement is made, the special rules established in this paragraph (b) shall apply for purposes of compliance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lump-sum commutation of future benefits.</I> If a lump-sum worker's compensation award stipulates that the amount paid is intended to compensate the individual for all future medical expenses required because of the work-related injury, illness, or disease, the Uniformed Service health care facility is entitled to reimbursement for injury, illness, or disease related, future health care services or items rendered or provided to the individual up to the amount of the lump-sum payment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump-sum compromise settlement.</I> (i) A lump sum compromise settlement, unless otherwise stipulated by an official authorized to take action under 10 U.S.C. 1095 and this part, is deemed to be a workers' compensation payment for the purpose of reimbursement to the facility of the Uniformed Services for services and items provided, even if the settlement agreement stipulates that there is no liability under the workers' compensation law, program, or plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a settlement appears to represent an attempt to shift to the facility of the Uniformed Services the responsibility of providing uncompensated services or items for the treatment of the work-related condition, the settlement will not be recognized and reimbursement to the uniformed health care facility will be required. For example, if the parties to a settlement attempt to maximize the amount of disability benefits paid under workers' compensation by releasing the employer or workers' compensation carrier from liability for medical expenses for a particular condition even though the facts show that the condition is work-related, the facility of the Uniformed Services must be reimbursed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, if a lump-sum compromise settlement forecloses the possibility of future payment or workers' compensation benefits, medical expenses incurred by a facility of the Uniformed Services after the date of the settlement are not reimbursable under this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) As an exception to the rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, if the settlement agreement allocates certain amounts for specific future medical services, the facility of the Uniformed Services is entitled to reimbursement for those specific services and items provided resulting from the work-related injury, illness, or disease up to the amount of the lump-sum settlement allocated to future expenses. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Apportionment of a lump-sum compromise settlement of a workers' compensation claim.</I> If a compromise settlement allocates a portion of the payment for medical expenses and also gives reasonable recognition to the income replacement element, that apportionment may be accepted as a basis for determining the payment obligation of a workers' compensation program or plan under this section to a facility of the Uniformed Services. If the settlement does not give reasonable recognition to both elements of a workers' compensation award or does not apportion the sum granted, the portion to be considered as payment for medical expenses is computed as follows: determine the ratio of the amount awarded (less the reasonable and necessary costs incurred in procuring the settlement) to the total amount that would have been payable under workers' compensation if the claim had not been compromised; multiply that ratio by the total medical expenses incurred as a result of the injury or disease up to the date of settlement. The product is the amount of workers' compensation settlement to be considered as payment or reimbursement for medical expenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 7730, Feb. 16, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 57742, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.22.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.14   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Ambulatory procedure visit.</I> An ambulatory procedure visit is a type of outpatient visit in which immediate (day of procedure) pre-procedure and immediate post-procedure care require an unusual degree of intensity and are provided in an ambulatory procedure unit (APU) of the facility of the Uniformed Services. Care is required in the facility for less than 24 hours. An APU is specially designated and is accounted for separately from any outpatient clinic. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs).</I> This term includes any authorized designee of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs). 
</P>
<P><I>Automobile liability insurance.</I> Automobile liability insurance means insurance against legal liability for health and medical expenses resulting from personal injuries arising from operation of a motor vehicle. Automobile liability insurance includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Circumstances in which liability benefits are paid to an injured party only when the insured party's tortious acts are the cause of the injuries; and
</P>
<P>(2) Uninsured and underinsured coverage, in which there is a third party tortfeasor who caused the injuries (i.e., benefits are not paid on a no-fault basis), but the insured party is not the tortfeasor.
</P>
<P><I>CHAMPUS supplemental plan.</I> A CHAMPUS supplemental plan is an insurance, medical service or health plan exclusively for the purpose of supplementing an eligible person's benefit under CHAMPUS. (For information concerning CHAMPUS, see 32 CFR part 199.) The term has the same meaning as set forth in the CHAMPUS regulation (32 CFR 199.2).
</P>
<P><I>Covered beneficiaries.</I> Covered beneficiaries are all healthcare beneficiaries under chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code, except members of the Uniformed Services on active duty (as specified in 10 U.S.C. 1074(a)). However, for purposes of § 220.11 of this part, such members of the Uniformed Services are included as covered beneficiaries.
</P>
<P><I>Facility of the Uniformed Services.</I> A facility of the Uniformed Services means any medical or dental treatment facility of the Uniformed Services (as that term is defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(43)). Contract facilities such as Navy NAVCARE clinics and Army and Air Force PRIMUS clinics that are funded by a facility of the Uniformed Services are considered to operate as an extension of the local military treatment facility and are included within the scope of this program. Facilities of the Uniformed Services also include several former Public Health Services facilities that are deemed to be facilities of the Uniformed Services pursuant to section 911 of Pub. L. 97-99 (often referred to as “Uniformed Services Treatment Facilities” or “USTFs”).
</P>
<P><I>Healthcare services.</I> Healthcare services include inpatient, outpatient, and designated high-cost ancillary services.
</P>
<P><I>Inpatient hospital care.</I> Treatment provided to an individual other than a transient patient, who is admitted (i.e., placed under treatment or observation) to a bed in a facility of the uniformed services that has authorized beds for inpatient medical or dental care.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance, medical service or health plan.</I> Any plan (including any plan, policy, program, contract, or liability arrangement) that provides compensation, coverage, or indemnification for expenses incurred by a beneficiary for health or medical services, items, products, and supplies. It includes but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any plan offered by an insurer, re-insurer, employer, corporation, organization, trust, organized health care group or other entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any plan for which the beneficiary pays a premium to an issuing agent as well as any plan to which the beneficiary is entitled as a result of employment or membership in or association with an organization or group. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any Employee Retirement Income and Security Act (ERISA) plan. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any Multiple Employer Trust (MET). 
</P>
<P>(5) Any Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangement (MEWA). 
</P>
<P>(6) Any Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) plan, including any such plan with a point-of-service provision or option. 
</P>
<P>(7) Any individual practice association (IPA) plan. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any exclusive provider organization (EPO) plan. 
</P>
<P>(9) Any physician hospital organization (PHO) plan. 
</P>
<P>(10) Any integrated delivery system (IDS) plan. 
</P>
<P>(11) Any management service organization (MSO) plan. 
</P>
<P>(12) Any group or individual medical services account. 
</P>
<P>(13) Any preferred provider organization (PPO) plan or any PPO provision or option of any third party payer plan. 
</P>
<P>(14) Any Medicare supplemental insurance plan. 
</P>
<P>(15) Any automobile liability insurance plan. 
</P>
<P>(16) Any no fault insurance plan, including any personal injury protection plan or medical payments benefit plan for personal injuries arising from the operation of a motor vehicle. 
</P>
<P><I>Medicare eligible provider.</I> Medicare participating (institutional) providers and physicians, suppliers and other individual providers eligible to participate in the Medicare program.
</P>
<P><I>Medicare supplemental insurance plan.</I> A Medicare supplemental insurance plan is an insurance, medical service or health plan primarily for the purpose of supplementing an eligible person's benefit under Medicare. The term has the same meaning as “Medicare supplemental policy” in section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395ss) and 42 CFR part 403, subpart B. 
</P>
<P><I>No-fault insurance.</I> No-fault insurance means an insurance contract providing compensation for health and medical expenses relating to personal injury arising from the operation of a motor vehicle in which the compensation is not premised on who may have been responsible for causing such injury. No-fault insurance includes personal injury protection and medical payments benefits in cases involving personal injuries resulting from operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Preferred provider organization.</I> A preferred provider organization (PPO) is any arrangement in a third party payer plan under which coverage is limited to services provided by a select group of providers who are members of the PPO or incentives (for example, reduced copayments) are provided for beneficiaries under the plan to receive health care services from the members of the PPO rather than from other providers who, although authorized to be paid, are not included in the PPO. However, a PPO does not include any organization that is recognized as a health maintenance organization. 
</P>
<P><I>Third party payer.</I> A third party payer is any entity that provides an insurance, medical service, or health plan by contract or agreement. It includes but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) State and local governments that provide such plans other than Medicaid.
</P>
<P>(2) Insurance underwriters or carriers.
</P>
<P>(3) Private employers or employer groups offering self-insured or partially self-insured medical service or health plans.
</P>
<P>(4) Automobile liability insurance underwriter or carrier.
</P>
<P>(5) No fault insurance underwriter or carrier.
</P>
<P>(6) Workers' compensation program or plan sponsor, underwriter, carrier, or self-insurer.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other plan or program that is designed to provide compensation or coverage for expenses incurred by a beneficiary for healthcare services or products.
</P>
<P><I>Third party payer plan.</I> A third party payer plan is any plan or program provided by a third party payer, but not including an income or wage supplemental plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Uniformed Services beneficiary.</I> For purposes of this part, a Uniformed Services beneficiary is any person who is covered by 10 U.S.C. 1074(b), 1076(a), or 1076(b). For purposes of § 220.11 (but not for other sections), a Uniformed Services beneficiary also includes active duty members of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P><I>Workers' compensation program or plan.</I> A workers' compensation program or plan is any program or plan that provides compensation for loss, to employees or their dependents, resulting from the injury, disablement, or death of an employee due to an employment related accident, casualty or disease. The common characteristic of such a plan or program is the provision of compensation regardless of fault, in accordance with a delineated schedule based upon loss or impairment of the worker's wage earning capacity, as well as indemnification or compensation for medical expenses relating to the employment related injury or disease. A workers' compensation program or plan includes any such program or plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) Operated by or under the authority of any law of any State (or the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands).
</P>
<P>(2) Operated through an insurance arrangement or on a self-insured basis by an employer.
</P>
<P>(3) Operated under the authority of the Federal Employees Compensation Act or the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 41103, Sept. 9, 1992. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 7729, 7731, Feb. 16, 2000; 67 FR 57742, Sept. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="221" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 221—DOD IDENTITY MANAGEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1044a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 59304, Nov. 23, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 221.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of the overall part is to implement policy, assign responsibilities, and provide procedures for DoD personnel identification.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes implementation guidelines for DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon Program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security, by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS), under agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreement with the Department of Commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, the following terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary.</I> Individuals affiliated with the DoD and any of the uniformed Services identified in § 221.2 Applicability, that may be eligible for benefits or entitlements.
</P>
<P><I>Certified copy.</I> A copy of a document that is certified as a true original and:
</P>
<P>(1) Conveys the appropriate seal or markings of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a means to validate the authenticity of the document by a reference or source number;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a notarized legal document or other document approved by a judge advocate, member of any of the armed forces, or other eligible person in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044a; or
</P>
<P>(4) Has the appropriate certificate of authentication by a U.S. Consular Officer in the foreign country of issuance which attests to the authenticity of the signature and seal.
</P>
<P><I>DoD beneficiary (DB).</I> Beneficiaries who qualify for DoD benefits or entitlements who may be credentialed in accordance with National Institute of Science and Technology Special Publication 800-63-2, “Electronic Authentication Guideline” (available at <I>http://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63-2.pdf</I>). This population may include widows, widowers, and eligible former spouses.
</P>
<P><I>Dependent.</I> An individual whose relationship to the sponsor leads to entitlement to benefits and privileges.
</P>
<P><I>DS Logon credential.</I> A username and password to allow Service members, beneficiaries, and other individuals affiliated with the DoD secure access to self-service websites.
</P>
<P><I>DS Logon credential holder.</I> A Service member, beneficiary, and other individual affiliated with the DoD who has applied for and received a DS Logon credential.
</P>
<P><I>Former member.</I> An individual who is eligible for, or entitled to, retired pay for non-regular service in accordance with 31 U.S.C. chapter 1223, but who has been discharged from the Service and who maintains no military affiliation.
</P>
<P><I>Former spouse.</I> An individual who was married to a uniformed services member for at least 20 years, and the member had at least 20 years of service creditable toward retirement, and the marriage overlapped as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Twenty years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 20 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/20). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce;
</P>
<P>(2) Twenty years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 15 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/15). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce; or
</P>
<P>(3) A spouse whose marriage was terminated from a uniformed Service member who has their eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct based on Service-documented abuse of the spouse and has 10 years of marriage, 20 years of creditable service for retirement, 10 years of overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 10/20/10). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce.
</P>
<P><I>Legal guardian (LG).</I> The terms “guardian” and “conservator” are used synonymously. Some States may limit the authority of a guardian to specific types of health care decisions; a court may also impose limitations on the health care decisions.
</P>
<P><I>Surrogate.</I> A person who has been delegated authority, either by an eligible individual who is at least 18 years of age and mentally competent to consent or by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or possession of the United States), to act on behalf of the eligible individual in a specific role.
</P>
<P><I>Widow.</I> The female spouse of a deceased member of the uniformed services.
</P>
<P><I>Widower.</I> The male spouse of a deceased member of the uniformed services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with DoD Instruction 1000.25, “DoD Personnel Identity Protection (PIP) Program” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/100025p.pdf</I>), DoD Instruction 1341.02, “Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) Procedures” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/134102p.pdf</I>), Office of Management and Budget M-04-04, “E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies” (available at <I>www.whitehouse.gov/sites/default/files/omb/memoranda/fy04/m04-04.pdf</I>) and 32 CFR part 310, it is DoD policy that DoD will provide a secure means of authentication to PII and personal health information (PHI) for all beneficiaries and other individuals with a continuing affiliation with DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) oversees implementation of the procedures within this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), and in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, the Director, DoDHRA, through the Director, DMDC:
</P>
<P>(1) Approves the addition or elimination of population categories for DS Logon eligibility.
</P>
<P>(2) Develops and fields the required Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) and RAPIDS infrastructure and all elements of field support required to support the management of the DS Logon credential including, but not limited to, issuance, storage, maintenance, and customer service.
</P>
<P>(3) Obtains and distributes DS Logon credentials, and provides a secure means for delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD Component heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with this part and distribute this guidance to applicable stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide manpower for issuance of DS Logon credentials and instruction for use to all eligible individuals who are requesting a DS Logon credential in conjunction with the issuance of a DoD identification (ID) card or who are applying for a DS Logon credential as a surrogate, when responsible for a DoD ID card site(s).
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments, in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, and the heads of the non-DoD uniformed services:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with this part and distribute this guidance to applicable stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide manpower for issuance of DS Logon credentials and instruction for use to all eligible individuals who are requesting a DS Logon credential in conjunction with the issuance of a DoD ID card or who are applying for a DS Logon credential as a surrogate.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure all Active Duty, National Guard and Reserve, and Commissioned Corps members of their uniformed services obtain a DS Logon credential when separating from active duty or from the uniformed service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.23.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A DS Logon credential will be made available to all beneficiaries that are eligible for DoD-related benefits or entitlements to facilitate secure authentication to critical websites. This includes members of the uniformed services, veterans with a continuing affiliation to the DoD, spouses, dependent children aged 18 and over, and other eligible individuals identified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overview.</I> Only one DS Logon credential may exist for an individual, regardless of the number of affiliations an individual may have to the DoD.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> Beneficiaries of DoD-related benefits or entitlements and other individuals with a continuing affiliation with the DoD may be eligible for a DS Logon credential. Eligible populations include:
</P>
<P>(i) Veterans, including former members, retirees, Medal of Honor recipients, disabled American veterans, and other veterans with a continuing affiliation to the DoD.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible retired DoD civilian employees in accordance with DoD Instruction 1330.17, “DoD Commissary Program” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/133017p.pdf</I>), and DoD Instruction 1330.21, “Armed Services Exchange Regulations” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodi/133021p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) Eligible dependents in accordance with Volume 2 of DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: Benefits for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/100013_vol2.pdf</I>), including spouses, dependent children aged 18 or older, and dependent parents.
</P>
<P>(iv) DBs, including eligible widows, widowers, and former spouses, in accordance with Volume 2 of DoD Manual 1000.13.
</P>
<P>(v) Surrogates, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Other populations as determined by the Director, DMDC.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lifecycle</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> Eligible individuals, as identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, may apply for a DS Logon credential:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Online.</I> Individuals with internet access may apply for a sponsor or dependent DS Logon by submitting a:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>My Access Center website request.</I> This type of request supports the provisioning of a Basic DS Logon credential. The My Access Center website can be accessed at <I>https://myaccess.dmdc.osd.mil/</I>.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>CAC request.</I> Individuals with a CAC, a computer with internet access and a CAC reader may apply for either a sponsor or a dependent DS Logon credential via the My Access Center website or any application that has implemented DS Logon.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A sponsor DS Logon credential is provisioned immediately upon request. This type of request supports the provisioning of a Premium DS Logon credential.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A request for a DS Logon credential on behalf of a dependent generates an activation letter with an activation code that is mailed to the sponsor at his or her home address in DEERS. Once complete, this type of request supports the provisioning of a Premium DS Logon credential.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Request using a Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS) myPay account.</I> Eligible individuals may apply for a sponsor or dependent DS Logon credential using a DFAS myPay personal identification number via the My Access Center website. A request for a DS Logon credential generates an activation letter with an activation code that is mailed to the sponsor at his or her home address in DEERS. Once complete, this type of request supports the provisioning of a Premium DS Logon credential.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Via remote proofing.</I> Eligible individuals with an existing DEERS record may apply for a sponsor or dependent DS Logon credential using remote proofing via the My Access Center website. Individuals requesting a DS Logon credential via remote proofing must correctly answer a number of system-generated questions. Once remote proofing is completed, a Premium DS Logon credential is provisioned immediately.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Via in-person proofing.</I> Eligible individuals may apply for a sponsor or dependent DS Logon credential using in-person proofing. In-person proofing is performed at Department of Veterans Affairs regional offices where the DS access station application is implemented, and at DoD ID card sites when a DS Logon credential is requested either in conjunction with DoD ID card issuance or during initial enrollment of a surrogate. Once in-person proofing is completed, a Premium DS Logon credential is provisioned immediately. Individuals requesting a DS Logon credential via in-person proofing must present:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Identity documents.</I> DS Logon credential applicants must satisfy the identity verification criteria in paragraph 4a of Volume 1 of DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/100013_vol1.pdf</I>), by presenting two forms of government-issued ID, one of which must contain a photograph. The requirement for the primary ID to have a photo cannot be waived. Identity documents must be original or a certified copy. All documentation not in English must have a certified English translation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Proof of address.</I> DS Logon credential applicants must present proof of address, if address on the presented ID is different than the address in DEERS.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>DD Form 214, “Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty.”</I> DS Logon credential applicants must present a DD Form 214 if a veteran who was separated before 1982. If separated from the Reserve Component, a DS Logon credential applicant may present a Reserve Component separation document in lieu of a DD Form 214.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use.</I> DS Logon credential holders may use their DS Logon credential at the My Access Center website and any other DoD self-service website that accepts DS Logon.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maintenance.</I> DS Logon credential holders may use the My Access Center website to maintain and update their DS Logon credential and manage their personal settings. The DS Logon credential holder may:
</P>
<P>(i) Activate or deactivate an account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reset password.
</P>
<P>(iii) Update challenge questions and answers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Upgrade from a Basic DS Logon to a Premium DS Logon credential.
</P>
<P>(v) Select or update preferred sponsor, if a dependent of two sponsors.
</P>
<P>(vi) Manage personal and advanced security settings.
</P>
<P>(vii) Manage contact information.
</P>
<P>(viii) Manage relationships and access granting.
</P>
<P>(ix) Manage the DS Logon credential using additional capabilities as implemented by the Director, DMDC.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decommissioning.</I> DS Logon credentials may be decommissioned by the DS Logon credential holder, via self-service; by an operator, at the request of the DS Logon credential holder; or by the system, when the credential holder no longer has an affiliation to the DoD or is identified as deceased in DEERS.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reactivation.</I> DS Logon credentials may be reactivated if the person is living and still eligible for the credential.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Associations.</I> DS Logon supports several types of associations, including DEERS-identified family relationships and operator-initiated and -approved surrogates.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Family.</I> Individuals are connected to one another based on their family relationship information in DEERS. A family relationship must exist in DEERS before the relationship can exist in DS Logon.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple sponsors.</I> An individual has only one DS Logon credential, regardless of the number of sponsors the individual has (<I>e.g.,</I> a dependent child whose parents are both Service members).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transferring families.</I> If an individual has a second family in DEERS, the individual can move their DS Logon credential to the second family. This changes the assignment of the DS Logon credential from the first family to the second family and removes any granted permissions from the first family.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Surrogacy.</I> Surrogacy is a feature that allows an individual who may not be affiliated with the DoD and who may not be related to the DS Logon credential holder or eligible individual by a DoD-recognized family relationship to be granted access to a DS Logon credential holder's or an eligible individual's information. A surrogate may be established as the custodian of a deceased Service member's unmarried minor child(ren) who is under 18, who is at least 18 but under 23 and attending school full-time, or who is incapacitated. A surrogate may also be established as the agent of an incapacitated dependent (<I>e.g.,</I> spouse, parent) or of a wounded, ill, or incapacitated Service member.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligibility.</I> An operator must first establish an identity in DEERS before establishing the surrogacy association in DS Logon. To establish a surrogate association, the surrogate must present to an operator for approval:
</P>
<P>(A) A completed and signed DD Form 3005, “Application for Surrogate Association for DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon.”
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional eligibility documents required by the DD Form 3005 which describe the scope of the surrogate's authority.
</P>
<P>(C) Proof of identity, in accordance with the requirements for in-person proofing in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Types of surrogates</I>—(A) <I>Financial agent (FA).</I> An eligible individual names an FA to assist with specific financial matters.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Legal agent (LA).</I> An eligible individual names an LA to assist with legal matters.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Caregiver (CG).</I> An eligible individual names a CG to assist with general health care requirements (example, viewing general health-care related information, scheduling appointments, refilling prescriptions, and tracking medical expenses), but does not make health care decisions.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Health care agent (HA).</I> An eligible individual (the patient) names an HA in a durable power of attorney for health care documents to make health care decisions.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Legal guardian (LG).</I> An LG is appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or jurisdiction of the United States) to make legal decisions for an eligible individual.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Special guardian (SG).</I> An SG is appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in the United States (or jurisdiction of the United States) for the specific purpose of making health care-related decisions for an eligible individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permissions.</I> A sponsor, a sponsor's spouse, and a sponsor's dependent over the age of 18 can manage who has access to their information (<I>i.e.,</I> who has access to view and edit their information and who is eligible to act on their behalf). The provisions of this section may be superseded by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sponsor access.</I> Sponsors will automatically have access to the information of all dependents under the age of 18.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spousal access</I>—(i) <I>Automatic.</I> A sponsor's spouse will automatically have access to the information of all dependent children under the age of 18 whose relationship to the sponsor began on or after the date of marriage of the sponsor and sponsor's spouse.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sponsor-granted.</I> The sponsor may grant the sponsor's spouse access to the information of dependent children under the age of 18 whose relationship to the sponsor began before the date of marriage of the sponsor and the sponsor's spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Granted access.</I> A sponsor, a sponsor's spouse, and a sponsor's dependent over the age of 18 may grant access to their information via the My Access Center website in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Surrogate access to the information of a sponsor, a sponsor's spouse, and a sponsor's dependent (regardless of age) must be granted via in-person proofing, including the submission of eligibility documents to an operator for approval in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Access granting by a sponsor.</I> Sponsors may grant their spouse access to the sponsor's information and the information of any sponsor's dependents under the age of 18. Access to the sponsor's information and the information of any sponsor's dependents under the age of 18 may not be granted to any other sponsor's dependent, unless that dependent has been identified as a surrogate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access granting by a spouse.</I> Spouses may grant the sponsor access to the spouse's information. Access to the spouse's information may not be granted to any other sponsor's dependent, unless that sponsor's dependent has been identified as a surrogate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Access granting by a dependent over 18.</I> A sponsor's dependent over the age of 18 may grant the sponsor and the sponsor's spouse access to the dependent's information. Access to the information of a sponsor's dependent over the age of 18 may not be granted to any other sponsor's dependent, unless that sponsor's dependent has been identified as a surrogate.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="222" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 222—DOD MANDATORY DECLASSIFICATION REVIEW (MDR) PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 80745, Dec. 27, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy established in DoD Instruction 5200.01. It assigns responsibilities and provides procedures for members of the public to request a declassification review of information classified under the provisions of Executive Order 13526, or predecessor orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within DoD (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign Government Information (FGI).</I> Defined in DoD 5200.1-R (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001r.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Formal Control System.</I> A system designed to ensure DoD Component accountability and compliance. For each MDR request, the system shall contain, at a minimum, a unique tracking number, requester's name and organizational affiliation, information requested, date of receipt, and date of closure.
</P>
<P><I>Formerly Restricted Data.</I> Defined in DoD 5200.1-R.
</P>
<P><I>MDR.</I> The review of classified information for declassification in response to a declassification request that meets the requirements under section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526, “Classified National Security Information,” December 29, 2009.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data.</I> Defined in DoD 5200.1-R.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Washington Headquarters Services, shall process MDR requests for OSD, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, and DoD Components not listed in the Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Heads of the DoD Components.</I> The Heads of the DoD Components listed in the Appendix A to this part shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for the processing of MDR requests and appeals for information originating within the Component.
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint an appellate authority to adjudicate MDR appeals for the Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.5   MDR processing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The DoD Components shall process MDR requests from the public for classified information originating within the DoD Component in accordance with DoD 5200.1-R and 32 CFR part 2001.
</P>
<P>(b) Information not subject to review for public release under the MDR includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Unclassified information (to include documents) or previously classified documents that are declassified prior to the receipt of the MDR request. These documents must be requested under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b) (also known and hereinafter referred to as the “Freedom of Information Act” (FOIA) and 32 CFR part 286.
</P>
<P>(2) Information (to include documents) reviewed for declassification within 2 years preceding the date of receipt of the MDR request. If this is the case, the requester shall be provided the documents as previously released and advised of the right to appeal to the DoD Component within 60 days unless the documents are already under appeal to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP).
</P>
<P>(3) Information exempted from search and review by statute of 50 U.S.C. 431, 432, 432a, 432b, and 432d.
</P>
<P>(4) Documents originated by the incumbent President; the incumbent President's White House Staff; committees, commissions, or boards appointed by the incumbent President; or other entities within the Executive Office of the President that solely advise and assist the incumbent President.
</P>
<P>(5) Information marked as Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data.
</P>
<P>(6) Information that is the subject of pending litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>MDR Requester Guidelines.</I> Members of the public seeking the declassification of DoD documents under the provisions of section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526, and 50 U.S.C. 431, 432, 432a, 432b, and 432d shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Address the written request to the appropriate DoD Component listed in the appendix to this enclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the requested document or information with sufficient specificity to enable the DoD Component to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort. Information that would provide the sufficient specificity would include a document identifier such as originator, date, title, subject, the National Archives and Records Administration accession number, or other applicable unique document identifying number. Broad or topical MDR requests for records on a particular subject, such as “any and all documents concerning” a subject do not meet this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) Include a correct return mailing address with the request.
</P>
<P>(4) Include a statement that the requester understands that the request may incur processing charges in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt and Control.</I> Upon receipt of an MDR request, the DoD Component shall send the requester an acknowledgement and open a file in a formal control system. The acknowledgement shall include the tracking number and date of receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Simultaneous MDR and FOIA Requests.</I> DoD Components should be aware of possible requests under both the MDR and the FOIA. In accordance with 32 CFR part 286, if a requester asks for the same information under the FOIA and the MDR, the DoD Component shall ask the requester to select only one process. If the requester does not select a process, the DoD Component shall process the requested information under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>MDR Document Review Process.</I> (1) Requests normally will be processed on a first in first out basis by date of receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) Every effort shall be made to ensure that a response to an MDR request is provided to the requester within 1 year from the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>(3) The DoD Components shall conduct line-by-line reviews of documents responsive to an MDR request to determine if the information contained within the documents continues to adhere to the standards for classification according to Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information. This line-by-line review must take into account the unique sensitivity of FGI as outlined in paragraph (h) of this section. In accordance with section 3.6(b) of Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information, classified information originating with another U.S. Government agency contained in records of the DoD Components will be referred to the originating agency for a declassification and release determination. Likewise, classified information in a DoD Component's records originating with another DoD Component will be referred to the originating Component. It is the responsibility of the DoD Component originally receiving the MDR request to manage these referrals and to incorporate the other agency's or DoD Component's determinations when preparing the final decision on the request. The review of each document will determine if the document:
</P>
<P>(i) No longer meets the standards for classification as established by Executive Order 13526 “Classified National Security Information”, and is therefore declassified in full.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains portions still meeting the standards for classification and is therefore declassified in part and denied in part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Still meets the standards for classification in its entirety and is therefore denied in full.
</P>
<P>(4) For documents meeting the criteria of paragraphs (f)(3)(i) and (f)(3)(ii) of this section, the DoD Components shall not release any unclassified information exempt from public release pursuant to Exemptions 2 through 9 of the FOIA. DoD 5400.7-R, “DoD Freedom of Information Act Program” provides a more detailed explanation of the FOIA exemptions.
</P>
<P>(5) When this process is complete, the DoD Components shall redact all information, both classified and unclassified, determined to be exempt from release as warranted under applicable law and authority. All of the remaining information within the documents, which is determined to be publicly releasable information, shall be provided promptly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public Access.</I> In the interest of transparency, the DoD Components should make efforts to post documents released under the MDR program on DoD Component Web sites.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>FGI.</I> Every effort must be made to ensure that FGI is not subject to declassification without the prior consent of the originating government. Therefore, if a requested document originated with a foreign government or organization and was classified by that government or organization, the DoD Component shall conduct MDR of the document in accordance with DoD 5200.1-R and 32 CFR part 2001.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Denial of Information.</I> (1) When classified information is denied, the DoD Component shall advise the requester, in writing:
</P>
<P>(i) That information currently and properly classified has been denied (whether a document in its entirety or partially) in accordance with the appropriate sections of Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Of the right to appeal the denial to the DoD Component within 60 days of receipt of the denial.
</P>
<P>(iii) Of the mailing address for the appellate authority.
</P>
<P>(2) When unclassified information is withheld because it is determined to be exempt from release pursuant to Exemptions 2 through 9 of the FOIA (whether or not classified information was also withheld within the same document), the DoD Component shall advise the requester that:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3.5(c) of Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information allows for the denial of information when withholding it is authorized and warranted under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unclassified information exempt from public release pursuant to one or more exemptions of the FOIA has been withheld.
</P>
<P>(3) For the denial of unclassified information, the requester shall not be given MDR appeal rights because the MDR applies only to the denial of classified information and because the request was not processed under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(4) The DoD Component is not required to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of requested information whenever the fact of its existence or nonexistence is itself classified pursuant to Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>MDR Appeals.</I> MDR appeals are for the denial of classified information only. DoD Components shall make an appellate decision within 60 working days of receipt of an MDR appeal. If additional time is required to make a determination, the appellate authority shall notify the requester of the additional time needed and provide the requester with the reason for the extension. When the appellate review is complete, the appellate authority shall notify the requester in writing of the final determination and of the reasons for any denial. If the appellate authority determines that some information remains classified under the provisions of Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information, the requester will be advised of the right to appeal the final decision to the ISCAP within 60 days of the final Component decision, in accordance with section 5.3 of Executive Order 13526 Classified National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>FEES.</I> In responding to MDR requests, the DoD Components may charge fees as permitted by 32 CFR Part 2001. Fees for search, review, and reproduction shall be in accordance with the fee schedule in Appendix 2 of Chapter 4 of Volume 11A of DoD 7000.14-R (available at <I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/fmr/11a/11a_04.pdf</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 80745, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 745, Jan. 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.24.0.1.6.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 222—Addressing MDR Requests
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department of Defense does not have a central repository for DoD records. MDR requests therefore should be addressed to the DoD Component that has custody of the requested record. If a requester is not sure which DoD Component has custody or if the DoD Component is not listed below, the MDR request should be directed to the Washington Headquarters Services in paragraph (b)(1) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DoD Component MDR Addresses:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>OSD and the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff.</I> Department of Defense, Washington Headquarters Services, Records and Declassification Division, Suite 02F09-02, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100. EXCEPTION: DoD Inspector General. DoD Office of Inspector General, 400 Army Navy Drive, Arlington, VA 22202-4704.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Department of the Army.</I> U.S. Army Declassification Activity, Attention: AHRC-RDD, 8850 Richmond Highway, Suite 300, Alexandria, VA 22309.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Department of the Navy.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Department of the Navy, Chief of Naval Operations, CNO N09N2, 2000 Navy Pentagon, Washington, DC 20350-2000. (Collateral MDR).
</P>
<P>(ii) Department of the Navy, Chief of Naval Operations, CNO N2/N6, 2000 Navy Pentagon, Washington, DC 20350-2000. (Sensitive Compartmented Information MDR).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Department of the Air Force.</I> Department of the Air Force, HAF/IMIO (MDR), 1000 Air Force Pentagon, Washington, DC 20330-1000.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>United States Marine Corps.</I> Commandant of the Marine Corps, HQMC Code PP&amp;O, Security Division (PS), 3000 Marine Corps Pentagon, Room 4A324, Washington, DC 20350-3000
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency.</I> Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, 3701 N. Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203-1714.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Defense Contract Audit Agency.</I> Director, Defense Contract Audit Agency, Attention: CPS, 8725 John J. Kingman Road, Suite 2135, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-6219.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Defense Information Systems Agency.</I> Defense Information Systems Agency, Attention: Security Division, MPS 6, 5111 Leesburg Pike, Suite 100, Falls Church, VA 22041.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Defense Intelligence Agency.</I> Defense Intelligence Agency, Attention: DAN-1A (FOIA), Washington, DC 20340-5100.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Defense Logistics Agency.</I> Defense Logistics Agency, Attention: DLA/DSS-S, 8725 John J. Kingman Road, Suite 2533, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-6221.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Defense Security Service.</I> Defense Security Service, Office of FOIA &amp; Privacy, 1340 Braddock Place, Alexandria, VA 22314-1651.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Defense Threat Reduction Agency.</I> Defense Threat Reduction Agency, Attention: SCR 8725 John J. Kingman Road, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-6201.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Missile Defense Agency.</I> Missile Defense Agency, Attention: MDA/DS, 7100 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-7100.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency.</I> National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, Mail Stop D-10, 4600 Sangamore Road, Bethesda, MD 20816-5003.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>National Reconnaissance Office.</I> National Reconnaissance Office, NRO-MSO-ASG-IMSC-IART', 14675 Lee Road, Chantilly, VA 20151-1715.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>National Security Agency/Central Security Service.</I> National Security Agency, Declassification Office, DJP5, 9800 Savage Road, Suite 6884, Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755-6884.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>North American Aerospace Defense Command.</I> HQ NORAD/CSO, 250 Vandenberg St. Ste B016, Peterson AFB, CO 80914.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>U.S. Africa Command.</I> US Africa Command, Unit 29951, ATTN: COS-FOIA, APO AE 09751.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>U.S. Central Command.</I> U.S. Central Command, Attention: CCJ6-RDD, 7115 South Boundary Blvd., MacDill AFB, FL 33621-5101.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>U.S. European Command.</I> U.S. European Command, Attention: ECJ1-AX, Unit 30400, APO AE 09131.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>U.S. Joint Forces Command.</I> U.S. Joint Forces Command, Code J02SM, 1562 Mitscher Ave., Suite 200, Norfolk, VA 23511-2488.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>U.S. Northern Command.</I> U.S. Northern Command, HQ USNORTHCOM/CSO, 250 Vandenberg Street, Suite B016, Peterson AFB, CO 80914-3804.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>U.S. Pacific Command.</I> U.S. Pacific Command, Attention: J151 FOIA, Box 64017, Camp Smith, HI 96861-4017.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>U.S. Southern Command.</I> U.S. Southern Command, Attention: SCJ2-SM-CFO (FOIA)”.3511 NW 91st Avenue, Miami, FL 33172-1217.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>U.S. Special Operations Command.</I> U.S. Special Operations Command, Attention: SOCS-SJS-SI (FOIA), 7701 Tampa Point Blvd., MacDill AFB, FL 33621-5323.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>U.S. Strategic Command.</I> U.S. Strategic Command, Attention: CS50, 901 SAC Blvd., STE 1C17, Offutt AFB, NE 68113-6000.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>U.S. Transportation Command.</I> U.S. Transportation Command, Chief, Command Information Management, ATTN: TCCSIM, 508 Scott Drive, Scott AFB IL 62225-5357.
</P>
<P>(28) Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel <I>http://www.archives.gov/isoo/oversight-groups/iscap/index.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(29) Principal Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Contacts at Federal Agencies <I>http://www.archives.gov/isoo/contact/mdr-contact.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="223" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 223—DOD UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION (UCNI)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 128 and 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 43506, July 25, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 223.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Updates policies, assigns responsibilities and prescribes procedures for the implementation of 10 United States Code (U.S.C.) 128, which is the statutory basis for controlling unclassified information on the physical protection of DoD special nuclear material (SNM), SNM equipment, and SNM facilities. Such information is referred to as DoD UCNI, to distinguish it from a similar Department of Energy (DOE) program.
</P>
<P>(b) Identifies the authority to be used for denying disclosure of DoD UCNI pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>(c) Supplements security classification guidance contained in DoD Instruction 5210.67,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> DOE classification guide CG-SS-4,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD/DOE joint classification guides by establishing procedures for identifying, controlling, and limiting the dissemination of unclassified information on the physical protection of DoD SNM.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/521067p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies available to authorized recipients from the Director of Classification, Department of Energy.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) All SNM, regardless of form, whether in reactor cores or other items under the direct control of the DoD Components (hereinafter referred to as “DoD SNM”).
</P>
<P>(c) Nuclear weapons containing SNM that are in DoD custody (hereinafter referred to as “nuclear weapons in DoD custody”).
</P>
<P>(d) Contractors, consultants, and grantees of the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Atomic Energy Defense Programs.</I> Activities, equipment, and facilities of the Department of Defense that are capable of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Development, production, testing, sampling, maintenance, repair, modification, assembly, utilization, transportation, or retirement of nuclear weapons or nuclear weapon components.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, utilization, or transportation of DoD SNM for military applications.
</P>
<P>(3) Safeguarding of activities, equipment, or facilities that support the functions in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, including the protection of nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon components, or DoD SNM for military applications at a fixed facility or in transit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Document or material.</I> The physical medium on or in which information is recorded, or a product or substance that contains or reveals information, regardless of its physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DoD UCNI.</I> Unclassified information on the physical protection of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, and SNM facilities, including unclassified information on the physical protection of nuclear weapons containing SNM that are in DoD custody.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Any fact or concept, regardless of the physical form or characteristics of the medium on or in which it is recorded, contained, or revealed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intelligence Community.</I> An element or agency of the U.S. Government identified in or designated pursuant section 3.5(h) of Executive Order 12333, as amended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reviewing official.</I> An individual appointed by the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Nuclear, Chemical, and Biological Defense Programs who may make a determination that a document or material contains, does not contain, or no longer contains DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safeguards.</I> An integrated system of physical protection, document and material accounting, and control measures designed to deter, prevent, detect, and respond to unauthorized possession, use, or sabotage of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>SNM.</I> Defined in 42 U.S.C. 2014.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SNM equipment.</I> Equipment, systems, or components whose failure or destruction would cause an impact on safeguarding DoD SNM resulting in an unacceptable interruption to a national security program or an unacceptable impact on the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>SNM facility.</I> A DoD facility that performs a function in support of Atomic Energy Defense Programs whose disruption could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on safeguarding DoD SNM, the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Unauthorized dissemination.</I> The intentional or negligent transfer, in any manner and by any person, of information contained in a document or material determined by a reviewing official to contain DoD UCNI, and so marked in accordance with the procedures in § 223.6 of this part, to any person or entity other than an individual or entity authorized access to DoD UCNI in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 128 and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Unauthorized dissemination of unclassified information pertaining to security measures, including security plans, procedures, and equipment, for the physical protection of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) Unclassified information shall be protected as DoD UCNI based on a determination that the unauthorized dissemination of such information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of the illegal production of nuclear weapons or the theft, diversion, or sabotage of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody.
</P>
<P>(c) Unclassified information regarding physical protection of DoD SNM and nuclear weapons in DoD custody shall be made publicly available to the fullest extent possible by applying the minimum restrictions, consistent with the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 128, necessary to protect the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(d) This part and title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 1017 shall be used as guidance for handling DOE UCNI that is under DoD control.
</P>
<P>(e) This part does not prevent a determination that information previously determined to be DoD UCNI is classified information in accordance with Volume 1 of DoD Manual 5200.01 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> and other applicable standards of classification.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol1.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)) shall oversee the DoD program for controlling DoD UCNI and coordinate DoD compliance with the DOE program for controlling DOE UCNI.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Nuclear, Chemical, and Biological Defense Programs (ASD(NCB)), under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify information regarding nuclear weapons security and the protection of SNM at DoD nuclear reactor facilities as DoD UCNI and protect it from unauthorized dissemination, consistent with the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 128 and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the USD(I) on implementation of the DoD UCNI program.
</P>
<P>(3) Designate a DoD UCNI reviewing official, who shall be authorized to determine that materials or documents contain, do not contain, or no longer contain DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Administration and Management shall provide guidance, as needed, to the Heads of the DoD Components regarding 5 U.S.C. 552, as implemented by 32 CFR part 286, as it applies to the DoD UCNI program.
</P>
<P>(d) The Heads of the DoD Components shall identify DoD UCNI within their Component and protect it from unauthorized dissemination, consistent with the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 128 and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.6   Procedures-identifying and controlling DoD UCNI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The decision to protect unclassified information as DoD UCNI shall be based on a determination that the unauthorized dissemination of such information could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by increasing significantly the likelihood of the illegal production of nuclear weapons or the theft, diversion, or sabotage of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody. This is called the “adverse effects test.”
</P>
<P>(2) DoD UCNI shall be identified, controlled, marked, transmitted, and safeguarded in the DoD Components, the Intelligence Community, and the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), and among DoD contractors, consultants, and grantees. Within NATO, DoD UCNI shall be marked, controlled, and safeguarded as “NATO RESTRICTED” information.
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts requiring access to or the preparation of unclassified information that is or could be DoD UCNI shall require compliance with this part and any applicable DoD Component regulations, and shall specify requirements for identifying, marking, handling, and safeguarding DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identifying DoD UCNI.</I> (1) To be designated and protected as DoD UCNI, information must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be unclassified.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pertain to security measures, including plans, procedures, and equipment, for the physical protection of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody.
</P>
<P>(iii) Meet the adverse effects test.
</P>
<P>(2) Information shall be protected as DoD UCNI if it qualifies for one or more of the categories listed in § 223.7(c) and meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) DoD personnel, in making a determination to protect unclassified information as DoD UCNI, shall consider the probability of illegal production of nuclear weapons or of theft, diversion, or sabotage of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody if the information proposed for protection were made available for public disclosure and dissemination. The cognizant official shall consider how the unauthorized disclosure or dissemination of such information could assist a potential adversary in:
</P>
<P>(i) Selecting a target for an act of theft, diversion, or sabotage of nuclear weapons in DoD custody, DoD SNM, SNM equipment, or SNM facilities (e.g., relative importance of a facility or the location, form, and quantity of DoD SNM). Information that can be obtained by observation from public areas outside controlled locations should not be considered as DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(ii) Planning or committing an act of theft, diversion, or sabotage of nuclear weapons in DoD custody, DoD SNM, SNM equipment, or SNM facilities (e.g., design of security systems; building plans; methods and procedures for transfer, accountability, and handling of nuclear weapons or DoD SNM; or security plans, procedures, and capabilities).
</P>
<P>(iii) Measuring the success of an act of theft, diversion, or sabotage of nuclear weapons in DoD custody, DoD SNM, SNM equipment, or SNM facilities (e.g., actual or hypothetical consequences of the sabotage of specific vital equipment or facilities).
</P>
<P>(iv) Illegally producing a nuclear explosive device (e.g., unclassified nuclear weapon design information useful in designing a primitive nuclear device; location of unique DoD SNM needed to fabricate such a device; or location of a nuclear weapon).
</P>
<P>(v) Dispersing DoD SNM in the environment (e.g., location, form, and quantity of DoD SNM).
</P>
<P>(c) Where questions or disagreements arise on designation or continued protection of information as DoD UCNI, the reviewing official appointed by the ASD(NCB) shall make the final determination. If a determination cannot be made because applicable guidance is unclear or does not exist, the document or material in question shall be referred to the reviewing official for a determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to DoD UCNI.</I> (1) No explicit designation or security clearance is required for access to DoD UCNI; however, a person granted access to DoD UCNI must have a need to know the specific DoD UCNI to which access is granted in the performance of official duties or of DoD-authorized activities.
</P>
<P>(2) The individual granting access to DoD UCNI shall notify each person granted such access of applicable regulations, including the physical protection and access requirements, concerning the protection of DoD UCNI as well as any special dissemination limitations that apply to the specific DoD UCNI to which access is being granted, prior to dissemination of the DoD UCNI to the person.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement to notify persons granted access to DoD UCNI of applicable regulations concerning protection and dissemination of DoD UCNI may be met by attachment of an appropriate cover sheet to the front of each document or material containing DoD UCNI prior to its transmittal to the person granted access.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Marking DoD UCNI.</I> (1) An unclassified document with DoD UCNI shall be marked “DOD UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION” (or abbreviated “DOD UCNI”) at the bottom on: the outside of the front cover, if any; the outside of the back cover, if any; the first page; and each individual page containing DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(2) Within an unclassified document, an individual page containing DoD UCNI shall be marked to show which of its portions contain DoD UCNI. In marking sections, parts, paragraphs, or similar portions, the parenthetical term “(DCNI)” shall be used and placed at the beginning of the applicable portions.
</P>
<P>(3) In a classified document, an individual page that has both DoD UCNI and classified information shall be marked at the top and bottom of the page with the highest security classification of information appearing on that page or with the overall classification of the document. In marking sections, parts, paragraphs, or similar portions, the parenthetical term “(U//DCNI)” shall be used and placed at the beginning of those portions containing DoD UCNI. In a classified document, an individual page that has DoD UCNI, but no classified information, shall be marked “UNCLASSIFIED//DOD UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION” (or “UNCLASSIFIED//DOD UCNI”) at the top and bottom of the page, unless the page is marked with the overall classification of the document. The DoD UCNI information may be included in the same portion with other classified or unclassified information, if all relevant statutory and regulatory markings and citations are included. Volume 2 of DoD Manual 5200.01 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> provides additional guidance on marking classified documents.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol2.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Other material (e.g., electronic media, photographs, films, tapes, or slides) containing DoD UCNI shall be conspicuously marked “DOD UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION” (or “DOD UCNI”), in accordance with paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this section, to ensure that a recipient or viewer is aware of the status of the information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dissemination and Transmission.</I> (1) DoD UCNI may be disseminated among the DoD Components, members of the Intelligence Community, NATO, and DoD contractors, consultants, and grantees on a need-to-know basis for the conduct of official business for the Department of Defense. Dissemination to NATO or other foreign or international entities requires prior review and approval by the appropriate dissemination entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Recipients shall be made aware of the status as DoD UCNI for all such information disseminated to them. Transmission of DoD UCNI shall be by means which preclude unauthorized disclosure or dissemination (e.g., secure phone, encrypted email).
</P>
<P>(3) Documents containing DoD UCNI shall be marked as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section. Transmittal documents shall call attention to the presence of DoD UCNI attachments using an appropriate statement in the text or including at the bottom of the transmittal document a statement similar to: “The attached document contains DoD Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information (DoD UCNI).”
</P>
<P>(4) DoD UCNI transmitted outside the Department of Defense requires application of an expanded marking to explain the significance of the DoD UCNI marking. That may be accomplished by adding the transmittal statement “DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE/UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION/EXEMPT FROM MANDATORY DISCLOSURE PURSUANT TO 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3), AS AUTHORIZED BY 10 U.S.C. 128” to the document cover before transfer.
</P>
<P>(5) When not commingled with classified information, DoD UCNI may be sent by first-class mail in a single, opaque envelope, or wrapping.
</P>
<P>(6) DoD UCNI shall not be discussed or transmitted over an unprotected telephone or telecommunications circuit (to include facsimile transmissions) except in case of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(7) Each part of electronically transmitted messages containing DoD UCNI portions shall be marked appropriately. Unclassified messages, including email, with DoD UCNI portions shall have the abbreviation “DOD UCNI” at the top of the message, before the beginning of the text, and the parenthetical marking “(DCNI)” preceding each portion of text containing DoD UCNI information. Classified messages containing DoD UCNI portions shall be marked with the highest classification of information within the message; use the parenthetical marking “(U//DCNI)” preceding each portion of text containing DoD UCNI information.
</P>
<P>(8) DoD UCNI processed, stored, or produced on stand-alone or networked computers or other information technology systems shall enforce protection from unauthorized disclosure or dissemination, in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) A document marked as having DoD UCNI may be reproduced minimally without permission of the originator and consistent with the need to carry out official business.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safeguarding DoD UCNI.</I> (1) During normal working hours, documents and materials determined to contain DoD UCNI shall be safeguarded and controlled by measures designed to reduce the risk of access to DoD UCNI by unauthorized individuals. Particular attention should be paid to areas where DoD UCNI is used or stored if unescorted access by unauthorized individuals is possible.
</P>
<P>(2) At the close of business, DoD UCNI shall be stored to preclude disclosure. Storage of such information with other unclassified information in unlocked receptacles (e.g., desks, bookcases) is adequate if Government or Government-contractor internal building security is provided during non-duty hours. When such internal building security is not provided, locked rooms or buildings normally provide adequate after-hours protection. If such protection is not considered adequate, DoD UCNI shall be stored in locked receptacles (e.g., locked file cabinet, locked desk drawer, safe).
</P>
<P>(3) Non-record copies of DoD UCNI shall be destroyed by shredding or burning or, if the sensitivity or volume of the information justifies it, in accordance with the procedures specified by Volume 3 of DoD Manual 5200.01 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> for classified information. Record copies of DoD UCNI shall be disposed of in accordance with the DoD Component's record management regulations. DoD UCNI on magnetic storage media shall be disposed of by overwriting to preclude its reconstruction. DoD UCNI in electronic form shall be deleted and also removed from any desktop trash or recycling files.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520001_vol3.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Unauthorized dissemination and disclosure of DoD UCNI justifies investigative and administrative actions to determine cause, assess impact, and fix responsibility. The DoD Component that originated the DoD UCNI shall be informed of its unauthorized disclosure and the outcome of the investigative and administrative actions. Unauthorized disclosure of DoD UCNI does not constitute a compromise of classified information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Retirement of Document or Material.</I> (1) Any unclassified document or material that is not marked as containing DoD UCNI but that may contain DoD UCNI shall be marked upon retirement in accordance with the DoD Component's record management regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) A document or material marked as containing DoD UCNI is not required to be reviewed upon, or subsequent, to retirement. Retired documents or materials shall be reviewed in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section upon a request for their release made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requests for Public Release of UCNI.</I> (1) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 128, information that qualifies as DoD UCNI is exempt from mandatory disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552. Requests for the public release of DoD UCNI shall be denied, in accordance with procedures established in 32 CFR part 286, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3), citing 10 U.S.C. 128 as authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for DOE UCNI contained within DoD documents shall also be denied pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3), but 42 U.S.C 2168 shall be cited, after formal FOIA consultation with the DOE, as the basis for invoking the exemption. Requests for DOE documents will be formally referred to DOE for final adjudication and response to the requestor.
</P>
<P>(3) The reviewing official designated by the ASD (NCB) shall review any retired DoD UCNI document or material upon a request for its release made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.25.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.7   Procedures-determination of DoD UCNI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of the Guidelines.</I> (1) The guidelines in this section are the basis for determining what unclassified information regarding the physical protection of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody, in a given technical or programmatic subject area are to be designated as DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision to protect unclassified information as DoD UCNI shall be based on a determination that the unauthorized dissemination of such information could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of the illegal production of nuclear weapons or the theft, diversion, or sabotage of SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Guidance.</I> (1) Unclassified information relating to the physical protection of DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facilities, or nuclear weapons in DoD custody is to be protected from public disclosure to prevent the adverse effects identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Public availability of information that would not result in such adverse effects is not to be restricted.
</P>
<P>(2) In controlling DoD SNM information, only the minimum restrictions needed to protect the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security shall be applied to prohibit the disclosure and dissemination of DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(3) Any information that has been, or is, widely and irretrievably disseminated in the public domain and whose dissemination was not, or is not, under Government control is exempt from control under these guidelines. However, the fact that information is in the public domain is not a sufficient basis for determining that similar or updated Government-owned and -controlled information in another document or other material is not, or is no longer, DoD UCNI; case-by-case determinations are required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Topical Guidance.</I> DoD Components shall consider the topics discussed in this section during the preparation of unclassified information that addresses the physical protection of DoD SNM or nuclear weapons in DoD custody to determine if it qualifies for control as DoD UCNI.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Vulnerability Assessments.</I> (i) General vulnerabilities that could be associated with specific DoD SNM, SNM equipment, SNM facility locations, or DoD nuclear weapons storage facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fact that DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility security-related projects or upgrades are planned or in progress, if not observable from a public area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification and description of security system components intended to mitigate the consequences of an accident or act of sabotage at a DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Material Control and Accountability.</I> (i) Total quantity or categories of DoD SNM at a facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Control and accountability plans or procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Receipts that, cumulatively, would reveal quantities and categories of DoD SNM of potential interest to an adversary.
</P>
<P>(iv) Measured discards, decay losses, or losses due to fission and transmutation for a reporting period.
</P>
<P>(v) Frequency and schedule of DoD SNM inventories.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility Description.</I> (i) Maps, conceptual design, and construction drawings of a DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility showing construction characteristics of building(s) and associated electrical systems, barriers, and back-up power systems not observable from a public area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maps, plans, photographs, or drawings of man-made or natural features in a DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility not observable from a public area; e.g., tunnels, storm or waste sewers, water intake and discharge conduits, or other features having the potential for concealing surreptitious movement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Communications and computer network configurations and capabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Intrusion Detection and Security Alarm Systems.</I> (i) Information on the layout or design of security and alarm systems at a specific DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility, if the information is not observable from a public area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fact that a particular system make or model has been installed at a specific DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facility, if the information is not observable from a public area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance characteristics of installed systems.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Keys, Locks, Combinations, and Tamper-Indicating Devices.</I> (i) Types and models of keys, locks, and combinations of locks used in DoD SNM or nuclear weapons facilities and during shipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Method of application of tamper-indicating devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vulnerability information available from unclassified vendor specifications.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Threat Response Capability and Procedures.</I> (i) Information about arrangements with local, State, and Federal law enforcement agencies of potential interest to an adversary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information in “non-hostile” contingency plans of potential value to an adversary to defeat a security measure, e.g., fire, safety, nuclear accident, radiological release, or other administrative plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) Required response time of security forces.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physical Security Evaluations.</I> (i) Method of evaluating physical security measures not observable from public areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures for inspecting and testing communications and security systems.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>In-Transit Security.</I> (i) Fact that a shipment is going to take place.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific means of protecting shipments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Number and size of packages.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mobile operating and communications procedures that an adversary could exploit.
</P>
<P>(v) Information on mode, routing, protection, communications, and operations that must be shared with law enforcement or other civil agencies, but not visible to the public.
</P>
<P>(vi) Description and specifications of transport vehicle compartments or security systems not visible to the public.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Information on Nuclear Weapon Stockpile and Storage Requirements, Nuclear Weapon Destruction and Disablement Systems, and Nuclear Weapon Physical Characteristics.</I> Refer to DOE CG-SS-4 for guidance about the physical protection of information on nuclear weapon stockpile and storage requirements, nuclear weapon destruction and disablement systems, and nuclear weapon physical characteristics that may, under certain circumstances, be unclassified. Such information meeting the adverse effects test shall be protected as DoD UCNI.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="225" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 225—COMMISSARY CREDIT AND DEBIT CARD USER FEE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1065
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 71822, Dec. 30, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures for the implementation of patronage expansion pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1065.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to veterans who are Purple Heart recipients, veterans who are former prisoners of war, veterans who have a Department of Veterans Affairs-documented service-connected disability rating between 0-90 percent, and individuals approved and designated as the caregiver or family caregiver of an eligible veteran under a formalized Department of Veterans Affairs caregiver program (as of January 1, 2020, authorized caregivers are the primary family caregiver of an eligible veteran under the Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Caregiver.</I> Defined in 38 U.S.C. 1720G(d)
</P>
<P><I>Family Caregiver.</I> Defined in 38 U.S.C. 1720G(d)
</P>
<P><I>Former POW.</I> Defined in 38 U.S.C. 101
</P>
<P><I>Service-connected.</I> Defined in 38 U.S.C. 101
</P>
<P><I>Veteran.</I> Defined in 38 U.S.C. 101




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1065, the following new patron groups are authorized access to DoD commissary, exchange, and morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR) revenue generating activities on the same basis as a member of the Military Services entitled to retired or retainer pay, effective January 1, 2020:
</P>
<P>(a) Veterans who were awarded the Purple Heart.
</P>
<P>(b) Veterans who are former prisoners of war (POWs).
</P>
<P>(c) Veterans classified by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) as having a service-connected disability rating below 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) Caregivers or family caregivers for veterans under the VA caregiver program. These caregivers are only eligible for these privileges during their period of active enrollment as the caregiver or family caregiver for a veteran.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>DIRECTOR, DeCA. Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs, the Director, DeCA:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes processes and updates systems necessary to collect and deposit with U.S. Treasury, user fees related to commercial debit/credit card use in commissaries in accordance with section 225.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Implements commissary credit/debit card user fee requirements.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.26.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commissary Credit/Debit Card User Fee.</I> (1) Only patrons of groups newly authorized privileges by this part must pay a user fee when using a credit or debit card to pay for commissary purchases to offset additional costs charged to the U.S. Treasury associated with credit or debit card use.
</P>
<P>(2) The user fee will be set as a transaction-based flat rate, calculated within a range of the average annual rates of credit and debit card transaction costs incurred by the Department of Treasury on behalf of DeCA and in compliance with applicable card network rules. One rate will be set for credit and signature debit card transactions, which are processed as credit cards. Another rate will be set for personal identification number debit card transactions. These rates will be reviewed annually and adjustments may be made as necessary to meet the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 1065.
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases made with electronic benefit transfer cards (<I>e.g.,</I> Women, Infants, and Children or Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program) and the MILITARY STAR card are not subject to this credit/debit card user fee.
</P>
<P>(4) No user fee reimbursement will be made on customer return of merchandise.
</P>
<P>(5) All credit/debit card user fee amounts collected in commissary stores will be deposited in the General Fund of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="226" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 226—SHELTER FOR THE HOMELESS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2546. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 42638, Nov. 6, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 226.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements 10 U.S.C. 2556 by establishing DoD policy, assigning responsibilities, and prescribing procedures for providing shelter for the homeless on military installations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 21257, Apr. 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments (including their National Guard and Reserve components), the Unified and Specified Commands, the Defense Agencies, and Department of Defense Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “Department of Defense Components”). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.4   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Shelters for the homeless may be established on military installations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of a Military Department, or designee, may make military installations under his or her jurisdiction available for the furnishing of shelter to persons without adequate shelter in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2556 and this part if he or she, or designee, determines that such shelter will not interfere with military preparedness or ongoing military functions. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of a Military Department, after determining that a shelter for the homeless may be established on a military installation, shall ensure that the plans for the shelter be developed in cooperation with appropriate State or local governmental entities and charitable organizations. The State or local government entity, either separately or in conjunction with the charitable organization, shall be responsible for operating and staffing any shelter established by this program. Shelter and incidental services provided under this part may be provided without reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(d) Services that may be provided by a Military Department incident to the furnishing of shelter under 10 U.S.C. 2556 are the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Utilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Bedding. 
</P>
<P>(3) Security.
</P>
<P>(4) Transportation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Renovation of facilities. 
</P>
<P>(6) Minor repairs undertaken specifically to make suitable space available for shelter to be provided in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2556. 
</P>
<P>(7) Property liability insurance. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Military Departments should be especially sensitive to establishing shelters in the following areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) Family housing areas, 
</P>
<P>(2) Troop billeting areas, 
</P>
<P>(3) Service facilities such as commissaries, exchanges, dining facilities, hospitals, clinics, recreation centers, etc., 
</P>
<P>(4) Safety arcs formed by firing ranges and impact areas, 
</P>
<P>(5) Frequently used training areas. 
</P>
<P>(f) Shelters for the homeless shall normally be established in only those facilities where the homeless will have exclusive use at all times. Shelters for the homeless shall normally not be established in facilities “shared” with military functions. 
</P>
<P>(g) In addition to providing shelter and incidental services, Department of Defense Components may provide bedding for support of shelters for the homeless that are located on other than Department of Defense real property. Bedding may be provided without reimbursement, but may only be provided to the extent that the provision of such bedding will not interfere with military requirements. 
</P>
<P>(h) Individuals or entities interested in establishing shelters on military installations shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request to the Installation Commander where the shelter is desired, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide, at a minimum, the following data: The name and address of the organization that will operate the shelter, the name and address of the affiliated state or local governmental entity, numbers of people to be served, type of program, hours of operation, special needs of the people to be served, incidental services required, estimated date when the services are requested, estimate of when services will no longer be necessary, and what security provisions are to be provided (physical security). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 42638, Nov. 6, 1987. Redesignated and amended at 78 FR 21257, Apr. 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.27.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment) (DUSD(I&amp;E)), under the authority, direction and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, shall administer the program and issue such supplemental guidance as is necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) shall provide guidance on the use of Department of Defense funds to finance the items issued in support of the Shelter for the Homeless program. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the Shelter for the Homeless program. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appoint a senior manager to monitor the program within the Department and to provide any assistance that may be required to the Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense (Installations and Environment) (ODUSD(I&amp;E)). Such official, after consultation with the ODUSD(I&amp;E), shall approve or disapprove all requests to establish a shelter in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2556 and this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that upon receipt of a formal request for assistance, as defined in § 226.3(h) of this part, the Military Department concerned provides an appropriate response to the requester within 30 days. 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that each Installation Commander is informed about the Program and the types of assistance that they may provide as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2556. 
</P>
<P>(d) Department of Defense Installation Commanders shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledge all requests for assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a request, initiate such action as is necessary to determine the availability of facilities at that installation for use as a shelter for the homeless. 
</P>
<P>(3) Forward each request, through the chain of command, to the Service Senior Manager with a copy to the DUSD(I&amp;E). The Installation Commander's recommendation shall accompany each request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 42638, Nov. 6, 1987. Redesignated and amended at 78 FR 21257, Apr. 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="228" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 228—SECURITY PROTECTIVE FORCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 318-318c.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 5948, Feb. 9, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 228.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all property under the charge and control of the Director, NSA, and to all persons entering in or on such property (hereinafter referred to as “protected property”). Employees of the NSA and any other persons entering upon protected property shall be subject to these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.2   Control of activities on protected property.</HEAD>
<P>Persons in and on protected property shall at all times comply with official signs of a prohibitory, regulatory, or directory nature and with the direction of Security Protective Officers and any other duly authorized personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.3   Restrictions on admission to protected property.</HEAD>
<P>Access to protected property shall be restricted to ensure the orderly and secure conduct of Agency business. Admission to protected property will be restricted to employees and other persons with proper authorization who shall, when requested, display government or other identifying credentials to the Security Protective Officers or other duly authorized personnel when entering, leaving, or while on the property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.4   Control of vehicles on protected property.</HEAD>
<P>Drivers of all vehicles entering or while on protected property shall comply with the signals and directions of Security Protective Officers or other duly authorized personnel and any posted traffic instructions. All vehicles shall be driven in a safe and careful manner at all times, in compliance with applicable motor vehicle laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.5   Enforcement of parking regulations.</HEAD>
<P>For reasons of security, parking regulations shall be strictly enforced. Except with proper authorization, parking on protected property is not allowed without a permit. Parking without a permit or other authorization, parking in unauthorized locations or in locations reserved for other persons, or parking contrary to the direction of posted signs or applicable state or federal laws and regulations is prohibited. Vehicles parked in violation, where warning signs are posted, shall be subject to removal at the owner's risk, which shall be in addition to any penalties assessed pursuant to § 228.18. The Agency assumes no responsibility for the payment of any fees or costs related to such removal which may be charged to the owner of the vehicle by the towing organization. This paragraph may be supplemented from time to time with the approval of the NSA Director of Security or his designee by the issuance and posting of such specific traffic directives as may be required, and when so issued and posted such directives shall have the same force and effect as if made a part hereof. Proof that a vehicle was parked in violation of these regulations or directives may be taken as <I>prima facie</I> evidence that the registered owner was responsible for the violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.6   Security inspection.</HEAD>
<P>Any personal property, including but not limited to any packages, briefcases, containers or vehicles brought into, while on, or being removed from protected property are subject to inspection. A search of a person may accompany an investigative stop or an arrest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.7   Prohibition on weapons and explosives.</HEAD>
<P>No persons entering or while on protected property shall carry or possess, either openly or concealed, firearms, any illegal or legally controlled weapon (e.g., throwing stars, switchblades), explosives, or items intended to be used to fabricate an explosive or incendiary device, except as authorized by the NSA Director of Security or his designee at each Agency facility. The use of chemical agents (Mace, tear gas, etc.) on protected property in circumstances that do not include an immediate and unlawful threat of physical harm to any person or persons is prohibited; however, this prohibition does not apply to use by law enforcement personnel in the performance of their duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.8   Prohibition on photographic or electronic recording or transmitting equipment.</HEAD>
<P>No person entering or while on protected property shall bring or possess any kind of photographic, recording or transmitting equipment (including but not limited to cameras, cellular telephones, or recorders), except as specially authorized by the NSA Director of Security or his designee at each Agency facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.9   Prohibition on narcotics and illegal substances.</HEAD>
<P>Entering or being on protected property under the influence of, or while using or possessing, any narcotic drug, hallucinogen, marijuana, barbiturate or amphetamine is prohibited. Operation of a motor vehicle entering or while on protected property by a person under the influence of narcotic drugs, hallucinogens, marijuana, barbiturates or amphetamines is also prohibited. These prohibitions shall not apply in cases where the drug is being used as prescribed for a patient by a licensed physician.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.10   Prohibition on alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>Entering or being on protected property under the influence of alcoholic beverages is prohibited. Operation of a motor vehicle entering or while on protected property by a person under the influence of alcoholic beverages is prohibited. The use of alcoholic beverages on protected property is also prohibited, except on occasions and on protected property for which the NSA Deputy Director for Support Services or his designee has granted approval for such use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.11   Restrictions on the taking of photographs.</HEAD>
<P>In order to protect the security of the Agency's facilities, photographs may be taken on protected property only with the consent of the NSA Director of Security or his designee. The taking of photographs includes the use of television cameras, video taping equipment, and still or motion picture cameras.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.12   Physical protection of facilities.</HEAD>
<P>The willful destruction of, or damage to any protected property, or any buildings or personal property thereon, is prohibited. The theft of any personal property, the creation of any hazard on protected property to persons or things, and the throwing of articles of any kind at buildings or persons on protected property is prohibited. The improper disposal of trash or rubbish, or any unauthorized or hazardous materials on protected property is also prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.13   Disturbances on protected property.</HEAD>
<P>Any conduct which impedes or threatens the security of protected property, or any buildings or persons thereon, or which disrupts the performance of official duties by Agency employees, or which interferes with ingress to or egress from protected property is prohibited. Also prohibited is any disorderly conduct, any failure to obey an order to depart the premises, any unwarranted loitering, any behavior which creates loud or unusual noise or nuisance, or any conduct which obstructs the usual use of entrances, foyers, lobbies, corridors, offices, elevators, stairways or parking lots.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.14   Prohibition on gambling.</HEAD>
<P>Participating in games for money or other personal property, or the operating of gambling devices, the conduct of a lottery, or the selling or purchasing of numbers tickets, in or on protected property is prohibited. This prohibition shall not apply to the vending or exchange of chances by licensed blind operators of vending facilities for any lottery set forth in a State law and conducted by an agency of a State as authorized by section 2(a)(5) of the Randolph-Sheppard Act, as amended (20 U.S.C. 107(a)(5)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.15   Restriction regarding animals.</HEAD>
<P>No animals except guide dogs for the blind or hearing impaired, or guard or search dogs used by authorized state or federal officials, shall be brought upon protected property, except as authorized by the NSA Director of Security or his designee at each Agency facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.16   Soliciting, vending, and debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>Commercial or political soliciting, vending of all kinds, displaying or distributing commercial advertising, collecting private debts or soliciting alms on protected property is prohibited. This does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) National or local drives for welfare, health, or other purposes as authorized by the “Manual on Fund Raising Within the Federal Service,” issued by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management under Executive Order 12353, 47 FR 12785, 3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 139, or by other federal laws or regulations; and
</P>
<P>(b) Authorized employee notices posted on Agency bulletin boards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.17   Distribution of unauthorized materials.</HEAD>
<P>Distributing, posting or affixing materials, such as pamphlets, handbills, or flyers, on protected property is prohibited, except as provided by § 228.16, as authorized by the NSA Director of Security or his designee at each Agency facility, or when conducted as part of authorized Government activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.28.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.18   Penalties and the effect on other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Whoever shall be found guilty of violating any provision of these regulations is subject to a fine of not more than $50 or imprisonment of not more than 30 days, or both. In the case of traffic and parking violations, fines assessed shall be in accordance with the schedule(s) of fines adopted by the United States District Court for the District where the offense occurred. Nothing in these regulations shall be construed to abrogate or supersede any other Federal laws or any State or local laws or regulations applicable to any area in which the protected property is situated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="229" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 229—PROTECTION OF ARCHAEOLOGICAL RESOURCES: UNIFORM REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<APPRO TYPE="N">The information collection and reporting requirements in this part were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1024-0037.
</APPRO>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 96-95, 93 Stat. 721, as amended, 102 Stat. 2983 (16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm) Sec. 10(a). Related Authority: Pub. L. 59-209, 34 Stat. 225 (16 U.S.C. 432, 433); Pub. L. 86-523, 74 Stat. 220, 221 (16 U.S.C. 469), as amended, 88 Stat. 174 (1974); Pub. L. 89-665, 80 Stat. 915 (16 U.S.C. 470a-t), as amended, 84 Stat. 204 (1970), 87 Stat. 139 (1973), 90 Stat. 1320 (1976), 92 Stat. 3467 (1978), 94 Stat. 2987 (1980); Pub. L. 95-341, 92 Stat. 469 (42 U.S.C. 1996).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 42298, August 2, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 229.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement provisions of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979, as amended (16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm) by establishing the uniform definitions, standards, and procedures to be followed by all Federal land managers in providing protection for archaeological resources, located on public lands and Indian lands of the United States. These regulations enable Federal land managers to protect archaeological resources, taking into consideration provisions of the American Indian Religious Freedom Act (92 Stat. 469; 42 U.S.C. 1996), through permits authorizing excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources, through civil penalties for unauthorized excavation and/or removal, through provisions for the preservation of archaeological resource collections and data, and through provisions for ensuring confidentiality of information about archaeological resources when disclosure would threaten the archaeological resources.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part do not impose any new restrictions on activities permitted under other laws, authorities, and regulations relating to mining, mineral leasing, reclamation, and other multiple uses of the public lands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.2   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part are promulgated pursuant to section 10(a) of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (16 U.S.C. 470ii), which requires that the Secretaries of the Interior, Agriculture and Defense and the Chairman of the Board of the Tennessee Valley Authority jointly develop uniform rules and regulations for carrying out the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the regulations in this part, section 10(b) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 470ii) provides that each Federal land manager shall promulgate such rules and regulations, consistent with the uniform rules and regulations in this part, as may be necessary for carrying out the purposes of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Archaeological resource</I> means any material remains of human life or activities which are at least 100 years of age, and which are of archaeological interest.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Of archaeological interest</I> means capable of providing scientific or humanistic understandings of past human behavior, cultural adaptation, and related topics through the application of scientific or scholarly techniques such as controlled observation, contextual measurement, controlled collection, analysis, interpretation and explanation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Material remains</I> means physical evidence of human habitation, occupation, use, or activity, including the site, location, or context in which such evidence is situated.
</P>
<P>(3) The following classes of material remains (and illustrative examples), if they are at least 100 years of age, are of archaeological interest and shall be considered archaeological resources unless determined otherwise pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Surface or subsurface structures, shelters, facilities, or features (including, but not limited to, domestic structures, storage structures, cooking structures, ceremonial structures, artificial mounds, earthworks, fortifications, canals, reservoirs, horticultural/agricultural gardens or fields, bedrock mortars or grinding surfaces, rock alignments, cairns, trails, borrow pits, cooking pits, refuse pits, burial pits or graves, hearths, kilns, post molds, wall trenches, middens);
</P>
<P>(ii) Surface or subsurface artifact concentrations or scatters;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whole or fragmentary tools, implements, containers, weapons and weapon projectiles, clothing, and ornaments (including, but not limited to, pottery and other ceramics, cordage, basketry and other weaving, bottles and other glassware, bone, ivory, shell, metal, wood, hide, feathers, pigments, and flaked, ground, or pecked stone);
</P>
<P>(iv) By-products, waste products, or debris resulting from manufacture or use of human-made or natural materials;
</P>
<P>(v) Organic waste (including, but not limited to, vegetal and animal remains, coprolites);
</P>
<P>(vi) Human remains (including, but not limited to, bone, teeth, mummified flesh, burials, cremations);
</P>
<P>(vii) Rock carvings, rock paintings, intaglios and other works of artistic or symbolic representation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Rockshelters and caves or portions thereof containing any of the above material remains;
</P>
<P>(ix) All portions of shipwrecks (including, but not limited to, armaments, apparel, tackle, cargo);
</P>
<P>(x) Any portion or piece of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(4) The following material remains shall not be considered of archaeological interest, and shall not be considered to be archaeological resources for purposes of the Act and this part, unless found in a direct physical relationship with archaeological resources as defined in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Paleontological remains;
</P>
<P>(ii) Coins, bullets, and unworked minerals and rocks.
</P>
<P>(5) The Federal land manager may determine that certain material remains, in specified areas under the Federal land manager's jurisdiction, and under specified circumstances, are not or are no longer of archaeological interest and are not to be considered archaeological resources under this part. Any determination made pursuant to this subparagraph shall be documented. Such determination shall in no way affect the Federal land manager's obligations under other applicable laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(6) For the disposition following lawful removal or excavations of Native American human remains and “cultural items”, as defined by the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA; Pub. L. 101-601; 104 Stat. 3050; 25 U.S.C. 3001-13), the Federal land manager is referred to NAGPRA and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Arrowhead</I> means any projectile point which appears to have been designed for use with an arrow.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal land manager</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any public lands, the secretary of the department, or the head of any other agency or instrumentality of the United States, having primary management authority over such lands, including persons to whom such management authority has been officially delegated;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Indian lands, or any public lands with respect to which no department, agency or instrumentality has primary management authority, such term means the Secretary of the Interior;
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of the Interior, when the head of any other agency or instrumentality has, pursuant to section 3(2) of the Act and with the consent of the Secretary of the Interior, delegated to the Secretary of the Interior the responsibilities (in whole or in part) in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public lands</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Lands which are owned and administered by the United States as part of the national park system, the national wildlife refuge system, or the national forest system; and
</P>
<P>(2) All other lands the fee title to which is held by the United States, except lands on the Outer Continental Shelf, lands under the jurisdiction of the Smithsonian Institution, and Indian lands.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indian lands</I> means lands of Indian tribes, or Indian individuals, which are either held in trust by the United States or subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States, except for subsurface interests not owned or controlled by an Indian tribe or Indian individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Indian tribe as defined in the Act</I> means any Indian tribe, band, nation, or other organized group or community, including any Alaska village or regional or village corporation as defined in, or established pursuant to, the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (85 Stat. 688). In order to clarify this statutory definition for purposes of this part, “Indian tribe” means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any tribal entity which is included in the annual list of recognized tribes published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Secretary of the Interior pursuant to 25 CFR part 54;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other tribal entity acknowledged by the Secretary of the Interior pursuant to 25 CFR part 54 since the most recent publication of the annual list; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any Alaska Native village or regional or village corporation as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (85 Stat. 688), and any Alaska Native village or tribe which is recognized by the Secretary of the Interior as eligible for services provided by the Bureau of Indian Affairs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, partnership, trust, institution, association, or any other private entity, or any officer, employee, agent, department, or instrumentality of the United States, or of any Indian tribe, or of any State or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>State</I> means any of the fifty states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Act</I> means the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.4   Prohibited acts and criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 6(a) of the Act, no person may excavate, remove, damage, or otherwise alter or deface, or attempt to excavate, remove, damage, or otherwise alter or deface any archaeological resource located on public lands or Indian lands unless such activity is pursuant to a permit issued under § 229.8 or exempted by § 229.5(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) No person may sell, purchase, exchange, transport, or receive any archaeological resource, if such resource was excavated or removed in violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) The prohibitions contained in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any provision, rule, regulation, ordinance, or permit in effect under any other provision of Federal law.
</P>
<P>(c) Under section (d) of the Act, any person who knowingly violates or counsels, procures, solicits, or employs any other person to violate any prohibition contained in section 6 (a), (b), or (c) of the Act will, upon conviction, be fined not more than $10,000.00 or imprisoned not more than one year, or both: provided, however, that if the commercial or archaeological value of the archaeological resources involved and the cost of restoration and repair of such resources exceeds the sum of $500.00, such person will be fined not more than $20,000.00 or imprisoned not more than two years, or both. In the case of a second or subsequent such violation upon conviction such person will be fined not more than $100,000.00, or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.5   Permit requirements and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person proposing to excavate and/or remove archaeological resources from public lands or Indian lands, and to carry out activities associated with such excavation and/or removal, shall apply to the Federal land manager for a permit for the proposed work, and shall not begin the proposed work until a permit has been issued. The Federal land manager may issue a permit to any qualified person, subject to appropriate terms and conditions, provided that the person applying for a permit meets conditions in § 229.8(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) No permit shall be required under this part for any person conducting activities on the public lands under other permits, leases, licenses, or entitlements for use, when those activities are exclusively for purposes other than the excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources, even though those activities might incidentally result in the disturbance of archaeological resources. General earth-moving excavation conducted under a permit or other authorization shall not be construed to mean excavation and/or removal as used in this part. This exception does not, however, affect the Federal land manager's responsibility to comply with other authorities which protect archaeological resources prior to approving permits, leases, licenses, or entitlements for use; any excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources required for compliance with those authorities shall be conducted in accordance with the permit requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) No permit shall be required under this part for any person collecting for private purposes any rock, coin, bullet, or mineral which is not an archaeological resource as defined in this part, provided that such collecting does not result in disturbance of any archaeological resource.
</P>
<P>(3) No permit shall be required under this part or under section 3 of the Act of June 8, 1906 (16 U.S.C. 432), for the excavation or removal by any Indian tribe or member thereof of any archaeological resource located on Indian lands of such Indian tribe, except that in the absence of tribal law regulating the excavation or removal or archaeological resources on Indian lands, an individual tribal member shall be required to obtain a permit under this part;
</P>
<P>(4) No permit shall be required under this part for any person to carry out any archaeological activity authorized by a permit issued under section 3 of the Act of June 8, 1906 (16 U.S.C. 432), before the enactment of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979. Such permit shall remain in effect according to its terms and conditions until expiration.
</P>
<P>(5) No permit shall be required under section 3 of the Act of June 8, 1906 (16 U.S.C. 432) for any archaeological work for which a permit is issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons carrying out official agency duties under the Federal land manager's direction, associated with the management of archaeological resources, need not follow the permit application procedures of § 229.6. However, the Federal land manager shall insure that provisions of § 229.8 and § 229.9 have been met by other documented means, and that any official duties which might result in harm to or destruction of any Indian tribal religious or cultural site, as determined by the Federal land manager, have been the subject of consideration under § 229.7.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the written request of the Governor of any State, on behalf of the State or its educational institutions, the Federal land manager shall issue a permit, subject to the provisions of §§ 229.5(b)(5), 229.7, 229.8(a)(3), (4), (5), (6), and (7), 229.9, 229.10, 229.12, and 229.13(a) to such Governor or to such designee as the Governor deems qualified to carry out the intent of the Act, for purposes of conducting archaeological research, excavating and/or removing archaeological resources, and safeguarding and preserving any materials and data collected in a university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution approved by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(e) Under other statutory, regulatory, or administrative authorities governing the use of public lands and Indian lands, authorizations may be required for activities which do not require a permit under this part. Any person wishing to conduct on public lands or Indian lands any activities related to but believed to fall outside the scope of this part should consult with the Federal land manager, for the purpose of determining whether any authorization is required, prior to beginning such activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.6   Application for permits and information collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may apply to the appropriate Federal land manager for a permit to excavate and/or remove archaeological resources from public lands or Indian lands and to carry out activities associated with such excavation and/or removal.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for a permit shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of the work proposed, including how and why it is proposed to be conducted, proposed time of performance, locational maps, and proposed outlet for public written dissemination of the results.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the individual(s) proposed to be responsible for conducting the work, institutional affiliation, if any, and evidence of education, training, and experience in accord with the minimal qualifications listed in § 229.8(a).
</P>
<P>(3) The name and address of the individual(s), if different from the individual(s) named in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, proposed to be responsible for carrying out the terms and conditions of the permit.
</P>
<P>(4) Evidence of the applicant's ability to initiate, conduct, and complete the proposed work, including evidence of logistical support and laboratory facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the application is for the excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources on public lands, the names of the university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution in which the applicant proposes to store all collections, and copies of records, data, photographs, and other documents derived from the proposed work. Applicants shall submit written certification, signed by an authorized official of the institution, of willingness to assume curatorial responsibility for the collections, records, data, photographs and other documents and to safeguard and preserve these materials as property of the United States.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the application is for the excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources on Indian lands, the name of the university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution in which the applicant proposes to store copies of records, data, photographs, and other documents derived from the proposed work, and all collections in the event the Indian owners do not wish to take custody or otherwise dispose of the archaeological resources. Applicants shall submit written certification, signed by an authorized official of the institution, or willingness to assume curatorial responsibility for the collections, if applicable, and/or the records, data, photographs, and other documents derived from the proposed work.
</P>
<P>(c) The Federal land manager may require additional information, pertinent to land management responsibilities, to be included in the application for permit and shall so inform the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Paperwork Reduction Act.</I> The information collection requirement contained in this section of these regulations has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and assigned clearance number 1024-0037. The purpose of the information collection is to meet statutory and administrative requirements in the public interest. The information will be used to assist Federal land managers in determining that applicants for permits are qualified, that the work proposed would further archaeological knowledge, that archaeological resources and associated records and data will be properly preserved, and that the permitted activity would not conflict with the management of the public lands involved. Response to the information requirement is necessary in order for an applicant to obtain a benefit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.7   Notification to Indian tribes of possible harm to, or destruction of, sites on public lands having religious or cultural importance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the issuance of a permit under this part may result in harm to, or destruction of, any Indian tribal religious or cultural site on public lands, as determined by the Federal land manager, at least 30 days before issuing such a permit the Federal land manager shall notify any Indian tribe which may consider the site as having religious or cultural importance. Such notice shall not be deemed a disclosure to the public for purposes of section 9 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(1) Notice by the Federal land manager to any Indian tribe shall be sent to the chief executive officer or other designated official of the tribe. Indian tribes are encouraged to designate a tribal official to be the focal point for any notification and discussion between the tribe and the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal land manager may provide notice to any other Native American group that is known by the Federal land manager to consider sites potentially affected as being of religious or cultural importance.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon request during the 30-day period, the Federal land manager may meet with official representatives of any Indian tribe or group to discuss their interests, including ways to avoid or mitigate potential harm or destruction such as excluding sites from the permit area. Any mitigation measures which are adopted shall be incorporated into the terms and conditions of the permit under § 229.9.
</P>
<P>(4) When the Federal land manager determines that a permit applied for under this part must be issued immediately because of an imminent threat of loss or destruction of an archaeological resource, the Federal land manager shall so notify the appropriate tribe.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In order to identify sites of religious or cultural importance, the Federal land manager shall seek to identify all Indian tribes having aboriginal or historic ties to the lands under the Federal land manager's jurisdiction and seek to determine, from the chief executive officer or other designated official of any such tribe, the location and nature of specific sites of religious or cultural importance so that such information may be on file for land management purposes. Information on sites eligible for or included in the National Register of Historic Places may be withheld from public disclosure pursuant to section 304 of the Act of October 15, 1966, as amended (16 U.S.C. 470w-3).
</P>
<P>(2) If the Federal land manager becomes aware of a Native American group that is not an Indian tribe as defined in this part but has aboriginal or historic ties to public lands under the Federal land manager's jurisdiction, the Federal land manager may seek to communicate with official representatives of that group to obtain information on sites they may consider to be of religious or cultural importance.
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal land manager may enter into agreement with any Indian tribe or other Native American group for determining locations for which such tribe or group wishes to receive notice under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal land manager should also seek to determine, in consultation with official representatives of Indian tribes or other Native American groups, what circumstances should be the subject of special notification to the tribe or group after a permit has been issued. Circumstances calling for notification might include the discovery of human remains. When circumstances for special notification have been determined by the Federal land manager, the Federal land manager will include a requirement in the terms and conditions of permits, under § 229.9(c), for permittees to notify the Federal land manager immediately upon the occurrence of such circumstances. Following the permittee's notification, the Federal land manager will notify and consult with the tribe or group as appropriate. In cases involving Native American human remains and other “cultural items”, as defined by NAGPRA, the Federal land manager is referred to NAGPRA and its implementing 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.8   Issuance of permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal land manager may issue a permit, for a specified period of time appropriate to the work to be conducted, upon determining that:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant is appropriately qualified, as evidenced by training, education, and/or experience, and possesses demonstrable competence in archaeological theory and methods, and in collecting, handling, analyzing, evaluating, and reporting archaeological data, relative to the type and scope of the work proposed, and also meets the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(i) A graduate degree in anthropology or archaeology, or equivalent training and experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) The demonstrated ability to plan, equip, staff, organize, and supervise activity of the type and scope proposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The demonstrated ability to carry research to completion, as evidenced by timely completion of theses, research reports, or similar documents;
</P>
<P>(iv) Completion of at least 16 months of professional experience and/or specialized training in archaeological field, laboratory, or library research, administration, or management, including at least 4 months experience and/or specialized training in the kind of activity the individual proposes to conduct under authority of a permit; and
</P>
<P>(v) Applicants proposing to engage in historical archaeology should have had at least one year of experience in research concerning archaeological resources of the historic period. Applicants proposing to engage in prehistoric archaeology should have had at least one year of experience in research concerning archaeological resources of the prehistoric period.
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed work is to be undertaken for the purpose of furthering archaeological knowledge in the public interest, which may include but need not be limited to, scientific or scholarly research, and preservation of archaeological data;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed work, including time, scope, location, and purpose, is not inconsistent with any management plan or established policy, objectives, or requirements applicable to the management of the public lands concerned;
</P>
<P>(4) Where the proposed work consists of archaeological survey and/or data recovery undertaken in accordance with other approved uses of the public lands or Indian lands, and the proposed work has been agreed to in writing by the Federal land manager pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470f), paragraphs (a) (2) and (a) (3) shall be deemed satisfied by the prior approval.
</P>
<P>(5) Written consent has been obtained, for work proposed on Indian lands, from the Indian landowner and the Indian tribe having jurisdiction over such lands;
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence is submitted to the Federal land manager that any university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution proposed in the application as the repository possesses adequate curatorial capability for safeguarding and preserving the archaeological resources and all associated records; and
</P>
<P>(7) The applicant has certified that, not later than 90 days after the date the final report is submitted to the Federal land manager, the following will be delivered to the appropriate official of the approved university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution, which shall be named in the permit:
</P>
<P>(i) All artifacts, samples, collections, and copies of records, data, photographs, and other documents resulting from work conducted under the requested permit where the permit is for the excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources from public lands.
</P>
<P>(ii) All artifacts, samples and collections resulting from work under the requested permit for which the custody or disposition is not undertaken by the Indian owners, and copies of records, data, photographs, and other documents resulting from work conducted under the requested permit, where the permit is for the excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources from Indian lands.
</P>
<P>(b) When the area of the proposed work would cross jurisdictional boundaries, so that permit applications must be submitted to more than one Federal land manager, the Federal land manager shall coordinate the review and evaluation of applications and the issuance of permits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.9   Terms and conditions of permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all permits issued, the Federal land manager shall specify:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of work allowed and required under the permit, including the time, duration, scope, location, and purpose of the work;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual(s) responsible for conducting the work and, if different, the name of the individual(s) responsible for carrying out the terms and conditions of the permit;
</P>
<P>(3) The name of any university, museum, or other scientific or educational institutions in which any collected materials and data shall be deposited; and
</P>
<P>(4) Reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal land manager may specify such terms and conditions as deemed necessary, consistent with this part, to protect public safety and other values and/or resources, to secure work areas, to safeguard other legitimate land uses, and to limit activities incidental to work authorized under a permit.
</P>
<P>(c) The Federal land manager shall include in permits issued for archaeological work on Indian lands such terms and conditions as may be requested by the Indian landowner and the Indian tribe having jurisdiction over the lands, and for archaeological work on public lands shall include such terms and conditions as may have been developed pursuant to § 229.7.
</P>
<P>(d) Initiation of work or other activities under the authority of a permit signifies the permittee's acceptance of the terms and conditions of the permit.
</P>
<P>(e) The permittee shall not be released from requirements of a permit until all outstanding obligations have been satisfied, whether or not the term of the permit has expired.
</P>
<P>(f) The permittee may request that the Federal land manager extend or modify a permit.
</P>
<P>(g) The permittee's performance under any permit issued for a period greater than 1 year shall be subject to review by the Federal land manager, at least annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.10   Suspension and revocation of permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension or revocation for cause.</I> (1) The Federal land manager may suspend a permit issued pursuant to this part upon determining that the permittee has failed to meet any of the terms and conditions of the permit or has violated any prohibition of the Act or § 229.4. The Federal land manager shall provide written notice to the permittee of the suspension, the cause thereof, and the requirements which must be met before the suspension will be removed.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal land manager may revoke a permit upon assessment of a civil penalty under § 229.15 upon the permittee's conviction under section 6 of the Act, or upon determining that the permittee has failed after notice under this section to correct the situation which led to suspension of the permit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension or revocation for management purposes.</I> The Federal land manager may suspend or revoke a permit, without liability to the United States, its agents, or employees, when continuation of work under the permit would be in conflict with management requirements not in effect when the permit was issued. The Federal land manager shall provide written notice to the permittee stating the nature of and basis for the suspension or revocation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.11   Appeals relating to permits.</HEAD>
<P>Any affected person may appeal permit issuance, denial of permit issuance, suspension, revocation, and terms and conditions of a permit through existing administrative appeal procedures, or through procedures which may be established by the Federal land manager pursuant to section 10(b) of the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.12   Relationship to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.</HEAD>
<P>Issuance of a permit in accordance with the Act and this part does not constitute an undertaking requiring compliance with section 106 of the Act of October 15, 1966 (16 U.S.C. 470f). However, the mere issuance of such a permit does not excuse the Federal land manager from compliance with section 106 where otherwise required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.13   Custody of archaeological resources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Archaeological resources excavated or removed from the public lands remain the property of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Archaeological resources excavated or removed from Indian lands remain the property of the Indian or Indian tribe having rights of ownership over such resources.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of the Interior may promulgate regulations providing for the exchange of archaeological resources among suitable universities, museums, or other scientific or educational institutions, for the ultimate disposition of archaeological resources, and for standards by which archaeological resources shall be preserved and maintained, when such resources have been excavated or removed from public lands and Indian lands.
</P>
<P>(d) In the absence of regulations referenced in paragraph (c) of this section, the Federal land manager may provide for the exchange of archaeological resources among suitable universities, museums, or other scientific or educational institutions, when such resources have been excavated or removed from public lands under the authority of a permit issued by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, the Federal land manager will follow the procedures required by NAGPRA and its implementing regulations for determining the disposition of Native American human remains and other “cultural items”, as defined by NAGPRA, that have been excavated, removed, or discovered on public lands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.14   Determination of archaeological or commercial value and cost of restoration and repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Archaeological value.</I> For purposes of this part, the archaeological value of any archaeological resource involved in a violation of the prohibitions in § 229.4 of this part or conditions of a permit issued pursuant to this part shall be the value of the information associated with the archaeological resource. This value shall be appraised in terms of the costs of the retrieval of the scientific information which would have been obtainable prior to the violation. These costs may include, but need not be limited to, the cost of preparing a research design, conducting field work, carrying out laboratory analysis, and preparing reports as would be necessary to realize the information potential.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial value.</I> For purposes of this part, the commercial value of any archaeological resource involved in a violation of the prohibitions in § 229.4 of this part or conditions of a permit issued pursuant to this part shall be its fair market value. Where the violation has resulted in damage to the archaeological resource, the fair market value should be determined using the condition of the archaeological resource prior to the violation, to the extent that its prior condition can be ascertained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cost of restoration and repair.</I> For purposes of this part, the cost of restoration and repair of archaeological resources damaged as a result of a violation of prohibitions or conditions pursuant to this part, shall be the sum of the costs already incurred for emergency restoration or repair work, plus those costs projected to be necessary to complete restoration and repair, which may include, but need not be limited to, the costs of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Reconstruction of the archaeological resource;
</P>
<P>(2) Stabilization of the archaeological resource;
</P>
<P>(3) Ground contour reconstruction and surface stabilization;
</P>
<P>(4) Research necessary to carry out reconstruction or stabilization;
</P>
<P>(5) Physical barriers or other protective devices, necessitated by the disturbance of the archaeological resource, to protect it from further disturbance;
</P>
<P>(6) Examination and analysis of the archaeological resource including recording remaining archaeological information, where necessitated by disturbance, in order to salvage remaining values which cannot be otherwise conserved;
</P>
<P>(7) Reinterment of human remains in accordance with religious custom and State, local, or tribal law, where appropriate, as determined by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(8) Preparation of reports relating to any of the above activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.15   Assessment of civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal land manager may assess a civil penalty against any person who has violated any prohibition contained in § 229.4 or who has violated any term or condition included in a permit issued in accordance with the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of violation.</I> The Federal land manager shall serve a notice of violation upon any person believed to be subject to a civil penalty, either in person or by registered or certified mail (return receipt requested). The Federal land manager shall include in the notice:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the facts believed to show a violation;
</P>
<P>(2) A specific reference to the provision(s) of this part or to a permit issued pursuant to this part allegedly violated;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of penalty proposed to be assessed, including any initial proposal to mitigate or remit where appropriate, or a statement that notice of a proposed penalty amount will be served after the damages associated with the alleged violation have been ascertained;
</P>
<P>(4) Notification of the right to file a petition for relief pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, or to await the Federal land manager's notice of assessment, and to request a hearing in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. The notice shall also inform the person of the right to seek judicial review of any final administrative decision assessing a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(c) The person served with a notice of violation shall have 45 calendar days from the date of its service (or the date of service of a proposed penalty amount, if later) in which to respond. During this time the person may:
</P>
<P>(1) Seek informal discussions with the Federal land manager;
</P>
<P>(2) File a petition for relief in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Take no action and await the Federal land manager's notice of assessment;
</P>
<P>(4) Accept in writing or by payment the proposed penalty, or any mitigation or remission offered in the notice. Acceptance of the proposed penalty or mitigation or remission shall be deemed a waiver of the notice of assessment and of the right to request a hearing under paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Petition for relief.</I> The person served with a notice of violation may request that no penalty be assessed or that the amount be reduced, by filing a petition for relief with the Federal land manager within 45 calendar days of the date of service of the notice of violation (or of a proposed penalty amount, if later). The petition shall be in writing and signed by the person served with the notice of violation. If the person is a corporation, the petition must be signed by an officer authorized to sign such documents. The petition shall set forth in full the legal or factual basis for the requested relief.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assessment of penalty.</I> (1) The Federal land manager shall assess a civil penalty upon expiration of the period for filing a petition for relief, upon completion of review of any petition filed, or upon completion of informal discussions, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal land manager shall take into consideration all available information, including information provided pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section or furnished upon further request by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(3) If the facts warrant a conclusion that no violation has occurred, the Federal land manager shall so notify the person served with a notice of violation, and no penalty shall be assessed. (4) Where the facts warrant a conclusion that a violation has occurred, the Federal land manager shall determine a penalty amount in accordance with § 229.16.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of assessment.</I> The Federal land manager shall notify the person served with a notice of violation of the penalty amount assessed by serving a written notice of assessment, either in person or by registered or certified mail (return receipt requested). The Federal land manager shall include in the notice of assessment:
</P>
<P>(1) The facts and conclusions from which it was determined that a violation did occur;
</P>
<P>(2) The basis in § 229.16 for determining the penalty amount assessed and/or any offer to mitigate or remit the penalty; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notification of the right to request a hearing, including the procedures to be followed, and to seek judicial review of any final administrative decision assessing a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hearings.</I> (1) Except where the right to request a hearing is deemed to have been waived as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the person served with a notice of assessment may file a written request for a hearing with the adjudicatory body specified in the notice. The person shall enclose with the request for hearing a copy of the notice of assessment, and shall deliver the request as specified in the notice of assessment, personally or by registered or certified mail (return receipt requested).
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to deliver a written request for a hearing within 45 days of the date of service of the notice of assessment shall be deemed a waiver of the right to a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) Any hearing conducted pursuant to this section shall be held in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 554. In any such hearing, the amount of civil penalty assessed shall be determined in accordance with this part, and shall not be limited by the amount assessed by the Federal land manager under paragraph (f) of this section or any offer of mitigation or remission made by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Final administrative decision.</I> (1) Where the person served with a notice of violation has accepted the penalty pursuant to paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the notice of violation shall constitute the final administrative decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Where the person served with a notice of assessment has not filed a timely request for a hearing pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the notice of assessment shall constitute the final administrative decision;
</P>
<P>(3) Where the person served with a notice of assessment has filed a timely request for a hearing pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the decision resulting from the hearing or any applicable administrative appeal therefrom shall constitute the final administrative decision.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Payment of penalty.</I> (1) The person assessed a civil penalty shall have 45 calendar days from the date of issuance of the final administrative decision in which to make full payment of the penalty assessed, unless a timely request for appeal has been filed with a U.S. District Court as provided in section 7(b)(1) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon failure to pay the penalty, the Federal land manager may request the Attorney General to institute a civil action to collect the penalty in a U.S. District Court for any district in which the person assessed a civil penalty is found, resides, or transacts business. Where the Federal land manager is not represented by the Attorney General, a civil action may be initiated directly by the Federal land manager.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other remedies not waived.</I> Assessment of a penalty under this section shall not be deemed a waiver of the right to pursue other available legal or administrative remedies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.16   Civil penalty amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maximum amount of penalty.</I> (1) Where the person being assessed a civil penalty has not committed any previous violation of any prohibition in § 229.4 or of any term or condition included in a permit issued pursuant to this part, the maximum amount of the penalty shall be the full cost of restoration and repair of archaeological resources damaged plus the archaeological or commercial value of archaeological resources destroyed or not recovered.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the person being assessed a civil penalty has committed any previous violation of any prohibition in § 229.4 or of any term or condition included in a permit issued pursuant to this part, the maximum amount of the penalty shall be double the cost of restoration and repair plus double the archaeological or commercial value of archaeological resources destroyed or not recovered.
</P>
<P>(3) Violations limited to the removal of arrowheads located on the surface of the ground shall not be subject to the penalties prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of penalty amount, mitigation, and remission.</I> The Federal land manager may assess a penalty amount less than the maximum amount of penalty and may offer to mitigate or remit the penalty.
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the penalty amount and/or a proposal to mitigate or remit the penalty may be based upon any of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Agreement by the person being assessed a civil penalty to return to the Federal land manager archaeological resources removed from public lands or Indian lands;
</P>
<P>(ii) Agreement by the person being assessed a civil penalty to assist the Federal land manager in activity to preserve, restore, or otherwise contribute to the protection and study of archaeological resources on public lands or Indian lands;
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreement by the person being assessed a civil penalty to provide information which will assist in the detection, prevention, or prosecution of violations of the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstration of hardship or inability to pay, provided that this factor shall only be considered when the person being assessed a civil penalty has not been found to have previously violated the regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Determination that the person being assessed a civil penalty did not willfully commit the violation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Determination that the proposed penalty would constitute excessive punishment under the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(vii) Determination of other mitigating circumstances appropriate to consideration in reaching a fair and expeditious assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the penalty is for a violation on Indian lands, the Federal land manager shall consult with and consider the interests of the Indian landowner and the Indian tribe having jurisdiction over the Indian lands prior to proposing to mitigate or remit the penalty.
</P>
<P>(3) When the penalty is for a violation which may have had an effect on a known Indian tribal religious or cultural site on public lands, the Federal land manager should consult with and consider the interests of the affected tribe(s) prior to proposing to mitigate or remit the penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.17   Other penalties and rewards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 6 of the Act contains criminal prohibitions and provisions for criminal penalties. Section 8(b) of the Act provides that archaeological resources, vehicles, or equipment involved in a violation may be subject to forfeiture.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 8(a) of the Act provides for rewards to be made to persons who furnish information which leads to conviction for a criminal violation or to assessment of a civil penalty. The Federal land manager may certify to the Secretary of the Treasury that a person is eligible to receive payment. Officers and employees of Federal, State, or local government who furnish information or render service in the performance of their official duties, and persons who have provided information under § 229.16(b)(1)(iii) shall not be certified eligible to receive payment of rewards.
</P>
<P>(c) In cases involving Indian lands, all civil penalty monies and any item forfeited under the provisions of this section shall be transferred to the appropriate Indian or Indian tribe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.18   Confidentiality of archaeological resource information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal land manager shall not make available to the public, under subchapter II of chapter 5 of title 5 of the U.S. Code or any other provision of law, information concerning the nature and location of any archaeological resource, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal land manager may make information available, provided that the disclosure will further the purposes of the Act and this part, or the Act of June 27, 1960, as amended (16 U.S.C. 469-469c), without risking harm to the archaeological resource or to the site in which it is located.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal land manager shall make information available, when the Governor of any State has submitted to the Federal land manager a written request for information, concerning the archaeological resources within the requesting Governor's State, provided that the request includes:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific archaeological resource or area about which information is sought;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose for which the information is sought; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Governor's written commitment to adequately protect the confidentiality of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.19" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.19   Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal land manager, when requested by the Secretary of the Interior, will submit such information as is necessary to enable the Secretary to comply with section 13 of the Act and comprehensively report on activities carried out under provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Interior will include in the annual comprehensive report, submitted to the Committee on Interior and Insular Affairs of the United States House of Representatives and to the Committee on Energy and Natural Resources of the United States Senate under section 13 of the Act, information on public awareness programs submitted by each Federal land manager under § 229.20(b). Such submittal will fulfill the Federal land manager's responsibility under section 10(c) of the Act to report on public awareness programs.
</P>
<P>(c) The comprehensive report by the Secretary of the Interior also will include information on the activities carried out under section 14 of the Act. Each Federal land manager, when requested by the Secretary, will submit any available information on surveys and schedules and suspected violations in order to enable the Secretary to summarize in the comprehensive report actions taken pursuant to section 14 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.20" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.20   Public awareness programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal land manager will establish a program to increase public awareness of the need to protect important archaeological resources located on public and Indian lands. Educational activities required by section 10(c) of the Act should be incorporated into other current agency public education and interpretation programs where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal land manager annually will submit to the Secretary of the Interior the relevant information on public awareness activities required by section 10(c) of the Act for inclusion in the comprehensive report on activities required by section 13 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.21" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.29.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.21   Surveys and schedules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretaries of the Interior, Agriculture, and Defense and the Chairman of the Board of the Tennessee Valley Authority will develop plans for surveying lands under each agency's control to determine the nature and extent of archaeological resources pursuant to section 14(a) of the Act. Such activities should be consistent with Federal agency planning policies and other historic preservation program responsibilities required by 16 U.S.C. 470 <I>et seq.</I> Survey plans prepared under this section will be designed to comply with the purpose of the Act regarding the protection of archaeological resources.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Interior, Agriculture, and Defense and the Chairman of the Tennessee Valley Authority will prepare schedules for surveying lands under each agency's control that are likely to contain the most scientifically valuable archaeological resources pursuant to section 14(b) of the Act. Such schedules will be developed based on objectives and information identified in survey plans described in paragraph (a) of this section and implemented systematically to cover areas where the most scientifically valuable archaeological resources are likely to exist.
</P>
<P>(c) Guidance for the activities undertaken as part of paragraphs (a) through (b) of this section is provided by the Secretary of the Interior's Standards and Guidelines for Archeology and Historic Preservation.
</P>
<P>(d) Other Federal land managing agencies are encouraged to develop plans for surveying lands under their jurisdictions and prepare schedules for surveying to improve protection and management of archaeological resources.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretaries of the Interior, Agriculture, and Defense and the Chairman of the Tennessee Valley Authority will develop a system for documenting and reporting suspected violations of the various provisions of the Act. This system will reference a set of procedures for use by officers, employees, or agents of Federal agencies to assist them in recognizing violations, documenting relevant evidence, and reporting assembled information to the appropriate authorities. Methods employed to document and report such violations should be compatible with existing agency reporting systems for documenting violations of other appropriate Federal statutes and regulations. Summary information to be included in the Secretary's comprehensive report will be based upon the system developed by each Federal land manager for documenting suspected violations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="230" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 230—FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS ON DOD INSTALLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 136.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 46373, Sept. 5, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 230.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Updates policies and responsibilities for financial institutions that serve Department of Defense (DoD) personnel on DoD installations worldwide. Associated procedures are contained in 32 CFR part 231.
</P>
<P>(b) Prescribes consistent arrangements for the provision of services by financial institutions among the DoD Components, and requires that financial institutions operating on DoD installations provide, and are provided, support consistent with the policies stated in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter collectively referred to as “the DoD Components”) and all nonappropriated fund instrumentalities including the Military Exchange Services and morale, welfare and recreation (MWR) activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Terms used in this part are set forth in 32 CFR part 231.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following pertains to financial institutions on DoD installations:
</P>
<P>(1) Except where they already may exist as of May 1, 2000, no more than one banking institution and one credit union shall be permitted to operate on a DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon the request of an installation commander and with the approval of the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee), duly chartered financial institutions may be authorized to provide financial services on DoD installations to enhance the morale and welfare of DoD personnel and facilitate the administration of public and quasi-public monies. Arrangement for the provision of such services shall be in accordance with this part and the applicable provisions of 32 CFR part 231.
</P>
<P>(3) Financial institutions or branches thereof, shall be established on DoD installations only after approval by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) and the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(i) Except in limited situations overseas (see paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section), only banking institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and credit unions insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or by another insurance organization specifically qualified by the Secretary of the Treasury, shall operate on DoD installations. These financial institutions may either be State or federally chartered; however, U.S. credit unions operated overseas shall be federally insured.
</P>
<P>(ii) Military banking facilities (MBFs) shall be established on DoD installations only when a demonstrated and justified need cannot be met through other means. An MBF is a financial institution that is established by the Department of the Treasury under statutory authority that is separate from State or Federal laws that govern commercial banking. Section 265 of title 12, United States Code contains the provisions for the Department of the Treasury to establish MBFs. Normally, MBFs shall be authorized only at overseas locations. This form of financial institution may be considered for use at domestic DoD installations only when the cognizant DoD Component has been unable to obtain, through normal means, financial services from a State or federally chartered financial institution authorized to operate in the State in which the installation is located. In times of mobilization, it may become necessary to designate additional MBFs as an emergency measure. The Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) may recommend the designation of MBFs to the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(iii) Retail banking operations shall not be performed by any DoD Component. Solicitations for such services shall be issued, or proposals accepted, only in accordance with the policies identified in this part. The DoD Components shall rely on commercially available sources in accordance with DoD Directive 4100.15. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Installation commanders shall not seek the provision of financial services from any entity other than the on-base banking office or credit union. The Director, DFAS, with the concurrence of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (USD(C)), may approve exceptions to this policy.
</P>
<P>(5) Financial institutions authorized to locate on DoD installations shall be provided logistic support as set forth in 32 CFR part 231.
</P>
<P>(6) Military disbursing offices, nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (including MWR activities and the Military Exchange Services) and other DoD Component activities requiring financial services shall use on-base financial institutions to the maximum extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(7) The Department encourages the delivery of retail financial services on DoD installations via nationally networked automated teller machines (ATMs).
</P>
<P>(i) ATMs are considered electronic banking services and, as such, shall be provided only by financial institutions that are chartered and insured in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Proposals by the installation commander to install ATMs from other than on-base financial institutions shall comply with the provisions of paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Expansion of financial services (to include in-store banking) requiring the outgrant of additional space or logistical support shall be approved by the installation commander. Any DoD activity or financial institution seeking to expand financial services shall coordinate such requests with the installation bank/credit union liaison officer prior to the commander's consideration.
</P>
<P>(9) The installation commander shall ensure, to the maximum extent feasible, that all financial institutions operating on that installation are given the opportunity to participate in pilot programs to demonstrate new financial-related technology or establish new business lines (e.g., in-store banking) where a determination has been made by the respective DoD Component that the offering of such services is warranted.
</P>
<P>(10) The installation commander shall approve requests for termination of financial services that are substantiated by sufficient evidence and forwarded to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall coordinate such requests with the USD(C), through the Director, DFAS, before notification to the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(11) Additional guidance pertaining to financial services is set forth in 32 CFR part 231.
</P>
<P>(b) The following additional provisions pertain only to financial institutions on overseas DoD installations:
</P>
<P>(1) The extension of services by MBFs and credit unions overseas shall be consistent with the policies stated in this part and with the applicable status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(2) Financial services at overseas DoD installations may be provided by:
</P>
<P>(i) Domestic on-base credit unions operating overseas under a geographic franchise and, where applicable, as authorized by the pertinent status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(ii) MBFs operated under and authorized by the pertinent status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreement, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(iii) Domestic and foreign banks located on overseas DoD installations that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Chartered to provide financial services in that country, and
</P>
<P>(B) A party to a formal operating agreement with the installation commander to provide such services, and
</P>
<P>(C) Identified, where applicable, in the status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(3) In countries served by MBFs operated under contract, nonappropriated fund instrumentalities and on-base credit unions that desire, and are authorized, to provide accommodation exchange services shall acquire foreign currency from the MBF at the MBF accommodation rate; and shall sell such foreign currency at a rate of exchange that is no more favorable to the customer than the customer rate available at the MBF.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.30.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (USD(C)) shall develop policies governing establishment, operation, and termination of financial institutions on DoD installations and take final action on requests for exceptions to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology and Logistics) (USD(AT&amp;L)) shall monitor policies and procedures governing logistical support furnished to financial institutions on DoD installations, including the use of DoD real property and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness) (USD(P&amp;R)) shall advise the USD(C) on all aspects of on-base financial institution services that affect the morale and welfare of DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD Component responsibilities pertaining to this part are set forth in 32 CFR part 231.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="231" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 231—PROCEDURES GOVERNING BANKS, CREDIT UNIONS AND OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS ON DOD INSTALLATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 136. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 46708, Sept. 7, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Guidelines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.1   Overview.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements DoD Directive 1000.11 (32 CFR part 230) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and prescribes guidance and procedures governing the establishment, support, operation, and termination of banks and credit unions operating on DoD installations worldwide, to include military banking facilities (MBFs). In addition, this part provides guidance intended to ensure that arrangements for the provision of services by financial institutions are consistent among DoD Components, and that financial institutions operating on DoD installations provide, and are provided, support consistent with the guidance and procedures stated herein. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained via Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.whs/directives.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), the Joint Staff and the supporting Joint Agencies, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (IG, DoD), the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, the Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (USUHS), all DoD nonappropriated fund instrumentalities including the Military Exchange Services and morale, welfare and recreation (MWR) activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The policy pertaining to financial institutions operating on DoD installations is contained in DoD Directive 1000.11 (32 CFR part 230) and in § 231.4. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.3   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (USD(C)) shall develop and monitor policies governing establishment, operation, and termination of financial institutions on DoD installations and take final action on requests for exceptions to this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology and Logistics) (USD(AT&amp;L)) shall monitor policies and procedures governing logistical support furnished to financial institutions on DoD installations, including the use of DoD real property and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness) (USD(P&amp;R)) shall advise the USD(C) on all aspects of on-base financial institution services that affect the morale and welfare of DoD personnel. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop procedures governing banks and credit unions on DoD installations for promulgation in this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) For domestic DoD installations, coordinate with the Secretaries of the Military Departments (or designees) on requests from subordinate installation commanders to establish or terminate banking offices or on-base credit unions. For overseas DoD installations, coordinate with the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) on requests from subordinate installation commanders to establish or discontinue the provision of financial services from the on-base financial institution under contract with the Department of Defense or to establish or terminate banking offices or credit unions located on DoD installations. 
</P>
<P>(3) In coordination with affected DoD Components, authorize the specific types of banking services that will be provided by overseas military banking facilities (MBFs) and specify the charges or fees, or the basis for these, to be levied on users of these services. 
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinate with the Fiscal Assistant Secretary of the Treasury on the designation of domestic and overseas MBFs as depositaries and financial agents of the U.S. Government. 
</P>
<P>(5) Designate a technical representative to provide policy direction for the procuring and administrative contracting officer(s) responsible under the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) for acquiring banking services required at overseas DoD installations. 
</P>
<P>(6) Serve as principal liaison with banking institutions having offices on overseas DoD installations. In this capacity, monitor MBF managerial and operational policies, procedures, and operating results and take action as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(7) As necessary, assist in the formation of government-to-government agreements for the provision of banking services on overseas DoD installations, in accordance with DoD Directive 5530.3 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) Provide procedural guidance to DoD Components, as required. 
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain liaison with financial institution trade associations, leagues, and councils in order to interpret DoD policies toward respective memberships and aid in resolving mutual concerns affecting the provision of financial services. 
</P>
<P>(10) Coordinate with the USD(P&amp;R), through the USD(C), on all aspects of morale and welfare and with the USD(AT&amp;L), through the USD(C), on all aspects of logistic support for on-base financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>(11) Monitor industry trends, conduct studies and surveys, and facilitate appropriate dialogues on banking and credit union arrangements and cost-benefit relationships, coordinate as necessary with DoD Components, financial institutions, and trade associations as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(12) Maintain liaison, as appropriate, with financial institution regulatory agencies at federal and state levels. 
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure that recommendations of the Combatant Commands are considered before processing requests for overseas banking and credit union service or related actions. 
</P>
<P>(14) Maintain a listing of all geographic franchises assigned to credit unions serving DoD overseas installations. 
</P>
<P>(e) Secretaries of the Military Departments (or designees) shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) For domestic DoD installations, take action on requests from subordinate installation commanders to establish or terminate financial institution operations. For overseas DoD installations, take action in accordance with guidance contained herein on requests from subordinate installation commanders to establish or discontinue the provision of financial services from the DoD contracted banking institution, or to establish or terminate other financial institutions located on DoD installations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for liaison to those financial institutions that operate banking offices on respective domestic DoD installations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Oversee the use of banking offices and credit unions on respective DoD installations within the guidance contained herein and in DoD Directive 1000.11 (32 CFR part 230). 
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluate the services provided and related charges and fees by respective on-base banking offices and credit unions to ensure that they fulfill the requirements upon which the establishment and retention of those services were justified. 
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor practices and procedures of respective banking offices and credit unions to ensure that the welfare and interests of DoD personnel as consumers are protected. 
</P>
<P>(6) Assist on-base banking offices and credit unions to develop and expand necessary services for DoD personnel consistent with this part. 
</P>
<P>(7) Encourage the conversion of existing domestic MBFs on respective installations to independent or branch bank status where feasible. 
</P>
<P>(8) Provide logistical support to overseas MBFs under terms and conditions identified in this part as well as with the applicable terms of DoD contracts with financial institutions responsible for the operations of overseas MBFs. 
</P>
<P>(9) Refer matters requiring policy decisions or proposed changes to this part or DoD Directive 1000.11 (32 CFR part 230) to the USD(C) through the Director, DFAS. 
</P>
<P>(10) Monitor and encourage the use of financial institutions on DoD installations to accomplish the following ends. 
</P>
<P>(i) Facilitate convenient, effective management of the appropriated, nonappropriated, and private funds of on-base activities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assist DoD personnel in managing their personal finances through participation in programs such as direct deposit and regular savings plans, including U.S. savings bonds. The use of on-base financial institutions shall be on a voluntary basis and should not be urged in preference to, or to the exclusion of, other financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>(11) Encourage and assist duly chartered financial institutions on domestic DoD installations to provide complete financial services to include, without charge, basic financial education and counseling services. Financial education and counseling services refer to basic personal and family finances such as budgeting, checkbook balancing and account reconciliation, benefits of savings, prudent use of credit, how to start a savings program, how to shop and apply for credit, and the consequences of excessive credit. 
</P>
<P>(12) Establish liaison, as appropriate, with federal and state regulatory agencies and financial institution trade associations, leagues, and councils. 
</P>
<P>(13) Make military locator services available to on-base financial institutions in accordance with the Privacy Act guidelines in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(14) Permit DoD personnel to serve on volunteer boards or committees of on-base financial institutions, without compensation, when neither a conflict of duty nor a conflict of interest is involved, in accordance with DoD Directive 5500.7. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(15) Allow DoD personnel to attend conferences and meetings that bring together representatives of on-base financial institutions, when neither a conflict of duty nor a conflict of interest is involved, in accordance with DoD Directive 1327.5, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> subchapter 630 of the DoD Civilian Personnel Manual (DoD 1400.25-M 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>), and Comptroller General Decision B-212457. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) The Commanders of the Combatant Commands (or designees) shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure the appropriate coordination of the following types of requests affecting financial institutions overseas. 
</P>
<P>(i) Establish financial institutions in countries not presently served. Such requests will include a statement that the requirement has been coordinated with the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission or U.S. Embassy and that the host country will permit the operation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eliminate any or all financial institutions on DoD installations within a foreign country. Such requests will include a statement that the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission has been informed and that appropriate arrangements to coordinate local termination announcements and procedures have been made with the U.S. Embassy. 
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor and coordinate military banking operations within the command area. Personnel assigned to security assistance positions will not perform this function without the prior approval of the Director, Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA). 
</P>
<P>(g) The Commanders of Major Commands and subordinate installation commanders shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor the banking and credit union program within their commands. 
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate requests to establish or construct bank and credit union offices or terminate logistical support as specified in this part to banks and credit unions within their commands. Personnel assigned to overseas security assistance positions will not monitor, coordinate, or assist in military banking operations without the prior approval of the DSCA. 
</P>
<P>(3) Assign, as appropriate, responsibility for paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section, to comptroller or resource management personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Cooperate with financial institution associations, leagues, and councils. 
</P>
<P>(5) Recognize the right of all DoD personnel to organize and join credit unions and promote the credit union movement in DoD worldwide. 
</P>
<P>(6) Permit DoD personnel to serve on volunteer boards or committees of on-base financial institutions, without compensation, when neither a conflict of duty nor a conflict of interest is involved, in accordance with DoD Directive 5500.7. 
</P>
<P>(7) Allow DoD personnel to attend conferences and meetings that bring together representatives of on-base financial institutions, when neither a conflict of duty nor a conflict of interest is involved, in accordance with DoD Directive 1327.5, Subchapter 630 of the DoD Civilian Personnel Manual (DoD 1400.25-M), and Comptroller General Decision B-212457. 
</P>
<P>(8) Seek the provision of financial services only from existing on-base financial institutions, proposing alternatives only where on-base financial institutions fail to respond favorably to a valid requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.4   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Security.</I> The installation commander (or designee) and officials of the on-base financial institutions shall work with the installation security authorities to establish an understanding as to each entity's responsibilities. The on-base financial institutions are encouraged to establish an ongoing relationship with installation security authorities on all matters of asset protection. 
</P>
<P>(1) A written agreement shall be established outlining the security procedures that the financial institution will follow and the role that installation security authorities will play with regard to alarms, movement of cash, and procedures to be followed in response to criminal activity (e.g., armed robbery). 
</P>
<P>(2) Cash and other assets in on-base banking offices and credit unions are the property of those financial institutions. Maintenance of alarms and use of armored cars is the sole responsibility of the on-base financial institution. The on-base financial institution is also solely responsible for the guarding or escorting of cash unless the installation commander determines that providing such services is desirable or necessary. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Central locator services.</I> Military locator services shall be provided per the guidelines in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) When appropriate, installations will process financial institution requests for central locator service to obtain military addresses of active duty personnel. This service will be used to locate persons for settling accounts, and recovering funds on checks that did not clear or loans that are delinquent or in default (see DoD Directive 1344.9 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>). If delinquent loans or dishonored checks are not recouped within 48 hours, financial institutions operating on DoD installations may bring this information to the attention of the local commander, bank liaison officer, or other designee for assistance in effecting restitution of the amount due, if not otherwise prohibited by law. The financial institution will pay the appropriate fee for each request to the respective Military Department. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The DoD Components shall assist financial institutions to locate DoD personnel whose whereabouts cannot be locally determined. The request should be on the financial institution's letterhead, include the Service member's name and social security number, and cite the cognizant Military Service regulation that authorizes the use of locator services. If a financial institution needs immediate service, the cognizant institution official should contact the bank or credit union liaison officer. 
</P>
<P>(i) For addresses of Department of the Army active, retired, separated and civilian personnel, financial institutions may telephone (703) 325-3732 or write to: Department of the Army Worldwide Locator, U.S. Army Enlisted Record and Evaluation Center, 8899 E. 56th Street, Indianapolis, IN 46249-5301. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For addresses of Navy active, retired, separated and civilian personnel, financial institutions may telephone (901) 874-3388 or write to: Navy Personnel Command, PERS-312F, 5720 Integrity Drive, Millington, TN 38055-3120. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For addresses of Department of the Air Force active, retired, separated and civilian personnel, financial institutions may telephone (210) 565-2660 or write to: Air Force Personnel Center, MSIMDL Suite 50, 550 C Street West, Randolph AFB, TX 78150-4752. 
</P>
<P>(iv) For addresses of United States Marine Corps active, retired, separated and civilian personnel, financial institutions may telephone (703) 784-3942 or write to: 
</P>
<HD2>Active 
</HD2>
<FP-1>U.S. Marine Corps—CMC, HQ MC MMS B 10, 2008 Elliot Road, Room 201, Quantico, VA 22134-5030. 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Retired-Separated 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Q U.S. MMRS-6, 280 Russell Road, Quantico, VA 22134-5105. 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Civilian 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Commanding General, 15303 Andrew Road, Kansas City, MO 64147-1207. 
</FP-1>
<P>(c) <I>Advertising.</I> (1) An on-base financial institution may use the unofficial section of that installation's daily bulletin, provided space is available, to inform DoD personnel of financial services and announce seminars, consumer information programs, and other matters of broad general interest. Announcements of free financial counseling services are encouraged. Such media may not be used for competitive or comparative advertising of, for example, specific interest rates on savings or loans. 
</P>
<P>(2) An on-base financial institution may use installation bulletin boards, newsletters or web pages to post general information that complements the installation's financial counseling programs and promotes financial responsibility and thrift. Message center services may distribute a reasonable number of announcements to units for use on bulletin boards so long as this does not impose an unreasonable workload. 
</P>
<P>(3) An on-base financial institution may include an insert in the installation's newcomers package (or equivalent). This insert should benefit newcomers by identifying the financial services that are available on the installation. 
</P>
<P>(4) DoD Directive 5120.20 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> prevents use of the Armed Forces Radio and Television Service to promote a specific financial institution. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Off-base financial institutions are not permitted to distribute competitive literature or forms on the installation. These institutions, however, may use commercial advertising, mailings or telecommunications to reach their customers. 
</P>
<P>(6) Advertising in government-funded (official) installation papers is not permitted with the exception of insert advertising in the <I>Stars and Stripes</I> overseas. Installation newspapers funded by advertisers are not official publications and, thus, may include advertising paid for by any financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(7) Installation activities, including Military Exchange Services and concessionaire outlets, shall not permit the distribution of literature from off-base financial institutions if there is an on-base financial institution. This does not prevent the Military Exchange Services from distributing literature on affinity credit card services that those Military Exchange Services may acquire centrally through competitive solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Automated teller machine (ATM) service.</I> On-base financial institutions are encouraged to install ATMs at those installation(s) on which they are located. 
</P>
<P>(1) Financial institutions that propose to install ATMs on DoD installations shall bear the cost of ATM installation, maintenance and operation. The installation commander may enter into an agreement with the on-base financial institution wherein the installation may acquire and provide ATMs to on-base financial institutions under certain circumstances, such as when it is advantageous to the government to have one or more ATMs available for use but the acquisition cost to the financial institution is prohibitive. No ATM shall be purchased by an installation unless approved by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). In all such cases, installation costs and all logistic support shall be borne by the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) ATM approval authority is as shown: 
</P>
<P>(i) The installation commander has approval authority when an on-base financial institution wishes to place an ATM on the installation. This approval should be reflected as an amendment to the operating agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where there is no on-base financial institution, follow the solicitation procedures to obtain financial services set forth in §§ 231.5(c) and 231.7(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) The availability of ATM service shall not preclude the later establishment of a banking office should conditions change on an installation. 
</P>
<P>(4) Proposals by an installation commander to install ATMs on domestic installations from other than on-base financial institutions, including the Military Exchange Services, morale, welfare and recreational activities and/or other nonappropriated fund instrumentalities, shall be considered only when: 
</P>
<P>(i) ATM service is unavailable or existing service is inadequate, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The on-base financial institution(s) either declines to provide the service, fails to improve existing service so that it is adequate, or does not formally respond to the request for such service within 30 days of the date of the request. Any ATM service from other than on-base financial institutions is considered an exception to policy. The procedures to establish an on-base financial institution set forth in §§ 231.5(c) and 231.7(b) shall be followed when soliciting for such ATM services. Proposals offering shared-access ATMs (e.g., ATMs operated by two or more financial institutions where their accountholders are not assessed any or all fees applicable to nonaccountholders) shall receive preference. 
</P>
<P>(5) ATM service from foreign banking institutions may be authorized on overseas installations with or without MBFs operated under contract where the installation or community commander determines that a bonafide need exists to support local national hires. On installations with MBFs operated under contract, the MBFs shall be the primary source of the ATM service except when a determination has been made by the cognizant contract program office that providing the service is either not cost effective or precluded by pertinent status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements or host-country law. In those instances where ATM service from foreign banking institutions is authorized and provided by other than the on-base financial institution, ATM connectivity shall be limited to host country networks and the ATMs shall dispense only local currency (no U.S. dollars). The operating agreement covering ATM service shall be negotiated by the installation or community commander and submitted for approval by the appropriate Combatant Commander (or designee) prior to its execution. A copy of the operating agreement will be forwarded through DoD Component channels to the DFAS. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Domestic and international treasury general accounts.</I> In cases where authorization will be required for the on-base banking office or credit union to act as a Treasury General Account (TGA) domestic depositary (or, on overseas installations, an International Treasury General Account (ITGA) depository), the financial institution shall satisfy the risk management standard established by the Secretary of the Treasury. Local operating funds may be used if the on-base financial institution requests reimbursement for costs incurred. On-base financial institutions shall accept deposits for credit to the TGA (or ITGA) when so authorized. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Staffing.</I> (1) On-base financial institutions shall be staffed adequately (i.e., commensurate with industry standards for similar numbers of accountholders and financial services rendered). Staffing at overseas MBFs operated under DoD contract shall be maintained within negotiated ceilings. 
</P>
<P>(2) All staffing shall comply fully with applicable equal employment opportunity laws and with the spirit of DoD equal employment opportunity policies as set forth in DoD Directive 1440.1. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) DoD personnel, excluding military retirees and their dependents, may not serve as directors of domestic or foreign banking institutions operating banking offices on those DoD installations where they currently are assigned. This does not preclude a member of a Reserve Component, who has been serving as a director of a domestic or foreign banking institution operating a banking office on a DoD installation, from retaining his or her directorship if called to active duty. 
</P>
<P>(4) DoD personnel may not be detailed to duty with an on-base financial institution located on a DoD installation. Off-duty personnel, however, may be employed by an on-base financial institution subject to approval by the installation commander (or designee). Such employment must not interfere with the performance of the individual's official duties and responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Departure clearance.</I> The installation commander establishes the clearance policy for all DoD personnel leaving the installation. The on-base financial institutions shall be included as places requiring clearance. The purpose of a clearance is to report change of address, reaffirm allotments or outstanding debts, and receive financial counseling, if desired or appropriate. Clearance may not be denied in order to collect debts or resolve disputes with financial institution management. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Financial education.</I> (1) Officials of on-base financial institutions shall be invited to take part in seminars to educate personnel on personal financial management and financial services. Financial institutions shall be encouraged to provide financial education and counseling services as an integral part of their financial service offerings. Officials of on-base financial institutions shall submit advance briefing texts for approval by the installation commander to ensure that the program is not used to promote services of a specific financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) DoD personnel who tender uncollectible checks, overdraw their accounts or fail to meet their financial obligations in a proper and timely manner damage their credit reputation and adversely affect the public image of all government personnel. For uniformed personnel, military financial counselors and legal advisors shall recommend workable repayment plans that avoid further endangering credit ratings and counsel affected personnel to protect their credit standing and career. Counselors shall ensure that such personnel are aware of the stigma associated with bankruptcy and difficulties in obtaining future credit at reasonable rates and terms and shall recommend its use only when no other alternative will alleviate the situation. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Operating agreements.</I> (1) Before operations of an on-base banking office or credit union begin, a written operating agreement (Appendix C of this part) and the appropriate real estate outgrant (i.e., a lease, permit or license issued as identified in §§ 231.5(e), 231.5(f), 231.5(g), 231.7(d), 231.7(e) and 231.7(f) shall be negotiated directly between the installation commander and officials of the designated financial institution. Thereafter, the operating agreement shall be jointly reviewed by the installation commander and the financial institution at least once every 5 years. The operating agreement shall define the basic relationship between the on-base financial institution and the installation commander and identify mutual support activities such as hours of operation, service fees and security provided. One copy of the agreement shall be sent through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). A copy of the agreement shall be maintained by the installation commander and the banking office or on-base credit union. At a minimum, the agreement shall include the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of services to be rendered and the conditions for service. Full financial services shall be provided where feasible. Agreements, however, may not restrict either entity's right to renegotiate services and fees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Agreement by both parties that they will comply with this part and DoD Directive 1000.11 (32 CFR part 230). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreement by the on-base financial institution that it will furnish copies of its financial reports and other local publications on an “as needed” basis in response to a formal request from the installation commander (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Agreement that the on-base financial institution will indemnify and hold harmless the U.S. Government from (and against) any loss, expense, claim, or demand to which the U.S. Government may be subjected as a result of death, loss, destruction, or damage in conjunction with the use and occupancy of the premises caused in whole or in part by agents or employees of the on-base financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(v) Agreement that neither the Department of Defense nor its representatives shall be responsible or liable for the financial operation of the on-base financial institution or for any loss (including criminal losses), expense, or claim for damages arising from operations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Agreement by the on-base financial institution (or any successor) that it will provide no less than 180 days advance written notice to the installation commander before ceasing operations. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Specification of the security services to be provided for guarding cash shipments, at times of unusual risk to the financial institution and to avoid excessive insurance costs charged to that institution. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Statement that the physical security for cash and negotiable items will be in a manner consistent with the requirements of the on-base financial institution's insurer. A copy of those requirements will be provided to the installation commander on request. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Statement that the financial institution, whenever possible, will accommodate local command requests for lectures and printed materials for consumer credit education programs. Officials invited to participate in such programs shall not use the occasion to promote the exclusive services of a particular financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(x) Agreement that the financial institution will reimburse the installation for the provision of logistical support (such as custodial, janitorial, and other services provided by the government) at rates set forth in the lease or agreement between the installation and the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Statement that on-base financial institution operations shall be terminated, when required, under provisions specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Approved expansion of services will be documented as an amendment to the existing operating agreement between the installation commander and the on-base financial institution. The amendment to the operating agreement and any required lease (to include a change to an existing lease) shall be in place prior to the initiation of new financial services or offices. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Installation financial services.</I> (1) Retail banking operations shall not be performed by any DoD Component or nonappropriated fund instrumentality including the Military Exchange Services and morale, welfare and recreation (MWR) activities or any other organizational entity within the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(2) Financial services provided on DoD installations will be as uniform as possible for all personnel. As separately negotiated, or based on a fee schedule, custodians of nonappropriated funds shall compensate on-base financial institutions for services received. Compensation may be made with compensating balances or paying fees based on the services provided or a combination of these payment mechanisms. Fees shall not exceed the charge customary for the financial institution less an offsetting credit on balances maintained. Banking offices shall classify nonappropriated fund accounts as commercial accounts. 
</P>
<P>(3) At a minimum, banking offices shall provide the same services to individuals and nonappropriated fund instrumentalities as are available in the surrounding geographic area. 
</P>
<P>(4) On-base financial institutions may conduct operations during normal duty hours provided they do not disrupt the performance of official duties. Operating hours shall be set, in consultation with the bank or credit union liaison officer, to meet the needs of all concerned. ATMs may be used to expand financial services and operating hours. 
</P>
<P>(5) DoD personnel may use their allotment of pay privileges to establish sound credit and savings practices through on-base financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>(i) The on-base financial institution shall credit customer accounts not later than the deposit date of the allotment check or electronic funds transfer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The initiation of an allotment is voluntary (See Volume 7a, Chapter 42, Section 4202 of The DoD Financial Management Regulation (7200.14-R)). Thus, DoD personnel generally cannot be required to initiate an allotment for the repayment of a loan. Allotments voluntarily established by DoD personnel for the purpose of repaying a loan or otherwise providing funds to an on-base financial institution shall continue in effect at the option of the allotter. 
</P>
<P>(6) In accordance with sound lending practice, policies on loans to individuals are expected to be as liberal as feasible while remaining consistent with the overall interests of the on-base financial institution. On-base financial institutions shall conform to the Standards of Fairness principles before executing loan or credit agreements. See DoD Directive 1344.9. 
</P>
<P>(7) On-base financial institutions shall make basic financial education and counseling services available without charge to individuals seeking these services. Financial education and counseling services refer to basic personal and family finances such as budgeting, checkbook balancing and account reconciliation, benefits of savings, prudent use of credit, how to start a savings program, how to shop and apply for credit, and the consequences of excessive credit. DoD personnel in junior enlisted or civilian grades, or newly married couples who apply for loans, shall be given special attention and counseling. 
</P>
<P>(8) On-base financial institutions must strive to provide the best service to all customers. On-base financial institutions that evidence a policy of discrimination in their services are in violation of this part. In resolving complaints of discrimination, use the procedures specified in § 231.5(h)(8).
</P>
<P>(9) All correspondence regarding on-base financial institutions, and questions concerning their operation that cannot be resolved locally, shall be referred through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for consideration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.5   Procedures—domestic banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> Given their role in promoting morale and welfare, on-base banks shall be recognized and assisted by DoD Components at all levels. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment.</I> (1) The following information shall be included in the installation commander's request to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for establishment of banking offices: 
</P>
<P>(i) The approximate number of DoD personnel at the installation, and other persons who may be authorized to use the banking office. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The distance between the installation and the financial institutions in the vicinity, and the names of those institutions. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Available transportation between the installation and the financial institutions listed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of DoD personnel in duty assignments that confine them to the installation or who cannot obtain transportation (such as hospital patients). 
</P>
<P>(v) The name and location of the depositary used to make official deposits for credit to the TGA. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A list of organizational and nonappropriated fund accounts, the name and location of the financial institutions where deposited, and the average daily activity and balance of each account. 
</P>
<P>(vii) A written description and photographs of the space proposed for banking office use. 
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement listing the requirements of the proposed banking office for safes and a vault, alarm systems, and surveillance equipment, when necessary. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Reasons for use of space controlled by the General Services Administration (GSA). All the GSA assigned space, whether leased space or federal office building space, is reimbursable to the GSA at the standard level user charge. As such, space occupied by a banking office to serve military needs will be assigned and charged by the GSA. 
</P>
<P>(x) Any other information pertinent to the establishment of a banking office. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of the Military Departments (or designee) shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Review each request for the establishment of banking offices. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct a solicitation for the services when warranted. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve proposals for banking offices. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify the selected financial institution either directly or through the installation commander. The selected banking institution will, in turn, obtain operating authority from their regulating agencies. 
</P>
<P>(v) Forward proposals to establish TGAs to the DFAS for subsequent forwarding to the Fiscal Assistant Secretary of the Treasury in accordance with Volume 5, Chapter 5, paragraph 050102 of The DoD Financial Management Regulation (7000.14-R). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Solicitations.</I> The Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee), or the installation commander with advice from the cognizant Secretary of the Military Department (or designee), shall conduct solicitations to include pre-proposal conferences for on-base banking. Subject to the criteria for selection outlined in paragraph (c)(4) of this section the preferred sources of on-base financial services at domestic installations are federally-insured, state-chartered or federally-insured, federally-chartered banking institutions operating in the local area. The guidance at paragraph (c)(1) of this section addresses distribution of the solicitation only and does not preclude any federally-insured, state-chartered or federally-insured, federally-chartered banking institution from responding at any stage (from local distribution in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section to publication in the <I>Commerce Business Daily</I> and financial institution trade journals as outlined in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section of the solicitation process. No commitment may be made to any banking institution regarding its proposal until a designation is made by the appropriate regulatory agency. 
</P>
<P>(1) Solicitations for banking services shall be accomplished in the following order: 
</P>
<P>(i) Solicitation letters will be sent to local banking institutions and a solicitation announcement will be published in the local newspaper(s) and forwarded to financial institution associations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) or, where delegated, the installation commander, determines that the geographic scope of the solicitation needs to be expanded, a prospectus will be forwarded to financial institutions in a larger geographic area, as well as financial institution associations and regulatory authorities in the state where the installation is located. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) or, where delegated, the installation commander, determines that the geographic scope of the solicitation needs to be expanded further, the prospectus will be published in the Commerce Business Daily and financial institution trade journals. 
</P>
<P>(2) For solicitations conducted at the installation level, the installation commander shall review proposals to establish banking offices, select the banking institution making the best offer and forward a recommendation to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for final approval. 
</P>
<P>(3) Banking institutions shall not be coerced when banking arrangements are under consideration or after banking offices are established. If otherwise proper, this prohibition does not preclude: 
</P>
<P>(i) Discussions with banking institutions prior to submitting a proposal for a new banking office. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Helping banking offices extend their operations in support of an installation requirement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Discussions with banking institutions to improve services or to create savings for the banking institution or DoD personnel. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Seeking proposals for banking service as directed by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(v) Negotiations preparatory to signing a banking agreement. 
</P>
<P>(4) When soliciting for banking services, proposals shall be evaluated on specific factors identified in the solicitation. These factors, at a minimum, shall be predicated on the services to be provided as outlined in appendix A, paragraph 3, of this part, the financial institution's schedule of service fees and charges, and the extent of logistical support required. Prior to issuance of the solicitation, the preparing office shall identify (for internal use during the subsequent evaluation period) the weights to be applied to the factors reflected in the solicitation. Proposals shall be evaluated and ultimate selection made based upon the factors and weights developed for the solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee), or the installation commander with advice from the cognizant Secretary of the Military Department (or designee), shall make the selection of the banking institution based on the provisions outlined in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Terminations.</I> (1) Requests for termination of financial services shall be approved by the installation commander, substantiated by sufficient evidence and forwarded to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The termination of banking office operations shall be initiated by the installation commander only under one of the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The mission of the installation has changed, or is scheduled to be changed, thereby eliminating or substantially reducing the requirement for financial services. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Active military operations prevent continuation of on-base financial services. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance of the banking office in providing services is not satisfactory according to standards ordinarily associated with the financial services industry or is inconsistent with the operating agreements or the procedures prescribed herein. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When merger, acquisition, change of control or other action results in violation of the terms and conditions of the existing operating agreement, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall terminate the operating agreement with the existing banking institution. When the merger, acquisition, change of control or other action does not result in violation of the terms and conditions of the existing operating agreement, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall initiate a novation action of the operating agreement identifying the change in control. 
</P>
<P>(2) The installation commander shall forward requests for termination to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall coordinate all termination actions with the USD(C), through the Director, DFAS, before notification to the appropriate regulatory agency. Subsequent to this coordination process: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall inform the regulatory agency of the action. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The installation commander shall revoke the authority of the financial institution to operate. The lease will be terminated. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any banking office that intends to terminate its operations should notify the installation commander at least 180 days before the closing date. This notification should precede any public announcement of the planned closure. When appropriate, the commander shall attempt to negotiate an agreement permitting the banking office to continue operations until the installation has made other arrangements. Immediately upon notification of a closing, the commander shall advise the DoD Component headquarters concerned. If it is determined that continuation of banking services is justified, action to establish another banking office shall be taken in accordance with the guidance prescribed herein. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of space, logistical support, and military real property for domestic banks</I>—(1) <I>Lease Terms.</I> (i) The consideration for a lease shall be determined by appraisal of fair market rental value in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2667. Periodic reappraisals shall be based upon the fair market rental value exclusive of the improvements made by the banks.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term of the lease shall not exceed 5 years except where the banking institution uses its own funds to improve existing government space as outlined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section. If space occupied is assigned by the GSA, charges to financial institutions for space and services shall be at the GSA standard level user rate. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Leases shall include the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(A) The government has the right to terminate the lease due to national emergency; installation inactivation, closing, or other disposal action; or default by the lessee. 
</P>
<P>(B) The lessee shall provide written notice 180 days prior to voluntarily terminating the lease. 
</P>
<P>(C) Upon a lease termination, the government has the option to cause the title of all structures and other improvements to be conveyed to the United States without reimbursement, or require the lessee to remove the improvements and restore the land to its original condition. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Logistical support.</I> (i) The banking office shall be housed in a building accessible to DoD personnel on the installation and in a location permitting reasonable security. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Banking institutions shall perform all maintenance, repair, improvements, alterations, and construction on the banking premises. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Banking institutions shall pay for all utilities (i.e., electricity, natural gas or fuel oil, water and sewage), heating and air conditioning, intrastation telephone service, and custodial and janitorial services to include garbage disposal and outdoor maintenance (such as grass cutting and snow removal) at rates set forth in the lease, operating agreement or other written agreement between the installation and the banking institution. 
</P>
<P>(3) Leases executed before the issuance of this part may not be altered solely as a result of the provisions of this part unless a lessee specifically requests a renegotiation under these provisions. No lease may be negotiated or renegotiated, nor may any rights be waived or surrendered without compensation to the government.
</P>
<P>(4) When a banking institution participates in the construction of a shopping mall complex the lease shall cover only land where the banking office physically is located.
</P>
<P>(5) When a banking institution uses its own funds to improve existing government space, leases, for a period not to exceed 25 years subject to periodic review every 5 years to assess changes in fair market value, may be negotiated for a period commensurate with the appraised value of the leasehold improvements divided by the annual lease fee. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Land leases.</I> (1) A lease for construction of a building to house a banking office shall be at the appraised fair market rental value. Charges shall apply for the term of the lease not to exceed 25 years, subject to periodic review every 5 years to assess changes in fair market value. 
</P>
<P>(2) If determined to be in the government's interest, an existing lease of land may be extended prior to expiration of its term. Passage of title to facilities shall be deferred until all extensions have expired. Such extensions shall be for periods not to exceed 5 years with lease payments set at the appraised fair market rental of the land only as determined on the date of each such extension. Banking institution lessees shall continue to maintain the premises and pay for utilities and services furnished. 
</P>
<P>(3) When, under the terms of a lease, title to improvements passes to the government, arrangements normally will be made as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) When the square footage involved exceeds that authorized in DoD 4270.1-M 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>, the banking institution shall be given first choice to continue occupying the excess space under a lease that provides for fair market rental for the land underlying that excess space.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The charge for continued occupancy of improved space by a banking office shall be at fair market rental value only for the associated land. The lessee shall continue to maintain the premises and pay the cost of utilities and services furnished. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Construction.</I> Banks may construct buildings subject to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) The building shall be solely for the use of the banking institution and may not provide for other commercial enterprises or government instrumentalities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Construction projects must meet the criteria in DoD 4270.1-M. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Construction projects approval authority.</I> (i) Projects costing $25,000 or more shall be approved by the Major Command with an information copy sent to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall have 30 days to provide comments to the Major Command before final approval can be granted. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Projects costing less than $25,000, to include interior alterations and room or office additions to existing banking offices, shall be approved by installation commanders. Copies of approvals, including the identification of project cost, shall be furnished to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee).
</P>
<P>(4) The Congress shall be notified of all construction projects, using other than appropriated funds and costing over $500,000, in accordance with DoD Instruction 7700.18 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Proposals for construction of structures on installations at a banking institution's expense shall be reviewed and reported in accordance with regulations of the Military Department concerned. The following information shall be listed to support each proposal: 
</P>
<P>(i) Number of DoD personnel at the installation plus others who may use the banking office. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Square footage of the proposed building. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Land area to be leased to the banking institution. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Term of the lease. 
</P>
<P>(v) Estimated cost of construction. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Estimated fair market value of the land to be leased. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Statement that the banking institution will be responsible for utility connections and other utility and maintenance costs. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Statement that the building will be used only for financial services. 
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement that financial institution officials understand the potential loss of the building in the event of installation closure or other delimiting condition. 
</P>
<P>(x) Justification for a waiver of space criteria if the building exceeds that specified in DoD 4270.1-M. 
</P>
<P>(6) Banks shall pay for interior alterations and maintenance as well as utilities, custodial, and other furnished services. 
</P>
<P>(7) Banks shall pay all construction costs. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bank liaison officer (BLO).</I> Each installation commander having an on-base banking office shall appoint a BLO. The BLO's name and duty telephone number shall be displayed prominently at each banking office on the installation. As appropriate, the BLO's responsibility shall be assigned to comptroller or resource management personnel. Employees, officials or directors of a financial institution may not serve as BLOs. The BLO shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the banking institution operating the banking office has the latest version of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that traveler's checks and money orders are not being sold by other on-base organizations when banking offices are open for business. Postal units and credit unions, however, are exempt from this restriction. Also, ensure that other financial services, to include vehicle financing on domestic installations, are offered only by the banking office. 
</P>
<P>(3) Attend financial workshops, conferences, and seminars as appropriate. These gatherings offer excellent opportunities for personnel of financial institutions and the Department to improve the military banking program. Free discussion among the attendees gives an excellent forum for planning, developing, and reviewing programs that improve financial services made available to DoD personnel and organizations.
</P>
<P>(4) Assist, when requested by the banking office manager or the installation commander, in locating and collecting from individuals tendering uncollectible checks, overdrawing accounts, or defaulting on loans (within the guidelines of subpart C) if not otherwise prohibited by law. 
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain regular contact with the banking office manager to confer and discuss quantitative and qualitative improvements in the services provided. In executing this authority, the BLO shall not become involved in the internal operations of the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(6) Review the schedule of service charges and fees annually, and ensure that the operating agreement is updated at least every 5 years. Renegotiate the financial services offered and related service charges and fees as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(7) Assist in resolving customer complaints about banking services. 
</P>
<P>(8) Assist in resolving complaints of discrimination with financial services by the banking institution. If a complaint cannot be resolved, a written request for investigation shall be forwarded to the appropriate regulatory agency. Any such request must document the problem and command efforts taken toward its resolution. Information copies of all related correspondence shall be sent through channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for transmittal to the DFAS. 
</P>
<P>(9) Assist the installation commander to report to the appropriate regulatory agency any evidence suggesting malpractice by banking office personnel. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In-store banking.</I> Under the direction and approval of the installation commander, an on-base financial institution may provide in-store banking within the premises of a commissary operated by the Defense Commissary Agency, a Military Exchange, or any other on-base retail facility. 
</P>
<P>(1) Provision of the requested services, and any associated stipulations, shall be documented as an amendment to the existing operating agreement between the installation commander and the on-base financial institution that will provide in-store services. 
</P>
<P>(2) The amendment to the operating agreement shall be drafted through close coordination between the requesting DoD Component representative, the on-base financial institution representative, the bank liaison officer, and the installation commander (or designee). The final amendment shall be signed by the installation commander and the on-base financial institution with the acknowledgement of the DoD Component that will host the in-store banking operation. 
</P>
<P>(3) The installation commander shall extend the opportunity to provide the requested in-store banking services to all financial institutions located on the installation. The selection process is outlined in Appendix B of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Space shall be granted by the installation commander through a lease to the banking institution that will provide in-store service. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Domestic military banking facilities (MBFs)</I>—(1) <I>Domestic MBF establishment.</I> (i) Requests to establish MBFs shall be made only when a need for services cannot be met by other means. During mobilization, however, MBFs may be designated as an emergency measure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation commanders shall send requests for an MBF with justification for its establishment through the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) to the Director, DFAS, for coordination with the Department of the Treasury. The Department of the Treasury may approve the designation of an MBF under provisions of 12 U.S.C. 265. 
</P>
<P>(iii) MBF operations may begin only after approval for MBF status is granted by the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>MBF conversion.</I> (i) Where MBFs exist, installation commanders shall encourage their conversion to independent or branch banks. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Proposals from the on-base banking institution to convert an existing MBF to an independent or branch bank shall be sent through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for approval. The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall forward the request to the Director, DFAS, for coordination with the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Unsolicited proposals from banking institutions to establish independent or branch banks where an MBF exists shall be forwarded through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). Each proposal shall be evaluated on its own merits. 
</P>
<P>(A) The installation commander shall inform the banking institution operating the MBF that an unsolicited proposal for a banking office has been received and shall offer that incumbent institution the opportunity to submit its own proposal. 
</P>
<P>(B) Preference to operate an independent or branch bank shall be given to the banking institution that has operated the MBF, provided that the banking service previously rendered has been satisfactory and that the institution's proposal is adequate. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>MBF termination.</I> The Director, DFAS, shall coordinate the termination of a financial institution's authority to operate an MBF with the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 46708, Sept. 7, 2001; 66 FR 54136, Oct. 26, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.6   Procedures—overseas banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions of banking services overseas.</I> The Department acquires banking services overseas for use by authorized persons and organizations from the following sources: 
</P>
<P>(1) MBFs operated under contract and authorized by the pertinent status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law. 
</P>
<P>(2) Domestic and foreign banking institutions located on overseas DoD installations. Each such institution shall be: 
</P>
<P>(i) Chartered to provide financial services in that country. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A party to a formal operating agreement with the installation commander to provide such services. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identified, where applicable, in the status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment</I>—(1) <I>Overseas MBFs operated under contract.</I> Installation or community commanders requiring banking services will send a request through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for concurrence and subsequent transmittal to the Director, DFAS, for approval. 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests to establish MBFs shall include, but are not limited to, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(A) The approximate number of DoD personnel at the installation and in the community and any other persons who may be authorized to use the MBF. 
</P>
<P>(B) The distance between the installation and the nearest MBF and credit union office, the names; addresses, and telephone numbers of the operators of those institutions; and the installations and communities where they are located. 
</P>
<P>(C) The availability of official and public transportation between the installation or community and the nearest MBF and credit union office. 
</P>
<P>(D) The name and location of the depository used to make official deposits for credit to the TGA. 
</P>
<P>(E) A list of organizational and nonappropriated fund accounts, the name and location of the financial institutions where deposited, and the average daily activity and balance of each account. 
</P>
<P>(F) A written description and photographs or drawings of the space proposed for MBF use. The extent and approximate cost of required alterations, including the construction of counters and teller cages. 
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that recognizes the logistical support, including equipment, to be provided by the local command as detailed in paragraph (c) of this section. The statement will include the costs of such equipment and the manner in which it will be acquired. 
</P>
<P>(H) In countries where no MBFs currently are operated under contract, a statement from the cognizant Combatant Command that the requirement has been coordinated with the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission or U.S. Embassy and that the host country will permit the operation in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(I) Any other pertinent information to justify the establishment of an MBF. 
</P>
<P>(ii) As a general rule, MBFs may be established only when the installation or community population meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Full-time MBF.</I> Except in unusual circumstances, a total of at least 1,000 permanent military personnel and DoD civilian employees are necessary to qualify for a full-time MBF. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Part-time MBF.</I> Except in unusual circumstances, a total of at least 250 permanent military personnel and DoD civilian employees are necessary to qualify for a part time MBF.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the population at a certain remote area is not sufficient to qualify under the criteria for full-time or part-time MBFs, the installation or community commander will explore all other alternatives for acquiring limited banking services before requesting establishment of an MBF as an exception to these provisions. Alternatives to limited banking services include installation of ATMs and check cashing and accommodation exchange service by disbursing officers and their agents. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishment of an overseas MBF is predicated on and requires: 
</P>
<P>(A) Designation of the MBF contractor as a depositary and financial agent of the U.S. Government by the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(B) The availability of banking contractors interested in bidding for the operation of the facility and the viability of such proposals. 
</P>
<P>(C) The availability of appropriated funds to underwrite such banking services. 
</P>
<P>(D) Establishment of a U.S. dollar currency custody account to support banking operations. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other overseas banking offices.</I> Where a need for financial services has been identified and either the banking and currency control laws of certain host countries do not permit MBFs to operate on DoD installations or MBFs, where permitted, have not been established, then the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(i) Installation or community commanders shall send requests for banking services or unsolicited proposals from foreign banking institutions to their Major Commands with supporting data as required in § 231.5(b)(1). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Major Commands shall forward installation or community commander requests to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for approval. The Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) shall coordinate with the DFAS to seek the designation of the parent foreign banking institution as a depositary and financial agent of the U.S. Government by the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Banking offices in this category cannot become operational until the foreign parent banking institution has been designated a depositary and financial agent of the U.S. Government. The institution also shall indicate a willingness and ability to provide collateral backing for any official and nonappropriated fund U.S. dollar deposits. Any collateral pledged shall be in a form acceptable to the DFAS and the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Logistical support</I>—(1) <I>Overseas MBFs operated under contract.</I> (i) Given that appropriated funds support those MBFs that are operated under contract, installation or community commanders shall provide the MBFs logistical support to the maximum possible extent. Such support normally includes: 
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate office space, including steel bars; grillwork; security doors; a vault, safes, or both; security alarm systems and camera surveillance equipment (where deemed necessary) that meet documented requirements of the MBF contractor's insurance carrier; construction of counters, teller cages, and customer and work areas; necessary modifications and alterations to existing buildings; and construction of new MBF premises, if necessary. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The size and arrangement of space should permit efficient operations. Space assigned may not exceed that prescribed in DoD 4270.1-M. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All maintenance, repair, rehabilitation, alterations, or construction for banking offices shall comply with guidelines established by the installation commander. 
</P>
<P>(B) Office space in a building that is accessible to most users and permits the maximum security. In addition, office space for MBF area and district administrations and storage space for retention of records, files, and storage of supplies. 
</P>
<P>(C) DoD housing on a rental basis to assigned MBF staff that are designated as key and essential MBF managerial personnel who are unable to find suitable, reasonably priced housing in the vicinity of the DoD installation, subject to the assignment procedures and other requirements of DoD 4165.63-M. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) Education, on a space-available, tuition-paying basis, provided by the Department of Defense Education Activity to minor dependents of assigned staff in accordance with DoD Directive 1342.13. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(E) Air conditioning, which is considered a normal utility for banking offices located at installations that qualify for air conditioning under applicable regulations. Banking space is classified as administrative space at military installations. 
</P>
<P>(F) Utilities (i.e., electricity, natural gas or fuel oil, water and sewage), heating, intrastation telephone service, and custodial and janitorial services to include garbage disposal and outdoor maintenance (such as grass cutting and snow removal). 
</P>
<P>(G) Defense Switched Network (DSN) voice and data communication to include, where feasible, Internet access. 
</P>
<P>(H) Military guards, civilian guards (for use within the installation), military police, or other protective services to accompany shipments of money. This level of protective service also shall be provided at other times as required to include replenishment of ATM currency and receipts, alarm system failures, and to avoid undue risks or insurance costs on the part of the MBF. 
</P>
<P>(I) U.S. Military Postal Service access in accordance with DoD Directive 4525.6. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Use of free intra-theater delivery system (IDS) is authorized for all routine mail sent and received between Army Post Offices (APOs) and Fleet Post Offices (FPOs) within a theater. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(J) Office equipment and furniture on memorandum receipt if available from local stock. If office equipment or furniture is unavailable, statements of nonavailability shall be issued. 
</P>
<P>(K) Vehicle registration and fuel sales from government-owned facilities for bank-operated vehicles, if not in conflict with host government agreements. Vehicle registration shall be subject to normal fees. 
</P>
<P>(L) Issuance by local commanders of invitational travel orders, at no expense to the U.S. Government when required for official onsite visits by U.S. based banking institution officials. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Suggestions for changes to the logistical support provisions of the MBF contract may be forwarded for consideration through command channels to the Director, DFAS. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other overseas banking offices.</I> (i) Logistical support provided to such offices will be negotiated with the parent foreign banking institution and incorporated into the written operating agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Logistical support shall not exceed that provided to contract MBFs, as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operations</I>—(1) <I>General conditions of MBF operation.</I> (i) Before initiating MBF operations, a written agreement shall be negotiated directly and signed by the installation or community commander and a senior official of the banking contractor or other financial institution concerned. One copy of the agreement with U.S. banking contractors and two copies of the agreement with institutions other than U.S. banking contractors shall be forwarded through command channels to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall forward one copy of the agreement with institutions other than U.S. banking contractors through command channels to the Director, DFAS. A copy of the agreement also shall be maintained at all times by the installation or community commander and the banking institution manager. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For MBFs operated by U.S. banking contractors, the agreement shall state operating details not set forth in the contract. Though the contract limits the number of operating hours per week, local commanders and MBF managers should set days and hours of operation to best meet local needs. Operating times may include Saturdays and evening hours when necessary to complement other retail services for DoD personnel, provided the contractor can implement that service at no additional cost to the government. When added cost is involved, the commander shall send a request including reasons for expanded or modified times of operation, through command channels, to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) for action. If approved, the request, with recommendations, shall be forwarded to the Director, DFAS (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overseas MBFs operated under contract</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Overseas MBFs shall operate under terms and conditions established at the time of contract negotiations and confirmed in respective contracts or contracting officer determinations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authorized customers.</I> DoD banking contracts specify the personnel authorized to receive service. Additionally, overseas major commanders may approve banking services for other individuals that qualify for individual logistic support under the regulations of the DoD Component concerned, provided that the use of banking services is not precluded by status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Services rendered.</I> DoD banking contracts specify the services to be rendered and related charges. Suggestions for expansion or modification of authorized services, fees or charges may be forwarded through DoD Component channels to the Director, DFAS. Proposals for any new service must be coordinated with the appropriate Combatant Command and U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission or U.S. Embassy to make certain that the proposal does not conflict with the status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Regulation to be provided.</I> The Director, DFAS (or designee) shall advise each U.S. banking contractor operating an overseas MBF of this Regulation and furnish a copy to the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Conditions of operation.</I> (A) Part-time and payday service MBFs shall provide limited services that mirror, to the extent feasible, those provided by full-time MBFs. Since part-time MBFs operate out of nearby MBFs, installation or community commanders shall provide and fund transportation and guards for their operation. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any deficiency of banking services under DoD banking contracts shall be reported to the manager of the MBF within 7 calendar days of noting the deficiency. If the problem has not been corrected within 30 calendar days after being noted, the commander shall report the problem through DoD Component channels to the Director, DFAS (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(C) The MBF contractor and military disbursing officers shall establish cash management practices that minimize the cash required conducting business. 
</P>
<P>(D) Commanders shall assist MBF contractors to develop and update contingency plans for banking services in the event of hostilities or other emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(E) MBF provision of foreign currency shall be in accordance with Volume 5, Chapter 13 of The DoD Financial Management Regulation (DoD 7000.14-R).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other overseas banking offices</I>—(i) <I>Authorized customers.</I> The list of authorized customers shall be negotiated between the installation commander and the foreign banking institution and shall be reflected in the operating agreement. The list of authorized customers included in the operating agreement shall be consistent with the applicable status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Services rendered.</I> Services and charges shall parallel, whenever practical, the services and charges of MBFs operated under contract. Specific services shall be negotiated and included in the agreement with the foreign banking institution. A copy of the agreement shall be sent through DoD Component channels to the Director, DFAS (or designee).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Operating agreements.</I> Before agreements are executed, they will be coordinated with and approved by the cognizant Combatant Command (or designee).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Conditions of operation.</I> A foreign banking institution shall provide equipment (except that furnished by the installation or community), supplies, and trained personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Relocation of MBF.</I> (i) When an MBF is moved from one location to another at the same installation or community, the commander shall notify the cognizant Military Department, through command channels. The Military Department shall forward the information to the Director, DFAS (or designee).
</P>
<P>(ii) For all other relocations, prior approval from the Director, DFAS (or designee) shall be obtained through DoD Component channels.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Comments.</I> Installation or community commanders shall send their banking comments through DoD Component channels to the Director, DFAS (or designee) for any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Major changes in installation population that would affect use of the MBF.
</P>
<P>(ii) Opinion that the space assigned is not adequate for the efficient operation of the MBF including a statement concerning corrective action.
</P>
<P>(iii) Suggestions that might improve the MBF operation, increase efficiency, or decrease costs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pending developments that may have a material impact on the MBF operation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Bank liaison officer.</I> The duties of the BLO are outlined in § 231.5(h).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination.</I> Requests to eliminate any or all MBFs in a foreign country shall include documentation that the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission has been informed and that arrangement for local termination announcements and procedures have been made with the U.S. Embassy.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Overseas MBFs operated under contract.</I> In cases where an installation or community no longer can justify overseas MBF operations, the commander shall notify the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) through command channels.
</P>
<P>(i) The report shall state whether a part-time MBF should be established and specify the days each week that the MBF would be needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall send this report with recommendations to the Director, DFAS (or designee).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other overseas banking offices.</I> Termination actions, when required, shall be taken in accordance with the applicable clauses in the operating agreement. Notice of intent to terminate, including the closing date, shall be sent through DoD Component channels to Director, DFAS (or designee), who shall notify the Department of the Treasury so that the foreign banking institution's authority as a Depositary and Financial Agent of the U.S. Government at that location may be revoked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.7   Procedures—domestic credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> Given their role in promoting morale and welfare, on-base credit unions shall be recognized and assisted by DoD Components at all levels. These financial institutions shall provide services to DoD personnel of all ranks and grades within their respective fields of membership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment.</I> A demonstrated need for credit union services may be addressed by establishing a new full-service credit union or by opening a branch office or facility of an existing credit union under the common bond principle.
</P>
<P>(1) DoD personnel seeking to establish a new full-service credit union shall submit a proposal to the installation commander for review. In addition to the information identified in § 231.5(b)(1), the proposal shall include a request for the establishment of a field of membership that includes all personnel at the installation. Upon installation commander concurrence, the proposal shall be forwarded through DoD Component channels to the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee).
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain a list of credit unions that could establish eligibility to serve the installation's military members and civilian employees from the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) Regional Office that has geographic jurisdiction and the applicable state regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prepare and send formal solicitation letters to eligible credit unions informing them of an opportunity to establish a branch office at the installation.
</P>
<P>(iii) In coordination with the installation commander, establish the criteria for selection of a specific credit union in accordance with § 231.5(c)(4). Proposals shall be evaluated, and a selection made, based upon the factors and weights developed for the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon approval by the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee), the NCUA or applicable state regulatory agency shall be notified and asked to establish or amend the selected credit union's charter to include the new location.
</P>
<P>(4) No commitment may be made to a credit union regarding its proposal until the appropriate regulatory agency has approved the requested charter change.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Terminations</I>—(1) <I>Voluntary credit union terminations.</I> (i) When a credit union plans to end operations on a DoD installation, it shall be required to notify the installation commander 180 days before the closing date. Such notification shall be required to precede public announcement of the planned closure. When appropriate, the commander shall attempt to negotiate an agreement permitting the credit union to continue operations until the installation has made other arrangements.
</P>
<P>(ii) The installation commander shall inform the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) immediately upon receiving notification of a closing. The report shall include a recommendation about continued credit union service on the installation. Paragraph (b) of this section applies if continued service is needed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination for cause.</I> If, after discussion with credit union officials, an installation commander determines that the operating policies of a credit union are inconsistent with this Regulation, a recommendation for termination of logistical support and space arrangements may be made through the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). A credit union shall be removed from the installation only with approval of the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) after coordination with the USD(C) through the Director, DFAS, and the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Termination in the interest of national defense.</I> At the option of the government, leases may be terminated in the event of national emergency or as a result of installation deactivation, closing, or other disposal action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination resulting from merger, acquisition, or change of control.</I> When merger, acquisition, change of control or other action results in violation of the terms and conditions of the existing operating agreement, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall, subsequent to coordination with the USD(C), through the Director, DFAS, terminate the operating agreement with the existing credit union. When the merger, acquisition, change of control or other action does not result in violation of the terms and conditions of the existing operating agreement, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall initiate a novation action of the operating agreement identifying the change in control.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Termination of lease.</I> The lessee shall provide written notice 180 days prior to a voluntary termination of the lease. Upon lease termination, the government has the option to cause the title of all structures and other improvements to be conveyed to the United States without reimbursement, or require the lessee to remove the improvements and restore the land to its original condition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of space, logistical support, and military real property for domestic credit unions</I>—(1) <I>Criteria for use of space in Government-owned real property.</I> (i) Criteria governing the assignment of space and construction of new space for credit unions are in DoD 4270.1-M.
</P>
<P>(ii) A credit union may be furnished space on a DoD installation at one or more locations for periods not exceeding 5 years except where the credit union uses its own funds to improve existing government space as outlined in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii)(C) and (d)(1)(ii)(D) of this section. The cumulative total of space furnished shall be subject to the limitations of DoD 4270.1-M.
</P>
<P>(A) The furnishing of office space (including ATM placement) to on-base credit unions is governed by section 170 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1770). The provision of no-cost office space for a period not to exceed 5 years is limited to credit unions if at least 95 percent of the membership to be served by the allotment of space is composed of individuals who are, or who were at the time of admission into the credit union, military personnel or federal employees, or members of their families. A written statement to the effect that the credit union meets the 95 percent criterion shall be required to justify and document the allotment of free government space. This statement shall be prepared on the credit union's letterhead and signed either by the chairman of the board of directors or the president. A certification also shall be required whenever there is a merger, takeover, or significant change in a field of membership. This certification shall serve as justification and documentation for the continued allocation of free government space including space renovated with credit union funds. The statement shall be updated every 5 years and on renewal of each no-cost permit or license. (See appendix C of this part for a sample format of the statement.)
</P>
<P>(B) Credit unions that fail to meet the 95 percent criterion shall be charged fair market rental for space provided. Except where more than one credit union exists on an installation prior to June 9, 2000, credit unions giving less than full service or not serving all assigned DoD personnel are not authorized no-cost office space. 
</P>
<P>(C) When a credit union that meets the 95 percent criterion uses its own funds to expand, modify, or renovate government-owned space, it may be provided a no-cost permit or license for a period commensurate with the extent of the improvements not to exceed 25 years as determined by the DoD Component concerned. The permit or license shall be effective until the agreed date of expiration or until the credit union ceases to satisfy the 95 percent criterion. In this latter case, the no-cost permit shall be cancelled in favor of a lease immediately negotiated at fair market value under the provisions of paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section. If the credit union desires, this permit or license may extend through the period identified in the original permit or license not to exceed 25 years. 
</P>
<P>(D) Similarly, a credit union not meeting the 95 percent criterion that uses its own funds to expand, modify, or renovate government-owned space, may be provided a lease at fair market value for a period not to exceed 25 years subject to periodic review every 5 years to assess changes in fair market value. Duration of this lease shall be commensurate with the extent of the improvements as determined by the DoD Component concerned. 
</P>
<P>(iii) All space assigned by the GSA, whether leased or in a federal office building, is reimbursable to the GSA at the standard level user charge. Consequently, the GSA shall charge the benefiting DoD Component for any space assigned for credit union operations. Such space is subject to the provisions of paragraph (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Logistical support.</I> When available, custodial and janitorial services to include garbage disposal and outdoor maintenance (such as grass cutting and snow removal), heating and air conditioning, utilities (i.e., electricity, natural gas or fuel oil, water, and sewage), fixtures, and maintenance shall be furnished without cost to credit unions occupying no-cost office space in government buildings. With the exception of intrastation telephone service, credit unions shall be required to pay for all communication services to include telephone lines, long distance data services and Internet connections. Credit unions also shall pay for space alterations. Should a credit union fail to meet the 95 percent membership criterion, any logistical support furnished shall be on a reimbursable basis. 
</P>
<P>(3) Leases executed before the issuance of this part may not be altered solely as a result of the provisions of this part unless a lessee specifically requests a renegotiation under these provisions. No lease may be negotiated or renegotiated, nor may any rights be waived or surrendered without compensation to the government. 
</P>
<P>(4) When a credit union participates in the construction of a shopping mall complex the lease shall cover only land where the branch or facility physically is located. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative fees.</I> All administrative fees associated with the initiation, modification, or renewal of an outgrant shall be borne by the installation, provided that the credit union satisfies the 95 percent membership criterion requirement for no-cost office space as outlined paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, and that the fees are associated with the no-cost space. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Land leases.</I> Credit unions entering into a land lease to construct a building on a DoD installation shall do so in accordance with § 231.5(f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Construction.</I> Credit unions constructing a building on a DoD installation shall do so in accordance with § 231.5(g).
</P>
<P>(g) Credit unions offering ATM service shall do so in accordance with § 231.4(d). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Staffing.</I> (1) On-base credit unions shall provide full service. To do so, credit union offices shall be staffed by: 
</P>
<P>(i) An official authorized to act on loan applications. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual authorized to sign checks; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A qualified financial counselor available to serve members during operating hours. 
</P>
<P>(2) Exceptions to paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section may be approved by the installation commander with advice from the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) in the case of newly organized credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(3) When an on-base credit union can support only minimum staffing, one of the positions required in paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section or paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section also may be subsumed under the counselor duties. 
</P>
<P>(4) Credit union remote service locations at the same installation may be staffed with one person alone, provided that a direct courier or an electronic or automated message service links each remote location to the credit union's main office. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit union liaison officer (CULO).</I> When a credit union office is located on an installation, the commander shall appoint a CULO. As appropriate, the CULO responsibility should be assigned to comptroller or resource management personnel. The CULO's name and duty telephone number shall be displayed prominently at each credit union office on the installation. Anyone who serves as a credit union board member or in any other official credit union capacity may not serve as a CULO. The duties of a CULO are the same as the duties listed for a BLO (see § 231.5(h)). 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>In-store banking.</I> In-store banking services may be provided in accordance with § 231.5(i) except that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Credit unions interested in submitting proposals to provide requested in-store banking services shall provide a statement from the NCUA or applicable state regulatory agency certifying the credit union's authority to offer the requested financial services to the commissary, Military Exchange, or other on-base facilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Space granted to a credit union selected to provide in-store banking services should be issued through a no-cost license in accordance with section 170 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1770). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.8   Procedures—overseas credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> (1) Credit union services to authorized persons and organizations may be provided by domestic on-base credit unions operating under a geographic franchise. 
</P>
<P>(2) The extension of credit union service overseas is encouraged consistent with the principles prescribed for domestic credit unions and with applicable status of forces agreements or other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where permitted by the status of forces agreements or other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law, only federal credit unions or federally insured state chartered credit unions may operate on overseas DoD installations. The ultimate decision to provide services overseas rests with the credit union itself. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment.</I> (1) Commanders shall notify the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee), through command channels, when overseas credit union services are needed. Such requests shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Full information about available space and logistical support. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and location of the nearest credit union facility or branch. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The distance between the installation and the nearest credit union facility or branch. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The availability of any official or public transportation. 
</P>
<P>(v) The number of DoD personnel in duty assignments that confine them to the installation or who cannot obtain transportation (such as hospital patients). 
</P>
<P>(vi) In countries not presently served, a statement concurred in by the cognizant Combatant Command that the requirement has been coordinated with the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission or U.S. Embassy. The statement shall include that the host country will permit credit union operations and will indicate any conditions imposed by the host country with respect to those operations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Subsequent to approval of the request from the installation or community commander to establish an overseas credit union facility, the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) shall solicit proposals for the provision of full credit union services under the following provisions. 
</P>
<P>(i) Where there is a DoD designated geographic franchise with a specific field of membership, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall direct the installation or community commander to contact the supporting credit union and request that a branch or facility be established. The basic decision concerning such extensions of service rests with the servicing credit union. The Director, DFAS (or designee) shall maintain a listing of all geographic franchises assigned to credit unions serving DoD overseas installations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where there is no DoD designated geographic franchise, the Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) Coordinate requests, through the Director, DFAS (or designee), to obtain a geographic franchise. A geographic franchise is the authorization granted to a credit union by the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (OUSD(C)) to provide financial services in a specific geographic region located outside the United States, its territories and possessions. 
</P>
<P>(B) Solicit proposals from credit unions currently operating on DoD installations. 
</P>
<P>(C) Review proposals of interested credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(D) Coordinate with field commands, as needed. 
</P>
<P>(E) Recommend selection to the NCUA or applicable state regulatory agency with a copy to the DFAS and the OUSD(C), requesting that the appropriate field of membership adjustment be made. Such a recommendation shall identify the primary installations on which the credit union would operate and, if applicable, the contiguous geographic boundaries for future facilities and branches. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where there is an existing field of membership, the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) shall take the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(i) If a credit union on an installation terminates operation, afford any other credit union having a geographic franchise within that country an opportunity to assume the franchise being vacated. If all such institutions decline, the geographic franchise shall be offered to the federally insured credit union community. If, as a result of a credit union decision to decline service to an installation or a termination action, another credit union: 
</P>
<P>(A) Offers to provide service. 
</P>
<P>(B) Meets host country requirements (if any) and 
</P>
<P>(C) Is assigned the former geographic franchise or portion thereof, the NCUA or the applicable state regulatory agency shall be notified and requested to make appropriate field of membership adjustments. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When other credit union(s) having a geographic franchise within a country decline the opportunity, or there is no other credit union having a franchise within that country, the provisions of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section apply. 
</P>
<P>(4) No commitment may be made to a credit union regarding its proposal until the appropriate regulatory agency has announced a selection. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Logistical support.</I> Installation or community commanders shall provide logistical credit union support. Such support normally shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate office space, including steel bars; grillwork; security doors; a vault, safes or both; security alarm systems and camera surveillance equipment (where deemed necessary) that meet documented requirements of the credit union's insurance carrier; construction of counters, teller cages, and customer and work areas; necessary modifications and alterations to existing buildings. The size and arrangement of space should permit efficient operations. The credit union shall pay for all improvements to the space given. Space assigned may not exceed that prescribed in DoD 4270.1-M. 
</P>
<P>(2) DoD housing on a rental basis to key credit union personnel unable to find suitable, reasonably priced housing in the vicinity of the DoD installation, if available. 
</P>
<P>(3) Education, on a space-available, tuition-paying basis, provided by the Department of Defense Education Activity to minor dependents of assigned staff in accordance with DoD Directive 1342.13. 
</P>
<P>(4) Utilities (i.e., electricity, natural gas or fuel oil, water and sewage), heating, intrastation telephone service, and custodial and janitorial services.
</P>
<P>(5) DSN voice and data communication to include, where feasible, internet access.
</P>
<P>(6) U.S. Military Postal Service support under DoD Directive 4525.6. The use of free intra-theater delivery system (IDS) is authorized for all routine mail sent and received between Army Post Offices (APOs) and Fleet Post Offices (FPOs) within a theater.
</P>
<P>(7) Military guards, civilian guards (for use within the installation), military police, or other protective services to accompany shipments of money from the MBF to the credit union and return where it is impractical or not authorized to have a local armored car service or civilian police authorities entering a military installation to provide cash escort service or when the cost of obtaining such service is prohibitive. This level of protective service also shall be provided at other times as required to include replenishment of ATM currency and receipts, alarm system failures, and to avoid undue risks or insurance costs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Travel.</I> Travel by credit union officials must be at no expense to the U.S. Government. Overseas commanders may issue invitational travel orders for official on-base visits by credit union officials at no cost to the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Operations.</I> (1) An overseas credit union shall confine its field of membership to individuals or organizations eligible by law or regulation to receive services and benefits from the installation. Services shall not be provided to those personnel precluded such services by the applicable status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department assigns overseas credit unions a prescribed geographic franchise. Any credit union, however, may continue to serve its members stationed overseas by mail or telecommunications, to include access to the Internet.
</P>
<P>(3) A credit union proposing a new service to be offered by a branch office that is not authorized by the operating agreement shall coordinate the establishment of the new service through the cognizant Component command to the Combatant Command. The new service shall be offered only after the appropriate command's approval and coordination with the U.S. Chief of Diplomatic Mission or U.S. Embassy to ensure that the service does not conflict with the applicable status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(4) Credit unions that operate full service branches shall have U.S. currency and coin available for member transactions. In areas served by currency custody accounts, transactional U. S. currency and coins shall be made available from the servicing MBF with no direct or analysis charge to the credit union, provided settlement is made via the local MBF account or equivalent arrangements are made with the MBF.
</P>
<P>(5) In countries served by MBFs operated under contract, credit unions shall purchase foreign currency only from the servicing MBF.
</P>
<P>(i) The bulk rate purchase price shall apply to currency used by the credit union to make payments to vendors or to make payroll payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit unions that desire and are authorized to provide accommodation exchange services to its members shall acquire foreign currency from the servicing MBF at the MBF wholesale rate and sell it at a rate of exchange no more favorable than that available to customers of the MBF.
</P>
<P>(6) Credit unions operating under a geographic franchise on an overseas DoD installation shall not publicize, display or sell vehicles on the installation.
</P>
<P>(7) The NCUA or applicable state regulatory agency may review operations of overseas credit union offices either when it examines the main credit union or at other times of its choosing. For federally insured, state chartered credit unions, the applicable state regulatory agency also may examine credit unions operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.9   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Automated Teller Machine (ATM).</I> An electronic machine that dispenses cash, and may perform such other functions as funds transfers among a customer's various accounts and acceptance of deposits. Equipment generally is activated by a plastic card in combination with a personal identification number (PIN). Typically, when the cardholder's account is with a financial institution other than that operating the ATM, its use results in the assessment of a fee from the ATM network (e.g., Armed Forces Financial Network (AFFN), Cirrus, or PLUS) that processes the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking institution.</I> An entity chartered by a state or the federal government to provide financial services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Banking office.</I> A branch bank, or independent bank operated by a banking institution on a domestic DoD installation or by a foreign banking institution on an overseas DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Branch bank.</I> A separate unit chartered to operate at an on-base location geographically remote from its parent banking institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit union.</I> A cooperative nonprofit association, incorporated under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>), or similar state statute, for the purposes of encouraging thrift among its members and creating a source of credit at a fair and reasonable rate of interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit union facility.</I> A facility employing a communications system with the parent credit union to conduct business at remote locations where a full-service credit union or credit union branch is impractical. Credit union facilities need not provide cash transaction services but must disburse loans and shares by check or draft and provide competent financial counseling during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Discrimination.</I> Any differential treatment in provision of services, including loan services, by a financial institution to DoD personnel and their dependents on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, rank, or grade.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>DoD Component.</I> For the purposes of this part, DoD Components include the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Joint Staff and the supporting Joint Agencies, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, the Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, all nonappropriated fund instrumentalities including the Military Exchange Services, and morale, welfare and recreation activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DoD Personnel.</I> All military personnel; DoD civil service employees; other civilian employees, including special government employees of all offices, Agencies, and Departments performing functions on a DoD installation (including nonappropriated fund instrumentalities); and their dependents. On domestic DoD installations, retired U.S. military personnel and their dependents are included.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Domestic DoD installation.</I> For the purposes of this Regulation, a military installation located within a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Guam or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Fair market rental.</I> A reasonable charge for on-base land, buildings, or building space. Rental is determined by a government appraisal based on comparable properties in the local civilian economy. The appraiser, however, shall consider that on-base property may not always be comparable to similar property in the local commercial geographic area. Examples of circumstances that may affect fair market rental include limitations of usage and access to the financial institution by persons other than those on the installation, proximity to the community center or installation business district, and the government's right to terminate the lease or take title to improvements constructed at the financial institution's expense.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Field of membership.</I> A group of people entitled to credit union membership because of a common bond of occupation, association, employment, or residence within a well-defined neighborhood, community, rural district, and other persons sharing a common bond as described by credit union board of directors policy or by Interpretation Ruling and Policy Statement (IRPS) 99-1. A field of membership is defined in the credit union's charter by the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Financial institution.</I> This term encompasses any banking institution, credit union, thrift institution and subordinate office branch or facility, each as separately defined herein.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Financial services.</I> Those services commonly associated with financial institutions in the United States, such as electronic banking (e.g., ATMs and personal computing banking), in-store banking, checking, share and savings accounts, funds transfers, sales of official checks, money orders, and travelers checks, loan services, safe deposit boxes, trust services, sale and redemption of U.S. Savings Bonds, and acceptance of utility payments and any other services provided by financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign banking institution.</I> A bank located outside the United States chartered by the country in which it is domiciled.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Full service credit union.</I> A credit union that provides full-time counter transaction services, to include cash operations, and is staffed during normal working hours by a loan officer, a person authorized to sign checks, and a qualified financial counselor. In overseas areas, “full service” includes cash operations where not prevented by:
</P>
<P>(1) Status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(2) Physical security requirements that cannot be resolved by the credit union or local command.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Geographic franchise.</I> Authorization granted to a credit union by the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) to provide financial services in a specific geographic region located outside the United States, its territories and possessions.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Independent bank.</I> A bank specifically chartered to operate on one or more DoD installations whose directors and officers usually come from the local business and professional community. Such operations are thus differentiated from county-wide or state-wide branch systems consisting of a head office and one or more geographically separate branch offices.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>In-store banking.</I> An expansion of financial services provided by an on-base financial institution within the premises of a commissary store operated by the Defense Commissary Agency, a Military Exchange outlet, and other on-base retail facilities.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Malpractice.</I> Any unreasonable lack of skill or fidelity in fiduciary duties or the intentional violation of an applicable law or regulation or both that governs the operations of the financial institution. A violation shall be considered intentional if the responsible officials know that the applicable action or inaction violated a law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Military banking facility (MBF).</I> A banking office located on a DoD installation and operated by a financial institution that the Department of the Treasury specifically has authorized, under its designation as a “Depository and Financial Agent of the U.S. Government,” to provide certain banking services at the installation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>National bank.</I> An association approved and chartered by the Comptroller of the Currency to operate a banking business.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>On-base.</I> Refers to physical presence on a domestic or overseas DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Operating agreement.</I> A mutual agreement between the installation commander and the on-base financial institution to document their relationships.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Overseas DoD installation.</I> A military installation (or community) located outside the states of the United States, the District of Columbia, Guam or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Part-time MBF.</I> A MBF that operates fewer than 5 days a week exclusive of additional payday service. When only payday service is provided, the MBF may be termed a “payday service facility.”
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Regulatory Agency.</I> Includes the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Department of the Treasury; the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; the respective Federal Reserve Banks; the National Credit Union Administration; Office of Thrift Supervision; the various state agencies and commissions that oversee financial institutions; and, for military banking facilities (MBFs), the Fiscal Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (or designee).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>State bank.</I> An institution organized and chartered under the laws of one of the states of the United States to operate a banking business within that state.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Thrift institution.</I> An institution organized and chartered under federal or state law as a Savings Bank, Savings Association, or Savings and Loan Association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 46708, Sept. 7, 2001; 66 FR 54136, Oct. 26, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—DoD Directive 1000.11</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.10   Financial institutions on DoD installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Updates policies and responsibilities for financial institutions that serve Department of Defense (DoD) personnel on DoD installations worldwide. Associated procedures are contained in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribes consistent arrangements for the provision of services by financial institutions among the DoD Components, and requires that financial institutions operating on DoD installations provide, and are provided, support consistent with the policies stated herein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter collectively referred to as “the DoD Components”), and all nonappropriated fund instrumentalities including the Military Exchange Services and morale, welfare and recreation (MWR) activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> Terms used in this subpart are set forth in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Policy.</I> (1) The following pertains to financial institutions on DoD installations: 
</P>
<P>(i) Except where they already may exist as of May 1, 2000, no more than one banking institution and one credit union shall be permitted to operate on a DoD installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the request of an installation commander and with the approval of the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee), duly chartered financial institutions may be authorized to provide financial services on DoD installations to enhance the morale and welfare of DoD personnel and facilitate the administration of public and quasi-public monies. Arrangement for the provision of such services shall be in accordance with this subpart and the applicable provisions of subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Financial institutions or branches thereof, shall be established on DoD installations only after approval by the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) and the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(A) Except in limited situations overseas (see paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(C) of this section), only banking institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and credit unions insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or by another insurance organization specifically qualified by the Secretary of the Treasury, shall operate on DoD installations. These financial institutions may either be State or federally chartered; however, U.S. credit unions operated overseas shall be federally insured.
</P>
<P>(B) Military banking facilities (MBFs) shall be established on DoD installations only when a demonstrated and justified need cannot be met through other means. An MBF is a financial institution that is established by the Department of the Treasury under statutory authority that is separate from State or Federal laws that govern commercial banking. Section 265 of title 12, United States Code contains the provisions for the Department of the Treasury to establish MBFs. Normally, MBFs shall be authorized only at overseas locations. This form of financial institution may be considered for use at domestic DoD installations only when the cognizant DoD Component has been unable to obtain, through normal means, financial services from a State or federally chartered financial institution authorized to operate in the State in which the installation is located. In times of mobilization, it may become necessary to designate additional MBFs as an emergency measure. The Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) may recommend the designation of MBFs to the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(C) Retail banking operations shall not be performed by any DoD Component. Solicitations for such services shall be issued, or proposals accepted, only in accordance with the policies identified in this subpart. The DoD Components shall rely on commercially available sources in accordance with DoD Directive 4100.15. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) Installation commanders shall not seek the provision of financial services from any entity other than the on-base banking office or credit union. The Director, DFAS, with the concurrence of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (USD(C)), may approve exceptions to this policy.
</P>
<P>(v) Financial institutions authorized to locate on DoD installations shall be provided logistic support as set forth in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) Military disbursing offices, nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (including MWR activities and the Military Exchange Services) and other DoD Component activities requiring financial services shall use on-base financial institutions to the maximum extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Department encourages the delivery of retail financial services on DoD installations via nationally networked automated teller machines (ATMs).
</P>
<P>(A) ATMs are considered electronic banking services and, as such, shall be provided only by financial institutions that are chartered and insured in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Proposals by the installation commander to install ATMs from other than on-base financial institutions shall comply with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Expansion of financial services (to include in-store banking) requiring the outgrant of additional space or logistical support shall be approved by the installation commander. Any DoD activity or financial institution seeking to expand financial services shall coordinate such requests with the installation bank/credit union liaison officer prior to the commander's consideration.
</P>
<P>(ix) The installation commander shall ensure, to the maximum extent feasible, that all financial institutions operating on that installation are given the opportunity to participate in pilot programs to demonstrate new financial-related technology or establish new business lines (e.g., in-store banking) where a determination has been made by the respective DoD Component that the offering of such services is warranted.
</P>
<P>(x) The installation commander shall approve requests for termination of financial services that are substantiated by sufficient evidence and forwarded to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee). The Secretary of the Military Department (or designee) shall coordinate such requests with the USD(C), through the Director, DFAS, before notification to the appropriate regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(xi) Additional guidance pertaining to financial services is set forth in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The following additional provisions pertain to only to financial institutions on overseas DoD installations:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of services by MBFs and credit unions overseas shall be consistent with the policies stated herein and with the applicable status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial services at overseas DoD installations may be provided by:
</P>
<P>(A) Domestic on-base credit unions operating overseas under a geographic franchise and, where applicable, as authorized by the pertinent status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(B) MBFs operated under and authorized by the pertinent status of forces agreement, other intergovernmental agreement, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(C) Domestic and foreign banks located on overseas DoD installations that are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Chartered to provide financial services in that country, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A party to a formal operating agreement with the installation commander to provide such services, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Identified, where applicable, in the status of forces agreements, other intergovernmental agreements, or host-country law.
</P>
<P>(iii) In countries served by MBFs operated under contract, nonappropriated fund instrumentalities and on-base credit unions that desire, and are authorized, to provide accommodation exchange services shall acquire foreign currency from the MBF at the MBF accommodation rate; and shall sell such foreign currency at a rate of exchange that is no more favorable to the customer than the customer rate available at the MBF.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (1) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) (USD(C)) shall develop policies governing establishment, operation, and termination of financial institutions on DoD installations and take final action on requests for exceptions to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology and Logistics) (USD(AT&amp;L)) shall monitor policies and procedures governing logistical support furnished to financial institutions on DoD installations, including the use of DoD real property and equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) The Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness) (USD(P&amp;R)) shall advise the USD(C) on all aspects of on-base financial institution services that affect the morale and welfare of DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) DoD Component responsibilities pertaining to this subpart are set forth in subpart A of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Guidelines for Application of the Privacy Act to Financial Institution Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.11   Guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following guidelines govern the application of DoD Directive 5400.11 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> to those financial institutions that operate under this part:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> See footnote 1 to § 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Financial institutions and their branches and facilities operating on DoD military installations do not fall within the purview of 5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) These financial institutions do not fit the definition of “agency” to which the Privacy Act applies, that is, any executive department, Military Department, government corporation, government-controlled corporation, or other establishment in the executive branch of the government (including the Executive Office of the President), or an independent regulatory agency (5 U.S.C. 552(e) and 552a(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(ii) These financial institutions are not “government contractors” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552a(o), as they do not operate a system of records on behalf of an agency to accomplish an agency function. According to the Office of Management and Budget Privacy Act Guidelines, the provision relating to government contractors applies only to systems of records actually taking the place of a federal system which, but for the contract, would have been performed by an agency and covered by the Privacy Act. Clearly, the subject institutions do not meet these criteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) Since the Act does not apply to them, these financial institutions are not required to comply with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) in obtaining and making use of personal information in their relationships with personnel authorized to use such institutions. Thus, these institutions are not required to inform individuals from whom information is requested of the authority for its solicitation, the principal purpose for which it is intended to be used, the routine uses that may be made of it, or the effects of not providing the information. There also is no requirement to post information of this nature within on-base banking and credit union offices.
</P>
<P>(2) The financial institutions concerned hold the same position and relationship to their account holders, members, and to the government as they did before enactment of OMB Circular A-130. Within their usual business relationships, they still are responsible for safeguarding the information provided by their account holders or members and for obtaining only such information as is reasonable and necessary to conduct business. This includes credit information and proper identification, which may include social security number, as a precondition for the cashing of checks.
</P>
<P>(3) Financial institutions may incorporate the following conditions of disclosure of personal identification in all contracts, including loan agreements, account signature cards, certificates of deposit agreements, and any other agreements signed by their account holders or members:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I hereby authorize the Department of Defense and its various Components to verify my social security number or other identifier and disclose my home address to authorized (name of financial institution) officials so that they may contact me in connection with my business with (name of financial institution). All information furnished will be used solely in connection with my financial relationship with (name of financial institution).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) When the financial institution presents such signed authorizations, the receiving military command or installation shall provide the appropriate information. 
</P>
<P>(4) Even though an agreement described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section has not been obtained, the Department of Defense may provide these financial institutions with salary information and, when pertinent, the length or type of civilian or military appointment, consistent with DoD Directives 5400.11 and 5400.7. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Some examples of personal information pertaining to DoD personnel that normally can be released without creating an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy are name, rank, date of rank, salary, present and past duty assignments, future assignments that have been finalized, office phone number, source of commission, and promotion sequence number. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See footnote 1 to 231.1(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) When DoD personnel with financial obligations are reassigned and fail to inform the financial institution of their whereabouts, they should be located by contacting the individual's last known commander or supervisor at the official position or duty station within that particular DoD Component. That commander or supervisor either shall furnish the individual's new official duty location address to the financial institution, or shall forward, through official channels, any correspondence received pertaining thereto to the individual's new commander or supervisor for appropriate assistance and response. Correspondence addressed to the individual concerned at his or her last official place of business or duty station shall be forwarded as provided by postal regulations to the new location. Once an individual's affiliation with the Department of Defense is terminated through separation or retirement, however, the Department's ability to render locator assistance (i.e., disclose a home address) is severely curtailed unless the public interest dictates disclosure of the last known home address. The Department may, at its discretion, forward correspondence to the individual's last known home address. The Department may not act as an intermediary for private matters concerning former DoD personnel who are no longer affiliated with the Department. 
</P>
<P>(b) Questions concerning this guidance should be forwarded through channels to the Deputy Chief Financial Officer, Office of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller), The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1100. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.5.1.1.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 231—Sample Operating Agreement 
</HEAD>
<HD1>Sample Operating Agreement Between Military Installations and Financial Institutions 
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following operating agreement template identifies general arrangement and content. Content of the actual operating agreement may vary according to the circumstances of each installation.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>Operating Agreement Between (Name of Installation), (State or Country Installation Located) and (Name of Financial Institution). 
</HD2>
<P>This Agreement is made and entered into this day by and between the installation commander of (name of installation) in his or her official capacity as installation commander, hereinafter referred to as the “commander” and the (name of financial institution), having its principal office at (location of home office) hereinafter referred to as the “financial institution,” together hereinafter referred to as “the parties.” Whereas the commander and the financial institution enter into this Operating Agreement upon the mutual consideration of the promises, covenants, and agreements hereinafter contained. 
</P>
<P>1. The parties understand and agree that this Agreement shall in no way modify, change, or alter the terms and conditions of Lease Number (number of lease) covering the use of real property described therein, and this Agreement shall continue, subject to the termination provisions herein-after set forth, during the terms of said lease and any extensions thereof. In the case of a banking institution operating a military banking facility (MBF) overseas, this agreement will not change the conditions of the contract between the banking institution and the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>2. The financial institution agrees to operate a (federally or state) chartered office on-base in accordance with the policies and procedures set forth in DoD Directive 1000.11, and Volume 5, Chapter 34, of the DoD 7000.14-R (as codified in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 32 CFR parts 230 and 231, respectively); and, in addition for the Overseas Military Banking Program (OMBP), the policies and procedures set forth in the applicable DoD contract. The hours of operations shall be between (hour office opens) and (hour office closes), and on the following days (weekdays office open), except on government holidays when the financial institution may be closed. The Program Office for the OMBP shall notify the commander of any changes to the DoD contract. 
</P>
<P>3. The financial institution shall provide the following services: 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Services for Individuals.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Demand (checking) account services. 
</P>
<P>(2) Cashing personal checks and government checks for accountholders. 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintaining savings accounts and (any other interestbearing accounts). 
</P>
<P>(4) Selling official checks, money orders, and traveler's checks. 
</P>
<P>(5) Selling and redeeming United States savings bonds. 
</P>
<P>(6) Providing direct deposit service. 
</P>
<P>(7) Loan services. 
</P>
<P>(8) Electronic banking (i.e., automated teller machines, internet banking). 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Services for disbursing officers.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Furnishing cash (if the financial institution's terms for doing so is consistent with sound management practices). 
</P>
<P>(2) Accepting deposits for credit to the Treasury General Account (where the financial institution has entered into an agreement with the Department of the Treasury). 
</P>
<P>c. <I>Services for nonappropriated fund instrumentalities and private organizations.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Demand (checking) account services, including wire transfers. 
</P>
<P>(2) Savings accounts and nonnegotiable certificates of deposit or other interestbearing accounts offered by the banking institution. 
</P>
<P>(3) Currency and coin for change. 
</P>
<P>4. Service charges shall be as follows: 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Service for individuals.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) No fees shall be charged to individuals for the services listed in subparagraphs 3.a.(2), and 3.a.(5), above, except for subparagraph 3.a.(2), wherein checks drawn on other financial institutions may be treated in accordance with the financial institution's established policy. Any charge to cash a government check shall not exceed that typically charged by financial institutions in the vicinity of the installation. Fees assessed to accountholders and nonaccountholders for use of automated teller machines shall be the customary service charges of the financial institution or those negotiated for base personnel per the attached schedule. 
</P>
<P>(2) Checking and savings accounts. Fees for individual checking and savings accounts shall be the customary service charges of the financial institution or those negotiated for base personnel per the attached schedule. 
</P>
<P>(3) Sale of official checks, money orders, traveler's checks and other types of financial paper. Charges for these services shall be the customary charges of the financial institution operating the on-base office. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Service for Disbursing Officers.</I> No charge shall be made for the services listed in subparagraph 3.b.(2), above. Compensation to the financial institution shall be per its separate agreement with the Department of the Treasury. Charges, if any, for the services stated in subparagraph 3.b.(1) shall be as locally negotiated with the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>c. <I>Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities and Private Organizations.</I> State the charges or refer to a schedule of charges for funds and organizations that do not participate in a central banking program. For those activities participating in a central banking program, determine the compensation to the financial institution by account analysis. 
</P>
<P>5. It is agreed that the financial institution shall: 
</P>
<P>a. Notify the commander or designated representative of any proposed changes to the attached schedule of fees and services at least 30 days prior to implementation. 
</P>
<P>b. Follow the requirements in Volume 5, Chapter 34, of DoD 7000.14-R, as codified in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), and any changes thereto. 
</P>
<P>c. Comply with Department of the Treasury requirements for establishment and operation of a Treasury General Account where the financial institution agrees to act as a depository for government funds. 
</P>
<P>d. Absolve the (Military Service) and its representatives of responsibility or liability for the financial operation of the financial institution; and for any loss (including losses due to criminal activity), expenses, or claims for damages arising from financial institution operations. 
</P>
<P>e. Indemnify, and hold harmless the United States from (and against) any loss, expense, claim, or demand, including attorney fees, court costs, and costs of litigation, to which the government may be subjected as a result of death, loss, destruction, or damage in connection with the use and occupancy of (Military Service) premises occasioned in whole or in part by officers, agents or employees of the financial institution operating an office of the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>f. Favorably respond, whenever feasible, to reasonable local command requests for lectures and printed materials to support consumer credit education programs, financial management program and newcomer's briefings. 
</P>
<P>g. Prominently post in the lobby of the financial institution the name, duty telephone number of the (Bank or Credit Union) Liaison Officer. 
</P>
<P>h. Accept the government travel card in all on-base ATMs operated by the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>i. Abide by the installation fire protection program, including immediate correction of fire hazards noted by the installation fire inspector during periodic fire prevention inspections. 
</P>
<P>6. The commander shall provide the following space and support: 
</P>
<P>a. Space requirements for financial institution operations shall be administered in accordance with the existing outgrant (i.e., lease, permit or license). (Show Number of Outgrant). 
</P>
<P>b. Utilities (i.e., electricity, natural gas or fuel oil, water and sewage), heating and air conditioning, intrastation telephone service, and custodial and janitorial services to include garbage disposal and outdoor maintenance (such as grass cutting and snow removal) on a reimbursable basis. 
</P>
<P>c. DoD housing and minor dependent education in overseas locations for military banking facility (MBF) and credit union personnel in accordance with §§ 231.6(c)(1)(i)(C), 231.6(c)(1)(D), 231.8(c)(2) and 231.8(c)(3). 
</P>
<P>7. Termination of this Agreement shall be consistent with the termination provision of the real property lease and subpart A. The Secretary of the (Military Department) shall have the right to terminate this Agreement at any time. Any termination of the right of the financial institution to operate on the installation shall render this Agreement terminated without any applicable action by the commander. 
</P>
<P>8. Any provision of this Agreement that is contrary to or violates any laws, rules, or regulations of the United States, its agencies, or the state of (state in which the financial institution is located) that apply on federal installations shall be void and have no force or effect; however, both parties to this Agreement agree to notify the other party promptly of any known or suspected continuing violation of such laws, rules, or regulations. 
</P>
<P>9. So long as this Agreement remains in effect, it shall be reviewed jointly by the commander and the financial institution at least once every 5 years to ensure compatibility with current DoD issuances and to determine if any changes are required to the Agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>In witness whereof,</I> the commander, and the financial institution, by their duly authorized office, have hereunto set their hands this day of (month, day, year).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Financial Institution Official 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Installation Commander 


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.5.1.1.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 231—In-Store Banking 
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Selection Process.</I> The purpose of this guidance is to assure an impartial and thorough process to select the best on-base financial institution to provide in-store banking services when such services are desired and approved by the installation commander. 
</P>
<P>1. Consistent with DoD Component delegation, the final decision to solicit for an in-store banking office rests with the installation commander. 
</P>
<P>2. The DoD Component seeking in-store banking (e.g., in buildings operated by the Defense Commissary Agency, Military Exchange Services and MWR activities) shall draft the solicitation letter. 
</P>
<P>3. Close coordination among all cognizant DoD organizations is essential throughout the selection process. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Specific Procedures</I> 
</P>
<P>1. The need for in-store banking service may be identified from either: 
</P>
<P>a. An unsolicited proposal from an on-base financial institution, 
</P>
<P>b. A DoD Component's request, or 
</P>
<P>c. An installation commander's request. 
</P>
<P>2. The cognizant installation commander (or designee) is responsible for assessing the environment and authorizing the Bank/Credit Union Liaison Officer(s) to pursue the acquisition of in-store banking services. If no authorization is given, no further action is required. 
</P>
<P>3. The cognizant installation commander shall determine whether a solicitation is required. (A solicitation shall be required whenever there are two or more financial institutions on a DoD installation.) If no solicitation is required, then the Bank/Credit Union Liaison Officer shall work directly with the on-base financial institution to obtain the requested services. Where there is neither a banking office nor an on-base credit union, use the solicitation process outlined in § 231.5(c) of this chapter, as supplemented by the provisions outlined in paragraph A, above. 
</P>
<P>4. The solicitation letter shall identify the financial services being requested and classify these services as either mandatory or optional. In addition, the solicitation letter shall highlight any services that will be weighed as more important than others during the evaluation of the proposals. Any space consideration and terms of the proposed agreement also shall be identified in the letter. 
</P>
<P>5. The installation commander (or designee) formally shall notify the selected financial institution and request that institution to coordinate with the proper activity to begin any construction, modifications or renovations necessary to open the in-store banking office. The cognizant facility management personnel shall begin the process of obtaining the necessary outgrant instruments. Concurrently, the requesting DoD Component representative and the financial institution representative shall draft the appropriate amendment to the operating agreement. The amendment should contain provisions regarding: 
</P>
<P>a. The roles and responsibilities of all parties involved. 
</P>
<P>b. The financial services to be provided, and 
</P>
<P>c. The logistical support arrangements to include custodial services and security provisions. The amendment should be coordinated with the Bank/Credit Union Liaison Officer(s) prior to forwarding that document to the installation commander for signature. The amendment shall be signed by the installation commander (or designee) and the appropriate financial institution official with a copy furnished to the Secretary of the Military Department concerned (or designee) and the Director, DFAS (or designee).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.31.5.1.1.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 231—Sample Certificate of Compliance for Credit Unions Certificate of Compliance 
</HEAD>
<P>I, (name), Chairman of the Board of Directors or President of the (credit union), located at (place), certify that this credit union complies with the requirements of section 170 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C 1770), for the allotment of space in federal buildings without charge for rent or services. The provision of no-cost office space is limited to credit unions if at least 95 percent of the membership to be served by the allotment of space is composed of individuals who are, or who were at the time of admission into the credit union, military personnel or federal employees, or members of their families. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name) 
</FP>
<FP>(Chairman of the Board of Directors or the President)
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Certificate of Compliance shall be written on credit union letterhead.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="232" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 232—LIMITATIONS ON TERMS OF CONSUMER CREDIT EXTENDED TO SERVICE MEMBERS AND DEPENDENTS 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 987.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 43606, July 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 232.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.1   Authority, purpose, and coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Department of Defense to implement 10 U.S.C. 987.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to impose limitations on the cost and terms of certain extensions of credit to Service members and their dependents, and to provide additional protections relating to such transactions in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 987.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> This part defines the types of transactions involving “consumer credit,” a “creditor,” and a “covered borrower” that are subject to the regulation, consistent with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 987. In addition, this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides the maximum allowable amount of all charges, and the types of charges, that may be associated with a covered extension of consumer credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Requires a creditor to provide to a covered borrower a statement of the Military Annual Percentage Rate, or MAPR, before or at the time the borrower becomes obligated on the transaction or establishes an account for the consumer credit. The statement required by § 232.6(a)(1) differs from and is in addition to the disclosures that must be provided to consumers under the Truth in Lending Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides for the method a creditor must use in calculating the MAPR; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contains such other criteria and limitations as the Secretary of Defense has determined appropriate, consistent with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 987.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.2   Applicability; examples.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to consumer credit extended by a creditor to a covered borrower, as those terms are defined in this part. Nothing in this part applies to a credit transaction or account relating to a consumer who is not a covered borrower at the time he or she becomes obligated on a credit transaction or establishes an account for credit. Nothing in this part applies to a credit transaction or account relating to a consumer (which otherwise would be consumer credit) when the consumer no longer is a covered borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Covered borrower.</I> Consumer A is a member of the armed forces but not serving on active duty, and holds an account for closed-end credit with a financial institution. After establishing the closed-end credit account, Consumer A is ordered to serve on active duty, thereby becoming a covered borrower, and soon thereafter separately establishes an open-end line of credit for personal purposes (which is not subject to any exception or temporary exemption) with the financial institution. This part applies to the open-end line of credit, but not to the closed-end credit account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Not a covered borrower.</I> Same facts as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. One year after establishing the open-end line of credit, Consumer A ceases to serve on active duty. This part never did apply to the closed-end credit account, and because Consumer A no longer is a covered borrower, this part no longer applies to the open-end line of credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The examples in this part are not exclusive. To the extent that an example in this part implicates a term or provision of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to implement the Truth in Lending Act, Regulation Z shall control the meaning of that term or provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any person that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Billing cycle</I> has the same meaning as “billing cycle” in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bureau</I> means the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closed-end credit</I> means consumer credit (but for the conditions applicable to consumer credit under this part) other than consumer credit that is “open-end credit” as that term is defined in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means a natural person.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a covered borrower primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to a finance charge; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Payable by a written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1) of this section, consumer credit does not mean:
</P>
<P>(i) A residential mortgage, which is any credit transaction secured by an interest in a dwelling, including a transaction to finance the purchase or initial construction of the dwelling, any refinance transaction, home equity loan or line of credit, or reverse mortgage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any credit transaction that is expressly intended to finance the purchase of a motor vehicle when the credit is secured by the vehicle being purchased;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any credit transaction that is expressly intended to finance the purchase of personal property when the credit is secured by the property being purchased;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any credit transaction that is an exempt transaction for the purposes of Regulation Z (other than a transaction exempt under 12 CFR 1026.29) or otherwise is not subject to disclosure requirements under Regulation Z; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any credit transaction or account for credit for which a creditor determines that a consumer is not a covered borrower by using a method and by complying with the recordkeeping requirement set forth in § 232.5(b).
</P>
<P>(g)(1) <I>Covered borrower</I> means a consumer who, at the time the consumer becomes obligated on a consumer credit transaction or establishes an account for consumer credit, is a covered member (as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this section) or a dependent (as defined in paragraph (g)(3) of this section) of a covered member.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “covered member” means a member of the armed forces who is serving on—
</P>
<P>(i) Active duty pursuant to title 10, title 14, or title 32, United States Code, under a call or order that does not specify a period of 30 days or fewer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Active Guard and Reserve duty, as that term is defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(d)(6).
</P>
<P>(3) The term “dependent” with respect to a covered member means a person described in subparagraph (A), (D), (E), or (I) of 10 U.S.C. 1072(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, covered borrower does not mean a consumer who (though a covered borrower at the time he or she became obligated on a consumer credit transaction or established an account for consumer credit) no longer is a covered member (as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this section) or a dependent (as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this section) of a covered member.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit</I> means the right granted to a consumer by a creditor to defer payment of debt or to incur debt and defer its payment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor,</I> except as provided in § 232.8(a), (f), and (g), means a person who is:
</P>
<P>(1) Engaged in the business of extending consumer credit; or
</P>
<P>(2) An assignee of a person described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section with respect to any consumer credit extended.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this definition, a creditor is engaged in the business of extending consumer credit if the creditor considered by itself and together with its affiliates meets the transaction standard for a “creditor” under Regulation Z with respect to extensions of consumer credit to covered borrowers.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not the structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I> has the same meaning as in the regulation issued by the Bureau to implement the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, as amended from time to time (12 CFR part 1005).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal credit union</I> has the same meaning as “Federal credit union” in the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1)).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Finance charge</I> has the same meaning as “finance charge” in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as “insured depository institution” in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Military annual percentage rate (MAPR).</I> The MAPR is the cost of the consumer credit expressed as an annual rate, and shall be calculated in accordance with § 232.4(c).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Open-end credit</I> means consumer credit that (but for the conditions applicable to consumer credit under this part) is “open-end credit” under Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or organization, including any corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Regulation Z</I> means any rules, or interpretations thereof, issued by the Bureau to implement the Truth in Lending Act, as amended from time to time, including any interpretation or approval issued by an official or employee duly authorized by the Bureau to issue such interpretations or approvals. However, for any provision of this part requiring a creditor to comply with Regulation Z, a creditor who is subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System must continue to comply with 12 CFR part 226. Words that are not defined in this part have the same meanings given to them in Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) issued by the Bureau, as amended from time to time, including any interpretation thereof by the Bureau or an official or employee of the Bureau duly authorized by the Bureau to issue such interpretations. Words that are not defined in this part or Regulation Z, or any interpretation thereof, have the meanings given to them by State or Federal law.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Short-term, small amount loan</I> means a closed-end loan that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to and made in accordance with a Federal law (other than 10 U.S.C. 987) that expressly limits the rate of interest that a Federal credit union or an insured depository institution may charge on an extension of credit, provided that the limitation set forth in that law is comparable to a limitation of an annual percentage rate of interest of 36 percent; and
</P>
<P>(2) Made in accordance with the requirements, terms, and conditions of a rule, prescribed by the appropriate Federal regulatory agency (or jointly by such agencies), that implements the Federal law described in paragraph (t)(1) of this section, provided further that such law or rule contains—
</P>
<P>(i) A fixed numerical limit on the maximum maturity term, which term shall not exceed 9 months; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A fixed numerical limit on any application fee that may be charged to a consumer who applies for such closed-end loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.4   Terms of consumer credit extended to covered borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General conditions.</I> A creditor who extends consumer credit to a covered borrower may not require the covered borrower to pay an MAPR for the credit with respect to such extension of credit, except as:
</P>
<P>(1) Agreed to under the terms of the credit agreement or promissory note;
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized by applicable State or Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not specifically prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limit on cost of consumer credit.</I> A creditor may not impose an MAPR greater than 36 percent in connection with an extension of consumer credit that is closed-end credit or in any billing cycle for open-end credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the MAPR.</I>—(1) <I>Charges included in the MAPR.</I> The charges for the MAPR shall include, as applicable to the extension of consumer credit:
</P>
<P>(i) Any credit insurance premium or fee, any charge for single premium credit insurance, any fee for a debt cancellation contract, or any fee for a debt suspension agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fee for a credit-related ancillary product sold in connection with the credit transaction for closed-end credit or an account for open-end credit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for a bona fide fee (other than a periodic rate) which may be excluded under paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Finance charges associated with the consumer credit;
</P>
<P>(B) Any application fee charged to a covered borrower who applies for consumer credit, other than an application fee charged by a Federal credit union or an insured depository institution when making a short-term, small amount loan, provided that the application fee is charged to the covered borrower not more than once in any rolling 12-month period; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any fee imposed for participation in any plan or arrangement for consumer credit, subject to paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Certain exclusions of Regulation Z inapplicable.</I> Any charge set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section shall be included in the calculation of the MAPR even if that charge would be excluded from the finance charge under Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computing the MAPR</I>—(i) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> For closed-end credit, the MAPR shall be calculated following the rules for calculating and disclosing the “Annual Percentage Rate (APR)” for credit transactions under Regulation Z based on the charges set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Open-end credit</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, for open-end credit, the MAPR shall be calculated following the rules for calculating the effective annual percentage rate for a billing cycle as set forth in § 1026.14(c) and (d) of Regulation Z (as if a creditor must comply with that section) based on the charges set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Notwithstanding § 1026.14(c) and (d) of Regulation Z, the amount of charges related to opening, renewing, or continuing an account must be included in the calculation of the MAPR to the extent those charges are set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>No balance during a billing cycle.</I> For open-end credit, if the MAPR cannot be calculated in a billing cycle because there is no balance in the billing cycle, a creditor may not impose any fee or charge during that billing cycle, except that the creditor may impose a fee for participation in any plan or arrangement for that open-end credit so long as the participation fee does not exceed $100 per annum, regardless of the billing cycle in which the participation fee is imposed; <I>provided, however,</I> that the $100-per annum limitation on the amount of the participation fee does not apply to a bona fide participation fee imposed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bona fide fee charged to a credit card account</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For consumer credit extended in a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a bona fide fee, other than a periodic rate, is not a charge required to be included in the MAPR pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The exclusion provided for any bona fide fee under this paragraph (d) applies only to the extent that the charge by the creditor is a bona fide fee, and must be reasonable for that type of fee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ineligible items.</I> The exclusion for bona fide fees in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not apply to—
</P>
<P>(i) Any credit insurance premium or fee, including any charge for single premium credit insurance, any fee for a debt cancellation contract, or any fee for a debt suspension agreement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fee for a credit-related ancillary product sold in connection with the credit transaction for closed-end credit or an account for open-end credit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standards relating to bona fide fees</I> —(i) <I>Like-kind fees.</I> To assess whether a bona fide fee is reasonable under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the fee must be compared to fees typically imposed by other creditors for the same or a substantially similar product or service. For example, when assessing a bona fide cash advance fee, that fee must be compared to fees charged by other creditors for transactions in which consumers receive extensions of credit in the form of cash or its equivalent. Conversely, when assessing a foreign transaction fee, that fee may not be compared to a cash advance fee because the foreign transaction fee involves the service of exchanging the consumer's currency (<I>e.g.,</I> a reserve currency) for the local currency demanded by a merchant for a good or service, and does not involve the provision of cash to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A bona fide fee is reasonable under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the amount of the fee is less than or equal to an average amount of a fee for the same or a substantially similar product or service charged by 5 or more creditors each of whose U.S. credit cards in force is at least $3 billion in an outstanding balance (or at least $3 billion in loans on U.S. credit card accounts initially extended by the creditor) at any time during the 3-year period preceding the time such average is computed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable fee.</I> A bona fide fee that is higher than an average amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, also may be reasonable under paragraph (d)(1) of this section depending on other factors relating to the credit card account. A bona fide fee charged by a creditor is not unreasonable solely because other creditors do not charge a fee for the same or a substantially similar product or service.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Indicia of reasonableness for a participation fee.</I> An amount of a bona fide fee for participation in a credit card account may be reasonable under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if that amount reasonably corresponds to the credit limit in effect or credit made available when the fee is imposed, to the services offered under the credit card account, or to other factors relating to the credit card account. For example, even if other creditors typically charge $100 per annum for participation in credit card accounts, a $400 fee nevertheless may be reasonable if (relative to other accounts carrying participation fees) the credit made available to the covered borrower is significantly higher or additional services or other benefits are offered under that account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of charging fees on bona fide fees</I>—(i) <I>Bona fide fees treated separately from charges for credit insurance products or credit-related ancillary products.</I> If a creditor imposes a fee described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and imposes a finance charge to a covered borrower, the total amount of the fee(s) and finance charge(s) shall be included in the MAPR pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and the imposition of any fee or finance charge described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall not affect whether another type of fee may be excluded as a bona fide fee under this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effect of charges for non-bona fide fees.</I> If a creditor imposes any fee (other than a periodic rate or a fee that must be included in the MAPR pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section) that is not a bona fide fee and imposes a finance charge to a covered borrower, the total amount of those fees, including any bona fide fees, and other finance charges shall be included in the MAPR pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> (A) In a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan during a given billing cycle, Creditor A imposes on a covered borrower a fee for a debt cancellation product (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section), a finance charge (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A)), and a bona fide foreign transaction fee that qualifies for the exclusion under this paragraph (d). Only the fee for the debt cancellation product and the finance charge must be included when calculating the MAPR.
</P>
<P>(B) In a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan during a given billing cycle, Creditor B imposes on a covered borrower a fee for a debt cancellation product (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section), a finance charge (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A)), a bona fide foreign transaction fee that qualifies for the exclusion under this paragraph (d), and a bona fide, but unreasonable cash advance fee. All of the fees—including the foreign transaction fee that otherwise would qualify for the exclusion under this paragraph (d)—and the finance charge must be included when calculating the MAPR.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (d)(1) of this section authorizes the imposition of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by this part or by other applicable State or Federal law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.5   Optional identification of covered borrower.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No restriction on method for covered-borrower check.</I> A creditor is permitted to apply its own method to assess whether a consumer is a covered borrower.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe harbor</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may conclusively determine whether credit is offered or extended to a covered borrower, and thus may be subject to 10 U.S.C. 987 and the requirements of this part, by assessing the status of a consumer in accordance with this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methods to check status of consumer</I>—(i) <I>Department database</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> To determine whether a consumer is a covered borrower, a creditor may verify the status of a consumer by using information relating to that consumer, if any, obtained directly or indirectly from the database maintained by the Department, available at <I>https://www.dmdc.osd.mil/mla/welcome.xhtml</I>. A search of the Department's database requires the entry of the consumer's last name, date of birth, and Social Security number.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Historic lookback prohibited.</I> At any time after a consumer has entered into a transaction or established an account involving an extension of credit, a creditor (including an assignee) may not, directly or indirectly, obtain any information from any database maintained by the Department to ascertain whether a consumer had been a covered borrower as of the date of that transaction or as of the date that account was established.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consumer report from a nationwide consumer reporting agency.</I> To determine whether a consumer is a covered borrower, a creditor may verify the status of a consumer by using a statement, code, or similar indicator describing that status, if any, contained in a consumer report obtained from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, or a reseller of such a consumer report (as each of those terms is defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a) and any implementing regulation (12 CFR part 1022)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination and recordkeeping; one-time determination permitted.</I> A creditor who makes a determination regarding the status of a consumer by using one or both of the methods set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be deemed to be conclusive with respect to that transaction or account involving consumer credit between the creditor and that consumer, so long as that creditor timely creates and thereafter maintains a record of the information so obtained. A creditor may make the determination described in this paragraph (b), and keep the record of that information obtained at that time, solely at the time—
</P>
<P>(i) A consumer initiates the transaction or 30 days prior to that time;
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer applies to establish the account or 30 days prior to that time; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The creditor develops or processes, with respect to a consumer, a firm offer of credit that (among the criteria used by the creditor for the offer) includes the status of the consumer as a covered borrower, so long as the consumer responds to that offer not later than 60 days after the time that the creditor had provided that offer to the consumer. If the consumer responds to the creditor's offer later than 60 days after the time that the creditor had provided that offer to the consumer, then the creditor may not rely upon its initial determination in developing or processing that offer, and, instead, may act on the consumer's response as if the consumer is initiating the transaction or applying to establish the account (as described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.6   Mandatory loan disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> With respect to any extension of consumer credit (including any consumer credit originated or extended through the internet) to a covered borrower, a creditor shall provide to the covered borrower the following information before or at the time the borrower becomes obligated on the transaction or establishes an account for the consumer credit:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the MAPR applicable to the extension of consumer credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Any disclosure required by Regulation Z, which shall be provided only in accordance with the requirements of Regulation Z that apply to that disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(3) A clear description of the payment obligation of the covered borrower, as applicable. A payment schedule (in the case of closed-end credit) or account-opening disclosure (in the case of open-end credit) provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section satisfies this requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>One-time delivery; multiple creditors.</I> (1) The information described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of this section are not required to be provided to a covered borrower more than once for the transaction or the account established for consumer credit with respect to that borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple creditors.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, then only one of those creditors must provide the disclosures in accordance with this section. The creditors may agree among themselves which creditor may provide the information described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement of the MAPR</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a)(1) of this section by describing the charges the creditor may impose, in accordance with this part and subject to the terms and conditions of the agreement, relating to the consumer credit to calculate the MAPR. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not be construed as requiring a creditor to describe the MAPR as a numerical value or to describe the total dollar amount of all charges in the MAPR that apply to the extension of consumer credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of providing a statement regarding the MAPR.</I> A creditor may include a statement of the MAPR applicable to the consumer credit in the agreement with the covered borrower involving the consumer credit transaction. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not be construed as requiring a creditor to include a statement of the MAPR applicable to an extension of consumer credit in any advertisement relating to the credit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Model statement.</I> A statement substantially similar to the following statement may be used for the purpose of paragraph (a)(1) of this section: “Federal law provides important protections to members of the Armed Forces and their dependents relating to extensions of consumer credit. In general, the cost of consumer credit to a member of the Armed Forces and his or her dependent may not exceed an annual percentage rate of 36 percent. This rate must include, as applicable to the credit transaction or account: The costs associated with credit insurance premiums; fees for ancillary products sold in connection with the credit transaction; any application fee charged (other than certain application fees for specified credit transactions or accounts); and any participation fee charged (other than certain participation fees for a credit card account).”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of delivery</I>—(1) <I>Written disclosures.</I> The creditor shall provide the information required by paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section in writing in a form the covered borrower can keep.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral disclosures.</I> (i) <I>In general.</I> The creditor also shall orally provide the information required by paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Methods to provide oral disclosures.</I> A creditor may satisfy the requirement in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section if the creditor provides—
</P>
<P>(A) The information to the covered borrower in person; or
</P>
<P>(B) A toll-free telephone number in order to deliver the oral disclosures to a covered borrower when the covered borrower contacts the creditor for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Toll-free telephone number on application or disclosure.</I> If applicable, the toll-free telephone number must be included on—
</P>
<P>(A) A form the creditor directs the consumer to use to apply for the transaction or account involving consumer credit; or
</P>
<P>(B) A written disclosure the creditor provides to the covered borrower, pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When disclosures are required for refinancing or renewal of covered loan.</I> The refinancing or renewal of consumer credit requires new disclosures under this section only when the transaction for that credit would be considered a new transaction that requires disclosures under Regulation Z.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.7   Preemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent laws.</I> 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part preempts any State or Federal law, rule or regulation, including any State usury law, to the extent such law, rule or regulation is inconsistent with this part, except that any such law, rule or regulation is not preempted by this part to the extent that it provides protection to a covered borrower greater than those protections provided by 10 U.S.C. 987 and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Different treatment under State law of covered borrowers is prohibited.</I> A State may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorize creditors to charge covered borrowers rates of interest for any consumer credit or loans that are higher than the legal limit for residents of the State, or
</P>
<P>(2) Permit the violation or waiver of any State consumer lending protection covering consumer credit that is for the benefit of residents of the State on the basis of the covered borrower's nonresident or military status, regardless of the covered borrower's domicile or permanent home of record, provided that the protection would otherwise apply to the covered borrower.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.8   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>Title 10 U.S.C. 987 makes it unlawful for any creditor to extend consumer credit to a covered borrower with respect to which:
</P>
<P>(a) The creditor rolls over, renews, repays, refinances, or consolidates any consumer credit extended to the covered borrower by the same creditor with the proceeds of other consumer credit extended by that creditor to the same covered borrower. This paragraph shall not apply to a transaction when the same creditor extends consumer credit to a covered borrower to refinance or renew an extension of credit that was not covered by this paragraph because the consumer was not a covered borrower at the time of the original transaction. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term “creditor” means a person engaged in the business of extending consumer credit subject to applicable law to engage in deferred presentment transactions or similar payday loan transactions (as described in the relevant law), <I>provided however,</I> that the term does not include a person that is chartered or licensed under Federal or State law as a bank, savings association, or credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) The covered borrower is required to waive the covered borrower's right to legal recourse under any otherwise applicable provision of State or Federal law, including any provision of the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. App. 501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) The creditor requires the covered borrower to submit to arbitration or imposes other onerous legal notice provisions in the case of a dispute.
</P>
<P>(d) The creditor demands unreasonable notice from the covered borrower as a condition for legal action.
</P>
<P>(e) The creditor uses a check or other method of access to a deposit, savings, or other financial account maintained by the covered borrower, except that, in connection with a consumer credit transaction with an MAPR consistent with § 232.4(b), the creditor may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require an electronic fund transfer to repay a consumer credit transaction, unless otherwise prohibited by law;
</P>
<P>(2) Require direct deposit of the consumer's salary as a condition of eligibility for consumer credit, unless otherwise prohibited by law; or
</P>
<P>(3) If not otherwise prohibited by applicable law, take a security interest in funds deposited after the extension of credit in an account established in connection with the consumer credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(f) The creditor uses the title of a vehicle as security for the obligation involving the consumer credit, <I>provided however,</I> that for the purposes of this paragraph, the term “creditor” does not include a person that is chartered or licensed under Federal or State law as a bank, savings association, or credit union.
</P>
<P>(g) The creditor requires as a condition for the extension of consumer credit that the covered borrower establish an allotment to repay the obligation. For the purposes of this paragraph only, the term “creditor” shall not include a “military welfare society,” as defined in 10 U.S.C. 1033(b)(2), or a “service relief society,” as defined in 37 U.S.C. 1007(h)(4).
</P>
<P>(h) The covered borrower is prohibited from prepaying the consumer credit or is charged a penalty fee for prepaying all or part of the consumer credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.9   Penalties and remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Misdemeanor.</I> A creditor who knowingly violates 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part shall be fined as provided in title 18, United States Code, or imprisoned for not more than one year, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preservation of other remedies.</I> The remedies and rights provided under 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part are in addition to and do not preclude any remedy otherwise available under State or Federal law or regulation to the person claiming relief under the statute, including any award for consequential damages and punitive damages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contract void.</I> Any credit agreement, promissory note, or other contract with a covered borrower that fails to comply with 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part or which contains one or more provisions prohibited under 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part is void from the inception of the contract.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Arbitration.</I> Notwithstanding 9 U.S.C. 2, or any other Federal or State law, rule, or regulation, no agreement to arbitrate any dispute involving the extension of consumer credit to a covered borrower pursuant to this part shall be enforceable against any covered borrower, or any person who was a covered borrower when the agreement was made.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civil liability</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person who violates 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part with respect to any person is civilly liable to such person for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any actual damage sustained as a result, but not less than $500 for each violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate punitive damages;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate equitable or declaratory relief; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other relief provided by law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs of the action.</I> In any successful action to enforce the civil liability described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the person who violated 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part is also liable for the costs of the action, together with reasonable attorney fees as determined by the court.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of finding of bad faith and harassment.</I> In any successful action by a defendant under this section, if the court finds the action was brought in bad faith and for the purpose of harassment, the plaintiff is liable for the attorney fees of the defendant as determined by the court to be reasonable in relation to the work expended and costs incurred.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Defenses.</I> A person may not be held liable for civil liability under paragraph (e) of this section if the person shows by a preponderance of evidence that the violation was not intentional and resulted from a bona fide error notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid any such error. Examples of a bona fide error include clerical, calculation, computer malfunction and programming, and printing errors, except that an error of legal judgment with respect to a person's obligations under 10 U.S.C. 987 as implemented by this part is not a bona fide error.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Jurisdiction, venue, and statute of limitations.</I> An action for civil liability under paragraph (e) of this section may be brought in any appropriate United States district court, without regard to the amount in controversy, or in any other court of competent jurisdiction, not later than the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) Two years after the date of discovery by the plaintiff of the violation that is the basis for such liability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Five years after the date on which the violation that is the basis for such liability occurs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.10   Administrative enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part, other than § 232.9(a), shall be enforced by the agencies specified in section 108 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1607) in the manner set forth in that section or under any other applicable authorities available to such agencies by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.11   Servicemembers Civil Relief Act protections unaffected.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part may be construed to limit or otherwise affect the applicability of section 207 and any other provisions of the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. App. 527).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.12   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This regulation shall take effect October 1, 2015, except that, other than as provided in this section and in § 232.13(b)(1), nothing in this part shall apply to consumer credit that is extended to a covered borrower and consummated before October 3, 2016.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior extensions of consumer credit.</I> Consumer credit that is extended to a covered borrower and consummated any time between October 1, 2007, and October 3, 2016, is subject to the definitions, conditions, and requirements of this part as were established by the Department and effective on October 1, 2007.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>New extensions of consumer credit.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section with respect to extensions of consumer credit under paragraph (b) of this section (and except as permitted by § 232.13(b)(1)), the requirements of this part that are effective as of October 1, 2015, shall apply only to a consumer credit transaction or account for consumer credit consummated or established on or after October 3, 2016.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provisions of 10 U.S.C. 987(d)(2).</I> The amendments to 10 U.S.C. 987(d)(2) enacted in section 661(a) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013 (Pub. L. 112-239, 126 Stat. 1785), as reflected in § 232.7(b), took effect on January 2, 2014.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civil liability remedies.</I> The provisions set forth in § 232.9(e) shall apply with respect to consumer credit extended on or after January 2, 2013.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.32.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.13   Compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a creditor must comply with the requirements of this part, as may be applicable, with respect to a consumer credit transaction or account for consumer credit consummated or established on or after October 3, 2016, not later than that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe harbors for identifying a covered borrower</I>—(1) <I>New safe harbors.</I> Section 232.5 shall apply October 3, 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior safe harbor valid until general compliance date.</I> The provisions relating to the identification of a covered borrower set forth in § 232.5(a) of the regulation established by the Department and effective on October 1, 2007 (including the interpretation by the Department that provides an exception from the safe harbor for the creditor's knowledge that the applicant is a covered borrower) shall remain in effect until October 3, 2016.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited exemption for credit card account; reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding § 232.3(f)(1) and subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, until October 3, 2017, consumer credit does not mean credit extended in a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authority to issue an order to extend exemption.</I> The Secretary, or an official of the Department duly authorized by the Secretary, may, by order, extend the expiration of the exemption set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, until a date not later than October 3, 2018.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="233" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 233—FEDERAL VOTING ASSISTANCE PROGRAM (FVAP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12642; 10 U.S.C. 1566a; 52 U.S.C. 20506; 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 233.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for the FVAP in accordance with Executive Order 12642 and the Uniformed and Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act (UOCAVA), 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for the development and implementation of installation voter assistance (IVA) offices in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1566a.
</P>
<P>(c) Establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for the development and implementation, jointly with each State, of procedures for persons to apply to register to vote at recruitment offices of the Military Services in accordance with 52 U.S.C. 20506.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense (IG DoD), the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS), under agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreement with the Department of Commerce, and the United States Maritime Administration (MARAD) under agreement with the Department of Transportation. The term “uniformed services” refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and their Reserve Components, as well as the Commissioned Corps of the PHS and the NOAA.
</P>
<P>(c) Other Federal Executive departments and agencies with employees assigned outside the United States that provide assistance to the FVAP under 52 U.S.C. 20301(c). Recommended procedures for these departments and agencies are contained in § 233.6(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) United States Postal Service pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20304(b)(2) and (4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019; 85 FR 13047, Mar. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Terms used in this part are defined in DoD Dictionary of Military Terms (available at <I>http://www.jcs.mil/Doctrine</I>) and this section. These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible voter.</I> Any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Absent uniformed services voter:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) A member of a uniformed service on active duty who, by reason of such active duty, is absent from the place of residence where the member is otherwise qualified to vote.
</P>
<P>(ii) A member of the merchant marine who, by reason of service in the merchant marine, is absent from the place of residence where the member is otherwise qualified to vote.
</P>
<P>(iii) A spouse or dependent of a member referred to in the first two sentences of this definition who, by reason of the active duty or service of the member, is absent from the place of residence where the spouse or dependent is otherwise qualified to vote.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overseas voter:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) An absent uniformed services voter who, by reason of active duty or service, is absent from the United States on the date of the election involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who resides outside of the United States and is qualified to vote in the last place in which the person was domiciled before leaving the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A person who resides outside of the United States and (but for such residence) would be qualified to vote in the last place in which the person was domiciled before leaving the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Federal office.</I> The offices of President or Vice President; Presidential Elector; or of Senator or Representative in; or Delegate or Resident Commissioner to Congress.
</P>
<P><I>Installation voter assistance (IVA) offices.</I> The office designated by the installation commander, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1556a, to provide voter assistance to military personnel, voting-age military dependents, Government employees, contractors, and other civilian U.S. citizens with access to the installation. IVA offices also serve as voter registration agencies pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20506(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Installation voter assistance officer (IVAO).</I> An individual responsible for voting assistance coordination at the installation level.
</P>
<P><I>Recruitment offices of the Military Services.</I> Any office of a military service open to the public and engaged in the recruitment of persons for appointment or enlistment in an Active Component of the Military Services. This does not include Army National Guard and Air National Guard recruiting offices.
</P>
<P><I>State.</I> A State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.
</P>
<P><I>State election.</I> Any non-Federal election held solely, or in part, for selecting, nominating, or electing any candidate for any State office, such as Governor, Lieutenant Governor, State Attorney General, or State Legislator, or on issues of Statewide interest.
</P>
<P><I>Uniformed services.</I> The Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Space Force, and Coast Guard, the commissioned corps of the Public Health Service, and the commissioned corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Voter registration agency.</I> An office designated pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20506 to perform voter registration activities. Pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20506(c), a recruitment office of the Military Services is considered to be a voter registration agency. All IVA offices are also designated as voter registration agencies pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20506(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Voting assistance officer (VAO).</I> An individual responsible for voting assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019; 86 FR 70748, Dec. 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The FVAP shall ensure that eligible voters receive, pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20301(b)(5), information about registration and voting procedures and materials pertaining to scheduled elections, including dates, offices, constitutional amendments, and other ballot proposals.
</P>
<P>(b) The right of U.S. citizens to vote is a fundamental right that is afforded protection by the U.S. Constitution. Every eligible voter shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be given an opportunity to register and vote in any election for which he or she is eligible.
</P>
<P>(2) Be able to vote in person or by absentee.
</P>
<P>(c) All persons assisting in the voting process shall take all necessary steps to prevent discrimination, fraud, intimidation or coercion, and unfair registration and voting assistance procedures. This includes, but is not limited to, preventing actions such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Using military authority to influence the vote of any other member of the uniformed services or to require any member to march to any polling place or place of voting as proscribed by 18 U.S.C. 592, 18 U.S.C. 593, and 18 U.S.C. 609. This subsection does not, in any way, prohibit free discussion about political issues or candidates for public office as stated in 18 U.S.C. 609.
</P>
<P>(2) Polling any member of the uniformed services before or after he or she votes, as proscribed in 18 U.S.C. 596.
</P>
<P>(d) The FVAP shall conduct official surveys authorized by 52 U.S.C. 20301 to report to the President and the Congress on the effectiveness of the assistance provided to eligible voters (including a separate statistical analysis of voter participation and a description of Federal-State cooperation).
</P>
<P>(e) DoD personnel involved in assisting in the voter registration or absentee voting process shall use the names of persons applying or declining to register to vote only for voter registration purposes and shall not release such information for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(f) Military or civilian personnel employed in recruitment offices of the Military Services shall be subject to the restrictions outlined in § 233.6(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) An installation commander may permit non-partisan voter registration activities on an installation by State and county officials, or groups recognized in accordance with section 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code, subject to all applicable military installation rules and regulations governing such activities on military installations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Execute the responsibilities of the Presidential designee in accordance with DoD Directive 5124.02 (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/512402p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Administer the FVAP in accordance with Executive Order 12642, 10 U.S.C. 1566a, 52 U.S.C. 20506; 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate and implement actions that may be necessary to discharge Federal responsibilities assigned in DoD Directive 5124.02, Executive Order 12642, 10 U.S.C. 1566, 52 U.S.C. 20506; 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.
</P>
<P>(4) Develop policy and procedures to implement DoD responsibilities under 52 U.S.C. 20506 (also known as the “National Voter Registration Act (NVRA)”).
</P>
<P>(5) Grant or deny any hardship exemption waivers submitted by a State pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20302(g) (after consultation with the Attorney General's designee) and inform the State of the results of the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(b) The Heads of the DoD Components and the Uniformed Services shall disseminate voting information and assist eligible voters, as required, in their respective organization, following the procedures in § 233.6(b) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.33.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FVAP Procedures.</I> FVAP, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Manage, coordinate, and perform the Presidential designee's responsibilities pursuant to 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.
</P>
<P>(2) Encourage and assist States and other U.S. jurisdictions to adopt the mandatory and recommended provisions of 52 U.S.C. 20302 and ensure they are aware of the requirements of 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and maintain contact with State election officials, State legislators, and with other State and local government officials to improve the absentee voting process for the Uniformed and Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act (UOCAVA) citizens. 
</P>
<P>(4) Obtain, from each State, current voter registration and absentee voting information and disseminate it to other Federal Executive departments, agencies, DoD Components, and voters qualified to vote, pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20301(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and maintain a voting assistance program to assist all eligible voters as covered by 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203,  and to assist those persons to vote.
</P>
<P>(6) Establish and maintain an FVAP Web site that provides:
</P>
<P>(i) Information to citizens on the voter registration and absentee voting process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the means of electronic transmission of election materials allowed by each State.
</P>
<P>(iii) A method to assist citizens in the voter registration process and how to request an absentee ballot.
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of State contact information in accordance with 52 U.S.C. 20302(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(v) The ability to print a Standard Form (SF) 186, “Federal Write-In Absentee Ballot,” and a list of all candidates in a Federal election.
</P>
<P>(vi) A portal that hosts Service-specific information regarding voting assistance programs, including links to IVA offices; the contact information for voting assistance officers (installation, major command and commissioned units) within the DoD Component; procedures to order voting materials; and links to other Federal and State voting Web sites.
</P>
<P>(vii) Absentee ballot data reported under 52 U.S.C. 20301(b)(6) and (b)(11) and 52 U.S.C. 20308.
</P>
<P>(viii) Other information as deemed necessary by FVAP.
</P>
<P>(7) Survey U.S. citizens including, but not limited to, uniformed services and their dependents as well as overseas U.S. civilians covered by 52 U.S.C. Ch. 203, voting assistance officers (VAOs), and election officials to gather necessary statistical information and prepare the reports to the President and the Congress required by 52 U.S.C. 20301(6) and 52 U.S.C. 20308.
</P>
<P>(8) Prescribe the standard oath to be used with any document pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20301(7).
</P>
<P>(9) Coordinate with the Military Postal Service Agency, as addressed in DoD 4525.6-M (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/452506m.pdf</I>), to implement measures to ensure a postmark or other proof of mailing date is provided on each absentee ballot collected at any overseas location or vessel at sea, and that voting materials are moved expeditiously to the maximum extent practicable by military postal authorities.
</P>
<P>(10) Establish procedures, in consultation with the Attorney General, regarding hardship exemption waivers submitted by a State pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20302(g).
</P>
<P>(11) Prescribe the required voting program metrics to be used by the DoD Components and uniformed services to be used in evaluating their individual voting assistance programs, and report on compliance with those metrics. To the extent practicable, establish and maintain an online portal to collect and consolidate voting program metrics.
</P>
<P>(12) In coordination with the Services, develop multiple types of training materials for use by IVA offices, IVAOs, UVAOs, and recruiters to provide voter registration and absentee ballot assistance and at recruitment offices of the Military Services to provide voter registration assistance. Conduct voting assistance training during even-numbered years worldwide.
</P>
<P>(13) Maintain multiple lines of support for use by uniformed services and overseas voters, personnel assigned to recruitment offices of the Military Services and State election officials to provide assistance outlined pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20301.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DoD Component and Uniformed Services Procedures.</I> The DoD Components and the uniformed services shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish IVA offices on each military installation and maintain an updated list of IVA offices, including location, address, hours of operation, phone number and email address, published on the Service voting assistance Web site. At the discretion of the installation commander, satellite offices may be established under the primary IVA office.
</P>
<P>(i) The IVA office will provide voter assistance to military personnel, their dependents, civilian Federal employees, and all qualified voters who have access to such installation offices. IVA offices shall also serve as voter registration agencies under 52 U.S.C. 20506(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) The IVA office shall be established within the installation headquarters organization reporting directly to the installation commander, even if geographically located in another office.
</P>
<P>(iii) The IVA office should be located in a well-advertised, fixed location, consistent throughout the Service, and should be physically co-located with an existing office that receives extensive visits by Service personnel, family members, and DoD civilians. The IVA office shall be staffed during the hours the installation office is open with trained personnel to provide direct assistance in registration and voting procedures, including the assistance required under 52 U.S.C. 20506(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(iv) The IVA office shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be included in the administrative in-processing and out-processing activities required of reporting and detaching personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that members of a uniformed service, their voting-age dependents, and overseas DoD civilians are provided proper voting assistance at the IVA office, including the opportunity to update their voter registration information through the submission of a revised SF 76, “Federal Post Card Application (FPCA)” or National Mail Voter Registration Form.
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that voting assistance is provided to all personnel, military and civilian, reporting for duty on the installation, detaching from duty, deploying, and returning from deployment of 6 months or longer.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) SF 76s shall be used to notify local election officials of the change of mailing address for absentee ballot delivery purposes.
</P>
<P>(D) Provide written information on voter registration and absentee ballot procedures. This can be met by providing the applicant with the SF 76, SF 186, (if applicable), or the National Mail Voter Registration Form, the attached instructions for those forms, and the State-specific instructions from the Voting Assistance Guide (available at <I>http://www.fvap.gov</I>) for absent uniformed services voters, voting-age dependent voters, and overseas civilians. Citizens may also be provided with all of the necessary resources including, but not limited to, access to a computer system connected to the Internet, a printer, and a scanner to use the FPCA wizard available at the FVAP Web site, <I>www.fvap.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) SF 76 and SF 186 (if applicable) shall be provided to absent uniformed services personnel and their family members (within and outside of the United States) and to Federal civilian employees and other U.S. citizens who have access to an IVA office outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The National Mail Voter Registration Form shall be provided to Federal civilian employees and other U.S. citizens who have access to the IVA office within the United States, and to uniformed services voters who currently reside in their voting districts.
</P>
<P>(E) Provide direct assistance to individuals in completing the forms necessary to register to vote, update their voter registration information, and request absentee ballots.
</P>
<P>(F) Collect from the voter and transmit the completed SF 76 or National Mail Voter Registration Form for the applicant, within 5 calendar days, to the appropriate local election office.
</P>
<P>(2) To the greatest extent practicable, ensure voters who are eligible to cast absentee ballots on DoD facilities are able to do so in a private and independent manner.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure all personnel assigned to recruitment offices are informed of the policies in this part and are trained to provide voter registration assistance. Ensure the recruitment offices of the Military Services:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide each prospective enlistee with the National Mail Voter Registration Form, available at <I>https://www.eac.gov/voters/register-and-vote-in-your-state/</I>, and DD Form 2645, Voter Registration Information Form, available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/forms/dd/dd2645.pdf</I>, unless the applicant, in writing, declines to register to vote.
</P>
<P>(ii) Distribute the National Mail Voter Registration Form to each eligible citizen and provide assistance in completing the form unless the applicant refuses such assistance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide each eligible citizen or prospective enlistee who does not decline to register to vote the same degree of assistance for the completion of the National Mail Voter Registration Form as is provided by the office for the completion of its own forms, e.g., the application for enlistment, unless the person refuses such assistance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Transmit all completed registration applications within 5 calendar days to the appropriate State election officials.
</P>
<P>(v) Maintain statistical information and records on voter registration assistance provided by recruitment offices in the format prescribed by the FVAP, for a period of 2 years, in accordance with 52 U.S.C. 20507(i).
</P>
<P>(4) Revise all voting assistance program instructions and procedures to incorporate the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a DoD Component-wide means to communicate effectively with and expeditiously disseminate voting information to Commanders, VAOs, and uniformed services and overseas DoD civilian members of the DoD Component and their voting age dependents. This communication effort should be coordinated with the FVAP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Executive Department and Agency Procedures.</I> (1) Federal Executive departments and agencies, including, but not limited to, the Department of State, the Department of Commerce, and the Department of Health and Human Services, shall enter into agreements with the Presidential designee to adopt regulations and procedures that conform to this part to the maximum extent practicable, consistent with their organizational missions. By doing so, the FVAP will be able to assist the Executive departments, agencies, and their voting constituencies to the maximum extent.
</P>
<P>(2) The head of each Government department, agency, or other entity shall distribute balloting materials and develop a non-partisan program of information and education for all employees and family members pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 20301(c).
</P>
<P>(i) The department or agency is responsible for providing voter assistance with assistance available from the FVAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each department or agency with employees or family members covered by 52 U.S.C. 20301 shall designate an individual to coordinate and administer a voting assistance program for the department or agency to include, where practicable, the responsibilities in this part. The name, mailing address, email address, and telephone number of this individual shall be provided to the FVAP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary of State shall designate a voting action officer at the Department of State headquarters to oversee the Department's program as well as a U.S. citizen at each U.S. embassy or consulate to assist, to the fullest extent practicable, other U.S. citizens residing outside of the United States who are eligible to vote. The Secretary of State shall provide annually, or as requested by the FVAP, estimates of the numbers of U.S. citizens currently residing in each country with an established embassy.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each embassy and consulate should have sufficient quantities of materials to include SF 76s, and SF 186s, needed by U.S. citizens to register and vote. Embassies and consulates will also inform and educate U.S. citizens regarding their right to register and vote, and will publicize voter assistance programs.
</P>
<P>(v) The Department of State's voting action officer shall coordinate with the FVAP, in the development and conduct of voting events, programs to inform and educate U.S. citizens outside of the United States, and provision of voting information and resources for assistance.
</P>
<P>(vi) Department of State and the Military Service voting action officers shall assist, as requested, installation, embassy and consulate VAOs with post-election surveys of U.S. civilians outside of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 57487, Sept. 18, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 59722, Nov. 6, 2019; 85 FR 13047, Mar. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="234" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 234—CONDUCT ON THE PENTAGON RESERVATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 131 and 2674(c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 29251, May 25, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 234.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person.</I> An employee or agent of the Pentagon Force Protection Agency, or any other Department of Defense employee or agent who has delegated authority to enforce the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Operator.</I> A person who operates, drives, controls, otherwise has charge of, or is in actual physical control of a mechanical mode of transportation or any other mechanical equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Pentagon Reservation.</I> Area of land and improvements thereon, located in Arlington, Virginia, on which the Pentagon Office Building, Federal Building Number 2, the Pentagon heating and sewage treatment plants, and other related facilities are located. Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 674, the Pentagon Reservation also includes the area of land known as Raven Rock Mountain Complex (“RRMC”), located in Adams County, Pennsylvania, and Site “C,” which is located in Washington County, Maryland, and other related facilities. The Pentagon Reservation shall include all roadways, walkways, waterways, and all areas designated for the parking of vehicles.
</P>
<P><I>Permit.</I> A written authorization to engage in uses or activities that are otherwise prohibited, restricted, or regulated.
</P>
<P><I>Possession.</I> Exercising direct physical control or dominion, with or without ownership, over property.
</P>
<P><I>State law.</I> The applicable and nonconflicting laws, statutes, regulations, ordinances, and codes of the state(s) and other political subdivision(s) within whose exterior boundaries the Pentagon Reservation or a portion thereof is located.
</P>
<P><I>Traffic.</I> Pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, and other conveyances, either singly or together, while using any road, path, street, or other thoroughfare for the purposes of travel.
</P>
<P><I>Vehicle.</I> Any vehicle that is self-propelled or designed for self-propulsion, any motorized vehicle, and any vehicle drawn by or designed to be drawn by a motor vehicle, including any device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or can be transported or drawn upon a highway, hallway, or pathway; to include any device moved by human or animal power, whether required to be licensed in any state or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Weapons.</I> Any loaded or unloaded pistol, rifle, shotgun, or other device which is designed to, or may be readily converted to, expel a projectile by the ignition of a propellant, by compressed gas, or by spring power; any bow and arrow, crossbow, blowgun, spear gun, hand-thrown spear, slingshot, irritant gas device, explosive device, or any other implement designed to discharge missiles; any other weapon, device, instrument, material, or substance, animate or inanimate that is used for or is readily capable of, causing death or serious bodily injury, including any weapon the possession of which is prohibited under the laws of the state in which the Pentagon Reservation or portion thereof is located; except that such term does not include a pocket knife with a blade of less than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in length.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to all areas, lands, and waters on or adjoining the Pentagon Reservation and under the jurisdiction of the United States, and to all persons entering in or on the property. They supplement those penal provisions of Title 18, United States Code, relating to crimes and criminal procedure and those provisions of State law that are federal criminal offenses by virtue of the Assimilative Crimes Act, 18 U.S.C. 13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.3   Admission to property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Access to the Pentagon Reservation or facilities thereon shall be restricted in accordance with AI Number 30 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and other applicable Department of Defense rules and regulations in order to ensure the orderly and secure conduct of Department of Defense business. Admission to facilities or restricted areas shall be limited to employees and other persons with proper authorization. Forward written requests for copies of the document to Washington Headquarters Services, Executive Services Division, Freedom of Information Division, 1155 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1155.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/ins2.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) All persons entering or upon the Pentagon Reservation shall, when required and/or requested, display identification to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(c) All packages, briefcases, and other containers brought into, on, or being removed from facilities or restricted areas on the Pentagon Reservation are subject to inspection and search by authorized persons. Persons entering on facilities or restricted areas who refuse to permit an inspection and search will be denied entry.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person or organization desiring to conduct activities anywhere on the Pentagon Reservation shall file an application for permit with the applicable Building Management Office or Installation Commander. Such application shall be made on a form provided by the Department of Defense and shall be submitted in the manner specified by the Department of Defense. Violation of the conditions of a permit issued in accordance with this section is prohibited and may result in the loss of access to the Pentagon Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.4   Trespassing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Trespassing, entering, or remaining in or upon property not open to the public, except with the express invitation or consent of the person or persons having lawful control of the property, is prohibited. Failure to obey an order to leave under paragraph (b) of this section, or reentry upon property after being ordered to leave or not reenter under paragraph (b) of this section, is also prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who violates a Department of Defense rule or regulation may be ordered to leave the Pentagon Reservation by an authorized person. A violator's reentry may also be prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.5   Compliance with official signs.</HEAD>
<P>Persons on the Pentagon Reservation shall at all times comply with official signs of a prohibitory, regulatory, or directory nature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.6   Interfering with agency functions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Interference.</I> Threatening, resisting, intimidating, or intentionally interfering with a government employee or agent engaged in an official duty, or on account of the performance of an official duty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Violation of a lawful order.</I> Violating the lawful order of a government employee or agent authorized to maintain order and control public access and movement during fire fighting operations, search and rescue operations, law enforcement actions, and emergency operations that involve a threat to public safety or government resources, or other activities where the control of public movement and activities is necessary to maintain order and public health or safety.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>False information.</I> Knowingly giving a false or fictitious report or other false information:
</P>
<P>(1) To an authorized person investigating an accident or violation of law or regulation, or
</P>
<P>(2) On an application for a permit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>False report.</I> Knowingly giving a false report for the purpose of misleading a government employee or agent in the conduct of official duties, or making a false report that causes a response by the government to a fictitious event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.7   Disorderly conduct.</HEAD>
<P>A person commits disorderly conduct when, with intent to cause public alarm, nuisance, jeopardy, or violence, or knowingly or recklessly creating a risk thereof, such person commits any of the following prohibited acts:
</P>
<P>(a) Engages in fighting or threatening, or in violent behavior.
</P>
<P>(b) Uses language, an utterance, or gesture, or engages in a display or act that is obscene, physically threatening or menacing, or done in a manner that is likely to inflict injury or incite an immediate breach of the peace.
</P>
<P>(c) Makes noise that is unreasonable, considering the nature and purpose of the actor's conduct, location, time of day or night, and other factors that would govern the conduct of a reasonably prudent person under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) Creates or maintains a hazardous or physically offensive condition.
</P>
<P>(e) Impedes or threatens the security of persons or property, or disrupts the performance of official duties by Department of Defense employees, or obstructs the use of areas such as entrances, foyers, lobbies, corridors, concourses, offices, elevators, stairways, roadways, driveways, walkways, or parking lots.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.8   Preservation of property.</HEAD>
<P>Willfully destroying or damaging private or government property is prohibited. The throwing of articles of any kind from or at buildings or persons, improper disposal of rubbish, and open fires are also prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.9   Explosives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Using, possessing, storing, or transporting explosives, blasting agents or explosive materials is prohibited, except pursuant to the terms and conditions of a permit issued by the applicable Building Management Office or Installation Commander. When permitted, the use, possession, storage and transportation shall be in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.
</P>
<P>(b) Using or possessing fireworks or firecrackers is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) Violation of the conditions established by the applicable Building Management Office or Installation Commander or of the terms and conditions of a permit issued in accordance with this section is prohibited and may result in the loss of access to the Pentagon Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.10   Weapons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise authorized under this section, the following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Possessing a weapon.
</P>
<P>(2) Carrying a weapon.
</P>
<P>(3) Using a weapon.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to any agency or Department of Defense component that has received prior written approval from the Pentagon Force Protection Agency or the Installation Commander to carry, transport, or use a weapon in support of a security, law enforcement, or other lawful purpose while on the Pentagon Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.11   Alcoholic beverages and controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alcoholic beverages.</I> The consumption of alcoholic beverages or the possession of an open container of an alcoholic beverage within the Pentagon Reservation is prohibited unless authorized by the Director, Washington Headquarters Services, or his designee, the Installation Commander, or the Heads of the Military Departments, or their designees. Written notice of such authorizations shall be provided to the Pentagon Force Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Controlled substances. The following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) The delivery of a controlled substance, except when distribution is made by a licensed physician or pharmacist in accordance with applicable law. For the purposes of this paragraph, delivery means the actual, attempted, or constructive transfer of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(2) The possession of a controlled substance, unless such substance was obtained by the possessor directly from, or pursuant to a valid prescription or order by, a licensed physician or pharmacist, or as otherwise allowed by Federal or State law.
</P>
<P>(c) Presence on the Pentagon Reservation when under the influence of alcohol, a drug, a controlled substance, or any combination thereof, to a degree that may endanger oneself or another person, or damage property, is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.12   Restriction on animals.</HEAD>
<P>Animals, except guide dogs for persons with disabilities, shall not be brought upon the Pentagon Reservation for other than official purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.13   Soliciting, vending, and debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>Commercial or political soliciting, vending of all kinds, displaying or distributing commercial advertising, collecting private debts or soliciting alms upon the Pentagon Reservation is prohibited. This does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) National or local drives for funds for welfare, health, or other purposes as authorized by 5 CFR parts 110 and 950, Solicitation of Federal Civilian and Uniformed Services Personnel for Contributions to Private Voluntary Organizations, issued by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management under Executive Order 12353, 3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 139, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Personal notices posted on authorized bulletin boards, and in compliance with building rules governing the use of such authorized bulletin boards, advertising to sell or rent property of Pentagon Reservation employees or their immediate families.
</P>
<P>(c) Solicitation of labor organization membership or dues authorized by the Department of Defense under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees, or their agents and employees, with respect to space licensed for their use.
</P>
<P>(e) Solicitations conducted by organizations composed of civilian employees of the Department of Defense or members of the uniformed services among their own members for organizational support or for the benefit of welfare funds for their members, after compliance with the requirements of § 234.3(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.14   Posting of materials.</HEAD>
<P>Posting or affixing materials, such as pamphlets, handbills, or fliers on the Pentagon Reservation is prohibited except as provided by § 234.13(b) or when conducted as part of activities approved by the applicable Building Management Office or Installation Commander under § 234.3(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.15   Use of visual recording devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of cameras or other visual recording devices on the Pentagon Reservation is prohibited, unless the use of such items are approved by the Pentagon Force Protection Agency, the Installation Commander, or the Office of the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs.
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be unlawful to make any photograph, sketch, picture, drawing, map or graphical representation of the Pentagon Reservation without first obtaining permission of the Pentagon Force Protection Agency, Installation Commander, or the Office of the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.16   Gambling.</HEAD>
<P>Gambling in any form, or the operation of gambling devices, is prohibited. This prohibition shall not apply to the vending or exchange of chances by licensed blind operators of vending facilities for any lottery set forth in a State law and authorized by the provisions of the Randolph-Sheppard Act (20 U.S.C. 107, <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.17   Vehicles and traffic safety.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Unless specifically addressed by regulations in this part, traffic and the use of vehicles within the Pentagon Reservation are governed by State law. Violating a provision of State law is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Open container of an alcoholic beverage.</I> (1) Each person within a vehicle is responsible for complying with the provisions of this section that pertain to carrying an open container. The operator of a vehicle is the person responsible for complying with the provisions of this section that pertain to the storage of an open container.
</P>
<P>(2) Carrying or storing a bottle, can, or other receptacle containing an alcoholic beverage that is open or has been opened, or whose seal is broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed, within a vehicle on the Pentagon Reservation is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) An open container stored in the trunk of a vehicle or, if a vehicle is not equipped with a trunk, an open container stored in some other portion of the vehicle designed for the storage of luggage and not normally occupied by or readily accessible to the operator or passengers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An open container stored in the living quarters of a motor home or camper.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purpose of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a utility compartment or glove compartment is deemed to be readily accessible to the operator and passengers of a vehicle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating under the influence of alcohol, drugs, or controlled substances.</I> (1) Operating or being in actual physical control of a vehicle is prohibited while:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the influence of alcohol, a drug or drugs, a controlled substance or controlled substances, or any combination thereof, to a degree that renders the operator incapable of safe operation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The alcohol concentration in the operator's blood or breath is 0.08 grams or more of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or 0.08 grams or more of alcohol per 210 liters of breath. Provided, however, that if State law that applies to operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol establishes more restrictive limits of alcohol concentration in the operator's blood or breath, those limits supersede the limits specified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall also apply to an operator who is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol or another drug.
</P>
<P>(3) Tests.
</P>
<P>(i) At the request or direction of an authorized person who has probable cause to believe that an operator of a vehicle within the Pentagon Reservation has violated a provision of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the operator shall submit to one or more tests of the blood, breath, saliva, or urine for the purpose of determining blood alcohol, drug, and controlled substance content.
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusal by an operator to submit to a test is prohibited and may result in detention and citation by an authorized person. Proof of refusal may be admissible in any related judicial proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any test or tests for the presence of alcohol, drugs, and controlled substances shall be determined by and administered at the direction of an authorized person.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any test shall be conducted by using accepted scientific methods and equipment of proven accuracy and reliability operated by personnel certified in its use.
</P>
<P>(4) Presumptive levels.
</P>
<P>(i) The results of chemical or other quantitative tests are intended to supplement the elements of probable cause used as the basis for the arrest of an operator charged with a violation of this section. If the alcohol concentration in the operator's blood or breath at the time of the testing is less than the alcohol concentration specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, this fact does not give rise to any presumption that the operator is or is not under the influence of alcohol.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4)(i) of this section are not intended to limit the introduction of any other competent evidence bearing upon the question of whether the operator, at the time of the alleged violation, was under the influence of alcohol, a drug or drugs, or a controlled substance or controlled substances, or any combination thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.18   Enforcement of parking regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Parking regulations for the Pentagon Reservation shall be enforced in accordance with the Pentagon Reservation Parking Program and State law; violating such provisions is prohibited. A vehicle parked in any location without authorization, or parked contrary to the directions of posted signs or markings, shall be subject to removal at the owner's risk and expense, in addition to any penalties imposed. The Department of Defense assumes no responsibility for the payment of any fees or costs related to such removal which may be charged to the owner of the vehicle by the towing organization. This section may be supplemented from time to time with the approval of the Director, Washington Headquarters Services, or his designee, or the Installation Commander, by the issuance and posting of such parking directives as may be required, and when so issued and posted such directive shall have the same force and effect as if made a part hereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.19" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.34.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.19   Penalties and effect on other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whoever shall be found guilty of willfully violating any rule or regulation enumerated in this part is subject to the penalties imposed by Federal law for the commission of a Class B misdemeanor offense.
</P>
<P>(b) Whoever violates any rule or regulation enumerated in this part is liable to the United States for a civil penalty of not more than $1,000.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part shall be construed to abrogate any other Federal laws.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="236" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 236—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE (DoD) DEFENSE INDUSTRIAL BASE (DIB) CYBERSECURITY (CS) ACTIVITIES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 391, 393, and 2224; 44 U.S.C. 3506 and 3554; 50 U.S.C. 3330.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 236.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Cyber threats to contractor unclassified information systems represent an unacceptable risk of compromise of DoD information and pose an imminent threat to U.S. national security and economic security interests. This part requires all DoD contractors to rapidly report cyber incidents involving covered defense information on their covered contractor information systems or cyber incidents affecting the contractor's ability to provide operationally critical support. The part also permits eligible DoD contractors to participate in the voluntary DIB CS Program to share cyber threat information and cybersecurity best practices with DIB CS Program participants. The DIB CS Program enhances and supplements DIB CS Program participants' capabilities to safeguard DoD information that resides on, or transits, DIB unclassified information systems.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17747, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Cleared defense contractor (CDC)</I> means a private entity granted clearance by DoD to access, receive, or store classified information for the purpose of bidding for a contract or conducting activities in support of any program of DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Compromise</I> means disclosure of information to unauthorized persons, or a violation of the security policy of a system, in which unauthorized intentional or unintentional disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss of an object, or the copying of information to unauthorized media may have occurred.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means an individual or organization outside the U.S. Government who has accepted any type of agreement or order to provide research, supplies, or services to DoD, including prime contractors and subcontractors.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor attributional/proprietary information</I> means information that identifies the contractor(s), whether directly or indirectly, by the grouping of information that can be traced back to the contractor(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> program description, facility locations), personally identifiable information, as well as trade secrets, commercial or financial information, or other commercially sensitive information that is not customarily shared outside of the company.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled Technical Information</I> means technical information with military or space application that is subject to controls on the access, use, reproduction, modification, performance, display, release, disclosure, or dissemination. Controlled technical information would meet the criteria, if disseminated, for distribution statements B through F using the criteria set forth in DoD Instruction 5230.24, “Distribution Statements of Technical Documents,” available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523024p.pdf</I>. The term does not include information that is lawfully publicly available without restrictions.
</P>
<P><I>Covered contractor information system</I> means an unclassified information system that is owned or operated by or for a contractor and that processes, stores, or transmits covered defense information.
</P>
<P><I>Covered defense information</I> means unclassified controlled technical information or other information (as described in the Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Registry at <I>http://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-list.html</I>) that requires safeguarding or dissemination controls pursuant to and consistent with law, regulations, and Government wide policies, and is:
</P>
<P>(1) Marked or otherwise identified in an agreement and provided to the contractor by or on behalf of the DoD in support of the performance of the agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Collected, developed, received, transmitted, used, or stored by or on behalf of the contractor in support of the performance of the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Cyber incident</I> means actions taken through the use of computer networks that result in a compromise or an actual or potentially adverse effect on an information system and/or the information residing therein.</P>
<P><I>Cyber incident damage assessment</I> means a managed, coordinated process to determine the effect on defense programs, defense scientific and research projects, or defense warfighting capabilities resulting from compromise of a contractor's unclassified computer system or network.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Industrial Base (DIB)</I> means the Department of Defense, Government, and private sector worldwide industrial complex with capabilities to perform research and development, design, produce, and maintain military weapon systems, subsystems, components, or parts to satisfy military requirements.
</P>
<P><I>DIB CS Program participant</I> means a contractor that has met all of the eligibility requirements to participate in the voluntary DIB CS Program as set forth in this part (see § 236.7).
</P>
<P><I>Forensic analysis</I> means the practice of gathering, retaining, and analyzing computer-related data for investigative purposes in a manner that maintains the integrity of the data.
</P>
<P><I>Government furnished information (GFI)</I> means information provided by the Government under the voluntary DIB CS Program including but not limited to cyber threat information and cybersecurity practices.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any communication or representation of knowledge such as facts, data, or opinions in any medium or form, including textual, numerical, graphic, cartographic, narrative, or audiovisual.
</P>
<P><I>Information system</I> means a discrete set of information resources organized for the collection, processing, maintenance, use, sharing, dissemination, or disposition of information.
</P>
<P><I>Malicious software</I> means software or firmware intended to perform an unauthorized process that will have adverse impact on the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system. This definition includes a virus, worm, Trojan horse, or other code-based entity that infects a host, as well as spyware and some forms of adware.
</P>
<P><I>Media</I> means physical devices or writing surfaces, including but not limited to, magnetic tapes, optical disks, magnetic disks, large-scale integration memory chips, and printouts onto which covered defense information is recorded, stored, or printed within a covered contractor information system.
</P>
<P><I>Operationally critical support</I> means supplies or services designated by the Government as critical for airlift, sealift, intermodal transportation services, or logistical support that is essential to the mobilization, deployment, or sustainment of the Armed Forces in a contingency operation.
</P>
<P><I>Rapid(ly) report(ing)</I> means within 72 hours of discovery of any cyber incident.
</P>
<P><I>Technical Information</I> means technical data or computer software, as those terms are defined in DFARS 252.227-7013, “Rights in Technical Data—Noncommercial Items” (48 CFR 252.227-7013). Examples of technical information include research and engineering data, engineering drawings and associated lists, specifications, standards, process sheets, manuals, technical reports, technical orders, catalog-item identifications, data sets, studies and analyses and related information, and computer software executable code and source code.
</P>
<P><I>Threat</I> means any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact organization operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), organization assets, individuals, other organizations, or the Nation through an information system via unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure, modification of information and/or denial of service.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. based</I> means provisioned, maintained, or operated within the physical boundaries of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. citizen</I> means a person born in the United States or naturalized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17747, Mar. 12, 2024]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016, § 236.2 was amended; however, a portion of the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish a comprehensive approach to require safeguarding of covered defense information on covered contractor information systems and to require contractor cyber incident reporting.
</P>
<P>(b) Increase Government stakeholder and DIB situational awareness of the extent and severity of cyber threats to DoD information by implementing a streamlined approval process that enables the contractor to elect, in conjunction with the cyber incident reporting and sharing, the extent to which DoD may share cyber threat information obtained from a contractor (or derived from information obtained from the company) under this part that is not information created by or for DoD with:
</P>
<P>(1) DIB CS Program participants to enhance their cybersecurity posture to better protect covered defense information on covered contractor information systems, or a contractor's ability to provide operationally critical support; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other Government stakeholders for lawful Government activities, including cybersecurity for the protection of Government information or information systems, law enforcement and counterintelligence (LE/CI), and other lawful national security activities directed against the cyber threat (<I>e.g.,</I> those attempting to infiltrate and compromise information on the contractor information systems).
</P>
<P>(c) Modify eligibility criteria to permit greater participation in the voluntary DIB CS Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17747, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.4   Mandatory cyber incident reporting procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability and order of precedence.</I> The requirement to report cyber incidents shall be included in all forms of agreements (<I>e.g.,</I> contracts, grants, cooperative agreements, other transaction agreements, technology investment agreements, and any other type of legal instrument or agreement) between the Government and the contractor in which covered defense information resides on, or transits covered contractor information systems or under which a contractor provides operationally critical support, and shall be identical to those requirements provided in this section (<I>e.g.,</I> by incorporating the requirements of this section by reference, or by expressly setting forth such reporting requirements consistent with those of this section). Any inconsistency between the relevant terms and condition of any such agreement and this section shall be resolved in favor of the terms and conditions of the agreement, provided and to the extent that such terms and conditions are authorized to have been included in the agreement in accordance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cyber incident reporting requirement.</I> When a contractor discovers a cyber incident that affects a covered contractor information system or the covered defense information residing therein or that affects the contractor's ability to provide operationally critical support, the contractor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a review for evidence of compromise of covered defense information including, but not limited to, identifying compromised computers, servers, specific data, and user accounts. This review shall also include analyzing covered contractor information system(s) that were part of the cyber incident, as well as other information systems on the contractor's network(s), that may have been accessed as a result of the incident in order to identify compromised covered defense information, or that affect the contractor's ability to provide operationally critical support; and
</P>
<P>(2) Rapidly report cyber incidents to DoD at <I>https://dibnet.dod.mil</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cyber incident report.</I> The cyber incident report shall be treated as information created by or for DoD and shall include, at a minimum, the required elements at <I>https://dibnet.dod.mil</I>.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subcontractor reporting procedures.</I> Contractors shall flow down the cyber incident reporting requirements of this part to their subcontractors that are providing operationally critical support or for which subcontract performance will involve a covered contractor information system. Contractors shall require subcontractors to rapidly report cyber incidents directly to DoD at <I>https://dibnet.dod.mil</I> and the prime contractor. This includes providing the incident report number, automatically assigned by DoD, to the prime contractor (or next higher-tier subcontractor) as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procurement Integrated Enterprise Environment (PIEE) account requirement.</I> To report cyber incidents in accordance with this section, the contractor or subcontractor shall have a PIEE account to access <I>https://dibnet.dod.mil.</I> For information on obtaining a PIEE account, see <I>https://piee.eb.mil/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Third-party service provider support.</I> If the contractor utilizes a third-party service provider (SP) for information system security services, the contractor may authorize the SP to report cyber incidents on behalf of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Voluntary information sharing.</I> Contractors are encouraged to report information to promote sharing of cyber threat indicators that they believe are valuable in alerting the Government and others, as appropriate, in order to better counter threat actor activity. Cyber incidents that are not compromises of covered defense information or do not adversely affect the contractor's ability to perform operationally critical support may be of interest to the DIB and DoD for situational awareness purposes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Malicious software.</I> Malicious software discovered and isolated by the contractor will be submitted to the DoD Cyber Crime Center (DC3) for forensic analysis.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Media preservation and protection.</I> When a contractor discovers a cyber incident has occurred, the contractor shall preserve and protect images of known affected information systems identified in paragraph (b) of this section and all relevant monitoring/packet capture data for at least 90 days from submission of the cyber incident report to allow DoD to request the media or decline interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Access to additional information or equipment necessary for forensics analysis.</I> Upon request by DoD, the contractor shall provide DoD with access to additional information or equipment that is necessary to conduct a forensic analysis.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cyber incident damage assessment activities.</I> If DoD elects to conduct a damage assessment, DoD will request that the contractor provide all of the damage assessment information gathered in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>DoD safeguarding and use of contractor attributional/proprietary information.</I> The Government shall protect against the unauthorized use or release of information obtained from the contractor (or derived from information obtained from the contractor) under this part that includes contractor attributional/proprietary information, including such information submitted in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. To the maximum extent practicable, the contractor shall identify and mark attributional/proprietary information. In making an authorized release of such information, the Government will implement appropriate procedures to minimize the contractor attributional/proprietary information that is included in such authorized release, seeking to include only that information that is necessary for the authorized purpose(s) for which the information is being released.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Use and release of contractor attributional/proprietary information not created by or for DoD.</I> Information that is obtained from the contractor (or derived from information obtained from the contractor) under this part that is not created by or for DoD is authorized to be released outside of DoD:
</P>
<P>(1) To entities with missions that may be affected by such information;
</P>
<P>(2) To entities that may be called upon to assist in the diagnosis, detection, or mitigation of cyber incidents;
</P>
<P>(3) To Government entities that conduct LE/CI investigations;
</P>
<P>(4) For national security purposes, including cyber situational awareness and defense purposes (including sharing non-attributional cyber threat information with defense contractors participating in the DIB CS Program authorized by this part); or
</P>
<P>(5) To a support services contractor (“recipient”) that is directly supporting Government activities related to this part and is bound by use and non-disclosure restrictions that include all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The recipient shall access and use the information only for the purpose of furnishing advice or technical assistance directly to the Government in support of the Government's activities related to this part, and shall not be used for any other purpose;
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipient shall protect the information against unauthorized release or disclosure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The recipient shall ensure that its employees are subject to use and non-disclosure obligations consistent with this part prior to the employees being provided access to or use of the information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The third-party contractor that reported the cyber incident is a third-party beneficiary of the non-disclosure agreement between the Government and the recipient, as required by paragraph (m)(5)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) That a breach of these obligations or restrictions may subject the recipient to:
</P>
<P>(A) Criminal, civil, administrative, and contractual actions in law and equity for penalties, damages, and other appropriate remedies by the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Civil actions for damages and other appropriate remedies by the third party that reported the incident, as a third party beneficiary of the non-disclosure agreement.
</P>
<P>(n) Use and release of contractor attributional/proprietary information created by or for DoD. Information that is obtained from the contractor (or derived from information obtained from the contractor) under this part that is created by or for DoD (including the information submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section) is authorized to be used and released outside of DoD for purposes and activities authorized by this section, and for any other lawful Government purpose or activity, subject to all applicable statutory, regulatory, and policy based restrictions on the Government's use and release of such information.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Contractor activities.</I> Contractors shall conduct their respective activities under this part in accordance with applicable laws and regulations on the interception, monitoring, access, use, and disclosure of electronic communications and data.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).</I> Agency records, which may include qualifying information received from non-Federal entities, are subject to request under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The Government will notify the non-Government source or submitter (<I>e.g.,</I> contractor or DIB CS Program participant) of the information in accordance with the procedures in 32 CFR 286.10.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Other reporting requirements.</I> Cyber incident reporting required by this part in no way abrogates the contractor's responsibility for other cyber incident reporting pertaining to its unclassified information systems under other clauses that may apply to its contract(s), or as a result of other applicable U.S. Government statutory or regulatory requirements, including Federal or DoD requirements for Controlled Unclassified Information as established by Executive Order 13556, as well as regulations and guidance established pursuant thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17747, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.5   DoD's DIB CS Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All defense contractors that meet the requirements set forth in § 236.7 are eligible to join the DIB CS Program as a DIB CS Program participant. Defense contractors meeting the additional eligibility requirements in § 236.7 can elect to access and receive classified information electronically.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the voluntary activities of the DIB CS Program, the Government and each DIB CS Program participant will execute a standardized agreement, referred to as a Framework Agreement (FA) to share, in a timely and secure manner, on a recurring basis, and to the greatest extent possible, cybersecurity information.
</P>
<P>(c) Each such FA between the Government and a DIB CS Program participant must comply with and implement the requirements of this part, and will include additional terms and conditions as necessary to effectively implement the voluntary information sharing activities described in this part with individual DIB CS Program participants.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD's DIB CS Program Management Office is the overall point of contact for the program. The DC3 managed DoD-DIB Collaborative Information Sharing Environment (DCISE) is the operational focal point for cyber threat information sharing and incident reporting under the DIB CS Program.
</P>
<P>(e) The Government will maintain a website or other internet-based capability to provide potential DIB CS Program participants with information about eligibility and participation in the program, to enable online application or registration for participation, and to support the execution of necessary agreements with the Government.
</P>
<P>(f) As participants of the DIB CS Program, defense contractors are encouraged to share cyber threat indicators and information that they believe are valuable in alerting the Government and other DIB CS Program participants to better counter threat actor activity. Cyber activity that is not covered under § 236.4 may be of interest to DIB CS Program participants and DoD.
</P>
<P>(g) The Government shall share GFI DIB CS Program participant or designated SP in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(h) Prior to receiving GFI, each DIB CS Program participant shall provide the requisite points of contact information, to include U.S. citizenship and security clearance information, as applicable, for the designated personnel within their company in order to facilitate the DoD-DIB interaction in the DIB CS Program. The Government will confirm the accuracy of the information provided as a condition of that point of contact being authorized to act on behalf of the DIB CS Program participant for this program.
</P>
<P>(i) GFI will be issued via both unclassified and classified means. DIB CS Program participants handling and safeguarding of classified information shall be in compliance with 32 CFR part 117. The Government shall specify transmission and distribution procedures for all GFI, and shall inform DIB CS Program participants of any revisions to previously specified transmission or procedures.
</P>
<P>(j) Except as authorized in this part or in writing by the Government, DIB CS Program participants may:
</P>
<P>(1) Use GFI only on U.S. based covered contractor information systems, or U.S. based networks or information systems used to provide operationally critical support; and
</P>
<P>(2) Share GFI only within their company or organization, on a need-to-know basis, with distribution restricted to U.S. citizens.
</P>
<P>(k) In individual cases DIB CS Program participants may request, and the Government may authorize, disclosure and use of GFI under applicable terms and conditions when the DIB CS Program participant can demonstrate that appropriate information handling and protection mechanisms are in place and has determined that it requires the ability:
</P>
<P>(1) To share the GFI with a non-U.S. citizen; or
</P>
<P>(2) To use the GFI on a non-U.S. based covered contractor information system; or
</P>
<P>(3) To use the GFI on a non-U.S. based network or information system in order to better protect a contractor's ability to provide operationally critical support.
</P>
<P>(l) DIB CS Program participants shall maintain the capability to electronically disseminate GFI within the Company in an encrypted fashion (<I>e.g.,</I> using Secure/Multipurpose internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME), secure socket layer (SSL), Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol version 1.2, DoD-approved medium assurance certificates).
</P>
<P>(m) DIB CS Program participants shall not share GFI outside of their company or organization, regardless of personnel clearance level, except as authorized in this part or otherwise authorized in writing by the Government.
</P>
<P>(n) If the DIB CS Program participant utilizes a SP for information system security services, the DIB CS Program participant may share GFI with that SP under the following conditions and as authorized in writing by the Government:
</P>
<P>(1) The DIB CS Program participant must identify the SP to the Government and request permission to share or disclose any GFI with that SP (which may include a request that the Government share information directly with the SP on behalf of the DIB CS Program participant) solely for the authorized purposes of this program.
</P>
<P>(2) The SP must provide the Government with sufficient information to enable the Government to determine whether the SP is eligible to receive such information, and possesses the capability to provide appropriate protections for the GFI.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon approval by the Government, the SP must enter into a legally binding agreement with the DIB CS Program participant (and also an appropriate agreement with the Government in any case in which the SP will receive or share information directly with the Government on behalf of the DIB CS Program participant) under which the SP is subject to all applicable requirements of this part and of any supplemental terms and conditions in the DIB CS Program participant's FA with the Government, and which authorizes the SP to use the GFI only as authorized by the Government.
</P>
<P>(o) The DIB CS Program participant may not sell, lease, license, or otherwise incorporate the GFI into its products or services, except that this does not prohibit a DIB CS Program participant from being appropriately designated an SP in accordance with paragraph (n) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17747, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.6   General provisions of DoD's DIB CS Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Confidentiality of information that is exchanged under the DIB CS Program will be protected to the maximum extent authorized by law, regulation, and policy. DoD and DIB CS Program participants each bear responsibility for their own actions under the voluntary DIB CS Program.
</P>
<P>(b) All DIB CS Program participants may participate in the Department of Homeland Security's Enhanced Cybersecurity Services (ECS) program (<I>https://www.cisa.gov/resources-tools/programs/enhanced-cybersecurity-services-ecs</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Participation in the voluntary DIB CS Program does not obligate the DIB CS Program participant to utilize the GFI in, or otherwise to implement any changes to, its information systems. Any action taken by the DIB CS Program participant based on the GFI or other participation in this program is taken on the DIB CS Program participant's own volition and at its own risk and expense.
</P>
<P>(d) A DIB CS Program participant's participation in the voluntary DIB CS Program is not intended to create any unfair competitive advantage or disadvantage in DoD source selections or competitions, or to provide any other form of unfair preferential treatment, and shall not in any way be represented or interpreted as a Government endorsement or approval of the DIB CS Program participant, its information systems, or its products or services.
</P>
<P>(e) The DIB CS Program participant and the Government may each unilaterally limit or discontinue participation in the voluntary DIB CS Program at any time. Termination shall not relieve the DIB CS Program participant or the Government from obligations to continue to protect against the unauthorized use or disclosure of GFI, attribution information, contractor proprietary information, third-party proprietary information, or any other information exchanged under this program, as required by law, regulation, contract, or the FA.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon termination of the FA, change of status as a defense contractor, and/or change of Facility Security Clearance (FCL) status below Secret, GFI must be returned to the Government or destroyed pursuant to direction of, and at the discretion of, the Government.
</P>
<P>(g) Participation in these activities does not abrogate the Government's, or the DIB CS Program participants' rights or obligations regarding the handling, safeguarding, sharing, or reporting of information, or regarding any physical, personnel, or other security requirements, as required by law, regulation, policy, or a valid legal contractual obligation. However, participation in the voluntary activities of the DIB CS Program does not eliminate the requirement for DIB CS Program participants to report cyber incidents in accordance with § 236.4.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 59584, Oct. 2, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 68317, Oct. 4, 2016; 89 FR 17748, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 236.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.35.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 236.7   DoD's DIB CS Program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To participate in the DIB CS Program, a contractor must own or operate a covered contractor information system and shall execute the standardized FA with the Government (available during the application process), which implements the requirements set forth in §§ 236.5 and 236.6.
</P>
<P>(b) In order for DIB CS Program participants to receive classified cyber threat information electronically, the company must be a cleared defense contractor and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Have an existing active facility clearance level (FCL) to at least the Secret level in accordance with 32 CFR part 117;
</P>
<P>(2) Have or acquire a Communication Security (COMSEC) account in accordance with 32 CFR part 117, which provides procedures and requirements for COMSEC activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Have or acquire approved safeguarding for at least Secret information, and continue to qualify under 32 CFR part 117 for retention of its FCL and approved safeguarding; and
</P>
<P>(4) Obtain access to DoD's secure voice and data transmission systems supporting the voluntary DIB CS Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 17749, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="238" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 238—DoD ASSISTANCE TO NON-GOVERNMENT, ENTERTAINMENT-ORIENTED MEDIA PRODUCTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2264; 31 U.S.C. 9701; sec. 1257, Pub. L. 117-263, 136 Stat. 2395.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 47836, Aug. 10, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for DoD assistance to non-Government entertainment media productions such as feature motion pictures, episodic television programs, documentaries, and electronic games.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the combatant commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Does not apply to productions that are intended to inform the public of fast-breaking or developing news stories.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Assistance (as in “DoD Assistance to Non-Government, Entertainment-Oriented Media Productions”).</I> The variety of support that the DoD can provide. The assistance ranges from supplying technical advice during script development, to allowing access to military installations for production.
</P>
<P><I>DoD aviation user rates.</I> Hourly rates when different types of fixed wing and rotary wing aircraft that DoD agencies use to determine the reimbursement amount when specific aircraft are used to provide support on a reimbursable basis. These rates are specified by the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller)/Chief Financial Officer, Department of Defense each fiscal year, except for aircraft provided by the United States Transportation Command (TRANSCOM), which publishes rates for aircraft operations financed by the Defense Working Capital Fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 47836, Aug. 10, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 34775, June 9, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) DoD assistance may be provided to an entertainment media production, to include fictional portrayals, when cooperation of the producers with the Department of Defense benefits the Department of Defense, or when such cooperation would be in the best interest of the Nation based on whether the production:
</P>
<P>(1) Presents a reasonably realistic depiction of the Military Services and the Department of Defense, including Service members, civilian personnel, events, missions, assets, and policies;
</P>
<P>(2) Is informational and considered likely to contribute to public understanding of the Military Services and the Department of Defense; or
</P>
<P>(3) May benefit Military Service recruiting and retention programs.
</P>
<P>(b) DoD assistance to an entertainment-oriented media production will not deviate from established DoD safety and environmental standards, nor will it impair the operational readiness of the Military Services. Diversion of equipment, personnel, and material resources will be kept to a minimum.
</P>
<P>(c) The production company will reimburse the Government for any expenses incurred as a result of DoD assistance rendered in accordance with the procedures in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Official activities of Service personnel in assisting the production; use of official DoD property, facilities, and material; and employment of Service members in an off-duty, non-official status will be in accordance with the procedures in this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Footage shot with DoD assistance and official DoD footage released for a specific production will not be reused for or sold to other productions without Department of Defense approval.
</P>
<P>(f) In accordance with section 1257 of Public Law 117-263, DoD will not provide production assistance when there is demonstrable evidence that the production has complied or is likely to comply with a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China (PRC), the Chinese Communist Party (CCP), or an entity under the direction of the PRC or the CCP to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the PRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 47836, Aug. 10, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 34775, June 9, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (ATSD(PA)) serves as the authority for approving DoD assistance, including DoD involvement in marketing and publicity, to non-Government entertainment-oriented media; this authority may not be delegated, except to an official in the Office of the ATSD(PA). The ATSD(PA) will make DoD commitments, in consultation with the Secretaries of the Military Departments and the Chief, National Guard Bureau, only after:
</P>
<P>(1) The script, treatment, or narrative description is found to qualify in accordance with the general principles in § 238.4(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The support requested is determined to be feasible.
</P>
<P>(3) For episodic television, motion pictures, and other nondocumentary entertainment media productions, the producer has an acceptable public exhibition agreement with a recognized exhibition entity (<I>e.g.,</I> studio or network), and the capability to complete the production (<I>i.e.,</I> completion bond or other industry-recognized guarantor of completion, such as the commitment of a major studio or other source of financial commitment). For documentaries, the producer has indicated a clear capability to complete the production.
</P>
<P>(4) A certification from the production company is provided in accordance with the procedures in § 238.6(b)(1)(iii), consistent with § 238.4(f).
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments and the Chief, National Guard Bureau, develop procedures for implementing this part and ensure that the requirements of this part are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 47836, Aug. 10, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 34776, June 9, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The producer will be required to sign a written Production Assistance Agreement (see appendices A and B of this part for sample documents), explaining the terms under which DoD's production assistance is provided, with the designee of the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs, and may be required to post advance payment or a letter of credit issued by a recognized financial institution to cover the estimated costs before receiving DoD assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) Official activities of Service members in assisting the production must be within the scope of normal military activities. On-duty service members and DoD civilians are prohibited from serving as actors, such as by speaking filmmaker-invented, or scripted dialogue, unless approved in writing by the ATSD(PA) or the ATSD(PA)'s designee. With the exception of assigned project officer(s) and technical advisor(s), Service members and DoD civilians will not be assigned to perform functions outside the scope of their normal duties.
</P>
<P>(3) Official personnel services and DoD material will not be employed in such a manner as to compete directly with commercial and private enterprises. DoD assets may be provided when similar civilian assets are not reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(4) The production company may hire Service members in an off-duty, non-official status to perform as extras or actors in minor roles, etc., provided there is no conflict with any existing Service regulation. In such cases, contractual arrangements are solely between those individuals and the production company; however, payment should be consistent with current industry standards. The producer is responsible for resolving any disputes with unions governing the hiring of non-union actors and extras. Service members accepting such employment will comply with the standards of conduct in DoD Directive 5500.07, “Standards of Conduct” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/550007p.pdf</I>). The Heads of the Components may assist the production company in publicizing the opportunity for employment and in identifying appropriate personnel.
</P>
<P>(5) The production company will restore all Government property and facilities used in the production to the same or better condition as when they were made available for the company's use. This includes cleaning the site and removing trash.
</P>
<P>(6) The DoD project officer, described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, may make DoD motion and still media archival materials available when a production qualifies for assistance in accordance with the general principles in § 238.4(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific procedures</I>—(1) <I>Script development and review.</I> (i) Before a producer officially submits a project to the Office of the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (OATSD(PA)), the Military Departments and the National Guard Bureau are authorized to assist entertainment-oriented media producers, scriptwriters, etc., in their efforts to develop a script that might ultimately qualify for DoD assistance. Such activities could include guidance, suggestions, answers to research queries for technical research, and interviews with technical experts. However, the Military Departments providing such assistance are required to coordinate with and update OATSD(PA) of the status of such projects. Military Departments and the National Guard Bureau will refrain from making commitments and rendering official DoD opinions until first coordinating through appropriate channels to obtain OATSD(PA) concurrence in such actions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Production company officials requesting DoD assistance will submit a completed script (or a treatment or narrative description for documentaries), along with a list of desired support to be included on a completed DD Form 3205, “Request for DoD Production Assistance” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/forms/</I>). If a definitive list is not available when the script is initially submitted, requirements should be stated in general terms at the outset. However, no DoD commitment will be made until the detailed list of support requested has been reviewed and deemed to be feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) To be considered for approval, an authorized representative of the production company must certify that the project has not complied and is not likely to comply with a demand from the Government of the PRC, the CCP, or an entity under the direction of the PRC or the CCP to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the PRC in accordance with section 1257 of Public Law 117-263.
</P>
<P>(iv) When OATSD(PA) receives verifiable information from another source that the project has complied with or is likely to comply with such a demand for censorship as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, OATSD(PA) will, to the extent feasible, inquire with the production company about the information to help inform the DoD decision on whether to approve support for the project.
</P>
<P>(v) OATSD(PA) will coordinate the review of scripts, treatment, or narrative description submitted for production assistance consideration. The coordinated review will include each Military Service depicted in the script. Although no commitment for assisting in the production is implied, OATSD(PA) may provide, or authorize the Military Services to provide, further guidance and suggestions for changes that might resolve problems that would prevent DoD assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Production assistance notification.</I> Upon reviewing the recommendations of the Military Departments and the National Guard Bureau concerned, the ATSD(PA) will determine whether a given production meets the DoD criteria for support and if the support requested is feasible. If both requirements are satisfied, the ATSD(PA) will notify in writing the production company concerned, advising it that DoD has approved DoD production assistance and identifying the DoD project officer tasked with representing the DoD throughout the production process. On a case-by-case basis, the ATSD(PA) may choose to delegate the responsibility of signing the Production Assistance Agreement on behalf of the DoD to the designated DoD project officer or other DoD official responsible for coordinating production assistance. If so, this decision would be included in the notification letter. If production assistance is approved for only a portion of the proposed project, the written notification will clearly describe the portion(s) approved. If assistance is not approved, the ATSD(PA) or the ATSD(PA)'s designee will send a letter to the production company stating reasons for disapproval.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Role of the DoD project officer.</I> (i) When production assistance has been approved, the Military Departments and the National Guard Bureau will assign a project officer (commissioned, non-commissioned, or civilian) who will be designated by OATSD(PA) as the principal DoD liaison to the production company. The DoD project officer will, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Act as the liaison between the production company and the Secretaries of the Military Departments and maintain contact with OATSD(PA) through appropriate channels. In this regard, the project officer will serve as the central coordinator for billing the producer and monitoring payments to the Government. (See paragraph (d) of this section for billing procedures.)
</P>
<P>(B) Advise the production company on technical aspects and arrange for information necessary to ensure reasonably accurate and authentic portrayals of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(C) Maintain liaison with units and commands assisting the production company to ensure timely arrangements consistent with the approved support.
</P>
<P>(D) Coordinate with installations or commands that intend to provide support to the production to ensure that no material assistance is provided before a Production Assistance Agreement is signed by both the DoD and the production company.
</P>
<P>(E) When DoD assistance to the production requires the production company to reimburse the Government for additional expenses, develop an estimate of expenses based on the assistance requested, and ensure that these are reflected in the Production Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(F) Coordinate with each installation or command providing assets to the production to ensure the production company receives accurate and prompt statements of charges assessed by the Government and that the Government receives sufficient payment for any additional expenses incurred to support the production.
</P>
<P>(G) For project officers assigned to a documentary or a non-documentary television series, maintain close liaison with the producer(s) and writers in developing story outlines. All story ideas considered for further development by the production company should be submitted to OATSD(PA) to provide the earliest opportunity for appraisal.
</P>
<P>(ii) When considered to be in the best interest of the DoD, the assigned project officer may provide “on-scene” assistance to the production company. Military or civilian technical advisor(s) may also be required. In such cases:
</P>
<P>(A) Assignment will be at no additional cost to the Government. The production company will assume payment of such items as travel (air, rental car, reimbursement for fuel, etc.) and per diem (lodging, food, and incidentals).
</P>
<P>(B) Assignment should be for the length of time required to meet preproduction requirements through completion of photography. When feasible, assignment may be extended to cover post-production stages and site clean-up.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional project officer responsibilities, when considered to be in the best interest of the DoD, will include:
</P>
<P>(A) Supervising the use of DoD equipment, facilities, and personnel.
</P>
<P>(B) Attending pertinent preproduction and production conferences, being available during rehearsals to provide technical advice, and being present during filming of all scenes pertinent to the DoD.
</P>
<P>(C) Ensuring proper selection of locations, appropriate uniforms, awards and decorations, height and weight standards, grooming standards, insignia, and set dressing applicable to the military aspects of the production. This applies to both active-duty members and paid civilian actors.
</P>
<P>(D) Arranging for appropriate technical advisers to be present when highly specialized military technical expertise is required.
</P>
<P>(E) Ensuring that the production adheres to the agreed-upon script and list of support to be provided.
</P>
<P>(F) Authorizing minor deviations from the approved script or list of support to be provided, so long as such deviations are feasible, consistent with the safety standards, and in keeping with the approved story line. All other deviations must be referred for approval to OATSD(PA) through appropriate channels.
</P>
<P>(G) In accordance with the Production Assistance Agreement, providing notice of non-compliance, and when necessary, suspending assistance when action by the production company is contrary to stipulations governing the project and suspension is in the best interest of the Department of Defense until the matter is resolved locally or by referral to OATSD(PA).
</P>
<P>(H) Ensuring the project has not complied and is not likely to comply with a demand from the Government of the PRC, the CCP, or an entity under the direction of the PRC or the CCP, to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the PRC, in accordance with section 1257 of Public Law 117-263. The project officer will assess the likelihood of a project's compliance with such a demand and of influence or potential influence from the PRC on a project based on the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The production company's representations, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The production company's representations in the Production Assistance Agreement, including the ongoing obligation to notify the project officer in writing of such a censorship demand, including the terms of such demand, and whether the project has complied or is likely to comply with a demand for such censorship. See paragraph 20 of appendix A to this part and paragraph 18 of appendix B to this part for example language.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Verifiable information from other sources. In the event of such verifiable information, the project officer will coordinate with appropriate OATSD(PA) personnel for the purpose of ensuring that, to the extent feasible, the information is addressed with the production company's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(I) Based on the considerations listed in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii)(H)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section, the project officer will coordinate with appropriate OATSD(PA) personnel to make an informed decision on whether DoD support may be provided or may continue to be provided. As appropriate, OATSD(PA) personnel or the project officer will notify the production company of such decision in accordance with this part and, if applicable, the Production Assistance Agreement. In accordance with the decision, the project officer shall then undertake action to initiate, continue, or terminate DoD support.
</P>
<P>(J) Attending the approval screening of the production, unless the Military Department concerned, OATSD(PA), and the production company mutually agree otherwise.
</P>
<P>(K) Determining whether the production company will need to obtain the written consent of DoD personnel who may be recorded, photographed, or filmed by the production company, including when the production company uses the personally identifying information of DoD personnel. The likeness of DoD personnel in any imagery is included in the meaning of personally identifying information. If the recording or imagery captures medical treatment being performed on DoD personnel, the project officer will require the production company to gain written consent from such DoD personnel. In the case of DoD personnel who are deceased or incapacitated, the project officer will require the production company to gain written consent from the next of kin of the deceased or incapacitated DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Production company procedures</I>—(1) <I>Review of productions.</I> When DoD assistance has been provided to a non-documentary production, the production company must arrange for an official DoD screening in Washington, DC, or at another location agreeable to OATSD (PA), before the production is publicly exhibited. This review should be early, but at a stage in editing when changes can be accommodated, to allow the Department of Defense to confirm military sequences conform to the agreed upon script. For documentary productions, the production company will provide to the DoD project officer and the DoD designee(s) responsible for coordinating production assistance a digital videodisc (DVD) of military-themed photography and the roughly edited version of the production at a stage in editing when changes can be accommodated. In addition to confirming that the military sequences conform to the agreed upon script, treatment, or narrative, this review will also serve to preclude release or disclosure of sensitive, security-related, or classified information; and to ensure that the privacy of DoD personnel is not violated. Should DoD determine that material in the production compromises any of the preceding concerns, DoD will alert the production company of the material, and the production company will remove the material from the production.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit titles.</I> The production company will use its best efforts to place a credit in the end titles immediately above the “Special Thanks” section (if any) that states “Special Thanks to the United States Department of Defense,” with no less than one clear line above and one clear line below such credit acknowledging the DoD assistance provided. Such acknowledgment(s) will be in keeping with industry customs and practices, and will be of the same size and font used for other similar credits in the end titles.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requests for promotional assistance.</I> Pursuant to DoD Directive 5122.05, “Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs” (available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodd/512205_dodd_2017.pdf</I>), the ATSD(PA) is the final authority for military participation in public events, including participation in promotional events for entertainment media productions. The production company will forward requests for promotional assistance to OATSD(PA) in sufficient detail to permit a complete evaluation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Publicity photos and promotional material.</I> The production company will provide DoD with copies of all promotional and marketing materials (<I>e.g.,</I> electronic press kits, one-sheets, and television advertisements) for internal information and historical purposes in documenting DoD assistance to the production.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Copies of completed production.</I> The production company will provide, in a format to be specified in the Production Assistance Agreement, copies of the completed production to DoD for briefings and for historical purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Billing procedures.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2264 and 31 U.S.C. 9701, production companies will reimburse the Government for additional expenses incurred as a result of DoD assistance. When such additional expenses are anticipated, the Production Assistance Agreement ordinarily should require the production company to provide an advance payment or a letter of credit in the amount estimated to comprise the total additional DoD expenses or deposit such funds in escrow.
</P>
<P>(1) Each installation or Military Department or the National Guard Bureau will provide the production company with individual statements of charges assessed for providing assets to assist in the production. Unless agreed otherwise, statements should be presented to the production company within 45 days from the last day of the month in which filming and/or photography is completed to ensure prompt and complete accounting of charges for DoD assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) The production company will be billed for only those expenses that are considered to be additional expenses to the Government. In accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section, the assigned project officer will serve as the central coordinator for submitting statements to the producer and monitoring receipt of payment to the Government. Items for which the costs may be reimbursed to the Government include:
</P>
<P>(i) Petroleum, oil, and lubricants for equipment used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Depot maintenance for equipment used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cost incurred in diverting or moving equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lost or damaged equipment.
</P>
<P>(v) Expendable supplies.
</P>
<P>(vi) Travel and per diem (unless reimbursed under 31 U.S.C. 1353).
</P>
<P>(vii) Civilian overtime.
</P>
<P>(viii) Commercial power or other utilities for facilities kept open beyond normal duty hours or when the production company's consumption of utilities is significant, based on average usage rates.
</P>
<P>(ix) Should the production company not comply with requested clean-up required by production, the project officer will require production company to hire a cleaning company. Should the production company not provide for the necessary clean-up, it will reimburse the Government for any additional expenses incurred by the Government in performing such clean-up.
</P>
<P>(3) The production company will be required to reimburse the Government for all flying hours related to production assistance, including takeoffs, landings, and ferrying aircraft from military locations to filming sites, except when such missions coincide with and can be considered legitimate operational and training missions. The production company will be required to reimburse the Government for all steaming days related to production assistance, including all costs (tugs, harbor pilots and port costs) required to move ships from military locations to filming sites, except when such missions coincide with and can be considered legitimate operational and training missions. These reimbursements will be calculated at the current DoD User Rates.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases where provision of support provides a significant benefit to DoD, the production company will not be required to reimburse the Government for military or civilian manpower (except for civilian overtime) when such personnel are officially assigned to assist in the production. However, this limitation does not apply to Reserve Component personnel assigned in an official capacity, because such members are called to active duty at additional cost to the Government to perform the assigned mission. Reimbursement for Reserve Component personnel in an official capacity will be at composite standard pay and reimbursement rates for military personnel published annually by the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller)/DoD Chief Financial Officer, Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(5) Normal training and operational missions that would occur regardless of DoD assistance to a particular production are not considered to be chargeable to the production company.
</P>
<P>(6) Beyond actual operational expenses, imputed rental charges ordinarily will not be levied for use of structures or equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) The production company will provide proof of adequate industry standard liability insurance, naming DoD as an additional insured entity prior to the commencement of production involving DoD. The production company will maintain, at its sole expense, insurance in such amounts and under such terms and conditions as may be required by DoD to protect its interests in the property involved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Freedom of Information Act release.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552, DoD may receive requests for records concerning DoD engagements with motion picture, television, or other entertainment media companies. Because these documents may contain confidential or privileged commercial information submitted by the motion picture, television, and other entertainment media company, or other non-releasable information, DoD Components processing requests for these records will consider the application of the exemptions in 5 U.S.C. 552 to such records, including the exemption in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 47836, Aug. 10, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 34776, June 9, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.7.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 238—Sample Production Assistance Agreement
</HEAD>
<HD1>U.S. DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE
</HD1>
<HD1>PRODUCTION ASSISTANCE AGREEMENT
</HD1>
<HD1>DoD-[enter number]-[enter year]
</HD1>
<P>The United States Department of Defense (DoD), acting on behalf of the United States of America, hereby expresses its intent, subject to the provisions herein, to provide to [enter name of production entity], hereinafter referred to as the “production company,” the assistance itemized in this Production Assistance Agreement (Agreement) in conjunction with the production of a [enter type of production; e.g., feature motion picture, television series] known at this time as [enter title of production or episode]. This Agreement expresses the terms under which the DoD intends to provide assistance. This Agreement does not authorize the obligation of any United States Government funding, nor should it be construed as a contract, grant, cooperative agreement, other transaction, or any other form of procurement agreement.
</P>
<P>LIST OF MILITARY RESOURCES REQUESTED TO BE PROVIDED IN SUPPORT OF PRODUCTION [or “see Attachment 1”]. The DoD will make reasonable efforts to provide the assistance requested in the request for production assistance, to the extent approved by the DoD, and subject to the limitations contained herein.
</P>
<P>This Agreement is subject to revocation due to non-compliance with the terms herein, with the possible consequence of a temporary suspension or permanent withdrawal of the use of some or all of the military resources identified to assist this project, revocation of the general release for photography and sound recordings (see Paragraph 9), and/or withholding of other approvals incidental to this agreement. Requests for future support from the DoD may also be denied. In the event of dispute, the production company will be given a written notice of non-compliance by the DoD project officer. The production company will have a 72-hour cure period after receipt of written notice of non-compliance. DoD may temporarily suspend support until the non-compliance has been cured or the 72-hour cure period has expired. After the cure period has expired, DoD may permanently withdraw its support for the production. If such Agreement is either suspended or terminated, the sole right of the Production Company to appeal such decision is to the DoD designee responsible for coordinating production assistance for entertainment media operations (“DoD Director of Entertainment Media”). The requirements in Department of Defense Instruction 5410.16 will apply to this Agreement.
</P>
<P>It is understood between the DoD and the production company that:
</P>
<P>1. The DoD project officer, [enter name of project officer], is the official DoD representative responsible for ensuring that the terms of this Agreement are met. The DoD project officer or their designee will be present each day the U.S. military is being portrayed, photographed, or otherwise involved in any aspect of [enter title of production]. The DoD project officer is the military technical advisor, and all military coordination must go through them. The production company will consult with the DoD project officer in all phases of pre-production, production, and post-production that involves or depicts the U.S. military.
</P>
<P>2. The production company will cast actors, extras, doubles, and stunt personnel portraying Service members who conform to individual Military Service regulations governing age, height and weight, uniform, grooming, appearance, and conduct standards. The DoD reserves the right to suspend support if a disagreement regarding the military aspects of these portrayals cannot be resolved in negotiation between the production company and the DoD within the 72-hour cure period. The DoD project officer will provide written guidance specific to each Military Service being portrayed.
</P>
<P>3. The DoD has approved production assistance as in the best interest of the DoD, based on the [enter date] version of the script to the extent agreed upon by the DoD [, and as further described by ____]. The production company must obtain, in advance, DoD concurrence for any subsequent changes proposed to the military depictions made to either the picture or the sound portions of the production before these changes are undertaken.
</P>
<P>4. The operational capability and readiness of the Military Departments and the National Guard Bureau will not be impaired. Unforeseen contingencies affecting national security or other emergency circumstances such as disaster relief may temporarily or permanently preclude the use of military resources. In these circumstances, the DoD will not be liable, financially or otherwise, for any resulting negative impact or prejudice to the production caused by the premature withdrawal or change in support to the production company.
</P>
<P>5. There will be no deviation from established DoD safety and conduct standards. The DoD project officer or their designee will coordinate such standards and compliance therewith. DoD will provide the production company advance notice of such safety or conduct standards upon request.
</P>
<P>6. All DoD property or facilities damaged, used, or altered by the production company in connection with the production will be restored by the production company to the same or better condition, cleaned and free of trash, normal wear and tear excepted, as when they were made available for the production company's use.
</P>
<P>7. The production company will reimburse the U.S. Government for any additional expenses incurred as a result of the assistance rendered for the production of [enter title of production]. The estimated amount will be detailed and included (e.g., “see Attachment 2,”). The production company agrees to post advance payment or a letter of credit in the amount estimated to comprise the total additional DoD expenses or deposit such funds that may be reasonably necessary. The payment or letter of credit will be submitted to the military component(s) designated to provide the assistance, or to another DoD agency, as deemed appropriate by DoD.
</P>
<P>a. The DoD agrees to provide statements of charges assessed by each installation or DoD Component providing assets to assist in the production within 45 days from the last day of the month in which filming is completed.
</P>
<P>b. The production company will be charged for only those expenses that are considered to be additional costs to the DoD in excess of those that would otherwise have been incurred, including, but not limited to fuel, resultant depot maintenance, expendable supplies, travel and per diem, civilian overtime, and lost or damaged equipment.
</P>
<P>c. If the final aggregate of such costs and charges is less than previously anticipated, DoD agrees to remit the exact amount of the difference of any funds posted within 45 days from the last day of the month in which filming is completed.
</P>
<P>8. The production company will be charged for the travel, lodging, per diem, and incidental expenses for the DoD project officer, the DoD Director of Entertainment Media or their designee, and any other assigned military technical and safety advisor(s) whose presence may be required by DoD. For each of these individuals, the production company will provide:
</P>
<P>a. Round-trip air transportation and ground transfers to the production location(s) at which there is a military portrayal or involvement, at times deemed appropriate by the DoD project officer and DoD Director of Entertainment Media.
</P>
<P>b. A full-size vehicle (with fuel and with loss, damage, and collision automobile insurance paid for by the production company) for their personal use during the filming, including for their stay at the production location(s). If parking at the location(s) is not available, transportation to and from the lodging location to the production site will be provided.
</P>
<P>c. Hotel accommodations equivalent to those provided to the production company's crew.
</P>
<P>d. A dedicated, on-location trailer room or other comparable work space with full Internet access, desk, seating, and en-suite toilet.
</P>
<P>9. By approving DoD production assistance for [enter title of production], the DoD hereby provides a general release to the production company for the use of any and all photography and sound recordings of any and all Service members, equipment, and real estate, subject to the limitations in this Agreement (e.g., Paragraphs 12-13).
</P>
<P>10. As a condition of DoD assistance, the production company will:
</P>
<P>a. Indemnify and hold harmless the DoD, and its agencies, officers, and employees against any claims (including claims for personal injury and death, damage to property, and attorneys' fees) arising from the production company's possession or use of DoD property or other assistance in connection with this production of [enter title of production], to include pre-production, post-production, and DoD-provided orientation or training. This provision will not in any event require production company to indemnify or hold harmless the DoD or its agencies, officers, and/or employees from or against any claims arising from defects in DoD property or negligence on the part of DoD or its agencies, officers, or employees.
</P>
<P>b. Provide proof of adequate industry standard liability insurance, naming the DoD as an additional insured entity prior to the commencement of production involving DoD. The production company will maintain, at its sole expense, insurance in such amounts and under such terms and conditions as may be required by the DoD to protect its interests in the property involved.
</P>
<P>c. Not carry onto DoD property any non-prescription narcotic, hallucinogenic, or other controlled substance or alcoholic beverage without prior coordination with the DoD project officer or their designee.
</P>
<P>d. Not carry onto DoD property any real or prop firearms, weapons, explosives, or special effects devices or equipment that cause or simulate explosions, flashes, flares, fire, loud noises, etc., without the prior approval of the DoD project officer and the supporting installation.
</P>
<P>e. Allow DoD public affairs personnel access to the production site(s) to conduct still and motion photography of DoD personnel and assets that are directly supporting the filming, and to allow the DoD the use of production company-generated publicity and marketing materials, such as production stills and electronic press kits. These materials may be used to show DoD viewers how the DoD is assisting in the production; such materials may be viewed by the general public if posted on an open DoD website or released on “The Pentagon Channel” or other publicly accessible media source. Therefore, no DoD personnel will photograph actual filming, talent, or sets without the prior approval of the production company.
</P>
<P>11. The production company will provide the DoD project officer with whatever internal communications equipment it is supplying to production company crew members to communicate on the set during production of military-themed sequences. The production company will also supply the DoD project officer with earphones to monitor military-themed dialogue and other sound recording during these periods.
</P>
<P>12. The production company will screen for the DoD project officer and the DoD Director of Entertainment Media, or their designees, the roughly edited version of the production at a stage in editing when changes can be accommodated to allow the DoD to confirm the military sequences conforms to the agreed script treatment, or narrative description; to preclude release or disclosure of sensitive, security-related, or classified information; and to ensure that the privacy of DoD personnel is not violated. Should the DoD determine that material in the production compromises any of the preceding concerns, the DoD will alert the production company of the material, and the production company will remove the material from the production. The production company will bear the travel, lodging, per diem, and incidental expenses incurred in transporting the DoD project officer and the DoD Director of Entertainment Media, or their designees, to the location where the screening is held.
</P>
<P>13. No photography or sound recordings made with DoD assistance and no DoD photography and sound recordings released for this production will be reused or sold for use in other productions without DoD approval. The foregoing will not prohibit the production company from exploiting the production in any and all ancillary markets, now known or hereafter devised (including, without limitation, television, web content, home video, and theme parks) or from using clips in promotional material relative thereto.
</P>
<P>14. The production company will also provide an official DoD screening of the completed production in Washington, D.C., prior to public exhibition. An alternative screening location may be authorized by the DoD, in negotiation with the production company. In this case, the production company will pay the travel and lodging expenses incidental to the attendance at the screening of the DoD project officer and the Director of Entertainment Media or their designees.
</P>
<P>15. The production company will use its best efforts to place a credit in the end titles immediately above the “Special Thanks” section (if any), substantially in the form of “Special Thanks to the United States Department of Defense,” with no less than one clear line above and one clear line below such credit acknowledging DoD assistance provided. Such acknowledgment(s) will be in keeping with industry customs and practices and will be of the same size and font used for other similar credits in the end titles.
</P>
<P>16. The production company will provide the DoD with five copies of all promotional and marketing materials (<I>e.g.,</I> electronic press kits, one-sheets, and television advertisements) for internal information and historical purposes in documenting DoD assistance to the production.
</P>
<P>17. The production company will provide a minimum of ten DVD copies of the completed production to the DoD for internal briefings and for historical purposes, by overnight shipment to arrive the day following the first domestic airing or commercial distribution of the production. The DoD will not exhibit these video discs publicly or copy them; however, the DoD is allowed to use short clips from them in official presentations by Service members and DoD civilian personnel who were directly involved in providing DoD assistance, for the sole purpose of illustrating DoD support to the production. However, the DoD is prohibited from making these clips available to any other party for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>18. Official activities of DoD personnel in assisting the production must be within the scope of normal military activities, with the exception of the DoD project officer and assigned official technical advisor(s), whose activities must be consistent with their authorized additional duties. DoD personnel in an off-duty, non-official status may be hired by the production company to perform as actors, extras, etc., provided there is no conflict with existing Service or Department regulations. In such cases, these conditions apply:
</P>
<P>a. Contractual agreements are solely between those individuals and the production company; however, they should be consistent with industry standards.
</P>
<P>b. The DoD project officer will ensure that DoD personnel will comply with standards of conduct regulations in accepting employment.
</P>
<P>c. The production company is responsible for any disputes with unions governing the hiring of non-union actors or extras.
</P>
<P>19. The production company may make donations or gifts in-kind to morale, welfare, and recreation programs of the military unit(s) involved; however, donations of this kind are not at all required, and are not in any manner a consideration in the determination of whether or not a production should receive DoD assistance. These donations must be coordinated through the DoD project officer and must comply with law and DoD policies.
</P>
<P>20. The production company acknowledges that, in accordance with Section 1257 of Public Law 117-263, the DoD may not knowingly provide active and direct support to any film, television, or other entertainment project if the project has complied or is likely to comply with a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China.
</P>
<P>a. To the best of the production company's knowledge, information, and belief, this project—including its producers, sponsors, distributors, parent companies, or other affiliates—has not complied with, nor is it likely to comply with, a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China.
</P>
<P>b. At any time, if the production company becomes aware of a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China, they will immediately notify the DoD project officer in writing of such demand, including the terms of such demand, and whether the project has complied or is likely to comply with such demand.
</P>
<P>21. This Agreement and other records relating to DoD assistance may be subject to disclosure pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>22. The undersigned parties warrant that they have the authority to enter into this Agreement and that the consent of no other party is necessary to effectuate the full and complete satisfaction of the provisions contained herein.
</P>
<P>23. This Agreement consists of [enter number] pages including [enter number of attachment(s)]. Each page will be initialed by the undersigned DoD and production company representatives.
</P>
<FP>FOR THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE
</FP>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Signature and Date
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Name of the DoD Representative:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Title and Address
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOR [ENTER PRODUCTION COMPANY]
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Signature and Date
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Name of Production Company Representative:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Title and Address
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34778, June 9, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.36.0.1.7.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 238—Sample Documentary Production Assistance Agreement
</HEAD>
<HD1>U.S. DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE
</HD1>
<HD1>DOCUMENTARY PRODUCTION ASSISTANCE AGREEMENT
</HD1>
<HD1>DoD-[Enter Number]-[Enter Year]
</HD1>
<P>The United States Department of Defense (DoD), acting on behalf of the United States of America, hereby expresses its intent, subject to the provisions herein, to provide to [enter name of production entity], hereinafter referred to as the “production company,” the assistance itemized in this Production Assistance Agreement (Agreement) in conjunction with the production of a documentary known at this time as [enter title of the production]. This Agreement expresses the terms under which the DoD intends to provide assistance. This Agreement does not authorize the obligation of any United States Government funding, nor should it be construed as a contract, grant, cooperative agreement, other transaction, or any other form of procurement agreement.
</P>
<P>LIST OF MILITARY RESOURCES REQUESTED TO BE PROVIDED IN SUPPORT OF PRODUCTION [or “see Attachment 1”]. The DoD will make reasonable efforts to provide the assistance requested in the request for DoD documentary assistance, to the extent approved by the DoD, and subject to the limitations contained herein.
</P>
<P>This Agreement is subject to revocation due to non-compliance with the terms herein, with the possible consequence of a temporary suspension or permanent withdrawal of the use of some or all of the military resources identified to assist this project, revocation of the general release for photography and sound recordings (see Paragraph 9), and/or withholding of other approvals incidental to this agreement. Requests for future support from DoD may also be denied. In the event of dispute, the production company will be given a written notice of non-compliance by the DoD project officer. The production company will have a 72-hour cure period after receipt of written notice of non-compliance. DoD may temporarily suspend support until the non-compliance has been cured or the 72-hour cure period has expired. After the cure period has expired, DoD may permanently withdraw its support for the production. If such Agreement is either suspended or terminated, the sole right of the Production Company to appeal such decision is to the DoD designee responsible for coordinating assistance for documentary productions. The requirements in Department of Defense Instruction 5410.16 will apply to this Agreement.
</P>
<P>It is understood between the DoD and the production company that:
</P>
<P>1. The DoD project officer, [enter name of project officer and contact information], is the official DoD representative responsible for ensuring that the terms of this Agreement are met. The DoD project officer is the military technical advisor, and all military coordination must go through them. The production company will consult with the DoD project officer in all phases of pre-production, production, and post-production that involve or depict the U.S. military. The local unit/installation public affairs officer, or a designated official, may serve as the official onsite DoD representative for this project and will act as the interface between the film crew and military units providing both filming and logistical support.
</P>
<P>2. The DoD has approved production assistance as in the best interest of the DoD, based on the [enter date] version of the script, treatment, or narrative description to the extent agreed upon by the DoD [and as further described by ___]. The production company must obtain, in advance, DoD concurrence for any subsequent changes proposed to the military depictions made to either the picture or the sound portions of the production before these changes are undertaken.
</P>
<P>3. The operational capability and readiness of the Military Departments will not be impaired. Unforeseen contingencies affecting national security or other emergency circumstances such as disaster relief may temporarily or permanently preclude the use of military resources. In these circumstances, the DoD will not be liable, financially or otherwise, for any resulting negative impact or prejudice to the production caused by the premature withdrawal or change in support to the production company.
</P>
<P>4. There will be no deviation from established DoD safety and conduct standards. The DoD project officer, or their designee, will coordinate such standards and compliance therewith. The DoD will provide the production company advance notice of such safety or conduct standards upon request.
</P>
<P>5. All DoD property or facilities damaged, used, or altered by the production company in connection with the production will be restored by the production company to the same or better condition, cleaned and free of trash, normal wear and tear excepted, as when they were made available for the production company's use.
</P>
<P>6. The production company will reimburse the U.S. Government for any additional expenses incurred as a result of the assistance rendered for the production of [enter title of production]. The estimated amount will be detailed and included in this Agreement or as an attachment to it.
</P>
<P>7. The production company will be charged for only those expenses that are considered to be additional costs to the DoD in excess of those that would otherwise have been incurred, including, but not limited to, fuel, resultant depot maintenance, expendable supplies, travel and per diem, civilian overtime, and lost or damaged equipment.
</P>
<P>8. The production company will be charged for the travel, lodging, per diem, and incidental expenses for the DoD project officer, the DoD documentary officer or their designee, and any other assigned military technical and safety advisor(s) whose presence may be required by the DoD. For each of these individuals, the production company will provide:
</P>
<P>a. Round-trip air transportation and ground transfers to the production location(s) at which there is a military portrayal or involvement, at times deemed appropriate by the DoD project officer and the DoD documentary officer.
</P>
<P>b. Hotel accommodations equivalent to those provided to the production company's crew.
</P>
<P>9. By approving DoD production assistance for [enter title of production], the DoD hereby provides a general release to the production company for the use of any and all photography and sound recordings of any and all Service members, equipment, and real estate, subject to the limitations in this Agreement (<I>e.g.,</I> including, but not limited to, Paragraphs 11-14).
</P>
<P>10. As a condition of DoD assistance, the production company will:
</P>
<P>a. Indemnify and hold harmless the DoD and its agencies, officers, and employees against any claims (including claims for personal injury and death, damage to property, and attorneys' fees) arising from the production company's possession or use of DoD property or other assistance in connection with this production of [enter title of production]. This provision will not in any event require the production company to indemnify or hold harmless the DoD or its agencies, officers, or employees from or against any claims arising from defects in DoD property or negligence on the part of DoD or its agencies, officers, or employees.
</P>
<P>b. Provide proof of adequate industry standard liability insurance, naming DoD as an additional insured entity prior to the commencement of production involving DoD. The production company will maintain, at its sole expense, insurance in such amounts and under such terms and conditions as may be required by DoD to protect its interests in the property involved.
</P>
<P>c. Not carry onto DoD property any non-prescription narcotic, hallucinogenic, or other controlled substance or alcoholic beverage without prior coordination with the DoD project officer or their designee.
</P>
<P>d. Not carry onto DoD property any real or prop firearms, weapons, explosives, or special effects devices or equipment that cause or simulate explosions, flashes, flares, fire, loud noises, etc., without the prior approval of the DoD project officer and the supporting installation.
</P>
<P>e. Allow DoD public affairs personnel access to the production site(s) to conduct still and motion photography of DoD personnel and assets that are directly supporting the filming, and to allow the DoD the use of production company-generated publicity and marketing materials. These materials may be used to show DoD viewers how the DoD is assisting in the production; such materials may be viewed by the general public if posted on an open DoD web site or on “The Pentagon Channel” or other publicly-accessible media source. Therefore, no DoD personnel will photograph actual filming without the prior approval of the production company.
</P>
<P>11. The production company will screen for the DoD project officer, and the DoD documentary officer, or their designees, the roughly edited version of the production at a stage in editing when changes can be accommodated to allow DoD to confirm the military sequences conforms to the agreed-upon script, treatment, or narrative description; to preclude release or disclosure of sensitive, security-related, or classified information; and to ensure that the privacy of DoD personnel is not violated. Should the DoD determine that material in the production compromises any of the preceding concerns, the DoD will alert the production company of the material, and the production company will remove the material from the production.
</P>
<P>12. If the recording or imagery to be used in the production captures medical treatment being performed on DoD personnel, the project officer will require the production company to gain written consent from such DoD personnel. In the case of DoD personnel who are deceased or incapacitated, the project officer will require the production company to gain written consent from the next of kin of the deceased or incapacitated DoD personnel.
</P>
<P>13. All DoD uniformed and civilian personnel who are photographed or sound recorded by the documentary production company are considered to be on duty and are precluded from receiving any compensation from the production company or any other party as a result of their appearance in the production or subsequent authorized productions, or as a result of the use of their name, likeness, life story, or other rights for any purpose. Military personnel in an off-duty, non-official status may be hired by the production company to perform as actors, extras, etc., provided there is no conflict with existing Service regulations. In such cases, these conditions apply:
</P>
<P>a. Contractual agreements are solely between those individuals and the production company; however, they should be consistent with industry standards.
</P>
<P>b. The DoD project officer will ensure that DoD personnel will comply with standards of conduct regulations in accepting employment.
</P>
<P>c. The production company is responsible for any disputes with unions governing the hiring of non-union actors or extras.
</P>
<P>14. No photography or sound recordings made with DoD assistance and no DoD photography and sound recordings released for this production will be reused or sold for use in other productions without DoD approval. The foregoing will not prohibit the production company from exploiting the production in any and all ancillary markets, now known or hereafter devised (including, without limitation, television, web content, home video, and theme parks) or from using clips in promotional material relative thereto.
</P>
<P>15. The production company will identify any and all re-enactments in the production by placing the word “RE-ENACTMENT” on the screen, in a legible format and of a legible size, for either the duration of the re-enactment or at the beginning of the re-enactment for a period of not less than 3 seconds and reappearing every subsequent 10 seconds for a period of 3 seconds until complete. This activity will occur for every instance of a re-enactment in the production.
</P>
<P>16. The production company will use its best efforts to place a credit in the end titles immediately above the “Special Thanks” section (if any) substantially in the form of “Special Thanks to the United States Department of Defense,” with no less than one clear line above and one clear line below such credit acknowledging DoD assistance provided. Such acknowledgment(s) will be in keeping with industry customs and practices and will be of the same size and font used for other similar credits in the end titles.
</P>
<P>17. The production company will provide a minimum of five DVD copies of the completed production within 7 working days of initial broadcast to the DoD, for internal briefings and for historical purposes. The DoD will not exhibit these DVDs publicly or copy them; however, the DoD is allowed to use short clips from them in official presentations by Service members and DoD civilian personnel who were directly involved in providing DoD assistance, for the sole purpose of illustrating DoD support to the production. However, the DoD is prohibited from making these clips available to any other party for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>18. The production company acknowledges that, in accordance with Section 1257 of Public Law 117-263, the DoD may not knowingly provide active and direct support to any film, television, or other entertainment project, if the project has complied or is likely to comply with a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China.
</P>
<P>a. To the best of the production company's knowledge, information, and belief, this project—including its producers, sponsors, distributors, parent companies, or other affiliates—has not complied with, nor is it likely to comply with, a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party, to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China.
</P>
<P>b. At any time, if the production company becomes aware of a demand from the Government of the People's Republic of China, the Chinese Communist Party, or an entity under the direction of the People's Republic of China or the Chinese Communist Party to censor the content of the project in a material manner to advance the national interest of the People's Republic of China, they will immediately notify the DoD project officer in writing of such demand, including the terms of such demand, and whether the project has complied or is likely to comply with such demand.
</P>
<P>19. This Agreement and other records relating to DoD assistance may be subject to disclosure pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>20. The undersigned parties warrant that they have the authority to agree to the terms of this Agreement and that the consent of no other party is necessary to effectuate the full and complete satisfaction of the provisions contained herein.
</P>
<P>21. This Agreement consists of [enter number] pages including [enter number of attachment(s)]. Each page will be initialed by the undersigned DoD and production company representatives.
</P>
<FP-1>FOR THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Signature and Date
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Name of the DoD Representative:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Title and Address
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOR [ENTER PRODUCTION COMPANY]
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Signature and Date
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Name of Production Company Representative:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH/>
<FP-1>Title and Address
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34780, June 9, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="239" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 239—HOMEOWNERS ASSISTANCE PROGRAM—APPLICATION PROCESSING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 3374, as amended by Section 1001, ARRA, Public Law 111-5.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 69873, Nov. 16, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 239.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Continues to authorize the Homeowners Assistance Program (HAP) under Section 3374 of title 42, United States Code (U.S.C.), to assist eligible military and civilian Federal employee homeowners when the real estate market is adversely affected directly related to the closure or reduction-in-scope of operations due to Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC). Additionally, in accordance with section 1001, American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA), Public Law 111-5, this part temporarily expands authority provided in section 3374, of title 42 U.S.C., to provide assistance to: Wounded, Injured, or Ill members of the Armed Forces (30 percent or greater disability), wounded Department of Defense (DoD) and Coast Guard civilian homeowners reassigned in furtherance of medical treatment or rehabilitation or due to medical retirement in connection with their disability, surviving spouses of fallen warriors, Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) 2005 impacted homeowners relocating during the mortgage crisis, and Service member homeowners undergoing Permanent Change of Station (PCS) moves during the mortgage crisis. This authority is referred to as “Expanded HAP.”
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy, authority, and responsibilities for managing Expanded HAP and defines eligibility for financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with this part, the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&amp;L)) has overall responsibility and, through the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Installations and Environment (DUSD(I&amp;E)), provides oversight for this program. The Army, acting as the DoD Executive Agent for administering the HAP, uses the Headquarters, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (HQUSACE) to implement the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments (including the U.S. Coast Guard), the Chairman of the Joints Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”). This part for Expanded HAP is applicable until September 30, 2012, or as otherwise extended by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy, in implementing section 3374 of title 42, United States Code, as amended by section 1001 of the ARRA (Pub. L. 111-5), that those eligible (<I>see</I> section 239.6 of this part) to participate in the HAP and Expanded HAP are treated fairly and receive available benefit as quickly as practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Armed Forces.</I> The Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard (see section 101(a) of title 10, U.S.C., as stipulated in section 1001(p) of Public Law 111-5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closing costs.</I> Sellers' closing costs typically include: loan payoff fees; the real estate commission; title insurance; all or part of transfer taxes and escrow fees, if there are any; attorney's fees where applicable; and other fees set by local custom. HAP pays sellers' closing costs that are customary for the region where the home is located. Applicant's realtor or lender can provide the applicant with the normal closing costs for his/her region. HAP will reimburse the seller for limited contributions made to the buyer's portion of closing costs, including appraisal cost and realtor fees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deficiency judgment.</I> Judicial recognition of personal liability under applicable state law against a Service member whose property was foreclosed on or who otherwise passed title to another person for a primary residence through a sale that realized less than the full outstanding mortgage balance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deployment.</I> Performing service in a training exercise or operation at a location or under circumstances that make it impossible or infeasible for the member to spend off-duty time in the housing in which the member resides when on garrison or installation duty at the member's permanent duty station, or home port, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible mortgage.</I> A mortgage secured by the primary residence that was incurred to acquire or improve the primary residence. For a mortgage refinancing the original mortgage(s) or for a mortgage incurred subsequent to purchasing the property, funds from the refinanced or subsequent mortgages must be traced to the purchase of the primary residence or have been used to improve the primary residence. Home improvements that are documented (even if not financed through a subsequent mortgage or line of credit) may be added to the purchase price of the primary residence. Funds from a refinanced or subsequent mortgage that were used for other purposes are not eligible and may not be considered. Benefits will be calculated using the amount of $729,750 for primary residences with an eligible mortgage that exceeds $729,750. The total benefit payable (excluding allowable closing costs) shall not exceed $729,750. The ARRA expanded HAP calculates PFMV as the purchase price plus improvements. Improvements are identified in the Internal Revenue Publication #523 (<I>http://www.irs.gov/publications/p523/ar02.html</I>) which outlines items considered home improvements and distinguishes improvements from repairs and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Forward deployment.</I> Performing service in an area where the Secretary of Defense or the Secretary's designee has determined that Service members are subject to hostile fire or imminent danger under section 310(a)(2) of title 37, U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Primary residence.</I> The one- or two-family dwelling from which employees or members regularly commute (or commuted) to their primary place of duty. Under § 239.6(a) and (b) of this part, the relevant property for which compensation might be offered must have been the primary residence of the member or civilian employee at the time of the relevant wound, injury, or illness. The first field grade officer (or civilian equivalent) in the member or employee's chain of command may certify primary residence status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prior Fair Market Value (PFMV).</I> The PFMV is the purchase price of the primary residence. Benefits will be calculated using the amount of $729,750 as the PFMV for primary residences with a PFMV that exceeds $729,750.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase.</I> Purchase occurs when the applicant enters into a contract for the purchase of the property. In the absence of a contract for purchase, the purchase occurs when the applicant closes on the property.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Reasonable effort to sell.</I> Applicant's primary residence must be listed, actively marketed, and available for purchase for a minimum of 120 days. With regard to marketing, applicant must demonstrate that the asking price was within the current market value of the home as determined by the HQUSACE automated value model (AVM) for no less than 30 days. It is the applicant's responsibility to explain marketing efforts by detailing how the asking price was gradually reduced until it reached the true current fair market value (<I>e.g.,</I> maintaining a log containing date and asking price recorded over period of time indicating number of visits by prospective buyers and offers to purchase). If an applicant is unable to sell the primary residence, the HQUSACE will determine whether efforts to sell were reasonable.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Permanent Change of Station (PCS).</I> The assignment or transfer of a member to a different permanent duty station (PDS), to include relocation to place of retirement, when retirement is mandatory, under a competent authorization/order that does not specify the duty as temporary, provide for further assignment to a new PDS, or direct the military service member return to the old PDS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.5   Benefit elections.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3374 of title 42, U.S.C., as amended by section 1001 of the ARRA, Public Law 111-5, authorizes the Secretary of Defense, under specified conditions, to acquire title to, hold, manage, and dispose of, or, in lieu thereof, to reimburse for certain losses upon private sale of, or foreclosure against, any property improved with a one- or two-family dwelling owned by designated individuals.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General benefits.</I> (1) If an applicant is unable to sell the primary residence after demonstrating reasonable efforts to sell (<I>see</I> Definitions, § 239.4(i) of this part), the Government may purchase the primary residence for the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable percentage (identified by applicant type in § 239.5(a)(4) of this part) of the Prior Fair Market Value (PFMV) of the primary residence, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount of the eligible mortgage(s) that remains outstanding; however, the benefit payable (excluding allowable closing costs) shall not exceed $729,750.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant sells, has sold, or otherwise has transferred title of the primary residence, the benefit calculation shall be the amount of closing costs plus an amount not to exceed the difference between the applicable percentage of the PFMV and the sales price.
</P>
<P>(3) If an applicant is foreclosed upon, the benefit will pay all legally enforceable liabilities directly associated with the foreclosed mortgage (<I>e.g.,</I> a deficiency judgment).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Applicable percentages.</I> (i) If an applicant is eligible under § 239.6(a)(1) or (2) of this part, and sells the primary residence, the applicable percentage shall be 95 percent of the PFMV. In addition, closing costs incurred on the sale may be reimbursed.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an applicant is eligible under § 239.6(a)(1) or (2) of this part, and is unable to sell the primary residence after demonstrating reasonable efforts to sell, the applicable percentage shall be 90 percent of the PFMV. Closing costs incurred on the sale may be reimbursed.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an applicant is eligible under § 239.6(a)(3) or (4) of this part and sells the primary residence, the applicable percentage shall be 90 percent of the PFMV. In addition, closing costs incurred on the sale may be reimbursed.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an applicant is eligible under § 239.6(a)(3) or (4) of this part and is unable to sell the primary residence after demonstrating reasonable efforts to sell, the applicable percentage shall be 75 percent of the PFMV. As noted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, however, the applicant may instead be eligible for payment of the eligible mortgage outstanding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules applicable to all benefit calculations.</I> (1) Prior to making any payment, the Government must determine that title to the property has been transferred or will be transferred as the result of making such payment. If the Government determines that making a benefit payment will not result in the transfer of title to the property, no payment will be made.
</P>
<P>(2) A short sale will be treated as a private sale. If an applicant remains personally liable for a deficiency between the outstanding mortgage and the sale price, the amount of this deficiency may be included in the benefit, provided that the total amount of the benefit does not exceed the difference between 90 percent of the PFMV and the sales price.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of benefits.</I> (1) <I>Private sale:</I> Where a benefit payment exceeds funds required to clear the mortgage and pay closing costs, the amount exceeding the mortgage and closing costs will be paid directly to the applicant. In the case of a short sale, if an applicant remains personally liable for a deficiency between the outstanding mortgage and the sale price, that deficiency shall be paid directly to the lender on behalf of the applicant. If the applicant was fully released from liability after a short sale, no benefit shall be paid to either the applicant or lender.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Government purchase:</I> Benefit is paid directly to the lender in exchange for government possession of the property. Since the benefit reimburses the applicant a percentage of the applicant's purchase price, if the benefit exceeds the mortgage payoff amount, the applicant will receive a benefit payment for the difference between the mortgage payoff and the total benefit payment. If the applicant has a buyer for the home, the payment of real estate commissions when an applicant's mortgage exceeds the property's current fair market value (i.e., upside down) will be accomplished as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Commission will be at the normal and customary rate for the area (normally six percent) on the price agreed upon by the applicant and the buyer and to whom the Government will then sell the home. While the commission payment is the responsibility of the applicant, the Government will make the commission payment for the applicant when the home is sold by the Government to the applicant's buyer contingent upon both the Government acquisition and Government sale contract transactions being completed and recorded. Commissions will be paid to the broker listing the property. The allocation of dollars to real estate agents will be the responsibility of the listing broker.
</P>
<P>(ii) After Government acquisition, the Government will then sell the property to the buyer found by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(iii) No other payment of fees or commissions will be made without the prior approval of HQUSACE.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreclosure:</I> In the case of a foreclosure, benefit is paid to lien holder for legally enforceable liabilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tax Implications.</I> 26 U.S.C. 132(n) exempts Expanded HAP benefits from Federal taxes and is not subject to withholding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.6   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility by Category.</I> Those eligible for benefits under the Expanded HAP include the following categories of persons:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Wounded, Injured, or Ill.</I> (i) Members of the Armed Forces:
</P>
<P>(A) Who receive a disability rating of 30% or more for an unfitting condition (using the Department of Veterans Affairs Schedule for Ratings Disabilities), or who are eligible for Service member's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection Program, or whose treating physician (in a grade of at least captain in the Navy or Coast Guard or colonel in Army, Marine Corps, or Air Force) certifies that the member is likely, by a preponderance of the evidence, to receive a disability rating of 30 percent or more for an unfitting condition (using the Department of Veterans Affairs Schedule for Ratings Disabilities) for wounds, injuries, or illness incurred in the line of duty while deployed, on or after September 11, 2001, and
</P>
<P>(B) Who are reassigned in furtherance of medical treatment or rehabilitation, or due to retirement in connection with such disability, and
</P>
<P>(C) Who need to market the primary residence for sale due to the wound, injury, or illness. (For example, the need to be closer to a hospital or a family member caregiver or the need to find work more accommodating to the disability.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Civilian employees of DoD or the United States Coast Guard (excluding temporary employees or contractors, but including employees of non-appropriated fund instrumentalities):
</P>
<P>(A) Who suffer a wound, injury, or illness (not due to own misconduct), on or after September 11, 2001, in the performance of duties while forward deployed in support of the Armed Forces, whose treating physician provides written documentation that the individual, by a preponderance of the evidence, meets the criteria for a disability rating of 30 percent or more. As described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, this documentation will be certified by a physician in the grade of at least captain in the Navy or Coast Guard or colonel in Army, Marine Corps, or Air Force.
</P>
<P>(B) Who relocate from their primary residence in furtherance of medical treatment, rehabilitation, or due to medical retirement resulting from the wound, injury, or illness, and
</P>
<P>(C) Who need to market the primary residence for sale due to the wound, injury, or illness. (For example, the need to be closer to a hospital or a family member caregiver or the need to find work more accommodating to the disability.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Surviving spouse.</I> The surviving spouse of a Service member or of a civilian employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose spouse dies as the result of a wound, injury, or illness incurred in the line of duty while deployed (or forward deployed for civilian employees) on or after September 11, 2001, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Who relocates from the member's or civilian employee's primary residence within two years of the death of spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>BRAC 2005 members and civilian employees.</I> Members of the Armed Forces and civilian employees of the Department of Defense and the United States Coast Guard (not including temporary employees or contractors) and employees of non-appropriated fund instrumentalities meeting the assignment requirements of § 239.6(b)(4)(i)(A) of this part and who have not previously received HAP benefit payments:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose position is eliminated or transferred because of the realignment or closure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Who accepts employment or is required to relocate because of a transfer beyond the normal commuting distance from the primary residence (50 miles). The new residence must be within 50 miles of the new duty station.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces.</I> Members who have not previously received HAP benefit payments and who are reassigned under permanent PCS orders:
</P>
<P>(i) Dated between February 1, 2006, and September 30, 2012 (subject to availability of funds),
</P>
<P>(ii) To a new duty station or home port outside a 50-mile radius of the member's former duty station or home port.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility based on economic impact, timing, price, orders, and submission of application.</I> (1) <I>Minimum economic impact.</I> (i) BRAC 2005 Members and Civilian Employees as well as permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces whose primary residence have suffered at least a 10 percent personal home value loss from the date of purchase to date of sale. Market value of the home will be verified by the USACE.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicants qualifying as Wounded, Injured, or Ill or as surviving spouse do not need to show minimum economic impact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of purchase and sale.</I> (i) BRAC 2005 Members and Civilian Employees must have been the owner-occupant of their primary residence before May 13, 2005, the date of the BRAC 2005 announcement or have vacated the owned residence as a result of being ordered into on-post housing after November 13, 2004. An owner-occupant is someone who has both purchased and resides in the residence.
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces must have purchased their primary residence before July 1, 2006.
</P>
<P>(iii) Wounded, injured, or ill members and employees and Surviving Spouses are eligible for compensation without respect to the date of purchase.
</P>
<P>(iv) BRAC 2005 Members and Civilian employees and permanently reassigned members must have sold their primary residence between July 1, 2006 and September 30, 2012.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maximum home prior fair market value and eligible mortgage.</I> When calculating benefits, both the PFMV and the eligible mortgage will be capped at $729,750.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Date of assignment; report date; basis for relocation.</I> (i) <I>Date of assignment, report date.</I> (A) BRAC 2005 Members and Civilian Employees must have been assigned to an installation or unit identified for closure or realignment under the 2005 round of the Base Realignment and Closure Act of 1990 on May 13, 2005; transferred from such an installation or unit, or employment terminated as a result of a reduction in force, after November 13, 2004; or transferred from such an installation or activity on an overseas tour after May 13, 2002. BRAC 2005 Members transferred from such an installation or activity after May 13, 2005, are also eligible if, in connection with that transfer the member was informed of a future, programmed reassignment to the installation.
</P>
<P>(B) For initial implementation, permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces must have received qualifying orders to relocate dated between February 1, 2006, and September 30, 2010. These dates may be extended to September 30, 2012, at the discretion of the DUSD(I&amp;E) based on availability of funds.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basis for relocation:</I> Permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces who are reassigned or who otherwise relocate for the following reasons are not eligible for Expanded HAP benefits:
</P>
<P>(A) Members who voluntarily retire prior to reaching their mandatory retirement date.
</P>
<P>(B) Members who are a new accession into the Armed Forces or who are otherwise entering active duty.
</P>
<P>(C) Members who are voluntarily separated or discharged.
</P>
<P>(D) Members whose separation or discharge is characterized as less than honorable.
</P>
<P>(E) Members who request and receive voluntary release from active duty (REFRAD).
</P>
<P>(F) Members who are REFRAD for misconduct or poor performance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications will be processed according to eligibility category in the following order:</I> (1) <I>Wounded, injured, and ill.</I> Within this category, applications will generally be processed in chronological order of the wound, injury, or illness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Surviving spouses.</I> Within this category, applications will generally be processed in chronological order of the date of death of the member or employee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>BRAC 2005 members and civilian employees.</I> Within this category, applications will generally be processed in chronological order of the date of job elimination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanently reassigned members of the Armed Forces.</I> Within this category, applications will generally be processed beginning with the earliest report-not-later-than date of PCS orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.7   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DUSD(I&amp;E), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(AT&amp;L), shall, in relation to the Expanded HAP:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribe and monitor administrative and operational policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine applicable personnel benefits and policies, in coordination with the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) and the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness.
</P>
<P>(3) Serve as senior appeals authority for appeals submitted by applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller) shall, in relation to the Expanded HAP:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement policies and prescribe procedures for financial operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Review and approve financial plans and budgets.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue financing and obligation authorities.
</P>
<P>(4) Administer the DoD Homeowners Assistance Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) The Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Army for Installations and Housing (DASA(I&amp;H)), subject to review by the DUSD(I&amp;E), as the DoD Executive Agent for administering, managing, and executing the HAP, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish detailed policies and procedures for execution of the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain necessary records, prepare reports, and conduct audits.
</P>
<P>(3) Publish regulations and forms.
</P>
<P>(4) Disseminate information on the program.
</P>
<P>(5) Forward copies of completed responses to congressional inquiries and appeals to the DUSD(I&amp;E) for information.
</P>
<P>(6) Serve as the initial approval authority for HAP appeals. The DASA(I&amp;H) may approve appeals and shall forward recommendations for Expanded HAP denial to the DUSD(I&amp;E) for decision.
</P>
<P>(d) The Heads of the DoD Components and the Commandant of the Coast Guard, by agreement of the Secretary of Homeland Security, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate at least one representative at the headquarters level to work with DASA(I&amp;H) and HQUSACE HAP offices.
</P>
<P>(2) Require each installation to establish a liaison with the nearest HAP field office to obtain guidance or assistance on the HAP.
</P>
<P>(3) Supply the HQUSACE HAP office a copy of any internal regulation, instruction, or guidance published relative to the Expanded HAP program.
</P>
<P>(4) Disseminate information on the Expanded HAP and, upon request, supply HAP field offices with data pertaining to the Expanded HAP.
</P>
<P>(e) HQUSACE. (1) <I>Real Estate Community of Practice (CEMP-CR).</I> The Director of Real Estate, acting for the Chief of Engineers, has been delegated authority and responsibility for the execution of HAP. CEMP-CR, as the central office for HAP, is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Supervision, interagency coordination, development of procedures, policy guidance, and processing of appeals forwarded from the districts and HQUSACE Major Subordinate Commands (MSC).
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining an Expanded HAP central office and Expanded HAP field offices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Processing appeals from the MSC where applicant agreement cannot be reached. Such appeals will be forwarded, in turn, to DASA(I&amp;H) for consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Districts.</I> Districts designated by the Director of Real Estate, and their Chiefs of Real Estate, have been delegated the authority to administer, manage, and execute the HAP on behalf of all applicants. Districts (as identified in § 239.9 of this part) are responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Accepting applications (DD Form 1607) for HAP and Expanded HAP benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining the eligibility of each applicant for Expanded HAP assistance using the criterion established by the DUSD(I&amp;E).
</P>
<P>(iii) Determining and advising each applicant on the most appropriate type of assistance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Determining amounts to be paid, consistent with DoD policy, and making payments or authorizing and arranging for acquisition or transfer of the applicant's property.
</P>
<P>(v) Maintaining, managing, and disposing of acquired properties or contracting for such services with private contractors.
</P>
<P>(vi) Processing all appeals, except where applicant agreement cannot be reached. Such appeal cases will be forwarded, in turn, to the MSC, CEMP-CR, and DASA(I&amp;H) for consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>HQUSACE Major Subordinate Commands (MSC).</I> MSCs have been delegated the authority to perform oversight and review of district program management and based upon that review, or in response to specific requests, to provide local policy guidance to the districts and recommend program changes or forward appeals to CEMP-CR for consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.8   Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Revolving fund account.</I> The revolving fund account contains money appropriated in accordance with the ARRA, and receipts from the management, rental, or sale of the properties acquired.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriation, receipts, and allocation.</I> Funds required for administration of the program will be made available by DoD to the HQUSACE. Funds provided will be used for purchase or reimbursement as provided herein and to defray expenses connected with the acquisition, management, and disposal of acquired properties, including payment of mortgages or other indebtedness, as well as the cost of staff services, contract services, Title Insurance, and other indemnities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation of funds.</I> For government acquisition of homes under the authority of this Rule, funds will be committed prior to the Government's offer to purchase is conveyed to the applicant. The obligation will occur upon timely receipt of the accepted offer returned by the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.9   Application processing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance of applications.</I> The district will accept applications (DD Form 1607) for HAP and Expanded HAP benefits submitted through the U.S. Mail or other delivery system direct to the appropriate district office. <I>See</I> § 239.15 of this part for a list of District field offices.
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for benefits by members of the Armed Forces due to eligibility pursuant to § 239.6(a)(4) of this part because of permanent reassignment must be submitted directly to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers field office identified in § 239.15 of this part by U.S. Mail or commercial delivery service, and must be postmarked or deposited with the commercial delivery service no later than September 30, 2012. Applications postmarked or deposited after September 30, 2012, will not be accepted.
</P>
<P>(2) Applications of eligible personnel for benefits due to eligibility pursuant to § 239.6(a)(3) of this part because of BRAC 2005 must be submitted directly to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers field office identified in § 239.15 of this part by U.S. Mail or commercial delivery service, and must be postmarked or deposited with the commercial delivery service no later than September 30, 2012. Applications postmarked or deposited after September 30, 2012, will not be accepted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application Form (DD Form 1607).</I> Should the DD form 1607 not provide all the information required to process Expanded HAP applications, Districts must provide applicants appropriate supplemental instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assignment of application numbers.</I> (1) <I>Assignment of application numbers.</I> When a District receives an application, it will assign the application number and develop and maintain an individual file for each property. Applications for programs located in another District will not be assigned a number, but will be forwarded immediately to the District having jurisdiction. An application number, once assigned, will not be reassigned regardless of the disposition of the original application. Reactivation or reopening of a withdrawn application does not require a new application or application number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of assignment.</I> An application will be numbered in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Agency code.</I> Code to indicate the Federal agency accountable for installation being closed or applicant support:
</P>
<P>(A) 1—Army
</P>
<P>(B) 2—Air Force
</P>
<P>(C) 3—Navy
</P>
<P>(D) 4—Marine Corps
</P>
<P>(E) 5—Defense Agencies
</P>
<P>(F) 6—Non-Defense Agencies
</P>
<P>(G) 7—U.S. Coast Guard
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>District code.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Sacramento: L2
</P>
<P>(B) Savannah: K6
</P>
<P>(C) Fort Worth: M2
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicant category code</I> (military/civilian/wounded/surviving spouse/PCS):
</P>
<P>(A) 1 = Civilian (BRAC)
</P>
<P>(B) 2 = Military (BRAC)
</P>
<P>(C) 3 = Non-appropriated Fund Instrumentalities
</P>
<P>(D) 4 = Military Wounded
</P>
<P>(E) 5 = Civilian Wounded
</P>
<P>(F) 6 = Surviving Spouse (military deceased)
</P>
<P>(G) 7 = Surviving Spouse (civilian employee deceased)
</P>
<P>(H) 8 = Military PCS
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>State:</I> State abbreviation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Installation number:</I> The five digit ZIP Code of the applicant's present (former, if they have already moved) installation, offices, or unit address. Examples are:
</P>
<P>(A) For a BRAC 05 applicant moving from the closing Saint Louis, Missouri, DFAS office to Minneapolis, Minnesota, use the ZIP Code of the city from which he or she is moving, e.g., 63101, for St. Louis, Missouri.
</P>
<P>(B) For wounded warrior or surviving spouse who moved from primary residence, use present installation or home town.
</P>
<P>(C) For Service members who are eligible based on PCS criteria, use ZIP Code of installation from which they depart.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Application Number:</I> Sequential beginning with 0001.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE> 
</PSPACE><P><I>2 K6 2 NH0 3 8 0 30 0 0 1</I>
</P><P>Air Force-SAS Dist.-Mil BRAC-NH-Pease AFB-Applicant #</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE> 
</PSPACE><P><I>1-K 6- 4- NY-1 3 6 0 2-0 0 0 2</I>
</P><P>Army-SAS Dist-Mil Wounded-NY-Ft Drum-Applicant #</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Real Estate Values.</I> (1) Because the PFMV is the purchase price for Expanded HAP, no appraisal of the property is required. Supporting documentation to establish purchase price must be furnished by the applicant. Generally, Form HUD-1 will suffice.
</P>
<P>(2) Districts are responsible for ensuring primary residence values are appropriate and applicants receive deserved benefit payments. Districts will use the CoreLogic AVM to determine the valuation of individual primary residences.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 69873, Nov. 16, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 39628, July 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.10   Management controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management systems.</I> Headquarters, USACE has an existing information management system that manages all information related to the HAP program.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>HAPMIS.</I> The Homeowners Assistance Program Management Information System (HAPMIS) provides program management assistance to field offices and indicators to managers at field offices, regional headquarters and HQUSACE at the Service Member level of detail. The Privacy Act applies to this program and the management information system to protect the privacy of Expanded HAP applicant information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CEFMS.</I> The Corps of Engineers Financial Management System (CEFMS) provides detailed funds execution and tracking, to include:
</P>
<P>(i) Funds issued to field offices for execution accountability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Funds committed and obligated by applicant category, installation, state and county.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>System of Records Notice (SORN).</I> The Privacy Act limits agencies to maintaining “only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required to be accomplished by statute or Executive order of the President.” 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1). The SORN for the Homeowners Assistance Program can be found at <I>http://www.defenselink.mil/privacy/notices/army/A0405-10q_CE.shtml.</I> The Privacy Impact Assessment for the system can be reviewed at: <I>http://www.army.mil/ciog6/privacy.html.</I> Individuals seeking to determine whether information about them is contained in this system should address written inquiries to the Chief of Engineers, Headquarters U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, <I>Attn:</I> CERE-R, 441 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20314-1000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.11   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>Applicant appeals will be processed at the district level and forwarded through HQUSACE for review. The HQUSACE may approve an appeal but must forward any recommendation for denial to the DASA(I&amp;H) for review and consideration. DASA(I&amp;H) may approve an appeal but must forward recommendations for denial to the DUSD(I&amp;E) for decision. The DUSD(I&amp;E) is the senior appeals authority for appeals submitted by applicants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.12   Tax documentation.</HEAD>
<P>For disbursed funds, tax documents (if necessary) will be certified by HQUSACE Finance Center and distributed to applicants and the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.13   Program performance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>HQUSACE will prepare monthly program performance reviews using the HAPMIS; HQUSACE Annual Management Command Plan and Management Control Checklist. In addition, program monitoring will also be conducted (through HAPMIS and CEFMS reports) at the Headquarters Department of the Army and at the DUSD(I&amp;E) levels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.14   On-site inspections.</HEAD>
<P>The HQUSACE and its major subordinate commands may conduct periodic on-site inspections of district offices and monitor program execution through HAPMIS and CEFMS reports.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.15." NODE="32:2.1.1.1.37.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.15.   List of HAP Field Offices.</HEAD>
<HD1>HAP FIELD OFFICE
</HD1>
<P>U.S. Army Engineer District, Savannah, Corps of Engineers, Attn: CESAS-RE-HM, 100 West Oglethorpe Avenue, Savannah, Georgia 31401-3604, 1-800-861-8144, Internet Address: <I>http://www.sas.usace.army.mil.</I>
</P>
<HD1>HAP CENTRAL OFFICE
</HD1>
<P>Homeowners Assistance Program, HQ U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Real Estate Directorate, Military Division, 441 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20314-1000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39629, July 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="240" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 240—DOD INFORMATION ASSURANCE SCHOLARSHIP PROGRAM (IASP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2200, 10 U.S.C. 7045.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 14955, Mar. 14, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 240.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy, responsibilities and procedures for executing the DoD Information Assurance Scholarship Program (IASP).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”). The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, and the Marine Corps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>CAE.</I> A collective term that refers to both CAE/IAE and CAE-R.
</P>
<P><I>CAE/IAE.</I> An institution of higher education that has met established criteria for IA education and has been jointly designated by the Department of Homeland Security and the NSA as a national center of excellence.
</P>
<P><I>CAE-R.</I> An institution of higher education which has met established criteria for IA research and has been jointly designated by the Department of Homeland Security and the NSA as a national center of excellence.
</P>
<P><I>IA.</I> For the purpose of this part, the term “IA” includes computer security, network security, cybersecurity, cyber operations, and other relevant IT related to information assurance pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200e.
</P>
<P><I>IT.</I> For the purpose of this part, the term “IT” refers to any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. “IT” includes computers, ancillary equipment, software, firmware, and similar procedures, services (including support services), and related resources.
</P>
<P><I>Institution of Higher Education.</I> For the purpose of this part and as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1001, an “institution of higher education” refers to an educational institution in any state that:
</P>
<P>(1) Admits as regular students only individuals who possess a certificate of graduation from a school providing secondary education, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) Is legally authorized to provide a program of education beyond secondary education;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides an educational program that awards bachelor's degrees, or provides no less than a 2-year program that is acceptable for full credit toward a degree;
</P>
<P>(4) Is a public or other nonprofit institution; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association, or if not so accredited, is an institution that has been granted preaccreditation status by such an agency or association that has been recognized by the Secretary of Education for the granting of preaccreditation status, and the Secretary has determined that there is satisfactory assurance that the institution will meet the accreditation standards of such an agency or association within a reasonable time.
</P>
<P><I>Partner University.</I> A CAE that has joined in academic partnership with the NDU IRMC to award master's and doctoral degrees through the DoD IASP.
</P>
<P><I>Principal Investigator.</I> The primary point of contact at each CAE, responsible for publicizing the DoD IASP to potential recruitment students and working with students during the application process. Principal investigators also serve as the primary contact for recruitment students and retention students who have transferred from the IRMC to a partner university.
</P>
<P><I>Recruitment Program.</I> The portion of the DoD IASP available to qualified non-DoD students currently enrolled or accepted for enrollment at a designated CAE.
</P>
<P><I>Recruitment Students.</I> Non-DoD students currently enrolled at a designated CAE who are active participants in the DoD IASP recruitment program.
</P>
<P><I>Retention Program.</I> The portion of the DoD IASP available to full-time, active duty Service personnel and permanent civilian employees of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P><I>Retention Students.</I> Full-time active duty Service personnel and permanent civilian employees of the DoD Components who are active participants in the DoD IASP retention program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense shall recruit, develop, and retain a highly skilled cadre of professionals to support the critical IA and information technology (IT) management, technical, digital and multimedia forensics, cyber, and infrastructure protection functions required for a secure network-centric environment.
</P>
<P>(b) The DoD IASP shall be used to attract new entrants to the DoD IA and IT workforce and to retain current IA and IT personnel necessary to support the DoD's diverse warfighting, business, intelligence, and enterprise information infrastructure requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) The academic disciplines, with concentrations in IA eligible for IASP support include, but are not limited to: biometrics, business management or administration, computer crime investigations, computer engineering, computer programming, computer science, computer systems analysis, cyber operations, cybersecurity, database administration, data management, digital and multimedia forensics, electrical engineering, electronics engineering, information security (assurance), information systems, mathematics, network management/operations, software engineering, and other similar disciplines as approved by DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO).
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to availability of funds, the DoD may provide grants to institutions of higher education for faculty, curriculum, and infrastructure development and academic research to support the DoD IA/IT critical areas of interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish overall policy and guidance to conduct and administer the DoD IASP pursuant to Deputy Secretary of Defense Memorandum, “Delegation of Authority and Assignment of Responsibility under section 922 of the Floyd D. Spence National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001,” October 30, 2000.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop an annual budget recommendation to administer the DoD IASP and provide academic scholarships and grants in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2200 and 7045.
</P>
<P>(3) Oversee program administration and execution by the Director, National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
</P>
<P>(4) Chair the DoD IASP Steering Committee, established pursuant to DoD Instruction 5105.18, to oversee and provide program direction over:
</P>
<P>(i) Student eligibility criteria.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grant and capacity building selection criteria for awards to CAEs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Final approval for the allocation of individual DoD IASP scholarships and grants.
</P>
<P>(iv) Communications and marketing plans.
</P>
<P>(v) DoD IASP metrics and analysis of performance results, including student and CAE/IAE feedback.
</P>
<P>(b) The DIRNSA, under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve as the DoD IASP Executive Administrator to:
</P>
<P>(i) Implement the DoD IASP and publish in writing all of the criteria, procedures, and standards required for program implementation. Responsibilities are to:
</P>
<P>(A) Implement the scholarship application and selection procedures for recruitment and retention students.
</P>
<P>(B) Establish procedures for recruiting students to meet service obligations through employment with a DoD Component upon graduation from their academic program.
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that all students' academic eligibility is maintained, service obligations are completed, and that reimbursement obligations for program disenrollment are fulfilled.
</P>
<P>(D) Establish procedures for CAEs and employing DoD Components to report on students' progress.
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain appropriate accounting for all funding disbursements.
</P>
<P>(F) Execute the debt collection process on the behalf of the DoD and in accordance with Volume 5 of DoD 7000.14-R for scholarship recipients who fail to complete a period of obligated service resulting from their participation in the DoD IASP. This includes, but is not limited to, exercising the authority under 10 U.S.C. 2200a(e), consistent with the relevant provisions of 37 U.S.C. 303a(e), to determine an amount owed and to take necessary actions to collect the amount owed, and to act upon requests for waivers, in whole or in part, when determined to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to availability of funds, make grants on behalf of the DoD CIO to institutions of higher education to support the establishment, improvement, and administration of IA education programs pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200, 2200b, and 7045.
</P>
<P>(A) Develop and implement the annual solicitation for proposals for grants.
</P>
<P>(B) Coordinate the review process for grant proposals.
</P>
<P>(C) Distribute grant funding and maintain appropriate accounting.
</P>
<P>(D) Establish annual reporting procedures for grant recipients (CAEs) to detail the resulting accomplishments of their grant implementations.
</P>
<P>(E) Obtain written documentation from grant recipients (CAEs) on how grant funding was utilized and the resulting accomplishments.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide representation to the DoD IASP Steering Committee and provide briefings and reports, as required, to effect proper oversight by the DoD CIO and the DoD IASP Steering Committee.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain databases to support the analysis of performance results.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chancellor of the Information Resources Management College (IRMC) of the National Defense University, under the authority, direction and control of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish partner university agreements with CAEs to provide master's and doctoral degree opportunities to current, former, and future IRMC students who are awarded retention scholarships.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain records of DoD IASP student enrollments and graduates and provide data to the DoD IASP Executive Administrator and the DoD CIO as required.
</P>
<P>(3) Serve as the liaison between IRMC retention students, their follow-on partner university, and the DoD IASP Executive Administrator.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide academic representation to the DoD IASP Steering Committee and provide briefings and reports, as required, on the IRMC portion of the DoD IASP retention program.
</P>
<P>(d) The Heads of the DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the requirement for DoD IASP usage as a primary vehicle to recruit and retain IA and IT personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the office of primary responsibility for administering the DoD IASP within their DoD Component.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish DoD Component-specific nomination, selection, and post-academic assignment criteria for DoD IASP retention students.
</P>
<P>(i) Nominated personnel shall be high performing employees who are rated at the higher levels of the applicable performance appraisal system and demonstrate sustained quality performance with the potential for increased responsibilities. All individuals must be US citizens and be able to obtain a security clearance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nominations must fulfill specific personnel development requirements for both the individual nominee and the nominating organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salaries of retention scholarship recipients shall be paid by the nominating DoD Component. When deemed necessary, DoD Components are responsible for personnel backfill while recipients are in school.
</P>
<P>(iv) Payback assignments of graduated students shall provide relevant, follow-on utilization of academic credentials in accordance with DoD Component mission requirements.
</P>
<P>(v) Retention students shall fulfill post-academic service obligations pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200 and 7045. Members of the Military Services shall serve on active duty while fulfilling designated DoD Component service obligations. DoD civilian employees shall sign a continued service agreement that complies with section 2200 of title 10, United States Code, prior to commencement of their education, to continue service within the Department of Defense upon conclusion of their education, for a period equal to three times the length of the education period. The period of obligated service is in addition to any other period for which the recipient is obligated to serve on active duty or in the civil service, as the case may be. Individuals, who fail to complete the degree program satisfactorily, or to fulfill the service commitment, shall be required to reimburse the United States pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200a(e) for payments paid to them through the DoD IASP unless a waiver, in whole or in part, is granted by the DoD IASP Executive Administrator. Head of Components are responsible to ensure enforcement of these agreements.
</P>
<P>(4) Determine annual billet requirements for recruitment students (the number of DoD IASP recruitment scholars who will be placed in full-time employment positions with the Component upon graduation). This is required to ensure that IASP recruitment graduates have placement upon graduation. DoD Components who identify billet requirements for recruitment students shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess DoD Component skill requirements to determine skill gaps and providing the annual recruitment student requirement to the DoD IASP Executive Administrator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Participate in the selection process for recruitment students.
</P>
<P>(iii) Coordinate and process security clearances for selected recruitment scholarship recipients.
</P>
<P>(iv) Allocate billets for an internship period (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(v) Assign mentors to recruitment students.
</P>
<P>(vi) Determine post-academic billet assignments for recruitment students prior to the end of the students' academic program.
</P>
<P>(5) Participate in the evaluation processes to assess and recommend improvements to the DoD IASP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.6   Retention program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD IASP retention program is open to qualified DoD civilian employees and Service members. Active duty military officers and permanent DoD civilian employees may apply for a master's or doctoral degree program; enlisted personnel may apply for a master's program. DoD Components may further restrict the eligibility of applicants based on Component requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) There are three DoD academic institutions participating in the DoD IASP: the Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT) at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base in Dayton, Ohio; the IRMC of the National Defense University (NDU) at Fort McNair in Washington, DC; and the Naval Postgraduate School (NPS) in Monterey, California. Students at AFIT and NPS attend full-time programs. Participants may attend the IRMC either full or part-time to complete the first part of their required courses and then select a follow-on partner university to complete their remaining degree requirements either full or part-time. There are no part-time doctoral programs. All candidates must meet the eligibility requirements for their selected program, which are outlined in DoD IASP Academic Programs for Retention Students.
</P>
<P>(1) Military officers and DoD civilian employees may apply to attend any one of the three DoD academic institutions.
</P>
<P>(2) Enlisted personnel may attend AFIT or the NPS, which is authorized to enroll enlisted DoD IASP participants pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200 and 7045.
</P>
<P>(c) Students must select a degree program in one of the academic disciplines listed in § 240.4(c) and in accordance with DoD Component requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Scholarship funding for AFIT, IRMC, the partner universities, and NPS includes full tuition costs and required fees and books. All travel costs and necessary position back-fill for individuals selected for the program must be paid by the nominating DoD Component. Retention students shall continue to receive their military pay or civilian salary from their DoD Component throughout their course of study.
</P>
<P>(e) DoD Component nominations are due by January 31st each year. The student nomination process is outlined in the DoD IASP Nomination Process for Retention Students.
</P>
<P>(f) Retention students shall fulfill post-academic service obligations pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200a and 7045. Service members shall serve on active duty while fulfilling designated DoD Component service obligations. DoD civilian employees shall sign a continued service agreement that complies with 10 U.S.C. 2200a, prior to commencement of their education, to continue service within the DoD upon conclusion of their education, for a period equal to three times the length of the education period. The period of obligated service is in addition to any other period for which the recipient is obligated to serve on active duty or in the civil service, as the case may be. Individuals who fail to complete the degree program satisfactorily or to fulfill the service commitment shall be required to reimburse the United States pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200a(e) for payments made to them through the DoD IASP unless a waiver, in whole or in part, is granted by the DoD IASP Executive Administrator.
</P>
<P>(g) DoD IASP retention participants are obligated to remain in good standing in their degree programs, to continue in service as civilian employees or members of the Military Services, and where applicable, to repay program costs for failure to complete the degree program satisfactorily, or to fulfill the service commitment pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200 and 7045, DoD policy, and the policies of the respective DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.38.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.7   Recruitment program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Annually, in November, the DoD IASP Executive Administrator announces a solicitation for proposal from CAEs interested in participating in the DoD IASP. Graduate students and rising junior or senior undergraduates accepted at or enrolled in one of these institutions may apply for full scholarships to complete a bachelor's, master's, or a doctoral degree, or graduate (post-baccalaureate) certificate program in one of the disciplines defined in § 240.4(c). Student application requirements are included in the solicitation proposal released by NSA.
</P>
<P>(b) DoD Component recruitment student requirements are due to the DoD IASP Executive Administrator each year by January 31st.
</P>
<P>(c) The student selection process occurs annually in April. The selection process is outlined in the DoD IASP Nomination Process for Recruitment Students.
</P>
<P>(d) Recruitment students are provided scholarships, covering the full cost of tuition and selected books and fees. Students are also provided a stipend to cover room and board expenses.
</P>
<P>(e) Recruitment students may be required to complete a student internship, depending on the length of their individual scholarship. For example, if a scholar receives a scholarship their junior year, an internship is required. If they receive the scholarship their senior year, an internship is not required. DoD Components typically use the authority granted in 5 CFR 213.3102(r) to arrange the internship.
</P>
<P>(f) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200a, all recruitment students shall sign a service agreement prior to commencement of their education and incur a service commitment, which commences after the award of the DoD IASP authorized degree on a date to be determined by the relevant DoD Component. The obligated service in DoD shall be as a civilian employee of the Department or as an active duty enlisted member or officer in one of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals selecting employment in the civil service shall incur a service obligation of 1 year of service to the DoD upon graduation for each year or partial year of scholarship they receive, in addition to an internship, if applicable. Pursuant to the authority granted in 10 U.S.C. 2200a(g) and the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness Memorandum, “Implementation Authority to Employ Individuals Completing Department of Defense Scholarship or Fellow Programs,” April 5, 2010. DoD Components may appoint DoD IASP graduates to IT positions as members of the excepted service. Upon satisfactory completion of 2 years of substantially continuous service, DoD Components may then convert these individuals to career or career-conditional appointments without competition.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals enlisting or accepting a commission to serve on active duty in one of the Military Services shall incur a service obligation of a minimum of 4 years on active duty in that Service upon graduation. The Military Services may establish a service obligation longer than 4 years, depending on the occupational specialty and type of enlistment or commissioning program selected.
</P>
<P>(g) Individuals in the recruitment program who fail to complete the degree program satisfactorily or to fulfill the service commitment upon graduation shall be required to reimburse the United States pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2200a(e) for payments made to them through the DoD IASP unless a waiver, in whole or in part, is granted by the DoD IASP Executive Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="241" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 241—PILOT PROGRAM FOR TEMPORARY EXCHANGE OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY PERSONNEL


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 111-84, sec. 1110, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 36917, June 20, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 241.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement section 1110 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010 (Pub. L. 111-84), which authorizes DoD to implement a Pilot Program for the Temporary Exchange of Information Technology (IT) Personnel. This statute authorizes the temporary assignment of DoD IT employees to private sector organizations. This statute also gives DoD the authority to accept private sector IT employees assigned under the Pilot. This program is referred to as the Information Technology Exchange Program (ITEP) pilot.
</P>
<P>(b) DoD Component authorized approving official may approve assignments as a mechanism for improving the DoD workforce's competency in using IT to deliver government information and services. DoD Component authorized approving official may not make assignments under this part to circumvent personnel ceilings, or as a substitute for other more appropriate personnel decisions or actions. Approved assignments must meet the strategic program goals of the DoD Components. The benefits to the DoD Components and the private sector organizations are the primary considerations in initiating assignments; not the desires or personal needs of an individual employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part:
</P>
<P><I>Detail</I> means the assignment of a DoD employee to a private sector organization without a change of position; or the assignment of a private sector employee to a DoD Component without a change of position.
</P>
<P><I>DoD employee</I> means a Federal civilian employee of the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptional employee</I> means performance meets or exceeds all standards established at the fully successful level or above and makes significant contributions towards achieving the organizational goals. Participating organizations should target highly motivated, disciplined employees.
</P>
<P><I>Information technology (IT)</I> as defined means use of computers, ancillary equipment (including imaging peripherals, input, output, and storage devices necessary for security and surveillance), peripheral equipment designed to be controlled by the central processing unit of a computer, software, firmware and similar procedures, services (including support services), and related resources. IT includes the planning, organizing, staffing, directing, integrating, or controlling of information technology, including occupational specialty areas such as systems administration, IT project management, network services, operating systems, software application, cyber security, enterprise architecture, policy and planning, internet/web services, customer support, data management and systems analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Private sector organization</I> means nonpublic or commercial individuals and businesses, nonprofit organizations, academia, scholastic institutions, and nongovernmental organizations.
</P>
<P><I>Small business concern</I> means a business concern that satisfies the definitions and standards by the Administrator of the Small Business Administration (SBA) as defined by 5 U.S.C. 3703(e)(2)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.3   Assignment authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense may with the agreement, of the private sector organization concerned, arrange for the temporary assignment of a DoD employee to a private sector organization or accept a private sector employee from a private sector organization to a DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.4   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an ITEP detail, a DoD or private sector employee must:
</P>
<P>(1) Work in the field of IT;
</P>
<P>(2) Be equivalent at the GS-11 level or above
</P>
<P>(3) Be considered an exceptional employee, meet or exceed successful performance levels and makes significant contributions towards achieving organizational goals;
</P>
<P>(4) Be expected to assume increased IT responsibilities in the future;
</P>
<P>(5) Be currently employed by an organization interested in participating in the ITEP pilot; and
</P>
<P>(6) Obtain supervisor and company approval before an employee can participate in an ITEP detail.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the DoD employee must be serving under a career or career-conditional appointment or an appointment of equivalent tenure in the excepted service.
</P>
<P>(c) The private sector employee must meet citizenship requirements for Federal employment in accordance with 5 CFR 7.3 and 338.101, as well as any other statutory requirements. When a position requires a security clearance, the person must possess, or be able to obtain an appropriate security clearance.
</P>
<P>(d) Proposed assignment meets applicable requirements of section 209(b) of the E-Government Act of 2002.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.5   Written agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before a detail begins, the DoD Component authorized approving official, private sector organization authorized approving official and the employee to be assigned to the ITEP detail must sign a three-party agreement. Prior to the agreement being signed the relevant legal office for the DoD Component shall review and approve the agreement. The agreement must include, but is not limited to the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) The duties to be performed and length of detail;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the core IT competencies and technical skills that the detailee will be expected to enhance or acquire;
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of the supervisor of detailee.
</P>
<P>(b) The agreement shall require DoD employees, upon completion of the assignment serve in the civil service for a period equal to the length of the detail; and
</P>
<P>(c) Provide that if the employee of the DoD or of the private sector organization (as the case may be) fails to carry out the agreement, such employee shall be liable to the United States for payment of all expenses of the assignment, unless that failure was for good and sufficient reason as determined by the Secretary of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.6   Length of details.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A detail shall be for a period of not less than 3 months and not more than 1 year, and may be extended in 3-month increments for a total of not more than 1 additional year by DoD Components and private sector organizations authorized approving officials.
</P>
<P>(b) This extension may be granted in 3-month increments not to exceed 1 year. No assignment may commence after September 30, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 36917, June 20, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 27488, May 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.7   Termination.</HEAD>
<P>An assignment may, at any time and for any reason be terminated by the DoD or the private sector organization concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.8   Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DoD employee assigned under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Remains a Federal employee without loss of employee rights and benefits attached to that status. These include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Consideration for promotion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Leave accrual;
</P>
<P>(iii) Continuation of retirement benefits and health, life, and long-term care insurance benefits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Pay increases the employee otherwise would have received if he or she had not been assigned;
</P>
<P>(2) Remains covered for purposes of the Federal Tort Claims Act, and for purposes of injury compensation as described in 5 U.S.C. chapter 81; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to any action that may impact the employee's position while he or she is assigned.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee of a private sector organization:
</P>
<P>(1) May continue to receive pay and benefits from the private sector organization from which such employee is assigned;
</P>
<P>(2) Is deemed to be an employee of the DoD for the purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Chapter 73 of title 5, United States Code (Suitability, Security, and Conduct);
</P>
<P>(ii) Sections 201 (Bribery of Public Officials and Witnesses), 203 (Compensation to Members of Congress, Officers and Employees Against and Other Matters Affecting the Government), 205 (Activities of Officers and Employees in Claims Against Other Matters Affecting the Government), 207 (Restrictions on Former Officers, Employees, and Elected Officials of the Executive and Legislative Branches), 208 (Acts Affecting a Personal Financial Interest), 209 (Salary of Government Officials and Employees Payable only by the United States), 603 (Making Political Contributions), 606 (Intimidation to Secure Political Contributions), 607, (Place of Solicitation), 643 (Accounting Generally for Public Money), 654 (Officer or Employee of the United States Converting Property of Another, 1905 (Disclosure of Confidential Information Generally), and 1913 (Lobbying with Appropriated Moneys) of title 18, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sections 1343, 1344, and 1349(b) of title 31, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal Tort Claims Act and any other Federal tort liability statute;
</P>
<P>(v) The Ethics in Government Act of 1978;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 1043 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 27 of the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) May not have access to any trade secrets or to any other nonpublic information which is of commercial value to the private sector organization from which he or she is assigned;
</P>
<P>(4) Is subject to such regulations as the President may prescribe;
</P>
<P>(5) Is covered by 5 U.S.C. chapter 81, Compensation for Work Injuries; and
</P>
<P>(6) Does not have any right or expectation for Federal employment solely on the basis of his or her assignment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.9   Costs and reimbursements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of Salary and Allowances.</I> The lending organization (DoD or private sector organization) has full responsibility for payment of all salary and allowances to their employee participating in an ITEP pilot. Both DoD and private sector employees participating in the ITEP pilot are entitled to all benefits afforded to similar employees of their respective lending organizations, including medical care, according to subscribed plans and Worker's Compensation for injuries sustained in the line of duty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business Training and Travel Expenses.</I> The engaging organization (recipient of the ITEP pilot participant) may pay for any business training and travel expenses incurred by the employee while participating in the ITEP pilot.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition.</I> A private sector organization may not charge the DoD or any agency of the Federal Government, as direct or indirect costs under a Federal contract, for the costs of pay or benefits paid by that organization to an employee assigned to a DoD Component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.10   Small business consideration.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD CIO on behalf of the Secretary of Defense shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that, of the assignments made each year, at least 20 percent are from small business concerns (as defined by 5 U.S.C. 3703(e)(2)(A)).
</P>
<P>(b) Take into consideration the questions of how assignments might be used to help meet the needs of the DoD with respect to the training of employees in IT.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.11   Numerical limitation.</HEAD>
<P>The ITEP Pilot is an opportunity for the exchange of knowledge, experience and skills between DoD and the private sector. The DoD has the flexibility to send their employees to the private sector or receive private sector employees, or participate in a one-for-one exchange. In no event may more than 10 employees participate in assignments under this section at any given time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.12   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each of fiscal years 2010 through 2018, the Secretary of Defense shall submit annual reports to the congressional defense committees, not later than 1 month after the end of the fiscal year involved, a report on any activities carried out during such fiscal year, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Respective organizations to and from which an employee is assigned;
</P>
<P>(2) Positions those employees held while they were so assigned;
</P>
<P>(3) Description of the tasks they performed while they were so assigned; and
</P>
<P>(4) Discussion of any actions that might be taken to improve the effectiveness of the Pilot program, including any proposed changes in the law.
</P>
<P>(b) These reports will be prepared and submitted by DoD CIO in coordination with DoD Components participating in the Pilot, to the appropriate congressional committees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 36917, June 20, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 27488, May 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.39.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.13   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD CIO is responsible for administering, coordinating and implementing the Pilot Program for the Temporary Exchange of Information Personnel, referred to as the Information Technology Exchange Program (ITEP) pilot. The DoD CIO will coordinate with DoD Components.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="243" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 243—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE RATEMAKING PROCEDURES FOR CIVIL RESERVE AIR FLEET CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 366 National Defense Authorization Act for FY12 (Pub. L. 112-81)
</PSPACE><P>10 U.S.C. Chap 931, Section 9511a.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 30358, May 28, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 243.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense (Secretary) is required to determine a fair and reasonable rate of payment for airlift services provided to the Department of Defense (DoD) by civil air carriers and operators (hereinafter collectively referred to as “air carriers”) who are participants in the Civil Reserve Air Fleet program (CRAF). This regulation provides the authority and methodology for such ratemaking and designates the United Stated Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) as the rate setter for negotiated uniform rates for DoD airlift service contracts in support of the CRAF. This methodology supports a viable CRAF mobilization base that ensures sufficient capacity in time of war, contingency and humanitarian relief efforts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This section governs all contracts with the Department of Defense where awards to the air carriers, either through individual contracts or teaming arrangements, are commensurate with the relative amount of airlift capability committed to the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Air carrier.</I> “Air carrier” is defined in 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(2) as “a citizen of the United States undertaking by any means, directly or indirectly, to provide air transportation.” Specifically to this ratemaking procedure, individuals or entities that operate commercial fixed and rotary wing aircraft in accordance with the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR chapter I) or equivalent regulations issued by a country's Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) and which provide air transportation services are included. Commercial air carriers under contract with, or operating on behalf of, the DoD shall have a Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) or CAA certificate. The policy contained in this directive applies only to air carriers operating fixed wing aircraft under CRAF international airlift services.
</P>
<P><I>Aircraft class.</I> Distinct categories of aircraft with similar broad characteristics established for ratemaking purposes. These categories include aircraft such as large passenger, medium passenger, large cargo, etc. They are determined by USTRANSCOM and identified in Published Uniform Rates and Rules for International Service Appendix A (Published in FedBizOps).
</P>
<P><I>Civil Reserve Air Fleet International Airlift Services.</I> Those services provided in support of the Civil Reserve Air Fleet contract, whereby contractors provide personnel, training, supervision, equipment, facilities, supplies and any items and services necessary to perform international long-range and short-range airlift services during peacetime and during CRAF activation in support of the Department of Defense (DoD). Implements the Fly CRAF Act. See 49 U.S.C. 41106.
</P>
<P><I>Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) Assured Business Guarantees. See</I> 10 U.S.C. 9515.
</P>
<P><I>Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) Program.</I> The Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) is a wartime readiness program, based on the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended, (50 U.S.C. App. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>), and Executive Order 13603 (National Defense Resource Preparedness), March 16, 2012, to ensure quantifiable, accessible, and reliable commercial airlift capability to augment DoD airlift and to assure a mobilization base of aircraft available to the Department of Defense for use in the event of any level of national emergency or defense-orientated situations. As a readiness program, CRAF quantifies the number of passenger and cargo commercial assets required to support various levels of wartime requirements and thus allows DoD to account for their use when developing and executing contingency operations/war plans. The CRAF is composed of U.S. registered aircraft owned or controlled by U.S. air carriers specifically allocated (by FAA registration number) for this purpose by the Department of Transportation. As used herein, CRAF aircraft are those allocated aircraft, which the carrier owning or otherwise controlling them, has contractually committed to the DoD, under stated conditions, to meet varying emergency needs for civil airlift augmentation of the military airlift capability. The contractual commitment of the aircraft includes the supporting resources required to provide the contract airlift. In return for a commitment to the CRAF program, airlines are afforded access to day-to-day business under various DoD contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Historical Costs.</I> Those allowable costs for airlift services for a 12 month period, gathered from Department of Transportation (DOT) Uniform System of Accounts and Reports (USAR) (hereinafter referred to as “Form 41”) reporting (required by 14 CFR parts 217 and 241).
</P>
<P><I>Long-range aircraft.</I> Aircraft equipped with navigation, communication, and life support systems/emergency equipment required to operate in trans-oceanic airspace, and on international routes, for a minimum distance of 3,500 nautical miles, while carrying a productive payload (75 percent of the maximum payload it is capable of carrying.) Additionally aircraft must be equipped and able to operate worldwide (e.g., in EUROCONTROL and North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace and possess the applicable VHF, Mode-S, RNP, and RVSM communication and navigation capabilities.)
</P>
<P><I>Memorandum of Understanding with attachment (MOU).</I> A written agreement between certificated air carriers willing to participate in the CRAF program and USTRANSCOM with the purpose of establishing guidelines to facilitate establishment of rates for airlift services (e.g., passenger, cargo, combi, and aeromedical evacuation.)
</P>
<P><I>Operational data.</I> Those statistics that are gathered from DOT Form 41 reporting, USTRANSCOM reported monthly round trip (S-1) and one-way (S-2) mileage reports, monthly fuel reports or other data deemed necessary by the USTRANSCOM contracting officer.
</P>
<P><I>Participating carriers.</I> Any properly certified and DoD approved air carrier in the CRAF program which complies with the conditions of the MOU and executes a USTRANSCOM contract.
</P>
<P><I>Projected rates.</I> The estimated rates proposed by carriers based upon historical cost and operational data as further described in § 243.4(a) through (g).
</P>
<P><I>Ratemaking methodologies.</I> The methodologies agreed to by USTRANSCOM and air carriers in the MOU for the treatment of certain cost elements to determine the estimated price for the DoD for airlift services.
</P>
<P><I>Short-range aircraft.</I> Aircraft equipped for extended over-water operations and capable of flying a minimum distance of 1,500 nautical miles while carrying a productive payload (75 percent of the maximum payload it is capable of carrying).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.4   Ratemaking procedures for Civil Reserve Air Fleet contracts.</HEAD>
<P>The ratemaking procedures contained within this section apply only to Airlift Service contracts awarded based on CRAF commitment. Competitively awarded contracts may be used by the Department of Defense when it considers such contracts to be in the best interest of the government. See §§ 243.5(b) and 243.6 for exclusions to ratemaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rates of payment for airlift services.</I> USTRANSCOM may utilize the principles contained in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), as supplemented, in establishing fair and reasonable rate of payments for airlift service contracts in support of CRAF. Specific exceptions to FAR are noted in § 243.8 of this rule. To facilitate uniformity within the ratemaking process, USTRANSCOM will execute a MOU with air carriers to institute the basis for methods upon which the rates will be established. An updated MOU will be executed as warranted and published for public comment on FedBizOps. Under the MOU, air carriers agree to furnish historical cost and operational data, as well as their projected rates for the ensuing fiscal year. USTRANSCOM will conduct a review of air carriers' historical and projected costs and negotiate with the carriers to establish rates using ratemaking methodologies contained in the attachment to the MOU.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obtaining data from participating carriers.</I> USTRANSCOM will annually notify those participating carriers to provide data using the USTRANSCOM cost package and related instructions. The data provided includes pricing data, cost data, and judgmental information necessary for the USTRANSCOM contracting officer to determine a fair and reasonable price or to determine cost realism. Carriers will be provided 60 calendar days to act upon the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Analysis.</I> (1) USTRANSCOM will consider carrier reported DOT Form 41 costs as well as other applicable costs directly assigned to performance in USTRANSCOM service. These costs will be reviewed and analyzed by USTRANSCOM for allowability, allocability, and reasonableness. Costs may also be audited by the Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA), as necessary, in accordance with the DCAA Contract Audit Manual 7640.01.
</P>
<P>(2) To determine allocation of these costs to USTRANSCOM service, USTRANSCOM considers carrier reported DOT Form 41 operational data, as well as USTRANSCOM S-1, S-2 mileage reports, fuel reports, and other relevant information requested by the contracting officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rates.</I> Rates will be determined by aircraft class (e.g., large passenger, medium passenger, large cargo, etc.) based on the average efficiency of all participating carriers within the specified class. Application of these rates, under varying conditions (e.g., ferry, one-way, etc), are addressed in the Final Rates published in accordance with § 243.4(h).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Components of the rate</I>—(1) <I>Return on Investment (ROI).</I> ROI for USTRANSCOM service is intended to adequately compensate carriers for cost of capital. USTRANSCOM will apply a minimum return applied to the carrier's total operating costs. If a full return on investment applied to a carrier's capital investment base is provided in the MOU, the carrier will receive whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full ROI.</I> The full ROI will be computed using an optimal capital structure of 45 percent debt and 55 percent equity. The cost-of-debt and cost-of-equity are calculated from revenues of major carriers as reported to the Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Cost-of-Debt (COD).</I> COD will be calculated considering the Risk Free Rate (RFR) plus the weighted debt spread, with the formula as agreed upon in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cost-of-Equity (COE).</I> COE will be determined by a formula agreed upon in the MOU, which considers RFR, weighted betas, annualized equity risk premium and a future expected return premium.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Owned/Capital/Long-Term Leased Aircraft.</I> New airframes and related support parts will receive full ROI on the net book value of equipment at mid-point of forecast year. USTRANSCOM will apply the economic service life standards to aircraft as indicated in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Short-term leased aircraft.</I> As a return on annual lease payments, short-term leased equipment will receive the Full ROI less the cost of money rate per the Secretary of the Treasury under Public Law 92-41 (85 Stat. 97), as provided by the Office of Management and Budget, in accordance with the MOU.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Working capital.</I> Working capital will be provided in the investment base at an established number of days provided in the MOU. The investment base will be computed on total operating cash less non cash expenses (depreciation) as calculated by USTRANSCOM.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum Return.</I> USTRANSCOM will determine minimum return utilizing the Weighted Guidelines methodology as set forth in DFARS Subpart 215.4, Contract Pricing, or successor and as provided in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Depreciation.</I> USTRANSCOM will apply economic life standards for new aircraft at 14 years, 2 percent residual (narrowbody) and 16 years and 10 percent residual (widebody) aircraft. USTRANSCOM will apply economic life standards for used aircraft as indicated in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Utilization.</I> Utilization considers the number of airborne hours flown per aircraft per day. USTRANSCOM will calculate aircraft utilization in accordance with the DOT Form 41 reporting and the MOU.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cost escalation.</I> Escalation is the percentage increase or decrease applied to the historical base year costs to reliably estimate the cost of performance in the contract period. Yearly cost escalation will be calculated in accordance with the MOU.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Weighting of rate.</I> Rates will be weighted based upon the direct relationship between contract performance and cost incurred in execution of the contract. The specific weighting will be as defined in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Obtaining data from participating carriers.</I> Carriers participating in USTRANSCOM acquisitions subject to ratemaking shall provide, other than certified cost and pricing data for USTRANSCOM, rate reviews as required in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contingency rate.</I> Authority is reserved to the Commander, USTRANSCOM, at his discretion, during conditions such as outbreak of war, armed conflict, insurrection, civil or military strife, emergency, or similar conditions, to use a temporary contingency rate in order to ensure mission accomplishment. Any such temporary rate would terminate at the Commander's discretion upon his determination that such rate is no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Proposed rate.</I> Once the data is analyzed and audit findings considered, USTRANSCOM will prepare a package setting forth proposed airlift rates and supporting data. The proposed rates will be approved by the USTRANSCOM contracting officer and posted publicly on FedBizOps for comment. The comment period will be as specified in the proposed rate package.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Final rate.</I> Upon closing of the comment period, comments and supporting rationale will be addressed and individual negotiations conducted between USTRANSCOM and the air carriers. After negotiations have concluded, USTRANSCOM will prepare a rate package setting forth final airlift rates for each aircraft class, along with supporting data consisting of individual carrier cost elements. Comments and disposition of those comments will be included in the final rate package. The final rates will be approved by the USTRANSCOM contracting officer and publicly posted on FedBizOps for use in the ensuing contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.5   Commitment of aircraft as a business factor.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of rate making, the average fleet cost of aircraft proposed by the carriers for the forecast year is used. Actual awards to CRAF carriers are based upon the aircraft accepted into the CRAF program. The Secretary may, in determining the quantity of business to be received under an airlift services contract for which the rate of payment is determined in accordance with subsection (a) of 10 U.S.C. 9511a, use as a factor the relative amount of airlift capability committed by each air carrier to the CRAF.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjustments in commitment to target specific needs of the contract period.</I> The amount of business awarded in return for commitment to the program under a CRAF contract may be adjusted prior to the award of the contract to reflect increased importance of identified aircraft categories (e.g., Aeromedical Evacuation) or performance factors (e.g., flyer's bonus, superior on-time performers, etc.). These adjustments will be identified in the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions of categories of business from commitment based awards.</I> Where adequate competition is available and USTRANSCOM determines some part of the business is more appropriate for award under competitive procedures, the rate-making will not apply. Changes to areas of business will be reflected in the solicitation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.6   Exclusions from the uniform negotiated rate.</HEAD>
<P>Domestic CRAF is handled differently than international CRAF in that aircraft committed does not factor into the amount of business awarded during peacetime. If domestic CRAF is activated, carriers will be paid in accordance with pre-negotiated prices that have been determined fair and reasonable, not a uniform rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.7   Inapplicable provisions of law.</HEAD>
<P>An airlift services contract for which the rate of payment is determined in accordance with subsection (a) of 10 U.S.C. 9511a shall not be subject to the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2306a, or to the provisions of subsections (a) and (b) of 41 U.S.C. 1502. Specifically, contracts establishing rates for services provided by air carriers who are participants in the CRAF program are not subject to the cost or pricing data provision of the Truth in Negotiations Act (10 U.S.C. 2306a) or the Cost Accounting Standards (41 U.S.C. 1502). CRAF carriers will, however, continue to submit data in accordance with the MOU and the DOT, Form 41.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.8   Application of FAR cost principles.</HEAD>
<P>In establishing fair and reasonable rate of payments for airlift service contracts in support of CRAF, USTRANSCOM, in accordance with10 U.S.C. 9511a, procedures differ from the following provisions of FAR Part 31 and DFARS Part 231, as supplemented:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>FAR 31.202, Direct Costs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.203, Indirect Costs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-6, Compensation for Personal Services, subparagraphs (g), (j), and (k)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-10, Cost of Money
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-11, Depreciation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-18, Independent Research and Development and Bid and Proposal Costs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-19, Insurance and Indemnification
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-26, Material Costs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-40, Special Tooling and Special Test Equipment Costs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR 31.205-41, Taxes
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DFARS 231.205-18, Independent research and development and bid and proposal costs</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.9   Carrier site visits.</HEAD>
<P>USTRANSCOM may participate in carrier site visits, as required to determine the reasonableness or verification of cost and pricing data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.10   Disputes.</HEAD>
<P>Carriers should first address concerns to the ratemaking team for resolution. Ratemaking issues that are not resolved to the carrier's satisfaction through discussions with the ratemaking team may be directed to the USTRANSCOM contracting officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.11   Appeals of USTRANSCOM Contracting Officer Decisions regarding rates.</HEAD>
<P>If resolution of ratemaking issues cannot be made by the USTRANSCOM contracting officer, concerned parties shall contact the USTRANSCOM Ombudsman appointed to hear and facilitate the resolution of such concerns. In the event a ratemaking issue is not resolved through the ombudsman process, the carrier may request a final agency decision from the Director of Acquisition, USTRANSCOM.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.40.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.12   Required records retention.</HEAD>
<P>The air carrier is required to retain copies of data submitted to support rate determination for a period identified in Subpart 4.7 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation, Contractor Records Retention.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="245" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 245—PLAN FOR THE EMERGENCY SECURITY CONTROL OF AIR TRAFFIC (ESCAT)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 61889, Oct. 20, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Is authorized by the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 301, 552, Executive Order 12656 (“Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities”, November 18, 1988), as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Defines the jointly developed and agreed upon responsibilities of the Department of Transportation/Federal Aviation Administration (DOT/FAA), Department of Homeland Security/Transportation Security Administration (DHS/TSA), and Department of Defense (DoD) authorities for the security control of civil and military air traffic. It implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for implementation and performance of the ESCAT Plan. The Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic (ESCAT) is an emergency preparedness plan that prescribes the joint action to be taken by appropriate elements of the DoD, the DOT and the DHS in the interests of national security to control air traffic under emergency conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the DOT, the FAA, the DHS, and the TSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.3   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Networks and Information Integration will ensure the responsibilities of the DoD are implemented. The DOT and the DHS shall implement the procedures and actions requested by the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Explanation of Terms, Acronyms and Abbreviations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.5   Terms.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the words “will” and “shall” denote mandatory action by the affected person(s) or agency(ies).
</P>
<P><I>Air control measures.</I> Airspace and/or flight restrictions that may be issued in support of National Defense or Homeland Security initiatives.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense.</I> All defensive measures designed to destroy attacking enemy aircraft or missiles as well as enemy operated aircraft or missiles in the Earth's envelope of atmosphere, or to nullify or reduce the effectiveness of such attack.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense area</I> (ADA). Airspace of defined dimensions designated by the appropriate agency within which the ready control of airborne vehicles is required in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense emergency</I> (ADE). An emergency condition, declared by the appropriate military authority, that exists when attack upon the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, other U.S. territories and possessions or Canada by hostile aircraft or missiles is considered probable, is imminent, or is taking place.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense identification zone</I> (ADIZ). Airspace of defined dimensions within which the ready identification, location, and control of airborne vehicles are required.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense liaison officer</I> (ADLO). FAA representative at a North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) air defense facility (NORAD Region or NORAD Air Defense Sector).
</P>
<P><I>Air defense region.</I> A geographical subdivision of an air defense area.
</P>
<P><I>Air defense sector.</I> A geographical subdivision of an air defense region.
</P>
<P><I>Air traffic control system command center</I> (ATCSCC). FAA Command Center responsible for the efficient operation of the National Airspace System, ensuring safe and efficient air travel within the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Anchor annex flight.</I> Classified DoD mission.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate military authority.</I> The military commander with the authority to direct the implementation of this part. The appropriate military authorities are designated in part 245.11, (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3) and (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Chief of the Defense Staff</I> (CDS). Canada's counterpart to the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.
</P>
<P><I>Civil reserve air fleet</I> (CRAF). Those aircraft allocated, or identified for allocation, to the DoD under section 101 of the Defense Production Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. App. 2071), or made available (or agreed to be made available) for use by the DoD under a contract made under this title, as part of the program developed by the DoD through which the DoD augments its airlift capability by use of civil aircraft.
</P>
<P><I>Combatant Command.</I> A command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. The Combatant Commands typically have geographic or functional responsibilities. For the purposes of this part, the term “combatant command” also includes NORAD.
</P>
<P><I>Continental United States</I> (CONUS). All U.S. territory of the 48 contiguous states (does not include Alaska and Hawaii), including the adjacent territorial waters within 12 miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states.
</P>
<P><I>Contingency operations.</I> A military operation that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designated by the Secretary of Defense as an operation in which members of the armed forces are or may become involved in military actions, operations, or hostilities against an enemy of the United States or against an opposing military force; or
</P>
<P>(2) Results in the call or order to, or retention on, active duty of members of the uniformed services under section 688, 12301 (a), 12302, 12304, 12305, or 12406 of title 10 U.S.C., chapter 15, as amended by E.O. 13286, February 28 2003, or any other provision of law during a war or during a national emergency declared by the President or Congress.
</P>
<P><I>Defense emergency.</I> An emergency condition that exists when:
</P>
<P>(1) A major attack is made upon U.S. forces overseas or on allied forces in any theater and is confirmed by either the commander of a command established by the Secretary of Defense or higher authority; or
</P>
<P>(2) An overt attack of any type is made upon the United States and is confirmed either by the commander of a command established by the Secretary of Defense or higher authority.
</P>
<P><I>Dispersal.</I> Relocation of forces for the purpose of increasing survivability.
</P>
<P><I>Diversion.</I> A change made in a prescribed route or destination for operational or tactical reasons.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic event network</I> (DEN). A 24/7 FAA sponsored, telephonic conference call network that includes all of the Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) in the U.S. It also includes various other governmental agencies that monitor the DEN. The purpose of the DEN is to provide timely notification to the appropriate authorities that there is an emerging air-related problem or incident within the CONUS.
</P>
<P><I>ESCAT air traffic priority list</I> (EATPL). A list comprised of eight priorities designed to control the volume of air traffic when ESCAT has been implemented.
</P>
<P><I>National Airspace System</I> (NAS). The NAS consists of the overall environment for the safe operation of aircraft that are subject to the FAA's jurisdiction. It includes: air navigation facilities, equipment and services, airports or landing areas; aeronautical charts, information and services; rules, regulations and procedures, technical information, and manpower and material. Included are system components used by the DoD.
</P>
<P><I>National emergency.</I> A condition declared by the President or the Congress by virtue of powers previously vested in them that authorize certain emergency actions to be undertaken in the national interest. Actions to be taken may include partial, full, or total mobilization of national resources.
</P>
<P><I>Navigational aids</I> (NAVAIDs). Aids to navigation, including but are not limited to, Global Positioning System (GPS), Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN), VHF Omnidirectional range (VOR), VHF Omnidirectional range/Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC), Radar, and Long Range Navigation (LORAN). GPS also includes its Federal government-provided augmentations, <I>i.e.,</I> the FAA Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) and Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS), United States Coast Guard (USCG) Maritime Differential GPS (MDGPS) and USCG Nationwide Differential GPS (NDGPS).
</P>
<P><I>North American Aerospace Defense Command</I> (NORAD). A combined military command established by the Governments of Canada and the United States responsible for North American aerospace warning and control. Headquartered in Colorado Springs, CO, NORAD is subdivided into three geographic regions: Alaska NORAD Region (ANR), Canadian NORAD Region (CANR) and the CONUS NORAD Region (CONR).
</P>
<P><I>Security assurance check.</I> Measures taken by DoD/DHS, as appropriate, to ensure aircraft, cargo and crew security has not been compromised by hostile organizations or individuals who are or may be engaged in espionage, sabotage, subversion, terrorism or other criminal activities.
</P>
<P><I>Security control authorization</I> (SCA). Authorization for an EATPL category eight aircraft to take off when ESCAT has been implemented, which will be coordinated between DHS and the appropriate military authority.
</P>
<P><I>Special Use Airspace</I> (SUA). Airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature, and/or wherein limitation may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not part of those activities. Types of special use airspace include Military Operations Areas, Prohibited Areas, Restricted Areas and Warning Areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 61889, Oct. 20, 2006; 71 FR 66110, Nov. 13, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.6   Abbreviations and acronyms.</HEAD>
<FP-1>AADC—Area Air Defense Commander
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ADE—Air Defense Emergency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ADIZ—Air Defense Identification Zone
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ADLO—Air Defense Liaison Officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AMC—Air Mobility Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ANR—Alaska NORAD Region
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AOR—Area of Responsibility
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ARTCC—Air Route Traffic Control Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ATC—Air Traffic Control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ATCSCC—Air Traffic Control System Command Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CARDA—Continental U.S. Airborne Reconnaissance for Damage Assessment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CDS—Chief of the Defence Staff (Canada)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CERAP—Center-RAPCON
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CJCS—Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONR—CONUS NORAD Region
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONUS—Continental United States
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CRAF—Civil Reserve Air Fleet
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DEN—Domestic Event Network
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DHS—Department of Homeland Security
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DND—Department of National Defence (Canada)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoD—Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOT—Department of Transportation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EATPL—ESCAT Air Traffic Priority List
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E.O.—Executive Order
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ESCAT—Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAA—Federal Aviation Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IFR—Instrument Flight Rules
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEA—Law Enforcement Agencies
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIFEGUARD—Civilian air ambulance flights
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LNO—Liaison Officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MEDEVAC—Medical air evacuation flight
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NAS—National Airspace System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NEADS—Northeast Air Defense Sector (NORAD)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NORAD—North American Aerospace Defense Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PACAF—Pacific Air Forces
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SCA—Security Control Authorization
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SEADS—Southeast Air Defense Sector (NORAD)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SUA—Special Use Airspace
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TSA—Transportation Security Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USNORTHCOM—U.S. Northern Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USPACOM—U.S. Pacific Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VFR—Visual Flight Rules
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WADS—Western Air Defense Sector (NORAD)
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 61889, Oct. 20, 2006; 71 FR 66110, Nov. 13, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—The ESCAT Plan</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.8   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes responsibilities, procedures, and instructions for the security control of civil and military air traffic in order to provide effective use of airspace under various emergency conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.9   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) E.O. 12656, 18 November 1988, which assigns emergency preparedness functions to Federal departments and agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) E.O. 13074, Amendment to E.O. 12656, February 9, 1998.
</P>
<P>(c) E.O. 13286, Amendment of E.O. 13276, 13274, 13271, 13260, 13257, 13254, and 13231, and Other Actions, in Connection With the Transfer of Certain Functions to the Secretary of Homeland Security, February 28, 2003.
</P>
<P>(d) Title 10 U.S.C.—Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(e) Title 49 U.S.C., Subtitle VII—Aviation Programs.
</P>
<P>(f) Communications Act of 1934, as amended.
</P>
<P>(g) Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001 (Pub. L. 107-71), establishes the TSA and transfers civil aviation security responsibilities from FAA to TSA.
</P>
<P>(h) Homeland Security Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-296), establishes DHS and transfers the transportation security functions of the DOT and Secretary of Transportation and the TSA to DHS.
</P>
<P>(i) DoD Directive 5030.19, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> “DoD Responsibilities on Federal Aviation and National Airspace System Matters,” outlines DoD/ NORAD responsibilities for the development of plans and policies in concert with the DOT, FAA and USCG for the establishment of a system for identification and emergency security control of air traffic.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/dir2.html.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.10   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all U.S. territorial airspace and other airspace over which the FAA has air traffic control jurisdiction by international agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.11   General description of the ESCAT plan.</HEAD>
<P>The part defines the authorities, responsibilities, and procedures to identify and control air traffic within a specified air defense area during air defense emergencies, defense emergency, or national emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this part, the appropriate military authorities are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Contiguous 48 U.S. states, including Washington, DC; Alaska; and Canada—Commander NORAD or individual NORAD Region/Sector commanders.
</P>
<P>(2) Hawaii, Guam, Wake Island, other U.S. Pacific Territories, and Pacific oceanic airspace over which FAA has air traffic control jurisdiction by international agreement—Commander, U.S. Pacific Command (USPACOM) or designated AADC.
</P>
<P>(3) Puerto Rico and U.S. Virgin Islands—Commander, NORAD.
</P>
<P>(b) This part provides for security control of both civil and military air traffic. It is intended to meet threat situations such as:
</P>
<P>(1) An emergency resulting in the declaration of an Air Defense Emergency by the appropriate military authority. Under this condition, NORAD and USPACOM Commanders have authority to implement ESCAT and may consider executing this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An adjacent Combatant Command is under attack and an Air Defense Emergency has not yet been declared. Under these conditions, NORAD and USPACOM Commanders may direct implementation of ESCAT for their own AORs individually, if airspace control measures are warranted and agreed upon by DoD/DHS/DOT.
</P>
<P>(3) Emergency conditions exist that either threaten national security or national interests vital to the U.S., but do not warrant declaration of Defense Emergency or Air Defense Emergency. Under these conditions, NORAD and USPACOM Commanders may direct implementation of ESCAT for their own AORs individually, if airspace control measures are warranted and agreed upon by DoD/DHS/DOT.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.12   Amplifying instructions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to any formal ESCAT implementation, the appropriate military authority will consult with DOT through the FAA Administrator and DHS through the TSA Administrator to discuss the air traffic management, airspace and/or security measures required. Every effort will be made to obtain the approval of the Secretary of Defense prior to ESCAT declaration, time and circumstance permitting. Any ESCAT implementation will be passed as soon as possible through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) ESCAT may be implemented in phases to facilitate a smooth transition from normal air traffic identification and control procedures to the more restrictive identification and control procedures specific to the situation.
</P>
<P>(c) Once ESCAT is implemented, the appropriate military authority will consult regularly with DOT (through the FAA Administrator) and DHS (through the TSA Administrator) as appropriate, regarding any changes in the air traffic management, airspace, and/or security measures required.
</P>
<P>(d) Interference with normal air traffic should be minimized.
</P>
<P>(e) The process for implementation of measures for mitigation of hostile use of NAVAID signals, when required, will be subject to separate agreement between DoD and other Departments and Agencies.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon the formal declaration of ESCAT, the appropriate military authority has the final authority regarding the extent of measures necessary for successful mission completion.
</P>
<P>(g) The rules/procedures governing Special Use Airspace (SUA) will remain in effect until notified by the appropriate military authority. The appropriate military authority will address SUA use in the ESCAT activation message.
</P>
<P>(h) Appropriate Combatant Commanders, in conjunction with their FAA and TSA Liaisons, will prepare supplements to this part for their area of responsibility. These supplements are to consider the special requirement of organized civil defense and disaster relief flights, agricultural and forest fire flights, border patrol flights, and other essential civil air operations so that maximum use of these flights, consistent with air defense requirements, will be made when ESCAT is in effect.
</P>
<P>(i) Flight operations vital to national defense, as determined by appropriate military commanders, will be given priority over all other military and civil aircraft.
</P>
<P>(j) Prior to or subsequent to the declaration of an Air Defense Emergency, Defense Emergency, or National Emergency, there may be a requirement to disperse military aircraft for their protection. If such dispersal plans are implemented when any part of this part has been placed in effect, operations will be in accordance with the requirements of that portion of the ESCAT plan that is in effect. If any part of the ESCAT plan is ordered while dispersal is in progress, dispersal operations will be revised as required to comply with ESCAT.
</P>
<P>(k) Direct communications are authorized between appropriate agencies and units for the purpose of coordinating and implementing the procedures in this part.
</P>
<P>(l) To ensure implementation actions can be taken expeditiously, ESCAT tests will be conducted periodically, but at least annually in accordance with § 245.31 of this part.
</P>
<P>(m) The area of responsibility of the appropriate military authority does not always align with ARTCC boundaries, especially in the NORAD area where one ARTCC's boundaries may lie within two or more CONUS NORAD Sectors. For NORAD and USPACOM, the FAA ARTCCs/CERAPs are aligned as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Command/region/sector
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ARTCC's
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CONR South East Air Defense Sector (SEADS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atlanta, Fort Worth, Houston, Indianapolis, Jacksonville, Kansas City, Memphis, Miami, Washington, San Juan CERAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CONR North East Air Defense Sector (NEADS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boston, Chicago, Cleveland, Minneapolis, New York, Indianapolis, Kansas City, Atlanta, Memphis, Washington.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CONR Western Air Defense Sector (WADS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Albuquerque, Denver, Los Angeles, Oakland, Salt Lake City, Seattle, Fort Worth, Houston, Kansas City, Minneapolis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANR (Alaskan NORAD Region)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anchorage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PACOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honolulu CERAP, Oakland, Anchorage.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(n) Commander NORAD, acting for the DoD, will process and distribute administrative and organizational changes as they occur; however, this part will be reviewed at least once every two years by DHS/TSA, DOT/FAA, and DoD and reissued or changed as required. Recommended changes should be forwarded to: Headquarters North American Air Defense Command, Commander NORAD/J3, ATTN: NJ33C, 250 Vandenberg Street, Suite B106, Peterson AFB, CO 80914-3818.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.13   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NORAD and USPACOM Commanders will:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the military requirements for ESCAT.
</P>
<P>(2) Implement the plan as appropriate by declaring ESCAT (including the timing and scope) within their AOR.
</P>
<P>(3) Terminate the plan as appropriate by discontinuing ESCAT (including the timing and scope) within their AOR.
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinate with the Secretary of Defense or his designee, the CJCS, other Combatant Commands, the Department of Transportation, the Department of Homeland Security and the Canadian Minister of National Defence, as appropriate, regarding procedures for ESCAT implementation.
</P>
<P>(b) The DOT (through the FAA Administrator) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the necessary FAA directives/plans including special ATC procedures to implement this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain liaison with Combatant Commands whose AORs include FAA areas of authority through the appropriate LNO, or FAA ADLO offices.
</P>
<P>(3) Administer this part in accordance with established requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure authorized FAA ADLO positions at NORAD facilities are staffed.
</P>
<P>(5) Publish a common use document describing ESCAT and its purpose for use by civil aviation.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure FAA participation with the Combatant Commands in the testing of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure the FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Units will:
</P>
<P>(i) Disseminate information and instructions implementing this part within their AORs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Place in effect procedures outlined in this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Assist appropriate military authorities in making supplemental agreements to this part as may be required.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure each ARTCC/CERAP has a plan for diverting or landing expeditiously all aircraft according to the ESCAT priorities imposed upon implementation of ESCAT. Ensure a review and verification of the diversion plan is accomplished each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure the ATCSCC/ARTCC/CERAPs will:
</P>
<P>(i) Participate with Combatant Commanders in the training/testing of this part at all operational level.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure dissemination of information and instructions implementing this part within their AORs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Place in effect procedures outlined in this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Develop a plan for diverting or landing expeditiously all aircraft according to the ESCAT priorities imposed upon implementation of ESCAT. Review the diversion plan each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) The DHS (through the TSA Administrator) will:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the necessary TSA directives/plans including special security procedures to implement this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain liaison with Combatant Commands whose AORs include TSA geographic areas of authority through the appropriate Federal Security Directors or other field offices.
</P>
<P>(3) Administer this part in accordance with established requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure authorized TSA liaison positions at NORAD facilities are staffed.
</P>
<P>(5) Issue security directives describing ESCAT and its purpose for use by airport and aircraft operators.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure TSA participation with the Combatant Commands in the testing of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure TSA Federal Security Directors and field offices:
</P>
<P>(i) Disseminate information and instructions implementing this part within their AOR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement procedures outlined in this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Assist appropriate military authorities in making supplemental agreements to this part, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commanders of Combatant Commands will:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that departing North American strategic flights are coordinated with appropriate NORAD and FAA/NAVCANADA authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure training/testing of this part at all levels within their command, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for Implementation of ESCAT</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.15   Appropriate military authority.</HEAD>
<P>Appropriate military authority will take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) Notify or coordinate, as appropriate, the extent or termination of ESCAT implementation with DOT and DHS.
</P>
<P>(b) Disseminate the extent of ESCAT implementation through the Noble Eagle Conferences and the FAA DEN.
</P>
<P>(c) Specify what restrictions are to be implemented. Some examples of restrictions to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) Defining the affected area.
</P>
<P>(2) Defining the type of aircraft operations that are authorized.
</P>
<P>(3) Defining the routing restrictions on flights entering or operating within appropriate portions of the affected area.
</P>
<P>(4) Defining restrictions for the volume of air traffic within the affected area, using the EATPL, paragraph 245.22 of this part) and Security Control Authorizations, as required.
</P>
<P>(5) Setting altitude limitations on flight operations in selected areas.
</P>
<P>(6) Restricting operations to aircraft operators regulated under specified security programs (e.g., the Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program (AOSSP), and the Domestic Security Integration Program (DSIP).
</P>
<P>(d) Revise or remove restrictions on the movement of air traffic as the tactical situation permits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.16   ATCSCC.</HEAD>
<P>ATCSCC will direct appropriate ARTCCs/CERAPs to implement ESCAT restrictions as specified by the appropriate military authority. ARTCCs/CERAPs will take the following actions when directed to implement ESCAT:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide the appropriate military authority feedback through the ATCSCC on the impact of restrictions and when the restrictions have been imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose restrictions on air traffic as directed.
</P>
<P>(c) Disseminate ESCAT implementation instructions to U.S. civil and military air traffic control facilities and advise adjacent air traffic control facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.17   U.S. civil and military air traffic control facilities.</HEAD>
<P>U.S. civil and military air traffic control facilities will:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain current information on the status of restrictions imposed on air traffic.
</P>
<P>(b) Process flight plans in accordance with current instructions received from the ARTCC. All flights must comply with the airspace control measures in effect, the EATPL, or must have been granted a Security Control Authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) Disseminate instructions and restrictions to air traffic as directed by the ARTCCs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.18   Transportation security operations center (TSOC).</HEAD>
<P>TSOC will direct appropriate FSDs and field offices to implement ESCAT restrictions as specified by the appropriate military authority. FSDs and field offices will take the following actions when directed to implement ESCAT:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide the appropriate military authority feedback through the TSOC on the impact of restrictions and when the restrictions have been implemented.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose restrictions on civil aviation as directed by DOT/DHS.
</P>
<P>(c) Disseminate ESCAT implementation instructions to U.S. civil aircraft operators and airports.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—ESCAT Air Traffic Priority List (EATPL)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.20" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.20   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>When ESCAT is implemented, a system of traffic priorities may be required to make optimum use of airspace, consistent with air defense requirements. The EATPL is a list of priorities that may be used for the movement of air traffic in a defined area. Priorities shall take precedence in the order listed and subdivisions within priorities are equal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.21" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.21   ESCAT air traffic priority list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Priority One.</I> (1) The President of the United States, Prime Minister of Canada and respective cabinet or staff members essential to national security, and other members as approved or designated by the Secretary of Defense and Chief of the Defence Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft engaged in active continental defense missions, including anti-submarine aircraft, interceptors, air refueling tanker aircraft, and airborne early-warning and control aircraft (e.g., E-3, E-2, P-3).
</P>
<P>(3) Military retaliatory aircraft, including direct tanker support aircraft, executing strategic missions.
</P>
<P>(4) Airborne command elements which provide backup to command and control systems for the combat forces.
</P>
<P>(5) Anchor annex flights.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Priority Two.</I> (1) Forces being deployed or in direct support of U.S. military offensive and defensive operations including the use of activated Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft as necessary, and/or other U.S. and foreign flag civil air carrier aircraft under mission control of the U.S. military.
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft operating in direct and immediate support of strategic missions.
</P>
<P>(3) Search and rescue aircraft operating in direct support of military activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Aircraft operating in direct and immediate support of special operations missions.
</P>
<P>(5) Federal flight operations in direct support of homeland security, e.g., Law Enforcement Agencies (LEA) and aircraft performing security for high threat targets such as Nuclear Power Plants, Dams, Chemical Plants, and other areas identified as high threat targets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Priority Three.</I> (1) Forces being deployed or performing pre-deployment training/workups (e.g., Navy Field Carrier Landing Practice) in support of the emergency condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft deployed in support of CONUS installation/base defense, i.e., aircraft operating in direct/immediate security support, or deploying ground forces for perimeter defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Search and rescue aircraft not included in Priority Two.
</P>
<P>(4) Flight inspection aircraft flights in connection with emergency restoration of airway and airport facilities in support of immediate emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) Continental U.S. Airborne Reconnaissance for Damage Assessment (CARDA) missions in support of immediate emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Priority Four.</I> (1) Dispersal of tactical military aircraft.
</P>
<P>(2) Dispersal of U.S. civil air carrier aircraft allocated to the CRAF Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Repositioning of FAA/DoD/DND flight inspection aircraft.
</P>
<P>(4) Flight inspection activity in connection with airway and airport facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) Specific military tactical pilot currency or proficiency in support of homeland defense.
</P>
<P>(6) Military tactical aircraft post-maintenance test flights.
</P>
<P>(7) Federal aircraft post maintenance check flights in support of homeland security.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Priority Five.</I> (1) Air transport of military commanders, their representatives, DoD/DND-sponsored key civilian personnel, non-DoD/DND or other Federal key civilian personnel who are of importance to national security.
</P>
<P>(2) Dispersal of non-tactical military aircraft for their protection.
</P>
<P>(3) Aircraft contracted to and/or operated by Federal agencies
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Priority Six.</I> (1) State and local LEA directly engaged in law enforcement missions.
</P>
<P>(2) Flight operations in accordance with approved Federal and State emergency plans.
</P>
<P>(3) LIFEGUARD and MEDEVAC aircraft in direct support of emergency medical services.
</P>
<P>(4) Flight operations essential to the development, production, and delivery of equipment, personnel, materials, and supplies essential to national security.
</P>
<P>(5) Other essential CARDA missions not covered in Priority Three.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Priority Seven.</I> Other military flight operations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Priority Eight.</I> Other flight operations not specifically listed in priorities 1 through 7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.22" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.22   Policy for application of EATPL.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The originator of an aircraft flight operation under the EATPL shall be responsible for determining and verifying that the mission meets the appropriate definition and priority in accordance with the list described in § 245.22 of this part , and ensuring a security check of crew, cargo and aircraft has been completed prior to take off.
</P>
<P>(b) The individual filing the flight plan will be responsible for including the priority number as determined by the originator of the aircraft flight operation, in the remarks section of the flight plan.
</P>
<P>(c) Situations may occur that cannot be controlled by the EATPL. Aircraft emergencies and inbound international flights that have reached the point of no return, including foreign air carrier flights en route to safe haven airports in accordance with specific international agreements are examples of such situations. These events must be treated individually through coordination between ATC and appropriate military authorities in consideration of the urgency of the in-flight situation and existing tactical military conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to EATPL.</I> (1) DoD aircraft in priorities three through seven that do not meet EATPL restrictions may request an exemption from the appropriate military authority. For the contiguous 48 U.S. states, Alaska, Puerto Rico, U.S. Virgin Islands and Canada, requests shall be submitted to the appropriate NORAD Sector. For Hawaii, Guam, Wake Island, other U.S. Pacific Territories, and Pacific oceanic airspace over which FAA has air traffic control jurisdiction by international agreement, requests shall be submitted to the designated AADC.
</P>
<P>(2) For Federal, State, local government agencies and aircraft in priority eight, a Security Control Authorization may be granted on a case-by-case basis. Requests for SCAs will be coordinated through TSA. TSA will forward those requests that it recommends for approval to the appropriate military authority. Aircraft with a SCA shall have a Security Assurance Check prior to take off. Refer to specific SCA procedures provided in separate agreement between the appropriate military authority and TSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 61889, Oct. 20, 2006; 71 FR 66110, Nov. 13, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedure for Movement of Air Traffic Under ESCAT</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.24" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.24   Aircraft assigned an EATPL number 1 or 2.</HEAD>
<P>Aircraft assigned an EATPL number 1 or 2 will not be delayed, diverted, or rerouted by Combatant Commanders. However, commanders may recommend that this traffic be rerouted to avoid critical or critically threatened areas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.25" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.25   Aircraft assigned an EATPL number other than 1 or 2.</HEAD>
<P>Aircraft assigned an EATPL number other than 1 or 2 may be delayed, diverted, or rerouted by Combatant Commanders to prevent degradation of the air defense system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.26" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.26   Aircraft being recovered.</HEAD>
<P>Aircraft being recovered will be expedited to home or an alternate base. Search and Rescue aircraft may be expedited on their missions. Such aircraft may be diverted to avoid critical areas or takeoff may be delayed to prevent saturation of airspace.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.27" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.27   Data entry.</HEAD>
<P>Aircraft will file IFR or VFR flight plans, assigned a discrete transponder code, and must be in direct radio communication with ATC. The appropriate EATPL number will be entered in the remarks section of the flight plan. The EATPL number will be passed with flight plan data from one ATC facility to the next, and to the appropriate air defense control facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.29" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.29   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of establishing training/test procedures is to specify procedures that will allow all participants to determine the time required and assure the capability to notify all agencies/personnel, down to the lowest action level, that ESCAT has been implemented. To ensure the proper level of participation, the appropriate military authority will provide, at a minimum, 30 days notice of a test to the appropriate civil agencies. Testing shall be conducted at least annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.30" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.30   ESCAT test procedures restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aircraft will not be grounded or diverted.
</P>
<P>(b) Test messages will not be broadcast over air/ground frequencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Radio communications will not be interrupted.
</P>
<P>(d) Navigation Aids will not be affected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.31" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.31   ESCAT test.</HEAD>
<P>For ESCAT testing, the responsible military commander will notify the ATCSCC using the following sample statement:
</P>
<P>(a) Exercise, Exercise, Exercise, this is CONUS NORAD Region with a NORAD exercise message for ______ (State exercise name) ______.
</P>
<P>Simulate implementing ESCAT for ______ (Specified Area) ______.
</P>
<P>The following air control measures are being implemented. (Some examples are: Flight restricted zones, Temporary Flight Restrictions, and/or other specific air control measures for operators.) __________, __________, __________, __________.
</P>
<P>All aircraft not previously mentioned as exemptions are restricted from flight in the affected area until further notice.
</P>
<P>   and/or
</P>
<P>EATPL Priorities ________ through ________ are being implemented.
</P>
<P>ATCSCC will advise the appropriate military commander when the affected FAA ATC facilities have reported simulating ESCAT.
</P>
<P>This is an exercise message for ______ (State exercise name) ______. Exercise, Exercise, Exercise.
</P>
<P>(b) ATCSCC will notify ARTCC(s)/CERAP(s).
</P>
<P>(c) ARTCC(s)/CERAP(s) will notify all appropriate U.S. civil and military approach control facilities and FSS. Upon completion of all actions, the implementation completion time will be forwarded to the ATCSCC.
</P>
<P>(d) ATCSCC will provide completion times to the appropriate military authority.
</P>
<P>(e) Tests should normally be conducted in conjunction with scheduled headquarters NORAD approved exercises. Individual NORAD Regions and Sectors may conduct tests when test objectives are local in nature and prior coordination has been effected with the ATCSCC.
</P>
<P>(g) A narrative summary of each test will be prepared by the ATCSCC and copies sent to the appropriate military authority. Each military authority will, in turn, forward copies of the summary to HQ NORAD and DHS.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Authentication</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 245.33" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.41.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 245.33   Approval.</HEAD>
<P>Authentication will be accomplished via secure communications means between the appropriate military authority and the ATCSCC for the implementation of ESCAT. Implementation will be validated with a call back via secure communications to the appropriate military authority. Further dissemination of information may be accomplished over non-secure communications.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="247" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 247—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE NEWSPAPERS, MAGAZINES AND CIVILIAN ENTERPRISE PUBLICATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 121 and 133. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 42905, Aug. 11, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 247.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements DoD Directive 5122.10 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and implements policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures concerning authorized DoD Appropriated Funded (APF) newspapers and magazines, and Civilian Enterprise (CE) newspapers, magazines, guides, and installation maps in support of the DoD Internal Information Program.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22121.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part: 
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Defense Agencies, and the DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”). The term “Military Services,” as used herein, refers to the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and includes the Coast Guard when operating as a Military Service in the Navy. The term Commander, as used herein, also means Heads of the DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>(b) Does not apply to the <I>Stars and Stripes (S&amp;S)</I> newspapers and business operations. <I>S&amp;S</I> guidance is provided in DoD Directive 5122.11. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The term Commander, as used in this part, also means Heads of the DoD Components. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Civilian Enterprise (CE) guides and installation maps.</I> Authorized publications containing advertising that are prepared and published under contract with commercial publishers. The right to circulate the advertising in these publications to the DoD readership constitutes contractual consideration to pay for these DoD publications. The publications become the property of the command, installation, or intended recipient upon delivery in accordance with terms of the contract. Categories of these publications are: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Guides.</I> Publications that provide DoD personnel with information about the mission of their command; the availability of command, installation, or community services; local geography; historical background; and other information. These publications may include installation telephone directories at the discretion of the commander. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation maps.</I> Publications designed for orientation of new arrivals or for visitors. 
</P>
<P><I>CE publications.</I> CE newspapers, CE magazines, CE guides and installation maps produced commercially under the CE concept. 
</P>
<P><I>DoD newspapers.</I> Authorized, unofficial publications, serving as part of the commander's internal information program, that support DoD command internal communication requirements. Usually, they are distributed weekly or monthly. DoD newspapers contain most, if not all, of the following elements to communicate with the intended DoD readership: command, military department, and DoD news and features; commanders' comments; letters to the editor; editorials; commentaries; features; sports; entertainment items; morale, welfare, and recreation news and announcements; photography; line art; and installation and local community news and announcements. DoD newspapers do not necessarily reflect the official views of, or endorsement of content by, the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CE newspapers.</I> Newspapers published by commercial publishers under contract with the DoD Components or their subordinate commands. The commander or public affairs office provides oversight and final approval authority for the news and editorial content of the paper. Authorized news and information sources include the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (OASD(PA)), AFIS, the Military Departments, their subordinate levels of command, and other Government Agencies. CE contractor personnel may provide material for use in the newspaper if approved by the commander or public affairs officer (PAO), as the commander's representative. These newspapers contain advertising sold by the commercial publisher on the same basis as for CE guides and installation maps and may contain supplements or inserts. They become the property of the command, installation, or intended recipient upon delivery in accordance with terms of the contract. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funded newspapers.</I> Newspapers published by the DoD Components or their subordinate commands using appropriated funds. The editorial content of these newspapers is prepared by the internal information section of the public affairs staff or other internal sources. Usually, these newspapers are printed by the Government Printing Office (GPO) or under GPO contract in accordance with Government printing regulations. DoD Directive 5330.3 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> specifies DPS as the sole DoD conduit to the GPO. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Overseas Combatant Command newspapers.</I> Newspapers published for overseas audiences approved by the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (ASD(PA)) to provide world, U.S., and regional news from commercial sources, syndicated columns, editorial cartoons, and applicable U.S. Government, Department of Defense, Component, and subordinate command news and information. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>News bulletins and summaries.</I> Publications of deployed or isolated commands and ships compiled from national and international news and opinion obtained from authorized sources. News bulletins or summaries may be authorized by the next higher level of command when no daily English language newspapers are readily available. 
</P>
<P><I>Inserts.</I> A flier, circular, or freestanding advertisement placed within the folds of the newspaper. No disclaimer or other labeling is required. 
</P>
<P><I>Magazines.</I> Authorized, unofficial publications, serving as part of the commander's internal information program. They are produced and distributed periodically, usually monthly, and contain information of interest to personnel of the publishing DoD component or organization. They usually reflect a continuing policy as to purpose, format, and content. They are normally non-directive in nature and are published to inform, motivate, and improve the performance of the personnel and organization. They may be published as funded magazines or under the CE concept. 
</P>
<P><I>Option.</I> A unilateral right in a contract by which, for a specified time, the Government may elect to acquire additional supplies or services called for by the contract, or may elect to extend the term of the contract. 
</P>
<P><I>Organizational terms</I>—(1) <I>Command.</I> A unit or units, an organization, or an area under the command of one individual. It includes organizations headed by senior civilians that require command internal information-type media. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DoD Components.</I> See § 247.2 (a). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installation.</I> A DoD facility or ship that serves as the base for one or more commands. Media covered by this part may serve the command communication needs of one or several commands located at one installation. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Major command.</I> A designated command such as the Air Mobility Command or the Army Forces Command that serves as the headquarters for subordinate commands or installations that have the same or related missions. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subordinate levels.</I> Lower levels of command. 
</P>
<P><I>Publications.</I> As used in this part, “publications” refers to DoD newspapers, magazines, guides and/or installation maps serving the commander's internal information program published in both paper and electronic format, including digital printing. 
</P>
<P><I>Supplements.</I> Features, advertising sections, or morale, welfare and recreation sections printed with or inserted into newspapers for distribution. Supplements must be labeled “Supplement to the (name of newspaper).” Editorial content in supplements is subject to approval by the commander or the PAO as his or her agent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that: 
</P>
<P>(a) A free flow of news and information shall be provided to all DoD personnel without censorship or news management. The calculated withholding of news unfavorable to the Department of Defense is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(b) News coverage and other editorial content in DoD publications shall be factual and objective. News and headlines shall be selected using the dictates of good taste. Morbid, sensational, or alarming details not essential to factual reporting shall be avoided. 
</P>
<P>(c) DoD publications shall distinguish between fact and opinion, both of which may be part of a news story. When an opinion is expressed, the person or source shall be identified. Accuracy and balance in coverage are paramount. 
</P>
<P>(d) DoD publications shall distinguish between editorials (command position) and commentaries (personal opinion) by clearly identifying them as such. 
</P>
<P>(e) News content in DoD publications shall be based on releases, reports, and materials provided by the DoD Components and their subordinate levels, DoD newspaper staff members, and other government agencies. DoD publications shall credit sources of all material other than local, internal sources. This includes, but is not limited to, Military Department news sources, American Forces Information Service, and command news releases. 
</P>
<P>(f) DoD publications may contain articles of local interest to installation personnel produced outside official channels (e.g., stringers, local organizations), provided that the author's permission has been obtained, the source is credited, and they do not otherwise violate this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) DoD publications normally shall not be authorized the use of commercial news and opinion sources, such as Associated Press (AP), United Press International (UPI), New York Times, etc., except as stated in this paragraph and the following paragraph. The use of such sources is beyond the scope of the mission of command or installation publications and puts them in direct competition with commercial publications. The use of such sources may be authorized for a specific DoD newspaper by the cognizant DoD Component only when other sources of national and international news and opinion are not available. 
</P>
<P>(h) Overseas Combatant Command newspapers published outside the United States may purchase or contract for and carry news stories, features, syndicated columns, and editorial cartoons from commercial services or sources. A balanced selection of commercial news or opinion shall appear in the same issue and same page, whenever possible, but in any case, over a reasonable time period. Selection of commercial news sources, syndicated columns, and editorial cartoons to be purchased or contracted for shall be approved by the Commanders. Overseas Combatant Command newspapers, news bulletins, and news summaries authorized to carry national and world news may include coverage of U.S. political campaign news from commercial news sources. Presentation of such political campaign news shall be made on a balanced, impartial, and nonpartisan basis. 
</P>
<P>(i) The masthead of all DoD publications shall contain the following disclaimer printed in type no smaller than 6-point: “This (DoD newspaper, magazine, guide or installation map) is an authorized publication for members of the Department of Defense. Contents of (name of the DoD newspaper/magazine/this guide/this installation map) are not necessarily the official views of, or endorsed by, the U.S. Government, the Department of Defense, or (the name of the publishing DoD Component).” 
</P>
<P>(j) The masthead of DoD CE publications shall contain the following statements in addition to that contained in paragraph (i) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Published by (name), a private firm in no way connected with the (Department of Defense/the U.S. Army/the U.S. Navy/the U.S. Air Force/the U.S. Marine Corps) under exclusive written contract with (DoD Component or subordinate level).” 
</P>
<P>(2) “The appearance of advertising in this publication, including inserts or supplements, does not constitute endorsement by the (Department of Defense/the U.S. Army/the U.S. Navy/the U.S. Air Force/the U.S. Marine Corps), or (name of commercial publisher) of the products or services advertised.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Everything advertised in this publication shall be made available for purchase, use, or patronage without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, marital status, physical handicap, political affiliation, or any other nonmerit factor of the purchaser, user, or patron.” If a violation or rejection of this equal opportunity policy by an advertiser is confirmed, the publisher shall refuse to print advertising from that source until the violation is corrected. 
</P>
<P>(k) DoD publications shall not contain campaign news, partisan discussions, cartoons, editorials, or commentaries dealing with political campaigns, candidates, issues, or which advocate lobbying elected officials on specific issues. DoD CE publications shall not carry paid political advertisements for a candidate, party, which advocate a particular position on a political issue, or which advocate lobbying elected officials on a specific issue. This includes those advertisements advocating a position on any proposed DoD policy or policy under review. 
</P>
<P>(l) DoD newspapers shall support the Federal Voting Assistance Program by carrying factual information about registration and voting laws, especially those on absentee voting requirements of the various States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories and possessions. DoD newspapers shall use voting materials provided by the Director, Federal Voting Assistance Program; the OSD; and the Military Departments. Such information is designed to encourage DoD personnel to register as voters and to exercise their right to vote as outlined in DoD Directive 1000.4. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(m) DoD publications shall comply with DoD Instruction 1100.13 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> pertaining to polls, surveys, and straw votes. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The DoD Components and subordinate levels may authorize polls on matters of local interest, such as soldier of the week, and favorite athlete. 
</P>
<P>(2) A DoD publication shall not conduct a poll, a survey, or a straw vote relating to a political campaign or issue. 
</P>
<P>(3) Opinion surveys must be in compliance with Military Service regulations. 
</P>
<P>(n) DoD newspapers will support officially authorized fund-raising campaigns (e.g., Combined Federal Campaign (CFC)) within the Department of Defense in accordance with DoD Directive 5035.1. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> News coverage of the campaign will not discuss monetary goals, quotas, competition or tallies of solicitation between or among agencies. To avoid any appearance of endorsement, features and news coverage will discuss the campaign in general and not promote specific agencies within the CFC. Agencies may be mentioned routinely but must not be a main focus of features and news coverage. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(o) DoD publications shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contain any material that implies that the DoD Components or their subordinate levels endorse or favor a specific commercial product, commodity, or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) Subscribe, even at no cost, to a commercial or feature wire or other service whose primary purpose is the advertisement or promotion of commercial products, commodities, or services. 
</P>
<P>(3) Carry any advertisement that violates or rejects DoD equal opportunity policy. (See paragraph (j)(3) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(p) All commercial advertising, including advertising supplements, shall be clearly identifiable as such. Paid advertorials and advertising supplements may be included but must be clearly labeled as advertising and readily distinguishable from editorial content. 
</P>
<P>(q) Alteration of official photographic and video imagery will comply with DoD Directive 5040.5. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(r) Commercial sponsors of Armed Forces Professional Entertainment Program events and morale, welfare and recreation events may be mentioned routinely with other pertinent facts in news stories and announcements in DoD newspapers. (See DoD Instructions 1330.13 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> and 1015.2. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(s) Book, radio, television, movie, travel, and other entertainment reviews may be carried if written objectively and if there is no implication of endorsement by the Department of Defense or any of its Components or their subordinate levels. 
</P>
<P>(t) All printing using appropriated funds will be obtained in accordance with DoD Directive 5330.3. 
</P>
<P>(u) Although DoD internet web sites are normally discouraged from linking to commercial activities, the commander may authorize an installation web site to be linked to the web site carrying the authorized civilian enterprise publication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs, consistent with DoD Directive 5122.5, 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> shall: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Develop policies and provide guidance on the administration of the DoD Internal Information Program. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide policy and operational direction to the Director, AFIS. 
</P>
<P>(3) Monitor and evaluate overall mission effectiveness within the Department of Defense for matters under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, American Forces Information Service, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and oversee the implementation of policies and procedures pertaining to the management, content, and publication of DoD publications encompassed by this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Serve as DoD point of contact with the Joint Committee on Printing, Congress of the United States, for matters under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Serve as the DoD point of contact in the United States for Combatant Command newspaper matters. 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide guidance to the Combatant Commands, Military Departments, and other DoD Components pertaining to DoD publications. 
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor effectiveness of business and financial operations of DoD publications and provide business counsel and assistance, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(6) Sponsor a DoD Interservice Newspaper Committee and a Flagship Magazine Committee composed of representatives of the Military Departments to coordinate matters on publications encompassed by this part and flagship magazine matters, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide a press service for joint-Service news and information for use by authorized DoD publication editors. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretaries of the Military Departments shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide policy guidance and assistance to the Department's publications. 
</P>
<P>(2) Encourage the use of CE publications when they are the most cost-effective means of fulfilling the command communication requirement. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that adequate resources are available to support authorized internal information products under this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a member of their public affairs staff to serve on the DoD Interservice Newspaper Committee. 
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure all printing obtained with appropriated funds complies with DoD Directive 5330.3. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Commanders of Combatant Commands shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Publish Combatant Command newspapers, if authorized. In discharging this responsibility, the Commander shall ensure that policy, direction, resources, and administrative support are provided, as required, to produce a professional quality newspaper to support the command mission. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the newspaper is prepared to support U.S. forces in the command area during contingencies and armed conflict. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) National security information shall be protected in accordance with DoD Directive 5200.1 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD 5200.1-R. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Specific items of internal information of interest to DoD personnel and their family members prepared for publication in DoD publications may be made available to requesters if the information can be released as provided in DoD Directive 5400.7 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD 5400.1-R. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Editorial policies of DoD publications shall be designed to improve the ability of DoD personnel to execute the missions of the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(4) DoD editors of publications covered under this part shall conform to applicable policies, regulations, and laws involving the collection, processing, storage, use, publication and distribution of information by DoD Components (e.g., libel, photographic image alteration, copyright, sexually explicit materials, classification of information, protection of sensitive information and U.S. Government printing and postal regulations). 
</P>
<P>(5) DoD publications shall comply with DoD Directive 5400.11 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> regarding the DoD privacy program. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> See footnote 1 to § 247.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of DoD newspapers.</I> (1) Commanders are authorized to establish Funded newspapers (appendix A to this part) or CE newspapers (appendix B to this part) when: 
</P>
<P>(i) A valid internal information mission requirement exists. 
</P>
<P>(A) Command or installation newspapers provide the commander a primary means of communicating mission-essential information to members of the command. They provide feedback through such forums as letters to the editor columns. This alerts the commander to the emotional status and state of DoD knowledge of the command. The newspaper is used as a return conduit for command information to improve attitudes and increase knowledge. 
</P>
<P>(B) News reports and feature stories on individuals and organizational elements of the command provides a crossfeed of DoD information, which improves internal cooperation and mission performance. Recognition of excellence in individual or organizational performance motivates and sets forth expected norms for mission accomplishment. 
</P>
<P>(C) The newspaper improves morale by quelling rumors and keeping members informed on DoD information that will affect their futures. It provides information and assistance to family members, which improve their spirits and thereby the effectiveness of their military service and/or civilian member. The newspaper encourages participation in various positive leisure-time activities to improve morale and deter alcohol abuse and other pursuits that impair their ability to perform. 
</P>
<P>(D) The newspaper provides information to make command members aware of the hazards of the abuse of drugs and other substances, and of the negative impact that substance abuse has on readiness. 
</P>
<P>(E) CE newspapers provide advertisements that guide command members to outlets where they may fulfill their purchasing needs. A by-product of this commercial contact is increased installation-community communication, which enhances mutual support. 
</P>
<P>(F) The newspaper increases organizational cohesiveness and effectiveness by providing a visual representation of the essence of the command itself. 
</P>
<P>(G) Good journalistic practices are vital, but are not an end unto themselves. They are the primary means to enhance receptivity of command communication through the newspaper. 
</P>
<P>(H) The newspaper exists to facilitate accomplishment of the command or installation mission. That is the only basis for the expenditure of DoD resources to produce them. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A newspaper is determined by the commander and the next higher level of command to be the most cost-effective means of fulfilling the command internal communication requirement. 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of appropriated funds is authorized to establish a Funded newspaper if a CE newspaper is not feasible. The process of establishing a newspaper must include an investigation of the feasibility of publishing under the CE concept. This investigation must include careful consideration of the potential for real or apparent conflict of interest. If publishing under the CE concept is determined to be feasible, commanders must ensure that they have obtained approval to establish the newspaper before authorizing their representatives to negotiate a contract with a CE publisher. 
</P>
<P>(3) DoD newspapers are mission activities. The use of nonappropriated funds for any aspect of their operations is not authorized. 
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriated funds shall not be used to pay any part of the commercial publisher's costs incurred in publishing a CE publication. 
</P>
<P>(5) Only one DoD newspaper or magazine is authorized for each command or installation. 
</P>
<P>(i) If a newspaper is required at an installation where more than one command or headquarters is collocated, the host commander shall be responsible for publication of one funded or CE newspaper for all. The host command shall provide balanced and sufficient coverage of the other commands, their personnel, and activities in that locality. These commands, or headquarters, shall assist the staff of the host newspaper with coverage. If required by unusual circumstance, a commander other than the host may publish the single authorized newspaper when the majority of affected organizations concur. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This provision is not intended to prohibit the headquarters of a geographically dispersed command that receives its local coverage in the host installation newspaper from publishing a command-wide newspaper; nor is it intended to prohibit a command that has information needs that are significantly different from the majority of the host installation audience from publishing a separate newspaper, when authorized by the designated approving authority. (See appendix E to this part). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Establishment of CE Guides and Installation Maps.</I> When valid communication requirements exist, publications in this category may be established by the commander, if feasible. (See appendix B to this part) Only one CE guide and installation map is authorized for each command or installation. The requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, apply to CE guides and installation maps. These publications shall be approved by the next higher level. Approval authorities shall exercise care not to overburden community advertisers. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Use of trademark.</I> The DoD Components and their subordinate levels shall trademark—State, Federal, or both—the names of their publications when possible. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Use of recycled products.</I> The public affairs office shall, whenever possible, based on contractual agreements, use recycled paper for publications covered under this part. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Mailing requirements and sales and distribution of non-DoD publications.</I> See appendix C to this part. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>AFIS print media directorate.</I> See appendix D to this part. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>DoD command newspaper and magazine review system.</I> See appendix E to this part. 
</P>
<P>(6) When, in the opinion of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs, or the Combatant Command Commander, a Combatant Command newspaper is needed, establishment shall be directed by the Secretary of Defense. Both appropriated and nonappropriated funds may be used in the publication of overseas Combatant Command newspapers. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Establishment of magazines.</I> New magazines shall be approved by the Head of the publishing DoD Component. New magazines serving the Military Services shall be approved in accordance with Service procedures. Only one DoD magazine or newspaper is authorized for each command or installation. Magazines are normally financed through appropriated funds. When CE magazines are approved, provisions in this part regarding advertising and contracting for CE publications apply to CE magazines. Magazines must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Serve a clearly defined purpose in support of the mission of the publishing DoD Component, and the purpose must justify the cost. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not duplicate equivalent magazines serving the same, or substantially the same purpose. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Be published and distributed efficiently and economically. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Be reviewed every two years by the publishing DoD Component to ensure they are in compliance with this part, are mission essential, and are economically achieving their desired objective. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 247.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 247.7   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The biennial reporting requirement contained in this part has been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-PA(BI) 1638. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.8.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 247—Funded Newspapers and Magazines
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Purpose.</I> Funded newspapers and magazines support the command communication requirements of the DoD Components and their subordinate commands. Normally, printing is accomplished by a commercial printer under contract or in government printing facilities in accordance with DoD Directive 5330.3. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The editorial content of these publications and distribution are accomplished by the contracting command. Overseas, Funded newspapers are authorized to be printed under contract with the <I>S&amp;S.</I> Where printing by <I>S&amp;S</I> is not feasible because of distance or other factors, Funded newspapers may be printed by other means. These are evaluated on a case-by-case basis with the cognizant DPS office. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22121.</P></FTNT>
<P>B. <I>Name.</I> The name of the publication may include the name of the command or installation, or, the name of the command or installation may appear separately in the nameplate (flag). The emblem of the command or installation may be included in the nameplate, also. When possible, the DoD Components and their subordinate levels shall trademark the names of their publications, as stated in § 247.5(d). 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Masthead.</I> The masthead shall include the names of the commanding officer and the PAO, the names and editorial titles of the primary staff of the publication, and the mailing address and telephone number of the editorial staff, in addition to that required in § 247.4(i). 
</P>
<P>D. <I>News and editorial materials.</I> The commander and the public affairs staff shall generate and select news, information, photographs, editorial, and other materials to be used. Authorized news and information sources include the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs (OASD(PA)), AFIS, the Military Departments, their subordinate levels of command, and other Government Agencies. Civilian community service news and announcements of benefit to personnel assigned to the command or installation and their family members may also be used. Photographic images used will be in compliance with § 247.4(r). 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Assignment of personnel.</I> Military and DoD civilian personnel may not be assigned to duty at the premises of the contract printer to perform any job functions that are part of the business activities or contractual responsibilities of the contract printer. Members of the public affairs staff who produce editorial content may work on the premises as liaison and monitor to specify and coordinate layout and other production details provided for in the command contract with the contract printer. A member of the public affairs staff shall review proof copy to prevent mistakes. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Funding.</I> The expense of publishing and distributing Funded newspapers and magazines is charged to appropriated funds of the publishing command. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Printing.</I> Printing of a funded publication shall be handled in accordance with DoD Directive 5330.3 in conjunction with the DoD Component's printing function with public affairs as the office of primary publishing interest. The use of color is authorized if the cognizant commander, the DoD Component's printing function and the PAO determine it enhances communication. 
</P>
<P>H. <I>Distribution.</I> Funded publications may be distributed through official channels. Appropriated funds and manpower may be used for distribution of Funded publications, as required. 
</P>
<P>I. <I>Advertising.</I> Funded publications shall not carry commercial advertising. As a service, the Funded newspaper may carry nonpaid listings of personally owned items and services for sale by members of the command. Noncommercial news stories and announcements concerning nonappropriated fund activities and commissaries may be published in funded publications. 
</P>
<P>J. <I>Employment and gratuities.</I> DoD personnel shall not accept any gratuities from or employment with any GPO-contracted printers in violation of the DoD 5500.7-R, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> the Joint Ethics Regulation. In addition, DoD personnel whose spouse or children (or other relatives as described in the Joint Ethics Regulation) are offered employment by, or work for, a GPO-contracted printer, must take appropriate action to avoid conflicts of interest. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to section A. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.8.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 247—CE Publications
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Purpose.</I> CE publications consist of DoD newspapers, magazines, guides, and installation maps. They support command internal communications. The commander or public affairs office provides oversight and final approval authority for the news and editorial content of the publication. CE publishers sell advertising to cover costs and secure earnings, print the publications, and may make all or part of the distribution. Periodically, CE publishers compete for contracts to publish these publications. Neither appropriated nor nonappropriated funds shall be used to pay for any part of a CE publisher's costs incurred in publishing a CE publication. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Name.</I> The name of the publication may include the name of the command or installation, or the name of the command or installation may appear separately in the nameplate (flag). The emblem of the command or installation may also be included in the nameplate. When possible, the DoD Components and their subordinates shall trademark the names of their publications, as stated in § 247.6(d). 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Masthead.</I> The masthead shall include the following in addition to that required in § 247.4 (i) and (j). “The editorial content of this publication is the responsibility of the (name of command or installation) Public Affairs Office.” The names of the commanding officer and PAO, the names and editorial titles of the staff assigned the duty of preparing the editorial content, and the office address and telephone number of the editorial staff shall be listed in the masthead of DoD newspapers, but is not required in CE guides and installation maps. The names of the publisher and employees of the publisher may be listed separately. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>News and editorial materials.</I> The commander or the public affairs office shall provide oversight and final approval authority for news, information, photographs, editorial, and other materials to be used in a CE publication in the space allotted for that purpose by written contract with the commercial publisher. Authorized news and information sources include the OASD(PA), AFIS, the Military Departments and their subordinate levels of command, and other Government Agencies. CE contractor personnel may provide material for use in the publication if approved by the commander or PAO, as the commander's representative. Commercial news and opinion sources, such as AP, UPI, New York Times, etc., are not normally authorized for use in DoD publications except as stated in § 247.4(q). Newspapers may publish community service news and announcements of the civilian community for the benefit of command or installation personnel and their families. Imagery used will be in compliance with § 247.4(r). 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Assignment of personnel.</I> Neither military nor DoD civilian personnel shall be assigned to duty at the premises of the CE publisher. Neither military nor DoD civilian personnel shall perform any job functions that are part of the business activities or contractual responsibilities of the CE publisher either at the contractor's facility or the Government facility. The PAO and staff who produce the non-advertising content of the CE publication may perform certain installation liaison functions on publisher premises including monitoring and coordinating layout and design and other publishing details set forth in the contract to ensure the effective presentation of information. One or more members of the public affairs staff shall review proof copy to prevent mistakes. Newspaper text-editing-system pagination and copy terminals owned by the CE publisher may be placed in the command or installation public affairs office under contractual agreement for use by the public affairs staff to coordinate layout and ensure that the preparation of editorial material is performed in such a way as to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the printing and publication functions performed by the CE publisher. All costs of these terminals shall be borne by the CE newspaper publishers who shall retain title to the equipment and full responsibility for any damage to or loss of such equipment. The relationship between the public affairs staff and employees of the CE contractor is that of Government employees working with employees of a private contractor. Supervision of CE employees; that is, the responsibility to rate performance, set rate of pay, grant vacation time, exercise discipline, assign day-to-day administrative tasks, etc., remains with the CE publisher. Any modification of the contract must be made by the responsible contracting officer. Public affairs staff members must be aware that employees of the contractor are not employees of the government and should be treated accordingly. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Distribution of CE publications.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. A funded newspaper shall not be distributed as an insert to a CE newspaper, unless provided for in the CE contract, nor shall a CE newspaper be distributed as an insert to a funded newspaper. 
</P>
<P>2. Supplements, clearly labeled as such, and advertising inserts, may be inserted into and distributed with a CE newspaper. 
</P>
<P>3. The commercial publisher of a CE publication shall make as much of the distribution to the intended readership as possible. CE publications may be distributed through official channels. 
</P>
<P>4. Except as authorized by the next higher headquarters for special situations or occasions (such as an installation open house), CE publications shall not be distributed outside the intended DoD audience and retirees, which includes family members. Electronic publication on the internet/world wide web is not considered distribution outside the intended DoD audience. The CE publisher may provide complete copies of each specific issue of a CE publication to an advertiser whose advertisement is carried therein. 
</P>
<P>5. The CE publisher of a CE newspaper will provide the appropriate number of news racks determined by the installation commander for publication distribution. 
</P>
<P>CE publishers are responsible for maintenance of these racks. 
</P>
<P>6. CE guides, magazines, and installation maps may be delivered in bulk quantities to the appropriate installation offices to distribute these publications through official channels as necessary. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Responsibilities regarding advertising.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Only the CE publisher shall use the space agreed upon for advertising. While the editorial content of the publication is completely controlled by the installation, the advertising section, including its content, is the responsibility of the CE publisher. The public affairs staff, however, retains the responsibility to review advertisements before they are printed. 
</P>
<P>2. Any decision by a CE publisher to accept or reject an advertisement is final. The PAO may discuss with a publisher their decision not to run an advertisement, but cannot substitute his judgment for that of the publisher. 
</P>
<P>3. Before each issue of a CE publication is printed, the public affairs staff shall review advertisements to identify any that are contrary to law or to DoD or Military Service regulations, including this part, or that may pose a danger or detriment to DoD personnel or their family members, or that interfere with the command or installation missions. It is in the command's best interest to carefully apply DoD and Service regulations and request exclusion of only those advertisements that are clearly in violation of this part. If any such advertisements are identified, the public affairs office shall obtain a legal coordination of the proposed exclusion. After coordination, the public affairs office shall request, in writing if necessary, that the commercial publisher delete any such advertisements. If the publisher prints the issue containing the objectionable advertisement(s), the commander may prohibit distribution in accordance with DoD Directive 1325.6. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. DoD Directive 1325.6 gives the commander authority to prohibit distribution on the installation of a CE publication containing advertising he or she determines likely to promote a situation leading to potential riots or other disturbances, or when the circulation of such advertising may present a danger to loyalty, discipline, or morale of personnel. Each commander shall determine whether particular advertisements to be placed by the publisher in a CE publication serving the command or installation may interfere with successful mission performance. Some considerations in this decision are the local situation, the content of the proposed advertisement, and the past performance of the advertiser. Prior to making a determination to prohibit distribution of a CE publication, the commander shall obtain a legal coordination. 
</P>
<P>5. CE publications may carry paid and nonpaid advertising of the products and services of nonappropriated fund activities and commissaries, if allowed by DoD and Military Service regulations. (See DoD Instruction 1015.2 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>) 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to section G.3. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>6. The Military Departments will coordinate a standard set or ratios of advertising-to-editorial copy for multiples of pages for run of the publication advertising in CE publications that will be included in all DoD Component regulations supplementing this part. The recommended annual average is a ratio of 60/40. Inserts and advertising supplements will not count in the total ad-to-copy ratio; However, the commander may prohibit the distribution of supplemental advertising deemed excessive. 
</P>
<P>7. Bingo games and lotteries conducted by a commercial organization whose primary business is conducting lotteries may not be advertised in CE publications. Non-lottery activities (such as dining at a restaurant or attending a musical performance) of a commercial organization whose primary business is conducting lotteries may be advertised in CE publications. Exceptions are allowed for authorized State lotteries, lotteries conducted by a not-for-profit organization or a governmental organization, or conducted as a promotional activity by a commercial organization and clearly occasional and ancillary to the primary business of that organization. An exception also pertains to any gaming conducted by an Indian tribe under 25 U.S.C. 2720. See section D. of appendix C to this part. 
</P>
<P>H. <I>CE guides and maps.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. The name of the publication may include the name and emblem of the command or installation. 
</P>
<P>2. At the discretion of the commander, an installation telephone directory may be included as a section of a CE guide. The telephone section shall be part of the guide contract specifications. Separate contracts for CE telephone directories are not authorized. Over-run printing of the telephone directory/yellow pages section of the installation guide is authorized. The number of guides with integral telephone directories and the number of over-run copies of the telephone directory/yellow pages will be clearly specified in the single guide contract. Required communication security information shall be printed on the first page of the telephone section and not on the cover of the guide. The cover of the guide may notify users that the publication contains the telephone directory. 
</P>
<P>3. CE contracts for guides and maps shall establish firm delivery dates and shall contain provisions to ensure distribution is controlled by the command. Delivery dates may vary for guides and maps to make them more attractive to advertisers. The contract provisions shall specify delivery dates. 
</P>
<P>I. <I>Employment and gratuities.</I> DoDpersonnel shall not accept any gratuities from or employment with any CE publisher in violation of DoD Directive 5500.7-R. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> In addition, DoD personnel whose spouse or children (or other relations as described in DoD Directive 5500.7-R) are offered employment by, or work for, a CE publisher, must take appropriate action to avoid conflicts of interest. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to section G.3. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>J. <I>Contracting for a CE publication.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The DoD Components and their subordinate commands are authorized to contract in writing for CE publications. The underlying premise of the CE concept is that the DoD Components and their subordinate commands will save money by transferring certain publishing and distribution functions to a commercial publisher selected through a competitive process. The CE publication is printed and delivered to the command, installation, or its readership in accordance with the terms of a written contract. Oral contracts are not acceptable. The right to sell and circulate advertising to the complete readership in the CE publication provides the publisher revenue to cover costs and secure earnings. The command or installation guarantees first publication and distribution of locally-produced editorial content in the publication. The publication becomes the property of the command, installation, or intended reader upon delivery in accordance with terms of the contract. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Contracting process.</I> Whether a first time initiative to establish a CE publication or a recompetition of an existing CE contract, the process must start with advance planning as to the nature of the command's requirements, the contracting strategy, and the market of potential advertisers and competitors for the job. The CE contract solicitation and the contract itself must contain a statement of work that describes in legally sufficient detail the Government's requirements and the conditions and restrictions under which the contractor will perform. The cognizant contracting office for the CE contracting action shall be the contracting office which normally provides contracting support to the command for service contracts and other procurements of a general nature which are above the simplified small purchase threshold. The contracting officer shall combine the statement of work with appropriate contractual terms and conditions, using 48 CFR chapter I and II as guides, although CE contracts are not subject to the FAR or DFARS, because they do not involve the expenditure of appropriated funds. The resulting solicitation and contract shall completely identify the rights and obligations of both parties. Proposals shall be solicited from all known commercial publishers who could potentially become the CE contractor. Upon evaluation of the competing proposals by the Source Selection Advisory Committee (SSAC) and selection of a winner by the selecting official, the CE contract shall be awarded by the contracting officer. The CE contract shall not require the contractor to pay money to the command or to provide goods, services, or other consideration not directly related to the CE publication. In the event that only one offer is received, the SSAC may recommend to the selecting official that no award be made or that the contracting officer enter into negotiations with the sole offeror to obtain the best possible service and product for the Government. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statement of Work (SOW).</I> The SOW should be written to have the CE contractor perform as many of the publishing and distribution functions as practical to generate maximum savings to the Department of Defense. In so doing, care must be taken to balance Government requirements with a realistic view of the advertising revenue potential so as to achieve a contract that is commercially viable. The command's internal information needs shall be paramount. Some of the key issues that shall be addressed in the SOW follow: 
</P>
<P>a. A general description of the scope of the proposed contract including the name and nature of the publication involved; for example, weekly newspaper, monthly magazine, annual guide and installation map. Normally, guides and installation maps are included in the same contract. 
</P>
<P>b. A description of editorial content to be carried; e.g., news, features, supplements, and factual information, along with provisions addressing the possible inclusion of contractor-furnished advertising supplements for newspapers, provided any such supplement shall have the prior approval of the commander. 
</P>
<P>c. A description of the rules for the inclusion of advertising in the publication, substantially as follows: “The contractor agrees not to include in the publication any advertising of the following types: (1) paid political advertisements for a candidate, party, or which advocate a particular position on a political issue, including advertisements advocating a position on any proposed DoD policy or policy under review, or which advocate lobbying elected officials on a specific issue; (2) advertisements for any establishment declared “off limits” by the command; (3) advertisements that are contrary to law or to DoD or Military Service regulations or that in the government's opinion pose a danger or detriment to DoD personnel or their family members, or that interfere with the command or installation missions; (4) advertisements for bingo games or lotteries conducted by a commercial organization whose primary business is conducting lotteries; (5) (other restrictions deemed appropriate by the Service/command, if any.)” Additionally, the contract will contain provisions which: (1) specify the annual average advertising-to-editorial ratio for newspapers and magazines; (2) state that the commander's representative shall have the authority to specify newspaper advertising layout when required to enhance communication's effectiveness of the publication; and (3) which requires the contractor to notify advertisers of the requirements in § 247.4(i) and § 247.4(j). 
</P>
<P>d. A provision substantially as follows: “The contractor agrees not to enter into any exclusive advertising agreement with any firm, broker, or individual for the purpose of selling advertising associated with this contract.” 
</P>
<P>e. A description of the CE contractor's responsibilities for distribution of the publication. This provision should address such matters as contractor furnishing of news racks along with contractor responsibility for maintenance of these racks. 
</P>
<P>f. A description of contractor-owned and/or contractor-furnished equipment such as text editing, copy terminals, and modems determined to be required to coordinate layout and ensure that the preparation of editorial material is performed in such a way as to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the publication process. 
</P>
<P>g. A description of contractor-furnished editorial support services determined to be required. Such description must be in terms of the end product required; e.g., photography service and/or writer/reporter services, and not as a requirement to make available certain contractor personnel. In day-to-day performance and administration of the CE contract, contractor personnel performing such support services shall not be treated in any way as though they are Government employees. 
</P>
<P>h. A provision that the use, where economically feasible, of recycled paper for internal products will be a consideration for awarding the contract, as stated in § 247.6 (e). 
</P>
<P>i. SOW's and RFP's for CE newspapers shall specify standard newsprint, recyclable, subject to requirements of applicable laws and regulations. 
</P>
<P>j. For CE magazines, a provision requiring the contractor to provide a bulk number of copies of each printing to the Government Printing Office (GPO) for distribution to Federal Depository Libraries. The number of copies to be provided will be determined on the number of libraries desiring to subscribe to the publication. The number could be a maximum of 1,400, but has historically averaged approximately 500 to 600 copies for military magazines. The contractor would be required to contact GPO to initiate this procedure at (202) 512-1071. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Contract provisions.</I> The CE concept is based on an exception to the Government Printing and Binding Regulations 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> published by the Congressional Joint Committee on Printing. While CE contracts are not subject to the FAR (48 CFR chapter I) or the DFARS (48 CFR chapter II), the FAR contains many clauses that are useful in protecting the interests of the Government. The following clauses may be helpful in obtaining the best possible CE publication: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. <I>Status of FAR clause.</I> To clarify the status of FAR clauses appearing in CE contracts, the following clause shall be included in all new CE contracts: 
</P>
<P>“The (name of DoD installation/unit/organization) is an element of the United States Government. This agreement is a United States Government contract authorized under the provisions of DoD Instruction 5120.4 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> as an exception to the Government Printing and Binding Regulations published by the Congressional Joint Committee on Printing. Although this contract is not subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) or the Defense FAR Supplement (DFARS), FAR clauses useful in protecting the interests of the Government and implementing those provisions required by law are included in this contract.” 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to section G.3. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>b. <I>Option clause.</I> Insert a clause substantially the same as the following to extend the term of the CE publisher contract: 
</P>
<P>(1) “The Government may extend the term of this contract by written notice to the contractor within [insert in the clause the period of time in which the contracting officer has to exercise the option]; provided that the Government shall give the contractor a preliminary written notice of its intent to exercise the option at least 60 days before the contract expires. The preliminary notice does not commit the government to exercise the option.” In the case of base closure or realignment the publisher has the right to request a renegotiation of the contract. 
</P>
<P>(2) “If the Government exercises this option, the extended contract shall be considered to include this option provision.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “The total duration of this contract, including the exercise of any options under this clause, shall not exceed 6 years.”
</P>
<P>c. <I>Default clause.</I> Insert the following clause in solicitations and contracts: 
</P>
<P>(1) “The Government may, by written notice of default to the contractor, terminate this contract in whole or in part if the contractor fails to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Deliver the CE publications in the quantities required or to perform the services within the time specified in this contract or any extension; 
</P>
<P>(b) Make progress, so as to endanger performance of this contract; 
</P>
<P>(c) Perform any of the other provisions of this contract.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “If the Government terminates this contract in whole or in part, it may acquire, under the terms and in the manner the contracting officer considers appropriate, supplies or services similar to those terminated. However, the contractor shall continue the work not terminated.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “The rights and remedies of the Government in this clause are in addition to any other rights and remedies provided by law or under this contract.” 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Termination for convenience of the Government.</I> Insert the following clause in solicitations and contracts: 
</P>
<P>“The contracting officer, by written notice, may terminate this contract, in whole or in part if the services contracted for are no longer required by the Government, or when it is in the Government's interest, such as with installation closures. Any such termination shall be at no cost to the Government.” The Government will use its best efforts to mitigate financial hardship on the publisher. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Term of contract.</I> CE contracts may be entered into for an initial period of up to 2 years, and may contain options to extend the contract for one or more additional periods of 1 or 2 years duration. The total period of the contract, including options, shall not exceed 6 years, after which the contract must be recompeted. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Exercise of options.</I> Under normal circumstances, when the contractor is performing satisfactorily, options for additional periods of performance should be exercised. However, the exercise of the option is the exclusive right of the Government. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Modification of the contract.</I> Any changes to the SOW or other terms and conditions of the contract shall be made by written contract modification signed by both parties. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>SSAC.</I> The commander shall appoint an SSAC. The committee shall participate in the development of the Source Selection Plan (SSP) before the solicitation of proposals, evaluate proposals, and recommend a source to the selecting official. Since cost is not a factor in the evaluation, award will be based on technical proposals, the offeror's experience and/or qualifications, and past performance. 
</P>
<P>a. The SSAC shall consist of a minimum of five voting members: a chairperson, who shall be a senior member of the command; senior representatives from public affairs and printing; and a minimum of two other functional specialists with skills relevant to the selection process. Each SSAC shall have non-voting legal and contracting advisors to assist in the selection process. 
</P>
<P>b. In arriving at its recommendations, the SSAC shall follow the SSP and avail itself of all relevant information, including the proposals submitted, independently derived data regarding offerors' performance records, the results of on-site surveys of offerors' facilities, where feasible, and in appropriate cases, personal presentations by offerors. 
</P>
<P>c. The work of the SSAC must be coordinated with the contracting officer to ensure that the process is objective and fair. All communications between the offerors and the Government shall be through the contracting officer. No member of the SSAC or the selecting official shall communicate directly with any offeror regarding the source selection. 
</P>
<P>d. In cases where a losing competitor requests a debriefing from the contracting officer, members of the SSAC may be called upon to participate so as to give the losing competitor the most thorough explanation practical as to why its proposal was not successful. No information regarding competitors' proposals shall be discussed with the unsuccessful offerors during debriefings, discussions, or negotiations. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>SSP.</I> A SSP (see sample SSP at attachment 1 to this appendix) must be developed early in the planning process to serve as a guide for the personnel involved and ensure a fair and objective process and a successful outcome. The contracting officer is primarily responsible for development of the SSP, in coordination with the PAO and other members of the SSAC. Ideally, the SSP should be completed and approved prior to issuance of the solicitation; it must be completed and approved before the receipt of proposals. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Evaluation criteria and proposal requirements.</I> The solicitation must specify, in relative order of importance, the factors the Government will consider in selecting the most advantageous proposal. In addition, the solicitation must specify the types of information the proposal must contain to be properly evaluated. These two aspects of the solicitation must closely parallel one another. The contracting officer is primarily responsible for development of these two solicitation provisions, in coordination with the PAO, legal counsel, and members of the SSAC. 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Evaluation criteria for award.</I> Drawing upon the SSP, this feature of the solicitation must advise offerors what factors the Government will consider in evaluating proposals and the relative importance of each factor. The sample SSP (attachment 1 to this appendix) provides an example of criteria that might be used. Note that under the “Services and/or Items Offered” factor, paragraph E.2.b. of attachment 1 to this appendix, it is necessary to list and indicate the relative importance of services and/or items <I>above the minimum requirements of the SOW</I> that the command would consider desirable and that, if offered, will enhance the offeror's evaluation standing. The offer of services and/or items not listed in the evaluation criteria shall not be considered in the evaluation of proposals, but may be accepted in the contract award if deemed valuable to the Government, PROVIDED the service and/or item involved is directly related to producing the publication and not in violation of any other statute or regulation. Examples of items that cannot be considered during the evaluation process are; press kits, laminated maps, economic development reports, or other separate publications not an integral part of the CE publication. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Proposal requirements.</I> This provision of the solicitation must describe the specific and general types of information necessary to be submitted as part of the proposal to be evaluated. Offerors shall be notified that unnecessarily elaborate proposals are not desired. 
</P>
<HD1>Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 247—SSP 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Introduction 
</HD2>
<P>1. The objectives of this plan are: 
</P>
<P>a. To ensure an impartial, equitable, and thorough evaluation of all offerors' proposals in accordance with the evaluation criteria presented in the request for proposals (RFP). 
</P>
<P>b. To ensure that the contracting officer is provided technical evaluation findings of the SSAC in such a manner that selection of the offer most advantageous to the Government is ensured. 
</P>
<P>c. To document clearly and thoroughly all aspects of the evaluation and decision process to provide effective debriefings to unsuccessful offerors, to respond to legal challenges to the selection, and to ensure adherence to evaluation criteria. 
</P>
<P>2. This plan will be used to select a CE contractor for publication of the ____________________ newspaper (CE guide, magazine, or installation map) and will: 
</P>
<P>a. Give each SSAC member a clear understanding of his or her responsibilities as well as a complete overview of the evaluation process. 
</P>
<P>b. Establish a well-balanced evaluation structure, equitable and uniform scoring procedures, and a thorough and accurate appraisal of all considerations pertinent to the negotiated contracting process. 
</P>
<P>c. Provide the selecting official with meaningful findings that are clearly presented and founded on the collective, independent judgment of technical and managerial experts. 
</P>
<P>d. Ensure identification and selection of a contractor whose final proposal offers optimum satisfaction of the Government's technical and managerial requirements as expressed in the RFP. 
</P>
<P>e. Serve as part of the official record for the evaluation process. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Organization and Staffing 
</HD2>
<P>1. The SSAC will consist of the Chairperson and a minimum of four other voting committee members plus the non-voting advisors to the SSAC. 
</P>
<P>2. The SSAC committee members are: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Position 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chairperson 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Member 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Member 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Member 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Member 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal
<br/>Advisor 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contract
<br/>Advisor 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Non-voting members.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>C. Responsibilities 
</HD2>
<P>1. Selecting Official: 
</P>
<P>a. Approves the SSP. 
</P>
<P>b. Reviews the evaluation and findings of the SSAC. 
</P>
<P>c. Considers the SSAC's recommendation of award. 
</P>
<P>d. Selects the successful offeror. 
</P>
<P>2. Chairperson of the Source Selection Advisory Committee (C/SSAC): 
</P>
<P>a. Reviews the SSP. 
</P>
<P>b. Approves membership of the SSAC. 
</P>
<P>c. Analyzes the evaluation and findings of the SSAC and applies weights to the evaluation results. 
</P>
<P>d. Approves the SSAC report for submission to the selecting official. 
</P>
<P>3. Contracting Officer: 
</P>
<P>a. Is responsible for the proper and efficient conduct of the entire source selection process encompassing solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award. 
</P>
<P>b. Provides SSAC and the selecting official with guidance and instructions to conduct the evaluation and selection process. 
</P>
<P>c. Receives proposals submitted and makes them available to the SSAC, taking necessary precautions to ensure against premature or unauthorized disclosure of source selection information. 
</P>
<P>4. SSAC members shall: 
</P>
<P>a. Familiarize themselves with the RFP and SSP. 
</P>
<P>b. Provide a fair and impartial review and evaluation of each proposal against the solicitation requirements and evaluation criteria. 
</P>
<P>c. Provide written documentation substantiating their evaluations to include strengths, weaknesses, and any deficiencies of each proposal. 
</P>
<P>5. Legal advisor: 
</P>
<P>a. Reviews RFP and SSP for form and legality. 
</P>
<P>b. Advises the SSAC members of their duties and responsibilities, regarding procurement integrity issues and confidentiality requirements. 
</P>
<P>c. Participate in SSAC meetings and provide legal advice as required. 
</P>
<P>d. Provides legal review of all documents supporting the selection decision to ensure legal sufficiency and consistency with the evaluation criteria in the RFP and SSP. 
</P>
<P>e. Advises the selecting official on the legality of the selection decision. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Administrative Instructions 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Evaluation overview.</I> The advisory committee will operate with maximum flexibility. Collective discussion by evaluators at committee meetings of their evaluation findings is permitted in the interchange of viewpoints regarding strengths, weaknesses, and deficiencies noted in the proposals relating to evaluation items. Evaluators will not suggest or disclose numerical scores or other information regarding the relative standing of offerors outside of committee meetings. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Evaluation procedure.</I> The evaluation of offers is based on good judgment and a thorough knowledge of the guidelines and criteria applicable to each evaluation factor. 
</P>
<P>a. Numerical scoring is merely reflective of the composite findings of the SSAC. The evaluation scoring system is used as a tool to assist the Chairperson of the SSAC in determining the proposal most advantageous to the Government. 
</P>
<P>b. The most important documents supporting the contract award will be the findings, conclusions, and reports of the SSAC. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Safeguarding data.</I> The sensitivity of the proceedings and documentation require stringent and special safeguards throughout the evaluation process: 
</P>
<P>a. Inadvertent release of information could be a source of considerable misunderstanding and embarrassment to the Government. It is imperative, therefore, for all members of the SSAC to avoid any unauthorized disclosures of information pertaining to this evaluation. Evaluation participants will observe the following rules: 
</P>
<P>(1) All offeror and evaluation materials will be secured when not in use (i.e., during breaks, lunch, and at the end of the day). 
</P>
<P>(2) All attempted communications by offeror's representatives shall be directed to the contracting officer. No communications between members of the SSAC or the selecting official and offerors regarding the contract award or evaluation is permitted except when called upon under the provisions of paragraph J.8.d, of appendix B to this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Neither SSAC members or the selecting official shall disclose anything pertaining to the source selection process to any offeror except as authorized by the contracting officer. 
</P>
<P>(4) Neither SSAC members or the selecting official shall discuss the substantive issues of the evaluation with any unauthorized individual, even after award of the contract. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Technical Evaluation Procedures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Evaluation process.</I> Proposals will be evaluated based on the following criteria as indicated in Section M of the solicitation: The evaluation worksheet (attachment 2 to this appendix) shall be used to score the technical factors. Using the technical evaluation worksheet, each member of the SSAC will independently review each proposal and assign an appropriate number of points to each factor being considered. Point scores for each factor will range from “0” to “5” based on the committee member's evaluation of the proposal. Upon completion of individual evaluations, the group will meet in committee with the Chairperson and arrive at a single numeric score for each factor in the proposal. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Criteria.</I> An example of applicable evaluation criteria and their relative order of importance are listed below in paragraphs E.2. a. through d. of this appendix. Criteria and weights are provided as an example only. The SSAC must determine its own weighting factors tailored to meet the needs of the particular CE publication and describe the relative weights assigned in the RFP; e.g., “Evaluation factors are listed in descending order of importance; criteria #1 is twice as important as criteria #2,” etc. 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Technical and production capability.</I> Scores will range from “0” (unacceptable), to “5” (exhibits state-of-the-art, award winning, or clearly superior technical ability to produce the required newspaper, magazine, guide, or installation map). Factors to be considered for newspaper contracts include: level of automation; compatibility of automation with existing PAO automation (unless other automation is provided); printing capability; production equipment; physical plant (capabilities); and driving distance to the plant. Similar factors may be considered for magazines, guides and installation maps. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Services and/or items offered.</I> Scores will range from “0” (unacceptable), to “5” (the offer of equipment, such as automation equipment; or services, such as editorial or photographic services as set forth in the contract solicitation that will greatly enhance the newspaper and/or its production). Factors to be considered for newspapers include: offer of automation equipment and the quality and amount of equipment offered; the quality and amount of services offered; the usefulness of the services and/or items to the public affairs office in enhancing the newspaper; the impact of the services and/or items on other parts of the contract. Similar factors may be considered for magazines, guides and installation maps. The offer of equipment or services not specifically related to producing the publication will not result in the assignment of a higher score. 
</P>
<P>c. <I>Past performance record.</I> Scores will range from “0” (no experience in newspaper, magazine, guide, or installation map publishing and/or unsatisfactory, previous performance), to “5” (long-term, highly successful experience publishing similar newspapers, magazines, guides, or installation maps). Factors to be considered include: demonstrated ability to successfully produce a CE or similar publication; demonstrated printing ability (types of printing, history of newspaper, magazine, guide, or installation map printing); demonstrated success in contract performance in a timely and responsive manner; demonstrated capability to sell advertising and successfully recoup publication costs. 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Management approach.</I> Scores will range from “0” (approach unacceptable), to “5” (proposal demonstrates a sound and innovative approach to interfacing with the PAO and managing the CE publication operation). Factors to be considered include: The offeror's proposed approach to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Interfacing with the PAO staff. 
</P>
<P>(2) Controlling the quality and timeliness of the finished product. 
</P>
<P>(3) Sale of ads of the type that enhance the publication's image in the community and with the readership at large. 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring that contractor's personnel are properly supervised and managed. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Weighting factors.</I> Points will be assigned to the final score of each factor in a proposal as determined by multiplying the score assigned (e.g., “0,” “1,” “2,” “3,” “4,” or “5”) by the relative weight of the individual criterion as indicated: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Relative weight (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum points 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRITERION 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRITERION 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRITERION 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRITERION 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(EXAMPLE ONLY): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">CRITERION 1: Score 5 (5 × 40), Total Points</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">CRITERION 1: Score 4 (4 × 30), Total Points</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">CRITERION 1: Score 3 (3 × 20), Total Points</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">CRITERION 1: Score 2 (2 × 10), Total Points</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4. <I>Report of findings and recommendations.</I> After the SSAC has completed final evaluation of proposals and all weighting has been completed, the committee will prepare a written report of its findings and recommendations, setting forth the consensus of the committee and its composite scores (Sample at attachment 3 to this appendix). The Chairperson will sign the report to confirm its accuracy and his agreement with the recommendation. All copies of proposals and evaluation worksheets will be returned to the contracting officer. 
</P>
<HD1>Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 247—Sample Evaluation Worksheet 
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>CONTRACTOR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>EVALUATOR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>DATE 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>EVALUATION CRITERIA AND SCORES (RANGE 0-5 POINTS FOR EACH)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1. Technical and production
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH> capability: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>2. Services and items
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH> offered: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>3. Past performance
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH> record: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>4. Management
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH> approach: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>NARRATIVE DISCUSSION: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>(
<SU>1</SU> Discussions of strengths, weaknesses, and deficiencies should reference the specific evaluation factor involved to ensure that proposals are evaluated only against the criterion set forth in the RFP, to facilitate debriefings, and to provide an effective defense to any challenges regarding the legality of the selection process.)</P></FTNT>
<FP-DASH>Strengths
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Weaknesses 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Deficiencies
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 247—Sample Memorandum for Selecting Official
</HD1>
<FP-1>SUBJECT: Evaluation of Proposals
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH> RFP No.
</FP-DASH>
<P>1. All proposals received in response to subject RFP have been evaluated by the Source Selection Advisory Committee (SSAC). The results and comments are listed below. 
</P>
<P>a. Offeror's proposals were rated as follows:
</P>
<FP-1>Offeror Name  Numerical  Score
</FP-1>
<P>b. Summary Narrative Comments.
</P>
<FP>(This section of the report shall be a summary of the individual strengths and weaknesses in each proposal, along with any deficiencies that are susceptible to being cured through written or oral discussions with the offeror, as noted by the SSC evaluators. This summary should be supported by detailed narratives contained on the individual evaluator's worksheets.) 
</FP>
<P>2. Recommendation.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Chairperson, SSAC


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.8.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 247—Mailing of DoD Newspapers, Magazines, CE Guides, and Installation Maps; Sales and Distribution of Non-DoD Publications
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Policy.</I> It is DoD policy that mailing costs shall be kept at a minimum consistent with timeliness and applicable postal regulations. (See DoD Instruction 4525.7 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD 4525.8-M. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Responsible officials shall consult with appropriate postal authorities to obtain resolution of specific problems. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to section A. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>B. <I>Definition.</I> DoD appropriated fund postage includes all means of paying postage using funds appropriated for the Department of Defense. These means include meter imprints and stamps, permit imprints, postage stamps, and other means authorized by the U.S. Postal Service. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Use of appropriated fund postage.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. DoD appropriated fund postage shall be used only for: 
</P>
<P>a. Mailing copies to satisfy mandatory distribution requirements. 
</P>
<P>b. Mailing copies to other public affairs offices for administrative purposes. 
</P>
<P>c. Mailing copies to headquarters in the chain of command. 
</P>
<P>d. Bulk mailings of DoD newspapers and magazines to subordinate units for distribution to members of the units. 
</P>
<P>e. Mailing information copies to other U.S. Government Agencies, Members of Congress, libraries, hospitals, schools, and depositories. 
</P>
<P>f. Mailing of an individual copy of a DoD newspaper, magazine, or CE publication in response to an unsolicited request from a private person, firm, or organization, if such response is in the best interest of the DoD Component or its subordinate levels of command. 
</P>
<P>g. Mailing copies of DoD newspapers, magazines, guides, or installation maps to incoming DoD personnel and their families to orient them to their new command, installation, and community. 
</P>
<P>2. DoD appropriated fund postage shall not be used for mailing: 
</P>
<P>a. To the general readership of DoD newspapers, magazines, guides, and installation maps, unless specifically excepted in this part. 
</P>
<P>b. By a CE publisher. 
</P>
<P>c. CE publications other than newspapers and magazines in bulk. (See paragraph C.1.d. of this section). 
</P>
<P>3. Generally, DoD newspapers, magazines, and CE publications shall be mailed as second class Requester Publication Rate, third-class bulk, or third- or fourth-class mail. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Legal prohibitions.</I> Compliance with 18 U.S.C., 1302 and 1307 is mandatory. 18 USC Section 1302 prohibits the mailing of publications containing advertisements of any type of lottery or scheme that is based on lot or chance. 18 USC 1307 authorizes exceptions pertaining to authorized State lotteries, lotteries conducted by a not-for-profit organization or a governmental organization, or conducted as a promotional activity by a commercial organization and clearly occasional and ancillary to the primary business of that organization. An exception also pertains to any gaming conducted by an Indian tribe under 25 U.S.C. 2720. Lottery is defined as containing the following three elements: 
</P>
<P>1. Prize (whatever items of value are offered in the particular game). 
</P>
<P>2. Chance (random selection of numbers to produce a winning combination). 
</P>
<P>3. Consideration (requirement to pay a fee to play). 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Review of mailing and distribution effectiveness.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Mailing and distribution lists shall be reviewed annually to determine distribution effectiveness and continuing need of each recipient to receive the publication. 
</P>
<P>2. Distribution techniques, target audiences, readers-per-copy ratios, and use of the U.S. Postal Service to ensure the most economical use of mail services consistent with timeliness shall be revalidated annually. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Non-DoD publications.</I> A commander shall afford reputable distributors of other publications the opportunity to sell or give away publications at the activity he or she commands in accordance with DoD Directive 1325.6. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Such publications shall not be distributed through official channels. These publications may be made available through subscription paid for by the recipient or placed in specific general use areas designated by the commander, such as the foyers of open messes or exchanges. They will be placed only in stands or racks provided by the responsible publisher. The responsible publisher will maintain the stand or rack to present a neat and orderly appearance. Subscriptions paid for by a recipient may be home-delivered by the commercial distributor in installation residential areas. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to section A. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.8.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 247—AFIS Print Media Directorate
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> The Print Media Directorate (PMD), an element of AFIS, develops, publishes, and distributes a variety of print media products that support DoD-wide programs and policies for targeted audiences throughout the DoD community. Products include the following: 
</P>
<P>1. <I>American Forces Press Service,</I> news and feature articles, photographs, and art targeted principally to editors of DoD newspapers. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>DEFENSE</I> magazine, a bimonthly magazine featuring articles authored by senior military and civilian officials on DoD programs and policies. An annual almanac edition highlights DoD's organization and statistical information. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Defense Billboard,</I> a monthly poster featuring topics of particular interest to junior Military Service members, but applicable to general DoD audiences. 
</P>
<P>4. Pamphlets, booklets, and other posters covering a variety of joint interest information topics. 
</P>
<P>5. PMD posts the <I>Press Service</I> on Military Service computer bulletin boards and internet world wide web sites. PAOs and editors may download text and art in a form readily usable for word processing or desktop publishing. All other PMD publications should be requisitioned through the Military Service's or organization's publications distribution system. 
</P>
<P>6. Additional information may be obtained on the internet using the AFIS Uniform Resource Locator: <I>http://www.dtic.mil/defenselink/afis/.</I> 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Use of materials published by print media directorate.</I> With the exception of copyrighted matter, all materials published by PMD may be reproduced or adapted for use by DoD newspaper and magazine editors as appropriate. When PMD material is edited or revised, accuracy and conformance to DoD policy and accepted standards of good taste will be maintained. Due to the policy-oriented nature of <I>DEFENSE</I> magazine contents, particular care shall be taken to preserve the original context, tone, and meaning of any material adapted, revised, or edited from this publication. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Eligible activities.</I> The following activities are eligible to receive the above listed PMD products: 
</P>
<P>1. All authorized DoD newspapers and magazines. 
</P>
<P>2. Headquarters of the DoD Components and their subordinate commands. 
</P>
<P>3. Proponent offices of DoD periodicals published by the DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>4. Armed Forces Radio and Television Service networks and outlets. 
</P>
<P>5. Isolated commands and detachments at which DoD newspapers are not readily available. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.42.0.1.8.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 247—DoD Command Newspaper and Magazine Review System
</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the DoD command newspaper and magazine review system is to assist commanders in establishing and maintaining cost-effective internal communications essential to mission accomplishment. The system also enables internal information managers to assess the cost and effective use of resources devoted to command newspapers and to provide requested reports. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Policy.</I> DoD newspapers and magazines shall be reviewed and reported biennially. The review process is not intended to replace day-to-day quality assurance procedures or established critique programs. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Review criteria.</I> Each newspaper and magazine shall be evaluated on the basis of mission essentiality, communication effectiveness, cost-effectiveness, and compliance with applicable regulations. 
</P>
<P>D. Reporting requirements. 
</P>
<P>1. The DoD Components (less the Military Departments) shall forward, by January 31 of each even numbered year, the information indicated at attachment 1 to this appendix for each newspaper published to: Director, American Forces Information Service, ATTN: Print Media Plans and Policy, 601 North Fairfax Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-2007. 
</P>
<P>2. No later than April 15 of each even-numbered year, the Secretary (or designee) of each Military Department shall forward to the address above a report of the Military Department's review of newspapers and magazines. This report shall include summary data on total number of newspapers and magazines, along with a listing of the information indicated at attachment 1 to this appendix. 
</P>
<P>3. One information copy of each issue of all DoD newspapers and magazines shall be forwarded on publication date to the address in paragraph H.1. of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>4. Information copies of CE contracts shall be forwarded to the address in paragraph H.1. of this appendix, upon request. 
</P>
<P>5. Administrative Instructions shall be issued by the Director, AFIS, for the annual review and reporting of newspapers and magazines.
</P>
<HD2>Attachment 1 to Appendix E to Part 247—Newspaper and Magazine Reporting Data 
</HD2>
<P>As required by section H. of this appendix, the following information shall be provided biennially regarding newspapers and magazines: 
</P>
<P>A. Name of newspaper or magazine. 
</P>
<P>B. Publishing command and mailing address. 
</P>
<P>C. Printing arrangement: 
</P>
<P>1. Government equipment. 
</P>
<P>2. Government contract with commercial printer. 
</P>
<P>3. CE contract with commercial publisher (provide name, mailing address, and phone number of commercial publisher). 
</P>
<P>D. Frequency and number of issues per year. 
</P>
<P>E. Number of copies printed and estimated readership. 
</P>
<P>F. Paper size (metro, tabloid, or magazine format).


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="250" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 250—WITHHOLDING OF UNCLASSIFIED TECHNICAL DATA FROM PUBLIC DISCLOSURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1217, Pub. L. 98-94, (10 U.S.C. 140c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 48041, Dec. 10, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 250.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, prescribes procedures, and assigns responsibilities for the dissemination and withholding of technical data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to: 
</P>
<P>(1) All unclassified technical data with military or space application in the possession of, or under the control of, a DoD Component which may not be exported lawfully without an approval, authorization, or license under E.O. 12470 or the Arms Export Control Act. However, the application of this part is limited only to such technical data that disclose critical technology with military or space application. The release of other technical data shall be accomplished in accordance with DoD Instruction 5200.21 and DoD 5400.7-R. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) and activities support administratively by OSD, the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Defense Agencies, and the Unified and Specified Commands (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”). 
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Modify or supplant the regulations promulgated under E.O. 12470 or the Arms Export Control Act governing the export of technical data, that is, 15 CFR part 379 of the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and 22 CFR part 125 of the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR). 
</P>
<P>(2) Introduce any additional controls on the dissemination of technical data by private enterprises or individuals beyond those specified by export control laws and regulations or in contracts or other mutual agreements, including certifications made pursuant to § 250.3(a). Accordingly, the mere fact that the Department of Defense may possess such data does not in itself provide a basis for control of such data pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Introduce any controls on the dissemination of scientific, educational, or other data that qualify for General License GTDA under 15 CFR 379.3 of the EAR (see § 250.7) or for general exemptions under 22 CFR 125.11 of the ITAR (see § 250.8). 
</P>
<P>(4) Alter the responsibilities of DoD Components to protect proprietary data of a private party in which the Department of Defense has “limited rights” or “restricted rights” (as defined in 32 CFR 9-201(c) and 9-601(j) of the DoD Acquisition Regulation, or which are authorized to be withheld from public disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). 
</P>
<P>(5) Pertain to, or affect, the release of technical data by DoD Components to foreign governments, international organizations, or their respective representatives or contractors, pursuant to official agreements or formal arrangements with the U.S. Government, or pursuant to U.S. Government-licensed transactions involving such entities or individuals. In the absence of such U.S. Government-sanctioned relationships, however, this part does apply. 
</P>
<P>(6) Apply to classified technical data. After declassification, however, dissemination of such data that are within the scope of § 250.2(a)(1) is governed by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualified U.S. contractor.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> A private individual or enterprise (hereinafter described as a “U.S. contractor”) that, in accordance with procedures established by the Under Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering, certifies, as a condition of obtaining export-controlled technical data subject to this Directive from the Department of Defense, that: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Canadian contractors may be qualified in accordance with this part for technical data that do not require a license for export to Canada under 22 CFR 125.12 of the ITAR and 15 CFR 379.4(d) and 379.5(e) of the EAR submitting an equivalent certification to the U.S. Department of Defense.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The individual who will act as recipient of the export-controlled technical data on behalf of the U.S. contractor is a U.S. citizen or a person admitted lawfully into the United States for permanent residence and is located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Such data are needed to bid or perform on a contract with the Department of Defense, or other U.S. Government agency, or for other legitimate business purposes 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> in which the U.S. contractor is engaged, or plans to engage. The purpose for which the data are needed shall be described sufficiently in such certification to permit an evaluation of whether subsequent requests for data, pursuant to § 250.5(d)(2) are related properly to such business purpose.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This does not require a contract with or a grant from the U.S. Government.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The U.S. contractor acknowledges its responsibilities under U.S. export control laws and regulations (including the obligation, under certain circumstances, to obtain an export license prior to the release of technical data within the United States) and agrees that it will not disseminate any export-controlled technical data subject to this part in a manner that would violate applicable export control laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(4) The U.S. contractor also agrees that, unless dissemination is permitted by § 250.5(h), it will not provide access to export-controlled technical data subject to this part to persons other than its employees or persons acting on its behalf, without the permission of the DoD Component that provided the technical data.
</P>
<P>(5) To the best of its knowledge and belief, the U.S. contractor knows of no person employed by it, or acting on its behalf, who will have access to such data, who is debarred, suspended, or otherwise ineligible from performing on U.S. Government contracts; or has violated U.S. export control laws or a certification previously made to the Department of Defense under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) The U.S. contractor itself is not debarred, suspended, or otherwise determined ineligible by any agency of the U.S. Government to perform on U.S. Government contracts, has not been convicted of export control law violations, and has not been disqualified under the provisions of this part. When the certifications required by paragraphs (a) (5) and (6) of this section, cannot be made truthfully, the U.S. contractor may request the certification be accepted based on its description of extenuating circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controlling DoD Office.</I> The DoD activity that sponsored the work that generated the technical data or received the technical data on behalf of the Department of Defense and therefore has the responsibility for determining the distribution of a document containing such technical data. In the case of joint sponsorship, the controlling office is determined by advance agreement and may be either a party, a group, or a committee representing the interested activities or DoD Components. (The controlling DoD office is identified on each export-controlled document in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.24.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Critical Technology.</I> Technologies that consist of (1) arrays of design and manufacturing know-how (including technical data); (2) keystone manufacturing, inspection, and test equipment; (3) keystone materials; and (4) goods accompanied by sophisticated operation, application, or maintenance know-how that would make a significant contribution to the military potential of any country or combination of countries and that may prove detrimental to the security of the United States (also referred to as militarily critical technology).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other legitimate business purposes.</I> Include:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing or seeking to provide equipment or technology to a foreign government with the approval of the U.S. Government (for example, through a licensed direct foreign military sale).
</P>
<P>(2) Bidding, or preparing to bid, on a sale of surplus property.
</P>
<P>(3) Selling or producing products for the commercial domestic marketplace or for the commercial foreign marketplace, providing that any required export license is obtained.
</P>
<P>(4) Engaging in scientific research in a professional capacity.
</P>
<P>(5) Acting as a subcontractor to a concern described in paragraphs (d) (1) through (4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(6) Selling technical data subject to this part in support of DoD contractors or in supporting of the competitive process for DoD contracts, provided such sales are limited solely to DoD contractors or potential DoD contractors who also are qualified U.S. contractors and provided such technical data are related to the purpose for which the qualified U.S. contractor is certified, or selling technical data to foreign contractors or governments overseas after receiving the required export license or approval by the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Potential DoD contractor.</I> An individual or organization outside the Department of Defense declared eligible for DoD information services by a sponsoring DoD activity on the basis of participation in one of the following programs:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of the Army Qualitative Requirements Information Program.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of the Navy Industry Cooperative Research and Development Program.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of the Air Force Potential Contractor Program.
</P>
<P>(4) The DoD Scientific and Technical Program; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any similar program in use by other DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public disclosure.</I> Making technical data available without restricting its dissemination or use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Technical data with military or space application, or technical data.</I> Any blueprints, drawings, plans, instructions, computer software and documentation, or other technical information that can be used or be adapted for use to design, engineer, produce, manufacture, operate, repair, overhaul, or reproduce any military or space equipment or technology concerning such equipment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>United States.</I> For the purpose of this part, the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and the territories and possessions of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 140c, the Secretary of Defense may withhold from public disclosure, notwithstanding any other provision of law, any technical data with military or space application in the possession of, or under the control of, the Department of Defense, if such data may not be exported lawfully without an approval, authorization, or license under E.O. 12470 or the Arms Export Control Act. However, technical data may not be withheld under this section if regulations promulgated under either the Order or Act authorize the export of such data pursuant to a general, unrestricted license or exemption in such regulations. (Pertinent portions of such regulations are set forth in §§ 250.7 and 250.8).
</P>
<P>(b) Because public disclosure of technical data subject to this part is tantamount to providing uncontrolled foreign access, withholding such data from public disclosure, unless approved, authorized, or licensed in accordance with export control laws, is necessary and in the national interest. Unclassified technical data that are not governed by this part, unless otherwise restricted, shall continue to be made available to the public as well as to state and local governments.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothwithstanding the authority provided in paragraph (a), of this section, it is DoD policy to provide technical data governed by this part to individuals and enterprises that are determined to be currently qualified U.S. contractors, when such data relate to a legitimate business purpose for which the contractor is certified. However, when such data are for a purpose other than to permit the requester to bid or perform on a contract with the Department of Defense, or other U.S. Government agency, and the significance of such data for military purposes is such that release for purposes other than direct support of DoD activities may jeopardize an important U.S. technological or operational advantage, those data shall be withheld in such cases.
</P>
<P>(d) This part may not be used by DoD Components as authority to deny access to technical data to the Congress, or to any Federal, State, or local governmental agency that requires such data for regulatory or other official governmental purposes. Any such dissemination will include a statement that the technical data are controlled by the Department of Defense in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The authority provided herein may not be used to withhold from public disclosure unclassified information regarding DoD operations, policies, activities, or programs, including the costs and evaluations of performance and reliability of military and space equipment. When such information does contain technical data subject to this part, the technical data shall be excised from that which is disclosed publicly.
</P>
<P>(f) This part may not be used as a basis for the release of “limited rights” or “restricted rights” data as defined in 32 CFR 9-201(c) and 9-601(j) of the DoD Acquisition Regulation or that are authorized to be withheld from public disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).
</P>
<P>(g) This part may not be used to provide protection for technical data that should be classified in accordance with E.O. 12356 and DoD 5200.1-R.
</P>
<P>(h) This part provides immediate authority to cite 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3) as the basis for denials under the FOIA of technical data currently determined to be subject to the provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>All determinations to disseminate or withhold technical data subject to this part shall be consistent both with the policies set forth in § 250.4 of this part, and with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(a) Requests for technical data shall be processed in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.24 and DoD Instruction 5200.21. FOIA requests for technical data subject to this part shall be handled in accordance with the procedures established in DoD 5400.7-R. Such FOIA requests for technical data currently determined to be subject to the withholding authority effected by this part shall be denied under citing the third exemption to mandatory disclosure, and the requester shall be referred to the provisions of this part permitting access by qualified U.S. contractors.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a request for technical data in the possession of, or under the control of, the Department of Defense, the controlling DoD office shall determine whether such data are governed by this part. The determination shall be based on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The office's finding 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> that such data would require an approval, authorization, or license for export under E.O. 12470 or the Arms Export Control Act and that such data may not be exported pursuant to a general, unrestricted license (15 CFR 379.3, EAR) (see § 250.7) or exemption (22 CFR 125.11, ITAR) (see § 250.8).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> May require consultation with the Department of State or the Department of Commerce, as appropriate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The office's judgment that the technical data under consideration disclose critical technology with military or space application. For purposes of making this determination, the Militarily Critical Technologies List (MCTL) shall be used as general guidance. The controlling DoD office may request assistance in making such a determination from the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (OUSDR&amp;E) in accordance with procedures established by that office.
</P>
<P>(c) The controlling DoD office shall ensure that technical data determined to be governed by this part are marked in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.24.
</P>
<P>(d) The controlling DoD office shall authorize release of technical data governed by this part to currently qualified U.S. contractors only, as defined in § 250.3(a) of this part, unless one of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The qualification of the U.S. contractor concerned has been temporarily revoked in accordance with § 250.5(e) of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) The requested data are judged to be unrelated to the purpose for which the qualified U.S. contractor is certified. When release of technical data is denied in accordance with this section, the controlling DoD office shall request additional information sufficient to explain the intended use of the requested data and, if appropriate, request a new certification (see § 250.3(a) above) describing the intended use of the requested data; or
</P>
<P>(3) The technical data are being requested for a purpose other than to permit the requester to bid or perform on a contract with the Department of Defense or other U.S. Government agency, in which case the controlling DoD office shall withhold such data if it has been determined by the DoD Component focal point (see § 250.5(e)(5)) that the significance of such data for military purposes is such that release for purpose other than direct support of DoD-approved activities may jeopardize an important technological or operational military advantage of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of credible and sufficient information that a qualified U.S. contractor has (1) violated U.S. export control law, (2) violated its certification, (3) made a certification in bad faith, or (4) made an omission or misstatement of material fact, the DoD Component shall revoke temporarily the U.S. contractor's qualification. Such revocations having the potential for compromising a U.S. Government investigation may be delayed. Immediately upon such revocation, the DoD Component shall notify the contractor and the OUSDR&amp;E. Such contractor shall be given an opportunity to respond in writing to the information upon which the temporary revocation is based before being disqualified. Any U.S. contractor whose qualification has been revoked temporarily may be reinstated upon presentation of sufficient information showing that the basis for such revocation was in error or has been remedied.
</P>
<P>(f) When the basis for a contractor's temporary revocation cannot be removed within 20 working days, the DoD Component shall recommend to the OUSDR&amp;E that the contractor be disqualified.
</P>
<P>(g) Charges for copying, certifying, and searching records rendered to requesters shall be levied in accordance with DoD Instruction 7230.7. Normally, only one copy of the same record or document will be provided to each requester. Any release to qualified U.S. contractors of technical data controlled by this part shall be accompanied by a notice to the recipient as set forth in § 250.9. 
</P>
<P>(h) Qualified U.S. contractors who receive technical data governed by this part may disseminate such data for purposes consistent with their certification without prior permission of the controlling DoD office or when such dissemination is:
</P>
<P>(1) To any foreign recipient for which the data are approved, authorized, or licensed under E.O. 12470 or the Arms Export Control Act.
</P>
<P>(2) To another currently qualified U.S. contractor (as defined in § 250.3(a) above, including existing or potential subcontractors, but only within the scope of the certified legitimate business purpose of such recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) To the Departments of State and Commerce, for purposes of applying for appropriate approvals, authorizations, or licenses for export under the Arms Export Control Act or E.O. 12470. Any such application shall include a statement that the technical data for which such approval, authorization, or license is sought are controlled by the Department of Defense in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(4) To Congress or any Federal, State, or local governmental agency for regulatory purposes, or otherwise as may be required by law or court order. Any such dissemination shall include a statement that the technical data are controlled by the Department of Defense in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(i) A qualified U.S. contractor desiring to disseminate technical data subject to this part in a manner not permitted expressly by the terms of this part shall seek authority to do so from the controlling DoD office.
</P>
<P>(j) Any requester denied technical data, or any qualified U.S. contractor denied permission to redisseminate such data, pursuant to this part, shall be provided promptly a written statement of reasons for that action, and advised of the right to make a written appeal of such determination to a specifically identified appellate authority within the DoD Component. Appeals of denials made under DoD 5400.7-R (reference (e)) shall be handled in accordance with procedures established therein. Other appeals shall be processed as directed by the OUSDR&amp;E.
</P>
<P>(k) Denials shall cite 10 U.S.C. 140c as implemented by this part, and, in the case of FOIA denials made in reliance on this statutory authority, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3). Implementing procedures shall provide for resolution of any appeal within 20 working days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.6   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (USDR&amp;E) shall have overall responsibility for the implementation of this Directive and shall designate an office to:
</P>
<P>(1) Administer and monitor compliance with this Directive.
</P>
<P>(2) Receive and disseminate notifications of temporary revocation in accordance with § 250.5(e) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Receive recommendations for disqualification made in accordance with § 250.5(f) of this part, and act as initial disqualification authority.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide, when necessary, technical assistance to DoD Components in assessing the significance of the military or space application of technical data that may be withheld from public disclosure under this Directive.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish procedures to develop, collect, and disseminate certification statements and ensure their sufficiency, accuracy, and periodic renewal, and to make final determinations of qualification.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that the requirements of this Directive are incorporated into the DoD Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement for optional application to contracts involving technical data governed by this Directive.
</P>
<P>(7) Develop, in conjunction with the General Counsel, Department of Defense, guidelines for responding to appeals.
</P>
<P>(8) Develop procedures to ensure that DoD Components apply consistent criteria in authorizing exceptions under § 250.5(i) of this part.
</P>
<P>(9) Establish procedures and appropriate mechanisms for the certification of qualified U.S. contractors, pursuant to § 250.6(a)(5) of this part, within 60 days of the effective date of this Directive. During this 60-day period, requests for technical data governed by this Directive shall be processed in accordance with procedures in effect before the promulgation of this Directive.
</P>
<P>(10) Take such other actions that may be required to ensure consistent and appropriate implementation of this Directive within the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense for Policy shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and promulgate, as required, policy guidance to DoD Components for implementing this Directive.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop procedures with the Departments of State and Commerce to ensure referral of export cases involving technical data governed by this Directive to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor the implementation of provisions of this Directive that pertain to DoD 5400.7-R.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide such other assistance as may be necessary to ensure compliance with this Directive.
</P>
<P>(d) The General Counsel, Department of Defense, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Assist in carrying out the provisions of this Directive by advising DoD Components with respect to the statutory and regulatory requirements governing the export of technical data.
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the USDR&amp;E regarding consistent and appropriate implementation of this Directive.
</P>
<P>(e) The Heads of DoD Components shall:
</P>
<P>(1) As the delegated authority, have the option to redelegate the authority to withhold technical data in accordance with this Directive.
</P>
<P>(2) Disseminate and withhold from public disclosure technical data subject to this Directive in a manner consistent with the policies and procedures set forth herein.
</P>
<P>(3) Designate a focal point to
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure implementation of this Directive;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify classes of technical data the release of which is governed by § 250.5(d)(3) of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Act on appeals relating to case-by-case denials of technical data;
</P>
<P>(iv) Suspend a contractor's qualification pursuant to § 250.(e) of this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Receive and evaluate requests for reinstatement of a contractor's qualification; and, when appropriate,
</P>
<P>(vi) Recommend disqualification to the OUSDR&amp;E.
</P>
<P>(4) Promulgate and effect regulations to implement this Directive within 180 days.
</P>
<P>(5) Disseminate technical data governed by this Directive in the manner prescribed herein, to the extent feasible, during the period after which certification procedures have been established under § 250.6(a)(9) of this part, but before DoD Components have issued implementing regulations under paragraph (e)(4) of this section. However, if such dissemination is not feasible, the DoD Component may process requests for such data in accordance with procedures in effect before the promulgation of this Directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.7   Pertinent portions of Export Administration Regulations (EAR).</HEAD>
<P>The following pertinent section of the EAR is provided for the guidance of DoD personnel in determining the releasability technical data under the authority of this part.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Export Administration Regulations 15 CFR 379.3
</HD1>
<HD2>General License GTDA: Technical Data Available to All Destinations
</HD2>
<P>A General License designated GTDA is hereby established authorizing the export to all destinations of technical data described in § 379.3(a), (b), or (c), below:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Data Generally Available.</I> Data that have been made generally available to the public in any form, including
</P>
<P>(1) Data released orally or visually at open conferences, lectures, trade show, or other media open to the public; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Publications that may be purchased without restrictions at a nominal cost, or obtained without costs, or are readily available at libraries open to the public.
</P>
<P>The term “nominal cost” as used in § 379.3(a)(2), is intended to reflect realistically only the cost of preparing and distributing the publication and not the intrinsic value of the technical data. If the cost is as much as to prevent the technical data from being generally available to the public, General License GTDA would not be applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scientific or Educational Data.</I> (1) Dissemination of information not directly and significantly related to design, production, or utilization in industrial processes, including such dissemination by correspondence, attendance at, or participation in, meetings; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Instruction in academic institutions and academic laboratories, excluding information that involves research under contract related directly and significantly to design, production, or utilization in industrial processes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Patent Applications.</I> Data contained in a patent application, prepared wholly from foreign-origin technical data where such application is being sent to the foreign inventor to be executed and returned to the United States for subsequent filing in the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office. (No validated export license from the Office of Export Administration is required for data contained in a patent application, or an amendment, modification, supplement, or division thereof for filing in a foreign country in accordance with the regulations of the Patent and Trademark Office 37 CFR part 5. See § 370.10(j).)</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.8   Pertinent portions of International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR).</HEAD>
<P>The following pertinent section of the ITAR is provided for the guidance of DoD personnel in determining the releasibility of technical data under the authority of this part.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>International Traffic in Arms Regulations 22 CFR 125.11
</HD1>
<HD2>General Exemptions
</HD2>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 26.01, district directors of customs and postal authorities are authorized to permit the export without a license of unclassified technical data as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If it is in published 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> form and subject to public dissemination by being:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The burden for obtaining appropriate U.S. Government approval for the publication of technical data falling within the definition in § 125.01, including such data as may be developed under other than U.S. Government contract, is on the person or company seeking publication.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Sold at newsstands and bookstores;
</P>
<P>(ii) Available by subscription or purchase without restrictions to any person or available without cost to any person;
</P>
<P>(iii) Granted second class mailing privileges by the U.S. Government; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Freely available at public libraries.
</P>
<P>(2) If it has been approved for public release by any U.S. Government department or agency having authority to classify information or material under Executive Order [12356], as amended, and other applicable Executive Orders, and does not disclose the details of design, production, or manufacturing of any arms, ammunition, or implements of war on the U.S. Munitions List.
</P>
<P>(3) If the export is in furtherance of a manufacturing license or technical assistance agreement approved by the Department of State in accordance with part 124 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) If the export is in furtherance of a contract with an agency of the U.S. Government or a contract between an agency of the U.S. Government and foreign persons, provided the contract calls for the export of relevant unclassified technical data, and such data are being exported only by the prime contractor. Such data shall not disclose the details of development, engineering, design, production, or manufacture of any arms, ammunition, or implements of war on the U.S. Munitions List. (This exemption does not permit the prime contractor to enter into subsidiary technical assistance or manufacturing license agreements, or any arrangement which calls for the exportation of technical data without compliance with part 124 of this subchapter.)
</P>
<P>(5) If it relates to firearms not in excess of caliber .50 and ammunition for such weapons, except technical data containing advanced designs, processes, and munufacturing techniques.
</P>
<P>(6) If it consists of technical data, other than design, development, or production information relating to equipment, the export of which has been previously authorized to the same recipient.
</P>
<P>(7) If it consists of operations, maintenance and training manuals, and aids relating to equipment, the export of which has been authorized to the same recipient. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Not applicable to technical data relating to Category VI(d) and Category XVI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) If it consists of additional copies of technical data previously approved for export to the same recipient; or if it consists of revised copies of technical data, provided it pertains to the identical Munitions List article, and the revisions are solely editorial and do not add to the content of technology previously approved for export to the same recipient.
</P>
<P>(9) If it consists solely of technical data being reexported to the original source of import.
</P>
<P>(10) If the export is by the prime contractor in direct support and within the technical and/or product limitations of a “U.S. Government approved project” and the prime contractor so certifies. The Office of Munitions Control, Department of State, will verify, upon request, those projects which are “U.S. Government approved,” and accord an exemption to the applicant who applies for such verification and exemption, where appropriate, under this subparagraph. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Classified information may also be transmitted in direct support of and within the technical and/or product limitation of such verified U.S. Government approved projects without prior Department of State approval provided the U.S. party so certifies and complies with the requirements of the Department of Defense Industrial Security Manual relating to the transmission of such classified information (and any other requirements of cognizant U.S. Government departments or agencies).</P></FTNT>
<P>(11) If the export is solely for the use of American citizen employees of U.S. firms provided the U.S. firm certifies its overseas employee is a U.S. citizen and has a “need to know.” 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Classified information may also be exported to such certified American citizen employees without prior Department of State approval provided the U.S. party complies with the requirements of the Department of Defense Industrial Security Manual relating to the transmission of such classified information (and any other requirements of cognizant U.S. Government departments or agencies). Such technical data or information (classified or unclassified) shall not be released by oral, visual, or documentary means to any foreign person.</P></FTNT>
<P>(12) If the export is directly related to classified information, the export of which has been previously authorized to the same recipient, and does not disclose the details of design, production, or manufacture of any arms, ammunition, or implements of war on the U.S. Munitions List.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plant visits.</I> Except as restricted by the provisions of § 126.01 of this subchapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No license shall be required for the oral and visual disclosure of unclassified technical data during the course of a plant visit by foreign nationals provided the data [are] disclosed in connection with a classified plant visit or the visit has the approval of a U.S. Government agency having authority for the classification of information or material under Executive Order [12356], as amended, and other applicable Executive Orders, and the requirements of section V, paragraph [41(d)] of the Industrial Security Manual are met.
</P>
<P>(2) No license shall be required for the documentary disclosure of unclassified technical data during the course of a plant visit by foreign nationals provided the document does not contain technical data as defined in § 125.01 in excess of that released orally or visually during the visit, is within the terms of the approved visit request, and the person in the United States assures that the technical data will not be used, adopted for use, or disclosed to others for the purpose of manufacture or production without the prior approval of the Department of State in accordance with part 124 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) No Department of State approval is required for the disclosure of oral and visual classified information during the course of a plant visit by foreign nationals provided the visit has been approved by the cognizant U.S. Defense agency and the requirements of section V, paragraph [41(d)] of the Defense Industrial Security Manual are met.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.43.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.9   Notice to accompany the dissemination of export-controlled technical data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Export of information contained herein, which includes, in some circumstances, release to foreign nationals within the United States, without first obtaining approval or license from the Department of State for items controlled by the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR), or the Department of Commerce for items controlled by the Export Administration Regulations (EAR), may constitute a violation of law.
</P>
<P>(b) Under 22 U.S.C. 2778 the penalty for unlawful export of items or information controlled under the ITAR is up to 2 years imprisonment, or a fine of $100,000, or both. Under 50 U.S.C., appendix 2410, the penalty for unlawful export of items or information controlled under the EAR is a fine of up to $1,000,000, or five times the value of the exports, whichever is greater; or for an individual, imprisonment of up to 10 years, or a fine of up to $250,000, or both.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with your certification that establishes you as a “qualified U.S. contractor,” unauthorized dissemination of this information is prohibited and may result in disqualification as a qualified U.S. contractor, and may be considered in determining your eligibility for future contracts with the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(d) The U.S. Government assumes no liability for direct patent infringement, or contributory patent infringement or misuse of technical data.
</P>
<P>(e) The U.S. Government does not warrant the adequacy, accuracy, currency, or completeness of the technical data.
</P>
<P>(f) The U.S. Government assumes no liability for loss, damage, or injury resulting from manufacture or use for any purpose of any product, article, system, or material involving reliance upon any or all technical data furnished in response to the request for technical data.
</P>
<P>(g) If the technical data furnished by the Government will be used for commercial manufacturing or other profit potential, a license for such use may be necessary. Any payments made in support of the request for data do not include or involve any license rights.
</P>
<P>(h) A copy of this notice shall be provided with any partial or complete reproduction of these data that are provided to qualified U.S. contractors. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="251" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 251—NATIONAL LANGUAGE SERVICE CORPS (NLSC)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 3109, 18 U.S.C. 202, 31 U.S.C. 1535, 50 U.S.C. 1913.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 76635, Dec. 10, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 251.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements the responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense in 50 U.S.C. 1913 by establishing the NLSC program.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures for the management of the NLSC program.
</P>
<P>(c) Assigns responsibility to the National Security Education Board (NSEB) to oversee and coordinate the activities of the NLSC (as provided and determined by the Secretary of Defense pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1903 and 1913 with policy and funding oversight provided by the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) in accordance with DoD Directive 5124.02, “Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R))” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/512402p.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as “the DoD Components”) and federal agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Consultant.</I> Defined in 5 CFR part 304.
</P>
<P><I>Excepted service.</I> Appointments in the excepted service are civil service appointments within the Federal Government that do not confer competitive status and are excepted from competitive service by or pursuant to statute, by the President, or by the Office of Personnel Management, and which are not in Senior Executive Service.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign language.</I> Any language other than English.
</P>
<P><I>Language proficiency.</I> The U.S. Government relies on the Interagency Language Roundtable (ILR) scale to determine language proficiency. According to the ILR scale:
</P>
<P>(1) 0 is No Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) 0+ is Memorized Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(3) 1 is Elementary Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(4) 1+ is Elementary Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(5) 2 is Limited Working Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(6) 2+ is Limited Working Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(7) 3 is General Professional Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(8) 3+ is General Professional Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(9) 4 is Advanced Professional Proficiency.
</P>
<P>(10) 4+ is Advanced Professional Proficiency, Plus.
</P>
<P>(11) 5 is Functional Native Proficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Special government employee (SGE).</I> Defined in 18 U.S.C. 202.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The NLSC provides DoD, or other U.S. departments or agencies, with U.S. citizens with high levels of foreign language proficiency for short-term temporary assignments providing foreign language services.
</P>
<P>(b) The NLSC is authorized to employ U.S. citizens as language consultants pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1913, 5 U.S.C. 3109, and 5 CFR part 304.
</P>
<P>(c) The NLSC is exempt from DoD Instruction 5160.71, “DoD Language Testing Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/516071_2009_ch1.pdf</I>), such that the NLSC may use tests of the Defense Language Proficiency Testing System or may use and develop other tests to assess language proficiency for the purpose of employing NLSC members as language consultants.
</P>
<P>(d) The NLSC will be available to support DoD or other U.S. departments or agencies pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1913.
</P>
<P>(e) The NLSC will:
</P>
<P>(1) Collect personally identifiable information pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1913 from individuals interested in applying for NLSC membership.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with DoD Instruction 8910.01, “Information Collection and Reporting” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/891001p.pdf</I>), Volume 2 of DoD Manual 8910.01, “DoD Information Collections Manual: Procedures for DoD Public Information Collections” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/891001m_vol2.pdf</I>), and 32 CFR part 310.
</P>
<P>(f) Qualified and available members with requested language skills hired in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3109 and 5 CFR part 304 and DoD Administrative Instruction 2, “Employment of Experts and Consultants” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/ai002p.pdf</I>), will be temporarily assigned to government agencies pursuant to reimbursable agreements described in 31 U.S.C. 1535.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USD(P&amp;R):
</P>
<P>(1) Provides overall policy guidance for carrying out the responsibilities and duties of the Secretary of Defense in accordance with DoD Directive 5124.02 and 50 U.S.C. 1913.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensures appropriate resources are programmed for the administration and operation of the NLSC.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Readiness (ASD(R)):
</P>
<P>(1) Through the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Force Education:
</P>
<P>(i) Develops processes and polices regarding the NLSC oversight and coordination by the NSEB in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1903 and 1913.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommends and oversees the establishment and execution of policies, programs, and goals to ensure the NLSC supports the readiness of the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Oversees, and monitors compliance with the NLSC programs and processes on behalf of the Secretary of Defense to include the procedures in § 251.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensures that functions needed to support the accomplishment of the NLSC mission are executed, including engagement with DoD Components, federal agencies, and State and local governments to identify language needs, assessment of language proficiency of its members, and skill sustainment training.
</P>
<P>(v) Determines eligibility for NLSC membership.
</P>
<P>(2) Hosts the annual program review identified in 50 U.S.C. 1913.
</P>
<P>(3) Designates a program manager responsible for overseeing implementation of NLSC programs and processes.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&amp;R), the Director, Department of Defense Human Resources Activity (DoDHRA):
</P>
<P>(1) Implements procedures and instructions for the appointment of NLSC members in support of DoD or other U.S. departments or agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorizes and signs interagency agreements between the NLSC and organizations outside of the DoD, and delegates authority to sign such agreements as needed.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides administrative support to the NLSC, including actions related to intra- and inter-agency agreements, the intra- and inter-agency transfer of funds, personnel actions, and travel requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Provides fiscal management and oversight to ensure all funds provided for the NLSC are separately and visibly accounted for in the DoD budget.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD Components heads ensure that the use of NLSC members is considered during exercise and operational planning.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.44.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NLSC purpose.</I> (1) The purpose of the NLSC is to identify and provide U.S. citizens with foreign language skills to support DoD or other U.S. departments or agencies, in need of foreign language services, for requirements of less than one year.
</P>
<P>(2) The NLSC will provide capable, federally-hired individuals to rapidly respond to critical national needs and assist DoD and other U.S. departments and agencies with surge or emergency requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NLSC membership criteria.</I> NLSC members must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a U.S. citizen.
</P>
<P>(2) Be at least 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(3) Have satisfied Selective Service requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Be proficient in English and any other language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NLSC member recruitment.</I> The NLSC program manager will oversee recruitment of members. NLSC maintains a registry of individuals who have applied or been accepted for membership and responds to requests for foreign language services by searching the registry to identify individuals who can provide support. NLSC collects applicant information through electronically available DD forms (located at the DoD Forms Management Program Web site at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/formsprogram.htm</I>) or comparable Web-based applications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>DD Form 2932.</I> Contains a brief set of screening questions and is used to determine basic eligibility for NLSC membership.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DD Form 2933.</I> A language screening tool to evaluate the applicant's skills with respect to specific tasks. DD Form 2933 is used in conjunction with the screening of language skills for entry into the NLSC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DD Form 2934.</I> Provides an overall assessment of the applicant's foreign language ability. DD Form 2934 is also used in conjunction with the screening of detailed skills for entry into the NLSC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NLSC member appointment as federal employees.</I> Where applicants meet NLSC membership criteria and are matched to foreign language services requirements, the NLSC program manager ensures actions are initiated to temporarily hire applicants and members for forecasted and actual support requests.
</P>
<P>(1) For federal hiring, members follow excepted service hiring policies in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3109, 5 CFR part 304, and 32 CFR part 310, and are appointed as language consultants in advance of participating in a support request, in accordance with DoD Administrative Instruction 2.
</P>
<P>(2) An NLSC member who is already employed by a U.S. Government agency or is under contract full-time to one agency must receive a release from the head of that agency or individual empowered to release the employee or contractor before being employed for service within the NLSC pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1913 and must comply with applicable laws and regulations regarding compensation. Such requests will be coordinated by the NLSC with the department or agency head concerned.
</P>
<P>(3) NLSC members will be appointed on an annual basis pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109, 5 CFR part 304, and 32 CFR part 310 to perform duties as language consultants. If serving less than 130 days in a consecutive 365-day period, they will be considered SGEs as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202. Concurrent appointments as an SGE may be held with other DoD Components or in another federal agency.
</P>
<P>(4) The NLSC program manager will track the number of days each NLSC member performed services and the total amount paid to each NLSC member within the 365-day period after the NLSC member's appointment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NLSC member activation.</I> Activation encompasses all aspects of matching and hiring NLSC members to perform short-term temporary assignments to provide foreign language services. Under NLSC program manager oversight:
</P>
<P>(1) Customer requirements are matched with skills of NLSC members and support is requested from DoDHRA to process necessary agreements, funding documents, and personnel actions to provide foreign language services. In accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section, NLSC members are temporarily hired as DoD employees.
</P>
<P>(2) NLSC members are prepared for activation. If members are to be mobilized out of their home area, travel order requests are initiated. During the assignment, action will be taken to coordinate with members and clients, and assess success with the requesting agency upon completion.
</P>
<P>(3) If duty requires issuance of DoD identification (e.g., Common Access Card), such identification will be issued to and maintained by activated NSLC members in accordance with Volume 1 of DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: ID Card Life-Cycle” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100013_vol1.pdf</I>). Upon completion of the assignment, the identification will be retrieved in accordance with Volume 1 of DoD Manual 1000.13.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon completion of assignments, DoDHRA will provide post-assignment support to members and reconcile funding to close project orders.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="252" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 252—PROFESSIONAL U.S. SCOUTING ORGANIZATION OPERATIONS AT U.S. MILITARY INSTALLATIONS OVERSEAS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12715, May 3, 1990, 55 FR 19051; 10 U.S.C. 2606, 2554, and 2555.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 3961, Jan. 25, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part updates policy and outlines fiscal and logistical support that the DoD may provide to qualified scouting organizations operating on U.S. military installations overseas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the combatant commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as “the DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>DoD personnel and their families.</I> Members of the Military Services and their family members and DoD civilian employees and their family members.
</P>
<P><I>Military Services.</I> The Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified scouting organization.</I> The Girl Scouts of the United States of America (GSUSA) and the Boy Scouts of America (BSA).
</P>
<P><I>Sponsored organization or sponsored council.</I> Scouting organizations or councils authorized to operate as scouting affiliates on military installations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to cooperate with and assist qualified scouting organizations in establishing and providing facilities and services, within available resources, at locations outside the United States to support DoD personnel and their families in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2606, 2554, and 2555 and Executive Order 12715, “Support of Overseas Scouting Activities for Military Dependents”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)) oversees development and implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The DoD Component heads implement this part and comply with its provisions.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (b) of this section and acting as the DoD Executive Agent for DoD support to the BSA and GSUSA local councils and organizations in areas outside of the United States in accordance with 32 CFR part 212, the Secretary of the Army:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes policy determinations in coordination with the other Military Department Secretaries regarding topics including, but not limited to, support that:
</P>
<P>(i) DoD installation commanders are authorized to provide to the scouting program and personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The scouting organization provides to DoD.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensures accountability for appropriated fund (APF) and non-appropriated fund (NAF) assets used in the support of qualified scouting organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides input for and works with the scouting organizations in establishing the extent and scope of the annual scouting programs in support of DoD personnel and their families within the parameters established in this part and available resources.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures that the cost of the support provided is shared by each of the Military Services in proportion to benefits derived by their members from scouting programs overseas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.45.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General guidance.</I> (1) Support provided by DoD and services provided by qualified scouting organizations is documented in a written agreement and signed by the appropriate regional combatant commander or designee. Installation-specific support and services are documented in a written agreement and signed by the installation commander or designee. This agreement replaces the need for qualified scouting organizations to submit individual articles of incorporation, written constitutions, charters, or articles of agreement to gain approval from the installation commander to operate on the installation as required by 32 CFR part 212.
</P>
<P>(2) Overseas installation commanders may authorize DoD support for qualified scouting organizations outside the United States when:
</P>
<P>(i) Support is permitted under international agreements with the host nation, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Support is permitted pursuant to law and DoD issuances.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such support is within the capabilities of their respective installations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing such support will not impede fulfillment of the military mission.
</P>
<P>(3) Committees composed of representatives of the Military Services will be formed to review annual qualified scouting organization budget requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Overseas scouting committees will provide the overseas scouting organizations with information on the scouting requirements of DoD personnel and will monitor and evaluate the scouting organizations' efforts to satisfy those requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) Funds raised by the scouting organizations, as a non-Federal entity, cannot be commingled with NAF funds and will be made available for annual audits.
</P>
<P>(6) Employees of a qualified scouting organization are not considered to be U.S. Government employees, or employees of an instrumentality of the United States for the purpose of benefits or entitlements.
</P>
<P>(i) APF is not used to reimburse their salaries and benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) They are not entitled to participate in the NAF retirement fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) Serving in those positions does not constitute NAF employment credit or produce rehire priority.
</P>
<P>(7) These organizations generally are not covered under the terms of United States' Status of Forces or other relevant agreements with host nations.
</P>
<P>(i) Questions regarding whether they are covered under such agreements should be referred to the legal office servicing the applicable command. Applicability of any relevant agreements would be addressed with the host nation only by the applicable command, and not the organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent the organization is not covered under any relevant agreement, host nation laws apply. In all cases, the host nation will determine the scope and extent of the applicability of host nation laws to these employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding guidance.</I> (1) Any APF and NAF support provided will be programmed and approved on an annual basis by the DoD Components. NAF support is authorized for youth activities programs in accordance with DoD Instruction 1015.15, “Establishment, Management, and Control of Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities and Financial Management of Supporting Resources” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101515p.pdf</I>) and for qualified scouting organizations in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) APF may be used in conjunction with overseas scouting organizations. The following services may be provided on a non-reimbursable basis:
</P>
<P>(i) Transportation of executive personnel (to include household goods and baggage) of qualified scouting organizations:
</P>
<P>(A) When on invitational travel orders.
</P>
<P>(B) To and from overseas assignments.
</P>
<P>(C) While providing scouting support to DoD personnel and their families. Transportation of supplies of qualified scouting organizations necessary to provide such support may also be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Office space where regular meetings can be conducted, and space for recreational activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Warehousing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Utilities.
</P>
<P>(v) Means of communication.
</P>
<P>(3) DoD may provide the following additional support to scouting executives assigned overseas:
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to section API 3.18 of DoD 4525.6-M, “Department of Defense Postal Manual” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/452506m.pdf</I>), access to use Military Services postal services is authorized.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to section 4.3.2.2.2 of Department of Defense Education Activity Regulation 1342.13, “Eligibility Requirements for Education of Elementary and Secondary School-age Dependents in Overseas Areas” (available at <I>http://www.dodea.edu/Offices/Regulations/index.cfm</I>), access to DoD Dependents Schools (overseas) may be provided on a space-available, tuition-paying basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to 32 CFR part 230, use of military banking facilities operated under DoD contracts is authorized.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pursuant to DoD Instruction 1015.10, “Military Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) Programs” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/101510p.pdf</I>), the use of morale, welfare, and recreation programs may be provided.
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to 32 CFR part 161, medical care in uniformed services facilities on a space-available basis at rates specified in uniformed services instructions, with charges collected locally, is authorized.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pursuant to Office of Management and Budget Circular A-45, “Rental and Construction of Government Quarters” (available at <I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/circulars_a045</I>) and subparagraph 2.c(1)(e) of DoD 4165.63-M, “DoD Housing Management” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/416563m.pdf</I>), when DoD-sponsored civilian personnel serving DoD military installations at foreign locations cannot obtain suitable housing in the vicinity of an installation, they and their families may occupy DoD housing on a rental basis. The Military Service determines the priority of such leasing actions. These civilians are required to pay the established rental rate in accordance with DoD 4165.63-M and Military Service guidance.
</P>
<P>(vii) Pursuant to DoD Instruction 1330.17, “DoD Commissary Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133017p.pdf</I>), overseas installation commanders or Secretaries of the Military Departments may extend commissary access through official support agreements.
</P>
<P>(viii) Pursuant to DoD Instruction 1330.21, “Armed Services Exchange Regulations” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/133021p.pdf</I>), the Secretaries of the Military Departments may grant Armed Forces Exchange deviations with regard to authorized patron privileges for individuals or classes and groups of persons at specific installations when based on alleviating individual hardships.
</P>
<P>(4) NAF may be used in conjunction with qualified scouting organizations to:
</P>
<P>(i) Reimburse for salaries and benefits of employees of those organizations for periods during which their professional scouting employees perform services in overseas areas in direct support of DoD personnel and their families.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reimburse travel to and from official meetings of the overseas scouting committee upon approval from the appropriate combatant commander.
</P>
<P>(5) The total amount of NAF support for the scouting program must not exceed 70 percent of the total cost of the scouting program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3961, Jan. 25, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 61615, Sept. 7, 2016]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="257" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 257—ACCEPTANCE OF SERVICE OF PROCESS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 133.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 1490, Jan. 12, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 257.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 257.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This rule updates DoD policy governing acceptance of service of process served on the Secretary of Defense and the Secretaries of the Military Departments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 257.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 257.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This rule applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) and the Military Departments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 257.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 257.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P><I>Service of Process.</I> When applied to the filing of a court action against an officer or agency of the United States, service of process refers to the delivery or, when appropriate, receipt by mail, of a summons and complaint made in accordance with Rule 4, Federal Rules of Civil Procedure by serving the United States and by serving a copy of the summons and complaint by registered or certified mail to such officer or agency. It further signifies the delivery of a subpoena requiring a witness to appear and give testimony or of a subpoena requiring production of documents, or delivery of a subpoena for any other reason whether or not the matter involves the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 257.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 257.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to accept service of process directed to the Secretary of Defense or a Secretary of a Military Department in his official capacity. Acceptance of service of process will not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to the jurisdiction or to the propriety of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 257.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.46.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 257.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The following responsibilities may not be redelegated:
</P>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel, Department of Defense,</I> shall accept service of process for the OSD.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Secretary of the Army,</I> or his designee, the <I>Chief, Litigation Division,</I> Office of the Judge Advocate General, shall accept service of process for the Department of the Army.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Secretary of the Navy,</I> or his designee, the <I>General Counsel,</I> shall accept service of process for the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Secretary of the Air Force,</I> or his designee, the <I>Chief, General Litigation Division,</I> Office of the Judge Advocate General, shall accept service of process for the Department of the Air Force.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="259" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 259—UNIFORM RELOCATION ASSISTANCE AND REAL PROPERTY ACQUISITION FOR FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY-ASSISTED PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 213, Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894, (42 U.S.C. 4601) as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987, Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256 (42 U.S.C. 4601 note). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 259.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.47.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 259.1   Uniform relocation assistance and real property acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations and procedures for complying with the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894 42 U.S.C. 4601) as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987 (Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256, 42 U.S.C. 4601 note) are set forth in 49 CFR part 24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48020, Dec. 17, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="260" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 260—VENDING FACILITY PROGRAM FOR THE BLIND ON DOD-CONTROLLED FEDERAL PROPERTY
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 62235, Nov. 27, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 260.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Assigns responsibilities in compliance with 20 U.S.C. 107 <I>et seq.</I> and 34 CFR part 395 and establishes the following policies within the Department of Defense:
</P>
<P>(1) Uniform policies for application of priority accorded the blind to operate vending facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for satisfactory vending facility sites on DoD-controlled property; and
</P>
<P>(3) Vending machine income-sharing requirements on DoD-controlled property
</P>
<P>(b) Prescribes requirements and operating procedures for the vending facility program for the blind on DoD-controlled property.
</P>
<P>(c) Does NOT apply to full food services, mess attendant services, or services supporting the operation of a military dining facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the Department of Defense Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Vending facility sites on DoD-controlled property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Blind licensee.</I> A blind person licensed by the State licensing agency to operate a vending facility on DoD-controlled property.
</P>
<P><I>Cafeteria.</I> A food dispensing facility capable of providing a broad variety of prepared foods and beverages (including hot meals) primarily through the use of a line where the customer serves himself or herself from displayed selections. A cafeteria may be fully automatic, or some limited waiter or waitress service may be available and provided within a cafeteria and table or booth seating facilities are always provided. The DoD Component food dispensing facilities that conduct cafeteria-type operations during part of their normal operating day and full table-service operations during the remainder of their normal operating day are not “cafeterias” if they engage primarily in full table service operations.
</P>
<P><I>Direct competition.</I> The presence and operation of a DoD Component vending machine or a vending facility on the same DoD-controlled property as a vending facility operated by a blind vendor. Vending machines or vending facilities operated in areas serving employees, the majority of whom normally do not have access (in terms of uninterrupted ease of approach and the amount of time required to patronize the vending facility) to the vending facility operated by a blind vendor, shall not be considered to be in direct competition with the vending facility operated by a blind vendor.
</P>
<P><I>DoD-controlled property.</I> Federal property that is owned, leased, or occupied by DoD.
</P>
<P><I>Federal employees.</I> Civilian appropriated fund and nonappropriated fund employees of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Federal property.</I> Any building, land, or other real property owned, leased, or occupied by DoD in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Individual location, installation, or facility.</I> A single building or a self-contained group of buildings. A self-contained group of buildings refers to two or more buildings that must be located in close proximity to each other and between which a majority of the Federal employees working in such buildings regularly move from one building to another in the normal course of their official business during a normal working day.
</P>
<P><I>License.</I> A written instrument issued by a State licensing agency to a blind person, authorizing that person to operate a vending facility on DoD-controlled property.
</P>
<P><I>Military dining facility.</I> A facility owned, operated, or leased and wholly controlled by DoD and used to provide dining services to members of the Armed Forces, including a cafeteria, military mess hall, military troop dining facility, or any similar dining facility operated for the purpose of providing meals to members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P><I>Normal working hours.</I> An 8-hour work period between the approximate hours of 0800 and 1800, Monday through Friday.
</P>
<P><I>On-site official.</I> The individual in command of an installation or separate facility or location. For the Pentagon Reservation only, the Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) Director of the Defense Facilities Directorate is designated as the on-site official.
</P>
<P><I>Permit.</I> The official approval given a State licensing agency by a department, agency, or instrumentality responsible for DoD-controlled property whereby the State licensing agency is authorized to establish a vending facility.
</P>
<P><I>Satisfactory site.</I> An area fully accessible to vending facility patrons and having sufficient electrical, plumbing, heating, and ventilation outlets for the location and operation of a vending facility in compliance with applicable health laws and building requirements. A “satisfactory site” shall have a minimum of 250 square feet available for sale of items and for storage of articles necessary for the operation of a vending facility.
</P>
<P><I>State.</I> A state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory, or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State licensing agency.</I> The State agency designated by the Secretary of Education, to issue licenses to blind persons for the operation of vending facilities on Federal and other property.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial alteration or renovation.</I> A permanent material change in the floor area of a building that would render it appropriate for the location and operation of a vending facility by a blind vendor.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> The several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Vending facility.</I> Automatic vending machines, cafeterias, snack bars, cart service, shelters, counters, and such other appropriate auxiliary equipment that may be operated by blind licensees and that are necessary for the sale of newspapers, periodicals, confections, tobacco products, foods, beverages, and other articles and services to be dispensed automatically or manually and that are prepared on or off the premises according to applicable health laws. Also includes facilities providing the vending or exchange of chances for any lottery authorized by State law and conducted by an agency of a State within such State.
</P>
<P><I>Vending machine.</I> For the purposes of assigning vending machine income, a coin or currency operated machine that dispenses articles or services except that those machines operated by the United States Postal Service for the sale of postage stamps or other postal products and services, machines providing services of a recreational nature, and telephones shall not be considered to be vending machines.
</P>
<P><I>Vending machine income.</I> (1) DoD Component receipts from the DoD Component vending machine operations on DoD-controlled property, where the machines are operated by any DoD Component activity, less costs incurred; or
</P>
<P>(2) Commissions received by any DoD Component activity from a commercial vending firm that provides vending machines on DoD-controlled property.
</P>
<P>(3) “Costs incurred” include costs of goods, including reasonable service and maintenance costs in accordance with customary business practices of commercial vending concerns, repair, cleaning, depreciation, supervisory and administrative personnel, normal accounting, and accounting for income-sharing.
</P>
<P><I>Vendor.</I> A blind licensee who is operating a vending facility on DoD-controlled property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that a DoD Component having accountability for real property shall extend priority on such property to the blind when implementing the Randolph-Sheppard Act, as set out in the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(a) The blind shall be given priority in the establishment and operation of vending facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The blind shall be given priority in the award of contracts to operate cafeterias.
</P>
<P>(c) In conjunction with acquisition or substantial alteration or renovation of a building, satisfactory sites shall be provided for operation of blind vending facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) Specified income from vending machines operated on DoD-controlled property by a DoD Component either directly or by contract shall be given to State licensing agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Principal Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (PDUSD(P&amp;R)), under the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, shall establish policies and procedures and monitor the Vending Facility Program.
</P>
<P>(b) The Heads of the DoD Components, in monitoring their respective programs, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve or disapprove State licensing agency applications for permits and the provision of satisfactory sites;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue policies and procedures to designate and establish responsibilities of the on-site official;
</P>
<P>(3) Suspend or terminate a permit to operate a vending facility after consulting with the PDUSD(P&amp;R) where circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure appropriate real property outgrants are accomplished in accordance with DoDI 4165.70, “Real Property Management,” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and consistent with the Randolph-Sheppard Act (20 U.S.C. 107) and the implementing regulations (34 CFR part 395).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available from <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/html/416570.htm.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(5) The On-Site Official shall be the point of contact with State licensing agencies and shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult with State licensing agencies on articles and services to be provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish appropriate limitations on the location or operation of a vending facility upon finding that the granting of a priority under the Act would adversely affect the interests of the United States. The On-Site Official shall justify this limitation in writing through the Head of the DoD Component concerned and the PDUSD(P&amp;R) to the Secretary of Education for determination of whether the limitation is warranted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify State licensing agencies of acquisition or substantial alteration or renovation of property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Negotiate with State licensing agencies on other matters and adhere to guidance provided in § 260.6 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Components in control of the maintenance, operation, and protection of Federal property shall take necessary action to ensure the requirements set forth in this Section are implemented for these properties.
</P>
<P>(a) The blind have a priority to operate vending facilities on DoD property, whenever feasible, in light of appropriate space and potential patronage. Implementation of this priority is not required when:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of people using the property is or will be insufficient to support a vending facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Education determines that the limitation on the placement or operation of a vending facility is warranted pursuant to 260.5(b)(5)(ii), which is binding on the DoD Component. Notice of the Secretary of Education's determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for permits by the State licensing agency to operate vending facilities (except cafeterias) on DoD-controlled property must be submitted in writing to the Head of the DoD Component concerned through the on-site official. When an application is not approved, the Head of the DoD Component concerned shall advise the State licensing agency in writing and shall indicate the reasons for the disapproval. Permits shall describe the location of the vending facility and shall be subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The permit shall be issued in the name of the State licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The permit shall be issued for an indefinite period of time subject to suspension or termination upon failure to comply with agreed-upon terms. It shall be subject to termination by either party on 60 days' written notice to the other party, in cases of:
</P>
<P>(i) Inactivation of the installation or activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loss of use of a building or other facility housing the vending facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) Change in the DoD Component's requirements for service.
</P>
<P>(iv) Inability of the State licensing agency to continue to operate the vending facility.
</P>
<P>(3) The permit shall provide:
</P>
<P>(i) No charge shall be made by the DoD Component to the State licensing agency for normal repair and maintenance of the building, cleaning areas adjacent to the designated vending facility boundaries, or trash removal from a designated collection point (not to include any hazardous waste).
</P>
<P>(ii) The State licensing agency shall be responsible for cleaning and maintaining the vending facility appearance and its security within the designated boundaries of such facility and for all costs of every kind in conjunction with vending facility equipment, merchandise, and other products to be sold, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section. Neither party shall be responsible for loss or damage to the other's property, unless caused by its acts or omissions. The State licensing agency shall also be responsible for the acts or omissions of the blind vendor, the vendor's employees, or agents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Articles sold at such vending facilities may consist of newspapers, periodicals, publications, confections, tobacco products, foods, beverages, chances for any lottery authorized by State law and conducted by an agency of a State within such State, and other articles or services traditionally found in blind-operated vending facilities operated under 20 U.S.C. 107, as determined by the State licensing agency, in consultation with the on-site official, to be suitable for a particular location. Articles and services may be automatically or manually dispensed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vending facilities shall be operated in compliance with applicable Federal, state, interstate and local laws and regulations, including those concerning health and sanitation, the environment, and building codes.
</P>
<P>(v) Installation, modification, relocation, removal, and renovation of vending facilities shall be subject to the prior approval of the on-site official and the State licensing agency. The initiating party shall pay the costs of installation, modification, removal, relocation, or renovation. In any case of suspension or termination of a permit to operate a vending facility on the basis of noncompliance by either party, the costs of removal from the building shall be borne by the non-complying party.
</P>
<P>(4) The permit shall state that no charge shall be made to the State Licensing Authority for the cost of normal cleaning, maintenance, and repair of the building structure in and adjacent to the vending facility areas, and no charge shall be made to the DoD for the cost of sanitation and the maintenance of vending facilities and vending machines in an orderly condition at all times, and the installation, maintenance, repair, replacement, servicing, and removal of vending facility equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) In the event the blind licensee fails to provide satisfactory service or otherwise fails to comply with the requirements of the permit issued to the State licensing agency, the on-site official shall, after coordinating with the Head of the DoD Component, notify the State licensing agency of this deficiency in writing and request corrective action within a specified reasonable time. The notice shall indicate that failure to correct the deficiency shall result in temporary suspension or termination of the permit, as appropriate. Suspension or termination action shall be taken by the Head of the DoD Component concerned after consultation with the PDUSD(P&amp;R).
</P>
<P>(c) Any DoD Component-acquired (purchased, rented, leased, or constructed), substantially altered, or renovated building is required to have one or more satisfactory sites for a blind-operated vending facility, except as provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A determination that a building contains a satisfactory site or sites is presumed if the State licensing agency and the on-site official consult and agree that the site or sites provided are satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(i) The Heads of the DoD Components shall notify the appropriate State licensing agency 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, of buildings to be acquired or substantially altered or renovated. This notification shall be provided at least 60 days in advance of the intended acquisition date or the initiation of actual construction, alteration, or renovation. As a practical matter, the State licensing agency should be contacted early in the planning or design stage of a project. This notification shall:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See the U.S. Department of Education Web site, Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services at <I>http://www.ed.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(A) State that a satisfactory site(s) for the location and operation of a blind vending facility is (are) included in the plans for the building.
</P>
<P>(B) Include a copy of a single line drawing indicating the proposed location of such site(s).
</P>
<P>(C) Advise the State licensing agency that, subject to the approval of the DoD Component, it shall be offered the opportunity to select the location and type of vending facility to be operated by a blind vendor prior to completion of the final space layout of the building.
</P>
<P>(ii) Advise that the State licensing agency must respond within 30 days to the DoD Component, acknowledging receipt of the correspondence from the DoD Component and indicating whether it is interested in establishing a vending facility and, if interested, signifying its agreement or alternate selection of a location and its selection of type of vending facility. A copy of the written notice to the State licensing agency and the State licensing agency's response, if any, shall be provided to the Secretary of Education.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the State licensing agency's response to the DoD Component indicates it does not desire to establish and operate a vending facility and sets forth any specific basis other than the insufficiency of patrons to support a vending facility, or if the State licensing agency does not respond within 30 days, then a site meeting the anticipated needs of the DoD Component shall be incorporated. Each such site shall have a minimum of 250 square feet for sale of items and for storage of articles necessary for the operation of a vending facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the State licensing agency indicates that the number of persons using the property is or will be insufficient to support a vending facility, then a satisfactory site to be operated under the auspices of the State licensing agency shall not be incorporated. The On-Site Official shall, through the Head of the DoD component, notify the Secretary of Education of the State licensing agency's response.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirement to provide a satisfactory site shall not apply:
</P>
<P>(i) When fewer than 100 Federal employees (as defined in § 260.3 of this part) are located in the building during normal working hours; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the building contains fewer than 15,000 square feet to be used for Federal Government purposes and the Federal Government space is used to provide services to the general public.
</P>
<P>(iii) The provisions of paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section do not preclude arrangements under which blind vending facilities may be established in buildings of a size or with an employee population less than that specified. For example, if a building is to be constructed that will contain only 30 Federal employees, upon agreement of the on-site official and the State licensing agency, the DoD Component may decide to provide a satisfactory site for a blind vending facility.
</P>
<P>(3) When a DoD Component is leasing all or part of a privately owned building in which the lessor or any of its tenants have an existing restaurant or other food facility in a part of the building not covered by the lease and operation of a vending facility would be in substantial direct competition with such restaurant or other food operation, the requirement to provide a satisfactory site does not apply.
</P>
<P>(d) Vending machine income generated by the Department of Defense shall be shared with State licensing agencies as prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The on-site official is responsible for collecting and accounting for such vending machine income (as defined in § 260.3 of this part) and for ensuring compliance with the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) The vending machine income-sharing requirements are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) One hundred percent of the vending machine income from vending machines in direct competition with blind-operated vending facilities shall be provided to the State licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fifty percent of the vending machine income from vending machines not in direct competition with blind-operated vending facilities shall be provided to the State licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, thirty percent of the vending machine income from vending machines not in direct competition with blind-operated vending facilities and located where at least fifty percent of the total hours worked on the premises occurs during other than normal working hours (as defined in § 260.3 of this part) shall be provided to the State licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The determination of whether a vending machine is in direct competition with the blind-operated vending facility is the responsibility of the on-site official subject to the concurrence of the State licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(3) These vending machine income-sharing requirements do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Income from vending machines operated by or for the military exchanges or ships' store systems; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Income from vending machines, not in direct competition with a blind-operated vending facility, at any individual location, installation, or facility where the total of the vending machine income from all such machines at such location, installation, or facility does not exceed $3,000 annually.
</P>
<P>(4) The payment to State licensing agencies under these income-sharing requirements must be made quarterly on a fiscal year basis.
</P>
<P>(e) Pursuant to 34 CFR 395.37, whenever any State licensing agency for the blind determines that any DoD activity is failing to comply with the provisions of 20 U.S.C. 107 and all informal attempts to resolve the issues have been unsuccessful, the State licensing agency may file a complaint with the Secretary of Education.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 260.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.48.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 260.7   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Within 90 days after the end of each fiscal year, the DoD Components shall forward to the PDUSD(P&amp;R) the total number of applications for vending facility locations received from State licensing agencies, the number accepted, the number denied, the number still pending, the total amount of vending machine income collected (as defined in § 260.3 of this part, excluding income exempt from the income sharing requirements by § 260.6(d)(3) of this part), and the amount of such vending machine income disbursed to State licensing agencies in each State. These reporting requirements have been assigned Report Control Symbol DD-P&amp;R(A)2210, according to DoD 8910.1-M, “Department of Defense Procedures for Management of Information Requirements.” 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Available from <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/891001m.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="263" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 263—TRAFFIC AND VEHICLE CONTROL ON CERTAIN DEFENSE MAPPING AGENCY SITES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>63 Stat. 377 as amended, 18 U.S.C. 13, 40 U.S.C. 318 a through d, 50 U.S.C. 797, Delegations, 43 FR 56895, 46 FR 58306. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 34952, Aug. 2, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Brookmont site</I> means those grounds and facilities of the Defense Mapping Agency Hydrographic/Topographic Center (DMAHTC) and the Defense Mapping Agency Office of Distribution Services (DMAODS) located in Montgomery County, Maryland, over which the Federal Government has acquired exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uniformed guard</I> means a designated DMA government guard appointed to enforce vehicle and traffic regulations by the Director, DMAHTC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this regulation apply to all areas in the Brookmont site and to all persons on or within the site. They supplement those penal provisions of Title 18, U.S. Code, relating to crimes and criminal procedures, which apply without regard to the place of the offense and those provisions of state law which are made federal criminal offenses by virtue of the Assimilative Crimes Act, 18 U.S.C. 13. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.3   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All persons entering the site shall comply with this regulation; with all official signs; and with the lawful directions or orders of a uniformed guard in connection with the control or regulation of traffic, parking or other conduct at the Brookmont site.
</P>
<P>(b) At the request of a uniformed guard, a person must provide identification by exhibiting satisfactory credentials (such as driver's license).
</P>
<P>(c) No person shall knowingly give any false or fictitious report concerning an accident or violation of this regulation to any person properly investigating an accident or alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(d) All incidents resulting in injury to persons or damage to property must be reported to the Security Office immediately.
</P>
<P>(e) No person involved in an accident shall leave the scene of that accident without first giving aid or assistance to the injured and making his or her identity known.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.4   Registration of vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Newly assigned or employed individuals who intend to operate a privately-owned vehicle at the site shall register it with the Security Police Division within 24 hours after entry on duty.
</P>
<P>(b) Temporary registration for a specified period of time will be permitted for temporarily hired, detailed, or assigned personnel; consultants; contractors; visiting dignitaries, etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.5   Inspection of license and registration.</HEAD>
<P>No person may operate any motor vehicle on the site without a valid, current operator's license, nor may any person, if operating a motor vehicle on the site, refuse to exhibit for inspection, upon request of a uniformed guard, his operator's license or proof of registration of the vehicle under his control at time of operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.6   Speeding or reckless driving.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall drive a motor vehicle on the site at a speed greater than or in a manner other that what is reasonable and prudent for the particular location, given the conditions of traffic, weather, and road surface and having regard to the actual and potential hazards existing.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when a special hazard exists that requires lower speed, the speed limit on the site is 15 m.p.h., unless another speed limit has been duly posted, and no person shall drive a motor vehicle on the site in excess of the speed limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.7   Emergency vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall fail or refuse to yield the right-of-way to an emergency vehicle when operating with siren or flashing lights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.8   Signs.</HEAD>
<P>Every driver shall comply with all posted traffic signs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.9   Right-of-way in crosswalks.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall fail or refuse to yield the right-of-way to a pedestrian or bicyclist crossing a street in the marked crosswalk.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.10   Parking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person, unless otherwise authorized by a posted traffic sign or directed by a uniformed guard, shall stand or park a motor vehicle:
</P>
<P>(1) On a sidewalk, lawn, plants or shrubs.
</P>
<P>(2) Within an intersection or within a crosswalk.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 15 feet of a fire hydrant, 5 feet of a driveway or 30 feet of a stop sign or traffic control device.
</P>
<P>(4) At any place which would result in the vehicle being double parked.
</P>
<P>(5) At curbs painted yellow.
</P>
<P>(6) In a direction facing on-coming traffic.
</P>
<P>(7) In a manner which would obstruct traffic.
</P>
<P>(8) In a parking space marked as not intended for his or her use.
</P>
<P>(9) Where directed not to do so by a uniformed guard.
</P>
<P>(10) Except in an area specifically designated for parking or standing.
</P>
<P>(11) Except within a single space marked for such purposes, when parking or standing in an area with marked spaces.
</P>
<P>(12) At any place in violation of any posted sign.
</P>
<P>(13) In excess of 24 hours, unless permission has been granted by the Security Office.
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall park bicycles, motorbikes or similar vehicles in areas not designated for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) Visitors shall park in areas identified for that purpose by posted signs and shall register their vehicles at the front desk of Erskine Hall, Ruth Building or Fremont Building.
</P>
<P>(d) No person, except visitors, shall park a motor vehicle on the Brookmont site without having a valid parking permit displayed on such motor vehicle in compliance with the instructions of the issuing authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.49.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.11   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except with respect to the laws of the State of Maryland assimilated under 18 U.S.C. 13, whoever shall be found guilty of violating these regulations is subject to a fine of not more than $50 or imprisonment of not more than 30 days, or both in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 318c. Except as expressly provided in this part, nothing contained in these regulations shall be construed to abrogate any other Federal laws or regulations, or any State and local laws and regulations applicable to the area in which the site is situated.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the penalties described in subsection (a) of this section, parking privileges may be revoked by the issuing authority for violations of any of the provisions of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) Any motor vehicle that is parked in violation of this regulation may be towed away or otherwise moved if a determination is made by a uniformed guard that it is a nuisance or hazard. A fee for the moving service and for the storage of the vehicle, if any, may be charged, and the vehicle is subject to a lien for that charge. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="264" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 264—INTERNATIONAL INTERCHANGE OF PATENT RIGHTS AND TECHNICAL INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 601, 606, 75 Stat. 438, 440; 22 U.S.C. 2351, 2356. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>25 FR 14456, Dec. 31, 1960, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 264.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.1   Purpose and cancellation.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to restate Department of Defense policy concerning the international interchange for defense purposes of patent rights and technical information. DoD Directive 2000.3, “Technical Property Interchange Agreements”, dated April 15, 1954, is hereby superseded and cancelled. Delegation published at 19 FR 2523 is cancelled. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the activities of all Department of Defense personnel involved in the international interchange for defense purposes of patent rights and technical information. The policy prescribed herein applies to unclassified as well as classified information, owned by the United States Government or privately owned, but does not apply to patents, patent applications, and technical information in the field of atomic energy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.3   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to the provisions of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended, and of predecessor legislation superseded by that Act, the United States has entered into agreements for the Interchange of Patent Rights and Technical Information for Defense Purposes with Australia, Belgium, Denmark, France, the Federal Republic of Germany, Greece, Italy, Japan, The Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Turkey, and the United Kingdom. The agreements, which are published in the Treaties and Other International Act Series, are basically similar in substance but are not identical. Under the agreements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each government undertakes to facilitate the interchange of privately owned patent rights and of technical information through the medium of commercial relationships, to the extent permitted by the laws and security requirements of the contracting governments. 
</P>
<P>(2) When technical information is supplied by one government to the other for information only, the recipient government undertakes to treat the information as disclosed in confidence and to use its best endeavors to ensure that the information is not dealt with in any manner likely to prejudice the rights of the owner to obtain patent or similar statutory protection. 
</P>
<P>(3) When technical information supplied by one government to the other discloses an invention which is the subject of a patent or patent application held in secrecy in the country of origin, the recipient government undertakes to accord similar treatment to a corresponding patent application filed in that country. 
</P>
<P>(4) When privately owned technical information is released by one government to the other and the recipient government uses or disclosed the information, the owner shall, subject to the extent that the owner may be entitled thereto under the applicable law and subject to arrangements between the contracting governments regarding the assumption as between them of liability for compensation, receive prompt, just and effective compensation for such use and for any damages resulting from such use or disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each government is entitled to use for defense purposes without cost any invention which the other government (including government corporations) owns or to which it has the right to grant a license to use, except to the extent that there may be liability to any private owner of an interest in the invention. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each of these agreements establishes a Technical Property Committee consisting of a representative of each contracting government, whose function it is to consider and make recommendations to the contracting governments on all matters relating to the subject of the agreement and to assist where appropriate in the negotiation of commercial or other agreements for the use of patent rights and technical information in the military assistance program. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Patent Advisor assigned to the Defense Staff of the U.S. Mission to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and European Regional Organizations (USRO), Paris, France, is the United States representative to the Technical Property Committees in Europe. The J-4, Hq. United States Forces Japan, Tokyo, Japan is the United States representative to the United States-Japanese Technical Property Committee. A member of the Office of Assistant General Counsel, International Affairs, Office of the Secretary of Defense, is the United States representative to the United States-Australian Technical Property Committee. The appropriate representative should be consulted on all problems dealing with patent rights, technical information and related matters under the agreements. 
</P>
<P>(2) These representatives receive policy guidance from the Department of Defense. The Assistant Secretary of Defense for International Security Affairs is responsible within the Department of Defense for transmitting such policy guidance through appropriate channels. Guidance transmitted for the United States representative in Europe shall be forwarded to the Defense Advisor, USRO; guidance transmitted for the United States representative in Japan shall be transmitted to the Commanding General, United States Forces Japan. 
</P>
<P>(c) Department of Defense problems arising in the United States in connection with the interchange of patent rights and privately owned technical information should be referred to the patent activity of the appropriate Military Department. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 14456, Dec. 31, 1960, as amended at 26 FR 1993, Mar. 8, 1961; 26 FR 6479, July 19, 1961] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Department of Defense to encourage and facilitate international interchanges of patent rights and technical information to further the common defense of the United States and friendly nations. In achieving this purpose, the following principles shall be observed. 
</P>
<P>(a) Classified military information shall be released only through Government channels and only when consistent with the National Disclosure Policy, or when approved as an exception to that policy. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the Congressional policy prescribed by section 413(a) of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1933(a)), and pursuant to the bilateral agreements referred to in § 264.3, commercial relationships shall be utilized whenever appropriate and to the maximum extent feasible in order to encourage the participation of private enterprise in the Mutual Security Program, to relieve the Department of Defense of administrative burdens, and to reduce the costs to the United States of such interchanges. 
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with section 414 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1934), the utilization of commercial channels for the exportation of unclassified privately owned technical information relating to articles designated as arms, ammunition, and implements of war in the United States Munitions List shall be subject to the regulations issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to section 414 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1934) (Title 22 CFR, chapter I, subchapter M). (The term “technical data” is used in those regulations to describe technical information relating to such articles). 
</P>
<P>(d) Technical information which might be privately owned may be released under paragraph (e) (1) or (2) of this section by Department of Defense Agencies to foreign governments if any one of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The owner expressly consents to the proposed release; 
</P>
<P>(2) The United States, by contract or otherwise, has acquired or is entitled to acquire, the information under circumstances which permit the proposed release; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of the Military Department concerned, or his designee, determines, under the authority of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The exigencies of the requirement for release to further the common defense do not allow sufficient time to obtain the consent of the owner; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The owner refuses consent and the best interests of the United States would be served by the release. 
</P>
<P>(e) In accordance with the provisions of the agreements referred to in § 264.3, the release to foreign governments by Department of Defense agencies of technical information which might be privately owned shall normally be in accord with the following two step procedure: 
</P>
<P>(1) Release for information only. 
</P>
<P>(2) Permission for manufacture, or use, for defense purposes. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) All technical information, whether privately owned or government owned, released to a foreign government by Department of Defense Agencies shall be marked with the following restrictions: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>1. This information is accepted for defense purposes only. 
</P>
<P>2. This information shall be accorded substantially the same degree of security protection as such information has in the United States. 
</P>
<P>3. This information shall not be disclosed to another country without the consent of the United States.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) When technical information which might be privately owned is released for information only, the restrictive marking shall also contain these additional notations: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>4. This information is accepted upon the understanding that it might be privately owned. 
</P>
<P>5. This information is accepted solely for the purpose of information and shall accordingly be treated as disclosed in confidence. The recipient Government shall use its best endeavors to ensure that the information is not dealt with in any manner likely to prejudice the rights of the private owner thereof to obtain patent or other like statutory protection therefor. 
</P>
<P>6. The recipient Government shall obtain the consent of the United States if it desires that this information be made available for manufacture, or use, for defense purposes.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) When technical information which might be privately owned is released under the procedures set forth herein, the owner, if known, shall be furnished: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notice of the release; 
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the recipient, if not contrary to security regulations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Notice that the recipient has been advised that the information might be privately owned; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Notice of the restrictions to which the release is subject. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.50.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.5   Claims for compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to interchanges in furtherance of the purposes of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended, section 506 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1758) provides the exclusive remedy for compensation for infringement within the United States of a patent issued by the United States and for damage resulting from the disclosure by the United States of privately owned technical information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretaries of the Military Departments are hereby authorized to exercise the power and authority conferred by section 506 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1758) to enter into agreements with claimants in full settlement and compromise of any claim against the United States thereunder, subject to such rules and regulations, if any, as the Secretary of Defense may promulgate from time to time. The Secretaries of the Military Departments are authorized to make successive redelegations in writing of this power and authority to any officer, employee, board or agent of their respective departments. 
</P>
<P>(c) Funds appropriated for military assistance pursuant to the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended, which have been made available to a Military Department may be used to settle claims under section 506 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1758). In addition, in those cases where the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2386 are applicable, funds appropriated for a Military Department available for making or procuring supplies may be used to settle such claims. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="269" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 269—CIVIL MONETARY PENALTY INFLATION ADJUSTMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 67945, Dec. 26, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 269.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish a mechanism for the regular adjustment for inflation of civil monetary penalties under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense. Applicable civil monetary penalties must be adjusted in conformity with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134, April 26, 1996, and further amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, Public Law 114-74, November 2, 2015, in order to improve the deterrent effect of civil monetary penalties and to promote compliance with the law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 33391, May 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Department.</I> The Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil monetary penalty.</I> Any penalty, fine, or other sanction that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is for a specific monetary amount as provided by Federal law; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a maximum amount provided by Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is assessed or enforced by the Department pursuant to Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is assessed or enforced pursuant to an administrative proceeding or a civil action in the Federal Courts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer Price Index.</I> The index for all urban consumers published by the Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67945, Dec. 26, 1996, as amended at 81 FR 33391, May 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.3   Civil monetary penalty inflation adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>The Department must, not later than July 1, 2016 and not later than January 15 of every year thereafter—
</P>
<P>(a) By regulation, adjust each civil monetary penalty provided by law within the jurisdiction of the Department by the inflation adjustment described in § 269.4; and
</P>
<P>(b) Publish each such update in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67945, Dec. 26, 1996, as amended at 81 FR 33391, May 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.4   Cost of living adjustments of civil monetary penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inflation adjustment under § 269.3 must be determined by increasing the maximum civil monetary penalty or the range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties, as applicable, for each civil monetary penalty by the cost-of-living adjustment. Any increase determined under this subsection shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $1.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the term “cost-of-living adjustment” means the percentage (if any) for each civil monetary penalty by which the Consumer Price Index for the month of October preceding the date of the adjustment (January 15), exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the month of October in the previous calendar year. For example, if the Consumer Price Index for October 2016 is 1.0 and the Consumer Price Index for October 2015 was 0.75, then all applicable penalties will need to be positively adjusted by 0.25 by January 15, 2017.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on initial adjustment.</I> The initial adjustment of civil monetary penalty pursuant to § 269.3 may not exceed 150 percent of such penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inflation adjustment.</I> Maximum civil monetary penalties within the jurisdiction of the Department are adjusted for inflation as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">United States Code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Civil monetary penalty description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum penalty


<br/>amount as of

<br/>01/12/24
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">New adjusted


<br/>maximum penalty

<br/>amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Defense Authorization Act for FY 2005, 10 U.S.C. 113, note</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unauthorized Activities Directed at or Possession of Sunken Military Craft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161,168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165,355
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 U.S.C. 1094(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawful Provision of Health Care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,152</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,519
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 U.S.C. 1102(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wrongful Disclosure—Medical Records:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Offense</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,368</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,586
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subsequent Offense</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55,788</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,237
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 U.S.C. 2674(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation of the Pentagon Reservation Operation and Parking of Motor Vehicles Rules and Regulations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,306</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,366
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31 U.S.C. 3802(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation Involving False Claim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31 U.S.C. 3802(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Violation Involving False Statement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">False claims</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Claims submitted with a false certification of physician license</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Claims presented by excluded party</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(2); (b)(2) (ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employing or contracting with an excluded individual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Patterns of claims for medically unnecessary services/supplies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ordering or prescribing while excluded</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Known retention of an overpayment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Making or using a false record or statement that is material to a false or fraudulent claim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124,731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,972
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to grant timely access to OIG for audits, investigations, evaluations, or other statutory functions of OIG</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38,392
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.210(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Making false statements, omissions, misrepresentations in an enrollment application</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124,731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,972
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a); 32 CFR 200.310(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlawfully offering, paying, soliciting, or receiving remuneration to induce or in return for the referral of business in violation of 1128B(b) of the Social Security Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124,731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,972</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 33391, May 26, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 6249, Jan. 19, 2017; 83 FR 3078, Jan. 23, 2018; 84 FR 12099, Apr. 1, 2019; 85 FR 13049, Mar. 6, 2020; 86 FR 46600, Aug. 19, 2021; 87 FR 57147, Sept. 19, 2022; 88 FR 2240, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 2146, Jan. 12, 2024; 90 FR 3695, Jan. 15, 2025]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.51.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.5   Application of increase to violations.</HEAD>
<P>Any increase in a civil monetary penalty under this part must apply only to civil monetary penalties, including those whose associated violation predated such increase, which are assessed after the date the increase takes effect (<I>i.e.,</I> July 1, 2016).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67945, Dec. 26, 1996, as amended at 81 FR 33391, May 26, 2016]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="273" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 273—DEFENSE MATERIEL DISPOSITION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2194, 2208, 2557, 2572, 2576, 2576a, 2576b, 2577, 4683, 7306, 7545; 15 U.S.C. 3710(i); 22 U.S.C. 2151, 2321b, 2321j, 2751, and 2778 <I>et seq.;</I> 40 U.S.C. subtitle I and sections 101, 541 <I>et seq.,</I> and 701; 42 U.S.C. 3015 and 3020; and 42 U.S.C. Chapter 68.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 68159, Nov. 3, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Disposal Guidance and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is composed of several subparts, each containing its own purpose. In accordance with the authority in DoD Directive 5134.12, “Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR))” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/513412p.pdf</I>); DoD Instruction 4140.01, “Supply Chain Materiel Management Policy” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/414001p.pdf</I>); and DoD Instruction 4160.28, “DoD Demilitarization (DEMIL) Program” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/416028p.pdf</I>), this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes uniform procedures for the disposition of DoD personal property.
</P>
<P>(2) Establishes the sequence of processes for disposition of personal property of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Implements the statutory authority and regulations under which DoD personal property disposal takes place, as well as the scope and applicability for the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Defines the responsibilities of personnel and agencies involved in the Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides procedures for disposal of excess property and scrap.
</P>
<P>(4) Provides procedures for property donations, loans, and exchanges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this subpart as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) If a procedural conflict exists, these references take precedence:
</P>
<P>(1) 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 (also known as the Federal Property Management Regulations and Federal Management Regulation (FPMR and FMR)).
</P>
<P>(2) 40 U.S.C. subtitle I, also known as the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Abandonment and destruction (A/D).</I> A method for handling property that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is abandoned and a diligent effort to determine the owner is unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(2) Is uneconomical to repair or the estimated costs of the continued care and handling of the property exceeds the estimated proceeds of sale.
</P>
<P>(3) Has an estimated cost of disposal by A/D that is less than the net sales cost.
</P>
<P><I>Accountability.</I> The obligation imposed by law, lawful order, or regulation, accepted by a person for keeping accurate records to ensure control of property, documents, or funds, with or without possession of the property. The person who is accountable is concerned with control while the person who has possession is responsible for custody, care, and safekeeping.
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition cost.</I> The amount paid for property, including transportation costs, net any trade and cash discounts. Also see standard price.
</P>
<P><I>Ammunition.</I> Generic term related mainly to articles of military application consisting of all kinds of bombs, grenades, rockets, mines, projectiles, and other similar devices or contrivances.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic identification technology (AIT).</I> A suite of technologies enabling the automatic capture of data, thereby enhancing the ability to identify, track, document, and control assets (<I>e.g.</I> materiel), deploying and redeploying forces, equipment, personnel, and sustainment cargo. AIT encompasses a variety of data storage or carrier technologies, such as linear bar codes, two-dimensional symbols (PDF417 and Data Matrix), magnetic strips, integrated circuit cards, optical laser discs (optical memory cards or compact discs), satellite tracking transponders, and radio frequency identification tags used for marking or “tagging” individual items, equipment, air pallets, or containers. Known commercially as automatic identification data capture.
</P>
<P><I>Batchlot.</I> The physical grouping of individual receipts of low-dollar-value property. The physical grouping consolidates multiple disposal turn-in documents (DTIDs) under a single cover DTID. The objective of batchlotting is to reduce the time and costs related to physical handling and administrative processes required for receiving items individually. The cover DTID establishes accountability in the accountable record and individual line items lose their identity.
</P>
<P><I>Bid.</I> A response to an offer to sell that, if accepted, would bind the bidder to the terms and conditions of the contract (including the bid price).
</P>
<P><I>Bidder.</I> Any entity that is responding to or has responded to an offer to sell.
</P>
<P><I>Care and handling.</I> Includes packing, storing, handling, and conserving excess, surplus, and foreign excess property. In the case of property that is dangerous to public health, safety, or the environment, this includes destroying or rendering such property harmless.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial off the shelf (COTS) software.</I> Software that is available through lease or purchase in the commercial market. Included in COTS are the operating system software that runs on the information technology equipment and other significant software purchased with a license that supports system or customer requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Commerce control list (CCL) items</I> (formerly known as strategic list item). Commodities, software, and technology subject to export controls in accordance with Export Administration Regulations (EAR) in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774. The EAR contains the CCL and is administered by the Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce (DOC).
</P>
<P><I>Component.</I> An item that is useful only when used in conjunction with an end item. Components are also commonly referred to as assemblies. For purposes of this definition an assembly and a component are the same. There are two types of components: Major components and minor components. A major component includes any assembled element which forms a portion of an end item without which the end item is inoperable. For example, for an automobile, components will include the engine, transmission, and battery. If you do not have all those items, the automobile will not function, or function as effectively. A minor component includes any assembled element of a major component. Components consist of parts. References in the CCL to components include both major components and minor components.
</P>
<P><I>Container.</I> Any portable device in which a materiel is stored, transported, disposed of, or otherwise handled, including those whose last content was a hazardous or an acutely hazardous material, waste, or substance.
</P>
<P><I>Continental United States (CONUS).</I> Territory, including the adjacent territorial waters, located within the North American continent between Canada and Mexico (comprises 48 States and the District of Columbia).
</P>
<P><I>Controlled substances.</I> (1) Any narcotic, depressant, stimulant, or hallucinogenic drug or any other drug or other substance or immediate precursor included in 21 U.S.C. 801. Exempted chemical preparations and mixtures and excluded substances are listed in 21 CFR part 1308.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other drug or substance that the United States Attorney General determines to be subject to control in accordance with 21 CFR part 1308.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other drug or substance that, by international treaty, convention, or protocol, is to be controlled by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Counterfeit.</I> A counterfeit part is one whose identity has been deliberately altered, misrepresented, or is offered as an unauthorized product substitution.
</P>
<P><I>Defective property.</I> An item, part, or component that does not meet military, Federal, or commercial specifications as required by military procurement contracts because of unserviceability, finite life, or product quality deficiency and is determined to be unsafe for use. Defective property may be dangerous to public health or safety by virtue of latent defects. These defects are identified by technical inspection methods; or condemned by maintenance or other authorized activities as a result of destructive and nondestructive test methods such as magnetic particle, liquid penetrant, or radiographic testing, which reveal defects not apparent from normal visual inspection methods.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services Automated Information System (DAISY).</I> An automated property accounting management data system designed to process property through the necessary disposal steps and account for excess, surplus, and foreign excess personal property (FEPP) from receipt to final disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Demilitarization.</I> The act of eliminating the functional capabilities and inherent military design features from DoD personal property. Methods and degree range from removal and destruction of critical features to total destruction by cutting, crushing, shredding, melting, burning, etc. DEMIL is required to prevent property from being used for its originally intended purpose and to prevent the release of inherent design information that could be used against the United States. DEMIL applies to material in both serviceable and unserviceable condition.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal.</I> End-of-life tasks or actions for residual materials resulting from demilitarization or disposition operations.
</P>
<P><I>Disposition.</I> The process of reusing, recycling, converting, redistributing, transferring, donating, selling, demilitarizing, treating, destroying, or fulfilling other end of life tasks or actions for DoD property. Does not include real (real estate) property.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Disposition Services.</I> The organization provides DoD with worldwide reuse, recycling and disposal solutions that focus on efficiency, cost avoidance and compliance.
</P>
<P><I>DLA Disposition Services site.</I> The DLA Disposition Services office that has accountability for and control over disposable property. May be managed in part by a commercial contractor. The term is applicable whether the disposal facility is on a commercial site or a Government installation and applies to both Government and contractor employees performing the disposal mission.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Activity Address Code (DoDAAC).</I> A 6-digit code assigned by the Defense Automatic Addressing Service to provide a standardized address code system for identifying activities and for use in transmission of supply and logistics information that supports the movement of property.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Item Unique Identification (IUID) Registry.</I> The DoD data repository that receives input from both industry and Government sources and provides storage of, and access to, data that identifies and describes tangible Government personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Donation.</I> The act of providing surplus personal property at no charge to a qualified donation recipient, as allocated by the General Services Administration (GSA).
</P>
<P><I>Donation recipient.</I> Any of the following entities that receive federal surplus personal property through State agencies for surplus property (SASP):
</P>
<P>(1) A Service educational activity (SEA).
</P>
<P>(2) A public agency that uses surplus personal property to carry out or promote one or more public purposes. (Public airports are an exception and are only considered donation recipients when they elect to receive surplus property through a SASP, but not when they elect to receive surplus property through the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).)
</P>
<P>(3) An eligible nonprofit tax-exempt educational or public health institution (including a provider of assistance to homeless or impoverished families or individuals).
</P>
<P>(4) A State or local government agency, or a nonprofit organization or institution, that receives funds appropriated for a program for older individuals.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution.</I> An approved, accredited, or licensed public or nonprofit institution or facility, entity, or organization conducting educational programs, including research for any such programs, such as a childcare center, school, college, university, school for the mentally handicapped, school for the physically handicapped, or an educational radio or television station.
</P>
<P><I>Excess personal property.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Domestic excess.</I> Government personal property that the United States and its territories and possessions, applicable to areas covered by GSA (<I>i.e.,</I> the 50 States, District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, Northern Mariana Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Marshall Islands, Palau, and the U.S. Virgin Islands), consider excess to the needs and mission requirements of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DoD Component excess.</I> Items of DoD Component owned property that are not required for their needs and the discharge of their responsibilities as determined by the head of the Service or Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign excess personal property (FEPP).</I> U.S.-owned excess personal property that is located outside the zone of interior (ZI). This property becomes surplus and is eligible for donation and sale as described in § 273.7.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange.</I> Replace personal property by trade or trade-in with the supplier of the replacement property. To exchange non-excess, non-surplus personal property and apply the exchange allowance or proceeds of sale in whole or in part payment for the acquisition of similar property. For example, the replacement of a historical artifact with another historical artifact by trade; or to exchange an item of historical property or goods for services based on the fair market value of the artifact.
</P>
<P><I>Federal civilian agency (FCA).</I> Any non-defense executive agency (<I>e.g.</I> DoS, Department of Homeland Security) or any establishment in the legislative or judicial branch of the U.S. Government (USG) (except the Senate, the House of Representatives, and the Architect of the Capitol and any activities under his or her direction).
</P>
<P><I>FEPP.</I> See excess personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Firearm.</I> Any weapon (including a starter gun) that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive; the frame or receiver of any such weapon; any firearm muffler or firearm silencer; or any destructive device. The term does not include an antique firearm.
</P>
<P><I>Flight safety critical air parts (FSCAP).</I> Any aircraft part, assembly, or installation containing a critical characteristic whose failure, malfunction, or absence could cause a catastrophic failure resulting in loss or serious damage to the aircraft or an uncommanded engine shutdown, resulting in an unsafe condition.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign purchased property.</I> Property paid for by foreign countries, but where ownership is retained by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Friendly foreign government.</I> For purposes of trade security controls (TSC), governments of countries other than those designated as restricted parties.
</P>
<P><I>Generating activity (“generator”).</I> The activity that declares personal property excess to its needs, <I>e.g.</I> DoD installations, activities, contractors, or FCAs.
</P>
<P><I>Government-furnished material (GFM).</I> Property provided by the U.S. Government for the purpose of being incorporated into or attached to a deliverable end item or that will be consumed or expended in performing a contract. Government-furnished materiel includes assemblies, components, parts, raw and process material, and small tools and supplies that may be consumed in normal use in performing a contract. Government-furnished materiel does not include material provided to contractors on a cash-sale basis nor does it include military property, which are government-owned components, contractor acquired property (as specified in the contract), government furnished equipment, or major end items being repaired by commercial contractors for return to the government.
</P>
<P><I>GSAXcess®.</I> A totally web-enabled platform that eligible customers use to access functions of GSAXcess® for reporting, searching, and selecting property. This includes the entry site for the Federal Excess Personal Property Utilization Program and the Federal Surplus Personal Property Donation Program operated by the GSA.
</P>
<P><I>Historical artifact.</I> Items (including books, manuscripts, works of art, drawings, plans, and models) identified by a museum director or curator as significant to the history of that department, acquired from approved sources, and suitable for display in a military museum. Generally, such determinations are based on the item's association with an important person, event, or place; because of traditional association with an important person, event, or place; because of traditional association with a military organization; or because it is a representative example of military equipment or represents a significant technological contribution to military science or equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous material (HM).</I> (1) In the United States, any material that is capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property during transportation. All HM appears in the HM Table at 49 CFR 172.101.
</P>
<P>(2) Overseas, HM is defined in the applicable final governing standards or overseas environmental baseline guidance document, or host nation laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous property (HP).</I> (1) A composite term used to describe DoD excess property, surplus property, and FEPP, which may be hazardous to human health, human safety, or the environment. Various Federal, State, and local safety and environmental laws regulate the use and disposal of hazardous property.
</P>
<P>(2) In more technical terms, HP includes property having one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a flashpoint below 200 degrees Fahrenheit (93 degrees Celsius) closed cup, or is subject to spontaneous heating or is subject to polymerization with release of large amounts of energy when handled, stored, and shipped without adequate control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a threshold limit value equal to or below 1,000 parts per million (ppm) for gases and vapors, below 500 milligram per cubic meter (mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) for fumes, and equal to or less than 30 million particles per cubic foot (mppcf) or 10 mg/m
<SU>3</SU> for dusts (less than or equal to 2.0 fibers/cc greater than 5 micrometers in length for fibrous materials).
</P>
<P>(iii) Causes 50 percent fatalities to test animals when a single oral dose is administered in doses of less than 500 mg per kilogram of test animal weight.
</P>
<P>(iv) Is a flammable solid as defined in 49 CFR 173.124, or is an oxidizer as defined in 49 CFR 173.127, or is a strong oxidizing or reducing agent with a half cell potential in acid solution of greater than +1.0 volt as specified in Latimer's table on the oxidation-reduction potential.
</P>
<P>(v) Causes first-degree burns to skin in short-time exposure, or is systematically toxic by skin contact.
</P>
<P>(vi) May produce dust, gases, fumes, vapors, mists, or smoke with one or more of the above characteristics in the course of normal operations.
</P>
<P>(vii) Produces sensitizing or irritating effects.
</P>
<P>(viii) Is radioactive.
</P>
<P>(ix) Has special characteristics which, in the opinion of the manufacturer, could cause harm to personnel if used or stored improperly.
</P>
<P>(x) Is hazardous in accordance with Occupational Health and Safety Administration, 29 CFR part 1910.
</P>
<P>(xi) Is hazardous in accordance with 29 CFR part 1910.
</P>
<P>(xii) Is regulated by the EPA in accordance with 40 CFR parts 260 through 280.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste (HW).</I> An item that is regulated pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6901 or by State regulation as an HW. HW is defined federally at 40 CFR part 261. Overseas, HW is defined in the applicable final governing standards or overseas environmental baseline guidance document, or host nation laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Holding agency.</I> The Federal agency that is accountable for, and generally has possession of, the property involved.
</P>
<P><I>Hold harmless.</I> A promise to pay any costs or claims which may result from an agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Information technology.</I> Any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission or reception of data or information by the DoD Component. Includes computers, ancillary equipment, software, firmware, and similar procedures, services (including support services), and related sources. Does not include any equipment that is acquired by a Federal contractor incidental to a Federal contract. Equipment is “used” by a DoD Component if the equipment is used by the DoD Component directly or is used by a contractor under a contract with the DoD Component that:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires the use of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the use to a significant extent of such equipment in the performance of a service or the furnishing of a product.
</P>
<P><I>Installation.</I> A military facility together with its buildings, building equipment, and subsidiary facilities such as piers, spurs, access roads, and beacons.
</P>
<P><I>International organizations.</I> For TSC purposes, this term includes: Columbo Plan Council for Technical Cooperation in South and Southeast Asia; European Atomic Energy Community; Indus Basin Development; International Atomic Energy; International Red Cross; NATO; Organization of American States; Pan American Health Organization; United Nations; UN Children's Fund; UN Development Program; UN Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization; UN High Commissioner for Refugees Programs; UN Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East; World Health Organization; and other international organizations approved by a U.S. diplomatic mission.
</P>
<P><I>Interrogation.</I> A communication between two or more ICPs, other DoD activities, and U.S. Government agencies to determine the current availability of an item or suitable substitute for a needed item before procurement or repair.
</P>
<P><I>Interservice.</I> Action by one Military Department or Defense Agency ICP to provide materiel and directly related services to another Military Department or Defense Agency ICP (either on a recurring or nonrecurring basis).
</P>
<P><I>Inventory adjustments.</I> Changes made in inventory quantities and values resulting from inventory recounts and validations.
</P>
<P><I>Inventory control point (ICP).</I> An organizational unit or activity within the DoD supply system that is assigned the primary responsibility for the materiel management of a group of items either for a particular Military Department or for the DoD as a whole. In addition to materiel manager functions, an ICP may perform other logistics functions in support of a particular Military Department or for a particular end item (<I>e.g.,</I> centralized computation of retail requirements levels and engineering tasks associated with weapon system components).
</P>
<P><I>Item unique identification (IUID).</I> A system of establishing globally widespread unique identifiers on items of supply within the DoD, which serves to distinguish a discrete entity or relationship from other like and unlike entities or relationships. AIT is used to capture and communicate IUID information.
</P>
<P><I>Line item.</I> A single line entry on a reporting form or sale document that indicates a quantity of property located at any one activity having the same description, condition code, and unit cost.
</P>
<P><I>Line item value</I> (for reporting and other accounting and approval purposes). Quantity of a line item multiplied by the standard price.
</P>
<P><I>Marketing.</I> The function of directing the flow of surplus and FEPP to the buyer, encompassing all related aspects of merchandising, market research, sale promotion, advertising, publicity, and selling.
</P>
<P><I>Material potentially presenting an explosive hazard (MPPEH).</I> Material owned or controlled by the Department of Defense that, prior to determination of its explosives safety status, potentially contains explosives or munitions (<I>e.g.,</I> munitions containers and packaging material; munitions debris remaining after munitions use, demilitarization, or disposal; and range-related debris) or potentially contains a high enough concentration of explosives that the material presents an explosive hazard (<I>e.g.,</I> equipment, drainage systems, holding tanks, piping, or ventilation ducts that were associated with munitions production, demilitarization, or disposal operations). Excluded from MPPEH are munitions within the DoD-established munitions management system and other items that may present explosion hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> gasoline cans and compressed gas cylinders) that are not munitions and are not intended for use as munitions.
</P>
<P><I>Metalworking machinery.</I> A category of plant equipment consisting of power driven nonportable machines in Federal Supply Classification Code (four digits) (FSC) 3411 through 3419 and 3441 through 3449, which are used or capable of use in the manufacture of supplies or equipment, or in the performance of services, or for any administrative or general plant purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Munitions list items (MLI).</I> Any item contained on the U.S. Munitions List (USML) in 22 CFR part 121. Defense articles, associated technical data (including software), and defense services recorded or stored in any physical form, controlled for export and permanent import by 22 CFR parts 120 through 130. 22 CFR part 121, which contains the USML, is administered by the DoS Directorate of Defense Trade Controls.
</P>
<P><I>Museum, DoD or Service.</I> An appropriated fund entity that is a permanent activity with a historical collection, open to both the military and civilian public at regularly scheduled hours, and is in the care of a professional qualified staff that performs curatorial and related historical duties full time.
</P>
<P><I>Mutilation.</I> A process that renders materiel unfit for its originally intended purposes by cutting, tearing, scratching, crushing, breaking, punching, shearing, burning, neutralizing, etc.
</P>
<P><I>NAF property.</I> Property purchased with NAFs, by religious activities or nonappropriated morale welfare or recreational activities, post exchanges, ships stores, officer and noncommissioned officer clubs, and similar activities. Such property is not Federal property.
</P>
<P><I>Narcotics.</I> See controlled substances.
</P>
<P><I>National stock number (NSN).</I> The 13-digit stock number replacing the 11-digit federal stock number. It consists of the 4-digit federal supply classification code and the 9-digit national item identification number. The national item identification number consists of a 2-digit National Codification Bureau number designating the central cataloging office (whether North Atlantic Treaty Organization or other friendly country) that assigned the number and a 7-digit (xxx-xxxx) nonsignificant number. Arrange the number as follows: 9999-00-999-9999.
</P>
<P><I>Nonappropriated fund (NAF).</I> Funds generated by DoD military and civilian personnel and their dependents and used to augment funds appropriated by Congress to provide a comprehensive, morale building, welfare, religious, educational, and recreational program, designed to improve the well-being of military and civilian personnel and their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit institution.</I> An institution or organization, no part of the net earnings of which inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and which has been held to be tax exempt under the provisions of 26 U.S.C. 501, also known as the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P><I>Nonsalable materiel.</I> Materiel that has no reutilization, transfer, donation, or sale value as determined by the DLA Disposition Services site, but is not otherwise restricted from disposal by U.S. law or Federal or military regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Obsolete combat materiel.</I> Military equipment once used in a primarily combat role that has been phased out of operational use; if replaced, the replacement items are of a more current design or capability.
</P>
<P><I>Ordnance.</I> Explosives, chemicals, pyrotechnics, and similar stores, <I>e.g.,</I> bombs, guns and ammunition, flares, smoke, or napalm.
</P>
<P><I>ppm.</I> Unit of concentration by volume of a specific substance.
</P>
<P><I>Personal property.</I> Property except real property. Excludes records of the Federal Government, battleships, cruisers, aircraft carriers, destroyers, and submarines.
</P>
<P><I>Pilferable materiel.</I> Materiel having a ready resale value or application to personal possession, which is especially subject to theft.
</P>
<P><I>Plant equipment.</I> Personal property of a capital nature (including equipment, machine tools, test equipment, furniture, vehicles, and accessory and auxiliary items) for use in manufacturing supplies, in performing services, or for any administrative or general plant purpose. It does not include special tooling or special test equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Precious metals.</I> Gold, silver, and the platinum group metals (platinum, palladium, iridium, rhodium, osmium, and ruthenium).
</P>
<P><I>Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP).</I> A DoD program for identification, accumulation, recovery, and refinement of precious metals from excess and surplus end items, scrap, hypo solution, and other precious metal bearing materiel for authorized internal purposes or as GFM.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-receipt.</I> Documentation processed prior to physically transferring or turning the property into a DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act property.</I> Any document or other information about an individual maintained by the agency, whether collected or grouped, including but not limited to, information regarding education, financial transactions, medical history, criminal or employment history, or other personal information containing the name or other personal identification number, symbol, etc., assigned to such individual.
</P>
<P><I>Privately owned personal property.</I> Personal effects of DoD personnel (military or civilian) that are not, nor will ever become, Government property unless the owner (or heirs, next of kin, or legal representative of the owner) executes a written and signed release document unconditionally giving the U.S. Government all right, title, and interest in the privately owned property.
</P>
<P><I>Public agency.</I> Any State, political subdivision thereof, including any unit of local government or economic development district; or any department, agency, instrumentality thereof, including instrumentalities created by compact or other agreement between States or political subdivisions, multi-jurisdictional substate districts established by or under State law; or any Indian tribe, band, group, pueblo, or community located on a State reservation. (See § 273.8 regarding donations made through State agencies.)
</P>
<P><I>Qualified recycling programs (QRP).</I> Organized operations that require concerted efforts to cost effectively divert or recover scrap or waste, as well as efforts to identify, segregate, and maintain the integrity of recyclable materiel to maintain or enhance its marketability. If administered by a DoD Component other than DLA, a QRP includes adherence to a control process providing accountability for all materials processed through program operations.
</P>
<P><I>Reclamation.</I> A cost avoidance or savings measure to recover useful (serviceable) end items, repair parts, components, or assemblies from one or more principal end items of equipment or assemblies (usually supply condition codes (SCCs) listed in DLM 4000.25-2 as SCC H for unserviceable (condemned) materiel, SCC P for unserviceable (reclamation) materiel, and SCC R for suspended (reclaimed items, awaiting condition determination) materiel) for the purpose of restoration to use through replacement or repair of one or more unserviceable, but repairable principal end items of equipment or assemblies (usually SCCs listed in DLM 4000.25-2 as SCC E for unserviceable (limited restoration) materiel, SCC F for unserviceable (reparable) materiel, and SCC G for unserviceable (incomplete) materiel). Reclamation is preferable prior to disposition (<I>e.g.,</I> DLA Disposition Services site turn-in), but end items or assemblies may be withdrawn from DLA Disposition Services sites for such reclamation purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted parties.</I> Those countries or entities that the Department of State (DoS), DOC, or Treasury have determined to be prohibited or sanctioned for the purpose of export, sale, transfer, or resale of items controlled on the United States Munitions List (USML) or Commerce Control List. A consolidated list of prohibited entities or destinations for which transfers may be limited or barred, may be found at: <I>http://export.gov/ecr/eg_main_023148.asp.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Reutilization.</I> The act of re-issuing FEPP and excess property to DoD Components. Also includes qualified special programs (<I>e.g.,</I> Law Enforcement Agency (LEA), Humanitarian Assistance Program, Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)) pursuant to applicable enabling statutes.
</P>
<P><I>Salvage.</I> Personal property that has some value in excess of its basic material content, but is in such condition that it has no reasonable prospect of use as a unit for the purpose for which it was originally intended, and its repair or rehabilitation for use as a unit is impracticable.
</P>
<P><I>Scrap.</I> Recyclable waste and discarded materials derived from items that have been rendered useless beyond repair, rehabilitation, or restoration such that the item's original identity, utility, form, fit and function have been destroyed. Items can be classified as scrap if processed by cutting, tearing, crushing, mangling, shredding, or melting. Intact or recognizable USML or CCL items, components, and parts are not scrap. 41 CFR 102-36.40 and 15 CFR 770.2 provide additional information on scrap.
</P>
<P><I>Screening.</I> The process of physically inspecting property or reviewing lists or reports of property to determine whether it is usable or needed.
</P>
<P><I>Sensitive items.</I> Materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations, such as narcotics and drug abuse items; precious metals; items of high value; items that are highly technical, or of a hazardous nature; non-nuclear missiles, rockets, and explosives; small arms, ammunition and explosives, and demolition material.
</P>
<P><I>Service educational activity (SEA).</I> Any educational activity that meets specified criteria and is formally designated by the Department of Defense as being of special interest to the Military Services. Includes educational activities such as maritime academies or military, naval, or Air Force preparatory schools, junior colleges, and institutes; senior high school-hosted Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps; and nationally organized youth groups. The primary purpose of such entities is to offer courses of instruction devoted to the military arts and sciences.
</P>
<P><I>Small arms/light weapons.</I> Man-portable weapons made or modified to military specifications for use as lethal instruments of war that expel a shot, bullet, or projectile by action of an explosive. Small arms are broadly categorized as those weapons intended for use by individual members of armed or security forces. They include handguns; rifles and carbines; sub-machine guns; and light machine guns. Light weapons are broadly categorized as those weapons designed for use by two or three members of armed or security forces serving as a crew, although some may be used by a single person. They include heavy machine guns; hand-held under-barrel and mounted grenade launchers; portable anti-aircraft guns; portable anti-tank guns; recoilless rifles; man-portable launchers of missile and rocket systems; and mortars.
</P>
<P><I>Standard price.</I> The price customers are charged for a DoD managed item (excluding subsistence), which remains constant throughout a fiscal year. The standard price is based on various factors which include the latest acquisition price of the item plus surcharges or cost recovery elements for transportation, inventory loss, obsolescence, maintenance, depreciation, and supply operations.
</P>
<P><I>State agencies for surplus property (SASP).</I> The agency designated under State law to receive Federal surplus personal property for distribution to eligible donation recipients within the States as provided for in 40 U.S.C. 549.
</P>
<P><I>State or local government.</I> A State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, Puerto Rico, Commonwealth of Northern Mariana Islands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and any political subdivision or instrumentality thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Supply condition codes (SCC).</I> Code used to classify materiel in terms of readiness for issue and use or to identify action underway to change the status of materiel. These codes are assigned by the Military Departments or Defense Agencies. DLA Disposition Services may change a SCC if there is an appearance of an improperly assigned code and the property is of a non-technical nature. If change is not appropriate or property is of a technical nature, DLA Disposition Services sites may challenge a suspicious SCC.
</P>
<P><I>Surplus personal property.</I> Excess personal property no longer required by the Federal agencies, as determined by the Administrator of General Services. Applies to surplus personal property in the United States, American Samoa, Guam, Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Trade security controls (TSC).</I> Policy and procedures, in accordance with DoD Instruction 2030.08, designed to prevent the sale or shipment of USG materiel to any person, organization, or country whose interests are unfriendly or hostile to those of the United States and to ensure that the disposal of DoD personal property is performed in compliance with U.S. export control laws and regulations, the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) in 22 CFR parts 120 through 130, and the EAR in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer.</I> The act of providing FEPP and excess personal property to Federal civilian agencies (FCAs) as stipulated in the FMR. Property is allocated by the GSA. When a line item is less than $10,000, an FCA may coordinate allocation to another FCA directly.
</P>
<P><I>Trash.</I> Post-consumer refuse, waste and food by-products such as litter, rubbish, cooked grease, bones, fats, and meat trimmings.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).</I> System to ensure that requirements are processed in accordance with the mission of the requiring activity and the urgency of need, and to establish maximum uniform order and materiel movement standard.
</P>
<P><I>Unique item identifier (UII).</I> A set of data elements marked on an item that is globally unique and unambiguous. The term includes a concatenated UII or a DoD-recognized unique identification equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Unsalable materiel.</I> Materiel for which sale or other disposal is prohibited by U.S. law or Federal or military regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Usable property.</I> Commercial and military type property other than scrap and waste.
</P>
<P><I>Veterans' organization.</I> An organization composed of honorably discharged soldiers, sailors, airmen, and marines, which is established as a veterans' organization and recognized as such by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs.
</P>
<P><I>Zone of interior (ZI).</I> The United States and its territories and possessions, applicable to areas covered by GSA and where excess property is considered domestic excess. Includes the 50 States, District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy consistent with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 that excess DoD property must be screened and redistributed among the DoD Components, and reported as excess to the GSA. Pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 701, DoD will efficiently and economically dispose DoD FEPP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(AT&amp;L), and in accordance with DoD Directive 5134.12:
</P>
<P>(1) Develops DoD materiel disposition policies, including policies for FEPP.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversees the effective implementation of the DoD materiel disposition program.
</P>
<P>(3) Approves policy changes as appropriate to support contingency operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Approves national organizations for special interest consideration as SEAs, and approve categories of property considered appropriate, usable, and necessary for transfer to SEAs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR)), and in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides agency-level command and control and administers the worldwide Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(2) Implements guidance issued by the ASD(L&amp;MR) or other organizational elements of the OSD and establishes system concepts and requirements, resource management, program guidance, budgeting and funding, training and career development, management review and analysis, internal control measures, and crime prevention for the Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Chairs the Disposal Policy Working Group (DPWG).
</P>
<P>(4) Provides direction to the DLA Disposition Services on implementing the worldwide defense materiel disposition program.
</P>
<P>(5) Provides direction to the DLA inventory control points (ICPs) on the cataloging of items in the Federal Logistics Information System (FLIS) as outlined in DoD 4100.39-M, “Federal Logistics Information System (FLIS) Procedures Manual-Glossary and Volumes 1-16” (available at <I>whs/directives/corres/html/410039m.html</I>). This is done to prevent the unauthorized disposition or release of items within DoD, other federal civilian agencies, or release into commerce.
</P>
<P>(6) Promotes maximum reuse of FEPP, excess, and surplus property. Pursues all possible avenues to sponsor or endorse reuse of excess DoD property and preclude unnecessary purchases.
</P>
<P>(7) Directs the DLA Disposition Services communications with the DoD Components regarding changes in service delivery processes or plans that will affect disposal support provided. In overseas locations, these communications will include geographic Combatant Commanders, U.S. Chiefs of Mission, and the in-country security assistance offices.
</P>
<P>(8) Accommodates contingency operation requirements. Directs the DLA support team to determine any needed deviations from standard disposal processing guidance and communicates approved temporary changes to the Military Departments and DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(9) Ensures maximum compatibility between documentation, procedures, codes, and formats used in materiel disposition systems and the Military Departments' supply systems.
</P>
<P>(10) Programs, budgets, funds, accounts, allocates and controls personnel, spaces, and other resources for its respective activities.
</P>
<P>(11) Annually provides to GSA a report of property transferred to non-federal recipients in accordance with 41 CFR 102-36.295.
</P>
<P>(12) Assumes the worldwide disposal of all DoD HP except for those categories specifically designated to remain the responsibility of the Military Department or Defense Agency as described in DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensures property disposal training courses are available (<I>e.g.</I>, at DLA Training Center) for all personnel associated with the disposal program.
</P>
<P>(14) Ensures DLA Disposition Services follows the DoD disposal hierarchy with landfill disposal as a last resort.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD Components Heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Recommend Defense Materiel Disposition Program policy changes to the ASD(L&amp;MR).
</P>
<P>(2) Recommend Defense Materiel Disposition Program procedural changes to the Director, DLA, and provide information copies to the ASD(L&amp;MR).
</P>
<P>(3) Assist the Director, DLA, upon request, to resolve matters of mutual concern.
</P>
<P>(4) Treat the disposal of DoD property as an integral part of DoD Supply Chain Management; ensure that disposal actions and costs are a part of each stage of the supply chain management of items and that disposal of property is a planned event at all levels of their organizations.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the Director, DLA, with mutually agreed-upon data necessary to administer the Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(6) Participate in the DoD PMRP and promote maximum reutilization of FEPP, excess, and surplus property and fine precious metals for internal use or as GFM.
</P>
<P>(7) Nominate to the ASD(L&amp;MR) national organizations for special interest consideration as SEAs; approve schools (non-national organizations) as SEAs; and recommend to the ASD(L&amp;MR) categories of property considered appropriate, usable, and necessary for transfer to SEAs.
</P>
<P>(8) Provide administrative and logistics support, including appropriate facilities, for the operations of tenant and related off-site DLA Disposition Services field activities under inter-Service support agreements (ISSAs).
</P>
<P>(9) For property not explicitly identified in this part, follow Service-unique regulations to dispose of and maintain accountability of property. Ensure all accountable records associated with the disposal of FEPP, excess, and surplus property are established and updated to reflect supply status and ensure audit ability in accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.64, “Accountability and Management of DoD Equipment and Other Accountable Property” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/500064p.pdf</I>). This requirement also applies to modified processes that may be developed for contingency operations.
</P>
<P>(10) Ensure completion of property disposition (reutilization and marketing) training courses, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) Administer reclamation programs and accomplish reclamation from excess materiel.
</P>
<P>(12) Establish and administer disposal accounts, as jointly agreed to by DLA and the Military Departments, to support the demilitarization (DEMIL) and reclamation functions performed by the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(13) Dispose of surplus merchant vessels or vessels of 1,500 gross tons or more, capable of conversion to merchant use, through the Federal Maritime Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, by forwarding a “Report of Excess Personal Property” Standard Form 120 to GSA, in accordance with the procedures in 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102. For vessels explicitly excluded by 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102, follow procedures in DoD 4160.28-M, Volumes 1-3, “Defense Demilitarization: Program Administration, Demilitarization Coding, Procedural Guidance” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/416028m_vol1.pdf</I>, <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/416028m_vol2.pdf</I>, <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/416028m_vol3.pdf</I>), <I>i.e.</I>, battleships, cruisers, aircraft carriers, destroyers, or submarines.
</P>
<P>(14) Dispose of HP specifically designated as requiring DoD Component processing.
</P>
<P>(15) Request DLA Disposition Services provide sales services, as needed, for recyclable marketable materials generated as a result of resource recovery programs through the DoD Component QRP in accordance with the procedures in § 273.7.
</P>
<P>(16) Consider public donation if applicable before landfill disposal and monitor, with DLA Disposition Services Site personnel, all property sent to landfills to ensure no economically salable or recyclable property is discarded.
</P>
<P>(17) Report, accurately identify on approved turn in documents, and turn in all authorized scrap generations to servicing DLA Disposition Services sites.
</P>
<P>(18) Update the DoD IUID Registry upon the materiel disposition of uniquely identified items in accordance with the procedures in § 273.9.
</P>
<P>(19) Improve disposal policies, training, and procedural implementation among the DoD Components and Federal civilian agencies through membership on the DPWG.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.6   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal property disposition.</I> The general guidelines and procedures for property disposition are:
</P>
<P>(1) 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 implements 40 U.S.C. subtitle I and section 101 which established the Personal Property Disposition Program. 41 CFR chapter 101 and other laws and regulations apply to the disposition of FEPP, excess, and surplus property. In the event of conflicting guidance, 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 takes precedence. 41 CFR chapter 102 is the successor regulation to 41 CFR chapter 101, the “Federal Property Management Regulation”. It updates regulatory policies of 41 CFR chapter 101.
</P>
<P>(2) All references to “days” are calendar days unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of Defense provides guidance for budgeting for the disposal of excess, surplus, and FEPP property through DoD 7000.14-R, “Department of Defense Financial Management Regulations (FMRs): Volume 12, `Special Accounts Funds and Programs'; Chapter 7, `Financial Liability for Government Property Lost, Damaged, Destroyed, or Stolen' ” (<I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/Portals/45/documents/fmr/Volume_12.pdf</I>), with updates via program budget decisions. The Service level billing is based on the services turn-in percentage of the Disposition Services workload. As an example, if the Army constitutes 40 percent of the workload the Army will pay 40 percent of the Disposition Services Service-level bill.
</P>
<P>(i) Billings are addressed to each Military Department, Defense Agency, and FCA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Billing for disposition of excess property depends on decisions made between DLA and the customer: the Military Department, Defense Agency, those sponsoring DoD-related organizations (<I>e.g.</I>, Civil Air Patrol, MARS) or FCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and relevancy.</I> (1) In conjunction with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, the provisions of this part apply to service providers, whether they are working at a government facility or at a commercial site, and to contractors to the extent it is stipulated in the performance work statement of the contracts. DoD 4160.28-M and 10 U.S.C. 2576 contain additional specific guidance for property identified as MLI or CCL items.
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures in this subpart will be used to the extent possible in all contingency operations. As appropriate, the ASD(L&amp;MR) will modify policy guidance to support the mission requirements and operational tempo of contingency operations.
</P>
<P>(3) This subpart does not govern the disposal of the property described in paragraphs (b)(3)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section. However, once property in these categories has been altered to remove the inherently sensitive characteristics, it may be processed through a DLA Disposition Services site using an appropriate FSC code for the remaining components.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Items under management control of the Defense Threat Reduction Agency in Federal Supply Group (FSG) 11.</I> These items include Department of Energy special design and quality controlled items and all DoD items designed specifically for use on or with nuclear weapons. These items are identified by manufacturers' codes 57991, 67991, 77991, and 87991 in the DLA Logistics Information Service FLIS. These items will be processed in accordance with Air Force Instruction 21-204, “Nuclear Weapons Maintenance Procedures” (available at <I>http://static.e-publishing.af.mil/production/1/af_a4_7/publication/afi21-204/afi21-204.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cryptologic and cryptographic materiel.</I> This materiel must be processed in accordance with Committee on National Security Systems Instruction 4008, “Program for the Management and Use of National Reserve Information Assurance Security Equipment” (available at <I>https://www.cnss.gov/Assets/pdf/CNSSI-4008.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Naval Nuclear Propulsion Plant materiel.</I> This materiel must be processed in accordance with Office of the Chief of Naval Operations Instruction (OPNAVINST) N9210.3, “Safeguarding of Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information (NNPI)” (available at <I>http://doni.daps.dla.mil/Directives/09000%20General%20Ship%20Design%20and%20Support/09-200%20Propulsion%20Plants%20Support/N9210.3%20(Unclas%20Portion).pdf</I> and 45 Manual NAVSEA S9213-45-Man-000, “Naval Nuclear Material Management Manual.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Objectives.</I> The objectives of the Defense Materiel Disposition Program are to:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide standardized disposition management guidance for DoD excess property and FEPP (including scrap) and HP, by using efficient internal and external processes. The expected outcome includes protecting national security interests, minimizing environmental mishaps, satisfying valid needs by extended use of property, permitting authorized donations, obtaining optimum monetary return to the U.S. Government, and minimizing abandonment or destruction (A/D) of property.
</P>
<P>(2) Migrate from legacy transactions with 80 record position formats applicable to military standard system procedures (<I>e.g.</I>, Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25-1, “Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)” (available at 
</P>
<FP><I>http://www2.dla.mil/j-6/dlmso/elibrary/Manuals/DLM/MILSTRIP/MILSTRIP.pdf</I>) and DLM 4000.25-2, “Military Standard Transaction Reporting and Accounting Procedures (MILSTRAP)” (available at <I>http://www2.dla.mil/j-6/dlmso/elibrary/Manuals/DLM/MILSTRAP/MILSTRAP.pdf</I>) to variable length DLMS transactions as described in DLM 4000.25, “Defense Logistics Management System (DLMS)” (available at
</FP>
<FP><I>http://www2.dla.mil/j-6/dlmso/elibrary/Manuals/DLM/DLM_4000.25_DLMS_Manual_Combined.pdf</I>) (American National Standards Institute Accredited Standards Committee (ANSI ASC) X12 or equivalent XML schema) to track items throughout the supply chain life cycle. Implementation must be consistent with DoD Directive 8320.02, “Data Sharing in a Net Centric Department of Defense” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/832002p.pdf</I>).
</FP>
<P>(3) Ensure cost-effective disposal of precious metals bearing scrap and end items for the replenishment of valuable resources through the DoD PMRP.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure personal property and related subcomponents are not declared excess and disposed of prior to determining the need for economic recovery.
</P>
<P>(5) Encourage Military Departments and Defense Agencies to:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the spirit and intent of Executive Order 12862, “Setting Customer Service Standards.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Set results-oriented goals, such as delivering customer value that results in improvement of overall Military Department performance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Serve the tax payer's interests by ensuring tax money is used wisely and by being responsive and reliable in all dealings with the public.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign liaison.</I> (1) Authority for granting visits by foreign nationals representing foreign governments rests with the International Programs Division (J-347) at DLA. Prospective official foreign visitors should submit requests 30 days in advance through their embassy in accordance with procedures in DoD Directive 5230.20, “Visits and Assignments of Foreign Nationals” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/523020p.pdf</I>). These requests may require a security clearance from the host Military Department. DLA processes the requests, and will provide written authority to primary-level field activity commanders or DLA Disposition Services site chiefs. Unclassified visits by foreign nationals can be approved for inspections prior to acquiring property through security assistance programs or other programs authorized by statute.
</P>
<P>(2) A commander of a DoD activity may authorize foreign nationals and representatives of foreign governments or international organizations to visit a DLA Disposition Services site, except for those foreign nationals and representatives from foreign countries designated as restricted parties in the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) in 22 CFR parts 120 through 130 and the EAR in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774.
</P>
<P>(3) Visits by foreign nationals for public sales will be at the discretion of the host installation commander in accordance with U.S. export control laws and regulations, the ITAR in 22 CFR parts 120 through 130 and the EAR in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774.
</P>
<P>(4) All requests for unclassified information, not previously approved for public release will be referred to the appropriate public affairs office. This includes requests submitted by representatives of foreign governments or representatives of international organizations.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests from foreign nationals or representatives from foreign governments of restricted parties will be referred to the appropriate security office.
</P>
<P>(6) Release of MLI technical data or CCL items technology will be in accordance with DoD 4100.39-M, DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, 10 U.S.C. 2576, 22 CFR parts 120 to 130, and 15 CFR parts 730 to 774, DoD Instruction 2040.02, and DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> Personnel with Materiel Disposition Program responsibilities (DLA Disposition Services employees, ICP integrated materiel managers (IMMs), Reservists, etc.) as well as those DoD-related and non-DoD organizations disposing of excess, surplus, FEPP, and scrap through the Department of Defense, require applicable training in defense materiel disposition policies, procedures, and related technical areas such as safety, environmental protection, DEMIL, TSC, accounting and accountability, administration, or management of those activities. Required training will be accomplished according to DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 and DoD Instruction 2030.08, and applicable DoD, DLA, and Military Department training issuances. In addition to formal training, the DLA Disposition Services Web site (<I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil</I>) provides guidance on various topics related to materiel disposition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DoD Components.</I> The DoD Components:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide administrative and logistics support, including appropriate facilities for the segregation of material according to the established ISSAs.
</P>
<P>(i) Establish disposal facilities at suitable locations, separate from host installation active stocks. These areas should permit proper materiel segregation and be convenient to road networks and railroad sidings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approve all facility improvement projects. Identify in the ISSA reimbursable and non-reimbursable host maintenance and repair support, not exceeding that prescribed by regulations of the host activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fence or otherwise protect the disposal yard to ensure that materiel is safeguarded against theft or pilferage. Security matters identified in ISSAs are covered by security regulations of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide information security support to DLA Disposition Services field activities through ISSAs, including the retrieval, secure storage, and subsequent determination of the appropriate disposition of classified property found in disposal assets.
</P>
<P>(2) Properly containerize and ensure all property turned in to DLA Disposition Services sites is safe to handle and non-leaking to ensure environmental compliance during transport to the DLA Disposition Services site and storage during the disposal process. Drain all fluids from unserviceable vehicles prior to release to disposal and treat fluids according to environmental requirements in accordance with the procedures in Enclosure 3 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4, “Defense Materiel Disposition Manual: Instructions for Hazardous Property and Other Special Processing Materiel”.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure HW storage facilities meet all applicable environmental standards and requirements, including 40 CFR parts 262, 264, and 265.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide funds for disposal of HP failing reutilization, transfer, donation or sale (RTDS), or if the HP is not eligible for RTDS, that it is disposed of on a DLA disposal service contract. Funding for disposal by the Military Department or Defense Agency also applies in instances when non-regulated waste requires special handling for disposal via disposal service contract, or when special services are requested on the disposal service contract.
</P>
<P>(5) Comply with the Defense DEMIL Program in accordance with DoD Instruction 4160.28 and DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3.
</P>
<P>(i) Provide proper instructions for DEMIL “F” property to the DLA Disposition Services site at the time of physical turn-in or immediately following electronic turn-in in accordance with procedures in Enclosure 5 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2 and Enclosure 3 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4 and the procedures on the Army's Integrated Logistics Support Center Web site <I>https://tulsa.tacom.army.mil/DEMIL.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Ship small arms serialized weapons and serialized parts to the Anniston, Alabama, DEMIL Center, as identified on the DLA Disposition Services Web site (<I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil</I>). Contact the Anniston center for shipment instructions. All activities generating serialized weapons and serialized weapons parts must report a “ship” transaction, using the appropriate DLA Disposition Services DEMIL Center DoDAAC, to the DoD Small Arms/Light Weapons Serialization Program registry.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement DoD QRP, as directed by DoD Instruction 4715.4, “Pollution Prevention” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/471504p.pdf</I>). Establish QRPs to cost effectively divert or recover scrap or waste from the waste streams, as well as to identify, collect, properly segregate and maintain the integrity of recyclable materials in a way that will maintain or enhance their marketability. Indicate on the turn-in documents that QRP material is identified as such with funds to be deposited to the appropriate budget clearing account.
</P>
<P>(7) Implement TSC measures in accordance with DoD Instruction 2030.08 for USML and CCL items and comply with applicable export control regulations and laws.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>DLA Disposition Services.</I> The DLA Disposition Services will:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide Military Departments and Defense Agencies with disposition solutions and best value support for the efficient and timely RTDS or disposal of excess, surplus, and FEPP property. This includes all required training and guidance on programs affecting disposition practices.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide visibility and promote maximum reuse of DLA Disposition Services-managed inventory assets. Implement transfer and donation policies and procedures consistent with GSA regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide tailored disposal support to the DoD warfighter during contingency operations, as approved by the ASD(L&amp;MR).
</P>
<P>(i) Work with the Military Departments to receive and dispose of property in the most efficient manner. If standard accountability practices are not practical, alternative processes may be established on a temporary basis. However, as time or conditions permit, prescribed processes will be established and appropriate additions, deletions, and adjustments to the official accountable record will be completed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide comprehensive disposal services supporting customer-unique needs based on mutually developed service agreements. DLA Disposition Services, along with DLA, will work with customers of all levels, <I>e.g.</I>, generators, major commands, and Services, to define expectations and establish service delivery strategies.
</P>
<P>(4) Use the most appropriate sales method to obtain optimum return on investment for all DoD surplus property sold. Respond to inquiries, process disputes, protests, and claims pertaining to disposable property sales.
</P>
<P>(5) Implement quality control programs for the Defense Materiel Disposition Program to assure optimum reutilization; proper DEMIL; use of environmentally sound disposal practices; implementation of TSC measures for MLI and CCL items.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement TSC in accordance with DoD Instruction 2030.08 for USML and CCL items and comply with applicable export control regulations and laws.
</P>
<P>(7) Monitor DLA Disposition Services site PMRP operations and provide support to DoD Components and participating federal agencies. Manage the recovery operations of the PMRP.
</P>
<P>(8) Prepare and distribute reports for disposition.
</P>
<P>(9) Serve as the office of primary responsibility for environmentally regulated and HP as detailed in DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4.
</P>
<P>(10) Comply with and implement the provisions of DoD Instruction 4160.28, DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, and DoD Instruction 2030.08 in the execution of DLA Disposition Services worldwide. Coordinate procedural waivers or deviations for approval by the DoD DEMIL Program Office or DoD TSC Office in DLA-HQ (J-334). Forward policy waivers or deviations from the DoD DEMIL Program Office or DoD TSC Office to the USD(AT&amp;L) or USD(P) respectively for approval.
</P>
<P>(11) Monitor property accountability and approve adjustments or corrections to property accounts for assigned DLA Disposition Services sites.
</P>
<P>(12) Comply with implementing guidance relative to relationships with Combatant Commanders as prescribed in DoD Directive 5105.22, “Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/510522p.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(13) Support disposal of Military Assistance Program property and other foreign-owned property in accordance with DoD 5105.38-M and § 273.7 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(14) Provide reutilization, donation, and marketing assistance and disposal service to customers.
</P>
<P>(15) Maintain liaison with generating activities to determine most efficient method of acceptance (receipt in place vs. physical turn-in), determine mutually agreed-upon schedules for property receipts, and execute memorandums of understanding (MOUs) for receipt-in-place transactions.
</P>
<P>(16) Process excess property, surplus property, FEPP, nonsalable materiel, and other authorized turn-ins from generating activities.
</P>
<P>(17) Inspect and accumulate physical receipts of property; verify identity, by UII or IUID when applicable, and quantity. DLA Disposition Services sites need not verify quantities where units of issues are: lot, assortment, board foot, cubic foot, foot, inch, length, meter, square foot, square yard, and yard. These units of issue are impractical and economically unfeasible.
</P>
<P>(18) Establish and maintain visibility of accountable property records for excess, surplus, and FEPP property.
</P>
<P>(19) Provide or arrange adequate covered storage to protect received property from the elements, maintain its value and condition, and reduce handling. Store property to prevent contamination or mixing, ensure proper identification and segregation (bins or areas are prominently marked, labeled, tagged, or otherwise readily identifiable with the property locator record), and allow inspection.
</P>
<P>(20) Fence or otherwise protect the disposal yard to ensure materiel is safeguarded against theft or pilferage. DLA Disposition Services are generally a tenant operation on a DoD installation that generates disposal property. The DLA Disposition Services must comply with the security matters identified in ISSAs established with the DoD Component regarding security regulations.
</P>
<P>(21) Provide HW storage, as appropriate. Ensure HW storage facilities meet all applicable environmental standards and requirements, including those specified in 40 CFR part 264.
</P>
<P>(22) Prepare ISSAs. Coordinate with the local installation to resolve matters of mutual concern.
</P>
<P>(23) Provide information and assistance to those who are processing precious metals-bearing property into DoD PMRP.
</P>
<P>(24) Ensure periodic inventories are conducted, accountable property records updated, and required inventory adjustment documents are prepared and processed.
</P>
<P>(25) Implement reutilization, transfer, or donation (RTD) of surplus property. Promote maximum RTD of FEPP, excess property, and surplus property. Process authorized RTD requests. Ensure accountable records are updated in accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.64.
</P>
<P>(26) Provide assistance to all authorized screeners, donees, and other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(27) Facilitate the sale of property not reutilized, transferred, or donated, and appropriate for release into commerce.
</P>
<P>(28) Deposit sale proceeds and other funds received, including storage charges and transfer monies to the appropriate accounts.
</P>
<P>(29) Manage the DoD scrap recycling program (including precious metals recovery) and related financial records.
</P>
<P>(30) Assist host installations in executing their QRPs in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2577 and deliver sales revenues from eligible personal property to defray the costs incurred by operating and improving recycling programs, financing pollution abatement and environmental programs, funding energy conservation improvements, improving occupational, safety, and health programs, and funding morale, welfare, and recreation programs.
</P>
<P>(31) Ensure DEMIL, including small arms serialized weapons and serialized parts is accomplished in accordance with DoD Instruction 4160.28 and DLA Disposition Services internal direction. Provide shipment locations and instructions to generating activities, as requested.
</P>
<P>(32) Document handling and receipt of serialized weapons in accordance with the procedures in Defense Logistics Agency Instruction (DLAI) 1104, “Control of Small Arms by Serial Number” (available at <I>http://www.dla.mil/issuances/Documents_1/i1104.pdf</I>) for the control of small arms by serial number.
</P>
<P>(33) Update the DoD IUID Registry upon the materiel disposition of uniquely identified items in accordance with the procedures in § 273.9.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>ICP Manager.</I> The ICP Manager is responsible for the materiel management of a group of items either for a particular Military Department or for the DoD as a whole. For the Defense Materiel Disposition Program, the ICP manager will:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure managed items are properly cataloged in the FLIS, in accordance with DoD 4100.39-M. To prevent unauthorized disposition or release within DoD, other Federal civilian agencies, or release into commerce, include required data elements such as UII (when applicable), accurate codes for DEMIL, controlled inventory items, precious metals, shelf life items, and critical items (critical safety items (CSI) or flight safety critical aircraft parts), or other applicable data elements.
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare complete instructions when property is assigned DEMIL Code “F,” in accordance with life-cycle management requirements in Enclosure 5 of DoD 4160.28-M Volume 2. Additionally, load the instruction in the DoD DEMIL “F” Instruction repository hosted by the Army's Integrated Logistics Support Center Web site at <I>https://tulsa.tacom.army.mil/</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) Review DLA Disposition Services assets and orders, as appropriate, prior to initiating new purchases.
</P>
<P>(4) Process other ICP interrogations or orders for requirements assigned a UMMIPS priority designator:
</P>
<P>(i) Falling within Issue Priority Group 1 (Priorities 01-03).
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with the procedures in DLM 4000.25-1.
</P>
<P>(iii) Considering on-hand assets to the same extent as would be done to satisfy their own service orders.
</P>
<P>(5) Prepare data, records for accountability, and provide disposition recommendations as prescribed here and in DoD Instruction 5000.64 in order to maintain backup material for audit review.
</P>
<P>(6) Annually provide DLA Disposition Services with updates to points of contact on the DoD DEMIL program Web site <I>https://demil.osd.mil/</I> for operational matters, such as reutilization, donation, DEMIL, precious metals, HP, and CSIs.
</P>
<P>(7) Arrange for DEMIL of those items not authorized for DLA Disposition Services site DEMIL processing.
</P>
<P>(8) Submit available technical data needed to prepare specialized offers and reclamation requirements, when requested.
</P>
<P>(9) Identify items requiring reclamation and advise Military Department and Defense Agency ICPs or IMMs of items with reclamation potential.
</P>
<P>(10) Prepare and forward reclamation transactions for the interservice interchange of data for component parts with reclamation potential.
</P>
<P>(11) Process reclamation notifications and data interchange transactions of other ICPs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.7   Excess DoD property and scrap disposal processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Military Departments and Defense Agencies will declare DoD property excess and use the DoD in-transit control system (ICS) as required by DoD Instruction 5000.64 and DLM 4000.25-2.
</P>
<P>(2) Generating activities are encouraged to retain physical custody until disposition instructions are provided to reduce processing costs; <I>e.g.</I>, packaging, crating, handling, and transportation (PCH&amp;T).
</P>
<P>(3) Disposal of wholesale excess DoD property CONUS stocks from DLA Depot recycling control points (RCPs) is automated. This property does not require transport to a DLA Disposition Services site. Authorized excess DoD property is transferred between the RCP account and the DLA Disposition Services account (SC4402). The following FSGs, FSCs, SCCs, and DEMIL codes are ineligible for RCP:
</P>
<P>(i) FSGs: 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 18, 26, 68, 80, 87, 88, 89, 91 and 94.
</P>
<P>(ii) FSCs: 2350, 3690, 4470, 4920, 4927, 6505, 6508, 6750, and 8120.
</P>
<P>(iii) SCCs: H.
</P>
<P>(iv) DEMIL Codes: G and P.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Property and scrap accepted and excluded.</I> (1) DLA Disposition Services must accept and dispose of all authorized DoD-generated excess, surplus, FEPP, scrap, and other personal property with the exclusions in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Property not disposed of through RTDS will be processed for disposal under an HW contract, except as specified elsewhere. For example, HP will be processed on HW disposal service contracts. Other property will be downgraded to scrap, demilitarized, processed for A/D, or disposed of through a DLA Disposition Services service contract.
</P>
<P>(3) DLA Disposition Services sites minimize processing delays as much as possible. In the event a site is unable to physically accept the property at the desired time and location due to workload, generating activities may retain the property for processing in-place, seek another DLA Disposition Services site, or hold the property until the DLA Disposition Services site is able to receive the property.
</P>
<P>(4) DLA Disposition Services sites:
</P>
<P>(i) Accept and process nonsalable materiel that has no reutilization, transfer, donation, or sale value but is not otherwise restricted from disposal by U.S. law or Federal or military regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that disposition is by the most economical and practical method; for example, donation in lieu of A/D or through a service contract that meets minimum legal requirements for disposal of the specific types of property.
</P>
<P>(5) DLA Disposition Services sites may not accept (either physically or on its account) and no reutilization or sale service will be given for:
</P>
<P>(i) Radioactive waste, items, devices, or materiel (all materiel that is radioactive).
</P>
<P>(ii) Property designated for disposal by the Military Departments as identified in DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4.
</P>
<P>(iii) Classified material, except that which is addressed by paragraph (b)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nuclear weapons-related materiel.
</P>
<P>(v) Classified and unclassified information systems security material (cryptological (CRYPTO) or communications security (COMSEC)). Disposal of FSCs 5810 and 5811 are the responsibility of the Military Departments and may not be transferred to DLA Disposition Services in their original configuration as specified in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3.
</P>
<P>(vi) Property containing information covered by 5 U.S.C. 552a, also known as the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(6) DoD Components will manage the collection and disposal of installation refuse and trash. If refuse and trash, when properly segregated, possesses RTDS potential, disposition may be accomplished via DLA Disposition Services, recycling provisions of refuse collection contracts, in-house refuse operations, or QRPs as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) The DLA Disposition Services site operating as a tenant on an installation will notify the host activity when unauthorized shipments are received at the DLA Disposition Services site (including off-site shipments) of radioactive items, classified material, nuclear weapons-related materiel, and classified and unclassified information systems security material (CRYPTO/COMSEC). The host activity will be responsible for retrieving and securing any radioactive items, classified items and unclassified information systems security material (CRYPTO/COMSEC) immediately upon request of the DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P>(8) DLA Disposition Services sites will not accept scrap accumulations that are contaminated or commingled with:
</P>
<P>(i) MPPEH.
</P>
<P>(ii) MLI that require DEMIL (DEMIL Codes C, D, E and F) and MLI that require mutilation (DEMIL Code B). MLI with DEMIL Code G and P are not authorized for acceptance by DLA Disposition Services in their original state.
</P>
<P>(iii) CCL items that have not undergone mutilation to the point of scrap as defined in DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(iv) HP FSCs.
</P>
<P>(9) Contaminated scrap should be turned in as HW.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scrap segregation and identification.</I> (1) Separating material at the source simplifies scrap segregation and reduces handling. Commingling material may reduce or, in some instances, destroy the value of the scrap.
</P>
<P>(2) Generating activities are responsible for initial identification and segregation. The major basic material or content will be used in the item nomenclature block of the DTID.
</P>
<P>(3) Scrap will be segregated to ensure only authorized items are in a scrap pile.
</P>
<P>(4) DLA Disposition Services sites will provide guidance and, where possible, containers for use by scrap generators at the source.
</P>
<P>(5) The generating activity collecting the scrap or waste will maintain proper segregation of the material and determine a point at which no further material will be added. When scrap piles are being built by the DLA Disposition Services site, the same principles apply. Scrap generated from explosive and incendiary items and chemical ammunition is dangerous and will not be commingled with other types of property.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation for disposal through DLA Disposition Services.</I> (1) Use DoD automated information systems to the extent practical to prepare documentation for excess, surplus, or scrap DoD property or FEPP. This method of submitting information is preferred, particularly for turn-in of HW. In addition to submitting the information through automated information systems, hard copies must be produced and maintained with the items during the disposal processes.
</P>
<P>(2) The generator will provide to the DLA Disposition Services site an original and three hard copies of a DD Form 1348-1A, “Issue Release/Receipt Document,” or DD Form 1348-2, “Issue Release/Receipt Document with Address Label” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/formsprogram.htm.</I>) The DTID must include a valid DoDAAC as authorized in Volume 6 of DLM 4000.25, “Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DoDAAC) Directory (Activity Address Code Sequence)” (available at <I>http://www2.dla.mil/j-6/dlmso/elibrary/Manuals/DLM/V6/Volume6.pdf</I>). All further references to DD Form 1348-1A, which also include DD Form 1348-2, will be referred to in this subpart as a DTID. Table 1 of this section provides guidance on preparation of the DD Form 1348 series documents. For scrap transfers, see paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Transfers of Usable Property to DLA Disposition Services Sites (Single Line Item Turn Ins) Using DD Forms 1348-1A/2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field legend
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Record position
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Entry and instructions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Document Identifier (DI)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A5J/940R. Use information on the source document to perpetuate the archived DI. For locally determined excesses generated at a base, post, camp, or station, assign a DI code as determined by shipping activity procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Routing Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the record indicator (RI) of the shipping activity or leave blank when the shipping activity is not assigned an RI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Media and Status</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leave blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stock or Part Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See block 25.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit of Issue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the unit of issue of the stock or part number being turned in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disposal Quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25-29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the quantity being turned in to disposal activity. See block 26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Document Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See block 24.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha Suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leave blank (Exception: Use if DTID consists of multiple documents because the 5-digit quantity field (Record Positions 24-29) is insufficient.) See block 24.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supplementary Address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter DoDAAC of predesignated consignee DLA Disposition Services Site.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row">A DoDAAC is the key component for using the DLA Disposition Services property accounting disposal system to either turn in or order excess property to and from DLA Disposition Services. The code is required for all DoD activities, contractors, and FCAs to order, receive, ship, identify custody of government property, or reflect identification in a specified military standard logistics system. The code must be approved by the Military Departments, Defense Agencies, and FCA authoritative organization and be officially registered in the DoD activity address file. The DoDAAC system provides identification codes, plain text addresses, and selected data characteristics of organizational activities needed to order, mark, prepare shipping documents, bills, etc., and only recognizes active DoDAACs. FCAs are only authorized to turn excess property in to DLA Disposition Services for disposal if they have officially authorized an Economy Act Order for reimbursement of transaction billing charges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Signal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This code is used to designate the bill-to and ship-to (or ship-from in the case of DI code FT_and FD_records) activities. Codes B, C, and L apply to HM/HW transfers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fund</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">52-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For HM and waste turn-ins, enter the fund code from Military Standard Billing System (MILSBILLS) designating the funds to be charged. For non-military activities who are not users of MILSBILLS, (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, FCAs or NAFs) using an activity address code), enter “XP.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distribution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use the information on the source document to perpetuate the archived data or leave blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retention Quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55-61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the quantity to be retained in inventory or leave quantity blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Precious Metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter applicable code from Appendix AP2.23 of DLM 4000.25-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automated Data Processing Equipment Identification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter applicable code from AP2.24 of DLM 4000.25-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disposal Authority</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter applicable code from DLM 4000.25-1 Appendix AP2.21. (Mandatory) (FCAs use DAC “F”—not shown in appendix.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Demilitarization Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the Web-Enabled FLIS or Federal Logistics Data (FEDLOG) recorded DEMIL code of record. For LSNs, Navy item control numbers, or Army control numbers assign DEMIL code in accordance with current Volume 2 of DoD 4160.28-M (Mandatory).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reclamation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter code “Y” if reclamation was performed prior to release to a DLA Disposition Services site. Enter “R” if reclamation is to be performed after turn in to DLA Disposition Services site. Enter code “N” if reclamation is not required.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Routing Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">67-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Generate from disposal release order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Identifier Ownership</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter applicable code or leave blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SCC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter applicable code from DLM 4000.25-2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Management</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter information from source document to perpetuate archived data or leave blank. If block 71 (SCC) is Q and the management code is blank, DLA Disposition Services will mutilate the property upon receipt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Criticality Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter criticality code documented in FLIS for the items in accordance with DoD 4100.39-M which indicates when an item is technically critical, by reason of tolerance, fit, application, nuclear hardness properties, or other characteristics that affects the identification of the item.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Price</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74-80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter the unit price for the NSN or part number in record positions 8-22.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Block Entries
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the extended value of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the shipping point identified by DoDAAC; if reduced printing is used, the clear address may be entered in addition to the DoDAAC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the consignee DLA Disposition Services site by DoDAAC. This will be the predesignated DLA Disposition Services site and will be entered by the shipping activity; if reduced printing is used, the in the clear address may be entered in addition to the DoDAAC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Insert HM or HW, if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the date of document preparation, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the national motor freight classification, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the freight rate, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter coded cargo data, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter applicable controlled inventory item code (CIIC), which describes the security or pilferage classification of the shipment from DoD 4100.39-M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the quantity actually received by the DLA Disposition Services site, if different from positions 25-29.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the number of units of issue in a package, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the unit weight applicable to the unit of issue, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the unit cube applicable to the unit of issue, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the uniform freight classification, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the FLIS or FEDLOG recorded shelf-life code in block 15, if appropriate; otherwise, leave blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter in the clear freight classification nomenclature, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter the item nomenclature. For non-NSN items, enter as much descriptive information as possible. Specified additive data or certification from the generating source for specific types of property should be entered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter type of container, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter number of containers that makes up the shipment, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter total weight of shipment, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Enter total cube of shipment, if required by the shipper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Received by (for DLA Disposition Services site) signature of person receiving the materiel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Date received (for DLA Disposition Services site) date materiel was received and signed for.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Document number. Generate from source document. DTID consists of 6-digit DoDAAC + 1-digit last number of year, 3-digit Julian Date + 4-digit generator-assigned serial number. This cannot be the same document number that was used to receive the materiel. For locally determined excesses generated at base, post, camp, or station, assign a document number as determined by Service or agency procedures. Leave suffix code blank unless needed to indicate additional documents to show complete quantity. Generating activities and ordering activities and their contractors must have a valid DoDAAC, as defined in DoD 5105.38-M to use DLA Disposition Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">NSN—Enter the stock or part number being turned-in. For subsistence items, enter the type of pack in record position 21. If an NSN is not used, FSC, part number, noun or nomenclature, where appropriate, to build an LSN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Leave blank. Reserved for DLA Disposition Services Site use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">This block may contain additional data including bar coding for internal DLA Disposition Services use, generator certifications (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, inert certificate) or fund citation, FSCAP criticality code, etc. Enter data in this block as required by the shipping activity or the DLA Disposition Services Site receiving the materiel. When data is entered in this block, it will be clearly identified. For HM and waste turn ins, enter the DoDAAC of the bill to office, the contract line item number (CLIN) for the item, and the total cost of the disposal, (that is, CLIN cost times quantity in pounds equals cost of disposal).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Generating activities may use the DLA Disposition Services web-based program electronic turn-in document (ETID) for submitting the required information electronically. ETID accommodates generators that do not have service-unique automated capabilities. ETID access and guidance are located on the DLA Disposition Services Web site. Generating activities requiring ETID access must apply for a user ID and password.
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to the data required by DLM 4000.25-1, the DTID must clearly indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) The reimbursable category (such as foreign purchased, NAF, FCA), including the reimbursement fund citation, or an appropriate indicator that reimbursement is required (<I>e.g.,</I> purchased with NAF or Disposal Authority Code “F” for FCAs). DTIDs without reimbursement data will be processed as non-reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The value and a list of component parts removed from major end items or a copy of the limited technical inspection showing the nature and extent of repair required.
</P>
<P>(iii) One of the SCCs listed in DLM 4000.25-2 as determined by the generator.
</P>
<P>(5) DoD Components will turn in usable property with line item designations.
</P>
<P>(i) To the extent possible, usable property will be turned in as individual line items with their assigned and valid NSN and UII (when applicable). Exceptions include property turned in as generator batchlots (see criteria in paragraph (g)(5)(ii) of this section); furniture turned in as a group on a single form; and locally purchased property without an NSN.
</P>
<P>(ii) Property may be turned in without a valid NSN when the materiel cannot be identified to a valid NSN in FEDLOG (<I>e.g.,</I> locally purchased property). Prior to assigning an LSN, generating activities will match the part number or bar code number from the property against the DLA Logistics Information Service Universal Directory of Commercial Items Cross Reference Inquiry.
</P>
<P>(iii) Generating activities will assign an LSN if a part number or barcode is not available; the property is lost, abandoned, or unclaimed privately owned personal property; or the property is confiscated or captured enemy materiel. In Block 25 of the DTID, annotate the FSC, NATO codification bureau code, if available, and identify the noun, nomenclature, or part number.
</P>
<P>(iv) Due to national security concerns, the FSCs listed in Table 2 of this section that are clearly MLI or CCL items require a higher degree of documentation. When these items are not assigned an NSN, the DTID must include the appropriate FSC; the valid part number and manufacturer's name; nomenclature that accurately describes the item; the end item application; and a clear text statement explaining why the NSN is not included (<I>e.g.,</I> locally purchased item, found on post, lost, abandoned, privately owned property). This information may be annotated directly on the DTID or securely attached to the DTID.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Federal Stock Classes Requiring Turn-In By Valid NSN
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 23</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 58</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ALL FSCs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 2305</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5810 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 2355</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5811 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MLI or CCL items 2350</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5820
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ALL FSCs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5821
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 28</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5825
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 2840</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5826
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ALL FSCs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 2845</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5841
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 13</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 29</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5845
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ALL FSCs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 2915</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5846
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5850
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 14</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 36</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5855
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ALL FSCs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 3690</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5860
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 15</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 42</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 59</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1560</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5963
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5985
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 16</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 44</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5998
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1670</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4470
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 5999
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 17</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 49</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 66</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1710</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4921</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 6615
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1720</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4923
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4925</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 69</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 18</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4927</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 6920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4931</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 6930
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1820</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4933</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 6940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1830</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4935
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1840</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 4960</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">GROUP 84</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 8470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">GROUP 19</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FSC 8475
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSC 1905</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Disposal of originally configured Navy assigned FSC 4470 items is the responsibility of the U.S. Navy.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Disposal of FSC 5810/5811 equipment with a CIIC of 9 and that is classified (CIICs D, E, and F) or designated CCI is the responsibility of the owning Military Department and will not be received by DLA Disposition Services sites in its original configuration.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) The DTID for any property turned in by LSN without an assigned DEMIL code must include a required clear text DEMIL statement, based on information in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3. Generating activities may request assistance of a DLA Disposition Services site, DLA, or the integrated manager for the FSC to determine the appropriate statement. DLA Disposition Services sites will assist generating activities in developing the clear text DEMIL statement and assignment of the appropriate DEMIL code. If assistance is not requested or not used, DLA Disposition Services sites may reject the turn-in of materiel which does not meet established criteria.
</P>
<P>(6) Scrap DTIDs will include:
</P>
<P>(i) DI code.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unit of issue (pounds or kilograms).
</P>
<P>(iii) Quantity (total weight (estimated or actual)).
</P>
<P>(iv) DTID number.
</P>
<P>(v) Precious metals indicator code.
</P>
<P>(vi) Disposal authority code.
</P>
<P>(vii) Basic material content (Block 17).
</P>
<P>(viii) Reimbursement data, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(7) For HP documentation, see DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4.
</P>
<P>(8) The generating activities will complete documentation for in-transit control of property (excluding scrap (SCC S)), waste, NAF, lost, abandoned, or unclaimed, privately owned, and FCA property) in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volume 3, for shipments or transfers to DLA Disposition Services sites of property with a total acquisition value of $800 or greater and all property designated as pilferable or sensitive identified by an NSN or part number. The ICS document tracks property from the time of release by generating activity (regardless whether the property is shipped to the DLA Disposition Services site or retained by the generating activity) until the DLA Disposition Services site accepts accountability. The generating activities will update the records to reflect the change in accountability and custody.
</P>
<P>(9) DoD Components will identify defective items, parts, and components containing latent defects.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General information</I>—(A) <I>Category 1 (CAT 1) defective or counterfeit property.</I> (<I>1</I>) Is identified as military or Federal Government specification property intended for use in safety critical areas of systems, as determined by the user and reported to the item manager.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Does not meet commercial specifications.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If used, would create a public health or safety concern; RTDS as usable property is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Must be mutilated by the generating activity according to specific instructions provided by the item manager.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Category 2 (CAT 2) defective property.</I> (<I>1</I>) Does not meet military or Federal Government specifications, but may meet commercial specifications.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cannot be used for its intended military purpose and must not be redistributed within the Department of Defense, as directed by the item manager.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) May be used for commercial purposes and may be transferred, donated, or sold as usable property.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If sold, requires special terms and conditions warning purchasers that the property is CAT 2 defective and is not acceptable for resale back to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ICP requirements.</I> (A) ICPs will list defective property with the Government-Industry Data Exchange Program (GIDEP). GIDEP is located at <I>http://www.gidep.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) The DLA Disposition Services Safe Alert or Latent Defect (SALD) program contains additional disposal processing information for defective property and can be viewed at <I>http://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sales requirements.</I> (A) If the property has been rejected as defective due to non-conformance with U.S. Government specifications, it may be authorized for sale with a statement as to the specific reason for its rejection. DLA Disposition Services will ensure that U.S. Government identification, such as contract numbers, specification numbers, NSN, and any other printing that would identify the item with the U.S. Government is removed or obliterated. A statement to this effect will be included in the sales offering, as a condition of sale. Terms or conditions in sale offerings will warn purchasers that the property is CAT 2 defective and is not acceptable for resale to the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(B) Return copies of the DTID from the DLA Disposition Services site. Unless generating activities provide written notification to DLA Disposition Services sites that electronic receipt confirmations are acceptable, DLA Disposition Services sites will provide final receipt documentation for each DTID. Generating activities can use the DLA Disposition Services property accounting system to query transactions status.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Property custody determinations</I>—(1) <I>Physical custody retention.</I> (i) Generating activities should consider retaining physical custody of property declared as excess to reduce handling and preclude transportation costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) An MOU will be established between the servicing DLA Disposition Services site and the generating activity. Custodial and accountability responsibilities will be identified in the MOU. DLA Disposition Services sites will not take accountability until the MOU is executed and signed at the approval levels identified in the MOU.
</P>
<P>(iii) Inspection(s) will be completed by the DLA Disposition Services site, where appropriate. If not accomplished by the DLA Disposition Services site, a mutually agreeable disposal condition code will be assigned.
</P>
<P>(iv) Generating activities are responsible for all expenses incurred before acceptance of accountability by a DLA Disposition Services site. At the point of DLA Disposition Services accountability acceptance (not in conditional acceptance time frame as described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section), expenses (<I>e.g.,</I> PCH&amp;T of non-hazardous excess, surplus, and FEPP) are borne by DLA Disposition Services. Exceptions may be negotiated by a DoD Component or federal agency representative at a level commensurate with DLA Disposition Services Director (Senior Executive Service level).
</P>
<P>(v) The DLA Disposition Services site will provide barcode labels to the generating activity to affix on the property. The labels will contain the DTID number, DEMIL code, and federal condition code. The label will be positioned to clearly indicate that the property accountability has passed to DLA Disposition Services (<I>e.g.,</I> “on DLA Disposition Services Site Inventory”). Property should be consolidated and protected in a designated area. The activity with physical custody is responsible for the property's care and protection until it is disposed of or moved to a DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turn-ins.</I> When the generating activity decides to transport property to the DLA Disposition Services site, the care and custody of the property will be borne by the DLA Disposition Services site at the point of physical receipt.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transferring usable property and scrap to a DLA Disposition Services site.</I> (1) Generating activities will comply with this part, DLM 4000.25-1, and their Service or agency retention and disposal policies and procedures when preparing property for transfer for disposal. The generating service will maintain accountable records of accountable property, in accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.64, until formally relieved of accountability by DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(2) Generating activities will schedule all transfers (receipt in-place or physical) through advanced notification (<I>i.e.,</I> use of a listing or automated DTIDs.)
</P>
<P>(3) Usable property will, to the extent possible, be transferred as individual line items with their assigned valid NSN and UII (when applicable). Exceptions include property turned in as generator batchlots, furniture turned in as a group on a “tally-in” form, and locally purchased property without an NSN.
</P>
<P>(4) Scrap, properly identified with supply class by basic material content and segregated, must be transferred to a DLA Disposition Services site using a DTID.
</P>
<P>(5) If the deficiency prohibits further DoD use, the materiel will remain in SCC Q, and owners will direct transfer of the materiel to DLA Disposition Services sites following the guidance in paragraph (d)(9) of this section. Improperly documented, unauthorized source, defective, non-repairable, and time-expired aviation CSI/FSCAP materiel that is not mutilated by the holding activity will be directed to the DLA Disposition Services site in SCC Q with management code S. All such materiel will be mutilated. The ICP/IMM should identify to the DLA Disposition Services any unique instructions for disposal requiring specific methods or information regarding hazardous material, waste, or property contained in the item. When transferring such aviation CSI/FSCAP to a DLA Disposition Services site, the generating activity DTID must clearly state in block 17 that the part is defective, non-reparable, time-expired, or otherwise deficient and that mutilation is required.
</P>
<P>(6) Property capable of spilling or leaking may not be transferred to a DLA Disposition Services site in open, broken, or leaking containers. All property will be non-leaking and safe to handle.
</P>
<P>(7) For physical transfers, generating activities will be responsible for movement of the property or scrap to the nearest DLA Disposition Services location.
</P>
<P>(8) DEMIL instructions are to be provided by the ICP or IMM. DEMIL F items must have a valid and verifiable NSN. LSNs with DEMIL F are not valid. DLA Disposition Services sites will not accept DEMIL F property without the proper instructions.
</P>
<P>(9) DTIDs that do not meet the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section will be rejected and returned to the Military Departments.
</P>
<P>(10) To obtain DEMIL F instructions, please visit the Army's Integrated Logistics Support Center Web site at <I>https://tulsa.tacom.army.mil/DEMIL.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Receipt of property and scrap</I>—(1) <I>During transfer.</I> (i) DLA Disposition Services sites are responsible for ensuring proper receipt, classification, processing, safeguarding, storing, and subsequent shipping of all property and scrap. This includes property to be accounted for as items and properly segregated scrap and waste with RTDS value, and materiel destined for disposal.
</P>
<P>(ii) DLA Disposition Services sites will assist, when requested, in tracing property when an in-transit control follow-up has been received by the generating or shipping activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) DLA Disposition Services sites will maintain close liaison with generating activities to ensure:
</P>
<P>(A) Informational guidance on disposal transfers is given to generating activities.
</P>
<P>(B) A DLA Disposition Services site's receiving capability and the volume of property to be transferred is taken into consideration for turn-in scheduling. Property inspections will be performed in-place if more advantageous due to the characteristics of the property, as determined by DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(C) Assistance is provided to generating activities, as needed, to assure proper segregation of scrap and HW material before transfer. If the weight generated, market conditions, or local trade practices warrant, further scrap segregation will be made.
</P>
<P>(D) All property (except unsalable materiel that is precluded from sale by law), including scrap and refuse or trash with a RTDS value, is processed as set forth in this part and will not be disposed of by dumping in landfills. If the DLA Disposition Services site has knowledge of salable materiel being dumped in a sanitary fill, the DLA Disposition Services site chief will notify the installation commander regarding the matter.
</P>
<P>(E) Property received is protected to prevent damage from unnecessary exposure to the elements. Property transferred as condemned may still be usable, and its preservation may benefit the Defense Materiel Disposal Program.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Instances of improper handling of government property will be brought to the attention of the generating activity or installation commander for remedial action.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Recurrent instances of improper care or handling will be documented for referral to DLA and the disposal focal points of the Military Departments and Defense Agencies.
</P>
<P>(iv) The generating activity will assure all property and scrap is properly identified, including special handling requirements, and that automated information system or manually prepared documentation contains the required number of copies and appropriate information for property received in place or physically accepted.
</P>
<P>(A) To the maximum extent possible, DLA Disposition Services sites will validate items during pre-receipt processes with documentation preparation and receipt processes with the physical transfer of the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The generator's representative (if present) should assist with validation. Whether received in place or at a DLA Disposition Services site, a receipt copy of the DTID will be provided to the generator's representative at that time.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the turn-in is not accompanied by the generator's representative, the official receipt documentation will be provided in the most efficient method available; <I>e.g.,</I> through an electronic listing of items received, an actual copy of an annotated DTID or an electronic return of an annotated DTID through a web based document management system.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For turn-ins accompanied by a generator representative, a conditional receipt copy will be provided at the time of delivery. DLA Disposition Services sites will initial in block 22 and date block 23 of the DTID. This copy constitutes conditional acceptance and becomes the official receipt unless property is rejected on a supply discrepancy report within 15 workdays.
</P>
<P>(B) Validation will consist of verifying property description and quantity, and assuring an authorized and appropriate SCC was assigned by the generating activity. DLA Disposition Services sites and generating activities will work together to validate and verify requirements and obtain appropriate certifications, etc., when property is received in place versus physically transported to a DLA Disposition Services site. The MOU, discussed in § 273.6, will be used for securing and documenting these requirements.
</P>
<P>(C) DLA Disposition Services site personnel may exercise discretionary authority to change and challenge SCCs (except for items in SCC Q, which will be downgraded to scrap and mutilated).
</P>
<P>(D) For items in the general hardware, clothing, tools, furniture, and other nontechnical FSCs, DLA Disposition Services sites are authorized to use their best knowledge, judgment, and discretion to change and assign the appropriate SCC when determined, through physical inspection and examination, or where an obvious error in condition coding exists. DLA Disposition Services sites are responsible for any SCC changes they make and will document the change on the DTID.
</P>
<P>(E) For specialized items such as avionics, or items that require test, measurement, or diagnostic to determine serviceability, DLA Disposition Services site should challenge the generating activity SCC assignment if it appears incorrect. Items in original pack and unopened containers that are coded condemned or unserviceable should be viewed with guarded skepticism and challenged back to the generating activity.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate actions will be taken for discrepancies detected during pre-receipt or receipt:
</P>
<P>(A) If property is to be physically received and the generating activity's representative is present, accountability and physical custody of the property will normally remain with the generator until reconciled. DLA Disposition Services sites, at their discretion, may retain physical custody until reconciled.
</P>
<P>(B) Discrepancies noted during the receiving process, which may be discovered after electronic or hard copy documentation is received, will be processed in accordance with DLAI 4140.55/AR 735-11-2/Secretary of the Navy Instruction (SECNAVINST) 4355.18A/Air Force Joint Manual (AFJM) 23-215, “Reporting of Supply Discrepancies” (available at <I>http://www.dla.mil/issuances/Documents_1/i4140.55%20(Joint%20Pub%20-%206%20Aug%202001).pdf.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) DLA Disposition Services will barcode the property for identification purposes. Barcoding should include use of any UII or IUID in place when applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditional and accountable acceptance distinction.</I> Conditional and accountable acceptances are separate actions.
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional acceptance occurs when a generating activity representative accompanies a transfer. DLA Disposition Services sites will provide a conditional receipt copy at time of physical delivery. Conditional acceptance becomes official and final acceptance receipt unless property is officially rejected by the DLA Disposition Services site within 15 workdays.
</P>
<P>(ii) Accountable acceptance becomes final when verification of accurate property description, valid condition code assignment, correct quantity, and UII (when applicable) is completed by the DLA Disposition Services site. Physical inspections will be conducted, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) During the conditional acceptance processing, if the property is physically transferred to the DLA Disposition Services site and an inventory discrepancy surfaces, the DLA Disposition Services site will research and provide a report of the lost, damaged, or destroyed property in accordance with procedures in DoD 7000.14-R Volume 12, Chapter 7. If the property remains at the generating activity site for receipt-in-place and an inventory discrepancy surfaces, the generating activity will research and provide a report of the lost, damaged, or destroyed property in accordance with procedures in DoD 7000.14-R Volume 12, Chapter 7. The accountable organization will amend the accountable property records as appropriate upon completion of the property loss investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Document acceptance.</I> DLA Disposition Services sites will use a full signature for receipts in block 22 of the DTID. The conditional acceptance date will be entered in block 23. DLA Disposition Services sites will also use this date for the accountable record receipt transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Returning receipts.</I> DLA Disposition Services sites will return one hard copy on physical transfers, including generator-prepared batchlots, if required by the generating activity. DLA Disposition Services will make return receipts available to generators via a web based document management system. Generating activities may access this system via the DLA Disposition Services Web site and search, view, and download copies of turn-in documentation. DLA Disposition Services personnel should work with generating activities to encourage the use of a web-based document management system and eliminate hard copy return receipts.
</P>
<P>(i) For property physically received by a DLA Disposition Services site, generating activities will be provided a receipt copy upon delivery.
</P>
<P>(A) These receipts are considered conditional acceptance of accountability, pending completion of DLA Disposition Services site inspection and verification of the turn-in. If no follow-up report is received by the generating activity within 15 workdays, the provisional copy becomes the official receipt document, and the DLA Disposition Services Site assumes full accountability.
</P>
<P>(B) If the receipt is not recorded in a web based document management system within 30 days, the provisional copy becomes the official receipt copy and the DLA Disposition Services Site assumes full accountability.
</P>
<P>(C) If a discrepancy is found, DLA Disposition Services sites may contact the generating activity and attempt resolution. If required, the guidance shown in paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section will be used for inventory discrepancies.
</P>
<P>(D) When acceptance is not possible, a reject notice will be provided to the generating activity within 7 workdays. Return receipts are available to generators via a web based document management system.
</P>
<P>(ii) For turn-ins made by commercial carrier, parcel post, etc., DLA Disposition Services sites will provide receipt copies no later than 5 workdays after delivery. These receipts are considered conditional acceptance of accountability pending completion of DLA Disposition Services site inspection and verification of the turn-in. If a discrepancy is found, DLA Disposition Services sites may contact and attempt resolution. When acceptance is not possible, a reject notice will be provided to the generating activity within 7 workdays.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>DLA Disposition Services site batchlots.</I> (i) Consistent with the DoD ICS and in accordance with DLA Disposition Services operating guidance, DLA Disposition Services sites may batchlot property after receipt:
</P>
<P>(A) Batchlot property with an extended line item value of $800 or less, in SCCs A—H.
</P>
<P>(B) Batchlot property that does not contain pilferable or sensitive materiel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Property assigned DEMIL code “A” in the critical or non-critical FSG/FSCs, excluding FSCs 5985, 5998, and 5999, is eligible for batchlotting.
</P>
<P>(iii) DLA Disposition Services sites may batchlot property requiring the same type of special processing, <I>e.g.,</I> reimbursable property, same FSC.
</P>
<P>(iv) DLA Disposition Services sites may batchlot clothing and textile products with infrared or spectral reflectance with a DEMIL code of “E,” but the batchlots require a certification on the DTID (see Figure 1 of this section).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.222.gif"/>
<P>(v) DLA Disposition Services sites will exclude from batchlotting:
</P>
<P>(A) Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) property and clothing (FSG 83 and 84); lab equipment such as centrifuges, biological incubators, micromilling machines, biological safety cabinets and laboratory evaporators; (FSG 66), camouflage clothing and individual equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) Low dollar property with high potential for RTDS.
</P>
<P>(C) Property defined as a special case in Enclosure 3 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4 that requires special receipt and handling requirements that cannot be met at time of receipt.
</P>
<P>(D) DEMIL required items identified in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, DEMIL codes B, Q, and property in critical FSCs in DEMIL codes C, D, E, F, G, and P. Property in FSCs 5935, 5996, and 5999 will not be batchlotted regardless of DEMIL code.
</P>
<P>(E) Property requiring inert certification.
</P>
<P>(F) Small arms or light weapons.
</P>
<P>(G) Lasers.
</P>
<P>(H) Radioactive materiels (<I>e.g.,</I> gauges, meters, watches) not eligible for turn-in.
</P>
<P>(I) Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear—defense (CBRN-D) equipment—These items are DEMIL F and instructions have to be followed for disposition and are NOT turned in to DLA disposition.
</P>
<P>(J) Items with a CIIC. Items determined to be pilferable or sensitive in accordance with Volume 6 of DLM 4000.25 and DLA Regulation 4145.11/AR 740.7/Navy Supply System Command Instruction (NAVSUPINST) 4440.146C/Marine Corps Order (MCO) 4450.11, “Safeguarding of DLA Sensitive Inventory Items, Controlled Substances, and Pilferable Items of Supply” (available at <I>http://www.dla.mil/issuances/Documents_1/r4145.11.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(K) HP.
</P>
<P>(L) Metalworking machinery and former industrial plant equipment.
</P>
<P>(M) Grade 8 fasteners and machine bolts in FSCs 5305 and 5306. Do not batchlot these items if they appear on the SALD list.
</P>
<P>(N) Property in SCC A with a total extended value, per DTID, of $50 or more, as shown in Table 3 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—FSCs in SCC A &gt; or = $50 Excluded From Batchlotting
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FSC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engine Fuel System Component, Non-Aircraft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2920</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engine Electrical System Components, Non-Aircraft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2940</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engine Air and Oil Filters, Strainers and Cleaners, Non-Aircraft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2990</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous Engine Accessories, Non-Aircraft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3030</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Belting, Drive Belts, Fan Belts, and Accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4730</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fittings and Specialties; Hose, Pipe, and Tube.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5660</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fencing, Fences and Gates and Components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5895</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous Communication Equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capacitors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5935</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Connectors, Electrical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5940</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lugs, Terminals and Terminal Strips.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5961</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semi-Conductor Devices and Associated Hardware.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6530</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hospital Furniture, Equipment, Utensils and Supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6680</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid/Gas Flow, Liquid level/Mechanical Motion Measuring Instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household Furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous Furniture and Fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous Items (cannot conceivably be classified anywhere else).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding the information in paragraph (g)(5)(v) of this section, RTD customers may order individual items from a batchlot. DLA Disposition Services sites will honor these requests. Otherwise, items will not be removed from batchlots.
</P>
<P>(vii) DLA Disposition Services sites are responsible for ensuring official receipt copies are returned accessible to generating activities (electronically or hard copy). They must provide tracing assistance for any DTID receipt copy not received by the generating activity.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Identification, barcoding, and storage requirements.</I> (1) Usable property, transferred to a DLA Disposition Services site or received in original location, must be clearly identified with barcode labels. The labels will be affixed to property from time of receipt (physically or receipt-in-place) until final removal and will correspond with accountability records. For property stored at DLA Disposition Services sites, signs will be placed appropriately to identify property status (RTD, DEMIL, etc.) and to minimize confusion to customers.
</P>
<P>(2) Scrap transferred to a DLA Disposition Services site or received in original location will be accumulated and segregated to prevent commingling basic material content.
</P>
<P>(i) For use in providing the basic material content information, scrap will be identified using the standard waste and scrap classification code (SCL) contained in the DAISY codes and terms pocket reference located at the DLA Disposition Services Web page (<I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/publications/index.shtml</I>). The pocket reference is formatted alphabetically.
</P>
<P>(ii) Barcoded labels are not required for scrap accumulations. However, both the generating activity and DLA Disposition Services accounting records must correspond with the scrap identifications and weights. DLA Disposition Services must use the SCL in its DAISY accounting records.
</P>
<P>(iii) During storage, DLA Disposition Services will place appropriate signs to identify types of scrap and maximize visibility to customers.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Accounting for property at the DLA Disposition Services site.</I> (1) Correct accounting for all excess property, surplus property, and FEPP by both the Military Departments and DLA Disposition Services sites is critical. Non-compliance can result in property being misappropriated with potentially severe consequences. Proper accounting impacts resourcing (money, equipment, and personnel) decisions.
</P>
<P>(2) Accountability records will be maintained in auditable condition, allow property to be traced from receipt to final disposition and cleared from the ICS, when appropriate. DLA Disposition Services' accountability system will incorporate the requirements of DoD Directive 8320.02, 15 CFR parts 730 through 799, and DLA Regulation 7500.1, “Accountability and Responsibility for Government Property in the Possession of the Defense Logistics Agency,” (DLA Regulation 7500.1 is available at: <I>http://www.dla.mil/issuances/.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) If a contingency operation requires a deviation from standard accountability practices, Military Departments and DLA Disposition Services sites will maintain spreadsheets, listings, or the most appropriate method of temporary accountable records. When the contingency operation reaches a point where prescribed accountability practices can be resumed, the temporary documents will be used for establishing, updating, or adjusting official accountability records (both Military Departments and DLA Disposition Services sites) as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) DLA Disposition Services' property accountability records will be maintained in sufficient detail to support required sales proceeds reimbursements.
</P>
<P>(i) Materiel with different fund citation appropriations may be combined in sale lots; however, DLA Disposition Services accountability systems will retain individual disbursement information to allow appropriate reimbursements to local or departmental accounts, as designated by DoD 7000.14-R, “Department of Defense Financial Management Regulations (FMRs): Volume 11a, “Reimbursable Operations, Policy and Procedures“; Chapter 5, “Disposition of Proceeds from Department of Defense Sales of Surplus Personal Property”, (available at <I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/fmr/current/11a/Volume_11a.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-reimbursable scrap may be physically combined with other scrap when considered advantageous; however, accountability records will be maintained to substantiate pro-rating of the proceeds.
</P>
<P>(5) Usable and scrap determination and accounting are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When property not requiring DEMIL is assigned SCCs F, G, or H, the DLA Disposition Services site may determine property has scrap value only and classify and process as “scrap upon receipt.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal property assigned other SCCs, which the DLA Disposition Services site determines to only have basic materiel content value, may be downgraded to scrap after the end-of-screening date (ESD) and completion of any required DEMIL.
</P>
<P>(iii) DLA Disposition Services sites will minimize changing or challenging SCCs and downgrades upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(iv) When an item has been offered on a competitive sale and no bid has been received, or bids received are less than the scrap value of the item, the property may be downgraded to scrap and re-offered for sale as scrap. This includes property returned to a DLA Disposition Services site from a joint commercial sales partner that has been confirmed as mis-described or as containing only basic material content value. Similar items received within a 12-month period that have a history of being nonsalable may be downgraded to scrap at ESD.
</P>
<P>(v) When a DLA Disposition Services site determines obsolete printed materials have no RTD potential and only scrap market value, these items will be downgraded to scrap upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(vi) When end items are turned in as scrap and are reclaimed or disassembled for their usable components, the DLA Disposition Services site's records will be adjusted to reflect the acquisition cost (estimated, if not known) of the components removed.
</P>
<P>(6) Scrap accounting is calculated by weight.
</P>
<P>(i) Estimated weight may be used for receiving scrap if scales are not available or if weighing is impractical. Disposition of scrap for sale or demanufacturing must be weighed to provide accurate accounting and reconciliation with the DLA Disposition Services accountable record.
</P>
<P>(ii) The acceptable degree of accuracy of estimation is 25 percent for property processed by the ton, and 10 percent for property processed by the pound. Overages and shortages discovered on release of property that exceed allowable tolerances will be adjusted.
</P>
<P>(iii) High value scrap must be weighed at the time of receipt.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Calibration and maintenance of weigh scales.</I> (1) DoD activities, including DLA Disposition Services sites with scales used for receipts and disposition of scrap, will ensure weigh scales under their jurisdiction are maintained, repaired, and calibrated annually or more often if required by State or local laws.
</P>
<P>(2) Activities with scales will maintain a log or record of visits by qualified inspectors showing the date of the visit and, where appropriate, action taken to correct the accuracy of the scales. A signed copy of the inspector's findings will be maintained. The activity is responsible for obtaining the services of a qualified scale inspector and requesting repair when needed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Physical inventory accuracy.</I> (1) DLA Disposition Services sites will conduct physical inventories. At a minimum, a sample inventory will be conducted at each DLA Disposition Services site annually. Inventory accuracy of at least 90 percent will be maintained for all usable property, except DEMIL required property, HP, and pilferable or sensitive property. Discrepancies will be corrected in accordance with paragraph (l) of this section. If sample inventories for usable property are less than 90 percent accurate, a wall-to-wall inventory will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) Physical inventories for DEMIL required property, HP, and pilferable or sensitive property will be conducted at least annually. Inventory accuracy of 100 percent will be maintained. If less than 100 percent accuracy, DLA Disposition Services site will report the discrepancies in accordance with procedures in DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>(3) Usable property remaining on the DLA Disposition Services site account in excess of 6 months will be inventoried on a monthly basis and certified.
</P>
<P>(4) Inventory discrepancies will be researched as part of the inventory process and corrections documented as inventory adjustments.
</P>
<P>(5) DLA Disposition Services will provide the DLA Disposition Services sites with direction for maintaining and reconciling scrap accumulations and accountable records. Reconciliation will be performed at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Inventory discrepancies and adjustments</I>—(1) <I>Errors before acceptance.</I> Item identification, quantity, condition, or price data errors discovered before official acceptance of accountability will be resolved and corrected during receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Errors after acceptance.</I> Discrepancies discovered after acceptance of accountability; that is, differences between recorded balances and quantities on hand, will be processed as inventory adjustments. Inventory adjustment procedures are contained in DoD 7000.14-R, Volume 12, Chapter 7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Property not in DLA Disposition Services site custody.</I> (i) When property for which a DLA Disposition Services site has assumed accountability, but not physical custody, becomes lost, damaged, or destroyed, the custodial activity will investigate the discrepancy and provide its findings to the DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DLA Disposition Services site will provide the custodial activity with requested item identification number, such as NSN, DTID number, or UII (when applicable) or copies of pertinent documentation for the lost, damaged, or destroyed item.
</P>
<P>(A) If the custodial activity determines the discrepancy is due to a record keeping error, it will fully document the error and inform the DLA Disposition Services site to prepare an inventory adjustment.
</P>
<P>(B) If the discrepancy is not due to a record keeping error, the custodial activity must prepare a DD Form 200, “Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss,” in accordance with criteria contained in DoD 7000.14-R, Volume 12, Chapter 7.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after notification of the loss of the property, the custodial activity must provide the DLA Disposition Services site a completed copy of the DD Form 200 as supportive documentation for the DLA Disposition Services site to process an inventory adjustment.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Property disposition</I>—(1) <I>Packing, crating, and handling (PC&amp;H).</I> PC&amp;H for DoD orders will be arranged by the DLA Disposition Services site in most cases. When property is received in place, the generating activity will prepare the property for shipment. DLA Disposition Services will submit payment for these services according to the established ISSA or by DLA Disposition Services military interdepartmental purchase request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transportation.</I> DLA Disposition Services will directly fund transportation costs associated with reutilized property on each transaction. However, these costs are recouped as part of the Service-level annual billings for all associated disposition costs incurred by the services including all transportation costs during the year. That is, individual DoD units do not pay for reutilization transportation on each individual transaction, but their Military Service is billed on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Audits</I>—(1) <I>Outside command involvement.</I> When it is necessary to obtain or confirm data on materiel transferred to or from disposal accounts, and this involves crossing command lines between DoD Components, the policy in DoD Instruction 7600.02, “Audit Policies” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/760002p.pdf</I>) will apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint Service/DLA Directives used during audits.</I> The DoD Components will maintain a clear audit trail of the documentation for the disposition of property in accordance with their internal issuances for audits. The internal issuances that govern Army, Navy, and Air Force are:
</P>
<P>(i) AR 36-2, “Audit Services in the Department of the Army” (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r36_2.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) SECNAVINST 7510.7F.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air Force Policy Directive 65-3, “Internal Auditing” (available at <I>http://static.e-publishing.af.mil/production/1/saf_fm/publication/afpd65-3/afpd65-3.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.8   Donations, loans, and exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope</I>—(1) <I>FMR.</I> Provisions for donation of surplus personal property are provided in accordance with 41 CFR part 102-37.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other regulations.</I> (i) 10 U.S.C. 2576a permits the Secretary of Defense to transfer certain property for use for State and local law enforcement agencies. Notwithstanding 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102, donations may be made only as authorized by law; under separate statutes, the Secretaries of the Military Departments may donate certain excess materiel to authorized recipients; through GSA, the Department of Defense may donate surplus property to authorized donees. Donations are subordinate to federal agency needs, but take precedence over sale or A/D. This section also contains guidance and procedures pertaining to loans or exchanges, providing specific instructions to authorized donees.
</P>
<P>(ii) 42 U.S.C. chapter 68 authorizes federal assistance to States, local government, and relief organizations based on a declaration of emergency or major disaster.
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 U.S.C. 2557, 2572, 2576, and 5576a establishes the procedures for organizations participating in surplus personal property donation programs, specifically the organizations discussed in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agreements.</I> Technology transfer projects and 10 U.S.C. 2194 address educational partnership agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with nondiscrimination statutes requirements.</I> (1) All of the donation programs covered by this section must comply with:
</P>
<P>(i) 42 U.S.C. 2000a, also known as Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
</P>
<P>(ii) 20 U.S.C. 1681, also known as Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972.
</P>
<P>(iii) 29 U.S.C. 701 also known as the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>(iv) 42 U.S.C. 6101 also known as the Age Discrimination Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>(2) Any complaints alleging violations of these acts or inquiries concerning the applicability to the programs covered in this section will be handled by elevating issues through the appropriate chains of command and agency-to-agency dialog.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Donations of surplus personal property</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Surplus property is allocated by GSA considering the factors listed in 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102.
</P>
<P>(ii) GSAXcess® is available for State agencies for surplus property (SASPs) and donees, when authorized, to search for and select property for donation. Screening is accomplished during the timeframes specified in § 273.15.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon allocation, GSAXcess® will generate the SF 123, “Transfer Order Surplus Personal Property” to the agency for approval and return. DoD orders for DLA Disposition Services assets with a UMMIPS Priority Designator within Issue Priority Group 1 (Priorities 01-03), and non-mission capable supply (NMCS) orders will be submitted to DLA Disposition Services as an exception. DLA Disposition Services will immediately fill these orders and notify the GSA area property officer for the Front End Data System record adjustment. Priorities 4-15 orders received during this timeframe will not be honored.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accessing GSAXcess®.</I> GSAXcess® screening requires an access code from GSA. To learn about GSAXcess® and obtain access code information, see <I>https://gsaxcess.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Release of Government liability.</I> On a case-by-case basis, “hold harmless” clauses to protect the United States may be used, depending on the types and quantities of property. Such provisions must be written in coordination with appropriate DoD Component legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reporting.</I> DLA will provide GSA a report of property transferred to non-federal recipients. The report:
</P>
<P>(i) Will be submitted to GSA through the GSA on-line Personal Property Reporting Tool within 90 calendar days after the close of each fiscal year. The Personal Property Reporting Tool is located at <I>https://gsa.inl.gov/property.</I> If for any reason the report is delayed, the organization who possesses the property should contact the GSA Personal Property Asset Management (MTA), 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405, with an explanation of the delay. The report must cover personal property disposed during the fiscal year in all areas within the 50 United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Marshall Islands, Palau, and the U.S. Virgin Islands. Negative reports are required.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must reference Interagency Report Control Number 0154-GSA-AN and contain:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the non-Federal recipient.
</P>
<P>(B) Zip code of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(C) Explanation as to the type of recipient (<I>e.g.,</I> contractor, grantee, cooperative, Stevenson-Wydler recipient, licensee, permittee).
</P>
<P>(D) Appropriate 2-digit FSC group.
</P>
<P>(E) Total original acquisition cost of all personal property furnished to each recipient.
</P>
<P>(F) Appropriate comments as necessary.
</P>
<P>(G) IUID or UII equivalent.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Donation restrictions.</I> (i) All surplus property (including property held by working capital funds established under 10 U.S.C. 2208 or in similar funds) is available for donation to eligible recipients, in accordance with authorizing laws, except for property in the categories in paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A) through (M) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Agricultural commodities, food, and cotton or woolen goods determined from time to time by the Secretary of Agriculture to be commodities requiring special handling with respect to price support or stabilization.
</P>
<P>(B) Controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(C) Foreign purchased property (as identified in DoD 5105.38-M).
</P>
<P>(D) Naval vessels of the following categories: battleships, cruisers, aircraft carriers, destroyers, and submarines.
</P>
<P>(E) NAF property.
</P>
<P>(F) MLI, except in compliance with DoD Instruction 4160.28, DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, and DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(G) CCL items, except in compliance with 15 CFR parts 730 through 774 and DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(H) Property acquired with trust funds (<I>e.g.,</I> social security trust funds).
</P>
<P>(I) Records of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(J) Vessels of 1,500 gross tons or more, excluding specified Naval combat vessels, which the Maritime Administration determines to be merchant vessels or capable of conversion to merchant use (as defined in 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102).
</P>
<P>(K) Items as may be specified from time to time by the GSA Office of Government-wide Policy.
</P>
<P>(L) Property that requires reimbursement upon transfer (such as abandoned or other unclaimed property that is found on premises owned or leased by the Government).
</P>
<P>(M) Hazardous waste.
</P>
<P>(N) Other Hazardous property and hazardous materials not otherwise identified in the categories in paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A) through (M) of this section that is not serviceable, for example supply condition codes (SCCs) listed in DLM 4000.25-2 as SCC E for unserviceable (limited restoration) materiel, SCC F for unserviceable (reparable) materiel, and SCC G for unserviceable (incomplete) materiel, SCC H for unserviceable (condemned) materiel, SCC P for unserviceable (reclamation) materiel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain items require special processing for donations (in accordance with the requirements in DoD 5105.38-M. DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4 provides the procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Returnable DoD property.</I> (i) As restrictions are imposed on certain commodities, the Department of Defense, through GSA, will request a return of these items and provide guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Known restrictions require written certification and signature by the recipient at the time of removal.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Allocating surplus property.</I> GSA directly allocates property to:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FAA.</I> Public airports are managed through the FAA.
</P>
<P>(A) The FAA Administrator has the responsibility for selecting property determined to be either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Essential, suitable, or desirable for the development, improvement, operation, or maintenance of a public airport, as defined in 49 U.S.C. 47102.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Reasonably necessary to fulfill the immediate and foreseeable future needs of the grantee for the development, improvement, operation, or maintenance of a public airport.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Needed to develop sources of revenue from non-aviation businesses at a public airport.
</P>
<P>(B) Public airports will secure advance approval of donations by obtaining signatures of the applicable FAA airport branch chief and by the GSA regional office on the order (SF 123).
</P>
<P>(ii) United States Agency for International Development.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>SASPs.</I> (A) SASPs are responsible for determining eligibility of applicants; fairly and equitably distributing donated property to eligible donees within their State; assuring donees comply with donation terms and conditions; and when requested by donee, arranging for or providing shipment of property from the federal holding agency, <I>e.g.,</I> DLA Disposition Services sites, directly to the recipients.
</P>
<P>(B) The SASP donates property to public and eligible nonprofit organizations. Types of eligible recipients are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Medical institutions, hospitals, clinics, and health centers.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Drug abuse and alcohol centers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Providers of assistance to homeless individuals.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Providers of assistance to impoverished families and individuals.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Schools, colleges, and universities.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Schools for the mentally and physically disabled.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Child care centers.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Radio and television stations licensed by the Federal Communications Commission as educational radio or television stations.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Museums attended by the public.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Libraries providing the resident public (community, district, State, or region) with free access.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) State and local government agencies, or nonprofit organizations or institutions. 42 U.S.C. 3015 and 3020 authorizes donations of surplus property to State and local government agencies, or nonprofit organizations or institutions that receive federal funding to conduct programs for older individuals.
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) States and territories.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) <I>SEAs.</I> The Deputy Secretary of Defense is authorized to designate new SEAs. Table 4 of this section includes the list of approved SEAs. SEA nominations from the Military Departments or Defense Agencies should be forwarded to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness, 3500 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3500
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Educational activities that are of special interest to the Military Services may receive surplus DoD property in accordance with 41 CFR chapter 101.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—SEA National Offices
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American National Red Cross, 17th and D Streets NW., Washington, DC 20006</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Armed Services YMCA of the USA, 6225 Brandon Avenue, Suite 215, Springfield, VA 22150-2510.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Big Brothers/Big Sisters of America, 230 North 13th Street, Philadelphia, PA 19107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boys and Girls Clubs of America, 771 First Avenue, New York, NY 10017.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boy Scouts of America, 1325 Walnut Hill Lane, Irving, TX 75038-3096</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camp Fire, Inc., 4601 Madison Avenue, Kansas City, MO 64112-1278.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The Center for Excellence In Education, 7710 Old Springhouse Road, McLean, VA 22102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Girl Scouts of America, 420 5th Avenue, New York, NY 10018-2702.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Little League Baseball, Inc., Williamsport, PA 17701</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Association for Equal Opportunity In Higher Education, 2243 Wisconsin Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20007.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Ski Patrol System, Inc., 133 South Van Gordon Street, Suite 100, Lakewood, CO 80228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Naval Sea Cadet Corps, 2300 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22201.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">United Service Organizations, Inc., 601 Indiana Avenue, Washington, DC 20004</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">United States Olympic Committee, 1 Olympic Plaza, Colorado Springs, CO 80909-5760.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Director, Young Marines of the Marine Corps, P.O. Box 70735, Southwest Station, Washington, DC 20024-0735</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">President—Board of Directors, Marine Cadets of America, USN &amp; MC Reserve Center, Fort Nathan Hale Park, New Haven, CT 06512-3694.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corporation for the Promotion of Rifle Practice and Firearms Safety, Erie Industrial Park, Building 650, P.O. Box 576, Port Clinton, OH 43452</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marine Corps League, P.O. Box 3070, Merrifield, VA 22116.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) High schools that host a Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) Unit or a National Defense Cadet Corps Unit, Naval Honor Schools, and State Maritime Academies should contact their sponsoring Military Department regarding donations.
</P>
<P>(D) SEAs must maintain separate records that include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Documentation verifying that the activity has been designated as eligible by the Department of Defense to receive surplus DoD property.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement designating one or more donee representatives to act for the SEA in acquiring property.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A listing of the types of property that are needed or have been authorized by the Department of Defense for use in the SEA program.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identification of screeners.</I> (i) SASP personnel or donee personnel representing a SASP must have a valid screener-identification card (GSA Optional Form 92, screener's identification, or other suitable identification approved by GSA) before screening and selecting property at holding agencies. However, SASP or donee personnel do not need a screener ID card to inspect or remove property previously set aside or approved by GSA for transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Screeners, having identified themselves and indicated the purpose of their visit, will sign the Visitor or Vehicle Register and be allowed to complete donation screening only.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Screening and ordering procedures for DLA Disposition Services property.</I> (i) Section 273.15(c) outlines the screening timeframes for ZI surplus and FEPP that has reached the surplus release date.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a prospective donee contacts a DLA Disposition Services site or military installation regarding possible acquisition of surplus property, the individual or organization will be advised to contact the applicable SASP for determination of eligibility and procedures to be followed. The DLA Disposition Services sites will assist interested parties regarding availability of surplus property.
</P>
<P>(iii) SASP contacts may be located on the GSA Web site at <I>http://www.gsa.gov/portal/content/100851.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) Prospective donees must go to GSAXcess® to gain access, shop, and select property.
</P>
<P>(A) Once GSA allocates property, the SASP will receive an SF 123. The donee should then sign and return the SF 123 to the appropriate GSA office.
</P>
<P>(B) GSA will then approve the SF 123 by signature, return the SF 123 to the SASP, and notify DLA Disposition Services with an electronic order.
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures for return of surplus FEPP to the United States for ultimate donation are covered in Enclosure 4 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2.
</P>
<P>(vi) DLA Disposition Services sites will require recipients of HM to sign a certification statement as shown in Figure 2 of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.223.gif"/>
<P>(A) After allocation and approval, if the customer no longer wants or needs the property, the customer is required to notify the SASP, GSA, and the DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P>(B) GSA may reallocate the property if there is an existing request by another potential recipient. If the property is reallocated, cancellation of the existing request will be transmitted by GSA and another transmission to DLA Disposition Services is required.
</P>
<P>(C) If the property is not reallocated, GSA must cancel the existing MRO.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Customer removal of ordered property.</I> (i) All transportation arrangements and costs are the responsibility of the SASP or designated donee. The DLA Disposition Services site may not act as agent packager or shipper. Until release, each holding activity is responsible for the care and handling of its property.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SASP or designated donee will only pay for direct costs of care and handling incurred in the actual packing, crating, preparation for shipment, and loading. The price will be the actual or carefully estimated costs incurred by DoD traffic management activities for labor, material, or services used in donating the property.
</P>
<P>(iii) Advance payment for care and handling costs will normally be required; however, State and local governmental units may be exempted from this requirement and authorized to make payment within 60 days from date of receipt of property. Advance payment may be required in any case where prompt payment after billing has been unsatisfactory.
</P>
<P>(iv) Donees must schedule removal of property with the DLA Disposition Services site. Upon arrival, the individual must provide identification and must sign the DLA Disposition Services Visitor or Vehicle Register, indicating the purpose of the visit.
</P>
<P>(v) The individual must provide an approved SF123 as authorization for removal.
</P>
<P>(vi) DLA Disposition Services sites will release surplus property to authorized donees upon receipt of a properly completed and approved SF 123 or MRO.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special donations (gifts), loans, and exchanges outside the FMR</I>—(1) <I>Compliance.</I> The DoD Components:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the specific governing statute for the type of property and ensure the limitations of the governing statute are observed. In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2572 and DoD issuances, the Secretary of a Military Department or the Secretary of the Treasury is permitted to donate, lend, or exchange, as applicable, without expense to the United States, books, manuscripts, works of art, historical artifacts, drawings, plans, models and condemned or obsolete combat materiel that are not needed by the Military Services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish supplementary procedures governing loans, donations, and exchanges.
</P>
<P>(iii) May donate, loan or exchange items as identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, if the special donation, loan, or exchange action occurs prior to transfer to DLA Disposition Services for disposition. It is not authorized after property has been officially declared excess and transferred to DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(iv) May exchange assets for:
</P>
<P>(A) Similar items;
</P>
<P>(B) Conservation supplies, equipment, facilities, or systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Search, salvage, or transportation services;
</P>
<P>(D) Restoration, conservation or preservation services; or
</P>
<P>(E) Educational programs when it directly benefits the historical collection of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(v) May not make an exchange unless the monetary value of the property transferred or services provided to the United States under the exchange is not less than the value of the property transferred by the United States. The Secretary concerned may waive this limitation in the case of an exchange for property in which the Secretary determines the item to be received by the United States will significantly enhance the historical collection of the property administered by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(vi) Will not incur costs in connection with loans or gifts. However, the DoD Component concerned may, without cost to the recipient, DEMIL, prepare, and transport within the CONUS items authorized for donation to a recognized war veterans' association in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 if the DoD Component determines this can be accomplished as a training mission, without additional expenditures for the unit involved.
</P>
<P>(vii) Will maintain official records of all DoD materiel loaned including physical inventory, record reconciliation, and management reporting specified in the inventory management procedures in DoD Manual 4140.01, “DoD Supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/414001m/414001m_vol01.pdf</I>). Verify yearly that property is being used for approved purposes, is being maintained and protected according to the agreement, and that the recipient organization still desires to retain the property. The DoD Component may perform this annual check by any method that provides reasonable assurance the recipient organization is fulfilling its responsibilities. DoD Components may request assistance from qualified DoD organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organizations authorized to receive loans and donations.</I> (i) A municipal corporation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A soldiers' monument association.
</P>
<P>(iii) An incorporated museum or memorial that is operated by a historical society, a historical institution of a State or foreign nation, or a nonprofit military aviation heritage foundation or association incorporated in a State.
</P>
<P>(iv) An incorporated museum that is operated and maintained for educational purposes only and the charter of which denies it the right to operate for profit.
</P>
<P>(v) A post of the Veterans of Foreign Wars of the United States or the American Legion or a unit of any other recognized war veterans' association.
</P>
<P>(vi) A local or national unit of any war veterans' association of a foreign nation recognized by the national government of that nation (or by the government of one of the principal political subdivisions of that nation).
</P>
<P>(vii) A post of the Sons of Veterans Reserve.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for veterans' organizations.</I> To qualify, veterans' organizations must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Sponsored by a Military Department.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluated based on its size, purpose, the type and scope of services it renders to veterans, and composed of honorably discharged American soldiers, sailors, airmen, marines, or coastguardsmen.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements for museums.</I> To qualify, museums must:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet State (or equivalent foreign national) criteria for not-for-profit museums.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have an existing facility suitable for the display and protection of the type of property desired for loan or donation. If the requester has a facility under construction that will meet those requirements, interim eligibility may be granted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Have a professional staff that can care for and accept responsibility for the loaned or donated property.
</P>
<P>(iv) Have assets that, in the determination of the loaning or donating service, indicate the capability of the loaner and the borrower to provide the required care and security of historical property.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligibility determination.</I> The DoD Components will determine the eligibility of organizations for gifts and loans. The DoD Components may establish eligibility requirements dependent upon the unique nature of the specific historical item; however, the minimum requirements are:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit donations, loans, or exchanges to property stipulated by 10 U.S.C. 2557, 2572, 2576, and 2576a. Except for relevant records for aircraft and associated engines and equipment (unless authorized under DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 and DoD Instruction 2030.08), government records may not be released.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approve the loan, donation, or exchange; process requests for variations from the original agreement; and maintain official records of all donation, loan, and exchange agreements. The approval of exchanges may be delegated at the discretion of the Secretary concerned, and is encouraged for low-dollar transactions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish controls for determining compliance by the recipient organization with the display, security, and usage criteria provided in the loan and donation agreements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide disposition instructions to the recipient organization when loaned or donated property is no longer needed or authorized for continued use.
</P>
<P>(v) Establish conditions for making donations, loans, or exchanges.
</P>
<P>(vi) Establish a process (<I>e.g.,</I> a council or other means suitable to the loan and donation organization) to review and approve proposed exchanges incorporating legal and financial review independent of the museum involved. Personnel directly involved in museum operations will not act as sole approving authority for any exchange transactions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Ensure that correspondence regarding loans, donations, or exchanges is signed by individuals authorized to obligate their organization.
</P>
<P>(viii) Ensure appropriate DEMIL of the property as prescribed in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 before release. If standard DEMIL criteria cannot be applied without destroying the display value, specific DEMIL actions (such as aircraft structural cuts) may be delayed. The recipient organization must agree to assume responsibility for the property DEMIL action, at no cost to the Government, when the item is no longer desired or authorized for display purposes. The recipient organization may also return the property to the Government via the donating Military Department for full DEMIL action.
</P>
<P>(ix) Loan, donate, or exchange property on an “as is, where is” basis and ensure that the recipient organization agrees to pay all costs incident to preparation, handling, and movement of the property. Military Department contact points for the loan, donation, or exchange of property are at Table 5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Property may not be repaired, modified, or changed at government expense over and above normal preparation for handling and movement, even if reimbursement is offered for services rendered.
</P>
<P>(B) Property may not be moved at government expense to a recipient's location or to another location closer to the recipient to prevent or lessen the recipient organization's processing or transportation costs.
</P>
<P>(C) No charge will be made for the property itself, but all physical processing of the property for the loan or donation will be the responsibility of the recipient organization. The recipient organization will pay all applicable charges before release of the property.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Military Department Contact Points for Loan, Donation, or Exchange of Property
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ARMY: (all commodities)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commander
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U.S. Army Tank Automotive and Armament Command
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">ATTN: AMSTA-IM-OER
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Warren, MI 48397-5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Email: <E T="03">donations@cc.tacom.mil</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Telephone: 1-800-325-2920 extension 48469
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NAVY:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Navy and Marine Corps aircraft, air launched missiles, aircraft engines, and aviation related property:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commanding Officer
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NAVSUP Weapon Systems Support
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">ATTN: Code-03432-06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">700 Robbins Ave.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Philadelphia, PA 19111-5098
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Obsolete or condemned Navy vessels for donation as memorials; Navy major caliber guns and ordnance; and shipboard materiel:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commander
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">ATTN: NAVSEA-OOD, NC
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Naval Sea Systems Command
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2531 Jefferson Davis Highway
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Arlington, VA 22242-5160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AIR FORCE:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Force aircraft, missiles or any other items authorized for donation for display purposes to a museum recipient:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NMUSAF/MUX
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1100 Spaatz St.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7102
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The USAF Museum operates a loan program only. Donations are not offered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any other Air Force item authorized for donation for display purposes (to recipients other than a museum):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">HQ AFMC/A4RM
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4375 Chidlaw Rd., Building 262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-5006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MARINE CORPS:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marine Corps assault amphibian vehicles (to recipients other than a museum):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commandant of the Marine Corps
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">ATTN: LPC-2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">HQ U.S. Marine Corps
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3000 Marine Corps, Pentagon, RM 2E211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Washington, DC 20350
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marine Corps historical property (all other inquiries):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commandant of the Marine Corps
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">ATTN: History and Museum Division (HD)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Marine Corps Historical Center
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1254 Charles Morris Street SE
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Coast Guard
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">For U. S. Coast Guard historical assets contact COMDT (CG-09224) at mail stop 7031:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commandant (CG-09224)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U. S. Coast Guard Headquarters, Douglas A. Munro Building
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Ave. South East, Stop 7031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Washington, DC 20593-7031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">For all other assets contact Commandant (CG-844) at mail stop 7618:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commandant (CG-844)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U. S. Coast Guard Headquarters, Douglas A. Munro Building
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue South East, Stop 7618
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Washington, DC 20593-7618</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(x) Record assets on property accountability records before they are loaned, donated, or exchanged.
</P>
<P>(xi) Coordinate with the DoS before a donation, loan, or exchange is formalized with a foreign museum.
</P>
<P>(xii) Ensure an official authorized to obligate the organization signs a certificate of assurance, as shown at Figure 3 of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.224.gif"/>
<P>(xiii) Ensure proper documentation is finalized in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 before the release of any property to an authorized recipient.
</P>
<P>(A) Use the standard loan agreement in the format prescribed by Figure 4 of this section or a similar document providing the same data for accomplishing property loans.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.225.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.226.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.227.gif"/>
<P>(B) Accomplish property donations made under this authority by use of the conditional deed of gift agreement in the format prescribed in Figure 5 of this section or a similar document providing the same data.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.228.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.229.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.230.gif"/>
<P>(C) Accomplish property exchanges made under this authority by use of the exchange agreement in the format prescribed in Figure 6 of this section or a similar document providing the same data. Items may not be exchanged until a determination is made that the item is not needed for operational requirements by another Military Department. If the council or similar staff review process considers it unlikely the item in question will be needed by another Military Department, screening may be omitted. A museum of one Military Department may not acquire for the purpose of exchanging historical items being screened by another Military Department museum.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.231.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.232.gif"/>
<P>(xiv) Avoid stockpiling condemned or obsolete combat materiel in anticipation of future exchanges. Items that cannot be exchanged within a 2-year period should be processed for disposal.
</P>
<P>(xv) Notify exchange recipients that the Department of Defense cannot certify aircraft, components, or parts as airworthy. Aircraft, components, or parts must be certified by the FAA as airworthy before being returned to flight usage. If available, logbooks and maintenance records for FSCAP must accompany the aircraft and FSCAP. If such documentation is not available, or if the aircraft or FSCAP have been crash-damaged or similarly compromised, the aircraft, components, or parts may not be exchanged, unless the FSCAP parts have been removed from the aircraft or component prior to the exchange. Waivers to this FSCAP documentation requirement may be considered on a case-by-case basis and are restricted to “display only” property (not parts); waivers will apply only to the exchange of the whole aircraft, aircraft engines, and aircraft components. The exchange agreement must explicitly cite the lack of documentation.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Consider any adverse market impact that may result from the exchange of certain items. The Military Department should consult with outside organizations for market impact advice, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Elect to donate property without conditions; for example, when the administrative costs to the Military Department to perform yearly checks would exceed the value of the property. Unconditional donations are restricted to books, manuscripts, works of art, drawings, plans and models, and historical artifacts valued at less than $10,000 that do not require DEMIL (see Figure 7 of this section).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.233.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.234.gif"/>
<P>(6) <I>Military departments loans of bedding.</I> Consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2557, the Secretary of a Military Department may provide bedding in support of homeless shelters that are operated by entities other than the Department of Defense. Bedding may be provided to the extent that the Secretary determines the donation will not interfere with military requirements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Army loans to veterans' organizations.</I> (i) The Department of the Army, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 4683, may loan to recognized veterans' organizations (or local units of national veterans' organizations recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs) obsolete or condemned rifles or cartridge belts for use by that unit for ceremonial purposes. Rifle loans to any one post, local unit, or municipality are limited by statute to not more than 10 rifles.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Army, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 4683 and Service-unique regulations prescribed by the Secretary, may conditionally lend or donate excess M-1 rifles (not more than 15), slings, and cartridge belts to any eligible organization for use by that organization for funeral ceremonies of a member or former member of the Military Services, and for other ceremonial purposes. If the loaned or donated properties under paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section are to be used by the eligible organizations for funeral ceremonies of a member or former member of the Military Services, the Secretary may issue and deliver the rifles, together with the necessary accoutrements and blank ammunition, without charge.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Navy loans and donations.</I> (i) The Secretary of the Navy, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7545, may donate or loan captured, condemned, or obsolete ordnance materiel, books, manuscripts, works of art, drawings, plans, models, trophies and flags, and other condemned or obsolete materiel, as well as materiel of historical interest. The Secretary of the Navy may donate this material to any State, territory, commonwealth, or possession of the United States and political subdivision or municipal corporation thereof, the District of Columbia, libraries, historical societies, and educational institutions whose graduates or students were in World War I or World War II.
</P>
<P>(A) Loans and donations made under this authority will be subject to the same guidelines for donations in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2572.
</P>
<P>(B) If materiel to be loaned or donated is of historic interest, the application will be forwarded through the Navy Curator.
</P>
<P>(C) Donations made under this authority must first be referred to the Congress.
</P>
<P>(D) Donations and loans made under 10 U.S.C. 7545 will be made with a conditional deed of gift (see Figure 5 of this section for sample wording).
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7306, the Secretary of the Navy, with approval of Congress, may donate obsolete, condemned, or captured Navy ships, boats, and small landing craft to the States, territories, or possessions of the United States, and political subdivisions or municipal corporations thereof, the District of Columbia, or to associations or corporations whose charter or articles of agreement denies them the right to operate for profit. The Navy restricts the use of donated vessels for use in static display purposes only (<I>i.e.,</I> as memorials or museums).
</P>
<P>(A) Applications for ships, boats, and small landing craft will be submitted to the Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command (NSEA 00DG), 2531 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22240-5160.
</P>
<P>(B) Before submission of an application, the applicant must locate obsolete, condemned, or captured Navy ships, boats, and small landing craft which are available for transfer.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each application will contain:
</P>
<P>(A) Type of vessel desired, or in the case of combatant vessels, the official Navy identification of the vessel desired.
</P>
<P>(B) Statement of the proposed use to be made of the vessel and where it will be located.
</P>
<P>(C) Statement describing and confirming availability of a berthing site and the facilities and personnel to maintain the vessel.
</P>
<P>(D) Statement that the applicant agrees to maintain the vessel, at its own expense, in a condition satisfactory to the Department of the Navy, in accordance with instructions that the Department may issue, and that no expense will result to the United States as a consequence of such terms and conditions prescribed by the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(E) Statement that the applicant agrees to take delivery of the vessel “as is, where is” at its berthing site and to pay all charges incident to such delivery, including without limitation preparation of the vessel for removal or tow, towing, insurance, and berthing or other installation at the applicant's site.
</P>
<P>(F) Statement of financial resources currently available to the applicant to pay the costs required to be assumed by a donee. The statement should include a summary of sources, annual income, and annual expenditures exclusive of the estimated costs attributable to the requested vessel to permit an evaluation of funds available for upkeep of the vessel. In the event the applicant will rely on commitments of donated services and materials for maintenance and use of the vessel, such commitments must be described in detail.
</P>
<P>(G) Statement that the applicant agrees that it will return the vessel, if and when requested to do so by the Department of the Navy, during a national emergency, and will not, without the written consent of the Department, use the vessel other than as stated in the application or destroy, transfer, or otherwise dispose of the vessel.
</P>
<P>(H) If the applicant asserts it is a corporation or association whose charter or articles of agreement denies it the right to operate for profit, their application must also contain a copy of the organization's bylaws and either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A properly authenticated copy of the charter.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Certificate of incorporation.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Articles of agreement made either by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The Secretary of State or other appropriate officials of the State under the laws where the applicant is incorporated.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Organized or other appropriate public official having custody of such charter, certificate or articles.
</P>
<P>(I) If the applicant is not incorporated, their application must also include the citation of the law and a certified copy of the association's charter stating it is empowered to hold property and to be bound by the acts of the proposed signatories to the donation agreement.
</P>
<P>(J) If the applicant is not a State, territory, or possession of the United States, a political subdivision or municipal corporation thereof, or the District of Columbia, the application must also include a copy of a determination by the Internal Revenue Service that the applicant is exempt from tax under the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(K) A notarized copy of the resolution or other action of its governing board or membership authorizing the person signing the application to represent the organization and to sign on its behalf to acquire a vessel.
</P>
<P>(L) A signed copy of the assurance of compliance.
</P>
<P>(M) A statement that the vessel will be used as a static display only as a memorial or museum and no system aboard the vessel will be activated or permitted to be activated for the purpose of navigation or movement under its own power.
</P>
<P>(N) A statement that the galley will not be activated for serving meals.
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon receipt, the Navy will determine the eligibility of the applicant to receive a vessel by donation. If eligible, the formal application will be processed and notice of intention to donate presented to the Congress as required by 10 U.S.C. 7306, provided the applicant has presented evidence satisfactory to the government that the applicant has adequate financial means to accomplish all of the obligations required under a donation contract. The Navy will have authority to donate only after the application has been before the Congress for a period of 60 days of continuous session without adverse action by the Congress in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7306.
</P>
<P>(v) All vessels, boats, and service craft, donated in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7306, will be used as static displays only for use as memorials and cannot be activated for the purpose of navigation or movement under its own power. Donations of vessels under any other authority of this section are subject to certain inspection and certification requirements. Applicants for vessels or service craft will be advised in writing by the office taking action on the applications that, should their request be approved and before operation of the vessel or service craft, one of the following stipulations will apply:
</P>
<P>(A) The donee agrees that if the vessel is 65 feet in length or less, it may not be operated without a valid certificate of inspection issued by the U.S. Coast Guard, while carrying more than six passengers, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 2101(21)(B).
</P>
<P>(B) The donee agrees that if the vessel is more than 65 feet in length, it may not be operated without a valid certificate of inspection issued by the U.S. Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(vi) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7546 and subject to the approval of the Navy Museum Curator, the nameplate or any small article of a negligible or sentimental value from a ship may be loaned or donated to any individual who sponsored that ship provided that such loan or donation will be at no expense to the Navy.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Donation of excess chapel property.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2580, the Secretary of a Military Department may donate excess personal property to religious organizations (as described in 26 U.S.C. 501), for the purposes of assisting such organizations in restoring or replacing property of the organization that has been damaged or destroyed as a result of arson or terrorism. The property authorized for donation will be limited to ecclesiastical equipment, furnishings and supplies that fall within FSC 9925, and furniture.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Disposition after use of special donations (gifts), loans, and exchanges.</I> (i) The requirements of the recipient organization are:
</P>
<P>(A) For materiel no longer desired or authorized for continued use by a recipient organization, the Military Department will advise the recipient organization if it wants to repossess the property. Regardless of the determination made, care will be taken to ensure the recipient organization fulfills its responsibility to finalize the disposition action at no cost to the government. Repossession of the property will be governed by the property's historical significance, its potential for use in behalf of other requests, or its estimated sale value, if sold by the Department of Defense. Repossession of property will be documented; copies of the documentation will be retained by the donee and lender.
</P>
<P>(B) Based on type of property, its location, etc., it is not always feasible to require the physical movement of the property to the nearest DLA Disposition Services site. In these cases, the owning Military Department may elect to work with DLA Disposition Services for receipt and sale in-place, when economically feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Return of property donated to the Navy is subject to the approval of the Curator for the Department of the Navy. Any article, materiel, or equipment, including silver service, loaned or donated to the naval service by any State, group, or organization may be returned to the lender or donee in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 7546. When the owner cannot be located after a reasonable search, or if, after being offered the property, the owner states in writing that the return of the property is not desired, the property will be disposed of in the same manner as other surplus property.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disaster assistance for States.</I> 42 U.S.C. chapter 68 allows for disaster assistance to States.
</P>
<P>(1) 42 U.S.C. chapter 68, also known and referred to in this rule as “The Stafford Act” authorizes federal assistance to States, local governments, and relief organizations. Upon declaration by the President of an emergency or a major disaster, under, the Stafford Act, the State receiving the declaration is notified immediately and a notice of the declaration is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
</P>
<P>(2) Excess personal property may be loaned to State and local governments for use or distribution for emergency or major disaster assistance purposes. Such uses may include the restoration of public facilities that have been damaged as well as the essential rehabilitation of individuals in need of major disaster assistance. The availability of Federal assistance under the Stafford Act is subject to the time periods prescribed in FEMA regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Academic institutions and non-profit organizations.</I> Educational partnership (or other) agreements may be established for the loan or donation of property.
</P>
<P>(1) Under an educational partnership (or other) agreement, and consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2194, the Secretary of Defense authorized the director of each defense laboratory to enter into one or more educational partnership agreements with U.S. educational institutions for the purpose of encouraging and enhancing study in scientific disciplines at all levels of education. The educational institutions will be local educational agencies, colleges, universities, and any other nonprofit institutions that are dedicated to improving science, mathematics, and engineering education. The point of contact is the DoD Technology Transfer Program Manager, Suite 1401 Two Skyline Place, 5203 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3466.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with 15 U.S.C. 3710(i), the director of a DoD laboratory may directly transfer (donate) laboratory (<I>e.g.,</I> scientific, research) equipment that is excess to the needs of that laboratory to public and private schools and nonprofit institutions in the U.S. zone of interior (ZI).
</P>
<P>(3) Determinations of property suitable for donation will be made by the head of the laboratory. Property will be screened within the DoD laboratory and scientific community prior to release.
</P>
<P>(4) Laboratories should be aware that some property might be environmentally regulated and, if exported, may require a U.S. DoS or Commerce export license, including certain circumstances where exports to foreign parties take place in the U.S. Moreover, some property may require DEMIL. Standard eligibility criteria must be ensured and a screening process for determining trade and security control risk are mandatory.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.9   Through-life traceability of uniquely identified items.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope</I>—(1) <I>Property accountability.</I> The accountability of property will be enabled by IUID for identification, tracking, and management in accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.64 and DoD Directive 8320.03, “Unique Identification (UID) Standards for a Net-Centric Department of Defense” (<I>http://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/UID/</I>
</P>
<FP>(<I>attachments/832003p1-20070420.pdf</I>). DoD Component heads post changes to the property records for all transactions as required (<I>e.g.,</I> loan, loss, damage, disposal, inventory adjustments, item modification, transfer, sale) pursuant to DoD Instruction 5000.64.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>IUID.</I> IUID provides a standards-based approach to establish a UII encoded in a machine-readable two-dimensional data matrix barcode that serves to distinguish a discrete item from other items. Qualifying items as defined by DoD Instruction 8320.04, “Item Unique Identification (IUID) Standards for Tangible Personal Property” (<I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/832004p.pdf</I>) will be marked with a two-dimensional Data Matrix barcode in accordance with Military Standard 130N, “Department of Defense Standard Practice Identification Marking of U.S. Military Property” (available at <I>http://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/pdi/uid/docs/mil-std130N_ch1.pdf</I>) and registered in the IUID Registry.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Identification marking of U.S. military property.</I> Military Standard 130N provides the item marking criteria for development of specific marking requirements and methods for identification of items of military property produced, stocked, stored, and issued by or for the DoD. It also provides the criteria and data content for both free text and machine-readable information applications of item identification two-dimensional data matrix marking and includes the IUID requirements of DoD Instruction 8320.04.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Registration of UIIs.</I> Enclosure 3 of DoD Instruction 8320.04 provides procedures for the registration of UIIs in the DoD IUID Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updating the DoD IUID Registry</I>—(1) <I>Obtaining user access.</I> Authorized Government users may add items, update, and add events to existing items. Generating activities and DLA Disposal Services can register for access by following the instructions for the Business Partner Network Support Environment Registration System at <I>https://iuid.logisticsinformationservice.dla.mil/BRS</I>.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Life-cycle events for materiel disposition.</I> When an item leaves DoD inventory, its status, or life-cycle event, must be changed in the DoD IUID. A drop-down menu in the registry contains the possible life-cycle events: abandoned, consumed, destroyed by accident, destroyed by combat, donated, exchanged—repair, exchanged—sold, exchanged—warranty, expended—experimental/target, expended—normal use, leased, loaned, lost, reintroduced, retired, scrapped, sold—foreign government, sold—historic, sold—nongovernment, sold—other federal, sold—state/local, and stolen.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Updating procedures.</I> When an item that is marked with a UII enters the materiel disposition process through a transfer between Components or if the item leaves DoD inventory, an update to the IUID Registry is required. Procedures for performing required updates to the IUID Registry can be found in the IUID registry user manual available at <I>https://iuid.logisticsinformationservice.dla.mil</I>.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reutilization, Transfer, and Sale of Property</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.10   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is composed of several subparts, each containing its own purpose. In accordance with the authority in DoD Directive 5134.12, “Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR)),” DoD Instruction 4140.01, “DoD Supply Chain Materiel Management Policy,” and DoD Instruction 4160.28, “DoD Demilitarization (DEMIL) Program,” this part establishes the sequence of processes for the disposition of personal property of the DoD Components.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Implements policy for reutilization, transfer, excess property screening, and issue of surplus property and foreign excess personal property (FEPP), scrap released by qualified recycling programs (QRPs), and non-QRP scrap.
</P>
<P>(2) Provides guidance for removing excess material through security assistance programs and foreign military sales (FMS).
</P>
<P>(3) Provides detailed instructions for the sale of surplus property and FEPP, scrap released by QRPs, and non-QRP scrap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.11   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereinafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102, also known as the Federal Property Management Regulation and Federal Management Regulation (FPMR and FMR), and 40 U.S.C. subtitle I, also known as the Federal Property and Administrative Services, take precedence over this part if a procedural conflict exists.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, these terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Abandonment and destruction (A/D).</I> A method for handling property that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is abandoned and a diligent effort to determine the owner is unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(2) Is uneconomical to repair or the estimated costs of the continued care and handling of the property exceeds the estimated proceeds of sale.
</P>
<P>(3) Has an estimated cost of disposal by A/D that is less than the net sales cost.
</P>
<P><I>Accountability.</I> The obligation imposed by law, lawful order, or regulation accepted by a person for keeping accurate records to ensure control of property, documents, or funds with or without possession of the property. The person who is accountable is concerned with control, while the person who has possession is responsible for custody, care, and safekeeping.
</P>
<P><I>Accountable officer.</I> The individual responsible for acquiring and maintaining DoD items of supply (physical property and records), approving property orders (including reutilization of excess property requests), and authenticating materiel release orders (MROs). Comparative terms are: Army Supply Support Accountable Officer, Navy Accountable Officer, Air Force Accountable Officer/Chief of Supply Materiel Support Division, Marine Corps Unit Supply Officer.
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition cost.</I> The amount paid for property, including transportation costs, net any trade and cash discounts. Also see standard price.
</P>
<P><I>Ammunition.</I> Generic term related mainly to articles of military application consisting of all kinds of bombs, grenades, rockets, mines, projectiles, and other similar devices or contrivances.
</P>
<P><I>Batchlot.</I> The physical grouping of individual receipts of low-dollar-value property. The physical grouping consolidates multiple disposal turn-in documents (DTIDs) under a single cover DTID. The objective of batchlotting is to reduce the time and costs related to physical handling and administrative processes required for receiving items individually. The cover DTID establishes accountability in the accountable record, and individual line items lose their identity.
</P>
<P><I>Bid.</I> A response to an offer to sell, that, if accepted, would bind the bidder to the terms and conditions of the contract (including the bid price).
</P>
<P><I>Bidder.</I> Any entity that is responding to or has responded to an offer to sell.
</P>
<P><I>Commerce control list (CCL) items (formerly known as strategic list item).</I> Commodities, software, and technology subject to export controls in accordance with Export Administration Regulations (EAR) in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774. The EAR contains the CCL and is administered by the Bureau of Industry and Security, DOC.
</P>
<P><I>Component.</I> An item that is useful only when used in conjunction with an end item. Components are also commonly referred to as assemblies. For purposes of this definition an assembly and a component are the same. There are two types of “components: Major components and minor components. A major component includes any assembled element which forms a portion of an end item without which the end item is inoperable. For example, for an automobile, components will include the engine, transmission, and battery. If you do not have all those items, the automobile will not function, or function as effectively. A minor component includes any assembled element of a major component. Components” consist of parts. References in the CCL to components include both major components and minor components.
</P>
<P><I>Continental United States (CONUS).</I> Territory, including the adjacent territorial waters, located within the North American continent between Canada and Mexico (comprises 48 States and the District of Columbia).
</P>
<P><I>Contractor inventory.</I> (1) Any property acquired by and in the possession of a contractor or subcontractor (including Government-furnished property) under a contract, terms of which vest title in the U.S. Government (USG) and in excess of the amounts needed to complete full performance under the entire contract.
</P>
<P>(2) Any property for which the USG is obligated to or has an option to take over under any type of contract resulting from changes in the specifications or plans or termination of such contract (or subcontract) before completion of the work, for the convenience of or at the option of the USG.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Disposition Services.</I> The organization provides DoD with worldwide reuse, recycling and disposal solutions that focus on efficiency, cost avoidance and compliance.
</P>
<P><I>DLA Disposition Services site.</I> The DLA Disposition Services office that has accountability for and control over disposable property. May be managed in part by a commercial contractor. The term is applicable whether the disposal facility is on a commercial site or a Government installation and applies to both Government and contractor employees performing the disposal mission.
</P>
<P><I>Demilitarization (DEMIL) Code A.</I> DEMIL not required.
</P>
<P><I>DEMIL.</I> The act of eliminating the functional capabilities and inherent military design features from DoD personal property. Methods and degree range from removal and destruction of critical features to total destruction by cutting, crushing, shredding, melting, burning, etc. DEMIL is required to prevent property from being used for its originally intended purpose and to prevent the release of inherent design information that could be used against the United States. DEMIL applies to material in both serviceable and unserviceable condition.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal.</I> End-of-life tasks or actions for residual materials resulting from demilitarization or disposition operations.
</P>
<P><I>Disposition.</I> The process of reusing, recycling, converting, redistributing, transferring, donating, selling, demilitarizing, treating, destroying, or fulfilling other end of life tasks or actions for DoD property. Does not include real (real estate) property.
</P>
<P><I>Diversion.</I> Includes collection, separation, and processing of material for use as raw material in the manufacture of goods sold or distributed in commerce or the reuse of material as substitutes for goods made of virgin material.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Activity Address Code (DoDAAC).</I> A 6-digit code assigned by the Defense Automatic Addressing System (DAAS) to provide a standardized address code system for identifying activities and for use in transmission of supply and logistics information that supports the movement of property.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Item Unique Identification (IUID) Registry.</I> The DoD data repository that receives input from both industry and Government sources and provides storage of, and access to, data that identifies and describes tangible Government personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Donation.</I> The act of providing surplus personal property at no charge to a qualified donation recipient, as allocated by the General Services Administration (GSA).
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution.</I> An approved, accredited, or licensed public or nonprofit institution or facility, entity, or organization conducting educational programs, including research for any such programs, such as a childcare center, school, college, university, school for the mentally handicapped, school for the physically handicapped, or an educational radio or television station.
</P>
<P><I>End of screening date.</I> The date when formal reutilization, transfer, and donation screening time expires.
</P>
<P><I>Estimated fair market value.</I> The selling agency's best estimate of what the property would be sold for if offered for public sale.
</P>
<P><I>Excess personal property.</I> (1) <I>Domestic excess.</I> Personal property that the United States and its territories and possessions, applicable to areas covered by GSA (<I>i.e.,</I> the 50 States, District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, Northern Mariana Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Marshall Islands, Palau, and the U.S. Virgin Islands), consider excess to the needs and mission requirements of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>DoD Component excess.</I> Items of DoD Component owned property that are not required for their needs and the discharge of their responsibilities as determined by the head of the Service or Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign excess personal property (FEPP).</I> U.S.-owned excess personal property that is located outside the ZI. This property becomes surplus and is eligible for donation and sale as described in § 273.15(b).
</P>
<P><I>Federal civilian agency (FCA).</I> Any non-defense executive agency (<I>e.g.</I> DoS, Department of Homeland Security) or any establishment in the legislative or judicial branch of the USG (except the Senate, the House of Representatives, and the Architect of the Capitol and any activities under his or her direction).
</P>
<P><I>Federal condition code.</I> A two-digit code consisting of an alphabet supply condition code in the first digit, and a numeric or alphabet disposal condition code (DCC) in the second digit. A combination of the supply condition code and the DCC, which most accurately describes the materiel's physical condition.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disposal condition code (DCC).</I> Codes assigned by the DLA Disposition Services site based upon inspection of materiel at time of receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supply condition codes.</I> Codes used to classify materiel in terms of readiness for issue and use or to identify action underway to change the status of materiel. These codes are assigned by the DoD Components. DLA Disposition Services may change a supply condition code if the code was assigned improperly and the property is of a non-technical nature. If change is not appropriate or property is of a technical nature, DLA Disposition Services sites may challenge a suspicious supply condition code.
</P>
<P><I>FEPP.</I> See excess personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign military sales (FMS).</I> A process through which eligible foreign governments and international organizations may purchase defense articles and services from the USG. A government-to-government agreement, documented in accordance with DoD 5105.38-M.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign purchased property.</I> Property paid for by foreign countries, but where ownership is retained by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Generating activity (“generator”).</I> The activity that declares personal property excess to its needs.
</P>
<P><I>Government furnished equipment.</I> An item of special tooling, special test equipment, or equipment, in the possession of, or directly acquired by, the Government and subsequently furnished to the contractor for the performance of a contract.
</P>
<P><I>Government furnished materiel.</I> Property provided by the U.S. Government for the purpose of being incorporated into or attached to a deliverable end item or that will be consumed or expended in performing a contract. Government-furnished materiel includes assemblies, components, parts, raw and process material, and small tools and supplies that may be consumed in normal use in performing a contract. Government-furnished materiel does not include material provided to contractors on a cash-sale basis nor does it include military property, which are government-owned components, contractor acquired property, government furnished equipment, or major end items being repaired by commercial contractors for return to the government.
</P>
<P><I>GSAXcess®.</I> A totally web-enabled platform that eligible customers use to access functions of GSAXcess® for reporting, searching, and selecting property. This includes the entry site for the Federal Excess Personal Property Utilization Program and the Federal Surplus Personal Property Donation Program operated by the GSA.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous property (HP).</I> A composite term to describe DoD excess property, surplus property, and FEPP, which may be hazardous to human health, human safety, or the environment. Various Federal, State, and local safety and environmental laws regulate the use and disposal of HP. In more technical terms, HP includes property having one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a flashpoint below 200 °F (93 °C) closed cup, or is subject to spontaneous heating or is subject to polymerization with release of large amounts of energy when handled, stored, and shipped without adequate control.
</P>
<P>(2) Has a threshold limit value equal to or below 1,000 parts per million for gases and vapors, below 500 milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) for fumes, and equal to or less than 30 million particles per cubic foot or 10 mg/m
<SU>3</SU> for dusts (less than or equal to 2.0 fibers per cubic centimeter greater than 5 micrometers in length for fibrous materials).
</P>
<P>(3) Causes 50 percent fatalities to test animals when a single oral dose is administered in doses of less than 500 mg per kilogram of test animal weight.
</P>
<P>(4) Is a flammable solid as defined in 49 CFR 173.124, or is an oxidizer as defined in 49 CFR 173.127, or is a strong oxidizing or reducing agent with a half cell potential in acid solution of greater than +1.0 volt as specified in Latimer's table on the oxidation-reduction potential.
</P>
<P>(5) Causes first-degree burns to skin in short-time exposure or is systematically toxic by skin contact.
</P>
<P>(6) May produce dust, gases, fumes, vapors, mists, or smoke with one or more of the characteristics in the course of normal operations.
</P>
<P>(7) Produces sensitizing or irritating effects.
</P>
<P>(8) Is radioactive.
</P>
<P>(9) Has special characteristics which, in the opinion of the manufacturer, could cause harm to personnel if used or stored improperly.
</P>
<P>(10) Is hazardous in accordance with 29 CFR part 1910, also known as the Occupational Safety and Health Standards.
</P>
<P>(11) Is hazardous in accordance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 179.
</P>
<P>(12) Is regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency in accordance with 40 CFR parts 260 through 280.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste (HW).</I> An item that is regulated pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6901 or by State regulation as an HW. HW is defined federally at 40 CFR part 261. Overseas, HW is defined in the applicable final governing standards or overseas environmental baseline guidance document, or host nation laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Identical bid.</I> Bids for the same item of property having the same total price.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial scrap.</I> Consists of short ends, machinings, spoiled materials, and similar residue generated by an industrial-funded activity.
</P>
<P><I>Information technology.</I> Any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission or reception of data or information by the DoD Component. Includes computers, ancillary equipment, software, firmware, and similar procedures, services (including support services), and related sources. Does not include any equipment that is acquired by a Federal contractor incidental to a Federal contract. Equipment is “used” by a DoD Component if the equipment is used by the DoD Component directly or is used by a contractor under a contract with the DoD Component that:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires the use of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the use to a significant extent of such equipment in the performance of a service or the furnishing of a product.
</P>
<P><I>Installation.</I> A military facility together with its buildings, building equipment, and subsidiary facilities such as piers, spurs, access roads, and beacons.
</P>
<P><I>International organizations.</I> For trade security control purposes, this term includes: Columbo Plan Council for Technical Cooperation in South and Southeast Asia; European Atomic Energy Community; Indus Basin Development; International Atomic Energy; International Red Cross; NATO; Organization of American States; Pan American Health Organization; United Nations (UN); UN Children's Fund; UN Development Program; UN Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization; UN High Commissioner for Refugees Programs; UN Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East; World Health Organization; and other international organizations approved by a U.S. diplomatic mission.
</P>
<P><I>Interservice.</I> Action by one Military Department or Defense Agency ICP to provide materiel and directly related services to another Military Department or Defense Agency ICP (either on a recurring or nonrecurring basis).
</P>
<P><I>Inventory adjustments.</I> Changes made in inventory quantities and values resulting from inventory recounts and validations.
</P>
<P><I>Inventory control point (ICP).</I> An organizational unit or activity within the DoD supply system that is assigned the primary responsibility for the materiel management of a group of items either for a particular Military Department or for the DoD as a whole. In addition to materiel manager functions, an ICP may perform other logistics functions in support of a particular Military Department or for a particular end item (<I>e.g.,</I> centralized computation of retail requirements levels and engineering tasks associated with weapon system components).
</P>
<P><I>Item unique identification (IUID).</I> A system of establishing globally widespread unique identifiers on items of supply within the DoD, which serves to distinguish a discrete entity or relationship from other like and unlike entities or relationships. Automatic identification technology is used to capture and communicate IUID information.
</P>
<P><I>Law enforcement agencies (LEAs).</I> Government agencies whose primary function is the enforcement of applicable Federal, State, and local laws, and whose compensated law enforcement officers have powers of arrest and apprehension.
</P>
<P><I>Local screening.</I> The onsite review of excess, surplus, and FEPP for reutilization, transfer, and donation.
</P>
<P><I>MAP property.</I> U.S. security assistance property provided under 22 U.S.C.2151, also known as the Foreign Assistance Act, generally on a non-reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P><I>Marketing.</I> The function of directing the flow of surplus and FEPP to the buyer, encompassing all related aspects of merchandising, market research, sale promotion, advertising, publicity, and selling.
</P>
<P><I>Material potentially presenting an explosive hazard (MPPEH).</I> Material owned or controlled by the Department of Defense that, prior to determination of its explosives safety status, potentially contains explosives or munitions (<I>e.g.,</I> munitions containers and packaging material; munitions debris remaining after munitions use, demilitarization, or disposal; and range-related debris) or potentially contains a high enough concentration of explosives that the material presents an explosive hazard (<I>e.g.,</I> equipment, drainage systems, holding tanks, piping, or ventilation ducts that were associated with munitions production, demilitarization, or disposal operations). Excluded from MPPEH are munitions within the DoD-established munitions management system and other items that may present explosion hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> gasoline cans and compressed gas cylinders) that are not munitions and are not intended for use as munitions.
</P>
<P><I>Munitions list item (MLI).</I> Any item contained on the USML in 22 CFR part 121. Defense articles, associated technical data (including software), and defense services recorded or stored in any physical form, controlled by 22 CFR parts 120 through 130. 22 CFR part 121, which contains the USML, is administered by the DoS Directorate of Defense Trade Controls.
</P>
<P><I>Museum, DoD or Service.</I> An appropriated fund entity that is a permanent activity with a historical collection, open to both the military and civilian public at regularly scheduled hours, and is in the care of a professional qualified staff that performs curatorial and related historical duties full time.
</P>
<P><I>Mutilation.</I> A process that renders materiel unfit for its originally intended purposes by cutting, tearing, scratching, crushing, breaking, punching, shearing, burning, neutralizing, etc.
</P>
<P><I>National stock number (NSN).</I> The 13-digit stock number replacing the 11-digit federal stock number. It consists of the 4-digit federal supply classification code and the 9-digit national item identification number. The national item identification number consists of a 2-digit National Codification Bureau number designating the central cataloging office (whether North Atlantic Treaty Organization or other friendly country) that assigned the number and a 7-digit (xxx-xxxx) nonsignificant number. Arrange the number as follows: 9999-00-999-9999.
</P>
<P><I>Nonappropriated funds (NAF).</I> Funds generated by DoD military and civilian personnel and their dependents and used to augment funds appropriated by Congress to provide a comprehensive, morale building, welfare, religious, educational, and recreational program, designed to improve the well-being of military and civilian personnel and their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>NAF property.</I> Property purchased with NAFs, by religious activities or nonappropriated morale welfare or recreational activities, post exchanges, ships stores, officer and noncommissioned officer clubs, and similar activities. Such property is not Federal property.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit institution.</I> An institution or organization, no part of the net earnings of which inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and which has been held to be tax exempt under the provisions of 26 U.S.C. 501, also known as the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P><I>Personal property.</I> Property except real property. Excludes records of the Federal Government, battleships, cruisers, aircraft carriers, destroyers, and submarines.
</P>
<P><I>Precious metals recovery program (PMRP).</I> A DoD program for identification, accumulation, recovery, and refinement of precious metals (PM) from excess and surplus end items, scrap, hypo solution, and other PM bearing materiel for authorized internal purposes or as Government furnished materiel.
</P>
<P><I>Precious metals (PM).</I> Gold, silver, and the platinum group metals (platinum, palladium, iridium, rhodium, osmium, and ruthenium).
</P>
<P><I>Privately owned personal property.</I> Personal effects of DoD personnel (military or civilian) that are not, nor will ever become, government property unless the owner (or heirs, next of kin, or legal representative of the owner) executes a written and signed release document unconditionally giving the USG all right, title, and interest in the privately owned property.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified recycling programs (QRP).</I> Organized operations that require concerted efforts to cost effectively divert or recover scrap or waste, as well as efforts to identify, segregate, and maintain the integrity of recyclable material to maintain or enhance its marketability. If administered by a DoD Component, a QRP includes adherence to a control process providing accountability for all materials processed through program operations.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material.</I> Any material or combination of materials that spontaneously emits ionizing radiation and which is subject to regulation as radioactive or nuclear material under any Federal law or regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Reclamation.</I> A cost avoidance or savings measure to recover useful (serviceable) end items, repair parts, components, or assemblies from one or more principal end items of equipment or assemblies (usually Supply condition codes (SCCs), H, P, and R) for the purpose of restoration to use through replacement or repair of one or more unserviceable, but repairable principal end item of equipment or assemblies (usually SCCs E, F, and G). Reclamation is preferable prior to disposition (<I>e.g.,</I> DLA Disposition Services site turn-in), but end items or assemblies may be withdrawn from DLA Disposition Services site for reclamation purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Responsibility criteria.</I> The situations outlined in 41 CFR chapter 102 that require some certifications from buyers; either that the buyer knows they need to take care of the property because of its characteristics, or because the buyer must meet certain professional or licensing criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Responsive bid.</I> A bid that meets all the terms, conditions, and specifications necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted parties.</I> Those countries or entities that the Department of State (DoS), Department of Commerce (DOC), or Treasury have determined to be prohibited or sanctioned for the purpose of export, sale, transfer, or resale of items controlled on the United States Munitions List (USML) or CCL. A consolidated list of prohibited entities or destinations for which transfers may be limited or barred, may be found at: <I>http://export.gov/ecr/eg_main_023148.asp.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Reutilization.</I> The act of re-issuing FEPP and excess property to DoD Components. Also includes qualified special programs (<I>e.g.,</I> LEA, Humanitarian Assistance Program (HAP), Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)) pursuant to applicable enabling statutes.
</P>
<P><I>Reutilization screening.</I> The act of reviewing, either by automated or physical means, available FEPP, excess or surplus personal property to meet known or anticipated requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Sales contract.</I> An agreement between two parties, binding upon both, to transfer title of specified property for a consideration.
</P>
<P><I>Sales contracting officer (SCO).</I> An individual who has been duly appointed and granted the authority conferred by law according to the procedures in this part to sell surplus and FEPP by any of the authorized and prescribed methods of sale. Also referred to as the SAR.
</P>
<P><I>Scrap.</I> Recyclable waste and discarded materials derived from items that have been rendered useless beyond repair, rehabilitation, or restoration such that the item's original identity, utility, form, fit and function have been destroyed. Items can be classified as scrap if processed by cutting, tearing, crushing, mangling, shredding, or melting. Intact or recognizable USML or CCL items, components, and parts are not scrap. 41 CFR 102-36.40 provides additional information on scrap.
</P>
<P><I>Screening.</I> The process of physically inspecting property or reviewing lists or reports of property to determine whether it is usable or needed.
</P>
<P><I>Screening period.</I> The period in which excess and surplus personal property is made available for reutilization, transfer, or surplus donation to eligible recipients.
</P>
<P><I>Security assistance.</I> A group of programs, authorized by law, that allows the transfer of military articles and services to friendly foreign governments.
</P>
<P><I>Small arms and light weapons.</I> Man-portable weapons made or modified to military specifications for use as lethal instruments of war that expel a shot, bullet, or projectile by action of an explosive. Small arms are broadly categorized as those weapons intended for use by individual members of armed or security forces. They include handguns; rifles and carbines; sub-machine guns; and light machine guns. Light weapons are broadly categorized as those weapons designed for use by two or three members of armed or security forces serving as a crew, although some may be used by a single person. They include heavy machine guns; hand-held under-barrel and mounted grenade launchers; portable anti-aircraft guns; portable anti-tank guns; recoilless rifles; man-portable launchers of missile and rocket systems; and mortars.
</P>
<P><I>Solid waste.</I> Includes garbage, refuse, and other discarded materials, including solid waste materials resulting from industrial, commercial, and agricultural operations, and from community activities. Includes solids, liquid, semi-solid or contained gaseous material which is discarded and not otherwise excluded by statute or regulation. Mining and agricultural solid wastes, hazardous wastes (HW), sludge, construction and demolition wastes, and infectious wastes are not included in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Special programs.</I> Programs specified by legislative approval, such as FMS, LEAs and fire fighters, identified on DLA Disposition Services Web site (<I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/rtd03/miscprograms.shtml</I>).
</P>
<P><I>State agency for surplus property (SASP).</I> The agency designated under State law to receive Federal surplus personal property for distribution to eligible donation recipients within the States as provided for in 40 U.S.C. 549.
</P>
<P><I>State or local government.</I> A State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, and any political subdivision or instrumentality thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer.</I> The act of providing FEPP and excess personal property to FCAs as stipulated in the FMR. Property is allocated by the GSA.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer order.</I> Document (SF 122 and SF 123) issued by DLA Disposition Services or the headquarters or regional office of GSA directing issue of excess personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Trade security control (TSCs).</I> Policy and procedures, in accordance with DoD Instruction 2030.08, designed to prevent the sale or shipment of USG materiel to any person, organization, or country whose interests are unfriendly or hostile to those of the United States and to ensure that the disposal of DoD personal property is performed in compliance with U.S. export control laws and regulations, the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) in 22 CFR parts 120 through 130, and the EAR in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774.
</P>
<P><I>Unique item identifier (UII).</I> A set of data elements marked on an item that is globally unique and unambiguous. The term includes a concatenated UII or a DoD recognized unique identification equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Usable property.</I> Commercial and military type property other than scrap and waste.
</P>
<P><I>Wash-post.</I> A methodology for transfer of accountability to the DLA Disposition Services site whereby the DLA Disposition Services site only accepts accountability at the time they also document a release from the account, through reutilization, transfer, donation, sales, or disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Zone of interior (ZI).</I> The United States and its territories and possessions, applicable to areas covered by GSA and where excess property is considered domestic excess. Includes the 50 States, District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.13   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy consistent with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 that excess DoD property must be screened and redistributed among the DoD Components, and reported as excess to the GSA. Pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 701, DoD will efficiently and economically dispose DoD FEPP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.14   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR)), under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(AT&amp;L), and in accordance with DoD Directive 5134.12:
</P>
<P>(1) Develops DoD materiel disposition policies, including policies for FEPP.
</P>
<P>(2) Oversees the effective implementation of the DoD materiel disposition program.
</P>
<P>(3) Approves changes to FEPP procedures as appropriate to support contingency operations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, through the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Logistics and Materiel Readiness (ASD(L&amp;MR)):
</P>
<P>(1) Administers the worldwide Defense Materiel Disposition Program for the reutilization, transfer, screening, issue, and sale of FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property.
</P>
<P>(2) Implements guidance issued by the ASD(L&amp;MR) or other organizational elements of the OSD and establishes system concepts and requirements, resource management, program guidance, budgeting and funding, training and career development, management review and analysis, internal control measures, and crime prevention for the Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(3) Annually provides to ASD(L&amp;MR) a summary of sales proceeds from recycling transactions in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2577.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures prompt processing of monthly sales proceeds under the QRP to DoD Components for reconciliation of sales proceeds and transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) The DoD Component Heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the procedures prescribed in this subpart and ensure that supplemental guidance and procedures are in accordance with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102.
</P>
<P>(2) Reutilize, transfer, screen, issue and sell FEPP, excess and surplus personal property according to the procedures in § 273.15(a) and (c).
</P>
<P>(3) Treat the disposal of DoD property as an integral part of DoD Supply Chain Management; ensure that disposal actions and costs are a part of “end-to-end” management of items and that disposal of property is a planned event at all levels of their organizations.
</P>
<P>(4) Furnish the Director, DLA, with mutually agreed-upon data necessary to administer the Defense Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide administrative and logistics support, including appropriate facilities, for the operations of tenant and related off-site DLA Disposition Services field activities under inter-Service support agreements (ISSAs).
</P>
<P>(6) Dispose HP specifically designated as requiring Military Department processing.
</P>
<P>(7) Request DLA Disposition Services provide sales services, as needed, for recyclable marketable materials generated as a result of resource recovery programs.
</P>
<P>(8) Monitor, with DLA Disposition Services Site personnel, all property sent to landfills to ensure no economically salable property is discarded.
</P>
<P>(9) Report, accurately identify on approved turn in documents, and turn in all authorized scrap generations to servicing DLA Disposition Services Sites.
</P>
<P>(10) Authorize installation commanders, as appropriate, to sell directly recyclable and other QRP materials, or to consign them to the DLA Disposition Services for sale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 273.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.52.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 273.15   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sale of surplus and FEPP, scrap generated from QRPS, and non-QRP scrap</I>—(1) <I>Authority and scope</I>—(i) <I>FPMR and FMR.</I> The provisions of this section are pursuant to 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102, also known as the FPMR and FMR, respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional guidance.</I> (A) Policy and procedures for the control of MLIs and Commerce Control List (CCL) items are contained in DoD Instruction 4160.28, DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, DoD Instruction 4140.62, “Materiel Potentially Presenting an Explosive Hazard” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/414062p.pdf</I>), the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) in 22 CFR parts 120 through 130, and the EAR in 15 CFR parts 730 through 774, and incorporated in the provisions of DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(B) 31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E provides an additional statutory requirement applicable to the sale of personal property.
</P>
<P>(C) 48 CFR part 33 provide additional guidance on handling disputes from the sale of personal property.
</P>
<P>(D) 48 CFR subpart 9.4 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), current edition, provides direction on the debarment or suspension of individuals or entities.
</P>
<P>(E) Sales of FEPP, although briefly addressed in the FMR, are managed by the agency head and must be in compliance with foreign policy of the United States and the terms and conditions of any applicable host-nation agreement. For additional information on processing FEPP, see Enclosure 4 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2.
</P>
<P>(F) DoD Directive 3230.3, “DoD Support for Commercial Space Launch Activities” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/323003p.pdf</I>) allows the sale of dedicated expendable launch vehicle (ELV) equipment directly to commercial ELV vendors in consultation with the Secretary of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> This subpart does not govern the sale of property that is regulated by the laws or agencies identified in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section. The information in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iv) is included for the DoD Components to reference when commodities in their possession become excess and disposal requires compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The Strategic and Critical Materials Stock Piling Act (50 U.S.C. 98 <I>et seq.</I>) provides for the acquisition, disposal (sale) and retention of stocks of certain strategic and critical materials and encourages the conservation and development of sources of such materials within the United States. These materials when acquired and stored constitute and are collectively known as the National Defense Stockpile (NDS) or the “stockpile.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department of Transportation Maritime Administration has jurisdiction over the disposal of vessels of 1,500 gross tons or more that the Secretary of Transportation determines to be merchant vessels or capable of conversion to merchant use, excluding specified combatant vessels.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2576, the Secretary of Defense may sell designated items (such as pistols, revolvers, shotguns, rifles of a caliber not exceeding .30, ammunition for such firearms, and other appropriate equipment) to State and local law enforcement, firefighting, homeland security, and emergency management agencies, at fair market value if the designated items:
</P>
<P>(A) Have been determined to be surplus property.
</P>
<P>(B) Are certified as being necessary and suitable for the operation and exclusive use of such agency by the Governor (or such State official as he or she may designate) of the State in which such agency is located.
</P>
<P>(C) Do not include used gas masks and any protective body armor.
</P>
<P>(iv) DLA Disposition Services provides a sales service to the DoD pursuant to the exchange or sale according to the procedures in DoD Manual 4140.01 that implement the authority in 41 CFR part 102-39; however, general and specific provisions through this method of sale are not addressed in this subpart. More information may be obtained from the DLA Disposition Services Exchange Sale Web site at <I>http://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/sales/typesale.shtml.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sales of surplus property, FEPP, scrap generated by QRPs, and other scrap.</I> (i) DLA Disposition Services is the primary agency for managing surplus and FEPP sales, to include sales of scrap released by Military Department QRPs and non-QRP scrap.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD Components are responsible for disposing of surplus property, FEPP, scrap released by QRPs, and other scrap through sales to the general public and State and local governments through execution of an awarded contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Military Departments are authorized to sell eligible scrap released by their respective QRPs and non-excess property eligible for exchange or sale without the involvement of DLA Disposition Services in accordance with their internal operating guidance, DoD Manual 4140.01, and 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102.
</P>
<P>(iv) DoD Components advertise excess and surplus personal property for sale only after all prescribed screening actions are taken, unless screening is not required. See DoD Manual 4160.21 Volume 4 for exempt items.
</P>
<P>(v) Sales actions include planning, merchandising, pre-award reviews, bid evaluation and award, contract administration, proceeds receipt and disbursement, and releasing the property.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information on surplus and FEPP sales can be obtained from the DLA Customer Contact Center, accessible 24 hours a day, 7 days a week on the DLA Disposition Services Government Sales Web site at <I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/sales/index.shtml</I>.
</P>
<P>(vii) Within the CONUS, DLA Disposition Services has partnered with a commercial firm to sell usable, non-hazardous surplus demilitarization (DEMIL) Code A and safe to sell Q property that is not reutilized, transferred, or donated. The commercial venture partner schedules and holds sales of property released to it by DLA Disposition Services. DLA Disposition Services has partnered with a commercial firm to sell scrap property. The scrap venture partner schedules and holds sales of scrap property released to it by DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(viii) DLA Disposition Services conducts the balance of surplus and FEPP sales. This includes hazardous and chemical sales and DEMIL- and mutilation-required property and scrap sales in controlled property groups.
</P>
<P>(A) DoD Components implement controls to mitigate security risks associated with the release or disposition of DEMIL Code B MLI and DEMIL Code Q CCL items that are sensitive for reasons of national security. Certain categories of DEMIL Q items that pose no risk to national security will be available for reutilization, transfer, or donation (RTD) and sales following normal procedures. However, only FEPP with DEMIL Code A (no export license requirements except to restricted parties) may be sold in foreign countries that are not restricted parties, in accordance with 15 CFR parts 730 through 774. DEMIL B and DEMIL Q items, including those posing no risk to national security are not permitted for sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DEMIL B and sensitive DEMIL Q property can only be reutilized by authorized DoD Components, and approved Special Programs (FMS, law enforcement agencies (LEAs) and fire fighters).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After DLA Disposition Services conducts initial screening, serviceable DEMIL B and sensitive DEMIL Q property will be transferred to a long term storage (LTS) facility and will remain available for reutilization screening by DoD and approved Special Programs customers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) LTS property can be screened electronically on the DLA Disposition Services Web site at <I>https://www.DispositionServices.dla.mil/asset/govegeo1.html</I>. No physical screening is permitted at the LTS facility.
</P>
<P>(B) DoD Components may offer for sale any property designated as unsafe for use as originally intended, with mutilation as a condition of sale. DoD Components incorporate the method and degree of mutilation into the sales offering, as required by an official notification of the safety defects. The sales offering must include a condition of sale stipulating that title of the property cannot pass from the Government to the purchaser until DoD representatives have certified and verified the mutilation has been satisfactorily accomplished and have documented this certification.
</P>
<P>(C) SCC Q materiel with Management Code S (as defined in DLM 4000.25-1 is hazardous to public health, safety, or national security. If sold, it must require mutilation as a condition of sale. Property assigned SCC Q with Management Code O may be offered for sale without mutilation as a condition of sale, but the seller must ensure that all sales include a restrictive resale provision. In addition, any sales offerings must indicate that the restrictive resale provision is to be perpetuated to all future sales to deter reentry of the materiel to the DoD supply system.
</P>
<P>(D) Hazardous property may be offered for sale with appropriate terms and conditions. Prior to award, DoD Components conduct a pre-award review to determine whether the prospective purchaser meets the responsibility criteria in 41 CFR chapter 102. The prospective purchaser must display the ability to comply with applicable laws and regulations before the DoD Components can make an award.
</P>
<P>(E) Only FEPP with DEMIL Code A (no export control requirements except to restricted parties) may be offered for sale in foreign countries that are not restricted parties in accordance with 15 CFR parts 730 through 774 and with additional DoD guidance in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3. The sales offering must include terms and conditions relating to taxes and duties, import stipulations, and compliance with international and local laws and regulations. See Enclosure 4 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2 for additional information.
</P>
<P>(F) Other types of sales offerings for property requiring special handling must include applicable terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(ix) All persons or organizations are entitled to purchase property offered by DLA Disposition Services except for:
</P>
<P>(A) Anyone under contract to conduct a specific sale, their agents or employees, and immediate members of their households.
</P>
<P>(B) DoD military and civilian personnel and military and civilian personnel of the United States Coast Guard (USCG) whose duties include any functional or supervisory responsibilities for or within the Defense Materiel Disposition Program, their agents, employees, and immediate members of their households.
</P>
<P>(C) Any persons or organizations intending to ship FEPP, excess and surplus personal property to restrictedparties. See <I>http://pmddtc.state.gov/embargoed_csuountries/index.html</I> or <I>https://demil.osd.mil/</I> or <I>http://treas.gov/offices/enforcement/ofac/programs</I> for additional information on shipments to restricted parties.
</P>
<P>(D) Persons under 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(E) Individuals or firms who are ineligible to be awarded government contracts due to suspension or debarment. See the GSA Excluded Parties List at <I>http://epls.gov</I> or <I>https://demil.osd.mil/</I> or <I>http://treas.gov/offices/enforcement/ofac/sdn/</I> or <I>http://bis.doc.gov/complianceandenforcement/liststocheck.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(F) Persons or entities who wish to purchase MLI or CCL items who do not meet the requirements to receive an end user certificate (EUC) as specified in 22 U.S.C. 2778 <I>et seq.,</I> also known as the Arms Export Control Act, and the implementing regulations 22 CFR parts 120 through 130, also known as the International Traffic In Arms Regulations and 15 CFR parts 730 through 774, also known as the Export Administration Regulations. Information on demilitarized materiel is provided at <I>https://demil.osd.mil/</I>. A consolidated list of prohibited entities or destinations may be found at <I>http://export.gov/ecr/eg_main_023148.asp.</I>
</P>
<P>(x) Disposable assets (FEPP, scrap, NAF property, disposable (MAP property, etc.) may not be sold directly or indirectly to restricted parties or any other areas designated by DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3.
</P>
<P>(xi) DoD Components will update the DoD IUID Registry when an item of personal property with a UII is declared FEPP, excess and surplus personal property and is subject to reutilization, transfer, or sale. The procedures required to update the DoD IUID Registry are in § 273.9.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Responsibilities in selling personal property</I>—(i) <I>Selling agencies</I>. Selling agencies:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine whether to sell as the holding agency or request another agency to sell on behalf of the holding agency.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure the sale complies with the provisions of 40 U.S.C. 549, and any other applicable laws.
</P>
<P>(C) Issue internal guidance for utilizing methods of sale stipulated in subchapter B of 41 CFR chapter 102, and promote uniformity of sales procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Obtain appropriate authorization to conduct sales of certain property or under certain conditions (<I>e.g.,</I> approval by the agency head to use the negotiation method of sale).
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure that all sales are made after publicly advertising for bids, except as provided for negotiated sales in 41 CFR 102-38.100 through 102-38.125.
</P>
<P>(F) Document the required terms and conditions of each sale, including but not limited to those terms and conditions specified in 41 CFR 102-38.75.
</P>
<P>(G) Sell personal property upon such terms and conditions as the head of the agency deems appropriate to promote fairness, openness, and timeliness. Standard Government forms (<I>e.g.,</I> the Standard Form (SF) 114 series, “Sale of Government Property”) are no longer mandatory, but may be used to document terms and conditions of the sale.
</P>
<P>(H) Assure that only representatives designated in writing by the selling agency as selling agent representatives (SARs) are appointed to approve the sale and bind the United States in a written contractual sales agreement. The DLA Disposition Services equivalent of SARs are SCOs. The selling agency determines the requirements for approval (<I>e.g.,</I> select the monetary thresholds for awarding sales contracts).
</P>
<P>(I) Adequately train SARs in regulatory requirements and limitations of authority. Ensure SARs are cognizant in identifying and referring matters relating to fraud, bribery, or criminal collusion to the proper authorities in accordance with 41CFR 102-38.50 and 102-38.225.
</P>
<P>(J) Obtain approvals as necessary prior to award of the property (<I>e.g.,</I> an approval by the Attorney General of the United States to award property with a fair market value of $3 million or more or if it involves a patent, process, technique, or invention) as specified in 41 CFR 102-38.325.
</P>
<P>(K) Be accountable for the care, handling, and associated costs of the personal property prior to its removal by the buyer.
</P>
<P>(L) Reconcile property and financial records to reflect the final disposition.
</P>
<P>(M) Make the property available to FCAs when a bona fide need exists and when no like items are located elsewhere prior to transfer of title to the property, to the maximum extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(N) Subject small quantities of low dollar value property in poor condition to the A/D Economy Formula (see Enclosure 3 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2). If there is no reasonable prospect of disposing of the property by sale (including a scrap sale), dispose of the property with the A/D processes.
</P>
<P>(O) Ensure that the DoD IUID Registry is updated for DoD personal property items marked with a UII in accordance with § 273.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sales conducted by DLA Disposition Services.</I> As the major selling agency for the Department of Defense and an approved GSA Personal Property Sales Center, DLA Disposition Services must, in compliance with requirements in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Carefully consider all factors and determine the best method of sale for personal property utilizing identification, segregation, merchandising, advertising, bid evaluation, and award principles to protect the integrity of the sales process.
</P>
<P>(B) Utilize any publicly accessible electronic media for providing information regarding upcoming sales, invitations for bid (including sales terms and conditions), acceptance of bids, and bid results.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide direction to the DLA Disposition Services site through its internal operating procedures and automated systems.
</P>
<P>(D) Verify that personal property items marked with a UII and offered for sale have been updated in the DoD IUID Registry.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Authorized methods of sale</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> Sale of personal property is authorized in 41 CFR part 102-38 by the methods of sale identified in paragraphs (a)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>4</I>) of this section. (See § 273.12 for definitions.)
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Sealed bid.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Spot bid.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Auction.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Negotiated sale. Criteria for negotiated sales include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The estimated fair market value is not in excess of $15,000 and the sale is considered to be in the best interest of the USG. Large quantities of materiel were not divided nor disposed through multiple sales in order to avoid these requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For FEPP, the estimated fair market value is less than $250,000; sale is managed by DLA Disposition Services and authorized by DLA Disposition Services Director or designee.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Disposal is to a State, territory, possession, political subdivision thereof, or tax-supported agency therein, and the estimated fair market value of the property and other satisfactory terms of disposal are obtained by negotiation.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Bid prices after advertising are not reasonable and re-advertising would serve no useful purpose.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Public exigency does not permit delay, such as that caused by the time required to advertise a sale (<I>e.g.,</I> disposal of perishable food or other property that may spoil or deteriorate rapidly).
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) The sale promotes public health, safety, or national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) The sale is in the public interest in a national emergency declared by the President or Congress. This authority may be used only with specific lots of property or for categories determined by the GSA Administrator for a designated period but not more than 3 months.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Selling the property competitively (sealed bid) would have an adverse impact on the national economy, provided that the estimated fair market value of the property and other satisfactory terms of disposal can be obtained by negotiation (<I>e.g.,</I> sale of large quantities of an agricultural product that impacts domestic markets).
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) The sale is otherwise authorized by 41 CFR chapter 102 or other law.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Negotiated fixed price.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The head of the selling agency or designee must determine and document that this method of sale serves the best interest of the government.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) This type of sale must include appropriate terms and conditions; must be publicized consistent with the nature and value of the property involved; and be awarded on a first-come, first-served basis.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Sales of surplus, foreign excess, and other categories of property.</I> Within the constraints of the FMR-authorized methods of sale in paragraphs (a)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section, the types of sales that may be conducted for surplus, foreign excess, and other categories of property sold in the DoD Defense Materiel Disposition Program are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) One-time sales for disposal of property already generated. Actual deliveries may comprise several release transactions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Term sales for the disposal of property generated over a period of time and in quantities that can be reasonably estimated for a specific period of time or are offered with minimum and maximum quantity provisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Negotiated sales reporting.</I> Negotiated sales reports are required by GSA within 60 calendar days after the close of each fiscal year. DoD Components include in the report a listing and description of all negotiated sales with an estimated fair market value in excess of $5,000. For each sale negotiated, the report must provide:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the property.
</P>
<P>(B) The acquisition cost and date. If not known, an estimate of the acquisition cost, identified as such.
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated fair market value, including the date of the estimate and name of the estimator.
</P>
<P>(D) The name and address of purchaser.
</P>
<P>(E) The date of sale.
</P>
<P>(F) The gross and net sales proceeds.
</P>
<P>(G) A justification for conducting the negotiated sale.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>GSA or DoD-authorized retail method of sale.</I> Sales of small quantity, consumer-oriented property at negotiated, auction, or bid prices that are conducted on a first-come; first-served; and as-is, where-is basis are considered retail sales. Credit or debit cards are the only authorized payment methods. Property having a fair market value exceeding $15,000 is subject to the limitations applicable to negotiated sales of surplus personal property.
</P>
<P>(A) Retail sales of surplus, FEPP, and abandoned privately owned property may be conducted whenever such a program can effectively and economically be used to supplement other methods of sale. Retail sales must be approved in writing at an agency level on a case-by-case basis, and the approval must specify the quantities and types of property and time period covered. These authorizations are limited to specific situations and types of property for which deviation can be fully justified. In addition:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All items must undergo screening, as appropriate, before being offered for retail sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each item being sold must have a fair market value of less than $15,000.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) All property received as items, if offered for sale by retail, must be sold as items and not by weight or lot, with the exception of scrap authorized for retail sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Prices established must reflect the estimated fair market value of the property and must be publicized to the extent consistent with the nature and value of the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Retail sales are limited to the Federal Supply Classification Codes (FSCs), according to the DEMIL code assigned and GSA approval, which are in 41 CFR chapter 102.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Property must be DEMIL Code A and have a DEMIL Integrity Code 1, 7, or 9.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The retail selling price of the property, based on the condition, may not be set below the price it would bring from a commercial vendor.
</P>
<P>(B) Approval in accordance with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 is required to sell scrap by the retail sale method.
</P>
<P>(C) Only trained cashiers are authorized to collect and deposit proceeds received from a retail sale. Retail sales are open to the public and all USG personnel except:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DoD military and civilian personnel and contractors and military and civilian personnel and contractors of the USCG whose duties at the installation where the property is sold include any functional or supervisory responsibility for or within the DoD Materiel Disposition Program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An agent, employee, or immediate member of the household of personnel in paragraph (a)(4)(v)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Market impact.</I> (A) DoD Components will give careful consideration to the adverse market impact that may result from the untimely sale of large quantities of certain surplus items. Where applicable, the selling agency or partner organizations consult with organizations associated with the commodity proposed for sale to obtain advice on the market impact.
</P>
<P>(B) Property reporting and sale schedules are developed to ensure expeditious property disposal, maximum competition, maximum sale proceeds, good public relations, and uniform workload.
</P>
<P>(C) The selling agency will provide advance notice of all proposed or scheduled competitive bid sales (except negotiated) of surplus usable property. This includes property:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Located in the 50 United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Northern Mariana Islands, Palau, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With a total acquisition cost of $250,000 or more per sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) With a minimum potential return of $5,000 per sale of scrap and recyclable material.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Advertising to promote free and open competition.</I> DoD Components will:
</P>
<P>(i) Bring property offered for sale to the attention of the buying public by free publicity and paid advertising.
</P>
<P>(ii) Make every effort to obtain maximum free publicity through sites such as a Government-wide point of entry, <I>https://www.fedbizopps.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) Employ the amount of paid advertising commensurate with the type and value of property being sold.
</P>
<P>(iv) Distribute sale offerings to prospective purchasers before the first day of the inspection period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Pre-sale activities</I>—(i) <I>Preparation and distribution of sale offerings</I>—(A) Include in the offer to sell sale date and time, method of sale, description of the property being offered, selling agency, location of property, time and place for receipt of bids, acceptable forms of bid deposits and payments, and general and special terms and conditions of sale. DLA Disposition Services sale offerings are available on the DLA Disposition Services Web site (<I>www.dispositionservices.dla.mil</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) Establish a sales offering file that contains information about the property offered for sale from initiation to bid opening (<I>e.g.,</I> sale catalog, withdrawals prior to bid opening, agreements with holding activities).
</P>
<P>(C) Prepare sale offerings to provide prospective purchasers with general information and instructions.
</P>
<P>(D) Include in each offering the specific conditions of sale, the contents of which are determined by the selling agency. The SF 114 series may be used to document the terms and conditions of a sale, but their use is not mandatory. Conditions of sale include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Inspection results.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Condition and location of property.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Eligibility of bidders.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Consideration of bids.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Bid deposits and payments.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Submission of bids.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Bid price determination.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Legal title of ownership.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Delivery, loading, and removal of property.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Default, returns, or refunds.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Modifications, withdrawals, or late bids.
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Requirements to comply with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Certificate of independent price determination.
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Covenant against contingent fees.
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) Limitation of government liability.
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) Award of contract.
</P>
<P>(E) DEMIL-required MLI property may not be sold unless DEMIL has been accomplished or it is offered for sale with DEMIL as a condition of sale. Incorporate the method and degree of DEMIL into the sales offering.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If DEMIL is a condition of sale, the sales offering must include a condition of sale stipulating that title of the property will not pass from the government to the purchaser until the property has been satisfactorily DEMIL and has been certified and verified in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The sales offering must also include a requirement for the bidder to provide an EUC to the selling agency specifying the intended use and disposition of the property. The sales offering will also include an agreement by the buyer that they will obtain appropriate export authorizations from the Departments of Commerce or State prior to any export of the item. DLA Disposition Services uses DLA Form 1822, “End-Use Certificate.” The EUC must be processed through designated approval channels prior to award of the property to the prospective customer.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The EUC for scrap mutilation residue must be incorporated into the sales offering for all MLI and CCL items property, including mutilation residue that may still be classified as DEMIL Code B or Q.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inspections.</I> Each sales offering will include an electronic or physical inspection period of at least 7 calendar days before the bid opening.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bid deposits.</I> The selling agency may incorporate a requirement for bidders to provide or post a bid deposit or a bid deposit bond in lieu of cash or other acceptable forms of deposit to protect the government's interest.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>PM bid deposits.</I> PM offerings will include a 20 percent bid deposit. A deposit bond may be used in lieu of cash or other acceptable form of deposit when permitted by the sales offering. If awarded, the bid deposit will be applied to the total contract price. Unsuccessful bid deposits will be returned. Bid deposit bonds will be returned to the bidder when no longer needed to secure the property.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Payments.</I> (A) Selling agencies will implement a payment policy, pursuant to 41 CFR chapter 102 that protects the government against fraud.
</P>
<P>(B) Acceptable forms of payment include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Guaranteed negotiable instruments made payable to or endorsed to the U.S. Treasury in any form (<I>e.g.,</I> cashier's check, certified check, traveler's check, bank draft, or postal or telegraphic money order).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Canadian postal money orders designed for payment in the United States must state specifically that they are payable in U.S. dollars in the United States.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Electronic funds transfer. Special instructions are available through the DLA Disposition Services Web site and must be followed if this option is chosen.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Credit or debit cards.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Combinations of payment methods in paragraphs (a)(6)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Other acceptable forms of payment include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Uncertified personal or company check for amounts over $25.00 accompanied by an irrevocable commercial letter of credit issued by a U.S. bank, payable to the Treasurer of the United States or to the selling agency. The check may not exceed the amount of the letter of credit. Each letter of credit must be an original or clearly state on its face that reproductions of the original document may be considered as an original document, and clearly state that requests for payment will be honored at any time they are presented by the selling agency. Selling agents will reject letters of credit with an expiration date. In addition, the minimum criteria required for acceptance of letters of credit are to state clearly that it is a commercial letter of credit (it need not say it is irrevocable, but it cannot say it is revocable); be on bank stationery; state the maximum amount guaranteed; state the name and address of the company or individual submitting the bid; state the sales offering number and opening date; and be signed by the issuer (authorized signature of bank official).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Uncertified personal or company checks in the amount of $25.00 or less when submitted for ancillary charges (<I>e.g.,</I> debt payment, storage charge, liquidated damages, interest).
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Any form of payment received from a NAF instrumentality or a State or local government.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Acceptable country currencies and information on exchange rates used must be provided in the sales offering and be incorporated into the sales offering. Generally, the exchange rate for receipt of monies or payments in designated currencies is established on the date of the deposit, which is generally the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) FEPP buyers must pay in U.S. dollars or the equivalent in foreign currency that is readily convertible into U.S. dollars. Where U.S. dollars are not available, the acceptance of foreign currency is authorized subject to these conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Payments exceeding the equivalent of $5,000 U.S. in individual sale transactions (that is, for the total of all items offered in a single sale, not for individual items included in a sale) may be accepted only after obtaining prior approval from the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS). When required, DFAS will submit the requests through the chain of command to DoS and Department of Treasury for approval. In countries where a considerable amount of FEPP may be available for sale and it may be necessary to accept foreign currency, the selling agency will request from DFAS an annual authorization, on a calendar year basis, to accept foreign currency.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Payments of up to the equivalent of $5,000 U.S. for individual transactions, at the rate of exchange applicable to the USG, may be accepted without further consultation if assurance has been obtained through the local DoS representative that such currency may be used in payment of any or all USG expenditures in the country whose currency is accepted. This provision is applicable only when annual authorizations have not been received; it is not feasible to sell for U.S. dollars or to ship the property to a country (other than the United States, except where property is a type authorized for return) where it may be sold for U.S. dollars or a freely convertible foreign currency; the currency is not that of a country whose assets in the United States are blocked by Department of Treasury regulations; the currency is that of a country with which the United States maintains diplomatic relations; and foreign currency accepted need not be the currency of the country of sale if the currency offered is otherwise acceptable to DoS and Department of Treasury and can be accepted pursuant to U.S. and host government agreements governing the sale of FEPP. In this connection, the sales offerings will indicate the foreign currencies that will be accepted for a particular sale.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Transfer of title.</I> Selling agencies must document the transfer of title of the property from the government to the purchaser:
</P>
<P>(A) By providing to the purchaser a bill of sale.
</P>
<P>(B) By notification within a contract clause stipulating when the transfer is affected. For instance:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Upon removal from the exact location specified in the sales offering.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Upon certification and signature by the government that all required demilitarization has been accomplished in accordance with DoD Instruction 4160.28.
</P>
<P>(C) By providing certifications required from the buyer prior to a transfer of title. An SF 97, “Certificate of Release of a Motor Vehicle,” (available at <I>http://www.gsa.gov/forms</I>) is required for the sale of vehicles. Selling agencies must provide internal guidance on how the transfer will occur and what documentation is required.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Defaults.</I> If a purchaser breaches a contract by failure to make payment within the time allowed or by failure to remove the property as required, or breaches other contractual provisions, the purchaser is in default. The selling agency representative will give the purchaser a written notice of default and a period of time to cure the default.
</P>
<P>(A) If the purchaser fails to cure the default, the selling agency is entitled to collect or retain liquidated damages as specified in the sales offer or contract.
</P>
<P>(B) If a bid deposit was required and the bidder secured the deposit with a deposit bond, the selling agency must issue the notice of default to the bidder and the surety company.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Disputes.</I> All sales offers will include the disputes clause contained in 48 CFR 52.233-1 of the FAR.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bidder eligibility criteria.</I> (i) As a rule, selling agencies may accept bids from any person, representative, or agent from any entity. To be considered eligible for award of a sales contract, the bidder must be of legal age and not be debarred, suspended, or indebted to the USG, or from a restricted party. Any exceptions must be authorized by the selling agency head, who has determined that there is a compelling reason to make the award. A list of parties excluded from federal procurement and non-procurement programs can be obtained on the GSA Excluded Parties List System Web site at <I>http://epls.gov</I> or the OSD DEMIL Web site at <I>https://demil.osd.mil/.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal property may be sold to a federal employee whose agency does not prohibit the employees from purchasing such property. Unless allowed by a federal or agency regulation, employees having non-public information regarding property offered for sale may not participate in that sale. This applies to an immediate member of the employee's household.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Suspension and debarment of bidders.</I> (i) 41 CFR 102-38.170, 31 U.S.C. 6101 note, Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension” (February 18, 1986), and Executive Order 12689, “Debarment and Suspension” (August 16, 1989) provide the authority for the suspension or debarment of bidders or contractors purchasing personal property from the government. The selling agent must follow the procedures described in 48 CFR subpart 9.4 of the FAR to debar or suspend a person or entity from the purchase of personal property. The debarring official for DLA Disposition Services sales is the DLA Special Assistant for Contracting Integrity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appointed SARs and SCOs will:
</P>
<P>(A) Prepare recommendations for suspension or debarment from the sale of Federal property and acquisition contracts.
</P>
<P>(B) Forward them to their respective servicing legal offices.
</P>
<P>(C) Prepare reports recommending suspension or debarment using the procedures described in 48 CFR subpart 209.4 of the Defense FAR Supplement, current edition, in all cases where purchasers are recommended for suspension or debarment.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition to applicable guidance in 48 CFR subpart 9.4 and 48 CFR 45.602-1, 52.233-1, and 14.407 of the FAR and 48 CFR subpart 209.4 of the Defense FAR Supplement, current edition, contractors who are suspended, debarred, or proposed for debarment are also excluded from conducting business with the government as agents or representatives of another contractor. Firms or individuals who submit bids on sale solicitations on behalf of suspended or debarred contractors, or who in any other manner conduct business with the government as agents or representatives of suspended or debarred contractors, may be treated as affiliates as described in 48 CFR 9.403 of the FAR, and may be suspended or debarred.
</P>
<P>(iv) Parties who violate trade security control (TSC) policies may be recommended for debarment or suspension.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Indebted bidders and purchasers.</I> (i) No awards may be made to bidders indebted to the government. Selling agencies will coordinate with DFAS to determine if a bidder is indebted to DoD and maintain local listings containing bidder name, address, sales contract information, amount of indebtedness, and date indebted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Circumstances where the SAR or SCO must initiate action include:
</P>
<P>(A) At bid opening. Bidders can bid if they cure the debt prior to the opening.
</P>
<P>(B) As the result of monies owed the contractor as a refund.
</P>
<P>(C) As a result of monies received for bid deposit.
</P>
<P>(D) As a result of failure to make payment for overages, ancillary charges, etc.
</P>
<P>(E) As a result of affiliation with suspended bidder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Checks received for debts will be deposited immediately and the bidder will not be notified until the check has cleared its bank. Cash or negotiable instruments will be deposited immediately.
</P>
<P>(iv) SARs or SCOs will contact the bidder and advise that the monies have been deposited to offset the specific indebtedness.
</P>
<P>(v) If a SAR or SCO suspects affiliation, the SAR or SCO will contact the bidder and advise that the monies have been deposited according to the procedures in 31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E for the collection of debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Bid evaluation</I>—(i) <I>Responsive bids and responsible bidders.</I> (A) Only responsive bids (as defined in the § 273.12) may be considered for award.
</P>
<P>(B) Bidders do not have to use authorized bid forms. The bid may be considered when the bidder agrees to all of the terms and conditions and acknowledges that the offer may result in a binding contract award.
</P>
<P>(C) The selling agency must determine that the bidder is a responsible person or represents a responsible entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Late bids.</I> The selling agency will consider late bids for award if the bid was delivered in a timely fashion to the address specified in the sales offering but did not reach the official designated to accept the bid by the bid opening time due to a government delay.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bid modification or withdrawal.</I> (A) A bidder may modify or withdraw its bid prior to the start of the bid opening. After the start of the sale, the bidder will not be allowed to modify or withdraw its bid.
</P>
<P>(B) The selling agency representative may consider late bid modifications to an otherwise successful bid at any time, but only when it makes the terms of the bid more favorable to the government.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Mistakes in bids prior to award.</I> (A) The administrative procedures for handling mistakes in bids (prior to or after award) are contained in 41 CFR 102-38.260, which utilizes the processes of 48 CFR 14.407 of the FAR for federal property sales.
</P>
<P>(B) The selling agency head or designee may delegate the authority to make administrative decisions regarding mistakes in bid to a central authority or alternate. This delegation may not be re-delegated by the authority or alternate.
</P>
<P>(C) A signed copy of the administrative determination must be included in the contract file and provided to the Government Accountability Office, when requested.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Bid rejections.</I> In the event a bid is rejected, the next most advantageous bid may be considered. If an entire sales offering is rejected, all items within that sale may be reoffered on another sale.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Identical bids.</I> If there are multiple high bids of the same amount, the SAR or SCO must consider other factors of the sale (<I>e.g.,</I> payment arrangements, estimated removal time) that would make one offer more advantageous to the government. Otherwise, the SAR or SCO may use random tie breakers to avoid expense of reselling or reoffering the property.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Suspected collusion.</I> The SAR or SCO must refer any suspicion of collusion to the agency's Office of the Inspector General or the Department of Justice (DOJ) through its legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Protests.</I> Protests by bidders regarding validity of determinations made on the sale of personal property may be submitted to the DLA Disposition Services Comptroller General or comptroller general for the selling agent.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Awarding sales contracts</I>—(i) <I>Selling agents.</I> SARs or SCOs will:
</P>
<P>(A) Be appointed by agency heads or their designees to act as selling agents for the USG.
</P>
<P>(B) Enter into and administer contracts for the sale of government property pursuant to the provisions of 40 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I> and other applicable statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(C) Award and distribute contracts to responsible bidders whose bids conform to the sales offering and are the most advantageous to the government.
</P>
<P>(D) Be authorized to reject bids in accordance with paragraph (a)(10)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) Sign under the title of “Sales Agency Representative” or “Sales Contracting Officer.”
</P>
<P>(F) Sign all contracting documentation on behalf of the USG.
</P>
<P>(G) Be responsible for the proper distribution of sales proceeds.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Approvals required for sales and awards.</I> (A) Selling agencies will designate the dollar limitations of authority of their appointed SARs or SCOs. DLA Disposition Services SCOs may make awards of contracts on sales of usable property having a fair market value of less than $100,000. Except for antitrust advice limitations, awards of scrap property do not require approval by higher authority.
</P>
<P>(B) Selling agencies will notify the U.S. Attorney General whenever an award is proposed for personal property with an estimated fair market value of $3 million or more or if the sale involves a patent, process, technique, or invention per 41 CFR 102-38.325. Selling agencies will otherwise comply with all requirements of 41 CFR chapter 102 including but not limited to the prohibition to dispose any such item until confirmation from the U.S. Attorney General that the proposed transaction would not violate antitrust laws.
</P>
<P>(C) The head of a selling agency or designee must approve all negotiated sales of personal property. Selling agencies must submit explanatory statements for each sale by negotiation of any personal property with an estimated fair market value in excess of $15,000 through GSA to the House and Senate Oversight Committee to obtain approval for the sale in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 549.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Processing mistakes in bid after award, claims, disputes, and appeals.</I> Keeping the interests of the government in the forefront, SARs or SCOs will process these actions expeditiously and fairly, in accordance with established internal and external regulations and laws. SARs or SCOs will respond to each issue pertaining to mistakes in bids, claims, disputes, or appeals until it is resolved and provide a written final decision to the claimant or adjudicating agency, as appropriate, until the issue is closed. Retain any decisions made or actions taken in regard to these issues as official records, as required by agency or higher authority directives.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Notification process for dissemination of awards information.</I> (i) The selling agency may only disclose bid results after the award of any item or lot of property has been made. No information other than names may be disclosed regarding the bidder(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) Bids are disclosed as they are submitted on spot bids or auctions.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Contract administration.</I> Selling agencies will prescribe contract administration procedures for the various methods of sale, to include procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Disseminating award information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Billing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Default and liquidation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishing contract folders, including file maintenance and disposition.
</P>
<P>(A) Contract administration files will consist of a sale folder, financial folder, individual contract folder(s), and an unsuccessful bids folder for each sale.
</P>
<P>(B) Selling agencies will develop procedures for maintaining, completing, reviewing, and auditing these files. All pertinent documentation, including EUC, licenses, pre-award reviews, etc., must be included in the files.
</P>
<P>(C) Documentation found in these files may be subject to 5 U.S.C. 552, also known as the Freedom of Information Act. All Privacy Act, privileged, exempt, classified, For Official Use Only, or sensitive information must be obliterated prior to release to the public.
</P>
<P>(v) Collection and distribution of sales proceeds.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ensuring all requirements of the contract (<I>e.g.,</I> non-payment, required licenses) are met prior to releasing the property.
</P>
<P>(vii) Making modifications to contracts resulting from changes to the original contract.
</P>
<P>(viii) Handling public requests for information.
</P>
<P>(ix) Timely review and closure of each contract.
</P>
<P>(x) Timely review and closure of each sale.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Cashier functions and SAR or SCO responsibilities.</I> (i) Cashiers must be duly trained in the handling and processing of monies collected as payment on sales.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cashiers must credit sales proceeds in accordance with chapter 5 of Volume 11A of DoD 7000.14-R, “Department of Defense Financial Management Regulations (FMRs)” (available at <I>http://comptroller.defense.gov/fmr/current/11a/11a_05.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Inquiries regarding suspended or debarred bidders.</I> Refer all inquiries regarding suspended or debarred bidders to the office effecting the action.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Release requirements following sales.</I> (i) Removal of property is subject to general and special conditions of sale and the loading table as set forth in the sale offering and resulting contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to releasing sold property, assigned personnel will:
</P>
<P>(A) Verify the sale items to be delivered or shipped to purchasers against the sale documents to prevent theft, fraud, or inappropriate release of property.
</P>
<P>(B) When DLA Disposition Services is managing the sale and where an in-place receipt memorandum of understanding (MOU) has been executed, installation commanders will provide, by letter designation and upon request from DLA Disposition Services site, the names, telephone numbers, and titles of those non-DLA Disposition Services site personnel authorized to release property located at their activities. As changes occur, installation commanders will provide additions, deletions, and revisions in writing to DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(C) Weigh property sold by weight at the time of delivery to the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(D) Count or measure property sold by unit at the time of delivery.
</P>
<P>(iii) Purchasers are required to pay, before delivery, the purchase price of item(s) to be removed, based upon the quantity or weight as set forth in the sale offering, except for term sales. If prepayment of an overage quantity is not practicable or possible, payment will be due upon issuance of a statement of account after release of property. Sales of property to State and local governments do not require payment prior to removal. The DLA Disposition Services contract with its sales partners does not require payment prior to delivery of property to State and local governments only.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Withdrawal from sale.</I> (i) Property that has been physically inspected, determined to be usable or needed, and thereby has survived screening is eligible for sale and may be requested to satisfy valid requirements within limitations specified in this paragraph. Generally, property past the screening cycle may not be withdrawn from sale. However, circumstances may require the withdrawal of property from sale to satisfy valid needs within the Department of Defense or FCAs. Donation recipients are not eligible to withdraw property from the sale unless they can provide DLA Disposition Services with documentation that an error was made by DLA Disposition Services and they should have been issued the property or the property was never available for electronic screening in GSA personal property database GSAXcess®.
</P>
<P>(ii) In many instances, the property remains at a DLA Disposition Services site after the title has been transferred. This property is ineligible for withdrawal to satisfy DoD needs. If the DoD Component intends to pursue purchasing the property from the commercial partner, transactions must be handled between the partner and the DoD Component without intervention from the DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to 41 CFR chapter 102, due to the potential for adverse public relations, every effort will be made to keep withdrawals from sales to a minimum. These efforts will include searching for assets elsewhere in the disposal process. Exceptions to this policy will be implemented only when all efforts to otherwise satisfy a valid need have been exhausted and the withdrawal action is determined to be cost effective and in the best interest of the government. DoD Component heads will ensure that withdrawal authority is stringently controlled and applied.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make requests to the selling agency by the most expeditious means. With the exception of ICP or IMM and NMCS orders, requests will provide full justification including a statement that the property is needed to satisfy a valid requirement.
</P>
<P>(v) Withdrawals may not be processed subject to property inspection for acceptability. Inspect property before requesting withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(vi) Orders submitted by ICPs or IMMs do not require justification statements before award.
</P>
<P>(vii) With the exception of ICPs and IMMs, minimum written information required in the package for withdrawal requests includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed justification as to why the property is required, including how the property will be used; such as applicability of materiel to active weapons systems.
</P>
<P>(B) Mission impact statement from a support, procurement, and funding standpoint if property is not withdrawn from sale (<I>e.g.,</I> the effect on operational readiness requirements within a specified period of time).
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of efforts made to find assets meeting the requirement from other sources, including consideration of substitute items.
</P>
<P>(viii) When the DLA Office of Investigations, TSC Assessment Office, determines that property was incorrectly described, and that TSC or DEMIL requirements are applicable, property will either be withdrawn or a provision made to accomplish TSC or DEMIL, as appropriate. The TSC Assessment Office may request withdrawal of property and suspend further action regarding the property until the matter is resolved in accordance with the procedures in DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(ix) As property moves through the sales cycle, constraints are placed on requests for withdrawals from sale.
</P>
<P>(A) The area manager can approve requests for withdrawal during the period between the end of screening and the date the property is referred to DLA Disposition Services for sale cataloging or until a delivery order is signed by the commercial venture partner. The area manager can also approve withdrawals prior to bid opening for items on authorized local sales.
</P>
<P>(B) DLA Disposition Services can approve withdrawal requests from date of referral until the property is awarded. DLA Disposition Services can also return requests for withdrawal after award that do not include the required written information.
</P>
<P>(x) DLA approval, with DLA legal concurrence, is required on any withdrawal request after the award but before removal.
</P>
<P>(xi) When title has passed to the purchaser, the requestor must work directly with the purchaser. This includes commercial venture property. The SAR or SCO will provide contract information when requested.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> (i) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2583, the Secretary of Defense will prepare an annual report identifying each public sale conducted (including property offered for sale and property awarded) by a DoD Component of military items that are controlled on the U.S. Munitions List pursuant to 22 U.S.C. 121 and assigned a DEMIL Code of B in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3. For each sale, the report will specify:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the sale.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoD Component conducting the sale.
</P>
<P>(C) The manner in which the sale was conducted (method of sale).
</P>
<P>(D) Description of the military items that were sold or offered for sale.
</P>
<P>(E) The purchaser of each item, if awarded.
</P>
<P>(F) The stated end-use of each item sold.
</P>
<P>(ii) The report is submitted not later than March 31 of each year. The Secretary of Defense is required to submit to the Committee on Armed Services of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Armed Services of the Senate the report required by this section for the preceding fiscal year. DLA Disposition Services includes shipments made during the reporting period to its business partner.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Special program sales</I>—(i) <I>Resource recovery and recycling program.</I> (A) All DoD installations worldwide will have recycling programs as required by DoD Instruction 4715.4 with goals for recycling as outlined in Executive Order 13514.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2577 and 48 CFR subpart 209.4 of the DFARS, each installation worldwide will have or be associated with a QRP or recycling program available to the installation to appropriately dispose of all recyclable materials for all activities. This includes all DoD facilities not on a military installation, tenant, leased, and government owned-contractor operated (GOCO) space.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Installations having several recycling programs will incorporate them into the single installation QRP if possible, however a separate recycling program may be established to appropriately dispose of recyclable materials that cannot be recycled through the QRP.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Each DoD Component will designate a coordinator for each QRP and ensure the GOCO facilities participate in QRP.
</P>
<P>(B) Recyclable material includes material diverted from the solid waste stream and the beneficial use of such material. It may be beneficial to use waste material as a substitute for a virgin material in a manufacturing process, as a fuel, or as a secondary material. Examples of material that can be recycled through QRP are provided in Table 1 of this section and those that cannot be recycled through QRP are provided in Table 2 of this section, both from the complete list in DoD Instruction 4715.4.
</P>
<P>(C) Continually review each QRP to identify material appropriate for waste stream diversion, explore recycling methods, and identify potential markets. Additional recyclable material includes not only material generating profit, but material whose diversion from the waste stream generate a savings to the Department of Defense in disposal costs, or when diversion is required by State or local law or regulation. Material generated from nonappropriated or personal funds (<I>e.g.,</I> post consumer wastes from installation housing, and installation concessions) may be included.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Examples of Material That Can Be Recycled Through QRP
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">EXAMPLES OF MATERIAL THAT CAN BE RECYCLED THROUGH QRP
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Typical recyclable material found in the municipal solid waste stream (glass, plastic, aluminum, newspaper, cardboard, etc.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scrap metal from non-defense working capital fund activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Expended small arms cartridge cases that are 50-caliber (12.7 mm) and smaller not suitable for reloading that have been mutilated or otherwise rendered unusable and gleanings made unusable for military firing e.g., crushed, shredded, annealed, or otherwise rendered unusable as originally intended prior to recycling in accordance with DoD Instruction 4715.4, except overseas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Storage and beverage containers (metal, glass, and plastic).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office paper (high-quality, bond, computer, mixed, telephone books, and <E T="04">Federal Registers</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commissary store cardboard and exchange store wastes (cardboard), if the commissary or exchange chooses to use the QRP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scrap wood and unusable pallets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rags and textile wastes that have not been contaminated with hazardous material or HW.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive and light truck-type tires.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used motor oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Food wastes from dining facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office-type furniture that is broken or too costly to repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Donated privately owned personal property.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Examples of Material That Cannot Be Recycled Through QRP
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">EXAMPLES OF MATERIAL THAT CANNOT BE RECYCLED THROUGH QRP
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">PM-bearing scrap.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scrap metal generated from a defense working capital fund activity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Items, such as MLI indicated in item 10 of this table, that must be demilitarized (DEMIL) at any time during their life cycle, except for small arms and light weapons brass and gleanings as described in item 3 of Table 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hazardous materials and waste.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Material that can be reused by the government for their original purpose without special processing. These items may or may not be MLI or CCL items.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Repairable items (e.g., used vehicles, vehicle or machine parts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unopened containers of oil, paints, or solvents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fuels (uncontaminated and contaminated).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MLI or CCL items (Only DEMIL Code A items may be candidates for recycling.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Printed circuit boards containing hazardous materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Items required to be mutilated prior to sale or release to the public.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ammunition cans, unless certified as MPPEH Designated as Safe in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3 and DoDI 4140.62.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Usable pallets, unless DLA Disposition Services states otherwise.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical and electronic components (These may be MLI or CCL items eligible only for Electronics Demanufacturing and DEMIL or mutilation.).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(D) Installation commanders authorized by their DoD Component head, as appropriate, may sell directly recyclable and other QRP materials, or consign them to the DLA Disposition Services for sale. If selling directly, installations will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Maintain operational records for annual reporting requirements, review, and program evaluation purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Manage processes, reports, and proceeds distribution in accordance with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102 and DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>(E) Excluded material is identified in Attachment 2 to DoD Instruction 4715.4, which provides a guide of eligible and ineligible materials.
</P>
<P>(F) Although scrap recyclable materials do not require formal screening, those purchased with appropriated funds, as surplus property under the FPMR and FMR, are available to meet RTD requirements.
</P>
<P>(G) When sold directly by the installation, use proceeds to reimburse the installation level costs incurred in operating the recycling program. After reimbursement of the costs incurred by the installation for operations (<I>e.g.,</I> operation and maintenance and overhead), installation commanders may use the remaining proceeds as authorized by DoD Instruction 4715.4.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Commercial Space Launch Act (CSLA).</I> (A) The purpose of the CSLA, 51 U.S.C. Chapter 509, is to promote economic growth and entrepreneurial activity through the utilization of the space environment for peaceful purposes; encourage the private sector to provide launch vehicles and associated launch services; and to facilitate and encourage the acquisition (sale, lease, transaction in lieu of sale, or otherwise) by the private sector of launch property of the United States that is excess or otherwise not needed for public use, in consultation with Secretary of Transportation. Donation screening is not required prior to sale.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) has the primary responsibility for coordinating DoD issues or views with the Department of Treasury, other Executive department organizations, and the Congress on matters arising from private sector commercial space activities, particularly the operations of commercial ELVs and national security interests.
</P>
<P>(C) The DLA Disposition Services is the primary office to conduct CSLA sales following the direction for pricing and disposition as specified in DoD Directive 3230.3 Sales will be by competitive bid to U.S. firms or persons having demonstrated action toward becoming a commercial launch provider. The DoD CIO and the Secretary of the U.S. Air Force (USAF) designated representative will support DLA Disposition Services, as necessary, in the sale or transfer of excess and surplus personal property to the private sector, including the identification of potential bidders and any special sales terms and conditions. The generating activity will assist, as necessary, in completing sales transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security assistance or FMS</I>—(1) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Authority for security assistance is provided primarily under 22 U.S.C. 2751 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as the Arms Export Control Act) and annual appropriation acts for foreign operations, export financing, and related programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security assistance program requirements.</I> (i) Security assistance transfers are authorized under the premise that if these transfers are essential to the security and economic well-being of friendly governments and international organizations, they are equally vital to the security and economic well-being of the United States. Security assistance programs support U.S. national security and foreign policy objectives.
</P>
<P>(ii) In coordination and cooperation with DOS, the Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) directs, administers, and provides overall procedural guidance for the execution of security cooperation and additional DoD programs in support of U.S. national security and foreign policy objectives; and promotes stable security relationships with friends and allies through military assistance, in accordance with DoD 5105.38-M.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign purchased property.</I> Disposal initiatives and actions will be in accordance with DoD 5105.38-M or guidance provided by security assistance implementing agencies on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FMS disposal process summary</I>—(i) <I>Defense disposal services.</I> (A) FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property may be made available to foreign countries and international organizations designated as eligible to purchase property or services in accordance with 22 U.S.C. 2151, 2321b, 2321j, 2443, 2751, and 2778 <I>et seq.</I> Such defense articles may be made available for sale under the FMS Program. Transactions under this authority are reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(B) FMS transactions are completed by use of letters of offer and acceptance and the procedures specified in DoD 5105.38-M.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Grant transfer of excess defense articles (EDAs).</I> 22 U.S.C. 2321j authorizes the U.S. Government to grant transfer of EDA to eligible foreign governments. For a transfer under this authority, DoD funds may not be used for packing, crating, handling, and transportation except under certain circumstances consistent with the guidance in 22 U.S.C. 2321j(e).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>FMS transportation.</I> (A) As a general rule, FMS customers are responsible for all transportation costs.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The transportation costs can be written into the letters of agreement or the items can be shipped on a collect commercial basis. The implementing DoD Component or DLA Disposition Services will identify exceptions to this rule.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Sensitive and some other FMS shipments may be made via the Defense Transportation System (DTS).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Sensitive shipments not going through the DTS must be routed through a DoD-controlled port (Delivery Term Codes 8, B, or C). See Appendix E, paragraph H.1, Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulations 4500.9-R, “Defense Transportation Regulations”, current edition (available at <I>http://www.transcom.mil/dtr/part-ii/dtr_part_ii_app_e.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For these shipments, the implementing agency will provide separate instructions and funds citations. Transportation arrangements may be made by the supporting Transportation Office or DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(B) Unless otherwise directed by the implementing agency or DLA Disposition Services FMS Office:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Send small items collect via Federal Express or other parcel service to designated freight forwarder.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Send less than truckload shipments collect via common carrier to designated freight forwarder.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prepare and send DD Form 1348-5, “Notice of Availability/Shipment,” for larger than truckload shipments to freight forwarder or other designated address. Upon receipt of DD Form 1348-5, the recipient will provide shipping instructions or advise of pick-up date. If shipping instructions are not received within 15 days after DD Form 1348-5 is issued, follow up with freight forwarder and notify DLA Disposition Services if they are the implementing agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For sensitive Delivery Term Code 8 property, in accordance with Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation 4500.9-R, and hazardous material property, the supporting transportation office must ensure that the property is released in accordance with all applicable regulatory requirements. The preferred option is to let the supporting transportation office accomplish notice of availability and property shipment processes.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) On rare occasions, property may be transferred on a no-fee basis. The implementing agency or DLA Disposition Services will provide appropriate instructions on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(C) In accordance with 22 U.S.C. 2403, construction equipment, including but not limited to tractors, scrapers, loaders, graders, bulldozers, dump trucks, generators, and compressors are not considered EDA for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>FMS eligibility.</I> Eligibility for FMS is listed in Table C4.T2 of DoD 5105.38-M. Eligibility to receive excess property as a grant pursuant to 22 U.S.C. 2151, 2321, 2751, 2778 <I>et seq.</I> is established by the DOS and provided to DSCA. DoD Components will follow the latest guidance from DSCA showing which countries are eligible under the various authorities.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Controlled assets.</I> (A) Foreign countries and international organizations may screen and request DLA Disposition Services assets during DLA Disposition Services reutilization screening periods.
</P>
<P>(B) 10 U.S.C. 2562 prohibits the sale or transfer of fire equipment to foreign countries and international organizations until RTD has been accomplished. Fire equipment remaining after these periods may be made available to security assistance customers with a certification to DSCA that the property is not defective and has completed all required excess property processes.
</P>
<P>(C) DSCA will provide guidance for the transfer of items.
</P>
<P>(D) Pricing of FMS is governed by DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reutilization or transfer, excess screening, and issue (includes donation of DLA Disposition Services assets)</I>—(1) <I>Authority and scope.</I> (i) The provisions of this section are based on the guidelines of 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102.
</P>
<P>(ii) The scope of this section includes the RTD screening, ordering, issuing, and shipment of DoD FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property.
</P>
<P>(A) These procedures apply to the Military Departments, FCAs, donees, eligible foreign governments and international agencies, and any other activities authorized to screen and order FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property.
</P>
<P>(B) See § 273.8 for additional guidance on the DoD HAP, LEAs, DoD or Service museums, National Guard units, Senior Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC) units, morale, welfare, recreational activities (MWRAs), the MARS, Civil Air Patrol (CAP), and DoD contractors.
</P>
<P>(C) See § 273.8 and paragraph (b) of this section for additional information on foreign governments and international organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> (i) DoD policy, in accordance with 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102, is to reutilize DoD excess property and FEPP to the maximum extent feasible to fill existing needs before initiating new procurement or repair. All DoD activities will shop for available excess assets and review referrals for assets to satisfy valid needs. DLA Disposition Services provide asset referrals via front end screening to ICPs daily. See individual Military Department guidance regarding eligibility and authority to withdraw excess property from DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Customers can electronically request specific NSNs for orders, whether DLA Disposition Services assets are available at the time the need arises. When an asset becomes available in the DLA Disposition Services inventory, an electronic notification will be sent to the customer for initiating an official order. See paragraph (c)(3)(vii) of this section for procedures on the automated want lists.
</P>
<P>(iii) The UII mark, if applicable, will not be removed from a personal property item offered for RTD.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Screening for personal property</I>—(i) <I>Screening.</I> (A) DoD reutilization is accomplished electronically via MILSTRIP and DLA Transaction Services, through the DLA Disposition Services Web site.
</P>
<P>(B) At the end of the DoD exclusive internal screening cycle, DoD excess property (excluding FEPP, scrap and HW) is transmitted to the GSAXcess®, and GSA assumes control of federal agency transfer and donation screening. The property remains in DLA Disposition Services accounts and can be viewed on their Web site.
</P>
<P>(C) GSA federal screening is accomplished through the GSAXcess® platform that is a customer interface to the Federal Disposal System (FEDS). DoD personnel may shop in GSAXcess® at any time and search and select property from DoD and other FCAs. Transportation costs for other FCA property are borne by the DoD screener. DLA Disposition Services makes shipping arrangements for DoD orders in GSAXcess® and includes the transportation costs in the cost of the item.
</P>
<P>(D) Enclosure 7 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2 and Enclosure 3 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4 provides additional information on screening for excess personal property by category.
</P>
<P>(E) All references to days are calendar days unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(F) With electronic screening, physical tagging of property at a DLA Disposition Services site to place a “hold” until an order has been submitted is no longer authorized.
</P>
<P>(G) DLA Disposition Services provides reasonable access to authorized personnel for inspection and removal of excess personal property.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CONUS screening timeline for excess personal property</I>—(A) <I>Accumulation period.</I> DLA Disposition Services accumulates property throughout the week as it is inspected and added to the inventory system. As property is added to the inventory system, it is visible for ordering by DoD customers only. This accumulation period ends each Friday, prior to the start of the official 42 day screening timeline.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>DoD and Special Programs screening Cycle (14 days).</I> DoD and the Special Programs identified in § 273.8 have exclusive ordering authority during the first 14 days of the screening timeline. DoD reutilization requirements have priority during this cycle, and property will not be issued to Special Programs until the end of this cycle.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>FCA and donees screening cycle (21 days).</I> FCAs and GSA-authorized donees screen property in GSAXcess® during the following 21 days. FCA requirements have priority during this cycle, and property will not be issued to donees until the end of this cycle. During this cycle, DoD will search and select property in GSAXcess® rather than submit MILSTRIP orders, with the exception of priority designator (PD) 01-03 and NMCS requisitions. DoD customers will submit PD 01-03 and NMCS requisitions to DLA Disposition Services, who will immediately fill these orders and notify GSA to make the record adjustment in GSAXcess®.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>GSA allocation to donees (5 days).</I> The following 5 days are set aside for GSA to allocate assets to fill donee requests. During this allocation period, no GSAXcess® ordering can be made.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Final reutilization/transfer/donation (RTD2) screening (2 days).</I> The final 2 days of screening are available to all RTD customers for any remaining property on a first come, first served basis.
</P>
<P>(F) Table 3 of this section summarizes the priority of issue and the timelines associated with screening and issue of property.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Summary of Screening and Issue Timelines in Order of Issue Priority
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">RTD Method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eligibility
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Screening period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Issuing period
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reutilization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DoD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 1-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 1-42.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reutilization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special Programs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 1-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 15-42.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transfer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Federal Agencies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 15-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 15-42.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Donation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Authorized GSA Donees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 15-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 36-42.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RTD2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All RTD Customers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 41-42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Days 41-42.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sale</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Public</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>FEPP screening timeline.</I> (A) Screening timeline and procedures for FEPP will generally follow those listed in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) During contingency operations, the ASD (L&amp;MR) may approve expedited screening timelines and changes to issue priorities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>DoD screening methods.</I> (A) DoD reutilization screening is accomplished electronically via MILSTRIP and DLA Transaction Services through the DLA Disposition Services Web site. If the electronic method is unsuccessful, please fax the following on agency letterhead: Name, phone number, point of contact, internet provider (IP) address, and two signatures of authorized individuals to DLA Disposition Services Reutilization Office at fax commercial 269-961-7348 or DSN 661-7348.
</P>
<P>(B) Local screening at the DLA Disposition Services sites is on-site (visual) viewing of excess property. Physical inspection of property may not be possible for assets at depot recycling control points (RCPs), receipts in-place, or remote locations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>GSAXcess® screening.</I> (A) Users must obtain an access code from GSA to screen through GSAXcess®. To learn about GSAXcess® and obtain access code information, see: <I>http://apps.fss.gsa.gov/Manuals/Feds_Users_guide.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) DoD customers must obtain access from GSAXcess® to search and select property. The DoD Accountable (Supply) Property Officer must provide GSA a letter (on official letterhead) or email (from a “.mil” address) requesting access for their representatives and include addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, and DoDAAC of those authorized to select property from GSAXcess®. Customers may select items once the access is granted.
</P>
<P>(C) DoD customers who only want to search for available property in GSAXcess® can also register for search only access at <I>www.gsaxcess.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Screening exceptions.</I> Generally, property cannot be screened before it is entered on DLA Disposition Services site's accountable records. However, instances where screening prior to entry may be justified include:
</P>
<P>(A) Property needed to fulfill emergency orders, (<I>e.g.,</I> PD 01-03, NMCS, disaster relief) and which may be processed as a “wash-post” transaction. The DLA Disposition Services site must be able to fully justify these actions and ensure a signed receipt copy of the DTID is returned to the generating activity.
</P>
<P>(B) Backlog situations where usable property is in danger of being damaged by the elements due to a lack of adequate storage and an authorized customer is on location.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Automated want lists.</I> (A) Customers may use the automated pre-receipt information to flag desired NSNs. Use of this tool does not guarantee the items will become available. If notified that the item is in the excess inventory, customers must use standard MILSTRIP order procedures. For more guidance, see <I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/rtd03/index.shtml.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Customers may submit automated searches for recurring NSNs through the DoD Property Search Web site at <I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/rtd03/index.shtml.</I> Results are emailed to the customer.
</P>
<P>(C) Customers may also submit a “Want List” in GSAXcess®, which can help them locate excess property from civilian agencies.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Specialized screening for ICPs.</I> (A) DLA Disposition Services will electronically report to designated ICPs those assets with valid NSNs meeting dollar value and condition code criteria established by each DoD Component. The notification will be sent electronically to the recorded DoD wholesale manager (ICP or IMM) concurrently with recording the excess in the DLA Disposition Services system for accounting for excess property in DoD. Component IMMs may view the NSNs they requested during the first 5 days of the accumulation period before the items become available to other DoD activities. The ICPs must send their request to: DLA Disposition Services, Hart-Dole-Inouye Federal Center, 74 North Washington Avenue, Suite 2429, Battle Creek, Michigan 49037.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoD ICP or IMM will screen these notifications to determine if needs exist. DLA Disposition Services site excesses will be reutilized to satisfy known or projected buy and repair needs.
</P>
<P>(C) Orders for property during the internal screening periods will be prepared according to MILSTRIP and submitted to DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Issues to and turn-ins by special programs and activities</I>—(A) <I>DoD HAP.</I> (<I>1</I>) The DoD HAP is authorized to dispose excess property through DoD DLA Disposition Services site channels.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Providing non-lethal DoD excess personal property for humanitarian purposes is authorized pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2557. Preparation and transportation of this property is carried out in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2661. HAP allows DoD to make available, prepare, and transport non-lethal, excess DoD property for distribution by DOS for humanitarian reasons. The program is managed by the DSCA Office of Humanitarian Assistance and Demining.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In most instances, property issues will be from DLA Disposition Services inventories. The most commonly requested types of property are medical equipment, field gear, tools, clothing, rations, light vehicles, construction, and engineering equipment. DLA Disposition Services sites will issue all property destined for the HAP, with the exception of drugs and biologicals (Federal Supply Classification Code (FSC) 6505), which may be issued directly by the Military Departments. HAP orders and issues will be documented on DD Form 1348-1A “Issue Release/Receipt Document.”
</P>
<P>(B) <I>LEAs.</I> In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2576a, DLA has established an office to permit civil police authority to acquire excess DoD property, and the Web site <I>https://www.dispositionservices.dla.mil/rtd03/leso/index.shtml</I> provides information to assist with the process. LEAs can contact DLA Disposition Services at: DLA Disposition Services, Hart-Dole-Inouye Federal Center, 74 North Washington Avenue, Suite 2429, Battle Creek, Michigan 49037, Toll free: 1-877-DLA-CALL, DSN: 661-7766, Commercial/FTS 269-961-7766.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 10 U.S.C. 2576a authorizes the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the Director, Office of National Drug Control Policy, and DOJ, to transfer excess DoD property, including small arms, light weapons, and ammunition, to federal and State LEAs, including counterdrug and counterterrorism activities. The federal program is known as the 1033 Program. The DLA Disposition Services has managerial responsibilities in support of such transfers and will establish business relationships with participating States by memorandum of agreement (MOA).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) LEAs will return sensitive or controlled DEMIL-required property originally ordered from DLA Disposition Services when no longer needed. DEMIL-required equipment that is the responsibility of the LEA must be demilitarized in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3. Due to constant changes and development of new technology, Table 4 of this section is only a partial list of NSNs that may contain radioactive components as identified for Army Navy (AN) night vision equipment codes in DoD 4160.28-M, Volume 2. These NSNs and many others should not be transferred to DLA Disposition Services sites. The turn-in activity will verify with the DLA Disposition Services site whether equipment contains radioactive components before turning in any night vision equipment.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—NSNs With Radioactive Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NSN No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radioactive component
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-053-3142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-4 (prototype)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-087-2942</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-087-2947</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-087-2974</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-087-3114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-113-5680</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MX-8201
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-156-4992</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-3A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-156-4993</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MX-8201A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-179-3708</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-2A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-179-3709</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MX-7833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-400-2619</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MX-7833A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-484-8638</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-2B
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-688-9956</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-688-9957</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-760-3869</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-2B
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-760-3870</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-4A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-791-3358</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-2A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-832-9223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MX-7833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-832-9341</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PVS-3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-906-0994</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-911-1370</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-01-093-3080</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/PAS-7A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5855-00-087-3144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AN/TVS-2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) <I>DoD or service museums.</I> (<I>1</I>) Legal authority is provided by 10 U.S.C. 2572, which allows the loan, gift, or exchange of specified historic or obsolete or condemned military property. Approval authority for museum acquisitions from DLA Disposition Services sites expressly for the purpose of exchange must be granted by the activity having staff supervision over the museum. Approval authority includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) U.S. Army: Chief of Military History (DAMH-MD), 1099 14th Street NW., Washington, DC 20005-3402.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) U.S. Navy: Curator for the Navy, Naval Historical Center, Building 108, Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-0571.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) U.S. Air Force: Director, National Museum of the United States Air Force, HQAFMC, 1100 Spaatz Street, Wright-Patterson AFB, Ohio 45433-7102.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) U.S. Marine Corps: Marine Corps History Division, 3079 Moreel Avenue, Quantico, Virginia 22134.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) U.S. Coast Guard: Coast Guard Historian, Commandant (CG-09224), U.S. Coast Guard Headquarters, Douglas A. Munro Building, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr., Avenue, South East Stop 7031, Washington, DC 20593-7031.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The DoD or Military Department museums will use standard DoD processes to dispose excess property using DoDAACs.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The DoD and Military Department museums may obtain property from DLA Disposition Services sites for use, display, or exchange. With the exception of historical artifacts, stockpiling of property obtained from DLA Disposition Services sources for future exchange is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The normal ordering procedures apply. The DD Form 1348-1A, in addition to routine information, will include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The museum's individual DoDAAC or the DoDAAC of the Service headquarters with central responsibility for historical property.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A statement if the property is to be used for display, exchange, or use (<I>e.g.,</I> property needed to maintain the museums' buildings and grounds, for day-to-day housekeeping operations, or to maintain displays).
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Only DEMIL Code “A” property is requested. Examples of DEMIL Code A items suitable for housekeeping purposes by DoD museums may include: Federal Supply Classification Groups (FSGs) 52—hand tools; 53—hardware; 55—lumber; 56—construction materials; 61—electric wire; 62—lighting fixtures; 71—furniture; 72—furnishings; 75—office supplies; 79—cleaning equipment; 80—brushes and paints. Orders of property for exchange will reflect the DoDAAC of the DoD Military Department museums. An exception to this procedure applies to M151 series, M561, and M792 (Gamma Goat) vehicles. Although coded as DEMIL Code A, exchange of the vehicles is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) DLA Disposition Services sites will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Ensure DEMIL Code A property ordered by a museum for exchange purposes has no current challenges to that code. This applies to all items whether recorded in the DLA Logistic Information Service Federal Logistics Information System Master Item File or not, including scrap and captured military items. Excluded are the M151 series vehicles, hazardous property, and MLI and CCL items, which are not authorized for museum exchanges.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Ensure authorized property ordered by museums for exchange is released to the ordering museum personnel only. Identification of the individual is required. These personnel must be military or civilian employees of the museum, not volunteers or members of the museums' private supporting organizations.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The DoD operating activities and Military Departments will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Maintain accountable records according to appropriate DoD and Service regulations of all items withdrawn from DLA Disposition Services sites, to include all materiel transactions, receipts from the DLA Disposition Services site, and transfer and exchange documents.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Provide to DLA Disposition Services a list of all the DoD museums and Service museums authorized to negotiate with DLA Disposition Services sites, including the name of the institution, address, telephone number, and the DoDAAC of the museum.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>National Guard units.</I> (<I>1</I>) National Guard Units will use the standard DoD processes to dispose excess DoD property through the use of DoDAACs.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Issues of excess DoD property and FEPP to National Guard units must be approved by the National Guard Bureau or the U.S. Property and Fiscal Officer (USP&amp;FO), or their authorized representative, for the State in which the National Guard unit is located. Requests received from National Guard units that do not contain the signature of the USP&amp;FO, their authorized representative, or the National Guard Bureau, will not be honored.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Senior ROTC units.</I> (<I>1</I>) Senior ROTCs will use standard DoD processes to dispose excess DoD property using DoDAACs.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Military Departments' Senior ROTC units may obtain excess DoD property and FEPP from DLA Disposition Services sites to support supplemental proficiency training programs. Orders to DLA Disposition Services sites must be approved by the installation commander or designee, normally responsible for providing logistical support to the instructors group. Property will be issued to the accountable officer of the school concerned.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>USCG.</I> As a recognized military service and a branch of the U.S. Armed Forces, and due to the association of the USCG to the U.S. Navy, DLA Disposition Services will accept USCG (DHS) excess property, USCG excess DoD property and FEPP for disposal. The principles outlined in paragraph (c)(3)(i) through (viii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) USCG excess DoD property may be transferred to the nearest DLA Disposition Services site after internal USCG screening. Physical retention of the property by the USCG is preferred, especially if size or economics prevent physical transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Property physically turned in to the DLA Disposition Services site does not qualify for reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) After the USCG completes all RTD screening for aircraft and vessels, DLA Disposition Services may provide sales services through an in-place MOU that outlines all USCG and DLA Disposition Services responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) USCG aircraft may be transferred to the Aerospace Maintenance and Regeneration Group (AMARG), Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, Arizona, according to the ISSA between the USCG and the USAF.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) USCG orders must include a citation as to the USCG directive authorizing the unit to obtain the property listed on the order. In addition, the fund citation for transportation must be included on the DTID. Individual floating and shore units of the USCG may be delegated authority to order excess DoD property without Commandant, USCG approval. Indicate the delegating authority on all orders. The DLA Disposition Services site need not validate the authenticity of the authority, but only the fact that such authorization appears on the order.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (COE) civil works property.</I> (<I>1</I>) Based on the association of Civil Works with the U.S. Army, the COE will use Department of the Army DoDAACs to transfer personal property through DLA Disposition Services for disposal, including hazardous property through a service contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) COE civil works activities may order property through DLA Disposition Services as a DoD activity, using an assigned Army DoDAAC or as an FCA, using an address activity code through GSAXcess®.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>MAP Property and Property for FMS.</I> DoD Directive 5105.22 and paragraph (b) of this section provide additional procedures for MAP property or for property that can be purchased by eligible organizations through FMS.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Following the country decision to dispose through DLA Disposition Services, the country and Security Assistance Office will determine, in coordination with DLA Disposition Services, the proper disposal method (<I>e.g.,</I> DEMIL or mutilation requirements, security classification, reimbursement decisions).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DLA Disposition Services, in coordination with the country and Security Assistance Office will make provision for in-country U.S. personnel, with assistance from local personnel, as appropriate, to act as DLA Disposition Services agent where turn-in by the generating activity and physical handling by the DLA Disposition Services site is impractical. In addition to MILSTRIP documentation requirements of DLM 4000.25-1, the generating activity will include the following data on the electronic turn-in document or DTID for MAP items.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Country.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) DTID number, to include at a minimum, in the first position, a service code (B, D, K, P, or T); in the second position, a country or activity code in accordance with DoD Directive 5230.20, and in the third position, the Julian date.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Identification of MAP Address Directory Security Assistance Offices initiating turn-in.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) MAP account fund citation.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Screen disposable MAP property for reutilization, FMS, and transfer to fill known federal needs. Process disposable MAP property surviving reutilization, FMS screening, and other transfers to sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Process MAP property used for any purpose other than to meet approved DoD needs for RTD or sale on a reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The allocation of weapons, ammunition, flyable aircraft (rotary and fixed-wing) and selected property will be accomplished by DLA, as coordinated with the Office of Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Supply Chain Integration.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) All other excess DoD property will be processed through DLA Disposition Services on a first-come, first-served basis.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>DoD contractors and contractor inventory.</I> (<I>1</I>) The disposal of DoD contractor inventory is generally the contractor's responsibility in accordance with 48 CFR 45.602-1 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation, unless the contract specifies that excess DoD property be returned to the government, as a result of a determination by the CO at contract expiration that DLA Disposition Services disposal would be in the best interests of the government. Property physically turned in to the DLA Disposition Services site does not qualify for reimbursement to the generating activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If property is purchased and retained by a DoD contractor, net proceeds from the sale of the property will be deposited into the generating activity's suspense account.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) DLM 4000.25-1 permits the Military Department or Defense Agency management control activity (MCA) to withdraw or authorize the withdrawal of specified excess DoD property from DLA Disposition Services sites for use as government-furnished material or government-furnished equipment to support contractual requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Orders will be completed in accordance with Chapter 11 of DLM 4000.25-1 and include the DoDAAC assigned to the contractor. These orders must be processed by the MCA having cognizance of the applicable contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Property ordered must be authorized and listed in the DoD contract(s) for which the property will be used, recorded in the ICP's MCA responsible for the contract, and the use of the ordered property approved by the CO or CO's representative (COR) for such contract(s). Each electronic or manual order (DD Form 1348-1A) must contain the signature and title of the CO or COR authorizing the withdrawal of excess DoD property from the disposal system. Each order must also contain the certification: “For use under Contract No(s)._____.” The certification should be signed by an authorized official and should indicate his or her official title.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) DLA Disposition Services sites cannot guarantee the property withdrawn meets minimum specifications and standards in terms of quality, condition, and safety.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>NAF activities.</I> (<I>1</I>) Includes expense items and NAF resale goods procured by NAF activities such as military exchanges and MWRAs or Services, but excludes commissary store trust fund account equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DLA Disposition Services will not process property typically reclaimed from customers by the military exchanges such as used batteries, tires, oils, etc., as a part of their normal business. The NAF must process property in accordance with the guidance shown under Army and Air Force Exchange Service in DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4 for disposal of these assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Acceptable types of property will be processed for federal screening only and are not eligible for donation. They are eligible for reutilization or transfer provided the generating NAF activities waive reimbursement or negotiate reimbursement with the ordering activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The generating activity will provide a statement on the DTID that the property was purchased with NAF to obtain appropriate reimbursement. If the DTID does not contain this citation, the property will be processed as normal excess DoD property.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In addition to standard entries, documentation will contain the unit cost (in lieu of the Federal Logistics Data acquisition cost) recorded in the financial and accounting records of the NAF activity. DLA Disposition Services sites will use this value for inventory, reporting, reutilization, transfer, and sale purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Reimbursement will be completed between the generating activity and the order for property reutilized or transferred. Sales proceeds will be deposited in accordance with Volume 11a, chapter 5 of DoD 7000.14-R (unless otherwise directed or superseded).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) DoD MWRAs or Services may order excess DoD property and FEPP through the MWRAs/Services that have a DoDAAC on file with the DAAS. Requests for small arms or light weapons must be ordered by servicing accountable officers only and be approved by the designated DoD focal point as identified in Table 4 of this subpart. See DoD Manual 4160.21 Volume 4 for guidelines on reutilization of small arms and light weapons.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) NAF property ordered by or through a servicing accountable officer will be used and accounted for the same as all procurements, according to applicable Military Department or Defense Agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Orders received by DLA Disposition Services sites directly from an MWRA or Military Department accountable officer will be for administrative and other purposes from which individuals will realize no direct benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Orders will contain the MWRA or Service account number, the signature of the MWRA or Service Accountable Officer, and a statement that the property obtained without reimbursement will be identified separately in accounting records from property for which reimbursement was made. The order will include the statement that, when such property is obtained without reimbursement is no longer needed, it will be turned in to the nearest DLA Disposition Services site and that no part of the proceeds from sale or other disposition will be returned to the MWRAs or Services. Perpetuate this information from the order in follow-on documentation.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If the property is not reutilized, transferred, or sold, DLA Disposition Services will notify the NAF activity that accountability will revert to the NAF activity and further disposal processing will be the responsibility of the NAF activity. If the DLA Disposition Services site has taken physical custody, the NAF activity will be responsible for retrieving the property.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>MARS.</I> (<I>1</I>) MARS is an appropriated fund activity that operates under the jurisdiction of the Military Departments and is an integral part of the DoD communication system. MARS units will use standard DoD processes to dispose excess DoD property using DoDAACs.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Military Departments responsible for MARS are authorized to order excess DoD property and FEPP through their respective accountable officers. The following ordering stipulations apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Designation of accountable officers and representatives authorized to screen and obtain excess DoD property and FEPP at DLA Disposition Services sites is described in this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The property ordered is for immediate use by a MARS member or member station for its intended purpose; property may not be acquired for storage. When property requested is to be used for reclamation, written approval for such action must be obtained in advance from the Military Department MARS chief in coordination with the accountable officer. Property ordered for reclamation is limited to materiel in DCC X or S.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Excess DoD property and FEPP ordered from a DLA Disposition Services site for MARS may be shipped to a DoD activity or picked up at a DLA Disposition Services site by personnel who are appropriately identified and approved. Property ordered for reclamation is designated for local pickup only at the DLA Disposition Services site. Maintain accountability of residue in accordance with Military Department directives.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The accountable officer will maintain accountability for all property acquired and issued to MARS members and MARS member stations. The property remains government property.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) When the property is no longer needed for use by the MARS, the accountable officer arranges for the equipment to be turned in to the nearest DLA Disposition Services site, if economically feasible. If it is not economically feasible to turn in the property, the accountable officer will employ A/D procedures according to Enclosure 4 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The respective Military Department may limit MARS orders to selected FSCs.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The release of property to MARS activities is governed by the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Army MARS.</I> In CONUS, the authority to order and obtain excess DoD property and FEPP to fill valid requirements is vested in the accountable MARS Program Manager (MPM) appointed by the Chief, Army MARS. Outside the CONUS, the authority to order and obtain excess DoD property and FEPP for the Army MARS program is vested in the 5th Signal Command MARS Director (Europe); 1st Signal Brigade U.S. Army Information System Command (USAISC) (Korea); USAISC Japan; and USAISC Western Command (Hawaii). The MPM who is the accountable officer appointed by the Chief, Army MARS will originate and sign all orders. Process orders through the applicable accountable officer for MARS equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Navy/Marine Corps MARS (NAVMARCORMARS).</I> In CONUS, the authority to originate orders for excess DoD property and FEPP to fill valid requirements in the NAVMARCORMARS program is vested in the Chief, NAVMARCORMARS; Deputy Chief, NAVMARCORMARS; Directors of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 7th MARS Regions; and the Officer in Charge, Headquarters Radio Station. All orders must be signed by the Chief, NAVMARCORMARS, or the Deputy Chief, NAVMARCORMARS. Process orders through the applicable accountable officer. Outside the CONUS, the authority to originate orders comes from Chief, NAVMARCORMARS; the Deputy Chief, NAVMARCORMARS; or a regional director or a specific designee of the Chief, NAVMARCORMARS. Process orders through the applicable accountable officer.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>USAF MARS.</I> The Office of the Chief, USAF MARS, and staff, active duty Installation MARS Directors (IMDs), and active MARS affiliates are authorized to screen and identify property for USAF MARS use. MARS affiliates are identified by a valid AF Form 3666, “Military Affiliate Radio System Station License and Identification Card,” signed by the Chief, USAF MARS. The IMD is appointed in writing by the installation commander or a designated representative; this appointment constitutes authority for screening and identification of property. Orders for property for MARS reutilization must be approved by the Chief, USAF MARS, or designated representative; this approval authority cannot be delegated. All approved orders will be processed through the USAF MARS Accountable Property Officer or designated alternate, who will initiate and sign a DD Form 1348-1A to authorize release of identified property. Authority to sign release documents will not be delegated. The accountable officer maintains current and valid identification of their MARS members to prevent unauthorized screening by MARS members or former members.
</P>
<P>(L) <I>CAP.</I> (<I>1</I>) The CAP is the official auxiliary of the USAF and is eligible to receive excess DoD property and FEPP without reimbursement subject to the approval of the Headquarters USAF, CAP (HQ CAP-USAF). Title to the property is transferred to the CAP upon the condition that the property be used by the CAP to support valid mission requirements. Authority for the CAP members to screen and obtain excess DoD property will be in writing and signed by an authorized official of the CAP-USAF. HQ CAP-USAF retains the authority to approve and control the types and amounts of items obtained by the CAP.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The CAP will remain accountable for all property acquired from the DoD disposal system and will maintain and safeguard the property from loss or damage. The CAP and its members are strictly prohibited from selling, donating, or bartering property previously obtained from the DoD disposal system under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The CAP is not eligible to screen or receive AMARG aircraft reported by the Military Departments and other governmental agencies. If flyable non-AMARG category “A” aircraft made available for screening by an owning Military Department are selected for issue and approved by the HQ CAP-USAF to fulfill valid CAP mission needs, the following procedures apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Flyable aircraft.</I> The head of the owning Military Department will issue the aircraft to the accounts specified by the HQ CAP-USAF, ensuring that data plates and all available historical and modification records accompany the aircraft. The aircraft will be issued to the CAP upon condition that it be used by the CAP to support valid mission requirements. Prior to issuance, the appropriate CAP corporate officer (wing commander or higher) will execute a conditional gift agreement that specifies that the aircraft (parts, etc.) be issued and delivered to AMARG when it becomes excess to CAP's mission needs. When the aircraft is no longer needed by the CAP, or as otherwise directed by the HQ CAP-USAF, the CAP will make arrangements through the HQ CAP-USAF for issue and delivery of the aircraft, data plates, and historical and modification records to AMARG.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Reclamation of parts.</I> If the HQ CAP-USAF elects to allow the CAP to use the aircraft for parts reclamation, the HQ CAP-USAF will contact the owning Military Department to make arrangements concerning reclamation of parts by the CAP. If the CAP declines to reclaim parts and components from the aircraft, the CAP will arrange through the HQ CAP-USAF for issue and delivery of the aircraft, data plates, and historical and modification records to AMARG.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>CAP aircraft.</I> All CAP aircraft delivered to AMARG will be reported to the GSA for use by FCAs and authorized donees. The CAP and its members are strictly prohibited from selling, donating, or bartering aircraft obtained from a Military Department under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The CAP units will use assigned DoDAACs beginning in “FG” to transfer and order excess personal property.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) CAP members will identify themselves for pickup of property as stated in this section.
</P>
<P>(M) <I>Federal Civilian Agencies (FCAs).</I> (<I>1</I>) These organizations include any non-defense executive agency or any member of the legislative or judicial branch of the government.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The processes discussed in this section apply to FCAs transferring to and ordering excess DoD property from DLA Disposition Services sites.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) FCAs that want to use DLA Disposition Services for disposition management instead of GSA are required to review and follow instructions provided on the DLA Disposition Services Web site and to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Comply with 31 U.S.C. 1535 (also known as the Economy Act).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Initiate an Economy Act Order with DLA Disposition Services Comptroller for establishing financial transactions. Final acceptance of the Economy Act Order constitutes authority for FCAs to use DLA Disposition Services. The Economy Act Order must be renewed on October 1 of each year. DLA Disposition Services transaction activity billing (TAB) rates, sales rates, and actual disposal rates are used for billing FCAs. TAB rates are available on the DLA Disposition Services Web site. DLA Disposition Services will bill and the FCA will pay all costs for services rendered. Billing documentation will include contract line item number, administrative, and services costs, and will be processed quarterly.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Ensure all laws and regulations are properly met prior to initiating a transfer transaction. Use DoD Instruction 4160.28; 41 CFR chapters 101 and 102; 48 CFR subpart 9.4 and 48 CFR 45.602-1, 52.233-1, and 14.407 of the FAR, current edition; and 5 U.S.C. 552, Volume 11a, Chapter 5 of DoD 7000.14-R, and Office of Management and Budget Circular A-76, “Performance of Commercial Activities” (available at 
</P>
<FP><I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/circulars_a076_a76_incl_tech_correction</I>) as governing documents.
</FP>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Comply with DLM 4000.25-1, since in-transit control requirements are not applicable to FCA turn-ins.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Comply with § 273.7(d), (e), and (f) for transferring excess DoD property, using DD Form 1348-1A or DD Form 1348-2, “Issue Release/Receipt Document with Address Label,” as DTIDs. Schedule turn-ins with the DLA Disposition Services site and assume responsibility for delivering usable and scrap property to DLA Disposition Services sites. Non-hazardous property may be received in-place using the standard DoD receipt in-place processes. Hazardous property cannot be physically accepted at the DLA Disposition Services site and will be processed in-place only, in accordance with paragraphs (c)(3)(viii)(M)(<I>3</I>)(<I>vi</I>) and (<I>vii</I>) of this section. Property will normally be turned in as individual line items; however, batchlotting by FSC of non-hazardous items with a combined acquisition value of up to $800 is permitted. Identify the transaction by using their officially assigned FCA activity address code (AAC). The first position of the AAC begins with 1 through 9. Annotate “XP” funding code in blocks 52 and 53 and a disposal authority code of “F” in position 64 of the DTID. Annotate the DLA Disposition Services Economy Act Order Assigned Number in block 27. Include appropriate hazardous property documents containing the required information found in Volume 4 of DoD 4160.21-M. Ensure that no radioactive material, waste, or other excluded hazardous property is turned in to the DLA Disposition Services site. Cover costs associated with substantiated sale contracts claims, if negligence or fault is established. Contact the appropriate DLA Disposition Services site for procedures to use when inventory discrepancies surface for property that the FCA is designated the custodian. The FCA will research and provide a report of the lost, damaged, or destroyed property. Procedures are contained in accordance with Volume 12, Chapter 7 of DoD 7000.14-R.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Work with DLA Disposition Services to obtain HW disposal contract support, pursuant to the provisions of the FAR; for hazardous property, FCAs will define disposal service requirements for HW disposal and provide a yearly estimate of HW streams that may be generated and placed on DLA Disposition Services disposal service contracts; cover costs associated with substantiated contracts claims, if negligence or fault is established; maintain physical custody of hazardous property; provide a designated FCA representative to act as a CO's technical representative during pickup of hazardous property, and identify who will be trained and authorized to release the property for shipment, including signing shipping documents according to the procedures provided in 49 CFR part 172, subpart H.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Comply with the following liability provisions. Should any DLA HW disposal contractors' actions on behalf of the FCA result in a notice of potential liability to DLA or the FCA under 42 U.S.C. 9601 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act), 42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I> (also known as the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act), or any other provision of federal or State law, immediate notification will be provided to DLA Disposition Services or the FCA. The FCA retains ultimate liability for hazardous property; FCAs will be responsible for environmental response costs attributable to their generated hazardous property. FCA is considered the generator for reporting purposes in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I> and 9601 <I>et seq.;</I> According to the terms of DLA Disposition Services HW disposal contracts, DLA Disposition Services disposal contractors are responsible for spills or leaks during the performance of their contracts, which result from the actions of the contractors' agents or employees; At no time will the DLA Disposition Services site dispose FCA excess DoD property or any provision of a HW contract for FCA property be interpreted or construed to require that funds be obligated or paid in violation of 31 U.S.C. 1341 or any other provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) FCAs will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Work with DLA Disposition Services for DEMIL-required disposal support in accordance with the provisions of DoD Instruction 4160.28.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Reimburse DLA Disposition Services for A/D-related services.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Continue to turn in PM-bearing property at no charge in support of the DoD PMRP according to the procedures in Enclosure 5 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2. These transactions are accomplished through an ISSA.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Pay for all services rendered, according to established requirements and fees.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Two months prior to the Economy Act Order's expiration, the FCA will notify the DLA Disposition Services Comptroller whether continued services are desired.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the Economy Act Order has not been re-established, DLA Disposition Services will continue to receive property for 60 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) FCAs will continue payments until all property that was received within the fiscal year has been processed, even if the Economy Act Order has expired.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) FCAs will pay at the rates established or re-established and maintain internal procedures to track DTIDs against billings for reconciliation.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The policies in 41 CFR chapter 101 will be implemented when:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An official Economy Act Order is finalized and the DLA Disposition Services Finance Office ensures that an officially assigned FCA AAC is in the DLA Disposition Services Accounting System. (This will indicate to DLA Disposition Services sites that receipt of excess property from the requesting FCA is authorized.)
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A provisional copy or signed copy of a DD Form 1348-1A is the instant at which accountability for the FCA property (non-hazardous or hazardous) is transferred to a DLA Disposition Services site.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If at any time any issue requires resolution, a team approach will be used at the turn-in activity and DLA Disposition Services site level. Disputes that cannot be resolved will be elevated to the next corresponding level of the FCA and the DLA Disposition Services. If necessary, alternative dispute resolution will be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) DLA Disposition Services sites will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Reserve the right to refuse any turn-in due to workload or resource constraints if support would seriously impair the DLA mission for the DoD.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Receive and screen FCA property using the same method used for excess DoD property, except property will not be made available to those special program organizations who, because of enabling legislation, may only obtain excess DoD property; <I>e.g.,</I> HAP, law enforcement support offices, and SEAs.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Sales proceeds, if any, will be deposited into the U.S. Treasury as miscellaneous receipts, unless otherwise specified by law. No reimbursement of proceeds will be made to the FCA. Contract claims resulting from the sale of federal property may be the responsibility of the FCA.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) For hazardous property, DLA Disposition Services will notify FCAs of any:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) New procedures pertaining to the disposal process or funding changes. HW contracts may be modified by mutual written consent of the parties. Modifications requiring resource changes may be given with enough advance notification for revisions or adjustments to be made during the budget formulation process and the hazardous disposal service contract process.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Proposed changes to administrative support costs at least 60 days in advance of a change.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) DLA Disposition Services will ensure DEMIL-required property and property that may require export controls are processed appropriately. Property requiring DEMIL may be shipped to an alternate location either by DLA Disposition Services or by an FCA. These charges are included in the TAB rates.
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) FCAs desiring to order excess DoD property from DLA Disposition Services sites will follow the GSA procedures for acquiring property through GSAXcess®. Once excess DoD property is physically obtained from DLA Disposition Services, the property belongs to and must be disposed by the FCA. This includes property that is DEMIL or mutilation required. Turn-in of previously ordered property from the DLA Disposition Services will be accepted from only those FCAs that have established an Economy Act Order.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) FCAs may continue to participate in the DoD PMRP at no charge, in accordance with Enclosure 5 to DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 2. These transactions are accomplished via an ISSA between DLA Disposition Services and FCAs.
</P>
<P>(O) <I>U.S. Postal Service (USPS).</I> (<I>1</I>) USPS is not authorized to dispose excess DoD property through DLA Disposition Services without an FCA intragovernmental agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If such an agreement is executed:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Items of a strictly postal nature, such as a carrier satchel embossed “U.S. Mail,” postal scales, or other equipment so similar in nature or design to official USPS equipment as to cause confusion may not be turned in to DLA Disposition Services sites, sold, or disposed to the general public until the USPS has been notified of the intended disposition and offered an opportunity to inspect the equipment. DLA Disposition Services sites will notify local post office inspectors of the existence of this property and arrange for its inspection if the USPS wants to prevent it from falling into the hands of unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) DoD purchased or owned postal equipment with official postal identification markings may be transferred to the USPS through DLA Disposition Services site processing, under the standard transfer policies in 41 CFR chapter 101. If transferred from DoD Components without going through an official DLA Disposition Services site, the DoD activity will negotiate with USPS for fair market reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Property not transferred that contains markings that would tend to confuse this property with official USPS equipment will have the markings removed before release for DLA Disposition Services site processing.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Excess DoD postal equipment loaned to DoD Components by the USPS will be returned to the USPS.
</P>
<P>(P) <I>American National Red Cross.</I> Property that was processed or donated by the American National Red Cross to a Military Department and becomes excess DoD property may not be disposed without notice to and consultation with the American National Red Cross. This property will be returned without reimbursement to the American National Red Cross upon request, if that organization pays packing and shipping costs.
</P>
<P>(Q) <I>DoD Computers for Learning (CFL).</I> The DoD CFL program implements Executive Order 12999, “Educational Technology: Ensuring Opportunity for All Children in the Next Century” and enables DoD to transfer excess IT equipment to pre-kindergarten through grade 12 schools and educational non-profit organizations through a DLA Disposition Services web-based program. The DLA Disposition Services program replaces the DoD Computers for School, Educational Institution Partnership Program that was overseen by the Defense Information Systems Agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Eligible educational organizations serve pre-kindergarten through grade 12 students and are public, private, or parochial schools or educational nonprofits classified as tax-exempt under section 501c of the United States tax code. Schools and educational nonprofits must be located within the United States and its territories.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Schools must register in the DLA Disposition Services web-based CFL program and complete all point of contact and profile information.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Schools must ensure that IT equipment transferred will be used for student and faculty training to augment existing IT equipment, to strengthen their infrastructure, or for other academic-related programs.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) All costs incurred in connection with the transfer of equipment through the CFL will be the responsibility of the school and include: Expenses in connection with the school's inspection of the IT equipment at DoD sites; cost of packing, crating, marking, and loading the equipment on the carrier's conveyance for transportation; and cost of transportation from DoD sites.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DoD IT equipment FSG 70 with a DEMIL Code of A and DEMIL Code of Q with an Integrity Code of 6 that is located in CONUS and has been accepted to a DLA Disposition Services site's accountability records is eligible for transfer within DoD CFL once DoD screening is complete and the inventory is not requisitioned by DoD.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) IT equipment is available on an “as-is” basis, without warranties from DoD as to the condition of the equipment. Eligible equipment includes mainframes, minicomputers, microcomputers, modems, disk drives, printers, and items that are defined within the FSG 70 and are appropriate for use in CFL.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) After the DoD excess screening is completed, providing there are no DoD requests, DLA Disposition Services will:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Make provisions for schools to receive information concerning DoD IT equipment that is available for transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Notify the schools of available equipment that matches the profile submitted by the school.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) “Freeze” the equipment when the school verifies a need so that other schools cannot be offered the same equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Review, approve, and notify generating activities to transfer to a school by generating a MRO from DLA Disposition Services system for accounting for excess surplus property in DoD to decrement quantity and preclude transmission to the FEDS.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) While holding for transfer to schools, the following applies: 7-day accumulation (DoD can order anytime) and 14-day DoD screening (DoD can order anytime).
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) On day 14, if still available, DLA Disposition Services will freeze the property and create a MILSTRIP initiating a transfer to school transaction. DLA Disposition Services will send MILSTRIP to the generating activity, who will arrange for the school to remove the item. Schools authorized a transfer are responsible for arranging the pickup or shipping of IT equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) The IT equipment not designated to schools during the DoD CFL timeframe will be transmitted to GSAXcess® for FCAs and donees.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Generating activities can specify a school for intended transfer once DLA Disposition Services has accountability of the equipment, through the DLA Disposition Services web-based CFL program. From the DLA Disposition Services Home Page, the user may click on Property Search for Military, Federal, State, and Special Programs, then click on “Computers for Learning.” The CFL Program enables the generating activity to view the IT equipment that was turned in under their DoDAAC and then designate that equipment to approved schools. The generating activity has 7 days to make this selection; otherwise, the equipment can be viewed by any eligible educational activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Equipment not identified by a generating activity for a specific school will be made available to schools and educational non-profit organizations that are approved within CFL.
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) The authorized school is responsible for coordinating with the generating activity for the removal of equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) The authorized school has 14 days after receipt of authorization to remove the equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>xii</I>) If the school does not remove the equipment within the 14 days, the generating activity will notify the DLA Disposition Services site of the non-removal.
</P>
<P>(<I>xiii</I>) Upon receipt of notification, the DLA Disposition Services site will notify DLA Disposition Services to cancel the order.
</P>
<P>(R) <I>Firefighter Transfer Program.</I> The DoD has authorized the U.S. Department of Agriculture Forestry Service (USDA FS) to manage DoD firefighting property transfers provided for in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2576b. Title to all Firefighter Property Transfer Program property will pass to the State upon:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The State taking possession of the equipment (such as removing or having the equipment removed from a DLA Disposition Services site).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The State receiving a DD 1348, “DoD Single Line Item Requisition System Document (Manual),” or SF 97 or both for the equipment. The DD Form 1348 or SF 97 will indicate which property requires DEMIL (DEMIL Codes C, D, and F).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The USDA FS will track all equipment requiring DEMIL until final disposition and require the State to ensure that such equipment is either transferred to another DoD agency authorized to receive it or is returned to a DLA Disposition Services site when no longer required. USDA FS will require the State coordinate any such transfers and returns with the Distribution Reutilization Policy Directorate at DLA prior to the transfer. The recipients are responsible for funding shipment or removal.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Expedited processing (EP).</I> (A) EP is the approved reduction of screening timeframes. In the zone of interior (ZI), EP may be used on a case-by-case basis. Situations where EP may be considered include backlog situations, potential deterioration from outside storage, or other compelling reasons.
</P>
<P>(B) GSA is the approving authority for EP for non-DEMIL required property within the ZI. DLA Disposition Services is the approving authority for DEMIL-required property within the ZI.
</P>
<P>(C) Current automation technology allows items going through EP to be visible on the DLA Disposition Services Web site and GSAXcess®.
</P>
<P>(D) In contingency operations the supported Combatant Command has the authority to accelerate screening timelines based on mission requirements and operational tempo.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Screener identification and authorization.</I> (A) Individuals visiting DLA Disposition Services sites to view, order, or remove property or for any other reason are required to provide proper identification as authorized representatives of a valid recipient activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Upon arrival at the DLA Disposition Services site, the individuals will sign the vehicle or visitor register indicating the vehicle registration number and the purpose of their visit.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Visitors representing donation recipients will only be allowed to complete the tasks identified under “purpose of visit” on the vehicle or visitor register.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) All screeners will specify the DoDAAC or AAC for which they are inspecting.
</P>
<P>(B) DoD screeners will further identify themselves as authorized representatives of a DoD Component by means of a current employee or Military personnel identification issued by the DoD activity.
</P>
<P>(C) FCA screeners will present current employee identification as valid authorization. This also applies to screeners representing mixed-ownership USG corporations.
</P>
<P>(D) Non-federal screeners will present an authorization on the letterhead of the sponsoring activity, identifying the bearer and indicating the nature of the authorization. This letter of authorization will be updated at least annually or as changes occur.
</P>
<P>(E) All SEA screeners will present a valid driver's license or other State-approved picture identification or the letter of authorization.
</P>
<P>(F) DLA Disposition Services sites will refer problems in identifying screeners to the activity commander. For FCA and donation screeners, refer to the proper GSA regional office.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Screening for property at DLA Disposition Services sites.</I> (A) DLA Disposition Services sites will assist customers interested in obtaining property by referring them to the DLA Disposition Services Web site or by providing guidance for physical inspection and location of property. Assistance may also include use of a customer-designated personal computer to screen assets worldwide and establish a pre-defined customer want list.
</P>
<P>(B) When a prospective donation recipient contacts a DLA Disposition Services site or military installation regarding possible acquisition of surplus property, the individual or organization will be advised to contact the applicable SASP for determination of eligibility and procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Orders for FEPP, excess, and surplus property from DLA Disposition Services and GSA</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (A) DoD activities, FCAs, and other authorized activities are permitted to order DoD FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property based on the property status at the time the authorized screener identifies its availability from the DLA Disposition Services Web site. This property may be ordered through DLA Disposition Services or GSA.
</P>
<P>(B) DLM 4000.25-1 requires orders for property on the DLA Disposition Services site's accountable records to be prepared on DD Forms 1348-1A or 1348-2. The use of the DLA Disposition Services Web site allows orders to be processed without hard copies of DD Forms 1348-1A or 1348-2. A separate order is required for each line item on a DLA Disposition Services site's inventory (except batchlots that are grouped together). The shopper will furnish the appropriate information either electronically or by hard copy.
</P>
<P>(C) Orders for property in the GSA screening cycle will be submitted through GSAXcess®. Customers are required to complete and submit the SF 122 “Transfer Order Excess Personal Property” to GSA. GSA will then transmit the order to DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(D) DoD activities (other than MWRAs or Services, which are covered in § 273.6) must request Military Department or Defense Agency excess and FEPP through servicing accountable officers or their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(E) See § 273.6 for special guidance affecting USCG ordering.
</P>
<P>(F) U.S. Army accountable supply officers should check with their finance accounting office prior to requesting items from DLA Disposition Services. Often, Army customers are billed internally for the items they have ordered from DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(G) The following principles apply to acquiring property from these sources, including Federal regulations, which apply to the Department of Defense, special programs and activities, FCAs, and donees when acquiring excess or surplus personal property:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) There must be an authorized requirement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The cost of acquiring and maintaining the excess personal property (including packaging, shipping, pickup, and necessary repairs) does not exceed the cost of purchasing and maintaining new materiel and does not exceed the value of property requested.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The sources of spare parts or repair and maintenance services to support the acquired item are readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The supply of excess parts acquired must not exceed the life expectancy of the equipment supported.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The excess personal property will fulfill the required need with reasonable certainty without sacrificing mission or schedule.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Excess personal property must NOT be acquired with the intent to sell or trade for other assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) DoD activities will request only that property that is authorized by the parent HQ or command. Activities may not request quantities of property exceeding authorized retention limits.
</P>
<P>(H) The special screening programs will request only property that is authorized by the program or activity accountable officer or program manager, whichever is applicable. If the special screening programs want DLA Disposition Services site to verify the FSC has been authorized before release, the accountable officer or program manager must provide a current authorized FSC list to the DLA Disposition Services site. The removal agent must sign any certification required, acknowledging understanding of rules of disposal, prior to removal of the property.
</P>
<P>(I) The Military Department accountable officer who designates DoD individuals to sign orders on their behalf must provide DLA Disposition Services sites with an electronic letter of authorization, identifying those individuals. The template for the letter is on the DLA Disposition Services Web site. It will include the full name, activity, DoDAAC, telephone number, address, and signature of the individuals authorized to sign and authenticate MROs. These individuals may be different from those who are the initial shoppers or those picking up the property.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency requests.</I> (A) Telephone requests during non-duty hours may be made by contacting the DLA Disposition Services staff duty officer (SDO) (DSN 661-4233; Commercial, 269-961-4233). Under these circumstances, the SDO will record the request and will contact the DLA Disposition Services program manager to initiate proper action.
</P>
<P>(B) If a DoD activity has an emergency need for a surplus DoD item in the possession of a SASP, it may be requested from that SASP. The acquiring DoD activity must pay any costs of care, handling, and transportation that were incurred by the SASP in acquiring this property.
</P>
<P>(C) For requests for property to fill training aid and target need orders, see “Training Aids and Target Requirements” in paragraph 147 of Enclosure 3 of DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Late orders.</I> (A) If a DoD order is received after the screening timeline has expired, the customer will provide justification as to the true necessity for the property requested, indicating why other comparable property in the DLA Disposition Services inventory does not satisfy the need. See paragraph (a) of this section for more guidance if the property needs to be withdrawn from sale.
</P>
<P>(B) Orders for property received during the GSAXcess® screening period must be submitted according to GSA ordering procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Requests for small arms and light weapons.</I> Small arms and light weapons (see § 273.12) will be processed according to the guidance in DoD Manual 4160.21, Volume 4. Table 5 of this section contains a list of Military Department and Defense Agency designated control points authorized to initiate orders or through which orders must be routed for review and approval before issue can be effected.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—DoD Designated Control Points for Small Arms and Light Weapons Ordering, Reviewing, and Approving
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Service/Agency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Control point
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Army</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Director of Armament and Logistics Activity, Chemical Acquisition, ATTN: AMSTA-AC-ASI, Rock Island, IL 61299-7630, Telephone: DSN 793-7531, Commercial: (309) 782-7531.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Force</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WR-ALC/GHGAM, 460 Richard Ray Blvd. Suite 221, Robins AFB, GA 31098-1640, Telephone: DSN 497-2877, Commercial: (478) 327-2877.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marine Corps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commandant of the Marine Corps, ATTN: LPC, Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps, 3000 Marine Corps, Pentagon, RM 2E211, Washington, DC 20350, Telephone: DSN 225-8900, Commercial: (703) 695-8900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coast Guard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commandant, ATTN: CG-7211, Commandant (CG-7211), U. S. Coast Guard HQ, Douglas A. Munro Bldg., 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Ave, SE, Stop 7331, Washington, DC 20593-7331, (202) 372-2030.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Security Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Security Agency, Item Accounting Branch, ATTN: L112, Fort George Meade, MD 20755 6000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defense Intelligence Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defense Intelligence Agency, ATTN: RLE 2, Washington, DC 20340 3205.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defense Threat Reduction Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters, Defense Threat Reduction Agency, 8725 John J. Kingman Road MSC 6201, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-6201, ATTN: BDLL, Telephone: DSN 427-0785, Commercial (703) 767-0785.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Condition of property ordered.</I> Orders authorized by DLA Disposition Services or GSA regional offices will be processed as expeditiously as possible and according to the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System priority on the requisition.
</P>
<P>(i) DLA Disposition Services sites will determine the property requested is in as good a condition as it was during screening.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the ordered property has materially deteriorated from screening or receipt to inspection for shipment, the DLA Disposition Services site will advise the customer before shipment. The shipment will be suspended pending agreement by the customer that the property will be accepted in its present condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Once ordered, and pending receipt of an approved transfer document or removal of the property, no parts may be removed without prior approval of DLA Disposition Services (for DoD orders) or GSA (for transfers and donations), and agreement by the customer that the property will be accepted in its altered condition.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reimbursement requirements.</I> (i) The generating activity will identify reimbursement requirements on the DTID when transferring property to the DLA Disposition Services site. Although not specifically a DLA Disposition Services responsibility, DLA Disposition Services sites may contact the generating activity when they suspect the generator may be eligible for reimbursement but has not noted it on the DTID.
</P>
<P>(ii) Issue of declared Military Department or Defense Agency FEPP, excess and surplus personal property to DoD users will be on a non-reimbursable basis except when the customer is prohibited by law from acquiring FEPP, excess and surplus property without reimbursement or where reimbursement is required by annotations on the receipt DTID. Issues to the USPS require fair-market value reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requester will transfer funds to the generating activity without DLA Disposition Services site involvement.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DLA Disposition Services site will provide the name of the property requiring reimbursement when it is requested by the DoD or an FCA. The requesting activity and the generating activity must agree on the appropriate amount of funds, and how they will be transferred. When this is accomplished, the generating activity must give the DLA Disposition Services site a letter indicating what property is to be transferred and to whom. The DLA Disposition Services site will file a copy of this letter with the issue document to create an audit trail.
</P>
<P>(v) Issues of DoD FEPP, excess, and surplus personal property, other than foreign purchased property and other property identified as reimbursable, will be at no cost to FCAs and to SASPs.
</P>
<P>(A) Property purchased with working capital funds is not eligible for reimbursement in the transfer or donation program. GSA may direct transfers be made with reimbursement at fair market value.
</P>
<P>(B) Public law may prohibit FCAs from obtaining certain property.
</P>
<P>(C) FCAs, for the purpose of issue of excess property, include federal executive agencies other than the DoD; wholly owned government corporations; the Senate; the House of Representatives; the Architect of the Capitol and any activities under their direction; the municipal government of the District of Columbia; or non-federal agencies for whom GSA procures.
</P>
<P>(vi) Foreign purchased property reimbursements will be at the acquisition value.
</P>
<P>(vii) For special programs and activities, DLA Disposition Services sales to special account fund citations may be required in accordance with Volume 11a, Chapter 5 of DoD 7000.14-R. For DLA Disposition Services to provide timely and accurate reimbursements, the transportation account code address in DLA Transaction Services must be correct and current.
</P>
<P>(A) In accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, all DoD MLI and Commerce Control List (CCL) personal property, whether located within or outside the United States, will be transferred in accordance with 22 CFR parts 120 through 130 and 15 CFR parts 730 through 774.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DoD MLI or CCL personal property will not be transferred to any foreign person or entity without DoS or DOC approval, authorization, license, license exception, exemption, or other authorization for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such property will not be transferred to prohibited or sanctioned entities identified by the Departments of State, Commerce, and Treasury. A consolidated list of prohibited entities by these Departments may be found at <I>http://export.gov/ecr/eg_main_023148.asp</I>.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Property will not be transferred to persons or entities from countries proscribed from trade under regulations maintained by the Office of Foreign Assets Control. The agency (<I>e.g.,</I> GSA or USAF CAP Program Manager) approving the transaction must determine recipient eligibility prior to issuing the requisition to DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If the agency approving the requisition cannot determine that a U.S. person or entity is involved with the property transaction, the recipient must obtain and provide the appropriate license or approval to the agency approving the transaction.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Approving agencies must be involved in any subsequent re-transfer requests by the recipient. The recipient must request the agency's permission prior to taking any disposition action. If the approving agency authorizes the potential transfer, the recipient must then comply with 22 CFR parts 120 through 130, also known as the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR), or 15 CFR parts 730 through 780, also known as the Export Administration Regulations (EAR), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) For USML and CCL property, DLA Disposition Services sites will require recipients to sign a statement acknowledging their responsibility to comply with U.S. export laws and regarding regulations. The statement must be signed prior to the release of the property according to the DEMIL procedures in DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3. If property is destined for export, the recipient must get appropriate export authorizations from the DoS or DOC in accordance with DoD Instruction 2030.08.
</P>
<P>(C) DLA Disposition Services sites may issue DEMIL-required property to approved special programs or GSA eligibility-approved FCAs without DEMIL being accomplished.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prior to release from DoD control, DLA Disposition Services sites must obtain a written agreement (see Appendixes 1 and 2 of this section) from the requesting special program or FCA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) This agreement acknowledges that the recipient will DEMIL the USML property in accordance with DoD 4160.28-M Volumes 1-3, when the property is no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The agreement further states that if the property is to be re-transferred, the recipient must obtain approval from its program manager (approving agency) and in coordination with the DoD DEMIL program manager prior to further disposition or before releasing the USML property outside their control. The representative of the recipient is required to sign the DEMIL agreement before release of any USML property.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If the recipient requests DLA Disposition Services to perform final disposition, an MOA must be executed or in place with DLA Disposition Services for such services.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The DLA Disposition Services site will provide a completed copy of the certification to the GSA and retain a copy with the issue documentation.
</P>
<P>(D) DLA Disposition Services sites may transfer CCL (DEMIL Code Q) and non-DEMIL-required USML (DEMIL Code B) property that may have import and export controls to approved special programs or FCAs. Prior to release of such CCL and non-DEMIL-required USML property, the requesting special program or FCA must provide written notification to the DLA Disposition Services site (see Appendixes 3 and 4 of this section). This notification confirms recipient's understanding that export or import of the CCL or non-DEMIL-required USML property is regulated by the USG and in many cases cannot be transferred (exported, imported, sold, etc.) to a foreign person, entity or foreign country without valid USG license or other authorization.
</P>
<P>(viii) GSA reviews and approves each order, each in its respective screening cycle (transfer or donation).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Shipment or pick-up elections by customers</I>—(i) <I>Criteria for non-RCP property.</I> (A) DLA Disposition Services will make arrangements for shipment of non-RCP property from Military Department orders unless notified by the DoD Component of the intent to physically pick up the property. DLA Disposition Services has been authorized to use ground services for the movement of reutilization property. The DLA Disposition Services Transportation Office will notify DLA Disposition Services sites of the authorized carrier.
</P>
<P>(B) The DoD Component and special programs have 14 calendar days (15 days from the date on the order) to remove the non-RCP property ordered during the DoD screening cycles.
</P>
<P>(C) Transfer (FCA) and donee (State agency) customers are always required to make their own pickup and shipment arrangements for non-RCP property orders and have 21 calendar days to remove non-RCP property ordered during the GSAXcess® screening cycle.
</P>
<P>(D) Standard transportation or preferred pick up of the property requested by DoD customers who are allocated property by GSA apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If DoD transfers customers order from the GSAXcess®, they also have 21 days to remove the non-RCP property.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Customers required to pick up or arrange direct pickup must do so within the allotted standard removal time period unless it is extended by the DLA Disposition Services site chief. An example of justification for extended removal time would be as a result of a natural disaster (flood, snow, etc.). DLA Disposition Services site personnel may refuse MILSTRIPs or walk-in removals for customers who fail to pick up their property within the removal period and request cancellation of the order.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Criteria for RCP property.</I> (A) DLA Disposition Services will arrange for shipment of RCP property from Military Department and special program orders.
</P>
<P>(B) FCAs will designate the method of transportation for RCP property ordered using one of the following options:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The FCA arrange with carriers of their choice to remove the property from a designated staging area at the depot; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The FCAs requests the DLA Disposition Services RCP Office to use an approved carrier under the DoD blanket purchase agreement awarded carrier for Domestic Express Small Package Service under the GSA Multiple Award Schedule for shipments of 150 pounds or less at <I>http://private.amc.af.mil/a4/domexpress/spsindex.html</I>. Use of this option for the smaller shipments requires a one-time notification to DLA Disposition Services of the preferred carrier and account number in the format.
</P>
<P>(C) FCAs must arrange with the carriers of their choice for shipments in excess of 150 pounds.
</P>
<P>(D) Donee (State agency) customers are always required to make their own pickup or shipment arrangements for RCP property orders from designated staging areas.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Packing, crating, and handling.</I> See § 273.7.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Shipment and removals (transportation).</I>—(i) <I>DoD and designated DoD-supported customers.</I> (A) Prudence in transportation services benefits the Military Departments, Defense Agencies, MARS, CAP, National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Space Shuttle Support), National Guard Units, Reserve Units, DoD contractor when approved by the CO, Senior ROTC, and MWRA/Services when ordered through the Military Department accountable officer and DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(B) In cases where the cost of the transportation exceeds the acquisition value of the property, DLA Disposition Services sites will evaluate the commodity and its actual value; make a judgment as to its true condition and the priority of the order.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The DLA Disposition Services site will contact the customer and provide the property's estimated value and transportation cost to ship the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a lower cost transportation mode is available, meets the requirements of the order, and the customer and DLA Disposition Services site agree, the DLA Disposition Services site will arrange for the alternate shipment mode. If it would not be cost effective to ship the property as requested, the customer will be asked to cancel the order.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the customer reconfirms the need for the property, the following certification information will be provided to a DLA Disposition Services site along with the customer reconfirmation statement found in Appendix 5 of this section. DoD activities must prepare, sign, and submit a justification statement for property where the transportation costs exceed 50 percent of the acquisition value of the property. The justification statement will be signed by the Property Book Officer or designated representative and will state:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The purpose for which the item is to be used and whether the item is mission-essential to the operation of the requestor's activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Any additional information deemed necessary to show criticality of the requisition. The statement should be included with the DD Form 1348. Failure to provide a statement may result in the requisition being canceled.
</P>
<P>(C) If the customer determines the shipment is not needed, the customer will initiate cancellation action according to the procedures in DLM 4000.25-1.
</P>
<P>(D) The shipper will finance parcel post shipments between DoD agencies without reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other customers (excluding transfer and donation customers).</I> (A) LEAs are responsible for removing or making arrangements for shipments.
</P>
<P>(B) MWRAs not ordering property through a military accountable supply officer, DoD museums, academic institutions, and non-profit organizations for educational purposes, Senior ROTC units and FCAs must pay for transportation costs and must provide a fund citation prior to shipment or pick up of the property.
</P>
<P>(C) Only one carrier is authorized per agency, and once the agency has designated a carrier, 30 days notice is required to change a carrier.
</P>
<P>(D) FMS customers are responsible for most transportation costs associated with the movement of ordered property.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The DLA Disposition Services FMS Office will identify exceptions to this rule. Transportation of sensitive and other critical FMS shipments will be coordinated between the DLA Disposition Services FMS Office, the purchasing country, and other DoD agencies, as required. For these shipments, the DLA Disposition Services FMS Office will provide separate instructions and fund citations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Transportation arrangements will be made by the DLA Disposition Services site or by the supporting transportation office.
</P>
<P>(E) HAP orders are shipped by DLA Disposition Services by surface to the central point using the most cost-effective mode (and must remain within the assigned theater). At no time will HAP property be shipped by air unless directed by DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Shipment or denial notifications.</I> (i) DLA Disposition Services sites will use the guidance in DLM 4000.25-1 to prepare materiel release confirmations in response to MROs received from DLA Disposition Services.
</P>
<P>(ii) When shipments are complete, DLA Disposition Services sites will furnish a copy of the shipping document to the customer. This document confirms shipment. The customer will notify the DLA Disposition Services site if the property is not received within a reasonable period of time. FCAs will only be provided a copy of the SF 122, with annotation of the transportation data, when arrangements for DLA Disposition Services sites to ship the property have been made in advance.
</P>
<P>(iii) DLA Disposition Services sites will:
</P>
<P>(A) Advise the customer if the property requested is no longer available or of acceptable condition.
</P>
<P>(B) Document non-availability by a materiel release denial prepared in accordance with DLM 4000.25-1, if item(s) for an MRO are not available.
</P>
<P>(C) Issue a letter for all other non-availability notifications, with a copy to GSA if they approved the order. The letter will contain the following data at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) NSN.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Order number.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Quantity not available.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Customer removal of ordered property</I>—(i) <I>Identification requirements.</I> When a customer (DoD election to pick up property ordered from the DLA Disposition Services site or an FCA or donee) makes removal arrangements, the individuals removing the property must be properly identified. Coordinate with DLA Disposition Services prior to arrival to complete and transmit documents for identification.
</P>
<P>(A) Upon arrival at the DLA Disposition Services site, the individuals will identify themselves, sign a DLA Disposition Services visitor and vehicle register and indicate on the register the DoDAAC represented (for DoD activities) or AAC represented (for non-DoD activities), and the purpose of the visit.
</P>
<P>(B) Visitor and vehicle registers will be readily accessible (see paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Documentation requirements.</I> (A) Customers will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Present an approved and authenticated DD Form 1348-1A, SF 122, or 123 “Transfer Order Surplus Personal Property,” as appropriate, for specific property. The accountable officer or authorized individual(s) listed in the previously provided authentication letter must sign the DD Form 1348-1A, SF 122, or SF 123.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide designated carrier or removal agents with a copy of DD Form 1348-1A or SFs 122 or 123, as appropriate, indicating removal authority.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) DoD customers must have a hard copy of the electronically transmitted letter of authorization prior to removal, and an email response from DLA Disposition Services with verification of personnel authorized to remove property.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Transfer and donation customers must provide a completed letter of authorization to remove property to the DLA Disposition Services site prior to removal for verification purposes.
</P>
<P>(B) DLA Disposition Services sites will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Ensure the visitor and vehicle register for each direct issue includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Name of the individual receiving the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) DoDAAC or AAC or physical location address.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Activity of the individual receiving the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Ensure each customer is issued a badge when signing in.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Ensure that DD Form 1348-1A or SF 122 or 123 is complete according to MILSTRIP and disposal requirements and is signed by the applicable accountable officer or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For DoD walk-in customers, ensure a current letter is on file at the DLA Disposition Services site identifying the accountable officer and authorized individual(s) signing and approving the order.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Fill the order.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Provide any appropriate disclaimers or certifications of usage or disposal to the customer for signature prior to releasing the property.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Furnish a copy of the completed shipping document to the respective accountable officer (record positions 30-35 of DD Form 1348-1A).
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If being removed by anyone other than the customer, verify that the carrier has valid documentation (a copy of DD Form 1348-1A or SFs 122 or 123, as appropriate) indicating removal authority. Arrange for completion of any disclaimers or certifications of usage or disposal with the customer, prior to releasing the property to the carrier.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) In case of doubt as to the validity of pickup representatives, DLA Disposition Services sites should contact the accountable officer who prepared the order for DoD activities, or DLA Disposition Services for activities authorized to order as DoD special programs, or the GSA regional office for other FCAs or donees.



</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 1 to § 273.15
</HD1>
<HD1>DEMIL Agreement for DEMIL-Required USML Property to FCAs (DEMIL Codes C, D, E, OR F)</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.235.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.236.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 2 to § 273.15
</HD1>
<HD1>DEMIL Agreement for DEMIL-Required USML Property to Special Programs (DEMIL Codes C, D, E, or F)</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.237.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.238.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 3 to § 273.15
</HD1>
<HD1>Notification for CCL and Non-DEMIL-Required USML Property to FCAS (DEMIL Codes B and Q)</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.239.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.240.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 4 to § 273.15
</HD1>
<HD1>Notification for CCL and Non-DEMIL-Required USML Property to Special Programs (DEMIL Codes B and Q)</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.241.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.242.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 5 to § 273.15
</HD1>
<HD1>Customer Reconfirmation</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er03no15.243.gif"/>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="274" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 274—REGULATIONS GOVERNING COMPETITIVE BIDDING ON U.S. GOVERNMENT GUARANTEED MILITARY EXPORT LOAN AGREEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 24, Foreign Military Sales Act (22 U.S.C. 2764) and Executive Order 11501 (34 FR 20169). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 858, Jan. 5, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 274.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this memorandum is to prescribe regulations under which the Secretary of Defense or his designee may, from time to time, by public notice, offer financial institutions the opportunity to bid on the interest rates for the subject agreements. The bids made will be subject to the terms, conditions, and procedures herein set forth, except as they may be supplemented in the public notice or notices issued by the Secretary of Defense or his designee in connection with particular offerings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms <I>public notice, notices,</I> or <I>announcement</I> mean the public notice of invitation to bid and any supplementary or amendatory notices or announcements with respect thereto, including, but not limited to, any statement released to the press by the Secretary of Defense or his designee and notices sent to those who have filed notices of intent to bid or who have filed bids. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Loan Agreement</I> means the proposed agreement between the foreign government and the private U.S. lender as described in the particular notice of Invitation to Bid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.3   Public notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bids hereunder will be invited through a public notice issued by the Secretary of Defense or his designee which will prescribe the amount of the loan for which bids are invited, the repayment schedule, the conditions under which bidders may specify the rate of interest, and the date and closing hour for receipt of bids. 
</P>
<P>(b) Accompanying the notice will be the form of the Loan Agreement which the successful bidder must execute with the borrower, except for those terms which will be subject to bidding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.4   U.S. guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 24 of the Foreign Military Sales Act (22 U.S.C. 2764), any individual, corporation, partnership, or other juridical entity (excluding U.S. Government agencies) will be guaranteed against political and credit risks of nonpayment arising out of their financing of credit sales of defense articles and defense services to friendly countries and international organizations. Section 24 explicitly provides that guarantees thereunder are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States. Fees in the amount of one-fourth of 1 percent of the amount of credits agreed upon shall be charged for such guaranties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.5   Notice of intent to bid.</HEAD>
<P>Any individual or organization, syndicates, or other group which intends to submit a bid, must, when required by the notice, give written notice of such intent on the appropriate form at the place and within the time specified in the public notice. Such notice, which shall be given to the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, 33 Liberty Street, New York, NY 10045, will not constitute a commitment to bid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.6   Submission of bids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Bids will be received only at the place specified and not later than the time designated in the public notice. Bids shall be irrevocable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest rates.</I> Bids must be expressed in terms of rates of interest not to exceed three decimals, for example, 5.125 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Group bids.</I> A syndicate or other group submitting a bid must act through a representative who must be a member of the group. The representative must warrant to the Secretary of Defense or his designee, that he has all necessary power and authority to act for each member and to bind the members jointly and severally. In addition to whatever other data may be required by the Secretary of Defense or his designee, in the case of a syndicate, the representative must file, within 1 hour after the time for opening bids, at the place specified in the public notice for receipt of bids a final statement of the composition of the syndicate membership and the amount of each member's underwriting participation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.7   Acceptance of bids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opening bids.</I> Bids will be opened at the time and place specified in the public notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of successful bid.</I> The Secretary of Defense or his designee will notify any successful bidder of acceptance in the manner and form specified in the public notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.8   Bids-revocations-rejections-postponements.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense or his designee in his discretion, may (a) revoke the public notice of invitation to bid at any time before opening bids, (b) return all bids unopened either at or prior to the time specified for their opening, (c) reject any or all bids, (d) postpone the time for presentation and opening of bids, and (e) waive any immaterial or obvious defect in any bid. Any action the Secretary of Defense or his designee may take in these respects shall be final. In the event of a postponement, known bidders will be advised thereof and their bids returned unopened. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.9   Delegation of authority to the Secretary of the Treasury.</HEAD>
<P>There is hereby delegated to the Secretary or Acting Secretary of the Treasury the authority, in the name of and title of the Secretary of the Treasury, to invite bids under this memorandum, to issue, modify and revoke public notices, notices, and announcements concerning such bids, to prescribe additional terms and conditions with respect thereto, consistent with this memorandum, to receive, return, open, reject, and accept bids, and to take such other actions as may be necessary and proper to execute this delegation of authority to implement this memorandum, excluding, however, the issuance of guaranties under § 274.4. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 274.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.53.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 274.10   Reservations.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense reserves the right, at any time, or from time to time, to amend, repeal, supplement, revise or withdraw all or any of the provisions of this memorandum.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="275" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 275—RIGHT TO FINANCIAL PRIVACY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3401, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 24708, May 29, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 275.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to authorize DoD Components to request financial records from a financial institution pursuant to the formal written request procedure authorized by section 1108 of the Act and to set forth the conditions under which such requests may be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 275.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the same meaning as similar terms used in the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978, Title XI of Public Law 95-630.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978.
</P>
<P><I>DoD Components</I> means the law enforcement activities of the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 275.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.3   Authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The DoD Components are authorized to request financial records of any customer from a financial institution pursuant to a formal written request under the Act only if:
</P>
<P>(a) No administrative summons or subpoena authority reasonably appears to be available to the DoD Component to obtain financial records for the purpose for which the records are sought;
</P>
<P>(b) There is reason to believe that the records sought are relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry and will further that inquiry;
</P>
<P>(c) The request is issued by a supervisory official of a grade designated by the head of the DoD Component. Officials so designated shall not delegate this authority to others;
</P>
<P>(d) The request adheres to the requirements set forth in § 275.4; and
</P>
<P>(e) The notice requirements required by section 1108(4) of the Act, or the requirements pertaining to the delay of notice in section 1109 of the Act, and described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section are satisfied, except in situations (<I>e.g.,</I> section 1113(g)) where no notice is required.
</P>
<P>(1) The notice requirements are satisfied when a copy of the request has been served on the customer or mailed to the customer's last known address on or before the date on which the request was made to the financial institution together with the following notice which shall state with reasonable specificity the nature of the law enforcement inquiry: “Records or information concerning your transactions held by the financial institution named in the attached request are being sought by the Department of Defense [or the specific DoD Component] in accordance with the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 for the following purpose:”
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Within ten days of service or within fourteen days of mailing of a subpoena, summons, or formal written request, a customer may file a motion to quash an administrative summons or judicial subpoena, or an application to enjoin a Government authority from obtaining financial records pursuant to a formal written request, with copies served upon the Government authority. A motion to quash a judicial subpoena shall be filed in the court that issued the subpoena. A motion to quash an administrative summons or an application to enjoin a Government authority from obtaining records pursuant to a formal written request shall be filed in the appropriate United States District Court. Such motion or application shall contain an affidavit or sworn statement stating:
</P>
<P>(A) That the applicant is a customer of the financial institution from which financial records pertaining to said customer have been sought; and
</P>
<P>(B) The applicant's reasons for believing that the financial records sought are not relevant to the legitimate law enforcement inquiry stated by the Government authority in its notice, or that there has not been substantial compliance within the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Service shall be made upon a Government authority by delivering or mailing by registered or certified mail a copy of the papers to the person, office, or department specified in the notice which the customer has received a request.
</P>
<P>(3) If a customer desires that such records or information not be made available, the customer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Fill out the accompanying motion paper and sworn statement or write one of the customer's own, stating that he or she is the customer whose records are being requested by the Government and either giving the reasons the customer believes that the records are not relevant to the legitimate law enforcement inquiry stated in this notice or any other legal basis for objecting to the release of the records.
</P>
<P>(ii) File the motion and statement by mailing or delivering them to the clerk at an appropriate United States District Court.
</P>
<P>(iii) Serve the Government authority requesting the records by mailing or delivering a copy of the motion and statement to the Government authority.
</P>
<P>(iv) Be prepared to go to court and present the customer's position in further detail.
</P>
<P>(v) The customer does not need to have a lawyer, although he or she may wish to employ a lawyer to represent the customer and protect the customer's rights.
</P>
<P>(4) If the customer does not follow the procedures in paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section, upon the expiration of ten days from the date of service or fourteen days from the date of mailing of the notice, the records or information requested therein may be made available. The records may be transferred to other Government authorities for legitimate law enforcement inquiries, in which event the customer will be notified after the transfer.
</P>
<P>(5) Also, the records or information requested therein may be made available if ten days have expired from the date of service or fourteen days from the date of mailing of the notice and within such time period the customer has not filed a sworn statement and an application to enjoin the Government authority in an appropriate court, or the customer challenge provisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 275.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.4   Formal written request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The formal written request must be in the form of a letter or memorandum to an appropriate official of the financial institution from which financial records are requested. The request shall be signed by the issuing official, and shall set forth that official's name, title, business address, and business phone number. The request shall also contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the customer or customers to whom the records pertain;
</P>
<P>(2) A reasonable description of the records sought; and
</P>
<P>(3) Such additional information which may be appropriate—<I>e.g.,</I> the date when the opportunity for the customer to challenge the formal written request expires, the date on which the DoD Component expects to present a certificate of compliance with the applicable provisions of the Act, the name and title of the individual (if known) to whom disclosure is to be made.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases where customer notice is delayed by court order, a copy of the court order must be attached to the formal written request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 275.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.5   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>Before obtaining the requested records pursuant to a formal written request described in § 275.4, an official of a rank designated by the head of the requesting DoD Component shall certify in writing to the financial institution that the DoD Component has complied with the applicable provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 275.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.54.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 275.6   Cost reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>Cost reimbursement to financial institutions for providing financial records will be made consistent with 12 CFR part 219, subpart A.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="277" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 277—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3807.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 39262, Oct. 6, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 277.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 277.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes uniform policies, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for implementation of Pub. L. 99-509.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 277.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 277.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD); the Military Departments; the Office of the Inspector General, Department of Defense (OIG, DoD); the Defense Agencies; and the DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 277.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 277.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy to redress fraud in DoD programs and operations through the nonexclusive use of Pub. L. 99-509. All DoD Components shall comply with the requirements of this part in using this new remedy. Changes or modifications to this part by implementing organizations are prohibited. Implementing regulations are authorized only to the extent necessary to effectively carry out the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 277.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 277.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Inspector General, Department of Defense</I> (IG, DoD), shall establish procedures for carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the “investigating official” as outlined in the appendix of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>General Counsel, Department of Defense</I> (GC, DoD), shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the authority head, Department of Defense, which have been delegated to the GC, DoD, as set forth in appendix of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish procedures for carrying out the duties and responsibilities for appointment and support of presiding officers, as set forth in appendix of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Review and approve the regulations and instructions required by this section to be submitted for approval by the GC, DoD.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the “authority head” and of the “reviewing officials” for their respective Departments, and for obtaining and supporting presiding officers from other Agencies as specified in Office of Personnel Management (OPM) regulations; (see appendix of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) Make all regulations or instructions promulgated subject to the approval of the GC, DoD; and
</P>
<P>(3) Delegate duties as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>General Counsel of the National Security Agency</I> (GC, NSA) and the <I>General Counsel of the Defense Logistics Agency</I> (GC, DLA) shall be responsible for establishing procedures for carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the reviewing officials that have been delegated to them, as stated in appendix of this part. All Regulations or Instructions promulgated pursuant to this part shall be submitted to the GC, DoD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.55.0.1.5.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 277—Program Fraud Civil Remedies
</HEAD>
<HD2>A. Scope and Purpose
</HD2>
<P>1. The Department of Defense has the authority to impose civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents.
</P>
<P>2. This appendix:
</P>
<P>a. Establishes administrative policies and procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents;
</P>
<P>b. Specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments.
</P>
<P>3. The uniform policies and procedures established by this enclosure are binding on the authorities and authority heads in the Department of Defense and Military Departments. Additional administrative regulations necessary to carry out the requirements of the PFCRA and this part may be written by the authority heads. Any such regulations shall be consistent with the provisions of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>B. Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Adequate Evidence
</HD3>
<P>Information sufficient to support the reasonable belief that a particular act or omission has occurred.
</P>
<HD3>2. Authority
</HD3>
<P>a. The Department of Defense, which includes OSD, Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (OJCS), Unified and Specified Commands, Defense Agencies, and DoD Field Activities.
</P>
<P>b. The Department of the Army.
</P>
<P>c. The Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>d. The Department of the Air Force.
</P>
<HD3>3. Authority Head
</HD3>
<P>a. For the Department of Defense, the Deputy Secretary of the Department of Defense or an official or employee of the Department of Defense or the Military Departments designated in writing by the Deputy Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>b. For the respective Military Departments, the Secretary of the Military Department or an official or employee of the Military Department designated in regulations promulgated by the Secretary to act on behalf of the Secretary.
</P>
<HD3>4. Benefit
</HD3>
<P>In the context of statements, anything of value, including but not limited to any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling status, or loan guarantee.
</P>
<HD3>5. Claim
</HD3>
<P>Any request, demand, or submission made as follows:
</P>
<P>a. To the authority for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits);
</P>
<P>b. To a recipient of property, services, or money from the authority or to a party to a contract with the authority:
</P>
<P>(1) For property or services if the United States:
</P>
<P>(a) Provided such property or services;
</P>
<P>(b) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(c) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(2) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States:
</P>
<P>(a) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or
</P>
<P>(b) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Made to the authority that has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money. 
</P>
<HD3>6. Complaint 
</HD3>
<P>The administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under section G., below. 
</P>
<HD3>7. Defendant 
</HD3>
<P>Any person alleged in a complaint under section G., below, to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under Section C., below. 
</P>
<HD3>8. DoD Criminal Investigative Organizations 
</HD3>
<P>The U.S. Army Criminal Investigative Command, Naval Security and Investigative Command, U.S. Air Force Office of Special Investigations, and the Defense Criminal Investigative Service. 
</P>
<HD3>9. Government 
</HD3>
<P>The U.S. Government. 
</P>
<HD3>10. Individual
</HD3>
<P>A natural person.
</P>
<HD3>11. Initial Decision 
</HD3>
<P>The Written decision of the presiding officer required by section J. or KK., below. This includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion of reconsideration. 
</P>
<HD3>12. Investigating Official 
</HD3>
<P>a. The IG, DoD; or 
</P>
<P>b. An officer or employee of the OIG designated by the IG; 
</P>
<P>c. Who, if a member of the Armed Forces of the United States on active duty, is serving in Grade 0-7 or above or, if a civilian employee, is serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for Grade GS-16 under the General Schedule. 
</P>
<HD3>13. Knows or Has Reason To Know 
</HD3>
<P>A person who, with respect to a claim or statement: 
</P>
<P>a. Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>b. Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or 
</P>
<P>c. Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement. 
</P>
<HD3>14. Makes 
</HD3>
<P>Includes the terms presents, submits, and causes to be made, presented, or submitted. As the context requires, making or made shall likewise include the corresponding forms of such terms. 
</P>
<HD3>15. Person 
</HD3>
<P>Any individual, partnership, corporation, association or private organization, and includes the plural of that term. 
</P>
<HD3>16. Preponderance of the Evidence 
</HD3>
<P>The evidence necessary to support a presiding officer's decision that a violation of the PFCRA has occurred. Evidence that leads to the belief that what is sought to be proved is more likely true than not true. 
</P>
<HD3>17. Presiding Officer 
</HD3>
<P>An officer or employee of the Department of Defense or an employee detailed to the Department of Defense from another agency who: 
</P>
<P>a. Is selected under 5 U.S.C., chapter 33, pursuant to the competitive examination process applicable to administrative law judges; 
</P>
<P>b. Is appointed by the authority head of DoD to conduct hearings under this part for cases arising in the Department of Defense or the Military Departments; 
</P>
<P>c. Is assigned to cases in rotation so far as practicable; 
</P>
<P>d. May not perform duties inconsistent with the duties and responsibilities of a presiding officer; 
</P>
<P>e. Is entitled to pay prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) independently of ratings and recommendations made by the authority and in accordance with 5 U.S.C., chapters 51 and 53, subchapter III; 
</P>
<P>f. Is not subject to a performance appraisal pursuant to 5 U.S.C., chapter 43; and 
</P>
<P>g. May be removed, suspended, furloughed, or reduced in grade or pay only for good cause established and determined by the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB) on the record after opportunity for hearing by such Board. 
</P>
<HD3>18. Representative 
</HD3>
<P>An Attorney-at-law duly licensed in any State, commonwealth, territory, the District of Columbia, or foreign country, who enters his or her appearance in writing to represent a party in a proceeding under this part, or an officer, director, or employee of a defendant or of its affiliate. 
</P>
<HD3>19. Reviewing Official 
</HD3>
<P>a. In all cases arising in the Department of Defense and any of the Military Departments, the reviewing official shall be an officer or employee of an authority as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Who is designated by the authority head to make the determination required under section E., below, of this enclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) Who, if a member of the Armed Forces of the United States on active duty, is serving in Grade 0-7 or above or, if a civilian employee, is serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for Grade GS-16 under the General Schedule; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Who is as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official; 
</P>
<P>(b) Not employed in the organizational unit of the authority in which the investigating official is employed; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Not an official designated to make suspension or debarment decisions. 
</P>
<P>b. The General Counsel, Defense Logistics Agency (GC, DLA), shall be the reviewing official for all cases involving a claim or statement made to the DLA or any other part of the Department of Defense other than a Military Department or the National Security Agency (NSA). The General Counsel, National Security Agency (GC, NSA), shall be the reviewing official for all cases involving claims or statements made to that Agency. The General Counsel, Defense Logistics Agency (GC, DLA), and GC, NSA, may redelegate their authority to act as reviewing officials to any individual(s) meeting the criteria set out in subparagraph (1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>c. The authority head of each Military Department shall select a reviewing official, who shall review all cases involving a claim or statement that was made to their Department. 
</P>
<HD3>20. Statement 
</HD3>
<P>Any written representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, accounting, or bookkeeping entry made: 
</P>
<P>a. With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or 
</P>
<P>b. With respect to (including relating to eligibility for): 
</P>
<P>(1) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant, loan, or benefit from the authority, or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party; if the U.S. Government provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the U.S. Government will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit. 
</P>
<HD2>C. Basis for Civil Penalties and Assessments 
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Claims 
</HD3>
<P>a. Any person who makes a claim that the person knows or has reason to know: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Includes or is supported by a written statement that asserts a material fact that is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes or is supported by any written statement that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Omits a material fact; 
</P>
<P>(b) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Is a statement in which the person making such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Is for payment for the provision of property or services that the person had not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each such claim. 
</P>
<P>b. Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim. 
</P>
<P>c. A claim shall be considered made to an authority, recipient, or party when such claim is received by an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of such authority, recipient, or party. 
</P>
<P>d. Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether such property, service, or money is actually delivered or paid. 
</P>
<P>e. If the Government has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under subparagraph a.(1) of this section shall also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim or that portion thereof that is determined to be in violation of subparagraph a.(1) of this section. Such assessment shall be in lieu of damages sustained by the Government because of such claim. 
</P>
<HD3>2. Statements 
</HD3>
<P>a. Any person who makes a written statement that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person knows or has reason to know the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Asserts a material fact that is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent because it omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in such statement; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each statement. 
</P>
<P>b. Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement. 
</P>
<P>c. A statement shall be considered made to an authority when such statement is received by an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of such authority. 
</P>
<P>3. No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to establish liability under this section. 
</P>
<P>4. In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each such person may be held jointly and severally liable for a civil penalty with respect to such claims or statements. 
</P>
<P>5. In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the Government has made payment (including transferred property or provided services) an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Investigation 
</HD2>
<P>1. If the investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted, then: 
</P>
<P>a. The subpoena so issued shall notify the person to whom it is addressed of the authority under which the subpoena is issued and shall identify the records or documents sought; 
</P>
<P>b. The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and 
</P>
<P>c. The person receiving such subpoena shall be required to tender to the investigating official, or to the person designated to receive the documents, a certification that the documents sought have been produced, or that such documents are not available and the reasons therefor, or that such documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege. 
</P>
<P>2. If the investigating official concludes that an action under the PFCRA may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the appropriate reviewing official(s). In instances where the false claim or false statement involves more than one authority within the Department of Defense, or where the investigating official finds that more than one case has arisen from the same set of facts, the investigating official may, at his or her sole discretion, refer the case(s) to the reviewing official of one of the affected authorities. That reviewing official shall consolidate the claims and statements and act for all. Nothing in this subsection confers any right in any party to the consolidation or severance of any case(s), although presiding officers may, at their sole discretion, entertain motions to consolidate or sever. 
</P>
<P>3. Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under 18 U.S.C. 287 or 31 U.S.C. 3729 and 3730, False Claims Act, or other civil relief, or to preclude or limit such official's discretion to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution. 
</P>
<P>4. Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>5. Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit the investigating official's authority to obtain the assistance of any investigative units of the Department of Defense, including those of the Military Departments. In this regard, appropriate investigation may be conducted by the Defense criminal investigative organizations and other investigative elements of the Military Departments and Defense Agencies. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Review by the Reviewing Official 
</HD2>
<P>1. If, based on the report of the investigating official under subsection D.2., above, the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under section C., above, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General or his or her designated point of coordination within the Department of Justice a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to issue a complaint under section G., below.
</P>
<P>2. Such notice shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>a. A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint; 
</P>
<P>b. A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability; 
</P>
<P>c. A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based; 
</P>
<P>d. An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of section C., above. 
</P>
<P>e. A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and 
</P>
<P>f. A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments. 
</P>
<HD2>F. Prerequisites for Issuing a Complaint 
</HD2>
<P>1. The reviewing official may issue a complaint under section G., below, only if: 
</P>
<P>a. The Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1); and 
</P>
<P>b. In the case of allegations of liability under subsection C.1., above, with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted (as defined in subsection 2. of this section), the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested in violation of subsection C.1., above, does not exceed $150,000.00; 
</P>
<P>2. For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (e.g., grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission. 
</P>
<P>3. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person's claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested. 
</P>
<P>4. In any case that involves claims or statements made to more than one entity within the Department of Defense or the Military Departments, or the reviewing officials having responsibility for each such entity, as stated in subsection D.2., above, shall have concurrent jurisdiction to make the required determinations under this section. In any such case, the responsible reviewing officials shall coordinate with each other prior to making any determination under this section. Where more than one case arises from the same set of facts, such cases shall be consolidated to the degree practicable, although the reviewing official shall have absolute discretion to make such determination. The requirements of this paragraph do not confer any procedural or substantive rights upon individuals, associations, corporations, or other persons or entities who might become defendants under the PFCRA. 
</P>
<HD2>G. Complaint 
</HD2>
<P>1. On or after the date the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in section H., below. 
</P>
<P>2. The complaint shall state the following: 
</P>
<P>a. The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>b. The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable; 
</P>
<P>c. Instructions for filing an answer to a request including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing, by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and 
</P>
<P>d. That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint shall result in the imposition of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, consistent with the provisions of section J., below. 
</P>
<P>3. At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall notify the defendant with a copy of this part and any applicable implementing regulations. 
</P>
<HD2>H. Service of Complaint 
</HD2>
<P>1. Service of a complaint must be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by Rule 4(d) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. Service is complete upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>2. Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service may be made by the following: 
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<P>a. Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery; 
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<P>b. A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or 
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<P>c. Written acknowledgement of receipt by the defendant or his or her representative. 
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<HD2>I. Answer 
</HD2>
<P>1. The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within 30 days of service of the complaint. An answer shall be deemed to be a request for hearing. 
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<P>2. In the answer, the defendant: 
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<P>a. Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint; 
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<P>b. Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely; 
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<P>c. May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and 
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<P>d. Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any. 
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<P>3. If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph 2.b of this section within the time provided, the defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of subsection 2. of this section. The reviewing official shall, in such event, file promptly with the presiding officer the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in section K., below. For good cause shown, the presiding officer may grant the defendant additional time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of subsection 2. of this section. 
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<P>4. The 30-day limitation for filing an answer may be tolled for a reasonable period of time by written agreement of the parties and approval of the authority head to allow time for settlement. 
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<HD2>J. Default Upon Failure To File an Answer
</HD2>
<P>1. If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in subsection I.1., above, and there is no approved written agreement as in subsection I.4, above, tolling the time prescribed, the reviewing official may then refer the complaint to the presiding officer.
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<P>2. Upon referral of the complaint pursuant to this section, the presiding officer shall promptly serve on defendant, in the manner prescribed in section H., above, a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section.
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<P>3. Upon referral of the complaint pursuant to this section, the presiding officer shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true and, if such facts establish liability under section C., above, the presiding officer shall issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments under the statute.
</P>
<P>4. Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under subsection 3. of this section, and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
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<P>5. If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the presiding officer seeking to reopen on the grounds that good cause prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the presiding officer's decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>6. If, on a motion brought under subsection J.5., above, the defendant can demonstrate good cause excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the presiding officer shall withdraw the initial decision in subsection 3. of this section if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint.
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<P>7. A decision of the presiding officer denying a defendant's motion under subsections 5. and 6. of this section is not subject to reconsideration under section LL., below.
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<P>8. The defendant may appeal to the authority head the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head within 15 days after the presiding officer denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the authority head decides the issue.
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<P>9. If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the presiding officer shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
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<P>10. The authority head shall decide expeditiously whether good cause excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the presiding officer.
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<P>11. If the authority head decides that good cause excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the authority head shall remand the case to the presiding officer with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer.
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<P>12. If the authority head decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the authority head shall approve the initial decision of the presiding officer, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the authority head issues such decision.
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<HD2>K. Referral of Complaint and Answer to the Presiding Officer
</HD2>
<P>1. Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the presiding officer.
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<P>2. To allow time for settlement, referral of complaint and answer to the presiding officer may be delayed for a reasonable period of time if there is a written agreement of the parties, approved by the authority head, in favor of such delay.
</P>
<HD2>L. Notice of Hearing
</HD2>
<P>1. When the presiding officer receives the complaint and answer, the presiding officer shall promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by section H., above. At the same time, the presiding officer shall send a copy of such notice to the representative for the Government.
</P>
<P>2. Such notice shall include:
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<P>a. The tentative time and place, and the nature of the hearing;
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<P>b. The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
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<P>c. The matters of fact and law to be asserted;
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<P>d. A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing;
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<P>e. The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the Government, the defendant, and other parties, if any; and
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<P>f. Such other matters as the presiding officer deems appropriate.
</P>
<HD2>M. Parties to the Hearing
</HD2>
<P>The parties to the hearing shall be the defendant and the authority. The reviewing official of each authority shall, with the concurrence of the DoD Component head, designate attorneys within that authority to represent the authority in hearings conducted under this part. Attorneys appointed as authority representatives shall remain under the supervision of their DoD Component.
</P>
<HD2>N. Separation of Functions
</HD2>
<P>1. The investigating official and the reviewing official, for any particular case or factually related case, may not do the following:
</P>
<P>a. Participate in the hearing as the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>b. Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the authority head, except as a witness or a representative in a public proceeding; or 
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<P>c. Make the collecting of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
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<P>2. The presiding officer shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, the investigating official or the reviewing official.
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<P>3. Except as provided in subsection 1. of this section, the representative for the Government may be employed anywhere in the authority, including in the offices of either the investigating official or the reviewing official.
</P>
<HD2>O. Ex parte Contacts
</HD2>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the presiding officer's office) shall communicate in any way with the presiding officer on any matter at issue in a case unless on notice and there is an opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.
</P>
<HD2>P. Disqualification of Presiding Officer and Reviewing Official
</HD2>
<P>1. A reviewing official or presiding officer in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time.
</P>
<P>2. A party may file a motion for disqualification of the presiding officer or the reviewing official. Such motion, to be filed with the presiding officer, shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification.
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<P>3. Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification or such objections shall be deemed waived.
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<P>4. Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith.
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<P>5. Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the presiding officer shall proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification by taking one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>a. If the presiding officer determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the presiding officer shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice;
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<P>b. If the presiding officer disqualifies himself or herself, the case shall be reassigned promptly to another presiding officer;
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<P>c. The presiding officer may deny a motion to disqualify. In such event, the authority head may determine the matter only as part of his or her review of the initial decision upon appeal, if any.
</P>
<HD2>Q. Rights of Parties
</HD2>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this enclosure, all parties may:
</P>
<P>1. Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative;
</P>
<P>2. Participate in any conference held by the presiding officer;
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<P>3. Conduct discovery;
</P>
<P>4. Agree to stipulations of fact or law, which shall be made part of the record;
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<P>5. Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing;
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<P>6. Present and cross-examine witnesses;
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<P>7. Present oral arguments at the hearing, as permitted by the presiding officer; and
</P>
<P>8. Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law after the hearing.
</P>
<HD2>R. Authority of the Presiding Officer
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>2. The presiding officer has the authority to do the following:
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<P>a. Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;
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<P>b. Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
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<P>c. Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
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<P>d. Administer oaths and affirmations;
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<P>e. Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings;
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<P>f. Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
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<P>g. Regulate the scope and timing of discovery;
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<P>h. Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;
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<P>i. Examine witnesses;
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<P>j. Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
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<P>k. Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;
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<P>l. Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact;
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<P>m. Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and
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<P>n. Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the presiding officer under this Directive.
</P>
<P>3. The presiding officer does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid.
</P>
<HD2>S. Prehearing Conferences
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate.
</P>
<P>2. Upon the motion of any party, the presiding officer shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing.
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<P>3. The presiding officer may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following:
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<P>a. Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>b. The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
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<P>c. Stipulations and admissions of fact or as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
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<P>d. Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
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<P>e. Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objections of other parties) and written argument;
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<P>f. Limitation of the number of witnesses;
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<P>g. Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
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<P>h. Discovery;
</P>
<P>i. The time and place for the hearing; and
</P>
<P>j. Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>4. The presiding officer may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the presiding officer at a prehearing conference.
</P>
<HD2>T. Disclosure of Documents
</HD2>
<P>1. Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under subsection D.2., above, are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under Federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents.
</P>
<P>2. Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed, except if disclosure would violate Rule 6(e) of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure.
</P>
<P>3. The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in section E., above, is not discoverable under any circumstances.
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<P>4. The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section at any time after service of the complaint.
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<HD2>U. Discovery
</HD2>
<P>1. The following types of discovery are authorized:
</P>
<P>a. Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying;
</P>
<P>b. Requests for admissions of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact;
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<P>c. Written interrogatories; and
</P>
<P>d. Depositions.
</P>
<P>2. For the purpose of this section and sections V. and W., below, the term “documents” includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence contained in a form contemplated by the definition of “document” set forth in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, Rule 34. Nothing contained herein shall be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
</P>
<P>3. Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall regulate the timing of discovery.
</P>
<P>4. Motions for discovery may be filed with the presiding officer by the party seeking discovery.
</P>
<P>a. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition.
</P>
<P>b. Within 10 days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in section X., below.
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<P>c. The presiding officer may grant a motion of discovery only if he finds that the discovery sought:
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<P>(1) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issue;
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<P>(2) Is not unduly costly or burdensome;
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<P>(3) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and
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<P>(4) Does not seek privileged information.
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<P>d. The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.
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<P>e. The presiding officer may grant discovery subject to a protective order under section X., below.
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<P>5. Depositions
</P>
<P>a. If a motion for deposition is granted, the presiding officer shall issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the deposition will be held. The presiding officer may order that parties produce deponents and/or documents without the need for subpoena.
</P>
<P>b. The party seeking to depose shall serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in section H., above.
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<P>c. The deponent may file with the presiding officer a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within 10 days of service.
</P>
<P>d. The party seeking to depose shall provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, which it shall make available to all parties for inspection and copying.
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<P>6. Each party shall bear its own costs of discovery.
</P>
<HD2>V. Exchange of Witness Lists, Statements, and Exhibits
</HD2>
<P>1. At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the presiding officer, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with subsection GG.2., below. At the time the above documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely upon the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the presiding officer, shall provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence.
</P>
<P>2. If a party objects, the presiding officer shall not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided above unless the presiding officer finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party.
</P>
<P>3. Unless another party objects within the time set by the presiding officer, documents exchanged in accordance with subsection 1. of this section shall be admitted into evidence at the hearing. Later challenges to admissibility at the hearing shall be permitted only upon a showing of good cause for the lateness.
</P>
<HD2>W. Subpoenas for Attendance at Hearing
</HD2>
<P>1. A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the presiding officer issue a subpoena.
</P>
<P>2. A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing.
</P>
<P>3. A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing, unless otherwise allowed by the presiding officer for good cause shown. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found.
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<P>4. The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce.
</P>
<P>5. The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed in section H., above. A subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served by first class mail.
</P>
<P>6. A party or a representative of the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the presiding officer a motion to quash the subpoena with 10 days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than 10 days after service.
</P>
<HD2>X. Protective Order
</HD2>
<P>1. A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence.
</P>
<P>2. In issuing a protective order, the presiding officer may make any order that justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>a. That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>b. That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>c. That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested;
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<P>d. That classified information not be released unless prior notice and arrangements reasonably acceptable to the representative of the authority are made in coordination with the Defense Investigative Service, and the presiding officer agrees to the use;
</P>
<P>e. That certain matters not be inquired into or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>f. That discovery be conducted with no person except persons designated by the presiding officer;
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<P>g. That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed;
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<P>h. That the defendant comply with 32 CFR part 97 concerning official witnesses;
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<P>i. That a deposition after being sealed be opened only upon order of the presiding officer;
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<P>j. That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>k. That the parties simultaneously file specified documents of information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the presiding officer.
</P>
<HD2>Y. Fees
</HD2>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the witness fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in the United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the authority a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.
</P>
<HD2>Z. Form, Filing, and Service of Papers
</HD2>
<P>1. Form
</P>
<P>a. Documents filed with the presiding officer shall include an original and two copies.
</P>
<P>b. Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the presiding officer, and a designation of the paper (e.g., motion to quash subpoena).
</P>
<P>c. Every pleading and paper shall be signed by, and shall contain the address and telephone number of, the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative.
</P>
<P>d. Papers are considered filed when they are mailed. Date of mailing may be established by a certificate from the party or its representative or by proof that the document was sent by certified or registered mail.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the presiding officer shall, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in section H., above, shall be made by delivering a copy or by placing a copy of the document in the United States mail, postage prepaid and addressed to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by a representative, service shall be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual party.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the manner of service, shall be proof of service.
</P>
<HD2>AA. Computation of Time
</HD2>
<P>1. In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal Government, in which event it includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>2. When the period of time allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal Government shall be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>3. Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional 5 days will be added to the time permitted for any response.
</P>
<HD2>BB. Motions
</HD2>
<P>1. Any application to the presiding officer for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the presiding officer and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>2. Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The presiding officer may require the oral motions be put in writing.
</P>
<P>3. Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the presiding officer, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>4. The presiding officer may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.
</P>
<P>5. The presiding officer shall make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing.
</P>
<P>6. Failure by a party to raise defenses or objections or to make requests that must be made prior to the beginning of the hearing shall constitute waiver thereof, but the presiding officer may grant relief from the waiver for good cause shown.
</P>
<HD2>CC. Sanctions
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer may sanction a person, including any party or representative, for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding;
</P>
<P>b. Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or
</P>
<P>c. Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>2. Any such sanction, including but not limited to those listed in subsections 3., 4., and 5. of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct.
</P>
<P>3. When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the presiding officer may:
</P>
<P>a. Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought;
</P>
<P>b. In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted;
</P>
<P>c. Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon, testimony relating to the information sought; and 
</P>
<P>d. Strike any part of the pleadings or other submission of the party failing to comply with such request.
</P>
<P>4. If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the presiding officer may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments.
</P>
<P>5. The presiding officer may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief, or other document that is not filed in a timely fashion.
</P>
<HD2>DD. The Hearing and Burden of Proof
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer shall conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under section C., above, and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors.
</P>
<P>2. The authority shall prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>3. The defendant shall prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>4. The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<HD2>EE. Determining the Amount of Penalties and Assessments
</HD2>
<P>In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the presiding officer and the authority head, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose.
</P>
<HD2>FF. Location of Hearing
</HD2>
<P>1. The hearing may be held as follows:
</P>
<P>a. In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business;
</P>
<P>b. In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement at issue was made; or 
</P>
<P>c. In such other place, including foreign countries, as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>2. Each party shall have the opportunity to petition the presiding officer with respect to the location of the hearing.
</P>
<P>3. The hearing shall be held at the place and at the time ordered by the presiding officer.
</P>
<HD2>GG. Witnesses
</HD2>
<P>1. Except as provided in subsection 2. of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>2. At the discretion of the presiding officer, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written or videotaped statement or deposition. Any such written or videotaped statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witness, in a manner which allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for deposition or cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written or videotaped statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearings and deposition transcripts shall be exchanged as provided in subsection V.1., above. 
</P>
<P>3. The presiding officer shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:
</P>
<P>a. Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;
</P>
<P>b. Avoid needless consumption of time; and
</P>
<P>c. Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>4. The presiding officer shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>5. At the discretion of the presiding officer, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination.
</P>
<P>6. Upon motion of any party, the presiding officer shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of the following:
</P>
<P>a. A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>b. In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the party as its representative, or designated by the party's representative; or
</P>
<P>c. An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Government engaged in assisting the representative for the Government.
</P>
<HD2>HH. Evidence
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer shall determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>2. Except as provided herein, the presiding officer shall not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the presiding officer may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate; e.g., to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>3. The presiding officer shall exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>4. Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by consideration of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>5. Evidence shall be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law and the holder of the privilege asserts it.
</P>
<P>6. Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement shall be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>7. The presiding officer shall permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>8. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer pursuant to section X., above.
</P>
<HD2>II. The Record and Finding
</HD2>
<P>1. The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the presiding officer at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>2. The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the presiding officer and the authority head.
</P>
<P>3. The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>4. Funding for the hearing and record, except for the cost of the presiding officer, shall be the responsibility of the authority in which the case arose.
</P>
<HD2>JJ. Post-hearing Briefs
</HD2>
<P>The presiding officer may require or permit the parties to file post-hearing briefs. The presiding officer shall fix the time for filing any such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The presiding officer may permit the parties to file reply briefs.
</P>
<HD2>KK. Initial Decision
</HD2>
<P>1. The presiding officer shall issue an initial decision based only on the record that shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>2. The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues:
</P>
<P>a. Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions thereof, violate section C., above; and 
</P>
<P>b. If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments. 
</P>
<P>3. The presiding officer shall promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The presiding officer shall at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the presiding officer or a notice of appeal with the authority head. If the presiding officer fails to meet the deadline contained in this subsection, he or she shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline. 
</P>
<P>4. Unless the initial decision of the presiding officer is timely appealed to the authority head, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision of the presiding officer shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the presiding officer. 
</P>
<HD2>LL. Reconsideration of Initial Decision 
</HD2>
<P>1. Except as provided in subsection 4. of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of service of the initial decision in the manner set forth in section H., above, for service of the complaint. Service shall be proved in the manner provided in subsection H.2., above. 
</P>
<P>2. Every such motion must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. Such motion shall be accompanied by a supporting brief. 
</P>
<P>3. Responses to such motions shall be allowed only upon request of the presiding officer; however, the presiding officer shall not issue a revised initial determination without affording both parties an opportunity to be heard on the motion for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>4. No party may file a motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>5. The presiding officer may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision. 
</P>
<P>6. If the presiding officer denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the presiding officer denies the motion, unless the initial decision is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with section MM., below. 
</P>
<P>7. If the presiding officer issues a revised initial decision, that decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with section MM., below. 
</P>
<HD2>MM. Appeal to Authority Head 
</HD2>
<P>1. Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the authority head by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>2. A notice of appeal: 
</P>
<P>a. May be filed at any time within 30 days after the presiding officer issues an initial or a revised initial decision. If another party files a motion for reconsideration under section LL., above, consideration of the appeal shall be stayed automatically pending resolution of the motion for reconsideration, until the time period for filing a motion for reconsideration under section LL., above, has expired or the motion is resolved; 
</P>
<P>b. If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal may be filed within 30 days after the presiding officer denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies; 
</P>
<P>c. The authority head may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the authority head a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause. 
</P>
<P>3. If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the presiding officer shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head when: 
</P>
<P>a. The time for filing a motion for reconsideration expires without the filing of such a motion, or 
</P>
<P>b. The motion for reconsideration is denied. Issuance of a revised initial decision upon motion for reconsideration shall require filing of a new notice of appeal. 
</P>
<P>4. A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions. 
</P>
<P>5. The representative for the Government may file a brief in opposition to the exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief. 
</P>
<P>6. There is no right to appear personally before the authority head, although the authority head may at his or her discretion require the parties to appear for an oral hearing on appeal. 
</P>
<P>7. There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the presiding officer. 
</P>
<P>8. In reviewing the initial decision, the authority head shall not consider any objection that was not raised before the presiding officer, unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection. 
</P>
<P>9. If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the authority head that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the authority head shall remand the matter to the presiding officer for consideration of such additional evidence. 
</P>
<P>10. The authority head may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment determined by the presiding officer in any initial decision. 
</P>
<P>11. The authority head shall promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the authority head and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or assessment to seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>12. Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 32 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this part and within 60 days after the date on which the authority head serves the defendant with a copy of the authority head's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under section C., above, is final and is not subject to judicial review. 
</P>
<P>13. The authority heads (or their designees) may designate an officer or employee of the authority, who is serving in the grade of GS-17 or above under the General Schedule, or in the Senior Executive Service, to carry out these appellate responsibilities; however, the authority to compromise, settle, or otherwise discretionarily dispose of the case on appeal provided pursuant to subsection MM.10, hereof, may not be so redelegated pursuant to this subsection.
</P>
<HD2>NN. Stays Ordered by the Department of Justice 
</HD2>
<P>If at any time, the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this Directive with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.
</P>
<HD2>OO. Stay Pending Appeal
</HD2>
<P>1. An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the authority head.
</P>
<P>2. No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the authority head.
</P>
<HD2>PP. Judicial Review.
</HD2>
<P>31 U.S.C. 3805 authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties or assessment under this part and specifies the procedures for such review.
</P>
<HD2>QQ. Collection of Civil Penalties and Assessments
</HD2>
<P>31 U.S.C. 3806 and 3808(b) authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions.
</P>
<HD2>RR. Right to Administrative Offset
</HD2>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment that has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under section QQ., above, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under section TT., below, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this section against a refund of an overpayment of Federal taxes then or later owing by the United States to the defendant.
</P>
<HD2>SS. Deposit in Treasury of United States
</HD2>
<P>All amounts collected pursuant to this part shall be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States, except as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3806(g).
</P>
<HD2>TT. Compromise or Settlement
</HD2>
<P>1. Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time.
</P>
<P>2. The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the presiding officer issues an initial decision.
</P>
<P>3. The authority head has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this Directive at any time after the date on which the presiding officer issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under section PP., above, or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties as assessments under section QQ., above.
</P>
<P>4. The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part during the pendency of any review under section PP., above, of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>5. The investigating official may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the Attorney General, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>6. Any compromise or settlement must be in writing.
</P>
<HD2>UU. Limitations
</HD2>
<P>1. The notice of hearing with respect to a claim or settlement must be served in the manner specified in section H., above, within 6 years after the date on which such claim or statement is made.
</P>
<P>2. If the defendant fails to file a timely answer, service of a notice under subsection J.2., above, shall be deemed a notice of hearing for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>3. If at any time during the course of proceedings brought pursuant to this section, the authority head receives or discovers any specific information concerning bribery, gratuities, conflict of interest, or other corruption or similar activity in relation to a false claim or statement, the authority head shall immediately report such information to the Attorney General and to the Inspector General, Department of Defense.
</P>
<HD2>VV. Delegations
</HD2>
<P>The General Counsel for the Department of Defense is designated to carry out the responsibilities of the authority head of the Department of Defense for the issuance of additional implementing regulations that are necessary to implement PFCRA and this part to decide cases upon appeal, and to hire or designate employees of the Department of Defense to decide cases on appeal. The General Counsel, Department of Defense, is also designated to appoint presiding officers for the Department of Defense, and may assist in the appointment of presiding officers on detail from other Agencies for all authorities within the Department of Defense. 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="281" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 281—SETTLING PERSONNEL AND GENERAL CLAIMS AND PROCESSING ADVANCE DECISION REQUESTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 31 U.S.C. 3529, 3702; 32 U.S.C. 714; 37 U.S.C. 554. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 57426, Sept. 29, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 281.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for settling personnel and general claims (under 31 U.S.C. 3702; 10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, and 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 37 U.S.C. 554, and 32 U.S.C. 714) and for processing requests for an advance decision under 31 U.S.C. 3529. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 281.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Coast Guard, when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy under agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, and the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreements with the Departments of Health and Human Services and Commerce (hereafter referred to collectively as “the non-DoD Components”). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 281.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Armed Forces.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard.
</P>
<P><I>Claim.</I> A demand for money or property under 31 U.S.C. 3702; 10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, and 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 37 U.S.C. 554, and 32 U.S.C. 714.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary concerned.</I> The Secretary of the Army, addressing matters concerning the Army. The Secretary of the Navy, addressing matters concerning the Navy, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard when it is operating as a Service in the Navy. The Secretary of the Air Force, addressing matters concerning the Air Force. The Secretary of Homeland Security, addressing matters concerning the Coast Guard when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy. The Secretary of Health and Human Services, addressing matters concerning the PHS. The Secretary of Commerce, addressing matters concerning the NOAA.
</P>
<P><I>Settlement.</I> A claim and the amount due that is administratively determined to be valid.
</P>
<P><I>Uniformed Services.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and the Commissioned Corps of the PHS and the NOAA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 281.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The claim settlement and advance decision authorities that, by statute or delegation, are vested in the Department of Defense or the Secretary of Defense shall be exercised by the officials designated in this part. The appendix to this part describes the claims included under these functional authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims shall be settled and advance decisions shall be rendered in accordance with pertinent statutes and regulations, and after consideration of other relevant authorities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 281.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel of the Department of Defense</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Settle claims that the Secretary of Defense is authorized to settle under 31 U.S.C. 3702; 10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, and 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 37 U.S.C. 554, and 32 U.S.C. 714.
</P>
<P>(2) Consider, and grant or deny, a request under 31 U.S.C. 3702 to waive the time limit for submitting certain claims.
</P>
<P>(3) Render advance decisions under 31 U.S.C. 3529 that the Secretary of Defense is authorized to render, and oversee the submission of requests for an advance decision arising from the activity of a DoD Component that are addressed to officials outside the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(4) Develop overall claim settlement and advance decision policies; and promulgate procedures for settling claims, processing requests for an advance decision (including overseeing the submission of requests for an advance decision arising from the activity of a DoD Component that are addressed to officials outside the Department of Defense), and rendering advance decisions. Procedures for settling claims shall include an initial determination process and a process to appeal an initial determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Heads of the DoD Components</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures within their organization for processing claims and for submitting requests for an advance decision arising from it's activity in accordance with this part and responsibilities promulgated under paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Pay claims under 10 U.S.C. 2771 and 32 U.S.C. 714, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure compliance with this part and policies and responsibilities promulgated under (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Heads of the Non-DoD Components,</I> concerning claims arising from that Component's activity under 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771 or 37 U.S.C. 554, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures within their organization for processing claims and for submitting requests for an advance decision in accordance with this part and responsibilities promulgated under paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Pay claims under 10 U.S.C. 2771, if applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.56.0.1.6.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 281—Claims Description
</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense is authorized to perform the claim settlement and advance decision functions for claims under the following statutes:
</P>
<P>(a) 31 U.S.C. 3702, concerning claims in general when there is no other settlement authority specifically provided for by law. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This includes claims involving Uniformed Services members' pay, allowances, travel, transportation, payment for unused accrued leave, retired pay, and survivor benefits, and claims for refunds by carriers for amounts collected from them for loss or damage to property they transported at Government expense; also included are other claims arising from the activity of a DoD Component. However, the Director of the Office of Personnel Management performs these functions for claims involving civilian employees' compensation and leave; and the Administrator of General Services performs these functions for claims involving civilian employees' travel, transportation, and relocation expenses.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) 10 U.S.C. 2575, concerning the disposition of unclaimed personal property on a military installation.
</P>
<P>(c) 10 U.S.C. 2771, concerning the final settlement of accounts of deceased members of the armed forces (but not the National Guard). 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Claims under this statute are actually settled under the authority in 31 U.S.C. 3702 because there is no specific settlement authority in the statute.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, and 10 U.S.C. 9712, concerning the disposition of the effects of a deceased person who was subject to military law at a place or command under the jurisdiction of the Army or Air Force or of deceased residents of the Armed Forces Retirement Home.
</P>
<P>(e) 37 U.S.C. 554, concerning the sale of personal property of members of the Uniformed Services who are in a missing status.
</P>
<P>(f) 32 U.S.C. 714, concerning the final settlement of accounts of deceased members of the National Guard. 
<SU>2</SU>


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="282" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 282—PROCEDURES FOR SETTLING PERSONNEL AND GENERAL CLAIMS AND PROCESSING ADVANCE DECISION REQUESTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 10 U.S.C. 2575; 10 U.S.C. 2771; 10 U.S.C. 4712; 10 U.S.C. 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 31 U.S.C. 3529; 31 U.S.C. 3702; 32 U.S.C. 714; and 37 U.S.C. 554.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 38843, June 29, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 282.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 282.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy under 32 CFR part 281 and prescribes procedures for processing and settling personnel and general claims under 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, 10 U.S.C. 9712, 37 U.S.C. 554, 32 U.S.C. 714 and for processing requests for an advance decision under 31 U.S.C. 3529.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 282.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 282.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as “the DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Coast Guard, when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy under agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, and the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreements with the Departments of Health and Human Services and Commerce (hereafter referred to collectively as “the non-DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 282.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 282.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Armed Forces.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim.</I> A demand for money or property under one of the following statutes: 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, 10 U.S.C. 9712, 37 U.S.C. 554, or 32 U.S.C. 714.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Committee.</I> The person or persons invested, by order of a proper court, with the guardianship of a minor or incompetent person and /or the estate of a minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Component Concerned.</I> The agency/activity (as well as the official designated by the Head of the agency/activity) required to perform the function or take the action indicated or from whose activity a claim arose.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final Action.</I> A finding by the appropriate official under this part concerning a claim from which there is no right to appeal or request reconsideration, or concerning which the time limit prescribed in this part for submitting an appeal or request for reconsideration has expired without such a submission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Member.</I> A member or former member of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Secretary Concerned.</I> The Secretary of the Army, addressing matters concerning the Army. The Secretary of the Navy, addressing matters concerning the Navy, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard when it is operating as a Service in the Navy. The Secretary of the Air Force, addressing matters concerning the Air Force. The Secretary of Homeland Security, addressing matters concerning the Coast Guard when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy. The Secretary of Health and Human Services, addressing matters concerning the PHS. The Secretary of Commerce, addressing matters concerning the NOAA.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Settlement.</I> A claim and the amount due that is administratively determined to be valid.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Uniformed Services.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and the Commissioned Corps of the PHS and the NOAA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 282.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 282.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) Claims shall be settled and advance decisions rendered in accordance with all pertinent statutes and regulations, and after consideration of other relevant authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to certain claim settlement and advance decision functions that, by statute or delegation, are vested in the Department of Defense or the Secretary of Defense. Appendix B to this part describes the claims included under these functional authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 282.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 282.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel of the Department of Defense</I> (GC, DoD), or designee, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon the request of the Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA), consult on, or render legal opinions concerning, questions of law that arise in the course of the performance of the Director's responsibilities under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Render advance decisions under 31 U.S.C. 3529 and oversee the submission of requests for an advance decision arising from the activity of a DoD Component that are addressed to the Director of the Office of Personnel Management or the Administrator General Services in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals</I> (DOHA), or designee, under the GC, DoD (as the <I>Director, Defense Legal Services Agency</I>), shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Consider, and grant or deny, a request by the Secretary concerned under 31 U.S.C. 3702(e) to waive the time limit for submitting certain claims in accordance with 32 CFR part 281 and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Consider appeals from an initial determination, and affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the initial determination in accordance with 32 CFR part 281, this part, and relevant DoD Office of General Counsel opinions.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Heads of the DoD Components</I>, or designees, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Process claims under 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, 10 U.S.C. 9712, 37 U.S.C. 554, and 32 U.S.C. 714 in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that requests for an advance decision that originate in their organizations are prepared and submitted in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Pay claims as provided in a final action in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Heads of the Non-DoD Components</I>, or designees, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Process claims under 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, or 37 U.S.C. 554 in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that requests for an advance decision that originate in their organizations are prepared and submitted in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Pay claims as provided in a final action in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 282—Guidance
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submitting a claim.</I> The procedures a claimant must follow to submit a claim are at Appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing a claim.</I> The procedures a DoD Component must follow in processing a claim are at Appendix D to this part. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Contact the appropriate non-DoD Component for the procedures it follows in processing a claim.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals.</I> The procedures for appealing initial determinations are at Appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition of claims upon settlement in general.</I> (1) The appropriate official for the Component concerned shall pay a claim in accordance with the final action concerning the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) Where state law requires, a committee must be appointed for a minor or incompetent person in accordance with State law before payment may be made.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for an advance decision.</I> Procedures for requesting an advance decision under 31 U.S.C. 3529 concerning the propriety of a payment or voucher certification related to claims addressed in this part are at Appendix F to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Publication.</I> In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552, the Director, DOHA, or designee, shall make redacted copies of responses to requests for reconsideration and advance decisions by the GC, DoD, or designee, available for public inspection and copying at DOHA's public reading room and on the worldwide web.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 282—Claims Description
</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Defense is authorized to perform the claims settlement and advance decision functions for claims under the following statutes:
</P>
<P>(a) 31 U.S.C. 3702 concerning claims in general when there is no other settlement authority specifically provided for by law. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This includes claims involving Uniformed Services members' pay, allowances, travel, transportation, payment for unused accrued leave, retired pay, and survivor benefits, and claims for refund by carriers for amounts collected from them for loss or damage to property they transported at Government expense; also included are other claims arising from the activity of a DoD Component. However, the Director of the Office of Personnel Management performs these functions for claims involving civilian employees' compensation and leave; and the Administrator of General Services performs these functions for claims involving civilian employees' travel, transportation, and relocation expenses.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) 10 U.S.C. 2575 concerning the disposition of unclaimed personal property on a military installation.
</P>
<P>(c) 10 U.S.C. 2771 concerning the final settlement of accounts of deceased members of the Armed Forces (but not the National Guard). 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Claims under this statute are actually settled under the authority in 31 U.S.C. 3702 because there is no specific settlement authority in the statute.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, and 10 U.S.C. 9712 concerning the disposition of the effects of a deceased person who was subject to military law at a place or Command under the jurisdiction of the Army or the Air Force or of a deceased resident of the Armed Forces Retirement Home.
</P>
<P>(e) 37 U.S.C. 554 concerning the sale of personal property of members of the Uniformed Services who are in a missing status.
</P>
<P>(f) 32 U.S.C. 714 concerning the final settlement of accounts of deceased members of the National Guard. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Claims under this statute are actually settled under the authority in 31 U.S.C. 3702 because there is no specific settlement authority in the statute.</P></FTNT>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 282—Submitting a Claim
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who May Submit a Claim.</I> Any person (“claimant”) may submit a claim who has a demand for money or property against the Government under 31 U.S.C. 3702, 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, 10 U.S.C. 9712, 37 U.S.C. 554, or 32 U.S.C. 714.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to Submit a Claim.</I> A claimant must submit a claim to the Component concerned in accordance with guidance provided by that Component. A claim that is submitted somewhere other than to the Component concerned does not stop the running of the time limit in paragraph (f) of this Appendix. It is the claimant's responsibility to submit a claim properly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Format of a Claim.</I> A claimant must submit a claim in the format prescribed by the Component concerned. It must be written and be signed by the claimant (in the case of a claim on behalf of a minor or incompetent person, there are additional requirements explained at paragraph (e) of this Appendix) or by the claimant's authorized agent or attorney (there are additional requirements explained at paragraph (d) of this Appendix). In addition, it should:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the claimant's mailing address.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the claimant's telephone number.
</P>
<P>(3) State the amount claimed.
</P>
<P>(4) State the reasons why the Government owes the claimant that amount.
</P>
<P>(5) Have attached copies of documents referred to in the claim.
</P>
<P>(6) Include or have attached statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) of the claimant or other persons in support of the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claim Submitted by Agent or Attorney.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (c) of this Appendix, a claim submitted by the claimant's agent or attorney must include or have attached a duly executed power of attorney or other documentary evidence of the agent's or attorney's right to act for the claimant.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claim Submitted on Behalf of a Minor or Incompetent Person.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (c) of this Appendix:
</P>
<P>(1) If a guardian or committee has not been appointed, a claim submitted on behalf of a minor or incompetent person must:
</P>
<P>(i) State the claimant's relationship to the minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the name and address of the person having care and custody of the minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P>(iii) Include an affirmation that any moneys received shall be applied to the use and benefit of the minor or incompetent person, and that the appointment of a guardian or committee is not contemplated.
</P>
<P>(2) If a guardian or committee has been appointed, a claim on behalf of a minor or incompetent person must include or have attached a certificate of the court showing the appointment and qualification of the guardian or committee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When to Submit a Claim.</I> A claimant must submit a claim so that it is received by the Component concerned within the time limit allowed by statute.
</P>
<P>(1) Claimants must submit claims within these statutory time limits: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Under Section 501 <I>et seq.</I> of title 50 Appendix, United States Code, periods of active military service are not included in calculating whether a claim has been received within these statutory time limits.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Claims on account of Treasury checks under 31 U.S.C. 3702(c) must be received within 1 year after the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Claims under 31 U.S.C. 3702 (b), 10 U.S.C. 2771 and 32 U.S.C. 714 must be received within 6 years of the date the claim accrued. (A claim accrues on the date when everything necessary to give rise to the claim has occurred.) The time limit for claims of members of the Armed Forces that accrue during war or within 5 years before war begins, is 6 years from the date the claim accrued or 5 years after peace is established, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims under 10 U.S.C. 2575(d)(3) must be received within 5 years after the date of the disposal of the property to which the claim relates.
</P>
<P>(iv) Claims under 24 U.S.C. 420(d)(1), 10 U.S.C. 4712, and 10 U.S.C. 9712 must be received within 6 years after the death of the deceased resident.
</P>
<P>(v) Claims under 37 U.S.C. 554(h) must be received before the end of the 5-year period from the date the net proceeds from the sale of the missing person's personal property are covered into the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(2) The time limits set by statute may not be extended or waived. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Although the issue of timeliness normally shall be raised upon initial submission (as explained at Appendix D to this part, paragraph (b)), the issue may be raised at any point during the claim settlement process.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> There is an exception for certain claims described in 31 U.S.C. 3702(e). In those cases, the Secretary of Defense may waive the time limits in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this Appendix. Appendix D of this part, paragraph (d), explains which claims qualify and the procedures that apply.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) <I>Claimant Must Prove the Claim.</I> The claimant must prove, by clear and convincing evidence, on the written record that the United States is liable to the claimant for the amount claimed. All relevant evidence to prove the claim should be presented when a claim is first submitted. In the absence of compelling circumstances, evidence that is presented at later stages of the administrative process will not be considered.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 282—Processing a Claim
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial Component Processing.</I> Upon receipt of a claim, the Component concerned must:
</P>
<P>(1) Date stamp the claim on the date received.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the claim was received within the required time limit (time limits are summarized at Appendix C to this part, paragraph (f)) and follow the procedures in paragraph (b) of this Appendix if the claim was not timely.
</P>
<P>(3) Investigate the claim.
</P>
<P>(4) Decide whether the claimant provided clear and convincing evidence that proves all or part of the claim.
</P>
<P>(5) Issue an initial determination that grants the claim to the extent proved or denies the claim, as appropriate. The initial determination must state how much of the claim is granted and how much is denied, and must explain the reasons for the determination.
</P>
<P>(6) Notify the claimant of the initial determination. The Component must send the claimant a copy of the initial determination and a notice that explains:
</P>
<P>(i) The action the Component shall take on the claim, if the initial determination is or becomes a final action (the finality of an initial determination is explained at paragraph (c) of this Appendix); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedures the claimant must follow to appeal an initial determination that denies all or part of the claim (those appeal procedures are explained at Appendix E to this part), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Untimely Claims.</I> When the Component concerned determines that a claim was not received within the statutory time limit, the Component must make an initial determination of untimely receipt. (The statutory time limits are explained in Appendix C to this part, paragraph (f).)
</P>
<P>(1) The initial determination must cite the applicable statute and explain the reasons for the finding of untimely receipt. The Component must send the initial determination to the claimant with a notice that:
</P>
<P>(i) States the claim was not received within the statutory time limit and, therefore, may not be considered, unless that finding is reversed on appeal, and explains how the claimant may appeal the finding (those appeal procedures are explained at Appendix E to this part); and either
</P>
<P>(ii) If the claim does not qualify under 31 U.S.C. 3702(e), states that the statutory time limit may not be extended or waived; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the claim does qualify under 31 U.S.C. 3702(e), states that the claim may be further considered only if the time limit is waived, and explains how the claimant may apply for a waiver. (Paragraph (d) of this Appendix explains which claims qualify and the procedures for applying for a waiver).
</P>
<P>(2) Except in cases where a claimant has applied under paragraph (d) of this Appendix to request a waiver of the time limit, the Component must return the claim to the claimant when the initial determination becomes a final action with a notice that the finding in the initial determination is final and, therefore, the claim may not be considered. If the claim qualifies under 31 U.S.C. 3702(e), the notice must also state that the claimant may resubmit the claim with an application under paragraph (d) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Finality of an Initial Determination.</I> An initial determination that grants all of a claim is a final action when it is issued. Otherwise, an initial determination (including one of untimely receipt) is a final action if the Component concerned does not receive an appeal within 30 days of the date of the initial determination (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the Component concerned for good cause shown).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver of Certain Time Limits.</I> When the Component concerned determines that a claim was not received within the statutory time limit in 31 U.S.C. 3702(b) or (c), the claimant may request a waiver of the time limit. Waiver is permitted only for those claims that satisfy the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3702(e). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> This provision confers no right or entitlement on a claimant. It is solely within the discretion of the Secretary of Defense whether to grant such a waiver in a particular case.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> When this part was issued, 31 U.S.C. 3702(e) allowed time limit waivers only for claims up to $25,000 for Uniformed Service member's pay, allowances, travel, transportation, payments for unused accrued leave, retired pay, and survivors benefits. Since 31 U.S.C. 3702(e) could be amended at any time to modify these restrictions, always consult the current provisions of that Section to determine which claims are included.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The claim must contain the information and documents that are generally required for claims (those requirements are explained at Appendix C to this part, paragraph (c)).
</P>
<P>(2) The Component concerned must investigate the claim and make an initial determination concerning the merits of the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) If the initial determination grants all or part of the claim, and if the Secretary concerned agrees with the determination, the Secretary may request or recommend that the time limit be waived. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Requests and recommendations must be in writing and signed by the Secretary concerned. (This authority may not be delegated below the level of an Assistant Secretary.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 31 U.S.C. 3702(e) currently requires a Secretarial request only in the case of a claim by or with respect to a member of the Uniformed Services who is not under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of a Military Department. As a matter of policy, the Department of Defense currently requires a Secretarial recommendation in all other cases.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The Secretary concerned shall forward the request or recommendation to the following address: Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, Claims Division, P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, VA 22203-1995.
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire record concerning the claim, including the initial determination, must be attached to the request.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director, DOHA, must review the request and the written record and must:
</P>
<P>(i) Grant the request and waive the statutory time limit, if the Director finds that all or part of the claim has been proven. The Director may also modify the finding concerning the amount of the claim that has been proven.
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny the request, if the Director finds that no part of the claim has been proven.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the Secretary concerned and the claimant of the decision and the reasons for the findings.
</P>
<P>(5) In the event the Director, DOHA, denies the request, or grants the request but modifies the finding concerning the amount of the claim proven, the Secretary concerned or the claimant may request reconsideration (the procedures are explained at Appendix E to this part). The Director's decision is a final action if the Director does not receive a request for reconsideration within 30 days of the date of the Director's decision (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the Director for good cause shown).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 282—Appeals
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who May Appeal.</I> A claimant may appeal if an initial determination denies all or part of a claim or finds that the claim was not received by the Component concerned within the time limit required by statute; however, the decision of the Secretary concerned not to request or recommend waiver of the time limit is not appealable except to the Secretary concerned, if the Secretary as a matter of discretion provides for such appeals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When and Where to Submit an Appeal.</I> A claimant's appeal must be received by the Component concerned within 30 days of the date of the initial determination. The Component may extend this period for up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. No appeal may be accepted after this time has expired. An appeal sent directly to the DOHA is not properly submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of an Appeal.</I> No specific format is required; however, the appeal must be written and be signed by the claimant, the claimant's authorized agent, or the claimant's attorney. It also should:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the claimant's mailing address;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the claimant's telephone number;
</P>
<P>(3) State the amount claimed on appeal, or that the appeal is from a finding of untimely receipt, whichever applies;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify specific:
</P>
<P>(i) Errors or omissions of material and relevant fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) Legal considerations that were overlooked or misapplied; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conclusions that were arbitrary, capricious, or an abuse of discretion;
</P>
<P>(5) Present evidence of the correct or additional facts alleged;
</P>
<P>(6) Explain the reasons the findings or conclusions should be reversed or modified;
</P>
<P>(7) Have attached copies of documents referred to in the appeal; and
</P>
<P>(8) Include or have attached statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the claimant or other persons in support of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Component's Review.</I> The Component concerned must review a claimant's appeal, and affirm, modify, or reverse the initial determination.
</P>
<P>(1) If the appeal concerns the denial of all or part of the claim and the Component grants the entire claim, or grants the claim to the extent requested in the appeal, the Component must notify the claimant in writing and explain the action the Component shall take on the claim. This is a final action.
</P>
<P>(2) If the appeal concerns the untimely receipt of the claim and the Component determines that the claim was received within the time limit required by statute, the Component must notify the claimant in writing and process the claim on the merits.
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases, the Component must forward the appeal to the DOHA in accordance with paragraph (e) of this Appendix. If the appeal concerns an initial determination of untimely receipt, the Component should not investigate, or issue an initial determination concerning, the merits of the claim before forwarding the appeal. The Component must prepare a recommendation and administrative report (as explained in paragraph (f) of this Appendix). The Component must send a copy of the administrative report to the claimant, with a notice that the claimant may submit a rebuttal to the Component (as explained in paragraph (g) of this Appendix).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of Appeal to DOHA.</I> No earlier than 31 days after the date of the administrative report, or the day after the claimant's rebuttal period, as extended, expires, the Component must send the entire record along with the recommendation and the administrative report required by paragraph (f) of this Appendix to the following address: Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, Claims Division, P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203-1995.
</P>
<P>The record sent to the DOHA shall include specific identification of any major policy issue(s) and a statement as to whether the amount in controversy exceeds $100,000 either in the instant claim or in the aggregate for directly related claims. If the amount in controversy exceeds $100,000, a full description of the financial impact shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation and Administrative Report.</I> The recommendation and administrative report required by paragraph (d) of this Appendix must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the claimant;
</P>
<P>(2) The Component's file reference number;
</P>
<P>(3) The Component's recommendation (and the reasons for it) for the disposition of the claim;
</P>
<P>(4) Relevant and material documents (such as correspondence, business records, and witness statements), as attachments; and
</P>
<P>(5) Complete copies of regulations, instructions, memorandums of understanding, tariffs and/or tenders, solicitations, contracts, or rules cited by the claimant or the Component, if a copy has not been previously provided, or is not available readily via electronic means.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claimant's Rebuttal.</I> A claimant may submit a written rebuttal, signed by the claimant or the claimant's agent or attorney, in response to the recommendation and administrative report. The rebuttal must be submitted to the Component within 30 days of the date of the recommendation and administrative report. The Component may grant an extension of up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. The rebuttal should include:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of the points and reasons for disagreeing with the report;
</P>
<P>(2) The Component's file reference number;
</P>
<P>(3) Any documents referred to in the rebuttal; and
</P>
<P>(4) Statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the claimant or other persons in support of the rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Action by the Component.</I> The Component must:
</P>
<P>(1) Date stamp the claimant's rebuttal on the date it is received;
</P>
<P>(2) Send the entire record to the DOHA, but no earlier than 31 days after the date of the report, or the day after the claimant's rebuttal period, as extended, expires (as explained in paragraph (e) of this Appendix).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DOHA Appeal Decision.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (p) of this Appendix, the DOHA must base its decision on the written record, including the recommendation and administrative report and any rebuttal by the claimant. The DOHA shall coordinate its decision in advance with the GC, DoD when the appeal decision affects:
</P>
<P>(1) Major policy issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Involves a claim that is quasi-contractual in nature and arises from the activity of a DoD Component, but the claim was not settled under usual acquisition procedures; or
</P>
<P>(3) When the amounts in controversy exceed $100,000, either for the instant claim or in the aggregate for directly related claims. The written decision must:
</P>
<P>(i) Affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the Component's determination (and, if the issue is untimely receipt and there is a finding that the claim was timely received, may either consider and decide the claim on the merits or return the claim to the Component concerned for investigation and initial determination on the merits);
</P>
<P>(ii) State the amount of the claim that is granted and the amount that is denied and/or state that the claim was or was not received within the statutory time limit, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Processing After the Appeal Decision.</I> After issuing an appeal decision, the DOHA must:
</P>
<P>(1) Send the claimant the decision and notify the claimant of:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate Component action on the claim as a consequence of the decision, if it is or becomes a final action (as explained in paragraph (k) of this Appendix); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedures under this appendix to request reconsideration (as explained in paragraphs (l) through (n) of this Appendix), if the decision does not grant the claim to the extent requested, or does not contain a finding of timely receipt, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the Component concerned of the decision, and of the appropriate Component action on the claim as a consequence of the decision.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Finality of a DOHA Appeal Decision.</I> An appeal decision that finds that the claim was timely received is a final action when issued. Otherwise, an appeal decision is a final action if the DOHA does not receive a request for reconsideration within 30 days of the date of the appeal decision (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the DOHA for good cause shown).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the case of a DOHA appeal decision issued before the effective date of this part that denied all or part of the claim, a request for reconsideration by the GC, DoD may be submitted within 60 days of the effective date of this part. The GC, DoD shall consider such requests and affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the DOHA appeal decision. Requests for reconsideration by the GC, DoD received more than 60 days after the effective date of this part shall not be accepted. Requests must be submitted to the address in paragraph (e) of this appendix. The provisions of paragraph (n) of this appendix apply.</P></NOTE>
<P>(l) <I>Who May Request Reconsideration.</I> A claimant or the Component concerned, or both, may request reconsideration of a DOHA appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>When and Where to Submit a Request for Reconsideration.</I> The DOHA must receive a request for reconsideration within 30 days of the date of the appeal decision. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The DOHA may extend this period for up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. No request for reconsideration may be accepted after this time has expired. A request for reconsideration must be sent to the DOHA at the address in paragraph (e) of this Appendix.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> With respect to appeal decisions issued before the effective date of this part, the request for reconsideration by the GC, DoD must be received by the DOHA within 60 days of the effective date of this part as explained in paragraph (k) of this Appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>(n) <I>Content of a Request for Reconsideration.</I> The requirements of paragraph (c) of this Appendix, concerning the contents of an appeal, apply to requests for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>DOHA's Review of a Request for Reconsideration.</I> (1) No earlier than 31 days after the date of the appeal decision, or the day after the last period for submitting a request, as extended, expires, the DOHA must:
</P>
<P>(i) Consider a request or requests for reconsideration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the appeal decision (and, if the issue is untimely receipt and there is a finding that the claim was timely received, may either consider and decide the claim on the merits or return the claim to the Component concerned for investigation and initial determination on the merits);
</P>
<P>(iii) Prepare a response that explains the reasons for the finding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Send the response to the claimant and the Component concerned and notify both of the appropriate action on the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) The response is a final action. It is precedent in the consideration of all claims covered by this part unless otherwise stated in the document.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Consideration of Appeals and Requests for Reconsideration.</I> When considering an appeal or request for reconsideration, the DOHA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Take administrative notice of matters that are generally known or are capable of confirmation by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned.
</P>
<P>(2) Remand a matter to the Component with instructions to provide additional information.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.57.0.1.6.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 282—Requests for an Advance Decision
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who May Request an Advance Decision.</I> A disbursing or certifying official or the Head of a Component may request an advance decision on a question involving:
</P>
<P>(1) A payment the disbursing official or Head of the Component shall make; or
</P>
<P>(2) A voucher presented to a certifying official for certification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who May Render an Advance Decision.</I> The following officials are authorized to render an advance decision concerning the matters indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Defense for requests involving claims under:
</P>
<P>(i) 31 U.S.C. 3702 for Uniformed Services members' pay, allowances, travel, transportation, retired pay, and survivor benefits, and by carriers for amounts collected from them for loss or damage to property they transported at Government expense.
</P>
<P>(ii) 31 U.S.C. 3702 that are not described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this Appendix and that arise from the activity of a DoD Component, when there is no other settlement authority specifically provided by law.
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 U.S.C. 2575, 10 U.S.C. 2771, 24 U.S.C. 420, 10 U.S.C. 4712, 10 U.S.C. 9712, 37 U.S.C. 554, and 32 U.S.C. 714. Appendix B to this part describes these claims.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director of the Office of Personnel Management for requests involving claims for civilian employees' compensation and leave.
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrator of General Services for requests involving claims for civilian employees' travel, transportation, and relocation expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to Submit a Request.</I> All requests described in paragraph (b)(1) of this Appendix and all other requests arising from the activity of a DoD Component (even if addressed to an official outside the Department of Defense) must be sent through the General Counsel of the Component concerned to the following address: General Counsel, Department of Defense, 1600 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-1600.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of a Request.</I> Requests for an advance decision must:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically request an advance decision pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3529;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe all the relevant facts;
</P>
<P>(3) Explain the reasons (both factual and legal) the requester considers the proposed payment to be questionable;
</P>
<P>(4) Have attached vouchers, if any, and copies of all other relevant documents relating to the proposed payment;
</P>
<P>(5) Have attached a legal memorandum from the General Counsel of the Component concerned that discusses the legality of the proposed payment under the circumstances presented in the request; and
</P>
<P>(6) Comply with any other requirements established by the Director of the Office of Personnel Management or the Administrator of General Services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advance Decisions.</I> The GC, DoD must take action under paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2), or (e)(3) of this Appendix, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is described in paragraph (b)(1) of this Appendix, the GC, DoD must review the request and issue an advance decision, unless the GC, DoD elects to proceed under paragraph (e)(3) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) The GC, DoD must send the decision, through the General Counsel of the Component concerned, to the requester, and must send a copy of the decision to the Director, DOHA for publication according to Appendix A to this part, paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) The decision is controlling in the case; the reliance of certifying and disbursing officials on it in their disposition of the case is evidence that those officials have exercised due diligence in the performance of their duties.
</P>
<P>(iii) An advance decision is precedent in similar claims under this part unless otherwise stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(2) If the request is not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this Appendix, the GC, DoD must review the request and either:
</P>
<P>(i) Forward the request to the appropriate advance decision authority and notify the requester of that action; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Return the request, through the General Counsel of the Component concerned, to the requester, with a memorandum explaining that under existing legal authorities a request for an advance decision is not necessary. After considering the memorandum, the requester may resubmit the request, through the General Counsel of the Component concerned, to the GC, DoD. The GC, DoD must forward the request to the appropriate advance decision authority, and notify the requester of that action.
</P>
<P>(3) If the request is described in paragraph (b)(1) of this Appendix, and the claim is for not more than $250, the GC, DoD may refer the request to the General Counsel, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS). The General Counsel, DFAS, shall review the request and issue an advance decision.
</P>
<P>(i) The General Counsel, DFAS, must send the decision, through the General Counsel of the Component concerned, to the requester, and must send a copy of the decision to the GC, DoD.
</P>
<P>(ii) The decision is controlling in the case; the reliance of certifying and disbursing officials on it in their disposition of the case is evidence that those officials have exercised due diligence in the performance of their duties.
</P>
<P>(iii) An advance decision issued by the General Counsel, DFAS, under this paragraph is not precedent in similar claims under this part.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="283" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 283—WAIVER OF DEBTS RESULTING FROM ERRONEOUS PAYMENTS OF PAY AND ALLOWANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 31 U.S.C. 3529, 3702; 32 U.S.C. 714; 37 U.S.C. 554.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 57427, Sept. 29, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 283.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 283.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for considering applications for the waiver of debts resulting from erroneous payments of pay and allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) to or on behalf of members of the Uniformed Services and civilian DoD employees under 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, 5 U.S.C. 5584. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 283.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 283.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Coast Guard, when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy under the agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, and the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) under agreements with the Departments of Health and Human Services and Commerce (hereafter referred to collectively as the “non-DoD Components”). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 283.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 283.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debt.</I> An amount an individual owes the Government as the result of erroneous payments of pay and allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) to or on behalf of members of the Uniformed Services or civilian DoD employees.
</P>
<P><I>Erroneous Payment.</I> A payment that is not in strict conformity with applicable laws or regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Uniformed Services.</I> The Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and the Commissioned Corps of the PHS and the NOAA.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver Application.</I> A request that the United States relinquishes its claim against an individual for a debt resulting from erroneous payments of pay or allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) under 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or 5 U.S.C. 5584. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 283.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 283.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy that:
</P>
<P>(a) The officials designated in this part exercise waiver authority that, by statute or delegation, is vested in the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) Waiver applications shall be processed in accordance with all pertinent statutes and regulations, and after consideration of other relevant authorities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 283.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.58.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 283.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel of the Department of Defense</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500, deny or grant all or part of a waiver application.
</P>
<P>(2) Decide appeals in accordance with procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop overall waiver policies and promulgate procedures for considering waiver applications, including an initial determination process and a process to appeal an initial determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Heads of the DoD Components</I> shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with responsibilities promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, establish procedures within the DoD Component for the submission of waiver applications relating to debts resulting from the DoD Component's activity, which shall be referred to the appropriate official for consideration as set forth in paragraphs (a), (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure compliance with this part and policies and procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Heads of the Non-DoD Components</I> concerning debts resulting from that Component's activity shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the aggregate amount of the debt is $1,500 or less, deny or grant all or part of a waiver application pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2774.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a waiver application in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer a waiver application for consideration with a recommendation that all or part of the application be granted, in accordance with procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller)/Chief Financial Officer</I> concerning debts (except those described in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section) resulting from DoD Component activity shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the aggregate amount of the debt is $1,500 or less, deny or grant all or part of a waiver application pursuant to enclosure 2 of DoD Directive 5118.3. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a waiver application in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer a waiver application for consideration with a recommendation that all or part of the application be granted, in accordance with procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The <I>Director, Department of Defense Education Activity</I>, under the <I>Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness</I> concerning debts of civilian employees resulting from that Component's activity shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the aggregate amount of the debt is $1,500 or less, deny or grant all or part of a waiver application pursuant to enclosure 2 of DoD Directive 1342.6. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a waiver application in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer a waiver application for consideration with a recommendation that all or part of the application be granted, in accordance with procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The <I>Director, National Security Agency</I>, under the <I>Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence</I> concerning debts resulting from that Component's activity shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the aggregate amount of the debt is $1,500 or less, deny or grant all or part of a waiver application.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a waiver application in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer a waiver application for consideration with a recommendation that all or part of the application be granted, in accordance with procedures promulgated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="284" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 284—WAIVER PROCEDURES FOR DEBTS RESULTING FROM ERRONEOUS PAYMENTS OF PAY AND ALLOWANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2575, 2771, 4712, 9712; 24 U.S.C. 420; 31 U.S.C. 3529, 3702; 32 U.S.C. 714; 37 U.S.C. 554.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 59375, Oct. 10, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 284.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 284.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements policy under 32 CFR part 283 and prescribes procedures for considering waiver applications under 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, and 5 U.S.C. 5584.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 284.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 284.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the Department of Defense Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the Department of Defense (hereafter referred to collectively as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) The Coast Guard, when it is not operating as a Service in the Navy under agreement with the Department of Homeland Security, the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (PHS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) under agreements with the Departments of Health and Human Services and Commerce, respectively (hereafter referred to collectively as the “non-DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(c) Certain functions for considering waiver applications that, by statute or delegation, are vested in the Department of Defense or the Secretary of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 284.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 284.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Committee.</I> The person or persons invested, by order of a proper court, with the guardianship of a minor or incompetent person and/or the estate of a minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P><I>Component concerned.</I> The agency/activity (as well as the official designated by the Head of the agency/activity) required to perform the function or take the action indicated or that notifies the individual of the debt that is the subject of a waiver application.
</P>
<P><I>Debt.</I> An amount an individual owes the Government as the result of erroneous payments of pay and allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) to or on behalf of members of the Uniformed Services or civilian DoD employees.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> A person who is or was an officer or employee as defined in 5 U.S.C. 2104 and 2105.
</P>
<P><I>Erroneous payment.</I> A payment that is not in compliance with applicable laws or regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Final action.</I> A finding by the appropriate official under this part concerning a waiver application from which there is no right to appeal or request reconsideration, or for which the time limit prescribed in this part for submitting an appeal or request for reconsideration has expired without such a submission.
</P>
<P><I>Member.</I> A member or former member of the Uniformed Services.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver application.</I> A request that the United States relinquish its claim against an individual for a debt resulting from erroneous payments of pay or allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) under 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, and 5 U.S.C. 5584.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 284.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 284.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is DoD policy under 32 CFR part 283 that waiver applications for debts resulting from erroneous payments of pay and allowances (hereafter referred to as “waiver applications”) be processed according to all pertinent statutes, regulations, and other relevant authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 284.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 284.5   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>General Counsel of the Department of Defense</I> (GC, DoD) or designee shall consult on, or render opinions concerning, questions of law or equity that arise in the course of the performance of the Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals' (DOHA) responsibilities under paragraph (b) of this section when requested by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals</I> or designee, under the GC, DoD (as the Director, Defense Legal Services Agency), shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny or grant all or part of a waiver application, if the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500.
</P>
<P>(2) Consider an appeal of an initial determination and affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the initial determination, according to this part and relevant GC, DoD opinions.
</P>
<P>(3) Process waiver applications and appeals according to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The Heads of the DoD Components or designee shall process waiver applications according to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Heads of the Non-DoD Components</I> or designee concerning debts of Uniformed Services personnel resulting from the Component's activity; the <I>Director, Department of Defense Education Activity</I> (DoDEA) or designee, concerning debts of civilian employees resulting from that Component's activity; the <I>Director, National Security Agency</I> (NSA) or designee, concerning debts resulting from that Component's activity; and the <I>Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service</I> (DFAS) or designee, under the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller)/Chief Financial Officer (USD(C)/CFO), concerning debts resulting from all other DoD Components' activities shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny or grant all or part of a waiver application, if the aggregate amount of the debt is $1,500 or less.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a waiver application in its entirety, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Refer a waiver application for consideration with a recommendation that part or all of the application be granted, according to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Process waiver applications, when the aggregate amount of the debt is more than $1,500, and appeals according to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Resolve a debt according to the final action that results from the waiver application process provided for in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 284—Overview of Waiver Application Process 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Standards for Waiver Determinations
</HD1>
<P>The standards that must be applied in determining whether all or part of a waiver application should be granted or denied are at Appendix B to this part.
</P>
<HD1>B. Submitting a Waiver Application
</HD1>
<P>The DoD Components shall ensure, if applicable, the submission and filing of waiver applications/appeals satisfy the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a. The procedures an applicant must follow to submit a waiver application are at Appendix C to this part.
</P>
<HD1>C. Processing A Waiver Application When The Debt Is $1,500 Or Less
</HD1>
<P>The procedures a DoD Component must follow in processing a waiver application when the debt is $1,500 or less are at Appendix D to this part. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Contact the appropriate non-DoD Component for the procedures it follows in processing a waiver application.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>D. Processing a Waiver Application When the Debt Is More Than $1,500
</HD1>
<P>The procedures a DoD Component must follow in processing a waiver application when the debt is more than $1,500 are at Appendix E to this part.
</P>
<HD1>E. Appeals
</HD1>
<P>The DoD Components shall ensure, if applicable, the submission and filing of waiver applications/appeals satisfy the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 and 552a. The procedures for appealing initial determinations are at Appendix F to this part.
</P>
<HD1>F. Refund of Repaid Debts That Are Subsequently Waived
</HD1>
<P>When a final action waives all or part of a debt that has been repaid, the waiver application shall be interpreted as an application for a refund and the Component concerned shall, to the extent of the waiver, refund the amount repaid.
</P>
<HD1>G. Publication
</HD1>
<P>The Director, DOHA or designee shall make redacted copies of responses to requests for reconsideration available for public inspection and copying at the DOHA's public reading room and on the worldwide web according to 5 U.S.C. 552 and 552a.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 284—Standards for Waiver Determinations 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Standards
</HD1>
<P>1. Generally, persons who receive a payment erroneously from the Government acquire no right to the money. They are bound in equity and good conscience to make restitution. If a benefit is bestowed by mistake, no matter how careless the act of the Government may have been, the recipient must make restitution. In theory, restitution results in no loss to the recipient because the recipient received something for nothing. However, 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, and 5 U.S.C. 5584 provide authority to waive, under certain conditions debts individuals owe the Government that are the result of erroneous payments of pay and allowances (including travel and transportation allowances). A waiver is not a matter of right. It is available to provide relief as a matter of equity, if the circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>2. Debts may be waived only when collection would be against equity and good conscience and would not be in the best interests of the United States. There must be no indication the erroneous payment was solely or partially the result of the fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith of the applicant.
</P>
<P>3. The fact that an erroneous payment is solely the result of administrative error or mistake on the part of the Government is not sufficient basis in and of itself for granting a waiver.
</P>
<P>4. A waiver usually is not appropriate when a recipient knows, or reasonably should know, that a payment is erroneous. The recipient has a duty to notify an appropriate official and to set aside the funds for eventual repayment to the Government, even if the Government fails to act after such notification.
</P>
<P>5. A waiver generally is not appropriate when a recipient of a significant unexplained increase in pay or allowances, or of any other unexplained payment of pay or allowances, does not attempt to obtain a reasonable explanation from an appropriate official. The recipient has a duty to ascertain the reason for the payment and to set aside the funds in the event that repayment should be necessary.
</P>
<P>6. A waiver may be inappropriate in cases where a recipient questions a payment (which ultimately is determined to be erroneous) and is mistakenly advised by an appropriate official that the payment is proper, if under the circumstances the recipient knew or reasonably should have known that the advice was erroneous.
</P>
<P>7. Financial hardship is not a factor for consideration in determining whether a waiver is appropriate.
</P>
<P>8. Waiver determinations under these standards depend on the facts in each case.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 284—Submitting a Waiver Application 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Who May Apply for Waiver
</HD1>
<P>Any person (“applicant”) from whom collection is sought for a debt resulting from erroneous payments of pay or allowances (including travel and transportation allowances) may submit a waiver application under 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, and 5 U.S.C. 5584. Additionally, an authorized official of the Component concerned, or the Director, DOHA or designee may initiate a waiver application during the processing of a claim under 32 CFR part 281.
</P>
<HD1>B. Where To Submit A Waiver Application
</HD1>
<P>An applicant must submit a waiver application to the Component concerned according to the guidance provided by that Component. A waiver application submitted somewhere other than to the Component concerned does not stop the calculation of the time limit as discussed in paragraph F to this Appendix. It is the applicant's responsibility to submit the waiver application properly.
</P>
<HD1>C. Format of a Waiver Application
</HD1>
<P>An applicant must submit a waiver application in the format prescribed by the Component concerned. It must be written and signed by the applicant (in the case of an application on behalf of a minor or incompetent person, there are additional requirements explained at paragraph E to this Appendix) or by the applicant's authorized agent or attorney (there are additional requirements explained at paragraph D to this Appendix). In addition, the waiver application should include:
</P>
<P>1. The applicant's mailing address.
</P>
<P>2. The applicant's telephone number.
</P>
<P>3. The applicant's social security number when required by the Component concerned.
</P>
<P>4. The amount for which waiver is requested.
</P>
<P>5. An explanation why a waiver should be granted under the standards explained at Appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>6. Copies of documents referred to in the application.
</P>
<P>7. Statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) of the applicant or other persons in support of the application.
</P>
<HD1>D. Waiver Application Submitted by Agent or Attorney
</HD1>
<P>In addition to the requirements in paragraph C to this Appendix, a waiver application submitted by the applicant's agent or attorney must include or have attached a duly executed power of attorney or other documentary evidence of the agent's or attorney's right to act for the applicant.
</P>
<HD1>E. Waiver Application Submitted on Behalf of a Minor or Incompetent Person
</HD1>
<P>In addition to the requirements in paragraph C to this Appendix:
</P>
<P>1. If a guardian or committee has not been appointed, a waiver application submitted on behalf of a minor or incompetent person must:
</P>
<P>i. State the applicant's relationship to the minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P>ii. Provide the name and address of the person having care and custody of the minor or incompetent person.
</P>
<P>iii. Include an affirmation that any moneys received shall be applied to the use and benefit of the minor or incompetent person, and that the appointment of a guardian or committee is not contemplated.
</P>
<P>2. If a guardian or committee has been appointed, a waiver application on behalf of a minor or incompetent person must include or have attached a certificate of the court showing the appointment and qualification of the guardian or committee.
</P>
<HD1>F. When To Submit a Waiver Application
</HD1>
<P>An applicant must submit a waiver application so that it is received by the Component concerned within three years after the erroneous payment is discovered. The date of discovery is the date it is definitely determined by an appropriate official that an erroneous payment has been made. The time limit is set by 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, and 5 U.S.C. 5584, whichever applies. It may not be extended or waived. Although the issue of timeliness is usually raised on initial submission (as explained in paragraph B to Appendix D in this part), the issue may be raised at any point during the waiver application consideration process.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 284—Processing a Waiver Application When the Debt Is $1,500 or Less 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Initial Component Processing
</HD1>
<P>Upon receipt of a waiver application, the Component concerned must:
</P>
<P>1. Date stamp the application on the date received.
</P>
<P>2. Determine whether the application was received within three years after the discovery of the erroneous payment. If the application was not timely, follow the procedures in paragraph B to this Appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Investigate the circumstances relating to the erroneous payment.
</P>
<P>4. Refer the application to the appropriate determining official (see paragraph C to this Appendix) for consideration and an initial determination.
</P>
<HD1>B. Untimely Waiver Applications
</HD1>
<P>When the Component concerned determines that a waiver application was not received within three years after the erroneous payment was discovered, the Component must send the applicant a notice of untimely receipt.
</P>
<P>1. The notice must:
</P>
<P>i. Cite the applicable statute and explain the reasons for the finding of untimely receipt.
</P>
<P>ii. State that the application was not received within the statutory time limit and may not be considered unless that finding is reversed on appeal.
</P>
<P>iii. Explain that the applicant may submit a rebuttal to the finding of untimely receipt (as explained in paragraph B.2.).
</P>
<P>iv. State that the statutory time limit may not be extended or waived.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant may submit a written rebuttal, signed by the applicant or the applicant's agent or attorney, to a notice of untimely receipt. The Component concerned must receive the rebuttal within 30 days of the date of the notice and may grant an extension of up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. The rebuttal should:
</P>
<P>i. Explain the points of, and reasons for, disagreement with the notice.
</P>
<P>ii. Have any documents referred to in the rebuttal attached.
</P>
<P>iii. Include or have attached statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the applicant or other persons in support of the rebuttal.
</P>
<P>3. If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within the time permitted, the notice of untimely receipt is a final action and the Component must return the application to the applicant with a notice that the finding is final and the application may not be considered.
</P>
<P>4. If the applicant submits a timely rebuttal, the Component must consider the rebuttal.
</P>
<P>i. If the Component finds that the application was received within the required time limit, the Component must reverse its finding of untimely receipt, notify the applicant in writing, and process the application on its merits.
</P>
<P>ii. If the Component does not reverse the finding of untimely receipt, the Component must forward the record, including the application, notice of untimely receipt, and rebuttal, to the appropriate determining official (<I>see</I> paragraph C.1. to this Appendix) for an initial determination on the issue of untimely receipt. The Component does not need to investigate the merits of the application before forwarding the record.
</P>
<P>5. After making an initial determination on the issue of untimely receipt, the determining official must follow the procedures in paragraph D to this Appendix. In addition, if the determining official finds that the application was timely, the official may:
</P>
<P>i. Return the application to the Component concerned for processing on its merits according to this part, or
</P>
<P>ii. Consider the application and make an initial determination on its merits according to paragraph C.2. to this Appendix.
</P>
<HD1>C. Initial Determinations
</HD1>
<P>The standards in Appendix B to this part must be applied when considering the merits of a waiver application. After making an initial determination, the determining official must follow the procedures at paragraph D to this Appendix.
</P>
<P>1. The officials listed and referred to in this part as determining officials shall consider waiver applications and take the appropriate action described in paragraph C.2. to this Appendix. These officials are identified as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The Head of a non-DoD Component or designee for debts of Uniformed Services personnel resulting from that Component's activity.
</P>
<P>ii. The Director, DoDEA or designee for debts of civilian employees resulting from that Component's activity.
</P>
<P>iii. The Director, NSA or designee for debts resulting from that Component's activity.
</P>
<P>iv. The Director, DFAS or designee for debts resulting from the DoD Component activity not included in paragraphs C.1.ii. and C.1.iii. to this Appendix.
</P>
<P>2. The officials listed in paragraph C.1. to this Appendix may make an initial determination for the following:
</P>
<P>i. Whether or not a waiver application was received within three years after the discovery of the erroneous payment.
</P>
<P>ii. Deny a waiver application in its entirety.
</P>
<P>iii. Grant all or part of a waiver application.
</P>
<HD1>D. Processing After An Initial Determination
</HD1>
<P>After making an initial determination, the determining official must:
</P>
<P>1. Notify the applicant. The notification must explain:
</P>
<P>i. The determination and the reasons for it.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the determination if it is or becomes a final action (the finality of an initial determination is explained at paragraph E to this Appendix).
</P>
<P>iii. The appeal process (as explained in Appendix F to this part) if the determination does not grant the entire application or does not contain a finding of timely receipt.
</P>
<P>2. Notify the Component concerned if the determining official is not an official of the Component concerned when and if the determination is a final action. The notice must explain:
</P>
<P>i. The determination and its reasons.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the determination.
</P>
<HD1>E. When an Initial Determination Is Final
</HD1>
<P>A final action is an initial determination that grants the entire waiver application or finds that the application was timely received. Also, an initial determination (including one of untimely receipt) is a final action if the determining official does not receive an appeal within 30 days of the date of the initial determination (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the determining official for good cause shown).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 284—Processing a Waiver Application When the Debt Is More Than $1,500 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Initial Component Processing
</HD1>
<P>Upon receipt of a waiver application, the Component concerned must:
</P>
<P>1. Date stamp the application on the date received.
</P>
<P>2. Determine whether the application was received within three years after the discovery of the erroneous payment. If the application was not timely, follow the procedures in paragraph B in this part.
</P>
<P>3. Investigate the circumstances relating to the erroneous payment.
</P>
<P>4. Refer the waiver application to the appropriate determining official (<I>see</I> paragraph C to this Appendix) who after applying the standards in Appendix B in this part may either:
</P>
<P>i. Deny the application in its entirety, if appropriate, and follow the procedures in Appendix D to this part, or
</P>
<P>ii. Refer the application with a recommendation that part or all of the application be granted to the DOHA for consideration and an initial determination under paragraph C to this Appendix. The determining official must send the entire record and prepare and submit a recommendation and administrative report (as explained in paragraphs D and E to this Appendix) with the application.
</P>
<HD1>B. Untimely Waiver Applications
</HD1>
<P>When the Component concerned determines that a waiver application was not received within three years after the erroneous payment was discovered, the Component must send the applicant a notice of untimely receipt.
</P>
<P>1. The notice must:
</P>
<P>i. Cite the applicable statute and explain the reasons for the finding of untimely receipt.
</P>
<P>ii. State that the application was not received within the statutory time limit and may not be considered unless that finding is reversed on appeal.
</P>
<P>iii. Explain that the applicant may submit a rebuttal to the finding of untimely receipt (as explained in paragraph B.2. to this Appendix.).
</P>
<P>iv. State that the statutory time limit may not be extended or waived.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant may submit a written rebuttal, signed by the applicant or the applicant's agent or attorney, to a notice of untimely receipt. The Component concerned must receive the rebuttal within 30 days of the date of the notice and may grant an extension of up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. The rebuttal should:
</P>
<P>i. Explain the points of, and reasons for, disagreement with the notice.
</P>
<P>ii. Have any documents referred to in the rebuttal attached.
</P>
<P>iii. Include or have attached statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the applicant or other persons in support of the rebuttal.
</P>
<P>3. If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within the time permitted, the notice of untimely receipt is a final action and the Component must return the application to the applicant with a notice that the finding is final and the application may not be considered.
</P>
<P>4. If the applicant submits a timely rebuttal, the Component must consider the rebuttal:
</P>
<P>i. If the Component finds that the application was received within the required time limit, the Component must reverse its finding of untimely receipt, notify the applicant in writing, and process the application on its merits.
</P>
<P>ii. If the Component does not reverse the finding of untimely receipt, the Component must forward the record, including the application, notice of untimely receipt, and rebuttal, to the appropriate determining official (<I>see</I> paragraph C.1. of Appendix D to this part) for an initial determination on the issue of untimely receipt. The Component does not need to investigate the merits of the application before forwarding the record.
</P>
<P>5. After making an initial determination on the issue of untimely receipt, the determining official must follow the procedures in Appendix D to this part. In addition, if the determining official finds that the application was timely, the official may:
</P>
<P>i. Return the application to the Component concerned for processing on the merits according to this part, or
</P>
<P>ii. Make a recommendation to the DOHA to grant all or part of the application as described in paragraph D to this Appendix.
</P>
<HD1>C. Initial Determinations
</HD1>
<P>The standards in Appendix B to this part must be applied when considering the merits of a waiver application. After making an initial determination, the DOHA must follow the procedures at paragraph F to this Appendix and may take the following actions regarding waiver applications referred under paragraph A.4.ii. or B.5.ii. to this Appendix:
</P>
<P>1. Make an initial determination denying a waiver application in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>2. Make an initial determination granting all or part of a waiver application.
</P>
<HD1>D. Recommendation to the DOHA To Grant All or Part of an Application
</HD1>
<P>Referrals to the DOHA must include the entire record along with the recommendation and administrative report described in paragraph E to this Appendix. The record and the report must be sent to: Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, Claims Division, P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, VA 22203-1995.
</P>
<HD1>E. Recommendation and Administrative Report
</HD1>
<P>The recommendation and administrative report required by paragraph D to this Appendix must describe the recommended action (and its reasons) and the following:
</P>
<P>1. The names and mailing addresses of each employee, member, or other person from whom collection is sought, or a statement that the person cannot reasonably be located.
</P>
<P>2. The aggregate amount of the debt, including an itemization showing the elements of the aggregate amount.
</P>
<P>3. The date the erroneous payment was discovered.
</P>
<P>4. The date the recipient was notified of the error and a statement of the erroneous amounts paid before and after receipt of such notice.
</P>
<P>5. A summary of the facts and circumstances describing how the erroneous payment occurred; the recipient's knowledge of the erroneous nature of the payment; the steps taken by the recipient to bring the matter to the attention of the appropriate official; and the Component's response, if any.
</P>
<P>6. A finding of whether there is any indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the applicant and the reasons for such a finding.
</P>
<P>7. Legible copies or the originals of supporting documents, such as leave and earnings statements, notifications of personnel actions, travel authorizations and vouchers, and military orders.
</P>
<P>8. Statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) of the applicant or other persons in support of the application.
</P>
<HD1>F. Processing After an Initial Determination
</HD1>
<P>After making an initial determination, the DOHA must:
</P>
<P>1. Notify the applicant if all or part of the waiver application is denied. The notification must explain:
</P>
<P>i. The determination and the reasons for it.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the determination if it is or becomes a final action (the finality of an initial determination is explained at paragraph G to this Appendix).
</P>
<P>iii. The appeal process (as explained in Appendix F to this part) if the determination does not grant the entire application or does not contain a finding of timely receipt.
</P>
<P>2. Notify the Component concerned when and if the determination is a final action. The notice must explain:
</P>
<P>i. The determination and its the reasons.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the determination.
</P>
<HD1>G. When an Initial Determination Is Final
</HD1>
<P>A final action is an initial determination that grants the entire waiver application or finds that the application was timely received. Also, an initial determination (including one of untimely receipt) is a final action if the determining official does not receive an appeal within 30 days of the date of the initial determination (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the determining official for good cause shown).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="32:2.1.1.1.59.0.1.6.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 284—Appeals 
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Who May Appeal
</HD1>
<P>An applicant may appeal if an initial determination denies all or part of a waiver application or finds that the application was not received by the Component concerned within the time limit required by statute.
</P>
<HD1>B. When and Where To Submit an Appeal
</HD1>
<P>1. When the determining official is not in the DOHA, the determining official must receive an applicant's appeal within 30 days of the date of the initial determination. The determining official may extend this period for up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. No appeal may be accepted after this time has expired. The appeal shall be processed under the procedures in paragraphs C through K to this Appendix.
</P>
<P>2. When the determining official is in the DOHA, the DOHA must receive an applicant's appeal within 30 days of the date of the initial determination. The DOHA may extend this period for up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. No appeal may be accepted after this time has expired. The appeal shall be considered to be a request for reconsideration and shall be processed under the procedures in paragraphs L through Q of this Appendix.
</P>
<HD1>C. Content of an Appeal
</HD1>
<P>No specific format for an appeal is required however it must be written and signed by the applicant, the applicant's authorized agent, or the applicant's attorney. In addition, it should:
</P>
<P>1. Provide the applicant's mailing address.
</P>
<P>2. Provide the applicant's telephone number.
</P>
<P>3. Provide the applicant's social security number when required by the Component concerned.
</P>
<P>4. Identify specific:
</P>
<P>i. Errors or omissions of material and relevant facts.
</P>
<P>ii. Legal or equitable (under the standards in Appendix B to this part) considerations that were overlooked or misapplied.
</P>
<P>iii. Conclusions that were arbitrary, capricious, or an abuse of discretion.
</P>
<P>5. Present evidence of the correct or additional facts alleged.
</P>
<P>6. Explain the reasons why the findings or conclusions should be reversed or modified.
</P>
<P>7. Have attached copies of documents referred to in the appeal.
</P>
<P>8. Include or have attached statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the applicant or other persons in support of the appeal.
</P>
<HD1>D. Determining Official's Review
</HD1>
<P>The determining official must review an applicant's appeal, and affirm, modify, or reverse the initial determination.
</P>
<P>1. When the determining official grants the entire waiver appeal or grants the application to the extent requested in the appeal after review of an appeal in a case involving a debt in the aggregate amount of $1,500 or less, the determining official must notify the applicant in writing and the Component concerned if the determining official is not an official of the Component concerned. The notice must explain the appropriate action to resolve the debt. This is a final action.
</P>
<P>2. When the determining official finds that the application was received within the time limit required by statute after review of an appeal concerning the untimely receipt of the waiver application, the determining official must notify the applicant in writing and take the appropriate action under paragraph B.5. of Appendix D to this part or paragraph B.5. of Appendix E to this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>3. In all other cases, the determining official must forward the appeal to the DOHA according to paragraph E. of this Appendix. The determining official must prepare a recommendation and administrative report (as explained in paragraph F to this Appendix) and send a copy of the administrative report to the applicant with a notice that the applicant may submit a rebuttal to the determining official (as explained in paragraph G to this Appendix).
</P>
<P>4. The determining official must date stamp the applicant's rebuttal on the date it is received.
</P>
<HD1>E. Submission of Appeal to the DOHA
</HD1>
<P>The determining official must send the entire record along with the recommendation and administrative report required by paragraph F to this Appendix no earlier than 31 days after the date of the administrative report or the day after the applicant's rebuttal period, as extended, expires, to the following address: Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, Claims Division, P.O. Box 3656, Arlington, Virginia 22203-1995.
</P>
<HD1>F. Recommendation and Administrative Report
</HD1>
<P>The recommendation and administrative report required by paragraph D.3. to this Appendix must describe the recommended action (and its reasons) and include:
</P>
<P>1. The names and mailing addresses of each employee, member, or other person from whom collection is sought, or a statement that the person cannot reasonably be located.
</P>
<P>2. The aggregate amount of the debt, including an itemization showing the elements of the aggregate amount.
</P>
<P>3. The date the erroneous payment was discovered.
</P>
<P>4. The date the recipient was notified of the error and a statement of the erroneous amounts paid before and after receipt of such notice.
</P>
<P>5. A summary of the facts and circumstances describing how the erroneous payment occurred; the recipient's knowledge of the erroneous nature of the payment; the steps taken by the recipient to bring the matter to the attention of the appropriate official; and the Component's response;
</P>
<P>6. A finding of whether there is any indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the applicant and the reasons for such a finding.
</P>
<P>7. Legible copies or the originals of supporting documents, such as leave and earnings statements, notifications of personnel actions, travel authorizations and vouchers, and military orders.
</P>
<P>8. Statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) of the applicant or other persons in support of the application.
</P>
<HD1>G. Applicant's Rebuttal
</HD1>
<P>An applicant may submit a written rebuttal, signed by the applicant or the applicant's agent or attorney, in response to the recommendation and administrative report. The rebuttal must be received by the determining official within 30 days of the date of the recommendation and administrative report. The determining official may grant an extension of up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. The rebuttal should include:
</P>
<P>1. An explanation of the points and reasons for disagreeing with the report.
</P>
<P>2. The file reference number.
</P>
<P>3. Any documents referred to in the rebuttal.
</P>
<P>4. Statements (that are attested to be true and correct to the best of the individual's knowledge and belief) by the applicant or other persons in support of the rebuttal.
</P>
<HD1>H. DOHA Appeal Decision
</HD1>
<P>Except as provided in paragraph P to this Appendix, the DOHA must base its decision on the written record, including the recommendation and administrative report and any rebuttal by the applicant. The written decision must:
</P>
<P>1. Affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the initial determination and decide the application on its merits or return the application to the Component concerned for investigation and processing for an initial determination on the merits according to Appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>2. State the amount of the waiver application that is granted and the amount denied and/or that the application was or was not received within the statutory time limit, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>3. Explain the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<HD1>I. Processing After the Appeal Decision
</HD1>
<P>After issuing an appeal decision, the DOHA must:
</P>
<P>1. Send the applicant the decision and notify the applicant of:
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the decision if it is or becomes a final action (as explained in paragraph J to this Appendix).
</P>
<P>ii. The procedures under this Appendix to request reconsideration (as explained in paragraphs K through M to this Appendix), if the decision does not grant the waiver application to the extent requested, or does not contain a finding of timely receipt, when applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Notify the Component concerned of the decision and the appropriate Component action to resolve the debt as a consequence of the decision.
</P>
<HD1>J. Finality of a DOHA Appeal Decision
</HD1>
<P>An appeal decision that grants the waiver application to the extent requested on appeal, or that finds that the application was timely received, when applicable, is a final action when issued. An appeal decision is a final action if the DOHA does not receive a request for reconsideration within 30 days of the date of the appeal decision (plus any extension of up to 30 additional days granted by the DOHA for good cause shown).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the case of a DOHA appeal decision issued before the effective date of this part that denied all or part of the waiver application, a request for reconsideration by the GC, DoD may be submitted within 60 days of the effective date of this part. The GC DoD shall consider such requests and affirm, modify, reverse, or remand the DOHA appeal decision. Requests for reconsideration by the GC, DoD received more than 60 days after the effective date of this part shall not be accepted. Requests must be submitted to the address in paragraph E.5. to this appendix. The provisions of paragraph M to this appendix apply.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>K. Who May Request Reconsideration
</HD1>
<P>An applicant may request reconsideration of a DOHA appeal decision.
</P>
<HD1>L. When and Where To Submit a Request for Reconsideration
</HD1>
<P>The DOHA must receive a request for reconsideration within 30 days of the date of the appeal decision. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The DOHA may extend this period for up to an additional 30 days for good cause shown. No request for reconsideration may be accepted after this time has expired. A request for reconsideration must be sent to the DOHA at the address in paragraph E to this Appendix.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Request for reconsideration by the GC, DoD must be received by the DOHA within 60 days of the effective date of this Instruction as explained in paragraph J of this appendix for appeal decisions issued before the effective date of this Instruction.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>M. Content of a Request for Reconsideration
</HD1>
<P>The requirements of paragraph C to this Appendix for the content of an appeal apply to a request for reconsideration.
</P>
<HD1>N. DOHA's Review of a Request for Reconsideration
</HD1>
<P>No earlier than 31 days after the date of the appeal decision or the day after the last period for submitting a request, as extended, expires, the DOHA must:
</P>
<P>1. Consider a request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>2. Affirm, modify, or reverse the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>3. Prepare a response that explains the reasons for the finding.
</P>
<P>4. Send the response to the applicant and the Component concerned and notify them of the appropriate action on the debt.
</P>
<HD1>O. Finality of a DOHA Reconsideration Decision
</HD1>
<P>The response is a final action. It is precedent in the consideration of all waiver applications covered by this part unless otherwise stated in the document.
</P>
<HD1>P. Consideration of Appeals and Requests for Reconsideration
</HD1>
<P>When considering an appeal or request for reconsideration, the DOHA may:
</P>
<P>1. Take administrative notice of matters that are generally known or are capable of confirmation by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned.
</P>
<P>2. Remand a matter to the Component with instructions to provide additional information.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="N" NODE="32:2.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER N—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT PROGRAM 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="286" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 286—DOD FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT (FOIA) PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the rules that the public follows in requesting information from the Department of Defense (DoD) in accordance with the FOIA, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552, and how those requests will be processed by the DoD. These rules should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB Guidelines”). Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed in accordance with 32 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 310. Additionally, the Office of the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Privacy, Civil Liberties, and Transparency (OATSD(PCLT)) maintains a DoD FOIA Handbook for the public to use in obtaining information from the DoD. This handbook contains information about specific procedures particular to the DoD with respect to the public requesting DoD records. This handbook includes descriptions of DoD Components and the types of records maintained by different DoD Components. It is available at <I>http://open.defense.gov/Transparency/FOIA/FOIAHandbook.aspx.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 84237, Dec. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—FOIA Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.3   General information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD has a decentralized system for responding to FOIA requests, with each DoD Component designating at least one FOIA Requester Service Center (RSC) to process records from that component. All DoD RSCs have the capability to receive requests electronically either through email or a web portal. To make a request for records, a requester should write directly to the DoD Component that maintains the records being sought. A request will receive the quickest possible response if it is addressed to the RSC of the DoD Component that maintains the records sought. Addresses and contact information for the RSCs are available at <I>https://www.foia.gov.</I> This Web site has the contact information for the following DoD Components: The OSD and the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, Department of the Army, Department of the Navy, Department of the Air Force, Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals, Defense Commissary Agency, Defense Contract Audit Agency, Defense Contract Management Agency, Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Defense Health Agency, Defense Information Systems Agency, Defense Intelligence Agency, Defense Logistics Agency, Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency, Defense Technical Information Center, Defense Threat Reduction Agency, Joint Personnel Recovery Agency, DoD Education Activity, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, National Guard Bureau, National Reconnaissance Office, National Security Agency/Central Security Service, Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, United States Africa Command, United States Central Command, United States Cyber Command, United States European Command, United States Northern Command, United States Indo-Pacific Command, United States Southern Command, United States Space Command, and United States Space Force, United States Special Operations Command, United States Strategic Command, and United States Transportation Command.
</P>
<P>(b) The OSD/Joint Staff FOIA RSC also processes FOIA requests for several DoD agencies and field activities, as well as other DoD organizations. A list of these agencies, field activities, and DoD organizations is available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/FOID/Submit-Request/.</I>


</P>
<P>(c) A requester who is making a request for records about himself or herself, regardless of whether the records are in a Privacy Act system of records, must comply with the verification of identity requirements as determined by the DoD Component in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.3(c) through (e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 84238, Dec. 5, 2023; 89 FR 5093, Jan. 26, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.4   FOIA Public Liaisons and the Office of Government Information Services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each DoD Component has at least one FOIA Public Liaison. FOIA Public Liaisons are responsible for working with requesters that have any concerns about the service received from a FOIA RSC, reducing delays in the processing of FOIA requests, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes. Contact information for DoD Component FOIA Public Liaisons is available at <I>https://www.foia.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Engaging in dispute resolution services provided by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS). These dispute resolution processes are voluntary processes. If a DoD Component agrees to participate in dispute resolution services provided by the OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 84238, Dec. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.5   Description of records sought.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought and provide sufficient detail to enable personnel to locate those records with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may assist personnel in identifying the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, case number, file designation, or reference number. Before submitting their requests, requesters may contact the DoD Component's FOIA RSC or FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they are seeking and to receive assistance in describing the records. If after receiving a request the DoD Component determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, the DoD Component shall inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. Requesters who are attempting to reformulate or modify such a request may discuss their request with the DoD Component's FOIA contact or FOIA Public Liaison. Requesters are encouraged to make every effort to reasonably describe the requested records in order to avoid any delays in the processing of their requests.
</P>
<P>(b) Requesters may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the requested records. DoD Components will accommodate the request if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(c) Requesters must provide contact information, such as a telephone number, email address, and/or mailing address, to assist the DoD Component in communicating and providing released records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.6   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each DoD Component shall preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this part, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 4.2 of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Records shall not be disposed of or destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—FOIA Request Processing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.7   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The DoD Component receiving a FOIA request for a record that it maintains is responsible for making a determination on the request and responding to the FOIA requester. In determining which records are responsive to a request, a DoD Component ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date that it begins its search. If any other date is used, the DoD Component shall inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to deny requests.</I> DoD Components will designate one or more Initial Denial Authorities (IDA) with the authority to deny any requests for records that are maintained by that agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Re-routing of misdirected requests.</I> DoD Components receiving a misdirected FOIA request for records clearly originating with another DoD Component (<I>e.g.</I> the Air Force receives a FOIA request for a Navy contract) will route the FOIA request to the appropriate DoD Component and inform them of the date the FOIA request was initially received. Additionally, it will advise the FOIA requester of the routing of the request. This routing requirement only applies to those FOIA requests directed to a DoD Component that seek documents for which the DoD is responsible. If it is known that responsibility for the requested records rests with a non-DoD Federal agency (<I>e.g.,</I> Department of State), then the DoD Component need only advise the FOIA requester to submit the FOIA request to the proper Federal agency. DoD Components will not route misdirected FOIA requests to a Defense Criminal Investigation Organization or Intelligence Community component without first contacting the other component or agency for guidance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located in response to a request, the DoD Component may determine that another DoD Component or Federal agency also should determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the DoD Component shall proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originating with a DoD Component that is initially processing a request contain information of interest to another DoD Component or other Federal agency, the DoD Component initially processing the request should typically consult with all interested DoD Components or other Federal agencies prior to making a release determination. The DoD Component initially processing the request, under these circumstances, will ultimately respond to the requester and release any responsive material. The consulted DoD Component will notify the sending DoD Component or other Federal agency when the consultation is received and the consultation tracking number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When the DoD Component initially processing the request believes that a different DoD Component or other Federal agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the DoD Component typically should refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record will be presumed to be best able to make the disclosure determination. Under these circumstances, the DoD Component or other Federal agency receiving the referral will ultimately make a release determination on the records and respond to the requester.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a DoD Component refers a record to another DoD Component or Federal agency, it will document the referral, refer a copy of the referred record, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name and FOIA address of the DoD Component or Federal agency to which the record was referred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the DoD Component or agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. Under these circumstances, the consultation process is the appropriate means for coordination. See § 286.7(d)(1). For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its files records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party was not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if a DoD Component locates within its files material originating with an Intelligence Community agency, and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could cause national security harms. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the DoD Component that received the request should coordinate with the originating DoD Component or agency to seek its views the disclosure of the record. The release determination for the record should then be conveyed to the requester by the DoD Component that originally received the request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the DoD Component will be processed according to the date that the FOIA request was initially received by a Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> DoD Components may establish written agreements with other DoD Components or other Federal agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records, providing these agreements do not conflict with this rule, or another law, rule, or regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5197, Feb. 6, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.8   Timing of responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> DoD Components ordinarily will respond to requests on a first-in/first-out basis according to their order of receipt. In instances involving misdirected requests that are re-routed pursuant to § 286.7(c), the response time will commence on the date that the request is received by the appropriate DoD Component's FOIA RSC, but in any event not later than 10 working days after the request is first received by any DoD Component's FOIA RSC that is designated to receive requests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> All DoD Components must designate a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing in accordance with the standards set forth in the FOIA and paragraph (e) of this section. DoD Components may also designate additional processing tracks that distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors a DoD Component may consider are the number of records requested, the number of pages involved in processing the request and the need for consultations or referrals. DoD Components should advise requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, shall offer the requesters an opportunity to narrow or modify their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> Whenever the statutory time limit for processing a request cannot be met because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and the DoD Component extends the time limit on that basis, the DoD Component must, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which processing of the request can be expected to be completed. See 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B). Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the DoD Component shall, in accordance with the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. Furthermore, the requester will be advised that the DoD Component FOIA Public Liaison is available for this purpose and of their right to seek dispute resolution services from OGIS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> For the purposes of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, DoD Components may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. DoD Components will not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) The FOIA establishes two reasons for expediting the processing of initial FOIA requests: Compelling need and other cases determined by the agency. See 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(E). Administrative appeals may be expedited for the same reasons. The DoD Components must make expedited processing determinations within 10 calendar days after receipt of a request that meets the criterion of reasonably describing the requested records in § 286.5(a). Once the DoD Component decides to grant expedited processing, the request is processed as soon as practicable. Adverse actions by DoD Components on requests for expedited processing, or a failure to respond to those requests in a timely manner, are subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compelling need.</I> Expedited processing is granted to a requester upon a specific request for such and when the requester demonstrates a compelling need for the information. A compelling need exists when:
</P>
<P>(A) The failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual, or
</P>
<P>(B) The information is urgently needed by an individual primarily engaged in disseminating information in order to inform the public concerning actual or alleged government activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>DoD additional expedited processing circumstances.</I> If the DoD Component decides to expedite the request for either of the following reasons, the request will be processed in the expedited track behind those requests qualifying for expedited processing as a compelling need.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Imminent loss of due process rights.</I> Expedited processing is granted to a requester if loss of substantial due process rights is imminent.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Humanitarian need.</I> Expedited processing is granted when the failure to obtain the requested information on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to harm substantial humanitarian interests.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. Requests for expedited processing must be submitted to the DoD Component that maintains the records. When making a request for expedited processing of an administrative appeal, the request should be submitted to the DoD Component's appellate authority.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For requesters seeking expedited processing under paragraph (e)(1)(i)(B) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, and not an incidental or secondary activity, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. Requests for expedited processing under paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(A) of this section must include a description of the due process rights that would be lost. This statement must be with the request for expedited processing for it to be considered and responded to within the 10 calendar days required for decisions on expedited access.
</P>
<P>(4) A DoD Component shall notify the requester within 10 calendar days of the receipt of a request for expedited processing of its decision whether to grant or deny expedited processing. If expedited processing is granted, the request shall be placed in the processing track for expedited requests, and processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision shall be acted upon expeditiously.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.9   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> DoD FOIA RSCs will, to the extent practicable, communicate with requesters having access to the Internet using electronic means, such as email or web portal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgments of requests.</I> DoD Components will acknowledge requests in writing and assign individualized tracking numbers. DoD Components will include these tracking numbers and any tracking numbers used by FOIA requesters in all correspondence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated dates of completion and interim responses.</I> Upon request, the DoD Component will provide an estimated date by which the DoD Component expects to provide a response to the requester. If a request involves a voluminous amount of material or searches in multiple locations, the DoD Component may provide interim responses, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grants of requests.</I> Once a DoD Component makes a determination to grant a request in full or in part, it shall notify the requester in writing. The DoD Component also shall inform the requester:
</P>
<P>(1) Of any fees charged under § 286.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) That they may contact the DoD Component FOIA Public Liaison for further assistance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse determinations of requests.</I> A DoD Component making an adverse determination denying a request in any respect will notify the requester of that determination in writing. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of denial.</I> The denial will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the IDA;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied and a statement detailing the application of any foreseeable harm in applying FOIA exemptions by the DoD Component in denying the request;


</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) For any information denied under Exemption 1, the applicable section or sections of the appropriate Executive order on classification that establishing continued classification of the information;
</P>
<P>(5) For any information denied under Exemption 3, the specific statute relied upon to deny the information along with a short description of the statute;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the requester must appeal no later than 90 days after the date of the denial and along with instructions on how to appeal to the DoD Component appellate authority. The instructions will include the appellate authority's duty title, the mailing address for the appeal, and instructions on how the requester can appeal electronically; and
</P>
<P>(7) A statement advising the requester of their right to seek dispute resolution services from the DoD Component FOIA Public Liaison or OGIS.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Records disclosed in part will be marked clearly to show the amount of information deleted and the exemption under which the deletion was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information deleted also will be indicated on the record, if technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Use of record exclusions.</I> (1) In the event that a DoD Component identifies records that may be subject to exclusion from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), the DoD Component should confer with the OATSD(PCLT), which will confer with the Department of Justice, Office of Information Policy (OIP), to obtain approval to apply the exclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) A DoD Component invoking an exclusion shall maintain an administrative record of the process of invocation and approval of the exclusion by OIP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 84238, Dec. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.10   Confidential Commercial Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by the DoD Component from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations shall expire 10 years after the date of submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> (1) The DoD Component shall promptly provide written notice to the submitter of confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if the DoD Component determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The DoD Component has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice shall include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, the DoD Component may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The DoD Component determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, the agency shall give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) The DoD Component shall specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must respond to the notice referenced in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter has any objections to disclosure, it should provide the DoD Component a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 as basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential.
</P>
<P>(3) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice shall be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The DoD Component is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this section may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> The DoD Component shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever the DoD Component decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, the DoD Component shall provide the submitter written notice, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as the DoD Component intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which shall be a reasonable time after the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the DoD Component shall promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> The DoD Component shall notify a requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information over the submitter's objections; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.11   Processing of appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for making an appeal.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determinations to the DoD Component's appellate authority. Examples of adverse determinations are provided in § 286.9(e). Appeals can be submitted by mail or online in accordance with the requirements provided in the DoD Component's final response. Requesters that are not provided with appeal requirements should contact the FOIA RSC processing their request to obtain the requirements. The requester must make the appeal in writing and to be considered timely it must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the date of the response. The appeal should clearly identify the determination that is being appealed and the assigned request number. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both the appeal letter and envelope, or subject line of the electronic transmission, “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudication of appeals.</I> (1) The Heads of the following DoD Components will serve as, or appoint an appropriate official to serve as, the component's appellate authority: Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals, Department of the Army, Department of the Navy, Department of the Air Force, Defense Commissary Agency, Defense Contract Audit Agency, Defense Contract Management Agency, Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Defense Health Agency, Defense Information Systems Agency, Defense Intelligence Agency, Defense Logistics Agency, Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency, Defense Threat Reduction Agency, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, National Reconnaissance Office, National Security Agency/Central Security Service, and the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Privacy, Civil Liberties, and Transparency (ATSD(PCLT)) will serve as the appellate authority for the OSD and the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, Defense Technical Information Center, Joint Personnel Recovery Agency, DoD Education Activity, National Guard Bureau, United States Africa Command, United States Central Command, United States Cyber Command, United States European Command, United States Northern Command, United States Indo-Pacific Command, United States Southern Command, United States Special Operations Command, United States Space Command, United States Strategic Command, and United States Transportation Command. The ATSD(PCLT) may delegate this authority to an appropriate official of the ATSD(PCLT) staff.
</P>
<P>(3) An appeal will normally not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation. This decision should be made after consultation with the Department of Justice attorney responsible for the litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> A decision on an appeal must be made in writing and signed by the appellate authority. A decision that upholds a DoD Component's determination in whole or in part will contain a statement that identifies the reasons for the affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision will provide the requester with notification of the statutory right to file a lawsuit. If a decision is remanded or modified on appeal, the requester will be notified of that determination in writing. The DoD Component will thereafter further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination and respond directly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When an appeal is required.</I> A requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal before seeking review by a court of a DoD Component's adverse determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1197, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 84238, Dec. 5, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.12   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> DoD Components shall charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with the OMB Guidelines. For purposes of assessing fees, the FOIA establishes three categories of requesters: Commercial; non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media; and all other requesters. Different fees are assessed depending on the category. Requesters may seek a fee waiver. DoD Components shall consider such requests in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (m) of this section. In order to resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, a DoD Component may contact a requester for additional information. DoD Components shall ensure that searches, review, and duplication are conducted in the most efficient and least expensive manner. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request</I> is a request that asks for information for a use or purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. A DoD Component's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. DoD Components will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct costs</I> are those expenses that a DoD Component incurs in searching for and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing records in order to respond to a FOIA request. DoD direct costs for human activity are at Table 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—FOIA Hourly Processing Fees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Grade
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hourly rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Administrative</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E-9/GS-8 and below</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Professional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contractor/O-1 to O-6/W-1 to W-5/GS-9 to GS-15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Executive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">O-7 and above and Senior Executive Service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Duplication</I> is reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. DoD Components may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. DoD Components will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the Internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester shall not be considered to be for a commercial use. “Freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity shall be considered as a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected; however, DoD Components shall also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. DoD Components will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Review</I> is the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 286.11, but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Search</I> is the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. Search time includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee category.</I> Fees are assessed based on the category determined to be appropriate for the requester's category. The fee category of a requester that is an attorney or any other agent representing a client is determined by the fee category of the attorney's client. If the fee category of the client is not clear, then the DoD Components should ask the requester for clarification. If an attorney does not provide enough information to determine the fee category of the client, then the DoD Component may assign commercial fee category to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, DoD Components will charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (m) of this section. Because the fee amounts provided below already account for the direct costs associated with a given fee type, DoD Components should not add any additional costs to charges calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search.</I> (i) Requests made by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media are not subject to search fees. Search fees shall be charged for all other requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (e) of this section. DoD Components may properly charge for time spent searching even if they do not locate any responsive records or if they determine that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by personnel searching for requested records, including electronic searches that do not require new programming, the fees shall be charged as listed at Table 1.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesters will be charged the direct costs associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. These costs will not include the time it takes to run the program and extract data. Requesters will be notified of the costs associated with creating such a program and must agree to pay the associated costs before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by a DoD Component at a Federal records center operated by NARA, additional costs will be charged in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> Duplication fees will be charged to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (e) of this section. DoD Components will honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where it is readily reproducible by the DoD Component in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, DoD Components will provide one copy per request at $.15 per page. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, or other forms of duplication, DoD Components will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time in accordance with Table 1. DoD Components will charge record reproduction fees at the hourly rates in Table 1 if the creation of the electronic copies requires unique security procedures incurring considerable operator time, costing more than printing paper copies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> Review fees will be charged to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees shall be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, <I>i.e.,</I> the review conducted by a DoD Component to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with a DoD Component's re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees will be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When a DoD Component determines that a requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, no search fees will be charged.
</P>
<P>(2) If a DoD Component fails to comply with the time limits in which to respond to a request it may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees except as described in (e)(2)(i) through (iii).
</P>
<P>(i) When a DoD Component determines that unusual circumstances, as those terms are defined by the FOIA, apply to the processing of the request, and provides timely written notice to the requester, then the DoD Component is granted an additional ten days until the fee restriction in paragraph (e)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a DoD Component determines that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, provides timely written notice to the requester, and has discussed with the requester (or made three good faith attempts to do so) on how the requester can effectively limit the scope of the request, the fee restriction in paragraph (e)(2) of this section does not apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, DoD Components shall provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When a DoD Component determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the DoD Component shall notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the DoD Component will advise the requester accordingly. If the requester is a noncommercial use requester, the notice shall specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) When a requester is notified that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a noncommercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. DoD Components are not required to accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the DoD Component estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, the DoD Component will toll the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The DoD Component will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) DoD Components will make available their FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA professional to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Charges for other services.</I> Although not required to provide special services, if a DoD Component chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service shall be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Charging interest.</I> DoD Components may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges shall be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the DoD Component. DoD Components shall follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When a DoD Component reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the DoD Component may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. DoD Components may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, DoD Components will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters shall not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraphs (k)(2) or (3) of this section, a DoD Component shall not require the requester to make an advance payment before work is commenced or continued on a request.
</P>
<P>(2) When a DoD Component determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, it may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. A DoD Component may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when it receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to any agency within 30 calendar days of the billing date, a DoD Component may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and the DoD Component may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before the DoD Component begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where a DoD Component has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which a DoD Component requires advance payment, the request shall not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the DoD Component's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, the DoD Component shall inform the requester of the contact information for that program.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application specifically demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) A DoD Component will furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that the following three factors are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the requested information would be likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public shall be considered. DoD Components will presume that a representative of the news media satisfies this criterion.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, DoD Components shall consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) DoD Components will identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters will be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is an identified commercial interest, the DoD Component will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (m)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. DoD Components ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied the factors in paragraphs (m)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return shall not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the DoD Component and should address the criteria referenced in paragraphs (l)(1) and (2) of this section. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester is required to pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Tracking of costs.</I> DoD Components will track processing costs for each FOIA request on DD Form 2086, “Record of Freedom of Information (FOI) Processing Cost,” or by using DD Form 2086-2, “Freedom of Information (FOI) Consultation and Request Summary”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.60.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286.13   Fees for technical data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Technical data shall be released to a requester after all reasonable costs of search, review, and duplication are paid by the requester as authorized by 10 U.S.C. 2328.
</P>
<P>(b) Technical data means information (regardless of the form or method of the recording) of a scientific or technical nature (including computer software documentation) relating to the supplies procured by the DoD. This includes information in the form of blueprints, drawings, photographs, plans, instructions or documentation. This term does not include computer software or financial, administrative, cost or pricing, or management data or other information incidental to contract administration. Examples of technical data include research and engineering data, engineering drawings, and associated lists, specifications, standards, process sheets, manuals, technical reports, catalog item identification, and computer software documentation.
</P>
<P>(1) All reasonable costs as used in this sense are the full costs to the Federal Government of rendering the service, or fair market value of the service, whichever is higher. Fair market value shall be determined in accordance with commercial rates in the local geographical area. In the absence of a known market value, charges shall be based on recovery of full costs to the Federal Government. The full costs shall include all direct and indirect costs to conduct the search and to duplicate the records responsive to the request. Costs will be tracked on DD Form 2086-1, “Record of Freedom of Information (FOI) Processing Cost for Technical Data” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/eforms/dd2086-1.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) The DoD Components will retain the fees received by the release of technical data under the FOIA, and will merge it with and make it available for the same purpose and the same time period as the appropriation from which the costs were incurred in complying with the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(3) Table 2 will be used to determine document production fees.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—FOIA Document Production Fees—Technical Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cost
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aerial Photographs, Specifications, Permits, Charts, Diagrams, Technical Drawings, Blueprints, and Other Technical Documents (per page or copy)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Engineering Data:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Aperture Cards, per card</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Silver Duplicate Negative</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">When Keypunched and Verified</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Diazo Duplicate Negative</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">When Keypunched and Verified</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">35 mm Roll Film, per frame</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">16 mm Roll Film, per frame</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Paper Prints (engineering drawings), each (per square foot)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Paper Reprints of Microfilm Images, each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Technical Data Records:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Paper Copy (standard size paper up to 8
<fr>1/2</fr> x 14, photocopier or printer)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">CD/DVD</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Microfiche Produced, each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Certification and Validation with Seal, each document</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The DoD Components will waive the payment of costs required in paragraph (a) of this section that are greater than the costs that would be required for release of this same information under § 286.12 if:
</P>
<P>(1) The FOIA request is made by a U.S. citizen or a U.S. corporation, and such citizen or corporation certifies that the technical data requested is required to enable it to submit an offer, or to determine whether it is capable of submitting an offer, to provide the product to which the technical data relates to the United States or a U.S. contractor. However, the DoD Components may require the citizen or corporation to pay a deposit in an amount equal to but not more than the cost of complying with the FOIA request, which will be refunded upon submission of an offer by the citizen or corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) The release of technical data is requested in order to comply with the terms of an international agreement; or
</P>
<P>(3) The DoD Component determines, in accordance with paragraph (m) of § 286.12, that such a waiver is in the interest of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="286h" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.61" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 286h—RELEASE OF ACQUISITION-RELATED INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 101-189.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 28614, July 12, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 286h.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.61.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286h.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth Department of Defense (DoD) policy for the release of acquisition-related information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286h.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.61.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286h.2   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff and Joint Staff (CJCS), the Unified and Specified Commands, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) This part is issued pursuant to section 822 of Public Law 101-189, which requires the Department of Defense to prescribe a single uniform regulation for dissemination of, and access to, acquisition information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286h.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.61.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286h.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> It is the Department of Defense's policy to make the maximum amount of acquisition-related information available to the public, and to respond promptly to specific requests from the public for such information, except for the information identified in paragraph (b) of this section, for which release is restricted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information for which release is restricted.</I> The information identified below may be released only as set forth herein.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Release subject to statutory restrictions.</I> This information may be released only in accordance with the applicable statutory requirements. Once the statutory requirements have been satisfied, the information may be released unless it falls within one of the categories described in the following paragraphs, in which case the policies governing release of information within those categories shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classified information.</I> (i) Any information or material, regardless of its physical form or characteristics, that is owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the United States Government, and which, for national security purposes, must be protected against unauthorized disclosure and is so designated or marked with the appropriate classification.
</P>
<P>(ii) Release, access, and dissemination of classified information shall be made through existing security channels in accordance with DoD 5220.22-R;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> DoD 5220.22-M;
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and DoD 5200.1-R, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> which are implementing publications for safeguarding classified information release, access, and dissemination to United States and foreign concerns.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the National Technical Information Services, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained, at cost, from the Government Printing Office, ATTN: Superintendent of Documents, Washington, DC 20402.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 286h.3(b)(2)(ii).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Contractor bid or proposal information.</I> (i) This is information prepared by or on behalf of an offeror and submitted to the Government as a part of or in support of the offeror's bid or proposal to enter into a contract with the Government, the disclosure of which would place the offeror at a competitive disadvantage or jeopardize the integrity or the successful completion of the procurement. Contractor bid or proposal information includes cost or pricing data, profit data, overhead and direct labor rates, and manufacturing processes and techniques. Contractor bid or proposal information does not include information that is available to the public.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) <I>Sealed bids.</I> (<I>1</I>) Prior to bid opening, no release or disclosure of contractor bid information shall be made to anyone other than those who are involved in the evaluation of the bids or to other individuals authorized by the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After contract award, contractor bid information may be released or disclosed by those authorized by the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee, to make such release or disclosure, if the information to be released or disclosed is not subject to a restrictive legend authorized by Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.215-12 or release is not otherwise restricted by law.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Negotiated procurements.</I> Prior to contract award, no release or disclosure of contractor proposal information shall be made to anyone other than those who are involved in the evaluation of the proposals or the source selection or to other individuals authorized by the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee. DoD Components shall adopt procedures in accordance with FAR 15.413 to protect against release or disclosure of contractor proposal information. After contract award, contractor proposal information may be released or disclosed by those authorized by the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee, to make such release or disclosure, if the information to be released or disclosed is not subject to a restrictive legend authorized by FAR 15.509 or FAR 52.215-12 or release is not otherwise restricted by law.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Source selection information.</I> (i) This is information prepared or developed for use by the Government in connection with the selection of a bid or proposal for the award of a contract. Only the following information, including copies or extracts thereof, is source selection information:
</P>
<P>(A) Bid prices submitted in response to a Government solicitation for sealed bids or lists of such bid prices (applicable prior to bid opening only);
</P>
<P>(B) Proposed costs or prices submitted in response to a Government solicitation prior to award of the contract, a list of proposed costs or prices;
</P>
<P>(C) Source selection plans;
</P>
<P>(D) Technical evaluation plans;
</P>
<P>(E) Technical evaluations of competing proposals;
</P>
<P>(F) Cost or price evaluations of competing proposals;
</P>
<P>(G) Competitive range determinations;
</P>
<P>(H) Rankings of competitors;
</P>
<P>(I) The reports and evaluations or source selection boards, advisory councils, or the source selection authority (SSA); and
</P>
<P>(J) Any other information which:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If disclosed, would give an offeror a competitive advantage or jeopardize the integrity or successful completion of the procurement; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is marked with the legend “Source Selection Information.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Release of or access to source selection information (SSI)—(A) Access to SSI.</I> The SSA (including the contracting officer when the contracting officer is the SSA) shall restrict access to source selection information to only those Government employees directly involved in the source selection process or to those individuals who have been authorized by the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee, to have access to such information. If the contracting officer or the SSA have not been appointed, the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee, shall assure access to such information is properly restricted. Employees supervising or managing employees directly involved in the source selection process are not themselves by virtue of their positions directly involved in the source selection process.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Release of SSI</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Prior to contract award.</I> Source selection information shall not be released prior to contract award unless the Head of the DoD Component, or his or her designee, determines that release is in the public interest and would not jeopardize the integrity or successful completion of the procurement. The information to be released shall only be released by the contracting officer. The contracting officer shall make release in a manner that does not provide any potential offeror with a competitive advantage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>After contract award.</I> The need to protect source selection information generally ends with contract award. The contracting officer may release, or authorize the release of, any source selection information related to that contract award except: Source selection information specifically developed or prepared for use with more than one solicitation when there is a continuing need to protect that information; unless otherwise permitted by law, source selection information containing contractor data or extracts thereof which are protected by law; information which would reveal the relative merits or technical standing of the competitors or the evaluation scoring; and any pre-decisional or other information not subject to release under the Freedom of Information Act. Debriefings to unsuccessful offerors shall be conducted in accordance with FAR 15.1003 and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 215.1003(a).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Planning, programming, and budgetary information.</I> (i) Planning, Programming, and Budgeting System (PPBS) documents and supporting data bases are not to be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DoD) and other governmental agencies directly involved in the defense planning and resource allocation process (e.g., the Office of Management and Budget). PPBS papers and associated data set forth the details of proposed programs and plans. Access to this material by those not directly involved in the PPBS process undermines the confidentiality necessary for the Secretary and Deputy Secretary to obtain candid advice on the content of the defense program. Also, access to PPBS information by private firms seeking contracts with the Department may pose ethical, even criminal, problems for those involved and reduce effective competition in the contract awards process.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Requests for exceptions to this limitation may be granted on a case-by-case basis to meet compelling needs, after coordination with the Office of General Counsel, by the Head of the OSD office responsible for the PPBS phase to which the document or data base pertains; the Under Secretary of Defense (Policy) for the planning phase; the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Program Analysis and Evaluation) for programming; and the Comptroller, DoD for budgeting. A list of the current major documents and data bases for each PPBS phase is in paragraph (B)(5)(11)(C) of this section; all other PPBS materials are also controlled under this policy.
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure of PPBS information to Congress and the General Accounting Office (GAO) is covered by statute and other procedures.
</P>
<P>(C) Major PPBS Documents and Data Bases by Phase.
</P>
<HD3>Planning Phase
</HD3>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Defense Planning Guidance.
</P>
<HD3>Programming Phase
</HD3>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fiscal Guidance (when separate from Defense Planning Guidance);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Program Objective Memoranda (POM);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) POM Defense Program (formerly FYDP) documents (POM Defense Program, Procurement Annex, RDT&amp;E Annex);
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Program Review Proposals;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Issue Papers (aka, Major Issue Papers, Tier II Issue Papers, Cover Briefs);
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Proposed Military Department Program Reductions (or Program Offsets);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Tentative Issue Decision Memoranda;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Program Decision Memoranda;
</P>
<HD3>Budgeting Phase
</HD3>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Defense Program (formerly FYDP) documents for September and President's Budget Estimate submissions including Defense Program Procurement, RDT&amp;E and Construction Annexes;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Classified P-1, R-1 and C-1;
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Program Budget Decisions/Defense Management Review Decisions;
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Reports Generated by the Automated Budget Review System (BRS);
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) DD Form 1414 Base for Programming;
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) DD Form 1416 Report of Programs;
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) Contract Award Reports;
</P>
<P>(<I>17</I>) Congressional Data Sheets.
</P>
<P>(iii) Contractor requests for information contained in the National Military Strategy Document (including annexes) and the Chairman's Program Assessment Document (including annexes and comments) shall be forwarded to the CJCS who shall determine on a case-by-case basis what information, if any, is releasable to the contractor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Documents that disclose the Government's negotiating position.</I> Documents that would disclose the government's negotiating position (such as pre-negotiation business clearances and positions and government cost estimates) or would adversely impact the government negotiating strategy shall not be released.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Drafts and working papers.</I> Drafts and working papers that would otherwise be releasable under paragraph 286h.3(a) shall not be released where their release would inhibit the development of agency positions, jeopardize the free exchange of information that is part of the deliberative process, or compromise the decision-making process.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Freedom of Information Act.</I> Where a request for information, the release of which is restricted under paragraph 286h.3(b) is made under the Freedom of Information Act, the request shall be forwarded to the appropriate official for disposition in accordance with DoD 5400.7-R. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Requests for contractor bid or proposal information pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act shall be subject to subparagraph 5-207 a. of DoD 5400.7-R, which requires notice to a non-United States Government source of a record.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 286h.3(b)(2)(ii).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 286h.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.2.61.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 286h.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition) shall be responsible for establishing uniform policies and procedures for the release of acquisition-related information.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary of Defense (Policy), Assistant Secretary of Defense (Program Analysis and Evaluation) and Comptroller, DoD are responsible for adjudicating requests for access to Planning, Programming and Budgeting information pertaining to their respective phases of the PPB system.
</P>
<P>(c) The Head of each DoD Component shall assure that procedures for the release of acquisition-related information are consistent with the policy contained in this Directive and shall not impose any additional restrictions on release of such information. These procedures shall specifically identify the individuals authorized to release and transmit acquisition-related information.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="O" NODE="32:2.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER O—PRIVACY PROGRAM 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="310" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 310—PROTECTION OF PRIVACY AND ACCESS TO AND AMENDEMENT OF INDIVIDUAL RECORDS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the rules that the Department of Defense (Department or DoD) follows under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. These rules should be read together with the Privacy Act. The rules in this part apply to all records in Privacy Act systems of records maintained by the Department. They describe the procedures by which individuals may request access to records about themselves, request amendment or correction of those records, and request an accounting of disclosures of those records by the Department to other entities outside the Department. In addition, the Department processes all Privacy Act requests for access to records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, following the rules contained in 32 CFR part 286, giving individuals the benefit of both statutes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>DoD Components</I> means the Office the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence, as defined in the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use or disseminate, as defined in the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency, including, but not limited to, his education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains his name, or the identifying number, or symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph, as defined in the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Request for access</I> to a record means a request made under subsection (d)(1) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Request for amendment or correction</I> of a record means a request made under subsection (d)(2) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Request for an accounting</I> means a request made under subsection (c)(3) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I> means an individual who makes a request for access, a request for amendment or correction, or a request for an accounting under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I> means any group of records under the control of the Department of Defense from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some other identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual as defined in the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requests for Access and Amendment to Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.3   Requesting access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may request access to records in a system of records or request to be notified if a system of records contains records pertaining to them by writing to or appearing in person before the DoD Component that maintains the record. Written requests should be sent to the address listed in the record access procedures of the system of records notice (SORN) containing the record requested. If the name of the system of records or the address for the DoD Component that has the record is unknown, the individual may look up the SORN or the contact information for the DoD Component Privacy Office at <I>http://www.defense.gov/privacy.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) For access to the Official Personnel Files of federal civilian employees, which are maintained in the custody of the Department under the authority of the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) SORN OPM/GOVT-1, individuals must contact their DoD Component FOIA Requester Service Center. Contact information for DoD Component FOIA Requester Service Centers can be found at <I>https://www.foia.gov/report-makerequest.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Requesters should provide their full name, current address and email address, and when requested in the access procedures of the applicable SORN, date of birth, place of birth, and telephone number, to assist the DoD Component in responding to the request and providing released records to the requester. The requester must sign the request and have it notarized or submit the request under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits unsworn statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. To assist with the identification and location of requested records, when requested in the access procedures of the applicable SORN, the requester may also, at his or her option, include his or her DoD Identification Number (DoD ID Number) or Social Security Number (SSN). Providing a DoD ID Number or SSN should be appropriate for the type of record being sought.
</P>
<P>(d) When making a request for access to records as the parent or guardian for an individual who is a minor or for an individual who is determined by a court to be incompetent, the parent/guardian must establish:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record;
</P>
<P>(2) The parent/guardian's own identity;
</P>
<P>(3) That the requester is the parent or guardian of that individual, which may be proven by providing a copy of the individual's birth certificate showing parentage or a court order establishing the guardianship; and
</P>
<P>(4) That the parent or guardian is acting on behalf of the individual in making the request.
</P>
<P>(e) Members of the Military Services and married persons are not considered minors, regardless of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.4   Access exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>DoD may deny an individual access to certain information about the individual that resides in a DoD Component's system of records when an exemption from the Privacy Act is claimed for the system of records and codified in the Code of Federal Regulations as described in § 310.12. When an exemption pursuant to subsection (j) or (k) of the Privacy Act exists, it will be listed in the SORN for the particular system in which the individual's information is located. Records compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding may be withheld pursuant to subsection (d)(5) of the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.5   Responses to requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request, a component will send an acknowledgment letter to the requester within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) which shall confirm the requester's agreement to pay duplication fees, if any, and provide an assigned case file number for reference purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) In some cases, the DoD Component initially receiving the request may refer the request to another DoD Component or agency. The DoD Component that initially received the request will send the requester a notice of referral that will identify each DoD Component or agency to which the request has been referred, as well as which part of the request has been referred.
</P>
<P>(c) Access to protected health information, including medical records, is governed by the Privacy Act and DoD 6025.18-R, “DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation” (available at <I>http://www.esd.whs.mil/Portals/54/Documents/DD/issuances/dodm/602518r.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) When a DoD Component makes a determination to grant a request for access in whole or in part, the DoD Component shall notify the requester in writing or simply provide the requested record. The response to the request may be made in lieu of the acknowledgment of receipt provided the response will be made within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). The DoD Component shall inform the requester of any fee charged for duplication of the record(s). If the request is made in person, the individual may receive the records directly in a manner not unreasonably disruptive of the DoD Component's operations, upon payment of any applicable fee. If the individual is accompanied by another person, the individual may be required to authorize in writing any discussion of the records in the presence of the other person.
</P>
<P>(e) A DoD Component denying a request for access in any respect shall notify the requester of that determination in writing.
</P>
<P>(1) The notice of denial consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) A determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A determination that what has been requested is not a record subject to the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The denial notification letter shall be signed by the head of the DoD Component, or the DoD Component head's designee, and shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial, including any Privacy Act exemption(s) applied by the DoD Component in denying the request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the denial can be appealed within 60 calendar days in accordance with § 310.6. The statement will include the position title and the address of the appellate authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.6   Appeals from denials of requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the requester is dissatisfied with a DoD Component's response, the requester can appeal an adverse determination denying the request to the appellate authority listed in the notification of denial letter. The appeal must be made in writing, and it must be postmarked within 60 calendar days of the date of the letter denying the initial request for records. The letter of appeal should include a copy of the DoD Component's determination (including the assigned request number, if known). For the quickest possible handling, the appeal letter and the envelope should be marked: “Privacy Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) The appellant will be notified of the decision on his or her appeal in writing. If the decision affirms the adverse determination in whole or in part, the notification will include a brief statement of the reason(s) for the affirmation, including any exemptions applied, and will inform the appellant of the Privacy Act provisions for judicial review of the appellate authority's decision. If the adverse determination is reversed or modified, in whole or in part, the appellant will be notified in writing of this decision and the request will be reprocessed in accordance with that appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to seek a judicial review of a denial of a request for access to records, a requester must first file an appeal under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) An appeal ordinarily will not be acted on if the request becomes a matter of litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.7   Requests for amendment or correction of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the record is not subject to amendment and correction as stated in paragraph (b) of this section, an individual may make a request for amendment or correction of a DoD Component's record about that individual by writing directly to the DoD Component that maintains the record as identified in the published SORN applicable to the record. The request should identify each particular record in question, state the amendment or correction that is sought, and state why the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete without the correction. The individual will also need to verify identity in the same manner as described in §§ 310.3(c) through (d). Factual documentation that is helpful to the DoD Component privacy officials should be submitted with the request. If it is believed that the same record exists in more than one system of records, this should be stated in the request, and the request should be addressed to each DoD Component that maintains a system of records containing the record as noted in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) Certain records are not subject to amendment or correction under the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Proceedings and determinations of courts-martial, military tribunal, or Military Boards of Correction are not generally subject to amendment or correction under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Records in systems of records that have been exempted from amendment and correction under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k) are not subject to amendment or correction.
</P>
<P>(3) The amendment process is not intended to permit the alteration of records presented in the course of judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings such as the adjudication process for personnel security clearances or contesting grades in academic records. Any amendments or changes to these records normally are made through the specific procedures established for the amendment of such records.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in the amendment process is intended or designed to permit a collateral attack upon what has already been the subject of a judicial or quasi-judicial determination. However, while the individual may not attack the accuracy of the judicial or quasi-judicial determination under this part, he or she may challenge the accuracy of the recording of that action.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual requesting amendment or correction of records will receive a written acknowledgment of receipt of the request within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays), as required by the Privacy Act. The response to the request may be made in lieu of the acknowledgment of receipt provided the response is made within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). The response to the request must be made promptly and indicate whether the request is granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(d) If the request for amendment or correction is granted in whole or in part, the response to the individual will receive a description or copy of the amendment or correction made and, if a copy of the amended or corrected record is not included in the response, notification of the right to obtain a copy of the corrected or amended record in disclosable form.
</P>
<P>(e) If the request for amendment or correction is denied in whole or in part, the response to the individual will include a signed letter stating:
</P>
<P>(1) The reason(s) for the denial; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedure for appeal of the denial under paragraph (f) of this section, including the name, position title and business address of the official who will act on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) An individual may appeal the denial of a request for amendment or correction to the individual's record to the appellate authority at the address listed in the notification of denial letter, in the same manner as for a denial of a request for access to records (see § 310.6). The appeal determination shall be made within 30 working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) from the date of the appeal, unless the period is extended for good cause. If the appeal is denied in whole or in part, the individual will be advised of the right to file a Statement of Disagreement as described in paragraph (g) of this section, and of the right under the Privacy Act for judicial review of the decision.
</P>
<P>(g) If an appeal under this section is denied in whole or in part, the individual has the right to file a Statement of Disagreement that states the reason(s) for disagreeing with the DoD Component's denial of the request for amendment or correction. Statements of Disagreement must be concise, must clearly identify each part of any record that is disputed, and should generally be no longer than one typed page. The Statement of Disagreement must be sent to the DoD Component holding the respective record. The Statement of Disagreement will be filed or notated in the system of records, and an annotation to the record itself will indicate the existence and location of the Statement of Disagreement.
</P>
<P>(h) Notifications of amendment/correction or statements of disagreement will be made to all persons, organizations, and agencies to which the record was previously disclosed if an accounting of that disclosure was made in accordance with subsection (c) of the Privacy Act and § 310.9. If an individual has filed a Statement of Disagreement, a copy of the statement will be appended to the disputed record whenever the record is disclosed, and a concise statement of the reason(s) for denying the request to amend or correct the record may also be appended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.8   Civil remedies.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the right to judicial review after a denied appeal for access to or amendment of a record, the requester has the right to bring a civil action against the Department if the Department:
</P>
<P>(a) Fails to maintain a record concerning the individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness as is necessary to assure fairness in any determination relating to the qualifications, character, rights, opportunities of, or benefits to the individual that may be made on the basis of such record, and consequently a determination is made which is adverse to the individual; or
</P>
<P>(b) Fails to comply with any other provision of the Privacy Act or this rule, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on the individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.9   Requests for an accounting of record disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual may make a request for an accounting of any disclosure that has been made by the Department to another person, organization, or agency of any record about the individual maintained in a system of records.
</P>
<P>(b) This accounting contains the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or agency to which the disclosure was made. Records of disclosure accountings are maintained for five years after the disclosure or for the life of the record, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for an accounting should identify each particular record in question and should be made by writing directly to the DoD Component that maintains the record, following the procedures in § 310.3.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD Components are not required to provide disclosure accountings when related to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosures for which accountings are not required to be kept—in other words, disclosures that are made to employees within the Department who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties and disclosures that are made under the Freedom of Information Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosures made to law enforcement agencies for authorized law enforcement activities in response to written request from the head of the agency or instrumentality of those law enforcement agencies specifying the law enforcement activities for which the disclosures are sought; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures made from systems of records that have been exempted from accounting requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) An individual may appeal a denial of a request for a disclosure accounting to the address listed in the notification of denial letter, in the same manner as a denial of a request for access to records, following the procedures in § 310.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.10   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an individual makes a Privacy Act request for a copy of a record in a system of records, the request shall be considered an agreement to pay all applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(b) There is no minimum fee for duplication, and there is no automatic charge for processing a request. Fees for duplication of records will be charged in the same manner as requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally, fees are waived automatically if the direct costs of a given request are less than the cost of processing the fee. Decisions to waive or reduce fees that exceed the waiver threshold are made on a case-by-case basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.11   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exemption Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.12   Types of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemptions.</I> There are three types of exemptions permitted by the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) An access exemption that exempts records complied in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding from the access provisions of the Act, pursuant to subsection (d)(5) of the Privacy Act;
</P>
<P>(2) General exemptions that authorize the exemption of a system of records from all but certain specifically identified provisions of the Act, pursuant to subsection (j) of the Privacy Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) Specific exemptions that allow a system of records to be exempted only from certain designated provisions of the Act, pursuant to subsection (k) of the Privacy Act. Nothing in the Privacy Act permits exemption of any system of records from all provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil Action or Proceeding.</I> In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5), an individual is not entitled to access information that is compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. The term “civil action or proceeding” is intended to include court proceedings, preliminary judicial steps, and quasi-judicial administrative hearings or proceedings (<I>i.e.,</I> adversarial proceedings that are subject to rules of evidence). Any information prepared in anticipation of such actions or proceedings, including information prepared to advise DoD officials of the possible legal or other consequences of a given course of action, is protected. The exemption is similar to the attorney work-product privilege except that it applies even when the information is prepared by non-attorneys. The exemption does not apply to information compiled in anticipation of criminal actions or proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt Records Systems.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), all systems of records maintained by DoD will be exempt from the access provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) and the notification of access procedures of 5 U.S.C. 522a(e)(4)(H) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 13526, and is required by the Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all DoD systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein may contain isolated items of information which have been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exempt records in non-exempt systems.</I> Exempt records temporarily in the custody of another DoD Component are considered the property of the originating DoD Component. Access to these records is controlled by the system notices and rules of the originating DoD Component. Exempt records that have been incorporated into a nonexempt system of records are still exempt but only to the extent to which the provisions of the Act for which an exemption has been claimed are identified. An exemption claimed for the system of records from which the record is obtained remains in effect when the purposes underlying the exemption for the record are still valid and necessary to protect the contents of the record. If a record is accidentally misfiled into a system of records, the system notice and rules for the system in which it should actually be filed shall govern.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.13   Exemptions for DoD-wide systems.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260716" REFID="9">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 43542, July 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Use of DoD-wide exemptions.</I> DoD-wide exemptions for DoD-wide systems of records are established pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) and (k) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Promises of confidentiality.</I> (1) Only the identity of and information furnished by sources that have been given an express promise of confidentiality may be protected from disclosure under this section, consistent with (k)(2), (k)(5), and (k)(7) of the Privacy Act, as applicable. However, the identity of sources who were given implied promises of confidentiality in inquiries conducted before September 27, 1975, also may be protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure promises of confidentiality are not automatically given but are used sparingly. Establish appropriate procedures and identify fully categories of individuals who may make such promises. Promises of confidentiality shall be made only when they are essential to obtain the information sought (see 5 CFR part 736).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to records for which DOD-wide exemptions are claimed.</I> Deny the individual access only to those portions of the records for which the claimed exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exempt records.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent that such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the record pertain to the record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DoD-wide exemptions.</I> The following exemptions are applicable to all components of the Department of Defense for the following system(s) of records:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DUSDI 01-DoD “Department of Defense (DoD) Insider Threat Management and Analysis Center (DITMAC) and DoD Component Insider Threat Records System.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> This system of records is exempted from subsections (c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4); (e)(1), (2), (3), (4)(G)(H) and (I), (5) and (8); and (g) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3).</I> To provide the subject with an accounting of disclosures of records in this system could inform that individual of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or counterintelligence investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or counterintelligence efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or counterintelligence measures. Access to the accounting of disclosures could also interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation which may impede those actions or investigations. Access also could reveal the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (c)(4).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (d)(1).</I> Disclosure of records in the system could reveal the identity of confidential sources and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Disclosure may also reveal information relating to actual or potential criminal investigations. Disclosure of classified national security information would cause damage to the national security of the United States. Disclosure could also interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation; reveal the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations; and reveal the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials and evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (d)(2).</I> Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing criminal or civil law enforcement proceedings and impose an impossible administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement and counterintelligence, it is necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information from the subject individual could serve notice that he or she is the subject of a criminal investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to such investigations.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To inform individuals as required by this subsection could reveal the existence of a criminal investigation and compromise investigative efforts.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> To serve notice could give persons sufficient warning to evade investigative efforts.
</P>
<P>(L) <I>Subsection (g).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In addition, in the course of carrying out analysis for insider threats, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained into this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DUSDI 02-DoD “Personnel Vetting Records System.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> This system of records is exempted from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), (d)(4), and (e)(1) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain information properly classified pursuant to Executive Order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could disclose classified information that could be detrimental to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(2).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: Inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or counterintelligence investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or counterintelligence efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or counterintelligence measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation which may impede those actions or investigations; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(3).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain information pertaining to providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056. Application of exemption (k)(3) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could compromise the safety of the individuals protected pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056 and compromise protective services provided to the President and other individuals. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(5).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(5) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government, could hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources, and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(6).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain information relating to testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service. Application of exemption (k)(6) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could compromise the objectivity and fairness of the testing or examination process. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(7).</I> Personnel investigations and vetting records may contain evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(7) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government, hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources, and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(1) and (2). Moreover, applying the amendment appeal procedures toward background investigation and vetting records could impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for authorized vetting purposes, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, fitness, and credentialing determinations. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1), (k)(2),(k)(3), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In addition, in the course of carrying out personnel vetting, including records checks for continuous vetting, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained into this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0004, “Defense Repository for Common Enterprise Data (DRCED).”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), and (d)(4) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3) (accounting of disclosures).</I> Because common enterprise records may contain information properly classified pursuant to executive order, the disclosure accountings of such records may also contain information properly classified pursuant to executive order, the disclosure of which may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4) (record subject's right to access and amend records).</I> Access to and amendment of records by the record subject could disclose information properly classified pursuant to executive order. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In addition, in the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other system of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0005, “Defense Training Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Training records in this system of records may contain information concerning DoD personnel or training materials that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(6).</I> Training records in this system of records may contain information relating to testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service. Application of exemption (k)(6) for such records may be necessary when access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosure for such records, may compromise the objectivity and fairness of the testing or examination process. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring testing and examinations to be continuously re-administered.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsection (d)(2). Moreover, applying the amendment appeal procedures to training and examination materials could impose a highly impractical administrative burden by requiring testing and examinations to be continuously re-administered.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0006, “Military Justice and Civilian Criminal Case Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(2); (e)(3); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); (e)(5); (e)(8); (f); and (g) of the Privacy Act to the extent the records are subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act to the extent the records are subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (j)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes to include information identifying criminal offenders and alleged offenders, information compiled for the purpose of criminal investigation, or reports compiled during criminal law enforcement proceedings. Application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties or disciplinary measures; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I> Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation which may impede those actions or investigations; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (c)(4), (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for investigatory or law enforcement purposes, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required disciplinary and prosecutorial determinations. Additionally, records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1) and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information from the subject individual could serve notice that he or she is the subject of a criminal investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to such investigations. Collection of information only from the individual accused of criminal activity or misconduct could also subvert discovery of relevant evidence and subvert the course of justice. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To inform individuals as required by this subsection could reveal the existence of a criminal investigation and compromise investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain this information to maintain an accurate record of the investigatory activity to preserve the integrity of the investigation and satisfy various Constitutional and evidentiary requirements, such as mandatory disclosure of potentially exculpatory information in the investigative file to a defendant. It is also necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined through judicial processes. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> To serve notice could give persons sufficient warning to evade investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Subsection (f).</I> The agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Subsection (g).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD 0007, “Defense Reasonable Accommodation and Assistive Technology Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> Subsections (d)(3) and (4) are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and Subsection (f).</I> Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and subsection (f) are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted in paragraphs (e)(6)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that subsection (e)(4)(I) is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name:</I> DoD-0008, “Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Records”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(2); (e)(3); (e)(4)(G), (H), and(I); (e)(5); (e)(8); (f) and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority:</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (j)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information recompiled from other systems of records maintained by a DoD component or other agency which performs as its principal function activities pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws and contain investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes, including information identifying criminal offenders and alleged offenders, information compiled for the purpose of criminal investigation, or reports compiled during criminal law enforcement proceedings. Application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties or disciplinary measures; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD or the other agency's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I> Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information recompiled from other systems of records pertaining to investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation by allowing the subject to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which may undermine the entire investigatory process; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(3).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information recompiled from other systems of records pertaining to providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056. Application of exemption (k)(3) for such records may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could compromise the effectiveness of protective services, the safety of the individuals protected pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056, and the safety of the personnel providing protective services.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(5).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information recompiled from other systems of records concerning investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(5) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government; hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(6).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information recompiled from other systems of records relating to testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service. Application of exemption (k)(6) may be necessary when access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosure for such records, may compromise the objectivity and fairness of the testing or examination process. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring testing and examinations to be continuously re-administered.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(7).</I> Records in this system of records may contain evaluation material recompiled from other systems of records used to determine potential for promotion in the Armed Forces of the United States. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(7) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government; hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (c)(4), (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for investigatory or law enforcement purposes, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required disciplinary and prosecutorial determinations. Additionally, records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. Further, it is not always possible to determine relevancy or necessity of specific information in the earlier stages of responding to a FOIA or Privacy Act request or in litigation case development, including with respect to records pertaining to suitability determinations or armed services promotion evaluations that contain information about sources who were granted an express promise of confidentiality, or pertaining to testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process. Such information may later be deemed unnecessary upon further assessment. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(5), (k)(6), or (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information from the subject individual could serve notice that he or she is the subject of a criminal investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to such investigations. Collection of information only from the individual accused of criminal activity or misconduct could also subvert discovery of relevant evidence and subvert the course of justice. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To inform individuals as required by this subsection could reveal the existence of a criminal investigation and compromise investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information, the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants, and testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment of promotion in the Federal service. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain this information to maintain an accurate record of the investigatory activity to preserve the integrity of the investigation and satisfy various Constitutional and evidentiary requirements, such as mandatory disclosure of potentially exculpatory information in the investigative file to a defendant. It is also necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined through judicial processes. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> To serve notice could give persons sufficient warning to evade investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Subsection (f).</I> To the extent that portions of the system are exempt from the provisions of the Privacy Act concerning individual access and amendment of records, DoD is not required to establish rules concerning procedures and requirements relating to such provisions. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Subsection (g).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act to which the civil remedies provisions pertain.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0010, “Counterintelligence Functional Services”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)<I> Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation by allowing the subject to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which may undermine the entire investigatory process; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(5).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(5) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government; hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for investigatory or law enforcement purposes, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, fitness, and credentialing determinations. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) forthe reasons noted above, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access,view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially reveal classified information, undermine investigative efforts, reveal the identities of witnesses, potential witnesses, and confidential informants, and impose an undue administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, general information currently published in the system notice concerning the categories of sources of the records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect classified information, other national security information, and the confidentiality of national security, law enforcement, and investigatory sources of information, and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1), (k)(2) and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (f).</I> The agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0003, “Mobilization Deployment Management Information System (MDMIS).”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), and (d)(4) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3) (accounting of disclosures).</I> Because records in this system may contain information properly classified pursuant to executive order, the disclosure accountings of such records may also contain information properly classified pursuant to executive order, the disclosure of which may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4) (record subject's right to access and amend records).</I> Access to and amendment of records by the record subject could disclose information properly classified pursuant to executive order. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In addition, in the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other system of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0012, “Defense Accountability and Assessment Records”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. In the collection of information to respond to natural or man-made disasters, public health emergencies, and other crises or events of concern, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of these types of occurrences. Additionally, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and Subsection (f).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0014, “DoD Historical Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to Executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> Subsections (d)(3) and (4) are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsection (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to Executive order. In the collection of information for historical activities, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of these types of activities. Additionally, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and subsection (f).</I> Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and subsection (f) are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted in the preceding sentence, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that subsection (e)(4)(I) is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from subsection (e)(4)(I) is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0013, “Declared Public Health Emergency Exposure Records”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. In the collection of information for historical activities, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of these types of activities. Additionally, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and Subsection (f).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0017, “Privacy and Civil Liberties Complaints and Correspondence.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(1) and (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. In the collection of information for privacy and civil liberties complaints or correspondence, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of gathering information to respond to the correspondence or complaint. Additionally, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and Subsection (f).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0019, “Information Technology Access and Audit Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and(I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation by allowing the subject to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which may undermine the entire investigatory process; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2). Accordingly, exemptions from subsections (d)(3) and (4) are claimed pursuant to (k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Additionally, records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. The collection of information pertaining to the use of government information technology and data systems may include classified records, and it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of such information in the early stages of a collection. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity can be assessed. Further, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security. Additionally, in the collection of information for investigatory or law enforcement purposes it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required investigatory or law enforcement determinations. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) and (2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security, the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) and (2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (f).</I> The agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) and (2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DoD-0020, “Military Human Resource Records.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1)-(4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsection (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(1) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(2)<I> Exemption (k)(7).</I> Records in this system of records may contain evaluation material, including from other systems of records, used to determine potential for promotion in the Armed Forces of the United States. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(7) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise provided information to assist the Government; hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services, which may be incorporated into and/or maintained in military personnel records, it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the evaluation process. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective decision-making can be assessed. Collection of such information may permit more informed decision-making by the Department when making required disciplinary or personnel determinations. Additionally, the information collected may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) or (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information, the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants, and testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment of promotion in the Federal service. Additionally, records in this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) and (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (f).</I> To the extent that portions of the system are exempt from the provisions of the Privacy Act concerning individual access and amendment of records, DoD is not required to establish rules concerning procedures and requirements relating to such provisions. Accordingly, application of exemptions (k)(1) and (k)(7) may be necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 38561, July 22, 2021; 86 FR 52072, Sept. 20, 2021; 86 FR 72524, Dec. 22, 2021; 87 FR 28775, May 11, 2022; 87 FR 30417, May 19, 2022; 87 FR 51612, Aug. 23, 2022; 87 FR 54153, Sept. 2, 2022; 87 FR 76934, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 11396, Feb. 23, 2023; 88 FR 24479, Apr. 21, 2023; 88 FR 60145, Aug. 31, 2023; 89 FR 17750, Mar. 12, 2024; 90 FR 35436, July 28, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.14   Department of the Air Force exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All systems of records maintained by the Department of the Air Force shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and that is required by Executive Order to be kept classified in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein, which contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual is not entitled to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding (5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5)).
</P>
<P>(c) No system of records within Department of the Air Force shall be considered exempt under subsection (j) or (k) of the Privacy Act until the exemption rule for the system of records has been published as a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(d) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the Department of the Air Force will grant access to non-exempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by the Department of the Air Force's Privacy Instruction, but will be limited to the extent that identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered, the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on <I>a case-by-case basis.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>General exemptions.</I> The following systems of records claim an exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), with the exception of F090 AF IG B, Inspector General Records and F051 AF JA F, Courts-Martial and Article 15 Records. They claim both the (j)(2) and (k)(2) exemption, and are listed under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 AF OSI A, Counter Intelligence Operations and Collection Records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 AF OSI C, Criminal Records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 AF OSI D, Investigative Support Records.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F031 AF SP E, Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), and (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) To protect ongoing investigations and to protect from access criminal investigation information contained in this record system, so as not to jeopardize any subsequent judicial or administrative process taken as a result of information contained in the file.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting, for disclosures pursuant to the routine uses published for this system, would permit the subject criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection this subsection will not be applicable.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (d) because access the records contained in this system would inform the subject of an investigation of existence of that investigation, provide subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(H) because system of records is exempt from individual access pursuant to subsection (j) of the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because this system of records has been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F031 AF SF A, Correction and Rehabilitation Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting, for disclosures pursuant to the routine uses published for this system, would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), this subsection will not be applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is exempt from individual access pursuant to subsections (j)(2) of the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because this system of records has been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (g) because this system of records compiled for law enforcement purposes and has been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F090 AF IG B, Inspector General Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Parts of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(6)(<E T="01">i</E>)(B).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of accounting of disclosure would inform a subject that he or she is under investigation. This information would provide considerable advantage to the subject in providing him or her with knowledge concerning the nature of the investigation and the coordinated investigative efforts and techniques employed by the cooperating agencies. This would greatly impede the Air Force IG's criminal law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) and (d), because notification would alert a subject to the fact that an open investigation on that individual is taking place, and might weaken the ongoing investigation, reveal investigative techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity that may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal and/or civil investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal and/or civil investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an ongoing investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (g) because this system of records should be exempt to the extent that the civil remedies relate to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which this rule exempts the system.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(8) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 JTF A, Computer Network Crime Case System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency, which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(8)(<E T="01">i</E>)(B).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of accounting of disclosure would inform a subject that he or she is under investigation. This information would provide considerable advantage to the subject in providing him or her with knowledge concerning the nature of the investigation and the coordinated investigative efforts and techniques employed by the cooperating agencies. This would greatly impede criminal law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) and (d), because notification would alert a subject to the fact that an open investigation on that individual is taking place, and might weaken the ongoing investigation, reveal investigative techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity that may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal and/or civil investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal and/or civil investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (g) because this system of records should be exempt to the extent that the civil remedies relate to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which this rule exempts the system.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> The following systems of records are subject to the specific exemptions shown:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 USAFA K, Admissions Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records (Liaison Officer Evaluation and Selection Panel Candidate Evaluation) may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To ensure the frankness of information used to determine whether cadets are qualified for graduation and commissioning as officers in the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AFPC N, Air Force Personnel Test 851, Test Answer Sheets.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the federal or military service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the objectivity of the promotion testing system by keeping the test questions and answers in confidence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 USAFA A, Cadet Personnel Management System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To maintain the candor and integrity of comments needed to evaluate an Air Force Academy cadet for commissioning in the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AETC I, Cadet Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) (Detachment Professional Officer Course Selection Rating Sheets; Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps Form 0-24—Disenrollment Review; Memoranda for Record and Staff Papers with Staff Advice, Opinions, or Suggestions) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the identity of a confidential source who furnishes information necessary to make determinations about the qualifications, eligibility, and suitability of cadets for graduation and commissioning in the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F044 AF SG Q, Family Advocacy Program Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsections (c)(3) and (d) because the exemption is needed to encourage those who know of exceptional medical or educational conditions or family maltreatments to come forward by protecting their identities and to protect such sources from embarrassment or recriminations, as well as to protect their right to privacy. It is essential that the identities of all individuals who furnish information under an express promise of confidentiality be protected. Granting individuals access to information relating to criminal and civil law enforcement, as well as the release of certain disclosure accounting, could interfere with ongoing investigations and the orderly administration of justice, in that it could result in the concealment, alteration, destruction, or fabrication of information; could hamper the identification of offenders or alleged offenders and the disposition of charges; and could jeopardize the safety and well being of parents and their children. Exempted portions of this system also contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for Federal employment and Federal contracts, and that was obtained by providing an express or implied promise to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AF PC A, Effectiveness/Performance Reporting System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services (Brigadier General Selectee Effectiveness Reports and Colonel and Lieutenant Colonel Promotion Recommendations with close out dates on or before January 31, 1991) may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because making the disclosure accounting available to the individual may compromise express promises of confidentiality by revealing details about the report and identify other record sources, which may result in circumvention of the access exemption.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because individual disclosure compromises express promises of confidentiality conferred to protect the integrity of the promotion rating system.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(4)(H) because of and to the extent that portions of this record system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (f) because of and to the extent that portions of this record system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AFDP A, Files on General Officers and Colonels Assigned to General Officer Positions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the integrity of information used in the Reserve Initial Brigadier General Screening Board, the release of which would compromise the selection process.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>System identification and name.</I> F036 AF PC O, General Officer Personnel Data System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records (Air Force General Officer Promotion and Effectiveness Reports with close out dates on or before January 31, 1991) may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) may be exempt from following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because making the disclosure accounting available to the individual may compromise express promises of confidentiality by revealing details about the report and identify other record sources, which may result in circumvention of the access exemption.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because individual disclosure compromises express promises of confidentiality conferred to protect the integrity of the promotion rating system.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(4)(H) because of and to the extent that portions of this record system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (f) because of and to the extent that portions of this record system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AFPC K, Historical Airman Promotion Master Test File.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the federal or military service, if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the integrity, objectivity, and equity of the promotion testing system by keeping test questions and answers in confidence.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 AF OSI F, Investigative Applicant Processing Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect those who gave information in confidence during Air Force Office of Special Investigations applicant inquiries. Fear of harassment could cause sources not to make frank and open responses about applicant qualifications. This could compromise the integrity of the Air Force Office of Special Investigations personnel program that relies on selecting only qualified people.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 USAFA B, Master Cadet Personnel Record (Active/Historical).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To maintain the candor and integrity of comments needed to evaluate a cadet for commissioning in the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(13) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F071 AF OSI B, Security and Related Investigative Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the identity of those who give information in confidence for personnel security and related investigations. Fear of harassment could cause sources to refuse to give this information in the frank and open way needed to pinpoint those areas in an investigation that should be expanded to resolve charges of questionable conduct.
</P>
<P>(14)-(15) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(16) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AF PC P, Applications for Appointment and Extended Active Duty Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsection of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To protect the identity of confidential sources who furnish information necessary to make determinations about the qualifications, eligibility, and suitability of health care professionals who apply for Reserve of the Air Force appointment or inter-service transfer to the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AF DPG, Military Equal Opportunity and Treatment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(17)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 522a(k)(2) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), (e)(4)(H), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of an investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement. In addition, granting individuals access to information collected while an Equal Opportunity and Treatment clarification/investigation is in progress conflicts with the just, thorough, and timely completion of the complaint, and could possibly enable individuals to interfere, obstruct, or mislead those clarifying/investigating the complaint.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (e)(4)(H) because this system of records is exempt from individual access pursuant to subsection (k) of the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (f) because this system of records has been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(18) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F051 AF JA I, Commander Directed Inquiries.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(18)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(19)-21 [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(22) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F051 AFJA E, Judge Advocate General's Professional Conduct Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(22)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F033 USSC A, Information Technology and Control Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(23)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F036 AETC X, College Scholarship Program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability but only to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) and when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential sources to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F032 AFCESA C, Civil Engineer System-Explosive Ordnance Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals under 18 U.S.C. 3056, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>System identifier and name.</I> F051 AF JAA, Freedom of Information Appeal Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the processing of a Privacy Act request, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those `other' systems of records are entered into this system, the Department of the Air Force hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those `other' systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record, and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided the President and others are not compromised, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, and to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal evaluation materials. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 37999, June 27, 2022; 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.15" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.15   Department of the Army exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special exemption.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5)—Denies individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General and specific exemptions.</I> The Secretary of the Army may exempt Army systems of records from certain requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974. The two kinds of exemptions that require Secretary of the Army enactment are general and specific exemptions. The general exemption authorizes the exemption of a system of records from most requirements of the Act; the specific exemptions authorize the exemption of a system of record from only a few.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General exemptions.</I> Only Army activities actually engaged in the enforcement of criminal laws as their principal function may claim the general exemption. See 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). To qualify for this exemption, a system must consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) Information compiled to identify individual criminal offenders and alleged offenders, which consists only of identifying data and arrest records; type and disposition of charges; sentencing, confinement, and release records; and parole and probation status;
</P>
<P>(2) Information compiled for the purpose of criminal investigation including reports of informants and investigators, and associated with an identifiable individual; or
</P>
<P>(3) Reports identifiable to an individual, compiled at any stage of the process of enforcement of the criminal laws, from arrest or indictment through release from supervision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> The Secretary of the Army has exempted all properly classified information and systems of records that have the following kinds of information listed in this section, from certain parts of the Privacy Act. The Privacy Act exemption reference appears in parentheses after each category.
</P>
<P>(1) Classified information in every Army system of records. Before denying any individual access to classified information, the Access and Amendment Refusal Authority must make sure that it was properly classified under the standards of Executive Orders 11652, 12065, or 12958 and that it must remain so in the interest of national defense of foreign policy (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1)).
</P>
<P>(2) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes (other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if this information has been used to deny someone a right, privilege or benefit to which the individual is entitled by Federal law, or for which an individual would otherwise be eligible as a result of the maintenance of the information, it must be released, unless doing so would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals protected pursuant to Title 18 U.S.C., section 3056 (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3)).
</P>
<P>(4) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlements of individuals, except for census records which may be disclosed under Title 13 U.S.C., section 8 (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4)).
</P>
<P>(5) Investigatory material compiled solely to determine suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. This information may be withheld only to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5)).
</P>
<P>(6) Testing or examination material used solely to determine if a person is qualified for appointment or promotion in the Federal service. This information may be withheld only if disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the examination process (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6)).
</P>
<P>(7) Evaluation material used solely to determine promotion potential in the Armed Forces. Information may be withheld, but only to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures.</I> When a system manager seeks an exemption for a system of records, the following information will be furnished to the Chief Information Officer, 107 Army Pentagon, Room 3E608, Washington, DC 20310-0107; applicable system notice, exemptions sought, and justification. After appropriate staffing and approval by the Secretary of the Army, a proposed rule will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> followed by a final rule 60 days later. No exemption may be invoked until these steps have been completed.
</P>
<P>(f) The Army system of records notices for a particular type of record will state whether the Secretary of the Army has authorized a particular general and specific exemption to a certain type of record. The Army system of records notices are published on the Defense Privacy and Civil Liberties Division's website: <I>http://dpcld.defense.gov/Privacy/DODComponentArticleList/tabid/6799/Category/278/department-of-the-army.aspx.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exempt Army records.</I> The following records may be exempt from certain parts of the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0020-1 SAIG, Inspector General Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to such records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violations of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information is retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0 025-400-2 0AA, Army Records Information Management System (ARIMS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the course of records management, declassification and claims research, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the Department of the Army hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2) and (k)(1) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised, to protect records used solely as statistical records, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records may be exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0025-55 OAA, Freedom of Information Act Program Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the processing of Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the Department of the Army claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(1) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised, to protect records used solely as statistical records, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records may be exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0027-1 DAJA, General Legal Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(E) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(F) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) through (k)(7) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to such records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violations of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information is retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0027-10a DAJA, Military Justice Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0027-10b DAJA, Courts-Martial Records and Reviews.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0040-5b DASG, Army Public Health Data Repository (APHDR).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(4) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violations of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information is retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-5 OPMG, Vehicle Registration System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its primary function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d) making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d) making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-9 OPMG, Absentee Case Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-14 OPMG, Registration and Permit Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), is exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violations of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information is retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-45 OPMG, Military Police Reporting Program Records (MPRP).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of the system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-45a OPMG, Local Criminal Intelligence Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-45b OPMG, Serious Incident Reporting Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(14) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0190-47 DAPM-ACC, Army Corrections System and Parole Board Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal or other law enforcement investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would alert the subject as to the nature or existence of the investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(15) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0195-2a USACIDC, Source Register.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(16) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0195-2b USACIDC, Criminal Investigation and Crime Laboratory Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal or other law enforcement investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would alert the subject as to the nature or existence of the investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsections (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to criminal law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and the existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(17) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0195-2c USACIDC DoD, DoD Criminal Investigation Task Force (CITF) Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency, which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal or other law enforcement investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would alert the subject as to the nature or existence of the investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to criminal law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and the existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(18) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0195-2d USACIDC DoD, Defense Criminal Investigation DNA Database and Sample Repository; CODIS Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency that performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(19) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0195-6 USACIDC, Criminal Investigation Accreditation and Polygraph Examiner Evaluation Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5), or (k)(7) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(20) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A02107 DAMO, Expelled or Barred Person Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency, which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(8), (f) and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(21) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(22) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0351-12 DAPE, Applicants/Students, U.S. Military Academy Prep School.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) It is imperative that the confidential nature of evaluation material on individuals, furnished to the U.S. Military Academy Preparatory School under an express promise of confidentiality, be maintained to ensure the candid presentation of information necessary in determinations involving admission to or retention at the United States Military Academy and suitability for commissioned military service.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(7) subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(23) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0351-17a USMA, U.S. Military Academy Candidate Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), (k)(6) or (k)(7) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), (k)(6) and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(24) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0351-17b USMA, U.S. Military Academy Management System Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) It is imperative that the confidential nature of evaluation and investigatory material on candidates, cadets, and graduates, furnished to the United States Military Academy under a promise of confidentiality be maintained to ensure the candid presentation of information necessary in determinations involving admissions to the Military Academy and suitability for commissioned service and future promotion.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) or (k)(7) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(25) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0380-67 DAMI, Personnel Security Clearance Information Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(26) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0381-20b DAMI, Foreign Intelligence/Counterintelligence/Information Operations/Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2) and (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) To the extent that copies of exempt records from external systems of records are entered into A0381-10b DAMI, the Army hereby claims the same exemptions for those records as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), and (k)(1) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) For records that are copies of exempt records from external systems of records, such records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised, to protect records used solely as statistical records, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0381-100a DAMI, Intelligence/Counterintelligence Source Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(28) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0381-100b DAMI, Technical Surveillance Index.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2) or (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(29) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0600-20 DCSG-1, Sexual Assault (SADMS) and Sexual Harassment (SHARP) Program Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> This system of records is a compilation of information from other Department of Defense/Army systems of records. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are entered into this system of records, the Army G-1 hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), and (k)(1) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised, to protect records used solely as statistical records, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records may be exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0601-141 DASG, Applications for Appointment to Army Medical Department.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(31) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0601-210a USAREC, Enlisted Eligibility Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(32) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0608-18 DASG, Army Family Advocacy Program Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) or (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because the requirements in those subsections are inapplicable to the extent that portions of this system of records may be exempt from subsection (d), concerning individual access.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(33) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0614-115 DAMI, Department of the Army Operational Support Activities.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violation of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information be retained since it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d), making these subsections not applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(34) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0025-2 PMG (DFBA) DoD, Defense Biometrics Identification Records System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Exempt materials from other sources listed above may become part of the case records in this system of records. To the extent that copies of exempt records from other sources listed above are entered into these case records, the Department of the Army hereby claims the same exemptions, (j)(2) and (k)(2), for the records as claimed by the source systems, specifically to the extent that copies of exempt records may become part of these records from JUSTICE/FBI-019 Terrorist Screening Records System, the Department of the Army hereby claims the same exemptions for the records as claimed at their source (JUSTICE/FBI-019, Terrorist Screening Records System).
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or matter under investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d), making this subsection not applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because access to such records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity that may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because in a criminal investigation, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) because the requirement that individuals supplying information be provided with a form stating the requirements of subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation, reveal the identity of confidential sources of information and endanger the life and physical safety of confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because the requirements in those subsections are inapplicable to the extent that portions of this system of records may be exempt from subsection (d), concerning individual access.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes, it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (e)(8) because the individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue search authorizations and could reveal investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(L) From subsection (g) because portions of this system of records are compiled for law enforcement purposes and have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(35) <I>System identifier and name.</I> A0600-20 SAMR, Soldiers Equal Opportunity Investigative Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), is exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, such material shall be provided to the individual, except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit the subject of a criminal investigation or other investigation conducted for law enforcement purposes to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation which will present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because access to such records contained in this system would inform the subject of a criminal investigation or other investigation conducted for law enforcement purposes, of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of criminal investigations or other law enforcement investigations, information is often obtained concerning the violations of laws or civil obligations of others not relating to an active case or matter. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary that this valuable information is retained because it can aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide valuable leads for other agencies and future cases that may be brought.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) because the requirements in those subsections are inapplicable to the extent that portions of this system of records may be exempted from subsection (d), concerning individual access.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because portions of this system of records have been exempted from the access provisions of subsections (d).
</P>
<P>(G) For records that are copies of exempt records from external systems of records, such records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record that is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed to properly protect classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy; to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations; to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised; to protect records used solely as statistical records; to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations; to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials; and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when provided by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exempt OPM records.</I> Three Office of Personnel Management systems of records apply to Army employees, except for non-appropriated fund employees. These systems, the specific exemptions determined to be necessary and proper, the records exempted, provisions of the Privacy Act from which exempt, and justification are set forth below:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel Investigations Records (OPM/CENTRAL-9).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to Title 18 U.S.C. 3056 may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
</P>
<P>(D) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(E) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(F) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(G) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(5), (k)(6), or (k)(7) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Personnel investigations may obtain from another Federal agency, properly classified information which pertains to national defense and foreign policy. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary to preclude the data subject's access to an amendment of such classified information under 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) in order to protect such information.
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel investigations may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), e.g., investigations into the administration of the merit system. Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary to preclude the data subject's access to or amendment of such records, under 552a(c)(3) and (d) because otherwise, it would inform the subject of a criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, provide the subject of the investigation with information that might enable him to avoid detection or apprehension, and would present a serious impediment to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(C) Personnel investigations may obtain from another Federal agency, information that relates to providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to section 3056 of title 18. Application of exemption (k)(3) may be necessary to preclude the data subject's access to or amendment of such records under 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) to ensure protective services provided to the President and others are not compromised.
</P>
<P>(D) All information about individuals in these records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d) in order to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to determinations of suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations.
</P>
<P>(E) All material and information in the records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), relating to access to and amendment of records by the data subject in order to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials.
</P>
<P>(F) All material and information in the records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), relating to access to and amendment of records by the data subject in order to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(2) Recruiting, Examining, and Placement Records (OPM/GOVT-5).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), or (k)(6) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) All information about individuals in these records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d) in order to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to determinations of suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations. These exemptions are also claimed because this system contains investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining the appropriateness of a request for approval of an objection to an eligible individual's qualification for employment in the Federal service.
</P>
<P>(B) All material and information in these records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) are exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), relating to access and amendment of records by the subject, in order to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials.
</P>
<P>(3) Personnel Research Test Validation Records (OPM/GOVT-6).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process. Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasons.</I> All material and information in these records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), relating to access to an amendment of the records by the data subject, in order to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials.
</P>
<P>(iii) Twelve Exceptions to the “No Disclosure without Consent” rule of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(A) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(1)—To DoD officers and employees who have a need for the record in the performance of their official duties. This is the “official need to know” concept.
</P>
<P>(B) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(2)—FOIA requires release of the information pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>(C) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3)—For an authorized Routine Use, <I>i.e.</I> the “Routine Use Exception.” The Routine Use must be listed in the applicable system of records notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the purpose of the disclosure must be compatible with the purpose for the published Routine Use.
</P>
<P>(D) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(4)—To the Bureau of the Census to plan or carry out a census or survey, or related activity pursuant to Title 13 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(E) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(5)—To a recipient who has provided the Department of the Army or DoD with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable.
</P>
<P>(F) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(6)—To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record that has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the U.S. Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or the designee of the Archivist to determine whether the record has such value.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(F).</HED>
<P>Records transferred to the Federal Records Centers for storage remain under the control of the Department of the Army and no accounting for disclosure is required under the Privacy Act.</P></NOTE>
<P>(G) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7)—To another agency or instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity, if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the Department of the Army or DoD specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought.
</P>
<P>(H) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(8)—To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual.
</P>
<P>(I) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(9)—To either House of Congress, or, to the extent the matter is within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, or any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee. Requests from a Congressional member acting on behalf of a constituent are not included in this exception, but may be covered by a routine use exception to the Privacy Act (See applicable Army system of records notice).
</P>
<P>(J) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(10)—To the Comptroller General or authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(K) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(11)—Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction. The order must be signed by a judge.
</P>
<P>(L) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12)—To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(e) of Title 31 of the U.S. Code. The name, address, SSN, and other information identifying the individual; amount, status, and history of the claim; and the agency or program under which the case arose may be disclosed. However, before doing so, agencies must complete a series of steps designed to validate the debt and to offer the individual an opportunity to repay it.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.16" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.16   Department of the Navy exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All systems of records maintained by the DON shall be exempt from the requirements of the access provision of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(d)) under the (k)(1) exemption, to the extent that the system contains information properly classified under E.O. 12958 and that is required by that E.O. to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein that contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01070-9, White House Support Program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals under 18 U.S.C. 3506, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
</P>
<P>(D) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(E) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Exempted portions of this system contain information that has been properly classified under E.O. 12958, and which is required to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. Exempted portions of this system may also contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for access to classified information, and which was obtained by providing an express or implied promise to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record. Exempted portions of this system may also contain information collected and maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals protected pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056. Exempted portions of this system may also contain investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes, the disclosure of which could reveal the identity of sources who provide information under an express or implied promise of confidentiality, compromise investigative techniques and procedures, jeopardize the life or physical safety of law-enforcement personnel, or otherwise interfere with enforcement proceedings or adjudications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01131-1, Officer Selection and Appointment System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(D) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(E) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Granting individuals access to portions of this system of records could result in the disclosure of classified material, or the identification of sources who provided information to the government under an express or implied promise of confidentiality. Material will be screened to permit access to unclassified material and to information that does not disclose the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01133-2, Recruiting Enlisted Selection System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(D) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(E) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Granting individuals access to portions of this system of records could result in the disclosure of classified material, or the identification of sources who provided information to the government under an express or implied promise of confidentiality. Material will be screened to permit access to unclassified material and to information that does not disclose the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01640-1, Individual Correctional Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reason.</I> (A) Granting individuals access to portions of these records pertaining to or consisting of, but not limited to, disciplinary reports, criminal investigations, and related statements of witnesses, and such other related matter in conjunction with the enforcement of criminal laws, could interfere with the orderly investigations, with the orderly administration of justice, and possibly enable suspects to avoid detection or apprehension. Disclosure of this information could result in the concealment, destruction, or fabrication of evidence, and jeopardize the safety and well-being of informants, witnesses and their families, and law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information could also reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by these components and could result in the invasion of the privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation. The exemption of the individual's right of access to portions of these records, and the reasons therefore, necessitate the exemption of this system of records from the requirement of the other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01754-3, Navy Child Development Services Program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3) and (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Exemption is needed in order to encourage persons having knowledge of abusive or neglectful acts toward children to report such information, and to protect such sources from embarrassment or recrimination, as well as to protect their right to privacy. It is essential that the identities of all individuals who furnish information under an express promise of confidentiality be protected. Additionally, granting individuals access to information relating to criminal and civil law enforcement, as well as the release of certain disclosure accountings, could interfere with ongoing investigations and the orderly administration of justice, in that it could result in the concealment, alteration, destruction, or fabrication of information; could hamper the identification of offenders and the disposition of charges; and could jeopardize the safety and well being of parents and their children.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N03834-1, Special Intelligence Personnel Access File.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Exempted portions of this system contain information that has been properly classified under E.O. 12356, and that is required to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy.
</P>
<P>(B) Exempted portions of this system also contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for access to classified information and was obtained by providing an express or implied assurance to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N04060-1, Navy and Marine Corps Exchange Sales and Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Granting individuals access to information collected and maintained by these activities relating to the enforcement of criminal laws could interfere with orderly investigations, with orderly administration of justice, and possibly enable suspects to avoid detection or apprehension. Disclosure of this information could result in the concealment, destruction, or fabrication of evidence, and could also reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by these activities.
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05041-1, Inspector General (IG) Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would permit individuals to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of the investigation and would present a serious impediment to the orderly conduct of any investigative activities. Such accounting could result in the release of properly classified information which would compromise the national defense or disrupt foreign policy.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because access to the records would inform individuals of the existence and nature of the investigation; provide information that might result in the concealment, destruction, or fabrication of evidence; possibly jeopardize the safety and well-being of informants, witnesses and their families; likely reveal and render ineffectual investigatory techniques and methods and sources of information; and possibly result in the invasion of the personal privacy of third parties. Access could result in the release of properly classified information which could compromise the national defense or disrupt foreign policy. Amendment of the records would interfere with the ongoing investigation and impose an impossible administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because in the course of the investigation it is not always possible, at least in the early stages of the inquiry, to determine relevance and or necessity as such determinations may only occur after the information has been evaluated. Information may be obtained concerning the actual or potential violation of laws or regulations other than those relating to the ongoing investigation. Such information should be retained as it can aid in establishing patterns of improper activity and can provide valuable leads in the conduct of other investigations.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is exempt from individual access pursuant to subsections (k)(1) and (k)(2) of the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because it is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses. Although the system is exempt from this requirement, the DON has published a notice in broad, generic terms in the belief that this is all that subsection (e)(4)(I) of the Act requires.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05300-3, Faculty Professional Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Exempted portions of this system contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a release determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for Federal employment, and was obtained by providing an express or implied promise to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05354-1, Equal Opportunity Information Management System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Granting access to information in this system of records could result in the disclosure of classified material, or reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express or implied promise of confidentiality. Material will be screened to permit access to unclassified material and to information that will not disclose the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(13) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05520-4, NCIS Investigative Files System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Granting individuals access to information collected and maintained by this activity relating to the enforcement of criminal laws could interfere with the orderly investigations, with the orderly administration of justice, and possibly enable suspects to avoid detection or apprehension. Disclosure of this information could result in the concealment, destruction, or fabrication of evidence, and jeopardize the safety and well-being of informants, witnesses and their families, and law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information could also reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by these components and could result in the invasion of the privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation. The exemption of the individual's right of access to portions of these records, and the reasons therefore, necessitate the exemption of this system of records from the requirement of the other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals under 18 U.S.C. 3506, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
</P>
<P>(C) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(D) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(E) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(F) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5) and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) The release of disclosure accountings would permit the subject of an investigation to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation, and the information contained, or the identity of witnesses or informants, would therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement. In addition, disclosure of the accounting would amount to notice to the individual of the existence of a record.
</P>
<P>(B) Access to the records contained in this system would inform the subject of the existence of material compiled for law enforcement purposes, the premature release of which could prevent the successful completion of investigation, and lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of records, or the fabrication of testimony. Exempt portions of this system also contain information that has been properly classified under E.O. 12958, and that is required to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy.
</P>
<P>(C) Exempt portions of this system also contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information, and was obtained by providing an express or implied assurance to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(D) The notice of this system of records published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> sets forth the basic statutory or related authority for maintenance of the system.
</P>
<P>(E) The categories of sources of records in this system have been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in broad generic terms. The identity of specific sources, however, must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the source, of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(F) This system of records is exempted from procedures for notice to an individual as to the existence of records pertaining to him/her dealing with an actual or potential civil or regulatory investigation, because such notice to an individual would be detrimental to the successful conduct and/or completion of an investigation, pending or future. Mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject or others that their activities are under, or may become the subject of, an investigation. This could enable the subjects to avoid detection, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy records, or to fabricate testimony.
</P>
<P>(G) Exempt portions of this system containing screening board reports.
</P>
<P>(H) Screening board reports set forth the results of oral examination of applicants for a position as a special agent with the Naval Investigation Service Command. Disclosure of these records would reveal the areas pursued in the course of the examination and thus adversely affect the result of the selection process. Equally important, the records contain the candid views of the members composing the board. Release of the records could affect the willingness of the members to provide candid opinions and thus diminish the effectiveness of a program which is essential to maintaining the high standards of the Special Agent Corps., <I>i.e.,</I> those records constituting examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment in the Federal Service.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05520-5, Personnel Security Program Management Records System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (d)(1-5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Granting individuals access to information collected and maintained in this system of records could result in the disclosure of classified material; and jeopardize the safety of informants, and their families. Further, the integrity of the system must be ensured so that complete and accurate records of all adjudications are maintained. Amendment could cause alteration of the record of adjudication.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(15) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05580-1, Security Incident System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(2), and (e)(4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f) and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Granting individuals access to information collected and maintained by this component relating to the enforcement of criminal laws could interfere with orderly administration of justice, and possibly enable suspects to avoid detection or apprehension. Disclosure of this information could result in concealment, destruction, or fabrication of evidence, and jeopardize the safety and well being of informants, witnesses and their families, and of law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information could also reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by this component, and could result in the invasion of privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation. The exemption of the individual's right of access to his or her records, and the reason therefore, necessitate the exemption of this system of records from the requirements of other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(17) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05800-1, Legal Office Litigation/Correspondence Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(E) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7), but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(F) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (d), (e)(1), and (f)(2), (3), and (4).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Subsection (d) because granting individuals access to information relating to the preparation and conduct of litigation would impair the development and implementation of legal strategy. Accordingly, such records are exempt under the attorney-client privilege. Disclosure might also compromise on-going investigations and reveal confidential informants. Additionally, granting access to the record subject would seriously impair the Navy's ability to negotiate settlements or pursue other civil remedies. Amendment is inappropriate because the litigation files contain official records including transcripts, court orders, investigatory materials, evidentiary materials such as exhibits, decisional memorandum and other case-related papers. Administrative due process could not be achieved by the “ex parte” correction of such materials.
</P>
<P>(B) Subsection (e)(1) because it is not possible in all instances to determine relevancy or necessity of specific information in the early stages of case development. What appeared relevant and necessary when collected, ultimately may be deemed unnecessary upon assessment in the context of devising legal strategy. Information collected during civil litigation investigations which is not used during subject case is often retained to provide leads in other cases or to establish patterns of activity.
</P>
<P>(C) Subsections (f)(2), (3), and (4) because this record system is exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(18) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01000-5, Naval Clemency and Parole Board Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(B) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(4), (d), (e)(4)(G), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Granting individuals access to records maintained by this Board could interfere with internal processes by which Board personnel are able to formulate decisions and policies with regard to clemency and parole in cases involving naval prisoners and other persons under the jurisdiction of the Board. Material will be screened to permit access to all material except such records or documents as reflecting items of opinion, conclusion, or recommendation expressed by individual board members or by the board as a whole.
</P>
<P>(B) The exemption of the individual's right to access to portions of these records, and the reasons therefore, necessitate the partial exemption of this system of records from the requirements of the other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N01752-1, Family Advocacy Program System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (c)(3) and (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Exemption is needed in order to encourage persons having knowledge of abusive or neglectful acts toward children to report such information, and to protect such sources from embarrassment or recriminations, as well as to protect their right to privacy. It is essential that the identities of all individuals who furnish information under an express promise of confidentiality be protected. Additionally, granting individuals access to information relating to criminal and civil law enforcement, as well as the release of certain disclosure accounting, could interfere with ongoing investigations and the orderly administration of justice, in that it could result in the concealment, alteration, destruction, or fabrication of information; could hamper the identification of offenders or alleged offenders and the disposition of charges; and could jeopardize the safety and well-being of parents and their children.
</P>
<P>(B) Exempted portions of this system also contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for Federal employment and Federal contracts, and that was obtained by providing an express or implied promise to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N12930-1, Human Resources Group Personnel Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) Portions of this system of records are exempt from the following subsections of the Privacy Act: (d), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Exempted portions of this system contain information considered relevant and necessary to make a determination as to qualifications, eligibility, or suitability for Federal employment, and was obtained by providing express or implied promise to the source that his or her identity would not be revealed to the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(B) Exempted portions of this system also contain test or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal Service, the disclosure of which would comprise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05813-4, Trial/Government Counsel Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Parts of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Portions of this system of records that may be exempt pursuant to subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) are (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(5), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exemption.</I> Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DOD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Portions of this system of records that may be exempt pursuant to subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(2) are (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because release of accounting of disclosure could place the subject of an investigation on notice that he/she is under investigation and provide him/her with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (c)(4), (d), (e)(4)(G), and (e)(4)(H) because granting individuals access to information collected and maintained for purposes relating to the enforcement of laws could interfere with proper investigations and orderly administration of justice. Granting individuals access to information relating to the preparation and conduct of criminal prosecution would impair the development and implementation of legal strategy. Amendment is inappropriate because the trial/Government counsel files contain official records including transcripts, court orders, and investigatory materials such as exhibits, decisional memorandum and other case-related papers. Disclosure of this information could result in the concealment, alteration or destruction of evidence, the identification of offenders or alleged offenders, nature and disposition of charges; and jeopardize the safety and well-being of informants, witnesses and their families, and law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information could also reveal and render in effective investigation techniques, sources, and methods used by law enforcement personnel, and could result in the invasion of privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible in all instances to determine relevancy or necessity of specific information in the early stages of case development. Information collected during criminal investigations and prosecutions and not used during the subject case is often retained to provide leads in other cases.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because in criminal or other law enforcement investigations, the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent practicable from the subject individual would alert the subject as to the nature or existence of an investigation, presenting a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because compliance would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement in that it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation or reveal the identity of witnesses or confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because the identity of specific sources must be withheld in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and other law enforcement information. This exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for law enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would restrict the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in reporting on investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because compliance would provide an impediment to law enforcement by interfering with the ability to issue warrants or subpoenas and by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, or evidence.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) and (g) because this record system is exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(J) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the DON will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by the DON's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered, the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(22)-(23) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(24) <I>System identifier and name.</I> N05800-2, Professional Responsibility Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C 552a: (c)(3), (d)(1) through (5), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reason.</I> The reason for asserting this exemption (k)(2) is to ensure the integrity of the litigation process.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NM03800-1, Naval Global Maritime, Foreign, Counterterrorism and Counter Intelligence Operation Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. An exemption rule for this system has been promulgated in accordance with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(1), (2) and (3)(c) and (e) and is published as 32 CFR part 701.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reason.</I> The reason for asserting this exemption is ensure the integrity of the security and investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes by the Department of the Navy and the Department of Defense.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 31431, June 14, 2021; 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.17" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.18" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.18   Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> There are two types of exemptions, general and specific. The general exemption authorizes the exemption of a system of records from all but a few requirements of the Privacy Act. The specific exemption authorizes exemption of a system of records or portion thereof, from only a few specific requirements. If a new system of records originates for which an exemption is proposed, or an additional or new exemption for an existing system of records is proposed, the exemption shall be submitted with the system of records notice. No exemption of a system of records shall be considered automatic for all records in the system. The systems manager shall review each requested record and apply the exemptions only when this will serve significant and legitimate Government purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> (1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> RDCAA 900.1, DCAA Internal Review Case Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portions of this system of records which fall under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because disclosures from this system could interfere with the just, thorough and timely resolution of the complaint or inquiry, and possibly enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying or fabricating evidence or documents.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because disclosures from this system could interfere with the just, thorough and timely resolution of the complaint or inquiry, and possibly enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying or fabricating evidence or documents. Disclosures could also subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which jeopardize the safety and well-being of themselves and their families.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the investigation functions creates unique problems in prescribing specific parameters in a particular case as to what information is relevant or necessary. Due to close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, state, local, foreign country law enforcement agencies, and other governmental agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another government agency. It is necessary to maintain this information in order to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(4)(G) through (H) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.19" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.19   Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 5 U.S.C. 552a(3)(j) and (3)(k) authorize an agency head to exempt certain systems of records or parts of certain systems of records from some of the requirements of the act. This part reserves to the Director, DISA, as head of an agency, the right to create exemptions pursuant to the exemption provisions of the act. All systems of records maintained by DISA shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 11652, “Classification and Declassification of National Security Information and Material,” dated March 8, 1972 (37 FR 10053, May 19, 1972) and which is required by the executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions may contain isolated information which has been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> K890.23, DISA Inspector General Investigative Tracker (DIGit).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(2)and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> To ensure the integrity of the privacy and civil liberties process. The execution requires that information be provided in a free and open manner without fear of retribution or harassment in order to facilitate a just, thorough, and timely resolution of the complaint or inquiry. Disclosures from this system can enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying, or fabricating evidence or documents. In addition, disclosures can subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which may cause individuals not to seek redress for wrongs through privacy and civil liberties channels for fear of retribution or harassment.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.20" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.20   Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All systems of records maintained by the Director Intelligence Agency shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not specifically designated for exemption may contain isolated information which has been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Defense Intelligence Agency, designated the systems of records listed below for exemptions under the specified provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Pub. L. 93-579).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identification and name:</I> LDIA 0271, Investigations and Complaints.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k) (2) and (5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> The reasons for asserting these exemptions are to ensure the integrity of the Inspector General process within the Agency. The execution requires that information be provided in a free and open manner without fear of retribution or harassment in order to facilitate a just, thorough and timely resolution of the complaint or inquiry. Disclosures from this system can enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying or fabricating evidence or documents. Also, disclosures can subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which may cause individuals not to seek redress for wrongs through Inspector General channels for fear of retribution or harassment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> LDIA 13-0001, Conflict Management Programs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (k)(2) and (k)(5)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Claiming these exemptions ensures the integrity of the conflict management process. The execution requires that information be provided in a free and open manner without fear of retribution or harassment in order to facilitate a just, thorough, and timely resolution of the complaint or inquiry. Disclosures from this system can enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying, or fabricating evidence or documents. In addition, disclosures can subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which may cause individuals to not seek redress for wrongs through available channels for fear of retribution or harassment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> LDIA 0660, Security and Counterintelligence Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5) and (k)(6) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5) and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> The reasons for asserting these exemptions are to ensure the integrity of the adjudication process used by the Agency to determine the suitability, eligibility or qualification for Federal service with the Agency and to make determinations concerning the questions of access to classified materials and activities. The proper execution of this function requires that the Agency have the ability to obtain candid and necessary information in order to fully develop or resolve pertinent information developed in the process. Potential sources, out of fear or retaliation, exposure or other action, may be unwilling to provide needed information or may not be sufficiently frank to be a value in personnel screening, thereby seriously interfering with the proper conduct and adjudication of such matters; and protects information used for medical, psychological evaluations, security questionnaires and polygraph testing.
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> LDIA 10-0002, Foreign Intelligence and Counterintelligence Operation Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(6)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) The specific sections of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which the system is to be exempted are 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3) and (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(5), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to an accounting of disclosures as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prospective interest by DIA or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (c)(4), (d), and (f) because providing access to this information could result in the concealment, destruction or fabrication of evidence and jeopardize the safety and well being of informants, witnesses and their families, and law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information could also reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by this component and could result in the invasion of privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation. Investigatory material is exempt to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished the information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to September 27, 1975 under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. This exemption will protect the identities of certain sources that would be otherwise unwilling to provide information to the Government. The exemption of the individual's right of access to his/her records and the reasons therefore necessitate the exemptions of this system of records from the requirements of the other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise). In addition, this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to the individual and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (g) because this system of records should be exempt to the extent that the civil remedies relate to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which this rule exempts the system.
</P>
<P>(7)-(9) [Reserved]






</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> LDIA 0209, Litigation Case Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. This exemption provides limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d)(1)(2)(3)(4)(5), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I). Exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case records in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those `other' systems of records are entered into this case record, the Defense Intelligence Agency hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those `other' systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary systems of records, which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> The reason for asserting these exemptions (k)(2) and (k)(5) is to ensure the integrity of the litigation process.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> LDIA 10-0004 Occupational, Safety, Health, and Environmental Management Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this record system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) (k)(4) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3); (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), (d)(4), (d)(5); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I); (f)(1), (f)(2), (f)(2), (f)(3), (f)(4), (f)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> The reasons for asserting these exemptions are to ensure the integrity of an investigative or administrative process and to protect statistical records. The execution requires that information be provided in a free and open manner without fear of retribution or harassment in order to facilitate a just, thorough, and timely resolution during an investigation or administrative action. Disclosures from this system can enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying, or fabricating evidence or documents. In addition, disclosures can subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which may cause individuals to not to seek redress for concerns about occupational safety, health, environmental issues and accident reporting. Information is used to comply regulatory reporting requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 31431, June 14, 2021; 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023; 89 FR 5095, Jan. 26, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.21" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.21   Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, DLA or designee may claim an exemption from any provision of the Privacy Act from which an exemption is allowed.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual is not entitled to access information that is compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. The term “civil action or proceeding” is intended to include court proceedings, preliminary judicial steps, and quasi-judicial administrative hearings or proceedings (<I>i.e.,</I> adversarial proceedings that are subject to rules of evidence). Any information prepared in anticipation of such actions or proceedings, to include information prepared to advise DLA officials of the possible legal or other consequences of a given course of action, is protected. The exemption is similar to the attorney work-product privilege except that it applies even when the information is prepared by non-attorneys. The exemption does not apply to information compiled in anticipation of criminal actions or proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt Records Systems.</I> All systems of records maintained by the Defense Logistics Agency will be exempt from the access provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) and the notification of access procedures of 5 U.S.C. 522a(e)(4)(H) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 13526 and which is required by the Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all DLA systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein may contain isolated items of information which have been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S170.04 (Specific exemption), Debarment and Suspension Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). If an individual, however, is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) The specific sections of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which the system is exempt are 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), as granting access to the accounting for each disclosure, as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of an investigation or prosecutive interest by DLA or other agencies. This seriously could compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or making witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (4) and (f), as providing access to records of a civil investigation, and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein, would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of an investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would: Allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach to satisfy any Government claim arising from the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H), as there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records would be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments and corrections to the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I), as to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. DLA, nevertheless, will continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S500.10 (Specific exemption), Personnel Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d), when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential source to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it would impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources may be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S500.20 (Specific exemption), Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Criminal Incident Reporting System (DCIRS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). If an individual, however, is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) The specific sections of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which the system is to be exempted are 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3), as to grant access to an accounting of disclosures as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutive interest by DLA or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by: Prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromising or interfering with witnesses or making witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and leading to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) and (f), as providing access to this information could result in the concealment, destruction or fabrication of evidence and jeopardize the safety and wellbeing of informants, witnesses and their families, and law enforcement personnel and their families. Disclosure of this information also could reveal and render ineffectual investigative techniques, sources, and methods used by this component and could result in the invasion of privacy of individuals only incidentally related to an investigation. Investigatory material is exempt to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished the information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. This exemption will protect the identities of certain sources that would be otherwise unwilling to provide information to the Government. The exemption of the individual's right of access to his/her records and the reasons therefore necessitate the exemptions of this system of records from the requirements of the other cited provisions.
</P>
<P>(C) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), as it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the ongoing investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place in jeopardy confidential informants who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S500.30 (Specific exemption), Incident Investigation/Police Inquiry Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). If an individual, however, is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information, except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(4)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) The specific sections of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which the system is exempt are 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutive interest by DLA or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by: Prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromising or interfering with witnesses or making witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and leading to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (d)(4), and (f), as providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation, and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein, would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would: Provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach to satisfy any Government claim arising from the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H), as this system of records is compiled for law enforcement purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I), because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. DLA, nevertheless, will continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S500.60 (Specific exemption), Defense Logistics Agency Enterprise Hotline Program Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). If an individual, however, is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information, except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) The specific sections of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which the system is exempt are 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3), as to grant access to an accounting of disclosures as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutive interest by DLA or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or making witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (4) and (f), as providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation, and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein, would interfere seriously with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow: Interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach to satisfy any Government claim arising from the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H), as this system of records is compiled for law enforcement purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I), as to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. DLA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(6) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> S240.28 DoD (Specific exemption), Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1)(2)(3)(4), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d)(1)(2)(3)(4), when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential source to be revealed. Disclosure of the confidential source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the express promise of confidentiality made to the source but it would impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources may be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), as in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019; 84 FR 16210, Apr. 18, 2019; as amended at 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.22" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.22   Defense Security Service (DSS) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Director of the Defense Security Service establishes the following exemptions of records systems (or portions thereof) from the provisions of these rules, and other indicated portions of Public Law 93-579, in this section. They may be exercised only by the Director, Defense Security Service and the Chief of the Office of FOI and Privacy. Exemptions will be exercised only when necessary for a specific, significant and legitimate reason connected with the purpose of a records system, and not simply because they are authorized by statute. Personal records releasable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552 will not be withheld from subject individuals based on these exemptions.
</P>
<P>(b) All systems of records maintained by DSS shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and which is required by the Executive Order to be withheld in the interest of national defense of foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein may contain items of information that have been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> V5-01, Investigative Files System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals under 18 U.S.C. 3506, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) Any portion of this system that falls under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(3), or (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(3), or (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because it will enable DSS to conduct certain investigations and relay law enforcement information without compromise of the information, protection of investigative techniques and efforts employed, and identities of confidential sources who might not otherwise come forward and who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material including certain reciprocal investigations and counterintelligence information, which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(C) From subsections (d) and (f) because requiring DSS to grant access to records and agency rules for access and amendment of records would unfairly impede the agency's investigation of allegations of unlawful activities. To require DSS to confirm or deny the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> V5-02, Defense Clearance and Investigations Index (DCII).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Any portion of this system that falls under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because it will enable DSS to conduct certain investigations and relay law enforcement information without compromise of the information, protection of investigative techniques and efforts employed, and identities of confidential sources who might not otherwise come forward and who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material including certain reciprocal investigations and counterintelligence information, which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(C) From subsections (d) and (f) because requiring DSS to grant access to records and agency rules for access and amendment of records would unfairly impede the agency's investigation of allegations of unlawful activities. To require DSS to confirm or deny the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> V5-03, Case Control Management System (CCMS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Any portion of this system that falls under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) or (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because it will enable DSS to conduct certain investigations and relay law enforcement information without compromise of the information, protection of investigative techniques and efforts employed, and identities of confidential sources who might not otherwise come forward and who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material including certain reciprocal investigations and counterintelligence information, which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).
</P>
<P>(C) From subsections (d) and (f) because requiring DSS to grant access to records and agency rules for access and amendment of records would unfairly impede the agency's investigation of allegations of unlawful activities. To require DSS to confirm or deny the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(5)-(6) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023; 89 FR 5095, Jan. 26, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.23" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.23   Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DTRA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption for classified material.</I> All systems of records maintained by the Defense Threat Reduction Agency shall be exempt under section (k)(1) of 5 U.S.C. 552a, to the extent that the systems contain any information properly classified under E.O. 12598 and that is required by that E.O. to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein which contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> HDTRA 007, Security Operations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system of records may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because it will enable DTRA to safeguard certain investigations and relay law enforcement information without compromise of the information, and protect the identities of confidential sources who might not otherwise come forward and who have furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise.)
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d)(1) through (d)(4) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with, and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of security investigations. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material including certain reciprocal investigations and counterintelligence information, which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information; under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> HDTRA 011, Inspector General Investigation Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system of records may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1) through (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because it will enable DTRA to conduct certain investigations and relay law enforcement information without compromise of the information, protection of investigative techniques and efforts employed, and identities of confidential sources who might not otherwise come forward and who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise.)
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d)(1) through (d)(4) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) because it will provide protection against notification of investigatory material including certain reciprocal investigations and counterintelligence information, which might alert a subject to the fact that an investigation of that individual is taking place, and the disclosure of which would weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy who furnished information under an express promise that the sources' identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Act, under an implied promise).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.24" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.24   National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt systems of record.</I> All systems of records maintained by the NGA and its components shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and that is required by Executive Order to be withheld in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records, including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein, which contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> B0210-07, Inspector General Investigative and Complaint Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by the NGA or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NGA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, NGA will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NGA's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal or civil violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered; the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated in this paragraph. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NGA-004, NGA Threat Mitigation Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Exempt materials from JUSTICE/FBI—019 Terrorist Screening Records System may become part of the case records in this system of records. To the extent that copies of exempt records from JUSTICE/FBI—019, Terrorist Screening Records System are entered into these Threat Mitigation case records, NGA hereby claims the same exemptions (j)(2) and (k)(2), for the records as claimed in JUSTICE/FBI—019, Terrorist Screening Records system of records of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(B) Information specifically authorized to be classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(C) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(2), and (k)(5) NGA is claiming the following exemptions for certain records within the Threat Mitigation Records system: 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1), (2), (3), (4)(G) through (I), (5), and (8); (f), and (g). Additionally, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(2), NGA has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act, subject to the limitation set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I); and (f). Exemptions from these particular subsections are justified, on a case-by-case basis to be determined at the time a request is made.
</P>
<P>(B) In addition to records under the control of NGA, the Threat Mitigation system of records may include records originating from systems of records of other law enforcement and intelligence agencies which may be exempt from certain provisions of the Privacy Act. However, NGA does not assert exemption to any provisions of the Privacy Act with respect to information submitted by or on behalf of individuals.
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent the Threat Mitigation system contains records originating from other systems of records, NGA will rely on the exemptions claimed for those records in the originating system of records. Exemptions for certain records within the Threat Mitigation system from particular subsections of the Privacy Act are justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) From subsection (c)(3) (Accounting for Disclosures) because giving a record subject access to the accounting of disclosures from records concerning him or her could reveal investigative interest on the part of the recipient agency that obtained the record pursuant to a routine use. Disclosure of the accounting could therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement efforts on the part of the recipient agency because the individual who is the subject of the record would learn of third agency investigative interests and could take steps to evade detection or apprehension. Disclosure of the accounting also could reveal the details of watch list matching measures under the Threat Mitigation system, as well as capabilities and vulnerabilities of the watch list matching process, the release of which could permit an individual to evade future detection and thereby impede efforts to ensure security.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) From subsection (c)(4) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) From subsection (d) (Access to Records) because access to the records contained in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of Department of Homeland Security or another agency. Access to the records could permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing investigations and law enforcement activities and would impose an unreasonable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated. In addition, permitting access and amendment to such information could disclose security sensitive information that could be detrimental to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible for NGA or other agencies to know in advance what information is both relevant and necessary for it to complete an identity comparison between individuals and a known or suspected terrorist. In addition, because NGA and other agencies may not always know what information about an encounter with a known or suspected terrorist will be relevant to law enforcement for the purpose of conducting an operational response.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) From subsection (e)(2) because application of this provision could present a serious impediment to counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence efforts in that it would put the subject of an investigation, study or analysis on notice of that fact, thereby permitting the subject to engage in conduct designed to frustrate or impede that activity. The nature of counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence investigations is such that vital information about an individual frequently can be obtained only from other persons who are familiar with such individual and his/her activities. In such investigations, it is not feasible to rely upon information furnished by the individual concerning his own activities.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) From subsection (e)(3), to the extent that this subsection is interpreted to require NGA to provide notice to an individual if NGA or another agency receives or collects information about that individual during an investigation or from a third party. Should the subsection be so interpreted, exemption from this provision is necessary to avoid impeding counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence efforts by putting the subject of an investigation, study or analysis on notice of that fact, thereby permitting the subject to engage in conduct intended to frustrate or impede that activity.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and (I) (Agency Requirements) and (f) (Agency Rules), because this system is exempt from the access provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) From subsection (e)(5) because many of the records in this system coming from other system of records are derived from other agency record systems and therefore it is not possible for NGA to ensure their compliance with this provision, however, NGA has implemented internal quality assurance procedures to ensure that data used in the matching process is as thorough, accurate, and current as possible. In addition, in the collection of information for law enforcement, counterterrorism, and intelligence purposes, it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light. The restrictions imposed by (e)(5) would limit the ability of those agencies' trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in conducting investigations and impede the development of intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement and counterterrorism efforts. However, NGA has implemented internal quality assurance procedures to ensure that the data used in the matching process is as thorough, accurate, and current as possible.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) From subsection (e)(8) because to require individual notice of disclosure of information due to compulsory legal process would pose an impossible administrative burden on NGA and other agencies and could alert the subjects of counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence investigations to the fact of those investigations when not previously known.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) From subsection (f) (Agency Rules) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) From subsection (g) to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NGA-003, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency Enterprise Workforce System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the Director of NGA has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act, subject to the limitation set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I); and (f). Exemptions from these particular subsections are justified, on a case-by-case basis to be determined at the time a request is made, for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) From subsection (c)(3) and (c)(4) (Accounting for Disclosures) because release of the accounting of disclosures could alert the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA as well as the recipient agency. Disclosure of the accounting would therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement efforts and/or efforts to preserve national security. Disclosure of the accounting would also permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which would undermine the entire investigative process.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) (Access to Records) because access to the records contained in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA or another agency. Access to the records could permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing investigations and law enforcement activities and would impose an unreasonable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated. In addition, permitting access and amendment to such information could disclose security-sensitive information that could be detrimental to homeland security.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) (Relevancy and Necessity of Information) because in the course of investigations into potential violations of Federal law, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to a specific investigation. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) (Collection of Information from Individuals) because requiring that information be collected from the subject of an investigation would alert the subject to the nature or existence of the investigation, thereby interfering with that investigation and related law enforcement activities.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) (Notice to Subjects) because providing such detailed information could impede law enforcement by compromising the existence of a confidential investigation or reveal the identity of witnesses or confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I) (Agency Requirements) and (f) (Agency Rules), because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, and therefore NGA is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access. Providing notice to individuals with respect to existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access and view records pertaining to themselves in the system would undermine investigative efforts and reveal the identities of witnesses, and potential witnesses, and confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) (Collection of Information) because with the collection of information for law enforcement purposes, it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. Compliance with subsection (e)(5) would preclude NGA personnel from using their investigative training and exercise of good judgment to both conduct and report on investigations.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) (Notice on Individuals) because compliance would interfere with NGA's ability to cooperate with law enforcement who would obtain, serve, and issue subpoenas, warrants, and other law enforcement mechanisms that may be filed under seal and could result in disclosure of investigative techniques, procedures, and evidence.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (g)(1) (Civil Remedies) to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NGA-008, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency Polygraph Records System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(4)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the Director of NGA has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act, subject to the limitation set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I); and (f). Exemptions from these particular subsections are justified, on a case-by-case basis to be determined at the time a request is made, for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) From subsection (c)(3) and (c)(4) (Accounting for Disclosures) because release of the accounting of disclosures could alert the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA as well as the recipient agency. Disclosure of the accounting would therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement efforts and/or efforts to preserve national security. Disclosure of the accounting would also permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which would undermine the entire investigative process.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) (Access to Records) because access to the records contained in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA or another agency. Access to the records could permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing investigations and law enforcement activities and would impose an unreasonable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated. In addition, permitting access and amendment to such information could disclose security-sensitive information that could be detrimental to homeland security.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) (Relevancy and Necessity of Information) because in the course of investigations into potential violations of Federal law, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to a specific investigation. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) (Collection of Information from Individuals) because requiring that information be collected from the subject of an investigation would alert the subject to the nature or existence of the investigation, thereby interfering with that investigation and related law enforcement activities.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) (Notice to Subjects) because providing such detailed information could impede law enforcement by compromising the existence of a confidential investigation or reveal the identity of witnesses or confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I) (Agency Requirements) and (f) (Agency Rules), because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, and therefore NGA is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access. Providing notice to individuals with respect to existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access and view records pertaining to themselves in the system would undermine investigative efforts and reveal the identities of witnesses, and potential witnesses, and confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) (Collection of Information) because with the collection of information for law enforcement purposes, it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. Compliance with subsection (e)(5) would preclude NGA personnel from using their investigative training and exercise of good judgment to both conduct and report on investigations.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) (Notice on Individuals) because compliance would interfere with NGA's ability to cooperate with law enforcement who would obtain, serve, and issue subpoenas, warrants, and other law enforcement mechanisms that may be filed under seal and could result in disclosure of investigative techniques, procedures, and evidence.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (g)(1) (Civil Remedies) to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NGA-010, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency Security Financial Disclosure Reporting Records System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), and (k)(5) the Director of NGA has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act, subject to the limitation set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I); and (f). Exemptions from these particular subsections are justified, on a case-by-case basis to be determined at the time a request is made, for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) From subsection (c)(3) (Accounting for Disclosures) because release of the accounting of disclosures could alert the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA as well as the recipient agency. Disclosure of the accounting would therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement efforts and/or efforts to preserve national security. Disclosure of the accounting would also permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which would undermine the entire investigative process. Analyst case notes will be kept separate from the individual's data submission. Those case notes will contain investigative case leads and summaries, sensitive processes, evidence gathered from external sources and potential referrals to law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) (Access to Records) because access to the records contained in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of NGA or another agency. Access to the records could permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing investigations and law enforcement activities and would impose an unreasonable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continually reinvestigated. In addition, permitting access and amendment to such information could disclose security-sensitive information that could be detrimental to homeland security.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) (Relevancy and Necessity of Information) because in the course of investigations into potential violations of Federal law, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to a specific investigation. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I) (Agency Requirements) and (f) (Agency Rules), because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, and therefore NGA is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access. Providing notice to individuals with respect to existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access and view records pertaining to themselves in the system would undermine investigative efforts and reveal the identities of witnesses, and potential witnesses, and confidential informants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.25" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.25   National Guard Bureau (NGB) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> There are two types of exemptions, general and specific. The general exemption authorizes the exemption of a SOR from all but a few requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a. The specific exemption authorizes exemption of a SOR or portion thereof, from only a few specific requirements. If a new SOR originates for which an exemption is proposed, or an additional or new exemption for an existing SOR is proposed, the exemption shall be submitted with the SORN. No exemption of a SOR shall be considered automatic for all records in the system. The System Manager shall review each requested records and apply the exemptions only when this will serve significant and legitimate purpose of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for classified material.</I> All SOR maintained by the NGB shall be exempt under section (k)(1) of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent that the systems contain any information properly classified under Executive Order 13526 and that is required by that Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein which contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.</I> All systems of records maintained by the NGB shall be exempt under section (d)(5) of 5 U.S.C. 552a, to the extent that the record is compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General exemptions.</I> No SOR within the NGB shall be considered exempt under subsection (j) or (k) of 5 U.S.C. 552a until the exemption rule for the SOR has been published as a final rule in the FR.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> INGB 005, Special Investigation Reports and Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a SOR used in personnel or administrative actions. Any portion of this SOR which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) of 5 U.S.C. 552a because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under 5 U.S.C. 552a would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) of 5 U.S.C. 552a because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) of 5 U.S.C. 552a because this SOR is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) of 5 U.S.C. 552a because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, 88 FR 42236, June 30, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.26" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.26   National Reconnaissance Office (NRO) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All systems of records maintained by the NRO shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and which is required by the Executive Order to be withheld in the interest of national defense of foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein may contain items of information that have been properly classified.
</P>
<P>(b) No system of records within the NRO shall be considered exempt under subsection (j) or (k) of the Privacy Act until the exemption and the exemption rule for the system of records has been published as a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual is not entitled to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding (5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5)).
</P>
<P>(d) Proposals to exempt a system of records will be forwarded to the Defense Privacy Office, consistent with the requirements of this part, for review and action.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-23, Counterintelligence Issue Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by NRO or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d)(1) through (d)(4), and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for law enforcement purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NRO will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the NRO will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NRO's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered, the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-10, Inspector General Investigative Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> This system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) if the information is compiled and maintained by a component of the agency which performs as its principle function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. Any portion of this system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of accounting of disclosure would inform a subject that he or she is under investigation. This information would provide considerable advantage to the subject in providing him or her with knowledge concerning the nature of the investigation and the coordinated investigative efforts and techniques employed by the cooperating agencies. This would greatly impede the NRO IG's criminal law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) and (d), because notification would alert a subject to the fact that an open investigation on that individual is taking place, and might weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigative techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, due to NRO IG's close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, state, local and foreign country law enforcement agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity, which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal and/or civil investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal and/or civil investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(4) (G) through (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (g) because this system of records should be exempt to the extent that the civil remedies relate to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which this rule exempts the system.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection (j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by the NRO or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NRO will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the NRO will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NRO's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal or civil violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered, the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-15, Facility Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigative material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by the NRO or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d)(1) through (d)(4), and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NRO will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the NRO will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NRO's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal or civil violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered; the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-19, Customer Security Services Personnel Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by the NRO or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d)(1) through (d)(4), and (f) because providing access to investigatory records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigatory purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NRO will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the NRO will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NRO's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal or civil violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered; the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated in this paragraph. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> NRO-21, Personnel Security Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Therefore, portions of this system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and/or (k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation or prosecutable interest by the NRO or other agencies. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d)(1) through (d)(4), and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for law enforcement purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NRO will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(F) Consistent with the legislative purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974, the NRO will grant access to nonexempt material in the records being maintained. Disclosure will be governed by NRO's Privacy Regulation, but will be limited to the extent that the identity of confidential sources will not be compromised; subjects of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation will not be alerted to the investigation; the physical safety of witnesses, informants and law enforcement personnel will not be endangered; the privacy of third parties will not be violated; and that the disclosure would not otherwise impede effective law enforcement. Whenever possible, information of the above nature will be deleted from the requested documents and the balance made available. The controlling principle behind this limited access is to allow disclosures except those indicated above. The decisions to release information from these systems will be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-4, Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the processing of a Freedom of Information Act/Privacy Act request, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the NRO hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided the President and others are not compromised, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, and to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal evaluation materials. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> QNRO-27, Legal Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this system of records which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because to grant access to the accounting for each disclosure as required by the Privacy Act, including the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure and the identity of the recipient, could alert the subject to the existence of the investigation. This could seriously compromise case preparation by prematurely revealing its existence and nature; compromise or interfere with witnesses or make witnesses reluctant to cooperate; and lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to investigative records and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019; 84 FR 16210, Apr. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.27" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.27   National Security Agency (NSA) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exemption.</I> The general exemption established by 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be claimed to protect investigative records created and maintained by law enforcement activities of the NSA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> The specific exemptions permit certain categories of records to be exempt from certain specific provisions of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and that is required by Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemption (k)(2).</I> Investigatory information compiled for law-enforcement purposes by non-law enforcement activities and which is not within the scope of § 310.51(a). If an individual is denied any right, privilege or benefit that he or she is otherwise entitled by federal law or for which he or she would otherwise be eligible as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. This subsection when claimed allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exemption (k)(3).</I> Records maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President and other individuals identified under 18 U.S.C. 3506.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exemption (k)(4).</I> Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exemption (k)(5).</I> Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source. This provision allows protection of confidential sources used in background investigations, employment inquiries, and similar inquiries that are for personnel screening to determine suitability, eligibility, or qualifications.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exemption (k)(6).</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the federal or military service, if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exemption (k)(7).</I> Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the Military Services, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(c) All systems of records maintained by the NSA/CSS and its components shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and that is required by Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption is applicable to parts of all systems of records including those not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions herein, which contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 01, Access, Authority and Release of Information File.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential sources to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 02, Applicants.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential source to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 03, Correspondence, Cases, Complaints, Visitors, Requests.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 04, Military Reserve Personnel Data Base.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential sources to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 05, Equal Employment Opportunity Data.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(4) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 06, Health, Medical and Safety Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 08, Payroll and Claims.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(7)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 09, Personnel File.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 10, Personnel Security File.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(9)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(D) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5), and (k)(6) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(5), and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 12, Training.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process.
</P>
<P>(C) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) and (k)(6) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), and (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 29 (General Exemption), NSA/CSS Office of Inspector General Investigations and Complaints.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(11)(<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions. Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) through (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential source to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations
</P>
<P>(12) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 14, Library Patron File Control System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(B) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 15, Computer Users Control System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(13)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 17, Employee Assistance Service (EAS) Case Record System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(14)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments to and corrections of the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 18, Operations Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(15)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(C) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because there is no necessity for such publication since the system of records will be exempt from the underlying duties to provide notification about and access to information in the system and to make amendments and corrections to the information in the system.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. NSA will, nevertheless, continue to publish such a notice in broad generic terms, as is its current practice.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 20, NSA Police Operational Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(16)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(D) All portions of this system of records which fall within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5) may be exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), (k)(4), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(17) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(18) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 25, NSA/CSS Operations Travel Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(18)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) (k)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 26, NSA/CSS Accounts Receivable, Indebtedness and Claims.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of the information, the individual will be provided access to the information exempt to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(19)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A).</HED>
<P>When claimed, this exemption allows limited protection of investigative reports maintained in a system of records used in personnel or administrative actions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Records maintained solely for statistical research or program evaluation purposes and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or entitlement of an individual except for census records which may be disclosed under 13 U.S.C. 8, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) (k)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of the disclosure accounting would place the subject of an investigation on notice that they are under investigation and provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation, thus resulting in a serious impediment to law enforcement investigations.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d) and (f) because providing access to records of a civil or administrative investigation and the right to contest the contents of those records and force changes to be made to the information contained therein would seriously interfere with and thwart the orderly and unbiased conduct of the investigation and impede case preparation. Providing access rights normally afforded under the Privacy Act would provide the subject with valuable information that would allow interference with or compromise of witnesses or render witnesses reluctant to cooperate; lead to suppression, alteration, or destruction of evidence; enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation; and result in the secreting of or other disposition of assets that would make them difficult or impossible to reach in order to satisfy any Government claim growing out of the investigation or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of each piece of information in the early stages of an investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other evidence that its relevance and necessity will be clear.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) because this system of records is compiled for investigative purposes and is exempt from the access provisions of subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) because to the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>System identifier and name.</I> GNSA 28 (General Exemption), Freedom of Information Act, Privacy Act and Mandatory Declassification Review Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the processing of letters and other correspondence to the National Security Agency/Central Security Service, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the National Security Agency/Central Security Service hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> During the course of a FOIA/Privacy Act and/or MDR action, exempt materials from other system of records may become part of the case records in this system of records. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are entered into these case records, NSA/CSS hereby claims the same exemptions for the records as claimed in the original primary system of records of which they are a part. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.28" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.28   Office of the Inspector General (OIG) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption for classified records.</I> Any record in a system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I) and (f) to the extent that a record system contains any record properly classified under Executive Order 12958 and that the record is required to be kept classified in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This specific exemption rule, claimed by the Inspector General under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), is applicable to all systems of records maintained, including those individually designated for an exemption herein as well as those not otherwise specifically designated for an exemption, which may contain isolated items of properly classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) The Inspector General of the Department of Defense claims an exemption for the following record systems under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) and (k)(1)-(k)(7) from certain indicated subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974. The exemptions may be invoked and exercised on a case-by-case basis by the Deputy Inspector General for Investigations or the Director, Communications and Congressional Liaison Office, and the Chief, Freedom of Information/Privacy Act Office, which serve as the Systems Program Managers. Exemptions will be exercised only when necessary for a specific, significant and legitimate reason connected with the purpose of the records system.
</P>
<P>(c) No personal records releasable under the provisions of The Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) will be withheld from the subject individual based on these exemptions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-04, Case Control System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of accounting of disclosure would inform a subject that he or she is under investigation. This information would provide considerable advantage to the subject in providing him or her with knowledge concerning the nature of the investigation and the coordinated investigative efforts and techniques employed by the cooperating agencies. This would greatly impede OIG's criminal law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) and (d), because notification would alert a subject to the fact that an open investigation on that individual is taking place, and might weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, due to OIG's close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, state, local and foreign country law enforcement agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal and/or civil investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal and/or civil investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(4) (G) through (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(J) For comparability with the exemption claimed from subsection (f), the civil remedies provisions of subsection (g) must be suspended for this record system. Because of the nature of criminal investigations, standards of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness cannot apply to this record system. Information gathered in an investigation is often fragmentary and leads relating to an individual in the context of one investigation may instead pertain to a second investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-06, Investigative Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4) (G), (H), (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because the release of accounting of disclosure would inform a subject that he or she is under investigation. This information would provide considerable advantage to the subject in providing him or her with knowledge concerning the nature of the investigation and the coordinated investigative efforts and techniques employed by the cooperating agencies. This would greatly impede OIG's criminal law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) and (d), because notification would alert a subject to the fact that an open investigation on that individual is taking place, and might weaken the on-going investigation, reveal investigatory techniques, and place confidential informants in jeopardy.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the criminal and/or civil investigative function creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter in a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, due to OIG's close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, state, local and foreign country law enforcement agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because collecting information to the fullest extent possible directly from the subject individual may or may not be practical in a criminal and/or civil investigation.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal and/or civil investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(4) (G) through (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to law enforcement by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of confidential investigations.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(J) For comparability with the exemption claimed from subsection (f), the civil remedies provisions of subsection (g) must be suspended for this record system. Because of the nature of criminal investigations, standards of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness cannot apply to this record system. Information gathered in an investigation is often fragmentary and leads relating to an individual in the context of one investigation may instead pertain to a second investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-15, Departmental Inquiries Case System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit for which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such information, the individual will be provided access to such information except to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Any portions of this system which fall under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsection of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because disclosures from this system could interfere with the just, thorough and timely resolution of the compliant or inquiry, and possibly enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying or fabricating evidence or documents.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because disclosures from this system could interfere with the just thorough and timely resolution of the compliant or inquiry, and possibly enable individuals to conceal their wrongdoing or mislead the course of the investigation by concealing, destroying or fabricating evidence or documents. Disclosures could also subject sources and witnesses to harassment or intimidation which jeopardize the safety and well-being of themselves and their families.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because the nature of the investigation function creates unique problems in prescribing specific parameters in a particular case as to what information is relevant or necessary. Due to close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, state, local and foreign country law enforcement agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another government agency. It is necessary to maintain this information in order to provide leads for appropriate law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(4) (G) through (H) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (f) because the agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt and would place the burden on the agency of either confirming or denying the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual might in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to an on-going investigation. The conduct of a successful investigation leading to the indictment of a criminal offender precludes the applicability of established agency rules relating to verification of record, disclosure of the record to that individual, and record amendment procedures for this record system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-16, Inspector General Administrative Investigation Records (IGAIR).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(2); (e)(3); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); (e)(5); (e)(8); (f) and (g) of the Privacy Act pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G) and (H); and (f) of the Privacy Act to the extent the records are subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5). This system of records is also exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) to the extent the records are subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2) and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (j)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes, including information identifying criminal offenders and alleged offenders, information compiled for the purpose of criminal investigation, or reports compiled during criminal law enforcement proceedings. Application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties or disciplinary measures; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I> Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation which may impede those actions or investigations; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(5).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. In some cases, such records may contain information pertaining to the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the source's identity would be held in confidence (or prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, under an implied promise). Application of exemption (k)(5) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could identify these confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist the Government; hinder the Government's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of such records could also impose a highly impracticable administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (c)(4), (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2). Accordingly, exemption from subsection (c)(4) is claimed pursuant to (j)(2) and exemptions from subsections (d)(3) and (d)(4) are claimed pursuant to (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for investigatory and law enforcement purposes it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required disciplinary and prosecutorial determinations. Additionally, records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to Executive order. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information from the subject individual could serve notice that he or she is the subject of a criminal investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to such investigations. Collection of information only from the individual accused of criminal activity or misconduct could also subvert discovery of relevant evidence and subvert the course of justice. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To inform individuals as required by this subsection could reveal the existence of a criminal investigation and compromise investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2). Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k2), and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain this information to maintain an accurate record of the investigatory activity to preserve the integrity of the investigation and satisfy various Constitutional and evidentiary requirements, such as mandatory disclosure of potentially exculpatory information in the investigative file to a defendant. It is also necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined through judicial processes. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> To serve notice of records being made available under compulsory legal process could give persons sufficient warning to evade investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Subsection (f).</I> The agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2) and (k)(5) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Subsection (g).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act. Accordingly, an exemption from subsection (g) is claimed pursuant to (j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.


</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-21, Congressional Correspondence Tracking System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the processing of a Congressional inquiry, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the Inspector General, DoD, claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided the President and others are not compromised, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG 23, Public Affairs Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the course of processing a General Counsel action, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case records in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those `other' systems of records are entered into the Public Affairs Files, the Office of the Inspector General hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those `other' systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary systems of records which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), (k)(3), (k)(4), (k)(5), (k)(6), and (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent (A) such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and (B) the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided the President and others are not compromised, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-26, Case Control System-Investigative.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Any portion of this system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), (e)(8), and (g), as applicable. In addition, any portion of this system which falls within the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) or (k)(2) may be exempt from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), as applicable. Exempted records from other systems of records may in-turn become part of the case record in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those `other' systems of records are entered into this system, the DoD OIG claims the same exemptions for the records from those `other' systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part. Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) and (c)(4) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosure of investigations concerning him or her would specifically reveal an investigative interest in the individual. Revealing this information would reasonably be expected to compromise open or closed administrative or criminal investigation efforts to a known or suspected offender by notifying the record subject that he or she is under investigation. This information could also prompt the record subject to take measures to impede the investigation, <I>e.g.,</I> destroy evidence, intimidate potential witnesses, or flee the area to avoid or impede the investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d), because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of certain records contained in this system. Granting access to information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order may cause damage to national security. Additionally, compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation and/or the investigative interest of law enforcement agencies. It can also compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; could identify a confidential source or disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigation or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses. Amendment of open or active investigations would interfere with ongoing law enforcement investigations and analysis activities, and impose an excessive administrative burden by requiring investigations, analyses, and reports to be continuously reinvestigated and revised.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to determine what information is relevant and necessary at an early stage in a given investigation, and because DoD OIG and other agencies may not always know what information about a known or suspected offender may be relevant to law enforcement for the purpose of conducting an operational response. The nature of the criminal and/or administrative law enforcement investigative functions creates unique problems in prescribing a specific parameter and a particular case with respect to what information is relevant or necessary. Also, due to the DoD OIG's close liaison and working relationships with other Federal, State, local and foreign country criminal and administrative law enforcement agencies, information may be received which may relate to a case under the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. The maintenance of this information may be necessary to provide leads for appropriate criminal and administrative law enforcement purposes and to establish patterns of activity which may relate to the jurisdiction of other cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(2) because it is not always in the best interest of law enforcement to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from an investigative subject. Requiring the collection of information to the greatest extent practicable directly from an investigative subject would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be placed on notice of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(3) because supplying an individual with a form containing a Privacy Act Statement would tend to inhibit cooperation by many individuals involved in a criminal investigation. The effect would be somewhat adverse to established investigative methods and techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsections (e)(4)(G) through (I) because this system of records is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the investigative process. It is the nature of criminal law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(8) because the notice requirements of this provision could present a serious impediment to criminal law enforcement investigations by revealing investigative techniques, procedures, and existence of sensitive information and/or confidential sources.
</P>
<P>(I) To the extent that exemptions have been established from other provisions of the Privacy Act, the civil remedies provisions of subsection (g) are inapplicable. The nature of criminal law enforcement investigations and the utilization of authorized exemptions should not increase the Department's exposure to civil litigation under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> CIG-30, “OIG Data Analytics Platform.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(2); (e)(3); (e)(4)(G), (H), and(I); (e)(5); (e)(8); (f) and (g) of the Privacy Act pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act to the extent the records are subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3), (d)(1), and (d)(2)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Exemption (j)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes to include information identifying criminal offenders and alleged offenders, information compiled for the purpose of criminal investigation, or reports compiled during criminal law enforcement proceedings. Application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records to avoid criminal penalties or disciplinary measures; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Exemption (k)(1).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I> Exemption (k)(2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) may be necessary because access to, amendment of, or release of the accounting of disclosures of such records could: inform the record subject of an investigation of the existence, nature, or scope of an actual or potential law enforcement or disciplinary investigation, and thereby seriously impede law enforcement or prosecutorial efforts by permitting the record subject and other persons to whom he might disclose the records or the accounting of records to avoid criminal penalties, civil remedies, or disciplinary measures; interfere with a civil or administrative action or investigation which may impede those actions or investigations; reveal confidential sources who might not have otherwise come forward to assist in an investigation and thereby hinder DoD's ability to obtain information from future confidential sources; and result in an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsection (c)(4), (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that an exemption is being claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2). Accordingly, exemption from subsection (c)(4) is claimed pursuant to (j)(2) and exemptions from subsections (d)(3) and (d)(4) are claimed pursuant to (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the collection of information for investigatory and law enforcement purposes it is not always possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation or adjudication. In some instances, it will be only after the collected information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity for effective investigation and adjudication can be assessed. Collection of such information permits more informed decision-making by the Department when making required disciplinary and prosecutorial determinations. Additionally, records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information from the subject individual could serve notice that he or she is the subject of a criminal investigation and thereby present a serious impediment to such investigations. Collection of information only from the individual accused of criminal activity or misconduct could also subvert discovery of relevant evidence and subvert the course of justice. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To inform individuals as required by this subsection could reveal the existence of a criminal investigation and compromise investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from subsections (d)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad, generic information currently published in the system notice, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information and to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> It is often impossible to determine in advance if investigatory records contained in this system are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, but, in the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain this information to maintain an accurate record of the investigatory activity to preserve the integrity of the investigation and satisfy various Constitutional and evidentiary requirements, such as mandatory disclosure of potentially exculpatory information in the investigative file to a defendant. It is also necessary to retain this information to aid in establishing patterns of activity and provide investigative leads. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light and the accuracy of such information can only be determined through judicial processes. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> To serve notice could give persons sufficient warning to evade investigative efforts. Accordingly, application of exemption (j)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Subsection (f).</I> The agency's rules are inapplicable to those portions of the system that are exempt. Accordingly, application of exemptions (j)(2), (k)(1), and (k)(2) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Subsection (g).</I> This subsection is inapplicable to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act. Accordingly, an exemption from subsection (g) is claimed pursuant to (j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019; 84 FR 16210, Apr. 18, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 60715, Sept. 28, 2020; 88 FR 16183, Mar. 16, 2023; 88 FR 42237, June 30, 2023; 88 FR 65130, Sept. 21, 2023; 89 FR 5095, Jan. 26, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.29" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.29   Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> The Secretary of Defense designates those Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) systems of records which will be exempt from certain provisions of the Privacy Act. There are two types of exemptions, general and specific. The general exemption authorizes the exemption of a system of records from all but a few requirements of the Act. The specific exemption authorizes exemption of a system of records or portion thereof, from only a few specific requirements. If an OSD Component originates a new system of records for which it proposes an exemption, or if it proposes an additional or new exemption for an existing system of records, it shall submit the recommended exemption with the records system notice as outlined in § 311.6. No exemption of a system of records shall be considered automatic for all records in the system. The systems manager shall review each requested record and apply the exemptions only when this will serve significant and legitimate Government purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General exemptions.</I> The general exemption provided by 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) may be invoked for protection of systems of records maintained by law enforcement activities. Certain functional records of such activities are not subject to access provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974. Records identifying criminal offenders and alleged offenders consisting of identifying data and notations of arrests, the type and disposition of criminal charges, sentencing, confinement, release, parole, and probation status of individuals are protected from disclosure. Other records and reports compiled during criminal investigations, as well as any other records developed at any stage of the criminal law enforcement process from arrest to indictment through the final release from parole supervision are excluded from release.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DWHS P42.0, DPS Incident Reporting and Investigations Case Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system that fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) are exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, Sections (c)(3) and (4); (d)(1) through (d)(5); (e)(1) through (e)(3); (e)(5); (f)(1) through (f)(5); (g)(1) through (g)(5); and (h) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> The Defense Protective Service is the law enforcement body for the jurisdiction of the Pentagon and immediate environs. The nature of certain records created and maintained by the DPS requires exemption from access provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974. The general exemption, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), is invoked to protect ongoing investigations and to protect from access, criminal investigation information contained in this record system, so as not to jeopardize any subsequent judicial or administrative process taken as a result of information contained in the file.


</P>
<P>(2)-(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DWHS E06, Enterprise Correspondence Control System (ECCS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> During the staffing and coordination of actions to, from, and within components in conduct of daily business, exempt materials from other systems of records may in turn become part of the case record in this document control system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those “other” systems of records are entered into this system, the Office of the Secretary of Defense hereby claims the same exemptions for the records from those “other” systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the original primary system of which they are a part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2) and (k)(1) through (k)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> Records are only exempt from pertinent provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a to the extent such provisions have been identified and an exemption claimed for the original record and the purposes underlying the exemption for the original record still pertain to the record which is now contained in this system of records. In general, the exemptions were claimed in order to protect properly classified information relating to national defense and foreign policy, to avoid interference during the conduct of criminal, civil, or administrative actions or investigations, to ensure protective services provided the President and others are not compromised, to protect the identity of confidential sources incident to Federal employment, military service, contract, and security clearance determinations, to preserve the confidentiality and integrity of Federal testing materials, and to safeguard evaluation materials used for military promotions when furnished by a confidential source. The exemption rule for the original records will identify the specific reasons why the records are exempt from specific provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific exemptions:</I> All systems of records maintained by any OSD Component shall be exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) pursuant to subsection (k)(1) of that section to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under Executive Order 11265, 'National Security Information,' dated June 28, 552a(d) pursuant to subsection (k)(1) of that section to the extent that the system contains any information properly classified under E.O. 11265, 'National Security Information,' dated June 28, 1979, as amended, and required by the Executive Order to be kept classified in the interest of national defense or foreign policy. This exemption, which may be applicable to parts of all systems of records, is necessary because certain record systems not otherwise specifically designated for exemptions may contain isolated information which has been properly classified. The Secretary of Defense has designated the following OSD system of records described below specifically exempted from the appropriate provisions of the Privacy Act pursuant to the designated authority contained therein:
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(3) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DGC 04, Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Case Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> All portions of this system which fall under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) are exempt from the following provisions of title 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3); (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> This system of records is exempt from subsections (c)(3) and (d) of section 552a of 5 U.S.C. which would require the disclosure of investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an expressed promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. A determination will be made at the time of the request for a record concerning whether specific information would reveal the identity of a source. This exemption is required in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of information compiled for the purpose of determining access to classified information. This confidentiality helps maintain the Government's continued access to information from persons who would otherwise refuse to give it.
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DODDS 02.0, Educator Application Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> All portions of this system which fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) may be exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a: (c)(3); (d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> It is imperative that the confidential nature of evaluation and investigatory material on teacher application files furnished the Department of Defense Dependent Schools (DoDDS) under promises of confidentiality be exempt from disclosure to the individual to insure the candid presentation of information necessary to make determinations involving applicants suitability for DoDDS teaching positions.
</P>
<P>(7)-8 [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(9) <I>System identifier and name.</I> JS004SECDIV, Joint Staff Security Clearance Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system of records are exempt pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (d)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsections (d)(1) through (d)(5) because the agency is required to protect the confidentiality of sources who furnished information to the Government under an expressed promise of confidentiality or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. This confidentiality is needed to maintain the Government's continued access to information from persons who otherwise might refuse to give it. This exemption is limited to disclosures that would reveal the identity of a confidential source. At the time of the request for a record, a determination will be made concerning whether a right, privilege, or benefit is denied or specific information would reveal the identity of a source.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DFMP 26, Vietnamese Commando Compensation Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Information classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) because granting access to information that is properly classified pursuant to E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DUSP 11, POW/Missing Personnel Office Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Information classified under E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) because granting access to information that is properly classified pursuant to E.O. 12958, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(12)-(13) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(14) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DHRA 02, PERSEREC Research Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> (A) Investigative material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), but only to the extent that such material would reveal the identity of a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(B) Therefore, portions of this system may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) and (d) when access to accounting disclosures and access to or amendment of records would cause the identity of a confidential source to be revealed. Disclosure of the source's identity not only will result in the Department breaching the promise of confidentiality made to the source, but it will impair the Department's future ability to compile investigatory material for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. Unless sources can be assured that a promise of confidentiality will be honored, they will be less likely to provide information considered essential to the Department in making the required determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) From (e)(1) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. In some cases, it is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. Such information permits more informed decision making by the Department when making required suitability, eligibility, and qualification determinations.
</P>
<P>(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DMDC 15 DoD, Armed Services Military Accession Testing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service or military service may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6), if the disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the test or examination process. Therefore, portions of the system of records may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) An exemption is required for those portions of the Skill Qualification Test system pertaining to individual item responses and scoring keys to preclude compromise of the test and to ensure fairness and objectivity of the evaluation system.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d)(1) when access to those portions of the Skill Qualification Test records would reveal the individual item responses and scoring keys. Disclosure of the individual item responses and scoring keys will compromise the objectivity and fairness of the test as well as the validity of future tests resulting in the Department being unable to use the testing battery as an individual assessment tool.
</P>
<P>(17)-(18) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(19) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DA&amp;M 01, Civil Liberties Program Case Management System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Records contained in this System of Records may be exempted from the requirements of subsections (c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1) and (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1). Records may be exempted from these subsections or, additionally, from the requirements of subsections (c)(4); (e)(2), (3), and (8) of the Privacy Act of 1974 consistent with any exemptions claimed under 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2) or (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) by the originator of the record, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary. An exemption rule for this system has been promulgated in accordance with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(1), (2), and (3), (c) and (e) and is published at 32 CFR part 311.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) (accounting of disclosures) because an accounting of disclosures from records concerning the record subject would specifically reveal an intelligence or investigative interest on the part of the Department of Defense and could result in release of properly classified national security or foreign policy information.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsections (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4) (record subject's right to access and amend records) because affording access and amendment rights could alert the record subject to the investigative interest of law enforcement agencies or compromise sensitive information classified in the interest of national security. In the absence of a national security basis for exemption, records in this system may be exempted from access and amendment to the extent necessary to honor promises of confidentiality to persons providing information concerning a candidate for position. Inability to maintain such confidentiality would restrict the free flow of information vital to a determination of a candidate's qualifications and suitability.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) (maintain only relevant and necessary records) because in the collection of information for investigatory purposes, it is not always possible to determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of the investigation. It is only after the information is evaluated in light of other information that its relevance and necessity becomes clear. In the absence of a national security basis for exemption under subjection (k)(1), records in this system may be exempted from the relevance requirement pursuant to subjection (k)(5) because it is not possible to determine in advance what exact information may assist in determining the qualifications and suitability of a candidate for position. Seemingly irrelevant details, when combined with other data, can provide a useful composite for determining whether a candidate should be appointed.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) (publication of procedures for notifying subject of the existence of records about them and how they may access records and contest contents) because the system is exempted from subsection (d) provisions regarding access and amendment, and from the subsection (f) requirement to promulgate agency rules. Nevertheless, the Office of the Secretary of Defense has published notice concerning notification, access, and contest procedures because it may, in certain circumstances, determine it appropriate to provide subjects access to all or a portion of the records about them in this system of records.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(4)(I) (identifying sources of records in the system of records) because identifying sources could result in disclosure of properly classified national defense or foreign policy information, intelligence sources and methods, and investigatory techniques and procedures. Notwithstanding its proposed exemption from this requirement the Office of the Secretary of Defense identifies record sources in broad categories sufficient to provide general notice of the origins of the information it maintains in this system of records.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) (agency rules for notifying subjects to the existence of records about them, for accessing and amending records, and for assessing fees) because the system is exempt from subsection (d) provisions regarding access and amendment of records by record subjects. Nevertheless, the Office of the Secretary of Defense has published agency rules concerning notification of a subject in response to his request if any system of records named by the subject contains a record pertaining to him and procedures by which the subject may access or amend the records. Notwithstanding exemption, the Office of the Secretary of Defense may determine it appropriate to satisfy a record subject's access request.
</P>
<P>(20) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(21) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DWHS E05, Mandatory Declassification Review Files.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Information classified under E.O. 13526, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) because granting access to information that is properly classified pursuant to E.O. 13526, as implemented by DoD 5200.1-R, may cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DPFPA 05, Computer Aided Dispatch and Records Management System (CAD/RMS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system that fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and/or (k)(2) are exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, section (c)(3) and (4); (d); (e)(1) through (e)(3); (e)(4)(G) through (I); (e)(5); (e)(8); (f) and (g) of the Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) and (4) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosure from records concerning him or her would specifically reveal any investigative interest in the individual. Revealing this information could reasonably be expected to compromise ongoing efforts to investigate a known or suspected offender by notifying the record subject that he or she is under investigation. This information could also permit the record subject to take measures to impede the investigation, e.g., destroy evidence, intimidate potential witnesses, or flee the area to avoid or impede the investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of certain records contained in this system, including law enforcement and investigatory records. Compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of law enforcement agencies; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; could identify a confidential source or disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigative or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses. Amendment of these records would interfere with ongoing law enforcement investigations and analysis activities and impose an excessive administrative burden by requiring investigations, analyses, and reports to be continuously reinvestigated and revised.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3) because it is not always possible to determine what information is relevant and necessary at an early stage in a given investigation. Also, because DoD and other agencies may not always know what information about a known or suspected offender may be relevant to law enforcement for the purpose of conducting an operational response.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) through (I) (Agency Requirements) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the criminal investigative process. It is the nature of criminal law enforcement for investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significant as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(8) because the requirement to serve notice on an individual when a record is disclosed under compulsory legal process could unfairly hamper law enforcement processes. It is the nature of law enforcement that there are instances where compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of intelligence or law enforcement agencies; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; reveal a sensitive investigative or intelligence technique; or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (f) because requiring the Agency to grant access to records and establishing agency rules for amendment of records would compromise the existence of any criminal, civil, or administrative enforcement activity. To require the confirmation or denial of the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to the existence of an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of the record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (g) for compatibility with the exemption claimed from subsection (f), the civil remedies provisions of subsection (g) must be suspended for this record system. Because of the nature of criminal investigations, standards of accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness cannot apply to this record system. Information gathered in criminal investigations if often fragmentary and leads relating to an individual in the context of one investigation may instead pertain to a second investigation.
</P>
<P>(23) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(24) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DPFPA 06, Internal Affairs Records System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system that fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and/or (k)(2) are exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, section (c)(3) and (4); (d); (e)(1) through (e)(3); (e)(4)(G) through (I); (e)(5); (f) and (g) of the Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsections (c)(3) and (4) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosure of investigations concerning him or her would specifically reveal an investigative interest in the individual. Revealing this information would reasonably be expected to compromise open or closed administrative or civil investigation efforts to a known or suspected offender by notifying the record subject that he or she is under investigation. This information could also permit the record subject to take measures to impede the investigation, e.g., destroy evidence, intimidate potential witnesses, or flee the area to avoid or impede the investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of open or closed investigation records contained in this system, including law enforcement and investigatory records. Compliance with these provisions would provide the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of the Pentagon Force Protection Agency; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; could identify a confidential informant or disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigative or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses. Amendment of investigative records would interfere with open or closed administrative or civil law enforcement investigations and analysis activities and impose an excessive administrative burden by requiring investigations, analyses, and reports to be continuously reinvestigated and revised.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3) because it is not always possible to determine what information is relevant and necessary in open or closed investigations.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) through (I) (Agency Requirements) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that investigative records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness would unfairly hamper the criminal, administrative, or civil investigative process. It is the nature of Internal Affairs investigations to uncover the commission of illegal acts and administrative violations. It is frequently impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significant as further investigation brings new details to light.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (f) because requiring the Agency to grant access to records and establishing agency rules for amendment of records would compromise the existence of any criminal, civil, or administrative enforcement activity. To require the confirmation or denial of the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to the existence of an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of the record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (g) for compatibility with the exemption claimed from subsection (f), the civil remedies provisions of subsection (g) must be suspended for this record system. Because of the nature of criminal, administrative and civil investigations, standards of accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness cannot apply to open or closed investigations in this record system. Information gathered in criminal investigations is often fragmentary and leads relating to an individual in the context of one investigation may instead pertain to a second investigation.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DPFPA 07, Counterintelligence Management Information System (CIMIS).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Portions of this system that fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a (k)(2) are exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, section (c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G) through (I); and (f) of the Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons. (</I>A) From subsections (c)(3) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosure from records concerning him or her would specifically reveal any investigative interest in the individual. Revealing this information could reasonably be expected to compromise ongoing efforts to investigate a known or suspected offender by notifying the record subject that he or she is under investigation. This information could also permit the record subject to take measures to impede the investigation, e.g., destroy evidence, intimidate potential witnesses, or flee the area to avoid or impede the investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (d) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of certain records contained in this system, including counterintelligence, law enforcement, and investigatory records. Compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of agencies; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall counterintelligence and investigative process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; could identify a confidential source or disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigation or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses. Amendment of these records would interfere with ongoing counterintelligence investigations and analysis activities and impose an excessive administrative burden by requiring investigations, analyses, and reports to be continuously reinvestigated and revised.
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to determine what information is relevant and necessary at an early stage in a given investigation. Also, because Pentagon Force Protection Agency and other agencies may not always know what information about a known or suspected offender may be relevant to for the purpose of conducting an operational response.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsections (e)(4)(G) through (I) (Agency Requirements) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (f) because requiring the Agency to grant access to records and establishing agency rules for amendment of records would compromise the existence of any criminal, civil, or administrative enforcement activity. To require the confirmation or denial of the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to the existence of an on-going investigation. Counterintelligence investigations would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of the record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DMDC 16 DoD, Identity Management Engine for Security and Analysis (IMESA).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> To the extent that copies of exempt records from JUSTICE/FBI-001, National Crime Information Center (NCIC) are entered into the Interoperability Layer Service records, the OSD hereby claims the same exemptions, (j)(2) and (k)(3), for the records as claimed in JUSTICE/FBI- 001, National Crime Information Center (NCIC). Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a portions of this system that fall within (j)(2) and (k)(3) are exempt from the following provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, section (c)(3) and (4); (d); (e)(1) through (3); (e)(4)(G) through (I); (e)(5) and (8); (f); and (g) (as applicable) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(3).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> (A) From subsection (c)(3) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosure from records concerning him or her would specifically reveal any investigative interest in the individual. Revealing this information could reasonably be expected to compromise ongoing efforts to investigate a known or suspected terrorist by notifying the record subject that he or she is under investigation. This information could also permit the record subject to take measures to impede the investigation, e.g., destroy evidence, intimidate potential witnesses, or flee the area to avoid or impede the investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) From subsection (c)(4) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(C) From subsection (d) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of certain records contained in this system, including law enforcement, counterterrorism, investigatory, and intelligence records. Compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of intelligence or law enforcement agencies; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; could identify a confidential source or disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigative or intelligence technique; or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses. Amendment of these records would interfere with ongoing counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence investigations and analysis activities and impose an impossible administrative burden by requiring investigations, analyses, and reports to be continuously reinvestigated and revised.
</P>
<P>(D) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to determine what information is relevant and necessary to complete an identity comparison between the individual seeking access and a known or suspected terrorist. Also, because DoD and other agencies may not always know what information about an encounter with a known or suspected terrorist will be relevant to law enforcement for the purpose of conducting an operational response.
</P>
<P>(E) From subsection (e)(2) because application of this provision could present a serious impediment to counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence efforts in that it would put the subject of an investigation, study, or analysis on notice of that fact, thereby permitting the subject to engage in conduct designed to frustrate or impede that activity. The nature of counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence investigations is such that vital information about an individual frequently can be obtained only from other persons who are familiar with such individual and his/her activities. In such investigations, it is not feasible to rely upon information furnished by the individual concerning his own activities.
</P>
<P>(F) From subsection (e)(3) to the extent that this subsection is interpreted to require DoD to provide notice to an individual if DoD or another agency receives or collects information about that individual during an investigation or from a third party. Should this subsection be so interpreted, exemption from this provision is necessary to avoid impeding counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence efforts by putting the subject of an investigation, study, or analysis on notice of that fact, thereby permitting the subject to engage in conduct intended to frustrate or impede the activity.
</P>
<P>(G) From subsection (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), and (e)(4)(I) (Agency Requirements) because portions of this system are exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(H) From subsection (e)(5) because the requirement that records be maintained with attention to accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness could unfairly hamper law enforcement processes. It is the nature of law enforcement to uncover the commission of illegal acts at diverse stages. It is often impossible to determine initially what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and least of all complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further details are brought to light.
</P>
<P>(I) From subsection (e)(8) because the requirement to serve notice on an individual when a record is disclosed under compulsory legal process could unfairly hamper law enforcement processes. It is the nature of law enforcement that there are instances where compliance with these provisions could alert the subject of an investigation of the fact and nature of the investigation, and/or the investigative interest of intelligence or law enforcement agencies; compromise sensitive information related to national security; interfere with the overall law enforcement process by leading to the destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, fabrication of testimony, and/or flight of the subject; reveal a sensitive investigative or intelligence technique; or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential informants, and witnesses.
</P>
<P>(J) From subsection (f) because requiring the Agency to grant access to records and establishing agency rules for amendment of records would unfairly impede the agency's law enforcement mission. To require the confirmation or denial of the existence of a record pertaining to a requesting individual may in itself provide an answer to that individual relating to the existence of an on-going investigation. The investigation of possible unlawful activities would be jeopardized by agency rules requiring verification of the record, disclosure of the record to the subject, and record amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>(K) From subsection (g) to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(27) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(28) <I>System identifier and name.</I> DMDC 18 DoD, Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker Enterprise Suite (SPOT-ES) Records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Information classified under E.O. 13526, as implemented by DoD Instruction (DoDI) 5200.01 and DoD Manual (DoDM) 5200.01, Volumes 1 and 3, may be exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasons.</I> From subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) because granting access to information that is properly classified pursuant to E.O. 13526, as implemented by DoD Instruction 5200.01 and DoD Manual 5200.01, Volumes 1 and 3, may cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>System identifier and name.</I> AARO-0001, All-domain Anomaly Resolution Office (AARO) Report System.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions.</I> This system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemption from the particular subsections.</I> Exemption from the particular subsections of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, pursuant to exemption (k)(1) is justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Subsections (c)(3) and (d)(1) and (2).</I> Records in this system of records may contain information concerning individuals that is properly classified pursuant to executive order. Application of exemption (k)(1) for such records may be necessary because access to and amendment of the records, or release of the accounting of disclosures for such records, could reveal classified information. Disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security and reveal sensitive sources and methods. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Subsections (d)(3) and (4).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent an exemption is claimed from (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> Records within this system may be properly classified pursuant to executive order. In the collection of information for AARO reporting and analysis purposes, it may not always be possible to conclusively determine the relevance and necessity of particular information in the early stages of these types of activities. Additionally, disclosure of classified records to an individual may cause damage to national security and reveal sensitive sources and methods. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H) and subsection (f).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent exemption is claimed from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d). Because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted in paragraphs (c)(29)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section, DoD is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access or amendment provisions. Providing notice to individuals with respect to the existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access, view, and seek to amend records pertaining to themselves in the system would potentially undermine national security and the confidentiality of classified information. Accordingly, application of exemption (k)(1) may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> To the extent that this provision is construed to require more detailed disclosure than the broad information currently published in the system notice concerning categories of sources of records in the system, an exemption from this provision is necessary to protect national security and the confidentiality of sources and methods, and other classified information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exempt records from other systems.</I> In the course of carrying out the overall purpose for this system, exempt records from other systems of records may in turn become part of the records maintained in this system. To the extent that copies of exempt records from those other systems of records are maintained in this system, the DoD claims the same exemptions for the records from those other systems that are entered into this system, as claimed for the prior system(s) of which they are a part, provided the reason for the exemption remains valid and necessary.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14730, Apr. 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 26672, May 17, 2021; 86 FR 31431, June 14, 2021; 87 FR 37999, June 27, 2022; 88 FR 42237, June 30, 2023; 89 FR 37129, May 6, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.62.3.1.19.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 310—DOD Blanket Routine Uses




</HEAD>
<HD1>A. Routine Use—Law Enforcement
</HD1>
<P>If a system of records maintained by a DoD Component to carry out its functions indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal, or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or by regulation, rule, or order issued pursuant thereto, the relevant records in the system of records may be referred, as a routine use, to the agency concerned, whether Federal, State, local, or foreign, charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto.
</P>
<HD1>B. Routine Use—Disclosure When Requesting Information
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use to a Federal, State, or local agency maintaining civil, criminal, or other relevant enforcement information or other pertinent information, such as current licenses, if necessary to obtain information relevant to a Component decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit.
</P>
<HD1>C. Routine Use—Disclosure of Requested Information
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed to a Federal agency, in response to its request, in connection with the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an employee, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the information is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter.
</P>
<HD1>D. Routine Use—Congressional Inquiries
</HD1>
<P>Disclosure from a system of records maintained by a Component may be made to a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from the congressional office made at the request of that individual.
</P>
<HD1>E. Routine Use—Private Relief Legislation
</HD1>
<P>Relevant information contained in all systems of records of the Department of Defense published on or before August 22, 1975, may be disclosed to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in connection with the review of private relief legislation as set forth in OMB Circular A-19 at any stage of the legislative coordination and clearance process as set forth in that circular.
</P>
<HD1>F. Routine Use—Disclosures Required by International Agreements
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed to foreign law enforcement, security, investigatory, or administrative authorities to comply with requirements imposed by, or to claim rights conferred in, international agreements and arrangements, including those regulating the stationing and status in foreign countries of Department of Defense military and civilian personnel.
</P>
<HD1>G. Routine Use—Disclosure to State and Local Taxing Authorities
</HD1>
<P>Any information normally contained in Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form W-2 which is maintained in a record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed to State and local taxing authorities with which the Secretary of the Treasury has entered into agreements under 5 U.S.C., sections 5516, 5517, 5520, and only to those State and local taxing authorities for which an employee or military member is or was subject to tax regardless of whether tax is or was withheld. This routine use is in accordance with Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual Bulletin No. 76-07.
</P>
<HD1>H. Routine Use—Disclosure to the Office of Personnel Management
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records subject to the Privacy Act and maintained by a Component may be disclosed to the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) concerning information on pay and leave, benefits, retirement reductions, and any other information necessary for the OPM to carry out its legally authorized government-wide personnel management functions and studies.
</P>
<HD1>I. Routine Use—Disclosure to the Department of Justice for Litigation
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use to any component of the Department of Justice for the purpose of representing the Department of Defense, or any officer, employee or member of the Department in pending or potential litigation to which the record is pertinent.
</P>
<HD1>J. Routine Use—Disclosure to Military Banking Facilities
</HD1>
<P>Information as to current military addresses and assignments may be provided to military banking facilities who provide banking services overseas and who are reimbursed by the Government for certain checking and loan losses. For personnel separated, discharged, or retired from the Armed Forces, information as to last known residential or home of record address may be provided to the military banking facility upon certification by a banking facility officer that the facility has a returned or dishonored check negotiated by the individual or the individual has defaulted on a loan and that if restitution is not made by the individual, the U.S. Government will be liable for the losses the facility may incur.
</P>
<HD1>K. Routine Use—Disclosure of Information to the General Services Administration
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use to the General Services Administration (GSA) for the purpose of records management inspections conducted under authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
</P>
<HD1>L. Routine Use—Disclosure of Information to the National Archives and Records Administration
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use to the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) for the purpose of records management inspections conducted under authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
</P>
<HD1>M. Routine Use—Disclosure to the Merit Systems Protection Board
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use to the Merit Systems Protection Board, including the Office of the Special Counsel, for the purpose of litigation, including administrative proceedings, appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of OPM or Component rules and regulations, investigation of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, including administrative proceedings involving any individual subject of a DoD investigation, and such other functions, promulgated in 5 U.S.C. 1205 and 1206 or as may be authorized by law.
</P>
<HD1>N. Routine Use—Counterintelligence Purposes
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component may be disclosed as a routine use outside the DoD or the U.S. Government for the purpose of counterintelligence activities authorized by U.S. law or Executive order or for the purpose of enforcing laws that protect the national security of the United States.
</P>
<HD1>O. Routine Use—Data Breach Response and Remediation
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by DoD or a Component may be disclosed to appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the Component suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) the Component has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, DoD (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Component's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
</P>
<HD1>P. Routine Use—Data Breach Inter-Agency Assistance
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by DoD or a Component may be disclosed to another Federal agency or Federal entity, when DoD or the Component determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
</P>
<HD1>Q. Routine Use—Agency Sharing To Support Counterterrorism
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by a Component consisting of, or relating to, terrorism information (6 U.S.C. 485(a)(4)), homeland security information (6 U.S.C. 482(f)(1)), or law enforcement information (Guideline 2 Report attached to White House Memorandum, “Information Sharing Environment,” November 22, 2006) may be disclosed to a Federal, State, local, Tribal, territorial, foreign governmental and/or multinational agency, either in response to its request or upon the initiative of the Component, for purposes of sharing such information as is necessary and relevant for the agencies for the detection, prevention, disruption, preemption, and mitigation of the effects of terrorist activities against the territory, people, and interests of the United States of America as contemplated by the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Protection Act of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-458) and Executive Order 13388 (October 25, 2005).
</P>
<HD1>R. Routine Use—Office of Inspector General
</HD1>
<P>A record from a system of records maintained by DoD or a Component may be disclosed to another Federal, State, or local agency for the purpose of comparing to the agency's system of records or to non-Federal records, in coordination with an Office of Inspector General, in conducting an audit, investigation, inspection, evaluation, or some other review as authorized by the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 64368, Nov. 18, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 24477, Apr. 21, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="339" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 339—DOD GUIDANCE DOCUMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 339.1" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part provides policies and procedures governing all phases of issuing, modifying, or rescinding guidance documents within DoD.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the qualifications and exemptions contained in this part, these policies and procedures apply to all guidance documents intended to have future effect on the behavior of regulated parties issued by all components of the Department, including regional and district offices.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this part, the term <I>guidance document</I> includes any statement of agency policy or interpretation concerning a statute, regulation, or technical matter within the jurisdiction of the Department that is intended to have general applicability and future effect on the behavior of regulated parties, but which is not intended to have the force or effect of law in its own right and is not otherwise required by statute to satisfy the rulemaking procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553 or 5 U.S.C. 556. The term is not confined to formal written documents; guidance may come in a variety of forms, including, but not limited to, letters, memoranda, circulars, bulletins, advisories, and may include video, audio, and Web-based formats. See OMB Memorandum M-20-02, “Guidance Implementing Executive Order 13891, Titled “Promoting the Rule of Law Through Improved Agency Guidance Documents,” ” dated October 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Agency statements of specific applicability, including advisory or legal opinions directed to particular parties about circumstance-specific questions (<I>e.g.,</I> case or investigatory letters responding to complaints, warning letters), notices regarding particular locations or facilities (<I>e.g.,</I> guidance pertaining to the use, operation, or control of a government facility or property), and correspondence with individual persons or entities (<I>e.g.,</I> congressional correspondence), except documents ostensibly directed to a particular party but designed to guide the conduct of the broader regulated public;
</P>
<P>(2) Agency statements that do not set forth a policy on a statutory, regulatory, or technical issue or an interpretation of a statute or regulation, including speeches and individual presentations, editorials, media interviews, press materials, or congressional testimony that do not set forth for the first time a new regulatory policy;
</P>
<P>(3) Rules promulgated pursuant to notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553, or similar statutory provisions;
</P>
<P>(4) Rules exempt from rulemaking requirements under 5 U.S.C. 553(a);
</P>
<P>(5) Rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice;
</P>
<P>(6) Decisions of agency adjudications under 5 U.S.C. 554, or similar statutory provisions;
</P>
<P>(7) Internal guidance directed solely to the issuing agency or other agencies (or personnel of such agencies) that is not intended to have substantial future effect on the behavior of regulated parties or the public;
</P>
<P>(8) Internal guidance that is made public only because release is required under the Freedom of Information Act or agency disclosure policies;
</P>
<P>(9) Legal briefs, other court filings, or positions taken in litigation or enforcement actions;
</P>
<P>(10) Legal opinions by the Office of Legal Counsel at the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(11) Internal executive branch legal advice or legal advisory opinions addressed to executive branch officials;
</P>
<P>(12) Guidance pertaining to military or foreign affairs functions, or to a national security or homeland security function of the United States (other than guidance documents involving procurement or the import or export of non-defense articles and services);
</P>
<P>(13) Grant solicitations and awards; or
</P>
<P>(14) Contract solicitations and awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.2" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.2   Initial review process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to submitting guidance documents for departmental review, Components seeking to issue, modify, or rescind a guidance document should submit a draft copy of that document, along with the component's designation request (see § 339.5 of this part) and good faith cost estimate (see § 339.3 of this part), to their Federal Register Liaison Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Before such a guidance document can be cleared for departmental review, the appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer will review it to ensure that it satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) For significant guidance (see § 339.7 of this part), <E T="04">Federal Register</E> required formatting.
</P>
<P>(2) The guidance document complies with all relevant statutes and regulations (including any statutory deadlines for agency action);
</P>
<P>(3) The guidance document identifies or includes:
</P>
<P>(i) The term “guidance” or its functional equivalent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuing component of the Department;
</P>
<P>(iii) A unique identifier, including, at a minimum, the date of issuance and title of the document and its Z-RIN (a regulation identifier number), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) The activity or entities to which the guidance applies;
</P>
<P>(v) Citations to applicable statutes and regulations;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement noting whether the guidance is intended to revise or replace any previously issued guidance and, if so, sufficient information to identify the previously issued guidance; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A short summary of the subject matter covered in the guidance document at the top of the document.
</P>
<P>(4) The guidance document avoids using mandatory language, such as “shall,” “must,” “required,” or “requirement,” unless the language is describing an established statutory or regulatory requirement or is addressed to DoD staff and will not foreclose the Department's consideration of positions advanced by affected private parties or is intended to have a substantial future effect on the behavior of regulated parties;
</P>
<P>(5) The guidance document is written in plain and understandable English;
</P>
<P>(6) All guidance documents include the following disclaimer prominently: “The contents of this document do not have the force and effect of law and are not meant to bind the public in any way. This document is intended only to provide clarity to the public regarding existing requirements under the law or departmental policies.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.3" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.3   Good faith cost estimates.</HEAD>
<P>Even though not legally binding, some agency guidance may result in a substantial economic impact. For example, the issuance of departmental guidance may induce private parties to alter their conduct to conform to recommended standards or practices, thereby incurring costs beyond the costs of complying with existing statutes and regulations. While it may be difficult to predict with precision the economic impact of voluntary guidance, the proposing component of the Department must, to the extent practicable, make a good faith effort to estimate the likely economic cost impact of the guidance document to determine whether the document might be significant. When the component is assessing or explaining whether it believes a guidance document is significant, it will, at a minimum, provide the same level of analysis that would be required for a major determination under the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 8). When it is determined that a guidance document will be economically significant (see § 339.7(a)(1) of this part), the component must conduct and publish a Regulatory Impact Analysis of the sort that would accompany an economically significant rulemaking (see requirements in E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, and OMB Circular A-4), to the extent reasonably possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.4" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.4   Departmental review and submission to OIRA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the appropriate FRLO completes his or her initial review, a guidance document will be internally coordinated within the proposing component and formally coordinated throughout the Department with other components who have equities. Mandatory coordinators on all guidance documents are the Chief Management Officer, Department of Defense and the component's General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The proposing component will adjudicate DoD and OSD Component comments and return a final guidance document package to the appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer for submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulations Affairs (OIRA) for a significance determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Guidance documents deemed by OIRA to be “significant” (see § 339.7 of this part) must be reviewed and approved by the Department's Regulatory Policy Officer before OIRA formally reviews them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.5" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.5   Designation procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The proposing component will prepare a designation request for guidance documents. Designation requests must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the guidance document; and
</P>
<P>(2) The component's recommended designation of “not significant,” “significant,” or “economically significant,” as well as a justification for that designation.
</P>
<P>(b) The appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer will seek a significance determination from OIRA for guidance documents in the same manner as for rulemakings. OIRA review will occur prior to the publishing of guidance documents, and with sufficient time to allow OIRA to review the designation request and the guidance document to determine if it meets the definition of “significant” or “economically significant” under Executive Order 13891.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to being published, guidance documents determined to be “significant” or “economically significant” are subject to formal review and interagency coordination by OIRA. The OIRA review, to include interagency coordination, is to be consistent with Executive Order 12866.
</P>
<P>(d) Significant guidance documents (see § 339.7 of this part) must be reviewed and approved by the Department's Regulatory Policy Officer before OIRA formally reviews them.
</P>
<P>(e) Once the OMB/OIRA has cleared a guidance document for publication, the appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer will coordinate the guidance document with the Defense Office of Prepublication and Security Review (DOPSR). The FRLO will notify the component of DOPSR's approval and that the guidance document can be approved for <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication or signed for placement on the central website.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.6" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.6   Non-significant guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the guidance document is determined to be non-significant within the meaning of § 339.7 of this part, the appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer will advise the proposing component to proceed with issuance of the guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) For each such guidance document, the proposing component should forward it to the appropriate authority for approval. OSD PSAs or equivalents can delegate in writing the authority to approve non-significant guidance documents to subordinate officials at or above the level of a General/Flag Officer, Senior Executive Service member, or equivalent. The proposing component should include a statement in the action memorandum to the approving authority that the guidance document has been reviewed and cleared as non-significant by OIRA.
</P>
<P>(c) After the approving authority signs the non-significant guidance document, it should be forwarded to the DoD Regulatory Program staff for publication on the department's guidance document website located at <I>https://open.defense.gov/Regulatory-Program/Guidance-Documents/</I>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.7" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.7   Significant guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “significant guidance document” means a guidance document that will be disseminated to regulated entities or the general public and that may reasonably be anticipated:
</P>
<P>(1) To lead to an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the U.S. economy, a sector of the U.S. economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities (a guidance document is economically significant if it meets the criteria in this paragraph);
</P>
<P>(2) To create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(3) To alter materially the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
</P>
<P>(4) To raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in E.O. 12866, as further amended.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “significant guidance document” does not include the categories of documents excluded by § 339.1(d) or any other category of guidance documents exempted in writing in consultation with OIRA.
</P>
<P>(c) Significant guidance documents, to include economically significant guidance documents, must be reviewed by OIRA under E.O. 12866 before issuance; and must demonstrate compliance with the applicable requirements for regulations or rules, including significant regulatory actions, set forth in E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, E.O. 13609, E.O. 13771, and E.O. 13777.
</P>
<P>(d) Each proposed DoD guidance document determined by OIRA to be significant must be approved by an OSD Principal Staff Assistant or equivalent appointed by the President.
</P>
<P>(e) Significant guidance documents have to be published for notice and comment in accordance with § 339.8 of this part before they can be issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.8" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.8   Notice-and-comment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, all proposed DoD guidance documents determined to be a “significant guidance document” within the meaning of § 339.7 shall be subject to the following notice and comment procedures. After receiving clearance from OIRA to publish a proposed significant guidance document, the proposing component shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing that a draft of the proposed guidance document is publicly available on <I>Regulations.gov,</I> shall invite public comment on the draft document for a minimum of 30 days. After the comment period ends, the proposing component shall prepare and post a public response to major concerns raised in the comments, as appropriate, in the docket on <I>Regulations.gov</I>. Then the component will prepare a final notice that will be coordinated within the department and submitted to OIRA for review, interagency coordination, and clearance for publishing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Both the proposed and final notices shall be approved by the DoD RPO before OIRA review, and by an OSD Principal Staff Assistant or equivalent appointed by the President after OIRA clearance and DOPSR approval.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice and comment requirements of paragraph (a) of this section will not apply to any significant guidance document or categories of significant guidance documents for which the proposing component finds, in consultation with their component OGC and OIRA, good cause that notice and public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest (and incorporates the finding of good cause and a brief statement of reasons therefor in the guidance issued).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.9" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.9   Public access to effective guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD Regulatory Policy Team shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure all final guidance documents in effect are identified by a unique identifier which includes, at a minimum, the document's title and date of issuance or revision and its Z-RIN, if applicable, are published and maintained on a central website located at <I>https://open.defense.gov/Regulatory-Program/Guidance-Documents/</I> in a single, searchable, indexed database, and available to the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Note on its website that guidance documents do not bind the public, except as authorized by law or as incorporated into a contract;
</P>
<P>(3) Announce on its website a means for the public to comment electronically on any guidance documents that are subject to the notice and comment procedures; and
</P>
<P>(4) Receive complaints from the public that a component of the Department is not following the requirements of OMB's Memorandum M-20-02, “Guidance Implementing Executive Order 13891, Titled “Promoting the Rule of Law Through Improved Agency Guidance Documents”,” dated October 31, 2019, or is improperly treating a guidance document as a binding requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each component responsible for issuing guidance documents shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit final guidance documents to the DoD Regulatory Policy Team at the email address <I>osd.mc-alex.ocmo.mbx.guidance-documents@mail.mil</I> for posting to the Department's central website.
</P>
<P>(2) Address complaints from the public that they are not following the requirements of OMB's Memorandum M-20-02, “Guidance Implementing Executive Order 13891, Titled “Promoting the Rule of Law Through Improved Agency Guidance Documents”,” dated October 31, 2019, or are improperly treating a guidance document as a binding requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.10" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.10   Petitions for guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may petition the Department to withdraw or modify a particular guidance document by sending a written request to the DoD Regulatory Program staff at email address <I>osd.mc-alex.ocmo.mbx.guidance-documents@mail.mil</I>. Please use the words “GUIDANCE: [Insert the title of the guidance document]” in the subject line of the email message. The DoD Regulatory Program staff will provide the request to the issuing component of the guidance document for response.
</P>
<P>(b) The issuing component should respond to all requests within 90 days after receipt of the request, or as timely as possible given any constraints of the request. For recordkeeping purposes, the issuing component will provide a copy of their response to the DoD Regulatory Program staff at email address <I>osd.mc-alex.ocmo.mbx.guidance-documents@mail.mil</I>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.11" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.11   Rescinded guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All effective guidance documents must appear on the central website. If the guidance document does not appear on the central website, the guidance is rescinded and without effect.
</P>
<P>(b) No component may cite, use, or rely on guidance documents that are rescinded, except to establish historical facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.12" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.12   Exigent circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>In emergency situations or when the proposing component is required by statutory deadline, court order, or executive order to act more quickly than normal review procedures allow, the proposing component shall coordinate with OGC and the appropriate DoD or OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer to notify OIRA as soon as possible and, to the extent practicable, shall comply with the requirements of this part at the earliest opportunity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.13" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.13   Reports to Congress and GAO.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the issuance of a final guidance document, the appropriate Federal Register Liaison Officer will submit a report to Congress and GAO in accordance with the procedures described in 5 U.S.C. 801 (the “Congressional Review Act”). If the CRA procedures are not followed, the guidance document can be nullified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.14" NODE="32:2.1.1.3.63.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.14   Use of guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>Guidance documents cannot create binding requirements that do not already exist by statute or regulation. Accordingly, noncompliance with guidance documents cannot be used as a basis for proving violations of applicable law. Guidance documents can do no more, with respect to prohibition of conduct, than articulate the Department's understanding of how a statute or regulation applies to particular circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="P" NODE="32:2.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER P—OBTAINING DOD INFORMATION [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Aug. 8, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="3" NODE="32:3" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32—National Defense--Volume 3</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter v</E>—Department of the Army
</SUBJECT>
<PG>504


</PG></CHAPTI>
<ABBR>
<HED>Abbreviations Used in This Chapter:</HED>
<P>AGCT = <I>Army General Classification Test.</I> AGO = <I>Adjutant General's Office.</I> APP = <I>Army Procurement Procedure.</I> AR = <I>Army Regulations.</I> ASPR = <I>Armed Services Procurement Regulations.</I> ATC = <I>Air Transport Command.</I> A. W. = <I>Articles of War.</I> AWOL = <I>Absent Without Leave.</I> Comp. Gen. = <I>Comptroller General.</I> OCF = <I>Office, Chief of Finance.</I> ROTC = <I>Reserve Officer's Training Corps.</I> ZI = <I>Zone of Interior.</I>


</P></ABBR></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:3.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense (Continued) 


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="V" NODE="32:3.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER V—DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—AID OF CIVIL AUTHORITIES AND PUBLIC RELATIONS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="400-500" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 400-500 [RESERVED] 




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="507" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 507—MANUFACTURE, SALE, WEAR, AND QUALITY CONTROL OF HERALDIC ITEMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 7594; 18 U.S.C 701, 704; 36 U.S.C. 901.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 54616, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes the Department of the Army policy governing the manufacture, commercial sale, reproduction, possession, and wear of military decorations, medals, badges, insignia, and their components and appurtenances. It also establishes the Heraldic Quality Control Program to improve the appearance of the Army by controlling the quality of heraldic items purchased from commercial sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.2   References.</HEAD>
<P>Related publications are listed in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. (A related publication is merely a source of additional information. The user does not have to read it to understand this part.)
</P>
<P>(a) Department of Defense Manual 1348.33, Volume 3, Manual of Military Decorations and Awards: DoD-Wide Personal Performance and Valor Decorations. (Available at <I>https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/issuances/dodm/</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) Army Regulation 360-1, Army Public Affairs Program. (Available at <I>https://armypubs.army.mil/ProductMaps/PubForm/AR.aspx</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Army Regulation 670-1, Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia. (Available at <I>https://armypubs.army.mil/ProductMaps/PubForm/AR.aspx</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) Army Regulation 840-1, Department of the Army Seal, and Emblem and Branch of Service Plaques. (Available at <I>https://armypubs.army.mil/ProductMaps/PubForm/AR.aspx</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) Army Regulation 27-60, Intellectual Property. (Available at <I>https://armypubs.army.mil/ProductMaps/PubForm/AR.aspx</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.3   Explanation of abbreviations and terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Abbreviations.</I> (1) CFR—Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) DA—Department of the Army.
</P>
<P>(3) DAASA—Deputy Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(4) DLA—Defense Logistics Agency.
</P>
<P>(5) DUI—Distinctive unit insignia.
</P>
<P>(6) ID—Identification
</P>
<P>(7) MCS—Military Clothing Store.
</P>
<P>(8) RDI—Regimental Distinctive Insignia.
</P>
<P>(9) ROTC—Reserve Officers' Training Corps.
</P>
<P>(10) SSI—Shoulder sleeve insignia.
</P>
<P>(11) TIOH—The Institute of Heraldry.
</P>
<P>(12) U.S.C.—United States Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms</I>—(1) <I>Appurtenances.</I> Devices such as stars, letters, numerals, or clasps worn on the suspension ribbon of the medal, or on the ribbon bar that indicate additional awards, participation in specific events, or other distinguishing characteristics of the award.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Awards.</I> An all-inclusive term that consists of any decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or appurtenance bestowed on an individual or unit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Badge.</I> An award given to an individual for identification purposes or that is awarded for attaining a special skill or proficiency. Certain badges are available in full, miniature, and dress miniature sizes.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cartoon.</I> A drawing, six times actual size, showing placement of stitches, color of yarn and number of stitches.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certified manufacturer.</I> A manufacturer who demonstrated the capability to manufacture controlled heraldic items according to Government standards.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Certificate of authority to manufacture.</I> A certificate assigning manufacturers a hallmark and authorizing manufacture of heraldic items.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Decoration.</I> An award given to an individual as a distinctively designed mark of honor denoting heroism or meritorious or outstanding service or achievement.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Die.</I> The block of steel that is used to form a metal insignia and is the intricate three dimensional reversed design of the insignia cut into the surface of a block of steel.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Hallmark.</I> A distinguishing mark consisting of a letter and numbers assigned to certified manufacturers for use in identifying manufacturers of insignia.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Heraldic items.</I> All items worn on the uniform to indicate unit, skill, branch, award or identification and for which a design has been established by TIOH on an official drawing.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Heraldic Quality Control Program.</I> A program that improves the public image of the Army by controlling the quality of insignia purchased from commercial sources.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Hub.</I> The block of steel that is used to form a die and is the intricate three dimensional raised design of the insignia cut into the surface of a block of steel.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Lapel button.</I> A miniature enameled replica of an award, which is worn only on civilian clothing.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Letter of agreement.</I> A letter signed by manufacturers before certification, stating that the manufacturer agrees to produce heraldic items in accordance with specific requirements.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Letter of authorization.</I> A letter issued by TIOH that authorizes the manufacture of a specific heraldic item after quality assurance inspection of a preproduction sample.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Medal.</I> An award issued to an individual for the performance of certain duties, acts, or services, consisting of a suspension ribbon made in distinctive colors and from which hangs a medallion.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Rosette.</I> A lapel device created from gathering the suspension ribbon of a medal into a circular shape. The device is worn on the lapel of civilian clothing.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Service medal.</I> An award made to personnel who participated in designated wars, campaigns, or expeditions or who have fulfilled specified service requirements in a creditable manner.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Tools.</I> The generic term used for hubs, dies, cartoons, and drawings used in the manufacture of heraldic items.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Unit award.</I> An award made to an operating unit, which is worn by members of that unit who participated in the cited action (permanent unit award).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of The Institute of Heraldry (TIOH) will—
</P>
<P>(a) Monitor the overall operation of the Heraldic Quality Control Program.
</P>
<P>(b) Establish policy and procedures to:
</P>
<P>(1) Certify manufacturers of insignia and plaques.
</P>
<P>(2) Control the manufacture and quality assurance of military decorations, the DA seal and emblem, Branch of Service plaques, and other heraldic items.
</P>
<P>(3) Grant certificates of authority for the manufacture and commercial sale of Service flags and Service lapel buttons.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide heraldic services to the Executive branch, Department of Defense, and other Federal agencies on a reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide advisory opinions on the use of Army heraldic items for licensing or other commercial purposes (for example, the Army Emblem, Army Flag, unit insignia, and items approved for wear on uniforms), at the request of the Army Trademark Licensing Program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.5   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacture, commercial sale, possession, and reproduction of badges, identification cards, insignia, or other designs prescribed by the head of a U.S. department or agency, or colorable imitations of them, are governed by Title 18, United States Code, section 701 (18 U.S.C. 701).
</P>
<P>(b) The wear, manufacture, and commercial sale of military decorations, medals, badges, and their components and appurtenances, or colorable imitations thereof, are governed by 18 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(c) The Army's providing heraldic services to other Military departments and Federal agencies is governed by 10 U.S.C. 7594.
</P>
<P>(d) The display of and license to manufacture and sell the approved Service flag or Service lapel button is governed by 36 U.S.C. 901.
</P>
<P>(e) The ownership and licensing of trademarks, service marks, and collective marks such as DUI, RDI, SSI, and other Army-owned heraldic insignia are governed by 15 U.S.C. 1051 <I>et seq.,</I> and 10 U.S.C. 2260.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Manufacture and Sale of Decorations, Badges, and Insignia</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.6   Authority to manufacture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only manufacturers that TIOH has certified and has issued a certificate of authority to may produce heraldic items.
</P>
<P>(1) TIOH will issue a certificate of authority to manufacturers who can demonstrate they have the capability to manufacture controlled heraldic items according to Government specifications or purchase descriptions through the certification process.
</P>
<P>(2) The certificate of authority to manufacture is applicable only for the individual, firm, or corporation indicated and will be valid for 5 years.
</P>
<P>(3) TIOH will assign a hallmark to each certified manufacturer. All controlled heraldic items manufactured for commercial sale will bear the manufacturer's hallmark.
</P>
<P>(4) TIOH exclusively uses the “IOH” hallmark for the development of new controlled heraldic items; it is not authorized for use on items for commercial sale.
</P>
<P>(b) A certificate of authority to manufacture may be revoked or suspended under the procedures prescribed in § 507.16.
</P>
<P>(c) A list of certified manufacturers is on the TIOH web page at <I>https://tioh.army.mil/.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.7   Certification of controlled heraldic items.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacture and commercial sale of controlled heraldic items are not authorized until the certified manufacturer receives a letter of authorization from TIOH. Manufacturers who want to manufacture and sell controlled heraldic items must submit four production samples of each item to TIOH for authorization. If TIOH approves the production samples, it will provide a letter of authorization to manufacture along with one certified production sample to the manufacturer. Letters of authorization for certified heraldic items are valid for 5 years.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of TIOH may revoke or suspend a letter of authorization for failure to manufacture the heraldic item in accordance with applicable Government specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.8" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.8   Authority to sell.</HEAD>
<P>No certificate of authority to manufacture is required for selling controlled heraldic items listed in § 507.13. However, all sellers must ensure that all articles they sell bear hallmarks assigned by TIOH and are manufactured by certified manufacturers in conformance with applicable Government specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.9" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.9   Reproduction of designs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The photographing or printing of any decoration, service medal, service ribbon, badge, lapel button, insignia, or other device of a design the Secretary of the Army has prescribed for members of the Army to use is authorized, provided that such reproduction does not discredit the U.S. Army and is not used to defraud or misrepresent the identification or status of an individual, organization, society, or other group of persons.
</P>
<P>(b) The making or executing in any manner of any engraving, impression, or colorable imitation in the likeness of any decoration, service medal, service ribbon, badge, lapel button, insignia, or other device of a design the Secretary of the Army has prescribed for members of the Army to use is prohibited without prior approval in writing from the Army Trademark Licensing Program.
</P>
<P>(c) Except when used to illustrate a particular article that is offered for commercial sale, Army Regulation 360-1, paragraph 8-9e, prohibits the use of Army themes, material, uniforms, or insignia in advertisements and promotions for entertainment-oriented products that could imply Army endorsement of the product. Direct requests to the Chief, Public Affairs (SAPA-ZA), 1500 Army Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310-1500.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.10" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.10   Incorporation of designs or likenesses of approved designs in commercial articles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal law and Army policy restrict the use of military designs. The manufacture of articles for commercial sale that incorporate designs or likenesses of decorations, service medals, service ribbons, and lapel buttons is prohibited. Certain designs or likenesses of insignia, such as badges or organizational insignia, may be incorporated in articles manufactured for commercial sale, provided that the Army Trademark Licensing Program has granted permission in writing as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Army Trademark Licensing Program is responsible for reviewing requests for permission to incorporate certain insignia and other Army-owned marks in articles manufactured for commercial sale. Requests should be directed to the Director, Army Trademark Licensing Program, 2530 Crystal Drive, Suite 12140, Arlington, VA 22202-3934.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.11" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.11   Possession and wear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The wearing of any decoration, service medal, badge, service ribbon, lapel button, or insignia that the Army has prescribed or authorized by any person not properly authorized to wear such device or the use of any decoration, service medal, badge, service ribbon, lapel button, or insignia to misrepresent the identification or status of the person by whom such is worn is prohibited. Any person who violates this paragraph (a) is subject to punishment as prescribed in the statutes referred to in § 507.5.
</P>
<P>(b) Mere possession by a person of any of the articles prescribed in § 507.13 (except identification cards) is authorized, provided that such possession is not used to defraud or misrepresent the identification or status of the individual concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) Articles specified in § 507.13, or any distinctive parts (including suspension ribbons and service ribbons) or colorable imitations thereof, will not be used by any organization, society, or other group of persons without prior approval in writing by the Army Trademark Licensing Program as specified in § 507.10(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Heraldic Quality Control Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.12" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.12   General.</HEAD>
<P>The Heraldic Quality Control Program provides a method for ensuring that controlled heraldic items are manufactured by certified manufacturers in accordance with Government specifications. The design of metal insignia will be an exact duplicate of the design of the Government die or loaned hub from which the certified manufacturer's working die is extracted. The design of textile insignia will be embroidered in accordance with Government-furnished specification and cartoon.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.13" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.13   Controlled heraldic items.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Controlled heraldic items will be manufactured in accordance with Government specifications, using Government loaned hubs, dies, or cartoons, by TIOH-certified manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(b) The heraldic items listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (13) of this section are controlled and authorized for manufacture and commercial sale under the Heraldic Quality Control Program when specifically authorized by TIOH.
</P>
<P>(1) All authorized appurtenances and devices for decorations, medals, and ribbons such as oak leaf clusters, service stars, arrowheads, “V” device, and clasps.
</P>
<P>(2) Combat, special skill, and qualification badges and bars.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification badges.
</P>
<P>(4) All approved Shoulder Sleeve Insignia.
</P>
<P>(5) All approved Distinctive Unit Insignia.
</P>
<P>(6) All approved Regimental Distinctive Insignia.
</P>
<P>(7) All approved Combat Service Identification Badges.
</P>
<P>(8) Fourragères and lanyards.
</P>
<P>(9) Lapel buttons.
</P>
<P>(10) Decorations, service medals, and ribbons, except for the Medal of Honor.
</P>
<P>(11) Replicas of decorations and service medals for grave markers. Replicas are to be at least twice the size prescribed for decorations and service medals.
</P>
<P>(12) Service ribbons and unit awards.
</P>
<P>(13) Rosettes, except for the Medal of Honor.
</P>
<P>(c) Deviations from the prescribed specifications for the items listed in paragraph (b) of this section are not permitted without prior approval, in writing, by TIOH.
</P>
<P>(d) Hubs, dies, and cartoons are not provided to manufacturers for the following items. However, manufacturing will be in accordance with the Government-furnished drawing.
</P>
<P>(1) Shoulder Loop Insignia, Reserve Officers' Training Corps (ROTC), U.S. Army.
</P>
<P>(2) Institutional SSI, ROTC, U.S. Army.
</P>
<P>(3) Background trimming/flashes, U.S. Army.
</P>
<P>(4) Hand-embroidered bullion insignia.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.14" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.14   Articles not authorized for manufacture or commercial sale.</HEAD>
<P>The following articles are not authorized for manufacture and commercial sale, except under contract with the Defense Logistics Agency, Troop Support (DLA Troop Support):
</P>
<P>(a) The Medal of Honor.
</P>
<P>(b) Service ribbon for the Medal of Honor.
</P>
<P>(c) Medal of Honor Rosette.
</P>
<P>(d) Medal of Honor Flag.
</P>
<P>(e) Military Department Service flags (prescribed in Army Regulation 840-10).
</P>
<P>(f) Articles for commercial sale that incorporate designs or likenesses of insignia listed in § 507.13, except when authorized in writing by the Army Trademark Licensing Program as specified in § 507.10(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.15" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.15   Violations and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) TIOH will revoke a certificate of authority to manufacture when the holder intentionally violates any of the provisions of this part or does not comply with the agreement the manufacturer signed to receive a certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) Violations are also subject to penalties as prescribed in the statutes referred to in § 507.5.
</P>
<P>(c) Repetition or continuation of violations after official notice will be deemed as corroborating evidence of intentional violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.16" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.16   Processing complaints of alleged breach of policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension or revocation of a certificate of authority to manufacture.</I> TIOH may suspend or revoke a certificate of authority to manufacture if the manufacturer breaches quality control policies. The term “quality control policies” includes the obligation of a manufacturer to produce insignia in accordance with all applicable Government specifications, manufacturing drawings, and cartoons and other applicable instructions TIOH provided. Breaches of quality control policies may be identified by TIOH through the Quality Control Inspection Program or through registered complaints to TIOH.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting alleged breach of quality control.</I> Complaints and reports of an alleged breach of quality control policies will be forwarded to the Director, The Institute of Heraldry, 9325 Gunston Road, Room S113, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-5579.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informal investigation of allegations.</I> The Director may decide to suspend or revoke a certificate of authority to a manufacture based on evidence gathered during a TIOH heraldic quality control inspection or from a registered complaint. The Director may initiate an informal investigation of an allegation of breach(es) of the heraldic quality control policy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Heraldic Quality Control Inspection Program.</I> (1) TIOH will conduct periodic quality control inspections of on hand stocks of heraldic items maintained by:
</P>
<P>(i) Exchange military clothing stores.
</P>
<P>(ii) Certified manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon completion of quality control inspections, TIOH will provide a report of deficiencies to the appropriate retail outlet or Commander, DLA Troop Support, and the certified manufacturer responsible for the production of the item. The notification to the manufacturer will require assurances of compliance with quality control policies. The report of deficiencies will be reviewed upon recertification of the manufacturer. Any recurrence of the same breach will be considered a refusal to perform, and the Director will take further action to suspend or revoke certification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Complaint of alleged breach of quality control policy.</I> (1) If an investigation is initiated, the appointed investigator will impartially ascertain facts and gather appropriate evidence to substantiate or invalidate allegations of impropriety. The investigator will submit a report containing a summarized record of the investigation with findings of each allegation and supporting evidence to the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) If the investigation substantiates allegation(s) of a breach of quality control, the Director will notify the manufacturer in writing that the Director is contemplating suspending or revoking the certificate. The notification will include:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific allegations and findings of the investigator;
</P>
<P>(ii) All evidence provided to the Director in the investigation;
</P>
<P>(iii) A citation to this part as the authority under which the Director may suspend or revoke the certificate of authority if the situation warrants after the manufacturer has had an opportunity to reply;
</P>
<P>(iv) What actions, if the allegations are undisputed, are required to provide adequate assurance that future performance will conform to quality control policies;
</P>
<P>(v) The right to reply within 45 days of receipt of the notification in order to submit additional materials and evidence for consideration, to refute the allegations, or provide assurances that future performance will conform to quality control policies; and
</P>
<P>(vi) That a failure to reply within 45 days, or if there is any recurrence of the same breach will be considered a refusal to perform, and the Director will take further action to suspend or revoke certification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Refusal to perform.</I> (1) If the manufacturer fails to reply within a reasonable time to the letter authorized by paragraph (e) of this section, refuses to give adequate assurances that future performance will conform to quality control policies, indicates by subsequent conduct that the breach is continuous or repetitive, or disputes the allegations of breach, the Director will direct that a public hearing be conducted on the allegations.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing examiner will be appointed by appropriate orders. The examiner may be either a commissioned officer or a civilian employee above the grade of GS-7.
</P>
<P>(3) The specific written allegations, together with other pertinent material, will be transmitted to the hearing examiner for introduction as evidence at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) For failure to return a loaned tool, manufacturers may be suspended without referral to a hearing specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; however, the manufacturer will be advised, in writing, that tools are overdue and suspension will take effect if tools are not returned within the specified time.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification to the manufacturer by examiner.</I> Within a 7-day period following the receipt by the examiner of the allegations and other pertinent material, the examiner will transmit a registered letter of notification to the manufacturer informing him or her of the—
</P>
<P>(1) Specific allegations.
</P>
<P>(2) Directive of the Director requiring the holding of a public hearing on the allegations.
</P>
<P>(3) Examiner's decision to hold the public hearing at a specific time, date, and place that will be not earlier than 30 days from the date of the letter of notification.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultimate authority of the Director to suspend or revoke the certificate of authority if the record developed at the hearing so warrants.
</P>
<P>(5) Right to—
</P>
<P>(i) A full and fair public hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be represented by counsel during the hearing at no cost to the Government.
</P>
<P>(iii) Request a change in the date, time, or place of the hearing, for purposes of having reasonable time in which to prepare the case.
</P>
<P>(iv) Submit evidence and present witnesses in his or her own behalf.
</P>
<P>(v) Obtain at no cost a verbatim transcript of the proceedings, upon written request filed before the commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public hearing by examiner.</I> (1) At the time, date, and place designated in accordance with paragraph (g)(3) of this section, the examiner will conduct the public hearing.
</P>
<P>(i) A verbatim record of the proceedings will be maintained.
</P>
<P>(ii) All previous material received by the examiner will be introduced into evidence and made part of the record.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Government may be represented by counsel at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Subsequent to the conclusion of the hearing, the examiner will make specific findings on the record before him or her concerning each allegation.
</P>
<P>(3) The complete record of the case will be forwarded to the Director.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Action by the Director.</I> (1) The Director will review the record of the hearing and either approve or disapprove the findings.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon arrival of a finding of breach of quality control policies, the manufacturer will be so advised.
</P>
<P>(3) After review of the findings, the certificate of authority may be revoked or suspended. If the certificate of authority is revoked or suspended, the Director will—
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the manufacturer of the revocation or suspension.
</P>
<P>(ii) Remove the manufacturer from the list of certified manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform the Army &amp; Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) and the Defense Logistics Agency-Troop Support of the action.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Reinstatement of certificate of authority.</I> Upon receipt of adequate assurance that the manufacturer will comply with quality control policies, the Director may reinstate a certificate of authority that has been suspended or revoked.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—License and Manufacture of the Service Flag and Service Lapel Button</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.17" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.17   Authority to manufacture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Defense has designated the Secretary of the Army to grant certificates of authority for the manufacture and commercial sale of Service flags and Service lapel buttons.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person, firm, or corporation that wishes to manufacture the Service flag or lapel button must apply for a certificate of authority to manufacture from TIOH.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.18   Application for licensing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants who want to manufacture and sell Service flags or Service lapel buttons should contact the Director, The Institute of Heraldry, 9325 Gunston Road, Room S113, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060-5579, to obtain an agreement to manufacture, drawings, and instructions for manufacturing the Service flag and Service lapel button.
</P>
<P>(b) Certificates of authority to manufacture Service flags and Service lapel buttons will be valid for 5 years from the date of issuance, at which time applicants must reapply for a new certificate of authority.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="510" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 510—CHAPLAINS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>R.S. 1125; 10 U.S.C. 238.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 510.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.1   Private ministrations, sacraments, and ordinances.</HEAD>
<P>Chaplains will conduct or arrange for appropriate burial services at the interment of members of the military service, active and retired, and for members of their families upon request. A chaplain may perform the marriage rite, provided he complies with the civil law of the place where the marriage is to be solemnized and provided all parties concerned have complied with the requirements of the denomination the chaplain represents and with any directives which may have been issued by the military command or higher headquarters. The scope of the chaplains' work will include such ministrations as are held by some denominations or religious bodies as sacraments and by others as rites or ordinances. Chaplains will administer or arrange for rites and sacraments for military personnel and civilians under military jurisdiction according to the respective beliefs and conscientious practices of all concerned. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 12931, Dec. 27, 1951]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="516" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 516—LITIGATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 10 U.S.C. 218, 1037, 1089, 1552, 1553, 2036; 18 U.S.C. 219, 3401; 28 U.S.C. 50, 513, 515, 543; 31 U.S.C. 3729 and 41 U.S.C. 51; 42 U.S.C. 290, 2651; 43 U.S.C. 666
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part prescribes policies and procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Defensive and affirmative litigation in Federal and state civilian courts where the Army or DOD has an interest in the matter.
</P>
<P>(2) Proceedings before Federal or state administrative bodies, such as utility rate commissions.
</P>
<P>(3) Release of official information and testimony by DA personnel with regard to litigation.
</P>
<P>(4) Remedies for procurement fraud and corruption.
</P>
<P>(5) Environmental civil litigation and administrative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(6) Proceedings before the Office of Special Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation does not apply to DA or DOD proceedings such as courts-martial or administrative boards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.2   References.</HEAD>
<P>Applicable publications and forms are listed in appendix A to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.3   Explanation of abbreviations and terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Glossary contains explanations of abbreviations and terms.


</P>
<P>(b) The masculine sex has been used throughout this regulation for simplicity and consistency. Any reference to the masculine sex is intended to include women.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994, as amended at 90 FR 38399, Aug. 8, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>United States Department of Justice (DOJ).</I> DOJ will defend litigation in domestic and foreign courts, against the United States, its agencies and instrumentalities, and employees whose official conduct is involved. The various U.S. Attorney Offices, under the oversight of the Attorney General, will conduct much of the representation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).</I> Subject to the ultimate control of litigation by DOJ (including the various U.S. Attorney Offices), and to the general oversight of litigation by the Army General Counsel, TJAG is responsible for litigation in which the Army has an interest except with respect to proceedings addressed in paragraph (i) of this section, only TJAG (or Chief, Litigation Division) will communicate to DOJ the army's position with regard to settlement of a case.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistant Judge Advocate General For Civil Law and Litigation (AJAG-CL).</I> Responsible to TJAG for litigation issues; supervises Chief, Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief, Litigation Division.</I> Reports to AJAG-CL and is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervising litigation in which the Army has an interest.
</P>
<P>(2) Acting for TJAG and Secretary of the Army on litigation issues, including the authority to settle or compromise cases, subject to the supervision of TJAG and AJAG-CL.
</P>
<P>(3) Delegating cases if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Serving as primary contact with DOJ on litigation.
</P>
<P>(5) Accepting service of process for DA and for the Secretary of the Army in his official capacity. See 32 CFR § 257.5).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special Assistant U.S. Attorneys (SAUSAs) and DOJ Special Attorneys.</I> Army judge advocates and civilian attorneys, when appointed as SAUSAs under 28 U.S.C. 543, will represent the Army's interests in either criminal or civil matters in Federal court under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Felony and misdemeanor prosecutions in Federal court.</I> Army attorneys, at the installation level, after being duly appointed (See AR 27-10), will prosecute cases, in which the Army has an interest, in Federal court. Army attorneys who prosecute criminal cases will not represent the United States in civil litigation without authorization from Chief, Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SAUSAs for civil litigation.</I> By assignment of TJAG and upon the approval of the U.S. Attorney, Judge Advocates will serve within a U.S. Attorney's office to represent the government in litigation in which the Army or DOD has an interest. These Judge Advocates have the same general authority and responsibility as an Assistant U.S. Attorney.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special Attorneys assigned to DOJ.</I> By assignment of TJAG and with the concurrence of the appropriate DOJ official, Judge Advocates will work as Special Attorneys for DOJ. Special Attorneys are authorized to represent the United States in civil litigation in which the Army or DOD has an interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Attorneys at Army activities or commands.</I> SJAs or legal advisers, or attorneys assigned to them, will represent the United States in litigation only if authorized by this regulation or delegated authority in individual cases by the Chief, Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commander, U.S. Army Claims Service (USARCS).</I> The Commander, USARCS, and USARCS attorneys, subject to AR 27-20, Chapter 4, will maintain direct liaison with DOJ in regard to administrative settlement of claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Chief, Contract Law Division, OTJAG.</I> The Chief, Contract Law Division, attorneys assigned to the Contract Law Division, and other attorneys designated by the Chief, Contract Law Division, in litigation involving taxation, will represent DA in negotiation, administrative proceedings, and litigation, and maintain liaison with DOJ and other governmental authorities.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legal Representatives of the Chief of Engineers.</I> The Office of Chief Counsel, attorneys assigned thereto, and other attorneys designated by the Chief Counsel will maintain direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in litigation and administrative proceedings a rising from the navigation, civil works, Clean Water Act 404 permit authority, environmental response activities, and real property functions of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Chief Trial Attorney, Contract Appeals Division, USALSA.</I> The Chief Trial Attorney, attorneys assigned to the Contract Appeals Division, and attorneys designated by the Chief Trial Attorney will represent the government before the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals and the General Services Board of Contract Appeals. They will maintain direct liaison with DOJ concerning appeals from ASBCA and GSBCA decisions. The Chief Trial Attorney has designated COE attorneys to act as trial attorneys in connection with COE contract appeals.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Chief, Regulatory Law Office, USALSA.</I> The Chief, Regulatory Law Office, attorneys assigned to the Regulatory Law Office, and other attorneys designated by the Chief, will represent DA consumer interests in regulatory matters before state and Federal administrative agencies and commissions, including but not limited to proceedings involving rates and conditions for the purchase of services for communications (except long-distance telephone), transportation, and utilities (gas, electric, water and sewer). They will maintain direct liaison with DOJ for communications, transportation, and utilities litigation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Chief, Intellectual Property Law Division, USALSA.</I> The Chief, Intellectual Property Law Division, and the attorneys assigned thereto will represent DA in matters pertaining to patents, copyrights, and trademarks. They will maintain direct liaison with DOJ concerning intellectual property issues.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Chief, Labor and Employment Law Office, OTJAG.</I> The Chief, Labor and Employment Law Office, attorneys assigned thereto, and attorneys identified as labor counselors will represent DA in matters pertaining to labor relations, civilian personnel, and Federal labor standards enforcement before the following: Federal Labor Relations Authority; Merit Systems Protection Board; Equal Employment Opportunity Commission; Department of Labor; National Labor Relations Board; and, state workmen's compensation commissions. In the event any individual mentioned in this subparagraph intends to make a recommendation to DOJ concerning an appeal of any case to a U.S. Court of Appeals, such recommendation will first be coordinated with Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Chief, Procurement Fraud Division, USALSA.</I> The Chief, Procurement Fraud Division, attorneys assigned thereto, and other attorneys designated by the Chief will represent DA in all procurement fraud and corruption matters before the Army suspension and debarment authority and before any civil fraud recovery administrative body. They will maintain liaison and coordinate remedies with DOJ and other agencies in matters of procurement fraud and corruption.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Chief, Environmental Law Division, USALSA.</I> The Chief, Environmental Law Division, attorneys assigned thereto, and other attorneys designated by the Chief, ELD, will maintain direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in all environmental and natural resources civil litigation and administrative proceedings involving missions and functions of DA, its major and subordinate commands, installations presently or previously managed by DA, and other sites or issues in which DA has a substantial interest, except as otherwise specifically provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Chief, Criminal Law Division, OTJAG.</I> The Chief, Criminal Law Division, will have general oversight of felony and magistrate court prosecutions conducted by Army lawyers acting as Special Assistant U.S. Attorneys. (See subpart G of this part). The Chief will coordinate with DOJ and other governmental agencies concerning the overall conduct of these prosecutions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994; 59 FR 45974, Sept. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.5   Restriction on contact with DOJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as authorized by TJAG, the General Counsel, the Chief of Litigation Division, or this regulation, no Army personnel will confer or correspond with DOJ concerning legal proceedings in which the Army has an interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> This prohibition does not preclude contact with DOJ required by the Memorandum of Understanding between DOJ and DOD relating to the investigation and prosecution of certain crimes. (See AR 27-10, para 2-7). In addition, an installation SJA or legal adviser is expected to maintain a working relationship with the U.S. Attorney in each district within his geographical area. An SJA or legal adviser should request the U.S. Attorney to advise him immediately when litigation involving DA or its personnel is served on the U.S. Attorney.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994; 59 FR 45974, Sept. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.6   Appearance as counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Military personnel on active duty and DA civilian personnel will not appear as counsel before any civilian court or in any preliminary proceeding, for example, deposition, in litigation in which the Army has an interest without the prior written approval of TJAG, except under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The appearance is authorized by this regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) The individual is a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) The appearance is authorized under an expanded legal assistance program (See AR 27-3).
</P>
<P>(4) The individual is a judge advocate assigned or detailed by TJAG to DOJ to represent the United States in civil or criminal cases, for example, a Special Assistant U.S. Attorney, or an attorney assigned to Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> All requests for appearance as counsel will be made through Litigation Division to the Personnel, Plans and Training Office, OTJAG. Requests for DA military or civilian attorneys to appear in any civilian court or proceeding on behalf of a soldier who is also facing UCMJ action will be delivered to the SJA, legal adviser, or Regional Defense Counsel, as appropriate. The SJA or legal adviser will forward the request to Litigation Division with an evaluation of the case and recommendation. Regional Defense Counsel should send requests for USATDS counsel to Chief, USATDS, who will forward the request to Litigation Division. Privileged or otherwise sensitive client information should only be submitted through USATDS channels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.1.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.7   Mailing addresses.</HEAD>
<P>Mailing addresses for organizations referenced in this regulation are in appendix B to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Service of Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.8" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.8   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Defined.</I> Process is a legal document that compels a defendant in an action to appear in court or to comply with the court's demands, for example, in a civil case a summons or subpoena, or in a criminal case, a warrant for arrest, indictment, contempt order, subpoena, or summons. Service of process is the delivery of the document to a defendant to notify him of a claim or charge against him.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> DA personnel will follow the guidance of this chapter when civil officials attempt to serve civil or criminal process on individuals on Federal property.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> Provost marshals shall ensure that installation law enforcement personnel are adequately trained to respond to situations which arise with regard to service of civil and criminal process. SJAs or legal advisers shall provide guidance to law enforcement personnel in these matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.9" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.9   Service of criminal process within the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Surrender of personnel.</I> Guidance for surrender of military personnel to civilian law enforcement officials is in Chapter 7 of AR 630-10 and AR l90-9. Army officials will cooperate with civilian law enforcement authorities who seek the surrender of a soldier in connection with criminal charges. Special rules apply when a bail bondsman or other surety seeks custody of a soldier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for witnesses or evidence in criminal proceedings.</I> See subpart G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994; 59 FR 45975, Sept. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.10" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.10   Service of civil process within the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> DA officials will not prevent or evade the service or process in legal actions brought against the United States or against themselves in their official capacities. If acceptance of service of process would interfere with the performance of military duties, Army officials may designate a representative to accept service. DA personnel sued in their individual capacity should seek legal counsel concerning voluntary acceptance of process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for witnesses or evidence in civil proceedings.</I> See subpart G to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process of Federal courts.</I> Subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the commander, civil officials will be permitted to serve Federal process. (See Fed. R. Civ. P. 4, 45).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Process of state courts.</I> (1) In areas of exclusive Federal jurisdiction that are not subject to the right to serve state process, the commander or supervisor will determine whether the individual to be served wishes to accept service voluntarily. A JA or other DA attorney will inform the individual of the legal effect of voluntary acceptance. If the individual does not desire to accept service, the party requesting service will be notified that the nature of the exclusive Federal jurisdiction precludes service by state authorities on the military installation.
</P>
<P>(2) On Federal property where the right to serve process is reserved by or granted to the state, in areas of concurrent jurisdiction, or where the United States has only a proprietary interest, Army officials asked to facilitate service of process will initially proceed as provided in the preceding subparagraph. If the individual declines to accept service, the requesting party will be allowed to serve the process in accordance with applicable state law, subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the commander.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Process of foreign courts.</I> A U.S. District Court may order service upon a person who resides in the judicial district of any document issued in connection with a proceeding in a foreign or international tribunal. (28 U.S.C. 1696). In addition, the U.S. State Department has the power to receive a letter rogatory issued by a foreign or international tribunal, to transmit it to a tribunal, officer or agency in the United States, and to return it after execution. (28 U.S.C. 1781). Absent a treaty or agreement to the contrary, these provisions will govern.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Seizure of personal property.</I> State and Federal courts issue orders (for example, writ of attachment) authorizing a levy (seizure) of property to secure satisfaction of a judgment. DA personnel will comply with valid state or Federal court orders commanding or authorizing the seizure of private property to the same extent that state or Federal process is served.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 38236, July 27, 1994; 59 FR 45975, Sept. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.11" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.11   Service of criminal process outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>Army Regulation 630-10 and international treaties, such as status of forces agreements, govern the service of criminal process of foreign courts and the surrender of soldiers to foreign civilian law enforcement officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.12" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.12   Service of civil process outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process of foreign courts.</I> In foreign countries service of process issued by foreign courts will be made under the law of the place of service, as modified by status of forces agreements, treaties or other agreements. In foreign areas under exclusive U.S. jurisdiction, service of process issued by foreign courts will be made under the law specified by appropriate U.S. authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Process of Federal courts.</I> Service of process on U.S. citizens or residents may be accomplished under the following provisions: The Hague Convention, reprinted in 28 USCA Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, following Rule 4; Fed. R. Civ. P. 4(i); 28 USC 1781 and 1783; and, the rules of the Federal court concerned. If a DA official receives a request to serve Federal process on a person overseas, he will determine if the individual wishes to accept service voluntarily. Individuals will be permitted to seek counsel. If the person will not accept service voluntarily, the party requesting service will be notified and advised to follow procedures prescribed by the law of the foreign country concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process of state courts.</I> If a DA official receives a request to serve state court process on a person overseas, he will determine if the individual wishes to accept service voluntarily. Individuals will be permitted to seek counsel. If the person will not accept service voluntarily, the party requesting service will be notified and advised to follow procedures prescribed by the law of the foreign country concerned. (See, for example, The Hague Convention, reprinted in 28 USCA Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, following Rule 4).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suits against the United States.</I> DA personnel served with foreign civil process will notify the appropriate SJA or legal adviser, who will return the document to the issuing authority explaining the lack of authority to accept service for the United States. Service on the United States must be made upon DOJ through established diplomatic channels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.13" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.13   Assistance in serving process overseas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Europe.</I> For information and assistance concerning service of process of persons assigned to or accompanying U.S. Forces in Europe, contact the Foreign Law Branch, International Law Division, Office of The Judge Advocate, Headquarters U.S. Army, Europe, and Seventh Army, Unit 29351, (Heidelberg, Germany) APO AE 09014.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Korea.</I> For information and assistance concerning service of process of persons assigned to or accompanying U.S. Forces in Korea, contact Staff Judge Advocate, US Forces Korea (Seoul, Republic of Korea), APO AP 96205.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Panama, Central and South America.</I> For information and assistance concerning service of process of persons assigned to or accompanying forces in the U.S. Army Southern Command, contact Staff Judge Advocate, HQ, US Army South, Fort Clayton, Panama, APO AA 34004-5000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.14" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.2.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.14   Service of process on DA or Secretary of Army.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief, Litigation Division, shall accept service of process for Department of the Army or for the Secretary of the Army in his official capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Reporting Legal Proceedings to HQDA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.15" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.15   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Legal proceedings requiring reporting.</I> Actions must be taken upon commencement of litigation or administrative proceedings in which the United States has an interest. Typically, the Secretary of the Army, DA, the United States, or DA personnel are named as defendant in a lawsuit or as respondent in an administrative proceeding. A nonexclusive listing of cases in which the United States has an interest include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Suits for damages, injunctive relief, or other action filed against the government or against DA personnel in their official capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) Suits alleging individual liability arising from performance of official duties by DA personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) Actions affecting DA operations or activities or which might require official action by DA personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Actions arising out of DA contracts, subcontracts, or purchase orders wherein the government might be required to reimburse a contractor for litigation expenses.
</P>
<P>(5) Bankruptcy proceedings in which the United States or its instrumentalities may have an interest, including bankruptcies involving government contractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Command and agency responsibility.</I> Commanders and supervisors of Army units, installations, or organizations will ensure reports required by this section are promptly submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports to HQDA.</I> Reports required by this regulation will be made telephonically or mailed to the responsible organization at DA. Appendix B to this part contains mailing addresses for these offices. Except in the situations described below, reports required by this chapter will be made to Litigation Division:
</P>
<P>(1) Actual or potential litigation (or administrative infringement claims) involving patents, copyrights, or trademarks will be made to Intellectual Property Law Division.
</P>
<P>(2) Reports of pending or prospective litigation involving taxation will be made to Contract Law Division.
</P>
<P>(3) Communications, transportation, and utility services reports will be made to Regulatory Law Office.
</P>
<P>(4) Reports involving environmental and natural resource litigation and administrative proceedings will be made to Environmental Law Division.
</P>
<P>(5) Potential civil recovery reports in cases of procurement fraud and corruption will be made to Procurement Fraud Division.
</P>
<P>(6) Reports involving the felony prosecution program and magistrate court prosecutions will be made to Criminal Law Division, OTJAG.
</P>
<P>(7) Cases before the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals and the General Services Board of Contract Appeals will be made to Contract Appeals Division.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified information.</I> Information required by this regulation will be submitted in an unclassified form if possible. If downgrading or declassification is not feasible, the classified material should be separated from the report and forwarded under separate cover.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other reporting requirements.</I> Reports required by this chapter are in addition to and do not satisfy any other reporting requirement, such as the following: notifying the FBI of offenses pursuant to AR 27-10; submitting serious incident reports pursuant to AR 190-40; reporting procurement fraud or other irregularities per Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, section 209.406-3 (48 CFR 209.406-3); reporting the exercise of criminal jurisdiction by foreign tribunals over U.S. personnel pursuant to AR 27-50; or, reporting bankruptcies per AR 37-103.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reports control exemption.</I> The reports required herein are exempt from reports control under AR 335-15, paragraphs 3-3a(5) and 5-2e(4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.16" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.16   Individual and supervisory procedures upon commencement of legal proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual procedures.</I> DA personnel served with civil or criminal process concerning a proceeding in which the United States has an interest (§ 516.15) will immediately inform their supervisor and furnish copies of process and pleadings. There is no requirement to notify supervisors of purely private litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervisory procedures.</I> When supervisors learn that legal proceedings in which the United States has an interest have commenced, the supervisor will forward a copy of all process and pleadings, along with other readily available information, to the SJA or legal adviser. If no legal officer is available locally, the documents will be forwarded to the SJA or legal adviser of the next higher headquarters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.17" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.17   SJA or legal adviser procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate notice to HQDA.</I> When an SJA or legal adviser learns of litigation in which the United States has an interest, and it appears that HQDA is not aware of the action, the SJA or legal adviser will telephonically notify the responsible HQDA office. (See § 516.15(c)). Immediate notice is particularly important when litigation involves one of the following: a lawsuit against an employee in his individual capacity; a motion for a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction; a habeas corpus proceeding; a judicial or administrative proceeding involving less than 60 days to file an answer; and, actions with possible Congressional, Secretarial, or Army Staff interest. For legal proceedings instituted in foreign tribunals, the SJA or legal adviser will also notify the major overseas commander concerned and the appropriate U.S. Embassy or Legation. A telephonic report to HQDA should include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Title or style of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Full names and addresses of the parties.
</P>
<P>(3) Tribunal in which the action is filed, date filed, docket number, when and on whom service of process was made, and date by which pleading or response is required.
</P>
<P>(4) Nature of the action, amount claimed or relief sought.
</P>
<P>(5) Reasons for immediate action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmission of process, pleadings, and related papers.</I> Unless instructed otherwise by HQDA, the SJA or legal adviser will FAX or mail HQDA a copy of all process, pleadings, and related papers. Use of express mail or overnight delivery service is authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to U.S. Attorney.</I> If the legal proceeding is instituted in the United States, the SJA or legal adviser, unless instructed otherwise by HQDA, will notify the appropriate U.S. Attorney and render assistance as required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.18   Litigation alleging individual liability.</HEAD>
<P>See subpart D for procedures to follow when DA personnel, as a result of performance of official duties, are either sued in their individual capacities or face criminal charges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.19" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.19   Injunctive relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Plaintiffs may attempt to force government action or restraint in important operational matters or pending personnel actions through motions for temporary restraining orders (TRO) or preliminary injunctions (PI). Because these actions can quickly impede military functions, immediate and decisive action must be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification to HQDA and U.S. Attorney.</I> The SJA or legal adviser will immediately notify Litigation Division or other appropriate office at HQDA when a motion for TRO or PI has been, or is about to be, filed. The SJA or legal adviser will also notify the responsible U.S. Attorney.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actions by SJA or legal adviser.</I> The SJA or legal adviser will assist the DOJ or DA attorney responsible for the litigation. Installation attorneys or support personnel should begin accumulating relevant documentary evidence and identifying witnesses. If requested, installation attorneys will prepare a legal memorandum concerning the motion, giving particular attention to the following issues relevant to a court granting injunctive relief:
</P>
<P>(1) Plaintiff's likelihood of success on the merits.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether plaintiff will be irreparably harmed if injunctive relief is not granted.
</P>
<P>(3) Harm to defendant and other parties if injunctive relief is granted.
</P>
<P>(4) The public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.20" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.20   Habeas Corpus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A soldier may file a writ of habeas corpus to challenge his continued custody (usually in a post court-martial situation) or retention in the Army. As is the case with injunctive relief in the preceding paragraph, installation SJAs and legal advisers must take immediate action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification to Litigation Division and U.S. Attorney.</I> The SJA or legal adviser will notify Litigation Division and the responsible U.S. Attorney's Office immediately upon learning that a petition for writ of habeas corpus has been filed. All relevant documentary evidence supporting the challenged action should be assembled immediately.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures in habeas corpus.</I> Upon the filing of a petition for a writ of habeas corpus, the court will dismiss the petition, issue the writ, or order the respondent to show cause why it should not be granted. If a writ or order to show cause is issued, the SJA or legal adviser should be prepared to assist the responsible Litigation Division or DOJ attorney in preparing a return and answer. If so directed, the SJA will also prepare a memorandum of points and authorities to accompany the return and answer. The government's response should cover the following: whether the Army has custody of petitioner; whether respondent and petitioner are within the judicial district; and, whether appellate or administrative remedies have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Writs or orders issued by state courts.</I> No state court, after being judicially informed that a petitioner is in custody under the authority of the United States, should interfere with that custody or require that petitioner be brought before the state court. A deserter, apprehended by any civil officer having authority to apprehend offenders under the laws of the United States or of any state, district, territory, or possession of the United States, is in custody by authority of the United States. If a writ of habeas corpus is issued by a state court, the SJA or legal adviser will seek guidance from Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign court orders.</I> A foreign court should not inquire into the legality of restraint of a person held by U.S. military authority. If a foreign court issues any process in the nature of a writ of habeas corpus, the SJA or legal adviser will immediately report the matter to the appropriate U.S. forces commander and to Litigation Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.21" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.21   Litigation against government contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A contract might require that the government reimburse a contractor (or subcontractor) for adverse judgments or litigation expenses. Unless a contractor or subcontractor facing a lawsuit requests representation by DOJ, the Army presumes the contractor will obtain private counsel to defend the case. If the contract so allows, however, the contractor may request and HQDA may recommend that DOJ represent the contractor if it is in the best interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Actions by SJA or legal adviser.</I> If a contractor or subcontractor faces litigation and the underlying contract with the government requires reimbursement for adverse judgments or costs of the litigation, the SJA or legal adviser, through the contracting officer, should determine if the contractor desires representation by DOJ. If so, the contractor or authorized agent will sign a request for representation. (See figure D-3, appendix G, of this part.) The SJA or legal adviser will determine whether, in his opinion, representation by DOJ should be granted. He will prepare a memorandum to support his recommendation, especially concerning any issue regarding the government's obligation to reimburse the contractor under the contract. The SJA or legal adviser will forward his memorandum, along with the contractor's request, to Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actions by Litigation Division.</I> The Chief, Litigation Division, will evaluate the submission and decide if it is in the Army's best interest that the request be granted. He will prepare a memorandum supporting his decision and send the packet to DOJ. The Chief's decision constitutes the final DA position on the matter. If DOJ grants the contractor's request, the Chief, Litigation Division, will ensure that the contractor is notified through the SJA or legal adviser and the contracting officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Private Counsel.</I> A contractor represented by DOJ may ask that private counsel assist the DOJ attorney in the litigation. The DOJ attorney will remain in control of the litigation, and the fees for private counsel will not be reimbursable except under unusual circumstances. The contractor must seek both DOJ and DA approval to employ private counsel when DOJ representation has been granted. Even if DOJ and DA grant authority to employ private counsel, the contracting officer will determine whether a contractor will be reimbursed under the contract for private counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement.</I> The contractor, unless the contract specifies otherwise, will ultimately decide whether to compromise a suit. Reimbursement under the contract is determined by the contracting officer, with the advice of his attorney.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.22" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.22   Miscellaneous reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>SJAs or legal advisers will comply with the directives cited below concerning actual or prospective litigation involving the following types of cases:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Taxation.</I> (1) Contractor transactions. (FAR and DFARS, 48 CFR parts 29 and 229).
</P>
<P>(2) Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) activities. (AR 60-20).
</P>
<P>(3) Purchase or sale of alcoholic beverages. (AR 215-2).
</P>
<P>(4) Nonappropriated fund and related activities. (AR 215-1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tort and contract claims, insurance and litigation involving nonappropriated fund activities.</I> (AR 215-1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annexation of Army lands.</I> (AR 405-25).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communications, transportation, and utility services administrative proceedings.</I> Any contracting officer or other Army official responsible for the acquisition of communications, transportation, utilities (gas, electric, water and sewer), or military mail services, who becomes aware of any action or proceeding of interest to the Army, will promptly refer the matter to the SJA or legal adviser, who will take the actions prescribed in § 516.17 of this part. Examples of actions requiring referral follow: new or amended rates, regulations, or conditions of service; applications for authority to discontinue or initiate service; changes in electromagnetic patterns causing adverse communications interference; or, zoning proposals affecting historic or aesthetic preservation. In addition, the SJA or legal adviser will transmit the following to Regulatory Law Office:
</P>
<P>(1) The names and addresses of any parties intervening and the substance of their positions.
</P>
<P>(2) Names of government users affected by any change.
</P>
<P>(3) Copy of any proposed rates, rules, or regulations.
</P>
<P>(4) A recommendation whether the Army should intervene in the action or proceeding. If intervention is recommended, provide a memorandum to support the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Legal proceedings overseas.</I> Foreign communications, transportation, and utility service proceedings need not be reported. In other legal proceedings instituted in a foreign country, the SJA or legal adviser will take the actions prescribed in § 516.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maritime claims.</I> Admiralty and maritime claims within the purview of Chapter 8, AR 27-20, which have been investigated and processed under AR 55-19 or other applicable regulations, will be referred to USARCS.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Army and Air Force Exchange Service litigation.</I> The SJA or legal adviser will send a copy of all documents relating to litigation against AAFES to General Counsel, AAFES, P.O. Box 660202, Dallas, TX 75266-0202.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bankruptcy.</I> Reports of bankruptcy or insolvency proceedings shall be made in accordance with this regulation and AR 37-103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.23" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.23   Litigation reports.</HEAD>
<P>The SJA or legal adviser will prepare a litigation report when directed by HQDA. The report will contain the following sections: Statement of Facts; Setoff or Counterclaim; Responses to Pleadings; Memorandum of Law; Witness List; and, Exhibits.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of Facts.</I> Include a complete statement of the facts upon which the action and any defense thereto are based. Where possible, support facts by reference to documents or witness statements. Include details of previous administrative actions, such as the filing and results of an administrative claim. If the action is predicated on the Federal Tort Claims Act, include a description of the plaintiff's relationship to the United States, its instrumentalities, or its contractors. Also include a statement whether an insurance company or other third party has an interest in the plaintiff's claim by subrogation or otherwise and whether there are additional claims related to the same incident.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Setoff or Counterclaim.</I> Discuss whether setoff or counterclaim exists. If so, highlight the supportive facts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responses to Pleadings.</I> Prepare a draft answer or other appropriate response to the pleadings. (See figure C-1, to this part). Discuss whether allegations of fact are well-founded. Refer to evidence that refutes factual allegations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Memorandum of Law.</I> Include a brief statement of the applicable law with citations to legal authority. Discussions of local law, if applicable, should cover relevant issues such as measure of damages, scope of employment, effect of contributory negligence, or limitations upon death and survival actions. Do not unduly delay submission of a litigation report to prepare a comprehensive memorandum of law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Potential witness information.</I> List each person having information relevant to the case and provide an office address and telephone number. If there is no objection, provide the individual's social security account number, home address, and telephone number. This is “core information” required by Executive Order No. 12778 (Civil Justice Reform). Finally, summarize the information or potential testimony that each person listed could provide.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exhibits.</I> (1) Attach a copy of all relevant documents. This is “core information” required by Executive Order No. 12778 (Civil Justice Reform). Unless otherwise directed by HQDA, each exhibit should be tabbed and internally paginated. References to exhibits in the litigation report should be to page numbers of particular exhibits. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of relevant reports of claims officers, investigating officers, boards or similar data should be attached, although such reports will not obviate the requirement for preparation of a complete litigation report. 
</P>
<P>(3) Prepare an index of tabs and exhibits. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where a relevant document has been released pursuant to a FOIA request, provide a copy of the response, or otherwise identify the requestor and the records released. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Distribution and number of copies.</I> Unless HQDA directs otherwise, SJAs or legal advisers will mail (first class) an original and one copy of the litigation report to the responsible HQDA office (See § 516.15 of this part) and one copy to the U.S. Attorney's Office handling the case. If possible, record the litigation report onto a magnetic diskette, using either WordPerfect, Enable, or ACSII, and send it to Litigation Division. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.24" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.24   Preservation of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>Because documents needed for litigation or administrative proceedings are subject to routine destruction, the SJA or legal adviser will ensure that all relevant documents are preserved. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.25" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.25   DA Form 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The DA Form 4 (See figure C-2, appendix G, of this part) is used to authenticate Army records or documents. Documents attached to a properly prepared and sealed DA Form 4 are self-authenticating. (See Fed. R. Evid. 902). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation at the installation level.</I> A DA Form 4 need not be prepared until the trial attorney presenting the government's case identifies documents maintained at the installation level which he will need at trial. Once documents are identified, the custodian of the documents will execute his portion of the DA Form 4. (See figure C-2, appendix G, of this part). The custodian certifies that the documents attached to the DA Form 4 are true copies of official documents. Documents attached to each form should be generally identified; each document need not be mentioned specifically. Only the upper portion of the form should be executed at the local level. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actions at HQDA.</I> Upon receipt of the DA Form 4 with documents attached thereto, HQDA will affix a ribbon and seal and deliver it to the Office of the Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Army. That office will place the official Army seal on the packet. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.26" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.3.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.26   Unsworn declarations under penalty of perjury.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the provisions of 28 U.S.C. l746, whenever any matter is required or permitted to be established or proven by a sworn statement, oath or affidavit, such matter may also be established or proven by an unsworn written declaration under penalty of perjury. Because such declaration does not require a notary or other official to administer oaths, individuals preparing statements for use in litigation should consider using this format. (See figure C-3, appendix G, of this part). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When executed within the United States.</I> Place the following at the end of the witness statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. (28 U.S.C. 1746). 
</P>
<FP>Executed on 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)    (Signature)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>When executed outside the United States.</I> Place the following at the end of the witness statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. (28 U.S.C. 1746). 
</P>
<FP>Executed on
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)    (Signature)</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Individual Liability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.27" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.27   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart guidance when DA personnel, as a result of the performance of their official duties, are either sued in their personal capacity, or are charged in a criminal proceeding. Examples of civil actions alleging individual liability include the following: a medical malpractice lawsuit against health care providers; suits resulting from motor vehicle accidents; constitutional torts; or, common law torts such as assault, libel, or intentional infliction of emotional distress. Likewise, state or Federal criminal charges can arise from the performance of official duties, including environmental crimes or motor vehicle accidents. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.28" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.28   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Commanders, supervisors, and SJAs or legal advisers will give highest priority to compliance with the requirements of this chapter with regard to current or former DA personnel who face criminal charges or civil litigation in their individual capacity as a result of performance of their official duties. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DOJ policy on representation.</I> If in the best interest of the United States, upon request of the individual concerned, and upon certification by his agency that he was acting within the scope of his employment, DOJ may represent present and former DA personnel sued individually as a result of actions taken within the scope of their employment. Representation can be declined for a variety of reasons, including but not limited to the following: the employee was not acting within the scope of his office; there is a conflict of interest; or, actions were not taken in a good faith effort to conform to law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.29" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.29   Federal statutes and regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA).</I> (28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 2671-2680). A waiver of sovereign immunity which, with certain exceptions, makes the United States liable for tort claims in the same manner as a private individual. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal Employees Liability Reform and Tort Compensation Act of l988 (FELRTCA or the Westfall Act, Pub. L. No. 100-694, 102 Stat. 4563 (1988) (codified at and amending 28 U.S.C. 2671, 2674, 2679).</I> FELRTCA, by amending the Federal Tort Claims Act, makes the FTCA the exclusive remedy for common law tort claims arising from actions taken by Federal employees acting within the scope of employment. The law was passed to eliminate problems caused by <I>Westfall</I> v. <I>Erwin,</I> 484 U.S. 292 (1988). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>10 U.S.C. 1089 (Defense of certain suits arising out of medical malpractice).</I> This provision, commonly referred to as the Gonzales Act, makes the FTCA the exclusive remedy for suits alleging medical malpractice against a military health care provider. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>28 CFR 50.15 (Representation of Federal officials and employees by Department of Justice attorneys [. . .] in civil, criminal, and congressional proceedings in which Federal employees are sued, subpoenaed, or charged in their individual capacities).</I> These DOJ regulations set out the policy and procedures for requesting representation in individual liability cases. See also 28 CFR part 15 (Defense of Certain Suits Against Federal Employees, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(e) 28 CFR 50.16 (Representation of Federal employees by private counsel at Federal expense). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.30" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.30   Procedures for obtaining certification and DOJ representation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>SJA or legal adviser procedures.</I> When an SJA or legal adviser learns of a criminal charge or of a lawsuit alleging individual liability against DA personnel as a result of performance of official duties, he will take the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately notify Litigation Division and the appropriate U.S. Attorney and FAX or express deliver copies of process and pleadings to each office. Where time for response is limited, request that the U.S. Attorney either petition the court for an extension of time, or provide temporary counsel and representation pending formal approval. 
</P>
<P>(2) Investigate whether the employee was acting within the scope of his office or employment. Obtain, if possible, statements from the defendant, supervisors, and witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(3) Advise the individual defendant of the rights and conditions set out in 28 CFR 50.15, which include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) His right to request representation by a DOJ attorney and, in appropriate cases, certification that he was acting within the scope of employment. (See 28 U.S.C. 2679; 28 CFR 50.15). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The right to request private counsel at government expense, subject to the availability of funds. (See 28 CFR 50.16). 
</P>
<P>(iii) That the United States is not obligated to pay or indemnify defendant for any judgment rendered against him in his individual capacity. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the defendant desires certification or DOJ representation, have him sign a request. (See figure D-1, appendix G, of this part). Obtain a signed scope of employment statement from the defendant's supervisor. (Figure D-2, appendix G, of this part). 
</P>
<P>(5) Prepare a report with, at a minimum, the following information: facts surrounding the incident for which defendant is being sued and those relating to scope of employment; the SJA's or legal adviser's conclusions concerning scope of employment; and, a recommendation whether certification by the Attorney General or representation by a DOJ attorney should be granted. 
</P>
<P>(6) In cases involving National Guard personnel, address also the following: whether defendant was acting in a state (Title 32 U.S.C.) or Federal (Title 10 U.S.C.) capacity during relevant periods (include orders); if defendant was acting under state authority, is it nevertheless in the interest of the United States to represent the individual; any impact on policies or practices of DA, the National Guard Bureau, or DOD; whether the relief requested can be granted only by a Federal officer or agency; and, whether Federal law or regulation required actions by state officials. 
</P>
<P>(7) Send the report, request for representation, and scope of employment statements to Chief, Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief, Litigation Division, procedures.</I> The Chief, Litigation Division, will review the report and evidence regarding representation and scope of employment and will determine whether certification and representation are appropriate. He will send his recommendation to the appropriate U.S. Attorney or office within DOJ. The Chief, Litigation Division, will notify the defendant of DOJ's decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.31" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.31   Private counsel at government expense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> DA personnel, sued in their individual capacity or facing criminal charges as a result of performance of official duties, have no right to employ a private sector counsel at government expense or to expect reimbursement for the same. For proceedings in the United States, a request for employment of counsel at government expense may be approved by DOJ, contingent among other things upon availability of funds and a determination that employment of private counsel at government expense is in the best interests of the United States. (See 28 CFR 50.16). Special rules apply in overseas areas. (See paragraph (e) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual request procedures.</I> The individual will prepare a request that private counsel be employed for him at government expense. The request must also contain the following statement: “I understand that the United States is not required to employ private counsel on my behalf, and that I may be responsible for expenses incurred prior to proper authorization by the Department of the Army or the Department of Justice.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and legal adviser procedures.</I> The request will be submitted through the individual's supervisors, who will make a recommendation and forward the packet to the local SJA or legal adviser. The SJA or legal adviser will prepare his own recommendation and forward the matter to Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief, Litigation Division, procedures.</I> If the Chief, Litigation Division, determines that the request for private counsel is meritorious, he will prepare an appropriate recommendation and forward the packet to Civil Division, DOJ, for final approval. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special actions in foreign countries.</I> Employment of private counsel in foreign proceedings is governed by AR 27-50 (Status of Forces Policies, Procedures, and Information). Under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1037, soldiers, as well as employees or those accompanying the armed forces overseas, may be granted individual counsel in civil and criminal proceedings, under the criteria of AR 27-50. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.32" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.4.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.32   Requests for indemnification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> An individual liable for a judgment rendered against him in his individual capacity has no right to reimbursement from DA. DA will consider, however, a request for indemnification from DA personnel where conduct within the scope of official duties has resulted in personal liability and indemnification is in the best interests of the United States. Indemnification is strictly contingent upon an appropriation to pay the judgment, as well as availability of such funds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual request procedures.</I> An individual against whom an adverse judgment has been rendered may request indemnification. The request must include, at a minimum, the following: how the employee was acting within the scope of his employment; whether the requestor has insurance or any other source of indemnification; and, how reimbursement is in the best interests of the United States. The request must also contain the following statements: “I understand that acceptance of this request for indemnification for processing by DA does not constitute an acceptance of any obligation to make such a payment. I also understand that payment is contingent on availability of funds and that it will only be made if such is determined to be in the best interests of the United States.” The individual should attach a copy of relevant documents, for example, court's opinion, judgment, and other allied papers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and SJA procedures.</I> The request for indemnification will be submitted through supervisory channels to the local SJA or legal adviser. Each supervisor will make a recommendation on the propriety of reimbursement. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief, Litigation Division, procedures.</I> Requests for indemnification will be forwarded to Chief, Litigation Division. The Chief, Litigation Division, will examine the submission and, after consultation with DOJ or other agencies, forward the packet with his recommendation to the Army General Counsel. The General Counsel will obtain a final decision by the Secretary of the Army or his designee on the matter. There is no administrative appeal of the Secretary's (or his designee's) decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Legal Proceedings Initiated by the United States Medical Care and Property Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.33" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.33   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorities.</I> (1) Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 2651). The act provides for the recovery of medical care expenses incurred because of a tortfeasor's actions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Federal Claims Collection Act (31 U.S.C. 3711). The act provides for the collection of claims for money or property arising from the activities of Federal agencies. 
</P>
<P>(3) Third-party Collection Program (10 U.S.C. 1095). The statute provides for collection of reasonable costs of health-care services, provided in facilities of the uniformed services to covered beneficiaries, from private insurers or third-party payers. In accordance with DOD Instruction 6010.15, “Third Party Collection (TPC) Program,” 7 March 1991, the authority to settle or waive a DOD claim under the act is delegated to TJAG or to his designee. 
</P>
<P>(4) Executive Order No. 12778, (56 FR 55195; 3 CFR, 1991 Comp. p. 359), Civil Justice Reform. This order establishes several requirements on Federal agencies involved in litigation or contemplating filing an action on behalf of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(5) AR 27-20, Claims. Chapter l4 (Affirmative Claims) contains comprehensive guidance for Recovery Judge Advocates (RJAs) in the administrative determination, assertion, collection, settlement, and waiver of claims in favor of the U.S. for property damage and for medical care claims. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duties and procedures.</I> In accordance with Chapter 14, AR 27-20, Commander, USARCS, has supervisory responsibility over the administrative processing of property and medical care claims by RJAs. The Commander, U.S. Army Health Services Command (HSC), has supervisory responsibility over the Third Party Collection Program (TPCP). The HSC TPCP Implementation Plan effects DOD Instruction 6010.15 and establishes procedures for processing TPC claims. Litigation Division, in conjunction with DOJ and U.S. Attorneys, is responsible for pursuing, through litigation, claims not resolved administratively. DOJ is ultimately responsible for initiating litigation for the United States. (28 U.S.C. 515). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assertion of claims on behalf of the United States by private attorneys.</I> The Army incurs potentially recoverable expenses when it provides medical care to soldiers or dependents injured by tortfeasors (for example, a soldier is hospitalized after an automobile accident). When injured personnel employ a private attorney to sue the tortfeasor, it may be in the Government's best interests to enter into an agreement with the private attorney to include the Army's medical care claim. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> There is a three year statute of limitations for actions in favor of the U.S. for money damages founded upon tort. (28 U.S.C. 2415(b)). Limitations periods can vary, however, depending upon the theory of liability and the jurisdiction involved. RJAs must be alert to the applicable period of limitations. A case referred for litigation should arrive at Litigation Division at least 6 months before the expiration of the limitations period. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting of recoveries.</I> Amounts recovered through litigation will be reported to USARCS by Tort Branch, Litigation Division, or, where referred directly to a U.S. Attorney or the Nationwide Central Intake Facility (NCIF), by the responsible RJA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.34" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.34   Referral of medical care and property claims for litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for referral.</I> The RJA will forward the claims file and a litigation report (See § 516.35 of this part) through USARCS to Litigation Division when the claim has not been resolved administratively and any of the following conditions exist: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claim exceeds $5,000; 
</P>
<P>(2) It involves collection from the injured party or his attorney; 
</P>
<P>(3) The claim raises an important question of policy; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) There is potential for a significant precedent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative methods.</I> When none of the conditions cited in the preceding subparagraph are present, the RJA may refer the claim directly to the U.S. Attorney for the district in which the prospective defendant resides. Similar property claims may be referred through USARCS to DOJ's Nationwide Central Intake Facility (NCIF) rather than directly to the U.S. Attorney. Notice of all such referrals shall be provided through USARCS to Tort Branch, Litigation Division. The RJA should be ready to provide support to the U.S. Attorney if requested. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Closing files.</I> A file referred directly to the U.S. Attorney will be closed if the U.S. Attorney determines further action is unwarranted. If the RJA disagrees, the file should be forwarded with the RJA's recommendation through USARCS to Litigation Division. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.35" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.35   Preparation of claims for litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In preparing a referral for litigation the RJA will ensure the file contains at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A litigation report (See § 516.23 of this part) that demonstrates a factual basis for the claim and a theory of recovery under applicable state law. (See Fed. R. Civ. P. 11) 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of all medical records and bills reflecting the reasonable value of the medical care furnished to the injured party, including DA Form 2631-R (Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification), and DA Form 3154 (MSA Invoice and Receipt). These documents should be authenticated as necessary on a DA Form 4. 
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of all documents necessary to establish the value of lost or damaged property. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmittal letter.</I> The letter of transmittal referring the claim for litigation should briefly summarize the facts giving rise to the claim and the collection actions previously taken by the Army and the injured party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Assertion of Other Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.36" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.36   Referral to Litigation Division.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The majority of cases filed on behalf of the United States will fall under this subpart E. All other civil cases which cannot be resolved administratively or by direct referral to DOJ will be forwarded through channels to Litigation Division with a litigation report. (See § 516.23 of this part). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government contractors.</I> It may be in the Government's best interest to authorize a Government contractor, whose contract provides for the reimbursement of necessary legal expenses, to employ private counsel to initiate legal proceedings against a third party. To obtain authorization to employ private counsel in such instances the contractor should follow the procedures in § 516.21(c) of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.37" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.5.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.37   Proceedings to repossess government real property or quarters or to collect delinquent rent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> U.S. Attorneys are authorized to accept a Federal agency's request for the following purposes: to initiate an action to recover possession of real property from tenants, trespassers, and others; to enjoin trespasses on Federal property; and, to collect delinquent rentals or damages for use and occupancy of real property for amounts less than $200,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> When eviction or an action to collect delinquent rent is necessary, the SJA or legal adviser will notify General Litigation Branch, Litigation Division, of the situation. If approved by Litigation Division, the SJA or legal adviser may ask the U.S. Attorney to file suit. A copy of the complaint will be sent to Litigation Division. DOJ can take action to evict the occupants for violation of the terms of occupancy and collect delinquent rent or other charges. Once the matter has been referred to the U.S. Attorney, payments for rent should be sent to the U.S. Attorney. (See AR 210-50, chap 2.) 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Environmental Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.38" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.6.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.38   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains guidance, policies, and procedures applicable to all environmental and natural resources civil litigation and administrative proceedings involving missions and functions of DA, its major and subordinate commands, all installations presently or previously managed by DA, and all other sites or issues in which DA has a substantial interest. In this chapter, “litigation” includes civil administrative proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.39" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.6.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.39   Duties and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Water rights.</I> Environmental Law Division will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and will represent DA in State and Federal litigation relating to availability and allocation of surface and ground water and the establishment and protection of water rights for Army military installations and activities. This will include litigation in State general adjudications of water rights under the McCarran Amendment, 43 U.S.C. 666, for Army military installations and activities. Such litigation relating solely to COE civil works projects or activities will be handled by attorneys under the technical supervision of the Chief Counsel, COE. With respect to any general adjudication which could affect the civil works or real property functions of COE, The Judge Advocate General, acting through the Chief, Environmental Law Division, and Chief Counsel, COE, will jointly determine which office should maintain primary direct liaison with DOJ and will scope and execute appropriate coordination with each other and with the General Counsel with respect to that litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Navigable waters.</I> The Chief Counsel, COE, will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in civil litigation involving activities in or across navigable waters of the United States or other activities regulated under the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899, 33 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waters of the United States.</I> The Chief Counsel, COE, will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in civil litigation involving The Clean Water Act section 404 (See 33 U.S.C. 1344) permit authority of COE over the discharge of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement.</I> Environmental Law Division will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in all civil litigation involving citizen or State enforcement of applicable State, Federal and local requirements respecting the control or abatement of pollution and involving the management of hazardous wastes, with respect to the missions and functions of, and Federal facilities owned or controlled by, DA, except for civil works facilities. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Environmental response</I>—(1) <I>Except as provided in (a)(2) of this section.</I> Environmental Law Division will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in all civil litigation seeking declaratory or injunctive relief or involving claims of Army liability for the costs of response at Federal facilities currently owned or controlled by DA and at other sites where the Army is a potentially responsible party. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief Counsel, COE, will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in all civil litigation seeking declaratory or injunctive relief or involving claims of Army liability for the costs of response at civil works facilities, at former defense sites or at other sites where the Army is a potentially responsible party due to the response actions of the COE or its contractors. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fish and wildlife, and plants.</I> Environmental Law Division will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in civil litigation involving citizen or State enforcement of applicable State, Federal, and local laws governing conservation of plant, fish, and wildlife resources at Federal facilities owned or controlled by DA, except that such litigation relating solely to the real estate, civil works, navigation and Clean Water Act section 404 (See 33 U.S.C. 1344) permit functions and activities of the COE will be handled by attorneys under the technical supervision of the Chief Counsel, COE. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Toxic torts.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this part, Environmental Law Division will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in all civil litigation involving claims of tort liability for exposure to environmental contamination emanating from Federal facilities owned or controlled by DA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Litigation Division will conduct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in civil litigation involving claims of tort liability for singular and discrete incidents of exposure to environmental contamination emanating from any Federal facility owned or controlled by DA. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Chief Counsel, COE, will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and will represent DA in civil litigation involving claims of tort liability for exposure to environmental contamination (including singular and discrete incidents) emanating from any civil works activities under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Chief Counsel, COE, and Chief, Environmental Law Division, will confer and jointly determine which office will conduct direct liaison with DOJ and represent DA in civil litigation involving all other claims of toxic tort liability. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Release of Information and Appearance of Witnesses Scope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.40" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.40   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> This subpart implements DOD Directive 5405.2 (See appendix C to this part and 32 CFR part 97). It governs the release of official information and the appearance of present and former DA personnel as witnesses in response to requests for interviews, notices of depositions, subpoenas, and other requests or orders related to judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings. Requests for records, if not in the nature of legal process, should be processed under AR 25-55 (The Department of the Army Freedom of Information Act Program) or AR 340-21 (The Army Privacy Program). This subpart pertains to any request for witnesses, documents, or information for all types of litigation, including requests by private litigants, requests by State or U.S. attorneys, requests by foreign officials or tribunals, subpoenas for records or testimony, notices of depositions, interview requests, civil cases, criminal proceedings, private litigation, or litigation in which the United States has an interest. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (See appendix F to this part). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.41" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.41   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Rule.</I> Except as authorized by this subpart, present or former DA personnel will not disclose official information (See appendix F—Glossary) in response to subpoenas, court orders, or requests. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> Present or former DA personnel may disclose official information if they obtain the written approval of the appropriate SJA, legal adviser, or Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral to deciding official.</I> If present or former DA personnel receive a subpoena, court order, request for attendance at a judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding, or request for an interview related to actual or potential litigation, and it appears the subpoena, order, or request seeks disclosures described in a above, the individual should immediately advise the appropriate SJA or legal adviser. If the SJA or legal adviser cannot informally satisfy the subpoena, order, or request in accordance with §§ 516.43 through 516.50 of this subpart, he should consult with Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requesters' responsibilities.</I> Individuals seeking official information must submit, at least 14 days before the desired date of production, a specific written request setting forth the nature and relevance of the official information sought. (Requesters can be referred to this subpart G). Subject to § 516.47(a), present and former DA personnel may only produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning those matters specified in writing and properly approved by the SJA, legal adviser, or Litigation Division. (See United States ex. rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951)). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Litigation in which the United States has an interest.</I> If a subpoena, order, or request relates to litigation in which the United States has an interest and for which litigation responsibility has not been delegated, the SJA or legal adviser will coordinate with Litigation Division under § 516.42. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to stay or quash subpoenas.</I> A subpoena should never be ignored, and an SJA or legal adviser should seek assistance from Litigation Division or the U.S. Attorney's office whenever necessary. If a response to a subpoena or order is required before a release determination can be made or before Litigation Division or the U.S. Attorney can be contacted, the SJA or legal adviser will do the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Furnish the court or tribunal a copy of this regulation (32 CFR part 516, subpart G) and applicable case law (See United States ex. rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951)); 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the court or tribunal that the requesting individual has not complied with this Chapter, as set out in 32 CFR 97 &amp; 516, or that the subpoena or order is being reviewed; 
</P>
<P>(3) Seek to stay the subpoena or order pending the requestor's compliance with this chapter or final determination by Litigation Division; and, 
</P>
<P>(4) If the court or other tribunal declines to quash or stay the subpoena or order, inform Litigation Division immediately so a decision can be made whether to challenge the subpoena or order. If Litigation Division decides not to challenge the subpoena or order, the affected personnel will comply with the subpoena or order. If Litigation Division decides to challenge the subpoena or order, it will direct the affected personnel to respectfully decline to comply with the subpoena or order. (See United States ex. rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951)). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Classified or sensitive information.</I> Only Litigation Division may authorize the release of official information or appearance of DA personnel as witnesses in litigation involving terrorism, espionage, nuclear weapons, or intelligence sources and methods. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requests for Inspector General records or testimony.</I> IG records, and information obtained through performance of IG duties, are official information under the exclusive control of the Secretary of the Army. (See AR 20-l, Chapter 3.) IG records frequently contain sensitive official information that may be classified or obtained under guarantees of confidentiality. When justification exists, DA attorneys will seek court protection from disclosure of IG records and information. No DA personnel will release IG records or disclose information obtained through performance of IG duties without the approval of The Secretary of the Army, The Inspector General, TIG Legal Advisor, or Chief, Litigation Division. When IG personnel receive a subpoena, court order, request for attendance at a judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding, or a request for an interview which the IG reasonably believes is related to actual or potential litigation concerning IG records or related information, they should immediately notify the Inspector General Legal Adviser or the Chief, Litigation Division. IG personnel will follow the guidance of this subpart concerning actions to be taken regarding disclosure and testimony. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.42" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.42   Reference to HQDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the SJA or legal adviser is unable to resolve the matter, it will be referred for approval or action by Litigation Division under this chapter, by the most expeditious means, to General Litigation Branch, Litigation Division, with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Those involving a case assigned to another branch of Litigation Division will be submitted to that branch (appendix B to this part). 
</P>
<P>(2) Those involving affirmative litigation (for example, medical care recovery or Army property damage or loss cases) under subpart E will be submitted to Tort Branch. 
</P>
<P>(3) Those involving patents, copyrights, privately developed technical information, or trademarks will be submitted to Intellectual Property Law Division. 
</P>
<P>(4) Those involving taxation will be submitted to Contract Law Division. 
</P>
<P>(5) Those involving communication, transportation, or utility service proceedings will be submitted to the Regulatory Law Office. 
</P>
<P>(6) Those involving environmental matters will be submitted to the Environmental Law Division. 
</P>
<P>(7) Those involving contract appeals cases before the ASBCA will be submitted to the Contract Appeals Division. 
</P>
<P>(8) Those involving procurement fraud, including Qui Tam cases, will be submitted to the Procurement Fraud Division. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information to be submitted.</I> When referring matters pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the following data should be provided: 
</P>
<P>(1) Parties (named or prospective) to the proceeding, their attorneys, and case number, where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Party making the request (if a subpoena, indicate moving party) and his attorney. 
</P>
<P>(3) Name of tribunal in which the proceeding is pending. 
</P>
<P>(4) Nature of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(5) Date of receipt of request or date and place of service of subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(6) Name, grade, position, and organization of person receiving request or served with subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(7) Date, time, and place designated in request or subpoena for production of information or appearance of witness. 
</P>
<P>(8) Nature of information sought or document requested, and place where document is maintained. 
</P>
<P>(9) A copy of each document requested. Contact the appropriate office at HQDA if this would be burdensome and unnecessary to a decision whether to release, redact, or withhold a particular document. 
</P>
<P>(10) Name of requested witness, expected testimony, requested appearance time and date, and whether witness is reasonably available. 
</P>
<P>(11) Analysis of the problem with recommendations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Release of Records in Connection With Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.43" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.43   Release of Army and other agency records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preservation of originals.</I> To preserve the integrity of DA records, DA personnel will submit properly authenticated copies rather than originals of documents or records for use in legal proceedings, unless directed otherwise by Litigation Division. (See 28 U.S.C. 1733.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authentication of copies.</I> Copies of DA records approved for release can be authenticated for introduction in evidence by use of DA Form 4. (See § 516.25 for instructions.) 
</P>
<P>(1) Records maintained in U.S. Army Engineer Districts and Divisions will be forwarded to HQDA(CECC-K), WASH DC 20314-1000. 
</P>
<P>(2) All other records will be forwarded to the appropriate office at HQDA (See § 516.42). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees and charges.</I> AR 37-60 prescribes the schedule of fees and charges for searching, copying, and certifying Army records for release in response to litigation-related requests. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Release of records of other agencies.</I> Normally an individual requesting records originating in agencies outside DA (that is, FBI reports, local police reports, civilian hospital records) that are also included in Army records should be advised to direct his inquiry to the originating agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.44" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.44   Determination of release authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> DA policy is to make official information reasonably available for use in Federal and state courts and by other governmental bodies unless the information is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Releasability factors.</I> In deciding whether to authorize release of official information, the deciding official should consider the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has the requester complied with DA policy governing the release of official documents in § 516.41(d) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Is the request unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable court rules? 
</P>
<P>(3) Is the disclosure appropriate under the rules of procedure governing the matter in which the request arose? 
</P>
<P>(4) Would the disclosure violate a statute, executive order, regulation, or directive? 
</P>
<P>(5) Is the disclosure appropriate under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege? 
</P>
<P>(6) Would the disclosure reveal information properly classified pursuant to the DOD Information Security Program under AR 380-5, unclassified technical data withheld from public release pursuant to 32 CFR § 250, or other matters exempt from unrestricted disclosure? 
</P>
<P>(7) Would disclosure interfere with ongoing enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, reveal the identity of an intelligence source or confidential informant, disclose trade secrets or confidential commercial or financial information, or, otherwise be inappropriate under the circumstances? 
</P>
<P>(8) Would the disclosure violate any person's expectation of confidentiality or privacy? 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.45" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.45   Records determined to be releasable.</HEAD>
<P>If the deciding official, after considering the factors set forth in § 536.44, determines that all or part of requested official records are releasable, copies of the records should be furnished to the requester. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.46" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.7.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.46   Records determined not to be releasable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the deciding official, after considering the factors in § 516.44, determines that all or part of requested official records should not be released, he will promptly communicate directly with the attorney or individual who caused the issuance of the subpoena, order, or request and seek to resolve the matter informally. If the subpoena or order is invalid, he should explain the basis of the invalidity. The deciding official should also explain why the records requested are privileged from release. The deciding official should attempt to obtain the agreement of the requester to withdraw the subpoena, order, or request or to modify the subpoena, order, or request so that it pertains only to records which may be released. (See figure G-1, appendix G, of this part.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information protected by the Privacy Act.</I> (1) A subpoena duces tecum or other legal process signed by an attorney or clerk of court for records protected by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, does not justify the release of the protected records. The deciding official should explain to the requester that the Privacy Act precludes disclosure of records in a system of records without the written consent of the subject of the records or “pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction.” (See 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(11)). An “order of the court” for the purpose of subsection 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(11) is an order or writ requiring the production of the records, signed by a judge or magistrate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unclassified records otherwise privileged from release under 5 U.S.C. 552a may be released to the court under either of the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The subpoena is accompanied by an order signed by a judge or magistrate, or such order is separately served, that orders the person to whom the records pertain to release the specific records, or that orders copies of the records be delivered to the clerk of court, and indicates that the court has determined the materiality of the records and the nonavailability of a claim of privilege. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The clerk of the court is empowered by local statute or practice to receive the records under seal subject to request that they be withheld from the parties until the court determines whether the records are material to the issues and until any question of privilege is resolved. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Subpoenas for alcohol abuse or drug abuse treatment records must be processed under 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3, and Public Health Service regulations published at 42 CFR 2.1-2.67. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon request, SJAs and legal advisers may furnish to the attorney for the injured party or the tortfeasor's attorney or insurance company a copy of the narrative summary of medical care that relates to a claim under subpart E of this part. If additional medical records are requested, only those that directly pertain to the pending action will be furnished. If furnishing copies of medical records would prejudice the cause of action, the matter will be reported to Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral to Litigation Division.</I> If the SJA or legal adviser is not able to resolve a request for Army records informally, he should contact Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(1) Litigation Division may respond to subpoenas or orders for records privileged from release by informing the local U.S. Attorney about the subpoena and requesting that office file a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order. The records privileged from release should be retained by the custodian pending the court's ruling upon the government's motion. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a motion to quash or for a protective order is not filed, or the motion is unsuccessful, and the appropriate DA official has determined that no further efforts will be made to protect the records, copies of the records (authenticated if necessary) will be submitted to the court (or to the clerk of court) in response to the subpoena or order. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified and privileged materials.</I> Requests from DOJ, U.S. Attorneys, or attorneys for other governmental entities for records which are classified or otherwise privileged from release will be referred to Litigation Division. (See § 516.41(g). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>DA Personnel as Witnesses in Private Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.47" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.47   Response to subpoenas, orders, or requests for witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> The involvement of present or former DA personnel in private litigation is solely a personal matter between the witness and the requesting party, unless one or more of the following conditions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) The testimony involves official information. (See appendix F—Glossary to this part). 
</P>
<P>(2) The witness is to testify as an expert. 
</P>
<P>(3) The absence of the witness from duty will seriously interfere with the accomplishment of a military mission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Former DA personnel.</I> Former DA personnel may freely respond to requests for interviews and subpoenas except in instances involving official information (paragraph (a)(1) of this section) or concerning expert testimony prohibited by § 516.49. In those instances, the subject of the request or subpoena should take the action specified in §§ 516.41(c) and 516.42. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Present DA personnel.</I> Present DA personnel will refer all requests for interviews and subpoenas for testimony in private litigation through their supervisor to the appropriate SJA or legal adviser.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discretion to testify.</I> Any individual not wishing to grant an interview or to testify concerning private litigation may seek the advice of an Army attorney concerning the consequences, if any, of refusal. Any individual not authorized to consult with Army counsel should consult with private counsel, at no expense to the government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.48" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.48   Official information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In instances involving § 516.47(a)(1), the matter will be referred to the SJA or legal adviser serving the organization of the individual whose testimony is requested, or to HQDA pursuant to § 516.47(a). The deciding official will determine whether to release the information sought under the principles established in § 516.44. If funding by the United States is requested, see § 516.55(d).
</P>
<P>(b) If the deciding official determines that the information may be released, the individual will be permitted to be interviewed, deposed, or to appear as a witness in court provided such interview or appearance is consistent with the requirements of §§ 516.49 and 516.50. (See, for example, figure G-2, appendix G, to this part). A JA or DA civilian attorney should be present during any interview or testimony to act as legal representative of the Army. If a question seeks information not previously authorized for release, the legal representative will advise the witness not to answer. If necessary to avoid release of the information, the legal representative will advise the witness to terminate the interview or deposition, or in the case of testimony in court, advise the judge that DOD directives and Army regulations preclude the witness from answering without HQDA approval. Every effort should be made, however, to substitute releasable information and to continue the interview or testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.49" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.49   Expert witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Present DA personnel will not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony either in private litigation or in litigation in which the United States has an interest for a party other than the United States. Former DA personnel will not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official information, subjects, or activities either in private litigation or in litigation in which the United States has an interest for a party other than the United States. (See figure G-3, appendix G of this part). An SJA or legal adviser is authorized to deny a request for expert testimony, which decision may be appealed to Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception to the general prohibition.</I> If a requester can show exceptional need or unique circumstances, and the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the United States, Litigation Division may grant special written authorization for present or former DA personnel to testify as expert or opinion witnesses at no expense to the United States. In no event may present or former DA personnel furnish expert or opinion testimony in a case in which the United States has an interest for a party whose interests are adverse to the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for AMEDD personnel.</I> Members of the Army medical department or other qualified specialists may testify in private litigation with the following limitations (See figure G-4, appendix G, of this part):
</P>
<P>(1) The litigation involves patients they have treated, investigations they have made, laboratory tests they have conducted, or other actions taken in the regular course of their duties.
</P>
<P>(2) They limit their testimony to factual matters such as the following: their observations of the patient or other operative facts; the treatment prescribed or corrective action taken; course of recovery or steps required for repair of damage suffered; and, contemplated future treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) Their testimony may not extend to expert or opinion testimony, to hypothetical questions, or to a prognosis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Court-ordered expert or opinion testimony.</I> If a court or other appropriate authority orders expert or opinion testimony, the witness will immediately notify Litigation Division. If Litigation Division determines it will not challenge the subpoena or order, the witness will comply with the subpoena or order. If directed by Litigation Division, however, the witness will respectfully decline to comply with the subpoena or order. (See <I>United States ex. rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expert witness fees.</I> All fees tendered to present DA personnel as an expert or opinion witness, to the extent they exceed actual travel, meals, and lodging expenses of the witness, will be remitted to the Treasurer of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.50" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.50   Interference with mission.</HEAD>
<P>If the absence of a witness from duty will seriously interfere with the accomplishment of a military mission, the SJA or legal adviser will advise the requesting party and attempt to make alternative arrangements. If these efforts fail, the SJA or legal adviser will refer the matter to Litigation Division.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Litigation in Which the United States Has an Interest</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.51" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.9.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.51   Response to subpoenas, orders, or requests for witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral to a deciding official.</I> Requests, subpoenas, or orders for official information, interviews or testimony of present or former DA personnel in litigation or potential litigation in which the United States has an interest, including requests from DOJ, will be resolved by the SJA or legal adviser pursuant to the principles of this subpart. Litigation Division will be consulted on issues that cannot be resolved by the SJA or legal adviser.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reassignment of witnesses.</I> When requested by the U.S. Attorney, the SJA or legal adviser will ensure that no witnesses are reassigned from the judicial district without advising the DOJ attorney. If a witness is vital to the government's case and trial is imminent, the SJA or legal adviser should make informal arrangements to retain the witness in the command until trial. If this is not feasible, or if a satisfactory arrangement cannot be reached with the DOJ attorney, the SJA or legal adviser should notify Litigation Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.52" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.9.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.52   Expert witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for present or former DA personnel as expert or opinion witnesses from DOJ or other attorneys representing the United States will be referred to Litigation Division unless the request involves a matter that has been delegated by Litigation Division to an SJA or legal adviser. In no event, may present or former DA personnel furnish expert or opinion testimony in a case in which the United States has an interest for a party whose interests are adverse to the interests of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.53" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.9.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.53   News media and other inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>News media inquiries regarding litigation or potential litigation will be referred to the appropriate public affairs office. DA personnel will not comment on any matter presently or potentially in litigation without proper clearance. Local public affairs officers will refer press inquiries to HQDA (SAPA), WASH DC 20310-1500, with appropriate recommendations for review and approval by the Office of the Chief of Public Affairs. All releases of information regarding actual or potential litigation will be coordinated with Litigation Division prior to release.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Status, Travel, and Expenses of Witnesses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.54" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.10.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.54   Witnesses for the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status of witness.</I> A military member authorized to appear as a witness for the United States, including those authorized to appear under § 516.55(d), will be placed on temporary duty. If USAR or NG personnel are requested as witnesses for the United States, and if their testimony arises from their active duty service, they should be placed on active duty to testify. The status of a civilian employee will be determined under Federal Personnel Manual 630, subchapter 10. DA personnel who appear as necessary witnesses for a party asserting the government's claim for medical care expenses are witnesses for the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Travel arrangements.</I> Travel arrangements for witnesses for the United States normally are made by DOJ through Litigation Division for other than local travel. Litigation Division will issue instructions for this travel, including fund citation, to the appropriate commander. A U.S. Attorney, or an attorney asserting the government's medical care claim under subpart E, may make arrangements for local travel through the SJA or legal adviser for attendance of a witness who is stationed at an installation within the same judicial district, or not more than 100 miles from the place where testifying. Other requests, including those under § 516.55(d), will be referred to Litigation Division. The instructions from Litigation Division, or the request from the U.S. Attorney or the attorney asserting the government's claim, will serve as a basis for the issuance of appropriate travel orders by the local commander.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Travel and per diem expenses.</I> The witness' commander or supervisor should ensure the witness has sufficient funds to defray expenses. The SJA or legal adviser will provide assistance.
</P>
<P>(1) Where local travel is performed at the request of a U.S. Attorney and the testimony does not involve information acquired in the performance of duties, transportation arrangements and any per diem expenses are the responsibility of the U.S. Attorney.
</P>
<P>(2) An attorney asserting the government's medical care or property claim may be required to advance local travel expense money to the witness requested and to include these in recoverable costs where the government's claim is not large enough to justify expenditures of government travel funds.
</P>
<P>(3) Other local travel and per diem expense for cases involving Army activities or claims are proper expenses of the command issuing the orders.
</P>
<P>(4) Litigation Division will furnish travel expense and per diem funds for other than local travel and will receive reimbursement from DOJ or other government agencies as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.55" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.10.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.55   Witnesses for a State or private litigant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status of witness.</I> If authorized to appear as a witness for a state or private litigant, and the testimony to be given relates to information obtained in the performance of official duties, a military member will attend in a permissive TDY status. If authorized to appear as a witness, but the testimony does not relate to information obtained in the performance of official duties, a military member may be granted a pass or permissive TDY under AR 630-5, or be required to take ordinary leave. The status of a civilian employee will be determined under 5 CFR Chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Travel arrangements.</I> The requesting party or state agency will make all travel arrangements for attendance of DA personnel authorized to appear as witnesses for a state or private litigant. The local commander may issue appropriate orders when necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Travel expenses.</I> The United States may not pay travel, meals, and lodging expenses of the witness, other than normal allowances for subsistence pursuant to the DOD Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual. These expenses are solely a matter between the witness and the party seeking his appearance. Witnesses ordinarily should be advised to require advance payment of such expenses. Military personnel authorized to appear in a pass or permissive TDY status are not entitled to receive witness attendance fees, but may accept travel, meals, and lodging expense money from the requesting litigant. All witness fees tendered the military member, to the extent they exceed such actual expenses of the member, will be remitted to the Treasurer of the United States. A civilian employee authorized to appear in his or her official capacity will accept the authorized witness fees, in addition to the allowance for travel and subsistence, and make disposition of the witness fees as instructed by his or her personnel office.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding by the United States.</I> Requests for DA personnel to appear at government expense as witnesses in state or local proceedings for a party other than the United States, including cases involving domestic violence or child abuse, will be referred to Litigation Division. Litigation Division may authorize travel and per diem expenses under § 516.54 when the case is one in which the United States has a significant interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.56" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.7.10.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.56   Witnesses before foreign tribunals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral to the SJA.</I> Requests or subpoenas from a foreign government or tribunal for present DA personnel stationed or employed within that country to be interviewed or to appear as witnesses will be forwarded to the SJA of the command exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the unit to which the individual is assigned, attached, or employed. The SJA will determine the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether a consideration listed in § 516.47(a)(1) through (a)(3) applies.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the information requested is releasable under the principles established in § 516.43 through § 516.46.
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the approval of the American Embassy should be obtained because the person is attached to the Embassy staff or a question of diplomatic immunity may be involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>United States has an interest in the litigation.</I> If the SJA determines that the United States has an interest in the litigation, the commander may authorize the interview or order the individual's attendance in a temporary duty status. The United States will be deemed to have an interest in the litigation if it is bound by treaty or other international agreement to ensure the attendance of such personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>United States has no interest in the litigation.</I> If the SJA determines that the United States does not have an interest in the litigation, the commander may authorize the interview or the appearance of the witness under the principles established in § 516.47 through § 516.50.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Witnesses located outside the requester's country.</I> If the requested witness is stationed in a country other than the requester's, the matter will be referred to Litigation Division.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Remedies in Procurement Fraud and Corruption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.57" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.57   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart delineates the policies, procedures, and responsibilities for reporting and resolving allegations of procurement fraud or irregularities (PFI) within DA. It implements DOD Directive 7050.5. (See appendix D to this part.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.58" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.58   Policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Procurement fraud and irregularities will be promptly and thoroughly addressed whenever encountered. Reports will be initiated in a timely manner and will be supplemented as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Investigations will be monitored to see that interim corrective action is taken and that final action is taken as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation establishes the Procurement Fraud Division (PFD), U.S. Army Legal Services Agency, as the single centralized organization within the Army to coordinate and monitor criminal, civil, contractual, and administrative remedies in significant cases of fraud or corruption relating to Army procurement.
</P>
<P>(d) The key elements of the Army's procurement fraud program follow: centralized policy making and program direction; fraud remedies coordination; decentralized responsibility for operational matters, such as reporting and remedial action; continuous case monitorship by PFD from the initial report until final disposition; and, command-wide fraud awareness training.
</P>
<P>(e) Remedies for PFI will be pursued in a timely manner and properly coordinated with other agencies. Every effort will be made to support criminal investigation and prosecution of fraudulent activity.
</P>
<P>(f) A specific remedies plan will be formulated for each significant case of fraud or corruption involving procurement.
</P>
<P>(g) Coordination on the status and disposition of cases will be maintained between PFD, OTJAG, PFI Coordinators at MACOMs, and Procurement Fraud Advisers at subordinate commands. Coordination of procurement and personnel actions will be accomplished with investigative agencies as required by those agencies.
</P>
<P>(h) Training which relates to fraud and corruption in the procurement process is a significant element of this program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.59" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.59   Duties and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) TJAG has overall responsibility for the coordination of remedies in procurement fraud and corruption within the Army. This responsibility has been delegated to PFD. Functions of PFD will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Serving as the single centralized organization in the Army to monitor the status of, and ensure the coordination of, criminal, civil, contractual, and administrative remedies for each significant case of fraud or corruption.
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving reports of procurement fraud and corruption from any source including, but not limited to the following: DOD criminal investigative organizations; audit agencies; contracting officers; inspectors general of the executive branch; correspondence from the public; and, commanders. This provision does not repeal any other reporting requirement but establishes PFD as a recipient of PFI information at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(3) Establishing a monitoring system within OTJAG for all cases of fraud and corruption that relate to Army procurement.
</P>
<P>(4) Discussing regularly with the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC) or the assigned DOD criminal investigative organization the current status of significant fraud or corruption cases and their coordination with prosecutive authorities.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensuring that all criminal, civil, contractual, and administrative remedies are considered in each significant fraud or corruption case and that timely and applicable remedies are undertaken by commanders, contracting officers, and suspension and debarment authorities. For example, consideration of suspension or debarment of a contractor or individual should normally be initiated within 30 days of indictment or conviction.
</P>
<P>(6) Coordinating, as appropriate, with other DOD components affected by a significant fraud or corruption case being monitored by the Army.
</P>
<P>(7) Developing, with the responsible DOD investigative organization, Procurement Fraud Coordinators and Advisers, and other involved agencies, a specific comprehensive remedies plan for each significant fraud or corruption case.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Coordinating remedies with DOJ.</I> In the case of ongoing criminal investigations, coordinate remedies through, or with the prior knowledge of, the DOD criminal investigative organization responsible for the case.
</P>
<P>(9) In significant fraud or corruption cases, identifying and documenting any known adverse impact on a DOD mission, and including the information in any remedies plan.
</P>
<P>(10) Providing the appropriate DOD criminal investigative organization with information concerning final remedies as a result of an investigation by that organization.
</P>
<P>(11) Receiving notifications from criminal investigative agencies concerning substituted, defective, and counterfeit hardware in which a serious hazard to health, safety or operational readiness is indicated; ensuring that appropriate safety, procurement and program officials are informed in accordance with enclosure 3 of DOD Directive 7050.5. PFD will specifically ensure that contract reviews (DD 350 reports) and adverse impact statements (See § 516.64(c)(2) are prepared, and that such information is used to determine if further inquiry is warranted to prevent reoccurrence and to detect other possible fraud. Impact statements will not be released to prosecutive agencies until reviewed by PFD. When appropriate, PFD will coordinate with other DOD agencies to establish a lead agency for victim impact statements in multi-DOD agency cases.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commanding General, USACIDC, will take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify PFD of any investigations involving fraud or corruption related to procurement activities.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify other DOD component criminal investigative organizations when investigations involving fraud or corruption affect that component. This includes evidence of fraud by a contractor, subcontractor, or employee of either, on current or past contracts with, or affecting, that component.
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the Defense Investigative Service of any investigations that develop evidence which affects DOD cleared industrial facilities or personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Determine the effect on any ongoing investigations or prosecutions of any criminal, civil, contractual, or administrative actions being considered by a centralized organization and advise of any adverse impact.
</P>
<P>(5) Promptly provide commanders, contracting officers, Procurement Fraud Advisers, and suspension and debarment authorities, when needed to allow consideration of applicable remedies, any court records, documents, or other evidence of fraud or corruption from ongoing or completed criminal investigations. In cases of indictment or conviction of a contractor or individual, the information will be provided in time for initiation, if appropriate, of suspension or debarment action within 30 days of the indictment or conviction.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide prosecutive authorities and centralized organizations with timely information on the adverse impact on a DOD mission of fraud or corruption that relates to DOD procurement activities. This information will be obtained from individuals such as the head of the contracting agency, appropriate commanders, and staff agencies. Some examples of adverse impact on a DOD mission are endangerment of personnel or property, monetary loss, compromise of the procurement process, or reduction or loss of mission readiness.
</P>
<P>(7) Discuss regularly with Procurement Fraud Advisers the status of significant investigations of fraud or corruption and their coordination with prosecutive authorities and provide documents and reports resulting from the investigations.
</P>
<P>(c) Commanders of service schools conducting procurement or procurement-related training (such as The Judge Advocate General's School, the U.S. Military Police School, and the U.S. Army Logistics Management Center) will ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All procurement and procurement-related training includes a period of instruction on fraud and corruption in the procurement process. The length of the period of instruction will be appropriate to the duration and nature of the training.
</P>
<P>(2) Training materials are developed to support that training.
</P>
<P>(3) Training materials developed will be sent to MACOM PFI Coordinators.
</P>
<P>(d) MACOM commanders and heads of contracting activities will ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantial indications of fraud or corruption relating to Army contracts or Army administered contracts are reported promptly to the supporting USACIDC element and the Procurement Fraud Division.
</P>
<P>(2) Information provided includes reports by contracting officers under DFARS 209.406-3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.60" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.60   Procurement fraud and irregularities programs at MACOMs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Command counsel and SJAs at MACOMs will develop a program and appoint an attorney as PFI Coordinator for their command. Chief counsel and SJAs at commands with procurement advisory responsibility will appoint an attorney as a Procurement Fraud Adviser (PFA) to manage the PFI program at their installations as well.
</P>
<P>(b) Provision may be made for activities not having sufficient attorney assets to obtain assistance from nearby installations that have a PFA.
</P>
<P>(c) Reports and recommendations will be transmitted through command channels to the PFI coordinator for the affected MACOM.
</P>
<P>(d) Command counsel, chief counsel, and SJAs will exercise supervisory authority to ensure effective operation of the fraud program and coordination of remedies within their organizations.
</P>
<P>(e) The MACOM PFI Coordinator will have overall responsibility for the design and implementation of the MACOM's procurement fraud program.
</P>
<P>(f) PFAs and PFI Coordinators will coordinate with the appropriate local CID or Defense Criminal Investigative Service (DCIS) activity to assure the prompt notification and coordination of all Procurement Fraud cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.61" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.61   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Typical fraud indicators during the procurement cycle are listed in figure D-1, appendix G, to this part. The mere presence of one or more of these indicators does not, by itself, require reporting under paragraph b of this section. Reports should be submitted if there is a reasonable suspicion of procurement fraud or irregularity or the procuring agency refers the matter for investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) “Procurement Flash Reports” will be transmitted by FAX directly to PFD whenever a PFI Coordinator or PFA receives notice of a PFI involving the Army. To facilitate filing, a separate sheet should be used for each case reported. These reports will provide a succinct summary of the following available information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) Known subsidiaries of parent firms.
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts involved in potential fraud.
</P>
<P>(4) Nature of potential fraud.
</P>
<P>(5) Summary of pertinent facts.
</P>
<P>(6) Possible damages.
</P>
<P>(7) Investigative agencies involved.
</P>
<P>(8) Local PFAs (name and phone numbers).
</P>
<FP>Any of the above categories that cannot be completed will be annotated as “unknown at present.”
</FP>
<P>(c) When a report is required by DFARS or is requested by PFD, the provisions of DFARS 209.406-3 (48 CFR 209.406-3) will be followed. That paragraph provides the basic content and format for PFI reports.
</P>
<P>(d) All personnel will cooperate to ensure that investigations and prosecutions of procurement fraud are completed in a timely and thorough manner. Requests for assistance from federal prosecutors should be processed through the local PFA whenever possible. Requests for federal investigators will be processed through the supporting USACIDC and the PFA will be notified. When the conduct of criminal investigations and prosecutions conflict with the progress of procurements, reasonable deference will be given to criminal investigators and prosecutors whenever possible. Any serious conflict that cannot be resolved at a local level will be immediately reported to the PFI Coordinator or PFD for action.
</P>
<P>(e) PFI Coordinators and PFAs may request access to information obtained during criminal investigations that is not protected by Fed. R. Crim. P. 6(e) and use this information to assist them in taking appropriate administrative, contractual, and civil remedies. Requests for this information should be made directly to the appropriate federal investigative agency. The investigative organization may withhold requested information if release would compromise an investigation. Difficulties in obtaining information which cannot be resolved locally will be referred to PFD for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(f) USACIDC will notify, in writing, local PFAs as well as PFD within 30 days, of initiation of a significant investigation of fraud or corruption related to Army procurement activities. Such notification will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Case title.
</P>
<P>(2) USACIDC Report of Investigation number.
</P>
<P>(3) Responsible investigative agency or agencies.
</P>
<P>(4) Office of primary responsibility.
</P>
<P>(5) Date opened.
</P>
<P>(6) Summary of facts.
</P>
<P>(7) Suspected offense.
</P>
<P>(g) The transmission of the information in f above may be delayed if the Commanding General, USACIDC, or the head of another DOD criminal investigation organization determines the transmission would compromise the success of any case or its prosecution. The prosecutive authorities dealing with the case will be consulted, when appropriate, in making such determinations.
</P>
<P>(h) USACIDC will obtain the following information at the earliest possible point in an investigation of fraud or corruption that relates to DOD procurement activities, whenever possible without reliance on grand jury subpoenas:
</P>
<P>(1) The individuals suspected to be responsible.
</P>
<P>(2) The suspected firm's organizational structure.
</P>
<P>(3) The firm's financial and contract history.
</P>
<P>(4) The firm's organizational documents and records.
</P>
<P>(5) Statements of witnesses.
</P>
<P>(6) Monetary loss to the government.
</P>
<P>(7) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>This information will be provided to PFD or other cognizant DOD centralized organization.
</P>
<P>(i) PFD will provide written notification to the Defense Investigative Service of all suspension or debarment actions taken by the Army.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.62" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.62   PFD and HQ USACIDC coordination.</HEAD>
<P>PFD and HQ USACIDC will coordinate as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Discuss the status of significant procurement fraud or corruption investigations being conducted by USACIDC and possible remedies. These discussions should take place on a regular basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Discuss the coordination of possible criminal, civil, contractual, or administrative remedies with prosecutive authorities.
</P>
<P>(c) PFD will maintain liaison with other DOD centralized organizations and will coordinate remedies with those centralized organizations affected by a significant investigation of fraud or corruption that relates to DOD procurement activities.
</P>
<P>(d) Ascertain the effect on any ongoing investigation of the initiation of civil, contractual, or administrative remedies as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) PFD will maintain liaison with USACIDC and other DOD criminal investigative organizations in order to determine the advisability of initiating any civil, contractual, or administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(2) USACIDC will advise PFD of any adverse effect on an investigation or prosecution by the initiation of civil, contractual, or administrative actions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.63" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.63   Coordination with DOJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) PFD will establish and maintain liaison with DOJ and the Defense Procurement Fraud Unit on significant fraud and corruption cases to accomplish the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor criminal prosecutions.
</P>
<P>(2) Initiate litigation for civil recovery.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate administrative or contractual actions while criminal or civil proceedings are pending.
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinate settlement agreements or proposed settlements of criminal, civil, and administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(5) Respond to DOJ requests for information and assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases where there is an ongoing criminal investigation, coordination with DOJ by any member of the Army normally will be accomplished by or through USACIDC or the cognizant DOD criminal investigative organization, or with the investigative organization's advance knowledge. This does not apply to the routine exchange of information between government attorneys in the course of civil litigation or the routine referral of cases to DOJ for civil recovery.
</P>
<P>(c) Initial contact by any attorney associated with the U.S. Army with a U.S. Attorney's office or DOJ, whether initiated by the Army attorney or not, will be reported to PFD. Activity after the initial contact will only be reported to PFD when the Army attorney feels there has been a significant event in the case. If the Army attorney is not a PFI Coordinator or a PFA, the matter should be referred to one of these two attorneys as soon as possible. Routine exchanges between Army attorneys and U.S. Attorney's offices or DOJ do not need to be brought to the attention of PFD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.64" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.64   Comprehensive remedies plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A specific, comprehensive remedies plan will be developed in each significant investigation involving fraud or corruption that relates to Army procurement activities. When possible, these plans should be forwarded with the DFARS 209.406-3 reports. In no case, however, should the report be delayed an appreciable time pending completion of the plan. The format for a remedies plan is at figure H-2, appendix G, to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan will be developed initially by the PFA with the participation of the appropriate criminal investigators and other relevant personnel such as the contracting officer. In significant cases the PFA should also coordinate a remedies plan early with PFD. Defective product/product substitution remedies plans must comply with the requirements of appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A comprehensive remedies plan will include at a minimum the following information and considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) Summary of allegations and investigative results.
</P>
<P>(2) Statement of any adverse impact on a DOD mission. DOD investigative organizations, commanders, or procurement officials will also provide this information to prosecutive authorities to enhance prosecution of offenses or to prepare a victim impact statement pursuant to Fed. R. Crim. P. 32(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) The impact upon combat readiness and safety.
</P>
<P>(4) Consideration of each criminal, civil, contractual, and administrative remedy available, and documentation of those remedies, either planned, in progress, or completed.
</P>
<P>(5) Restrictions on the pursuit of any remedies such as grand jury information or possible compromise of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) When remedies plans are received by PFD they will be coordinated with the headquarters of the appropriate DOD criminal investigative organization involved.
</P>
<P>(e) Testing necessary to support the investigation and remedies plan should comply with figure H-3, appendix G, to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.65" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.65   Litigation reports in civil recovery cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All substantiated PFI cases will be evaluated by PFAs to determine whether it is appropriate to recommend civil recovery proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) Recovery should be considered under both statutory and common law theories, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) False Claims Act, 31 USC 3729.
</P>
<P>(2) Anti-Kickback Act, 41 USC 51.
</P>
<P>(3) Sherman Act, 15 USC 1-7.
</P>
<P>(4) Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, 18 USC 1961-1968.
</P>
<P>(5) Common law fraud.
</P>
<P>(6) Unjust enrichment.
</P>
<P>(7) Constructive trust.
</P>
<P>(8) Cases where contracts have been procured in violation of the conflict of interest statute, 18 USC 218. See <I>K&amp;R Engineering Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 616 F.2d 469 (Ct. Cl., 1980).
</P>
<P>(c) When civil recovery appears possible, PFD should be consulted to determine if a litigation report is necessary. If requested by PFD, the report should summarize the available evidence and applicable theories of recovery and be prepared under § 516.23 of this part. To avoid unnecessary duplication of effort, recovery reports may include and make liberal references to other reports previously prepared on a given case such as the DFARS 209.406-3 (48 CFR 209.406-3) report.
</P>
<P>(d) The MACOM PFI coordinator and PFA will monitor all civil fraud recovery efforts throughout the command and will provide training and technical assistance as required. Status reports of all civil fraud recovery efforts will be provided through channels as required by PFD.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.66" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.66   Administrative and contractual actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following remedial options should be considered in response to confirmed fraudulent activity:
</P>
<P>(1) Contractual.
</P>
<P>(i) Termination of contract for default.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nonaward of contract based upon a finding of contractor nonresponsibility. (If this appears to be a valid option, a DFARS 209.406-3 (48 CFR 209.406-3) report must be prepared where contractor nonresponsibility is based on lack of integrity).
</P>
<P>(iii) Rescission of contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) Revocation of acceptance.
</P>
<P>(v) Use of contract warranties.
</P>
<P>(vi) Withholding of payments to contractor. In the case of withholding pursuant to DFARS 2032.173, the Chief, PFD, is the Army Remedy Coordinating Official.
</P>
<P>(vii) Offset of payments due to contractor from other contracts.
</P>
<P>(viii) Revocation of facility security clearances.
</P>
<P>(ix) Increased level of quality assurance.
</P>
<P>(x) Refusal to accept nonconforming goods.
</P>
<P>(xi) Denial of claims submitted by contractors.
</P>
<P>(xii) Removal of contract from automated solicitation or payment system.
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative.
</P>
<P>(i) Change in contracting forms and procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal or reassignment of government personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Review of contract administration and payment controls.
</P>
<P>(iv) Revocation of warrant of contracting officer.
</P>
<P>(v) Suspension of contractor.
</P>
<P>(vi) Debarment of contractor.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases which are pending review or action by DOJ, PFAs should coordinate with the DOJ attorney handling the case prior to initiating any contractual or administrative remedy. In the case of ongoing criminal investigations, this coordination will be accomplished through the appropriate DOD criminal investigation organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.67" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.67   Overseas cases of fraud or corruption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commanders of overseas major commands will establish procedures, similar to this regulation and consistent with the DFARS, and regulations and directives of their respective unified commands, for reporting and coordination of available remedies in overseas procurement fraud and corruption cases involving foreign firms and individuals. Overseas major commands will also maintain liaison with PFD and provide periodic reports of remedies coordination results.
</P>
<P>(b) Overseas suspension and debarment actions are governed by DFARS 209.403 (48 CFR 209.403). The names of all firms and individuals suspended or debarred will be expeditiously forwarded to PFD for inclusion on the List of Parties Excluded From Federal Procurement or NonProcurement Programs.
</P>
<P>(c) Overseas cases of fraud or corruption related to the procurement process that involve U.S. firms or U.S. citizens may be referred to PFD for coordination of remedies under this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.68" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.8.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.68   Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act (PFCRA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) PFCRA was enacted on 21 October 1986 (Public Law 99-509) and implemented by DOD on 30 August 1988 (DOD Directive 5505.5). (See appendix E to this part.)
</P>
<P>(b) PFCRA expands the capability of the government to deter and recover losses from false, fictitious or fraudulent claims and statements. It is also applicable to program fraud and provides an administrative remedy in addition to those otherwise available to the Army in procurement fraud or pay and entitlements fraud cases.
</P>
<P>(c) As part of the Army implementation, the Secretary of the Army's duties and responsibilities under PFCRA as Authority Head are delegated to the Army General Counsel. The Chief, Intellectual Property Law Division, is the Army's Reviewing Official within the meaning of PFCRA. Army implementation also requires DA to follow the policies and procedures prescribed in enclosure 2 of DOD Directive 5505.5. (See appendix E to this part.)
</P>
<P>(d) The DOD Inspector General (IG) is the Investigating Official within DOD. The duties of this position will be performed by the Assistant IG For Investigations. This individual is vested with the authority to investigate all allegations of liability under PFCRA. That authority includes the power to task subordinate investigative agencies to review and report on allegations that are subject to PFCRA. If the Investigative Official concludes that an action under PFCRA is warranted in an Army case, the official will submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation through PFD to the Army Reviewing Official.
</P>
<P>(e) Pursuant to DOD IG guidance, USACIDC will forward appropriate cases that appear to qualify for resolution under PFCRA to the Investigating Official in a timely manner. Additionally, USACIDC will forward current information regarding the status of remedies pending or concluded. USACIDC may obtain remedies information by coordinating with PFD and the cognizant command.
</P>
<P>(f) In pay and entitlement or transportation operation fraud cases, USACIDC will coordinate with the Office of the Secretary of the Army, Financial Management, Review and Oversight Directorate (SAFM-RO), to determine the status of any pending or proposed action under the Debt Collection Act. This information, in addition to information obtained under § 517.68(e), will be forwarded with appropriate cases to the Investigating Official.
</P>
<P>(g) In those cases where the Investigating Official has submitted a report to the Army Reviewing Official for action under PFCRA, PFD will, at the direction of the Reviewing Official, prepare all legal memoranda as necessary to transmit the Reviewing Official's intention to issue a complaint. As part of this responsibility PFD will do the following: coordinate with the affected command or agency to ensure that all appropriate remedies have been considered; evaluate the overall potential benefits to the Army; and, ensure that action under PFCRA is not duplicative of other remedies already taken. In order to fully supplement the Reviewing Official's file, PFD may request a litigation report.
</P>
<P>(h) PFD will coordinate all cases involving transportation operations emanating from Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC) activity, under the military transportation exception to the FAR, and all cases involving pay and entitlements fraud with SAFM-RO, for comments and recommendations. These matters will be forwarded with the case file to the Reviewing Official.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Attorney General approves the issuance of a complaint, PFD, at the direction of the Army Reviewing Official, shall prepare the complaint and all necessary memoranda as required. PFD shall also designate attorneys to represent the Authority in hearings under PFCRA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Cooperation With the Office of Special Counsel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.69" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.69   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes procedures for cooperation with the Office of Special Counsel (OSC) when OSC is investigating alleged prohibited personnel practices or other allegations of improper or illegal conduct within DA activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.70" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.70   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DA policy follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Civilian personnel actions taken by management officials, civilian and military, will conform to laws and regulations implementing established merit system principles and will be free of any prohibited personnel practices.
</P>
<P>(2) Management officials will take vigorous corrective action when prohibited personnel practices occur. Disciplinary measures under AR 690-700, Chapter 751, may be initiated after consultation and coordination with appropriate civilian personnel office and labor counselor.
</P>
<P>(b) DA activities will cooperate with OSC in the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Promoting merit system principles in civilian employment programs within DA.
</P>
<P>(2) Investigating and reporting allegations of improper or illegal conduct forwarded to the activity by HQDA.
</P>
<P>(3) Facilitating orderly investigations by the OSC of alleged prohibited personnel practices and other matters assigned for investigation to the OSC, such as violations of the Whistleblower Protection Act of 1989, the Freedom of Information Act, or the Hatch Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.71" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.71   Duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DA General Counsel.</I> The DA General Counsel is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide overall guidance on all issues concerning cooperation with OSC, including the investigation of alleged prohibited personnel practices and allegations of improper or illegal conduct.
</P>
<P>(2) Review for adequacy and legal sufficiency each OSC report of investigation that must be personally reviewed by the Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure compliance with the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 by obtaining a suitable investigation of allegations of improper or illegal conduct received from OSC. This includes compliance with time limits for reporting results of the investigation and personal review of the report by the Secretary of the Army when required.
</P>
<P>(4) Forward to the DOD Inspector General (DODIG) copies of each allegation of improper or illegal conduct referred to DA by OSC.
</P>
<P>(5) Delegate to The Judge Advocate General the authority to act on behalf of the DA General Counsel in all OSC investigations of prohibited personnel practices.
</P>
<P>(6) Act upon requests for counsel from “accused” or “suspected” employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief, Labor and Employment Law Office.</I> The Chief, Labor and Employment Law Office, OTJAG (DAJA-LE) is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Act for TJAG as the Senior Management Official in cooperating with OSC. As Senior Management Official, the Chief, DAJA-LE, through TJAG, will be responsible to the DA General Counsel for administration of the policies and procedures contained in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly inform the DA General Counsel of any OSC investigation and consult with the DA General Counsel on any legal or policy issue arising from an OSC investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Serve as the HQDA point of contact in providing assistance to OSC.
</P>
<P>(4) Act as DA attorney-of-record in administrative matters initiated by OSC before the MSPB which arise from an OSC investigation. As DA attorney-of-record, the Chief, DAJA-LE, will file necessary pleadings and make necessary appearances before the MSPB to represent DA interests.
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor ongoing OSC investigations within DA.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that appropriate DA personnel are fully apprised of their rights, duties and the nature and basis for an OSC investigation.
</P>
<P>(7) Review and prepare recommendations to the General Counsel concerning any OSC recommended corrective action referred to DA. Such review and recommendations will address whether disciplinary action should be taken against DA civilian employees or military members, and whether the information warrants referral to appropriate authorities for corrective and disciplinary action.
</P>
<P>(8) Seek OSC approval of DA proposed disciplinary action against an employee for an alleged prohibited personnel practice or other misconduct which is the subject of or related to any OSC investigation.
</P>
<P>(9) Review and prepare recommendations for DA General Counsel concerning requests for counsel, to include identifying available DA attorneys to act as individual representatives. Upon approval of DA General Counsel, appoint DA civilian and military attorneys, to include attorneys from the U.S. Army Materiel Command and the Corps of Engineers, to represent individual military members or employees.
</P>
<P>(10) Determine, to the extent practicable, whether an investigation is being or has been conducted which duplicates, in whole or in part, a proposed or incomplete OSC investigation, and convey that information to the OSC whenever it might avoid redundant investigative efforts.
</P>
<P>(11) Provide guidance and assistance to activity Labor Counselors in fulfilling their duties as Liaison Officers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Activity Labor Counselor.</I> The activity Labor Counselor will do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Act as Liaison Officer for OSC investigations arising within the command, activity or installation serviced by the Labor Counselor's client Employment Office.
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly inform the MACOM labor counselor and the Chief, DAJA-LE, of any OSC inquiry or investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Act as the legal representative of the command, activity, or installation.
</P>
<P>(4) Assist the OSC investigator with administrative matters related to the investigation, such as requests for witnesses and documents.
</P>
<P>(5) Process all OSC requests for documents.
</P>
<P>(6) Make appropriate arrangements for OSC requests to interview civilian employees and military members.
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure that personnel involved are advised of the nature and basis for an OSC investigation, the authority of the OSC, and their rights and duties.
</P>
<P>(8) Consult with the Chief, DAJA-LE, on policy and legal issues arising from the OSC investigation.
</P>
<P>(9) Keep the Chief, DAJA-LE, informed of the status of the OSC investigation.
</P>
<P>(l0) Act as agency representative before the MSPB in actions initiated by employees (individual right of action appeals).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.72" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.72   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Witnesses and counsel for consultation.</I> (1) DA military and civilian managers, supervisors, and employees who are requested by OSC for an interview will be made available in accordance with arrangements the Labor Counselor will establish. Requests for the testimony of IGs will be coordinated with the Inspector General Legal Office, SAIG-ZXL, DSN 227-9734 or Commercial (703) 697-9734.
</P>
<P>(2) The Labor Counselor will ensure that witnesses are aware of their obligation to answer OSC questions, their potential to be considered “suspects” in OSC investigations, and their right to the assistance of counsel during interviews with OSC representatives. If the requested witness is not an “accused” or “suspected” individual and the witness asks for assistance of counsel, a DA attorney will be made available for the limited purpose of consultation regarding the witness' rights and obligations. An attorney-client relationship will not be established. (See appendix F to this part).
</P>
<P>(3) The Labor Counselor will arrange for individual counsel for consultation from local assets. If local assets are not sufficient, assistance may be requested from other DOD activities in the area or from HQDA, DAJA-LE. DA attorneys tasked to consult with one or more witnesses individually will not be tasked to represent the DA activity concerned.
</P>
<P>(4) The Labor Counselor, as the legal representative of the activity, is precluded from assisting or representing individual witnesses during OSC interviews.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Accused” or “suspected” DA personnel and counsel for representation.</I> (1) If the OSC identifies a DA civilian employee or a military member as an “accused” or “suspected” individual, or if the Labor Counselor concludes that an individual is a “suspect,” the Labor Counselor will inform the individual. The Labor Counselor also will advise the individual of the availability of counsel for representation upon approval by DA General Counsel. (See Glossary, Counsel for Representation).
</P>
<P>(2) If the “suspected” individual desires legal representation by DA, the individual must request counsel by submitting a written request through DAJA-LE to DA General Counsel. (See figure I-1, appendix G, to this part).
</P>
<P>(3) During the investigation but prior to DA General Counsel approval of the request for counsel, an “accused” or “suspected” individual will be provided the assistance of counsel for consultation in the same manner as any other OSC requested witness. “Accused” or “suspected” individuals who do not request counsel for representation will be provided counsel for consultation in the same manner as any other OSC requested witness.
</P>
<P>(4) If the DA General Counsel approves the request for counsel, the Chief, DAJA-LE, will appoint a DA attorney to represent the individual. This appointment may be made telephonically but will be confirmed in writing. The Chief, DAJA-LE, will make appropriate coordination with MACOM SJAs and command counsel to confirm availability of the attorney. 
</P>
<P>(5) An attorney appointed by DA may represent a civilian employee in any proceeding initiated by OSC before the MSPB. However, counsel provided by DA may not represent the employee in any proceeding initiated by DA, in any appeal from a final decision by the MSPB, or in any collateral proceeding before any forum other than the MSPB. 
</P>
<P>(6) OSC may not bring a disciplinary action before the MSPB against a military member. Accordingly, DA counsel will not be required to represent the military member in any MSPB disciplinary proceeding. However, counsel may represent the member during the OSC investigation with the understanding that the evidence obtained by OSC may be referred to the member's command for possible disciplinary action under the UCMJ or appropriate regulations. If DA initiates action against the military member for misconduct disclosed in the OSC investigation, the member will obtain counsel as provided under the UCMJ or relevant regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> (1) OSC requests for records must be in writing. The Labor Counselor will assist OSC representatives in identifying the custodian of specific records sought during the inquiry. 
</P>
<P>(2) Generally, requested records should be furnished to OSC representatives if such records would be released under AR 25-55 or AR 340-21 to other government agencies in the normal course of official business. Records constituting attorney work product should not be released without approval of the Chief, DAJA-LE. IG records will not be released without the approval of the Inspector General. (AR 20-1). The Labor Counselor should seek guidance from the Chief, DAJA-LE, if there is any doubt concerning the release of records. 
</P>
<P>(3) If, after completion of the OSC investigation, the OSC files a complaint against DA or a DA employee, release of records and other information will be accomplished pursuant to MSPB rules of discovery (5 CFR part 1201, subpart B). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding.</I> The command, activity, or installation within which the allegations of misconduct arose will provide funding for travel, per diem and other necessary expenses related to the OSC investigation. These expenses may include appropriate funding for witnesses, counsel for consultation and DA General Counsel approved counsel for representation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.73" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.9.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.73   Assistance from HQDA.</HEAD>
<P>Labor Counselors may seek guidance on questions arising from implementation of this chapter by calling the Chief, DAJA-LE, DSN 225-9476/9481 or Commercial (703) 695-9476/9481. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Soldiers Summoned To Serve on State and Local Juries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.74" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.74   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart implements 10 U.S.C. § 982 and DOD Directive 5525.8. It establishes Army policy concerning soldiers on active duty who are summoned to serve on state and local juries. 
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not apply to Army National Guard soldiers in an annual training or full-time AGR (Active Guard Reserve) status under Title 32, U.S. Code. Soldiers in a Title 32 status must refer to their respective state law for relief from state or local jury duty. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.75" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.75   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Active duty soldiers should fulfill their civic responsibility by serving on state and local juries, so long as it does not interfere with military duties. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following active duty soldiers are exempt from complying with summons to serve on state and local juries: 
</P>
<P>(1) General officers. 
</P>
<P>(2) Commanders. 
</P>
<P>(3) Active duty soldiers stationed outside the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(4) Active duty soldiers in a training status. 
</P>
<P>(5) Active duty soldiers assigned to forces engaged in operations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Other active duty soldiers may be exempted from serving on local juries if compliance with such summons would have either of the following effects: 
</P>
<P>(1) It would unreasonably interfere with performance of the soldier's military duties; or, 
</P>
<P>(2) It would adversely affect the readiness of a summoned soldier's unit, command, or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.76" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.76   Exemption determination authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The commander exercising special court-martial convening authority (SPCMCA) over a unit has the authority to determine whether a soldier of that unit, who has been served with a summons, is exempt from serving on a state or local jury unless that authority has been limited or withheld in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. This authority may not be delegated to a subordinate commander who does not exercise SPCMCA. 
</P>
<P>(b) A commander superior to the SPCMCA, who also exercises SPCMCA or general court-martial convening authority (GCMCA) over a unit, may limit or withhold the exemption determination authority of subordinate commanders. 
</P>
<P>(c) A GCMCA, who orders a unit or soldier assigned to one command to be attached or detailed to another command for disciplinary purposes (for example, “for administration” or “for administration of military justice”), may reserve exemption determination authority to the commander exercising SPCMCA in the chain of command to which the unit or soldier is assigned rather than the chain of command to which the unit or soldier is attached or detailed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.77" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.77   Procedures for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Active duty soldiers served with a summons to serve on a state or local jury will promptly advise their commander and provide copies of pertinent documents. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unit commanders will evaluate the summons considering both the individual soldier's duties and the unit mission. Coordination with the servicing judge advocate or legal adviser and with the appropriate state or local official may be necessary to determine any impact on the soldier's duties or on unit readiness. 
</P>
<P>(1) If the soldier is not exempt under § 516.75 (b) or (c), the commander will process the soldier for permissive TDY in accordance with AR 630-5, Leaves and Passes. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the soldier is exempt under § 516.75 (b) or (c), the commander will forward the summons and any related documentation, with recommendations, through the chain of command to the commander with exemption determination authority over the soldier concerned. 
</P>
<P>(c) The commander with exemption determination authority over the soldier concerned will determine whether the soldier is exempt. His determination is final. 
</P>
<P>(d) The exemption determination authority will notify responsible state or local officials whenever a soldier summoned for jury duty is exempt. The notification will cite 10 U.S.C. 982 as authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.78" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.10.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.78   Status, fees, and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Soldiers who are required to comply with summons to serve on state or local juries will be placed on permissive TDY under the provisions of AR 630-5. 
</P>
<P>(b) Jury fees accruing to soldiers for complying with the summons to serve on state and local juries must be turned over to the appropriate finance office for deposit into the U.S. Treasury. Commands will establish procedures with local authorities and their servicing finance and accounting activity to ensure that such jury fees are so deposited. Soldiers, however, may keep any reimbursement from state or local authority for expenses incurred in the performance of jury duty, including transportation, meals, and parking. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 516—References
</HEAD>
<P>Publications referenced in this part can be obtained at the National Technical Information Services, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161. 
</P>
<HD2>Required Publications 
</HD2>
<FP-2>AR 25-55, The Department of the Army Freedom of Information Act Program. (Cited in §§ 516.40, 516.72) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-10, Military Justice. (Cited in § 516.4) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-20, Claims. (Cited in §§ 516.4, 516.33, 516.22) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-60, Patents, Inventions, and Copyrights. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 37-60, Pricing for Material and Services. (Cited in § 516.43.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 37-103, Finance and Accounting for Installations: Disbursing Operations. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 60-20, Operating Policies. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 190-9, Absentee Deserter Apprehension Program and Surrender of Military Personnel to Civilian Law Enforcement Agencies. (Cited in § 516.9) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 210-47, State and Local Taxation of Lessee's Interest in Wherry Act Housing (Title VIII of the National Housing Act). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 215-1, Administration of Army Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Activities and Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 215-2, The Management and Operation of Army Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Activities and Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 310-1, Publications, Blank Forms, and Printing Management. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 340-21, The Army Privacy Program. (Cited in §§ 516.40, 516.72.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 380-5, Department of the Army Information Security Program. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 405-25, Annexation. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 630-5, Leaves and Passes. (Cited in §§ 516.55, 516.77, 516.78.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 630-10, Absence Without Leave, Desertion, and Administration of Personnel Involved in Civilian Court Proceedings. (Cited in § 516.9) 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Related Publications 
</HD2>
<P>A related publication is merely a source of additional information. The user does not have to read it to understand the regulation. 
</P>
<FP-2>AR 20-1, Inspector General Activities and Procedures. (Cited in §§ 516.41, 516.72.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-1, Judge Advocate Legal Service. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-3, Legal Assistance. (Cited in § 516.6.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-10, Military Justice. (Cited in §§ 516.4, 516.5, 516.15.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 27-50, Status of Forces Policies, Procedures, and Information. (Cited in § 516.15.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 37-104-3, Military Pay and Allowances Procedures. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 37-105, Finance and Accounting for Installations: Civilian Pay Procedures. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 55-19, Marine Casualties. (Cited in § 516.22.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 190-29, Misdemeanors and Uniform Violation Notices Referred to U.S. Magistrates or District Courts. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 190-40, Serious Incident Report. (Cited in § 516.15.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 210-50, Family Housing Management. (Cited in § 516.37.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 335-15, Management Information Control System. (Cited in § 516.15.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 600-40, Apprehension, Restraint, and Release to Civil Authorities. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 600-50, Standards of Conduct for Department of the Army Personnel. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 690-700, Personnel Relations and Services. (Cited in § 516.70.) 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Prescribed Form 
</HD2>
<FP-2>DA Form 4, Department of the Army Certification for Authentication of Records. (Prescribed in § 516.25, 516.35.) 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Referenced Forms 
</HD2>
<FP-2>DA Form 2631-R, Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DA Form 3154, MSA Invoice and Receipt. 


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 516—Mailing Addresses
</HEAD>
<P>The following is a list of frequently referred to Department of the Army Services/Divisions/Offices and their mailing addresses: 
</P>
<FP-2>COMMANDER (JACS-Z), U.S. ARMY CLAIMS SERVICE, OTJAG, BUILDING 4411, ROOM 206, LLEWELLYN AVENUE, FORT GEORGE G. MEADE, MD 20755-5360 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(1) PERSONNEL CLAIMS AND RECOVERY DIVISION (JACS-PC), U.S. ARMY CLAIMS SERVICE, OTJAG, BUILDING 4411, ROOM 206, LLEWELLYN AVENUE, FORT GEORGE G. MEADE, MD 20755-5360 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(2) TORT CLAIMS DIVISION (JACS-TC), U.S. ARMY CLAIMS SERVICE, OTJAG, BUILDING 4411, ROOM 206, LLEWELLYN AVENUE, FORT GEORGE G. MEADE, MD 20755-5360 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>CONTRACT APPEALS DIVISION, HQDA(DAJA-CA), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CONTRACT LAW DIVISION, THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CRIMINAL LAW DIVISION, THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ENVIRONMENTAL LAW DIVISION, HQDA(DAJA-EL), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT LAW DIVISION, THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LITIGATION DIVISION, HQDA(DAJA-LT), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(1) CIVILIAN PERSONNEL BRANCH, HQDA(DAJA-LTC), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(2) GENERAL LITIGATION BRANCH, HQDA(DAJA-LTG), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(3) MILITARY PERSONNEL BRANCH, HQDA(DAJA-LTM), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(4) TORT BRANCH, HQDA(DAJA-LTT), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>PERSONNEL, PLANS, AND TRAINING OFFICE, THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PROCUREMENT FRAUD DIVISION, HQDA(DAJA-PF), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY DIVISION, HQDA(JALS-IP), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>REGULATORY LAW OFFICE, HQDA(JALS-RL), 901 NORTH STUART STREET, ARLINGTON, VA 22203-1837 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>THE AJAG FOR CIVIL LAW &amp; LITIGATION, THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL, 2200 ARMY PENTAGON, WASHINGTON, DC 20310-2200 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U.S. ARMY TRIAL DEFENSE SERVICE, HQDA(JALS-TD), NASSIF BUILDING, FALLS CHURCH, VA 22041-5013 


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 516—Department of Defense Directive 5405.2, Release of Official Information in Litigation and Testimony by DoD Personnel as Witnesses
</HEAD>
<HD2>Department of Defense Directive 
</HD2>
<HD3>July 23, 1985, Number 5405.2, GC, DOD 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Subject: Release of Official Information in Litigation and Testimony by DoD Personnel as Witnesses 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>References: 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(a) Title 5, United States Code, Sections 301, 552, and 552a 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Title 10, United States Code, Section 133 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) DoD Directive 5220.6, “Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Program,” December 20, 1976 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) DoD Directive 5200.1-R, “Information Security Program Regulation,” August 1982, authorized by DoD Directive 5200.1, June 7, 1982 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) DoD Directive 5230.25, “Withholding of Unclassified Technical Data from Public Disclosure,” November 6, 1984 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(f) DoD Instruction 7230.7, “User Charges,” January 29, 1985 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(g) DoD Directive 5400.7-R, “DoD Freedom of Information Act Program,” December 1980, authorized by DoD Directive 5400.7, March 24, 1980 
</FP-2>
<HD2>A. Purpose
</HD2>
<P>Under Section 301 reference (a) and reference (b), this Directive establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for the release of official DoD information in litigation and for testimony by DoD personnel as witnesses during litigation. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Applicability and Scope 
</HD2>
<P>1. This Directive applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), the Military Departments, the Organization of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (OJCS), the Unified and Specified Commands, and the Defense Agencies (hereafter referred to as “DoD Components”), and to all personnel of such DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>2. This Directive does not apply to the release of official information or testimony by DoD personnel in the following situations: 
</P>
<P>a. Before courts-martial convened by the authority of the Military Departments or in administrative proceedings conducted by or on behalf of a DoD Component; 
</P>
<P>b. Pursuant to administrative proceedings conducted by or on behalf of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) or the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), or pursuant to a negotiated grievance procedure under a collective bargaining agreement to which the Government is a party; 
</P>
<P>c. In response to requests by Federal Government counsel in litigation conducted on behalf of the United States; 
</P>
<P>d. As part of the assistance required in accordance with the Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Program under DoD Directive 5220.6 (reference (c)); or 
</P>
<P>e. Pursuant to disclosure of information to Federal, State, and local prosecuting and law enforcement authorities, in conjunction with an investigation conducted by a DoD criminal investigative organization. 
</P>
<P>3. This Directive does not supersede or modify existing laws or DoD programs governing the testimony of DoD personnel or the release of official DoD information during grand jury proceedings, the release of official information not involved in litigation, or the release of official information pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. Section 552 (reference (a)) or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. Section 552a (reference (a)), nor does this Directive preclude treating any written request for agency records that is not in the nature of legal process as a request under the Freedom of Information or Privacy Acts. 
</P>
<P>4. This Directive is not intended to infringe upon or displace the responsibilities committed to the Department of Justice in conducting litigation on behalf of the United States in appropriate cases. 
</P>
<P>5. This Directive does not preclude official comment on matters in litigation in appropriate cases. 
</P>
<P>6. This Directive is intended only to provide guidance for the internal operation of the Department of Defense and is not intended to, does not, and may not be relied upon to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law against the United States or the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<HD2>C. Definitions 
</HD2>
<P>1. Demand. Subpoena, order, or other demand of a court of competent jurisdiction, or other specific authority for the production, disclosure, or release of official DoD information or for the appearance and testimony of DoD personnel as witnesses. 
</P>
<P>2. DoD Personnel. Present and former U.S. military personnel; Service Academy cadets and midshipmen; and present and former civilian employees of any Component of the Department of Defense, including nonappropriated fund activity employees; non-U.S. nationals who perform services overseas, under the provisions of status of forces agreements, for the United States Armed Forces; and other specific individuals hired through contractual agreements by or on behalf of the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>3. Litigation. All pretrial, trial, and post-trial stages of all existing or reasonably anticipated judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before civilian courts, commissions, boards (including the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals), or other tribunals, foreign and domestic. This term includes responses to discovery requests, depositions, and other pretrial proceedings, as well as responses to formal or informal requests by attorneys or others in situations involving litigation. 
</P>
<P>4. Official Information. All information of any kind, however stored, that is in the custody and control of the Department of Defense, relates to information in the custody and control of the Department, or was acquired by DoD personnel as part of their official duties or because of their official status within the Department while such personnel were employed by or on behalf of the Department or on active duty with the United States Armed Forces. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Policy 
</HD2>
<P>It is DoD policy that official information should generally be made reasonably available for use in Federal and state courts and by other governmental bodies unless the information is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Responsibilities 
</HD2>
<P>1. The General Counsel, Department of Defense (GC, DoD), shall provide general policy and procedural guidance by the issuance of supplemental instructions or specific orders concerning the release of official DoD information in litigation and the testimony of DoD personnel as witnesses during litigation. 
</P>
<P>2. The Heads of DoD Components shall issue appropriate regulations to implement this Directive and to identify official information that is involved in litigation. 
</P>
<HD2>F. Procedures 
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Authority To Act 
</HD3>
<P>a. In response to a litigation request or demand for official DoD information or the testimony of DoD personnel as witnesses, the General Counsels of DoD, Navy, and the Defense Agencies; the Judge Advocates General of the Military Departments; and the Chief Legal Advisors to the JCS and the Unified and Specified Commands, with regard to their respective Components, are authorized—after consulting and coordinating with the appropriate Department of Justice litigation attorneys, as required—to determine whether official information originated by the Component may be released in litigation; whether DoD personnel assigned to or affiliated with the Component may be interviewed, contacted, or used as witnesses concerning official DoD information or as expert witnesses; and what, if any, conditions will be imposed upon such release, interview, contact, or testimony. Delegation of this authority, to include the authority to invoke appropriate claims of privilege before any tribunal, is permitted. 
</P>
<P>b. In the event that a DoD Component receives a litigation request or demand for official information originated by another Component, the receiving Component shall forward the appropriate portions of the request or demand to the originating Component for action in accordance with this Directive. The receiving Component shall also notify the requestor, court, or other authority of its transfer of the request or demand. 
</P>
<P>c. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs F.1.a. and b., the GC, DoD, in litigation involving terrorism, espionage, nuclear weapons, intelligence means or sources, or otherwise as deemed necessary, may notify Components that GC, DoD, will assume primary responsibility for coordinating all litigation requests and demands for official DoD information or the testimony of DoD personnel, or both; consulting with the Department of Justice, as required; and taking final action on such requests and demands. 
</P>
<HD3>2. Factors To Consider 
</HD3>
<P>In deciding whether to authorize the release of official DoD information or the testimony of DoD personnel concerning official information (hereinafter referred to as “the disclosure”) pursuant to paragraph F.1., DoD officials should consider the following types of factors: 
</P>
<P>a. Whether the request or demand is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable court rules; 
</P>
<P>b. Whether the disclosure, including release in camera, is appropriate under the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the request or demand arose; 
</P>
<P>c. Whether the disclosure would violate a statute, executive order, regulation, or directive; 
</P>
<P>d. Whether the disclosure, including release in camera, is appropriate or necessary under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege; 
</P>
<P>e. Whether the disclosure, except when in camera and necessary to assert a claim of privilege, would reveal information properly classified pursuant to the DoD Information Security Program under DoD 5200.1-R (reference (d)), unclassified technical data withheld from public release pursuant to DoD Directive 5230.25 (reference (e)), or other matters exempt from unrestricted disclosure; and
</P>
<P>f. Whether disclosure would interfere with ongoing enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, reveal the identity of an intelligence source or confidential informant, disclose trade secrets or similarly confidential commercial or financial information, or otherwise be inappropriate under the circumstances. 
</P>
<HD3>3. Decisions on Litigation Requests and Demands 
</HD3>
<P>a. Subject to paragraph F.3.e., DoD personnel shall not, in response to a litigation request or demand, produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning any official DoD information without the prior written approval of the appropriate DoD official designated in paragraph F.1. Oral approval may be granted, but a record of such approval shall be made and retained in accordance with the applicable implementing regulations. 
</P>
<P>b. If official DoD information is sought, through testimony or otherwise, by a litigation request or demand, the individual seeking such release or testimony must set forth, in writing and with as much specificity as possible, the nature and relevance of the official information sought. Subject to paragraph F.3.e., DoD personnel may only produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning those matters that were specified in writing and properly approved by the appropriate DoD official designated in paragraph F.1. See United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951). 
</P>
<P>c. Whenever a litigation request or demand is made upon DoD personnel for official DoD information or for testimony concerning such information, the personnel upon whom the request or demand was made shall immediately notify the DoD official designated in paragraph F.1. for the Component to which the individual contacted is or, for former personnel, was last assigned. In appropriate cases, the responsible DoD official shall thereupon notify the Department of Justice of the request or demands. After due consultation and coordination with the Department of Justice, as required, the DoD official shall determine whether the individual is required to comply with the request or demand and shall notify the requestor or the court or other authority of the determination reached. 
</P>
<P>d. If, after DoD personnel have received a litigation request or demand and have in turn notified the appropriate DoD official in accordance with paragraph F.3.c., a response to the request or demand is required before instructions from the responsible official are received, the responsible official designated in paragraph F.1. shall furnish the requestor or the court or other authority with a copy of this Directive and applicable implementing regulations, inform the requestor or the court or other authority that the request or demand is being reviewed, and seek a stay of the request or demand pending a final determination by the Component concerned. 
</P>
<P>e. If a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority declines to stay the effect of the request or demand in response to action taken pursuant to paragraph F.3.d., or if such court or other authority orders that the request or demand must be complied with notwithstanding the final decision of the appropriate DoD official, the DoD personnel upon whom the request or demand was made shall notify the responsible DoD official of such ruling or order. If the DoD official determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the court's ruling or order will be sought, the affected DoD personnel shall comply with the request, demand, or order. If directed by the appropriate DoD official, however, the affected DoD personnel shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand. See United States ex rel. <I>Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951). 
</P>
<HD3>4. Fees 
</HD3>
<P>Consistent with the guidelines in DoD Instruction 7230.7 (reference (f)), the appropriate officials designated in paragraph F.1. are authorized to charge reasonable fees, as established by regulation and to the extent not prohibited by law, to parties seeking, by request or demand, official DoD information not otherwise available under the DoD Freedom of Information Act Program (reference (g)). Such fees, in amounts calculated to reimburse the Government for the expense of providing such information, may include the costs of time expended by DoD employees to process and respond to the request or demand; attorney time for reviewing the request or demand and any information located in response thereto and for related legal work in connection with the request or demand; and expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for, produce, and copy the responsive information. See Oppenheimer Fund, Inc. v. Sanders, 437 U.S. 340 (1978). 
</P>
<HD3>5. Expert or Opinion Testimony 
</HD3>
<P>DoD personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official DoD information, subjects, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the Department of Justice. Upon a showing by the requestor of exceptional need or unique circumstances and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the Department of Defense or the United States, the appropriate DoD official designated in paragraph F.1. may, in writing, grant special authorization for DoD personnel to appear and testify at no expense to the United States. If, despite the final determination of the responsible DoD official, a court of competent jurisdiction, or other appropriate authority, orders the appearance and expert or opinion testimony of DoD personnel, the personnel shall notify the responsible DoD official of such order. If the DoD official determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the court's order will be sought, the affected DoD personnel shall comply with the order. If directed by the appropriate DoD official, however, the affected DoD personnel shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand. See United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951). 
</P>
<HD2>G. Effective Date and Implementation 
</HD2>
<P>This Directive is effective immediately. Forward two copies of implementing documents to the General Counsel, DoD, within 120 days. 
</P>
<FP>Signed by William H. Taft, IV 
</FP>
<P><I>Deputy Secretary of Defense.</I>


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 516—Department of Defense Directive 7050.5, Coordination of Remedies for Fraud and Corruption Related to Procurement Activities 
</HEAD>
<HD2>Department of Defense Directive 
</HD2>
<HD3>June 7, 1989, Number 7050.5, IG, DOD 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Subject: Coordination of Remedies for Fraud and Corruption Related to Procurement Activities 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>References: 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(a) DoD Directive 7050.5, subject as above, June 28, 1985 (hereby canceled) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Public Law 97-291, “The Victim and Witness Protection Act of 1982,” October 12, 1982 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Defense FAR Supplement (DFARS), Subpart 4.6, “Contract Reporting” 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) DoD Instruction 4105.61, “DoD Procurement Coding Manual,” May 4, 1973 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) DoD 4105.61-M, “Procurement Coding Manual” (Volume I), October 1988, authorized by DoD Instruction 4105.61 May 4, 1973 
</FP-2>
<HD2>A. Reissuance and Purpose
</HD2>
<P>This Directive reissues reference (a) to update policies, procedures, and responsibilities for the coordination of criminal, civil, administrative, and contractual remedies stemming from investigation of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities. More effective and timely communication of information developed during such investigations will enable the Department of Defense to take the most appropriate of the available measures. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Applicability 
</HD2>
<P>This Directive applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD); the Inspector General, Department of Defense (IG, DoD); the Military Departments; the Defense Agencies; and the DoD Field Activities (hereafter referred to collectively as “DoD Components”). 
</P>
<HD2>C. Definitions 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>DoD Criminal Investigative Organizations.</I> Refers to the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command; the Naval Investigative Service Command; the U.S. Air Force Office of Special Investigations; and the Defense Criminal Investigative Service, Office of the IG, DoD (OIG, DoD). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Significant.</I> Refers to all fraud cases involving an alleged loss of $100,000, or more; all corruption cases related to procurement that involved bribery, gratuities, or conflicts of interest; and any investigation into defective products or product substitution in which a SERIOUS HAZARD to health, safety, or operational readiness is indicated, regardless of loss value. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Policy 
</HD2>
<P>It is DoD policy that: 
</P>
<P>1. Each of the DoD Components shall monitor, from its inception, all significant investigations of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities affecting its organizations, for the purpose of ensuring that all possible criminal, civil, administrative, and contractual remedies in such cases are identified to cognizant procurement and command officials and that appropriate remedies are pursued expeditiously. This process shall include appropriate coordination with all other affected DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>2. All investigations of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities shall be reviewed to determine and implement the appropriate contractual and administrative actions that are necessary to recover funds lost through fraud or corruption and to ensure the integrity of DoD programs and operations. 
</P>
<P>3. Appropriate civil, contractual, and administrative actions, including those set forth in enclosure 1, shall be taken expeditiously. During an investigation and before prosecution or litigation, and when based in whole or in part on evidence developed during an investigation, such actions shall be taken with the advance knowledge of the responsible DoD criminal investigative organization and, when necessary, the appropriate legal counsel in the Department of Defense and the Department of Justice (DoJ). When appropriate, such actions shall be taken before final resolution of the criminal or civil case. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Responsibilities 
</HD2>
<P>1. The <I>Heads of DoD Components</I> shall: 
</P>
<P>a. Establish a centralized organization (hereafter referred to as “the centralized organization”) to monitor and ensure the coordination of criminal, civil, administrative, and contractual remedies for each significant investigation of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities affecting the DoD Component. 
</P>
<P>b. Establish procedures requiring the centralized organization to discuss regularly with the assigned DoD criminal investigative organization(s) such issues as the current status of significant investigations and their coordination with prosecutive authorities. 
</P>
<P>c. Establish procedures requiring that all coordination involving the DoJ, during the pendency of a criminal investigation, is accomplished by or with the advance knowledge of the appropriate DoD criminal investigative organization(s). 
</P>
<P>d. Establish procedures to ensure appropriate coordination of actions between the centralized organizations of any DoD Components affected by a significant investigation of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities. 
</P>
<P>e. Establish procedures to ensure that all proper and effective civil, administrative, and contractual remedies available to the Department of Defense are, when found applicable and appropriate, considered and undertaken promptly by the necessary DoD officials (e.g., commanders, programs officials, and contracting officers). This includes initiation of any suspension and debarment action within 30 days of an indictment or conviction. The centralized organization shall ensure that all proposed actions are coordinated with appropriate investigative organization. 
</P>
<P>f. Establish procedures to ensure that a specific comprehensive remedies plan is developed for each significant investigation involving fraud or corruption related to procurement activities. These procedures shall include the participation of the appropriate DoD criminal investigative organization in the development of the plan. 
</P>
<P>g. Establish procedures to ensure that in those significant investigations of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities when adverse impact on a DoD mission can be determined, such adverse impact is identified and documented by the centralized organization. This information is to be used by the centralized organization of the DoD Component concerned in development of the remedies plan required in paragraph E.1.f., above, and shall be furnished to prosecutors as stated in paragraph E.2.e., below. The information shall also be used by the centralized organizations in development and preparation of “Victim Impact Statements” for use in sentencing proceedings, as provided for P.L. 97-291 (reference (b)). Some examples of adverse impact on a DoD mission are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Endangerment of personnel or property. 
</P>
<P>(2) Monetary loss. 
</P>
<P>(3) Denigration of program or personnel integrity. 
</P>
<P>(4) Compromise of the procurement process. 
</P>
<P>(5) Reduction or loss of mission readiness. 
</P>
<P>h. Ensure training materials are developed on fraud and corruption in the procurement process, and that all procurement and procurement-related training includes a period of such instruction appropriate to the duration and nature of the training. 
</P>
<P>i. Establish procedures enabling the centralized organization to ensure that safety and readiness issues are examined and appropriately dealt with for all cases in which a notice is required under paragraph E.2.i., below. The minimum procedures to be followed by the centralized organization are in enclosure 3. 
</P>
<P>j. Ensure that appropriate command, procurement, and investigative organizations are provided sufficient information to determine if further inquiry is warranted on their part to prevent reoccurrence and detect other possible fraud within their activity. 
</P>
<P>2. The <I>Secretaries of the Military Departments</I> and the <I>Inspector General, Department of Defense (IG, DoD),</I> or their designees, shall establish procedures that ensure that their respective criminal investigative organizations will: 
</P>
<P>a. Notify, in writing, the centralized organization for the affected DoD Component of the start of all significant investigations involving fraud or corruption that are related to procurement activities. Initial notification shall include the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Case title. 
</P>
<P>(2) Case control number. 
</P>
<P>(3) Investigative agency and office of primary responsibility. 
</P>
<P>(4) Date opened. 
</P>
<P>(5) Predication. 
</P>
<P>(6) Suspected offense(s). 
</P>
<P>b. Notify expeditiously the Defense Investigative Service (DIS) of any investigations that develop evidence that would impact on DoD-cleared industrial facilities or personnel. 
</P>
<P>c. Discuss regularly with the centralized organization such issues as the current status of significant investigations and their coordination with prosecutive authorities. If the DoD criminal investigative organization has prepared any documents summarizing the current status of the investigation, such documents shall be provided to the centralized organization. Completed reports of significant investigations also should be provided to the centralized organization. 
</P>
<P>d. Provide to the appropriate procurement officials, commanders, and suspension and debarment authorities, when needed to allow consideration of applicable remedies, any court records, documents, or other evidence of fraud or corruption related to procurement activities. Such information shall be provided in a timely manner to enable the suspension and debarment authority to initiate suspension and debarment action within 30 days of an indictment or conviction. 
</P>
<P>e. Provide expeditiously to prosecutive authorities the information regarding any adverse impact on a DoD mission, that is gathered under paragraph E.1.g., above, for the purpose of enhancing the prosecutability of a case. Such information also should be used in preparing a victim impact statement for use in sentencing proceedings as provided for in Public Law 97-291. 
</P>
<P>f. Gather, at the earliest practical point in the investigation, without reliance on grand jury subpoenas whenever possible, relevant information concerning responsible individuals, the organizational structure, finances, and contract history of DoD contractors under investigation for fraud or corruption related to procurement activities, to facilitate the criminal investigation as well as any civil, administrative, or contractual actions or remedies that may be taken. Some available sources of such information are listed in enclosure 2. 
</P>
<P>g. Provide timely notice to other cognizant DoD criminal investigative organizations of evidence of fraud by a contractor, subcontractor, or employees of either, on current or past contracts with, or affecting, other DoD Components. 
</P>
<P>h. Ascertain the impact upon any ongoing investigation or prosecution of civil, contractual, and administrative actions being considered and advise the appropriate centralized organization of any adverse impact. 
</P>
<P>i. Obtain a DD 350 report in every investigation into defective products or product substitution in which a SERIOUS HAZARD to health, safety, or operational readiness is indicated. Timely notification shall be made to the centralized organization of each DoD Component that is identified as having contract actions with the subject of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>j. Obtain a DD 350 report in all significant fraud investigations, as defined in subsection C.2. above, whether or not the case involved defective products or product substitution. Timely notification shall be made to the centralized organization of each DoD Component that is identified as having contract actions with the subject of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>3. The <I>Inspector General, Department of Defense</I> (IG, DoD), shall: 
</P>
<P>a. Develop training materials relating to fraud and corruption in procurement related activities which shall be utilized in all procurement related training in conjunction with training materials developed by the DoD Components. (See paragraph E.1.h., above.) 
</P>
<P>b. Establish procedures for providing to the DoD criminal investigative organizations, through the Office of the Assistant Inspector General for Auditing (OAIG-AUD), reports of data contained in the Individual Procurement Action Report (DD Form 350) System. 
</P>
<HD2>F. Procedures 
</HD2>
<P>Transmissions of information by DoD criminal investigative organizations required by subsection E.2., above, shall be made as expeditiously as possible, consistent with efforts not to compromise any ongoing criminal investigation. The transmission of the information may be delayed when, in the judgment of the head of the DoD criminal investigative organization, failure to delay would compromise the success of any investigation or prosecution. The prosecutive authorities dealing with the investigation shall be consulted, when appropriate, in making such determinations. 
</P>
<HD2>G. Effective Date and Implementation 
</HD2>
<P>This Directive is effective immediately. Forward two copies of implementing documents to the Inspector General, Department of Defense, within 120 days. 
</P>
<FP>Donald J. Atwood, 
</FP>
<P><I>Deputy Secretary of Defense.</I> 
</P>
<HD3>Enclosures—3 
</HD3>
<P>1. Civil Contractual and Administrative Actions That Can Be Taken in Response to Evidence of Procurement Fraud 
</P>
<P>2. Sources of Information Relating to Government Contractors 
</P>
<P>3. Actions to be Taken in Product Substitution Investigations
</P>
<HD3><B>Civil, Contractual, and Administrative Actions That Can Be Taken in Response to Evidence of Procurement Fraud</B>
</HD3>
<HD2>A. Civil 
</HD2>
<HD3>1. <I>Statutory</I>
</HD3>
<P>a. False Claims Act (31 USC 3729 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>b. Anti-Kickback Act (41 USC 51 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>c. Voiding Contracts (18 USC 218).
</P>
<P>d. Truth in Negotiations Act (10 USC 2306(f)).
</P>
<P>e. Fraudulent Claims-Contract Disputes Act (41 USC 604) 
</P>
<HD3>2. <I>Nonstatutory</I>
</HD3>
<P>a. Breach of contract.
</P>
<P>b. Breach of warranty.
</P>
<P>c. Money paid under mistake of fact.
</P>
<P>d. Unjust enrichment.
</P>
<P>e. Fraud and/or Deceit.
</P>
<P>f. Conversion.
</P>
<P>g. Recision and/or Cancellation.
</P>
<P>h. Reformation.
</P>
<P>i. Enforcement of performance bond/guarantee agreement.
</P>
<HD3>3. <I>Contractual</I>
</HD3>
<P>a. Termination of contract for default.
</P>
<P>b. Termination of contract for convenience of Government.
</P>
<P>c. Termination for default and exemplary damages under the gratuities clause.
</P>
<P>d. Recision of contract.
</P>
<P>e. Contract warranties.
</P>
<P>f. Withholding of payments to contractor.
</P>
<P>g. Offset of payments due to contractor from other contracts.
</P>
<P>h. Price reduction.
</P>
<P>i. Correction of defects (or cost of correction).
</P>
<P>j. Refusal to accept nonconforming goods.
</P>
<P>k. Revocation of acceptance.
</P>
<P>l. Denial of claims submitted by contractors.
</P>
<P>m. Disallowance of contract costs.
</P>
<P>n. Removal of the contractor from automated solicitation or payment system.
</P>
<HD3>4. <I>Administrative</I>
</HD3>
<P>a. Change in contracting forms and procedures.
</P>
<P>b. Removal or reassignment of Government personnel.
</P>
<P>c. Review of contract administration and payment controls.
</P>
<P>d. Revocation of warrant contracting officer.
</P>
<P>e. Suspension of contractor and contractor employees.
</P>
<P>f. Debarment of contractor and contractor employees.
</P>
<P>g. Revocation of facility security clearances.
</P>
<P>h. Nonaward of contract based upon a finding of contractor nonresponsibility.
</P>
<P>i. Voluntary refunds. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Sources of Information Relating to Government Contractors 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of information 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Possible source 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Location, dollar value, type, and number of current contracts with the Department of Defense</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. DD Form 350 Report.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>b. Defense Logistics Agency's (DLA) “Contract Administration Defense Logistics Agency's (DLA) Contract Administration Report (CAR Report) on contracts DLA administers. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Financial status of corporation, history of corporation, owners, and officers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Dunn and Bradstreet Reports.
<br/>b. Corporate filings with local secretaries of the State, or corporate recorders. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Securities and Exchange Commission (public corporations). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">d. Small Business Administration (SBA) (small businesses). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">e. General Accounting Office (bid protests, and contractors indebted to the Government). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">f. Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) or court litigation. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">g. List of Contractors Indebted to the United States (maintained, published and distributed by the U.S. Army Finance and Accounting Center, Indianapolis, Indiana 46249). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Security clearance background information on facility and officers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Defense Investigative Service. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Performance history of contractor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Local contracting officers. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Defense Contract Administration Service preaward surveys. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. SBA Certificate of Competency records. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Name, location, offense alleged, and previous investigative efforts involving DLA-awarded or DLA-administered contracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DLA Automated Criminal Case Management System. (Available through field offices of the DLA Counsel's office.) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Bid protests, litigation, and bankruptcy involving DLA-awarded or DLA-administered contracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Field offices of the DLA Counsel's office.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> A determination as to the contract history of any DoD contractor with contracts in excess of $25,000 annually can be made through a review of the “Individual Procurement Action Report” (DD Form 350) system, as prescribed by Subpart 4.6 of the DoD FAR Supplement, DoD Instruction 4105.61, and DoD 4105.61-M (references (c), (d), and (e)).</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Actions to be Taken in Product Substitution Investigations 
</HD1>
<P>A. The centralized organization, in all cases involving allegations of product substitution in which a SERIOUS HAZARD to health, safety, or operational readiness is indicated shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Review the notice of the case immediately after receiving it from the Defense criminal investigative organization. Review the notice to determine any potential safety or readiness issues indicated by the suspected fraud. 
</P>
<P>2. Notify all appropriate safety, procurement, and program officials of the existence of the case. 
</P>
<P>3. Obtain a complete assessment from safety, procurement, and program officials of the adverse impact of the fraud on DoD programs and operations. 
</P>
<P>4. Ensure that the DoD Component provides the Defense criminal investigative organization with full testing support to completely identify the defective nature of the substituted products. Costs associated with the testing shall be assumed by the appropriate procurement program. 
</P>
<P>5. Prepare a comprehensive impact statement describing the adverse impact of the fraud on DoD programs for use in any criminal, civil, or contractual action related to the case. 
</P>
<P>B. In all cases involving allegations of product substitution that affect more than one DoD Component, that centralized organizations of the affected DoD Components shall identify a lead Agency. The lead centralized organization shall ensure that information on the fraud is provided to the centralized organization of all other affected DoD Components. The lead centralized organization shall ensure compliance with the requirements of section A., above. The lead centralized organization shall then be responsible for preparing a comprehensive “Victim Impact Statement” as required by paragraph E.1.g. of this Directive. 
</P>
<P>C. In all cases involving allegations of product substitution, the Defense Criminal Investigative Organization shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Immediately notify the appropriate centralized organization of the beginning of the case. 
</P>
<P>2. Continue to provide to the centralized organization any information developed during the course of the investigation that indicates substituted products have been, or might be, provided to the Department of Defense. 
</P>
<P>3. Ensure that any request for testing of substituted products is provided to the centralized organization.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 516—Department of Defense Directive 5505.5, Implementation of the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act
</HEAD>
<P>DOD Directive 5505.5 is contained in 32 CFR part 277.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 516—Glossary
</HEAD>
<HD2>Abbreviations
</HD2>
<FP-1>AAFES: Army and Air Force Exchange Service
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AMEDD: Army Medical Department
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AFARS: Army Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBCA: Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUSA: Assistant United States Attorney
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CFR: Code of Federal Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>COE: United States Army Corps of Engineers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DA: Department of the Army
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DFARS: Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOD: Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOJ: Department of Justice. In this regulation, reference to DOJ means either United States Attorneys' Offices or The (main) Department of Justice in Washington, DC
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DCIS: Defense Criminal Investigative Service 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>e.g.: An abbreviation for <I>exempli gratia,</I> meaning “for example” 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>et seq.:</I> An abbreviation for <I>et sequentes,</I> meaning “and the following”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR: Federal Acquisition Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAX: Facsimile Transmission
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FBI: Federal Bureau of Investigation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fed. R. Civ. P.: Federal Rules of Civil Procedure
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fed. R. Crim. P.: Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOIA: Freedom of Information Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>GAO: General Accounting Office
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HQDA: Headquarters, Department of the Army
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>i.e.</I>: An abbreviation for <I>id est,</I> meaning “that is”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IG: Inspector General
</FP-1>
<FP-1>JA: Judge Advocate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MACOM: Major Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MSPB: Merit Systems Protection Board
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NAF: Nonappropriated Fund
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OTJAG: Office of The Judge Advocate General
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSC: Office of Special Counsel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PFA: Procurement Fraud Advisor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PFCRA: Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PFD: Procurement Fraud Division
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PFI: Procurement Fraud or Irregularities
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RJA: Recovery Judge Advocate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SAUSA: Special Assistant U.S. Attorney
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SJA: Staff Judge Advocate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TDY: temporary Duty
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TJAG: The Judge Advocate General
</FP-1>
<FP-1>UCMJ: Uniform Code of Military Justice
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USACIDC: U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USALSA: U.S. Army Legal Services Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USARCS: U.S. Army Claims Service
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USATDS: U.S. Army Trial Defense Service
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USMA: United States Military Academy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U.S.C.: United States Code
</FP-1>
<HD2>Terms 
</HD2>
<HD3>Active Duty
</HD3>
<P>Full-time duty in the active military service of the United States. Includes: full-time training duty; annual training duty; active duty for training; attendance, while in the active military service, at a school designated as a Service School by law or by the Secretary of the military department concerned; and, attendance, while in the active military service, at advanced civil schooling and training with industry. It does not include full-time National Guard duty under Title 32, United States Code. 
</P>
<HD3>Army Activities
</HD3>
<P>Activities of or under the control of the Army, one of its instrumentalities, or the Army National Guard, including activities for which the Army has been designated the administrative agency, and those designated activities located in an area in which the Army has been assigned single service claims responsibility by DOD directive. 
</P>
<HD3>Army Property 
</HD3>
<P>Real or personal property of the United States or its instrumentalities and, if the United States is responsible therefore, real or personal property of a foreign government which is in the possession or control of the Army, one of its instrumentalities, or the Army National Guard, including property of an activity for which the Army has been designated the administrative agency, and property located in an area in which the Army has been assigned single service claims responsibility. 
</P>
<HD3>Centralized Organization 
</HD3>
<P>That organization of a DOD component responsible for coordinating and monitoring of criminal, civil, contractual, and administrative remedies relating to contract fraud. For DOD components other than the Army, the Centralized organizations are as follows: the Office of General Counsel, Department of the Air Force; the Office of the Inspector General, Department of the Navy; and the Office of General Counsel, Defense Logistics Agency. 
</P>
<HD3>Claim 
</HD3>
<P>The Government's right to recover money or property from any individual, partnership, association, corporation, governmental body, or other legal entity (foreign and domestic) except an instrumentality of the United States. A claim against several joint debtors or tortfeasors arising from a single transaction or incident will be considered one claim. 
</P>
<HD3>Claims Officer 
</HD3>
<P>A commissioned officer, warrant officer, or qualified civilian employee designated by the responsible commander and trained or experienced in the conduct of investigations and the processing of claims. 
</P>
<HD3>Corruption 
</HD3>
<P>Practices that include, but are not limited to, solicitation, offer, payment, or acceptance of bribes or gratuities; kickbacks; conflicts of interest; or unauthorized disclosure of official information related to procurement matters. 
</P>
<HD3>Counsel for Consultation 
</HD3>
<P>An attorney, provided by DA at no expense to the military member or civilian employee, who will provide legal advice to the witness concerning the authority of OSC, the nature of an OSC interview and their individual rights and obligations. The counsel may accompany the witness to the interview and advise the witness during the interview. No attorney-client relationship is established in this procedure. 
</P>
<HD3>Counsel for Representation 
</HD3>
<P>An attorney, provided by DA at no expense to the military member or civilian employee, who will act as the individual's lawyer in all contacts with the MSPB and the OSC during the pendancy of the OSC investigation and any subsequent OSC initiated action before the MSPB. An attorney-client relationship will be established between the individual and counsel for representation. 
</P>
<HD3>DA Personnel 
</HD3>
<P>DA personnel includes the following: 
</P>
<P>a. Military and civilian personnel of the Active Army and The U.S. Army Reserve. 
</P>
<P>b. Soldiers of the Army National Guard of the United States (Title 10, U.S.C.) and, when specified by statute or where a Federal interest is involved, soldiers in the Army National Guard (Title 32, U.S.C.). It also includes technicians under 32 U.S.C. 709(a)(d). 
</P>
<P>c. USMA cadets. 
</P>
<P>d. Nonappropriated fund employees. 
</P>
<P>e. Foreign nationals who perform services for DA overseas. 
</P>
<P>f. Other individuals hired by or for the Army.
</P>
<HD3>Debarment 
</HD3>
<P>Administrative action taken by a debarring authority to exclude a contractor from Government contracting and Government-approved subcontracting for a specified period. 
</P>
<HD3>Deciding Official (Chapter 7) 
</HD3>
<P>SJA, legal adviser, or Litigation Division attorney who makes the final determination concerning release of official information. 
</P>
<HD3>DOD Criminal Investigation Organizations 
</HD3>
<P>Refers to the USACIDC; the Naval Investigative Service; the U.S. Air Force Office of Special Investigations; and the Defense Criminal Investigative Service, Office of the Inspector General, DOD. 
</P>
<HD3>Fraud 
</HD3>
<P>Any intentional deception of DOD (including attempts and conspiracies to effect such deception) for the purpose of inducing DOD action or reliance on that deception. Such practices include, but are not limited to, the following: bid-rigging; making or submitting false statements; submission of false claims; use of false weights or measures; submission of false testing certificates; adulterating or substituting materials; or conspiring to use any of these devices. 
</P>
<HD3>Improper or Illegal Conduct 
</HD3>
<P>a. A violation of any law, rule, or regulation in connection with Government misconduct; or 
</P>
<P>b. Mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of authority, or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety. 
</P>
<HD3>Information Exempt From Release To The Public 
</HD3>
<P>Those categories of information which may be withheld from the public under one or more provisions of law. 
</P>
<HD3>Judge Advocate 
</HD3>
<P>An officer so designated (AR 27-1). 
</P>
<HD3>Legal Adviser 
</HD3>
<P>A civilian attorney who is the principal legal adviser to the commander or operating head of any Army command or agency. 
</P>
<HD3>Litigation 
</HD3>
<P>Legal action or process involving civil proceedings, <I>i.e.</I>, noncriminal. 
</P>
<HD3>Litigation in Which The United States Has an Interest
</HD3>
<P>a. A suit in which the United States or one of its agencies or instrumentalities has been, or probably will be, named as a party. 
</P>
<P>b. A suit against DA personnel and arises out of the individual's performance of official duties. 
</P>
<P>c. A suit concerning an Army contract, subcontract, or purchase order under the terms of which the United States may be required to reimburse the contractor for recoveries, fees, or costs of the litigation. 
</P>
<P>d. A suit involving administrative proceedings before Federal, state, municipal, or foreign tribunals or regulatory bodies that may have a financial impact upon the Army. 
</P>
<P>e. A suit affecting Army operations or which might require, limit, or interfere with official action. 
</P>
<P>f. A suit in which the United States has a financial interest in the plaintiff's recovery. 
</P>
<P>g. Foreign litigation in which the United States is bound by treaty or agreement to ensure attendance by military personnel or civilian employees. 
</P>
<HD3>Medical Care 
</HD3>
<P>Includes hospitalization, outpatient treatment, dental care, nursing service, drugs, and other adjuncts such as prostheses and medical appliances furnished by or at the expense of the United States. 
</P>
<HD3>Misdemeanor 
</HD3>
<P>An offense for which the maximum penalty does not exceed imprisonment for 1 year. Misdemeanors include those offenses categorized as petty offenses (18 USC § 3559). 
</P>
<HD3>Official Information 
</HD3>
<P>All information of any kind, however stored, that is in the custody and control of the Department of Defense, relates to information in the custody and control of the Department, or was acquired by DoD personnel as part of their official duties or because of their official status within the Department while such personnel were employed by or on behalf of the Department or on active duty with the United States Armed Forces. 
</P>
<HD3>Operating Forces
</HD3>
<P>Those forces whose primary missions are to participate in combat and the integral supporting elements thereof. Within DA, the operating forces consist of tactical units organized to conform to tables of organization and equipment (TOE).
</P>
<HD3>Personnel Action
</HD3>
<P>These include—
</P>
<P>a. Appointment.
</P>
<P>b. Promotion.
</P>
<P>c. Adverse action under 5 U.S.C. 7501 <I>et seq.</I> or other disciplinary or corrective action.
</P>
<P>d. Detail, transfer, or reassignment.
</P>
<P>e. Reinstatement.
</P>
<P>f. Restoration.
</P>
<P>g. Reemployment.
</P>
<P>h. Performance evaluation under 5 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Decision concerning pay, benefits, or awards, or concerning education or training if the education or training may reasonably be expected to lead to an appointment, promotion, performance evaluation, or other personnel action.
</P>
<P>j. Any other significant change in duties or responsibilities that is inconsistent with the employee's salary or grade level.
</P>
<HD3>Private Litigation
</HD3>
<P>Litigation other than that in which the United States has an interest.
</P>
<HD3>Process
</HD3>
<P>The legal document that compels a defendant in an action to appear in court; e.g., in a civil case a summons or subpoena, or in a criminal case, a warrant for arrest, subpoena or summons.
</P>
<HD3>Prohibited Personnel Practice
</HD3>
<P>Action taken, or the failure to take action, by a person who has authority to take, direct others to take, recommend, or approve any personnel action—
</P>
<P>a. That discriminates for or against any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicapping condition, marital status, or political affiliation, as prohibited by certain specified laws.
</P>
<P>b. To solicit or consider any recommendation or statement, oral or written, with respect to any individual who requests, or is under consideration for, any personnel action, unless the recommendation or statement is based on the personal knowledge or records of the person furnishing it, and consists of an evaluation of the work performance, ability, aptitude, or general qualifications of the individual, or an evaluation of the character, loyalty, or suitability of such individual.
</P>
<P>c. To coerce the political activity of any person (including the providing of any political contribution or service), or take any action against any employee or applicant for employment as a reprisal for the refusal of any person to engage in such political activity.
</P>
<P>d. To deceive or willfully obstruct any person with respect to such person's right to compete for employment.
</P>
<P>e. To influence any person to withdraw from competition for any position for the purpose of improving or injuring the prospects of any other person for employment.
</P>
<P>f. To grant any preference or advantage not authorized by law, rule, or regulation to any employee or applicant for employment (including defining the scope or manner of competition or the requirements for any position) for the purpose of improving or injuring the prospects of any particular person for employment.
</P>
<P>g. To appoint, employ, promote, advance, or advocate for appointment, employment, promotion, or advancement, in or to a civilian position any individual who is a relative (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 3110) of the employee, if the position is in the agency in which the employee is serving as a public official or over which the employee exercises jurisdiction or control as an official.
</P>
<P>h. To take or fail to take a personnel action with respect to any employee or applicant for employment as a reprisal for being a whistleblower, as defined below.
</P>
<P>i. To take or fail to take a personnel action against an employee or applicant for employment as a reprisal for the exercise of any appeal right granted by law, rule, or regulation.
</P>
<P>j. To discriminate for or against any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of conduct that does not adversely affect the performance of the employee or applicant or the performance of others.
</P>
<P>k. To take or fail to take any other personnel action if the taking of, or failure to take, such action violates any law, rule, or regulation implementing, or directly concerning, the merit system principles contained in 5 U.S.C. 2301.
</P>
<HD3>Prosecutive Authorities
</HD3>
<P>These include—
</P>
<P>a. A U.S. Attorney;
</P>
<P>b. A prosecuting attorney of a State or other political subdivision when the U.S. Attorney has declined to exercise jurisdiction over a particular case or class of cases; and
</P>
<P>c. An SJA of a general court-martial convening authority considering taking action against a person subject to the UCMJ.
</P>
<HD3>Recovery JA
</HD3>
<P>A JA or legal adviser responsible for assertion and collection of claims in favor of the United States for property claims and medical expenses.
</P>
<HD3>Significant Case of Fraud and Corruption
</HD3>
<P>A procurement fraud case involving an alleged loss of $100,000 or more; all corruption cases related to procurement that involve bribery, gratuities, or conflicts of interest; any defective products or product substitution in which a serious hazard to health, safety or operational readiness is indicated, regardless of loss value; and, any procurement fraud case that has received or is expected to receive significant media coverage.
</P>
<HD3>Staff Judge Advocate
</HD3>
<P>An officer so designated (AR 27-1). The SJA of an installation, a command or agency reporting directly to HQDA, or of a major subordinate command of the U.S. Army Materiel Command, and the senior Army JA assigned to a joint or unified command.
</P>
<HD3>Subpoena
</HD3>
<P>A process to cause a witness to appear and give testimony, e.g., at a trial, hearing, or deposition.
</P>
<HD3>Suspension
</HD3>
<P>Administrative action taken by a suspending authority to temporarily exclude a contractor from Government contracting and Government-approved subcontracting.
</P>
<HD3>Suspension and Debarment Authorities
</HD3>
<P>Officials designated in DFARS, section 9.403, as the authorized representative of the Secretary concerned.
</P>
<HD3>Tortfeasor
</HD3>
<P>A wrongdoer; one who commits a tort.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.4.12.11.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 516—Figures
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains figures cited or quoted throughout the text of this part.
</P>
<HD2>Figure C-1. Sample Answer to Judicial Complaint, With Attached Certificate of Service
</HD2>
<P>In the United States District Court for the Southern District of Texas Corpus Christi Division, No. C-90-100
</P>
<FP-2>John Doe, Plaintiff v. Togo D. West, Jr., Secretary of the Army, Department of the Army, Defendant.
</FP-2>
<HD3>First Affirmative Defense
</HD3>
<P>The Complaint is barred by laches.
</P>
<P>Figure C-3. Sample Answer to Judicial Complaint, with attached Certificate of Service. This is intended to be used as a guide in preparing a draft Answer as part of a Litigation Report.
</P>
<HD3>Answer
</HD3>
<P>For its answer to the complaint, defendant admits, denies and alleges as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Admits.
</P>
<P>2. Denies.
</P>
<P>3. Denies.
</P>
<P>4. The allegations contained in paragraph 4 are conclusions of law to which no response is required; to the extent they may be deemed allegations of fact, they are denied.
</P>
<P>5. Denies the allegations contained in the first sentence of paragraph 5; admits the allegations contained in the second sentence of paragraph 5; denies the remainder of the allegations in paragraph 5.
</P>
<P>6. Denies the allegations in paragraph 6 for lack of knowledge or information sufficient to form a belief as to their truth.
</P>
<P>7. Denies each allegation in the complaint not specifically admitted or otherwise qualified.
</P>
<HD3>Prayer for Relief
</HD3>
<P>The remainder of plaintiff's Complaint contains his prayer for relief, to which no answer is required. Insofar as an answer is required, denies that plaintiff is entitled to any relief whatsoever.
</P>
<P>Defendant respectfully prays that the Court dismiss plaintiff's Complaint and award to defendant costs and such further relief as the Court deems proper.
</P>
<P>Respectfully submitted,
</P>
<FP-2>Ronald M. Ford,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>United States Attorney.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Roy A. Andersen,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Assistant United States Attorney, 606 N. Carancua, Corpus Christi, Texas 78476, (512) 884-3454.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Captain Christopher N. Jones,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Department of the Army, Office of the Judge, Advocate General, 901 N. Stuart St., Suite 400, Arlington, Virginia 22203-1837, (703) 696-1666.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD3>Certificate of Service
</HD3>
<P>I hereby certify that a true and correct copy of Defendant's Answer has been placed in the mail, postage prepaid, this ____ day of __________, 1991, addressed to plaintiff's counsel as follows: Mr. Eugene Henderson, 777 Fourth Street, Corpus Christi, TX 78888.
</P>
<FP-2>Roy A. Andersen,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Assistant United States Attorney.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD1>Sample DA Form 4
</HD1>
<HD2>Figure C-3. Unsworn Declaration Under Penalty of Perjury Executed Within the United States
</HD2>
<HD3>Declaration Under Penalty of Perjury
</HD3>
<P>I am Private Paul Jones, currently assigned to Company B, 4th Battalion, 325th Parachute Infantry Regiment, Fort Bragg, North Carolina. I have personal knowledge of the following matters.
</P>
<P>On the evening of 3 June 1970, I was present at the company party at Lake Popolopen when the accident occurred. I saw a bright, full moon that evening.
</P>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. (28 U.S.C. § 1746).
</P>
<P>Executed on: __________
</P>
<FP-2>Paul Jones,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Private, U.S. Army.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure D-1. Format for a Request for a Representation Using an Unsworn Declaration Under Penalty of Perjury Executed Within the United States
</HD2>
<HD3>Request for Representation
</HD3>
<P>I request that the Attorney General of the United States, or his agent, designate counsel to defend me in my official and individual capacities in the case of <I>John Doe</I> v. <I>Private Paul Jones,</I> now pending in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of North Carolina. I have read the complaint filed in this case and I declare that all my actions were performed in my official capacity, within the scope of my official duties, and in a good faith belief that my actions conformed to the law. I am not aware of any pending related criminal investigation.
</P>
<P>I understand the following: if my request for representation is approved, I will be represented by a U.S. Department of Justice attorney; that the United States is not required to pay any final adverse money judgment rendered against me personally, although I can request indemnification; that I am entitled to retain private counsel at my own expense; and, that the Army expresses no opinion whether I should or should not retain private counsel.
</P>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. (28 U.S.C. § 1746).
</P>
<P>Executed on: __________
</P>
<FP-2>Paul Jones,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Private, U.S. Army.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure D-2. Format for Scope of Employment Statement Using an Unsworn Declaration Under Penalty of Perjury Executed Outside the United States
</HD2>
<HD3>Declaration
</HD3>
<P>I am currently the Commander of HHC, 6th Armored Division, Bad Vilbel, Germany. I have read the allegations concerning Private Paul Jones in the complaint of <I>John Doe</I> v. <I>Private Paul Jones,</I> now pending in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of North Carolina.
</P>
<P>At all times relevant to the complaint, I was Private Jones' company commander. His actions relevant to this case were performed within the scope of his official duties as Assistant Charge of Quarters, Company B, 4th Battalion, 325th Parachute Infantry Regiment, Fort Bragg, North Carolina.
</P>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. (28 U.S.C. § 1746).
</P>
<P>Executed on: __________
</P>
<FP-2>John Smith,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Captain, Infantry.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure D-3. Format for Contractor Request for Representantion
</HD2>
<HD3>Request for Representation
</HD3>
<P>I am the President of the XYZ Corporation. I request the Attorney General of the United States designate counsel to defend me and my company in <I>Doe</I> v. <I>XYZ, Inc.,</I> now pending in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of North Carolina.
</P>
<P>I understand that the assumption by the Attorney General of the defense of this case does not alter or increase the obligations of the United States under United States Contract No. WP-70-660415.
</P>
<P>I further agree that such representation will not be construed as waiver or estoppel to assert any rights which any interested party may have under said contract.
</P>
<P>Executed on: __________
</P>
<FP-2>D.D. Tango,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>President, XYZ, Inc.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure G-1. Sample “Touhy” Compliance Letter
</HD2>
<HD3>Department of the Army, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, Fort Smith, North Dakota 84165, 15 April 1993
</HD3>
<FP-2>Mr. T. Hudson Taylor,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Attorney At Law, 105 Hay Street, Whynot, ND 84167</I>
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Mr. Taylor: We have learned that you subpoenaed Captain Roberta Selby to testify at a deposition in the case <I>Kramer</I> v. <I>Kramer,</I> currently filed in state court, and that you directed her to bring her legal assistance file concerning her client, SSG Kramer.
</P>
<P>Under 32 CFR §§ 97.6(c), 516.35, and 516.40, the Army must authorize the appearance of its personnel or the production of official documents in private litigation. In this case, the Army cannot authorize Captain Selby to appear or produce the requested file absent the following:
</P>
<P>You must request in writing her appearance and the production of the file in accordance with Department of Defense directives, 32 CFR § 97.6(c), and Army regulations, 32 CFR §§ 516.34-516.40. The request must include the nature of the proceeding, 32 CFR § 516.34(b), and the nature and relevance of the official information sought. <I>Id.</I> § 516.35(d). We cannot act on your request until we receive the required information. <I>See, for example, United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951); <I>Boron Oil Co.</I> v. <I>Downie,</I> 873 F.2d 67 (4th Cir. 1989); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Bizzard,</I> 674 F.2d 1382 (11th Cir. 1982); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Marino,</I> 658 F.2d 1120 (6th Cir. 1981); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Allen,</I> 554 F.2d 398 (10th Cir. 1977).
</P>
<P>To overcome Federal statutory restrictions on the disclosure of the requested file imposed by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. § 552a, you must provide either a written release authorization signed by the individual to whom the file pertains (that is, SSG Kramer) or a court ordered release signed by a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction. A subpoena signed by a clerk of court, notary, or other official is insufficient. <I>See, for example, Doe</I> v. <I>DiGenova,</I> 779 F.2d 74 (DC Cir. 1985).
</P>
<P>In this case, because of the attorney-client relationship between Captain Selby and SSG Kramer, you must produce a written waiver of the attorney-client privilege from SSG Kramer. Because the privilege may protect both documents and testimony, Captain Selby may not divulge such information without SSG Kramer's consent. <I>See, for example,</I> Rule of Professional Conduct for Army Lawyers 1.6(a).
</P>
<P>In addition to the above requirements, Captain Selby's supervisor must approve her absence from duty. <I>See</I> 32 CFR § 516.43. In this regard, we suggest you take the deposition at Fort Smith. In any event, however, you or your client must pay all travel expenses, as this is purely private litigation and witness' appearance must be at no expense to the United States. <I>See id.</I> § 516.48(c).
</P>
<P>Finally, if Captain Selby does appear as a witness, she may only give factual testimony. She may not testify as an opinion or expert witness. This limitation is based on Department of Defense and Army policy that generally prohibits Government employees from appearing as expert witnesses in private litigation. <I>See id.</I> §§ 97.6(e), 516.42.
</P>
<P>Our sole concern in this matter is to protect the interests of the United States Army; the Army will not block access to witnesses or documents to which you are lawfully entitled. So that the Army can adequately protect its interests in this matter, I request that you respond to this letter by 27 April 1993. If you have any questions, please call CPT Taylor at 919-882-4500.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<FP-2>Robert V. Jackansi,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Major, JA, Chief, Administrative Law.</I>
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure G-2. Sample Fact Witness Approval Letter 
</HD2>
<HD3>Department of the Army, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, Fort Smith, North Dakota 84165, 15 April 1993 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Mr. T. Hudson Taylor, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Attorney At Law, l05 Hay Street, Whynot, ND 84167</I> 
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Mr. Taylor: This letter responds to your request to interview and depose Captain Buzz Sawyer as a witness in <I>Morgan</I> v. <I>Jones.</I> Subject to the following conditions, your request is approved. 
</P>
<P>This grant of authority is limited to factual testimony only. Captain Sawyer may not testify as an expert witness. This limitation is based on Army policy prohibiting Government employees from appearing as expert witnesses in private litigation. <I>See</I> 32 CFR § 516.42. Captain Sawyer may not provide official information that is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>The decision whether to testify in private litigation is within the discretion of the prospective witness. This authorization is also subject to the approval of the witness' supervisors to be absent during the period involved. Finally, because this is private litigation, the witness' participation must be at no expense to the United States. <I>See</I> 32 CFR § 516.48. 
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please call CPT Taylor at 919-882-4500. 
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-2>Robert V. Jackansi, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Major, JA, Chief, Administrative Law</I> 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure G-3. Sample Expert Witness Denial Letter 
</HD2>
<HD3>Department of the Army, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, Fort Smith, North Dakota 84165, 15 April 1993 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Mr. T. Hudson Taylor, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Attorney At Law, l05 Hay Street, Whynot, ND 84167</I> 
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Mr. Taylor: This responds to your request for Mr. Charles Montrose to appear as an expert witness in private litigation: <I>Smithers</I> v. <I>ABC Video.</I> For the following reasons, the request is denied. 
</P>
<P>Army Regulation 27-40 forbids Army personnel from providing expert testimony in private litigation, with or without compensation, except under the most extraordinary circumstances. See 32 CFR §§ 97.6(e), 516.42. Several reasons support the exercise of strict control over such witness appearances. 
</P>
<P>The Army policy is one of strict impartiality in litigation in which the Army is not a named party, a real party in interest, or in which the Army does not have a significant interest. When a witness with an official connection with the Army testifies, a natural tendency exists to assume that the testimony represents the official view of the Army, despite express disclaimers to the contrary. 
</P>
<P>The Army is also interested in preventing the unnecessary loss of the services of its personnel in connection with matters unrelated to their official responsibilities. If Army personnel testify as expert witnesses in private litigation, their official duties are invariably disrupted, often at the expense of the Army's mission and the Federal taxpayer. 
</P>
<P>Finally, the Army is concerned about the potential for conflict of interest inherent in the unrestricted appearance of its personnel as expert witnesses on behalf of parties other than the United States. Even the appearance of such conflicts of interest seriously undermines the public trust and confidence in the integrity of our Government. 
</P>
<P>This case does not present the extraordinary circumstances necessary to justify the requested witness' expert testimony. You have demonstrated no exceptional need or unique circumstances that would warrant (his or her) appearance. The expert testimony desired can be secured from non-Army sources. Consequently, we are unable to grant you an exception to the Army's policy. 
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please call me or CPT Taylor at 919-882-4500. 
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-2>Robert V. Jackansi, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Major, JA, Chief, Administrative Law.</I> 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure G-4. Sample of Doctor Approval Letter 
</HD2>
<HD3>Department of the Army, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, Fort Smith, North Dakota 84165, 15 April 1993 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Mr. T. Hudson Taylor, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Attorney At Law, 105 Hay Street, Whynot, ND 84167</I> 
</FP-2>
<P>Dear Mr. Taylor: This responds to your request to depose Dr. (MAJ) J. McDonald, Fort Smith Medical Treatment Facility. Pursuant to 32 CFR §§ 516.33-516.49, you may depose him subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>He may testify as to his treatment of his patient, Sergeant Rock, as to related laboratory tests he may have conducted, or other actions he took in the regular course of his duties. 
</P>
<P>He must limit his testimony to factual matters such as his observations of the patient or other operative facts, the treatment prescribed or corrective action taken, course of recovery or steps required for treatment of injuries suffered, or contemplated future treatment. 
</P>
<P>His testimony may not extend to hypothetical questions or to a prognosis. He may not testify as an “expert.” This limitation is based on Department of Defense and Army policy prohibiting present or former military personnel and Army civilian employees from providing opinion or expert testimony concerning official information, subjects, or activities in private litigation. <I>See</I> 32 CFR §§ 97.6(e), 516.42. 
</P>
<P>The witnesses may not provide official information that is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure. To protect the Army's interests, CPT Taylor or another Army attorney will be present during the depositions. 
</P>
<P>To overcome restrictions imposed by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. § 552a, Dr. McDonald may not discuss matters derived from the patient's medical records absent the patient's written consent or a court order signed by a judge. A subpoena issued by someone other than a judge or magistrate is insufficient. <I>See Doe</I> v. <I>DiGenova, 779 F.2d 74 (D.C. Cir. 1985); Stiles</I> v. <I>Atlanta Gas Light Co.,</I> 453 F. Supp. 798 (N.D. Ga. 1978). 
</P>
<P>The decision whether to testify in private litigation is within the discretion of the witness, subject to the approval of his supervisors to be absent during the period involved. 
</P>
<P>Finally, because this is private litigation, the witnesses' participation must be at no expense to the United States. <I>See</I> 32 CFR § 516.48. 
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please call me or CPT Taylor at 919-882-4500. 
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-2>Robert V. Jackansi, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Major, JA, Chief, Administrative Law.</I> 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Figure H-1. Procurement Fraud Indicators 
</HD2>
<HD3>Procurement Fraud Indicators 
</HD3>
<P>1. During the identification of the government and services. 
</P>
<P>a. Need determinations for items currently scheduled for disposal or reprocurement, or which have predetermined reorder levels.
</P>
<P>b. Excessive purchase of “expendables” such as drugs or auto parts.
</P>
<P>c. Inadequate or vague need assessment.
</P>
<P>d. Frequent changes in the need assessment or determination. 
</P>
<P>e. Mandatory stock levels and inventory requirements appear excessive.
</P>
<P>f. Items appear to be unnecessarily declared excess or sold as surplus, while same items are being reprocured.
</P>
<P>g. It appears that an item or service is being purchased more as a result of aggressive marketing efforts rather than in response to a valid requirement.
</P>
<P>h. Need determination appears to be unnecessarily tailored in ways that can only be met by certain contractors.
</P>
<P>i. Items and services are continually obtained from the same source due to an unwarranted lack of effort to develop second sources. 
</P>
<P>2. During the development of the statements of work and specifications. 
</P>
<P>a. Statements of work and specifications appear to be intentionally written to fit the products or capabilities of a single contractor. 
</P>
<P>b. Statements of work, specifications, or sole source justifications developed by or in consultation with a preferred contractor. 
</P>
<P>c. Information concerning requirements and pending contracts is released only to preferred contractors. 
</P>
<P>d. Allowing companies and industry personnel who participated in the preparation of bid packages to perform on subsequent contracts in either a prime or subcontractor capacity. 
</P>
<P>e. Release of information by firms or personnel participating in design or engineering to companies competing for prime contract. 
</P>
<P>f. Prequalification standards or specifications appear designed to exclude otherwise qualified contractors or their productions. 
</P>
<P>g. Requirements appear split up to allow for rotating bids, giving each contractor his or her “fair share.”
</P>
<P>h. Requirements appear split up to meet small purchase requirements (that is, $25,000) or to avoid higher levels of approval that would be otherwise required. 
</P>
<P>i. Bid specifications or statement of work appear inconsistent with the items described in the general requirements. 
</P>
<P>j. Specifications appear so vague that reasonable comparisons of estimate would be difficult. 
</P>
<P>k. Specifications appear inconsistent with previous procurements of similar items of services. 
</P>
<P>3. During the presolicitation phase. 
</P>
<P>a. Sole source justifications appear unnecessary or poorly supported. 
</P>
<P>b. Statements justifying sole source or negotiated procurements appear inadequate or incredible. 
</P>
<P>c. Solicitation documents appear to contain unnecessary requirements which tend to restrict competition. 
</P>
<P>d. Contractors or their representatives appear to have received advanced information related to the proposed procurement on a preferential basis. 
</P>
<P>4. During the solicitation phase. 
</P>
<P>a. Procurement appears to be processed so as to exclude or impede certain contractors. 
</P>
<P>b. The time for submission of bids appears to be unnecessarily limited so that only those with advance information have adequate time to prepare bids or proposals. 
</P>
<P>c. It appears that information concerning the procurement has been revealed only to certain contractors, without being revealed to all prospective competitors. 
</P>
<P>d. Bidders conferences are conducted in a way that apparently invites bid rigging, price fixing, or other improper collusion between contractors. 
</P>
<P>e. There is an apparent intentional failure to fairly publish notice of the solicitation. 
</P>
<P>f. Solicitation appears vague as to the details such as time, place and manner, of submitting acceptable bids. 
</P>
<P>g. There is evidence of improper communications or social contract between contractors and government personnel. 
</P>
<P>h. Controls over the number and destination of bid packages sent to interested bidders appear inadequate. 
</P>
<P>i. Indications that government personnel or their families may own stock or have some other financial interest in either a contractor or subcontractor. 
</P>
<P>j. Indications that government personnel are discussing possible employment for themselves or a family member with a contractor or subcontractor or indications that a proposal for future employment from a contractor or subcontractor to a government employee or his or her family members has not been firmly rejected. 
</P>
<P>k. Indications that any contractor has received special assistance in preparation of his or her bid or proposal. 
</P>
<P>l. It appears that a contract is given an expressed or implied reference to a specific subcontractor. 
</P>
<P>m. Failure to amend solicitation to reflect necessary changes or modifications. 
</P>
<P>5. During the submission of bids and proposals. 
</P>
<P>a. Improper acceptance of a late bid. 
</P>
<P>b. Documents, such as receipts, appear falsified to obtain acceptance of a late bid. 
</P>
<P>c. Improperly attempting to change a bid after other bidders prices are known. 
</P>
<P>d. Indications that mistakes have been deliberately planted in a bid to support correction after bid opening. 
</P>
<P>e. Withdrawal by a low bidder who may later become a subcontractor to a higher bidder who gets the contract. 
</P>
<P>f. Apparent collusion or bid rigging among the bidders.
</P>
<P>g. Bidders apparently revealing their prices to each other. 
</P>
<P>h. Required contractor certifications appear falsified. 
</P>
<P>i. Information concerning contractor's qualifications, finances, and capabilities appears falsified. 
</P>
<P>6. During the evaluation of bids and proposals. 
</P>
<P>a. Deliberately losing or discarding bids of certain contractors. 
</P>
<P>b. Improperly disqualifying the bids or proposals of certain contractors. 
</P>
<P>c. Accepting apparently nonresponsive bids from preferred contractors. 
</P>
<P>d. Unusual or unnecessary contacts between government personnel and contractors during solicitation, evaluation, and negotiation. 
</P>
<P>e. Any apparently unauthorized release of procurement information to a contractor or to non-government personnel. 
</P>
<P>f. Any apparent favoritism in the evaluation of the bid or proposal of a particular contractor. 
</P>
<P>g. Apparent bias in the evaluation criteria or in the attitude or actions of the members of the evaluation panel. 
</P>
<P>7. During contract formation and administration. 
</P>
<P>a. Defective pricing by the contractor usually associated with submitting false cost and pricing data under the Truth in Negotiation Act. 
</P>
<P>b. Cost/Labor mischarging. 
</P>
<P>c. Product substitution. 
</P>
<P>d. Progress payment fraud. For more details on these subjects see DA PAM 27-153, Contract Law, paragraph 23-5.
</P>
<HD2>Figure H-2. Guide for Preparing Remedies Plan 
</HD2>
<HD3>Guide for Preparing a Remedies Plan 
</HD3>
<HD3>(Date of Plan) 
</HD3>
<HD3>Section I (Administrative Data)
</HD3>
<FP-2>A. Subject of Allegation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B. Principal Investigative Agency.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C. Investigative Agency File Number.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D. Subject's Location.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E. Location Where Offense Took Place.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F. Responsible Action Commander.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G. Responsible MACOM.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H. Contract Administrative Data (If Applicable):
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>1. Contract Number.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2. Type of Contract.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3. Dollar Amount of Contract.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4. Period of Contract.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>I. Principal Case Agent (Name and Telephone Number).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>J. Civilian Prosecutor (If Applicable) (Name, Address, and Telephone Number).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K. Is Grand Jury Investigating This Matter? If So, Where is Grand Jury Located?
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L. Audit Agency Involved (If Applicable). Name and Telephone Number of Principal Auditor.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M. Suspense Date for Update of This Plan.
</FP-2>
<HD3>Section II (Summary of Allegations and Investigative Results to Date)
</HD3>
<P>(Provide sufficient detail for reviewers of the plan to evaluate the appropriateness of the planned remedies. If information is “close-hold” or if grand jury secrecy applies, so state.)
</P>
<HD3>Section III (Adverse Impact Statement)
</HD3>
<P>(Describe any adverse impact on the DA/DOD mission. Adverse impact is described in DOD Directive 7050.5, paragraph E.1.g. Identify impact as actual or potential. Describe the impact in terms of monetary loss, endangerment to personnel or property, mission readiness, etc. This information should be considered in formulating your remedies as described below and provided to prosecutors for their use in prosecution of the offenses.)
</P>
<HD3>Section IV (Remedies Taken and/or Being Pursued)
</HD3>
<P>A. Criminal Sanctions. (As a minimum, address the following: Are criminal sanctions appropriate? If so, which ones? If not, why not? Has the local U.S. Attorney or other civilian prosecutor been notified and briefed? What actions have been taken or are intended? If and when action is complete, describe action and final results of the action. Other pertinent comments should be included.)
</P>
<P>B. Civil Remedies. (As a minimum address the following: Which civil remedies are appropriate? Has the local U.S. Attorney or other civilian prosecutor been notified and briefed? How, when, where and by whom are the appropriate civil remedies implemented? If and when action is completed, describe action and final results. Other pertinent comments should be included.)
</P>
<P>C. Contractual/Administrative Remedies. (As a minimum, address the following: Are contractual and administrative remedies appropriate: If so, which ones? If not, Why? If contractual or administrative remedies are considered appropriate, describe how, when, and by whom the remedies are implemented. If and when action is completed, describe action and results of the action. Other pertinent comments should be included.)
</P>
<P>D. Restrictions on Remedies Action. (Comment as to why obvious remedies are not being pursued. For example, the U.S. Attorney requests suspension action held in abeyance pending criminal action.)
</P>
<HD3>Section V (Miscellaneous Comments/Information)
</HD3>
<HD3>Section VI (Remedies Plan Participants)
</HD3>
<FP>(Record the name, grade, organization, and telephone number of all Remedies Plan participants.)
</FP>
<HD3>Section VII (MACOM Coordination Comments)
</HD3>
<FP>(Record the name, grade, office symbol, and telephone number of all MACOM officials providing coordination comments; record the date when comments are submitted and append to the Remedies Plan the signed comments provided.)
</FP>
<HD3>MACOM Focal Point
</HD3>
<FP>(Record the name, grade, office symbol, and telephone number of the MACOM focal point.)
</FP>
<HD3>Section VIII (Coordination/Comments)
</HD3>
<FP>(Record the name, grade, organization, office symbol, and telephone number of all officials with whom you have coordinated the Remedies Plan or who have provided comments on your plan; append any comments provided to the Remedies Plan.)
</FP>
<HD2>Figure H-3. Guide for Testing Defective Items Under Criminal or Civil Investigation 
</HD2>
<HD3>Testing Defective Items Under Criminal or Civil Investigation 
</HD3>
<P>1. Under no circumstances is testing to proceed unless the command has committed sufficient funding to cover the entire cost of the projected testing. 
</P>
<P>2. No testing will be initiated unless there has been a written request for the testing to the appropriate Procurement Fraud Advisor from a criminal investigator or Assistant United States Attorney or Department of Justice Attorney (AUSA is used in these procedures to indicate either an AUSA or Department of Justice attorney). If they have not already done so, criminal investigators should be requested to coordinate their testing requests with the AUSA overseeing the investigation. 
</P>
<P>3. Barring extraordinary circumstances, only one test will be conducted to support the criminal and civil recovery efforts of a procurement fraud/irregularity matter. Early coordination with the Civil Division of Department of Justice or the local United States Attorneys Office is necessary to ensure that testing funds are not wasted. 
</P>
<P>4. The request for testing should include a clear, concise statement of the purpose of the testing to include a statement of the allegations made and the contact number(s) involved. <I>Any test plan which requires destructive testing must be approved by the AUSA.</I> 
</P>
<P>5. No testing will be initiated unless a test plan has been developed which states the following:
</P>
<FP-2>a. the contract number(s) involved 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>b. the National Stock Number (NSN) of the item to be tested 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>c. the purpose of the testing 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>d. the alleged defect or the contractual requirement violated 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>e. the CID report of investigation (ROI) number or the DCIS case number 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f. cost of the test (a cost proposal should be an attachment to the test plan) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>g. where the test will be conducted 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>h. how the test will be conducted 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i. the name and telephone number of the test team leader 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j. the names of all test team members 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k. the approximate dates of the testing 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>l. the date that completion of the test is required 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m. a clear statement of the desired product (that is test report, raw data, analysis of results, evaluation of test results) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n. the PRON to fund the testing 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>o. a retention plan.
</FP-2>
<P>6. The test plan shall be coordinated with the concurrence received in advance from the appropriate personnel in the Procurement Directorate, Product Assurance and Test Directorate, the Procurement Fraud Advisor, and the investigator/AUSA requesting the test. No testing will be initiated until the criminal investigator/AUSA who requested the testing has approved the test plan. 
</P>
<P>7. If the items tested are to be retained as evidence, the criminal investigator should arrange for retention of the evidence. While the Command will support evidence retention, this is primarily the responsibility of the criminal investigators. Agents should be advised that putting items in Code L or similar non-use status is insufficient to protect it from being released to the field. <I>A decision not to retain the tested items as evidence must have the approval of the AUSA.</I> 
</P>
<P>8. All items to be tested should be from a statistically valid random sample. The sample should conform with the inspection requirements of the contract or be in conformance with a random sample specifically developed for the instant test plan. It is recommended that a statistician be consulted to determine the feasibility of a random sample specifically created to support the test plan. 
</P>
<P>9. Results of testing should be available to Command and DA personnel for appropriate contractual and administrative remedies. Any request for testing results that indicates that dissemination of the testing results will be limited by Rule 6(e) of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure is to be forwarded through the MACOM or AMC Procurement Fraud Coordinator to DA Procurement Fraud Division prior to the initiation of any testing. 
</P>
<P>10. Resolution of problems associated with testing requests should be conducted at the local level. In AMC the authority to refuse a testing request resides with the Office of Command Counsel. Any disputes which cannot be resolved at the local level will be forwarded to the AMC or MACOM Procurement Fraud Coordinator for resolution. This includes disputes regarding funding or any time sensitive issues. 
</P>
<P>11. Second requests for testing of the same item due to a change in the investigative plan require coordination by the PFA with the investigator <I>and</I> AUSA overseeing the investigation to determine the deficiencies in the earlier test. Disputes which cannot be resolved between the AUSA, PFA, and investigator regarding testing are to be forwarded simultaneously to the MACOM Procurement Fraud Coordinator and PFD for resolution. The procedures established in paragraphs 5 and 6 apply for second requests for testing with the additional requirement that the Assistant United States Attorney must be requested to approve the test plan. 
</P>
<HD2>Figure I-1. Guide for Seeking Legal Advice and Representation Before Office of Special Counsel 
</HD2>
<HD3>Guide for Seeking Legal Advice and Representation Before Office of Special Counsel 
</HD3>
<HD3>1. Overview 
</HD3>
<P>a. DA employees or military members asked to provide information (testimonial or documentary) to OSC may obtain legal advice through the Labor Counselor from DA attorneys concerning their rights and obligations. This includes assistance at any interviews with OSC investigators. However, an attorney-client relationship will not be established unless the employee or military member—
</P>
<P>(1) Is suspected or accused by the OSC of committing a prohibited personnel practice or other illegal or improper act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been assigned counsel by the DA General Counsel.
</P>
<P>b. Any military member or employee who reasonably believes that he or she is suspected or has been accused by OSC of committing a prohibited personnel practice or other illegal or improper act may obtain legal representation from DA. The counsel assigned will be from another DOD component whenever a DA attorney is likely to face a conflict between the attorney's ethical obligation to the client and DA, or when the suspected or accused individual has requested representation from another DOD component. Outside legal counsel may be retained by DA on behalf of the member or employee under unusual circumstances and only with the personal approval of the DOD General Counsel.
</P>
<P>c. The DA General Counsel will determine whether a conflict is likely to occur if a DA attorney is assigned to represent a military member or civilian. If the DA General Counsel determines a conflict may occur, or if the suspected or accused employee has requested representation from another DOD component, the DA General Counsel will seek the assistance of another General Counsel in obtaining representation outside DA.
</P>
<HD3>2. Requests for Representation
</HD3>
<P>a. To obtain legal representation, military members or civilian employees must—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a written request for legal representation through the Labor and Employment Law Office, Office of the Judge Advocate General, Department of the Army, to DA General Counsel, explaining the circumstances that justify legal representation. Copies of all process and pleadings served should accompany the request.
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate whether private counsel, at personal expense, has been retained.
</P>
<P>(3) Obtain written certification from their supervisor that—
</P>
<P>(a) They were acting within the scope of official duties; and 
</P>
<P>(b) DA has not initiated any adverse or disciplinary action against them for the conduct being investigated by the OSC.
</P>
<P>b. Requests for DA legal representation must be approved by the DA General Counsel.
</P>
<P>c. The conditions of legal representation must be explained and accepted in writing by the member or employee.
</P>
<HD3>3. Limitations on Representation
</HD3>
<P>a. DA will not provide legal representation with respect to a DA initiated disciplinary action against a civilian employee for committing or participating in a prohibited personnel practice or for engaging in illegal or improper conduct. This prohibition applies regardless of whether the participation or conduct is also the basis for the disciplinary action proposed by the OSC.
</P>
<P>b. In certain situations, counsel provided by DA may be limited to representing the individual only with respect to some of the pending matters, if other specific matters of concern to the OSC or MSPB do not satisfy the requirements contained in this regulation.
</P>
<HD3>4. Attorney-Client Relationship
</HD3>
<P>a. An attorney-client relationship will be established and continued between the suspected or accused individual and assigned DA counsel.
</P>
<P>b. In representing a DA employee or military member, the DA attorney designated as counsel will act as a vigorous advocate of the individual's legal interests before the OSC or MSPB. The attorney's professional responsibility to DA will be satisfied by fulfilling this responsibility to the employee or military member. Legal representation may be terminated only with the approval of the DA General Counsel and normally only on the basis of information not available at the time the attorney was assigned.
</P>
<P>c. The attorney-client relationship may be terminated if the assigned DA counsel determines, with the approval of the DA General Counsel, that—
</P>
<P>(1) The military member or civilian employee was acting outside the scope of his or her official duties when engaging in the conduct that is the basis for the OSC investigation or charge; and
</P>
<P>(2) Termination is not in violation of the rules of professional conduct applicable to the assigned counsel.
</P>
<P>d. The DA attorney designated as counsel may request relief from the duties of representation or counseling without being required to furnish explanatory information that might compromise confidential communications between the client and the attorney. 
</P>
<HD3>5. Funding
</HD3>
<P>This regulation authorizes cognizant DA officials to approve requests from military members or civilian employees for travel, per diem, witness appearances, or other departmental support necessary to ensure effective legal representation by the designated counsel.
</P>
<HD3>6. Status
</HD3>
<P>A military member's or civilian employee's participation in OSC investigations, MSPB hearings, and other related proceedings will be considered official departmental business for time and attendance requirements and similar purposes.
</P>
<HD3>7. Advice to Witnesses
</HD3>
<P>The following advice to military members and civilian employees questioned during the course of an OSC investigation may be appropriate in response to these frequent inquiries:
</P>
<P>a. A witness may decline to provide a “yes” or “no” answer in favor of a more qualified answer when this is necessary to ensure accuracy in responding to an OSC interviewer's question.
</P>
<P>b. Requests for clarification of both questions and answers are appropriate to avoid misinterpretation.
</P>
<P>c. Means to ensure verifications of an interview by OSC investigators are appropriate, whether or not the military member or civilian employee is accompanied by counsel. Tape recorders may only be used for this purpose when—
</P>
<P>(1) The recorder is used in full view.
</P>
<P>(2) All attendees are informed.
</P>
<P>(3) The OSC investigator agrees to record the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>d. Any errors that appear in a written summary of an interview prepared by the investigator should be corrected before the member or employee signs the statement. The military member or civilian employee is not required to sign any written summary that is not completely accurate. A military member or civilian employee may receive a copy of the summary as a condition of signing.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="525" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 525—ENTRY AUTHORIZATION REGULATION FOR KWAJALEIN MISSILE RANGE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 U.S.C. 1681, 50 U.S.C. 797, 18 U.S.C. 1001, and E.O. 11021.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 34028, July 27, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 525.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This regulation prescribes policies and procedures governing entry of persons, ships, and aircraft into the Kwajalein Missile Range (KMR), Kwajalein Atoll, Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This regulation is applicable to all persons, ships and aircraft desiring entry into KMR. 
</P>
<P>(2) The entry authorizations issued under this authority are limited to KMR and do not apply to entry to any other areas of the Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the controls covered by this regulation movement within the Kwajalein Missile Range, the territorial sea thereof and airspace above, is subject to local control by the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, and as installation commander. 
</P>
<P>(4) This regulation is not applicable to entry authorized by the President of the United States pursuant to the United Nations (U.N.) Charter and to Article 13 of the Trusteeship Agreement for the Former Japanese Mandated Islands. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Explanation of terms</I>—(1) <I>Department of Defense.</I> A department of the executive branch of the U.S. Government which includes the Departments of the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Entry Authorization.</I> Authorization by designated authority for a person, a ship, or an aircraft to enter Kwajalein Missile Range, the surrounding territorial sea, and the airspace above. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National Range Commander.</I> The Commander, Ballistic Missile Defense Systems Command, is the National Range Commander.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Address: National Range Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, Ballistic Missile Defense Systems Command, ATTN: BDMSC-R, P.O. Box 1500, Huntsville, Alabama 35807. 
</P>
<P>Electrical Address: CDRBMDSCOM HUNTSVILLE AL//BMDSC-R//.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Commander. KMR.</I> The Commander of the Kwajalein Missile Range is located at Kwajalein Island, Republic of the Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Address: Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, P.O. Box 26, APO San Francisco 96555. 
</P>
<P>Electrical Address: CDRKMR MI //BMDSC-RK//</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Excluded person.</I> A person who has been notified by the National Range Commander or the Commander, KMR, that authority for said person to enter Kwajalein Missile Range or to remain in Kwajalein Missile Range has been denied or revoked. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unauthorized person.</I> A person who does not hold a currently valid entry authorization for the Kwajalein Missile Range and does not possess entry rights under authority of paragraph 4-1.a. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Aliens.</I> Persons who are neither citizens of, nor nationals of, nor aliens to the United States of America. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Permanent resident aliens.</I> Persons who are not citizens of the United States of America but who have entered the United States under an immigrant quota. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Military installation.</I> A military (Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and/or Coast Guard) activity ashore, having a commanding officer, and located in an area having fixed boundaries, within which all persons are subject to military control and to the immediate authority of a commanding officer. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Public ship or aircraft.</I> A ship, boat, or aircraft owned by or belonging to a Government and not engaged in commercial activity. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Kwajalein Missile Range.</I> Kwajalein Missile Range is defined as all those defense sites in the Kwajalein Atoll, Marshall Islands, including airspace and adjacent territorial waters, to which the United States Government has exclusive rights and entry control by agreement with the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands and the Republic of the Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Territorial waters.</I> In accordance with title 19, chapter 3, section 101 of the Code of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands territorial waters mean, “that part of the sea comprehended within the envelope of all arcs of circles having a radius of three marine miles drawn from all points of the barrier reef, fringing reef, or other reef system of the Trust Territory, measured from the low water line, or, in the absence of such a reef system, the distance to be measured from the low water line of any island, islet, reef, or rocks within the jurisdiction of the Trust Territory.” 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Kwajalein Missile Range Airspace.</I> The air lying above the Kwajalein Atoll, including that above the territorial waters.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Trust Territory Republic of the Marshall Islands Registry.</I> Registration of a ship or aircraft in accordance with the laws of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands or the Republic of the Marshall Islands.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>U.S. Registry.</I> Registration of a ship or aircraft in accordance with the laws and regulations of the United States.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>U.S. Armed Forces.</I> Military personnel of the Department of Defense and the United States Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Principal.</I> A resident of Kwajalein Missile Range who is authorized to have his or her dependent(s) reside or visit with him (her) on Kwajalein Missile Range.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Dependent.</I> (i) Spouse of principal.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unmarried child of principal less than 21 years of age.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sponsored individual meeting the dependency criteria of section 152, Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 152), and approved by the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.2   Background and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Background.</I> (1) Certain areas, due to their strategic nature or for purposes of defense, have been subjected to restrictions regarding the free entry of persons, ships, and aircraft. Free entry into the areas listed and defined in this regulation, and military installations contiguous to or within the boundaries of defense site areas, is subject to control as provided for in the Executive Order 11021 of May 7, 1962 and Departments of Interior and Defense Agreement effective July 1, 1963, or other regulations. Such restrictions are imposed for defense purposes because of the unique strategic nature of the area and for the protection of the United States Government military bases, stations, facilities, and other installations, and the personnel, property, and equipment assigned to or located therein. Persons, ships, and aircraft are excluded from KMR unless and until they are granted permission to enter under applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) The control of entry into or movement within KMR by persons, ships, or aircraft will be exercised so as to protect fully the physical security of, and insure the full effectiveness of, bases, stations, facilities, other installations, and individuals within KMR. However, unnecessary interference with the free movement of persons, ships, and aircraft is to be avoided.
</P>
<P>(3) This regulation will be administered to provide the prompt processing of all applications and to insure uniformity of interpretation and application insofar as changing conditions permit.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases of doubt, the determination will be made in favor of the course of action which will best serve the interests of the United States and national defense as distinguished from the private interests of an individual or group.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> (1) The Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands is a strategic area administered by the United States under the provisions of the Trusteeship Agreement for the Former Japanese Mandated Islands, approved by the United Nations April 2, 1947. Congress, by 48 U.S.C. Sec. 1681, gave responsibility for this area to the President. By Executive Order 11021, the President delegated this authority to the Secretary of Interior. By agreement between the Secretary of Interior and Secretary of Defense, the Navy became responsible for all entry control July 1, 1963. With approval of the Secretary of Defense and Director of the Office of Territories, the authority to control entry into KMR was transferred to the Army in July of 1964.
</P>
<P>(2) The authority of the Department of the Army to control entry of persons, ships, and aircraft into Kwajalein Missile Range is exercised through the Commander, Ballistic Missile Defense Systems Command, who is the National Range Commander.
</P>
<P>(3) Penalties are provided by law for:
</P>
<P>(i) Violation of regulations imposed for the protection or security of military or naval aircraft, airports, air facilities, vessels, harbors, ports, piers, waterfront facilities, bases, forts, posts, laboratories, stations, vehicles, equipment, explosives, or other property or places subject to the jurisdiction of, administration of, or in the custody of the Department of Defense (sec. 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 797) and Department of Defense Directive 5200.8 of 29 July 1980.
</P>
<P>(ii) Knowingly and willfully making a false or misleading statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States (18 U.S.C. 1001).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.3   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Entry authorizations may be issued only after the National Range Commander, the Commander, KMR, or a duly authorized subordinate has determined that the presence of the person, ship, or aircraft will not, under existing or reasonably forseeable future conditions, endanger, place an undue burden upon, or otherwise jeopardize the efficiency, capability or effectiveness of any military installation located within Kwajalein Missile Range or areas contiguous thereto. Factors to be considered shall include, but not be limited to, the true purpose of the entry, the possible burdens or threats to the defense facilities which the presence of the ship, aircraft, or the individual or individuals involved impose or might reasonably be expected to impose on those islands in the Kwajalein Atoll under U.S. Army jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) Request for entry authorizations will be evaluated and adjudged as to whether the entry at the time and for the purpose stated will or will not be inimical to the purposes of U.S. national defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aliens and permanent resident aliens.</I> (1) Entry of aliens for employment or residence (except as specified in paragraph 3-2.b.) in an area entirely within the borders of Kwajalein Missile Range is not authorized except when such entry would serve the interests of the U.S. Government, and then only for specified periods and under prescribed conditions. Entry application shall include the name and nationality of the person desiring entry.
</P>
<P>(2) Alien and immigrant spouses and dependents of U.S. citizen sponsors or principals assigned to Kwajalein Missile Range may be granted entry authorization by the National Range Commander so long as U.S. sponsor or principal remains on duty or resides within Kwajalein Missile Range.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded persons.</I> Excluded persons, as defined in 1-3.e., are normally prohibited from entering Kwajalein Missile Range. Excluded persons may enter Kwajalein Missile Range only when a bona fide emergency exists and the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, grants permission for them to enter or transit the Kwajalein Missile Range. While they are within the jurisdiction of the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, they will be subject to such restrictions and regulations as he may impose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unauthorized persons.</I> Persons not authorized to enter Kwajalein will not normally be allowed to debark from authorized ships or aircraft at Kwajalein Island or other islands in the Kwajalein Atoll to which the U.S. Government has lease rights, except that continuing aircraft passengers may be allowed at the discretion of the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, to debark during aircraft ground time to remain within specified portions of the terminal building designated by the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range. In emergency situations, entry of unauthorized personnel may be granted by the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Entrance to other areas of the Trust Territory.</I> No person, unless a citizen, national, or permanent resident alien of the Marshall Islands, will be permitted to debark at Kwajalein Missile Range for the purpose of transiting to areas under the jurisdiction of the Republic of the Marshall Islands without possessing a permit issued by its Chief of Immigration.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Address: Chief of Immigration, Office of the Attorney General, Republic of the Marshall Islands, Majuro, MI 96960.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Unauthorized marine vessels and aircraft.</I> No unauthorized marine vessel or aircraft shall enter Kwajalein Missile Range unless a bona fide emergency exists and the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, has granted such permission. The Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, shall use all means at his disposal to prevent unauthorized vessels and aircraft from entering Kwajalein Missile Range. Unauthorized marine vessels and aircraft will be seized for prosecution along with the crew, passengers, and cargo.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Military areas.</I> Entries authorized under this instruction do not restrict the authority of the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, to impose and enforce proper regulations restricting movement into or within portions of Kwajalein Missile Range reserved for military operations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Waivers.</I> No one except the National Range Commander, or his duly authorized representative, has authority to waive the requirements of this regulation. Any waiver shall be in writing and signed.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Security clearances.</I> Organizations, including U.S. Government contractors, responsible for the assignment of personnel to KMR on either a temporary or permanent basis will comply with security clearance requirements for the assignment. A copy of the security clearance notification will be forwarded to Cdr, BMDSCOM, ATTN: BMDSC-AU.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.4   Entry authorization (policy).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personnel.</I> (1) Persons in the following categories may enter Kwajalein Missile Range without obtaining specific entry authorization provided the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, is notified of impending entry 14 days prior to entry date: 
</P>
<P>(i) Personnel being assigned to Kwajalein Missile Range as permanent-party and traveling on official orders. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel being temporarily assigned to Kwajalein Missile Range and who are traveling on official orders. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Dependents of permanent-party personnel who are <I>accompanying</I> their sponsors and are traveling on official orders. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Crew members on ships and aircraft authorized to enter Kwajalein Missile Range. 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons in the following categories will submit request for entry authorization to the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, ATTN: BMDSC-RKE-S: 
</P>
<P>(i) Dependents of KMR-based permanent-party personnel for the purpose of <I>joining</I> their sponsors (already stationed at KMR) on either a permanent or temporary basis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Citizens, nationals and permanent resident aliens of the Republic of the Marshall Islands except those who deplaned for the purpose of transiting Kwajalein Defense Site. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Citizens of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands. 
</P>
<P>(iv) U.S. citizen employees and officials of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands. 
</P>
<P>(3) All other personnel, except news media representatives, will submit request for entry authorization to the National Range Commander, BMDSCOM, ATTN: BMDSC-R (electrical address: CDRBMDSCOM HUNTSVILLE AL //BMDSC-RA//). 
</P>
<P>(4) All requests and notifications will include the following data (as applicable): 
</P>
<P>(i) Full name(s). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Citizenship. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Organization. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Purpose of entry. 
</P>
<P>(v) Point of contact at Kwajalein Missile Range. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Inclusive dates of stay. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Return address. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Proof of security clearance (if access to classified information is required). 
</P>
<P>(5) News media representatives require authority from the National Range Commander to visit Kwajalein Missile Range (news media representatives wishing to transit Kwajalein Island to visit any island not within the Kwajalein Missile Range must obtain entry authorization from the Republic of the Marshall Islands and present same to the air carrier at the point of departure to Kwajalein Island). Requests should be addressed to the National Range Commander, BMDSCOM, ATTN: BMDSC-S (electrical address: CDRBMDSCOM HUNTSVILLE AL//BMDSC-S//) and contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Name. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Date and place of birth. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Citizenship. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Organization(s) represented. 
</P>
<P>(v) Objective(s) of visit. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Desired and alternative arrival and departure dates. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Address(es) and telephone number(s) for additional information and/or reply. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ship.</I> (1) Ships or other marine vessels in the following categories, except those which have been denied entry or have had a prior entry authorization revoked, may enter the Kwajalein Missile Range territorial waters upon request to and approval of the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range: 
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. private ships which are: 
</P>
<P>(A) Under charter to the Military Sealift Command, or 
</P>
<P>(B) Employed exclusively in support of and in connection with a Department of Defense construction, maintenance, or repair contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands/RMI ships which have been approved by the resident representative on Kwajalein. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any ship in distress.
</P>
<P>(iv) U.S. public ships which are providing a service to the Kwajalein Atoll in accordance with their agency responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) All other ships or marine vessels must obtain an entry authorization from the National Range Commander before entering the Kwajalein Atoll territorial sea. The entry authorization application should reach the National Range Commander at least 14 days prior to the desired entry date and should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of ship.
</P>
<P>(ii) Place of registry and registry number.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name, nationality, and address of operator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Name, nationality, and address of owner.
</P>
<P>(v) Gross tonnage of ship.
</P>
<P>(vi) Nationality and numbers of officers and crew (include crew list when practicable).
</P>
<P>(vii) Number of passengers (include list when practicable).
</P>
<P>(viii) Last port of call prior to entry into area for which clearance is requested.
</P>
<P>(ix) Purpose of visit.
</P>
<P>(x) Proposed date of entry and estimated duration of stay.
</P>
<P>(xi) Whether ship is equipped with firearms or photographic equipment.
</P>
<P>(xii) Whether crew or passengers have in their possession firearms or cameras.
</P>
<P>(3) Entry authorizations may be granted for either single or multiple entries.
</P>
<P>(4) Captains of ships and/or marine vessels planning to enter Kwajalein Missile Range shall not knowingly permit excluded persons to board their vessels.
</P>
<P>(5) U.S. public ships which are authorized to enter defense areas by the controlling Defense Department agency may enter the Kwajalein Atoll territorial sea without the specific approval of either the National Range Commander or the Commander, KMR, provided that the Commander, KMR, is notified as far in advance of the impending entry as is consistent with the security requirements pertaining to such movement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aircraft.</I> (1) Aircraft in the following categories, except those aircraft which have been denied entry or have had a prior entry authorization revoked, may enter Kwajalein Atoll airspace upon request to and approval of the Commander, KMR:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. private aircraft which are under charter to the Military Airlift Command.
</P>
<P>(ii) Public aircraft of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands/RMI which have been approved by the resident representative on Kwajalein.
</P>
<P>(iii) Private aircraft registered with and approved by the Commander, KMR, which are based on Kwajalein Island.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any aircraft in distress.
</P>
<P>(v) Private aircraft operated by a common carrier which is providing scheduled air service to or through the Kwajalein Atoll under a current license issued by the Department of the Army.
</P>
<P>(vi) U.S. public aircraft which are providing a service to the Kwajalein Atoll in accordance with their agency responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) All aircraft, except those categorized in paragraph 4-3.a., must obtain an entry authorization from the National Range Commander before entering Kwajalein Atoll airspace. The entry authorization application should reach the National Range Commander at least 14 days prior to the desired entry date and should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Type and serial number of aircraft.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nationality and name of registered owner.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name and rank of senior pilot.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nationality and number of crew (include crew list when practicable).
</P>
<P>(v) Number of passengers (include list when practicable).
</P>
<P>(vi) Purpose of flight.
</P>
<P>(vii) Plan of flight route, including the point of origin of flight and its designation and estimated date and times of arrival and departure of airspace covered by this procedure.
</P>
<P>(viii) Radio call signs of aircraft and radio frequencies available.
</P>
<P>(ix) Whether aircraft is equipped with firearms or photographic equipment.
</P>
<P>(x) Whether crew or passengers have in their possession firearms or cameras.
</P>
<P>(3) Entry authorizations may be granted for either single or multiple entries.
</P>
<P>(4) Captains of aircraft planning to enter Kwajalein Missile Range airspace shall not knowingly permit excluded persons to board their aircraft.
</P>
<P>(5) U.S. public aircraft which are authorized to enter defense areas by the controlling Defense Department agency may enter the Kwajalein Atoll airspace with the specific approval of either the National Range Commander or the Commander, KMR, provided that the Commander, KMR, is notified as far in advance of the impending entry as is consistent with the security requirement pertaining to such movements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.1.5.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.5   Entry authorization (procedure).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing.</I> (1) Upon receipt of an application, the appropriate officer (either the National Range Commander, the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range or the designated representative) shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine that the entry of the applicant is, or is not, in accordance with the criteria set forth in chapter 3. After having made a determination, the reviewing authority shall either:
</P>
<P>(A) Issue an entry authorization as requested, or with modifications as circumstances require; or
</P>
<P>(B) Deny the request and advise the applicant of his/her right to appeal in accordance with the provisions of paragraph 5-2.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the reviewing authority feels that additional information is required before reaching a decision, the reviewing authority will request that information from the applicant and then proceed as in paragraph 5-1.a.(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) If, after having obtained all pertinent information, the reviewing authority cannot reach a decision, he/she will forward the application to the next higher headquarters. A statement containing the following information shall accompany the application:
</P>
<P>(A) A summary of the investigation conducted by the reviewing organization.
</P>
<P>(B) The reason the application is being forwarded.
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriate comments and/or recommendations.
</P>
<P>(2) All applicants will be kept fully informed of actions/decisions pertaining to his/her application. Normally a response will be forwarded to the applicant within ten working days after receipt of an application. When the National Range Commander responds to an application, he/she will send a copy of that response to the Commander, KMR. When the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, responds to an application, and the National Range Commander has an interest in the visit, the Commander, KMR, will concurrently send a copy of that response to the National Range Commander.
</P>
<P>(3) Entry authorizations shall state the purpose for which the entry is authorized and such other information and conditions as are pertinent to the particular authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revocations.</I> (1) Entry authorizations may be revoked by the National Range Commander or the Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range, for misconduct, or termination of status, or upon being advised of the discovery of information which would have been grounds for denial of the initial request. Such a revocation will be confirmed in writing to the holder of an entry authorization. When an entry authorization is revoked, a one-way permit will be normally issued as appropriate, to permit the ship, aircraft, or person to depart the area.
</P>
<P>(2) When Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range revokes an entry authorization, he shall forward a copy of such revocation with supporting documentation to the National Range Commander.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals.</I> (1) Appeals from entry denial or revocation by Commander, Kwajalein Missile Range will be filed with the National Range Commander. An appeal shall contain a complete statement of the purpose of the proposed entry and a statement or reasons why the entry should be authorized, or why revocation of entry authorization should not be enforced.
</P>
<P>(2) Final appeal letters will be forwarded promptly by the National Range Commander to the BMD Program Manager with an indorsement setting forth in detail the facts and circumstances surrounding the action taken.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Renewals.</I> Entry authorizations having been granted and utilized may be extended or renewed upon request at the expiration of the period for which the entry was originally authorized or extended provided the justification for remaining in the area or for making a reentry meets the criteria set forth in this procedure. It shall be the responsibility of every applicant to depart Kwajalein Missile Range upon expiration of the time prescribed in the entry authorization, unless such authorization has been extended or renewed. Failure to comply herewith will be considered as evidence or violation of this procedure and may result in denial of future authorizations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—CLAIMS AND ACCOUNTS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="534" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 534—MILITARY COURT FEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 3012, 70A Stat. 157; 10 U.S.C. 3012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>General Accounting Office, see 4 CFR chapter I.</P></CROSSREF>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>26 FR 9989, Oct. 25, 1961, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 534.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.6.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 534.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to court reporters and interpreters appointed under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 28 (10 U.S.C. 828), and witnesses both in Government employ and those not in Government employ when subpoenaed to appear before a court. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of term “court”.</I> The term “court” as used in this part will be construed to include court-martial, court of inquiry, military commission, or retiring board. “Military commission” includes any United States tribunal, by whatever name described, convened in the exercise of military government, martial law, or the laws of war. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 534.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.6.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 534.2   Allowable expenses for reporters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Reporters appointed under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 28, are entitled to payment for their services in such capacity at the rates specified in paragraphs (b) through (i) of this section, or at such lower rates as may be stated in the appointing instrument. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Per diem pay.</I> A reporter is entitled to a per diem payment of not to exceed $5 for each day or fraction thereof in attendance at court. Only one such payment is authorized for any 1 day even if the reporter attends two or more courts. For the purpose of this payment, the day ends at midnight and any fraction will be considered a whole day. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hourly pay.</I> A reporter is entitled to an hourly payment of not to exceed 50 cents for each hour, or fractional part equal to or greater than one-half hour, actually spent in court during the trial or hearing. A fractional part of an hour, less than one-half hour, will be disregarded, except that if the total time in attendance in one day or at one court in one day is less than 1 hour, such time will be considered as 1 hour. Time will be computed separately for each day if only one court is attended in such day. If more than one court is attended in 1 day, time in attendance at each court will be computed separately. The hourly pay is in addition to the per diem prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Piece-work pay</I>—(1) <I>Rates.</I> In addition to per diem and hourly pay prescribed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a reporter will be paid on a piece-work basis for transcribing notes and copy work based on the following rates: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transcribing notes and making that portion of the original record which is required to be typewritten—25 cents for each 100 words. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each carbon copy of the record when authorized by the convening authority—10 cents for each 100 words. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Copying papers material to the inquiry—15 cents for each 100 words. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Each carbon copy of the papers referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section when ordered by the court for its use—2 cents for each 100 words. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Counting number of words.</I> The certifying officer may determine the total number of words by counting the words on a sufficient number of pages to arrive at a fair average of words per page and multiplying such average by the total number of pages. Abbreviations “Q” and “A” for “Questions” and “Answer” and all dates such as “25th” and “1957” will each be counted as one word. Punctuation marks will not be counted as words. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mileage.</I> A reporter is entitled to 8 cents a mile for travel from his home or usual place of employment to the court and for his return journey, computed on the basis of the Rand McNally Standard Highway Mileage Guide. Mileage is not authorized for return trips each night unless the sessions of the court are held on nonconsecutive days. The fact that a reporter may serve two or more courts in the same day does not warrant a duplication of his mileage allowance. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Allowance in lieu of subsistence</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> When the official of the court having control in such matters keeps the reporter at his own expense away from his usual place of employment for 24 hours or more on public business referred to the court, a per diem allowance of not to exceed $4 in lieu of subsistence will be paid to the reporter for himself. A like allowance when ordered by the court will be paid to the reporter for each necessary assistant. The fact that a reporter returns each night to his home does not preclude the view that he is kept away from his usual place of employment for 24 hours. Service as reporter before two or more courts in the same day does not warrant duplication of the per diem allowance in lieu of subsistence. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computation.</I> The time for which the per diem allowance for expenses is to be paid will be computed in the manner prescribed in § 534.3(b)(3) for a civilian witness not in Government employ. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Allowance for constructive attendance.</I> A reporter duly employed but who after arrival at court performs no service because of adjournment is entitled to mileage; to a day's pay as prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section; and also to the per diem allowance prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section if kept away from his usual place of employment for 24 hours. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Detail of enlisted members.</I> Enlisted members may be detailed to serve as stenographic reporters for military courts, boards, and commissions, but will receive no extra pay for such service. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Persons receiving pay from Government.</I> Compensation for clerical duties performed for a court will not be paid to a person who is in the pay of the Government, except retired military members to the extent permitted under the dual compensation laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 534.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.6.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 534.3   Allowable expenses for witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Military members</I>—(1) <I>On active duty.</I> Members in the military service, on active duty, when required to appear as witnesses before courts will receive the appropriate travel and transportation allowances prescribed in chapter 4, Joint Travel Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retired members.</I> Retired military members, not on active duty, when called as witnesses (other than expert witnesses), are entitled for their services as such to the mileage and other fees prescribed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, for civilian witnesses not in Government employ. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civilians</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Persons not subject to military law when called as witnesses are entitled to the fees and mileage allowed to wintesses attending courts of the United States. 
</P>
<PARAUTH TYPE="N">(Article 47, Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. 847; 1 Comp. Gen. 347))
</PARAUTH>
<P>(ii) When the court is sitting in a foreign country, the oversea commander within whose command the court is convened will fix fees and allowances to be paid to witnesses, not in excess of maximum rates permitted to witnesses attending the courts of the United States or the courts of the foreign country, whichever rates may be higher. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In Government employ.</I> Any officer or employee of the United States or any agency thereof, summoned as a witness on behalf of the United States, shall be paid his necessary expenses incident to travel by common carrier, or, if travel is made by privately owned automobile, mileage at a rate not to exceed 10 cents per mile, together with a per diem allowance not to exceed the rate of $12 a day. 
</P>
<PARAUTH TYPE="N">(62 Stat. 950, 63 Stat. 103, 704, 69 Stat. 394; 28 U.S.C. 1823(a))
</PARAUTH>
<P>(3) <I>Not in Government employ</I>—(i) <I>Excluding Alaska and Canal Zone.</I> A witness attending in any court of the United States or before a United States commissioner or person taking his deposition pursuant to any order of the court of the United States, will receive $4 for each day's attendance and for the time necessarily occupied in going to and returning from the same, and 8 cents per mile for going from and returning to his place of residence. Witnesses who are not salaried employees of the Government and who are not in custody and who attend at point so far removed from their respective residences as to prohibit return thereto from day to day will be entitled to an additional allowance of $8 per day for expenses of subsistence including the time necessarily occupied in going to and returning from the place of attendance. In lieu of the mileage allowance provided for herein, witnesses who are required to travel between the Territories, possessions, or to and from the continental United States, will be entitled to the actual expenses of travel at the lowest first-class rate available at the time of reservation for passage, by means of transportation employed. When a witness is detained in prison for want of security for his appearance, he will be entitled, in addition to his subsistence, to a compensation of $1 a day. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>In Alaska and Canal Zone.</I> (<I>a</I>) In Alaska such witnesses are entitled to the witness fees and mileage prescribed for witnesses before the United States district court in the judicial division in which the trial or hearing is held. Fees vary in the different judicial divisions. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the Canal Zone such witnesses are entitled to the witness fees and mileage as are prescribed for witnesses before the United States court in the Canal Zone. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Responsible officers in Alaska and in the Panama Canal Zone will keep informed as to the fees payable in United States courts in those places. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mileage</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A civilian witness not in Government employ, when furnished transportation in kind by the Government, is entitled to 8 cents per mile less the cost of transportation furnished. A civilian witness residing within the jurisdiction of the court, who is subpoenaed and attends the trial in obedience to such subpoena, is entitled to mileage between his residence and the place of trial, regardless of whether both are in the same city. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computation.</I> Mileage at the rate of 8 cents per mile will be computed on the basis of the Rand McNally Standard Highway Mileage Guide regardless of the mode of transportation used. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subsistence per diem allowance</I>—(1) <I>When payable.</I> The subsistence per diem allowance is payable only when the place of trial is so far removed from the place of residence as to prohibit return of the witness thereto from day to day and such fact is properly certified. (See 6 Comp. Gen. 835.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computation.</I> In computing the subsistence per diem allowance prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the calendar day beginning at midnight is the unit, and the subsistence per diem allowance accrues from the time it is necessary for the witness to leave his home in order to arrive at the place of trial at the appointed time until the time he could arrive at his home by first available transportation after his discharge from attendance, any fractional part of a day under such transportation to be regarded as a day for per diem purposes. (See 5 Comp. Gen. 1028, as modified by 6 Comp. Gen. 480 and 6 id. 835.) 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attendance fees</I>—(1) <I>Attendance at more than one case on same day.</I> A person attending as a witness in more than one case on the same day under a general subpoena to appear and testify is entitled to only one per diem for each day's attendance. If separate subpoenas are issued in each case, the defendants being different, the witness is entitled to separate per diem for actual attendance in each case. The duplication of fees on account of attendance as witness in more than one case on the same day does not apply to the 8-cent mileage allowance and does not apply to the per diem on $8 in lieu of subsistence. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attendance before officer taking deposition.</I> A witness who is required to appear before an officer (civil or military) empowered to take depositions and there to give testimony under oath to be used before a court is entitled for such service and for the necessary travel incident thereto, including return travel, to the allowances prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the same as though his appearance were before a court. (See 8 Comp. Gen. 18.) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attendance before military courts or boards of limited jurisdiction.</I> A subpoena or other compulsory process addressed to a civilian by a military court or board which has not express statutory authority to issue such process, such as a board of officers convened to investigate and report upon the facts connected with the death of an enlisted member while on temporary duty, is void. Civilian witnesses who appear before such a board in response to such void process must be regarded as having done so voluntarily and are not entitled to witness fees, in the absence of a specific appropriation therefor. (See 8 Comp. Gen. 64.) 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computation.</I> The provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section are equally applicable for computation of the attendance fee. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expert</I>—(1) <I>Fees paid.</I> An expert witness employed in accordance with Manual for Courts-Martial, 1951, paragraph 116, may be paid compensation at the rate prescribed in advance by the official empowered to authorize his employment. (See 11 Comp. Gen. 504.) In the absence of such advance authorization no fees, other than ordinary witness fees, may be paid for the employment of an individual as an expert witness. (See paragraph 116, Manual for Courts-Martial (Executive Order 10214).) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) An expert while employed on behalf of the Government is an officer or employee of the United States within the laws affecting traveling and subsistence expenses of officers and employees of the Government generally. His traveling allowances are therefore subject to the limitations prescribed in the Travel Expense Act of 1949 (63 Stat. 166; 5 U.S.C. 835-842) and the Standardized Government Travel Regulations. (See 6 Comp. Gen. 712.) 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no authority for payment by the Government of fees to an expert, who was employed by an officer or employee of the Government to aid in the performance of his duties, other than an expert witness who actually appears as such (paragraph (b)(2) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(iii) A retired officer, not on active duty, employed as an expert witness is not entitled to any compensation in addition to his retired pay for such service. The traveling allowances of such a retired officer, so employed, are subject to the limitations prescribed in the Travel Expense Act of 1949 and the Standardized Government Travel Regulations. (See 6 Comp. Gen 712.) 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Witness not subpoenaed</I>—(1) <I>Compelled to testify.</I> A person who, although not subpoenaed, is present at trial or hearing before a court or other body authorized to compel the attendance of witnesses by compulsory process, and who is compelled or required to testify at such hearing, is entitled to fees and mileage allowances payable to witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluntarily testifies.</I> A person who was neither subpoenaed nor requested to appear as a witness, but who voluntarily requested and was granted permission to testify to certain matters considered pertinent to an inquiry being conducted, is not entitled to mileage and witness fees. (See 9 Comp. Gen. 255.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 534.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.6.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 534.4   Other fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of subpoena.</I> Fees or compensation for the service of a subpoena by a civilian are not prescribed by the laws of the United States. Fees and mileage allowed by the local law for similar services may be paid. If no specific fee or mileage is fixed by local law, reasonable allowances may be paid. (See Dig. Op. JAG, 1912-40, sec. 379.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Taking of depositions</I>—(1) <I>Fees of civil officers.</I> A civil officer before whom a deposition is taken may be paid the fees allowed by law of the place where the deposition is taken (or a reasonable fee if no specific fee is fixed by local laws), but no mileage or other allowance for travel of the civil officer to the witness is provided for or authorized by law. (See 2 Comp. Gen. 65.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Travel of witnesses.</I> If the witness and the civil officer before whom the deposition is to be taken do not reside at the same place, the witness should be required to perform the necessary travel, and he is entitled to mileage or other travel allowance therefor as prescribed in § 534.3(e)(2). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oaths in matters of military administration.</I> Where the service of one of the officers designated in the Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 136, is not available, fees may be paid to civil officers for administering oaths in matters relating to military administration, subject to the conditions indicated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interpreters.</I> An interpreter appointed under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 28 (10 U.S.C. 828), is entitled for his services as such to the allowances prescribed for witnesses (§ 534.3). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Furnishing copies of official records or documents.</I> The fees provided by the local laws may be paid to the proper officials for furnishing such certified copies of public records or documents and expenses in connection with the procurement of photostatic copies, photographs, and negatives as are required by the court. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attendance upon civil courts</I>—(1) <I>Cases involving performance of official duties.</I> A military member on active duty or a civilian in Government employ appearing on behalf of the United States in cases arising out of the performance of their official duties is entitled to transportation and per diem as prescribed in § 534.3(a)(1) and (b)(1). Payment may be made by Department of the Army finance and accounting officers and will be charged to Department of the Army appropriations available for travel expenses of military personnel and civilian employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cases involving other than performance of official duties.</I> A military member on active duty or a civilian in Government employ appearing on behalf of the United States in cases involving other than the performance of their official duties is entitled to transportation or transportation allowances and per diem as may be prescribed by The Attorney General. The subpoena or letter requesting attendance will specify the rates payable and will cite the appropriation chargeable. Payment may be made by a Department of the Army finance and accounting officer and reimbursement obtained from the Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cases in which civilians not in Government employ are called as witnesses.</I> Payments to civilians out of Government employ will not be made by Department of the Army finance and accounting officers. Such payments will be made by the Department of Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="536" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 536—CLAIMS AGAINST THE UNITED STATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2733; 10 U.S.C. 1089; 10 U.S.C. 1054; 28 U.S.C. 1291, 2401-2402, 2411-2412, 2671-2680; 10 U.S.C. 2737; 32 U.S.C. 715; 10 U.S.C. 2734a, 2734b; 10 U.S.C. 2734; 10 U.S.C. 4801, 4802, 4806; 46 U.S.C. app. 740; 39 U.S.C. 411; 10 U.S.C. 939; 10 U.S.C. 2736; 10 U.S.C. 2735; 10 U.S.C. 2731.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 69360, Nov. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—The Army Claims System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.1   Purpose of the Army Claims System.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth policies and procedures that govern the investigating, processing, and settling of claims against, and in favor of, the United States under the authority conferred by statutes, regulations, international and interagency agreements, and Department of Defense Directives (DODDs). It is intended to ensure that claims are investigated properly and adjudicated according to applicable law, and valid recoveries and affirmative claims are pursued against carriers, third-party insurers, and tortfeasors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.2   Claims authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Claims cognizable under the following list of statutes and authorities are processed and settled under DA Pam 27-162 and this part. All of these materials may be viewed on the USARCS Web site, <I>https://www.jagcnet.army.mil/85256F33005C2B92/(JAGCNETDocID)/HOME?OPENDOCUMENT.</I> Select the link “Claims Resources.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Tort claims.</I> (i) The Military Claims Act (MCA), 10 United States Code (U.S.C.) 2733 (see subpart C of this part). The “incident-to-service” provision, applicable to both military and civilian personnel of the Department of Defense, is contained in the MCA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Gonzales Act, 10 U.S.C. 1089. This act permits individual suits against health care providers for certain torts (see § 536.80).
</P>
<P>(iii) Certain suits arising out of legal malpractice, 10 U.S.C. 1054, discussed at § 536.81 and at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-62f.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA), 28 U.S.C. 1291, 1402, 2401-2402, 2411-2412, and 2671-2680 (see subpart D of this part). The Westfall Act, 28 U.S.C. 2679, an integral part of the FTCA, provides absolute immunity from individual suit for common law torts for employees of the United States acting within the scope of their employment.
</P>
<P>(A) The legislative history of the FTCA.
</P>
<P>(B) Regulations of the Attorney General implementing the Federal Tort Claims Act, 28 CFR part 14.
</P>
<P>(C) An appendix to 28 CFR part 14 sets forth certain delegations of settlement authority to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, the Postmaster General, the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Transportation, and the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(v) The Non-Scope Claims Act (NSCA), 10 U.S.C. 2737 (see subpart E of this part).
</P>
<P>(vi) The National Guard Claims Act (NGCA), 32 U.S.C. 715 (see subpart F of this part).
</P>
<P>(vii) Claims under International Agreements or the Foreign Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(A) International Agreements Claims Act (IACA), 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b.
</P>
<P>(B) Foreign Claims Act (FCA), 10 U.S.C. 2734 (see subpart J of this part).
</P>
<P>(viii) The Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act (AMCSA), 10 U.S.C. 4801, 4802 and 4806. Affirmative claims under the AMCSA are processed under 10 U.S.C. 4803 and 4804 (see § 537.16 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(ix) Admiralty Extension Act (AEA), 46 U.S.C. app. 740 (see subpart H of this part).
</P>
<P>(x) Claims against nonappropriated fund (NAF) activities and the risk management program (RIMP) (see subpart K of this part), processed under Army Regulation (AR) 215-1 and AR 608-10.
</P>
<P>(xi) Claims by the U.S. Postal Service for losses or shortages in postal accounts caused by unbonded Army personnel (39 U.S.C. 411 and Department of Defense (DOD) Manual 4525.6-M).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personnel claims (subpart I of this part and AR 27-20, chapter 11).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The Personnel Claims Act (PCA), 31 U.S.C. 3721 (see AR 27-20, chapter 11).
</P>
<P>(ii) Redress of injuries to personal property, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), Article 139, 10 U.S.C. 939 (see subpart I of this part).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affirmative claims (32 CFR part 537).</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal Claims Collection Act (FCCA), 31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA), 42 U.S.C. 2651-2653.
</P>
<P>(iii) Collection from third-party payers of reasonable costs of healthcare services, 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fund source authority for claims under Title 10 statutes.</I> 10 U.S.C. 2736, advance payments for certain property claims (see § 536.71).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fund source authority for tort claims paid by Financial Management Service (FMS).</I> 31 U.S.C. 1304, provides authority for judgments, awards and compromise settlements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional authorities under Title 10.</I> (1) 10 U.S.C. 2735, establishes that settlements (or “actions”) under the Title 10 claims processing statutes are final and conclusive.
</P>
<P>(2) 10 U.S.C. 2731, provides a definition of the word “settle.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Related remedies statutes.</I> The Army frequently receives claims or inquiries that are not cognizable under the statutory and other authorities administered by the U.S. Army under this publication and DA Pam 27-162. Every effort should be made to refer the claim or inquiry to the proper authority following the guidance in § 536.34 or § 536.36. (See also the corresponding paragraphs 2-15 and 2-17, respectively, in DA Pam 27-162). Some authorities for related remedies are used more frequently than others. Where an authority for a related remedy is frequently used, it is listed below and is posted on the USARCS Web site (for the address see § 536.2(a)).
</P>
<P>(1) Tucker Act, 28 U.S.C. 1346, provides exclusive jurisdiction in the Court of Federal Claims over causes of actions alleging property loss caused by a Fifth Amendment “taking.”
</P>
<P>(2) Maritime authority statutes, Public Vessels Act (PVA), 46 U.S.C. app. 781-790, Suits in Admiralty Act (SIAA), 46 U.S.C. app. 741-752, and the Rivers and Harbors Act, 33 U.S.C. 408 and 412.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA), two excerpts: 5 U.S.C. 8116 and 8140, providing guidance on personal injury and death claims by civilian employees arising within the scope of their employment (see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-15b) and information on certain claims by Reserve Officers Training Corps (ROTC) cadets, respectively, (see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-17d(2)).
</P>
<P>(4) Longshore and Harbor Workers Compensation Act (LHWCA), 33 U.S.C. 901-950.
</P>
<P>(5) Claims for consequential property damage by civilian employees may only be considered in the Court of Federal Claims pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 1491.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional materials.</I> There are some additional authoritative materials for the processing of claims, mostly of an administrative nature. For a complete listing of all of the supplementary materials relevant to claims processing under this publication and DA Pam 27-162 see appendix B of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conflict of authorities.</I> Where a conflict exists between a general provision of this publication and a specific provision found in one of this publication's subparts implementing a specific statute, the specific provision, as set forth in the statute, will control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.3   Command and organizational relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Secretary of the Army.</I> The Secretary of the Army (SA) heads the Army Claims System and acts on certain claims appeals directly or through a designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Judge Advocate General.</I> The SA has delegated authority to The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) to assign areas of responsibility and designate functional responsibility for claims purposes. TJAG has delegated authority to the Commander USARCS to carry out the responsibilities assigned in § 536.7 and as otherwise lawfully delegable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>U.S. Army Claims Service.</I> USARCS, a command and component of the Office of TJAG, is the agency through which the SA and TJAG discharge their responsibilities for the administrative settlement of claims worldwide (see AR 10-72). USARCS' mailing address is: U.S. Army Claims Service, 4411 Llewellyn Ave., Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755-5360, Commercial: (301) 677-7009.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Command claims services.</I> (1) Command claims services exercise general supervisory authority over claims matters arising within their assigned areas of operation. Command claims services will:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectively control and supervise the investigation of potentially compensable events (PCEs) occurring within the command's geographic area of responsibility, in other areas for which the command is assigned claims responsibility, and during the course of the command's operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide services for the processing and settlement of claims for and against the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commander USARCS, may delegate authority to establish a command claims service to the commander of a major overseas command or other commands that include areas outside the United States, its territories and possessions.
</P>
<P>(i) When a large deployment occurs, the Commander USARCS, may designate a command claims service for a limited time or purpose, such as for the duration of an operation and for the time necessary to accomplish the mission. The appropriate major Army command (MACOM) will assist the Commander USARCS, in obtaining resources and personnel for the mission.
</P>
<P>(ii) In coordination with the Commander USARCS, the MACOM will designate the area of responsibility for each new command claims service.
</P>
<P>(3) A command claims service may be a separate organization with a designated commander or chief. If it is part of the command's Office of the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA), the SJA will also be the chief of the command claims service, however, the SJA may designate a field grade officer as chief of the service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area claims offices.</I> The following may be designated as area claims offices (ACOs):
</P>
<P>(1) An office under the supervision of the senior judge advocate (JA) of each command or organization so designated by the Commander USARCS. The senior JA is the head of the ACO.
</P>
<P>(2) An office under supervision of the senior JA of each command in the area of responsibility of a command claims service so designated by the chief of that service after coordination with the Commander USARCS. The senior JA is the head of the ACO.
</P>
<P>(3) The office of counsel of each U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (COE) district within the United States and such other COE commands or agencies as designated by the Commander USARCS, with concurrence of the Chief Counsel, Office of the Chief of Engineers, for all claims generated within such districts, commands or agencies. The district counsel or the attorney in charge of the command's or agency's legal office is the head of the ACO.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Claims processing offices.</I> Claims processing offices (CPOs) are normally small legal offices or ACO subordinate elements, designated by the Commander USARCS, a command claims service or an ACO. These offices are established for the investigation of all actual and potential claims arising within their jurisdiction, on either an area, command or agency basis. There are four types of claims processing offices (see § 536.10):
</P>
<P>(1) Claims processing offices without approval authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Claims processing offices with approval authority.
</P>
<P>(3) Medical claims processing offices.
</P>
<P>(4) Special claims processing offices.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Limitations on delegation of authority under any subpart.</I> (1) The Commander USARCS, commanders or chiefs of command claims services, or the heads of ACOs or CPOs with approval authority may delegate, in writing, all or any portion of their monetary approval authority to subordinate JAs or claims attorneys in their services or offices.
</P>
<P>(2) The authority to act upon appeals or requests for reconsideration, to deny claims (including disapprovals based on substantial fraud), to grant waivers of maximum amounts allowable, or to make final offers will not be delegated except that the Commander USARCS may delegate this authority to USARCS Division Chiefs.
</P>
<P>(3) CPOs will provide copies of all delegations affecting them to the ACO and, if so directed, to command claims services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.4   Designation of claims attorneys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may designate.</I> The Commander USARCS, the senior JA of a command having a command claims service, the chief of a command claims service, the head of an ACO, or the Chief Counsel of a COE District, may designate a qualified attorney other than a JA as a claims attorney. The head of an ACO may designate a claims attorney to act as a CPO with approval authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> To qualify as a claims attorney, an individual must be a civilian employee of the Department of the Army (DA) or DOD, a member of the bar of a state, the District of Columbia, or a jurisdiction where U.S. federal law applies, serving in the grade of GS-11 or above, and performing primary duties as a legal adviser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.5   The Judge Advocate General.</HEAD>
<P>TJAG has worldwide Army Staff responsibility for administrative settlement of claims by and against the U.S. government, generated by employees of the U.S. Army and DOD components other than the Departments of the Navy and Air Force. Where the Army has single-service responsibility, TJAG has responsibility for the Army. See DODD 5515.9. Certain claims responsibilities of TJAG are exercised by The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG) as set forth in this part and directed by TJAG.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.6   The Army claims mission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Promptly investigate potential claims incidents with a view to determining the degree of the Army's exposure to liability, the damage potential, and when the third party is at fault, whether the Army should take action to collect for medical expenses, lost wages and property damage.
</P>
<P>(b) Efficiently and expeditiously dispose of claims against the U.S. by fairly settling meritorious claims at the lowest level within the claims system commensurate with monetary jurisdiction delegated, or by denying non-meritorious claims.
</P>
<P>(c) Develop a system that has a high level of proficiency, so that litigation and appeals can be avoided or kept to a minimum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.7   Responsibilities of the Commander USARCS.</HEAD>
<P>The Commander USARCS shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Supervise and inspect claims activities worldwide.
</P>
<P>(b) Formulate and implement claims policies and uniform standards for claims office operations.
</P>
<P>(c) Investigate, process and settle claims beyond field office monetary authority and consider appeals and requests for reconsideration on claims denied by the field offices.
</P>
<P>(d) Supervise the investigation, processing, and settlement of claims against, and in favor of, the United States under the statutes and regulations listed in § 536.2 and pursuant to other appropriate statutes, regulations, and authorizations.
</P>
<P>(e) Designate ACOs, CPOs, and claims attorneys within DA and DOD components other than the Departments of the Navy and Air Force, subject to concurrence of the commander concerned.
</P>
<P>(f) Designate continental United States (CONUS) geographic areas of claims responsibility.
</P>
<P>(g) Recommend action to be taken by the SA, TJAG or the U.S. Attorney General, as appropriate, on claims in excess of $25,000 or the threshold amount then current under the FTCA, on claims in excess of $100,000 or the threshold amount then current under the FCA, the MCA, the NGCA, AMCSA, FCCA and FMRCA and on other claims that have been appealed. Direct communication with Department of Justice (DOJ) and the SA's designee is authorized.
</P>
<P>(h) Operate the “receiving State office” for claims arising in the United States, its territories, commonwealths and possessions cognizable under Article VIII of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA), Partnership for Peace (PFP) SOFA, Article XVI of the Singapore SOFA, and other SOFAs which have reciprocal claims provisions as delegated by TJAG, as implemented by 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b (subpart G of this part).
</P>
<P>(i) Settle claims of the U.S. Postal Service for reimbursement under 39 U.S.C. 411 (see DOD Manual 4525.6-M).
</P>
<P>(j) Settle claims against carriers, warehouse firms, insurers, and other third parties for loss of, or damage to, personal property of DA or DOD soldiers or civilians incurred while the goods are in storage or in transit at government expense (AR 27-20, chapter 11).
</P>
<P>(k) Formulate and recommend legislation for Congressional enactment of new statutes and the amendment of existing statutes considered essential for the orderly and expeditious administrative settlement of noncontractual claims.
</P>
<P>(l) Perform post-settlement review of claims.
</P>
<P>(m) Prepare, justify, and defend estimates of budgetary requirements and administer the Army claims budget.
</P>
<P>(n) Maintain permanent records of claims for which TJAG is responsible.
</P>
<P>(o) Assist in developing disaster and maneuver claims plans designed to implement the responsibilities set forth in § 536.9(a)(12).
</P>
<P>(p) Develop and maintain plans for a disaster or civil disturbance in those geographic areas that are not under the jurisdiction of an area claims authority and in which the Army has single-service responsibility or in which the Army is likely to be the predominant Armed Force.
</P>
<P>(q) Take initial action, as appropriate, on claims arising in emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(r) Provide assistance as available or take appropriate action to ensure that command claims services and ACOs are carrying out their responsibilities as set forth in §§ 536.8 and 536.9, including claims assistance visits.
</P>
<P>(s) Serve as proponent for the database management systems for torts, personnel and affirmative claims and provide standard automated claims data management programs for worldwide use.
</P>
<P>(t) Ensure proper training of claims personnel.
</P>
<P>(u) Coordinate claims activities with the Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and other DOD agencies to ensure a consistent and efficient joint service claims program.
</P>
<P>(v) Investigate, process and settle, and supervise the field office investigation and processing of, medical malpractice claims arising in Army medical centers within the United States; provide medical claims judge advocates (MCJAs), medical claims attorneys, and medical claims investigators assigned to such medical centers with technical guidance and direction on such claims.
</P>
<P>(w) Coordinate support with the U.S. Army Medical Command (MEDCOM) on matters relating to medical malpractice claims.
</P>
<P>(x) Issue an accounting classification to all properly designated claims settlement and approval authorities.
</P>
<P>(y) Perform the investigation, processing, and settlement of claims arising in areas outside command claims service areas of operation.
</P>
<P>(z) Maintain continuous worldwide deployment and operational capability to furnish claims advice to any legal office or command throughout the world. When authorized by the chain of command or competent authority, issue such claims advice or services, including establishing a claims system within a foreign country, interpreting claims aspects of international agreements, and processing claims arising from Army involvement in civil disturbances, chemical accidents under the Chemical Energy Stockpile Program, other man-made or natural disasters, and other claims designated by competent authority.
</P>
<P>(aa) Upon receiving both the appropriate authority's directive or order and full fiscal authorization, disburse the funds necessary to administer civilian evacuation, relocation, and similar initial response efforts in response to a chemical disaster arising at an Army facility.
</P>
<P>(bb) Respond to all inquiries from the President, members of Congress, military officials, and the general public on claims within USARCS' responsibility.
</P>
<P>(cc) Serve as the proponent for this publication and DA Pam 27-162, both of which set forth guidance on personnel, tort, disaster and affirmative claims, as well as claims management and administration.
</P>
<P>(dd) Provide supervision for the Army's affirmative claims and carrier recovery programs, as well as other methods for recovering legal debts.
</P>
<P>(ee) Provide support for the overseas environmental claims program as designated by the DA.
</P>
<P>(ff) Execute other claims missions as designated by DOD, DA, TJAG and other competent authority.
</P>
<P>(gg) Appoint Foreign Claims Commissions outside Command Claims Services' geographic areas of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(hh) Budget for and fund claims investigations and activities; such as per diem and transportation of claims personnel, claimants and witnesses; independent medical examinations; appraisals; independent expert opinions; long distance telephone calls; recording and photographic equipment; use of express mail or couriers; and other necessary expenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.8" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.8   Responsibilities and operations of command claims services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chiefs of command claims services.</I> Chiefs of command claims services shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise claims settlement authority as specified in this part, including appellate authority where so delegated.
</P>
<P>(2) Supervise the investigation, processing, and settlement of claims against, and in favor of the United States under the statutes and regulations listed in § 536.2, and pursuant to other appropriate statutes, regulations, and authorizations.
</P>
<P>(3) Designate and grant claims settlement authority to ACOs. A grant of such authority will not be effective until coordinated with the Commander USARCS, and assigned an office code. However, the chief of a command claims service may redesignate a CPO that already has an assigned office code as an ACO without coordination with the Commander USARCS. The Commander USARCS will be informed of such a designation.
</P>
<P>(4) Designate and grant claims approval authority to CPOs. Only CPOs staffed with a claims judge advocate (CJA) or claims attorney may be granted approval authority. A grant of such authority will not be effective until coordinated with the Commander USARCS, and assigned an office code.
</P>
<P>(5) Train claims personnel and monitor their operations and ongoing claims administration. Conduct a training course annually.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement pertinent claims policies.
</P>
<P>(7) Prepare and publish command claims directives.
</P>
<P>(8) Administer the command claims expenditure allowance, providing necessary data, estimates, and reports to USARCS on a regular basis.
</P>
<P>(9) Perform the responsibilities of an ACO (see § 536.9), as applicable, ensure that SOFA claims are investigated properly and timely filed with the receiving State and adequately funded.
</P>
<P>(10) Serve as the United States “sending State office,” if so designated, when operating in an area covered by a SOFA.
</P>
<P>(11) Supervise and provide technical assistance to subordinate ACOs within the command claims service's geographic area of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(12) Appoint FCCs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operations of command claims services.</I> The SJA of the command shall supervise the command claims service. The command SJA may designate a field grade JA as the chief of the service. An adequate number of qualified claims personnel shall be assigned to ensure that claims are promptly investigated and acted upon. With the concurrence of the Commander USARCS, a command claims service may designate ACOs within its area of operations to carry out claims responsibilities within specified geographic areas subject to agreement by the commander concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.9" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.9   Responsibilities and operations of area claims offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Heads of ACOs.</I> Heads of ACOs, including COE offices (see § 536.3(e)(3)) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that claims and potential claims incidents in their area of responsibility are promptly investigated in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that each organization or activity (for example, U.S. Army Reserve (USAR) or Army National Guard of the United States (ARNGUS) unit, ROTC detachment, recruiting company or station, or DOD agency) within the area appoints a claims officer to investigate claims incidents not requiring investigation by a JA (see § 536.23) and ensure that this officer is adequately trained.
</P>
<P>(3) Supervise the investigation, processing, and settlement of claims against, and in favor of, the United States under the statutes and regulations listed in § 536.2 and pursuant to other appropriate statutes, regulations, and authorizations.
</P>
<P>(4) Act as a claims settlement authority on claims that fall within the appropriate monetary jurisdictions set forth in this part and forward claims exceeding such jurisdictions to the Commander USARCS, or to the chief of a command claims service, as appropriate, for action.
</P>
<P>(5) Designate CPOs and request that the Commander USARCS, or the chief of a command claims service, as appropriate, grant claims approval authority to a CPO for claims that fall within the jurisdiction of that office.
</P>
<P>(6) Supervise the operations of CPOs within their area.
</P>
<P>(7) Implement claims policies and guidance furnished by the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure that there are adequate numbers of qualified and adequately trained CJAs or claims attorneys, RCJAs or attorneys, recovery claims clerks, claims examiners, claims adjudicators and claims clerks in all claims offices within their areas to act promptly on claims.
</P>
<P>(9) Budget for and fund claims investigations and activities, such as: per diem and transportation of claims personnel, claimants and witnesses; independent medical examinations; appraisals and independent expert opinions; long distance telephone calls; recording and photographic equipment; use of express mail or couriers; and other necessary expenses.
</P>
<P>(10) Within the United States and its territories, commonwealths and possessions, procure and disseminate, within their areas of jurisdiction, appropriate legal publications on state or territorial law and precedent relating to tort claims.
</P>
<P>(11) Notify the Commander USARCS, of all claims and potentially compensable events (PCEs) as required by § 536.22(c); notify the chief of a command claims service of all claims and PCEs.
</P>
<P>(12) Develop and maintain written plans for a disaster or civil disturbance. These plans may be internal SJA office plans or an annex to an installation or an agency disaster response plan.
</P>
<P>(13) Implement the Army's Article 139 claims program. (See subpart I of this part).
</P>
<P>(14) Notify USARCS of possible deployments and ensure adequate FCCs are appointed by USARCS and are trained.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operations of area claims offices.</I> (1) The ACO is the principal office for the investigation and adjudication or settlement of claims, and shall be staffed with qualified legal personnel under the supervision of the SJA, command JA, or COE district or command legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the utilization of unit claims officers required by § 536.10(a), if indicated, the full-time responsibility for investigating and processing claims arising within or related to the activities of a unit or organization located within a section of the designated area may be delegated to another command, unit, or activity by establishing a CPO at the command, unit, or activity (see § 536.10(b)(4)). Normally, all CPOs will operate under the supervision of the ACO in whose area the CPO is located. Where a proposed CPO is not under the command of the ACO parent organization, this designation may be achieved by a support agreement or memorandum of understanding between the affected commands.
</P>
<P>(3) Normally, claims that cannot be settled by a COE ACO will be forwarded directly to the Commander USARCS, with notice of referral to the Chief Counsel, COE. However, as part of his or her responsibility for litigating suits that involve civil works and military construction activities, the Chief Counsel, COE, may require that a COE ACO forward claims through COE channels, provided that such requirement does not preclude the Commander USARCS from taking final action within the time limitations set forth in subparts D and H of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.10" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.10   Responsibilities and operations of claims processing offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Heads of CPOs.</I> Heads of CPOs will:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigate all potential and actual claims arising within their assigned jurisdiction, on either an area, command, or agency basis. Only a CPO that has approval authority may adjudicate and pay presented claims within its monetary jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that units and organizations within their jurisdiction have appointed claims officers for the investigation of claims not requiring a JA's investigation. (See § 536.22).
</P>
<P>(3) Budget for and fund claims investigations and activities; including, per diem and transportation of claims personnel, claimants and witnesses; independent medical examinations; appraisals; independent expert opinions; long distance telephone calls; recording and photographic equipment; use of express mail or couriers; and other necessary expenses.
</P>
<P>(4) Within CONUS, procure and maintain legal publications on local law relating to tort claims pertaining to their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the Commander USARCS of all claims and claims incidents, as required by § 536.22 and AR 27-20, paragraph 2-12.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement the Army's Article 139 claims program (see subpart I of this part).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operations of claims processing offices</I>—(1) <I>Claims processing office with approval authority.</I> A CPO that has been granted approval authority must provide for the investigation of all potential and actual claims arising within its assigned jurisdiction, on an area, command, or agency basis, and for the adjudication and payment of all claims presented within its monetary jurisdiction. If the estimated value of a claim, after investigation, exceeds the CPO's payment authority, or if disapproval is the appropriate action, the claim file will be forwarded to the ACO unless otherwise specified in this part, or forwarded to USARCS or the command claims service, if directed by such service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims processing offices without approval authority.</I> A CPO that has not been granted claims approval authority will provide for the investigation of all potential and actual claims arising within its assigned jurisdiction on an area, command, or agency basis. Once the investigation has been completed, the claim file will be forwarded to the appropriate ACO for action. Alternatively, an ACO may direct the transfer of a claim investigation from a CPO without approval authority to another CPO with approval authority, located within the ACO's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical claims processing offices.</I> The MCJAs or medical claims attorneys at Army medical centers, other than Walter Reed Army Medical Center, may be designated by the SJA or head of the ACO for the installation on which the center is located as CPOs with approval authority for medical malpractice claims only. Claims for amounts exceeding a medical CPO's approval authority will be investigated and forwarded to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special claims processing offices</I>—(i) <I>Designation and authority.</I> The Commander USARCS, the chief of a command claims service, or the head of an ACO may designate special CPOs within his or her command for specific, short-term purposes (for example, maneuvers, civil disturbances and emergencies). These special CPOs may be delegated the approval authority necessary to effect the purpose of their creation, but in no case will this delegation exceed the maximum monetary approval authority set forth in other subparts of this part for regular CPOs. All claims will be processed under the claims expenditure allowance and claims command and office code of the authority that established the office or under a code assigned by USARCS. The existence of any special CPO must be reported to the Commander USARCS, and the chief of a command claims service, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maneuver damage and claims office jurisdiction.</I> A special CPO is the proper organization to process and approve maneuver damage claims, except when a foreign government is responsible for adjudication pursuant to an international agreement (see subpart G of this part). Personnel from the maneuvering command should be used to investigate claims and, at the ACO's discretion, may be assigned to the special CPO. The ACO will process claims filed after the maneuver terminates. The special CPO will investigate claims arising while units are traveling to or from the maneuver within the jurisdiction of other ACOs, and forward such claims for action to the ACO in whose area the claims arose. Claims for damage to real or personal property arising on private land that the Army has used under a permit may be paid from funds specifically budgeted by the maneuver for such purposes in accordance with AR 405-15.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disaster claims and civil disturbance.</I> A special CPO provided for a disaster or civil disturbance should include a claims approving authority with adequate investigatory, administrative, and logistical support, including damage assessment and finance and accounting support. It will not be dispatched prior to notification of the Commander USARCS, whose concurrence must be obtained before the first claim is paid.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supervisory requirements.</I> The CPOs discussed in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(4) of this section must be supervised by an assigned CJA or claims attorney in order to exercise delegated approval authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.11" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.11   Chief of Engineers.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief of Engineers, through the Chief Counsel, shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide general supervision of the claims activities of COE ACOs.
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure that each COE ACO has a claims attorney designated in accordance with § 536.4.
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that claims personnel are adequately trained, and monitor their ongoing claims administration.
</P>
<P>(d) Implement pertinent claims policies.
</P>
<P>(e) Provide for sufficient funding in accordance with existing Army regulations and command directives for temporary duty (TDY), long distance telephone calls, recording equipment, cameras, and other expenses for investigating and processing claims.
</P>
<P>(f) Procure and maintain adequate legal publications on local law relating to claims arising within the United States, its territories, commonwealths and possessions.
</P>
<P>(g) Assist USARCS in evaluation of claims by furnishing qualified expert and technical advice from COE resources, on a non-reimbursable basis except for temporary duty (TDY) and specialized lab services expenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.12" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.12   Commanding General, U.S. Army Medical Command.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After consulting with the Commander USARCS on the selection of medical claims attorneys, the Commander of the U.S. Army MEDCOM, the European Medical Command, or other regional medical command, through his or her SJA/Center Judge Advocate, shall ensure that an adequate number of qualified MCJAs or medical claims attorneys and medical claims investigators are assigned to investigate and process medical malpractice claims arising at Army medical centers under the Commander's control. In accordance with an agreement between TJAG and The Surgeon General, such personnel shall be used primarily to investigate and process medical malpractice claims and affirmative claims and will be provided with the necessary funding and research materials to carry out this function.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request of a claims judge advocate or claims officer, shall provide a qualified health care provider at a medical treatment facility (MTF) to examine a claimant for his injuries even if the claimant is not otherwise entitled to care at an MTF (See AR 40-400, Patient Administration, paragraph 3-47).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.13" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.13   Chief, National Guard Bureau.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief, National Guard Bureau (NGB), shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure the designation of a point of contact for claims matters in each State Adjutant General's office.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide the name, address, and telephone number of these points of contact to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(c) Designate claims officers to investigate claims generated by ARNG personnel and forward investigations to the Active Army ACO that has jurisdiction over the area in which the claims incident occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.14" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.14   Commanders of major Army commands.</HEAD>
<P>Commanders of MACOMs, through their SJAs, shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Assist USARCS in monitoring ACOs and CPOs under their respective commands for compliance with the responsibilities assigned in §§ 536.9 and 536.10.
</P>
<P>(b) Assist claims personnel in obtaining qualified expert and technical advice from command units and organizations on a nonreimbursable basis (although the requesting office may be required to provide TDY funding).
</P>
<P>(c) Assist TJAG, through the Commander USARCS, in implementing the functions set forth in § 536.7.
</P>
<P>(d) Coordinate with the ACO within whose jurisdiction a maneuver is scheduled, to ensure the prompt investigation and settlement of any claims arising from it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.15" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.15   Claims policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The following policies will be adhered to in processing and adjudicating claims falling within this regulation. The Commander USARCS is authorized to publish new policies or rescind existing policies from time to time as the need arises.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notification.</I> The Commander USARCS must be notified as soon as possible of both potential and actual claims which are serious incidents that cannot be settled within the monetary jurisdiction of a Command Claims Service or an ACO, including those which occur in the area of responsibility of a CPO. On such claims, the USARCS Area Action Officer (AAO) must coordinate with the field office as to all aspects of the investigation, evaluation and determination of liability. An offer of settlement or the assertion of an affirmative claim must be the result of a discussion between the AAO and the field office. Payment of a subrogated claim may commit the United States to liability as to larger claims. On the other hand, where all claims out of an incident can be paid within field authority they should be paid promptly with maximum use of small claims procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consideration under all subparts.</I> Prior to denial, a claim will be considered under all subparts of this part, regardless of the form on which the claim is presented. A claim presented as a personnel claim will be considered as a tort prior to denial. A claim presented as a tort will first be considered as a personnel claim, and if not payable, then considered as a tort. If deniable, the claim will be denied both as a personnel claim and as a tort.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compromise.</I> DA policy seeks to compromise claims in a manner that represents a fair and equitable result to both the claimant and the United States. This policy does not extend to frivolous claims or claims lacking factual or legal merit. A claim should not be settled solely to avoid further processing time and expense. All claims, regardless of amount, should be evaluated. Congress imposed no minimum limit on payable claims nor did it intend that small non-meritous claims be paid. Practically any claim, regardless of amount, may be subject to compromise through direct negotiation. A CJA or claims attorney should develop expertise in assessing liability and damages, including small property damage claims. For example, a property damage claim may be compromised by deducting the cost of collection, <I>i.e.</I>, attorney fees and costs, even where liability is certain.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expeditious processing at the lowest level.</I> Claims investigation and adjudication should be accomplished at the lowest possible level, such as the CPO or ACO that has monetary authority over the estimated total value of all claims arising from the incident. The expeditious investigation and settlement of claims is essential to successfully fulfilling the Army's responsibilities under the claims statutes implemented by this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice to claimants of technical errors in claim.</I> When technical errors are found in a claim's filing or contents, claimants should be advised of such errors and the need to correct the claim. If the errors concern a jurisdictional matter, a record should be maintained and the claimant should be immediately warned that the error must be corrected before the statute of limitations (SOL) expires.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooperative investigative environment.</I> Any person who indicates a desire to file a claim against the United States cognizable under one of the subparts of this part will be instructed concerning the procedure to follow. The claimant will be furnished claim forms and, when necessary, assisted in completing claim forms, and may be assisted in assembling evidence. Claims personnel may not assist any claimant in determining what amount to claim. During claims investigation, every effort should be made to create a cooperative environment that engenders the free exchange of information and evidence. The goal of obtaining sufficient information to make an objective and fair analysis should be paramount. Personal contact with claimants or their representatives is essential both during investigation and before adjudication. When settlement is not feasible, issues in dispute should be clearly identified to facilitate resolution of any reconsideration, appeal or litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims directives and plans</I>—(1) <I>Directives.</I> Two copies of command claims directives will be furnished to the Commander USARCS. ACO directives will be distributed to all DA and DOD commands, installations and activities within the ACO's area of responsibility, with an information copy to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disaster and civil preparedness plan.</I> One copy of all ACOs' disaster or civil disturbance plans or annexes will be furnished to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interpretations.</I> The Commander USARCS will publish written interpretations of this part. Interpretations will have the same force and effect as this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authority to grant exceptions to and deviations from this part.</I> If, in particular instances, it is considered to be in the best interests of the government, the Commander USARCS may authorize deviations from this part's specific requirements, except as to matters based on statutes, treaties and international agreements, executive orders, controlling directives of the Attorney General or Comptroller General, or other publications that have the force and effect of law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidance.</I> The Commander USARCS, may publish bulletins, manuals, handbooks and notes, and a DA Pamphlet that provides guidance to claims authorities on administrative and procedural rules implementing this part. These will be binding on all Army claims personnel.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Communication.</I> All claims personnel are authorized to communicate directly with USARCS personnel for guidance on matters of policy or on matters relating to the implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Private relief bills.</I> The issue of a private relief bill is one between a claimant and his or her Congressional representative. There is no established procedure under which the DA sponsors private relief legislation. Claims personnel shall remain neutral in all private relief matters and shall not make any statement that purports to reflect the DA's position on a private relief bill.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.16" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.16   Release of information policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest.</I> Except as part of their official duties, government personnel are forbidden from advising or representing claimants or from receiving any payment or gratuity for services rendered. They may not accept any share or interest in a claim or assist in its presentation, under penalty of federal criminal law (18 U.S.C. 203 and 205).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Release of information.</I> (1) Relevant statutes pertinent to the release of information include the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a and 552b, the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552 and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), 42 U.S.C. 1320d through 1320d-8.
</P>
<P>(2) It is the policy of USARCS that unclassified attorney work product may be released with or without a request from the claimant or attorney, whenever such release may help settle the claim or avoid unnecessary litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) A statutory exemption or privilege may not be waived. Similarly, documents subject to such statutorily required nondisclosure, exemption, or privilege may not be released. Regarding other exemptions and privileges, authorities may waive such exemptions or privileges and direct release of the protected documents, upon balancing all pertinent factors, including finding that release of protected records will not harm the government's interest, will promote settlement of a claim and will avoid unnecessary litigation, or for other good cause.
</P>
<P>(4) All requests for records and information made pursuant to the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552, the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or HIPAA, 42 U.S.C. 1320d, will be processed in accordance with the procedures set forth in AR 25-55 and AR 340-21, respectively as well as 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164, DODD 6025.18-R, this part, and DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(i) Any request for DOD records that either explicitly or implicitly cites the FOIA shall be processed under the provisions of AR 25-55. Requests for DOD records submitted by a claimant or claimant's attorney will be processed under both the FOIA and under the Privacy Act when the request is made by the subject of the records requested and those records are maintained in a system of records. Such requests will be processed under the FOIA time limits and the Privacy Act fee provisions. Withheld information must be exempt from disclosure under both Acts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests that cite both Acts or neither Act are processed under both Acts, using the FOIA time limits and the Privacy Act fee provisions. For further guidance, see AR 25-55, paragraphs 1-301 and 1-503.
</P>
<P>(5) The following records may not be disclosed:
</P>
<P>(i) Medical quality assurance records exempt from disclosure pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1102(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) Records exempt from disclosure pursuant to appropriate balancing tests under FOIA exemption (6) (clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), exemption (7)(c) (reasonably constitutes unwarranted invasion of privacy), and law enforcement records (5 U.S.C. § 552(b)) unless requested by the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(iii) Records protected by the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) Records exempt from disclosure pursuant to FOIA exemption (1) (National security) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)), unless such records have been properly declassified.
</P>
<P>(v) Records exempt from disclosure pursuant to the attorney-client privilege under FOIA exemption (5) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)), unless the client consents to the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(6) Records within a category for which withholding of the record is discretionary (AR 25-55, paragraph 3-101), such as exemptions under the deliberative process or attorney work product privileges (exemption (5) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) may be released when there is no foreseeable harm to government interests in the judgment of the releasing authority.
</P>
<P>(7) When it is determined that exempt information should not be released, or a question as to its releaseability exists, forward the request and two copies of the responsive documents to the Commander USARCS. The Commander USARCS, acting on behalf of TJAG (the initial denial authority), may deny release of records processed under the FOIA only. The Commander USARCS, will forward to TJAG all such requests processed under both the FOIA and PA. TJAG is the denial authority for Privacy Act requests (AR 340-21, paragraph 1-7i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims assistance.</I> In the vicinity of a field exercise, maneuver or disaster, claims personnel may disseminate information on the right to present claims, procedures to be followed, and the names and location of claims officers and the COE repair teams. When the government of a foreign country in which U.S. Armed Forces are stationed has assumed responsibility for the settlement of certain claims against the United States, officials of that country will be furnished as much pertinent information and evidence as security considerations permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.17" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.17   Single-service claims responsibility (DODD 5515.8 and DODD 5515.9).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assignment for DOD claims.</I> The army is responsible for processing DOD claims pursuant to DODD 5515.9 (posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutes and agreements.</I> DOD has assigned single-service responsibility for the settlement of certain claims in certain countries, pursuant to DODD 5515.8 (posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a)) under the following statutes and agreements:
</P>
<P>(1) FCA (10 U.S.C. 2734);
</P>
<P>(2) MCA (10 U.S.C. 2733);
</P>
<P>(3) Status of Forces Agreements (10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b);
</P>
<P>(4) NATO SOFA (4 U.S.T. 1792, Treaties and International Acts Series (T.I.A.S.) 2846) and other similar agreements;
</P>
<P>(5) FCCA (31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E) and FMCRCA (42 U.S.C. 2651-2653);
</P>
<P>(6) Claims not cognizable under any other provision of law, 10 U.S.C. 2737; and
</P>
<P>(7) Advance payments, 10 U.S.C. 2736.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specified foreign countries.</I> Responsibility for the settlement of claims cognizable under the laws listed above has been assigned to military departments pursuant to DODD 5515.8, as supplemented by executive agreement and other competent directives.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When claims responsibility has not been assigned.</I> When necessary to implement contingency plans, the unified or specified commander with authority over the geographic area in question may, on an interim basis before receiving confirmation and approval from the General Counsel, DOD, assign single-service responsibility for processing claims in countries where such assignment has not already been made.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.17:</HED>
<P>See also § 536.32 for information on transferring claims among armed services branches.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.18   Cross-servicing of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where claims responsibility has not been assigned.</I> Claims cognizable under the FCA or the MCA that are generated by another military department within a foreign country for which single-service claims responsibility has not been assigned, may be settled by the Army upon request of the military department concerned. Conversely, Army claims may in appropriate cases be referred to another military department for settlement, DODD 5515.8, E1.2 (posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a)). Tables listing claims offices worldwide are posted to the USARCS Web site at that address. U.S. Air Force claims offices may be identified by visiting the Web site at <I>http://afmove.hq.af.mil/page_afclaims.asp.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims generated by the Coast Guard.</I> Claims resulting from the activities of, or generated by, soldiers or civilian employees of the Coast Guard while it is operating as a service of the U.S. Department of Homeland Security may upon request be settled under this part by a foreign claims commission appointed as authorized herein, but they will be paid from Coast Guard appropriations, 10 U.S.C. 2734.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>SOFA claims within the United States.</I> Claims cognizable under the NATO PFP or Singaporean SOFAs arising out of the activities of aircraft within the United States may be investigated and adjudicated by the U.S. Air Force under a delegation from the Commander USARCS. Claims exceeding the delegated amount will be adjudicated by the USARCS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claims generated by the American Battle Monuments Commission.</I> Claims arising out of the activities of or in cemeteries outside the United States managed by the American Battle Monuments Commission (36 U.S.C. 2110) will be investigated and adjudicated by the U.S. Army.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.18:</HED>
<P>See also § 536.32 for information on transferring claims among armed services branches.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.19" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.19   Disaster claims planning.</HEAD>
<P>All ACOs will prepare a disaster claims plan and furnish a copy to USARCS. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 1-21 for specific requirements related to disaster claims planning.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.20" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.20   Claims assistance visits.</HEAD>
<P>Members of USARCS and command claims services will make claims assistance visits to field offices on a periodic basis. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 1-22 for specific requirements related to claims assistance visits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.21" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.1.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.21   Annual claims award.</HEAD>
<P>The Commander USARCS will make an annual claims award to outstanding field offices. See DA Pam 27-162, para 1-23 for more information on annual claims awards.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Investigation and Processing of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.22" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.22   Claims investigative responsibility—General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart addresses the investigation, processing, evaluation, and settlement of tort and tort-related claims for and against the United States. The provisions of this subpart do not apply to personnel claims (AR 27-20, chapter 11), or to claims under subpart G of this part, §§ 536.114 through 536.116.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooperation.</I> Claims investigation requires team effort between the U.S. Army Claims Service (USARCS), command claims services, and area claims offices (ACOs) including U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (COE) District Offices, claims processing offices (CPOs), and unit claims officers. Essential to this effort is the immediate investigation of claims incidents. Prompt investigation depends on the timely reporting of claims incidents as well as continuous communication between all commands or echelons bearing claims responsibility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to USARCS.</I> A CPO or an ACO receiving notice of a potentially compensable event (PCE) that requires investigation will immediately refer it to the appropriate claims office. The Commander USARCS will be notified of all major incidents involving serious injury or death or those in which property damage exceeds $50,000. A command claims service may delegate to an ACO the responsibility for advising USARCS of serious incidents and complying with mirror file requirements. A copy of the written delegation and any changes made thereafter will be forwarded to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Geographic concept of responsibility.</I> A command claims service or an ACO in whose geographic area a claims incident occurs is primarily responsible for initiating investigation and processing of any claim filed in the absence of a formal transfer of responsibility (see §§ 536.30 through 536.36). DOD and Army organizations whose personnel are involved in the incident will cooperate with and assist the ACO, regardless of where the former may be located.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.22:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-1.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.23" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.23   Identifying claims incidents both for and against the government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Investigation is required when:
</P>
<P>(1) There is property loss or damage.
</P>
<P>(i) Property other than that belonging to the government is damaged, lost, or destroyed by an act or omission of a government employee or a member of North Atlantic Treaty Association (NATO), Australian or Singaporean forces stationed or on temporary duty within the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) Property belonging to the government is damaged or lost by a tortious act or omission not covered by the report of survey system or by a carrier's bill of lading.
</P>
<P>(2) There is personal injury or death.
</P>
<P>(i) A civilian other than an employee of the U.S. government is injured or killed by an act or omission of a government employee or by a member of a NATO, Australian or Singaporean force stationed or on temporary duty within the United States. (This category includes patients injured during treatment by a health care provider).
</P>
<P>(ii) Service members, active or retired, family members of either, or U.S. employees, are injured or killed by a third party and receive medical care at government expense.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim is filed.
</P>
<P>(4) A competent authority or another armed service or federal agency requires investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Determining who is a government employee is a matter of federal, not local, law. Categories of government employees usually accepted as tortfeasors under federal law are:
</P>
<P>(1) Military personnel (soldiers of the Army, or members of other services where the Army exercises single-service jurisdiction on foreign soil; and soldiers or employees within the United States who are members of NATO or of other foreign military forces with whom the United States has a reciprocal claims agreement and whose sending States have certified that they were acting within the scope of their duty) who are serving on full-time active duty in a pay status, including soldiers:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned to units performing active or inactive duty.
</P>
<P>(ii) Serving on active duty as Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC) instructors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Serving as Army National Guard (ARNG) instructors or advisors.
</P>
<P>(iv) On duty or training with other federal agencies, for example: the National Aeronautics and Space Administration, the Department of State, the Navy, the Air Force, or DOD (federal agencies other than the armed service to which the Soldier is attached may also provide a remedy).
</P>
<P>(v) Assigned as students or ordered into training at a non-federal civilian educational institution, hospital, factory, or other facility (excluding soldiers on excess leave or those for whom the training institution or organization has assumed liability by written agreement).
</P>
<P>(vi) Serving on full-time duty at nonappropriated fund (NAF) activities.
</P>
<P>(vii) Of the United States Army Reserve (USAR) and ARNG on active duty under Title 10, U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(2) Military personnel who are United States Army Reserve soldiers including ROTC cadets who are Army Reserve soldiers while at annual training, during periods of active duty and inactive duty training.
</P>
<P>(3) Military personnel who are soldiers of the ARNG while engaged in training or duty under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504, 505, or engaged in properly authorized community action projects under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA), the Non-Scope Claims Act (NSCA), or the National Guard Claims Act (NGCA), unless performing duties in furtherance of a mission for a state, commonwealth, territory or possession.
</P>
<P>(4) Civilian officials and employees of both the DOD and DA (there is no practical significance to the distinction between the terms “official” and “employee”), including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Civil service and other full-time employees of both the DOD and DA who are paid from appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons providing direct health care services pursuant to personal service contracts under 10 U.S.C. 1089 or 1091 or where another person exercised control over the health care provider's day-to-day practice. When the conduct of a health care provider performing services under a personal service contract is implicated in a claim, the CJA, Medical Claims Judge Advocate (MCJA), or claims attorney should consult with USARCS to determine if that health care provider can be considered an employee for purposes of coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees of a NAF instrumentality (NAFI) if it is an instrumentality of the United States and thus a federal agency. To determine whether a NAFI is a “federal agency,” consider both whether it is an integral part of the Army charged with an essential DA operational function and also what degree of control and supervision DA personnel exercise over it. Members or users, unlike employees of NAFIs, are not considered government employees; the same is true of family child care providers. However, claims arising out of the use of some NAFI property or from the acts or omissions of family child care providers may be payable from such funds under subpart K of this part as a matter of policy, even when the user is not acting within the scope of employment and the claim is not otherwise cognizable under any of the other authorities described in this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Prisoners of war and interned enemy aliens.
</P>
<P>(6) Civilian employees of the District of Columbia ARNG, including those paid under “service contracts” from District of Columbia funds.
</P>
<P>(7) Civilians serving as ROTC instructors paid from federal funds.
</P>
<P>(8) ARNG technicians employed under 32 U.S.C. 709(a) for claims accruing on or after January 1, 1969 (Public Law 90-486, August 13, 1968 (82 Stat. 755)), unless performing duties solely in pursuit of a mission for a state, commonwealth, territory or possession.
</P>
<P>(9) Persons acting in an official capacity for the DOD or DA either temporarily or permanently with or without compensation, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Dollar-a-year personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Members of advisory committees, commissions, or boards.
</P>
<P>(iii) Volunteers serving in an official capacity in furtherance of the business of the United States, limited to those categories set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-45.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.23:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-2.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.24" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.24   Delegation of investigative responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Area Claims Office.</I> An ACO is authorized to carry out its investigative responsibility as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At the request of the area claims authority, commanders and heads of Army and DOD units, activities, or components will appoint a commissioned, warrant, or noncommissioned officer or a qualified civilian employee to investigate a claims incident in the manner set forth in DA Pam 27-162 and this part. An ACO will direct such investigation to the extent deemed necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) CPOs are responsible for investigating claims incidents arising out of the activities and operations of their command or agency. An ACO may assign area jurisdiction to a CPO after coordination with the appropriate commander to investigate claims incidents arising in the ACO's designated geographic area. (See § 536.3(f).)
</P>
<P>(3) Claims incidents involving patients arising from treatment by a health care provider in an Army medical treatment facility (MTF), including providers defined in 536.23(b)(4)(ii), will be investigated by a claims judge advocate (CJA), medical claims judge advocate (MCJA), or claims attorney rather than by a unit claims officer.
</P>
<P>(4) An ACO will publish and distribute a claims directive to all DOD and Army installations and activities including active, Army Reserve, and ARNG units as well as units located on the post at which the ACO is located. The directive will outline each installations' and activities' claims responsibilities. It will institute a serious claims incident reporting system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Command claims service responsibility.</I> A command claims service is responsible for the investigation and processing of claims incidents arising in its geographic area of responsibility or for any incidents within the authority of any foreign claims commission (FCC) it appoints. This responsibility will be carried out by an ACO or a CPO to the extent possible. A command claims service will publish a claims directive outlining the geographic areas of claims investigative responsibilities of each of its installations and activities, requiring each ACO or CPO to report all serious claims incidents directly to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>USARCS responsibility.</I> USARCS exercises technical supervision over all claims offices, providing guidance on specific cases throughout the claims process, including the method of investigation. Where indicated, USARCS may investigate a claims incident that normally falls within a command claims services', an ACO's, or a CPO's jurisdiction. USARCS typically acts through an area action officer (AAO) who is assigned as the primary point of contact with command claims services, ACOs or CPOs within a given geographic area. In areas outside the United States and its commonwealths, territories and possessions, where there is no command claims service or ACO, USARCS is responsible for investigation and for appointment of FCCs.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.24:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-3.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.25" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.25   Procedures for accepting claims.</HEAD>
<P>All ACOs and CPOs will institute procedures to ensure that potential claimants or attorneys speak to a CJA, claims attorney, investigator, or examiner. On initial contact, claims personnel will render assistance, discuss all aspects of the potential claim, and determine what statutes or procedures apply. Assistance will be furnished to the extent set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-4. To advise claimants on the correct remedy, claims personnel will familiarize themselves with the remedies listed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-15 and 2-17.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.26" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.26   Identification of a proper claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim is a writing that contains a sum certain for each claimant and that is signed by each claimant, or by an authorized representative, who must furnish written authority to sign on a claimant's behalf. The writing must contain enough information to permit investigation. The writing must be received not later than two years from the date the claim accrues. A claim under the Foreign Claims Act (FCA) may be presented orally to either the United States or the government of the foreign country in which the incident occurred, within two years, provided that it is reduced to writing not later than three years from the date of accrual. A claim may be transmitted by facsimile or telegram. However, a copy of an original claim must be submitted as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a claim is only for property damage and it is filed under circumstances where there might be injuries, the CJA should inquire if the claimant desires to split the claim as discussed in § 536.60.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally, a claim will be presented on a Standard Form (SF) 95 (Claim for Damage, Injury, or Death). When the claim is not presented on an SF 95, the claimant will be requested to complete an SF 95 to ease investigation and processing.
</P>
<P>(d) If a claim names two claimants and states only one sum certain, the claimants will be requested to furnish a sum certain for each. A separate sum certain must be obtained prior to payment under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA), Military Claims Act (MCA), National Guard Claims Act (NGCA) or the FCA. The Financial Management Service will only pay an amount above the threshold amount of $2,500 for the FTCA, or $100,000 for the other statutes.
</P>
<P>(e) A properly filed claim meeting the definition of “claim” in paragraph (a) of this section tolls the two-year statute of limitations (SOL) even though the documents required to substantiate the claim are not present, such as those listed on the back of an SF 95 or in the Attorney General's regulations implementing the FTCA, 28 CFR 14.1—14.11. However, refusal to provide such documents may lead to dismissal of a subsequent suit under the FTCA or denial of a claim under other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Receipt of a claim by another federal agency does not toll the SOL. Receipt of a U.S. Army claim by DOD, Navy, or Air Force does toll the SOL.
</P>
<P>(g) The guidelines set forth in federal FTCA case law will apply to other subparts of this part in determining whether a proper claim was filed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.26:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-5.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.27" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.27   Identification of a proper claimant.</HEAD>
<P>The following are proper claimants:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Claims for property loss or damage.</I> A claim may be presented by the owner of the property or by a duly authorized agent or legal representative in the owner's name. As used in this part, the term “owner” includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For real property.</I> The mortgagor, mortgagee, executor, administrator, or personal representative, if he or she may maintain a cause of action in the local courts involving a tort to the specific property, is a proper claimant. When notice of divided interests in real property is received, the claim should if feasible be treated as a single claim and a release from all interests must be obtained. This includes both the owner and tenant where both claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For personal property.</I> A claim may be presented by a bailee, lessee, mortgagee, conditional vendor, or others holding title for purposes of security only, unless specifically prohibited by the applicable subpart. When notice of divided interests in personal property is received, the claim should if feasible be treated as a single claim; a release from all interests must be obtained. Property loss is defined as loss of actual tangible property, not consequential damage resulting from such loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims for personal injury or wrongful death</I>—(1) <I>For personal injury.</I> A claim may be presented by the injured person or by a duly authorized agent or legal representative or, where the claimant is a minor, by a parent or a person in loco parentis. However, determine whether the claimant is a proper claimant under applicable state law or, if considered under the MCA, under § 536.77. If not, the claimant should be so informed in the acknowledgment letter and requested to withdraw the claim. If not withdrawn, deny the claim without delay. An example is a claim filed on behalf of a minor for loss of consortium for injury to a parent where not permitted by state law. Personal injury claims deriving from the principal injury may be presented by other parties. A claim may not be presented by a “volunteer,” meaning one who has no legal or contractual obligation, yet voluntarily pays damages on behalf of an injured party and then seeks reimbursement for their economic damages by filing a claim. See paragraph (f) (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For wrongful death.</I> A claim may be presented by the executor or administrator of the deceased's estate, or by any person determined to be legally or beneficially entitled under applicable local law. The amount allowed will be apportioned, to the extent practicable, among the beneficiaries in accordance with the law applicable to the incident. Under the MCA (subpart C of this part), only one wrongful death claim is authorized (see § 536.77(c)(1)(i)). Under subparts D and H of this part, a claim by the insured for property damage may be considered as a claim by the insurer as the real party in interest provided the insured has been reimbursed by the insurer and the insurance information is listed on the SF 95. The insurer should be required to file a separate SF 95 for payment purposes even though the SOL has expired. Where the insurance information is not listed on the SF 95 and the insured is paid by the United States, the payment of the insurer is the responsibility of the insured even though the insurer subsequently files a timely claim. To avoid this situation, always inquire as to the status of any insurance prior to payment of a property damage claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By an agent or legal representative.</I> A claimant's agent or legal representative who presents a claim will do so in the claimant's name and sign the form in such a way that indicates the agent's or legal representative's title or capacity. When a claim is presented by an agent or legal representative:
</P>
<P>(1) It must contain written evidence of the agent's or legal representative's authority to sign, such as a power of attorney, or
</P>
<P>(2) It must refer to or cite the statute granting authority.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subrogation.</I> A claim may be presented by the subrogee in his or her own name if authorized by the law of the place where the incident giving rise to the claim occurred, under subpart D or H of this part only. A lienholder is not a proper claimant and should be distinguished from a subrogee to avoid violation of the Antiassignment Act. See paragraph (f) of this section. However, liens arising under Medicare will be processed directly with the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Systems. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-57g and h and 2-58.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contribution or indemnity.</I> A claim may be filed for contribution or indemnification by the party who was held liable as a joint tortfeasor where authorized by state law. Such a claim is not perfected until payment has been made by the claimant/joint tortfeasor. A claim filed for contribution prior to payment being made should be considered as an opportunity to share a settlement where the United States is liable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfer or assignment.</I> (1) Under the Antiassignment Act (31 U.S.C. 3727) and Defense Finance and Accounting Service—Indianpolis (DFAS-IN) regulation 37-1, a transfer or assignment is null and void except where it occurs by operation of law or after a voucher for the payment has been issued. The following are null and void:
</P>
<P>(i) Every purported transfer or assignment of a claim against the United States, or any interest, in whole or in part, on a claim, whether absolute or conditional; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Every power of attorney or other purported authority to receive payment for all or part of any such claim.
</P>
<P>(2) The Antiassignment Act was enacted to eliminate multiple payment of claims, to cause the United States to deal only with original parties and to prevent persons of influence from purchasing claims against the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) In general, this statute prohibits voluntary assignments of claims, with the exception of transfers or assignments made by operation of law. The operation of law exception has been held to apply to claims passing to assignees because of bankruptcy proceedings, assignments for the benefit of creditors, corporate liquidations, consolidations, or reorganizations, and where title passes by operation of law to heirs or legatees. Subrogated claims that arise under a statute are not barred by the Antiassignment Act. For example, subrogated workers' compensation claims are cognizable when presented by the insurer under subpart D or H of this part, but not other subparts.
</P>
<P>(4) Subrogated claims that arise pursuant to contractual provisions may be paid to the subrogee, if the legal basis for the subrogated claim is recognized by state statute or case law, only under subpart D or H of this part. For example, an insurer that issues an insurance policy becomes subrogated to the rights of a claimant who receives payment of a property damage claim. Generally, such subrogated claims are authorized by state law and are therefore not barred by the Antiassignment Act.
</P>
<P>(5) Before claims are paid, it is necessary to determine whether there may be a valid subrogated claim under a federal or state statute or a subrogation contract held valid by state law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interdepartmental waiver rule.</I> Neither the U.S. government nor any of its instrumentalities are proper claimants due to the interdepartmental waiver rule. This rule bars claims by any organization or activity of the Army, whether or not the organization or activity is funded with appropriated or nonappropriated funds. Certain federal agencies are authorized by statute to file claims, for example, Medicare and the Railroad Retirement Commission. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-17f.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>States are excluded.</I> If a state, U.S. commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia maintains a unit to which ARNG personnel causing the injury or damage are assigned, such governmental entity is not a proper claimant for loss or damage to its property. A unit of local government other than a state, commonwealth, or territory is a proper claimant.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.27:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-6.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.28" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.28   Claims acknowledgment.</HEAD>
<P>Claims personnel will acknowledge all claims immediately upon receipt, in writing, by telephone, or in person. A defective claim will be acknowledged in writing, pointing out its defects. Where the defects render the submission jurisdictionally deficient based on the requirements discussed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-5 and 2-6, the claimant or attorney will be informed in writing of the need to present a proper claim no later than two years from the date of accrual. Suit must be filed in maritime claims not later than two years from the date of accrual. See § 536.122. In any claim for personal injury or wrongful death, an authorization signed by the patient, natural or legal guardian or estate representative will be obtained authorizing the use of medical information, including medical records, in order to use sources other than claims personnel to evaluate the claim as required by the Health Care Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), 42 U.S.C. 1320d-1320d-8. See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.29" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.29   Revision of filed claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A revision or change of a previously filed claim may constitute an amendment or a new claim. Upon receipt, the CJA must determine whether a new claim has been filed. If so, the claim must be logged with a new number and acknowledged in accordance with § 536.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New claim.</I> A new claim is filed whenever the writing alleges a new theory of liability, a new tortfeasor, a new party claimant, a different date or location for the claims incident, or other basic element that constitutes an allegation of a different tort not originally alleged. If the allegation is made verbally or by e-mail, the claimant will be informed in writing that a new SF 95 must be filed. A new claim must be filed not later than two years from the accrual date under the FTCA. Filing a new claim creates an additional six month period during which suit may not be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendment.</I> An increase or decrease in the amount claimed constitutes an amendment, not a new claim. Similarly, the addition of required information not on the original claim constitutes an amendment. Examples are date of birth, marital status, military status, names of witnesses, claimant's address, description, or location of property or insurance information. An amendment may be filed before or after the two year SOL has run unless final action has been taken. A new number will not be assigned to an amended claim; however, a change in the amount will be annotated in the database.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.29:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-8.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.30" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.30   Action upon receipt of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A properly filed claim stops the running of the SOL when it is received by any organization or activity of the DOD or the U.S. Armed Services. Placing a claim in the mail does not constitute filing. The first Army claims office that receives the claim will date, time stamp, and initial the claim as of the date the claim was initially received “on post,” not by the claims office. If initially received close to the SOL's expiration date by an organization or activity that does not have a claims office, claims personnel will discover and record in the file the date of original receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) The ACO or CPO that first receives the claim will enter the claim into the Tort and Special Claims Application (TSCA) database and let the system assign a number to the claim. The claim, whether on an SF 95 or in any other format, shall be scanned into a computer and uploaded onto the TSCA database so that it will become a permanent part of the electronic record. A joint claim will be given a number for each claimant, for example, husband and wife, injured parent and children. If only one sum is filed for all claimants, the same sum will be assigned for each claimant. However, request the claimant to name a sum for each claimant. The claim will bear this number throughout the claims process. Upon transfer, a new number will not be assigned by the receiving office. If a claim does not meet the definition of a proper claim under §§ 536.26 and 536.27, it will be date stamped and logged as a Potentially Compensable Event (PCE).
</P>
<P>(c) The claim will be transferred if the claim incident arose in another ACO's geographic area; the receiving ACO will use the claims number originally assigned.
</P>
<P>(d) Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality (NAFI) claims that relate to claims determined cognizable under subpart K of this part will be marked with the symbol “NAFI” immediately following the claimant's name, to preclude erroneous payment from appropriated funds (APF). This symbol will also be included in the subject line of all correspondence.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt, copies of the claims will be furnished as follows (when a current e-mail address is available and it is agreeable with the receiving party, providing copies by e-mail is acceptable):
</P>
<P>(1) To USARCS, if the amount claimed exceeds $25,000, or $50,000 per incident. However, if the claim arises under the FTCA or AMCSA, only furnish copies if the amount claimed exceeds $50,000, or $100,000 per incident.
</P>
<P>(2) For medical malpractice claims, to the appropriate MTF Commander/s through MEDCOM Headquarters, and to the Armed Forces Institute of Pathology at the addresses listed below.
</P>
<P>MEDCOM, ATTN: MCHO-CL-Q, 2050 Worth Road, Suite 26, Fort Sam Houston, TX 78234-5026.
</P>
<P>Department of Legal Medicine, Armed Forces Institute of Pathology, 1335 E. West Highway, #6-100, Silver Spring, MD 20910-6254, Commercial: 301-295-8115, e-mail: <I>casha@afip.osd.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) If the claim is against AAFES forward a copy to: HQ Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES), ATTN: Office of the General Counsel (GC-Z), P.O. Box 650062, Dallas, TX 75265-0062, e-mail: <I>blanchp@aafes.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) If the claim involves a NAFI, including a recreational user or family child care provider forward a copy to: Army Central Insurance Fund, ATTN: CFSC-FM-I, 4700 King Street, Alexandria, VA 22302-4406, e-mail: <I>riskmanagement@cfsc.army.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) ACOs or CPOs will furnish a copy of any medical or dental malpractice claim to the MTF or dental treatment facility commander and advise the commander of all subsequent actions. The commander will be assisted in his or her responsibility to complete DD Form 2526 (Case Abstract for Malpractice Claims).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.30:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-9.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.31" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.31   Opening claim files.</HEAD>
<P>A claim file will be opened when:
</P>
<P>(a) Information that requires investigation under § 536.23 is received.
</P>
<P>(b) Records or other documents are requested by a potential claimant or legal representative.
</P>
<P>(c) A claim is filed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.31:</HED>
<P>See the parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-10.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.32" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.32   Transfer of claims among armed services branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims filed with the wrong federal agency, or claims that should be adjudicated by receiving State offices under NATO or other SOFA, will be immediately transferred to the proper agency together with notice of same to the claimant or legal representative. Where multiple federal agencies are involved, other agencies will be contacted and a lead agency established to take all actions on the claim. Where the DA is the lead agency, any final action will include other agencies. Similarly, where another agency is the lead agency, that agency will be requested to include DA in any final action. Such inclusion will prevent multiple dates for filing suit or appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) If another agency has taken denial action on a claim that involves the DA, without informing the DA, and in which the DA desires to make a payment, the denial action may be reconsidered by the DA not later than six months from the date of mailing and payment made thereafter.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.32:</HED>
<P>See also §§ 536.17 and 536.18; AR 27-20, paragraph 13-2; and the parallel and related discussion of this topic at DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 1-19, 1-20, 2-13 and 13-2.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.33" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.33   Use of small claims procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Small claims procedures are authorized for use whenever a claim may be settled for $5,000 or less. These procedures are designed to save processing time and eliminate the need for most of the documentation otherwise required. These procedures are described in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-14 and 2-26.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.34" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.34   Determination of correct statute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consideration under more than one statute.</I> When Congress enacted the various claims statutes, it intended to allow federal agencies to settle meritorious claims. A claim must be considered under other statutes in this part unless one particular statute precludes the use of other statutes, whether the claim is filed on DD Form 1842 (Claim for Loss of or Damage to Personal Property Incident to Service) or SF 95. Prior to denial of an AR 27-20, chapter 11 claim, consider whether it may fall within the scope of subparts C, D, or F of this part, and where indicated, question the claimant to determine whether the claim sounds in tort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusiveness of certain remedies.</I> Certain remedies exclude all others. For example, the Court of Federal Claims has exclusive jurisdiction over U.S. Constitution Fifth Amendment takings, express or implied-in-fact, as well as governmental contract losses, or intangible property losses. Claims of this nature for $10,000 or less may be filed in a U.S. District Court. There is no administrative remedy. While the FTCA is the preemptive tort remedy in the United States, its commonwealths, territories and possessions, nevertheless, other remedies must be exhausted prior to favorable consideration under the FTCA. The FTCA does not preclude use of the MCA or the NGCA for claims arising out of noncombat activities or brought by soldiers for incident-to-service property losses sustained within the United States. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-15a and b for a more detailed discussion of determining the correct statute for property claims versus personal injury and death claims. In addition, it is important to consider the nature of the claim, e.g., whether the claim may be medical malpractice in nature, related to postal matter, or an automobile accident. Discussions of these and many other different types of claims are also provided herein as well as in the corresponding paragraph 2-15 of DA Pam 27-162. It is also very important to consider when a claim may fall outside the jurisdiction of the Army claims system. Some of these instances are alluded to immediately above, but for a detailed discussion of related remedies see § 536.36 of this part and paragraph 2-17 of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status of Forces Agreement claims.</I> (1) Claims arising out of the performance of official duties in a foreign country where the United States is the sending State must be filed and processed under a SOFA, provided that the claimant is a proper party claimant under the SOFA. DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-15c sets forth the rules applicable in particular countries. A SOFA provides an exclusive remedy subject to waiver as set forth in § 536.76(h) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Single-service jurisdiction is established for all foreign countries in which a SOFA is in effect and for certain other countries. A list of these countries is posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a). Claims will be processed by the service exercising single-service responsibility. In the United States, USARCS is the receiving State office and all SOFA claims should be forwarded immediately to USARCS for action. Appropriate investigation under subpart B of this part procedures is required of an ACO or a CPO under USARCS' direction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign Claims Act claims.</I> (1) Claims by foreign inhabitants, arising in a foreign country, which are not cognizable under a SOFA, fall exclusively under the FCA. The determination as to whether a claimant is a foreign inhabitant is governed by the rules set out in subpart C and subpart J of this part. In case of doubt, this determination must be based on information obtained from the claimant and others, particularly where the claimant is a former U.S. service member or a U.S. citizen residing in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(2) Tort claims will be processed by the armed service that exercises single-service responsibility. When requested, the Commander USARCS may furnish a Judge Advocate or civilian attorney to serve as a Foreign Claims Commission (FCC) for another service. With the concurrence of the Commander USARCS, Army JAs may be appointed as members of another department's foreign claims commissions. See subpart J of this part. The FCA permits compensation for damages caused by “out-of-scope” tortious conduct of Soldier and civilian employees. Many of these claims are also compensable under Article 139, Uniform Code of Military Justice. See DA Pam 27-162, chap. 9. To avoid the double payment of claims, ACOs and CPOs must promptly notify the Command Claims Service of each approved Article 139 claim involving a claimant who could also file under an applicable SOFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>National Guard Claims Act claims.</I> (1) Claims attributed to the acts or omissions of ARNG personnel in the course of employment fall into the categories set forth in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An ACO will establish with a state claims office routine procedures for the disposition of claims, designed to ensure that the United States and state authorities do not issue conflicting instructions for processing claims. The procedures will require personnel to advise the claimant of any remedy against the state or its insurer.
</P>
<P>(i) Where the claim arises out of the act or omission of a member of the ARNG or a person employed under 32 U.S.C. 709, it must be determined whether the employee is acting on behalf of the state or the United States. For example, an ARNG pilot employed under section 709 may be flying on a state mission, federal mission, or both, on the same trip. This determination will control the disposition of the claim. If agreement with the concerned state cannot be reached and the claim is otherwise payable, efforts may be made to enter into a sharing agreement with the state concerned. The following procedures are required in the event there is a remedy against the state and the state refuses to pay or the state maintains insurance coverage and the claimant has filed an administrative claim against the United States. First, forward the file and the tort claim memorandum, including information on the status of any judicial or administrative action the claimant has taken against the state or its insurer to the Commander USARCS. Upon receipt, the Commander USARCS will determine whether to require the claimant to exhaust his or her remedy against the state or its insurer or whether the claim against the United States can be settled without requiring such exhaustion. If the Commander USARCS decides to follow the latter course of action, he or she will also determine whether to obtain an assignment of the claim against the state or its insurer and whether to initiate recovery action to obtain contribution or indemnification. The state or its insurer will be given appropriate notification in accordance with state law.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an administrative claim remedy exists under state law or the state maintains liability insurance, the Commander USARCS or an ACO acting upon the Commander USARCS' approval may enter into a sharing agreement covering payment of future claims. The purpose of such an agreement is to determine in advance whether the state or the DA is responsible for processing a claim (did the claim arise from a federal or state mission?), to expedite payment in meritorious claims, and to preclude double recovery by a claimant.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Third-party claims involving an independent contractor</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> (i) Upon receipt, all claims will be examined to determine whether a contractor of the United States is the tortfeasor. If so, the claimant or legal representative will be notified of the name and address of the contractor and further advised that the United States is not responsible for the acts or omissions of an independent contractor. This will be done prior to any determination as to the contractor's degree of culpability as compared to that of the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) If, upon investigation, the damage is considered to be primarily due to the contractor's fault or negligence, the claim will be referred to the contractor or the contractor's insurance carrier for settlement and the claimant will be so advised.
</P>
<P>(iii) Health care providers hired under personal services contracts under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1089 are not considered to be independent contractors but employees of the United States for tort claims purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims for injury or death of contractor employees.</I> Upon receipt of a claim for injury or death of a contractor employee, a copy of the portions of the contract applicable to claims and workers' compensation will be obtained, either through the contracting office or from the contractor. Claims personnel must find out the status of any claim for workers' compensation benefits as well as whether the United States paid the premiums. The goal is to involve the contractor in any settlement, where indicated, in the manner set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-15f and 2-61. In claims arising in foreign countries consider whether the claim is covered by the Defense Bases Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651-1654.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claims by contractors for damage to or loss of their property during the performance of their contracts.</I> Claims by contractors for property damage or loss should be referred to the contracting officer for determination as to whether the claim is payable under the contract. Such a claim is not payable under the FTCA where the damage results from an in-scope act or omission. Contract appeal procedures must be exhausted prior to consideration as a bailment under the MCA or FCA.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maritime claims.</I> Maritime torts are excluded from consideration under the FTCA. The various maritime statutes are exclusive remedies within the United States and its territorial waters. Maritime statutes include the Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act (AMCSA), 10 U.S.C. 4801, 4802 and 4806, the Suits in Admiralty Act (SIAA), 46 U.S.C. app. 781-790, the Public Vessels Act (PVA), 46 U.S.C. app. 781-790, and the Admiralty Extension Act (AEA), 46 U.S.C. app. 740. Within the U.S. and its territorial waters, maritime suits may be filed under the SIAA or the PVA without first filing an administrative claim, except where administrative filing is required by the AEA. Administrative claims may also be filed under the AMSCA. In any administrative claim brought under the AMCSA, all action must be completed not later than two years from its accrual date or the SOL will expire. Outside the United States, a maritime tort may be brought under the MCA or FCA as well as the AMCSA. The body of water on which it occurs must be navigable and a maritime nexus must exist. Once a maritime claim is identified, give the claimant written notice of the two-year filing requirement. In case of doubt, the ACO or CPO should discuss the matter with the appropriate AAO. Even when the claimant does not believe that a maritime claim is involved, provide the claimant with precautionary notice. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-7e and 8-6.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Postal claims.</I> See also DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-15i, 2-30 and 2-56g discussing postal claims.
</P>
<P>(1) Claims by the U.S. Postal Service for funds and stock are adjudicated by USARCS with assistance from the Military Postal Service Agency and the ACO or CPO having jurisdiction over the particular Army post office, when directed by USARCS to assist in the investigation of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) Claims for loss of registered and insured mail are processed under subpart C of this part by the ACO or CPO having jurisdiction over the particular Army post office.
</P>
<P>(3) Claims for loss of, or damage to, parcels delivered by United Parcel Service (UPS) are the responsibility of UPS.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Blast damage claims.</I> After completing an investigation and prior to final action, all blast damage claims resulting from Army firing and demolition activities must be forwarded to the Commander USARCS for technical review. The sole exception to this rule is when a similar claim is filed citing the same time, place and type of damage as one which has already received technical review. See also DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-28.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Motor vehicle damage claims arising from the use of non-governmental vehicles.</I> See also § 536.60 (splitting property damage and personal injury claims) and DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-15k (determining the correct statute), 2-61 (joint tort feasors), and 2-62e (indemnity or contribution).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government tortfeasors.</I> A Soldier or U.S. government civilian employee who negligently damages his or her personal property while acting within the scope of employment is not a proper claimant for damage to that property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims by lessors for damage to rental vehicles.</I> Third-party claims arising from the use of rental vehicles will be processed in the same manner as NAFI commercially insured activities after exhaustion of any other remedy under the Government Travel Card Program or the Surface Deployment and Distribution Command Car Rental Agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Third-party damages arising from the use of privately owned vehicles.</I> Third-party tort claims arising within the United States from a Soldier's use of a privately owned vehicle (POV) while allegedly within the scope of employment must be forwarded to the Commander USARCS for review and consultation before final action. The claim will be investigated and any authorization for use ascertained including payment for mileage. A copy of the Soldier's POV insurance policy will be obtained prior to forwarding. If the DA is an additional insurer under applicable state law, the claim will be forwarded to the Soldier's liability carrier for payment. When the tort claim arises in a foreign country, follow the provisions of subpart J of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Claims arising from gratuitous use of DOD or Army vehicles, equipment or facilities.</I> (1) Before the commencement of any event that involves the use of DOD or Army land, vehicles, equipment or Army personnel for community activities, the Command involved should be advised to first determine and weigh the risk to potential third-party claimants against the benefits to the DOD or the Army. Where such risk is excessive, try to obtain an agreement from the sponsoring civilian organization holding the Army harmless. When feasible, third-party liability insurance may be required from the sponsor and the United States added to the policy as a third-party insured.
</P>
<P>(2) When Army equipment and personnel are used for debris removal relief pursuant to the Federal Disaster Relief Act, 42 U.S.C. 5173, the state is required to assume responsibility for third-party claims. The senior judge advocate for a task force engaged in such relief should obtain an agreement requiring the state to hold the Army harmless and establish a procedure for payment by the state. Claims will be received, entered into the TSCA database, investigated and forwarded to state authorities for action.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Real estate claims.</I> Claims for rent, damage, or other payments involving the acquisition, use, possession or disposition of real property or interests therein, are generally payable under AR 405-15. These claims are handled by the Real Estate Claims Office in the appropriate COE District or a special office created for a deployment. Directorate of Real Estate, Office of the Chief of Engineers, has supervisory authority. Claims for damage to real property and incidental personal property, but not for rent (for example, claims arising during a maneuver or deployment) may be payable under subparts C or J of this part. However, priority should be given to the use of AR 405-15 as it is more flexible and expeditious. In contingency operations and deployments, there is a large potential for overlap between contractual property damage claims and noncombat activity/maneuver claims. Investigate carefully to ensure the claim is in the proper channel (claims or real estate), that it is fairly settled, and that the claimant does not receive a double payment. For additional guidance, see subpart J of this part and United States Army Claims Service Europe (USACSEUR) Real Estate/Office of the Judge Advocate Standard Operating Procedures for Processing Claims Involving Real Estate During Contingency Operations (August 20, 2002).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Claims generated by civil works projects.</I> Civil works projects claims arising from tortious activities are defined by whether the negligent or wrongful act or omission arising from a project or activity is funded by a civil works appropriation. Civil works claims are those noncontractual claims which arise from a negligent or wrongful act or omission during the performance of a project or activity funded by civil works appropriations as distinguished from a project or activity funded by Army operation and maintenance funds. Civil works claims are paid out of civil works appropriations to the extent set forth in § 536.71(f). A civil works claim can also arise out of a noncombat activity, for example, an inverse condemnation claim in which flooding exceeds the high water mark. Maritime claims under subpart H of this part are civil works claims when they arise out of the operation of a dam, locks or navigational aid.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.34:</HED>
<P>See parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-1.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.35" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.35   Unique issues related to environmental claims.</HEAD>
<P>Claims for property damage, personal injury, or death arising in the United States based on contamination by toxic substances found in the air or the ground must be reported by USARCS to the Environmental Law Division of the Army Litigation Center and the Environmental Torts Branch of DOJ. Such claims arising overseas must be reported to the Command Claims Service with geographical jurisdiction over the claim and USARCS. Claims for personal injury from contamination frequently arise at an area that is the subject of claims for cleanup of the contamination site. The cleanup claims involve other Army agencies, use of separate funds, and prolonged investigation. Administrative settlement is not usually feasible because settlement of property damage claims must cover all damages, including personal injury. Payment by Defense Environmental Rehabilitation Funds should be considered initially and any such payment should be deducted from any settlement under AR 27-20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.36" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.36   Related remedies.</HEAD>
<P>An ACO or a CPO routinely receives claims or inquiries about claims that clearly are not cognizable under this part. It is the DA's policy that every effort be made to discover another remedy and inform the inquirer as to its nature. Claims personnel will familiarize themselves with the remedies set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-17, to carry out this policy. If no appropriate remedy can be discovered, forward the file to the Commander USARCS, with recommendations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.37" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.37   Importance of the claims investigation.</HEAD>
<P>Prompt and thorough investigation will be conducted on all potential and actual claims for and against the government. Evidence developed during an investigation provides the basis for every subsequent step in the administrative settlement of a claim or in the pursuit of a lawsuit. Claims personnel must gather and record adverse as well as favorable information. The CJA, claims attorney or unit claims officer must preserve their legal and factual findings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.38" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.38   Elements of the investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigation is conducted to ascertain the facts of an incident. Which facts are relevant often depends on the law and regulations applicable to the conduct of the parties involved but generally the investigation should develop definitive answers to such questions as “When?” “Where?” “Who?” “What?” and “How?”. Typically, the time, place, persons, and circumstances involved in an incident may be established by a simple report, but its cause and the resulting damage may require extensive effort to obtain all the pertinent facts.
</P>
<P>(b) The object of the investigation is to gather, with the least possible delay, the best available evidence without accumulating excessive evidence concerning any particular fact. The claimant is often an excellent source of such information and should be contacted early in the investigation, particularly when there is a question as to whether the claim was timely filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.39" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.39   Use of experts, consultants and appraisers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ACOs or CPOs will budget operation and maintenance (O&amp;M) funds for the costs of hiring property appraisers, accident reconstructionists, expert consultants to furnish opinions, and medical specialists to conduct independent medical examinations (IMEs). Other expenses to be provided for from O&amp;M funds include the purchase of documents, such as medical records, and the hiring of mediators. See § 536.53(b). Where the cost exceeds $750 or local funds are exhausted, a request for funding should be directed to the Commander USARCS, with appropriate justification. The USARCS AAO must be notified as soon as possible when an accident reconstruction is indicated.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the claim arises from treatment at an Army MTF, the MEDDAC commander should be requested to fund the cost of an independent consultant's opinion or an IME.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of outside consultants and appraisers should be limited to claims in which liability or damages cannot be determined otherwise and in which the use of such sources is economically feasible, for instance, where property damage is high in amount and not determinable by a government appraiser or where the extent of personal injury is serious and a government IME is neither available nor acceptable to a claimant. Prior to such an examination at an MTF, ensure that the necessary specialists are available and a prompt written report may be obtained.
</P>
<P>(d) Either an IME or an expert opinion is procured by means of a personal services contract under the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), part 37, 48 CFR 37.000 <I>et seq.,</I> through the local contracting office. The contract must be in effect prior to commencement of the records review. Payment is authorized only upon receipt of a written report responsive to the questions asked by the CJA or claims attorney.
</P>
<P>(e) Whenever a source other than claims personnel is used to assist in the evaluation of a claim in which medical information protected by HIPAA is involved, the source must sign an agreement designed to protect the patient's privacy rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.40" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.40   Conducting the investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The methods and techniques for investigating specific categories of claims are set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-25 through 2-34. The investigation of medical malpractice claims should be conducted by a CJA or claims attorney, using a medical claims investigator.
</P>
<P>(b) A properly filed claim must contain enough information to permit investigation. For example, if the claim does not specify the date, location or details of every incident complained of, the claimant or legal representative should be required to furnish the information.
</P>
<P>(c) Request the claimant or legal representative to specify a theory of liability. However, the investigation should not be limited to the theories specified, particularly where the claimant is unrepresented. All logical theories should be investigated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.41" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.41   Determination of liability—generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the FTCA, the United States is liable in the same manner and to the same extent as a private individual under like circumstances in accordance with the law of the place where the act or omission giving rise to the tort occurred (28 U.S.C. 2673 and 2674). This means that liability must rest on the existence of a tort cognizable under state law, hereinafter referred to as a state tort. A finding of state tort liability requires the litigating attorney to prove the elements of duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages as interpreted by federal case law.
</P>
<P>(b) The foregoing principles and requirements will be followed in regard to tort claims against the United States under other subparts, with certain exceptions noted within the individual subparts or particular tort statutes.
</P>
<P>(c) Interpretation will be made in accordance with FTCA case law and also maritime case law where applicable. Additionally, a noncombat activity can furnish the basis for a claim under subparts C, F, and J of this part. Noncombat activities include claims arising out of civil works, such as inverse condemnation.
</P>
<P>(d) Federal, not state or local, law applies to a determination as to who is a federal employee or a member of the armed forces. Under all subparts, the designation “federal employee” excludes a contractor of the United States. See 28 U.S.C. 2671. See however, § 536.23(b)(4)(ii) concerning personal services contractors. For employment identification purposes apply FTCA case law in making a determination.
</P>
<P>(e) Federal, not state or local, law applies to an interpretation of the SOL under all subparts. Minority or incompetence does not toll the SOL. Case law developed under the FTCA will be used in other subparts in interpreting SOL questions.
</P>
<P>(f) Under the FTCA state or local law is used to determine scope of employment and under other subparts for guidance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.42" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.42   Constitutional torts.</HEAD>
<P>A claim for violation of the U.S. Constitution does not constitute a state tort and is not cognizable under any subpart. A constitutional claim will be scrutinized in order to determine whether it is totally or partially payable as a state tort. For example, a Fifth Amendment taking may be payable in an altered form as a real estate claim. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-36.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.43" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.43   Incident to service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the armed forces' claim for personal injury or wrongful death arising incident to service is not payable under any subpart except to the extent permitted by the receiving State under §§ 536.114 through 536.116 (Claims arising overseas); however, a claim by a member of the United States Armed Forces for property loss or damage may be payable under AR 27-20, chapter 11 or, if not, under subparts C, E, F, or G of this part. Derivative claims and claims for indemnity are also excluded.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims for personal injury or wrongful death by members of a foreign military force participating in a joint military exercise or operation arising incident to service are not payable under any subpart. Claims for property loss or damage, but not subrogated claims, may be payable under subpart C of this part. Derivative claims and claims for indemnity or contribution are not payable under any subpart.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.43:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-37.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.44" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.44   FECA and LSHWCA claims exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>A federal or NAFI employee's personal injury or wrongful death claim payable under the Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA) or the Longshore and Harbor Workers Compensation Act (LSHWCA) is not payable under any subpart. Derivative claims are also excluded but a claim for indemnity may be payable under certain circumstances. A federal or NAFI employee's claim for an incident-to-service property loss or damage may be payable under AR 27-20, chapter 11 or, if not, under subparts C, D, F, G, H or J of this part. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-38.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.45" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.45   Statutory exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>This topic is more fully discussed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-39. The exclusions listed below are found at 28 U.S.C. 2680 and apply to subparts C, D, F, and H and §§ 536.107 through 536.113 (Claims arising in the United States) of subpart G, except as noted therein, and not to subparts E, J or §§ 536.107 through 536.113 (Claims arising overseas) of subpart G of this part. A claim is not payable if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Is based upon an act or omission of an employee of the U.S. government, exercising due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation, whether or not such statute or regulation is valid. This exclusion does not apply to a noncombat activity claim.
</P>
<P>(b) Is based upon the exercise or performance or the failure to exercise or perform a discretionary function or duty on the part of a federal agency or an employee of the government, whether or not the discretion is abused. This exclusion does not apply to a noncombat activity claim.
</P>
<P>(c) Arises out of the loss, miscarriage, or negligent transmission of letters or postal matters. This exclusion is not applicable to registered or certified mail claims under subpart C of this part. See § 536.34(i).
</P>
<P>(d) Arises in respect of the assessment or collection of any tax or customs duty, or the detention of any goods or merchandise by any customs or other law enforcement officer. See 28 U.S.C. 2680(c).
</P>
<P>(e) Is cognizable under the SIAA (46 U.S.C. app. 741-752), the PVA (46 U.S.C. app. 781-790), or the AEA (46 U.S.C. app. 740). This exclusion does not apply to subparts C, F, H or J of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Arises out of an act or omission of any federal employee in administering the provisions of the Trading with the Enemy Act, 50 U.S.C. app. 1-44.
</P>
<P>(g) Is for damage caused by the imposition or establishment of a quarantine by the United States.
</P>
<P>(h) Arises out of assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, malicious prosecution, abuse of process, libel, slander, misrepresentation, deceit, or interference with contract rights, except for acts or omissions of investigation of law enforcement officers of the U.S. government with regard to assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, abuse of process or malicious prosecution. This exclusion also does not apply to a health care provider as defined in 10 U.S.C. 1089 and § 536.80 of this part, under the conditions listed therein.
</P>
<P>(i) Arises from the fiscal operations of the U.S. Department of the Treasury or from the regulation of the monetary system.
</P>
<P>(j) Arises out of the combatant activities of U.S. military or naval forces, or the Coast Guard during time of war.
</P>
<P>(k) Arises in a foreign country. This exclusion does not apply to subparts C, E, F, H, J or §§ 536.114 through 536.116 (Claims arising overseas) of subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) Arises from the activities of the Tennessee Valley Authority, 28 U.S.C. 2680(l).
</P>
<P>(m) Arises from the activities of the Panama Canal Commission, 28 U.S.C. 2680(m).
</P>
<P>(n) Arises from the activities of a federal land bank, a federal intermediate credit bank, or a bank for cooperatives, 28 U.S.C. 2680(n).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.45:</HED>
<P>This topic is more fully discussed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-39.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.46" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.46   Other exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory employer.</I> A claim is not payable under any subpart if it is for personal injury or death of any contract employee for whom benefits are provided under any workers' compensation law, if the provisions of the workers' compensation insurance are retrospective and charge an allowable expense to a cost-type contract, or if precluded by state law. See Federal Tort Claims Handbook (FTCH), section II, D7 (posted on the Web at <I>https://www.jagcnet.army.mil/laawsxxi/cds.nsf.</I> Select the link “Claims” under “JAG Publications.”) The statutory employer exclusion also applies to claims that may be covered by the Defense Bases Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651-1654.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Flood exclusion.</I> Within the United States a claim is not payable if it arises from damage caused by flood or flood waters associated with the construction or operation of a COE flood control project, 33 U.S.C. 702(c). See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-40.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ARNG property.</I> A claim is not payable under any subpart if it is for damage to, or loss of, property of a state, commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia caused by ARNG personnel, engaged in training or duty under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504, or 505, who are assigned to a unit maintained by that state, commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-41.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Disaster Relief Act.</I> Within the United States a claim is not payable if it is for damage to, or loss of, property or for personal injury or death arising out of debris removal by a federal agency or employee in carrying out the provisions of the Federal Disaster Relief Act, 42 U.S.C. 5173. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-42.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-justiciability doctrine.</I> A claim is not payable under any subpart if it arises from activities that present a non-justiciable political question. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-43.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>National Vaccine Act. (42 U.S.C. 300aa-1 through 300aa-7).</I> A claim is not payable under any subpart if it arises from the administration of a vaccine unless the conditions listed in the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (42 U.S.C. 300aa-9 through 300aa-19) have been met. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-17c(6)(a).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Defense Mapping Agency.</I> A claim is not payable under any subpart if it arises from inaccurate charting by the Defense Mapping Agency, 10 U.S.C. 456. See FTCH section II, B4s (Web address at paragraph (a) of this section).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Quiet Title Act.</I> Within the U.S., a claim is not payable if it falls under the Quiet Title Act 28 U.S.C. 2409a.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Defense Bases Act.</I> A claim arising outside the United States is not payable if it is covered by the Defense Bases Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651-1654.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.46:</HED>
<P>See parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-40 through 2-43.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.47" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.47   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>To be payable, a claim against the United States under any subpart, except §§ 536.114 through 536.116 (Claims arising overseas), must be filed no later than two years from the date of accrual as determined by federal law. The accrual date is the date on which the claimant is aware of the injury and its cause. The claimant is not required to know of the negligent or wrongful nature of the act or omission giving rise to the claim. The date of filing is the date of receipt by the appropriate federal agency, not the date of mailing. See also § 536.26(a) and parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-44.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.48" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.48   Federal employee requirement.</HEAD>
<P>To be payable, a claim under any subpart except subpart K of this part, §§ 536.153 through 536.157 (Claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees), must be based on the acts or omissions of a member of the armed forces, a member of a foreign military force within the United States with which the United States has a reciprocal claims agreement, or a federal civilian employee. This does not include a contractor of the United States. Apply federal case law for interpretation. See parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-46.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.49" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.49   Scope of employment requirement.</HEAD>
<P>To be payable, a claim must be based on acts or omissions of a member of the armed forces, a member of a foreign military force within the United States with which the United States has a reciprocal claims agreement, or a federal employee acting within the scope of employment, except for subparts E, J, or subpart K of this part, §§ 536.153 through 536.157 (Claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees). A claim arising from noncombat activities must be based on the armed service's official activities. Excluded are claims based on vicarious liability or the holder theory in which the owner of the vehicle is responsible for any injury or damage regardless of who the operator was. See parallel discussion at DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-46.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.50" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.50   Determination of damages—applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Federal Tort Claims Act.</I> The whole law of the place where the incident giving rise to the claim occurred, including choice of law rules, is applicable. Therefore, the law of the place of injury or death does not necessarily apply. Where there is a conflict between local law and an express provision of the FTCA, the latter governs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Military Claims Act or National Guard Claims Act.</I> See subparts C and F of this part. The law set forth in § 536.80 applies only to claims accruing on or after September 1, 1995. The law of the place of the incident giving rise to the claim will apply to claims arising in the United States, its commonwealths, territories and possessions prior to September 1, 1995. The general principles of U.S. tort law will apply to property damage or loss claims arising outside the United States prior to September 1, 1995. Established principles of general maritime law will apply to injury or death claims arising outside the United States prior to September 1, 1995. See <I>Moragne</I> v. <I>States Marine Lines, Inc.</I>, 398 U.S. 375 (1970) and federal case law. Where general maritime law provides no guidance, the general principles of U.S. tort law will apply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The Foreign Claims Act.</I> See subpart J of this part. The law of the place of occurrence applies to the resolution of claims. However, the law of damages set forth in § 536.139 will serve as a guide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act.</I> Maritime law applies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Damages not payable.</I> Under all subparts, property loss or damage refers to actual tangible property. Accordingly, consequential damages, including, but not limited to bail, interest (prejudgment or otherwise), or court costs are not payable. Costs of preparing, filing, and pursuing a claim, including expert witness fees, are not payable. The payment of punitive damages, that is, damages in addition to general and special damages that are otherwise payable, is prohibited. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-56 and 3-4b.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Source of attorney's fees.</I> Attorney's fees are taken from the settlement amount and not added thereto. They may not exceed 20 percent of the settlement amount under any subpart.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.50:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-51.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.51" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.51   Collateral source rule.</HEAD>
<P>Where permitted by applicable state or maritime law, damages recovered from collateral sources are payable under subparts D and H, but not under subparts C, E, F, or J of this part. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-57.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.52" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.52   Subrogation.</HEAD>
<P>Subrogation is the substitution of one person in place of another with regard to a claim, demand or right. It should not be confused with a lien, which is an obligation of the claimant. Applicable state law should be researched to determine the distinction between subrogation and a lien. Subrogation claims are payable under subparts D and H, but not under subparts C, E, F or J of this part. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-58.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.53" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.53   Evaluation of claims—general rules and guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before claims personnel evaluate a claim:
</P>
<P>(1) A claimant or claimant's legal representative will be furnished the opportunity to substantiate the claim by providing essential documentary evidence according to the claim's nature including, but not instead of, the following: Medical records and reports, witness statements, itemized bills and paid receipts, estimates, federal tax returns, W-2 forms or similar proof of loss of earnings, photographs, and reports of appraisals or investigation. If necessary, request permission, through the legal representative, to interview the claimant, the claimant's family, proposed witnesses and treating health care providers (HCPs). In a professional negligence claim, the claimant will submit an expert opinion when requested. State law concerning the requirement for an affidavit of merit should be cited.
</P>
<P>(2) When the claimant or the legal representative fails to respond in a timely manner to informal demands for documentary evidence, interviews, or an independent medical examination (IME), make a written request. Such written request provides notice to the claimant that failure to provide substantiating evidence will result in an evaluation of the claim based only on information currently in the file. When, despite the government's request, there is insufficient information in the file to permit evaluation, the claim will be denied for failure to document it. Failure to submit to an IME or sign an authorization to use medical information protected by HIPAA, for review or evaluation by a source other than claims personnel, are both grounds for denial for failure to document, provided such evaluation is essential to the determination of liability or damages. State a time limit, for example, 30 or 60 days, to furnish the substantiation or expert opinion required in a medical malpractice claim.
</P>
<P>(3) If, in exchange for complying with the government's request for the foregoing information, the claimant or the legal representative requests similar information from the file, the claimant may be provided such information and documentation as is releasable under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP). Additionally, work product may be released if such release will help settle the claim. See § 536.18.
</P>
<P>(b) An evaluation should be viewed from the claimant's perspective. In other words, before denying a claim, first determine whether there is any reasonable basis for compromise. Certain jurisdictional issues and statutory bases may not be open for compromise. The incident to service and FECA exclusions are rarely subject to compromise, whereas the SOL is more subject to compromise. Factual and legal disputes are compromisable, frequently providing a basis for limiting damages, not necessarily grounds for denial. Where a precise issue of dispute is identified and is otherwise unresolvable, mediation by a disinterested qualified person, such as a federal judge, or foreign equivalent for claims arising under the FCA, should be obtained upon agreement with the claimant or the claimant's legal representative. Contributory negligence has given way to comparative negligence in most United States jurisdictions. In most foreign countries, comparative negligence is the rule of law.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.53:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-59.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.54" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.54   Joint tortfeasors.</HEAD>
<P>When joint tortfeasors are liable, it is DA policy to pay only the fair share of a claim attributable to the fault of the United States rather than pay the claim in full and then bring suit against the joint tortfeasor for contribution. If payment from a joint tortfeasor is not forthcoming after the CJA's demand, the United States should settle for its fair share, provided the claimant is willing to hold the United States harmless. Where a joint tortfeasor's liability greatly outweighs that of the United States, the claim should be referred to the joint tortfeasor for action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.55" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.55   Structured settlements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of future periodic payments, including reversionary medical trusts, is encouraged to ensure that the injured party is adequately compensated and able to meet future needs.
</P>
<P>(1) It is necessary to ensure adequate care and compensation for a minor or other incompetent claimant or unemployed survivor over a period of years.
</P>
<P>(2) A medical trust is necessary to ensure the long-term availability of funds for anticipated future medical care, the cost of which is difficult to predict.
</P>
<P>(3) The injured party's life expectancy cannot be reasonably determined or is likely to be shortened.
</P>
<P>(b) Under subpart D of this part, structured settlements cannot be required but are encouraged in situations listed above or where state law permits them. In the case of a minor, every effort should be made to insure that the minor, and not the parents, receives the benefit of the settlement. Annuity payments at the age of majority should be considered. If rejected, a blocked bank account may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) It is the policy of the Department of Justice never to discuss the tax-free nature of a structured settlement.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.55:</HED>
<P>For further discussion, see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-63.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.56" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.56   Negotiations—purpose and extent.</HEAD>
<P>It is DA policy to settle meritorious claims promptly and fairly through direct negotiation at the lowest possible level. The Army's negotiator should not admit liability as such is not necessary. However, the settlement should reflect diminished value where contributory negligence or other value-diminishing factors exist. The negotiator should be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the case, including the claimant's background, the key witnesses, the anticipated testimony and the appearance of the scene. There is no substitute for the claims negotiator's personal study of, and participation in, the case before settlement negotiations begin. If settlement is not possible due to the divergence in the offers, refine the issues as much as possible in order to expedite any subsequent suit. Mediation should be used if the divergence is due to an issue of law affecting either liability or damages. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-64.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.57" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.57   Who should negotiate.</HEAD>
<P>An AAO or, when delegated additional authority, an ACO or a CPO, has authority to settle claims in an amount exceeding the monetary authority delegated by regulation. It is DA policy to delegate USARCS authority, on a case-by-case basis, to an ACO or a CPO possessing the appropriate ability and experience. Only an attorney should negotiate with a claimant's attorney. Negotiations with unrepresented claimants may be conducted by a non-attorney, under the supervision of an attorney. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-65.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.58" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.58   Settlement negotiations with unrepresented claimants.</HEAD>
<P>All aspects of the applicable law and procedure, except the amount to be claimed, should be explained to both potential and actual claimants. The negotiator will ensure that the claimant is aware of whether the negotiator is an attorney or a non-attorney, and that the negotiator represents the United States. As to claims within USARCS' monetary authority, the chronology and details of negotiations should be memorialized with a written record furnished to the claimant. The claimant should understand that it is not necessary to hire an attorney, but when an attorney is needed, the negotiator should recommend hiring one. In a claim where liability is not an issue, the claimant should be informed that if an attorney is retained, the claimant should attempt to negotiate an hourly fee for determination of damages only. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-68.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.59" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.59   Settlement or approval authority.</HEAD>
<P>“Settlement authority” is a statutory term (10 U.S.C. 2735) meaning that officer authorized to approve, deny or compromise a claim, or make final action. “Approval authority” means the officer empowered to settle, pay or compromise a claim in full or in part, provided the claimant agrees. “Final action authority” means the officer empowered to deny or make a final offer on a claim. Determining the proper officer empowered to approve or make final action on a claim depends on the claims statute involved and any limitations that apply under that statute. DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-69, outlines how various authority is delegated among offices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.60" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.60   Splitting property damage and personal injury claims.</HEAD>
<P>Normally, a claim will include all damages that accrue by reason of the incident. Where a claimant has a claim for property damage and personal injury arising from the same incident, the property damage claim may be paid, under certain circumstances, prior to the filing of the personal injury claim. The personal injury claim may be filed later provided it is filed within the applicable statute of limitations. When both property damage and personal injury arise from the same incident, the property damage claim may be paid to either the claimant or, under subparts D or H of this part, the insurer and the same claimant may receive a subsequent payment for personal injury. Only under subparts D or H of this part may the insurer receive subsequent payment for subrogated medical bills and lost earnings when the personal injury claim is settled. The primary purpose of settling an injured claimant's property damage claim before settling the personal injury claim is to pay the claimant for vehicle damage expeditiously and avoid costs associated with delay such as loss of use, loss of business, or storage charges. The Commander USARCS' approval must be obtained whenever the estimated value of any one claim exceeds $25,000, or the value of all claims, actual or potential, arising from the incident exceeds $50,000; however, if the claim arises under the FTCA or AMCSA, only if the amount claimed exceeds $50,000, or $100,000 per incident.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.61" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.61   Advance payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section implements 10 U.S.C. 2736 (Act of September 8, 1961 (75 Stat. 488)) as amended by Public Law 90-521 (82 Stat. 874); Public Law 98-564 (90 Stat. 2919); and Public Law 100-465 (102 Stat. 2005)). No new liability is created by 10 U.S.C. 2736, which merely permits partial advance payments, only under subparts C, F or J of this part, on claims not yet filed. See AR 27-20, paragraph 11-18 for information on emergency partial payments in personnel claims, which are not governed by 10 U.S.C. 2736.
</P>
<P>(b) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) and the Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG) may make advance payments in amounts not exceeding $100,000; the Commander USARCS, in amounts not exceeding $25,000, and the authorities designated in §§ 536.786(4) and (5) and 536.101, in amounts not exceeding $10,000, subject to advance coordination with USARCS, if the estimated total value of the claim exceeds their monetary authority. Requests for advance payments in excess of $10,000 will be forwarded to USARCS for processing.
</P>
<P>(c) Under subpart J of this part, three-member foreign claims commissions may make advance payments under the FCA in amounts not exceeding $10,000, subject to advance coordination with USARCS if the estimated total value of the claim exceeds their monetary authority.
</P>
<P>(d) An advance payment, not exceeding $100,000, is authorized in the limited category of claims or potential claims considered meritorious under subparts C, F or J of this part, that result in immediate hardship. An advance payment is authorized only under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim, or potential claim, must be determined to be cognizable and meritorious under the provisions of subparts C, F or J of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An immediate need for food, clothing, shelter, medical or burial expenses, or other necessities exists.
</P>
<P>(3) The payee, so far as can be determined, would be a proper claimant, including an incapacitated claimant's spouse or next-of-kin.
</P>
<P>(4) The total damage sustained must exceed the amount of the advance payment.
</P>
<P>(5) A properly executed advance payment acceptance agreement has been obtained. This acceptance agreement must state that it does not constitute an admission of liability by the United States and that the amount paid shall be deducted from any subsequent award.
</P>
<P>(e) There is no statutory authority for making advance payments for claims payable under subparts D or H of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.61:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-71.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.62" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.62   Action memorandums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When required.</I> (1) All claims will be acted on prior to being closed except for those that are transferred. For claims on which suit is filed before final action, see § 536.66. A settlement authority may deny or pay in full or in part any claim in a stated amount within his or her delegated authority. An approval authority may pay in full or in part, but may not deny, a claim in a stated amount within his or her delegated authority. If any one claim arising out of the same incident exceeds a settlement or approval authority's monetary jurisdiction, all claims from that incident will be forwarded to the authority having jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) In any claim which must be supported by an expert opinion as to duty, negligence, causation or damages, an expert opinion must be submitted upon request. All opinions must meet the standards set forth in Federal Rule of Evidence 702.
</P>
<P>(3) An action memorandum is required for all final actions regardless of whether payment is made electronically. The memorandum will contain a sufficient rendition of the facts, law or damages to justify the action being taken. (A model action is posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Memorandum of Opinion.</I> Upon completion of the investigation, the ACO or CPO will prepare a memorandum of opinion in the format prescribed at DA Pam 27-162, when a claim is forwarded to USARCS for action. This requirement can be waived by the USARCS AAO.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim brought by a claims authority or superior.</I> A claim filed by an approval or settlement authority or his or her superior officer in the chain of command or a family member of either will be investigated and forwarded for final action, without recommendation, to the next higher settlement authority (in an overseas area, this includes a command claims service) or to USARCS.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.62:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-72.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.63" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.63   Settlement agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When required.</I> (1) A claimant's acceptance of an award constitutes full and final settlement and release of any and all claims against the United States and its employees, except as to payments made under §§ 536.60 and 536.61. A settlement agreement is required prior to payment on all tort claims, whether the claim is paid in full or in part.
</P>
<P>(2) DA Form 1666 (Claims Settlement Agreement) may be used for payment of COE claims of $2,500 or less or all Army Central Insurance Fund and Army and Air Force Exchange Service claims.
</P>
<P>(3) DA Form 7500 (Tort Claim Payment Report) will be used for all payments from the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), for example, FTCA claims of $2,500 or less, FCA and MCA claims of $100,000 or less and all maritime claims regardless of amount.
</P>
<P>(4) Financial Management Service (FMS) Forms 194, 196 and 197 will be used for all payments from the Judgment Fund, for example, FTCA claims exceeding $2,500, MCA and FCA claims exceeding $100,000.
</P>
<P>(5) An alternative settlement agreement will be used when the claimant is represented by an attorney, or when any of the above settlement agreement forms are legally insufficient (such as when multiple interests are present, a hold harmless agreement is reached, or there is a structured settlement). For further discussion, see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-73c.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unconditional settlement.</I> The settlement agreement must be unconditional. The settlement agreement represents a meeting of the minds. Any changes to the agreement must be agreed upon by all parties. The return of a proffered settlement agreement with changes written thereon or on an accompanying document represents, in effect, a counteroffer and must be resolved. Even if the claimant signs the agreement and objects to its terms, either in writing or verbally, the settlement is defective and the objection must be resolved. Otherwise a final offer should be made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Court approval</I>—(1) <I>When required.</I> Court approval is required in a wrongful death claim, or where the claimant is a minor or incompetent. The claimant is responsible to obtain court approval in a jurisdiction that is locus of the act or omission giving rise to the claim or in which the claimant resides. The court must be a state or local court, including a probate court. If the claimant can show that court approval is not required under the law of the jurisdiction where the incident occurred or where the claimant resides, the citation of the statute will be provided and accompany the payment documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attorney representation.</I> If the claimant is a minor or incompetent, the claimant must be represented by a lawyer. If not already represented, the claimant should be informed that the requirement is mandatory unless state or local law expressly authorizes the parents or a person in loco parentis to settle the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Costs.</I> The cost of obtaining court approval will be factored into the amount of the settlement; however, the amount of the costs and other costs will not be written into the settlement, only the 20% limitation on attorney fees will be included.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Claims involving an estate or personal representative of an estate.</I> On claims presented on behalf of a decedent's estate, the law of the state having jurisdiction should be reviewed to determine who may bring a claim on behalf of the estate, if court appointment of an estate representative is required, and if court approval of the settlement is required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature requirements.</I> (1) Except as noted in paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(6) of this section, all settlement agreements will be signed individually by each claimant. A limited power of attorney signed by the claimant specifically stating the amount being accepted and authorizing an attorney at law or in fact to sign is acceptable when the claimant is unavailable to sign. The signatures of the administrator or executor of the estate, appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction or authorized by local law, are required. The signatures of all adult beneficiaries, acknowledging the settlement, should be obtained unless permission is given by Commander USARCS. Court approval must be obtained where required by state law. If not required by state law, the citation of the state statute will accompany the payment document. Additionally, all adult heirs will sign as acknowledging the settlement. In lieu thereof, where the adult heirs are not available, the estate representative will acknowledge that all heirs have been informed of the settlement.
</P>
<P>(2) Generally, only a court-appointed guardian of a minor's estate, or a person performing a similar function under court supervision, may execute a binding settlement agreement on a minor's claim. In the United States, the law of the state where the minor resides or is domiciled will determine the age of majority and the nature and type of court approval that is needed, if any. The age of majority is determined by the age at the time of settlement, not the date of filing.
</P>
<P>(3) For claims arising in foreign countries where the amount agreed upon does not exceed $2,500, the requirement to obtain a guardian may be eliminated. For settlements over $2,500, whether or not the claim arose in the United States, refer to applicable local law, including the law of the foreign country where the minor resides.
</P>
<P>(4) In claims where the claimant is an incompetent, and for whom a guardian has been appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the signature of the guardian must be obtained. In cases in which competence of the claimant appears doubtful, a written statement by the plaintiff's attorney and a member of the immediate family should be obtained.
</P>
<P>(5) Settlement agreements involving subrogated claims must be executed by a person authorized by the corporation or company to act in its behalf and accompanied by a document signed by a person authorized by the corporation or company to delegate execution authority.
</P>
<P>(6) If it is believed that the foregoing requirements are materially impeding settlement of the claim, bring the matter to the attention of the Commander USARCS for appropriate resolution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attorneys' fees and costs.</I> (1) Attorneys' fees for all subparts in this part 536 fall under the American Rule and are payable only out of the up front cash in any settlement. Attorneys' fees will be stated separately in the settlement agreement as a sum not to exceed 20% of the award.
</P>
<P>(2) Costs are a matter to be determined solely between the attorney and the claimant and will not be set forth or otherwise enumerated in the settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Claims involving workers' compensation carriers.</I> The settlement of a claim involving a claimant who has elected to receive workers' compensation benefits under local law may require the consent of the workers' compensation insurance carrier, and in certain jurisdictions, the state agency that has authority over workers' compensation awards. Accordingly, claims approval and settlement authorities should be aware of local requirements.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claims involving multiple interests.</I> Where two or more parties have an interest in the claim, obtain signatures on the settlement agreement from all parties. Examples are where both the subrogee and subrogor file a single claim for property damage, where both landlord and tenant file a claim for damage to real property, or when a POV is leased, both the lessor or lessee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Claims involving structured settlements.</I> All settlement agreements involving structured settlements will be prepared by the Tort Claims Division, USARCS, and approved by the Chief or Deputy Chief, Tort Claims Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.64" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.64   Final offers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When claims personnel believe that a claim should be compromised, and after every reasonable effort has been made to settle at less than the amount claimed, a settlement authority will make a written final offer within his or her monetary jurisdiction or forward the claim to the authority having sufficient monetary jurisdiction, recommending a final offer under the applicable statute. The final offer notice will contain sufficient detail to outline each element of damages as well as discuss contributory negligence, the SOL or other reasons justifying a compromise offer. The offer letter should include language indicating that if the offer is not accepted within a named time period, for example, 30 or 60 days the offer is withdrawn and the claim is denied.
</P>
<P>(b) A final offer under subpart D of this part will notify the claimant of the right to sue, not later than six months from the notice's date of mailing, and of the right to request reconsideration. The procedures for processing a request for reconsideration are set forth in § 536.89.
</P>
<P>(c) Under subparts C or F of this part, the notice will contain an appeal paragraph. A similar procedure will be followed in subparts E and H of this part. Subpart J of this part sets forth its own procedures for FCA final offers. The procedures for processing an appeal are set forth in § 536.79 of this part. The letter must inform claimants of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) They must accept the offer within 60 days or appeal. The appeal should state a counteroffer.
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the official who will act on the appeal, and the requirement that the appeal will be addressed to the settlement authority who last acted on the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) No form is prescribed for the appeal, but the notice of appeal must fully set forth the grounds for appeal or state that it is based on the record as it exists at the time of denial or final offer.
</P>
<P>(4) The appeal must be postmarked not later than 60 days after the date of mailing of the final notice of action. If the last day of the appeal period falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, as specified in Rule 6a of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, the following day will be considered the final day of the appeal period.
</P>
<P>(d) Where a claim for the same injury falls under both subparts C and D of this part (the MCA and the FTCA), and the denial or final offer applies equally to each such claim, the letter of notification must advise the claimant that any suit brought on any portion of the claim filed under the FTCA must be brought not later than six months from the date of mailing of the notice of final offer and any appeal under subpart C of this part must be made as stated in paragraph (c) of this section. Further, the claimant must be advised that if suit is brought, action on any appeal under subpart C of this part will be held in abeyance pending final determination of such suit.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon request, the settlement authority may extend the six-month reconsideration or 60-day appeal period provided good cause is shown. The claimant will be notified as to whether the request is granted under the FTCA and that the request precludes the filing of suit under the FTCA for 6 months. Only one reconsideration is authorized. Accordingly, that claimant should be informed of the need to make all submissions timely.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.64:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-74.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.65" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.65   Denial notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where there is no reasonable basis for compromise, a settlement authority will deny a claim within his or her monetary jurisdiction or forward the claim recommending denial to the settlement authority that has jurisdiction. The denial notice will contain instructions on the right to sue or request reconsideration. The notice will state the basis for denial. No admission of liability will be made. A notice to an unrepresented claimant should detail the basis for denial in lay language sufficient to permit an informed decision as to whether to request appeal or reconsideration. In the interest of deterring reconsideration, appeal or suit, a denial notice may be releasable under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure or by the work product documents doctrine.
</P>
<P>(b) Regardless of the claim's nature or the statute under which it may be considered, letters denying claims on jurisdictional grounds that are valid, certain, and not easily overcome (and for this reason no detailed investigation as to the merits of the claim was conducted), must state that denial on such grounds is not to be construed as an opinion on the merits of the claim or an admission of liability. In medical malpractice claims, the denial should state that the file is being referred to U.S. Army Medical Command for review. If sufficient factual information exists to make a tentative ruling on the merits of the claim, liability may be expressly denied.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.65:</HED>
<P>See § 536.53, on denying a claim for failure to substantiate. In addition, the procedures and rules in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-69, settlement and approval authority, apply equally to the denial of claims. See also DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-75.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.66" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.66   The “Parker” denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When suit is filed before final action is taken on a subpart D of this part claim, a denial letter will be issued only upon request of DOJ or the trial attorney. If suit is filed prematurely or in error, the claimant may be requested to withdraw the suit without prejudice. Such a request must be coordinated with the trial attorney.
</P>
<P>(b) Claimants who have filed companion claims should be notified that, due to suit being filed, no action can be taken pending the outcome of suit and they may file suit if they wish.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.66:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-76.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.67" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.67   Mailing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Thirty or sixty day letters seeking information from claimants, final offers and denial notices are time-sensitive as they require a claimant to take additional action within certain time limits. Accordingly, follow procedures to ensure that the date of mailing and receipt of a request for reconsideration are documented. Use certified mail with return receipt requested (or registered mail, if being sent to a foreign country other than by the military postal system) to mail such notices. Upon receipt, an appeal or request for reconsideration will be date-time stamped, logged in, and acknowledged as set forth in § 536.68.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.67:</HED>
<P>See also AR 27-20, paragraph 13-5, and DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-77.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.68" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.68   Appeal or reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal or a request for reconsideration will be acknowledged in writing. A request for reconsideration under subpart D of this part invokes the six-month period during which suit cannot be filed, 28 CFR 14.9(b). The acknowledgment letter will underscore this restriction.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the contents of the appeal or request for reconsideration indicate, additional investigation will be conducted and the original action changed if warranted. Except for subpart J of this part, which sets forth separate rules for FCCs, if the relief requested is not warranted the settlement authority will forward the claim to a higher settlement authority with a claims memorandum of opinion (see § 536.62) stating the reasons why the request is invalid.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.68:</HED>
<P>See also DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-78.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.69" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.69   Retention of file.</HEAD>
<P>After final action has been taken, the settlement authority will retain the file until at least one month after either the period of filing suit or the appeal has expired and until all data has been entered into the database. A paid claim file will be retained until final action has been taken on all other claims arising out of the same incident. If any single claim arising out of the same incident must be forwarded to higher authority for final action, all claims files for that incident will be forwarded at the same time. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-79.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.70" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.70   Preparation and forwarding of payment vouchers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An unrepresented claimant will be listed as the sole payee. Joint claimants will not be listed since settlement agreements must specify the amount payable to each claimant individually and each must be issued a separate check.
</P>
<P>(b) When a claimant is represented by an attorney, only one payment voucher will be issued with the claimant and the attorney as joint payees. The payment will be sent to the office of the claimant's attorney. The attorney of record, either an individual or firm designated by the claimant, will be the co-payee. If claimant has been represented by other attorneys in the same claim, such attorneys will not be listed as payees, even if they have a lien. Satisfaction of any such fee will be a matter between the claimant and such attorney. If payment is made by electronic transfer, the funds will be paid into the account of the claimant. However, if requested, the payment may be made into the attorney's escrow account provided the claimant has provided written authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) In a structured settlement the structured settlement broker will be the sole payee, who is authorized to issue checks for the amounts set forth in the settlement agreement. The up-front cash payment may be deposited into an escrow account established for the benefit of the claimant.
</P>
<P>(d) If a claimant is a minor or has been declared incompetent by a court or other authority authorized to do so, payment will be made to the court-appointed guardian of the minor or incompetent, at a financial institution approved by the court approving the settlement.
</P>
<P>(e) If the claimant is representing a deceased's estate on a wrongful death claim, or a survival action on behalf of the deceased, the payment will be made to the court-appointed representative of the estate. No payment will be made directly to the estate.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.70:</HED>
<P>See also § 536.63 and DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-73 and 2-81.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.71" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.71   Fund sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) 31 U.S.C. 1304 sets forth the type and limits of claims payable out of the Judgment Fund. Only final payments that are not payable out of agency funds are allowable, per the Treasury Financial Manual, Volume I, Part 6, Chapter 3110, at Section 3115, September 2000. Threshold amounts for payment from the judgment fund vary according to the subpart and statutes under which a claim is processed. To determine the threshold amount for any given payment procedure one must arrive at a sum of all awards for all claims arising out of that incident, including derivative claims. A joint amount is not acceptable. A claim for injury to a spouse or a child is a separate claim from one for loss of consortium or services by a spouse or parent. The monetary limits of $2,500 set forth in subpart D and $100,000 set forth in subparts C, F or J of this part, apply to each separate claim.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for $2,500 or less arising under subpart D or E, or under §§ 536.107 through 536.113 of subpart G, is paid from the open claims allotment (see AR 27-20 paragraph 13-6 b(1)) or, if arising from a project funded by a civil works appropriation, from COE civil works funds. The Department of the Treasury pays any settlement exceeding $2,500 in its entirety, from the Judgment Fund. However, if a subpart G of this part, §§ 536.107 through 536.113 claim is treated as a noncombat activity claim, payment is made as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The first $100,000 for each claimant on a claim settled under subparts C, F or J of this part is paid from the open claims allotment. Any amount over $100,000 is paid out of the Judgment Fund.
</P>
<P>(d) If not over $500,000, a claim arising under subpart H of this part is paid from the open claims allotment or civil works project funds as appropriate. A claim exceeding $500,000 is paid entirely by a deficiency appropriation.
</P>
<P>(e) AAFES or NAFI claims are paid from nonappropriated funds, except when such claims are subject to apportionment between appropriated and nonappropriated funds. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-80h.
</P>
<P>(f) COE claims arising out of projects not funded out of civil works project funds are payable from the open claims allotment not to exceed $2,500 for subpart D claims and $100,000 for claims arising from subparts C, F or J of this part and from the Judgment Fund, over such amounts.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 536.71:</HED>
<P>For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-80.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.72" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.2.11.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.72   Finality of settlement.</HEAD>
<P>A claimant's acceptance of an award, except for an advance payment or a split payment for property damage only, constitutes a release of the United States and its employees from all liability. Where applicable, a release should include the ARNG or the sending State. For further discussion see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-82.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Claims Cognizable Under the Military Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.73" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.73   Statutory authority for the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory authority for this subpart is contained in the Act of August 10, 1956 (70A Stat. 153, 10 U.S.C. 2733), commonly referred to as the Military Claims Act (MCA), as amended by 90-521, September 1968 (82 Stat. 874); Public Law 90-522, September 1968 (82 Stat. 875); Public Law 90-525, September 1968 (82 Stat. 877); Public Law 93-336, July 8, 1974 (88 Stat. 291); Public Law 98-564, October 1984, (98 Stat. 2918); and Public Law 103-337, October 1994 (108 Stat. 2664).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.74" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.74   Scope for claims under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The guidance set forth in this subpart applies worldwide and prescribes the substantive bases and special procedural requirements for the settlement of claims against the United States for death or personal injury, or damage to, or loss or destruction of, property:
</P>
<P>(1) Caused by military personnel or civilian employees (enumerated in § 536.23(b)) acting within the scope of their employment, except for non-federalized Army National Guard soldiers as explained in subpart F of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Incident to the noncombat activities of the armed services (see AR 27-20, Glossary).
</P>
<P>(b) A tort claim arising in the United States, its commonwealths, territories, and possessions may be settled under this subpart if the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) does not apply to the type of claim under consideration or if the claim arose incident to noncombat activities. For example, a claim by a service member for property loss or damage incident to service may be settled if the loss arises from a tort and is not payable under AR 27-20, Chapter 11.
</P>
<P>(c) A tort claim arising outside the United States may be settled under this subpart only if the claimant has been determined to be an inhabitant (normally a resident) of the United States at the time of the incident giving rise to the claim. See § 536.136(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.75" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.75   Claims payable under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise prescribed, a claim for personal injury, death, or damage to, or loss or destruction of, property is payable under this subpart when:
</P>
<P>(1) Caused by an act or omission of military personnel or civilian employees of the DA or DOD, acting within the scope of their employment, that is determined to be negligent or wrongful; or
</P>
<P>(2) Incident to the noncombat activities of the armed services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Property.</I> Property that may be the subject of claims for loss or damage under this subpart includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Real property used and occupied under lease (express, implied, or otherwise). See § 536.34(m) and paragraph 2-15m of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(2) Personal property bailed to the government under an agreement (express or implied), unless the owner has expressly assumed the risk of damage or loss.
</P>
<P>(3) Registered or insured mail in the DA's possession, even though the loss was caused by a criminal act.
</P>
<P>(4) Property of a member of the armed forces that is damaged or lost incident to service, if such a claim is not payable as a personnel claim under AR 27-20, chapter 11.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maritime claims.</I> Claims that arise on the high seas or within the territorial waters of a foreign country are payable unless settled under subpart H of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.76" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.76   Claims not payable under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Those resulting wholly from the claimant's or agent's negligent or wrongful act. (See § 536.77(a)(1)(i) on contributory negligence.)
</P>
<P>(b) Claims arising from private or domestic obligations rather than from government transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims based solely on compassionate grounds.
</P>
<P>(d) A claim for any item, the acquisition, possession, or transportation of which was in violation of DA directives, such as illegal war trophies.
</P>
<P>(e) Claims for rent, damage, or other payments involving the acquisition, use, possession or disposition of real property or interests therein by and for the Department of the Army (DA) or Department of Defense (DOD). See § 536.34(m) and paragraph 2-15m of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(f) Claims not in the best interests of the United States, contrary to public policy, or otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the governing statute (10 U.S.C. 2733); for example, claims for property damage or loss or personal injury or death of inhabitants of unfriendly foreign countries or individuals considered to be unfriendly to the United States. When a claim is considered not payable for the reasons stated in this section, it will be forwarded for appropriate action to the Commander USARCS, with the recommendations of the responsible claims office.
</P>
<P>(g) Claims presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the United States, or any country allied with such enemy country unless the appropriate settlement authority determines that the claimant is, and at the time of the incident was, friendly to the United States. A prisoner of war or an interned enemy alien is not excluded from bringing an otherwise payable claim for damage, loss, or destruction of personal property in the custody of the government.
</P>
<P>(h) A claim for damages or injury, which a receiving State should adjudicate and pay under an international agreement, unless a consistent and widespread alternative process of adjudicating and paying such claims has been established within the receiving State. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 3-4a, for further discussion of the conditions of waiver.
</P>
<P>(i) Claims listed in §§ 536.42, 536.43, 536.44, 536.45, and 536.46 of this part, except for the exclusion listed in § 536.45(k). Additionally, the exclusions in § 536.45(a), (b), (e) and (k) do not apply to a claim arising incident to noncombat activities.
</P>
<P>(j) Claims based on strict or absolute liability and similar theories.
</P>
<P>(k) Claims payable under subparts D or J of this part, or under AR 27-20, chapter 11.
</P>
<P>(l) Claims involving DA vehicles covered by insurance in accordance with requirements of a foreign country unless coverage is exceeded or the insurer is bankrupt. When an award is otherwise payable and an insurance settlement is not reasonably available, a field claims office should request permission from the Commander USARCS to pay the award, provided that an assignment of benefits is obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.77" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.77   Applicable law for claims under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principles</I>—(1) <I>Tort claims excluding claims arising out of noncombat activities.</I> (i) In determining liability, such claims will be evaluated under general principles of law applicable to a private individual in the majority of American jurisdictions, except where the doctrine of contributory negligence applies. The MCA requires that contributory negligence be interpreted and applied according to the law of the place of the occurrence, including foreign (local) law for claims arising in foreign countries (see 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(4)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Claims are cognizable when based on those acts or omissions recognized as tortious by a majority of jurisdictions that require proof of duty, negligence, and proximate cause resulting in compensable injury or loss subject to the exclusions set forth at § 536.76. Strict or absolute liability and similar theories are not grounds for liability under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tort claims arising out of noncombat activities.</I> Claims arising out of noncombat activities under §§ 536.75(a)(2) and (b) are not tort claims and require only proof of causation. However, the doctrine of contributory negligence will apply, to the extent set forth in 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(4) and paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Principles applicable to all subpart C claims.</I> (i) Interpretation of meanings and construction of questions of law under the MCA will be determined in accordance with federal law. The formulation of binding interpretations is delegated to the Commander USARCS, provided that the statutory provisions of the MCA are followed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Scope of employment will be determined in accordance with federal law. Follow guidance from reported FTCA cases. The formulation of a binding interpretation is delegated to the Commander USARCS, provided the statutory provisions of the MCA are followed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The collateral source doctrine is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The United States will only be liable for the portion of loss or damage attributable to the fault of the United States or its employees. Joint and several liability is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(v) No allowance will be made for court costs, bail, interest, inconvenience or expenses incurred in connection with the preparation and presentation of the claim.
</P>
<P>(vi) Punitive or exemplary damages are not payable.
</P>
<P>(vii) Claims for negligent infliction of emotional distress may only be entertained when the claimant suffered physical injury arising from the same incident as the claim for emotional distress, or the claimant is the immediate family member of an injured party/decedent, was in the zone of danger and manifests physical injury for the emotional distress. Claims for intentional infliction of emotional distress will be evaluated under general principles of American law as set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section and will be considered as an element of damages under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Claims for either negligent or intentional infliction of emotional distress are excluded when they arise out of assault, battery, false arrest, false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, abuse of process, libel, or slander, as defined in § 536.45(h).
</P>
<P>(viii) In a claim for personal injury or wrongful death, the total award for non-economic damages to any direct victim and all persons, including those derivative to the claim, who claim injury by or through that victim will not exceed $500,000. However, separate claims for emotional distress considered under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are not subject to the $500,000 cap for the wrongful death claim as they are not included in the wrongful death claim; rather, each is a separate claim with its own $500,000 cap under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same or similar harmful activity or conditions is treated as one incident for the purposes of determining the extent of liability. If the claim accrued prior to September 1, 1995, these limitations do not apply. Any such limitation in the law of the place of occurrence will apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury claims</I>—(1) <I>Eligible claimants.</I> Only the following may claim:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who suffer physical injuries or intentional emotional distress, but not subrogees (when claiming property loss or damage, medical expenses or lost earnings); see paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spouses for loss of consortium, but not parent-child or child-parent loss of consortium;
</P>
<P>(iii) Members of the immediate family who were in the zone of danger of the injured person as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Economic damages.</I> Elements of economic damage are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Past expenses, including medical, hospital and related expenses actually incurred. Nursing and similar services furnished gratuitously by a family member are compensable. Itemized bills or other suitable proof must be furnished. Expenses paid by, or recoverable from, insurance or other sources are not recoverable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Future medical, hospital, and related expenses. When requested, a medical examination is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Past lost earnings as substantiated by documentation from both the employer and a physician.
</P>
<P>(iv) Loss of earning capacity and ability to perform services, as substantiated by acceptable medical proof. When requested, past federal income tax forms must be submitted for the previous five years and the injured person must undergo an independent medical examination (IME). Estimates of future losses must be discounted to present value at a discount rate of one to three percent after deducting for income taxes. When a medical trust providing for all future care is established, personal consumption may be deducted from future losses.
</P>
<P>(v) Compensation paid to a person for essential household services that the injured person can no longer provide for himself or herself. These costs are recoverable only to the extent that they neither have been paid by, nor are recoverable from, insurance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-economic damages.</I> Elements of non-economic damages are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Past and future conscious pain and suffering.</I> This element is defined as physical discomfort and distress as well as mental and emotional trauma. Loss of enjoyment of life, whether or not it is discernible by the injured party, is compensable. The inability to perform daily activities that one performed prior to injury, such as recreational activities, is included in this element. Supportive medical records and statements by health care personnel and acquaintances are required. When requested, the claimant must submit to an interview.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emotional distress.</I> Emotional distress under the conditions set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Physical disfigurement.</I> This element is defined as impairment resulting from an injury to a person that causes diminishment of beauty or symmetry of appearance rendering the person unsightly, misshapen, imperfect, or deformed. A medical statement and photographs, documenting claimant's condition, may be required.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Loss of consortium.</I> This element is defined as conjugal fellowship of husband and wife and the right of each to the company, society, cooperation, and affection of the other in every conjugal relation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wrongful death claims.</I> The law of the place of the incident giving rise to the claim will apply to claims arising in the United States, its commonwealths, territories or possessions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Claimant.</I> (i) Only one claim may be presented for a wrongful death. It shall be presented by the decedent's personal representative on behalf of all parties in interest. The personal representative must be appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction prior to any settlement and must agree to make distribution to the parties in interest under court jurisdiction, if required.
</P>
<P>(ii) Parties in interest are the surviving spouse, children, or dependent parents to the exclusion of all other parties. If there is no surviving spouse, children, or dependent parents, the next of kin will be considered a party or parties in interest. A dependent parent is one who meets the criteria set forth by the Internal Revenue Service to establish eligibility for a DOD identification card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Economic loss.</I> Elements of economic damages are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Loss of monetary support of a family member from the date of injury causing death until expiration of decedent's worklife expectancy. When requested, the previous five years federal income tax forms must be submitted. Estimates must be discounted to present value at one to three percent after deducting for taxes and personal consumption. Loss of retirement benefits is compensable and similarly discounted after deductions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loss of ascertainable contributions, such as money or gifts to other than family member claimants as substantiated by documentation or statements from those concerned.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loss of services from date of injury to end of life expectancy of the decedent or the person reasonably expected to receive such services, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Expenses as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. In addition, burial expenses are allowable. Expenses paid by, or recoverable from, insurance or other sources are not recoverable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-economic loss.</I> Elements of damages are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-death conscious pain and suffering.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loss of companionship, comfort, society, protection, and consortium suffered by a spouse for the death of a spouse, a child for the death of a parent, or a parent for the death of a child.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loss of training, guidance, education, and nurture suffered by a child under the age of 18 for the death of a parent, until the child becomes 18 years old.
</P>
<P>(iv) Claims for the survivors' emotional distress, mental anguish, grief, bereavement, and anxiety are not payable, in particular claims for intentional or negligent infliction of emotional distress to survivors arising out of the circumstances of a wrongful death are personal injury claims falling under § 536.77(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Property damage claims.</I> The following provisions apply to all claims arising in the United States, its commonwealths, territories and possessions.
</P>
<P>(1) Such claims are limited to damage to, or loss of, tangible property and costs directly related thereto. Consequential damages are not included. (See § 536.50(e) and DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-56a.)
</P>
<P>(2) Proper claimants are described in § 536.27. Claims for subrogation are excluded. (See § 536.27(e)). However, there is no requirement that the claimant use personal casualty insurance to mitigate the loss.
</P>
<P>(3) Allowable elements of damages and measure of proof (additions to these elements are permissible with concurrence of the Commander USARCS). These elements are discussed in detail in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-54.
</P>
<P>(i) Damages to real property.
</P>
<P>(ii) Damage to or loss of personal property, or personal property that is not economically repairable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loss of use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Towing and storage charges.
</P>
<P>(v) Loss of business or profits.
</P>
<P>(vi) Overhead.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.78" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.78   Settlement authority for claims under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of the Secretary of the Army.</I> The Secretary of the Army, the Army General Counsel, as the Secretary's designee, or another designee of the Secretary of the Army may approve settlements in excess of $100,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delegations of Authority.</I> (1) Denials and final offers made under the delegations set forth herein are subject to appeal to the authorities specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) and the Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG) are delegated authority to pay up to $100,000 in settlement of a claim and to disapprove a claim regardless of the amount claimed.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commander USARCS is delegated authority to pay up to $25,000 in settlement of a claim and to disapprove or make a final offer in a claim regardless of the amount claimed.
</P>
<P>(4) The Judge Advocate (JA) or Staff Judge Advocate (SJA), subject to limitations that USARCS may impose, and chiefs of a command claims service are delegated authority to pay up to $25,000 in settlement, regardless of the amount claimed, and to disapprove or make a final offer in a claim presented in an amount not exceeding $25,000.
</P>
<P>(5) A head of an area claims office (ACO) is delegated authority to pay up to $25,000 in settlement of a claim, regardless of the amount claimed, and to disapprove or make a final offer in a claim presented in an amount not exceeding $25,000. A head of a claims processing office (CPO) with approval authority is delegated authority to approve, in full or in part, claims presented for $5,000 or less, and to pay claims regardless of the amount claimed, provided an award of $5,000 or less is accepted in full satisfaction of the claim.
</P>
<P>(6) Authority to further delegate payment authority is set forth in § 536.3(g)(1) of this part. For further discussions also related to approval, settlement and payment authority see also paragraph 2-69 of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement of multiple claims arising from a single incident.</I> (1) Where a single act or incident gives rise to multiple claims cognizable under this subpart, and where one or more of these claims apparently cannot be settled within the monetary jurisdiction of the authority initially acting on them, no final offer will be made. All claims will be forwarded, along with a recommended disposition, to the authority who has monetary jurisdiction over the largest claim for a determination of liability. However, where each individual claim, including derivative claims, can be settled within the monetary authority initially acting on them, and none are subject to denial, all such claims may be settled even though the total amount exceeds the monetary jurisdiction of the approving or settlement authority.
</P>
<P>(2) If such authority determines that federal liability is established, he or she may return claims of lesser value to the field claims office for settlement within that office's jurisdiction. The field claims office must take care to avoid compromising the higher authority's discretion by conceding liability in claims of lesser amount.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals.</I> Denials or final offers on claims described as follows may be appealed to the official designated:
</P>
<P>(1) For claims presented in an amount over $100,000, final decisions on appeals will be made by the Secretary of the Army or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) For claims presented for $100,000 or less, and any denied claim, regardless of the amount claimed, in which the denial was based solely upon an incident-to-service bar, exclusionary language in a federal statute governing compensation of federal employees for job-related injuries (see § 536.44), or untimely filing, TJAG or TAJAG will render final decisions on appeals, except that claims presented for $25,000 or less, and not acted upon by the Commander USARCS, are governed by paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For claims presented for $25,000 or less, final decisions on appeals will be made by the Commander USARCS, his or her designee, or the chief of a command claims service when such claims are acted on by an ACO under such service's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(4) Sections 536.64, 536.65, and 536.66 of this part set forth the rules relating to the notification of appeal rights and processing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Delegated authority.</I> Authority delegated by this section will not be exercised unless the settlement or approval authority has been assigned an office code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.79" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.79   Action on appeal under the Military Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appeal will be examined by the settlement authority who last acted on the claim, or his or her successor, to determine if the appeal complies with the requirements of this regulation. The settlement authority will also examine the claim file and decide whether additional investigation is required; ensure that all allegations or evidence presented by the claimant, agent, or attorney are documented; and ensure that all pertinent evidence is included. If claimants state that they appeal, but do not submit supporting materials within the 60-day appeal period or an approved extension thereof, these appeals will be determined on the record as it existed at the time of denial or final offer. Unless action under paragraph (b) of this section is taken, the claim and complete investigative file, including any additional investigation, and a tort claims memorandum will be forwarded to the appropriate appellate authority for necessary action on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) If the evidence in the file, including information submitted by the claimant with the appeal and that found by any necessary additional investigation, indicates that the appeal should be granted in whole or in part, the settlement authority who last acted on the claim, or his or her successor, will attempt to settle the claim. If a settlement cannot be reached, the appeal will be forwarded in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) As to an appeal that requires action by TJAG, TAJAG, or the Secretary of the Army or designee, the Commander USARCS may take the action in paragraph (b) of this section or forward the claim together with a recommendation for action. All matters submitted by the claimant will be forwarded and considered.
</P>
<P>(d) Since an appeal under this subpart is not an adversarial proceeding, no form of hearing is authorized. A request by the claimant for access to documentary evidence in the claim file to be used in considering the appeal will be granted unless law or regulation does not permit access.
</P>
<P>(e) If the appellate authority upholds a final offer or authorizes an award on appeal from a denial of a claim, the notice of the appellate authority's action will inform the claimant that he or she must accept the award within 180 days of the date of mailing of the notice of the appellate authority's action or the award will be withdrawn, the claim will be deemed denied, and the file will be closed without future recourse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.80" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.80   Payment of costs, settlements, and judgments related to certain medical malpractice claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Costs, settlements, or judgments cognizable under 10 U.S.C. 1089(f) for personal injury or death caused by any physician, dentist, nurse, pharmacist, paramedic, or other supporting personnel (including medical and dental technicians, nurse assistants, therapists, and Red Cross volunteers of the Army Medical Department (AMEDD), AMEDD personnel detailed for service with other than a federal department, agency, or instrumentality and direct contract personnel identified in the contract as federal employees), will be paid provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The alleged negligent or wrongful actions or omissions occurred during the performance of medical, dental, or related health care functions (including clinical studies and investigations) while the medical or health care employee was acting within the scope of employment.
</P>
<P>(2) Such personnel furnish prompt notification and delivery of all process served or received and other documents, information, and assistance as requested.
</P>
<P>(3) Such personnel cooperate in the defense of the action on its merits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for contribution or indemnification.</I> All requests for contribution or indemnification under this section should be forwarded to the Commander USARCS for action, following the procedures set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.81" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.81   Payment of costs, settlements, and judgments related to certain legal malpractice claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Costs, settlements, and judgments cognizable under 10 U.S.C. 1054(f) for damages for personal injury or loss of property caused by any attorney, paralegal, or other member of a legal staff will be paid if:
</P>
<P>(1) The alleged negligent or wrongful actions or omissions occurred during the provision or performance of legal services while the attorney or legal employee was acting within the scope of duties or employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Such personnel furnish prompt notification and delivery of all process served or received and other documents, information, and assistance as requested;
</P>
<P>(3) Such personnel cooperate in the defense of the action on the merits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for contribution or indemnification.</I> All requests for contribution or indemnification under this section should be forwarded to the Commander USARCS, for action, following the procedures set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.82" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.82   Reopening an MCA claim after final action by a settlement authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Original approval or settlement authority (including TAJAG, TJAG, Secretary of the Army, or the Secretary's designees).</I> (1) An original settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on, a claim brought under the MCA upon request of the claimant or the claimant's authorized agent. In the absence of such a request, the settlement authority may on his or her initiative reconsider a claim.
</P>
<P>(2) An original approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct action on an MCA claim previously settled in whole or in part (even if a settlement agreement has been executed) when it appears that the original action was incorrect in law or fact based on the evidence of record at the time of the action or subsequently received. For errors in fact, the new evidence must not have been discoverable at the time of final action by either the Army or the claimant through the exercise of reasonable diligence. Corrective action may also be taken when an error contrary to the parties' mutual understanding is discovered in the original action. If the settlement or approval authority determines that their original action was incorrect, they will modify the action and, if appropriate, make a supplemental payment. The basis for a change in action will be stated in a memorandum included in the file. For example, a claim was settled for $15,000, but the settlement agreement was typed to read “$1,500” and the error is not discovered until the file is being prepared for payment. If appropriate, a corrected payment will be made. A settlement authority who has reason to believe that a settlement was obtained by fraud on the part of the claimant or claimant's legal representative, will reopen action on that claim and, if the belief is substantiated, correct the action. The basis for correcting an action will be stated in a memorandum and included in the file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>A successor approval or settlement authority (including TAJAG, TJAG, Secretary of the Army, or the Secretary's designees)</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on, an MCA claim upon request of the claimant or the claimant's authorized agent only on the basis of fraud, substantial new evidence, errors in calculation, or mistake (misinterpretation) of law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement correction.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct a predecessor's action on a claim that was previously settled in whole or in part for the same reasons that an original authority may do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time requirement for filing request for reconsideration.</I> Requests postmarked more than five years from the date of mailing of final notice will be denied based on the doctrine of laches.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finality of action.</I> Action by the appropriate authority (either affirming the prior action or granting full or granting full or partial relief) is final under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2735. Action upon a request for reconsideration constitutes final administrative disposition of a claim. No further requests for reconsideration will be allowed except on the basis of fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Claims Cognizable Under the Federal Tort Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.83" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.83   Statutory authority for the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory authority for this subpart is the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) (60 Stat. 842, 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680), as amended by Public Law 89-506, July 1966 (80 Stat. 306); Public Law 93-253, March 1974 (88 Stat. 50); Public Law 97-124, December 1981 (93 Stat. 1666); Public Law 100-694, November 1988 (102 Stat. 4563-67); and Public Law 101-552, November 1996 (104 Stat. 734); and as implemented by the Attorney General's Regulations (28 CFR 14.1-14.11 and its appendix), all of which are posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.84" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.84   Scope for claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart applies in the United States, its commonwealths, territories and possessions (all hereinafter collectively referred to as United States or U.S.). It prescribes the substantive bases and special procedural requirements under the FTCA and the implementing Attorney General's regulations for the administrative settlement of claims against the United States based on death, personal injury, or damage to, or loss of, property caused by negligent or wrongful acts or omissions by the United States or its employees acting within the scope of their employment. If a conflict exists between this part and the Attorney General's regulations, the latter governs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of the Military Claims Act.</I> A tort claim arising in the United States, its commonwealths, territories, and possessions may be settled under subpart C of this part if the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) does not apply to the type of claim under consideration or if the claim arose incident to noncombat activities. If a claim is filed under both the FTCA and the Military Claims Act (MCA), or when both statutes apply equally, final action thereon will follow the procedures set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-74 through 2-76, discussing final offers and denial letters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.85" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.85   Claims payable under the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise prescribed, claims for death, personal injury, or damage to, or loss of, property (real or personal) are payable under this subpart when the injury or damage is caused by negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of military personnel or civilian employees of the Department of the Army or Department of Defense while acting within the scope of their employment under circumstances in which the United States, if a private person, would be liable to the claimant in accordance with the law of the place where the act or omission occurred. The FTCA is a limited waiver of sovereign immunity without which the United States may not be sued in tort. Similarly, neither the Fifth Amendment nor any other provision of the U.S. Constitution creates or permits a federal cause of action allowing recovery in tort. Immunity must be expressly waived, as the FTCA waives it.
</P>
<P>(b) To be payable, a claim must arise from the acts or omissions of an “employee of the government” under 28 U.S.C. 2671. Categories of such employees are listed in § 536.23(b) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.86" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.86   Claims not payable under the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable if it is identified as an exclusion in DA Pam 27-162, paragraphs 2-36 through 2-43.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.87" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.87   Applicable law for claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The applicable law for claims falling under the Federal Tort Claims Act is set forth in §§ 536.41 through 536.52.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.88" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.88   Settlement authority for claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subject to the Attorney General's approval of payments in excess of $200,000 for a single claim, or if the total value of all claims and potential claims arising out of a single incident exceeds $200,000 (for which USARCS must write an action memorandum for submission to the Department of Justice), the following officials are delegated authority to settle (including payment in full or in part, or denial) and make final offers on claims under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG);
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG); and
</P>
<P>(3) The Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ACO heads.</I> A head of an area claims office (ACO) is delegated authority to pay up to $50,000 in settlement of a claim, regardless of the amount claimed, and to disapprove or make a final offer in a claim presented in an amount not exceeding $50,000, provided the value of all claims and potential claims arising out of a single incident does not exceed $200,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CPO heads.</I> A head of a claims processing office (CPO) with approval authority is delegated authority to approve, in full or in part, claims presented for $5,000 or less, and to pay claims regardless of amount, provided an award of $5000 or less is accepted in full satisfaction of the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Further guidance.</I> Authority to further delegate payment authority is set forth in § 536.3(g)(1) of this part. For further discussions related to approval, settlement and payment authority, see paragraphs 2-69 and 2-71 of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement of multiple claims from a single incident.</I> (1) Where a single act or incident gives rise to multiple claims cognizable under this subpart, and where one claim cannot be settled within the monetary jurisdiction for one claim of the authority acting on the claim or all claims cannot be settled within the monetary jurisdiction for a single incident, no final offer will be made. All claims will be forwarded, along with a recommended disposition, to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commander USARCS determines that all claims can be settled for a total of $200,000 or less, he may return claims to the field office for settlement. If the Commander USARCS, determines that all claims cannot be settled for a total of $200,000, he must request Department of Justice authority prior to settlement of any one claim. The field claims office must not concede liability by paying any one claim of lesser value.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.89" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.89   Reconsideration of Federal Tort Claims Act claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reconsideration of paid claims.</I> Under the provision of 28 U.S.C. 2672, neither an original or successor authority may reconsider a claim which has been paid except as expressly set forth below. Payment of an amount for property damage will bar payment for personal injury or death except for a split claim provided the provisions of § 536.60 are followed. Supplemental payments for either property or injury are barred by 10 U.S.C. 2672. Accordingly, claimants will be informed that only one claim or payment is permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of right to reconsideration.</I> Notice of disapproval or final offer issued by an authority listed in § 536.88(b) will advise the claimant of a right to reconsideration to be submitted in writing not later than six months from the date of mailing the notice. Such a request will suspend the requirement to bring suit for a minimum of six month or until action is taken on the request. The claimant will be so informed. See the Attorney General's Regulations at 28 CFR 14.9(b), posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Original approval or settlement authority</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration.</I> An original settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on, a claim brought under the FTCA upon request of the claimant or the legal representative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement correction.</I> An original approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct action on a claim previously settled in whole or in part (even if a settlement agreement has been executed) when an error contrary to the parties' mutual understanding is discovered in the original action. For example: a claim was settled for $15,000, but the settlement agreement was typed to read “$1,500” and the error is not discovered until the file is being prepared for payment. If appropriate, a corrected payment will be made. An approval or settlement authority who has reason to believe that a settlement was obtained by fraud on the part of the claimant or claimant's legal representative will reopen action on that claim, and if the belief is substantiated, correct the action. The basis for correcting an action will be stated in a memorandum and included in the file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>A successor approval or settlement authority</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on, an FTCA claim upon request of the claimant, the claimant's authorized agent, or the claimant's legal representative only on the basis of fraud, substantial new evidence, errors in calculation, or mistake (misinterpretation) of law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement correction.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct a predecessor's action on a claim that was previously settled in whole or in part for the same reasons that an original authority may do so.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirement to forward a request for reconsideration.</I> When full relief is not granted, forward all requests for reconsideration of an ACO's denial or final offer to the Commander USARCS for action. Include all investigative material and legal analyses generated by the request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action prior to forwarding.</I> A request for reconsideration should disclose fully the legal and/or factual bases that the claimant has asserted as grounds for relief and provide appropriate supporting documents or evidence. Following completion of any investigation or other action deemed necessary for an informed disposition of the request, the approval or settlement authority will reconsider the claim and attempt to settle it, granting relief as warranted. When further settlement efforts appear unwarranted, the entire file with a memorandum of opinion will be forwarded to the Commander USARCS. The claimant will be informed of such transfer.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Finality of action.</I> Action by the appropriate authority (either affirming the prior action or granting full or partial relief) upon a request for reconsideration constitutes final administrative disposition of a claim. No further requests for reconsideration will be allowed except on the basis of fraud. Attempted further requests for reconsideration on other grounds will not toll the six-month period set forth in 28 U.S.C. 2401(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Claims Cognizable Under the Non-Scope Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.90" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.90   Statutory authority for the Non-Scope Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory authority for this subpart is set forth in the Act of October 1962, 10 U.S.C. 2737, 76 Stat. 767, commonly called the “Non-Scope Claims Act (NSCA).” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.91" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.91   Scope for claims under the Non-Scope Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies worldwide and prescribes the substantive bases and special procedural requirements for the administrative settlement and payment of not more than $1,000 for any claim against the United States for personal injury, death or damage to, or loss of, property caused by military personnel or civilian employees, incident to the use of a U.S. vehicle at any location, or incident to the use of other U.S. property on a government installation, which claim is not cognizable under any other provision of law.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, a “government installation” is a facility having fixed boundaries owned or controlled by the government, and a “vehicle” includes every description of carriage or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as means of transportation on land (1 U.S.C. 4).
</P>
<P>(c) Any claim in which there appears to be a dispute about whether the employee was acting within the scope of employment will be considered under subparts C, D, or F of this part. Only when all parties, including an insurer, agree that there is no “in scope” issue will the claim be considered under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.92" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.92   Claims payable under the Non-Scope Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A claim for personal injury, death, or damage to, or loss of, property, real or personal, is payable under this subpart when:
</P>
<P>(1) Caused by negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of Department of Defense or Department of the Army (DA) military personnel or civilian employees, as listed in § 536.23(b):
</P>
<P>(i) Incident to the use of a vehicle belonging to the United States at any place or;
</P>
<P>(ii) Incident to the use of any other property belonging to the United States on a government installation.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is not payable under any other claims statute or regulation available to the DA for the administrative settlement of claims.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury or death.</I> A claim for personal injury or death is allowable only for the cost of reasonable medical, hospital, or burial expenses actually incurred and not otherwise furnished or paid by the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property loss or damage.</I> A claim for damage to or loss of property is allowable only for the cost of reasonable repairs or value at time of loss, whichever is less.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.93" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.93   Claims not payable under the Non-Scope Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>Under this subpart, a claim is not payable that:
</P>
<P>(a) Results in whole or in part from the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or his or her agent or employee. The doctrine of comparative negligence does not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Is for medical, hospital, or burial expenses furnished or paid by the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) Is for any element of damage pertaining to personal injuries or death other than as provided in § 536.93(b). All other items of damage, for example, compensation for loss of earnings and services, diminution of earning capacity, anticipated medical expenses, physical disfigurement and pain and suffering are not payable.
</P>
<P>(d) Is for loss of use of property or for the cost of substitute property, for example, a rental.
</P>
<P>(e) Is legally recoverable by the claimant under an indemnifying law or indemnity contract. If the claim is in part legally recoverable, the part recoverable by the claimant is not payable.
</P>
<P>(f) Is a subrogated claim.
</P>
<P>(g) In some circumstances some claims may be partially payable. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 5-4 for more information on claims that may be partially payable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.94" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.94   Settlement authority for claims under the Non-Scope Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The following are delegated authority to pay up to $1,000 in settlement of each claim arising out of one incident and to disapprove a claim presented in any amount under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG);
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG);
</P>
<P>(3) The Commander USARCS;
</P>
<P>(4) The Judge Advocate (JA) or Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) or chief of a command claims service; and
</P>
<P>(5) The head of an area claims office (ACO).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval authority.</I> The head of a claims processing office (CPO) with approval authority is delegated authority to approve and pay, in full or in part, claims presented for $1,000 or less and to compromise and pay, regardless of amount claimed, an agreed award of $1,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Further guidance.</I> Authority to further delegate payment authority is set forth in § 536.3(g)(1) of this part. For further discussions also related to approval, settlement and payment authority, see also paragraphs 2-69 and 2-71 of DA Pam 27-162.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.95" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.95   Reconsideration of Non-Scope Claims Act claims.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.89 addressing reconsideration apply and are incorporated herein by reference. If the claim is not cognizable under the Federal Tort Claims Act, appellate procedures under the Military Claims Act or NGCA apply.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Claims Cognizable Under the National Guard Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.96" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.96   Statutory authority for the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory authority for this subpart is contained in the Act of September 1960 (32 U.S.C. 715, 74 Stat. 878), commonly referred to as the “National Guard Claims Act” (NGCA), as amended by Public Law 87-212, (75 Stat. 488), September 1961; Public Law 90-486, (82 Stat. 756), August 1968; Public Law 90-521, (82 Stat. 874), September 1968; Public Law 90-525, (82 Stat. 877), September 1968; Public Law 91-312, (84 Stat. 412), July 1970; Public Law 93-336, (88 Stat. 291), July 1974; and Public Law 98-564, (98 Stat. 2918), October 1984.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.97" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.97   Scope for claims under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies worldwide and prescribes the substantive bases and special procedural regulations for the settlement of claims against the United States for death, personal injury, damage to, or loss or destruction of property.
</P>
<P>(a) Soldiers of the Army National Guard (ARNG) can perform military duty in an active duty status under the authority of Title 10 of the United States Code, in a full-time National Guard duty or inactive-duty training status under the authority of Title 32 of the United States Code, or in a state active duty status under the authority of a state code.
</P>
<P>(1) When ARNG soldiers perform active duty, they are under federal command and control and are paid from federal funds. For claims purposes, those soldiers are treated as active duty soldiers. The NGCA, 32 U.S.C. 715, does not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) When ARNG soldiers perform full-time National Guard duty or inactive-duty training, they are under state command and control and are paid from federal funds. The NGCA does apply, but as explained in paragraph (c) of this section it is seldom used.
</P>
<P>(3) When ARNG soldiers perform state active duty, they are under state command and control and are paid from state funds. Federal claims statutes do not apply, but state claims statutes may apply.
</P>
<P>(b) The ARNG also employs civilians, referred to as technicians and employed under 32 U.S.C. 709. Technicians are usually, but not always, ARNG soldiers who perform the usual 15 days of annual training (a category of full-time duty) and 48 drills (inactive-duty training) per year.
</P>
<P>(c) NGCA coverage applies only to ARNG soldiers performing full-time National Guard duty or inactive-duty training and to technicians. However, since the NGCA's enactment in 1960, Congress has also extended Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) coverage to these personnel.
</P>
<P>(1) In 1968, technicians, who were state employees formerly, were made federal employees. Along with federal employee status came FTCA coverage. Technicians no longer have any state status, albeit they are hired, fired, and administered by a state official, the Adjutant General, acting as the agent of the federal government.
</P>
<P>(2) In 1981, Congress extended FTCA coverage to ARNG soldiers performing full-time National Guard duty or inactive-duty training (such as any training or other duty under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502-505). Unlike making technicians federal employees, this extension of coverage did not affect their underlying status as state military personnel.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims arising from the negligent acts or omissions of ARNG soldiers performing full-time National Guard duty or inactive-duty training, or of technicians, will be processed under the FTCA. Therefore, the NGCA is generally relevant only to claims arising from noncombat activities or outside the United States. Additionally, claims by members of the National Guard may be paid for property loss or damage incident to service if the claim is based on activities falling under this subpart and is not payable under AR 27-20, chapter 11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.98" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.98   Claims payable under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.75 apply to claims arising under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.99" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.99   Claims not payable under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.76 apply to claims arising under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.100" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.100   Applicable law for claims under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.77 apply to claims arising under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.101" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.101   Settlement authority for claims under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.78 apply to claims arising under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.102" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.6.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.102   Actions on appeal under the National Guard Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 536.79 apply to claims arising under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Claims Cognizable Under International Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.103" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.103   Statutory authority for claims cognizable under international claims agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The authority for claims presented or processed under this subpart is set forth in the following federal laws and bi- or multinational agreements:
</P>
<P>(a) 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 10 U.S.C. 2734b (the International Agreements Claims Act) as amended, for claims arising overseas under international agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) Various international agreements, such as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) and the Partnership for Peace (PFP) SOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.104" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.104   Current agreements in force.</HEAD>
<P>Current listings of known agreements in force are also posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.105" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.105   Responsibilities generally/international agreements claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commander USARCS is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing policy guidance to command claims services or other responsible judge advocate (JA) offices on SOFA or other treaty reimbursement programs implementing 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b.
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring the reimbursement system to ensure that programs for the proper verification and certification of reimbursement are in place.
</P>
<P>(3) Monitoring funds reimbursed to or by foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities in the continental United States (CONUS).</I> The responsibility for implementing these agreements within the United States has been delegated to the Secretary of the Army (SA). The SA, in turn, has delegated that responsibility to the Commander USARCS, who is in charge of the receiving State office for the United States, as prescribed in DODD 5515.8. The Commander USARCS is responsible for maintaining direct liaison with sending State representatives and establishing procedures designed to carry out the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.106" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.106   Definitions for international agreements claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Force and civilian component of force.</I> Members of the sending State's armed forces on temporary or permanent official duty within the receiving State, civilian employees of the sending State's armed forces, and those individuals acting in an official capacity for the sending State's armed forces. However, under provisions of the applicable SOFAs the sending State and the receiving State may agree to exclude from the definition of “force” certain individuals, units or formations that would otherwise be covered by the SOFA. Where such an exclusion has been created, this subpart will not apply to claims arising from actions or omission by those individuals, units or formations. “Force and civilian component of force” also includes claims arising out of acts or omissions made by military or civilian personnel, regardless of nationality, who are assigned or attached to, or employed by, an international headquarters established under the provisions of the Protocol on the Status of International Military Headquarters Set Up Pursuant to the North Atlantic Treaty, dated August 28, 1952, such as Supreme Allied Command, Atlantic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of claims under agreements</I>—(1) <I>Intergovernmental claims.</I> Claims of one contracting party against any other contracting party for damage to property owned by its armed services, or for injury or death suffered by a member of the armed services engaged in the performance of official duties, are waived. Claims above a minimal amount for damage to property owned by a governmental entity other than the armed services may be asserted. NATO SOFA, Article VIII, paragraph 1-4; Singapore SOFA, Article XVI, paragraph 2-3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Third-party scope claims.</I> Claims arising out of any acts or omissions of members of a force or the civilian component of a sending State done in the performance of official duty or any other act, omission, or occurrence for which the sending State is legally responsible shall be filed, considered and settled in accordance with the laws and regulations of the receiving State with respect to claims arising from the activities of its own armed service; see, for example, NATO SOFA, Article VIII, paragraph 5.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ex gratia claims.</I> Claims arising out of tortious acts or omissions not done in the performance of official duties shall be considered by the sending State for an “ex gratia” payment that is made directly to the injured party; see, for example, NATO SOFA, Article VIII, paragraph 6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.107" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.107   Scope for international agreements claims arising in the United States.</HEAD>
<P>This section sets forth procedures and responsibilities for the investigation, processing, and settlement of claims arising out of any acts or omissions of members of a foreign military force or civilian component present in the United States or a territory, commonwealth, or possession thereof under the provisions of cost sharing reciprocal international agreements which contain claims settlement provisions applicable to claims arising in the United States. Article VIII of the NATO SOFA has reciprocal provisions applying to all NATO member countries; the Partnership for Peace (PFP) Agreement has similiar provisions, as do the Singapore and Australian SOFAs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.108" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.108   Claims payable under international agreements (for those arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within the United States, Art. VIII, NATO SOFA applies to claims arising within the North Atlantic Treaty Area, which includes CONUS and its territories and possessions north of the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees north latitude). This excludes Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and parts of Hawaii. Third-party scope claims are payable under subpart D or, if the claim arises incident to noncombat activities, under subpart C of this part. Maritime claims are payable under subpart H of this part. The provisions of these subparts on what claims are payable apply equally here. The members of the foreign force or civilian component must be acting in pursuance of the applicable treaty's objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) Within the United States, third-party ex gratia claims are payable only by the sending State and are not payable under subpart E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.109" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.109   Claims not payable under international agreements (for those arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>The following claims are not payable:
</P>
<P>(a) Claims arising from a member of a foreign force or civilian component's acts or omissions that do not accord with the objectives of a treaty authorizing their presence in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims arising from the acts or omissions of a member of a foreign force or civilian component who has been excluded from SOFA coverage by agreement between the sending State and the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) Third-party scope claims arising within the United States that are not payable under subparts C, D, or H of this part are listed as barred under those subparts. As sending State forces are considered assimilated into the U.S. Armed Services for purposes of the SOFAs, their members are also barred from receiving compensation from the United States when they are injured incident to their service, <I>Daberkow</I> v. <I>United States</I>, 581 F.2d 785 (9th Cir. 1978).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.110" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.110   Notification of incidents arising under international agreements (for claims arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>To enable USARCS to properly discharge its claims responsibilities under the applicable SOFAs, it must be notified of all incidents, including off-duty incidents, in which members of a foreign military force or civilian component are involved. Any member or employee of the U.S. armed services who learns of an incident involving a member of a foreign military force or civilian component resulting in personal injury, death, or property damage will immediately notify the judge advocate (JA) or legal officer at the installation or activity to which such person is assigned or attached. The JA or legal officer receiving such notification will in turn notify the Commander USARCS. If the member is neither assigned nor attached to any installation or activity within the United States, the Commander USARCS, will be notified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.111" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.111   Investigation of claims arising under international agreements (for those claims arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>Responsibility for investigating an incident rests upon the area claims office (ACO) or claims processing office (CPO) responsible for the geographic area in which the incident occurred. The Commander USARCS, an ACO, and a CPO are authorized to designate the legal office of the installation at which the member of the foreign force or civilian component is attached, including the legal office of another armed force, to carry out the responsibility to investigate. The investigation will comply with the responsible Service's implementing claims regulation. When the member is neither assigned nor attached within the United States, the Commander USARCS will furnish assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.112" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.112   Settlement authority for claims arising under international agreements (for those claims arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>Settlement authority is delegated to the Commander USARCS, except for settlement amounts exceeding the Commander's authority as set forth in subparts C, D, or H of this part, or in those cases where settlement is reserved to a higher authority. Pursuant to the applicable SOFA, the Commander USARCS will report the proposed settlement to the sending State office for concurrence or objection. See, for example, NATO SOFA, Article VIII.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.113" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.113   Assistance to foreign forces for claims arising under international agreements (as to claims arising in the United States).</HEAD>
<P>As claims arising from activities of members of NATO, Partnership for Peace, Singaporean, or Australian forces in the United States are processed in the same manner as those arising from activities of U.S. government personnel. All JAs and legal offices will provide assistance similar to that provided to U.S. armed services personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.114" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.114   Scope for claims arising overseas under international agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth guidance on claims arising from any act or omission of soldiers or members of the civilian component of the U.S. armed services done in the performance of official duty or arising from any other act or omission or occurrence for which the U.S. armed services are responsible under an international agreement. Claims incidents arising in countries for which the SOFA requires the receiving State to adjudicate and pay the claims in accordance with its laws and regulations are subject to partial reimbursement by the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims by foreign inhabitants based on acts or omissions outside the scope of official duties are cognizable under subpart J of this part. Claims arising from nonscope acts or omissions by third parties who are not foreign inhabitants are cognizable under subpart E but not under subparts C or F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.115" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.115   Claims procedures for claims arising overseas under international agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) SOFA provisions that call for the receiving State to adjudicate claims have been held to be the exclusive remedy for claims against the United States, <I>Aaskov</I> v. <I>Aldridge,</I> 695 F. Supp. 595 (D.D.C. 1988); <I>Dancy</I> v. <I>Department of the Army</I>, 897 F. Supp. 612 (D.D.C. 1995).
</P>
<P>(b) SOFA provisions that call for the receiving State to adjudicate claims against the United States usually refer to claims by third parties brought against members of the force or civilian component. This includes claims by tourists or business travelers as well as inhabitants of foreign countries. Depending on how the receiving State interprets the particular SOFA's class of proper claimants, the receiving State may also consider claims by U.S. soldiers, civilian employees, and their family members. Chiefs of command claims services or other Army JA offices responsible for claims that arise in countries bound by SOFA or other treaty provisions requiring a receiving State to consider claims against the United States will ensure that all claims personnel know the receiving State's policy on which persons or classes of persons are proper claimants under such provisions. When a claim is filed both with the receiving State and under either the Military Claims Act (MCA) or Foreign Claims Act (FCA), the provisions of § 536.76(h) of this part and DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 3-4a apply.
</P>
<P>(c) When SOFA provisions provide for receiving state claims consideration, the time limit for filing such claims may be much shorter than the two years otherwise allowed under the FCA or MCA. For example, receiving state claims offices in Germany require that a claim be filed under the SOFA within three months of the date that the claimant is aware of the U.S. involvement. If the filing period is about to expire for claims arising in Germany, have the claimant fill out a claim form, make two copies, and date-stamp each copy as received by the a sending State claims office. Return the date-stamped original of the claim to the claimant with instructions to promptly file with the receiving State claims office. Keep one date-stamped copy as a potential claim. Forward one date-stamped copy of the claim to the U.S. Army Claims Service Europe (USACSEUR). This may toll the applicable German statute of limitations. Additionally, many receiving state claims offices do not require claimants to demand a sum certain. All claims personnel must familiarize themselves with the applicable receiving state law and procedures governing SOFA claims.
</P>
<P>(d) All foreign inhabitants who file claims against the United States that fall within the receiving State's responsibility, such as claims based on acts or omissions within the scope of U.S. Armed Forces members' or civilian employees' duties, must file the claim with the appropriate receiving State office. Those U.S. inhabitants whose claims would be otherwise cognizable under the Military Claims Act (subpart C of this part) and whom the receiving State deems proper claimants under the SOFA must also file with the receiving State.
</P>
<P>(e) A claim filed with, and considered by, a receiving State under a SOFA or other international agreement claims provision may be considered under other subparts of this part only if the receiving State denied the claim on the basis that it was not cognizable under the treaty or agreement provisions. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 3-4a(2), for conditions of waiver of the foregoing requirement. See also §§ 536.76(h) and 536.138(j) of this part. When a claimant has filed a claim with a receiving State and received payment, or the claim has been denied on the merits, such action will be the claimant's final and exclusive remedy and will bar any further claims against the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.116" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.7.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.116   Responsibilities as to claims arising overseas under international agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Command claims services or other responsible JA offices within whose jurisdiction SOFA or other treaty provisions provide for a claim reimbursement system, and where DA has been assigned single-service responsibility for the foreign country seeking reimbursement (see § 536.17) are responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing programs for verifying, certifying, and reimbursing claims payments. Such service or JA office will provide a copy of its procedures implementing the program to the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(2) Providing the Commander USARCS with budget estimates for reimbursements in addition to the reports required by AR 27-20, paragraph 13-7.
</P>
<P>(3) Providing the Commander USARCS each month in which payments are made, with statistical information on the number of individual claims reimbursed, the total amount paid by the foreign government, and the total amount reimbursed by the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) Providing the Commander USARCS with a quarterly report showing total reimbursements paid during the quarter for maneuver damage and tort claims classified according to major categories of damage determined by the Commander USARCS, and an update on major issues or activities that could affect the reimbursement system's operation or funding.
</P>
<P>(b) Command claims services or other responsible Army JA offices will ensure that all claims personnel within their areas of responsibility:
</P>
<P>(1) Receive annual training on the receiving State's claims procedures, including applicable time limitations, procedures and the responsible receiving State claims offices' locations.
</P>
<P>(2) Screen all new claims and inquiries about claims to identify those claimants who must file with the receiving State.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that all such claimants are informed of this requirement and the applicable time limitation.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that all applicable SOFA claims based on incidents occurring in circumstances that bring them within the United States' primary sending State jurisdiction are fully investigated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Maritime Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.117" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.117   Statutory authority for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>The Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act (AMCSA) (10 U.S.C. 4801-04, 4806, as amended) authorizes the Secretary of the Army or his designee to administratively settle or compromise admiralty and maritime claims in favor of, and against, the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.118" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.118   Related statutes for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The AMCSA permits the settlement of claims that would ordinarily fall under the Suits in Admiralty Act (SIAA), 46 U.S.C. app. 741-752; the Public Vessels Act (PVA), 46 U.S.C. app. 781-790; or the Admiralty Extension Act (AEA), 46 U.S.C. app. 740. Outside the United States the AMCSA may be used to settle admiralty claims in lieu of the Military Claims Act or Foreign Claims Act. Within the United States, filing under the AMCSA is not mandatory for causes of action as it is for the SIAA or PVA.
</P>
<P>(b) Similar maritime claims settlement authority is exercised by the Department of the Navy under 10 U.S.C. 7363 and 7621-23 and by the Department of the Air Force under 10 U.S.C. 9801-9804 and 9806.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.119" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.119   Scope for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>The AMCSA applies worldwide and includes claims that arise on high seas or within the territorial waters of a foreign country. At 10 U.S.C. 4802 it provides for the settlement or compromise of claims for:
</P>
<P>(a) Damage caused by a vessel of, or in the service of, the Department of the Army (DA) or by other property under the jurisdiction of the DA.
</P>
<P>(b) Compensation for towage and salvage service, including contract salvage, rendered to a vessel of, or in the service of, the DA or other property under the jurisdiction of the DA.
</P>
<P>(c) Damage that is maritime in nature and caused by tortious conduct of U.S. military personnel or federal civilian employees, an agent thereof, or property under the Army's jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.120" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.120   Claims payable as maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is cognizable under this subpart if it arises in or on a maritime location, involves some traditional maritime nexus or activity, and is caused by the wrongful act or omission of a member of the U.S. Army, Department of Defense (DOD) or DA civilian employee, or an agent thereof, while acting within the scope of employment. This class of claims includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Damage to a ship, boat, barge, or other watercraft;
</P>
<P>(b) An injury that involves a ship, boat, barge, or other watercraft;
</P>
<P>(c) Damage to a wharf, pier, jetty, fishing net, farm facilities or other structures in, on, or adjacent to any body of water;
</P>
<P>(d) Damage or injury on land or on water arising under the AEA and allegedly due to operation of an Army-owned or leased ship, boat, barge, or other watercraft;
</P>
<P>(e) An injury that occurs on board an Army ship, boat, barge or other watercraft; and
</P>
<P>(f) Crash into water of an Army aircraft.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.121" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.121   Claims not payable as maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>Under this subpart, claims are not payable if they:
</P>
<P>(a) Are listed in §§ 536.42, 536.43, 536.44, 536.45 (except at (e) and (k)), and 536.46;
</P>
<P>(b) Are not maritime in nature;
</P>
<P>(c) Are not in the best interests of the United States, are contrary to public policy, or are otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the governing statute, for example, claims for property loss or damage or personal injury or death by inhabitants of unfriendly foreign countries or by individuals considered to be unfriendly to the United States. When a claim is considered not payable for the reasons stated in this section, it will be forwarded for appropriate action to the Commander USARCS, along with the recommendations of the responsible claims office.
</P>
<P>(d) Are presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the United States, or any country allied with such enemy country, unless the appropriate settlement authority determines that the claimant is and, at the time of incident, was friendly to the United States. A prisoner of war or an interned enemy alien is not excluded or barred from bringing a claim for damage, loss, or destruction of personal property while held in the custody of the government if the claim is otherwise payable.
</P>
<P>(e) Are for damages or injuries that a receiving State should pay for under an international agreement. See § 536.34(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.122" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.122   Limitation of settlement of maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within the United States the period of completing an administrative settlement under the AMCSA is subject to the same time limitation as that for beginning suit under the SIAA or PVA; that is, a two-year period from the date the cause of the action accrued. The claimant must have agreed to accept the settlement and it must be approved for payment by the Secretary of the Army or other approval authority prior to the end of such period. The presentation of a claim, or its consideration by the DA, neither waives nor extends the two-year limitation period and the claimant should be so informed, in writing, when the claim is acknowledged. See § 536.28.
</P>
<P>(b) For causes of action under the AEA, filing an administrative claim is mandatory. However, suit is required under the two-year time limit applicable to the SIAA and PVA, even though the AEA provides that no suit shall be filed under six months after filing a claim.
</P>
<P>(c) For causes of action arising outside the United States, there is no time limitation for completing an administrative settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.123" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.123   Limitation of liability for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>For admiralty claims arising within the United States under the provisions of the Limitation of Shipowners' Liability Act, 46 U.S.C. app. 181-188, in cases alleging injury or loss due to negligent operation of its vessel, the United States may limit its liability to the value of its vessel after the incident from which the claim arose. The act requires filing of an action in federal District Court within six months of receiving written notice of a claim. Therefore, USARCS, or the Chief Counsel, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (COE), or his designee, must be notified within 10 working days of the receipt of any maritime claim arising in the United States or on the high seas out of the operation of an Army vessel, including pleasure craft owned by the United States. USARCS or Chief Counsel, COE will coordinate with the Department of Justice (DOJ) as to whether to file a limitation of liability action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.124" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.8.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.124   Settlement authority for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Army, the Army General Counsel as designee of the Secretary, or other designee of the Secretary may approve any settlement or compromise of a claim in any amount. A claim settled or compromised in a net amount exceeding $500,000 will be investigated and processed and, if approved by the Secretary of the Army or his or her designee, will be certified to Congress for final approval.
</P>
<P>(b) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG), The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG), the Commander USARCS, the Chief Counsel COE, or Division or District Counsel Offices are delegated authority to settle, such as to deny or approve payment in full or in part, any claim under this subpart regardless of the amount claimed, provided that any award does not exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(c) A Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) or chief of a command claims service and heads of area claims offices (ACOs) are delegated authority to pay up to $50,000, regardless of the amount claimed, and to disapprove or make a final offer on a claim presented in an amount not exceeding $50,000.
</P>
<P>(d) Authority to further delegate payment authority is set forth in § 536.3(g)(1) of this part. For further discussion also related to settlement and approval authority see paragraph 2-69 of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(e) Where the claimed amount or potential claim damage exceeds $100,000 for COE claims or $50,000 for all others, Commander USARCS will be notified immediately, and be furnished a copy of the claim and a mirror file thereafter. See § 536.30 and AR 27-20, paragraph 2-12.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Claims Cognizable Under Article 139, Uniform Code of Military Justice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.125" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.125   Statutory authority for Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) Claims.</HEAD>
<P>The authority for this subpart is Article 139, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) (10 U.S.C. 939, which provides redress for property willfully damaged or destroyed, or wrongfully taken, by members of the Armed Forces of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.126" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.126   Purpose of UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the standards to apply and the procedures to follow in processing claims for the wrongful taking or willful damage or destruction of property by military members of the Department of the Army.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.127" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.127   Proper claimants; unknown accused—under the UCMJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A proper claimant under this subpart includes any individual (whether civilian or military), a business, charity, or state or local government that owns, has an ownership interest in, or lawfully possesses property.
</P>
<P>(b) When cognizable claims are presented against a unit because the individual offenders cannot be identified, this subpart sets forth the procedures for approval authorities to direct pay assessments, equivalent to the amount of damages sustained, against the unit members who were present at the scene and to allocate individual liability in such proportion as is just under the circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.128" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.128   Effect of disciplinary action, voluntary restitution, or contributory negligence for claims under the UCMJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disciplinary action.</I> Administrative action under Article 139, UCMJ, and this subpart is entirely separate and distinct from disciplinary action taken under other sections of the UCMJ or other administrative actions. Because action under both Article 139, UCMJ, and this subpart requires independent findings on issues other than guilt or innocence, a soldier's conviction or acquittal of claim-related charges is not dispositive of liability under Article 139, UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary restitution.</I> The approval authority may terminate Article 139 proceedings without findings if the soldier voluntarily makes full restitution to the claimant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contributory negligence.</I> A claim otherwise cognizable and meritorious is payable whether or not the claimant was negligent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.129" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.129   Claims cognizable as UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>Claims cognizable under Article 139, UCMJ, are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement that conduct constructively violate UCMJ.</I> In order to subject a person to liability under Article 139, the soldier's conduct must be such as would constitute a violation of one or more punitive Articles of the UCMJ. However, a referral of charges is not a prerequisite to action under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims for property willfully damaged.</I> Willful damage is damage inflicted intentionally, knowingly, and purposefully without justifiable excuse, as distinguished from damage caused inadvertently, thoughtlessly or negligently. Damage, loss, or destruction of property caused by riotous, violent, or disorderly acts or acts of depredation, or through conduct showing reckless or wanton disregard of the property rights of others, may be considered willful damage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims for property wrongfully taken.</I> A wrongful taking is any unauthorized taking or withholding of property, with the intent to deprive, temporarily or permanently, the owner or person lawfully in possession of the property. Damage, loss, or destruction of property through larceny, forgery, embezzlement, fraud, misappropriation, or similar offense may be considered wrongful taking. However, mere breach of a fiduciary or contractual duty that does not involve larceny, forgery, embezzlement, fraud, or misappropriation does not constitute wrongful taking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of property.</I> Article 139 provides compensation for loss of or damage to both personal property, whether tangible or intangible, and real property. Contrast this to the Personnel Claims Act and chapter 11 of AR 27-20, which provides compensation only for tangible personal property. Monetary losses may fall into the category of either tangible property (for example, cash), or intangible property (for example, an obligation incurred by a claimant to a third party as a result of fraudulent conduct by a soldier), although recovery for losses of intangible property may be limited by other provisions of this part, such as the exclusion of theft of services (see § 536.130(f)) or consequential damages (see § 536.130(g)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claims cognizable under more than one statute.</I> Claims cognizable under other claims statutes may be processed under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.130" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.130   Claims not cognizable as UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>Claims not cognizable under Article 139, UCMJ, and this subpart, include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Claims resulting from negligent acts.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims for personal injury or death.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims resulting from acts or omissions of military personnel acting within the scope of their employment, including claims resulting from combat activities or noncombat activities, as those terms are defined in the Glossary of AR 27-20.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims resulting from the conduct of Reserve component personnel who are not subject to the UCMJ at the time of the offense.
</P>
<P>(e) Subrogated claims.
</P>
<P>(f) Claims for theft of services, even if such theft constitutes a violation of Article 134 of the UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(g) Claims for indirect, remote, or consequential damages.
</P>
<P>(h) Claims by entities in conflict with the United States or whose interests are hostile to the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.131" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.131   Limitations on assessments arising from UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations on amount.</I> (1) A special court-martial convening authority (SPCMCA) has authority to approve a pay assessment in an amount not to exceed $5,000 per claimant per incident and to deny a claim in any amount. If the Judge Advocate responsible for advising the SPCMCA decides that the SPCMCA's final action under the provisions of Rule for Courts-Martial 1107 in a court-martial arising out of the same incident would be compromised, the SPCMCA may forward the Article 139 claim to the general court-martial convening authority (GCMCA) for action.
</P>
<P>(2) A GCMCA, or designee, has authority to approve a pay assessment in an amount not to exceed $10,000 per claimant per incident and to deny a claim in any amount.
</P>
<P>(i) If the GCMCA or designee determines that a claim exceeding $10,000 per claimant per incident is meritorious, that officer will assess the soldier's pay in the amount of $10,000 and forward the claim to the Commander USARCS, with a recommendation to increase the assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the head of the area claims office (ACO) (usually the GCMCA's Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)) decides that the GCMCA's final action under the provisions of Rule for Courts-Martial 1107 in a court-martial arising out of the same incident would be compromised, that officer may forward the Article 139 claim to USARCS for action.
</P>
<P>(3) Only TJAG, TAJAG, the Commander USARCS, or designee has authority to approve assessments in excess of $10,000 per claimant per incident.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on type of damages.</I> Property loss or damage assessments are limited to direct damages. This subpart does not provide redress for indirect, remote, or consequential damages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.132" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.132   Procedure for processing UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limitations on submission of a claim.</I> A claim must be submitted within 90 days of the incident that gave rise to it, unless the SPCMCA acting on the claim determines there is good cause for delay. Lack of knowledge of the existence of Article 139, or lack of knowledge of the identity of the offender, are examples of good cause for delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and presentment of a claim.</I> The claimant or authorized agent may present a claim orally or in writing. If presented orally, the claim must be reduced to writing, signed, and seek a definite sum in U.S. dollars within 10 days after oral presentment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action upon receipt of a claim.</I> Any officer receiving a claim will forward it within two working days to the SPCMCA exercising jurisdiction over the soldier or soldiers against whom the claim is made. If the claim is made against soldiers under the jurisdiction of two or more convening SPCMCAs who are under the same GCMCA, forward the claim to that GCMCA. That GCMCA will designate one SPCMCA to investigate and act on the claim as to all soldiers involved. If the claim is made against soldiers under the jurisdiction of more than one SPCMCA at different locations and not under the same GCMCA, forward the claim to the SPCMCA whose headquarters is located nearest the situs of the alleged incident. That SPCMCA will investigate and act on the claim as to all soldiers involved. If a claim is brought against a member of one of the other military services, forward the claim to the commander of the nearest major command of that service equivalent to a major Army command (MACOM).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action by the special court-martial convening authority.</I> (1) If the claim appears to be cognizable, the SPCMCA will appoint an investigating officer within four working days of receipt of a claim. The investigating officer will follow the procedures of this subpart supplemented by DA Pam 27-162, chapter 9, and AR 15-6, chapter 4, which applies to informal investigations. The SPCMCA may appoint the claims officer of a command (if the claims officer is a commissioned officer) as the investigating officer. In cases where the special court-martial convening authority is an inactive duty soldier of the United States Army Reserve, the appointment of an investigating officer will be made within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(2) If the claim is not brought against a person who is a member of the Armed Forces of the United States at the time the claim is received, or if the claim does not appear otherwise cognizable under Article 139, UCMJ, the SPCMCA may refer it for legal review (see paragraph (g) of this section) within four working days of receipt. If after legal review the SPCMCA determines that the claim is not cognizable, final action may be taken disapproving the claim (see paragraph (h) of this section) without appointing an investigating officer. In claims where the special court-martial convening authority is an inactive duty soldier of the United State Army Reserve, the request for a legal review will be made within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expediting payment through Personnel Claims Act and Foreign Claims Act procedures.</I> When assessment action on a particular claim will be unduly delayed, the claims office supporting the SPCMA may consider the claim under the Personnel Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3721, and chapter 11 of AR 27-20, or under the Foreign Claims Act, 10 U.S.C. 2734, and subpart J of this part, as long as it is otherwise cognizable under that authority. If the Article 139 claim is later successful, the claims office will inform the claimant of the obligation to repay to the government any overpayment received under these statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action by the investigating officer.</I> The investigating officer will notify the soldier against whom the claim is made.
</P>
<P>(1) If the soldier wishes to make voluntary restitution, the investigating officer may, with the SPCMCA's concurrence, delay proceedings until the end of the next pay period to permit restitution. If the soldier makes payment to the claimant's full satisfaction, the SPCMCA will dismiss the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) In the absence of full restitution, the investigating officer will determine whether the claim is cognizable and meritorious under the provisions of Article 139, UCMJ, and this subpart, and the amount to be assessed against each offender. This amount will be reduced by any restitution the claimant accepts from an offender in partial satisfaction. Within 10 working days, or such time as the SPCMCA may determine, the IO will submit written findings and recommendations to the SPCMCA.
</P>
<P>(3) If the soldier is absent without leave and cannot be notified, a claims office may process the Article 139 claim in the soldier's absence. If an assessment is approved, forward a copy of the claim and the memorandum authorizing pay assessment by transmittal letter to the servicing Defense Accounting Office (DAO) for offset against the soldier's pay. If the soldier is dropped from the rolls, the servicing DAO will forward the assessment documents to: Commander, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), ATTN: Military Pay Operations, 8899 E. 56th Street, Indianapolis, IN 46249.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Legal review.</I> The SPCMCA will refer the claim for legal review to its servicing legal office upon either completion of the investigating officer's report or the SPCMCA's determination that the claim is not cognizable (see paragraph (d)(2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(1) Within five working days or such time as the SPCMCA determines, that office will furnish a written opinion as to:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the claim is cognizable under the provisions of Article 139, UCMJ, and this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the findings and recommendations are supported by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the investigation substantially complies with the procedural requirements of Article 139, UCMJ; this subpart; DA Pam 27-162, chapter 9; and AR 15-6, chapter 4.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the claim is clearly not cognizable (see paragraph (d)(2) of this section) and final denial action can be taken without appointing an investigating officer.
</P>
<P>(2) If the investigating officer's recommended assessment does not exceed $5,000, the claims judge advocate (CJA) or claims attorney will, upon legal review, forward the claim to the SPCMCA for final action.
</P>
<P>(3) If the investigating officer's recommended assessment is more than $5,000, the CJA or claims attorney will, upon legal review, forward the claim file to the head of the ACO, who will also conduct a legal review within five working days.
</P>
<P>(i) If the recommended assessment does not exceed $10,000, the head of the ACO will forward the claim file to the GCMCA for final action.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the recommended assessment exceeds $10,000, the head of the ACO will forward the claim file to the GCMCA for approval of an assessment up to $10,000 and for a recommendation of an additional assessment. The head of the ACO will then forward the claims file and the GCMCA's recommendation to the Commander USARCS for approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Final action.</I> After consulting with the legal advisor, the approval authority will disapprove or approve the claim in an amount equal to, or less than, the amount of the assessment limitation. The approval authority is not bound by the findings or recommendations of the IO; AR 15-6, paragraph 2-3a. The approval authority will notify the claimant, and any soldier subject to that officer's jurisdiction, of the determination and the right of any party to request reconsideration (see § 536.133). A copy of the investigating officer's findings and recommendation will be enclosed with the notice. The approval authority will then suspend action on the claim for 10 working days pending receipt of a request for reconsideration, unless the approval authority determines that this delay will result in substantial injustice. If after this period the approval authority determines that an assessment is still warranted, the approval authority will direct the appropriate DAO to withhold such amount from the soldier's pay account (see § 536.131(a)). For any soldier not subject to the approval authority's jurisdiction, the approval authority will forward the claim to the commander who exercises SPCMCA jurisdiction over the soldier for assessment. The receiving SPCMCA is bound by the determination of the approval authority.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessment.</I> Subject to any limitations set forth in appropriate regulations, the servicing DAO will withhold the amount directed by the approval authority and pay it to the claimant. The assessment is not subject to appeal and is binding on any finance officer. If the servicing DAO cannot withhold the required amount because it does not have custody of the soldier's pay record, the record is missing, or the soldier is in a no pay due status, that office will promptly notify the approval authority of this fact in writing.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Remission of indebtedness.</I> 10 U.S.C. 4837, which authorizes the remission and cancellation of indebtedness of an enlisted person to the United States or its instrumentalities, is not applicable and may not be used to remit and cancel indebtedness determined as a result of action under Article 139, UCMJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.133" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.133   Reconsideration of UCMJ claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Although Article 139, UCMJ, does not provide for a right of appeal, either the claimant or a soldier whose pay is assessed may request the approval authority (SPCMCA or GCMCA, depending on the amount assessed) or successor in command to reconsider the action. Either party must submit such a request for reconsideration in writing and clearly state the factual or legal basis for the relief requested. The approval authority may direct that the matter be reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reconsideration by the original approval authority.</I> The original approval authority may reconsider the action at any time while serving as the approval authority for the claim in question, even after the transfer of the soldier whose pay was assessed. The original approval authority may modify the action if it was incorrect, subject to paragraph (d) of this section. However, the approval authority should modify the action only because of fraud, substantial new evidence, errors in calculation, or mistake of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration by a successor in command.</I> Subject to paragraph (d) of this section, a successor in command may modify an action only because of fraud, substantial new evidence, errors in calculation, or mistake of law apparent on the face of the record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Legal review and action.</I> Prior to modifying the original action, the approval authority will have the servicing claims office render a legal opinion and fully explain the basis for modification as part of the file. If the legal review agrees that a return of the assessed pay is appropriate, the approval authority should request in writing that the claimant return the money, setting forth in the letter the basis for the request. There is no authority for repayment from appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposition of files.</I> After completing action on reconsideration, the approval authority will forward the reconsideration action to the servicing claims office, which will then file the action per § 536.132(h).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.134" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.9.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.134   Additional claims judge advocate and claims attorney responsibilities (for UCMJ claims).</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the duties set forth in this subpart, the CJA or claims attorney is responsible for forwarding copies of completed Article 139 actions to USARCS, maintaining a log, monitoring the time requirements of pending Article 139 actions, and publicizing the Article 139 program to commanders, soldiers, and the community.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Claims Cognizable Under the Foreign Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.135" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.135   Statutory authority for the Foreign Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The statutory authority for this subpart is the Act of August 10, 1956, 10 U.S.C. 2734 (70 Stat. 154), commonly referred to as the Foreign Claims Act (FCA), as amended by Public Law 86-223, September 1959 (73 Stat. 453); Public Law 86-411, April 1960 (74 Stat. 16); Public Law 90-521, September 1968 (82 Stat. 874); Public Law 91-312, July 1970 (84 Stat. 412); Public Law 93-336, July 1974 (88 Stat. 292); Public Law 96-513, Title V, § 511 (95), December 1980 (94 Stat. 2928). It is posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Claims arising from the acts or omissions of the U.S. Armed Forces in the Marshall Islands or the Federated States of Micronesia are settled in accordance with Art. XV, Non-contractual Claims, of the U.S.-Marshall Islands and Micronesian Status of Forces Agreement (the “SOFA”) (posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see § 536.2(a)). This is pursuant to the “agreed upon minutes” that are appended to the SOFA, pursuant to Section 323 of the Compact of Free Association between the U.S. and the Marshall Islands and the Federated States of Micronesia, enacted by Public Law 99-239, January 14, 1986. (The Compact may be viewed at <I>http://www.fm/jcn/compact/relindex.html</I>). The “agreed upon minutes” state that “all claims within the scope of paragraph 1 of Article XV [Claims], [of the Compact] * * * shall be processed and settled exclusively pursuant to the Foreign Claims Act, 10 U.S.C. 2734, and any regulations promulgated in implementation thereof.” Therefore, Title I, Article 178 of the Compact, regarding claims processing, is not applicable to claims arising from the acts or omissions of the U.S. armed forces, but only to other federal agencies. Those agencies are required to follow the provisions of the Federal Tort Claims Act, 28 U.S.C. 2672.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.136" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.136   Scope for claims arising under the Foreign Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This subpart, which is applicable outside the United States, its commonwealths, territories and possessions, including areas under the jurisdiction of the United States, implements the FCA and prescribes the substantive basis and special procedural requirements for settlement of claims of inhabitants of a foreign country, or of a foreign country or a political subdivision thereof, against the United States for personal injury, death, or property damage caused by service members or civilian employees, or claims that arise incident to noncombat activities of the armed forces.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of Military Claims Act (MCA).</I> Claims arising in foreign countries will be settled under the MCA if the injured party is an inhabitant of the U.S., for example, a member of the U.S. armed forces, a U.S. civilian employee, or a family member of either category. In a wrongful death case, if the decedent is an inhabitant of a foreign country, even though his survivors are U.S. inhabitants, the FCA will apply. See § 536.74(c). For claims arising outside the U.S. involving foreign-born spouces, see DA Pam 27-20, paragraph 2-20a.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act (AMCSA) (10 U.S.C. 4801, 4802 and 4808).</I> A maritime claim may be settled under the FCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.137" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.137   Claims payable under the Foreign Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for death, personal injury, or loss of or damage to property may be allowed under this subpart if the alleged damage results from noncombat activity or a negligent or wrongful act or omission of soldiers or civilian employees of the U.S. armed forces, as enumerated in § 536.23(b), regardless of whether the act or omission was made within the scope of their employment. This includes non-U.S. citizen employees recruited elsewhere but employed in a country of which they are not a citizen. However, a claim generated by non-U.S. citizen employees in the country in which they were recruited and are employed will be payable only if the act or omission was made in the scope of employment. But claims arising from the operation of U.S. armed forces vehicles or other equipment by such employees may be paid, even though the employees are not acting within the scope of their employment, provided the employer or owner of the vehicle or other equipment would be liable under local law in the circumstances involved.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims generated by officers or civilian employees of the American Battle Monuments Commission (36 U.S.C. 2110), acting within the scope of employment, will be paid from American Battle Monuments Commission appropriations.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims for the loss of, or damage to, property that may be settled under this subpart include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Real property used and occupied under lease, express, implied, or otherwise. See § 536.34(m) of this part and paragraph 2-15m of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(2) Personal property bailed to the government under an agreement, express or implied, unless the owner has expressly assumed the risk of damage or loss.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.138" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.138   Claims not payable under the Foreign Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Results wholly from the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or agent;
</P>
<P>(b) Is purely contractual in nature;
</P>
<P>(c) Arises from private or domestic obligations as distinguished from government transactions;
</P>
<P>(d) Is based solely on compassionate grounds;
</P>
<P>(e) Is a bastardy claim for child support expenses;
</P>
<P>(f) Is for any item whose acquisition, possession, or transportation is in violation of Department of the Army (DA) or Department of Defense (DOD) directives, such as illegal war trophies.
</P>
<P>(g) Is for rent, damage, or other payments involving the acquisition, use, possession, or disposition of real property or interests therein by and for the DA. See § 536.34(m) of this part and paragraph 2-15m of DA Pam 27-162.
</P>
<P>(h) Is not in the best interest of the United States, is contrary to public policy, or otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the governing statute (10 U.S.C. § 2734); for example, claims for property loss or damage, or personal injury or death caused by inhabitants of unfriendly foreign countries or by individuals considered to be unfriendly to the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) Is presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the United States, or any country allied with such enemy country unless the appropriate settlement authority determines that the claimant is, and at the time of the incident was friendly to the United States. A prisoner of war or an interned enemy alien is not excluded from filing a claim for damage, loss, or destruction of personal property within the federal government's custody if the claim is otherwise payable.
</P>
<P>(j) Is for damages or injury, the claim for which a receiving State should adjudicate and pay pursuant to an international agreement, subject to waiver by the Commander USARCS. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 3-4a(2), for a discussion of the conditions of waiver.
</P>
<P>(k) Is listed in §§ 536.45 and 536.46, except for the exclusions listed in §§ 536.45(e), (h) and (k). Additionally, the exclusions set forth in §§ 536.45(a) and (b) do not apply to a claim arising incident to noncombat activities.
</P>
<P>(l) Is brought by a subrogee.
</P>
<P>(m) Is covered by insurance on the involved U.S. Armed Forces' vehicle or the tortfeasor's privately owned vehicle (POV), in accordance with requirements of a foreign country, unless the claim exceeds the coverage or the insurer is insolvent. See § 536.139(c).
</P>
<P>(n) Is payable under subpart C of this part or AR 27-20, chapter 11.
</P>
<P>(o) Is brought by or on behalf of a member of a foreign military force for personal injury or death arising incident to service, or pursuant to combined military operations. Combined military operations include exercises and United Nations and North Atlantic Treaty Association (NATO) peacekeeping and humanitarian missions. Derivative claims arising from these incidents are also excluded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.139" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.139   Applicable law for claims under the Foreign Claims Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Venue of incident and domicile of claimant.</I> In determining an appropriate award, apply the law and custom of the country in which the incident occurred to determine which elements of damages are payable and which individuals are entitled to compensation. However, where the claimant is an inhabitant of another foreign country and only temporarily within the country in which the incident occurred, the quantum of certain elements of damages, such as lost wages and future medical care, may be calculated based on the law and economic conditions in the country of the claimant's permanent residence. Where the decedent is the subject of a wrongful death case, the quantum will be determined based on the country of the decedent's permanent residence regardless of the fact that his survivors live in the U.S. or a different foreign country than the decedent. See § 536.77 for further damages guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other guidance.</I> The guidance set forth in §§ 536.77(b) through (d) as to allowable elements of damages is generally applicable. Where moral damages, as defined in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-53c(4), are permitted, such damages are payable. In some countries it is customary to get a professional appraisal to substantiate certain claims and pass this cost on to the tortfeasor. The Commander USARCS or the chief of a command claims service may, as an exception to policy, permit the reimbursement of such costs in appropriate cases. Where feasible, claimants should be discouraged from incurring such costs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions for insurance.</I> (1) Insurance coverage recovered or recoverable will be deducted from any award. In that regard, every effort will be made to monitor the insurance aspect of the case and encourage direct settlement between the claimant and the insurer of the tortfeasor.
</P>
<P>(2) When efforts under paragraph (c)(1) of this section are of no avail, or when it otherwise is determined that an insurance settlement will not be reasonably available for application to the award, no award will be made until the chief of the command claims service or the Commander USARCS, has first granted consent. In such cases, an assignment of the insured's rights against the insurer will be obtained and, in appropriate cases, reimbursement action will be instituted against the insurer under applicable procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) If an insurance settlement is not available due to the insurer's insolvency or bankruptcy, a report on the bankruptcy will be forwarded to the Commander USARCS without delay, setting forth all pertinent information, including the alleged reasons for the bankruptcy and the facts concerning the licensing of the insurer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deductions for amounts paid by tortfeasor.</I> Settlement authorities will deduct from the damages any direct payments by a member or civilian employee of the U.S. armed forces for damages (other than solatia).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.140" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.140   Appointment and functions of Foreign Claims Commissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims cognizable under this subpart will be referred to the command responsible for claims arising within its geographic area of responsibility, including claims transferred by agreement between the services involved. The senior judge advocate of a command having a command claims service, or his delegee, will appoint a sufficient number of Foreign Claims Commissions (FCCs) to dispose of the claims. If there is no command claims service, the responsible commander may ask the Commander USARCS for permission to establish one. Otherwise, the Commander USARCS will appoint a sufficient number of FCCs from personnel furnished by the command involved. See § 576.3(d) for more information about command claims services.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commander USARCS will appoint all other FCCs to act on all other claims, regardless of where such claims arose, unless they arose in a country for which single-service responsibility has been assigned to another service. FCCs appointed by the Commander USARCS at units based in the continental United States (CONUS) may act on any claim arising out of such unit's operations. Any FCC operating in, or adjudicating claims arising out of, a geographical area within a command claims service's jurisdiction, will comply with that service's legal and procedural rules.
</P>
<P>(c) An FCC may operate as an integral part of a command claims service, which will determine the cases to be assigned to it, furnish necessary administrative services, and establish and maintain its records. Where an FCC does not operate as part of a command claims service, it may operate as part of the office or a division, corps or higher command staff judge advocate (SJA), which will perform the foregoing functions.
</P>
<P>(d) An appointing authority who appoints or relieves an FCC whom he or she has appointed will forward one copy of each order addressing an FCC's appointment, relief, or change of responsibility to the Commander USARCS. Upon receipt of an initial appointing order, the Commander USARCS will assign an office code number to the FCC. Without such a number the FCC has no authority to approve or pay claims. See AR 27-20, paragraph 13-1.
</P>
<P>(e) Normally, the FCC is responsible for the investigation of all claims referred to it, using both the procedures set forth in subpart B of this part and any local procedures established by the appointing authority or command claims service responsible for the geographical area in which the claim arose. Chiefs of a command claims service may request assistance on claims investigation within their geographical areas from units or organizations other than the FCC. The Commander USARCS may make the same request for any claim referred to an FCC appointed under his or her authority.
</P>
<P>(f) When an FCC intends to deny a claim, or offer an award less than the amount claimed, it will notify in writing the claimant, the claimant's authorized agent, or legal representative of the intended action on the claim and the legal and factual bases for that action. If the FCC proposes a partial award, a settlement agreement should be enclosed with the notice. Claimants will be advised that they may either accept the FCC action by returning the signed settlement agreement or, if dissatisfied with the FCC's action, they may submit a request for reconsideration stating the factual or legal reasons why they believe the FCC's proposed action is incorrect. This notice serves to give the claimant an opportunity to request reconsideration of the FCC action and state the reasons for the request before final action is taken on the claim. When the FCC intends to award the amount claimed, or recommend an award equal to the amount claimed to a higher authority, this procedure is not necessary. However, a settlement agreement is required for all awards, full or partial. See § 536.63(a).
</P>
<P>(1) This notice should be given at least 30 days before the FCC takes final action, except on small claims processed pursuant to § 536.33. The notice should be mailed via certified or registered mail to the claimant. The claimant should be informed that any request for reconsideration should be addressed to the FCC that took final action, and that all materials the claimant wishes the FCC to consider should be included with the request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) An FCC may alter its initial decision based on the claimant's response or proceed with the intended action. If the claimant's response raises a general policy issue, the FCC may request an advisory opinion from the Commander USARCS or the chief of the command claims service while retaining the claim for final action at its level.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon completing of its evaluation of the claimant's response, the FCC will notify the claimant of its final decision and advise the claimant that its action is final and conclusive as a matter of law (10 U.S.C. 2735), unless the final decision is a recommendation for payment above its authority. In that case, the FCC will forward any response submitted by the claimant along with its claims memorandum of opinion to the approval authority, and will notify the claimant accordingly.
</P>
<P>(4) When an FCC determines that a claim is valued at more than $50,000 or all claims arising out of a single incident are valued at more than $100,000, the file will be transferred to the Commander USARCS for further action; see § 536.143(d)(2). Upon request of the Commander USARCS, the FCC may negotiate a settlement, the amount of which exceeds the FCC's authority; however, prior approval by a higher authority is required.
</P>
<P>(5) Every reasonable effort should be made to negotiate a mutually agreeable settlement on meritorious claims. When an agreement can be reached, the notice and response provisions above are not necessary. If the FCC recommends an award in excess of its monetary authority, the settlement agreement should indicate that its recommendation is contingent upon approval by higher authority.
</P>
<P>(g) The chief of an overseas command claims service may delegate to a one-member FCC the responsibility for the receipt, processing, and investigation of any claim, regardless of amount, except those required to be referred to a receiving State office for adjudication under the provisions of a treaty concerning the status of U.S. forces in the country in which the claim arose. If, after investigation, it appears that action by a three-member FCC is appropriate, the one-member FCC should send the claim to the appropriate three-member FCC with a complete investigation report, including a discussion of the applicable local law and a recommendation for disposition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.141" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.141   Composition of Foreign Claims Commissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Normally, an FCC will be composed of either one or three members. Alternate members of three-member FCCs may be appointed when circumstances require, and may be substituted for regular members on specific cases by order of the appointing authority. The appointing orders will clearly designate the president of a three-member FCC. Two members of a three-member FCC will constitute a quorum, and the FCC's decision will be determined by majority vote.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon approval by the Commander USARCS and the appropriate authority of another uniformed service, the membership may be composed of one or more members of another uniformed service. If another service has single-service responsibility over the foreign country in which the claim arose, that service is responsible for the claim. If requested, the Commander USARCS may furnish a JAG officer or claims attorney to be a member of another service's FCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.142" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.142   Qualification of members of Foreign Claims Commissions.</HEAD>
<P>Normally, a member of an FCC will be either a commissioned officer or a claims attorney. At least two members of a three-member FCC must be JAs or claims attorneys. In exigent circumstances, a qualified non-lawyer employee of the armed forces may be appointed to an FCC, subject to prior approval by the Commander USARCS. Such approval may be granted only upon a showing of the employee's status and qualifications and adequate justification for such appointment (for example, lack of legally qualified personnel). The FCC will be limited to employees who are citizens of the United States. An officer, claims attorney, or employee of another armed force will be appointed a member of an Army FCC only if approved by the Commander USARCS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.143" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.143   Settlement authority of Foreign Claims Commissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to determine whether the claim will be considered by a one-member or three-member FCC, the claimed amount will be converted to the U.S. dollar equivalent (based on the annual Foreign Currency Fluctuation Account exchange rate, where applicable). However, the FCC's jurisdiction to approve is determined by the conversion rate on the date of final action. Accordingly, if the value of the U.S. dollar has decreased, the FCC will forward the recommendation to a higher authority, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) Payment will be made in the currency of the country in which the incident occurred or in which the claimant resided at the time of the incident, unless the claimant requests payment in U.S. dollars or another currency and such request is approved by the chief of a command claims service or the Commander USARCS. However, if the claimant resides in another foreign country at the time of payment, payment in an amount equivalent to that which would have been paid under the preceding sentence may be made in the currency of that third country without the approval of the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(c) A one-member FCC may consider and pay claims presented in any amount provided a mutually agreed settlement may be reached in an amount not exceeding the FCC's monetary authority. A one-member FCC may deny any claim when the claimed amount does not exceed its monetary authority. Unless otherwise restricted by the appointing authority, a one-member FCC who is a JA or claims attorney has $15,000 monetary authority, while any other one-member commission has $5,000 monetary authority.
</P>
<P>(d) A three-member FCC, unless otherwise restricted by the appointing authority, may take the following actions on a claim that is properly before it:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disapprove a claim presented in any amount.</I> After following the procedures in § 536.140, including reconsideration, the disapproval is final and conclusive under 10 U.S.C. 2735. The FCC will inform the appointing authority of its action. After it takes final action and disapproves a claim presented in any amount over $50,000, the FCC will forward to the appointing authority the written notice to the claimant required by § 536.140(f), any response from the claimant, and its notice of final action on the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approve and pay meritorious claims presented in any amount.</I> (i) Claims paid in full or in part for an amount not exceeding $50,000 will be paid after any reconsideration as set forth in § 536.140. This action is final and conclusive under 10 U.S.C. 2735.
</P>
<P>(ii) Claims valued at an amount exceeding $50,000, or multiple claims arising from the same incident valued at more than $100,000, will be forwarded through the appointing authority with a memorandum of opinion to the Commander USARCS for action; see DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-60. The memorandum of opinion will discuss the amount for which the claimant will settle and include the recommendation of the FCC.
</P>
<P>(e) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG), The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG) and the Commander USARCS, or his or her designee serving at USARCS, may approve and pay, in whole or in part, any claim as long as the amount of the award does not exceed $100,000; may disapprove any claim, regardless of either the amount claimed or the recommendation of the FCC forwarding the claim; or, if a claim is forwarded to USARCS for approval of payment in excess of $50,000, refer the claim back to the FCC or another FCC for further action.
</P>
<P>(f) Payments in excess of $100,000 will be approved by the Secretary of the Army, the Army General Counsel as the Secretary's designee, or other designee of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(g) Following approval where required and receipt of an agreement by the claimant accepting the specific sum awarded by the FCC, the claim will be processed for payment in the appropriate currency. The first $100,000 of any award will be paid from Army claims funds. The excess will be reported to the Financial Management Service, Department of the Treasury, with the documents listed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-81.
</P>
<P>(h) If the settlement authority upholds a final offer or authorizes an award on appeal from a denial of a claim, the notice of the settlement authority's action will inform the claimant that he or she must accept the award within 180 days of the date of mailing of the notice of the settlement authority's action or the award will be withdrawn, the claim will be deemed denied, and the file will be closed without future recourse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.144" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.144   Reopening a claim after final action by a Foreign Claims Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Original approval or settlement authority (including TAJAG, TJAG, Secretary of the Army, or the Secretary's designees).</I> (1) An original settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on a claim brought under the FCA upon request of the claimant or the claimants authorized agent. In the absence of such a request, the settlement authority may reconsider a claim on its own initiative.
</P>
<P>(2) An original approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct action on an FCA claim previously settled in whole or in part (even if a settlement agreement has been executed) when it appears that the original action was incorrect in law or fact based on the evidence of record at the time of the action or subsequently received. For errors in fact, the new evidence must not have been discoverable at the time of final action by either the Army or the claimant through the exercise of reasonable diligence. Corrective action may also be taken when an error contrary to the parties' mutual understanding is discovered in the original action. If it is determined that the original action was incorrect, the action will be modified, and if appropriate, a supplemental payment made. The basis for a change in action will be stated in a memorandum included in the file. For example, a claim was settled for $15,000, but the settlement agreement was typed to read “$1,500” and the error is not discovered until the file is being prepared for payment. If appropriate, a corrected payment will be made. A settlement authority who has reason to believe that a settlement was obtained by fraud on the part of the claimant or the claimant's legal representative, will reopen action on that claim and, if the belief is substantiated, correct the action. The basis for correcting an action will be stated in a memorandum and included in the file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>A successor approval or settlement authority (including TAJAG, TJAG, Secretary of the Army, or the Secretary's designees)</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reconsider the denial of, or final offer on, an FCA claim upon request of the claimant or the claimant's authorized agent only on the basis of fraud, substantial new evidence, errors in calculation, or mistake (misinterpretation) of law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement correction.</I> A successor approval or settlement authority may reopen and correct a predecessor's action on a claim that was previously settled in whole or in part for the same reasons that an original authority may do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time requirement for filing request for reconsideration.</I> Requests postmarked more than five years from the date of mailing of final notice will be denied based on the doctrine of laches.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finality of action.</I> Action by the appropriate authority (either affirming the prior action or granting full or partial relief) is final under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2735. Action upon request for reconsideration constitutes final administrative disposition of a claim. No further requests for reconsideration will be allowed except on the basis of fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.145" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.10.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.145   Solatia payment.</HEAD>
<P>Payment of solatia in accordance with local custom as an expression of sympathy toward a victim or his or her family is common in some overseas commands. Solatia payments are known to be a custom in the Federated States of Micronesia, Japan, Korea, and Thailand. In other countries, the FCC should consult the command claims service or Commander USARCS for guidance. Such payments are not to be made from the claims expenditure allowance. These payments are made from local operation and maintenance funds. This applies even where a command claims service is directed to administer the command's solatia program. See, for example, United States Forces Korea Regulation 526-11 regarding solatia amounts and procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Nonappropriated Fund Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.146" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.146   Claims against nonappropriated fund employees—generally.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the procedures to follow in the settlement and payment of claims generated by the acts or omissions of the employees of nonappropriated fund (NAF) activities. NAF activities include NAF or Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) facilities, post exchanges, bowling centers, officers and noncommissioned officers' clubs, and other facilities located on land or situated in a building used by an activity that employs personnel compensated from NAFs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.147" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.147   Claims by NAFI employees for losses incident to employment.</HEAD>
<P>Claims by employees for the loss of or damage to personal property incident to employment will be processed in the manner prescribed by AR 27-20, chapter 11 and will be paid from NAFs in accordance with § 536.152.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.148" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.148   Claims generated by the acts or omissions of NAFI employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing.</I> Claims arising out of acts or omissions of employees of NAFI activities will be processed and settled in the manner specified for similar claims against the United States, except that payment will be made from NAFs in accordance with AR 215-1 (Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Activities and Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalites) and § 536.152 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedural requirements.</I> Procedural requirements of this part's pertinent subparts, as stated below, will be followed except as provided in §§ 536.151 and 536.152. However, when the Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentality (NAFI) is protected by a commercial insurer (for example, flying and parachute activities), the claim will be referred to the insurer as outlined in § 536.148(d). See Department of Defense Directive (DODD) 5515.6, dated November 3, 1956, posted on the USARCS Web site (see § 536.2(a)).
</P>
<P>(1) Claims arising within the United States, its territories, commonwealths, or possessions. Such claims will be processed in the manner prescribed by subparts C, D, E, F, H or J of this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Claims arising outside the United States, its territories, commonwealths, or possessions. Such claims will be processed in accordance with the provisions of applicable Status of Forces Agreements (SOFAs) or in the manner prescribed by subparts C, D, E, F, H or J of this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting and investigation.</I> Such claims will be investigated in accordance with AR 215-1 and subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reporting.</I> Personal injury, death, or property damage resulting from vehicular collisions, falls, falling objects, assaults, or accidents of similar nature will be reported immediately to the person in charge of the NAFI or activity at which it occurred. The report should be made by the employee who initially received notice of the incident, even if the individual involved denies sustaining personal injury or property damage. Upon receipt of the report of the incident, the person in charge of the NAF activity concerned will transmit the report to the area claims office (ACO) or claims processing office (CPO) for investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investigation.</I> Claims arising out of acts or omissions of employees of NAF activities will be investigated in the manner set forth in subpart B of this part. A determination as to whether the claim is cognizable under this section will be made as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Customer complaints.</I> AAFES-generated complaints will be handled in accordance with Exchange Service Manual 57-2. NAFI-generated complaints will be handled in accordance with AR 215-1, chapter 3. Complaints generated by appropriated funds laundry and dry-cleaning operations will be handled in accordance with AR 210-130, chapter 2. Complaints generated by refunds of sales proceeds will be handled in accordance with Exchange Operating Procedures (EOP) 57-2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial insurance.</I> Certain NAFI activities (such as flying and parachute activities, and all AAFES concessionaires) may have private commercial insurance.
</P>
<P>(1) A claims investigation under subpart B of this part will not be conducted except when the claim's estimated value may exceed the insurance policy limits. In that event, the Commander USARCS, will be notified immediately and an investigation will be conducted with a view to determining whether the United States may be liable under subparts C, D, F, H or J of this part. Otherwise, the ACO or CPO will refer the claim to the insurer and furnish copies to the USARCS AAO, as required in AR 27-20, paragraph 2-12. Assistance will be furnished to the insurer as needed. Copies of any other required investigations may be furnished to the insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim will be reviewed at key intervals to ensure that progress is being made, negotiations are properly conducted, and the file is closed. The Commander USARCS will be advised of any problems.
</P>
<P>(3) If requested by either the insurer or NAFI officials, the appropriate claims authority will assist in or conduct negotiations.
</P>
<P>(4) Where NAFI vehicles are required to be covered by insurance in foreign countries, the insurer will process the claim. However, if the policy coverage limit is exceeded or the insurer is insolvent, the claim may be processed under subpart G, §§ 536.114 through 536.116 (Claims arising overseas) or, if subpart G does not apply, under subparts C or J of this part. See § 536.139(c) for additional guidance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.149" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.149   Identification of persons whose actions may generate liability.</HEAD>
<P>Claims resulting from the acts or omissions of members of the classes of persons listed below may be processed under this section. An ACO or a CPO authority will ask the Commander USARCS, for an advisory opinion prior to settling any claim where the person whose conduct generated the claim does not clearly fall within one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(a) Civilian employees of NAFI activities whose salaries are paid from NAFs.
</P>
<P>(b) Active duty military personnel while performing off-duty part-time work for which they are compensated from NAFIs, not to include members who are acting in their capacity as an officer or other official of the NAFI.
</P>
<P>(c) Volunteers serving in an official capacity in furtherance of the business of the United States, limited to those categories set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-45d.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.150" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.150   Claims payable from appropriated funds.</HEAD>
<P>Claims payable from appropriated funds will be processed under the appropriate subpart. Appropriated fund payable claims include those resulting from:
</P>
<P>(a) Acts or omissions of military personnel while performing assigned military duties in connection with NAFI activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Acts or omissions of civilian employees paid from appropriated funds in connection with NAFI activities.
</P>
<P>(c) Negligent maintenance of an appropriated funds facility used by a NAFI activity but for which the Department of Defense or Department of the Army (DA) command concerned is responsible and has been notified of the deficiency by the NAF. Where liability is determined to exist for both a NAFI and an appropriated fund activity, liability will be apportioned between the two activities.
</P>
<P>(d) Temporary use of a NAFI facility by an appropriated fund activity.
</P>
<P>(e) Operation of government owned or rented vehicles on authorized missions for NAFI activities where the driver is a DA soldier or civilian employee and is paid from APFs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.151" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.151   Settlement authority for claims generated by acts or omissions of NAFI employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement.</I> Claims cognizable under this section and processed under subparts C, D, E, G, H or J of this part will be settled by claims authorities authorized to settle claims under those subparts subject to the same monetary and denial authority limitations, except that The Judge Advocate General (TJAG), The Assistant Judge Advocate General (TAJAG), and the Commander USARCS may settle such claims without regard to monetary limitations. However, the approval of the Attorney General or Assistant General Counsel may be required for an apportioned amount to be paid from APFs when subpart D of this part procedures are used and the amount to be paid from APFs exceeds $200,000. Similarly, approval of TAJAG, the Attorney General or the Assistant General Counsel is required when using procedures under subparts C, F, H, or J of this part and an apportioned amount to be paid from APFs exceeds the limits set for the Commander, USARCS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Finality of settlement.</I> A determination made by a claims settlement authority on a claim processed under subpart D of this part is subject to suit. A claim processed under subparts C or F of this part may be appealed. Claims processed under subparts C, D, E, H, or J of this part, or AR 27-20, chapter 11 may be reconsidered in accordance with the sections addressing reconsideration in those subparts (or paragraphs in the case of Chapter 11).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.152" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.152   Payment of claims generated by acts or omissions of NAFI employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The settlement or approval authority will forward the appropriate payment documents to the office listed in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-80h, for payment.
</P>
<P>(b) Reimbursement to a foreign country of the United States' pro rata share of a claim paid pursuant to an international agreement will be made from NAFs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.153" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.153   Claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees: NAFI contractors.</HEAD>
<P>AAFES concessionaires and NAFI contractors, such as entertainment performers or groups, carnival operators, and fireworks displayers are considered independent contractors and claims arising from their activities should be disposed of as set forth in DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-15f. If a dispute arises as to the availability of liability or workers compensation insurance the claims should be referred to AAFES Dallas (see address in § 536.30(e)(4)) or the Central Insurance Fund, U.S. Army Community and Family Support Agency as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.154" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.154   Claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees: NAFI risk management program (RIMP) claims.</HEAD>
<P>The risk management program (RIMP) is administered by the U.S. Army Community and Family Support Center under the provisions of AR 215-1 and AR 608-10 (Family Child Care Provider Claims). Providers in order to encourage authorized personnel, that is, military and civilian employees, to use the family child care program and sports equipment, such claims are processed in a manner similar to NAFI claims in §§ 536.146 through 536.152 of this subpart. Certain claims are payable from nonappropriated funds even though the U.S. is not liable under the FTCA or the MCA as the tortfeasor is not an appropriated fund or nonappropriated fund employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.155" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.155   Claims payable involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Non-NAFI RIMP claims can arise from the activities of:
</P>
<P>(1) Members of NAFIs or authorized users of NAFI sports equipment or devices for recreational purposes, while using such property, except real property, in the manner and for the purposes authorized by DA regulations and the charter, constitution, and bylaws of the particular NAF activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Family child care providers, authorized members of the provider's household and approved substitute providers while care under the family child care program is being provided in the manner prescribed in AR 608-10, except as excluded below. Such claims are generally limited to injuries to, or death of, children receiving care under the family child care program that are caused by the negligence of authorized providers. Claims arising from the transportation of such children in motor vehicles and claims involving loss of or damage to property are not cognizable.
</P>
<P>(b) An ACO or a CPO will ask the Commander USARCS for an advisory opinion prior to settling any non-NAFI RIMP claim where the person whose conduct generated liability does not fall clearly within the categories listed above. Such authorities may also ask, through the Commander USARCS, for an advisory opinion from the U.S. Army Community and Family Support Center prior to settling any claim arising under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, where it is not clear that the injured or deceased child was receiving care within the scope of the family child care program.
</P>
<P>(c) Where liability has been determined to exist for both non-NAFI RIMP and APF activities, liability will be apportioned between the two activities.
</P>
<P>(d) The total payment for all claims (including derivative claims), arising as a result of injury to, or death of, any one person is limited to $500,000 for each incident. Continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same or similar harmful activity or conditions is treated as one incident for purposes of determining the limits of liability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.156" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.156   Procedures for claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting.</I> Non-NAFI RIMP claims (regardless of the amount claimed) and incidents that could give rise to non-NAFI RIMP claims will be reported to USARCS and the Army Central Insurance Fund immediately.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigation.</I> ACOs and CPOs are responsible for the investigation of non-NAFI RIMP claims. Such investigation will be closely coordinated with program managers responsible for the activity generating the claim. Close coordination with USARCS is also required, and USARCS will maintain mirror files containing the investigative materials of all actual and potential claims.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment.</I> Non-NAFI RIMP claims will be transmitted for payment to: The Army Central Insurance Fund, ATTN: CFSC-FM-I, 4700 King Street, Alexandria, VA 22302-4406.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commercial insurance.</I> The provisions of § 536.148(d) also apply to claims arising under this section, except that in claims involving family child care providers, a claims investigation will be conducted regardless of whether commercial insurance exists.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.157" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.7.11.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.157   Settlement/approval authority for claims involving tortfeasors other than nonappropriated fund employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> TJAG, TAJAG, and the Commander USARCS are authorized to approve in full or in part, or deny a non-NAFI RIMP claim, regardless of the amount claimed, except where an apportioned amount to be paid from APFs exceeds their monetary authority and the action of the Attorney General or Assistant General Counsel is required as set forth in § 536.151(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval authority.</I> (1) The staff judge advocate, Commander or chief of a command claims service, and a head of an area claims office are authorized to approve in full or in part non-NAFI RIMP claims presented in the amount of $50,000 or less, provided the acceptance is in full settlement and all claims and potential claims arising out of a single incident do not exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(2) The above authorities are not delegated authority to deny or make a final offer on a claim under this section. Claims requiring such action will be forwarded to the Commander USARCS with an appropriate recommendation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Finality of settlement.</I> A denial or final offer on a non-NAFI RIMP claim is final and conclusive and is not subject to reconsideration or appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="537" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 537—CLAIMS ON BEHALF OF THE UNITED STATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E; 42 U.S.C. 2651-2653; 10 U.S.C. 1095; 10 U.S.C. 4803-4804; 33 U.S.C. 408.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 69403, Nov. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 537.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.1   Statutory authority for non-maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Federal Claims Collection Act.</I> The Federal Claims Collection Act (FCCA), is set forth at 31 U.S.C. 3711-3720E, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982, Public Law 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749 (October 1982), Public Law 101-552, 104 Stat. 2746 (November 1990).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal Medical Care Recovery Act.</I> The Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA) is set forth at 42 U.S.C. 2651-53, as amended by the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997, Public Law 104-202, section 1075, 110 Stat. 2422.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Title 10 United States Code Section 1095.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1095, Public Law 101-510, section 713, 107 Stat. 1547, 1689 (1993), as amended by Public Law 103-160, 104 Stat. 1485 (November 1990).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 537.1:</HED>
<P>All of these statutes may be viewed on the USARCS Web site, <I>https://www.jagcnet.army.mil/85256F33005C2B92/(JAGCNETDocID)/HOME?OPENDOCUMENT.</I> Select the link “Claims Resources.”</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.2   Scope of non-maritime affirmative claims statutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recovery for government property loss or damage.</I> The FCCA, originally passed in 1966, gives federal agencies the authority to collect a claim of the United States government for money or property arising out of the activities of the agency in question. However, the broad authority is limited for purposes of this regulation to claims for loss of or damage to property, as the FMCRA takes precedence for medical care recoveries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recovery for medical expenses and lost military pay.</I> (1) The FMCRA, passed in 1962, authorizes recovery from a third person of the expenses for medical care the United States furnishes to a person who is injured or suffers a disease when such care is authorized or required by law. Likewise the United States is authorized to recover the cost of pay for members of the uniformed services unable to perform duties. Recovery normally arises out of a third-party tort under local law as to which the United States has an independent cause of action.
</P>
<P>(2) Under 10 U.S.C. 1095 the United States is also deemed a third-party beneficiary or subrogee under an alternative system of computations such as workers' compensation; hospital lien laws; contract rights under the terms of insurance policies including medical payment coverage; uninsured, underinsured and no-fault coverage; and no-fault laws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recovery of health insurance.</I> 10 U.S.C. 1095 permits recovery of health insurance for medical care furnished at military medical treatment facilities (MTFs), including supplemental policies. This third-party collection program has been delegated to the Surgeon General of the Army by the Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Worldwide applicability.</I> The foregoing authorities are worldwide in application, except for intergovernmental claims waived by treaty, for example, North Atlantic Treaty Association Status of Forces Agreement (NATO SOFA), Article VIII, paragraph 1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.3   Claims collectible.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims for medical expenses.</I> Claims for the value of medical care furnished to active or retired members of the uniformed services, family members of either category, employees of the Department of the Army (DA) or Department of Defense (DOD), or other persons to whom care was furnished because authorized or required by law and resulting in injury, death or disease, including those:
</P>
<P>(1) Arising out of a tort under local law,
</P>
<P>(2) Arising out of an on-the-job injury compensable under workers' compensation law except for Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA) recoveries,
</P>
<P>(3) Based on the United States being a third-party beneficiary of the insurance contract of the injured party to include medical payment coverage, lost wages, as well as uninsured, underinsured, and no-fault coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims for lost military pay.</I> Claims for the value of lost pay of active members of the uniformed services arising out of a tort under local law resulting in injury, death or disease.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims for property loss.</I> Claims arising out of a tort under local law for the value of lost or missing DA or DOD property, including non-appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) property, or for the cost of repairs of such property, including damage to assigned quarters, are not collectable under 10 U.S.C. 2775. (See § 537.4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.4   Claims not collectible.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the tortfeasor is a department, agency or instrumentality of the United States. (See § 536.27(g) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) Where the tortfeasor is a member of the uniformed services or an employee of the DA or DOD, acting within the scope of employment, who damages or loses property. See AR 735-5, chapter 13.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the damage or loss of property falls under a contractor bill of lading and recovery is pursued by the contracting agency, e.g., Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC), formerly the Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC), for lost or destroyed shipments.
</P>
<P>(d) Where damage to assigned quarters, or equipment or furnishings therein, is collectible from a member of the uniformed services under 10 U.S.C. 2775.
</P>
<P>(e) Where the medical care is furnished by a Department of Veterans Affairs facility to other than active duty members of the uniformed services for service-connected disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.5   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis for recovery.</I> (1) Most recovery assertions are based on the negligence or wrongful acts or omissions of the person or entity that caused the loss. These actions or omissions must constitute a tort as determined by the law of place of occurrence, except in no-fault jurisdictions where the no-fault law permits recovery. Where the tort is not complete within the jurisdiction where it originally occurred, the law of the original jurisdiction is nevertheless applicable. For example, if a plane crashes in Virginia due to the negligence of a Federal Aviation Administration controller in Maryland, Maryland law determines the extent and nature of the tort. However, as to what law of damages is applicable, Maryland or Virginia depecage (choice of law) theory may apply. For example, if the flight originated in Indiana and the destination was Virginia, the conflict law of both Maryland and Virginia must be applied. See DA Pam 27-162, paragraph 2-35.
</P>
<P>(2) Recovery assertions based on the United States being a third-party beneficiary or subrogee are not based on tort, but on the right to recover under local law, for example, the right of a third party to recover workers' compensation benefits is based on local law. However, the right of a third-party beneficiary to recover under an insurance contract may turn on whether an exclusionary clause is valid under the law of the jurisdiction where the contract was made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> (1) Federal law determines when a recovery assertion must be made. Assertions for the value of medical expenses, lost military pay or property loss or damage based on a tort must be made not later than three years from the date of accrual, 28 U.S.C. 2415(b). The date of accrual is usually the date of the occurrence giving rise to the recovery, for example, the date of injury or death for medical expenses and lost military pay or the date of damage or loss for a government property assertion. There are exceptions. For example, the loss of property in rightful possession of another accrues when that person claims ownership or converts the property to his own use.
</P>
<P>(2) Recovery assertions based on an implied-in-law contract against a no-fault or personal-injury-protection insured must be brought no later than six years from the date of accrual, 28 U.S.C. 2415(a), <I>United States</I> v. <I>Limbs,</I> 524 F.2d 799 (9th Cir. 1975). The date of accrual is usually the date of occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Actions asserted on a third-party beneficiary basis against an insurer or workers compensation fund must comply with the state notice requirement, which varies from one to six years, or the insurer's notice requirement set forth in the policy. <I>United States</I> v. <I>Hartford Acci. &amp; Indem. Co.,</I> 460 F.2d 17 (9th Cir. 1972), cert. den. 409 U.S. 979 (1972).
</P>
<P>(4) The statute of limitations is tolled or does not start running until the responsible federal official is notified of the existence of a recoverable loss, <I>Jankowitz</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 533 F.2d 538 (D.C. Cir. 1976), <I>United States</I> v. <I>Golden Acres, Inc.,</I> 684 F. Supp. 96 (D. Del. 1986). The responsible federal official can be the area claims office (ACO), the claims processing office (CPO), a command claims service or USARCS, depending on who receives the notice under this regulation. However, because of the responsibility to notify the MTF or TRICARE fiscal intermediary, and by regulation the notice must be expeditious, delayed notification could start the statute of limitations running. Additionally, when an ACO or CPO discovers the existence of an assertion, the statute of limitations will begin to run regardless of when the MTF or the TRICARE intermediary sends a notice. The date of receipt of a notice must be entered into the affirmative claims management program/database (ACMP) and the notice must be date-stamped and initialed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.6   Identification of recovery incidents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities.</I> Each command claims service and ACO will develop means to identify recovery incidents arising in its geographic area of responsibility. See §§ 536.10 and 536.11 of this chapter and paragraph 2-2 of DA Pam 27-162. This requires publication of a claims directive to all DOD and Army installations, units and activities in its area, emphasizing the importance of reporting serious incidents to recovery judge advocates (RJAs) or civilian recovery attorneys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Screening procedures.</I> (1) Establish a point of contact in each unit and activity in the area of responsibility and screen their sources periodically, including motor pools, family housing, departments of public works, safety offices, provost marshals, and criminal investigation divisions. Review civilian news and police reports, military police blotters and reports, court proceedings, line of duty and AR 15-6 investigations and similar sources to identify potential medical care recovery claims.
</P>
<P>(2) The MTF commander will ensure that the claims office is notified of instances in which the MTF provides, or is billed by a civilian facility for, inpatient or outpatient care resulting from injuries (such as broken bones or burns arising from automobile accidents, gas explosions, falls, civilian malpractice, and similar incidents) that do not involve collections from a health benefits or Medicare supplemental insurer. Claims personnel will coordinate with MTF personnel to ensure that inpatient and outpatient records and emergency room and clinic logs are properly screened to identify potential cases. The RJA or recovery attorney will screen the MTF comptroller records database and division records as well as ambulance logs to identify potential medical care recovery cases. The RJA or recovery attorney will also coordinate with Navy and Air Force claims offices and MTFs to ensure they identify potential claims involving treatment provided to Army personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) The MTF commander will also ensure that the MTF does not release billings or medical records, or respond to requests for assistance with workers' compensation forms, without coordinating with the RJA or recovery attorney.
</P>
<P>(4) The TRICARE fiscal intermediary is required to identify and mail certain information promptly to the claims office designated as the state point of contact. The fiscal intermediary must mail the TRICARE Explanation of Benefits, showing the amount TRICARE paid on the claim along with what diagnostic codes were used, and DD Form 2527, Statement of Personal Injury. A sample Statement of Personal Injury (DD Form 2527) is posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see the Note to § 537.1.
</P>
<P>(5) The RJA or recovery attorney will also coordinate with Navy and Air Force claims offices and MTFs to ensure they identify potential claims involving treatment provided to Army personnel, AR 40-400, paragraph 13-5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to open a recovery file.</I> (1) Upon identification of a potential recovery incident or upon receipt of a billing from a TRICARE Fiscal Intermediary or an MTF, a file will be opened and entered into the ACMP by the first ACO or CPO that learns of the event even if liability has not been established. Incidents under Navy, Air Force or Coast Guard jurisdiction will not be so entered but referred to the responsible service. Complete listings of claims/recovery offices worldwide are posted on the USARCS Web site; for the address see the Note to § 537.1. At the site, select the link “Claims Resources.” At the next screen, click on “Tables Listing Claims Offices Worldwide.”).
</P>
<P>(2) Army responsibility for affirmative claims is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Damage to or loss of real or personal property of the DOD or the Army even if located at installations or activities under the jurisdiction of other uniformed services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal injury to persons whose primary care for an accident-related injury is furnished at an Army MTF, regardless of the uniformed services affiliation of the person or sponsor, but not to those treated at another uniformed service's MTF even if the person is an active duty Army member.
</P>
<P>(iii) Personal injury to an active duty or retired Army member or a family member of either category treated under TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(iv) A lead agency will be established whenever:
</P>
<P>(A) Property damaged or lost belonging to more than one service is involved in the same incident.
</P>
<P>(B) Personal injury victims are treated at MTFs of more than one service.
</P>
<P>(C) Personal injury victims with affiliations to more than one service are treated under TRICARE.
</P>
<P>(D) Lead agencies may be established locally for claims valued at $50,000 or less. For claims greater than $50,000 USARCS will be notified and will deal with the other service at headquarters level. (See § 536.32 of this chapter.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.7   Notice to USARCS.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of notice of a claim involving either actual or potential amounts within USARCS' monetary jurisdiction, that is, where final action will be taken by USARCS or the Department of Justice, immediate notice will be given to USARCS. Forwarding a copy of the serious incident report, discussed in § 536.22(c) of this chapter, to USARCS, will meet this requirement. Thereafter, mirror file copies will be furnished to USARCS in accordance with AR 27-20, paragraph 2-12. This allows for continuous monitoring and discussion between the ACO and the USARCS area action officer (AAO).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.8" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.8   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims over $50,000.</I> Hands-on investigation will be conducted by claims personnel as set forth in DA Pam 27-162, Chapter 2, Section IV, regardless of the amount of insurance coverage immediately available, with a view to discovery of other sources of recovery, for example, vehicle defects or improper maintenance, road design and absence of warning signs, products liability, medical malpractice in civilian treatment facilities. Where the employment of experts is indicated follow the procedures in § 536.39 of this chapter. No attorney representation agreement will be sent to the injured party's representative without USARCS approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims of $50,000 or less.</I> The amount of hands-on investigative effort is directly related to the amount of insurance coverage that the tortfeasor possesses and the amount of coverage that the injured party has. Where the injured party is represented, request information from his lawyer or insurer, in addition to the documents obtained in initial screening. The ACO should be able to form an independent opinion as to liability based on the investigation of the government and not solely on that of the injured party's attorney.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims of $5,000 or less.</I> Small claims procedures are applicable to the extent feasible. See § 536.33 of this chapter. Investigation, assertion and settlement by e-mail, phone or fax is encouraged. The investigation and action should be recorded. DA Form 1668, Small Claims Certificate, may be used as a model, modifying it as needed. A sample completed Small Claims Certificate is posted at USARCS Web site for the address see the Note to § 537.1.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relations with injured party.</I> (1) When the injured party becomes known and an interview can be conducted locally, all relevant facts will be obtained unless the injured party is represented by a lawyer. In this latter event, basic information as set forth on DD Form 2527, Statement of Personal Injury (a completed sample is posted at the USARCS Web site; for the address see the Note to § 537.1) can be obtained without violating lawyer-client privilege. If the injured party is not immediately available, the information can be obtained by requesting assistance from another ACO, a unit claims officer, a reservist or Army National Guard (ANG) member, another federal agency, or another means.
</P>
<P>(2) When the injured party is represented, a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) medical release form (sample posted at the USARCS Web site; see § 537 (b)(4)) permitting USARCS to send out the medical records of the injured party for claims purposes, will be sent to the injured party's lawyer for completion and return.
</P>
<P>(3) When the injured party or his or her lawyer refuses to furnish necessary information, it can usually be obtained by other means, for example, from an accident report or investigation. A notice will be furnished to all parties that the government has been assigned the right to bring a claim for the value of medical care furnished, lost pay or value of property lost or destroyed, and that the United States has the right to bring an independent cause of action. In absence of timely and appropriate response, discuss with the AAO to determine what action should be taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.9" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.9   Assertion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Asserting demands.</I> If a prima facie claim exists under state law, a written demand will be made against all the tortfeasors and insurers. This includes demands against the injured party's own insurance coverage, no-fault coverage and workers' compensation carrier. The earlier the demand the better. A demand will not be delayed until the exact amount of medical expenses or lost pay is determined. The demand letter will state that the amount will be furnished when known. A copy of the demand will be furnished to the injured party or, if represented, his lawyer. Two sample demand (or assertion) letters are posted at the USARCS Web site (for the address see the Note to § 537.1). Demand letters are for initial contact with insurance companies. One of the posted samples is for a medical assertion for a soldier (that includes wages). The other is for a medical assertion for a civilian (that does not include wages). Remember the following points when asserting demands:
</P>
<P>(1) The fact that the medical expenses have been assigned to the United States and as a result the United States has a cause of action in federal or state court. All parties will be notified that if the insurer pays the amount to another party, the United States has the right to collect from the insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) Demands for third-party torts are under the authority of the FMCRA; demands where there is no tortfeasor are under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 1095; demands for property loss or damage are under the authority of the FCCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation of damages.</I> MTFs are required by AR 40-400, Patient Administration, chapter 13 to furnish complete billing documents to RJAs.
</P>
<P>(1) TRICARE bills are obtained from the fiscal intermediary servicing the ACO. The amounts are based on the amount TRICARE pays and not the amount the patient is billed by the provider. TRICARE bills must be screened to insure that the care is incident or accident related as the demand is limited to that amount.
</P>
<P>(2) MTF bills, both outpatient and inpatient, are obtained from either the MTF co-located with the ACO or if another MTF is involved, from that MTF, regardless of uniformed service affiliation. Outpatient bills include not only the cost of the visit but also the cost of each procedure, such as x-rays or laboratory tests. Inpatient billing is not based on services rendered but on a diagnostic group. Charges for professional inpatient services will be itemized the same as outpatient care. Charges for prescription services will be included. Screening to ensure that only incident or accident related care is claimed is essential. The cost of ambulance services, ground or air, will be calculated with MTF assistance and demanded. Burial expenses are obtained from the local mortuary affairs office on DD Form 2063, but will be demanded only when the insurance coverage includes such expenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Lost pay will be obtained from the leave or earnings statement or the active duty pay chart for the year or years in question and will include special and incentive pay unless the injured service member did not receive either due to the length of time off assigned duty. The time off duty will be based on the time service members are unable to perform duties for which they have been trained (their military occupational specialty). It will not be limited to inpatient time. Time in a medical holding or convalescent leave will be lost time.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount recoverable for personal property losses is limited to its value at the time of loss. Depreciation charts may be used to determine the reduction from the value at purchase. Replacement value will not be used. Both real and personal property damage will be on the value of labor and cost of material including the use of heavy equipment. When the cost of repairs is greater than $50,000, 10% overhead will be added. This can be substantiated using case law and by seeking documentation from the repair facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Double collections prohibited.</I> When the cost of medical care is recoverable by the MTF from medical care insurance, both primary and supplemental under 10 U.S.C. 1095, an assertion under FMCRA will be made, including a demand for lost pay not recoverable out of health insurance. While the United States is entitled to recover costs of medical care from both the injured parties' medical insurance and from the third-party tortfeasor, USARCS policy is not to collect twice. RJAs will carefully coordinate with the MTF to insure that double collection does not occur. Demand for lost pay should be enforced as it is not recoverable from medical care insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.10" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.10   Recovery procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recovery personnel have three means of enforcing recovery following initial assertion.
</P>
<P>(1) Referral to litigation pursuant to § 537.11;
</P>
<P>(2) The head of an ACO should request Chief, Litigation Division, OTJAG to have the RJA appointed as a Special Assistant United States Attorney when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Filing suit is a frequent necessity, e.g., insurance companies are refusing payment on small claims either by raising issues well settled or by regularly reducing the amount of medical care as not fair and reasonable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The local U.S. Attorney's office is in favor of such appointment due to his previous experience with the RJA and the additional burden of affirmative claims litigation on his staff;
</P>
<P>(iii) The RJA has at least two years experience and is likely to continue in the RJA assignment for at least one year; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Commander USARCS concurs in the appointment and is willing to furnish support.
</P>
<P>(3) The RJA may request that the attorney representing the injured party include the amount asserted by the United States as part of special damages. The injured party's attorney may not represent the United States nor may the United States pay attorney fees as this would be in violation of 5 U.S.C. 3106. Where indicated, this arrangement should be reduced to writing. Be mindful that the attorney's duty to the injured party is in conflict with the interests of the United States where the amount potentially recoverable is small in comparison to the amount asserted by the United States. In this event the RJA should pursue recovery independently.
</P>
<P>(b) Careful monitoring of all assertions is required to insure timely follow-up resulting in collection or suit where indicated. Installation of a suspense system to avoid the expiration of the statute of limitations is essential. Recommendations to file suit should be forwarded by the RJA well prior to the expiration of the statute of limitations. Within six months prior to the running of the statute of limitations, USARCS must be notified of the status of the claim or potential claim. Follow-up demands should precede filing suit to create a written record of efforts to avoid suit. Personal contact with all parties is encouraged. When represented, contact the representative.
</P>
<P>(c) Sources other than vehicle liability coverage should be exhausted in cases where the amount of the potential recovery exceeds $50,000 and the coverage is small. Coordination with USARCS is required. USARCS can obtain expert witnesses for medical malpractice cases, product liability cases, or other cases in which another tortfeasor may be involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.11" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.11   Litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a tortfeasor or insurer refuses to settle, or if an injured party's attorney improperly withholds funds, the RJA or recovery attorney must consider litigation to protect the interests of the United States. Litigation is particularly appropriate if a particular insurer consistently refuses to settle claims, or if the government's interests are not adequately represented on a claim over $25,000.
</P>
<P>(b) RJAs or recovery attorneys must maintain close contact with local U.S. Attorney's Offices to ensure these offices are willing to initiate litigation on cases.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to directly initiate or intervene in litigation, an RJA or recovery attorney must prepare a litigation report and formally refer the case through the Affirmative Claims Branch, USARCS, and the Litigation Division, OTJAG (as required by AR 27-40, chapter 5), to the U.S. Attorney. While the RJA or recovery attorney, in conjunction with the Litigation Division Torts Branch, should attempt to have the U.S. Attorney's Office initiate litigation at least six months before the expiration of the statute of limitations (SOL), the RJA or recovery attorney may contact USARCS telephonically if SOL problems necessitate quick action on a case. The RJA or recovery attorney should also contact USARCS if a U.S. Attorney is reluctant to pursue an important case. An injured party's attorney may represent the government's interest in litigation without any special coordination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.12" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.12   Settlement authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assertions for $50,000 or less</I>—(1) <I>Approval authority.</I> An RJA or civilian recovery attorney, if delegated authority by his or her ACO or CPO, may compromise a collection on a claim asserted for $50,000 or less, unless recovery action is reserved by a command claims service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Final action authority.</I> (i) An ACO, or CPO if delegated authority by its ACO, may terminate collection action on a claim asserted for $50,000 or less, unless action is reserved by a command claims service.
</P>
<P>(ii) The foregoing authorities may waive a claim asserted for $50,000 or less where undue hardship exists.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determination of amount. The amount of $50,000 is determined totaling the amounts for medical care, lost military wages, lost earnings or government property damage arising from the same claims incident.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assertions over $50,000.</I> USARCS retains final authority over assertions over $50,000. By use of the mirror file system and through a dialogue between USARCS and the field during the course of the assertion, USARCS will decide whether it or the RJA or civilian recovery attorney will conduct the negotiations. To help it decide, the RJA or civilian recovery attorney will forward a memorandum for either medical or property recovery approval, in the format of the samples posted at the USARCS Web site (for the address see the Note to § 537.1). USARCS may waive the requirement to submit a memorandum.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals</I>—(1) <I>Assertion for $50,000 or less.</I> Where the assertion is made by an RJA or civilian recovery attorney, the appeal will be determined by the SJA, the medical center judge advocate, or head of the ACO or CPO. Otherwise, the appeal will be determined by the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assertion over $50,000.</I> Where the assertion is made by a Claims Judge Advocate or claims attorney, the appeal will be determined by the Commander USARCS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compromise or waiver.</I> Any assertion may be compromised, waived or terminated in whole or in part, if for example:
</P>
<P>(1) The cost to collect does not justify the cost of enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) There is evidence of fraud or misrepresentation.
</P>
<P>(3) The U.S. cannot locate the tortfeasor.
</P>
<P>(4) Legal merit has not been substantiated.
</P>
<P>(5) The statute of limitations has run and the debtor refuses to pay.
</P>
<P>(6) Collection of all or part of the amount of funds demanded would create inequity. The following criteria apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed information on what funds are available for recovery.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable value of the injured party's claim for permanent injury, pain and suffering, decreased earning power, and any other special damages.
</P>
<P>(iii) Military, Department of Veterans Affairs, Social Security disability, and any other government benefits accruing to the injured party.
</P>
<P>(iv) Probability and amount of future medical expenses of the government and the injured party.
</P>
<P>(v) Present and prospective assets, income, and obligations of the injured party and those dependent on him or her.
</P>
<P>(vi) The financial condition of the debtor.
</P>
<P>(vii) The degree and nature of contributory negligence on the part of the injured party in causing his injury or death.
</P>
<P>(viii) The percentage of attorney's fees that his attorney is willing to reduce.
</P>
<P>(ix) The willingness of the tortfeasor to enter into an installment agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Releases.</I> The RJA or recovery attorney may execute a release for affirmative claims in the pre-litigation stage acknowledging that the government has received payment in full of the amount asserted or the compromised amount agreed upon, or the final installment payment. The format of the release should be similar to the sample posted at the USARCS Web site (for the address see the Note to § 537.1). However, the RJA or recovery attorney may not execute either an indemnity agreement or a release which prejudices the government's right to recover on other claims arising out of the same incident without the approval of USARCS. In addition, the RJA or recovery attorney may not execute a release that purports to release any claim that the injured party may have other than for medical care furnished or to be furnished by the United States. The RJA or recovery attorney will not execute a release if the government's claim is waived or terminated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.13" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.13   Enforcement of assertions.</HEAD>
<P>Meritorious assertions that do not result in collections should be enforced as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Where the debtor is a business or corporation otherwise financially capable the RJA or equivalent should forward a recommendation to bring suit or intervene in an existing suit regardless of the amount of the debt. As authorized by 28 U.S.C. 3011, the demand amount in the complaint shall include an additional 10% of the original claimed amount, to cover the administrative costs of processing and handling the enforcement of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the debtor is an individual rather than a business, an asset determination should be made both as to existing assets or prospective earnings. If the injured party's attorney has made an assets search which is reliable, review the search before requesting a new one. Such a search can be paid for out of existing collections.
</P>
<P>(1) If the debtor has assets refer to USARCS for transfer to a debt collection contractor or an agency debt collection center as determined by USARCS.
</P>
<P>(2) If the debtor has no assets, but prospective future earnings, RJA may seek a confession of judgment and maintain contact with the debtor for future collection where authorized by state law and filing of suit is not required. If the amount is less then $5,000, enter into an installment payment arrangement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.14" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.14   Depositing of collections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Depositing property damage recovery</I>—(1) <I>Machines, supplies, watercraft, aircraft, vehicles other than General Services Administration-owned.</I> Recovered money must be deposited into the General Treasury Account 21R3019. This account remains the same every fiscal year. It was established in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3302(b) and by Comptroller General decision B-205508, 64 Comp. Gen. 431.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Real property.</I> Collection for damage to real property must be deposited into an escrow account on behalf of the installation or activity at which the loss occurred. This escrow account must be set up at the request of the command claims service, ACO or CPO with the local finance office or resource management office with responsibility for department of engineering and housing or department of public works funds. The escrow account must be set up and managed by the department of engineering and housing or the department of public works to (1) temporarily hold deposits, and (2) to “roll over” deposits each fiscal year in order to avoid reversion of these deposits to the General Treasury at the end of each fiscal year. If the escrow account is not set up and managed in this manner it is operating in violation of 10 U.S.C. 2782.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>NAFI property.</I> The Risk Management Program (RIMP) often reimburses local NAFIs for property loss or damage to facilitate return of equipment to daily use. When money is recovered from tortfeasors and their insurance carriers contact the NAFI involved for instructions on the current procedures as to where the recovered money is to be forwarded and deposited.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Army Stock Fund or Defense Business Operations Fund property.</I> Monies recovered for damage to property belonging to one of these funds will be returned to that fund unless the fund has charged the cost of repair or replacement to an appropriated fund account. The Defense Business Operations Fund replaced the Army Industrial Fund.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Government housing in cases of abuse or neglect by soldiers or families.</I> Monies recovered for damage to government housing caused by a soldier's abuse or negligence (or by a soldier's family member or guest of the soldier) will be deposited into that installation's family housing operations and maintenance (O&amp;M) account.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Government housing in cases of negligence by nonresidents.</I> Government housing caused by the negligence of a nonresident must be asserted against the nonresident directly or through his/her insurer. Settlement checks must be deposited into the real property escrow account in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2782.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Depositing recovery of pay provided to a soldier while incapacitated.</I> Monies recovered for the costs of pay provided to a soldier injured by the tortious acts of another shall be credited to the local O&amp;M account that supports the command, activity, or other unit to which the soldier was assigned at the time of the injury.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Depositing medical care recovery</I>—(1) <I>To a medical treatment facility account.</I> Continental U.S. (CONUS) and outside the continental U.S. (OCONUS) claims offices, and command claims services, will deposit money recovered from an automobile insurer for medical care provided, paid for by, in or through an MTF to the O&amp;M account of the Army, Navy, or Air Force MTF that provided the care. CONUS and OCONUS claims offices, and command claims services, will deposit money recovered from any payor, under any provision of law, for medical care provided or paid for by, in or through an MTF into the MTF's O&amp;M account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposits when TRICARE paid directly for treatment.</I> The account in which to deposit affirmative claims recoveries when TRICARE has paid directly for the medical treatment is a Defense Health Program (DHP) account for reallocation to the services. This replaces the general treasury miscellaneous receipts account published in AR 37-100 (obsolete). Deposit to TRICARE using this new account for recoveries pending deposit, and recoveries for any claim settled on or after October 1, 2002. Retroactive claims depositing is not necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Apportionment of medical care recovery between accounts.</I> Claims offices will often have to apportion recovered money among different accounts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Apportioning money between accounts.</I> If care was provided by an MTF and paid for by or through the MTF and/or directly by TRICARE and/or a unit account for military lost wages if any, and the amount recovered is less than the amount asserted, deposit a prorated amount of money into each TRICARE account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Apportioning money between two or more medical treatment facility accounts.</I> If care was provided by two or more MTFs and the claims office recovers less than the amount asserted, the claims office should give each MTF a pro rata share of the money recovered. For example, if MTF one provided $2,000 worth of care and MTF two provided $1,000 worth of care, the claims office will deposit $800 of a $1,200 recovery to MTF one's account and the remaining $400 to MTF two's account. Similarly, if the claims office recovers an amount less than that asserted for medical care expenses and costs of pay provided, the claims office should give a pro rata share of the money recovered to both the MTF and the appropriation account that supports the injured soldier's unit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fiscal integrity.</I> Field claims offices must reconcile the property damage and medical care recovery accounts with their servicing defense accounting office. Field claims offices must ensure that their deposits have been credited to the proper accounts and that these accounts have not been improperly charged. All accounts must be reconciled at the end of the fiscal year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.15" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.15   Statutory authority for maritime claims and claims involving civil works of a maritime nature.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act.</I> The sections pertinent to maritime affirmative claims are set out at 10 U.S.C. 4803-4804.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Rivers and Harbors Act.</I> The section of the Act pertinent to affirmative claims involving civil works of a maritime nature is set out at 33 U.S.C. 408.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.16" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.16   Scope for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>The Army Maritime Claims Settlement Act (10 U.S.C. 4803-4804) applies worldwide and includes claims that arise on high seas or within the territorial waters of a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(a) 10 U.S.C. 4803 provides for agency settlement or compromise of claims for damage to:
</P>
<P>(1) DA-accountable properties of a kind that are within the federal maritime jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) Property under the DA's jurisdiction or DA property damaged by a vessel or floating object.
</P>
<P>(b) 10 U.S.C. 4804 provides for the settlement or compromise of claims in any amount for salvage services (including contract salvage and towage) performed by the DA. Claims for salvage services are based upon labor cost, per diem rates for the use of salvage vessels and other equipment, and repair or replacement costs for materials and equipment damaged or lost during the salvage operation. The sum claimed is usually intended to compensate the United States for operational costs only, reserving, however, the government's right to assert a claim on a salvage bonus basis in accordance with commercial practice.
</P>
<P>(c) The United States has three years from the date a maritime claim accrues under this section to file suit against the responsible party or parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.17" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.17   Scope for civil works claims of maritime nature.</HEAD>
<P>Under the River and Harbors Act (33 U.S.C. 408), the United States has the right to recover fines, penalties, forfeitures and other special remedies in addition to compensation for damage to civil works structures such as a lock or dam. However, claims arising under 10 U.S.C. 4804 are limited to recovery of actual damage to Corps of Engineers (COE) civil works structures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.18   Settlement authority for maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Army, the Army General Counsel as designee of the Secretary, or other designee of the Secretary may compromise an affirmative claim brought by the United States in any amount. A claim settled or compromised in a net amount exceeding $500,000 will be investigated and processed and, if approved by the Secretary of the Army or his or her designee, certified to Congress for final approval.
</P>
<P>(b) TJAG, TAJAG, the Commander USARCS, the Chief Counsel COE, or Division or District Counsel Offices may settle or compromise and receive payment on a claim by the United States under this part if the amount to be received does not exceed $100,000. These authorities may also terminate collection of claims for the convenience of the government in accordance with the standards specified by the DOJ.
</P>
<P>(c) An SJA or a chief of a command claims service and heads of ACOs may receive payment for the full amount of a claim not exceeding $100,000, or compromise any claim in which the amount to be recovered does not exceed $50,000 and the amount claimed does not exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(d) Any money collected under this authority shall be deposited into the U.S. General Treasury, except that money collected on civil works claims in favor of the United States pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 408 “shall be placed to the credit of the appropriation for the improvement of the harbor or waterway in which the damage occurred * * *” (33 U.S.C. 412; 33 U.S.C. 571).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.19" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.19   Demands arising from maritime claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is essential that Army claims personnel demand payment, or notify the party involved of the Army's intention to make such demands, as soon as possible following receipt of information of damage to Army property where the party's legal liability to respond exists or might exist. Except as provided below pertaining to admiralty claims and claims for damage to civil works in favor of the United States pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 408, copies of the initial demand or written notice of intention to issue a demand letter, as well as copies of subsequent correspondence, will be provided promptly to the Commander USARCS, who will monitor the progress of such claims.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to limitation of settlement authority, demands for admiralty claims and civil works damages in favor of the United States pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 408 may be asserted, regardless of amount, by the Chief Counsel COE, or his designees in COE Division or District Counsel offices.
</P>
<P>(c) Where, in response to any demand, a respondent denies liability, fails to respond within a reasonable period, or offers a compromise settlement, the file will be promptly forwarded to the Commander USARCS, except in those cases in which a proposed compromise settlement is deemed acceptable and the claim is otherwise within the authority delegated in § 537.18 of this part. Files for admiralty claims and civil works claims in favor of the United States pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 408 will be promptly forwarded to the United States Department of Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 537.20" NODE="32:3.1.1.2.8.0.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 537.20   Certification to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>Admiralty claims, including claims for damage to civil works in favor of the United States pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 408, proposed for settlement or compromise in a net amount exceeding $100,000 will be submitted through the Commander USARCS to the Secretary of the Army for approval and if in excess of $500,000 for certification to Congress for final approval.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="32:3.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—MILITARY EDUCATION 




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="543-544" NODE="32:3.1.1.3.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 543-544 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="32:3.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—MILITARY RESERVATIONS AND NATIONAL CEMETERIES 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="552" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 552—REGULATIONS AFFECTING MILITARY RESERVATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 3012, 15 U.S.C. 1601; 18 U.S.C. 1382; 31 U.S.C. 71; 40 U.S.C. 258a; 41 U.S.C. 14; 50 U.S.C. 797.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Post Commander</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.18   Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section outlines the duties and prescribes the general authority and general responsibilities of an installation commander. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The regulations in this section are applicable to installations in the United States, and where appropriate, to oversea installations. Oversea commanders should consult with the appropriate judge advocate to determine to what extent the provisions of treaties or agreements, or the provisions of local law may make inapplicable, in whole, or in part, the provisions of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General.</I> The installation commander is responsible for the efficient and economical operation, administration, service, and supply of all individuals, units, and activities assigned to or under the jurisdiction of the installation unless specifically exempted by higher authority. Activities will be designated as “attached activities” only when specifically designated by higher authority. The installation commander will furnish base operation support to all Army tenant activities except when the Department of the Army has given approval for the tenant to perform base operation functions. Reimbursement for such support will be in accordance with applicable regulations. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motor vehicle and traffic regulations.</I> See AR 190-5, Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision; AR 190-5-1, Registration of Privately Owned Motor Vehicles; AR 190-29, Minor Offenses and Uniform Violation Notices—Referred to US District Courts; AR 210-4, Carpooling and Parking Controls; AR 230-14, Registration and Licensing of Nonappropriated Fund Owned Vehicles; AR 385-55, Prevention of Motor Vehicle Accidents; and AR 600-55, Motor Vehicle Driver-Selection, Testing, and Licensing. A copy of the above documents may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Firearms.</I> The installation commander will publish regulations on the registration of privately owned firearms. See AR 608-4, Control and Registration of War Trophies and War Trophy Firearms. A copy of the above document may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entry, exit, and personal search.</I> The installation commander will establish rules that govern the entry into and exit from the installation and the search of persons and their possessions as listed in paragraphs (f) (1), (2), and (3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The installation commander may direct authorized guard personnel, while in the performance of assigned duty, to search persons (including military personnel, employees, and visitors), and their possessions (including vehicles) when entering, during their stay, or when leaving facilities for which the Army has responsibility. These searches are authorized when based on probable cause that an offense has been committed or on military necessity. Instructions of commanders regarding searches should be specific and complete. When the person to be searched is a commissioned officer, or a warrant officer, the search should be conducted in private by or under the supervision of a commissioned officer, unless such is precluded by the exigencies of the situation. When the person to be searched is a noncommissioned officer, the search should be conducted in private by or under the supervision of a person of at least equal grade, unless such is precluded by the exigencies of the situation. If the situation precludes search by or under the supervision of an officer (or noncommissioned officer, as appropriate), the person conducting the search will notify a responsible commissioned officer (or noncommissioned officer, as appropriate), as soon as possible. Persons who are entering the installation should not be searched over their objection, but they may be denied the right of entry if they refuse to consent to the search. All persons entering facilities should be advised in advance (by a prominently displayed sign, AR 420-70, (Buildings and Structures)), that they are liable to search when entering the installation, while within the confines of the installation, or when leaving (AR 190-22, Search, Seizure and Disposition of Property). A copy of the above documents may be obtained by writing to headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314. 
</P>
<P>(2) The installation commander may authorize and control hunting and fishing on a military installation under installation rules in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws and Army regulations, and in harmony with cooperative plans with appropriate State and Federal conservation agencies (AR 420-74, Natural Resources—Land, Forest, and Wildlife Management). To detect violations of these rules, special guards may be posted and authorized to search persons (or possessions, including vehicles of individuals), based on military necessity. The installation commander may eject violators of game laws or post regulations and prohibit their reentry under 18 U.S.C. 1382. Violations of State laws which apply to military reservations according to the provisions of section 13, title 18, U.S.C. (Assimilative Crimes Acts), may be referred to the United States Magistrate in accordance with AR 190-29, Minor Offenses and Uniform Violation Notices—Referred to United States District Courts. Reports of violations of game laws will be reported to Federal or State authorities. An installation commander may not require membership in a voluntary sundry fund activity as a prerequisite to hunting and fishing on the installation. Accounting for the collection and spending of fees for hunting and fishing permits is outlined in chapter 12, AR 37-108, General Accounting and Reporting for Finance and Accounting Offices. A copy of the above documents may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314.
</P>
<P>(3) When the installation commander considers that the circumstances warrant its use, DA Form 1818 (Individual Property Pass), will be used to authorize military and civilian personnel to carry Government or personal property onto an installation or to remove it from an installation.
</P>
<P>(4) Commanders will establish procedures to ensure than when blind persons are otherwise authorized to enter military facilities, their accompanying seeing-eye or guide dogs will not be denied entry. Such facilities include, but are not limited to: Cafeterias, snack bars, AAFES exchanges, retail food sales stores, medical treatment facilities, and recreational facilities. Seeing-eye or guide dogs will remain in guiding harness or on leash and under control of their blind masters at all times while in the facility. For purposes of safety and to prevent possible agitation of military police working dogs, seeing-eye or guide dogs will not be allowed in or around working dog kennels and facilities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Official Personnel Register.</I> DA Form 647 (Personnel Register), is a source document that will be used at the lowest level of command having responsibility for strength accounting. The official register will be used for registering military personnel on arrival at or on departure from Army installations on permanent change of station, leave, or temporary duty. DA Form 647 may also be used for recording passes, visitors, etc. Registration of visists of less than 12 hours will be at the discretion of the commander except that registrations will be required when visits are at a place where United States troops are on duty in connection with a civil disorder.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Outside employment of DA Personnel.</I> See paragraph 2-6, AR 600-50 Standards of Conduct for Department of the Army Personnel. A copy of this document may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preference to blind persons in operating vending stands.</I> As used in paragraphs (i) (1), (2), and (3) of this section, the term “vending stand” includes shelters, counters, shelving, display and wall cases, refrigerating apparatus, and other appropriate auxiliary equipment necessary for the vending of merchandise. The term “vending machine” means any coin-operated machine that automatically vends or delivers tangible personal property.
</P>
<P>(1) The installation commander will give preference to blind persons when granting permission to civilians to operate vending stands on installations where stands may be operated properly and satisfactorily by blind persons licensed by a State agency. Legal authority for such action is contained in the Randolph-Sheppard Vending Stand Act (20 U.S.C. 2-107 <I>et seq.</I>). Commanders will cooperate with the appropriate State licensing agency in selecting the type, location, or relocation of vending stands to be operated by licensed blind persons, except that preference may be denied or revoked if the commander determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) Existing security measures relative to location of the vending stand or to the clearance of the blind operator cannot be followed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Vending stand standards relating to appearance, safety, sanitation, and efficient operation cannot be met.
</P>
<P>(iii) For any other reasons which would adversely affect the interests of the United States or would unduly inconvenience the Department of the Army. Issuance of such a permit will not be denied because of loss of revenue caused by granting a rent-free permit for operating a vending stand to a blind person. However, the permit will not be granted if in the opinion of the responsible commander such action would reduce revenue below the point necessary for maintaining an adequate morale and recreation program. The commander should consider the fact that funds derived from certain nonappropriated fund activities such as post exchanges, motion picture theaters, and post restaurants are used to supplement appropriated funds in conducting the morale and recreation program.
</P>
<P>(2) The preference established in paragraph (i)(1) of this section will be protected from the unfair or unreasonable competition of vending machines. No vending machine will be located within reasonable proximity of a vending stand that is operated by a licensed blind person if the vending machine vends articles of the same type sold at the stand, unless local needs require the placement of such a machine. If such is the case, the operation of, and income from the machine, will be assumed by the blind vending stand operator. 
</P>
<P>(3) So far as is practicable, goods sold at vending stands that are operated by the blind will consist of newspapers, periodicals, confections, tobacco products, articles that are dispensed automatically or are in containers or wrappings in which they were placed before they were received by the vending stand, and other suitable articles that may be approved by the installation commander for each vending stand location.
</P>
<P>(4) If the commanders and State licensing agencies fail to reach an agreement on the granting of a permit for a vending stand, the revocation or modification of a permit, the suitability of the stand location, the assignment of vending machine proceeds, the methods of operation of the stand, or other terms of the permit (including articles which may be sold), the State licensing agency may appeal the disagreement, through channels, to the Secretary of the Army. Appeals will be filed by State licensing agencies with the installation commander who will conduct a complete investigation and will give the State licensing agency an opportunity to present information. The report of investigation with the appeal will be forwarded through channels to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAPE-ZA), Washington, DC 20310, as soon as possible. A final decision by the Secretary of the Army will be rendered within 90 days of the filing of the appeal to the installation commander. Notification of the decision on the appeal and the action taken will be reported to the State licensing agency, the Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, and the Department of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics).
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Request from private sector union representatives to enter installations.</I> (1) When labor representatives request permission to enter military installations on which private contractor employees are engaged in contract work to conduct union business during working hours in connection with the contract between the government and the contractor by whom union members are employed, the installation commander may admit these representatives, provided—
</P>
<P>(i) The presence and activities of the labor representatives will not interfere with the progress of the contract work involved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The entry of the representatives to the installation will not violate pertinent safety or security regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Labor representatives are not authorized to engage in organizing activities, collective bargaining discussions, or other matters not directly connected with the Government contract on military installations. However, the installation commander may authorize labor representatives to enter the installation to distribute organizational literature and authorization cards to employees of private contractors, provided such distribution does not—
</P>
<P>(i) Occur in working areas or during working times;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interfere with contract performance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Interfere with the efficient operation of the installation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Violate pertinent safety or security considerations.
</P>
<P>(3) The determination as to who is an appropriate labor representative should be made by the installation commander after consulting with his/her labor counselor or judge advocate. Nothing in this regulation, however, will be construed to prohibit private contractors' employees from distibuting organizational literature or authorization cards on installation property if such activity does not violate the conditions enumerated in paragraph (k)(2) of this section. Business offices or desk space for labor organizations on the installation is not authorized to be provided for solicitation of membership among contractors' employees, collection of dues, or other business of the labor organization not directly connected with the contract work. The providing of office or desk space for a contractor is authorized for routine functions by the working steward whose union duties are incidental to his/her assigned job and connected directly with the contract work. 
</P>
<P>(4) Only the installation commander or a contracting officer can deny entry to a labor representative who seeks permission to enter the installation in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section. If a labor representative is denied entry for any reason, such denial will be reported to the Labor Advisor, Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army (IL&amp;FM), Washington, DC 20310. This report will include the reasons for denial, including—
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of paragraphs (k), (1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section on organizations representing private contractors' employees should be distinguished from activities involving organization and representation of Federal civilian employees. See CPR 711 for the functions, duties and obligations of an installation commander regarding Federal civilian employee unions. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Publication of telephone directories.</I> See chapter 5, AR 105-23. A copy of this document may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Observance of labor laws on military installations.</I> (1) Installation and activity commanders will ensure that all his/her employers on the installation or activity are apprised of their obligation to comply with Federal, State, and local laws, including those relating to the employment of child labor. When an employer who is operating on the installation or activity is responsible to an authority other than the installation or activity commander, the commander will direct that the authority's representative apprise the employer of his/her obligations regarding labor law. This applies to employers in all activities, including nonappropriated fund activities established as Federal instrumentalities according to AR 230-1, Nonappropriated Fund System, concessionaires of such activities, and other private employers. A copy of the above document may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314. 
</P>
<P>(2) Installation commander will cooperate fully with state or other governmental officials who bring to their attention complaints that children are employed on military installations or reservations under conditions that are detrimental to their health, safety, education, and well-being. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Hitchhiking.</I> Hitchhiking is prohibited by the Army. This does not preclude acceptance of offers of rides voluntarily made by individuals or properly accredited organizations nor does it preclude the use of properly authorized and established share-the-ride or similar stations which may be sanctioned by local military authorities. For personal safety, personnel should exercise caution at facilities, for example, by accepting rides only from persons they know or by traveling in groups. Similarly, drivers should use discretion when offering rides to personnel at share-the-ride stations. Drivers are prohibited from picking up hitchhikers. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Employment of civilian food service personnel.</I> See AR 30-1, The Army Food Service Program. A copy of this document may be obtained by writing to Headquarters, Department of the Army (DAAG-PAP-W), Washington, DC 20314 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 7948, Feb. 8, 1979, as amended at 45 FR 73037, Nov. 4, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.19" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.19   Hunting and fishing permits.</HEAD>
<P>All permits to hunt, catch, trap, or kill any kind of game animal, game or nongame bird, or to fish on a military reservation or the waters thereof will be issued by the commanding officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[13 FR 6058, Oct. 15, 1948] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Entry Regulations for Certain Army Training Areas in Hawaii</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.25" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.25   Entry regulations for certain Army training areas in Hawaii.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This regulation establishes procedures governing the entry onto certain Army training areas in Hawaii as defined in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) These procedures have been established to prevent the interruption of the use of these Army training areas by any person or persons. The continued and uninterrupted use of these training areas by the military is vital in order to maintain and to improve the combat readiness of the U.S. Armed Forces. In addition, conditions exist within these training areas which could be dangerous to any unauthorized persons who enter these areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The procedures outlined in this regulation apply to all individuals except for soldiers and Army civilians of the United States who in performance of their official duties enter the training areas defined in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>References.</I> Related publications are listed below: 
</P>
<P>(1) Executive Order No. 11166 of 15 August 1964. (3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., pp 219-220). 
</P>
<P>(2) Executive Order No. 11167 of 15 August 1964. (3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., pp 220-222). 
</P>
<P>(3) Title 18, United States Code, section 1382. 
</P>
<P>(4) Internal Security Act of 1950, section 21 (50 U.S.C. 797). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition.</I> For the purpose of this regulation, “certain Army training areas in Hawaii” are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Makua Valley, Waianae, Oahu, Hawaii: That area reserved for military use by Executive Order No. 11166 (paragraph (c)(1) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) Pohakuloa Training Area, Hawaii: That area reserved for military use by Executive Order No. 11167 (paragraph (c)(2) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) Except for soldiers and Army civilians of the United States in the performance of their duties, entry onto Army training areas described in paragraph (d) of this section for any purpose whatsoever without the advance consent of the Commander, United States Army Support Command, Hawaii, or his authorized representative, is prohibited (paragraph (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person or group of persons desiring the advance consent of the Commander, United States Army Support Command, Hawaii, shall, in writing, submit a request to the following address: Commander, USASCH, ATTN: Chief of Staff, Fort Shafter, Hawaii 96858-5000. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each request for entry will be considered on an individual basis weighing the operational and training commitments of the area involved, security, and safety with the purpose, size of party, duration of visit, destination, and the military resources which would be required by the granting of the request. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Violations.</I> (1) Any person entering or remaining upon any training area described in paragraph (d) without the advance consent of the Commander, USASCH, or his authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties prescribed by paragraph (c)(3) of this section, which provides in pertinent part: “Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval * * * reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation * * * shall be fined not more than $500.00 or imprisoned not more than 6 months or both.” 
</P>
<P>(2) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this regulation is subject to a fine not to exceed $5,000.00 or imprisonment for not more than 1 year or both as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, violation of this regulation by persons subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. 801-940) is a violation of Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 44393, Nov. 19, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Acquisition of Real Estate and Interest Therein</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>22 FR 9284, Nov. 21, 1957, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.30" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.30   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in §§ 552.30 to 552.39 set forth the authority, policy, responsibility, and procedure for the acquisition of real estate and interests therein, for use for military purposes by the Department of the Army. The regulations of §§ 552.30 to 552.39 do not apply to Civil Works Projects which are under the supervision of the Chief of Engineers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.31" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in §§ 552.30 to 552.39, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Real estate.</I> Real estate includes lands and interests therein, leaseholds, standing timber, buildings, improvements, and appurtenances thereto owned by the United States and under the control of the Department of the Army. It also includes piers, docks, warehouses, rights-of-way, and easements, whether temporary or permanent, and improvements permanently attached to and ordinarily considered real estate. It does not include machinery, equipment, or tools which have not been affixed to or which have been severed or removed from any such lands or buildings or may be so severed or removed without destroying the usefulness of the structures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installation.</I> An installation is real estate and the improvements thereon which is under the control of the Department of the Army, at which functions of the Department of the Army are carried on, and which has been established by order of the Department of the Army. Real estate and the improvements thereon utilized by posts, camps, airfields, hospitals, depots, arsenals, industrial facilities, cemeteries, etc., generally will be designated as an installation where located separately, but where located contiguously or on the same reservation the combined property will usually be designated as one installation and the separate functions will be designated as activities at that installation. As used in the regulations in §§ 552.30 to 552.39, the term “installation” will include installations, subinstallations, and separate locations housing an activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subinstallation.</I> A subinstallation is real estate and the improvements thereon which is under the control of the Department of the Army, at which functions of the Department of the Army are carried on, and which has been assigned as a subinstallation by Department of the Army authority. Subinstallations are attached to installations for command and administrative purposes, although they are located separately. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Activity.</I> An activity is a function or a group of related functions which may be carried on at an installation, a subinstallation, or a separate location which has not been designated as a Department of the Army installation or subinstallation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Command installation.</I> A command installation is any installation of the Department of the Army, including nonmanufacturing arsenals, primarily used or useful for activities of the Army other than for the production of materiel, munitions, or supplies. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Industrial installation.</I> Any unit of real property under control of the Department of the Army (including structures on land owned by or leased to the United States, substantially equipped with production utilities and maintenance machinery, tools, equipment, and including housing and other supporting facilities built as an integral part of the installation) designed for the production of equipment, supplies, or materials for military use; or for the processing, production, or manufacturing of components of such items. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lease.</I> A lease is a conveyance of an interest in real estate for a term of years, revocable at will, or as otherwise provided in the instrument in consideration of a return of rent. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>License.</I> A license is a bare authority to do a specified act or acts upon the land of the licensor without possessing or acquiring any estate therein. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Easement.</I> An easement is a conveyance of an interest in real estate for the purpose or purposes specified in the grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.32" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.32   Authority to acquire real estate and interests therein.</HEAD>
<P>While the Federal Government has the inherent power to acquire land for its constitutional purposes, this power can be exercised only at the discretion of Congress (Van Brocklin v. Tennessee, 117 U.S. 151; 29 L. Ed. 845; 6 S. Ct. 670). No land shall be purchased on account of the United States, except under a law authorizing such purchase (R. S. 3736; 41 U.S.C. 14). No real estate not in Federal ownership shall be acquired by a military department, except as such acquisition is or shall be expressly authorized by law (section 501(b), Act July 27, 1954; Pub. L. 534, 83d Congress; 68 Stat. 560). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.33" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.33   Estates and methods of acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Title to non-Government-owned real estate will be by purchase, condemnation, donation (when the authorization act specifies donation), and exchange (when the authorization act specifies exchange). 
</P>
<P>(b) Easements in non-Government-owned real estate are the same as in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Licenses in non-Government-owned real estate are generally by donation, although a nonrevocable license might be acquired by purchase. 
</P>
<P>(d) Leaseholds in non-Government-owned real estate will be by negotiation or condemnation. Leaseholds may give the Government exclusive use or may give the Government co-use with the owner for specific purposes. 
</P>
<P>(e) Jurisdiction over Government-owned real estate will be by transfer, reassignment, withdrawal, and reservation. 
</P>
<P>(f) Permits to use Government-owned real estate will be by instrument issued by another Government department or agency. Although in the nature of a license (may be revocable or nonrevocable), the instrument is designated as a “permit”, since it relates to Government-owned real estate, to distinguish it from a “license” relating to non-Government-owned real estate. 
</P>
<P>(g) Recapture of use of former Government-owned real estate which was disposed of subject to a “National Security Clause,” a “National Emergency Clause,” or a similar provision will be by letter from the Chief of Engineers to the owner of the property, based upon a directive from the Secretary of the Army or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(h) Revestment of title to former Government-owned real estate which was disposed of subject to a reverter provision, such as a “National Defense Purpose Clause” will be by letter to the owner by the official of the department designated in the conveyance by the Government. 
</P>
<P>(i) Procurement of options on real estate which is “suitable and likely to be required” in connection with a military public works project, prior to express authorization by law for the acquisition of said real estate will be by negotiation. 
</P>
<P>(j) Extinguishment of third party interests in lands owned or controlled by the United States, such as outstanding oil, gas, and other mineral rights; grazing rights; timber rights; water rights; and easements for rights-of-way for highways, railroads, power lines, communication lines, water lines, and sewer lines will be the same as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section. Payment for extinguishment of grazing rights or licenses on public domain or other property owned by or under the control of the United States is made pursuant to Act July 9, 1942; 56 Stat. 654; as amended by Act May 28, 1948; 62 Stat. 277; and as further amended by Act October 29, 1949; 63 Stat. 996 (43 U.S.C. 315q and r). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.34" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.34   Policies relative to new acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Present holdings inadequate for essential mission.</I> No request to acquire real estate by transfer from Navy or Air Force or from another Government agency, or by purchase, lease or condemnation will be considered or approved unless it is established that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The activity to be accommodated is essential to an assigned mission. 
</P>
<P>(2) Real property under the control of the Army is inadequate to satisfy these requirements. 
</P>
<P>(3) No real property under the control of the Navy or Air Force or other Federal agencies is suitable and available for use by the Army on a permit or joint use basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Order of priority for method of acquisition.</I> If the activity qualifies as essential to an assigned mission but the need cannot be filled by the use of other Army property or other Federal property on a permit or joint use basis, the following alternatives will be considered in the order listed: 
</P>
<P>(1) Donation or long-term nominal rental lease. 
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer from Navy or Air Force. Acquisition of lands excess to the requirements of other military departments. 
</P>
<P>(3) Recapture of use. 
</P>
<P>(4) Public Domain. Withdrawal from the public domain for military use. (Pub. L. 85-337, Feb. 28, 1958 (72 Stat. 28) requires that an Act of Congress be obtained to withdraw, reserve, or restrict for defense purposes more than 5,000 acres of the public domain.) 
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisition by exchange. Exercise of existing authorities for the exchange of Government-owned real property for non-Government-owned real property that is by type or location adaptable to the military need. 
</P>
<P>(6) Transfer from other Federal agencies. Acquisition of lands excess to the requirement of Federal agencies other than military departments. 
</P>
<P>(7) Acquisition by purchase, lease or condemnation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Current requirements given preference.</I> In considering the use of Army real property by another military department, current requirements will, in the absence of unusual circumstances, be given preference over future needs and mobilization requirements. If the current requirement will not continue through mobilization, care must be exercised to avoid modification of the property in a manner that would prevent its timely return to the holding department to meet the mobilization requirement. If it is contemplated that the current requirement will continue through mobilization, the property may be modified as required and the mobilization plans of the military departments concerned should be changed accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Firm requirements and minimum acquisition.</I> Requirements in each individual case will be firmly determined and only the minimum amount of property necessary will be acquired. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Factors considered insufficient justification for acquisition by lease.</I> Desirability of location in an urban area, reduced travel time for employees or business representatives, nominal savings in transportation costs, environmental considerations (such as noise or traffic), or desirability of single unit offices instead of split locations in close proximity will not be considered sufficient justification for acquiring leased space or facilities when Government-owned property is available. For exceptions, see paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special location considerations.</I> Acquisition of title or a leasehold interest in real property may be justified where it is demonstrated that the function to be accommodated is an essential activity and the geographic location thereof in other than Government-owned space is vital to the accomplishment of the assigned mission. Examples that may fall in this group are recruiting stations (exclusive of kindred examining and induction units), airbases, air defense sites, and sites for construction of facilities for Reserve Components of the Armed Forces. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Army Reserve training sites.</I> In general, title to lands will not be acquired for exclusive use as training sites. Training sites will be acquired by one of the following means in the order listed: 
</P>
<P>(1) Use of lands under the control of the Department of the Army regardless of the agency maintaining jurisdiction, to include class II and industrial installations and other Reserve Component facilities, see title 10 U.S.C. 2331 and 2237. 
</P>
<P>(2) Use of reservoir lands of Civil Works Projects. By informal agreement with the Resident Engineer or Manager (when training activities do not involve exclusive use, construction, or destruction of vegetation) or by permit from the District Engineer (for other activities when such activities are compatible with the operation and maintenance of the project and will not endanger the use by the general public of public access areas). 
</P>
<P>(3) Use of lands, by permit or otherwise, under the control of the other military departments. 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of lands by permit of other Government-owned land, including the public domain. 
</P>
<P>(5) Use by license or nominal rental lease of local, county, or State-owned public lands. 
</P>
<P>(6) Use of privately owned land by short-term co-use lease under the authority granted in § 552.39. 
</P>
<P>(7) Use of non-Government-owned land by lease. 
</P>
<P>(8) Acquisition of lands excess to the requirements of the other military departments. 
</P>
<P>(9) Acquisition of lands excess to the requirements of Federal agencies other than the military departments. 
</P>
<P>(10) Acquisition of the non-Government-owned land. 
</P>
<P>(11) As a rule of thumb, lands will not be acquired for training from any source when the value of the land exceeds that of rural farm land in the area. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public notice and release of information relative to proposed real estate acquisitions.</I> It is the policy of the Department of the Army to give notice to the public and to release information to the public as early as possible (at the site selection stage) and as completely as possible, consistent with existing regulations. Even though opposition may develop in some cases because of early release of information as to proposed acquisitions, application of this policy should more often result in favorable public relations, general public support of proposed acquisitions, and material assistance in the selection of sites which will fulfill the military requirement and still have the least impact on the civilian economy. This policy will permit consideration of public preferences in the establishment of military facilities. Section 302 of the Act of July 14, 1960; Pub. L. 86-645, which is applicable to military as well as water resources public works projects, provides for dissemination of information on large new installations. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Restrictions relating to Agency Budget Estimates and Presidential Budget Recommendations.</I> Bureau of the Budget Circular No. A-10, as revised, places restrictions on disclosure of Agency Budget Estimates and Presidential Budget Recommendations. It provides that budget recommendations and estimates are administratively confidential until made public through formal transmittal of the budget to Congress. Public notice and release of information relative to proposed real property acquisitions will, therefore, exclude any information as to whether the proposed acquisition has been included in a pending budget not yet formally transmitted to the Congress or is to be included in a future budget. Public notice and release of information will be on the basis of “advance planning.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General application and exceptions.</I> Non-Government-owned real property generally is acquired by negotiations, based on its fair market value as established by Government appraisal and regardless of who the owner is, how much the owner paid for the property, and how long the owner has owned the property. For this reason, public notice and release of information should not tend normally to increase the value of the land involved or create speculation therein. Experience has proved that interest of the Government in specific real property normally tends to discourage trafficking therein. Though normally the release of information should not result in subsequent disadvantage to the Government, information will not be released in any specific case where it might have that result. AR 345-15 applies to the acquisition of real property only in those instances in which the release of advance information on proposed plans might provide undue discriminatory advantage to private or personal interests. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application to Army Reserve facilities.</I> During the preliminary site selection stage for Army Reserve facilities, the Army commander's representative will contact responsible local public officials to explain the nature of the proposed facility and to obtain their concurrence in the Army's acquisition and use of the site tentatively selected. Such a statement, including the names and titles of officials contacted, will be furnished by the Army commander to the District Engineer for inclusion in the Real Estate Planning Report. Release of information on Army Reserve centers will be made only by an authorized representative of the Army commander. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Use of unappropriated and nonnavigable water.</I> It is the policy of the Department of the Army to utilize unappropriated and nonnavigable water upon or under lands under jurisdiction in such a manner as is consonant with the purposes of water laws which have been enacted by the several States. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Permanent construction.</I> If permanent construction, defined as that which produces a building suitable and appropriate to serve a specific purpose for a maximum period of time (at least 25 years) and with a minimum of maintenance, is to be constructed by the Government, the Government must either hold or acquire title to the land (inclusive of all mineral rights and improvements) or a permanent easement interest, with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Right of reuse by exercise of National Security Clause.</I> Property, including land or buildings, over which the Government currently holds the right of reuse by exercise of the National Security Clause. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Right of reuse by exercise of National Emergency Use Provision.</I> Property, including land or buildings, over which the Government holds the right of reuse by exercise of a National Emergency Use Provision. Inasmuch as such rights inure to the Government only during the period or periods of national emergency as may be declared by the President or the Congress and are extinguished by the termination thereof, every effort will be made to negotiate a lease covering such property under terms that would provide for the right of continuous possession by the Government for a minimum of 25 years. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rights-of-way.</I> Property required as a site for installation of utility lines and necessary appurtenances thereto, provided a long-term easement or lease can be secured at a consideration of $1 per term or per annum. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Airbase.</I> Property required for airbases, provided such property can be acquired by lease containing provisions for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Right of continuous use by the Government under firm term or right of renewal, for a minimum of 50 years. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A rental consideration of $1 per term or per annum. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Reserving to the Government title to all improvements to be placed on the land and the right to dispose of such improvements by sale or abandonment. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Waiver by the lessor of any and all claims for restoration of the leased premises. 
</P>
<P>(v) Use of the property for “Government purposes” rather than for a specific purpose. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reserve Components facilities.</I> Property required for facilities for the Reserve Components of the Armed Forces, provided such property can be acquired by lease containing provisions detailed in paragraphs (j)(4) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section. When possible the insertion in a lease of provision restricting the use of the land to a specific purpose will be avoided; use of a term as “Government purposes” should be employed whenever possible. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Air defense sites.</I> Property required for air defense sites provided such property can be acquired by lease containing provisions detailed in paragraphs (j)(4) (i), (ii), and (iv) of this section and in addition thereto a right of continuous use by the Government under a firm term or right of renewal for as long as required for defense purposes. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exception by Assistant Secretary of Defense (Installations and Logistics).</I> Where leases (for airbases, facilities for Reserve Components of the Armed Forces, or air defense sites) can be obtained containing some but not all of the above-listed provisions or where leases (for all other types of installations upon which permanent construction is to be placed by the Government) can be obtained containing similar provisions and it is considered to be to the best interest of the Government to acquire a lesser interest than fee title, it will be necessary to obtain approval from the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Installations and Logistics) prior to placing permanent construction thereon. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Construction projects not in excess of $25,000.</I> Construction projects estimated to cost not in excess of $25,000 will not be considered as permanent construction for purposes of applying the above policy. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Industrial installations.</I> See paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>No permanent construction.</I> Where temporary construction or no construction is to be placed by the Government, acquisition of a lesser interest (leasehold, easement, license, as appropriate) will generally be considered to be in the best interest of the Government, with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cost of construction.</I> Where any proposed temporary construction to be placed by the Government has an estimated cost equal to or in excess of the current market value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rent plus restoration.</I> Where the calculated period of required use is of sufficient duration that the sum expended for rentals over this period plus restoration, if required, would exceed 50 percent of the current market value of the property. (Apply calculated period of required use or 20 years, whichever is less.) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Easement costing 75 percent of fee value.</I> Where the cost of acquiring an easement right exceeds 75 percent of the current fair market value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Industrial installations</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> Industrial facilities as used herein are defined as plants, buildings, utilities, improvements, and additions and appurtenances thereto used for military production and related purposes, including testing and development. Nonseverable industrial facilities as used herein are defined as industrial facilities located on other than Government-owned land, and which, after erection or installation, cannot be removed without substantial loss of value or damage thereto, or to the premises where installed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Policy.</I> Industrial facilities will be located on land owned by the Government or in which the Government has a permanent, disposable interest. Nonseverable industrial facilities will be located on land in which the Government has a disposable interest equal in term to the estimated useful life of the facilities, unless the Head of a Procuring Activity, with consideration to any nonrecoverable costs involved, determines that such location is not feasible. If the Head of a Procuring Activity makes this determination, he may authorize the location of such facilities on other land, provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) The estimated useful life of the facilities will not extend beyond the contract under which the facilities are installed or the completion of the work for which the facilities are provided; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor agrees to purchase the facilities upon the end of the facilities contract at the acquisition cost of the facilities, less depreciation; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary approves other provisions as being in the interest of national defense. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If location on land in which the Government does not have a disposable interest, as above set out, is authorized under paragraphs (l)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section, the Government must have the right to abandon the facilities in place, with no obligation to restore or rehabilitate the facilities or the premises on which they are located. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Commercial and industrial type facilities</I>—(1) <I>Policy.</I> Privately owned or Government-owned and privately operated commercial and industrial type facilities will be used to the greatest extent practicable, recognizing the basic military necessity for integrated, self-sustaining units responsible to command and the necessity for operating anywhere in the world. It is the policy of the Department of the Army not to engage in the operation of industrial or commercial type facilities unless it can be demonstrated that it is necessary for the Government itself to perform the required work or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition.</I> Commercial and industrial type facilities are defined as those devoted to an activity which normally might be performed by private industry (except commissaries, post exchanges, and nonappropriated fund activities) including, but not limited to, warehouses, motor repair shops, bakeries, laundries, and drycleaning facilities. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Department of Defense policy relative to liaison with Governor of Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.</I> By letter dated August 19, 1953, the Secretary of Defense informed the Governor of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico that the Department of Defense would establish liaison with the Governor to coordinate all military requirements for land acquisition in Puerto Rico. By memorandum dated August 19, 1953, the Secretary of Defense instructed that such liaison would be established under the direction of the Department of the Army, in coordination with the other interested services. On September 8, 1953, the Department of the Army requested the Commander in Chief, Caribbean Command, to establish such liaison. Liaison is being maintained locally between the Commandant of the Caribbean Sea Frontier and the Chairman of the Puerto Rico Planning Board. The liaison applies to the proposed acquisition of title or any interest in land which is other than (Federal) Government-owned land. In all cases, liaison action will be initiated during the advance planning or site selection stages. The purpose is to give Puerto Rican officials advance notice of military real property requirements and to give them an opportunity to suggest suitable alternatives in an effort to improve public relations with Puerto Rican officials, landowners, and the general public. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 6140, June 29, 1962] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.35" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.35   Rights-of-entry for survey and exploration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary.</I> Where it is necessary to enter upon non-Government-owned real estate during site selection, particularly for the purpose of conducting topographic surveys and test borings, the appropriate division or district engineer will negotiate rights-of-entry for survey and exploration. The instrument is in the nature of a license which does not convey an interest in land but precludes the entry from being a trespass. Since the entry is for a limited purpose and for a relatively short period of time, the landowner is not offered rental for the privileges requested. Where the landowner insists upon payment for the privileges requested, district engineers are authorized to negotiate short-term co-use leases, within the limits of existing regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Involuntary.</I> Where rights-of-entry for survey and exploration or short-term co-use leases cannot be negotiated, the right-of-entry may be obtained through the institution of proceedings for the condemnation of a short-term co-use leasehold interest. This action is taken only where it can be shown that the entry is imperative and that it is impossible to negotiate a voluntary right-of-entry or short-term co-use lease. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.36" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.36   Rights-of-entry for construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When authorized.</I> Rights-of-entry for construction will be obtained by the district engineer only after a real estate directive or authorization to lease has been issued and then only when the construction schedule does not allow sufficient time to complete negotiations for an option to purchase or for a lease, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Involuntary.</I> Where a right-of-entry for construction cannot be negotiated, under the circumstances set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, a right-of-entry will be obtained through the institution of proceedings for the condemnation of fee title, an easement interest, or a leasehold interest, as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.37" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.37   Acquisition by Chief of Engineers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory authority.</I> The Chief of Engineers, under the direction of the Secretary of the Army, is charged with the acquisition of all real estate for the use of the Department of the Army (10 U.S.C. 3038). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of responsibility.</I> This authority is exercised by the Chief of Engineers, acting for the Secretary of the Army, in the acquisition of all real estate and interests therein for the use of the Department of the Army in continental United States, Territories, possessions, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegated authority.</I> The Chief of Engineers or his duly authorized representative has authority to approve, for the Secretary of the Army: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fee, easement, and license acquisitions which do not exceed $5,000 for any one parcel and which constitute small tracts of additional land needed in connection with projects for which final Department of the Army, Department of Defense, and/or Congressional approval has been obtained, or which constitute rights-of-way for roads, railroads, and utility lines necessary to the construction, maintenance, and operation of an approved project. 
</P>
<P>(2) Leasehold acquisition where the estimated annual rental for any single leasehold does not exceed $25,000 and the acquisition is not controversial, unusual, or inconsistent with Department of Army policies. 
</P>
<P>(3) Renewal or extension of leaseholds. 
</P>
<P>(4) Acquisition by permit of the right to use real property of another Government department or agency, except as to “general purpose” space from the General Services Administration and the Post Office Department and all space in the metropolitan District of Columbia area. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Minor boundary changes.</I> The Chief of Engineers, in accomplishing acquisition in accordance with Department of Defense and Department of the Army policies and with real estate directives and authorizations to lease issued by the Secretary of the Army or his designee, is authorized to make minor boundary changes to avoid severance damages, by including or excluding small tracts of land which will not decrease the usefulness of the area for the purpose for which it is being acquired. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responsibility for all negotiations.</I> To avoid any possibility of misunderstanding by property owners and resultant embarrassment to the Department of the Army, under no circumstances will commitments be made either by negotiation or by dissemination of information to property owners, by any authority other than the Chief of Engineers. This is not intended to restrict the public notice and release of general information as set forth in § 552.34(h). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Approval of title.</I> The written opinion of the Attorney General, in favor of the validity of the title, will be obtained for any site or land purchased by the United States. Unless expressly waived by the pertinent authorization act or other act of Congress, this opinion will be obtained prior to the expenditure of public money upon such site or land (section 355, as amended, of the Revised Statutes; 50 U.S.C. 175) except: 
</P>
<P>(1) Easements acquired for military purposes. (By agreement with the Attorney General, his opinion is obtained only in acquiring easements at a cost in excess of $100.) 
</P>
<P>(2) Leases and licenses. 
</P>
<P>(3) Jurisdiction of Government-owned land by transfer or use of Government-owned land by permit. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Furnishing title evidence.</I> The Chief of Engineers, acting under the authority of the Secretary of the Army, will procure any evidence of title required by the Attorney General. The expense of procurement, except where otherwise authorized by law or provided by contract, may be paid out of the appropriations for the acquisition of land or out of the appropriations made for the contingencies of the Department of the Army (section 355, as amended, of the Revised Statutes; 50 U.S.C. 175). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Condemnation</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Fee title, easements, or leasehold interests may be acquired by the exercise of right of eminent domain through the institution of condemnation proceedings. These proceedings are instituted in the United States District Courts by the Attorney General, based upon requests from the Secretary of the Army. Normally, condemnation proceedings are instituted only after agreement cannot be reached with landowners or other parties in interest as to the value of the real property or interest therein to be acquired by the Government; where there are title defects which do not permit acquisition by purchase or lease, as appropriate; or where construction schedules or occupancy dates do not allow the Chief of Engineers sufficient time to conduct normal negotiations for options to purchase or lease. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vesting of title or other interest in the United States.</I> Under a condemnation proceeding, title, or other interest condemned vests in the United States upon entry of final judgment in the proceeding. Where it is necessary to have title or other interest vested in the United States at an earlier date, a Declaration of Taking, signed by the Secretary of the Army, may be filed in the proceeding, with the petition or at any time before final judgment. Upon the filing of the Declaration of Taking and deposit in the court of the amount of estimated compensation, title or other interest condemned vests in the United States (Act of February 26, 1931; 46 Stat. 1421; 40 U.S.C. 258a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 9284, Nov. 21, 1957, as amended at 27 FR 6142, June 29, 1962] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.38" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.38   Acquisition of maneuver agreements for Army commanders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorization.</I> After a maneuver is authorized by the Department of the Army, the Army commander will select the specific areas desired for use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Real estate coverage.</I> Real estate coverage will be in the form of agreements with landowners, granting the right to conduct maneuvers at a given time or periodically. Short-term leases for exclusive use may also be acquired for special areas (such as headquarters areas, radio relay sites, base camp sites, field hospital sites, and supply dumps) and buildings needed for warehouses, ordnance shops and similar purposes directly related to the maneuver. Permits will also be obtained to cover the use of lands under the jurisdiction of another Government department or agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibility for negotiation and restoration.</I> The appropriate division or district engineer will be responsible for negotiating maneuver agreements and short-term leases and, after the maneuver is completed, will be responsible for negotiating restoration settlements and/or releases, as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.39" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.39   Acquisition of short-term leases by local commanding officers.</HEAD>
<P>Local commanding officers are authorized, without approval by higher authority, to make leases of camp sites, buildings, and grounds, for troops; office and storage space for small detachments; garage or parking space; space for recruiting stations; and land or space for similar purposes, provided: 
</P>
<P>(a) Funds are available to the local commanding officer, 
</P>
<P>(b) Rental consideration conforms to the prevailing rate in the locality, 
</P>
<P>(c) The premises are to be occupied not longer than 3 months or in the case of Reserve training sites, not more than 90 days per year, 
</P>
<P>(d) Rental for the entire period of occupancy does not exceed $500, and 
</P>
<P>(e) Clearance is made with the General Services Administration, where required. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 9284, Nov. 21, 1957, as amended at 23 FR 10536, Dec. 31, 1958] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Solicitation on Military Reservations</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 552.50 through 552.83 issued under 15 U.S.C. 1601.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 73037, Nov. 4, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.50" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.50   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation—
</P>
<P>(a) Prescribes general policy on the solicitation and sale of all goods, services, and commodities, including all types of insurance, on military installations. These are sold or solicited by dealers, tradesmen, and their agents.
</P>
<P>(b) Prescribes procedures for suspension of solicitation privileges.
</P>
<P>(c) Prescribes policies and procedures for investigative and enforcement actions.
</P>
<P>(d) Permits representatives of credit unions, banks, and approved non-profit associations to conduct national educational programs on—
</P>
<P>(1) Insurance, estate planning, savings, and budgeting, and
</P>
<P>(2) The protection and remedies afforded consumers under the Truth-in-Lending Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.51" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.51   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation applies to—
</P>
<P>(1) All Department of the Army military and civilian personnel, including Army National Guard and Army Reserve personnel on active duty or annual training.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals seeking to conduct commercial solicitation on military installations, including controlled housing areas. They will also be governed by regulations and controls of the local commander and, in overseas areas, by regulations of the unified or specified commander. They must also observe applicable laws, regulations, and agreements of the host country.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this regulation do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial companies that furnish services to military installations (such as deliveries of milk, bread, and laundry) when they are authorized by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual who sells his own personal property or privately owned dwelling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.52" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.52   Explanation of terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agent.</I> Anyone who solicits the ordering or purchasing of goods, services, or commodities in exchange for money. “Agent” includes an individual who receives remuneration as a salesman for an insurer or whose remuneration is dependent on volume of sales or the making of sales.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Solicitation.</I> The conduct of any private business, including the offering and sale of insurance on a military installation, whether initiated by the seller or the buyer. (Solicitation on installations is a privilege as distinguished from a right, and its control is a responsibility vested in the installation commander, subject to compliance with applicable regulations.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Door-to-door solicitation.</I> A sales method whereby an agent proceeds randomly or selectively from household to household without specific prior appointments or invitations. Door-to-door solicitation is not permitted on Army installations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific appointment.</I> A prearranged appointment that has been agreed upon by both parties and is definite as to place and time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insurer.</I> Any company or association engaged in the business of selling insurance policies to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insurance carrier.</I> An insurance company issuing insurance through an association or reinsuring or coinsuring such insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insurance policy.</I> A policy or certificate of insurance issued by an insurer or evidence of insurance coverage issued by a self-insured association.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>DOD personnel.</I> Unless stated otherwise, such personnel means all active duty officer and enlisted members, and civilian employees of the Armed Forces. This includes Government employees of all the offices, agencies, and departments carrying on functions on a Defense installation, including non-appropriated fund instrumentalities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.53" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.53   Regulatory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Commanders may issue regulations governing solicitation within their commands and on their installations. These regulations will avoid discriminatory requirements which could eliminate or restrict competition. When there is a clear need to prescribe more restrictive requirements for solicitation than those in this regulation or the regulations of the major commander, these additional requirements or restrictions must first be reviewed and confirmed by The Adjutant General Center (DAAG-PSI), or by the overseas commander.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.54" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.54   Solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commanders may permit solicitation and transaction of commercial business on military installations. These solicitations and transactions must conform to installation regulations (CONUS and overseas) and must not interfere with military activities. No person may enter an installation and transact commercial business as a matter of right.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.55" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.55   Restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>To maintain discipline; protect property; and safeguard the health, morale, and welfare of his personnel, the installation commander may impose reasonable restrictions on the character and conduct of commercial activities. Members of the Armed Forces must not be subjected to fraudulent, usurious, or unethical business practices. Reasonable and consistent standards must be applied to each company and its agents in their conduct of commercial transactions on the installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.56" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.56   Licensing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>To transact personal commercial business on military installations in the United States, its territories, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, individuals must present, on demand, to the installation commander, or his designee, documentary evidence that the company and its agents meet the licensing requirements of the State in which the installation is located. They must also meet any other applicable regulatory requirements imposed by civil authorities (Federal, State, county, or municipality). For ease of administration, the installation commander will issue a temporary permit to agents who meet these requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.57" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.57   Authorization to solicit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Solicitation must be authorized by the installation commander. A specific appointment must be made with the individual and must be conducted in family quarters or in other areas designated by the installation commander. Before issuing a permit to solicit, the commander will require and review a statement of past employment. The commander will also determine, if practicable, whether the agent is employed by a reputable firm. 
</P>
<P>(b) Certain companies seeking solicitation privileges on military installations may arrange personal demonstrations of their products at social gatherings and advise potential customers on their use. If these added services are provided, even though the merchandise sold by these companies is similar to that stocked by the post exchange, the installation commander may authorize solicitation privileges. Requests for this type of solicitation privilege will be coordinated with the local Army and Air Force Exchange Service representative. See paragraph 3-2, Army Regulation 60-10. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.58" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.58   Other transactions.</HEAD>
<P>Commercial transactions with other than individuals (such as nonappropriated fund activities) are restricted to the office of the custodian of the specific fund activity. Business will be conducted during normal duty hours. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.59" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.59   Granting solicitation privileges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authorizations (permits) to solicit on Army installations will be in writing and will be valid for periods of 1 year or less. 
</P>
<P>(b) Particular caution must be taken when granting solicitation permission. The impression that permission is official indorsement or that the Department of the Army favors, sponsors, or recommends the companies, agents, or the policies offered for sale must not be conveyed. As continuing policy, the Department of the Army does not indorse any seller or product. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.60" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.60   Supervision of on-post commercial activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Installation commanders will ensure that all agents are given equal opportunity for interviews, by appointment, at the designated areas. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOD personnel will not act in any official or business capacity, either directly or indirectly, as liaison with agents to arrange appointments.
</P>
<P>(3) Home address of members of the command or unit will not be given to commercial enterprises or individuals engaged in commercial solicitation, except when required by Army Regulation 340-17 and Army Regulation 340-21. The written consent of the individual must be obtained first.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hours and location for solicitation.</I> (1) Military personnel and their dependents will be solicited individually, by specific appointment, and at hours designated by the installation commander or his designee. Appointments will not interfere with any military duty. Door-to-door solicitation without a prior appointment, including solicitation by personnel whose ultimate purpose is to obtain sales (e.g., soliciting future appointments), is prohibited. Solicitors may contact prospective clients initially by methods such as advertising, direct mail, and telephone.
</P>
<P>(2) Commanders will provide one or more appropriate locations on the installation where agents may interview prospective purchasers. If space and other factors dictate limiting the number of agents who may use designated interviewing areas, the installation commander may publish policy covering this matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulations to be read by solicitors.</I> A conspicuous notice of installation regulations will be posted in a form and a place easily accessible to all those conducting on-post commercial activities. Each agent authorized to solicit must read this notice and appropriate installation regulations. Copies will be made available on installations. When practicable, as determined by the installation commander, persons conducting on-base commercial activities will be furnished a copy of the applicable regulations. Each agent seeking a permit must acknowledge, in writing, that he has read the regulations, understands them, and further understands that any violation or noncompliance may result in suspension of the solicitation privilege for himself, his employer, or both.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Forbidden solicitation practices.</I> Installation commanders will prohibit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Solicitation during enlistment or induction processing or during basic combat training, and within the first half of the one station unit training cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) Solicitation of “mass,” group, or “captive” audiences.
</P>
<P>(3) Making appointments with or soliciting of military personnel who are in an “on-duty” status.
</P>
<P>(4) Soliciting without an appointment in areas used for housing or processing transient personnel, or soliciting in barracks areas used as quarters.
</P>
<P>(5) Use of official identification cards by retired or Reserve members of the Armed Forces to gain access to military installations to solicit.
</P>
<P>(6) Offering of false, unfair, improper, or deceptive inducements to purchase or trade.
</P>
<P>(7) Offering rebates to promote transaction or to eliminate competition. (Credit union interest refunds to borrowers are not considered a prohibited rebate.)
</P>
<P>(8) Use of any manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent device, scheme, or artifice, including misleading advertising and sales literature.
</P>
<P>(9) Any oral or written representations which suggest or appear that the Department of the Army sponsors or endorses the company or its agents, or the goods, services, and commodities offered for sale.
</P>
<P>(10) Commercial solicitation by an active duty member of the Armed Forces of another member who is junior in rank or grade, at any time, on or off the military installation (Army Regulation 600-50).
</P>
<P>(11) Entry into any unauthorized or restricted area.
</P>
<P>(12) Assignment of desk space for interviews, except for specific prearranged appointments. During appointments, the agent must not display desk or other signs announcing the name of the company or product affiliation.
</P>
<P>(13) Use of the “Daily Bulletin” or any other notice, official, or unofficial, announcing the presence of an agent and his availability.
</P>
<P>(14) Distribution of literature other than to the person being interviewed.
</P>
<P>(15) Wearing of name tags that include the name of the company or product that the agent represents. 
</P>
<P>(16) Offering of financial benefit or other valuable or desirable favors to military or civilian personnel to help or encourage sales transactions. This does not include advertising material for prospective purchasers (such as pens, pencils, wallets, and notebooks, normally with a value of $1 or less).
</P>
<P>(17) Use of any portion of installation facilities, to include quarters, as a showroom or store for the sale of goods or services, except as specifically authorized by regulations governing the operations of exchanges, commissaries, non-appropriated fund instrumentalities, and private organizations. This is not intended to preclude normal home enterprises, providing State and local laws are complied with.
</P>
<P>(18) Advertisements citing addresses or telephone numbers of commercial sales activities conducted on the installation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Business reply system.</I> Agents who desire to use a business reply card system will include the information on the card which a military member can complete to indicate where and when the member can meet the agent to discuss the subject. The meeting place should be that established in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if the meeting is to be on the installation. This procedure should assist in removing any impression that the agent or his company are approved by the Department of the Army. It should further prevent an undesirable situation (e.g., military personnel paged on a public address system or called by a unit runner to report to the orderly room).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.61" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.61   Products and services offered in solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>Products and services, including life insurance, offered and sold on Army installations must comply with the laws of the States (and other civil jurisdictions) in which the installations are located. If a dispute or complaint arises, the applicable State will make the determination (§ 552.56).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.62" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.62   Advertising rules and educational programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of the Army expects that commercial enterprises soliciting military personnel through advertisements appearing in unofficial military publications will voluntarily observe the highest business ethics in describing both the goods, services, and commodities and the terms of the sale (such as guarantees and warranties). If not, the publisher of the military publication will request the advertiser to observe them. The advertising of credit will conform to the provisions of the Truth-in-Lending Act, as implemented by Regulation Z, published by the Federal Reserve Board (12 CFR part 226).
</P>
<P>(b) Commanders will provide appropriate information and educational programs to provide members of the Army with information pertaining to the conduct of their personal commercial affairs (e.g., the protections and remedies offered consumers under the Truth-in-Lending Act, insurance, Government benefits, savings, estate planning, and budgeting). The services or representatives of credit unions, banks, and nonprofit military associations approved by HQDA may be used for this purpose provided their programs are entirely educational. Under no circumstances will the services of commercial agents, including loan or finance companies and their associations, be used for this purpose. Educational materials prepared or used by outside organizations or experts in this field may be adapted or used with applicable permission, provided the material is entirely educational and does not contain applications or contract forms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.63" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.63   “Cooling off” period for door-to-door sales.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Trade Commission Rule, 16 CFR part 429, p. 233, effective 7 June 1974, pertains to a cooling off period for door-to-door sales. The rule applies to any sale, lease, or rental of consumer goods or services with a purchase price of $25 or more, whether under single or multiple contracts, in which the seller or business representative personally solicits the sale, including those in response to or following an invitation by the buyer, and the buyer's agreement or offer to purchase is made at a place other than the place of business of the seller. The purpose of the law is to allow the consumer the right to cancel a transaction at any time prior to midnight of the third business day after the date of the transaction. When any door-to-door sale or transaction takes place anywhere on or off the installation (other than the seller's place of business) the consumer must be provided with a full and complete receipt or copy of a contract pertaining to the sale at the time of its execution which shall include the “cancellation statements” as required by the FTC rule. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.64" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.64   Sound insurance underwriting and programing.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of the Army encourages the acquisition of a sound insurance program that is suitably underwritten to meet the varying needs of the individual and is within his financial means. Accordingly, insurance agents may conduct personal business on an installation, when feasible, with disinterested third-party counseling provided, interviewing hours set aside, and facilities supplied. However, the privilege of insurance solicitation on installations is conditioned on full compliance with this regulation and on the clear understanding that permission is not indorsement of the company or the policies offered for sale. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.65" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.65   Command supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All insurance business conducted on Army installation will be by appointment. When setting up the appointment, insurance agents must identify themselves to the prospective purchaser as an agent for a specific insurance company. 
</P>
<P>(b) Department of Defense personnel are expressly prohibited from representing any insurance company or dealing either directly or indirectly with any insurance company or any recognized representative of an insurance company as an agent or in any official or business capacity for the solicitation of insurance to personnel on a military installation with or without compensation. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the forbidden practices, installation commanders will prohibit the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of a commercial insurance agent as a participant in any military-sponsored education or orientation program. 
</P>
<P>(2) The designation or announcement of any agent as “Battalion Insurance Advisor,” “Unit Insurance Counselor,” “SGLI Conversion Consultant,” or similar quasi-official titles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.66" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.66   Actions required by agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agent must know that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Soldiers to be solicited are in grades E-1, E-2, or E-3, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The solicitation of these members is restricted to specified times and locations designated by the installation commander. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agents must leave information on the policy applied for with each member in grades E-1, E-2, and E-3 who applies for insurance and the unit insurance officer or counselor. Agents must complete DA Form 2056 (Commercial Insurance Solicitation Record). Blank DA Forms 2056 (not allotment forms) will be available to insurance agents on request. In the “Remarks” section of DA Form 2056, agents will include all pertinent information and a clear statement that dividends are not guaranteed if the presentation refers to dividends. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.67" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.67   Life insurance policy content.</HEAD>
<P>Insurance policies offered and sold on Army installations must— 
</P>
<P>(a) Comply with the insurance laws of the States or country in which the installations are located. The applicable State insurance commissioner will determine such compliance if there is a dispute or complaint. 
</P>
<P>(b) Contain no restrictions because of military service or military occupational specialty of the insured, unless restrictions are clearly indicated on the face of the policy. 
</P>
<P>(c) Plainly indicate any extra premium charges imposed because of military service or military occupational specialty. 
</P>
<P>(d) Not vary in the amount of death benefit or premium based on the length of time the policy has been in force, unless it is clearly described therein. 
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, be stamped with an appropriate reference on the face of the policy to focus attention on any extra premium charges imposed and on any variations in the amount of death benefit or premium based on the length of time the policy has been in force. 
</P>
<P>(f) Variable life insurance policies may be offered provided they meet the criteria of the appropriate insurance regulatory agency and the Securities and Exchange Commission. 
</P>
<P>(g) Show only the actual premiums payable for life insurance coverage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.68" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.68   Minimum requirements for agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the United States, its territories, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, agents may be authorized to solicit on an installation provided— 
</P>
<P>(1) Both the company and its agents are licensed in the State in which the installation is located. “State” as it pertains to political jurisdictions includes the 50 States, territories, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(2) The application to solicit is made by an accredited company (§ 552.69). 
</P>
<P>(b) On Army military installation in foreign areas. 
</P>
<P>(1) An agent may solicit business on U.S. military installations in foreign areas if— 
</P>
<P>(i) The company he represents has been accredited by DOD; 
</P>
<P>(ii) His name is on the official list of accredited agents maintained by the applicable major command;
</P>
<P>(iii) His employer, the company, has obtained clearance for him from the appropriate overseas commanders; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The commanding officer of the military installation on which he desires to solicit has granted him permission. 
</P>
<P>(2) To be employed for overseas solicitation and designated as an accredited agent, agents must have at least 1 year of successful life insurance underwriting in the United States or its territories. Generally, this is within the 5 years preceding the date of application. 
</P>
<P>(3) General agents and agents will represent only one accredited commercial insurance company. The overseas commander may waive this requirement if multiple representation can be proven to be in the best interest of DOD personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) An agent must possess a current State license. The overseas commander may waive this requirement on behalf of an accredited agent who has been continuously residing and successfully selling life insurance in foreign areas and forfeits his eligibility for a State license, through no fault of his own, due to the operation of State law or regulation governing domicile requirements, or requiring that the agent's company be licensed to do business in that State. The request for a waiver will contain the name of the State and jurisdiction, which would not renew the agent's license. 
</P>
<P>(5) An agent, once accredited in an overseas area, may not change his affiliation from the staff of one general agent to another, unless the losing company certifies, in writing, that the release is without justifiable prejudice. Unified commanders will have final authority to determine justifiable prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(6) Where the accredited insurer's policy permits, an overseas accredited life insurance agent, if duly qualified to engage in security activities either as a registered representative of a member of the National Association of Securities Dealers or an associated person of a broker/dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission only, may offer life insurance and securities for sale simultaneously. In cases of commingled sales, the allotment of pay for the purchase of securities cannot be made to the insurer. 
</P>
<P>(7) Overseas commanders will exercise further agent control procedures as necessary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.69" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.69   Application by companies to solicit on military installations in the United States, its territories, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.</HEAD>
<P>Before a company may be accredited to solicit on a military installation, the commander must receive a letter of application, signed by the company's president or vice president. It must be understood that a knowing and willful false statement is punishable by fine or imprisonment (18 U.S.C. 1001). The letter of application will— 
</P>
<P>(a) Report the States in which the company is qualified and licensed to sell insurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Give the name, complete address, and telephone number of each agent who will solicit on the installation if approval is granted; the State in which licensed; the date of licensing and the expiration date; and a statement of agreement to report all future additions and separations of agents employed for solicitation on the installation. 
</P>
<P>(c) List all policies and their form numbers that are to be offered for purchase on the installation. Application will be offered for purchase and that these policies meet the requirements of § 552.67(d).
</P>
<P>Attest that—
</P>
<P>(1) The privilege of soliciting the purchase of life insurance is not currently suspended or withdrawn from the company by any of the military departments. 
</P>
<P>(2) The privilege of soliciting the purchase of life insurance is not currently suspended or withdrawn by any Armed Forces installations from any of the agents named. 
</P>
<P>(3) The company and the agent named have proper and currently validated licenses as required by § 552.68.
</P>
<P>(4) The company assumes full responsibility for its agents complying with this regulation and with any regulations published by the installation commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.70" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.70   Applications by companies to solicit on installations in foreign countries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each May and June only, DOD accepts applications from commercial life insurance companies for accreditation to solicit the purchase of commercial life insurance on installations in foreign countries for the fiscal year beginning the following October. 
</P>
<P>(b) Information about permission to solicit on installations outside the United States (exclusive of its territories and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico) is contained in instructions issued by DOD. Applications and any correspondence relating thereto should be addressed to Assistant Secretary of Defense (Manpower, Reserve Affairs, and Logistics), ATTN: Directorate, Personnel Services, ODASD(MPP), WASH DC 20301. 
</P>
<P>(c) Advice of action taken by DOD is announced annually by letters sent to overseas commanders as soon as practicable after 15 September. The list of companies and agents may vary from year to year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.71" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.71   Associations—general.</HEAD>
<P>The recent growth of quasi-military associations offering various insurance plans to military personnel is recognized. Some associations are not organized within the supervision of insurance laws of either the Federal or State Government. While some are organized for profit, others function as nonprofit associations under Internal Revenue Service regulations. Regardless of how insurance plans are offered to members, the management of the association is responsible for assuring that all aspects of its insurance programs comply fully with the instructions of this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.72" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.72   Use of the allotment of pay system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Allotments of military pay will be made in accordance with Army Regulation 37-104-3. Allotments will not be made to an insurer for the purchase of a commingled sale (e.g., retirement plans, securities). 
</P>
<P>(b) Under no circumstances will agents have allotment forms in their possession or attempt to assist or coordinate the administrative processing of such forms. 
</P>
<P>(c) For personnel in grades E-1, E-2, and E-3, at least 7 days should elapse between the signing of a life insurance application or contract and the certification of an allotment. The purchaser's commanding officer may grant a waiver of this requirement for good cause, such as the purchaser's imminent permanent change of station. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.73" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.73   Minimum requirements for automobile insurance policies.</HEAD>
<P>Policies sold on installations by both accepted and accredited insurers will meet all statutory and regulatory requirements of the State or host nation in which the installation is located. Policies will not be issued in amounts lower than the minimum limits prescribed by these authorities. In addition, policies will—
</P>
<P>(a) Clearly identify the name of the insurer and the full address. 
</P>
<P>(1) Applications without the name and address of the insurer underwriting the insurance may be used; the names of sales or underwriting agents alone is not sufficient. 
</P>
<P>(2) Post office box addresses are not an acceptable address. 
</P>
<P>(b) Provide bodily injury and property damage liability coverage for all drivers authorized by the named insured to operate the vehicle. Military indorsements, excluding persons other than the named insured, whether in the military or not, are not acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(c) Not contain unusual limitations or restrictions, including, but not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Limitations specifying that coverage is afforded only when the insured vehicle is operated in the designated geographic areas in the United States (e.g., coverage applicable only on a military reservation). If the installation is located within the United States, the standard provision limiting coverage to the United States and Canada is acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(2) Coverage limited to exclude liability for bodily injury to passengers and guests if such a liability exists as a matter of law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.74" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.74   Grounds for suspension.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commander will deny or revoke permission of a company and its agents to conduct commercial activities on the installation if it is in the best interests of the command. The grounds for taking this action will include, but will not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Failure of company to meet the licensing and other regulatory requirements prescribed in § 552.56.
</P>
<P>(b) An agent or representative engaged in any of the solicitation practices prohibited by this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) Substantiated adverse complaints or reports about the quality of the goods, services, or commodities and the manner in which they are offered for sale.
</P>
<P>(d) Personal misconduct by agents or representatives while on the military installation.
</P>
<P>(e) The possession of or any attempt to obtain allotment forms, or to assist or coordinate the administrative processing of such forms.
</P>
<P>(f) Knowing and willful violation of the Truth-in-Lending Act or Federal Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(g) Failure to incorporate and abide by the Standards of Fairness policies. (See § 552.83.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.75" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.75   Factors in suspending solicitation privileges.</HEAD>
<P>In suspending privileges for cause, the installation commander will determine whether to limit suspension to the agent alone or to extent it to the company he represents. This decision will be based on the circumstances of the particular case. Included are—
</P>
<P>(a) The nature of the violations and their frequencies;
</P>
<P>(b) The extent to which other agents of the company have engaged in these practices;
</P>
<P>(c) Previous warnings or suspensions; and
</P>
<P>(d) Other matters that show the company's guilt or failure to take reasonable corrective or remedial action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.76" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.76   Preliminary investigation.</HEAD>
<P>When unauthorized solicitation practices have apparently occurred, an investigating officer will be appointed (Army Regulation 15-6). The investigating officer will gather sworn statements from all interested parties who have any knowledge of the alleged violations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.77" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.77   Suspension approval.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commander will personally approve all cases in which solicitation privileges have been denied or suspended for cause. This includes agents, companies, or other commercial enterprises. Authority to temporarily suspend solicitation privileges for 30 days or less while an investigation is conducted may be delegated by the commander to the installation solicitation officer or other designee. Exception to this time frame must be approved by The Adjutant General (DAAG-PSI) or by the overseas commander. The commander will make the final determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.78" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.78   “Show cause” hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Before suspending the solicitation privilege, the company and the agent will have a chance to show cause why the action should not be taken. “Show cause” is an opportunity for the company, the agent, or both to present facts informally on their behalf. The company and agent will be notified, by letter, far in advance of the pending hearing. If unable to notify the agent directly or indirectly of the hearing, then the hearing may proceed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.79" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.79   Suspension action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When suspended for cause, immediately notify the company and the agent, in writing, of the reason. When the installation commander determines that suspension should be extended throughout the Department of the Army (whether for the agent or his company), send the case to HQDA (DAAGPSI) WASH DC 20314. Provide all factors on which the commander based his decision concerning the agent or company (exempt report, para 7-2<I>o,</I> Army Regulation 335-15). This notification should include—
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of the “show cause” hearing record or summary,
</P>
<P>(2) The installation regulations or extract, 
</P>
<P>(3) The investigation report with sworn statements by all personnel affected by or having knowledge of the violations,
</P>
<P>(4) The statement signed by the agent as required in § 552.60(c). 
</P>
<P>(5) Notification letters sent to the company and the agent advising of suspension of installation solicitation privileges, and
</P>
<P>(6) If the agent failed to respond to notification of the hearing, a copy of the letters sent to him and the company offering them the opportunity to be heard.
</P>
<P>(b) If the grounds for suspension bear significantly on the eligibility of the agent or company to hold a State license or to meet other regulatory requirements, notify the appropriate State or local civil authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.80" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.80   Suspension period.</HEAD>
<P>All solicitation privileges suspended by installation commanders will be for a specific time. Normally, it will not exceed 2 years. When the suspension period expires, the agent may reapply for permission to solicit at the installation authorizing the denial or suspension. Requests for suspension periods in excess of 2 years will be sent with the complete case to HQDA (DAAG-PSI) WASH DC 20314, for approval. Lesser suspension may be imposed pending decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.81" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.81   Agents or companies with suspended solicitation privileges.</HEAD>
<P>Quarterly, HQDA will publish the names of agents and companies whose solicitation privileges have been suspended throughout the Department of the Army. If no change has occurred in the latest quarter, no list will be published.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.82" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.82   Exercise of “off limits” authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In appropriate cases, installation commanders may have the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board investigate reports that cash or consumer credit transactions offered military personnel by a business establishment off post are usurious, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive. If it is found that the commercial establishment engages in such practices; that it has not taken corrective action on being duly notified; and that the health, morale, and welfare of military personnel would be served, the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board may recommend that the offending business establishment be declared “off limits” to all military personnel. The procedures for making these determinations are in Army Regulation 190.24.
</P>
<P>(b) On finding that a company transacting cash or consumer credit with members of the Armed Forces, nationwide or internationally, is engaged in widespread usurious, fraudulent, or deceptive practices, the Secretary of the Army may direct Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Boards in all geographical areas where this occurred to investigate the charges and take appropriate action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.83" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.5.11.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.83   Standards of fairness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No finance charge contracted for, made, or received under any contract shall be in excess of the charge which could be made for such contract under the law of the place in which the contract is signed in the United States by the serviceman. In the event a contract is signed with a United States company in a foreign country, the lowest interest rate of the state or states in which the company is chartered or does business shall apply.
</P>
<P>(b) No contract or loan agreement shall provide for an attorney's fee in the event of default unless suit is filed in which event the fee provided in the contract shall not exceed 20 percent of the obligation found due. No attorney's fees shall be authorized if he is a salaried employee of the holder.
</P>
<P>(c) In loan transactions, defenses which the debtor may have against the original lender or its agent shall be good against any subsequent holder of the obligation. In credit transactions, defenses against the seller or its agent shall be good against any subsequent holder of the obligation provided that the holder had actual knowledge of the defense or under condition where reasonable inquiry would have apprised him of this fact.
</P>
<P>(d) The debtor shall have the right to remove any security for the obligation beyond State or national boundaries if he or his family moves beyond such boundaries under military orders and notifies the creditor, in advance of the removal, of the new address where the security will be located. Removal of the security shall not accelerate payment of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(e) No late charge shall be made in excess of 5 percent of the late payment, or $5 whichever is the lesser amount. Only one late charge may be made for any tardy installment. Late charges will not be levied where an allotment has been timely filed, but payment of the allotment has been delayed.
</P>
<P>(f) The obligation may be paid in full at any time or through accelerated payments of any amount. There shall be no penalty for prepayment and in the event of prepayment, that portion of the finance charges which have insured to the benefit of the seller or creditor shall be prorated on the basis of the charges which would have been ratably payable had finance charges been calculated and payable as equal periodic payments over the term of the contract, and only the prorated amount to the date of prepayment shall be due. As an alternative, the “Rule of 78” may be applied, in which case its operation shall be explained in the contract.
</P>
<P>(g) No charge shall be made for an insurance premium or for finance charges for such premium unless satisfactory evidence of a policy, or insurance certificate where State insurance laws or regulations permit such certificates to be issued in lieu of a policy, reflecting such coverage has been delivered to the debtor within 30 days after the specified date of delivery of the item purchased or the signing of a cash loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(h) If the loan or contract agreement provides for payments in installments, each payment, other than the down payment, shall be in equal or substantially equal amounts, and installments shall be successive and of equal or substantially equal duration.
</P>
<P>(i) If the security for the debt is repossessed and sold in order to satisfy or reduce the debt, the repossession and resale will meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The defaulting purchaser will be given advance written notice of the intention to repossess;
</P>
<P>(2) Following repossession, the defaulting purchaser will be served a complete statement of his obligations and adequate advance notice of the sale;
</P>
<P>(3) He will be permitted to redeem the item by payment of the amount due before the sale, or in lieu thereof submit a bid at the sale;
</P>
<P>(4) There will be a solicitation for a minimum of three sealed bids unless sold at auction;
</P>
<P>(5) The party holding the security, and all agents thereof are ineligible to bid;
</P>
<P>(6) The defaulting purchaser will be charged only those charges which are reasonably necessary for storage, reconditioning, and resale; and
</P>
<P>(7) He shall be provided a written detailed statement of his obligations, if any, following the resale and promptly refunded any credit balance due him, if any.
</P>
<P>(j) A contract for personal goods and services may be terminated at any time before delivery of the goods or services without charge to the purchaser. However, if goods made to the special order of the purchaser result in preproduction costs, or require preparation for delivery, such additional costs will be listed in the order form or contract. No termination charge will be made in excess of this amount. Contracts for delivery at future intervals may be terminated as to the undelivered portion, and the purchaser shall be chargeable only for that proportion of the total cost which the goods or services delivered bear to the total goods called for by the contract. (This is in addition to the right to rescind certain credit transactions involving a security interest in real estate provided by section 125 of the Truth-in-Lending Act, Pub. L. 90-321 (15 U.S.C. 1601) and § 226.9 of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Fort Lewis Land Use Policy</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 11723, Apr. 7, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.84" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.84   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation establishes procedures governing entry upon the Army training areas on Ft. Lewis, WA, designated in § 552.84(c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures have been established to ensure proper use of these Army training areas. Uninterrupted military use is vital to maintain and improve the combat readiness of the US Armed Forces. In addition, conditions exist within these training areas which could be dangerous to any unauthorized persons who enter. 
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation governs all use of the Ft Lewis Military Reservation outside cantonment areas, housing areas, Gray Army Airfield, Madigan Army Medical Center, and recreational sites controlled by the Director of Personnel and Community Activities (DPCA). The areas governed are designated on the overprinted 1:50,000 Ft Lewis Special Map as Impact Areas, lettered Close-In Training Areas (CTAs), or numbered Training Areas (TAs), and are hereafter referred to as the range complex. A full sized map is located at the Ft Lewis Area Access Office, Bldg. T-6127. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.85" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.85   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation is applicable to all military and civilian users of the range complex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.86" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.86   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) AR 405-70 (Utilization of Real Estate).
</P>
<P>(b) AR 405-80 (Granting Use of Real Estate).
</P>
<P>(c) AR 420-74 (Natural Resources—Land, Forest, and Wildlife Management).
</P>
<P>(d) FL Reg 215-1 (Hunting, Fishing, and Trapping).
</P>
<P>(e) FL Reg 350-30 (I Corps and Fort Lewis Range Regulations).
</P>
<P>(f) DA Form 1594 (Daily Staff Journal or Duty Officer's Log).
</P>
<P>(g) HFL Form 473 (Range, Facility, and Training Area Request).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.87" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.87   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Military training.</I> All use of the Ft. Lewis range complex for military training is governed by FL Reg 350-30. Military training always has priority for use of the range complex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hunting.</I> Hunting, fishing, and trapping on Ft. Lewis are governed by FL Reg 215-1. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recreational use.</I> (1) All individuals or organizations, military or civilian, desiring access to the range complex for recreational purposes must apply for and possess a valid Ft. Lewis area access permit except as outlined in § 552.87(c) of this section. Procedures are described in §§ 552.91 and 552.92. 
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized Department of Defense (DOD) patrons enroute to or using DPCA recreational areas (appendix A) are not required to possess a permit. Travel to and from DPCA recreational use areas is restricted to the most direct route by paved or improved two lane roads, and direct trail access. Other travel in the range complex is governed by this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Recreational use of CTAs without permit is authorized only for DOD personnel of Ft. Lewis and their accompanied guests. Driving Privately Owned Vehicles (POV) in the CTAs is restricted to paved or improved gravel roads, except for direct trail access to DPCA recreational areas at Shannon Marsh and Wright's Lake. Other recreational activities authorized in the CTAs for DOD personnel without permit are walking, jogging and picnicking at established picnic sites. 
</P>
<P>(4) Organizations or groups whose authorized recreational activity is of such a nature as to require special advanced confirmed commitments from Ft. Lewis for land, including Scout Camporees, seasonal or one-time regional meets, and so on, must apply to the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section in writing. If the area is available, the request will be forwarded to the Director of Engineering and Housing (DEH) for lease processing. Not less than 180 days are required for processing of these special requests. Organizations or groups whose activity requires military equipment or other special support from Ft. Lewis must also apply in writing. If a permit is granted, the special assistance request will be coordinated by the Public Affairs and Liaison Office (PALO). Sample request guide and mailing address are available for the Access Section. 
</P>
<P>(5) All other recreational uses require a permit in accordance with this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>commercial use.</I> Individuals or organizations using the range complex for profit-generating activities must possess a Real Estate Agreement. Requests for Real Estate Agreements must be directed to the Real Property Branch, DEH, IAW AR 405-80. Real Estate Agreements issued after publication of this regulation will require Real Estate Agreement holders to notify the Area Access Section of their entry onto, and departure from, the range complex. Profit generating activities include individuals or organizations that collect fees for services or that sell materials collected from the range complex. Proposed timber sales require prior coordination with the Director of Plans, Training and Mobilization (DPTM) to ensure that access can be granted for the appropriate areas and times. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Installation service and maintenance.</I> DOD personnel and contractual personnel on official business are authorized on the Ft. Lewis Military Reservation range complex as provided in appendix B. Access to hazard areas for such personnel is governed by FL Reg 350-30. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Non-DOD personnel in transit.</I> Individuals in transit along State or County maintained roads or roads designated for public access by the Installation Commander require no special permits. These routes are listed in appendix B. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Trespassers.</I> Persons or organizations entering or using the Ft. Lewis range complex outside one of the access channels described above are trespassing on a controlled-access federal reservation and are subject to citation by the military police. Trespassers may be barred from subsequent authorized access to the installation, and will be subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to comply.</I> Any person who enters the range complex of the Ft. Lewis Military Reservation without the consent of the Commanding Officer or his designated representative is in violation of the provisions of this regulation. Offenders may be subjected to administrative action or punishment under either the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) or title 18 U.S.C. 1382, of title 50 U.S.C. 797, as appropriate to each individual's status. Administrative action may include suspension or loss of recreational privileges, or permanent expulsion from the Ft. Lewis Military Reservation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.88" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.88   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DPTM.</I> Operate the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section as a part of Range Control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Law Enforcement Command.</I> Provide law enforcement and game warden patrols to respond to known or suspected trespassers or other criminal activity on the range complex.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DEH.</I> Coordinate with the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section (thru DPTM) all Real Estate Agreements, timber sales, wildlife management, construction, and other DEH or Corps of Engineers managed actions occurring on the range complex. Ensure all Real Estate Agreements issued after publication of this regulation require Real Estate Agreement holders to notify the Area Access Section of their entry onto, and departure from, the range complex.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DPCA.</I> Manage the Installation Hunting, Fishing, and Trapping programs in conjunction with DEH Wildlife. Manage those picnic and recreation sites located in the range complex, as listed in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PALO.</I> Make initial public release of Ft. Lewis Land Use Policy and area access procedures, and provide periodic updates through media. Act as interface, when necessary, to resolve community relations issues related to land use. Coordinate special assistance requests per § 552.86(b). Inform DPTM of public response to policy execution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.89" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.89   Activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Examples of authorized activities are listed in appendix C. 
</P>
<P>(b) Activities listed in appendix D are not authorized on Ft. Lewis and no permit will be issued. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.90" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.90   Permit office.</HEAD>
<P>DPTM Range Control operates the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section in Bldg T-6126 to issue permits and grant non-training acess to the range complex. The office is open 0700-1900 hours, seven days a week, for permit processing and access control. At other hours, Range Operations will take calls for access only. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.91" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.91   Individual permit procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals desiring area access for authorized activities (see appendix C) must register in person at the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section, Bldg T-6127. Minimum age is 18 years, except for active duty military personnel. Individuals under 18 years of age must be sponsored and accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. 
</P>
<P>(b) Individual registration requires:
</P>
<P>(1) Picture ID.
</P>
<P>(2) Personal information including Social Security Number.
</P>
<P>(3) Vehicle identification and license number, if a vehicle is to be brought on post.
</P>
<P>(4) Names and ages of minor family members who will accompany a registered person.
</P>
<P>(5) Liability release signature.
</P>
<P>(6) Certification that intended activities are on the authorized list and are not for-profit commercial activities. Persons who submit false certificates are subject to prosecution in Federal Court Under 5 U.S.C. 1001, and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A permit and a vehicle pass will be issued to each person authorized area access. The permit is not transferable. Entry to the range complex without the issued permit is forbidden.
</P>
<P>(d) Individual write-in requests may be authorized for extraordinary circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.92" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.92   Group permit procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A collective permit will be issued to an organization desiring to conduct a group event. The group leader must register in person at the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section, Bldg T-6127, and must be 21 years of age or older except for active duty military personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Group registration requires the information listed in § 552.91, except that a legible list of names of all persons in the group is required in lieu of the names and ages of minors.
</P>
<P>(c) Group permits will be issued with the requirement that all members of the group will be with the leader throughout the event. If the group plans to separate while still on post, sub-group leaders must be appointed and must each obtain a permit as noted in this section. The group leader permit is not transferable. 
</P>
<P>(d) Other group write-in requests may be authorized for extraordinary circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.93" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.93   Permit deadline and duration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Permits will be issued 0700-1900 hours daily and may be obtained no earlier than six months prior to the event date. Permits for authorized activities may be requested and issued on the day of the event, but must be in hand prior to individual or group entry on to the range complex. 
</P>
<P>(b) Permits for one-time events are valid for the duration of the event. Otherwise, permits are valid for six months and are not renewable. When a permit expires, the holder must reapply as described in this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Access hours are thirty minutes after daylight to thirty minutes before dark, except for authorized overnight activities and as outlined in FL Reg 215-1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.94" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.94   Area access procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Holders of current permits desiring access must call the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section on the date of entry at the telephone numbers listed on the permit and state the area to be entered, estimated time of entry, and estimated time of departure. This check-in may also be done in person at the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section, Bldg T-6126. Procedures for permits and access for hunting and trapping are outlined on FL Reg 215-1. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Ft. Lewis Area Access Section will determine whether the area is available and, if so, authorize entry. If the area is not open for permit holders, and an alternate area cannot be provided, access will be denied. All calls and actions will be recorded on DA Form 1594 (Daily Staff Journal or Duty Officer's Log). 
</P>
<P>(c) Permit holders must call or visit the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section immediately after leaving the authorized area to obtain checkout clearance. If a checkout is not received within three hours after the estimated time of departure, the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section will call the contact phone number in the permit holder's record and, if necessary, initiate a search through the Military Police Desk. Permit holders who fail to call out twice will be barred from area access for thirty days. A third failure to check out will result in suspension of the permit for the remainder of its normal duration or ninety days, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(d) Failure to comply with the provisions of this paragraph shall subject all persons to the provisions of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.95" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.95   Compatible use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unit commanders may, during training area scheduling, request that no permit holders be allowed in their areas. Justification must be in the remarks column of HFL Form 473 (Range, Facility and Training Area Request). If this restriction is granted, the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section will close the appropriate areas. In the absence of a trainer's request for closure, the following military activities are considered incompatible with non-training access and will, when scheduled, block affected areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) Live-fire training events with surface danger zones falling into training areas. 
</P>
<P>(2) Parachute and air assault operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Field artillery firing. The numbered training area occupied by the weapons will be closed. 
</P>
<P>(4) Motorized infantry operations that will use the majority of the road net in a training area, traveling at higher than normal speeds. 
</P>
<P>(5) Training employing riot agents or smoke generating equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Range Officer may close training areas based on multiple occupation by large units. 
</P>
<P>(c) Areas allocated to modern firearm deer hunting are closed to training and recreational activities. When State Fish and Game pheasant release sites can be isolated by swamps, streams, or roads from the rest of a training area, multiple occupancy is authorized. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.96" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.96   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Anyone observing violators of this or other regulations must report the activity, time, and location to the Ft. Lewis Area Access Section or the Military Police as soon as possible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.97" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.6.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.97   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>The Ft. Lewis Area Access Section communicates by telephone as noted on the permit. Tactical FM contact may be made through Range Operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Firearms and Weapons</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 1752, Jan. 22, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.98" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.98   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation establishes the criteria for possessing, carrying, concealing, and transporting firearms and/or other deadly or dangerous weapons and instruments on Fort Stewart/Hunter Army Airfield (AAF) installations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.99" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.99   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this regulation apply to all Department of Defense (DOD) military; civilian personnel; U.S. Army Reserve/National Guard (USAR/NG) personnel on post for active duty training or inactive training in conjunction with Active Army elements, military family members; civilians employed on, visiting, or traveling through or on the Fort Stewart/Hunter AAF installation. 
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation will not become void in its entirety merely because one part or portion thereof is declared unconstitutional or void. 
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation is punitive, Military violators of the regulations may be prosecuted under the Uniform Code of Military Justice or may be subject to administrative action. Civilian violators may be subject to administrative or judicial action under title 18, United States Code, or title 16, Criminal Code of Georgia. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.100" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.100   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ammunition.</I> Projectiles together with their fuses, propelling charges, and primers that are designed to be expelled from a firearm. This includes any type of military and commercial ammunition (ball, tracer, incendiary, blank, shotgun, black powder, and shot). Items shall only be considered as ammunition when loaded into a cartridge with its bullets and primer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>BB and pellet guns.</I> Any type rifle, pistol or other instrument designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to expel BBs or pellets by springs, compressed air, CO2 or any other compressed gas cartridge. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dangerous instruments.</I> Any device which is designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to be used as an offensive or defensive weapon. Devices of this type include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Constant companion” or any similar weapon, designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to be worn as a belt buckle, brass kunckles, “Knucklers,” and “Knucks.” 
</P>
<P>(2) Studded or spiked wrist bands, or any device designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to fit over the hand or wrist which can be used to cause grave bodily harm. 
</P>
<P>(3) Black jacks, slapjacks, slappers, saps, including homemade substitutes, other bludgeons (with or without handles), and metal pipes. 
</P>
<P>(4) “Nanchaku” (num-chucks), two or more sticks connected by rope, cord or chain and normally used as a martial arts weapon. “Shuriken”, a disc or any geometrical object designed to be thrown as a weapon. “Manrikigusari” or “Kusari,” a rope or cord joined to a weight at each end and designed to be used as a weapon. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any finger ring with blades or sharp objects that are capable of being projected/extended from the surface of the ring. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any device capable and primarily intended for discharging darts or needles. 
</P>
<P>(7) All firearms. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explosive, incendiary, and pyrotechnic devices.</I> Any type of military or commercial explosive, incendiary, gas or smoke bomb, grenade, rocket, missile, mine, blasting cap, “dummy” and/or practice device such as simulators, and other similar detonating devices which are capable of being altered to contain a live charge, and pyrotechnic devices such as firecrackers, cherry bombs, bottlerockets, and starclusters. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Firearms.</I> Any type of weapon which is designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to expel a projectile by action of any explosion, and the frame or receiver of any such weapon. This does not include antique firearms, antique replicas, and those modern firearms which have been rendered permanently incapable of being fired. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Knives, sabers, swords, and machetes.</I> Any instrument having a sharp blade which is fastened to a handle, or made with a handle. Measurement of the blade will be from the tip of the blade to the point where the blade meets the handle. This includes folding knives, switchblades, gravity knives, stilettos, lock blade knives, swords, sabers, and machetes. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Machine gun and automatic weapon.</I> A weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to automatically fire more than one shot by a single pull of the trigger. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public gathering.</I> Shall include, but shall not be limited to, athletic or sporting events, schools or school functions, churches or church functions, rallies, or establishments at which alcoholic beverages are sold for consumption on the premises. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shotgun.</I> A weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder; and designed or redesigned, made or remade, to use the energy or the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Sawed-off shotgun.</I> A shotgun or any weapon made from a shotgun whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 20 inches. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sawed-off rifle.</I> A weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder; and designed or redesigned, made or remade, to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic cartridge to fire only as a single projectile through a rifle bore for each single pull of the trigger; and which has a barrel or barrels of less than 16 inches or has an overall length of less than 26 inches. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Silencer.</I> Any device used for suppressing or diminishing the report of any firearm. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Weapon.</I> An instrument used in an offensive or defensive manner. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.101" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.101   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited items.</I> It is prohibited to possess, carry, conceal, transport, store, transfer or sell any of the following weapons or devices on, through or within the confines of Fort Stewart and Hunter AAF installations unless specifically allowed elsewhere in this regulation: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sawed-off shotgun. 
</P>
<P>(2) Sawed-off rifle. 
</P>
<P>(3) Machine gun and automatic weapons. 
</P>
<P>(4) Silencers. 
</P>
<P>(5) Dangerous instruments as defined in § 552.100(c). 
</P>
<P>(6) Explosives, Incendiary and Pyrotechnic Devices, as defined in § 552.100(d). 
</P>
<P>(7) Knives with automatic blade openers (<I>i.e.</I>, switch blades, gravity knives, stilettos) of any blade length. Folding or fixed bladed knives with a blade length of more than 3 inches. Swords, sabers, and machetes with sharpened blades. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any object which carries an electrical current of sufficient wattage to deliver a shock to a person, such as cattle prods, “taser” or “public defenders.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Carrying a concealed weapon.</I> A person commits the offense of carrying a concealed weapon when he/she knowingly has or carries about his/her person, unless in an open manner and fully exposed to view, any bludgeon, metal knuckles, firearm, or knife designed for the purpose of offense and defense, or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character outside of his/her home or place of business. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Carrying Deadly Weapons to or at Public Gatherings.</I> A person commits an offense under this section when he/she carries to or while at a public gathering any explosive compound, firearm, or knife designed for the purpose of offense and defense. This paragraph shall not apply to competitors participating in organized sporting events, military personnel in a formation when a weapon is required, or to police/security personnel while in performance of their duties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited Possession and Storage.</I> It is prohibited for a person, military or civilian, to possess or store ammunition, firearms, knives with blades more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, crossbows, and BB and pellet guns, in locations other than those locations specified in § 552.102, except under conditions specified in § 552.103. Prohibited locations for these items include, but are not limited to, living spaces and common areas of billets, squad rooms, privately-owned vehicles, exterior storage sheds, camper trailers, and offices. Commanders will designate an arms room and times for weapons turn-in. During periods when arms rooms are closed, the Staff Duty Officer (SDO) will ensure the weapon is secured in accordance with (IAW) this regulation. A receipt will be given for each weapon received, reflecting the weapon's make, serial number, identity of owner and other data deemed appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemptions.</I> Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit: 
</P>
<P>(1) Military members or DOD civilian employees from possessing or using military weapons, military ammunition or explosives, or military devices in a lawful manner while in the performance of their military duties or for training or other authorized purposes, as prescribed by applicable Army Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Military and DOD civilian personnel, while in the performance of official law enforcement duties, from possessing or using government ammunition, explosives or devices in a lawful manner, as prescribed by applicable laws or regulations or by their lawful superiors. 
</P>
<P>(3) Federal, state, county or local law enforcement personnel, while in the performance of official law enforcement duties, from possessing or using government or privately-owned weapons, ammunition, explosives or devices in a lawful manner, as prescribed by applicable laws or regulations or by their lawful superiors. 
</P>
<P>(4) Government contractors, while in performance of their contract from possessing or using weapons, ammunition, explosives or devices, IAW the provisions of their contract and as determined by the Contracting Officer. 
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals with Federal Firearms Licenses (Class III) from possessing, carrying, and transporting Class III weapons IAW Federal regulations; however, they are prohibited from concealing, storing, transferring, or selling Class III weapons within the confines of Fort Stewart and Hunter AAF. 
</P>
<P>(6) Individuals from possessing, carrying, transporting, or storing decorative, ornamental, and ceremonial swords and sabers within the confines of Fort Stewart and Hunter AAF when used strictly for display and ceremonies. When used as a cutting instrument, they become a prohibited item. 
</P>
<P>(7) Individuals and agencies from possessing, transporting, storing, selling, or using fixed bladed knives with a blade length of more than 3 inches when used for their lawful purpose (<I>i.e.</I>, steak knives, cooking knives, hunting knives) and when in compliance with all other requirements in this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.102" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.102   Requirements for possession and use.</HEAD>
<P>DOD military and civilian personnel, their family members, USAR/NG personnel and civilians employed on, visiting or traveling through this installation may possess legally-defined and privately-owned firearms, ammunition, BB and pellet guns, knives, bows and arrows, and crossbows under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Privately-owned firearms, crossbows, BB and pellet guns possessed or stored on the installation must be registered at the installation Provost Marshal's Office within three working days after arrival on the installation, or after obtaining the weapon, except: 
</P>
<P>(1) Firearms legally brought onto the installation for the purpose of hunting or firing at an approved firing range, and only for the period of time the person possessing the firearms is hunting or firing on the range. 
</P>
<P>(2) Firearms carried by federal, state, county or local law enforcement personnel when in the performance of official law enforcement duties. 
</P>
<P>(3) Firearms carried or transported, in full compliance with Georgia State Laws, on Georgia State Highways 119 and 144 by personnel traveling through the installation only. Travel off of these state highways or stopping, other than for emergency purposes, while on the installation is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel residing in family housing, BOQ, BEQ/VOQ and guest housing, may store legally-acquired, authorized ammunition, knives with a blade measuring more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, registered crossbows, registered BB and pellet guns and registered firearms within their quarters. 
</P>
<P>(c) Personnel residing in troop billets may store legally-acquired authorized ammunition, knives and blades measuring more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, registered crossbows, registered BB and pellet guns and registered firearms in unit arms rooms. The unit arms room should utilize a standard weapons card and log book to document storage, removal, and return. 
</P>
<P>(d) Persons using weapons borrowed from another must have the documentation required in § 552.103(a) as applicable in their possession when carrying, transporting or using the weapon on the installation. 
</P>
<P>(e) Persons under the age of 17 must be accompanied by a person over the age of 21 who will be responsible for compliance with the requirements of this regulation while hunting or target shooting on the installation and when purchasing legal arms (including knives with blades over 3 inches) and ammunition from installation retail outlets. 
</P>
<P>(f) Persons must be in compliance with federal and state laws regarding possession (<I>i.e.</I>, age, criminal record restrictions, etc.) 
</P>
<P>(g) Storage, accountability and registration procedures will be IAW Army Regulation 190-11 and supplements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.103" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.103   Requirements for carrying and use.</HEAD>
<P>Persons legally authorized to possess firearms, ammunition, knives (with blades longer than 3 inches), bows and arrows, and crossbows, may carry or transport legally possessed and registered (if required) weapons under the following conditions. 
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of hunting: From quarters, on or off the installation, by the most direct route to hunting area or Pass and Permit Office and return. Stopping at other installation facilities while enroute is prohibited (<I>i.e.</I>, Post Exchange, Club, offices, etc.). Individual must have in his/her possession weapon registration (if applicable), valid state hunting license, valid Fort Stewart hunting permit and an area access pass (if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of target shooting, selling the weapon or having the weapon repaired: From quarters by the most direct route to approved range or to the location where the weapon is to be sold or repaired and returned. Stopping at other installation facilities while enroute is prohibited. Individual must have in his/her possession at all times his/her registration (if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(1) When carried, weapons will be carried in an open manner (not concealed). Firearms will be unloaded when carried (<I>i.e.</I>, projectiles physically separated from the firearms, not just removed from the chamber), except when actually engaged in hunting or shooting. Knives will be carried in a sheath or scabbard worn in a clearly visible manner. Commanders may authorize the carrying of a privately-owned knife with a blade over 3 inches to field duty, provided it is carried IAW Victory Standard and exposed in a sheath/scabbard. The Provost Marshal may authorize the carrying of a privately-owned, sheathed, lock blade knife on military and DOD police officers' pistol belts. 
</P>
<P>(2) When transported in a vehicle, weapons will be in plain view in the passenger area of the vehicle or secured (locked) in the trunk or other rear compartment of the vehicle, not readily accessible from the passenger area (<I>i.e.</I>, locked tool box secured to bed of a truck). Firearms will be unloaded and the ammunition physically separated from the firearms. The glove compartment of a vehicle is <I>NOT</I> an authorized compartment for storing pistols. 
</P>
<P>(3) Firearms, bows and arrows, crossbows, BB and pellet guns will not be loaded, fired or used within the cantonment areas of the installation; within 50 yards of any public highway, street or Fort Stewart numbered road or across same; within 100 yards of any designated recreation area, managed waters, building or similar structures; any aircraft landing facility (to include currently used landing or stage fields); any ammunition storage area (except on approved firing range when properly authorized). 
</P>
<P>(4) Persons not affiliated with DOD or this installation must remain on Georgia State Highways 119 and 144 when carrying or transporting weapons through the installation and must be in full compliance with Georgia State Law governing possession, use and transportation of said weapons. Travel off of these highways or stopping, for other than emergency purposes, while on the installation, is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.104" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.7.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.104   Disposition of confiscated/seized weapons.</HEAD>
<P>All weapons, ammunition, explosives or other devices defined in this regulation, that are confiscated pursuant to the commission of a crime or violation of this or other regulation or found unsecured/unattended on the installation, will be immediately turned over to the military police, U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC), or the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for investigation, retention as evidence, or other lawful disposition. When retention for investigation or evidence is no longer required by military police, USACIDC, or other law enforcement or judicial agencies, the items will be disposed of under the provisions of AR 195-5, Evidence Procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Regulation Controlling the Access to the Fort Lewis Main Cantonment Area and Prohibiting Certain Conduct Upon Fort Lewis Military Reservation</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 25862, July 9, 1987, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 53 FR 1752, Jan. 22, 1988.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.105" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.105   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation establishes procedures governing access control requirements for the Main Cantonment Area, Fort Lewis, Washington, and prohibits certain forms of conduct upon the Fort Lewis Military Reservation.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures and requirements have been established in conjunction with other efforts to improve the physical security of the Fort Lewis Military Reservation. It is essential that entrance to, and exit from, the installation be made only at controlled access points, and that certain forms of conduct be restricted.
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation governs all access to the Main Cantonment Area of the Fort Lewis Military Reservation, including, but not limited to, all housing areas, Gray Army Air Field, and Madigan Army Medical Center. It further prohibits all persons from engaging in certain forms of conduct anywhere on the Fort Lewis Military Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.106" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.106   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation is applicable to all persons, both military and civilian, who enter the Fort Lewis Military Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.107" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.107   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) AR 190-5 (Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision)
</P>
<P>(b) AR 190-52 (Countering Terrorism and Other Major Disruptions on Military Reservations)
</P>
<P>(c) AR 210-7 (Commercial Solicitation on Army Installations)
</P>
<P>(d) AR 210-10 (Administration)
</P>
<P>(e) Fort Lewis Supplement 1 to AR 190-5 (Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision)
</P>
<P>(f) I Corps and Fort Lewis Installation Security and Closure Plan
</P>
<P>(g) HFL Form 1138 (Fort Lewis Visitor Pass)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.108" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.108   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access controls.</I> (1) Fort Lewis is a closed post. Access to the installation is limited to persons with prior approved permission to enter.
</P>
<P>(2) Public access into the Main Cantonment Area of Fort Lewis is controlled through a series of static security posts manned by sentries empowered to grant or deny access to persons and material. The “Main Cantonment Area” is that area of the Fort Lewis Military Reservation shown on the overprinted 1:50,000 Fort Lewis Special Map (DMA Stock No. V791SFTLEWIS) excluding those areas designated thereon as Impact Areas, lettered Close-In Training Areas, or numbered Training Areas. A full sized map is located at the Fort Lewis Area Access Office, Building T-6127. As defined, the Main Cantonment Area includes, but is not necessarily limited to, those areas of the installation containing Government housing areas, schools, medical facilities, troop billets, the installation command and control facilities, Gray Army Air Field, Madigan Army Medical Center, and certain recreational sites controlled by the Director of Personnel and Community Activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Entry of the general public into the Main Cantonment Area at any location other than through established manned access control points is strictly prohibited. For the purposes of this regulation, entry includes the entrance of the person, or the insertion of any part of his body, or the introduction of any unauthorized material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Trespassers.</I> Persons entering or remaining upon the Main Cantonment Area of the Fort Lewis Military Reservation in violation of this regulation are trespassing on a closed federal reservation and are subject to citation by the military police. Trespassers may be barred from subsequent access to the installation and will be subject to the provisions of this regulation. A person violates this regulation when he enters or remains upon the Main Cantonment Area when he is not licensed, invited, or otherwise authorized to so enter or remain. All such persons are trespassers for the purpose of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited Activities.</I> Department of Defense policy permits commanders to prohibit any expressive activity which could interfere with or prevent the orderly accomplishment of the installation's mission, or which presents a clear danger to the loyalty, discipline or morale of their soldiers. Therefore, unless the prior approval of the installation commander or his designated representative has been obtained, no person while on the Fort Lewis Military Reservation shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in protests, public speeches, sit-ins, or demonstrations promoting a political point of view.
</P>
<P>(2) Engage in partisan political campaigning or electioneering.
</P>
<P>(3) Display or distribute commercial advertising or solicit business.
</P>
<P>(4) Interrupt or disturb a military formation, ceremony, class or other activity.
</P>
<P>(5) Obstruct movement on any street, sidewalk, or pathway without prior authority.
</P>
<P>(6) Utter to any person abusive, insulting, profane, indecent or otherwise provocative language that by its very utterance tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace.
</P>
<P>(7) Distribute or post publications, including pamphlets, newspapers, magazines, handbills, flyers, leaflets, and other printed material, except through regularly established and approved distribution outlets.
</P>
<P>(8) Circulate petitions or engage in picketing or similar demonstrations for any purpose.
</P>
<P>(9) Disobey a proper request or order by Department of Defense (DoD) police, military police, or other competent authority to disperse or to leave the installation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to comply.</I> Any person who enters or remains upon the Main Cantonment Area of Fort Lewis Military Reservation when he is not licensed, invited or otherwise authorized by the terms of this regulation or who enters or remains upon the Fort Lewis Military Reservation for a purpose of engaging in any activity prohibited by this regulation is in violation of the provisions of the regulation. Violators of this regulation may be subjected to administrative action or criminal punishment under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), title 18 U.S.C. 1382, or title 50 U.S.C. 797, as appropriate to each individual's status. Maximum punishment under title 18 U.S.C. 1382 is a fine of not more than $500 or imprisonment for not more than six months, or both. Maximum punishment under 50 U.S.C. 797 is a fine of $5,000 or imprisonment for not more than one year, or both. Administrative action may include suspension of access privileges, or permanent expulsion from the Fort Lewis Military Reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.109" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.109   Routine security controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unimpeded access.</I> Military vehicles, emergency vehicles, mail delivery vehicles, privately owned motor vehicles registered in accordance with Fort Lewis Supplement 1 to Army Regulation (AR) 190-5, and pedestrians in possession of current active duty, retired, dependent, or DoD civilian identification cards are authorized unimpeded access to Fort Lewis during periods of routine installation operations unless prohibited or restricted by action of the Installation Commander.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Visitor access.</I> All visitors to the installation will report to the visitor's information center where the visitor's name, vehicle license number, purpose and duration of visit will be recorded prior to granting access. Visitor's passes for visitors to Madigan Army Medical Center and the Logistics Center/Civilian Personnel Office will be issued at the Madigan and Logistics Center gates respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Visitor's passes.</I> HFL Form 1138 (Fort Lewis Visitor Pass) valid for a period not to exceed 24 hours unless otherwise noted below, may be issued only when one or more of the following criteria is met.
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel in possession of proper orders directing temporary duty at Fort Lewis may be issued a visitor's pass for periods not to exceed 13 days. Personnel ordered to temporary duty at Fort Lewis for periods in excess of 13 days but less than 90 days will be required to obtain a temporary vehicle registration.
</P>
<P>(2) Persons visiting Fort Lewis military personnel or their family members may be issued visitor's passes for periods up to and including 13 days when personally requested by the military sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) Moving vans and commercial delivery vehicles will be issued visitor's passes after the operator displays a bill of lading or other official documentation demonstrating a legitimate need to enter Fort Lewis.
</P>
<P>(4) Contract vehicles not qualifying for installation vehicle registration pursuant to Fort Lewis Supplement 1 to AR 190-5 will be issued a visitor's pass as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after the purpose of the visit has been verified by the Contracting Officer's Representative, or the Contractor when the former is not available.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to issuing a visitor's pass to unsponsored personnel who desire to visit unit areas, club facilities and other recreational facilities, security personnel will telephonically contact the person to be visited. If the person to be visited cannot be contacted to verify the visit, the visitor will be denied entry. Unsponsored personnel desiring to visit the Fort Lewis Museum may be issued a visitor's pass valid until museum closing time on day of issue, provided security personnel telephonically contact the museum and verify the hours of public operation that day prior to issuing the visitor's pass.
</P>
<P>(6) Soldiers, dependent family members, and Department of the Army employees who sponsor visitors to the installation remain responsible for the conduct of their guests on Fort Lewis for the duration of the visit. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Heightened security controls.</I> Access control measures implemented during periods of enhanced security will be in accordance with AR 190-52 and the I Corps and Fort Lewis Installation Security and Closure Plan. During periods of heightened security controls, sponsors may be required to personally report to the Visitor's Information Center to accept responsibility for the visitor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.110" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.110   Requests for exception.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commander or his deputy may grant exceptions to the prohibitions contained in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. An application for exception shall be submitted to the installation Public Affairs Liaison Officer at least seven days prior to the date of the requested activity. The application must be in writing, and must specify the particular activity proposed, the names of the persons and organizations sponsoring the activity, the number of participants, and the time, date and specific place or places the requester proposes the activity occur. In addition, the application shall be signed by the requester or by a representative of the requesting organization, if any, and contain an address and local telephone number where the requester or representative can be reached in the event further information is needed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.111" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.8.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.111   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If a provision of this Regulation is declared unconstitutional, or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the constitutionality or validity of every other provision of this Regulation shall not be affected thereby. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Physical Security of Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives—Fort Lewis, Washington</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 25040, June 3, 1991, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.112" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.112   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To provide enhanced security for the protection of arms, ammunition, explosives (AA&amp;E) and sensitive items at Fort Lewis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.113" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.113   References.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation is to be used in conjunction with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) AR-190-11 with Forces Command and Training Command Supplement 1 (Physical Security of Arms, Ammunition and Explosives).
</P>
<P>(b) AR 190-13 with Forces Command and Training Command Supplement 1 (The Army Physical Security Program).
</P>
<P>(c) Fort Lewis Regulation 210-1 (Installation Fort Lewis Post Regulations).
</P>
<P>(d) Headquarters Fort Lewis Form 816 (Registration of Personal Firearms).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.114" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.114   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of the provisions of this regulation are subject to disciplinary actions under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, judicial action as authorized by state or federal law, or administrative action as provided by controlling regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.115" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.115   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation is applicable to all Active Army, Reserve Officer Training Corps (ROTC), U.S. Army Reserve (USAR), and Army National Guard (ARNG) units training and/or assigned/attached to Fort Lewis and its sub-installations. This regulation also applies to tenant units/activities stationed on Fort Lewis. It is also applicable to all persons, both military and civilian, who reside on or who otherwise enter Fort Lewis Military Reservation for whatever reason.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.116" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.116   Privately owned weapons—security.</HEAD>
<P>Privately owned arms and ammunition will be secured in the manner required for military weapons and ammunition but separate from military arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&amp;E) items.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.117" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.117   Disposition of Commander's Letter of Authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The unit commander's written approval to withdraw privately owned weapons from the unit arms room will be attached to the record of the next weekly arms, ammunition, and explosive (AA&amp;E) inventory. Following is a Sample Request for Authorization to Withdraw Weapon from Arms Room:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>Office Symbol
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Memorandum for Commander of unit concerned, Fort Lewis, WA 98433
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Subject: Request Authorization to Remove Privately Owned Firearm/Weapon from the Unit Arms Room
</FP-2>
<P>1. Request authorization to remove the following firearm/weapon registered in my name from the arms room. The firearm/weapon is a __________ (type) and serial number is ________________.
</P>
<P>2. The firearm/weapon will be removed on __________ (date) and returned on __________ (date).
</P>
<P>3. The reason for removal is
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name/rank/unit/signature of individual making request)
</FP>
<FP-2>Office Symbol  1st End    SFC Jones/mmm/telephone CDR, Unit concerned, Fort Lewis, WA 98433
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FOR (individual making request plus complete address) Approval is granted.
</FP-2>
<FP>(Signature block of authorizing official)</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.118" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.118   Issuance from unit arms room.</HEAD>
<P>When privately owned weapons are withdrawn from the arms room, DA Form 3749 (Equipment Receipt), will be turned in and the weapon will be signed out on Headquarters Fort Lewis Form 938 (Weapons/Ammunition and Sensitive Item Issue and Turn-In Register). The armorer will provide the owner with a copy of Headquarters Fort Lewis Form 816 (Registration of Personal Firearms), which will remain with the weapon at all times. When the weapon is turned back in to the arms room, the HFL Form 816 will be turned in also.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.119" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.119   Registration and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All types of personal weapons to include rifles, shotguns, handguns and antique firearms owned by personnel residing on Fort Lewis Military Reservation will be registered at the Weapons Registration Office, Law Enforcement Command, within 72 hours (three working days) after signing in to his/her permanent unit of assignment. HFL Form 816, Registration of Personal Firearms, will be completed in triplicate. The unit commander is responsible for verifying proof of legal ownership paperwork on all data entered on HFL 816. The Military Police Weapons Registration Section will retain two copies of the completed registration form and issue one copy to the individual to be retained with the weapon at all times. The Weapons Registration Section will forward one copy of the form to the individual's unit commander. The commander's copy of the registration will be maintained in the unit arms room for personnel storing personal weapons in the unit arms room. When an individual possessing a personal weapon transfers (intra-installation), the losing commander will ensure that HFL Form 816 is forwarded to the gaining commander. The gaining commander will ensure that the individual re-registers the personal weapon within 72 hours (three working days). The commander of 525th Replacement Detachment is responsible for the storage of personal weapons of newly arriving personnel, temporarily assigned to the unit. Personnel residing off post who wish to bring personal weapons on post are also required to register those weapons. Weapons registration forms (HFL 816) will be turned in at the Weapons Registration Section when clearing post. Upon any sale or transfer of a registered weapon, the transaction will be immediately reported within 72 hours (three working days) to the Registration Office. For additional guidance on weapon registration, refer to Fort Lewis Regulation 210-1.
</P>
<P>(b) All soldiers are required to inform the unit commander if they are storing privately owned weapons within a 100 mile radius of Fort Lewis. Soldiers residing off-post must inform the unit of the location of the weapon(s). Those weapons must be registered if they are to be brought onto the installation for any type of authorized use.
</P>
<P>(c) Privately owned weapons of soldiers residing in the unit billets, Bachelor Enlisted Quarters (BEQ), or Bachelor Officer Quarters (BOQ), will be stored in the assigned unit arms room under the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Commanders may authorize their personnel who reside in billets, BEQ or BOQ to store privately owned weapons in the off post quarters of another member of his/her unit or in the quarters of immediate family members residing in the area.
</P>
<P>Family members will be considered sponsors for paragraph (b) (2) thru (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A unit member who resides off post may sponsor a maximum of one unit member who resides in billets, BEQ or BOQ for storage of privately owned weapons.
</P>
<P>(3) Request to store weapons off post must be submitted in writing to the unit commander, indicating the name, exact address and phone number of the proposed unit sponsor. Request must be accompanied by a written authorization from the sponsor to store the weapons, and a copy of HFL 816. Request must be kept on file in the unit arms room until legal disposition of the weapon is presented to the unit commander.
</P>
<P>(4) Civilians (except for immediate family residing in the area) and military dependents will not be considered as sponsors to store privately owned weapons for military members.
</P>
<P>(5) Unit commanders have the responsibility to verify the off post location for off post storage requests and ensure that military members comply with both local and state laws governing possession and use of privately owned weapons.
</P>
<P>(d) Weapons stored in unit arms rooms may be issued to registered owners only for authorized hunting or participation in authorized target practices or matches. Request for issue of a privately owned weapon from the arms room must be in writing indicating the inclusive dates and times, reasons and serial number of weapon for issue. Weapons stored in the unit arms rooms may not be issued to anyone other than the registered owner.
</P>
<P>(e) Properly registered privately owned weapons may be kept at the owners assigned government family quarters if approved in writing by the unit commander. One copy of the completed HFL Form 816 will be maintained on file in the unit arms room. Intra-post transfer rules as stated in paragraph (a) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(f) Privately owned weapons with a maximum of 100 rounds of ammunition (per weapon) may be stored in the unit arms room. Weapons and ammunition will be stored separately. The owner of a privately owned weapon will be issued a hand receipt when the weapon and/or ammunition is turned in to the arms room. The owner will return the hand receipt when the weapon and/or ammunition is removed from the arms room for any reason.
</P>
<P>(g) Weapons cancellation and installation clearance will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Commander will ensure that privately owned weapons registered with Weapons Registration Section are de-registered during the outprocessing or when legally disposed of.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who register a privately owned weapon and legally dispose of the weapon while it is still registered will surrender the registration certificate to the Weapons Registration Section at the time of disposal along with appropriate disposition documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.120" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.120   Possession and control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Possession of weapons on the post by civilians is prohibited with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) Engaged in authorized hunting. 
</P>
<P>(2) Engaged in authorized target practice. 
</P>
<P>(3) Engaged in authorized and organized shooting matches. 
</P>
<P>(b) Request for authorization for these exceptions will be submitted in writing to the Commanding General, I Corps and Fort Lewis. Prior coordination for the use of ranges will be made through the Range Control Officer or Range Scheduling. Civilians who fail to comply with this regulation are subject to charges of Trespassing, Unlawful Discharge of a Firearm, and other criminal offenses as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(c) Military or civilian personnel are not authorized to bring personal weapons into field training sites. 
</P>
<P>(d) Carrying of concealed privately owned weapons by either military or civilian personnel is prohibited while on the Fort Lewis Military Reservation regardless of whether a state or county permit has been obtained. For the purpose of this regulation, a concealed weapon is any instrument used or designed to be used in an offensive or defensive manner which is carried in such a way as to be hidden from ordinary view. Folding knives with a blade of three inches or less are specifically excluded from this definition. Request to carry concealed weapons will be submitted in writing, with full what and why justification, to the Commanding General, I Corps and Fort Lewis, through appropriate channels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.121" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.121   Possession or retention of prohibited weapons.</HEAD>
<P>Prohibited weapons are defined as: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any instrument or weapon of the kind usually known as a sling shot, sand club, metal knuckles, spring blade knife, or any knife from which the blade is automatically released by a spring mechanism or other mechanism or other mechanical device, or any knife having a blade which opens, falls, or is effected into position by force of gravity or an outward thrust or centrifugal movement, or any knife with a blade with a length in excess of three inches. This does not include knives designed for and used during hunting and fishing activities. However, such knives may only be carried while participating in those activities. The possession of knives kept in quarters and designed for the use in the preparation of food is authorized. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any incendiary devices, military ammunition and/or explosives. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any weapons not legally obtained. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any instrument commonly used in the practice of martial arts, for example, a nunchaku, except during the legitimate martial arts training. If martial arts use is authorized, storage of these instruments during nontraining periods will be in a location other than the arms room, as designed by the unit commander for soldiers residing in troop billets, BEQ or BOQ. Martial arts instruments may be stored in assigned government family quarters during nontraining periods. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any weapons on which the name of the manufacturer, serial number of identification have been changed, altered, removed or obliterated unless done for legitimate repair or part replacement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.122" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.122   Personnel not authorized to possess or retain personal weapons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Possession, retention or storage of personal weapons or ammunition by person(s) described below is prohibited: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who has been convicted in any court of a crime of violence. For the purpose of this regulation, a crime of violence is one in which the use of force or threat of force is an element. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who is a fugitive from justice. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who has been convicted in any court of the possession, use, or sale of marijuana, dangerous or narcotic drugs. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any person who is presently declared as mentally incompetent or who is presently committed to any mental institution. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any civilian, or other than a military family member or a law enforcement officer authorized to carry the weapon under state or federal law, while on Fort Lewis or a sub-installation, except while hunting or engaged in authorized target practice or an organized match, unless specifically authorized in writing by the Commanding General, I Corps and Fort Lewis. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person under the age of eighteen is prohibited from the use of firearms unless accompanied and supervised by a parent or legal guardian. 
</P>
<P>(c) Delivery of a personal handgun to persons known to be under the age of twenty-one, persons known to have been convicted of a crime or violence, persons known to be a drug abuser or under the influence of drugs, persons known to be an alcoholic or currently under the influence of alcohol or a person known to be of unsound mind, is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.123" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.123   Storage of personal weapons other than firearms or handguns.</HEAD>
<P>Privately owned weapons, such as knives, swords, air guns, BB guns, cross bows, pellet guns, bow and arrows, of personnel residing the unit billets will be stored in a separate locked container, within a secured storage area designated for this purpose by the unit commander, in a location other than the unit arms room.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.124" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.124   Transportation of privately owned weapons and ammunition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Privately owned firearms and ammunition will be transported in the following manner: 
</P>
<P>(1) Weapons, other than weapons being transported into Fort Lewis for the first time, may be carried in vehicles only when traveling to and from an authorized hunting area during hunting seasons or enroute to or from authorized target practice and matches. 
</P>
<P>(2) The carrying of loaded privately owned weapons in a vehicle is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(3) Privately owned weapons carried in a vehicle will be secured in the trunk or encased and carried in such a manner that they will not be readily available to the driver or passenger. 
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel who remove privately owned weapons from Fort Lewis or sub-installations will comply with applicable Federal, state, and local laws pertaining to the ownership, possession and/or registration of weapons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.125" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.9.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.125   Disposition of confiscated weapons.</HEAD>
<P>Commanders will maintain confiscated weapons in the unit arms room pending final disposition. They will provide written notification of the circumstances or loss or recovery of such weapons and a complete and accurate description of the weapon to Commander, I Corps and Fort Lewis, ATTN: AFZH-PMS-P, Fort Lewis, WA 98433-5000. A copy of this notification will be maintained with the weapon pending final disposition.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Control of Firearms, Ammunition and Other Dangerous Weapons on Fort Gordon</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 37130, Aug. 2, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.126" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.126   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ammunition.</I> Projectiles together with their fuses, propelling charges, and primers that are designed to be expelled from a firearm. This includes any type of military and commercial ammunition (ball, trace, incendiary, blank, shotgun, black powder, and shot). Items shall only be considered as ammunition when loaded into a cartridge with its bullet and primer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pellet and BB Guns.</I> Any type rifle, pistol, or other instrument designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to expel BBs or pellets by springs, compressed air, CO<E T="52">2</E>, or any other compressed gas cartridge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dangerous Instruments.</I> Any device which is designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to be used as an offensive or defensive weapon. Devices of this type include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) “Constant companion” or any similar weapon, designed or redesigned, made, or remade modified or remodified to be worn as a belt buckle, brass knuckles, “Knucklers,” and “Knucks.”
</P>
<P>(2) Studded or spiked wrist bands, or any device designed or redesigned, made or remade, modified or remodified to fit over the hand or wrist which can be used to cause grave bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(3) Blackjacks, slapjacks, slappers, saps, including homemade substitutes, other bludgeons (with or without handles), and metal pipes.
</P>
<P>(4) “Nanchaku” (num-chucks), two or more sticks connected by rope, cord, or chain and normally used as a martial arts weapon. “Shuriken”, a disc or any geometrical object designed to be thrown as a weapon. “Manrikiqusari” or “Kusari,” a rope or cord joined to a weight at each end and designed to be used as a weapon. “Sai” fighting forks or other similar weapons.
</P>
<P>(5) Any finger ring with blades or sharp objects that are capable of being projected/extended from the surface of the ring.
</P>
<P>(6) Any device capable and primarily intended for discharging darts or needles.
</P>
<P>(7) All firearms.
</P>
<P>(8) Slingshots (not including small slingshots made for use by children), other missile throwing devices, or any other instrument designed to produce bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explosive, incendiary, and pyrotechnic devices.</I> Any type of military or commercial explosive, incendiary, gas or smoke bomb, grenade, rocket, missile, mine, blasting cap, “dummy” and/or practice device such as simulators, and other similar detonating devices which are capable of being altered to contain a live charge, and pyrotechnic devices such as firecrackers, cherry bombs, bottlerockets, and starclusters.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Firearms.</I> (1) A shotgun having a barrel or barrels of less than 18 inches in length.
</P>
<P>(2) A weapon made from a shotgun, if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches or a barrel or barrels of less than 18 inches in length.
</P>
<P>(3) A rifle having a barrel or barrels of less than 16 inches in length.
</P>
<P>(4) A weapon made from a rifle if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches or a barrel or barrels of less than 16 inches in length.
</P>
<P>(5) A machine gun.
</P>
<P>(6) A muffler or a silencer for any firearm whether or not such firearm is included within this definition. The term shall not include an antique firearm or any device (other than a machine gun) which, although designed as a weapon, by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon. For purpose of this definition, the length of the barrel on a shotgun or rifle shall be determined by measuring the distance between the muzzle and the face of the bolt, breech, or breechlock when closed and when the shotgun or rifle is cocked. The overall length of a weapon made from a shotgun or rifle is the distance between the extreme ends of the weapon measured along a line parallel to the center line of the bore.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Knives, sabers, swords, and machetes.</I> Any instrument having a sharp blade which is fastened to a handle, or made with a handle. Measurement of the blade will be from the tip of the blade to the point where the blade meets the handle. This includes folding knives, switchblades, gravity knives, stilettos, lock blade knives, swords, sabers, and machetes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Machine gun and automatic weapon.</I> Any weapon which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot automatically more than one shot without manual reloading, by a single function of the trigger. The term shall also include the frame or receiver of any such weapon, any part designed and intended solely and exclusively, or combination of parts designed and intended, for use in converting a weapon into a machine gun, and any combination of parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pistol.</I> A weapon originally designed, made, and intended to fire a projectile (bullet) from one or more barrels when held in one hand, and having:
</P>
<P>(1) A chamber(s) as an integral part(s) of, or permanently aligned with, the bore(s).
</P>
<P>(2) A short stock designed to be gripped by one hand and at an angle to and extending below the line of the bore(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Public gathering.</I> Shall include, but shall not be limited to, athletic or sporting events, schools or school functions, churches or church functions, rallies, or establishments at which alcoholic beverages are sold for consumption on the premises.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Revolver.</I> A projectile weapon, of the pistol type, having a breechloading chambered cylinder so arranged that the cocking of the hammer or movement of the trigger rotates it and brings the next cartridge in line with the barrel for firing.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Rifle.</I> A weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder. Also, designed or redesigned and made or remade to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed cartridge to fire only a single projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger, and shall include any such weapon which may be readily restored to fire a fixed cartridge. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Shotgun.</I> A weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder; and designed or redesigned, made or remade, to use the energy or the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of projecting (ball shot) or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger and shall include any such weapon which may be readily restored to fire a fixed shotgun shell.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Silencer.</I> Any device for silencing, muffling, or diminishing the report of a portable firearm, including any combination of parts, designed or redesigned, and intended for the use in assembling or fabricating a firearm silencer or firearm muffler, and any part intended only for use in such assembly or fabrication.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Weapon.</I> An instrument used in an offensive or defensive manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.127" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.127   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited items.</I> It is prohibited to possess, carry, conceal, transport, store, transfer or sell any of the following weapons or devices, on, through, or within the confines of Fort Gordon unless specifically allowed elsewhere in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Sawed-off shotgun.
</P>
<P>(2) Sawed-off rifle.
</P>
<P>(3) Machine gun and automatic weapons.
</P>
<P>(4) Silencers.
</P>
<P>(5) Dangerous instruments as defined in § 552.126(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Explosives, Incendiary and Pyrotechnic Devices, as defined in § 552.126(d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Knives with automatic blade openers (<I>i.e.</I>, switch blades, gravity knives, stilettos) of any blade length. Folding or fixed bladed knives with a blade length of more than 3 inches. Swords, sabers, and machetes with sharpened blades.
</P>
<P>(8) Any object which carries an electrical current of sufficient wattage to deliver a shock to a person, such as cattle prods, stun guns, “taser” or “public defenders.”
</P>
<P>(9) Umbrellas, canes, or walking sticks with sharpened points or removable handles which convert into a sword type instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Carrying a concealed weapon.</I> A person commits the offense of carrying a concealed weapon when he/she knowingly has or carries about his/her person, unless in an open manner and fully exposed to view, any bludgeon, metal knuckles, firearm, or knife designed for the purpose of offense and/or defense, or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character outside of his/her home or place of business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Carrying deadly weapons to or at public gatherings.</I> A person commits an offense under this section when he/she carries to, or possesses while at, a public gathering any explosive compound, firearm, or knife designed for the purpose of offense and/or defense. This paragraph shall not apply to necessary equipment for military personnel in a formation when a weapon is required, or to police/security personnel while in performance of their duties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited possession and storage.</I> It is prohibited to possess or store ammunition, firearms, knives with blades more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, crossbows, and BB and pellet guns, in locations other than those specified in § 552.128 except under conditions specified in § 552.129. Prohibited locations for these items include, but are not limited to, living spaces and common areas of billets, squad rooms, privately-owned vehicles, exterior storage sheds, camper trailers, and offices. Commanders will designate an arms room and times for weapons turn-in. During periods when arms rooms are closed, the Staff Duty Officer (SDO) will ensure the weapon is secured in accordance with (IAW) this subpart. A receipt will be given for each weapon received, reflecting the weapon's make, serial number, identity of owner and other data deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Carrying of straight razors, unless the razor is in the original sealed package, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemptions.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall prohibit:
</P>
<P>(1) Military members or DOD civilian employees from possessing or using military weapons, military ammunition or explosives, or military devices in a lawful manner while in the performance of their military duties while acting under orders of superior military authority, for training, or other authorized purposes, as prescribed by applicable Army Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Military and DOD civilian personnel, while in the performance of official law enforcement duties, from possessing or using government ammunition, explosives or devices in a lawful manner, as prescribed by applicable laws or regulations or by their lawful superiors.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal, state, county or local law enforcement personnel, while in the performance of official law enforcement duties, from possessing or using government or privately-owned weapons, ammunition, explosives or devices in a lawful manner, as prescribed by applicable laws or regulations or by their lawful superiors. 
</P>
<P>(4) Government contractors, while in performance of their contract from possessing or using weapons, ammunition, explosives or devices, IAW the provisions of their contract and as determined by the contracting officer.
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals with Federal firearms licenses (class III) from possessing, carrying, and transporting class III weapons IAW Federal regulations; however, they are prohibited from concealing, storing, transferring, or selling class III weapons within the confines of Fort Gordon.
</P>
<P>(6) Individuals from possessing, carrying, transporting, or storing decorative, ornamental, and ceremonial swords and sabers within the confines of Fort Gordon when used strictly for display and ceremonies.
</P>
<P>(7) Individuals and agencies from possessing, transporting, storing, selling, or using fixed bladed knives with a blade length of more than 3 inches when used for their lawful purpose (<I>i.e.</I>, steak knives, cooking knives, hunting knives) and when in compliance with all other requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) Flares used for emergency warning devices in automobiles may be transported in the locked trunk or glove compartment of an automobile.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.128" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.128   Requirements for possession and use.</HEAD>
<P>All persons entering or otherwise on Fort Gordon may possess legally-defined and privately-owned firearms, ammunition, pellet and BB guns, knives, bows and arrows, and crossbows under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Privately-owned firearms, crossbows, pellet and BB guns possessed or stored on the installation must be registered at the Installation's Provost Marshal Office within 3 working days after arrival on the installation, or after obtaining the weapon, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Firearms legally brought onto the installation for the purpose of hunting or firing at an approved firing range, and only for the period of time the person possessing the firearms is hunting or firing on the range.
</P>
<P>(2) Firearms carried by federal, state, county, or local law enforcement personnel when in the performance of official law enforcement duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel residing in family housing, bachelor officers' quarters/bachelor enlisted quarters/visiting officer quarters (BOQ/BEQ/VOQ) and guest housing, may store legally-acquired, authorized ammunition, knives with a blade measuring more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, registered crossbows, registered pellet and BB guns, and registered firearms within their quarters.
</P>
<P>(c) Personnel residing in troop billets may store legally-acquired authorized ammunition, knives and blades measuring more than 3 inches, bows and arrows, registered crossbows, registered pellet and BB guns and registered firearms in unit arms rooms. The unit arms room should utilize a standard weapons card and log book to document storage, removal, and return.
</P>
<P>(d) Persons 17 or under must be accompanied by a person over the age of 21, who will be responsible for compliance with the requirements of this subpart while hunting or target shooting on the installation and when purchasing legal arms (including knives with blades over 3 inches) and ammunition from installation retail outlets.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons must be in compliance with federal and state laws regarding possession (<I>i.e.</I>, age, criminal record restrictions, etc.).
</P>
<P>(f) Storage, accountability, and registration procedures will be in accordance with (IAW) Army Regulation (AR) 190-11 (Physical Security of Arms, Ammunition and Explosives) and supplements. Copies of the AR may be obtained from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.
</P>
<P>(g) Loss or theft of firearms and ammunition will be reported to the Fort Gordon military police desk sergeant immediately. Reports will contain all available details of the incident and a description of the lost item.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.129" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.129   Requirements for carrying and use.</HEAD>
<P>Persons legally authorized to possess firearms, ammunition, knives (with blades longer than 3 inches), bows and arrows, and crossbows, may carry or transport legally possessed and registered (if required) weapons under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of hunting: From quarters, on or off the installation, by the most direct route to hunting area and return. Stopping at other installation facilities while en route is prohibited (<I>i.e.</I>, post exchange, club, offices, etc.). Individual must have in his/her possession weapon registration (if applicable), valid state hunting license, valid Fort Gordon hunting permit and an area access pass (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of target shooting, selling the weapon or having the weapon repaired: From quarters by the most direct route to approved range or to the location where the weapon is to be sold or repaired and returned. Stopping at other installation facilities while en route is prohibited. Individual must have in his/her possession at all times his/her registration (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(1) When carried, weapons will be carried in an open manner (not concealed). Firearms will be unloaded when carried (<I>i.e.</I>, projectiles physically separated from the firearms, not just removed from the chamber), except when actually engaged in hunting or shooting. Knives will be carried in a sheath or scabbard worn in a clearly visible manner. Commanders may authorize the carrying of a privately-owned, knife with a blade over 3 inches to field duty. The provost marshal may authorize the carrying of a privately-owned, sheathed, lock blade knife on military and DOD police officers' pistol belts.
</P>
<P>(2) When transported in a vehicle, weapons will be in plain view in the passenger area of the vehicle or secured (locked) in the trunk or other rear compartment of the vehicle, not readily accessible from the passenger area (<I>i.e.</I>, locked tool box secured to bed of a truck). Firearms will be unloaded and the ammunition physically separated from the firearms. THE GLOVE COMPARTMENT OF A VEHICLE IS NOT AN AUTHORIZED COMPARTMENT FOR STORING PISTOLS.
</P>
<P>(3) Firearms, bows and arrows, crossbows, pellet and BB guns will not be loaded, fired, or used within any housing area or cantonment area of the installation; within 50 yards of any public highway, street or Fort Gordon named street or numbered road, or across same; within 100 yards of any designated recreation area, managed waters, building or similar structures; any aircraft landing facility; any ammunition storage area (except on approved firing ranges when properly authorized); be discharged from vehicles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.130" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.10.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.130   Disposition of confiscated/seized weapons.</HEAD>
<P>All weapons, ammunition, explosives, or other devices defined in this subpart, that are confiscated pursuant to the commission of a crime or violation of this subpart or other regulation or found unsecured/unattended on the installation, will be immediately turned over to the military police, U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC), or the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for investigation, retention as evidence, or other law disposition. When retention for investigation or evidence is no longer required by military police, USACIDC, or other law enforcement or judicial agencies, the items will be disposed of under the provisions of AR 195-5, Evidence Procedures. Copies of the AR may be obtained from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Prohibited Personnel Practices on the Installation of Fort Jackson, South Carolina</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S. Code, Ch. 47, 21 U.S. Code 801, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 31144, June 17, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.150" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.150   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is punitive in nature and applies to all persons assigned to, attached to, or present on the installation of Fort Jackson, South Carolina. A violation of, attempted violation of, or solicitation or conspiracy to violate any provision of this part provides the basis for criminal prosecution under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, applicable Federal Law, other regulations, and/or adverse administrative action. Civilian visitors may be barred from the installation of Fort Jackson and prosecuted under appropriate Federal laws. The enumeration of prohibited activities in this part is not intended to preclude prosecution under other provisions of law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.151" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.151   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not list all activities or practices prohibited on the installation of Fort Jackson, South Carolina. Various other Army and Fort Jackson regulations specifically prohibit other activities or practices. See appendix A to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.152" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.152   Prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>The following activities are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(a) The possession, delivery, sale, transfer, or introduction into the installation of Fort Jackson of any device, instrument or paraphernalia designed or reasonably intended for use in introducing into the human body a controlled substance, as defined in the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 801, <I>et seq.,</I> is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless an exception is approved by the Chief of Staff or a Major Subordinate Commander for a special occasion, consumption of alcoholic beverages, or the possession of an open container thereof, is prohibited under the circumstances listed in this section. For the purpose of this part, an “alcoholic beverage” is any liquid beverage containing any amount of ethyl alcohol, including wines, malt beverages and distilled spirits.
</P>
<P>(1) By military personnel in uniform during duty hours (0730-1630).
</P>
<P>(2) By military personnel during their assigned duty hours when different than those in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) By civilian employees during their assigned duty hours. Lunch time is not considered duty time for civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(4) By civilian or military personnel in places of duty.
</P>
<P>(5) By any person in a public place, except: in the Twin Lakes and Weston Lake Recreational Areas, in the immediate vicinity of Oyster Point (Officers' Club), at installation club facilities governed by section II of AR 215-2, and at Army/Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) eating establishments which serve alcoholic beverages for on-premises consumption.
</P>
<P>(6) By any person in any Fort Jackson parking lot or parking area, to include the Burger King parking lot and all parking lots of AAFES facilities and installation club facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The presence of any person in a training area or of any permanent party soldier or civilian employee in a trainee/receptee billeting area while impaired by alcoholic beverages or illegal drugs is prohibited. For the purpose of this part, “Impaired by alcoholic beverages” for military personnel is defined as having a blood alcohol level of .05 percent (.05 is equivalent to 55 milligrams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood) or more.
</P>
<P>(d) Privately Owned Firearms and Ammunition. For the purpose of this part, a “firearm” means any device which is designed to or readily may be converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive. Air/pellet guns, BB guns and bows are subject to all of the provisions of this paragraph except paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) It is prohibited for persons residing on the installation to fail to register privately owned firearms with their unit commander.
</P>
<P>(2) Storage of privately owned firearms in the barracks is prohibited. For the purposes of this part, “barracks” does not include BOQs or SBEQs.
</P>
<P>(3) It is prohibited to store privately owned firearms in BOQs, SBEQs, or family quarters unless the firearm is unloaded, ammunition is stored separately from the firearm in a locked container, and one of the following methods for firearms storage is employed: by using a trigger locking device, by storing the firearm in a locked container, by removing the firing pin from the firearm and storing the firing pin in a locked container, or by disassembling the firearm and storing the disassembled parts in separate places. For the purposes of this part a “locked container” and a “locking device” mean locked containers and locking devices the keys to which are stored in a place not assessable to persons under 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(4) It is prohibited to carry on one's person any privately owned firearm in a public place on the installation of Fort Jackson unless participating in an authorized sporting activity or hunting in accordance with applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, a person under 18 years of age is prohibited from carrying on his or her person a firearm outside the presence of a responsible adult.
</P>
<P>(6) Carrying a concealed firearm on one's person, except by military, state and Federal law enforcement authorities in the performance of their duties, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(7) It is prohibited to transport in a vehicle any privately owned firearm except in a manner prescribed by the laws of South Carolina.
</P>
<P>(8) It is prohibited to carry on one's person or transport in a vehicle any privately owned firearm within the Weston Lakes and Twin Lakes Recreation areas.
</P>
<P>(e) Weapons Other Than Privately Owned Firearms. The possession of the following privately owned weapons or devices is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Any knife having a switchblade or automatic blade.
</P>
<P>(2) Brass knuckles or similar devices.
</P>
<P>(3) Blackjacks, saps, nunchaku and similar devices. As exceptions, nunchucks may be possessed for bona fide educational instruction or competition in a recognized martial arts program and may be carried and transported directly to and from educational and competitive martial arts events.
</P>
<P>(4) When carried on one's person in an unconcealed manner, knives with blades in excess of three inches in length except while engaged in authorized hunting, fishing, camping or other outdoor recreational activities, or when required by duty purposes.
</P>
<P>(5) When carried on one's person in a concealed manner, knives with blades in excess of three inches, razors and ice picks.
</P>
<P>(f) The charging of a usurious interest rate, defined as a rate exceeding thirty-six (36) percent per annum or three (3) percent per month, for the loan of money or for the extension of credit, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(g) Sexual intercourse or any indecent, lewd or lascivious act in any office, barracks, training area, duty location, parking lot, public recreation area or public place is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(h) Relationships between service members of different rank or sex which involve or reasonably give the appearance of partiality, preferential treatment, the improper use of rank or position for any personal gain, or which can otherwise be reasonably expected to undermine discipline, authority or morale, are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(i) Being present in any “off-limits” or “limited access” areas, except as authorized in Fort Jackson Regulation 190-3, is prohibited (See appendix A to this subpart).
</P>
<P>(j) Use of a metal detector for other than official purposes is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(k) When directed to do so by the Military Police, failure to relinquish possession or control to the Military Police of abandoned property found on the installation is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(l) Scavenging in or removal of waste items or recyclable materials from dumpsters, garbage cans, outdoor trash receptacles, recycling collection points, or landfill areas is prohibited, except for official purposes. This part does not prohibit persons from collecting and disposing of scattered litter, including aluminum cans, from roadsides, parking lots and recreation areas.
</P>
<P>(m) It is prohibited for military personnel to engage in outside employment of any nature, including ownership or operation of a private business, without the prior written approval of their commander. Soldiers reassigned or reattached from one Fort Jackson unit to another Fort Jackson unit must obtain approval for continued employment from the gaining commander within 30 days of reassignment.
</P>
<P>(n) Except as authorized by the Installation Commander, Chief of Staff or a Major Subordinate Commander, the use of radios, stereos, tape players, compact disk players or any other similar electronic sound generating or amplification source, including equipment installed or located in motor vehicles, in a manner that can be heard more than 125 feet from the source, is prohibited. This paragraph does not apply to law enforcement or emergency vehicles, or safety warning devices.
</P>
<P>(o) Loitering in any public place on Fort Jackson, to include all parking lots, is prohibited. Loitering is defined as remaining idle in essentially one location, spending time idly, loafing, or walking around without a purpose in a public place in such a manner as to create a disturbance or annoyance to the comfort of any person, create a danger of a breach of the peace, obstruct or interfere with any person lawfully in any public place, or obstruct or hinder the free passage of vehicles or pedestrians. Any person loitering as defined above in any public place may be ordered by a law enforcement officer to leave that place or the Fort Jackson military reservation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.153" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.153   Dissemination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unit commanders and supervisors shall ensure that newly assigned or attached military and civilian personnel are informed of the prohibitions contained in this regulation. Soldiers-in-training will be informed of the provisions of this regulation at the beginning of each training cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) All permanent party personnel and civilian employees will be reminded annually of their duty to comply with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.12.11.5.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart L of Part 552—Partial List of Other Publications Applicable on Fort Jackson Which List Prohibited Practices
</HEAD>
<P>These publications are available for inspection at the Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, Fort Jackson, SC 29207-5000.
</P>
<P>1. Distribution of Written Materials on the Installation—Fort Jackson Supplement 1 to AR 210-10.
</P>
<P>2. Demonstrations, Pickets, Sit-ins, etc.—Fort Jackson Supplement 1 to AR 210-10.
</P>
<P>3. Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch, 5 Code of Federal Regulations, part 2635.
</P>
<P>4. Improper Associations—Fort Jackson Regulation 600-5.
</P>
<P>5. Mistreatment of Soldiers-in-Training—Fort Jackson Regulation 350-1.
</P>
<P>6. Participation in Military Labor Unions—Army Regulation 600-20.
</P>
<P>7. Traffic Violations—Fort Jackson Regulation 190-5.
</P>
<P>8. Areas of Access—Fort Jackson Regulation 190-3.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Land Use Policy for Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center, and Camp Bonneville</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>16 U.S.C. 470, 1531-1543; 18 U.S.C. 1382; 50 U.S.C. 797.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 34762, July 7, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.160" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.160   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes procedures for entry to maneuver training areas at Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center (YTC), and Camp Bonneville. Procedures for other sub-installations to Fort Lewis will be developed by the Commanders of those installations.
</P>
<P>(b) Uninterrupted military use of training areas is vital to the maintenance of US and Allied Armed Forces combat readiness. In addition, maneuver training areas may be dangerous to persons entering without warnings provided during training scheduling or use permit processing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.161" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.161   References.</HEAD>
<P>See appendix E to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.162" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.162   Abbreviations.</HEAD>
<P>See appendix F to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.163" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.163   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is applicable to all military and civilian users of the range complexes at Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center, and Camp Bonneville.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart governs all use of the Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center and Camp Bonneville Military Reservations outside cantonment areas, housing areas, and recreational sites controlled by the Director of Personnel and Community Activities (DPCA). These areas are designated on the Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center and Camp Bonneville Military Installation Maps as Impact Areas and lettered or numbered Training Areas (TAs), and comprise the range complexes for each Installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.164" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.164   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military training. Use of the Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center, and Camp Bonneville range complexes for military training is governed by FL Regs 350-30, 350-31, and 350-32. Scheduling is per FL Policy Statement 350-2. Military training always has priority.
</P>
<P>(b) Hunting. Hunting, fishing, and trapping on the range complexes are governed by FL Reg 215-1 and the Yakima Training Center Hunting Letter of Intent (LOI).
</P>
<P>(c) Fund raising. Fund raising events for non-profit private organizations not affiliated with the Army or Fort Lewis per AR 210-1 require a Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement. Requests for fund-raisers by such non-profit organizations, to be conducted on the Fort Lewis range complex, will be sent to the Director of Plans, Training, and Mobilization (DPTM) Range Division of preparation of a DPTM staffing document. The document will be circulated for comment to Director of Personnel and Community Activities (DPCA), Staff Judge Advocate (SJA), Public Affairs Officer (PAO), and Director of Engineering and Housing (DEH). If the event can be supported, DPTM will advise the organization to contact the Director of Engineering and Housing Real Property Branch. Requests for such activities at Yakima Training Center will be sent to the Yakima Training Center Commander for review and processing. For Camp Bonneville, the entry point is the Vancouver Barracks Commander. Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreements require up to 8 months to process, and includes payment of a $375.00 minimum administrative fee, with actual costs determined on a case by case basis. Requests for fundraisers in the cantonment area by private organizations are processed per AR 210-1 by the Director of Personnel and Community Activities (DPCA).
</P>
<P>(d) Commercial use. Individuals or organizations using the range complex for profit-generating activities must possess a Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement. As stated above, these agreements require up to 8 months to process and include a minimum administrative fee of $375.00, with actual costs determined on a case by case basis. Entry point for these agreements is the DEH Real Property Branch. Profit-generating activities include collection of fees for services performed on the range complex, or selling materials collected from the range complex. Real Estate Agreement holders must check into the range complex daily by calling or coming to Area Access.
</P>
<P>(e) Installation service and maintenance. Department of Defense (DoD) and contractor personnel on official business are authorized on the range complex per appendix C to this subpart. Access to hazard areas for such personnel is governed by the appropriate Installation Range Regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Non-DoD personnel in transit. Individuals in transit across Fort Lewis on State or County maintained roads, or roads designated for public access by the Installation Commander, require no special permits. See appendix B to this subpart. This measure does not apply at Yakima Training Center or Camp Bonneville.
</P>
<P>(g) Alcoholic Beverages. No alcoholic beverages may be consumed on the range complexes except as authorized per FL Reg 210-1.
</P>
<P>(h) Failure to comply. Persons entering the Fort Lewis, Yakima Training Center, or Camp Bonneville range complex without permit or scheduling, which constitute the consent of the Commanding Officer or his designated representative, are in violation of this regulation and trespassing on a controlled access Federal Reservation. Offenders may be cited by Military Police and may be subjected to administrative action or punishment under either the Uniform Code of Military Justice UCMJ) or Title 18 US Code Section 1382, or Title 50 U.S. Code Section 797, as appropriate to each individual's status. Administrative action may include suspension or loss of recreational privileges, or permanent expulsion from the Military Reservations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.165" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.165   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commander, Yakima Training Center:
</P>
<P>(1) Schedule the Yakima Training Center range complex per FL Reg 350-31 and FL PS 350-2.
</P>
<P>(2) Process requests for non-military, non-commercial use per § 552.166. 
</P>
<P>(b) Commander, Vancouver Barracks:
</P>
<P>(1) Schedule the Camp Bonneville range complex per FL Reg 350-32 and FL PS 350-2. 
</P>
<P>(2) Process requests for non-military, non-commercial use per Paragraph 6c. 
</P>
<P>(c) Fort Lewis DPTM. 
</P>
<P>(1) Schedule the Fort Lewis range complex per FL Reg 350-30 and FL PS 350-2, including allocation of and for recreational use.
</P>
<P>(2) Operate the Fort Lewis Area Access Section.
</P>
<P>(3) Respond to DEH coordination on timber sales and other commercial use of the range complex.
</P>
<P>(d) Law Enforcement Agency (LEC). Provide law enforcement and game warden patrols on the range complexes.
</P>
<P>(e) Director of Engineering and Housing (DEH).
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate with DPTM and the appropriate Sub-Installation Commander on Real Estate Agreements, timber sales, wildlife management, construction, forest management, Installation Training Area Management (ITAM), and other DEH or Corps of Engineers managed actions occurring on the range complex
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that Real Estate Agreement holders are required to notify Fort Lewis Area Access, YTC DPCA, or Camp Bonneville Range Control, as appropriate, of range complex entry.
</P>
<P>(f) DPCA. With DEH, manage Installation hunting, fishing, and trapping programs. Manage picnic and recreation sites located in the Fort Lewis range complex, as listed in appendix A to this part. Advise DPTM on private organizations requesting use of the Fort Lewis range complex for fundraisers. 
</P>
<P>(g) Public Affairs Office (PAO).
</P>
<P>(1) Act as interface to resolve community relations issues related to land use.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate equipment and special assistance requests per § 552.165, and advise DPTM or the appropriate Sub-Installation Commander if permit requirements have been waived by the Command Group for a particular event or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Inform DPTM or the appropriate Sub-Installation Commander of public response to policy execution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.166" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.166   Recreational use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Fort Lewis:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals or organizations, military or civilian, desiring access to the Fort Lewis range complex for recreation must obtain a Fort Lewis Area Access permit, composed of HFL Form 652 and HFL Form 653. Exceptions are outlined below.
</P>
<P>(2) Exception 1: DoD ID card holders enroute to or using DPCA recreational areas listed in appendix A to this subpart need no permit other than the ID card. However, travel to and from DPCA areas is restricted to the most direct paved or improved two lane roads. DoD personnel participating in non-commercial recreational activities listed in appendix C to this subpart must have an Area Access permit. 
</P>
<P>(3) Exception 2: Organizations or groups whose activity requires advanced commitment of a specific site or area, such as Scout Camporees, seasonal or one-time regional meets, and so on, must apply to the Fort Lewis DPTM, ATTN: Range Division, in writing. At least 30 days are required to process these requests. If the requested use is allowable and an appropriate area is available, DPTM may approve the request. Groups with approved land commitments will be scheduled onto the Range Complex using HFL 473. Actual commitments of land will not be made until after the Quarterly Range Scheduling Conference that covers the time period in question. Groups who need military equipment or other special support from Fort Lewis must apply in writing directly to the I Corps Public Affairs Office (PAO).
</P>
<P>(b) Yakima Training Center: Access to the Yakima Training Center range complex for recreation requires application in writing to the Commander, Yakima Training Center, Yakima WA 98901-9399. Camping is normally not permitted on Yakima Training Center. Exceptions may be granted by the Yakima Training Center Commander for special events.
</P>
<P>(c) Camp Bonneville: Access to the Camp Bonneville range complex for recreation requires a call to Range Control, telephone (206) 892-5800, the day before or the day of the activity. Access will be permitted if no military maneuver or live fire training is scheduled for the day requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.167" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.167   Activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authorized activities are listed in appendix C to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prohibited activities are listed in appendix D to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.168" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.168   Fort Lewis Area Access Office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DPTM Range Division operates the Area Access Section to issue permits and grant non-training access to the range complex. 
</P>
<P>(b) Area Access is located in Range Control, Building T-6127, 19th and Tacoma Streets, Main Post Fort Lewis. Telephone numbers are (206) 967-4686/6277. Fax extension is 967-4520. E-mail is “rangeflw.” Business hours vary dependent on personnel fill, and are available by calling the above numbers. 
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals desiring access for authorized activities must register in person at Area Access during business hours. Minimum age is 18 years, except for active duty military personnel. Persons under 18 years of age must be sponsored and accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. Individual registration requires: 
</P>
<P>(1) Picture ID. 
</P>
<P>(2) Address and telephone number. 
</P>
<P>(3) Vehicle identification and license number, if a vehicle is to be brought on post. 
</P>
<P>(4) Names and ages of minor family members who will accompany a sponsor or permit holder. 
</P>
<P>(5) Liability release signature. 
</P>
<P>(6) Certification that intended activities are on the authorized list and are not for profit or fund-raising. Persons who submit false certificates are subject to prosecution in Federal Court under Title 18, United States Code, Section 1001, and the provisions of § 552.165 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) A wallet-sized permit (HFL Form 653) and a vehicle pass (HFL Form 652) will be issued to each person authorized access. The permit is not transferable. Entry to the Fort Lewis range complex without the permit is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(e) A collective permit will be issued to an organization desiring to conduct a one-time group event not tied to a specific area or site, maximum length 3 days. The group leader must register in person at the Area Access Office and must be 21 years of age or older except for active duty military personnel. 
</P>
<P>(1) Group registration requires the information listed for individual permits above for the group leader(s), plus a list of names of all persons in the group. 
</P>
<P>(2) Group permits require that all members of the group be with the leader throughout the event. If the group plans to separate while on Fort Lewis, sub-group leaders must be appointed and must obtain separate group permits. The group leader permit is not transferable. 
</P>
<P>(3) Events requiring commitment of land must be processed per § 552.166. 
</P>
<P>(f) Aside from the land commitment coordination time requirement in § 552.166, there is no deadline for permit application. Permits for authorized activities that do not require commitment of land may be obtained on the day of the event. 
</P>
<P>(g) Group event permits for specialized one-time activities are valid for the duration of the event, not to exceed 3 days. Individuals activities permits are valid for one year. When a permit expires, the holder must re-register to renew privileges, and a new permit will be issued. 
</P>
<P>(h) Access hours are 30 minutes after daylight to 30 minutes before dark, except for authorized overnight activities and as outlined in FL Reg 215-1. 
</P>
<P>(i) All permit holders must check in with Area Access, either telephonically or in person, no earlier than 0800 the day prior to the event. It is the responsibility of each permit holder to inform a friend or relative of the area being used, the estimated time of return, and the vehicle being used. 
</P>
<P>(j) Except when land commitment has been coordinated and approved, Area Access will determine when called for entry whether the area requested is available. If the requested area is not open for permit holders and an alternate area cannot be provided or is not acceptable to the requestor, access will be denied. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.169" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.169   Yakima Training Center Area Access Office.</HEAD>
<P>The Yakima Training Center DPCA functions as the Area Access Officer (AAO). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.170" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.170   Camp Bonneville Area Access Office.</HEAD>
<P>Camp Bonneville Range Control (CBRC) functions as Area Access. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.171" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.171   Compatible use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military unit commanders may request during initial scheduling or subsequent training event coordination that no permit holders be allowed in areas they have scheduled for training. If this restriction is granted, the Installation Range Control will close appropriate areas. The following military activities are considered incompatible with non-training access and automatically close affected areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) Live-fire training events with danger zones extending into training areas. 
</P>
<P>(2) Parachute and air assault operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Field Artillery firing. The numbered training area occupied by the weapons will be closed. 
</P>
<P>(4) Training involving riot agents or smoke generating equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Installation Range Officer may also close training areas based on density of occupation by military units, unit size, or training to be conducted. 
</P>
<P>(c) Areas allocated to modern firearm deer hunting are closed to both training and other recreational activities. At Fort Lewis, when pheasant release sites can be isolated by swamps, streams, or roads from the rest of a training area, multiple use of the affected training area (TA) is authorized. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.172" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.172   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Anyone observing violators of this or other regulations must report the activity, time, and location to the appropriate Area Access Office or the Military Police (MP) as soon as possible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart M of Part 552—DPCA Recreational Areas in Training Areas
</HEAD>
<P>1. This listing applies to Fort Lewis only. There are no such facilities at Yakima Training Center or Camp Bonneville.
</P>
<P>2. For DoD member use only, no permit other than ID card required.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Use of specific sites is authorized only to military, retired military, DoD civilian personnel, their family members and accompanied guests.</P></NOTE>
<FP-2>Boat launch adjacent to Officer's Club Beach on American Lake—Beachwood area
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cat Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 19
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Chambers Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 12 (See Para 3 below)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Fiander lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 20
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Johnson Marsh—Training Area 10
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Lewis Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 16
</FP-2>
<FP-2>No Name Lake—Training Area 22
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sequalitchew Lake Picnic Area—Training Area 2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Shannon Marsh—CTA D
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Skeet Trap Range—2d Division Range Road, CTA E
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Solo Point Boat Launch—North Fort, CTA A West
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sportman's Range—East Gate Road, Range 15
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wright Marsh/Lake—CTA C
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vietnam Village Marsh—Training Area 9 and 10
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Spanaway Marsh—Training Area 9
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sears Pond—Beachwood Housing
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Nisqually River—Training Area 18
</FP-2>
<P>3. For non-DoD member use, permit required: Chambers Lake and Nisqually River for fishing only.
</P>
<P>4. The Solo Point road and the South Sanitary Fill roads are also open in an east-west direction only to personnel of the Weyerhaeuser Corporation and Lone Star Corporation, and their assigns, for business or recreation access to adjacent Army owned real estate.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart M of Part 552—Non-Permit Access Routes
</HEAD>
<P>1. This listing applies only to Fort Lewis. There are no such routes on Yakima Training Center or Camp Bonneville.
</P>
<P>2. The following public easement routes may be used without permit or check-in: I-5.
</P>
<FP-2>Steilacoom-DuPont Road (ET 286163 or ET 301229).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pacific Highway Southeast (ET 231121 to ET 249143).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Washington State Route 507 (ET 363065 to ET 428146).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Goodacre and Rice Kandle Roads (ET 386090 to ET 449076).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8th Avenue South (ET 424047 to ET 423127).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8th Avenue East (ET 439077 or ET 439128).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>208th Avenue (ET 423128 to ET 431128).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Washington State Route 510 (ET 234065 to ET 246056 and ET 260048 to ET 272022).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Yelm Highway (ET 231058 to ET 238061).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Rainier Road Southeast (ES 167999 to ES 212943).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Military Road Southeast (ES 212943 to ES 214945).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Spurgeon Creek Road (ES 177988 to ES 178999).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Stedman Road (ES 152989 to ES 167998).
</FP-2>
<P>3. The following military routes may be used without permit ot check-in:
</P>
<FP-2>Huggins Meyer Road (North Fort Road, ET 304204-ET 327215)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>East Gate Road (C-5 Mock-up to 8th Ave South, ET 423097)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Roy Cut-off (Chambers Lake) Road (East Gate Road to Roy City Limits), when open.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Lincoln Avenue (Old Madigan to ET 390179)
</FP-2>
<P>4. The Solo Point Road is open to Weyerhauser Corporation personnel for business and recreation.
</P>
<P>5. DoD personnel and Fort Lewis contractor personnel on official business may use all DEH-maintained range roads and trails in the training areas.
</P>
<P>6. Range roads closed for training by barricades or road guards will not be used. Barricades and guards will not be by-passed.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart M of Part 552—Authorized Activities for Maneuver Training Area Access
</HEAD>
<P>1. Fort Lewis:
</P>
<FP-2>Military Training (FL Reg 350-30)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEH or Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement for commercial use (AR 405-80)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Installation service and maintenance (AR 420-74, FL Reg 350-30)
</FP-2>
<P>Non-DoD personnel in transit on public-access routes (appendix B) non-commercial recreational use:
</P>
<FP-2>Hunting, fishing and trapping (FL Reg 215-1)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dog training (not allowed 1 April through 31 July in selected areas per FL Reg 215-1)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Horseback riding on roads and vehicle tracks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Walking, distance running
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Model airplane and rocket flying (Range Control scheduling and Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) required)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Model boating
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Orienteering
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sport parachuting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Organized rifle and pistol competition (Range Control scheduling required)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Scout activities and weekend camporees
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Observation of wildlife and vegetation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Non-commercial picking of ferns, mushrooms, blackberries, apples and other vegetation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Photography
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hiking
</FP-2>
<P>2. Yakima Training Center:
</P>
<FP-2>Military Training (FL Reg 350-31)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEH or Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement for commercial use (AR 405-80)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Installation service and maintenance (AR 420-74)
</FP-2>
<P>Non-Commercial recreational use:
</P>
<FP-2>Hunting, fishing and trapping (FL Reg 215-1)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dog training
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Horseback riding on roads and vehicle tracks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Walking, distance running
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Model airplane and rocket flying (Range Control scheduling and Notice to Airmen (NOTAM required)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Orienteering
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sport parachuting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Organized rifle and pistol competition (Range Control scheduling required)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Scout activities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Observation of wildlife and vegetation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Photography
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hiking
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Camping, per Paragraph 6
</FP-2>
<P>3. Camp Bonneville:
</P>
<FP-2>Military Training (FL Reg 350-32)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEH or Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement for commercial use (AR 405-80)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Installation service and maintenance (AR 420-74)
</FP-2>
<P>Non-Commercial recreational use:
</P>
<FP-2>Hunting, fishing and trapping (FL Reg 215-1)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dog training
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Horseback riding on roads and vehicle tracks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Walking, distance running
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Model boating
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Orienteering
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Organized rifle and pistol competition (Range Control scheduling required)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Scout activities and weekend camporees
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Observation of wildlife and vegetation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Non-commercial picking of ferns, mushrooms, blackberries, apples and other vegetation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Photography
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hiking
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Permit holders for the above activities must certify that they are non-commercial and not for profit.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart M of Part 552—Unauthorized Activities in Maneuver Training Areas
</HEAD>
<P>1. Fort Lewis:
</P>
<FP-2>Civilian paramilitary activities and combat games.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-pavement motorcycle riding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-road vehicle operation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hang gliding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ultralight aircraft flying.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hot air ballooning.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Souvenir hunting and metal-detecting, including recovery of ammunition residue or fragments, archaeological or cultural artifacts, or geological specimens.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vehicle speed contests.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wood cutting or brush picking, without DEH or Corps of Engineer permit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Commercial activities conducted for profit, including horseback riding rentals or guide service, dog training for reimbursement, or fund-raising events for other than non-profit organizations working in the public good. Fund raisers require DEH Real Estate Agreement. For-profit activities require Corps of Engineer leases or permits, obtained through the DEH Real Estate Office.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Overnight camping outside of DPCA sites (camping on DPCA sites is open to DoD members only, per above).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Consumption of alcoholic beverages.
</FP-2>
<P>2. Yakima Training Center:
</P>
<FP-2>Civilian paramilitary activities and combat games.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-pavement motorcycle riding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-road vehicle operation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hang gliding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ultralight aircraft flying.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hot air ballooning.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Souvenir hunting and metal-detecting, including recovery of ammunition residue or fragments, archaeological or cultural artifacts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vehicle speed contests.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Commercial activities conducted for profit, including dog training for reimbursement, or fund-raising events for other than non-profit organizations working in the public good. Fund raisers require DEH Real Estate Agreement. For-profit activities require Corps of Engineer leases or permits, obtained through the DEH Real Estate Office.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Overnight camping except where specifically permitted as part of the activity by the Commander, Yakima Training Center.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Consumption of alcoholic beverages.
</FP-2>
<P>3. Camp Bonneville:
</P>
<FP-2>Civilian paramilitary activities and combat games.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-pavement motorcycle riding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-road vehicle operation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hang gliding.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ultralight aircraft flying.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hot air ballooning.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Souvenir hunting and metal-detecting, including recovery of ammunition residue or fragments, archaeological or cultural artifacts, or geological specimens.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vehicle speed contests.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wood cutting or brush picking, without DEH or Corps of Engineer permit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Commercial activities conducted for profit, including horseback riding rentals or guide service, dog training for reimbursement, or fund-raising events for other than non-profit organizations working in the public good. Fund raisers require DEH Real Estate Agreement. For-profit activities require Corps of Engineer leases or permits, obtained through the DEH Real Estate Office.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Overnight camping.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Consumption of alcoholic beverages.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Model airplane and rocket flying.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sport parachuting.


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart M of Part 552—References
</HEAD>
<P>Army Regulations referenced in this subpart may be obtained from National Technical Information Services, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.
</P>
<P>Fort Lewis Regulations and forms referenced in this subpart may be viewed at the Office of the Staff Judge Advocate General, Fort Lewis, Washington or at the Range Office, Headquarters, I Corps and Fort Lewis.
</P>
<FP-2>AR 210-1 (Private Organizations on Department of the Army Installations), with Fort Lewis Supplement 1
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 405-70 (Utilization of Real Estate)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 405-80 (Granting Use of Real Estate)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR 420-74 (Natural Resources—Land, Forest, and Wildlife Management)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 190-11 (Physical Security of Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 210-1 (Fort Lewis Post Regulations)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 215-1 (Hunting, Fishing, and Trapping)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 250-30 (I Corps and Fort Lewis Range Regulations)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 350-31 (Yakima Training Center Range Regulations)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Reg 350-32 (Camp Bonneville Range Regulations)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Policy Statement 350-2 (Training Resource Scheduling)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HFL Form 473 (Training Resource Request)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HFL Form 652 (Range Control Vehicle Permit)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HFL Form 653 (Range Control Area Access Card)


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.13.11.14.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart M of Part 552—Abbreviations
</HEAD>
<FP-2>AAO Area Access Officer
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR Army Regulation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CBRC Camp Bonneville Range Control
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEH Director of Engineering and Housing
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DPCA Director of Personnel and Community Activities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DPTM Director of Plans, Training and Mobilization
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL Fort Lewis
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ITAM Installation Training Area Management
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LEC Law Enforcement Command
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LOI Letter of Intent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MP Military Police
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PAO Public Affairs Office
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TA Training Area
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SJA Staff Judge Advocate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UCMJ Uniform Code of Military Justice
</FP-2>
<FP-2>YTC Yakima Training Center






</FP-2>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts N-O [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Protests, Picketing, and Other Similar Demonstrations on the Installation of Aberdeen Proving Ground, Maryland</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>18 U.S.C. Sec. 1382.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 33998, June 24, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 552.211" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.211   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes policies, responsibilities, and procedures for protests, pickeing, and other similar demonstrations on the Aberdeen Proving Ground installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.212" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.212   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart apply to all elements of U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground (USAGAPG), and the supported organizations and activities on the Aberdeen and Edgewood Areas of Aberdeen Proving Ground.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this subpart cover all public displays of opinions made by protesting, picketing, or any other similar demonstration.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this subpart are applicable to all people, military and civilian employees, and all visitors, family members, or others, entering, upon or present at Aberdeen Proving Ground.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.213" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.213   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aberdeen Proving Ground is a non-public forum and is open for expensive activity only under certain circumstances. Aberdeen Proving Ground is a military installation under the exclusive federal jurisdiction at which official business of the federal government is conducted, including military training, testing of weapon systems and other military equipment, and other official business.
</P>
<P>(b) On Aberdeen Proving Ground, except for activities authorized under 5 United States Code Chapter 71, Labor Management Relations, it is unlawful for any person to engage in any public displays of opinions made by protesting, picketing or any other similar demonstration without the approval of the Commander, U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground. Therefore, unless prior approval has been obtained as outlined below in 32 CFR 552.214, it will be unlawful for any person on Aberdeen Proving Ground to:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in protests, public speeches, marches, sit-ins, or demonstrations promoting a point of view.
</P>
<P>(2) Interrupt or disturb the testing and evaluating of weapon systems, or any training, formation, ceremony, class, court-martial, hearing, or other military business.
</P>
<P>(3) Obstruct movement on any street, road, sidewalk, pathway, or other vehicle or pedestrian thoroughfare.
</P>
<P>(4) Utter to any person abusive, insulting, profane, indecent, or otherwise provocative language that by its very utterance tends to excite a breach of the peace.
</P>
<P>(5) Distribute or post publications, including pamphlets, newspapers, magazines, handbills, flyers, leaflets, and other printed materials, except through regularly established and approved distribution outlets and places.
</P>
<P>(6) Circulate petitions or engage in picketing or similar demonstrations for any purpose.
</P>
<P>(7) Engage in partisan political campaigning or electioneering.
</P>
<P>(8) Disobey a request from Department of Defense police, other government law enforcement officials (e.g., Federal, State, or local law enforcement officials), military police, or other competent authority to disperse, move along or leave the installation.
</P>
<P>(c) In appropriate cases, the Commander, U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground may give express written permission for protests, picketing, or any other similar demonstrations on Aberdeen Proving Ground property outside the gates adjacent to the installation borders, only if the procedures outlined below in 32 CFR 552.214 are followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.214" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.214   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or persons desiring to protest, picket, or engage in any other similar demonstrations on Aberdeen Proving Ground must submit a written request to the Commander, U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground, ATTN: STEAP-CO, 2201 Aberdeen Boulevard, Aberdeen Proving Ground, Maryland 21005-5001. The request must be received at least 30 calendar days prior to the demonstration, and it must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the sponsoring person or organization. (If it is an organization, include the name of the point of contact.)
</P>
<P>(2) Purpose of the event.
</P>
<P>(3) Number of personnel expected to attend.
</P>
<P>(4) Proposed date, time, location and duration of the event.
</P>
<P>(5) Proposed means of transportation to and from APG.
</P>
<P>(6) Proposed means of providing security, sanitary services and related ancillary services to the participants.
</P>
<P>(b) Based on the Commander's concerns for discipline, mission accomplishment, protection of property, and the safeguarding of the health, morale, and welfare of the APG community, the Commander will determine whether to grant the request and, if granted, any limitations as to where and when it will take place.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.215" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.215   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Director, Law Enforcement and Security, U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground, will furnish police support as needed.
</P>
<P>(b) Chief Counsel and Staff Judge Advocate, U.S. Army Test and Evaluation Command, will provide a legal review of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.216" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.15.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.216   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person is in violation of the terms of this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) That person enters or remains upon Aberdeen Proving Ground when that person is not licensed, invited, or otherwise authorized by the Commander, U.S. Army Garrison, Aberdeen Proving Ground pursuant to the terms of § 552.214; or
</P>
<P>(2) That person enters upon or remains upon Aberdeen Proving Ground for the purpose of engaging in any activity prohibited or limited by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) All persons (military personnel, Department of the Army civilian employees, civilians, and others) may be prosecuted for violating the provisions of this subpart. Military personnel may be prosecuted under the Uniform Code of Military Justice. Department of the Army civilian employees may be prosecuted under 18 U.S.C. 1382, and/or disciplined under appropriate regulations. Civilians and others may be prosecuted under 18 U.S.C. 1382.
</P>
<P>(c) Administrative sanctions may include, but are not limited to, bar actions including suspension of access privileges, or permanent exclusion from Aberdeen Proving Ground.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.17.11.1.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 552—DPCA Recreational Areas in Training Areas
</HEAD>
<P>1. DOD use only, permit not required:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note.</HED>
<P>Use is authorized only to military, retired military, DOD civilian personnel, their family members and accompanied guests.</P></NOTE>
<FP-2>Boat launch adjacent to Officer's Club Beach on American Lake/Beachwood area 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cat Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 19 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Chambers Lake Picnic and *Fishing Area—Training Area 12 (See para 2 below) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ecology Park Hiking Path—North Fort, CTA A West 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Fiander Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 20 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Johnson Marsh—Training Area 10 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Lewis Lake Picnic and Fishing Area—Training Area 16 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Miller Hill Trail Bike Area (DOD only)—Main Post 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>No Name Lake—Training Area 22 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sequalitchew Lake Picnic Area—Training Area 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Shannon Marsh—CTA D 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Skeet Trap Range—2d Division Range Road, CTA E 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Solo Point Boat Launch—North Fort, CTA A West 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sportman's Range—East Gate Road, Range 15 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wright Marsh/Lake—CTA C 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vietnam Village Marsh—Training Area 9 and 10 
</FP-2>
<P>2. Non-DOD use, permit required: Chambers Lake, fishing only.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.17.11.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 552—Non-Permit Access Routes
</HEAD>
<P>1. The following public easement routes may be used without permit or check-in: 
</P>
<FP-2>I-5 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Steilacoom-DuPont Road (EH 286156 to EH 302227). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pacific Highway Southeast (EH 232119 to EH 250141). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Washington State Route 507 (EH 363061 to EH 429144). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Goodacre (unpaved) and Rice Kandle (paved) Roads (EH 386088 to EH 450074). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8th Avenue South (EH 424045 to EH 424126). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8th Avenue East (EH 440074 to EH 440126). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>208th Avenue (EH 424126 to EH 432126). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Washington State Route 510 (EH 235063 to EH 247054 and EH 261046 to EH 273020). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Yelm Highway (EH 233056 to EH 239058). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Rainer Road Southeast (EG 167997 to EG 213941). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Military Road Southeast (EG 213941 to EG 215944). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Spurgeon Creek Road (EG 178986 to EG 179997). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Stedman Road (EG 153987 to EG 167995). 
</FP-2>
<P>2. The following military routes may be used without permit or check-in: 
</P>
<FP-2>Huggins Meyer Road (North Fort Road, EH 305202-EH 328213) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>East Gate Road (C-5 Mock-up to 8th Ave South—EH 328213) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>260th (EH 440074 to EH 457074) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Roy cut-off (Chambers Lake) Road (East Gate Road to Roy City Limits) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Lincoln Avenue (Madigan to EH 391179) 
</FP-2>
<P>3. The Solo Point Road is open to Weyerhauser Corporation personnel for business and recreation. 
</P>
<P>4. DOD personnel and Fort Lewis contractor personnel on official business may use all DEH-maintained paved roads and two lane gravel roads in the training areas. The use of one lane gravel lanes, or any established road not identified above, must be coordinated with the Area Access Office prior to use except as specified in § 552.87(b)(2) 
</P>
<P>5. All range roads closed because of training activities will not be used until opened by the Range Officer. Such road closures will normally involve barricades and road guards. Barricades and road guards placed by direction of Range Control may not be by-passed.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.17.11.1.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 552—Authorized Activities for Fort Lewis Maneuver Area Access 
</HEAD>
<FP-2>Military Training (FL Reg 350-30) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEH or Corps of Engineers Real Estate Agreement for commercial use (AR 405-80) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Installation service and maintenance (AR 420-74, FL Reg 350-30)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Non-DOD personnel in transit on public-access route only (appendix B) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Non-Commercial recreational use: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Hunting, fishing and trapping (FL Reg 215-1) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Dog training (not allowed 1 April through 31 July in selected areas) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Horseback riding on roads and vehicle tracks 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Walking, distance running 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Model airplane and rocket flying 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Model boating 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Orienteering 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sport parachuting 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Organized rifle and pistol competition 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Service group camping and activities (Boy Scouts, etc.) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Observation of wildlife and vegetation 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Non-Commercial picking of ferns, mushrooms, blackberries, apples and other miscellaneous vegetation 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Photography 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Hiking 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Historical Trails 


</FP1-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.10.17.11.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 552—Unauthorized Activities in Fort Lewis Maneuver Areas 
</HEAD>
<FP-2>Civilian paramilitary activities and combat games. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Off-pavement motorcycle riding, except as noted in appendix A Off-road vehicle operation. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hang gliding. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ultralight aircraft flying. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hot air ballooning. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Souvenir hunting and metal-detecting, including recovery of ammunition residue of fragments, archaeological or cultural artifacts, or geological specimens. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vehicle speed contests. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wood cutting or brush picking, without DEH or Crops of Engineer permit. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Commercial activities conducted for profit that require a Real Estate Agreement or commercial permit per AR 405-80, including horseback riding rentals or guide service, and dog training for reimbursement. 


</FP-2>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="553" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 553—ARMY CEMETERIES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 985, 1128, 1481, 1482, 3013, 4721-4726; 24 U.S.C. 295a, 412; 38 U.S.C. 2402 note, 2409-2411, 2413; 40 U.S.C. 9102; and Pub. L. 93-43, 87 Stat. 75.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 65877, Sept. 26, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A-Army National Military Cemeteries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the following terms have these meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Active duty.</I> Full-time duty in the active military service of the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) This includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Active Reserve component duty performed pursuant to title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) Service as a cadet or midshipman currently on the rolls at the U.S. Military, U.S. Naval, U.S. Air Force, or U.S. Coast Guard Academies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Active duty for operational support.
</P>
<P>(iv) Persons whose service has been determined to be active duty service pursuant to section 401 of the GI Bill Improvement Act of 1977 (Pub. L. 95-202; 38 U.S.C. 106 note) as of 20 May 2016 and the remains of that person were not already formally interred or inurned as of 20 May 2016 or that person died on or after 20 May 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) This does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Full-time duty performed under title 32, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) Active duty for training, initial entry training, annual training duty, or inactive-duty training for members of the Reserve components.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty for operational support (formerly active duty for special work).</I>
</P>
<P>A tour of active duty for Reserve personnel authorized from military or Reserve personnel appropriations for work on Active component or Reserve component programs. The purpose of active duty for operational support is to provide the necessary skilled manpower assets to support existing or emerging requirements and may include training.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty for training.</I> A category of active duty used to provide structured individual and/or unit training, including on-the-job training, or educational courses to Reserve component members. Included in the active duty for training category are annual training, initial active duty for training, or any other training duty.
</P>
<P><I>Annual training.</I> The minimum period of active duty for training that Reserve members must perform each year to satisfy the training requirements associated with their Reserve component assignment.
</P>
<P><I>Armed Forces.</I> The U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Air Force and their Reserve components.
</P>
<P><I>Army National Military Cemeteries.</I> Arlington National Cemetery and the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery.
</P>
<P><I>Category 4, 5, or 5+ Posts.</I> Category 4, 5, or 5+ posts, including the equivalent classifications as determined by the Department of State that were used prior to 2004 or may be used subsequently.
</P>
<P><I>Child, minor child, permanently dependent child, unmarried adult child.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Child.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Natural child of a primarily eligible person, born in wedlock;
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural child of a female primarily eligible person, born out of wedlock;
</P>
<P>(iii) Natural child of a male primarily eligible person, who was born out of wedlock and:
</P>
<P>(A) Has been acknowledged in a writing signed by the male primarily eligible person;
</P>
<P>(B) Has been judicially determined to be the male primarily eligible person's child;
</P>
<P>(C) Whom the male primarily eligible person has been judicially ordered to support; or
</P>
<P>(D) Has been otherwise proved, by evidence satisfactory to the Executive Director, to be the child of the male primarily eligible person
</P>
<P>(iv) Adopted child of a primarily eligible person; or
</P>
<P>(v) Stepchild who was part of the primarily eligible person's household at the time of death of the individual who is to be interred or inurned.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minor child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is under the age of twenty-one years, or is under the age of twenty-three years and is taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permanently dependent child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is permanently and fully dependent on one or both of the child's parents because of a physical or mental disability incurred before attaining the age of twenty-one years or before the age of twenty-three years while taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unmarried adult child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has attained the age of twenty-one years.
</P>
<P><I>Close relative.</I> The spouse, parents, adult brothers and sisters, adult natural children, adult stepchildren, and adult adopted children of a decedent.
</P>
<P><I>Commemorative monuments.</I> Monuments or other structures or landscape features that serve to honor events in history, units of the Armed Forces, individuals, or groups of individuals that served in the Armed Forces, and that do not contain human remains or mark the location of remains in close proximity. The term does not include memorial markers erected pursuant to § 553.16.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatively eligible person.</I> Any person who is entitled to interment or inurnment solely based on his or her relationship to a primarily eligible person, as set forth in §§ 553.12(b) and § 553.13(b) respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Disinterment.</I> The permanent removal of interred human remains from a particular gravesite.
</P>
<P><I>Disinurnment.</I> The permanent removal of remains from a particular niche.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Director.</I> The person statutorily charged with exercising authority, direction, and control over all aspects of Army National Military Cemeteries.
</P>
<P><I>Federal capital crime.</I> An offense under Federal law for which a sentence of imprisonment for life or the death penalty may be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Former prisoner of war.</I> A person who is eligible for or has been awarded the Prisoner of War Medal.
</P>
<P><I>Former spouse.</I> See <I>spouse.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Government.</I> The U.S. government and its agencies and instrumentalities.
</P>
<P><I>Group burial.</I> Interment in one gravesite of one or more service members on active duty killed in the same incident or location where:
</P>
<P>(1) The remains cannot be individually identified; or
</P>
<P>(2) The person authorized to direct disposition of subsequently identified remains has authorized their interment with the other service members.
</P>
<P>Group remains may contain incidental remains of civilians and foreign nationals.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive-duty training.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Duty prescribed for members of the Reserve components by the Secretary concerned under 37 U.S.C. 206 or any other provision of law.
</P>
<P>(2) Special additional duties authorized for members of the Reserve components by an authority designated by the Secretary concerned and performed by them on a voluntary basis in connection with the prescribed training or maintenance activities of the units to which they are assigned.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard of any State, duty (other than full-time duty) under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504 or 505 or the prior corresponding provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(4) This term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Work or study performed in connection with correspondence courses,
</P>
<P>(ii) Attendance at an educational institution in an inactive status, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Duty performed as a temporary member of the Coast Guard Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Interment.</I> The ground burial of casketed or cremated human remains.
</P>
<P><I>Inurnment.</I> The placement of cremated human remains in a niche.
</P>
<P><I>Media.</I> Individuals and agencies that print, broadcast, or gather and transmit news, and their reporters, photographers, and employees.
</P>
<P><I>Memorial marker.</I> A headstone used to memorialize a service member or veteran whose remains are unavailable for reasons listed in § 553.16.
</P>
<P><I>Memorial service or ceremony.</I> Any activity intended to honor the memory of a person or persons interred, inurned, or memorialized in the Army National Military Cemeteries. This term includes private memorial services, public memorial services, public wreath laying ceremonies, and official ceremonies.
</P>
<P><I>Minor child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Niche.</I> An aboveground space constructed specifically for the placement of cremated human remains.
</P>
<P><I>Official ceremony.</I> A memorial service or ceremony approved by the Executive Director in which the primary participants are representatives of the Government, a State government, a foreign government, or an international organization authorized by the U.S. Department of State to participate in an official capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Parent.</I> A natural parent, a stepparent, a parent by adoption, or a person who for a period of not less than one year stood <I>in loco parentis,</I> or was granted legal custody by a court decree or statutory provision.
</P>
<P><I>Permanently dependent child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Person authorized to direct disposition.</I> The person primarily entitled to direct disposition of human remains and who elects to exercise that entitlement. Determination of such entitlement shall be made in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Personal representative.</I> A person who has legal authority to act on behalf of another through applicable law, order, and regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Primarily eligible person.</I> Any person who is entitled to interment or inurnment based on his or her service as specified in § 553.12(a) and § 553.13(a) respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Primary next of kin.</I> (1) In the absence of a valid written document from the decedent identifying the primary next of kin, the order of precedence for designating a decedent's primary next of kin is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, even if a minor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Children;
</P>
<P>(iii) Parents;
</P>
<P>(iv) Siblings, to include half-blood and those acquired through adoption;
</P>
<P>(v) Grandparents;
</P>
<P>(vi) Other next of kin, in order of relationship to the decedent as determined by the laws of the decedent's state of domicile.
</P>
<P>(2) Absent a court order or written document from the deceased, the precedence of next of kin with equal relationships to the decedent is governed by seniority (age), older having higher priority than younger. Equal relationship situations include those involving divorced parents of the decedent, children of the decedent, and siblings of the decedent.
</P>
<P><I>Private headstones or markers.</I> A headstone or individual memorial marker provided at private expense, in lieu of a headstone or individual memorial marker furnished by the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Private memorial service.</I> A memorial service or ceremony conducted at the decedent's gravesite, memorial headstone, or niche.
</P>
<P><I>Public memorial service.</I> A ceremony conducted by members of the public at a historic site in an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P><I>Public wreath-laying ceremony.</I> A ceremony in which members of the public, assisted by the Tomb Guards, present a wreath or similar memento at the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve component.</I> The Army Reserve, the Navy Reserve, the Marine Corps Reserve, the Air Force Reserve, the Coast Guard Reserve, the Army National Guard of the United States, and the Air National Guard of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse, former spouse, subsequently remarried spouse.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Spouse.</I> A person who is legally married to another person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Former spouse.</I> A person who was legally married to another person at one time but was not legally married to that person at the time of one of their deaths.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsequently remarried spouse.</I> A derivatively eligible spouse who was married to the primarily eligible person at the time of the primarily eligible person's death and who subsequently remarried another person.
</P>
<P><I>State capital crime.</I> Under State law, the willful, deliberate, or premeditated unlawful killing of another human being for which a sentence of imprisonment for life or the death penalty may be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Subsequently recovered remains.</I> Additional remains belonging to the decedent that are recovered or identified after the decedent's interment or inurnment.
</P>
<P><I>Subsequently remarried spouse.</I> See <I>spouse.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Unmarried adult child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Veteran.</I> A person who served in the U.S. Armed Forces and who was discharged or released under honorable conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part specifies the authorities and assigns the responsibilities for the development, operation, maintenance, and administration of the Army National Military Cemeteries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.3   Statutory authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Historical.</I> Act of July 17, 1862, Sec. 18, 12 Stat. 594, 596; Act of February 22, 1867, Ch. 61, 14 Stat. 399; and the National Cemeteries Act of 1973, Public Law 93-43, 87 Stat. 75 (1973). The National Cemeteries Act established the National Cemetery System, which primarily consists of national cemeteries transferred from the management authority of the Department of the Army to the (now) Department of Veterans Affairs. Section 6(a) of the Act exempted Arlington National Cemetery and the Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery from transfer to the National Cemetery System, leaving them under the management authority of the Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current.</I> Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4721(a), the Secretary of the Army shall develop, operate, manage, oversee, and fund the Army National Military Cemeteries. Section 4721(c) provides that the Army National Military Cemeteries are under the jurisdiction of Headquarters, Department of the Army, and 10 U.S.C. 4721(d) provides that the Secretary of the Army shall prescribe such regulations and policies as may be necessary to administer the Army National Military Cemeteries. The responsibilities of Headquarters, Department of the Army with regard to the Army National Military Cemeteries are enumerated in 10 U.S.C. 4721-4726 and Army General Orders 2014-74 and 2014-75.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.4   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The development, maintenance, administration, and operation of the Army National Military Cemeteries are governed by this part, Army Regulation 290-5, and Department of the Army Pamphlet 290-5. The development, maintenance, administration, and operation of Army post cemeteries are not covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This part is applicable to all persons on, engaging in business with, or seeking access to or benefits from the Army National Military Cemeteries, unless otherwise specified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.5   Maintaining order.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Director may order the removal from, and bar the re-entry onto, Army National Military Cemeteries of any person who acts in violation of any law or regulation, including but not limited to demonstrations and disturbances as outlined in 38 U.S.C. 2413, and in this part. This authority may not be re-delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.6   Standards for managing Army National Military Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Executive Director is responsible for establishing and maintaining cemetery layout plans, including plans setting forth sections with gravesites, memorial areas with markers, and columbaria with niches, and landscape planting plans.
</P>
<P>(b) New sections or areas may be opened and prepared for interments or for installing memorial markers only with the approval of the Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.7   Arlington Memorial Amphitheater.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with 24 U.S.C. 295a:
</P>
<P>(1) No memorial may be erected and no remains may be entombed in the Arlington Memorial Amphitheater unless specifically authorized by Congress; and
</P>
<P>(2) The character, design, or location of any memorial authorized by Congress for placement in the Amphitheater is subject to the approval of the Secretary of Defense or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of Defense or his or her designee will seek the advice of the Commission of Fine Arts in such matters, in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 9102.
</P>
<P>(c) Tributes offered for those interred in the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier for placement in the Arlington Memorial Amphitheater display room are not memorials for purposes of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.8" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.8   Permission to install utilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The installation of utilities in Army National Military Cemeteries, including but not limited to, telephone and fiber optic lines, electric lines, natural gas lines, water pipes, storm drains, and sanitary sewers, must be authorized by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for licenses, permits, or easements to install water, gas, or sewer lines, or other utilities or equipment on or across an Army National Military Cemetery or an approach road in which the Government has a right-of-way, fee simple title, or other interest, must be sent to the Executive Director, who will process the request in accordance with Army policy. Requests must include a complete description of the type of license, permit, or easement desired and a map showing the location of the project.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.9" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.9   Assignment of gravesites or niches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All eligible persons will be assigned gravesites or niches without discrimination as to race, color, sex, religion, age, or national origin and without preference to military grade or rank.
</P>
<P>(b) The Army National Military Cemeteries will enforce a one-gravesite-per-family policy. Once the initial interment or inurnment is made in a gravesite or niche, each additional interment or inurnment of eligible persons must be made in the same gravesite or niche, except as noted in paragraph (f) of this section. This includes multiple primarily eligible persons if they are married to each other.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with 38 U.S.C. 2410A(a)(2) the Secretary of the Army may waive the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section as the Secretary of the Army deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) A gravesite reservation will be honored if it meets the following requirements, unless it is cancelled by the Executive Director:
</P>
<P>(1) The gravesite was properly reserved by law before January 1, 1962, and
</P>
<P>(2) An eligible person was interred in the reserved gravesite prior to January 1, 2017.
</P>
<P>(e) The Executive Director may cancel a gravesite reservation:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon determination that a derivatively eligible spouse has remarried;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon determination that the reservee's remains have been buried elsewhere or otherwise disposed of;
</P>
<P>(3) Upon determination that the reservee desires to or will be interred in the same gravesite with the predeceased, and doing so is feasible; or
</P>
<P>(4) Upon determination that the reservee would be 120 years of age and there is no record of correspondence with the reservee within the last two decades.
</P>
<P>(f) In cases of reservations meeting the requirements of 38 U.S.C. 2410A note, where more than one gravesite was reserved (on the basis of the veteran's eligibility at the time the reservation was made) and no interment has yet been made in any of the sites, the one-gravesite-per-family policy will be enforced, unless waived by the Executive Director. Gravesite reservations will be honored only if the decedents meet the eligibility criteria for interment in Arlington National Cemetery that is in effect at the time of need, and the reserved gravesite is available.
</P>
<P>(g) Where a primarily eligible person has been or will be interred as part of a group burial or has been or will be memorialized in a memorial area at Arlington National Cemetery, the Executive Director will assign a gravesite or niche for interment or inurnment of a derivatively eligible person.
</P>
<P>(h) Gravesites or niches shall not be reserved or assigned prior to the time of need.
</P>
<P>(i) The selection of gravesites and niches is the responsibility of the Executive Director. The selection of specific gravesites or niches by the family or other representatives of the deceased at any time is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.10" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.10   Proof of eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The personal representative or primary next of kin is responsible for providing appropriate documentation to verify the decedent's eligibility for interment or inurnment.
</P>
<P>(b) The personal representative or primary next of kin must certify in writing that the decedent is not prohibited from interment, inurnment, or memorialization under § 553.20 because he or she has committed or been convicted of a Federal or State capital crime or is a convicted Tier III sex offender as defined in 38 U.S.C. 2411.
</P>
<P>(c) For service members who die on active duty, a statement of honorable service from a general court martial convening authority is required. If the certificate of honorable service cannot be granted, the service member is ineligible for interment, inurnment, and memorialization pursuant to § 553.19(h).
</P>
<P>(d) When applicable, the following documents are required:
</P>
<P>(1) Death certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) Proof of eligibility as required by paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional documentation to establish the decedent's eligibility (e.g., marriage certificate, birth certificate, waivers, statements that the decedent had no children);
</P>
<P>(4) Burial agreement;
</P>
<P>(5) Notarized statement that the remains are unavailable for the reasons set forth in § 553.16; and
</P>
<P>(6) A certificate of cremation or notarized statement attesting to the authenticity of the cremated human remains and that 100% of the cremated remains received from the crematorium are present. The Executive Director may, however, allow a portion of the cremated remains to be removed by the crematorium for the sole purpose of producing commemorative items.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other document as required by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(e) The following documents may be used to establish the eligibility of a primarily eligible person:
</P>
<P>(1) DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty;
</P>
<P>(2) WD AGO 53 or 53-55, Enlisted Record and Report of Separation Honorable Discharge;
</P>
<P>(3) WD AGO 53-98, Military Record and Report of Separation Certificate of Service;
</P>
<P>(4) NAVPERS-553, Notice of Separation from U.S. Naval Service;
</P>
<P>(5) NAVMC 70-PD, Honorable Discharge, U.S. Marine Corps; or;
</P>
<P>(6) DD Form 1300, Report of Casualty (required in the case of death of an active duty service member).
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a subsequently remarried spouse must be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A notarized statement from the new spouse of the subsequently remarried spouse agreeing to the interment or inurnment and relinquishing any claim for interment or inurnment in the same gravesite or niche.
</P>
<P>(2) Notarized statement(s) from all of the children from the prior marriage agreeing to the interment or inurnment of their parents in the same gravesite or niche.
</P>
<P>(g) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a permanently dependent child must be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A notarized statement as to the marital status and degree of dependency of the decedent from an individual with direct knowledge; and
</P>
<P>(2) A physician's statement regarding the nature and duration of the physical or mental disability; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement from someone with direct knowledge demonstrating the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The deceased lived most of his or her adult life with one or both parents, one or both of whom are otherwise eligible for interment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The decedent's children, siblings, or other family members, other than the eligible parent, waive any derivative claim to be interred at Arlington National Cemetery, in accordance with the Arlington National Cemetery Burial Agreement.
</P>
<P>(h) Veterans or primary next of kin of deceased veterans may obtain copies of their military records by writing to the National Personnel Records Center, Attention: Military Personnel Records, 9700 Page Avenue St. Louis, Missouri 63132 or using their Web site. All others may request a record by completing and submitting Standard Form 180.
</P>
<P>(i) The burden of proving eligibility lies with the party who requests the burial. The Executive Director will determine whether the submitted evidence is sufficient to support a finding of eligibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 65877, Sept. 26, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 45408, Aug. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.11" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.11   General rules governing eligibility for interment, inurnment, and memorialization at Arlington National Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.12 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.22 may be interred in Arlington National Cemetery. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.13 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.22 may be inurned in Arlington National Cemetery. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.14 may be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Unmarked Area. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.15 may be interred in an Arlington National Cemetery group burial. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.16 may be memorialized in Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(b) Derivative eligibility for interment or inurnment may be established only through a decedent's connection to a primarily eligible person and not to another derivatively eligible person.
</P>
<P>(c) No veteran is eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in Arlington National Cemetery unless the veteran's last period of active duty ended with an honorable discharge. A general discharge under honorable conditions is not sufficient for interment, inurnment or memorialization in Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of determining whether a service member has received an honorable discharge, final determinations regarding discharges made in accordance with procedures established by chapter 79 of title 10, United States Code, will be considered authoritative.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary of the Army has the authority to act on requests for exceptions to the provisions of the interment, inurnment, and memorialization eligibility policies contained in this part. The Secretary of the Army may delegate this authority to the Executive Director on such terms deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Individuals who do not qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person, but who are granted an exception to policy to be interred or inurned pursuant to § 553.22 in a new gravesite or niche, will be treated as a primarily eligible person for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Notwithstanding any other section in this part, memorialization with an individual memorial marker, interment, or inurnment in the Army National Military Cemeteries is prohibited if there is a gravesite, niche, or individual memorial marker for the decedent in any other Government-operated cemetery or the Government has provided an individual grave marker, individual memorial marker or niche cover for placement in a private cemetery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.12" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.12   Eligibility for interment in Arlington National Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>Only those who qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person are eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery, unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.19-553.20, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primarily eligible persons.</I> The following are primarily eligible persons for purposes of interment:
</P>
<P>(1) Any service member who dies on active duty in the U.S. Armed Forces (except those service members serving on active duty for training only), if the General Courts Martial Convening Authority grants a certificate of honorable service.
</P>
<P>(2) Any veteran retired from a Reserve component who served a period of active duty (other than for training), is carried on the official retired list, and is entitled to receive military retired pay.
</P>
<P>(3) Any veteran retired from active military service and entitled to receive military retired pay.
</P>
<P>(4) Any veteran who received an honorable discharge from the Armed Forces prior to October 1, 1949, who was discharged for a permanent physical disability, who served on active duty (other than for training), and who would have been eligible for retirement under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1201 had the statute been in effect on the date of separation.
</P>
<P>(5) Any veteran awarded one of the following decorations:
</P>
<P>(i) Medal of Honor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Distinguished Service Cross, Air Force Cross, or Navy Cross;
</P>
<P>(iii) Distinguished Service Medal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Silver Star; or
</P>
<P>(v) Purple Heart.
</P>
<P>(6) Any veteran who served on active duty (other than active duty for training) and who held any of the following positions:
</P>
<P>(i) President or Vice President of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Elected member of the U.S. Congress;
</P>
<P>(iii) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States or Associate Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States;
</P>
<P>(iv) A position listed, at the time the person held the position, in 5 U.S.C. 5312 or 5313 (Levels I and II of the Executive Schedule); or
</P>
<P>(v) Chief of Mission of a Category 4, 5, or 5+ post if the Department of State classified that post as a Category 4, 5, or 5+ post during the person's tenure as Chief of Mission.
</P>
<P>(7) Any former prisoner of war who, while a prisoner of war, served honorably in the active military service, and who died on or after November 30, 1993.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivatively eligible persons.</I> The following individuals are derivatively eligible persons for purposes of interment who may be interred if space is available in the gravesite of the primarily eligible person:
</P>
<P>(1) The spouse of a primarily eligible person who is or will be interred in Arlington National Cemetery. A former spouse of a primarily eligible person is not eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The spouse of an active duty service member or an eligible veteran, who was:
</P>
<P>(i) Lost or buried at sea, temporarily interred overseas due to action by the Government, or officially determined to be missing in action;
</P>
<P>(ii) Buried in a U.S. military cemetery maintained by the American Battle Monuments Commission; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Interred in Arlington National Cemetery as part of a group burial (the derivatively eligible spouse may not be buried in the group burial gravesite).
</P>
<P>(3) The parents of a minor child or a permanently dependent adult child, whose remains were interred in Arlington National Cemetery based on the eligibility of a parent at the time of the child's death, unless eligibility of the non-service connected parent is lost through divorce from the primarily eligible parent.
</P>
<P>(4) An honorably discharged veteran who does not qualify as a primarily eligible person, if the veteran will be buried in the same gravesite as an already interred primarily eligible person who is a close relative, where the interment meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The veteran is without minor or unmarried adult dependent children;
</P>
<P>(ii) The veteran will not occupy space reserved for the spouse, a minor child, or a permanently dependent adult child;
</P>
<P>(iii) All other close relatives of the primarily eligible person concur with the interment of the veteran with the primarily eligible person by signing a notarized statement;
</P>
<P>(iv) The veteran's spouse waives any entitlement to interment in Arlington National Cemetery, where such entitlement might be based on the veteran's interment in Arlington National Cemetery. The Executive Director may set aside the spouse's waiver, provided space is available in the same gravesite, and all close relatives of the primarily eligible person concur; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any cost of moving, recasketing, or revaulting the remains will be paid from private funds.
</P>
<P>(5) A minor child or permanently dependent child of a primary eligible person who is or will be interred in Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 65877, Sept. 26, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 45408, Aug. 29, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.13" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.13   Eligibility for inurnment in Arlington National Cemetery Columbarium.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are eligible for inurnment in the Arlington National Cemetery Columbarium, unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.19-553.20, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primarily eligible persons.</I> The following are primarily eligible persons for purposes of inurnment:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery, as provided for in § 553.12(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Any veteran who served on active duty other than active duty for training.
</P>
<P>(3) Any member of a Reserve component of the Armed Forces who dies while:
</P>
<P>(i) On active duty for training or performing full-time duty under title 32, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from such active duty for training or full-time duty;
</P>
<P>(iii) On authorized inactive-duty training, including training performed as a member of the Army National Guard of the United States or the Air National Guard of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Hospitalized or receiving treatment at the expense of the Government for an injury or disease incurred or contracted while on such active duty for training or full-time duty, traveling to or from such active duty for training or full-time duty, or on inactive-duty training.
</P>
<P>(4) Any member of the Reserve Officers' Training Corps of the United States, Army, Navy, or Air Force, whose death occurs while:
</P>
<P>(i) Attending an authorized training camp or cruise;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from that camp or cruise; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Hospitalized or receiving treatment at the expense of the Government for injury or disease incurred or contracted while attending such camp or cruise or while traveling to or from such camp or cruise.
</P>
<P>(5) Any citizen of the United States who, during any war in which the United States has been or may hereafter be engaged, served in the armed forces of any government allied with the United States during that war, whose last service ended honorably by death or otherwise, and who was a citizen of the United States at the time of entry into that service and at the time of death.
</P>
<P>(6) Commissioned officers, United States Coast and Geodetic Survey (now National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration) who die during or subsequent to the service specified in the following categories and whose last service terminated honorably:
</P>
<P>(i) Assignment to areas of immediate military hazard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Served in the Philippine Islands on December 7, 1941.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transferred to the Department of the Army or the Department of the Navy under certain statutes.
</P>
<P>(7) Any commissioned officer of the United States Public Health Service who served on full-time duty on or after July 29, 1945, if the service falls within the meaning of active duty for training as defined in 38 U.S.C. 101(22) or inactive duty training as defined in 38 U.S.C. 101(23) and whose death resulted from a disease or injury incurred or aggravated in line of duty. Also, any commissioned officer of the Regular or Reserve Corps of the Public Health Service who performed active service prior to July 29, 1945 in time of war; on detail for duty with the Armed Forces; or while the service was part of the military forces of the United States pursuant to Executive order of the President.
</P>
<P>(8) Any Active Duty Designee as defined in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivatively eligible persons.</I> Those connected to an individual described in paragraph (a) of this section through a relationship described in § 553.12(b). Such individuals may be inurned if space is available in the primarily eligible person's niche.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.14" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.14   Eligibility for interment of cremated remains in the Arlington National Cemetery Unmarked Area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cremated remains of any person eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery as described in § 553.12 may be interred in the designated Arlington National Cemetery Unmarked Area.
</P>
<P>(b) Cremated remains must be interred in a biodegradable container or placed directly into the ground without a container. Cremated remains are not authorized to be scattered at this site or at any location within Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(c) There will be no headstone or marker for any person choosing this method of interment. A permanent register will be maintained by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(d) Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, once a person is interred in the Unmarked Area, any derivatively eligible persons and spouses must be interred in this manner. This includes spouses who are also primarily eligible persons. No additional gravesite, niche, or memorial marker in a memorial area will be authorized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.15" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.15   Eligibility for group burial in Arlington National Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Executive Director may authorize a group burial in Arlington National Cemetery whenever several people, at least one of whom is an active duty service member, die during a military-related activity and not all remains can be individually identified.
</P>
<P>(b) Before authorizing a group burial that includes both United States and foreign decedents, the Executive Director will notify the Department of State and request that the Department of State notify the appropriate foreign embassy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.16" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.16   Eligibility for memorialization in an Arlington National Cemetery memorial area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the authority granted by 38 U.S.C. 2409, a memorial marker may be placed in an Arlington National Cemetery memorial area to honor the memory of service members or veterans, who are eligible for interment under § 553.12(a) and:
</P>
<P>(1) Who are missing in action;
</P>
<P>(2) Whose remains have not been recovered or identified;
</P>
<P>(3) Whose remains were buried at sea, whether by the member's or veteran's own choice or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(4) Whose remains were donated to science; or
</P>
<P>(5) Whose remains were cremated and the cremated remains were scattered without interment or inurnment of any portion of those remains.
</P>
<P>(b) When the remains of a primarily eligible person are unavailable for one of the reasons listed in paragraph (a) of this section, and a derivatively eligible person who predeceased the primarily eligible person is already interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery, the primarily eligible person may be memorialized only on the existing headstone or on a replacement headstone, ordered with a new inscription. Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, a separate marker in a memorial area is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) When a memorial marker for a primarily eligible person is already in place in a memorial area, and a derivatively eligible person is subsequently interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery, an inscription memorializing the primarily eligible person will be placed on the new headstone or niche cover. Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, the memorial marker will then be removed from the memorial area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.17" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.17   Arlington National Cemetery interment/inurnment agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A derivatively eligible person who predeceases the primarily eligible person may be interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery only if the primarily eligible person agrees in writing to be interred in the same gravesite or inurned in the same niche at his or her time of need and that his or her estate shall pay for all expenses related to disinterment or disinurnment of the predeceased person from Arlington National Cemetery if the primarily eligible person is not interred or inurned as agreed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the primarily eligible person becomes ineligible for interment or inurnment in Arlington National Cemetery or the personal representative or primary next of kin decides that the primarily eligible person will be interred or inurned elsewhere, the remains of any predeceased person may be removed from Arlington National Cemetery at no cost to the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.18" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.18   Eligibility for burial in U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>Only the residents of the Armed Forces Retirement Home are eligible for interment in the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery. Resident eligibility criteria for the Armed Forces Retirement Home is provided for at 24 U.S.C. 412.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.19" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.19   Ineligibility for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army National Military Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are not eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army National Military Cemetery:
</P>
<P>(a) A father, mother, brother, sister, or in-law solely on the basis of his or her relationship to a primarily eligible person, even though the individual is:
</P>
<P>(1) Dependent on the primarily eligible person for support; or
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the primarily eligible person's household.
</P>
<P>(b) A person whose last period of service was not characterized as an honorable discharge (e.g., a separation or discharge under general but honorable conditions, other than honorable conditions, a bad conduct discharge, a dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal), regardless of whether the person:
</P>
<P>(1) Received any other veterans' benefits; or
</P>
<P>(2) Was treated at a Department of Veterans Affairs hospital or died in such a hospital.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who has volunteered for service with the U.S. Armed Forces, but has not yet entered on active duty.
</P>
<P>(d) A former spouse whose marriage to the primarily eligible person ended in divorce.
</P>
<P>(e) A spouse who predeceases the primarily eligible person and is interred or inurned in a location other than Arlington National Cemetery, and the primarily eligible person remarries.
</P>
<P>(f) A divorced spouse of a primarily eligible person.
</P>
<P>(g) Otherwise derivatively eligible persons, such as a spouse or minor child, if the primarily eligible person was not or will not be interred or inurned at Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(h) A service member who dies while on active duty, if the first General Courts Martial Convening Authority in the service member's chain of command determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that the service member engaged in conduct that would have resulted in a separation or discharge not characterized as an honorable discharge (e.g., a separation or discharge under general but honorable conditions, other than honorable conditions, a bad conduct discharge, a dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal) being imposed, but for the death of the service member.
</P>
<P>(i) Animal remains. If animal remains are unintentionally commingled with human remains due to a natural disaster, unforeseen accident, act of war or terrorism, violent explosion, or similar incident, and such remains cannot be separated from the remains of an eligible person, then the remains may be interred or inurned with the eligible person, but the identity of the animal remains shall not be inscribed or identified on a niche, marker, headstone, or otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.20" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.20   Prohibition of interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army National Military Cemetery of persons who have committed certain crimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> Notwithstanding §§ 553.12-553.16, 553.18, and 553.22, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 985 and 38 U.S.C. 2411, the interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army National Military Cemetery of any of the following persons is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a Federal capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President).
</P>
<P>(2) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a State capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the Governor of the State).
</P>
<P>(3) Any person found under procedures specified in § 553.21 to have committed a Federal or State capital crime but who has not been convicted of such crime by reason of such person not being available for trial due to death or flight to avoid prosecution. Notice from officials is not required for this prohibition to apply.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States or by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a Federal or State crime causing the person to be a Tier III sex offender for purposes of the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act, who for such crime is sentenced to a minimum of life imprisonment and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President or the Governor of a State, as the case may be).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> The Executive Director is designated as the Secretary of the Army's representative authorized to receive from the appropriate Federal or State officials notification of conviction of capital crimes referred to in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confirmation of person's eligibility.</I> (1) If notice has not been received, but the Executive Director has reason to believe that the person may have been convicted of a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime, the Executive Director shall seek written confirmation from:
</P>
<P>(i) The Attorney General of the United States, with respect to a suspected Federal capital crime; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate State official, with respect to a suspected State capital crime.
</P>
<P>(2) The Executive Director will defer the decision on whether to inter, inurn, or memorialize a decedent until a written response is received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.21" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.21   Findings concerning the commission of certain crimes where a person has not been convicted due to death or flight to avoid prosecution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary inquiry.</I> If the Executive Director has reason to believe that a decedent may have committed a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime but has not been convicted of such crime by reason of such person not being available for trial due to death or flight to avoid prosecution, the Executive Director shall submit the issue to the Army General Counsel. The Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall initiate a preliminary inquiry seeking information from Federal, State, or local law enforcement officials, or other sources of potentially relevant information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision after preliminary inquiry.</I> If, after conducting the preliminary inquiry described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Army General Counsel or designee determines that credible evidence exists suggesting the decedent may have committed a Federal capital crime or State capital crime, then further proceedings under this section are warranted to determine whether the decedent committed such crime. Consequently the Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall present the personal representative with a written notification of such preliminary determination and a dated, written notice of the personal representative's procedural options.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and procedural options.</I> The notice of procedural options shall indicate that, within fifteen days, the personal representative may:
</P>
<P>(1) Request a hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Withdraw the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization; or
</P>
<P>(3) Do nothing, in which case the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization will be considered to have been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time computation.</I> The fifteen-day time period begins on the calendar day immediately following the earlier of the day the notice of procedural options is delivered in person to the personal representative or is sent by U.S. registered mail or, if available, by electronic means to the personal representative. It ends at midnight on the fifteenth day. The period includes weekends and holidays.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hearing.</I> The purpose of the hearing is to allow the personal representative to present additional information regarding whether the decedent committed a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime. In lieu of making a personal appearance at the hearing, the personal representative may submit relevant documents for consideration.
</P>
<P>(1) If a hearing is requested, the Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing shall be conducted in an informal manner.
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of evidence shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(4) The personal representative and witnesses may appear, at no expense to the Government, and shall, in the discretion of the Army General Counsel or his or her designee, testify under oath. Oaths must be administered by a person who possesses the legal authority to administer oaths.
</P>
<P>(5) The Army General Counsel or designee shall consider any and all relevant information obtained.
</P>
<P>(6) The hearing shall be appropriately recorded. Upon request, a copy of the record shall be provided to the personal representative.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final determination.</I> After considering the opinion of the Army General Counsel or his or her designee, and any additional information submitted by the personal representative, the Secretary of the Army or his or her designee shall determine the decedent's eligibility for interment, inurnment, or memorialization. This determination is final and not appealable.
</P>
<P>(1) The determination shall be based on evidence that supports or undermines a conclusion that the decedent's actions satisfied the elements of the crime as established by the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
</P>
<P>(2) If an affirmative defense is offered by the decedent's personal representative, a determination as to whether the defense was met shall be made according to the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
</P>
<P>(3) Mitigating evidence shall not be considered.
</P>
<P>(4) The opinion of the local, State, or Federal prosecutor as to whether he or she would have brought charges against the decedent had the decedent been available is relevant but not binding and shall be given no more weight than other facts presented.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of decision.</I> The Executive Director shall provide written notification of the Secretary's decision to the personal representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.22" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.22   Exceptions to policies for interment, inurnment, or memorialization at Arlington National Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a national military cemetery, eligibility standards for interment, inurnment, or memorialization are based on honorable military service. Exceptions to the eligibility standards for new graves are rarely granted. When granted, exceptions are for those persons who have made significant contributions that directly and substantially benefited the U.S. military.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for an exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies shall be considered only after the individual's death.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for an exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies shall be submitted to the Executive Director and shall include any documents required by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(d) The primary next of kin is responsible for providing and certifying the authenticity of all documents and swearing to the accuracy of the accounting provided to support the request for exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies.
</P>
<P>(e) Disapproved requests will be reconsidered only when the personal representative or next of kin submits new and substantive information not previously considered by the Secretary of the Army. Requests for reconsideration shall be submitted directly to the Executive Director. Requests for reconsideration not supported by new and substantive information will be denied by the Executive Director after review and advice from the Army General Counsel or his or her designee. The Executive Director shall notify the personal representative or next of kin of the decision of the reconsideration. The decision by the Secretary of the Army or the Executive Director, as the case may be, is final and not appealable.
</P>
<P>(f) Under no circumstances, will exceptions to policies be considered or granted for those individuals prohibited from interment by virtue of § 553.20 or § 553.21.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.23" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.23   Placement of cremated remains at Army National Military Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>All cremated remains shall be interred or inurned. The scattering of cremated remains and the burial of symbolic containers are prohibited in Army National Military Cemeteries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.24" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.24   Subsequently recovered remains.</HEAD>
<P>Subsequently recovered identified remains of a decedent shall be reunited in one gravesite or urn, or as part of a group burial either in an Army National Military Cemetery or other cemetery. Subsequently recovered identified remains may also be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Tomb of Remembrance. Unidentified remains (which may or may not be comingled) may also be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Tomb of Remembrance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.25" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.25   Disinterments and disinurnments of remains.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Interments and inurnments in Army National Military Cemeteries are considered permanent.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for disinterment or disinurnment of individually buried or inurned remains are considered requests for exceptions to this policy, and must be addressed to the Executive Director for decision. The request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A full statement of the reasons for the disinterment or disinurnment of the remains from the personal representative or primary next of kin who directed the original interment or inurnment if still living, or if not, the current personal representative or primary next of kin;
</P>
<P>(2) A notarized statement from each living close relative of the decedent that he or she does not object to the proposed disinterment or disinurnment; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notarized statement by a person who has personal knowledge of the decedent's relatives stating that the persons giving statements comprise all of the decedent's living close relatives.
</P>
<P>(4) An appropriate funding source for the disinterment or disinurnment, as disinterments and disinurnments of individually buried or inurned remains must be accomplished without expense to the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) The Executive Director shall carry out disinterments and disinurnments directed by a court of competent jurisdiction upon presentation of a lawful, original court order and after consulting with the Army General Counsel or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(d) Remains interred in a group burial may be disinterred only if, after the completion of identification processing of any subsequently recovered remains, each decedent's remains have not been individually identified and it is determined that available technology is likely to assist in the identification process of the previously interred group remains. Requests for disinterment of group remains must be addressed to the Executive Director by the appropriate Military Department's Secretary or his or her designee for decision. The request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement from the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command certifying that subsequent to the interment or inurnment of the decedents, remains have been recovered from the site of the casualty incident, and that the remains of each individual U.S. citizen, legal resident, or former service member have not been previously identified from either the remains originally recovered or from the subsequently recovered portions.
</P>
<P>(2) Sufficient circumstantial and anatomical evidence from the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command, which when combined with contemporary forensic or other scientific techniques, would lead to a high probability of individual identification of the interred group remains.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of the Military Department's notification to all the living close relatives of the decedents advising them of the proposed disinterment.
</P>
<P>(4) A time period identified by the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command during which it proposes to perform forensic or scientific techniques for individual identification processing.
</P>
<P>(5) An anticipated time period as to when the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command will return any unidentified remains to Arlington National Cemetery or will notify the cemetery that individual identifications of the group remains are complete and no remains will be returned.
</P>
<P>(e) Disinterment or disinurnment is not permitted for the sole purpose of splitting remains or permanently keeping any portion of the remains in a location other than Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(f) Disinterment of previously designated group remains for the sole purpose of individually segregating the group remains is not permitted unless the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.26" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.26   Design of Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Headstones and memorial markers shall be white marble in an upright slab design. Flat-type granite markers may be used, at the Executive Director's discretion, when the terrain or other obstruction precludes use of an upright marble headstone or memorial marker.
</P>
<P>(b) Niche covers shall be white marble.
</P>
<P>(c) The Executive Director shall approve the design of headstones and memorial markers erected for group burials, consistent with the policies of the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.27" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.27   Inscriptions on Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Inscriptions on Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers will be made according to the policies and specifications of the Secretary of the Army, consistent with the policies of the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
</P>
<P>(b) No grades, titles, or ranks other than military grades granted pursuant to title 10, United States Code, will be engraved on Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers. Honorary grades, titles, or ranks granted by States, governors, and others shall not be inscribed on headstones, niche covers, or memorial markers.
</P>
<P>(c) Memorial markers must include the words “In Memory of” preceding the inscription.
</P>
<P>(d) The words “In Memory of” shall not precede the inscription of a decedent whose remains are interred or inurned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.28" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.28   Private headstones and markers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Construction and installation of private headstones and markers in lieu of Government-furnished headstones and markers  may be approved at the discretion of the Executive Director, and are permitted only in sections of Army National Military Cemeteries in which private memorials and markers were authorized as of January 1, 1947. These headstones or markers must be of simple design, dignified, and appropriate for a military cemetery as determined by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(b) The design and inscription of a private headstone or marker must be approved by the Executive Director prior to its construction and placement. All private headstones and markers will be designed to conform to the dimensions and profiles specified by the Executive Director and will be inscribed with the location of the gravesite.
</P>
<P>(c) Placement of a private headstone or marker is conditional upon the primary next of kin agreeing in writing to maintain it in a manner acceptable to the Government. Should the headstone or marker become unserviceable at any time and the primary next of kin fail to repair or replace it, or if the marker is not updated to reflect all persons buried in that gravesite within 6 months of the most recent burial, the Executive Director reserves the right to remove and dispose of the headstone or marker and replace it with a standard, Government-furnished headstone or marker.
</P>
<P>(d) The construction of a headstone or marker to span two gravesites will be permitted only in those sections in which headstones and markers are presently spanning two gravesites and only with the express understanding that in the event both gravesites are not utilized for burials, the headstone or marker will be relocated to the center of the occupied gravesite, if possible. Such relocation must be accomplished at no expense to the Government. The Executive Director reserves the right to remove and dispose of the headstone or marker and to mark the gravesite with a Government-furnished headstone or marker if the personal representative or primary next of kin fails to relocate the headstone or marker as requested by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(e) Separate headstones or markers may be constructed on a lot (two gravesites) for a service member and spouse, provided that each headstone or marker is set at the head of the gravesite after interment has been made.
</P>
<P>(f) At the time a headstone or marker is purchased, arrangements must be made with an appropriate commercial firm to ensure that additional inscriptions will be promptly inscribed following each succeeding interment in the gravesite. Foot markers must be authorized by the Executive Director and may only be authorized when there is no available space for an inscription on the front or rear of a private headstone.
</P>
<P>(g) Except as may be authorized for marking group burials, ledger monuments of freestanding cross design, narrow shafts, and mausoleums are prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 65877, Sept. 26, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 45408, Aug. 29, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.29" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.29   Permission to construct private headstones and markers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Headstone firms must receive permission from the Executive Director to construct a private headstone or marker for use in Army National Military Cemeteries or to add an inscription to an existing headstone or marker in an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for permission must be submitted to the Executive Director and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Written consent from the personal representative or primary next of kin;
</P>
<P>(2) Contact information for both the personal representative or primary next of kin and the headstone firm; and
</P>
<P>(3) A scale drawing (no less than 1:12) showing all dimensions, or a reproduction showing detailed specifications of design and proposed construction material, finishing, carving, lettering, exact inscription to appear on the headstone or marker, and a trademark or copyright designation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Army does not endorse headstone firms but grants permission for the construction of headstones or markers in individual cases.
</P>
<P>(d) When using sandblast equipment to add an inscription to an existing headstone or marker, headstone firms shall restore the surrounding grounds in a timely manner as determined by the Executive Director to the condition of the grounds before work began and at no expense to the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.30" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.30   Inscriptions on private headstones and markers.</HEAD>
<P>An appropriate inscription for the decedent will be placed on the headstone or marker in accordance with the dimensions of the stone and arranged in such a manner as to enhance the appearance of the stone. Additional inscriptions may be inscribed following each succeeding interment in the gravesite. All inscriptions will be in accordance with policies established by the Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.31" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.31   Memorial and commemorative monuments (other than private headstones or markers).</HEAD>
<P>The placement of memorials or commemorative monuments in Arlington National Cemetery will be carried out in accordance with 38 U.S.C. 2409(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.32" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.32   Conduct of memorial services and ceremonies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Executive Director shall ensure the sanctity of public and private memorial and ceremonial events.
</P>
<P>(b) All memorial services and ceremonies within Army National Military Cemeteries, other than official ceremonies, shall be purely memorial in purpose and may be dedicated only to:
</P>
<P>(1) The memory of all those interred, inurned, or memorialized in Army National Military Cemeteries;
</P>
<P>(2) The memory of all those who died in the military service of the United States while serving during a particular conflict or while serving in a particular military unit or units; or
</P>
<P>(3) The memory of the individual or individuals to be interred, inurned, or memorialized at the particular site at which the service or ceremony is held.
</P>
<P>(c) Memorial services and ceremonies at Army National Military Cemeteries will not include partisan political activities.
</P>
<P>(d) Private memorial services may be closed to the media and public as determined by the decedent's primary next of kin.
</P>
<P>(e) Public memorial services and public wreath-laying ceremonies shall be open to all members of the public to observe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.33" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.33   Visitors rules for Army National Military Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Visiting hours.</I> Visiting hours shall be established by the Executive Director and posted in conspicuous places. No visitor is permitted to enter or remain in an Army National Military Cemetery outside the established visiting hours.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Destruction or removal of property.</I> No person shall destroy, damage, mutilate, alter, or remove any monument, gravestone, niche cover, structure, tree, shrub, plant, or other property located within an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct within Army National Military Cemeteries.</I> Army National Military Cemeteries are a national shrine to the honored dead of the Armed Forces, and certain acts and activities, which may be appropriate elsewhere, are not appropriate in Army National Military Cemeteries. All visitors, including persons attending or taking part in memorial services and ceremonies, shall observe proper standards of decorum and decency while in an Army National Military Cemetery. Specifically, no person shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct any memorial service or ceremony within an Army National Military Cemetery without the prior approval of the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(2) Engage in demonstrations prohibited by 38 U.S.C. 2413.
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in any orations, speeches, or similar conduct to assembled groups of people, unless such actions are part of a memorial service or ceremony authorized by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(4) Display any placards, banners, flags, or similar devices within an Army National Military Cemetery, unless first approved by the Executive Director for use in an authorized memorial service or ceremony. This rule does not apply to clothing worn by visitors.
</P>
<P>(5) Distribute any handbill, pamphlet, leaflet, or other written or printed matter within an Army National Military Cemetery, except a program approved by the Executive Director to be provided to attendees of an authorized memorial service or ceremony.
</P>
<P>(6) Bring a dog, cat, or other animal (other than a service animal or military working dog) within an Army National Military Cemetery. This prohibition does not apply to persons living in quarters located on the grounds of the Army National Military Cemeteries.
</P>
<P>(7) Use the cemetery grounds for recreational activities (e.g., physical exercise, running, jogging, sports, or picnics).
</P>
<P>(8) Ride a bicycle or similar conveyance in an Army National Military Cemetery, except with a proper pass issued by the Executive Director to visit a gravesite or niche. An individual visiting a relative's gravesite or niche may be issued a temporary pass by the Executive Director to proceed directly to and from the gravesite or niche on a bicycle or similar vehicle or conveyance.
</P>
<P>(9) Operate a musical instrument, a loudspeaker, or an audio device without a headset within an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(10) Drive any motor vehicle within an Army National Military Cemetery in excess of the posted speed limit.
</P>
<P>(11) Park any motor vehicle in any area of an Army National Military Cemetery designated as a no-parking area.
</P>
<P>(12) Leave any vehicle in the Arlington National Cemetery Visitors' Center parking area or Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery visitors' parking area more than thirty minutes outside of established visiting hours or anywhere else in an Army National Military Cemetery outside of established visiting hours.
</P>
<P>(13) Consume or serve alcoholic beverages without prior written permission from the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(14) Possess firearms without prior written permission from the Executive Director. This prohibition does not apply to law enforcement and military personnel in the performance of their official duties. In accordance with locally established policy, military and law enforcement personnel may be required to obtain advance permission from the Executive Director of the Army National Military Cemeteries prior to possessing firearms on the property of an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(15) Deposit or throw litter or trash on the grounds of the Army National Military Cemeteries.
</P>
<P>(16) Engage in any disrespectful or disorderly conduct within an Army National Military Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Vehicular traffic.</I> All visitors, including persons attending or taking part in memorial services and ceremonies, will observe the following rules concerning motor vehicle traffic within Arlington National Cemetery:
</P>
<P>(1) Visitors arriving by car and not entitled to a vehicle pass pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section are required to park their vehicles in the Visitors' Center parking area or at a location outside of the cemetery.
</P>
<P>(2) Only the following categories of vehicles may be permitted access to Arlington National Cemetery roadways and issued a permanent or temporary pass from the Executive Director:
</P>
<P>(i) Official Government vehicles being used on official Government business.
</P>
<P>(ii) Vehicles carrying persons on official Cemetery business.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicles forming part of an authorized funeral procession and authorized to be part of that procession.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vehicles carrying persons visiting the Arlington National Cemetery gravesites, niches, or memorial areas of relatives or loved ones interred, inurned, or memorialized within Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(v) Arlington National Cemetery and National Park Service maintenance vehicles.
</P>
<P>(vi) Vehicles of contractors who are authorized to perform work within Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(vii) Concessionaire tour buses authorized by the Executive Director to operate in Arlington National Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(viii) Vehicles of employees of ANMC as authorized by the Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.34" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.34   Soliciting and vending.</HEAD>
<P>The display or distribution of commercial advertising to or solicitation of business from the public is strictly prohibited within an Army National Military Cemetery, except as authorized by the Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.35" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.1.11.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.35   Media.</HEAD>
<P>All officials and staff of the media are subject to the Visitors Rules enumerated in § 553.33 and shall comply with the Department of the Army's media policy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Army Post Cemeteries</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 45408, Aug. 29, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 553.36" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.36   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms have these meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Active duty.</I> Full-time duty in the active military service of the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) This includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Active Reserve component duty performed pursuant to title 10, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) Service as a cadet or midshipman currently on the rolls at the U.S. Military, U.S. Naval, U.S. Air Force, or U.S. Coast Guard Academies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Active duty for operational support.
</P>
<P>(2) This does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Full-time duty performed under title 32, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) Active duty for training, initial entry training, annual training duty, or inactive-duty training for members of the Reserve components.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty for operational support (formerly active duty for special work).</I> A tour of active duty for Reserve personnel authorized from military or Reserve personnel appropriations for work on Active component or Reserve component programs. The purpose of active duty for operational support is to provide the necessary skilled manpower assets to support existing or emerging requirements and may include training.
</P>
<P><I>Active duty for training.</I> A category of active duty used to provide structured individual and/or unit training, including on-the-job training, or educational courses to Reserve component members. The active duty for training category includes annual training, initial active duty for training, or any other training duty.
</P>
<P><I>Annual training.</I> The minimum period of active duty for training that Reserve members must perform each year to satisfy the training requirements associated with their Reserve component assignment.
</P>
<P><I>Armed Forces.</I> The U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Air Force and their Reserve components.
</P>
<P><I>Army Post Cemeteries.</I> Army Post Cemeteries consist of the 26 cemeteries on active Army installations, on Army reserve complexes, and on former Army installations or inactive posts. Army National Military Cemeteries are not included in Post Cemeteries. The West Point Cemetery is considered an Army Post Cemetery but has separate eligibility standards due to its unique stature. In addition to the 26 Post Cemeteries, there are 3 Apache Native American Prisoner of War Cemeteries on Fort Sill, Oklahoma and 5 World War II German and Italian Prisoner of War Cemeteries on four Army installations which are closed for interments but for which the Army bears responsibilities. Finally, there is the U.S. Army Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery at Fort Leavenworth used for interring the unclaimed remains of those who die while incarcerated by the United States Military. Unlike the other Army cemeteries which honor the Nation's veterans, this cemetery has unique eligibility standards due to the characterization of service of those criminally incarcerated.
</P>
<P><I>Cemetery Responsible Official.</I> An appointed official who serves as the primary point of contact and responsible official for all matters relating to the operation maintenance and administration of an Army cemetery. The appointee must be a U.S. Federal Government employee, DA civilian or military member and appointed on orders by the appropriate garrison commander or comparable official.
</P>
<P><I>Child, minor child, permanently dependent child, unmarried adult child</I>—(1) <I>Child.</I> (i) Natural child of a primarily eligible person, born in wedlock;
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural child of a female primarily eligible person, born out of wedlock;
</P>
<P>(iii) Natural child of a male primarily eligible person, who was born out of wedlock and:
</P>
<P>(A) Has been acknowledged in a writing signed by the male primarily eligible person;
</P>
<P>(B) Has been judicially determined to be the male primarily eligible person's child;
</P>
<P>(C) Whom the male primarily eligible person has been judicially ordered to support; or
</P>
<P>(D) Has been otherwise proven, by evidence satisfactory to the Executive Director, to be the child of the male primarily eligible person;
</P>
<P>(iv) Adopted child of a primarily eligible person; or
</P>
<P>(v) Stepchild who was part of the primarily eligible person's household at the time of death of the individual who is to be interred or inurned.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minor child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is under the age of twenty-one years, or is under the age of twenty-three years and is taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permanently dependent child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is permanently and fully dependent on one or both of the child's parents because of a physical or mental disability incurred before attaining the age of twenty-one years or before the age of twenty-three years while taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unmarried adult child.</I> A child of the primarily eligible person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is unmarried;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has attained the age of twenty-one years.
</P>
<P><I>Close relative.</I> The spouse, parents, adult brothers and sisters, adult natural children, adult stepchildren, and adult adopted children of a decedent.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatively eligible person.</I> Any person who is entitled to interment or inurnment solely based on his or her relationship to a primarily eligible person, as set forth in §§ 553.43 through 553.45.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Director.</I> The person charged by the Secretary of the Army to serve as the functional proponent for policies and procedures pertaining to the administration, operation, and maintenance of all military cemeteries under the jurisdiction of the Army.
</P>
<P><I>Federal capital crime.</I> An offense under Federal law for which a sentence of imprisonment for life or the death penalty may be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Former spouse.</I> See <I>spouse.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Government.</I> The U.S. Government and its agencies and instrumentalities.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive-duty training.</I> (1) Duty prescribed for members of the Reserve components by the Secretary concerned under 37 U.S.C. 206 or any other provision of law.
</P>
<P>(2) Special additional duties authorized for members of the Reserve components by an authority designated by the Secretary concerned and performed by them on a voluntary basis in connection with the prescribed training or maintenance activities of the units to which they are assigned.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard of any State, duty (other than full-time duty) under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504 or 505 or the prior corresponding provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(4) This term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Work or study performed in connection with correspondence courses;
</P>
<P>(ii) Attendance at an educational institution in an inactive status; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Duty performed as a temporary member of the Coast Guard Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Interment.</I> The ground burial of casketed or cremated human remains.
</P>
<P><I>Inurnment.</I> The placement of cremated human remains in a niche.
</P>
<P><I>Media.</I> Individuals and agencies that print, broadcast, or gather and transmit news, and their reporters, photographers, and employees.
</P>
<P><I>Minor child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Niche.</I> An above ground space constructed specifically for the placement of cremated human remains.
</P>
<P><I>Parent.</I> A natural parent, a stepparent, a parent by adoption, or a person who for a period of not less than one year stood <I>in loco parentis,</I> or was granted legal custody by a court decree or statutory provision.
</P>
<P><I>Permanently dependent child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Person authorized to direct disposition.</I> The person primarily entitled to direct disposition of human remains and who elects to exercise that entitlement. Determination of such entitlement shall be made in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Personal representative.</I> A person who has legal authority to act on behalf of another through applicable law, order, and regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Primarily eligible person.</I> Any person who is entitled to interment or inurnment based on his or her service as specified in §§ 553.39 through 553.41.
</P>
<P><I>Primary next of kin.</I> (1) In the absence of a valid written document from the decedent identifying the primary next of kin, the order of precedence for designating a decedent's primary next of kin is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, even if a minor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Children;
</P>
<P>(iii) Parents;
</P>
<P>(iv) Siblings, to include half-blood and those acquired through adoption;
</P>
<P>(v) Grandparents; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Other next of kin, in order of relationship to the decedent as determined by the laws of the decedent's state of domicile.
</P>
<P>(2) Absent a court order or written document from the deceased, the precedence of next of kin with equal relationships to the decedent is governed by seniority (age), older having higher priority than younger. Equal relationship situations include those involving divorced parents of the decedent, children of the decedent, and siblings of the decedent.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve component.</I> The Army Reserve, the Navy Reserve, the Marine Corps Reserve, the Air Force Reserve, the Coast Guard Reserve, the Army National Guard of the United States, and the Air National Guard of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse, former spouse, subsequently remarried spouse</I>—(1) <I>Spouse.</I> A person who is legally married to another person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Former spouse.</I> A person who was legally married to another person at one time but was not legally married to that person at the time of one of their deaths.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsequently remarried spouse.</I> A derivatively eligible spouse who was married to the primarily eligible person at the time of the primarily eligible person's death and who subsequently remarried another person.
</P>
<P><I>State capital crime.</I> Under State law, the willful, deliberate, or premeditated unlawful killing of another human being for which a sentence of imprisonment for life or the death penalty may be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Subsequently recovered remains.</I> Additional remains belonging to the decedent that are recovered or identified after the decedent's interment or inurnment.
</P>
<P><I>Subsequently remarried spouse.</I> See <I>spouse.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Subversive activity.</I> Actions constituting subversive activity are those defined in applicable provisions of Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Unmarried adult child.</I> See <I>child.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Veteran.</I> A person who served in the U.S. Armed Forces and who was discharged or released under honorable conditions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.37" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.37   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart specifies the eligibility for interment and inurnment in the twenty-five Army Post Cemeteries, the West Point Post Cemetery, NY and the U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery at Fort Leavenworth, KS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.38" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.38   Statutory authorities.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory authorities for this subpart are Public Law 93-43 Stat 87, 10 U.S.C. 985, 1481, 1482, 3013, and 38 U.S.C. 2411.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.39" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.39   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The development, maintenance, administration, and operation of the Army Post Cemeteries are governed by this subpart, Army Regulation 290-5, and Department of the Army Pamphlet 290-5. The development, maintenance, administration, and operation of Army National Military Cemeteries are not covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart is applicable to all persons seeking interment or inurnment in Army Post Cemeteries.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.40" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.40   Assignment of gravesites or niches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All eligible persons will be assigned gravesites or niches without discrimination as to race, color, sex, religion, age, or national origin and without preference to military grade or rank.
</P>
<P>(b) Army Cemeteries will enforce a one-gravesite-per-family policy. Once the initial interment or inurnment is made in a gravesite or niche, each additional interment or inurnment of eligible persons must be made in the same gravesite or niche, except as noted in paragraph (f) of this section. This includes multiple primarily eligible persons if they are married to each other.
</P>
<P>(c) A gravesite reservation will be honored if the gravesite was properly reserved before May 1, 1975.
</P>
<P>(d) The commander responsible for an Army Cemetery may cancel a gravesite reservation:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon determination that a derivatively eligible spouse has remarried;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon determination that the remains of the person having the gravesite reservation have been buried elsewhere or otherwise disposed of;
</P>
<P>(3) Upon determination that the person having the gravesite reservation desires to or will be interred in the same gravesite with the predeceased, and doing so is feasible; or
</P>
<P>(4) Upon determination that the person having the gravesite reservation would be 120 years of age and there is no record of correspondence with the person having the gravesite reservation within the last two decades.
</P>
<P>(e) In cases of reservations where more than one gravesite was reserved (on the basis of the veteran's eligibility at the time the reservation was made), the gravesite reservations will be honored only if the decedents continue to meet the eligibility criteria for interment in Army Post Cemeteries that is in effect at the time of need, and the reserved gravesite is available.
</P>
<P>(f) Gravesites or niches shall not be reserved or assigned prior to the time of need.
</P>
<P>(g) The selection of gravesites and niches is the responsibility of the Cemetery Responsible Official. The selection of specific gravesites or niches by the family or other representatives of the deceased at any time is prohibited.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.41" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.41   Proof of eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The personal representative or primary next of kin is responsible for providing appropriate documentation to verify the decedent's eligibility for interment or inurnment.
</P>
<P>(b) The personal representative or primary next of kin must certify in writing that the decedent is not prohibited from interment or inurnment under § 553.46 because he or she has not committed or has not been convicted of a Federal or State capital crime or is not a convicted Tier III sex offender.
</P>
<P>(c) For service members who die on active duty, a statement of honorable service from a general court martial convening authority is required. If the certificate of honorable service cannot be granted, the service member is ineligible for interment or inurnment pursuant to § 553.46(b).
</P>
<P>(d) When applicable, the following documents are required:
</P>
<P>(1) Death certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) Proof of eligibility as required by paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional documentation to establish the decedent's eligibility (<I>e.g.,</I> marriage certificate, birth certificate, waivers, statements that the decedent had no children);
</P>
<P>(4) Burial agreement;
</P>
<P>(5) A certificate of cremation or notarized statement attesting to the authenticity of the cremated human remains and that 100% of the cremated remains received from the crematorium are present. The Cemetery Responsible Official may, however, allow a portion of the cremated remains to be removed by the crematorium for the sole purpose of producing commemorative items.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other document as required by the Cemetery Responsible Official.
</P>
<P>(e) The following documents may be used to establish the eligibility of a primarily eligible person:
</P>
<P>(1) DD Form 214 (issued by all military services since January 1, 1950), Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty or any other DD Form that shows service or discharge information);
</P>
<P>(2) WD AGO 53, 55 or 53-55, Enlisted Record and Report of Separation Honorable Discharge;
</P>
<P>(3) WD AGO 53-98, Military Record and Report of Separation Certificate of Service or any other WD AGO/AGO Form that shows service or discharge information;
</P>
<P>(4) NGB 22, Report of Separation and Record of Service, Departments of the Army and the Air Force, National Guard Bureau (must indicate a minimum of 20 years total service for pay);
</P>
<P>(5) ADJ 545, Discharge Certificate or Army DS ODF, Honorable Discharge from the United States Army;
</P>
<P>(6) Bureau of Investigation No. 6, 53 or 118, Discharge Certificate or Bureau of Investigation No. 213, Discharge from U.S. Naval Reserve Force;
</P>
<P>(7) VA Adjudication 545, Summary of Record of Active Service or any other VA/GSA/NAR/NA Form that shows service or discharge information;
</P>
<P>(8) NAVPERS-553, Notice of Separation from U.S. Naval Service;
</P>
<P>(9) NAVMC 70-PD, Honorable Discharge, U.S. Marine Corps or any other NAVPERS/NAVCG/NAVMC/NMC/Form No. 6 U.S.N./Navy (no number) Form that shows service or discharge information; or
</P>
<P>(10) DD Form 1300, Report of Casualty (required in the case of death of an active duty service member).
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a subsequently remarried spouse must be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A notarized statement from the new spouse of the subsequently remarried spouse agreeing to the interment or inurnment and relinquishing any claim for interment or inurnment in the same gravesite or niche.
</P>
<P>(2) Notarized statement(s) from all of the children from the prior marriage agreeing to the interment or inurnment of their parents in the same gravesite or niche.
</P>
<P>(g) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a permanently dependent child must be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A notarized statement as to the marital status and degree of dependency of the decedent from an individual with direct knowledge; and
</P>
<P>(2) A physician's statement regarding the nature and duration of the physical or mental disability; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement from someone with direct knowledge demonstrating the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The deceased lived most of his or her adult life with one or either parents, one or both of whom are otherwise eligible for interment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The decedent's children, siblings, or other family members, other than the eligible parent, waive any derivative claim to be interred at the Army Post Cemetery in question, in accordance with DA Form 2386 (Agreement for Interment).
</P>
<P>(h) Veterans or primary next of kin of deceased veterans may obtain copies of their military records by writing to the National Personnel Records Center, Attention: Military Personnel Records, 1 Archives Drive, St. Louis, Missouri 63138 or using their website: <I>http://www.archives.gov/veterans/.</I> All others may request a record by completing and submitting Standard Form 180.
</P>
<P>(i) The burden of proving eligibility lies with the party who requests the burial. Commanders of these cemeteries or their Cemetery Responsible Officials will determine whether the submitted evidence is sufficient to support a finding of eligibility.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.42" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.42   General rules governing eligibility for interment or inurnment in Army Post Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.43 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.49 may be interred in the twenty-five Army Post Cemeteries. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.44 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.49 may be interred or inurned in the West Point Cemetery. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.45 may be interred in the U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(b) Derivative eligibility for interment or inurnment may be established only through a decedent's connection to a primarily eligible person and not to another derivatively eligible person.
</P>
<P>(c) No veteran is eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army Post Cemetery (except for the U.S. Disciplinary Cemetery) unless the veteran's last period of active duty ended with an honorable discharge. A general discharge under honorable conditions is not sufficient for interment, inurnment or memorialization in an Army Post Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of determining whether a service member has received an honorable discharge, final determinations regarding discharges made in accordance with procedures established by chapter 79 of title 10, United States Code, will be considered authoritative.
</P>
<P>(e) The Executive Director has the authority to act on requests for exceptions to the provisions of the interment, inurnment, and memorialization eligibility policies contained in this subpart. The Executive Director may delegate this authority on such terms deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Individuals who do not qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person, but who are granted an exception to policy to be interred or inurned pursuant to § 553.49 in a new gravesite or niche, will be treated as a primarily eligible person for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) Notwithstanding any other section in this subpart, memorialization with an individual memorial marker, interment, or inurnment in an Army Post Cemetery is prohibited if there is a gravesite, niche, or individual memorial marker for the decedent in any other Government-operated cemetery or the Government has provided an individual grave marker, individual memorial marker or niche cover for placement in a private cemetery.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.43" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.43   Eligibility for interment and inurnment in Army Post Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>Only those who qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person are eligible for interment and inurnment in Army Post Cemeteries (except for the West Point Cemetery), unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.46 through 553.48, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primarily eligible persons.</I> The following are primarily eligible persons for purposes of interment:
</P>
<P>(1) Any service member who dies on active duty in the U.S. Armed Forces (except those service members serving on active duty for training only), if the General Courts Martial Convening Authority grants a certificate of honorable service.
</P>
<P>(2) Any veteran retired from a Reserve component who served a period of active duty (other than for training), is carried on the official retired list, and is entitled to receive military retired pay.
</P>
<P>(3) Any veteran retired from active military service and entitled to receive military retired pay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivatively eligible persons.</I> The following individuals are derivatively eligible persons for purposes of interment who may be interred if space is available in the gravesite of the primarily eligible person:
</P>
<P>(1) The spouse of a primarily eligible person who is or will be interred in an Army Post Cemetery in the same grave as the spouse. A former spouse of a primarily eligible person is not eligible for interment in an Army Post Cemetery under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A subsequently remarried spouse of a primarily eligible person who is remarried at the time of need, provided that there are no children from any subsequent marriage; that all children from the prior marriage to the primarily eligible person agree to the interment and relinquish any claim for interment in the same gravesite in a notarized statement(s); and that the new spouse, if still living and married to the subsequently remarried spouse, agrees to the interment and relinquishes any claim for interment. The Cemetery Responsible Official may cancel the subsequently remarried spouse's gravesite reservation, if any, consistent with § 553.40, and place the subsequently remarried spouse's remains in the same gravesite as the primarily eligible person.
</P>
<P>(3) The spouse of an active duty service member or an eligible veteran, who was:
</P>
<P>(i) Lost or buried at sea, temporarily interred overseas due to action by the Government, or officially determined to be missing in action;
</P>
<P>(ii) Buried in a U.S. military cemetery maintained by the American Battle Monuments Commission; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Interred in Arlington National Cemetery as part of a group burial (the derivatively eligible spouse may not be buried in the group burial gravesite) and the active duty service member does not have a separate individual interment or inurnment location.
</P>
<P>(4) A minor child or permanently dependent adult child of a primarily eligible person who is or will be interred in an Army Post Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(5) The parents of a minor child or a permanently dependent adult child, whose remains were interred in an Army Post Cemetery based on the eligibility of a parent at the time of the child's death, unless eligibility of a parent is lost through divorce from the primarily eligible parent.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.44" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.44   Eligibility for interment and inurnment in the West Point Post Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are eligible for interment and inurnment in the West Point Post Cemetery, unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.46 through 553.48, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge or characterization of honorable service for active duty deaths.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primarily eligible persons for interment or inurnment.</I> The following are primarily eligible persons for purposes of interment or inurnment:
</P>
<P>(1) A graduate of the USMA, provided the individual was a U.S. citizen, both as a cadet and at the time of death, and whose military service fulfilled one of the following criteria.
</P>
<P>(i) The graduate's service in the Armed Forces of the United States, if any, terminated honorably.
</P>
<P>(ii) The graduate's service in wartime in the Armed Forces of a nation that was allied with the United States during the war terminated honorably.
</P>
<P>(2) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States, including USMA cadets, who were on active duty at the USMA at time of death and their derivatively eligible person dependents who may have died while the service member was on active duty at the USMA.
</P>
<P>(3) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States who were on active duty at the USMA at time of retirement.
</P>
<P>(4) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States whose last active duty station prior to retirement for physical disability was the USMA. However, personnel (not otherwise eligible) who are transferred to the Medical Holding Detachment, Keller Army Hospital, for medical boarding or medical disability retirement are not, regardless of length of time, eligible for interment or inurnment in the West Point Cemetery or Columbarium.
</P>
<P>(5) Officers appointed as Professors, USMA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivatively eligible persons.</I> Derivatively eligible persons are those connected to an individual described in paragraph (a) of this section through a relationship described in § 553.43(b). Such individuals may be interred or inurned if space is available in the primarily eligible person's gravesite or niche.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary restrictions.</I> The Secretary of the Army or his designee may, in special circumstances, impose temporary restrictions on the eligibility standards for the USMA cemetery. If temporary restrictions are imposed, they will be reviewed annually to ensure the special circumstances remain valid for retaining the temporary restrictions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.45" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.45   Eligibility for interment in U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery at Fort Leavenworth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military prisoners who die while in Military custody and are not claimed by the person authorized to direct disposition of remains or other persons legally authorized to dispose of remains are permitted to be interred in the U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery. All decisions for interment in the U.S.D.B. Cemetery will be made by the Executive Director, ANMC.
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons approved by the Executive Director.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.46" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.46   Ineligibility for interment, inurnment or memorialization in an Army Post Cemetery.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are not eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army Post Cemetery:
</P>
<P>(a) A father, mother, brother, sister, or in-law solely on the basis of his or her relationship to a primarily eligible person, even though the individual is:
</P>
<P>(1) Dependent on the primarily eligible person for support; or
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the primarily eligible person's household.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for the U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery in § 553.45, a person whose last period of service was not characterized as an honorable discharge (<I>e.g.,</I> a separation or discharge under general but honorable conditions, other than honorable conditions, a bad conduct discharge, a dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal), regardless of whether the person:
</P>
<P>(1) Received any other veterans' benefits; or
</P>
<P>(2) Was treated at a Department of Veterans Affairs hospital or died in such a hospital.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who has volunteered for service with the U.S. Armed Forces, but has not yet entered on active duty.
</P>
<P>(d) A former spouse whose marriage to the primarily eligible person ended in divorce.
</P>
<P>(e) A spouse who predeceases the primarily eligible person and is interred or inurned in a location other than an Army Cemetery, and the primarily eligible person remarries.
</P>
<P>(f) A divorced spouse of a primarily eligible person or the service-connected parent when the divorced spouse has a child interred or inurned in an Army Cemetery under the child's derivative eligibility.
</P>
<P>(g) Otherwise derivatively eligible persons, such as a spouse or minor child, if the primarily eligible person was not or will not be interred or inurned at an Army Cemetery.
</P>
<P>(h) A person convicted in a Federal court or by a court-martial of any offense involving subversive activity or an offense described in 18 U.S.C. 1751 (except for military prisoners at the U.S. Disciplinary Barracks Cemetery).
</P>
<P>(i) A service member who dies while on active duty, if the first General Courts Martial Convening Authority in the service member's chain of command determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that the service member engaged in conduct that would have resulted in a separation or discharge not characterized as an honorable discharge (<I>e.g.,</I> a separation or discharge under general but honorable conditions, other than honorable conditions, a bad conduct discharge, a dishonorable discharge, or a dismissal) being imposed, but for the death of the service member.
</P>
<P>(j) If animal remains are unintentionally commingled with human remains due to a natural disaster, unforeseen accident, act of war or terrorism, violent explosion, or similar incident, and such remains cannot be separated from the remains of an eligible person, then the remains may be interred or inurned with the eligible person, but the identity of the animal remains shall not be inscribed or identified on a niche, marker, headstone, or otherwise.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.47" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.47   Prohibition of interment, inurnment or memorialization in an Army Cemetery of persons who have committed certain crimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> Notwithstanding §§ 553.43 through 553.45, and pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 985 and 38 U.S.C. 2411, the interment or inurnment in an Army Cemetery of any of the following persons is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States, prior to his or her interment or inurnment as a person who has been convicted of a Federal capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President).
</P>
<P>(2) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment or inurnment as a person who has been convicted of a State capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the Governor of the State).
</P>
<P>(3) Any person found under procedures specified in § 553.48 to have committed a Federal or State capital crime, but who has not been convicted of such crime by reason of such person not being available for trial due to death or flight to avoid prosecution. Notice from officials is not required for this prohibition to apply.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States or by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment or inurnment as a person who has been convicted of a Federal or State crime causing the person to be a Tier III sex offender for purposes of the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act, who for such crime is sentenced to a minimum of life imprisonment and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President or the Governor of a State, as the case may be).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> The Executive Director is designated as the Secretary of the Army's representative authorized to receive from the appropriate Federal or State officials notification of conviction of capital crimes referred to in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confirmation of person's eligibility.</I> (1) If notice has not been received, but the Executive Director has reason to believe that the person may have been convicted of a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime, the Executive Director shall seek written confirmation from:
</P>
<P>(i) The Attorney General of the United States, with respect to a suspected Federal capital crime; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate State official, with respect to a suspected State capital crime.
</P>
<P>(2) The Executive Director will defer the decision on whether to inter, inurn, or memorialize a decedent until a written response is received.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due diligence.</I> Army Post Cemetery Superintendents and Commanders who have cemeteries for which they are responsible will make every effort to determine if the decedent is ineligible in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 985 and 38 U.S.C. 2411. For those determined ineligible due to the provisions of these sections, commanders will submit their determinations in writing to the Executive Director for validation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.48" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.48   Findings concerning the commission of certain crimes where a person has not been convicted due to death or flight to avoid prosecution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary inquiry.</I> If the Executive Director has reason to believe that a decedent may have committed a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime but has not been convicted of such crime by reason of such person not being available for trial due to death or flight to avoid prosecution, the Executive Director shall submit the issue to the Army General Counsel. The Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall initiate a preliminary inquiry seeking information from Federal, State, or local law enforcement officials, or other sources of potentially relevant information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision after preliminary inquiry.</I> If, after conducting the preliminary inquiry described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Army General Counsel or designee determines that credible evidence exists suggesting the decedent may have committed a Federal capital crime or State capital crime, then further proceedings under this section are warranted to determine whether the decedent committed such crime. Consequently the Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall present the personal representative with a written notification of such preliminary determination and a dated, written notice of the personal representative's procedural options.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and procedural options.</I> The notice of procedural options shall indicate that, within fifteen days, the personal representative may:
</P>
<P>(1) Request a hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Withdraw the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization; or
</P>
<P>(3) Do nothing, in which case the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization will be considered to have been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time computation.</I> The fifteen-day time period begins on the calendar day immediately following the earlier of the day the notice of procedural options is delivered in person to the personal representative or is sent by U.S. registered mail or, if available, by electronic means to the personal representative. It ends at midnight on the fifteenth day. The period includes weekends and holidays.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hearing.</I> The purpose of the hearing is to allow the personal representative to present additional information regarding whether the decedent committed a Federal capital crime or a State capital crime. In lieu of making a personal appearance at the hearing, the personal representative may submit relevant documents for consideration.
</P>
<P>(1) If a hearing is requested, the Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing shall be conducted in an informal manner.
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of evidence shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(4) The personal representative and witnesses may appear, at no expense to the Government, and shall, at the discretion of the hearing officer, testify under oath. Oaths must be administered by a person who possesses the legal authority to administer oaths.
</P>
<P>(5) The Army General Counsel or designee shall consider any and all relevant information obtained.
</P>
<P>(6) The hearing shall be appropriately recorded. Upon request, a copy of the record shall be provided to the personal representative.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final determination.</I> After considering the hearing officer's report, the opinion of the Army General Counsel or his or her designee, and any additional information submitted by the personal representative, the Secretary of the Army or his or her designee shall determine the decedent's eligibility for interment, inurnment, or memorialization. This determination is final and not appealable.
</P>
<P>(1) The determination shall be based on evidence that supports or undermines a conclusion that the decedent's actions satisfied the elements of the crime as established by the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
</P>
<P>(2) If an affirmative defense is offered by the decedent's personal representative, a determination as to whether the defense was met shall be made according to the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
</P>
<P>(3) Mitigating evidence shall not be considered.
</P>
<P>(4) The opinion of the local, State, or Federal prosecutor as to whether he or she would have brought charges against the decedent had the decedent been available is relevant but not binding and shall be given no more weight than other facts presented.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of decision.</I> The Executive Director shall provide written notification of the Secretary's decision to the personal representative.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.49" NODE="32:3.1.1.4.11.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.49   Exceptions to policies for interment or inurnment at Army Post Cemeteries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for exceptions to policy will be made to the Executive Director, Army National Military Cemeteries.
</P>
<P>(b) Eligibility standards for interment and inurnment are based on honorable military service. Exceptions to the eligibility standards are rarely granted. When granted, exceptions are for those persons who have made significant contributions that directly and substantially benefited the U.S. military.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for an exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies shall be considered only after the individual's death.
</P>
<P>(d) Procedures for submitting requests for exceptions to policy for interment and inurnment will be established by the Executive Director, Army National Military Cemeteries.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E" NODE="32:3.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—ORGANIZED RESERVES 




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="564" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 564—NATIONAL GUARD REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 110, 70A Stat. 600; 32 U.S.C. 110.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="11" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Medical Attendance and Burial</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 564.37 through 564.41 appear at 44 FR 16385, Mar. 19, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 564.37" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.37   Medical care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) General. The definitions of medical care; policies outlining the manner, conditions, procedures, and eligibility for care; and the sources from which medical care is obtained are enumerated in AR 40-3. 
</P>
<P>(b) Elective care. Elective care in civilian medical treatment facilities or by civilian medical and dental personnel is not authorized. The medical care authorized by this regulation is limited to that necessary for the treatment of the disease or injury incurred under the conditions outlined herein. 
</P>
<P>(c) Prosthetic devices, prosthetic dental appliances, hearing aids, spectacles, orthopedic footwear, and orthopedic appliances. These items will be furnished— 
</P>
<P>(1) By Army medical facilities. (i) When required in the course of treatment of a disease or injury contracted or incurred in line of duty. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When required to replace items that have been lost, damaged, or destroyed while engaged in training under sections 502-505 of title 32, U.S.C., not the result of negligence or misconduct of the individual concerned. 
</P>
<P>(2) By civilian sources. (i) Under the circumstances enumerated in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, after approval of the United States Property and Fiscal Officer's (USPFO) of the respective States. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the circumstances enumerated in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, in the case of prosthetic devices, prosthetic dental appliances, hearing aids, orthopedic footwear, and orthopedic appliances when the unit commander determines that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Member is far removed from a Federal medical treatment facility. 
</P>
<P>(B) Lack of such device would interfere with the individual's performance of duty as a member of the ARNG. 
</P>
<P>(C) Approval must be obtained from the USPFO's of the respective States prior to replacement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the circumstances enumerated in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, in the case of spectacles upon a determination by the unit commander that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The member is far removed from military medical treatment facility. 
</P>
<P>(B) The member has no other serviceable spectacles. 
</P>
<P>(C) Lack of a suitable pair of spectacles would interfere with the member's performance of duty as a member of the ARNG. 
</P>
<P>(D) Charges for replacement of spectacles will not exceed the rates stated in AR 40-330. Charges for replacement or repair by civilian sources over and above the allowable rates will be paid from the individual's personal funds. 
</P>
<P>(E) In cases covered by paragraphs (c)(2) (ii) and (iii) of this section, the unit commander will furnish a statement to support the voucher as follows:
</P>
<P>Statement
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Name____________, Rank____________, SSN____________, ________________________, ____________, while engaged in training under section *(502 *(503) *(504) *(505) of title 32, United States Code sustained the *(loss) *(damage) *(destruction) of his/her spectacles ________________________, description of loss, damage or destruction (type of lens and frames) not the result of misconduct or negligence on his/her part. The *(repair) *(replacement) would interfere with his/her performance of duty as a member of the Army National Guard. Date,____________, signature of unit commander____________.
</P>
<P>*Indicate applicable portions.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(F) Approval must be obtained from the USPFO of the respective State prior to repair or replacement of spectacles. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(32 U.S.C. 318-320 and 502-505)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.38" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.38   For whom authorized.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In line of duty. Medical care is authorized for members who incur a disease or injury in line of duty under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) When a disease is contracted or injury is incurred while enroute to, from, or during any type of training or duty under sections 503, 504, 505, and for Guardmembers on orders for over 30 days performing duty under section 502f of title 32, U.S.C. Such training includes, but is not limited to annual training, maneuvers and field exercises, service schools, small arms meets, and FTTD under aforementioned sections. 
</P>
<P>(2) When an injury is incurred while engaged in any type of training under section 502 of title 32, U.S.C. Such training includes, but is not limited to, unit training assembly, multiple unit training assembly, and training in aerial flight, other than FTTD under 502f. 
</P>
<P>(3) While not on duty and while voluntarily participating in aerial flights in Government-owned aircraft under proper authority and incident to training. Guardmembers are authorized medical and dental care required as the result of an injury incurred in line of duty. 
</P>
<P>(4) Medical care is not authorized at Army expense for members who incur an injury while enroute to or from any type of training under section 502, except for Guardmembers ordered to perform duty for over 30 days under section 502f of title 32, U.S.C. Line of duty investigations and authorization for any medical treatment for conditions incurred while the members were performing Reserve Enlistment Program of 1963 (REP 63) training in a Federal status, or training under title 10, U.S.C. are the responsibility of the Army Area commander under whose jurisdiction the member was training, even though the individual may have returned to his/her National Guard status. 
</P>
<P>(b) Not in line of duty. Members who incur an injury or contract a disease during any type of training or duty under sections 502f, 503, 504, or 505 of title 32, U.S.C., when it is determined to be not in line of duty, may be furnished medical care at Army expense during the period of training. 
</P>
<P>(c) Armory drill status. Members who incur an injury while in an armory drill status under section 502 of title 32, U.S.C., when it is determined to be not in line of duty, may not be furnished medical care at Army expense. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(32 U.S.C. 318-320 and 502-505)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.39" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.39   Medical care benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the ARNG who incurs a disease or injury under the conditions enumerated herein is entitled to medical care, in a hospital or at his/her home, appropriate for the treatment of his/her disease or injury until the resulting disability cannot be materially improved by further medical care. 
</P>
<P>(b) If it is determined that the disease or injury was directly related to authorized activities surrounding the care of the original disease or injury, medical care may be continued in the same manner as if it had occurred during the training period. 
</P>
<P>(c) When members who incur a disease or an injury during a period of training or duty under title 32, U.S.C. 503, 504, 505, or 502f are admitted to an Army medical treatment facility, and it appears that a finding of “not in line of duty” may be appropriate, a formal line of duty investigation should be promptly conducted, and a copy of the report furnished the treatment facility. If these findings result in a “not in line of duty” determination prior to the date the training is terminated, every effort should be made to assist the hospital concerned in disposing of the patient from the hospital by the date the training is terminated or as soon thereafter as he/she becomes transportable. Medical care furnished such member after the termination of the period of training is not authorized at Army expense unless the “not in line of duty” determination is ultimately reversed. The individual may be furnished medical care at Army expense from the date the training is terminated to the date the member receives notification of this action. Medical care received subsequent to the member's receipt of such notification is not authorized at Army expense. In the event a line of duty investigation has not been made by the date the training is terminated, every effort will be made to arrive at a determination as soon thereafter as possible. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(32 U.S.C. 318-320 and 502-505)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.40" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.40   Procedures for obtaining medical care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a member of the ARNG incurs a disease or an injury, while performing training duty under sections 502-505 of title 32, U.S.C., he/she will, without delay, report the fact to his/her unit commander. Each member will be informed that it is his/her responsibility to comply with these instructions, and that failure to promptly report the occurrence of a disease or injury may result in the loss of medical benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) Authorization for care in civilian facility. (1) An individual who desires medical or dental care in civilian medical treatment facilities at Federal expense is not authorized such care without written or verbal authorization by the Chief, National Guard Bureau or his/her designee, except in an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(2) When medical care is obtained without prior authorization, the details will be submitted to NGB-ARS as soon as practicable. The notification of medical care will be made following the format in the appendix. The notification will be reviewed by NGB-ARS and replied to as deemed appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) Status while undergoing hospitalization. The ARNG status of an individual is not affected by virtue of his hospitalization. The provisions of AR 135-200 will apply. Determination of requirement for continued hospitalization will be made by the MTF commander. Paragraph (d) of this section will apply when a final “not in line of duty” determination has been made. Under no condition will an individual be assigned to the medical holding unit of a hospital. 
</P>
<P>(d) Disposition of hospitalized cases. When it is determined that a hospitalized ARNG member has obtained the maximum benefits from hospitalization and there is no disability remaining from the condition for which hospitalized, he/she will be returned to his/her duty station or, if none, to his/her home of record at the time of entry into the hospital. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix 
</HD1>
<HD1>notification of injury 
</HD1>
<P>Date ____________ 
</P>
<FP>SUBJECT: Notification of Medical Care and/or Hospitalized Beyond the End of Training Periods. 
</FP>
<FP>THRU: The Adjutant General State of ________. 
</FP>
<FP>TO: NGB-ARS, Washington, DC 20310.
</FP>
<P>In accordance with paragraph 8, NGR 40-3, notification of medical care is furnished below:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>SSN: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Grade: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Parent unit and station: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Type and inclusive dates of training: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date and place of incident: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Diagnosis: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>LOD status: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name and distance of nearest Federal medical facility: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name and address of medical facilities utilized: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Estimated cost and duration of treatment: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Summary of incident: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH></FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(32 U.S.C. 318-320 and 502-505)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.41" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.41   Burial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to provide policies and designate responsibilities for the care and disposition of remains of members of the Army National Guard entitled to burial at Federal expense. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> Act of 10 August 1956 (70A Stat. 112) as amended, title 10 U.S.C., sections 1481 through 1488, applicable to military personnel and their dependents. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policy.</I> The provisions of AR 638-40 are applicable to battalion and higher level units of the Army National Guard, except as modified herein. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (1) The Chief, National Guard Bureau is responsible for prescribing procedures for the care and disposition of remains of members of the ARNG who die while—
</P>
<P>(i) Performing full-time training at other than an Active Army installation under sections 316, 502, 503, 504, and 505, title 32, U.S.C. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from training outlined in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Being hospitalized or undergoing treatment at Government expense for an injury incurred or disease contracted while performing duty indicated in paragraphs (d)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performing inactive duty training (IDT) under section 502, title 32, U.S.C. (It is to be noted that present law does not provide for payment of burial expenses from Federal funds for ARNG personnel killed while traveling to or from IDT.) 
</P>
<P>(2) Active Army installations are responsible for the care and disposition of remains of members of the National Guard who die while—
</P>
<P>(i) Performing active duty for training under title 10 and training or other full-time training duty at an Active Army installation under sections 502, 503, 504, and 505, title 32, U.S.C. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from training specified in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Being hospitalized or receiving treatment at Government expense as a result of injury incurred or disease contracted while performing duty indicated in paragraphs (d)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) State adjutants general are responsible for notification of death in accordance with chapter 10, AR 600-10. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitation of burial expense.</I> Payment of burial expenses is limited to an amount not exceeding that allowed by the Government for such services and in no circumstances may payment exceed the amount actually expended. The amount allowed when relatives incur the expenses will be in accordance with the following limitation: 
</P>
<P>(1) If death occurs where a properly approved Contract for Care of Remains is in force (Army, Navy, or Air Force contracts), the amount to be allowed for each item will not exceed the amount allowable under such contract. 
</P>
<P>(2) If death occurs where no contract is in force, reimbursement for items or services, including preparation and casketing will be limited to the stipulated amount included in chapter 4, AR 638-40. 
</P>
<P>(3) Reimbursement for transportation will be limited to the amount for which the Government could have obtained required common carrier transportation plus the change made for hearse servce from the common carrier terminal to the first place of delivery. 
</P>
<P>(4) Reimbursement for interment expenses is limited to the amounts provided in chapter 13, AR 638-40. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accountability for clothing.</I> (1) If in a serviceable condition, the uniform in possession of the deceased will be used and accountability dropped in accordance with NGR 710-2. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a serviceable uniform is not in possession of the deceased, a request for issue of required items will be prepared. Accountability and responsibility for items issued will be terminated by the responsible officer upon execution of a statement on DA Form 3078 or 3345, substantially as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The items of clothing enumerated above were issued to clothe the remains of __________ for funeral purposes. At the time of his/her death, the deceased was a member in good standing in this organization.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>ARNG personnel serving in a nonpay status.</I> In accordance with title 32, U.S.C. section 503, a member may, with his/her consent, either with or without pay, be ordered to perform training or other duty in addition to that prescribed under title 32, U.S.C. section 502(a). Duty without pay will be considered for all purposes as if it were duty with pay. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 18489, Mar. 28, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Claims for Damages Involving the National Guard and Air National Guard</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 564.51 through 564.58 appear at 19 FR 5168, Aug. 17, 1954, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 26 FR 12767, Dec. 30, 1961. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 564.51" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.51   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 564.51 to 564.58 are published for the information and guidance of all concerned to implement the statutory authority by defining the claims payable thereunder and the procedure for establishing, determining, and settling such claims. They provide the exclusive authorization and procedure for the determination and settlement of claims within the following statutory authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.52" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.52   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Limited authority for the payment of claims arising out of National Guard and Air National Guard activities has been granted annually for several years by provisions of the annual Appropriations Act for the Department of Defense. A recent provision is as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The following sums are appropriated, * * * For payment of * * *; claims (not to exceed $1,000 in any one case) for damages to or loss of private property incident to the operation of Army and Air National Guard camps of instruction, either during the stay of units of said organizations at such camps or while en route thereto or therefrom; * * * (Act of August 1, 1953, Public Law 179, 83d Cong.).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) In accordance with general principles of law, the National Guard and the Air National Guard when not in Federal service are not agencies of the United States, and the United States is not liable for injury or damage arising from their activities. Thus, claims for such injury or damage are not cognizable under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as revised and codified (62 Stat. 982, 28 U.S.C. 3671-80). By the statutory provisions referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the United States assumes an obligation to settle administratively limited classes of claims relating to activities of the National Guard and the Air National Guard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.53" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.53   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in §§ 564.51 to 564.58, the following terms shall have the meaning hereinafter set forth: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Claim.</I> A written demand for payment in money. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Private property.</I> Real or personal property, excluding property owned by any government entity, Federal, State, city, county, or town, and excluding stocks, bonds, chose in action, debts, and insurance policies. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Camps of instruction.</I> Regularly scheduled training for units in organized camps, or bivouacs and maneuvers away from such camps constituting part of such training. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>While en route thereto or therefrom.</I> The period of time during which a unit as distinguished from its individual members if travelling from its rendezvous to a camp of instruction or return, or from the camp of instruction or on a regularly scheduled maneuver and return thereto, and the routes followed by the unit. The term does not include the movement of individuals. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proximate cause.</I> No precise definition of this term can be given. Whether acts or omissions of personnel constitute proximate cause must be determined in accordance with the local law. In general, an act or omission may be said to have been a proximate cause of the accident or incident if it was one of the impelling forces resulting in the accident or incident. For example, in a rear-end collision, the failure of the driver of the following car to stop in time is said to be the proximate cause of the accident. But, if the driver of the leading car stopped so suddenly and without warning that the second car, using the utmost diligence, could not have stopped, the conduct of the driver of the leading car would be said to have been the proximate cause of the accident. An act or omission without the existence of which the accident or incident would not have occurred but which cannot be said to have brought it about is a condition and would not constitute a basis for liability, or, if committed by the claimant, would not constitute a basis for denial of his claim. For example, violations of statutes or ordinances providing standards of safety may be negligence in themselves, but may not constitute the bases of liability or for denial of a claim. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Scope of employment.</I> Scope of employment is determined in accordance with the law of the place where the accident or incident occurred, except that statutes in derogation of the common law, such as statutes creating a presumption that an employee is in scope of employment if using the employer's car with permission, are not controlling. An act or omission is within the scope of employment if such activity is expressly or impliedly directed or authorized by competent authority or is at least in part intended to further the mission of the unit or organization, or the interests of the National Guard or the Air National Guard. In determining whether an act or omission was within the scope of employment, consideration must be given to all the attendant facts and circumstances, including the time, place, and purpose thereof; whether it was in furtherance of the omission of the unit of the National Guard or Air National Guard; whether it was usual for or reasonably to be expected of personnel of the classification and grade involved; and whether the instrumentality causing the damage or injury resulted was property of the National Guard or Air National Guard, or of a State or the Federal Government being used by the National Guard or Air National Guard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.54" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.54   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims for damage to or loss of private property proximately resulting from authorized activities incident to the operation of camps of instruction, including maneuvers, field exercises, training of units and personnel, movement of vehicles, operation of aircraft, maintenance and support of units and personnel, tortious acts or omissions of military personnel or civilian employees of the National Guard or Air National Guard in the scope of employment, and claims arising under a contract, executed incident to camps of instruction, even though legally enforceable under the express terms of the contract and no other, are payable under §§ 564.51 to 564.58. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.55" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.55   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contributory negligence.</I> Negligence or wrongful act of the claimant or of his agent or employee, a proximate cause of the accident or incident, bars a claim. The law of the place where the accident or incident occurred will be followed in determining whether contributory negligence is present but the doctrine of comparative negligence will not be applied. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury.</I> Claims for personal injury are not cognizable under the act of §§ 564.51 to 564.58. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use and occupancy.</I> Claims for use and occupancy, payment of which is governed by the terms of a lease or contract, are not cognizable under §§ 564.51 to 564.58. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.56" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.56   Action by claimant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may present a claim.</I> A claim for damage to or loss of private property may be presented by the owner, or his agent or legal representative. The word “owner”, as so used, includes bailees, lessees, mortgagors, conditional vendors, and subrogees, but does not include mortgagees, conditional vendors, and others having title for purposes of security only. If filed by an agent or legal representative, the claim should be filed in the name of the owner, signed by such agent or legal representative, showing the title or capacity of the person signing, and be accompanied by evidence of the appointment of such person as agent, executor, administrator, guardian, or other fiduciary. If filed by a corporation the claim should show the title or capacity of the officer signing it and be accompanied by evidence of his authority to act. In case of the death of the proper claimant, if it appears that no legal representative has been or will be appointed, the claim may be presented by any person who, by reason of the family relationship, has in fact incurred the expense for which the claim is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of claim.</I> A claim shall be submitted in the form of a statement signed by the claimant, setting forth his address, and stating briefly all the facts and circumstances relating to the damage for which compensation is claimed, including a description of the property, evidence of its value, the nature and extent of the damage, the date and place such damage was incurred, the agency by which it was caused, if known, and the amount. Standard Form 95 (Claim for Damage or Injury), appropriately modified by deleting references to “injury” and “personal injury,” may be used for this purpose. The claim and all papers accompanying it which are signed by the claimant should bear like signatures. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time within which claim must be presented.</I> A claim cognizable under §§ 564.51 to 564.58 must be submitted within two years of the date of occurrence of the accident or incident. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Place of filing.</I> A claim cognizable under §§ 564.51 to 564.58 must be presented in writing to the adjutant general, or his duly authorized representative, of the State, Territory, Commonwealth, or District of Columbia, having jurisdiction over the personnel or unit involved in the accident or incident out of which the claim arose, or to the office of the Chief, National Guard Bureau, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evidence to be submitted by claimant</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A claim for damage to or loss of private property must be specific and substantiated by evidence of the damage or loss. A mere statement that such property was damaged or lost and that a certain amount is a fair compensation therefor is not sufficient to support a claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Motor vehicles, buildings, fences, and other structures.</I> The claimant must submit, if repairs or replacement has been effected, itemized bills therefor, signed and certified as just and correct by the repairman or suppliers, together with evidence of payment thereof, if made; if repairs or replacement has not been effected, an estimate of the cost thereof signed by a person competent to effect such repairs or replacement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Crops, trees, land, and other realty.</I> The claimant must submit an itemized signed estimate of the cost of repairs or restoration of the property, supported by evidence of the number of acres of land, crops, or trees involved, the normal yield per acre and the market value of the property per unit of measure common to the property damaged, or the estimated length of time the land will be unfit for grazing, the normal rental value per acre of similar land in the vicinity, and such other information as may be necessary. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contracts.</I> A copy of the contract, or competent evidence of the provisions thereof, will be furnished by the claimant in support of a claim cognizable under § 564.54. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional evidence.</I> The claims officer, the interested State adjutant general, or the Chief National Guard Bureau, may require the claimant to submit such additional evidences as he deems necessary to substantiate the claim, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, estimates of cost, of repairs from repairman other than those whose estimates the claimant has submitted with the claim and evidence of ownership of or interest in the property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.57" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.57   Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>Responsibility for the investigation of claims cognizable under §§ 564.51 to 564.68 and of accidents or incidents which may give rise to such claims rests in the adjutants general of the several States. Accordingly, claims received by the National Guard Bureau, or other agencies of the United States, will be referred to the adjutants general of the interested States. Regulations promulgated by the State adjutants general should require the prompt investigation of all accidents or incidents which might result in claims cognizable hereunder, whether or not claims have been filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 564.58" NODE="32:3.1.1.5.12.0.12.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 564.58   Determination of amount allowable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The maximum amount which may be allowed is the value of the property immediately prior to the accident or incident. Subject to the foregoing, the amount allowable is the cost, incurred or estimated to be incurred, of replacing the property, or of restoring it to the condition in which it was immediately prior to the accident or incident. However, if as the result of the repairs effected, the value of the property is appreciably enhanced, a sum equal to the increase in value will be deducted from the cost of restoring the property in determining the amount allowed. Conversely, if after the repairs have been effected, the value of the property is appreciably less than that prior to the accident or incident, the difference in value will be added to the cost of repairs in determining the amount allowed. However, no award in excess of the amount claimed may be made. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount allowable for repairs, the permanency of parts replaced will be considered and deductions made for depreciation as appropriated. Thus, an automobile tire is not expected to last through the life of a vehicle so that when a tire three-fourths worn is replaced with a new tire, the amount allowable is one-fourth of the cost of the new tire. The same principle applies to batteries and other items of equipment or accessories during relatively short wearout periods. However, no allowance for depreciation is made in replacing parts, such as fenders, bumpers, radiators, which normally would last through the life of the vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(c) Deprivation of use of property (including motor vehicles) is allowable as an item of damages, but only in those cases where the claimant has sustained legally provable damages. Towing charges are also allowable items of damage. However, interest, cost of preparation of claim and of securing supporting evidence, inconvenience, and similar items are not property allowable items of damage. 
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="32:3.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—PERSONNEL 






</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="581" NODE="32:3.1.1.6.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 581—PERSONNEL REVIEW BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1552, 1553, 1554, 3013, 3014, 3016; 38 U.S.C. 3103(a).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 581.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.6.13.0.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 581.1   Army Disability Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions</I>—(1) <I>Constitution, purpose, and jurisdiction of review board.</I> (i) The Army Disability Review Board (called the review board in this section) is an administrative agency created within the Department of the Army under authority of section 302, title I, Act of June 22, 1944 (58 Stat. 284), as amended by section 4, Act of December 28, 1945 (59 Stat. 623), to review, at the request of any officer retired or released from active service, without pay, for physical disability pursuant to the decision of a retiring board or disposition board, the findings and decisions of such board. The review board is charged with the duty, in cases within its jurisdiction, of ascertaining whether an applicant for review who was separated from the service or released to inactive service, without pay, for physical disability, incurred such physical disability in line of duty or as an incident of the service. When the review board determines in an individual case within its jurisdiction that physical disability was so incurred, it is authorized in the manner prescribed by this memorandum, to reverse prior findings in such regard and to make such findings in lieu thereof as are warranted by the evidence or pertinent regulations. Such remedial action is intended primarily to insure that no officer separated from the service or returned to an inactive status without pay, for disability, shall be deprived unjustly of retirement pay benefits, or retired status and retired pay, as the case may be, by reason of erroneous findings. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The class of officers whose cases are reviewable shall include officers of the Army of the United States, other than officers of the Regular Army, who were discharged or released to inactive service under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and former officers of the Regular Army who were wholly retired under section 1252, Revised Statutes. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The review board is authorized, upon timely application therefor, to review the proceedings and findings of boards referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and to receive additional evidence bearing on the causes and service-connection of disabilities in the cases of officers referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, whose cases were the subject of findings by a retiring or disposition board, and who were separated from the service or released to inactive service, without pay, by reason of physical disability, whether denial of retirement or retirement pay benefits, as the case may be, was pursuant to the adverse findings of a board, or was pursuant to administrative action in a case where there was favorable action by a board. 
</P>
<P>(iv) In carrying out its duties under this memorandum such review board shall have the same powers as exercised by, or vested in, the board whose findings and decisions are being reviewed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application for review.</I> (i) Any officer desiring a review of his case will make a written application therefor on WD AGO Form 0258 (Application for Review of Army Retiring Board Proceedings) which may be obtained from The Adjutant General, Washington, DC 20310, Attention: AGPO-S-D. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No application for review will be granted unless received by the Department of the Army within 15 years after the date on which such officer was separated from the service or released to inactive service, without pay, for physical disability, or within 15 years after June 22, 1944, whichever date is the later. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Adjutant General, upon receipt of an application for review, will note thereon the time of receipt thereof and will, in cases where the jurisdiction for review by the review board is established, assemble the originals or certified copies of all available Department of the Army and/or other record pertaining to the health and physical condition of the applicant, including the record of the proceedings and findings of all retiring and disposition boards in question and the records of all administration and/or executive action taken thereon. Such records, together with the application and any supporting documents submitted therewith, will be transmitted to the president of the review board. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes in procedure of review board.</I> The review board may initiate recommendation for such changes in procedures as established herein as may be deemed necessary for the proper functioning of the review board. Such changes will be subject to the approval of the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings of review board</I>—(1) <I>Convening of review board.</I> (i) The review board will be convened at the call of its president and will recess or adjourn at his order. In the event of the absence or incapacity of the president, the next senior member will serve as acting president for all purposes. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise directed by its president, the review board will convene in Washington, DC, at the time and place indicated by him. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The review board will assemble in open session for the consideration and determination of cases presented to it. After the conclusion of such hearing, the review board will as soon as practicable thereafter convene in closed session for determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearings.</I> (i) An applicant for review, upon request, is entitled by law to appear before the review board in open session either in person or by counsel of his own selection. Witnesses shall be permitted to present testimony either in person or by affidavit. As used in the regulations in this part the term “counsel” shall be construed to include members of the Federal bar, the bar of any state, accredited representatives of veterans' organizations recognized by the Veterans' Administration under section 200 of the Act of June 29, 1936 (49 Stat. 2031), and such other persons who, in the opinion of the review board, are considered to be competent to present equitably and comprehensively the claim of the applicant for review. In no case will the expenses or compensation of counsel for the applicant be paid by the Government. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In every case in which a hearing is authorized, the secretary will transmit to the applicant and to designated counsel for the applicant, if any, a written notice by registered mail stating the time and place of hearing. Such notice shall be mailed at least 30 days in advance of the date on which the case is set for hearing except in cases in which the applicant waives the right of personal appearance and/or representation by counsel. Such notice shall constitute compliance with the requirement of notice to applicant and his counsel. The record shall contain the certificate of the secretary that written notice was given applicant and his counsel, if any, and the time and manner thereof. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An applicant who requests a hearing and who, after being duly notified of the time and place of hearing, fails to appear at the appointed time, either in person or by counsel, or, in writing, waives his right to appear, thereby waives such right. 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the conduct of its inquiries, the review board shall not be limited by the restrictions of common law rules of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(v) In the case wherein it is advisable and practicable, the review board may, at the request of the examiner, or upon its own motion, request The Surgeon General to detail one or more medical officers to make physical examination of the applicant, if available, and report their findings resulting from such examination with respect to the matters at issue, either in person or by affidavit. When testifying in person at a hearing, such medical witnesses will be subject to cross-examination. Similarly the medical members of the board may examine the applicant, if available, and testify as witnesses concerning the results of such examination. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Expenses incurred by the applicant, his witnesses, or in the procurement of their testimony, whether in person, by affidavit or by deposition will not be paid by the Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Continuances.</I> The review board may continue a hearing on its own motion. A request for continuance by the examiner or by or on behalf of the applicant may be granted, if in the board's discretion, a continuance appears necessary to insure a full and fair hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Findings, conclusions, and directions</I>—(1) <I>Findings, conclusions, and directions of review board.</I> (i) The review board will make written findings in closed session in each case. Such findings will include: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Statement of complete findings of the retiring or disposition board and of administrative action subsequent thereto in the proceedings under review; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A finding affirming or reversing the findings of such retiring or disposition board or such administrative action, specifying which of the findings or administrative actions are affirmed and which are reversed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the review board reverses any of such original findings or administrative actions, the review board will then make complete findings which shall include the affirmed findings of the original board or of administrative action subsequent thereto. Such complete findings shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Whether the applicant was permanently incapacitated for active service at the time of his separation from the service or release to inactive service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The cause or causes of the incapacity. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The approximate date of origin of each incapacitating defect. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The date officer became incapacitated for active service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Whether the cause or causes of the incapacity was or was not an incident of service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Whether the cause or causes of the incapacity had been permanently aggravated by military service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Whether such incapacity for active service was or was not the result of an incident of service. 
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Whether the officer's incapacity was or was not incurred in combat with an enemy of the United States or whether it did or did not result from an explosion of an instrumentality of war in line of duty. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the event the review board finds the officer permanently incapacitated for active service and that the incapacity was an incident of service, it will make an additional finding specifying the grade in which the officer is entitled to be retired or to be certified for retirement pay benefits. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The findings, conclusions, and directions of a majority of the review board shall constitute the findings, conclusions, and directions of the review board, and when made, will be signed by each member of the review board who concurs therein, filed, and authenticated by the secretary. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition of and action upon proceedings</I>—(1) <I>Record of proceedings.</I> (i) When the review board has concluded its proceedings in any case, the secretary will prepare a complete record thereof. Such record shall include the application for review; a transcript of the hearing if any; affidavits, papers and documents considered by the review board; all briefs and written arguments filed in the case; the report of the examiner; the findings, conclusions, and directions of the review board; any minority report prepared by dissenting members of the review board; and all other papers and documents necessary to reflect a true and complete history of the proceedings. The record so prepared will be signed by the president of the review board and authenticated by its secretary as being true and complete. In the event of the absence or incapacity of the secretary, the record may be authenticated by a second participating member of the review board. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All records of proceedings of the review board shall be confidential, except that upon written request from the applicant, his guardian or legal representative, The Adjutant General will furnish a copy of the proceedings of the review board, less any exhibits which it may be found impracticable to reproduce out which will include: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A copy of the order appointing the board. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The findings of the Army retiring board affirmed. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The findings of the Army retiring board reversed. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The findings of the review board. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The conclusions which were made by the review board. 
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The directions of the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<FP>If it should appear that furnishing such information would prove injurious to the physical or mental health of the applicant, such information will be furnished only to the guardian or legal representative of the applicant. The Adjutant General, subject to the foregoing restrictions, will make available for inspection, upon request of the applicant, his guardian or legal representative, a record of the proceedings of any case reviewed by the review board, but copies of the proceedings of any case heard prior to January 4, 1946, will not be furnished if such copies are not readily available. 
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Final action by review board.</I> When the review board has completed the proceedings and has arrived at its decision, the proceedings, together with the review board's decision, will be transmitted to The Adjutant General for appropriate Department of the Army action. The Adjutant General, in the name of the President of the United States, will indicate on the record of such proceedings and decision the President's approval or disapproval of the action of the review board, and will perform such administerial acts as may be necessary and thereafter will notify the applicant and/or his counsel of the action taken. Written notice, specifying the action taken and the date thereof, will be transmitted by The Adjutant General to the president of the review board to be filed by the secretary as a part of the records of the board pertaining to each case. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rehearings</I>—(1) <I>Policy on the granting of rehearings.</I> After the review board has reviewed a case and its findings and decision have been approved, the case will normally not be reconsidered except on the basis of new, pertinent, and material evidence, which if previously considered could reasonably be expected to have caused findings and a decision other than those rendered as the result of the original review. An application for rehearing must be made within a reasonable time after the discovery of the new evidence, mentioned in this subparagraph, and the request for rehearing must be accompanied by such new evidence and by a showing that the applicant was duly diligent in attempting to secure all available evidence for presentation to the review board when his case was previously reviewed and that the reason for the delay in discovering such new evidence was not due to fault or neglect on the part of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application for rehearing.</I> Any officer desiring a rehearing of his case will make a written application therefor on WD AGO Form 0413 (Application for Review of Findings of the Army Disability Review Board) which may be obtained from The Adjutant General, Washington, DC 20310, Attention: AGPO-S-D. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[13 FR 6805, Nov. 19, 1948, as amended at 19 FR 6706, Oct. 19, 1954] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 581.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.6.13.0.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 581.2   Army Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This regulation implements 10 U.S.C. 1553, Pub. L. 95-126, and DOD Directive 1332.28 (app. A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Explanation of terms</I>—(1) <I>Legal consultant of the Army Discharge Review Board (ADRB).</I> An officer of The Judge Advocate General's Corps assigned to the ADRB to provide opinions and guidance on legal matters relating to ADRB functions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical consultant of the ADRB.</I> An officer of the Army Medical Corps assigned to the ADRB to provide opinions and guidance on medical matters relating to ADRB functions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Video tape hearing.</I> A hearing conducted by an ADRB hearing examiner at which an applicant is given the opportunity to present his/her appeal to the hearing examiner, with the entire presentation, including cross-examination by the hearing examiner, recorded on video tape. This video tape presentation is later displayed to a full ADRB panel. Video tape hearings will be conducted only with the consent of the applicant and with the concurrence of the President of the ADRB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Composition and responsibilities</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> The ADRB is established under Pub. L. 95-126 and 10 U.S.C. 1553 and is responsible for the implementation of the Discharge Review Board (DRB) procedures and standards within DA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The ADRB president.</I> The president is designated by the Secretary of the Army (SA). The President—
</P>
<P>(i) Is responsible for the operation of the ADRB.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes the operating procedures of the ADRB. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Designates officers to sit on panels.
</P>
<P>(iv) Schedules panels to hear discharge review appeals.
</P>
<P>(v) Monitors the DOD directed responsibilities of the SA on service discharge review matters for the DOD.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>ADRB panels and members.</I> The ADRB will have one or more panels. Each panel, when in deliberation, will consist of five officers. The senior officer (or as designated by the president ADRB) will act as the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Secretary Recorder (SR) Branch.</I> The Chief, SR—
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures the efficient overall operation and support of the ADRB panels.
</P>
<P>(ii) Authenticates the case report and directives of cases heard.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Secretary Recorder.</I> The SR is an officer assigned to the SR Branch whose duties are to—
</P>
<P>(i) Schedule, coordinate, and arrange for panel hearings at a designated site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer oaths to applicants and witnesses under Article 136 UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the proceedings of the cases heard and recorded into the case report and directive of cases.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Administrative Specialist.</I> An Administrative Specialist is an enlisted member assigned to the SR Branch whose duties are to—
</P>
<P>(i) Assist the SR in arranging panel hearings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate and maintain video and voice recording equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Aid the SR in the administrative operations of the panels.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Administrative personnel.</I> Such administrative personnel as are required for the proper functions of the ADRB and its panels will be furnished by the SA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special standards.</I> (1) Under the November 27, 1979, order of the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in “Giles v. Secretary of the Army” (Civil Action No. 77-0904), a former Army service member is entitled to an honorable discharge if a less than honorable discharge was issued to the service member who was discharged before 1 January 1975 as a result of an administrative proceeding in which the Army introduced evidence developed by or as a direct or indirect result of compelled urinalysis testing administered for the purpose of identifying drug abusers (either for the purpose of entry into a treatment program or to monitor progress through rehabilitation or follow up).
</P>
<P>(2) Applicants who believe they fall within the scope of paragraph (d)(1) of this section should place the work CATEGORY “G” in block 7, DD Form 293, (Application for Review of Discharge or Dismissal from the Armed Forces of the United States). Such applications will be reviewed expeditiously by a designated official who will either send the individual an honorable discharge certificate if the individual falls within the scope of paragraph (d)(1) of this section or forward the application to the ADRB if the individual does not fall within the scope of paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The action of the designated official will not constitute an action or decision by the ADRB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 33035, Aug. 16, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 581.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.6.13.0.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 581.3   Army Board for Correction of Military Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> This section prescribes the policies and procedures for correction of military records by the Secretary of the Army, acting through the Army Board for Correction of Military Records (ABCMR). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Title 10 U.S.C Section 1552, Correction of Military Records: Claims Incident Thereto, is the statutory authority for this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities</I>—(1) <I>The Secretary of the Army.</I> The Secretary of the Army will oversee the operations of the ABCMR. The Secretary will take final action on applications, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The ABCMR Director.</I> The ABCMR Director will manage the ABCMR's day-to-day operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>The chair of an ABCMR panel.</I> The chair of a given ABCMR panel will preside over the panel, conduct a hearing, maintain order, ensure the applicant receives a full and fair opportunity to be heard, and certify the written record of proceedings in pro forma and formal hearings as being true and correct. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>The ABCMR members.</I> The ABCMR members will—
</P>
<P>(i) Review all applications that are properly before them to determine the existence of error or injustice. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If persuaded that material error or injustice exists, and that sufficient evidence exists on the record, direct or recommend changes in military records to correct the error or injustice. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommend a hearing when appropriate in the interest of justice. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Deny applications when the alleged error or injustice is not adequately supported by the evidence, and when a hearing is not deemed proper. 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny applications when the application is not filed within prescribed time limits and when it is not in the interest of justice to excuse the failure to file in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>The director of an Army records holding agency.</I> The director of an Army records holding agency will—
</P>
<P>(i) Take appropriate action on routine issues that may be administratively corrected under authority inherent in the custodian of the records and that do not require ABCMR action. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Furnish all requested Army military records to the ABCMR. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Request additional information from the applicant, if needed, to assist the ABCMR in conducting a full and fair review of the matter. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Take corrective action directed by the ABCMR or the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(v) Inform the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), when appropriate; the applicant; applicant's counsel, if any; and interested Members of Congress, if any, after a correction is complete. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Return original records of the soldier or former soldier obtained from the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA). 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>The commanders of Army Staff agencies and commands.</I> The commanders of Army Staff agencies and commands will—
</P>
<P>(i) Furnish advisory opinions on matters within their areas of expertise upon request of the ABCMR, in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain additional information or documentation as needed before providing the opinions to the ABCMR. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide records, investigations, information, and documentation upon request of the ABCMR. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide additional assistance upon request of the ABCMR. 
</P>
<P>(v) Take corrective action directed by the ABCMR or the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>The Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS).</I> At the request of the ABCMR staff, the Director, DFAS, will—
</P>
<P>(i) Furnish advisory opinions on matters within the DFAS area of expertise upon request. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain additional information or documentation as needed before providing the opinions. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide financial records upon request. 
</P>
<P>(iv) On behalf of the Army, settle claims that are based on ABCMR final actions. 
</P>
<P>(v) Report quarterly to the ABCMR Director on the monies expended as a result of ABCMR action and the names of the payees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ABCMR establishment and functions</I>—(1) <I>ABCMR establishment.</I> The ABCMR operates pursuant to law (10 U.S.C. 1552) within the Office of the Secretary of the Army. The ABCMR consists of civilians regularly employed in the executive part of the Department of the Army (DA) who are appointed by the Secretary of the Army and serve on the ABCMR as an additional duty. Three members constitute a quorum. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ABCMR functions.</I> (i) The ABCMR considers individual applications that are properly brought before it. In appropriate cases, it directs or recommends correction of military records to remove an error or injustice. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When an applicant has suffered reprisal under the Military Whistleblower Protection Act 10 U.S.C. 1034 and Department of Defense Directive (DODD) 7050.6, the ABCMR may recommend to the Secretary of the Army that disciplinary or administrative action be taken against any Army official who committed an act of reprisal against the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The ABCMR will decide cases on the evidence of record. It is not an investigative body. The ABCMR may, in its discretion, hold a hearing (sometimes referred to as an evidentiary hearing or an administrative hearing in 10 U.S.C. 1034 and DODD 7050.6) or request additional evidence or opinions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application procedures</I>—(1) <I>Who may apply.</I> (i) The ABCMR's jurisdiction under 10 U.S.C. 1552 extends to any military record of the DA. It is the nature of the record and the status of the applicant that define the ABCMR's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Usually applicants are soldiers or former soldiers of the Active Army, the U.S. Army Reserve (USAR), and in certain cases, the Army National Guard of the United States (ARNGUS) and other military and civilian individuals affected by an Army military record. Requests are personal to the applicant and relate to military records. Requests are submitted on DD Form 149 (Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1552). Soldiers need not submit applications through their chain of command. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An applicant with a proper interest may request correction of another person's military records when that person is incapable of acting on his or her own behalf, missing, or deceased. Depending on the circumstances, a child, spouse, parent or other close relative, heir, or legal representative (such as a guardian or executor) of the soldier or former soldier may be able to demonstrate a proper interest. Applicants must send proof of proper interest with the application when requesting correction of another person's military records. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limits.</I> Applicants must file an application within 3 years after an alleged error or injustice is discovered or reasonably should have been discovered. The ABCMR may deny an untimely application. The ABCMR may excuse untimely filing in the interest of justice. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administrative remedies.</I> The ABCMR will not consider an application until the applicant has exhausted all administrative remedies to correct the alleged error or injustice. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stay of other proceedings.</I> Applying to the ABCMR does not stay other proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Counsel.</I> (i) Applicants may be represented by counsel, at their own expense. 
</P>
<P>(ii) See DODD 7050.6 for provisions for counsel in cases processed under 10 U.S.C. 1034. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Actions by the ABCMR Director and staff</I>—(1) <I>Criteria.</I> The ABCMR staff will review each application to determine if it meets the criteria for consideration by the ABCMR. The application may be returned without action if—
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant fails to complete and sign the application. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant has not exhausted all other administrative remedies. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The ABCMR does not have jurisdiction to grant the requested relief. 
</P>
<P>(iv) No new evidence was submitted with a request for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The ABCMR begins its consideration of each case with the presumption of administrative regularity. The applicant has the burden of proving an error or injustice by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>ABCMR consideration.</I> (i) A panel consisting of at least three ABCMR members will consider each application that is properly brought before it. One panel member will serve as the chair. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The panel members may consider a case on the merits in executive session or may authorize a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Each application will be reviewed to determine—
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the preponderance of the evidence shows that an error or injustice exists and—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If so, what relief is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If not, deny relief. 
</P>
<P>(B) Whether to authorize a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(C) If the application is filed outside the statute of limitations and whether to deny based on untimeliness or to waive the statute in the interest of justice. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hearings.</I> ABCMR hearings. Applicants do not have a right to a hearing before the ABCMR. The Director or the ABCMR may grant a formal hearing whenever justice requires. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disposition of applications</I>—(1) <I>ABCMR decisions.</I> The panel members' majority vote constitutes the action of the ABCMR. The ABCMR's findings, recommendations, and in the case of a denial, the rationale will be in writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ABCMR final action.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided, the ABCMR acts for the Secretary of the Army, and an ABCMR decision is final when it—
</P>
<P>(A) Denies any application (except for actions based on reprisals investigated under 10 U.S.C. 1034). 
</P>
<P>(B) Grants any application in whole or in part without a hearing when—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The relief is as recommended by the proper staff agency in an advisory opinion; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is unanimously agreed to by the ABCMR panel; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Does not involve an appointment or promotion requiring confirmation by the Senate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The ABCMR will forward the decisional document to the Secretary of the Army for final decision in any case in which—
</P>
<P>(A) A hearing was held. 
</P>
<P>(B) The facts involve reprisals under the Military Whistleblower Protection Act, confirmed by the DOD Inspector General (DODIG) under 10 U.S.C. 1034 and DODD 7050.6. 
</P>
<P>(C) The ABCMR recommends relief but is not authorized to act for the Secretary of the Army on the application. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Decision of the Secretary of the Army.</I> (i) The Secretary of the Army may direct such action as he or she deems proper on each case. Cases returned to the Board for further consideration will be accompanied by a brief statement of the reasons for such action. If the Secretary does not accept the ABCMR's recommendation, adopts a minority position, or fashions an action that he or she deems proper and supported by the record, that decision will be in writing and will include a brief statement of the grounds for denial or revision. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Army will issue decisions on cases covered by the Military Whistleblower Protection Act (10 U.S.C. 1034 and DODD 7050.6). In cases where the DODIG concluded that there was reprisal, these decisions will be made within 180 days after receipt of the application and the investigative report by the DODIG, the Department of the Army Inspector General (DAIG), or other Inspector General offices. Unless the full relief requested is granted, these applicants will be informed of their right to request review of the decision by the Secretary of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reconsideration of ABCMR decision.</I> An applicant may request the ABCMR to reconsider a Board decision under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the ABCMR receives the request for reconsideration within 1 year of the ABCMR's original decision and if the ABCMR has not previously reconsidered the matter, the ABCMR staff will review the request to determine if it contains evidence (including, but not limited to, any facts or arguments as to why relief should be granted) that was not in the record at the time of the ABCMR's prior consideration. If new evidence has been submitted, the request will be submitted to the ABCMR for its determination of whether the new evidence is sufficient to demonstrate material error or injustice. If no new evidence is found, the ABCMR staff will return the application to the applicant without action.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the ABCMR receives a request for reconsideration more than 1 year after the ABCMR's original decision or after the ABCMR has already considered one request for reconsideration, then the case will be returned without action and the applicant will be advised the next remedy is appeal to a court of appropriate jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Claims/Expenses</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> (i) The Army, by law, may pay claims for amounts due to applicants as a result of correction of military records. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Army may not pay any claim previously compensated by Congress through enactment of a private law. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Army may not pay for any benefit to which the applicant might later become entitled under the laws and regulations managed by the VA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement of claims.</I> (i) The ABCMR will furnish DFAS copies of decisions potentially affecting monetary entitlement or benefits. The DFAS will treat such decisions as claims for payment by or on behalf of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The DFAS will settle claims on the basis of the corrected military record. The DFAS will compute the amount due, if any. The DFAS may require applicants to furnish additional information to establish their status as proper parties to the claim and to aid in deciding amounts due. Earnings received from civilian employment during any period for which active duty pay and allowances are payable will be deducted. The applicant's acceptance of a settlement fully satisfies the claim concerned. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payment of expenses.</I> The Army may not pay attorney's fees or other expenses incurred by or on behalf of an applicant in connection with an application for correction of military records under 10 U.S.C. 1552. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Miscellaneous provisions</I>—(1) <I>Special standards.</I> (i) Pursuant to the November 27, 1979 order of the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in <I>Giles</I> v. <I>Secretary of the Army</I> (Civil Action No. 77-0904), a former Army soldier is entitled to an honorable discharge if a less than honorable discharge was issued to the soldier on or before November 27, 1979 in an administrative proceeding in which the Army introduced evidence developed by or as a direct or indirect result of compelled urinalysis testing administered for the purpose of identifying drug abusers (either for the purposes of entry into a treatment program or to monitor progress through rehabilitation or follow-up). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicants who believe that they fall within the scope of paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section should place the term “CATEGORY G” in block 11b of DD Form 149. Such applications should be expeditiously reviewed by a designated official, who will either send the individual an honorable discharge certificate if the individual falls within the scope of paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, or forward the application to the Discharge Review Board if the individual does not fall within the scope of paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section. The action of the designated official will not constitute an action or decision by the ABCMR. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public access to decisions.</I> (i) After deletion of personal information, a redacted copy of each decision will be indexed by subject and made available for review and copying at a public reading room at Crystal Mall 4, 1941 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, Virginia. The index will be in a usable and concise form so as to indicate the topic considered and the reasons for the decision. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), records created on or after November 1, 1996 will be available by electronic means. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), the ABCMR will not furnish to third parties information submitted with or about an application unless specific written authorization is received from the applicant or unless the Board is otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17441, Apr. 3, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 67368, Nov. 7, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="583" NODE="32:3.1.1.6.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 583—FORMER PERSONNEL [RESERVED]






</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="32:3.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—PROCUREMENT

</HEAD>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>For Department of Defense Acquisition Regulations, see chapter 2 of title 48.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV5 N="619" NODE="32:3.1.1.7.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 619 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H" NODE="32:3.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H—SUPPLIES AND EQUIPMENT 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="621" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 621—LOAN AND SALE OF PROPERTY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 81-193; 10 U.S.C. secs. 2574, 4308, 4506, 4507, 4627, and 4655, and Pub. L. 92-249.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 5651, Jan. 29, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For figures referred to in this part, see 42 FR 43807, Aug. 31, 1977.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 621.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.16.0.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.1   Loan of Army/Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) owned property for use at national and State conventions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section—
</P>
<P>(1) Prescribes procedures for loan of Army-owned property to recognized National Veterans' Organizations for National or State conventions as authorized by Pub. L. 81-193. 
</P>
<P>(2) Request for loans for National Youth Athletic or recreation tournaments sponsored by veterans' organizations listed in the “Veterans Administration Bulletin 23 (ALPHA),” will be processed by parent veterans' organizations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loans are not authorized for other types of conventions or tournaments. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Items authorized for loan.</I> If available, the following items may be loaned for authorized veterans' organizations requirements. 
</P>
<P>(1) Unoccupied barracks. 
</P>
<P>(2) Cots. 
</P>
<P>(3) Mattresses. 
</P>
<P>(4) Mattress covers. 
</P>
<P>(5) Blankets. 
</P>
<P>(6) Pillows. 
</P>
<P>(7) Chairs, folding. 
</P>
<P>(8) Tentage, only when unoccupied barracks are not available. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for loan.</I> (1) Requests by authorized veterans' organizations for loan of authorized Government property will be submitted to the appropriate CONUS Army Commander of the area in which the convention will be held or the Commander, Military District of Washington (MDW) if within his area. 
</P>
<P>(2) The tenure of loan is limited to 15 days from the date of delivery, except under unusual circumstances. A narrative explanation will be provided to support loan requests for more than 15 days duration. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan requests should be submitted by letter at least 45 days prior to required date, if practicable. 
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for loans will contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Name of veterans' organization requesting the loan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Location where the convention will be held. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Dates of duration of loan. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of individuals to be accommodated. 
</P>
<P>(v) Type and quantity of equipment required. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Type of convention, (State or National). 
</P>
<P>(vii) Complete instructions for delivery of equipment and address of requesting organizations. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Other pertinent information necessary to insure prompt delivery. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The Army or MDW Commander will: 
</P>
<P>(1) When the availability of personal and real property is determined, notify the requesting veterans' organization of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The items and quantities available for loan and the source of supply. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No compensation will be required by the Government for the use of real property. 
</P>
<P>(iii) No expense will be incurred by the United States Government in providing equipment and facilities on loan. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Costs of packaging, packing, transportation and handling from source of supply to destination and return will be borne by the requesting organization. 
</P>
<P>(v) All charges for utilities (gas, water, heat, and electricity) based on meter readings or such other methods determined will be paid by the veterans' organization. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Charges which may accrue from loan of DLA/GSA material in accordance with paragraph III, AR 700-49/DSAR 4140.27, and GSA Order 4848.7 and Federal Property Management Regulations, subparagraph 101-27.5. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The Army will be reimbursed for any material not returned. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Costs of renovation and repair of items loaned will be borne by the requesting organization. Renovation and repair will be accomplished in accordance with agreement between the Army Commander and the loanee to assure expeditious return of items. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Transportation costs in connection with the repair and renovation of property will also be at the expense of the using organization. 
</P>
<P>(x) Assure that sufficient guards and such other personnel necessary to protect, maintain, and operate the equipment will be provided by the loanee. 
</P>
<P>(xi) The period of loan is limited to 15 days from date of delivery, except as provided for in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(xii) Any building or barracks loaned will be utilized in place and will not be moved. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Upon termination of use, the veterans' organization will vacate the premises, remove its own property therefrom, and turn over all Government property. 
</P>
<P>(2) Specify a bond in an amount to insure safe return of real and personal property in the same condition as when borrowed. (In the case of personal property, this amount will be equal to the total value of the items based on current acquisition costs.) 
</P>
<P>(i) An agreement will be executed between the Army Commander and the Veterans' Organization if the terms of the loan are acceptable. A sample loan agreement is shown at figure 7-5 of this subchapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the agreement has been executed and the bond furnished, requisitions will be submitted to the appropriate source of supply. Requisitions will indicate shipping destination furnished by the veterans' organization. Transportation will be by commercial bills of lading on a collect basis. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Appoint a Property Book Officer to maintain accountability for the Government property furnished under this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Property Book Officer will: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assume accountability from the document used in transferring property to the custody of the veterans' organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Perform a joint inventory with the veterans' organization representative. Survey any shortage or damages disclosed by the joint inventory in accordance with AR 735-11. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain liaison with the veterans' organization during the period of the loan. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Prepare, in cooperation with the veterans' organization representative, an inventory of property being returned. Certify all copies of the receipt document with the veterans' organization representative. 
</P>
<P>(v) Insure the return of all property at the expense of loanee to the supply source or to repair facilities.
</P>
<P>(vi) Obtain a copy of receipted shipping document from the installation receiving the property.
</P>
<P>(vii) Determine cost and make demand on the loanee for:
</P>
<P>(A) Items lost, destroyed, or damaged.
</P>
<P>(B) Costs of repair or renovation. Estimated costs will be obtained from the accountable activity.
</P>
<P>(C) Comply with instructions contained in AR 700-49/DSAR 4140.27 in the application of condition A and/or B, C, and T items utilized.
</P>
<P>(D) Ascertain that items lost in transit are reconciled prior to assessing charges. Where the loss is attributable to other than the loanee, charges should not be borne by the borrower.
</P>
<P>(viii) Request payment from the loanee. Checks are to be made payable to the Treasurer of the United States. Upon receipt of payment, appropriate fiscal accounts will be credited. The Property Transaction Record will be closed and the Stock Record Accounts audited.
</P>
<P>(ix) Deposit collections in accordance with instructions contained in AR 37-103. In the event payment is not received within a reasonable period, Report of Survey Action will be initiated in accordance with AR 735-11.
</P>
<P>(x) Reimburse DLA/GSA for the cost of any repair, reconditioning and/or materiel not returned. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.16.0.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.2   Sales of ordnance property to individuals, non-Federal government agencies, institutions, and organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section—
</P>
<P>(1) Cites the statutory authority for, and prescribes the methods and conditions of sale of certain weapons, ammunition, and related items as specified herein.
</P>
<P>(2) Applies to all sales of weapons and related material to individuals, organizations, and institutions, when authorized by the US Army Armament Materiel Readiness Command (ARRCOM), and overseas commanders.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides that sales under this section will be limited to quantities of an item which authorized purchasers can put to their own use. It is not intended that property be sold under the provisions of this section for the purpose or resale or other disposition.
</P>
<P>(4) Does not apply to sales of property determined to be surplus. (See AR 755 series.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Price.</I> Except as noted below, when sales of the Army property are made and the title thereto passes from the US Government, the prices charged will be the standard list price contained in the SC 1305/30 Management Data List series, plus cost of packing, crating, and handling and administrative charges.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Condition of sale.</I> Provisions apply to sales under this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales will be made without expense to the Government.
</P>
<P>(i) All costs incident to sales (including packing, crating, handling, etc.) will be paid in advance by the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(ii) All costs incident to shipment (transportation, parcel post charges, etc.) will also be paid by the customer.
</P>
<P>(iii) Payment for items and charges incident to sale will be made only by cashier's check, certified check, bank money order, or postal money order made payable to the Treasurer of the United States.
</P>
<P>(iv) For other than items of ammunition and ammunition components, cash will be acceptable when consignee pickup is authorized or purchase is made in person.
</P>
<P>(2) All financial transactions will be accomplished in accordance with applicable Department of the Army directives and regulations. Moneys collected for cost of items, as well as packing, crating, and handling, will be deposited as an appropriate reimbursement as prescribed in applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Generally, all sales are final and, normally, the US Government assumes no obligation or responsibility for repair, replacement, or exchange, except as provided in AR 920-20. Purchasers will be so advised prior to making the sale. All weapons sold, however, will be safe for firing.
</P>
<P>(4) Weapons sold at standard price will be supplied with equipment. Weapons sold at less than standard price will be supplied less equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) Sales of specific items may be suspended at any time by the direction of CDR, ARRCOM.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purchasing procedure.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, all requests originating within CONUS for the purchase of small arms weapons, repair parts, cleaning, preserving, and target material will be submitted to the Commander, ARRCOM, Rock Island, IL 61201.
</P>
<P>(i) Upon approval, these items will be shipped from Army depots stocking such material, based upon availability of material. Customers will be furnished instructions for submission of remittance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of proper remittance from eligible customers ARRCOM will issue the necessary documents directing shipment from an Army depot where the items are available. 
</P>
<P>(2) In implementing the subchapter, oversea commands should designate installations within the oversea command to which requests for purchase of ammunition and related material will be directed. 
</P>
<P>(3) Depots shipping weapons to individuals, Director of Civilian Marksmanship (DCM) affiliated rifle and pistol “clubs”, museums, veterans organizations, and other US Government agencies will annotate shipping documents with the serial number of all the weapons they ship. Firearms shipped will be reported to Commander, ARRCOM, ATTN: DR SAR-MMD-D, Rock Island, IL 61202, using DA Form 3535 (Weapons Sales Record), DA Form 3535 may be obtained from Commander, Letterkenny Army Depot, ATTN: DRXLE-ATD, Chambersburg, PA 17201. 
</P>
<P>(i) The transportation officer will ascertain estimated transportation costs, to include DA transportation security measures (costs) for shipment to destination. Such information will be transmitted by letter to consignee with request for acknowledgement that shipment will be accepted based on costs submitted. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shipment will not be made unless consignee agrees to accept shipments. Refusal to accept shipment shall be reported to ARRCOM. 
</P>
<P>(4) CDR, ARRCOM is responsible for maintaining a record by serial number of all weapons reported by depot in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section. He will establish procedures to screen purchase requests to insure compliance with any limitations established by this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sales to individuals, organizations, and institutions.</I> (1) Sales of small arms weapons and ammunition are limited by statute (10 U.S.C. 4308). Such sales will be made in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph and with other rules and regulations approved by the Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(2) Sales will be limited to M1 service rifles, either national match grade or service grade. Only one such rifle and spare parts for it will be sold to an individual. No ammunition will be sold to individuals. 
</P>
<P>(3) Junior marksmanship clubs and junior marksmanship division affiliated within the Director of Civilian Marksmanship (DCM) pursuant to AR 920-20 may purchase limited quantities of .22 caliber ammunition. 
</P>
<P>(4) The DCM will determine the maximum quantity of such ammunition that clubs will be permitted to purchase in each fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(5) Approved, non-profit summer camp organizations that are of a civic nature are allowed to purchase from the DCM at cost plus shipping and handling charges, 300 rounds of .22 caliber ammunition for each junior who is participating in a summer camp marksmanship program.
</P>
<P>(6) Requests for purchase of ammunition by marksmanship clubs and summer camp organizations will be submitted to the DCM for approval. If he approves, the application will be forwarded to ARRCOM for processing. If it is disapproved, it is returned to applicant with reason(s) stated for disapproval. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligibility of purchasers.</I> In order to purchase a rifle under this program, an individual must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be a member of a marksmanship club affiliated with the DCM (AR 920-20). 
</P>
<P>(2) Based upon regular competitive shooting, have an established status as a marksman as determined by the DCM. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Purchase procedure.</I> (1) Individuals desiring to purchase National Match Grade M1 service rifles will submit requests to the Director of Civilian Marksmanship, Department of the Army, Washington, DC 20314-0110. The request should contain the name and address of the shooting club with which the purchaser is affiliated and appropriate evidence of status as a competitive marksman.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a request, the Director of Civilian Marksmanship will forward to the individual a Certificate for Purchase of Firearms in the suggested format at figure 5-1 to be completed, notarized and returned. When returned with check or arrangements for payment, the Certificate will be referred for appropriate verification in the records of US Government agencies and for other investigation as required. This is done to insure that the sale of a weapon to the applicant is not likely to result in a violation of law. The Privacy Act Statement for Certificate of Purchase of Firearms (figure 5-2) will be made available to the individual supplying data on the Certificate for Purchase of Firearms (suggested format, figure 5-1). Prior to requesting the individual to supply data on the Certificate for Purchase of Firearms (suggested format, figure 5-1) the Privacy Act Statement for Certificate will be made available to the individual concerned. (The Privacy Act Statement will be reproduced locally on 8 × 10
<FR>1/2</FR> inch paper.) 
</P>
<P>(i) A purchase application will be denied if the applicant fails to meet all the conditions required in the Certificate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If an application is denied, the applicant will be informed of the action and will be given an opportunity to submit additional information justifying approval of the application. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the results of the investigation are favorable, the application will be forwarded to ARRCOM for processing. 
</P>
<P>(h) Marksmanship clubs affiliated with the DCM and individuals who are members of those clubs are authorized to purchase from the Army targets of types not otherwise available from commercial sources. Request for such purchases will be submitted to the Director of Civilian Marksmanship for approval and processing. Individuals who have in the past purchased rifles from the Army under the authority of 10 U.S.C. 4308(a)(5), may purchase spare parts for those rifles if the parts are available. Requests for purchase of spare parts will be submitted to the Director of Civilian Marksmanship for approval. If he/she approves the application, she/he will forward it to ARRCOM for processing. If he/she disapproves the application, she/he will return it to the applicant stating the reasons for disapproval. Current DA transportation security measures for weapons will be applied under procedures contained in paragraphs (d)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cadets, US Military Academy.</I> (1) When approved by the CDR DARCOM, the Superintendent, US Military Academy may sell to cadets upon graduation from the Academy those sabers which no longer meet prescribed standards of appearance and/or serviceability. 
</P>
<P>(2) Application to purchase sabers under these provisions will be made in accordance with procedures established by the Superintendent. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Reserve Officer's Training Corps (ROTC) and National Defense Cadet Corps (NDCC).</I> Supplies required by educational institution for the training of units and individuals of the Reserve Officer's Training Corps and National Defense Cadet Corps, in addition to authorized items normally furnished to ROTC and NDCC schools, may be sold when available by the activities listed in paragraph (g) of this section (10 U.S.C. 4627). Such purchases will be in accordance with AR 145-2. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Manufacturers and designers.</I> (1) Under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 4506, the Secretary of the Army is authorized to sell to contractors or potential contractors such samples, drawings, and manufacturing and other information as he considers best for national defense. Procedures for such sale are contained in APP 13-1502. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under the provisions of 10, U.S.C. 4507, the Secretary of the Army may sell to designers who are nationals of the United States, serviceable ordnance and ordnance stores necessary in the development of designs for the Armed Forces. Designers will submit application to purchase to the appropriate Commodity Command.
</P>
<P>(3) If any item normally requiring demilitarization pursuant to the Defense Disposal Manual (DoD 4160.21-M) and the AR 755-series is sold, a special condition of sale will prohibit further disposition by the purchaser without prior approval of the Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Department of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Sales of individual pieces of U.S. armament for sentimental reasons.</I> Under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2574, individual pieces of U.S. armament, which are not needed for their historical value and can be advantageously replaced, may be sold at a price not less than cost when there exists for such sale sentimental reasons adequate in the judgment of the Secretary of the Army.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Method of sale.</I> (1) Applications to purchase under the provisions of this act will be submitted to Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, ATTN: DALO-SMS, Department of the Army, with a complete identification including serial number, and location of desired item, if known.
</P>
<P>(2) Approved applications for major items will be forwarded through Commander, U.S. Army Materiel Development and Readiness Command, ATTN: DRCMM-SP, to the Commander, U.S. Army Armament Materiel Readiness Command.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 5651, Jan. 29, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 48097, Nov. 21, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.16.0.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.16.0.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.4   Issues, loans, and donations for scouting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section provides information relative to issue, loan or donation of Government property to the Boy Scouts of America and the Girl Scouts of America. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidance.</I> (1) Issues are made under the provisions of the loan agreement and reimbursement is made for adjusted shortages and damages. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provisions for donations of surplus property to Scout organizations, including lists of classes of donable property, are contained in chapter III, part 3, Defense Disposal Manual (DOD 4160.21M). 
</P>
<P>(3) The loan of certain Army, Navy, Air Force and DLA equipment and the provision of transportation and other services for Jamborees is initially provided for by Pub. L. 92-249. Implementation on a current basis is made in DOD Directive 7420.1. Army implementation is provided as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Army stock fund in paragraph 2-6b(4), AR 37-111, Working Capital Fund-Army Stock Fund Uniform Policies, Principles and Procedures Governing Army Stock Fund Operations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-stock fund in paragraph 2-18, AR 310-34, Equipment Authorization Policies and Criteria, and Common Table of Allowances. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Loan agreements are mutually developed preceding the actual lending of the equipment. Paragraph 1-16, AR 735-5, General Principles, Policies and Basic Procedures, is used as the guide for preparation of loan agreements. Authority for commanders to participate in World and National Jamborees is included in paragraph (d) of this section; Procedure for Loan of Equipment and Providing of Transportation and Other Services to the Boy Scouts of America for World and National Jamborees is included in paragraph (j) of this section; and sample loan agreement to be executed by area commanders is included as figure 7-5. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>World and National Boy Scout Jamborees.</I> The Act of 10 March 1972 (Pub. L. 92-249; 86 Stat. 62) and (86 Stat. 63) authorized the Secretary of Defense to lend equipment and provide transportation and other services to the Boy Scouts of America in support of World and National Jamborees. The Secretary of Defense has delegated his authority and responsibility for the support of Jamborees to the Secretary of the Army. The Commander DARCOM ATTN: DRCMM-SP has been assigned to monitor the program for the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Group travel and visits.</I> Many Scouts and Leaders will travel in groups and their itinerary will provide for visits to places of interest in CONUS en route to and from Jamborees. Such group travel may begin in June and extend into September and October of the Jamboree year. In keeping with Department of the Army policies, commanders of Army installations may extend an invitation to and honor requests from Scout groups enroute to and from the Jamboree to visit and encamp at their installation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commissary and post privileges.</I> Installation commanders are authorized to provide commissary and post exchange privileges to Scout groups en route to and from the Jamboree for food items such as bread, meat, and dairy products. These privileges will be extended only to Scout groups which are en route to or from the Jamboree and who are encamped or quartered at the installation or the Jamboree site. Commissary and post exchange privileges extended to Scout groups while encamped at the Jamboree site for supply and food items will only be honored upon-application by officials of the Boy Scouts of America to supplement supplies and rations not considered adequate for American Scouts or Scouters. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Arrangements.</I> Regional Scout Executives have been informed by the National Headquarters of the contents of this subchapter and that arrangements pursuant to this subchapter must be made in advance directly with the installation commanders. However, commanders will consider factors of extenuation or emergency which may preclude advance arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hospitalization.</I> Boy Scouts and Scout Leaders attending Jamborees are considered designees of the Secretary of the Army for the purpose of receiving medical care at US Army Medical facilities. The reciprocal rate will not be charged. Subsistence charges will be at the rate of $1.80 per day for hospitalized patients, but will not be collected locally. Each Boy Scout and Leader participating in Jamborees and hospitalized in Army medical treatment facilities will be reported to The Surgeon General, ATTN: DASG-SGRE-SSC, Department of the Army, Washington, DC 20314, on DD Form 7 (Report of Treatment Furnished Pay Patients; Hospitalization Furnished (part A)). No local collections are authorized. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service coordination.</I> (1) The Departments of the Navy and the Air Force and the Defense Logistics Agency will assist the Department of the Army in providing necessary equipment, transportation, and services in support of the Boy Scouts of America attending Jamborees. The Secretary of the Army or his designee will maintain liaison, as appropriate, with such agencies to avoid duplication of effort. 
</P>
<P>(2) Other departments (agencies) of the Federal Government are authorized under such regulations as may be prescribed by the Secretary (Administrator) thereof, to provide to the Boy Scouts of America (BSA), equipment and other services, under the same conditions and restrictions prescribed for the Secretary of Defense. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Procedure for loan of equipment and providing of transportation and other services to the Boy Scouts of America for world and national jamborees. Preliminary actions.</I> (1) In accordance with the provisions of Pub. L. 92-249, H.R. 11738, 10 March 1972, and Secretary of Defense Memo of 17 May 1972, Subject: Loan of Equipment and Providing of Transportation and Other Services to the Boy Scouts of America for Boy Scout Jamborees; Memo of 23 January 1973, Subject: Military Transportation Support for Boy Scout Jamborees; and Memo of 19 August 1974, Subject: Military Transportation Support for Boy Scout Jamborees, the DOD is authorized to lend certain items and provide transportation and certain other services to such Jamborees. Prior to the loan of property and providing transportation and other services, an appropriate agreement will be executed between the United States of America and the activity to be supported. A bond (fig. 7-6), in an amount specified by the Commander, DARCOM, based on statute taken by the Commander-in-Chief/Commander, Major Army Command (MACOM), and held until termination of the encampment and final settelment is made for each Jamboree. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commander-in-Chief/Commander, MACOM designated, on behalf of the Commander, DARCOM, representing the Secretary of Defense will enter into legal arrangements with the Boy Scouts of America for the loan of equipment and the providing of transportation and certain other services for Boy Scouts World and National Jamborees. National Jamborees include Jamborees conducted by and within the United States and also those conducted by and within foreign nations. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commander-in-Chief/Commander, MACOM, will appoint a Property Book Officer who will maintain separate stock records in order to provide for a single final billing to the supported activity (Boy Scouts of America) for items consumed, lost, damaged or destroyed. The Department of the Army will not be billed for items obtained from other than Army sources, except medical supply losses. Bills for medical supply losses will be submitted to the US Army Area Surgeon for payment. He will establish liaison with the activity to be supported. The property book account will be established in accordance with section II, chapter 2, AR 710-2. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Commander-in-Chief, MACOM, will task the Army Area Surgeon for Medical Supply Support to the Jamborees. Each Surgeon designated should appoint an accountable officer and furnish the name, location, and routing identifier of a project office wherein medical supply problems can be resolved.
</P>
<P>(5) The Property Book Officer is authorized direct communication with the source of supply, other military department liaison personnel and DARCOM ICP's to resolve routine supply problems. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Preparing bills of material.</I> (1) The activity (BSA) will submit a list of equipment and supplies desired to the Commander-in-Chief/Commander, MACOM. This list will be edited during and subsequent to preliminary conferences with representatives of the activity and furnished to Commander, DARCOM, ATTN: DRCMM-SP.
</P>
<P>(2) HQ, DARCOM will convert the informal list to a tentative Bill of Material and will furnish the respective Commodity Command that part of the Bill of Material for their items of logistical responsibility. A suggested format for the Bill of Material is included as figure 7-1. Local reproduction is authorized. Copies of the entire tentative Bill of Material will also be furnished to each of the military departments authorized to participate in the support of the encampments. The Bill of Material forwarded to the Commander-in-Chief/Commander, MACOM will be screened to determine inhouse availability prior to placing requisitions on CONUS supply points.
</P>
<P>(3) At such time as item availability information is on hand and the sources to be used are determined (paragraph (m) of this section, a Bill of Material (figure 7-1) will be prepared by HQ, DARCOM, and forwarded to the Commander-in-chief/Commander, MACOM.
</P>
<P>(4) The Bill of Material will list, by commodity command (military department), all items desired, identified by National Stock Number (NSN) description, quantity desired and required delivery date. The NSN will provide identification of the items required. Items will be identified by the Property Book Officer to the responsible commodity command or military department as indicated below: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) CERCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 US Army Communications and Electronics Materiel Readiness Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) TSARCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 US Army Troop and Aviation Materiel Readiness Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) ARRCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 US Army Armament Materiel Readiness Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) TARCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 U.S. Army Tank-Automotive Materiel Readiness Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) DLA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 Defense Logistics Agency.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Navy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N Department of the Navy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Air Force</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F Department of the Air Force.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) Other Installations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The Bill of Material will be screened to insure that radioactive items restricted for military use are not included.
</FP>
<P>(l) <I>Establish property transaction records.</I> (1) A Property Transaction Record reflecting complete information about each item loaned to the activity will be established and maintained by the Property Book Officer (figure 7-2) and the respective commodity command military department (figure 7-3). Suggested formats for the Property Transaction Records are found in figures 7-2, 7-3, and 7-4, Local reproduction is authorized.
</P>
<P>(2) The Property Book Officer will also establish and maintain separate Property Transaction Records for items obtained from supply sources other than Army commodity commands, <I>i.e.</I>, other Army installations, Department of the Navy, Department of the Air Force (figure 7-4).
</P>
<P>(3) Each entry on the Property Transaction Record will be supported by appropriate documentation (commodity command: copies of shipping documents, copies of return documents and copies of surveillance inspection report—Property Book Officer: Requisition voucher files and hand receipt cards). This is particularly important for reconciliation purposes in order that all property received from each source will be returned to that source upon termination of each encampment.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Locating and obtaining equipment and supplies.</I> (1) The respective commodity commands (military departments) will screen the tentative Bill of Material (paragraph (k)(2) of this section) and determine availability and source of supply identified by Routing Identifier Code. They will advise HQ, DARCOM, ATTN: DRCMM—SP of availability, appropriate substitute items when the requested items are not available in sufficient quantity, and the source of supply for requisitioning purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Concurrently, the Bill of Material will be screened within the MACOM to determine those items that can be obtained from assets available in the command.
</P>
<P>(3) The Property Book Officer will requisition equipment and supplies from the source of supply as indicated by Commander, DARCOM in accordance with AR 725-50 or other separately furnished instructions. The requisition number, quantity requisitioned, stock number and source of supply will be entered in the Property Transaction Record. Requisitions will cite the appropriate project code assigned and appropriate activity address code on all requisitions submitted. Project codes will be assigned by Commander, Logistic Systems Support Activity, ATTN: DRXLS-LCC, Chambersburg, PA, 17201 and distributed by message to all interested addressees.
</P>
<P>(4) Loan of General Services Administration (GSA) General Supply Fund Material—The Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949, as amended, authorizes the Administrator, GSA to loan GSA General Supply Fund Material to the Department of Defense and other federal agencies. Loan shall be made to the extent that items are readily available and that such loans will not jeopardize the GSA stock inventory. The loan of GSA General Supply Fund Material shall normally be limited to 90 Calendar days. Requisitions for GSA material should be submitted to the nearest GSA Regional Office by the CINC/CDR MACOM.
</P>
<P>(5) Formal accountability for all items shipped to the site of the activity will be retained by the appropriate accountable activity. Property and financial accounting will be in accordance with respective military department regulations governing loans. 
</P>
<P>(6) The shipping depot or other source will furnish a copy of the shipping document to the respective commodity command (military department) where the quantity charged, date shipped, condition of the property and total value will be posted to the Property Transaction Record. 
</P>
<P>(7) Upon receipt of the advance copy of the shipping document, the commodity command (military department) will post information to his Transaction Record, by source as in paragraph (l)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) When the shipment is received, the Property Book Officer will inspect the property. A narrative statement of condition will be prepared if condition of the property is other than that indicated on the shipping document and referenced to the condition entry on the Property Transaction Record. The source of supply, as appropriate, will be immediately notified of overages or shortages and verified in condition, as provided in chapter 8, AR 735-11. The Property Book Officer will enter on the shipping document the quantity actually received when it differs from quantity shown as shipped and will post the quantities received to the property book record. 
</P>
<P>(9) Discrepancies between the quantity shipped by the depot and that received by the Property Book Officer and variance in condition will be reconciled as rapidly as possible and appropriate records will be brought into agreement. When shortage or damage is not attributable to the carrier, the Property Book Officer will immediately contact the responsible source of supply, furnishing the stock number and document number involved, together with an explanation of the discrepancy. Reconciliation is particularly important in order to ensure a common point of departure in determining charges to be assessed upon termination of the activity. Replacement shipments, when required, will be covered by appropriate shipping documents. 
</P>
<P>(10) Special Instructions for Defense Logistics Agency, Clothing and Textile Items. (See DSAR 4140.27/AR 700-49). 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Transportation.</I> (1) Transportation of equipment and supplies—The responsibility of coordinating movement of equipment and supplies placed on loan to the Boy Scouts of America during National and World Jamborees is delegated to the Commander, US Army Materiel Development and Readiness Command, ATTN: DRCMM-ST. 
</P>
<P>(2) All requisitions for items in question, will cite the appropriate project code and will be shipped by commercial bill of lading on a collect basis to all National Jamborees and World Jamborees held in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(3) Shipments to Boy Scout contingents at World Jamborees in foreign countries will be by Government bills of lading, unless otherwise specified by the Boy Scouts of America. 
</P>
<P>(4) All shipments directed to Boy Scout Jamborees will be routed by the most feasible means as determined by the shipper. Shipments will be consolidated to the maximum extent possible to assure the lowest charges available to the Boy Scouts of America. 
</P>
<P>(5) Separate shipping instructions will be provided for each Jamboree to assure that correct consignee and railhead addresses are furnished. 
</P>
<P>(6) Movement of Boy Scouts, Scouters, and officials living in the United States of America to a Jamboree within the United States of America or to a Jamboree in an oversea area shall be the responsibility of the Boy Scouts of America or the individuals concerned. 
</P>
<P>(7) No authority exists under Pub. L. 92-249 for the movement of Boy Scouts, Scouters, and officials via military capabilities other than those of the Military Airlift Command or the Military Sealift Command. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Transportation by vessels of the Military Sealift Command (MSC).</I> (1) The MSC does not operate any ships suitable for carriage of passengers on transoceanic routes. Although pertinent directives and Pub. L. 92-249 authorize the movement of Boy Scouts on Military Vessels, the MSC has no capability to provide such transportation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The MSC is an industrial-funded organization and charges the military service for sealift services provided in accordance with established rates. The host command will be responsible to compensate the MSC for any equipment or material moved on MSC ships. The limitations inherent in Pub. L. 92-249 stipulate that transportation support provided will be at no cost to the Government. Under these directions, Boy Scout equipment or materiel is not authorized movement on a space available basis without prior approval of the Secretary of Defense. Such approval is not anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(3) All billings for transportation provided by MSC will be forwarded to the appropriate Commander-in-Chief/Commander of the support major Army command (MACOM). Reimbursement will be requested by the MACOM Commander from the Boy Scouts of America. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Transportation of oversea based scouts, scouters, and other authorized personnel by military airlift to national or international jamborees.</I> (1) Space required reimbursable transportation by Military Airlift Command (MAC) airlift over established MAC channels is authorized from points outside the Continental United States (OCONUS) to aerial ports within CONUS, or to other oversea locations and return. Such transportation will be provided only to the extent that it does not interfere with the requirements of military operations, and only to those Boy Scouts, Scouters, and officials residing overseas and certified by the Boy Scouts of America (BSA) as representing the BSA at the Jamboree. Certification by the BSA will be in the form of a letter identifying each such individual as their authorized representative at the Jamboree. This letter of authorization must be presented to the sponsoring overseas command. 
</P>
<P>(2) Boy Scouts, Scouters, officials and their equipment will be moved after all space-required traffic, but before any space-available traffic. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each passenger is authorized the normal accompanying free baggage allowance of 66 pounds while traveling on MAC aircraft. It is not contemplated that any excess baggage allowance will be authorized. 
</P>
<P>(4) Transportation of Boy Scouts, Scouters, officials, and their equipment provided by MAC controlled aircraft will be reimbursed at the common user tariff rates assessed U.S. Government Traffic, as contained in AFR 76-11. 
</P>
<P>(5) On the basis of letters of authorization issued by the BSA, the BSA will monitor services provided by the Department of Defense. One copy of each BSA letter of authorization will be forwarded to the Commander, US Army Materiel Development and Readiness Command, ATTN: DRCMM-SP, 5001 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22333, for planning purposes. This letter of authorization should specify whether one way or round trip transportation is requested. 
</P>
<P>(6) DACROM responsibilities include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Compiling a passenger forecast to be submitted to MAC in accordance with AR 59-8/OPNAVINST 4630.18C/AFR 76-38/MCO 4630.6B. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC) an information copy of the passenger forecast. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Submitting all passenger requirements for one way and round trip transportation originating overseas to the appropriate overseas command. 
</P>
<P>(7) The responsibilities of the sponsoring overseas command include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying that Scout passengers are officially authorized representatives of BSA in accordance with paragraph (p)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Making all necessary passenger reservations with MAC, for transportation originating overseas, in accordance with AR 55-6/AFR 76-5/OPNAVINST 4630.23/MCO P4630.11. The oversea command will submit CONUS outbound return passenger requirements to Commander, Military Traffic Management Command, ATTN: MTMC-PTO-P, Washington, DC 20315. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Issuing each passenger a MAC Transportation Authorization (DD Form 1482) for transportation from the overseas location and return, when round trip transportation has been requested. The customer identification code, item (7) of the DD Form 1482, should be designated—JBWJ—which was approved by MAC as the permanent CIC for direct billing purposes to HQ, Boy Scouts of America, North Brunswick, New Jersey, 08902. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that each Scout passenger has a completed DD Form 1381, signed by a parent, guardian or other legally responsible individual. 
</P>
<P>(v) Evaluating the use and necessity of military airlift within or between overseas locations. This evaluation will include such factors as reasonable travel time, number of connections required, and assurance of Scout group integrity. Surface transportation will normally be used for travel within an overseas area. 
</P>
<P>(8) The responsibilities of the MTMC include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluating the return outbound passenger requirements and making the necessary transportation arrangements so as to maintain Scout group integrity at all times. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assisting the BSA in completing required documentation and insuring that passengers are ready prior to the return flight. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Pub. L. 92-249 does not provide authorization for the use of the Department of Defense transportation by Scouts, Scouters, and Officials of foreign nations. All requests to transport such persons should be forwarded through the unified command channels to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs). However, DOD does not contemplate authorization for the use of MAC aircraft for other than U.S. Scouts, Scouters, and Officials. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of military helicopters in support of medical evacuation, VIP, press and photo-services—The Director of Army Aviation, the Department of the Army Staff Judge Advocate, and the Comptroller of the Army have furnished the general opinion that Pub. L. 92-249 authorizes the use of Military helicopters in support of the above described services to the extent they are reasonably available and permits the use of appropriated funds. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Determination of charges and settlement.</I> (1) All property on which repair cost is claimed will be held at the depot or post, camp or station until final charges are determined and a release is given by CDR, DARCOM, Department of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(2) The commodity command (military department) will prepare the following information and statement, and forward them, to CDR, DARCOM, Department of the Army, for final review: 
</P>
<P>(i) Complete Property Transaction Record and supporting documents. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Proper accounts for which reimbursement received for shortages and repairs are to be deposited. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The following statement: “The losses and/or damages indicated on the Property Transaction Report in the amount of $______ represent the total claim by (appropriate commodity command or military department) relative to commodity command or military department property loaned to (Boy Scouts of America). Upon settlement and deposit to the proper account, the CDR of the commodity command or military department releases the (Boy Scouts of America) from further obligations.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) Statements as to the general type of repair (e.g., tentage, repair tears, insert new panels, replace grommets) will be reported on separate addendum to the Property Transaction Record for items requiring repair. 
</P>
<P>(3) The CINC/CDR, MACOM, will prepare the following information and statement for property furnished for assets in the command and will forward this to CDR, DARCOM: 
</P>
<P>(i) Same as (q)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Same as (q)(2)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The following statement: The losses and/or damages indicated on the Property Transaction Record in the amount of $______ represent the total claim by (appropriate Army) relative to (appropriate Army) property loaned to (Boy Scouts of America). Upon settlement and deposit to the proper account, the CINC/CDR, MACOM releases the (Boy Scouts of America) from further obligations. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Same as (q)(2)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) CDR, DARCOM, will review the charges, inspect property to be repaired, if necessary, reconcile any discrepancies and determine final charges to be levied against the supported activity. Approved list of charges will be forwarded to the CINC/CDR, MACOM, for collection, and property being held for repair will be released. 
</P>
<P>(5) The CINC/CDR, MACOM, will prepare and dispatch a letter to the supporting activity and request payment made payable to the Treasurer of the United States. Upon receipt of payment, collection documents will be prepared and appropriate fiscal accounts, as furnished by the commodity command (military departments) ((q)(2) and (3) of this section) credited. The MACOM Surgeon will take action to reimburse the DLA stock fund for expendable medical supply losses reported. The CINC/CDR, MACOM, will close the Property Transaction Record Account. 
</P>
<P>(6) The CINC/CDR, MACOM, will advise the CDR, commodity command (military departments and CDR, DARCOM, DA) that settlement has been accomplished. Commodity command (military department) Property Transaction Records will be closed upon receipt of the foregoing advice. 
</P>
<P>(7) The CDR, DARCOM will advise the CINC/CDR, MACOM, to return the bond to Boy Scouts of America. 
</P>
<P>(8) In the event of unsatisfactory settlement, the proceeds of the bond will be used to satisy the claim. The Power of Attorney executed in connection with the agreement will be invoked and proceeds collected from the bond (fig. 7-7). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="623" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 623—LOAN OF ARMY MATERIEL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2571; 31 U.S.C. 686; 10 U.S.C. 2667.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>AR 700-131, 45 FR 62038, Sept. 18, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 623.1" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets forth policies and procedures for loan of Army materiel. As used in this regulation, the term “loan” includes a lease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This regulation applies to all Department of the Army (DA) agencies, commands, installations, and activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) This regulation applies to the Army National Guard (ARNG) only when the procedure for the loan of equipment under the procedure of National Guard Regulation (NGR) 735-12 does not apply. 
</P>
<P>(3) This regulation does not apply to loans governed by the DOD Military Assistance and Sales Manual, DOD 5105.38-M. 
</P>
<P>(4) This regulation does not apply to loans governed by the Defense Acquisition Regulation (DAR). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part outlines when loans of Army materiel may be made. It gives general procedures for requesting and processing loans, and sets forth responsibilities, including requirements for reimbursement. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explanation of terms.</I> (1) The terms “loan,” “lease” and “bailment” are contractual terms and are frequently used interchangeably. They have no meaning by themselves. It is necessary to study the statute to see what is required. Usually, a “loan” is thought of as a short-term transfer of property, sometimes with reimbursement; a “lease” is a more formal transfer, often long-term and requiring a fair monetary rental; and a “bailment” is a loosely-used term, generally reserved for a delivery of property to another in trust for the purpose of doing something to the property and then returning the property to the owner. The term “issue” is frequently used in the sense of a transfer of property which will be consumed in use. The terms “gift,” meaning a permanent transfer of property without reimbursement, and “sale,” meaning a permanent transfer with reimbursement, are outside the scope of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(2) For additional definitions, see appendix A. 
</P>
<P>(3) The words “he, him, his” when used in this publication represent both the masculine and feminine genders, unless otherwise specifically stated. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loan restrictions.</I> (1) Army materiel is not normally used for other than the Army's primary mission; however, under conditions described herein materiel not immediately needed to support mission requirements may be loaned to—
</P>
<P>(i) Army and other Department of Defense (DOD) elements. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-DOD Federal departments and agencies. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Civil governments (State and local). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Special activities, agencies, and others. 
</P>
<P>(2) Table 2-1 lists various circumstances where loan of Army materiel might be requested. It identifies the applicable Federal laws or other authority which would authorize such loans. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statutory authorities.</I> There are three basic federal laws which authorize the loan of Army property. There are also numerous specific statutes which authorize particular types of loans in limited situations. Unless there is a reason to use the specific statute, one of the basic statutes will be used. 
</P>
<P>(1) The following are the basic statutes: 
</P>
<P>(i) 10 U.S.C. 2571—Authority for loan of property within DOD. 
</P>
<P>(ii) 31 U.S.C. 686 (The Economy Act)—Authority for loans to other Federal departments and agencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 U.S.C. 2667 (The Leasing Statute)—Authority for loans/leases, including leases to activities outside the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(2) Following are some of the specific authorizing statutes:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 U.S.C. 331—Federal aid for State governments as result of insurrection.
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 U.S.C. 332—Use of militia and Armed Forces to enforce federal authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 U.S.C. 333—Use of militia or Armed Forces to suppress interference with state and federal law.
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 U.S.C. 2541—Loan of equipment and barracks to national veterans organizations.
</P>
<P>(v) 10 U.S.C. 2542—Loan of equipment to the American National Red Cross for instruction and practice.
</P>
<P>(vi) 10 U.S.C. 2543—Loan of equipment to US Presidential Inaugural Committee.
</P>
<P>(vii) 10 U.S.C. 2544—Loan of equipment and services to the Boy Scouts of America, for national and world jamborees.
</P>
<P>(viii) 10 U.S.C. 2572—(See AR 870-20.) Loan of books, manuscripts, works of art, drawings, plans, models, and condemned or obsolete combat materiel not needed to—
</P>
<P>(A) A municipal corporation.
</P>
<P>(B) A soldiers monument association.
</P>
<P>(C) A state museum.
</P>
<P>(D) A nonprofit incorporated museum.
</P>
<P>(E) Posts of Veterans of Foreign Wars of the USA.
</P>
<P>(F) American Legion Posts.
</P>
<P>(G) A local unit of any other recognized war veterans association.
</P>
<P>(H) A post of the Sons of Veterans Reserve.
</P>
<P>(ix) 10 U.S.C. 4308—Establishment and support of civilian rifle ranges. 
</P>
<P>(x) 10 U.S.C. 4311—Issue of rifles and ammunition for conducting rifle instruction and practice. 
</P>
<P>(xi) 10 U.S.C. 4651—Issue of arms, tentage, and equipment to support educational institutions that do not have ROTC but maintain a course in military training prescribed by the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(xii) 10 U.S.C. 4652—Loan of rifles and issue ammunition for target practice to educational institutions having corps of cadets. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) 10 U.S.C. 4653—Issue of ordnance and ordnance stores to District of Columbia high schools. 
</P>
<P>(xiv) 10 U.S.C. 4654—Issue of quartermaster supplies at educational institutions that maintain a camp for military instruction of its students. 
</P>
<P>(xv) 10 U.S.C. 4655—Loan of arms and issue ammunition to other agencies and departments of the US Government. 
</P>
<P>(xvi) 10 U.S.C. 4656—Loan of aircraft and ancillary equipment to accredited aviation schools at which DA or Air Force personnel pursue courses of instruction. 
</P>
<P>(xvii) 10 U.S.C. 4683—Loan of obsolete or condemned rifles and accouterments to local units of recognized national veterans organizations for certain ceremonial purposes. 
</P>
<P>(xviii) 10 U.S.C. 4685—Loan of obsolete ordnance to educational institutions and state soldiers and sailors orphans' homes for purpose of drill and instruction. 
</P>
<P>(xix) 32 U.S.C. 702—Issue of supplies to State National Guard. 
</P>
<P>(xx) 33 U.S.C. 701n (Pub. L. 84-99 as amended)—Flood emergency preparation; emergency supplies of drinking water. 
</P>
<P>(xxi) 33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.</I> (Pub. L. 92-500)—Federal Water Pollution Control Act. 
</P>
<P>(xxii) 42 U.S.C. 5121 <I>et seq.</I> (Pub. L. 93-288)—Disaster Relief Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) Other statutory guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 U.S.C. 4307—Authorizes the establishment of a Director of Civilian Markmanship (DCM). 
</P>
<P>(ii) 18 U.S.C. 1385—Unlawful use of Armed Forces in local law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(iii) 18 U.S.C. 3056 (as amended by Pub. L. 91-651)—Powers and duties of Secret Service.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (1) The Commanding General (CG), US Army Materiel Development and Readiness Command (DARCOM), through the Materiel Readiness Commands' (MRC) commanders, is responsible for loans of materiel controlled by DARCOM wholesale supply points.
</P>
<P>(2) Major Army commands (MACOM) CGs and commanders in chief (CINCs) of unified commands (UCOMs) are responsible for loans of materiel from supporting units and installations.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director of Military Support, Office of the Deputy Chief of Staff for Operations (ODCSOPS), is the DOD point of contact for the Federal Disaster Assistance Administration (FDAA), other Federal agencies, and the National Red Cross in disaster assistance matters. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.2" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.2   Loan policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loan and approval policy</I>—(1) <I>Basic policies.</I> (i) Materiel is not loaned to non-DOD activities as a routine procedure. However, materiel in the Army inventory is available for loan for special purposes if approved. Approving authorities are listed in table 2-1; their addresses are in appendix B. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans will be approved or disapproved based on the purpose, duration of the loan, and consideration of the following factors which can take precedence over any loan. 
</P>
<P>(A) Military requirements and priorities. 
</P>
<P>(B) Continuity of military operations, troop survival, and the rehabilitation of essential military bases. 
</P>
<P>(C) Stocks and programed Army requirements. This includes prepositioned mobilization reserve stocks. 
</P>
<P>(D) Type classification with pending changes. 
</P>
<P>(E) Minimum diversion of Army stocks. 
</P>
<P>(F) The adequacy of the borrower's resources. Requesters will be encouraged to use their own resources. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan requests from civilian authorities or activities will normally enter Army channels at the installation or MACOM levels. If on-post or off-post units receive loan requests, they will refer them to unit's supporting installation commander at once. Emergency loan requests will be relayed by telephone or electrically transmitted message. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When routine handling of a loan request would result in loss of human life, grave bodily harm, or major destruction of property, and when the lack of communication facilities prevents use of normal procedures, loans otherwise permitted by this regulation can be made with local approval. However, normal policy should be followed to the extent possible. If procedural requirements cannot be fully complied with, they must be met as soon as possible after the loan is made. 
</P>
<P>(v) Army materiel loaned under this part will be delivered to borrower “as is, where is” available. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Stocks of the least serviceable condition which are still suitable for the loan's purpose will be used. Logistic control code “C” materiel will be loaned before logistic control code “B” materiel. Logistic control code “B” materiel will be loaned before logistic control code “A” materiel. (Ref chap 9, AR 708-1.) 
</P>
<P>(vii) Commanders of medical treatment facilities (MTF) are subject to all the requirements of this regulation, including the requirement for reimbursement. However, in accordance with AR 360-61 which implements DOD Instruction 5410.19, 
</P>
<P>(A) Emergency loans of medical supplies (drugs, vaccines, etc.) may not be made without reimbursement, but the loan may not exceed 30 days and the medical supplies must be replaced in kind by the borrowing agency or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Emergency loans of medical equipment not to exceed 15 days may be made without reimbursement if it is the practice in the community for other hospitals to make such loans. Equipment loans which exceed 15 days must be approved, in writing, by the MACOM commander and are subject to all the requirements of 10 U.S.C. 2667, including reimbursement. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Army property loaned to non-DOD activities will not be further loaned without approval of the original approving authority. 
</P>
<P>(ix) There will be no procurement or redistribution of assets to offset the effects of loans. Material will not be set aside, earmarked, assembled, or stockpiled to be available for use related to loans. 
</P>
<P>(x) Army materiel may be recalled from the borrower at any time to meet Army requirements. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Stock record accounting and financial transactions for loans will conform with existing regulations. 
</P>
<P>(xii) Borrowers are responsible for the care, custody, and proper use of materiel borrowed. Except as stated in this regulation, reimbursement will be required for damage, destruction, loss, fair depreciation in value, and for any Army repair, care, transportation, preservation, and protection of loaned equipment. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Care, renovation, and repair of borrowed materiel will conform with the loan agreement. 
</P>
<P>(xiv) As indicated below, borrowers must provide signed loan agreements, provide surety bonds, and vehicular insurance prior to receipt of materiel. Loan agreements and bonds will be prepared in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Borrower
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan agreement required
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Surety bond required
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vehicular insurance required
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Army or other DOD activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-DOD Federal departments and Agencies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civil Authorities (State and Local Governments)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civilian Activities (veterans' organizations, youth groups, etc.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> A hand receipt or other document assigning responsibility will suffice.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> In emergency disaster relief cases, bonds and insurance may be provided after receipt of the materiel. (See paragraph (a)(4) of this section.)</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Loans to DOD organizations.</I> Army materiel may be loaned to DOD activities for projects, programs, and mission requirements that support basic functions of the borrowing activity. Examples are field exercises, maneuvers, training exercises, including annual training (AT) of Reserve Components, and research development, test, and evaluation (RDTE). 
</P>
<P>(i) Loans of major end items belonging to MACOMs are approved by MACOM or UCOM commanders. Loans of materiel other than major end items are approved at commander/installation level. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans of materiel belonging to DARCOM (wholesale level) are approved as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Materiels other than major end items.</I> By the director or deputy director of an MRC. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>All other items.</I> By HQ DARCOM or commanders of MRCs unless loan would interfere with issue against DA Master Priority List (DAMPL) priorities, then by HQDA ODCSLOG (DALO-SMD). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans to federal departments/agencies.</I> Loans to Federal activities outside the DOD are usually provided under provisions of the Economy Act, 31 U.S.C. 686. Federal agencies borrowing DOD materiel using the provisions of this act are responsible for reimbursing the DOD for all DOD costs incident to the delivery, return, and repair of the materiel. The borrower is also responsible for reimbursing the DOD for depreciation if the depreciation cost is significant. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disaster relief.</I> (i) CONUS/OCONUS. (A) In disaster situations local civil authorities must provide relief from their own resources. If this is not sufficient, and the American National Red Cross has a team at the disaster, requests for further assistance should be made to them. If the President has declared a major disaster or emergency, requests should be made to the regional director of the Federal Disaster Assistance Administration (FDAA). (See AR 500-60 for guidance.) 
</P>
<P>(B) The commanding General, US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM), acting for the Secretary of the Army (SA), is responsible for Army materiel support of disaster relief operations within the United States and the District of Columbia. UCOMs are responsible for disaster relief operations in US possessions and trust territories. These commanders are authorized to task DOD agencies and commands, consistent with defense priorities, to provide materiel in support of operations. A military representative will be appointed by the appropriate command to act as the DOD point of contact with the Housing and Urban Development (HUD) Federal Coordinating Officer (FCO) when military assistance is required during a Presidential declared disaster or emergency. When a disaster or emergency is of such magnitude, the disaster area may be geographically subdivided. A military representative will then be appointed for each FCO. All requests for military assistance will be passed through the FCO to the DOD military representative at the disaster area. 
</P>
<P>(C) The Director of Military Support (ODCSOPS), HQDA, acts at the DOD point of contact for the Administrator, FDAA, other Federal agencies, and the American National Red Cross in all disaster assistance matters. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Foreign. (A) The Department of State is responsible for deciding when emergency foreign disaster relief operations will be undertaken. This authority is delegated to Chiefs of Diplomatic Missions for disaster relief operations whose total costs will not exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(B) Send queries on foreign disaster relief to HQDA (DAMO-ODS) (para 4, app B). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Civil disturbances.</I> The maintenance of law and order is primarily the responsibility of local and state authorities. In civil disturbance situations, a basic goal of the Federal Government is to minimize the involvement of active military forces. One of the most effective means of keeping Federal forces off the streets is to loan US Army civil disturbance type equipment to Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies and also to the National Guard. (For specific guidance see AR 500-50.) 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for loan of Army materiel during or for expected civil disturbances are of three types with approval authority as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Group one.</I> Arms, ammunition, tank-automotive equipment, and aircraft. Loans will be approved by the SA or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Group two.</I> Riot control agents, concertina wire, and similar military equipment which is not included in group one. Loans will be approved by the SA (or his designee), or by an Army task force commander employed at an objective are during a civil disturbance. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Group three.</I> Protective equipment such as masks and helmets; body armor vests; other equipment not included in group one or two such as clothing, communications equipment, and searchlights; and the use of DOD facilities. Such loans will be approved by the SA (or his designee); by MACOMs; by the CGs of CONUS armies, MDW, and by commanders of UCOMs outside CONUS as applicable. (NOTE: Firefighting equipment will not be used for riot control). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Queries concerning loans in support of civil disturbances will be forwarded to the Director of Military Support, HQDA(DAMO-ODS), WASH DC 20310. (See app B.) 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Terrorism.</I> (i) The Department of the Army is the DOD Executive Agent for support to the FBI in combating terrorism. Existing civil disturbance loan procedures, including categories of equipment, apply to equipment loans to the FBI for combating terrorism. Military resources will be provided only upon request of the Director, FBI, or the Senior FBI official present at the scene of a terrorist incident. It may be difficult in some situations to determine whether a practical incident fits the definition of terrorism. In these cases, commanders are authorized to accept the judgment of the FBI official making the request if it is supported by the available facts. (See para 3, table 2-1.) 
</P>
<P>(ii) For requests from the FBI in connection with terrorist incidents, any commander in the chain of command down to and including commanders of military installations are authorized to approve loans of group two and group three resources. (See paragraphs (a)(4)(1) (B) and (C) of this section.) Requests for equipment which involve technical/operating personnel, excluding fire-fighting equipment and explosive ordnance disposal, will be processed as a group one resource. For example, approval authority is retained by the DOD Executive Agent. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Aircraft piracy.</I> Assistance to other federal agencies in the protection of airways is provided through loans under guidance in paragraph 3, table 2-1. Specific limitations on such support are covered in AR 500-1. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loan/lease to activities outside the Federal Government.</I> Title 10, U.S.C. 2667, authorizes the lease of Army materiel to non-DOD departments, agencies, activities, or individuals when it is determined that the materiel is not, for the period of the lease, needed for public use, is not excess property, and that the loan will promote the national defense or be in the public interest, (See AR 360-61.) Such a lease must not be for more than 1 year (or be renewed/extended for a total period of more than 5 years); it must provide that the lessee will pay a fair monetary rental. The fair monetary rental will be determined on the basis of prevailing commercial rates or computed according to sound commercial accounting practices for the fixing of rental on such property. This will include a return on capital investment and administrative cost as well as depreciation. The delegation of authority to lease is SAOSA-71-6, paragraph 1-5103, ADARS, the prescribed lease agreement is at paragraph 16-553, ADARS. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan agreements.</I> (1) Upon approval of a loan request and before shipment or issue of the materiel, the approving authority will complete a written loan agreement, DA Form 4881-R. In all cases, the statutory basis for the loan will be cited. The approving authority is acting for the DOD on loans to other Federal agencies, and for the United States on loans to civil authorities and special activities. The agreement will be signed by the approving authority and the borrowing activity. When emergency loans have been made as authorized by this AR, follow-up action will be taken at once to formalize the loan by completing a loan agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loan agreements are mutually developed by the approving authority and the chief of the borrowing activity (or their designees). The agreements identify the responsibilities of all parties. They include terms and conditions of the loan. Appendix C illustrates a sample loan agreement, DA Form 4881-R (Agreement for the Loan of US Army Materiel), and specifies what the loan agreements will stipulate and contain. Also illustrated at appendix C is DA Form 4881-2-R, which will be completed and appended to the loan agreement as “Exhibit I.” 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan agreements will be held by the approving authority until termination and final settlement of each loan. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the loan agreement is signed by someone other than the chief borrowing official, than a Certificate for Signature by an Alternate will be completed. (See appendix D for DA Form 4881-1-R.) It will be attached to the signed (by the borrower) copy of the agreement that is retained by the approving authority. DA Forms 4881-R, 4881-1-R, and 4881-2-R are reproduced locally on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11-inch paper. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Surety bonds.</I> (1) Some borrowers of Army materiel must post a surety bond. (See table 2-1 and DA Form 4881-3-R at app E.) Bonds ensure safe return of the borrowed materiel or reimbursement for any loss of or damage to the materiel. The bond will consist of— 
</P>
<P>(i) A properly executed surety bond with a certified bank check, cash, or negotiable US Treasury bonds, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice of bond by a reputable bonding company deposited with the approving authority for the loan. Bonds will equal the total price of the borrowed items as shown in exhibit I to the loan agreement (app C, DA Form 4881-R). A “double” bond (bond equal to twice the value of the borrowed item(s)) will be required—
</P>
<P>(A) For Army materiel loaned to the Red Cross for instruction and practice to aid the Army, Navy, or Air Force in time of war (10 U.S.C. 2542). 
</P>
<P>(B) For ordnance and ordnance stores loaned to high schools in the District of Columbia (10 U.S.C. 4653). 
</P>
<P>(2) The bond need not be posted by the borrowing agency itself. The source or originating agency for the bond is immaterial if the bond is valid. For example, to secure a loan, a State may post bond on behalf of a city, county, or other governmental body or authority within the State. 
</P>
<P>(3) In an emergency, when posting a bond would delay approval of an urgent loan request and when the total price is less than $1,000, the approval authority may approve the request. The approval is on the condition that the bond be posted within 5 days. 
</P>
<P>(4) Bond forfeitures or exceptions to mandatory forfeitures can only be made with the concurrence of the Secretary of the Army. Forfeitures will be based on actual expense incurred. Forfeitures do not release the borrowing agency from returning borrowed materiel or affect ownership. Bonds are normally forfeited under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Materiel is not returned at the termination of a loan period or when return has been directed by the Army. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrowing agent refuses to pay for damages or other Army expenses. 
</P>
<P>(5) Surety bonds will be held by the approving authority until the loan is terminated and final settlement is made. At that time, the bond will be returned to the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(6) If US treasury bonds are posted as surety bond, the borrower must execute a power of attorney (DA Form 4481-4-R, app F). This will enable cashing of the treasury bonds if some forfeiture is required. DA Form 4881-3-R (Surety Bond) and DA Form 4881-4-R (Power of Attorney) will be reproduced locally on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11-inch paper. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loan duration.</I> (1) Loan periods and extensions will be shown in table 2-2.
</P>
<P>(2) Materiel will be loaned only for the number of days needed for the specific purpose for which borrowed. Loan extensions must be justified. The reason(s) why other means or other than Army materiel cannot be used must be included. Approval of loan extensions will be based on the merit of the reasons given. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan extensions authorized beyond 1 year will not be approved unless the lender of the loaned materiel has inspected and inventoried the materiel to insure completeness and serviceability. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Types of DA materiel available for loan.</I> Examples of types of items that may be loaned, and examples of the types of organizations that may borrow Army materiel, are listed in table 2-1. Most loans will be nonexpendable items or expendable items not forecast to be consumed (durable items). Expendable items (e.g., expendability code X) will not be loaned unless approved as an exception.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2-1—Loan Authority and Purpose
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[See footnotes at end of table]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requester
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Authority and guidance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Normal approving authority
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples of materiel authorized
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DOD Activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2571</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Materiel, supplies, and equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Department of Agriculture (U.S. Forest Service) protection against wildfire 
<sup>2</sup> (see AR 500-60 for guidance) 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 U.S.C. 686; Memo of Understanding (MOU), Apr. 24, 1975; AR 500-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications, earthmoving, and vehicular equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Avalanche Control 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 4655; 31 U.S.C. 686; AR 735-5; MOU Nov. 29, 1973</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications, howitzers, etc. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Department of Justice (FBI)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 331; 10 U.S.C. 332; 10 U.S.C. 333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transport aircraft,
<sup>1</sup> helicopters, flares, parachutes, communications equipment, arms, vehicles, etc. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aircraft Piracy 
<sup>1</sup> (see AR 500-1 for guidance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 4655; 18 U.S.C. 1385; 31 U.S.C. 686; DODD 3025.12; AR 500-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOD General Counsel 
<sup>1</sup> or designee; in urgent cases, Deputy Director for Operations, NMCC 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Terrorism 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 500-50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See item 7 below for 
<sup>2</sup> approval authority by equipment classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See item 8 below for 
<sup>2</sup> classification equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Drug Enforcement Agency 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 U.S.C. 686; AR 735-5, par. 1-16; CSR 1-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asst SECDEF (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as above. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Treasury Department (U.S. Custom Service) (U.S. Secret Service) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 3056; 31 U.S.C. 686; AR 735-5, par. 1-16; DODD 3025.13; DODI 5030.34; AR 1-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asst SECDEF (or designee); Mil Asst to the President; followed by the Spec Asst to the SECDEF; (overseas) CINC, UCOM's</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as above. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. National Guard Equipment (loan to NG)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 735-5; 10 U.S.C. 2571</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army HQDA; CG FORSCOM; DARCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Material, supplies, and equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Other Federal agencies emergency support 
<sup>1</sup> to Federal agencies (see AR 1-35 and AR 500-60 for guidance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 U.S.C. 686; AR 735-5; AR 1-35; AR 500-60; DODD 4000.19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spec Asst SECDEF; Secretary of the Army</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Material, supplies, and equipment for flood fighting, rescue operations, repair/restoration of flood control works, or hurricane flood protection works. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Support to FPA/GSA Regional Field Boards 
<sup>2</sup> (see AR 15-17 for guidance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 15-17; DODD 5100.74; OEP Civ 8500.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HQDA; CG FORSCOM; CG CONUSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation, emergency power and fuel. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Support to Inaugural Committee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2543</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SECDEF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tents, flags, litters, ambulances, drivers, hospital furniture, camp appliances. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Support for Search and Rescue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 500-2; FM 20-150; AR 525-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CG FORSCOM; GC CONUSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Search craft and crews. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Civil Authorities Civil Disturbance 
<sup>2</sup> (see AR 500-50 for guidance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 5121 <E T="03">et seq.;</E> 10 U.S.C. 331; DODD 3025.12; AR 500-50; AR 350-7; DACD Plan; Garden Plot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Group One: DOD Executive Agent or designee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Group One: Arms, ammunition, tank-automotive equipment, and aircraft. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Group Two: DOD Executive Agent or designee, or task force command at objective area during the civil disturbance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Group Two: Riot control agents, concertina wire, and other like military equipment to be employed in control of civil disturbances. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Group Three: DOD Executive Agent or designee; CG MDW; CG CONUSA; and CINC's UCOM's, OCONUS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Group Three: Firefighting resources, equipment of a protective nature (masks, helmets, body armor vests) and use of Army facilities. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Disaster Relief 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 5121 <E T="03">et seq.;</E> DODD 3025.1; AR 500-60 and AR 930-5; DODD 5100.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CG FORSCOM; CG DARCOM for DARCOM stocks; and CINC's, UCOM's, OCONUS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as 6 above. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Civil Defense</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DODD 3025.10; AR 500-70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CG FORSCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personnel, facilities, equipment, supplies, and services. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">American National Red Cross for support of Army units in support of local civil government disaster relief</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MOU between DOD and ANRC, June 24, 1975</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HQDA; The Adjutant General (DAAG-ASO-R)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personnel, equipment, office space, equipment, supplies; and custodial, utility, maintenance, and communication services. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Environmental Protection Agency and U.S. Coast Guard (oil and hazardous substances pollution spills)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33 U.S.C. 1251 <E T="03">et seq.;</E> DODD 5030-41; AR 500-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as disaster relief</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personnel, facilities, supplies, equipment, and transportation. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Boy and Girl Scouts of America (world or national jamborees) 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2544; AR 725-1, ch. 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MACOM CG on behalf of CG DARCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bedding, cots, chairs, vehicles, buildings, etc. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Civilian Marksmanship Program (Clubs and Schools) 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 4308, 4311, 4651, 4652, 4653, 4685; AR 920-15; AR 920-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arms and accouterments. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Community Relations and Domestic Action Programs 
<sup>1</sup> (Youth Conservation Corps)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 28-19; AR 360-61; 42 U.S.C. 2701</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Installation commanders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equipment or buildings which may aid in instruction to the disadvantaged. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Veterans Organizations (State and National Conventions) 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2541</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MACOM CG and CG CONUSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cots, bedding, chairs, tents, mattresses, pillows, unoccupied barracks, etc. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Burial Ceremonies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 4683</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Obsolete rifles. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Armies of the United Kingdom, Canada, and Australia (Standardization Program)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2667; AR 34-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CG DARCOM (those for equip valued over $100,000 and those not favorably considered by DARCOM will be referred to the DCSRDA, HQDA, for approval)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Aid to District of Columbia Government in Combating Crime 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DODD 5030.46; CSR 500-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army (or designee)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications, vehicles, aircraft, arms, etc. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Departments, agencies, municipalities, organizations, activities, and individuals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2667; SAOSA-71-6, par. 1-5103, ADARS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heads of Procuring Activity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Army property, not excess requirements, but not needed for period of lease. (See delegation of authority.) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Red Cross (Aid to DOD in time of war)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2602; AR 930-5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DAAG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office space, supplies and equipment; uniforms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Army Flying Clubs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AR 230-1; DODD 1330.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DAAG; CG FORSCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Army aircraft. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. Civilian Activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 2572; AR 870-15; AR 870-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chief, Military History</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Historical properties and military art. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20. Civilian Educational Institutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 U.S.C. 4654</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Army</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quartermaster supplies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> DA DCSOPS, Director of Military Support, has responsibility for these staff functions. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> DA DCSOPS, Director of Military Support, has responsibility for these executive agent functions. (See app. A for definition of this term.) 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> DA DCSLOG, Director of Supply and Maintenance, has responsibility for these staff functions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2-2—Loan Periods
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Borrower/purpose
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Initial
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan periods 
<sup>1</sup> extension
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DOD Activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As needed for mission accomplishment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As needed for mission accomplishment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Army National Guard (loan of equipment)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period as determined by requirements. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Department of Agriculture (U.S. Forest Service) (protection against wildfire)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Department of Justice (FBI) (Aircraft piracy)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(Drug Enforcement Agency)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Treasury Department (U.S. Customs Service)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(U.S. Secret Service)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period as determined by requirements. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Environmental Protection Agency/U.S. Coast Guard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For duration of requirements 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Other Federal Agencies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Civil Agencies (Civil disturbances) Type I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 days during actual disorder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 days. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Type II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days in anticipation of a disorder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(Disaster relief)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For minimum essential period, no extension for use during rehabilitation unless requested by the FDAA 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Boy and Girl Scouts of America (World or National Jamborees)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For duration of “Jamboree” plus period en route to or return from Jamborees 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Civilian Marksmanship (Clubs and Schools)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Civilian Community (Relations and Domestic Action Programs)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As justified by local requesters 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. American National Red Cross for support of Army units in support of local civil Government disaster relief</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as above for duration of requirements (office equipment)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as above. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Veterans' Organizations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 days. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. To Armies of the United Kingdom, Canada, and Australia (Standardization Program)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As negotiated. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Civilian Organizations: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. Arms and accouterments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year or less as determined by requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. DLA stock fund items</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 days. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">c. Medical equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As negotiated. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">d. Medical supplies (drugs, vaccines, etc. must be replaced in kind)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As negotiated. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">e. All other items</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Requester justification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As negotiated. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. DA materiel provided under 10 U.S.C. 2667</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All extensions or loan renewals which extends the overall loan period beyond 1 year must be approved by the Secretary of the Army (or designee).</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.3" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.3   Submission of requests for loan of Army materiel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Loan requests will be expedited according to the situation's urgency. A situation may be so serious that waiting for instructions or approval from a higher authority is unwarranted. Commanders will then take action as required to save human life, prevent human suffering, or reduce property damage or destruction. (See § 623.2(b)(1).) Such emergency actions will be reported at once to higher authority according to § 623.7.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests to the US Army for loan, or loan extension, will be promptly sent by the Army element that received the request through channels to the approving authority shown in table 2-1 or as specified in appropriate regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Loan requests will be made by the head of the Federal agency, civil authority, or civilian activity desiring the materiel. An exception is that requests from the Federal Disaster Assistance Administration (FDAA) will normally be initiated by an FDAA regional director rather than by the administrator. The requests should be made directly to the approving authorities shown in table 2-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Army National Guard (ARNG).</I> Loan requests for property belonging to ARNG will be made under National Guard Regulation 735-12. (See para 5, table 2-1.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General procedures</I>—(1) <I>DOD activities.</I> DOD activities will borrow Army materiel as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests will be made in writing citing—
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed justification for loan to include urgency of need.
</P>
<P>(B) Duration of loan.
</P>
<P>(C) Funds to defray transportation and handling.
</P>
<P>(D) Serviceability requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approving authority involved will—
</P>
<P>(A) Forward a loan agreement to requester. Loan agreements within DOD will often consist of letter requests, approving endorsements, and materiel issue document (DD 1348-1) transferring temporary accountability. Between units and activities, a hand receipt may be used as the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(B) Furnish positive identification of item to be loaned.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide instructions for delivery of equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOD recipient of loaned Army materiel will—
</P>
<P>(A) Forward accepted loan agreement to approving authority (all actions can be accomplished by electrically transmitted messages).
</P>
<P>(B) Provide geographic location of equipment and specific activity that is responsible for care and preservation of loaned equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Return equipment to Army in condition received with normal allowance for fair wear and tear.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-DOD activities.</I> Non-DOD activities, including Federal agencies will request loan of Army materiel as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Non-DOD activities, and agencies, will send routine requests by letter 45 days before the materiel is required. Federal agencies may use Standard Form 344 (Multiuse Standard Requisitioning/Issue System Document). Requests will include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The DA approving authority. See table 2-1.
</P>
<P>(B) Date request is submitted.
</P>
<P>(C) Title of requesting agency and/or person authorized to receive or pick up the borrowed materiel. Be specific; e.g., Special Agent in Charge John Doe, FBI, Anytown, USA, (telephone number with area code) 123-456-7890.
</P>
<P>(D) Type of loan; e.g., Boy Scout National Jamboree, American Legion Convention, etc. (with a short summary of circumstances).
</P>
<P>(E) Statement that none of the requested materiel is internally available to the requesting activity.
</P>
<P>(F) Statement that this support is not reasonably available from local government or commercial sources.
</P>
<P>(G) Authority for the loan (if known); e.g., public law, US code, executive order, etc. See table 2-1.
</P>
<P>(H) Positive identification of the type and quantity of items required. If national stock numbers and nomenclature are not available, identify the items needed by type, model, size, capacity, caliber, etc.
</P>
<P>(I) Geographic location where the materiel will be located and used.
</P>
<P>(J) Proposed duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(K) Statement that the agency has, or will ensure capability to properly operate, maintain, secure, and care for the borrowed materiel.
</P>
<P>(L) If firearms are requested, a statement that adequate facilities are available to secure the arms. See § 623.5(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(M) A statement that the borrowing activity will assume all responsibilities, liabilities, and costs related to the movement, use, care, security, loss, damage, and repair of the loaned materiel.
</P>
<P>(N) Citation of funds to cover reimbursable costs. Also, a statement that an adequate bond will be provided, if required.
</P>
<P>(O) A statement that the loan agreement prepared by the Army will be signed by the “responsible official” of the borrowing activity (or designee).
</P>
<P>(P) Name, address, and telephone number of the person who will serve as the point of contact for the requesting agency, authority, or activity.
</P>
<P>(Q) Complete instructions for delivery of the equipment to ensure that shipping instructions in the request are consistent with the urgency of the situation. State whether a small quantity shipped by air, express, or other fast means will satisfy immediate needs until bulk shipments can arrive. Also state quantity immediately required.
</P>
<P>(R) If applicable, the number of persons to be accommodated. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Urgent requests may be made to meet expected or actual emergencies. Such requests may be made by telephone or by electrically transmitted message. Include information required in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) (A) through (R) of this section to the extent possible. The request will be presented to the approving authority. The borrower will then send a complete written request to formalize the emergency request. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If approval of the loan is granted, approving authorities will contact accountable property officers at CONUS installations (equivalent level overseas), or MRC item managers to determine which items are available. Installation requests to MRCs will state that the installation resources could not meet the loan requirements. Availability decisions will be based on normal management criteria including past and anticipated demand, asset balances, order-ship time, repair rate and repair cycles, and procurement schedules. If requested items are available and approved for issue, the approving authority (or designee) will—
</P>
<P>(A) Negotiate and agreement; 
</P>
<P>(B) Obtain surety bond from the borrower when required; 
</P>
<P>(C) Provide reproduced copies of the signed documents to the appropriate accountable property office along with authorization to make the loan. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Approving authorities will maintain a system of numerical control for all loans. The accountable property officer will enter this number on all transaction documents related to each specific loan to include requisition, issue, shipping, turn-in, and financial documents. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>The US Secret Service (USSS).</I> (i) Army regulation 1-4 provides policies and procedures for Army support to the Secret Service. Support will be provided only on the request of the Director, United States Secret Service or his authorized representative. It will be provided only to assist the United State Secret Service in performance of its statutory protective functions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Routine requests are sent by the United States Secret Service direct to the Office of the Special Assistant to the SECDEF for approval. Approved requests involving Army resources are tasked through HQDA (DAMO-ODS) to the proper command. Approved requests for resources of other Services are tasked direct to the proper Service. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Approved requests for resources to be used in oversea areas (regardless of Service) will be passed from the Office of the Special Assistant to the SECDEF to the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) for tasking of the proper unified command. 
</P>
<P>(iv) In urgent situations, the United States Secret Service may request military resources from the nearest military commander who is authorized to take action consistent with the urgency. As soon as possible, they will seek guidance/approval through command channels to the approval authority (Spec Asst to the SECDEF). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Drug and narcotics interdiction activities.</I> All non-DOD Federal agencies requesting DOD resource in support of drug or narcotics interdiction activities should send requests through their headquarters to DOD, ATTN: Deputy Assistant SECDEF (Program Management), WASH DC 20314. Concurrently, information pertaining to the request should be sent to HQDA (DAMO-ODS) (para 4, app B), or relayed by telephone (AUTOVON 225-2003 or the Army Operations Center 851-1800 during nonduty hours). The Deputy Assistant SECDEF will pass approved request to HQDA (DAMO-ODS), through the Office, Under Secretary of the Army, for determination of availability and readiness impact. If approved by the Under Secretary of the Army, ODCSOPS (DAMO-ODS) will task the proper MACOM to provide support. Requests for extension or changes to agreements will be processed as noted in tables 2-1, 2-2 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>The Federal Bureau of Investigation.</I> (i) Requests for aircraft piracy assistance, received from Federal authorities by Army field commands or activities, will be forwarded through command channels by telephone (confirmed by electrically transmitted message) to the Military Support Division, ODCSOPS (DAMO-ODS), AUTOVON 255-3848/7433/2003 (WATS 202-695-2003). These requests will be approved by the DOD General Counsel (or designee). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The requests will then be sent to the National Military Command Center (NMCC). It will coordinate between the lending accountable property officer and the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In urgent cases, the Deputy Director for Operations, NMCC, may approve requests upon his or her own responsibility. This is subject to a later report to the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the DOD General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Approved requirements will be passed to the Secretary of the Army by telephone and confirmed by electrically transmitted message. The Secretary of the Army will then assign the requirement to the proper command (or staff agency) which will contact the designated Federal civil official and confirm the details of the request. Modification of the requirement to better perform the mission is authorized if the Federal official agrees. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Enviromental Protection Agency (EPA), US Coast Guard (USCG), or National Response Team (NRT).</I> Non-DOD Federal agency requests for loan of materiel to combat oil and hazardous substance pollution spills will be made directly to the Commanding General, FORSCOM. Requests will be made by an “On Scene Coordinator” (OSC) of the EPA, or by the USCG acting for the Department of Transportation. The pollution spill NRT may also initiate requests. Approval authority is shown in table 2-1. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Civil authorities.</I> Loans of materiel to civil authorities for use during civil disturbances and disasters will be made as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Civil disturbances.</I> Requests for Army materiel in anticipation of (or during) civil disturbances will be promptly sent through command channels to the approving authority (UCOM commanders will coordinate requests originating from areas outside CONUS) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for resources that require Secretary of the Army approval will be sent through channels to HQDA (DAMO-ODS) (para 4, app B). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for group three resources (§ 623.2(a)(5)) that are not available to commanders having the approval authority will be sent through channels to HQDA (DAMO-ODS). Intermediate commands may approve and make available the requested resources. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requests received by other DOD agencies will be referred to local Army installation commanders for processing. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disaster relief.</I> Requests for loan of materiel to support disaster relief will be handled as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Valid requests for disaster relief assistance (see § 623.2(a)(4) for decisionmaking process) will be given to the DOD liaison (a military officer) assigned to the disaster; or forwarded to the CONUS Army commander in which the disaster occurs. (See appendix G.) If no Federal Disaster Assistance Administration (FDAA) official (HUD Federal Coordinating Officer (FCO)) is present at the disaster scene, requests may be received from the Red Cross. 
</P>
<P>(ii) HUD Regional Directors for FDAA, or FCOs, will send requests for loan of materiel to the Commanding General, FORSCOM, or to the proper CONUS Army commander. (Requests for Defense Civil Preparedness Agency (DCPA) resources will be sent to DCPA regional offices.) 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civilian activities</I>—(1) <I>Veterans' Organizations.</I> Loan requests by authorized veterans' organizations (as listed in VA Bulletin 23A) will be sent to the commander of the CONUS Army area (or Commander, MDW), for the area where the materiel will be required. (See appendix G.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scouting loans.</I> National and regional scout executives will send requests (restricted to DOD support of national and world jamborees) according to chapter 7, AR 725-1. (See § 621.4 of this title.) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans/Leases under the provisions of Title 10 U.S.C. 2667.</I> Requests for loans from other civil activities and organizations may come into the DOD through various channels; e.g., telephone call to local installation commander, letter to Congressmen, or directly to the Secretary of Defense or Army. Each request will be forwarded to the authority having the item and having the authority to approve the request. (See appendix B and table 2-1.) In cases where approval is questionable, the request may be submitted through channels to HQDA (DALO-SMD) WASH DC 20310 (para 2, app B) recommending approval/disapproval action. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loans to the United Kingdom (UK), Canada, and Australia.</I> All requests for loans (restricted to materiel for use in the “Standardization Program”) to the UK, Canada, or Australia will be sent to Commander, DARCOM, ATTN DRC-IRD for approval. AR 795-204 addresses loans to other allied governments. (See DOD Military Assistance and Sales Manual, DOD 5105.38-M.) 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special materiel requests</I>—(1) <I>Loan of Communications Security (COMSEC) Equipment.</I> Subject to provisions of this regulation, requests for loan of COMSEC equipment will be sent to the Commander, US Army Communications Security Logistics Agency (para 24, app B) for approval, loan action, and establishment of loan records. All loans of Army COMSEC equipment to civilian authorities or activities will be according to Technical Bulletin 380-41. Standard Form 153 will be annotated to show purpose of the loan, expected date of return, and authority for the loan. A copy will be sent to the Director, National Security Agency (NSA), ATTN: S3, Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loan of arms and accouterments.</I> Requests for loan of arms and accouterments will be sent by requesting agencies directly to the Secretary of the Army, Military Support Division, HQDA (DAMO-ODS) (para 4, app B). Requests received out of this channel will be returned to the originator for resubmission. The Secretary of the Army (or designee) is the approval authority. See § 623.5 for procedures. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>War reserves and operational project stocks.</I> Regulatory guidance with respect to loan of war reserves and operational project stocks to DOD organizations is found in chapter 8, AR 710-1. Loans of war reserves and operational project stocks to non-DOD activities will be according to this regulation and must be approved by HQDA (DALO-SMW) (para 3, app B). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Loan of historical property and art.</I> Requests for loans of Army historical property and military art will be sent to the Commander, US Army Center of Military History (para 4, app B). Specific information on such loans is found in AR 870-15 and AR 870-20. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.4" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.4   Accounting procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loan document format.</I> (1) When the lending accountable property officer receives copies of the loan request, loan agreement, surety bond (if required), and written loan authorization from the approving authority, the loan request will be converted to Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures requisition formal (DD Form 1348) as follows: (NOTE: In emergencies, authorization may be made by telephone. The format request, agreement, bond, and authorization will follow. Informal records should be also maintained.) 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Card columns
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Code or data
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“AOE”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RIC of NICP (lender).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Media and status code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National stock number.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unit of issue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25-29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quantity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Document number.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30-35)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DODAAC of the requisitioner, if applicable, otherwise DODAAC of accountable property officer (lender).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(36-39)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Julian date.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(40-43)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Serial number.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“N” for nonrecurring demand.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45-50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Supplemental address (loanee DODAAC) for DOD units. For non-DOD activities enter the shipping destination.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(45)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Y”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(46-49)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Julian date of receipt of loan request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alphabetic (except I or O) indicating which loan of the day is first; e.g., A-first, B-second, etc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“M”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“G4” for loans to nonresearch and development activities. “G6” for loans to research and development activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Project code if applicable. Note: This will be the same for all loans. Project codes will be assigned by Chief, Logistic Systems Support Activity, ATTN: DRXLS-LCC, Chambersburg, PA 17201. It will be sent by message to all interested addresses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60-61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Priority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62-64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RDD.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65-66</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Depot RIC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purpose code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condition code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Management code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73-80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blank.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Loaned property will be kept on the accountable records of the owning property account. The entry showing the quantities loaned will be supported by DD Form 1348-1 (receipt document), and copies of the loan agreement and surety bond (if required). The receipt document must be signed by the responsible official of the borrowing activity. It is then returned to the accountable property officer as a valid hand receipt for property accounting purposes. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loans will be processed by accountable property officers according to normal supply procedures except as modified by this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(4) Accountable property officers will keep loan files with enough documentation to provide an audit trail for loan transactions and a single source of accounting and billing for reimbursement. No separate property book accounts will be set up for these loans. Items, with dates shipped, will be identified by use of “loan control numbers” in loan jacket files and in supporting documentation. The files will include copies of—
</P>
<P>(i) The loan request. If the request was made by telephone (urgent), a copy of the Memorandum for Record prepared to summarize the call will be used. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The surety bond (with cash, certified check, US treasury bonds, or adequate bond from a bonding company). 
</P>
<P>(iv) The approving authorization to make the loan. 
</P>
<P>(v) DD Form 1348-1 used for shipping the items. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A master loan register with the loan control number and shipping document number. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shipment of loaned materiel.</I> (1) Loaned Army materiel will be shipped only to the chief of the borrowing activity or to a designee authorized to receive and sign for the materiel. To keep the materiel out of unauthorized hands, consignees (receivers) will be advised of the items and quantities to be loaned; the source of supply; whether the items are to be picked up or shipped; and of shipments made. 
</P>
<P>(2) All shipments of loaned equipment will be documented on DOD single line item “release or receipt” document (DD Form 1348-1). These will be initiated by the lending accountable property officer. Packing, crating, handling, estimated transportation costs, and serial numbers (if applicable) of items shipped will be shown on all copies. The consignee will be given advance copies of the DD Form 1348-1 as notice of shipment, and a list of DD Form 1348-1 document numbers. For loans to non-DOD activities two copies of the certificate below will be prepared by the accountable property officer (see fig. 1). It will accompany the DD Forms 1348-1. 
</P>
<P>“I certify receipt of and assume responsibility for the Army materiel listed on DD Form 1348-1. Control numbers on DD Form 1348-1 follow. The items were received in good condition except as noted on the DD Form 1348-1. Serial numbers have been verified (omit if not applicable).”
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of responsible officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Typed name of responsible officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address of responsible officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date certificate was signed
</FP>
<HD3>Figure 1. Sample receipt certificate</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) One copy of each signed DD Form 1348-1 (for non-DOD activities, one copy of the signed certificate) will be returned to the accountable property officer. Also, one copy of each will be kept in the borrower's file.
</P>
<P>(4) The installation or depot transportation officer is responsible for coordinating movement of the items that must be shipped.
</P>
<P>(5) Shipments, including those to foreign countries, will be made on commercial bills of lading (CBL). Freight charges will be paid by the borrower. The CBL will cite proper project codes. NOTE: In emergencies where use of CBL would delay shipment, government bills of lading (GBL) may be used subject to later reimbursement. Shipments to Boy Scout World Jamborees in foreign countries will be by GBL unless otherwise specified by the Boy Scouts.
</P>
<P>(6) Shipments will be consolidated to the maximum to get the lowest charges available.
</P>
<P>(7) Separate shipping instructions will be provided for each recipient, convention, jamboree, etc., to ensure correct consignee and railhead addresses.
</P>
<P>(8) Transportation will be at no expense to the government. The Defense Transportation Services (Military Sealift Command, Military Airlift Command, and Military Traffic Management Command) will send all billings for such transportation costs to the US Army Finance and Accounting Center (USAFAC). The USAFAC will then bill the fiscal station servicing the accountable property office that made the loan. This fiscal station will then bill the borrower for these transportation costs. Army materiel loaned to non-DOD activities is not authorized for oversea movement on a space available basis by MSC or MAC without their prior approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receipt of borrowed property.</I> (1) The person authorized to receive the materiel (whether shipped or picked up) will check the quantities received against the quantities shown on the DD Form 1348-1. This person will also verify the condition of the materiel. Any variation in quantity or condition must be resolved at once. If the shortage or damage is not due to a common carrier, the borrower will give the accountable property officer the National Stock Number, document number, and an explanation of the variation at once. This establishes a basis for assessing charges on termination of the loan. Replacement shipments, when required, will be covered by a DD Form 1348-1. All variations will be noted on the reverse side of the bill of lading.
</P>
<P>(2) When a DD Form 1348-1 has not been received by the borrower and does not accompany the shipment, an informal report will be made to the accountable property officer at once. It will include the nomenclature, quantities, condition, and if applicable, the model numbers and serial number of all material received.
</P>
<P>(3) When shipment has been verified, the borrower (or designee) will enter the quantity received on two copies of the DD Form 1348-1. Serial numbers will also be entered for serial numbered items. The completed copies of the DD Form 1348-1 will be signed by the authorized person. One copy of the DD Form 1348-1 and one copy of the signed certificate (receipt of the materiel) will be returned to the accountable property officer.
</P>
<P>(4) If shipments are received damaged or short, take action described in § 623.4(g).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accounting by borrower.</I> Non-DOD borrowing activities should maintain a system of jacket files. This should include copies of all documents that authorize the loan of materiel and relate to loan transactions. Such files will insure return of materiel within the approved loan period. Files should be retained for audit or any other purpose as required. These files may be destroyed upon turn in of the borrowed materiel, final completion of accounting, and reimbursement for Army costs related to the loan. DOD borrowers will conform to the requirements contained in existing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Return of borrowed materiel</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Borrowed materiel will be returned to the Army in the condition received, less fair wear and tear, unless the terms of agreement specify otherwise.
</P>
<P>(ii) Property for which repair cost is claimed will be held at the Army depot or installation until final charges are determined and a release is given by respective property officers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Return of materiel loaned to rifle clubs and schools will conform with § 623.5. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accountable property officer actions.</I> (i) At the end of a loan period, recall, or upon notice by the borrower that the loaned materiel is no longer needed, the accountable property officer will send a letter of instruction to the borrower for return of the materiel. He will verify or modify the turn-in instructions provided in the loan agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) These procedures will be used by accountable property officers to terminate loans: 
</P>
<P>(A) For loans up to 30 days no specific termination action is necessary except when materiel is not returned by the loan due date. Then, a written loan termination notice will be sent to the borrower. A follow-up notice will be sent every 15 days until the materiel is returned or other settlement is made. 
</P>
<P>(B) For all other loans 15 days before the loan is due, a loan termination notice will be sent by the lending activity to the borrower verifying (or modifying) the turn-in instructions. 
</P>
<P>(C) Follow-up of loan termination notice will be made every 15 days until the materiel is returned or other settlement is made. 
</P>
<P>(iii) After receiving inspection reports (§ 623.4(e)(3)) and final shipment receipts, the accountable property officer will clear the loan records. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The accountable property officer will then advise the borrower of the transaction completion by furnishing receipted copies of the receiving document(s). 
</P>
<P>(v) The accountable property officer will notify the servicing finance and accounting office (FAO) of any reimbursement required. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Actions by the receiving installation, depot, or arsenal.</I> (i) The installation, depot, or arsenal receiving activities will inspect returned materiel. 
</P>
<P>(A) If the quantity received differs from the quantity shipped, the actual quantity received will be entered on the DD Form 1348-1. 
</P>
<P>(B) If the condition of the property differs from that noted on the DD Form 1348-1, the variation will be stated. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loaned materiel returned in an unserviceable condition will be inspected by qualified technical inspectors at installation level and by quality assurance activities at depots to determine condition code. 
</P>
<P>(A) If the condition of returned materiel is the same as noted on the receipt document or the prepositioned materiel receipt card, the item will be processed as a normal receipt. 
</P>
<P>(B) If there is a discrepancy in the actual condition of the item or in the assigned code on the receipt document, obtain an estimate of repair cost and continue normal receipt documentation processing. 
</P>
<P>(C) The receiving depot or installation will prepare an Inspection and Surveillance Report for each returned item that needs repair. Cards will also be prepared for shortages. The cards will include the cost of equipment repair or the value of shortage. A minimum of two copies of each report will be sent to the proper acountable property officer. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loan inventories.</I> (1) If a loan has been approved or extended (by the SA) for a period longer than 1 year, the accountable property officer will inspect and reconcile loan accounts with the borrower at the end of each 12-month period. 
</P>
<P>(2) If no discrepancies are noted, the accountable property officer will file the signed annual inventory form in the borrower's memorandum receipt jacket file. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the inventory shows that amounts and kinds of Army materiel for which the borrower is responsible differ from that actually in his possession, the accountable property officer will—
</P>
<P>(i) For overages, assume accountability for the overages noted on the annual inventory form. Use a copy of the annual inventory form as a debit voucher to the account. No approval of this voucher is needed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For shortages, act to obtain reimbursement for the value of the missing property or to adjust the discrepancy by report of survey. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lost, damaged, and destroyed materiel.</I> (1) When loss or damage occurs during shipment, DOD and Federal agencies will refer to AR 55-38 for specific instructions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Damage or loss which is the fault of the carrier will be billed to the carrier after reconciliation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Army materiel lost, damaged, or destroyed while in the possession of rifle clubs or schools will be handled as described in § 623.5. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any Army materiel loaned at the request of an FDAA Regional Director which is not returned according to instructions in this chapter will be reported to the borrower and to the FDAA Regional Director. The latter will arrange for proper reconciliation and reimbursement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.5" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.5   Loan of arms and accouterments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Loan of arms and accouterments requires special processing and handling. Loans to DOD and non-DOD activities will be handled as a normal loan according to instructions in this section with the added requirement of maintaining serial number visibility. Loans of arms and accouterments as included herein are not applicable to Army National Guard (ARNG). 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commanding General, Armament Readiness Command (ARRCOM) (ATTN: DRSAR-MMS) has been designated by Commanding General, Materiel Development and Readiness Command (DARCOM), as being responsible for keeping a centralized serial number visibility record for all small arms made for the Army. ARRCOM maintains accountable property records for loans to organizations such as the Director of Civilian Marksmanship (DCM); and for loans to non-DOD activities such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), United States Secret Service (USSS), United States Customer Service (USCS); or rifle clubs, educational institutions, and veterans' organizations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for loan of arms which are type classified standard (logistics control code A or B) will be filled with the lowest type classified items available. 
</P>
<P>(4) Borrowers of Army arms will be fully responsible for the care, custody, and proper use of loaned materiel. Physical security measures must be equal to or greater than the minimum requirements set forth in Army Regulation 190-11 and Army Regulation 190-49. 
</P>
<P>(5) If borrowed arms are lost, stolen, or unaccounted for, the borrower must inform the lender (accountable property officer), the local police, and the FBI within 24 hours after discovery. 
</P>
<P>(6) This regulation does not apply to arms issued to Reserve Officers Training Corps units under the National Defense Act. Army Regulation 710-2 is applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans to civilian activities (other than rifle clubs and educational institutions).</I> (1) Arms and accouterments may be loaned by the Army to civilian authorities and to civilian activities as follows: (§ 623.5(c) covers rifle clubs and institutions.) 
</P>
<P>(i) For use in protection of public money and property (10 U.S.C. 4655). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obsolete or condemed rifles (not more than 10), slings, and cartridge belts may be loaned to local units of any national veteran's organization for use by that unit in ceremonies. (For example, a funeral for a former member of the armed forces.) The organization must be recognized by the Veterans' Administration (VA) (10 U.S.C. 4683). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Arms and accouterments loaned to organizations listed in § 623.5(c)(1) for a period of 1 year or less will be accounted for by ARRCOM. Loans of items that exceed 1 year will be accounted for by the DCM under § 623.5(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for loan (or extension of loan) of Army arms and accouterments will be sent by requesting agencies through HQDA (DALO-SMD), (para 2, app B) to the Secretary of the Army. Requests received outside of this channel will be returned to the originator for direct submission to the address above. 
</P>
<P>(3) Requests approved by the Secretary of the Army (or Under Secretary) will be sent to ARRCOM, (para 12 app B) Rock Island, IL 61299, for completion of a formal loan agreement and issue of items. 
</P>
<P>(4) Requisitioning, accounting, and reimbursement procedures are given in § 623.4. However, upon receipt of signed copies of DD Form 1348-1 with the listing of verified serial numbers from the consignee, the ARRCOM Arms and Accouterments Property Officer will send the required transaction data to the DOD Small Arms Serialization Program (DODSASP) at ARRCOM. These data will indicate that the small arms on loan to other Government agencies are accounted for under DOD Activity Address Code W52P41. 
</P>
<P>(5) Shipment and returns are described in § 623.4 except as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The responsible property officer for materiel or loan will request disposition instructions from the accountable property officer when loaned materiel is no longer needed or at the end of the loan period. Loaned materiel may be withdrawn from the borrowing activity at any time to satisfy military requirements. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The accountable property officer will:
</P>
<P>(A) Issue shipping instructions for the return of property to a designated installation. The letter of instruction will contain a MILSTRIP document number (AR 725-50) for each line item scheduled for return to be used for the shipment. The shipper will be directed to cite this document number on the shipping document. 
</P>
<P>(B) Prepare and submit to the receiving installation a prepositioned materiel receipt card (DOD Materiel Receipt Document (DD Form 1486)) (Document Identifier DWC) as advance notice of the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Exception data will be annotated as follows: “Return of Loan from Other Government Agency—Report Receipt of Arms and Accouterments Accountable Property Officer, ATTN: DRSAR-MMD.” 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A copy of the letter of shipping instructions (paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section) will be inclosed with the prepositioned materiel receipt card for information. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon receipt at the receiving installation, property will be inspected immediately. Cost of repairing unserviceable items and cost of replacement, if irreparable, will be determined at time of inspection. The MILSTRIP receipt card will be mailed to the accountable property officer with estimated damage cost and detailed materiel condition as exception data. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon notification of materiel receipt, the accountable property officer will: 
</P>
<P>(A) Clear the loan record with a credit entry and process the receipt to the inventory records as an increase on hand to asset balance. 
</P>
<P>(B) Furnish receipted copies of the receiving document to the consignor and the responsible property officer closing the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans to rifle clubs and educational institutions</I>—(1) <I>Authorization.</I> Arms and accouterments may be loaned to rifle clubs and educational institutions for periods established in table 2-2 under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Rifled arms may be loaned to civilian rifle clubs for promotion of marksmanship training among able-bodied US citizens (10 U.S.C. 4308). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Arms, tentage, and equipment, as the Secretary of the Army deems necessary, may be loaned to an educational institution to provide proper military training where there is no ROTC, but there is a course in military training prescribed by the Secretary of the Army and there are at least 100 physically fit males over 14 years of age (10 U.S.C. 4651). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Magazine rifles and appendages may be loaned to schools having a uniformed corps of cadets of sufficient number for target practice. Models loaned must not be in use at the time, or needed for a proper reserve supply (10 U.S.C. 4652). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Ordnance and ordnance stores may be loaned to Washington, DC, high schools for military instruction and practice (10 U.S.C. 4653). 
</P>
<P>(v) Obsolete ordnance and ordnance stores may be loaned to educational institutions and to State soldiers', sailors', and orphans' homes for drill and instruction if recommended by the Governor of the state or territory concerned (10 U.S.C. 4685). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Director of Civilian Marksmanship (DCM).</I> The President may detail an officer of the Army or Marine Corps as Director of Civilian Marksmanship (10 U.S.C. 4307). The DCM is responsible for— 
</P>
<P>(i) Control and accountability of Army materiel issued to civilian rifle clubs; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Policies and procedures for the issue of arms and ammunition to civilian rifle clubs; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring proper bonding of clubs before issue of Army materiel. The Secretary of the Army has further made the DCM similarly responsible for loans to institutions (schools). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Property transactions.</I> US Army Armament Materiel Readiness Command (ARRCOM) will transfer accountability for materiel shipped to civilian rifle clubs and institutions to the DCM. The DCM will keep a mission stock record account for these items as shown in Army Regulation 710-2. In addition, the account will note all property transactions between the DCM and civilian rifle clubs and institutions as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Loan and return of arms and accouterments to (from) civilian rifle clubs and institutions will not be posted to the accountable record as loss or gain vouchers. They will be posted as “loan transactions” with the DCM retaining accountability. In addition to debit, credit, and adjustment voucher files, the DCM accountable property officer will keep a “loan voucher” file in two sections; e.g., “active” and “terminated.” 
</P>
<P>(A) The active section (suspense for items on loan) will contain DD Form 1348-1 or a letter acknowledging receipt of the items. (The signature of the borrower will be according to paragraph (4) (v) or (vi) of this section.) This section will contain a folder for each activity serviced by the DCM. The active loan vouchers will be filed in National Stock Number and voucher number sequence. This section serves as the DCM loan record. 
</P>
<P>(B) The terminated section (for items no longer on loan) will contain the original loan shipping document (loan voucher). The return receipt document which terminates the loan will be attached. The receipt document will contain the original shipping document number and the return advice code “IQ.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shipments of expendable items (e.g., ammunition, targets, etc.) will be posted as a credit to the accountable record. Accountability will be dropped (These items are deemed to have been consumed at the time of issue). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Expendable items returned by rifle clubs and institutions will be posted to the accountable record as a debit voucher. The DCM will determine disposition of these items. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requisition procedures.</I> (i) The DCM will prepare requisitions based on information from the rifle clubs or institutions. DA Form 1273 (Requisition for Articles Authorized for Issue to Civilian Rifle Clubs) will be used. Two completed copies of the requisition will be sent to the requester. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The rifle club or institution will complete the form and return one signed copy to the DCM, HQDA, Secretary Field Directorate Marksmanship (SFDM), (para 7, app B) and keep one copy for file. 
</P>
<P>(iii) On receipt of the signed copy of DA Form 1273, the DCM will take proper issue action. When more arms are required by the DCM, a DD Form 1348 will be prepared and sent to the Secretary of the Army for approval (AR 725-50). 
</P>
<P>(iv) The supply source responsible for the loan will ship the materiel directly to the rifle club or school. 
</P>
<P>(v) DD Forms 1348-1 received with the shipment or by mail, will be annotated and signed by the person authorized to receive and sign for property for the rifle club or school. The quantity and condition of the items received will be entered thereon. This entry will be based on a physical check and inspection of the materiel. Serial numbers of items received (if applicable and not noted) will also be entered. Two of the completed copies will be signed by the person authorized to sign for the club or institution. They will be mailed to the DCM, HQDA Secretary Field Directorate Marksmanship (SFDM). The third completed copy will be kept in the unit's file. 
</P>
<P>(vi) If a DD Form 1348-1 is not received with the shipment or is not received by mail, a receipt letter will be sent to the DCM. It will set forth the nomenclature, quantities, condition, and serial numbers (of serial-numbered items) of all property received. This letter will be sent as soon as possible after receipt of the property. The receipt letter will be used by the DCM as a loan voucher. One copy will be recorded in the voucher register and placed in the voucher file. The loan action will be posted to the DCM stock record account. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Property returns.</I> When property is returned by civilian rifle clubs or institutions, the DCM will prepare seven copies of the DD Form 1348-1. Five copies will be mailed to the rifle club or institution; one will be kept in suspense in the club's or institution's jacket file; and one will be sent to the US Army Management Systems Support Agency (USAMSSA), Wash., DC 20310, to update the “rifles intransit program.” The rifle club or institution will enter on the five copies the shipment date, how shipped, the quantity shipped, and other necessary data not entered by the DCM and distribute the five copies as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Two copies to the consignee (receiving depot, arsenal, or installation). One copy of the DD Form 1348-1 received by the consignee will be used to tally the shipment and to account for property received. The other copy will be signed by the accountable property officer (or representative) and will be sent to the DCM to terminate the open receipt in the loan voucher file. 
</P>
<P>(ii) One copy with the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(iii) One copy to the DCM, HQDA (SFDM), accompanied by the bill of lading (where available). 
</P>
<P>(iv) One copy retained by the rifle club or institution. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Lost, damaged, or destroyed property.</I> Loss, damage, or destruction of property in the possession of a rifle club or institution will be reported within 24 hours by telephone to the DCM (202-693-6460), the local police, and the FBI. All public and local laws must be complied with. Rifles and other equipment (except ammunition) that becomes unserviceable will be reported to the DCM by the club or institution. The DCM will give instructions for return of the equipment without expense to the government. Any equipment damage or loss that is the fault of the club or institution will be determined by a report of survey (AR 735-11). The club or institution must then reimburse the DCM. The DCM may replace damaged equipment after reimbursement. Government property lost or destroyed without fault or neglect on the club's part will be replaced, if replacements are available. The club will pay only shipping and handling charges. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[AR 700-131, 45 FR 62038, Sept. 18, 1980; AR 700-131, 61 FR 45890, Aug. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.6" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.6   Reimbursement for loan of Army materiel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reimbursement policies and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Policies.</I> (i) DA elements do not program for costs related to loan of Army materiel. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans to non-DOD Federal activities are made on the basis that there will be no extra cost to the Army. Costs that are in addition to normal Army operating expenses will be reimbursed by the borrower. This provision will be a part of the loan agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In cases of aircraft piracy, civil disturbance, disaster relief, or protection of the President or visiting dignitaries, emergency support will not be withheld for lack of a formal reimbursement agreement. In these cases, the supporting Army element will absorb initial costs (within existing fund availability). Reimbursement will be coordinated later. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Loans made under the provisions of Title 10 U.S.C. 2667 will provide that the borrower must pay a fair monetary rental. The fair monetary rental will be determined on the basis of prevailing commercial rates or computed by sound commercial accounting practices including a return on capital investment and administrative cost as well as depreciation. Leases made under this code section will include a provision establishing the rental cost of the materiel and method of payment. 
</P>
<P>(v) The Army National Guard (ARNG) is responsible for reimbursement of costs, over and above normal DA operating expenses, related to the borrowed Army materiel. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Support to the United States Secret Service (USSS) will be on a reimbursable basis except for costs directly related to protection of the President or Vice President. Requests for reimbursement for all other support for USSS will be according to AR 37-27. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The cost of emergency support will be billed directly to the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) The Army accountable property officer handling the loan of DLA stock fund items will coordinate DLA billings and borrower reimbursement. The borrower can make payment directly to the Defense Stock Fund. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation financial accounting for “accounts receivable” will conform with Army Regulation 37-108. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The finance and accounting office (FAO) supporting the supplying accountable property officer will record all charges, including accounts receivable of Army Stock Fund offices (or branch offices), in separate ledger accounts for each borrower. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Charges and collections recorded in each loan account will be reported per Army regulations and directives prescribing the reporting of the fund status in any current fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(v) Billing will be initiated on Standard Form 1080, and sent to the borrower within 30 days of turn-in of materiel and loan termination. For loans of arms and accouterments and issue of ammunition pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4655, the Standard Form 1080 will be annotated to show that collections are to reimburse DA appropriations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Special appropriations established to support disaster relief will be used promptly by Army commanders concerned to ensure that all direct expenses are charged to the special appropriation. Exclude those charges subject to reimbursement by the American National Red Cross (ANRC). ANRC reimburses for supplies, materiel, and services for which they are responsible in the disaster area. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reimbursable costs.</I> Unless specifically stated, borrowing agencies, authorities, and activities will reimburse the Army for all costs related to loan of Army materiel to include but not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any overtime pay and pay of additional civilian personnel required to accompany, operate, maintain, or safeguard borrowed equipment. 
</P>
<P>(2) Travel and per diem expenses of Army personnel (military and civilian). 
</P>
<P>(3) Packing, crating, handling, and shipping from supply source to destination and return. This includes port loading and off loading. 
</P>
<P>(4) All transportation including return for repair or renovation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Hourly rate for the use of Army aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(6) Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL) (including aviation fuel). 
</P>
<P>(7) The cost of materiel lost, destroyed, or damaged beyond economical repair except for Army aircraft, motor vehicles, or motor craft used in connection with aircraft piracy. 
</P>
<P>(8) Utilities (gas, water, heat, and electricity). Charges will be based on meter readings or other fair method. 
</P>
<P>(9) Any modification or rehabilitation of Army real property which affects its future use by DA. In such cases the borrower will also bear the cost of restoring the facility to its original form. 
</P>
<P>(10) Repair/overhaul of returned materiel. Renovation and repair will conform with agreement between the Army and the borrower. (See paragraph (e)(1) of this section.) 
</P>
<P>(11) Repair parts used in maintenance or renovation. 
</P>
<P>(12) Price decline of borrowed stock fund materiel at which returned property can be sold. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonreimbursable costs.</I> The following costs are normal operating expenses of the Army for which no reimbursement is required: 
</P>
<P>(1) Regular pay and allowances of Army personnel (except travel) and per diem costs. 
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative overhead costs. 
</P>
<P>(3) Annual and sick leave, retirement, and other military or civilian benefits except as provided in certain cases; e.g., Army Industrial Fund regulations. 
</P>
<P>(4) Telephone, telegram, or other electrical means used to requisition items, replenish depot stocks, or coordinate the loan. 
</P>
<P>(5) Charges for the use of Army motor vehicles and watercraft except POL and per diem costs (paragraph (b) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(6) The use of real property (except as required for utilities, modification, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding records.</I> (1) Records of all costs (other than normal operating expenses), related to loans of Army materiel, will be kept at the accountable property officer level by the supporting finance and accounting office. This will be done within existing Army financial accounting systems. 
</P>
<P>(2) Separate subsidiary general ledger accounts and/or files of documents showing the total value of all issues and materiel returned for credit, and supporting documentation will be set up by the finance and accounting office. The accounts will be kept current for each loan action so reports may be made as prescribed; and so that accounts receivable can be processed for billing and collection action. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of charges and settlement.</I> (1) Returned materiel will be promptly classified by a qualified inspector with action as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Materiel classified as unserviceable, uneconomically reparable will be billed at 100 percent of value. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Materiel classified as unserviceable, economically reparable will be billed for reduced utility (if appropriate) as well as for repair/overhaul costs. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The depreciation of borrowed materiel will be determined by technical inspectors according to Army Regulation 735-11. When qualified inspectors are not available, returned property will be received with “condition” shown as “subject to final classification by DA.” Accountable property officers will complete classification promptly so charges and billing can be made within 30 days of return of materiel. 
</P>
<P>(2) All returned property which needs repair will be examined by a technical inspector to find cost of repair. Then the accountable property officer will prepare a property transaction record with supporting documents. These records will be sent to the proper MACOM commander or CINC of UCOM for final review. They will include—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement on the transaction record identifying the financial account to which the reimbursement money is to be deposited. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement on the transaction record (if appropriate) as follows: “The losses and/or damages shown on the Property Transaction Record in the amount of $______ represent the total claim by the US Army for property loaned to ________________. Upon settlement and deposit to the proper account, lender releases the ________________ from further obligations.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the type and degree of repair (separate addendum). 
</P>
<P>(3) After the final review, an approved list of charges will be sent to the servicing finance office for collection. The property will be released for repair and returned to stock. 
</P>
<P>(4) The finance office will send a letter to the borrower requesting payment (payable to the Treasurer of the United States). Upon payment, collection documents will be prepared and fiscal accounts credited. The MACOM or UCOM Surgeon will ensure the stock fund is reimbursed for expendable medical supply losses reported. 
</P>
<P>(5) The finance office will advise the loaning accountable property officer that settlement has been made. Property transaction records will be closed. 
</P>
<P>(6) The approving authority will then return the bond to the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(7) The value of supplies and equipment returned to the Army will be credited to the account originally debited at the time of issue. FDAA Regional Directors may find that it is not in the public interest to return borrowed materiel that has not been consumed, lost, or damaged. They will negotiate with the CONUS Army concerned for proper reimbursement for the borrowed materiel not returned. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Delinquent and uncoolectible accounts.</I> (1) In cases of unsatisfactory settlement, bond proceeds will be used to satisfy the claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) If this does not settle the account, then 6 months after the final report and after all collection efforts have failed—
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing finance offices will send delinquent “accounts receivable” reports to commanders of CONUS Armies and DARCOM readiness commands, and to CINCs of UCOMs, by forwarding—
</P>
<P>(A) Duplicate copies of Standard Form 1080 billing documents showing complete accounting classification to which reimbursement is to be credited. 
</P>
<P>(B) Duplicate copies of all supporting documents. 
</P>
<P>(C) One copy of any correspondence showing the reason(s) for nonpayment of the account. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The CONUS Army Commanding General, CINC of UCOM, or Commanding Generals of DARCOM Materiel Readiness Commands, will also try to collect for these delinquent accounts. If all efforts fail, these accounts, (with any delinquent accounts applicable to billings initiated within their own headquarters) will be sent to the Director of Comproller Systems, HQDA (DACA-BUS). (Para 1, app B). The letter of transmittal will state that the accounts are transferred according to this regulation. A copy will be sent to the FAO handling the accounts. The FAO will then transfer the account to inactive status. A Standard Form 1017G (Journal Voucher) will be prepared showing a debit to account 3052 (Transfer of Accounts Receivable) and a credit to the proper accounts receivable. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriations available to the accountable property officer or installation will be used for reimbursing; e.g., the Army Stock Fund or Army Industrial Fund accounts. Any later reimbursements received will be credited to the Army appropriation from which payment was made. 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of the accounts included in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the Comptroller, HQDA (DACA-BUS), will take further collection action under normal operating procedures. All later collection action is the responsibility of the Comptroller. Accounting records and reports will conform with normal procedures. When further collection effort by the Comptroller fails, these accounts will be dropped from receivable balances of the Army. They will be referred to the General Accounting Office (GAO). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.7" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.7   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Reports of Army materiel loaned to non-DOD activities must be forwarded as described below. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aircraft piracy.</I> (1) Commands and agencies providing aircraft piracy support will initially report through command channels by telephone to the HQDA, (DAMO-ODS). (Para 4, app B.) Confirmation will be made by electrically transmitted message to HQDA, ATTN: DAMO-ODS. These reports are exempt from reports control under Army Regulation 335-15. Initial reports will include all available details. Following is a guide for content of reports. 
</P>
<P>(i) Supporting unit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Home station of supporting unit. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Support provided and duration of requirement. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes, if any, in support requested or duration of requirement as made by the Federal civil official in charge. 
</P>
<P>(v) Additional remarks. 
</P>
<P>(2) A final report noting termination of support will be made. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civilian rifle clubs and schools.</I> (1) Each affiliated club and institution (schools) must file an annual report (DA Form 1277, Annual Statistical Report of Civilian Rifle Club) on the anniversary date of the loan with the DCM. 
</P>
<P>(2) A roster of club members will list each member required to fire annually. It will include the full name, address, and age; the DCM course; score; and the date the member fired for record. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the club's procedures and facilities for safekeeping arms and ammunition will be appended to the roster of club members. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Civil disturbances.</I> (1) Requests to meet civil disturbances are of two types:
</P>
<P>(i) Type I—Requests to meet an urgent need during an actual disorder. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Type II—Requests in anticipation of an imminent civil disorder. 
</P>
<P>(2) Approving authorities, other than the Secretary of the Army, will prepare reports (RCS DD-A(AR)1112) on all requests for loan of Army materiel to support civil disturbances. The reports will be sent within 2 working days after receipt of the request. They will be prepared in the format shown in Army Regulation 500-60. They will also serve as “the request” when no other written request is available. 
</P>
<P>(3) The reports will be sent to the (HQDA (DAMO-ODS)). When reports are received from unified or specified commands, ODCSOPS will send an information copy to the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) National Military Command Center (NMCC). 
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary of the Army will send information copies of civil disorder reports to the DOD General Counsel and the US Deputy Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(5) Reports of civil disturbance operation costs (RCS DD-A(AR)1112) also will be prepared as shown in Army Regulation 500-60. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disaster assistance.</I> When Army materiel is loaned in support of disaster assistance, CONUS Army Commanding Generals and UCOM CINCs will send reports as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial reports.</I> Initial reports will be made by telephone to the Commanding General, FORSCOM (AUTOVON 588-3912), who will, in turn, telephone the report to the Military Support Division, ODCSOPS, AUTOVON 225-2003 or 7045). This will be followed within 12 hours by a Tempest Rapid Materiel Report in message form and sent electrically. The message report will be prepared according to Army Regulation 500-60. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Daily message reports.</I> Tempest Rapid Daily Materiel Reports of Army materiel loaned to support disaster relief will also be sent by electrically transmitted message. The reports will cover the 24-hour period from 0601Z to 0600Z. The reports must arrive at the HQDA (DAMO-ODS), no later than 1100Z the same day. Daily reports will be sent according to the format in Army Regulation 500-60 except that part III will not be included. Also, “no change reports” may be made by telephone. On the day of the last daily message report include the words FINAL DAILY REPORT in the subject line. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final reports.</I> In addition to the final Tempest Rapid Daily Materiel Report, a final report on military assistance provided will be sent within 45 working days of termination of disaster assistance. The CONUS Army Commanding General will send the report by 1st Class Mail through the Commanding General, FORSCOM, to the HQDA (DAMO-ODS). The final report will include—
</P>
<P>(i) An historic account of the disaster. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cumulative totals of support given. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of accomplishments. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Actual or estimated expenses excluding costs incurred by the Corps of Engineers under Pub. L. 84-99. Costs will be reported by Service by appropriation, using three columns to identify normal costs, incremental costs, and total costs. 
</P>
<P>(v) The status of reimbursements requested from borrowing Federal agencies, and civilian authorities and activities. If reimbursement has not been completed by the date of the final report, a separate cost report will be sent upon final reimbursement payment. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Lessons learned. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information copies.</I> Information copies of all reports will be sent to the proper HUD Regional Directors for FDAA and DCPA Regional Offices. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional information.</I> Additional information may be needed by Federal officials. Normally, such requests will be telephoned by ODC SOPS Military Support Division to the Commanding General, FORSCOM. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Pollution spills.</I> The Commanding General, FORSCOM, will report committal of Army resources to the HQDA (DAMO-ODS), by the fastest means. Daily and final Tempest Rapid Materiel Reports will be sent with “not applicable” shown in paragraphs 8, 9, and 10 of the report. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Drugs and Narcotics Interdiction Program.</I> (1) Army staff agencies will submit monthly status reports of actions that support this program. The reports will be as of the last day of June and December, respectively. Reports will be sent to HQDA (DAMO-ODS), 4 working days after the end of the designated months. Reports will summarize all support during the period to include pending or terminated support plus estimated cost of items. 
</P>
<P>(2) Based on information received in these reports, ODCSOPS will prepare a report of the drug and narcotics interdiction assistance given by the Army. This report will be sent through the Army Chief of Staff to the Secretary of the Army. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>United States Secret Service (USSS).</I> Army commands and agencies providing materiel support (routine or urgent) to the USSS will report any significant problems or deviation from the approved request at once. Reports will be telephoned through command channels. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other reports.</I> Active Army accountable property officers will make semiannual reports on open loans. The reports will be prepared as of the last day of July and December. They will be sent by the 15th day of the following month. These reports will include the items on loan, quantity, dollar value, and duration of the loans. The reports will be sent to the approving authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 623—Explanation of Terms 
</HEAD>
<FP>As used in this regulation, the following explanation of terms apply: 
</FP>
<FP-1><E T="04">Accouterments.</E> Equipment that is associated with small arms characterized as personal and individual that is available from Army stocks. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Approving authority.</E> The person (or designee) authorized to approve specific types of loans of Army materiel. (See table 2-1 and app B.) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Arms.</E> Weapons for use in war. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Civil authorities.</E> Those elected and appointed public officials and employees who govern the 50 States, District of Columbia, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, US possessions and territories, and governmental subdivisions thereof. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Civil defense.</E> All those activities and measures designed or undertaken to: 
</FP-1>
<P><I>a.</I> Minimize the effects upon the civilian population caused, or which would be caused, by an enemy attack upon the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>b.</I> Deal with immediate emergency conditions which would be created by any such attack. 
</P>
<P><I>c.</I> Effect emergency repairs to, or the emergency restoration of, vital utilities and facilities destroyed or damaged by any such attack (JCS Pub 1). 
</P>
<FP-1><E T="04">Community relations program.</E> A program of action, to earn public understanding and acceptance, conducted at all levels of military command wherever stationed. The program includes participation in public events, humane acts, and cooperation with public officials and civil leaders (AR 360-61). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Defense Civil Preparedness Agency (DCPA).</E> A defense department agency responsible for plans and preparations for civil defense and assistance to local governments in disaster relief planning. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD).</E> The Federal department responsible for directing and coordinating Federal assistance for major disasters on behalf of the President. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Domestic action program.</E> A program of assistance to local, State, and Federal agencies for the continued improvement and development of society (AR 28-19 and para 4-10, AR 360-61). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Emergency.</E> Any catastrophe in any of the United States which in the determination of the President requires Federal supplementary emergency assistance. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Emergency medical treatment.</E> The immediate application of medical procedures to wounded, injured, or sick, by trained professional medical personnel. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Executive agent.</E> That individual or his designee authorized to act as the US Government's agent in making certain loans of government materiel. The President of the United States has delegated to the Secretary of the Army (or to his designee, the Under Secretary of the Army) authority, as Executive Agent, to approve certain loans of DOD materiel to non-DOD activities. (See table 2-1.) Other “approving authorities” act as “Executive Agents” for the US Government, but do not have that title. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Federal agency.</E> Any department, independent establishment, government corporation, or other agency of the executive branch of the Federal Government, except the ANRC. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Federal Coordinating Officer (FCO).</E> The person appointed by the President to operate under the HUD Regional Director for Federal Disaster Assistance Administration to coordinate Federal assistance in Presidentially declared emergency or major disaster. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Federal Disaster Assistance Administration (FDAA).</E> The agency within HUD delegated the disaster relief responsibilities previously assigned to the Office of Emergency Preparedness. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Federal function.</E> Any function, operation, or action carried out under the laws of the United States by any department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States or by an officer or employee thereof. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Federal property.</E> That property which is owned, leased, possessed, or occupied by the Federal Government. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Imminent serious condition.</E> Any disaster or civil disturbance which is of such severity that immediate assistance is required to save human life, prevent immediate human suffering, or reduce destruction or damage to property. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Local government.</E> Any county, parish, city, village, town, district, Indian tribe or authorized tribal organization, Alaska native village or organization, or other political subdivision of any State. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Major disaster.</E> Any hurricane, tornado, storm, flood, high water, wind-driven water, tidal wave, earth-quake, drought, fire, or other catastrophe which, in the determination of the President, is or threatens to be off sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant disaster assistance by the Federal Government. This assistance supplements the efforts and available resources of States, local governments, and relief organization in alleviating the damage, loss, hardship, or suffering caused thereby. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Objective area.</E> A specific geographical location where a civil disturbance or disaster is occurring or is anticipated. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Routine requests.</E> Requests resulting from situations which are reasonably predictable or do not require immediate action to prevent or reduce loss of life, property, or essential services. Reduced efficiency of the requester's operation is not in itself grounds for classifying a request higher than routine. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Small arms.</E> Hand and shoulder weapons for use in war. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Surety bond.</E> A bond, including dollar deposit, guaranteeing performance of a contract or obligations. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Terrorist incident.</E> A form of civil disturbance which is a distinct criminal act committed or threatened to be committed by a group or single individual in order to advance a political or other objective, thus endangering safety of individuals or property. This definition does not include aircraft piracy emergencies. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Threatened major disaster.</E> Any hurricane, tornado, storm, flood, high water, wind-driven water, tidal wave, earthquake, drought, fire, or other catastrophe which, in the determination of the Administrator, FDAA, threatens to be of severity and magnitude sufficient to warrant disaster assistance by the Federal Government. This assistance will be used to avert or lessen the effects of such disaster before its actual occurrence. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Urgent requests.</E> Those resulting from unforeseeable circumstances, civil disturbances, civil defense needs, aircraft piracy, secret service requirements, and disasters when immediate action is necessary to prevent loss of life, physical injury, destruction of property, or disruption of essential functions. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Youth groups.</E> Youth groups are groups such as the Boy Scouts of America; Girl Scouts of the United States of America; Civil Air Patrol; Camp Fire Girls, Incorporated; The Boy's Club of America; Young Men's Christian Association; Young Women's Christian Association; Four H Clubs; and similar groups. 


</FP-1>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 623—Approving Authority Addresses/Telephone Numbers *
</HEAD>
<FP-1>B-1.
<FTREF/> HQDA (DACA-BUS), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 225-6336, WATS 202-695-6336;
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>* Telephone numbers are provided for principal loan approving authorities and agencies responsible for specific loans IAW table 2-1.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>B-2. HQDA (DALO-SMD), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 227-5960, WATS 202-697-5960; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-3. HQDA (DALO-SMW), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 227-3159, WATS 202-697-3159; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-4. HQDA (DAMO-ODS), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 225-2003, WATS 202-695-2003; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-5. HQDA (NGB-ZA), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 227-2430, WATS 202-697-2430; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-6. HQDA (DASG-HCL), WASH DC 20310, Telephone: AUTOVON 227-8286, WATS 202-697-8286; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-7. Director, Civilian Marksmanship (SFNB) Room 1E-OM3, West Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Telephone: AUTOVON 223-6460, WATS 202-693-6460; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-8. Commander in Chief, US Army, Europe and Seventh Army, APO New York 09403; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-9. Commander, First US Army, Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755, Telephone: AUTOVON 923-7500, WATS 301-677-7500; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-10. Commander, Fifth US Army, Fort Sam Houston, TX 78234, Telephone: AUTOVON 471-4707, WATS 512-221-4707; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-11. Commander, Sixth US Army, Presidio of San Francisco, CA 94129, Telephone: AUTOVON 486-4110, WATS 415-561-4110; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-12. Commander, US Army Armament Materiel Readiness Command, ATTN: DRSAR-MMS, Rock Island, IL 61229; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-13. Commander, US Army Armament Research and Development Command, Dover, NJ 07801; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-14. Commander, US Army Aviation Research and Development Command, PO Box 209, St. Louis, MO 63177; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-15. Commander, US Army Communications and Electronics Materiel Readiness Command, Fort Monmouth, NJ 07703; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-16. Commander, US Army Communications Research and Development Command, Fort Monmouth, NJ 07703; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-17. Commander, US Army Communications Security, Logistics Agency, ATTN: SELCL-NICP-IM, Fort Huachuca, AZ 86513; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-18. Commander, US Army Forces Command, Fort McPherson, GA 30330, Telephone: AUTOVON 588-2694, WATS 404-752-2694; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-19. Commander, US Army Health Services Command, Fort Sam Houston, TX 78234; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-20. HQDA (DAMH-HS), WASH DC 20314; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-21. Commander, US Army Military District of Washington, Fort Leslie J. McNair, Washington, DC 20319; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-22. Commander, US Army Missile Materiel Readiness Command, Redstone Arsenal, AL 35809; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-23. Commander, US Army Missile Research and Development Command, Redstone Arsenal, AL 35809; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-24. Commander, US Army Security Assistance Center, ATTN: DRSAC, 5001 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22333, Telephone: AUTOVON 284-9638, WATS 202-274-9638; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-25. Commander, US Army Tank-Automotive Materiel Readiness Command, Warren, MI 48090; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-26. Commander, US Army Tank-Automotive Research and Development Command, Warren, MI 48090; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-27. Commander, US Army Test and Evaluation Command, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21005; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-28. Commander, US Army Training and Doctrine Command, Fort Monroe, VA 23651, Telephone: AUTOVON 680-3112, WATS 804-727-3112; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-29. Commander, US Army Troop Support and Aviation, Materiel Readiness Command, 4300 Goodfellow Boulevard, St. Louis, MO 63120.





</FP-1>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 623—Agreement for Loan of US Army Materiel (DA Form 4881-R)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.018.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 623—Certificate for Signature by an Alternate (DA Form 4881-1-R)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.020.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 623—Surety Bond (DA Form 4881-3-R)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.023.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 623—Power of Attorney (DA Form 4881-4-R)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.025.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 623—Continental US Army Boundaries

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec24oc91.026.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.17.0.13.8.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 623—References
</HEAD>
<FP-1>AR 1-4 Deployment of DA Resources in Support of the US Secret Service.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 15-17 Army Representation on Office of Preparedness; General Service Administration (OP/GSA) Regional Field Boards in Crisis Management Operations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 28-19 Department of the Army Domestic Action Program.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 34-1 United States Army Participation in International Military Rationalization/Standardization/Interoperability (RSI) Programs.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 37-27 Accounting Policy and Procedures for Intragovernment, Intradefense; and Intra-Army Transactions.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 37-44 Accounting Procedures for Guaranteed Loans.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 37-48 Accounting and Reporting for Materiel, Services, and Facilities Furnished Allied Governments and International Organizations Under Emergency or Combat Conditions.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 37-60 Pricing for Materiel and Services.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 37-111 Working Capital Funds—Army Stock Fund; Uniform Policies, Principles, and Procedures Governing Army Stock Fund Operations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 58-1 Management acquisition and use of administration use motor vehicles.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 130-44 Logistical Policies for Support.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 190-11 Physical Security of Weapons, Ammunition, and Explosives.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 190-49 Physical Security of Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives In-Transit.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 210-55 Funding Support for Morale, Welfare and Recreational Programs, and Facilities.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 230-1 The Nonappropriated Fund System.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 350-7 Training and Evaluation of Forces for Civil Disturbances.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 360-61 Army Information—Community Relations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 500-1 Aircraft Piracy Emergencies.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 500-2 Search and Rescue (SAR) Operations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 500-50 Civil Disturbances.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 500-60 Disaster Relief.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 500-70 Military Support of Civil Defense.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 525-90 Wartime Search and Rescue (SAR) Procedures.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 700-32 Logistic Support of US Nongovernmental, Nonmilitary Agencies, and Individuals in Oversea Military Commands.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 700-49 Loan of DSA Stock Fund Materiel.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 700-83 Army Support of United Seamen's Service.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 710-1 Centralized Inventory Management of the Army Supply System.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 710-2 Materiel Management for Using Units, Support Units, and Installations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 725-1 Requisition and Issue of Supplies and Equipment—Special Authorization and Procedures for Issues, Sales, and Loans.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 725-50 Requisitioning, Receipt, and Issue System.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 735-5 Property Accountability—General Principles, Policies, and Basic Procedures.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 735-11 Accounting for Lost, Damaged, and Destroyed Property.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 795-25 Policies, Responsibilities, and Principles for Supply Support Arrangements.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 795-204 Policies and Procedures for Furnishing Defense Articles and Services on a Sale or Loan Basis.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 870-15 Historical Activities, Army Art Collection.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 870-20 Historical Activities, Historical Properties and Museums.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 920-15 National Board for the Promotion of Rifle Practice and Office of Director of Civilian Marksmanship.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 920-20 Civilian Marksmanship—Promotion of Practice with Rifled Arms.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 920-25 Rifles M14M and M14N for Civilian Marksmanship Use.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AR 930-5 Service Organizations—American National Red Cross Service Program and Army Utilization.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FM 20-150 Combatives. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MOU, 25 Apr 75, between DOD and Department of Agriculture and the Interior. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MOU, 24 Jun 75, between DOD and the American National Red Cross for Military Support. 




</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="626-629" NODE="32:3.1.1.8.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 626-629 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 3, 2025(fm)
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="4" NODE="32:4" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32—National Defense--Volume 4</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter v</E>—Department of the Army (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>631
</PG></CHAPTI>
<ABBR>
<HED>Abbreviations Used in This Chapter:</HED>
<P>AGCT = <I>Army General Classification Test.</I> AGO = <I>Adjutant General's Office.</I> APP = <I>Army Procurement Procedure.</I> AR = <I>Army Regulations.</I> ASPR = <I>Armed Services Procurement Regulations.</I> ATC = <I>Air Transport Command.</I> A. W. = <I>Articles of War.</I> AWOL = <I>Absent Without Leave.</I> Comp. Gen. = <I>Comptroller General.</I> OCF = <I>Office, Chief of Finance.</I> ROTC = <I>Reserve Officer's Training Corps.</I> ZI = <I>Zone of Interior.</I>


</P></ABBR></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:4.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense (Continued) 


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="V" NODE="32:4.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER V—DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="I" NODE="32:4.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIMINAL INVESTIGATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="630" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 630 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="631" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 631—ARMED FORCES DISCIPLINARY CONTROL BOARDS AND OFF-INSTALLATION LIAISON AND OPERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 3012(b)(1)(g).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60729, Oct. 19, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.1" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes uniform policies and procedures for the establishment, and operation of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Boards (AFDCB).
</P>
<P>(b) Off-installation liaison and operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.2" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Active U.S. Armed Forces personnel of the Army, Air Force, Navy, and Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard wherever they are stationed.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. Armed Forces Reserve personnel only when they are performing Federal duties or engaging in activities directly related to performing a Federal duty or function.
</P>
<P>(c) National Guard personnel only when called or ordered to active duty in a Federal status within the meaning of Title 10, United States Code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.3" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.3   Supervision.</HEAD>
<P>The following will develop and have staff supervision over AFDCB and off-installation enforcement policies.
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of the Provost Marshal General (OPMG), Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA). This official serves as the proponent for this part, and has primary responsibility for its content.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. Air Force Director of Security Forces and Force Protection, Department of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(c) Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service.
</P>
<P>(d) Commandant of the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(e) Commandant of the Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(f) Installation commanders are authorized to convene joint service boards within their Army Regulation (AR) 5-9 area of responsibility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.4" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.4   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for exceptions to policies contained in this part will be forwarded to HQDA (DAPM-MPD-LE), Washington, DC 20310-2800.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Boards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.5" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.5   General.</HEAD>
<P>AFDCBs may be established by installation, base, or station commanders to advise and make recommendations to commanders on matters concerning eliminating conditions, which adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, morale, and discipline of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(a) For the Army, routine off-limits actions must be processed by an AFDCB following the procedures in § 631.11.
</P>
<P>(b) Coast Guard commanders must have written authorization from the Commandant (G-WP) prior to establishing an AFDCB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.6" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.6   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regional Directors of the Army Installation Management Agency, Air Force commanders, Navy regional commanders, Marine Corps commanders, and Coast Guard commanders will—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine level and degree of participation by subordinate commanders in joint Service boards, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Resolve differences among subordinate commanders regarding board areas of responsibility, and the designation of sponsoring commanders.
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate board recommendations, and actions from subordinate sponsoring commanders.
</P>
<P>(4) Forward recommendations to HQDA, OPMG (DAPM-MPD-LE), WASH DC 20310-2800, regarding circumstances that require Service headquarters action or programs having widespread applicability.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that subordinate commanders assess the availability of drug abuse paraphernalia in the vicinity of Department of Defense (DOD) installations through their AFDCBs, according to DOD Directive 1010.4. Coast Guard commanders should refer to COMDTINST M1000.6 series, chapter 20, for guidance on Coast Guard substance abuse policies.
</P>
<P>(b) Military installation commanders for off-installation enforcement actions will—
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct off-installation operations as authorized by law and Service policy.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate off-installation operations with other Service commanders, as applicable, for uniformity of effort, and economy of resources.
</P>
<P>(3) Assist Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies within the limits imposed by law and DOD policy.
</P>
<P>(c) Sponsoring commanders will provide administrative support for AFDCB programs to include the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Promulgating implementing directives, and convening the board.
</P>
<P>(2) Providing a recorder for the board.
</P>
<P>(3) Providing copies of the minutes of board meetings to other Service commanders who are represented on the board, and to other AFDCBs as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Approving or disapproving the minutes, and recommendations of the board, and making appropriate distribution, as required.
</P>
<P>(5) Publishing lists of “off-limits” establishments and areas.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensuring that responsible individuals are notified of any unfavorable actions being contemplated or taken regarding their establishments per Annex A of appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Distributing pertinent information to the following—
</P>
<P>(i) All units within their jurisdictional area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Units stationed in other areas whose personnel frequent their area of jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(8) Ensuring that procedures are established to inform all Service personnel, including those who may be visiting or are in a travel status, of off-limits restrictions in effect within the respective AFDCB's jurisdictional area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.7" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.7   Composition of boards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Boards should be structured according to the needs of the command, with consideration given to including representatives from the following functional areas—
</P>
<P>(1) Law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) Legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(3) Health.
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental protection.
</P>
<P>(5) Public affairs.
</P>
<P>(6) Equal opportunity.
</P>
<P>(7) Fire and safety.
</P>
<P>(8) Chaplains' service.
</P>
<P>(9) Alcohol and drug abuse.
</P>
<P>(10) Personnel and community activities.
</P>
<P>(11) Consumer affairs.
</P>
<P>(b) Sponsoring commanders will designate a board president, and determine by position which board members will be voting members. Such designations will be included in a written agreement establishing the board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.8" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.8   Participation by civil agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Civil agencies or individuals may be invited to board meetings as observers, witnesses or to provide assistance where they possess knowledge or information pertaining to problem areas within the board's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) Announcements and summaries of board results may be provided to appropriate civil agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.9" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.9   Duties and functions of boards.</HEAD>
<P>The AFDCBs will—
</P>
<P>(a) Meet as prescribed by appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Receive reports, and take appropriate action on conditions in their area of responsibility relating to any of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Disorders and lack of discipline.
</P>
<P>(2) Prostitution.
</P>
<P>(3) Sexually transmitted disease.
</P>
<P>(4) Liquor violations.
</P>
<P>(5) Racial and other discriminatory practices.
</P>
<P>(6) Alcohol and drug abuse.
</P>
<P>(7) Drug abuse paraphernalia.
</P>
<P>(8) Criminal or illegal activities involving cults or hate groups.
</P>
<P>(9) Illicit gambling.
</P>
<P>(10) Areas susceptible to terrorist activity.
</P>
<P>(11) Unfair commercial or consumer practices.
</P>
<P>(12) Other undesirable conditions deemed unsafe which may adversely affect the health and well being of military personnel or their families.
</P>
<P>(c) Report to all major commanders in the board's area of responsibility—
</P>
<P>(1) Conditions cited in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Recommended action as approved by the board's sponsoring commander.
</P>
<P>(d) Coordinate with appropriate civil authorities on problems or adverse conditions existing in the board's area of jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(e) Make recommendations to commanders in the board's area of jurisdiction concerning off-installation procedures to prevent or control undesirable conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.10" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.10   Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commanders are authorized to acquire, report, process, and store information concerning persons and organizations, whether or not affiliated with DOD, according to the applicable Service parts of the sponsoring commander, which—
</P>
<P>(1) Adversely affect the health, safety, morale, welfare, or discipline of service members regardless of status.
</P>
<P>(2) Describes crime conducive conditions where there is a direct Service interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Boards will function under the supervision of a president (§ 631.7(b)).
</P>
<P>(c) Certain expenses incurred by Service members in the course of an official board investigation or inspection may be reimbursable per appropriate Service finance parts or instructions. Requests for reimbursement will be submitted through the sponsoring commander.
</P>
<P>(d) Records of board proceedings will be maintained as prescribed by records management policies, and procedures of the sponsoring commander's Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.11" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.11   Off-limits establishments and areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The establishment of off-limits areas is a function of Command. It may be used by commanders to help maintain good order and discipline, health, morale, safety, and welfare of service members. Off-limits action is also intended to prevent service members from being exposed to or victimized by crime-conducive conditions. Where sufficient cause exists, commanders retain substantial discretion to declare establishments or areas temporarily off-limits to personnel of their respective commands in emergency situations. Temporary off-limits restrictions issued by commanders in an emergency situation will be acted upon by the AFDCB as a first priority. As a matter of policy, a change in ownership, management, or name of any off-limits establishment does not, in and of itself, revoke the off-limits restriction.
</P>
<P>(b) Service members are prohibited from entering establishments or areas declared off-limits according to this part. Violations may subject the member to disciplinary action per applicable Service parts, and the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Family members of service members and others associated with the Service or installation should be made aware of off-limits restrictions. As a general policy, these establishments will not be visited by Service law enforcement personnel unless specifically determined by the installation commander that visits or surveillance are warranted.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to initiating AFDCB action, installation commanders will attempt to correct adverse conditions or situations through the assistance of civic leaders or officials.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to recommending an off-limits restriction, the AFDCB will send a written notice (certified mail-return receipt requested) to the individual or firm responsible for the alleged condition or situation. The AFDCB will specify in the notice a reasonable time for the condition or situation to be corrected, along with the opportunity to present any relevant information to the board. If subsequent investigation reveals that the responsible person has failed to take corrective action, the board will recommend the imposition of the off-limits restriction.
</P>
<P>(e) A specified time limit will not be established when an off-limits restriction is invoked. The adequacy of the corrective action taken by the responsible individual will be the determining factor in removing an off-limits restriction.
</P>
<P>(f) A person whose establishment or area has been declared off-limits may at any time petition the president of the board to remove the off-limits restriction. The petition will be in writing and will include a detailed report of action taken to eliminate the condition or situation that caused imposition of the restriction. The president of the AFDCB may direct an investigation to determine the status of corrective actions noted in the petition. The board will either recommend removal or continuation of the off-limits restriction to the local sponsoring commander based on the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(g) Off-limits procedures to be followed by the boards are in appendix A of this part. In the United States, off-limits signs will not be posted on civilian establishments by U.S. military authorities.
</P>
<P>(h) In areas Outside of the Continental United States (OCONUS), off-limits and other AFDCB procedures must be consistent with existing Status of Forces Agreements (SOFAs).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Off-Installation Operations (Military Patrols and Investigative Activities) and Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.12" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.12   Objectives.</HEAD>
<P>The primary objectives of off-installation operations are to—
</P>
<P>(a) Render assistance and provide information to Service members.
</P>
<P>(b) Preserve the safety, and security of service members.
</P>
<P>(c) Preserve good order and discipline among Service members and reduce off-installation incidents and offenses.
</P>
<P>(d) Maintain effective cooperation with civil authorities, and community leaders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.13" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.13   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart is not applicable to the U.S. Coast Guard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.14" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.14   Army policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Soldiers, military and/or Department of the Army Civilian (DAC) police performing off-installation operations must be thoroughly familiar with applicable agreements, constraints of the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in the Continental United States (CONUS) and United States-host nation agreements in areas OCONUS.
</P>
<P>(b) Military and/or DAC police assigned to off-installation operations have the sole purpose of enforcing parts, and orders pertaining to persons subject to their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) Military and/or DAC police accompanying civilian law enforcement officers remain directly responsible to, and under the command of, U.S. Army superiors. Military and DAC police may come to the aid of civilian law enforcement officers to prevent the commission of a felony or injury to a civilian law enforcement officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Regional Directors of the Army Installation Management Agency (IMA), Commander, Army Materiel Command (AMC), and Commander, Army Test and Evaluation Command (ATEC) may authorize subordinate commanders to establish off-installation operations within the limits imposed by higher authority, the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in CONUS, and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas—
</P>
<P>(1) To assist Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) In conjunction with military activities.
</P>
<P>(3) To safeguard the health and welfare of Soldiers.
</P>
<P>(4) When the type of offenses or the number of Soldiers frequenting an area is large enough to warrant such operations.
</P>
<P>(e) The constraints on the authority of Soldiers and/or DAC police to act off-Installation, (Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in CONUS and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas) and the specific scope of off-installation operations will be clearly delineated in all authorizations for off-installation operations. Off-installation operations will be coordinated with the local installation commander through the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA), or higher authority, and appropriate civilian law enforcement agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.15" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.15   Air Force policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Airmen, military and/or Department of the Air Force Civilian (DAFC) police performing off-installation operations must be thoroughly familiar with applicable agreements, constraints of the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in CONUS and United States-host nation agreements in areas OCONUS.
</P>
<P>(b) Military and/or DAFC police assigned to off-installation operations have the sole purpose of enforcing parts, and orders pertaining to persons subject to their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) Military and/or DAFC police accompanying civilian law enforcement officers remain directly responsible to, and under the command of, U.S. Air Force superiors. Military and DAFC police may come to the aid of civilian law enforcement officers to prevent the commission of a felony or injury to a civilian law enforcement officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Air Force commanders may authorize subordinate commanders to establish off-installation operations within the limits imposed by higher authority, the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in CONUS, and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas—
</P>
<P>(1) To assist Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) In conjunction with military activities.
</P>
<P>(3) To safeguard the health and welfare of Airmen.
</P>
<P>(4) When the type of offenses or the number of Airmen frequenting an area is large enough to warrant such operations.
</P>
<P>(e) The constraints on the authority of Airmen and/or DAFC police to act off-installation, (Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) in CONUS and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas) and the specific scope of off-installation operations will be clearly delineated in all authorizations for off-installation operations. Off-installation operations will be coordinated with the local installation commander through the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA), or higher authority, and appropriate civilian law enforcement agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.16" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.16   Navy policy.</HEAD>
<P>The following policies apply to off-installation operations—
</P>
<P>(a) Article 1630-020, MILPERSMAN revised August 2002, and Navy Parts, Article 0922 concerning the establishment and operation of a shore patrol.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with SECNAV 1620.7A, Navy Absentee Collection Units collect, and process apprehended absentees and deserters, escort apprehended absentees, and deserters to their parent commands or to designated processing activities, escort prisoners between confinement facilities, and provide liaison with civilian law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(c) Navy personnel will be thoroughly familiar with all applicable agreements and Implementing standard operating procedures, to include the constraints of the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385), in CONUS and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) Within CONUS. (1) Installation Commanders may request authority from their Regional Commander, to establish off-installation operations—
</P>
<P>(i) To assist Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies within the limits imposed by higher authority and the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385).
</P>
<P>(ii) In conjunction with military operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) To safeguard the health, and welfare of Naval personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the type of offenses or the number of service members frequenting an area is large enough to warrant such operation.
</P>
<P>(2) Constraints on the authority of military personnel to act off-installation (Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385) and the specific scope of the authority will be clearly delineated in all authorizations for off-installation operations.
</P>
<P>(e) Within OCONUS, off-installation operations will be kept at the minimum needed for mission accomplishment. Installation commanders may authorize off-installation operations as required by local conditions and customs, as long as they are conducted in accordance with applicable treaties and SOFAs.
</P>
<P>(f) Off-installation operations will be coordinated with the local installation commander through the JAG or higher authority, and local law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(g) Security personnel selected for off-installation operations must—
</P>
<P>(1) Have mature judgment and law enforcement experience.
</P>
<P>(2) Be thoroughly familiar with all applicable agreements and implementing standard operating procedures, to include the constraints of the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385), in CONUS and United States Host Nation agreements in OCONUS area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) Security personnel accompanying civilian police during off-installation operations do so only to enforce parts and orders pertaining to persons subject to their jurisdiction. Security personnel assigned off-installation operations remain directly responsible to, and under the command of their Navy superiors when accompanying civilian police. Security personnel performing such duties may come to the aid of civilian police in order to prevent the commission of a felony or injury to a civilian police officer.
</P>
<P>(i) Civilian police and court liaison may be established with concurrence of the Naval Criminal Investigative Service and is encouraged particularly when the intent is to reduce mishaps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.17" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.17   Marine Corps policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within CONUS. (1) Commanders may request authority from Headquarters, Marine Corps (Code POS), to establish off-installation operations—
</P>
<P>(i) To assist Federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies within the limits imposed by higher authority and the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385).
</P>
<P>(ii) In conjunction with military operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) To safeguard the health, and welfare of Marines.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the type of offenses or the number of service members frequenting an area is large enough to warrant such operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Constraints on the authority of military personnel to act off-installation (Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385)) and the specific scope of the authority will be clearly delineated in all authorizations for off-installation operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Within OCONUS, off-installation operations will be kept at the minimum needed for mission accomplishment. Installation commanders may authorize off-installation operations as required by local conditions and customs, as long as they are conducted in accordance with applicable treaties and SOFAs.
</P>
<P>(c) Off-installation operations will be coordinated with the local installation commander through the SJA, or higher authority, and local law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(d) Marines selected for off-installation operations must—
</P>
<P>(1) Have mature judgment and law enforcement experience.
</P>
<P>(2) Be thoroughly familiar with all applicable agreements and implementing standard operating procedures, to include the constraints of the Posse Comitatus Act (18 U.S.C. 1385), in CONUS and United States-host nation agreements in OCONUS areas, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) Marines accompanying civilian police during off-installation operations do so only to enforce parts and orders pertaining to persons subject to their jurisdiction. Marines assigned off-installation operations remain directly responsible to, and under the command of their Marine superiors when accompanying civilian police. Marines performing such duties may come to the aid of civilian police in order to prevent the commission of a felony or injury to a civilian police officer.
</P>
<P>(f) Procedures for absentee and deserter collection units to accept an active-duty absentee or deserter from civilian authorities may be established.
</P>
<P>(g) Civilian police and civil court liaison may be established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 631.18" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 631.18   Operations.</HEAD>
<P>When an incident of substantial interest to the Service, involving Service property or affiliated personnel, occurs off-installation, the Service law enforcement organization exercising area responsibility will—
</P>
<P>(a) Obtain copies of civilian law enforcement reports for processing or forwarding according to applicable Service parts.
</P>
<P>(b) Return apprehended persons to representatives of their Service as soon as practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.2.5.1.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 631—Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board Procedures Guide
</HEAD>
<P>A-1. <I>Purpose.</I> This guide prescribes procedures for the establishment, operation, and coordination of AFDCBs. AFDCB proceedings are not adversarial in nature.
</P>
<P>A-2. <I>Meetings.</I>
</P>
<P>a. The board will meet quarterly. The commander establishing the AFDCB may specify whether the meetings will be open or closed. If not specified, the decision is at the discretion of the president of the board. Normally proceedings are closed, but may be opened to the public when circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>b. Special meetings may be called by the president of the board. Except by unanimous consent of members present, final action will be taken only on the business for which the meeting was called.
</P>
<P>c. A majority of voting members constitutes a quorum for board proceedings.
</P>
<P>A-3. <I>AFDCB composition.</I> Voting members will be selected per section 631.7.
</P>
<P>A-4. <I>Attendance of observers or witnesses.</I>
</P>
<P>a. The board may invite individual persons or organization representatives as witnesses or observers if they are necessary or appropriate for the conduct of board proceedings. The below listed authorities may assist in addressing installation or command concerns or issues.
</P>
<P>(1) Federal, State, and local judicial, legislative, and law enforcement officials.
</P>
<P>(2) Housing part and enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(3) Health, and social service authorities.
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental protection authorities.
</P>
<P>(5) Alcoholic beverage control authorities.
</P>
<P>(6) Equal employment opportunity authorities.
</P>
<P>(7) Consumer affairs advocates.
</P>
<P>(8) Chamber of Commerce representatives.
</P>
<P>(9) Public works or utility authorities.
</P>
<P>(10) Local fire marshal, and public safety authorities.
</P>
<P>(11) State and local school board or education officials.
</P>
<P>(12) Any other representation deemed appropriate by the sponsoring command such as, news media, union representatives, and so forth.
</P>
<P>b. Invited witnesses and observers will be listed in the minutes of the meeting.
</P>
<P>A-5. <I>Appropriate areas for board consideration.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Boards will study and take appropriate action on all reports of conditions considered detrimental to the good order and discipline, health, morale, welfare, safety, and morals of Armed Forces personnel. These adverse conditions include, but are not limited to, those identified in § 631.9.
</P>
<P>b. The board will immediately forward to the local commander reported circumstances involving discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, age, or national origin.
</P>
<P>A-6. <I>Off-limit procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Off-limits restrictions should be invoked only when there is substantive information indicating that an establishment or area frequented by Armed Forces personnel presents conditions, which adversely affect their health, safety, welfare, morale, or morals. It is essential that boards do not act arbitrarily. Actions must not be of a punitive nature. Boards should work in close cooperation with local officials and proprietors of business establishments, and seek to accomplish their mission through mutually cooperative efforts. Boards should encourage personal visits by local military, and civilian enforcement or health officials to establishments considered below standard. AFDCBs should point out unhealthy conditions or undesirable practices to establishment owners or operators to produce the desired corrective action.
</P>
<P>b. In cases involving discrimination, the board should not rely solely on letters written by the Equal Opportunity Office, and Military Affairs Committee or investigations of alleged racial discrimination.
</P>
<P>c. If the board decides to attempt to investigate or inspect an establishment, the president or a designee will prepare, and submit a report of findings, and recommendations at the next meeting. This procedure will ensure complete, and documented information concerning questionable adverse conditions.
</P>
<P>d. When the board concludes that conditions adverse to Armed Forces personnel do exist, the owner or manager will be sent a letter of notification (Annex A). This letter will advise him or her to raise standards by a specified date, and, if such conditions or practices continue, off-limits proceedings will be initiated. Any correspondence with the individuals responsible for adverse conditions, which may lead to off-limits action, will be by certified mail.
</P>
<P>e. If a proprietor takes remedial action to correct undesirable conditions previously noted the board should send a letter of appreciation (Annex B) recognizing this cooperation.
</P>
<P>f. If undesirable conditions are not corrected, the proprietor will be invited to appear before the AFDCB to explain why the establishment should not be placed off-limits (Annex C). Any proprietor may designate in writing a representative to appear before the board in his or her behalf.
</P>
<P>g. In cases where proprietors have been invited to appear before the board, the president of the board will perform the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to calling the proprietor—
</P>
<P>(a) Review the findings and decision of the previous meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) Call for inspection reports.
</P>
<P>(c) Allow those present to ask questions, and discuss the case.
</P>
<P>(2) When the proprietor or his or her representative is called before the board—
</P>
<P>(a) Present the proprietor with a brief summary of the complaint concerning the establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Afford the proprietor an opportunity to present matters in defense.
</P>
<P>(c) Invite those present to question the proprietor. After the questioning period, provide the proprietor an opportunity to make a final statement before being dismissed.
</P>
<P>(3) Deliberations on recommended actions will be in closed session, attended only by board members.
</P>
<P>h. The board should recommend an off-limits restriction only after the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The letter of notification (Annex A) has been sent.
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity for the proprietor to appear before the board has been extended.
</P>
<P>(3) Further investigation indicates that improvements have not been made.
</P>
<P>i. The minutes will indicate the AFDCB's action in each case. When a recommendation is made to place an establishment off-limits, the minutes will show the procedural steps followed in reaching the decision.
</P>
<P>j. Recommendations of the AFDCB will be submitted to the sponsoring commander for consideration. The recommendations will then be forwarded to other installation commanders who are represented on the board (Annex D). If no objection to the recommendations is received within 10 days, the sponsoring commander will approve or disapprove the recommendations and forward the decision to the AFDCB president.
</P>
<P>k. Upon approval of the AFDCB's recommendations, the president will write the proprietor that the off-limits restriction has been imposed (Annex E).
</P>
<P>l. A time limit should not be specified when an off-limits restriction is revoked. The adequacy of the corrective action taken by the proprietor of the establishment must be the determining factor in removing the off-limits restriction.
</P>
<P>m. Military authorities may not post off-limits signs or notices on private property.
</P>
<P>n. In emergencies, commanders may temporarily declare establishments or areas off-limits to service members subject to their jurisdiction. The circumstances for the action will be reported as soon as possible to the commander sponsoring the board. Detailed justification for this emergency action will be provided to the board for its deliberations.
</P>
<P>o. Appropriate installation commanders will publish a list of off-limits establishments and areas using command and media channels.
</P>
<P>A-7. <I>Removal of off-limits restrictions.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Removal of an off-limits restriction requires AFDCB action. Proprietors of establishments declared off-limits should be advised that they may appeal to the appropriate AFDCB at any time. In their appeal they should submit the reason why the restriction should be removed. A letter of notification for continuance of the off-limits restriction should be sent to the proprietor if the AFDCB does not remove the off-limits restriction (Annex F). The proprietor may appeal to the next higher commander if not satisfied with continuance after exhausting all appeals at the local sponsoring commander level. Boards should make at least quarterly inspections of off-limits establishments. A statement that an inspection has been completed should be included in AFDCB minutes.
</P>
<P>b. When the board learns that the proprietor has taken adequate corrective measures, the AFDCB will take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Discuss the matter at the next meeting and make an appropriate recommendation.
</P>
<P>(2) Forward a recommendation for removal of the off-limits restriction to the sponsoring commander. If approved, a letter removing the restriction (Annexes G &amp; H) will be sent to the proprietor.
</P>
<P>(3) The minutes will reflect action taken.
</P>
<P>A-8. <I>Duties of the AFDCB president.</I>
</P>
<P>The president of the AFDCB will—
</P>
<P>a. Schedule and preside at all AFDCB meetings.
</P>
<P>b. Provide an agenda to each voting member at least 72 hours prior to the meeting.
</P>
<P>c. Ensure records, minutes, and correspondence are prepared, distributed, and maintained per § 631.10(d).
</P>
<P>A-9. <I>Commanders.</I>
</P>
<P>The installation commander, and commanders within an AFDCB's area of responsibility must be thoroughly acquainted with the mission and services provided by AFDCBs. AFDCB members should keep their respective commanders informed of command responsibilities pertaining to AFDCB functions and actions.
</P>
<P>A-10. <I>Public affairs.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Due to the sensitive nature of the subject matter, there will not be a media release in connection with AFDCB meetings. However, any AFDCB proceeding, which is open to the public, will also be open to representatives of the news media. Representatives of the news media will be considered observers, and will not participate in matters considered by the AFDCB. Members of the news media may be invited to participate in an advisory status in coordination with the public affairs office.
</P>
<P>b. News media interviews and releases will be handled through the public affairs office according to applicable Service parts.
</P>
<P>A-11. <I>Minutes.</I>
</P>
<P>a. Minutes will be prepared in accordance with administrative formats for minutes of meetings prescribed by the Service of the sponsoring commander (Annex I). The written minutes of AFDCB meetings will constitute the official record of the AFDCB proceedings. Verbatim transcripts of board meetings are not required. The reasons for approving or removing an off-limits restriction, to include a complete address of the establishment or area involved, should be indicated in the order of business. In addition, the AFDCB's action will be shown in the order or sequence of actions taken. A change in the name of an establishment or areas in an off-limits restriction will also be included.
</P>
<P>b. Distribution of the minutes of AFDCB meetings will be limited to the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Each voting member, sponsoring command, and commands and installations represented by the board.
</P>
<P>(2) Each civilian and military advisory member, if deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Civilian and Government agencies within the State in which member installations are located having an interest in the functions of the board, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>c. AFDCB minutes are subject to release and disclosure in accordance with applicable Service parts and directives.
</P>
<P>d. Minutes and recommendations of the board will be forwarded to the sponsoring commander for approval.
</P>
<HD1>Annex A—Letter of Notification 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<HD3>(Appropriate AFDCB) 
</HD3>
<FP>Proprietor 
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>This letter is to inform you that it has come to the attention of the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board (AFDCB) that certain conditions reported at your establishment may adversely affect the (health, safety, or welfare) of members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>The AFDCB is initiating action to determine whether your establishment (area) should be placed off-limits to members of the Armed Forces if (cite conditions) are not corrected by (date).
</P>
<P>A representative of the AFDCB will visit your establishment to determine if steps have been taken to correct the conditions outlined above.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP>(<E T="04">Note:</E> Use certified mail, return receipt requested if mailed.) 
</FP>
<HD1>Annex B—Letter of Appreciation 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<HD3>(Appropriate AFDCB) 
</HD3>
<FP>Proprietor 
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>This is in reference to my letter of (date) concerning the condition(s) reported at your establishment which adversely affected the health and welfare of members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>The Board appreciates your action(s) to correct the condition(s) previously noted and does not contemplate further action with respect to this specific matter.
</P>
<P>Your continued cooperation is solicited.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex C—Letter of Invitation 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<FP>Proprietor 
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>This is in reference to my letter of (date) concerning the condition reported at your establishment which adversely affects the (health, safety, or welfare) of members of the Armed Forces. Information has been received by the board which indicates you have not taken adequate corrective action to eliminate the reported condition.
</P>
<P>Reports presented to the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board (AFDCB) indicate (list and describe conditions).
</P>
<P>You are advised that the AFDCB will initiate action to determine whether your establishment should be declared off-limits to members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>You may appear in person, with or without counsel, before the AFDCB at its next scheduled meeting on (date, time, and place). At that time you will have the opportunity to refute the allegation(s), or to inform the board of any remedial action(s) you have taken or contemplate taking to correct the condition. It is requested that you inform the President, of the AFDCB if you plan to attend.
</P>
<P>Any questions regarding this matter may be addressed to the President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board, (address). Every effort will be made to clarify the matter for you.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP>(<E T="04">Note:</E> Send certified mail, return receipt requested if mailed.) 
</FP>
<HD1>Annex D—AFDCB Off-Limits Approval Letter 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<HD3>Office Symbol 
</HD3>
<HD3>MEMORANDUM FOR (Commanders of Supported Installations) 
</HD3>
<FP-1>SUBJECT: Establishments or Areas Recommended for Off-Limits Designation
</FP-1>
<P>1. On (date), the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board (AFDCB) recommended imposition of the following off-limits restrictions: (name and address of establishment)
</P>
<P>2. Commanders furnishing AFDCB representatives are requested to provide any comments within 10 days as to whether (name of establishment or area) should be placed off-limits.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of the AFDCB minutes and recommendation is enclosed.
</P>
<FP>FOR THE (SPONSORING) COMMANDER:
</FP>
<FP>Encl 
</FP>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith,
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex E—Letter of Declaration of Off-Limits 
</HD1>
<FP>Proprietor 
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>This letter is to inform you that your establishment has been declared off-limits to members of the Armed Forces effective (date). Members of the Armed Forces are prohibited from entering your establishment (premises) as long as this order is in effect. This action is being taken because of (state the conditions) which are detrimental to the (health or welfare) of members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>This restriction will remain in effect indefinitely in accordance with established Armed Forces policy. Removal of the restriction will be considered by the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board upon presentation of information that satisfactory corrective action has been taken.
</P>
<P>Correspondence appealing this action may be submitted to the President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board, (cite address).
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith,
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex F—AFDCB Letter of Notification of Continuance of Off-Limits Restrictions After Appearance before the AFDCB
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead)
</HD3>
<P>Proprietor 
</P>
<P>Dear Sir:
</P>
<P>The Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board (AFDCB) did not favorably consider your request for removal of the off-limits restriction now in effect at your establishment.
</P>
<P>This decision does not preclude further appeals or appearances before the AFDCB at any of its scheduled meetings. Correspondence pertaining to this matter should be addressed to the President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board, (cite address).
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex G—AFDCB Letter of Removal of Off-Limits Restriction 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead)
</HD3>
<P>Proprietor 
</P>
<P>Dear Sir:
</P>
<P>This letter is to inform you that the off-limits restriction against (name of establishment) is removed effective (date). Members of the Armed Forces are permitted to patronize your establishment as of that date.
</P>
<P>The corrective actions taken in response to the concerns of the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board are appreciated.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex H—AFDCB Notification of Removal of Off-Limits Restriction 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<FP>Proprietor
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>This letter is to inform you that your request for removal of the off-limits restriction now in effect at (name of establishment) was favorably considered by the Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board (AFDCB).
</P>
<P>This restriction will be removed effective (date). Members of the Armed Forces will be permitted to patronize your establishment as of that date.
</P>
<P>The corrective actions taken in response to the concerns of the AFDCB are appreciated.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP-1>John J. Smith, 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colonel, U.S. Army, President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board.</I>
</FP-1>
<HD1>Annex I—Format for AFDCB Meeting Minutes 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Letterhead) 
</HD3>
<HD3>MEMORANDUM FOR 
</HD3>
<HD3>SUBJECT: Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board
</HD3>
<P>1. Pursuant to authority contained in AR 190-24/AFI 31-213/ OPNAVINST 1620.2A/MCO 1620.2C/and COMDTINST 1620.1D, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Boards and Off-Installation Liaison and Operations, the (area) Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board convened at (place), (date)
</P>
<P>2. The following voting members were present: (List names, titles, and addresses.)
</P>
<P>3. The following military members were present: (List names, titles, and addresses.)
</P>
<P>4. The following civilian advisory members were present: (List names, titles, and addresses.)
</P>
<P>5. Order of business:
</P>
<P>a. Call to order.
</P>
<P>b. Welcome.
</P>
<P>c. Introduction of members and guests.
</P>
<P>d. Explanation of purpose of board.
</P>
<P>e. Reading of minutes.
</P>
<P>f. Unfinished or continuing business.
</P>
<P>g. New business (subparagraph as necessary).
</P>
<P>h. Recommendations.
</P>
<P>(1) List of areas and establishments being placed in an off-limits restriction.
</P>
<P>Include complete name and address (or adequate description of an area) of any establishment listed.
</P>
<P>(2) List of areas and establishments being removed from off-limits restrictions. Include complete name and address (or adequate description of an area) of any establishment listed.
</P>
<P>(3) Other matters or problems of mutual concern.
</P>
<P>i. Time, date, and place for next board meeting.
</P>
<P>j. Adjournment of the board.
</P>
<FP-1>(Board Recorder's Name) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Rank, Branch of Service), Recorder, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board 
</FP-1>
<FP>Approved:
</FP>
<FP-1>(Board President's Name) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Rank, Branch of Service) President, Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board 
</FP-1>
<FP>(<E T="04">Note:</E> The minutes of the board proceedings will be forwarded by official correspondence from the board president to the sponsoring commander for approval of the board's recommendations. By return endorsement, the sponsoring commander will either approve or disapprove the board's recommendations.)


</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="634" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 634—MOTOR VEHICLE TRAFFIC SUPERVISION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 30112(g); 5 U.S.C. 2951; Pub. L. 89-564; 89-670; 91-605; and 93-87.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 18969, Apr. 12, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.1" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes policy, responsibilities, and procedures for motor vehicle traffic supervision on military installations in the continental United States (CONUS) and overseas areas. This includes but is not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Granting, suspending, or revoking the privilege to operate a privately owned vehicle (POV).
</P>
<P>(2) Registration of POVs.
</P>
<P>(3) Administration of vehicle registration and driver performance records.
</P>
<P>(4) Driver improvement programs.
</P>
<P>(5) Police traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(6) Off-installation traffic activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Commanders in overseas areas are authorized to modify these policies and procedures in the following instances:
</P>
<P>(1) When dictated by host nation relationships, treaties, and agreements.
</P>
<P>(2) When traffic operations under military supervision necessitate measures to safeguard and protect the morale, discipline, and good order in the Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.2" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.2   References.</HEAD>
<P>Required and related publications along with prescribed and referenced forms are listed in Appendix A, AR 190-5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.3" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.3   Explanation of abbreviations and terms.</HEAD>
<P>Abbreviations and special terms used in this subpart are explained in the Glossary of AR 190-5. It is available on the internet at: <I>www.usapa.army.mil.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.4" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Departmental.</I> The Provost Marshal General, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA); Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service, U.S. Navy (USN); Headquarters, Air Force Security Forces Center; Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps (USMC); Staff Director, Command Security Office, Headquarters, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and Chief, National Guard Bureau will—
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise staff supervision over programs for motor vehicle traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop standard policies and procedures that include establishing an automated records program on traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain liaison with interested staff agencies and other military departments on traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain liaison with departmental safety personnel on traffic safety and accident reporting systems.
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinate with national, regional, and state traffic officials and agencies, and actively participate in conferences and workshops sponsored by the Government or private groups at the national level.
</P>
<P>(6) Help organize and monitor police traffic supervision training.
</P>
<P>(7) Maintain liaison with the Department of Transportation (DOT) and other Federal departments and agencies on the National Highway Safety Program Standards (NHSPS) and programs that apply to U.S. military traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(8) Participate in the national effort to reduce intoxicated driving.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>All major commanders.</I> Major commanders of the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and DLA will—
</P>
<P>(1) Manage traffic supervision in their commands.
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperate with the support programs of state and regional highway traffic safety organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate regional traffic supervision activities with other major military commanders in assigned geographic areas of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(4) Monitor agreements between installations and host state authorities for reciprocal reporting of suspension and revocation of driving privileges.
</P>
<P>(5) Participate in state and host nation efforts to reduce intoxicated driving.
</P>
<P>(6) Establish awards and recognition programs to recognize successful installation efforts to eliminate intoxicated driving. Ensure that criteria for these awards are positive in nature and include more than just apprehensions for intoxicated driving.
</P>
<P>(7) Modify policies and procedures when required by host nation treaties or agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major Army commanders.</I> Major Army commanders will ensure subordinate installations implement all provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commanding General, U.S. Army Training and Doctrine Command (CG, TRADOC).</I> The CG, TRADOC will ensure that technical training for functional users is incorporated into service school instructional programs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Installation or activity commander, Director of Military Support and State Adjutant General.</I> The installation or activity commander (for the Navy, the term installation shall refer to either the regional commander or installation commanding officer, whoever has ownership of the traffic program) will—
</P>
<P>(1) Establish an effective traffic supervision program.
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperate with civilian police agencies and other local, state, or federal government agencies concerned with traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that traffic supervision is properly integrated in the overall installation traffic safety program.
</P>
<P>(4) Actively participate in Alcohol Safety Action Projects (ASAP) in neighboring communities.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that active duty Army law enforcement personnel follow the provisions of AR 190-45 in reporting all criminal violations and utilize the Centralized Police Operations Suite (COPS) to support reporting requirements and procedures. Air Force personnel engaged in law enforcement and adjudication activities will follow the provisions of AFI 31-203 in reporting all criminal and traffic violations, and utilized the Security Forces Management Information Systems (SFMIS) to support reporting requirements and procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement the terms of this part in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, 5 U.S.C. Chapter 71.
</P>
<P>(7) Revoke driving privileges in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Installation law enforcement officer.</I> The installation law enforcement officer will—
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise overall staff responsibility for directing, regulating, and controlling traffic, and enforcing laws and regulations pertaining to traffic control.
</P>
<P>(2) Assist traffic engineering functions at installations by participating in traffic control studies designed to obtain information on traffic problems and usage patterns.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safety officer.</I> Safety officers will participate in and develop traffic accident prevention initiatives in support of the installation traffic safety program.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Facility engineer (public works officer at Navy installations).</I> The facility engineer, engineer officer or civil engineer at Air Force installations, in close coordination with the law enforcement officer, will—
</P>
<P>(1) Perform that phase of engineering concerned with the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of streets, highways, and abutting lands.
</P>
<P>(2) Select, determine appropriate design, procure, construct, install, and maintain permanent traffic and parking control devices in coordination with the law enforcement officer and installation safety officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that traffic signs, signals, and pavement markings conform to the standards in the current Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that planning, design, construction, and maintenance of streets and highways conform to the NHSPS as implemented by the Army.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Traffic engineer.</I> The traffic engineer, in close coordination with the law enforcement officer, will:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct formal traffic engineering studies.
</P>
<P>(2) Apply traffic engineering measures, including traffic control devices, to reduce the number and severity of traffic accidents. (If there is no installation traffic engineer, installation commanders may request these services through channels from the Commander, Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command, 200 Stovall Street, Alexandria, VA 22332).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Army Alcohol and Drug Control Officer (ADCO).</I> The ADCO will provide treatment and education services to personnel with alcohol or drug abuse problems.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Navy Substance Abuse Rehabilitation Program (SARP) Directors.</I> These directors will—
</P>
<P>(1) Supervise the alcohol/drug rehabilitation services to personnel with alcohol or drug abuse problems.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide remedial/motivational education for all persons identified as alcohol or drug abusers who are evaluated as not dependent on alcohol or drugs and who have been referred to level one rehabilitation by their commands.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Marine Corps Substance Abuse Program Officer.</I> This officer will provide alcohol/drug education, treatment, and rehabilitation services to personnel with alcohol/drug abuse problems.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>DLA Employee Assistance Program Officer.</I> This officer will provide alcohol/drug counseling and referral services to identified personnel with alcohol/drug abuse problems in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Labor Relations Officer, Office of Human Resource, HQ DLA.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention Treatment (ADAPT) program.</I> Air Force Commanders will refer personnel identified with alcohol/drug abuse problems to this program in accordance with established procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.5" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.5   Program objectives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The objectives of motor vehicle traffic supervision are to assure—
</P>
<P>(1) Safe and efficient movement of personnel and vehicles.
</P>
<P>(2) Reduction of traffic deaths, injuries, and property damage from traffic accidents. Most traffic accidents can be prevented. Investigation of motor vehicle accidents should examine all factors, operator status, vehicle condition, and supervisory control measures involved.
</P>
<P>(3) Integration of installation safety, engineering, legal, medical, and law enforcement resources into the installation traffic planning process.
</P>
<P>(4) Removal of intoxicated drivers from installation roadways.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Driving Privileges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.6" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.6   Requirements for driving privileges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Driving a Government vehicle or POV on military installations is a privilege granted by the installation commander. Persons who accept the privilege must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be lawfully licensed to operate motor vehicles in appropriate classifications and not be under suspension or revocation in any state or host country.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with laws and regulations governing motor vehicle operations on any U. S. military installation.
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with installation registration requirements in subpart C of this part. Vehicle registration is required on all Army installations through use of the Vehicle Registration System (VRS). Vehicle registration is required on all Air Force and DLA installations and as directed by the Chief, National Guard Bureau.
</P>
<P>(4) Possess, while operating a motor vehicle and produce on request by law enforcement personnel, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Proof of vehicle ownership or state registration if required by the issuing state or host nation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A valid state, host nation, overseas command, or international driver's license and/or OF 346 (U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator's Identification Card), as applicable to the class vehicle to be operated, supported by a DD Form 2A (U.S. Armed Forces Identification Card), Common Access Card (CAC) or other appropriate identification for non-Department of Defense (DOD) civilians.
</P>
<P>(iii) A valid record of motor vehicle safety inspection, as required by the state or host nation and valid proof of insurance if required by the state or locality.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any regulatory permits, or other pertinent documents relative to shipping and transportation of special cargo.
</P>
<P>(v) When appropriate, documents that establish identification and status of cargo or occupants.
</P>
<P>(vi) Proof of valid insurance. Proof of insurance consists of an insurance card, or other documents issued by the insurance company, that has a policy effective date and an expiration date.
</P>
<P>(b) Operators of Government motor vehicles must have proof of authorization to operate the vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.7" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.7   Stopping and inspecting personnel or vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Government vehicles may be stopped by law enforcement personnel on military installations based on the installation commander's policy.
</P>
<P>(1) In overseas areas, Government vehicles may be stopped on or off installations as determined by host nation agreement and command policy.
</P>
<P>(2) Stops and inspections of vehicles at installation gates or entry points and in restricted areas will be conducted according to command policy.
</P>
<P>(b) Stops and inspections of POVs within the military installation, other than at restricted areas or at an installation gate, are authorized only when there is a reasonable suspicion of criminal activity, or of a violation of a traffic regulation or of the installation commander's policy. Marine Corps users will be guided by publication of Marine Corps order and Military Rules of Evidence 311-316 and local command regulations. DLA users, see DLAR 5700.7.
</P>
<P>(c) At the time of stop, the driver and occupants may be required to display all pertinent documents, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) DD Form 2A.
</P>
<P>(2) Documents that establish the identity and status of civilians; for example, Common Access Card (CAC), DD Form 1173 (Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card), DA Form 1602 (Civilian Identification), AF Form 354 (Civilian Identification Card), DD Form 2 (Armed Forces of the United States Identification Card), post pass, national identity card, or other identification.
</P>
<P>(3) Proper POV registration documents.
</P>
<P>(4) Host nation vehicle registration documents, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) Authorization to operate a Government vehicle, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) Drivers license or OF 346 valid for the particular vehicle and area of operation.
</P>
<P>(7) Proof of insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.8" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.8   Implied consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Implied consent to blood, breath, or urine tests.</I> Persons who drive on the installation shall be deemed to have given their consent to evidential tests for alcohol or other drug content of their blood, breath, or urine when lawfully stopped, apprehended, or cited for any offense allegedly committed while driving or in physical control of a motor vehicle on military installations to determine the influence of intoxicants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implied consent to impoundment.</I> Any person granted the privilege to operate or register a motor vehicle on a military installation shall be deemed to have given his or her consent for the removal and temporary impoundment of the POV when it is parked illegally, or for unreasonable periods, as determined by the installation commander or applicable authority, interfering with military operations, creating a safety hazard, disabled by accident, left unattended in a restricted or controlled area, or abandoned. Such persons further agree to reimburse the United States for the cost of towing and storage should their motor vehicle be removed or impounded. Existence of these conditions will be determined by the installation commander or designee.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who operates, registers, or who is in control of a motor vehicle on a military installation involved in a motor vehicle or criminal infraction shall be informed that notice of the violation of law or regulation will be forwarded to the Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) of the host state and/or home of record for the individual, and to the National Register, when applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.9" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.9   Suspension or revocation of driving or privately owned vehicle registration privileges.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commander or designee may for cause, or any lawful reason, administratively suspend or revoke driving privileges on the installation. The suspension or revocation of installation driving privileges or POV registrations, for lawful reasons unrelated to traffic violations or safe vehicle operation, is not limited or restricted by this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension.</I> (1) Driving privileges are usually suspended when other measures fail to improve a driver's performance. Measures should include counseling, remedial driving training, and rehabilitation programs if violator is entitled to the programs. Driving privileges may also be suspended for up to 6 months if a driver continually violates installation parking regulations. The commander will determine standards for suspension based on frequency of parking violations and publish those standards. Aboard Navy installations, any vehicle parked in a fire lane will be towed at the owner's expense. Any vehicle parked without authorization in an area restricted due to force protection measures may subject the driver to immediate suspension by the installation commanding officer. Vehicle will be towed at the owner/operator's expense.
</P>
<P>(2) The installation commander has discretionary power to withdraw the authorization of active duty military personnel, DOD civilian employees, and nonappropriated funds (NAF) employees, contractors and subcontractors to operate Government vehicles.
</P>
<P>(3) Immediate suspension of installation or overseas command POV driving privileges pending resolution of an intoxicated driving incident is authorized for active duty military personnel, family members, retired members of the military services, DOD civilian personnel, and others with installation or overseas command driving privileges, regardless of the geographic location of the intoxicated driving incident. Suspension is authorized for non-DOD affiliated civilians only with respect to incidents occurring on the installation or in areas subject to military traffic supervision. After a review of available information as specified in § 634.11, installation driving privileges will be immediately suspended pending resolution of the intoxicated driving accident in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Refusal to take or complete a lawfully requested chemical test to determine contents of blood for alcohol or other drugs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating a motor vehicle with a blood alcohol content (BAC) of .08 percent by volume (.08 grams per 100 milliliters) or higher or in violation of the law of the jurisdiction that is being assimilated on the military installation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Operating a motor vehicle with a BAC of 0.05 percent by volume but less than 0.08 percent blood alcohol by volume in violation of the law of the jurisdiction in which the vehicle is being operated if the jurisdiction imposes a suspension solely on the basis of the BAC level (as measured in grams per 100 milliliters).
</P>
<P>(iv) On an arrest report or other official documentation of the circumstances of an apprehension for intoxicated driving.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revocation.</I> (1) The revocation of installation or overseas command POV driving privileges is a severe administrative measure to be exercised for serious moving violations or when other available corrective actions fail to produce the desired driver improvement. Revocation of the driving privilege will be for a specified period, but never less than 6 months, applies at all military installations, and remains in effect upon reassignment.
</P>
<P>(2) Driving privileges are subject to revocation when an individual fails to comply with any of the conditions requisite to the granting privilege (see § 634.6). Revocation of installation driving and registration privileges is authorized for military personnel, family members, civilian employees of DOD, contractors, and other individuals with installation driving privileges. For civilian guests, revocation is authorized only with respect to incidents occurring on the installation or in the areas subject to military traffic supervision.
</P>
<P>(3) Driving privileges will be revoked for a mandatory period of not less than 1 year in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The installation commander or designee has determined that the person lawfully apprehended for driving under the influence refused to submit to or complete a test to measure the alcohol content in the blood, or detect the presence of any other drug, as required by the law of the jurisdiction, or installation traffic code, or by Service directive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A conviction, nonjudicial punishment, or a military or civilian administrative action resulting in the suspension or revocation of driver's license for intoxicated driving. Appropriate official documentation of such conviction is required as the basis for revocation.
</P>
<P>(4) When temporary suspensions under paragraph (a)(3) of this section are followed by revocations, the period of revocation is computed beginning from the date the original suspension was imposed, exclusive of any period during which full driving privileges may have been restored pending resolution of charges. (Example: privileges were initially suspended on January 1, 2000 for a charge of intoxicated driving with a BAC of 0.14 percent. A hearing was held, extreme family hardship was substantiated, and privileges were restored on February 1 pending resolution of the charge. On March 1, 2000, the driver was convicted for intoxicated driving. The mandatory 1-year revocation period will consist of January 2000 plus March 2000 through January 2001, for a total of 12 months with no installation driving privileges).
</P>
<P>(c) Army provost marshals will use the automated VRS to develop and maintain records showing that an individual's driving privileges have been revoked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.10" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.10   Remedial driver training programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Navy activities will comply with OPNAVINST 5100.12 Series, and Marine Corps activities with current edition of MCO 5100.19C for establishment of remedial training programs.
</P>
<P>(b) Installation commanders may establish a remedial driver-training program to instruct and educate personnel requiring additional training. Personnel may be referred to a remedial program on the basis of their individual driving history or incidents requiring additional training. The curriculum should provide instruction to improve driving performance and compliance with traffic laws.
</P>
<P>(c) Installation commanders may schedule periodic courses, or if not practical, arrange for participation in courses conducted by local civil authorities.
</P>
<P>(d) Civilian personnel employed on the installation, contractor employees, and family members of military personnel may attend remedial courses on the installation, or similar courses off the installation which incur no expense to the government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.11" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.11   Administrative due process for suspensions and revocations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individual Services will promulgate separate regulations establishing administrative due process procedures for suspension or revocation of driving privileges. The procedures in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section apply to actions taken by Army commanders with respect to Army military personnel and family members and to civilian personnel operating motor vehicles on Army installations. For Marine Corps users, the provisions of this section apply. For Air Force users, a preliminary suspension for intoxicated driving remains in effect until the installation commander makes a final decision. Requested hearings must take place within a reasonable period, which is determined by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(b) For offenses other than intoxicated driving, suspension or revocation of the installation driving privilege will not become effective until the installation commander or designee notifies the affected person and offers that person an administrative hearing. Suspension or revocation will take place 14 calendar days after written notice is received unless the affected person makes an application for a hearing within this period. Such application will stay the pending suspension or revocation for a period of 14 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(1) If, due to action by the government, a hearing is not held within 14 calendar days, the suspension will not take place until such time as the person is granted a hearing and is notified of the action of the installation commander or designee. However, if the affected person requests that the hearing be continued to a date beyond the 14-day period, the suspension or revocation will become effective immediately on receipt of notice that the request for continuance has been granted, and remain in force pending a hearing at a scheduled hearing date.
</P>
<P>(2) If it is determined as a result of a hearing to suspend or revoke the affected person's driving privilege, the suspension or revocation will become effective when the person receives the written notification of such action. In the event that written notification cannot be verified, either through a return receipt for mail or delivery through command channels, the hearing authority will determine the effective date on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(3) If the revocation or suspension is imposed after such hearing, the person whose driving privilege has been suspended or revoked will have the right to appeal or request reconsideration. Such requests must be forwarded through command channels to the installation commander within 14 calendar days from the date the individual is notified of the suspension or revocation resulting from the administrative hearing. The suspension or revocation will remain in effect pending a final ruling on the request. Requests for restricted privileges will be considered per § 634.15.
</P>
<P>(4) If driving privileges are temporarily restored (<I>i.e.</I>, for family hardship) pending resolution of charges, the period of revocation (after final authority determination) will still total the mandatory 12 months. The final date of the revocation will be adjusted to account for the period when the violator's privileges were temporarily restored, as this period does not count towards the revocation time.
</P>
<P>(c) For drunk driving or driving under the influence offenses, reliable evidence readily available will be presented promptly to an individual designated by the installation commander for review and authorization for immediate suspension of installation driving privileges.
</P>
<P>(1) The reviewer should be any officer to include GS-11 and above, designated in writing by the installation or garrison commander whose primary duties are not in the field of law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) Reliable evidence includes witness statements, military or civilian police report of apprehension, chemical test results if completed, refusal to consent to complete chemical testing, videotapes, statements by the apprehended individual, field sobriety or preliminary breath tests results, and other pertinent evidence. Immediate suspension should not be based solely on published lists of arrested persons, statements by parties not witnessing the apprehension, or telephone conversations or other information not supported by documented and reliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) Reviews normally will be accomplished within the first normal duty day following final assembly of evidence.
</P>
<P>(4) Installation commanders may authorize the installation law enforcement officer to conduct reviews and authorize suspensions in cases where the designated reviewer is not reasonably available and, in the judgment of the installation law enforcement officer, such immediate action is warranted. Air Force Security Forces personnel act in an advisory capacity to installation commanders. Review by the designated officer will follow as soon as practical in such cases. When a suspension notice is based on the law enforcement officer's review, there is no requirement for confirmation notice following subsequent review by the designated officer.
</P>
<P>(5) For active duty military personnel, final written notice of suspension for intoxicated driving will be provided to the individual's chain of command for immediate presentation to the individual. Air Force Security Forces provide a copy of the temporary suspension to the individual at the time of the incident or may provide a copy of the final determination at the time of the incident, as pre-determined by the final action authority.
</P>
<P>(6) For civilian personnel, written notice of suspension for intoxicated driving will normally be provided without delay via certified mail. Air Force Security Forces personnel provide a copy of the temporary suspension to the individual at the time of the incident or may provide a copy of the final determination at the time of the incident, as pre-determined by the final action authority. If the person is employed on the installation, such notice will be forwarded through the military or civilian supervisor. When the notice of suspension is forwarded through the supervisor, the person whose privileges are suspended will be required to provide written acknowledgment of receipt of the suspension notice.
</P>
<P>(7) Notices of suspension for intoxicated driving will include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the suspension can be made a revocation under § 634.9(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The right to request, in writing, a hearing before the installation commander or designee to determine if post driving privileges will be restored pending resolution of the charge; and that such request must be made within 14 calendar days of the final notice of suspension.
</P>
<P>(iii) The right of military personnel to be represented by counsel at his or her own expense and to present evidence and witnesses at his or her own expense. Installation commanders will determine the availability of any local active duty representatives requested.
</P>
<P>(iv) The right of Department of Defense civilian employees to have a personal representative present at the administrative hearing in accordance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) Written acknowledgment of receipt to be signed by the individual whose privileges are to be suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(8) If a hearing is requested, it must take place within 14 calendar days of receipt of the request. The suspension for intoxicated driving will remain in effect until a decision has been made by the installation commander or designee, but will not exceed 14 calendar days after the hearing while awaiting the decision. If no decision has been made by that time, full driving privileges will be restored until such time as the accused is notified of a decision to continue the suspension.
</P>
<P>(9) Hearing on suspension actions under § 634.9(a) for drunk or impaired driving pending resolution of charges will cover only the following pertinent issues of whether—
</P>
<P>(i) The law enforcement official had reasonable grounds to believe the person was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle under the influence of alcohol or other drugs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person was lawfully cited or apprehended for a driving under the influence offense.
</P>
<P>(iii) The person was lawfully requested to submit his or her blood, breath, or urine in order to determine the content of alcohol or other drugs, and was informed of the implied consent policy (consequences of refusal to take or complete the test).
</P>
<P>(iv) The person refused to submit to the test for alcohol or other drug content of blood, breath, or urine; failed to complete the test; submitted to the test and the result was .08 or higher blood alcohol content, or between .05 and .08 in violation of the law of the jurisdiction in which the vehicle is being operated if the jurisdiction imposes a suspension solely on the basis of the BAC level; or showed results indicating the presence of other drugs for an on-post apprehension or in violation of State laws for an off-post apprehension.
</P>
<P>(v) The testing methods were valid and reliable and the results accurately evaluated.
</P>
<P>(10) For revocation actions under § 634.9(b) (3) for intoxicated driving, the revocation is mandatory on conviction or other findings that confirm the charge. (Pleas of nolo contendere are considered equivalent to guilty pleas).
</P>
<P>(i) Revocations are effective as of the date of conviction or other findings that confirm the charges. Test refusal revocations will be in addition to any other revocation incurred during a hearing. Hearing authority will determine if revocations for multiple offenses will run consecutively or concurrently taking into consideration if offenses occurred on same occasion or different times, dates. The exception is that test refusal will be one year automatic revocation in addition to any other suspension.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice that revocation is automatic may be placed in the suspension letter. If it does not appear in the suspension letter, a separate letter must be sent and revocation is not effective until receipt of the written notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Revocations cancel any full or restricted driving privileges that may have been restored during suspension and the resolution of the charges. Requests for restoration of full driving privileges are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(11) The Army Vehicle Registration System will be utilized to maintain infractions by individuals on Army installations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.12" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.12   Army administrative actions against intoxicated drivers.</HEAD>
<P>Army commanders will take appropriate action against intoxicated drivers. These actions may include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A written reprimand, administrative in nature, will be issued to active duty Soldiers in the cases described in this paragraph (a). Any general officer, and any officer frocked to the grade of brigadier general, may issue this reprimand. Filing of the reprimand will be in accordance with the provisions of AR 600-37.
</P>
<P>(1) Conviction by courts-martial or civilian court or imposition of nonjudicial punishment for an offense of drunk or impaired driving either on or off the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Refusal to take or failure to complete a lawfully requested test to measure alcohol or drug content of the blood, breath, or urine, either on or off the installation, when there is reasonable belief of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) Driving or being in physical control of a motor vehicle on post when the blood alcohol content is 0.08 percent or higher, irrespective of other charges, or off post when the blood alcohol content is in violation of the law of the State involved.
</P>
<P>(4) Driving, or being in physical control of a motor vehicle, either on or off the installation, when lawfully conducted chemical tests reflect the presence of illegal drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) Review by the commander of the service records of active duty soldiers apprehended for offenses described in paragraph (a) of this section to determine if the following action(s) should be taken—
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative reduction per AR 600-8-19, or
</P>
<P>(2) Bar to reenlistment per AR 601-280, or
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative separation per AR 635-200.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.13" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.13   Alcohol and drug abuse programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commanders will refer military personnel suspected of drug or alcohol abuse for evaluation in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Behavior indicative of alcohol or drug abuse.
</P>
<P>(2) Continued inability to drive a motor vehicle safely because of alcohol or drug abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) The commander will ensure military personnel are referred to the installation alcohol and drug abuse program or other comparable facilities when they are convicted of, or receive an official administrative action for, any offense involving driving under the influence. A first offender may be referred to treatment if evidence of substance abuse exists in addition to the offense of intoxicated driving. The provisions of this paragraph do not limit the commander's prerogatives concerning other actions that may be taken against an offender under separate Service/Agency polices (Army, see AR 600-85. Marine Corps, see MCO P1700.24B).
</P>
<P>(c) Active duty Army personnel apprehended for drunk driving, on or off the installation, will be referred to the local Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP) for evaluation within 14 calendar days to determine if the person is dependent on alcohol or other drugs which will result in enrollment in treatment in accordance with AR 600-85. A copy of all reports on military personnel and DOD civilian employees apprehended for intoxicated driving will be forwarded to the installation alcohol and drug abuse facility.
</P>
<P>(d) Active duty Navy personnel apprehended for drunk driving on or off the installation will be screened by the respective SARP facility within 14 calendar days to determine if the individual is dependent on alcohol or other drugs. Active duty Marines apprehended for intoxicated driving, on or off the installation, will be referred to interview by a Level II substance abuse counselor within 14 calendar days for evaluation and determination of the appropriate level of treatment required. Subsequent to this evaluation, the Marine will be assigned to the appropriate treatment programs as prescribed by MCO P1700.24B.
</P>
<P>(e) The Services/Agencies may develop preventive treatment and rehabilitative programs for civilian employees with alcohol-related problems.
</P>
<P>(f) Army supervisors of civilian employees apprehended for intoxicated driving will advise employees of ASAP services available. Civilian employees apprehended for intoxicated driving while on duty will be referred to the ASAP or comparable facility for evaluation in accordance with AR 600-85. Army commanders will ensure that sponsors encourage family members apprehended for drunk driving seek ASAP evaluation and assistance.
</P>
<P>(g) Navy and DLA civilian personnel charged with intoxicated driving will be referred to the Civilian Employee Assistance Program in accordance with 5 CFR part 792. Such referral does not exempt the employee from appropriate administrative or disciplinary actions under civilian personnel regulations.
</P>
<P>(h) Marine Corps civilian employees charged with intoxicated driving, on or off the installation, will be referred to the Employee Assistance Program as prescribed by MCO P1700.24B. Marine family members charged with intoxicated driving, on or off the installation, will be provided assistance as addressed in MCO P1700.24B. Such referral and assistance does not exempt the individual from appropriate administrative or disciplinary action under current civilian personnel regulations or State laws.
</P>
<P>(i) For the Army, DLA, and the Marine Corps, installation driving privileges of any person who refuses to submit to, or fails to complete, chemical testing for blood-alcohol content when apprehended for intoxicated driving, or convicted of intoxicated driving, will not be reinstated unless the person successfully completes either an alcohol education or treatment program sponsored by the installation, state, county, or municipality, or other program evaluated as acceptable by the installation commander.
</P>
<P>(j) Active duty Air Force personnel apprehended for drunk driving, on or off the installation, will be referred by their respective chain of command to the Air Force Substance Abuse office for evaluation in accordance with AFI 44-121/Alcohol Drug Abuse &amp; Treatment Program, and local policies within seven days.
</P>
<P>(k) Local installation commanders will determine if active duty Air Force personnel involved in any alcohol incident will immediately be subjected to a urinalysis for drug content. If consent is not given for the test, a command-directed test will be administered in accordance with local policies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.14" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.14   Restoration of driving privileges upon acquittal of intoxicated driving.</HEAD>
<P>The suspension of driving privileges for military and civilian personnel shall be restored if a final disposition indicates a finding of not guilty, charges are dismissed or reduced to an offense not amounting to intoxicated driving, or where an equivalent determination is made in a nonjudicial proceeding. The following are exceptions to the rule in which suspensions will continue to be enforced.
</P>
<P>(a) The preliminary suspension was based on refusal to take a BAC test.
</P>
<P>(b) The preliminary suspension resulted from a valid BAC test, (unless disposition of the charges was based on invalidity of the BAC test). In the case of a valid BAC test, the suspension will continue, pending completion of a hearing as specified in § 634.11. In such instances, the individual will be notified in writing that the suspension will continue and of the opportunity to request a hearing within 14 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(1) At the hearing, the arrest report, the commander's report of official disposition, information presented by the individual, and such other information as the hearing officer may deem appropriate will be considered.
</P>
<P>(2) If the hearing officer determines by a preponderance of evidence that the individual was engaged in intoxicated driving, the revocation will be for 1 year from the date of the original preliminary suspension.
</P>
<P>(c) The person was driving or in physical control of a motor vehicle while under a preliminary suspension or revocation.
</P>
<P>(d) An administrative determination has been made by the state or host nation licensing authority to suspend or revoke driving privileges.
</P>
<P>(e) The individual has failed to complete a formally directed substance abuse or driver's training program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.15" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.15   Restricted driving privileges or probation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and DLA, the installation commander, or his or her designee may modify a suspension or revocation of driving privileges in certain cases per paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Army requests for restricted driving privileges subsequent to suspension or revocation of installation driving privileges will be referred to the installation commander or designee, except for intoxicated driving cases, which must be referred to the General Court Martial Convening Authority. Withdrawal of restricted driving privileges is within the installation commander's discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) Probation or restricted driving privileges will not be granted to any person whose driver license or right to operate motor vehicles is under suspension or revocation by a state, Federal, or host nation licensing authority. Prior to application for probation or restricted driving privileges, a state, Federal, or host nation driver's license or right to operate motor vehicles must be reinstated. The burden of proof for reinstatement of driving privileges lies with the person applying for probation or restricted driving privileges. Revocations for test refusals shall remain.
</P>
<P>(d) The installation commander or designee may grant restricted driving privileges or probation on a case-by-case basis provided the person's state or host nation driver's license or right to operate motor vehicles remains valid to accommodate any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) Mission requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Unusual personal or family hardships.
</P>
<P>(3) Delays exceeding 90 days, not attributed to the person concerned, in the formal disposition of an apprehension or charges that are the basis for any type of suspension or revocation.
</P>
<P>(4) When there is no reasonably available alternate means of transportation to officially assigned duties. In this instance, a limited exception can be granted for the sole purpose of driving directly to and from the place of duty.
</P>
<P>(e) The terms and limitations on a restricted driving privilege (for example, authorization to drive to and from place of employment or duty, or selected installation facilities such as hospital, commissary, and or other facilities) will be specified in writing and provided to the individual concerned. Persons found in violation of the restricted privilege are subject to revocation action as prescribed in § 634.9.
</P>
<P>(f) The conditions and terms of probation will be specified in writing and provided to the individual concerned. The original suspension or revocation term in its entirety may be activated to commence from the date of the violation of probation. In addition, separate action may be initiated based on the commission of any traffic, criminal, or military offense that constitutes a probation violation.
</P>
<P>(g) DOD employees and contractors, who can demonstrate that suspension or revocation of installation driving privileges would constructively remove them from employment, may be given a limiting suspension/revocation that restricts driving on the installation or activity (or in the overseas command) to the most direct route to and from their respective work sites (5 U.S.C. 2302(b) (10)). This is not to be construed as limiting the commander from suspension or revocation of on-duty driving privileges or seizure of OF 346, even if this action would constructively remove a person from employment in those instances in which the person's duty requires driving from place to place on the installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.16" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.16   Reciprocal state-military action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commanders will recognize the interests of the states in matters of POV administration and driver licensing. Statutory authority may exist within some states or host nations for reciprocal suspension and revocation of driving privileges. See subpart D of this part for additional information on exchanging and obtaining information with civilian law enforcement agencies concerning infractions by Armed Service personnel off post. Installation commanders will honor the reciprocal authority and direct the installation law enforcement officer to pursue reciprocity with state or host nation licensing authorities. Upon receipt of written or other official law enforcement communication relative to the suspension/revocation of driving privileges, the receiving installation will terminate driving privileges as if violations occurred within its own jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) When imposing a suspension or revocation for an off-installation offense, the effective date should be the same as civil disposition, or the date that state or host-nation driving privileges are suspended or revoked. This effective date can be retroactive.
</P>
<P>(c) If statutory authority does not exist within the state or host nation for formal military reciprocity, the procedures below will be adopted:
</P>
<P>(1) Commanders will recognize official documentation of suspensions/revocations imposed by state or host nation authorities. Administrative actions (suspension/revocations, or if recognized, point assessment) for moving traffic violations off the installation should not be less than required for similar offenses on the installation. When notified by state or host nation authorities of a suspension or revocation, the person's OF 346 may also be suspended.
</P>
<P>(2) In CONUS, the host and issuing state licensing authority will be notified as soon as practical when a person's installation driving privileges are suspended or revoked for any period, and immediately for refusal to submit to a lawful BAC test. The notification will be sent to the appropriate state DMV(s) per reciprocal agreements. In the absence of electronic communication technology, the appropriate state DMV(s) will be notified by official certified mail. The notification will include the basis for the suspension/revocation and the BAC level if applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) OCONUS installation commanders must follow provisions of the applicable Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA), the law of the host nation concerning reciprocal suspension and revocation, and other international agreements. To the extent an agreement concerning reciprocity may be permitted at a particular overseas installation, the commander must have prior authorization to negotiate and conclude such an international agreement in accordance with applicable international agreements, DODD 5530.3, International Agreements, June 87, and other individual Service instructions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.17" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.17   Extensions of suspensions and revocations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Driving in violation of a suspension or revocation imposed under this part will result in the original period of suspension or revocation being increased by 2 years. In addition, administrative action may be initiated based on the commission of any traffic, criminal, or military offenses, for example, active duty military personnel driving on the installation in violation of a lawful order.
</P>
<P>(b) For each subsequent determination within a 5-year period that revocation is authorized under § 634.9, military personnel, DOD civilians, contractors and NAF employees will be prohibited from obtaining or using an OF 346 for 6 months for each such incident. A determination whether DOD civilian personnel should be prohibited from obtaining or using an OF 346 will be made in accordance with the laws and regulations applicable to civilian personnel. This does not preclude a commander from imposing such prohibition for a first offense, or for a longer period of time for a first or subsequent offense, or for such other reasons as may be authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) Commanders may extend a suspension or revocation of driving privileges on personnel until completion of an approved remedial driver training course or alcohol or drug counseling programs after proof is provided.
</P>
<P>(d) Commanders may extend a suspension or revocation of driving privileges on civilian personnel convicted of intoxicated driving on the installation until successful completion of a state or installation approved alcohol or drug rehabilitation program.
</P>
<P>(e) For Navy personnel for good cause, the appropriate authority may withdraw the restricted driving privilege and continue the suspension or revocation period (for example, driver at fault in the traffic accident, or driver cited for a moving violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.18" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.18   Reinstatement of driving privileges.</HEAD>
<P>Reinstatement of driving privileges shall be automatic, provided all revocations applicable have expired, proper proof of completion of remedial driving course and/or substance abuse counseling has been provided, and reinstatement requirements of individual's home state and/or state the individual may have been suspended in, have been met.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Motor Vehicle Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.19" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.19   Registration policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Motor vehicles will be registered according to guidance in this part and in policies of each Service and DLA. A person who lives or works on an Army, DLA, Air Force, Navy, or Marine Corps installation, or Army National Guard of the U.S. (ARNGUS) facility, or often uses the facilities is required to register his or her vehicle. Also, individuals who access the installation for regular activities such as use of medical facilities and regular recurring activities on the installation should register their vehicles according to a standard operating procedure established by the installation commander. The person need not own the vehicle to register it, but must have a lease agreement, power of attorney, or notarized statement from the owner of the vehicle specifying the inclusive dates for which permission to use the vehicle has been granted.
</P>
<P>(b) Vehicles intended for construction and material handling, or used solely off the road, are usually not registered as motor vehicles. Installation commanders may require registration of off-road vehicles and bicycles under a separate local system.
</P>
<P>(c) Commanders can grant limited temporary registration for up to 30 days, pending permanent registration, or in other circumstances for longer terms.
</P>
<P>(d) Except for reasons of security, all installations and activities of the Services and DLA within the United States and its territories with a vehicle registration system will use and honor the DD Form 2220, (Department of Defense Registration Decal). Registration in overseas commands may be modified in accordance with international agreements or military necessity.
</P>
<P>(e) Army Installation commanders will establish local visitor identification for individuals who will be on installation for less than 30 days. The local policy will provide for use of temporary passes that establish a start and end date for which the pass is valid. Army installation commanders must refer to AR 190-16 Chapter 2 for guidance concerning installation access control. (Air Force, see AFI 31-204). Other Armed Services and DLA may develop and issue visitor passes locally.
</P>
<P>(f) The conditions in § 634.20 must be met to operate a POV on an Army and DLA Installation. Other Armed Services that do not require registration will enforce § 634.20 through traffic enforcement actions. Additionally, failure to comply with § 634.20 may result in administrative suspension or revocation of driving privileges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.20" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.20   Privately owned vehicle operation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Personnel seeking to register their POVs on military installations within the United States or its territories and in overseas areas will comply with the following requirements. (Registration in overseas commands may be modified in accordance with international agreements or military necessity.)
</P>
<P>(a) Possess a valid state, overseas command, host nation or international drivers license (within appropriate classification), supported by DD Form 2, or other appropriate identification for DOD civilians, contractors and retirees. DA Form 1602, Civilian Identification Card, is limited for identification on Army installations only.
</P>
<P>(b) Possess a certificate of state registration as required by the state in which the vehicle is registered.
</P>
<P>(c) Comply with the minimum requirements of the automobile insurance laws or regulations of the state or host nation. In overseas commands where host nation laws do not require minimum personal injury and property damage liability insurance, the major overseas commander will set reasonable liability insurance requirements for registration and/or operation of POVs within the confines of military installations and areas where the commander exercises jurisdiction. Prior to implementation, insurance requirements in host states or nations should be formally coordinated with the appropriate host agency.
</P>
<P>(d) Satisfactorily complete a safety and mechanical vehicle inspection by the state or jurisdiction in which the vehicle is licensed. If neither state nor local jurisdiction requires a periodic safety inspection, installation commanders may require and conduct an annual POV safety inspection; however, inspection facilities must be reasonably accessible to those requiring use. Inspections will meet minimum standards established by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) in 49 CFR 570.1 through 570.10. Lights, turn signals, brake lights, horn, wipers, and pollution control devices and standards in areas where applicable, should be included in the inspection. Vehicles modified from factory standards and determined unsafe may be denied access and registration.
</P>
<P>(e) Possess current proof of compliance with local vehicle emission inspection if required by the state, and maintenance requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) Vehicles with elevated front or rear ends that have been modified in a mechanically unsafe manner are unsafe and will be denied registration. 49 CFR 570.8 states that springs shall not be extended above the vehicle manufacturer's design height.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.21" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.21   Department of Defense Form 2220.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use.</I> DD Form 2220 will be used to identify registered POVs on Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and DLA installations or facilities. The form is produced in single copy for conspicuous placement on the front of the vehicle only (windshield or bumper). If allowed by state laws, the decal is placed in the center by the rear view mirror or the lower portion of the driver's side windshield. The requirement to affix the DD Form 2220 to the front windshield or bumper of registered vehicles is waived for General Officers and Flag Officers of all Armed Services, Armed Service Secretaries, Political Appointees, Members of Congress, and the Diplomatic Corps.
</P>
<P>(1) Each Service and DLA will procure its own forms and installation and expiration tabs. For the Army, the basic decal will be ordered through publications channels and remain on the vehicle until the registered owner disposes of the vehicle, separates from active duty or other conditions specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Air Force, DLA, and Army retirees may retain DD Form 2220. Army retirees are required to follow the same registration and VRS procedures as active duty personnel. Upon termination of affiliation with the service, the registered owner or authorized operator is responsible for removing the DD Form 2220 from the vehicle and surrender of the decal to the issuing office. Army installation commanders are responsible for the costs of procuring decals with the name of their installation and related expiration tabs. Air Force installations will use the installation tag (4″ by 
<FR>1/2</FR>″) to identify the Air Force Installation where the vehicle is registered. Air Force personnel may retain the DD Form 2220 upon reassignment, retirement, or separation provided the individual is still eligible for continued registration, the registration is updated in SFMIS, and the installation tab is changed accordingly. Position the decal directly under the DD Form 2220.
</P>
<P>(2) For other Armed Services and DLA, DD Form 2220 and installation and expiration tabs will be removed from POV's by the owner prior to departure from their current installation, retirement, or separation from military or government affiliation, termination of ownership, registration, liability insurance, or other conditions further identified by local policy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) DD Form 2220 and installation and expiration tabs will consist of international blue borders and printing on a white background. Printer information will include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Form title (Department of Defense Registered Vehicle).
</P>
<P>(ii) Alphanumeric individual form identification number.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOD seal.
</P>
<P>(2) Name of the installation will be specified on a separate tab abutting the decal. Each Service or DLA may choose optional color codes for the registrant. Army and installations having vehicle registration programs will use the following standard color scheme for the installation tab:
</P>
<P>(i) Blue-officers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Red-enlisted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Green DA civilian employees (including NAF employees).
</P>
<P>(iv) Black-contractor personnel and other civilians employed on the installation. White will be used for contract personnel on Air Force installations.
</P>
<P>(3) An expiration tab identifying the month and year (6-2004), the year (2000) or simply “00” will be abutted to right of the decal. For identification purposes, the date of expiration will be shown in bold block numbers on a lighter contrasting background such as traffic yellow, lime, or orange.
</P>
<P>(4) DD Form 2220 and any adjoining tabs will be theft resistant when applied to glass, metal, painted, or rubberized surfaces and manufactured so as to obliterate or self destruct when removal is attempted. Local policy guided by state or host nation laws will specify the exact placement of DD Form 2220.
</P>
<P>(5) For Navy and Marine Corps military personnel the grade insignia will be affixed on placards, approximately 5 inches by 8 inches in size, and placed on the driver's side dashboard. Placards should be removed from view when the vehicle is not located on a military installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.22" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.22   Termination or denial of registration.</HEAD>
<P>Installation commanders or their designated representatives will terminate POV registration or deny initial registration under the following conditions (decal and tabs will be removed from the vehicle when registration is terminated):
</P>
<P>(a) The owner fails to comply with the registration requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The owner sells or disposes of the POV, is released from active duty, separated from the Service, or terminates civilian employment with a military Service or DOD agency. Army and Air Force personnel on a permanent change of station will retain the DD Form 2220 if the vehicle is moved to their new duty station.
</P>
<P>(c) The owner is other than an active duty military or civilian employee and discontinues regular operations of the POV on the installation.
</P>
<P>(d) The owner's state, overseas command, or host nation driver's license is suspended or revoked, or the installation driving privilege is revoked. Air Force does not require removal of the DD Form 2220 when driving privileges are suspended for an individual. When vehicle registration is terminated in conjunction with the revocation of installation driving privileges, the affected person must apply to re-register the POV after the revocation expires. Registration should not be terminated if other family members having installation driving privileges require use of the vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.23" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.23   Specified consent to impoundment.</HEAD>
<P>Personnel registering POVs on DOD installations must consent to the impoundment policy. POV registration forms will contain or have appended to them a certificate with the following statement: “I am aware that (insert number and title of separate Service or DLA directive) and the installation traffic code provide for the removal and temporary impoundment of privately owned motor vehicles that are either parked illegally, or for unreasonable periods, interfering with military operations, creating a safety hazard, disabled by accident, left unattended in a restricted or control area, or abandoned. I agree to reimburse the United States for the cost of towing and storage should my motor vehicle(s), because of such circumstances, be removed and impounded.” 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Traffic Supervision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.24" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.24   Traffic planning and codes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Safe and efficient movement of traffic on an installation requires traffic supervision. A traffic supervision program includes traffic circulation planning and control of motor vehicle traffic; publication and enforcement of traffic laws and regulations; and investigation of motor vehicle accidents.
</P>
<P>(b) Installation commanders will develop traffic circulation plans that provide for the safest and most efficient use of primary and secondary roads. Circulation planning should be a major part of all long-range master planning at installations. The traffic circulation plan is developed by the installation law enforcement officer, engineer, safety officer, and other concerned staff agencies. Highway engineering representatives from adjacent civil communities must be consulted to ensure the installation plan is compatible with the current and future circulation plan of the community. The plan should include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Normal and peak load routing based on traffic control studies.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective control of traffic using planned direction, including measures for special events and adverse road or weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) Point control at congested locations by law enforcement personnel or designated traffic directors or wardens, including trained school-crossing guards.
</P>
<P>(4) Use of traffic control signs and devices.
</P>
<P>(5) Efficient use of available parking facilities.
</P>
<P>(6) Efficient use of mass transportation.
</P>
<P>(c) Traffic control studies will provide factual data on existing roads, traffic density and flow patterns, and points of congestion. The installation law enforcement officer and traffic engineer usually conduct coordinated traffic control studies to obtain the data. Accurate data will help determine major and minor routes, location of traffic control devices, and conditions requiring engineering or enforcement services.
</P>
<P>(d) The (Military) Surface Deployment and Distribution Command Transportation Engineering Agency (SDDCTEA) will help installation commanders solve complex highway traffic engineering problems. SDDCTEA traffic engineering services include—
</P>
<P>(1) Traffic studies of limited areas and situations.
</P>
<P>(2) Complete studies of traffic operations of entire installations. (This can include long-range planning for future development of installation roads, public highways, and related facilities.)
</P>
<P>(3) Assistance in complying with established traffic engineering standards.
</P>
<P>(e) Installation commanders should submit requests for traffic engineering services in accordance with applicable service or agency directives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.25" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.25   Installation traffic codes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Installation or activity commanders will establish a traffic code for operation of motor vehicles on the installation. Commanders in overseas areas will establish a traffic code, under provisions of this part, to the extent military authority is empowered to regulate traffic on the installation under the applicable SOFA. Traffic codes will contain the rules of the road (parking violations, towing instructions, safety equipment, and other key provisions). These codes will, where possible, conform to the code of the State or host nation in which the installation is located. In addition, the development and publication of installation traffic codes will be based on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Highway Safety Program Standards (23 U.S.C. 402).
</P>
<P>(2) Applicable portions of the Uniform Vehicle Code and Model Traffic Ordinance published by the National Committee on Uniform Traffic Laws and Ordinances.
</P>
<P>(b) The installation traffic code will contain policy and procedures for the towing, searching, impounding, and inventorying of POVs. These provisions should be well publicized and contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Specific violations and conditions under which the POV will be impounded and towed.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to immediately notify the vehicle owner.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for towing and storing impounded vehicles.
</P>
<P>(4) Actions to dispose of the vehicle after lawful impoundment.
</P>
<P>(5) Violators are responsible for all costs of towing, storage and impounding of vehicles for other than evidentiary reasons.
</P>
<P>(c) Installation traffic codes will also contain the provisions discussed as follows: (Army users, see AR 385-55).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Motorcycles and mopeds.</I> For motorcycles and other self-propelled, open, two-wheel, three-wheel, and four-wheel vehicles powered by a motorcycle-type engine, the following traffic rules apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Headlights will be on at all times when in operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A rear view mirror will be attached to each side of the handlebars.
</P>
<P>(iii) Approved protective helmets, eye protection, hard-soled shoes, long trousers and brightly colored or reflective outer upper garment will be worn by operators and passengers when in operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restraint systems.</I> (i) Restraint systems (seat belts) will be worn by all operators and passengers of U.S. Government vehicles on or off the installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Restraint systems will be worn by all civilian personnel (family members, guests, and visitors) driving or riding in a POV on the installation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Restraint systems will be worn by all military service members and Reserve Component members on active Federal service driving or riding in a POV whether on or off the installation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Infant/child restraint devices (car seats) will be required in POVs for children 4 years old or under and not exceeding 45 pounds in weight.
</P>
<P>(v) Restraint systems are required only in vehicles manufactured after model year 1966.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Driver distractions.</I> Vehicle operators on a DoD Installation and operators of Government owned vehicles shall not use cell phones unless the vehicle is safely parked or unless they are using a hands-free device. The wearing of any other portable headphones, earphones, or other listening devices (except for hand-free cellular phones) while operating a motor vehicle is prohibited. Use of those devices impairs driving and masks or prevents recognition of emergency signals, alarms, announcements, the approach of vehicles, and human speech. DoD Component safety guidance should note the potential for driver distractions such as eating and drinking, operating radios, CD players, global positioning equipment, etc. Whenever possible this should only be done when the vehicle is safely parked.
</P>
<P>(d) Only administrative actions (reprimand, assessment of points, loss of on-post driving privileges, or other actions) will be initiated against service members for off-post violations of the installation traffic code.
</P>
<P>(e) In States where traffic law violations are State criminal offenses, such laws are made applicable under the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 13 to military installations having concurrent or exclusive Federal jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(f) In those States where violations of traffic law are not considered criminal offenses and cannot be assimilated under 18 U.S.C., DODD 5525.4, enclosure 1 expressly adopts the vehicular and pedestrian traffic laws of such States and makes these laws applicable to military installations having concurrent or exclusive Federal jurisdiction. It also delegates authority to installation commanders to establish additional vehicular and pedestrian traffic rules and regulations for their installations. Persons found guilty of violating the vehicular and pedestrian traffic laws made applicable on the installation under provisions of that directive are subject to a fine as determined by the local magistrate or imprisonment for not more than 30 days, or both, for each violation. In those States where traffic laws cannot be assimilated, an extract copy of this paragraph (f) and a copy of the delegation memorandum in DODD 5525.4, enclosure 1, will be posted in a prominent place accessible to persons assigned, living, or working on the installation.
</P>
<P>(g) In those States where violations of traffic laws cannot be assimilated because the Federal Government's jurisdictional authority on the installation or parts of the installation is only proprietary, neither 18 U.S.C. 13 nor the delegation memorandum in DoDD 5525.4, enclosure 1, will permit enforcement of the State's traffic laws in Federal courts. Law enforcement authorities on those military installations must rely on either administrative sanctions related to the installation driving privilege or enforcement of traffic laws by State law enforcement authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.26" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.26   Traffic law enforcement principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Traffic law enforcement should motivate drivers to operate vehicles safely within traffic laws and regulations and maintain an effective and efficient flow of traffic. Effective enforcement should emphasize voluntary compliance by drivers and can be achieved by the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Publishing a realistic traffic code well known by all personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) Adopting standard signs, markings, and signals in accordance with NHSPS and the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring enforcement personnel establish courteous, personal contact with drivers and act promptly when driving behavior is improper or a defective vehicle is observed in operation.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintaining an aggressive program to detect and apprehend persons who drive while privileges are suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(5) Using sound discretion and judgment in deciding when to apprehend, issue citations, or warn the offender.
</P>
<P>(b) Selective enforcement will be used when practical. Selective enforcement deters traffic violations and reduces accidents by the presence or suggested presence of law enforcement personnel at places where violations, congestion, or accidents frequently occur. Selective enforcement applies proper enforcement measures to traffic congestion and focuses on selected time periods, conditions, and violations that cause accidents. Law enforcement personnel use selective enforcement because that practice is the most effective use of resources.
</P>
<P>(c) Enforcement activities against intoxicated driving will include—
</P>
<P>(1) Detecting, apprehending, and testing persons suspected of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Training law enforcement personnel in special enforcement techniques.
</P>
<P>(3) Enforcing blood-alcohol concentration standards. (See § 634.34).
</P>
<P>(4) Denying installation driving privileges to persons whose use of alcohol or other drugs prevents safe operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P>(d) Installation officials will formally evaluate traffic enforcement on a regular basis. That evaluation will examine procedures to determine if the following elements of the program are effective in reducing traffic accidents and deaths:
</P>
<P>(1) Selective enforcement measures;
</P>
<P>(2) Suspension and revocation actions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical breath-testing programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.27" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.27   Speed-measuring devices.</HEAD>
<P>Speed-measuring devices will be used in traffic control studies and enforcement programs. Signs may be posted to indicate speed-measuring devices are being used.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Equipment purchases.</I> Installations will ensure operators attend an appropriate training program for the equipment in use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training and certification standards.</I> (1) The commander of each installation using traffic radar will ensure that personnel selected as operators of such devices meet training and certification requirements prescribed by the State (or SOFA) in which the installation is located. Specific information on course dates, costs, and prerequisites for attending may be obtained by contacting the State agency responsible for police traffic radar training.
</P>
<P>(2) Installation commanders located in States or overseas areas where no formal training program exists, or where the military personnel are unable or ineligible to participate in police traffic radar training programs, may implement their own training program or use a selected civilian institution or manufacturer's course.
</P>
<P>(3) The objective of the civilian or manufacturer-sponsored course is to improve the effectiveness of speed enforcement through the proper and efficient use of speed-measurement radar. On successful completion, the course graduate must be able to—
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the association between excessive speed and accidents, deaths, and injuries, and describe the traffic safety benefits of effective speed control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the basic principles of radar speed measurement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and describe the Service's policy and procedures affecting radar speed measurement and speed enforcement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the specific radar instrument used and describe the instrument's major components and functions.
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate basic skills in checking calibration and operating the specific radar instrument(s).
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstrate basic skills in preparing and presenting records and courtroom testimony relating to radar speed measurement and enforcement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recertification.</I> Recertification of operators will occur every 3 years, or as prescribed by State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.28" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.28   Traffic accident investigation.</HEAD>
<P>Installation law enforcement personnel must make detailed investigations of accidents described in this section:
</P>
<P>(a) Accidents involving Government vehicles or Government property on the installation involving a fatality, personal injury, or estimated property damage in the amount established by separate Service/DLA policy. (Minimum damage limits are: Army, $1,000; Air Force, as specified by the installation commander; Navy and Marine Corps, $500.) The installation motor pool will provide current estimates of the cost of repairs. Investigations of off-installation accidents involving Government vehicles will be made in cooperation with the civilian law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(b) POV accidents on the installation involving a fatality, personal injury, or when a POV is inoperable as a result of an accident.
</P>
<P>(c) Any accident prescribed within a SOFA agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.29" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.29   Traffic accident investigation reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accidents requiring immediate reports.</I> The driver or owner of any vehicle involved in an accident, as described in § 634.28, on the installation, must immediately notify the installation law enforcement office. The operator of any Government vehicle involved in a similar accident off the installation must immediately notify the local civilian law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, as well as law enforcement personnel of the nearest military installation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigation records.</I> Installation law enforcement officials will record traffic accident investigations on Service/DLA forms. Information will be released according to Service/DLA policy, the Privacy Act, and the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Army law enforcement officers.</I> These officers provide the local Safety Office copies of traffic accident investigation reports pertaining to accidents investigated by military police that resulted in a fatality, personal injury, or estimated damage to Government vehicles or property in excess of $1,000.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>POV accidents not addressed in § 634.28.</I> Guidance for reporting these cases is provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Drivers or owners of POVs will be required to submit a written report to the installation law enforcement office within 24 hours of an accident in the following cases, with all information listed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The accident occurs on the installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The accident involves no personal injury.
</P>
<P>(iii) The accident involves only minor damage to the POV and the vehicle can be safely and normally driven from the scene under its own power.
</P>
<P>(2) Information in the written report cannot be used in criminal proceedings against the person submitting it unless it was originally categorized a hit and run and the violator is the person submitting the report. Rights advisement will be given prior to any criminal traffic statements provided by violators. Within the United States, the installation law enforcement official may require such reporting on Service forms or forms of the State jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) Reports required in paragraph (d) (1) of this section by the Army will include the following about the accident:
</P>
<P>(i) Location, date, and time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of all drivers, pedestrians, and passengers involved.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of vehicles involved.
</P>
<P>(iv) Speed and direction of travel of each vehicle involved, including a sketch of the collision and roadway with street names and north arrow.
</P>
<P>(v) Property damage involved.
</P>
<P>(vi) Environmental conditions at the time of the incident (weather, visibility, road surface condition, and other factors).
</P>
<P>(vii) A narrative description of the events and circumstances concerning the accident.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.30" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.30   Use of traffic accident investigation report data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Data derived from traffic accident investigation reports and from vehicle owner accident reports will be analyzed to determine probable causes of accidents. When frequent accidents occur at a location, the conditions at the location and the types of accidents (collision diagram) will be examined.
</P>
<P>(b) Law enforcement personnel and others who prepare traffic accident investigation reports will indicate whether or not seat restraint devices were being used at the time of the accident.
</P>
<P>(c) When accidents warrant, an installation commander may establish a traffic accident review board. The board will consist of law enforcement, engineer, safety, medical, and legal personnel. The board will determine principal factors leading to the accident and recommend measures to reduce the number and severity of accidents on and off the installation. (The Air Force will use Traffic Safety Coordinating Groups. The Navy will use Traffic Safety Councils per OPNAVINST 5100.12 Series).
</P>
<P>(d) Data will be shared with the installation legal, engineer, safety, and transportation officers. The data will be used to inform and educate drivers and to conduct traffic engineering studies.
</P>
<P>(e) Army traffic accident investigation reports will be provided to Army Centralized Accident Investigation of Ground Accidents (CAIG) boards on request. The CAIG boards are under the control of the Commander, U.S. Army Safety Center, Fort Rucker, AL 36362-5363. These boards investigate Class A, on-duty, non-POV accidents and other selected accidents Army-wide (See AR 385-40). Local commanders provide additional board members as required to complete a timely and accurate investigation. Normally, additional board members are senior equipment operators, maintenance officer, and medical officers. However, specific qualifications of the additional board members may be dictated by the nature of the accident.
</P>
<P>(f) The CAIG program is not intended to interfere with, impede, or delay law enforcement agencies in the execution of regulatory responsibilities that apply to the investigation of accidents for a determination of criminal intent or criminal acts. Criminal investigations have priority.
</P>
<P>(g) Army law enforcement agencies will maintain close liaison and cooperation with CAIG boards. Such cooperation, particularly with respect to interviews of victims and witnesses and in collection and preservation of physical evidence, should support both the CAIG and law enforcement collateral investigations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.31" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.31   Parking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The most efficient use of existing on- and off-street parking space should be stressed on a nonreserved (first-come, first-served) basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved parking facilities should be designated as parking by permit or numerically by category of eligible parkers. Designation of parking spaces by name, grade, rank, or title should be avoided.
</P>
<P>(c) Illegal parking contributes to congestion and slows traffic flow on an installation. Strong enforcement of parking restrictions results in better use of available parking facilities and eliminates conditions causing traffic accidents.
</P>
<P>(d) The “Denver boot” device is authorized for use as a technique to assist in the enforcement of parking violations where immobilization of the POV is necessary for safety. Under no circumstances should the device be used to punish or “teach a lesson” to violators. Booting should not be used if other reasonably effective but less restrictive means of enforcement (such as warnings, ticketing, reprimands, revocations, or suspensions of on-post driving privileges) are available. Procedures for booting must be developed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Local standing operating procedures (SOPs) must be developed to control the discretion of enforcers and limit booting to specific offenses. SOPs should focus on specific reasons for booting, such as immobilization of unsafe, uninspected, or unregistered vehicles or compelling the presence of repeat offenders. All parking violations must be clearly outlined in the installation traffic code.
</P>
<P>(2) Drivers should be placed on notice that particular violations or multiple violations may result in booting. Also, drivers must be provided with a prompt hearing and an opportunity to obtain the release of their property.
</P>
<P>(3) To limit liability, drivers must be warned when a boot is attached to their vehicle and instructed how to have the boot removed without damaging the vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.32" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.32   Traffic violation reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Most traffic violations occurring on DOD installations (within the UNITED STATES or its territories) should be referred to the proper U.S. Magistrate. (Army, see AR 190-29; DLA, see DLAI 5720.4; and Air Force, see AFI 51-905). However, violations are not referred when—
</P>
<P>(1) The operator is driving a Government vehicle at the time of the violation.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal Magistrate is either not available or lacks jurisdiction to hear the matter because the violation occurred in an area where the Federal Government has only proprietary legislative jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) Mission requirements make referral of offenders impractical.
</P>
<P>(4) A U.S. Magistrate is available but the accused refuses to consent to the jurisdiction of the court and the U.S. Attorney refuses to process the case before a U.S. District Court. For the Navy, DUI and driving under the influence of drugs cases will be referred to the Federal Magistrate.
</P>
<P>(b) Installation commanders will establish administrative procedures for processing traffic violations.
</P>
<P>(1) All traffic violators on military installations will be issued either a DD Form 1408 (Armed Forces Traffic Ticket) or a DD Form 1805 (United States District Court Violation Notice), as appropriate. Unless specified otherwise by separate Service/DLA policy, only on-duty law enforcement personnel (including game wardens) designated by the installation law enforcement officer may issue these forms. Air Force individuals certified under the Parking Traffic Warden Program may issue DD Form 1408 in areas under their control.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of all reports on military personnel and DOD civilian employees apprehended for intoxicated driving will be forwarded to the installation alcohol and drug abuse facility.
</P>
<P>(c) Installation commanders will establish procedures used for disposing of traffic violation cases through administrative or judicial action consistent with the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and Federal law.
</P>
<P>(d) DD Form 1805 will be used to refer violations of State traffic laws made applicable to the installation (Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13) and the delegation memorandum in DoDD 5525.4, enclosure 1, and other violations of Federal law) to the U.S. Magistrate. (Army users, see AR 190-29.)
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of DD Form 1805 and any traffic violation reports on military personnel and DOD civilian employees will be forwarded to the commander or supervisor of the violator. DA form 3975 may be used to forward the report.
</P>
<P>(2) Detailed instructions for properly completing DD Form 1805 are contained in separate Service policy directives.
</P>
<P>(3) The assimilation of State traffic laws as Federal offenses should be identified by a specific State code reference in the CODE SECTION block of the DD Form 1805 (or in a complaint filed with the U.S. Magistrate).
</P>
<P>(4) The Statement of Probable Cause on the DD Form 1805 will be used according to local staff judge advocate and U.S. Magistrate court policy. The Statement of Probable Cause is required by the Federal misdemeanor rules to support the issuance of a summons or arrest warrant.
</P>
<P>(5) For cases referred to U.S. Magistrates, normal distribution of DD Form 1805 will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The installation law enforcement official will forward copy 1 (white) and copy 2 (yellow) to the U.S. District Court (Central Violation Bureau).
</P>
<P>(ii) The installation law enforcement office will file copy 3 (pink).
</P>
<P>(iii) Law enforcement personnel will provide copy 4 (envelope) to the violator.
</P>
<P>(e) When DD Form 1408 is used, one copy (including written warnings) will be forwarded through command channels to the service member's commander, to the commander of the military family member's sponsor, or to the civilian's supervisor or employer as the installation commander may establish.
</P>
<P>(1) Previous traffic violations committed by the offender and points assessed may be shown.
</P>
<P>(2) For violations that require a report of action taken, the DD Form 1408 will be returned to the office of record through the reviewing authority as the installation commander may establish.
</P>
<P>(3) When the report is received by the office of record, that office will enter the action on the violator's driving record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.33" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.33   Training of law enforcement personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a minimum, installation law enforcement personnel will be trained to do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recognize signs of alcohol and other drug impairment in persons operating motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare DD Form 1920 (Alcohol Influence Report).
</P>
<P>(3) Perform the three field tests of the improved sobriety testing techniques (§ 634.36 (b)).
</P>
<P>(4) Determine when a person appears intoxicated but is actually physically or mentally ill and requires prompt medical attention.
</P>
<P>(5) Understand the operation of breath-testing devices.
</P>
<P>(b) Each installation using breath-testing devices will ensure that operators of these devices—
</P>
<P>(1) Are chosen for integrity, maturity, and sound judgment.
</P>
<P>(2) Meet certification requirements of the State where the installation is located.
</P>
<P>(c) Installations located in States or overseas areas having a formal breath-testing and certification program should ensure operators attend that training.
</P>
<P>(d) Installations located in States or overseas areas with no formal training program will train personnel at courses offered by selected civilian institutions or manufacturers of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) Operators must maintain proficiency through refresher training every 18 months or as required by the State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.34" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.34   Blood alcohol concentration standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Administrative revocation of driving privileges and other enforcement measures will be applied uniformly to offenders driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs. When a person is tested under the implied consent provisions of § 634.8, the results of the test will be evaluated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the percentage of alcohol in the person's blood is less than 0.05 percent, presume the person is not under the influence of alcohol.
</P>
<P>(2) If the percentage is 0.05 but less than 0.08, presume the person may be impaired. This standard may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.
</P>
<P>(3) If the percentage is 0.08 or more, or if tests reflect the presence of illegal drugs, the person was driving while intoxicated.
</P>
<P>(b) Percentages in paragraph (a) of this section are percent of weight by volume of alcohol in the blood based on grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood. These presumptions will be considered with other evidence in determining intoxication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.35" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.35   Chemical testing policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Validity of chemical testing.</I> Results of chemical testing are valid under this part only under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Blood, urine, or other bodily substances are tested using generally accepted scientific and medical methods and standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Breath tests are administered by qualified personnel (§ 634.33).
</P>
<P>(3) An evidential breath-testing device approved by the State or host nation is used. For Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps, the device must also be listed on the NHTSA conforming products list published in the “Conforming Products List for instruments that conform to the Model Specification for Evidential Breath Testing Devices (58 FR 48705), and amendments.”
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures established by the State or host nation or as prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section are followed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Breath-testing device operational procedures.</I> If the State or host nation has not established procedures for use of breath-testing devices, the following procedures will apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Screening breath-testing devices will be used—
</P>
<P>(i) During the initial traffic stop as a field sobriety testing technique, along with other field sobriety testing techniques, to determine if further testing is needed on an evidential breath-testing device.
</P>
<P>(ii) According to manufacture operating instructions. (For Army, Air Force and Marine Corps, the screening breath-testing device must also be listed on the NHTSA conforming products list published in the “Model Specifications for Evidential Breath Testers” (September 17, 1993, 58 FR 48705).
</P>
<P>(2) Evidential breath-testing devices will be used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Observe the person to be tested for at least 15 minutes before collecting the breath specimen. During this time, the person must not drink alcoholic beverages or other fluids, eat, smoke, chew tobacco, or ingest any substance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify calibration and proper operation of the instrument by using a control sample immediately before the test.
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with operational procedures in the manufacturer's current instruction manual.
</P>
<P>(iv) Perform preventive maintenance as required by the instruction manual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chemical tests of personnel involved in fatal accidents.</I> (1) Installation medical authorities will immediately notify the installation law enforcement officer of—
</P>
<P>(i) The death of any person involved in a motor vehicle accident.
</P>
<P>(ii) The circumstances surrounding such an accident, based on information available at the time of admission or receipt of the body of the victim.
</P>
<P>(2) Medical authorities will examine the bodies of those persons killed in a motor vehicle accident to include drivers, passengers, and pedestrians subject to military jurisdiction. They will also examine the bodies of dependents, who are 16 years of age or older, if the sponsors give their consent. Tests for the presence and concentration of alcohol or other drugs in the person's blood, bodily fluids, or tissues will be made as soon as possible and where practical within 8 hours of death. The test results will be included in the medical reports.
</P>
<P>(3) As provided by law and medical conditions permitting, a blood or breath sample will be obtained from any surviving operator whose vehicle is involved in a fatal accident.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.36" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.36   Detection, apprehension, and testing of intoxicated drivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Law enforcement personnel usually detect drivers under the influence of alcohol or other drugs by observing unusual or abnormal driving behavior. Drivers showing such behavior will be stopped immediately. The cause of the unusual driving behavior will be determined, and proper enforcement action will be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) When a law enforcement officer reasonably concludes that the individual driving or in control of the vehicle is impaired, field sobriety tests should be conducted on the individual. The DD Form 1920 may be used by law enforcement agencies in examining, interpreting, and recording results of such tests. Law enforcement personnel should use a standard field sobriety test (such as one-leg stand or walk and turn) horizontal gaze nystagmus tests as sanctioned by the National Highway Traffic and Safety Administration, and screening breath-testing devices to conduct field sobriety tests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.37" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.37   Voluntary breath and bodily fluid testing based on implied consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Implied consent policy is explained in § 634.8.
</P>
<P>(b) Tests may be administered only if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The person was lawfully stopped while driving, operating, or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle on the installation.
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable suspicion exists to believe that the person was driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) A request was made to the person to consent to the tests combined with a warning that failure to voluntarily submit to or complete a chemical test of bodily fluids or breath will result in the revocation of driving privileges.
</P>
<P>(c) As stated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the law enforcement official relying on implied consent will warn the person that driving privileges will be revoked if the person fails to voluntarily submit to or complete a requested chemical test. The person does not have the right to have an attorney present before stating whether he or she will submit to a test, or during the actual test. Installation commanders will prescribe the type or types of chemical tests to be used. Testing will follow policies and procedures in § 634.35. The results of chemical tests conducted under the implied consent provisions of this part may be used as evidence in courts-martial, nonjudicial proceedings under Article 15 of the UCMJ, administrative actions, and civilian courts.
</P>
<P>(d) Special rules exist for persons who have hemophilia, other blood-clotting disorders, or any medical or surgical disorder being treated with an anticoagulant. These persons—
</P>
<P>(1) May refuse a blood extraction test without penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) Will not be administered a blood extraction test to determine alcohol or other drug concentration or presence under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) May be given breath or urine tests, or both.
</P>
<P>(e) If a person suspected of intoxicated driving refuses to submit to a chemical test, a test will not be administered except as specified in § 634.38.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.38" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.38   Involuntary extraction of bodily fluids in traffic cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The procedures outlined in this section pertain only to the investigation of individuals stopped, apprehended, or cited on a military installation for any offense related to driving a motor vehicle and for whom probable cause exists to believe that such individual is intoxicated. Extractions of body fluids in furtherance of other kinds of investigations are governed by the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, Military Rule of Evidence 315 (2002) (MRE 315), and regulatory rules concerning requesting and granting authorizations for searches.
</P>
<P>(1) Air Force policy on nonconsensual extraction of blood samples is addressed in AFI 44-102.
</P>
<P>(2) Army and Marine Corps personnel should not undertake the nonconsensual extraction of body fluids for reasons other than a valid medical purpose without first obtaining the advice and concurrence of the installation staff judge advocate or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(3) DLA policy on nonconsensual taking of blood samples is contained in DLAR 5700.7.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rule.</I> Involuntary bodily fluid extraction must be based on valid search and seizure authorization. An individual subject to the UCMJ who does not consent to chemical testing, as described in § 634.37, may nonetheless be subjected to an involuntary extraction of bodily fluids, including blood and urine, only in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual subject to the UCMJ who was driving a motor vehicle and suspected of being under the influence of an intoxicant may be subjected to a nonconsensual bodily fluid extraction to test for the presence of intoxicants only when there is a probable cause to believe that such an individual was driving or in control of a vehicle while under the influence of an intoxicant.
</P>
<P>(i) A search authorization by an appropriate commander or military magistrate obtained pursuant to MRE 315, is required prior to such nonconsensual extraction.
</P>
<P>(ii) A search authorization is not required under such circumstances when there is a clear indication that evidence of intoxication will be found and there is reason to believe that the delay necessary to obtain a search authorization would result in the loss or destruction of the evidence sought.
</P>
<P>(iii) Because warrantless searches are subject to close scrutiny by the courts, obtaining an authorization is highly preferable. Warrantless searches generally should be conducted only after coordination with the servicing staff judge advocate or legal officer, and attempts to obtain authorization from an appropriate official prove unsuccessful due to the unavailability of a commander or military magistrate.
</P>
<P>(2) If authorization from the military magistrate or commander proves unsuccessful due to the unavailability of such officials, the commander of a medical facility is empowered by MRE 315, to authorize such extraction from an individual located in the facility at the time the authorization is sought.
</P>
<P>(i) Before authorizing the involuntary extraction, the commander of the medical facility should, if circumstances permit, coordinate with the servicing staff judge advocate or legal officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical facility commander authorizing the extraction under MRE 315 need not be on duty as the attending physician at the facility where the extraction is to be performed and the actual extraction may be accomplished by other qualified medical personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) The authorizing official may consider his or her own observations of the individual in determining probable cause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Role of medical personnel.</I> Authorization for the nonconsensual extraction of blood samples for evidentiary purposes by qualified medical personnel is independent of, and not limited by, provisions defining medical care, such as the provision for nonconsensual medical care pursuant to AR 600-20, section IV. Extraction of blood will be accomplished by qualified medical personnel. (See MRE 312(g)).
</P>
<P>(1) In performing this duty, medical personnel are expected to use only that amount of force that is reasonable and necessary to administer the extraction.
</P>
<P>(2) Any force necessary to overcome an individual's resistance to the extraction normally will be provided by law enforcement personnel or by personnel acting under orders from the member's unit commander.
</P>
<P>(3) Life endangering force will not be used in an attempt to effect nonconsensual extractions.
</P>
<P>(4) All law enforcement and medical personnel will keep in mind the possibility that the individual may require medical attention for possible disease or injury.
</P>
<P>(d) Nonconsensual extractions of blood will be done in a manner that will not interfere with or delay proper medical attention. Medical personnel will determine the priority to be given involuntary blood extractions when other medical treatment is required.
</P>
<P>(e) Use of Army medical treatment facilities and personnel for blood alcohol testing has no relevance to whether or not the suspect is eligible for military medical treatment. The medical effort in such instances is in support of a valid military mission (law enforcement), not related to providing medical treatment to an individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.39" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.39   Testing at the request of the apprehended person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person subject to tests under § 634.8 may request that an additional test be done privately. The person may choose a doctor, qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person to do the test. The person must pay the cost of the test. The test must be a chemical test approved by the State or host nation in an overseas command. All tests will be completed as soon as possible, with any delay being noted on the results.
</P>
<P>(b) If the person requests this test, the suspect is responsible for making all arrangements. If the suspect fails to or cannot obtain any additional test, the results of the tests that were done at the direction of a law enforcement official are not invalid and may still be used to support actions under separate Service regulations, UCMJ, and the U.S. Magistrate Court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.40" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.40   General off installation traffic activities.</HEAD>
<P>In areas not under military control, civil authorities enforce traffic laws. Law enforcement authorities will establish a system to exchange information with civil authorities. Army and Air Force installation law enforcement authorities will establish a system to exchange information with civil authorities to enhance the chain of command's visibility of a soldier's and airman's off post traffic violations. These agreements will provide for the assessment of traffic points based on reports from state licensing authorities involving Army military personnel. The provisions of subpart E of this part and the VRS automated system provide for the collection of off post traffic incident reports and data. As provided in AR 190-45, civilian law enforcement agencies are considered routine users of Army law enforcement data and will be granted access to data when available from Army law enforcement systems of records. Off-installation traffic activities in overseas areas are governed by formal agreements with the host nation government. Procedures should be established to process reports received from civil authorities on serious traffic violations, accidents, and intoxicated driving incidents involving persons subject to this part. The exchange of information is limited to Army and Air Force military personnel. Provost marshals will not collect and use data concerning civilian employees, family members, and contract personnel except as allowed by state and Federal laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.41" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.41   Compliance with State laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Installation commanders will inform service members, contractors and DOD civilian employees to comply with State and local traffic laws when operating government motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(b) Commanders will coordinate with the proper civil law enforcement agency before moving Government vehicles that exceed legal limits or regulations or that may subject highway users to unusual hazards. (See AR 55-162/OPNAVINST 4600.11D/AFJI 24-216/MCO 4643.5C).
</P>
<P>(c) Installation commanders will maintain liaison with civil enforcement agencies and encourage the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Release of a Government vehicle operator to military authorities unless one of the following conditions exists.
</P>
<P>(i) The offense warrants detention.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person's condition is such that further operation of a motor vehicle could result in injury to the person or others.
</P>
<P>(2) Prompt notice to military authorities when military personnel or drivers of Government motor vehicles have—
</P>
<P>(i) Committed serious violations of civil traffic laws.
</P>
<P>(ii) Been involved in traffic accidents.
</P>
<P>(3) Prompt notice of actions by a State or host nation to suspend, revoke, or restrict the State or host nation driver's license (vehicle operation privilege) of persons who—
</P>
<P>(i) Operate Government motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(ii) Regularly operate a POV on the installation. (See also § 634.16).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.42" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.42   Civil-military cooperative programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State-Armed Forces Traffic Workshop Program.</I> This program is an organized effort to coordinate military and civil traffic safety activities throughout a State or area. Installation commanders will cooperate with State and local officials in this program and provide proper support and participation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Community-Installation Traffic Workshop Program.</I> Installation commanders should establish a local workshop program to coordinate the installation traffic efforts with those of local communities. Sound and practical traffic planning depends on a balanced program of traffic enforcement, engineering, and education. Civilian and military legal and law enforcement officers, traffic engineers, safety officials, and public affairs officers should take part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Driving Records and the Traffic Point System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.43" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.43   Driving records.</HEAD>
<P>Each Service and DLA will use its own form to record vehicle traffic accidents, moving violations, suspension or revocation actions, and traffic point assessments involving military and DOD civilian personnel, their family members, and other personnel operating motor vehicles on a military installation. Army installations will use DA Form 3626 (Vehicle Registration/Driver Record) for this purpose. Table 5-1 of Part 634 prescribes mandatory minimum or maximum suspension or revocation periods. Traffic points are not assessed for suspension or revocation actions.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 5-1 of Part 634 Suspension/Revocation of Driving Privileges (See Notes 1 and 2)
</HD1>
<P><I>Assessment 1:</I> Two-year revocation is mandatory on determination of facts by installation commander. (For Army, 5-year revocation is mandatory.)
</P>
<P>Violation: Driving while driver's license or installation driving privileges are under suspension or revocation.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment 2:</I> One-year revocation is mandatory on determination of facts by installation commander.
</P>
<P>Violation: Refusal to submit to or failure to complete chemical tests (implied consent).
</P>
<P><I>Assessment 3:</I> One-year revocation is mandatory on conviction.
</P>
<P>Violation: A. Manslaughter (or negligent homicide by vehicle) resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P>B. Driving or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor (0.08% or greater on DOD installations; violation of civil law off post).
</P>
<P>C. Driving a motor vehicle while under the influence of any narcotic, or while under the influence of any other drug (including alcohol) to the degree rendered incapable of safe vehicle operation.
</P>
<P>D. Use of a motor vehicle in the commission of a felony. Fleeing the scene of an accident involving death or personal injury (hit and run).
</P>
<P>E. Perjury or making a false statement or affidavit under oath to responsible officials relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>F. Unauthorized use of a motor vehicle belonging to another, when the act does not amount to a felony.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment 4:</I> Suspension for a period of 6 months or less or revocation for a period not to exceed 1 year is discretionary.
</P>
<P>Violation: A. Mental or physical impairment (not including alcohol or other drug use) to the degree rendered incompetent to drive.
</P>
<P>B. Commission of an offense in another State which, if committed on the installation, would be grounds for suspension or revocation.
</P>
<P>C. Permitting an unlawful or fraudulent use of an official driver's license.
</P>
<P>D. Conviction of fleeing, or attempting to elude, a police officer.
</P>
<P>E. Conviction of racing on the highway.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment 5:</I> Loss of OF 46 for minimum of 6 months is discretionary.
</P>
<P>Violation: Receiving a second 1-year suspension or revocation of driving privileges within 5 years.
</P>
<HD1>Notes
</HD1>
<P>1. When imposing a suspension or revocation because of an off-installation offense, the effective date should be the same as the date of civil conviction, or the date that State or host-nation driving privileges are suspended or revoked. This effective date can be retroactive.
</P>
<P>2. No points are assessed for revocation or suspension actions. Except for implied consent violations, revocations must be based on a conviction by a civilian court or courts-martial, nonjudicial punishment under Article 15, UCMJ, or a separate hearing as addressed in this part. If revocation for implied consent is combined with another revocation, such as 1 year for intoxicated driving, revocations may run consecutively (total of 24 months) or concurrently (total of 12 months). The installation commander's policy should be applied systematically and not on a case-by-case basis.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.44" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.44   The traffic point system.</HEAD>
<P>The traffic point system provides a uniform administrative device to impartially judge driving performance of Service and DLA personnel. This system is not a disciplinary measure or a substitute for punitive action. Further, this system is not intended to interfere in any way with the reasonable exercise of an installation commander's prerogative to issue, suspend, revoke, deny, or reinstate installation driving privileges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.45" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.45   Point system application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Services and DLA are required to use the point system and procedures prescribed in this section without change.
</P>
<P>(b) The point system in table 5-2 of this part applies to all operators of U.S. Government motor vehicles, on or off Federal property. The system also applies to violators reported to installation officials in accordance with § 634.32.
</P>
<P>(c) Points will be assessed when the person is found to have committed a violation and the finding is by either the unit commander, civilian supervisor, a military or civilian court (including a U.S. Magistrate), or by payment of fine, forfeiture of pay or allowances, or posted bond, or collateral.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 5-2 of Part 634 Point Assessment for Moving Traffic Violations (See Note 1) 
</HD1>
<FP-2>A. Violation: Reckless driving (willful and wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B. Violation: Owner knowingly and willfully permitting a physically impaired person to operate the owner's motor vehicle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C. Violation: Fleeing the scene (hit and run)-property damage only.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D. Violation: Driving vehicle while impaired (blood-alcohol content more than 0.05 percent and less than 0.08 percent).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E. Violation: Speed contests.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F. Violation: Speed too fast for conditions.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G. Violation: Speed too slow for traffic conditions, and/or impeding the flow of traffic, causing potential safety hazard.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H. Violation: Failure of operator or occupants to use available restraint system devices while moving (operator assessed points).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I. Violation: Failure to properly restrain children in a child restraint system while moving (when child is 4 years of age or younger or the weight of child does not exceed 45 pounds).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>J. Violation: One to 10 miles per hour over posted speed limit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K. Violation: Over 10 but not more than 15 miles per hour above posted speed limit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L. Violation: Over 15 but not more than 20 miles per hour above posted speed limit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 5 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M. Violation: Over 20 miles per hour above posted speed limit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 6 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N. Violation: Following too close.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>O. Violation: Failure to yield right of way to emergency vehicle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P. Violation: Failure to stop for school bus or school-crossing signals.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q. Violation: Failure to obey traffic signals or traffic instructions of an enforcement officer or traffic warden; or any official regulatory traffic sign or device requiring a full stop or yield of right of way; denying entry; or requiring direction of traffic.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R. Violation: Improper passing.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S. Violation: Failure to yield (no official sign involved).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 4 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T. Violation: Improper turning movements (no official sign involved).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U. Violation: Wearing of headphones/earphones while driving motor vehicles (two or more wheels).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Violation: Failure to wear an approved helmet and/or reflectorized vest while operating or riding on a motorcycle, MOPED, or a three or four-wheel vehicle powered by a motorcycle-like engine.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W. Violation: Improper overtaking.
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X. Violation: Other moving violations (involving driver behavior only).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 3 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Y. Violation: Operating an unsafe vehicle. (See Note 2).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Z. Violation: Driver involved in accident is deemed responsible (only added to points assessed for specific offenses).
</FP-2>
<FP-2> Points assessed: 1 
</FP-2>
<HD1>Notes
</HD1>
<P>1. When two or more violations are committed on a single occasion, points may be assessed for each individual violation.
</P>
<P>2. This measure should be used for other than minor vehicle safety defects or when a driver or registrant fails to correct a minor defect (for example, a burned out headlight not replaced within the grace period on a warning ticket).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.46" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.46   Point system procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reports of moving traffic violations recorded on DD Form 1408 or DD Form 1805 will serve as a basis for determining point assessment. For DD Form 1408, return endorsements will be required from commanders or supervisors.
</P>
<P>(b) On receipt of DD Form 1408 or other military law enforcement report of a moving violation, the unit commander, designated supervisor, or person otherwise designated by the installation commander will conduct an inquiry. The commander will take or recommend proper disciplinary or administrative action. If a case involves judicial or nonjudicial actions, the final report of action taken will not be forwarded until final adjudication.
</P>
<P>(c) On receipt of the report of action taken (including action by a U.S. Magistrate Court on DD Form 1805), the installation law enforcement officer will assess the number of points appropriate for the offense, and record the traffic points or the suspension or revocation of driving privileges on the person's driving record. Except as specified otherwise in this part and other Service/DLA regulations, points will not be assessed or driving privileges suspended or revoked when the report of action taken indicates that neither disciplinary nor administrative action was taken.
</P>
<P>(d) Installation commanders may require the following driver improvement measures as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Advisory letter through the unit commander or supervisor to any person who has acquired six traffic points within a 6-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) Counseling or driver improvement interview, by the unit commander, of any person who has acquired more than six but less than 12 traffic points within a 6-month period. This counseling or interview should produce recommendations to improve driver performance.
</P>
<P>(3) Referral for medical evaluation when a driver, based on reasonable belief, appears to have mental or physical limits that have had or may have an adverse affect on driving performance.
</P>
<P>(4) Attendance at remedial driver training to improve driving performance.
</P>
<P>(5) Referral to an alcohol or drug treatment or rehabilitation facility for evaluation, counseling, or treatment. This action is required for active military personnel in all cases in which alcohol or other drugs are a contributing factor to a traffic citation, incident, or accident.
</P>
<P>(e) An individual's driving privileges may be suspended or revoked as provided by this part regardless of whether these improvement measures are accomplished.
</P>
<P>(f) Persons whose driving privileges are suspended or revoked (for one violation or an accumulation of 12 traffic points within 12 consecutive months, or 18 traffic points within 24 consecutive months) will be notified in writing through official channels (§ 634.11). Except for the mandatory minimum or maximum suspension or revocation periods prescribed by table 5-1 of this part, the installation commander will establish periods of suspension or revocation. Any revocation based on traffic points must be no less than 6 months. A longer period may be imposed on the basis of a person's overall driving record considering the frequency, flagrancy, severity of moving violations, and the response to previous driver improvement measures. In all cases, military members must successfully complete a prescribed course in remedial driver training before driving privileges are reinstated.
</P>
<P>(g) Points assessed against a person will remain in effect for point accumulation purposes for 24 consecutive months. The review of driver records to delete traffic points should be done routinely during records update while recording new offenses and forwarding records to new duty stations. Completion of a revocation based on points requires removal from the driver record of all points assessed before the revocation.
</P>
<P>(h) Removal of points does not authorize removal of driving record entries for moving violations, chargeable accidents, suspensions, or revocations. Record entries will remain posted on individual driving records for the following periods of time.
</P>
<P>(1) Chargeable nonfatal traffic accidents or moving violations—3 years.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonmandatory suspensions or revocations—5 years.
</P>
<P>(3) Mandatory revocations—7 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.47" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.47   Disposition of driving records.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures will be established to ensure prompt notice to the installation law enforcement officer when a person assigned to or employed on the installation is being transferred to another installation, being released from military service, or ending employment.
</P>
<P>(a) If persons being transferred to a new installation have valid points or other entries on the driving records, the law enforcement officer will forward the records to the law enforcement officer of the gaining installation. Gaining installation law enforcement officers must coordinate with applicable commanders and continue any existing suspension or revocation based on intoxicated driving or accumulation of traffic points. Traffic points for persons being transferred will continue to accumulate as specified in § 634.46 (g).
</P>
<P>(b) Driving records of military personnel being discharged or released from active duty will be retained on file for 2 years and then destroyed. In cases of immediate reenlistment, change of officer component or military or civilian retirement when vehicle registration is continued, the record will remain active.
</P>
<P>(c) Driving records of civilian personnel terminating employment will be retained on file for 2 years and then destroyed.
</P>
<P>(d) Driving records of military family members containing point assessments or other entries will be forwarded to the sponsor's gaining installation in the same manner as for service members. At the new installation, records will be analyzed and made available temporarily to the sponsor's unit commander or supervisor for review.
</P>
<P>(e) Driving records of retirees electing to retain installation driving privileges will be retained. Points accumulated or entries on the driver record regarding suspensions, revocations, moving violations, or chargeable accidents will not be deleted from driver records except per § 634.46 (g) and (h).
</P>
<P>(f) Army users will comply with paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section by mailing the individual's DA Form 3626 to the gaining installation provost marshal.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Impounding Privately Owned Vehicles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.48" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.48   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the standards and procedures for law enforcement personnel when towing, inventorying, searching, impounding, and disposing of POVs. This policy is based on:
</P>
<P>(a) The interests of the Services and DLA in crime prevention, traffic safety, and the orderly flow of vehicle traffic movement.
</P>
<P>(b) The vehicle owner's constitutional rights to due process, freedom from unreasonable search and seizure, and freedom from deprivation of private property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.49" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.49   Standards for impoundment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) POVs should not be impounded unless the vehicles clearly interfere with ongoing operations or movement of traffic, threaten public safety or convenience, are involved in criminal activity, contain evidence of criminal activity, or are stolen or abandoned.
</P>
<P>(b) The impoundment of a POV would be inappropriate when reasonable alternatives to impoundment exist.
</P>
<P>(1) Attempts should be made to locate the owner of the POV and have the vehicle removed.
</P>
<P>(2) The vehicle may be moved a short distance to a legal parking area and temporarily secured until the owner is found.
</P>
<P>(3) Another responsible person may be allowed to drive or tow the POV with permission from the owner, operator, or person empowered to control the vehicle. In this case, the owner, operator, or person empowered to control the vehicle will be informed that law enforcement personnel are not responsible for safeguarding the POV.
</P>
<P>(c) Impounding of POVs is justified when any of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(1) The POV is illegally parked—
</P>
<P>(i) On a street or bridge, in a tunnel, or is double parked, and interferes with the orderly flow of traffic.
</P>
<P>(ii) On a sidewalk, within an intersection, on a cross-walk, on a railroad track, in a fire lane, or is blocking a driveway, so that the vehicle interferes with operations or creates a safety hazard to other roadway users or the general public. An example would be a vehicle parked within 15 feet of a fire hydrant or blocking a properly marked driveway of a fire station or aircraft-alert crew facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) When blocking an emergency exit door of any public place (installation theater, club, dining hall, hospital, and other facility).
</P>
<P>(iv) In a “tow-away” zone that is so marked with proper signs.
</P>
<P>(2) The POV interferes with—
</P>
<P>(i) Street cleaning or snow removal operations and attempts to contact the owner have been unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(ii) Emergency operations during a natural disaster or fire or must be removed from the disaster area during cleanup operations.
</P>
<P>(3) The POV has been used in a crime or contains evidence of criminal activity.
</P>
<P>(4) The owner or person in charge has been apprehended and is unable or unwilling to arrange for custody or removal.
</P>
<P>(5) The POV is mechanically defective and is a menace to others using the public roadways.
</P>
<P>(6) The POV is disabled by a traffic incident and the operator is either unavailable or physically incapable of having the vehicle towed to a place of safety for storage or safekeeping.
</P>
<P>(7) Law enforcement personnel reasonably believe the vehicle is abandoned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.50" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.50   Towing and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Impounded POVs may be towed and stored by either the Services and DLA or a contracted wrecker service depending on availability of towing services and the local commander's preference.
</P>
<P>(b) The installation commander will designate an enclosed area on the installation that can be secured by lock and key for an impound lot to be used by the military or civilian wrecker service. An approved impoundment area belonging to the contracted wrecker service may also be used provided the area assures adequate accountability and security of towed vehicles. One set of keys to the enclosed area will be maintained by the installation law enforcement officer or designated individual.
</P>
<P>(c) Temporary impoundment and towing of POVs for violations of the installation traffic code or involvement in criminal activities will be accomplished under the direct supervision of law enforcement personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.51" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.51   Procedures for impoundment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unattended POVs.</I> (1) DD Form 2504 (Abandoned Vehicle Notice) will be conspicuously placed on POVs considered unattended. This action will be documented by an entry in the installation law enforcement desk journal or blotter.
</P>
<P>(2) The owner will be allowed 3 days from the date the POV is tagged to remove the vehicle before impoundment action is initiated. If the vehicle has not been removed after 3 days, it will be removed by the installation towing service or the contracted wrecker service. If a contracted wrecker service is used, a DD Form 2505 (Abandoned Vehicle Removal Authorization) will be completed and issued to the contractor by the installation law enforcement office.
</P>
<P>(3) After the vehicle has been removed, the installation law enforcement officer or the contractor will complete DD Form 2506 (Vehicle Impoundment Report) as a record of the actions taken.
</P>
<P>(i) An inventory listing personal property will be done to protect the owner, law enforcement personnel, the contractor, and the commander.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contents of a closed container such as a suitcase inside the vehicle need not be inventoried. Such articles should be opened only if necessary to identify the owner of the vehicle or if the container might contain explosives or otherwise present a danger to the public. Merely listing the container and sealing it with security tape will suffice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Personal property must be placed in a secure area for safekeeping.
</P>
<P>(4) DD Form 2507 (Notice of Vehicle Impoundment) will be forwarded by certified mail to the address of the last known owner of the vehicle to advise the owner of the impoundment action, and request information concerning the owner's intentions pertaining to the disposition of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stolen POVs or vehicles involved in criminal activity.</I> (1) When the POV is to be held for evidentiary purposes, the vehicle should remain in the custody of the applicable Service or DLA until law enforcement purposes are served.
</P>
<P>(2) Recovered stolen POVs will be released to the registered owner, unless held for evidentiary purposes, or to the law enforcement agency reporting the vehicle stolen, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) A POV held on request of other authorities will be retained in the custody of the applicable Service or DLA until the vehicle can be released to such authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.52" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.52   Search incident to impoundment based on criminal activity.</HEAD>
<P>Search of a POV in conjunction with impoundment based on criminal activity will likely occur in one of the following general situations:
</P>
<P>(a) The owner or operator is not present. This situation could arise during traffic and crime-related impoundments and abandoned vehicle seizures. A property search related to an investigation of criminal activity should not be conducted without search authority unless the item to be seized is in plain view or is readily discernible on the outside as evidence of criminal activity. When in doubt, proper search authority should be obtained before searching.
</P>
<P>(b) The owner or operator is present. This situation can occur during either a traffic or criminal incident, or if the operator is apprehended for a crime or serious traffic violation and sufficient probable cause exists to seize the vehicle. This situation could also arise during cases of intoxicated driving or traffic accidents in which the operator is present but incapacitated or otherwise unable to make adequate arrangements to safeguard the vehicle. If danger exists to the police or public or if there is risk of loss or destruction of evidence, an investigative type search of the vehicle may be conducted without search authority. (Air Force, see AFP 125-2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.53" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.53   Disposition of vehicles after impoundment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a POV is impounded for evidentiary purposes, the vehicle can be held for as long as the evidentiary or law enforcement purpose exists. The vehicle must then be returned to the owner without delay unless directed otherwise by competent authority.
</P>
<P>(b) If the vehicle is unclaimed after 120 days from the date notification was mailed to the last known owner or the owner released the vehicle by properly completing DD Form 2505, the vehicle will be disposed of by one of the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Release to the lienholder, if known.
</P>
<P>(2) Processed as abandoned property in accordance with DOD 4160.21-M.
</P>
<P>(i) Property may not be disposed of until diligent effort has been made to find the owner; or the heirs, next of kin, or legal representative of the owner.
</P>
<P>(ii) The diligent effort to find one of those mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section shall begin not later than 7 days after the date on which the property comes into custody or control of the law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) The period for which this effort is continued may not exceed 45 days.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the owner or those mentioned in § 634.52 are determined, but not found, the property may not be disposed of until the expiration of 45 days after the date when notice, giving the time and place of the intended sale or other disposition, has been sent by certified or registered mail to that person at his last known address.
</P>
<P>(v) When diligent effort to determine those mentioned in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section is unsuccessful, the property may be disposed of without delay, except that if it has a fair market value of more than $500, the law enforcement official may not dispose of the property until 45 days after the date it is received at the storage point.
</P>
<P>(c) All contracts for the disposal of abandoned vehicles must comply with 10 U.S.C. 2575.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—List of State Driver's License Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 634.54" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 634.54   List of State Driver's License Agencies.</HEAD>
<P><I>Notification of State driver's license agencies.</I> The installation commander will notify the State driver's license agency of those personnel whose installation driving privileges are revoked for 1 year or more, following final adjudication of the intoxicated driving offense or for refusing to submit to a lawful blood-alcohol content test in accordance with § 634.8. This notification will include the basis for the suspension and the blood alcohol level. The notification will be sent to the State in which the driver's license was issued. State driver's license agencies are listed as follows:
</P>
<FP-1><I>Alabama:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, 2721 Gunter Park Drive, Montgomery, AL 36101, (205) 271-3250.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Alaska:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, P.O. Box 100960, Anchorage, AK 99510, (907) 269-5572.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Arizona:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, 1801 West Jefferson Street, Phoenix, AZ 85007, (602) 255-7295.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Arkansas:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, Joel &amp; Ledbetter Bldg., 7th and Wolfe Streets, Little Rock, AR 72203, (501) 371-1886.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>California:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, P.O. Box 932340, Sacramento, CA 94232, (916) 445-0898.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Colorado:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, 140 West Sixth Avenue, Denver, CO 80204, (303) 866-3158.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Connecticut:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, 60 State Street, Wethersfield, CT 06109, (203) 566-5904.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Delaware:</I> Motor Vehicle Director, State Highway Administration Bldg., P.O. Box 698, Dover, DE 19903, (302) 736-4421.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>District of Columbia:</I> Department of Transportation, Bureau of Motor Vehicles, 301 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20001, (202) 727-5409.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Florida:</I> Division of Motor Vehicles, Neil Kirkman Building, Tallahassee, FL 32301, (904) 488-6921.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Georgia:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, Trinity-Washington Bldg., Room 114, Atlanta, GA 30334, (404) 656-4149.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Hawaii:</I> Division of Motor Vehicle and Licensing, 1455 S. Benetania Street, Honolulu, HI 96814, (808) 943-3221.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Idaho:</I> Transportation Department, 3311 State Street, P.O. Box 34, Boise, ID 83731, (208) 334-3650.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Illinois:</I> Secretary of State, Centennial Building, Springfield, IL 62756, (217) 782-4815.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Indiana:</I> Bureau of Motor Vehicles, State Office Building, Room 901, Indianapolis, IN 46204, (317) 232-2701.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Iowa:</I> Department of Transportation Office of Operating Authority, Lucas Office Bldg., Des Moines, IA 50319, (515) 281-5664.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Kansas:</I> Department of Revenue, Division of Vehicles, Interstate Registration Bureau, State Office Bldg., Topeka, KS 66612, (913) 296-3681.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Kentucky:</I> Department of Transportation, New State Office Building, Frankfort, KY 40622, (502) 564-4540.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Louisiana:</I> Motor Vehicle Administrator, S. Foster Drive, Baton Rouge, LA 70800, (504) 925-6304.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Maine:</I> Department of State, Motor Vehicle Division, Augusta, ME 04333, (207) 289-5440.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Maryland:</I> Motor Vehicle Administration, 6601 Ritchie Highway, NE., Glen Burnie, MD 21062, (301) 768-7000.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Massachusetts:</I> Registry of Motor Vehicle, 100 Nashua Street, Boston, MA 02114, (617) 727-3780.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Michigan:</I> Department of State, Division of Driver Licenses and Vehicle Records, Lansing, MI 48918, (517) 322-1486.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Minnesota:</I> Department of Public Safety, 108 Transportation Building, St. Paul, MN 55155, (612) 296-2138.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Mississippi:</I> Office of State Tax Commission, Woolfolk Building, Jackson, MS 39205, (601) 982-1248.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Missouri:</I> Department of Revenue, Motor Vehicles Bureau, Harry S. Truman Bldg., 301 W. High Street, Jefferson City, MO 65105, (314) 751-3234.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Montana:</I> Highway Commission, Box 4639, Helena, MT 59604, (406) 449-2476.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Nebraska:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, P.O. Box 94789, Lincoln, NE 68509, (402) 471-3891.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Nevada:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, Carson City, NV 89711, (702) 885-5370.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>New Hampshire:</I> Department of Safety, Division of Motor Vehicles, James H. Haynes Bldg., Concord, NH 03305, (603) 271-2764.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>New Jersey:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, 25 S. Montgomery Street, Trenton, NJ 08666, (609) 292-2368.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>New Mexico:</I> Motor Transportation Division, Joseph M. Montoya Building, Santa Fe, NM 87503, (505) 827-0392.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>New York:</I> Division of Motor Vehicles, Empire State Plaza, Albany, NY 12228, (518) 474-2121.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>North Carolina:</I> Division of Motor Vehicles, Motor Vehicles Bldg., Raleigh, NC 27697, (919) 733-2403.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>North Dakota:</I> Motor Vehicle Department, Capitol Grounds, Bismarck, ND 58505, (701) 224-2619.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Ohio:</I> Bureau of Motor Vehicles, P.O. Box 16520, Columbus, OH 43216, (614) 466-4095.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oklahoma:</I> Oklahoma Tax Commission, Motor Vehicle Division, 2501 Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73194, (405) 521-3036 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oregon:</I> Motor Vehicles Division, 1905 Lana Avenue, NE., Salem, OR 97314, (503) 378-6903.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Pennsylvania:</I> Department of Transportation, Bureau of Motor Vehicles, Transportation and Safety Bldg., Harrisburg, PA 17122, (717) 787-3130.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Rhode Island:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, State Office Building, Providence, RI 02903, (401) 277-6900.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>South Carolina:</I> Motor Vehicle Division, P.O. Drawer 1498, Columbia, SC 29216, (803) 758-5821.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>South Dakota:</I> Division of Motor Vehicles, 118 W. Capitol, Pierre, SD 57501, (605) 773-3501.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Tennessee:</I> Department of Revenue, Motor Vehicle Division, 500 Deaderick Street, Nashville, TN 37242, (615) 741-1786.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Texas:</I> Department of Highways and Public Transportation, Motor Vehicle Division, 40th and Jackson Avenue, Austin, TX 78779, (512) 475-7686.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Utah:</I> Motor Vehicle Division State Fairgrounds, 1095 Motor Avenue, Salt Lake City, UT 84116, (801) 533-5311.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Vermont:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, State Street, Montpelier, VT 05603, (802) 828-2014.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Virginia:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, 2300 W. Broad Street, Richmond, VA 23220, (804) 257-1855.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Washington:</I> Department of Licensing, Highways-Licenses Building, Olympia, WA 98504, (206) 753-6975.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>West Virginia:</I> Department of Motor Vehicles, 1800 Washington Street, East, Charleston, WV 25317, (304) 348-2719.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Wisconsin:</I> Department of Transportation Reciprocity and Permits, P.O. Box 7908, Madison, WI 53707, (608) 266-2585.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Wyoming:</I> Department of Revenue, Policy Division, 122 W. 25th Street, Cheyenne, WY 82002, (307) 777-5273.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Guam:</I> Deputy Director, Revenue and Taxation, Government of Guam, Agana, Guam 96910, (no phone number available).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Puerto Rico:</I> Department of Transportation and Public Works, Bureau of Motor Vehicles, P.O. Box 41243, Minillas Station, Santurce, Puerto Rico 00940, (809) 722-2823.


</FP-1>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="635" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 635—LAW ENFORCEMENT REPORTING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 534, 42 U.S.C. 10601, 18 U.S.C. 922, 10 U.S.C. 1562, 10 U.S.C. Chap. 47, 42 U.S.C. 16901 <I>et seq.,</I> 10 U.S.C. 1565, 42 U.S.C. 14135a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Records Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.1" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>The proponent of this part is the Provost Marshal General. The proponent has the authority to approve exceptions or waivers to this Part that are consistent with controlling law and regulations. In distributing information on juvenile victims or subjects, the installation Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Office will ensure that only individuals with a need to know of the personally identifiable information (PII) of a juvenile are provided the identifying information on the juvenile. For example, a community commander is authorized to receive pertinent information on juveniles under their jurisdiction. When a Law Enforcement Report identifying juvenile offenders must be provided to multiple commanders or supervisors, the FOIA Office must sanitize each report to withhold juvenile information not pertaining to that commander's area of responsibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.2" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.2   Safeguarding official information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military police records are unclassified except when they contain national security information as defined in AR 380-5 (Available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r380_5.pdf</I>), Department of the Army Information Security Program.
</P>
<P>(b) Military police records will also be released to Federal, state, local or foreign law enforcement agencies as prescribed by 32 CFR part 505, The Army Privacy Program. Expanded markings will be applied to these records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.3" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.3   Special requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain PII is protected in accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as implemented by 32 CFR part 310, DoD Privacy Program, 32 CFR part 505, The Army Privacy Program, and OMB guidance defining PII.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3), when an Army activity asks an individual for his or her PII that will be maintained in a system of records, the activity must provide the individual with a Privacy Act Statement (PAS). A PAS notifies individuals of the authority, purpose, and use of the collection, whether the information is mandatory or voluntary, and the effects of not providing all or any part of the requested information.
</P>
<P>(c) Army law enforcement personnel performing official duties often require an individual's PII, including SSN, for identification purposes. This PII can be used to complete law enforcement reports and records. In addition to Executive Order 9397, as amended by Executive Order 13478, the solicitation of the SSN is authorized by paragraph 2.c.(2) of DoD Instruction 1000.30, “Reduction of Social Security Number (SSN) Use Within DoD” (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/100030p.pdf</I>). The purpose is to provide commanders and law enforcement officials with means by which information may accurately be identified. The SSN is used as an additional/alternate means of identification to facilitate filing and retrieval. The following procedures will be used for identification:
</P>
<P>(1) Retired military personnel are required to produce their Common Access Card or DD Form 2 (Ret) (U.S. Armed Forces of the United States General Convention Identification Card), or other government issued identification, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Family members of sponsors will be requested to produce their DD Form 1173 (Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card). Information contained thereon (for example, the sponsor's SSN) will be used to verify and complete applicable sections of law enforcement reports and related forms.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-Department of Defense (DoD) civilians, including military family members and those whose status is unknown, will be advised of the provisions of the Privacy Act Statement when requested to disclose their PII, including SSN, as required.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the requirement to furnish an individual with a PAS when his or her PII will be maintained in a system of records, AR 340-21, The Army Privacy Program, <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r340_21.pdf,</I> provides that records contained in SORN A0190-45, Military Police Reporting Program Records (MRRP), <I>http://dpcld.defense.gov/Privacy/SORNsIndex/tabid/5915/Article/6066/a0190-45-opmg.aspx,</I> that fall within 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) are exempt from the requirement in 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) to provide a PAS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.4" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.4   Police intelligence/Criminal information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of gathering police intelligence is to identify individuals or groups of individuals in an effort to anticipate, prevent, or monitor possible criminal activity. Police intelligence aids criminal investigators in developing and investigating criminal cases. 32 CFR part 633 designates the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC) as having the primary responsibility to operate a criminal intelligence program. Criminal Intelligence will be reported through the Army Criminal Investigation and Criminal Intelligence (ACI2) System and other criminal intelligence products. The crimes listed in paragraphs (a)(1)-(9) of this section, as well as the reportable incidents, behavioral threat indicators, and other matters of counterintelligence interest specified by AR 381-12, Threat Awareness and Reporting Program, (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r381_12.pdf</I>) will be reported to the nearest Army counterintelligence office.
</P>
<P>(1) Sedition;
</P>
<P>(2) Aiding the enemy by providing intelligence to the enemy;
</P>
<P>(3) Spying;
</P>
<P>(4) Espionage;
</P>
<P>(5) Subversion;
</P>
<P>(6) Treason;
</P>
<P>(7) International terrorist activities or material support to terrorism (MST);
</P>
<P>(8) Unreported contacts with foreigners involved in intelligence activities;
</P>
<P>(9) Unauthorized or intentional disclosure of classified info.
</P>
<P>(b) Information on persons and organizations not affiliated with DoD may not normally be acquired, reported, processed or stored. Situations justifying acquisition of this information include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(1) Theft, destruction, or sabotage of weapons, ammunition, equipment facilities, or records belonging to DoD units or installations.
</P>
<P>(2) Protection of Army installations and activities from potential threat.
</P>
<P>(3) Information received from the FBI, state, local, or international law enforcement agencies which directly pertains to the law enforcement mission and activity of the installation Provost Marshal Office/Directorate of Emergency Services (PMO/DES), Army Command (ACOM), Army Service Component Command (ASCC) or Direct Reporting Unit (DRU) PMO/DES, or that has a clearly identifiable military purpose and connection. A determination that specific information may not be collected, retained or disseminated by intelligence activities does not indicate that the information is automatically eligible for collection, retention, or dissemination under the provisions of this part. The policies in this section are not intended and will not be used to circumvent any federal law that restricts gathering, retaining or dissemination of information on private individuals or organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) Retention and disposition of information on non-DoD affiliated individuals and organizations are subject to the provisions of DoD Directive 5200.27 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/</I>520027p.pd), AR 380-13, Acquisition and Storage of Information Concerning Non-Affiliated Persons and Organizations (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r380_13.pdf</I>) and AR 25-400-2, The Army Records Information Management System (ARIMS) (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r25_400_2.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) Local police intelligence files may be exempt from 32 CFR part 518 and the FOIA's disclosure requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.5" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.5   Name checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information contained in military police records will be released under the provisions of 32 CFR part 505, The Army Privacy Program, to authorized personnel for valid background check purposes. Examples include child care/youth program providers, sexual assault response coordinator, unit victim advocate, access control, unique or special duty assignments, security clearance procedures and suitability and credentialing purposes. Any information released must be restricted to that necessary and relevant to the requester's official purpose. Provost Marshals/Directors of Emergency Services (PM/DES) will establish written procedures to ensure that release is accomplished in accordance with 32 CFR part 505.
</P>
<P>(b) Checks will be accomplished by a review of the Army's Law Enforcement Reporting and Tracking System (ALERTS). Information will be disseminated according to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) In response to a request for local files or name checks, PM/DES will release only founded offenses with final disposition. Offenses determined to be unfounded will not be released. These limitations do not apply to requests submitted by law enforcement agencies for law enforcement purposes, and counterintelligence investigative agencies for counterintelligence purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) A successful query of ALERTS would return the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Military Police Report Number;
</P>
<P>(2) Report Date;
</P>
<P>(3) Social Security Number;
</P>
<P>(4) Last Name;
</P>
<P>(5) First Name;
</P>
<P>(6) Protected Identity (Y/N);
</P>
<P>(7) A link to view the military police report; and
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the individual is a subject, victim, or a person related to the report disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) Name checks will include the information derived from ALERTS and the United States Army Crime Records Center (USACRC). All of the policies and procedures for such checks will conform to the provisions of this part. Any exceptions to this policy must be coordinated with Headquarters Department of the Army (HQDA), Office of the Provost Marshal General (OPMG) before any name checks are conducted. The following are examples of appropriate uses of the name check feature of ALERTS:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals named as the subjects of serious incident reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals named as subjects of investigations who must be reported to the USACRC.
</P>
<P>(3) Individuals seeking employment as child care/youth program providers.
</P>
<P>(4) Local checks of the ALERTS as part of placing an individual in the ALERTS.
</P>
<P>(5) Name checks for individuals seeking employment in law enforcement positions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.6" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.6   Registration of sex offenders on Army installations (inside and outside the Continental United States).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sex Offenders on US Army Installations.</I> Garrison Commander's responsibilities: Garrison Commanders will ensure that sex offenders, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section that reside or are employed on an Army Installation register with the installation PM/DES. This includes service members, civilian employees, accompanying dependent family members, and contractors subject to the incorporation of the sex offender registration requirement into the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) Sex offender is defined as:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person, including but not limited to a Service member, Service member's family member, Civilian employee, Civilian employee's family member, or contractor, who either is registered or required to register as a sex offender by any law, regulation or policy of the United States, the Department of Defense, the Army, a State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, America Samoa, The Northern Mariana Islands, the United States Virgin Islands, or a Federally recognized Indian tribe. This definition is not limited to persons convicted for felony sex offenses but includes all persons who are registered or required to register as a sex offender regardless of the classification of their offenses, including felonies, misdemeanors, and offenses not classified as a felony or misdemeanor.
</P>
<P>(2) The persons who are sex offenders as defined in paragraph (b)(1) include those convicted by a foreign government of an offense equivalent or closely analogous to a covered offense under the Uniform Code of Military Justice as provided in AR 27-10, Military Justice (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r27_10.pdf</I>), Chapter 24.” See 42 U.S.C. 16911(5)(B) and U.S. Department of Justice, Office of the Attorney General, The National Guidelines for Sex Offender Registration and Notification, Final Guidelines, 73 FR 38030, 38050-1 (July 2, 2008) for guidelines and standards. Contact the servicing Office of the Staff Judge Advocate for assistance in interpreting or applying this provision.
</P>
<P>(c) Sex Offender Registration Requirements. Sex offenders, as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must register with the installation PMO/DES within three working days of first arriving on an installation. Sex offenders must provide the installation PMO/DES with evidence of the qualifying conviction. The PMO/DES will enter the registering sex offender's conviction information on a Raw Data File as an information entry into the Army's Law Enforcement Reporting and Tracking System (ALERTS) with the state the sex offender was convicted, date of conviction, and results of conviction, to include length of time required to register and any specific court ordered restrictions. Registration with the PMO/DES does not relieve sex offenders of their legal obligation to comply with applicable state and local registration requirements for the state in which they reside, work, or attend school (see, AR 190-47 (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r190_47.pdf</I>), chapter 14 and AR 27-10 (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r27_10.pdf</I>), chapter 24). Registration with the state is also required under the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act (SORNA), 42 U.S.C. 16901 <I>et seq.,</I> and implemented by AR 27-10 (Available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r27_10.pdf</I>), Military Justice, and DoDI 1325.7 (Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/132507p.pdf</I>). In addition, upon assignment, reassignment, or change of address, sex offenders will inform the installation PM/DES within three working days. Failure to comply with registration requirements is punishable under Federal or State law and/or under the UCMJ. “State” in this paragraph includes any jurisdiction listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section in which a sex offender is required to register.
</P>
<P>(d) Installation PMOs and DESs will maintain and update a monthly roster of current sex offenders names and provide it to the Sexual Assault Review Board; the Army Command PM and DES and the garrison commander.
</P>
<P>(e) Installation PMs and DESs will complete the following procedures for all other sex offenders required to register on the installation—
</P>
<P>(1) Complete a Raw Data File as an information entry into ALERTS.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure the sex offender produces either evidence of the qualifying conviction or the sex offender registration paperwork in order to complete the narrative with the state in which the sex offender was convicted, date of conviction, and results of conviction, to include length of time required to register and any specific court ordered restrictions.
</P>
<P>(f) DoD civilians, contractors, and family members that fail to register at the installation PMO/DES are subject to a range of administrative sanctions, including but not limited to a complete or limited bar to the installation and removal from military housing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016; 81 FR 78912, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.7" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.7   Collection of deoxyribonucleic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Army Law Enforcement (LE) personnel will collect deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) pursuant to DoDI 5505.14 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/550514p.pdf</I>), DNA Collection Requirements for Criminal Investigations. Per this subpart, a sample of an individual's DNA is to allow for positive identification and to provide or generate evidence to solve crimes through database searches of potentially matching samples. DNA samples will not be collected from juveniles.
</P>
<P>(b) Army LE personnel will obtain a DNA sample from a civilian in their control at the point it is determined there is probable cause to believe the detained person violated a Federal statute equivalent to the offenses identified in DoDI 5505.11 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/550511p.pdf</I>), Fingerprint Card and Final Disposition Report Submission Requirements, and 32 CFR part 310, Department of Defense Privacy Program, except for the listed violations that are exclusively military offenses. For the purposes of this rule, DNA shall be taken from all civilian drug offenders, except those who are arrested or detained for the offenses of simple possession and personal use.
</P>
<P>(1) When Army LE personnel make a probable cause determination concerning a civilian not in their control, Army LE personnel are not required to collect DNA samples. Likewise, Army LE personnel are not required to obtain DNA samples when another LE agency has, or will, obtain the DNA.
</P>
<P>(2) Army LE personnel will use the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Laboratory (USACIL) DNA kit which includes a DNA sample card and the USACIL DNA database collection eform. Army LE personnel will forward civilian DNA samples to the USACIL. Army LE personnel will document, in the appropriate case file, when civilian LE agencies handle any aspect of the DNA processing and whether the civilian LE agency forwarded the DNA sample to the FBI laboratory.
</P>
<P>(c) DoD Instruction 5505.14 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/550514p.pdf</I>) details the procedures former Soldiers and civilians must follow to request expungement of their DNA records. Former Soldiers and civilians from whom DNA samples have been taken, but who were not convicted of any offense giving rise to the collection of DNA, do not submit requests to have their DNA record expunged through installation PMO/DES channels. To request expungement of DNA records for civilians pursuant to Sections 14132 of title 42, United States Code, the requestor or legal representative must submit a written request to: FBI, Laboratory Division, 2501 Investigation Parkway, Quantico, VA 22135, Attention: Federal Convicted Offender Program Manager.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Release of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.8" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.8   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The policy of HQDA is to conduct activities in an open manner and provide the public accurate and timely information. Accordingly, law enforcement information will be released to the degree permitted by law and Army regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any release of military police records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, whether to persons within or outside the Army, must be in accordance with the FOIA and the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests by individuals for access to military police records about themselves will be processed in compliance with FOIA and the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Military police records in the temporary possession of another organization remain the property of the originating law enforcement agency. The following procedures apply to any organization authorized temporary use of military police records:
</P>
<P>(1) Any request from an individual seeking access to military police records will be immediately referred to the originating law enforcement agency for processing. The temporary custodian of military police records does not have the authority to release those records.
</P>
<P>(2) When the temporary purpose of the using organization has been satisfied, the military police records will be returned to the originating law enforcement agency or the copies will be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(3) A using organization may maintain information from military police records in their system of records, if approval is obtained from the originating law enforcement agency. This information may include reference to a military police record (for example, Law Enforcement Report number or date of offense), a summary of information contained in the record, or the entire military police record. When a user includes a military police record in its system of records, the originating law enforcement agency will delete portions from that record to protect special investigative techniques, maintain confidentiality, preclude compromise of an investigation, and protect other law enforcement interests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.9" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.9   Release of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Release of information from Army records to agencies outside DoD will be governed by 32 CFR part 518, 32 CFR part 505, AR 600-37, Unfavorable Information (Available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r600_37.pdf</I>), and this part. Procedures for release of certain other records and information is contained in AR 20-1, Inspector General Activities and Procedures (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r20_1.pdf</I>), AR 27-20, Claims (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r27_20.pdf</I>), AR 27-40, Litigation (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r27_40.pdf</I>), AR 40-66, Medical Record Administration and Healthcare Documentation (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r40_66.pdf</I>), AR 195-2, Criminal Investigation Activities (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r195_2.pdf</I>), AR 360-1, The Army Public Affairs Program (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r360_1.pdf</I>), and AR 600-85, The Army Substance Abuse Program (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r600_85.pdf</I>). Installation drug and alcohol offices may be provided an extract of DA Form 3997 (Military Police Desk Blotter) for offenses involving the use of alcohol or drugs (for example, drunk driving, drunk and disorderly conduct, or positive urinalysis).
</P>
<P>(b) Installation PM/DES are the release authorities for military police records under their control. They may release criminal record information to other activities as prescribed in 32 CFR part 518 and 32 CFR part 505, and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Authority to deny access to criminal records information rests with the initial denial authority (IDA) for the FOIA and the denial authority for Privacy Acts cases, as addressed in 32 CFR part 518 and 32 CFR part 505.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.10" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.10   Release of information under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The release and denial authorities for all FOIA requests concerning military police records include PM/DES and the Commander, USACIDC. Authority to act on behalf of the Commander, USACIDC is delegated to the Director, USACRC.
</P>
<P>(b) FOIA requests from members of the press will be coordinated with the installation public affairs officer prior to release of records under the control of the installation PM/DES. When the record is on file at the USACRC the request must be forwarded to the Director, USACRC.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests will be processed as prescribed in 32 CFR part 518 and as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The installation FOIA Office will review requested reports to determine if any portion is exempt from release.
</P>
<P>(2) Statutory and policy questions will be coordinated with the local staff judge advocate (SJA).
</P>
<P>(3) Coordination will be completed with the local USACIDC activity to ensure that the release will not interfere with a criminal investigation in progress or affect final disposition of an investigation.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is determined that a portion of the report, or the report in its entirety will not be released, the request to include a copy of the Military Police Report or other military police records will be forwarded to the Director, USACRC, ATTN: CICR-FP, 27130 Telegraph Road, Quantico, VA 22134. The requestor will be informed that their request has been sent to the Director, USACRC, and provided the mailing address for the USACRC. When forwarding FOIA requests, the outside of the envelope will be clearly marked “FOIA REQUEST.”
</P>
<P>(5) A partial release of information by an installation FOIA Office is permissible when it is acceptable to the requester. (An example would be the redaction of a third party's social security number, home address, and telephone number, as permitted by law). If the requester agrees to the redaction of exempt information, such cases do not constitute a denial. If the requester insists on the entire report, a copy of the report and the request for release will be forwarded to the Director, USACRC. There is no requirement to coordinate such referrals at the installation level. The request will simply be forwarded to the Director, United States Army Crime Records Center (USACRC) for action.
</P>
<P>(6) Requests for military police records that have been forwarded to USACRC and are no longer on file at the installation PMO/DES will be forwarded to the Director, USACRC for processing.
</P>
<P>(7) Requests concerning USACIDC reports of investigation or USACIDC files will be referred to the Director, USACRC. In each instance, the requestor will be informed of the referral and provided the Director, USACRC address.
</P>
<P>(8) Requests concerning records that are under the supervision of an Army activity, or other DoD agency, will be referred to the appropriate agency for response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.11" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.11   Release of information under the Privacy Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military police records may be released according to provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as implemented by 32 CFR part 310, DoD Privacy Program, 32 CFR part 505, The Army Privacy Program, and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The release and denial authorities for all Privacy Act cases concerning military police records are provided in § 635.9.
</P>
<P>(c) Privacy Act requests for access to a record, when the requester is the subject of that record, will be processed as prescribed in 32 CFR part 505.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.12" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.12   Amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> An amendment of records is appropriate when such records are established as being inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete. Amendment procedures are not intended to permit challenging an event that actually occurred. Requests to amend reports will be granted only if the individual submits new, relevant and material facts that are determined to warrant their inclusion in or revision of the police report. The burden of proof is on the individual to substantiate the request. Requests to delete a person's name from the title block will be granted only if it is determined that there is not probable cause to believe that the individual committed the offense for which he or she is listed as a subject. It is emphasized that the decision to list a person's name in the title block of a police report is an investigative determination that is independent of whether or not subsequent judicial, non-judicial or administrative action is taken against the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) In compliance with DoD policy, an individual will still remain entered in the Defense Clearance Investigations Index (DCII) to track all reports of investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.13" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.13   Accounting for military police record disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) 32 CFR part 505 prescribes accounting policies and procedures concerning the disclosure of military police records.
</P>
<P>(b) PM/DES will develop local procedures to ensure that disclosure of military police records as described in 32 CFR part 505 are available on request.
</P>
<P>(c) In every instance where records are disclosed; individuals, agencies or components are reminded that use or further disclosure of any military police reports, Military Police Investigator (MPI) reports, or other information received must be in compliance with DoDI 5505.7 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/550507p.pdf</I>), paragraph 6.5.2. which states that “judicial or adverse administrative actions shall not be taken against individuals or entities based solely on the fact that they have been titled or indexed due to a criminal investigation.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.14" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.14   Release of law enforcement information furnished by foreign governments or international organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information furnished by foreign governments or international organizations is subject to disclosure, unless exempted by 32 CFR part 518 and 32 CFR part 505, federal statutes or executive orders.
</P>
<P>(b) Release of U.S. information (classified military information or controlled unclassified information) to foreign governments is accomplished per AR 380-10 (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r380_10.pdf</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Offense Reporting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.15" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.15   DA Form 4833 (Commander's Report of Disciplinary or Administrative Action) for Civilian Subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Civilian Subjects titled by Army Law Enforcement. PM/DES and USACIDC will complete and submit disposition reports to USACRC for civilian subjects, not subject to the UCMJ, who are titled by Army law enforcement. PM/DES and USACIDC will complete the DA Form 4833 and submit the form to USACRC for these subjects. PM/DES and USACIDC will not include these completed DA Form 4833 for civilian personnel in reporting compliance statistics for commanders. This ensures records of dispositions of civilian subjects titled by military LE are available in CJIS to support NCIC background checks for firearms purchases, employment, security clearances etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.16" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.16   Fingerprint Card and Final Disposition Report Submission Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This paragraph implements DoDI 5505.11, Fingerprint Card and Final Disposition Report Submission Requirements, which prescribes procedures for Army LE to report offender criminal history data, by submitting FBI Form FD 249 (Suspect Fingerprint Card) to USACRC. USACRC forwards this data to the Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) division of the FBI for inclusion in the Next Generation Identification Database. This paragraph does not eliminate other requirements to provide criminal history data, including those concerning the DIBRS.
</P>
<P>(b) Installation PM/DES will submit offender criminal history data to USACRC, based on a probable cause standard determined in conjunction with the servicing SJA or legal advisor for all civilians investigated for offenses equivalent to those listed in DoDI 5505.11. This includes foreign nationals, persons serving with or accompanying an armed force in the field in time of declared war or contingency operations, and persons subject to Public Law 106-523 in accordance with DoDI 5525.11 (Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/552511p.pdf</I>), Criminal Jurisdiction Over Civilians Employed By or Accompanying the Armed Forces Outside the United States, Certain Service Members, and Former Service Members.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this paragraph commanders will notify their installation PMO/DES when they become aware that a non-DoD and/or foreign LE organization has initiated an investigation against a Soldier, military dependent, or DoD civilian employee or contractor, for the equivalent of an offense listed in DoDI 5525.11 (available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/552511p.pdf</I>), Enclosure 2, or punishable pursuant to the U.S.C.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.17" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.17   Release of domestic incidents reports to the Army Family Advocacy Program (FAP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Installation PM/DES will comply with the reporting requirements set forth in AR 608-18 (available at <I>http://www.apd.army.mil/pdffiles/r608_18.pdf</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to substantiated incidents of domestic violence, installation PM/DES will notify the Family Advocacy Program Manager (FAPM) and Social Work Services (SWS) of all incidents in which a preponderance of indicators reveal a potential risk of reoccurrence and increasing severity of maltreatment which could lead to domestic violence or child abuse. Installation PM/DES will ensure these notifications are recorded in the official military police journal in ALERTS. This is to:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a history of incidents that indicate an emerging pattern of risk of maltreatment/victimization to Soldiers and or Family members. See AR 608-18 for incidents that define maltreatment.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop a trend history of unsubstantiated-unresolved incidents in order to prevent possible violence or maltreatment from occurring.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28549, May 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 17386, Mar. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.18" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.18   Domestic violence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Responding to incidents of domestic violence requires a coordinated effort by LE, medical, and social work personnel, to include sharing information and records as permitted by law and regulation. AR 608-18, Chapter 3, contains additional information about domestic violence and protective orders. AR 608-18, Glossary, Section II refers to domestic violence as including the use, attempted use, or threatened use of force or violence against a person or a violation of a lawful order issued for the protection of a person, who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A current or former spouse;
</P>
<P>(2) A person with whom the abuser shares a child in common; or
</P>
<P>(3) A current or former intimate partner with whom the abuser shares or has shared a common domicile.
</P>
<P>(b) All domestic violence incidents will be reported to the local installation PMO/DES.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.19" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.19   Protection Orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DD Form 2873, Military Protective Order (MPO) is a written lawful order issued by a commander that orders a Soldier to avoid contact with those persons identified in the order. MPOs may be used to facilitate a “cooling-off” period following domestic violence and sexual assault incidents, to include incidents involving children. The commander should provide a written copy of the order within 24 hours of its issuance to the person with whom the member is ordered not to have contact and to the installation LE activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial notification.</I> In the event a MPO is issued against a Soldier and any individual involved in the order does not reside on a Army installation at any time during the duration of the MPO, the installation PMO/DES will notify the appropriate civilian authorities (local magistrate courts, family courts, and local police) of:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuance of the protective order;
</P>
<P>(2) The individuals involved in the order;
</P>
<P>(3) Any change made in a protective order;
</P>
<P>(4) The termination of the protective order.
</P>
<P>(c) A Civilian Protective Order (CPO) is an order issued by a judge, magistrate or other authorized civilian official, ordering an individual to avoid contact with his or her spouse or children. Pursuant to the Armed Forces Domestic Security Act, 10 U.S.C. 1561a, a CPO has the same force and effect on a military installation as such order has within the jurisdiction of the court that issued the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.20" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.20   Establishing Memoranda of Understanding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Coordination between military law enforcement personnel and local civilian law enforcement personnel is essential to improve information sharing, especially concerning investigations, arrests, and prosecutions involving military personnel. PM/DES or other law enforcement officials shall seek to establish formal Memoranda of Understanding (MOU) with their civilian counterparts to establish or improve the flow of information between their agencies, especially in instances involving military personnel. MOUs can be used to clarify jurisdictional issues for the investigation of incidents, to define the mechanism whereby local law enforcement reports involving active duty service members will be forwarded to the appropriate installation law enforcement office, to encourage the local law enforcement agency to refer victims of domestic violence to the installation Family Advocacy office or victim advocate, and to foster cooperation and collaboration between the installation law enforcement agency and local civilian agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) Installation commanders are authorized to contract for local, state, or federal law enforcement services (enforcement of civil and criminal laws of the state) from civilian police departments. (Section 120 of the Water Resources Development Act of 1976). Section 120(a) of the Water Resources Development Act of 1976 authorizes the Secretary of the Army, acting through the Chief of Engineers, to contract with States and their political subdivisions for the purpose of obtaining increased law enforcement services at water resource development projects under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of the Army to meet needs during peak visitation periods.
</P>
<P>(c) MOUs will address the following issues at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) A general statement of the purpose of the MOU.
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of jurisdictional issues that affect respective responsibilities to and investigating incidents occurring on and off the installation. This section should also address jurisdictional issues when a civilian order of protection is violated on military property (see 10 U.S.C. 1561a).
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for responding to incidents that occur on the installation involving a civilian alleged offender.
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for local law enforcement to immediately (within 4 hours) notify the installation law enforcement office of incidents/investigations involving service members.
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures for transmitting incident/investigation reports and other law enforcement information involving active duty service members from local civilian law enforcement agencies to the installation law enforcement office.
</P>
<P>(6) Notification that a Solider is required to register as a sex offender either as the result of military judicial proceedings or civilian judicial proceedings.
</P>
<P>(7) Procedures for transmitting civilian protection orders (CPOs) issued by civilian courts or magistrates involving active duty service members from local law enforcement agencies to the installation law enforcement office.
</P>
<P>(8) Designation of the title of the installation law enforcement recipient of such information from the local law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(9) Procedures for transmitting military protection orders (MPOs) from the installation law enforcement office to the local civilian law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the area in which any person named in the order resides.
</P>
<P>(10) Designation of the title of the local law enforcement agency recipient of domestic violence and CPO information from the installation law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(11) Respective responsibilities for providing information to victims regarding installation resources when either the victim or the alleged offender is an active duty service member.
</P>
<P>(12) Sharing of information and facilities during the course of an investigation in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974 (see 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7)).
</P>
<P>(13) Regular meetings between the local civilian law enforcement agency and the installation law enforcement office to review cases and MOU procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.21" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.21   Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Army will use eGuardian to report, share and analyze unclassified suspicious activity information regarding potential threats or suspicious activities affecting DoD personnel, facilities, or forces in transit in both CONUS and OCONUS. USACIDC is the Army's eGuardian program manager.
</P>
<P>(b) eGuardian is the Federal Bureau of Investigation's (FBI) sensitive-but-unclassified web-based platform for reporting, and in some instances, sharing, suspicious activity and threat related information with other federal, state, tribal, and territorial law enforcement and force protection entities. Information entered into eGuardian by the Army may be either shared with all eGuardian participants or reported directly to the FBI. All information entered into eGuardian by the Army will comply with the policy framework for the system and any existing agency agreements, which incorporate privacy protections. Analysis of SARs will assist CRIMINTEL analysts and commanders in mitigating potential threats and vulnerabilities, and developing annual threat assessments.
</P>
<P>(c) Any concerned soldier or citizen can submit a SAR to the nearest installation PMO/DES, CI or CID office. The receiving office will then be responsible for reviewing the information and determining whether it is appropriate for submission into eGuardian.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Victim and Witness Assistance Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.22" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.22   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As required by DoDD 1030.01 (Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/103001p.pdf</I>), Army personnel involved in the detection, investigation, and prosecution of crimes must ensure that victims and witnesses rights are protected. Victim's rights include-
</P>
<P>(1) The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) The right to be reasonably protected from the accused offender.
</P>
<P>(3) The right to be notified of court proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the offense, unless the court determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other testimony at trial, or for other good cause.
</P>
<P>(5) The right to confer with the attorney for the Government in the case.
</P>
<P>(6) The right to restitution, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the offender from custody.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—National Crime Information Center Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 635.23" NODE="32:4.1.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 635.23   Standards.</HEAD>
<P>The use of NCIC is limited to authorized criminal justice purposes such as, stolen vehicle checks or wants and warrants. Subject to FBI regulations and policy, NCIC checks of visitors to a military installation may be authorized by the Installation/Garrison Commander as set forth in DoD 5200.08-R (Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520008r.pdf</I>) and DoDI 5200.08 (Available at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/520008p.pdf</I>). Visitors to Army installations are non-DoD affiliated personnel.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="J" NODE="32:4.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER J—REAL PROPERTY 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="641-649" NODE="32:4.1.1.2.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 641-649 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="K" NODE="32:4.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER K—ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="652-654" NODE="32:4.1.1.3.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 652-654 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="655" NODE="32:4.1.1.3.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 655—RADIATION SOURCES ON ARMY LAND
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 3013.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 6693, Feb. 8, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 655.10" NODE="32:4.1.1.3.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.10   Oversight of radiation sources brought on Army land by non-Army entities (AR 385-10).</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> has the same meaning as provided in 10 CFR 30.4.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> has the same meaning as provided in 10 CFR 20.1003.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation</I> has the same meaning as provided in 10 CFR 20.1003.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material</I> includes byproduct material, source material, and special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> has the same meaning as provided in 10 CFR 20.1003.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> has the same meaning as provided in 10 CFR 20.1003.
</P>
<P>(b) Army radiation permits are required for use, storage, or possession of ionizing radiation sources by non-Army entities (including their civilian contractors) on an Army installation. Such use, storage, or possession of ionizing radiation sources must be in connection with an activity of the Department of Defense or in connection with a service to be performed on the installation for the benefit of the Department of Defense, in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2692(b)(1). Approval by the garrison commander is required to obtain an Army radiation permit. For the purposes of this section, an ionizing radiation source is:
</P>
<P>(1) Radioactive material used, stored, or possessed under the authority of a specific license issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) or an Agreement State (10 CFR parts 30, 40, and 70 or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State); or
</P>
<P>(2) A machine-produced ionizing radiation source capable of producing an area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the ionizing radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P>(c) A permit is not required for non-Army entities (including their civilian contractors) that use Army licensed radioactive material on an Army installation in coordination with the Army NRC licensee. The non-Army entity must obtain permission from the Army NRC licensee to use the radioactive materials and be in compliance with all of the Army NRC license conditions prior to beginning work on Army land.
</P>
<P>(d) Other Military Departments are exempt from the requirement of paragraph (b) of this section to obtain an Army radiation permit; however, the garrison Radiation Safety Officer (RSO) must be notified prior to ionizing radiation sources being brought onto the installation.
</P>
<P>(e) Applicants will apply for an Army radiation permit by letter with supporting documentation (paragraph (f) of this section) to the garrison commander through the appropriate tenant commander or garrison director. Submit the letter so that the garrison commander receives the application at least 30 calendar days before the requested effective date of the permit.
</P>
<P>(f) The Army radiation permit application will include a proposed effective date and duration (not to exceed 12 months) for the Army radiation permit and describe the purposes for which the ionizing radiation source will be used. The application will include: Identification of the trained operating personnel who will be responsible for implementation of the activities authorized by the permit and a summary of their professional qualifications; the applicant's point-of-contact name and phone number; the applicant's radiation safety Standing Operating Procedures (SOPs); storage provisions when the ionizing radiation source is not in use; and procedures for notifying the garrison of reportable incidents/accidents.
</P>
<P>(g) The garrison commander may approve the application only if the applicant provides evidence to show that one of the following is true:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant possesses a valid NRC license or Department of Energy (DOE) radiological work permit that allows the applicant to use the ionizing radiation source in the manner requested in the Army radiation permit application;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant possesses a valid Agreement State license that allows the applicant to use the ionizing radiation source in the manner requested in the Army radiation permit application. An applicant operating in areas subject to exclusive Federal jurisdiction (Agreement States Letter SP-96-022) has to file a NRC Form-241, Report of Proposed Activities in Non-Agreement States, with the NRC in accordance with 10 CFR 150.20(b);
</P>
<P>(3) For machine-produced ionizing radiation sources, the applicant has an appropriate State authorization that allows the applicant to use the ionizing radiation source as requested in the Army radiation permit application and has in place a radiation safety program that complies with applicable Army regulations; or
</P>
<P>(4) For installations outside of the United States, the applicant has an appropriate host-nation authorization as necessary that allows the applicant to use the ionizing radiation source in the manner requested in the Army radiation permit application and has in place a radiation safety program that complies with applicable Army regulations and host nation laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(h) Applicants and permit holders shall comply with all applicable Federal, state, interstate, and local laws and regulations, status-of-forces agreements (SOFAs), and other international agreements.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Army radiation permit will require the permit holder to remove its permitted ionizing radiation sources from Army property prior to the expiration of the permit and restore all real or personal property of the Army that was modified, altered, or otherwise changed as a result of the permit holder's activities to the condition such property was in prior to the effective date of the permit.
</P>
<P>(j) An Army radiation permit issued pursuant to this section shall be valid for no more than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(k) Disposal of radioactive material by non-Army entities on Army property is prohibited. However, the garrison commander may give written authorization for releases of radioactive material to the atmosphere or to the sanitary sewerage system if such releases are in compliance with all applicable Federal, State, interstate, and local laws and regulations, including but not limited to, the NRC regulations at 10 CFR part 20, Subpart K, or the equivalent requirements of an Agreement State, and regulations issued by the Army or the Department of Defense, to include compliance with any applicable requirement to obtain a permit, license, or other authorization, or to submit any information, notification, or report for such release.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="656-667" NODE="32:4.1.1.3.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 656-667 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="L" NODE="32:4.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER L—ARMY CONTRACTING [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV5 N="668-699" NODE="32:4.1.1.5.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 668-699 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 3, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="5" NODE="32:5" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32—National Defense--Volume 5</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter vi</E>—Department of the Navy
</SUBJECT>
<PG>700


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:5.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense (Continued) 


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="VI" NODE="32:5.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER VI—DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—UNITED STATES NAVY REGULATIONS AND OFFICIAL RECORDS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="701" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 701—AVAILABILITY OF DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY RECORDS AND PUBLICATION OF DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY DOCUMENTS AFFECTING THE PUBLIC [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="705" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 705—PUBLIC AFFAIRS REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 5031.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 705.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations and rules in this part prescribe policies and procedures for the Department of the Navy pertaining to public affairs practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.2   Chief of Information and the Office of Information (CHINFO).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chief of Information is the direct representative of the Secretary of the Navy and of the Chief of Naval Operations in all public affairs and internal relations matters. As such, the Chief of Information has the authority to implement public affairs and internal relations policies and to coordinate Navy and Marine Corps public affairs and internal relations activities of mutual interest.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief of Information will keep Navy commands informed of Department of Defense policies and requirements. No command within the Department of the Navy, except Headquarters, Marine Corps, will deal directly with the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) on public affairs matters unless authorized to do so by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief of Information will be consulted on all Navy public affairs and internal relations matters and informed of all operations and proposed plans and policies which have national or international (and in the case of audio-visual material, regional) public affairs aspects.
</P>
<P>(d) The Chief of Information heads the Navy Office of Information, the Navy Internal Relations Activity (NIRA), the Office of Information Branch Offices (NAVINFOs), the Navy Public Affairs Center (NAVPACENs) and the Fleet Home Town News Center (FHTNC). In addition, the Chief of Information has responsibility (on behalf of the Secretary of the Navy as Executive Agent for the Department of Defense) for the High School News Service and has operational control of the U.S. Navy Band, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>(e) The Navy Office of Information Branch Offices (NAVINFOs) are located in Atlanta, Boston, Chicago, Dallas, Los Angeles, and New York. As representatives of the Secretary of the Navy, Chief of Naval Operations, and Chief of Information, the NAVINFOs have a primary mission of providing direct liaison with local and regional mass communications media.
</P>
<P>(1) The function of the NAVINFOs are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and maintain close personal relationships with local television, radio, film, publishing, and other mass-media organizations including minority-group-oriented media.
</P>
<P>(ii) Seek ways through these media to inform the public about naval personnel and activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide assistance to media organizations and respond to their interest in Navy programs, stories, and features. In this regard, maintain informal liaison with various information offices afloat and ashore in order to respond to requests from local media representatives, particularly those from inland areas, who desire to visit fleet units or activities ashore.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide advice on Navy cooperation and assistance, as appropriate, to representatives of national industrial and commercial organizations, including advertising agencies.
</P>
<P>(v) Maintain a library of Navy motion picture films for use by local television stations, distribute news films and audio material, and otherwise perform normal audio-visual functions at the local level.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide personnel and other assistance as appropriate, to special Command Information Bureaus and public information staffs of other naval activities as directed by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(vii) Advise the Chief of Information on current trends and significant problems relating to local media requirements.
</P>
<P>(viii) Seek ways to support the long-range goals and immediate priorities of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(ix) Provide advice and assistance in the placement of news and feature materials to the field activities of the Navy Recruiting Command.
</P>
<P>(x) Perform such other tasks as may be assigned by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(2) Additionally, NAVINFO Los Angeles is the Navy representative for all appropriate liaison with motion picture and network television offices in the Hollywood area. Naval activities will channel all requests for information or assistance from these media to NAVINFO Los Angeles, which will coordinate with CHINFO.
</P>
<P>(3) Additionally, NAVINFO New York is the Navy representative for all appropriate liaison with television and radio networks in the New York area and with magazine and book publishers in that area. Requests for assistance originating from these media should be directed to NAVINFO New York, which will coordinate with CHINFO.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as specifically directed by CHINFO, the Branch Offices do not have responsibility or authority for community relations or internal relations.
</P>
<P>(5) Direct liaison between NAVINFOs and Naval District public affairs offices, Navy recruiters and other naval activities afloat and ashore is encouraged.
</P>
<P>(f) Areas covered by the respective offices are:
</P>
<P>(1) NAVINFO Atlanta: Alabama, the District of Columbia, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Maryland, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee, Virginia, and Southern West Virginia.
</P>
<P>(2) NAVINFO Boston: Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Rhode Island, and Vermont.
</P>
<P>(3) NAVINFO Chicago: Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Nebraska, North Dakota, Ohio, South Dakota, Wisconsin, and Northern West Virginia.
</P>
<P>(4) NAVINFO Dallas: Arkansas, Colorado, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas.
</P>
<P>(5) NAVINFO Los Angeles: Arizona, California, Idaho, Montana, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, Washington, and Wyoming.
</P>
<P>(6) NAVINFO New York: Connecticut, Delaware, New Jersey, New York, and Pennsylvania.
</P>
<P>(g) The Navy Public Affairs Centers (NAVPACENs) are located in Norfolk and San Diego. The centers have a primary mission of producing Navy stories for dissemination to the media through normal information channels.
</P>
<P>(1) The following tasks are included among the functions of the NAVPACENs.
</P>
<P>(i) Produce written, audio and photographic feature public information material about fleet and shore personnel, units and activities, as coordinated with and approved for policy and concept by the respective fleet and shore commander concerned.
</P>
<P>(ii) Serve as public affairs emergency reaction teams/resource personnel responsive to the requirements of the CNO and CHINFO, and when feasible and appropriate and as approved by CNO or CHINFO, serve as public affairs emergency reaction teams/resource personnel in support of Fleet Commanders.
</P>
<P>(iii) Develop feature material to support the long range goals and the immediate priorities of the Navy. Direct liaison is authorized with the Navy Recruiting Command, Recruiting Areas, Recruiting Districts, and other Commanders as appropriate to achieve this function.
</P>
<P>(iv) Perform such other tasks as may be assigned by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(2) NAVPACENs will have no public affairs news media responsibilities which conflict with the basic public affairs responsibilities of Fleet Commanders-in-Chief. Specifically, NAVPACENs are excluded from responding to news media queries, releasing news information, arranging news media embarkations, or any other day-to-day news media services concerning the respective fleets. These responsibilities remain with the Fleet Commander.
</P>
<P>(3) NAVPACENs have no direct responsibility or authority for community relations or internal relations and shall defer in these areas to the cognizant Naval District Commandant.
</P>
<P>(4) Direct liaison with Fleet Commanders-in-Chief and NAVINFOs is appropriate and authorized. As approved by the Fleet CINCs, direct liaison with forces afloat and shore activities under the Fleet CINCs is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) NAVPACENs will carry out their mission and functions in such a manner as not to interfere with the public affairs responsibilities of the District Commandants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 6389, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.4   Communication directly with private organizations and individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions from the public and requests from groups or individuals for pamphlets, photos, biographies, historical matter, etc., must be promptly answered. (32 CFR part 701, subparts A-D refers.)
</P>
<P>(b) Assistance within the command's capabilities should (and in some cases, must) be given. Where an established channel for obtaining the item exists, such as a publication stocked by the Superintendent of Documents (Government Printing Office), or photos, as explained in the subparagraph below, the requester may be directed to it. Under some circumstances, a charge may be made. (Consult part 701 or the command's Freedom of Information authority for details.) If a lengthy search, beyond the convenient manpower resources of the command, would be required, the requester may be offered the opportunity of examining the material at the command instead of copies being made.
</P>
<P>(c) If a request is refused, the reason must be fully and courteously explained, as required by part 701 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of released U.S. Navy photos may be purchased by the general public.
</P>
<P>(1) Photos made within the last 10 years may be purchased from the Naval Photographic Center. Information on the conditions of sale can be obtained by writing to the Commanding Officer, Naval Photographic Center, Naval Station, Washington, DC 20390.
</P>
<P>(2) Photos made more than 10 years prior to the current date may be purchased from the National Archives. Details are available from: Audio-Visual Branch National Archives and Records Service, General Services Administration, Washington, DC 20408.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6390, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.5   Taking of photos on board naval ships, aircraft and installations by members of the general public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Visitors will not be allowed to take photographic equipment on board a naval ship or aircraft or into a naval activity or to take photographs within a naval jurisdiction unless specially authorized by the officer in command or higher authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Guests of the Navy who wish to take photos within naval jurisdictions will be advised of areas where photography is permitted. An escort will be assigned to assure that security is maintained, unless photography is permitted throughout the ship, aircraft or installation, or the areas in which it is not permitted are appropriately guarded or secured.
</P>
<P>(c) If there is reason to believe that film exposed by a visitor or media photographer contains classified information, the film will be processed under Navy jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(1) Classified photos, if any, will be retained. All unclassified film will be returned to the owner.
</P>
<P>(2) When film exposed by civilian visitors or media representatives in sensitive areas is beyond the capability of the local command to process, it may be forwarded to the Commanding Officer, Naval Photographic Center, for processing. Any special processing instructions should be sent with the film.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.6   Releasing public information material to the media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Methods of releasing information:
</P>
<P>(1) Release at the seat of government and/or as approved by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(i) Overall responsibility for release of information rests with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs). The Chief of Information is responsible for coordinating with him releases of national and international interest (and in the case of audiovisual material of regional interest) and for arranging for local release of such material if considered appropriate by OASD(PA). Information of the above types and also information proposed for release at the seat of government, with the exception of “spot news,” as described in paragraph (b) of this section, following.
</P>
<P>(2) Releases by local commands:
</P>
<P>(i) News of purely local interest may be released by the command concerned. Higher and coordinating authorities (such as the District Commandant) will be informed, when appropriate, that the release has been made.
</P>
<P>(ii) News of national or other wide interest may be released by a local command under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), having approved a release, directs that it be issued by the command concerned.
</P>
<P>(B) An event of immediate and urgent news interest, such as a disasterous accident, occurs at the command, and emergency announcements must be made as delay in issuing information would be against the best interests of the Navy. The officer in command will make a “spot news” release of all appropriate information considered releasable.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Copies of spot news releases made (or a description if the announcement is made orally) will be forwarded promptly to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the situation is considered critical, the spot news release will be forwarded by telephone or message.
</P>
<P>(b) Means through which information is released to media:
</P>
<P>(1) Navy oriented information material (written, taped, motion picture, still photo) is regularly released to all media presumed to be interested.
</P>
<P>(2) Similar material is provided in response to query from a news media representative. The material may be produced by the Navy, or the newsman may be assisted in researching, filming, etc. himself.
</P>
<P>(3) Exclusive releases:
</P>
<P>(i) Information concerning naval activities may be provided on an exclusive basis only when a specific request or inquiry is received from one news media representative for material not requested by other media.
</P>
<P>(ii) In such cases, and assuming that the information is properly releasable, the following rules will apply:
</P>
<P>(A) If prior to the time information is given to the newsman making the original inquiry or request substantially similar inquiries or requests are received from other newsmen, the first inquirer will be so informed, and subsequent inquirers will be advised that a prior request has been received. None of the inquirers will be told the identity of the individuals or media who have placed these similar inquiries.
</P>
<P>(B) If not more than three similar requests are received, the information will be provided simultaneously to each inquirer.
</P>
<P>(C) If more than three requests for substantially the same information have been received before any are answered, inquirers will be advised as soon as possible that the information cannot be given on an exclusive or limited basis, and a general release covering the subject will be issued to all media.
</P>
<P>(4) News conferences:
</P>
<P>(i) A news conference is held when a command has something specific to announce to the press that cannot be handled in a news release or by phone call. A news conference should not be called just to get together with the press. A request from the press is also a reason for conducting a news conference. Special events, significant operations or serious accidents are frequent reasons for calling news conferences. If requested, spokesmen may be made available to the press for questions without specific subject matter in mind, but the press should be clearly informed of the nature of this meeting. Technically, this is not considered a news conference.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a news conference is held, it is essential that all interested media be invited to attend.
</P>
<P>(iii) A record of what is said should be kept. Ideally, the news conference should be tape recorded and a public affairs officer should be present.
</P>
<P>(iv) Official spokesmen will be prepared to answer questions in a frank and candid manner. If the answer would compromise military security, the inquirer should be so advised. If the answer is not known to the spokesman, he should say so and add that the matter will be checked and any available unclassified information provided later.
</P>
<P>(v) Newsmen are not normally asked to submit their questions in advance. If this is considered advisable, as in cases where highly technical answers may be required, the answers are prepared in advance and given to all attending newsmen (not just the questioner) at the news conference.
</P>
<P>(5) Interviews. These are similar to news conferences except that they involve a single newsman (who has usually requested the interview) and a single Navy spokesman.
</P>
<P>(i) Required procedures are essentially the same as for news conferences. However, a public affairs officer should be present only if desired by the person being interviewed. The interview may be taped, if the newsman agrees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without penalizing initiative displayed by a newsman in asking pertinent questions, care should be exercised by the naval spokesman not to make a major revelation of news material to a single media outlet in the course of a routine interview.
</P>
<P>(iii) If major areas of difficulty arise in the interview, the Chief of Information should be notified of them.
</P>
<P>(6) Background briefings; “Not for attribution”; or “Off the record.”
</P>
<P>(i) Since there is a possibility or risk of a misunderstanding arising in these briefings, it is important that all concerned understand and agree to the ground rules.
</P>
<P>(ii) In general, information will not be made public unless it can be openly attributed to the Navy and disseminated without reservation. Occasionally, a backgrounder may be helpful. An example is a briefing of embarked newsmen in advance of an operation, providing information which may not be reported until the operation is over. The purpose is to help the newsmen understand the operation while it is taking place.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.7   Radio and television.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Navy relationships with radio and TV representatives are of two types:
</P>
<P>(1) Dissemination to them of Navy produced tapes, photos, films, etc. (This is discussed in more detail in § 705.17).
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperation with them when they produce a program on a Navy subject. This is discussed in the paragraph following:
</P>
<P>(b) Requirement for approval by higher authority.
</P>
<P>(1) Commanding officers may:
</P>
<P>(i) Release audiovisual material which is spot news, as defined in § 705.6(a)(2)(ii) preceding, or is of purely local interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Participate in local community audiovisual projects of benefit to the Department of Defense or in the national interest.
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve one-time, one-station participation by personnel of their commands (as individuals) in programs of purely local interest.
</P>
<P>(2) All other audiovisual material originated by the Department of the Navy or requiring Navy cooperation must be approved by the Chief of Information, who will effect the necessary coordination and/or approval of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for assistance from non-governmental audiovisual media will be forwarded, with the maximum available details and an evaluation of the request, through the chain of command to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(ii) No direct coordination or contact between local naval commands and the Assistant Secretary of Defense (PA) is authorized unless specifically provided for by separate directives or correspondence.
</P>
<P>(c) Navy cooperation in productions by audiovisual media representatives (nongovernment).
</P>
<P>(1) The production or project must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with the goals and aims of the Department of Defense and/or be in the national interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Portray military operation, historical incidents, persons and places, in such a manner as to give a true portrayal and interpretation of military life.
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with accepted standards of dignity and propriety in the industry.
</P>
<P>(2) There will be no deviation from established safety standards.
</P>
<P>(3) Operational readiness shall not be impaired.
</P>
<P>(4) Official activities of military personnel assisting the production must be within the scope of normal military activities. Exceptions to this policy will be made only in unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(5) Diversion of ships, equipment, personnel and material resources from normal military locations or military operations will not normally be authorized for filming. Exceptions to such policy must be authorized by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), through the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(i) The production company concerned must reimburse the government for any extra expense involved. A strict accounting of the additional expenses incurred and charged to the production company must be maintained by the designated project officer. A copy of this accounting will be forwarded to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Naval material and personnel will not be employed in such a manner as to compete with commercial and private enterprise. In this regard, any person or agency requesting their use will furnish a noncompetitive certification.
</P>
<P>(7) Additional details on procedures will be found in DOD Instruction 5410.16.
</P>
<P>(8) In addition to cooperation requested by the media, commands will be alert to the advantages of providing Navy programming and/or encouraging participation by Navy personnel in local radio and TV programming. Examples are community forums, local talent shows, educational and religious programs, children's shows, sports programs, etc.
</P>
<P>(d) Participation by individual Navy personnel on radio or TV programs:
</P>
<P>(1) In general, such participation is encouraged if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) Dignified and considered in the interests of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatible with operational commitments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not in competition with the regular employment of professional performers.
</P>
<P>(2) The public affairs officer will screen requests for such appearances for members of his command to see that the programs are in good taste, and that neither the Navy nor its personnel are exposed to embarrassment for the sake of entertainment.
</P>
<P>(3) Approval of participation by Navy individuals:
</P>
<P>(i) Approval is not required for personnel attending audience participation broadcasts if they are selected at random from the audience.
</P>
<P>(ii) One-time, one-station participation of purely local interest may be approved by the officer in command concerned.
</P>
<P>(iii) If participation will be on a network (defined as more than one station, even if local) of if the same person or program is requested by two or more unrelated stations, approval by the Chief of Information must be obtained even if the show is of local interest only.
</P>
<P>(e) Use of official footage:
</P>
<P>(1) Use of official U.S. Navy stock film footage on TV broadcasts is not authorized without approval and clearance by the Chief of Information and the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) Use of Navy public information motion pictures cleared for TV is authorized and encouraged except that such films may be used on subscription or pay TV only when offered to the viewers at no cost.
</P>
<P>(3) Navy films will not be cut or portions duplicated for TV use in lieu of stock footage without prior approval by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Music clearance.</I> The Navy assumes no responsibility for clearance of music used on Navy recordings, transcriptions, or films not specially produced or authorized for radio or TV broadcast.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disclaimers.</I> A disclaimer is not necessary if a product is advertised on a program in which the Navy participates, but there must be no stated or implied endorsement of it by the Navy or by naval personnel appearing on the program.
</P>
<P>(h) Requests for courtesy prints of commercial television programs:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests will not be made directly to the producer or network concerned, but will be forwarded to the Chief of Information by the Navy requester.
</P>
<P>(2) These courtesy prints will be exhibited only under circumstances which cannot be construed as competitive with commercial ventures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.8   Motion pictures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules and procedures given in the preceding for TV will also apply to cooperation with commercial motion picture producers.
</P>
<P>(b) The Navy assists in the production of commercial, privately financed, nontheatrical motion pictures of institutional or of educational value to the public. They Navy will not:
</P>
<P>(1) Solicit their production.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide lists of subjects the Navy considers “desirable.”
</P>
<P>(3) State that the Navy will use a commercially produced film.
</P>
<P>(4) Imply endorsement of a product.
</P>
<P>(5) Permit the use of official Navy seals.
</P>
<P>(c) Navy assistance to motion pictures and all other audio-visual products produced by Navy contractors will be subject to the same rules and procedures that apply to other non-government producers. Audio-visual products produced by Navy contractors, with or without Navy assistance, will be submitted to the Chief of Information via the appropriate Navy headquarters activity for coordination with the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) for clearance for public release. They will be accompained by five copies of the script and a statement from the producer that costs were paid from corporate (vice contract) funds.
</P>
<P>(d) When a commercial film which has been produced with Navy cooperation is screened in a community, local commands can provide Navy exhibits for display in theater lobbies, coordinate displays of recruiting material, and arrange for personal appearances of Department of Defense and Department of the Navy military and civilian personnel, provided such cooperation is approved by the Chief of Information and the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6390, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.9   Availability of motion pictures to external audiences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public access.</I> Navy and Marine Corps general motion pictures and motion picture projects not previously cleared for public exhibition will require clearance by the Chief of Information or the Marine Corps Director of Information, as appropriate, prior to public viewing. Concurrent review of legal rights and instruments associated with the production will be carried out by Patent Counsel, Naval Air Systems Command (AIR-OOP). Cleared motion pictures may also be made available for free loan as determined by the individual services. In addition, cleared motion pictures may be provided for rent or sale through the National Audio-Visual Center, National Archives and Records Service (GSA), Washington, DC 20409.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign military training.</I> Motion pictures from the Navy inventory may be made available for foreign military training programs on approval by the Chief of Naval Operations. Classified motion pictures selected for such use will also require a security review by the Chief of Naval Operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.10   Still photography.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Policy and procedures on taking photos by the general public, given in § 705.5 apply also to media representatives.
</P>
<P>(b) Basic policy and procedures for still photos are set forth in the Manual of Naval Photography, OPNAVINST 3150.6D.
</P>
<P>(c) Authority to forbid photography:
</P>
<P>(1) On Navy property, the officer in command may forbid the taking of photographs and may confiscate film, reviewing it if it is suspected that classified material has been photographed. In such cases, all unclassified photos will be returned promptly to the photographer.
</P>
<P>(2) Navy personnel have no authority to confiscate film off Navy property. If, as in an accident, classified equipment is exposed which cannot be removed or covered, Navy representatives will ask news media photographers not to photograph it and will inform them of 18 U.S.C. 793(e), 795, 797, which makes it a criminal offense to photograph classified material. Navy personnel will not use force if media photographers refuse to cooperate, but will instead seek the assistance of appropriate civil authorities and/or the photographer's superior in recovering film or photographs presumed to be of classified nature.
</P>
<P>(3) If media photographers are uncooperative in regard to protection of classified material, an account of the matter will be forwarded to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(d) Release of photographs:
</P>
<P>(1) Most unclassified photographs of interest to the public may be released to news media. However, the rights of individuals photographed and special constraints such as those described in section 0403 of the Public Affairs Regulations must be taken into consideration before a decision is made to release a photograph. In addition, photos which might be harmful to recruiting or otherwise not be in the Navy's best interests will not be used unless this failure to release them constitutes suppression of legitimate news.
</P>
<P>(2) Photographs of strictly local interest can be made available by the command to local media without being submitted to review by higher authority.
</P>
<P>(3) If a feature type photo released locally is considered of possible interest elsewhere, because of its human interest or artistic merit, a single print should be forwarded to the Chief of Information, together with a notation of the distribution made.
</P>
<P>(4) Photographs of national interest:
</P>
<P>(i) “Spot news” photos may be released by a District Commandant or Fleet or Force Commander.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a photo has been released by a local command to national news media:
</P>
<P>(A) The original negative or transparency will be forwarded by the fastest available means to the Commanding Officer, Naval Photographic Center, Naval Station, Washington, DC 20390. Such forwarding will be in accordance with the Manual of Naval Photography, par. 0445, subparagraphs 3 and 4.
</P>
<P>(B) One print, a copy of the letter of transmittal, and the distribution list will be forwarded to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(C) Navy units with a Unified Command will forward the photos through Unified Command channels.
</P>
<P>(D) All other commands will forward the photos to the Chief of Information who will effect coordination with the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) and, if necessary, arrange for security review.
</P>
<P>(iii) Photography of research activities is normally considered to be of national interest.
</P>
<P>(iv) Still photographs of national news interest may be forwarded, unprocessed, for release by the Chief of Information by any command not subject to the authority of a Unified or Specified Commander. Such forwarding will be in accordance with paragraph 0445, subparagraph 3, of the Manual of Naval Photography. All available caption material will be forwarded with this unprocessed photography.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.11   Supplying photographs and services to other than Navy and Marine Corps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To avoid competition with civilian photographic organizations, naval aircraft will not be used to take photographs for, nor will photographs or mosaic maps be provided to any individuals, corporations, or agencies other than departments or agencies of the federal government, without specific permission from the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of natural catastrophe, or other circumstances where prompt action is required, the senior officer present may authorize a departure from the preceding paragraph. In all such cases, a report of the circumstances will be made to the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(c) This policy does not preclude releases to the media, news companies, and others in accordance with established procedures, or the sale of released photographs to private agencies or individuals under existing Department of Defense regulations and part 701, subparts A-D, Availability to the public of Department of the Navy Information and Records. Normally, requests by individuals for still photographs and motion picture photography for private use are forwarded to the Commanding Officer, Naval Photographic Center, Naval Station, Washington, DC 20390, for action. Procedures for the collection or authority for waiver of fees for service and material provided are set forth in Volume III, NAVCOMPT Manual, and part 701, subparts A-D.
</P>
<P>(d) Navy aerial photography released for sale to the public is transferred to the United States Department of the Interior. Inquirers regarding the purchase of this photography should be directed to Chief, Map Information Office, Geological Survey, Department of the Interior, Washington, DC 20025.
</P>
<P>(e) Navy training films suitable for sale to the public are transferred to the National Audio-Visual Center, National Archives and Records Service, General Services Administration, Washington, DC 20408. Inquires regarding the sale of Navy training films should be addressed to the National Audio-Visual Center.
</P>
<P>(f) This policy does not preclude releases to contractors and others properly engaged in the conduct of the Navy's business. However, when services are performed for other agencies of the government, and under certain conditions, for other military departments, the Navy Comptroller Manual prescribes that such are subject to reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(g) All private inquiries from foreign nationals should be returned, advising the addressee to contact his local U.S. Information Service officer for the desired materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.12   Print media.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for reprints of items published in national media will be addressed to the Chief of Information. Commands will be careful not to reproduce on their own authority any copyrighted material without advance permission from the copyright holder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.13   Commercial advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Navy encourages cooperation with advertisers. However, the layout, artwork and text of the proposed advertisement must be submitted to the Chief of Information for review and for clearance by other appropriate authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests from commercial enterprises (including those with Navy contracts) for use of Navy personnel, facilities, equipment or supplies for advertising purposes must be referred to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(c) Official Navy photos which have been cleared and are released for open publication may be furnished for commercial advertising, if properly identified and captioned. No photos will be taken exclusively for the use of an advertiser.
</P>
<P>(d) Navy cooperation in commercial advertising, publicity and other promotional activities will be based on the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) It must be in accordance with the provisions of 32 CFR part 721.
</P>
<P>(2) It must be in good taste and not reflect discredit on the Navy or the U.S. Government. Statements made must be matters of fact, without misleading information or other objectionable features.
</P>
<P>(3) It must not indicate that a product is used by the Navy to the exclusion of similar products offered by other manufacturers or appear to endorse or selectively benefit or favor (directly or indirectly) any private individual, sect, fraternal organization, commercial venture or political group, or be associated with solicitation of votes in a political election. It will not infer Navy responsibility for the accuracy of the advertiser's claims or for his compliance with laws protecting the rights of privacy of military personnel whose photographs, names or statements appear in the advertisement. It will neither indicate that a product has undergone Navy tests nor disclose data from any Navy tests which may have been made.
</P>
<P>(4) It may not promote the use of tobacco or alcohol.
</P>
<P>(e) Use of uniforms and naval insignias. These may be used provided it is done in a dignified manner.
</P>
<P>(f) Use of Naval personnel:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel may receive no compensation.
</P>
<P>(2) Personnel will not be inconvenienced or have their training or normal duties interrupted.
</P>
<P>(3) Written consent from the person concerned must be obtained before a photo may be used.
</P>
<P>(4) Navy civilians and military personnel on active duty may not use their position titles or ranks in connection with any commercial enterprise or endorsement of a commercial product. (Retired personnel and Reserves not on active duty may use their military titles in connection with commercial enterprises if this does not give rise to the appearance of sponsorship of the enterprise by the Navy or Department or in any way reflect discredit upon them.)
</P>
<P>(5) Testimonials from naval personnel are not banned, but the person giving the testimonial must not be specifically identified.
</P>
<P>(i) The use of name, initials, rank or rate of Navy personnel appearing in testimonial advertising is not permitted, but such expressions as, “says a Navy chief,” may be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Care will be taken to ensure that testimonials from Navy personnel are presented in such a way as to make clear that the views expressed are those of the individual and not of the Department of the Navy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.14   Embarkation of media representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Although this paragraph applies primarily to embarkation in ships, provisions which are applicable to embarkation on aircraft or visits to shore installations apply also to those situations.
</P>
<P>(2) See also § 705.37 on transportation of non-Navy civilians.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Invitations to embark.</I> (1) Invitations should be extended as far in advance as possible and inclusive information on the following should be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Type, scope and duration of operation or cruise.
</P>
<P>(ii) Communications, methods of press transmission, and charges, if any.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transportation arrangements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Approximate cost of meals and/or quarters, and the statement that the newsman will be expected to pay for these and other personal expenses incurred.
</P>
<P>(2) It should be made clear to the newsman that there may be limits on movement from one participating unit to another. If helicopters or highline transfers are to be used, their limitations and hazards should be explained.
</P>
<P>(3) On operations where security is critical, embarkation of newsmen may be made contingent to their agreement to submit copy for security review. Under such circumstances, the reason for the review will be made clear prior to embarkation, and every effort will be made to avoid any interpretation of such review as “censorship” or interference with freedom of the press.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Arrangements aboard ship.</I> (1) Where appropriate, a briefing should be held at the earliest convenient time after embarkation at which newsmen may meet the commanding officer and other key personnel and guests and at which previously supplied information is reviewed.
</P>
<P>(2) If feasible, an escort officer will be assigned to each newsman (or group of newsmen having similar requirements).
</P>
<P>(3) It should be reported in the ship's newspaper (and on radio and closed-circuit TV, if any) that newsmen will be embarked, giving their names and the media they represent.
</P>
<P>(4) If a correspondent is interested in home town material, personnel from his area should be contacted in advance, if possible, to determine if and when they would be available for interviews and photos.
</P>
<P>(5) Representatives of press associations and radio and TV networks will be embarked in the Exercise Commander's flagship or the Exercise Control ship, when possible. This ship should also control the ship-to-shore press radio and teletype (RATT).
</P>
<P>(6) When more than one representative from the same medium is embarked, an attempt should be made to have them located at separate vantage points.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communications.</I> (1) Every effort will be made to provide suitable communication facilities for newsmen embarked (including equipment and personnel, if feasible).
</P>
<P>(2) All persons embarked with permission of proper authority and accredited as correspondents are eligible to file press traffic, as authorized by the procedures set forth in Naval Telecommunication Procedures (NTP-9), “Commercial Communications.”
</P>
<P>(3) Navy radio or wire transmission facilities, where available, may be made available to news media (including accredited civilian photographers) when operational requirements permit, in accordance with instructions set forth by the Director of Naval Communications. This includes making live broadcasts or telecasts. (A live network broadcast or telecast must, however, be approved by the Chief of Information.)
</P>
<P>(4) Messages and instructions from editors and station managers to embarked newsmen will be handled as press traffic, as authorized in Naval Telecommunication Procedures (NTP-9).
</P>
<P>(5) Stations receiving press circuits will be authorized to receipt for press traffic without asking for time-consuming “repeats.”
</P>
<P>(6) Under normal circumstances, press copy will be transmitted on a first-come, first-served basis; however, newsmen will be informed that the prerogative of limiting the amount to be filed during any one period rests with the Exercise Commander.
</P>
<P>(7) If it becomes necessary for operational reasons for newsmen to pool copy, such messages shall be filed as “multiple address messages” or book messages, as appropriate, or when requested by the newsmen concerned.
</P>
<P>(8) If the locale of the exercise permits newsfilm and press mail to be flown ashore, flights should be scheduled on a high priority basis to connect with scheduled commercial air traffic. Operational aircraft as well as scheduled government air flights should be considered for delivery of television news film, radio tapes and photography to the nearest commercial communications facility.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voluntary submission of material by a newsman for security review.</I> When a review is not required but is sought by the newsman, no attempt will be made to delete or change any material, whether or not it appears critical of the Navy or of naval personnel. If any classified information is included, the newsman will be asked to delete it. In addition, his attention will be drawn to any inaccurate or possibly misleading statements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6390, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.15" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.15   Employment of Navy personnel as correspondents or staff members of civilian news media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the naval service on active duty or Navy civilian may act as correspondent for a news periodical or service, radio or TV station or network, or may work part-time for such an organization. The Secretary of the Navy will, however, be immediately informed, via the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(1) See section 0307 (par. 5), section 0308 (par. 4), and section 0309 (par. 3) of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations for regulations referring to personnel assigned to public affairs staffs receiving compensation for such work.
</P>
<P>(2) In time of war, only personnel assigned to public affairs billets and such other personnel as the Secretary of the Navy may authorize can act as correspondents for civilian media.
</P>
<P>(b) Military personnel on active duty and Navy civilians may not serve on the staff of a “civilian enterprise” newspaper published for personnel of a Navy installation or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.16" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.16   Navy produced public information material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Still photo</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The policy and procedures given for media produced still photos in § 705.10, apply to Navy produced photos.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Office of Information does not issue, nor have funds available for the purchases of, any photographic equipment or supplies for Navy commands. Details on the establishment of authorized laboratories and acquisition of equipment and supplies are given in the Manual of Navy Photography (OPNAVINST 3150.6D).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Photographic coverage of command events.</I> (i) If more than two photographers are required to cover a public event, consideration should be given to having them wear appropriate civilian attire.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel in uniform who are amateur photographers and who are attending the event as spectators will not be discouraged from taking photos.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unofficial photos taken by Navy personnel.</I> (i) The following regulations apply to Navy civilian employees and to Navy personnel in transit through a command, as well as to active duty personnel assigned to the command.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal cameras and related equipment are permitted on Navy ships, aircraft and stations at the discretion of the officer in command.
</P>
<P>(iii) An officer in command may screen all photos taken by naval personnel with personal cameras within the jurisdiction of the command to protect classified information or to acquire photos for official use, including public affairs. Photographs taken by bystanders at times of accident, combat, or similar significant events can be valuable for preparation of official report and public release. They should be collected for screening and review as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Amateur photographers should also be encouraged to volunteer the use of interesting or significant photos for public affairs use.
</P>
<P>(v) Photos made by naval personnel, with either personal cameras and film, Navy equipment and film, or any combination thereof, may be designated “Official Navy Photo” if it is considered in the best interests of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(A) All precautions will be taken to protect such film from loss or damage, and all unclassified personal photos not designated as “official” will be returned to the owner immediately after review.
</P>
<P>(B) When a photo taken by an individual who is not an official photographer is selected for public affairs release:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The photographer will receive credit for his work in the same manner as an official photographer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The original negative or transparency will be retained and assigned an official file number. It will then be handled like any other official Navy photograph.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) At least one duplicate negative or transparency of each unclassified personal photo which has been designated as “official” will be prepared and delivered to the photographer. A black-and-white print may also be prepared for the photographer's personal use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audiovisual.</I> (1) The Chief of Information releases TV featurettes directly to local TV stations and the Office of Information's Branch Offices (NAV INFO's). After such featurettes have been cleared for public release by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (PA) must approve, prior to commitment of funds, the initiation of Navy audiovisual productions intended for public release.
</P>
<P>(3) Motion picture film.
</P>
<P>(i) Film of major news value will be forwarded immediately, unprocessed, to the Commanding Officer, U.S. Naval Photographic Center. The package should be labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>News Film—Do Not Delay
</HD1>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, U.S. Naval Photographic Center (ATTN: CHINFO Liaison), Washington, DC 20374.
</FP-1>
<HD1>News Film—Do Not Delay</HD1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Commanding Officer of the Naval Photographic Center will be advised (with an information copy to the Chief of Information) of its forwarding, the subject, type and amount of footage, method of delivery, and estimated time of arrival in Washington.
</FP>
<P>(ii) The original negative of motion picture photography of feature value (photography which will not lose its timeliness over a reasonable length of time) will be forwarded to the Naval Photographic Center, and a copy of the forwarding letter will be sent to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fleet Home Town News Center (FHTNC).</I> (1) All public affairs officers will assure that appropirate news and photo releases on personnel of their commands are regularly sent to the Fleet Home Town News Center.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures, requirements and formats are contained in CHIN-FOINST 5724.1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6390, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.17   Participation guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section refer to participation by naval personnel and use of Navy facilities and material in events sponsored by nongovernment organizations except where otherwise stated.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the established responsibilities of local officers in command, these officers will continue to determine whether facilities, equipment and personnel within their cognizance may be provided for such programs (except in the Washington, DC area where the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) is the authorizing authority).
</P>
<P>(c) Officers in command will ensure that participation is appropriate in scope and type, and is limited to those occasions which are: In keeping with the dignity of the Department of the Navy, in good taste and in conformance with the provisions of part 721 of this chapter. The national, regional, state or local significance of the event and the agency sponsoring the event will be used as guides in determining the scope and type of Navy participation to be authorized.
</P>
<P>(d) Participation in community relations programs is authorized and encouraged to accomplish the aims and purposes as set forth in § 705.18 (following). Where mutually beneficial to the Department of Defense and the public, support authorized and provided is always subject to operational considerations, availability of requested support and the policy guidance provided herein.
</P>
<P>(e) Military personnel, facilities, and materiel may be used to support non-government public affairs programs when:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of such facilities, equipment and personnel will not interfere with the military mission or the training or operational commitments of the command.
</P>
<P>(2) Such programs are sponsored by responsible organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) Such programs are known to be nonpartisan in character, and there is no reason to believe that the views to be expressed by the participants will be contrary to established national policy.
</P>
<P>(f) The sponsoring organizations or groups will be clearly identified in all cases where naval personnel participate as speakers, or military support is furnished.
</P>
<P>(g) Public affairs programs sponsored by civilian organizations will not be cosponsored by a naval command unless expressly authorized by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(h) Participation will not normally be authorized in public events when the presence of military participants deprives civilians of employment. Officers in command will screen all requests for use of material and personnel in Navy-sponsored social functions held off military installations.
</P>
<P>(i) Navy participation and cooperation must not directly or indirectly endorse, or selectively benefit, or appear to endorse, benefit or favor, any private individual, group, corporation (whether for profit or nonprofit), sect, quasi-religious or ideological movement, fraternal, or political organization, or commercial venture, or be associated with the solicitation of votes in a political election.
</P>
<P>(1) Providing use of government facilities, such as transportation, housing, or messing, at government expense to private groups is normally interpreted as a selective benefit or favor and is not authorized as part of a community relations program. Therefore, such provisions are normally not authorized as part of a community relations program, even though certain uses of facilities may be authorized under directives on domestic action or other programs.
</P>
<P>(2) The above does not bar private groups from providing entertainment on base. However, the appearance must be for entertainment and not for fund-raising, or any political or promotional purpose.
</P>
<P>(j) Community relations programs must always be conducted in a manner free from any discrimination because of race, creed, color, national origin, or sex.
</P>
<P>(1) Navy participation in a public event is not authorized if admission, seating and other accommodations and facilities are restricted in a discriminatory manner.
</P>
<P>(2) Exceptions for participation may be made under certain circumstances for an ethnic or ideological group when they do not entertain any purpose of discriminating against any other group. Any such exceptions must be referred to the Chief of Information for consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) Support to nationally recognized veterans' organizations is authorized when the participation is in support of positive programs which are not in themselves discriminatory.
</P>
<P>(4) Navy support to nonpublic school activities is authorized when the participation is clearly in support of educational programs or Navy recruiting.
</P>
<P>(5) Commands should ensure minority participation in all community relations activities and events, as appropriate. This includes but is not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the minority community is aware of the procedure for obtaining Navy support for community events and that they are appraised of the use of Navy demonstration teams, units, and speakers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Encourage Navy involvement in, and attention to, local minority community events.
</P>
<P>(iii) Continue to cultivate a rapport with key members of all minority communities.
</P>
<P>(k) Participation is not authorized if there is fund raising of any type connected with the event, except as provided for in § 705.34.
</P>
<P>(l) No admission charge may be levied on the public solely to see an Armed Forces demonstration, unit, or exhibit.
</P>
<P>(1) When admission is charged, the Armed Forces activity must not be the sole or primary attraction.
</P>
<P>(2) A general admission charge need not be considered prohibitory to Navy participation, but no specific or additional charge may be made because of Navy participation.
</P>
<P>(3) Participation shall be incidental to the event except for programs of a patriotic nature, celebration of national holidays, or events which are open to the general public at no charge for admission.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to the Navy's Blue Angel Flight Demonstration Team or to the Navy Band and other special bands engaged in authorized concert tours conducted at no additional cost to the government.
</P>
<P>(m) Some participation in or support of commercially sponsored programs on audio or visual media is allowable. See §§ 705.7 and 705.8.
</P>
<P>(n) Some participation which supports commercial advertising, publicity and promotional activities or events is allowable. See section 0405, par. 3 of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations.
</P>
<P>(o) Navy speakers may be provided for certain events at which other forms of Navy participation may not be appropriate. See section 0604, par. 8 of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations.
</P>
<P>(p) When participation is in the mutual interest of the Navy and the sponsor of the event, participation will be authorized at no additional cost to the government. Additional costs to the government (travel and transportation of military personnel, meals and quarters, or standard per diem allowances, etc.) will be borne by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(q) Department of Defense policy prohibits payment by the Armed Forces for rental of exhibit space, utilities, or janitorial costs. Other exceptions may be given under unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(r) Navy participation in professional sports events and post-season bowl games will frequently be authorized at no additional cost to the government, will emphasize Joint Service activity when possible, and must support recruiting programs. Chief of Information approval is required.
</P>
<P>(s) Navy participation in public events shall be authorized only when it can be reasonably expected to bring credit to the individuals involved and to the Armed Forces and their recruiting objectives. Naval personnel will not be used in such capacities as ushers, guards, parking lot attendants, runner or messengers, baggage handlers or for crowd control, or in any installations.
</P>
<P>(t) Maximum advantage of recruiting potential will be taken at appropriate events for which Navy participation has been authorized.
</P>
<P>(u) Navy support will not normally be authorized for commercially-oriented events such as shopping center promotions, Christmas parades, and other such events clearly sponsored by, or conducted for the benefit of commercial interests. However, this policy does not preclude participation of Navy recruiting personnel and their organic equipment, materials and exhibits so long as their participation is not used to stimulate sales or increase the flow of business traffic or to give that appearance. Requests for exceptions will be considered on a case-by-case basis by the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(v) Questions as to appropriateness of Navy participation, or as to existing Navy and OASD (PA) policy, may be referred to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(w) Procedures for requesting participation are addressed in § 705.21.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6390, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.18   Authority and coordination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each naval command will coordinate its community relations program with the senior authority having responsibility for community relations in its area (District Commandant, Unified Commander, or other).
</P>
<P>(b) Within policy limitations outlined in this section, the command receiving a request for Navy participation, and processing the required resources, has the authority to process the request and provide the support requested.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for support exceeding local capability, or requiring approval from higher authority, or requiring an exception to policy will be referred as directed in § 705.21 for determination.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) has the overall responsibility for the Department of Defense community relations program. Civilian sponsors should be advised to address requests for approval of the following types of programs directly to the Director of Community Relations, Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301:
</P>
<P>(1) National and international events, including conventions, except those taking place in overseas areas which are primarily of internal concern to Unified Commanders.
</P>
<P>(2) Events outside the United States which have an interest and impact extending beyond the Unified Command areas, or which require assistance from outside the command area.
</P>
<P>(3) Public events in the Washington, DC area.
</P>
<P>(4) Aerial, parachute, or simulated tactical demonstrations held in the public domain, except those held in areas assigned to overseas Unified Commands.
</P>
<P>(5) Aerial reviews on military installations within the United States if the review involves more than one Service.
</P>
<P>(6) Programmed national sports, professional athletic events, formal international competitions, and contests between a Navy and professional team in the public domain. See section 0605, par. 18 of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations.
</P>
<P>(7) Performing Navy units appearing on regional or national television.
</P>
<P>(8) Overall planning for Armed Forces Day (not including local activities).
</P>
<P>(9) Granting exceptions to policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Overseas, Unified Commanders are designated to act for and on behalf of the Secretary of Defense in implementing community relations programs within their command areas and in granting any exceptions to policy or regulations. This authority may be delegated.
</P>
<P>(1) Policy, direction and guidance for Unified Command community relations programs are provided to Navy components of these commands by the Unified Commander concerned.
</P>
<P>(2) Authority of the Commander-in-Chief, Pacific extends to planning and execution of community relations programs in Alaska and Hawaii. Participation in events held in Alaska and Hawaii will be governed by the same principles as policies applicable to other states.
</P>
<P>(3) Community relations programs and events taking place within the United States which have an effect on a Unified or Specified Command as a whole, or are otherwise of significant concern to the Unified Command, require complete coordination through appropriate channels between the Unified Command and naval activities concerned.
</P>
<P>(4) Unified Commanders overseas requiring Navy support for a community reltaions program or participation in a public event should coordinate their requirements with the appropriate Navy component command.
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretary of the Navy will plan and execute Navy community relations programs and approve Navy participation in public events not otherwise reserved or assigned to the Secretary of Defense. This authority may be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.19   Financing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The financial requirements for community relations purposes will be kept to the minimum necessary to accomplish Department of Defense objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) Costs of participation will normally be at government expense for the following types of events and programs when they are in the primary interest of the Department of Defense:
</P>
<P>(1) Public observances of national holidays.
</P>
<P>(2) Official ceremonies and functions.
</P>
<P>(3) Speaking engagements.
</P>
<P>(4) Programmed, scheduled tours by Navy information activity support units (e.g., an exhibit from the Navy Exhibit Center) when this method of reaching special audiences is considered by the Secretary of the Navy to be the most effective and economical way of accomplishing a priority public affairs program.
</P>
<P>(5) Tours by units (e.g., the Navy Band) for which appropriated funds have been specifically provided.
</P>
<P>(6) Support of recruiting.
</P>
<P>(7) Events considered to be in the national interest, or in the professional, scientific, or technical interests of the Navy or Department of Defense, when approved by the Secretary of Defense or the overseas Unified Commander, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Navy participation in all other public events will normally be at no additional costs to the government.
</P>
<P>(1) Continuing type costs to the government which would have existed had the Navy not participated in the event will not be reimbursed by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) Transportation costs may be excluded from the costs to be borne by the sponsor when the transportation can be accomplished by government aircraft on a normal training flight or opportune airlift.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.20   Use of Navy material and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The loan of equipment and permission to use facilities will be dependent on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The program support must be within the command's public affairs responsibility.
</P>
<P>(2) The loan of the equipment must not interfere with the military mission of the command.
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment must be available within the command or obtainable from another Navy command in the local area.
</P>
<P>(4) The event must be of the type for which participation is considered appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) It must not be in any direct or implied competition with a commercial source.
</P>
<P>(6) There must be no potential danger to persons or private property that could result in a claim against the government. Safety requirements will be observed.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of open mess facilities will be permitted only under one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Incident to the holding of a professional or technical seminar at the command.
</P>
<P>(2) Incident to an official visit to the command by a civic group.
</P>
<P>(3) Navy League Council luncheon or dinner meetings (not to exceed one per quarter per group).
</P>
<P>(4) Incident to group visits by the Boy Scouts of America, Boys Clubs of America, the Navy League Sea Cadets (by virtue of their federal charters), Girl Scouts and the Navy League Shipmates, and a few representative adult leaders.
</P>
<P>(c) Use of the official Navy flag will be in accordance with SECNAVINST 10520.2C and of official emblem in accordance with OPNAVINST 5030.11B.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests not meeting the criteria cited here, but which are considered by the officer in command to have merit, may be referred to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.21" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.21   Requests for Navy participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Decisions will be made on a case-by-case basis. Events which are inappropriate for one type of participation may be entirely appropriate for another type of participation. A positive and flexible approach should be employed.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests by civilian organizations for Navy participation in programs or events they sponsor should be addressed to the nearest naval installation and should be evaluated and authorized at that level if possible. Request exceeding local resoures, or requiring authorization from higher authority, should be forwarded through appropriate channels.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for Armed Forces participation in public events are to be submitted on official request forms (§§ 705.33, 705.34 and 705.36) by the sponsors of events occurring outside a command's area of direct knowledge and local capability, or involving a type or level of participation unavailable locally, or requiring approval of higher authority.
</P>
<P>(d) Fact sheets expounding upon normally requested assets are enclosed in §§ 705.33, 705.34 and 705.36 and may be reproduced and distributed locally.
</P>
<P>(e) The official request form is to be used on all requests referred to the Chief of Information and to the Office of Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.22" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.22   Relations with community groups.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Naval commands will cooperate with and assist community groups within their capabilities, to the event authorized by current instructions, and will participate in their activitis to the extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) Navy commands will encourage membership of personnel in community organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) Officers in command will withhold approval of requests from community groups, organizations or individuals whose purposes are unclear, pending advice from the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(d) Commands may make facilities, less housing and messing, available to community groups, at no expense to the government, when it is in the best interest of the Navy to do so. Mess facilities may not be used for meetings of civic groups or other asociations unless all the members of the group concerned are authorized participants of the mess as prescribed in NAVPERS 15951, except as provided below:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests to make open mess facilities available to professional or technical seminars or civic groups meeting in connection with an official visit to the activity may be submitted to the officer in charge of the mess, or other appropriate authority. Such requests may be approved when it is shown that the inspection of the activity or the holding of a professional seminar is of principal importance and the use of mess facilities is incidental thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) Because of the exceptional nature of the Navy League, as recognized by the Secretary of the Navy, open mess facilities may be used for luncheon or dinner meetings of Navy League Councils, but not more often than once per quarter per group.
</P>
<P>(e) Relations with Industry and Labor in the Community (refer to SECNAVINST 5370.2F and DOD Directive 5500.7):
</P>
<P>(1) Relations with Navy contractors and with industry and business in general are the responsibility of the officer in command, with the assistance of his public affairs officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Navy commands will cooperate with industry and its representatives in planning and executing community relations projects of mutual interest.
</P>
<P>(i) Visits to commands will be scheduled for industrial and employee groups under the same conditions as for other civilian groups.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor may be identified in a news release, exhibit, or the like whenever the major responsibility for the product can be clearly and fairly credited to him. In such cases, both the manufacturer's name for the product and the Navy designation of it will be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Commands will not solicit, nor authorize others to solicit, contractors to provide advertising, contributions, donations, subscriptions, etc. Where there is a legitimate need for industrial promotion items, such as scale models, the command will contact the Chief of Information for advice as to the procedure for requesting procurement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Similarly, if Defense contractors wish to distribute information material through official Navy channels, the Office of Information will be queried as to the desirability and feasibility of undertaking the desired distribution.
</P>
<P>(v) Visits to contractor facilities are governed by the provisions of DOD Manual 5520.22-M (Industrial Security Manual for Safeguarding Classified Information). If nationally known press representatives will be involved, prior approval must be obtained both from the contractor (via the Chief of Information) and from the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(3) Commands will maintain the same relationship with labor unions as with other community groups and will not take action in connection with labor disputes. Personnel inadvertently or incidentally involved in labor disputes will consult officers in command for guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) Emergency Assistance to the Community:
</P>
<P>(1) Navy commands will offer and provide assistance to adjacent communities in the event of disaster or other emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief of Information will be advised immediately of action when taken, and copies of subsequent reports to the Chief of Naval Operations will be forwarded to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(3) Navy commands will participate in planning by local Civil Defense officials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.23" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.23   Guest cruises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> (1) The embarkation of civilian guests in Navy ships is appropriate in the furtherance of continuing public awareness of the Navy and its mission.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of embarkations for public affairs purposes are (but not limited to): Individuals, community service clubs, civic groups, the Navy League, and trade and professional associations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Embarkation of media representatives on assignment is discussed in § 705.14.
</P>
<P>(iii) Other categories may be established by the Secretary of the Navy, subject to the approval of the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) It has also been demonstrated that the occasional embarkation on cruises of families and personal guests of naval personnel has contributed materially to the morale of the family circle and has instilled in each individual a sense of pride in his ship. For further information see OPNAVINST 5720.2G.
</P>
<P>(3) Embarkations should be conducted within the framework of regularly scheduled operations; underway periods solely to accommodate guests are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(4) Commander-in-Chief, Pacific Fleet, Commander-in-Chief, Atlantic Fleet, Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces Europe, Commander Military Sealift Command (and their subordinate commands if so designated), Chief of Naval Education and Training, and District Commandants may authorize the embarkation of female civilians for daylight cruises. Embarkation of civilians for overnight cruises must be authorized by the Chief of Naval Operations via the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(5) All guest visits are normally authorized on an unclassified basis.
</P>
<P>(6) In all instances, due precautions must be taken for the safety of the guests. (See section 0403, pars. 6(b) and, 6(e), of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations, for procedures to be followed in the case of death of, or injury to, civilians embarked on naval ships.)
</P>
<P>(7) For further information on policy, procedures, and eligibility criteria, see OPNAVINST 5720.2G.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> (1) Authority to establish procedures for the conduct of the embarkation of guests for public affairs purposes (including the Secretary of the Navy Guest Cruise and Guest of the Navy Cruise programs, which are discussed in § 705.24) is vested in the Secretary of the Navy. This authority is limited only insofar as the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the commanders of the Unified and Specified Commands (and their component commanders, if so designated) have the authority to use Navy ships to embark individuals other than news media representatives for public affairs purposes.
</P>
<P>(i) Public affairs embarkations originating within the geographical limits of the Unified Command will be approved by and coordinated with the commanders of such commands. This authority may be delegated. Requests for such embarkations originating with the subordinate fleet or force command of a Unified Command will be submitted via the operational chain of command, to the appropriate commander of the Unified Command, unless delegated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for public affairs embarkations originating from any Navy source other than the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, or the Unified and Specified Commanders or their subordinate commands, will be submitted to the Chief of Information, who will effect coordination with the Chief of Naval Operations and/or the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) When guests debark in a foreign port which is in the geographic area of a Unified Command other than that in which the cruise originated, the Chief of Information will coordinate travel by obtaining concurrence of all appropriate commanders and the approval of the Chief of Naval Operations, and the Assistant secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Officers in command to whom authority to embark guests for public affairs purposes is delegated will make maximum use of this authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary of the Navy Guest Cruise and Guest of the Navy Cruise Programs.</I> (1) The objective of these two programs is: To expose top-level and middle-level opinion leaders in the fields of business, industry, science, education, and labor to the operation of the U.S. Navy, in order that they may gain a better understanding of its capabilities and problems, the complicated nature of modern sea-based equipment, and the high levels of responsibility and training required of Navy men and women.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to policy contained in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the following policy guidelines apply to the conduct of the Secretary of the Navy Guest Cruise and the Guest of the Navy Cruise Programs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Secretary of the Navy Guest Cruise Program.</I> (A) Only aircraft carriers and cruisers will be used.
</P>
<P>(B) Cruises will be conducted once each quarter on each coast, contingent upon the availability of appropriate ships.
</P>
<P>(C) The optimum number of guests is 15.
</P>
<P>(D) Guests will be drawn from top-level executives and leaders who have not had previous exposure to the Navy. “Previous exposure” is defined as active or reserve service in the U.S. Navy or U.S. Marine Corps within the last 10 years; membership in the Navy League or any other Navy-oriented organization; or participation in a cruise on a U.S. Navy ship in the last 10 years.
</P>
<P>(E) Whenever feasible, Secretary of the Navy Guests will be greeted by CINCLANTFLT or CINCPACFLT, or in their absence by the SOPA. Comprehensive unclassified briefings will be given dealing with the Navy's mission, fleet operations, and current problems.
</P>
<P>(F) Cruises will vary in length from 3 to 7 days, when appropriate, to conform with the operating schedule of the ship.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guests of the Navy Cruise Program.</I> (A) All types of ships will be used. This will include carriers when available, after selection of a cruise for the Secretary of the Navy Guest Cruise Program.
</P>
<P>(B) Guest of the Navy Cruise guests will be drawn from middle-level executives and leaders who have not had previous exposure to the Navy. Guests should include persons who have direct impact on recruiting, such as secondary school principals, guidance counselors, coaches and teachers.
</P>
<P>(C) Cruises of relatively short duration (3 to 5 days) are preferred, although cruises up to 7 days are authorized. Protracted cruises will not be approved except for special circumstances.
</P>
<P>(D) Invitations will be extended by the District of Commandants. Invitations will include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Statement of the purpose of the Guest of the Navy Cruise Program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Authorization for embarkation and, if applicable, for COD flights, with instructions for reporting on board.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Name and rank of the commanding officer and, if applicable, name and rank of embarked flag officer.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A caution that guests should not accept the invitation unless they are in good health.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Statement to the effect that the tempo of operations might cause changes in scheduling which could result in the invitation having to be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(E) The following necessary information may be included separately with a letter of invitation: Recommended wardrobe, passport and immunization requirements, availability of emergency medical and dental facilities, ship's store and laundry facilities, statement that guest's use of a camera will be authorized subject to certain restrictions, and a listing of those restrictions. In addition, the following statement will be included with each invitation, or form part of the attached information sheets:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The Department of the Navy has no specific authority to use its funds to defray or reimburse any personal expenses of a navy guest. As a result, the Department of the Navy cannot provide you with transportation to the port of embarkation or from the port of debarkation back to your home. Your expenses for meals will be quite nominal while you are on board a naval ship or facility. You should make provision for any extraordinary expense which may arise. For example, if a personal or other emergency arises which necessitates your returning home during the cruise, you should be prepared to take commercial transportation at your own expense from the most distant point on the cruise itinerary.
</P>
<P>Navy ships and aircraft, by their very nature, present certain hazards not normally encountered on shore. These hazards require persons on board to exercise a high degree of care for their own safety.
</P>
<P>Acceptance of this invitation will be considered your understanding of the above arrangements and limitations.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicable to both programs.</I> (A) Guests will provide their own transportation from home to the ship and return, and must reimburse the Navy for living and incidental expenses while embarked so that the program may be conducted at no additional expense to the government.
</P>
<P>(B) Because the number of billets available to accommodate all of the potential guests is limited, the guest's opportunity to communicate his experience to his associates must be considered. For this reason, one of the criteria for selection of guests will be their level of activity in civic, professional, and social organizations. In nominating and selecting guests, effort will be made to ensure that minority citizens are included as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) Atlantic cruises will be made on ships operating between East Coast ports, or between CONUS and the U.S. Caribbean ports of San Juan, PR, or Charlotte Amalie (St. Thomas), Virgin Islands. Pacific cruises will be made on ships operating between West Coast ports: Between CONUS and ports in Hawaii, Alaska, Mexico or Canada; or between ports within Hawaii or Alaska.
</P>
<P>(D) Guests will be informed of security restrictions. Unclassified photography should be permitted on board, as pictures renew guests' feelings of identification with a ship. Guests will be advised of areas, however, where photography is prohibited, and security regulations will be courteously but firmly enforced.
</P>
<P>(E) Guests will be billeted in officers quarters and normally subsisted in the wardroom. It is not necessary that guests be assigned individual rooms. Billeting with ship's officers promotes mutual understanding, and guests feel more closely identified with the ship's company. They will be invited to dine at least once in each mess on board, if the length of the cruise permits. Guests will be encouraged to speak freely and mingle with the crew.
</P>
<P>(F) Guests will be accorded privileges of the cigar mess commissioned officers mess (open) ashore—with the exception of package store privileges—and the use of ship's or Navy Exchange laundry and tailor shops. Other Navy Exchange privileges will be limited to purchase of items for immediate personal use.
</P>
<P>(G) Only emergency medical and dental care will be provided and then only where civilian care is not conveniently available.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In the event of injury to civilians embarked in Navy ships and aircraft or visiting naval activities, commanding officers will notify the Chief of information, the appropriate Commandant, and operational commanders, by message, of the injury and action taken.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the event of an emergency not covered by Navy Regulations, the facts and circumstances will be reported immediately to the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(H) Guests may be allotted time for side trips at their own expense when an itinerary includes naval activities or ports adjacent to recognized points of interest.
</P>
<P>(I) As a souvenir of the cruise, it is suggested that guests be provided with a photograph of the ship, perhaps suitably inscribed by the commanding officer prior to debarkation.
</P>
<P>(J) Any publicity will be limited to that initiated by the participants. Navy-sponsored publicity will be avoided unless sought by the participants. At the same time, media inquiries or inquiries from the general public will be answered fully, the purposes of the cruise program outlined and the fact stressed that no cost to the government is incurred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.24" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.24   Exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Navy exhibits are representations or collections of naval equipment, models, devices and information and orientation material placed on public display for information purposes before audiences at conventions, conferences, seminars, demonstrations, exhibits, fairs, or similar events. Also included are general purpose displays in public buildings or public locations. Museums also occasionally request a Navy exhibit on a permanent or temporary loan basis.
</P>
<P>(1) Exhibits may be displayed in any appropriate location or event (including commercially owned spaces such as shopping centers, malls, etc.) provided it is clearly established that such areas are places the general public frequents and that the exhibit is not for the purpose of drawing the public to that location, and that it is determined that participation is in the best interests of the Department of Defense and the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Exhibits will be used for the following purposes only:
</P>
<P>(1) To inform the public of the Navy's mission and operations.
</P>
<P>(2) To disseminate technical and scientific information.
</P>
<P>(3) To assist recruiting of personnel for Navy military service and for civilian employment in the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(c) Exhibit requests and procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for Navy exhibits, other than local exhibits may be forwarded to the Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center via the local Navy recruiter with an information copy to the Chief of Information. The primary mission of the Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center is to support local Navy recruiters. Requests for exhibits for community relations events will be considered favorably only when not in conflict with recruiting requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for exhibits must be submitted well in advance of their proposed dates of use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for mobile exhibits requiring tractor-trailer transportation should be forwarded prior to November 15th previous to the year desired. A tour itinerary of mobile exhibits will then be established for the following year.
</P>
<P>(iii) The period of time for which an exhibit is authorized will be determined by the nature of the event and the type of exhibit (e.g., equipment from local resources used for a local celebration would normally not be exhibited for more than three days; but, a formal exhibit at an exposition might remain for the duration of the event).
</P>
<P>(2) The office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) is the approving authority for Navy exhibits in events of international or national scope, or those requiring major coordination among the Armed Forces, or with other agencies of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(i) All Navy activities will forward such requests to the Chief of Information for coordination with the OASD (PA).
</P>
<P>(ii) Subordinate commands of a Unified Command will forward exhibit requests of the above types to the Unified Commander concerned, via the chain of command.
</P>
<P>(3) The official OASD(PA) Request Form for Armed Forces Participation will be used. See Armed Forces Request Form, § 705.36.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for exceptions to policy for exhibit displays should be forwarded to the Officer in Charge, Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center.
</P>
<P>(5) Policy guidance on costs is defined in § 705.19.
</P>
<P>(6) Occasionally, a project officer will be assigned to coordinate use of the exhibit with the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(i) Project officers are normally commissioned officers, equivalent civilian personnel, local recruiters or reservists, who have been assigned the responsibility of coordinating Service participation in a special event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The project officer should establish immediate liaison with the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(iii) The project officer should assist in determining the actual location of the exhibit, make arrangements for assembling and disassembling the exhibit material, and supervise these operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) The project officer will ensure Navy and Department of Defense policies are followed, and will coordinate local news releases concerning Navy participation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.25   Navy Exhibit Center.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The center is a field activity of the Chief of Information and is located in the Washington Navy Yard. Its primary mission is to produce, transport and display U.S. Navy exhibits throughout the United States. It also facilitates assignments of Navy combat artists and, additionally, produces exhibits for its own tours and for short-term loans to naval commands.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.26" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.26   Exhibit availability report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A center index of exhibits which are available at the local level in each Naval District is maintained by the exhibit center. To achieve maximum effectiveness for an overall integrated program, an up-to-date registry of all exhibits is required.
</P>
<P>(b) A current inventory of exhibits headquartered in Washington, DC, and managed by the Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center for scheduling purposes may be obtained by writing to: Officer-in-Charge, Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center, Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 705.27-705.28" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 705.27-705.28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.29" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.29   Navy Art Collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The U.S. Navy has continued to record its military actions, explorations, launchings, etc., in fine art form since before World War II. The present Navy Combat Art Collection contains over 4,000 paintings and sketches. A significant number of new works is being added each year. The combat artists of World War II have been replaced by civilian artists who witness today's Navy in action, record their impressions, and donate their works of art to the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(1) The voluntary services of most of the artists are arranged through the Navy Art Cooperation and Liaison Committee (NACAL) which operates in close cooperation with the Salmagundi Club of New York City and the Municipal Art Department of the City of Los Angeles.
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief of Information has established liaison with the Salmagundi Club in order to maintain a continuing historical record of the Navy. Organized in 1871, the Salmagundi Club is the oldest club of professional artists in the United States. The Club appointed a Navy Art Cooperation and Liaison (NACAL) Committee to advise the Navy on art matters and to nominate artists for assignment to paint Navy activities through the world. The Chief of Information reviews the nominations, and issues SECNAV invitational travel orders to each artist approved.
</P>
<P>(3) The following policy pertains:
</P>
<P>(i) All finished art portraying the Navy and produced by Navy artists on active duty for that purpose and by guest artists working under invitational travel orders becomes the property of the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Civilian artists selected to paint Navy life through cooperation of a private sponsor and the Chief of Information may be authorized by the Chief of Information or the Office of the Secretary of Defense to retain their works.
</P>
<P>(iii) Paintings, sketches, drawings and other forms of artwork will not be accepted by the Department of the Navy unless all reproduction rights are surrendered and unless they become the permanent property of the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(iv) Requests for reproduction of combat art for use in advertising or publication will be directed to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(b) Responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(1) The Chief of Information exercises supervision and control of the Navy Art Program and issues SECNAV invitational travel orders and letters of invitation to artists selected for assignment.
</P>
<P>(2) When directed by the Chief of Information or other appropriate Navy authority, a NACAL project officer will perform the following functions:
</P>
<P>(i) Act as a local liaison officer for the NACAL Program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assist NACAL artists on assignments within his area.
</P>
<P>(3) The Curator Navy Combat Art Center, in coordination with the Chief of Information, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Plan trips for the NACAL Program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approve requests for art displays.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide logistic support for the maintenance, storage, shipment and display of the Navy Combat Art Program.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for art displays should be forwarded to the Director, Community Relations Division, Office of Information, Navy Department, Washington, DC 20350.
</P>
<P>(d) Exhibition of Navy Art:
</P>
<P>(1) Operation Palette I” is a carefully selected group of 75 to 100 combat art paintings depicting Navy and Marine Corps activities during World War II. The schedule of “Operation Palette I” is promulgated by the Officer-in-Charge, Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center and supervised by the Chief of Information, with the concurrence of District Commandants. Schedules are arranged so that the exhibition travels within a particular Naval District for several months at a time. District Commandants designate project officers for each city where “Operation Palette I” is exhibited. The project officer makes all arrangements, including suitable location, publicity and personnel to assist the chief petty officer who travels with the collection. Promotional kits are provided by the Officer-in-Charge, Navy Recruiting Exhibit Center. Requests for exhibitions are not desired, since the collection always travels on a prearranged tour.
</P>
<P>(2) “Operation Palette II” consists of 75 to 100 paintings representative of the worldwide operations of the contemporary Navy and Marine Corps * * * the Navy today * * *, and travels on prearranged tours similar to “Operation Palette I.”
</P>
<P>(3) Other exhibitions of original paintings from the Combat Art Collection may be scheduled on request by either Navy commands or civilian art groups. Requests should be directed to the Director, Community Relations Division, Office of Information, Navy Department, Washington, DC 20350 and contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The occasion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inclusive dates. (Not less than 10 days or more than 90 days sub-custody.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Expected attendance and type of publicity planned.
</P>
<P>(iv) Amount of space allotted.
</P>
<P>(v) If Navy-sponsored show, certification that 24-hour security will be provided for the paintings while in custody.
</P>
<P>(vi) If civilian-sponsored show, statement that transportation and insurance requirements will be met. (Physical security must be available for exhibit, with an attendant on duty during open hours and locked building or other means of protecting exhibit when closed to the public.)
</P>
<P>(e) Navy Combat Art Lithograph Program:
</P>
<P>(1) This program makes available full color, high quality lithographs which are faithful reproductions of the original artwork on quality paper of selected works of art from the Navy Art Collection.
</P>
<P>(2) Additional information and ordering details are contained in CHINFO NOTICE 5605, which is issued periodically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.30" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.30   Aerospace Education Workshop.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This program is devised by the Navy to give students at colleges and universities conducting teacher training a comprehensive background in the field of aviation. The teachers in turn integrate this knowledge into their education programs.
</P>
<P>(b) Appropriate commands are encouraged to provide assistance to educational institutions sponsoring the workshop program: <I>Provided,</I> That such support does not interfere with the command's primary mission and that such cooperation involves no additional expense to the government.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief of Naval Operations has cognizance of all assistance provided by the Navy to all Aerospace Education Workshop program. A summary report of local command participation in Aerospace projects will be submitted to the Chief of Naval Operations via the appropriate chain of command. Information copies of such reports will be sent to Commander, Navy Recruiting Command and the Chief of Information. For further information see OPNAVINST 5726.1C.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.31" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.31   USS Arizona Memorial, Pearl Harbor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Limited space and the desirability of keeping the Memorial simple and dignified require the following practices to be observed:
</P>
<P>(1) Rendering of formal ceremonies on the USS Arizona Memorial will be confined to Memorial Day.
</P>
<P>(2) Observances on December 7, or any other date, at the request of individuals or organizations, will consist of simple wreath-laying, or other appropriate expressions conducted with dignity.
</P>
<P>(3) Plaques intended for display on the Memorial may be presented by headquarters of national organizations only. Plaques from regional, state or local organizations cannot be accepted. Only one plaque will be accepted from any organization. The overall size of the plaques, including mounting, must be no larger than 12 inches square.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commandant, Fourteenth Naval District, is designated to coordinate all formal or informal observances involving the Memorial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.32" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.32   Aviation events and parachute demonstrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Armed Forces aircraft and parachutists may be authorized to participate in appropriate in public events which meet basic Department of Defense criteria. This participation may be one of the officially designated military flight or parachute demonstration teams, flyover by aircraft, a general demonstration of capabilities by aircraft, or the static display of aircraft.
</P>
<P>(b) Events which are appropriate for aviation participation include: Dedication of airports; aviation shows; aircraft exposition; air fairs; recruiting programs; civic events which contribute to the public knowledge of naval aviation equipment and capabilities and to the advancement of general aviation; public observances of certain national holidays (Armed Forces Day, Veterans Day, Memorial Day and Independence Day); national conventions of major veterans organizations; memorial services for deceased, nationally recognized dignitaries; and receptions for foreign dignitaries.
</P>
<P>(c) Support of Armed Forces recruiting is the primary purpose of military flight and parachute demonstration teams. Armed Forces recruiting teams are available to assist sponsors in coordinating advance publicity and information coverage to insure maximum exposure for the demonstration team and the event. This assistence is at no additional expense to the sponsor; however, the sponsor is required to give full support to the recruiting effort and to cooperate fully with local service officials. Such support could include (but is not limited to) the provision of prime space for recruiters at the event site and the provision of courtesy passes in controlled quantities to recruiters for the purpose of bringing recruit prospects and recruiting advisors to view the show.
</P>
<P>(d) DOD support of air show fund raising efforts in the form of provision of military flight and parachute demonstration teams is limited to charities recognized by the Federal Services Fund-Raising Program. These include such agencies as the United Givers Fund, Community Chests, National Health Agencies (as a group), International Service Agencies and the military aid societies. Armed Forces support to fund-raising events for a single cause, even though the charity is a member of a federated or joint campaign or donates in part to one or several of the campaigns, is inconsistent with the basic position of Department of Defense. The name of the nearest Combined Federal Campaign coordinator will be supplied to the sponsor, or if he chooses, he might elect to work with the local United Givers Fund (Community Chest). As a minimum, the sponsor must agree to provide at least half of the profit above costs to the Combined Federal or United Givers Campaigns to receive Armed Forces support.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request form.</I> This form is used to request military flight and parachute demonstration team participation in public events. The information is required to evaluate the event for appropriateness and compliance with Department of Defense policies and for coordination with the units involved.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>General
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>1. Title of Event
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Town or City: _______ State:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date: ________ Time—From:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>To: ____ Place: (Airport, etc.)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>2. Sponsor:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>3. The sponsor (is) (is not) a civic organization and the event (does) (does not) have the official backing of the mayor.
</FP>
<FP>4. The sponsoring organization (does) (does not) exclude any person from its membership or practice any form of discrimination in its functins, based on race, creed, color or national origin.
</FP>
<FP>5. Sponsor's representative authorized to complete arrangements for Armed Forces participation and responsible for reimbursing Department of Defense for accrued expenses when required:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City, State: _________ Zip:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone: (Office) ____ (AC)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(home) __________ (AC)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>6. Purpose of this event (explain fully):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>7. Expected attendance:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>8. Is this event being used to promote funds for any purpose?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>9. Admission charge:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>“Charge for seating:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>10. Disposition of profits which may accrue:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>11. Will admission, seating and all other accommodations and facilities connected with the event be available to all persons without regard to race, creed, color or national origin?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>12. Will the standard Military Services allowance for quarters and meals be provided by the sponsor for Armed Forces participants?
</FP-DASH>
<FP>13. Will transportation at sponsor's expense be proviced for Armed Forces participants between the site of this event and hotel?
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>14. Will telephone facilities, at sponsor's expense, be made available for necessary official communications regarding the event?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>15. It may be necessary for representatives of the requested unit to visit the site prior to the event. Will transportation, meals and hotel accommodations be provided by the sponsor?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>16. Please describe the space which will be provided to recruiters:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>17. Designate charity beneficiary(s):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Flight Team, Parachute Team, Flyovers, Statics
</HD1>
<FP>1. This request is for (check appropriate line):
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flight Team Demonstration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Navy Blue Angels</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds. (Cost for either team is $1500.00 for each day team scheduled at your event.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aircraft Flyover: (No cost to sponsor.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Static Aircraft: (Cost is $25.00 per day per crewmember.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Army Silver Eagles: (Cost for this team is $750.00 for each day team scheduled at your event.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parachute Team Demonstration U.S. Army Golden Knights: (Cost is $25.00 per day per man for each day required to support your event. Team consists of 10-14 personnel.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(Other)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-DASH>2. Flight and/or Parachute Team demonstrations are restricted to appropriate events at airports, over open bodies of water, or over suitable open areas of land. Please give the specific location of your event
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>If an airport, name of airdrome facility and longest usable landing runway. Airport:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Runway data:______________feet.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>3. Flyovers, Flight and Parachute Team demonstrations require that sponsors secure FAA clearance or waiver. Will steps be taken by sponsor to accomplish this at least sixty days prior to the event?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>4. Flight and Parachute Team demonstrations must adhere to FAA regulations which specify that spectators not be permitted within 1500 feet of an area over which the flight demonstration takes place, or 250 feet of the jump area over which parachutists are performing. What type of crowd control is planned?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>5. Flight and Parachute Team demonstrations require that an ambulance and a doctor be on the site during the demonstration. Will this requirement be met?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>6. Flight and Parachute Team demonstrations require that the sponsor provide a recent aerial photograph, taken vertically from an altitude of 5,000 feet or higher, to the team(s) giving the demonstration. Will this requirement be met?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>7. Flight Team demonstrations and Static Aircraft displays require that the sponsor provide suitable aircraft fuel (JP jet fuel or aviation gas, as appropriate) and pay the cost of transporting and handling this fuel, if it is not available at the staging airport under military contract prices. Will this requirement be met?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>8. Flight Team demonstrations and Static Aircraft displays require mobile firefighting, crash and ground-to-air communications equipment at the demonstration site. Will this requirement be met?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>9. Flight Teams and Static Aircraft displays require that the sponsor provide guards for the aircraft that land and are parked at the site during their entire stay. Will this requirement be met?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>10. Parachute Team demonstrations may require that the sponsor arrange aircraft transportation from the team's home base to the location of the event, for use as a jump platform and return to the home base. Will this requirement be met, if necessary?
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>11. Name and address of any Armed Forces representative or government official with whom you have discussed possible participation:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Certification
</HD1>
<P>I certify that the information provided above is complete and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. I understand that representatives of the Military Services will contact me to discuss arrangements and costs involved prior to final commitments.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Sponsor's Representative)
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Date of Request:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Return this form to:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> A flight team demonstration is an exhibition of precision aerial maneuvers flown by the official Department of Defense military flight demonstration teams, the U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds, the U.S. Navy Blue Angels and the U.S. Army Silver Eagles. An aircraft demonstration is a flight demonstration by aircraft other than those of the teams listed above and designed to portray tactical capabilities of aircraft by a single aircraft (<I>i.e.</I>, the U.S. Marine Corps “Harrier”) or group of aircraft, including air-to-air refueling, helicopter hover and pick-up or rappelling capabilities, Low Altitude Parachute Extraction System, maximum performance take-off, etc. A parachute demonstration is an exhibition of free-fall and precision landing techniques by the official DOD parachute team, the U.S. Army Golden Knights. Other parachute demonstrations can be performed by the U.S. Navy Parachute Team, or another unofficial team or sports parachute club representing the Department of Defense. A flyover is a flight of not more than four aircraft over a fixed point at a specific time and does not involve precision maneuvers or demonstrations. Flyovers are authorized for certain events when the presence of Armed Forces aircraft overhead would contribute to the effectiveness of the event based on a direct correlation between the event and the aircraft. Flyovers can also be authorized for occasions primarily designed to encourage the advancement of aviation and which are of more than local interest. Flyovers by any of the official DOD flight teams are not authorized. Parades are not considered an appropriate event for authorizing flyover support. The static display of aircraft is the ground display of any military aircraft and its related equipment, not involving flight, taxiing or starting of engines.
</P>
<P>(g) Events which are appropriate for Armed Forces aviation participation in the public domain include such activities as dedication of airports and facilities, aviation shows, expositions, and fairs; and other civic events which contribute to the public knowledge of the U.S. Military Services aviation equipment and capabilities. The number one priority for utilization of military aircraft and parachutists in such events in the public domain is to support the recruiting aspects of the all-volunteer force concept. The approval of any such military demonstration will only be authorized if a maximum recruiting benefit exists at each location.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Costs.</I> (1) The cost for either the United States Air Force Thunderbirds or the United States Navy Blue Angels will be $1500 for each day a demonstration is scheduled. If the United States Army Golden Knights precision parachute team is scheduled for your event, the cost will be $25 per man per day for each day required to support your event, to include the days of travel if required. Under normal conditions, this group is comprised of fourteen members: Nine jumpers, three aircraft crewmen, one ground controller, and a narrator. The sponsor will be advised by the Golden Knights in advance of the costs related to his event for which the government must be reimbursed. The United States Army Silver Eagles helicopter team, composed of seven helicopters, performs precision formation manuevers and solo helicopter aerobatics to demonstrate the capabilities of modern helicopters and the skill of Army aviators. The Silver Eagles performance lasts about 30 minutes and is conducted entirely in full view of spectators on the crowd line. The cost for the team is $750 for each day a demonstration is scheduled. The sponsor should make a check payable to the Treasurer of the United States for the required amount and present it to the appropriate demonstration team commander in advance of the scheduled event.
</P>
<P>(2) Costs associated with static aircraft are normally $25 per day for each crew member plus possible fuel requirements discussed below. Charges for any other military parachuting demonstration (<I>i.e.</I>, U.S. Navy Parachute Team, local Armed Forces sport parachute clubs, etc.) will depend on the number of personnel and transportation involved. Checks payable to the Treasurer of the United States should be made available to the appropriate aircraft commander for static displays or parachute team commander upon arrival at the event.
</P>
<P>(i) As noted in the Department of Defense request form, the sponsor is required to pay per diem costs for team and static display crew members except for flyovers or aircraft demonstrations not involving landing.
</P>
<P>(3) These costs are binding after a team or crew personnel have arrived at the show site, even though weather conditions or other unforeseen circumstances force the event to be cancelled. These funds provided by the sponsor will be utilized by team members or crew personnel for paying housing and subsistence costs. The actual breakdown of the per diem involved is $13.20 for housing, $9.30 for subsistence, and $2.50 for incidental expenses. In those locations where housing and subsistence cannot be procured for these amounts, it will be the responsibility of the sponsor to absorb the additional cost. As stated, these costs will cover participation but does not include certain ground support requirements (<I>i.e.</I>, ground transportation, telephone, etc.) to be furnished by a sponsor as outlined in a team support packet.
</P>
<P>(4) Other costs that could be incurred by the sponsor are in the area of the sponsor's agreement to provide suitable aircraft fuel (defined as JP jet fuel or aviation gas and lubricants) at U.S. Government contract prices. Where fuel is available from local military stocks—usually military installations—or when fuel is available from commercial into-plane contract locations, the U.S. Government will pay all fuel costs. If military contract fuel is not available at the show site, the sponsor will be required to pay all costs above the contract price and that price charged by the local supplier. However, the sponsor may choose to transport military contract fuel from a military base or a commercial airport having a U.S. Government into-plane contract. In this case, his cost would be only the transporting and handling of this fuel to the show site.
</P>
<P>(5) The Department of Defense no longer requires the sponsor to provide the Department with a public liability and property damage insurance policy. This should in no way deter the sponsor from obtaining such liability and property damage insurance he feels is necessary for his own protection. Due to the costs that could accrue to the sponsor in case of cancellations because of inclement weather, the sponsor may wish to consider rain insurance to protect his investment. Previous sponsors have advised us that such insurance is available from most commercial companies.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other information.</I> (1) Flight and/or parachute team demonstrations are restricted to appropriate events at airports, over open bodies of water, or over suitable open areas of land. For the U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds or U.S. Navy Blue Angels to operate from an airport show site, the following operational requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) Minimum useable runway length for the Thunderbirds is 5000 feet by 150 feet in width.
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimum useable runway length for the Blue Angels is 6000 feet by 150 feet in width.
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum single landing gear load bearing capacity for Thunderbirds is 45,000 pounds; for Blue Angels, 21,000 pounds. Tandem landing gear load bearing capacity is 155,000 pounds for Blue Angels and Thunderbirds.
</P>
<P>(2) A staged performance may not be given if the location planned for the show site does not meet these minimums. The maximum distance for a staged performance” under normal conditions is 50 nautical miles. It should be noted that staged performances are seldom authorized since the recruiting potential is reduced at such events.
</P>
<P>(3) The type and number of static and/or flyover aircraft which may be assigned is entirely dependent upon the Military Services' capability to provide such resources at the time of your event. This capability is affected by operational commitments and sponsors are advised that confirmation of static/flyover aircraft cannot be made by the appropriate Service more than 15-30 days before your event.
</P>
<P>(4) The U.S. Army Silver Eagles are normally restricted to performances at airports. Other open land areas may be operationally suitable but require the prior approval of the team commander in each case.
</P>
<P>(5) Only one flight demonstration team and a parachute demonstration team may be authorized for any one event. Military aircraft demonstrations may not be authorized for events on the days a flight team is participating. A flyover is not authorized when a flight team is participating unless it can be provided by a locally-based National Guard or Reserve component.
</P>
<P>(6) Participation by the U.S. Navy Blue Angels and the U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds is normally limited to two consecutive years in any one event. This usually involves one appearance by each of the two flight teams. This provision may be waived when other appropriate requests have not been received, when the team is performing in the same geographical area and has open dates or when the event is national or international in nature and participation would be in the best interests of Department of Defense. Participation in an event is normally limited to two days unless a third day can be included without preempting other requests.
</P>
<P>(7) Sponsors are required to obtain a Federal Aviation Agency (FAA) waiver for any demonstration by military aircraft and/or parachutists in the public domain. The final authorization for such Armed Forces participation hinges upon the sponsor securing this waiver far enough in advance to permit adequate planning (normally not later than 60 days prior to the event). Further guidance on the details of obtaining this waiver will be contained in the team support packet or FAA. FAA regulations require that spectators be confined 1500 feet from a flight or aircraft demonstration and 250 feet from a parachute demonstration.
</P>
<P>(i) In some cases, parachute demonstrations require that the sponsor arrange for appropriate transportation for the team and equipment from its home station to the event and return.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mass parachute jumps, drops of equipment, assault aircraft demonstrations, or tactical helicopter troop landings under simulated tactical conditions, will be limited to military installations. These activities, except those scheduled as part of regular training programs, are not authorized for public events in the civil domain.
</P>
<P>(8) When civilian air racing is involved in an event where Armed Forces participation has also been scheduled, prize monies must come from sources other than admission charges.
</P>
<P>(9) Flight team, parachute and aircraft demonstrations also require that the sponsor provide: (i) Recent aerial photograph of the site; (ii) an ambulance and doctor at the site; and (iii) Guards for the Armed Forces aircraft during their entire stay. The aerial photograph should be recent, taken vertically from at least 5,000 feet.
</P>
<P>(10) Maximum advantage of Armed Forces recruiting will be taken at appropriate events in the public domain where demonstrations by military aircraft and parachutists have been authorized.
</P>
<P>(11) Exception to the policies contained herein will only be considered by OASD(PA) on events of national or international significance.
</P>
<P>(12) Department of Defense hosts a scheduling conference in mid-December each year to prepare U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds, U.S. Navy Blue Angels, U.S. Army Golden Knights and U.S. Army Silver Eagles participation schedules for the ensuing year. All requests for such demonstrations from sponsors should reach OASD(PA) prior to the middle of November each year to be considered at this conference. In order to accommodate many requests Department of Defense receives for other parachuting demonstrations, aircraft demonstrations, static aircraft displays, and flyovers, each request must be received by OASD(PA) a minimum of 30 days in advance of the event and preferably 60 days in advance.
</P>
<P>(13) If there are any points that a member of the public might wish to have clarified, contact Chief, Aerial Events Branch, OASD(PA), Room 1E790, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301. Telephone: AC (202) 695-6795 or 695-9900.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.33" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.33   Participation by Armed Forces bands, choral groups, and troops in the public domain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military musical participation in public events which otherwise meet the criteria outlined herein will be limited to patriotic programs as opposed to pure entertainment and will not duplicate a performance within the capability of a civilian group. For example, music to accompany the presentation of the national colors, or a performance of military or patriotic music by a military band, drum and bugle corps or choral group may be authorized; background, dinner, dance or other social music is considered “entertainment.”
</P>
<P>(b) Requests received for military musical participation in appropriate events in the civilian domain must include an indication from the sponsor that there is no conflict with the local civilian musicians concerning the appearance of Navy musicians. A statement to this effect from the cognizant local musicians' union must be obtained by the sponsor and attached to his request.
</P>
<P>(c) Armed Forces musical units may be authorized to provide certain specified musical programs in the public domain. The performance must not place military musicians in competition with professional civilian musicians. Background, dinner, dance or other social music cannot be authorized. The specified programs which may be authorized usually include a short opening or closing patriotic presentation. Musical selections normally consist of a medley of military or patriotic songs, honors to the President or Vice President (if he is there), or music to accompany the presentation of colors by a Color Detail.
</P>
<P>(1) Armed Forces musical units may be authorized to participate in official government, military and civic functions.
</P>
<P>(i) Official government functions include those in which senior officials of the Federal government are involved in the performance of their official duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Official military functions include social activities held on military installations (or off when the Military Service certifies that suitable facilities are not available on post) which are sponsored by the Military Services, have as their principal purpose the promotion of esprit de corps, and are conducted primarily for active duty personnel and their guests.
</P>
<P>(iii) Official civic functions include such State, county or municipal events as inaugurals, dedication of public buildings and projects, the convening of legislative bodies, and ceremonies for officially invited government visitors.
</P>
<P>(2) Armed Forces musical units may also be authorized to provide patriotic and military programs at national conventions and meetings of nationally-recognized civic, patriotic and veterans organizations.
</P>
<P>(d) Bands, drill teams and other units can normally participate at no cost to the sponsor if the event is within the installation's immediate community relations area (approximately 100-mile radius).
</P>
<P>(1) Normally, not more than one band or other musical unit will be authorized for a parade in the civilian domain. This guidance intended to assure widest possible participation in public events of local interest (particularly on national holidays) does not apply to national convention of veterans' groups or other events having national significance.
</P>
<P>(2) All Armed Forces participation in international and national events, and in the Washington, DC area, must be authorized by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for Armed Forces musical or troop units when no military installation is accessible, or for the Washington, DC-based ceremonial bands or troop units (when the event is outside the Washington, DC area), should be addressed to the parent Service of the unit:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>(I) U.S. Army
</HD1>
<FP-1>Chief of Public Information, Department of the Army, Washington, DC 20310.
</FP-1>
<HD1>(II) U.S. Navy
</HD1>
<FP-1>Chief of Information, Code OI-321, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC 20350.
</FP-1>
<HD1>(III) U.S. Air Force
</HD1>
<FP-1>Director of Information, Secretary of the Air Force, Community Relations Division, Washington, DC 20330.
</FP-1>
<HD1>(IV) U.S. Marine Corps
</HD1>
<FP-1>Commandant of the Marine Corps, Code AG, Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps, Washington, DC 20380.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Armed Forces units may not be authorized to participate when:
</P>
<P>(i) The event directly or indirectly endorses or selectively benefits or favors (or appears to do so) any private individual, commercial venture, sect, fraternal organization, political group, or if it is associated with solicitation of votes in a political election.
</P>
<P>(ii) Admission, seating and other accommodations or facilities are restricted in any manner with regard to race, creed, color or national origin.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsoring organization or group excludes any person from its membership or practices any form of discrimination in its functions, based on race, creed, color or national origin.
</P>
<P>(iv) An admission charge is levied on the public primarily to see participation by an Armed Forces unit.
</P>
<P>(v) There is fund-raising of any type connected with the event, unless all profits are to be donated to a charity which is one of the consolidated programs recognized by the Federal Services Fund-Raising Program. These are the United Givers Fund Community Chest, National Health Agencies (as a group), the International Service Agencies, and the American Red Cross (when not included in a consolidated campaign). The Military Services' Welfare Societies (Army Emergency Relief, Navy Relief and Air Force Aid Society) are also included.
</P>
<P>(5) Sponsors of an event must agree to reimburse the Military Services concerned for transportation and per diem when participation is authorized at no additional cost to the government.
</P>
<P>(6) Participation by Armed Forces musical units in other areas is within the authority of local military commanders, and requests for participation should be made directly to those local military installations. All requests should be submitted no earlier than 60 days and preferably no later than 45 days prior to the event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.34" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.34   Other special events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ship visits.</I> Requests for visits generally originate with civic groups desiring Navy participation in local events. Often, members of Congress endorse these requests, advising the Navy of their interest in a particular event. Because of the marked increase in requests for ship visits, and in order to give equal consideration to all requests, the Chief of Information has arranged for quarterly meetings of representatives from CHINFO, Commander, Navy Recruiting Command, Chief of Naval Operations and Chief of Legislative Affairs. Based on the importance of the event (nationally, regionally, or locally) location, and prospective audience, recommendations are consolidated and forwarded to the fleet commanders prior to their quarterly scheduling conferences.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Visits to Naval activities</I>—(1) <I>Types of visits.</I> (i) General visits or Open House are occasions when a ship or station acts as host to the general public. These visits will be conducted in accordance with instructions issued by Fleet and Force Commanders, District Commandants, or other cognizant authority.
</P>
<P>(ii) Casual visits are visits to ships or stations by individuals or specific groups, as differentiated from the general public. Details and procedures concerning these visits are a matter of command discretion.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tours are occasions when a ship or station is host to a specific group on a scheduled date. Some of the larger shore commands also regularly schedule one or more sightseeing type tours daily during seasons when many vacationers ask to visit the command.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General rules.</I> Prior approval for general visiting or Open House at any time other than civic-sponsored public observances and official ceremonies for Armed Forces Day, memorial Day, Independence Day, and Veterans Day, and for observances in overseas areas of similar significant holidays, will be requested as follows: Fleet units visiting U.S. ports, from Senior Officer present Afloat; fleet units visiting foreign ports, from commander ordering the visit; shore stations and district vessels in the United States, from District Commandants; and overseas shore stations, from the naval area commander.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official functions.</I> (1) Navy units may be authorized by local commanding officers to participate in official government military and civic functions, except in the Washington DC area where OASD(PA) retains authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Official government functions include those in which senior officials of the federal government are involved in the performance of their official duties.
</P>
<P>(3) Official military functions include social activities held on military installations (or off, when it is certified that suitable facilities are not available on base), which are sponsored by the Navy, have as their principal purpose the promotion of esprit de corps, and are conducted primarily for active duty personnel and their guests.
</P>
<P>(4) Official civic functions include such state, county or municipal events as inaugurals, dedications of public buildings and projects, and convening of legislative bodies and ceremonies for officially invited government visitors.
</P>
<P>(5) Overseas, similar functions attended by comparable host-country officials in their official capacities might also be considered appropriate for Navy participation.
</P>
<P>(d) A parade which is sponsored by the community as a whole (rather than by a single commercial venture) and held on a Sunday or holiday or at a time when shops are closed for business may be a public event for which participation could properly be authorized; representation by individual commercial ventures in such parades need not be a bar to Navy participation as long as the emphasis is planned and placed on the civic rather than commercial aspects. Such participation will be at no additional cost to the government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fund-raising events.</I> (1) Navy support of fund-raising events must be limited to recognized, joint or other authorized campaigns. Navy support of fund-raising events or projects for a single cause, even though the cause is a member of one of the federated, joint or authorized campaigns, or donates in part to one of several of the recognized campaigns, is not authorized by Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) Navy support for a single-cause fund-raising event may be authorized if the event is:
</P>
<P>(i) In support of Navy recruiting objectives;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supported by a letter indicating the local United Way representative has no objection; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Approved by the local Navy Commander as a single-cause charity which has broad local benefit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.35" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.35   Armed Forces participation in events in the public domain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for bands, troops, units, teams, exhibits and other Armed Forces participation should be addressed to the nearest military installation. Local commanders have resources which they can commit to appropriate events if mission requirements permit. If no military installation is accessible, or if resources requested are not available locally or require approval by higher authorities, a standard Department of Defense Request Form should be completed. This form is used to evaluate the request, determine appropriateness of the event and compliance with Department of Defense policies, and eliminate repeated correspondence. The request form should be returned to the office or military command from which it was received unless another address is indicated.
</P>
<P>(b) Basic criteria governing Armed Forces participation in public events have been developed by the Department of Defense to ensure compliance with public law, to assure equitable distribution of resources to as many appropriate events as possible, and to avoid excessive disruption of primary training and operational missions of the Military Services. the following general rules and information are included as an aid to you in understanding Department of Defense policies and in planning programs of mutual benefit to the Armed Forces and your community.
</P>
<P>(1) When evaluating requests for Armed Forces participation in public events, the interests of the Department of Defense and the public at large, operational requirements of the Military services, and availability of resources are prime considerations. Commitment of resources to specific events must be balanced with the above factors and with requests for similar participation received from other sources.
</P>
<P>(2) Department of Defense participation and cooperation must not directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(i) Endorse or selectively benefit or favor or appear to endorse or selectively benefit or favor any private individual, group, corporation (whether for profit or nonprofit), sect, quasi-religious or ideological movement, fraternal organization, political organization, or commercial venture.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be associated with the solicitation of votes in a political election. Sites such as commercial theaters or department stores, churches or fraternal halls; and events such as testimonials to private individuals or sectarian religious services, are generally inappropriate for Armed Forces participation.
</P>
<P>(3) Participation by the Armed Forces in any event or activity may be authorized only if admission, seating and all other accommodations and facilities are available to all without regard to race, creed, color or national origin, and only if the sponsoring organization does not exclude any form of discrimination based on race, creed, color or national origin. This does not bar participation in events sponsored by nationally-recognized veteran's organizations when the program is oriented toward the veterans' interests, nor does it bar participation in non-public school events when the program is directed toward education or recruiting.
</P>
<P>(i) No admission charge may be levied on the public solely to see an Armed Forces demonstration, unit or exhibit. When admission is charged, the Armed Forces activity must not be the sole or primary attraction.
</P>
<P>(4) Armed Forces participation is authorized in a fund-raising event only when the sponsor certifies that all net profits in excess of actual operating costs will be donated to one of the consolidated programs recognized by the Federal Services Fund-Raising program. These include such agencies as the United Givers Fund, Community Chests, National Health Agencies (as a group), International Service Agencies and the military aid societies.
</P>
<P>(5) When Armed Forces participation in an event is in the mutual interest of the Department of Defense and the sponsor of the event, participation will be authorized at no additional cost to the government. Additional costs to the government—travel and transportation of military personnel, meals and quarters or standard per diem allowance, etc.—will be borne by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(6) Department of Defense policy prohibits payment by the Armed Forces for rental of exhibit space, connection of electricity, or utility or janitorial costs.
</P>
<P>(7) The duration of participation by military units in any one event is limited in the interests of proper utilization and equitable distribution of Armed Forces manpower and resources. While an exhibit might be scheduled for the duration of an event, a unit such as a military band is limited to three days.
</P>
<P>(8) Armed Forces participation in professional sports events and post-season bowl games will normally be authorized at no additional cost to the government, will emphasize joint Service activity and must support recruiting programs. Participation in beauty contests, fashion shows, pageants, Christmas parades, and motion picture premieres is not authorized since military support would violate policy and appropriateness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.36" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.36   Government transportation of civilians for public affairs purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> (1) Regulations on transportation of civilians vary according to whether:
</P>
<P>(i) The civilians are news media representatives or not.
</P>
<P>(ii) The travel is local or nonlocal (see paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iii) The purpose of the travel is to get to a desired destination or is to observe the Navy at first hand.
</P>
<P>(2) Authority for embarkation of individuals in naval vessels and military aircraft is vested in the Chief of Naval Operations by § 700.710 of this chapter. Nothing in this part shall be construed as limiting his authority in this regard.
</P>
<P>(3) The following policy has been established by DOD for providing all types of Navy transportation to non-Navy civilians.
</P>
<P>(i) Military transport facilities shall not be placed in a position of competition with U.S. commercial carriers.
</P>
<P>(A) When embarkation of a newsman is necessary for him to obtain news material about a ship, aircraft, cargo or embarked personnel, or when he is invited to report on a matter of special interest to the Navy, it is not considered that the transportation furnished him is in competition with commercial transport.
</P>
<P>(B) An exception is also made for short trips between an airport (or other transportation center) and the command. Cars and buses within the resources of the command may be used for meeting guests or taking them to make their travel connections.
</P>
<P>(ii) When authorization is requested for travel which is of interest to or will affect more than one command or Service, the approving authority will coordinate the request with all other interested commands, Services and Agencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Travel in connection with any public affairs program arranged by the Navy jointly with another Federal Department or Agency or a foreign government will be authorized only by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs, or those to whom he has delegated this authority. Navy commands desiring authorization of such travel will forward the request to the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a request for travel for nonlocal public affairs purposes is disapproved, sufficient reasons should be provided so that the action is clearly understood by the individual or group concerned.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of local v. nonlocal travel.</I> (1) Local travel is travel within the immediate vicinity of the command concerned in connection with a public affairs program of local interest only. (For air travel within the continental U.S., about 150 miles or less is generally considered local.)
</P>
<P>(2) Nonlocal travel is that conducted in connection with a public affairs program affecting more than one Service, geographic area or major command, usually of primary concern to higher authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transportation of news media representatives.</I> (1) This section applies to media representatives who are embarked for the purpose of news gathering or of traveling to an area in order to cover a news event. It does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Correspondents when members of groups embarked as regular cruise guests of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Casual trips by correspondents to ships in port or to shore stations in CONUS. Such visits may be authorized by officers in command or higher authority in accordance with instructions promulgated by the Chief of Naval Operations. Written orders are not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Local travel.</I> Commanding officers at all levels are authorized (under Defense Department policy) to approve local travel for public affairs purposes within the scope of the mission and responsibilities of their command, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Public interest in the public affairs purpose involved is confined primarily to the vicinity of that command.
</P>
<P>(ii) The travel is being provided for the benefit of local media and meets a naval public affairs objective.
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduled commercial air transportation is not readily available.
</P>
<P>(iv) The aircraft to be used is a helicopter, or multiengine dual piloted aircraft, and is within the resources of the host command on a not-to-interfere basis. This provision does not apply to orientation flights.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonlocal travel.</I> (i) Requests for nonlocal travel will be submitted to the Chief of Information, who will forward them with his recommendations to the Chief of Naval Operations and/or the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the proposed travel is for news coverage of a major emergency nature and the coverage will be impaired or delayed, to the serious detriment of the interests of the Department of Defense, if military transportation is not provided, requests for such travel will be submitted to the Chief of Information, who will forward the request—if approved—to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs). The most expeditious means (including telephone) will be used by commands requesting such emergency travel. Justification will include both the public affairs purpose and the necessity for military carriers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Travel between the U.S. and overseas area.</I> (i) The Chief of Naval Operations may authorize military transportation for correspondents in unusual circumstances, upon recommendations of the Chief of Information and the Defense Department.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for government transportation to cover specific assignments overseas should be made at least three weeks prior to the date required and should be addressed to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs) via the Chief of Information or Unified Commander, as appropriate. The requests should include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the correspondent is a full-time employee, or has a specific assignment, and that the trip is for the purpose of news gathering.
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate date of entry into area, port of entry, method of travel, proposed duration of visit and travel termination date.
</P>
<P>(C) Assurance that the correspondent will observe currency control regulations, and sponsoring agency will guarantee financial obligations incurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Embarkation of male correspondents between ports within CONUS.</I> (i) Male correspondents may be embarked in naval ships for passage between ports within the area of a single Fleet command for the purpose of news gathering at the discretion of the Sea Frontier Commander, Commandants of the Naval Districts, the Chief of naval Air Training, Fleet, Force and Type commanders and flag officers afloat who have been delegated authority to arrange directly with appropriate Fleet, Force and Type commanders for embarkation of civilians on a local cruise basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Invitational travel orders may be issued.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Embarkation of female correspondents in naval vessels.</I> (i) Privileges equal to those given male correspondents will be accorded female correspondents whenever practicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Female correspondents may not be embarked overnight in a naval ship without prior approval of the appropriate Fleet Commander-in-Chief. This authority may be delegated to the numbered Fleet Commanders.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Travel in ships of the Military Sealift Command.</I> Correspondents may be carried in ships of the Military Sealift Command on either a space-required or space-available basis when travel is in the best interests of the Navy or the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(i) Space-available travel will be used when practicable. A nominal charge is made by the Military Sealift Command and must be borne by the correspondents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Space-required travel may be authorized when sufficiently in the interest of the Navy, and the charge may be borne by the Navy.
</P>
<P>(iii) In either case, determination of Navy interests will be made by the Chief of Information, guided by the transportation policy of the Chief of Naval Operations, whose approval of such embarkation is required.
</P>
<P>(iv) Requests for such travel will be submitted to the Chief of Information, who will coordinate with the Chief of Naval Operations and/or the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(8) Point to point transportation within the continental United States in naval aircraft other than those operated by the Military Airlift Command.
</P>
<P>(i) SECNAVINST 4630.2A contains guidance for travel in military aircraft other than those operated by the Military Airlift Command.
</P>
<P>(ii) Naval activities desiring to arrange such transportation will address requests via the chain of command to the operational command of the lowest echelon which has been delegated authority to approve such requests.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon approval of such a request, the naval activity sponsoring the correspondent shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Prepare travel orders.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any waiver forms, as may be required by governing directives, are executed.
</P>
<P>(9) Embarkation of news media representatives of foreign citizenship:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests from foreign news media representatives to cruise with units of the U.S. Navy are usually made to the nearest U.S. military installation known to the correspondent, and are often not made in the proper chain of command to the Fleet Commander unless authorized to effect arrangements for an underway cruise.
</P>
<P>(A) if the request is received by a command which is not a subordinate of the Fleet Commander concerned, it will be forwarded to the U.S. Naval Attache assigned to the foreign newsman's country. The Attache will then forward the request to the appropriate Fleet Commander, with his recommendations and the result of a brief background check on the newsman and his employer.
</P>
<P>(B) If the request is received by a subordinate of the appropriate Fleet Commander, it may be forwarded directly to the latter, but the U.S. Naval Attache in the newsman's country will be given the opportunity to comment on the proposed embarkation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Naval commands should not introduce an embarked third-party (<I>i.e.</I>, a foreign media representative) into a foreign country other than his own without first obtaining appropriate clearance from the country to be visited. Approval for entry should be forwarded via appropriate command channels to the cognizant U.S. Naval Attache.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Security considerations.</I> (i) No media representative known to be affiliated with a group advocating the overthrow of the U.S. government will be permitted aboard naval ships or stations.
</P>
<P>(ii) If security review is directed, the reason will be made clear to the correspondent prior to embarkation. News media people refusing to agree to observe security regulations may have their privileges suspended. Failure to observe security regulations will be reported to CHINFO and interested commands.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transportation of other civilians.</I> (1) Although groups normally provide their own transportation to Navy commands, Navy transportation may be authorized when:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial transport is not available.
</P>
<P>(ii) A professional group visit has been solicited by the Navy, such as participants in the Naval Academy Information Program (“Blue and Gold”) or educators invited to an Aerospace Education Workshop.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for nonlocal transportation under the above circumstances will be made to the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(3) Carrier-on-board-delivery (COD) flights and helicopters flights to ships are considered local transportation.
</P>
<P>(4) When units or areas of a Unified Command are involved in the public affairs program in connection with which travel authorization is requested by a Navy command which is not a component of the Unified Command concerned, coordination will be effected by the host command, through command channels, via the Chief of Information, to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs), who—as appropriate—will consult with the Unified Commander concerned.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special programs.</I> (1) Cruises are discussed in Chapter 6, section 0604, para. 1 of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Embarkation of news media representatives, especially on operations and exercises, is discussed in Chapter 4, section 0405, paragraph 4 of the Navy Public Affairs Regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Other programs subject to special requirements or which have had exceptions authorized for them include:
</P>
<P>(i) Naval Air Training Command Civilian Orientation Cruise Program, conducted by the Chief of Naval Air Training.
</P>
<P>(ii) Joint Civilian Orientation Conference, conducted by the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Public Affairs).
</P>
<P>(iii) Orientation flights in government aircraft, conducted in accordance with OPNAVINST 37107H.
</P>
<P>(iv) Space-available air transportation may be provided Navy League members if they are invited to accompany a flag officer attending a Navy League convention or regional meeting and if the trip is economically justifiable, based on military travel considerations and not community relations or public affairs reasons. Approval in each instance will be obtained in advance from the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(v) Air transportation for the Naval Sea Cadet Corps of the Navy League.
</P>
<P>(A) Flights must be in Navy multiengine, transport type craft.
</P>
<P>(B) Point-to-point flights on a space-required basis are governed by an annual quota set by the Chief of Naval Operations. Space-available transportation is authorized and will not be charged against this quota if it will not result in delays of takeoffs or a change in the itinerary planned for the primary mission.
</P>
<P>(C) Flights must not interfere with operational commitments or training or results in additional expense to the government.
</P>
<P>(D) This transportation is not available to other youth programs, including others sponsored by the Navy League.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other instructions on transportation of non-Navy civilians.</I> Details on policy, procedures, and the transportation of certain categories of people will be found in OPNAVINST 5720.2G and DOD Directive 4515.13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.37" NODE="32:5.1.1.1.2.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.37   Public affairs and public service awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A number of public service awards are presented by the Department of Defense and the Navy to business and civic leaders, scientists and other nongovernment civilians. Other awards—military and civilian—are presented to members of the naval establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) These awards are of public affairs interest in the locale where they are presented and also in the home towns of those who receive them.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department of Defense awards.</I> (1) The Department of Defense Medal for Distinguished Public Service is presented to individuals. The Department of Defense Meritorious Award honors organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) Details, including nominating procedures, are given in SECNAVINST 5061.12.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary of the Navy awards.</I> (1) The following awards are presented by the Secretary of the Navy: The Navy Distinguished Public Service Award and Navy Meritorious Public Service Citation to individuals; the Navy Certificate of Commendation to members of special committees and groups; and the Navy Certificate of Merit to organizations and associations.
</P>
<P>(2) Details are given in SECNAVINST 5061.12.
</P>
<P>(3) Nominations for awards to military personnel are considered by the Board of Decorations and Medals, in accordance with SECNAVINST 1650.24A.
</P>
<P>(4) Nominations for honorary awards to Department of the Navy civilian employees are considered by the Distinguished Civilian Service Awards Panel. (See Civilian Manpower Management Instruction 451.)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief of Information awards</I>—(1) <I>Certificate of Public Relations Achievement.</I> (i) This certificate is signed by the Chief of Information. It honors individuals who are not Navy employees, corporations, or associations.
</P>
<P>(ii) It was established to fill the need for a civilian award for public relations achievements which, while not meeting the criteria for public service awards presented by the Secretary of the Navy, are of such Navy-wide significance as to merit recognition at the Department level. Examples of these achievements might be a particularly well done feature article about the Navy in a nationally read newspaper or an outstanding contribution to a locally sponsored event, which ultimately gave national or regional recognition to the Navy.
</P>
<P>(iii) The achievement for which the certificate is given shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Contribute to accomplishment of the public information objectives of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(B) Be the result of a single outstanding project or program.
</P>
<P>(C) Have been accomplished within one year of the date of the official letter of nomination.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nominations will be submitted through appropriate administrative channels to the Chief of Information, and will include a description of the service rendered, a statement of its relevance to the accomplishment of the public affairs objectives of the Navy and a draft of the recommended citation. To avoid possible embarrassment, nominations shall be marked “For Official Use Only” and safeguarded until final action has been taken.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CHINFO Merit Awards.</I> (i) These awards, or certificates, are presented quarterly to Navy publications and broadcasts considered to be outstanding or to have shown improvement in meeting professional standards of journalism.
</P>
<P>(ii) Publications and broadcasts eligible are those which inform the reader concerning aspects of service life or related matters which contribute to the well-being of naval personnel, their dependents, and civilian employees of the Navy. Civilian enterprise periodicals are included if produced for the exclusive use of a naval installation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nominations are made in two ways:
</P>
<P>(A) Selection during regular review periodicals and broadast air-checks received by the Internal Relations Activity.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nominations from the field.</I> Such nominations are informal and may be made by the officer-in-charge, publications editor, broadcast station manager, or public affairs officer to the chief of Information, Navy Department, Washington, DC 20350 (ATTN: OP-0071).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other awards pertaining to public affairs/internal relations.</I> (i) Silver Anvil award is given by the Public Relations Society of America for outstanding public relations programs carried out during the preceding year. Entry blanks and details may be obtained by writing directly to Public Relations Society of America, 845 Third Ave., New York, NY 10022. All Navy entries will be forwarded via the Chief of Information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Freedom Foundation Awards of cash and medals are annually given to service personnel for letters on patriotic themes. Details are carried in ship and station publications, or may be obtained by writing to Freedom Foundations, Valley Forge, PA 19481.
</P>
<P>(iii) Thomas Jefferson Awards are the prizes in an annual interservice competition sponsored by civilian media through the Department of Defense's Office of Information for the Armed Forces. The contest is open to all Armed Forces media—broadcast and print. Details can be obtained by writing to Office of Information, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC 20350.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Navy League Awards.</I> Several annual awards are presented to naval personnel and civilians who have made a notable contribution to the importance of seapower. The awards are for inspirational leadership, scientific and technical progess, operational competence, literary achievement, etc. Nominations should be forwarded directly to Board of Awards, Navy League of the United States, 818 18th St., NW., Washington, DC 20006.
</P>
<P>(v) Nonofficial awards to outstanding Navy students or training units.
</P>
<P>(A) Various civilian organizations and private individuals have established awards to be presented to outstanding training units or naval students.
</P>
<P>(B) Requests to establish an award for students in the Naval Air Training program should be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Air Training.
</P>
<P>(C) Requests to establish an award which will involve more than one school (other than the Naval Air Training Program) will be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Personnel.
</P>
<P>(D) All other cases may be decided by the Navy authority at the school concerned.
</P>
<P>(E) Directives in the 5061, 1650 and 3590 series issued by pertinent authorities may provide further guidance in individual cases.
</P>
<P>(vi) Awards established by a command to honor non-Navy civilians.
</P>
<P>(A) Examples of such awards are “Good Neighbor” or “Honorary Crew Member” certificates.
</P>
<P>(B) Established to honor persons who have been helpful to the command, they are a valuable community relations program. They should not be awarded to persons or organizations with which the command is associated in a commercial or governmental business capacity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 29101, July 15, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 6391, Feb. 1, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B [RESERVED]     " NODE="32:5.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—PERSONNEL








</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="719" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 719—REGULATIONS SUPPLEMENTING THE MANUAL FOR COURTS-MARTIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>3 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 815, 5013, 5148; 32 CFR 700.206 and 700.1202.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Trial Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.112" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.112   Authority to grant immunity from prosecution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In certain cases involving more than one participant, the interests of justice may make it advisable to grant immunity, either transactional or testimonial, to one or more of the participants in the offense in consideration for their testifying for the Government or the defense in the investigation and/or the trial of the principal offender. Transactional immunity, as that term is used in this section, shall mean immunity from prosecution for any offense or offenses to which the compelled testimony relates. Testimonial immunity, as that term is used in this section, shall mean immunity from the use, in aid of future prosecution, of testimony or other information compelled under an order to testify (or any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information). The authority to grant either transactional or testimonial immunity to a witness is reserved to officers exercising general court-martial jurisdiction. This authority may be exercised in any case whether or not formal charges have been preferred and whether or not the matter has been referred for trial. The approval of the Attorney General of the United States on certain orders to testify may be required, as outlined below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> The written recommendation that a certain witness be granted either transactional or testimonial immunity in consideration for testimony deemed essential to the Government or to the defense shall be forwarded to an officer competent to convene a general court-martial for the witness for whom immunity is requested, <I>i.e.,</I> any officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction. Such recommendation will be forwarded by the trial counsel or defense counsel in cases referred for trial, the pretrial investigating officer conducting an investigation upon preferred charges, the counsel or recorder of any other fact-finding body, or the investigator when no charges have yet been preferred. The recommendation shall state in detail why the testimony of the witness is deemed so essential or material that the interests of justice cannot be served without the grant of immunity. The officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction shall act upon such request after referring it to his staff judge advocate for consideration and advice. If approved, a copy of the written grant of immunity must be served upon the accused or his defense counsel within a reasonable time before the witness testifies. Additionally, if any witness is expected to testify in response to a promise of leniency, the terms of the promise of leniency must be reduced to writing and served upon the accused or his defense counsel in the same manner as a grant of immunity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civilian witnesses.</I> Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 6002 and 6004, if the testimony or other information of a civilian witness at a court-martial may be necessary in the public interest, and if the civilian witness has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other information on the basis of a privilege against self-incrimination, then the approval of the Attorney General of the United States, or his designee, must be obtained prior to the execution or issuance of an order to testify to such civilian witness. The cognizant officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction may obtain the approval of the Attorney General in such a circumstance by directing a message or letter requesting the assistance of the Judge Advocate General (Code 20) in the form prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cases involving national security.</I> In all cases involving national security or foreign relations of the United States, the cognizant officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction shall forward any proposed grant of immunity to the Judge Advocate General for the purpose of consultation with the Department of Justice. See section 0126 of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General regarding relations between the Departments of Defense and Justice. The cognizant officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction may obtain approval by the Attorney General of a proposed grant of immunity by directing a letter requesting the assistance of the Judge Advocate General (Code 20) in the form prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of immunity requests.</I> In all cases in which approval of the Attorney General of the United States is required prior to the issuance of a grant of immunity, whether under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, the cognizant officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction shall forward by message or letter the proposed order to testify and grant of immunity to the Judge Advocate General (Code 20). The order to testify should be substantially in the form set forth in appendix A-1-i(3) of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General. Requests for assistance shall be in writing, should allow at least three weeks for consideration, and must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, citation, or other identifying information of the proceeding in which the order is to be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Name of the witness for whom the immunity is requested.
</P>
<P>(3) Name of the employer or company with which a witness is associated or the military unit or organization to which a witness is assigned.
</P>
<P>(4) Date and place of birth, if known, of the witness.
</P>
<P>(5) FBI or local police file number, if any, and if known.
</P>
<P>(6) Whether any State or Federal charges are pending against the witness and the nature of the charges.
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the witness is currently incarcerated, under what conditions, and for what length of time.
</P>
<P>(8) A brief resume of the background of the investigation or proceeding before the agency or department.
</P>
<P>(9) A concise statement of the reasons for the request, including:
</P>
<P>(i) What testimony the witness is expected to give;
</P>
<P>(ii) How this testimony will serve the public interest;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the witness:
</P>
<P>(A) Has invoked the privilege against self-incrimination; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is likely to invoke the privilege;
</P>
<P>(iv) If paragraph (e)(9)(iii)(B) of this section is applicable, then why it is anticipated that the prospective witness will invoke the privilege.
</P>
<P>(10) An estimate as to whether the witness is likely to testify in the event immunity is granted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Post-testimony procedure.</I> After a witness immunized in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section has testified, the following information should be provided to the United States Department of Justice, Criminal Division, Immunity Unit, Washington, DC 20530, via the Judge Advocate General (Code 20).
</P>
<P>(1) Name, citation, or other identifying information, of the proceeding in which the order was requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Date of the examination of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Name and residence address of the witness.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the witness invoked the privilege.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the immunity order was used.
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the witness testified pursuant to the order.
</P>
<P>(7) If the witness refused to comply with the order, whether contempt proceedings were instituted, or are contemplated, and the result of the contempt proceeding, if concluded. A verbatim transcript of the witness' testimony, authenticated by the military judge, should be provided to the Judge Advocate General at the conclusion of the trial. No testimony or other information given by a civilian witness pursuant to such an order to testify (or any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information) may be used against him in any criminal case, except a prosecution for perjury, giving a false statement, or otherwise failing to comply with the order.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review.</I> Under some circumstances, the officer granting immunity to a witness may be disqualified from taking reviewing action on the record of the trial before which the witness granted immunity testified. A successor in command not participating in the grant of immunity would not be so disqualified under those circumstances.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of grant.</I> In any case in which a military witness is granted transactional immunity, the general court-martial convening authority should execute a written grant, substantially in the form set forth in appendix section A-1-i(1) of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General. In any case in which a military witness is granted testimonial immunity, the general court-martial convening authority should execute a written grant substantially in the form set forth in appendix section A-1-i(2) of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 57803, Nov. 14, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 719.113-719.114" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 719.113-719.114   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.115" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.115   Release of information pertaining to accused persons; spectators at judicial sessions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Release of information</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> There are valid reasons for making information available to the public concerning the administration of military justice. The task of striking a fair balance among the protection of individuals accused of offenses, improper or unwarranted publicity pertaining to their cases, public understanding of the problems of controlling misconduct in the military service, and the workings of military justice requires the exercise of sound judgment by those responsible for administering military justice and by representatives of the press and other news media. At the heart of all guidelines pertaining to the furnishing of information concerning an accused or the allegations against him is the mandate that no statements or other information shall be furnished to news media for the purpose of influencing the outcome of an accused's trial, or which could reasonably be expected to have such an effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of regulations.</I> These regulations apply to all persons who may obtain information as the result of duties performed in connection with the processing of accused persons, the investigation of suspected offenses, the imposition of nonjudicial punishment, or the trial of persons by court-martial. These regulations are applicable from the time of apprehension, the preferral of charges, or the commencement of an investigation directed to make recommendations concerning disciplinary action, until the imposition of nonjudicial punishment, completion of trial (court-martial sessions) or disposition of the case without trial. These regulations also prescribe guidelines for the release or dissemination of information to public news agencies, to other public news media, or to other persons or agencies for unofficial purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Release of information.</I> (i) As a general matter, release of information pertaining to accused persons should not be initiated by persons in the naval service. Information of this nature should be released only upon specific request therefor, and, subject to the following guidelines, should not exceed the scope of the inquiry concerned.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except in unusual circumstances, information which is subject to release under the regulation should be released by the cognizant public affairs officer; requests for information received from representatives of news media should be referred to the public affairs office for action. When an individual is suspected or accused of an offense, care should be taken to indicate that the individual is alleged to have committed or is suspected or accused of having committed an offense, as distinguished from stating or implying that the accused has committed the offense or offenses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information subject to release.</I> On inquiry, the following information concerning a person accused or suspected of an offense or offenses may generally be released except as provided in paragraph (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The accused's name, grade, age, unit, regularly assigned duties, duty station, and sex.
</P>
<P>(ii) The substance of the offenses of which the individual is accused or suspected.
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity of the victim of any alleged or suspected offense, except the victim of a sexual offense.
</P>
<P>(iv) The identity of the apprehending and investigative agency, and the identity of accused's counsel, if any.
</P>
<P>(v) The factual circumstances immediately surrounding the apprehension of the accused, including the time and place of apprehension, resistance, pursuit, and use of weapons.
</P>
<P>(vi) The type and place of custody, if any.
</P>
<P>(vii) Information which has become a part of the record of proceedings of the court-martial in open session.
</P>
<P>(viii) The scheduling of any stage in the judicial process.
</P>
<P>(ix) The denial by the accused of any offense or offenses of which he may be accused or suspected (when release of such information is approved by the counsel of the accused).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited information.</I> The following information concerning a person accused or suspected of an offense or offenses generally may not be released, except as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Subjective opinions, observations, or comments concerning the accused's character, demeanor at any time (except as authorized in paragraph (4)(v) of this section), or guilt of the offense or offenses involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) The prior criminal record (including other apprehensions, charges or trials) or the character or reputation of the accused.
</P>
<P>(iii) The existence or contents of any confession, admission, statement, or alibi given by the accused, or the refusal or failure of the accused to make any statement.
</P>
<P>(iv) The performance of any examination or test, such as polygraph examinations, chemical tests, ballistics tests, etc., or the refusal or the failure of the accused to submit to an examination or test.
</P>
<P>(v) The identity, testimony, or credibility of possible witnesses, except as authorized in paragraph (4)(iii), of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The possibility of a plea of guilty to any offense charged or to a lesser offense and any negotiation or any offer to negotiate respecting a plea of guilty.
</P>
<P>(vii) References to confidential sources or investigative techniques or procedures.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any other matter when there is a reasonable likelihood that the dissemination of such matter will affect the deliberations of an investigative body or the findings or sentence of a court-martial or otherwise prejudice the due administration of military justice either before, during, or after trial.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exceptional cases.</I> The provisions of this section are not intended to restrict the release of information designed to enlist public assistance in apprehending an accused or suspect who is a fugitive from justice or to warn the public of any danger that a fugitive accused or suspect may present. Further, since the purpose of this section is to prescribe generally applicable guidelines, there may be exceptional circumstances which warrant the release of information prohibited under paragraph (a)(5) of this section or the nonrelease of information permitted under paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Attention should be given to the Secretary of the Navy instructions implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5720.42 series) and the Privacy Act (5211.5C series). Consultation with the command judge advocate, if one is assigned, or with the cognizant Naval Legal Service Office concerning interpretation and application of these instructions is encouraged.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spectators.</I> (1) The sessions of courts-martial shall be open to the public, which includes members of both the military and civilian communities. In order to maintain the dignity and decorum of the proceedings or for other good cause, the military judge may reasonably limit the number of spectators in, and the means of access to, the courtroom, exclude specific persons from the courtroom, and close a session. Video and audio recording and taking of photographs, except for the purpose of preparing the record of trial, in the courtroom during the proceedings and radio or television broadcasting of proceedings from the courtroom shall not be permitted. The military judge may, as a matter of discretion, permit contemporaneous closed-circuit video or audio transmission to permit viewing or hearing by an accused removed from the courtroom or by spectators when courtroom facilities are inadequate to accommodate a reasonable number of spectators.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>At pretrial investigations.</I> Consistent with Rules for Courts-Martial 405(h)(3), Manual for Courts-Martial, the Convening Authority or investigating officer may direct that all or part of an Article 32 investigation under 10 U.S.C. 832 be held in closed session and that all persons not connected with the hearing be excluded therefrom. The decision to exclude spectators may be based on the need to protect classified information, to prevent disclosure of matters that will be inadmissible in evidence at a subsequent trial by Courts-Martial and are of such a nature as to interfere with a fair trial by an impartial tribunal, or consistent with appellate case law, for a reason deemed appropriate by the commander ordering the investigation or the investigating officer. The reasons for closing an Article 32 investigation, and any objections thereto, shall be memorialized and included as an attachment to the report of investigation. Ordinarily, the proceedings of a pretrial investigation should be open to spectators. In cases dealing with classified information, the investigating officer will ensure that any part of a pretrial investigation (e.g., rights advisement) that does not involve classified information will remain open to spectators.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 5997, Mar. 6, 1973, as amended at 47 FR 49644, Nov. 2, 1982; 50 FR 23800, June 6, 1985; 69 FR 20540, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Miscellaneous Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.138" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.138   Fees of civilian witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of Payment.</I> The fees and mileage of a civilian witness shall be paid by the disbursing officer of the command of a convening authority or appointing authority or by the disbursing officer at or near the place where the tribunal sits or where a deposition is taken when such disbursing officer is presented a properly completed public voucher for such fees and mileage, signed by the witness and certified by one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Trial counsel or assistant trial counsel of the court-martial;
</P>
<P>(2) Summary court officer;
</P>
<P>(3) Counsel for the court in a court of inquiry;
</P>
<P>(4) Recorder or junior member of a board to redress injuries to property, or
</P>
<P>(5) Military or civil officer before whom a deposition is taken.
</P>
<FP>The public voucher must be accompanied by a subpoena or invitational orders (Joint Travel Regulations, vol. 2, chap. 6), and by a certified copy of the order appointing the court-martial, court of inquiry, or investigation. If, however, a deposition is taken before charges are referred for trial, the fees and mileage of the witness concerned shall be paid by the disbursing officer at or near the place where the deposition is taken upon presentation of a public voucher, properly completed as hereinbefore prescribed, and accompanied by an order from the officer who authorized the taking of the deposition, subscribed by him and directing the disbursing officer to pay to the witness the fees and mileage supported by the public voucher. When the civilian witness testifies outside the United States, its territories and possessions, the public voucher must be accompanied by a certified copy of the order appointing the court-martial, court of inquiry, or investigation, and by an order from the convening authority or appointing authority, subscribed by him and directing the disbursing officer to pay to the witness the fees and mileage supported by the public voucher.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Obtaining money for advance tender or payment.</I> Upon written request by one of the officers listed in paragraph (a) of this section, the disbursing officer under the command of the convening or appointing authority, or the disbursing officer nearest the place where the witness is found, will, at once, provide any of the persons listed in paragraph (a) of this section, or any other officer or person designated for the purpose, the required amount of money to be tendered or paid to the witness for mileage and fees for one day of attendance. The person so receiving the money for the purpose named shall furnish the disbursing officer concerned with a proper receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reimbursement.</I> If an officer charged with serving a subpoena pays from his personal funds the necessary fees and mileage to a witness, taking a receipt therefor, he is entitled to reimbursement upon submitting to the disbursing officer such receipt, together with a certificate of the appropriate person named in paragraph (a) of this section, to the effect that the payment was necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certificate of person before whom deposition is taken.</I> The certificate of the person named in paragraph (a) of this section, before whom the witness gave his deposition, will be evidence of the fact and period of attendance of the witness and the place from which summoned.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment of accrued fees.</I> The witness may be paid accrued fees at his request at any time during the period of attendance. The disbursing officer will make such interim payment(s) upon receipt of properly executed certificate(s). Upon his discharge from attendance, the witness will be paid, upon the execution of a certificate, a final amount covering unpaid fees and travel, including an amount for return travel. Payment for return travel will be made upon the basis of the actual fees and mileage allowed for travel to the court, or place designated for taking a deposition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Computation.</I> Travel expenses shall be determined on the basis of the shortest usually traveled route in accordance with official schedules. Reasonable allowance will be made for unavoidable detention.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nontransferability of accounts.</I> Accounts of civilian witnesses may not be transferred or assigned.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Signatures.</I> Signatures of witnesses signed by mark must be witnessed by two persons.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Rates for civilian witnesses prescribed by law</I>—(1) <I>Civilian witnesses not in Government employ.</I> A civilian not in Government employ, who is compelled or required to testify as a witness before a Naval tribunal at a specified place or to appear at a place where his deposition is to be taken for use before a court or fact-finding body, will receive fees, subsistence, and mileage as provided in 28 U.S.C. 1821. Witness and subsistence fees are not prorated. Instead any fractional part of a calendar day expended in attendance or qualifying for subsistence entitles the witness to payment for a full day. Further, nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as authorizing the payment of attendance fees to witnesses for:
</P>
<P>(i) Attendance or travel which is not performed either as a direct result of being compelled to testify pursuant to a subpoena or as a direct result of invitational orders; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For travel which is performed prior to being duly summoned as a witness; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For travel returning to their places of residence if the travel from their places of residence does not qualify for payment under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civilian witnesses in Government employ.</I> When summoned as a witness, a civilian in the employ of the Government shall be paid as authorized by Joint Travel Regulations.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Supplemental construction of section.</I> Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as permitting or requiring the payment of fees to those witnesses not requested or whose testimony is determined not to meet the standards of relevancy and materiality set forth in accordance with MCM, 1984, R.C.M. 703.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Expert witnesses.</I> (1) The convening authority will authorize the employment of an expert witness and will fix the limit of compensation to be paid such expert on the basis of the normal compensation paid by United States attorneys for attendance of a witness of such standing in United States courts in the area involved. Information concerning such normal compensation may be obtained from the nearest officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction having a judge advocate assigned in other than an additional duty, temporary duty, or temporary additional duty capacity. Convening authorities at overseas commands will adhere to fees paid such witnesses in the Hawaiian area and may obtain information as to the limit of such fees from the Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor. See paragraph (l) of this section for fees payable to foreign nationals.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (i) of this section are applicable to expert witnesses. However, the expert witness fee prescribed by the convening authority will be paid in lieu of ordinary attendance fees on those days the witness is required to attend the court.
</P>
<P>(3) An expert witness employed in strict accordance with MCM, 1984, R.C.M. 703(d), may be paid compensation at the rate prescribed in advance by the official empowered to authorize his employment (11 Comp. Gen. 504). In the absence of such authorization, no fees other than ordinary witness fees may be paid for the employment of an individual as an expert witness. After an expert witness has testified pursuant to such employment, the certificate of one of the officers listed in subsection a above, when presented to the disbursing officer, shall also enclose a certified copy of the authorization of the convening authority.
</P>
<P>(l) Payment of witness fees to foreign nationals: Officers exercising general court-martial jurisdiction in areas other than a State of the United States shall establish rates of compensation for payment of foreign nationals who testify as witnesses, including expert witnesses, at courts-martial convened in such areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 5997, Mar. 6, 1973, as amended at 47 FR 49644, Nov. 2, 1982; 50 FR 23801, June 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 719.139-719.141" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 719.139-719.141   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.142" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.142   Suspension of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Report of Allegations of Misconduct or Disability.</I> When information comes to the attention of a member of a court-martial, a military judge, trial or defense counsel, staff judge advocate, member of the Navy-Marine Corps Court of Military Review or other directly interested or concerned party that a judge advocate or civilian who is acting or is about to act as counsel before a proceeding conducted under the UCMJ or MCM is or has been unable to discharge properly all the duties of his or her position by reason of mental or physical disability or has been engaged in professional or personal misconduct of such a serious nature as to demonstrate that he or she is lacking in integrity or is failing to meet the ethical standards of the profession or is otherwise unworthy or unqualified to perform the duties of a judge advocate or attorney, such information should be reported to the commanding officer of that judge advocate or, in the case of civilian counsel, to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the command convening the proceedings or to the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of report.</I> The report shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing, under oath or affirmation, and made and signed by the individual reporting the information.
</P>
<P>(2) State that the individual reporting the information has personal knowledge or belief or has otherwise received reliable information indicating that:
</P>
<P>(i) The counsel is, or has been, unable to discharge properly all the duties of his or her office by reason of mental or physical disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The counsel is or has been engaged in professional or personal misconduct of such a serious nature as to demonstrate that he or she is lacking in integrity or is failing to meet the ethical standards of the profession; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The counsel is unworthy or unqualified to perform his or her duties;
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the grounds of the allegation together with all relevant facts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be forwarded to the appropriate authority as set forth in paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of the Report</I>—(1) <I>Action by the Commanding Officer of a judge advocate.</I> Upon receipt of the report, the commanding officer:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall dismiss any report relating to the performance of a judge advocate more properly appealed under law or any report that is frivolous, unfounded, or vague and return it to the reporting individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) May make further inquiry into the report at his or her discretion to determine the merits of the report. The commanding officer may appoint an officer to investigate informally the allegations of the report to determine whether further action is warranted. Any officer so appointed should be a judge advocate senior in rank to the judge advocate being investigated;
</P>
<P>(iii) May take appropriate action to address and dispose of the matter being mindful of such measures as warning, counseling, caution, instruction, proceedings in contempt, therapy, and other punitive or administrative action; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall, if the commanding officer is of the opinion that evidence of disability or professional or personal misconduct exists, and that remedial measures short of suspension or decertification are not appropriate or will not be effective, forward the original complaint, a written report of the inquiry or investigation, all other relevant information, and his or her comments and recommendations to the officer in the chain of command exercising general court-martial authority.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Action by officer exercising general court-martial authority.</I> (i) Upon receipt of a report of an allegation of misconduct or disability of a counsel, the officer exercising general court-martial convening authority:
</P>
<P>(A) May take the action authorized by subsections (c)(1)(i), (ii) or (iii); or
</P>
<P>(B) Shall, if he or she considers that evidence of disability or professional or personal misconduct exists and that other remedial measures short of suspension or decertification are not appropriate or will not be effective, appoint a board of officers to investigate the matter and to report its findings and its recommendations. This board shall be comprised of at least three officers, each an Article 27(b), Uniform Code of Military Justice, certified judge advocate. If practicable, each of the officers of the board should be senior to the judge advocate under investigation. If the counsel is a member of the Marine Corps, a majority of the members of the board should be Marine Corps judge advocates. The senior officer of the board shall cause notice to be given to the counsel, judge advocate or civilian (respondent), informing him or her of the misconduct or other disqualification alleged and affording him or her the opportunity to appear before the board for a hearing. The respondent shall be permitted at least ten (10) days' notice prior to the hearing. Failure to appear on a set date after notice shall constitute waiver of appearance, absent good cause shown. The respondent shall be generally afforded the rights of a party as set out in section 0304 of this Manual, except that, in the event the judge advocate respondent wishes to have military counsel appointed, he or she shall not have the right to select or identify a particular military counsel. A civilian respondent may not be represented by military counsel, but may be represented by civilian counsel at no expense to the Government. Upon ascertaining the relevant facts after notice and hearing, a written report of the findings and recommendations of the board shall be made to the officer who convened the board. In all cases, a written copy of the board's findings and recommendations shall be provided to the respondent. The respondent shall be given an opportunity to comment on the report in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of the report of the board of investigation, the officer exercising general court-martial authority shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Return the report to the board for further investigation, if the investigation is determined to be incomplete; or
</P>
<P>(B) Forward the report of the board of investigation to the Judge Advocate General together with comments and recommendations concerning suspension of the counsel involved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Action by the Judge Advocate General.</I> (i) Upon receipt of a report of an allegation of misconduct or disability of a counsel, the Judge Advocate General:
</P>
<P>(A) May take the action authorized by subsections (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii);
</P>
<P>(B) May appoint a board of officers for investigation and hearing in accordance with subsections (c)(2)(i)(B) or
</P>
<P>(C) May request the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the command of the respondent (if judge advocate counsel) or over the proceedings (if civilian counsel) to take the matter for investigation and hearing in accordance with subsection (c)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of the report of the investigating board, the Judge Advocate General:
</P>
<P>(A) May determine whether the respondent is to be suspended or decertified and, if so, whether for a stated term or indefinitely;
</P>
<P>(B) May determine that the findings of the board do not warrant further action; or
</P>
<P>(C) May return the report to the sending officer with appropriate instructions for further inquiry or action. The Judge Advocate General may, sua sponte, or upon petition of the respondent, modify or revoke any prior order of suspension or dismissal of a report. Further, if the Judge Advocate General suspends counsel, the Judge Advocates General of the other armed forces will be notified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grounds justifying suspension of counsel or suspension or decertification of a Judge Advocate.</I> (1) Suspension or decertification is to be employed only after it has been established that a counsel has been unable to discharge properly all the duties of his or her office by reason of mental or physical disability or has been engaged in professional or personal misconduct of such a serious nature as to demonstrate that he or she is lacking in integrity or is failing to meet the ethical standards of the profession or is otherwise unworthy or unqualified to perform the duties of a counsel Action to suspend or decertify should not be initiated because of personal prejudice or hostility toward counsel, nor should such action be initiated because counsel has initiated an aggressive, zealous or novel defense, or the apparent misconduct stems from inexperience or lack of instruction.
</P>
<P>(2) Specific grounds for suspension or decertification include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrated incompetence while acting as counsel before, during or after a court-martial.
</P>
<P>(ii) Preventing or obstructing justice, including the deliberate use of frivolous or unwarranted dilatory tactics.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fabricating papers or other evidence.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tampering with a witness.
</P>
<P>(v) Abusive conduct toward the court-martial, the Navy-Marine Corps Court of Military Review, the military judge, or opposing counsel.
</P>
<P>(vi) Flagrant or repeated violations of any specific rules of conduct prescribed for counsel in the Manual for Courts-Martial.
</P>
<P>(vii) Conviction of an offense involving moral turpitude or conviction for violation of article 48, UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(viii) Disbarment by a State Bar, Federal Court, or the United States Court of Military Appeals.
</P>
<P>(ix) Suspension as counsel by the Judge Advocate General of the Navy, Army, or Air Force or the General Counsel of the Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(x) Flagrant or repeated violations of the <I>Uniform Rules of Practice Before Navy-Marine Corps Courts-Martial</I> as outlined in appendix A-1-p(1) of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(xi) Flagrant or repeated violations of the provisions of section 0134 of this Manual of the Judge Advocate General dealing with the <I>Release of Information Pertaining to Accused Persons; Spectators at Judicial Sessions.</I>
</P>
<P>(xii) Failure to meet the rules set forth in the ABA Code of Professional Responsibility and the ABA Standards on <I>Fair Trial and Free Press</I> and <I>The Prosecution Function and the Defense Function.</I> In view of the unique mission and personal requirements of the military, many of the rules and principles of the ABA Code or Standards are not applicable to the military lawyer. Accordingly, the rules are to be used as a guide only, and a failure to comply with the specific wording of a rule is not to be construed as a violation of the rule where common sense would indicate to a reasonable person that there is a distinction between the civilian context, which the codes were drafted to embrace, and the unique concerns of the military setting, where the codes serve as a general guide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 23801, June 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.143" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.143   Petition for new trial under 10 U.S.C. 873.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provisions.</I> 10 U.S.C. 873, provides, “At any time within 2 years after approval by the convening authority of a court-martial sentence, the accused may petition the Judge Advocate General for a new trial on the grounds of newly discovered evidence or fraud on the court. If the accused's case is pending before a Court of Military Review or before the Court of Military Appeals, that Judge Advocate General shall refer the petition to the appropriate court for action. Otherwise the Judge Advocate General shall act upon the petition.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission procedures:</I> At any time within 2 years after approval by the convening authority of a court-martial sentence, the accused may petition the Judge Advocate General for a new trial on the ground of newly discovered evidence or fraud on the court-martial. The petition for new trial may be submitted by the accused personally, or by accused's counsel, regardless of whether the accused has been separated from the service. A petition may not be submitted after the death of the accused.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of petitions:</I> The form and contents of petitions for new trial are specified in MCM, 1984, R.C.M. 1210(c). The petition for a new trial shall be written and shall be signed under oath or affirmation by the accused, by a person possessing the power of attorney of the accused for that purpose, or by a person with the authorization of an appropriate court to sign the petition as the representative of the accused. The petition shall contain the following information, or an explanation why such matters are not included:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, service number, and current address of the accused;
</P>
<P>(2) The date and location of the trial;
</P>
<P>(3) The type of court-martial and the title or position of the convening authority;
</P>
<P>(4) The request for the new trial;
</P>
<P>(5) The sentence or a description thereof as approved or affirmed, with any later reduction thereof by clemency or otherwise,
</P>
<P>(6) A brief description of any finding or sentence believed to be unjust;
</P>
<P>(7) A full statement of the newly discovered evidence or fraud on the court-martial which is relied upon for the remedy sought;
</P>
<P>(8) Affidavits pertinent to the matters in subsection (6)i; and
</P>
<P>(9) Affidavit of each person whom the accused expects to present as a witness in the event of a new trial. Each affidavit should set forth briefly the relevant facts within the personal knowledge of the witness.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Who may act on petition.</I> If the accused's case is pending before a Court of Military Review or the Court of Military Appeals, the Judge Advocate General shall refer the petition to the appropriate court for action. Otherwise, the Judge Advocate shall act on the petition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ground for new trial.</I> A new trial may be granted only on grounds of newly discovered evidence or fraud on the court-martial.
</P>
<P>(1) A new trial shall not be granted on the grounds of newly discovered evidence unless the petition shows that;
</P>
<P>(i) The evidence was discovered after the trial,
</P>
<P>(ii) The evidence is not such that it would have been discovered by the petitioner at the time of trial in the exercise of due diligence; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The newly discovered evidence, if considered by a court-martial in the light of all other pertinent evidence, would probably produce a substantially more favorable result for the accused.
</P>
<P>(2) No fraud on the court-martial warrants a new trial unless it had a substantial contributing effect on a finding of guilty or the sentence adjudged.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action on the petition.</I> (1) The authority considering the petition may cause such additional investigation to be made and such additional information to be secured as that authority believes appropriate. Upon written request, and in his discretion, the authority considering the petition may permit oral argument on the matter.
</P>
<P>(2) When a petition is considered by the Judge Advocate General, any hearing may be before the Judge Advocate General or before an officer or officers designated by the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Judge Advocate General believes meritorious grounds for relief under Article 74, Uniform Code of Military Justice have been established but that a new trial is not appropriate, the Judge Advocate General may act under article 74, Uniform Code of Military Justice, if authorized, or transmit the petition and related papers to the Secretary concerned with a recommendation.
</P>
<P>(4) The Judge Advocate may also, in cases which have been finally reviewed but have not been reviewed by a Court of Military Review, act under article 69, Uniform Code of Military Justice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 23803, June 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.144" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.144   Application for relief under 10 U.S.C. 869, in cases which have been finally reviewed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provisions.</I> 10 U.S.C. 869 provides in pertinent part, “The findings or sentence, or both, in a court-martial case not reviewed under subsection (a) or under section 866 of this title (article 66) may be modified or set aside, in whole or in part, by the Judge Advocate General on the ground of newly discovered evidence, fraud on the court, lack of jurisdiction over the accused or the offense, error prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused, or the appropriateness of the sentence. If such a case is considered upon application of the accused, the application must be filed in the Office of the Judge Advocate General by the accused on or before the last day of the two-year period beginning on the date the sentence is approved under section 860(c) of this title (article 60(c)), unless the accused establishes good cause for failure to file within that time.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limitations.</I> In order to be considered by the Judge Advocate General, an application for relief must be placed in military channels if the applicant is on active duty, or be deposited in the mail if the applicant is no longer on active duty, on or before the last day of the two-year period beginning on the date the sentence is approved by the convening authority. An application not filed in compliance with these time limits may be considered if the Judge Advocate General determines, in his or her sole discretion, that “good cause” for failure to file within the time limits has been established by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission procedures.</I> Applications for relief may be submitted to the Judge Advocate General by letter. If the accused is on active duty, the application shall be submitted via the applicant's commanding officer, and the command that convened the court, and the command that reviewed the case under 10 U.S.C. 864(a) or (b). If the original record of trail is held by the command that reviewed the case under 10 U.S.C. 864(a) or (b), it shall be forwarded as an enclosure to the endorsement. If the original record of trial has been filed in the National Personnel Records Center, the endorsement will include all necessary retrieval data (accession number, box number, and shelf location) obtained from the receipt returned from the National Personnel Records Center to the sending activity. This endorsement shall also include information and specific comment on the grounds for relief asserted in the application, and an opinion on the merits of the application. If the applicant is no longer on active duty, the application may be submitted directly to the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of applications.</I> All applications for relief shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Full name of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) Social Security number and branch of service, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) Present grade if on active duty or retired, or “civilian” or “deceased” as applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) Address at time the application is forwarded;
</P>
<P>(5) Date of trial;
</P>
<P>(6) Place of trial;
</P>
<P>(7) Command title of the organization at which the court-martial was convened (convening authority);
</P>
<P>(8) Command title of the officer exercising review authority in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 864 over the applicant at the time of trial, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(9) Type of court-martial which convicted the applicant, and sentence adjudged;
</P>
<P>(10) General grounds for relief which must be one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Newly discovered evidence;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fraud on the court;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lack of jurisdiction over the accused or the offense;
</P>
<P>(iv) Error prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused;
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriateness of the sentence;
</P>
<P>(11) An elaboration of the specific prejudice resulting from any error cited. (Legal authorities to support the applicant's contentions may be included, and the format used may take the form of a legal brief if the applicant so desires.);
</P>
<P>(12) Any other matter which the applicant desires to submit;
</P>
<P>(13) Relief requested; and
</P>
<P>(14) Facts and circumstances to establish “good cause” for a failure to file the application within the time limits prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(15) If the application is signed by a person other than the applicant pursuant to subsection e, an explanation of the circumstances rendering the applicant incapable of making application. The applicant's copy of the record of trial will <I>not</I> be forwarded with the application for relief, unless specifically requested by the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Signatures on applications.</I> Unless incapable of making application, the applicant shall personally sign the application under oath before an official authorized to administer oaths. If the applicant is incapable of making application, the application may be signed under oath and submitted by the applicant's spouse, next of kin, executor, guardian or other person with a proper interest in the matter. In this regard, one is considered incapable of making application for purposes of this section when unable to sign the application under oath due to physical or mental incapacity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 23804, June 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 719.145-719.150" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 719.145-719.150   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.151" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.151   Furnishing of advice and counsel to accused placed in pretrial confinement.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of the Navy Corrections Manual, SECNAVINST 1640.9, reiterates the requirement of Article 10, UCMJ, that, when a person is placed in pretrial confinement, immediate steps should be taken to inform the confinee of the specific wrong of which he is accused and try him or to dismiss the charges and release him. The Corrections Manual requires that this information normally will be provided within 48 hours along with advice as to the confinee's right to consult with lawyer counsel and his right to prepare for trial. Lawyer counsel may be either a civilian lawyer provided by the confinee at his own expense or a military lawyer provided by the Government. If a confinee requests to confer with a military lawyer, such lawyer should normally be made available for consultation within 48 hours after the request is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 18437, May 28, 1974]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.155" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.155   Application under 10 U.S.C. 874(b) for the substitution of an administrative form of discharge for a punitive discharge or dismissal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provisions.</I> 10 U.S.C. 874(b) provides that the “Secretary concerned may, for good cause, substitute an administrative form of discharge for a discharge or dismissal executed in accordance with the sentence of a court-martial.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission procedures.</I> Applications for relief will be submitted to the Secretary using the following address: Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General, Code 20), 200 Stovall Street, Alexandria, VA 22332-2400. Except in unusual circumstances, applications will not normally be considered if received within five (5) years of the execution of the punitive discharge or dismissal, or within five (5) years of disapproval of a prior request under 10 U.S.C. 874(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the application.</I> All applications shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Full name of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) Social Security Number, service number (if different), and branch of service of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(3) Present age and date of birth of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) Present residence of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(5) Date and place of the trial, and type of court-martial which resulted in the punitive discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(6) Command title of the convening authority of the court-martial which resulted in the punitive discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(7) Offense(s) of which the applicant was convicted, and sentence finally approved from the trial which resulted in the punitive discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(8) Date the punitive discharge or dismissal was executed;
</P>
<P>(9) Applicant's present marital status, and number and ages of dependents, if any;
</P>
<P>(10) Applicant's civilian criminal record (arrest(s) with disposition, and conviction(s)), both prior and subsequent to the court-martial which resulted in the punitive discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(11) Applicant's entire court-martial record (offense(s) of which convicted and finally approved sentence(s)), and nonjudicial punishment record (including offense(s) and punishment(s) awarded);
</P>
<P>(12) Any military administrative discharge proceedings (circumstances and disposition) initiated against the applicant;
</P>
<P>(13) Applicant's full employment record since the punitive discharge or dismissal was executed;
</P>
<P>(14) The specific type and character of administrative discharge requested pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 874(b) (a more favorable administrative discharge than that requested will not be approved);
</P>
<P>(15) At least three but not more than six character affidavits, (The character affidavits must be notarized, must indicate the relationship of the affiant to the applicant, and must include the address of the affiant as well as specific reasons why the affiant believes the applicant to be of good character. The affidavits should discuss the applicant's character primarily as reflected in the civilian community subsequent to the punitive discharge or dismissal which is the subject of the application);
</P>
<P>(16) Any matters, other than the character affidavits, supporting the considerations described in subparagraph (18) below;
</P>
<P>(17) Any other relief sought within the Department of the Navy and outside the Department of the Navy including dates of application and final dispositions;
</P>
<P>(18) A statement by the applicant, setting forth the specific considerations which the applicant believes constitute “good cause,” so as to warrant the substitution of an administrative form of discharge for the punitive discharge or dismissal previously executed. (In this connection, 10 U.S.C. 874(b) does not provide another regular or extraordinary procedure for the review of a court-martial. Questions of guilt or innocence, or legal issues attendant to the court-martial which resulted in the punitive discharge or dismissal, are neither relevant nor appropriate for consideration under 10 U.S.C. 874(b). As used in the statute, “good cause” was envisioned by Congress to encompass only Secretarial exercise of clemency and ultimate control of sentence uniformity. Accordingly, in determining what constitutes “good cause” under 10 U.S.C. 874(b), the primary Secretarial concern will be with the applicant's record in the civilian community subsequent to his or her punitive separation. Material submitted by the 10 U.S.C. 874(b) applicant should be consistent with the foregoing.)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature on application.</I> Unless incapable of making application himself or herself, the applicant shall personally sign the application, under oath, before a notary or other official authorized to administer oaths. If the applicant is incapable of executing the application, the application may be signed under oath and submitted by the applicant's spouse, next of kin, executor, guardian and other person recognized as a personal representative by the law of the applicant's domicile. One is considered incapable of executing an application for purposes of this paragraph only when the applicant is unable to sign the application under oath due to physical or mental incapacity. When an application is signed by a person other than the applicant, the circumstances rendering the applicant incapable of making sworn application shall be set forth in the application, with appropriate documentation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privacy Act Statement.</I> Disclosure of personal information requested by paragraph (c) of this section is voluntary; however, failure to accurately provide all requested information may result in the application being denied because of inadequate documentation of good cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 49645, Nov. 2, 1982, as amended at 50 FR 23804, June 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="720" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 720—DELIVERY OF PERSONNEL; SERVICE OF PROCESS AND SUBPOENAS; PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 5031 and 5148; 32 CFR 700.206 and 700.1202.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Delivery of Personnel</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 5228, Feb. 13, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 720.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.1   Delivery of persons requested by State authorities in criminal cases.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part deals with requests by State authorities for the surrender of members or civilians pursuant to arrest warrants or similar process, generally in connection with a criminal prosecution. Responding to such requests by a State for delivery of members or civilian employees involves balancing the Federal interest in preserving sovereign immunity and the productivity, peace, good order, and discipline of the installation against the right of the State to exercise its jurisdiction. Additionally, by regulation, naval and Marine authorities are limited in the extent to which they can directly assist such an act. Commands should respond to such requests as set out below, generally using the minimum authority necessary to preserve the Federal interests without unduly restricting State jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.2   Delivery when persons are within the territorial limits of the requesting State.</HEAD>
<P>When the delivery of any member or civilian is requested by local civil authorities of a State for an offense punishable under the laws of that jurisdiction, and such person is located at a Navy or Marine Corps installation within the requesting jurisdiction, or aboard a ship within the territorial waters of such jurisdiction, commanding officers are authorized to and normally will deliver such person when a proper warrant is issued. In the case of a member, delivery will only be effected upon compliance with § 720.6, subject to the exceptions in § 720.9. A judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps should be consulted before delivery is effected. The rule discussed above applies equally to civilian employees and civilian contractors and their employees when located on a Navy or Marine Corps installation, except that compliance with § 720.6 and consideration of § 720.9 are not required (for purposes of this part, “State” includes the District of Columbia, territories, commonwealths, and all possessions or protectorates of the United States). Commands should normally not become actively involved in civilian law enforcement. When a command has determined that a person is to be delivered in response to a valid warrant, the following guidance should be considered. If the person to be delivered is a military member, the member may be ordered to report to a location designated by the commanding officer and surrendered to civil authorities under Article 14, UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 814). If the person to be delivered is a civilian, the person may be invited to report to the designated space for delivery. If the civilian refuses, the civilian authorities may be escorted to a place where the civilian is located in order that delivery may be effected. A civilian may be directed to leave a classified area. All should be done with minimum interference to good order and discipline.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.3   Delivery when persons are beyond territorial limits of the requesting State.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When State civil authorities request delivery of any member of the Navy or Marine Corps for an alleged crime or offense punishable under the law of the jurisdiction making the request, and such member is not attached to a Navy or Marine Corps activity within the requesting State or a ship within the territorial waters thereof, the following action will be taken. Any officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction, or officer designated by him, or any commanding officer, after consultation with a judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps, is authorized (upon compliance with the provisions of this section and § 720.6, and subject to the exceptions in § 720.9) to deliver such member to make the member amenable to prosecution. The member may be delivered upon formal or informal waiver of extradition in accordance with § 720.3(b), or upon presentation of a fugitive warrant, in which case the procedures of § 720.3(c) apply. The rule discussed above applies equally to civilian employees and civilian contractors and their employees when located on a Department of the Navy installation not within the requesting State, except that compliance with § 720.6 and consideration of § 720.9 are not required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of extradition.</I> (1) Any member may waive formal extradition. A waiver must be in writing and be witnessed. It must include a statement that the member signing it has received counsel of either a military or civilian attorney prior to executing the waiver, and it must further set forth the name and address of the attorney consulted.
</P>
<P>(2) In every case where there is any doubt as to the voluntary nature of a waiver, such doubt shall be resolved against its use and all persons concerned will be advised to comply with the procedures set forth in § 720.3(c).
</P>
<P>(3) Executed copies of all waivers will be mailed to the Judge Advocate General immediately after their execution.
</P>
<P>(4) When a member declines to waive extradition, the nearest Naval Legal Service Office or Marine Corps staff judge advocate shall be informed and shall confer with the civil authorities as appropriate. The member concerned shall not be transferred or ordered out of the State in which he is then located without the permission of the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General), unless a fugitive warrant is obtained as set forth in § 720.3(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fugitive warrants.</I> (1) A fugitive warrant, as used in this chapter, is a warrant issued by a State court of competent jurisdiction for the arrest of a member. Normally, a State requesting delivery of a member from another State will issue a fugitive warrant to the State where the member is then located.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon issuance of a fugitive warrant by the requesting State to the State in which the member is located, the latter State will normally request delivery of the member to local State authorities. Delivery to local State authorities should be arranged by Navy or Marine Corps officers designated in § 720.3(a), upon compliance with the provisions of § 720.6, and subject to the conditions of §§ 720.9 and 720.3(c) (3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a request for delivery of a member under fugitive warrant to State authorities, if the member voluntarily waives extradition, the provisions of § 720.3(b) apply. If the member is delivered to local authorities but refuses to waive extradition in the courts of the State in which he is located.
</P>
<P>(4) No delivery of a member by Navy or Marine Corps officers pursuant to a fugitive warrant or waiver of extradition shall be effected without completion of the agreement required by § 720.6 and execution of such agreement either:
</P>
<P>(i) By authorities of both the requesting State and the State in which the member is located, or
</P>
<P>(ii) By authorities of the State in which the member is located if such authorities, on behalf of the requesting State, accept the full responsibility for returning the number to a command designated by the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Members stationed outside the United States.</I> When the member sought by State authorities is not located within the United States, see § 720.4.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.4   Persons stationed outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Persons desired by local U.S. authorities.</I> When delivery of any member in the Navy or Marine Corps, or any civilian employee or dependent, is desired for trial by state authorities and the individual whose presence is sought is stationed outside the United States, the provisions of subpart D of this part will be followed. In all such cases, the nearest judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps shall be consulted before any action is taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Members desired by U.S. Federal authorities.</I> When delivery of any member of the Navy or Marine Corps is desired for trial in a Federal district court, upon appropriate representation by the Department of Justice to the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General), the member will be returned to the United States at the expense of the Department of the Navy and held at a military facility convenient to the Department of the Navy and to the Department of Justice. Delivery may be accomplished as set forth in § 720.7, subject to the exceptions in § 720.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.5   Authority of the Judge Advocate General and the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of the Judge Advocate General.</I> The Judge Advocate General, the Deputy Judge Advocate General, and the Assistant Judge Advocates General are authorized to act for the Secretary of the Navy in performance of functions under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority of the General Counsel.</I> The authority of the General Counsel of the Navy is prescribed by Navy Regulation (32 CFR 700.203 (a) and (g)) and by appropriate departmental directives and instructions (e.g., SECNAVINST 5430.25D). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The principal areas of responsibility of the Office of the General Counsel (OGC) are commercial law, including maritime contract matters; civilian employee law; real property law; and Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act matters as delineated in 32 CFR part 701. The Office of the General Counsel shares responsibility with the Judge Advocate General for environmental law cases.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained if needed, from the Commanding Officer, Naval Publication and Forms Center, 5801 Tabor Avenue, Philadelphia, PA 19120.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Points of contact.</I> Commanding officers are advised to contact their local area judge advocates for assistance in referring matters to the appropriate office of the Judge Advocate General or General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Coordination with the Commandant of the Marine Corps.</I> Marine Corps commands shall inform the Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) of all matters referred to the Judge Advocate General or the Office of General Counsel. Copies of all correspondence and documents shall also be provided to CMC. The Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant (CMC (JAR)) shall be advised of all matters referred to the Judge Advocate General. Counsel to the Commandant shall be advised of matters referred to the Office of General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.6   Agreement required prior to delivery to State authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delivery under Article 14, UCMJ.</I> When delivery of any member of the Navy or Marine Corps to the civilian authorities of a State is authorized, the member's commanding officer shall, before making such delivery, obtain from the Governor or other duly authorized officer of such State a written agreement. The State official completing the agreement must show that he is authorized to bind the State to the terms of the agreement. When indicating in the agreement the naval or Marine Corps activity to which the member delivered is to be returned by the State, care should be taken to designate the closest appropriate activity (to the command to which the member is attached) that possesses special court-martial jurisdiction. The Department of the Navy considers this agreement substantially complied with when:
</P>
<P>(1) The member is furnished transportation (under escort in cases of delivery in accordance with § 720.12) to a naval or Marine Corps activity as set forth in the agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) The member is provided cash to cover incidental expenses en route thereto; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of the Navy is so informed.
</P>
<FP>As soon as practicable, a copy of the delivery agreement shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Delivery under Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act.</I> Special forms are used when delivering prisoners under the Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act. The Act is infrequently used and most requests are pursuant to Article 14, UCMJ. See § 720.12 for a detailed discussion of the Detainers Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.7   Delivery of persons to Federal authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to deliver.</I> When Federal law enforcement authorities display proper credentials and Federal warrants for the arrest of members, civilian employees, civilian contractors and their employees, or dependents residing at or located on a Department of the Navy installation, commanding officers are authorized to and should allow the arrest of the individual sought. The exceptions in § 720.9 may be applied to members. A judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps should be consulted before delivery is effected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreement not required of Federal authorities.</I> The agreement described in § 720.6 is not a condition to the delivery of members to Federal law enforcement authorities. Regardless of whether the member is convicted or acquitted, after final disposition of the case, the member will be returned to the Naval Service (provided that naval authorities desire his return) and the necessary expenses will be paid from an appropriation under the control of the Department of Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.8   Delivery of persons to foreign authorities.</HEAD>
<P>Except when provided by agreement between the United States and the foreign government concerned, commanding officers are not authorized to deliver members or civilian employees of the Department of the Navy, or their dependents residing at or located on a naval or Marine Corps installation, to foreign authorities. When a request for delivery of these persons is received in a country with which the United States has no agreement or when the commanding officer is in doubt, advice should be sought from the Judge Advocate General. Detailed information concerning the delivery of members, civilian employees, and dependents to foreign authorities when a status of forces agreement is in effect is contained in DoD Directive 5525.1 of 9 April 1985 and SECNAVINST 5820.4F. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 of § 720.5(b).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.9   Circumstances in which delivery is refused.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disciplinary proceedings pending.</I> When disciplinary proceedings involving military offenses are pending, commanding officers should obtain legal guidance from a judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps prior to delivery of members to Federal or State authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When delivery may be refused.</I> Delivery may be refused only in the following limited circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the accused has been retained for prosecution; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the commanding officer determines that extraordinary circumstances exist which indicate that delivery should be refused.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delivery under Detainers Act.</I> When the accused is undergoing sentence of a court-martial, see § 720.12.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports required.</I> When delivery will be refused, the commanding officer shall report the circumstances to the Judge Advocate General by telephone, or by message if telephone is impractical. The initial report shall be confirmed by letter setting forth a full statement of the facts. A copy of the report shall be forwarded to the regional coordinator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.10   Members released by civil authorities on bail or on their own recognizance.</HEAD>
<P>A member of the Navy or Marine Corps arrested by Federal or State authorities and released on bail or on his own recognizance has a duty to return to his parent organization. Accordingly, when a member of the Navy or Marine Corps is arrested by Federal or State authorities and returns to his ship or station on bail, or on his own recognizance, the commanding officer, upon verification of the attesting facts, date of trial, and approximate length of time that should be covered by the absence, shall grant liberty or leave to permit appearance for trial, unless this would have a serious negative impact on the command. In the event that liberty or leave is not granted, a judge advocate of the Navy or Marine Corps should immediately be requested to act as liaison with the court. Nothing in this section is to be construed as permitting the member arrested and released to avoid the obligations of bond or recognizance by reason of the member's being in the military service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.11   Interviewing servicemembers or civilian employees by Federal civilian investigative agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Requests by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, Naval Investigative Service Command, or other Federal civilian investigative agencies to interview members or civilian employees of the Department of the Navy suspected or accused of crimes should be promptly honored. Any refusal of such a request shall be immediately reported to the Judge Advocate General, or the Office of General Counsel, as appropriate, by telephone, or by message if telephone is impractical. When the employee in question is a member of an exclusive bargaining unit, a staff judge advocate or General Counsel attorney will be consulted to determine whether the employee has a right to have a bargaining unit representative present during the interview.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.12   Request for delivery of members serving sentence of court-martial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Article 14, UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 814), provides authority to honor requests for delivery of members serving a sentence of a court-martial. Although seldom utilized, additional authority and mandatory obligation to deliver such members are provided by the Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act (18 U.S.C. app. 9, hereinafter “the Act”), which applies to the Federal agency holding the prisoner. The Department of the Navy, as an agency of the Federal Government, shall comply with the Act. The Act is designed to avoid speedy-trial issues and to aid in rehabilitation efforts by securing a greater degree of certainty about a prisoner's future. The Act provides a way for a prisoner to be tried on charges pending before State courts, either at the request of the State where the charges are pending or the prisoner's request. When refusal of delivery under Article 14, UCMJ, is intended, comply with § 720.9(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act.</I> Upon request under the Act by either State authorities or the prisoner, the cognizant Navy or Marine Corps staff judge advocate, as appropriate, shall communicate with the appropriate State officials, and monitor and ensure that the cognizant commander acts on all such requests. The Act provides that court-martial sentences continue to run during temporary custody. This section does not cover requests between Federal authorities. The procedure set forth in § 720.12(c) shall be applied in such cases.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>State request.</I> State officials may request delivery of prisoners in military custody under section 2, Article IV, of the Act. Where a detainer has been lodged against the prisoner, and the prisoner is serving a sentence (regardless of whether an appeal is in process), delivery is mandatory unless the request is disapproved by the Director of the Bureau of Prisons, Washington, DC, 20537 as the designee of the Attorney General for this purpose. 28 CFR 0.96(n). There has been no further delegation to military authority. The prisoner should be informed that he may request the Director of the Bureau of Prisons, Washington, DC 20537, within 30 days after such request is received, to deny the request. Upon the expiration of such 30-day period or upon the Director of the Bureau of Prisons' denial of the prisoner's request, whichever occurs first, the prisoner shall be delivered to the requesting authority.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prisoner request.</I> The obligation to grant temporary custody under the Act also applies to prisoners' requests to be delivered to State authority. Section 2, Article III(c) of the Act requires the custodial official to inform the prisoner of the existence of any detainer and of the prisoner's right to request disposition. The prisoner's request is directed to the custodial official who must forward it to the appropriate prosecuting official and court, with a certificate of prisoner status as provided by Article III of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Article 14, UCMJ.</I> When a request for custody does not invoke the Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act, delivery of custody shall be governed by Article 14, UCMJ, and §§ 720.2 through 720.9. The request shall be honored unless, in the exercise of discretion, there is an overriding reason for retaining the accused in military custody, e.g., additional courts-martial are to be convened or the delivery would severely prejudice the prisoner's appellate rights. Execution of the agreement discussed in § 720.6 is a condition precedent to delivery to State authorities. It is not required before delivery to Federal authorities. See § 720.7. Unlike delivery under the Act, delivery of custody pursuant to Article 14, UCMJ, interrupts execution of the court-martial sentence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.13   Request for delivery of members serving sentence of a State court.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Ordinarily, members serving protracted sentences resulting from a State criminal conviction will be processed for administrative discharge by reason of misconduct. It may, however, be in the best interest of the Naval Service to retain a member charged with a serious offense, subject to military jurisdiction, to try the member by court-martial. The Navy may obtain temporary custody of incarcerated members for prosecution with a request to the State under the Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act. 18 U.S.C. app. 9. The Department of the Navy may use the Act in the same manner in which State authorities may request members purusant to § 720.12.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interstate Agreement on Detainers Act.</I> Military authorities may use the Act to obtain temporary custody of a member incarcerated in a State institution, pursuant to conviction by a State court, to resolve criminal charges against the member before a court-martial.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Detainer.</I> If a command requests temporary custody under the Act, the commanding officer of the cognizant naval legal service office or the Marine Corps staff judge advocate, shall file a detainer with the warden, commissioner of corrections, or other State official having custody of the member. The detainer shall identify the member with particularity, enumerate the military charges pending, and request the command be notified in advance of any intention to release the member from confinement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for delivery.</I> As soon as practical after filing the detainer, the commanding officer of the cognizant naval legal service office or the Marine Corps staff judge advocate, shall prepare a written request for temporary custody of the member addressed to the State official charged with administration of the State penal system. The request shall designate the person(s) to whom the member is to be delivered and shall be transmitted via the military judge to whom the member's case has been assigned. If the request is properly prepared, the military judge shall approve, record, and transmit the request to the addressee official. The Act provides the State with a 30-day period after receipt of the request before the request is to be honored. Within that period of time, the governor of the State may disapprove the request, either unilaterally or upon the prisoner's request. If the governor disapproves the request, the command should coordinate any further action with the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The cognizant command shall ensure that the responsibilities of a receiving jurisdiction, delineated in section 2, Article IV of the Act, are discharged. In particular, the Act requires that the receiving jurisdiction:
</P>
<P>(i) Commence the prisoner's trial within 120 days of the prisoner's arrival, unless the court, for good cause shown during an Article 39(a), UCMJ, session, grants a continuance necessary or reasonable to promote the ends of justice;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hold the prisoner in a suitable jail or other facility regularly used for persons awaiting prosecution, except for periods during which the prisoner attends court or travels to or from any place at which his presence may be required;
</P>
<P>(iii) Return the prisoner to the sending jurisdiction at the earliest practical time, but not before the charges that underlie the request have been resolved (prematurely returning the prisoner will result in dismissal of the charges); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Pay all costs of transporting, caring for, keeping, and returning the prisoner to the sending jurisdiction, unless the command and the State agree on some other allocation of the costs or responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 720.14-720.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 720.14-720.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Service of Process and Subpoenas Upon Personnel</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 5232, Feb. 13, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 720.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.20   Service of process upon personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Commanding officers afloat and ashore may permit service of process of Federal or State courts upon members, civilian employees, dependents, or contractors residing at or located on a naval installation, if located within their commands. Service will not be made within the command without the commanding officer's consent. The intent of this provision is to protect against interference with mission accomplishment and to preserve good order and discipline, while not unnecessarily impeding the court's work. Where practical, the commanding officer shall require that the process be served in his presence, or in the presence of a designated officer. In all cases, individuals will be advised to seek legal counsel, either from a legal assistance attorney or from personal counsel for service in personal matters, and from Government counsel for service in official matters. The commanding officer is not required to act as a process server. The action required depends in part on the status of the individual requested and which State issued the process.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In-State process.</I> When a process server from a State or Federal court from the jurisdiction where the naval station is located requests permission to serve process aboard an installation, the command ordinarily should not prevent service of process so long as delivery is made in accordance with reasonable command regulations and is consistent with good order and discipline. Withholding service may be justified only in the rare case when the individual sought is located in an area under exclusive Federal jurisdiction not subject to any reservation by the State of the right to serve process. Questions on the extent of jurisdiction should be referred to the staff judge advocate, command counsel, or local naval legal service office. If service is permitted, an appropriate location should be designated (for example, the command legal office) where the process server and the member or employee can meet privately in order that process may be served away from the workplace. A member may be directed to report to the designated location. A civilian may be invited to the designated location. If the civilian does not cooperate, the process server may be escorted to the location of the civilian in order that process may be served. A civilian may be required to leave a classified area in order that the process server may have access to the civilian. If unusual circumstances require that the command not permit service, see § 720.20(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Out-of-State process.</I> In those cases where the process is to be served by authority of a jurisdiction other than that where the command is located, the person named is not required to accept process. Accordingly, the process server from the out-of-State jurisdiction need not be brought face-to-face with the person named in the process. Rather, the process server should report to the designated command location while the person named is contacted, apprised of the situation, and advised that he may accept service, but also may refuse. In the event that the person named refuses service, the process server should be so notified. If service of process is attempted from out-of-State by mail and refused, the refusal should be noted and the documents returned to the sender. Questions should be referred to the staff judge advocate, command counsel, or the local naval legal service office.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of process arising from official duties.</I> (1) Whenever a member or civilian employee of the Department of the Navy is served with process because of his official position, the Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate, shall be notified by telephone, or by message if telephone is impractical. Notification shall be confirmed by a letter report by the nearest appropriate command. The letter report shall include the detailed facts which give rise to the action.
</P>
<P>(2) Any member or civilian employee served with Federal or State court civil or criminal process or pleadings (including traffic tickets) arising from actions performed in the course of official duties shall immediately deliver all such process and pleadings to the commanding officer. The commanding officer shall ascertain the pertinent facts and notify the Judge Advocate General or Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate, by telephone or by message if telephone is impractical, of the service and immediately forward the pleadings and process to the relevant office. The member or civilian employee will be advised of the right to remove civil or criminal proceedings from State to Federal court under 28 U.S.C. 1442, 1442a, rights under the Federal Employees Liability Reform and Tort Compensation Act (28 U.S.C. 2679b), if applicable, and the right of a Federal employee to request representation by Department of Justice attorneys in Federal (civil) or State (civil or criminal) proceedings and in congressional proceedings in which that person is sued in an individual capacity, as delineated in 28 CFR 50.15. Requests for representation shall be addressed to the Judge Advocate General or Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate, and shall be endorsed by the commanding officer, who shall provide all necessary data relating to the questions of whether the person was acting within the course of official duty or scope of employment at the time of the incident out of which the suit arose.
</P>
<P>(3) If the service of process involves a potential claim against the Government, see 32 CFR 750.12(a), 750.12(b), and 750.24. The right to remove to Federal Court under 28 U.S.C. 1442 and 1442a must be considered where the outcome of the State court action may influence a claim or potential claim against the United States. Questions should be directed to the Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of process of foreign courts.</I> (1) Usually, the amenability of members, civilian employees, and their dependents stationed in a foreign country, to the service of process from courts of the host country will have been settled by an agreement between the United States and the foreign country concerned (for example, in the countries of the signatory parties, amenability to service of civil process is governed by paragraphs 5(g) and 9 of Article VIII of the NATO Status of Forces Agreement, TIAS 2846). When service of process on a person described above is attempted within the command in a country in which the United States has no agreement on this subject, advice should be sought from the Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate. When service of process is upon the United States Government or one of its agencies or instrumentalities as the named defendant, the doctrine of sovereign immunity may allow the service of process to be returned to the court through diplomatic channels. Service of process directed to an official of the United States, on the other hand, must always be processed in accordance with the applicable international agreement or treaty, regardless of whether the suit involves acts performed in the course of official duties. The Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate, will arrange through the Department of Justice for defense of the suit against the United States or an official acting within the scope of official duties, or make other arrangements, and will issue instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) Usually, the persons described in § 720.20(c)(1) are not required to accept service of process outside the geographic limits of the jurisdiction of the court from which the process issued. In such cases, acceptance of the service is not compulsory, but service may be voluntarily accepted in accordance with § 720.20(b). In exceptional cases when the United States has agreed that service of process will be accepted by such persons when located outside the geographic limits of the jurisdiction of the court from which the process issued, the provisions of the agreement and of § 720.20(a) will govern.
</P>
<P>(3) Under the laws of some countries (such as Sweden), service of process is effected by the document, in original or certified copy, being handed to the person for whom the service is intended. Service is considered to have taken place even if the person refuses to accept the legal documents. Therefore, if a commanding officer or other officer in the military service personally hands, or attempts to hand, that person the document, service is considered to have been effected, permitting the court to proceed to judgment. Upon receipt of foreign process with a request that it be served upon a person described in § 720.20(c)(1), a commanding officer shall notify the person of the fact that a particular foreign court is attempting to serve process and also inform that person that the process may be ignored or received. If the person to be served chooses to ignore the service, the commanding officer will return the document to the embassy or consulate of the foreign country with the notation that the commanding officer had the document, that the person chose to ignore it, and that no physical offer of service had been made. The commanding officer will advise the Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate, of all requests for service of process from a foreign court and the details thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Leave or liberty to be granted persons served with process.</I> When members or civilian employees are either served with process, or voluntarily accept service of process, in cases where the United States is not a party to the litigation, the commanding officer normally will grant leave or liberty to the person served to permit compliance with the process, unless to do so would have an adverse impact on naval operations. When a member or civilian employee is a witness for a nongovernmental party because of performance of official duties, the commanding officer may issue the person concerned permissive orders authorizing attendance at the trail at no expense to the Government. The provisions of 32 CFR part 725 must also be considered in such cases. Members or civilian employees may accept allowances and mileage tendered; however, any fees tendered for testimony must be paid to the Department of the Navy unless the member or employee is on authorized leave while attending the judicial proceeding. When it would be in the best interests of the United States Government (for example, in State criminal trails), travel funds may be used to provide members and civilian employees as witnesses as provided in the Joint Federal Travel Regulations. Responsibility for the payment of the member's mileage and allowances will be determined pursuant to the Joint Federal Travel Regulations, Volume 1, paragraph M6300, subsections 1-3. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 of § 720.5(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Report where service not allowed.</I> Where service of process is not permitted, or where the member or civilian employee is not given leave, liberty, or orders to attend a judicial proceeding, a report of such refusal and the reasons therefor shall be made by telephone, or message if telephone is impractical, to the Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.21" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.21   Members or civilian employees subpoenaed as witnesses in State courts.</HEAD>
<P>Where members or civilian employees are subpoenaed to appear as witnesses in State courts, and are served as described in §§ 720.20, 720.20(d) applies. If these persons are requested to appear as witnesses in State courts when the interests of the Federal Government are involved (e.g., Medical Care Recovery Act cases), follow the procedures described in § 720.22. If State authorities are attempting to obtain the presence of a member or a civilian employee as a witness in a civil or criminal case, and such person is unavailable because of an overseas assignment, the command should immediately contact the Judge Advocate General, or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.22" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.22   Members or civilian employees subpoenaed as witnesses in Federal courts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Witnesses on behalf of Federal Government.</I> When members or civilian employees of the Department of the Navy are required to appear as witnesses in a Federal Court to testify on behalf of the Federal Government in cases involving Department of the Navy activities, the Chief of Naval Personnel or the Commandant of the Marine Corps, as appropriate, will issue temporary additional duty orders to that person. The charges for such orders will be borne by the activity to which the required witness is attached. Payment to witnesses will be as provided by the Joint Federal Travel Regulations and U.S. Navy travel instructions. If the required witness is to appear in a case in which the activities of the Department of the Navy are not involved, the Department of the Navy will be reimbursed in accordance with the procedures outlined in the Navy Comptroller Manual, section 046268.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Witnesses on behalf of nongovernmental parties</I>—(1) <I>Criminal actions.</I> When members or civilian employees are served with a subpoena to appear as a witness for a defendant in a criminal action and the fees and mileage required by rule 17(d) of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure are tendered, the commanding officer may issue the person subpoenaed permissive orders authorizing attendance at the trial at no expense to the Government, unless the person's absence would have an adverse impact on naval operations. In such a case, a full report of the circumstances will be made to the Judge Advocate General or, in the case of civilian employees, to the Associate General Counsel (Litigation). In those cases where fees and mileage are not tendered as required by rule 17(d) of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, but the person subpoenaed still desires to attend, the commanding officer also may issue permissive orders at no cost to the Government. Such persons, however, should be advised that an agreement as to reimbursement for any expenses incident to travel, lodging, and subsistence should be effected with the party desiring their attendance and that no reimnbursement should be expected from the Government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civil actions.</I> When members or civilian employees are served with a subpoena to appear as a witness on the behalf of a nongovernmental party in a civil action brought in a Federal court, the provisions of § 720.20 apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.23" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.23   Naval prisoners as witnesses or parties in civilian courts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal actions.</I> When Federal or State authorities desire the attendance of a naval prisoner as a witness in a criminal case, they should submit a written request for such person's attendance to the Judge Advocate General. The civilian authority should include the following averments in its request:
</P>
<P>(1) That the evidence to be derived from the prisoner's testimony is unavailable from any other source:
</P>
<P>(2) That the civilian authority will provide adequate security arrangements for the prisoner and assume responsibility for the prisoner while he is in its custody; and
</P>
<P>(3) that the civilian authority will assume all costs of transporting the prisoner from the brig, of maintaining that prisoner while in civilian custody, and of returning the prisoner to the brig from which he was removed.
</P>
<FP>The civilian authority should also include in its request an estimate of the length of time the prisoner's services will be required, and should specify the mode of transport by which it intends to return the prisoner. Upon receipt of such a request, authority by the Judge Advocate General will be given, in a proper case, for the production of the requested naval prisoner in court without resort to a writ of habeas corpus ad testificandum (a writ which requires the production of a prisoner to testify before a court of competent jurisdiction).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Civil actions.</I> The Department of the Navy will not authorize the attendance of a naval prisoner in a Federal or State court, either as a party or as a witness, in private litigation pending before such a court. The deposition of a naval prisoner may be taken in such a case, subject to reasonable conditions or limitations imposed by the command concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.24" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.24   Interviews and depositions in connection with civil litigation in matters pertaining to official duties.</HEAD>
<P>Requests to interview, depose, or call as witnesses, current or former members or civilian employees of the Department of the Navy, regarding information obtained in the course of their official duties, including expert testimony related thereto, shall be processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 725.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.25   Repossession of personal property.</HEAD>
<P>Repossession of personal property, located on a Navy or Marine Corps installation, belonging to a member or to any dependent residing at or located on a Department of the Navy installation, may be permitted in the discretion of the commanding officer of the installation where the property is located, subject to the following. The documents purporting to authorize repossession and the procedures for repossessing the property must comply with State law. Prior to permitting physical repossession of any property, the commanding officer shall cause an informal inquiry into the circumstances and then determine whether to allow the repossession. If repossession is to be allowed, the person whose property is to be repossessed should be asked if he wishes to relinquish the property voluntarily. Repossession must be carried out in a manner prescribed by the commanding officer. In the case of property owned by civilian employees of the Department of the Navy or civilian contractors or their employees or dependents, the commanding officer should direct that the disputed property be removed from the installation until the commanding officer is satisfied that the dispute is resolved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 720.26-720.29" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 720.26-720.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Production of Official Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.30" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.30   Production of official records in response to court order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where unclassified naval records are desired by or on behalf of litigants, the parties will be informed that the records desired, or certified copies thereof, may be obtained by forwarding to the Secretary of the Navy, Navy Department, Washington, DC, or other custodian of the records, a court order calling for the particular records desired or copies thereof. Compliance with such court order will be effected by transmitting certified copies of the records to the clerk of the court out of which the process issues. See the provisions in the Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5211.5 series which set forth the additional requirement that reasonable efforts be made to notify all individuals to whom the record pertains of (1) the disclosure, and (2) the nature of the information provided, when the court order has become a matter of public record and the record is contained in a system of records as defined in the Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5211.5 series. If an original record is produced by a naval custodian, it will not be removed from the custody of the person producing it, but copies may be placed in evidence. Upon written request of one or more parties in interest or their respective attorneys, records which would be produced in response to a court order as set forth above may be furnished without court order when such records are not in a ‘system of records’ as defined by the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) except as noted in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. In determining whether or not a record contained in a “system of records” will be furnished in response to a written request for that record, consideration shall be given to the provisions of the Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5720.42 series. If the record is in a “system of records,” it may be produced upon written request of one or more parties in interest or their respective attorneys in the absence of a court order only if the individuals to whom the record pertains give written consent to the production or if the production is otherwise authorized under the Privacy Act and the Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5211.5 series. Whenever compliance with a court order for production of Department of the Navy records is deemed inappropriate for any reason, such as when they contain privileged or classified information, the records and subpoena may be forwarded to the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General) for appropriate action, and the parties to the suit so notified. Any release of classified information for civil court proceedings (whether civil or criminal in nature) must also be coordinated within the office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-009D) in accordance with the Chief of Naval Operations Instruction 5510.1 series.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records in the custody of National Personnel Records Center.</I> Court orders, <I>subpoenas duces tecum,</I> and other legal documents demanding information from, or the production of, service or medical records in the custody of the National Personnel Records Center involving former (deceased or discharged) Navy and Marine Corps personnel shall be served upon the General Services Administration, 9700 Page Boulevard; St. Louis, MO 63132, rather than the Department of the Navy. In the following situations, the request shall be forwarded to the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General).
</P>
<P>(1) When the United States (Department of the Navy) is one of the litigants.
</P>
<P>(2) When the case involves a person or persons who are or have been senior officers or officials within the Department of the Navy; and
</P>
<P>(3) In other cases considered to be of special significance to the Judge Advocate General or the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Where not in conflict with the foregoing restrictions relative to personal information, the release of which would result in a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, the production in Federal, State, territorial, or local courts of evidentiary material from investigations conducted pursuant to this Manual, and the service, employment, pay or medical records (including medical records of dependents) of persons in the naval service is authorized upon receipt of a court order, without procuring specific authority from the Secretary of the Navy. When the request for production involves material related to claims in favor of the Government, notification should be made to the affirmative claims office at the naval legal service office having territorial responsibility in the area. Where travel is involved, it must be without expense to the Government.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical and other records of civilian employees.</I> Production of medical certificates or other medical reports concerning civilian employees is controlled by the provisions of Executive Order 10561, 19 FR 5963, as implemented by Federal Personnel Manual, chapter 294, and chapter 339.1-4 (reprinted in MANMED article 23-255(6)). Records of civilian employees other than medical records may be produced upon receipt of a court order without procuring specific authority from the Secretary of the Navy, provided there is not involved any classified or For-Official-Use-Only information, such as loyalty or security records. Records relating to compensation benefits administered by the Bureau of Employees' Compensation may not be disclosed except upon the written approval of that Bureau (20 CFR 1.21). In case of doubt, the matter should be handled in accordance with the provisions of subsection a above. Where information is furnished hereunder in response to a court order, it is advisable that certified copies rather than originals be furnished and that, where original records are to be produced, the assistance of the U.S. Attorney or U.S. Marshal be requested so that custody of the records may be maintained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 6021, Mar. 6, 1973, as amended at 48 FR 4466, Feb. 1, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.31" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.31   Production of official records in the absence of court order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Release of official records outside the Department of the Navy in the absence of a court order is governed by the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The following sources pertain: SECNAVINST 5211.5 series (Privacy) and SECNAVINST 5720.42 series (Freedom of Information).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Release of JAG Manual Investigations, Court-Martial Records, Articles 69 and 73 Petitions, and Article 138 Complaints of Wrongs.</I> Except as provided in this section, only the Assistant Judge Advocates General (Civil Law) and (Military Law) shall make determinations concerning the release of the records covered herein if less than a release of the complete requested record will result. In all other instances the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocates General, who have cognizance of the record(s) in issue, may release such records. Local record holders are reminded that the authority to release records does not necessarily include denial authority.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>JAG Manual Investigations (including enclosures).</I> Any request for release outside the Department of the Navy shall be forwarded to the Assistant Judge Advocate General (Military Law) for determination, except that Privacy Act requests for release shall be forwarded to the Assistant Judge Advocate General (Civil Law) for determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Court-martial records and Articles 69 and 73 petitions.</I> These are matters of public record and may be released by any local holder. Court-martial records should be released only following proper authentication.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Article 138 Complaints of Wrongs.</I> Forward as in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affirmative claims files.</I> Affirmative claims files (including Medical Care Recovery Act files), except to the extent that such files contain copies of reports of investigations prepared under the Manual of the Judge Advocate General, or classified or privileged information, may be released by local holders to insurance companies to support claims; to civilian attorneys representing the injured party's and the Government's interests; and to other components of the Department of Defense, without the prior approval of the Judge Advocate General, provided that the amount of the claim is within the monetary settlement authority of the releaser. When the request for production involves material related to claims in favor of the Government, notification should be made to the affirmative claims office at the naval legal service office having territorial responsibility for the area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accounting for disclosures of records from systems of records.</I> When records located in a “system of records” are released, the official responsible for releasing the records shall consult SECNAVINST 5211.5 series regarding the requirement that accountings of the disclosures be maintained. Appendix A-3-a of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General is recommended for this purpose.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(1 CFR 18.14, and part 21, subpart B)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 8599, Feb. 8, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 4466, Feb. 1, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.32" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.32   Certificates of full faith and credit.</HEAD>
<P>The Judge Advocate General, the Deputy Judge Advocate General, or any Assistant Judge Advocate General is authorized to execute certificates of full faith and credit certifying the signatures and authority of officers of the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 6021, Mar. 6, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compliance With Court Orders by Department of the Navy Members, Employees, and Family Members Outside the United States</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>DoD Directive 5525.9, 54 FR 296, 32 CFR part 146.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 47876, Nov. 16, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 720.40" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.40   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This instruction:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements 32 CFR part 146.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishes policy and procedures for requesting the return to the United States of, or other action affecting, Department of the Navy (DON) personnel and employees serving outside the United States, and family members accompanying them, in compliance with court orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.41" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Court.</I> Any judicial body in the United States with jurisdiction to impose criminal sanctions on a Department of the Navy member, employee, or family member.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> A civilian employed by the Department of the Navy or a component service, including an individual paid from non-appropriated funds, who is a citizen or national of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Family member.</I> A spouse, natural or adopted child, or other lawful dependent of a Department of the Navy employee or member accompanying the Department of the Navy member or employee assigned to duty outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Felony.</I> A criminal offense that is punishable by incarceration for more than one year, regardless of the sentence that is imposed for commission of that offense.
</P>
<P><I>Member.</I> An individual on active duty in the Navy, Naval Reserve, Marine Corps, or Marine Corps Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Request for return.</I> Any request or order received from a court, or from federal, state or local authorities concerning a court order, for the return to the United States of members, employees, or family members, for any reason listed in § 720.42.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent.</I> A member, employee, or family member whose return to the United States has been requested, or with respect to whom other assistance has been requested under this instruction.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible official.</I> Officials designated in this instruction to act on a request to return, or take other action affecting, members, employees or family members to the United States under this instruction.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> The 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.42" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.42   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is Department of the Navy policy to cooperate, as prescribed in this instruction, with courts and federal, state and local officials in enforcing court orders. The Department of the Navy will cooperate with requests when such action is consistent with mission requirements (including operational readiness), the provisions of applicable international agreements, and ongoing Department of Defense (DoD) investigations and courts-martial.
</P>
<P>(b) Every reasonable effort will be made to resolve the matter without the respondent returning to the United States, or other action being taken against the respondent under this instruction.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests to return members for felonies or for contempt involving unlawful or contemptuous removal of a child from the jurisdiction of a court or the custody of a parent or other person awarded custody by a court order will normally be granted, but only if the member cannot resolve the issue with the court without return to the United States. When the member's return is inconsistent with mission requirements, applicable international agreements, or ongoing DoD investigations or courts-martial, DoD approval of denial will be requested.
</P>
<P>(d) For all other requests involving members, return will be based on the circumstances of the individual case as provided in this instruction.
</P>
<P>(e) Members will normally be returned on a temporary additional duty (TAD) basis unless there are compelling reasons the return should be a permanent change of duty station (PCS).
</P>
<P>(f) The involuntary return of employees or family members in response to a request for return is not authorized. However, the following action will be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees will be strongly urged to comply with court orders. Failure to comply with court orders involving felonies or contempt involving unlawful or contemptuous removal of a child from the jurisdiction of the court or the custody of a parent or other person awarded custody by a court order will normally require processing for adverse action, up to and including removal from federal service. Failure to comply with other court orders may require adverse action, depending on the circumstances of the individual case.
</P>
<P>(2) Family members will be strongly encouraged to comply with court orders. Family members who fail to comply with court orders involving felonies or contempt involving unlawful or contemptuous removal of a child from the jurisdiction of the court or the custody of a parent or other person awarded custody by a court order will normally have their command sponsorship removed. Failure to comply with other court orders may also result in removal of command sponsorship, depending on the circumstances of the individual case.
</P>
<P>(g) To facilitate prompt resolution of requests for return of members, minimize the burden on operating units, and to provide consistency during initial implementation of this new program, a limited number of responsible officials, designated in § 720.44, will respond to requesting officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.43" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.43   Points of contact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authorities issuing requests for return or for other action under this instruction may contact the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Chief of Naval Personnel (Pers-14), Washington, DC 20370-5000 (For Navy members and their family members).
</P>
<P>(2) Commandant, U.S. Marine Corps (Code JAR), Washington, DC 20380-0001 (For Marine Corps members and their family members).
</P>
<P>(3) Director, Office of Civilian Personnel Management (Code OOL), 800 N. Quincy Street, Arlington, VA 22203-1998 (For civilian personnel, including non-appropriated fund employees and their family members).
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a request for action under this instruction, the Office of Civilian Personnel Management will forward the request to the appropriate responsible official for action in accordance with § 720.44.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.44" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.44   Responsible officials.</HEAD>
<P>The following officials are designated responsible officials for acting on requests to return or to take other action affecting members, employees or family members to the United States.
</P>
<P>(a) The Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS) for requests involving Navy members and their family members who are not employees. The CHNAVPERS may delegate this authority within his headquarters, not below the 0-6 level for routine matters and not lower than the flag officer level for decisions to deny the request for return.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) for requests involving Marine Corps members and their family members who are not employees. The CMC may delegate this authority within his headquarters, not below the 0-6 level for routine matters and no lower that the general officer level for decisions to deny the request for return.
</P>
<P>(c) The local commanding officer or officer in charge for requests involving employees and their family members who are not active duty military members.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Manpower and Reserve Affairs) (ASN(M&amp;RA)) for requests not covered by §§ 720.44 (a) through (c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.45" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.45   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the request pertains to a felony or to contempt involving the unlawful or contemptuous removal of a child from the jurisdiction of a court or the custody of a parent or another person awarded custody by court order, and the matter cannot be resolved with the court without the respondent returning to the United States:
</P>
<P>(1) For members: The responsible official shall direct the commanding officer or officer in charge to order the member to return to the United States. Failure to comply will normally be the basis for disciplinary action against the member.
</P>
<P>(2) For employees, military and civilian family members: The responsible official shall strongly encourage the respondent to comply. Failure to comply may subject employees to adverse action, to include removal from the Federal service, and subject military and civilian family members to withdrawal of command sponsorship.
</P>
<P>(b) For all other requests when the matter cannot be resolved with the court without returning the respondent to the United States, the responsible official shall take the action described in this instruction when deemed appropriate with the facts and circumstances of each particular case, following consultation with legal staff.
</P>
<P>(c) When a member's return is inconsistent with mission requirements, the provisions of applicable international agreements, or ongoing DoD investigations and courts-martial, the Department of the Navy will ask DoD to approve denial of the request for the military members's return. To initiate this action, there must be an affirmative showing of articulable harm to the unit's mission or violation of an international agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) When a responsible official has determined a request for return is apparently based on an order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction, the responsible official shall complete action on the request for return within 30 days of receipt of the request for return by the responsible official, unless a delay is authorized by the ASN(M&amp;RA).
</P>
<P>(e) When a delay to complete the action is warranted, the ASN(M&amp;RA) will grant a 45 day delay, and provide a copy of that approval to the Assistant Secretary of Defense (Force Management &amp; Personnel (ASD(FM&amp;P)) and the General Counsel, DoD. The 45 day period begins upon request by the responsible official of the request for return. Conditions which, when accompanied by full supporting justification, will warrant the granting of the 45 day delay are:
</P>
<P>(1) Efforts are in progress to resolve the matter to the satisfaction of the court without the respondent's return to the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) To provide sufficient time for the respondent to provide evidence to show legal efforts to resist the request or to show legitimate cause for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(3) To provide commanding officers an opportunity to detail the specific effect on command mission and operational readiness anticipated from the loss of the member or Department of the Navy employee, and to present facts relating to any international agreement, or ongoing DoD investigation or courts-martial.
</P>
<P>(f) A commanding officer or officer in charge who receives a request for the return of, or other action affecting, a member, family member, or employee not of his/her command will forward the request to the appropriate commanding officer or officer in charge, copy to the responsible official, and advise both of them by message that a request for return or other action has been forwarded to them.
</P>
<P>(g) A commanding officer or officer in charge who receives a request for the return of, or other action affecting, a member, family member, or employee of his/her command will:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the respondent of the right to provide evidence to show legal efforts to resist the request, or to show legitimate cause for noncompliance for inclusion in the submission to the responsible official.
</P>
<P>(2) For members and their family members who are not employees, forward the request immediately to the appropriate responsible official, together with:
</P>
<P>(i) Any information the individual desires to provide to show legal efforts to resist the request, or otherwise to show legitimate cause for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Facts detailing the specific impacts on command missions and readiness anticipated from loss of the member.
</P>
<P>(iii) Facts relating to any international agreements or ongoing DoD investigations or courts-martial involving the respondent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information regarding conditions expected to interfere with a member's return to the command after completion of proceedings. If, in the opinion of the commanding officer, there are compelling reasons for the member to be returned to the United States PCS, provide full justification to support that recommendation to the cognizant officer.
</P>
<P>(3) If a delay in processing is warranted under § 720.42 or § 720.45(e), make a recommendation with supporting justification to the responsible official.
</P>
<P>(4) Monitor, and update as necessary, information provided to the responsible official.
</P>
<P>(h) The responsible official shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the request is based on an order issued by a court of apparent competent jurisdiction and if so, complete action on the request no later than 30 days after its receipt by the responsible official. If a conflicts of law issue is presented between competing state interests, or between a state and a foreign host-nation, or between two different foreign nations, the matter shall be referred to the ASN(M&amp;RA) on the first issue and to the Judge Advocate General (Code 10) on the second and third issues.
</P>
<P>(2) Encourage the respondent to attempt to resolve the matter to the satisfaction of the court or other requesting authority without return of or other action affecting the member, employee, or family member.
</P>
<P>(3) When a delay to complete action under this section is warranted, request the delay from ASN(M&amp;RA) with full supporting justification.
</P>
<P>(4) Examine all information the respondent desires to provide to show legal efforts to resist the request, or otherwise to show legitimate cause for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests for exception from the requirements of this instruction shall be submitted, with supporting justification, to the ASN(M&amp;RA) for submission to the ASD(FM&amp;P).
</P>
<P>(6) If a member will be ordered to return to the United States, determine if the member will be ordered TAD or PCS and advise the member's commanding officer of the determination.
</P>
<P>(7) If a member will be ordered to return to an appropriate port of entry to comply with a request, ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) The requesting officer has given official notification to the responsible official that the requesting official or other appropriate party will initiate action with the receiving jurisdiction to secure the member's delivery/extradition, as appropriate, per chapter 6 of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General, and provide for all costs incident thereto, including any escort if desired.
</P>
<P>(ii) If applicable, the necessary accounting data are provided to the commanding officer of the member or orders are issued.
</P>
<P>(iii) The member has arranged satisfactory foster care for any lawful minor dependents who will be left unaccompanied overseas upon the member's return to the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) Notify the requesting official at least 10 days before the member's return to the selected port of entry.
</P>
<P>(9) In the case of an employee or of a family member, the commanding officer or officer in charge of the activity to which the family member's sponsor is attached, or by which the employee is employed, will carry out the following steps:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee shall be strongly encouraged to comply with the court order or other request for return. Failure to comply may be the basis for adverse action to include removal from Federal service. Adverse action should only be taken after coordination with the cognizant civilian personnel office and legal counsel and in compliance with Civilian Personnel Instruction 752.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a family member of either a member or an employee is the subject of a request for return, the family member shall be strongly encouraged to comply with the court order. Failure to respond may be the basis for withdrawal of command sponsorship of the family member.
</P>
<P>(10) Report promptly to the ASN(M&amp;RA) any actions taken under § 720.45 (a) or (b).
</P>
<P>(i) The ASN(M&amp;RA):
</P>
<P>(1) May grant delays of up to 45 days from the date of a request for delay in accordance with § 720.45(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Will report promptly all delays of requests for the return of members to the ASD(FM&amp;P) and to the General Counsel of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Will request from the ASD(FM&amp;P), when warranted, exception to the policies and procedures of DoD Directive 5525.9 of December 27, 1988.
</P>
<P>(4) Consolidate and forward reports of action taken under § 720.45 (a) or (b) to the ASD(FM&amp;P) and the General Counsel, DoD as required by DoD Directive 5525.9 of December 27, 1988.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.46" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.46   Overseas screening programs.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and the CMC shall incorporate procedures requiring members and employees to certify they have legal custody of all minor dependents accompanying them outside the United States into service overseas screening programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.47" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.47   Report.</HEAD>
<P>The report requirement in this instruction is exempt from reports control by SECNAVINST 5214.2B.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="721-722" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 721-722 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="723" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 723—BOARD FOR CORRECTION OF NAVAL RECORDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 1034, 1552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 8166, Feb. 24, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 723.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets up procedures for correction of naval and marine records by the Secretary of the Navy acting through the Board for Correction of Naval Records (BCNR or the Board) to remedy error or injustice. It describes how to apply for correction of naval and marine records and how the BCNR considers applications. It defines the Board's authority to act on applications. It directs collecting and maintaining information subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1034 and 1552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.2   Establishment, function and jurisdiction of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment and composition.</I> Under 10 U.S.C. 1034 and 1552, the Board for Correction of Naval Records is established by the Secretary of the Navy. The Board consists of civilians of the executive part of the Department of the Navy in such number, not less than three, as may be appointed by the Secretary and who shall serve at the pleasure of the Secretary. Three members present shall constitute a quorum of the Board. The Secretary of the Navy will designate one member as Chair. In the absence or incapacity of the Chair, an Acting Chair chosen by the Executive Director shall act as Chair for all purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Function.</I> The Board is not an investigative body. Its function is to consider applications properly before it for the purpose of determining the existence of error or injustice in the naval records of current and former members of the Navy and Marine Corps, to make recommendations to the Secretary or to take corrective action on the Secretary's behalf when authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> The Board shall have jurisdiction to review and determine all matters properly brought before it, consistent with existing law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.3   Application for correction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The application for correction must be submitted on DD 149 (Application for Correction of Military Record) or exact facsimile thereof, and should be addressed to: Board for Correction of Naval Records, Department of the Navy, 2 Navy Annex, Washington, DC 20370-5100. Forms and other explanatory matter may be obtained from the Board upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the application shall be signed by the person requesting corrective action with respect to his/her record and will either be sworn to or will contain a provision to the effect that the statements submitted in the application are made with full knowledge of the penalty provided by law for making a false statement or claim. (18 U.S.C. 287 and 1001)
</P>
<P>(3) When the record in question is that of a person who is incapable of making application, or whose whereabouts is unknown, or when such person is deceased, the application may be made by a spouse, parent, heir, or legal representative. Proof of proper interest shall be submitted with the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limit for filing application.</I> Applications for correction of a record must be filed within 3 years after discovery of the alleged error or injustice. Failure to file within the time prescribed may be excused by the Board if it finds it would be in the interest of justice to do so. If the application is filed more than 3 years after discovery of the error or injustice, the application must set forth the reason why the Board should find it in the interest of justice to excuse the failure to file the application within the time prescribed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acceptance of applications.</I> An application will be accepted for consideration unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board lacks jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board lacks authority to grant effective relief.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant has failed to comply with the filing requirements of paragraphs (a)(l), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant has failed to exhaust all available administrative remedies.
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant has failed to file an application within 3 years after discovery of the alleged error or injustice and has not provided a reason or reasons why the Board should find it in the interest of justice to excuse the failure to file the application within the prescribed 3-year period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other proceedings not stayed.</I> Filing an application with the Board shall not operate as a stay of any other proceedings being taken with respect to the person involved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of application.</I> (1) Each application accepted for consideration and all pertinent evidence of record will be reviewed by a three member panel sitting in executive session, to determine whether to authorize a hearing, recommend that the records be corrected without a hearing, or to deny the application without a hearing. This determination will be made by majority vote.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may deny an application in executive session if it determines that the evidence of record fails to demonstrate the existence of probable material error or injustice. The Board relies on a presumption of regularity to support the official actions of public officers and, in the absence of substantial evidence to the contrary, will presume that they have properly discharged their official duties. Applicants have the burden of overcoming this presumption but the Board will not deny an application solely because the record was made by or at the direction of the President or the Secretary in connection with proceedings other than proceedings of a board for the correction of military or naval records. Denial of an application on the grounds of insufficient evidence to demonstrate the existence of probable material error or injustice is final subject to the provisions for reconsideration contained in § 723.9.
</P>
<P>(3) When an original application or a request for further consideration of a previously denied application is denied without a hearing, the Board's determination shall be made in writing and include a brief statement of the grounds for denial.
</P>
<P>(4) The brief statement of the grounds for denial shall include the reasons for the determination that relief should not be granted, including the applicant's claims of constitutional, statutory and/or regulatory violations that were rejected, together with all the essential facts upon which the denial is based, including, if applicable, factors required by regulation to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for discharge. Further the Board shall make a determination as to the applicability of the provisions of the Military Whistleblower Protection Act (10 U.S.C. 1034) if it is invoked by the applicant or reasonably raised by the evidence. Attached to the statement shall be any advisory opinion considered by the Board which is not fully set out in the statement. The applicant will also be advised of reconsideration procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) The statement of the grounds for denial, together with all attachments, shall be furnished promptly to the applicant and counsel, who shall also be informed that the name and final vote of each Board member will be furnished or made available upon request. Classified or privileged material will not be incorporated or attached to the Board statement; rather, unclassified or nonprivileged summaries of such material will be so used and written explanations for the substitution will be provided to the applicant and counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.4   Appearance before the board; notice; counsel; witnesses; access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In each case in which the Board determines a hearing is warranted, the applicant will be entitled to appear before the Board either in person or by counsel of his/her selection or in person with counsel. Additional provisions apply to cases processed under the Military Whistleblower Protection Act (10 U.S.C. 1034).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> (1) In each case in which a hearing is authorized, the Board's staff will transmit to the applicant a written notice stating the time and place of hearing. The notice will be mailed to the applicant, at least 30 days prior to the date of hearing, except that an earlier date may be set where the applicant waives his/her right to such notice in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of the notice of hearing, the applicant will notify the Board in writing at least 15 days prior to the date set for hearing as to whether he/she will be present at the hearing and will indicate to the Board the name of counsel, if represented by counsel, and the names of such witnesses as he/she intends to call. Cases in which the applicant notifies the Board that he/she does not desire to be present at the hearing will be considered in accordance with § 723.5(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counsel.</I> As used in this part, the term “counsel” will be construed to include members in good standing of the federal bar or the bar of any state, accredited representatives of veterans' organizations recognized by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs under 38 U.S.C. 3402, or such other persons who, in the opinion of the Board, are considered to be competent to present equitably and comprehensively the request of the applicant for correction, unless barred by law. Representation by counsel will be at no cost to the government.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Witnesses.</I> The applicant will be permitted to present witnesses in his/her behalf at hearings before the Board. It will be the responsibility of the applicant to notify his/her witnesses and to arrange for their appearance at the time and place set for hearing. Appearance of witnesses will be at no cost to the government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to records.</I> (1) It is the responsibility of the applicant to procure such evidence not contained in the official records of the Department of the Navy as he/she desires to present in support of his/her case.
</P>
<P>(2) Classified or privileged information may be released to applicants only by proper authorities in accordance with applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this part authorizes the furnishing of copies of official records by the Board. Requests for copies of these records should be submitted in accordance with applicable regulations governing the release of information. The BCNR can provide a requestor with information regarding procedures for requesting copies of these records from the appropriate retention agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.5   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Convening of board.</I> The Board will convene, recess and adjourn at the call of the Chair or Acting Chair.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> (1) The hearing shall be conducted by the Chair or Acting Chair, and shall be subject to his/her rulings so as to ensure a full and fair hearing. The Board shall not be limited by legal rules of evidence but shall maintain reasonable bounds of competency, relevancy, and materiality.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant, after being duly notified, indicates to the Board that he/she does not desire to be present or to be represented by counsel at the hearing, the Board will consider the case on the basis of all the material before it, including, but not limited to, the application for correction filed by the applicant, any documentary evidence filed in support of such application, any brief submitted by or in behalf of the applicant, and all available pertinent records.
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant, after being duly notified, indicates to the Board that he/she will be present or be represented by counsel at the hearing, and without good cause and timely notice to the Board, the applicant or representative fails to appear at the time and place set for the hearing or fails to provide the notice required by § 723.4(b)(2), the Board may consider the case in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or make such other disposition of the case as is appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(4) All testimony before the Board shall be given under oath or affirmation. The proceedings of the Board and the testimony given before it will be recorded verbatim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Continuance.</I> The Board may continue a hearing on its own motion. A request for continuance by or in behalf of the applicant may be granted by the Board if a continuance appears necessary to insure a full and fair hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.6   Action by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deliberations, findings, conclusions, and recommendations.</I> (1) Only members of the Board and its staff shall be present during the deliberations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever, during the course of its review of an application, it appears to the Board's satisfaction that the facts have not been fully and fairly disclosed by the records or by the testimony and other evidence before it, the Board may require the applicant or military authorities to provide such further information as it may consider essential to a complete and impartial determination of the facts and issues.
</P>
<P>(3) Following a hearing, or where the Board determines to recommend that the record be corrected without a hearing, the Board will make written findings, conclusions and recommendations. If denial of relief is recommended following a hearing, such written findings and conclusions will include a statement of the grounds for denial as described in § 723.3(e)(4). The name and final vote of each Board member will be recorded. A majority vote of the members present on any matter before the Board will constitute the action of the Board and shall be so recorded.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the Board deems it necessary to submit comments or recommendations to the Secretary as to matters arising from but not directly related to the issues of any case, such comments and recommendations shall be the subject of separate communication. Additionally, in Military Whistleblower Protection Act cases, any recommendation by the Board to the Secretary that disciplinary or administrative action be taken against any Navy official based on the Board's determination that the official took reprisal action against the applicant will not be made part of the Board's record of proceedings or furnished the applicant but will be transmitted to the Secretary as a separate communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minority report.</I> In case of a disagreement between members of the Board a minority report will be submitted, either as to the findings, conclusions or recommendation, including the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record of proceedings.</I> Following a hearing, or where the Board determines to recommend that the record be corrected without a hearing, a record of proceedings will be prepared. Such record shall indicate whether or not a quorum was present, and the name and vote of each member present. The record shall include the application for relief, a verbatim transcript of any testimony, affidavits, papers and documents considered by the Board, briefs and written arguments, advisory opinions, if any, minority reports, if any, the findings, conclusions and recommendations of the Board, where appropriate, and all other papers, documents, and reports necessary to reflect a true and complete history of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Withdrawal.</I> The Board may permit an applicant to withdraw his/her application without prejudice at any time before its record of proceedings is forwarded to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Delegation of authority to correct certain naval records.</I> (1) With respect to all petitions for relief properly before it, the Board is authorized to take final corrective action on behalf of the Secretary, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) Comments by proper naval authority are inconsistent with the Board's recommendation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board's recommendation is not unanimous; or
</P>
<P>(iii) It is in the category of petitions reserved for decision by the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(2) The following categories of petitions for relief are reserved for decision by the Secretary of the Navy:
</P>
<P>(i) Petitions involving records previously reviewed or acted upon by the Secretary wherein the operative facts remained substantially the same;
</P>
<P>(ii) Petitions by former commissioned officers or midshipmen to change the character of, and/or the reason for, their discharge; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other petitions as, in the determination of Office of the Secretary or the Executive Director, warrant Secretarial review.
</P>
<P>(3) The Executive Director after ensuring compliance with this section, will announce final decisions on applications decided under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.7   Action by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The record of proceedings, except in cases finalized by the Board under the authority delegated in § 723.6(e), and those denied by the Board without a hearing, will be forwarded to the Secretary who will direct such action as he or she determines to be appropriate, which may include the return of the record to the Board for further consideration. Those cases returned for further consideration shall be accompanied by a brief statement setting out the reasons for such action along with any specific instructions. If the Secretary's decision is to deny relief, such decision shall be in writing and, unless he or she expressly adopts in whole or in part the findings, conclusions and recommendations of the Board, or a minority report, shall include a brief statement of the grounds for denial. See § 723.3(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Military Whistleblower Protection Act.</I> The Secretary will ensure that decisions in cases involving the Military Whistleblower Protection Act are issued 180 days after receipt of the case and will, unless the full relief requested is granted, inform applicants of their right to request review of the decision by the Secretary of Defense. Applicants will also be informed:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the name and address of the official to whom the request for review must be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) That the request for review must be submitted within 90 days after receipt of the decision by the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(3) That the request for review must be in writing and include:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant's name, address and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the application to the Board and the final decision of the Secretary of the Navy; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the specific reasons the applicant is not satisfied with the decision of the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(4) That the request must be based on the Board record; request for review based on factual allegations or evidence not previously presented to the Board will not be considered under this paragraph but may be the basis for reconsideration by the Board under § 723.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.8   Staff action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transmittal of final decisions granting relief.</I> (1) If the final decision of the Secretary is to grant the applicant's request for relief the record of proceedings shall be returned to the Board for disposition. The Board shall transmit the finalized record of proceedings to proper naval authority for appropriate action. Similarly final decisions of the Board granting the applicant's request for relief under the authority delegated in § 723.6(e), shall also be forwarded to the proper naval authority for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board shall transmit a copy of the record of proceedings to the proper naval authority for filing in the applicant's service record except where the effect of such action would be to nullify the relief granted. In such cases no reference to the Board's decision shall be made in the service record or files of the applicant and all copies of the record of proceedings and any related papers shall be forwarded to the Board and retained in a file maintained for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) The addressees of such decisions shall report compliance therewith to the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon receipt of the record of proceedings after final action by the Secretary, or by the Board acting under the authority contained in § 723.6(e), the Board shall communicate the decision to the applicant. The applicant is entitled, upon request, to receive a copy of the Board's findings, conclusions and recommendations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmittal of final decisions denying relief.</I> If the final decision of the Secretary or the Board is to deny relief, the following materials will be made available to the applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the findings, conclusions, and recommendations made by the Board and the reasons therefor;
</P>
<P>(2) Any advisory opinions considered by the Board;
</P>
<P>(3) Any minority reports; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any material prepared by the Secretary as required in § 723.7. Moreover, applicant shall also be informed that the name and final vote of each Board member will be furnished or made available upon request and that he/she may submit new and material evidence or other matter for further consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.9   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>After final adjudication, further consideration will be granted only upon presentation by the applicant of new and material evidence or other matter not previously considered by the Board. New evidence is defined as evidence not previously considered by the Board and not reasonably available to the applicant at the time of the previous application. Evidence is material if it is likely to have a substantial effect on the outcome. All requests for further consideration will be initially screened by the Executive Director of the Board to determine whether new and material evidence or other matter (including, but not limited to, any factual allegations or arguments why the relief should be granted) has been submitted by the applicant. If such evidence or other matter has been submitted, the request shall be forwarded to the Board for a decision. If no such evidence or other matter has been submitted, the applicant will be informed that his/her request was not considered by the Board because it did not contain new and material evidence or other matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.10   Settlement of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> (1) The Department of the Navy is authorized under 10 U.S.C. 1552 to pay claims for amounts due to applicants as a result of corrections to their naval records.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of the Navy is not authorized to pay any claim heretofore compensated by Congress through enactment of a private law, or to pay any amount as compensation for any benefit to which the claimant might subsequently become entitled under the laws and regulations administered by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for settlement.</I> (1) Settlement and payment of claims shall be made only upon a claim of the person whose record has been corrected or legal representative, heirs at law, or beneficiaries. Such claim for settlement and payment may be filed as a separate part of the application for correction of the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When the person whose record has been corrected is deceased, and where no demand is presented by a duly appointed legal representative of the estate, payments otherwise due shall be made to the surviving spouse, heir or beneficiaries, in the order prescribed by the law applicable to that kind of payment, or if there is no such law covering order of payment, in the order set forth in 10 U.S.C. 2771; or as otherwise prescribed by the law applicable to that kind of payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon request, the applicant or applicants shall be required to furnish requisite information to determine their status as proper parties to the claim for purposes of payment under applicable provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement.</I> (1) Settlement of claims shall be upon the basis of the decision and recommendation of the Board, as approved by the Secretary or his designee. Computation of the amounts due shall be made by the appropriate disbursing activity. In no case will the amount found due exceed the amount which would otherwise have been paid or have become due under applicable laws had no error or injustice occurred. Earnings received from civilian employment, self employment or any income protection plan for such employment during any period for which active duty pay and allowances are payable will be deducted from the settlement. To the extent authorized by law and regulation, amounts found due may be reduced by the amount of any existing indebtedness to the Government arising from military service.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to or at the time of payment, the person or persons to whom payments are to be made shall be advised by the disbursing activity of the nature and amount of the various benefits represented by the total settlement and shall be advised further that acceptance of such settlement shall constitute a complete release by the claimants involved of any claim against the United States on account of the correction of the record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report of settlement.</I> In every case where payment is made, the amount of such payment and the names of the payee or payees shall be reported to the Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.6.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.11   Miscellaneous provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expenses.</I> No expenses of any nature whatsoever voluntarily incurred by the applicant, counsel, witnesses, or by any other person in the applicant's behalf, will be paid by the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indexing of decisions.</I> (1) Documents sent to each applicant and counsel in accordance with § 723.3(e)(5) and § 723.8(a)(4), together with the record of the votes of Board members and all other statements of findings, conclusions and recommendations made on final determination of an application by the Board or the Secretary will be indexed and promptly made available for public inspection and copying at the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Boards Reading Room located on the Concourse of the Pentagon Building in Room 2E123, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>(2) All documents made available for public inspection and copying shall be indexed in a usable and concise form so as to enable the public to identify those cases similar in issue together with the circumstances under and/or reasons for which the Board and/or Secretary have granted or denied relief. The index shall be published quarterly and shall be available for public inspection and distribution by sale at the Reading Room located on the Concourse of the Pentagon Building in Room 2E123, Washington, DC. Inquiries concerning the index or the Reading Room may be addressed to the Chief, Micromation Branch/Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Boards Reading Room, Crystal Mall 4, 1941 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, Virginia 22202.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent necessary to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, identifying details of the applicant and other persons will be deleted from the documents made available for public inspection and copying. Names, addresses, social security numbers and military service numbers must be deleted. Deletions of other information which is privileged or classified may be made only if a written statement of the basis for such deletion is made available for public inspection.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="724" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 724—NAVAL DISCHARGE REVIEW BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 1553.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 724 appear at 65 FR 62616, Oct. 19, 2000.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.101" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.101   Naval Service.</HEAD>
<P>The Naval Service is comprised of the uniformed members of the United States Navy and the United States Marine Corps, including active and inactive reserve components.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.102" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.102   Naval Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>An administrative board, referred to as the “NDRB” established by the Secretary of the Navy pursuant to title 10 U.S.C., section 1553, for the review of discharges of former members of the Naval Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.103" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.103   NDRB panel.</HEAD>
<P>An element of the NDRB, consisting of five members, authorized to review discharges. In plenary review session, an NDRB panel acts with the authority delegated by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval Discharge Review Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.104" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.104   NDRB Traveling Panel.</HEAD>
<P>An NDRB Panel that travels for the purpose of conducting personal appearances discharge review hearings at locations outside of the National Capital Region (NCR).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.105" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.105   President of the NDRB.</HEAD>
<P>A senior officer of the Naval Service designated by the Secretary of the Navy who is responsible for the direct supervision of the discharge review function within the Naval Service. (See subpart E).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.106" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.106   Presiding Officer, NDRB Panel.</HEAD>
<P>The senior member of an NDRB Panel shall normally be the Presiding Officer. He/she shall convene, recess and adjourn the NDRB Panel as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.107" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.107   Discharge.</HEAD>
<P>In the context of the review function prescribed by 10 U.S.C. 1553, a discharge or dismissal is a complete separation from the Naval Service, other than one pursuant to the sentence of a general court-martial. By reason of usage, the term “discharge” is predominantly applicable to the separation of enlisted personnel for any reason, and the term “dismissal” to the separation of officers as a result of Secretarial or general court-martial action. In the context of the mission of the NDRB, the term “discharge” used here shall, for purpose of ease of expression, include any complete separation from the naval service other than that pursuant to the sentence of general court-martial. The term “discharge” also includes the type of discharge and the reason/basis for that discharge, e.g., Other Than Honorable/Misconduct (Civil Conviction).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.108" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.108   Administrative discharge.</HEAD>
<P>A discharge upon expiration of enlistment or required period of service, or prior thereto, in a manner prescribed by the Commandant of the Marine Corps or the Commander, Naval Personnel Command, but specifically excluding separation by sentence of a general court-martial.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 62616, Oct. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.109" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.109   Types of administrative discharges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A determination reflecting a member's military behavior and performance of duty during a specific period of service. The three characterizations are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Honorable.</I> A separation from the naval service with honor. The issuance of an Honorable Discharge is contingent upon proper military behavior and performance of duty.
</P>
<P>(2) Under Honorable Conditions (also termed General Discharge). A separation from the naval service under honorable conditions. The issuance of a discharge under honorable conditions is contingent upon military behavior and performance of duty which is not sufficiently meritorious to warrant an Honorable Discharge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Under Other Than Honorable Conditions (formerly termed Undesirable Discharge).</I> A separation from the naval service under conditions other than honorable. It is issued to terminate the service of a member of the naval service for one or more of the reasons/basis listed in the Naval Military Personnel Manual, Marine Corps Separation and Retirement Manual and their predecessor publications.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Entry Level Separation.</I> (i) A separation initiated while a member is in entry level status will be described as an Entry Level Separation except in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When characterization under Other Than Honorable Conditions is authorized and is warranted by the circumstances of the case; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When characterization of service as Honorable is clearly warranted by the presence of unusual circumstances including personal conduct and performance of naval duty and is approved on a case-by-case basis by the Secretary of the Navy. This characterization will be considered when the member is separated by reason of Selected Changes in Service Obligation, Convenience of the Government, or Disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to administrative matters outside the administrative separation system that require a characterization of service as Honorable or General, an Entry Level Separation shall be treated as the required characterization. An Entry Level Separation for a member of a Reserve component separated from the Delayed Entry Program is under honorable conditions. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 51 FR 44909, Dec. 15, 1986; 65 FR 62616, Oct. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.110" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.110   Reason/basis for administrative discharge.</HEAD>
<P>The terms “reason for discharge” and “basis for discharge” have the same meaning. The first is a Navy term and the second is a Marine Corps term. These terms identify why an administrative discharge was issued, e.g., Convenience of the Government, Misconduct. Reasons/basis for discharge are found in the Naval Military Personnel Manual and Marine Corps Separation and Retirement Manual as well as predecessor publications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.111" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.111   Punitive discharge.</HEAD>
<P>A discharge awarded by sentence of a court-martial. There are two types of punitive discharges:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bad conduct.</I> A separation from the naval service under conditions other than honorable. It may be effected only as a result of the approved sentence of a general or special court-martial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dishonorable.</I> A separation from the naval service under dishonorable conditions. It may be effected only as a result of the approved sentence of a general court-martial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.112" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.112   Clemency discharge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The clemency discharge was created by the President on September 16, 1974, in his Proclamation 4313, “Announcing a Program for the Return of Vietnam Era Draft Evaders and Military Deserters.” Upon issuance to individuals who have an undesirable discharge or a punitive discharge, a clemency discharge serves as a written testimonial to the fact that the individual has satisfied the requirements of the President's program, and has fully earned his/her return to the mainstream of American society in accordance with that program.
</P>
<P>(b) The clemency discharge is a neutral discharge, neither honorable nor less than honorable. It does not effect a change in the characterization of the individual's military service as having been under other than honorable condition, nor does it serves to change, seal, erase or in any way modify the individual's past military record. Therefore, if the underlying discharge was issued as a result of a general court-martial, the issuance of a Clemency Discharge does not subject the underlying characterization to review under 10 U.S.C. 1553. Clemency discharges are issued by the Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command or the Commandant of the Marine Corps when an individual has met the requirements of the Presidential Proclamation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.113" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.113   Application.</HEAD>
<P>In the context of this Manual, a written application to the NDRB for the review of a discharge submitted by a former member of the naval service or, where a former member is deceased or incompetent, by spouse, next of kin or legal representative. Department of Defense Form 293 must be used for the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.114" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.114   Applicant.</HEAD>
<P>A former member of the naval service who has been discharged administratively in accordance with the directives of the naval service or by sentence of a special court-martial under title 10 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I> (Uniform Code of Military Justice) and, in accordance with statutory and regulatory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Whose case is considered by the NDRB at the request of the former member, of, if authorized under § 724.113, the surviving spouse, next-of-kin or legal representative, or
</P>
<P>(b) Whose case is considered on the NDRB's own motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.115" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.115   Next of kin.</HEAD>
<P>The person or persons in the highest category of priority as determined by the following list (categories appear in descending order of priority): Surviving legal spouse; children (whether by current or prior marriage) age 18 years or older in descending precedence by age; father or mother, unless by court order custody has been vested in another (adoptive parent takes precedence over natural parent); siblings (whole or half) age 18 years or older in descending precedence by age; grandfather or grandmother; any other relative (precedence to be determined in accordance with the civil law of descent of the deceased former member's state of domicile at time of death).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.116" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.116   Counsel/Representative.</HEAD>
<P>An individual or agency designated by the applicant who agrees to represent the applicant in a case before the NDRB. It includes, but is not limited to: a lawyer who is a member of the bar of a Federal Court or of the highest court of a State; an accredited representative designated by an organization recognized by the Administrator of Veterans Affairs; a representative from a State agency concerned with veterans affairs; or a representative from private organizations or local Government agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.117" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.117   Discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>A nonadversary administrative reappraisal at the level of the Navy Department of discharges from the naval service. The object of the reappraisal is to determine whether the discharge should be changed, and if so, the nature of the change. This reappraisal includes the type and reason/basis for separation, the procedures followed in accomplishing separation, and the characterization of service. This term includes determinations made under the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 3103(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.118" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.118   Documentary discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>A formal session of the NDRB convened for the purpose of reviewing, on the basis of documentary data, an applicant's discharge. The Documentary data shall include the application together with all information accompanying that application, available service records, and any other information considered relevant by the NDRB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.119" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.119   Personal appearance discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>A formal session of the NDRB convened for the purpose of reviewing an applicant's discharge on the basis of a personal appearance, as well as documentary data. The personal appearance may be by the applicant or by a representative of the applicant, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.120" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.120   National Capital Region (NCR).</HEAD>
<P>The District of Columbia; Prince Georges and Montgomery Counties in Maryland; Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William Counties in Virginia; and all cities and towns included within the outer boundaries of the foregoing counties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.121" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.121   Decisional document.</HEAD>
<P>The written recordation of the applicant's summary of service, the issue or issues presented together with any evidence offered in support of the application, the NDRB's response to the issue or issues, the votes of the members of the panel, and any recommendations or responses by the President of the NDRB or the Secretarial Reviewing Authority (SRA). The decisional document is promulgated by the “en bloc letter”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.122" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.122   Recorder, NDRB Panel.</HEAD>
<P>A panel member responsible for briefing an applicant's case from the documentary evidence available prior to a discharge review, presenting the brief to the panel considering the application, performing other designated functions during personal appearance discharge hearings, and drafting the decisional document subsequent to the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.123" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.1.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.123   Complainant.</HEAD>
<P>A former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint under 32 CFR part 70 with respect to the decisional document issued in the former member's own case; or a former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint under reference (b) stating that correction of the decisional document will assist the former member in preparing for an administrative or judicial proceeding in which the former member's own discharge will be at issue.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Authority/Policy for Departmental Discharge Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.201" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.201   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Naval Discharge Review Board, established pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1553, is a component of the Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards. On December 6, 2004, the Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Manpower &amp; Reserve Affairs) approved the change in name from Naval Council of Personnel Boards to Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards. By SECNAVINST 5730.7 series, the Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Manpower and Reserve Affairs) is authorized and directed to act for the Secretary of the Navy within his/her assigned area of responsibility and exercises oversight over the Secretary of the Naval Council of Review Boards. SECNAVINST 5420.135 series states the organization, mission, duties and responsibilities of the Secretary of the Naval Council of Review Boards to include the Naval Discharge Review Board. The Chief of Naval Operations established the Office of Naval Disability Evaluation and the Navy Council of Personnel Boards on 1 October 1976 (OPNAVNOTE 5450 Ser 09b26/535376 of 9 Sep 1976 (Canc frp: Apr 77)). The Chief of Naval Operations approved the change in name of the Office of Naval Disability Evaluation and Navy Council of Personnel Boards to Naval Council of Personnel Boards on 1 February 1977 (OPNAVNOTE 5450 Ser 099b26/32648 of 24 Jan 1977 (Canc frp: Jul 77)) with the following mission Statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>To administer and supervise assigned boards and councils.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.202" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.202   Statutory/Directive Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The NDRB, in its conduct of discharge review, shall be guided by the applicable statutes, regulations, and manuals and directives of the Department of the Navy, and other written public expressions of policy by competent authority:
</P>
<P>(a) 10 U.S.C. 1553, Review of discharge or dismissal:
</P>
<P>(1) “The Secretary concerned shall, after consulting the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs, establish a board of review, consisting of five members, to review the discharge or dismissal (other than a discharge or dismissal by sentence of a general court-martial) of any former member of an armed force under the jurisdiction of his/her department upon its own motion or upon the request of the former member or, if he/she is dead, his/her surviving spouse, next of kin, or legal representative. A motion or request for review must be made within 15 years after the date of the discharge or dismissal.”
</P>
<P>(2) A board established under this section may, subject to review by the Secretary concerned, change a discharge or dismissal, or issue a new discharge, to reflect its findings.
</P>
<P>(3) A review by the board established under this section shall be based on the records of the armed forces concerned and such other evidence as may be presented to the board. A witness may present evidence to the board in person or by affidavit. A person who requests a review under this section may appear before the board in person or by counsel or an accredited representative or an organization recognized by the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs under title 38 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pub. L. 95-126.</I> See appendix D.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>32 CFR part 70.</I> This provides for uniform standards and procedures for review of discharges from the military services of the Department of Defense. The provisions of 32 CFR part 70 are incorporated in this Manual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The Secretary of Defense memoranda dated August 13, 1971 and April 28, 1972 (NOTAL).</I> These directed a review for recharacterization of (1) administrative discharges under other than honorable conditions issued solely on the basis of personal use of drugs or possession of drugs for the purpose of such use, and (2) punitive discharges and dismissals issued solely for conviction of personal use of drugs and possession for the purpose of such use for those discharges executed as a result of a case completed or in process on or before July 7, 1971. (See appendix B).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>32 CFR part 41.</I> This prescribes policy, standards and procedures which govern the administrative separation of enlisted persons from the Armed Forces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.203" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.203   Broad objectives of naval discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>Naval discharge review shall have as its broad objectives:
</P>
<P>(a) The furtherance of good order and discipline.
</P>
<P>(b) The correction of injustice or inequity in the discharge issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The correction of administrative or clerical errors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.204" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.204   Eligibility for naval discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>Any former member of the Naval Service, eligible for review under reference (a) or surviving spouse, next of kin or legal representative, shall upon submission of an application be afforded a review of the member's discharge from the Naval Service as provided in §§ 724.205 and 724.206. Discharge review may also be initiated on the motion of the NDRB (See § 724.220).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.205" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.205   Authority for review of naval discharges; jurisdictional limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall have no authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review a discharge or dismissal resulting from a general court-martial;
</P>
<P>(2) Alter the judgment of a court-martial, except the discharge or dismissal awarded may be changed for purposes of clemency;
</P>
<P>(3) Revoke any discharge or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(4) Reinstate a person in the naval service;
</P>
<P>(5) Recall a former member to active duty;
</P>
<P>(6) Change a reenlistment code;
</P>
<P>(7) Make recommendations for reenlistment to permit entry in the naval service or any other branch of the Armed Forces;
</P>
<P>(8) Cancel or void enlistment contracts; or
</P>
<P>(9) Change the reason for discharge from or to a physical disability
</P>
<P>(b) Review of naval discharges shall not be undertaken in instances where the elapsed time between the date of discharge and the date of receipt of application for review exceeds fifteen years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.206" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.206   Jurisdictional determinations.</HEAD>
<P>The determination as to whether the NDRB has jurisdiction in any case shall be predicated on the policy stated in § 724.205. Decisions shall be made by administrative action without referral to the NDRB. Normally, they shall be made by the Executive Secretary of the NDRB, or they may be referred to the President, NDRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.207" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.207   Disposition of applications for discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>One of three dispositions will be made of an application for review of a discharge:
</P>
<P>(a) The application may be rejected for reason of:
</P>
<P>(1) Absence of jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(2) Previous review on the same evidence; or
</P>
<P>(b) The application may be withdrawn by the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(c) The application may be accepted and the discharge reviewed by the NDRB, resulting in,
</P>
<P>(1) Change to the discharge, or
</P>
<P>(2) No change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.208" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.208   Implementation of NDRB decisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commandant of the Marine Corps and the Chief of Naval Operations are responsible for implementing Naval Discharge Review Board decisions within their respective services. The Commandant of the Marine Corps shall be notified of decisions in each discharge review case and shall implement the decisions within the Marine Corps. The Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command, acting for the Chief of Naval Operations and Chief of Naval Personnel, shall be notified of decisions in each discharge review case and shall implement the decisions within the Navy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.209" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.209   Evidence supporting applications.</HEAD>
<P>In the absence of law, evidence or policy to the contrary, naval discharges shall be considered just, equitable and proper as issued. When hearings are scheduled, applicants must be prepared to present their case at the scheduled time. In the absence of any other evidence, naval discharge review shall be undertaken by examination of available service and health records of the applicant. Normally, the responsibility for presenting evidence from outside available service and health records shall rest with the applicant. Applications in which elements of relevant information are obviously omitted will be returned for completion and resubmission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.210" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.210   Review action in instances of unavailable records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that Department of the Navy personnel or health records associated with a requested review of discharge are not located at the custodial activity, the following action shall be taken by the NDRB prior to consideration of the request for discharge review.
</P>
<P>(1) A certification that the records are unavailable shall be obtained from the custodial activity.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant shall be notified of the situation and requested to provide such information and documents as may be desired in support of the request for discharge review. A period of not less than 60 days shall be allowed for such documents to be submitted. At the expiration of this time period, the review may be conducted with information available to the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(3) The presumption of regularity in the conduct of government affairs may be applicable in instances of unavailable records depending on the circumstances of the case. (See § 724.211)
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 65 FR 62616, Oct. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.211" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.211   Regularity of government affairs.</HEAD>
<P>There is a presumption of regularity in the conduct of governmental affairs. This presumption can be applied in any review unless there is substantial credible evidence to rebut the presumption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.212" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.212   Availability of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before applying for discharge review, potential applicants or their designated representatives may obtain copies of their military personnel records by submitting a General Services Administration Standard Form 180, “Request Pertaining to Military Records,” to the National Personnel Records Center (NPRC), 9700 Page Boulevard, St. Louis, MO 63132. Once the application for discharge review (DD Form 293) is submitted, an applicant's military records are forwarded to the NDRB where they cannot be reproduced. Submission of a request for an applicant's military records, including a request under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) or Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) after the DD Form 293 has been submitted, shall result automatically in the temporary suspension of processing of the application for discharge review until the requested records are sent to an appropriate location for copying, are copied, and are returned to the headquarters of the NDRB. Processing of the application shall then be resumed at whatever stage of the discharge review process is practicable. Applicants are encouraged to submit any request for their military records before applying for discharge review rather than after submitting DD Form 293 to avoid delays in processing of applications and scheduling of reviews. Applicants and their counsel may also examine their military personnel records at the site of their scheduled review before the hearing. The NDRB shall notify applicants of the dates the records are available for examination in their standard scheduling information.
</P>
<P>(b) If the NDRB is not authorized to provide copies of documents that are under the cognizance of another government department, office, or activity, applications for such information must be made by the applicant to the cognizant authority. The NDRB shall advise the applicant of the mailing address of the government department, office, or activity to which the request should be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) The NDRB may take steps to obtain additional evidence that is relevant to the discharge under consideration beyond that found in the official military records or submitted by the applicant, if a review of available evidence suggests that it would be incomplete without the additional information, or when the applicant presents testimony or documents that require additional information to evaluate properly. Such information shall be made available to the applicant, upon request, with appropriate modifications regarding classified material.
</P>
<P>(1) In any case heard on request of an applicant, the NDRB shall provide the applicant and counsel or representative, if any, at a reasonable time before initiating the decision process, a notice of the availability of all regulations and documents to be considered in the discharge review, except for documents in the official personnel or medical records and any documents submitted by the applicant. The NDRB shall also notify the applicant or counsel or representative: (a) of the right to examine such documents or to be provided with copies of the documents upon request; (b) of the date by which such requests must be received; and (c) of the opportunity to respond within a reasonable period of time to be set by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary to acquaint the applicant with the substance of a classified document, the classifying authority, on the request of the NDRB, shall prepare a summary of or an extract from the document, deleting all references to sources of information and other matters, the disclosure of which, in the opinion of the classifying authority, would be detrimental to the national security interests of the United States. Should preparation of such summary be deemed impracticable by the classifying authority, information from the classified source shall not be considered by the NDRB in its review of the case.
</P>
<P>(e) Regulations of a military department may be obtained at many installations under the jurisdiction of the Military Department concerned or by writing to the following address: DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 65 FR 62616, Oct. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.213" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.213   Attendance of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>Arrangement for attendance of witnesses testifying in behalf of the applicant at discharge review hearings is the responsibility of the applicant. The NDRB is not authorized to subpoena or otherwise require their presence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.214" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.214   Applicant's expenses.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified by law or regulation, expenses incurred by the applicant, witnesses, or counsel/representative will not be paid by the Department of Defense. The NDRB is not authorized to issue orders or other process to enable the applicant to appear in person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.215" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.215   Military representation.</HEAD>
<P>Military officers, except those acting pursuant to specific detailing by appropriate authorities desiring to act for or on behalf of an applicant in the presentation of a case before an NDRB Panel are advised to consult legal counsel before undertaking such representation. Such representation may be prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 205.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.216" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.216   Failure to appear at a hearing or respond to a scheduling notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise authorized by the Secretary concerned, further opportunity for a hearing shall not be made available in the following circumstances to an applicant who has requested a hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) When the applicant has been sent a letter containing the month and location of a proposed hearing and fails to make a timely response; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the applicant, after being notified by letter of the time and place of the hearing, fails to appear at the appointed time, either in person or by representative, without having made a prior, timely request for a continuation, postponement, or withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(b) In such cases, the applicant shall be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing, and the NDRB shall complete its review of the discharge. Further request for a hearing shall not be granted unless the applicant can demonstrate that the failure to appear or respond was due to circumstances beyond the applicant's control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.217" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.217   Limitation—Reconsiderations.</HEAD>
<P>A discharge review shall not be subject to reconsideration except:
</P>
<P>(a) When the only previous consideration of the case was on the motion of the NDRB;
</P>
<P>(b) When the original discharge review did not involve a personal hearing and a hearing is now desired, and the provisions of § 724.216 do not apply;
</P>
<P>(c) When changes in discharge policy are announced after an earlier review of an applicant's discharge, and the new policy is made expressly retroactive;
</P>
<P>(d) When the NDRB determines that policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration, provided that such changes in policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded an applicant in such proceedings;
</P>
<P>(e) When an individual is to be represented by counsel or representative, and was not so represented in any previous consideration of the case by the NDRB;
</P>
<P>(f) When the case was not previously considered under uniform standards published pursuant to Pub. L. 95-126 and such application is made within 15 years after the date of discharge; or
</P>
<P>(g) On the basis of presentation of new, substantial, relevant evidence not available to the applicant at the time of the original review. The decision whether evidence offered by an applicant in support of a request for reconsideration is in fact new, substantial, relevant, and was not available to the applicant at the time of the original review will be based on a comparison of such evidence with the evidence considered in the previous discharge review. If this comparison shows that the evidence submitted would have had a probable effect on matters concerning the propriety or equity of the discharge, the request for reconsideration shall be granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.218" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.218   Limitation—Continuance and Postponements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A continuance of a discharge review hearing may be authorized by the President of the NDRB or presiding officer of the panel concerned, provided that such continuance is of reasonable duration and is essential to achieving a full and fair hearing. When a proposal for continuance is indefinite, the pending application shall be returned to the applicant with the option to resubmit when the case is fully ready for review.
</P>
<P>(b) Postponements of scheduled reviews normally shall not be permitted other than for demonstrated good and sufficient reason set forth by the applicant in a timely manner or for the convenience of the government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.219" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.219   Withdrawal of application.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant shall be permitted to withdraw an application without prejudice at any time before the scheduled review, except that failure to appear for a scheduled hearing shall not be construed or accepted as a withdrawal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.220" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.220   Review on motion of the NDRB.</HEAD>
<P>Reviews of Naval discharges may be initiated by the NDRB on its own motion (10 U.S.C. 1553) which includes reviews requested by the Veterans Administration under 38 U.S.C. 101, 3103 as amended by Pub. L. 95-126 of October 8, 1977 (See Pub. L. 98-209).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.221" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.221   Scheduling of discharge reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an applicant requests a personal appearance discharge review, or to be represented in absentia, the NDRB shall provide a hearing in the NCR or at another site within the forty-eight contiguous states.
</P>
<P>(b) The NDRB shall subsequently notify the applicant and representative (if any) in writing of the proposed personal appearance hearing time and place. This notice shall normally be mailed thirty to sixty days prior to the date of the hearing. If the applicant elects, this time limit may be waived and an earlier date set.
</P>
<P>(c) When an applicant requests a documentary review, the NDRB shall undertake the review as soon as practicable. Normally, documentary reviews shall be conducted in the order in which they are received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.222" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.222   Personal appearance discharge hearing sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NDRB shall be permanently located, together with its administrative staff, in the NCR. The NDRB shall routinely conduct personal appearance discharge reviews and documentary reviews at this, its permanent office.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, as permitted by available resources, NDRB Panels shall travel to other selected sites within the contiguous 48 states for the purpose of conducting reviews. The selection of sites and frequency of visits shall be predicated on the number of requests pending within a region and the availability of resources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.223" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.223   NDRB support and augmentation by regular and reserve activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an NDRB Panel travels for the purpose of conducting hearings, it shall normally select Navy or Marine Corps installations in the area visited as review sites.
</P>
<P>(b) The NDRB Traveling Board shall normally consist of members from the NCPB and augmentees from regular and reserve Navy and Marine Corps sources, as required.
</P>
<P>(c) Navy and Marine Corps activities in the geographical vicinity of selected review sites shall provide administrative support and augmentation to an NDRB Panel during its visit where such assistance can be undertaken without interference with mission accomplishment. The NDRB shall coordinate requests for augmentees and administrative support through Commandant of the Marine Corps or the Chief of Naval Reserve, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The administrative staff of the NDRB shall undertake all arrangements for NDRB Traveling Panel visits and shall process associated review documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.224" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.224   Court-martial specifications, presumption concerning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Relevant and material facts stated in a court-martial specification, shall be presumed by the NDRB Panel as established facts. With respect to a discharge or dismissal adjudged by a court-martial case tried under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, the action may extend only to change in the discharge or dismissal for purposes of clemency. This policy only applies to cases filed with the discharge review board after December 6, 1983.
</P>
<P>(b) Relevant and material facts stated in a court-martial specification, in the face of which the applicant requested a discharge for the good of the service to avoid trial by court-martial, shall be considered in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the applicant/accused was required to admit the facts contained in the charge sheet, or if the discharge authority was required to find that the stated facts were true, then the NDRB can presume the truth of such facts, unless there is a substantial credible evidence to rebut this presumption; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the discharge in lieu of court-martial only required a valid preferral, the NDRB may presume that the signer either had personal knowledge of, or had investigated the matters set forth, and that the charges were true in fact to the best of the signer's knowledge and belief. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The weight to be given this presumption in determining whether the facts stated in the charge sheet are true is a matter to be determined by the NDRB. To the extent that the discharge proceeding reflects an official determination that the facts stated in the charge sheet are true; that the applicant/accused admitted the facts stated in the charge sheet; or that the applicant/accused admitted guilt of the offense(s), then the presumption is strengthened. In accordance with paragraph B12f of enclosure (3) to 32 CFR part 70 the presumption may be rebutted by “substantial credible evidence.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Charges may be preferred by any person subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice. The charges must be signed and sworn to before a commissioned officer authorized to administer oaths, and shall state that the signer has personal knowledge of, or has investigated the matters set forth therein; and that the charges are true in fact to the best of the signer's knowledge and belief. 10 U.S.C. 830 (1976) (Art. 30 Uniform Code of Military Justice).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Director, Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards and President Naval Discharge Review Board; Responsibilities in Support of the Naval Discharge Review Board</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.301" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.301   Mission.</HEAD>
<P>To administer and supervise assigned boards and councils within the Department of the Navy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.302" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.302   Functions: Director, Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Make recommendations to the Secretary of the Navy regarding organization, tasking and resources of the NDRB and its associated administrative support.
</P>
<P>(b) Submit recommendations to the Secretary of the Navy regarding policy and procedures for discharge review.
</P>
<P>(c) Provide administrative and clerical support for NDRB.
</P>
<P>(d) Inform the Secretary of the Navy of matters of interest to him.
</P>
<P>(e) Maintain a system of records, including as a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Records specified for the NDRB as stipulated in the procedures prescribed in subpart H of this Manual.
</P>
<P>(2) Records required for the administration of military and civilian personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) Files of correspondence received and issued.
</P>
<P>(f) Establish billet/position assignment criteria for the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(g) Propose to the Secretary of the Navy, changes to this instruction.
</P>
<P>(h) Issue requisite precepts and remove or add members to the NDRB from personnel detailed to serve on the Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards, or from personnel otherwise made available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.303" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.303   Functions: President, Naval Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Exercise primary cognizance within the Department of the Navy for matters relating to discharge review.
</P>
<P>(b) Supervise and direct the activities of the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain appropriate liaison with discharge review activities in other services (use Army Discharge Review Board as focal point for service coordination).
</P>
<P>(d) Maintain coordination with the Commandant of the Marine Corps (Code M) and the Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command in matters associated with discharge review.
</P>
<P>(e) In conformance with SECNAVINST 5211.5 series, protect the privacy of individuals in connection with discharge review.
</P>
<P>(f) Assure that NDRB functions are administered in accordance with the appropriate Secretary of the Navy instructions dealing with privacy and access to information.
</P>
<P>(g) Convene the NDRB as authorized by the Secretary of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(h) Direct the movement of the NDRB Traveling Panel(s) on the basis of regional hearing requests.
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor the performance of the naval discharge review system. Make recommendations for changes and improvements. Take action to avoid delays in processing of individual discharge review actions.
</P>
<P>(j) Provide NDRB inputs for the maintenance of a public reading file and maintain associated NDRB indexes updated quarterly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.304" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.304   Responsibility for Department of the Navy support of the Naval Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Commandant of the Marine Corps; Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command; Commander, Naval Reserve Force; Commander, Naval Medical Command; and chiefs of other bureaus and offices of the Department of the Navy shall provide support, as requested, to the Naval discharge review process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.305" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.305   Functions of the CMC and CNO.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of Navy, CNMPC, under the CNP, shall discharge responsibilities of the CNO.
</P>
<P>(a) Provide and facilitate access by the NDRB to service/health records and other data associated with performance of duty of applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) Advise the NDRB of developments in personnel management which may have a bearing on discharge review judgments.
</P>
<P>(c) Implement the discharge review decisions of the NDRB and those of higher authority within respective areas of cognizance.
</P>
<P>(d) Include the record of NDRB proceedings as a permanent part of the service record of the applicant in each case.
</P>
<P>(e) Where appropriate, recommend cases for the NDRB to review on its own motion.
</P>
<P>(f) Provide qualified personnel as NDRB members, recorders and administrative staff.
</P>
<P>(g) Establish administrative procedures to ensure that if a member is separated from the Navy or the Marine Corps under other than fully honorable conditions, the member is advised of:
</P>
<P>(1) The right to a review of his or her discharge under provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1553, and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures for applying for such a review.
</P>
<P>(h) Provide Navy and Marine Corps units and activities with information on the mission of the Naval Discharge Review Board through entries in appropriate personnel administration directives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.306" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.306   Functions of the Commander, Naval Medical Command.</HEAD>
<P>Under the CNO the COMNAVMEDCOM shall facilitate, as required, access by the NDRB to health records of applicants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.307" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.307   Functions of the Commander, Naval Reserve Force.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of Navy, the COMNAVRESFOR shall discharge the responsibilities of the CNO—
</P>
<P>(a) Upon request and within available resources, provide qualified inactive duty reservists to serve as members of the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, provide appropriate accommodations to the NDRB Traveling Panels for purposes of conducting reviews at Naval and Marine Corps Reserve Centers and aviation facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Principal Elements of the Navy Department Discharge Review System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.401" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.401   Applicants.</HEAD>
<P>As defined in § 724.114.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.402" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.402   Naval Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>As defined in § 724.102.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.403" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.403   President, Naval Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>Supervises the Naval Discharge Review Board. (See subpart C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.404" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.404   Director, Naval Council of Personnel Boards.</HEAD>
<P>Exercises adminstrative control and oversight of the Naval discharge review process. (See subpart C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.405" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.405   Commandant of the Marine Corps or the Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command.</HEAD>
<P>Personnel managers of the Marine Corps and the Navy; responsible for providing limited support to the Naval Discharge Review Board and for implementation of departmental discharge review decisions. (See subpart C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.406" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.406   Commander, Naval Medical Command.</HEAD>
<P>Custodian of Navy and Marine Corps health records. (See subpart C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.407" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.407   Commander, Naval Reserve Force.</HEAD>
<P>Manages Naval Reserve resources. Responsible for providing limited support to the Naval Discharge Review Board. (See subpart C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.408" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.408   Secretary of the Navy.</HEAD>
<P>The final authority within the Department of the Navy in discharge review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Procedural Rights of the Applicant and Administrative Actions Preliminary To Discharge Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.501" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.501   Procedural rights of the applicant.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant has the following procedural rights:
</P>
<P>(a) Within 15 years after the date of discharge, to make a written request for review of the applicant's discharge if the discharge was other than the result of a general court-martial. The request may include such other statements, affidavits, or documentation as desired.
</P>
<P>(b) To have that review conducted by the NDRB either in the NCR or other designated location, when a personal appearance discharge review is desired.
</P>
<P>(c) To appear before the NDRB in person, with or without counsel/representative; with counsel/representative concurrence, to have counsel/representative present the applicant's case in the absence of the applicant; or to have the review conducted based on records and any additional documentation submitted by the applicant or counsel/representative.
</P>
<P>(d) To request copies of any documents or other evidence to be considered by the NDRB in the review of the applicant's discharge or dismissal other than the documents or evidence contained in the official record or submitted by the applicant prior to the conduct of the formal review and to be afforded an opportunity to examine such other documents or evidence or to be provided with copies of them.
</P>
<P>(e) To withdraw the request for discharge review without prejudice at any time prior to the scheduled review, except that failure to appear for a scheduled hearing shall not be construed or accepted as a withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(f) To request a continuance of the review when the continuance is of a reasonable duration and essential to achieving a full and fair hearing. The request must indicate the reason why the continuance is required.
</P>
<P>(g) To request postponement of the discharge review for good and sufficient reason set forth in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(h) To request reconsideration of the discharge review under the conditions set forth in § 724.217.
</P>
<P>(i) To have access to the information to be considered by the NDRB prior to the actual review of the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(j) To have the applicant's right to privacy protected in any review conducted by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(k) When appearing personally before the NDRB:
</P>
<P>(1) To introduce witnesses, documents, and sworn or unsworn testimony.
</P>
<P>(2) To present oral or written arguments personally or through counsel/representative.
</P>
<P>(l) To submit documents, affidavits, briefs or arguments in writing. When the counsel/representative appears in person before the NDRB, arguments may be presented orally.
</P>
<P>(m) To state clearly and specifically the issue or issues which the applicant desires the NDRB to answer in writing. These must be presented in writing on DD Form 293 by the applicant or counsel/representative.
</P>
<P>(n) To have the applicant's discharge reviewed under the standards of equity and propriety outlined in subpart I.
</P>
<P>(o) To be provided with a written decision on the applicant's review.
</P>
<P>(p) If the case is to be forwarded for Secretarial review, to present a timely statement rebutting any findings, conclusions, or reasons of the NDRB or the President, NDRB, which are alleged to be erroneous on the facts, against the substantial weight of the evidence, or contrary to law or governing regulation, prior to that Secretarial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.502" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.502   Actions to be taken by the applicant preliminary to discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for Review of Discharge or Dismissal from the Armed Forces of the United States,</I> DD Form 293 must be used in requesting a discharge review. DD Form 293 is available at most military installations and regional offices of the Veterans Administration. This form is to be signed personally by the applicant. In the event the discharged individual is deceased or incompetent, the form must be signed by an authorized individual as discussed in § 724.113 of this Manual.
</P>
<P>(b) The application is to be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the certificate of discharge, if available;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the Armed Forces of the United States Report of Transfer or Discharge (DD-214), if available;
</P>
<P>(3) Certification of death, incompetency and evidence of relationship in applicable cases (§ 724.113);
</P>
<P>(4) Other statements, affidavits, depositions, documents and information desired by the applicant to be considered by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(c) Correspondence relating to review of naval discharges should be addressed to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Naval Discharge Review Board, 720 Kennon Ave SE., Suite 309, Washington, DC 20374-5023</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) NDRB telephone number is (202) 685-6600.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.503" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.503   NDRB response to application for discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NDRB shall acknowledge receipt of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event a documentary review is requested, the applicant shall normally receive no further communication from the NDRB until notified of the decision in the case.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event a personal appearance discharge review is requested, the applicant shall be notified of the proposed time and place of this review and shall be advised of the availability of the official documents to be considered by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of NDRB correspondence to an applicant shall be sent to the representative of record, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.504" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.504   NDRB actions preliminary to discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When each application for discharge review is received by the NDRB, the service record and, if required, health record of the applicant will be requested from the appropriate record custodian.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt, each record of service will be reviewed to determine whether or not the applicant appears to have been discharged under circumstances which might act as a bar to Veterans' Administration benefits under 38 U.S.C. 3103. These circumstances of discharge are:
</P>
<P>(1) Discharge or dismissal by reason of the sentence of a general court-martial.
</P>
<P>(2) Discharge as a conscientious objector who refused to perform military duty, to wear the uniform or otherwise to comply with lawful orders of competent military authority.
</P>
<P>(3) Discharge as a deserter.
</P>
<P>(4) Discharge on the basis, or as part of the basis, of an absence without authority from active duty for a continuous period of at least 180 days, if such discharge was under conditions other than honorable. Additionally, such absence is computed without regard to the applicant's normal or adjusted expiration of term of service.
</P>
<P>(5) Discharge or dismissal of an officer based on acceptance of the officer's resignation for the good of the service.
</P>
<P>(6) Discharge, on his/her own application, during a period of hostilities, as an alien.
</P>
<P>(c) If it appears that the applicant was discharged under one or more of the circumstances outlined in § 724.504b, a written notification will be sent which informs the applicant that:
</P>
<P>(1) An initial service record review reveals that the discharge may have been awarded under circumstances which make the applicant ineligible for receipt of VA benefits regardless of any action taken by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(2) Separate action by the Board for Correction of Naval Records (BCNR) and/or the VA, in case of 180 days consecutive UA disqualification, may confer eligibility for VA benefits. Instructions for making application to the BCNR and for contacting the VA are provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Naval Discharge Review Board Mission and Functions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.601" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.601   General.</HEAD>
<P>The NDRB is a component of the Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards and has its offices located in the NCR. The NDRB conducts documentary reviews and personal appearance reviews in the NCR and, on a traveling basis, at selected sites within the 48 contiguous states. Regional site selection is predicated on the number of pending applications accumulated from a given geographical area and the resources available to support distant personal appearance reviews. The NDRB does not maintain facilities other than at its NCR offices. The primary sites of NCR are: Chicago, IL; Dallas, TX; and San Francisco, CA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.602" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.602   Mission.</HEAD>
<P>To decide, in accordance with standards of naval law and discipline and the standards for discharge review set forth in subpart I, whether a discharge or dismissal from the naval service is proper and equitable, or whether it should be changed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.603" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.603   Functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Meet as frequently as necessary to provide expeditious review of naval discharges.
</P>
<P>(b) Meet at locations within the 48 contiguous states as determined appropriate on the basis of the number of discharge review applications received from various geographical areas and of available resources and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) Review applications for review of discharges.
</P>
<P>(d) In consonance with directives of higher authority and the policies set forth in this Manual, grant or deny change of discharges.
</P>
<P>(e) Promulgate decisions in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(f) Maintain a system of records.
</P>
<P>(g) Maintain liaison in discharge review matters with:
</P>
<P>(1) General Counsel of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(2) Commandant of the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(3) Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(i) Commander, Naval Reserve Force.
</P>
<P>(ii) Commander, Naval Medical Command.
</P>
<P>(iii) Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command, under the Chief of Naval Personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Judge Advocate General of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(5) Veterans' service organizations.
</P>
<P>(6) Discharge review boards of the other services, using the Army Discharge Review Board as the focal point for service coordination.
</P>
<P>(h) Protect the privacy of individuals whose records are reviewed.
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain for public access a reading file and associated index of records of NDRB proceedings in all reviews undertaken subsequent to July 1, 1975.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Organization of the Naval Discharge Review Board</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.701" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.701   Composition.</HEAD>
<P>The NDRB acting in plenary review session shall be composed of five members. Normally the members shall be career military officers, assigned to the Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards or otherwise made available; inactive duty officers of the Navy and Marine Corps Reserve may serve as members when designated to do so by the President, NDRB.
</P>
<P>(a) Presiding officers of the NDRB shall normally be Navy or Marine Corps officers in the grade of Captain/Colonel or above.
</P>
<P>(b) The remaining NDRB membership shall normally be not less than the grade of Lieutenant Commander/Major with preference being given to senior grades.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally, at least three of the five members of the NDRB shall belong to the service from which the applicant whose case is under review was discharged.
</P>
<P>(d) Individual membership in the NDRB may vary within the limitations of the prescribed composition.
</P>
<P>(e) Any member of a panel of the NDRB other than the presiding officer may act as recorder for cases assigned. The recorder will participate as a voting member of the panel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10943, Mar. 19, 1985, as amended at 75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.702" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.702   Executive management.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative affairs of the NDRB shall be managed by the Executive Secretary. This responsibility shall include schedules, records, correspondence and issuance of NDRB decisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.703" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.703   Legal counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Normally, the NDRB shall function without the immediate attendance of legal counsel. In the event that a legal advisory opinion is deemed appropriate by the NDRB, such opinion shall be obtained routinely by reference to the Counsel assigned to the Office of the Director, Secretary of the Navy Council of Review Boards. In addition, the NDRB may request advisory opinions from staff offices of the Department of the Navy, including, but not limited to the General Counsel and the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 747, Jan. 6, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Procedures of Naval Discharge Review Board</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.801" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.801   Matters to be considered in discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>In the process of its review of discharges, the NDRB shall examine available records and pertinent regulations of the Department of the Navy, together with such information as may be presented by the applicant and/or representative, which will normally include:
</P>
<P>(a) The application for discharge review;
</P>
<P>(b) Statements, affidavits or documentation, if any, accompanying the application or presented during hearings;
</P>
<P>(c) Testimony, if any, presented during hearings;
</P>
<P>(d) Service and health records;
</P>
<P>(e) A brief of pertinent facts extracted from the service and health records, prepared by the NDRB recorder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.802" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.802   Applicant's responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for change of discharge.</I> An applicant may request a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Character of discharge.</I> Block 7 of DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in character of discharge (for example, General Discharge to Honorable Discharge; Other than Honorable Discharge to General or Honorable Discharge). A person separated on or after 1 October 1982 while in an entry level status may request a change from Other Than Honorable Discharge to Entry Level Separation. A request for review from an applicant who does not have an Honorable Discharge will be treated as a request for a change to an Honorable Discharge unless the applicant requests a specific change to another character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reason for discharge.</I> Block 7 of DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in the reason for discharge. If an applicant does not request a specific change in the reason for discharge, the NDRB will presume that the request for review does not involve a request for change in the reason for discharge. Under its responsibility to examine the propriety and equity of an applicant's discharge, the NDRB will change the reason for discharge if such a change is warranted.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must ensure that issues submitted to the NDRB are consistent with the request for change in discharge set forth in block 7 of the DD Form 293. If an ambiguity is created by a difference between and applicant's issue and the request in block 7, the NDRB will respond to the issue in the context of the action requested in block 7. In the case of a personal appearance hearing, the NDRB will attempt to resolve the ambiguity under § 724.802(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for consideration of specific issues.</I> An applicant may request the Board to consider specific issues which, in the opinion of the applicant, form a basis for changing the character of or reason for discharge, or both. In addition to the guidance set forth in this section, applicants should consult the other sections in this manual before submitting issues for consideration by the Board.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Submission of issues on DD Form 293.</I> Issues must be provided to the NDRB on DD Form 293 (82 Nov) before the NDRB closes the review process for deliberation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Issues must be clear and specific.</I> An issue must be stated clearly and specifically in order to enable the NDRB to understand the nature of the issue and its relationship to the applicant's discharge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Separate listing of issues.</I> Each issue submitted by an applicant should be listed separately. Submission of a separate statement for each issue provides the best means of ensuring that the full import of the issue is conveyed to the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Use of DD Form 293.</I> DD Form 293 provides applicants with a standard format for submitting issues to the NDRB, and its use:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides a means for an applicant to set forth clearly and specifically those matters that, in the option of the applicant, provide a basis for changing the discharge;
</P>
<P>(B) Assists the NDRB in focusing on those matters considered to be important by an applicant;
</P>
<P>(C) Assists the NDRB in distinguishing between a matter submitted by an applicant in the expectation that it will be treated as a decisional issue, and those matters submitted simply as background or supporting materials;
</P>
<P>(D) Provides the applicant with greater rights in the event that the applicant later submits a complaint concerning the decisional document;
</P>
<P>(E) Reduces the potential for disagreement as to the content of an applicant's issue.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> If the applicant makes an additional written submission, such as a brief, in support of the application, the applicant may incorporate by reference specific issues set forth in the written submission in accordance with the guidance on DD Form 293. The reference shall be specific enough for the NDRB to identify clearly the matter being submitted as an issue. At a minimum, it shall identify the page, paragraph, and sentence incorporated. Because it is to the applicant's benefit to bring such issues to the NDRB's attention as early as possible in the review, applicants who submit a brief are strongly urged to set forth all such issues as a separate item at the beginning of the brief. If it reasonably appears that the applicant inadvertently failed expressly to incorporate an issue which the applicant clearly identifies as an issue to be addressed by the NDRB, the NDRB shall respond to such an issue. (See §§ 724.805 and 724.806.)
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Effective date of the new Form DD 293.</I> With respect to applications pending (before November 1982, the effective date of the new DD Form 293), the NDRB shall consider issues clearly and specifically stated in accordance with the rules in effect at the time of submission. With respect to applications received after November 1982, if the applicant submits an obsolete DD Form 293, the NDRB shall accept the application, but shall provide the applicant with a copy of the new form and advise the applicant that it will only respond to issues submitted on the new form in accordance with this instruction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relationship of issues to character of or reason for discharge.</I> If the application applies to both character of and reason for discharge, the applicant is encouraged, but not required, to identify the issue as applying to either the character of or the reason for discharge (or both). Unless the issue is directed at the reason for discharge expressly or by necessary implication, the NDRB will presume that it applies solely to the character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship of issues to the standards for discharge review.</I> The NDRB reviews discharges on the basis of issues of propriety and equity. The standards used by the NDRB are set forth in § 724.804. The applicant is encouraged to review those standards before submitting any issue upon which the applicant believes a change in discharge should be based.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Issues concerning the equity of the discharge.</I> An issue of equity is a matter that involves a determination whether a discharge should be changed under the equity standards of this part. This includes any issue, submitted by the applicant in accordance with § 724.802(b)(1), that is addressed to the discretionary authority of the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Issues concerning the propriety of a discharge.</I> An issue of propriety is a matter that involves a determination whether a discharge should be changed under the propriety standards of this part. This includes an applicant's issue, submitted in accordance with § 724.802(b)(1), in which the applicant's position is that the discharge must be changed because of an error in the discharge pertaining to a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, or other source of law (including a matter that requires a determination whether, under the circumstances of the case, action by military authorities was arbitrary, capricious, or an abuse of discretion). Although a numerical reference to the regulation or other sources of law alleged to have been violated is not necessarily required, the context of the regulation or a description of the procedures alleged to have been violated normally must be set forth in order to inform the NDRB adequately of the basis for the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>The applicant's identification of an issue.</I> The applicant is encouraged, but not required, to specify that each issue pertains to the propriety or the equity of the discharge. This will assist the NDRB in assessing the relationship of the issue to propriety or equity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Citation of matter from decisions.</I> The primary function of the NDRB involves the exercise of discretion on a case-by-case basis. Applicants are not required to cite prior decisions as the basis for a change in discharge. If the applicant wishes to bring the NDRB's attention to a prior decision as background or illustrative material, the citation should be placed in a brief or other supporting documents. If, however, it is the applicant's intention to submit an issue that sets forth specific principles and facts from a specific cited decision, the following requirements with respect to applications received on or after November 27, 1982 apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The issue must be set forth or expressly incorporated in the “Applicant's Issue” portion of DD Form 293.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an applicant's issue cites a prior decision (of the NDRB, another Board, an agency, or a court), the applicant shall describe the specific principles and facts that are contained in the prior decision and explain the relevance of cited matter to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(iii) To ensure timely consideration of principles cited from unpublished opinions (including decisions maintained by the Armed Forces Discharge Review Board/Corrective Board Reading Room), applicants must provide the NDRB with copies of such decisions or of the relevant portion of the treatise, manual or similar source in which the principles were discussed. At the applicant's request, such materials will be returned.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant fails to comply with requirements in § 724.802(b)(4), the decisional document shall note the defect, and shall respond to the issue without regard to the citation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Identification by the NDRB of issues submitted by an applicant.</I> The applicant's issues shall be identified in accordance with this section after a review of the materials noted under § 924.803, is made.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Issues on DD Form 293.</I> The NDRB shall consider all items submitted as issues by an applicant on DD Form 293 (or incorported therein).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amendment of issues.</I> The NDRB shall not request or instruct an applicant to amend or withdraw any matter submitted by the applicant. Any amendment or withdrawal of an issue by an applicant shall be confirmed in writing by the applicant. Nothing in this provision:
</P>
<P>(i) Limits the NDRB's authority to question an applicant as to the meaning of such matter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Precludes the NDRB from developing decisional issues based upon such questions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Prevents the applicant from amending or withdrawing such matter any time before the NDRB closes the review process for deliberation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevents the NDRB from presenting an applicant with a list of proposed decisional issues and written information concerning the right of the applicant to add to, amend, or withdraw the applicant's submission. The written information will state that the applicant's decision to take such action (or decline to do so) will not be used against the applicant in the consideration of the case.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional issues identified during a hearing.</I> The following additional procedure shall be used during a hearing in order to promote the NDRB's understanding of an applicant's presentation. If, before closing the case for deliberation, the NDRB believes that an applicant has presented an issue not listed on DD Form 293, the NDRB may so inform the applicant, and the applicant may submit the issue in writing or add additional written issues at that time. This does not preclude the NDRB from developing its own decisional issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.803" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.803   The decisional document.</HEAD>
<P>A decisional document shall be prepared for each review. At a minimum, this document shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) The circumstances and character of the applicant's service as extracted from available service records, including health records, and information provided by other government authorities or the applicant, such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning the discharge under review, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Date (YYMMDD) of discharge;
</P>
<P>(ii) Character of discharge;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reason for discharge;
</P>
<P>(iv) The specific regulatory authority under which the discharge was issued;
</P>
<P>(v) Date (YYMMDD) of enlistment;
</P>
<P>(vi) Period of enlistment;
</P>
<P>(vii) Age at enlistment;
</P>
<P>(viii) Length of service;
</P>
<P>(ix) Periods of unauthorized absence;
</P>
<P>(x) Conduct and efficiency ratings (numerical or narrative);
</P>
<P>(xi) Highest rank achieved;
</P>
<P>(xii) Awards and decorations;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Educational level;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Aptitude test scores;
</P>
<P>(xv) Incidents of punishment pursuant to Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice (including nature and date (YYMMDD) of offense or punishment);
</P>
<P>(xvi) Convictions by court-martial;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Prior military service and type of discharge received.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other matters in the applicant's record which pertains to the discharge or the issues, or provide a clearer picture of the overall quality of the applicant's service.
</P>
<P>(b) A list of the type of documents submitted by or on behalf of the applicant (including written briefs, letters of recommendation, affidavits concerning the circumstances of the discharge, or other documentary evidence), if any.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement whether the applicant testified, and a list of the type of witnesses, if any , who testified on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) A notation whether the application pertained to the character of discharge, the reason for discharge, or both.
</P>
<P>(e) A list of the items submitted as issues on DD Form 293 or expressly incorporated therein and such other items submitted as issues by the applicant that are identified as inadvertently omitted. If the issues are listed verbatim on DD Form 293, a copy of the relevant portion of the form may be attached. Issues that have been withdrawn or modified with the written consent of the applicant need not be listed.
</P>
<P>(f) The response to the items submitted as issues by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(g) A list of decisional issues and a discussion of such issues.
</P>
<P>(h) NDRB's conclusions on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the character of or reason for discharge should be changed.
</P>
<P>(2) The specific changes to be made, if any.
</P>
<P>(i) A record of the voting, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of votes for the NDRB's decision and the number of votes in the minority, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) The NDRB members' names and votes. The copy provided to the applicant may substitute a statement that the names and votes will be made available to the applicant at the applicant's request.
</P>
<P>(j) Advisory opinions, including those containing factual information, when such opinions have been relied upon for final decision or have been accepted as a basis for rejecting any of the applicant's issues. Such advisory opinions or relevant portions that are not fully set forth in the discussion of decisional issues or otherwise in response to items submitted as issues by the applicant shall be incorporated by reference. A copy of opinions incorporated by reference shall be appended to the decision and included in the record of proceedings.
</P>
<P>(k) The recommendation of the NDRB president when required.
</P>
<P>(l) The addendum of the SRA when required.
</P>
<P>(m) Index entries for each decisional issue under appropriate categories listed in the index of decisions.
</P>
<P>(n) An authentication of the document by an appropriate official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.804" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.804   Decision process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NDRB or the NDRB panel, as appropriate, shall meet in plenary session to review discharges and exercise its discretion on a case-by-case basis in applying the standard set forth in subpart I.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer is responsible for the conduct of the discharge review. The presiding officer shall convene, recess, and adjourn the NDRB panel as appropriate and shall maintain an atmosphere of dignity and decorum at all times.
</P>
<P>(c) Each NDRB member shall act under oath or affirmation requiring careful, objective consideration of the application. NDRB members are responsible for eliciting all facts necessary for a full and fair review. They shall consider all information presented to them by the applicant. In addition, they shall consider available military service and health records, together with other records that may be in the files of the military department concerned and relevant to the issues before the NDRB, and any other evidence obtained in accordance with this Manual.
</P>
<P>(d) The NDRB shall identify and address issues after a review of the following material obtained and presented in accordance with this Manual and any implementing instructions of the NDRB: available official records, documentary evidence submitted by or on behalf of an applicant, presentation of a hearing examination, testimony by or on behalf of an applicant, oral or written arguments presented by or on behalf of an applicant, and any other relevant evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) If an applicant who has requested a hearing does not respond to a notification letter or does not appear for a scheduled hearing, the NDRB may complete the review on the basis of material previously submitted and available service records.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application of standards.</I> (1) When the NDRB determines that an applicant's discharge was improper, the NDRB will determine which reason for discharge should have been assigned based upon the facts and circumstances before the discharge authority, including the service regulations governing reasons for discharge at the time the applicant was discharged. Unless it is also determined that the discharge was inequitable, the provisions as to the characterization in the regulation under which the applicant should have been discharged will be considered in determining whether further relief is warranted.
</P>
<P>(2) When the NDRB determines that an applicant's discharge was inequitable, any change will be based on the evaluation of the applicant's overall record of service and relevant regulations of the service of which the applicant was a member.
</P>
<P>(g) Voting shall be conducted in closed session, a majority of the votes of the five members constituting the NDRB decision.
</P>
<P>(h) Details of closed session deliberations of the NDRB are priviledged information and shall not be divulged.
</P>
<P>(i) There is no requirement for a statement of minority views in the event of a split vote.
</P>
<P>(j) The NDRB may request advisory opinions from appropriate staff officers of the naval service. These opinions are advisory in nature and are not binding on the NDRB in its decision-making process.
</P>
<P>(k) The preliminary determinations required by 38 U.S.C. 3103(e) shall be made upon majority vote of the NDRB concerned on an expedited basis. Such determination shall be based upon the standards set forth in this Manual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.805" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.805   Response to items submitted as issues by the applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General guidance.</I> (1) If any issue submitted by an applicant contains two or more clearly separate issues, the NDRB should respond to each issue under the guidance of this paragraph as if it had been set forth separately by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant uses a “building block” approach (that is, setting forth a series of conclusions on issues that lead to a single conclusion purportedly warranting a change in the applicant's discharge), normally there should be a separate response to each issue.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this paragraph precludes the NDRB from making a single response to multiple issues when such action would enhance the clarity of the decisional document, but such response must reflect an adequate response to each separate issue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisional issues.</I> An item submitted as an issue by an applicant in accordance with this Manual shall be addressed as a decisional issue in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) When the NDRB decides that a change in discharge should be granted, and the NDRB bases its decision in whole or in part on the applicant's issue; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the NDRB does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, and the decision is based in whole or in part on the NDRB's disagreement on the merits with an issue submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to items not addressed as decisional issues.</I> (1) If the applicant receives the full change in discharge requested (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted and the basis shall be addressed as a decisional issue. No further response is required to other issues submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant does not receive the full change in discharge requested with respect to either the character of or reason for discharge (or both), the NDRB shall address the items submitted by the applicant under § 724.806, (Decisional Issues) unless one of the following responses is applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duplicate issues.</I> The NDRB may state that there is a full response to the issue submitted by the applicant under a specified decisional issue. This response may be used only when one issue clearly duplicates another or the issue clearly requires discussion in conjunction with another issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Citations without principles and facts.</I> The NDRB may state that the applicant's issue, which consists of a citation to a decision without setting forth any principles and facts from the decision that the applicant states are relevant to the applicant's case, does not comply with the requirements of § 724.802(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Unclear issues.</I> The NDRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because the meaning of the item is unclear. An issue is unclear if it cannot be understood by a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nonspecific issues.</I> The NDRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because it is not specific. A submission is considered not specific if a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered cannot determine the relationship between the applicant's submission and the particular circumstances of the case. This response may be used only if the submission is expressed in such general terms that no other response is applicable. For example, if the NDRB disagrees with the applicant as to the relevance of matters set forth in the submission, the NDRB normally will set forth the nature of the disagreement with respect to decisional issues, or it will reject the applicant's position. If the applicant's submission is so general that none of those provisions is applicable, then the NDRB may state that it cannot respond because the item is not specific.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.806" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.806   Decisional issues.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the guidance in this section, the decisional document shall discuss the issues that provide a basis for the decision whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge. In order to enhance clarity, the NDRB should not address matters other than issues relied upon in the decision or raised by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Partial change.</I> When the decision changes a discharge, but does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, the decisional document shall address both the issues upon which change is granted and the issues upon which the NDRB denies the full change requested.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relationship of issue of character of or reason for discharge.</I> Generally, the decisional document should specify whether a decisional issue applies to the character of or reason for discharge (or both), but it is not required to do so.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship of an issue to propriety or equity.</I> (i) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to both propriety and equity, the NDRB will consider it under both standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to the propriety of the discharge (for example, by citing a propriety standard or otherwise claiming that a change in discharge is required as a matter of law), the NDRB shall consider the issue solely as a matter of propriety. Except as provided in § 724.806(a)(3)(d), the NDRB is not required to consider such an issue under the equity standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the applicant's issue contends that the NDRB is required as a matter of law to follow a prior decision by setting forth an issue of propriety from the prior decision and describing its relationship to the applicant's case, the issue shall be considered under the propriety standards and addressed under § 724.806 (a) or (b).
</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant's issue sets forth principles of equity contained in a prior NDRB decision, describes the relationship to the applicant's case, and contends that the NDRB is required as a matter of law to follow the prior case, the decisional document shall note that the NDRB is not bound by its discretionary decisions in prior cases. However, the principles cited by the applicant, and the description of the relationship of the principles to the applicant's case, shall be considered and addressed under the equity standards.
</P>
<P>(v) If the applicant's issue cannot be identified as a matter of propriety or equity, the NDRB shall address it as an issue of equity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change of discharge: issues of propriety.</I> If a change in the discharge is warranted under the propriety standards, the decisional document shall state that conclusion and list the errors of expressly retroactive changes in policy or violations of regulations that provide a basis for the conclusion. The decisional document shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the error or change in policy to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not granting the full change shall be set forth.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of the full change requested: issues of propriety.</I> (1) If the decision rejects the applicant's position on an issue of propriety, of if it is otherwise decided on the basis of an issue of propriety that the full change in discharge requested by the applicant is not warranted, the decisional document shall note that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) The decisional document shall list reasons for its conclusion on each issue of propriety under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the NDRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the particular circumstances in the case.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstances, including a factor required by applicable service regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the NDRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(A) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(B) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise identified by members of the NDRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the NDRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the NDRB disagrees with the position of the applicant on an issue of propriety, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in § 724.806(c)(2) (a) and (b):
</P>
<P>(A) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant in accordance with § 724.802(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(B) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant in accordance with § 724.802(b)(4)) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(C) The NDRB may reject an applicant's position by stating that the applicant's issue of propriety is not a matter upon which the NDRB grants a change in discharge, and by providing an explanation for this position. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with one or more other specified issues, the explanation will address all such specified issues.
</P>
<P>(D) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the NDRB agreed with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(E) If the applicant take the position that the discharge must be changed because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, the NDRB may respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. If the organization empowered to correct the record is within the Department of Defense, the NDRB should provide the applicant with a brief description of the procedures for requesting correction of the record. If the NDRB on its own motion cites this issue as a decisional issue on the basis of equity, it shall address the issue.
</P>
<P>(F) When an applicant's issue contains a general allegation that a certain course of action violated his or her constitutional rights, the NDRB may respond in appropriate cases by noting that the action was consistent with statutory or regulatory authority, and by citing the presumption of constitutionality that attaches to statutes and regulations. If, on the other hand, the applicant makes a specific challenge to the constitutionality of the action by challenging the application of a statute or regulation in a particular set of circumstances, it is not sufficient to respond solely by citing the presumption of constitutionality of the statute or regulation when the applicant is not challenging the constitutionality of the statute or regulation. Instead, the response must address the specific circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of the full change in discharge requested when propriety is not at issue.</I> If the applicant has not submitted an issue of propriety and the NDRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of propriety to change the discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect. The NDRB is not required to provide any further discussion as to the propriety of the discharge.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change of discharge: issues of equity.</I> If the NDRB concludes that a change in the discharge is warranted under the equity standards, the decisional document shall list each issue of equity upon which this conclusion is based. The NDRB shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the issue to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not giving the full change requested shall be discussed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Denial of the full change in discharge requested: issues of equity.</I> (1) If the NDRB rejects the applicant's position on an issue of equity, or if the decision otherwise provides less than the full change in discharge requested by the applicant, the decisional document shall note that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) The NDRB shall list reasons for its conclusion on each issue of equity under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a regulation, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the NDRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the exercise of discretion on the issue of equity in the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstance, including a factor required by applicable service regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the NDRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(A) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(B) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise indentified by members of the NDRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the NDRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the NDRB disagrees with the postion of the applicant on an issue of equity, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in paragraphs above:
</P>
<P>(A) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant).
</P>
<P>(B) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(C) The NDRB may reject an applicant's position by explaining why the applicant's issue is not a matter upon which the NDRB grants a change in discharge as a matter of equity. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with other specified issues, the explanation will address all such specified issues.
</P>
<P>(D) The NDRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the NDRB agrees with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(E) If the applicant takes the position that the discharge should be changed as a matter of equity because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, the NDRB may respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. However, the NDRB will consider whether it should exercise its equitable powers to change the discharge on the basis of the alleged error. If it declines to do so, it shall explain why the applicant's position did not provide a sufficient basis for the change in the discharge requested by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(iv) When NDRB concludes that aggravating factors outweigh mitigating factors, the NDRB must set forth reasons such as the seriousness of the offense, specific circumstances surrounding the offense, number of offenses, lack of mitigating circumstances, or similar factors. The NDRB is not required however, to explain why it relied on any such factors unless the applicability or weight of such a factor is expressly raised as an issue by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(v) If the applicant has not submitted any issues and the NDRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of equity for a change in discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect, and shall note that the major factors upon which the discharge was based are set forth in the service record portion of the decisional document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.807" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.807   Record of NDRB proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the proceedings in any review have been concluded, a record thereof will be prepared. Records may include written records, electromagnetic records, audio and/or videotape recordings, or a combination.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the record will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The application for review;
</P>
<P>(2) A record of the testimony in either verbatim, summarized, or recorded form at the option of the NDRB;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentary evidence or copies, other than the military service record considered by the NDRB;
</P>
<P>(4) Briefs and arguments submitted by or on behalf of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(5) Advisory opinions considered by the NDRB, if any:
</P>
<P>(6) The findings, conclusions, and reasons developed by the NDRB;
</P>
<P>(7) Notification of the NDRB's decision to the cognizant custodian of the applicant's records, or reference to the notification document;
</P>
<P>(8) A copy of the decisional document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.808" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.808   Issuance of decisions following discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and counsel or representative, if any, shall be provided with a copy of the decisional document and of any further action in review. Final notification of decisions shall be issued to the applicant with a copy to the counsel or representative, if any, and to the service manager concerned.
</P>
<P>(a) Notification to applicants, with copies to counsel or representatives, shall normally be made through the U.S. Postal Service. Such notification shall consist of a notification of decision, together with a copy of the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(b) Notification to the service manager shall be for the purpose of appropriate action and inclusion of review matter in personnel records. Such notification shall bear appropriate certification of completeness and accuracy.
</P>
<P>(c) Actions on review by superior authority, when occurring, shall be provided to the applicant and counsel or representative in the same manner as to the notification of the review decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.809" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.809   Final disposition of the record of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>The original decisional document and all appendices thereto, shall in all cases be incorporated in the military service record of the applicant and the service record shall be returned to the custody of the appropriate record holding facility. If a portion of the original record of proceedings cannot be stored with the service record, the service record shall contain a notation as to the place where the record is stored. Other copies including any electromagnetic records, audio and/or videotape recordings or any combination thereof shall be filed in the NDRB case folder and disposed of in accordance with appropriate naval regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.810" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.810   Availability of Naval Discharge Review Board documents for public inspection and copying.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the decisional document prepared in accordance with subpart H of this enclosure shall be made available for public inspection and copying promptly after a notice of final decision is sent to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) To prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, identifying details of the applicant and other persons will be deleted from documents made available for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(1) Names, addresses, social security numbers, and military service numbers must be deleted. Written justification shall be made for all other deletions and shall be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) The NDRB shall ensure that there is a means for relating a decisional document number to the name of the applicant to permit retrieval of the applicant's records when required in processing a complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) Any other privileged or classified material contained in or appended to any documents required by this Manual to be furnished the applicant and counsel or representative or made available for public inspection and copying may be deleted only if a written statement on the basis for the deletions is provided the applicant and counsel or representative and made available for public inspection. It is not intended that the statement be so detailed as to reveal the nature of the withheld material.
</P>
<P>(d) NDRB documents made available for public inspection and copying shall be located in the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room. The documents shall be indexed in a usable and concise form so as to enable the public, and those who represent applicants before the NDRB, to isolate from all these decisions that are indexed, those cases that may be similar to an applicant's case and that indicate the circumstances under or reasons for (or both) which the NDRB or the Secretary concerned granted or denied relief.
</P>
<P>(1) The reading file index shall include, in addition to any other item determined by the NDRB, the case number, the date, character of, reason and authority for the discharge. It shall also include the decisions of the NDRB and reviewing authority, if any, and the issues addressed in the statement of findings, conclusions, and reasons.
</P>
<P>(2) The index shall be maintained at selected permanent locations throughout the United States. This ensures reasonable availability to applicants at least 30 days before a traveling panel review. A list of these locations shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Department of the Army. The index shall also be made available at sites selected for traveling panels or hearing examinations for such periods as the NDRB is present and in operation. An applicant who has requested a traveling panel review shall be advised, in the notice of such review, of the permanent index locations.
</P>
<P>(3) The Armed Forces Discharge Review/Corrections Board Reading Room shall publish indexes quarterly for all DRBs. The NDRB shall be responsible for timely submission to the Reading Room of individual case information required for update of the indexes. In addition, the NDRB shall be responsible for submission of new index categories based upon published changes in policy, procedures, or standards. These indexes shall be available for public inspection or purchase (or both) at the Reading Room. When the NDRB has accepted an application, information concerning the availability of the index shall be provided in the NDRB's response to the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.811" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.811   Privacy Act information.</HEAD>
<P>Information protected under the Privacy Act is involved in the discharge review functions. The provisions of SECNAVINST 5211.5C shall be observed throughout the processing of a request for review of discharge or dismissal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.812" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.812   Responsibilities of the Reading Room.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Copies of decisional documents will be provided to individuals or organizations outside the NCR in response to written requests for such documents. Although the Reading Room shall try to make timely responses to such requests, certain factors such as the length of a request, the volume of other pending requests, and the impact of other responsibilities of the staff assigned to such duties may cause some delays. A fee may be charged for such documents under appropriate DOD and Department of the Army directives and regulations. The manual that accompanies the index of decisions shall notify the public that if an applicant indicates that a review is scheduled for a specific date, an effort will be made to provide requested decisional documents before that date. The individual or organization will be advised if that cannot be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(b) Correspondence relating to matters under the cognizance of the Reading Room (including requests for purchase of indexes) shall be addressed to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DA Military Review Board Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.813" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.813   The recommendation of the NDRB president.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The president of the NDRB may forward cases for consideration by the Secretarial Review Authority (SRA). There is no requirement that the president submit a recommendation when a case is forwarded to the SRA. If the president makes a recommendation with respect to the character of or reason for discharge, however, the recommendation shall be prepared under the guidance in § 724.813b.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format for recommendation.</I> If a recommendation is provided, it shall contain the president's view whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both). If the president recommends such a change, the particular change to be made shall be specified. The recommendation shall set forth the president's position on decisional issues and issues submitted by the applicant under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adoption of the NDRB's decisional document.</I> The recommendation may state that the president has adopted the decisional document prepared by the majority. The president shall ensure that the decisional document meets the requirements of this enclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adoption of the specific statements from the majority.</I> If the President adopts the views of the majority only in part, the recommendation shall cite the specific matter adopted from the majority. If the president modifies a statement submitted by the majority, the recommendation shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to issues not included in matter adopted from the majority.</I> The recommendation shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the majority:
</P>
<P>(i) The issues on which the president's recommendation is based. Each such decisional issue shall be addressed by the president.
</P>
<P>(ii) The president's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reasons for rejecting the conclusion of the majority with respect to the decisional document which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in greater relief for the applicant than that afforded by the president's recommendation. Such issues shall be addressed under the principles in § 724.806.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.814" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.814   Secretarial Review Authority (SRA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review by the SRA.</I> The Secretarial Review Authority (SRA) is the Secretary concerned or the official to whom Secretary's discharge review authority has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(1) The SRA may review the following types of cases before issuance of the final notification of a decision:
</P>
<P>(i) Any specific case in which the SRA has an interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any specific case that the president of the NDRB believes is of significant interest to the SRA.
</P>
<P>(2) Cases reviewed by the SRA shall be considered under the standards set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing the decisional document.</I> (1) The decisional document shall be transmitted by the NDRB president under § 724.813.
</P>
<P>(2) The following guidance applies to cases that have been forwarded to the SRA except for cases reviewed on the NDRB's own motion, without the participation of the applicant or the applicant's counsel:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant and counsel or representative, if any, shall be provided with a copy of the proposed decisional document, including the NDRB president's recommendation to the SRA, if any. Classified information shall be summarized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant shall be provided with a reasonable period of time, but not less than 25 days, to submit a rebuttal to the SRA. Any issue in rebuttal consists of a clear and specific statement by the applicant in support of or in opposition to the statements of the NDRB or NDRB president on decisional issues and other clear and specific issues that were submitted by the applicant. The rebuttal shall be based solely on matters in the record before the NDRB closed the case for deliberation or in the president's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of the decisional document.</I> If corrections in the decisional document are required, the decisional document shall be returned to the NDRB for corrective action. The corrected decisional document shall be sent to the applicant (and counsel, if any), but a further opportunity for rebuttal is not required unless the correction produces a different result or includes a substantial change in the decision by the NDRB (or NDRB president) of the issues raised by the majority or the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The addendum of the SRA.</I> The decision of the SRA shall be in writing and shall be appended as an addendum to the decisional document under the guidance in this subsection.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The SRA's decision.</I> The addendum shall set forth the SRA's decision whether there will be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both); if the SRA concludes that a change is warranted, the particular change to be made shall be specified. If the SRA adopts the decision recommended by the NDRB or the NDRB president, the decisional document shall contain a reference to the matter adopted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discussion of issues.</I> In support of the SRA's decision, the addendum shall set forth the SRA's position on decisional issues, items submitted as issues by an applicant and issues raised by the NDRB and the NDRB president in accordance with the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adoption of the NDRB president's recommendation.</I> The addendum may state that the SRA has adopted the NDRB president's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adoption of the NDRB's proposed decisional document.</I> The addendum may state that the SRA has adopted the proposed decisional document prepared by the NDRB.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adoption of specific statements from the majority or the NDRB president.</I> If the SRA adopts the views of the NDRB or the NDRB president only in part, the addendum shall cite the specific statements adopted. If the SRA modifies a statement submitted by the NDRB or the NDRB president, the addendum shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Response to issues not included in matter adopted from the NDRB or the NDRB president.</I> The addendum shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the NDRB or the NDRB president:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of the issues on which the SRA's decision is based. Each such decisional document issue shall be addressed by the SRA. This includes reasons for rejecting the conclusion of the NDRB or the NDRB president with respect to decisional issues which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in a change to the discharge more favorable to the applicant than that afforded by the SRA's decision. Such issues shall be addressed under the principles in § 724.806(f).
</P>
<P>(B) The SRA's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to the rebuttal.</I> (i) If the SRA grants the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted, the decisional issues shall be addressed and no further response to the rebuttal is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the SRA does not grant the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), the addendum shall list each issue in rebuttal submitted by an applicant in accordance with this section, and shall set forth the response of the SRA under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(A) If the SRA rejects an issue in rebuttal, the SRA may respond in accordance with the principals in § 724.806.
</P>
<P>(B) If the matter adopted by the SRA provides a basis for the SRA's rejection of the rebuttal material, the SRA may note that fact and cite the specific matter adopted that responds to the issue in rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(C) If the matter submitted by the applicant does not meet the requirements for rebuttal material, that fact shall be noted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Index entries.</I> Appropriate index entries shall be prepared for the SRA's actions for matters that are not adopted from the NDRB's proposed decisional document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.815" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.8.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.815   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint is any correspondence in which it is alleged that a decisional document issued by the NDRB or the SRA contains a specifically indentified violation of 32 CFR part 70 or any references thereto. Complaints will be reviewed pursuant to 32 CFR part 70.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Standards for Discharge Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.901" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.901   Objective of discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>The objective of a discharge review is ot examine the propriety and equity of the applicant's discharge and to effect changes, if necessary. The standards of the review and the underlying factors which aid in determining whether the standards are met shall be consistent with historical criteria for determining honorable service. No factors shall be established that require automatic change or denial of a change in a discharge. Neither the NDRB nor the Secretary of the Navy shall be bound by any methodology of weighting of the factors in reaching a determination. In each case, the NDRB shall give full, fair, and impartial consideration to all applicable factors before reaching a decision. An applicant may not receive a less favorable discharge than that issued at the time of separation. This does not preclude correction of clerical errors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.902" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.902   Propriety of the discharge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A discharge shall be deemed to be proper unless, in the course of discharge review, it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(1) There exists an error of fact, law, procedure, or discretion associated with the discharge at the time of issuance; and that the rights of the applicant were prejudiced thereby (such error shall constitute prejudicial error if there is substantial doubt that the discharge would have remained the same if the error had not been made); or
</P>
<P>(2) A change in policy by the military service of which the applicant was a member, made expressly retroactive to the type of discharge under consideration, requires a change in the discharge.
</P>
<P>(b) When a record associated with the discharge at the time of issuance involves a matter in which the primary responsibility for corrective action rests with another organization (for example, another Board, agency, or court) the NDRB will recognize an error only to the extent that the error has been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for correcting the record.
</P>
<P>(c) The primary function of the NDRB is to exercise its discretion on issues of equity by reviewing the individual merits of each application on a case-by-case basis. Prior decisions in which the NDRB exercised its discretion to change a discharge based on issues of equity (including the factors cited in such decisions or the weight given to factors in such decisions) do not bind the NDRB in its review of subsequent cases because no two cases present the same issues of equity.
</P>
<P>(d) The following applies to applicants who received less than fully honorable administrative discharges because of their civilian misconduct while in an inactive duty status in a reserve component and who were discharged or had their discharge reviewed on or after April 20, 1971: the NDRB shall either recharacterize the discharge to Honorable without any additional proceedings or additional proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Court's Order of December 3, 1981, in <I>Wood</I> v. <I>Secretary of Defense</I> to determine whether proper grounds exist for the issuance of a less than honorable discharge, taking into account that:
</P>
<P>(1) An other than honorable (formerly undesirable) discharge for an inactive duty reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have affected directly the performance of military duties;
</P>
<P>(2) A general discharge for an inactive duty reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have had an adverse impact on the overall effectiveness of the military, including military morale and efficiency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.903" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.903   Equity of the discharge.</HEAD>
<P>A discharge shall be deemed to be equitable unless:
</P>
<P>(a) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that the policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Current policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded a respondent in such proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is substantial doubt that the applicant would have received the same discharge, if relevant current policies and procedures had been available to the applicant at the time of the discharge proceedings under consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) At the time of issuance, the discharge was inconsistent with standards of discipline in the military service of which the applicant was a member.
</P>
<P>(c) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that relief is warranted based upon consideration of the applicant's service record and other evidence presented to the NDRB viewed in conjunction with the factors listed in this paragraph and the regulations under which the applicant was discharged, even though the discharge was determined to have been otherwise equitable and proper at the time of issuance. Areas of consideration include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Quality of service, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Service history, including date of enlistment, period of enlistment, highest rank achieved, conduct and proficiency ratings (numerical and narrative);
</P>
<P>(ii) Awards and decorations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Letters of commendation or reprimand;
</P>
<P>(iv) Combat service;
</P>
<P>(v) Wounds received in action;
</P>
<P>(vi) Records of promotions and demotions;
</P>
<P>(vii) Level of responsibility at which the applicant served;
</P>
<P>(viii) Other acts of merit that may not have resulted in formal recognition through an award or commendation;
</P>
<P>(ix) Length of service during the service period which is the subject of the discharge review;
</P>
<P>(x) Prior military service and type of discharge received or outstanding post service conduct to the extent that such matters provide a basis for a more thorough understanding of the performance of the applicant during the period of service which is the subject of the discharge review;
</P>
<P>(xi) Convictions by court-martial;
</P>
<P>(xii) Records of nonjudicial punishment;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Convictions by civil authorities while a member of the service, reflected in the discharge proceedings or otherwise noted in the service records;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Records of periods of unauthorized absence;
</P>
<P>(xv) Records relating to a discharge in lieu of court-martial.
</P>
<P>(2) Capability to serve, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Total capabilities.</I> This includes an evaluation of matters such as age, educational level, and aptitude scores. Consideration may also be given as to whether the individual met normal military standards of acceptability for military service and similar indicators of an individual's ability to serve satisfactorily, as well as ability to adjust to military service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Family and personal problems.</I> This includes matters in extenuation or mitigation of the reason for discharge that may have affected the applicant's ability to serve satisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Arbitrary or capricious actions.</I> This includes actions by individuals in authority which constiute a clear abuse of such authority and that, although not amounting to prejudicial error, may have contributed to the decision to discharge the individual or unduly influence the characterization of service.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Discrimination.</I> This includes unauthorized acts as documented by records or other evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.4.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 724—Policy Statement by the Secretary of Defense—Addressing Certain Categories of Discharges
</HEAD>
<P>Secretary of Defense memorandum of August 13, 1971, to the Secretaries of the Military Departments, The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff; Subject: Review of Discharges Under Other Than Honorable Conditions Issued to Drug Users:
</P>
<P>“Consistent with Department of Defense Directive 1300.11, October 23, 1970, and my memorandum of July 7, 1971, concerning rehabilitation and treatment of drug users, administrative discharges under other than honorable conditions issued solely on the basis of personal use of drugs or possession of drugs for the purpose of such use will be reviewed for recharacterization.
</P>
<P>“Accordingly, each Secretary of a Military Department, acting through his/her Discharge Review Board, will consider applications for such review from former service members. Each Secretary is authorized to issue a discharge under honorable conditions upon establishment of facts consistent with this policy. Former service members will be notified of the results of the review. The Veterans' Administration will also be notified of the names of former service members whose discharges are recharacterized.
</P>
<P>“The statute of limitations for review of discharges within the scope of this policy will be in accordance with 10 United States Code 1553.
</P>
<P>“This policy shall apply to those service members whose cases are finalized or in process on or before July 7, 1971”.
</P>
<P>Secretary of Defense memorandum of April 28, 1972, to Secretaries of the Military Departments, Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff; Subject: Review of Punitive Discharges Issued to Drug Users:
</P>
<P>“Reference is made to Secretary Packard's memorandum of July 7, 1971, concerning rehabilitation and treatment of drug users, and my memorandum of August 13, 1971, subject: ‘Review of Discharges Under Other Than Honorable Conditions Issued to Drug Users.’
</P>
<P>“My August 13, 1971 memorandum established the current Departmental policy that administrative discharges under other than honorable conditions issued solely on the basis of personal use of drugs or possession of drugs for the purpose of such use will be reviewed for recharacterization to under honorable conditions.
</P>
<P>“It is my desire that this policy be expanded to include punitive discharges and dismissals resulting from approved sentences of courts-martial issed solely for conviction of personal use of drugs or possession of drugs for the purpose of such use.
</P>
<P>“Review and recharacterization are to be effected, upon the application of former service members, utilizing the procedures and authority set forth in Title 10, United States Code, sections 874(b), 1552 and 1553.
</P>
<P>“This policy is applicable only to discharges which have been executed on or before July 7, 1971, or issued as a result of a case in process on or before July 7, 1971.
</P>
<P>“Former service members requesting a review will be notified of the results of the review. The Veterans' Administration will also be notified of the names of former service members whose discharges are recharacterized.”


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.4.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 724—Oath or Affirmation To Be Administered To Discharge Review Board Members
</HEAD>
<P>Prior to undertaking duties as a Board member, each person assigned to such duties in the precept of the Board shall execute the following oath or affirmation which shall continue in effect throughout service with the Board.
</P>
<HD2>Oath/Affirmation
</HD2>
<P>I, ______, do swear or affirm that I will faithfully and impartially perform all the duties incumbent upon me as a member of the Naval Discharge Review Board; that I will fully and objectively inquire into and examine all cases coming before me; that I will, without regard to the status of the individual in any case, render my individual judgment according to the facts, my conscience and the law and regulations applicable to review of naval discharges, so help me God.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.4.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 724—Samples of Formats Employed by the Naval Discharge Review Board
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Attachment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Title
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Letter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">En Block Notification of Decision to Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command (No Change).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">En Block Notification of Decision to Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command (Change).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">En Block Notification of Decision to Commandant, Marine Corps (No Change).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">En Block Notification of Decision to Commandant, Marine Corps (Change).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Forms appearing in appendix C are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.7.9.1.4.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 724—Veterans' Benefits
</HEAD>
<FP-1>91 Stat. 1106
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pub. L. 95-126, Oct. 8, 1977
</FP-1>
<FP-1>95th Congress
</FP-1>
<HD2>An Act
</HD2>
<P>To deny entitlement to veterans' benefits to certain persons who would otherwise become so entitled solely by virtue of the administrative upgrading under temporarily revised standards of other than honorable discharges from service during the Vietnam era; to require case-by-case review under uniform, historically consistent, generally appli cable standards and procedures prior to the award of veterans' benefits to persons administratively discharged under other than honorable conditions from active military, naval, or air service; and for other purposes.
</P>
<P>Be it enacted by the Senate and the House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, That (a) section 3103 of Title 38, United States Code, is amended by—
</P>
<P>(1) Inserting “or on the basis of an absence without authority from active duty for a continuous period of at least one hundred and eighty days if such person was discharged under conditions other than honorable unless such person demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Administrator that there are compelling circumstances to warrant such prolonged unauthorized absence.” after “deserter,” in subsection (a), and by inserting a coma and “notwithstanding any action subsequent to the date of such discharge by a board established pursuant to section 1553 of title 10” before the period at the end of such subsection; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adding at the end of such section the following new subsection:
</P>
<P>“(e)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, (A) no benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration shall be provided, as a result of a change in or new issuance of a discharge under section 1553 of title 10, except upon a case-by-case review by the board of review concerned, subject to review by the Secretary concerned, under such section, of all the evidence and factors in each case under published uniform standard (which shall be historically consistent with criteria for determining honorable service and shall not include any criterion for automatically granting or denying such change or issuance) and procedures generally applicable to all persons administratively discharged or released from active military, naval, or air service under other than honorable conditions: and (B) any such person shall be afforded an opportunity to apply for such review under such section 1553 for a period of time terminating not less than one year after the date on which such uniform standards and procedures are promulgated and published.
</P>
<P>“(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law—
</P>
<P>“(A) No person discharged or released from active military, naval, or air service under other than honorable conditions who has been awarded a general or honorable discharge under revised standards for the review of discharges, (i) as implemented by the President's directive of January 19, 1977, initiating further action with respect to the President's Proclamation 4313 of September 16, 1974, (ii) as implemented on or after April 5, 1977, under the Department of Defense's special discharge review program, or (iii) as implemented subsequent to April 5, 1977, and not made applicable to all persons administratively discharged or released from active military, naval, or air service under other than honorable conditions, shall be entitled to benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration except upon a determination, based on a case-by-case review, under standards (meeting the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection) applied by the board of review concerned under section 1553 of title 10, subject to review by the Secretary concerned, that such person would be awarded an upgraded discharged under such standards;
</P>
<P>“(B) Such determination shall be made by such board, (i) on an expedited basis after notification by the Veterans' Administration to the Secretary concerned that such person has received, is in receipt of, or has applied for such benefits or after a written request is made by such person or such determination, (ii) on its own initiative within one year after the date of enactment of this paragraph in any case where a general or honorable discharge has been awarded on or prior to the date of enactment of this paragraph under revised standards referred to in clause (A) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph, or (iii) on its own initiative at the time a general or honorable discharge is so awarded in any case where a general or honorable discharge is awarded after such enactment date.
</P>
<P>“If such board makes a preliminary determination that such person would not have been awarded an upgraded discharge under standards meeting the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection, such personal shall be entitled to an appearance before the board, as provided for in section 1553(c) of title 10, prior to a final determination on such question and shall be given written notice by the board of such preliminary determination and of his or her right to such appearance. The Administrator shall, as soon as administratively feasible, notify the appropriate board of review of the receipt of benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration, or the application for such benefits, by any person awarded an upgraded discharge under revised standards referred to in clause (A) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph with respect to whom a favorable determination has not been made under this paragraph.”.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Secretary of Defense shall fully inform each person awarded a general or honorable discharge under revised standards for the review of discharges referred to in section 3103(e)(2)(A) (i), (ii), or (iii) of title 38, United States Code, as added by subsection (a)(2) of this section of his or her right to obtain an expedited determination under section 3103(e)(2)(B)(i) of such title and of the implications of the provisions of this Act for each such person.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary of Defense shall inform each person who applies to a board of review under section 1553 of title 10, United States Code, and who appears to have been discharged under circumstances which might constitute a bar to benefits under section 3103(a), of title 38, United States Code, (A) that such person might possibly be administratively found to be entitled to benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration only through the action of a board for the correction of military records under section 1552 of such title 10 or the action of the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs under section 3103 of such title 38, and (B) of the procedures for making application to such section 1552 board for such purpose and to the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs for such purpose (including the right to proceed concurrently under such sections 3103, 1552 and 1553).
</P>
<P>Section 2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs shall provide the type of health care and related benefits authorized to be provided under chapter 17 of title 38, United States Code, for any disability incurred or aggravated during active military, naval, or air service in line of duty by a person other than a person barred from receiving benefits by section 3103(a) of such title, but shall not provide such health care and related benefits pursuant to this section for any disability incurred or aggravated during a period of service from which such person was discharged by reason of a bad conduct discharge.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Paragraph (18) of section 101 of Title 38, United States Code, is amended to read as follows:
</P>
<P>“(18) The term ‘discharge or release’ includes, (A) retirement from the active military, naval, or air service, and (B) the satisfactory completion of the period of active military, naval, or air service for which a person was obligated at the time of entry into such service in the case of a person who, due to enlistment or reenlistment, was not awarded a discharge or release from such period of service at the time of such completion thereof and who, at such time, would otherwise have been eligible for the award of a discharge or release under conditions other than dishonorable.”
</P>
<P>Section 4. In promulgating, or making any revisions of or amendments to, regulations governing the standards and procedures by which the Veterans' Administration determines whether a person was discharged or released from active military, naval, or air service under conditions other than dishonorable, the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs shall, in keeping with the spirit and intent of this Act, not promulgate any such regulations or revise or amend any such regulations for the purpose of, or having the effect of, (1) providing any unique or special advantage to veterans awarded general or honorable discharges under revised standards for the review of discharges described in section 3103(e)(2)(A) (i), (ii), or (iii) of title 38, United States Code, as added by section 1(a)(2) of this Act, or (2) otherwise making any special distinction between such veterans and other veterans.
</P>
<P>Section 5. This Act shall become effective on the date of its enactment, except that—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 2 shall become effective on October 1, 1977, or on such enactment date, whichever is later; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amendments made by section 1(a) shall apply retroactively to deny benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration, except that, notwithstanding any other provision of law.
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to any person who, on such enactment date is receiving benefits under laws administered by the Veterans' Administration, (i) such benefits shall not be terminated under paragraph (2) of section 3103(e) of title 38, United States Code, as added by section 1(a)(2) of this Act, until, (I) the day on which a final determination not favorable to the person concerned is made on an expedited basis under paragraph (2) of such section 3103(e), (II) the day following the expiration of ninety days after a preliminary determination not favorable to such person is made under such paragraph, or (III) the day following the expiration of one hundred and eighty days after such enactment date, whichever day is the earliest, and (ii) the United States shall not make any claim to recover the value of any benefits provided to such person prior to such earliest day;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to any person awarded a general or honorable discharge under revised standards for the review of discharges referred to in clause (A) (i), (ii), or (iii) of such paragraph who has been provided any such benefits prior to such enactment date, the United States shall not make any claim to recover the value of any benefits so provided; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amendments made by clause (1) of section 1(a) shall apply, (i) retroactively only to persons awarded general or honorable discharges under such revised standards and to persons who, prior to the date of enactment of this Act, had not attained general eligibility to such benefits by virtue of (I) a change in or new issuance of a discharge under section 1553 of title 10, United States Code, or (II) any other provision of law, and (ii) prospectively (on and after such enactment date) to all other persons.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="725" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 725—RELEASE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION FOR LITIGATION PURPOSES AND TESTIMONY BY DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY PERSONNEL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 113, 5013; 31 U.S.C. 9701 and 32 CFR part 97.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 2463, Jan. 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 725.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This instruction implements 32 CFR part 97 regarding the release of official Department of the Navy (DON) information and provision of testimony by DON personnel for litigation purposes, and prescribes conduct of DON personnel in response to a litigation request or demand. It restates the information contained in Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5820.8A of 27 August 1991 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>, and is intended to conform in all respects with the requirements of that instruction.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained, if needed, from the Naval Publications and Forms Directorate, Attn: Code 301, 5801 Tabor Avenue, Philadelphia, PA 19120-5099.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is DON policy that official factual information, both testimonial and documentary, should be made reasonably available for use in Federal courts, state courts, foreign courts, and other governmental proceedings unless that information is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) DON personnel, as defined in § 725.4(b), however, shall not provide such official information, testimony, or documents, submit to interview, or permit a view or visit, without the authorization required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) DON personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official DON or Department of Defense (DOD) information, subjects, personnel, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the Department of Justice, or with the written special authorization required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 725.2(b) and (c) constitute a regulatory general order, applicable to all DON personnel individually, and need no further implementation. A violation of those provisions is punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice for military personnel and is the basis for appropriate administrative procedures with respect to civilian employees. Moreover, violations of this instruction by DON personnel may, under certain circumstances, be actionable under 18 U.S.C. 207.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a showing by a requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances, and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the DON, DOD, or the United States, the General Counsel of the Navy, the Judge Advocate General of the Navy, or their respective delegates may, in their sole discretion, and pursuant to the guidance contained in this instruction, grant such written special authorization for DON personnel to appear and testify as expert or opinion witnesses at no expense to the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.3   Authority to act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel of the Navy, the Judge Advocate General of the Navy, and their respective delegates [hereafter “determining authorities” described in § 725.4(a), shall respond to litigation requests or demands for official DOD information or testimony by DON personnel as witnesses.
</P>
<P>(b) If required by the scope of their respective delegations, determining authorities' responses may include: consultation and coordination with the Department of Justice or the appropriate United States Attorney as required; referral of matters proprietary to another DOD component to that component; determination whether official information originated by the Navy may be released in litigation; and determination whether DOD personnel assigned to or affiliated with the Navy may be interviewed, contacted, or used as witnesses concerning official DOD information or as expert or opinion witnesses. Following coordination with the appropriate commander, a response may further include whether installations, facilities, ships, or aircraft may be visited or inspected; what, if any, conditions will be imposed upon any release, interview, contact, testimony, visit, or inspection; what, if any, fees shall be charged or waived for access under the fee assessment considerations set forth in § 725.11; and what, if any, claims of privilege, pursuant to this instruction, may be invoked before any tribunal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining authority.</I> The cognizant DON or DOD official designated to grant or deny a litigation request. In all cases in which the United States is, or might reasonably become, a party, or in which expert testimony is requested, the Judge Advocate General or the General Counsel of the Navy, depending on the subject matter of the request, will act as determining authority. In all other cases, the responsibility to act as determining authority has been delegated to all officers exercising general court-martial convening authority, or to their subordinate commands, and to other commands and activities indicated in § 725.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DON personnel.</I> Active duty and former military personnel of the naval service including retirees; personnel of other DOD components serving with a DON component; Naval Academy midshipmen; present and former civilian employees of the DON including non-appropriated fund activity employees; non-U.S. nationals performing services overseas for the DON under provisions of status of forces agreements; and other specific individuals or entities hired through contractual agreements by or on behalf of DON, or performing services under such agreements for DON (e.g., consultants, contractors and their employees and personnel).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factual and expert or opinion testimony.</I> DON policy favors disclosure of factual information if disclosure does not violate the criteria stated in § 725.8. The distinction between factual matters, and expert or opinion matters (where DON policy favors non-disclosure), is not always clear. The considerations set forth below pertain.
</P>
<P>(1) Naval personnel may merely be percipient witnesses to an incident, in which event their testimony would be purely factual. On the other hand, they may be involved with the matter only through an after-the-event investigation (e.g., JAGMAN investigation). Describing the manner in which they conducted their investigation and asking them to identify factual conclusions in their report would likewise constitute factual matters to which they might testify. In contrast, asking them to adopt or reaffirm their findings of fact, opinions, and recommendations, or asking them to form or express any other opinion—particularly one based upon matters submitted by counsel or going to the ultimate issue of causation or liability—would clearly constitute precluded testimony under the above policy.
</P>
<P>(2) Naval personnel, by virtue of their training, often form opinions because they are required to do so in the course of their duties. If their opinions are formed prior to, or contemporaneously with, the matter in issue, and are routinely required of them in the course of the proper performance of their professional duties, they constitute essentially factual matters (<I>i.e.</I>, the opinion they previously held). Opinions formed after the event in question, including responses to hypothetical questions, generally constitute the sort of opinion or expert testimony which this instruction is intended to severely restrict.
</P>
<P>(3) Characterization of expected testimony by a requester as fact, opinion, or expert is not binding on the determining authority. When there is doubt as to whether or not expert or opinion (as opposed to factual) testimony is being sought, advice may be obtained informally from, or the request forwarded, to the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation) or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation) for resolution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation.</I> All pretrial, trial, and post-trial stages of all existing or reasonably anticipated judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before civilian courts, commissions, boards (including the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals), or other tribunals, foreign and domestic. This term includes responses to discovery requests, depositions, and other pretrial proceedings, as well as responses to formal or informal requests by attorneys or others in situations involving, or reasonably anticipated to involve, civil or criminal litigation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official information.</I> All information of any kind, however stored, in the custody and control of the DOD and its components including the DON; relating to information in the custody and control of DOD or its components; or acquired by DOD personnel or its component personnel as part of their official duties or because of their official status within DOD or its components, while such personnel were employed by or on behalf of the DOD or on active duty with the United States Armed Forces (determining whether “official information” is sought, as opposed to non-DOD information, rests with the determining authority identified in § 725.6, rather than the requester).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request or demand (legal process).</I> Subpoena, order, or other request by a federal, state, or foreign court of competent jurisdiction, by any administrative agency thereof, or by any party or other person (subject to the exceptions stated in § 725.5) for production, disclosure, or release of official DOD information or for appearance, deposition, or testimony of DON personnel as witnesses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.5   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This instruction applies to all present and former civilian and military personnel of the DON whether employed by, or assigned to, DON temporarily or permanently. Affected personnel are defined more fully in § 725.4(b).
</P>
<P>(b) This instruction applies only to situations involving existing or reasonably anticipated litigation, as defined in § 725.4(d), when DOD information or witnesses are sought, whether or not the United States, the DOD, or its components are parties thereto. It does not apply to formal or informal requests for information in other situations.
</P>
<P>(c) This instruction provides guidance only for DON operation and activities of its present and former personnel in responding to litigation requests. It is not intended to, does not, and may not be relied upon to, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or equity against the United States, DOD, or DON.
</P>
<P>(d) This instruction is not intended to infringe upon or displace the responsibilities committed to the Department of Justice in conducting litigation on behalf of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) This instruction does not supersede or modify existing laws, DOD or DON regulations, directives, or instructions governing testimony of DON personnel or release of official DOD or DON information during grand jury proceedings.
</P>
<P>(f) This instruction does not control release of official information in response to requests unrelated to litigation or under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a. This instruction does not preclude treating any written request for DON records as a request under the FOIA or Privacy Acts. Activities are encouraged to treat such requests for documents under the FOIA or the Privacy Act if they are invoked by the requestor either explicitly or by fair implication. See 32 CFR 701.3(a), 701.10(a). Activities are reminded that such treatment does not absolve them of the responsibility to respond in a timely fashion to legal process. In any event, if the official information requested pertains to a litigation matter which the United States is a present or potential party, the release authority should notify the delegate of the General Counsel or the Judge Advocate General, under § 725.6.
</P>
<P>(g) This part does not apply to release of official information or testimony by DON personnel in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) Before courts-martial convened by any DOD component, or in administrative proceedings conducted by, or on behalf of, such component;
</P>
<P>(2) Under administrative proceedings conducted by, or on behalf of, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) or the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), the Federal Labor Relations Authority, the Federal Services Impasse Panel, or under a negotiated grievance procedure under a collective bargaining agreement to which the Government is a party;
</P>
<P>(3) In response to requests by Federal Government counsel, or counsel representing the interests of the Federal Government, in litigation conducted, in whole or in part, on behalf of the United States (e.g., Medical Care Recovery Act claims, affirmative claims, or subpoenas issued by, or concurred in by, Government counsel when the United States is a party), but the regulation does apply to an action brought under the qui tam provisions of the False Claims Act in which a private party brings an action in the name of the United States but in which the Department of Justice either has not yet determined to intervene in the litigation or has declined to intervene;
</P>
<P>(4) As part of the assistance required by the Defense Industrial Personnel Security Clearance Review Program under DOD Directive 5220.6 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Release of copies of Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations, to the next of kin (or their representatives) of deceased or incompetent naval personnel;
</P>
<P>(6) Release of information by DON personnel to counsel retained on their behalf for purposes of litigation, unless that information is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from disclosure (in the latter event, compliance with 32 CFR part 97 and this part is required);
</P>
<P>(7) Cases involving garnishment orders for child support and/or alimony. The release of official information in these cases is governed by 5 CFR 581 and SECNAVINST 7200.16 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>, or;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) Release of information to Federal, state, and local prosecuting and law enforcement authorities, in conjunction with an investigation conducted by a DOD component or DON criminal investigative organization.
</P>
<P>(h) This part does not preclude official comment on matters in litigation in appropriate cases.
</P>
<P>(i) The DOD General Counsel may notify DOD components that DOD will assume primary responsibility for coordinating all litigation requests for demands for official DOD information or testimony of DOD personnel in litigation involving terrorism, espionage, nuclear weapons, and intelligence sources or means. Accordingly, determining officials who receive requests pertaining to such litigation shall notify the Associate General Counsel (Litigation) or the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (International Law or General Litigation) who shall consult and coordinate with DOD General Counsel prior to any response to such requests.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Relationship with Federal Rules of Procedure.</I> The requirements imposed by this instruction are intended, among other things, to provide adequate notice to DON regarding the scope of proposed discovery. This will assure that certain DON information, which properly should be withheld, is not inadvertently released in response to a litigation request or demand, including a subpoena or other request for discovery issued under Federal rules of procedure. When the United States is a party to Federal litigation and the party opponent uses discovery methods (e.g., request for interrogatories and admissions, depositions) set forth in Federal rules of procedure, the Judge Advocate General or General Counsel, in consultation with representatives of the Department of Justice or the cognizant United States Attorney, may determine whether the requirement for a separate written request in accordance with § 725.7 should be waived. Even if this requirement is waived, however, DON personnel who are subpoenaed to testify still will be required to obtain the written permission described in § 725.2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.6   Authority to determine and respond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Matters proprietary to DON.</I> If a litigation request or demand is made of DON personnel for official DON or DOD information or for testimony concerning such information, the individual to whom the request or demand is made will immediately notify the cognizant DON official designated in § 725.6(c) and (d), who will determine availability and respond to the request or demand.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Matters proprietary to another DOD component.</I> If a DON activity receives a litigation request or demand for official information originated by another DOD component or for non-DON personnel presently or formerly assigned to another DOD component, the DON activity will forward appropriate portions of the request or demand to the DOD component originating the information, to the components where the personnel are assigned, or to the components where the personnel were formerly assigned, for action under 32 CFR part 97. The forwarding DON activity will also notify the requester and court (if appropriate) or other authority of its transfer of the request or demand.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Litigation matters to which the United States is, or might reasonably become, a party.</I> Examples of such instances include suits under the Federal Tort Claims Act, Freedom of Information Act, Medical Care Recovery Act, Tucker Act, and suits against Government contractors where the contractor may interplead the United States or seek indemnification from the United States for any judgment paid, e.g., aviation contractors or asbestos matters. Generally, a suit in which the plaintiff is representing the interests of the United States under the Medical Care Recovery Act is not a litigation matter to which the United States is, or might reasonably become, a party. Determining authorities, if in doubt whether the United States is likely to become a party to the litigation, should seek guidance from representatives of the Offices of the Judge Advocate General or General Counsel. The Judge Advocate General and the General Counsel have the authority to determine whether a litigation request should be forwarded to them, or retained by a determining authority, for resolution.
</P>
<P>(1) Litigation requests regarding matters assigned to the Judge Advocate General of the Navy under Navy Regulations, article 0331 (1990), shall be referred to the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General for General Litigation, Office of the Navy Judge Advocate General (Washington Navy Yard), 1322 Patterson Avenue, SE., Suite 3000, Washington, DC, 20374-5066, who will respond for the Judge Advocate General or transmit the request to the appropriate Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General for response.
</P>
<P>(2) Litigation requests regarding matters assigned to the General Counsel of the Navy under Navy Regs., art. 0327 (1990) 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>, shall be referred to the cognizant Command Counsel under, and subject to, limitations set forth in § 725.6(d)(2). That Command Counsel may either respond or refer the matter for action to another office. Requests involving asbestos litigation shall be referred to the Office of Counsel, Naval Sea Systems Command Headquarters, Personnel and Labor Law Section (Code 00LD), Washington, DC 20362-5101. Matters not clearly within the purview of a particular command counsel shall be referred to Associate General Counsel (Litigation), who may either respond or refer the matter for action to another office.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Matters involving the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals shall be forwarded to these respective counsel except where the determination may involve the assertion of the deliberative process privilege before that Board. In such an event, the matter shall be forwarded for determination to the Associate General Counsel (Litigation).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation matters in which the United States is not, and is reasonably not expected to become, a party</I>—(1) <I>Matters within the cognizance of the Judge Advocate General</I>—(i) <I>Fact witnesses.</I> Requests to interview, depose, or obtain testimony of any present or former DON personnel as defined in § 725.4(b) about purely factual matters shall be forwarded to the Navy or Marine Corps officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction (OEGCMJ) in whose chain of command the prospective witness or requested documents lie. That determining authority will respond for the Judge Advocate General under criteria set forth in § 725.8.
</P>
<P>(A) If the request pertains to personnel assigned to the Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, the Office of the Vice Chief of Naval Operations, or an Echelon 2 command located in the Washington, DC, area, it shall be forwarded to that office which will likewise respond for the Judge Advocate General under the criteria set forth in § 725.8.
</P>
<P>(B) If a request pertains to Marine Corps personnel assigned to Headquarters Battalion, Headquarters Marine Corps, or to other Marine Corps commands located in the Washington, DC, area, it shall be forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (JAR), Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps, Washington, DC 20380-0001, which will respond for the Judge Advocate General under criteria set forth in § 725.8.
</P>
<P>(C) Nothing here shall prevent a determining authority from referring requests or demands to another determining authority better suited under the circumstances to determine the matter and respond, but the requester shall be notified of the referral. Further, each determining authority specified in this paragraph may further delegate his or her decisional authority to a principal staff member, staff judge advocate, or legal advisor.
</P>
<P>(D) In the alternative, the requester may forward the request to the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation), who may refer the matter to another determining authority for response, and so notify the requester.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Visits and views.</I> A request to visit a DON activity, ship, or unit, or to inspect material or spaces located there will be forwarded to one of the authorities stated in § 725.6(d)(1)(i), who will respond on behalf of the Judge Advocate General. Action taken by that authority will be coordinated with the commanding officer of the activity, ship, or unit at issue, or with his or her staff judge advocate (if applicable). The military mission of the unit shall normally take precedence over any visit or view. The commanding officer may independently prescribe reasonable conditions as to time, place, and circumstances to protect against compromise of classified or privileged material, intrusion into restricted spaces, and unauthorized photography.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Documents.</I> 10 U.S.C. 7861 provides that the Secretary of the Navy has custody and charge of all DON books, records, and property. Under DOD Directive 5530.1, 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> the Secretary of the Navy's sole delegate for service of process is the General Counsel of the Navy. See CFR 257.5(c). All process for such documents shall be served upon the General Counsel at the Department of the Navy, Office of the General Counsel, Navy Litigation Office, 720 Kennon Street SE, Bldg 36 Room 233, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5013, 202-685-7039, who will refer the matter to the proper delegate for action.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) <I>Expert or opinion requests.</I> Any request for expert or opinion consultations, interviews, depositions, or testimony will be referred to the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation) who will respond for the Judge Advocate General, or transmit the request to the appropriate DAJAG for response. Matters not clearly within the purview of a particular Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General will be retained by the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation), who may either respond or refer the matter to another determining authority for response.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Matters within the cognizance of the General Counsel of the Navy</I>—(i) <I>Matters not involving issues of Navy policy.</I> Such matters shall be forwarded for determination to the respective counsel for Naval Sea Systems Command, Naval Air Systems Command, Naval Supply Systems Command, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, Space and Naval Warfare Command, Office of the Navy Comptroller, Commandant of the Marine Corps, Office of the Chief of Naval Research, Military Sealift Command, Office of Civilian Personnel Policy, or to the Assistant General Counsel (Acquisition), depending upon who has cognizance over the information or personnel at issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Matters involving issues of Navy policy.</I> Such matters shall be forwarded for determination to the General Counsel of the Navy via the Associate General Counsel (Litigation).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Matters involving asbestos litigation.</I> Such matters shall be forwarded to the Office of Counsel, Naval Sea Systems Command Headquarters, Personnel and Labor Law Section (Code 00LD), Washington, DC 20362-5101.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Matters not clearly within the cognizance of either the Judge Advocate General or the General Counsel.</I> Such matters may be sent to the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation) or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), who will, in consultation with the other, determine the appropriate authority to respond to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 2463, Jan. 22, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 20541, Apr. 16, 2004; 70 FR 12966, Mar. 17, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.7   Contents of a proper request or demand.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Routine requests.</I> If official information is sought, through testimony or otherwise, a detailed written request must be submitted to the appropriate determining authority far enough in advance to assure an informed and timely evaluation of the request, and prevention of adverse effects on the mission of the command or activity that must respond. The determining authority shall decide whether sufficient information has been provided by the requester. Absent independent information, the following data is necessary to assess a request.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification of parties, their counsel and the nature of the litigation.</I> (i) Caption of case, docket number, court.
</P>
<P>(ii) Name, address, and telephone number of all counsel.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date and time on which the documents, information, or testimony sought must be produced; the requested location for production; and, if applicable, the estimated length of time that attendance of the DON personnel will be required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification of information or documents requested.</I> (i) A description, in as much detail as possible, of the documents, information, or testimony sought, including the current military service, status (active, separated, retired), social security number, if known, of the subject of the requested pay, medical, or service records;
</P>
<P>(ii) The location of the records, including the name, address, and telephone number, if known, of the person from whom the documents, information, or testimony is sought; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of whether factual, opinion, or expert testimony is requested (see §§ 725.4(c) and 725.8(b)(3)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of why the information is needed.</I> (i) A brief summary of the facts of the case and the present posture of the case.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the relevance of the matters sought to the proceedings at issue.
</P>
<P>(iii) If expert or opinion testimony is sought, an explanation of why exceptional need or unique circumstances exist justifying such testimony, including why it is not reasonably available from any other source.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional considerations.</I> The circumstances surrounding the underlying litigation, including whether the United States is a party, and the nature and expense of the requests made by a party may require additional information before a determination can be made. Providing the following information or stipulations in the original request may expedite review and eliminate the need for additional correspondence with the determining authority.
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the requester's willingness to pay in advance all reasonable expenses and costs of searching for and producing documents, information, or personnel, including travel expenses and accommodations (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which deposition testimony is sought, a statement of whether attendance at trial or later deposition testimony is anticipated and requested. A single deposition normally should suffice;
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement to notify the determining authority at least 10 working days in advance of all interviews, depositions, or testimony. Additional time for notification may be required where the witness is a DON health care provider or where the witness is located overseas;
</P>
<P>(4) An agreement to conduct the deposition at the location of the witness, unless the witness and his or her commanding officer or cognizant superior, as applicable, stipulate otherwise;
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of former DON personnel, a brief description of the length and nature of their duties while in DON employment, and a statement of whether such duties involved, directly or indirectly, the information or matters as to which the person will testify;
</P>
<P>(6) An agreement to provide free of charge to any witness a signed copy of any written statement he or she may make, or, in the case of an oral deposition, a copy of that deposition transcript, if taken by a stenographer, or a video tape copy, if taken solely by video tape, if not prohibited by applicable rules of court;
</P>
<P>(7) An agreement that if the local rules of procedure controlling the litigation so provide, the witness will be given an opportunity to read, sign, and correct the deposition at no cost to the witness or the Government;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement of understanding that the United States reserves the right to have a representative present at any interview or deposition; and
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that counsel for other parties to the case will be provided with a copy of all correspondence originated by the determining authority so they may have the opportunity to submit any related litigation requests and participate in any discovery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to deficient requests.</I> A letter request that is deficient in providing necessary information may be returned to the requester by the determining authority with an explanation of the deficiencies and a statement that no further action will be taken until they are corrected. If a subpoena has been received for official information, counsel should promptly determine the appropriate action to take in response to the subpoena. See § 725.9(g).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency requests.</I> Written requests are generally required by 32 CFR part 97.
</P>
<P>(1) The determining authority, identified in § 725.6, has discretion to waive that requirement in the event of a bona fide emergency, under conditions set forth here, which were not anticipated in the course of proper pretrial planning and discovery. Oral requests and subsequent determinations should be reserved for instances where factual matters are sought, and compliance with the requirements of a proper written request would result in the effective denial of the request and cause an injustice in the outcome of the litigation for which the information is sought. No requester has a right to make an oral request and receive a determination. Whether to permit such an exceptional procedure is a decision within the sole discretion of the determining authority, unless overruled by the General Counsel or the Judge Advocate General, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) If the determining authority concludes that the request, or any portion of it, meets the emergency test, he or she will require the requester to agree to the conditions set forth in § 725.7(a). The determining authority will then orally advise the requester of the determination, and seek a written confirmation of the oral request. Thereafter, the determining authority will make a written record of the disposition of the oral request including the grant or denial, circumstances requiring the procedure, and conditions to which the requester agreed.
</P>
<P>(3) The emergency procedure should not be utilized where the requester refuses to agree to the appropriate conditions set forth in § 725.7(a) or indicates unwillingness to abide by the limits of the oral grant, partial grant, or denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.8   Considerations in determining to grant or deny a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General considerations.</I> In deciding whether to authorize release of official information, or the testimony of DON personnel concerning official information (hereafter referred to as “the disclosure” under a request conforming with the requirements of § 725.7, the determining authority shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The DON policy regarding disclosure in § 725.2;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the request or demand is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under applicable court rules;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether disclosure, including release in camera (<I>i.e.</I>, to the judge or court alone), is appropriate under procedural rules governing the case or matter in which the request or demand arose;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether disclosure would violate or conflict with a statute, executive order, regulation, directive, instruction, or notice;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether disclosure, in the absence of a court order or written consent, would violate 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether disclosure, including release in camera, is appropriate or necessary under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege (e.g., attorney-client, attorney work-product, or physician-patient in the case of civilian personnel);
</P>
<P>(7) Whether disclosure, except when in camera (<I>i.e.</I>, before the judge alone) and necessary to assert a claim of privilege, would reveal information properly classified under the DOD Information Security Program under DOD 5200.1-R 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>, withholding of unclassified technical data from public disclosure following OPNAVINST 5510.161; privileged Naval Aviation Safety Program information (OPNAVINST 3750.6Q (NOTAL)) 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>, or other matters exempt from unrestricted disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) Whether disclosure would unduly interfere with ongoing law enforcement proceedings, violate constitutional rights, reveal the identity of an intelligence source or source of confidential information, conflict with U.S. obligations under international agreement, or be otherwise inappropriate under the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether attendance of the requested witness at deposition or trial will unduly interfere with the military mission of the command; and
</P>
<P>(10) Whether, in a criminal case, requiring disclosure by a defendant of detailed information about the relevance of documents or testimony as a condition for release would conflict with the defendant's constitutional rights.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific considerations</I>—(1) <I>Documents, interviews, depositions, testimony, and views (where the United States is, or may become, a party).</I> All requests pertaining to such matters shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General or the General Counsel, as appropriate under § 725.6(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents (where the United States is not, and is reasonably not expected to become a party)</I>—(i) <I>Unclassified Navy and Marine Corps records.</I> Where parties or potential parties desire unclassified naval records in connection with a litigation matter, the subpoena duces tecum or court order will be served, under 32 CFR 257.5(c), upon the General Counsel of the Navy, along with a written request complying with § 725.7.
</P>
<P>(A) If the determining authority to whom the matter is referred determines to comply with the order or subpoena, compliance will be effected by transmitting certified copies of records to the clerk of the court from which process issued. If, because of an unusual circumstance, an original record must be produced by a naval custodian, it will not be removed from the custody of the person producing it, but copies may be placed in evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon written request of one or more parties in interest or their respective attorneys, records which would be produced in response to a court order signed by a judge as set forth above may be furnished without a court order, but only upon a request complying with § 725.7 and only when such records are not in a “system of records” as defined by the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a). In determining whether a record not contained in a “system of records” will be furnished in response to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request, SECNAVINST 5720.42E 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> controls.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Generally, a record in a Privacy Act “system of records” may not be released under a litigation request except with the written consent of the person to whom the record pertains or in response to a court order signed by a judge. See SECNAVINST 5211.5C 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> and 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a for further guidance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) Whenever compliance with a court order or subpoena duces tecum for production of DON records is denied for any reason, the subpoena or court order and complete copies of the requested records will be forwarded to the appropriate Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Litigation) or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation) for action, and the parties to the suit notified in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Classified Navy and Marine Corps records.</I> Any consideration of release of classified information for litigation purposes, within the scope of this instruction, must be coordinated within the Office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) per OPNAVINST 5510.1H. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Records in the custody of the National Personnel Records Center.</I> Court orders or subpoenas duces tecum demanding information from, or production of, service or medical records of former Navy and Marine Corps personnel in the custody of the National Personnel Records Center will be served upon the Director, National Personnel Records Center, 9700 Page Boulevard, St. Louis, MO 63132. If records responsive to the request are identified and maintained at the National Personnel Records Center, that Center shall make appropriate certified (authenticated) copies of the information requested. These copies will then be forwarded, along with the request, in the case of Navy personnel, to Chief, Bureau of Naval Personnel (Pers-06), Washington, DC 20370-5000, or his delegate, who will respond. In the case of Marine Corps personnel, the copies and request will be sent to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (MMRB-10), Quantico, VA 22134-0001, who will respond. Those requests that do not constitute legal demands will be refused by the Director, National Personnel Records Center, and written guidance provided to the requester.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Medical and other records of civilian employees.</I> Production of medical certificates or other medical reports concerning civilian employees is controlled by Federal Personnel Manual, chapter 294 and chapter 339.1-4. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> Records of civilian employees, other than medical records, may be produced upon receipt of a court order and a request complying with § 725.7, provided no classified or for official use only information, such as loyalty or security records, are involved. Disclosure of records relating to compensation benefits administered by the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs of the Department of Labor are governed by Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5211.5C (Privacy Act implementation) and Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5720.42E (Freedom of Information Act implementation), as appropriate. Where information is furnished per this subparagraph in response to a court order and proper request, certified copies rather than originals should be furnished. Where original records must be produced because of unusual circumstances, they may not be removed from the custody of the official producing them, but copies may be placed on the record.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) <I>JAGMAN investigations (other than to next of kin).</I> The Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General having cognizance over the records at issue for litigation or prospective litigation purposes may release the records if a complete release will result. The Assistant Judge Advocate General (Civil Law) will make determinations concerning the release of the records specified in this subparagraph if a release of less than the complete requested record will result. A release to next of kin of incompetent or deceased DON personnel or their representatives is exempt from these requirements and this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Affirmative claims files.</I> Affirmative claims files (including Medical Care Recovery Act files), except to the extent they contain copies of JAGMAN investigations prepared under the Manual of the Judge Advocate General, or classified or privileged information, may be released by the commanding officer of the Naval Legal Service Office having cognizance over the claim at issue, without compliance with this instruction, to: insurance companies to support claims; to civilian attorneys representing injured service persons, their dependents, and the Government's interests; and to other DOD components. When a request for production involves material related to claims in favor of the Government, either the cognizant Command Counsel or the Naval Legal Service Office having territorial responsibility for the area should be notified.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Accounting for disclosures from “systems of records.”</I> When compliance with a litigation request or demand for production of records is appropriate, or when release of records is otherwise authorized, and records contained in a “system of records,” are released, the releasing official will consult Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5211.5C regarding disclosure accounting requirements.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Pay records.</I> Official pay records of active-duty, reserve, retired, or former Navy members should be requested from Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), Cleveland Center, Anthony J. Celebrezze Federal Building, Cleveland, OH 44199-2055. Official pay records of active-duty, reserve, retired, or former Marines should be requested from Director, Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Kansas City Center (Code G), Kansas City, MO 64197-0001.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interviews, depositions, and testimony (where the United States is not, and is reasonably not expected to become, a party)</I>—(i) <I>Factual matters.</I> DON policy favors disclosure of factual matters when disclosure does not violate the criteria stated in this section. Distinguishing between factual matters and expert or opinion matters (where DON policy favors non-disclosure) requires careful analysis. Opinion matters are defined at § 725.4(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Expert, opinion, or policy matters.</I> Such matters are to be determined, under the delegation in § 725.6, by the cognizant Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General or by General Counsel. General considerations to identify expert or opinion testimony are in § 725.4(c). DON personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official information, subjects, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the Department of Justice. Upon a showing by the requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances, and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the DOD or the United States, the appropriate DON official designated in § 725.6, may grant, in writing, special authorization for DON personnel to appear and testify at no expense to the United States. In determining whether exceptional need or unique circumstances exist, the determining official should consider whether such expert or opinion testimony is available to the requester from any other source. The burden of demonstrating such unavailability, if any, is solely upon the requester.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Visits and views (where the United States is not, and is reasonably not expected to become, a party).</I> Such disclosures are normally factual in nature and should not be accompanied by interviews of personnel unless separately requested and granted. The authority of the commanding officer of the activity, ship, or unit at issue is not limited by this part. Accordingly, he or she may prescribe appropriate conditions as to time, place, and circumstances (including proper restrictions on photography).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Non-DOD information.</I> A request for disclosure under this part, particularly through the testimony of a witness, may involve both official information and non-DOD information (e.g., in the case of a person who has acquired additional and separate knowledge or expertise wholly apart from Government employment). Determining whether or not official information is at issue is within the purview of the determining authority, not the requester. A requester's contention that only non-DOD information is at issue is not dispositive. The requester must still comply with this instruction to support that contention. If non-DOD information is at issue in whole or in part, the determining authority shall so state in the written determination described in § 725.9. He or she shall make no other determination regarding that non-DOD information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.9   Action to grant or deny a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The process of determining whether to grant or deny a request is not an adversary proceeding. This part provides guidance for the operation of DON only and is not intended to, does not, and may not be relied upon to, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law against the United States, DOD, or DON.
</P>
<P>(b) 32 CFR part 97 and this part apply to testimony by former naval personnel and former civilian employees of DON. A proper request must be made, under § 725.7, to obtain testimony by former personnel regarding official DOD information. However, this part is not intended to place unreasonable restraints upon the post-employment conduct of such personnel. Accordingly, requests for expert or opinion testimony by such personnel will normally be granted unless that testimony would constitute a violation of the U.S. Code (e.g., 18 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>), conflict with pertinent regulations (e.g., Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5370.2H), or disclose properly classified or privileged information.
</P>
<P>(c) A determination to grant or deny should be made as expeditiously as possible to provide the requester and the court with the matter at issue or with a statement of the reasons for denial. The decisional period should not exceed 10 working days from receipt of a complete request complying with the requirements of § 725.7, absent exceptional or particularly difficult circumstances. The requester should also be informed promptly of the referral of any portion of the request to another authority for determination.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in § 725.7(d), a determination to grant or deny shall be in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) The determination letter should respond solely to the specific disclosures requested, stating a specific determination on each particular request. When a request is denied in whole or in part, a statement of the reasons for denial should be provided to fully inform a court of the reasons underlying the determination if it is challenged.
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of any denial, in whole or in part, of a request, should be forwarded to the cognizant Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation), as appropriate. Such notification is likewise appropriate when the litigation request has been treated under 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a and § 725.5(f). Telephonic notification is particularly appropriate where a judicial challenge or contempt action is anticipated.
</P>
<P>(g) In cases in which a subpoena has been received and the requester refuses to pay fees or otherwise comply with the guidance and requirements imposed by this part, or if the determining authority declines to make some or all of the subpoenaed information available, or if the determining authority has had insufficient time to complete its determination as to how to respond to the request, the determining authority must promptly notify the General Litigation Division of the Office of the Judge Advocate General or the Navy Litigation Office of the Office of the General Counsel, which offices will determine, in consultation with the Department of Justice, the appropriate response to be made to the tribunal which issued the subpoena. Because the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure require that some objections to subpoenas must be made either within 10 days of service of the subpoena or on or before the time for compliance, whichever first occurs, and because this will require consultation with the Department of Justice, timely notice is essential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.10   Response to requests or demands in conflict with this instruction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, DON personnel, including former military personnel and civilian employees, shall not produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning any official DOD information in response to a litigation request or demand without prior written approval of the appropriate DON official designated in § 725.6. If a request has been made, and granted, in whole or in part, per 32 CFR part 97 and this part, DON personnel may only produce, disclose, release, comment upon, or testify concerning those matters specified in the request and properly approved by the determining authority designated in § 725.6. See <I>United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).
</P>
<P>(b) If, after DON personnel have received a litigation request or demand and have in turn notified the appropriate determining authority described in § 725.6, a response to the request or demand is required before instructions from the responsible official have been received, the responsible authority designated in § 725.6 shall notify the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General or Associate General Counsel (Litigation) who has cognizance over the matter. That official will furnish the requester, the court, or other authority that the request or demand is being reviewed in accordance with this part and seek a stay of the request or demand pending a final determination.
</P>
<P>(c) If a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority declines to stay the effect of the request or demand in response to action taken under § 725.10(b), or if such court or other authority orders that the request or demand must be complied with, notwithstanding the final decision of the appropriate DON official, the DON personnel upon whom the request or demand was made will, if time permits, notify the determining authority of such ruling or order. That authority will notify the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General or the Associate General Counsel (Litigation) having cognizance over the matter. After due consultation and coordination with the Department of Justice, as required by the Manual of the Judge Advocate General, that official will determine whether the individual is required to comply with the request or demand and will notify the requester, the court, or other authority accordingly. The witness shall, if directed by the appropriate DON official, respectfully decline to comply with the demand. Legal counsel for the command concerned should accompany and advise DON personnel during any court proceedings involving the foregoing circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) It is expected that all DON actions in the foregoing paragraphs will be taken only after active consultation with the appropriate component of the Department of Justice. Generally, DON personnel will be instructed to decline to comply with a court order only if the Department of Justice commits to represent the DON personnel in question.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.8.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.11   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Except as provided below, determining authorities shall charge reasonable fees and expenses to parties seeking official DON information or testimony under this instruction. Pursuant to 32 CFR 288.4, 288.10, these fees should include all costs of processing a request for information, including time and material expended. Travel for active duty members summoned as witnesses is governed by Joint Travel Regulations, Vol. I, Chap. 7, pt. E. and Navy Travel Instructions, Chap. 6, pt. E. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Travel for civilian personnel summoned as witnesses is governed by the Joint Travel Regulations, Vol. II, Chap. 4, pt. E. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>When DON is a party.</I> No fees normally shall be charged when the DON is a party to the proceedings, and the activity holding the requested information or employing the witness shall bear the expense of complying with the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When another federal agency is a party.</I> No fees shall be charged to the requesting agency. Travel and per diem expenses may be paid by the requesting agency, or by the Navy activity to which the requested witness is assigned, subject to reimbursement from the requesting agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>When neither DON nor another federal agency is a party.</I> Fees shall be charged to the requester for time taken from official duties by DON personnel who are authorized to be interviewed, give testimony, or escort persons on views and visits of installations. At the discretion of the cognizant command, DON personnel need not be made available during duty hours unless directed by subpoena. Time which DON personnel spend in court testifying, or waiting to testify on factual matters shall not be charged. Fees should be charged, however, for expert or opinion testimony based upon the witness's education, training, or experience. Testimony by a treating physician called to testify about his personal knowledge of a specific case is considered fact not expert testimony. Fees are payable to the Treasurer of the United States for deposit in the Treasury's miscellaneous receipts. Rates for uniformed personnel are published in NAVCOMPT Notice 7041 series. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> Pursuant to 32 CFR 288.4, charges for civilian personnel should include the employee's hourly rate of pay, as well as allowances and benefits. Except as provided in § 725.11(b)(4), no funds may be expended for travel or per diem of active duty members when an agency of the Federal Government is not a party. The requesting party is responsible for travel arrangements and funding. Government funding of travel and per diem for civilian employees is authorized.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> See footnote 1 to § 725.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Special circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Refusal to pay fees.</I> In cases in which a subpoena has been received and the requester refuses to pay appropriate fees, it may become necessary to request the Department of Justice to take appropriate legal action before the court issuing the subpoena. Determining authorities should consult promptly with the OJAG General Litigation Division or the Navy Litigation Office of the General Counsel if this course of action appears necessary, because some objections to subpoenas must be made either within ten days of service of the subpoena or on or before the time for compliance, whichever first occurs, and because this will require timely consultation with the Department of Justice. If no subpoena has been issued, the determining authority must decide whether to deny the request or, if appropriate, waive the fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> The determining authority may waive or reduce fees pursuant to 32 CFR 288.4, 288.9, provided such waiver or reduction is in the best interest of the DON and the United States. Fee waivers and reductions shall not be routinely granted, or granted under circumstances which might create the appearance that DON favors one party over another.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Witness fees required by the court.</I> Witness fees required by the rules of the applicable court shall be paid directly to the witness by the requester. Such amounts are to defray the cost of travel and per diem. In a case where the Government has paid the cost of travel and per diem, the witness shall turn over to his or her supervisor any payment received from a private party to defray the cost of travel that, when added to amounts paid by the Government, exceed the actual cost of travel. The supervisor shall forward the amount turned over by the witness to the Office of the Comptroller of the Navy for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptional cases.</I> If neither the DON, nor an agency of the Federal Government is a party, appropriated funds may be used to pay, without reimbursement, travel and per diem of DON personnel who are witnesses in criminal or civil proceedings, provided, the case is directly related to the Armed Services, or its members, and the Armed Services have a genuine and compelling interest in the outcome.












</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="735" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 735—REPORTING BIRTHS AND DEATHS IN COOPERATION WITH OTHER AGENCIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>70A Stat. 278; 80 Stat. 379, 383; 5 U.S.C. 301, 552; and 10 U.S.C. 5031.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 15321, Apr. 23, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 735.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 735.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To promulgate latest guidance on reporting births and deaths, including births to which part 138 of this title is applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 735.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 735.2   Background.</HEAD>
<P>For Armed Forces members and their dependents on duty overseas, registration of vital statistics with an appropriate foreign government may be a distinct advantage should documentary evidence, acceptable in all courts, be required at any future time. Department of Defense (DOD) policy is that military services will require their members to make official record of births, deaths, marriages, etc., with local civil authorities in whose jurisdiction such events occur.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 735.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.3.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 735.3   Action.</HEAD>
<P>When a medical officer has knowledge of a birth or death occurring under the following conditions, he or she shall refer the matter to the commanding officer for assurance of compliance with DOD policy.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Births.</I> (1) In accordance with local health laws and regulations, the commanding officer of a naval hospital in the United States (U.S.) shall report to proper civil authorities all births, including stillbirths, occurring at the hospital. Medical officers on ships and aircraft operating within U.S. political boundaries, or at stations other than naval hospitals in the U.S., shall report all births occurring within their professional cognizance. It shall be the duty of the medical officer to determine the requirements of local civil authorities for these reports.
</P>
<P>(2) When births occur on aircraft or ships operating beyond U.S. political boundaries, the medical officer responsible for delivery shall make a report to the commanding officer, master of the ship, or to the officer in command of any aircraft, in every case to be recorded in the ship or aircraft log. A report shall also be made to local civil authorities in the first port of entry if required by law and regulation of such authorities when births occur on a course inbound to the U.S. Additionally, the medical officer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Furnish the parents with appropriate certificates and shall, if the report is not accepted by the local registrar of vital statistics or other civil authority, or in any case in which local authority has indicated in writing that such a report will not be accepted,
</P>
<P>(ii) Advise the parents to seek the advice of the nearest office of the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization Service (USINS), at the earliest practicable time. USINS offices are located in ports of entry and in major cities of the United States.
</P>
<P>(iii) For births occurring on courses out-bound and beyond the continental limits of the U.S., report to the U.S. consular representative at the next appropriate foreign port. When the aircraft or ship does not enter a foreign port, procedures described in § 735.3(a)(2)(ii) shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(3) Attention is invited to the fact that reports of birth may be forwarded to the Bureau of Health Statistics, Department of Health, Honolulu, Hawaii for any births occurring on courses destined for islands in the Pacific Ocean over which the United States has jurisdiction as well as for those births which are otherwise accepted by civil authorities for Hawaii.
</P>
<P>(4) Part 138 of this title prescribes policy, responsibilities, and procedures on birth registration of infants born to U.S. citizens, in military medical facilities outside the United States and its possessions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deaths.</I> When a death occurs at a naval activity in any State, Territory, or insular possession of the United States, the commanding officer or designated representative shall report the death promptly to proper civil authorities in accordance with Naval Medical Command directives. If requested by these civil authorities, the civil death certificate may be prepared and signed by the cognizant naval medical officer. Local agreements concerning reporting and preparation of death certificates should be made between the naval facility and local civil authorities.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—PROCUREMENT, PROPERTY, PATENTS, AND CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>For joint procurement regulations of the Armed Forces, see chapter I of this title.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV5 N="746" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 746—LICENSING OF GOVERNMENT INVENTIONS IN THE CUSTODY OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 5031; 40 U.S.C. 486(c); and 41 CFR 101-4.1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 55712, Dec. 22, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 746.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements Department of Defense Directive 5535.3 of November 2, 1973 and 41 CFR subpart 101-4.1, and sets forth the policy, terms, conditions, and procedures for the licensing of rights in domestic patents and patent applications vested in the United States of America and in the custody of the Department of the Navy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A major premise of the Presidential Statement fo Government Patent Policy, August 23, 1971 (36 FR 16887, August 26, 1971), is that government inventions normally will best serve the public interest when they are developed to the point of practical application and made available to the public in the shortest possible time. The granting of express nonexclusive or exclusive licenses for the practice of these inventions may assist in the accomplishment of the national objective to achieve a dynamic and efficient economy.
</P>
<P>(b) The granting of nonexclusive licenses generally is preferable, since the invention is thereby laid open to all interested parties and serves to promote competition in industry, if the invention is in fact promoted commercially. However, to obtain commercial utilization of the invention, it may be necessary to grant an exclusive license for a limited period of time as an incentive for the investment of risk capital to achieve practical application of an invention.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the grant of an exclusive license is deemed appropriate, it shall be negotiated on terms and conditions most favorable to the public interest. In selecting an exclusive licensee, consideration shall be given to the capabilities of the prospective licensee to further the technical and market development of the invention, his plan to undertake the development, the projected impact on competition, and the benefit to the Government and the public. Consideration shall be given also to assisting small business and minority business enterprises, as well as economically depressed, low income, and labor surplus areas, and whether each or any applicant is a United States citizen or corporation. Where there is more than one applicant for an exclusive license, that applicant shall be selected who is determined to be most capable of satisfying the criteria and achieving the goals set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to the following: (1) Any existing or future treaty or agreement between the United States and any foreign government or inter-governmental organization, or
</P>
<P>(2) Licenses under or other rights to inventions made or conceived in the course of or under Department of the Navy research and development contracts where such licenses or other rights to such inventions are provided for in the contract and retained by the party contracting with the Department of the Navy, no license shall be granted or implied in a government invention, except as provided for in this part.
</P>
<P>(e) No grant of a license under this part shall be construed to confer upon any licensee any immunity from the antitrust laws or from a charge of patent misuse, and the acquisition and use of rights pursuant to this part shall not be immunized from the operation of state or federal law by reason of the source of the grant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.3   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief of Naval Research is delegated the authority to administer the patent licensing program, with the authority to redelegate such authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government invention</I> means an invention covered by a domestic patent or patent application that is vested in the United States and in the custody of the Department of the Navy, and is designated by the Chief of Naval Research as appropriate for the grant of an express non-exclusive or exclusive license.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>To the point of practical application</I> means to manufacture in the case of a composition or product, to practice in the case of a process, or to operate in the case of a machine, under such conditions as to establish that the invention is being worked and that its benefits are reasonably accessible to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.5   Government inventions available for licensing.</HEAD>
<P>Government inventions normally will be made available for the granting of express nonexclusive or limited exclusive licenses to responsible applicants according to the factors and conditions set forth in §§ 746.6 and 746.7, subject to the applicable procedures of § 746.11. The Chief of Naval Research may remove a prior designation of availability for licensing of any patent(s) or patent application(s), provided that no outstanding licenses to that invention are in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.6   Nonexclusive license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability of licenses.</I> Each government invention normally shall be made available for the granting of nonexclusive revocable licenses, subject to the provisions of any other licenses, including those under § 746.8.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms of grant.</I> (1) The duration of the license shall be for a period as specified in the license agreement, provided that the licensee complies with all the terms of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) The license shall require the licensees to bring the invention to the point of practical application within a period specified in the license, or such extended period as may be agreed upon, and to contine to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) The license may be granted for all or less than all fields of use of the invention, and throughout the United States of America, its territories and possessions, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the District of Columbia, or in any lesser geographic portion thereof.
</P>
<P>(4) After termination of a period specified in the license agreement, the Chief of Naval Research may restrict the license to the fields of use and/or geographic areas in which the licensee has brought the invention to the point of practical application and continues to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(5) The license may extend to subsidiaries and affiliates of the licensee but shall be nonassignable without approval of the Chief of Naval Research, except to the successor of that part of the licensee's business to which the invention pertains.
</P>
<P>(6) The Government shall make no representation or warranty as to the validity of any licensed application(s) or patent(s), or of the scope of any of the claims contained therein, or that the exercise of the license will not result in the infringement of any other patent(s), nor shall the Government assume any liability whatsoever resulting from the exercise of the license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.7   Limited exclusive license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability of licenses.</I> Each government invention may be made available for the granting of a limited exclusive license, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The invention has been published as available for licensing pursuant to paragraph (a) of § 746.11 for a period of at least six months;
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief of Naval Research has determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) The invention may be brought to the point of practical application in certain fields of use and/or in certain geographical locations by exclusive licensing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The desired practical application has not been achieved under any nonexclusive license granted on the invention; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The desired practical application is not likely to be achieved expeditiously in the public interest under a nonexclusive license or as a result of further government-funded research or development;
</P>
<P>(3) The notice of the prospective licensee has been published, pursuant to paragraph (d) of § 746.11 for at least 60 days; and
</P>
<P>(4) After termination of the period set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of § 746.7 the Chief of Naval Research has determined that no applicant for a nonexclusive license has brought or will bring, within a reasonable period, the invention to the point of practical application, as specified in the exclusive license, and that to grant the exclusive license would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection of exclusive licensee.</I> An exclusive licensee will be selected on bases consistent with the policy set forth in § 746.2 and in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 746.11.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Terms of grant.</I> (1) The license may be granted for all or less than all fields of use of the government invention, and throughout the United States of America, its territories and possessions, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the District of Columbia, or in any lesser geographic portion thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the rights reserved to the Government in paragraphs (c)(6) and (c)(7) of § 746.7, the licensee shall be granted the exclusive right to practice the invention in accordance with the terms and conditions specified in the license.
</P>
<P>(3) The duration of the license shall be negotiated but shall be for a period less than the terminal portion of the patent, the period remaining being sufficient to make the invention reasonably available for the grant of a nonexclusive license; and such period of exclusivity shall not exceed 5 years unless the Chief of Naval Research determines, on the basis of a written submission supported by a factual showing, that a longer period is reasonably necessary to permit the licensee to enter the market and recoup his reasonable costs in so doing.
</P>
<P>(4) The license shall require the licensee to bring the invention to the point of practical application within a period specified in the license, or within a longer period as approved by the Chief of Naval Research, and to continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(5) The license shall require the licensee to expend a specified minimum amount of money and/or take other specified actions, within a specified period of time after the effective date of the license, in an effort to bring the invention to the point of practical application.
</P>
<P>(6) The license shall be subject to the irrevocable, royalty-free right of the Government of the United States to practice and have practiced the invention throughout the world, by or on behalf of the Government of the United States, and by or on behalf of any foreign government or intergovernmental organization pursuant to any existing or future treaty or agreement with the United states. If the Chief of Naval Research finds it to be in the public interest, this license may also be expressly subject to this same royalty-free right by or on behalf of state and municipal governments.
</P>
<P>(7) The license shall reserve to the Chief of Naval Research the right to require the licensee to grant sublicenses to responsible applicants on terms that are reasonable in the circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent that the invention is required for public use by government regulations, or
</P>
<P>(ii) As may be necessary to fulfill health or safety needs, or
</P>
<P>(iii) For other public purposes stipulated in the license.
</P>
<P>(8) The license may extend to subsidiaries and affiliates of the licensee but shall be nonassignable without approval of the Chief of Naval Research, except to successors of that part of the licensee's business to which the invention pertains.
</P>
<P>(9) An exclusive licensee may grant sublicenses under his license, subject to the approval of the Chief of Naval Research. Each sublicense granted by an exclusive licensee shall make reference to the exclusive license, including the rights retained by the Government under the exclusive license, and a copy of such sublicense shall be furnished to the Chief of Naval Research.
</P>
<P>(10) The license may be subject to such other terms as may be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(11) The Government shall make no representation or warranty as to validity of any licensed application(s) or patent(s), or of the scope of any of the claims contained therein, or that the exercise of the license will not result in the infringement of any other patent(s), nor shall the Government assume any liability whatsoever resulting from the exercise of the license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.8   Additional licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to any outstanding licenses, nothing in this part shall preclude the Chief of Naval Research from granting additional nonexclusive or limited exclusive licenses for government inventions when he determines that to do so would provide for an equitable exchange of patent rights. The following exemplify circumstances wherein such licenses may be granted:
</P>
<P>(a) In consideration of the settlement of an interference;
</P>
<P>(b) In consideration of a release of a claim of infringement; or
</P>
<P>(c) In exchange for, or as part of, the consideration for a license under adversely held patents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.9   Royalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonexclusive license.</I> Normally, royalties shall not be changed under nonexclusive licenses granted to United States citizens and United States corporations on government inventions; however, the Chief of Naval Research may require other consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limited exclusive license.</I> A limited exclusive license on a government invention shall contain a royalty provision and/or other consideration flowing to the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.10   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>A license shall require the licensee to submit periodic reports on his efforts to achieve practical application of the invention. The reports shall contain information within his knowledge, or which he may acquire under normal business practices, pertaining to the commercial use being made of the invention, and other information which the Chief of Naval Research may determine is pertinent to its licensing activities and is specified in the license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.11   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication requirements.</I> The Chief of Naval Research shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the Official Gazette of the United States Patent and Trademark Office, and at least one other publication that the Chief of Naval Research deems would best serve the public interest, a list of the government inventions available for licensing under the conditions specified in this part. The list shall be revised periodically to include directly, or by reference to a previously published list, all inventions currently available for licensing. Other publications on inventions available for licensing are encouraged, and may include abstracts, when appropriate, as well as information on the design, construction, use, and potential market for the inventions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a nonexclusive license application.</I> An application for a nonexclusive license under a government invention should be addressed to the Chief of Naval Research (Code 300), Arlington, VA 22217, and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the invention for which the license is desired, including the patent application serial number or patent number, title, and date, if known, and any other identification of the invention;
</P>
<P>(2) Name and address of the person, company, or organization applying for the license, and whether the applicant is a United States citizen or a United States corporation;
</P>
<P>(3) Name and address of the representative of applicant to whom correspondence should be sent;
</P>
<P>(4) Nature and type of applicant's business;
</P>
<P>(5) Source of information concerning the availability of a license on this invention;
</P>
<P>(6) Purpose for which the license is desired and a brief description of applicant's plan to achieve that purpose;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the fields of use for which applicant intends to practice the invention; and
</P>
<P>(8) A statement as to the geographic areas in which the applicant would practice the invention.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of an exclusive license application.</I> An application for an exclusive license should be addressed to the Chief of Naval Research (Code 300), Arlington, VA 22217, and, in addition to the information indicated in paragraph (b) of § 746.11, an application for an exclusive license shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Applicant's status, if any, in any one or more of the following categor- ies:
</P>
<P>(i) Small business firm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minority business enterprise;
</P>
<P>(iii) Location in a surplus labor area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Location in a low-income area; and
</P>
<P>(v) Location in an economically depressed area;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of applicant's capability to undertake the development and marketing required to achieve the practical application of the invention;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement describing the time, expenditure, and other acts which the applicant considers necessary to achieve practical application of the invention and the applicant's offer to invest that sum to perform such acts if the license is granted;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that contains the applicant's best knowledge of the extent to which the government invention is being practiced by private industry and the Government;
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of other exclusive licenses granted to applicant under inventions in the custody of other government agencies; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other facts which the applicant believes are evidence that it is in the public interest for the Chief of Naval Research to grant an exclusive license rather than a nonexclusive license, and that such exclusive license should be granted to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Published notices.</I> (1) A notice that a prospective exclusive licensee has been selected shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a copy of the notice shall be sent to the Attorney General. The notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the invention;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the selected licensee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Duration and scope of the contemplated license; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement to the effect that the license will be granted unless:
</P>
<P>(A) An application for a nonexclusive license, submitted by a responsible applicant pursuant to paragraph (b) of § 746.11, is received by the Chief of Naval Research within 60 days from the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the Chief of Naval Research determines in accordance with his prescribed procedures, under which procedures the Chief of Naval Research shall record and make available for public inspection all decisions made pursuant thereto and the basis therefore, that the applicant has established that he has already achieved or is likely to bring the invention to the point of practical application withing a reasonable period under a nonexclusive license; or
</P>
<P>(B) The Chief of Naval Research determines that third party has presented evidence and argument which has established that it would not be in the public interest to grant the exclusive license.
</P>
<P>(2) If an exclusive license has been granted pursuant to this part, notice thereof shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the invention;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the licensee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Duration and scope of the license.
</P>
<P>(3) If an exclusive license has been modified or revoked pursuant to paragraph (e) § 746.11, notice thereof shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the invention;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the licensee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective date of the modification or revocation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Modification or revocation.</I> (1) Any license granted pursuant to this part may be modified or revoked by the Chief of Naval Research if the licensee at any time defaults in making any report required by the license or commits any breach of covenant or agreement therein contained.
</P>
<P>(2) A license may also be revoked by the Chief of Naval Research if the licensee willfully makes a false statement of material fact or willfully omits a material fact in the license application or any report required in the license agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) Before modifying or revoking any license granted pursuant to this part for any cause, the Chief of Naval Research shall furnish the licensee and any sublicensee of record a written notice of intention to modify or revoke the license, and the licensee and any sublicensee shall be allowed 30 days after such notice to remedy any breach of any covenant or agreement as referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of § 746.11, or to show cause why the license should not be modified or revoked.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeals.</I> An applicant for a license, a licensee, or such other third party who has participated under paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of § 746.11 shall have the right to appeal, in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Chief of Naval Research, any decision concerning the granting, denial, interpretation, modification, or revocation of a license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.12   Litigation.</HEAD>
<P>The property interest in a patent is the right to exclude. It is not the intent of the Government to transfer the property right in a patent when a license is issued pursuant to this part. Accordingly, the right to sue for infringement shall be retained with respect to all licenses so issued by the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.4.10.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.13   Transfer of custody of Government inventions.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief of Naval Research may enter into an agreement to transfer custody of a Government invention to another government agency for purposes of administration, including the granting of licenses pursuant to this part.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E" NODE="32:5.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—CLAIMS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="750" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 750—GENERAL CLAIMS REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 5 U.S.C. 552, 10 U.S.C. 5013, and 5148.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions for Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.1   Scope of subpart A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The Judge Advocate General is responsible for the administration and supervision of the resolution of claims arising under the Federal Tort Claims Act (subpart B of this part), the Military Claims Act (subpart C of this chapter), the Nonscope Claims Act (subpart D of this part), the Personnel Claims Act (part 751 of this chapter), the Foreign Claims Act, the International Agreements Claims Act pertaining to cost sharing of claims pursuant to international agreements, the Federal Claims Collection Act (subpart A of part 757 of this chapter), the Medical Care Recovery Act and Health Care Services Incurred on Behalf of Covered Beneficiaries: Collection from Third-party Payers (subpart B of part 757 of this chapter), and postal claims.
</P>
<P>(2) The Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) (Code 15) is the manager of the Navy claims system established to evaluate, adjudicate, and provide litigation support for claims arising under the acts listed above and is responsible to the Judge Advocate General for the management of that system. The claims system consists of the Claims and Tort Litigation Division of the Office of the Judge Advocate General (Code 15), and the attorneys and support personnel assigned to the Tort Claims Unit at Naval Station, Norfolk, Virginia. For economy of language, Naval Legal Service Offices and Naval Legal Service Office Detachments are referred to as Naval Legal Service Command Activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Commanding officers of commands receiving claims are responsible for complying with the guidance on investigations in Sec. 750.2 and Sec. 750.3, the guidance on handling and forwarding claims found in Sec. 750.5, and the guidance provided in the JAG Instruction 5800.7E (JAGMAN) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of 20 June 2007.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> JAG Instruction 5800.7E (JAGMAN) may be retrieved at the official Web site of the United States Navy Judge Advocate General's Corps at <I>http://www.jag.navy.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) This subpart A delineates general investigative and claims-processing requirements to be followed in the handling of all incidents and claims within the provisions of this part. Where the general provisions of this subpart A conflict with the specific provisions of any subsequent subpart of this part, the specific provisions govern.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53417, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.2   Investigations: In general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conducting the investigation.</I> The command where the incident giving rise to the claim is alleged to have happened is responsible for conducting an investigation in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Thorough investigation.</I> Every incident that may result in a claim against or in favor of the United States shall be promptly and thoroughly investigated under this part. Investigations convened for claims purposes are sufficiently complex that they should be performed with the assistance and under the supervision of a judge advocate or other attorney. Where the command has an attorney assigned, he shall be involved in every aspect of the proceedings. When an attorney is not assigned to the investigating command, consultation shall be sought from the appropriate Naval Legal Service Command activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recovery barred.</I> Even when recovery must be barred by statute or case law, all deaths, serious injuries, and substantial losses to property that are likely to give rise to claims must be investigated while the evidence is available. Claims against persons in the naval service arising from the performance of their official duties shall be investigated as though they were claims against the United States. When an incident involves an actual or potential claim against the United States for property damage only and the total amount likely to be paid does not exceed $5,000.00, an abbreviated investigative report may be submitted. Where this monetary figure may be exceeded, but the circumstances indicate an abbreviated report may be adequate to preserve the facts and protect the Government's claims interests, approval to submit a limited investigative report may be sought from the Office of the Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation Division) (Code 15), the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk, or the nearest Naval Legal Service Command activity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Developing the facts.</I> Any investigation convened for claims purposes must focus on developing the facts of the incident, <I>i.e.</I>, the who, what, where, when, why, and how of the matter. Opinions on the possible liability of the United States under any of the claims statutes listed above shall not be expressed. Early and continuous consultation with claims attorneys at Naval Legal Service Command activities is essential to ensure the timely development of all necessary facts, the identification and preservation of relevant evidence, and to void the need for supplemental inquiries.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attorney work product.</I> (1) The convening order and the preliminary statement of an investigative report prepared to inquire into the facts of an incident giving or likely to give rise to a claim against the United States shall include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This investigation has been convened and conducted, and this report prepared, in contemplation of claims adjudication and litigation and for the express purpose of assisting attorneys representing the interests of the United States.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) When an investigation is prepared by or at the direction of an attorney representing the Department of the Navy and is prepared in reasonable anticipation of litigation, it is exempt from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act exemption (b)(5) and is normally privileged from discovery in litigation under the attorney work product privilege. 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(5). Unless an attorney prepares the report or personally directs its preparation, the investigation may not be privileged, even if it was prepared in reasonable anticipation of litigation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advance copy.</I> An advance copy of an investigation conducted because a claim has been, or is likely to be, submitted shall be forwarded to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53418, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.3   Investigations: The report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of investigations into claims incidents is to gather all relevant information about the incident so adjudicating officers can either pay or deny the claim. The essential task of the investigating officer is to answer the questions of who, what, where, when, why and how? The Navy's best interests are served when the investigation is thorough and is performed in a timely manner so the claimant can be advised promptly of the action on the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duties of the investigating officer.</I> It is the investigating officer's responsibility:
</P>
<P>(1) To interview all witnesses to the incident and prepare summaries of their comments. Obtaining signed statements of Government witnesses is not necessary. Summaries of the witnesses' remarks prepared by the investigating officer are quite sufficient and generally expedite the gathering of information. On the other hand, written signed statements should be obtained from the claimant, wherever possible;
</P>
<P>(2) To inspect the property alleged to have been damaged by the action of Government personnel;
</P>
<P>(3) To determine the nature, extent, and amount of any damage, and to obtain pertinent repair bills or estimates and medical, hospital, and associated bills necessary to permit an evaluation of the claimant's loss;
</P>
<P>(4) To obtain maintenance records of the Navy motor vehicle, plane, or other piece of equipment involved in the claim;
</P>
<P>(5) To reduce to writing and incorporate into an appropriate investigative report all pertinent statements, summaries, exhibits, and other evidence considered by the investigator in arriving at his conclusions; and,
</P>
<P>(6) To furnish claim forms to any person expressing an interest in filing a claim and to refer such personnel to the Office of the Judge Advocate General, Tort Claims Unit Norfolk, 9620 Maryland Avenue, Suite 100, Norfolk, Virginia 23511-2989.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of the report.</I> The written report of investigation shall contain information answering the questions mentioned in § 750.3(a) and, depending on the nature of the incident, will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Date, time, and exact place the accident or incident occurred, specifying the highway, street, or road;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise but complete statement of the incident with reference to physical facts observed and any statements by the personnel involved;
</P>
<P>(3) Names, grades, organizations, and addresses of military personnel and civilian witnesses;
</P>
<P>(4) Opinions as to whether military or civilian employees involved in the incident were acting within the scope of their duties at the time;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of the Government property involved in the incident and the nature of any damage it sustained; and,
</P>
<P>(6) Descriptions of all private property involved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Immediate report of certain events.</I> The Navy or Marine Corps activity most directly involved in the incident shall notify the Judge Advocate General immediately by message, electronic mail, or telephone in any of the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) Claims or possible claims arising out of a major disaster or out of an incident giving rise to five or more possible death or serious injury claims.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon filing of a claim that could result in litigation that would involve a new precedent or point of law.
</P>
<P>(3) Claims or possible claims that involve or are likely to involve an agency other than the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for assistance.</I> When an incident occurs at a place where the naval service does not have an installation or a unit conveniently located for conducting an investigation, the commanding officer or officer in charge with responsibility for performing the investigation may request assistance from the commanding officer or officer in charge of any other organization of the Department of Defense. Likewise, if a commanding officer or officer in charge of any other organization of the Department of Defense requests such assistance from a naval commanding officer or officer in charge, the latter should normally comply. If a complete investigation is requested it will be performed in compliance with the regulations of the requested service. These investigations are normally conducted without reimbursement for per diem, mileage, or other expenses incurred by the investigating unit or installation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Report of Motor Vehicle Accident, Standard Form 91. RCS OPNAV 5100-6.</I> The operator of any Government motor vehicle involved in an accident of any sort shall be responsible for making an immediate report on the Operator's Report of Motor Vehicle Accident, Standard Form 91. This operator's report shall be made even though the operator of the other vehicle, or any other person involved, states that no claim will be filed, or the only vehicles involved are Government owned. An accident shall be reported by the operator regardless of who was injured, what property was damaged, or who was responsible. The operator's report shall be referred to the investigating officer, who shall be responsible for examining it for completeness and accuracy and who shall file it for future reference or for attachment to any subsequent investigative report of the accident.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Priority of the investigation.</I> To ensure prompt investigation of every incident while witnesses are available and before damage has been repaired, the duties of an investigating officer shall ordinarily have priority over any other assignments he may have.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Contents of the report of investigation.</I> The report should include the following items in addition to the requirements in § 750.3(c):
</P>
<P>(1) If pertinent to the investigation, the investigating officer should obtain a statement from claimant's employer showing claimant's occupation, wage or salary, and time lost from work as a result of the incident. In case of personal injury, the investigating officer should ask claimant to submit a written statement from the attending physician setting forth the nature and extent of injury and treatment, the duration and extent of any disability, the prognosis, and the period of hospitalization or incapacity.
</P>
<P>(2) A Privacy Act statement for each person who was asked to furnish personal information shall be provided. Social Security numbers of military personnel and civilian employees of the U.S. Government should be included in the report but should be obtained from available records, not from the individual.
</P>
<P>(3) Names, addresses, and ages of all civilians or military personnel injured or killed; names of insurance companies; information on the nature and extent of injuries, degree of permanent disability, prognosis, period of hospitalization, name and address of attending physician and hospital, and amount of medical, hospital, and burial expenses actually incurred; occupation and wage or salary of civilians injured or killed; and names, addresses, ages, relationship, and extent of dependency of survivors of any such person fatally injured should be included.
</P>
<P>(4) If straying animals are involved, a statement as to whether the jurisdiction has an “open range law” and, if so, reference to such statute.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement as to whether any person involved violated any State or Federal statute, local ordinance, or installation regulation and, if so, in what respect. The statute, ordinance, or regulation should be set out in full.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement on whether a police investigation was made. A copy of the police report of investigation should be included if available.
</P>
<P>(7) A statement on whether arrests were made or charges preferred, and the result of any trial or hearing in civil or military courts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Expert opinions.</I> In appropriate cases the opinion of an expert may be required to evaluate the extent of damage to a potential claimant's property. In such cases the investigating officer should consult Navy-employed experts, experts employed by other departments of the U.S. Government, or civilian experts to obtain a competent assessment of claimant's damages or otherwise to protect the Government's interest. Any cost involved with obtaining the opinion of an expert not employed by the Navy shall be borne by the command conducting the investigation. Any cost involved in obtaining the opinion of a Navy-employed expert shall be borne by the command to which the expert is attached. Medical experts shall be employed only after consultation with the Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Action by command initiating the investigation and subsequent reviewing authorities.</I> (1) The command initiating the investigation in accordance with § 750.3 or § 750.5 shall review the report of investigation. If additional investigation is required or omissions or other deficiencies are noted, the investigation should be promptly returned with an endorsement indicating that a supplemental investigative report will be submitted. If the original or supplemental report is in order, it shall be forwarded by endorsement, with any pertinent comments and recommendations. An advance copy of the investigation shall be forwarded to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk. 
</P>
<P>(2) A reviewing authority may direct that additional investigation be conducted, if considered necessary. The initial investigation should not be returned for such additional investigation, but should be forwarded by an endorsement indicating that the supplemental material will be submitted. The report shall be endorsed and forwarded to the next-level authority with appropriate recommendations including an assessment of the responsibility for the incident and a recommendation as to the disposition of any claim that may subsequently be filed. If a reviewing authority may be an adjudicating authority for a claim subsequently filed, one copy of the report shall be retained by such authority for at least 2 years after the incident.
</P>
<P>(3) It is essential that each investigative report reflect that a good faith effort was made to comply with the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) as implemented by 32 CFR 701, subpart F. Any indication of noncompliance shall be explained either in the preliminary statement of the forwarding endorsements and, when required, corrected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53418, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.4   Claims: In general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims against the United States.</I> Claims against the United States shall receive prompt and professional disposition. Every effort will be made to ensure an investigation is thoroughly and accurately completed, the claimant's allegations evaluated promptly, and where liability is established, a check issued as quickly as possible to prevent further harm to a meritorious claimant. Similarly, claims not payble will be processed promptly and the claimant advised of the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims in favor of the United States.</I> Potential claims in favor of the United States will be critically evaluated and, where appropriate, promptly asserted and aggressively pursued.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance to claimants.</I> Claimants or potential claimants who inquire about their rights or the procedures to be followed in the resolution of their claims should be referred to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk. The Tort Claims Unit Norfolk will provide claims forms, advise where the forms should be filed, and inform the requester of the type of substantiating information required. Claims officers may provide advice on the claims process but shall not provide advice or opinions about the merits or the wisdom of filing a particular claim. While claims officers have a responsibility to provide general information about claims, they must consider 18 U.S.C. 205, which makes it a crime for an officer or employee of the United States to act as an agent or an attorney in the prosecution of any claim against the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53418, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.5   Claims: Proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Damage to property cases.</I> A claim for damage to, or destruction or loss of, property shall be presented by the owner of the property or a duly authorized agent or legal representative. “Owner” includes a bailee, lessee, or mortgagor, but does not include a mortgagee, conditional vendor, or other person having title for security purposes only.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury and death cases.</I> A claim for personal injury shall be presented by the person injured or a duly authorized agent or legal representative, or, in the case of death, by the properly appointed legal representative of the deceased's estate or survivor where authorized by State law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subrogation.</I> A subrogor and a subrogee may file claims jointly or separately. When separate claims are filed and each claim individually is within the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk's adjudicating authority limits, they may be processed by the Tort Claims Unit, even if the aggregate of such claims exceeds the Tort Claims Unit's monetary authority. However, if the aggregate of the claims exceeds the sum for which approval of the Department of Justice (DoJ) is required, currently $200,000.00 under the Federal Tort Claims Act, then the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk must obtain DoJ approval via the Office of the Judge Advocate General, Claims and Tort Litigation Division, before the claims may be settled.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation on transfers and assignment.</I> All transfers and assignments made of any claim upon the United States, and all powers of attorney, orders, or other authorities for receiving payment of any such claim, are absolutely null and void unless they are made after the allowance of such a claim, the ascertainment of the amount due, and the issuing of a warrant for the payment thereof. 31 U.S.C. 203. This statutory provision does not apply to the assignment of a claim by operation of law, as in the case of a receiver or trustee in bankruptcy appointed for an individual, firm, or corporation, or the case of an administrator or executor of the estate of a person deceased, or an insurer subrogated to the rights of the insured.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53418, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.6   Claims: Presentment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written demand and Standard Form 95.</I> A claim shall be submitted by presenting a written statement with the amount of the claim expressed in a sum certain, and, as far as possible, describing the detailed facts and circumstances surrounding the incident from which the claim arose. The Claim for Damage or Injury, Standard Form 95, shall be used whenever practical for claims under the Federal Tort and Military Claims Acts. Claims under the Personnel Claims Act shall be submitted on DD Form 1842. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The claim and all other papers requiring the signature of the claimant shall be signed by the claimant personally or by a duly authorized agent. If signed by an agent or legal representative, the claim shall indicate the title or capacity of the person signing and be accompanied by evidence of appointment. When more than one person has a claim arising from the same incident, each person shall file a claim separately.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Claim for Damage or Injury, Standard Form 95 and the DD Form 1842 are available at the Web site of the United States Navy Judge Advocate General's Corps at <I>http://www.jag.navy.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>To whom submitted.</I> Claims under the Federal Tort and Military Claims Acts should be submitted to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk at the address provided in Sec. 750.3 above, or the Office of the Judge Advocate General, Claims and Tort Litigation Division, 1322 Patterson Avenue, SE., Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5066. Claims may also be submitted to the commanding officer of the Navy or Marine Corps activity involved if known, the commanding officer of any Navy or Marine activity, preferably the one nearest to where the accident occurred, or the local Naval Legal Service Command activity. The claim should be immediately forwarded to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53418, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.7   Claims: Action by receiving command.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record date of receipt.</I> The first command receiving a claim shall stamp or mark the date of receipt on the letter or claim form. The envelope in which the claim was received shall be preserved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determine the military activity involved.</I> The receiving command shall determine the Navy or Marine Corps activity most directly involved with the claim—usually the command where the incident is alleged to have occurred—and forward a copy of the claim to that activity. The original claim (and the transmittal letter, if a copy is forwarded to a more appropriate activity) should immediately be sent to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initiate an investigation.</I> A JAGMAN Litigation Report Investigation shall be commenced immediately by the command most directly involved with the claim. Once the investigation has been completed, an advance copy shall be forwarded by the convening authority to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk. Waiting until endorsements have been obtained before providing a copy of the investigation to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk is neither required nor desirable. The facts of the incident must be made known to cognizant claims personnel as soon as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53419, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.8   Claims: Responsibility of the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reviewing prior actions.</I> The adjudicating authority (Tort Claims Unit Norfolk) determines whether an adequate investigation has been conducted, whether the initial receipt date is recorded on the face of the claim, and whether all holders of the investigation, if completed, are advised of the receipt of the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining the sufficiency of the claim.</I> The claim should be reviewed and a determination of its sufficiency made. If the claim is not sufficient as received, it shall be immediately returned to the party who submitted it along with an explanation of the insufficiency. This does not constitute denial of the claim. The claim shall not be considered “presented” until it is received in proper form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjudicating the claim.</I> (1) The Tort Claims Unit Norfolk shall evaluate and either approve or disapprove all claims within its authority, except where the payment of multiple Federal Torts Claims Act claims arising from the same incident will exceed $200,000.00 in the aggregate and thereby require approval of DoJ. In this latter instance, the Torts Claims Unit Norfolk shall contact the Office of the Judge Advocate General, Claims and Tort Litigation Division (OJAG Code 15).
</P>
<P>(2) The Tort Claims Unit Norfolk shall evaluate and, where liability is established, attempt to settle claims for amounts within its adjudicating authority. Negotiation at settlement figures above the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk's payment limits may be attempted if the claimant is informed that the final decision on the claim will be made at a higher level.
</P>
<P>(3) If a substantiated claim cannot be approved, settled, or compromised within the settlement authority limits of the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk, the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk shall contact OJAG Code 15 to seek additional settlement authority. To obtain the additional settlement authority, the following materials shall be forwarded to OJAG Code 15:
</P>
<P>(i) A letter of transmittal containing a recommendation on resolution of the claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) A memorandum of law containing a review of applicable law, an evaluation of liability, and a recommendation on the settlement value of the case. This memorandum should concentrate on the unusual aspects of applicable law, chronicle the attempts to resolve the case, provide information about the availability of witnesses, and outline any other information material to a resolution of the claim, <I>i.e.</I>, prior dealings with the claimant's attorney, local procedural rules, or peculiarities that may make trial difficult. The memorandum should be tailored to the complexity of the issues presented and provide any expert opinions that have been obtained in the case by the Navy or the claimant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preparing litigation reports.</I> The Tort Claims Unit Norfolk will prepare a litigation report when a lawsuit is filed and the complaint is received. The report is sent directly to the DoJ official or the U.S. Attorney having cognizance of the matter. The report is a narrative summary of the facts upon which the suit is based and has as enclosures the claims file and a memorandum of law on the issues presented. A copy of the report and all enclosures should be sent to the Judge Advocate General (OJAG Code 15).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53419, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.9   Claims: Payments.</HEAD>
<P>Claims approved for payment shall be expeditiously forwarded to the disbursing office or the General Accounting Office depending on the claims act involved and the amount of the requested payment. Generally, payment of a Federal tort claim above $2,500.00 requires submission of the payment voucher to the General Accounting Office. All other field authorized payment vouchers are submitted directly to the servicing disbursing office for payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.10   Claims: Settlement and release.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fully and partially approved claims.</I> When a claim is approved for payment in the amount claimed, settlement agreement may not be necessary. When a federal tort, military, or non-scope claim is approved for payment in a lesser amount than that claimed, the claimant must indicate in writing a willingness to accept the offered amount in full settlement and final satisfaction of the claim. In the latter instance, no payment will be made until a signed settlement agreement has been received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Release.</I> (1) Acceptance by the claimant of an award or settlement made by the Secretary of the Navy or designees, or the Attorney General or designees, is final upon acceptance by the claimant. Acceptance is a complete release by claimant of any claim against the United States by reason of the same subject manner. Claimant's acceptance of an advance payment does not have the same effect.
</P>
<P>(2) The claimant's acceptance of an award or settlement made under the provisions governing the administrative settlement of Federal tort claims or the civil action provisions of 28 U.S.C. 1346(b) also constitutes a complete release of any claim against any employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53419, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.11   Claims: Denial.</HEAD>
<P>A final denial of any claim within this chapter shall be in writing and sent to the claimant, his attorney, or legal representative by certified or registered mail with return receipt requested. The denial notification shall include a statement of the reason or reasons for the denial. The notification shall include a statement that the claimant may:
</P>
<P>(a) If the claim is cognizable under the Federal Tort Claims Act, file suit in the appropriate United States District Court within 6 months of the date of the denial notification.
</P>
<P>(b) If the claim is cognizable under the Military Claims Act, appeal in writing to the Office of the Judge Advocate General, Claims and Tort Litigation Division within 30 days of the receipt of the denial notification. The notice of denial shall inform the claimant or his representative that is suit is not possible under the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53419, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.12   Claims: Action when suit filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Action required of any Navy official receiving notice of suit.</I> The commencement, under the civil action provisions of the Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 1346(b)), of any action against the United States and involving the Navy, that comes to the attention of any official in connection with his official duties, shall be reported immediately to the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk to take any necessary action and provide prompt notification to the Judge Advocate General. The commencement of a civil action against an employee of the Navy for actions arising from the performance of official duties shall be reported in the same manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Steps upon commencement of civil action.</I> Upon receipt by the Judge Advocate General or Tort Claims Unit Norfolk of notice from the DoJ or other source that a civil action involving the Navy has been initiated under the civil action provisions of the Federal Tort Claims Act, and there being no investigative report available at the headquarters, a request shall be made to the commanding officer of the appropriate Naval Legal Service Command activity for an investigative report into the incident. If there is not a completed investigation, the request shall be forwarded to the appropriate naval activity to convene and complete such a report. The commanding officer of the Naval Legal Service Command activity shall contact the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk to determine whether an administrative claim had been filed and, if available information indicates none had, the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk shall advise the Office of the Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation Division) immediately.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53419, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.13   Claims: Single service responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Defense has assigned single-service responsibility for processing claims in foreign countries under the following acts. The service and country assignments are in DODDIR 5515.8 of 9 June 1990.
</P>
<P>(1) Foreign Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2734);
</P>
<P>(2) Military Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2733);
</P>
<P>(3) International Agreements Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2734a and b), on the pro-rata cost sharing of claims pursuant to international agreement;
</P>
<P>(4) NATO Status of Forces Agreement (4 UST 1792, TIAS 2846) and other similar agreements;
</P>
<P>(5) Medical Care Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 2651-2653) claims for reimbursement for medical care furnished by the United States;
</P>
<P>(6) Nonscope Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2737), claims not cognizable under any other provision of law;
</P>
<P>(7) Federal Claims Collection Act (31 U.S.C. Sections 3701, 3702, and 3711), claims and demands by the United States Government; and
</P>
<P>(8) Public Law 87-212 (10 U.S.C. 2736), advance or emergency payments.
</P>
<P>(b) Single service assignments for processing claims mentioned above are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Department of the Army: Austria, Belgium, El Salvador, the Federal Republic of Germany, Grenada, Honduras, Hungary, Korea, Iraq, Kuwait, Latvia, Lithuania, the Marshall Islands, the Netherlands, Poland, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia and Switzerland, and as the Receiving State Office in the United States under 10 U.S.C. Sections 2734a—2734b and the NATO Status of Forces Agreement, and other Status of Forces Agreements with countries not covered by the NATO agreement. Claims arising from Operation Joint Endeavor, including the former Yugoslavia, Hungary, Slovakia and the Czech Republic, as well as the Rwanda Refugee Crisis Area are also assigned to the Army.
</P>
<P>(2) Department of the Navy: Bahrain, Greece, Iceland, Israel, Italy, Spain and the United Arab Emirates.
</P>
<P>(3) Department of the Air Force: Australia, Azores, Canada, Cyprus, Denmark, India, Japan, Luxembourg, Morocco, Nepal, Norway, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Tunisia, Turkey, the United Kingdom, Egypt, Oman, and claims involving, or generated by, the United States Central Command (CENTCOM) and the United States Special Operations Command (SOCOM), that arise in countries not specifically assigned to the Departments of the Army and the Navy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>U.S. forces afloat cases under $2,500.00.</I> Notwithstanding the single service assignments above, the Navy may settle claims under $2,500.00 caused by personnel not acting within the scope of employment and arising in foreign ports visited by U.S. forces afloat and may, subject to the concurrence of the authorities of the receiving state concerned, process such claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 750.14-750.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 750.14-750.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Tort Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.21" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.21   Scope of subpart B.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides information regarding the administrative processing and consideration of claims against the United States under the FTCA. The FTCA is a limited waiver of sovereign immunity. Under the FTCA, an individual can seek money damages for personal injury, death, or property damage caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of a Federal employee acting within the scope of employment. The FTCA also provides for compensation for injuries caused by certain intentional, wrongful conduct. The liability of the United States is determined in accordance with the law of the State where the act or omission occured.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.22" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.22   Exclusiveness of remedy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Employees Liability Reform and Tort Compensation Act of 1988, Public Law 100-694 (amending 28 U.S.C. 2679(b) and 2679(d)), provides that the exclusive remedy for damage or loss of property, or personal injury or death arising from the negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of all Federal employees, acting within the scope of their employment, will be against the United States. This immunity from personal liability does not extend to allegations of constitutional torts, nor to allegations of violations of statutes specifically authorizing suits against individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) Other statutory provisions create immunity from personal liability for specific categories of Federal employees whose conduct, within the scope of their employment, gives rise to claims against the Government. Department of Defense health care providers are specifically protected by 10 U.S.C. 1089, the Gonzalez Act. DOD attorneys are specifically protected by 10 U.S.C. 1054.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.23" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.23   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Negligent conduct.</I> Generally, negligence is the failure to exercise that degree of care, skill, or diligence a reasonable person would exercise under similar circumstances. Negligent conduct can result from either an act or a failure to act. The law of the place where the conduct occurred will determine whether a cause of action lies against the Government. 28 U.S.C. 1346(b) and 2674.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intentional torts.</I> Although any employee who commits an intentional tort is normally considered to be acting outside the scope of employment, the FTCA does allow claimants to seek compensation for injuries arising out of the intentional torts of assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, abuse of process, and malicious prosecution, if committed by a Federal investigative or law enforcement officer. An “investigative or law enforcement officer” is any officer of the United States empowered by law to execute searches, to seize evidence, or to make arrests for violations of Federal law. 28 U.S.C. 2680(h).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government employees</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> “Employee of the Government,” defined at 28 U.S.C. 2671, includes officers or employees of any Federal agency, members of the U.S. military or naval forces, and persons acting on behalf of a Federal agency in an official capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Government contractors.</I> Government (also referred to as independent) contractors, are those individuals or businesses who enter into contracts with the United States to provide goods or services. Because the definition of “Federal agency,” found at 28 U.S.C. 2671, specifically excludes “any contractor with the United States,” the United States is generally not liable for the negligence of Government contractors. There are, however, three limited exceptions to the general rule, under which a cause of action against the United States has been found to exist in some jurisdictions. They are:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the thing or service contracted for is deemed to be an “inherently dangerous activity”;
</P>
<P>(ii) where a nondelegable duty in the employer has been created by law; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) where the employer retains control over certain aspects of the contract and fails to discharge that control in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employees of nonappropriated-fund activities.</I> Nonappropriated-fund activities are entities established and operated for the benefit of military members and their dependents, and have been judicially determined to be “arms” of the Federal government. These entities operate from self-generated funds, rather than from funds appropriated by Congress. Examples include Navy and Marine Corps Exchanges, officer or enlisted clubs, and recreational services activities. A claim arising out of the act or omission of an employee of a nonappropriated-fund activity not located in a foreign country, acting within the scope of employment, is an act or omission committed by a Federal employee and will be handled in accordance with the FTCA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of employment.</I> “Scope of employment” is defined by the law of respondeat superior (master and servant) of the place where the act or omission occurred. Although 28 U.S.C. 2671 states that acting within the scope of employment means acting in the line of duty, the converse is not always true. For administrative purposes, a Government employee may be found “in the line of duty,” yet not meet the criteria for a finding of “within the scope of employment” under the law of the place where the act or omission occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.24" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.24   Statutory/regulatory authority.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory provisions of the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) are at 28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 2671-2672, and 2674-2680. The Attorney General of the United States has issued regulations on administrative claims filed under the FTCA at 28 CFR part 14. If the provisions of this section and the Attorney General's regulations conflict, the Attorney General's regulations prevail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.25   Scope of liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Territorial limitations.</I> The FTCA does not apply to any claim arising in a foreign country. 28 U.S.C. 2680(k) and <I>Beattie</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 756 F.2d 91 (D.C. Cir. 1984).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions from liability.</I> Statutes and case law have established categories of exclusions from FTCA liability.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statutory exclusions.</I> Section 2680 of Title 28 lists claims not cognizable under the FTCA. They include:
</P>
<P>(i) Claims based on the exercise or performance of, or the failure to exercise or perform, a discretionary Government function;
</P>
<P>(ii) Admiralty claims under 46 U.S.C. 741-752 or 781-790. Claims under the Death on the High Seas Act (46 U.S.C. 761), however, are cognizable under the FTCA. All admiralty claims will be referred to the Judge Advocate General for adjudication. Admiralty claims against the Navy shall be processed under part 752 of this Chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims arising from intentional torts, except those referred to in § 750.23(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) Claims arising from the combat activities of the military or naval forces, or the Coast Guard, during time of war.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional claims not payable.</I> Although not expressly statutorily excepted, the following types of claims shall not be paid under the FTCA:
</P>
<P>(i) A claim for personal injury or death of a member of the armed forces of the United States incurred incident to military service or duty. Compare <I>United States</I> v. <I>Johnson,</I> 481 U.S. 681 (1987); <I>Feres</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 340 U.S. 135 (1950) with <I>Brooks</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 337 U.S. 49 (1949);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any claim by military personnel or civilian employees of the Navy, paid from appropriated funds, for personal property damage occurring incident to service or Federal employment, cognizable under 31 U.S.C. 3721 and the applicable Personnel Claims Regulations, 32 CFR part 751;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any claim by employees of nonappropriated-fund activities for personal property damage occurring incident to Federal employment. These claims will be processed as indicated in 32 CFR part 756;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any claim for personal injury or death covered by the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (5 U.S.C. 8116c);
</P>
<P>(v) Any claim for personal injury or death covered by the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 905 and 5 U.S.C. 8171);
</P>
<P>(vi) That portion of any claim for personal injury or property damage, caused by the negligence or fault of a Government contractor, to the extent such contractor may have assumed liability under the terms of the contract (see <I>United States</I> v. <I>Seckinger,</I> 397 U.S. 203 (1969) and § 750.23(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(vii) Any claim against the Department of the Navy by another Federal agency. Property belonging to the Government is not owned by any one department of the Government. The Government does not reimburse itself for the loss of its own property except where specifically provided for by law; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any claim for damage to a vehicle rented pursuant to travel orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.26" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.26   The administrative claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper claimant.</I> See § 750.5 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim presented by agent or legal representative.</I> A claim filed by an agent or legal representative will be filed in the name of the claimant; be signed by the agent or legal representative; show the title or legal capacity of the person signing; and be accompanied by evidence of the individual's authority to file a claim on behalf of the claimant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proper claim.</I> A claim is a notice in writing to the appropriate Federal agency of an incident giving rise to Government liability under the FTCA. It must include a demand for money damages in a definite sum for property damage, personal injury, or death alleged to have occurred by reason of the incident. The Attorney General's regulations specify that the claim be filed on a Standard Form 95 or other written notification of the incident. If a letter or other written notification is used, it is essential that it set forth the same basic information required by Standard Form 95. Failure to do so may result in a determination that the administrative claim is incomplete. A suit may be dismissed on the ground of lack of subject matter jurisdiction based on claimant's failure to present a proper claim as required by 28 U.S.C. 2675(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Presentment.</I> A claim is deemed presented when received by the Navy in proper form. A claim against another agency, mistakenly addressed to or filed with the Navy shall be transferred to the appropriate agency, if ascertainable, or returned to the claimant. A claimant presenting identical claims with more than one agency should identify every agency to which the claim is submitted on every claim form presented. Claims officers shall coordinate with all other affected agencies and ensure a lead agency is designated. 28 CFR 14.2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.27" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.27   Information and supporting documentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper documentation.</I> Depending on the type of claim, claimants may be required to submit information, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Death.</I> (i) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing cause of death, date of death, and age of the decedent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decedent's employment or occupation at time of death, including monthly or yearly earnings and the duration of last employment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Full names, addresses, birth dates, relationship, and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including identification of survivors dependent for support upon decedent at the time of death;
</P>
<P>(iv) Degree of support provided by decedent to each survivor at time of death;
</P>
<P>(v) Decedent's general physical and mental condition before death;
</P>
<P>(vi) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses;
</P>
<P>(vii) If damages for pain and suffering are claimed, a physician's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain, and the decedent's physical condition during the interval between injury and death; and,
</P>
<P>(viii) Any other evidence or information which may affect the liability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal injury.</I> (i) A written report by attending physician or dentist on the nature and extent of the injury, nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, any diminished earning capacity. In addition, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician employed by any Federal agency. Upon written request, a copy of the report of the examining physician shall be provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) Itemized bills for medical, dental, and hospital expenses incurred, or itemized receipts of payments of such expenses;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of expected expenses for future treatment;
</P>
<P>(iv) If a claim is made for lost wages, a written statement from the employer itemizing actual time and wages lost;
</P>
<P>(v) If a claim is made for lost self-employed income, documentary evidence showing the amount of earnings actually lost; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other evidence or information which may affect the liability of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Property damage.</I> (i) Proof of ownership;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed statement of the amount claimed for each item of property;
</P>
<P>(iii) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of repairs;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, and salvage value where repair is not economical; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other evidence or information which may affect the liability of the United States for the property damage claimed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to submit necessary documentation.</I> If claimant fails to provide sufficient supporting documentation, claimant should be notified of the deficiency. If after notice of the deficiency, including reference to 28 CFR 14.4, the information is still not supplied, two follow-up requests should be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested. If after a reasonable period of time the information is still not provided, the appropriate adjudicating authority should deny the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.28" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.28   Amendment of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>A proper claim may be amended at any time prior to settlement, denial, or the filing of suit. An amendment must be submitted in writing and must be signed by the claimant or duly authorized agent or legal representative. No finally denied claim for which reconsideration has not been requested under § 750.31 may be amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.29" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.29   Investigation and examination.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part requires an investigation for every incident that may result in a claim against or in favor of the United States. Where a previously unanticipated claim is filed against the Government and an investigation has not already been conducted, the appropriate claims officer shall immediately request an investigation. See subpart A of this part for specific action required by an adjudicating authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.30" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.30   Denial of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>Final denial of an administrative claim shall be in writing and shall be sent to the claimant, his duly authorized agent or legal representative by certified or registered mail, with return receipt requested. The notification of final denial shall include the reasons for the denial. The notification shall include a statement informing the claimant of his right to file suit in the appropriate Federal district court not later than 6 months after the date of the mailing of the notification. 28 CFR 14.9(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.31" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.31   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request.</I> Prior to the commencement of suit and prior to the expiration of the 6-month period for filing suit, a claimant or his duly authorized agent or legal representative may present a request for reconsideration to the authority who denied the claim. The request shall be in writing and shall state the reasons for the requested reconsideration. A request for reconsideration is presented on the date it is received by the DON. 28 CFR 14.9(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proper basis.</I> A request for reconsideration shall set forth claimant's reasons for the request, and shall include any supplemental supporting evidence or information. Any writing communicating a desire for reconsideration that reasonably appears to have been presented solely for the purpose of extending the statutory period for filing suit, shall not be treated as a request for reconsideration. Claimant or claimant's authorized representative shall be notified promptly that the writing is not considered a proper request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of presentment of request.</I> The presentment of a proper request for reconsideration starts a new 6-month period for the DON to act on the request to reconsider. The claimant may not file suit until the expiration of the new 6-month period, or until after the date of mailing of the final denial of the request. Final denial of a request for reconsideration shall be accomplished in the manner prescribed in § 750.30. 28 CFR 14.9(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.32" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.32   Suits under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Venue.</I> Venue is proper only in the judicial district where the plaintiff resides or where the act or omission complained of occurred. 28 U.S.C. 1402.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Jury trial.</I> There is no right to trial by jury in suits brought under the FTCA. 28 U.S.C. 2402.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement.</I> The Attorney General of the United States, or designee, may arbitrate, compromise, or settle any action filed under the FTCA. 28 U.S.C. 2677.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation support</I>—(1) <I>Who provides.</I> The adjudicating authority holding a claim at the time suit is filed shall be responsible for providing necessary assistance to the Department of Justice official or U.S. Attorney responsible for defending the Government's interests.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Litigation report.</I> A litigation report, including a legal memorandum emphasizing anticipated issues during litigation, shall be furnished to the appropriate Department of Justice official or U.S. Attorney.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pretrial discovery.</I> Complete and timely responses to discovery requests are vital to the effective defense of tort litigation. Subject to existing personnel and resources available, appropriate assistance shall be provided. The Judge Advocate General should be notified promptly when special problems are encountered in providing the requested assistance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preservation of evidence.</I> Tort litigation is often accomplished over an extended period of time. Every effort shall be made to preserve files, documents, and other tangible evidence that may bear on litigation. Destruction of such evidence, even in accordance with routine operating procedures, undermines defense of a case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.33" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.33   Damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The measure of damages is determined by the law of the place where the act or omission occurred. When there is a conflict between local and applicable Federal law, the latter governs. 28 U.S.C. 1346(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on liability.</I> The United States is not liable for interest prior to judgment or for punitive damages. In a death case, if the place where the act or omission complained of occurred provides for only punitive damages, the United States will be liable in lieu thereof, for actual or compensatory damages. 28 U.S.C. 2674.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Setoff.</I> The United States is not obligated to pay twice for the same injury. Claimants under the FTCA may have received Government benefits or services as the result of the alleged tort. The cost of these services or benefits shall be considered in arriving at any award of damages. For example, the cost of medical or hospital services furnished at Government expense, including TRICARE payments, shall be considered. Additionally, benefits or services received under the Veterans Act (38 U.S.C. 101-800) must be considered. <I>Brooks</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 337 U.S. 49 (1949).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suit.</I> Any damage award in a suit brought under the FTCA is limited to the amount claimed administratively unless based on newly discovered evidence. 28 U.S.C. 2675(b). Plaintiff must prove the increased demand is based on facts not reasonably discoverable at the time of the presentment of the claim or on intervening facts relating to the amount of the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.34" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.34   Settlement and payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement agreement</I>—(1) <I>When required.</I> A settlement agreement, signed by the claimant, must be received prior to payment in every case in which the claim is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Settled for less than the full amount claimed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim was not presented on a Standard Form 95.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> Every settlement agreement must contain language indicating payment is in full and final settlement of the applicable claim. Each settlement agreement shall contain language indicating acceptance of the settlement amount by the claimant, or his agent or legal representative, shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, or his agent or legal representative, and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented, and shall constitute a complete release of any claim against the United States and against any employee of the Government whose conduct gave rise to the claim, by reason of the same subject matter. 28 CFR 14.10(b). In cases where partial payment will benefit both claimant and the Government, such as payment for property damage to an automobile, the settlement agreement shall be tailored to reflect the terms of the partial settlement. All settlement agreements shall contain a recitation of the applicable statutory limitation of attorneys fees. 28 U.S.C. 2678.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DON role in settlement negotiations involving the U.S. Attorney or DOJ.</I> Agency concurrence is generally sought by the Department of Justice or U.S. Attorney's office prior to settlement of suits involving the DON. Requests for concurrence in settlement proposals shall be referred to the appropriate DON adjudicating authority with primary responsibility for monitoring the claim. Adjudicating authorities shall consult with the Judge Advocate General concerning proposed settlements beyond their adjudicating authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of the claim</I>—(1) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2672 and in accordance with 28 CFR 14.6(a), the Secretary of the Navy or designee, acting on behalf of the United States may compromise or settle any claim filed against the Navy under the FTCA, provided any award, compromise, or settlement by the Navy in excess of $200,000.00 may be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or designee. Title 28 CFR 14.6 requires consultation with the Department of Justice prior to compromise or settlement of a claim in any amount when:
</P>
<P>(i) A new precedent or a new point of law is involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) A question of policy is or may be involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) The United States is or may be entitled to indemnity or contribution from a third party and the agency is unable to adjust the third party claim;
</P>
<P>(iv) The compromise of a particular claim, as a practical matter, will or may control the disposition of a related claim in which the amount to be paid may exceed $100,000.00; or
</P>
<P>(v) The DON is informed or is otherwise aware that the United States or an employee, agent, or cost-plus contractor of the United States is involved in litigation based on a claim arising out of the same incident or transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific delegation and designation</I>—(i) <I>Payment authority.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Delegated and Designated Authority Federal Tort Claims Act
</HD1>
<FP-2>Judge Advocate General—$200,000.00
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Deputy Judge Advocate General—$200,000.00
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Law)—$200,000.00
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) and Deputy Division Director—$200,000.00
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Head, Tort Claims Branch (Claims and Tort Litigation)—$200,000.00
</FP-2>
<FP>Any payment of over $200,000.00 must be approved by DoJ. The Judge Advocate General, the Deputy Judge Advocate General, the Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Law), Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation), and the Head, Tort Claims Branch (Claims and Tort Litigation) may deny Federal Tort Claims in any amount.
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjudicating authority.</I> The Department of the Navy's tort claims adjudication function is consolidated as the Tort Claims Unit Norfolk (TCU) located at Naval Station, Norfolk, VA. The address is as follows: Department of the Navy, Office of the Judge Advocate General, Tort Claims Unit Norfolk, 9620 Maryland Avenue Suite 100, Norfolk, VA 23511-2989.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Funding.</I> Claims approved for $2,500.00 or less are paid from DON appropriations. Claims approved in excess of $2,500.00 are paid from the judgment fund and must be forwarded to the United States General Accounting Office (GAO) for payment. 28 CFR 14.10(a). Claims arising out of the operation of nonappropriated-fund activities and approved for payment shall be forwarded to the appropriate nonappropriated-fund activity for payment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.35" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.35   Attorney's fees.</HEAD>
<P>Attorney's fees are limited to 20 percent of any compromise or settlement of an administrative claim, and are limited to 25 percent of any judgment rendered in favor of a plaintiff, or of any settlement accomplished after suit is filed. These amounts are to be paid out of the amount awarded and not in addition to the award. 28 U.S.C. 2678.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.36" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.36   Time limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative claim.</I> Every claim filed against the United States under the FTCA must be presented in writing within 2 years after the claim accrues. 28 U.S.C. 2401(b). Federal law determines the date of accrual. A claim accrues when the claimant discovers or reasonably should have discovered the existence of the act giving rise to the claim. In computing the statutory time period, the day of the incident is excluded and the day the claim was presented included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments.</I> Upon timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the DON shall have 6 months to make a final disposition of the claim as amended, and the claimant's option to file suit under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the presentment of an amendment. 28 CFR 14.2(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Suits.</I> A civil action is barred unless suit is filed against the United States not later than 6 months after the date of mailing of notice of final denial of the claim. 28 U.S.C. 2401(b). The failure of the DON to make final disposition of a claim within 6 months after it is presented shall, at the option of the claimant any time thereafter, be deemed a final denial of the claim. 28 U.S.C. 2675(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 750.37-750.40" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 750.37-750.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Military Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.41" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.41   Scope of subpart C.</HEAD>
<P>This section prescribes the substantive bases and special procedural requirements for the settlement of claims against the United States for death, personal injury, or damage, loss, or destruction of property:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Caused by military personnel or civilian employees of the Department of the Navy (DON) (hereinafter DON personnel).</I> For the purposes of this section, DON personnel include all military personnel of the Navy and Marine Corps, volunteer workers, and others serving as employees of the DON with or without compensation, and members of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or of the Public Health Service when serving with the DON. DON personnel does not include DON contractors or their employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Incident to noncombat activities of the DON.</I> Claims for personal injury or death of a member of the Armed Forces or Coast Guard, or civilian officer or employee of the U.S. Government whose injury or death is incident to service, however, are not payable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Territorial limitation.</I> There is no geographical limitation on the application of the MCA, but if a claim arising in a foreign country is cognizable under the Foreign Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2734), the claim shall be processed under that statute. See 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suit.</I> The MCA authorizes the administrative settlement and payment of certain claims. The United States has not consented to be sued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.42" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.42   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>10 U.S.C. 2733, as amended, commonly referred to as the Military Claims Act (MCA).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.43" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.43   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise prescribed, a claim for personal injury, death, or damage or loss of real or personal property is payable under this provision when:
</P>
<P>(1) Caused by an act or omission determined to be negligent, wrongful, or otherwise involving fault of DON personnel acting within the scope of their employment; or
</P>
<P>(2) Incident to noncombat activities of the DON. A claim may be settled under this provision if it arises from authorized activities essentially military in nature, having little parallel in civilian pursuits, and in which the U.S. Government has historically assumed a broad liability, even if not shown to have been caused by any particular act or omission by DON personnel while acting within the scope of their employment. Examples include practice firing of missiles and weapons, sonic booms, training and field exercises, and maneuvers that include operation of aircraft and vehicles, use and occupancy of real estate, and movement of combat or other vehicles designed especially for military use. Activities incident to combat, whether or not in time of war, and use of DON personnel during civil disturbances are excluded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific claims payable.</I> Claims payable by the DON under § 750.43(a) (1) and (2) shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Registered or insured mail.</I> Claims for damage to, loss, or destruction, even if by criminal acts, of registered or insured mail while in the possession of DON authorities are payable under the MCA. This provision is an exception to the general requirement that compensable damage, loss, or destruction of personal property be caused by DON personnel while acting within the scope of their employment or otherwise incident to noncombat activities of the DON. The maximum award to a claimant under this section is limited to that to which the claimant would be entitled from the Postal Service under the registry or insurance fee paid. The award shall not exceed the cost of the item to the claimant regardless of the fees paid. Claimant may be reimbursed for the postage and registry or insurance fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Property bailed to the DON.</I> Claims for damage to or loss of personal property bailed to the DON, under an express or implied agreement are payable under the MCA, even though legally enforceable against the U.S. Government as contract claims, unless by express agreement the bailor has assumed the risk of damage, loss, or destruction. Claims filed under this paragraph may, if in the best interest of the U.S. Government, be referred to and processed by the Office of the General Counsel, DON, as contract claims.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Real property.</I> Claims for damage to real property incident to the use and occupancy by the DON, whether under an express or implied lease or otherwise, are payable under the MCA even though legally enforceable against the DON as contract claims. Claims filed under this paragraph may, if in the best interest of the U.S. Government, be referred to and processed by the Office of the General Counsel, DON, as contract claims.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Property of U.S. military personnel.</I> Claims of U.S. military personnel for property lost, damaged, or destroyed under conditions in § 750.43(a) (1) and (2) occurring on a military installation, not payable under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act, are payable under the MCA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Health care and Legal Assistance Providers.</I> Claims arising from the personal liability of DON health care and legal assistance personnel for costs, settlements, or judgments for negligent acts or omissions while acting within the scope of assigned duties or employment are payable under the MCA. See § 750.54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.44" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.44   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any claim for damage, loss, destruction, injury, or death which was proximately caused, in whole or in part, by any negligence or wrongful act on the part of the claimant, or his agent or employee, unless the law of the place where the act or omission complained of occurred would permit recovery from a private individual under like circumstances, and then only to the extent permitted by the law.
</P>
<P>(b) Any claim resulting from action by the enemy or resulting directly or indirectly from any act by armed forces engaged in combat.
</P>
<P>(c) Any claim for reimbursement of medical, hospital, or burial expenses to the extent already paid by the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(d) Any claim cognizable under:
</P>
<P>(1) Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act, as amended. 31 U.S.C. 3721.
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign Claims Act. 10 U.S.C. 2734.
</P>
<P>(3) 10 U.S.C. 7622, relating to admiralty claims. See part 752 of this Chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Federal Tort Claims Act. 28 U.S.C. 2671, 2672, and 2674-2680.
</P>
<P>(5) International Agreements Claims Act. 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b.
</P>
<P>(6) Federal Employees' Compensation Act. 5 U.S.C. 8101-8150.
</P>
<P>(7) Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act. 33 U.S.C. 901-950.
</P>
<P>(e) Any claim for damage to or loss or destruction of real or personal property founded in written contract [except as provided in § 750.43(b) (2) and (3)].
</P>
<P>(f) Any claim for rent of real or personal property [except as provided in § 750.43(b) (2) and (3)].
</P>
<P>(g) Any claim involving infringement of patents.
</P>
<P>(h) Any claim for damage, loss, or destruction of mail prior to delivery by the Postal Service to authorized DON personnel or occurring due to the fault of, or while in the hands of, bonded personnel.
</P>
<P>(i) Any claim by a national, or corporation controlled by a national, of a country in armed conflict with the United States, or an ally of such country, unless the claimant is determined to be friendly to the United States.
</P>
<P>(j) Any claim for personal injury or death of a member of the Armed Forces or civilian employee incident to his service. 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(k) Any claim for damage to or loss of bailed property when bailor specifically assumes such risk.
</P>
<P>(l) Any claim for taking private real property by a continuing trespass or by technical trespass such as overflights of aircraft.
</P>
<P>(m) Any claim based solely on compassionate grounds.
</P>
<P>(n) Any claim to which the exceptions in 28 U.S.C. 2680 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.45" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.45   Filing claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> Under the MCA, specifically, the following are proper claimants:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. citizens and inhabitants.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. military personnel and civilian employees, except not for personal injury or death incident to service.
</P>
<P>(3) Persons in foreign countries who are not inhabitants.
</P>
<P>(4) States and their political subdivisions (including agencies).
</P>
<P>(5) Prisoners of war for personal property, but not personal injury.
</P>
<P>(6) Subrogees, to the extent they paid the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may not file.</I> (1) Inhabitants of foreign nations for loss or injury occurring in the country they inhabit.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. Government agencies and departments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to file/statute of limitations.</I> Claims against the DON must be presented in writing within 2 years after they accrue. In computing the 2 year period, the day the claim accrues is excluded and the day the claim is presented is included. If the incident occurs in time of war or armed conflict, however, or if war or armed conflict intervenes within 2 years after its occurrence, an MCA claim, on good cause shown, may be presented within 2 years after the war or armed conflict is terminated. For the purposes of the MCA, the date of termination of the war or armed conflict is the date established by concurrent resolution of Congress or by the President. See 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to file.</I> The claim shall be submitted by the claimant to the commanding officer of the naval activity involved, if it is known. Otherwise, it shall be submitted to the commanding officer of any naval activity, preferably the one within which, or nearest to which, the incident occurred, or to the Office of the Judge Advocate General of the Navy, (Claims and Tort Litigation), 1322 Patterson Avenue, SE., Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20375-5066.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claim form.</I> A claim is correct in form if it constitutes written notification of an incident, signed by the claimant or a duly authorized agent or legal representative, with a claim for money damages in a sum certain. A Standard Form 95 is preferred. A claim should be substantiated as discussed in section 750.27 of this part. A claim must be substantiated as required by this part in order to be paid. See 10 U.S.C. 2733(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendment of claim.</I> A proper claim may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final denial or payment of the claim. An amendment shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or a duly authorized agent or legal representative.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payment.</I> Claims approved for payment shall be forwarded to such disbursing officer as may be designated by the Comptroller of the Navy for payment from appropriations designated for that purpose. If the Secretary of the Navy considers that a claim in excess of $100,000.00 is meritorious and would otherwise be covered by 10 U.S.C. 2733 and § 750.43, he may make a partial payment of $100,000.00 and refer the excess to the General Accounting Office for payment from appropriations provided therefore.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.46" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.46   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims arising within the United States, Territories, Commonwealth, and Possessions.</I> The law of the place where the act or omission occurred will be applied in determining liability and the effect of contributory or comparative negligence on claimant's right of recovery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims within foreign countries.</I> (1) Where the claim is for personal injury, death, or damage to or loss or destruction of real or personal property caused by an act or omission determined to be negligent, wrongful, or otherwise involving fault of DON personnel acting within the scope of their employment, liability of the United States will be assessed under general principles of tort law common to the majority of American jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(2) Apply the law of the foreign country governing the legal effect of contributory or comparative negligence by the claimant to determine the relative merits of the claim. If there is no foreign law on contributory or comparative negligence, apply traditional rules of contributory negligence. Apply foreign rules and regulations on operation of motor vehicles (rules of the road) to the extent those rules are not specifically superseded or preempted by U.S. Armed Forces traffic regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principles applicable to all MCA claims.</I> (1) “Scope of employment” is determined in accordance with Federal law. Reported FTCA cases provide guidance on this determination;
</P>
<P>(2) Claims for emotional distress will be considered only from the injured person or members of the injured person's immediate family. Claims from the injured person's immediate “zone of danger” (<I>i.e.</I>, immediate vicinity of the incident) and the claimant substantiates the claim with proof of the physical manifestation(s) of the emotional distress; and
</P>
<P>(3) Claims under the MCA do not include the principles of absolute liability and punitive damages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clarification of terms.</I> Federal law determines the meaning and construction of the MCA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.47" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.47   Measure of damages for property claims.</HEAD>
<P>Determine the measure of damages in property claims arising in the United States or its territories, commonwealth, or possessions under the law of the place where the incident occurred. Determine the measure of damages in property claims arising overseas under general principles of American tort law, stated as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) If the property has been or can be economically repaired, the measure of damages shall be the actual or estimated net cost of the repairs necessary to substantially restore the property to the condition that existed immediately prior to the incident. Damages shall not exceed the value of the property immediately prior to the incident less the value thereof immediately after the incident. To determine the actual or estimated net cost of repairs, the value of any salvaged parts or materials and the amount of any net appreciation in value effected through the repair shall be deducted from the actual or estimated gross cost of repairs. The amount of any net depreciation in the value of the property shall be added to such gross cost of repairs, if such adjustments are sufficiently substantial in amount to warrant consideration. Estimates of the cost of repairs shall be based upon the lower or lowest of two or more competitive bids, or upon statements or estimates by one or more competent and disinterested persons, preferably reputable dealers or officials familiar with the type of property damaged, lost, or destroyed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the property cannot be economically repaired, the measure of damages shall be the value of the property immediately prior to the incident less the value immediately after the incident. Estimates of value shall be made, if possible, by one or more competent and disinterested persons, preferably reputable dealers or officials familiar with the type of property damaged, lost, or destroyed.
</P>
<P>(c) Loss of use of damaged property which is economically repairable may, if claimed, be included as an additional element of damage to the extent of the reasonable expense actually incurred for appropriate substitute property, for such period reasonably necessary for repairs, as long as idle property of the claimant was not employed as a substitute. When substitute property is not obtainable, other competent evidence such as rental value, if not speculative or remote, may be considered. When substitute property is reasonably available but not obtained and used by the claimant, loss of use is normally not payable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.48" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.48   Measure of damages in injury or death cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an injury or death arises within the United States or its territories, commonwealth, or possessions, determine the measure of damages under the law of the location where the injury arises.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an injury or death arises in a foreign country and is otherwise cognizable and meritorious under this provision, damages will be determined in accordance with general principles of American tort law. The following is provided as guidance.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Measure of damages for overseas personal injury claims.</I> Allowable compensation includes reasonable medical and hospital expenses necessarily incurred, compensation for lost earnings and services, diminution of earning capacity, anticipated medical expenses, physical disfigurement, and pain and suffering.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wrongful death claims arising in foreign countries.</I> (i) Allowable compensation includes that in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, burial expenses, loss of support and services, loss of companionship, comfort, society, protection, and consortium, and loss of training, guidance, education, and nurturing, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim may be presented by or on behalf of the decedent's spouse, parent, child, or dependent relative. Claims may be consolidated for joint presentation by a representative of some or all of the beneficiaries or may be filed by a proper beneficiary individually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.49" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.49   Delegations of adjudicating authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> (1) The Secretary of the Navy may settle or deny claims in any amount. The Secretary may pay the first $100,000.00 and report the excess to the Comptroller General for payment under 31 U.S.C. 1304. <I>See</I> 10 U.S.C. 2733(d).
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General has delegated authority to settle claims for $100,000.00 or less.
</P>
<P>(3) The Deputy Judge Advocate General, the Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Law), the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation), and Head, Tort Claims Branch (Claims and Tort Litigation), have delegated authority to settle claims for $25,000.00 or less, and have denial authority in any amount.
</P>
<P>(4) Individuals with settlement authority under paragraph (a)(3) of this section may delegate all or part of their settlement authority. Such delegation must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appellate authority.</I> Adjudicating authorities have the same authority as delegated in paragraph (a) of this section to act upon appeals. No appellate authority below the Secretary of the Navy may deny an appeal of a claim it had previously denied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53420, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.50" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.50   Advance payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph applies exclusively to the payment of amounts not to exceed $100,000.00 under 10 U.S.C. 2736 in advance of submission of a claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory authority.</I> Title 10 U.S.C. 2736 authorizes the Secretary of the Navy or designee to pay an amount not in excess of $100,000.00 in advance of the submission of a claim to or for any person, or the legal representative of any person, who was injured or killed, or whose property was damaged or lost, as the result of an accident for which allowance of a claim is authorized by law. Payment under this law is limited to that which would be payable under the MCA (10 U.S.C. 2733). Payment of an amount under this law is not an admission by the United States of liability for the accident concerned. Any amount so paid shall be deducted from any amount that may be allowed under any other provision of law to the person or his legal representative for injury, death, damage, or loss attributable to the accident concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Officials with authority to make advance payments.</I> (1) The Secretary of the Navy has authority to make advance payments up to $100,000.00
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General has delegated authority to make advance payments up to $100,000.00.
</P>
<P>(3) The Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) and the Head, Tort Claims Branch (Claims and Tort Litigation) have delegated authority to make advance payments up to $25,000.00.
</P>
<P>(4) Naval Legal Service Office commanding officers and the Officer in Charge, U.S. Sending State Office for Italy have delegated authority to make advance payments up to $5,000.00.
</P>
<P>(5) Officers in Charge of Naval Legal Service Office Detachments, when specifically designated by cognizant Commanding Officers of Naval Legal Service Offices; and the Staff Judge Advocate at the U.S. Naval Station, Panama Canal have delegated authority to make advance payments up to $3,000.00.
</P>
<P>(6) Overseas commands with a Judge Advocate General's Corps officer or a judge advocate of the Marine Corps attached, have delegated authority to make advance payments up to $3,000.00.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions for advance payments.</I> Prior to making an advance payment under 10 U.S.C. 2736, the adjudicating authority shall ascertain that:
</P>
<P>(1) The injury, death, damage, or loss would be payable under the MCA (10 U.S.C. 2733);
</P>
<P>(2) The payee, insofar as can be determined, would be a proper claimant, or is the spouse or next of kin of a proper claimant who is incapacitated;
</P>
<P>(3) The provable damages are estimated to exceed the amount to be paid;
</P>
<P>(4) There exists an immediate need of the person who suffered the injury, damage, or loss, or of his family, or of the family of a person who was killed, for food, clothing, shelter, medical, or burial expenses, or other necessities, and other resources for such expenses are not reasonably available;
</P>
<P>(5) The prospective payee has signed a statement that it is understood that payment is not an admission by the Navy or the United States of liability for the accident concerned, and that the amount paid is not a gratuity but shall constitute an advance against and shall be deducted from any amount that may be allowed under any other provision of law to the person or his legal representative for injury, death, damage, or loss attributable to the accident concerned; and
</P>
<P>(6) No payment under 10 U.S.C. 2736 may be made if the accident occurred in a foreign country in which the NATO Status of Forces Agreement (4 U.S.T. 1792, TIAS 2846) or other similar agreement is in effect and the injury, death, damage, or loss
</P>
<P>(i) Was caused by a member or employee of the DON acting within the scope of employment or
</P>
<P>(ii) Occurred “incident to noncombat activities” of the DON as defined in § 750.43.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4722, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53421, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.51" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.51   Final disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claimant to be notified.</I> The adjudicating authority shall notify the claimant, in writing, of the action taken on the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final denial.</I> A final denial, in whole or in part, of any MCA claim shall be in writing and sent to the claimant, or his attorney or legal representative, by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested. The notification of denial shall include a statement of the reason or reasons for denial and that the claimant may appeal. The notification shall also inform the claimant:
</P>
<P>(1) The title of the appellate authority who will act on the appeal and that the appeal will be addressed to the adjudicating authority who last acted on the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) No form is prescribed for the appeal, but the grounds for appeal should be set forth fully.
</P>
<P>(3) The appeal must be submitted within 30 days of receipt by the claimant of notice of action on the claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.52" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.52   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim which is disapproved in whole or in part may be appealed by the claimant at any time within 30 days after receipt of notification of disapproval. An appeal shall be in writing and state the grounds relied upon. An appeal is not an adversary proceeding and a hearing is not authorized; however, the claimant may obtain and submit any additional evidence or written argument for consideration by the appellate authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt, the adjudicating authority examines the appeal, determines whether the appeal complies with this regulation, and reviews the claims investigative file to ensure it is complete. The claim, with the complete investigative file and a memorandum of law, will be forwarded to the appellate authority for action. If the evidence in the file, including information submitted by the claimant with the appeal, indicates the appeal should be approved, the adjudicating authority may treat the appeal as a request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) Processing of the appeal may be delayed pending further efforts by the adjudicating authority to settle the claim. Where the adjudicating authority does not reach a final agreement on an appealed claim, it shall send the entire claim file to the next higher settlement authority, who is the appellate authority for that claim.
</P>
<P>(d) The appellate authority shall notify the claimant in writing of the determination on appeal; that such determination constitutes the final administrative action on the claim; and there is no right to sue under the MCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.53" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.53   Cross-servicing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) See § 750.13 or information about single-service claims responsibility under DODDIR 5515.8 of 9 June 1990.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims settlement procedures.</I> Where a single service has been assigned a country or area claims responsibility, that service will settle claims cognizable under the MCA under the regulations of that service. The forwarding command shall afford any assistance necessary to the appropriate service in the investigation and adjudication of such claims.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.54" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.54   Payment of costs, settlements, and judgments related to certain medical or legal malpractice claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Requests for reimbursement/indemnification of costs, settlements, and judgments cognizable under 10 U.S.C. 1089(f) [for personal injury or death caused by any physician, dentist, nurse, pharmacist, paramedic, or other supporting personnel (including medical and dental technicians, nurse assistants, and therapists)] or 10 U.S.C. 1054(f) (for damages for injury or loss of property caused by any attorney, paralegal, or other member of a legal staff) while acting as DON personnel will be paid if:
</P>
<P>(1) The alleged negligent or wrongful actions or omissions arose in connection with either providing health care functions or legal services and within the scope of employment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such personnel furnish prompt notification and delivery of all process served or received, and other documents, information, and assistance as requested; and cooperate in defending the action on the merits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for Indemnification.</I> All requests for indemnification for personal liability of DON personnel for acts or omissions arising out of assigned duties shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General for action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.55" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.55   Attorney's fees.</HEAD>
<P>Attorney's fees not in excess of 20 percent of any settlement may be allowed. Attorney's fees so determined are to be paid out of the amount awarded and not in addition to the award. These fee limitations shall be incorporated in any settlement agreement secured from a claimant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 750.56-750.60" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 750.56-750.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Claims Not Cognizable Under Any Other Provision of Law</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.61" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.61   Scope of subpart D.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides information on payment of claims against the United States, not payable under any other statute, caused by the act or omission, negligent, wrongful, or otherwise involving fault, of Department of the Navy (DON) military and civilian personnel (hereinafter DON personnel) acting outside the scope of their employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.62" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.62   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2737 of title 10, United States Code, provides authority for the administrative settlement in an amount not to exceed $1,000.00 of any claim against the United States not cognizable under any other provision of law for damage, loss, or destruction of property or for personal injury or death caused by military personnel or a civilian official or employee of a military department incident to the use of a vehicle of the United States at any place, or any other property of the United States on a Government installation. There is no right to sue. There are no territorial limitations and the Act has worldwide application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.63" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.63   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Civilian official or employee.</I> Any civilian employee of the DON paid from appropriated funds at the time of the incident.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vehicle.</I> Includes every description of carriage or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on land. See 1 U.S.C. 4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government installation.</I> Any Federal facility having fixed boundaries and owned or controlled by the U.S. Government. It includes both military bases and nonmilitary installations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.64" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.64   Claim procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general provisions of subpart A of this part shall apply in determining what is a proper claim, who is a proper claimant, and how a claim is to be investigated and processed under 10 U.S.C. 2737 and this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim is presented when the DON receives from a claimant or the claimant's duly authorized agent, written notification of a nonscope claim incident accompanied by a demand for money damages in a sum certain.
</P>
<P>(c) A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to final action. Amendments will be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or the claimant's duly authorized agent.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims submitted under the provisions of the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) or Military Claims Act (MCA) shall be considered automatically for an award under this section when payment would otherwise be barred because the DON personnel were not in the scope of their employment at the time of the incident. If a tender of payment under this section is not accepted by the claimant in full satisfaction of the claim, no award will be made, and the claim will be denied pursuant to the rules applicable to the statute under which it was submitted.
</P>
<P>(e) Damages caused by latent defects of ordinary, commercial type, Government equipment that were not payable under the MCA, Foreign Claims Act, or FTCA are payable under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Nonscope claims for damages caused by local national DON employees overseas are also payable under this section if the injury was caused by the use of Government equipment.
</P>
<P>(g) Payment may not be made on a nonscope claim unless the claimant accepts the amount offered in full satisfaction of the claim and signs a settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(h) Payment for nonscope claims adjudicated by field commands will be affected through their local disbursing office by use of funds obtained from the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(i) Claims submitted solely under 10 U.S.C. 2737 shall be promptly considered. If a nonscope claim is denied, the claimant shall be informed of reasons in writing and advised he may appeal in writing to the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General) provided the appeal is received within 30 days of the notice of denial. The provisions of § 750.51(b) of subpart C also apply to denials of nonscope claims.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.65" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.65   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim must be presented in writing within 2 years after it accrues. It accrues at the time the claimant discovers, or in the exercise of reasonable care should have discovered, the existence of the act or omission for which the claim is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) In computing time to determine whether the period of limitation has expired, exclude the incident date and include the date the claim was presented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.66" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.66   Officials with authority to settle.</HEAD>
<P>Judge Advocate General; Deputy Judge Advocate General; Assistant Judge Advocate General (General Law); Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation); and Head, Tort Claims Branch (Claims and Tort Litigation) may settle a nonscope claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53421, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.67" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.67   Scope of liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the exceptions in § 750.68 of specific claims not payable, the United States shall not pay more than $1,000.00 for a claim against the United States, not cognizable under any other provision of law, except Article 139, UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Article 139, UCMJ, 10 U.S.C. 939, is not preemptive. The prohibition in 10 U.S.C. 2737 on paying claims “not cognizable under any other provisions of law” applies only to law authorizing claims against the United States. Article 139 authorizes claims against servicemembers. See part 755 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.68" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.68   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for damage, loss, or destruction of property or the personal injury or death caused wholly or partly by a negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or his agent or employee.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim, or any part thereof, that is legally recoverable by the claimant under an indemnifying law or indemnity contract.
</P>
<P>(c) A subrogated claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.69" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.11.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.69   Measure of damages.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, the measure-of-damage provisions under the MCA are used to determine the extent of recovery for nonscope claims. Compensation is computed in accordance with §§ 750.47 and 750.48 of subpart C, except damages for personal injury or death under this section shall not be for more than the cost of reasonable medical, hospital, and burial expenses actually incurred and not otherwise furnished or paid for by the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="751" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 751—PERSONNEL CLAIMS REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 5013 and 5148; E.O. 12473, 3 CFR, 1984 Comp., p. 201.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Claims Against the United States</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes procedures and substantive bases for administrative settlement of claims against the United States submitted by Department of Navy (DoN) personnel and civilian employees of the naval establishment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53422, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.2   Claims against the United States: In general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maximum amount payable.</I> The Military and Civilian Employees' Personnel Claims Act (Personnel Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3702, and 3721 (2004)), provides that the maximum amount payable for any loss or damage arising from a single incident is limited to $40,000.00. Where the loss of or damage to personal property arose from emergency evacuations or other extraordinary circumstances, the maximum is $100,000.00.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional instructions.</I> The Judge Advocate General of the Navy may issue additional instructions or guidance as necessary to give full force and effect to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preemption.</I> The provisions of this section and the Personnel Claims Act are preemptive of other claims regulations. Claims not allowable under the Personnel Claims Act may, however, be allowable under another claims act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other claims.</I> Claims arising from the operation of a ship's store, laundry, dry cleaning facility, tailor shop, or cobbler shop should be processed in accordance with NAVSUP P487.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53422, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.3   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Personnel Claims Act provides the authority for maximum payment up to $40,000, $100,000 in extraordinary circumstances for loss, damage, or destruction of personal property of military personnel or civilian employees incident to their service. No claim may be paid unless it is presented in writing within 2 years of the incident that gave rise to the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53422, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.4   Construction.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section and the Personnel Claims Act provide limited compensation to service members and civilian employees of the DON for loss and damage to personal property incurred incident to service. This limited compensation is not a substitute for private insurance. Although not every loss may be compensated under the Personnel Claims Act, its provisions shall be broadly construed to provide reasonable compensation on meritorious claims. Adjudications must be based on common sense and the reasoned judgment of the claims examiner giving the benefit of realistic doubt to the claimant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper claimants</I>—(1) <I>Members of the DON.</I> All Navy and Marine Corps active duty members and reservists on active duty for training under Federal law whether commissioned, enrolled, appointed, or enlisted. A retired member may only claim under this Act if loss or damage occurred while the claimant was on active duty or in connection with the claimant's last movement of personal property incident to service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civilian employees of the Navy.</I> Federal employees of the naval establishment paid from appropriated funds. This term does not include Red Cross employees, USO personnel, and employees of Government contractors (including technical representatives).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Claims by non-appropriated fund employees.</I> Claims by employees of Navy and Marine Corps non-appropriated fund activities for loss, damage, or destruction of personal property incident to their employment will be processed and adjudicated in accordance with this part and forwarded to the appropriate local non-appropriated fund activity that employs the claimant for payment from non-appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Separation from service.</I> Separation from the service or termination of employment shall not bar former military personnel or civilian employees from filing claims or bar designated personnel from considering, ascertaining, adjusting, determining, and authorizing payment of claims otherwise falling within the provision of these regulations when such claim accrued prior to separation or termination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Agent or legal representative.</I> The authorized agent or legal representative of a proper claimant may file on behalf of the claimant if the agent provides a power of attorney that complies with local law. Certain relatives of a deceased proper claimant may file any claim the claimant could have filed. The PCA identifies these relatives in order of priority. If multiple persons who the statute lists as equals in priority file separate claims, the first claim settled extinguishes the rights of the other claimants. The estate of a deceased proper party claimant is not a proper claimant, nor is an executor or personal representative who cannot file as a survivor. The PCA ranks surviving relatives in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse;
</P>
<P>(ii) Child or children;
</P>
<P>(iii) Father, mother, or both;
</P>
<P>(iv) Brother, sister, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Improper claimants.</I> Insurers, assignees, subrogees, vendors, lienholders, contractors, subcontractors and their employees, and other persons not specifically mentioned as proper claimants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unusual occurrence.</I> Serious events and natural disaster not expected to take place in the normal course of events and hazards outside the normal risks of day-to-day living and working. Two different types of incidents may be considered unusual occurrences: those of an unusual nature and those of a common nature that occur to an unexpected degree of severity. Examples of unusual occurrences include structural defects in quarters, faulty plumbing maintenance, termite or rodent damage, unusually large size hail, and hazardous health conditions due to Government use of toxic chemicals. Examples of occurrences that are not unusual include potholes or foreign objects in the road, ice and snow sliding off a roof onto a vehicle, and tears, rips, snags, or stains on clothing. Claims that electrical or electronic devices were damaged by a power surge may be paid when lightning has actually struck the claimant's residence or objects outside the residence, such as a transformer box, or when power company records or similar evidence shows that a particular residence or group of residences was subjected to a power surge of unusual intensity. In areas subject to frequent thunderstorms or power fluctuations, claimants are expected to use surge suppressors, if available, to protect delicate items such as computers or videocassette recorders.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal property.</I> Property including but not limited to household goods, unaccompanied baggage, privately owned vehicles (POV's), mobile homes, and boats.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intangible property.</I> Property that has no intrinsic marketable value such as bankbooks, checks, promissory notes, non-negotiable stock certificates, bonds, baggage checks, insurance policies, money orders, and travelers checks.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Vehicles.</I> Include automobiles, motorcycles, mopeds, jet skis, utility trailers, camping trailers, trucks, mounted camper bodies, motor homes, boats, boat trailers, bicycles, and aircraft. Mobile homes and other property used as dwelling places are not considered vehicles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53422, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.6   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims for loss, damage, or destruction of property may be considered as set out below if possession of the property was reasonable and useful under the circumstances and the loss did not result from the negligence of the claimant. The following are examples of more common claims. Not all situations that may result in a claim are covered, but the processes described in the examples on how to approach, investigate, and adjudicate claims are applicable to all claims filed.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Transportation and storage losses.</I> (1) Incurred during transportation under orders, whether in possession of the Government, carrier, storage warehouse, or other Government contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) Incurred during travel under orders, including temporary duty.
</P>
<P>(3) Incurred during travel on a space available basis on a military aircraft, vessel, or vehicle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Do-it-yourself (DITY) moves.</I> In certain circumstances, loss of or damage to property during a DITY move is compensable. Claimants, however, are required to substantiate the fact of loss or damage in shipment. Claimants who do not prepare inventories have difficulty substantiating thefts. In addition, unless evidence shows that something outside the claimant's control caused the damage, breakage is presumed to be the result of improper packing by the claimant. For example, if a claimant's truck is rear-ended by a drunk driver during a DITY move, it is out of claimant's control. If the claimant can substantiate that he was free from negligence, he can file a claim for damages to his household goods.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shipment or storage at the claimant's expense.</I> The Government will not compensate a claimant for loss or damage that occurs while property is being shipped or stored at the claimant's expense, even if the Government reimburses the claimant for the shipment or storage fees. The reason for this is that there is no contract, called a Government Bill of Lading, between the Government and the carrier. In such cases, the claimant must claim against the carrier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Losses at assigned quarters or other authorized places.</I> Damage or loss caused by fire, explosion, theft, vandalism, lightning, flood, earthquake, and unusual occurrences is cognizable. Losses due to theft may only be paid if the claimant took reasonable measures to safeguard the property and theft occurred as a result of a forced entry. Claimants are expected to secure windows and doors of their barracks, quarters, wall lockers, and other storage areas so that the thief must force an entry. If a police report states that there were no signs of forced entry and the claimant asserts with absolute certainty that the area was in fact secure, the claims examiner must consider whether forced entry would have left visible signs. Claimants are also expected to take extra measures to protect cash, valuable jewelry, and similar small, easily pilferable items. Normally, such items should be kept in a locked container within a secured room. It is also advisable that the locked container be large enough that it is not convenient for a thief to carry off. Bicycles located at quarters or on base must be secured to a fixed object. Overseas housing is considered assigned quarters for claimants who are not local inhabitants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vehicle losses.</I> (1) Losses incurred while a vehicle is used in the performance of a military duty, if such use was authorized or directed for the convenience of the Government, provided the travel did not include commuting to or from a permanent place of duty, and did not arise from mechanical or structural defect of the vehicle. There is no requirement that the loss be due to fire, flood, hurricane, or other unusual occurrence, or to theft or vandalism. As a general rule, however, travel is not considered to be for the convenience of the Government unless it was pursuant to written orders authorizing use for which the claimant is entitled to reimbursement. The claimant must be free from negligence in order to be paid for a collision loss. Travel by the claimant to other buildings on the installation is not loss. Travel by the claimant to other buildings on the installation is not considered to be under orders for the convenience of the Government. Travel off the installation without written orders may only be deemed to be for the convenience of the Government if the claimant was authorized mileage reimbursement for the travel. The issuance of written orders after the fact raises the presumption that travel was not authorized for the convenience of the Government. The maximum payment authorized by the Allowance List-Depreciation Guide (ALDG) still applies to loss of or damage to vehicles and contents. This maximum does not apply to DITY moves.
</P>
<P>(2) Losses incurred while a vehicle is shipped at Government expense are compensable provided the loss or damage did not arise from mechanical or structural defect of the vehicle during such shipment. Damage caused during shipment at the claimant's expense or while the vehicle is being moved to or from the port by an agent of the claimant is not compensable.
</P>
<P>(3) Losses incurred while a vehicle is located at quarters or other authorized place of lodging, including garages, carports, driveways, assigned parking spaces, if the loss or damage is caused by fire, flood, hurricane, theft, or vandalism, or other unusual occurrence. Vandalism is damage intentionally caused. Stray marks caused by children playing, falling branches, gravel thrown by other vehicles, or similar occurrences are not vandalism. The amount payable on vandalism claims is limited to the maximum payment authorized by the ALDG.
</P>
<P>(4) Incurred while a vehicle is located at places other than quarters but on a military installation, if the loss or damage is caused by fire, flood, hurricane, theft, or vandalism, or other unusual occurrence. “Military installation” is used broadly to describe any fixed land area, wherever situated, controlled, and used by military activities or the Department of Defense (DOD). A vehicle properly on the installation should be presumed to be used incident to the claimant's service. A vehicle that is not properly insured or registered in accordance with local regulations is not properly on the installation. A vehicle left in a remote area of the installation that is not a designated long-term parking area for an undue length of time is presumed not to be on the installation incident to service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Theft of property stored inside a vehicle.</I> A loss resulting from theft of property stored inside a vehicle is compensable if it was reasonable for the claimant to have the property in the vehicle and neither the claimant nor the claimant's agents were negligent in protecting the property. Neither the passenger compartment nor the trunk of a vehicle is a proper place for the long-term storage of property unconnected with the use of the vehicle. The passenger compartment of a vehicle does not provide adequate security, except for very short periods of time for articles that are not of high value or easily pilferable. Car covers and bras are payable if bolted or secured to the vehicle with a wire locking device.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rental vehicles.</I> Damage to rental vehicles is considered under paragraphs of the Joint Federal Travel Regulations (JFTR), rather than as a loss incident to service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mobile homes and contents in shipment.</I> Claims for damage to mobile homes and contents in shipment are payable unless the damage was caused by structural or mechanical defects or by the claimant's negligence in securing the mobile home or packing its contents.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Borrowed property (including vehicles).</I> Loss or damage to borrowed property is compensable if it was borrowed for claimant's or dependent's own use. A statement will be provided by the owner of the property attesting to the use of the property by the claimant.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clothing and articles being worn.</I> Repairs/replacement of clothing and articles being worn while on a military installation or in the performance of official duty may be paid if loss is caused by fire, flood, hurricane, theft, or vandalism, or other unusual occurrence. This paragraph shall be broadly construed in favor of compensation, but see § 751.5(c) for the definition of unusual occurrence. Articles being worn include hearing aids, eyeglasses, and items the claimant is carrying, such as a briefcase.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Personal property held as evidence or confiscated property.</I> If property belonging to the victim of a crime is to be held as evidence for an extended period of time (in excess of 2 months) and the temporary loss of the property will work a grave hardship on the claimant, a claim for the loss may be considered for payment. This provision will not be used unless every effort has been made to determine whether secondary evidence, such as photographs, may be substituted for the item. No compensation is allowed to a person suspected of an offense for property seized from that same person in the investigation of that offense. This also applies to property a foreign government unjustly confiscates or an unjust change in a foreign law that forces surrender or abandonment of property.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Theft from possession of claimant.</I> Theft from the person of the claimant is reimbursable if the theft occurred by use of force, violence, or threat to do bodily harm, or by snatching or pickpocketing, and at the time of theft the claimant was either on a military installation, utilizing a recreation facility operated or sponsored by the Department of Defense or any agency thereof, or in the performance of official duty. The theft must have been reported to appropriate police authorities as soon as practicable, and it must have been reasonable for the claimant to have had on his person the quality and the quantity of the property allegedly stolen.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Property used for the benefit of the Government.</I> Compensation is authorized where property is damaged or lost while being used in the performance of Government business at the direction or request of superior authority or by reason of military necessity.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Money deposited for safekeeping, transmittal, or other authorized disposition.</I> Compensation is authorized for personal funds delivered to and accepted by military and civilian personnel authorized by the commanding officer to receive these funds for safekeeping, deposit, transmittal, or other authorized disposition, if the funds were neither applied as directed by the owner nor returned to the owner.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Fees</I>—(1) <I>For obtaining certain documents.</I> The fees for replacing birth certificates, marriage certificates, college diplomas, passports, or similar documents may be allowed if the original or a certified copy is lost or destroyed incident to service. In general, compensation will only be allowed for replacing documents with a raised seal that are official in nature. No compensation will be allowed for documents that are representative of value, such as stock certificates, or for personal letters or records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimate fees.</I> An estimate fee is a fixed cost charged by a person in the business of repairing property to provide an estimate of what it would cost to repair property. An estimate fee in excess of $75.00 should be examined with great care to determine whether it is reasonable. A person becomes obligated to pay an estimated fee when the estimate is prepared. An estimate fee should not be confused with an appraisal fee, which is not compensable (see § 751.7(m)). A reasonable estimate fee is compensable if it is not going to be credited toward the cost of repair. If it is to be credited toward the cost of repair, it is not compensable regardless of whether the claimant chooses to have the work done. When an estimate fee is claimed, the file must reflect whether the fee is to be credited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53422, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.7   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Losses in unassigned quarters in the United States.</I> Claims for property damaged or lost at quarters occupied by the claimant within the United States that are not assigned or otherwise provided by the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Currency or jewelry shipped or stored in baggage.</I> Claims for lost currency, shipped or stored in baggage are not payable. Small, valuable, highly pilferable items should normally be hand-carried rather than shipped, however, if expensive or valuable jewelry or coin collections are shipped, a full description of each item of expensive jewelry and of any coin or money collection must be listed and described on the inventory for its loss to be payable. Each item must also be listed as missing at the time of delivery. If not noted at the time of delivery, the claimant must satisfactorily explain why.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enemy property or war trophies.</I> This includes only property that was originally enemy property or a war trophy that passed into the hands of a collector and was then purchased by a claimant.
</P>
<P>(d) Unserviceable or Worn-Out Property.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loss or damage to property to the extent of any available insurance coverage.</I> Except for claims for loss or damage to household goods or privately-owned vehicles (POVS) while shipped or stored at Government expense, when the property lost, damaged, or destroyed is insured, the claimant must make a demand for payment against the insurance company under the terms of the policy.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inconvenience or loss of use.</I> Expenses arising from late delivery of personal property, including but not limited to the expenses for food, lodging, and furniture rental, loss of use, interest, carrying charges, attorney's fees, telephone calls, additional costs of transporting claimant or family members, time spent in preparation of claim, or cost of insurance are not compensable. While such claims do not lie against the Government, members should be referred to the Personal Property Office for assistance in filing their inconvenience claims against the commercial carriers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Items of speculative value.</I> Theses, manuscripts, unsold paintings, or a similar creative or artistic work done by the claimant, friend, or a relative is limited to the cost of materials only. The value of such items is speculative. Compensation for a utilitarian object made by the claimant, such as a quilt or bookcase, is limited to the value of an item of similar quality.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Loss or damage to property due to negligence of the claimant.</I> Negligence is a failure to exercise the degree of care expected under the circumstances that is the proximate cause of the loss. Losses due, in whole or in part, to the negligence of the claimant, the claimant's spouse, child, houseguest, employee, or agent are not compensable.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Business property.</I> Losses of items acquired for resale or use in a private business are not compensable. If property is acquired for both business and personal use, compensation will not be allowed if business use is substantial, or is the primary purpose for which the item was purchased, or if the item is designed for professional use and is not normally intended for personal use.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Motor vehicles.</I> Collision damage is not payable unless it meets the criteria for payment as property used for the benefit of the Government as established in § 751.6(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Violation of law or directives.</I> Property acquired, possessed, or transported unlawfully or in violation of competent regulations or directives. This includes vehicles, weapons, or property shipped to accommodate another person, as well as property used to transport contraband.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Sales tax.</I> Sales taxes associated with repair or replacement costs will not be considered unless the claimant provides proof that the sales tax was actually paid.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Appraisal fees.</I> An appraisal, as distinguished from an estimate of replacement or repair, is defined as a valuation of an item provided by a person who is not in the business of selling or repairing that type of property. Normally, claimants are expected to obtain appraisals on expensive items at their own expense.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Quantities of property not reasonable or useful under the circumstances are not compensable.</I> Factors to be considered are claimant's living conditions, family size, social obligations, and any particular need to have more than average quantities, as well as the actual circumstances surrounding the acquisition and loss.
</P>
<P>(o) Intangible Property, such as Bankbooks, Checks, Promissory Notes, Stock Certificates, Bonds, Bills of Lading, Warehouse Receipts, Baggage Checks, Insurance Policies, Money Orders, and Traveler's Checks are not Compensable.
</P>
<P>(p) Property Owned by the United States, Except where the Claimant is Responsible to an Agency of the Government other than the DON.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Contractual coverage.</I> Losses, or any portion thereof, that have been recovered or are recoverable pursuant to contract are not compensable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53423, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.8   Adjudicating authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims by Navy personnel.</I> (l) The following officials are authorized to adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to $100,000:
</P>
<P>(i) The Judge Advocate General;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Deputy Judge Advocate General;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any Assistant Judge Advocate General; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation).
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual, when designated by the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation Division), may adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to any designated amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims by Marine Corps personnel.</I> (1) The following officials are authorized to adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to $40,000:
</P>
<P>(i) Commandant of the Marine Corps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deputy Commandant, Manpower and Reserve Affairs Department;
</P>
<P>(iii) Director, Personal and Family Readiness Division;
</P>
<P>(iv) Head, Military Personnel Services Branch;
</P>
<P>(v) Head, Personal Property Claims Section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any individual personally designated by the Commandant of the Marine Corps may adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to any delegated amount not to exceed $40,000.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Head, Personal Property Claims Section is authorized to adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to $25,000.
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual at Marine Corps Field Transportation Management Office/Claims Activities, when personally designated by the Director, Personal and Family Readiness Division, may be authorized to adjudicate and authorize payment of PCA claims up to any delegated amount not to exceed $40,000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53423, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.9   Presentment of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A claim shall be submitted in writing and, if practicable, be presented to the Personnel Claims Unit or Marine Corps claims office serving the area where the claim accrued, such as where the House Hold Goods were delivered. If submission in accordance with the foregoing is impractical under the circumstance, the claim may be submitted in writing to any installation or establishment of the Armed Forces which will forward the claim to the appropriate Navy or Marine Corps claims office for processing. To constitute a filing, a claim must be presented in writing to one of the military departments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> A claim must be presented in writing to a military installation within 2 years after it accrues. This requirement is statutory and may only be waived if a claim accrues during armed conflict, or armed conflict intervenes before the 2 years have run, and good cause is shown. In this situation, a claim may be presented not later than 2 years after the end of the armed conflict. A claim accrues on the day the claimant knows or should know of the loss. For losses that occur in shipment of personal property, normally the day of delivery or the day the claimant loses entitlement to storage at Government expense (whichever occurs first) is the day the claim accrues. If a claimant's entitlement to Government storage terminates, but the property is later delivered at Government expense, the claim accrues on delivery. In computing the 2 years, exclude the first day (day of delivery or incident) and include the last day. If the last day falls on a non-workday, extend the 2 years to the next workday.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substantiation.</I> The claimant is responsible for substantiating ownership or possession, the fact of loss or damage, and the value of property. Claimants are expected to report losses promptly. The greater the delay in reporting a loss, the more substantiation the claimant is expected to provide.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Obviously damaged or missing inventory items that are not reported at delivery.</I> Claimants are expected to list missing inventory items and obvious damage at time of delivery. Claimants who do not should be questioned. Obviously some claimants will simply not notice readily apparent damage. If, however, the claimant cannot provide an explanation or lacks credibility, payment should be denied based on lack of evidence that the item was lost or damaged in shipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Later-discovered shipment loss or damage.</I> A claimant has 70 days to unpack, discover, and report loss and damage that is not obvious at delivery. In most cases, loss and damage that is discovered later and reported in a timely manner should be deemed to have been incurred in shipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Damage to POVs in shipment.</I> Persons shipping POVs are expected to list damage on DD Form 788 (Private Vehicle Shipping Document for Automobile) when they pick up the vehicle. Obvious external damage that is not listed is not payable. Damage the claimant could reasonably be expected not to notice at the pickup point should be considered if the claimant reports the damage to claims or transportation office personnel within a short time, normally a few days after arriving at the installation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credibility.</I> Factors that indicate a claimant's credibility is questionable include amounts claimed that are exaggerated in comparison with the cost of similar items, insignificant or almost undetectable damage, very recent purchase dates for most items claimed, and statements that appear incredible. Such claimants should be required to provide more evidence than is normally expected.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Inspections.</I> Whenever a question arises about damage to property, the best way to determine a proper award is to examine the items closely to determine the nature of the damage. For furniture, undersurfaces and the edges of drawers and doors should be examined to determine whether the material is solid hardwood, fine quality veneer over hardwood, veneer over pressed wood, or other types of material. If the inspection is conducted at the claimant's quarters, the general quality of property should be determined. Observations by repairmen and transportation inspectors are very valuable, but on occasion, claims examiners may request an inspection. Such inspections are necessary to reduce the number of reconsiderations and fraudulent claims and are invaluable in enabling claims personnel to understand the facts in many situations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53423, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.10   Form of claim.</HEAD>
<P>The claim should be submitted on DD Form 1842 (Claim for Personal Property) accompanied by DD Form 1844 (List of Property). If DD Forms 1842 and 1844 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> are not available, any writing will be accepted and considered if it asserts a demand for a specific sum and substantially describes the facts necessary to support a claim cognizable under these regulations. The claim must be signed by a proper claimant (see § 751.5) or by a person with a power of attorney for a proper claimant. A copy of the power of attorney must be included with the claim.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of these forms may be obtained by contacting the legal office or personal property office serving the installation where the claimant is stationed, or nearest to the point where the loss or damage occurred or on the Internet at <I>http://www.jag.navy.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5055, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53424, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.11   Investigation of claim.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a claim, the claim shall be stamped with the date and receiving office, forwarded to the cognizant PCU and be referred to a claims examiner. The examiner shall consider all information and evidence submitted with the claim and shall conduct such further investigation as may be necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53424, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.12   Payments.</HEAD>
<P>Payment of approved personnel claims will be made by the Navy or Marine Corps disbursing officer serving the adjudicating authority. Payments will be charged to funds made available to the adjudicating authority for this purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53424, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.13   Partial payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Partial payments when hardship exists.</I> When claimants suffer a significant, compensable loss of items that are needed for daily living, and can demonstrate a need for immediate funds to replace some of those items (e.g., food, clothes, baby items, etc.) the adjudicating authority may authorize a partial payment of an appropriate amount, normally one-half of the estimated total payment. When a partial payment is made a copy of the payment voucher and all other information related to the partial payment shall be placed in the claim file. Action shall be taken to ensure the amount of the partial payment is deducted from the adjudicated value of the claim when final payment is made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marine hardship payments.</I> The Marine claimant's Transportation Management Office shall ensure compliance with all requirements of § 751.14(a), and may request authority for payment by message from the Commandant of the Marine Corps (MRP-2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of partial payment.</I> Partial payments are to be subtracted from the adjudicated value of the claim before payment of the balance due. Overpayments are to be properly recouped.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53424, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 751.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 751.14   Reconsideration and appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When a claim is denied either in whole or in part, the claimant shall be given written notification of the initial adjudication and of the right to submit a written request for reconsideration to the original adjudicating authority within 6 months from the date the claimant receives notice of the initial adjudication of the claim. If a claimant requests reconsideration and if it is determined that the original action was erroneous or incorrect, it shall be modified and, when appropriate, a supplemental payment shall be approved. If full additional payment is not granted, the file shall be forwarded for reconsideration to the next higher adjudicating authority. For claims originally adjudicated by the Head, Personnel Claims Unit Norfolk, the files will be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation)(Code 15) for final action. The claimant shall be notified of this action either by letter or by copy of the letter forwarding the file to higher adjudicating authority. The forwarding letter shall include a synopsis of action taken on the file and reasons for the action or denial, as well as a recommendation of further action or denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Files forwarded to JAG.</I> For files forwarded to JAG in accordance with § 751.14(a), the forwarding endorsement shall include the specific reasons why the requested relief was not granted and shall address the specific points or complaints raised by the claimant's request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals procedure for claims submitted by Marine Corps personnel.</I> Where any of the Marine Corps adjudication authorities listed in § 751.8(b) fail to grant the relief requested, or otherwise resolve the claim to the satisfaction of the claimant, the request for reconsideration shall be forwarded together with the entire original file and the adjudicating authority's recommendation, to the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53424, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 751.15-751.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 751.15-751.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="752" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 752—ADMIRALTY CLAIMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 5013, 5148 and 7621-7623; 32 CFR 700.105 and 700.331.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 752.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to admiralty-tort claims. These include claims against the United States for damage caused by a vessel in the naval service or by other property under the jurisdiction of the Navy, or damage caused by a maritime tort committed by an agent or employee of the Navy for which the Navy has assumed an obligation to respond for damage. Affirmative claims by the United States for damage caused by a vessel or floating object to Navy property are covered under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 56268, Oct. 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.2   Organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative authority of the Secretary of the Navy.</I> The Secretary of the Navy has administrative authority for settlement and direct payment where the amount paid does not exceed $15,000,000 and where the matter is not in litigation, of claims for damage caused by naval vessels or by other property under the jurisdiction of the Navy, or damage caused by a maritime tort committed by an agent or employee of the Navy, and for towage or salvage services rendered to naval vessels (10 U.S.C. 7622). The Secretary also has authority to settle affirmative admiralty claims for damage caused by a vessel or floating object to property under the jurisdiction of the Navy (10 U.S.C. 7623).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Admiralty and Maritime Law Division of the Office of the Judge Advocate General.</I> The Navy's admiralty-tort claims are processed and adjudicated in the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division of the Office of the Judge Advocate General. All correspondence with the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division should be addressed to the Office of the Judge Advocate General (Code 11), 1322 Patterson Avenue SE, Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5066.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mission and policy.</I> The primary mission of the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division is to effect prompt and equitable settlements of admiralty claims, both against and in favor of the United States. The settlement procedure has evolved to eliminate the expenses and delays arising out of litigation and to obtain results advantageous to the financial interests of the United States. Where settlements cannot be made, litigation ensues in the Federal Courts. The final test of whether a settlement is justified is the probable result of litigation. Settlements are therefore considered and determined by the probable results of litigation. The policy of the Navy is to effect fair and prompt settlements of admiralty claims wherever legal liability exists.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Admiralty-tort claims.</I> As indicated above, the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division primarily handles admiralty-tort claims. These are claims for damage caused by vessels in the naval service or by other property under the jurisdiction of the Navy, or damage caused by a maritime tort committed by an agent or employee of the Navy, and claims for damage caused by a privately owned vessel to a vessel or property of the Navy (affirmative claims). The Admiralty and Maritime Law Division also handles claims for towage and salvage services rendered to a vessel in the naval service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Admiralty-contract claims.</I> Admiralty-contract claims arising out of the operations of the Military Sealift Command (MSC) are handled by its Office of Counsel. MSC is responsible for the procurement of vessels and space for the commercial ocean transportation of Department of Defense cargo, mail, and personnel. It is also responsible for the maintenance, repair, and alteration of Government-owned vessels assigned to it. The Office of Counsel, MSC, deals with the various claims of a contract nature which arise out of these operations. These include claims for cargo damage, charter hire, redelivery, general average, and claims arising under MSC ship-repair contracts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Damage caused by Navy contract stevedores.</I> Office of Counsel, Naval Supply Systems Command, has cognizance of admiralty claims for damage caused by Navy contract stevedores. Under these stevedore contracts, the stevedoring companies are responsible for negligent acts of their employees which result in vessel damage. It is important that the extent of any such damage be accurately determined and promptly reported to the contracting officer having cognizance of the particular stevedore contract involved.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resolving conflicts.</I> Admiralty-tort claims, such as collision, personal-injury, and death claims, are dealt with by the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division, irrespective of whether an MSC vessel or other naval vessel is involved. Whether any particular claim is to be handled by JAG or by MSC, therefore, is determined by the nature of the claim. Cases may arise which could be handled by either office. If doubt exists, such matters should be reported both to JAG and to MSC. An agreement will then be reached between the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division and the Office of Counsel, MSC, as to how the incident should be handled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 9962, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 55 FR 12173, Apr. 2, 1990; 65 FR 60861, 60862, Oct. 13, 2000; 69 FR 20542, Apr. 16, 2004; 72 FR 56268, Oct. 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.3   Claims against the Navy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> 10 U.S.C. 7622 provides settlement authority for damage caused by a vessel in the naval service or by other property under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy; compensation for towage or salvage service, including contract salvage, rendered to a vessel in the naval service or to other property of the Navy; or damage caused by a maritime tort committed by any agent or employee of the Department of the Navy or by property under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy. The limit on the Secretary's settlement authority is payment of $15,000,000. A claim which is settled for an amount over $15,000,000 is certified to Congress for payment. Section 7622 provides that the Secretary may delegate his settlement authority in matters where the amount to be paid is not over $1,000,000. Under the Secretary's delegation, settlements not exceeding $500,000 may be effected by the Judge Advocate General. Under the Secretary's delegation, settlements not exceeding $250,000 may be effected by the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Admiralty and Maritime Law).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Settlement is final.</I> The legislation specifically authorizes the Secretary to settle, compromise, and pay claims. The settlement, upon acceptance of payment by the claimant, is final and conclusive for all purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement procedures.</I> Where the amount paid is over $500,000, after agreement is reached with counsel or claimants, the procedure is to prepare a settlement recommendation for the approval of the Secretary of the Navy. When settlement has been approved, the voucher required for effecting payment is prepared. The settlement check is then exchanged, in keeping with the commercial practice, for an executed release. In some situations, where the exchange of documents is impracticable, a claimant is requested to forward the executed release by mail, on the understanding that the release does not become effective until the check is received in payment. Claims settled under 10 U.S.C. 7622 are paid out of annual Department of Defense appropriations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation period.</I> The Secretary's settlement authorization is subject to a two-year limitation. This limitation is not extended by the filing of claim nor by negotiations or correspondence. A settlement agreement must be reached before the end of the two-year period. If settlement is not accomplished, then the claimant must file suit under the appropriate statute to avoid the limitation bar. The agreement reached in negotiations must receive the approval of the Secretary of the Navy or his designee, depending on the amount involved, prior to the expiration of the two-year period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Matters in litigation.</I> When suit is filed, the matter comes within the cognizance of the Department of Justice, and the Secretary of the Navy is no longer able to entertain a claim or to make administrative settlement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 9962, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 55 FR 12173, Apr. 2, 1990; 65 FR 60861, 60862, Oct. 13, 2000; 69 FR 20542, Apr. 16, 2004; 72 FR 56268, Oct. 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.4   Affirmative claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The Navy has the same authority to settle affirmative admiralty claims as it does claims against the Navy. The statute conferring this authorization is codified in 10 U.S.C. 7623, and is the reciprocal of 10 U.S.C. 7622 referred to in § 752.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> 10 U.S.C. 7623 is a tort claims-settlement statute. It is not limited to affirmative claims arising out of collision, but embraces all instances of damage caused by a vessel or floating object to property of the United States under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy or for which the Department of the Navy has assumed an obligation to respond. Perhaps the most frequent instance is where a privately owned vessel damages a Navy pier or shore structure. To eliminate any issue of whether the damaging instrumentality was a vessel, the words “or floating object” were included.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statute of limitation.</I> The United States is subject to a three-year statute of limitation when it asserts an affirmative claim for money damages grounded in tort. This limitation is subject to the usual exclusions, such as inability to prosecute due to war, unavailability of the “res” or defendant, and certain exemptions from legal process (28 U.S.C. 2415, 2416).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation.</I> 10 U.S.C. 7623 does not apply to any claim where suit is filed. If the Admiralty and Maritime Law Division is unable to effect settlement, the matter is referred to the Department of Justice for the filing of a complaint against the offending party. Thereafter, as in the case of adverse litigated claims, the Navy has no further authority to effect settlement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 9962, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 55 FR 12174, Apr. 2, 1990; 65 FR 60861, Oct. 13, 2000; 69 FR 20542, Apr. 16, 2004; 72 FR 56268, Oct. 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.5   Salvage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section relates to salvage claims against or by the Navy for compensation for towage and salvage services, including contract salvage, rendered to a vessel in the naval service or to other property under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy, or for salvage services rendered by the Department of the Navy. Suits for salvage may be maintained under the Public Vessels Act, and salvage claims are within the Secretary of the Navy's administrative-settlement authority under 10 U.S.C. 7622. Salvage claims against the Navy are reported to and processed by the Judge Advocate General (Admiralty and Maritime Law Division). Both claims and suits for salvage against the United States are subject to the two-year limitation of the Public Vessels Act and the Navy's settlement authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative claims.</I> Authorization for the settlement of affirmative salvage claims is contained in 10 U.S.C. 7365. Assertion of such claims is handled in the first instance by the Assistant Supervisor of Salvage (Admiralty), USN, Naval Sea Systems Command (SEA OOCL), 2531 Jefferson Davis Highway, NC/3 Room 11E54, Arlington, VA 22242-5160. Salvage claims are referred to the Admiralty Division only if the Assistant Supervisor of Salvage (Admiralty) is unsuccessful in making collection. Any money received in settlement of affirmative salvage claims is credited to appropriations for maintaining salvage facilities by the Navy, pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 7367.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 9962, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 41 FR 26866, June 30, 1976; 55 FR 12174, Apr. 2, 1990; 65 FR 60861, 60862, Oct. 13, 2000; 69 FR 20542, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="755" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 755—CLAIMS FOR INJURIES TO PROPERTY UNDER ARTICLE 139 OF THE UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 939, 5013, and5148; E.O. 11476, as reported in 3 CFR, 1969 Comp., p. 132; 32 CFR 700.206 and 700.1202.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 42232, Aug. 27, 1991, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>This part 755 is chapter IV of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General of the Navy.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>The Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. 801-940) is referred to in this part 755 as the “UCMJ”. The Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, 1984 (E.O. 12473 of August 1, 1984) is referred to in this part 755 as “MCM 1984”.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 755.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.1   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>Article 139, UCMJ, redress of injuries to property, is the basis for this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This chapter provides for assessments against the pay of members of the naval service in satisfaction of claims for property damage caused under certain circumstances. Claims for damage, loss, or destruction of privately owned property caused by a person or persons in the naval service, are payable under Article 139, UCMJ, only if such damage, loss, or destruction is caused by riotous conduct, willful conduct, or acts showing such reckless or wanton disregard of the property rights of others that willful damage or destruction is implied. Acts of the type punishable under Article 109, UCMJ, are cognizable under Article 139, UCMJ. Charges against pay under these regulations shall be made only against the pay of persons shown to have been principal offenders or accessories.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.3   Claims not cognizable.</HEAD>
<P>The following claims are not cognizable under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) Claims resulting from simple negligence.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims of subrogees.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims for personal injury or death.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims arising from acts or omissions within the scope of employment of the offender.
</P>
<P>(e) Claims for reimbursement for damage, loss, or destruction of Government property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.4   Limitation on claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limitations.</I> A claim must be submitted within 90 days of the incident giving rise to it.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acts of property owner.</I> When the acts or omissions of the property owner, his lessee, or agent were a proximate contributing factor to the loss or damage of the property, assessments will not be made against members of the naval service in excess of the amount for which they are found to be directly responsible, <I>i.e.</I>, comparative responsibility for the loss will be the standard for determining financial responsibility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Only direct damages considered.</I> Assessment will be made only for direct physical damages to the property. Indirect, remote, or inconsequential damage will not be considered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.5   Complaint by the injured party and investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim shall contain a statement setting forth the amount of the claim, the facts and circumstances surrounding the claim and any other information that will assist in the investigation and resolution of the matter. When there is more than one complaint resulting from a single incident, each claimant must file a claim separately and individually. The claim shall be personally signed by the claimant or his duly authorized representative or agent.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the claim alleges misconduct by members of the command, a commanding officer to whom the claim is submitted shall convene an investigation under this Manual to inquire into the matter. Where a complaint is received by a commanding officer to whose command the alleged offenders do not report, he shall forward the claim and other pertinent information about the matter to the member's commanding officer who will convene an investigation into the incident. Where the command of the alleged offenders cannot be determined, the claim and supporting materials shall be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Personnel or the Commandant of the Marine Corps, as appropriate, for action.
</P>
<P>(c) The investigation shall inquire into the circumstances surrounding the claim, gather all relevant information about the matter (answering the who, what, where, when, why, and how questions) and make findings and opinions, as appropriate, about the validity of the claim under Article 139, UCMJ, and these regulations. The investigation shall determine the amount of damage suffered by the property owner.
</P>
<P>(d) The investigation shall make recommendations about the amount to be assessed against the pay of the responsible parties. If more than one person is found responsible, recommendations shall be made about the assessments against all individuals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.6   Action where offenders are members of one command.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Action by commanding officer.</I> The commanding officer shall ensure the alleged offenders are shown the investigative report and are advised they have 20 days within which to submit a statement or additional information on the incident. If the member declines to submit information, he shall so state in writing within the 20 day period. The commanding officer shall review the investigation and determine whether the claim is properly within the provisions of Article 139, UCMJ, and these regulations, and whether the facts indicate responsibility for the damage on members of the command. If the commanding officer finds the claim payable under these regulations, he shall fix the amount to be assessed against the offenders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review.</I> If the commanding officer has authority to convene a general court-martial, no further review of the investigation is required as to the redress of injuries to property. If the commanding officer does not have general court-martial convening authority, the investigation and the commanding officer's action thereon shall be forwarded to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction (OEGCM) over the command for review and action on the claim. That officer's action on the claim shall be communicated to the commanding officer who will take action consistent with the determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charge against pay.</I> Where the amount does not exceed $5,000.00, the amount ordered by the commanding officer shall, as provided in the Navy Comptroller Manual, be charged against the pay of the offenders and the amounts so collected will be paid to the claimant. Where the amount exceeds $5,000.00, the claim, the investigation, and the commanding officer's recommendation shall be forwarded for review prior to checkage to Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps (Code JAR) or the Judge Advocate General, as appropriate. The amount charged in any single month against the pay of offenders shall not exceed one-half of basic pay, as defined in paragraph 126h(2), Manual for Courts-Martial. The action of the commanding officer in ordering the assessment shall be conclusive on any disbursing officer for payment to the claimant of the damages assessed, approved, charged, and collected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.7   Action where offenders are members of different commands.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Action by common superior.</I> The investigative report shall be forwarded to the common superior exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the commands to which the alleged offenders are assigned. That officer shall ensure the alleged offenders are shown the investigative report and permitted to comment on it, should they desire, before action is taken on the claim. That officer shall review the investigation and determine whether the claim is properly within the provisions of Article 139, UCMJ, and these regulations, and whether the facts indicate responsibility for the damage on members of his command. If the claim is found payable under these regulations, he shall fix the amount to be assessed against the offenders and direct the appropriate commanding officers to take action accordingly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Forwarding to SECNAV (JAG).</I> Where it is not practical or possible to carry out the procedure in § 755.7(a) of this section, the investigation or investigations shall be forwarded to the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General) who will take action in the matter. Commanding officers, in such a situation, are not to make charges against the pay of their members until directed by the Secretary of the Navy (Judge Advocate General).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.8   Reconsideration and appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reconsideration.</I> The OEGCM may, upon a receipt of a request for reconsideration by either the claimant or a member who has been assessed pecuniary liability, reopen the investigation or take any other action he believes is necessary in the interests of justice. If the OEGCM contemplates acting favorably on the request, he will provide all individuals interested in the claim with notice and an opportunity to respond. The basis for any change will be noted in the OEGCM's decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeal.</I> In claims involving $5,000.00 or less, a claimant or member who has been assessed pecuniary liability may appeal the decision to the OEGCM. An appeal must be submitted within 5 days of the receipt of the OEGCM's decision. Appeals will be forwarded, via the OEGCM, to the Judge Advocate General for review and final action. In the event of an appeal, the imposition of the OEGCM's decision will be held in abeyance pending the final action by JAG. If it appears that good cause exists that would make it impracticable for an appeal to be submitted within 5 days, the OEGCM may, in his discretion, grant an extension of time, as appropriate. His decision on extensions is final and nonappealable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 755.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.14.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 755.9   Effect of court-martial proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Administrative action under these regulations is separate and distinct from and is not affected by any disciplinary action against the offender. The two proceedings are independent. Acquittal or conviction of the alleged offender by court-martial is evidence for the administrative action, but is not determinative on the issue of responsibility for damages under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="756" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 756—PROCEDURES FOR PROCESSING CLAIMS INVOLVING NON-APPROPRIATED FUND ACTIVITIES AND THEIR EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 5013 and 5148.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 4736, Feb. 7, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 756.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part explains how to settle claims for and against the United States for property damage, personal injury, or death arising out of the operation of non-appropriated fund activities (NAFI). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> DoD Directive 5515.6 establishes policy governing the administrative processing of claims arising out of the operation of non-appropriated fund activities.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53425, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonappropriated-fund instrumentality (NAFI).</I> An instrumentality of the Federal Government established to generate and administer nonappropriated-funds for programs and services contributing to the mental and physical well-being of Department of Defense personnel and their dependents. A NAFI is not incorporated under the laws of any State and enjoys the privileges and immunities of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonappropriated-funds.</I> Funds generated through the use and patronage of NAFI's, not including funds appropriated by Congress.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees of NAFIs.</I> Personnel employed by NAFIs whose salaries are paid from non-appropriated funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4736, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53425, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.3   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Some NAFI's, such as flying clubs, carry private commercial insurance to protect them from claims for property damage and personal injury attributable to their operations. The Commandant of the Marine Corps, the Chief of Naval Personnel, and the Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command determine whether NAFI's within their cognizance shall carry liability insurance or become self-insurers, in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Marine Corps requires mandatory participation in the Morale, Welfare and Recreation (MWR) Composite Insurance Program by the following operations: MWR operations and retail services, food and hospitality, recreation; and special NAFI activities including flying clubs, rod and gun clubs, Interservice Rifle Fund, Marine Corps Marathon and Dependent Cafeteria Fund. The following organizations may also participate in the MWR Composite Insurance Program, if desired: Child welfare centers, billeting funds, chapel funds, and civilian welfare funds.
</P>
<P>(c) When the operations of NAFI's result in property damage or personal injury, the insurance carrier, if any, should be given immediate written notification. Notification should not be postponed until a claim is filed. When the activity is self-insured, the self-insurance fund shall be notified of the potential liability by the activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.4   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All claims resulting from NAFIs should be submitted to the command having cognizance over the NAFI involved. The claim will then be forwarded to the Tort Claims Unit (TCU) Norfolk located at the following address: Department of the Navy, Office of the Judge Advocate General, Tort Claims Unit Norfolk, 9620 Maryland Avenue, Suite 100, Norfolk, VA 23511-2989.
</P>
<P>(b) The TCU Norfolk has cognizance over all DoN claims. Normally, the TCU Norfolk has primary responsibility for the negotiation and settlement of NAFI claims. This is because NAFIs are Federal agencies within the meaning of the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) if the NAFI is charged with an essential function of the DoN and if the degree of control and supervision by the Navy is more than casual or perfunctory. Compare <I>United States</I> v. <I>Holcombe,</I> 277 F.2d 143 (4th Cir. 1960) and <I>Scott</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 226 F. Supp. 846, (D. Ga. 1963). Consequently, to the extent sovereign immunity is waived by the FTCA, 28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 2671-2672, 2674-2680, the United States remains ultimately liable for payment of NAFI claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53425, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.5   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>Claims arising out of the operation of NAFIs, in and outside the United States, shall be investigated in accordance with the procedures for investigating similar claims against appropriated fund activities. The Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN), Chapter II 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> provides guidance in conducting an investigation of an incident or event likely to result in claims or civil litigation against or for DoN or the United States.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> JAGMAN Chapter II (JAG Instruction 5800.7E) is available at the Web site of the Navy Judge Advocate General's Corps at <I>http://www.jag.navy.mil.</I></P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53425, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.6   Negotiation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Claims from NAFIs should be processed primarily through procedures, regulations, and statutes applicable to similar appropriated fund activity claims.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When the NAFI is insured.</I> When a NAFI is insured, the insurer or the contracted third-party claims administrator (TPA) will normally conduct negotiations with claimants. The TCU Norfolk shall monitor the negotiations conducted by the insurer or TPA. Monitoring is normally limited to ascertaining that someone has been assigned to negotiate, to obtain periodic status reports, and to close files on settled claims. Any dissatisfaction with the insurer's or TPA's handling of the negotiations should be referred directly to the Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) for appropriate action. If requested by the insurer or TPA, the TCU Norfolk may conduct negotiations. If TCU Norfolk negotiates a final settlement, however, request for payment will be forwarded to the insurer or TPA for payment. Concurrence by the insurer or TPA in the amount of the settlement is not necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When the NAFI is not insured.</I> When there is no private commercial insurer and the NAFI has made no independent arrangements for negotiations, the TCU Norfolk is responsible for conducting negotiations. When an appropriate settlement is negotiated by the Navy, the recommended award will be forwarded to the NAFI for payment from non-appropriated funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53425, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.7   Payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims that can be settled for less than 1,500.00.</I> A claim not covered by insurance (or not paid by the insurer), that can be settled for $1,500.00 or less, may be adjudicated by the TCU Norfolk or single-service authority and forwarded to the commanding officer of the activity concerned or designee for payment out of funds available to the commanding officer. The TCU Norfolk or single-service authority will obtain the required release from the claimant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims that cannot be settled for less than $1,500.00.</I> A claim negotiated by the Navy, not covered by insurance, that is for more than $1,500.00 will be forwarded to the appropriate non-appropriated fund headquarters command for payment from its non-appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When payment is possible under another statute.</I> In some cases, neither the NAFI nor its insurer may be legally responsible. In those instances when there is no negligence, and payment is authorized under some other statute, such as the Foreign Claims Act, 10 U.S.C. 2734-2736, the claim may be considered for payment from appropriated funds or may be referred to the TCU Norfolk for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other claims.</I> A NAFI's private insurance policy is usually not available to cover losses that result from some act or omission of a mere participant in a non-appropriated fund activity. In the event the NAFI declines to pay the claim, the file shall be forwarded to the TCU Norfolk for determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53426, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.8   Denial.</HEAD>
<P>Claims resulting from non-appropriated fund activities may be denied only by the TCU Norfolk. The denial will begin the six-month limitation on filing suit against the United States for claims filed under the FTCA. Denial of a claim shall be in writing and in accordance with subparts A and B of part 750 of this chapter, as appropriate. The TCU Norfolk should not deny claims that have initially been processed and negotiated by a non-appropriated fund activity, its insurer, or TPA, until the activity or its insurer has clearly stated in writing that it does not intend to pay the claim and has elected to defend the claim in court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53426, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 756.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.15.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 756.9   Claims by employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Property.</I> Claims by employees of NAFIs for loss, damage, or destruction of personal property incident to their employment shall be processed and adjudicated in accordance with subparts A or B of part 751 of this chapter, as appropriate. The claims will then be forwarded to the appropriate NAFI for payment from non-appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury or death</I>—(1) <I>Personal injury or death of citizens or permanent residents of the United States employed anywhere, or foreign nationals employed within the United States.</I> Compensation is provided by the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 901-950) for employees of NAFIs who have suffered injury or death arising out of, and in the course of, their employment (5 U.S.C. 8171). That Act is the exclusive basis for Government liability for such injuries or deaths that are covered (5 U.S.C. 8173). A claim should first be made under that Act if there is a substantial possibility the injury or death is covered under the Act's provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal injury or death of foreign nationals employed outside of the continental United States.</I> Employees who are not citizens or permanent residents, and who are employed outside the continental United States, may be protected by private insurance of the NAFI or by other arrangements. When a non-appropriated fund activity has elected not to obtain insurance coverage or to make other arrangements, compensation is separately provided by Federal statute, military regulations, and agreements with foreign countries. See 5 U.S.C. 8172, DoD 1401.1-M, Personnel Policy Manual for Non-appropriated Fund Instrumentalities and BUPERINST 5300.10A, NAF Personnel Manual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53426, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="757" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 757—AFFIRMATIVE CLAIMS REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 939, 5013, and 5148; E.O. 11476, 3 CFR, 1969 Comp., p. 132; 32 CFR 700.206 and 700.1202.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Property Damage Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.1   Scope of subpart A.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A describes how to assert, administer, and collect claims for damage to or loss or destruction of Government property through negligence or wrongful acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.2   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All affirmative claims for damage to or loss of Government property in favor of the United States are processed in accordance with the Federal Collections Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3711), as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982, PL 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749 (25 October 1982), PL 101-552, 104 Stat. 2736 (15 November 1990) and the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, PL 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, 1358 (26 April 1996). Department of Defense Directive designees, the authority granted to the Secretary of Defense under the Federal Claims Collection Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> Subject to specific provisions in other statutes, there is a general 3-year statute of limitations on affirmative Government tort claims pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2415(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53427, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.3   Regulatory authority.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations published in 31 CFR Chapter IX control the collection and settlement of affirmative claims. This section supplements the material contained in those regulations. Where this section conflicts with the materials and procedure published in 31 CFR Chapter IX, the latter controls.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53427, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.4   Claims that may be collected.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Against responsible third parties for damage to Government property, or the property of non-appropriated fund activities.</I> It should be noted, however, that as a general rule, the Government does not seek payment from service members and Government employees for damages caused by their simple negligence while acting within the scope of their employment. Exceptions to this general policy will be made when the incident involves aggravating circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For money paid or reimbursed by the government for damage to a rental car in accordance with the Joint Federal Travel regulations (volume 1, paragraph U 3415-C and volume 2, paragraph C 2101-2).</I> Collection action shall be taken against third parties liable in tort. Collection action shall not be taken against Government personnel who rented the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other claims.</I> Any other claim for money or property in favor of the United States cognizable under the Federal Claims Collections Act not specifically listed above.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53427, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.5   Assertion of claims and collection procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The controlling procedures for administrative collection of claims are established in 31 CFR part 901.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Officials authorized to pursue claims.</I> The Judge Advocate General; the Deputy Judge Advocate General; any Assistant Judge Advocate General; the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) are authorized to pursue and collect all affirmative claims in favor of the United States, except in countries where another service has single service responsibility in accordance with DoD Directive 5515.8.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dollar limitations.</I> All of the officers listed in § 757.5(b) are authorized to compromise and terminate collection action on affirmative claims of $100,000.00 or less.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determining liability.</I> Liability must be determined in accordance with the law of the place in which the damage occurred, including the applicable traffic laws, elements of tort, and possible defenses.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assertion of a claim.</I> (1) Assertion of the claim is accomplished by mailing to the tortfeasor a “Notice of Claim.” The notice is to be mailed certified mail, return receipt requested, and should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Reference to the statutory right to collect;
</P>
<P>(ii) A demand for payment or restoration;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of damage and estimate of repair;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the incident, including date and place; and
</P>
<P>(v) The name, phone number, and office address of the claims personnel to contact.
</P>
<P>(2) See also 31 CFR part 901.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Full payment.</I> When a responsible party or insurer tenders full payment or a compromise settlement on a claim, the payment should be in the form of a check or money order made payable to “United States Treasury.” The check or money order shall then be forwarded to the disbursing officer serving the collecting activity for deposit in accordance with the provisions of the Navy Comptroller Manual. For collections for damages to real property, the collection is credited to the account available for the repair or replacement of the real property at the time of recovery. (10 U.S.C. 2782.) For damages to personal property, the money is returned to the general treasury.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Installment payments.</I> See 31 CFR 901.8 for specific procedures. In general, if the debtor is financially unable to pay the debt in one lump sum, an installment payment plan may be arranged. Installment payments will be required on a monthly basis and the size of payment must bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. The installment agreements should specify payments of such size and frequency to liquidate the Government's claim in not more than 3 years. Installment payments of less than $50.00 per month should be accepted only if justified on the grounds of financial hardship or for some other reasonable cause. In all installment arrangements, a confession of judgment note setting out a repayment schedule should be executed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Damage to nonappropriated-fund instrumentality (NAFI) property.</I> Any amount collected for loss or damage to property of a NAFI shall be forwarded to the headquarters of the nonappropriated-fund activity for deposit with that activity. In those situations where the recovery involves damage to both NAFI-owned property and other Government property, e.g., destruction of an exchange building resulting in damage to both the building and the exchange-owned property inside, recovery for the exchange-owned property shall be forwarded to the NAFI. Recovery for building damage shall be deposited in accordance with § 757.5(f) above.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Damage to industrial-commercial property.</I> When a loss or cost of repair has been borne by an industrial-commercial activity, payment shall be deposited in the Navy Industrial Fund of the activity in accordance with the provisions of the Navy Comptroller Manual. When a claim is based on a loss or damage sustained by such an activity, a notation to this effect shall be included in any claim file forwarded to the Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Replacement in kind or repair.</I> The responsible party, or insurer, may want to repair or replace in kind damaged property. The commanding officer or officer in charge of the activity sustaining the loss is authorized to accept repair or replacement if, in his discretion, it is considered to be in the best interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Release.</I> The Supervisory Attorney, Tort Claims Unit, Norfolk is authorized to execute a release of the claim when all repairs have been completed to the Government's satisfaction, and when all repair bills have been paid. No prior approval from the Judge Advocate General is required for this procedure. If repair or replacement is made, a notation shall be made in any investigation or claims file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53427, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.6   Waiver, compromise, and referral of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Officials authorized to compromise claims.</I> The officers identified in § 757.5(b) may collect the full amount on all claims, and may compromise, execute releases or terminate collection action on all claims of $20,000.00 or less. Collection action may be terminated for the convenience of the Government if the tortfeasor cannot be located, is found to be judgment-proof, has denied liability, or has refused to respond to repeated correspondence concerning legal liability involving a small claim. A termination for the convenience of the Government is made after it is determined that the case does not warrant litigation or that it is not cost-effective to pursue recovery efforts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims over $100,000.00.</I> Claims in excess of $100,000.00 may not be compromised for less than the full amount or collection action terminated without approval from the Department of Justice (DOJ).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> The Judge Advocate General shall be notified prior to all requests made to the DOJ to compromise, terminate collection, or referral for further collection action or litigation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation reports.</I> Litigation reports prepared in accordance with 31 CFR part 904 shall be forwarded through the Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation) to the Department of Justice along with any case file for further collection action or litigation as required by the Federal Claims Collections Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 757.7-757.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 757.7-757.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Medical Care Recovery Act (MCRA) Claims and Claims Asserted Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1095</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.11   Scope of Subpart B.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart B describes the assertion and collection of claims for medical care under the MCRA and 10 U.S.C. 1095. The MCRA states that when the Federal government provides treatment or pays for treatment of an individual who is injured or suffers a disease, the Government is authorized to recover the reasonable value of that treatment from any third party who is legally liable for the injury or disease. Title 10 U.S.C. 1095 provides for the collection from third-party payers for the value of health care services incurred by the Government on behalf of covered beneficiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.12   Statutory authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medical Care Recovery Act</I>, 42 U.S.C. 2651-2653 (2005).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title 10 U.S.C. 1095</I> (Health Care Services Incurred on Behalf of Covered Beneficiaries: Collection from Third-Party Payers).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Title 10 U.S.C. 1079a</I> (CHAMPUS: Treatment of Refunds and Other Amounts Collected).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.13   Responsibility for MCRA actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>JAG designees.</I> (1) Primary responsibility for investigating, asserting, and collecting Department of the Navy (DON) MCRA claims and properly forwarding MCRA claims to other Federal departments or agencies rests with the following personnel:
</P>
<P>(i) Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Claims and Tort Litigation Division) (Code 15); and the
</P>
<P>(ii) Commanding Officer, Naval Legal Service Command Europe and Southwest Asia (NLSC EURSWA), Naples, Italy, in its area of geographic responsibility.
</P>
<P>(2) JAG designee may assert and receive full payment on any MCRA claim. Code 15 may agree to compromise or waive claims for $100,000 or less. NLSC EURSWA may agree to compromise or waive claims for $40,000.00 or less. NLSC EURSWA claims in excess of $40,000.00 may be compromised or waived only with Code 15 approval. See Sec. 757.19 for further discussion of waiver and compromise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Navy Medical Treatment Facility (MTF).</I> (1) Naval MTFs are responsible for ensuring potential MCRA/10 U.S.C. 1095 claims are brought to the attention of the appropriate JAG designee.
</P>
<P>(2) The MTF reports all potential MCRA/10 U.S.C. 1095 cases by forwarding a copy of the daily injury log entries and admission records to the cognizant JAG designee within 7 days of treatment for which a third party may be liable. The JAG designee makes the determination of liability. Recovery for the costs of MTF care is based on Diagnostic Related Group rates or a Relative Value Unit. Rates are established by the Office of Management and Budget and/or the DoD, and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>TRICARE Fiscal Intermediary.</I> The TRICARE fiscal intermediary is required to identify and promptly mail claims involving certain diagnostic codes to the cognizant JAG designee. Claims are asserted for the actual amount that TRICARE paid.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Department of Justice (DoJ).</I> Only the DoJ may authorize compromise or waiver of an MCRA/10 U.S.C. 1095 claim in excess of $100,000.00 or settle an MCRA/10 U.S.C. 1095 claim in which the third party has filed a suit against the United States as a result of the incident which caused the injury and upon which the claim is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.14   Claims asserted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The DoN asserts MCRA and 10 U.S.C. 1095 claims when medical care is furnished to Navy and Marine Corps active duty personnel, retirees, or their dependents, or any other person when appropriate, and third-party tort or contract liability exists for payment of medical expenses resulting from an injury or disease. Claims are asserted when the injured party is treated in a MTF or when the DoN is responsible for reimbursing a non-Federal care provider.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Independent cause of action.</I> The MCRA creates an independent cause of action for the United States. The Government can administratively assert and litigate MCRA claims in its own name and for its own benefit. Procedural defenses, such as a failure of the injured person to properly file and/or serve a complaint on the third party, that may prevent the injured person from recovering, do not prevent the United States from pursuing its own action to recover the value of medical treatment provided to the injured person. The right arises directly from the statute; the statutory reference to subrogation pertain only to one mode of enforcement. In creating an independent right in the Government, the Act prevents a release given by the injured person to a third party from affecting the Government's claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liable parties.</I> MCRA and 10 U.S.C 1095 claims may be asserted against individuals, corporations, associations and non-Federal Government agencies subject to the limitation described in § 757.15.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reasonable value of medical care.</I> The reasonable value of medical care provided to an injured person is determined:
</P>
<P>(1) By using the rate set as described in § 757.13 (b)(2) in bills issued by the MTF; or
</P>
<P>(2) By the actual amount paid by the Federal Government to non-Federal medical care providers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate theories of recovery.</I> (1) Often, recovery under the MCRA is not possible because no third-party tort liability exists. For example, if a member, retiree, or dependent is driving a vehicle and is injured in single-car accident, there is no tortfeasor. Title 10 U.S.C. 1095 provides the Government alternate means for recovery as a third-party beneficiary of an insurance contract of the injured party.
</P>
<P>(2) Recovery may also be possible under State workers' compensation laws. Case law in this area is still emerging, but in most jurisdictions, the United States stands in the position of a lien claimant for services rendered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.15" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.15   Claims not asserted.</HEAD>
<P>In some cases, public policy considerations limit the DoN's assertion of claims against apparent third-party tortfeasors or a contract where the Government would be a third party beneficiary. Claims are not asserted against:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Federal Government agencies.</I> Claims are not asserted against any department, agency or instrumentality of the United States. “Agency or instrumentality” includes self-insured, non-appropriated-fund activities but does not include private associations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Injured service members, dependents, and employees of the United States.</I> Claims are not asserted directly against a servicemember, the dependent of a servicemember, or an employee of the United States who is injured as a result of his own willful or negligent acts. The United States does assert, however, against policies that cover the injury.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employers of merchant seamen.</I> Claims are not asserted against the employer of a merchant seaman who receives Federal medical care under 42 U.S.C. 249.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Department of Veterans' Affairs care for service-connected disability.</I> Claims are not asserted for care provided to a veteran by the Department of Veterans' Affairs when the care is for a service-connected disability. The United States will, however, claim for the reasonable value of care provided an individual before he is transferred to a Department of Veterans' Affairs hospital. This policy does not apply in cases where the MTF referred the patient to the Veterans' Affairs hospital and then paid for the care.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53428, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.16" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.16   Claims asserted only with OJAG approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certain Government contractors.</I> JAG approval is required before asserting a claim against a Federal government contractor when the contract provides that the contractor will be indemnified or held harmless by the Federal government for tort liability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>U.S. personnel.</I> JAG approval is required before asserting MCRA claims directly against servicemembers, their dependents and federal employees and their dependents for injury to another person. No approval is necessary to assert claims against their insurance policies, however, except for injuries caused by servicemembers and federal employees acting “within the scope of their employment.” Intra-familial tort immunity would not preclude the Government from asserting any claims for care furnished to a tortfeasor's family members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53429, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.17   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Federal.</I> Claims asserted under the MCRA or against an automobile liability insurer through 10 U.S.C. 1095 are founded in tort and must be brought within 3 years after the action “first accrues” (28 U.S.C. 2415b). Normally, a medical care claim “first accrues” on the initial date of treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims asserted under 10 U.S.C. 1095.</I> Although legal arguments can be made that claims asserted under 10 U.S.C. 1095 against a no-fault or personal injury protection insurer are founded in contract and can be brought within 6 years (28 U.S.C. 2415a), all claims should be asserted within 3 years of the date when the claim accrued. However, some states require notice of such claims to be filed within a shorter period of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53429, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.18   Asserting the claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial action by the JAG designee.</I> When advised of a potential claim, the JAG designee will determine the Federal agency or department responsible for investigating and asserting the claim.
</P>
<P>(1) When DoN has reimbursed a non-Federal provider for health care, or when TRICARE has made payment for a Navy health care beneficiary, the JAG designee will assert any resulting claim.
</P>
<P>(2) When care is provided in a Federal treatment facility, the status of the injured person will determine the agency that will assert a resulting claim. Cost of treatment provided or paid for by an MTF is deposited in that MTF's account, regardless of which service is making the collection.
</P>
<P>(i) Where DoN members, retirees, or their dependents receive medical treatment from another Federal agency or department, the DoN will assert any claim on behalf of the United States based on information provided by the treating agency or department.
</P>
<P>(ii) Similarly, where a DoN MTF provides care to personnel of another Federal agency or department, that other agency or department will assert any claim on behalf of the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) If the claim is one which the DoN should assert, the JAG designee will forward all available information to the appropriate department or agency.
</P>
<P>(4) If the claim is one which the DoN should assert, the JAG designee will ensure an appropriate investigation into the circumstances underlying the claim is initiated and will provide notice to the injured party and all third parties who may be liable to the injured person and the United States under the MCRA or 10 U.S.C. 1095.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigating the claim.</I> While there is no prescribed form or content for investigating these claims, the claims file will contain sufficient information on which to base valuation, assertion, settlement, waiver, and/or compromise decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of claim.</I> (1) The JAG designee will assert claims by mailing a notice of claim to identified third-party tortfeasors and their insurers or insurers for third-party beneficiary coverage. Many insured tortfeasors fail to notify their insurance companies of incidents. This failure may be a breach of the cooperation clause in the policy and may be grounds for the insurer to refuse to defend the insured or be responsible for any liability. The United States, as a claimant, may preclude such an invocation by giving the requisite notification itself. The purpose of the insurance clause is satisfied if the insurer receives actual notice of the incident, regardless of the informant. This notice should be mailed as soon as it appears an identified third party may be liable for the injuries. The prompt assertion of the claim will ensure that the government is named on the settlement draft. If the United States is not so named, and the claim has been asserted, the insurer settles at its own risk.
</P>
<P>(2) The JAG designee will also notify the injured person or his legal representative of the Government's interest in the value of the medical care provided by the United States. This notice will advise that:
</P>
<P>(i) The United States may be entitled to recover the reasonable value of medical care furnished or paid by the Federal government;
</P>
<P>(ii) The injured person is required to cooperate in the efforts of the United States to recover the reasonable value of medical care furnished or paid for by the Federal government;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administering the claim.</I> (1) After investigating and asserting the claim, the JAG designee will maintain contact with all parties, their legal representatives, and insurers.
</P>
<P>(2) An effort should be made to coordinate collection of the Federal government's interest with the injured person's action to collect on a claim for damages.
</P>
<P>(i) Attorneys representing an injured person may be authorized to include the Federal government's claim as an item of special damages with the injured person's claim or suit.
</P>
<P>(ii) An agreement that the Government's claim will be made a party of the injured person's action should be in writing and state the counsel fees will not be paid by the Government or computed on the basis of the Government's portion of recovery.
</P>
<P>(3) If the injured person is not bringing an action for damages or is refusing to include the Federal Government's interest, the JAG designee will pursue independent collection. The United States is specifically allowed to intervene or join in any action at law brought by or through the injured person against the liable third person or brings an original suit in its own name or in the name of the injured person. The JAG designee will ensure all parties are aware that the United States must be a party to all subsequent collection negotiation.
</P>
<P>(4) When the Government's interests are not being represented by the injured person or his/her attorney, and independent collection efforts have failed, the JAG designee will refer the claims to the DoJ for possible suit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to DoN records and information.</I> (1) Copies of medical records in cases that have potential claims will be sent by the MTFs to the cognizant JAG designee. It is considered a routine use of the records for the JAG designee to release them to an insurance company, if requested, in order to substantiate the claim. However, only the MTF as “keepers of the records” has the authority to make official releases of medical records to anyone else. Records will be protected in accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and confidentiality of quality assurance medical records, 10 U.S.C. 1102. Non-routine release requires the authorization from the injured individual or legal representative or an order from a court of competent jurisdiction. A clerk or attorney signed subpoena is not “an order from a court of competent jurisdiction.” Subpoenas are processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 725.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for testimony of any Navy employees will be processed in accordance with DoD Directive 5405.2, 32 CFR part 725, and SECNAVINST 5820.8A. If the injured person, or his or her attorney has signed an agreement to protect the Government's interest and is requesting the testimony of a locally available physician who treated the injured person, however, this request falls within an exception to the regulations. See 32 CFR 725.5(g)(3). In this situation, the injured person or the attorney need only ask the JAG designee for assistance in scheduling the testimony of the treating physician and the JAG designee will coordinate with the physician's command to determine availability. Such testimony is limited to factual issues. The definition of factual issues is slightly different under the regulations than it is in civil litigation. Opinions that are formed prior to, or contemporaneously with, the treatment at issue and are routinely required in the course of the proper performance of professional duties constitute essentially factual matters. For example, the physician will have opined at the time of treatment if further treatment will be necessary. The physician may testify to that as factual, not opinion, testimony. Opinions that are formed after treatment and are not required for continuing treatment, especially those that respond to hypothetical questions, are not factual and are considered to be expert testimony. This expert testimony, regardless of who requests it, will be processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 725, and must be forwarded to OJAG Code 14, General Litigation Division. Requests for expert testimony are rarely granted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53429, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.19   Waiver and compromise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> OJAG Code 15 (Claims and Tort Litigation) may authorize waiver or compromise of any claim that does not exceed $100,000.00. NLSO EURSWA may agree to compromise or waive claims for $40,000.00 or less. NLSO EURSWA claims in excess of $40,000.00 may be compromised or waived only with Code 15 approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver and compromise.</I> The JAG designee may waive the Federal government's MCRA interest when a responsible third-party tortfeasor cannot be located, is judgment proof, or has refused to pay and litigation is not feasible. Waiver or compromise is also appropriate when, upon written request by the injured person or legal representative, it is determined that collection of the full amount of the claim would result in undue hardship to the injured person. In assessing undue hardship, the following should be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanent disability or disfigurement;
</P>
<P>(2) Lost earning capacity;
</P>
<P>(3) Out-of-pocket expenses;
</P>
<P>(4) Financial status;
</P>
<P>(5) Disability, pension and similar benefits available;
</P>
<P>(6) Amount of settlement or award from third-party tortfeasor or contract insurer; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other factors which objectively indicate fairness requires waiver.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 5072, Feb. 12, 1992, as amended at 72 FR 53430, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 757.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.5.16.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 757.20   Receipt and release.</HEAD>
<P>The JAG designee will execute and deliver appropriate releases to third parties who have made full or agreed upon compromised payments. A copy of the release will be kept in the claims file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 53430, Sept. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="32:5.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—ISLANDS UNDER NAVY JURISDICTION


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="761" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 761—NAVAL DEFENSIVE SEA AREAS; NAVAL AIRSPACE RESERVATIONS, AREAS UNDER NAVY ADMINISTRATION, AND THE TRUST TERRITORY OF THE PACIFIC ISLANDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 5031, 6011, 18 U.S.C. 2152. The text of part 761 contains additional references, including Executive Orders.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part provides regulations governing the entry of persons, ships, and aircraft into:
</P>
<P>(1) Naval Defensive Sea Areas and Naval Airspace Reservations established by Executive order of the President (see § 761.3(a)).
</P>
<P>(2) Areas placed under the Secretary of the Navy for administrative purposes by Executive order of the President (see § 761.3(b)).
</P>
<P>(3) The Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands (see § 761.3(c)).
</P>
<P>(b) The entry authorizations issued under the authority of this part do not supersede or eliminate the need for visas or other clearances or permits required by other law or regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 35 FR 10008, June 18, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.2   Background and general policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain areas, due to their strategic nature or for purposes of defense, have been subjected to restrictions regarding the free entry of persons, ships, and aircraft. Free entry into the areas listed and defined in this part, and military installations contiguous to or within the boundaries of defense areas, is subject to control as provided for by Executive order or other regulation. The object of controls over entry into naval defensive sea areas, naval airspace reservations, administrative areas, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, is to provide for the protection of military installations as well as other facilities, including the personnel, property, and equipment assigned to or located therein. Persons, ships, and aircraft are excluded unless and until they qualify for admission under the applicable Executive order or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The control of entry into or movement within defense areas by persons, ships, or aircraft will be exercised so as to fully protect the physical security of, and insure the full effectiveness of, bases, stations, facilities and other installations within or contiguous to defense areas. However, unnecessary interference with the free movement of persons, ships, and aircraft is to be avoided.
</P>
<P>(c) This part will be administered so as to provide for the prompt processing of all applications and to insure uniformity of interpretation and application, insofar as changing conditions permit.
</P>
<P>(d) In cases of doubt, the determination will be made in favor of the course of action which will best serve the interests of the United States and national defense as distinguished from the private interests of an individual or group.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 35 FR 10008, June 18, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.3   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Naval Defensive Sea Areas and Naval Airspace Reservations.</I> By Executive orders, as amended, the President has reserved, set aside, and established the following Naval Defensive Sea Areas and Naval Airspace Reservations under the control of the Secretary of the Navy. Incorporated therein are provisions for the exercise of control by the Secretary over the entry of persons, ships, and aircraft into the areas so described. (See § 761.4(b) for delineation of areas where entry controls are suspended.)
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Atlantic areas.</I> Guantanamo Bay Naval Defensive Sea Area; Guantanamo Bay Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8749 of May 1, 1941 (6 FR 2252; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 931).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pacific areas.</I> (i) Honolulu Defensive Sea Area: Executive Order 8987 of December 20, 1941 (6 FR 6675; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 1048).
</P>
<P>(ii) Kaneohe Bay Naval Defensive Sea Area; Kaneohe Bay Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8681 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1014; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 893).
</P>
<P>(iii) Pearl Harbor Defensive Sea Area: Executive Order 8143 of May 26, 1939 (4 FR 2179; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 504).
</P>
<P>(iv) Johnston Island Naval Defensive Sea Area; Johnston Island Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8682 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1015; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 894) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919) and Executive Order 9881 of August 4, 1947 (12 FR 5325; 3 CFR, 1943-1948 Comp., p. 662).
</P>
<P>(v) Kingman Reef Naval Defensive Sea Area; Kingman Reef Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8682 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1015; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 894) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919) and Executive Order 9881 of August 4, 1947 (12 FR 5325; 3 CFR, 1943-1948 Comp., p. 662).
</P>
<P>(vi) Midway Island Naval Defensive Sea Area; Midway Island Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8682 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1015; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 894) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919) and Executive Order 9881 of August 4, 1947 (12 FR 5325; 3 CFR, 1943-1948 Comp., p. 662).
</P>
<P>(vii) Wake Island Naval Defensive Sea Area; Wake Island Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8682 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1015; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 894) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919) and Executive Order 9881 of August 4, 1917 (12 FR 5325; 3 CFR, 1943-1948 Comp., p. 662).
</P>
<P>(viii) Kiska Island Naval Defensive Sea Area; Kiska Island Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8680 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1014; 3 CFR 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 892) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919).
</P>
<P>(ix) Kodiak Naval Defensive Sea Area: Executive Order 8717 of March 22, 1941 (6 FR 1621; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 915). Kodiak Naval Airspace Reservation: Executive Order 8597 of November 18, 1940 (5 FR 4559; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 837) as amended by Executive Order 9720 of May 8, 1946 (11 FR 5105; 3 CFR, 1943-1948 Comp., p. 527).
</P>
<P>(x) Unalaska Island Naval Defensive Sea Area, Unalaska Island Naval Air-space Reservation: Executive Order 8680 of February 14, 1941 (6 FR 1014; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 892) as amended by Executive Order 8729 of April 2, 1941 (6 FR 1791; 3 CFR, 1943 Cum. Supp., p. 919). See § 761.4(d) for delineation of areas where entry controls are suspended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative areas.</I> By Executive orders, as amended, the President has reserved, set aside, and placed under the control and jurisdiction of the Secretary of the Navy for administrative purposes the following named areas including their appurtenant reefs and territorial waters:
</P>
<P>(1) Johnston Island—Executive Order 6935 of December 29, 1934 as amended by Executive Order 11048 of September 4, 1962 (27 FR 8851; 3 CFR, 1962 Supp., p. 241).
</P>
<P>(2) Kingman Reef—Executive Order 6935 of December 29, 1934 as amended by Executive Order 11048 of September 4, 1962 (27 FR 8851; 3 CFR, 1962 Supp., p. 241).
</P>
<P>(3) Midway Island—Executive Order 11048 of September 4, 1962 (27 FR 8851; 3 CFR, 1962 Supp., p. 241).
</P>
<P>(4) Sand Island—Executive Order 6935 of December 29, 1934 as amended by Executive Order 11048 of September 4, 1962 (27 FR 8851; 3 CFR, 1962 Supp., p. 241).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.</I> The Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands is a strategic area administered by the United States under the provisions of a trusteeship agreement with the United Nations. Under Executive Order 11021 of May 7, 1962 (27 FR 4409; 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 600), the Secretary of the Interior is charged with responsibility for administration of the civil government of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands. Under July 1, 1963 amendment two agreements effective July 1, 1951 and July 1, 1962 between the Department of the Navy and the Department of the Interior concerning responsibility for administration of the Government of the Trust Territory, the entry of individuals, ships and aircraft into the Trust Territory (other than areas under the control of the Department of the Army (Kwajalein Atoll) and of the Defense Nuclear Agency (Eniwetok Atoll) see § 761.4) is controlled by the High Commissioner of the Trust Territory and the Department of the Navy as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Entry of U.S. citizens and nationals and citizens of the Trust Territory, into areas of the Trust Territory other than those areas under control of the Department of the Army and the Defense Nuclear Agency as outlined above, shall be controlled by the High Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(2) All other persons: Applications for entry into the Trust Territory except for those areas under control of the Department of the Army or of the Defense Nuclear Agency, of all persons who are not U.S. citizens, U.S. nationals, or who are not citizens of the Trust Territory, shall be made to the High Commissioner for processing in accordance with the laws and regulations of the Trust Territory: <I>Provided,</I> That prior to the issuance of an authorization to enter the Trust Territory, the High Commissioner shall provide the Department of the Navy in all cases (with the exception of alien individuals who possess a valid U.S. visa and seek admission to the Trust Territory for a period of 30 days or less for the purpose of tourism) information on the applicants for its consideration and comment, granting thereby the Department of the Navy the right to object to the issuance of an authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) Ships and aircraft: (i) The entry of ships and aircraft, other than U.S. public ships and aircraft, documented under either the laws of the United States or the laws of the Trust Territory into areas of the Trust Territory, excepting those areas where entry is controlled by the Department of the Army (Kwajalein Atoll) and the Defense Nuclear Agency (Eniwetok Atoll), shall be controlled solely by the High Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applications for entry into the Trust Territory, except for those areas under military control, of ships and aircraft not documented under the laws of the United States or the laws of the Trust Territory, shall be made to the High Commissioner for processing in accordance with the laws and regulations of the Trust Territory: <I>Provided,</I> That prior to the issuance of an authorization to enter the Trust Territory, the High Commissioner shall provide the Department of the Navy in all cases with information on the applicants for its consideration and comment, granting thereby the right of the Department of the Navy to object to the issuance of an authorization.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exercise of authority.</I> The authority of the Secretary of the Navy to control entry of ships, planes, and persons into the areas listed is exercised through the Chief of Naval Operations and certain of his subordinates as prescribed in this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Penalties.</I> Penalties are provided by law: (1) For violations of orders or regulations governing persons or ships within the limits of defensive sea areas (62 Stat. 799; 18 U.S.C. 2152); (2) for entering military, naval or Coast Guard property for prohibited purposes or after removal or exclusion therefrom by proper authority (62 Stat. 765; 18 U.S.C. 1382); (3) for violation of regulations imposed for the protection or security of military or naval aircraft, airports, air facilities, vessels, harbors, ports, piers, waterfront facilities, bases, forts, posts, laboratories, stations, vehicles, equipment, explosives, or other property or places subject to the jurisdiction, administration, or in the custody of the Department of Defense, any department or agency of which said department or agency consists, or any officer of employee of said department or agency (sec. 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 797) and Department of Defense Directive 5200.8 of 20 August 1954 (19 FR 5446)); and (4) for knowingly and willfully making a false or misleading statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States (18 U.S.C. 1001).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 35 FR 10008, June 18, 1970; 36 FR 21889, Nov. 17, 1971; 41 FR 28957, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.4   Special provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Entry into islands in the Kwajalein Atoll under military jurisdiction is controlled by the Department of the Army. Inquiries concerning entries into islands under military control in the Kwajalein Atoll should be directed to: National Range Commander, U.S. Army Safeguard System Command, ATTN: SSC-R, P.O. Box 1500, Huntsville, AL 35807.
</P>
<P>(b) Entry into Eniwetok Atoll is controlled by the Defense Nuclear Agency. Inquiries concerning entries into Eniwetok Atoll should be directed to: Commander, Field Command, Defense Nuclear Agency, Kirtland Air Force Base, NM 87115.
</P>
<P>(c) Entry into Johnston Atoll is controlled by the Defense Nuclear Agency. Inquiries concerning entries into Johnston Atoll should be directed to: Commander, Johnston Atoll (FCDNA), APO San Francisco, CA 96305.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of restrictions.</I> Restrictions imposed under the authority of the above cited Executive Orders on entry into the following Naval Defensive Sea Areas and Naval Airspace Reservations and Administrative Areas have been suspended subject to reinstatement without notice at any time when the purposes of national defense may require.
</P>
<P>(1) All Naval Airspace Reservations, except the Guantanamo Bay Naval Airspace Reservation
</P>
<P>(2) Honolulu Defensive Sea Area.
</P>
<P>(3) Kiska Island Naval Defensive Sea Area.
</P>
<P>(4) Kodiak Island Naval Defensive Sea Area.
</P>
<P>(5) Unalaska Island Naval Defensive Sea Area.
</P>
<P>(6) Wake Island Naval Defensive Sea Area except for entry of foreign flag ships and foreign nationals.
</P>
<P>(7) The portion of Kaneohe Defensive Sea Area lying beyond a 500 yard buffer zone around the perimeter of the Kaneohe Marine Corps Air Station (Mokapu Peninsula) and eastward therefrom to Kapoho Point, Oahu.
</P>
<P>(e) Suspension of restrictions on entry into a naval airspace reservation, naval defensive sea area, or naval administrative area, does not affect the authority of a commanding officer or other appropriate commander to control entry into or passage through any base, station, or other installation or area, including port or harbor facilities under Navy control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28957, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Defense area.</I> A naval defensive sea area, naval airspace reservation, or naval administrative area established by Executive order of the President.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department of Defense.</I> The Department of Defense, including the Departments of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Entry authorization.</I> A document which authorizes a ship, aircraft, or person to enter a defense area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Entry Control Commander.</I> A commander empowered to issue entry authorizations for one or more defense areas (see § 761.9).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Excluded person.</I> A person who does not hold a currently valid entry authorization for the area concerned and who has been notified by an Entry Control Commander that authority for him to enter any defense area has been denied, suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign nationals.</I> Persons who are not citizens or nationals of the United States.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Military installation.</I> A military (Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and/or Coast Guard) activity ashore, having a commanding officer, and located in an area having fixed boundaries, within which all persons are subject to military control and to the immediate authority of a commanding officer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public vessel or aircraft.</I> A ship or aircraft owned by or belonging to a government and not engaged in commercial activity.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Territorial sea</I>—(1) <I>Trust Territory.</I> In accordance with title 19, section 101(3), of the Trust Territory Code “* * * that part of the sea comprehended within the envelope of all arcs of circles having a radius of three marine miles drawn from all points of the barrier reef, fringing reef, or other reef system of the Trust Territory, measured from the low water line, or, in the absence of such reef system, the distance to be measured from the low water line of any island, islet, atoll, reef, or rocks within the jurisdiction of the Trust Territory.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other areas.</I> That part of the sea included within the envelope of all arcs of circles having a radius of three marine miles with centers on the low water line of the coast. For the purpose of this definition, the term “coast” includes the coasts of islands, islets, rocks, atolls, reefs and other areas of land permanently above the high water mark.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Trust Territory Registry.</I> Registration of a ship or aircraft in accordance with the laws of the Trust Territory.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>U.S. Registry.</I> Registration of a ship or aircraft in accordance with the laws and regulations of the United States.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>U.S. Armed Forces.</I> Military personnel of the Department of Defense, the Departments of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and the United States Coast Guard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 35 FR 10009, June 18, 1970; 41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Criteria and Basic Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.6   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Entry authorizations may be issued only after an Entry Control Commander, or a duly authorized subordinate acting in his behalf, has determined that the presence of the person, ship, or aircraft will not, under existing or reasonably foreseeable future conditions, endanger, place an undue burden upon, or otherwise jeopardize the efficiency, capability, or effectiveness of any military installation located within or contiguous to a defense area. Factors to be considered shall include, but not be limited to, the true purpose of the entry, the personal history, character and present or past associates of the individuals involved, the possible burdens or threats to the defense facilities which the presence of the ship, aircraft or the individual or individuals involved impose or might reasonably be expected to impose on the related base complex.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for entry authorizations will be evaluated and adjudged as to whether the entry at the time and for the purpose stated will or will not be inimical to the purposes of national defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adverse.</I> Substantial evidence of any of the following shall preclude the granting of entry authorization except with the specific approval of the Chief of Naval Operations in each case:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior noncompliance with entry control regulations or failure to observe terms under which any entry authorization may have been granted; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The criteria so marked are applicable only to those applications concerning entry into areas under military cognizance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Willfully furnishing false, incomplete, or misleading information in an application for an entry authorization;
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(3) Advocacy of the overthrow or alteration of the Government of the United States by unconstitutional means;
</P>
<P>(4) Commission of, or attempt or preparation to commit, an act of espionage, sabotage, sedition, or treason, or conspiring with or aiding or abetting another to commit such an act;
</P>
<P>(5) Performing, or attempting to perform, duties, or otherwise acting so as to serve the interest of another government to the detriment of the United States;
</P>
<P>(6) Deliberate unauthorized disclosure of classified defense information;
</P>
<P>(7) Knowing membership with the specific intent of furthering the aims of, or adherence to and active participation in, any foreign or domestic organization, association, movement, group, or combination of persons (hereinafter referred to as organizations) which unlawfully advocates or practices the commission of acts of force or violence to prevent others from exercising their rights under the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any State, or which seeks to overthrow the Government of the United States or any State or subdivision thereof by unlawful means;
</P>
<P>(8) Serious mental irresponsibility evidenced by having been adjudged insane, or mentally irresponsible, or an incompetent, or a chronic alcoholic, or treated for serious mental or neurological disorders or for chronic alcoholism, without evidence of cure; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The criteria so marked are applicable only to those applications concerning entry into areas under military cognizance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) Conviction of any of the following offenses under circumstances indicative of a criminal tendency potentially dangerous to the security of a strategic area containing military establishments; arson, unlawful trafficking in drugs, murder, kidnaping, blackmail, or sex offenses involving minors or perversion.
</P>
<P>(10) Chronic alcoholism or addiction to the use of narcotic drugs without adequate evidence of rehabilitation; 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(11) Illegal presence in the United States, its territories or possessions, having been finally subject to deportation order, or voluntary departure in lieu of deportation order, by the United States Immigration and Naturalization Service; 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(12) Being the subject of proceedings for deportation or voluntary departure in lieu of deportation for any reasons which have not been determined in the applicant's favor; 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(13) Conviction of larceny of property of the United States, willful injury to or destruction of property of the United States, fraudulent enlistment, impersonation of a commissioned officer of the United States or any state or territory thereof, or any offense involving moral turpitude, except offenses, which, in the jurisdiction within which the conviction was obtained, are punishable by imprisonment for not more than one year or a fine of not more than one thousand dollars. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aliens.</I> (1) Entry of aliens for employment or residence in an area entirely within the borders of a defense area is not authorized except when such entry would serve the interests of National Defense, and then only for specified periods and under prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Entry of aliens for any purpose into areas over which the United States exercises sovereignty is further subject to requirements imposed by law for the obtaining of a United States visa. Naval authorization for entry into areas covered by this part will not be issued to foreign nationals for purposes, places, or periods of time in excess of those stipulated in the visa.
</P>
<P>(3) Alien spouses and bona fide dependents of U.S. citizen employees of the United States may, if otherwise qualified, be granted entry authorization so long as the U.S. citizen sponsor or principal remains on duty or resident within the defense area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Renewals.</I> Entry authorizations having been granted and utilized may be extended or renewed upon request at the expiration of the period for which the entry was originally authorized or extended, provided the justification for remaining in the area or for making a reentry meets the criteria set forth in this part. It shall be the responsibility of every applicant to depart the defense area for which entry was authorized upon expiration of the time prescribed in the authorization, unless such authorization has been extended or renewed. Failure to comply herewith will be considered as evidence of violation of this part and may result in denial of future authorizations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 36 FR 21890, Nov. 17, 1971; 41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.7   Basic controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except for such persons, ship, or aircraft as are issued an authorization to enter by an Entry Control Commander:
</P>
<P>(1) No person, except persons aboard public vessels or aircraft of the United States, shall enter any defense area.
</P>
<P>(2) No vessel or other craft, except public vessels of the United States shall enter any naval defensive sea area or other defense area.
</P>
<P>(3) No aircraft, except public aircraft of the United States, shall be navigated within any naval airspace reservation of the airspace over other defense areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excluded persons</I>—(1) <I>Entry prohibited.</I> Excluded persons, as defined in § 761.5(e), are prohibited from entering any defense area. In a bona fide emergency which requires an excluded person's presence in or transit through a military installation which is also a defense area, the commanding officer of the installation may grant permission to enter or transit subject to such restrictions as may be imposed by regulation or which may, in his discretion, be required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Carrying prohibited.</I> Except in a bona fide emergency and after being authorized by the appropriate local authority, no vessel or aircraft, except public vessels and aircraft of the United States, shall enter into or be navigated within any defense area while carrying any excluded person, as defined in this part, as passenger, officer or crew member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control of violators.</I> No commanding officer of a military installation shall permit any ship or aircraft which has entered the limits of his command by passing through a defense area without authorization to land, except in emergency, or, if permitted to land, to disembark passengers or cargo except as authorized by the appropriate Entry Control Commander. Commanding officers will take appropriate action to apprehend violators who come within their jurisdiction and request disposition instructions from the appropriate Entry Control Commander.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Trust Territory.</I> An authorization from the High Commissioner is required for all persons desiring to enter the Trust Territory, except for those areas under military jurisdiction where entry is controlled by the Department of the Army (Kwajalein Atoll) and the Defense Nuclear Agency (Eniwetok Atoll).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Military areas.</I> Entries authorized under this Instruction do not affect the authority of a commanding officer or other appropriate commander to impose and enforce proper regulations pertaining to movement into or within naval stations or other military installations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver prohibited.</I> No officer of the U.S. Armed Forces, except as authorized in writing by the Chief of Naval Operations, has authority to waive the requirements of this part, and any waiver must be in writing and signed by an authorized person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 36 FR 21890, Nov. 17, 1971; 41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Entry Authorization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.8   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As indicated in § 761.7(a), certain persons, ships, and aircraft must be specifically authorized under the provisions of this part to enter defense areas.
</P>
<P>(b) When entering or transiting a defense area each person, ship, or aircraft must have a valid authorization or satisfactory evidence thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.9   Entry Control Commanders.</HEAD>
<P>The following commanders are designated Entry Control Commanders with authority to approve or disapprove individual entry authorizations for persons, ships, or aircraft as indicated (Commander Seventeenth Coast Guard District has been designated an Entry Control Commander by the authority of the Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard and Commander, Western Area, U.S. Coast Guard);
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Chief of Naval Operations.</I> Authorization for all persons, ships, or aircraft to enter all defense areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet.</I> Authorization for all persons, ships, or aircraft to enter defense areas in the Atlantic.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commander in Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet.</I> Authorization for all persons, ships, or aircraft to enter defense areas in the Pacific.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commander U.S. Naval Forces Caribbean.</I> Authorization for all persons, ships, and aircraft to enter the Guantanamo Bay Naval Defensive Sea Area and the Guantanamo Naval Airspace Reservation. (This authority delegated to Commander U.S. Naval Base, Guantanamo Bay.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commander U.S. Naval Base, Guantanamo Bay.</I> Authorization for all persons, ships, and aircraft to enter the Guantanamo Bay Naval Defensive Sea Area and the Guantanamo Naval Airspace Reservation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commander Third Fleet.</I> Authorization for U.S. citizens and U.S. registered private vessels to enter Midway Island, Kingman Reef, Kaneohe Bay Naval Defensive Sea Area, Pearl Harbor Defensive Sea Area and Filipino workers employed by U.S. contractors to enter Wake Island.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commander U.S. Naval Forces, Marianas.</I> Authorization in conjunction with the High Commissioner, for non-U.S. citizens, ships, or aircraft documented under laws other than those of the United States or the Trust Territory to enter those portions of the Trust Territory where entry is not controlled by the Department of the Army or the Defense Nuclear Agency.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Senior naval commander in defense area.</I> Emergency authorization for persons, ships, or aircraft in cases of emergency or distress. In all cases the Chief of Naval Operations, and as appropriate, the Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet or the Commander in Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet, and other interested commands, shall be informed immediately of the nature of the emergency, and action taken.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>U.S. Coast Guard.</I> The U.S. Coast Guard regulates the movement of shipping within the Honolulu Harbor under the authority of Executive Orders 10173 and 10289; such shipping is considered to be under U.S. authorized supervision within the meaning of Executive Order 8987. The Commandant, Fourteenth Naval District, as representative of the Secretary of the Navy, retains responsibility for security of the Honolulu Defensive Sea Area, as required by naval interest, and, as such, issues amplifying instructions relating to the Honolulu Defensive Sea Area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.10   Persons: Group authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>Persons in the following categories, except those persons who have been denied individual authorization or have had a prior authorization revoked, may enter the defense areas indicated without individual authorization:
</P>
<P>(a) Persons aboard U.S. public vessels or aircraft entering a Naval Defensive Sea Area or a Naval Airspace Reservation.
</P>
<P>(b) Military members of the U.S. Armed Forces or U.S. civil service employees of the Department of Defense when traveling on official orders.
</P>
<P>(c) U.S. ambassadors, cabinet members, elected U.S. Government officers and U.S. citizen civil service employees of the U.S. Government traveling on official orders on U.S. Government business may enter defense areas as required by their orders.
</P>
<P>(d) Dependents of military members of the U.S. Armed Forces and U.S. citizen dependents of U.S. civil service employees traveling on official orders and entering for purposes of joining a principal permanently stationed in an area covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(e) U.S. Navy Technicians, U.S. Army Contract Technicians, or U.S. Air Force Contract Technicians, who are traveling on official (does not include invitational) travel orders on U.S. Government business, may enter defense areas as specifically required by such orders.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) Individuals on board any foreign public vessel or aircraft which has been granted diplomatic or other official U.S. Government authorization to enter an area covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(h) Through passengers and bona fide regularly employed crew members, unless otherwise excluded, on nonpublic vessels authorized to enter areas covered by this part. This does not include an authorization to disembark at a port contiguous to or within the areas covered in this part. Application for authorization to disembark may be submitted to an Entry Control Commander having jurisdiction over the particular port.
</P>
<P>(i) Through passengers and bona fide regularly employed crew members, unless otherwise excluded, on nonpublic aircraft authorized to enter areas covered by this part. Such persons are subject to local regulations governing entry into or movement within military air stations or facilities. Application for authorization to disembark may be submitted to an Entry Control Commander having jurisdiction over the air facility.
</P>
<P>(j) U.S. citizen news correspondents and photographers when properly accredited by the Department of Defense to enter areas covered by this part except that special authorization is required to enter the restricted areas listed in § 761.4(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 36 FR 21890, Nov. 17, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.11   Persons: Individual authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application; filing.</I> Applications for authorization to enter defense areas shall be filed with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet.
</P>
<P>(3) Commander in Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet.
</P>
<P>(4) Any Naval Sea Frontier Commander.
</P>
<P>(5) Any Naval Fleet or Force Commander.
</P>
<P>(6) Any Naval District Commandant.
</P>
<P>(7) Any Naval Attache. The Commander or Attache with whom the application is filed is responsible for taking such action on the application as he may be empowered to do or for forwarding the application to the nearest Entry Control Commander authorized by this part to take action thereon. Applications received in the United States and those received indicating that the applicant has resided in the United States for the major portion of ten years immediately prior to date of request will normally be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Operations for action. In all cases where the forwarding activity has information regarding the applicant or his employer, appropriate comment and/or recommendation for disposition will be included in the forwarding letter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form.</I> (1) Applications for entry authorizations will be made on the standard form Statement of Personal History, DD 398, which is available at most military installations. In addition to the information required by the form, an entry application shall include the following additional information under Item 20, “Remarks”:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>21. Purpose of proposed visit: (Detailed statement including names of principal persons, firms, or establishments to be visited)
</P>
<P>22. Proposed duration of visit:
</P>
<P>23. Estimated date of arrival:
</P>
<P>24. Address to which authorization should be mailed:</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In the event that a DD 398 form is not available, a locally produced form containing identical information including the certification and signature of applicant and witness may be utilized.
</FP>
<P>(2) Incomplete forms will be returned for completion.
</P>
<P>(3) When time is of the essence, emergency applications may be forwarded by message to the appropriate Entry Control Commander. Such messages shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date and place of birth.
</P>
<P>(iii) Citizenship.
</P>
<P>(iv) Residence for last ten (10) years.
</P>
<P>(v) Employers and their addresses for last ten (10) years.
</P>
<P>(vi) Results of Local Agency Check, if pertinent.
</P>
<P>(vii) Place to be entered and date of entry.
</P>
<P>(viii) Purpose of entry and duration of stay.
</P>
<P>(ix) Comments and/or recommendations of forwarding officer as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(x) A statement that a completed DD 398 or appropriate substitute has been mailed prior to the sending of the message.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing.</I> The Entry Control Commander empowered to issue entry authorizations shall upon receipt of an application take the following action:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiate or conduct such investigation as may be required to establish facts upon which to make a determination that the entry of the applicant at the time and for the purpose indicated is or is not in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 761.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Request additional information from the applicant if required, or
</P>
<P>(3) Issue an entry authorization as requested or modified as circumstances require, or
</P>
<P>(4) Deny the request and advise the applicant of his right to appeal, or,
</P>
<P>(5) Forward the application to the next superior in command together with a statement of the investigation conducted and the reason for forwarding and comments or recommendations as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authorizations.</I> Entry authorizations will state the purpose for which the entry is authorized and such other information and conditions as are pertinent to the particular authorization. Authorizations to enter and re-enter may be issued to resident U.S. citizens and be valid for a specified time not to exceed two years. Authorizations may be issued to U.S. citizens residing abroad and to aliens to enter and re-enter for a specified period of time required to accomplish the purpose for which the authorization was issued not to exceed one year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.12   Ships: Group authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>Ships or other craft in the following categories, except those ships which have been denied individual authorization or have had a prior authorization revoked, may enter the defense areas indicated without individual authorizations:
</P>
<P>(a) U.S. Public vessels, to enter all defense areas.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. private vessels which are: (1) Under charter to the Department of Defense (including the Military Sealift Command), or (2) operating under a contract or charter with the Department of Defense providing for the employment of such vessels, or (3) routed by a Naval Control of Shipping Office, or (4) employed exclusively in support of and in connection with a Department of Defense construction, maintenance, or repair contract and whose crews carry individual entry clearances, to enter defense areas as authorized by controlling Defense Department agency.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Privately owned local craft, registered with and licensed by appropriate local U.S. Government authorities, and owned and operated by local inhabitants who have been granted an authorization to enter the local defense area at the discretion of the local commanders.
</P>
<P>(e) Foreign flag ships traveling on diplomatic or other special clearance or for which special arrangements have been made under international agreements or treaties.
</P>
<P>(f) Ships operating under a group authorization issued by the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(g) Ships in distress, subject to local clearances and control by senior officer present.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 36 FR 21890, Nov. 17, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.13   Ships: Individual authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applications; form; filing.</I> Applications for authorization to navigate ships within the limits of defense areas shall be filed with the cognizant Entry Control Commander by letter or telegram including the following information and any additional information that may be relative to the proposed operation:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of ship.
</P>
<P>(2) Place of registry and registry number.
</P>
<P>(3) Name, nationality and address of operator.
</P>
<P>(4) Name, nationality and address of owner.
</P>
<P>(5) Gross tonnage of ship.
</P>
<P>(6) Nationality and numbers of officers and crew (include crewlist when practicable).
</P>
<P>(7) Number of passengers (include list when practicable).
</P>
<P>(8) Last port of call prior to entry into area for which clearance is requested.
</P>
<P>(9) Purpose of visit.
</P>
<P>(10) Proposed date of entry and estimated duration of stay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing.</I> Authorization for single entries or for multiple entries for a period not to exceed one year may be granted or denied by an Entry Control Commander. Authorizations for multiple entries for a period to exceed one year or for special group entries must be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Operations with appropriate comments and recommendations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.14   Aircraft: Group authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>Aircraft in the following categories, except those aircraft which have been denied individual authorization or have had a prior authorization revoked, may enter the defense areas indicated without individual authorization:
</P>
<P>(a) U.S. public aircraft to enter all defense areas.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. private aircraft which are under charter to the Department of Defense (including the Military Airlift Command), or operating under a contract with the Department of Defense providing for the employment of such aircraft to overfly U.S. island positions to enter defense areas as authorized by controlling Defense Department agency. If landing at U.S. military facilities is required, see § 761.15(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Foreign flag aircraft for which special arrangements have been made under international agreements or treaties.
</P>
<P>(d) Aircraft operated by companies authorized to utilize naval facilities in defense areas for regular commercial activity, to enter defense areas associated therewith. For landing clearance at U.S. military facilities, see § 761.15(a).
</P>
<P>(e) Any aircraft in distress, subject to local clearance and control by senior officer present.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.15" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.15   Aircraft: Individual authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special procedures.</I> In addition to the entry authorization to enter or navigate within the defense area concerned, certain special procedures must be followed by aircraft:
</P>
<P>(1) If landing at U.S. naval aviation facilities, an Aviation Facility License must be obtained, in accordance with Secretary of the Navy Instruction 3770.1B, Use of Department of the Navy aviation facilities by other than United States Department of Defense aircraft.
</P>
<P>(2) If landing at U.S. Air Force aviation facilities, a Civil Aircraft Landing Permit must be obtained, in accordance with Department of the Airforce Regulation 55-20, Use of United States Air Force installations by other than United States Department of Defense aircraft.
</P>
<P>(3) Foreign public aircraft must obtain diplomatic clearance or clearance under applicable special agreements or treaties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application; Form; Filing.</I> Applications for authorization to navigate aircraft within the limits of defense areas shall be made by letter or telegram addressed to the appropriate entry control commander as indicated in § 761.9 with information copies to the Chief of Naval Operations, Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic (or Pacific) Fleet, as appropriate, and other local commanders who are known to be concerned. Applications shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Type and serial number of aircraft (the number of aircraft in flight if a mass movement is involved), nationality and name of registered owner.
</P>
<P>(2) Name and rank of senior pilot.
</P>
<P>*
<FTREF/>(3) Number in crew.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>*See “Note” to this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>*(4) Number of passengers and whether military or civilian; include name (and rank) of distinguished passengers.
</P>
<P>(5) Purpose of flight.
</P>
<P>(6) Plan of flight route, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Point of origin of flight and its destination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimated date and times of arrival and departure at all airspaces covered by this part 761 including stops within the Trust Territory, when pertinent.
</P>
<P>(7) Radio call signs of aircraft and radio frequencies available.
</P>
<P>(8) Whether cameras are to be carried and whether they will be used.
</P>
<P>*(9) Whether arms are to be carried.
</P>
<P>*(10) Whether authorization to land as indicated in § 761.15(a) has been obtained.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Information on those items marked with an asterisk (*) need not be reported when the aircraft will only overfly the areas covered by this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Processing.</I> Authorization for individual entries or for multiple entries for a period not to exceed three months may be granted by an Entry Control Commander. Authorizations for multiple entries over a period to exceed three months and applications for group authorizations must be forwarded to the Chief of Naval Operations with appropriate comments and recommendations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28958, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.16" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.16   Notice of action.</HEAD>
<P>All applicants will be kept advised of action being taken relative to the processing of applications. Individuals whose applications cannot be processed promptly (usually within ten working days) or whose applications must be forwarded to another office for processing will be notified of the anticipated delay and advised of the approximate time when action may be expected to be taken. Under no circumstances will a notice of disapproval include a statement of the reason therefor. Copies of all notices will be distributed to commands and Entry Control Commanders concerned. Copies of all notices of disapproval will be mailed to the Chief of Naval Operations concurrently with the mailing to the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.17   Revocation.</HEAD>
<P>Entry authorizations will be revoked only by an Entry Control Commander upon being advised of the discovery of information which would have been ground for denial of the initial request. Such a revocation will be confirmed in writing to the holder of an entry authorization. No reason for revocation of the entry authorization will be given. When an entry authorization is revoked, a one-way permit will be issued as appropriate, to permit the ship, aircraft, or person to transit the defense area in order to depart from a contiguous area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.18   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appeals may be filed with the Entry Control Commander who issued the denial or revocation. It shall contain a complete statement of the purpose of the proposed entry and a statement of reasons why the entry should be authorized, including a showing that the entry will be consistent with the purposes of national defense.
</P>
<P>(b) Appeal letters shall be forwarded promptly to the next superior Entry Control Commander with an endorsement setting forth the reasons for the denial or revocation and a recommendation as to the action to be taken by the superior.
</P>
<P>(c) The superior may act on the appeal and notify the applicant of the decision, or he may forward the appeal to the next superior and notify the applicant of this referral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13778, Dec. 18, 1963, as amended at 41 FR 28959, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.19   Forms.</HEAD>
<P>The following forms shall be used in connection with the processing of applications for authorization to enter defense areas and for revocation of authorizations as indicated:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Statement of Personal History (Form DD 398, Stock Number 0102-004-220) may be obtained from NAVPUBFORMCEN, Building 26, 5801 Tabor Ave., Philadelphia, PA 19120.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Entry authorization.</I> (1) Defense Area Entry Authorization (OPNAVForm 4600-2 (Rev. 5-59) may be obtained from Office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09B33), Navy Department, Washington, DC 20350.
</P>
<P>(2) Letter or message authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disapproval of request for entry authorization.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">My Dear</E> ______: Your application of ___ has been reviewed and we regret to advise you that the requested authorization for ________ to enter ________ is not granted as the entry at this time for the purpose stated is not considered to be in the interest of national defense.
</P>
<P>The application may be resubmitted again in six months at which time it will be reconsidered in the light of then existing circumstances.
</P>
<P>If you desire to appeal this decision, you may do so by submitting a letter to this office setting forth in full why you consider that the granting of the application would be in the interest of national defense and any other information that you believe will be of value of this person considering the appeal. Your letter will be forwarded to the appropriate authority for review and you will be advised in due course of his determination.
</P>
<P2>Sincerely yours,</P2></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Revocation of entry authorization.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">My Dear ______:</E> This is to notify you that entry authorization to enter ________ granted by (issuing activity) on ____ is hereby revoked effective this date.
</P>
<P2>Sincerely yours,</P2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28959, July 14, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Instructions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 761.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.17.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.20   Additional regulations governing persons and vessels in Naval Defensive Sea Areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By virtue of the authority vested in the President by section 44 of the United States Criminal Code, as amended and reenacted in 18 U.S.C. 2152, the President has prescribed the following additional regulations in Executive Order 9275 of November 23, 1942 (7 FR 9767; 1943 Cum. Supp. p. 1227) to govern persons and vessels within the limits of defensive sea areas theretofore or thereafter established.
</P>
<P>(1) No person shall have in his possession within the limits of any defensive sea area, any camera or other device for taking pictures, or any film, plate or other device upon or out of which a photographic imprint, negative or positive, can be made, except in the performance of official duty or employment in connection with the national defense, or when authorized pursuant to the provisions of the Act approved June 25, 1942 (Pub. L. 627, 77th Congress), as amended (50 U.S.C. App. 781-785), and the regulations promulgated thereunder (7 FR 7307; 32 CFR 765.19(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) It shall be the duty of the master or officer in charge of any vessel to take custody of and safeguard all cameras or other devices for taking pictures, or film, plate or other device upon or out of which a photographic imprint, positive or negative, can be made, the possession of which is prohibited by Executive Order 9275, from any person, prior to the time any vessel enters any defensive sea area or upon the boarding by any person of any vessel while within a defensive sea area, and to retain custody thereof until such vessel is outside the defensive sea area or the person is about to disembark.
</P>
<P>(3) There shall be prominently displayed on board all vessels, except public war vessels of the United States manned by personnel in the naval service, a printed notice containing the regulations prescribed in Executive Order 9275.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person violating section 1 of Executive Order 9275 (restated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) shall be liable to prosecution as provided in section 44 of the Criminal Code as amended and reenacted in 18 U.S.C. 2152.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations stated in paragraph (a) of this section are not a limitation on prosecution under any other statute that may have been violated by acts or omissions prohibited by Executive Order 9275.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="762" NODE="32:5.1.1.6.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 762 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="32:5.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—MISCELLANEOUS RULES


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="765" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 765—RULES APPLICABLE TO THE PUBLIC
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5031, 6011, 70A Stat. 278, 375, as amended; sec. 133, 76 Stat. 517; sec. 301, 80 Stat. 379; 5 U.S.C. 301, 10 U.S.C. 133, 956, 5031, 6011, 7881; DOD 7000.14-R, Financial Management Regulation, Vol. 10.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§§ 765.1-765.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 765.1-765.5   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.6   Regulations for Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.</HEAD>
<P>The Commander, U.S. Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, Hawaii, is responsible for prescribing and enforcing such rules and regulations as may be necessary for insuring security and for governing the navigation, movements, and anchorage of vessels in the waters of Pearl Harbor and in the entrance channel thereto.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 1, 37 Stat. 341, 62 Stat. 799; 18 U.S.C. 2152, 33 U.S.C. 475; E.O. 8143, 4 FR 2179, 3 CFR 1943 Cum. Supp. 504)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 16620, Dec. 29, 1966]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 765.9-765.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 765.9-765.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.12   Navy and Marine Corps absentees; rewards.</HEAD>
<P>The following is set forth as it applies to Navy and Marine Corps absentees. The term “absentee,” as used in this section, refers to a service member who commits the offense of absence without leave. Cf. article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. 886).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of rewards</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> When authorized by military officials of the Armed Forces, any civil officer having authority to arrest offenders may apprehend an individual absent without leave from the military service of the United States and deliver him into custody of the military authorities. The receipt of Absentee Wanted by the Armed Forces (DD Form 553) or oral or written notification from military officials or Federal law enforcement officials that the person is absent and that his return to military control is desired is authority for apprehension and will be considered as an offer of a reward. When such a reward has been offered, persons or agency representatives (except salaried officers or employees of the Federal Government, or service members) apprehending or delivering absentees or deserters to military control will be entitled to a payment of
</P>
<P>(i) $50 for the apprehension and detention until military authorities assume control, or
</P>
<P>(ii) $75 for the apprehension and delivery to military control.
</P>
<FP>Payment of reward will be made to the person or agency representative actually making the arrest and the turnover or delivery to military control. If two or more persons or agencies join in performing these services, payment may be made jointly or severally but the total payment or payments will not exceed $50 or $75 as applicable. Payment of a reward is authorized whether the absentee or deserter voluntarily surrenders to civil authorities or is apprehended. Payment is not authorized for information merely leading to the apprehension of an absentee or deserter.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Payment procedure.</I> The disbursing officer, special disbursing agent or agent officer of the military activity to which an absentee or deserter is first delivered will be responsible for payment of the reward. Payment of rewards will be made on SF 1034 or NAVCOMPT Form 2277 supported by a copy of DD Form 553 or other form or notification that an individual is absent and that his return to military control is desired, and a statement signed by the claimant specifying that he apprehended (or accepted voluntary surrender) and detained the absentee or deserter until military authorities assumed control, or that he apprehended (or accepted voluntary surrender) and delivered the absentee or deserter to military control. If oral notification was made in lieu of written notification, the claimant will so certify and provide the date of notification and the name, rank or rate, title, and organization of the person who made the authorized notice of reward for apprehension of the absentee or deserter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reimbursement for actual expenses</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> When a reward has not been offered or when conditions for payment of a reward otherwise cannot be met, reimbursement, not to exceed $75, may be made to any person or agency for actual expenses incurred in the apprehension and detention or delivery to military control of an absentee or deserter. If two or more persons or agencies join in performing these services, payment may be made jointly or severally, but the total payment or payments may not exceed $25. Reimbursement may not be made for the same apprehension and detention or delivery for which a reward has been paid. Actual expenses for which reimbursement may be made include:
</P>
<P>(i) Transportation costs, including mileage at the rate established by the Joint Travel Regulation for travel by privately owned vehicle, for a round trip from either the place of apprehension or civil police headquarters to place of return to military control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meals furnished the service member for which the cost was assumed by the apprehending person or agency representative;
</P>
<P>(iii) Telephone or telegraph communication costs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Damages to property of the apprehending person or agency if caused directly by the service member during the apprehension, detention, or delivery;
</P>
<P>(v) Such other reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the actual apprehension, detention, or delivery as may be considered justifiable and reimbursable by the commanding officer. Reimbursement will not be made for:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Lodging at nonmilitary confinement facilities;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Transportation performed by the use of official Federal, State, county, or municipal vehicles;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Personal services of the apprehending, detaining, or delivering person or agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment procedure.</I> The disbursing officer or special disbursing agent of the military activity to which an absentee or deserter is first delivered will be responsible for making reimbursement for actual expenses. Reimbursement will be effected on SF 1034 or NAVCOMPT Form 2277 supported by an itemized statement in triplicate signed by the claimant and approved by the commanding officer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reimbursement for subsistence furnished</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> Civil authorities may be reimbursed for the cost of subsistence furnished absentees or deserters placed in their custody for safekeeping at the request of military authorities. Such reimbursement will be in addition to rewards and reimbursement for actual expenses authorized in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment procedure.</I> The disbursing officer or special disbursing agent of the military activity requesting the safekeeping confinement will be responsible for making reimbursement for subsistence furnished by civil authorities. Reimbursement will be effected on SF 1034 or NAVCOMPT Form 2277 supported by an itemized statement signed by the claimant and approved by the officer who requested the confinement.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing said in this section shall be construed to restrict or exclude authority to apprehend an offender in accordance with law.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 807, 70A Stat. 39; 10 U.S.C. 807. Interpret or apply secs. 808, 7214, 70A Stat. 40, 445; 10 U.S.C. 808, 7214)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 1075, Feb. 6, 1960, as amended at 51 FR 22283, June 19, 1986; 65 FR 53172, Sept. 1, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.13   Insignia to be worn on uniform by persons not in the service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under title 10 U.S.C., section 773, members of military societies composed of persons discharged honorably or under honorable conditions from the United States Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps, regular or reserve, may, when authorized by regulations prescribed by the President, wear the uniform duly prescribed by such societies to be worn by the members thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The law cited in paragraph (a) of this section further provides that instructors and members of duly organized cadet corps at certain institutions of learning may wear the uniform duly prescribed by the authorities of such institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) The law cited in paragraph (a) of this section further provides that the uniform worn by members of the military societies or by members and instructors of the cadet corps referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall include some distinctive mark or insignia prescribed by the Secretary of the military department concerned to distinguish such uniforms from the uniforms of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the following mark is hereby designated to be worn by all persons wearing the Navy or Marine Corps uniform as provided in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section: A diamond, 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inches long in the vertical axis, and 2 inches wide in the horizontal axis, of any cloth material, white on blue clothing, forestry green on khaki clothing, and blue on white clothing. The figure shall be worn on all outer clothing on the right sleeve, at the point of the shoulder, the upper tip of the diamond to be one-fourth inch below the shoulder seam. For persons who are participating in United States Marine Corps Junior ROTC programs, the following mark is designated to be worn: A round patch, three inches in diameter, which contains a gold Marine Corps emblem centered on a scarlet field. The scarlet field is surrounded with a blue border containing the words “United States Marine Corps Junior ROTC” in white lettering. Surrounding the blue field will be a gold border. Unless otherwise directed, the patch will be worn in the manner described above in connection with the “diamond” insignia.
</P>
<P>(e) Within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section, the occasions when members of the military societies may wear the uniform of their respective society are official functions which such a member attends in his capacity as a war veteran or as a member of such military society.
</P>
<P>(f) Marine Corps Uniform Regulations may be examined and individual copies of pertinent provisions thereof may be purchased in accordance with § 701.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 773, 70A Stat. 35; 10 U.S.C. 773)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[13 FR 8971, Dec. 28, 1948, as amended at 26 FR 11794, Dec. 12, 1961; 37 FR 6472, Mar. 30, 1972; 44 FR 37610, June 28, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.19.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.14   Unofficial use of the seal, emblem, names, or initials of the Marine Corps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> To establish procedures to determine whether to grant permission to use or imitate the seal, emblem, names, or initials of the Marine Corps in connection with commercial and certain noncommercial activities pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 7881. The Secretary of the Navy, in Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5030.7, has provided the policy and delegated to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC), power to subdelegate to certain subordinate officers in writing, the authority to grant permission required by section 7881(b) of 10 U.S.C. for such use or imitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> The provisions of this Order requiring prior approval of the Secretary of the Navy, CMC, or the designee apply only to the use or imitation of the seal, emblem, names, or initials of the Marine Corps that suggest official approval, endorsement, or authorization is in connection with a promotion, goods, services, or commercial activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards</I>—(1) <I>No unofficial use or imitation of the Marine Corps seal.</I> Reproduction and use of the Marine Corps seal, as designated in Executive Order No. 10538 of June 22, 1954, is restricted to materials emanating from Headquarters Marine Corps. Except for manufacture of official letterhead stationery and related items of official Marine Corps use, reproduction and use of the Marine Corps seal is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unofficial use or imitation of the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials.</I> Requests from civilian enterprises to use or imitate the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials will ordinarily be approved where use or imitation merely provides a Marine Corps accent or flavor to otherwise fungible goods. Disapproval, however, usually may be expected where such use or imitation reasonably would:
</P>
<P>(i) Imply any official or unofficial connection between the Marine Corps and the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tend to create the impression that the Marine Corps or the United States is in any way responsible for any financial or legal obligation of the user;
</P>
<P>(iii) Give the impression that the Marine Corps selectively benefits the particular manufacturer, commercial entity, or other user, as in displaying the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials on musical instruments, weapons, or the like, and in using the emblem, names, or initials in connection with advertising, naming, or describing products and services such as insurance, real estate, or financial services; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Tend to subject the Marine Corps to discredit or would be inimical to the health, safety, welfare, or morale of the members of the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptable use of imitation of the Marine Corps insignia.</I> No request for permission is required when a use or imitation of the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials includes prominent display of the disclaimer, “Neither the United States Marine Corps nor any other component of the Department of Defense has approved, endorsed, or authorized this product (or promotion, or service, or activity)” as an integral part of the use of imitation. A “prominent display” is one located on the same page as the first use of the insignia, prominent in that use, and printed in letters at least one half the size and density of the insignia.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action</I>—(1) <I>When permission required.</I> Commercial or noncommercial use or imitation of the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials is prohibited unless permission is first obtained in writing from the CMC, except when such use does not suggest that the use or imitation is approved, endorsed, or authorized by the Marine Corps or any other component of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> The CMC hereby redelegates, pursuant to the authorization in paragraph 4 of the Secretary of the Navy 5030.7, authority to grant written permission to use the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials to the Director, Administration Resource Management (ARDE). Prior to granting approval for commercial usage of the Marine Corps insignia, the CMC (ARDE) shall forward such requests to the Head, Marine Corps Exchange Service Branch, Facilities and Services Division, Installations and Logistics Department (CMC) (LFE)) and to the Counsel for the Commandant (CMC (CL)) for comment and concurrence. All other requests shall be routed to the Director, Judge Advocate Division (CMC (JAR)) for comment and concurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for obtaining written permission.</I> Requests for written permission to use or imitate the Marine Corps emblem, names, or initials shall be in writing and shall be directed to the CMC (ARDE). The request should, at a minimum, contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the requester.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the type of activity in which the requester is engaged or proposes to engage.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of whether the requester considers the proposed use or imitation to be commercial or noncommercial, and why.
</P>
<P>(iv) A brief description and illustration or sample of the proposed use or imitation, as well as a description of the product or service in connection with which it will be used. This description will provide sufficient detail to enable the Marine Corps to determine whether there is a reasonable tendency to suggest such use or imitation is approved, endorsed, or authorized by the Marine Corps or any other component of the Department of Defense.
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a noncommercial use of imitation, a copy of the charter, constitution, bylaws, and similar organizational documents of the requester, together with a detailed description of its function or purpose. Insufficiently specific requests will be returned for additional information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reserve applicability.</I> This Order is applicable to the Marine Corps Reserve.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 45467, Dec. 19, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 62619, Oct. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="766" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 766—USE OF DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY AVIATION FACILITIES BY CIVIL AIRCRAFT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 1507.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 14451, Sept. 15, 1970, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The provisions of this part 766 are SECNAV Instruction 3770.1B of 30 June 1970.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 766.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the policy and procedures for the use of Navy and Marine Corps aviation facilities by aircraft other than U.S. Department of Defense aircraft.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.2   Definition of terms.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part certain terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Alternate use.</I> Use of the aviation facility, specified in the flight plan, to which an aircraft may divert when a landing at the point of first intended landing becomes impractical because of weather. (Aircraft may not be dispatched, prior to takeoff from the airport of origin, to a facility licensed for alternate use.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil aircraft.</I> Domestic or foreign aircraft operated by private individuals or corporations, or foreign government-owned aircraft operated for commercial purposes. This includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contract aircraft.</I> Civil aircraft operated under charter or other contract to any U.S. Government department or agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Leased aircraft.</I> U.S. Government-owned aircraft delivered by the Government to a lessee subject to terms prescribed in an agreement which does not limit the lessee's use of the aircraft to Government business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil aviation.</I> All flying activity by civil aircraft including:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial aviation.</I> Transportation by aircraft of passengers or cargo for hire and the ferrying of aircraft as a commercial venture.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General aviation.</I> All types of civil aviation other than commercial aviation as defined above.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Facility.</I> A separately located and officially defined area of real property in which the Navy exercises a real property interest and which has been designated as a Navy or Marine Corps aviation facility by cognizant authority; or where the Department of the Navy has jurisdiction over real property agreements, expressed or implied, with foreign governments, or by rights of occupation. (This definition does not include aircraft carriers nor any other type of naval vessel with a landing area for aircraft.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Government aircraft.</I> Aircraft owned or operated by any department or agency of either the United States or a foreign government (except a foreign government-owned aircraft operated for commercial purposes). Also aircraft owned by any department, agency, or political subdivision of a State, territory, or possession of the United States when such local government has sole responsibility for operating the aircraft. Government aircraft includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Military aircraft.</I> Aircraft used in the military services of any government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bailed aircraft.</I> U.S. Government-owned aircraft delivered by the Government to a Government contractor for a specific purpose directly related to a Government contract.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loaned aircraft.</I> U.S. Government-owned aircraft delivered gratuitously by any Department of Defense agency to another Government agency, to a U.S. Navy or Marine Corps Flying Club, or to a U.S. Army or Air Force Aero Club.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint-use facility.</I> A Navy or Marine Corps facility where a specific agreement between the Department of the Navy and a civilian community, or between the U.S. Government and a foreign government, provides for civil aircraft use of the runways and taxiways. Civil aircraft terminal, parking, and servicing facilities are established and controlled by civil authorities in an area separate from those of the Navy or Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Official business.</I> Business, in the interest of the U.S. Government, which personnel aboard an aircraft must transact with U.S. Government organizations or personnel at or near the naval aviation facility concerned. Use of a facility to solicit U.S. Government business is not “official business.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Provisional use.</I> Use of a naval aviation facility for the purpose of providing adequate service to a community where, because of repair, construction or the performance of other work, the regular civil airport servicing the community is not available for an extended period. (An aircraft may be dispatched prior to takeoff from the airport of origin to a naval aviation facility authorized for provisional use.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scheduled use.</I> Use of a facility on a scheduled or regularly recurring basis by an air carrier certified by the Civil Aeronautics Board to provide passenger and cargo service to a community or area.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Services in connection with Government contracts.</I> This type of operation, cited on the Aviation Facility License, indicates the use of a facility for transporting the contractor's supplies and personnel for the performance of work at the facility under the terms of a specific U.S. Government contract.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Technical stop.</I> An en route landing for the purpose of obtaining fuel, oil, minor repairs, or crew rest. This does not include passenger accommodations nor passenger/cargo enplaning or deplaning privileges unless specifically authorized by the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>User.</I> An individual, corporation, or company named in the Aviation Facility License and the Certificate of Insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.3   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Section 1107(a) of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1507, 1508) states that “Air navigation facilities owned or operated by the United States may be made available for public use under such conditions and to such extent as the head of the department or other agency having jurisdiction thereof deems advisable and may by regulation prescribe.” (See § 766.13 for restrictions imposed by the Federal Aviation Act of 1958.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>Navy and Marine Corps aviation facilities are established to support the operation of Navy and Marine Corps aircraft. Equipment, personnel and material are maintained only at a level necessitated by these requirements and shall not be used to support the operation or maintenance of civil aircraft or non U.S. Government aircraft, except as noted below. (Nothing in this part, however, should be interpreted to prohibit any aircraft from landing at any suitable Navy or Marine Corps aviation facility in case of a bona fide emergency.) (See § 766.5(i).)
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subject to the procedures established elsewhere in this part, civil aircraft and government aircraft, other than those belonging to the U.S. Government may use Navy or Marine Corps facilities, if necessary, <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) They do not interfere with military requirements, and the security of military operations, facilities, or equipment is not compromised.
</P>
<P>(2) No adequate civil airport is available. (Exception to this provision may be made when the aircraft is operated in connection with official business as defined in this part.)
</P>
<P>(3) Pilots comply with regulations promulgated by the cognizant military agency and the commanding officer of the facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Civil aircraft users assume the risk in accordance with the provisions of the Aviation Facility License.
</P>
<P>(5) Each aircraft is equipped with two-way radio which provides a capability for voice communications with the control tower on standard Navy/Marine Corps frequencies.
</P>
<P>(6) The user, or requesting government, has obtained permission through diplomatic channels from the host country wherein the facility of intended landing is located, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil Aircraft owned and operated by</I>—(1) <I>Military personnel.</I> Private aircraft owned and operated by active duty U.S. military personnel or by Navy/Marine Corps Reservists on inactive duty may be authorized to land at a facility, provided such aircraft is not engaging in air commerce, and such landing is for official business required by written orders. Under no conditions shall such aircraft be allowed to base or operate from a facility for personal convenience nor base at a facility under the guise of official business.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Civil employees of the U.S. Government.</I> Private aircraft owned and operated by civil employees of the U.S. Government may be authorized to land at a facility, provided such aircraft is not engaging in air commerce, and such landing is for official business required by written orders. Such aircraft shall not be allowed to base or operate from a facility for personal convenience. (Employees of U.S. Government contractors are not considered civil employees of the U.S. Government.)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-U.S. Government personnel.</I> An individual or corporation owned and/or operated aircraft may be authorized to land at a facility for:
</P>
<P>(i) Sales or service representation to authorized military agents (e.g. the exchange, commissary, or contracting officer).
</P>
<P>(ii) Services in connection with U.S. Government contracts. Contracting agency and contract number(s) must be cited in the application for an Aviation Facility License.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department of defense charter or contract.</I> Aircraft operating under a Military Traffic Management and Terminal Service (MTMTS), Military Airlift Command (MAC), or Navy charter or contract for the movement of DOD passengers or cargo may be authorized to use Navy or Marine Corps aviation facilities when required for loading, en route or terminal stops.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test and experimental use.</I> Aircraft being produced for a military agency under contract may use Navy/Marine Corps facilities for testing and experimental purposes, if the contract so provides, or if it is determined to be in the best interests of the U.S. Government to do so. Unless otherwise provided in the contract, an Aviation Facility License is required, and the user shall furnish a Certificate of Insurance as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aircraft demonstrations.</I> Manufacturers of aircraft or installed equipment may be authorized to use Navy/Marine Corps facilities in demonstrating and/or showing aircraft or installed equipment to officials of the U.S. Government when:
</P>
<P>(1) It is determined to be in the best interest of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(2) The aircraft was produced in accordance with U.S. Government specifications either with or without the aid of Federal funds.
</P>
<P>(3) There is an expressed interest on the part of the U.S. Government officials responsible for procurement, approval, or certification of the aircraft.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint use.</I> When a specific agreement is entered into by the Department of the Navy pertaining to joint civil/military use of a Navy or Marine Corps facility, the terms of that agreement shall take precedence over the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Diplomatic agreements.</I> For diplomatic agreements and clearances to use U.S. Navy and Marine Corps aviation facilities in foreign countries, the provisions of this part are subject to the provisions of status of forces agreements, treaties of mutual cooperation or other international agreements. This part shall be used as a guide in negotiating agreements at the local level with representatives of a foreign military service, the U.S. Embassy, and the host government concerning the use of naval facilities by other than U.S. military aircraft. Approval shall be obtained from the Chief of Naval Operations for proposed terms which are in conflict with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.5   Conditions governing use of aviation facilities by civil aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk.</I> The use of Navy or Marine Corps aviation facilities by civil aircraft shall be at the risk of the operator. Except as hereinafter provided for U.S. Government contractors, the Department of the Navy shall assume no liability or responsibility by reason of the condition of the landing area, taxiways, radio and navigational aids, or other equipment or for notification of such condition; or by the acts of its agents in connection with the granting of the right to use such naval facility. No responsibility is assumed for the security of or damage to aircraft while on property owned or controlled by the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Military rules.</I> Operators of civil aircraft utilizing a Navy or Marine Corps aviation facility shall be required to comply with the air and ground rules promulgated by the Department of the Navy and the commanding officer of the aviation facility. Such compliance shall pertain specifically to clearance authorization for the entry, departure, or movement of aircraft within the confines of the terminal area normally controlled by the commanding officer of the aviation facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal aviation regulations.</I> Operators of civil aircraft shall be required to comply with all Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) rules and regulations including filing of flight plans. When such flight plans are required, they shall be filed with the commanding officer or his authorized representative prior to the departure of the aircraft. When such a flight plan is not required, a list of passengers and crew members, the airport of first intended landing, the alternate airport, and fuel supply in hours shall be placed on file prior to takeoff, with the commanding officer or with the local company representative as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hours of operation.</I> The use of a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility by civil aircraft shall be limited to the hours when the facility is normally in operation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Weather minimums.</I> Civil aircraft shall comply with weather minimums as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Visual Flight Operations shall be conducted in accordance with Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR), § 91.105 of this title. If more stringent visual flight rules minimums have been established for the point of departure or destination, as noted in the aerodrome remarks section of the Department of Defense Flight Information Publication (en Route) Instrument Flight Rules—Supplement, then the ceiling and visibility must be at or above these minimums in the applicable control zone.
</P>
<P>(2) Instrument flight operations shall be conducted in accordance with FAR, § 91.116 of this title.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inspection.</I> The commanding officer may conduct such inspection of a transiting civil aircraft and its crew, passengers and cargo as he may consider appropriate or necessary to the carrying out of his duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Customs, immigration, agriculture, and public health inspection.</I> (1) The civil aircraft commander shall be responsible for compliance with all applicable customs, immigration, agriculture, and public health laws and regulations. He shall also be responsible for paying fees, charges for overtime services, and for all other costs connected with the administration of such laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) The commanding officer of the Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility will inform the appropriate public officials of the arrival of civil aircraft subject to such laws and regulations. He will not issue clearances for a civil aircraft to takeoff until such laws and regulations have been complied with. Procedures for insuring compliance with such laws and regulations shall be as mutually agreed to by the commanding officer of the aviation facility and the local public officials.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Weather alternate.</I> If a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility has been approved for use as an alternate airport, radio clearance must be obtained from such facility as soon as the decision is made en route for such use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency landings.</I> Any aircraft may land at a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility when necessary as a result of a bona fide emergency. However, whenever the nature of the emergency permits the pilot to select the time and place of landing, it is preferred that the pilot land his aircraft at a civil field.
</P>
<P>(1) The commanding officer of the aviation facility will require that the pilot of the aircraft pay all fees and charges and execute the Aviation Facility License. A statement explaining the circumstances of the emergency landing must be noted in § 766.5 of the license application. If a narrative report from the pilot is available, it may be attached to the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearance of runway.</I> The Department of the Navy reserves the right to use any method to clear a runway of aircraft or wreckage consistent with operational requirements. Care will be exercised to preclude unnecessary damage in removing wrecked aircraft; however, the Navy assumes no liability as a result of such removal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repairs.</I> (i) Aircraft requiring major repairs may be stored temporarily in damaged condition. If repairs cannot be completed within a reasonable time, the aircraft must be removed from the facility by the owner or operator of the aircraft without delay.
</P>
<P>(ii) No aircraft will be given a major or minor overhaul.
</P>
<P>(iii) Engine or air frame minor components may be furnished, when not available through commercial sources, provided such supplies can be spared and are not known to be in short supply. The issuance of such supplies must be approved by the commanding officer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Minor components in short supply or major components for which there is a repeated demand can be furnished only on message authority obtained from the Aviation Supply Office, Philadelphia, PA (for continental facilities) or local fleet air command or major aviation supply depot (for extracontinental facilities). Complete engines, airplane wings, or other major items of equipment shall not be furnished under this authority.
</P>
<P>(v) If the commanding officer believes it is desirable to furnish requested material or services in excess of the restrictions stated herein, he shall request instructions from the Chief of Naval Operations, giving a brief description of the material or services requested together with his recommendations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reimbursement for costs.</I> (i) The civil user making an emergency landing will be billed in accordance with paragraphs 032500-032503 of the NAVCOMPT Manual and paragraphs 25345-25363 of the NAVSUP Manual for payment of all costs incurred by the Government as a direct result of the emergency landing. Such costs will include those associated with labor, material, rental of equipment, vehicles or tools, etc., for:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Spreading foam on runway before the aircraft attempts emergency landing.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fire and crash control and rescue.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Movement and storage of aircraft or wreckage.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Damage to runway, lights, navigation aids, etc.
</P>
<P>(ii) There will be no charge for naval meteorological services and naval communications facilities for the handling of arrival and departure reports, air traffic control messages, position reports and safety messages.
</P>
<P>(iii) The determination as to whether landing fees shall be charged pursuant to an emergency landing for maintenance or repair shall be the prerogative of the commanding officer of the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 14451, Sept. 15, 1970, as amended at 51 FR 22804, June 23, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.6   Approving authority for landings at Navy/Marine Corps aviation facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as indicated in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the commanding officer of an active Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility may approve or disapprove landings of civil aircraft at his facility when such landing is:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly connected with or in support of U.S. Government business (except those listed in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with U.S. Government or community interests on an infrequent basis when no adequate civil airport is reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(3) By aircraft owned and operated by Navy/Marine Corps Flying Clubs or U.S. Army or Air Force Aero Clubs which are operated as instrumentalities of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(4) By aircraft owned and operated by U.S. Government personnel when such use is in accordance with § 766.4(b) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(5) By civil aircraft either owned or personally chartered by:
</P>
<P>(i) The President or Vice President of the United States or a past President of the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) The head of any Federal department or agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Member of Congress.
</P>
<P>(6) By a bailed, leased, or loaned aircraft (as defined in § 766.2) when operated in connection with official business only.
</P>
<P>(7) By aircraft owned and operated by States, counties, or municipalities of the United States when used for official business of the owner.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as limited by paragraph (c) of this section, the Commander in Chief, U.S. Naval Forces, Europe; Chief of Naval Material; Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet; Commander in Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet; Chief of Naval Air Training; Commander, Pacific Missile Range; Commander, Marine Corps Air Bases, Eastern Area; Commander, Marine Corps Air Bases, Western Area; and Commanding General, Fleet Marine Force, Pacific may approve civil aircraft use of any active aviation facility under their control. (At overseas locations, aircraft landing authorizations must be in consonance with the provisions of applicable international agreements.)
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief of Naval Operations may approve any of the above requests, and is the only agency empowered to approve all other requests for use of naval facilities by civil and government aircraft, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for use of more than one facility when the facilities are not under the control of one major command.
</P>
<P>(2) Application for use of naval aviation facilities when participating in U.S. Government or Department of Defense single-manager contract and charter airlift operations; <I>i.e.</I>, Military Airlift Command (MAC) or Military Traffic Management and Terminal Service (MTMTS).
</P>
<P>(3) Application for a facility to be used as a regular civil airfield for a community, by either commercial or general aviation.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for use of a facility by foreign civil or government aircraft when:
</P>
<P>(i) Such use is not covered by an agreement between the U.S. Government and the government of the aircraft's registry, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The facility is located in a country other than that in which the foreign aircraft is registered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.7   How to request use of naval aviation facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Forms required.</I> Each applicant desiring use of a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility will be required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Execute an application for an Aviation Facility License (OPNAV Form 3770/1 (Rev. 7-70)).
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a Certificate of Insurance (NAVFAC 7-11011/36) showing coverage as provided by § 766.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Exceptions to the foregoing requirements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Aircraft owned and operated by departments or agencies of the U.S. Government for official business.
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft owned and operated or noncommercial purposes by agencies of a foreign government, except in cases where the foreign government charges fees for U.S. Government aircraft.
</P>
<P>(3) Aircraft owned and operated by States, possessions, and territories of the United States and political subdivisions, thereof, when used for official business of the owner.
</P>
<P>(4) Aircraft owned and operated by either Navy/Marine Corps Flying Clubs or Aero Clubs of other military services which are operated as instrumentalities of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(5) Bailed aircraft, provided the bailment contract specifies that the U.S. Government is the insurer for liability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obtaining forms.</I> The applicant may obtain the required forms listed in paragraph (a) of this section, from the commanding officer of any Navy or Marine Corps aviation facility or from the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-53C). Navy units may obtain the forms through regular supply channels as a Cog “I” item.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preparation of forms.</I> (1) The license application will be completed in quadruplicate by the applicant in accordance with detailed instructions set forth in Aviation Facility License (OPNAV Form 3770/1 (REV. 7-70)).
</P>
<P>(2) The Certificate of Insurance will be completed by the insurer. Only the signed original certificate and one copy are required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of forms.</I> (1) The forms executed by the applicant shall be submitted to the commanding officer of the aviation facility concerned, except that applications requiring approval by higher authority shall be submitted to the appropriate approving authority, as indicated in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section at least 30 days prior to the first intended landing.
</P>
<P>(2) Once the NAVFAC 7-11011/36, Certificate of Insurance, is on file with an executing authority, it is valid until insurance expiration date and may be used by that executing authority as a basis for his action on any subsequent OPNAV Forms 3770/1 submitted for approval.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Security deposit.</I> All applications, other than those listed in § 766.11(a) contemplating more than one landing per month, will be accompanied by a security deposit in the form of a certified check payable to the “Treasurer of the United States” in payment of the estimated costs of landing, hangar and outside parking fees, for 3 months in advance, calculated as provided in § 766.11 (c) and (d). Security deposits will be handled as set forth in paragraph 032102 of the NAVCOMPT Manual.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nonexclusive use airports.</I> When either the Chief of Naval Operations or Commandant of the U.S. Marine Corps does not have exclusive operational control over a landing area, the aircraft operator will obtain permission to land from the appropriate civil or military authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.8   Procedure for review, approval, execution and distribution of aviation facility licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of application by the commanding officer.</I> The commanding officer will review each application for Aviation Facility License and Certificate of Insurance received and determine whether such forms have been completed by the applicant in accordance with the instructions for their preparation as indicated in the Aviation Facility License (OPNAV Form 3770/1 (REV. 7-70)) and the Certificate of Insurance (NAVFAC 7-11011/36(7-70)). As appropriate, the commanding officer will require each applicant to furnish a security deposit as stipulated in § 766.7(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing application.</I> The commanding officer will approve/disapprove the application or forward it to higher authority for approval as required by § 766.6(b) or (c). If the application is approved, the approving authority will then forward all copies of the license and Certificate of Insurance to the Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command or his designated representative for review and execution of the license.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action by the Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command or his designated representative.</I> (1) Upon receipt, the Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, or his designated representative, will review the license and Certificate of Insurance. He shall determine whether the insurance coverage conforms to the requirements prescribed by § 766.9 of this part or to such requirements as may be promulgated from time to time by the Chief of Naval Material.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon approval, he will then execute the license in triplicate, conform all additional copies, and make distribution as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. Applications which are not approved will be returned to the applicant with an explanation of deficiencies which must be corrected prior to execution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution.</I> (1) After execution of a license, distribution will be made as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Original—To the licensee.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Executed copy—To the commanding officer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Executed copy—To the Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command or his designated representative.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conformed copy—To the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-53).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conformed copy—To the cognizant commander under § 766.6(b).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conformed copy—To the disbursing officer serving the performing activity in the case of local deposits, and to the Office of the Navy Comptroller (NAFC3) in the case of central deposits held at the Washington, DC level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conformed copy—To the Military Airlift Command (MAC) for DOD contract or charter airlift operations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conformed copy—To the Military Traffic Management and Terminal Service (MTMTS) for DOD contract or charter airlift operations.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Licenses issued under this authority are to be disposed of under provisions of paragraph 4280 of SECNAVINST 5212.5B, Disposal of Navy and Marine Corps Records. In accordance therewith, official executed copies of licenses are to be retained for a period of 6 years after completion or termination of the agreement. They may be transferred to the nearest Federal records center when superseded, revoked, canceled, or expired for retention by the center until expiration of the 6-year retention period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.9   Insurance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Control of insurance.</I> The Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, or his designee, shall be responsible for requiring aircraft owners or operators to procure and maintain liability insurance conforming to the standards prescribed by the Chief of Naval Material. The insurance policy must be obtained at the expense of the civil aircraft owner or operator and with a company acceptable to the U.S. Navy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Insurance coverage.</I> Except for those aircraft exempted by paragraph (c) below, each civil aircraft is required to be covered by insurance of the types and minimum limits established by the Chief of Naval Material. The Certificate of Insurance, must state all coverages in U.S. dollars. Current minimums are:
</P>
<P>(1) Privately owned commercially-operated aircraft used for cargo carrying only and aircraft being flight-tested or ferried without passengers will be insured for:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bodily injury liability.</I> At least $100,000 for each person in any one accident with at least $1 million for each accident.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Property damage liability.</I> At least $1 million for each accident.
</P>
<P>(2) Privately owned commercially-operated aircraft used for passenger carrying and privately owned noncommercially-operated aircraft of 12,500 pounds or more certified maximum gross takeoff weight will be insured for:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bodily injury liability</I> (<I>excluding passengers</I>). At least $100,000 for each person in any one accident with at least $1 million for each accident.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Property damage liability.</I> At least $1 million for each accident.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Passenger liability.</I> At least $100,000 for each passenger, with a minimum for each accident determined as follows: multiply the minimum for each passenger, $100,000 by the next highest whole number resulting from taking 75 percent of the total number of passenger seats (exclusive of crew seats). For example: The minimum passenger coverage for each accident for an aircraft with 94 passenger seats is computed: 94 × 0.75 = 70.5—next highest whole number resulting in 71. Therefore, 71 × $100,000 = $7,100,000.
</P>
<P>(3) Privately owned noncommercially-operated aircraft of less than 12,500 pounds will be insured for:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bodily injury liability</I> (<I>excluding passengers</I>). At least $100,000 for each person in any one accident with at least $500,000 for each accident.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Property damage liability.</I> At least $500,000 for each accident.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Passenger liability.</I> At least $100,000 for each passenger, with a minimum for each accident determined by multiplying the minimum for each passenger, $100,000 by the total number of passenger seats (exclusive of crew seats).
</P>
<P>(4) Aircraft insured for a single limit of liability must have coverage equal to or greater than the combined required minimums for bodily injury, property damage, and passenger liability for the type of use requested and for the passenger capacity and gross takeoff weight of the aircraft being operated. For example: the minimum single limit of liability acceptable for an aircraft operating as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is $1,000,000 + $1,000,000 + $7,100,000 = $9,100,000.
</P>
<P>(5) Aircraft insured by a combination of primary and excess policies must have combined coverage equal to or greater than the required minimums for bodily injury, property damage, and passenger liability, for the type of use, and for the passenger capacity and gross takeoff weight of the aircraft.
</P>
<P>(6) Each policy must specifically provide that:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurer waives any right to subrogation the insurer may have against the United States by reason of any payment under the policy for damage or injury which might arise out of or in connection with the insured's use of any Navy installation or facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) The insurance afforded by the policy applies to the liability assumed by the insured under OPNAV Form 3770/1, Aviation Facility License.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the insurer cancels or reduces the amount of insurance afforded under the listed policy, the insurer shall send written notice of the cancellation or reduction to Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC 20390 by registered mail at least 30 days in advance of the effective date of the cancellation; the policy must state that any cancellation or reduction will not be effective until at least 30 days after such notice is sent, regardless of the effective date specified therein.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the insured requests cancellation or reduction, the insurer shall notify the Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC 20390 immediately upon receipt of such request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption.</I> Government aircraft, as defined in § 766.2(e) are exempt from the insurance requirements specified above. However, this exemption applies to bailed aircraft only if the contract under which the aircraft is bailed specifies that insurance is not required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.10   Cancellation or suspension of the aviation facility license (OPNAV Form 3770/1).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cancellation.</I> (1) If the user fails to comply with the terms of the Aviation Facility License (OPNAV Form 3770/1) or of any applicable regulations, all current Aviation Facility Licenses for that user will be canceled. A canceled Aviation Facility License cannot be reinstated; a new application must be submitted for approval as explained in § 766.7.
</P>
<P>(2) If the commanding officer of a naval aviation facility has reason to believe that the use of an Aviation Facility License is not in accordance with the terms of the license he should immediately notify the Chief of Naval Operations, giving the name of the user, the Aviation Facility License number, and citing the circumstances of the misuse.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension.</I> The approving authority, or the commanding officer of the facility, may suspend an approved Aviation Facility License when such licensed use would be inconsistent with Navy/Marine Corps or national defense interests. Whenever possible, the Department of the Navy will avoid suspension of licenses which have been issued for official business or scheduled air carrier use. In all cases, suspensions will be lifted as quickly as possible. A suspension will not have the effect of extending the expiration date of an approved Aviation Facility License.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.11   Fees for landing, parking and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The commanding officer of a facility will collect landing, parking, and storage fees, as applicable, from all users required to have an Aviation Facility License by § 766.7 except for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Government aircraft (see definition § 766.2(g)) except that foreign government aircraft will be charged fees if their government charges similar fees for U.S. Government aircraft.
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft being produced under a contract of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(3) Any contract aircraft (see definition § 766.2(b)(1)) or other civil aircraft which is authorized to use the facility on official business.
</P>
<P>(4) Aircraft employed to train operators in the use of precision approach systems (GCA, ILS, et al.) provided full-stop or touch-and-go landings are not performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Aircraft owned and operated by either Navy/Marine Corps Flying Clubs or Aero Clubs or other military services which are operated as instrumentalities of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(6) Aircraft owned and operated by military personnel on active duty (Regular and Reserve) or retired, provided the aircraft is not used for commercial purposes.
</P>
<P>(7) Landing fees incident to emergency landings for which the landing fee has been waived by the commanding officer in accordance with § 766.5(i)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee for unauthorized landing.</I> If an aircraft lands at a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility without obtaining prior permission (except for a bona fide emergency landing), a landing fee in excess of the normal landing fee will be charged to cover the additional expenses incurred due to special handling and processing. The fee for an unauthorized landing will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For aircraft weighing less than 12,500 pounds: $100.
</P>
<P>(2) For aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds but less than 40,000 pounds: $250.
</P>
<P>(3) For aircraft weighing 40,000 pounds but less than 100,000 pounds: $500.
</P>
<P>(4) For aircraft weighing above 100,000 pounds: $600.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Normal landing fee.</I> The normal landing fee is based on the aircraft maximum authorized gross takeoff weight, to the nearest 1,000 pounds. The maximum gross takeoff weight may be determined either from item 7F of OPNAV Form 3770/1 or from the “Airplane Flight Manual” carried aboard each aircraft. If the weight cannot be determined, it should be estimated.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Charge Per Landing
</HD1>
<FP-1>Inside CONUS—0.20/1,000 pounds or any portion thereof with a minimum of $5.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Outside CONUS—0.30/1,000 pounds or any portion thereof with a minimum of $7.50.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Parking and storage fees.</I> Fixed and rotary wing aircraft parking and storage fees are based upon the gross takeoff weight of the aircraft as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outside a hangar.</I> Charges begin 6 hours after the aircraft lands. The rate is 10 cents per thousand pounds for each 24-hour period or fraction thereof, with a minimum charge of $1.50 per aircraft.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inside a hangar.</I> Charges begin as soon as the aircraft is placed inside the hangar. The rate is 20 cents per 1,000 pounds for each 24-hour period or fraction thereof, with a minimum charge of $5 per aircraft.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reimbursement.</I> Collections incident to direct (out of pocket) costs will be credited to local operating and maintenance funds. All other collections, such as for landing, parking, and storage fees will be credited to Navy General Fund Receipt Account 172426. Accumulation of costs and preparation of billing documents are prescribed in paragraphs 032500-032503 of the NAVCOMPT Manual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.12   Unauthorized landings.</HEAD>
<P>An aircraft that lands at a Navy/Marine Corps aviation facility without obtaining prior permission from an approving authority, except in a bona fide emergency, is in violation of this part. Civil aircraft landing in violation of this regulation will have to pay the fee prescribed in § 766.11(b). In those cases where an unauthorized landing is made at a facility within a Naval Defense Area, proclaimed as such by Executive order of the President, civil aircraft may be impounded and the operator prosecuted as indicated in OPNAVINST 5500.11C of November 12, 1963. In any event, before the aircraft is authorized to depart, the commanding officer of the facility will:
</P>
<P>(a) Inform the aircraft operator of the provisions of this part and the OP NAVINST 5500.11C of November 12, 1963, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Require the aircraft operator (or owner), before takeoff, to pay all fees and charges and to comply with the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) Execute OPNAV Form 3770/1, explaining in item 6 of that form the reason for the landing.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of submitting a Certificate of Insurance (NAVFAC 7-11011/36), the insurer must furnish evidence of sufficient insurance to include waiver of any right of subrogation against the United States, and that such insurance applies to the liability assumed by the insured under OPNAV Form 3770/1.
</P>
<P>(3) When it appears that the violation may have been deliberate, or is a repeated violation, departure authorization must be obtained from the Chief of Naval Operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Waiver of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section may be obtained from the Chief of Naval Operations to expedite removal of these aircraft when such waiver is considered appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 14451, Sept. 15, 1970, as amended at 51 FR 22804, June 23, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.20.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.13   Sale of aviation fuel, oil, services and supplies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> In accordance with sections 1107 and 1108 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (72 Stat. 798 as amended, 49 U.S.C. 1507, 1508), Navy/Marine Corps Aviation fuel, oil, services, and supplies are not sold to civil aircraft in competition with private enterprise. Sections 1107 and 1108 of Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (72 Stat. 798 as amended, 49 U.S.C. 1507, 1508), however, does authorize the sales of fuel, oil, equipment, supplies, mechanical service, and other assistance by reason of an emergency. Such sales will be made only where there is no commercial source and only in the amount necessary for the aircraft to continue on its course to the nearest airport operated by private enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract aircraft.</I> The sale of aviation fuel, oil, supplies, etc. to aircraft under U.S. Government contract or charter is permitted at, and limited to, points where passengers or cargo are loaded into or discharged from the aircraft under terms of the contract or charter. Sales are not authorized at naval aviation facilities where commercial supplies and service are available.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="767" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 767—GUIDELINES FOR PERMITTING ARCHAEOLOGICAL INVESTIGATIONS AND OTHER ACTIVITIES DIRECTED AT SUNKEN MILITARY CRAFT AND TERRESTRIAL MILITARY CRAFT UNDER THE JURISDICTION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 113 note; Pub. L. 108-375, Title XIV, sections 1401 to 1408, Oct. 28, 2004, 118 Stat. 2094; 5 U.S.C. 301; 16 U.S.C. 470.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 52594, Aug. 31, 2015, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Regulations and Obligations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is:
</P>
<P>(a) To assist the Secretary in managing sunken military craft under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy (DON) pursuant to the Sunken Military Craft Act (SMCA), 10 U.S.C. 113 note; Public Law 108-375, Title XIV, sections 1401 to 1408, Oct. 28, 2004, 118 Stat. 2094.
</P>
<P>(b) To establish the procedural rules for the issuance of permits authorizing persons to engage in activities directed at sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft under the jurisdiction of the DON for archaeological, historical, or educational purposes, when the proposed activities may disturb, remove, or injure the sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft.
</P>
<P>(c) To set forth the procedures governing administrative proceedings for assessment of civil penalties or liability damages in the case of a sunken military craft permit violation or violation of section 1402 of the SMCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Department of the Navy.
</P>
<P><I>Artifact</I> means any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft that by itself or through its relationship to another object or assemblage of objects, regardless of age, whether in situ or not, may carry archaeological or historical data that yields or is likely to yield information that contributes to the understanding of culture or human history.
</P>
<P><I>Associated Contents</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The equipment, cargo, and contents of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft that are within its debris field; and
</P>
<P>(2) The remains and personal effects of the crew and passengers of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft that are within its debris field.
</P>
<P><I>Debris field</I> means an area, whether contiguous or non-contiguous, that consists of portions of one or more sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft and associated artifacts distributed due to, or as a consequence of, a wrecking event and post-depositional site formation processes.
</P>
<P><I>Directed at</I> means an intentional or negligent act that disturbs, removes, or injures a craft that the person knew or should have known to be a sunken military craft.
</P>
<P><I>Disturb</I> or <I>disturbance</I> means to affect the physical condition of any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, alter the position or arrangement of any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, or influence the wrecksite or its immediate environment in such a way that any portion of a craft's physical condition is affected or its position or arrangement is altered.
</P>
<P><I>Historic in the case of a sunken military craft or a terrestrial military craft</I> means fifty (50) years have elapsed since the date of its loss and/or the craft is listed on, eligible for, or potentially eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places.
</P>
<P><I>Injure</I> or <I>injury</I> means to inflict physical damage on or impair the soundness of any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft.
</P>
<P><I>Permit holder</I> means any person authorized and given the right by the Naval History and Heritage Command (NHHC) to conduct activities authorized under these regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Permitted activity</I> means any activity that is authorized by the NHHC under the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, partnership, trust, institution, association; or any other private entity, or any officer, employee, agent, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Possession</I> or <I>in possession of</I> means having physical custody or control over any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft.
</P>
<P><I>Remove</I> or <I>removal</I> means to move or relocate any portion of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft by lifting, pulling, pushing, detaching, extracting, or taking away or off.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means a vessel or person subject to a civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages based on an alleged violation of this part or a permit issued under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Navy or his or her designee. The Director of the NHHC is the Secretary's designee for DON sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft management and policy; the permitting of activities that disturb, remove, or injure DON sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft; the permitting of activities that disturb, remove, or injure sunken military craft of other departments, agencies or sovereigns incorporated into the DON permitting program; the initiation of enforcement actions; and, assessment of civil penalties or liability for damages. The Secretary's designee for appeals of Notices of Violations is the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary concerned</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of a military department;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a Coast Guard sunken military craft, the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is operating.
</P>
<P><I>Sunken military craft</I> means all or any portion of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sunken warship, naval auxiliary, or other vessel that was owned or operated by a government on military noncommercial service when it sank;
</P>
<P>(2) Any sunken military aircraft or military spacecraft that was owned or operated by a government when it sank;
</P>
<P>(3) The associated contents of a craft referred to in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(4) Any craft referred to in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition which may now be on land or in water, if title thereto has not been abandoned or transferred by the government concerned.
</P>
<P><I>Sunken Military Craft Act</I> refers to the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 113 note; Public Law 108-375, Title XIV, sections 1401 to 1408, Oct. 28, 2004, 118 Stat. 2094.
</P>
<P><I>Terrestrial military craft</I> means the physical remains of all or any portion of a historic ship, aircraft, spacecraft, or other craft, intact or otherwise, manned or unmanned, along with all associated contents, located on land and under the jurisdiction of the DON. Terrestrial military craft sites are distinguished from sunken military craft by never having sunk in a body of water.
</P>
<P><I>United States Contiguous Zone</I> means the contiguous zone of the United States declared by Presidential Proclamation 7219, dated September 2, 1999. Accordingly, the contiguous zone of the United States extends to 24 nautical miles from the baselines of the United States determined in accordance with international law, but in no case within the territorial sea of another nation.
</P>
<P><I>United States internal waters</I> means all waters of the United States on the landward side of the baseline from which the breadth of the United States territorial sea is measured.
</P>
<P><I>United States sunken military craft</I> means all or any portion of a sunken military craft owned or operated by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>United States territorial sea</I> means the waters of the United States territorial sea claimed by and described in Presidential Proclamation 5928, dated December 27, 1988. Accordingly, the territorial sea of the United States extends to 12 nautical miles from the baselines of the United States determined in accordance with international law.
</P>
<P><I>United States waters</I> means United States internal waters, the United States territorial sea, and the United States contiguous zone.
</P>
<P><I>Wrecksite</I> means the location of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft. The craft may be intact, scattered or completely deteriorated, and may presently be on land or in water. The wrecksite includes any physical remains of the craft and all associated contents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.4   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unauthorized activities directed at sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft.</I> No person shall engage in or attempt to engage in any activity directed at a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft that disturbs, removes, or injures any sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, except:
</P>
<P>(1) As authorized by a permit issued pursuant to these regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) As otherwise authorized by these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(3) As otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Possession of sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft.</I> No person may possess, disturb, remove, or injure any sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft in violation, where applicable, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 1402 of the SMCA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any regulation set forth in this part or any permit issued under it; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any prohibition, rule, regulation, ordinance, or permit that applies under any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations on application.</I> Prohibitions in section 1402 of the SMCA shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions taken by, or at the direction of, the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Any action by a person who is not a citizen, national, or resident alien of the United States, except in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(i) Generally recognized principles of international law;
</P>
<P>(ii) An agreement between the United States and the foreign country of which the person is a citizen;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of an individual who is a crew member or other individual on a foreign vessel or foreign aircraft, an agreement between the United States and the flag State of the foreign vessel or aircraft that applies to the individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.5   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As stewards of the DON's sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft, the NHHC is responsible for managing these irreplaceable resources for the continued education and appreciation of present and future generations. To ensure consistent and effective stewardship, the NHHC has developed a comprehensive program that encompasses the following aspects: Preservation planning; wrecksite management; archaeological research; conservation and curation; and public information, interpretation, and education. The NHHC strongly encourages cooperation with other Department of Defense commands, Federal and State agencies, educational institutions, and individuals interested in preserving DON's maritime and aviation heritage.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to operational requirements, sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft will generally be managed in place unless wrecksite disturbance, recovery, or injury is justified and necessary to protect the craft or the environment, to address matters pertaining to human remains or public safety, to mitigate adverse effects, to conduct research, or to provide for public education. While the NHHC prefers non-intrusive in situ research on sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft, it recognizes that wrecksite disturbance, removal, or injury may become necessary or appropriate. At such times, wrecksite disturbance, removal, or injury may be permitted by the NHHC with respect to DON sunken military craft for archaeological, historical, or educational purposes, subject to conditions set forth in accordance with these regulations. Historic shipwrecks under the jurisdiction of the DON that do not qualify as sunken military craft are to be provided the same consideration and treatment as terrestrial military craft.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to managing historic sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft, the NHHC will serve as the permitting authority for the disturbance of non-historic DON sunken military craft. Permit applications will only be issued in instances where there is a clear demonstrable benefit to the DON, and only special use permits can be issued in the case of non-historic sunken military craft. In such instances, prior to issuing a special use permit, the NHHC will consult with appropriate DON offices within affected commands or offices, including, but not limited to, the Naval Sea Systems Command, Naval Air Systems Command, Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command, Naval Supply Systems Command, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, Navy Personnel Command, Military Sealift Command, Supervisor of Salvage and Diving, Office of the Judge Advocate General of the Navy, the Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, or other interested offices.
</P>
<P>(d) The NHHC will serve as the permitting authority for disturbance of those foreign state sunken military craft located in U.S. waters addressed in § 767.15. The NHHC, in consultation with the Department of State as appropriate, will make a reasonable effort to inform the applicable agency of a foreign state of the discovery or significant changes to the condition of its sunken military craft upon becoming aware of such information. The NHHC will also serve as the permitting authority for disturbance of those sunken military craft of another military department, or the Department in which the Coast Guard is operating, that have been incorporated into the DON permitting program in accordance with § 767.15(e).
</P>
<P>(e) The DON recognizes that, in accordance with section 1402(a)(3) of the Act and other statutes, certain federal agencies have statutory authority to conduct and permit specific activities directed at DON sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft. The NHHC will coordinate, consult, and enter into interagency agreements with those federal agencies to ensure effective management of DON sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft and compliance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(f) Where appropriate, the NHHC will coordinate, consult, and enter into agreements with the appropriate State Historic Preservation Office (SHPO), or state land or resource manager, to ensure effective management of DON sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft and compliance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(g) Notwithstanding any other section of this part, no act by the owner of a vessel, or authorized agent of the owner of a vessel, under a time charter, voyage charter, or demise charter to the DON and operated on military service at the time of its sinking, provided that the sunken military craft is not considered historic as determined by the NHHC, shall be prohibited by, nor require a permit under, the SMCA or these regulations. This paragraph (g) shall not be construed to otherwise affect any right or remedy of the United States existing at law, in equity, or otherwise, in regard to any such sunken military craft, in regard to cargo owned by the United States on board or associated with any such craft, or in regard to other property or contents owned by the United States on board or associated with any such sunken military craft.
</P>
<P>(h) The NHHC reserves the right to deny an applicant a permit if the proposed activity does not meet the permit application requirements; is inconsistent with DON policy or interests; does not serve the best interests of the sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft in question; in the case of foreign sunken military craft, is inconsistent with the desires of a foreign sovereign; is inconsistent with an existing resource management plan; is directed towards a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft upon which other activities are being considered or have been authorized; will be undertaken in such a manner as will not permit the applicant to meet final report requirements; raises professional ethical conduct concerns or concerns over commercial exploitation; raises concerns over national security, foreign policy, environmental or ordnance issues; or out of respect for any human remains that may be associated with a wrecksite. The NHHC also reserves the right to deny an applicant a permit if the applicant has not fulfilled requirements of permits previously issued by the NHHC to the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Permit Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.6   Historic sunken military craft and terrestrial military craft permit application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person seeking to engage in an activity otherwise prohibited by section 1402 of the SMCA with respect to a historic sunken military craft or any activity that might affect a terrestrial military craft under the jurisdiction of the DON shall apply for a permit for the proposed activity and shall not begin the proposed activity until a permit has been issued. The Secretary or his designee may issue a permit to any qualified person, in accordance with these regulations, subject to appropriate terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) To request a permit application form, please write to: Department of the Navy, U.S. Naval History and Heritage Command, Underwater Archaeology Branch, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5060. Application forms and guidelines can also be found on the NHHC's Web site at: <I>www.history.navy.mil.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Each applicant must submit a digital (electronic) and two printed copies of their complete application at least 120 days in advance of the requested effective date to allow sufficient time for evaluation and processing. Completed applications should be sent to the Department of the Navy, U.S. Naval History and Heritage Command, Underwater Archaeology Branch, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5060.
</P>
<P>(d) Each permit application shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of research objectives, scientific methods, and significance of the proposed work to the U.S. Navy or the nation's maritime cultural heritage. This should include discussion articulating clearly the archaeological, historical, or educational purposes of the proposed activity;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of significant previous work in the area of interest;
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of how the proposed activity could disturb, remove, or injure the sunken military craft or the terrestrial military craft and the related physical environment;
</P>
<P>(4) A discussion of the methodology planned to accomplish the project's objectives. This should include a map showing the study location(s) and a description of the wrecksite(s) of particular interest;
</P>
<P>(5) An analysis of the extent and nature of potential environmental impacts from permitted activities and feasible mitigation measures that could reduce, avoid, or reverse environmental impacts, as well as any associated permits or authorizations required by foreign, federal, state, or local law;
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed plan for wrecksite restoration and remediation with recommendations on wrecksite preservation and protection of the wrecksite location;
</P>
<P>(7) In addition to identification and qualifications of the principal investigator, required by § 767.8, identification of all other members of the research team and their qualifications. Changes to the primary research team subsequent to the issuance of a permit must be authorized via a permit amendment request in accordance with § 767.10(a);
</P>
<P>(8) A proposed budget, identification of funding source, and sufficient data to substantiate, to the satisfaction of the NHHC, the applicant's financial capability to complete the proposed research and, if applicable, any conservation and curation costs associated with or resulting from that activity;
</P>
<P>(9) A proposed plan for the public interpretation and professional dissemination of the proposed activity's results;
</P>
<P>(10) Where the application is for the excavation and/or removal of artifacts from a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, or for the excavation and/or removal of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft in its entirety, the following must be included:
</P>
<P>(i) A conservation plan, estimated cost, and the name of the university, museum, laboratory, or other scientific or educational institution in which the material will be conserved, including written certification, signed by an authorized official of the institution, of willingness to assume conservation responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan for applicable post-fieldwork artifact analysis, including an associated timetable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the facility in which the recovered materials and copies of associated records derived from the work will be curated. This will include written certification, signed by an authorized official of the institution, of willingness to assume curatorial responsibilities for the collection. The named repository must, at a minimum, meet the standards set forth in 36 CFR part 79, Curation of Federally-Owned and Administered Archaeological Collections, in accordance with § 767.9(h).
</P>
<P>(iv) Acknowledgement that the applicant is responsible for all conservation-related and long-term curation costs, unless otherwise agreed upon by NHHC.
</P>
<P>(11) A proposed project timetable to incorporate all phases of the project through to the final report and/or any other project-related activities.
</P>
<P>(e) If the applicant believes that compliance with one or more of the factors, criteria, or procedures in the regulations contained in this part is not practicable, the applicant should set forth why and explain how the purposes of the SMCA (if applicable), these regulations, and the policies of the DON are better served without compliance with the specified requirements. If the NHHC believes that the policies of the DON are better served without compliance with one or more of the factors, criteria, or procedures in the regulations, or determines that there is merit in an applicant's request and that full compliance is not required to meet these priorities, the NHHC will provide a written waiver to the applicant stipulating which factors, criteria, or procedures may be foregone or amended. In exceptional circumstances, verbal permission may be obtained in cases of unexpected or emergent finds that may require immediate unanticipated disturbance, removal, or injury of a sunken or terrestrial military craft or its associated contents. However, the NHHC will not waive statutory procedures or requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) Persons carrying out official NHHC duties under the direction of the NHHC Director, or his/her designee, or conducting activities at the direction of or in coordination with the NHHC as recognized through express written permission by the NHHC Director, or his/her designee, need not follow the permit application procedures set forth in this section and §§ 767.7 and 767.9 to 767.12 if those duties or activities are associated with the management of sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft. Where appropriate, such persons will coordinate with Federal Land Managers, the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, State Historic Preservation Offices, or state land or resource managers, as applicable, prior to engaging in the aforementioned activities. The NHHC Director, or his/her designee, shall ensure that the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section and §§ 767.8 and 767.11 have been met by other documented means and that such documents and all resulting data will be archived within the NHHC.
</P>
<P>(g) Federal agencies carrying out activities that disturb, remove, or injure sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft need not follow the permit application procedures set forth in this section and §§ 767.7 and 767.9 to 767.12 if those activities are associated with the management of sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft within their areas of responsibility. Where appropriate, Federal agencies will coordinate with the NHHC prior to engaging in the aforementioned activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.7   Evaluation of permit application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Permit applications are reviewed for completeness, compliance with program policies, and adherence to the regulations of this subpart. Incomplete applications will be returned to the applicant for clarification. Complete applications are reviewed by NHHC personnel who, when appropriate, may seek outside guidance or peer reviews. In addition to the criteria set forth in §§ 767.6(d) and 767.8, applications are also judged on the basis of: Project objectives being consistent with DON policy and the near- and long-term interests of the DON; relevance or importance of the proposed project; archaeological, historical, or educational purposes achieved; appropriateness and environmental consequences of technical approach; conservation and long-term management plan; qualifications of the applicants relative to the type and scope of the work proposed; and funding to carry out proposed activities. The NHHC will also take into consideration the historic, cultural, or other concerns of a foreign state when considering an application to disturb a foreign sunken military craft of that state located within U.S. waters, subsequent to an understanding or agreement with the foreign state in accordance with § 767.15. The same consideration may be applied to U.S. sunken military craft that are brought under the jurisdiction of the DON for permitting purposes following an agreement with the Secretary of any military department, or in the case of the Coast Guard, the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is operating, as set forth in § 767.15(e).
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to issuing a permit, the NHHC will consult with the appropriate federal resource manager when it receives applications for research at wrecksites located in areas that include units of the National Park System, National Wildlife Refuge System, National Marine Sanctuary System, Marine National Monuments, within lease blocks managed by the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, or within areas of responsibility of other Federal Land Managers.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to issuing a permit, the NHHC will consult with the appropriate SHPO, state land or resource manager or Tribal Historic Preservation Office (THPO) when it receives applications for research at wrecksites located on state lands, including lands beneath navigable waters as defined in the Submerged Lands Act, 43 U.S.C. 1301-1315, or tribal lands.
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant is responsible for obtaining any and all additional permits or authorizations, such as but not limited to those issued by another federal or state agency, or foreign government. In the case of U.S. sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft located within foreign jurisdictions, the NHHC may review and issue a conditional permit authorizing activities upon receipt of the appropriate permits and authorizations of the applicable foreign government by the applicant. The applicant must file a copy of the foreign government authorization with the NHHC when submitting the preliminary report stipulated in § 767.9(d) and final report stipulated in § 767.9(f). Failure to do so will be considered a permit violation.
</P>
<P>(e) Based on the findings of the NHHC evaluation, NHHC personnel will recommend an appropriate action to the NHHC Deputy Director. If approved, the NHHC Deputy Director, or his or her designee, will issue the permit; if denied, applicants are notified of the reason for denial and may request reconsideration within 30 days of receipt of the denial. Requests for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to: Director of Naval History, Naval History and Heritage Command, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5060.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.8   Credentials of principal investigator.</HEAD>
<P>The principal investigator shall be suitably qualified as evidenced by training, education, and/or experience, and possess demonstrable competence in archaeological theory and method, and in collecting, handling, analyzing, evaluating, and reporting archaeological data, relative to the type and scope of the work proposed. A resume or curriculum vitae detailing the professional qualifications of the principal investigator must be submitted with the permit application. Additionally, the principal investigator will be required to attest that all persons on the project team shall be qualified and have demonstrated competence appropriate to their roles in the proposed activity. The principal investigator must, at a minimum, meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The minimum professional qualification standards for archaeology as determined by the Secretary of the Interior's Standards and Guidelines for Archeology and Historic Preservation.
</P>
<P>(b) At least one year of full-time professional supervisory experience in the archaeological study of historic maritime resources or historic aviation resources. This experience requirement may concurrently account for certain stipulations of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The demonstrated ability to plan, equip, fund, staff, organize, and supervise the type and scope of activity proposed.
</P>
<P>(d) If applicable, the demonstrated ability to submit post-operational archaeological or other technical reports in a timely manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.9   Conditions of permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Permits are valid for one year from the date of issue.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a permit, permit holders shall counter-sign the permit and return copies to the NHHC and the appropriate SHPO, state land or resource manager, THPO, or foreign government official, if applicable, prior to conducting permitted activities on the wrecksite. When the sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft is located within federal areas such as a unit of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National Marine Sanctuary System, or Marine National Monuments, the permit holder shall provide copies of countersigned permits to the applicable federal resource manager. Upon the NHHC confirming receipt of the counter-signed permit, the permitted activities may commence, provided that any other federal or state regulatory and permitting requirements that apply are met.
</P>
<P>(c) Permits shall be carried on-site and made available upon request for inspection by federal or state law enforcement officials. Permits are non-transferable. The permit holder, or the activity's authorized principal investigator in the case where a permit holder is not concurrently the authorized principal investigator, is expected to remain on-site for the duration of operations prescribed in the permit. In the event a permit holder or the authorized principal investigator is unable to directly oversee operations, the permit holder must nominate a suitable qualified representative who may only serve in that function upon written approval by the NHHC.
</P>
<P>(d) Permit holders must abide by all provisions set forth in the permit as well as applicable state or federal regulations. Permit holders must abide by applicable regulations of a foreign government for activities directed at a sunken military craft when the sunken military craft is located in the internal waters, territorial sea, contiguous zone, or continental shelf of a foreign State, as defined by customary international law reflected in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. If the physical environment is to be impacted by the permitted activity, the permit holder will be expected to meet any associated permit or authorization stipulations required by foreign, federal, state, or local law, as well as apply mitigation measures to limit such impacts and where feasible return the physical environment to the condition that existed before the activity occurred.
</P>
<P>(e) At least 30 days prior to the expiration of the original permit, the permit holder shall submit to the NHHC a preliminary report that includes a working log and, where applicable, a diving log, listing days spent conducting field research, activities pursued, working area locations including precise coordinates, an inventory of artifacts observed or recovered, and preliminary results and conclusions. The NHHC shall review preliminary reports for thoroughness, accuracy, and quality and shall inform the permit holder of their formal acceptance in writing.
</P>
<P>(f) In the case of one or more permit extensions received through the process identified in § 767.10(b), a preliminary report that includes all the information stated in paragraph (e) of this section is to be submitted by the permit holder annually at least 30 days prior to the renewed permit's expiration date.
</P>
<P>(g) The permit holder shall prepare and submit a final report as detailed in § 767.11, summarizing the results of the permitted activity to the NHHC, and any applicable SHPO, THPO, federal or state land or resource manager, or foreign government official within an appropriate time frame as specified in the permit. Failure to submit a final report within the specified time-frame will be considered a permit violation. If the final report is not due to be submitted within two years of commencement of a permitted activity, interim reports must be filed biennially, with the first interim report submitted within two years of commencement of the activity. The interim report must include information required by § 767.11 to the maximum extent possible, and an account of both the progress that has been achieved and the objectives remaining to be accomplished. The NHHC shall review interim and final reports for thoroughness, accuracy, and quality and shall inform the permit holder of their formal acceptance in writing.
</P>
<P>(h) The permit holder shall agree to protect all sensitive information regarding the location and character of a wrecksite that could potentially expose it to non-professional recovery techniques, looters, or unauthorized salvage. Sensitive information includes specific location data and information about the cargo of a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, the existence of armaments, munitions and other hazardous materials, or the presence of, or potential presence of, human remains.
</P>
<P>(i) All recovered DON sunken military craft, terrestrial military craft, and their associated contents, remain the property of the United States. These resources and copies of associated archaeological records and data must be preserved by a suitable university, museum, or other scientific or educational institution that, at a minimum, meets the standards set forth in 36 CFR part 79, Curation of Federally-Owned and Administered Archaeological Collections, at the expense of the applicant or facility, unless otherwise agreed upon in writing by the NHHC. The curatorial facility must establish a loan of resources agreement with the NHHC and maintain it in good standing. If a loan of resources agreement is not established, or at the discretion of the NHHC, resources are to be managed, conserved and curated directly by the NHHC at the expense of the applicant, unless otherwise agreed upon in writing by the NHHC. Copies of associated archaeological and conservation records and data will be made available to the NHHC, and to the applicable SHPO, THPO, the federal or state land or resource manager, or foreign government official upon request.
</P>
<P>(j) The disposition of foreign sunken military craft or associated contents shall be determined on a case-by-case basis in coordination with the respective foreign state prior to the issuance of a NHHC permit.
</P>
<P>(k) In the event that credible evidence for or actual human remains, unexploded ordnance, hazardous materials or environmental pollutants such as oil are discovered during the course of research, the permit holder shall cease all work and immediately notify the NHHC. Permitted work may not resume until authorized by the NHHC.
</P>
<P>(l) The permittee shall purchase and maintain sufficient comprehensive general liability, and such other types of insurance, in an amount consistent with generally accepted industry standards throughout the period covered by the permit, or post an equivalent bond. Such insurance shall cover against any third party claims arising out of activities conducted under the permit. The permittee must further agree to hold the United States harmless against such claims.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.10   Requests for amendments or extensions of active permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for amendments to active permits (e.g., a change in study design or research personnel) must conform to the regulations in this part. All information deemed necessary by the NHHC to make an objective evaluation of the amendment must be included as well as reference to the original application. Requests for amendments must be sent to the Deputy Director, Naval History and Heritage Command, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington DC 20374-5060. A pending amendment request does not guarantee approval and proposed activities cannot commence until approval is granted. All requests for permit amendments must be submitted during the period within which an existing permit is active and at least 30 days prior to the desired effect date of the amendment. Time-sensitive or non-substantive amendments must be submitted in writing to the point of contact included in the permit and will be considered and expedited on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Permit holders desiring to continue research activities beyond the original permit expiration date must apply for an extension of a valid permit prior to its expiration. A pending extension request does not guarantee an extension of the original permit. All requests for a permit extension must be sent to the Deputy Director, Naval History and Heritage Command, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5060, at least 30 days prior to the original permit's expiration date. Reference to the original application may be given in lieu of a new application, provided the scope of work does not change significantly. Applicants may apply for one-year extensions subject to annual review.
</P>
<P>(c) Permit holders may appeal denied requests for amendments or extensions to the appeal authority listed in § 767.7(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.11   Content of permit holder's final report.</HEAD>
<P>The permit holder's final report shall at minimum include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A wrecksite history and a contextual history relating the wrecksite to the general history of the region;
</P>
<P>(b) A master wrecksite map;
</P>
<P>(c) Feature map(s) of any recovered artifacts showing their positions within the wrecksite;
</P>
<P>(d) Where environmental conditions allow, photographs of significant wrecksite features and significant artifacts both in situ and after removal;
</P>
<P>(e) If applicable, a section that includes an inventory of recovered artifacts, description of conserved artifacts, laboratory conservation records, documentation of analyses undertaken, photographs of recovered artifacts before and after conservation treatment, and recommended curation conditions;
</P>
<P>(f) A written report describing the wrecksite's discovery, environment, past and current archaeological fieldwork, results, and analysis;
</P>
<P>(g) A summary of the survey and/or excavation process including methods and techniques employed, an account of operational phases, copies of applicable logs, as well as thorough analysis of the recovered data;
</P>
<P>(h) An evaluation of the completed permitted activity that includes an assessment of the project's degree of success compared to the goals specified in the permit application;
</P>
<P>(i) Recommendations for future activities, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(j) An account of how the public interpretation or dissemination plan described in the permit application has been or is being carried out. Additionally, identification of any sensitive information as detailed in § 767.9(g).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.12   Special use permit application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person proposing to engage in an activity to document a sunken military craft utilizing diving methods or remotely-operated or autonomously-operated equipment, or collect data or samples from a wrecksite, whether a sunken military craft or terrestrial military craft, that would result in the wrecksite's disturbance but otherwise be minimally intrusive, may apply for a special use permit. Any person proposing to engage in an activity that would disturb, remove, or injure a non-historic sunken military craft must apply for a special use permit.
</P>
<P>(b) To request a special use permit application form, please refer to § 767.6(b) and (c). Special use permit applications must be sent to the Department of the Navy, U.S. Naval History and Heritage Command, Underwater Archaeology Branch, 805 Kidder Breese St. SE., Washington Navy Yard, Washington, DC 20374-5060.
</P>
<P>(c) Each special use permit application shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the project's objectives and an explanation on how they would serve the NHHC's objectives stated in § 767.5;
</P>
<P>(2) A discussion of the methodology planned to accomplish the project's objectives. This should include a map showing the study location(s) and a description of the wrecksite(s) of particular interest;
</P>
<P>(3) An analysis of the extent and nature of potential direct or indirect impacts on the resources and their surrounding environment from permitted activities, as well as any proposed mitigation measures;
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, a plan for wrecksite restoration and remediation with recommendations on wrecksite preservation and protection of the wrecksite location;
</P>
<P>(d) The NHHC Deputy Director, or his or her designee, may authorize a special use permit under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed activity is compatible with the NHHC policies and in the case of non-historic sunken military craft is not opposed by consulted DON parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The activities carried out under the permit are conducted in a manner that is minimally intrusive and does not purposefully significantly disturb, remove or injure the sunken military craft or wrecksite;
</P>
<P>(3) When applicable, the pilot(s) of remotely-operated equipment holds a certificate of operation from a nationally-recognized organization;
</P>
<P>(4) The principal investigator must hold a graduate degree in archaeology, anthropology, maritime history, oceanography, marine biology, marine geology, other marine science, closely related field, or possess equivalent training and experience. This requirement may be waived by the NHHC on a case by case basis depending on the activity stipulated in the application.
</P>
<P>(e) The permittee shall submit the following information subsequent to the conclusion of the permitted activity within an appropriate time frame as specified in the special use permit:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the activities undertaken that includes an assessment of the goals specified in the permit application;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of any sensitive information as detailed in § 767.9(h);
</P>
<P>(3) Complete and unedited copies of any and all documentation and data collected (photographs, video, remote sensing data, etc.) during the permitted activity and results of any subsequent analyses.
</P>
<P>(f) The following additional sections of this subpart shall apply to special use permits: §§ 767.7(e); 767.9(a), (b), (c), (e), (f), (g), (h), (k), and (l); 767.10; 767.13; 767.14; and 767.15(c).
</P>
<P>(g) All sections of subpart A of this part shall apply to all special use permits, and all sections of subpart C of this part shall apply to special use permits pertaining to sunken military craft.
</P>
<P>(h) Unless stipulated in the special use permit, the recovery of artifacts associated with any wrecksite is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.13" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.13   Monitoring of performance.</HEAD>
<P>Permitted activities will be monitored to ensure compliance with the conditions of the permit. In addition to remotely monitoring operations, NHHC personnel, or other designated authorities, may periodically assess work in progress through on-site monitoring at the location of the permitted activity. The discovery of any potential irregularities in performance under the permit by NHHC on-site personnel, other designated authorities, or the permit holder, must be promptly reported to the NHHC for appropriate action. Adverse action may ensue in accordance with § 767.14. Findings of unauthorized activities will be taken into consideration when evaluating future permit applications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.14" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.14   Amendment, suspension, or revocation of permits.</HEAD>
<P>The NHHC Deputy Director, or his/her designee may amend, suspend, or revoke a permit in whole or in part, temporarily or indefinitely, if in his/her view the permit holder has acted in violation of the terms of the permit or of other applicable regulations, or for other good cause shown. Any such action will be communicated in writing to the permit holder or the permit holder's representative and will set forth the reason for the action taken. The permit holder may request the Director of the NHHC reconsider the action in accordance with § 767.7(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.15" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.15   Application to foreign sunken military craft and U.S. sunken military craft not under the jurisdiction of the Navy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sunken military craft are generally entitled to sovereign immunity regardless of where they are located or when they sank. Foreign governments may request, via the Department of State, that the Secretary of the Navy administer a permitting program for a specific or a group of its sunken military craft in U.S. waters. The request must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign government must assert the sovereign immunity of or ownership over a specified sunken military craft or group of sunken military craft;
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign government must request assistance from the United States government;
</P>
<P>(3) The foreign government must acknowledge that subparts B and C of this part will apply to the specified sunken military craft or group of sunken military craft for which the request is submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt and favorable review of a request from a foreign government, the Secretary of the Navy, or his or her designee, in consultation with the Department of State, will proceed to accept the specified sunken military craft or group of sunken military craft into the present permitting program. The Secretary of the Navy, or his or her designee, in consultation with the Department of State, reserves the right to decline a request by the foreign government. Should there be a need to formalize an understanding with the foreign government in response to a submitted request stipulating conditions such as responsibilities, requirements, procedures, and length of effect, the Secretary of State, or his or her designee, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, or his or her designee, will proceed to formalize an understanding with the foreign government. Any views on such a foreign government request or understanding expressed by applicable federal, tribal, and state agencies will be taken into account.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons may seek a permit to disturb foreign sunken military craft located in U.S. waters that have been accepted into the present permitting program or are covered under a formalized understanding as per paragraph (b) of this section, by submitting a permit application or special use permit application, as appropriate, for consideration by the NHHC in accordance with subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case where there is reasonable dispute over the sovereign immunity or ownership status of a foreign sunken military craft, the Secretary of the Navy, or his or her designee, maintains the right to postpone action on §§ 767.6 and 767.12, as well as requests under paragraph (a) of this section, until the dispute over the sovereign immunity or ownership status is resolved.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary of any military department, or in the case of the Coast Guard the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is operating, may request that the Secretary of the Navy administer the DON permitting program with regard to sunken military craft under the cognizance of the Secretary concerned. Upon the agreement of the Secretary of the Navy, or his or her designee, subparts A, B, and C of this part shall apply to those agreed upon craft.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Enforcement Provisions for Violations of the Sunken Military Craft Act and Associated Permit Conditions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.16" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.16   Civil penalties for violations of Act or permit conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any person who violates the SMCA, or any regulation or permit issued thereunder, shall be liable to the United States for a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment and amount.</I> The Secretary may assess a civil penalty under this section of not more than $100,000 for each violation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Continuing violations.</I> Each day of a continuing violation of the SMCA or these regulations or any permit issued hereunder constitutes a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>In rem liability.</I> A vessel used to violate the SMCA shall be liable in rem for a penalty for such violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.17   Liability for damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who engages in an activity in violation of section 1402 or any regulation or permit issued under the Act that disturbs, removes, or injures any U.S. sunken military craft shall pay the United States enforcement costs and damages resulting from such disturbance, removal, or injury.
</P>
<P>(b) Damages referred to in paragraph (a) of this section may include:
</P>
<P>(1) The reasonable costs incurred in storage, restoration, care, maintenance, conservation, and curation of any sunken military craft that is disturbed, removed, or injured in violation of section 1402 or any regulation or permit issued under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of retrieving, from the site where the sunken military craft was disturbed, removed, or injured, any information of an archaeological, historical, or cultural nature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.18   Notice of Violation and Assessment (NOVA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) A NOVA will be issued by the Director of the NHHC and served in person or by registered, certified, return receipt requested, or express mail, or by commercial express package service, upon the respondent, or in the case of a vessel respondent, the owner of the vessel. A copy of the NOVA will be similarly served upon the permit holder, if the holder is not the respondent. The NOVA will contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the facts believed to show a violation;
</P>
<P>(2) A specific reference to the provision(s) of the SMCA, regulation, or permit violated;
</P>
<P>(3) The findings and conclusions upon which the Director of the NHHC bases the assessment;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages assessed; and
</P>
<P>(5) An advisement of the respondent's rights upon receipt of the NOVA, including a citation to the regulations governing the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) The NOVA may also contain a proposal for compromise or settlement of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to assessing a civil penalty or liability for damages, the Director of the NHHC will take into account information available to the Agency concerning any factor to be considered under the SMCA and any other information required by law or in the interests of justice. The respondent will have the opportunity to review information considered and present information, in writing, to the Director of the NHHC. At the discretion of the Director of the NHHC, a respondent will be allowed to present information in person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.19   Procedures regarding service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever this part requires service of a document, such service may effectively be made either in person or by registered or certified mail (with return receipt requested) on the respondent, the respondent's agent for service of process or on a representative designated by that agent for receipt of service. Refusal by the respondent, the respondent's agent, or other designated representative to be served, or refusal by his or her designated representative of service of a document will be considered effective service of the document as of the date of such refusal. Service will be considered effective on the date the document is mailed to an addressee's last known address.
</P>
<P>(b) A document will be considered served and/or filed as of the date of the postmark; or (if not mailed) as of the date actually delivered in person; or as shown by electronic mail transmission.
</P>
<P>(c) Time periods begin to run on the day following service of the document or date of the event. Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays will be included in computing such time, except that when such time expires on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, such period will be extended to include the next business day. This method of computing time periods also applies to any act, such as paying a civil penalty or liability for damages, required by this part to take place within a specified period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.20   Requirements of respondent or permit holder upon service of a NOVA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The respondent or permit holder has 45 days from service receipt of the NOVA in which to reply. During this time the respondent or permit holder may:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept the penalty or compromise penalty, if any, by taking the actions specified in the NOVA;
</P>
<P>(2) Seek to have the NOVA amended, modified, or rescinded under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Request a hearing before a DOHA Administrative Judge under paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Request an extension of time to respond under paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(5) Take no action, in which case the NOVA becomes final in accordance with § 767.22(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The respondent or permit holder may seek amendment, modification, or rescindment of the NOVA to conform to the facts or law as that person sees them by notifying the Director of the NHHC in writing at the address specified in the NOVA. If amendment or modification is sought, the Director of the NHHC will either amend the NOVA or decline to amend it, and so notify the respondent, permit holder, or vessel owner, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The respondent or permit holder may, within the 45-day period specified in paragraph (a) of this section, request in writing an extension of time to respond. The Director of the NHHC may grant an extension in writing of up to 30 days unless he or she determines that the requester could, exercising reasonable diligence, respond within the 45-day period.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director of the NHHC may, for good cause, grant an additional extension beyond the 30-day period specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Any denial, in whole or in part, of any request under this section that is based upon untimeliness will be in writing.
</P>
<P>(f) If the respondent or permit holder desires a hearing, the request must be in writing, dated and signed, and must be sent by mail to the Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, 875 North Randolph St., Suite 8000, Arlington, VA 22203. The Director, Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals may, at his or her discretion, treat any communication from a respondent or a permit holder as a proper request for a hearing. The requester must attach a copy of the NOVA. A single hearing will be held for all parties named in a NOVA and who timely request a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.21" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.21   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hearings before a DOHA Administrative Judge are <I>de novo</I> reviews of the circumstances alleged in the NOVA and penalties assessed. Hearings are governed by procedures established by the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals. Hearing procedures will be provided in writing to the parties and may be accessed on-line at <I>http://www.dod.mil/dodgc/doha/.</I> Hearings shall be held at the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals, Arlington VA, either in person or by video teleconference. Each party shall bear their own costs.
</P>
<P>(b) In any DOHA hearing held in response to a request under § 767.20(f), the Administrative Judge will render a final written Decision which is binding on all parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.22" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.22   Final administrative decision.</HEAD>
<P>If no request for a hearing is timely filed as provided in § 767.20(f), the NOVA becomes effective as the final administrative decision and order of the Agency on the 45th day after service of the NOVA or on the last day of any delay period granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.23" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.23   Payment of final assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Respondent must make full payment of the civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages assessed within 30 days of the date upon which the assessment becomes effective as the final administrative decision and order of the Agency. Payment must be made by mailing or delivering to the Agency at the address specified in the NOVA a check or money order made payable in U.S. currency in the amount of the assessment to the “Treasurer of the United States”, or as otherwise directed.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon any failure to pay the civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages assessed, the Agency may request the Department of Justice to recover the amount assessed in any appropriate district court of the United States, or may act under any law or statute that permits any type of recovery, including but not limited to arrest, attachment, seizure, or garnishment, of property and/or funds to satisfy a debt owed to the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.24" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.24   Compromise of civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the NHHC, in his/her sole discretion, may compromise, modify, remit, or mitigate, with or without conditions, any civil penalty or liability for damages imposed, or which is subject to imposition, except as provided in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The compromise authority of the Director of the NHHC under this section is in addition to any similar authority provided in any applicable statute or regulation, and may be exercised either upon the initiative of the Director of the NHHC or in response to a request by the respondent or other interested person. Any such request should be sent to the Director of the NHHC at the address specified in the NOVA.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the existence of the compromise authority of the Director of the NHHC under this section nor the Director's exercise thereof at any time changes the date upon which an assessment is final or payable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.25   Factors considered in assessing penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Factors to be taken into account in assessing a penalty may include the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the alleged violation; the respondent's degree of culpability; any history of prior offenses; ability to pay; and such other matters as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of the NHHC may, in consideration of a respondent's ability to pay, increase or decrease a penalty from an amount that would otherwise be warranted by other relevant factors. A penalty may be increased if a respondent's ability to pay is such that a higher penalty is necessary to deter future violations, or for commercial violators, to make a penalty more than the profits received from acting in violation of the SMCA, or any regulation or permit issued thereunder. A penalty may be decreased if the respondent establishes that he or she is unable to pay an otherwise appropriate penalty amount.
</P>
<P>(c) If a respondent asserts that a penalty should be reduced because of an inability to pay, the respondent has the burden of proving such inability by providing verifiable, complete, and accurate financial information to the Director of the NHHC. The Director of the NHHC will not consider a respondent's inability to pay unless the respondent, upon request, submits such financial information as the Director of the NHHC determines is adequate to evaluate the respondent's financial condition. Depending on the circumstances of the case, the Director of the NHHC may require the respondent to complete a financial information request form, answer written interrogatories, or submit independent verification of his or her financial information. If the respondent does not submit the requested financial information, he or she will be presumed to have the ability to pay the penalty.
</P>
<P>(1) Financial information relevant to a respondent's ability to pay includes, but is not limited to, the value of respondent's cash and liquid assets and non-liquid assets, ability to borrow, net worth, liabilities, income, prior and anticipated profits, expected cash flow, and the respondent's ability to pay in installments over time. A respondent will be considered able to pay a penalty even if he or she must take such actions as pay in installments over time, borrow money, liquidate assets, or reorganize his or her business. The Director of the NHHC's consideration of a respondent's ability to pay does not preclude an assessment of a penalty in an amount that would cause or contribute to the bankruptcy or other discontinuation of the respondent's business.
</P>
<P>(2) Financial information regarding respondent's ability to pay should be submitted to the Director of the NHHC as soon after receipt of the NOVA as possible. In deciding whether to submit such information, the respondent should keep in mind that the Director of the NHHC may assess de novo a civil penalty, enforcement costs and/or liability for damages either greater or smaller than that assessed in the NOVA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.26" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.26   Criminal law.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these regulations is intended to prevent the United States from pursuing criminal sanctions for plundering of wrecks, larceny of Government property, or violation of applicable criminal law, whether the infringement pertains to a sunken military craft, a terrestrial military craft or other craft under the jurisdiction of the DON.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 767.27" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.21.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 767.27   References.</HEAD>
<P>References for submission of permit application, including but not limited to, and as may be further amended:
</P>
<P>(a) National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) of 1966, as amended, 54 U.S.C. 300101 <I>et seq.</I> (2014), and Protection of Historic Properties, 36 CFR part 800. This statute and its implementing regulations govern the section 106 review process established by the NHPA.
</P>
<P>(b) National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.,</I> and Protection of the Environment, 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508. This statute and its implementing regulations require agencies to consider the effects of their actions on the human environment.
</P>
<P>(c) Secretary of the Interior's Standards and Guidelines for Archeology and Historic Preservation available at <I>http://www.cr.nps.gov/local-law/arch_stnds_0.htm.</I> These guidelines establish standards for the preservation planning process with guidelines on implementation.
</P>
<P>(d) Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm, and the Uniform Regulations, 43 CFR part 7, subpart A. This statute and its implementing regulations establish basic government-wide standards for the issuance of permits for archaeological research, including the authorized excavation and/or removal of archaeological resources on public lands or Indian lands.
</P>
<P>(e) Secretary of the Interior's regulations, Curation of Federally-Owned and Administered Archaeological Collections, 36 CFR part 79. These regulations establish standards for the curation and display of federally-owned artifact collections.
</P>
<P>(f) Antiquities Act of 1906, Public Law 59-209, 34 Stat. 225 (codified at 16 U.S.C. 431 <I>et seq.</I> (1999)).
</P>
<P>(g) Executive Order 11593, 36 FR 8291, 3 CFR, 1971-1975 Comp., p. 559 (Protection and Enhancement of the Cultural Environment).
</P>
<P>(h) Department of Defense Instruction 4140.21M (DoDI 4140.21M, August 1998). Subject: Defense Disposal Manual.
</P>
<P>(i) Secretary of the Navy Instruction 4000.35A (SECNAVINST 4000.35A, 9 April 2001). Subject: Department of the Navy Cultural Resources Program.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="768-769" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 768-769 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="770" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 770—RULES LIMITING PUBLIC ACCESS TO PARTICULAR INSTALLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 32 CFR 700.702; 32 CFR 700.714, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Hunting and Fishing at Marine Corps Base, Quantico, Virginia</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides regulations and related information governing hunting and fishing on the Marine Corps Base Reservation, Quantico, VA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.2   Licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person who hunts or fishes on Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA, must possess appropriate valid licenses in compliance with the Laws of the United States and the State of Virginia.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, hunting and fishing privilege cards, issued by the authorities at Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA, are required for all persons between the ages sixteen and sixty-four, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(1) The privilege card may be purchased from the Natural Resources and Environmental Affairs Branch, Building 5-9, Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA. 
</P>
<P>(2) The privilege cards are effective for the same period as the Virginia hunting and fishing licenses.
</P>
<P>(c) All hunters must obtain a Base hunting permit, and a parking permit, if applicable, from the Game Check Station, Building 5-9 Station (located at the intersection of Russell Road and MCB-1) for each day of hunting. The hunting permit must be carried by the hunter and the parking permit must be displayed on the left dashboard of parked vehicles. The hunting and parking permits must be returned within one hour after either sunset or the hour hunting is secured on holidays or during special season. 
</P>
<P>(d) Eligibility for a Base hunting permit is predicated on:
</P>
<P>(1) Possession of required Federal and State licenses for the game to be hunted including Marine Corps Base hunting privilege card;
</P>
<P>(2) Attendance at a safety lecture given daily except Sunday during the hunting season given at the Game Check Station. The lectures commence at the times posted in the Annual Hunting Bulletin and are posted on all base bulletin boards;
</P>
<P>(3) Understanding of Federal, State and Base hunting regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) And, if civilian, an executed release of U.S. Government responsibility in case of accident or injury.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 48 FR 23205, May 24, 1983; 65 FR 53591, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.3   Fishing regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All persons possessing the proper state license and Base permit are permitted to fish in the areas designated by the Annual Fishing Regulations on Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA, on any authorized fishing day. A Base Fishing Privilege Card is required for all persons aged 16 to 65. 
</P>
<P>(b) Fishing is permitted on all waters within the boundaries of Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA, unless otherwise posted, under the conditions and restrictions and during the periods provided by Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA. Information regarding specific regulations for each fishing area must be obtained from the Natural Resources and Environmental Affairs Branch, Building 5-9 prior to use of Base fishing facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the requirements of the Laws of Virginia, the following additional prohibitions and requirements are in effect at Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA.
</P>
<P>(1) No trout lines are permitted in Marine Corps Base waters; 
</P>
<P>(2) No Large Mouth Bass will be taken, creeled or possessed in a slot limit of 12-15 inches in length. All Large Mouth Bass within this slot will be immediately returned to the water; 
</P>
<P>(3) No Striped Bass will be taken, creeled or possessed under the size of twenty (20) inches in length. All Striped Bass under this size will be immediately returned to the water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 48 FR 23205, May 24, 1983; 65 FR 53591, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.4   Hunting regulations.</HEAD>
<P>All persons possessing the proper State, Federal and Base licenses and permits are permitted to hunt in the areas designated daily by the Annual Hunting Bulletin on Marine Corps Base, Quantico, VA, on any authorized hunting day. In addition, a minimum of fifteen percent of the daily hunting spaces will be reserved to civilians on a first come, first served basis until 0600 on each hunting day, at which time, the Game Check Station may fill vacancies from any authorized persons waiting to hunt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 53591, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.5   Safety regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hunting is not permitted within 200 yards of the following: Ammunition dumps, built-up areas, rifle or pistol ranges, dwelling or other occupied structures, and areas designated by the Annual Hunting Bulletin as recreation areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) From the end of the special archery season until the end of the regular firearms winter hunting season, except for duck hunters in approved blinds, hunters will wear an outer garment with at least two square foot of blaze orange visible both front and back above the waist and a blaze orange cap while hunting, or while in the woods for any reason, during the hours that hunting is authorized. Any person traveling on foot in or adjacent to an area open for hunting will comply with this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(c) Weapons will be unloaded while being transported in vehicles, and will be left in vehicles by personnel checking in or out at the Game Check Station. Weapons will not be discharged from vehicles, or within 200 yards of hard surfaced roads.
</P>
<P>(d) Certain hunting areas contain numerous unexploded munitions (duds) which are dangerous and must not be removed or disturbed. Hunters should mark such duds with stakes or other means and report their location to the Game Warden.
</P>
<P>(e) Hunters must stay in their assigned areas when hunting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.6   Restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There will be no hunting on Christmas Eve, Christmas Day, New Years Day, or after 1200 on Thanksgiving Day.
</P>
<P>(b) Hunters under 18 years of age must be accompanied by an adult (21 years of age or older) while hunting or in a hunting area. The adult is limited to a maximum of two underage hunters, and must stay within sight and voice contact and no more than 100 yards away from the underage hunters.
</P>
<P>(c) The following practices or actions are expressly forbidden: Use of rifles, except muzzleloaders of .40 caliber or larger as specified below, revolvers or pistols; use of shotguns larger than 10 gauge or crossbows (this prohibition extends to carrying such weapons on the person or in a vehicle while hunting), use of buckshot to hunt any game; use of a light, attached to a vehicle or otherwise, for the purpose of spotting game; use of dogs for hunting or tracking deer; training deer dogs on the Reservation; training or running dogs in hunting areas between 1 March and 1 September; driving deer; baiting or salting traps or blinds; hunting on Sunday; molesting wildlife. Those personnel who are authorized to hunt on Base, desiring to train or exercise dogs other than deer dogs between 2 September and 28 February, may do so by obtaining Walking Pass to enter training areas at the Range Control Office. This Walking Pass is not permission to hunt, and carrying weapons under these conditions is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(d) Hunting will not commence before one half hour before sunrise, and will end not later than sunset. The hours of sunrise and sunset are posted daily at the Game Checking Station.
</P>
<P>(e) Weapons will not be loaded outside of hunting hours.
</P>
<P>(f) There will be no use of a muzzleloader or slug shotgun after obtaining the daily or yearly game bag limits. 
</P>
<P>(g) There will be no possession or use of drugs or alcohol while checked out to hunt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 48 FR 23205, May 24, 1983; 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.7   Violations and environmental regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of hunting regulations, fishing regulations, safety regulations, or principles of good sportsmanship are subject to administrative restriction of hunting or fishing privileges and possible judicial proceedings in State or Federal courts.
</P>
<P>(a) The Marine Corps Base Game Wardens are Federal Game Wardens. They have authority to issue summons to appear in Federal court for game violations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Offenders in violation of a Federal or State hunting or fishing laws will be referred to a Federal court.
</P>
<P>(c) Offenders in violation of a Federal, State or Base hunting or fishing law or regulation will receive the following administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(1) The Base Game Warden shall have the authority to temporarily suspend hunting and fishing privileges. 
</P>
<P>(2) Suspensions of hunting and fishing privileges will be outlined in the Annual Fish and Wildlife Procedures Manual.
</P>
<P>(d) Civilians found in violation of a hunting or fishing regulation or law may be permanently restricted from entering the base.
</P>
<P>(e) Serious hunting and fishing offenses include, but are not limited to: spotlighting, false statement on a license, hunting under the influence, employment of a light in an area that deer frequent, and taking game or fish during closed seasons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.8   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Upon killing a deer or turkey, a hunter must attach the appropriate tab from his big game license to the carcass before moving the game from the place of kill. The game will then be taken to the Game Checking Station where the tab will be exchanged for an official game tag. All other game, not requiring a tag, killed on the Reservation will be immediately reported to the Game Warden when checking out at the end of a hunt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 22345, June 3, 1976, as amended at 48 FR 23206, May 24, 1983; 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.9   Miscellaneous.</HEAD>
<P>Refer to the Annual Fishing and Hunting Bulletins that will cover any annual miscellaneous changes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Base Entry Regulations for Naval Submarine Base, Bangor, Silverdale, Washington</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 797; DoDDir. 5200.8 of April 25, 1991; 5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 32 CFR 700.702; 32 CFR 700.714.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 32368, June 6, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.15" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.15   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to promulgate regulations governing entry upon Naval Submarine Base (SUBASE), Bangor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.16" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.16   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, SUBASE Bangor shall include that area of land in Kitsap and Jefferson Counties, State of Washington which has been set aside for use of the Federal Government by an Act of the legislature of the State of Washington, approved March 15, 1939 (Session laws of 1939, chapter 126).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.17   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) SUBASE Bangor has been designated as the West Coast home port of the Trident Submarine. Facilities for the repair or overhaul of naval vessels are located at SUBASE Bangor. It is vital to national defense that the operation and use of SUBASE Bangor be continued without undue and unnecessary interruption. Many areas of SUBASE Bangor are of an industrial nature, including construction sites, where inherently dangerous conditions exist.
</P>
<P>(b) For prevention of the interruption of the stated use of the base by the presence of any unauthorized person within the boundaries of SUBASE Bangor, and prevention of injury to any such person as a consequence of the dangerous conditions which exist, as well as for other reasons, it is essential to restrict entry upon SUBASE Bangor to authorized persons only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.18   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except for military personnel and civilian employees of the United States in the performance of their official duties, entry upon Naval Submarine Base, Bangor, or remaining thereon by any person whatsoever for any purpose without the advance consent of the Commanding Officer, SUBASE Bangor or his authorized representative is prohibited. <I>See,</I> 18 U.S.C. 1382; the Internal Security Act of 1950, Section 21 (50 U.S.C. 797); Department of Defense Directive 5200.8 of 25 April 1991; Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5511.36A of 21 July 1992.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 32368, June 6, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.19   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or group of persons desiring the advance consent of the Commanding Officer, SUBASE Bangor or his authorized representative shall, in writing, submit a request to the Commanding Officer, Naval Submarine Base, Bangor, 1100 Hunley Road, Silverdale, WA 98315.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for entry will be considered on an individual basis weighing the operational, security, and safety requirements of SUBASE Bangor with the purpose, size of party, duration of visit, destination, and military resources which would be required by the granting of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 32368, June 6, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.20   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entering or remaining on SUBASE Bangor, without the consent of the Commanding Officer, SUBASE Bangor or his authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties prescribed by 18 U.S.C. 1382, which provides in pertinent part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval * * * reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation * * * shall be fined not more than $5,000 or imprisoned not more than six months or both.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this subpart is subject to a fine not to exceed $5,000 or imprisonment for not more than one (1) year or both as provided in 50 U.S.C. 797.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 32368, June 6, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Base Entry Regulations for Naval Installations in the State of Hawaii</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 797; DoD Dir. 5200.8 of Aug. 20, 1954; 5 U.S.C 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 32 CFR 700.702, 770.714.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 76279, Dec. 26, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.25   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to promulgate regulations governing entry to naval installations in the State of Hawaii.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.26" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.26   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Naval installations.</I> A naval installation is a shore activity and is any area of land, whether or not fenced or covered by water, that is administered by the Department of the Navy or by any subordinate naval command. The term “naval installation” applies to all such areas regardless of whether the areas are being used for purely military purposes, for housing, for support purposes, or for any other purpose by a naval command. Section 770.31 contains a list of the major naval installations in Hawaii. This list is not considered to be all inclusive and is included only as a representative guide. For the purposes of this subpart the area of water within Pearl Harbor is considered to be within a naval installation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outleased areas.</I> Certain portions of naval installations in Hawaii which are not for the time needed for public use or for which a dual use is feasible have been outleased to private interests. Examples of such outleased areas are the Moanalua Shopping Center and lands such as Waipio Peninsula, which has been outleased for agricultural purposes. For the purpose of this Subpart, outleased areas which are not within fenced portions of naval installations are not considered to be a part of naval installations. Rules for entry onto the outleased areas are made by the lessees, except in the case of Waipio Peninsula where the lessee (Oahu Sugar Company) is not authorized to allow anyone to enter Waipio Peninsula for any purpose not connected with sugar cane production.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.27" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.27   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Naval installations in Hawaii constitute a significant element of the national defense establishment. It is vital to the national defense that the use of such areas be at all times under the positive control of the Department of the Navy. Strict control must be exercised over access to naval installations in order to preclude damage accidental and intentional to Government property, injury to military personnel, and interference in the orderly accomplishment of the mission of command.
</P>
<P>(b) There are several industrial areas within naval installations in Hawaii wherein construction activities and the use of heavy machinery pose grave risk of danger to visitors.
</P>
<P>(c) Various types of flammable or incendiary materials and ordnance are stored at a number of locations within naval installations in Hawaii.
</P>
<P>(d) Classified documents and equipment requiring protection from unauthorized disclosure by Executive order 12065 for reasons of national security are located at various locations within naval installations in Hawaii.
</P>
<P>(e) In order to effect the positive control of the Navy over its installations in Hawaii, it is essential that entry onto those installations be restricted to authorized persons only.
</P>
<P>(f) These entry regulations are being promulgated under the authority of Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, who has been assigned as immediate area coordinator for all naval installations in the State of Hawaii by Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.28" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.28   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Each commander is responsible for the security of his/her command. Therefore, entry onto a command or into part of a command may be controlled by the commander through the imposition of such restrictions as may be required by attendant circumstances. Within the State of Hawaii, entry into a naval installation is not permitted without the permission of the responsible commander.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.29" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.29   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Operational, security, and safety considerations take priority over requests by individuals to visit a naval installation. Consistent with such considerations, visits by members of the general public may be authorized at the discretion of the commander. The commitment of resources which would be required to safeguard the persons and property of visitors as well as military property and personnel must of necessity preclude or severely restrict such visiting. The purpose and duration of the visit and the size of the party and areas to be visited are other considerations which may affect the commander's decision whether to permit visiting by members of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person or group desiring to enter a particular naval installation or portion thereof, shall submit a written request to the commander of the installation well enough in advance to allow a reasonable time for reply by mail. Mailing addresses for commanders of major installations covered by this subpart are listed in § 770.31. Full compliance with a naval installation's local visitor registration and entry control procedures shall be deemed the equivalent of obtaining the advance consent of the commander for entrance upon the installation for the purpose of this subpart. Authorization to enter one naval installation or a portion of one installation does not necessarily include the authorization to enter any other naval installation or all portions of an installation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.30" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.30   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entering or remaining on a naval installation in the State of Hawaii, without consent of the commander or his authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties of a fine of not more than $500 or imprisonment for not more than six months, or both. See 18 U.S.C. 1382.
</P>
<P>(b) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this regulation is subject to a fine not to exceed $5,000 or imprisonment for one year, or both. See 50 U.S.C. 797.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.31" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.31   List of major naval installations in the State of Hawaii and cognizant commanders authorized to grant access under these regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>On Oahu.</I> (1) Naval Base, Pearl Harbor (including the Naval Station, Naval Submarine Base, Naval Shipyard, Naval Supply Center, Naval Public Works Center, Marine Barracks, Ford Island, Bishop Point Dock Area, Commander-in-Chief Pacific Fleet and Commander Naval Logistics Command Headquarters Areas, Johnson Circle Navy Exchange/Commissary Store Area, Navy-Marine Golf Course, miscellaneous other commands, and areas within the Naval Base, Pearl Harbor complex, and the waters of Pearl Harbor). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Naval Western Oceanography Center, Pearl Harbor. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval Western Oceanography Center, Box 113, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Naval Air Station, Barbers Point. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval Air Station, Barbers Point, HI 96862.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Naval Communication Area Master Station, Eastern Pacific, Wahiawa. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval Communication Area Master Station, Eastern Pacific, Wahiawa, HI 96786.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) Naval Magazine (Lualualei, Waikele, and West Loch). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval Magazine, Lualualei, HI 96792.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) Naval Radio Transmitting Facility, Lualualei. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(7) Naval and Marine Corps Reserve Training Center, Honolulu. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Naval and Marine Corps Reserve Training Center, Honolulu, 530 Peltier Avenue, Honolulu, HI 96818.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(8) Military Sealift Command Office. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(9) Mauna Kapu (Pacific Missile Range Facility). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commanding Officer, Pacific Missile Range Facility, Hawaiian Area, Barking Sands, Kekaha, Kauai, HI 96752.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(10) Kunia Facility; FORACS III Sites; Degaussing Station, Waipio Peninsula; Damon Tract (Remanant) Opana Communciations Site. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(11) Outlying areas of the Naval Supply Center, Pearl Harbor (including the Ewa Junction Storage Area, Ewa Drum Storage Area, Manana Supply Area, Pearl City Supply Area, and the Red Hill Fuel Storage Area). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(12) Pump Stations (Halawa, Waiawa, Red Hill, and Barbers Point). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(13) Halawa Water Storage Area; Barbers Point, Independent Water Supply Reservoir Site; Sewage Treatment Plant; Fort Kam (tri-service); Utility Corridors, Lynch Park (Ohana Nui). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(14) Navy housing areas (including Moanalua Terrace, Radford Terrace, Makalapa, Maloelap, Halsey Terrace, Catlin Park, Hale Moku, Pearl Harbor, Naval Shipyard, McGrew Point, Halawa, Hokulani, Manana, Pearl City Peninsula, Red Hill, Iroquois Point, Puuloa, and Camp Stover). Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander, Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>On Kauai.</I> (1) Pacific Missile Range Facility, Barking Sands, Kekaha.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Contact: Commanding Officer, Pacific Missile Range Facility, Hawaiian Area, Barking Sands, Kekaha, HI 96752.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Other areas.</I> (1) Kaho'olawe Island. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860. Also see 32 CFR part 763.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Kaula. Contact:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Commander Naval Base, Pearl Harbor, HI 96860.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 76279, Dec. 26, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 20074, May 29, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Entry Regulations for Naval Installations and Property in Puerto Rico</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 22756, Apr. 21, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.35" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.35   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to promulgate standard regulations and procedures governing entry upon U.S. Naval installations and properties in Puerto Rico.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.36" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.36   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of these regulations, U.S. Naval installations and properties in Puerto Rico include, but are not limited to, the U.S. Naval Station, Roosevelt Roads (including the Vieques Island Eastern Annexes, consisting of Camp Garcia, the Eastern Maneuver Area, and the Inner Range); the Naval Ammunition Facility, Vieques Island; and the Naval Security Group Activity, Sabana Seca.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.37" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.37   Background.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with 32 CFR 765.4, Naval installations and properties in Puerto Rico are not open to the general public, <I>i.e.,</I> they are “closed” military bases. Therefore admission to the general public is only by the permission of the respective Commanding Officers in accordance with their respective installation instructions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.38" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.38   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except for duly authorized military personnel and civilian employees, including contract employees, of the United States in the performance of their official duties, entry upon any U.S. Navy installation or property in Puerto Rico at anytime, by any person for any purpose whatsoever without the advance consent of the Commanding Officer of the installation or property concerned, or an authorized representative of that Commanding Officer, is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.39" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.39   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or group of persons desiring to obtain advance consent for entry upon any U.S. Naval installation or property in Puerto Rico from the Commanding Officer of the Naval installation or property, or an authorized representative of that Commanding Officer, shall present themselves at an authorized entry gate at the installation or property concerned or, in the alternative, submit a request in writing to the following respective addresses:
</P>
<P>(1) Commanding Officer, U.S. Naval Station, Roosevelt Roads, Box 3001, Ceiba, PR 00635.
</P>
<P>(2) Officer in Charge, Naval Ammunition Facility, Box 3027, Ceiba, PR 00635.
</P>
<P>(3) Commanding Officer, U.S. Naval Security Group Activity, Sabana Seca, PR 00749.
</P>
<P>(b) The above Commanding Officers are authorized to provide advance consent only for installations and properties under their command. Requests for entry authorization to any other facility or property shall be addressed to the following:
</P>
<FP>Commander, U.S. Naval Forces, Caribbean, Box 3037, Ceiba, PR 00635.
</FP>
<P>(c) Each request for entry will be considered on an individual basis and consent will be determined by applicable installation entry instructions. Factors that will be considered include the purpose of visit, the size of party, duration of visit, destination, security safeguards, safety aspects, and the military resources necessary if the request is granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.40" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.40   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Any person entering or remaining on U.S. Naval installations and properties in Puerto Rico, without the advance consent of those officials hereinabove enumerated, or their authorized representatives, shall be considered to be in violation of these regulations and therefore subject to the penalties prescribed by 18 U.S.C. 1382, which provides in pertinent part: “Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval * * * reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation * * * shall be fined not more than $500.00 or imprisoned not more than six months, or both,” or any other applicable laws or regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Base Entry Regulations for Naval Submarine Base New London, Groton, Connecticut</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 797; DoD Directive 5200.8 of July 29, 1980; SECNAVINST 5511.36 of December 20, 1980; OPNAVINST 5510.45 of April 19, 1971; 5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 32 CFR 700.702; 32 CFR 700.714.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 5555, Feb. 7, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.41" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.41   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to promulgate regulations and procedures governing entry upon Naval Submarine Base New London, and to prevent the interruption of the stated functions and operations of Naval Submarine Base New London, by the presence of any unauthorized person within the boundaries of Naval Submarine Base New London.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.42" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.42   Background.</HEAD>
<P>Naval Submarine Base New London maintains and operates facilities to support training and experimental operations of the submarine force including providing support to submarines, submarine rescue vessels, and assigned service and small craft; within capabilities, to provide support to other activities of the Navy and other governmental activities in the area; and to perform such other functions as may be directed by competent authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.43" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.43   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>The responsibility for proper identification and control of personnel and vehicle movement on the Naval Submarine Base New London is vested with the Security Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.44" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.44   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except for military personnel, their authorized dependents, or guests, and employees of the United States in the performance of their official duties, entry upon Naval Submarine Base New London, or remaining thereon by any person for any purpose without the advance consent of the Commanding Officer, Naval Submarine Base New London, or his authorized representative is prohibited. <I>See</I> 18 U.S.C. 1382j, the Internal Security Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 797); Chief of Naval Operations Instruction 5510.45B of April 19, 1971; and Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5511.36 of December 20, 1980.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.45" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.45   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any individual person or group of persons desiring the advance consent of the Commanding Officer, Naval Submarine Base New London, or his authorized representative shall, in writing, submit a request to the Commanding Officer, Naval Submarine Base New London, at the following address: Commanding Officer (Attn: Security Officer), Box 38, Naval Submarine Base New London, Groton, CT 06349.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for entry will be considered on an individual basis weighing the operational, security, and safety requirements of Naval Submarine Base New London with the purpose, size of party, duration of visit, destination, and military resources which would be required by the granting of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.46" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.46   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entering or remaining on Naval Submarine Base New London, without the consent of the Commanding Officer, Naval Submarine Base New London or his authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties prescribed in 18 U.S.C. 1382, which provides in pertinent part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval . . . reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation . . . shall be fined not more than $500 or imprisoned not more than six months or both.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this subpart is subject to a fine not to exceed $5000 or imprisonment for not more than one (1) year or both as provided in 50 U.S.C. 797.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Base Entry Regulations for Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, Bremerton, Washington</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 50 U.S.C. 797; DoD Directive 5200.8 of April 25, 1991; SECNAVINST 5511.36A of July 21, 1992; OPNAVINST 5530.14C of December 10, 1998; 32 CFR 700.702; 32 CFR 700.714. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 53592, Sept. 5, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.47" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.47   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To promulgate regulations and procedures governing entry upon Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, and to prevent the interruption of the functions and operations of Puget Sound Naval Shipyard by the presence of any unauthorized person within the boundaries of the Puget Sound Naval Shipyard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.48" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.48   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, Puget Sound Shipyard shall include that area of land, whether or not fenced or covered by water, in Kitsap County in the State of Washington under the operational control of the Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard or any tenant command. This includes all such areas regardless of whether the areas are being used for purely military purposes, for housing, for support purposes, or for any other purpose by a naval command or other Federal agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.49" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.49   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Puget Sound Naval Shipyard is a major naval ship repair facility, with operational requirements to complete repairs and overhaul of conventionally powered and nuclear powered naval vessels. It is vital to national defense that the operation and use of the shipyard be continued without interruption. Additionally, most of Puget Sound Naval Shipyard is dedicated to heavy industrial activity where potentially hazardous conditions exist. 
</P>
<P>(b) For prevention of the interruption of the stated use of Puget Sound Naval Shipyard and prevention of injury to any unsupervised or unauthorized person as a consequence of the hazardous conditions that exist, as well as for other reasons, it is essential to restrict entry upon Puget Sound Naval Shipyard to authorized persons only. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.50" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.50   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except for military personnel and civilian employees of the United States in the performance of their official duties, entry upon Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, or remaining thereon by any person for any purpose without advance consent of the Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard or his/her authorized representative, is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.51" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.51   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or group of persons desiring the advance consent of the Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, or his authorized representative, shall, in writing, submit a request to the Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, at the following address: Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, 1400 Farragut Avenue, Bremerton, WA 98314-5001. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.52" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.52   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entering or remaining on Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, without the consent of the Commander, Puget Sound Naval Shipyard, or an authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties prescribed by 18 U.S.C. 1382, which provides in pertinent part: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval * * * reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation * * * shall be fined not more than $500.00 or imprisoned not more than six months or both.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this subpart is subject to a fine not to exceed $5000.00 or imprisonment for not more than one year or both as provided in 50 U.S.C. 797.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Entry Regulations for Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, Portsmouth, New Hampshire</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 6011; 50 U.S.C. 797; DoD Directive 5200.8 of April 25, 1991; SECNAVINST 5511.36A of July 21, 1992; NAVCOMSYSCOMINST 5510.2B of April 18, 1990; 32 CFR 700.702; 32 CFR 700.714.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 34003, Aug. 28, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.53" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.53   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To promulgate regulations and procedures governing entry upon Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, and to prevent the interruption of the functions and operations of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard by the presence of any unauthorized person within the boundaries of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.54" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.54   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Portsmouth Naval Shipyard maintains and operates facilities “to provide logistic support for assigned ships and service craft; to perform authorized work in connection with construction, conversion, overhaul, repair, alteration, drydocking, and outfitting of ships and craft, as assigned; to perform manufacturing, research, development, and test work, as assigned; and to provide services and material to other activities and units, as directed by competent authority.”
</P>
<P>(b) Portsmouth Naval Shipyard is a major naval ship repair facility, with operational requirements to complete repairs and overhaul of conventionally powered and nuclear-powered naval vessels. It is vital to national defense that the operation and use of the shipyard be continued without undue or unnecessary interruptions. Additionally, most of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard is dedicated to heavy industrial activity where potentially hazardous conditions exist.
</P>
<P>(c) For prevention of interruption of the stated use of the base by the presence of any unauthorized person within the boundaries of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, and prevention of injury to any such unsupervised person as a consequence of the dangerous conditions which exist, as well as for other reasons, it is essential to restrict entry upon Portsmouth Naval Shipyard to authorized persons only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.55" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.55   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>The responsibility for proper identification and control of personnel and vehicle movement on the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard is vested with the Shipyard Security Manager (Code 1700).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34003, Aug. 28, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 53593, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.56" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.56   Entry restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except for military personnel, their authorized dependents, or guests, and civilian employees of the United States in the performance of their official duties, entry upon Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, or remaining thereon by any person for any purpose without the advance consent of the Commander, Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, or his authorized representative, is prohibited. In many instances, Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, approval is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.57" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.57   Entry procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or group desiring the advance consent of the Commander, Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, or his authorized representative, shall, in writing, submit a request to the Commander, Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, at the following address: Commander, Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, Portsmouth, NH 03801, Attention: Security Manager (Code 1700). For groups, foreign citizens, and news media, the request must be forwarded to the Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, for approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for entry will be considered on an individual basis, weighing the operational, security, and safety requirements of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, with the purpose, size of party, duration of visit, destination, and military resources which would be required by the granting of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34003, Aug. 28, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 53593, Sept. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.58" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.23.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.58   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entering or remaining on Portsmouth Naval Shipyard without the consent of the Commander, Portsmouth Naval Shipyard, or his authorized representative, shall be subject to the penalties prescribed in 18 U.S.C. 1382, which provides in pertinent part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whoever, within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval . . . reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation . . . Shall be fined not more than $500 or imprisoned not more than six months, or both.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Moreover, any person who willfully violates this instruction is subject to a fine not to exceed $5000 or imprisonment for not more than one (1) year, or both, as provided by 50 U.S.C. 797.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="771-775" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 771-775 [RESERVED]






</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="776" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 776—PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT OF ATTORNEYS PRACTICING UNDER THE COGNIZANCE AND SUPERVISION OF THE JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 806, 806a, 826, 827, 1044; Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, 2012; U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990; Department of Defense Instruction 1442.02 (series); Secretary of the Navy Instruction 5430.27 (series), Responsibility of the Judge Advocate General of the Navy and the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps for Supervision and Provision of Certain Legal Services.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 68389, Nov. 4, 2015; 80 FR 73991, Nov. 27, 2015, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.1" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>In furtherance of the authority citations (which, if not found in local libraries, are available from the Office of the Judge Advocate General, 1322 Patterson Avenue SE., Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard DC 20374-5066), which require the Judge Advocate General of the Navy (JAG) to supervise the performance of legal services under JAG cognizance throughout the Department of the Navy (DoN), this part is promulgated:
</P>
<P>(a) To establish Rules of Professional Conduct (subpart B of this part) for attorneys subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(b) To establish procedures for receiving, processing, and taking action on complaints of professional misconduct made against attorneys practicing under the supervision of the JAG, whether arising from professional legal activities in DoN proceedings and matters, or arising from other, non-U.S. Government related professional legal activities or personal misconduct that suggests the attorney is ethically, professionally, or morally unqualified to perform legal services within the DoN;
</P>
<P>(c) To prescribe limitations on and procedures for processing requests to engage in the outside practice of law by those DoN attorneys practicing under the supervision of the JAG; and
</P>
<P>(d) To ensure quality legal services at all proceedings under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.2" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all “covered attorneys” as defined herein.”
</P>
<P>(b) “Covered attorneys” include:
</P>
<P>(1) The following U.S. Government (USG) attorneys, referred to collectively as “covered USG attorneys” throughout this part:
</P>
<P>(i) All active-duty Navy judge advocates (designator 2500 or 2505) or Marine Corps judge advocates (Military Occupational Specialty (MOS) 4402 or 9914).
</P>
<P>(ii) All active-duty judge advocates of other U.S. armed forces who practice law or provide legal services under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG.
</P>
<P>(iii) All civil service and contracted civilian attorneys who practice law or perform legal services under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG. This includes civilian attorneys employed by the DoN as Executive Agent for Combatant Commands, and for whom the JAG serves as the “qualifying authority” under the authority citations.
</P>
<P>(iv) All Reserve or Retired judge advocates of the Navy or Marine Corps (and any other U.S. armed force), who, while performing official DoN duties, practice law, provide legal services under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG or are serving in non-legal MOS billets.
</P>
<P>(v) All other attorneys appointed by the JAG (or the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (SJA to CMC) in Marine Corps matters) to serve in billets or to provide legal services normally provided by Navy or Marine Corps judge advocates. This policy applies to officer and enlisted Reservists, active-duty personnel, and any other personnel who are licensed to practice law by any Federal or state authority but who are not members of the Judge Advocate General's Corps or who do not hold the 4402 or 9914 MOS designation in the Marine Corps.
</P>
<P>(vi) All qualified volunteer attorneys that have been certified as legal assistance attorneys by the JAG, or his designee, pursuant to the authority citations.
</P>
<P>(2) The following non-U.S. Government attorneys, referred to collectively as “covered non-USG attorneys” throughout this part:
</P>
<P>(i) All civilian attorneys representing individuals in any matter for which the JAG is charged with supervising the provision of legal services. These matters include, but are not limited to, courts-martial, administrative separation boards or hearings, boards of inquiry, and disability evaluation proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) The term “covered attorney” does not include those civil service or civilian attorneys who practice law or perform legal services under the cognizance and supervision of the General Counsel of the Navy.
</P>
<P>(c) Professional or personal misconduct unrelated to a covered attorney's DoN activities, while normally outside the ambit of Subpart B of this part, may be reviewed under procedures established herein and may provide the basis for decisions by the JAG regarding the covered attorney's continued qualification to provide legal services in DoN matters.
</P>
<P>(d) Although subpart B of this part do not apply to non-attorneys, they do define the type of ethical conduct that the public and the military community have a right to expect from DoN legal personnel. Accordingly, Subpart B of this part shall serve as the model of ethical conduct for the following personnel when involved with the delivery of legal services under the supervision of the JAG:
</P>
<P>(1) Navy Legalmen and Marine Corps legal administrative officers, legal service specialists, and legal services reporters;
</P>
<P>(2) Limited duty officers (LAW);
</P>
<P>(3) Legal interns; and
</P>
<P>(4) civilian support personnel including paralegals, legal secretaries, legal technicians, secretaries, court reporters, and other personnel holding similar positions. Covered USG attorneys who supervise non-attorney DON employees are responsible for their ethical conduct to the extent provided for in § 776.55 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.3" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered attorneys shall maintain the highest standards of professional ethical conduct. Loyalty and fidelity to the United States, the law, clients, both institutional and individual, and the rules and principles of professional ethical conduct set forth in subpart B of this part must come before private gain or personal interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part and related procedures set forth herein concern matters solely under the purview of the JAG. Whether conduct or failure to act constitutes a violation of the professional duties imposed by this part is a matter within the sole discretion of the JAG or officials authorized to act for the JAG. Subpart B of this part are not substitutes for, and do not take the place of, other rules and standards governing DoN personnel, such as the Department of Defense Joint Ethics Regulation, the Code of Conduct for members of the Armed Forces, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), and the general precepts of ethical conduct to which all DoN service members and employees are expected to adhere. Similarly, action taken per this part is not supplanted or barred by, and does not, even if the underlying misconduct is the same, supplant or bar the following action from being taken by authorized officials:
</P>
<P>(1) Punitive or disciplinary action under the UCMJ; or
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative action under the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM), U.S. Navy Regulations, or under other applicable authority.
</P>
<P>(c) Inquiries into allegations of professional misconduct will normally be held in abeyance until any related criminal investigation or proceeding is complete. However, a pending criminal investigation or proceeding does not bar the initiation or completion of a professional misconduct investigation stemming from the same or related conduct or prevent the JAG from imposing professional disciplinary sanctions as provided for in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.4" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.4   Attorney-client relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The executive agency to which the covered USG attorney is assigned (DoN in most cases) is the client served by the covered USG attorney unless detailed to represent another client by competent authority. Specific guidelines are contained in § 776.32 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Covered USG attorneys will not establish attorney-client relationships with any individual unless detailed, assigned, or otherwise authorized to do so by competent authority. Wrongfully establishing an attorney-client relationship may subject the attorney to discipline administered per this part. See § 776.21 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Employment of a non-USG attorney by an individual client does not alter the professional responsibilities of a covered USG attorney detailed or otherwise assigned by competent authority to represent that client. Specific guidance is set forth in subpart E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.5" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.5   Judicial conduct.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that it does not conflict with statutes, regulations, or this part, the current version of the American Bar Association Model Code of Judicial Conduct (as amended), hereafter referred to as the `Code of Judicial Conduct,' applies to all military and appellate judges and to all other covered USG attorneys performing judicial functions under the JAG's supervision within the DoN.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.6" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.6   Conflict.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent that a conflict exists between this part and the rules of other jurisdictions that regulate the professional conduct of attorneys, this part will govern the conduct of covered attorneys engaged in legal functions under JAG cognizance and supervision. Specific and significant instances of conflict between the rules contained in subpart B of this part and the rules of other jurisdictions shall be reported promptly to the Rules Counsel (see § 776.9 of this part), via the supervisory attorney. See § 776.53 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of Navy and Marine Corps personnel engaged in legal functions under Department of Defense (DoD) vice JAG cognizance and supervision (e.g., DoD Office of Military Commissions), this part and the applicable DoD professional responsibility rules apply. In such a case, to the extent that a conflict exists between Subpart B of this part and applicable DoD professional responsibility rules, the DoD rules shall take precedence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.7" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.7   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Covered USG attorneys shall report promptly to the Rules Counsel (see § 776.9 of this part) any disciplinary or administrative action, including initiation of investigation, by any licensing authority or Federal, State, or local bar, possessing the power to revoke, suspend, or in any way limit the authority to practice law in that jurisdiction, upon himself, herself, or another covered attorney. Failure to report such discipline or administrative action may subject the covered USG attorney to discipline administered per this part. See § 776.71 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.8" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.8   Professional Responsibility Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Composition.</I> This standing committee will consist of the Assistant Judge Advocate General (AJAG) for Military Justice; the Deputy Chiefs of Staff for Naval Legal Service Offices (or Defense Services Offices, effective 1 October 2012), and Region Legal Service Offices; the Chief Judge, Navy-Marine Corps Trial Judiciary; and in cases involving Marine Corps judge advocates, the Deputy Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (DSJA to CMC); and such other personnel as the JAG from time-to-time may appoint. A majority of the members constitutes a quorum. The Chairman of the Committee shall be the AJAG for Military Justice. The Chairman may excuse members disqualified for cause, illness, or exigencies of military service, and may appoint additional or alternate members on a permanent basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) When requested by the JAG, the SJA to CMC, or the Rules Counsel, the Committee will provide formal advisory opinions to the JAG regarding application of subpart B of this part to individual or hypothetical cases.
</P>
<P>(2) On its own motion, the Committee may also issue formal advisory opinions on ethical issues of importance to the DoN legal community.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon written request, the Committee may also provide formal advisory opinions to covered attorneys about the propriety of proposed courses of action under subpart B of this part. If such requests are predicated upon full disclosure of all relevant facts, and if the Committee advises that the proposed course of conduct does not violate subpart B of this part, then no adverse action under this rule may be taken against a covered attorney who acts consistently with the Committee's advice. Such requests must be made via the Rules Counsel.
</P>
<P>(4) The Chairman will forward copies of all opinions issued by the Committee to the Rules Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> The Committee will not normally provide ethics advice or opinions concerning professional responsibility matters that are then the subject of litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.9" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.9   Rules Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Appointed by JAG to act as special assistants for the administration of subpart B of this part, the Rules Counsel derive authority from JAG and, as detailed in this part, have “by direction” authority. The Rules Counsel shall cause opinions issued by the Professional Responsibility Committee of general interest to the DoN legal community to be published in summarized, non-personal form in suitable publications. Unless another officer is appointed by JAG to act in individual cases, the following officers shall act as Rules Counsel:
</P>
<P>(a) The SJA to CMC, for cases involving Marine Corps judge advocates, or civil service and contracted civilian attorneys who perform legal services under his cognizance;
</P>
<P>(b) Assistant Judge Advocate General, Chief Judge, DoN (AJAG-CJ) for cases involving Navy and Marine Corps trial and appellate judges; and
</P>
<P>(c) AJAG (Civil Law), in all other cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.10" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.10   Informal ethics advice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advisors.</I> Covered attorneys may seek informal ethics advice either from the officers named below or from supervisory attorneys in the field. Within the Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG) and the Office of the SJA to CMC, the following officials are designated to respond, either orally or in writing, to informal inquiries concerning this rule in the areas of practice indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) Director, Criminal Law Division (OJAG Code 20): Military justice matters;
</P>
<P>(2) Director, Trial Counsel Assistance Program (TCAP): Trial counsel matters;
</P>
<P>(3) Director, Defense Counsel Assistance Program (DCAP): Defense counsel matters;
</P>
<P>(4) Director, Legal Assistance Division (OJAG Code 16): Legal assistance matters;
</P>
<P>(5) The DSJA to CMC and Head, Research and Civil Law Branch (JAR), Judge Advocate (JA) Division, Headquarters United States Marine Corps (HQMC): Cases involving Marine Corps judge advocates, or civil service and contracted civilian attorneys who perform legal services under the cognizance and supervision of SJA to CMC;
</P>
<P>(6) Deputy Chief Judge, Navy-Marine Corps Trial Judiciary: Judicial matters; and
</P>
<P>(7) Professional Responsibility Coordinator, Administrative Law Division (OJAG Code 13): All other matters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation.</I> Informal ethics advice will not normally be provided by JAG/HQMC advisors concerning professional responsibility matters that are then the subject of litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written advice.</I> A request for informal advice does not relieve the requester of the obligation to comply with subpart B of this part. Although covered attorneys are encouraged to seek advice when in doubt as to their responsibilities, they remain personally accountable for their professional conduct. If, however, an attorney receives written advice on an ethical matter after full disclosure of all relevant facts and reasonably relies on such advice, no adverse action under this part will be taken against the attorney. Written advice may be sought from either a supervisory attorney or the appropriate advisor in paragraph (a) of this section. The JAG is not bound by unwritten advice or by advice provided by personnel who are not supervisory attorneys or advisors. See §§ 776.8(b)(3) and 776.54(c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.11" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.11   Outside practice of law.</HEAD>
<P>A covered USG attorney's primary professional responsibility is to the client, as defined by § 776.4 of this part, and he or she is expected to ensure that representation of such client is free from conflicts of interest and otherwise conforms to the requirements of Subpart B of this part and other regulations concerning the provision of legal services within the DoN. The outside practice of law, therefore, must be carefully monitored. Covered USG attorneys who wish to engage in the outside practice of law, including while on terminal leave, must first obtain permission from the JAG. Failure to obtain permission before engaging in the outside practice of law may subject the covered USG attorney to administrative or disciplinary action, including professional sanctions administered per subpart C of this part. Further details are contained in § 776.57 and subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.12" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.12   Maintenance of files.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to SECNAVINST 5211.5 (series) and SECNAVINST 5212.5 (series) ethics complaint records and outside practice of law request files shall be maintained by the Office of the Chief Judge, DoN (Code 05) for judicial conduct matters; the Research and Civil Law Branch, JA Division, HQMC (JAR) for Marine matters; and the Office of the JAG, Administrative Law Division (Code 13) for all other matters.
</P>
<P>(a) Requests for access to such records should be referred to the Office of the Chief Judge, Washington Navy Yard, 1254 Charles Morris Street SE., Suite 320 Washington, DC, 20374-5124; Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Administrative Law), Office of the Judge Advocate General (Code 13), 1322 Patterson Avenue SE Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard, DC, 20374-5066; or to Head, Research and Civil Law Branch, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, Headquarters United States Marine Corps, 3000 Marine Corps Pentagon (Room 4D556), Washington DC, 20350-3000, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Local command files regarding professional responsibility complaints will not be maintained. Commanding officers and other supervisory attorneys may, however, maintain personal files but must not share their contents with others.
</P>
<P>(c) All records maintained under this part shall be maintained in accordance with the following procedures established by JAGINST 5801.2 (series) and DON Privacy Act Notice N05813-1:
</P>
<P>(1) Records shall be maintained for a minimum of two years;
</P>
<P>(2) Records shall be maintained for as long as an attorney remains subject to JAG-imposed limitations on practice; and
</P>
<P>(3) Records pertaining to unsubstantiated complaints, or to attorneys who are no longer subject to limitation on practice, shall be destroyed after 10 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 776.13-776.17" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 776.13-776.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules of Professional Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.18" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.18   Preamble.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney is a representative of clients, an officer of the legal system, an officer of the Federal Government, and a public citizen who has a special responsibility for the quality of justice and legal services provided to the DoN and to individual clients. These Rules of Professional Conduct (Subpart B of this part) govern the ethical conduct of covered attorneys practicing under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, the MCM, 10 U.S.C. 1044 (Legal Assistance), other laws of the United States, and regulations of the DoN.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part not only address the professional conduct of judge advocates, but also apply to all other covered attorneys who practice under the cognizance and supervision of the Navy JAG.
</P>
<P>(c) All covered attorneys are subject to professional disciplinary action, as outlined in this part, for violation of subpart B of this part. Action on allegations of professional or personal misconduct undertaken per subpart B of this part does not prevent other Federal, state, or local bar associations, or other licensing authorities, from taking professional disciplinary or other administrative action for the same or similar conduct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.19" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.19   Principles.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart B of this part is based on the following principles. Interpretation of subpart B of this part should flow from their common meaning. To the extent that any ambiguity or conflict exists, subpart B of this part should be interpreted consistent with these general principles.
</P>
<P>(a) Covered attorneys shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Obey the law and applicable military regulations, and counsel clients to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) Follow all applicable ethics rules.
</P>
<P>(3) Protect the legal rights and interests of clients, organizational and individual.
</P>
<P>(4) Be honest and truthful in all dealings.
</P>
<P>(5) Not derive personal gain, except as authorized, for the performance of legal services.
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain the integrity of the legal profession.
</P>
<P>(b) Ethical rules should be consistent with law. If law and ethics conflict, the law prevails unless an ethical rule is constitutionally based.
</P>
<P>(c) The military criminal justice system is a truth-finding process consistent with constitutional law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.20" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.20   Competence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall provide competent, diligent, and prompt representation to a client. Competent representation requires the legal knowledge, skill, access to evidence, thoroughness, and expeditious preparation reasonably necessary for representation. Initial determinations as to competence of a covered USG attorney for a particular assignment shall be made by a supervising attorney before case or issue assignments; however, assigned attorneys may consult with supervisors concerning competence in a particular case.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.21" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.21   Establishment and scope of representation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Formation of attorney-client relationships by covered USG attorneys with, and representation of, clients is permissible only when the attorney is authorized to do so by competent authority. For purposes of this part, Military Rules of Evidence 502, the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGINST 5800.7 series), and the Naval Legal Service Command Manual (COMNAVLEGSVCCOMINST 5800.1 series), generally define when an attorney-client relationship is formed between a covered USG attorney and a client servicemember, dependent, or employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, the subject matter scope of a covered attorney's representation will be consistent with the terms of the assignment to perform specific representational or advisory duties. A covered attorney shall inform clients at the earliest opportunity of any limitations on representation and professional responsibilities of the attorney towards the client.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered attorney shall follow the client's well-informed and lawful decisions concerning case objectives, choice of counsel, forum, pleas, whether to testify, and settlements.
</P>
<P>(d) A covered attorney's representation of a client does not constitute an endorsement of the client's political, economic, social, or moral views or activities.
</P>
<P>(e) A covered attorney shall not counsel or assist a client to engage in conduct that the attorney knows is criminal or fraudulent, but a covered attorney may discuss the legal and moral consequences of any proposed course of conduct with a client, and may counsel or assist a client in making a good faith effort to determine the validity, scope, meaning, or application of the law.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.22" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.22   Diligence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall act with reasonable diligence and promptness in representing a client, and shall consult with a client as soon as practicable and as often as necessary upon being assigned to the case or issue.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.23" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.23   Communication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter and promptly comply with reasonable requests for information.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney shall explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to make informed decisions regarding the representation.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.24" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.24   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered USG attorney shall not accept any salary, fee, compensation, or other payments or benefits, directly or indirectly, other than Government compensation, for services provided in the course of the covered USG attorney's official duties or employment.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered USG attorney shall not accept any salary or other payments as compensation for legal services rendered, by that covered USG attorney in a private capacity, to a client who is eligible for assistance under the DoN Legal Assistance Program, unless so authorized by the JAG. This rule does not apply to Reserve or Retired judge advocates not then serving on extended active-duty.
</P>
<P>(c) A Reserve or Retired judge advocate, whether or not serving on extended active-duty, who has initially represented or interviewed a client or prospective client concerning a matter as part of the attorney's official Navy or Marine Corps duties, shall not accept any salary or other payments as compensation for services rendered to that client in a private capacity concerning the same general matter for which the client was seen in an official capacity, unless so authorized by the JAG.
</P>
<P>(d) Covered non-USG attorneys may charge fees. Fees shall be reasonable. Factors considered in determining the reasonableness of a fee include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The time and labor required, the novelty and difficulty of the questions involved, and the skill requisite to perform the legal service properly;
</P>
<P>(2) The likelihood, if apparent to the client, that the acceptance of the particular employment will preclude other employment by the attorney;
</P>
<P>(3) The fee customarily charged in the locality for similar legal services;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount involved and the results obtained;
</P>
<P>(5) The time limitations imposed by the client or by the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(6) The nature and length of the professional relationship with the client;
</P>
<P>(7) The experience, reputation, and ability of the attorney or attorneys performing the services; and
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the fee is fixed or contingent.
</P>
<P>(e) When the covered non-USG attorney has not regularly represented the client, the basis or rate of the fee shall be communicated to the client, preferably in writing, before or within a reasonable time after commencing the representation.
</P>
<P>(f) A fee may be contingent on the outcome of the matter for which the service is rendered, except in a matter in which a contingent fee is prohibited by paragraph (a)(7) of this section or other law. A contingent fee agreement shall be in writing and shall state the method by which the fee is to be determined, including the percentage or percentages that shall accrue to the covered non-USG attorney in the event of settlement, trial or appeal, litigation and other expenses to be deducted from the recovery, and whether such expenses are to be deducted before or after the contingent fee is calculated. Upon conclusion of a contingent fee matter, the covered non-USG attorney shall provide the client with a written statement stating the outcome of the matter and, if there is a recovery, showing the remittance to the client and the method of its determination.
</P>
<P>(g) A covered non-USG attorney shall not enter into an arrangement for, charge, or collect a contingent fee for representing an accused in a criminal case.
</P>
<P>(h) A division of fees between covered non-USG attorneys who are not in the same firm may be made only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The division is in proportion to the services performed by each attorney or, by written agreement with the client, each attorney assumes joint responsibility for the representation;
</P>
<P>(2) The client is advised of and does not object to the participation of all the attorneys involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) The total fee is reasonable.
</P>
<P>(i) Covered Non-USG Attorneys. Paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section apply only to private civilian attorneys practicing in proceedings conducted under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG. The primary purposes of paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section are not to permit the JAG to regulate fee arrangements between civilian attorneys and their clients but to provide guidance to covered USG attorneys practicing with non-USG attorneys and to supervisory attorneys who may be asked to inquire into alleged fee irregularities. Absent paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section, such supervisory attorneys have no readily available standard against which to compare allegedly questionable conduct of a civilian attorney.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.25" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.25   Confidentiality of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not reveal information relating to representation of a client unless the client gives informed consent, the disclosure is impliedly authorized in order to carry out the representation, or the disclosure is permitted by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney shall reveal information relating to the representation of a client to the extent the covered attorney reasonably believes necessary:
</P>
<P>(1) To prevent reasonably certain death or substantial bodily harm; or
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent the client from committing a criminal act that the covered attorney reasonably believes is likely to result in the significant impairment of national security or the readiness or capability of a military unit, vessel, aircraft, or weapon system.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered attorney may reveal such information to the extent the covered attorney reasonably believes necessary:
</P>
<P>(1) To secure legal advice about the covered attorney's compliance with subpart B of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) To establish a claim or defense on behalf of the covered attorney in a controversy between the covered attorney and the client, to establish a defense to a criminal charge or civil claim against the covered attorney based upon conduct in which the client was involved, or to respond to allegations in any proceeding concerning the attorney's representation of the client; and/or
</P>
<P>(3) To comply with other law or a court order.
</P>
<P>(d) Examples of conduct likely to result in the significant impairment of national security or the readiness or capability of a military unit, vessel, aircraft, or weapon system include: Divulging the classified location of a special operations unit such that the lives of members of the unit are placed in immediate danger; sabotaging a vessel or aircraft to the extent that the vessel or aircraft could not conduct an assigned mission, or that the vessel or aircraft and crew could be lost; and compromising the security of a weapons site such that the weapons are likely to be stolen or detonated. Paragraph (b) of this section is not intended to and does not mandate the disclosure of conduct that may have a slight impact on the readiness or capability of a unit, vessel, aircraft, or weapon system. Examples of such conduct are: Absence without authority from a peacetime training exercise; intentional damage to an individually assigned weapon; and intentional minor damage to military property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.26" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.26   Conflict of interest: General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, a covered attorney shall not represent a client if the representation of that client involves a concurrent conflict of interest. A concurrent conflict of interest exists if:
</P>
<P>(1) The representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the covered attorney's responsibilities to another client, a former client or a third person or by a personal interest of the covered attorney.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the existence of a concurrent conflict of interest under paragraph (a) of this section, a covered attorney may represent a client if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered attorney reasonably believes that the covered attorney will be able to provide competent and diligent representation to each affected client;
</P>
<P>(2) The representation is not prohibited by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(3) The representation does not involve the assertion of a claim by one client against another client represented by the covered attorney in the same litigation or other proceeding before a tribunal; and
</P>
<P>(4) Each affected client gives informed consent, confirmed in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) These conflict-of-interest rules apply to Reservists only while they are actually drilling or on active-duty-for-training, or, as is the case with Retirees, on extended active-duty or when performing other duties subject to JAG supervision. Therefore, unless otherwise prohibited by criminal conflict-of-interest statutes, Reserve or Retired attorneys providing legal services in their civilian capacity may represent clients, or work in firms whose attorneys represent clients, with interests adverse to the United States. Reserve judge advocates who, in their civilian capacities, represent persons whose interests are adverse to the DoN will provide written notification to their supervisory attorney and commanding officer, detailing their involvement in the matter. Reserve judge advocates shall refrain from undertaking any official action or representation of the DoN with respect to any particular matter in which they are providing representation or services to other clients.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.27" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.27   Conflict of interests: Prohibited transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered USG attorneys shall strictly adhere to current DoD Ethics Regulations and shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Knowingly enter into any business transactions on behalf of, or adverse to, a client's interest that directly or indirectly relate to or result from the attorney-client relationship; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide any financial assistance to a client or otherwise serve in a financial or proprietorial fiduciary or bailment relationship, unless otherwise specifically authorized by competent authority.
</P>
<P>(b) No covered attorney shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Use information relating to representation of a client to the disadvantage of the client unless the client consents after consultation, except as permitted or required by subpart B of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare an instrument giving the covered attorney or a person related to the covered attorney as parent, child, sibling, or spouse any gift from a client, including a testamentary gift, except where the client is related to the donee;
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of covered non-USG attorneys, accept compensation for representing a client from one other than the client unless the client consents after consultation, there is no interference with the covered attorney's independence of professional judgment or with the attorney-client relationship, and information relating to representation of a client is protected as required by § 776.25 of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Negotiate any settlement on behalf of multiple clients in a single matter unless each client provides fully informed consent;
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to the conclusion of representation of the client, make or negotiate an agreement giving a covered attorney literary or media rights for a portrayal or account based in substantial part on information relating to representation of a client;
</P>
<P>(6) Represent a client in a matter directly adverse to a person whom the covered attorney knows is represented by another attorney who is related as parent, child, sibling, or spouse to the covered attorney, except upon consent by the client after consultation regarding the relationship; or
</P>
<P>(7) Acquire a proprietary interest in the cause of action or subject matter of litigation the covered attorney is conducting for a client.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.28" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.28   Conflict of interest: Former client.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney who has formerly represented a client in a matter shall not thereafter represent another person in the same or a substantially related matter in which that person's interests are materially adverse to the interests of the former client, unless the former client gives informed consent, confirmed in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney who has formerly represented a client in a matter shall not thereafter:
</P>
<P>(1) Use information relating to the representation to the disadvantage of the former client or to the covered attorney's own advantage, except as Subpart B of this part would permit or require with respect to a client, or when the information has become generally known; or
</P>
<P>(2) Reveal information relating to the representation except as subpart B of this part would permit or require with respect to a client.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.29" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.29   Imputed disqualification: General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Imputed disqualification: General rule.</I> Covered USG attorneys working in the same military law office are not automatically disqualified from representing a client because any of them practicing alone would be prohibited from doing so by § 776.26, § 776.27, § 776.28, or § 776.38 of this part. Covered non-USG attorneys must consult their federal, state, and local bar rules governing the representation of multiple or adverse clients within the same office before such representation is initiated, as such representation may expose them to disciplinary action under the rules established by their licensing authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comment.</I> (1) The circumstances of military (or Government) service may require representation of opposing sides by covered USG attorneys working in the same law office. Such representation is permissible so long as conflicts of interests are avoided and independent judgment, zealous representation, and protection of confidences are not compromised. Thus, the principle of imputed disqualification is not automatically controlling for covered USG attorneys. The knowledge, actions, and conflicts of interests of one covered USG attorney are not imputed to another simply because they operate from the same office. For example, the fact that a number of defense attorneys operate from one office and normally share clerical assistance would not prohibit them from representing co-accused at trial by court-martial. Imputed disqualification rules for non-USG attorneys are established by their individual licensing authorities and may well proscribe all attorneys from one law office from representing a co-accused, or a party with an adverse interest to an existing client, if any attorney in the same office were so prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether a covered USG attorney is disqualified requires a functional analysis of the facts in a specific situation. The analysis should include consideration of whether the following will be compromised: Preserving attorney-client confidentiality; maintaining independence of judgment; and avoiding positions adverse to a client. See, e.g., U.S. v. Stubbs, 23 M.J. 188 (CMA 1987).
</P>
<P>(3) Preserving confidentiality is a question of access to information. Access to information, in turn, is essentially a question of fact in a particular circumstance, aided by inferences, deductions, or working presumptions that reasonably may be made about the way in which covered USG attorneys work together. A covered USG attorney may have general access to files of all clients of a military law office (e.g., legal assistance attorney) and may regularly participate in discussions of their affairs; it may be inferred that such a covered USG attorney in fact is privy to all information about all the office's clients. In contrast, another covered USG attorney (e.g., military defense counsel) may have access to the files of only a limited number of clients and participate in discussion of the affairs of no other clients; in the absence of information to the contrary, it should be inferred that such a covered USG attorney in fact is privy to information about the clients actually served but not to information of other clients. Additionally, a covered USG attorney changing duty stations or changing assignments within a military office has a continuing duty to preserve confidentiality of information about a client formerly represented. See § 776.25 and § 776.28 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) In military practice, where covered USG attorneys representing adverse interests are sometimes required to share common spaces, equipment, and clerical assistance, inadvertent disclosure of confidential or privileged material may occur. A covered attorney who mistakenly receives any such confidential or privileged materials should refrain from reviewing them (except for the limited purpose of ascertaining ownership or proper routing), notify the attorney to whom the material belongs that he or she has such material, and either follow instructions of the attorney with respect to the disposition of the materials or refrain from further reviewing or using the materials until a definitive resolution of the proper disposition of the materials is obtained from a court. A covered attorney's duty to provide his or her client zealous representation does not justify a rule allowing the receiving attorney to take advantage of inadvertent disclosures of privileged and/or confidential materials. This policy recognizes and reinforces the principles of: Confidentiality and the attorney-client privilege; analogous principles governing the inadvertent waiver of the attorney-client privilege; the law governing bailments and missent property; and considerations of common sense, reciprocity, and professional courtesy.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining independent judgment allows a covered USG attorney to consider, recommend, and carry out any appropriate course of action for a client without regard to the covered USG attorney's personal interests or the interests of another. When such independence is lacking or unlikely, representation cannot be zealous.
</P>
<P>(6) Another aspect of loyalty to a client is the general obligation of any attorney to decline subsequent representations involving positions adverse to a former client in substantially related matters. This obligation normally requires abstention from adverse representation by the individual covered attorney involved, but, in the military legal office, abstention is not required by other covered USG attorneys through imputed disqualification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.30" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.30   Successive Government and private employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as the law or regulations may otherwise expressly permit, a former covered USG attorney, who has information known to be confidential Government information about a person that was acquired while a covered USG attorney, may not represent a private client whose interests are adverse to that person in a matter in which the information could be used to the material disadvantage of that person. The former covered USG attorney may continue association with a firm, partnership, or association representing any such client only if the disqualified covered USG attorney is screened from any participation in the matter and is apportioned no part of the fee or any other benefit therefrom.
</P>
<P>(1) The disqualified former covered USG attorney must ensure that he or she is screened from any participation in the matter and is apportioned no part of the fee or any other benefit therefrom; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Must provide written notice promptly to the appropriate Government agency to enable it to ascertain compliance with the provisions of applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as the law or regulations may otherwise expressly permit, a former covered USG attorney, who has information known to be confidential Government information about a person which was acquired while a covered USG attorney, may not represent a private client whose interests are adverse to that person in a matter in which the information could be used to the material disadvantage of that person. The former covered USG attorney may continue association with a firm, partnership, or association representing any such client only if the disqualified covered USG attorney is screened from any participation in the matter and is apportioned no part of the fee or any other benefit therefrom.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as the law or regulations may otherwise expressly permit, a covered USG attorney shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in a matter in which the covered USG attorney participated personally and substantially while in private practice or nongovernmental employment, unless under applicable law no one is, or by lawful delegation may be, authorized to act in the covered USG attorney's stead in the matter; or,
</P>
<P>(2) Negotiate for private employment with any person who is involved as a party or as attorney for a party in a matter in which the covered USG attorney is participating personally and substantially.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this paragraph (d), the term “matter” includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any judicial or other proceeding, application, request for a ruling or other determination, contract, claim, controversy, investigation, charge, accusation, arrest, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties, and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other matter covered by the conflict-of-interest rules of the DoD, DoN, or other appropriate Government agency.
</P>
<P>(e) As used in the rule, the term “confidential Governmental information” means information that has been obtained under Governmental authority and that, at the time this Rule is applied, the Government is prohibited by law or regulations from disclosing to the public or has a legal privilege not to disclose, and that is not otherwise available to the public.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.31" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.31   Former judge or arbitrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as stated in paragraph (c) of this section, a covered USG attorney shall not represent anyone in connection with a matter in which the covered USG attorney participated personally and substantially as a judge or other adjudicative officer, arbitrator, or law clerk to such a person, unless all parties to the proceeding give informed consent, confirmed in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered USG attorney shall not negotiate for employment with any person who is involved as a party or as attorney for a party in a matter in which the covered USG attorney is participating personally and substantially as a judge or other adjudicative officer. A covered USG attorney serving as law clerk to a judge, other adjudicative officer, or arbitrator may negotiate for employment with a party or attorney involved in a matter in which the clerk is participating personally and substantially, but only after the covered USG attorney has notified the judge, other adjudicative officer, or arbitrator, and been disqualified from further involvement in the matter.
</P>
<P>(c) An arbitrator selected as a partisan of a party in a multi-member arbitration panel is not prohibited from subsequently representing that party.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.32" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.32   Department of the Navy as client.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except when representing an individual client pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, a covered USG attorney represents the DoN (or the Executive agency to which assigned) acting through its authorized officials. These officials include the heads of organizational elements within the naval service, such as the commanders of fleets, divisions, ships and other heads of activities. When a covered USG attorney is assigned to such an organizational element and designated to provide legal services to the head of the organization, an attorney-client relationship exists between the covered attorney and the DoN as represented by the head of the organization as to matters within the scope of the official business of the organization. The head of the organization may not invoke the attorney-client privilege or the rule of confidentiality for the head of the organization's own benefit but may invoke either for the benefit of the DoN. In invoking either the attorney-client privilege or attorney-client confidentiality on behalf of the DoN, the head of the organization is subject to being overruled by higher authority.
</P>
<P>(b) If a covered USG attorney knows that an officer, employee, or other member associated with the organizational client is engaged in action, intends to act or refuses to act in a matter related to the representation that is either adverse to the legal interests or obligations of the DoN or a violation of law that reasonably might be imputed to the DoN, the covered USG attorney shall proceed as is reasonably necessary in the best interest of the naval service. In determining how to proceed, the covered USG attorney shall give due consideration to the seriousness of the violation and its consequences, the scope and nature of the covered USG attorney's representation, the responsibility in the naval service and the apparent motivation of the person involved, the policies of the naval service concerning such matters, and any other relevant considerations. Any measures taken shall be designed to minimize prejudice to the interests of the naval service and the risk of revealing information relating to the representation to persons outside the service. Such measures shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Asking for reconsideration of the matter by the acting official;
</P>
<P>(2) Advising that a separate legal opinion on the matter be sought for presentation to appropriate authority in the naval service;
</P>
<P>(3) Referring the matter to, or seeking guidance from, higher authority in the chain of command including, if warranted by the seriousness of the matter, referral to the supervisory attorney assigned to the staff of the acting official's next superior in the chain of command; or
</P>
<P>(4) Advising the acting official that his or her personal legal interests are at risk and that he or she should consult counsel as there may exist a conflict of interest for the covered USG attorney, and the covered USG attorney's responsibility is to the organization.
</P>
<P>(c) If, despite the covered USG attorney's efforts per paragraph (b) of this section, the highest authority that can act concerning the matter insists upon action or refuses to act, in clear violation of law, the covered USG attorney shall terminate representation with respect to the matter in question. In no event shall the attorney participate or assist in the illegal activity. In this case, a covered USG attorney shall report such termination of representation to the attorney's supervisory attorney or attorney representing the next superior in the chain of command.
</P>
<P>(d) In dealing with the officers, employees, or members of the naval service a covered USG attorney shall explain the identity of the client when it is apparent that the naval service's interests are adverse to those of the officer, employee, or member.
</P>
<P>(e) A covered USG attorney representing the naval service may also represent any of its officers, employees, or members, subject to the provisions of § 776.26 of this part and other applicable authority. If the DoN's consent to dual representation is required by § 776.26 of this part, the consent shall be given by an appropriate official of the DoN other than the individual who is to be represented.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered USG attorney who has been duly assigned to represent an individual who is subject to criminal or disciplinary action or administrative proceedings, or to provide legal assistance to an individual, has, for those purposes, an attorney-client relationship with that individual.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.33" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.33   Client with diminished capacity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a client's capacity to make adequately considered decisions in connection with the representation is diminished, whether because of minority, mental impairment, or for some other reason, the covered attorney shall, as far as reasonably possible, maintain a normal attorney-client relationship with the client.
</P>
<P>(b) When the covered attorney reasonably believes that the client has diminished capacity, is at risk of substantial physical, financial, or other harm unless action is taken and cannot adequately act in the client's own interest, the covered attorney may take reasonably necessary protective action, including consulting with individuals or entities that have the ability to take action to protect the client.
</P>
<P>(c) Information relating to the representation of a client with diminished capacity is protected by § 776.25 of this part. When taking protective action pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the covered attorney is impliedly authorized under § 776.25(a) of this part to reveal information about the client, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to protect the client's interests.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.34" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.34   Safekeeping property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered USG attorneys shall not normally hold or safeguard property of a client or third persons in connection with representational duties. See § 776.27 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.35" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.35   Declining or terminating representation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as stated in paragraph (c) of this section, a covered attorney shall not represent a client or, when representation has commenced, shall seek to withdraw from the representation of a client if:
</P>
<P>(1) The representation will result in violation of subpart B of this part or other law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered attorney's physical or mental condition materially impairs his or her ability to represent the client; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered attorney is dismissed by the client.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as stated in paragraph (c) of this section, a covered attorney may seek to withdraw from representing a client if withdrawal can be accomplished without material adverse effect on the interests of the client, or if:
</P>
<P>(1) The client persists in a course of action involving the covered attorney's services that the covered attorney reasonably believes is criminal or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(2) The client has used the covered attorney's services to perpetrate a crime or fraud;
</P>
<P>(3) The client insists upon pursuing an objective that the covered attorney considers repugnant or imprudent;
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of covered non-USG attorneys, the representation will result in an unreasonable financial burden on the attorney or has been rendered unreasonably difficult by the client; or
</P>
<P>(5) Other good cause for withdrawal exists.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered attorney must comply with applicable law requiring notice to or permission of a tribunal when terminating a representation. When ordered to do so by a tribunal or other competent authority, a covered attorney shall continue representation notwithstanding good cause for terminating the representation.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon termination of representation, a covered attorney shall take steps to the extent reasonably practicable to protect a client's interests, such as giving reasonable notice to the client, allowing time for assignment or employment of other counsel, and surrendering papers and property to which the client is entitled and, where a non-USG attorney provided representation, refunding any advance payment of fee that has not been earned. The covered attorney may retain papers relating to the client to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.36" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.36   Prohibited sexual relations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not have sexual relations with a current client. A covered attorney shall not require, demand, or solicit sexual relations with a client incident to any professional representation.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney shall not engage in sexual relations with another attorney currently representing a party whose interests are adverse to those of a client currently represented by the covered attorney.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered attorney shall not engage in sexual relations with a judge who is presiding or who is likely to preside over any proceeding in which the covered attorney will appear in a representative capacity.
</P>
<P>(d) A covered attorney shall not engage in sexual relations with other persons involved in the particular case, judicial or administrative proceeding, or other matter for which representation has been established, including but not limited to witnesses, victims, co-accused, and court-martial or board members.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this paragraph (e), “sexual relations” means:
</P>
<P>(1) Sexual intercourse; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any touching of the sexual or other intimate parts of a person or causing such person to touch the sexual or other intimate parts of the covered attorney for the purpose of arousing or gratifying the sexual desire of either party.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.37" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.37   Advisor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In representing a client, a covered attorney shall exercise independent professional judgment and render candid advice. In rendering advice, a covered attorney may refer not only to law but to other considerations such as moral, economic, social, and political factors that may be relevant to the client's situation.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.38" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.38   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney may act as a mediator between individuals if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered attorney consults with each individual concerning the implications of the mediation, including the advantages and risks involved, and the effect on the attorney-client confidentiality, and obtains each individual's consent to the mediation;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered attorney reasonably believes that the matter can be resolved on terms compatible with each individual's best interests, that each individual will be able to make adequately informed decisions in the matter, and that there is little risk of material prejudice to the interests of any of the individuals if the contemplated resolution is unsuccessful; and,
</P>
<P>(3) The covered attorney reasonably believes that the mediation can be undertaken impartially and without improper effect on other responsibilities the covered attorney has to any of the individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) While acting as a mediator, the covered attorney shall consult with each individual concerning the decisions to be made and the considerations relevant in making them, so that each individual can make adequately informed decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered attorney shall withdraw as a mediator if any of the individuals so requests, or if any of the conditions stated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is no longer satisfied. Upon withdrawal, the covered attorney shall not represent any of the individuals in the matter that was the subject of the mediation unless each individual consents.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.39" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.39   Evaluation for use by third persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney may provide an evaluation of a matter affecting a client for the use of someone other than the client if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered attorney reasonably believes that making the evaluation is compatible with other aspects of the covered attorney's relationship with the client; and
</P>
<P>(2) The client provides informed consent, confirmed in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as disclosure is required in connection with a report of an evaluation, information relating to the evaluation is otherwise protected by § 776.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.40" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.40   Meritorious claims and contentions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not bring or defend a proceeding, or assert or controvert an issue therein, unless there is a basis for doing so that is not frivolous, which includes a good faith argument for an extension, modification, or reversal of existing law. A covered attorney representing an accused in a criminal proceeding or the respondent in an administrative proceeding, that could result in incarceration, discharge from the Naval service, or other adverse personnel action, may nevertheless defend the client at the proceeding as to require that every element of the case is established.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.41" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.41   Expediting litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall make reasonable efforts to expedite litigation or other proceedings consistent with the interests of the client.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.42" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.42   Candor and obligations toward the tribunal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not knowingly:
</P>
<P>(1) Make a false statement of material fact or law to a tribunal or fail to correct a false statement of material fact or law previously made to the tribunal by the covered attorney;
</P>
<P>(2) Fail to disclose to the tribunal legal authority in the controlling jurisdiction known to the covered attorney to be directly adverse to the position of the client and not disclosed by opposing counsel;
</P>
<P>(3) Offer evidence that the covered attorney knows to be false. If a covered attorney, the attorney's client, or a witness called by the covered attorney, has offered material evidence and the covered attorney comes to know of its falsity, the covered attorney shall take reasonable remedial measures, including, if necessary, disclosure to the tribunal. A covered attorney may refuse to offer evidence, other than the testimony of an accused in a criminal matter, that the covered attorney reasonably believes is false; or
</P>
<P>(4) Disobey an order imposed by a tribunal unless done openly before the tribunal in a good faith assertion that no valid order should exist.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney who represents a client in an adjudicative proceeding and who knows that a person intends to engage, is engaging or has engaged in criminal or fraudulent conduct related to the proceeding shall take reasonable remedial measures, including, if necessary, disclosure to the tribunal.
</P>
<P>(c) The duties stated in paragraph (a) of this section continue to the conclusion of the proceedings, and apply even if compliance requires disclosure of information otherwise protected by § 776.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) In an ex parte proceeding, a covered attorney shall inform the tribunal of all material facts known to the covered attorney that will enable the tribunal to make an informed decision, whether or not the facts are adverse.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.43" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.43   Fairness to opposing party and counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Unlawfully obstruct a party's access to evidence or unlawfully alter, destroy, or conceal a document or other material having potential evidentiary value. A covered attorney shall not counsel or assist another person to do any such act;
</P>
<P>(2) Falsify evidence, counsel or assist a witness to testify falsely, or offer an inducement to a witness that is prohibited by law;
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly disobey an order of the tribunal except for an open refusal based on an assertion that no valid obligation exists;
</P>
<P>(4) In pretrial procedure, make a frivolous discovery request or fail to make reasonably diligent effort to comply with a legally proper discovery request by a party;
</P>
<P>(5) In trial, allude to any matter that the covered attorney does not reasonably believe is relevant or that will not be supported by admissible evidence, assert personal knowledge of facts in issue except when testifying as a witness, or state a personal opinion as to the justness of a cause, the credibility of a witness, the culpability of a civil litigant, or the guilt or innocence of an accused; or
</P>
<P>(6) Request a person other than a client to refrain from voluntarily giving relevant information to another party unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The person is a relative, an employee, or other agent of a client; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered attorney reasonably believes that the person's interests will not be adversely affected by refraining from giving such information.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.44" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.44   Impartiality and decorum of the tribunal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Seek to influence a judge, court member, member of a tribunal, prospective court member or member of a tribunal, or other official by means prohibited by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) Communicate ex parte with such a person except as permitted by law or regulation; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in conduct intended to disrupt a tribunal.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.45" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.45   Extra-tribunal statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not make an extrajudicial statement about any person or case pending investigation or adverse administrative or disciplinary proceedings that a reasonable person would expect to be disseminated by means of public communication if the covered attorney knows or reasonably should know that it will have a substantial likelihood of materially prejudicing an adjudicative proceeding or an official review process thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) A statement referred to in paragraph (a) of this section ordinarily is likely to have such an effect when it refers to a civil matter triable to a jury, a criminal matter (including before a military tribunal or commission), or any other proceeding that could result in incarceration, discharge from the naval service, or other adverse personnel action, and the statement relates to:
</P>
<P>(1) The character, credibility, reputation, or criminal record of a party, suspect in a criminal investigation, victim, or witness, or the identity of a victim or witness, or the expected testimony of a party, suspect, victim, or witness;
</P>
<P>(2) The possibility of a plea of guilty to the offense or the existence or contents of any confession, admission, or statement given by an accused or suspect or that person's refusal or failure to make a statement;
</P>
<P>(3) The performance or results of any forensic examination or test or the refusal or failure of a person to submit to an examination or test, or the identity or nature of physical evidence expected to be presented;
</P>
<P>(4) Any opinion as to the guilt or innocence of an accused or suspect in a criminal case or other proceeding that could result in incarceration, discharge from the naval service, or other adverse personnel action;
</P>
<P>(5) Information the covered attorney knows or reasonably should know is likely to be inadmissible as evidence before a tribunal and would, if disclosed, create a substantial risk of materially prejudicing an impartial proceeding;
</P>
<P>(6) The fact that an accused has been charged with a crime, unless there is included therein a statement explaining that the charge is merely an accusation and that the accused is presumed innocent until and unless proven guilty; or
</P>
<P>(7) The credibility, reputation, motives, or character of civilian or military officials of the DoD.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b)(1) through (7) of this section, a covered attorney involved in the investigation or litigation of a matter may state without elaboration:
</P>
<P>(1) The general nature of the claim, offense, or defense;
</P>
<P>(2) The information contained in a public record;
</P>
<P>(3) That an investigation of the matter is in progress, including the general scope of the investigation, the offense or claim or defense involved and, except when prohibited by law or regulation, the identity of the persons involved;
</P>
<P>(4) The scheduling or result of any step in litigation;
</P>
<P>(5) A request for assistance in obtaining evidence and information necessary thereto;
</P>
<P>(6) A warning of danger concerning the behavior of the person involved, when there is reason to believe that there exists the likelihood of substantial harm to an individual or to the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(7) In a criminal case, in addition to paragraphs (c)(1) through (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity, duty station, occupation, and family status of the accused;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the accused has not been apprehended, information necessary to aid in apprehension of that person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The fact, time, and place of apprehension; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The identity of investigating and apprehending officers or agencies and the length of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b)(1) through (7) of this section, a covered attorney may make a statement that a reasonable covered attorney would believe is required to protect a client from the substantial undue prejudicial effect of recent publicity not initiated by the covered attorney or the attorney's client. A statement made pursuant to this paragraph shall be limited to such information as is necessary to mitigate the recent adverse publicity.
</P>
<P>(e) The protection and release of information in matters pertaining to the DoN is governed by such statutes as the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act, in addition to those governing protection of national defense information. In addition, other laws and regulations may further restrict the information that can be released or the source from which it is to be released (e.g., the Manual of the Judge Advocate General).
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.46" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.46   Attorney as witness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not act as advocate at a trial in which the covered attorney is likely to be a necessary witness except when:
</P>
<P>(1) The testimony relates to an uncontested issue;
</P>
<P>(2) The testimony relates to the nature and quality of legal services rendered in the case; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disqualification of the covered attorney would work substantial hardship on the client.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney may act as advocate in a trial in which another attorney in the covered attorney's office is likely to be called as a witness, unless precluded from doing so by § 776.26 or § 776.28 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.47" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.47   Special responsibilities of a trial counsel and other government counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A trial counsel in a criminal case shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Recommend to the convening authority that any charge or specification not supported by probable cause be withdrawn;
</P>
<P>(2) Make reasonable efforts to assure that the accused has been advised of the right to, and the procedure for obtaining, counsel and has been given reasonable opportunity to obtain counsel;
</P>
<P>(3) Not seek to obtain from an unrepresented accused a waiver of important pretrial rights;
</P>
<P>(4) Make timely disclosure to the defense of all evidence or information known to the trial counsel that tends to negate the guilt of the accused or mitigates the offense, and, in connection with sentencing, disclose to the defense all unprivileged mitigating information known to the trial counsel, except when the trial counsel is relieved of this responsibility by a protective order or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) Exercise reasonable care to prevent investigators, law enforcement personnel, employees, or other persons assisting or associated with the trial counsel from making an extrajudicial statement that the trial counsel would be prohibited from making under § 776.45 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(6) Except for statements that are necessary to inform the public of the nature and extent of the trial counsel's actions and that serve a legitimate law enforcement purpose, refrain from making extrajudicial comments that have a substantial likelihood of heightening public condemnation of the accused.
</P>
<P>(b) Trial counsel and other government counsel shall exercise reasonable care to avoid intercepting, seizing, copying, viewing, or listening to communications protected by the attorney-client privilege during investigation of a suspected offense (particularly when conducting government-sanctioned searches where attorney-client privileged communications may be present), as well as in the preparation or prosecution of a case. Such communications expressly include, but are not limited to, land-line telephone conversations, facsimile transmissions, U.S. mail, and Email. Trial counsel and other government counsel must not infringe upon the confidential nature of attorney-client privileged communications and are responsible for the actions of their agents or representatives when they induce or assist them in intercepting, seizing, copying, viewing, or listening to such privileged communications.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The trial counsel represents the United States in the prosecution of special and general courts-martial. See Article 38(a), UCMJ; see also R.C.M. 103(16), 405(d)(3)(A), and 502(d)(5). Accordingly, a trial counsel has the responsibility of administering justice and is not simply an advocate. This responsibility carries with it specific obligations to see that the accused is accorded procedural justice and that guilt is decided upon the basis of sufficient evidence. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section recognizes that the trial counsel does not have all the authority vested in modern civilian prosecutors. The authority to convene courts-martial, and to refer and withdraw specific charges, is vested in convening authorities. Trial counsel may have the duty, in certain circumstances, to bring to the court's attention any charge that lacks sufficient evidence to support a conviction. See United States v. Howe, 37 M.J. 1062 (NMCMR 1993). Such action should be undertaken only after consultation with a supervisory attorney and the convening authority. See also § 776.42(d) of this part (governing ex parte proceedings). Applicable law may require other measures by the trial counsel. Knowing disregard of those obligations or a systematic abuse of prosecutorial discretion could constitute a violation of § 776.69 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to an accused appearing pro se with the approval of the tribunal. Nor does it forbid the lawful questioning of a suspect who has knowingly waived the rights to counsel and to remain silent.
</P>
<P>(3) The exception in paragraph (a)(4) of this section recognizes that a trial counsel may seek an appropriate protective order from the tribunal if disclosure of information to the defense could result in substantial harm to an individual or organization or to the public interest. This exception also recognizes that applicable statutes and regulations may proscribe the disclosure of certain information without proper authorization.
</P>
<P>(4) A trial counsel may comply with paragraph (a)(5) of this section in a number of ways. These include personally informing others of the trial counsel's obligations under § 776.46 of this part, conducting training of law enforcement personnel, and appropriately supervising the activities of personnel assisting the trial counsel.
</P>
<P>(5) Paragraph (a)(6) of this section supplements § 776.45 of this part, which prohibits extrajudicial statements that have a substantial likelihood of prejudicing an adjudicatory proceeding. A trial counsel can, and should, avoid comments that have no legitimate law enforcement purpose and have a substantial likelihood of increasing public opprobrium of the accused. Nothing in this Comment is intended to restrict the statements that a trial counsel may make that comply with § 776.45 of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) The “ABA Standards for Criminal Justice: The Prosecution Function,” (3d ed. 1993), has been used by appellate courts in analyzing issues concerning trial counsel conduct. To the extent consistent with these Rules, the ABA standards may be used to guide trial counsel in the prosecution of criminal cases. See United States v. Howe, 37 M.J. 1062 (NMCRS 1993); United States v. Dancy, 38 M.J. 1 (CMA 1993); United States v. Hamilton, 41 M.J. 22 (CMA 1994); United States v. Meek, 44 M.J. 1 (CMA 1996).
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.48" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.48   Advocate in nonadjudicative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney representing a client before a legislative or administrative tribunal in a nonadjudicative proceeding shall disclose that the appearance is in a representative capacity and shall conform to the provisions of §§ 776.42 (a) through (d), 776.43, and 776.44 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.49" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.49   Truthfulness in statements to others.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the course of representing a client a covered attorney shall not knowingly;
</P>
<P>(1) Make a false statement of material fact or law to a third person; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fail to disclose a material fact to a third person when disclosure is necessary to avoid assisting a criminal or fraudulent act by a client, unless disclosure is prohibited by § 776.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.50" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.50   Communication with person represented by counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In representing a client, a covered attorney shall not communicate about the subject of the representation with a party the covered attorney knows to be represented by another attorney in the matter, unless the covered attorney has the consent of the other attorney or is authorized by law to do so.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.51" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.51   Dealing with an unrepresented person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When dealing on behalf of a client with a person who is not represented by counsel, a covered attorney shall not state or imply that the covered attorney is disinterested. When the covered attorney knows or reasonably should know that the unrepresented person misunderstands the covered attorney's role in the matter, the covered attorney shall make reasonable efforts to correct the misunderstanding.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.52" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.52   Respect for rights of third persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In representing a client, a covered attorney shall not use means that have no substantial purpose other than to embarrass, delay, or burden a third person, or use methods of obtaining evidence that violate the legal rights of such a person.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.53" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.53   Responsibilities of the Judge Advocate General and supervisory attorneys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The JAG and supervisory attorneys shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that all covered attorneys conform to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney having direct supervisory authority over another covered attorney shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the other attorney conforms to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A supervisory attorney shall be responsible for another subordinate covered attorney's violation of subpart B of this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) The supervisory attorney orders or, with knowledge of the specific conduct, ratifies the conduct involved; or
</P>
<P>(2) The supervisory attorney has direct supervisory authority over the other attorney and knows of the conduct at a time when its consequences can be avoided or mitigated but fails to take reasonable remedial action.
</P>
<P>(d) A supervisory attorney is responsible for ensuring that the subordinate covered attorney is properly trained and is competent to perform the duties to which the subordinate covered attorney is assigned.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.54" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.54   Responsibilities of a subordinate attorney.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney is bound by this part notwithstanding that the covered attorney acted at the direction of another person.
</P>
<P>(b) In recognition of the judge advocate's unique dual role as a commissioned officer and attorney, subordinate judge advocates shall obey lawful directives and regulations of supervisory attorneys when not inconsistent with this part or the duty of a judge advocate to exercise independent professional judgment as to the best interest of an individual client.
</P>
<P>(c) A subordinate covered attorney does not violate this part if that covered attorney acts in accordance with a supervisory attorney's written and reasonable resolution of an arguable question of professional duty.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.55" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.55   Responsibilities regarding non-attorney assistants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to a non-attorney acting under the authority, supervision, or direction of a covered attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) The senior supervisory attorney in an office shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person's conduct is compatible with the professional obligations of a covered attorney;
</P>
<P>(2) A covered attorney having direct supervisory authority over the non-attorney shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person's conduct is compatible with the professional obligations of a covered attorney; and
</P>
<P>(3) A covered attorney shall be responsible for conduct of such a person that would be a violation of this part if engaged in by a covered attorney if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered attorney orders or, with the knowledge of the specific conduct, explicitly or impliedly ratifies the conduct involved; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered attorney has direct supervisory authority over the person, and knows of the conduct at a time when its consequences can be avoided or mitigated but fails to take reasonable remedial action.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.56" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.56   Professional independence of a covered USG attorney.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding a judge advocate's status as a commissioned officer subject, generally, to the authority of superiors, a judge advocate detailed or assigned to represent an individual member or employee of the DoN is expected to exercise unfettered loyalty and professional independence during the representation consistent with subpart B of this part and remains ultimately responsible for acting in the best interest of the individual client.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding a civilian USG attorney's status as a Federal employee subject, generally, to the authority of superiors, a civilian USG attorney detailed or assigned to represent an individual member or employee of the DoN is expected to exercise unfettered loyalty and professional independence during the representation consistent with this part and remains ultimately responsible for acting in the best interest of the individual client.
</P>
<P>(c) The exercise of professional judgment in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall not, standing alone, be a basis for an adverse evaluation or other prejudicial action.
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart B of this part recognizes that a judge advocate is a military officer required by law to obey the lawful orders of superior officers. It also recognizes the similar status of a civilian USG attorney. Nevertheless, the practice of law requires the exercise of judgment solely for the benefit of the client and free of compromising influences and loyalties. Thus, when a covered USG attorney is assigned to represent an individual client, neither the attorney's personal interests, the interests of other clients, nor the interests of third persons should affect loyalty to the individual client.
</P>
<P>(2) Not all direction given to a subordinate covered attorney is an attempt to influence improperly the covered attorney's professional judgment. Each situation must be evaluated by the facts and circumstances, giving due consideration to the subordinate's training, experience, and skill. A covered attorney subjected to outside pressures should make full disclosure of them to the client. If the covered attorney or the client believes the effectiveness of the representation has been or will be impaired thereby, the covered attorney should take proper steps to withdraw from representation of the client.
</P>
<P>(3) Additionally, a judge advocate has a responsibility to report any instances of unlawful command influence. See R.C.M. 104, MCM, 1998.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.57" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.57   Unauthorized practice of law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered USG attorney shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as authorized by an appropriate military department, practice law in a jurisdiction where doing so is prohibited by the regulations of the legal profession in that jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Assist a person who is not a member of the bar in the performance of activity that constitutes the unauthorized practice of law.
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in the outside practice of law without receiving proper authorization from the JAG.
</P>
<P>(b) Limiting the practice of law to members of the bar protects the public against rendition of legal services by unqualified persons. A covered USG attorney's performance of legal duties pursuant to a military department's authorization, however, is considered a Federal function and not subject to regulation by the states. Thus, a covered USG attorney may perform legal assistance duties even though the covered attorney is not licensed to practice in the jurisdiction within which the covered attorney's duty station is located. Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not prohibit a covered USG attorney from using the services of non-attorneys and delegating functions to them, so long as the covered attorney supervises the delegated work and retains responsibility for it. See § 776.55 of this part. Likewise, it does not prohibit covered USG attorneys from providing professional advice and instruction to non-attorneys whose employment requires knowledge of law; for example, claims adjusters, social workers, accountants and persons employed in Government agencies. In addition, a covered USG attorney may counsel individuals who wish to proceed pro se or non-attorneys authorized by law or regulation to appear and represent themselves or others before military proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 776.58-776.65" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 776.58-776.65   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.66" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.66   Bar admission and disciplinary matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney, in connection with any application for bar admission, appointment as a judge advocate, employment as a civilian USG attorney, certification by the JAG or his designee, or in connection with any disciplinary matter, shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Knowingly make a false statement of fact; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fail to disclose a fact necessary to correct a misapprehension known by the person to have arisen in the matter, or knowingly fail to respond to a lawful demand for information from an admissions or disciplinary authority, except that this part does not require disclosure of information otherwise protected by § 776.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The duty imposed by subpart B of this part extends to covered attorneys and other attorneys seeking admission to a bar, application for appointment as a covered USG attorney (military or civilian) or certification by the JAG or his designee. Hence, if a person makes a false statement in connection with an application for admission or certification (e.g., misstatement by a civilian attorney before a military judge regarding qualifications under R.C.M. 502), it may be the basis for subsequent disciplinary action if the person is admitted, and in any event may be relevant in a subsequent admission application. The duty imposed by subpart B of this part applies to a covered attorney's own admission or discipline as well as that of others. Thus, it is a separate professional offense for a covered attorney to make a knowing misrepresentation or omission in connection with a disciplinary investigation of the covered attorney's own conduct. Subpart B of this part also requires affirmative clarification of any misunderstanding on the part of the admissions, certification, or disciplinary authority of which the person involved becomes aware.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.67" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.67   Judicial and legal officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney shall not make a statement that the covered attorney knows to be false or with reckless disregard as to its truth or falsity concerning the qualifications or integrity of a judge, investigating officer, hearing officer, adjudicatory officer, or public legal officer, or of a candidate for election or appointment to judicial or legal office.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.68" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.68   Reporting professional misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered attorney having knowledge that another covered attorney has committed a violation of subpart B of this part that raises a substantial question as to that covered attorney's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness as a covered attorney in other respects, shall report such violation in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered attorney having knowledge that a judge has committed a violation of applicable rules of judicial conduct that raises a substantial question as to the judge's fitness for office shall report such violation in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not require disclosure of information otherwise protected by § 776.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.69" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.69   Misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is professional misconduct for a covered attorney to:
</P>
<P>(1) Violate or attempt to violate subpart B of this part, knowingly assist or induce another to do so, or do so through the acts of another;
</P>
<P>(2) Commit a criminal act that reflects adversely on the covered attorney's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness as an attorney in other respects;
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in conduct involving dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation;
</P>
<P>(4) Engage in conduct that is prejudicial to the administration of justice;
</P>
<P>(5) State or imply an ability to influence improperly a government agency or official; or
</P>
<P>(6) Knowingly assist a judge or judicial officer in conduct that is a violation of applicable rules of judicial conduct or other law.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Judge advocates hold a commission as an officer in the Navy or Marine Corps and assume legal responsibilities going beyond those of other citizens. A judge advocate's abuse of such commission can suggest an inability to fulfill the professional role of judge advocate and attorney. This concept has similar application to civilian USG attorneys.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered non-USG attorneys, Reservists, and Retirees (acting in their civilian capacity), like their active-duty counterparts, are expected to demonstrate model behavior and exemplary integrity at all times. The JAG may consider any and all derogatory or beneficial information about a covered attorney, for purposes of determining the attorney's qualification, professional competence, or fitness to practice law in DoN matters, or to administer discipline under this rule. Such consideration shall be made, except in emergency situations necessitating immediate action, according to the procedures established in this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.70" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.70   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All covered attorneys shall be governed by this part.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Many covered USG attorneys practice outside the territorial limits of the jurisdiction in which they are licensed. While covered attorneys remain subject to the governing authority of the jurisdiction in which they are licensed to practice, they are also subject to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) When covered USG attorneys are engaged in the conduct of Navy or Marine Corps legal functions, whether serving the Navy or Marine Corps as a client or serving an individual client as authorized by the Navy or Marine Corps, the provisions contained in subpart B of this part supersede any conflicting rules applicable in jurisdictions in which the covered attorney may be licensed. However, covered attorneys practicing in State or Federal civilian court proceedings will abide by the rules adopted by that State or Federal civilian court during the proceedings. As for covered non-USG attorneys practicing under the supervision of the JAG, violation of the provisions contained in subpart B of this part may result in suspension from practice in DoN proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) Covered non-USG attorneys, Reservists, or Retirees (acting in their civilian capacity) who seek to provide legal services in any DoN matter under JAG cognizance and supervision, may be precluded from such practice of law if, in the opinion of the JAG (as exercised through this rule) the attorney's conduct in any venue renders that attorney unable or unqualified to practice in DoN programs or proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.71" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.71   Requirement to remain in good standing with licensing authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each officer of the Navy appointed as a member of the JAG Corps, each officer of the Marine Corps designated a judge advocate, and each civil service and contracted civilian attorney who practices law under the cognizance and supervision of the JAG shall maintain a status considered “in good standing” at all times with the licensing authority admitting the individual to the practice of law before the highest court of at least one State, Territory, Commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) The JAG, the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps, or any other supervisory attorney may require any covered USG attorney over whom they exercise authority to establish that the attorney continues to be in good standing with his or her licensing authority. Representatives of the JAG or of the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of the Marine Corps may also inquire directly of any such covered USG attorney's licensing authority to establish whether he or she continues to be in good standing and has no disciplinary action pending.
</P>
<P>(c) Each covered USG attorney shall immediately report to the JAG if any jurisdiction in which the covered USG attorney is or has been a member in good standing commences disciplinary investigation or action against him or her or if the covered USG attorney is disciplined, suspended, or disbarred from the practice of law in any jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(d) Each covered non-USG attorney representing an accused in any court-martial or administrative separation proceeding shall be a member in good standing with, and authorized to practice law by, the bar of a Federal court or of the bar of the highest court of a State, or a lawyer otherwise authorized by a recognized licensing authority to practice law and found by the military judge to be qualified to represent the accused.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Generally, the JAG relies on the licensing authority granting the certification or privilege to practice law to define the phrase “good standing.” However, as circumstances require, the JAG may, instead, use separate criteria to determine compliance. At a minimum, “good standing” means the individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Is subject to the jurisdiction's disciplinary review process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has not been suspended or disbarred from the practice of law within the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is current in the payment of all required fees;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has met applicable continuing legal education requirements that the jurisdiction has imposed (or the cognizant authority has waived); and
</P>
<P>(v) Has met such other requirements as the cognizant authority has set for eligibility to practice law. So long as these conditions are met, a covered USG attorney may be “inactive” as to the practice of law within a particular jurisdiction and still be “in good standing” for purposes of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Rule for Court-Martial 502(d)(3)(A) requires that any civilian defense counsel representing an accused in a court-martial be a member of the bar of a Federal court or of the bar of the highest court of a State. This civilian defense counsel qualification only has meaning if the attorney is a member “in good standing,” and is then authorized to practice law within that jurisdiction. See United States v. Waggoner, 22 M.J. 692 (AFCMR 1986). It is appropriate for the military judge, in each and every case, to ensure that a civilian defense counsel is qualified to represent the accused.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure of a judge advocate to comply with the requirements of subpart B of this part may result in professional disciplinary action as provided for in this rule, loss of certification under Articles 26 and/or 27(b), UCMJ, adverse entries in military service records, and administrative separation under SECNAVINST 1920.6 (series) based on the officer's failure to maintain professional qualifications. In the case of civil service and contracted civilian attorneys practicing under the JAG's cognizance and supervision, failure to maintain good standing or otherwise to comply with the requirements of subpart B of this part may result in adverse administrative action under applicable personnel regulations, including termination of employment.
</P>
<P>(4) A covered USG attorney need only remain in good standing in one jurisdiction. If admitted to the practice of law in more than one jurisdiction, however, and any jurisdiction commences disciplinary action against or disciplines, suspends or disbars the covered USG attorney from the practice of law, the covered USG attorney must so advise the JAG.
</P>
<P>(5) An essential time to verify that a judge advocate is currently in good standing is upon accession. Other appropriate times for verification are before a judge advocate is promoted to a higher grade, detailed to a new command, or assigned to duties where there is a statutory requirement to be a member of the bar, such as a military judge per 10 U.S.C. 826(b). The JAG, the SJA to CMC, or any other supervisory attorney may need to verify the professional qualifications of a judge advocate, either periodically or on an occasional basis. JAGINST 5803.2 (series) establishes a biennial requirement for all covered attorneys to provide proof of good standing.
</P>
<P>(6) Certification by the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces that a judge advocate is in good standing with that court will not satisfy the requirement of this section, since such status is normally dependent on Article 27, UCMJ, certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 776.72-776.75" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 776.72-776.75   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Complaint Processing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.76" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.76   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is JAG's policy to investigate and resolve, expeditiously and fairly, all allegations of professional impropriety lodged against covered attorneys under JAG supervision.
</P>
<P>(b) Rules Counsel approval will be obtained before conducting any preliminary inquiry or formal investigation into an alleged violation of the Rules of Professional Conduct (subpart B of this part) or the ABA Model Code of Judicial Conduct (Code of Judicial Conduct). The Rules Counsel will notify the JAG prior to the commencement of any preliminary inquiry or investigation. The preliminary inquiry and any subsequent investigation will be conducted according to the procedures set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.77" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.77   Related investigations and actions.</HEAD>
<P>Acts or omissions by covered attorneys may constitute professional misconduct, criminal misconduct, poor performance of duty, or a combination of all three. Care must be taken to characterize appropriately the nature of a covered attorney's conduct to determine who may and properly should take official action.
</P>
<P>(a) Questions of legal ethics and professional misconduct by covered attorneys are within the exclusive province of the JAG. Ethical or professional misconduct will not be attributed to any covered attorney in any official record without a final JAG determination, made in accordance with this part that such misconduct has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) Criminal misconduct is properly addressed by the covered USG attorney's commander through the disciplinary process provided under the UCMJ and implementing regulations, or through referral to appropriate civil authority.
</P>
<P>(c) Poor performance of duty is properly addressed by the covered USG attorney's reporting senior through a variety of administrative actions, including documentation in fitness reports or employee appraisals.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior JAG approval is not required to investigate allegations of criminal conduct or poor performance of duty involving covered attorneys. When, however, investigations into criminal conduct or poor performance reveal conduct that constitutes a violation of this part or of the Code of Judicial Conduct in the case of judges, such conduct shall be reported to the Rules Counsel immediately.
</P>
<P>(e) Generally, professional responsibility complaints will be processed in accordance with this part upon receipt. Rules Counsel may, however, on a case-by-case basis, delay such processing to await the outcome of pending related criminal, administrative, or investigative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this part prevents a military judge or other appropriate official from removing a covered attorney from acting in a particular court-martial or prevents the JAG, the SJA to CMC, or the appropriate official from reassigning a covered attorney to different duties prior to, during, or subsequent to proceedings conducted under the provision of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.78" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.78   Informal complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Informal, anonymous, or “hot line” type complaints alleging professional misconduct must be referred to the appropriate authority (such as the JAG Inspector General or the concerned supervisory attorney) for inquiry. Such complaints are not, by themselves, cognizable under this subpart but may, if reasonably confirmed, be the basis of a formal complaint described in § 776.79 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.79" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.79   The formal complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The formal complaint shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing and be signed by the complainant;
</P>
<P>(2) State that the complainant has personal knowledge, or has otherwise received reliable information indicating, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered attorney concerned is, or has been, engaged in misconduct that demonstrates a lack of integrity, that constitutes a violation of this part or the Code of Judicial Conduct or a failure to meet the ethical standards of the profession; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered attorney concerned is ethically, professionally, or morally unqualified to perform his or her duties; and
</P>
<P>(3) Contain a complete, factual statement of the acts or omissions constituting the substance of the complaint, as well as a description of any attempted resolution with the covered attorney concerned. Supporting statements, if any, should be attached to the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint may be initiated by any person, including the Administrative Law Division of the Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG) Administrative Law Division (Code 13) or the Judge Advocate Research and Civil Law Branch, Office of the SJA to CMC, HQMC (JAR).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.80" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.80   Initial screening.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints involving conduct of a Navy or Marine Corps trial or appellate judge shall be forwarded to OJAG (Code 05). All other complaints shall be forwarded to OJAG (Code 13) or, in cases involving Marine Corps judge advocates or civil service and contracted civilian attorneys who perform legal services under the cognizance and supervision of the SJA to CMC, to JAR. In cases involving Marine judge advocates, including trial and appellate judges, where the SJA to CMC is not the Rules Counsel, the cognizant Rules Counsel will notify the SJA to CMC when a complaint is received.
</P>
<P>(b) OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and JAR shall log all formal complaints received and will ensure a copy of the complaint and allied papers is provided to the covered attorney who is the subject of the complaint. Service of the formal complaint and other materials on the covered attorney must be accomplished through personal service or registered/certified mail sent to the covered attorney's last known address reflected in official Navy and Marine Corps records or in the records of the state bar(s) that licensed the attorney to practice law. The covered attorney's supervisory attorney must also be provided notice of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) The covered attorney concerned may elect to provide an initial statement, normally within ten calendar days from receipt, regarding the complaint for the Rules Counsel's consideration. The covered attorney will promptly inform OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), or JAR if he or she intends to submit any such statement. At this screening stage, forwarding of the complaint to the Rules Counsel will not be unduly delayed to await the covered attorney's submission.
</P>
<P>(d) The cognizant Rules Counsel shall initially review the complaint, and any statement submitted by the covered attorney complained of, to determine whether it complies with the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of this section. The Rules Counsel is not required to delay the initial review of the complaint awaiting the covered attorney's submission.
</P>
<P>(1) Complaints that do not comply with the requirements may be returned to the complainant for correction or completion, and resubmission to OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), or JAR. If the complaint is not corrected or completed and resubmitted within 30 days of the date of its return, the Rules Counsel may close the file without further action. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and JAR will maintain copies of all correspondence relating to the return and resubmission of a complaint, and shall notify the covered attorney concerned, as well as the supervisory attorney, if and when the Rules Counsel takes action to close the file.
</P>
<P>(2) Complaints that comply with the requirements shall be further reviewed by the cognizant Rules Counsel to determine whether the complaint establishes probable cause to believe that a violation of subpart B of this part or Code of Judicial Conduct has occurred.
</P>
<P>(e) The cognizant Rules Counsel shall close the file without further action if the complaint does not establish probable cause to believe a violation has occurred. The Rules Counsel shall notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and the supervisory attorney, that the file has been closed. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and JAR will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file.
</P>
<P>(f) The cognizant Rules Counsel may close the file if there is a determination that the complaint establishes probable cause but the violation is of a minor or technical nature appropriately addressed through corrective counseling. The Rules Counsel shall report any such decision, to include a brief summary of the case, to the JAG. (In cases relating to Marine judge advocates, including trial and appellate judges, in which the SJA to CMC is not the cognizant Rules Counsel, an information copy shall be forwarded to the SJA to CMC.) The Rules Counsel shall ensure the covered attorney concerned receives appropriate counseling and shall notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and the supervisory attorney that the file has been closed. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and JAR will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file. The covered attorney concerned is responsible, under these circumstances, to determine if his or her Federal, state, or local licensing authority requires reporting of such action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.81" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.81   Forwarding the complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Rules Counsel determines there is probable cause to believe that a violation of subpart B of this part or of the Code of Judicial Conduct has occurred, and the violation is not of a minor or technical nature, the Rules Counsel shall notify the JAG. (In cases relating to Marine Corps judge advocates, including trial and appellate judges, in which the SJA to CMC is not the cognizant Rules Counsel, the SJA to CMC shall also be notified.) The Rules Counsel shall forward the complaint and any allied papers, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In cases involving a military trial judge, if practicable, to a covered attorney with experience as a military trial judge (normally senior to and of the same Service (Navy or Marine Corps) as the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case) and assign the officer to conduct a preliminary inquiry into the matter;
</P>
<P>(2) In cases involving a military appellate judge, if practicable, to a covered attorney with experience as a military appellate judge (normally senior to and of the same Service (Navy or Marine Corps) as the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case) and assign the officer to conduct a preliminary inquiry into the matter;
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases, to such covered attorney as the cognizant Rules Counsel may designate (normally senior to the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case), and assign the officer to conduct a preliminary inquiry into the matter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Rules Counsel shall provide notice of the complaint (if not previously informed) as well as notice of the preliminary inquiry:
</P>
<P>(1) To the covered attorney against whom the complaint is made as well as the supervisory attorney;
</P>
<P>(2) In cases involving a covered USG attorney on active duty or in civilian Federal service, to the commanding officer, or equivalent, of the covered USG attorney concerned;
</P>
<P>(3) In cases involving Navy or Marine Corps judge advocates serving in Naval Legal Service Command (NLSC) units, to Commander, NLSC;
</P>
<P>(4) In cases involving Navy attorneys serving in Marine Corps units, involving Marine Corps attorneys serving in Navy units, or involving Marine Corps trial and appellate judges, to the SJA to CMC (Attn: JAR);
</P>
<P>(5) In cases involving trial or appellate court judges, to either the Chief Judge, Navy-Marine Corps Trial Judiciary or Chief Judge, Navy-Marine Corps Court of Criminal Appeals, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(6) In cases involving covered attorneys certified by the Judge Advocates General/Chief Counsel of the other uniformed services, to the appropriate military service attorney discipline section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.82" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.82   Interim suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the Rules Counsel determines there is probable cause to believe that a covered attorney has committed misconduct and poses a substantial threat of irreparable harm to his or her clients or the orderly administration of military justice, the Rules Counsel shall so advise the JAG. Examples of when a covered attorney may pose a “substantial threat of irreparable harm” include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) When charged with the commission of a crime which involves moral turpitude or reflects adversely upon the covered attorney's fitness to practice law, and where substantial evidence exists to support the charge;
</P>
<P>(2) When engaged in the unauthorized practice of law (e.g., failure to maintain good standing in accordance with § 776.71 of this part); or
</P>
<P>(3) Where unable to represent client interests competently.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of information from the Rules Counsel, JAG may order the covered attorney to show cause why he or she should not face interim suspension, pending completion of a professional responsibility investigation. The covered attorney shall have 10 calendar days in which to respond. Notice of the show cause order shall be provided as outlined in § 776.81(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If an order to show cause has been issued under paragraph (b) of this section, and the period for response has passed without a response, or after consideration of any response and finding sufficient evidence demonstrating probable cause to believe that the covered attorney is guilty of misconduct and poses a substantial threat of irreparable harm to his or her client or the orderly administration of military justice, the JAG may direct an interim suspension of the covered attorney's certification under Articles 26(b) or 27(b), UCMJ, or R.C.M. 502(d)(3), or the authority to provide legal assistance, pending the results of the investigation and final action under this part. Notice of such action shall be provided as outlined in § 776.81(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 10 days of the JAG's decision to impose an interim suspension, the covered attorney may request an opportunity to be heard before an impartial officer designated by the JAG. Where so requested, that opportunity will be scheduled within 10 calendar days of the request. The designated officer shall receive any information that the covered attorney chooses to submit on the limited issue of whether to continue the interim suspension. The designated officer shall submit a recommendation to the JAG within 5 calendar days of conclusion.
</P>
<P>(e) A covered attorney may, based upon a claim of changed circumstances or newly discovered evidence, petition for dissolution or amendment of the JAG's imposition of interim suspension.
</P>
<P>(f) Any professional responsibility investigation involving a covered attorney who has been suspended pursuant to subpart B of this part shall proceed and be concluded without appreciable delay. However, the JAG may determine it necessary to await completion of a related criminal investigation or proceeding, or completion of a professional responsibility action initiated by other licensing authorities. In such cases, the JAG shall cause the Rules Counsel to so notify the covered attorney under interim suspension as well as those officials outlined in § 776.81(b) of this part. Where necessary, continuation of the interim suspension shall be reviewed by the JAG every 6 months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.83" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.83   Preliminary inquiry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of the preliminary inquiry is to determine whether, in the opinion of the officer appointed to conduct the preliminary inquiry (PIO), the questioned conduct occurred and, if so, whether the preponderance of the evidence demonstrates that such conduct constitutes a violation of subpart B of this part or the Code of Judicial Conduct. The PIO is to recommend appropriate action in cases of substantiated violations.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the complaint, the PIO shall promptly investigate the allegations, generally following the format and procedures set forth in the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) for the conduct of command investigations. Reports of relevant investigations by other authorities including, but not limited to, the command, the Inspector General, and State licensing authorities should be used. The PIO should also:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and obtain sworn affidavits or statements from all relevant and material witnesses to the extent practicable;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify, gather, and preserve all other relevant and material evidence; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the covered attorney concerned an opportunity to review all evidence, affidavits, and statements collected and a reasonable period of time (normally not exceeding 10 calendar days) to submit a written statement or any other written material that the covered attorney wishes considered.
</P>
<P>(c) The PIO may appoint and use such assistants as may be necessary to conduct the preliminary inquiry.
</P>
<P>(d) The PIO shall personally review the results of the preliminary inquiry to determine whether, by a preponderance of the evidence, a violation of subpart B of this part or of the Code of Judicial Conduct has occurred.
</P>
<P>(1) If the PIO determines that no violation has occurred or that the violation is minor or technical in nature and warrants only corrective counseling, then he or she may recommend that the file be closed.
</P>
<P>(2) If the PIO determines by a preponderance of the evidence that a violation did occur, and that corrective action greater than counseling may be warranted, he or she shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Draft a list of substantiated violations of these Rules of Professional Conduct or the Code of Judicial Conduct;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommend appropriate action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Forward the preliminary inquiry to the Rules Counsel, providing copies to the covered attorney concerned and the supervisory attorney.
</P>
<P>(e) The Rules Counsel shall review all preliminary inquiries. If the report is determined by the Rules Counsel to be incomplete, the Rules Counsel shall return it to the PIO, or to another inquiry officer, for further or supplemental inquiry. If the report is complete, then:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Rules Counsel determines, either consistent with the PIO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the report, that a violation of this part has not occurred and that further action is not warranted, the Rules Counsel shall close the file and notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and all officials previously provided notice of the complaint. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and/or JAR, as appropriate, will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Rules Counsel determines, either consistent with a PIO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the report, that a violation of subpart B of this part has occurred but that the violation is of a minor or technical nature, then the Rules Counsel may determine that corrective counseling is appropriate and close the file. The Rules Counsel shall report any such decision, to include a brief summary of the case, to the JAG. The Rules Counsel shall ensure that the covered attorney concerned receives appropriate counseling and shall notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and all officials previously provided notice of the complaint that the file has been closed. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and/or JAR, as appropriate, will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file. The covered attorney concerned is responsible, under these circumstances, to determine if his or her Federal, state, or local licensing authority requires reporting such action.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Rules Counsel determines, either consistent with a PIO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the report, that further professional discipline or corrective action may be warranted, the Rules Counsel shall notify the JAG and take the following action:
</P>
<P>(i) In cases involving a military trial judge, if practicable, forward the recommendation to a covered attorney with experience as a military trial judge (normally senior to and of the same Service (Navy or Marine Corps) as the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case) and assign the officer to conduct an ethics investigation into the matter (see R.C.M. 109 of the Manual for Courts-Martial);
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases involving a military appellate judge, forward the recommendation to a covered attorney with experience as a military appellate judge (normally senior to and of the same Service (Navy or Marine Corps) as the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case) and assign the officer to conduct an ethics investigation into the matter (see R.C.M. 109 of the Manual for Courts-Martial); or
</P>
<P>(iii) In all other cases, assign a covered attorney (normally senior to the covered attorney complained of and not previously involved in the case) to conduct an ethics investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.84" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.84   Ethics investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an ethics investigation is initiated, the covered attorney concerned shall be so notified, in writing, by the Rules Counsel. Notice of such action shall also be provided as outlined in § 776.81(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The covered attorney concerned will be provided written notice of the following rights in connection with the ethics investigation:
</P>
<P>(1) To request a hearing before the investigating officer (IO);
</P>
<P>(2) To inspect all evidence gathered;
</P>
<P>(3) To present written or oral statements or materials for consideration;
</P>
<P>(4) To call witnesses at his or her own expense (local military witnesses should be made available at no cost);
</P>
<P>(5) To be assisted by counsel (see paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(6) To challenge the IO for cause (such challenges must be made in writing and sent to the Rules Counsel via the challenged officer); and
</P>
<P>(7) To waive any or all of these rights. Failure to affirmatively elect any of the rights included in this section shall be deemed a waiver by the covered attorney.
</P>
<P>(c) If a hearing is requested, the covered attorney may be represented by counsel at the hearing. Such counsel may be:
</P>
<P>(1) A civilian attorney retained at no expense to the Government; or,
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered USG attorney, another USG attorney:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed by the cognizant Naval Legal Service Office (NLSO), (or Defense Services Office (DSO), effective October 1, 2012), Law Center, or Legal Service Support Section (LSSS); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Requested by the covered attorney concerned, if such counsel is deemed reasonably available in accordance with the provisions regarding individual military counsel set forth in Chapter I of the JAGMAN. There is no right to detailed counsel if requested counsel is made available.
</P>
<P>(d) If a hearing is requested, the IO will conduct the hearing after reasonable notice to the covered attorney concerned. The hearing will not be unreasonably delayed. The hearing is not adversarial in nature and there is no right to subpoena witnesses. Rules of evidence do not apply. The covered attorney concerned or his or her counsel may question witnesses that appear. The proceedings shall be recorded but no transcript of the hearing need be made. Evidence gathered during, or subsequent to, the preliminary inquiry and such additional evidence as may be offered by the covered attorney shall be considered.
</P>
<P>(e) The IO may appoint and use such assistants as may be necessary to conduct the ethics investigation.
</P>
<P>(f) The IO shall prepare a report which summarizes the evidence, to include information presented at any hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) If the IO believes that no violation has occurred or, by clear and convincing evidence, that the violation has occurred but the violation is minor or technical in nature and warrants only corrective counseling, then he or she may recommend that the file be closed.
</P>
<P>(2) If the IO believes by clear and convincing evidence that a violation did occur, and that corrective action greater than counseling is warranted, he or she shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Modify, as necessary, the list of substantiated violations of this part or, in the case of a military trial or appellate judge, the Code of Judicial Conduct;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommend appropriate action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Forward the ethics investigation to the Rules Counsel with a copy to the attorney investigated.
</P>
<P>(g) The Rules Counsel shall review all ethics investigations. If the report is determined by the Rules Counsel to be incomplete, the Rules Counsel shall return it to the IO, or to another inquiry officer, for further or supplemental inquiry. If the report is complete, then:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Rules Counsel determines, either consistent with the IO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the investigation, that a violation of subpart B of this part or Code of Judicial Conduct has not occurred and that further action is not warranted, the Rules Counsel shall close the file and notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and all officials previously notified of the complaint. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13) and/or JAR, as appropriate, will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Rules Counsel determines, either consistent with the IO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the investigation, that a violation of this part or Code of Judicial Conduct has occurred but that the violation is of a minor or technical nature, then the Rules Counsel may determine that corrective counseling is appropriate and close the file. The Rules Counsel shall report any such decision, to include a brief summary of the case, to the JAG. (In cases relating to Marine judge advocates, including trial and appellate judges, in which the SJA to CMC is not the cognizant Rules Counsel, an information copy shall be forwarded to the SJA to CMC.) The Rules Counsel shall ensure that the covered attorney concerned receives appropriate counseling and shall notify the complainant, the covered attorney concerned, and all officials previously notified of the complaint that the file has been closed. OJAG (Code 05), OJAG (Code 13), and/or JAR, as appropriate, will maintain copies of all correspondence related to the closing of the file. The covered attorney concerned is responsible, under these circumstances, to determine if his or her Federal, state, or local licensing authority requires reporting such action.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Rules Counsel believes, either consistent with the IO recommendation or through the Rules Counsel's own review of the inquiry report, that professional disciplinary action greater than corrective counseling is warranted, the Rules Counsel shall forward the investigation, with recommendations as to appropriate disposition, to the JAG. (In cases relating to Marine judge advocates, including trial and appellate judges, in which the SJA to CMC is not the cognizant Rules Counsel, an information copy shall be forwarded to the SJA to CMC.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.85" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.85   Effect of separate proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the term “separate proceeding” includes, but is not limited to, court-martial, non-judicial punishment, administrative board, or similar civilian or military proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases in which a covered attorney is determined, at a separate proceeding determined by the Rules Counsel to afford procedural protection equal to that provided by a preliminary inquiry under this part, to have committed misconduct that forms the basis for ethics charges under this part, the Rules Counsel may dispense with the preliminary inquiry and proceed directly with an ethics investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) In those cases in which a covered attorney is determined to have committed misconduct at a separate proceeding which the Rules Counsel determines has afforded procedural protection equal to that provided by an ethics investigation under this part, the previous determination regarding the underlying misconduct is res judicata with respect to that issue during an ethics investigation. A subsequent ethics investigation based on such misconduct shall afford the covered attorney a hearing into whether the underlying misconduct constitutes a violation of subpart B of this part, whether the violation affects his or her fitness to practice law, and what sanctions, if any, are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) in this section, the Rules Counsel may dispense with the preliminary inquiry and ethics investigation and, after affording the covered attorney concerned written notice and an opportunity to be heard in writing, recommend to the JAG that the covered attorney concerned be disciplined under this part when the covered attorney has been:
</P>
<P>(1) Decertified or suspended from the practice of law or otherwise subjected to professional responsibility discipline by the JAG or Chief Counsel of another Military Department;
</P>
<P>(2) Disbarred or suspended from the practice of law or otherwise subjected to professional responsibility discipline by the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces or by any Federal, State, or local bar; or
</P>
<P>(3) Convicted of a felony (or any offense punishable by one year or more of imprisonment) in a civilian or military court that, in the opinion of the Rules Counsel, renders the attorney unqualified or incapable of properly or ethically representing the DoN or a client when the Rules Counsel has determined that the attorney was afforded procedural protection equal to that provided by an ethics investigation under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.86" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.86   Action by the Judge Advocate General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The JAG is not bound by the recommendation rendered by the Rules Counsel, IO, PIO, or any other interested party, but will base any action on the record as a whole. Nothing in this part limits the JAG's authority to suspend from the practice of law in DoN matters any covered attorney alleged or found to have committed professional misconduct or violated subpart B of this part, either in DoN or civilian proceedings, as detailed in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The JAG may, but is not required to, refer any case to the Professional Responsibility Committee for an advisory opinion on interpretation of subpart B of this part or its application to the facts of a particular case.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the ethics investigation, and any requested advisory opinion, the JAG will take such action as the JAG considers appropriate in the JAG's sole discretion. The JAG may, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct further inquiry into specified areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the allegations are unfounded, or that no further action is warranted, and direct the Rules Counsel to make appropriate file entries and notify the complainant, covered attorney concerned, and all officials previously notified of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the allegations are supported by clear and convincing evidence, and take appropriate corrective action including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Limiting the covered attorney to practice under direct supervision of a supervisory attorney;
</P>
<P>(ii) Limiting the covered attorney to practice in certain areas or forbidding him or her from practice in certain areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) Suspending or revoking, for a specified or indefinite period, the covered attorney's authority to provide legal assistance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Finding that the misconduct so adversely affects the covered attorney's ability to practice law in the naval service or so prejudices the reputation of the DoN legal community, the administration of military justice, the practice of law under the cognizance of the JAG, or the armed services as a whole, that certification under Article 27(b), UCMJ, or R.C.M. 502(d)(3), should be suspended or is no longer appropriate, and directing such certification to be suspended for a prescribed or indefinite period or permanently revoked;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a judge, finding that the misconduct so prejudices the reputation of military trial and/or appellate judges that certification under Article 26(b), UCMJ (10 U.S.C. 826(b)), should be suspended or is no longer appropriate, and directing such certification to be suspended for a prescribed or indefinite period or to be permanently revoked; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Directing the Rules Counsel to contact appropriate authorities such as the Chief of Naval Personnel or the Commandant of the Marine Corps so that pertinent entries in appropriate DoN records may be made; notifying the complainant, covered attorney concerned, and any officials previously provided copies of the complaint; and notifying appropriate tribunals and authorities of any action taken to suspend, decertify, or limit the practice of a covered attorney as counsel before courts-martial or the U.S. Navy-Marine Corps Court of Criminal Appeals, administrative boards, as a legal assistance attorney, or in any other legal proceeding or matter conducted under JAG cognizance and supervision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.87" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.87   Finality.</HEAD>
<P>Any action taken by the JAG is final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.88" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.88   Report to licensing authorities.</HEAD>
<P>Upon determination by the JAG that a violation of subpart B of this part or the Code of Judicial Conduct has occurred, the JAG may cause the Rules Counsel to report that fact to the Federal, State, or local bar or other licensing authority of the covered attorney concerned. If so reported, notice to the covered attorney shall be provided by the Rules Counsel. This decision in no way diminishes a covered attorney's responsibility to report adverse professional disciplinary action as required by the attorney's Federal, State, and local bar or other licensing authority.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Outside Practice of Law by Covered USG Attorneys</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.89" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.89   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered USG attorney's primary professional responsibility is to the DoN, and he or she is expected to devote the required level of time and effort to satisfactorily accomplish assigned duties. Covered USG attorneys engaged in the outside practice of law, including while on terminal leave, must comply with local bar rules governing professional responsibility and conduct and obtain proper authorization from the JAG as required by §§ 776.57 and 776.88 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Outside employment of DoN personnel, both military and civilian, is limited by the UCMJ, MCM, and 10 U.S.C. 1044. A covered USG attorney may not provide compensated legal services, while working in a private capacity, to persons who are eligible for legal assistance, unless specifically authorized by the JAG. See § 776.24. Because of the appearance of misuse of public office for private gain, this prohibition is based upon the status of the proposed client and applies whether or not the services provided are actually available in a DoN/DoD legal assistance office.
</P>
<P>(c) Additionally, DoN officers and employees are prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 209 from receiving pay or allowances from any source other than the United States for the performance of any official service or duty unless specifically authorized by law. Furthermore, 18 U.S.C. 203 and 205 prohibit Federal officers and employees from personally representing or receiving, directly or indirectly, compensation for representing any other person before any Federal agency or court on matters in which the United States is a party or has an interest.
</P>
<P>(d) These limitations are particularly significant when applied to covered USG attorneys who intend to engage concurrently in a civilian law practice. In such a situation, the potential is high for actual or apparent conflict arising from the mere opportunity to obtain clients through contacts in the course of official business. Unique conflicts or adverse appearances may also develop because of a covered USG attorney's special ethical responsibilities and loyalties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.90" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.90   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Outside practice of law is defined as any provision of legal advice, counsel, assistance or representation, with or without compensation, that is not performed pursuant or incident to duties as a covered USG attorney (including while on terminal leave). Occasional uncompensated assistance rendered to relatives or friends is excluded from this definition (unless otherwise limited by statute or regulation). Teaching a law course as part of a program of education or training offered by an institution of higher education is not practicing law for purposes of this rule.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement to seek permission prior to engaging in the outside practice of law does not apply to non-USG attorneys, or to Reserve or Retired judge advocates unless serving on active duty for more than 30 consecutive days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.91" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.91   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a general rule, the JAG will not approve requests by covered USG attorneys to practice law in association with attorneys or firms which represent clients with interests adverse to the DoN.
</P>
<P>(b) The JAG's approval of a particular request does not constitute DoN certification of the requesting attorney's qualifications to engage in the proposed practice or DoN endorsement of activities undertaken after such practice begins. Moreover, because any outside law practice is necessarily beyond the scope of a covered USG attorney's official duties, the requesting attorney should consider obtaining personal malpractice insurance coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.92" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.92   Action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered USG attorneys, who contemplate engaging in the outside practice of law, including while on terminal leave, must first obtain approval from the JAG. Requests should be forwarded in the form prescribed in appendix to subpart D of part 776 to OJAG (Code 05), JAG (Code 13), or JAR, as appropriate, via the attorney's chain of command.
</P>
<P>(b) The requesting attorney's commanding officer may:
</P>
<P>(1) Disapprove and return the request if he or she perceives actual or apparent conflicts of interests;
</P>
<P>(2) Recommend disapproval of the request and forward it, along with his or her rationale for such a recommendation; or
</P>
<P>(3) Forward the request recommending approval and providing such other information as may be relevant.
</P>
<P>(c) The JAG will review the request and advise applicants in writing of the decision, and of any conditions and limitations under which a particular practice may be undertaken. Until permission is granted, applicants will not commence any outside law practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.93" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.93   Revalidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered USG attorneys to whom permission is given to engage in the outside practice of law will notify the JAG in writing, via their chain of command, within 30 days of any material change in:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature or scope of the outside practice described in their requests, including termination, or
</P>
<P>(2) Their DoN assignment or responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Covered USG attorneys to whom permission is given to engage in the outside practice of law will annually resubmit an application to continue the practice, with current information, by October 1 each year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.4.1.6.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Subpart D of Part 776—Outside Law Practice Questionnaire and Request.
</HEAD>
<FP-2>DATE
</FP-2>
<FP-2>From: (Attorney Requesting Outside Practice of Law)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>To: Deputy Chief Judge, Navy-Marine Corps Trial Judiciary/Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (Administrative Law)/Head, Judge Advocate Research and Civil Law Branch, Judge Advocate Division
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Via: (Chain of Command)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Subj: OUTSIDE PRACTICE OF LAW REQUEST ICO (Name of attorney)
</FP-2>
<HD3>1. Background Data
</HD3>
<P>a. Name, rank/pay grade:
</P>
<P>b. Current command and position:
</P>
<P>c. Description of duties and responsibilities (including collateral duty assignments):
</P>
<P>d. Describe any DoN responsibilities that require you to act officially in any way with respect to any matters in which your anticipated outside employer or clients have interests:
</P>
<P>e. Normal DoN working hours:
</P>
<HD3>2. Proposed Outside Practice of Law Information
</HD3>
<P>a. Mailing address and phone number:
</P>
<P>b. Working hours:
</P>
<P>c. Number of hours per month:
</P>
<P>d. Description of proposed practice (indicate the type of clientele you anticipate serving, as well as the type of work that you will perform):
</P>
<P>e. Describe whether you will be a sole practitioner, or collocated, renting from, or otherwise affiliated or associated in any matter with other attorneys:
</P>
<P>f. Describe, in detail, any anticipated representation of any client before the United States or in any matter in which the United States has an interest:
</P>
<P>g. Describe the manner in which you will be compensated (hourly, by case, fixed salary, and how much of your fees will be related in any way to any representational services before the Federal Government by yourself or by another):
</P>
<P>h. Provide a description of any military-related work to which your proposed practice may be applied including, but not limited to, courts-martial, administrative discharge boards, claims against the Department of the Navy, and so forth:
</P>
<HD3>3. Attorneys With Whom Outside Practice Is/Will Be Affiliated, Collocated, or Otherwise Associated
</HD3>
<P>a. Identify the type of organization with which you will be affiliated (sole practitioner, partnership, and so forth), the number of attorneys in the firm, and the names of the attorneys with whom you will be working:
</P>
<P>b. Identify the attorneys in the firm who are associated in any way with the military legal community (e.g., active, Reserve, or retired judge advocate), and specify their relationship to any of the military services:
</P>
<P>c. Identify the nature of your affiliation with the organization with which you intend to be associated (staff attorney, partner, associate, space-sharing, rental arrangement, other):
</P>
<P>d. Provide a brief description of the type of legal practice engaged in by the organization with which you intend to affiliate, including a general description of the practice, as well as the clientele:
</P>
<P>e. Describe the clientele who are military personnel or their dependents, and the number and type of cases handled:
</P>
<P>f. Describe whether your affiliates will refer clients to you, and the anticipated frequency of referral:
</P>
<P>g. Describe
</P>
<P>(1) Whether your associates will assist or represent clients with interests adverse to the United States or in matters in which the United States has an interest:
</P>
<P>(2) Those clients, matters, and interests in detail:
</P>
<P>(3) What support will you provide in such cases:
</P>
<P>(4) What compensation, in any form, you will receive related to such cases:
</P>
<HD3>4. Desired Date of Commencement of Outside Practice
</HD3>
<P>a. Identify if this is your first request or an annual submission for re-approval:
</P>
<P>b. If this is an annual submission, indicate when your outside practice began:
</P>
<P>c. If this is your first request, indicate when you wish to begin your practice:
</P>
<HD3>5. Conflicts of Interest and Professional Conduct (Include the following statement in your request)
</HD3>
<P>“I certify that I have read and understand my obligations under enclosure (3) to JAGINST 5803.1 (series), DOD 5500.7-R, Joint Ethics Regulation, JAGMAN Chapter VII, the Legal Assistance Manual, and Title 18, U.S.C. 203, 205, and 209. I certify that no apparent or actual conflict of interests or professional improprieties are presented by my proposed initiation/continuation of an outside law practice. I also certify that if an apparent conflict of interest or impropriety arises during such outside practice, I will report the circumstances to my supervisory attorney immediately.”
</P>
<P>6. Privacy Act Statement. I understand that the preceding information is gathered per the Privacy Act as follows:
</P>
<P>Authority: Information is solicited per Executive Order 12731 and DOD 5500.7-R.
</P>
<P>Primary purpose: To determine whether outside employment presents conflicts of interest with official duties.
</P>
<P>Routine use: Information will be treated as sensitive and used to determine propriety of outside employment.
</P>
<P>Disclosure: Disclosure is voluntary. Failure to provide the requested information will preclude the Judge Advocate General from approving your outside practice of law request.
</P>
<HD3>Signature




</HD3>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Relations With Non-USG Counsel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.94" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.94   Relations with Non-USG Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to non-USG attorneys representing individuals in any matter for which the JAG is charged with supervising the provision of legal services, including but not limited to, courts-martial, administrative separation boards or hearings, boards of inquiry, and disability evaluation proceedings. Employment of a non-USG attorney by an individual client does not alter the responsibilities of a covered USG attorney to that client. Although a non-USG attorney is individually responsible for adhering to the contents of this part, the covered USG attorney detailed or otherwise assigned to that client shall take reasonable steps to inform the non-USG attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the contents of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) That subpart B of this part apply to civilian counsel practicing before military tribunals, courts, boards, or in any legal matter under the supervision of the JAG as a condition of such practice; and
</P>
<P>(3) That subpart B of this part take precedence over other rules of professional conduct that might otherwise apply, but that the attorney may still be subject to rules and discipline established by the attorney's Federal, state, or local bar association or other licensing authority.
</P>
<P>(b) If an individual client designates a non-USG attorney as chief counsel, the detailed USG attorney must defer to civilian counsel in any conflict over trial tactics. If, however, the attorneys have “co-counsel” status, then conflict in proposed trial tactics requires the client to be consulted to resolve the conflict.
</P>
<P>(c) If the non-USG attorney has, in the opinion of the involved covered USG attorney, acted or failed to act in a manner which is contrary to subpart B of this part, the matter should be brought to the attention of the civilian attorney. If the matter is not resolved with the civilian counsel, the covered USG attorney should discuss the situation with the supervisory attorney. If not resolved between counsel, the client must be informed of the matter by the covered USG attorney. If, after being apprised of possible misconduct, the client approves of the questioned conduct, the covered USG attorney shall attempt to withdraw from the case in accordance with § 776.35 of this part. The client shall be informed of such intent to withdraw prior to action by the covered USG attorney.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.25.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="777-799" NODE="32:5.1.1.7.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 777-799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 24, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="6" NODE="32:6" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 32-National Defense--Volume 6</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Defense (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter vii</E>—Department of the Air Force
</SUBJECT>
<PG>809a
</PG></CHAPTI>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Other Regulations Relating to National Defense</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xii</E>—Department of Defense, Defense Logistics Agency 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1280 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvi</E>—Selective Service System
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1602
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Office of the Director of National Intelligence
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1700
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xviii</E>—National Counterintelligence Center
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1800
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xix</E>—Central Intelligence Agency
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1900 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xx</E>—Information Security Oversight Office, National Archives and Records Administration
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2001 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxi</E>—National Security Council
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2102 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxiv</E>—Office of Science and Technology Policy
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2400
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxvii</E>—Office for Micronesian Status Negotiations
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2700
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxviii</E>—Office of the Vice President of the United States
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2800


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="32:6.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Department of Defense (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="VII" NODE="32:6.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER VII—DEPARTMENT OF THE AIR FORCE</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—ADMINISTRATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="800-806" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 800-806 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="809a" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 809a—INSTALLATION ENTRY POLICY, CIVIL DISTURBANCE INTERVENTION AND DISASTER ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 332 and 333. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 13718, Mar. 26, 2002, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 809a.0" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.0   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes the commanders' authority for enforcing order within or near Air Force installations under their jurisdiction and controlling entry to those installations. It provides guidance for use of military personnel in controlling civil disturbances and in supporting disaster relief operations. This part applies to installations in the United States, its territories and possessions, and will be used to the maximum extent possible in the overseas commands. Instructions issued by the appropriate overseas commander, status of forces agreements, and other international agreements provide more definitive guidance for the overseas commands. Nothing in this part should be construed as authorizing or requiring security forces units to collect and maintain information concerning persons or organizations having no affiliation with the Air Force other than a list of persons barred from the installation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Installation Entry Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 809a.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.1   Random installation entry point checks.</HEAD>
<P>The installation commander determines when, where, and how to implement random checks of vehicles or pedestrians. The commander conducts random checks to protect the security of the command or to protect government property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809a.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.2   Military responsibility and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Air Force installation commanders are responsible for protecting personnel and property under their jurisdiction and for maintaining order on installations, to ensure the uninterrupted and successful accomplishment of the Air Force mission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each commander is authorized to grant or deny access to their installations, and to exclude or remove persons whose presence is unauthorized. In excluding or removing persons from the installation, the installation commander must not act in an arbitrary or capricious manner. Their action must be reasonable in relation to their responsibility to protect and to preserve order on the installation and to safeguard persons and property thereon. As far as practicable, they should prescribe by regulation the rules and conditions governing access to their installation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809a.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.3   Unauthorized entry.</HEAD>
<P>Under Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 797), any directive issued by the commander of a military installation or facility, which includes the parameters for authorized entry to or exit from a military installation, is legally enforceable against all persons whether or not those persons are subject to the Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Military personnel who reenter an installation after having been properly ordered not to do so may be apprehended. Civilian violators may be detained and either escorted off the installation or turned over to proper civilian authorities. Civilian violators may be prosecuted under 18 U.S.C. 1382.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809a.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.4   Use of Government facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Commanders are prohibited from authorizing demonstrations for partisan political purposes. Demonstrations on any Air Force installation for other than political purposes may only occur with the prior approval of the installation commander. Demonstrations that could result in interference with, or prevention of, the orderly accomplishment of the mission of an installation or that present a clear danger to loyalty, discipline or morale of members of the Armed Forces will not be approved. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809a.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809a.5   Barment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of 50 U.S.C. 797, installation commanders may deny access to the installation through the use of a barment order. Barment orders should be in writing but may also be oral. Security forces maintain a list of personnel barred from the installation. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—SALES AND SERVICES 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="811" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 811—RELEASE, DISSEMINATION, AND SALE OF VISUAL INFORMATION MATERIALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 8013. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 64619, Oct. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 811.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.1   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part do not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Visual information (VI) materials made for the Air Force Office of Special Investigations for use in an investigation or a counterintelligence report. (See Air Force Instruction (AFI) 90-301, The Inspector General Complaints, which describes who may use these materials.) 
</P>
<P>(b) VI materials made during Air Force investigations of aircraft or missile mishaps according to AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports. (See AFI 90-301.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.2   Release of visual information materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only the Secretary of the Air Force for Public Affairs (SAF/PA) clears and releases Air Force materials for use outside Department of Defense (DoD), according to AFI 35-205, Air Force Security and Policy Review Program. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Air Force for Legislative Liaison (SAF/LL) arranges the release of VI material through SAF/PA when a member of Congress asks for them for official use. 
</P>
<P>(c) The International Affairs Division (HQ USAF/CVAII) or, in some cases, the major command (MAJCOM) Foreign Disclosure Office, must authorize release of classified and unclassified materials to foreign governments and international organizations or their representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.3   Official requests for visual information productions or materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Send official Air Force requests for productions or materials from the DoD Central Records Centers by letter or message. Include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Descriptions of the images needed, including media format, dates, etc. 
</P>
<P>(2) Visual information record identification number (VIRIN), production, or Research, development, test, and evaluation (RDT&amp;E) identification numbers, if known. 
</P>
<P>(3) Intended use and purpose of the material. 
</P>
<P>(4) The date needed and a statement of why products are needed on a specific date. 
</P>
<P>(b) Send inquiries about motion picture or television materials to the Defense Visual Information Center (DVIC), 1363 Z Street, Building 2730, March ARB, CA 92518-2703. 
</P>
<P>(c) Send Air Force customer inquiries about still photographic materials to 11 CS/SCUA, Bolling AFB, Washington, DC 20332-0403 (the Air Force accessioning point). 
</P>
<P>(d) Send non-Air Force customers' inquiries about still photographic materials to the DVIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.4   Selling visual information materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Air Force VI activities cannot sell materials. 
</P>
<P>(b) HQ AFCIC/ITSM may approve the loan of copies of original materials for federal government use. 
</P>
<P>(c) Send requests to buy: 
</P>
<P>(1) Completed, cleared, productions, to the National Archives and Records Administration, National Audiovisual Center, Information Office, 8700 Edgeworth Drive, Capitol Heights, MD 20722-3701. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nonproduction VI motion media to the DVIC. The center may sell other Air Force VI motion picture and television materials, such as historical and stock footage. When it sells VI motion media, the DVIC assesses charges, unless § 811.5 exempts the requesting activity. 
</P>
<P>(3) VI still media to the DoD Still Media Records Center (SMRC), Attn: SSRC, Washington, DC 20374-1681. When SMRC sells VI still media, the SMRC assesses charges, unless § 811.5 exempts the requesting activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.5   Customers exempt from fees.</HEAD>
<P>Title III of the 1968 Intergovernmental Cooperation Act (42 U.S.C. 4201, 4231, and 4233) exempts some customers from paying for products and loans. This applies if the supplier has sufficient funds and if the exemption does not impair its mission. The requesting agency must certify that the materials are not commercially available. When requests for VI material do not meet exemption criteria, the requesting agency pays the fees. Exempted customers include: 
</P>
<P>(a) DoD and other government agencies asking for materials for official activities (see DoD Instruction 4000.19, Interservice, and Intergovernmental Support, August 9, 1995, and DoD Directive 5040.2, Visual Information (VI), December 7, 1987. 
</P>
<P>(b) Members of Congress asking for VI materials for official activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) VI records center materials or services furnished according to law or Executive Order. 
</P>
<P>(d) Federal, state, territorial, county, municipal governments, or their agencies, for activities contributing to an Air Force or DoD objective. 
</P>
<P>(e) Nonprofit organizations for public health, education, or welfare purposes. 
</P>
<P>(f) Armed Forces members with a casualty status, their next of kin, or authorized representative, if VI material requested relates to the member and does not compromise classified information or an accident investigation board's work. 
</P>
<P>(g) The general public, to help the Armed Forces recruiting program or enhance public understanding of the Armed Forces, when SAF/PA determines that VI materials or services promote the Air Force's best interest. 
</P>
<P>(h) Incidental or occasional requests for VI records center materials or services, including requests from residents of foreign countries, when fees would be inappropriate. AFI 16-101, International Affairs and Security Assistance Management, tells how a foreign government may obtain Air Force VI materials. 
</P>
<P>(i) Legitimate news organizations working on news productions, documentaries, or print products that inform the public on Air Force activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.6   Visual information product/material loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may request unclassified and classified copies of current Air Force productions and loans of DoD and other Federal productions from JVISDA, ATTN: ASQV-JVIA-T-AS, Bldg. 3, Bay 3, 11 Hap Arnold Blvd., Tobyhanna, PA 18466-5102. 
</P>
<P>(1) For unclassified products, use your organization's letterhead, identify subject title, PIN, format, and quantity. 
</P>
<P>(2) For classified products, use your organization's letterhead, identify subject title, personal identification number (PIN), format, and quantity. Also, indicate that either your organization commander or security officer, and MAJCOM VI manager approve the need. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may request other VI materials, such as, still images and motion media stock footage, from DVIC/OM-PA, 1363 Z Street, Building 2730, March ARB, CA 92518-2703. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.7   Collecting and controlling fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DoD records centers usually collect fees in advance. Exceptions are sales where you cannot determine actual cost until work is completed (for example, television and motion picture services with per minute or per footage charges). 
</P>
<P>(b) Customers pay fees, per AFR 177-108, Paying and Collecting Transactions at Base Level, with cash, treasury check, certified check, cashier's check, bank draft, or postal money order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 811.8" NODE="32:6.1.1.2.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 811.8   Forms prescribed and availability of publications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) AF Form 833, Visual Information Request, AF Form 1340, Visual Information Support Center Workload Report, DD Form 1995, Visual Information (VI) Production Request and Report, DD Form 2054-1, Visual Information (VI) Annual Report, and DD Form 2537, Visual Information Caption Sheet are prescribed by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Air Force publications and forms referenced in this part are available from NTIS, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161 or online at <I>http://www.afpubs.hq.af.mil.</I> DoD publications are available at <I>http://www.defenselink.mil/pubs.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C [RESERVED]   " NODE="32:6.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="32:6.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—CLAIMS AND LITIGATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="842" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 842—ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 8013, 100 Stat. 1053, as amended; 10 U.S.C. 8013, except as otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Air Force Regulations are available on the e-Publishing Web site at <I>http://www.e-publishing.af.mil/</I> for downloading. This part is derived from Air Force Instruction 51-501, <I>Tort Claims,</I> and Air Force Instruction 51-502, <I>Personnel and Carrier Recovery Claims.</I></P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 842 appear at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.0" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes standard policies and procedures for all administrative claims resulting from Air Force activities and for which the Air Force has assigned responsibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.1   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart explains terms used in this part. It states basic Air Force claims policy and identifies proper claimants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized agent.</I> Any person or corporation, including a legal representative, empowered to act on a claimant's behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civilian personnel.</I> Civilian employees of the Air Force who are paid from appropriated or nonappropriated funds. They include prisoners of war, interned enemy aliens performing paid labor, and volunteer workers except for claims under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim.</I> Any signed written demand made on or by the Air Force for the payment of a sum certain. It does not include any obligations incurred in the regular procurement of services, supplies, equipment, or real estate. An oral demand made under Article 139, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is sufficient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claimant.</I> An individual, partnership, association, corporation, country, state, territory, or its political subdivisions, and the District of Columbia. The U.S. Government or any of its instrumentalities may be a claimant in admiralty, tort, carrier recovery and hospital recovery claims in favor of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Geographic area of claims responsibility.</I> The base Staff Judge Advocate's (SJA's) jurisdiction for claims. CONUS jurisdictional areas are designated by AFLOA/JACC on maps distributed to the field. HQ PACAF, HQ USAFE, and HQ 9AF SJAs designate these areas within their jurisdictions. DOD assigns areas of single service responsibility to each military department.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>AFLOA/JACC.</I> Claims and Tort Litigation Division, 1500 West Perimeter Road, Suite 1700, Joint Base Andrews, MD 20762.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Owner.</I> A holder of a legal title or an equitable interest in certain property. Specific examples include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For real property.</I> The mortgagor, and the mortgagee if that individual can maintain a cause of action in the local courts involving a tort to that specific property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For personal property.</I> A bailee, lessee, mortgagee and a conditional vendee. A mortgagor, conditional vendor, title loan company or someone else other than the owner, who has the title for purposes of security are not owners.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>HQ PACAF.</I> Headquarters, Pacific Air Forces, Hickam AFB, HI 96853-5001.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Personal injury.</I> The term “personal injury” includes both bodily injury and death.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Property damage.</I> Damage to, loss of, or destruction of real or personal property.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Settle.</I> To consider and pay, or deny a claim in full or in part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Single Base General Court-Martial Jurisdiction (GCM).</I> For claims purposes, a base legal office serving the commander who exercises GCM authority over that base, or that base and other bases.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Subrogation.</I> The act of assuming the legal rights of another after paying a claim or debt, for example, an insurance company (subrogee) paying its insured's (subrogor's) claim, thereby assuming the insured's right of recovery.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>HQ USAFE.</I> Headquarters, United States Air Forces in Europe, Ramstein Air Base, Germany, APO NY 09012-5001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 1574, Jan. 16, 1991; 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.3   Claims authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appellate authority.</I> The individual authorized to review the final decision of a settlement authority upon appeal or reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The individual or foreign claims commission authorized to settle a claim upon its initial presentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.4   Where to file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>File a claim at the base legal office of the unit or installation at or nearest to where the accident or incident occurred. If the accident or incident occurred in a foreign country where no Air Force unit is located, file the claim with the Defense Attache (DATT) or Military Assistance Advisory Group (MAAG) personnel authorized to receive claims (DIAM 100-1 and AFR 400-45). In a foreign country where a claimant is unable to obtain adequate assistance in filing a claim, the claimant may contact the nearest Air Force SJA. The SJA then advises AFLOA/JACC through claims channels of action taken and states why the DATT or MAAG was unable to adequately assist the claimant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.5   Claims forms.</HEAD>
<P>Any signed written demand on the Air Force for a sum certain is sufficient to file a claim. The claimant should use these forms when filing a claim:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Claim processed under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.</I> Use AF Form 180, Claim for Loss of or Damage to Personal Property Incident to Service, or DD Forms 1842, Claim for Personal Property Against the United States, and 1844, Schedule of Property and Claim Analysis Chart, to file the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim processed under international agreements.</I> Use any form specified by the host country.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Any other type claim.</I> Use SF 95, Claim for Damage, Injury, or Death.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.6   Signature on the claim form.</HEAD>
<P>The claimant or authorized agent signs the claim form in ink using the first name, middle initial, and last name.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Claim filed by an individual.</I> (1) A married woman signs her name, for example, Mary A. Doe, rather than Mrs. John Doe.
</P>
<P>(2) An authorized agent signing for a claimant shows, after the signature, the title or capacity and attaches evidence of authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant as agent, executor, administrator, parent, guardian, or other representative; for example, John Doe by Richard Roe, Attorney in Fact. A copy of a current and valid power of attorney, court order, or other legal document is sufficient evidence of the agent's authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim with joint interest.</I> Where a joint ownership or interest in real property exists, all joint owners must sign the claim form. This includes a husband and wife signing a claim if the claim is for property damage. However, only the military member or civilian employee signs the claim form for a claim under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim filed by a corporation.</I> (1) A corporate officer signing the form must show title or capacity and affix the corporate seal (if any) to the claim form.
</P>
<P>(2) If the person signing the claim is other than the corporate officer they must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Attach to the claim form a certification by a proper corporate officer that the individual is an agent of the corporation duly authorized to file and settle the claim;
</P>
<P>(ii) Affix to the claim form the corporate seal (if any) to the certification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claim filed by a partnership.</I> A partner must sign the form showing his or her title as partner and list the full name of the partnership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.7   Who may file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Property damage.</I> The owner or owners of the property or their authorized agent may file a claim for property damage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury or death.</I> (1) The injured person or authorized agent may file a claim for personal injury.
</P>
<P>(2) The duly appointed guardian of a minor child or any other person legally entitled to do so under applicable local law may file a claim for a minor's personal injury.
</P>
<P>(3) The executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or any other person legally entitled to do so under applicable local law may file a claim based on an individual's death.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subrogation.</I> The subrogor (insured) and the subrogee (insurer) may file a claim jointly or individually. Pay a fully subrogated claim only to the subrogee. A joint claim must be asserted in the names of and signed by the real parties in interest. Make payment by sending a joint check to the subrogee, made payable to the subroger and subrogee. If separate claims are filed, make payment by check issued to each claimant to the extent of each undisputed interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.8" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.8   Insured claimants.</HEAD>
<P>Insured claimants must make a detailed disclosure of their insurance coverage by stating:
</P>
<P>(a) Their name and address.
</P>
<P>(b) Kind, amount, and dates of coverage of insurance.
</P>
<P>(c) Insurance policy number.
</P>
<P>(d) Whether a claim was presented to the insurer and, if so, in what amount.
</P>
<P>(e) Whether the insurer paid or is expected to pay the claim.
</P>
<P>(f) The amount of any payment made or promised.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Claims Under Article 139, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) (10 U.S.C. 939)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.9" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.9   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>It sets out the Air Force procedures for processing Article 139, UCMJ claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.10" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointing commander.</I> The commander exercising special court-martial jurisdiction over the offender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board of officers.</I> One to three commissioned officers appointed to investigate a complaint of willful property damage or wrongful taking by Air Force personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property.</I> Property is an item that is owned or possessed by an individual or business. Property includes a tangible item such as clothing, household furnishings, motor vehicles, real property, and currency. The term does not include intangible property or items having no independent monetary worth. Items that should not be considered as property for the purpose of this part include a stock, bond, check, check book, credit card, telephone service and cable television services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Willful damage.</I> Damage or destruction caused intentionally, knowingly, and purposely, without justifiable excuse.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Wrongful taking.</I> Any unauthorized taking or withholding of property with intent to deprive the owner or person in lawful possession either temporarily or permanently.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.11" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.11   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims for property willfully damaged or wrongfully taken by Air Force military personnel as a result of riotous, violent, or disorderly conduct. If a claim is payable under this part and also under another part, it may be paid under this part if authorized by AFLOA/JACC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.12" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.12   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims that are not payable are:
</P>
<P>(a) Claims resulting from simple negligence. 
</P>
<P>(b) Claims for personal injury or death. 
</P>
<P>(c) Claims resulting from acts or omissions of Air Force military personnel while acting within the scope of their duty. 
</P>
<P>(d) Claims of subrogees. 
</P>
<P>(e) Claims arising from private indebtedness. 
</P>
<P>(f) Claims for reimbursement for bad checks.
</P>
<P>(g) Claims involving wrongful taking stemming from larceny, forgery or deceit, which are not accompanied by riotous or violent action.
</P>
<P>(h) Claims against Air National Guard members unless they are performing duty under Title 10 U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(i) Claims for indirect, consequential or remote damages.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.13" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.13   Limiting provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint must be submitted within 90 days of the date of the incident. The appointing commander may find good cause for the delay and accept a late claim. The appointing commander's determination of good cause is final and not reviewable.
</P>
<P>(b) Assessment of damages in excess of $5,000 against an offender's pay for a single incident requires AFLOA/JACC approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.14" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.14   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>Claimant complains (orally or in writing) to the commander of a military organization or unit of the alleged offending member or members or to the commander of the nearest military installation. If the claim is made orally, the individual must assist the commander to reduce the complaint to writing within a reasonable time. The complainant need not request a sum certain in writing at the time the complaint is filed, but they must present such value and evidence before settlement is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Personnel Claims (31 U.S.C. 3701, 3721)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.15" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.15   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>It explains how to settle and pay claims under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act for incident to service loss and damage of personal property. These claims are paid according to this subpart even when another subpart may also apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.16" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.16   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Military installation.</I> A facility used to serve a military purpose and used or controlled by the Air Force or any other Department of Defense (DOD) element. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal property.</I> Tangible property an individual owns, including but not limited to household goods, unaccompanied baggage, privately owned vehicles (POV), and mobile homes. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration.</I> The original or a higher settlement authority's review of a prior settlement action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unusual Occurrence.</I> Something not expected to happen in the normal course of events.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.17" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.17   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The Secretary of the Air Force has delegated the authority to assign areas of responsibility and designate functional responsibility for claims under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act to The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reconsideration authority.</I> A settlement authority has the same authority specified in paragraph (a) of this section. However, with the exception of TJAG, a settlement authority may not deny a claim on reconsideration that it, or its delegate, had previously denied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw and restore delegated settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.18" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.18   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How and when to file a claim.</I> A claim is filed when a federal military agency receives from a claimant or duly authorized agent a properly completed AF Form 180, DD Form 1842 or other written and signed demand for a determinable sum of money.
</P>
<P>(1) A claim is also filed when a federal military agency receives from a claimant or duly authorized agent an electronic submission, through a Department of Defense claims Web site, indicating that the claimant intends for the appropriate military branch to consider a digitally signed demand for a determinable sum of money.
</P>
<P>(2) A claim is also filed when the Air Force receives from a claimant or duly authorized agent an electronic submission, through the Air Force claims Web site, a digitally signed demand for a determinable sum of money.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amending a claim.</I> A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to the expiration of the statute of limitations by submitting a signed amendment. The settlement authority adjudicates and settles or forwards the amended claim as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separate claims.</I> The claimant files a separate claim for each incident which caused a loss. For transportation claims, this means a separate claim for each shipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.19" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.19   Partial payments.</HEAD>
<P>Upon request of a claimant, a settlement authority may make a partial payment in advance of final settlement when a claimant experiences personal hardship due to extensive property damage or loss. Partial payments are made if a claim for only part of the loss is submitted and is readily provable, up to the amount of the settlement authority. (The claimant may later amend the claim for the remainder of the loss.) If the total payable amount of the claim exceeds the payment limits of the settlement authority, send it with recommendations to the proper settlement authority.
</P>
<P>(a) If a claim for only part of the loss is submitted and is readily provable, pay it up to the amount of the settlement authority. (The claimant may later amend the claim for the remainder of the loss.) If the total payable amount of the claim exceeds the payment limits of the settlement authority, send it with recommendations through claims channels to the proper settlement authority.
</P>
<P>(b) When the total claim is submitted and the amount payable exceeds the settlement authority, pay a partial payment within the limits of settlement authority and send the claim, with recommendations, through claims channels to the proper settlement authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, 83689, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.20" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.20   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The claimant must file the claim in writing within 2 years after it accrues. It accrues when the claimant discovered or reasonably should have discovered the full extent of the property damage or loss. For transportation losses, the claim usually accrues on the date of delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) To compute the statutory period, the incident date is excluded and the day the claim was filed is included.
</P>
<P>(c) Consider a claim filed after the statute has run if both of the following are present:
</P>
<P>(1) The United States is at war or in an armed conflict when the claim accrues, or the United States enters a war or armed conflict after the claim accrues. Congress or the President establishes the beginning and end of war or armed conflict. A claimant may not file a claim more than 2 years after the war or armed conflict ends.
</P>
<P>(2) Good cause is shown. A claimant may not file a claim more than 2 years after the good cause ceases to exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.21" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.21   Who may file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>A claim may be filed by:
</P>
<P>(a) A proper claimant.
</P>
<P>(b) An authorized agent or legal representative of a proper claimant.
</P>
<P>(c) A survivor of a deceased proper claimant in this order:
</P>
<P>(1) Spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) Children.
</P>
<P>(3) Father or mother.
</P>
<P>(4) Brothers or sisters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83689, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.22" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.22   Who are proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>Proper claimants are:
</P>
<P>(a) Active duty Air Force military personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Civilian employees of the Air Force who are paid from appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(c) DOD school teachers and school administrative personnel who are provided logistic and administrative support by an Air Force installation commander.
</P>
<P>(d) Air Force Reserve (AFRES) and Air National Guard (ANG) personnel when performing active duty, full-time National Guard duty, or inactive duty training, ANG technicians under 32 U.S.C. 709.
</P>
<P>(e) Retired or separated Air Force military personnel who suffer damage or loss resulting from the last storage or movement of personal property, or for claims accruing before retirement or separation.
</P>
<P>(f) AFROTC cadets while on active duty for summer training.
</P>
<P>(g) United States Air Force Academy cadets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.23" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.23   Who are not proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>The following individuals are not proper claimants:
</P>
<P>(a) Subrogees and assignees of proper claimants, including insurance companies.
</P>
<P>(b) Conditional vendors and lienholders.
</P>
<P>(c) Non-Air Force personnel, including American Red Cross personnel, United Services Organization (USO) performers, employees of government contractors, and Civil Air Patrol (CAP) members.
</P>
<P>(d) AFROTC cadets who are not on active duty for summer training.
</P>
<P>(e) Active duty military personnel and civilian employees of a military service other than the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(f) DOD employees who are not assigned to the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(g) Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) employees and other employees whose salaries are paid from nonappropriated funds (see subpart O).
</P>
<P>(h) Military personnel of foreign governments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.24" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.24   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Payable claims must be for:
</P>
<P>(a) Personal property which is reasonable or useful under the circumstances of military service.
</P>
<P>(b) Loss, damage, destruction, confiscation, or forced abandonment which is incident to service.
</P>
<P>(c) Losses that are not collectible from any other source, including insurance and carriers.
</P>
<P>(d) Property that is owned by the claimants, or their immediate families, or borrowed for their use, or in which the claimants or their immediate families has an enforceable ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(e) Losses occurring without the claimants' negligence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, 83689, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.25" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.25   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims may be payable for loss of or damage to tangible personal property when the damage occurs incident to service. For loss of or damage to property to be incident to service, it must occur at a place and time that is connected to the service of an active duty military member or employment of a civilian employee.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized location.</I> Claims are only payable when the claimed property is located in an authorized location. There must be some connection between the claimant's service and the location of the claimed property. Duty locations where personal property is used, stored or held because of official duties are authorized places. Other authorized places may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any location on a military installation not otherwise excluded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any office, building, recreation area, or real estate the Air Force or any other DoD element uses or controls.
</P>
<P>(3) Any place a military member is required or ordered to be pursuant to their duties and while performing those duties.
</P>
<P>(4) Assigned Government housing or quarters in the United States or provided in kind. The Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act specifically prohibits payment for loss of or damage to property in quarters within the U.S. unless the housing or quarters are assigned or otherwise provided in kind. Base housing that has not been privatized is generally considered assigned or provided in kind wherever it is located.
</P>
<P>(i) Privatized housing or quarters within the United States subject to the Military Housing Privatization Initiative located within the fence line of a military installation or on federal land in which the DoD has an interest is considered assigned or otherwise provided in kind for the purposes of the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) Housing or quarters outside the United States. Outside the US, authorized off-base quarters, as well as assigned quarters, including quarters in U.S. territories and possessions, are authorized places. The residence of a civilian employee is not an authorized location if the employee is a local inhabitant.
</P>
<P>(6) Temporary duty (TDY) quarters and locations en route to the TDY destination. Significant deviations from the direct travel route are not authorized locations.
</P>
<P>(7) Permanent change of station (PCS) temporary quarters and locations enroute to the PCS destination. Significant deviations from the direct travel route are not authorized locations.
</P>
<P>(8) Entitlement and benefit locations. For these locations to be authorized, the claimant must be using them for the intended purpose and the property must be reasonably linked to that purpose.
</P>
<P>(9) Locations where personal property shipped or stored at government expense are found. Government facilities where property is stored at the claimant's expense or for their convenience without an entitlement are not authorized places.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payable causes of loss incident to service.</I> Because the Personnel Claims Act (PCA) is not a substitute for private insurance, loss or damage at quarters or other authorized locations may only be paid if caused by:
</P>
<P>(1) An unusual occurrence;
</P>
<P>(2) Theft, vandalism or other malfeasance;
</P>
<P>(3) Hostile action;
</P>
<P>(4) A carrier, contractor, warehouseman or other transportation service provider storing or moving goods or privately owned vehicles at government expense;
</P>
<P>(5) An agent of the US; or
</P>
<P>(6) A permanent seizure of a witness' property by the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privately owned vehicles (POV).</I> Pay for damage to or loss of POVs caused by government negligence under subpart F or K. Pay under this subpart for damage or loss incident to:
</P>
<P>(1) Theft of POVs or their contents, or vandalism to parked POVs:
</P>
<P>(i) Anywhere on a military installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) At offbase quarters overseas.
</P>
<P>(iii) At other authorized places.
</P>
<P>(2) Government shipment:
</P>
<P>(i) To or from oversea areas incident to PCS.
</P>
<P>(ii) On a space available reimbursable basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) As a replacement vehicle under the provisions of the Joint Travel Regulations (JTR).
</P>
<P>(3) Authorized use for government duty other than PCS moves. The owner must have specific advance permission of the appropriate supervisor or official. Adequate proof of the permission and of nonavailability of official transportation must be provided prior to paying such claims. Claims arising while the claimant is deviating from the principal route or purpose of the trip should not be paid, but claims occurring after the claimant returns to the route or purpose should be paid. Travel between quarters and place of duty, including parking, is not authorized use for government duty.
</P>
<P>(4) Paint spray, smokestack emission, and other similar operations by the Air Force on a military installation caused by a contractor's negligence. (Process the claim under subpart F or K, if government negligence causes such losses.) If a contractor's operation caused the damage:
</P>
<P>(i) Refer the claim first to the contractor for settlement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Settle the claim under this subpart if the contractor does not pay it or excessively delays payment, and assert a claim against the contractor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Damage to mobile or manufactured homes and contents in shipment.</I> Pay such claims if there is no evidence of structural or mechanical failure for which the manufacturer is responsible.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Borrowed property.</I> Pay for loss or damage to property claimants borrow for their use. Either the borrower or lender, if proper claimants, may file a claim. Do not pay for property borrowed to accommodate the lender, i.e., such as to avoid weight or baggage restrictions in travel.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Marine or aircraft incident.</I> Pay claims of crewmembers and passengers who are in duty or leave status at the time of the incident. Payable items include jettisoned baggage, clothing worn at the time of an incident, and reasonable amounts of money, jewelry, and other personal items.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combat losses.</I> Pay for personal property losses, whether or not the United States was involved, due to:
</P>
<P>(1) Enemy action.
</P>
<P>(2) Action to prevent capture and confiscation.
</P>
<P>(3) Combat activities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Civil activity losses.</I> Pay for losses resulting from a claimant's acts to:
</P>
<P>(1) Quell a civil disturbance.
</P>
<P>(2) Assist during a public disaster.
</P>
<P>(3) Save human life.
</P>
<P>(4) Save government property.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Confiscated property.</I> Pay for losses when:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign government unjustly confiscates property.
</P>
<P>(2) An unjust change or application of foreign law forces surrender or abandonmnet of property.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Clothing and accessories worn on the person.</I> Pay claims for damage to eyeglasses, hearing aids, and dentures the government did not supply, when the damage results from actions beyond the normal risks associated with daily living and working. Claimants assume the risk of normal wear and tear, and their negligence bars payment of the claim.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Money losses.</I> Pay claims for loss of money when the losses are due to theft from quarters, other authorized places, or from the person, if the claimant was required to be in the area and could not avoid the theft by due care. As a general rule, $200.00 is reasonable to have in quarters, and $100.00 is reasonable to have on the person unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The money was in a bona fide coin collection.
</P>
<P>(2) The claimant can justify possession of the money for a PCS move, extended TDY, vacation, extensive shopping trip, or similar circumstances. The claimant must show a good reason why the money had not been deposited in a bank or converted into travelers checks or a money order.
</P>
<P>(3) Local commercial facilities are not available or because U.S. personnel do not generally use such facilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, 83689, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.26" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.26   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable if:
</P>
<P>(a) It is not incident to the claimant's service.
</P>
<P>(b) The loss or damage is caused in whole or in part by the negligence or wrongful act of the claimant, the claimant's spouse, agent, or employee.
</P>
<P>(c) It is a subrogation or assigned claim.
</P>
<P>(d) The loss is recovered or recoverable from an insurer or other source unless the settlement authority determines there is good cause for not claiming against the insurer.
</P>
<P>(e) It is intangible property including bank books, promissory notes, stock certificates, bonds, baggage checks, insurance policies, checks, money orders, travelers checks and credit cards.
</P>
<P>(f) It is government property, including issued clothing items carried on an individual issue supply account. (Clothing not carried on an individual issue supply account which is stolen or clothing lost or damaged in transit may be considered as a payable item when claimed.)
</P>
<P>(g) It is enemy property.
</P>
<P>(h) It is a loss within the United States at offbase quarters the government did not provide.
</P>
<P>(i) It is damage to real property.
</P>
<P>(j) It is an appraisal fee, unless the settlement authority requires one to adjudicate the claim.
</P>
<P>(k) It is property acquired or shipped for persons other than the claimant or the claimant's immediate family; however, a claim for property acquired for bona fide gifts may be paid.
</P>
<P>(l) It is an article held for sale, resale, or used primarily in a private business.
</P>
<P>(m) It is an item acquired, possessed, shipped, or stored in violation of any U.S. Armed Force directive or regulation.
</P>
<P>(n) It is an item fraudulently claimed.
</P>
<P>(o) It is for charges for labor performed by the owner or immediate family member.
</P>
<P>(p) It is for financial loss due to changed or cancelled orders.
</P>
<P>(q) It is for expenses of enroute repair of a mobile or manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(r) It is a loss of use of personal property.
</P>
<P>(s) It is an attorney or agent fee.
</P>
<P>(t) It is the cost of preparing a claim, other than estimate fees.
</P>
<P>(u) It is an inconvenience expense.
</P>
<P>(v) It is a loss of, or damage to POV driven during PCS.
</P>
<P>(w) It is a personal property insurance premium.
</P>
<P>(x) It is a claim for a thesis or other similar papers, except for the cost of materials.
</P>
<P>(y) It is damage to, or loss of a rental vehicle which TDY or PCS orders authorized.
</P>
<P>(z) It is a cost to relocate a telephone or mobile or manufactured home due to a government ordered quarters move.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83688, 83689, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.27" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.27   Reconsideration of a claim.</HEAD>
<P>A claimant may request reconsideration of an initial settlement or denial of a claim. The claimant sends the request in writing, to the settlement authority within a reasonable time following the initial settlement or denial. Sixty days is considered a reasonable time, but the settlement authority may waive the time limit for good cause.
</P>
<P>(a) The original settlement authority reviews the reconsideration request. The settlement authority sends the entire claim file with recommendations and supporting rationale to the next higher settlement authority if all relief the claimant requests is not granted.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the higher settlement authority is the final administrative action on the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.28" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.28   Right of subrogation, indemnity, and contribution.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force becomes subrogated to the rights of the claimant upon settling a claim. The Air Force has the rights of contribution and indemnity permitted by the law of the situs or under contract. The Air Force does not seek contribution or indemnity from U.S. military personnel or civilian employees whose conduct in scope of employment gave rise to government liability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.29" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.29   Depreciation and maximum allowances.</HEAD>
<P>The military services have jointly established the “Allowance List-Depreciation Guide” to determine values for most items and to limit payment for some categories of items.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83688, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Military Claims Act (10 U.S.C. 2733)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.30" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.30   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes policies and procedures for all administrative claims under the Military Claims Act for which the Air Force has assigned responsibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.31" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal.</I> A request by the claimant or claimant's authorized agent to reevaluate the final decision. A request for reconsideration and an appeal are the same for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final denial.</I> A letter mailed from the settlement authority to the claimant or authorized agent advising the claimant that the Air Force denies the claim. Final denial letters mailed from within the United States shall be sent by U.S. Mail, certified mail, return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncombat activity.</I> Activity, other than combat, war or armed conflict, that is particularly military in character and has little parallel in the civilian community.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.32" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.32   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> (1) The Secretary of the Air Force has authority to:
</P>
<P>(i) Settle claims for $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Settle claims for more than $100,000, paying the first $100,000 and reporting the excess to the General Accounting Office for payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny a claim in any amount. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General has delegated authority to settle claims for $100,000 or less and deny claims in any amount. 
</P>
<P>(3) The following individuals have delegated authority to settle claims for $25,000 or less and to deny claims in any amount:
</P>
<P>(i) The Deputy Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director, Civil Law and Litigation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Chief, Associate Chief and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation Division.
</P>
<P>(4) SJAs of the Air Force component commander of the U.S. geographic combatant commands for claims arising within their respective combatant command areas of responsibility have delegated authority to settle claims payable or deny claims filed for $25,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(5) SJAs of GCMs in PACAF and USAFE have delegated authority to settle claims payable, or deny claims filed for $15,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> The Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation Division may redelegate his or her authority to Staff Judge Advocates. A settlement authority may redelegate his or her authority for claims not exceeding $25,000, to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney in writing. The Chief, AFLOA/JACC may redelegate up to $25,000, in writing, to paralegals assigned to AFLOA/JACC and, upon request, may authorize installation Staff Judge Advocates to redelegate their settlement authority to paralegals under their supervision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appellate authority.</I> Upon appeal, a settlement authority has the same authority specified above. However, no appellate authority below the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force may deny an appeal of a claim it had previously denied. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement negotiations.</I> A settlement authority may settle a claim in any sum within its delegated settlement authority, regardless of the amount claimed. Send uncompromised claims in excess of the delegated authority to the level with settlement authority. Unsuccessful negotiations at one level do not bind higher authority. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special exceptions.</I> Do not settle or deny claims for the following reasons without AFLOA/JACC approval:
</P>
<P>(1) Legal malpractice. 
</P>
<P>(2) On the job personal injury or death of an employee of a government contractor or subcontractor. 
</P>
<P>(3) Assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, abuse of process, or malicious prosecution committed by an investigative or law enforcement officer. 
</P>
<P>(4) On-base animal bite cases. 
</P>
<P>(5) Personal injury from asbestos or radon. 
</P>
<P>(6) Claims based upon an act or omission of an employee of the government, exercising due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(7) Claims based upon the exercise or performance or the failure to exercise or perform a discretionary function or duty on the part of a federal agency or an employee of the government. 
</P>
<P>(8) Claims not payable because payment is not in the best interests of the United States, is contrary to public policy, or is otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the MCA.
</P>
<P>(9) Claims presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the United States, or any country allied with such enemy country. 
</P>
<P>(10) Medical malpractice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 1574, Jan. 16, 1991. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.33" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.33   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Elements of a proper claim.</I> A claim is must be filed on a Standard Form 95 or other written document. It must be signed by the Claimant or authorized agent, be for money damages in a sum certain, and lay out a basic statement as to the nature of the claim that will allow the Air Force to investigate the allegations contained therein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amending a claim.</I> A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to final action. To amend a claim, the claimant or his or her authorized agent must submit a written, signed demand. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.34" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.34   Advance payments.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart P of this part sets forth procedures for advance payments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.35" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.35   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim must be filed in writing within 2 years after it accrues. It is deemed to be filed upon receipt by The Judge Advocate General, AFLOA/JACC, or a Staff Judge Advocate of the Air Force. A claim accrues when the claimant discovers or reasonably should have discovered the existence of the act that resulted in the claimed loss. The same rules governing accrual pursuant to the Federal Tort Claims Act should be applied with respect to the Military Claims Act. Upon receipt of a claim that properly belongs with another military department, the claim is promptly transferred to that department.
</P>
<P>(b) The statutory time period excludes the day of the incident and includes the day the claim was filed.
</P>
<P>(c) A claim filed after the statute of limitations has run is considered if the U.S. is at war or in an armed conflict when the claim accrues or if the U.S. enters a war or armed conflict after the claim accrues, and if good causes shows how the war or armed conflict prevented the claimant from diligently filing the claim within the statute of limitations. But in no case will a claim be considered if filed more than two years after the war or armed conflict ends.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.36" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.36   Who may file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Owners of the property or their authorized agents may file claims for property damage.
</P>
<P>(b) Injured persons or their duly authorized agents may file claims for personal injury.
</P>
<P>(c) Duly appointed guardians of minor children or any other persons legally entitled to do so under applicable local law may file claims for minors' personal injuries. 
</P>
<P>(d) Executors or administrators of a decedent's estate or another person legally entitled to do so under applicable local law, may file claims based on:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual's death.
</P>
<P>(2) A cause of action surviving an individual's death.
</P>
<P>(e) Insurers with subrogation rights may file claims for losses paid in full by them. The parties may file claims jointly or individually, to the extent of each party's interest, for losses partially paid by insurers with subrogation rights.
</P>
<P>(f) Authorized agents signing claims show their title or legal capacity and present evidence of authority to present the claims. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.37" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.37   Who are proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Citizens and inhabitants of the United States. U.S. inhabitants includes dependents of the U.S. military personnel and federal civilian employees temporarily outside the U.S. for purposes of U.S. Government service.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. military personnel and civilian employees. Note: These personnel are not proper claimants for claims for personal injury or death that occurred incident to their service.
</P>
<P>(c) Foreign military personnel when the damage or injury occurs in the U.S. Do not pay for claims under the Military Claims Act (MCA) for personal injury or death of a foreign military personnel that occurred incident to their service.
</P>
<P>(d) States, state agencies, counties, or municipalities, or their political subdivisions.
</P>
<P>(e) Subrogees of proper claimants to the extent they have paid for the claim in question. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.38" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.38   Who are not proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Governments of foreign nations, their agencies, political subdivisions, or municipalities.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies and nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFIs) of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(c) Subrogees of § 842.42(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(d) Inhabitants of foreign countries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.39" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.39   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims arising from negligent or wrongful acts or omissions committed by United States military or civilian personnel while acting in the scope of their employment, subject to the exceptions listed in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims arising from noncombat activities of the United States, whether or not such injuries of damages arose out of the negligent or wrongful acts or omissions by United States military or civilian employees acting within the scope of their employment.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims for property damage of U.S. military personnel under conditions listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, where the damage occurred on a military installation and is not payable under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 32076, Aug. 7, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.40" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.40   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims covered by the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA), Foreign Claims Act (FCA), International Agreements Claims Act (IACA), 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b, Air Force Admiralty Claims Act (AFACA), 10 U.S.C. 9801-9804, 9806, National Guard Claims Act (NGCA), 32 U.S.C. 715, or covered under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act (MPCECA), 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3721.
</P>
<P>(1) MCA claims arising from noncombat activities in the U.S. are not covered by the FTCA because more elements are needed to state an FTCA claim than are needed to state a claim under the MCA for noncombat activities. All FTCA claims are based on elements of traditional tort liability (<I>i.e.,</I> duty, breach, causation, and damages); that is, they are fault based. Noncombat activity claims under the MCA are based solely on causation and damages. Because MCA claims for noncombat activities are not fault based, they are not covered by the FTCA.
</P>
<P>(2) Claims for incident-to-service damage to vehicles caused by the negligence of a member or employee of the armed forces acting in the scope of employment are paid under the MCA, instead of the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Arises with respect to the assessment or collection of any customs duty, or the detention of any goods or merchandise by any U.S. officer of customs or excise, or any other U.S. law enforcement officer. Note: This includes loss or damage to property detained by members of the Security Forces or Office of Special Investigation (OSI).
</P>
<P>(c) Is cognizable under U.S. admiralty and maritime law, to include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Suits in Admiralty Act, 46 U.S.C. 30901 and following.
</P>
<P>(2) The Death on the High Seas Act, 46 U.S.C. 30301 and following.
</P>
<P>(3) The Public Vessels Act, 46 U.S.C. 31101 and following.
</P>
<P>(4) Exception: Claims arising from noncombat activities may be paid under the MCA, even if they are also cognizable under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Arises out of assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, malicious prosecution, or abuse of process. Exception: Unless such actions were committed by an investigative or law enforcement officer of the U.S. who is empowered by law to conduct searches, seize evidence, or make arrests for violations of federal law.
</P>
<P>(e) Arises out of libel, slander, misrepresentation, or deceit.
</P>
<P>(f) Arises out of an interference with contract rights.
</P>
<P>(g) Arises out of the combat activities of U.S. military forces.
</P>
<P>(h) Is for the personal injury or death of a member of the Armed Forces of the U.S. incident to the member's service.
</P>
<P>(i) Is for the personal injury or death of any person for workplace injuries covered by the Federal Employees' Compensation Act, 5 U.S.C. 8101, and following.
</P>
<P>(j) Is for the personal injury or death of any employee of the US, including nonappropriated fund employees, for workplace injuries covered by the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 901, and following.
</P>
<P>(k) Is for a taking of property, <I>e.g.,</I> by technical trespass or over flight of aircraft.
</P>
<P>(l) Is for patent or copyright infringement.
</P>
<P>(m) Results wholly from the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant.
</P>
<P>(n) Is for the reimbursement of medical, hospital, or burial expenses furnished at the expense of the US, either directly or through contractual payments.
</P>
<P>(o) Arises from contractual transactions, express or implied (including rental agreements, sales agreements, leases, and easements), that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are payable or enforceable under oral or written contracts; or
</P>
<P>(2) Arise out of an irregular procurement or implied contract.
</P>
<P>(p) Is for the personal injury or death of military or civilian personnel of a foreign government incident to their service.
</P>
<P>(q) Is based on an act or omission of an employee of the government, exercising due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation, whether or not such statute or regulation is valid. Do not deny claims solely on this exception without the prior approval of USAF/JACC. Claims under the noncombat activities provision of this subpart may be paid even if this paragraph (q) applies. Is based on the exercise or performance of, or the failure to exercise or perform, a discretionary function or duty on the part of a federal agency or a Federal Government employee, whether or not the discretion involved is abused. Do not deny claims solely on this exception without the prior approval of USAF/JACC. Exception: Claims under the noncombat activities provision may be paid even if this paragraph (q) applies.
</P>
<P>(r) Is not in the best interests of the US, is contrary to public policy, or is otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the MCA. Examples include, but are not limited to, when a claimant's criminal conduct or failure to comply with a nonpunitive regulation is a proximate cause of the loss. Prior approval must be obtained from USAF/JACC before denying claims solely on this exception.
</P>
<P>(s) Arises out of an act or omission of any employee of the government in administering the provisions of the Trading With the Enemy Act, 50 U.S.C. app. 1-44.
</P>
<P>(t) Is for damages caused by the imposition or establishment of a quarantine by the U.S.
</P>
<P>(u) Arises from the fiscal operations of the Department of the Treasury or from the regulation of the monetary system.
</P>
<P>(v) Arises from the activities of the Tennessee Valley Authority.
</P>
<P>(w) Arises from the activities of a federal land bank, a federal intermediate credit bank, or a bank for cooperatives.
</P>
<P>(x) Is for the personal injury or death of any government contractor employee for whom benefits are available under any worker's compensation law, or under any contract or agreement providing employee benefits through insurance, local law, or custom when the U.S. pays insurance either directly or as part of the consideration under the contract. Only USAF/JACC may act on these claims.
</P>
<P>(y) Is for damage, injury or death from or by flood or flood waters at any place.
</P>
<P>(z) Is for damage to property or other losses of a state, commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia caused by Air National Guard personnel engaged in training or duty under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504, or 505 who are assigned to a unit maintained by that state, commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(aa) Is for damage to property or for any death or personal injury arising out of activities of any federal agency or employee of the government in carrying out the provisions of the Disaster Relief Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5121, <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P>(bb) Arises from activities that present a political question.
</P>
<P>(cc) Arises from private, as distinguished from government, transactions.
</P>
<P>(dd) Is based solely on compassionate grounds.
</P>
<P>(ee) Is for rent, damage, or other expenses or payments involving the regular acquisition, use, possession, or disposition of real property or interests therein by and for the U.S.
</P>
<P>(ff) Is presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the U.S., or any country allied with such enemy country unless the appropriate settlement authority determines that the claimant is, and at the time of the incident was, friendly to the U.S. A prisoner of war or an interned enemy alien is not excluded as to a claim for damage, loss, or destruction of personal property in the custody of the U.S. otherwise payable. Forward claims considered not payable under this paragraph (ff), with recommendations for disposition, to USAF/JACC.
</P>
<P>(gg) Arises out of the loss, miscarriage, or negligent transmission of letters or postal matter by the U.S. Postal Service or its agents or employees.
</P>
<P>(hh) Is for damage to or loss of bailed property when the bailor specifically assumes such risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Is for property damage, personal injury, or death occurring in a foreign country to an inhabitant of a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(jj) Is for interest incurred prior to the payment of a claim.
</P>
<P>(kk) Arises out of matters which are in litigation against the U.S.
</P>
<P>(ll) Is for attorney fees or costs in connection with pursuing an administrative or judicial remedy against the U.S. or any of its agencies.
</P>
<P>(mm) Is for bail, interest or inconvenience expenses incurred in connection with the preparation and presentation of the claim.
</P>
<P>(nn) Is for a failure to use a duty of care to keep premises owned or under the control of the U.S. safe for use for any recreational purpose, or for a failure by the U.S. to give any warning of hazardous conditions on such premises to persons entering for a recreational purpose unless there is a willful or malicious failure to guard or warn against a dangerous condition, or unless consideration was paid to the U.S. (including a nonappropriated fund instrumentality) to use the premises.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83691, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.41" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.41   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides the existing law governing liability, measurement of liability and the effects of settlement upon awards.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Federal preemption.</I> Many of the exclusions in this subpart are based upon the wording of 28 U.S.C. 2680 or other federal statutes or court decisions interpreting the Federal Tort Claims Act. Federal case law interpreting the same exclusions under the Federal Tort Claims Act is applied to the Military Claims Act. Where state law differs with federal law, federal law prevails.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extent of liability.</I> Where the claim arises is important in determining the extent of liability.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable law.</I> When a claim arises in the United States, its territories or possessions, the same law as if the claim was cognizable under the FTCA will be applied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims in foreign countries.</I> In claims arising in a foreign country, where the claim is for personal injury, death, or damage to or loss of real or personal property caused by an act or omission alleged to be negligent, wrongful, or otherwise involving fault of military personnel or civilian officers or employees of the United States acting within the scope of their employment, liability or the United States is determined according to federal case law interpreting the FTCA. Where the FTCA requires application of the law of the place where the act or omission occurred, settlement authorities will use the rules set forth in the currently adopted edition of the <I>Restatement of the</I> Law, published by the American Law Institute, to evaluate the liability of the Air Force, subject to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign rules and regulations governing the operation of motor vehicles (rules of the road) are applied to the extent those rules are not specifically superseded or preempted by United States military traffic regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Absolute or strict liability will not apply for claims not arising from noncombat activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hedonic damages are not payable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The collateral source doctrine does not apply.
</P>
<P>(v) Joint and several liability does not apply. Payment will be made only upon the portion of loss, damage, injury or death attributable to the Armed Forces of the United States.
</P>
<P>(vi) Future economic loss will be discounted to present value after deducting for federal income taxes and, in cases of wrongful death, personal consumption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims not payable.</I> Do not approve payment for:
</P>
<P>(i) Punitive damages.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cost of medical or hospital services furnished at the expense of the United States.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cost of burial expenses paid by the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Settlement by insurer or joint tortfeasor.</I> When settlement is made by an insurer or joint tortfeasor and an additional award is warranted, an award may be made if both of the following are present:
</P>
<P>(1) The United States is not protected by the release executed by the claimant.
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount received from such source is first deducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.42" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.42   Appeal of final denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claimant may appeal the final denial of the claim. The claimant sends the request, in writing, to the settlement authority that issued the denial letter within 60 days of the date the denial letter was mailed. The settlement authority may waive the 60 day time limit for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the appeal, the original settlement authority reviews the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the settlement authority does not reach a final agreement on an appealed claim, he or she sends the entire claim file to the next higher settlement authority, who is the appellate authority for that claim. Any higher settlement authority may act upon an appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision of the appellate authority is the final administrative action on the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83690, 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.43" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.43   Right of subrogation, indemnity, and contribution.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force becomes subrogated to the rights of the claimant upon settling a claim. The Air Force has the rights of contribution and indemnity permitted by the law of the situs, or under contract. Do not seek contribution or indemnity from U.S. military personnel or civilian employees whose conduct gave rise to government liability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.44" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.44   Attorney fees.</HEAD>
<P>In the settlement of any claim pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2733 and this subpart, attorney fees will not exceed 20 percent of any award provided that when a claim involves payment of an award over $1,000,000, attorney fees on that part of the award exceeding $1,000,000 may be determined by the Secretary of the Air Force. For the purposes of this paragraph, an award is deemed to be the cost to the United States of any trust or structured settlement, and not its future value.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83690, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Foreign Claims (10 U.S.C. 2734)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.45" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.45   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart tells how to settle and pay claims against the United States presented by inhabitants of foreign countries for property damage, personal injury, or death caused by military and civilian members of the U.S. Armed Forces in foreign countries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.46" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.46   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Foreign country.</I> A national state other than the United States, including any place under jurisdiction of the United States in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inhabitant of a foreign country.</I> A person, corporation, or other business association whose usual place of abode is in a foreign country. The term “inhabitant” has a broader meaning than such terms as “citizen” or “national”, but does not include persons who are merely temporarily present in a foreign country. It does not require foreign citizenship or domicile.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appointing authority.</I> An Air Force official authorized to appoint members to foreign claims commissions (FCC).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.47" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.47   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> (1) The Secretary of the Air Force has the authority to:
</P>
<P>(i) Settle claims for payment of $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Settle claims for more than $100,000, pay the first $100,000, and report the excess to the Department of the Treasury for payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny claims in any amount.
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General, Deputy Judge Advocate General, Director of Civil Law, and the Chief, Deputy Chief and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff are FCCs and have delegated authority to:
</P>
<P>(i) Settle claims for payment of $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny claims in any amount.
</P>
<P>(3) The SJAs of the Air Force component commander of the U.S. geographic combatant commands are FCC for claims arising in their respective combatant command Areas of Responsibility (AORs) and may deny claims of $50,000 or less and will pay claims filed in any amount when payment is for $50,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegating settlement authority.</I> A settlement authority appointed as a FCC in paragraph (a) of this section may appoint one or more subordinate judge advocates or civilian attorneys to act as FCC, and redelegate all or part of that settlement authority to such persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement negotiations.</I> A settlement authority may settle a claim in any sum within its settlement authority, regardless of the amount claimed. Send uncompromised claims in excess of the delegated authority through claims channels to the level with settlement authority. Unsuccessful negotiations at one level do not bind higher authority.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special exceptions.</I> Do not settle claims for medical malpractice without HQ USAF/JACC approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.48" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.48   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How and when filed.</I> A claim is filed when the Air Force receives from a claimant or authorized agent a properly completed SF 95 or other signed and written demand for money damages in a sum certain. A claim may be presented orally only if oral claims are the custom in the country where the incident occurred and the claimant is functionally illiterate. In any case where an oral claim is made, claims personnel must promptly reduce the claim to writing with all particulars carefully noted. A claim belonging to another agency is promptly transferred to the appropriate agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amending a claim.</I> A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to final action. An amendment must be in writing and signed by the claimant or authorized agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.49" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.49   Advance payments.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart P of this part outlines procedures for advance payments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.50" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.50   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim must be presented to the Air Force within 2 years after it accrues. It accrues when the claimant discovers or reasonably should have discovered the existence of the act that resulted in the claimed loss or injury.
</P>
<P>(b) In computing the statutory time period, the day of the incident is excluded and the day the claim was filed is included.
</P>
<P>(c) War or armed conflict does not toll the statute of limitations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.51" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.51   Who may file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Owners of the property or their authorized agents for property damage.
</P>
<P>(b) Injured persons or other authorized agents for personal injury.
</P>
<P>(c) Executors or administrators of a decedent's estate, or any other person legally entitled to do so under applicable local law, for an individual's death.
</P>
<P>(d) Authorized agents (including the claimant's attorney) must show their title or legal capacity and present evidence of authority to present the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83692, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.52" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.52   Who are proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>Claimants include inhabitants of a foreign country who are:
</P>
<P>(a) Foreign nationals. In a wrongful death case, if the decedent is an inhabitant of a foreign country, even though his or her survivors are U.S. inhabitants, the FCA will apply.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. nationals residing abroad, unless the claim arises from a benefit, privilege or service provided to them by the U.S. Government, or they reside in the foreign country primarily because they are employed directly by the United States, or sponsored by or accompanying such a person, or employed by a U.S. civilian contractor in furtherance of a contract with the U.S. Government, or sponsored by or accompanying such a person.
</P>
<P>(c) U.S. corporations with a place of business in the country in which the claim arose.
</P>
<P>(d) Foreign governments and their political subdivisions, including a municipal and prefectural government.
</P>
<P>(e) Foreign companies and business entities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.53" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.53   Who are not proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>Persons who are not proper claimants include:
</P>
<P>(a) Insurers and other subrogees.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons determined to be U.S. inhabitants. U.S. inhabitants include dependents of U.S. military personnel and U.S. Government civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(c) Foreign military personnel suffering personal injury, or death arising incident to service or pursuant to combined and/or joint military operations. Such operations include, but are not limited to, military exercises and United Nations, NATO, and other regional peacekeeping and humanitarian missions.
</P>
<P>(d) Civilian employees of the United States, including local inhabitants, injured in the scope of their employment.
</P>
<P>(e) National governments and their political subdivisions engaging in war or armed conflict with the United States or its allies. This includes factions that have not necessarily been recognized by the international community as a legitimate nation state.
</P>
<P>(f) A national or nationally controlled corporation of a country engaging in war or armed conflict with the United States or its allies, unless the FCC or local military commander determines the claimant is friendly with the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.54" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.54   Payment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The following criteria is considered before determining liability.
</P>
<P>(a) The incident causing the damage or injury must arise in a foreign country and be caused by noncombatant activities of the U.S. Armed Forces or by the negligent or wrongful acts of civilian employees or military members of the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(1) It is a prerequisite to U.S. responsibility if the employee causing the damage or injury is a local inhabitant, a prisoner of war, or an interned enemy alien. These persons are “employees” within the meaning of the Foreign Claims Act (FCA) only when in the service of the United States. Ordinarily, a slight deviation as to time or place does not constitute a departure from the scope of employment. The purpose of the activity and whether it furthers the general interest of the United States is considered. If the claim arose from the operation or use of a U.S. Armed Forces vehicle or other equipment by such a person, pay it provided local law imposes liability on the owner of the vehicle or other equipment in the circumstances involved.
</P>
<P>(2) It is immaterial when the claim arises from the acts or omissions of any U.S. Armed Forces member or employee not listed in § 842.64(c)(1). The Act imposes responsibility on the United States when it places a U.S. citizen or non-US citizen employee in a position to cause the injury or damage. If the cause is a criminal act clearly outside the scope of employment, ordinarily pay the claim and consider disciplinary action against the offender.
</P>
<P>(b) Scope of employment is considered in the following situations.
</P>
<P>(1) It is a prerequisite to U.S. responsibility if the employee causing the damage or injury is a local inhabitant, a prisoner of war, or an interned enemy alien. These persons are “employees” within the meaning of the Foreign Claims Act (FCA) only when in the service of the United States. Ordinarily, a slight deviation as to time or place does not constitute a departure from the scope of employment. The purpose of the activity and whether it furthers the general interest of the United States is considered. If the claim arose from the operation or use of a U.S. Armed Forces vehicle or other equipment by such a person, pay it provided local law imposes liability on the owner of the vehicle or other equipment in the circumstances involved.
</P>
<P>(2) It is immaterial when the claim arises from the acts or omissions of any U.S. Armed Forces member or employee not listed in § 842.64(c)(1) of this part. The Act imposes responsibility on the United States when it places a U.S. citizen or non-US citizen employee in a position to cause the injury or damage. If the cause is a criminal act clearly outside the scope of employment, ordinarily pay the claim and consider disciplinary action against the offender.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.55" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.55   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable when it:
</P>
<P>(a) Is waived under an applicable international agreement, or pursuant to an applicable international agreement, a receiving state should adjudicate and pay the claim. However, if a foreign government subject to such an international agreement disputes its legal responsibilities under the agreement, and the claimant has no other means of compensation, USAF/JACC may authorize payment.
</P>
<P>(b) Is purely contractual in nature.
</P>
<P>(c) Is for attorney fees, punitive damages, a judgment or interest on a judgment, bail, or court costs. FCC should consider providing early notice to claimants that attorney fees are not payable as an item of damage under the FCA.
</P>
<P>(d) Accrues from a private contractual relationship between U.S. personnel and third parties about property leases, public utilities, hiring of domestic servants, and debts of any description. This claim is sent for action to the commander of the person concerned (see 32 CFR part 818).
</P>
<P>(e) Is based solely on compassionate grounds.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A Solatium payment is paid from O&amp;M funds as an investigative expense.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) Is a paternity claim.
</P>
<P>(g) Is for patent or copyright infringement.
</P>
<P>(h) Results wholly from the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or agent.
</P>
<P>(i) Is for rent, damage, or other payments involving regular acquisition, possession, and disposition of real property by or for the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(j) Is filed by a Communist country or its inhabitants, unless authorized by AFLOA/JACC.
</P>
<P>(k) Is for real property taken by a continuing trespass.
</P>
<P>(l) Is for personal injury or death of a person covered by:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Employees' Compensation Act (5 U.S.C. 8101, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) The Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 901, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) A U.S. contract or agreement providing employee benefits through insurance, local law, or custom, where the United States pays for them either directly or as part of the consideration under the contract. (See 42 U.S.C. 1651 and 42 U.S.C. 1701.) The Judge Advocate General or Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff, AFLOA/JACC, may authorize an award where local benefits are not adequate. Local benefits are deducted from any award.
</P>
<P>(m) Results from an action by an enemy, or directly or indirectly from an act of the U.S. Armed Forces in combat, except that a claim may be allowed if it arises from an accident or malfunction incident to the operation of an aircraft of the U.S. Armed Forces, including its airborne ordnance, indirectly related to combat, and occurring while preparing for or going to, or returning from a combat mission.
</P>
<P>(n) Is based on negligence of a concessionaire or other independent contractor.
</P>
<P>(o) Arises out of personal activities of family members, guests, servants, or activities of the pets of members and employees of the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(p) Is the subject of litigation against the United States or its employees. This restriction does not apply to joint criminal/civil proceedings in a foreign court. Claims settlement may be authorized by AFLOA/JACC in appropriate cases on request.
</P>
<P>(q) Is covered under U.S. admiralty or maritime laws, unless authorized by The Judge Advocate General or Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff.
</P>
<P>(r) Is one for which a foreign government is responsible under SOFA, treaty, or other agreement. However, AFLOA/JACC may authorize payment of a claim where the foreign government refuses to recognize its legal responsibilities and the claimant has no other means of compensation.
</P>
<P>(s) Is not in the best interest of the United States, is contrary to public policy, or otherwise contrary to the basic intent of the FCA. Claims considered not payable on this basis will be forwarded to USAF/JACC for final decision.
</P>
<P>(t) Is presented by a national, or a corporation controlled by a national, of a country at war or engaged in armed conflict with the United States, or any country allied with such enemy country unless the settlement authority determines the claimant is, and at the time of the incident was, friendly to the United States. Exception: A prisoner of war or interned enemy alien is not excluded from filing a claim for damage, loss, or destruction of personal property within the U.S. Armed Forces' custody if the claim is otherwise payable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83692, 83693, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.56" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.56   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides guidance to determine the applicable law for assessment of liability.
</P>
<P>(a) In adjudicating FCA claims, settlement authorities will follow the law, customs, and standards of the country where the claim arose, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Causation is determined based upon general principles of U.S. tort law found in federal case law and standard legal publications.
</P>
<P>(2) Joint and several liability does not apply. Payment is based solely on the portion of loss, damage, injury or death attributable to the U.S. Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(3) If lost income or lost profits is recoverable under the law where the claim arose, they shall be limited to net lost income or net lost profits, taking into account appropriate deductions for taxes, regular business expenditures, and in the case of wrongful death, personal consumption during the loss period.
</P>
<P>(b) Settlement authorities will not deduct compensation from collateral sources except for:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct payments by a member or civilian employee of the U.S. Armed Forces for damages (not solatia).
</P>
<P>(2) Any payments recovered or recoverable from an insurance policy when premiums were paid, directly or indirectly, by the United States, or a member or civilian employee of the U.S. Armed Forces; or when the member or employee has the benefit of the insurance (such as when a U.S. member or employee borrows a vehicle of a local national, and the vehicle carries insurance for the benefit of any driver with permission to drive the vehicle).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.57" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.57   Reconsideration of final denials.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides the procedures used to reconsider a final denial.
</P>
<P>(a) An FCC has the inherent authority to reconsider a final decision. The mere fact that a request for reconsideration is received does not obligate the settlement authority to reopen the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The FCC does not mention a reconsideration right in the original denial letter.
</P>
<P>(c) A settlement authority must reconsider the final action when there is:
</P>
<P>(1) New and material evidence concerning the claim; or
</P>
<P>(2) Obvious errors in the original decision.
</P>
<P>(d) The FCC must document in the claim file the reason for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) A FCC above the original settlement authority may direct a claim be forwarded to a higher FCC for reconsideration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.58" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.58   Right of subrogation, indemnity, and contribution.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force has all the rights of subrogation, indemnity and contribution, as local law permits. However, settlement authorities will not seek contribution or indemnity from U.S. military members or civilian employees whose conduct gave rise to U.S. Government liability, or whenever it would be harmful to international relations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—International Agreement Claims (10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.59" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.59   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart governs Air Force actions in investigating, processing, and settling claims under the International Agreement Claims Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.60" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.60   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are general definitions. See the relevant international agreement for the specific meaning of a term to use with a specific claim. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Civilian component.</I> Civilian personnel accompanying and employed by an international agreement contracting force. Local employees, contractor employees, or members of the American Red Cross are not a part of the civilian component unless specifically included in the agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contracting party.</I> A nation signing the governing agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Force.</I> Personnel belonging to the land, sea, or air armed services of one contracting party when in the territory of another contracting party in connection with their official duties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Legally responsible.</I> A term of art providing for settlement of claims under cost sharing international agreements in accordance with the law of the receiving state. Often, employees who are local inhabitants, not part of the civilian component of the force, could cause the sending state to be legally responsible under a respondeat superior theory.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Receiving state.</I> The country where the force or civilian component of another contracting party is temporarily located. It is often thought of as the “host nation.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sending state.</I> The country sending the force or civilian component to the receiving State. In cases where U.S. personnel are stationed in a foreign country, the U.S. is the sending state.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Third parties.</I> A term of art used in International Agreements. Parties other than members of the force and civilian component of the sending or receiving States. Dependents, tourists, and other noninhabitants of a foreign country are third parties (and therefore can generally make a claim under a SOFA) unless the international agreement, or an understanding between the countries involved, specifically excludes them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.61" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.61   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overseas settlement authority.</I> Staff Judge Advocates of the Air Force component commands of the U.S. geographic combatant commands will, within their combatant command AORs, fulfill U.S. obligations concerning claims abroad subject to 10 U.S.C. 2734a for which the Air Force has settlement authority. Consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2734a and the international agreement, they may reimburse or pay the pro rata share of a claim as agreed, or if inconsistent with the IACA or the international agreement, they may object to a bill presented,
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The Secretary of the Air Force, The Judge Advocate General, the Deputy Judge Advocate General, The Director of Civil Law and Chief of the Claims and Tort Litigation Division may also exercise settlement authority under 10 U.S.C. 2734a.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> A settlement authority may redelegate his or her authority to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83694, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.62" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.62   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims arising in a foreign country.</I> (1) If a third party claimant tries to file an international agreement claim with Air Force, direct that person to the appropriate receiving State office. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Air Force receives a claim, send it to the U.S. sending State office for delivery to the receiving State. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims arising in the United States.</I> The claimant files tort claims arising from the act or omission of military or civilian personnel of another contracting party at any U.S. military installation. The Staff Judge Advocate for the installation where such military or civilian personnel is assigned or attached will promptly notify the Foreign Claims Branch of USAF/JACC as well as the Commander, U.S. Army Claims Service. If the claimant files said claim at an installation other than the location where said military or civilian personnel is assigned, the Staff Judge Advocate for that installation will promptly forward the claim to the appropriate installation Staff Judge Advocate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83694, 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Use of Government Property Claims (10 U.S.C. 2737)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.63" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.63   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart explains how to settle and pay claims against the United States, for property damage, personal injury, or death incident to the use of a government vehicle or any other government property on a government installation which are not payable under any other statute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.64" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.64   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government installation.</I> A United States Government facility having fixed boundaries and owned or controlled by the government. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vehicle.</I> Every mechanical device used as a means of transportation on land.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.65" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.65   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The following individuals have delegated authority to settle claims for $1,000 or less and deny them in any amount. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Deputy Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(3) Director of Civil Law. 
</P>
<P>(4) Chief, Deputy Chief and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation staff. 
</P>
<P>(5) SJA of the Air Force component commands of the U.S. geographic combatant commands.
</P>
<P>(6) SJAs of single base GCMs and GCMs in PACAF and USAFE. 
</P>
<P>(7) The SJA of each Air Force base, station and fixed installation. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other judge advocate designated by The Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> A settlement authority may redelegate it to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney in writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.66" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.66   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How and when filed.</I> A claim has been filed when a federal agency receives from a claimant or the claimant's duly authorized agent written notification of an incident of property damage, personal injury or death accompanied by a demand for money damages in a sum certain. A claim incorrectly presented to the Air Force will be promptly transferred to the appropriate Federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amending a claim.</I> A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to final Air Force action. Amendments will be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or the claimant's duly authorized agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.67" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.67   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim must be presented in writing within 2 years after it accrues. It accrues at the time the claimant discovers, or in the exercise of reasonable care should have discovered, the existence of the act causing property damage, personal injury or death for which the claim is filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) In computing time to determine whether the period of limitation has expired, exclude the incident date and include the date the claim was filed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.68" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.68   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>When all of the following are present, payment of a claim in the amount of $1,000 or less is authorized if it: 
</P>
<P>(a) Is for property damage, personal injury, or death. Payment for a personal injury or death claim is limited to costs of reasonable medical, hospital, and burial expenses actually incurred and not otherwise furnished or paid by the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) Was caused by a military member or civilian employee of the Air Force, whether acting within or outside the scope of employment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Arose from the use of a government vehicle at any place or from the use of other government property on a government installation.
</P>
<P>(d) Is not payable under any other provision of law except Article 139, UCMJ.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.69" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.69   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable if it is: 
</P>
<P>(a) Payable under any other provision of the law. 
</P>
<P>(b) Caused wholly or partly by a negligent or wrongful act of the claimant, the claimant's agent, or employee. 
</P>
<P>(c) A subrogated claim. 
</P>
<P>(d) Recoverable from other sources such as an insurance policy, or recovered from action under Article 139, UCMJ.
</P>
<P>(e) For pain and suffering or other general damages.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.70" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.70   Reconsideration of final denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The statute does not provide for appeals. The original settlement authority may, however, reconsider any decision. There is no set format for a reconsideration but it should be submitted in writing within 60 days of the original decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) The settlement authority may either grant all or any portion of the requested relief without referral to any other office, or forward the entire file with the reasons for the action and recommendations to the next higher claims settlement authority for independent review and final action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.71" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.71   Settlement agreement.</HEAD>
<P>Do not pay a claim unless the claimant accepts the amount offered in full satisfaction of the claim and signs a settlement agreement to that effect, in which the claimant agrees to release any and all claims against the United States, its employees and agents arising from the incident in question. Use the settlement agreement approved for use by the Department of Justice for the settlement of FTCA claims, tailored to this claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Admiralty Claims (10 U.S.C. 9801-9804, 9806; 46 U.S.C. 740)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.72" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.72   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>It sets forth the procedure for administrative settlement of admiralty and maritime claims in favor of and against the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.73" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.73   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admiralty contracts.</I> A contract covering maritime services or a maritime transaction such as vessel procurement and space for commercial ocean transportation of DOD cargo, mail, and personnel is an admiralty contract. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General average.</I> General average is the admiralty rule that when someone's property is thrown overbaord to save a ship, the ship owner and all owners of the cargo must share the loss. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maritime torts.</I> A maritime tort is one committed in navigable waters or on land or in the air where a substantial element of the damage, personal injury, or death occurred in navigable waters. The activity causing the tortious act must bear some significant relationship to traditional maritime activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Vessel.</I> Every description of watercraft used or usable as a means of transportation on water is a vessel. (1 U.S.C. 3)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.74" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.74   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following officials have the authority to settle a claim against the Air Force in the amounts provided: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of the Air Force has the authority to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Settle or deny a claim in any amount. Settlements for payment of more than $500,000 are certified to Congress for payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The following individuals have delegated authority to settle claims for $100,000 or less: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Deputy Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director of Civil Law. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Chief and Deputy Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation staff.
</P>
<P>(b) Delegation of settlement authority on claims in favor of the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of the Air Force has the authority to settle claims for damage to property under the jurisdiction of the Air Force in an amount not to exceed $500,000, and to settle claims for salvage services performed by the Air Force in any amount. 
</P>
<P>(2) AFLOA/JACC refers all claims for damage to property under the jurisdiction of the Air Force for more than $500,000 to the Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P>(3) The following individuals have delegated authority to settle claims for $100,000 or less and deny them in any amount: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Deputy Judge Advocate General. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director of Civil Law. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Chief and Deputy Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation Division.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 32077, Aug. 7, 1990; 56 FR 1574, Jan. 16, 1991. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.75" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.75   Reconsidering claims against the United States.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides the policy and procedures to reconsider any maritime claim made against the United States. 
</P>
<P>(a) The settlement authority may reconsider any claim previously disapproved in whole or in part when either: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant submits new evidence in support of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) There were errors or irregularities in the submission or settlement of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) There is no right of appeal to higher authority under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) There is no time limit for submitting a request for reconsideration, but it is within the discretion of the settlement authority to decline to reconsider a claim based on the amount of time passed since the claim was originally denied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Claims Under the Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 2402, 2671, 2672, 2674-2680)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 83695, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.76" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.76   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, promulgated under the authority of 28 CFR 14.11, governs claims against the United States for property damage, personal injury, or death, from the negligent or wrongful acts or omission of Air Force military or civilian personnel while acting within the scope of their employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.77" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.77   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The following individuals are delegated the full authority of the Secretary of the Air Force to settle and deny claims:
</P>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(2) The Deputy Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director of Civil Law.
</P>
<P>(4) The Division Chief of Claims and Tort Litigation.
</P>
<P>(5) The Division Chief of Environmental Law and Litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> A settlement authority may be redelegated, in writing, to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney. The Chief, AFLOA/JACC may redelegate up to $25,000, in writing, to paralegals assigned to AFLOA/JACC and, upon request, may authorize installation Staff Judge Advocates to redelegate their settlement authority to paralegals under their supervision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Settlement negotiations.</I> A settlement authority may settle a claim filed in any amount for a sum within the delegated authority. Unsettled claims in excess of the delegated authority will be sent to the next highest level with settlement authority. Unsuccessful negotiations at one level do not bind higher authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.78" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.78   Settlement agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The claimant must sign a settlement agreement and general release before any payment is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.79" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.79   Administrative claim; when presented.</HEAD>
<P>When the Air Force is the proper agency to receive a claim pursuant to 28 CFR 14.2(b), for purposes of the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 2401(b), 2672 and 2675, a claim shall be deemed to have been presented when it is received by:
</P>
<P>(a) The office of the Staff Judge Advocate of the Air Force installation nearest the location of the incident; or
</P>
<P>(b) The Claims and Tort Litigation Division, 1500 West Perimeter Road, Suite 1700, Joint Base Andrews, MD 20762.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Property Damage Tort Claims in Favor of the United States (31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711-3719)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.80" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.80   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes how to assert, administer, and collect claims for damage to or loss or destruction of government property and lost wages of Air Force servicemembers through negligent or wrongful acts. It does not cover admiralty, hospital recovery, or nonappropriated fund claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.81" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.81   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> (1) The following individuals have delegated authority to settle, compromise, suspend, or terminate action on claims asserted for $100,000 or less and to accept full payment on any claim:
</P>
<P>(i) The Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Deputy Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director of Civil Law.
</P>
<P>(iv) Chief, Deputy Chief, and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) Installation staff judge advocates have authority to assert claims in any amount, accept full payment on any claim and to compromise, suspend or terminate action on claims asserted for $25,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> A settlement authority may redelegate it to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney, in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, or restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.82" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.82   Assertable claims.</HEAD>
<P>A claim may be asserted in writing for loss of or damage to government property, against a tort-feasor when:
</P>
<P>(a) Damage results from negligence and the claim is for:
</P>
<P>(1) More than $100.
</P>
<P>(2) Less than $100 but collection is practicable and economical.
</P>
<P>(b) The claim is based on a contract and the contracting officer does not intend to assert a claim under the contract. The contracting officer's intention not to assert a claim should be recorded in a memorandum for the record and placed in the claim file.
</P>
<P>(c) The claim is for property damage arising from the same incident as a hospital recovery claim.
</P>
<P>(d) The Tort-feasor or his insurer presents a claim against the government arising from the same incident. (Both claims should be processed together.)
</P>
<P>(e) The claim is assertable as a counterclaim under an international agreement. (The claim should be processed under subpart G of this part).
</P>
<P>(f) The claim is based on product liability. AFLOA/JACC approval must be obtained before asserting the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.83" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.83   Non-assertable claims.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not assertable under this subpart when it is for:
</P>
<P>(a) Reimbursement for military or civilian employees for their negligence claims paid by the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Loss or damage to government property: 
</P>
<P>(1) Caused by a nonappropriated fund employee acting in the scope of employment. 
</P>
<P>(2) Caused by a person who has accountability and responsibility for the damaged property under the Report of Survey system.
</P>
<P>(c) Loss or damage to nonappropriated fund property assertable under other provisions.
</P>
<P>(d) Loss or damage caused by an employee of an instrumentality of the government in the absence of statutory authority to reimburse.
</P>
<P>(e) Monies recovered against a foreign government or any of its political subdivisions. (AFLOA/JACC may authorize this claim as an exception to the rule).
</P>
<P>(f) Loss or damage caused by an employee of another federal agency while the employee was acting in the scope of his employment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 32077, Aug. 7, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.84" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.84   Asserting the claim.</HEAD>
<P>The base SJA asserts the claim against the tort-feasor by mailing, certified mail, return receipt requested, the original and one copy of a “Notice of Claim” that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Reference to the statutory right to collect.
</P>
<P>(b) A demand for payment or restoration.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of damage.
</P>
<P>(d) The date and place of incident.
</P>
<P>(e) The name, phone number, and office address of claims personnel to contact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.85" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.85   Referring a claim to the U.S. Attorney or the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If collection efforts are unsuccessful, AFLOA/JACC may refer a claim to the appropriate U.S. Attorney's Office or the Department of Justice for initiation of a lawsuit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.86" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.86   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>The government must file suit within 3 years after the cause of action accrues. It accrues when a responsible U.S. official knew or reasonably should have known the material facts that resulted in the claimed loss.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.87" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.87   Compromise, termination, and suspension of collection.</HEAD>
<P>This section establishes the guidelines for compromise, termination, or suspension of a claim.
</P>
<P>(a) Compromise of a claim is allowable when:
</P>
<P>(1) The tort-feasor is unable to pay the full amount within a reasonable time. (A sworn statement showing the debtor's assets and liabilities, income, expenses, and insurance coverage should be obtained and included in the claim file).
</P>
<P>(2) The Government is unable to collect a claim in full within a reasonable time even though the enforced collection proceedings are used for collection.
</P>
<P>(3) The cost to collect does not justify enforced collection of the full amount.
</P>
<P>(4) The government may have difficulty proving its case in court for the full amount claimed.
</P>
<P>(b) Compromise is not allowable when there may be fraud, misrepresentation, or violation of antitrust laws. The Department of Justice must authorize compromise of such claims.
</P>
<P>(c) Termination of collection is allowable when:
</P>
<P>(1) The government is unable to collect the debt after exhausting all collection methods.
</P>
<P>(2) The government is unable to locate the tort-feasor.
</P>
<P>(3) The cost to collect will exceed recovery.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim is legally without merit.
</P>
<P>(5) The evidence does not substantiate the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) Suspension of collection is allowable when:
</P>
<P>(1) The government is unable to locate tort-feasor.
</P>
<P>(2) The tort-feasor is presently unable to pay but:
</P>
<P>(i) The statute of limitations is tolled or is running anew.
</P>
<P>(ii) Future collection may be possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Claims Under the National Guard Claims Act (32 U.S.C. 715)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.88" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.88   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes policies and procedures for all administrative claims under the National Guard Claims Act for which the Air Force has assigned responsibility. Unless otherwise outlined in this subpart, follow procedures as outlined in subpart E of this part for claims arising out of noncombat activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.89" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.89   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Air National Guard (ANG).</I> The federally recognized Air National Guard of each state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and Guam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ANG member.</I> An ANG member is one who is performing duty under 32 U.S.C., section 316, 502, 503, 504, or 505 for which the member is entitled to pay from the United States or for which the member has waived pay from the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ANG duty status</I>—(1) <I>Active federal service.</I> ANG members may serve on active Federal duty under 10 U.S.C. to augment the active Air Force under certain circumstances or for certain types of duty or training (<I>e.g.,</I> overseas training exercises and ANG alert duty). Duty under 10 U.S.C. does not fall under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federally funded duty.</I> ANG members perform specified federally funded duty or training under 32 U.S.C. such as weekend drills, annual training, field exercises, range firing, military schooling, full time unit support, or recruiting duties. Duty under 32 U.S.C. falls under this subpart for noncombat activities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State duty.</I> State duty is duty not authorized by federal law but required by the governor of the state and paid for from state funds. Such duty includes civil emergencies (natural or other disasters), civil disturbances (riots and strikes), and transportation requirements for official state functions, public health, or safety. State duty does not fall under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ANG technicians.</I> An ANG technician is a Federal employee employed under 32 U.S.C. 709. Tort claims arising out of his or her activity are settled under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.90" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.90   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> (1) The Secretary of the Air Force has authority to:
</P>
<P>(i) Settle a claim for $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Settle a claim for more than $100,000, paying the first $100,000 and reporting the excess to the General Accounting Office for payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny a claim in any amount.
</P>
<P>(2) The Judge Advocate General has delegated authority to settle a claim for $100,000 or less, and deny a claim in any amount.
</P>
<P>(3) The following individuals have delegated authority to settle a claim for $25,000 or less, and deny a claim in any amount:
</P>
<P>(i) The Deputy Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director of Civil Law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Chief, Deputy Chief, and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff.
</P>
<P>(4) The SJAs of the Air Force component commander of the U.S. geographic combatant commands for claims arising within their respective combatant command areas of responsibility have delegated authority to settle claims payable or to deny claims filed for $25,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(5) SJAs of GCMs in PACAF and USAFE have delegated authority to settle claims payable, and deny claims filed, for $15,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> A settlement authority may redelegate up to $25,000 of settlement authority to a subordinate judge advocate or civilian attorney. This redelegation must be in writing and can be for all claims or limited to a single claim. The Chief, AFLOA/JACC may redelegate up to $25,000, in writing, to paralegals assigned to AFLOA/JACC and, upon request, may authorize installation Staff Judge Advocates to redelegate their settlement authority to paralegals under their supervision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appellate authority.</I> Upon appeal a settlement authority has the same authority to settle a claim as that specified above. However, no appellate authority below the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force may deny an appeal of a claim it previously denied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated settlement authority.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement negotiations.</I> A settlement authority may settle a claim filed in any amount for a sum within the delegated settlement authority regardless of the amount claimed. Unsettled claims in excess of the delegated settlement authority are sent to the individual with higher settlement authority. Unsuccessful negotiations at one level do not bind higher authority.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special exceptions.</I> No authority below the level of AFLOA/JACC may settle claims for: 
</P>
<P>(1) On the job personal injury or death of an employee of a government contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(2) Assault, battery, false imprisonment, false arrest, abuse of process, or malicious prosecution committed by an investigative or law enforcement officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83696, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.91" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.91   Filing a claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Elements of a proper claim.</I> A claim is must be filed on a Standard Form 95 or other written document. It must be signed by the Claimant or authorized agent, be for money damages in a sum certain, and lay out a basic statement as to the nature of the claim that will allow the Air Force to investigate the allegations contained therein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amending a claim.</I> A claimant may amend a claim at any time prior to final action. To amend a claim the claimant or his or her authorized agent must submit a written, signed demand.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.92" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.92   Advance payments.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart P of this part sets forth procedures for such payments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.93" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.93   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim must be filed in writing within 2 years after it accrues. It is deemed to be filed upon receipt by The Judge Advocate General, USAF/JACC, or a Staff Judge Advocate of the Air Force. A claim accrues when the claimant discovers or reasonably should have discovered the existence of the act that resulted in the claimed loss. The same rules governing accrual pursuant to the Federal Tort Claims Act should be applied with respect to the National Guard Claims Act. Upon receipt of a claim that properly belongs with another military department, the claim is promptly transferred to that department.
</P>
<P>(b) The statutory time period excludes the day of the incident and includes the day the claim was filed.
</P>
<P>(c) A claim filed after the statute of limitations has run is considered if the U.S. is at war or in an armed conflict when the claim accrues or if the U.S. enters a war or armed conflict after the claim accrues, and if good causes shows how the war or armed conflict prevented the claimant from diligently filing the claim within the statute of limitations. But in no case will a claim be considered if filed more than two years after the war or armed conflict ends.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.94" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.94   Who may file a claim.</HEAD>
<P>The following individuals may file a claim under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) Owners of the property or their authorized agents may file claims for property damage.
</P>
<P>(b) Injured persons or their duly authorized agents may file claims for personal injury.
</P>
<P>(c) Duly appointed guardians of minor children or any other persons legally entitled to do so under applicable local law may file claims for minors' personal injuries.
</P>
<P>(d) Executors or administrators of a decedent's estate or another person legally entitled to do so under applicable local law, may file claims based on:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual's death.
</P>
<P>(2) A cause of action surviving an individual's death.
</P>
<P>(e) Insurers with subrogation rights may file claims for losses paid in full by them. The parties may file claims jointly or individually, to the extent of each party's interest, for losses partially paid by insurers with subrogation rights.
</P>
<P>(f) Authorized agents signing claims show their title or legal capacity and present evidence of authority to present the claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.95" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.95   Who are proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Citizens and inhabitants of the United States. U.S. inhabitants includes dependents of the U.S. military personnel and federal civilian employees temporarily outside the U.S. for purposes of U.S. Government service.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. military personnel and civilian employees. Note: These personnel are not proper claimants for claims for personal injury or death that occurred incident to their service.
</P>
<P>(c) Foreign military personnel when the damage or injury occurs in the U.S. Do not pay for claims under the MCA for personal injury or death of a foreign military personnel that occurred incident to their service.
</P>
<P>(d) States, state agencies, counties, or municipalities, or their political subdivisions.
</P>
<P>(e) Subrogees of proper claimants to the extent they have paid for the claim in question.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.96" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.96   Who are not proper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Governments of foreign nations, their agencies, political subdivisions, or municipalities.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies and nonappropriated fund instrumentalities of the U.S. Government including the District of Columbia government.
</P>
<P>(c) Inhabitants of foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(d) The state, territory and its political subdivisions whose Air National Guard member caused the loss.
</P>
<P>(e) Subrogees of the claimants in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.97" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.97   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>Claims arising from noncombat activities of the United States when caused by ANG members performing duty under 32 U.S.C. and acting within the scope of their employment, whether or not such injuries or damages arose out of their negligent or wrongful acts or omissions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.98" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.98   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>The following are not payable:
</P>
<P>(a) Claims covered by the FTCA, FCA, IACA, 10 U.S.C. 2734a and 2734b, Air Force Admiralty Claims Act (AFACA), 10 U.S.C. 9801-9804, 9806, MCA, 10 U.S.C. 2733, or covered under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act (MPCECA), 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3721.
</P>
<P>(b) NGCA claims arising from noncombat activities in the U.S. are not covered by the FTCA because more elements are needed to state an FTCA claim than are needed to state a claim under the NGCA for noncombat activities. All FTCA claims are based on elements of traditional tort liability (<I>i.e.,</I> duty, breach, causation, and damages); that is, they are fault based. Noncombat activity claims under the NGCA are based solely on causation and damages. Because NGCA claims for noncombat activities are not fault based, they are not covered by the FTCA.
</P>
<P>(c) See subpart E of this part for other claims not payable.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims for damage to or loss of bailed property when the bailor specifically assumed such risk.
</P>
<P>(e) Claims for personal injury or death of a person covered by:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Employees' Compensation Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) A United States contract or agreement providing employee benefits through insurance, local law, or custom and the United States pays for such benefits either directly or as a part of the consideration under the contract. 
</P>
<P>(f) Claims for property damage, personal injury or death occurring in a foreign country to an inhabitant of that country. 
</P>
<P>(g) Claims caused by the negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of members of the District of Columbia ANG. 
</P>
<P>(h) Claims arising from a private rather than a government transaction. 
</P>
<P>(i) Claims for patent or copyright infringement. 
</P>
<P>(j) Claims for damage, use, or other expenses involving the regular acquisition, possession, and disposition of real property by or for the ANG. 
</P>
<P>(k) Claims for the taking of private real property by a continuing trespass or by a technical trespass such as overflights of aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(l) Claims for loss of rental fee for personal property. 
</P>
<P>(m) Claims in litigation against the United States. 
</P>
<P>(n) Claims for a maritime occurrence covered under U.S. admiralty laws. 
</P>
<P>(o) Claims for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any tax or customs duty. 
</P>
<P>(2) The detention of any goods or merchandise by any officer of customs, excise, or law enforcement officer. 
</P>
<P>(p) Claims from an act or omission of any employee of the Government while administering the provisions of the Trading With the Enemy Act. 
</P>
<P>(q) Claims for damages caused by the United States' imposition or establishment of a quarantine. 
</P>
<P>(r) Claims for libel, slander, misrepresentation, deceit or interference with contract rights. 
</P>
<P>(s) Claims that result wholly from the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or the claimant's agent. 
</P>
<P>(t) Claims for reimbursement of medical, hospital, or burial expenses furnished at the expense of the United States, any state, the District of Columbia, or Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(u) Claims for damage from floods or flood waters. 
</P>
<P>(v) Claims for damages caused by the fiscal operations of the Treasury or by regulation of the monetary system. 
</P>
<P>(w) Claims caused by the negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of ANG members acting within the scope of their employment, while performing duty under 32 U.S.C., on or after 29 December 1981. 
</P>
<P>(x) Claims caused by the negligent or wrongful acts or omissions of ANG technicians employed under 32 U.S.C. 709. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83696, 83697, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.99" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.99   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Federal preemption.</I> Many of the exclusions in this subpart are based upon the wording of 28 U.S.C. 2680 or other federal statutes or court decisions interpreting the Federal Tort Claims Act. Federal case law interpreting the same exclusions under the Federal Tort Claims Act is applied to the National Guard Claims Act. Where state law differs with federal law, federal law prevails.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extent of liability.</I> Where the claim arises is important in determining the extent of liability.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable law.</I> When a claim arises in the United States, its territories or possessions, the same law as if the claim was cognizable under the FTCA will be applied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims in foreign countries.</I> In claims arising in a foreign country, where the claim is for personal injury, death, or damage to or loss of real or personal property caused by an act or omission alleged to be negligent, wrongful, or otherwise involving fault of military personnel or civilian officers or employees of the United States acting within the scope of their employment, liability or the United States is determined according to federal case law interpreting the FTCA. Where the FTCA requires application of the law of the place where the act or omission occurred, settlement authorities will use the rules set forth in the currently adopted edition of the <I>Restatement of the Law,</I> published by the American Law Institute, to evaluate the liability of the Air Force, subject to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(i) Absolute or strict liability will not apply for claims not arising from noncombat activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hedonic damages are not payable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The collateral source doctrine will not apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) Joint and several liability does not apply. Payment will be made only upon the portion of loss, damage, injury or death attributable to the Armed Forces of the United States.
</P>
<P>(v) Future economic loss will be discounted to present value after deducting for federal income taxes and, in cases of wrongful death, personal consumption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims not payable.</I> Do not approve payment for:
</P>
<P>(1) Punitive damages.
</P>
<P>(2) Cost of medical or hospital services furnished at U.S. expense.
</P>
<P>(3) Cost of burial expenses paid by the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Settlement by insurer or joint tortfeasor.</I> When settlement is made by an insurer or joint tortfeasor and an additional award is warranted, an award may be made if both of the following are present:
</P>
<P>(1) The United States is not protected by the release executed by the claimant.
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount received from such source is first deducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.100" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.100   Appeal of final denials.</HEAD>
<P>This section explains the steps to take when a denial is appealed.
</P>
<P>(a) A claimant may appeal the final denial of the claim. The claimant sends the request, in writing, to the settlement authority that issued the denial letter within 60 days of the date the denial letter was mailed. The settlement authority may waive the 60 day time limit for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the appeal, the original settlement authority reviews the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the settlement authority does not reach a final agreement on an appealed claim, he or she sends the entire claim file to the next higher settlement authority, who is the appellate authority for that claim. Any higher settlement authority may act upon an appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision of the appellate authority is the final administrative action on the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.101" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.101   Government's right of subrogation, indemnity, and contribution.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force becomes subrogated to the rights of the claimant upon settling a claim. The Air Force has the rights of contribution and indemnity permitted by the law of the situs or under contract. Do not seek contribution or indemnity from ANG members whose conduct gave rise to Government liability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.102" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.11.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.102   Attorney fees.</HEAD>
<P>In the settlement of any claim pursuant to 32 U.S.C. 715 and this subpart, attorney fees will not exceed 20 percent of any award provided that when a claim involves payment of an award over $1,000,000, attorney fees on that part of the award exceeding $1,000,000 may be determined by the Secretary of the Air Force. For the purposes of this section, an award is deemed to be the cost to the United States at the time of purchase of a structured settlement, and not its future value.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Hospital Recovery Claims (42 U.S.C. 2651-2653)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.103" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.103   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart explains how the United States asserts and settles claims for costs of medical care, against third parties under the Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (FMCRA) (10 U.S.C. 1095) and various other laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.104" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.104   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>This section defines terms which are used within this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Medical Cost Reimbursement Program Regional Field Offices.</I> The Chief of the Medical Cost Reimbursement Program (MCRP) Branch determines and assigns geographic responsibility for all regional field offices. Each field office is responsible for investigating all potential claims and asserting claims within their jurisdiction for the cost of medical care provided by either a Medical Treatment Facility or at a civilian facility through Tricare.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compromise.</I> A mutually binding agreement where payment is made and accepted in an amount less than the full amount of the claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Injured party.</I> The person who received medical care for injury or disease as a result of the incident on which the claim is based. The injured party may be represented by a guardian, personal representative, estate, or survivor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical care.</I> Includes medical and dental treatment, prostheses, and medical appliances the U.S. furnished or reimbursed other sources for providing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reasonable value of medical care.</I> Either:
</P>
<P>(1) An amount determined by reference to rates set by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget for the value of necessary medical care in U.S. medical facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The actual cost of necessary care from other sources which was reimbursed by the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Third party.</I> An individual, partnership, business, corporation (including insurance carriers), which is indebted to the United States for medical care provided to an injured party. (In some cases, a state or foreign government can be the third party.)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Waiver.</I> The voluntary relinquishment by the United States of the right to collect for medical care provided to an injured party.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Accrued pay.</I> The total of all pay accrued to the account of an active duty member during a period when the member is unable to perform military duties. It does not include allowances.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Future care.</I> Medical care reasonably expected to be provided or paid for in the future treatment of an injured party as determined during the investigative process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.105" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.105   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement authority.</I> The following individuals have delegated authority to settle, compromise, or waive MCRP claims for $300,000 or less and to accept full payment on any claim:
</P>
<P>(1) The Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(2) The Deputy Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director of Civil Law.
</P>
<P>(4) Chief, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff and the Chief, MCRP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redelegation of authority.</I> The individuals described in paragraph (a) of this section may re-delegate a portion or all of their authority to subordinates, subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) SJAs, when given Medical Cost Reimbursement (MCR) claims jurisdiction, are granted authority to waive, compromise, or settle claims in amounts of $25,000 or less. This authority may be re-delegated in writing with authority to re-delegate to subordinates.
</P>
<P>(2) SJAs of numbered Air Forces, when given MCR claims jurisdiction, are granted authority to waive, compromise, or settle claims in amounts of $40,000 or less. This authority may be re-delegated in writing with authority to re-delegate to subordinates.
</P>
<P>(3) SJAs of single base GCMs, the SJAs of GCMs in PACAF and USAFE, and the SJAs of each Air Force base, station, or fixed installation have delegated authority to compromise or waive claims for $15,000 or less and to accept full payment on any claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to assert a claim.</I> Each settlement authority has authority to assert a claim in any amount for the reasonable value of medical care.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to reduce, withdraw, and restore settlement authority.</I> Any superior settlement authority may reduce, withdraw, or restore delegated authority.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement negotiations.</I> A settlement authority may settle a claim filed for an amount within the delegated settlement authority. Claims in excess of the delegated authority must be approved by the next higher settlement authority. Unsuccessful negotiations at one level do not bind higher authority.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>Telephonic approvals, in the discretion of the higher settlement authority, are authorized.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Special exceptions.</I> Only the Department of Justice (DOJ) may approve claims involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Compromise or waiver of a claim for more than $300,000.
</P>
<P>(2) Settlement previously referred to DOJ.
</P>
<P>(3) Settlement where a third party files suit against the U.S. or the injured party arising out of the same incident.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.106" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.106   Assertable claims.</HEAD>
<P>A claim should be asserted when the Air Force has furnished or will furnish medical care in military health care facilities or when the Air Force is responsible for reimbursement to a private care provider and either of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) Third party liability in tort exists for causing an injury or disease.
</P>
<P>(b) Local or foreign law permits the United States to recover or the United States is a third party beneficiary under uninsured motorist coverage, medical pay insurance coverage, worker's compensation, no-fault statutes, or other statutes.
</P>
<P>A claim should only be asserted if the base SJA determines it merits assertion. Claims for $150 or less need not be asserted; they should be asserted only if the base SJA or designee determines the collection will not exceed the cost to collect, the third party offers payment and demands a release from the United States before paying damages to the injured party, or the United States asserts a property damage claim under subpart L arising out of the same incident.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.107" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.107   Nonassertable claims.</HEAD>
<P>The following are considered nonassertable claims and should not be asserted:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Claims against any department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States.</I> “Agency or instrumentality” includes any self-insured nonappropriated fund activity whether revenue producing, welfare, or sundry. The term does not include private associations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims for care furnished a veteran by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) for service connected disability.</I> However, claims may be asserted for the reasonable value of medical care an Air Force member receives prior to his or her discharge and transfer to the VA facility or when the Air Force has reimbursed the VA facility for the care.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims for care furnished a merchant seaman under 42 U.S.C. 249.</I> A claim against the seaman's employer should not be filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government contractors.</I> In claims in which the United States must reimburse the contractor for a claim according to the terms of the contract, settlement authorities investigate the circumstances surrounding the incident to determine if assertion is appropriate. If the U.S. is not required to reimburse the contractor, the MCR authority may assert a claim against the contractor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign governments.</I> Settlement authorities investigate any claims that might be made against foreign governments, their political subdivisions, armed forces members or civilian employees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>U.S. personnel.</I> Claims are not asserted against members of the uniformed services; employees of the US, its agencies or instrumentalities; or an individual who is a dependent of a service member or employee at the time of assertion unless they have insurance to pay the claim, they were required by law or regulation to have insurance which would have covered the Air Force, or their actions, which necessitated the medical treatment provided at government expense, constituted willful misconduct or gross negligence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83699, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.108" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.108   Asserting the claim.</HEAD>
<P>When asserting the claim, the base SJA will:
</P>
<P>(a) MCR personnel assert a claim against a tortfeasor or other third party using a formal letter on Air Force stationery. The assertion is made against all potential payers, including insurers. The demand letter should state the legal basis for recovery and sufficiently describe the facts and circumstances surrounding the incident giving rise to medical care. Applicable bases of recovery include U.S. status as a third-party beneficiary under various types of insurance policies, workers' compensation laws, no-fault laws, or other Federal statutes, including Coordination of Benefits (COB) or FMCRA.
</P>
<P>(b) The MCR authority must promptly notify the injured parties or their legal representatives, in writing, that the United States will attempt to recover from the third parties the reasonable value of medical care furnished or to be furnished and that they:
</P>
<P>(1) Should seek advice from a legal assistance officer or civilian counsel.
</P>
<P>(2) Must cooperate in the prosecution of all actions of the United States against third parties.
</P>
<P>(3) Must furnish a complete statement regarding the facts and circumstances surrounding the incident which caused the injury.
</P>
<P>(4) Must not execute a release or settle any claim which exists as a result of the injury without prior notice to the MCR authority.
</P>
<P>(c) Mail all copies of the SF 96, or claim notice on Air Force letterhead:
</P>
<P>(1) By certified mail with return receipt requested in all claims in which the amount claimed is $5,000.00 or more or in which there is a substantial likelihood that the final amount claimed will be $5,000.00 or more.
</P>
<P>(2) By regular or certified mail with return receipt requested at the SJA's discretion in cases in which the final amount claimed is less than $5,000.00, unless there is no response to the initial notice of claim within a reasonable period of time and a second notice of claim is required to be mailed. All second notices of claim and copies will be mailed by certified mail, return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(d) Notify the injured parties promptly in writing that the United States will attempt to recover from the third parties the reasonable value of medical care furnished or to be furnished and that they:
</P>
<P>(1) Should seek advice from a legal assistance officer or civilian counsel and furnish the civilian counsel's name to the claims officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Must cooperate in the prosecution of all actions of the United States against third parties.
</P>
<P>(3) Must furnish a complete statement regarding the facts and circumstances surrounding the incident which caused the injury.
</P>
<P>(4) Must not execute a release or settle any claim which exists as a result of the injury without prior notice to the SJA.
</P>
<P>(5) Should read the enclosed Privacy Act statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83698, 83699, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.109" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.109   Referring a claim to the U.S. Attorney.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All cases that require forwarding to the DoJ must be routed through the Chief, MCRP. The MCR authority ensures that personnel review all claims for possible referral not later than two years after the date of the incident for tort based cases.
</P>
<P>(b) The United States or the injured party on behalf of the United States must file suit within 3 years after an action accrues. This is usually 3 years after the initial treatment is provided in a federal medical facility or after the initial payment is made by Tricare, whichever is first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83699, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.110" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.110   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>The United States or the injured party on behalf of the United States must file suit within 3 years after an action accrues. This is usually 3 years after the initial treatment is provided in a federal medical facility or after the initial payment is made by CHAMPUS, whichever is first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83698, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.111" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.111   Recovery rates in government facilities.</HEAD>
<P>The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> contains the rates set by the Office of Management and Budget, of which judges take judicial notice. Apply the rates in effect at the time of care to claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83699, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.112" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.112   Waiver and compromise of United States interest.</HEAD>
<P>Waivers and compromises of government claims can be made. This section lists the basic guidance for each action. (See this subpart for claims involving waiver and compromise of amounts in excess of settlement authorities' delegated amounts.)
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Convenience of the Government.</I> When compromising or waiving a claim for convenience of the Government, settlement authorities should consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) Questionable liability of the third party.
</P>
<P>(3) Costs of litigation.
</P>
<P>(4) Insurance (Uninsured or Underinsured Motorist and Medical Payment Coverage) or other assets of the tortfeasor available to satisfy a judgment for the entire claim.
</P>
<P>(5) Potential counterclaim against the U.S.
</P>
<P>(6) Jury verdict expectancy amount.
</P>
<P>(7) Amount of settlement with proposed distribution.
</P>
<P>(8) Cost of any future care.
</P>
<P>(9) Tortfeasor cannot be located.
</P>
<P>(10) Tortfeasor is judgment proof.
</P>
<P>(11) Tortfeasor has refused to pay and the case is too weak for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hardship on the injured party.</I> When compromising or waiving a claim to avoid undue hardship on the injured party, settlement authorities should consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanent disability or disfigurement of the injured party.
</P>
<P>(2) Decreased earning power of the injured party.
</P>
<P>(3) Out of pocket losses to the injured party.
</P>
<P>(4) Financial status of the injured party.
</P>
<P>(5) Pension rights of the injured party.
</P>
<P>(6) Other government benefits available to the injured party.
</P>
<P>(7) An offer of settlement from a third party which includes virtually all of the thirty party's assets, although the amount is considerably less than the calculation of the injured party's damages.
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the injured party received excessive treatment.
</P>
<P>(9) Amount of settlement with proposed distribution, including reductions in fees or damages by other parties, medical providers, or attorneys in order to reduce the hardship on the injured party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compromise or waiver.</I> A compromise or waiver can be made upon written request from the injured party or the injured party's legal representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83699, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.113" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.12.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.113   Reconsideration of a waiver for undue hardship.</HEAD>
<P>A settlement authority may reconsider its previous action on a request for waiver or compromise whether requested or not. Reconsideration is normally on the basis of new evidence or discovery of errors in the waiver submission or settlement, but can be based upon a re-evaluation of the claim by the settlement authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Nonappropriated Fund Claims</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.114" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.114   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes how to settle claims for and against the United States for property damage, personal injury, or death arising out of the operation of nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFIs). Unless stated below, such claims will follow procedures outlined in other subparts of this part for the substantive law applicable to the particular claim. For example, a NAFI claim adjudicated under the Federal Tort Claims Act will follow procedures in this subpart as well as subpart K of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.115" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.115   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).</I> The Army and Air Force Exchange Service is a joint command of the Army and Air Force, under the jurisdiction of the Chiefs of Staff of the Army and Air Force, which provides exchange and motion picture services to authorized patrons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR) activities.</I> Air Force MWR activities are activities operated directly or by contract which provide programs to promote morale and well-being of the Air Force's military and civilian personnel and their dependents. They may be funded wholly with appropriated funds, primarily with nonappropriated funds (NAF), or with a combination of appropriated funds and NAFs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonappropriated funds.</I> Nonappropriated funds are funds generated by Department of Defense military and civilian personnel and their dependents and used to augment funds appropriated by the Congress to provide a comprehensive morale-building, welfare, religious, educational, and recreational program, designed to improve the well-being of military and civilian personnel and their dependents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonappropriated funds instrumentality.</I> A nonappropriated fund instrumentality is a Federal Government instrumentality established to generate and administer nonappropriated funds for programs and services contributing to the mental and physical well-being of personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.116" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.116   Payment of claims against NAFIs.</HEAD>
<P>Substantiated claims against NAFIs must not be paid solely from appropriated funds. Claims are sent for payment as set out in this subpart. Do not delay paying a claimant because doubt exists whether to use appropriated funds or NAFs. Pay the claim initially from appropriated funds and decide the correct funding source later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.117" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.117   Claims by customers, members, participants, or authorized users.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Customer complaints.</I> Do not adjudicate claims complaints or claims for property loss or damage under this subpart that the local NAFI activity can satisfactorily resolve.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims generated by concessionaires.</I> Most concessionaires must have commercial insurance. Any unresolved claims or complaints against concessionaires or their insurers are sent to the appropriate contracting officers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Civil Air Patrol Claims (5 U.S.C. 8101(1)(B), 8102(a), 8116(c), 8141; 10 U.S.C. 9441, 9442; 36 U.S.C. 201-208)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.118" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.118   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart explains how to process certain administrative claims:
</P>
<P>(1) Against the United States for property damage, personal injury, or death, arising out of Air Force assigned noncombat missions performed by the Civil Air Patrol (CAP), as well as certain other Air Force authorized missions performed by the CAP in support of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(2) In favor of the United States for damage to U.S. Government property caused by CAP members or third parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless stated in this subpart, such claims will follow procedures outlined in other subparts of this part for the substantive law applicable to the particular claim. For example, a CAP claim adjudicated under the Military Claims Act will follow procedures in this subpart as well as subpart E of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.119" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.119   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Civil Air Patrol (CAP).</I> A federally chartered, non-profit corporation which was designated by Congress in 1948 as a volunteer civilian auxiliary of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Air Force noncombat mission.</I> Although not defined in any statute, an Air Force noncombat mission is any mission for which the Air Force is tasked, by statute, regulation, or higher authority, which does not involve actual combat, combat operations or combat training. The Air Force, in lieu of using Air Force resources, can use the services of the Civil Air Patrol to fulfill these type missions. When performing an Air Force noncombat mission, the Civil Air Patrol is deemed to be an instrumentality of the United States. In order for a mission to be a noncombat mission of the Air Force under this part, it must either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Have a special Air Force mission order assigned, and, the Air Force must exercise operational control over the mission.
</P>
<P>(2) Involve a peacetime mission the Air Force is tasked to perform by higher authority which requires the expenditure of Air Force resources to accomplish, and the Air Force specifically approves the mission as a noncombat mission, and assigns the mission to the Civil Air Patrol to perform.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CAP members.</I> CAP members are private citizens who volunteer their time, services, and resources to accomplish CAP objectives and purposes. The two primary categories of members are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cadets.</I> Youths, 13 years (or having satisfactorily completed the sixth grade) through 17 years of age, who meet such prerequisites as the CAP corporation may establish from time to time. Cadet status may be retained until age 21.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Seniors.</I> Adults, 18 years of age or older (there is no maximum age), who meet such prerequisites as the CAP corporation may establish from time to time, and who have not retained cadet status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Liaison officers.</I> Active duty Air Force officers assigned to liaison duty at the national, regional, and wing (state) levels of CAP. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83700, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.120" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.120   Improper claimants.</HEAD>
<P>CAP members, 18 years of age or older, whose personal injury or death claim is subject to the Federal Employees' Compensation Act, are improper claimants. FECA is their exclusive remedy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83700, 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.121" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.121   Claims payable.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is payable if all of the following are present:
</P>
<P>(a) It is for property damage, personal injury, or death.
</P>
<P>(b) It is proximately caused by a CAP member.
</P>
<P>(c) It arises from an Air Force noncombat mission performed by the CAP, or arises from an authorized mission performed by the CAP for which specific coverage under this subpart is granted by AFLOA/JACC.
</P>
<P>(d) It is otherwise payable because it meets the provisions of an appropriate subpart of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83700, 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.122" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.14.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.122   Claims not payable.</HEAD>
<P>A claim is not payable if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Is for use or depreciation of privately owned property, operated by CAP or its members on an Air Force noncombat mission, or other specified Air Force authorized mission.
</P>
<P>(b) Is for personal services or expenses incurred by CAP or its members while engaged in an Air Force noncombat mission, or other specified Air Force authorized mission.
</P>
<P>(c) Arises out of a CAP incident based solely on government ownership of property on loan to CAP.
</P>
<P>(d) Arises from a CAP activity not performed as a noncombat mission of the Air Force or as a specified Air Force authorized mission. These claims are sent to HQ CAP-USAF/JA for referral to CAP's private insurer, with a copy of the transmittal letter to AFLOA/JACC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83700, 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Advance Payments (10 U.S.C. 2736)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 842.123" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.123   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart tells how to make an advance payment before a claim is filed or finalized under the Military Claims, Foreign Claims and National Guard Claims Acts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.124" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.124   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Air Force has authority to make an advance payment of $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(b) The Judge Advocate General has delegated authority to make an advance payment of $100,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(c) The following individuals have delegated authority to make an advance payment of $25,000 or less:
</P>
<P>(1) The Deputy Judge Advocate General.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director of Civil Law.
</P>
<P>(3) The Chief, Deputy Chief, and Branch Chiefs, Claims and Tort Litigation Staff.
</P>
<P>(4) SJAs of the Air Force component commander of the U.S. geographic combatant commands for claims arising within their respective combatant command areas of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(d) This authority may be redelegated either orally or in writing. Oral redelegations should be confirmed in writing as soon as practical.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.125" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.125   Who may request.</HEAD>
<P>A proper claimant or authorized agent may request an advance payment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.126" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.126   When authorized.</HEAD>
<P>Make advance payments only where all of the following exist:
</P>
<P>(a) The potential claimant could file a valid claim for property damage or personal injury under the Military Claims, Foreign Claims, or National Guard Claims Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The potential claimant has an immediate need amounting to a hardship for food, shelter, medical or burial expenses, or other necessities. In the case of a commercial enterprise, severe financial loss or bankruptcy will result if the Air Force does not make an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(c) Other resources for such needs are not reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(d) The potential claim equals or exceeds the amount of the advance payment.
</P>
<P>(e) The recipient signs as advance payment agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.127" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.127   When not authorized.</HEAD>
<P>Do not make an advance payment if the claim is payable under the:
</P>
<P>(a) Federal Tort Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(b) International Agreement Claims Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act. (Separate regulations issued under the Act provide for partial payments.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.128" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.128   Separate advance payment claims.</HEAD>
<P>Every person suffering injury or property loss may submit a separate request for an advance payment. For example, where the Air Force destroys a house containing a family of four, each family member may submit a separate request for and receive an advance payment of $100,000 or less.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 842.129" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.4.15.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 842.129   Liability for repayment.</HEAD>
<P>The claimant is liable for repayment. Deduct the advance payment from any award or judgment given to a claimant. Reimbursement from the claimant will be sought if the claimant does not file a claim or lawsuit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2809, Jan. 29, 1990. Redesignated at 81 FR 83701, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="845" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 845—COUNSEL FEES AND OTHER EXPENSES IN FOREIGN TRIBUNALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 8012, 70A Stat. 488, sec. 1037, 72 Stat. 1445; 10 U.S.C. 8012, 1037.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 75633, Dec. 21, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This part is derived from chapter 2 of Air Force Regulation 110-12, December 1, 1978.
</P>
<P>Part 806 of this chapter states the basic policies and instructions governing the disclosure of records and tells members of the public what they must do to inspect or obtain copies of the material referenced herein.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 845.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes criteria and assigns responsibility for the provision of counsel, for the provision of bail, and for the payment of court costs and other necessary and reasonable expenses incident to representation in civil and criminal proceedings, including appellate proceedings, before foreign courts and foreign administrative agencies, which involve members of the Armed Forces, civilian personnel and dependents. Payment of fines is not authorized hereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.2   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>10 U.S.C. 1037 provides authority for employment of counsel, and payment of counsel fees, court costs, bail, and other expenses incident to representation of persons subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice before foreign tribunals. For personnel not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice, funds for similar expenses may be made available in cases of exceptional interest to the service concerned, upon prior application through the Judge Advocate General of the service concerned, to the appropriate service secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.3   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for provision of counsel, provision of bail, or payment of expenses will ordinarily be made by the defendant or accused through appropriate channels to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over him. This officer shall determine whether the request meets the criteria prescribed herein and, based upon such determination, shall take final action approving or disapproving the request. Within their geographical areas of responsibility, major commands in the interest of obtaining prompt and effective legal service may appoint as approval authority, instead of the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction, any subordinate officer having responsibility in a particular country for personnel subject to foreign criminal jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the criteria prescribed below, an officer exercising approved authority may, in his discretion, deny a request for the provision of counsel, provision of bail or payment of expenses, where the otherwise eligible requestor is in an absent without leave or deserter status at the time of the request, or otherwise is not then subject to United States military control, and there is no reasonable basis for the belief that the requestor will return to United States military control at the conclusion of the proceedings of service of an adjudged sentence, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.4   Criteria for the provision of counsel and payment of expenses in criminal cases.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for the provision of counsel and payment of expenses in criminal cases may be approved in pretrial, trial, appellate and posttrial proceedings in any one of the following criminal cases:
</P>
<P>(a) Where the act complained of occurred in the performance of official duty; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the sentence which is normally imposed includes confinement, whether or not such sentence is suspended; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Where capital punishment might be imposed; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Where an appeal is made from any proceeding in which there appears to have been a denial of the substantial rights of the accused; or 
</P>
<P>(e) Where conviction of the offense alleged could later form the basis for administrative discharge proceedings for misconduct as a result of civil court disposition; or 
</P>
<P>(f) Where the case, although not within the criteria established in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) of this section, is considered to have significant impact upon the relations of US forces with the host country or is considered to involve any other particular US interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.5   Provision of bail in criminal cases.</HEAD>
<P>Funds for the posting of bail or bond to secure the release of personnel from confinement by foreign authorities before, during, or after trial may be furnished in all criminal cases. Safeguards should be imposed to assure that at the conclusion of the proceedings or on the appearance of the defendant in court, the bail or bond will be refunded to the military authorities. Bail will be provided only to guarantee the presence of the defendant and will not be provided to guarantee the payment of fines or civil damages. Local US military authorities are expected to provide bail, in any case, only after other reasonable efforts have been made to secure release of pretrial custody to the US. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.6   Criteria for the provision of counsel and payment of expenses in civil cases.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for provision of counsel and payment of expenses in civil cases may be granted in trial and appellate proceedings in either of the following civil cases: 
</P>
<P>(a) Where the act complained of occurred in the performance of official duty; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the case is considered to have a significant impact upon the relations of US forces with the host country or is considered to involve any other particular US interest. No funds shall be provided under this part in cases where the United States of America is in legal effect the defendant, without prior authorization of the Judge Advocate General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.7   Procedures for hiring counsel and obligating funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The selection of individual trial or appellate counsel will be made by the defendant. Such counsel shall represent the individual defendant and not the US Government. Selection shall be made from approved lists of attorneys who are qualified, competent and experienced in trial practice, and admitted for full practice, on their own account, before the courts of the foreign country involved. Normally, these lists will be coordinated with the local court or bar association, if any, and the appropriate US Diplomatic or Consular Mission and should include only those attorneys who are known or reputed, to comply with local attorney fee schedules or guides approved or suggested by local bar associations and should not exceed amounts paid under similar circumstances by nationals of the country where the trial is held. No fee may include any amount in payment for services other than those incident to representation before judicial and administrative agencies of the foreign country in the particular case for which the contract is made, and in no event may any contract include fees for representation in habeas corpus or related proceedings before tribunals of the United States. When appropriate and reasonable in the case, the payment of expenses, in addition to counsel fees, may include court costs, bail costs, charges for obtaining copies of records, printing and filing fees, interpreter fees, witness fees, and other necessary and reasonable expenses. Expenses will not include the payment of fines or civil damages, directly or indirectly. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever possible, the officer responsible under § 845.3 (or his designee), acting on behalf of the United States of America, shall enter into a written contract with the selected counsel. The contract will cover counsel fees, and, when appropriate, may cover other costs arising in defense of the case only in the court of first instance and will not include fees for representation on appeal. If the case is appealed to higher tribunals, supplemental agreements shall be executed for each appeal. A copy of the contractual agreement shall serve as the obligating document. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, for example, because of unusual circumstances or local customs, it is not practicable to enter into a written contract as in paragraph (b) of this section, action will be taken to record the agreement reached between the officer responsible under § 845.3 (or his designee) and the selected counsel. This requirement may be met by a letter of commission or letter of understanding, executed between the officer responsible under § 845.3 (or his designee) and the selected counsel, or by a written request for legal services expressly or impliedly accepted by the selected counsel. Any such document shall contain, if possible, an agreed estimate of counsel fees and reasonable expenses and a statement that both fees and expenses will conform to those paid by local nationals under similar circumstances and will not exceed local fee schedules, if any. If this document does not include an agreed estimate of counsel fees and other reasonable expenses, an estimate will be provided by the contracting officer. A copy of the document, together with the estimate, will be furnished the accounting component and will serve as the commitment document for the reservation of funds. 
</P>
<P>(d) The provision of counsel and payment of expenses under this part is not subject to the provisions of the Defense Acquisition Regulation (subchapter A, chapter I of this title). However, the contract clauses set forth in part 5, section VII, Defense Acquisition Regulation, may be used as a guide in contracting. 
</P>
<P>(e) Because of the desirability of timely procedural action, it is suggested that there be designated, from among the judge advocates on the staffs of officers responsible under § 845.3, contracting officers with contracting authority limited to agreements described in this section. The effect of this designation would be to combine within one office the duties of contracting officer and judge advocate. 
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this part shall be construed as prohibiting the selection of qualified local counsel employed by the United States Government, if the serviceman freely selects such counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.8" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.8   Payment of counsel fees and other expenses.</HEAD>
<P>Payment of bills submitted by the selected counsel and other costs shall be made in accordance with the general provision of AFM 177-102 (Commercial Transactions at Base Level), relating to payment of contractual obligations and pertinent disbursing regulations. All payments under these procedures will be in local currency. Acceptance of services procured under these procedures shall be certified to by the officer responsible under § 845.3 (or his designee). Payments of bail may be made when authorized by such officers. Such authorization shall be in the form of a directing letter or message citing 10 U.S.C. 1037. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.9" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.9   Appropriated funds chargeable.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized expenses incurred incident to implementation of the policies set forth in this part, including transportation and per diem expenses of trial observers, interpreters, and local counsel employees, shall be paid from appropriated funds of the service to which the defendant belongs. Payments shall be made from the appropriation current at time of payment, unless obligations for authorized costs have previously been established. Refunds shall be processed as appropriation refund. Such funds are chargeable to the base for operation and maintenance purposes (O&amp;M or R&amp;D, as applicable). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.10" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.10   Reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>No reimbursement will ordinarily be required from individuals with respect to payments made in their behalf under this part. However, prior to the posting of bail on behalf of a defendant, a signed agreement shall be secured from him wherein he agrees to remit the amount of such bail or permit the application of so much of his pay as may be necessary to reimburse the Government in the event that he willfully causes forfeiture of bail. In the event of such forfeiture, bail provided under this part shall be recovered from the defendant in accordance with that agreement. The agreement should include a statement that it does not prejudice the defendant's right to appeal to the Comptroller General of the United States and the courts after such payment or deduction has been made, if he considers the amount erroneous. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 845.11" NODE="32:6.1.1.4.5.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 845.11   Correspondence.</HEAD>
<P>Judge advocates who advise officers responsible under § 845.3 are authorized to correspond directly with each other and with the Judge Advocate General of the service concerned for advice with regard to payment of counsel fees and other expenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E [RESERVED]   " NODE="32:6.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="32:6.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—AIRCRAFT 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="855" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 855—CIVIL AIRCRAFT USE OF UNITED STATES AIR FORCE AIRFIELDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 44502 and 47103.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 37349, July 20, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.1   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force establishes and uses its airfields to support the scope and level of operations necessary to carry out missions worldwide. The Congress funds airfields in response to Air Force requirements, but also specifies that civil aviation access is a national priority to be accommodated when it does not jeopardize an installation's military utility. The Air Force engages in dialogue with the civil aviation community and the Federal Aviation Administration to ensure mutual understanding of long-term needs for the national air transportation system and programmed military force structure requirements. To implement the national policy and to respond to requests for access, the Air Force must have policies that balance such requests with military needs. Civil aircraft access to Air Force airfields on foreign territory requires host nation approval. 
</P>
<P>(a) The Air Force will manage two programs that are generally used to grant civil aircraft access to its airfields: civil aircraft landing permits and joint-use agreements. Other arrangements for access will be negotiated as required for specific purposes. 
</P>
<P>(1) Normally, landing permits will be issued only for civil aircraft operating in support of official Government business. Other types of use may be authorized if justified by exceptional circumstances. Access will be granted on an equitable basis. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Air Force will consider only proposals for joint use that do not compromise operations, security, readiness, safety, environment, and quality of life. Further, only proposals submitted by authorized local Government representatives eligible to sponsor a public airport will be given the comprehensive evaluation required to conclude a joint-use agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any aircraft operator with an inflight emergency may land at any Air Force airfield without prior authorization. An inflight emergency is defined as a situation that makes continued flight hazardous. 
</P>
<P>(b) Air Force requirements will take precedence on Air Force airfields over all civil aircraft operations, whether they were previously authorized or not. 
</P>
<P>(c) Civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields in the United States will be subject to Federal laws and regulations. Civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields in foreign countries will be subject to US Federal laws and regulations that have extraterritorial effect and to applicable international agreements with the country in which the Air Force installation is located. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.2   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As the program manager for joint use, the Civil Aviation Branch, Bases and Units Division, Directorate of Operations (HQ USAF/XOOBC), ensures that all impacts have been considered and addressed before forwarding a joint-use proposal or agreement to the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Installations (SAF/MII), who holds decision authority. All decisions are subject to the environmental impact analysis process as directed by the Environmental Planning Division, Directorate of Environment (HQ USAF/CEVP), and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health (SAF/MIQ). The Air Force Real Estate Agency (AFREA/MI) handles the leases for Air Force-owned land or facilities that may be included in an agreement for joint use. 
</P>
<P>(b) HQ USAF/XOOBC determines the level of decision authority for landing permits. It delegates decision authority for certain types of use to major commands and installation commanders. 
</P>
<P>(c) HQ USAF/XOOBC makes the decisions on all requests for exceptions or waivers to this part and related Air Force instructions. The decision process includes consultation with other affected functional area managers when required. Potential impacts on current and future Air Force policies and operations strongly influence such decisions. 
</P>
<P>(d) Major commands, direct reporting units, and field operating agencies may issue supplements to establish command-unique procedures permitted by and consistent with this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all regular United States Air Force (USAF), Air National Guard (ANG), and United States Air Force Reserve (USAFR) installations with airfields. This part also applies to civil aircraft use of Air Force ramps at civil airports hosting USAF, ANG, and USAFR units. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Civil Aircraft Landing Permits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.4   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Air Force airfields are available for use by civil aircraft so far as such use does not interfere with military operations or jeopardize the military utility of the installation. Access will be granted on an equitable basis. Air Force requirements take precedence over authorized civil aircraft use. This part carries the force of US law, and exceptions are not authorized without prior approval from the Civil Aviation Branch, Bases and Units Division, Directorate of Operations, (HQ USAF/XOOBC), 1480 Air Force Pentagon, Washington DC 20330-1480. Proposed exceptions or waivers are evaluated as to current and future impact on Air Force policy and operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.5   Responsibilities and authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Air Force: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determines whether civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields is compatible with current and planned military activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Normally authorizes civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields only in support of official Government business. If exceptional circumstances warrant, use for other purposes may be authorized. 
</P>
<P>(3) Acts as clearing authority for civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields, subject to the laws and regulations of the US, or to applicable international agreements (e.g., status of forces agreements) with the country in which the Air Force installation is located. 
</P>
<P>(4) Reserves the right to suspend any operation that is inconsistent with national defense interests or deemed not in the best interests of the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(5) Will terminate authority to use an Air Force airfield if the: 
</P>
<P>(i) User's liability insurance is canceled. 
</P>
<P>(ii) User lands for other than the approved purpose of use or is otherwise in violation of this part or clearances and directives hereunder. 
</P>
<P>(6) Will not authorize use of Air Force airfields: 
</P>
<P>(i) In competition with civil airports by providing services or facilities that are already available in the private sector.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Use to conduct business with or for the US Government is not considered as competition with civil airports.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Solely for the convenience of passengers or aircraft operator. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Solely for transient aircraft servicing. 
</P>
<P>(iv) By civil aircraft that do not meet US Department of Transportation operating and airworthiness standards. 
</P>
<P>(v) That selectively promotes, benefits, or favors a specific commercial venture unless equitable consideration is available to all potential users in like circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(vi) For unsolicited proposals in procuring Government business or contracts. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Solely for customs-handling purposes. 
</P>
<P>(viii) When the air traffic control tower and base operations are closed or when a runway is restricted from use by all aircraft.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Requests for waiver of this provision must address liability responsibility, emergency response, and security.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) Will not authorize civil aircraft use of Air Force ramps located on civil airfields.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This section does not apply to use of aero club facilities located on Air Force land at civil airports, or civil aircraft chartered by US military departments and authorized use of terminal facilities and ground handling services on the Air Force ramp. Only the DD Form 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance, and DD Form 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement, are required for use of Air Force ramps on civil airfields.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) Civil aircraft operators must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Have an approved DD Form 2401, Civil Aircraft Landing Permit, before operating at Air Force airfields, except for emergency use and as indicated in paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(2)(iii)(E) of this section, and , and § 855.13(b)(1)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that pavement load-bearing capacity will support the aircraft to be operated at the Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that aircraft to be operated at Air Force airfields are equipped with an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with the air traffic control tower. 
</P>
<P>(4) Obtain final approval for landing from the installation commander or a designated representative (normally base operations) at least 24 hours prior to arrival. 
</P>
<P>(5) Not assume that the landing clearance granted by an air traffic control tower facility is a substitute for either the approved civil aircraft landing permit or approval from the installation commander or a designated representative (normally base operations). 
</P>
<P>(6) Obtain required diplomatic or overflight clearance before operating in foreign airspace. 
</P>
<P>(7) Pay applicable costs and fees. 
</P>
<P>(8) File a flight plan before departing the Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P>(c) The installation commander or a designated representative: 
</P>
<P>(1) Exercises administrative and security control over both the aircraft and passengers while on the installation. 
</P>
<P>(2) May require civil users to delay, reschedule, or reroute aircraft arrivals or departures to preclude interference with military activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) Cooperates with customs, immigration, health, and other public authorities in connection with civil aircraft arrival and departure. 
</P>
<P>(d) Decision Authority: The authority to grant civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields is vested in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Directorate of Operations, Bases and Units Division, Civil Aviation Branch (HQ USAF/XOOBC). HQ USAF/XOOBC may act on any request for civil aircraft use of an Air Force airfield. Decision authority for the following will not be delegated below HQ USAF: 
</P>
<P>(i) Use of multiple Air Force airfields except as designated in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Those designated as 2 under Approval Authority in Table 1 to this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any unusual or unique purpose of use not specifically addressed in this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Major Command, Field Operating Agency, Direct Reporting Unit, or Installation Commander. With the exception of those uses specifically delegated to another decision authority, major commands (MAJCOMs), field operating agencies (FOAs), direct reporting units (DRUs) and installation commanders or designated representatives have the authority to approve or disapprove civil aircraft landing permit applications (DD Forms 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance; 2401; Civil Aircraft Landing Permit, and 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement) at airfields for which they hold oversight responsibilities. Additionally, for expeditious handling of short notice requests, they may grant requests for one-time, official Government business flights that are in the best interest of the US Government and do not violate other provisions of this part. As a minimum, for one-time flights authorized under this section, the aircraft owner or operator must provide the decision authority with insurance verification and a completed DD Form 2402 before the aircraft operates into the Air Force airfield. Air Force authority to approve civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields on foreign soil may be limited. Commanders outside the US must be familiar with base rights agreements or other international agreements that may render inapplicable, in part or in whole, provisions of this part. Decision authority is delegated for specific purposes of use and or locations as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Commander, 611th Air Operations Group (AOG). The Commander, 611th AOG or a designated representative may approve commercial charters, on a case-by-case basis, at all Air Force airfields in Alaska, except Eielson and Elmendorf AFBs, if the purpose of the charter is to transport goods and or materials, such as an electric generator or construction materials for a community center, for the benefit of remote communities that do not have adequate civil airports. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Commander, Air Mobility Command (AMC). The Commander, AMC or a designated representative may approve permits that grant landing rights at Air Force airfields worldwide in support of AMC contracts. 
</P>
<P>(iii) US Defense Attache Office (USDAO). The USDAO, acting on behalf of HQ USAF/XOOBC, may grant a request for one-time landing rights at an Air Force airfield provided: 
</P>
<P>(A) The request is for official Government business of either the US or the country to which the USDAO is accredited. 
</P>
<P>(B) The Air Force airfield is located within the country to which the USDAO is accredited. 
</P>
<P>(C) Approval will not violate any agreement with the host country. 
</P>
<P>(D) The installation commander concurs. 
</P>
<P>(E) The USDAO has a properly completed DD Form 2402 on file and has verified that the insurance coverage meets the requirements of Table 2 to this part, before the aircraft operates into the Air Force airfield. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.6   Aircraft exempt from the requirement for a civil aircraft landing permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any aircraft owned by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any other US Government agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) US Air Force aero clubs established as prescribed in AFI 34-117, Air Force Aero Club Program, and AFMAN 3-132, Air Force Aero Club Operations 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of the publications are available, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This includes aircraft owned by individuals but leased by an Air Force aero club.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Aero clubs of other US military services.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This includes aircraft owned by individuals but leased by Army or Navy aero clubs.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) A US State, County, Municipality, or other political subdivision, when operating to support official business at any level of Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any civil aircraft under: 
</P>
<P>(1) Lease or contractual agreement for exclusive US Government use on a long-term basis and operated on official business by or for a US Government agency; for example, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of the Interior, or Department of Energy. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Government must hold liability responsibility for all damages or injury associated with operation of the aircraft.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Lease or contractual agreement to the Air Force for Air Force Civil Air Patrol (CAP) liaison purposes and operated by an Air Force CAP liaison officer on official Air Force business. 
</P>
<P>(3) CAP control for a specific mission directed by the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(4) Coast Guard control for a specific mission directed by the Coast Guard.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For identification purposes, the aircraft will be marked with a sticker near the port side door identifying it as a Coast Guard Auxiliary aircraft. The pilot will always be in uniform and normally have a copy of a Coast Guard Auxiliary Patrol Order. If the aircraft is operating under “verbal orders of the commander,” the pilot can provide the telephone number of the cognizant Coast Guard commander.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Contractual agreement to any US, State, or local Government agency in support of operations involving safety of life or property as a result of a disaster. 
</P>
<P>(6) Government furnished property or bailment contract for use by a contractor, provided the Federal, State, or local Government has retained liability responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(7) Civil aircraft transporting critically ill or injured individuals or transplant organs to or from an Air Force installation. 
</P>
<P>(8) Historic aircraft being delivered for Air Force museum exhibits under the provisions of AFI 84-103, Museum System. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.7   Conditions for use of Air Force airfields.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force authorizes use of its airfields for a specific purpose by a named individual or company. The authorization cannot be transferred to a second or third party and does not extend to use for other purposes. An approved landing permit does not obligate the Air Force to provide supplies, equipment, or facilities other than the landing, taxiing, and parking areas. The aircraft crew and passengers are only authorized activities at the installation directly related to the purpose for which use is granted. All users are expected to submit their application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) at least 30 days before intended use and, except for use as a weather alternate, CRAF alternate, or emergency landing site, must contact the appropriate installation commander or a designated representative for final landing approval at least 24 hours before arrival. Failure to comply with either time limit may result in denied landing rights. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.8" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.8   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>To allow time for processing, the application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) and a self-addressed, stamped envelope should be submitted at least 30 days before the date of the first intended landing. The verification required for each purpose of use must be included with the application. The name of the user must be the same on all forms. Original, hand scribed signatures, not facsimile elements, are required on all forms. Landing Permit Application Instructions are at attachment 3 to this part. The user is responsible for reviewing this part and accurately completing the forms before submitting them to the approving authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.9" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.9   Permit renewal.</HEAD>
<P>When a landing permit expires, DD Forms 2401 and 2400 must be resubmitted for continued use of Air Force airfields.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Corporations must resubmit the DD Form 2402 every five years.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.10" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.10   Purpose of use.</HEAD>
<P>The purposes of use normally associated with civil aircraft operations at Air Force airfields are listed in Table 1. Requests for use for purposes other than those listed will be considered and may be approved if warranted by unique circumstances. A separate DD Form 2401 is required for each purpose of use. (Users can have multiple DD Forms 2401 that are covered by a single DD Form 2400 and DD Form 2402.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.11" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.11   Insurance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Applicants must provide proof of third-party liability insurance on a DD Form 2400, with the amounts stated in US dollars. The policy number, effective date, and expiration date are required. The statement “until canceled” may be used in lieu of a specific expiration date. The geographic coverage must include the area where the Air Force airfield of proposed use is located. If several aircraft or aircraft types are included under the same policy, a statement such as “all aircraft owned,” “all aircraft owned and or operated,” “all non-owned aircraft,” or “all aircraft operated,” may be used in lieu of aircraft registration numbers. To meet the insurance requirements, either split limit coverage for bodily injury (individuals outside the aircraft), property damage, and passengers, or a single limit coverage is required. The coverage will be at the expense of the user with an insurance company acceptable to the Air Force. Coverage must be current during the period the Air Force airfield will be used. The liability required is computed on the basis of aircraft maximum gross takeoff weight (MGTOW) and passenger or cargo configuration. Minimum coverage will not be less than the amount indicated in Table 2 to this part. 
</P>
<P>(a) Any insurance presented as a single limit of liability or a combination of primary and excess coverage will be an amount equal to or greater than the each accident minimums indicated in Table 2 to this part for bodily injury (individuals outside the aircraft), property damage, and passengers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The policy will specifically provide that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The insurer waives any right of subrogation it may have against the US by reason of any payment made under the policy for injury, death, or property damage that might arise, out of or in connection with the insured's use of any Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P>(2) The insurance afforded by the policy applies to the liability assumed by the insured under DD Form 2402. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the insurer or the insured cancels or reduces the amount of insurance afforded under the listed policy before the expiration date indicated on DD Form 2400, the insurer will send written notice of policy cancellation or coverage reduction to the Air Force approving authority at least 30 days before the effective date of the cancellation or reduction. The policy must state that any cancellation or reduction will not be effective until at least 30 days after such notice is sent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.12" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.12   Processing a permit application.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) for use of an Air Force airfield, the decision authority: 
</P>
<P>(a) Determines the availability of the airfield and its capability to accommodate the purpose of use requested. 
</P>
<P>(b) Determines the validity of the request and ensures all entries on DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402 are in conformance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Approves DD Form 2401 (with conditions or limitations noted) by completing all items in Section II—For Use by Approving Authority as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Period of Use (Block 7): The “From” date will be either the first day of approved use or the first day of insurance coverage. The “From” date cannot precede the first day of insurance coverage shown on the DD Form 2400. The “Thru” date is determined by the insurance expiration date and or the purpose of use. For example, the period of use for participants in an Air Force open house will be determined by both insurance coverage and open house dates. The permit would be issued only for the duration of the open house but must not precede or exceed the dates of insurance coverage. Many insurance policies terminate at noon on the expiration date. Therefore, if the insurance expiration is used to determine the permit expiration date, the landing permit will expire one day before the insurance expiration date shown on the DD Form 2400. If the insurance expiration date either exceeds 2 years or is indefinite (for example, “until canceled”), the landing permit will expire 2 years from the issue date or first day of coverage. 
</P>
<P>(2) Frequency of Use (Block 8) is normally “as required” but may be more specific, such as “one time.” 
</P>
<P>(3) Identification Number (Block 9): Installation commanders or a designated representative assign a permit number comprised of the last three letters of the installation's International Civil Aviation Organization identifier code, the last two digits of the calendar year, a number sequentially assigned, and the letter suffix that indicates the purpose of use (Table 1); for example, ADW 95-01C. MAJCOMs, FOAs, DRUs, and USDAOs use a three position organization abbreviation; such as AMC 95-02K. 
</P>
<P>(4) DD Form 2400 (Dated and Filed) (Block 11a): This block should contain the date from block 1 (Date Issued) on the DD Form 2400 and the identification of the unit or base where the form was approved; i.e., 30 March 1995, HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<P>(5) DD Form 2402 (Dated and Filed) (Block 11b): This block should contain the date from block 4 (Date Signed) on the DD Form 2402 and the identification of the unit or base where the form was approved; i.e., 30 March 1995, HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<P>(6) SA-ALC/SFR, 1014 Andrews Road, Building 1621, Kelly AFB TX 78241-5603 publishes the list of companies authorized to purchase Air Force fuel on credit. Block 12 should be marked “yes” only if the permit holder's name appears on the SA-ALC list. 
</P>
<P>(7) Landing Fees, Block 13, should be marked as indicated in Table 1 to this part. 
</P>
<P>(8) Permit Amendments: New entries or revisions to an approved DD Form 2401 may be made only by or with the consent of the approving authority. 
</P>
<P>(d) Provides the applicant with written disapproval if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Use will interfere with operations, security, or safety. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate civil facilities are collocated. 
</P>
<P>(3) Purpose of use is not official Government business and adequate civil facilities are available in the proximity of the requested Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P>(4) Use will constitute competition with civil airports or air carriers. 
</P>
<P>(5) Applicant has not fully complied with this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) Distributes the approved DD Form 2401 before the first intended landing, when possible, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Retains original. 
</P>
<P>(2) Returns two copies to the user. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>HQ USAF/XOOBC will provide a computer report of current landing permits to the MAJCOMs, FOAs, DRUs, and installations.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.13" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.13   Civil fly-ins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Civil aircraft operators may be invited to a specified Air Force airfield for: 
</P>
<P>(1) A base open house to perform or provide a static display. 
</P>
<P>(2) A flying safety seminar. 
</P>
<P>(b) Civil fly-in procedures: 
</P>
<P>(1) The installation commander or a designated representative: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests approval from the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU with an information copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC/XOOO and SAF/PAC. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensures that DD Form 2402 is completed by each user. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>DD Forms 2400 and 2401 are not required for fly-in participants if flying activity consists of a single landing and takeoff with no spectators other than flightline or other personnel required to support the aircraft operations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU ensures HQ USAF/XOOBC/XOOO and SAF/PAC are advised of the approval or disapproval for the fly-in. 
</P>
<P>(3) Aerial performance by civil aircraft at an Air Force open house requires MAJCOM or FOA approval and an approved landing permit as specified in AFI 35-201, Community Relations 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>. Regardless of the aircraft's historic military significance, DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402 must be submitted and approved before the performance. The permit can be approved at MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, or installation level. Use will be authorized only for the period of the event. Fly-in procedures do not apply to aircraft transporting passengers (revenue or non-revenue) for the purpose of attending the open house or demonstration flights associated with marketing a product. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.14" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.14   Unauthorized landings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unauthorized landing procedures.</I> The installation commander or a designated representative will identify an unauthorized landing as either an emergency landing, an inadvertent landing, or an intentional landing. An unauthorized landing may be designated as inadvertent or intentional whether or not the operator has knowledge of the provisions of this part, and whether or not the operator filed a flight plan identifying the installation as a destination. Aircraft must depart the installation as soon as practical. On all unauthorized landings, the installation commander or a designated representative: 
</P>
<P>(1) Informs the operator of subpart  B procedures and the requirement for notifying the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) as specified in section 6 of the FAA Airman's Information Manual. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notifies the Federal Aviation Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) by telephone or telefax, followed by written notification using FAA Form 8020-9, 8020-11, or 8020-17, as appropriate. A copy of the written notification must be provided to HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensures the operator completes a DD Form 2402, and collects applicable charges. (In some instances, it may be necessary to arrange to bill the user for the appropriate charges.) DD Form 2402 need not be completed for commercial carriers if it is known that the form is already on file at HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<P>(4) In a foreign country, notifies the local US Defense Attache Office (USDAO) by telephone or telefax and, where applicable, the appropriate USDAO in the country of aircraft registry, followed by written notification with an information copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC and the civil aviation authority of the country or countries concerned. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency landings.</I> Any aircraft operator who experiences an inflight emergency may land at any Air Force airfield without prior authorization (approved DD Form 2401 and 24 hours prior notice). An inflight emergency is defined as a situation that makes continued flight hazardous. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Air Force will use any method or means to clear an aircraft or wreckage from the runway to preclude interference with essential military operations after coordinating with the FSDO and National Transportation Safety Board. Removal efforts will minimize damage to the aircraft or wreckage; however, military or other operational factors may be overriding. 
</P>
<P>(2) An operator making an emergency landing: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is not charged a landing fee. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Pays all costs for labor, material, parts, use of equipment and tools, and so forth, to include, but not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Spreading foam on the runway. 
</P>
<P>(B) Damage to runway, lighting, and navigation aids. 
</P>
<P>(C) Rescue, crash, and fire control services. 
</P>
<P>(D) Movement and storage of aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(E) Performance of minor maintenance. 
</P>
<P>(F) Fuel or oil (AFM 67-1, vol 1, part three, chapter 1, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>). 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Inadvertent unauthorized landings.</I> (1) The installation commander or a designated representative may determine a landing to be inadvertent if the aircraft operator: 
</P>
<P>(i) Landed due to flight disorientation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mistook the Air Force airfield for a civil airport. 
</P>
<P>(2) Normal landing fees must be charged and an unauthorized landing fee may be assessed to compensate the Government for the added time, effort, and risk involved in the inadvertent landing. Only the unauthorized landing fee may be waived by the installation commander or a designated representative if, after interviewing the pilot-in-command and appropriate Government personnel, it is determined that flying safety was not significantly impaired. The pilot-in-command may appeal the imposition of an unauthorized landing fee for an inadvertent landing to the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU whose decision will be final. A subsequent inadvertent landing will be processed as an intentional unauthorized landing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intentional unauthorized landings.</I> (1) The installation commander may categorize an unauthorized landing as intentional when there is unequivocal evidence that the pilot deliberately: 
</P>
<P>(i) Landed without an approved DD Form 2401 on board the aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Landed for a purpose not approved on the DD Form 2401. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Operated an aircraft not of a model or registration number on the approved DD Form 2401. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Did not request or obtain the required final approval from the installation commander or a designated representative at least 24 hours before aircraft arrival. 
</P>
<P>(v) Did not obtain landing clearance from the air traffic control tower. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Landed with an expired DD Form 2401. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Obtained landing authorization through fraudulent methods, or 
</P>
<P>(viii) Landed after having been denied a request to land from any Air Force authority, including the control tower. 
</P>
<P>(2) Normal landing fees and an unauthorized landing fee must be charged. Intentional unauthorized landings increase reporting, processing, and staffing costs; therefore, the unauthorized landing fee for paragraph (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(vi) of this section will be increased by 100 percent. The unauthorized landing fee will be increased 200 percent for paragraph (d)(1)(vii) and (d)(1)(viii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) Intentional unauthorized landings may be prosecuted as a criminal trespass, especially if a debarment letter has been issued. Repeated intentional unauthorized landings prejudice the user's FAA operating authority and jeopardize future use of Air Force airfields. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.15" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.15   Detaining an aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An installation commander in the United States, its territories, or its possessions may choose to detain an aircraft for an intentional unauthorized landing until: 
</P>
<P>(1) The unauthorized landing has been reported to the FAA, HQ USAF/XOOBC, and the appropriate US Attorney. 
</P>
<P>(2) All applicable charges have been paid. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the installation commander wishes to release the aircraft before the investigation is completed, he or she must obtain bond, promissory note, or other security for payment of the highest charge that may be assessed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The pilot and passengers will not be detained longer than is necessary for identification, although they may be permitted to remain in a lounge or other waiting area on the base at their request for such period as the installation commander may determine (normally not to exceed close of business hours at the home office of the entity owning the aircraft, if the operator does not own the aircraft). No person, solely due to an intentional unauthorized landing, will be detained involuntarily after identification is complete without coordination from the appropriate US Attorney, the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU, and HQ USAF/XOOBC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.16" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.16   Parking and storage.</HEAD>
<P>The time that an aircraft spends on an installation is at the discretion of the installation commander or a designated representative but should be linked to the purpose of use authorized. Parking and storage may be permitted on a nonexclusive, temporary, or intermittent basis, when compatible with military requirements. At those locations where there are Air Force aero clubs, parking and storage privileges may be permitted in the area designated for aero club use without regard for the purpose of use authorized, if consistent with aero club policies. Any such permission may be revoked upon notice, based on military needs and the installation commander's discretion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.17" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.17   Fees for landing, parking, and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Landing, parking, and storage fees (Tables 3 and 4 to this part) are determined by aircraft maximum gross takeoff weight (MGTOW). All fees are normally due and collectible at the time of use of the Air Force airfield. DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, is used to deposit the fees with the base accounting and finance officer. In some instances, it may be necessary to bill the user for charges incurred. 
</P>
<P>(b) Landing fees are not charged when the aircraft is operating in support of official Government business or for any purpose, the cost of which is subject to reimbursement by the US Government. Parking and Storage Fees (Table 4 to this part) are charged if an aircraft must remain beyond the period necessary to conduct official Government business and for all non-official Government business operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.18" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.18   Aviation fuel and oil purchases.</HEAD>
<P>When a user qualifies under the provisions of AFM 67-1, vol. 1, part three, chapter 1, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> purchase of Air Force fuel and oil may be made on a cash or credit basis. An application for credit authority can be filed by submitting an Authorized Credit Letter to SA-ALC/SFRL, 1014 Andrews Road, Building 1621, Kelly AFB TX 78241-5603. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.19" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.19   Supply and service charges.</HEAD>
<P>Supplies and services furnished to a user will be charged for as prescribed in AFM 67-1, volume 1, part one, chapter 10, section N, Basic Air Force Supply Procedures, and AFR 177-102, paragraph 28.24, Commercial Transactions at Base Level. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> A personal check with appropriate identification, cashier's check, money order, or cash are acceptable means of payment. Charges for handling foreign military sales cargo are prescribed in AFR 170-3, Financial Management and Accounting for Security Assistance and International Programs. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Agreements for Civil Aircraft Use of Air Force Airfields</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.20" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.20   Joint-use agreements.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement between the Air Force and a local Government agency is required before a community can establish a public airport on an Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P>(a) Joint use of an Air Force airfield will be considered only if there will be no cost to the Air Force and no compromise of mission capability, security, readiness, safety, or quality of life. Further, only proposals submitted by authorized representatives of local Government agencies eligible to sponsor a public airport will be given the comprehensive evaluation required to conclude a joint use agreement. All reviewing levels will consider and evaluate such requests on an individual basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, the Air Force is willing to consider joint use at an airfield if it does not have pilot training, nuclear storage, or a primary mission that requires a high level of security. Civil operations must begin within 5 years of the effective date of an agreement. Operational considerations will be based on the premise that military aircraft will receive priority handling (except in emergencies), if traffic must be adjusted or resequenced. The Air Force normally will not consider personnel increases solely to support civil operations but, if accommodated, all costs must be fully reimbursed by the joint-use sponsor. The Air Force will not provide personnel to install, operate, maintain, alter, or relocate navigation equipment or aircraft arresting systems for the sole use of civil aviation. Changes in equipment or systems to support the civil operations must be funded by the joint-use sponsor. The Air Force must approve siting, design, and construction of the civil facilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.21" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.21   Procedures for sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>To initiate consideration for joint use of an Air Force airfield, a formal proposal must be submitted to the installation commander by a local Government agency eligible to sponsor a public airport. The proposal must include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Type of operation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Type and number of aircraft to be located on or operating at the airfield. 
</P>
<P>(c) An estimate of the number of annual operations for the first 5 years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.22" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.22   Air Force procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a joint-use proposal, the installation commander, without precommitment or comment, will send the documents to the Air Force Representative (AFREP) at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Regional Office within the geographical area where the installation is located. AFI 13-201, Air Force Airspace Management, 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> lists the AFREPs and their addresses. The installation commander must provide an information copy of the proposal to HQ USAF/XOOBC, 1480 Air Force Pentagon, Washington DC 20330-1480. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The AFREP provides comments to the installation commander on airspace, air traffic control, and other related areas, and informs local FAA personnel of the proposal for joint use. 
</P>
<P>(c) The installation, the numbered Air Force, and the major command (MAJCOM) will then evaluate the proposal. The MAJCOM will send the comments and recommendations from all reviewing officials to HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P>
<P>(d) Factors considered in evaluating joint use include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Impact on current and programmed military activities at the installation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Compatibility of proposed civil aviation operations with present and planned military operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Compatibility of communications systems. 
</P>
<P>(4) Instrument capability of crew and aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(5) Runway and taxiway configuration. (Installations with single runways normally will not be considered for joint use.) 
</P>
<P>(6) Security. The possibility for sabotage, terrorism, and vandalism increases with joint use; therefore, joint use will not be considered: 
</P>
<P>(i) If military and civil aircraft would be collocated in hangars or on ramps. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If access to the civil aviation facilities would require routine transit through the base. 
</P>
<P>(7) Fire, crash, and rescue requirements. 
</P>
<P>(8) Availability of public airports to accommodate the current and future air transportation needs of the community through construction or expansion. 
</P>
<P>(9) Availability of land for civil airport complex. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The majority of land required for a terminal and other support facilities must be located outside the installation perimeter or at a site that will allow maximum separation of military and civil activities. If the community does not already own the needed land, it must be acquired at no expense to the Air Force. The Air Force may make real property that is not presently needed, but not excess, available by lease under 10 U.S.C 2667. An application for lease of Air Force real property must be processed through the chain of command to the Air Force Real Estate Agency, 172 Luke Avenue, Suite 104, Building 5683, Bolling AFB DC 20332-5113, as prescribed in AFI 32-9003, Granting Temporary Use of Air Force Real Property 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>. All real property outleases require payment of fair market consideration and normally are processed through the Corps of Engineers. The General Services Administration must be contacted regarding availability of excess or surplus Federal real property and an application submitted through FAA for an airport use public benefit transfer under 49 U.S.C. § 47151-47153.</P></NOTE>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>(10) Sponsor's resources to pay a proportionate share of costs for runway operation and maintenance and other jointly used facilities or otherwise provide compensation that is of direct benefit to the Government. 
</P>
<P>(e) When the Air Force determines that joint use may be compatible with its defense mission, the environmental impact analysis process must be completed before a final decision can be made. The Air Force will act as lead agency for the preparation of the environmental analysis (32 CFR part 989, Environmental Impact Analysis Process). The local Government agency representatives, working in coordination with Air Force personnel at the installation and other concerned local or Federal officials, must identify the proposed action, develop conceptual alternatives, and provide planning, socioeconomic, and environmental information as specified by the appropriate MAJCOM and HQ USAF/CEVP. The information must be complete and accurate in order to serve as a basis for the preparation of the Air Force environmental documents. All costs associated with the environmental studies required to complete the environmental impact analysis process must be paid by the joint use sponsor. Information on environmental analysis requirements is available from HQ USAF/CEVP, 1260 Air Force Pentagon, Washington DC 20330-1260. 
</P>
<P>(f) HQ USAF/XOOBC can begin negotiating a joint-use agreement after the environmental impact analysis process is completed. The agreement must be concluded on behalf of the Air Force by SAF/MII as the approval authority for use of Air Force real property for periods exceeding 5 years. The joint-use agreement will state the extent to which the provisions of subpart B of this part, Civil Aircraft Landing Permits, apply to civil aircraft operations. 
</P>
<P>(1) Joint-use agreements are tailored to accommodate the needs of the community and minimize the impact on the defense mission. Although each agreement is unique, attachment 4 to this part provides basic terms that are frequently included in such agreements. 
</P>
<P>(2) Agreements for joint use at Air Force airfields on foreign soil are subject to the requirements of AFI 51-701, Negotiating, Concluding, Reporting, and Maintaining International Agreements 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See footnote 1 to § 855.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) HQ USAF/XOOBC and SAF/MII approval is required to amend existing joint use agreements. The evaluation and decision processes followed in concluding an initial joint-use proposal must be used to amend existing joint-use agreements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 855.23" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 855.23   Other agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Temporary use of Air Force runways occasionally is needed for extended periods when a local civil airport is unavailable or to accommodate special events or projects. Such use requires agreement between the Air Force and the local airport authority or other equivalent responsible entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) The local proponent and Air Force personnel should draft and submit an agreement to the MAJCOM Director for Operations, or equivalent level, for review and comment. The agreement must address all responsibilities for handling aircraft, cargo, and passengers, and hold the Air Force harmless of all liabilities. The agreement will not exceed 3 years. Although each agreement will be unique, attachment 5 of this part provides one example. The draft agreement, with all comments and recommendations, must be sent to HQ USAF/XOOBC for final approval. 



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Table 1 to Part 855—Purpose of Use/Verification/Approval Authority/Fees

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Purpose of use 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Verification 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Approval * authority 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fees 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contractor or subcontractor (A). A US or foreign contractor or subcontractor, operating corporate, personal, or leased aircraft in conjunction with fulfilling the terms of a government contract</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current Government contract numbers; the Air Force airfields required for each contract; a brief description of the work to be performed; and the name, telephone number, and address of the government contracting officer must be provided on the DD Form 2401 or a continuation sheet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Note: Potential contractors may not land at Air Force airfields to pursue or present an unsolicited proposal for procurement of government business. One time authorization can be provided when an authorized US Government representative verifies that the potential contractor has been specifically invited for a sales presentation or to discuss their product. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Demonstration (B). Aircraft, aircraft with components installed, or aircraft transporting components or equipment operating to demonstrate or display a product to US Government representatives who have procurement authority or certification responsibilities. (Authority granted under this paragraph does not include aerobatic demonstrations.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Demonstration or display must be a contractual requirement or presented at the request of an authorized US Government representative. The name, address, and telephone number of the requesting government representative or contracting officer and contract number must be included on the DD Form 2401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aerial performance (BB). Aircraft performing aerobatics and or fly-bys at Air Force airfields</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Approval of MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU and FAA as specified in AFI 35-201, <E T="03">Community Relations</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Active duty US military and other US uniformed service members with military identification cards (includes members of the US Public Health Service, Coast Guard, and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration) (C). Service members, operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft for official duty travel (temporary duty, permanent change of station, etc.) or for private, non revenue flights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social security number in block 1 on DD Form 2401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reserve Forces (D). Members of the US Reserve Forces (including Reserve Officer Training Corps and National Guard) operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft to fulfill their official duty commitment at the installation where their unit is assigned and other installations for temporary duty assignments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Endorsement from member's commander that validates military status and requirement for use of Air Force airfields listed on the DD Form 2401. The endorsement may be included on the DD Form 2401 or provided separately by letter. When appropriate, travel orders must be on board the aircraft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependents of active duty US military personnel, other US uniformed service personnel, (CC), or US Reserve Forces personnel (DD). Dependents operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft in conjunction with activities related to entitlements as a dependent of a uniformed service member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identification card (DD Form 1173) number or social security number, identification card expiration date, and a letter of endorsement from sponsor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">US Government civil service employees (E). Civilian employees of the US Government operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft for official Government business travel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Supervisor's endorsement in block 4 of the DD Form 2401. Individual must have a copy of current travel orders or other official travel certification available for verification if requested by an airfield manager or a designated representative</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retired US military members and other retired US uniformed service members with a military identification card authorizing use of the commissary, base exchange, and or military medical facilities (G). Retired Service members, operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft in conjunction with activities related to retirement entitlements authorized by law or regulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copy of retirement orders on file with the approving authority</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dependents of retired US military personnel and other retired US uniformed service personnel (GG). Dependents of retired Service members operating their own aircraft, leased aircraft, or other available aircraft in conjunction with activities related to entitlements authorized by law or regulation as a dependent of a retired Service member</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identification card (DD Form 1173) number or social security number, identification card expiration date, sponsor's retirement orders, and letter of endorsement from sponsor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civil Air Patrol (CAP) (H). CAP members operating personal or CAP aircraft for official CAP activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Endorsement of the application by HQ CAP-USAF/XOO, 105 South Hansell Street, Maxwell AFB AL 36112-6332</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aero club members (I). Individuals operating their own aircraft at the Air Force airfield where they hold active aero club membership</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Membership validation by the aero club manager on the DD Form 2401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weather alternate (J). An Air Force airfield identified on a scheduled air carrier's flight plan as an alternate airport as prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) or equivalent foreign Government regulations. The airfield can only be used if weather conditions develop while the aircraft is in flight that preclude landing at the original destination. Aircraft may not be dispatched from the point of departure to an Air Force airfield designated as an approved weather alternate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">List of the destination civil airports for which the alternate will be used and certification of scheduled air carrier status, such as the US Department of Transportation Fitness Certificate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Note: Scheduled air carriers are defined at Attachment 1. Only those airfields identified on the list at Attachment 2 are available for use as weather alternates. Airfields cannot be used as alternates for non-scheduled operations. Passengers and cargo may not be offloaded, except with the approval of the installation commander when there is no other reasonable alternative. Boarding new passengers and or loading new cargo is not authorized.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Mobility Command (AMC) contractor charter (K). An air carrier transporting passengers or cargo under the terms of an AMC contract. (Landing permits for this purpose are processed by HQ AMC/DOKA, 402 Scott Drive, Unit 3A1, Scott AFB IL 62225-5302.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">International flights must have an AMC Form 8, Civil Aircraft Certificate, on board the aircraft. Domestic flights must have either a <E T="03">Certificate of QUICK-TRANS</E> (Navy), a <E T="03">Certificate of Courier Service Operations</E> (AMC), or a <E T="03">Certificate of Intra-Alaska Operations</E> (AMC) on board the aircraft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRAF alternate (KK). An Air Force airfield used as an alternate airport by air carriers that have contracted to provide aircraft for the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Participant in the CRAF program and authorized by contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">US Government contract or charter operator (L). An air carrier transporting passengers or cargo for a US Government department or agency other than US military departments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The chartering agency and name, address, and telephone number of the Government official procuring the transportation must be listed in block 4 of the DD Form 2401. An official government document, such as an SF 1169, <E T="03">US government Transportation Request,</E> must be on board the aircraft to substantiate that the flight is operating for a US Government department or agency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contractor or subcontractor charter (M). Aircraft chartered by a US or foreign contractor or subcontractor to transport personnel or cargo in support of a current government contract</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The contractor or subcontractor must provide written validation to the decision authority that the charter operator will be operating on their behalf in fulfilling the terms of a government contract, to include current government contract numbers and contract titles or brief description of the work to be performed; the Air Force airfields required for use, and the name, telephone number, and address of the government contracting officer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DOD charter (N). Aircraft transporting passengers or cargo within the United States for the military departments to accommodate transportation requirements that do not exceed 90 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Military Air Transportation Agreement (MATA) approved by the Military Transportation Management Command (MTMC) (this includes survey and approval by HQ AMC/DOB, 402 Scott Drive, Suite 132, Scott AFB IL 62225-5363). An SF 1169 or SF 1103, <E T="03">US Government Bill of Lading,</E> must be on board the aircraft to validate the operation is for the military departments as specified in AFJI 24-211, <E T="03">Defense Traffic Management Regulation.</E> (Passenger charters arranged by the MTMC are assigned a commercial air movement (CAM) or civil air freight movement number each time a trip is awarded. Installations will normally be notified by message at least 24 hours before a pending CAM.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Media (F). Aircraft transporting representatives of the media for the purpose of gathering information about a US Government operation or event. (Except for the White House Press Corps, use will be considered on a case-by-case basis. For example, authorization is warranted if other forms of transportation preclude meeting a production deadline or such use is in the best interest of the US Government. DD Forms 2400 and 2402 should be on file with HQ USAF/XOOBC to ensure prompt telephone approval for validated requests.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Except for White House Press Corps charters, concurrence of the installation commander, base operations officer, and public affairs officer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial aircraft certification testing required by the FARs that only involves use of normal flight facilities (P)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Application must cite the applicable FAR, describe the test, and include the name and telephone number of the FAA certification officer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial development testing at Air Force flight test facilities (Q) as described in AFI 99-101, <E T="03">Development Test &amp; Evaluation</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Statement of Capability Number or Cooperative Research and Development Agreement Number, and name and telephone number of the Air Force official who approved support of the test project</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial charter operations (R). Aircraft transporting passengers or cargo for hire for other than US military departments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unavailability of:
<br/>a. a suitable civil airport,
<br/>b. aircraft that could operate into the local civil airport, or
<br/>c. other modes of transportation that would reasonably satisfy the transportation requirement.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Note: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) certification is required for airfields used by carriers certified under FAR, part 121 (passenger aircraft that exceed 30 passenger seats). HQ USAF/XOOBC will request that FAA issue an airport operating certificate under FAR, part 139, as necessary. Exceptions to the requirement for certification are Air Force airfields used for:</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">a. Emergencies.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">b. Weather alternates.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">c. Air taxi operations under FAR, part 135. Note: This is currently under review. Anticipate a change that will eliminate the air taxi exemption.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">d. Air carrier operations in support of contract flights exclusively for the US military departments.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial air crew training flights (S). Aircraft operated by commercial air carrier crews for the purpose of maintaining required proficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Memorandum of Understanding approved by HQ USAF/XOOBC that establishes conditions and responsibilities in conducting the training flights</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Private, non revenue producing flights (T). Aircraft operating for a variety of reasons, such as transporting individuals to meet with Government representatives or participate in Government sponsored ceremonies and similar events. At specified locations, the purpose of use may be to gain access to collocated private sector facilities as authorized by lease, agreement, or contract</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The verification will vary with the purpose for use. For example, when use is requested in conjunction with events such as meetings or ceremonies, the applicant must provide the name and telephone number of the Government project officer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provisional airfield (U). An Air Force airfield used by civil aircraft when the local civil airport is temporarily unavailable, or by a commercial air carrier operating at a specific remote location to provide commercial air transportation for local military members under the provisions of a lease or other legal instrument</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Memorandum of Understanding, Letter of Agreement, or lease that establishes responsibilities and conditions for use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign government charter (V). Aircraft chartered by a foreign government to transport passengers or cargo</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Application must include name and telephone number of the foreign government representative responsible for handling the charter arrangements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flights transporting foreign military sales (FMS) material (W). (Hazardous, oversized, or classified cargo only.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FMS case number, requisition numbers, delivery term code and information as specified below:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Description of cargo (nomenclature and or proper shipping name). The description of hazardous cargo must include the Department of Transportation exemption number, hazard class, number of pieces, and net explosive weight
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Name, address, and telephone number of individual at Air Force base that is coordinating cargo handling and or other required terminal services
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Cargo to be loaded or off loaded must be equipped with sufficient cargo pallets and or tiedown materials to facilitate handling. Compatible 463L pallets and nets will be exchanged on a one-for-one basis for serviceable units. Nonstandard pallets and nets cannot be exchanged; however, they will be used to buildup cargo loads after arrival of the aircraft. Aircraft arriving without sufficient cargo loading and tiedown devices must be floor loaded and the aircraft crew will be responsible for purchasing the necessary ropes, chains, and so forth
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">d. US Government FMS case management agency to which costs for services rendered are chargeable
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">e. Name, address, and telephone number of freight forwarder
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">f. Name, address, and telephone number of shipper
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Certified flight record attempts (X). Aircraft operating to establish a new aviation record</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Documentation that will validate National Aeronautic Association or Federation Aeronautique Internationale sanction of the record attempt</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Political candidates (Y). (For security reasons only) Aircraft either owned or chartered explicitly for a Presidential or Vice Presidential candidate, including not more than one accompanying overflow aircraft for the candidate's staff and press corps. Candidate must be a Presidential or Vice Presidential candidate who is being furnished protection by the US Secret Service. Aircraft clearance is predicated on the Presidential or Vice Presidential candidate being aboard one of the aircraft (either on arrival or departure). Normal landing fees will be charged. To avoid conflict with US statutes and Air Force operational requirements, and to accommodate expeditious handling of aircraft and passengers, the installation commander will:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Secret Service must confirm that use has been requested in support of its security responsibilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. Provide minimum official welcoming party. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. Not provide special facilities. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">c. Not permit political rallies or speeches on the installation. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">d. Not provide official transportation to unauthorized personnel, such as the press or local populace. 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aircraft either owned or personally chartered for transportation of the President, Vice President, a past President of the United States, the head of any US Federal department or agency, or a member of the Congress (Z)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use by other than the President or Vice President must be for official government business. All requests will be coordinated with the Office of Legislative Liaison (SAF/LL) as prescribed in AFI 90-401, <E T="03">Air Force Relations with Congress</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Approving Authority:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1 = Can be approved at all levels. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2 = HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3 = HQ AMC/DOKA. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4 = Except as specifically delegated in paragraphs 2.4.2 and 2.4.2.3, must be approved by HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">5 = Except as specifically delegated in paragraph 2.4.2.1, must be approved by HQ USAF/XOOBC. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">6 = Policy concerning private aircraft use of aero club facilities varies from base to base, primarily due to space limitations and military mission requirements. Therefore, applications for use of aero club facilities must be processed at base level. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Note 1: Landing fees <E T="03">are charged</E> for White House Press Corps flights. Landing fees are not charged if the Air Force has invited media coverage of specific events. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Note 2: Landing fees <E T="03">are charged if</E> flight is <E T="03">not</E> operating in support of <E T="03">official Government business.</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Note 3: Landing fees <E T="03">are charged</E> unless US Government charters have reciprocal privileges in the foreign country.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Table 2 to Part 855—Aircraft Liability Coverage Requirements

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aircraft maximum gross takeoff weight
<br/>(MGTOW) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coverage for 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bodily injury 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Property damage 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Passenger 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12,500 Pounds and Under</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each Person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each Accident</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000 multiplied by the number of passenger seats.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 12,500 Pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each Person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each Accident</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000 multiplied by 75% multiplied by the number of passenger seats.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Table 3 to Part 855—Landing Fees 

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aircraft Maximum Gross Takeoff Weight (MGTOW) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Normal fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unauthorized fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Intentional fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">United States, Territories, and Possessions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Overseas
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1.50 per 1,000 lbs MGTOW or fraction thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$20.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1.70 per 1,000 lbs MGTOW or fraction thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to and including 12,500 lbs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12,501 to 40,000 lbs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 40,000 lbs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Increase unauthorized fee by 100% or 200%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Table 4 to Part 855—Parking and Storage Fees 

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fee per aircraft for each 24-hour period or less
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Charge begins
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ramp
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hangar
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.00 per 100,000 lbs MGTOW or fraction thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$20.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 hours after landing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$2.00 per 100,000 lbs MGTOW or fraction thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediately</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 1 to Part 855—Glossary of References, Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Terms 
</HEAD>
<HD2>Section A—References 
</HD2>
<FP-2>AFPD 10-10, Civil Aircraft Use of United States Air Force Airfields 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 10-1001, Civil Aircraft Landing Permits 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 13-201, Air Force Airspace Management 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 32-7061(32 CFR part 989), Environmental Impact Analysis Process 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 32-9003, Granting Temporary Use of Air Force Real Property 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 34-117, Air Force Aero Club Program 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 35-201, Community Relations 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 51-701, Negotiating, Concluding, Reporting, and Maintaining International Agreements 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 84-103, Museum System 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 90-401, Air Force Relations with Congress 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFI 99-101, Development Test and Evaluation 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFJI 24-211, Defense Traffic Management Regulation 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFM
</FP-2>
<FP-2>67-1, vol 1, part 1, Basic Air Force Supply Procedures 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFM 67-1, vol 1, part 3, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFMAN 3-132, Air Force Aero Club Operations 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFR 170-3, Financial Management and Accounting for Security Assistance and International Programs 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFR 177-102, Commercial Transactions at Base Level 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FAR, part 121, Certification and Operation: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operations of Large Aircraft 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FAR, part 135, Air Taxi Operators and Commercial Operators of Small Aircraft 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FAR, part 139, Certification and Operations: Land Airports Serving Certain Air Carriers 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Section B—Abbreviations and Acronyms 
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Abbreviations and acronyms 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Instruction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFJI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Joint Instruction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Manual.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFMAN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Manual.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFPD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Policy Directive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Regulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AFREP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Force Representative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AMC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Mobility Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AOG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air Operations Group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CAM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial Air Movement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CAP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civil Air Patrol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRAF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civil Reserve Air Fleet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DPSC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defense Personnel Support Center.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DRU</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Reporting Unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FAA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Federal Aviation Administration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FAR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Federal Aviation Regulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foreign Military Sales.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FOA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Field Operating Agency.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FSDO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flight Standards District Office.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HQ AMC/DOKA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters Air Mobility Command, Contract Airlift, Directorate of Operations and Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HQ USAF/CEVP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters United States Air Force, Environmental Planning Division, Directorate of Environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HQ USAF/XOOBC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters United States Air Force, Civil Aviation, Bases and Units Division, Directorate of Operations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HQ USAF/XOOO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Headquarters United States Air Force, Operations Group, Directorate of Operations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MAJCOM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Major Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MATA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Military Air Transportation Agreement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MGTOW</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Gross Takeoff Weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MTMC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Military Traffic Management Command.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAF/LL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Air Force, Office of Legislative Liaison.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAF/MII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Air Force, Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force (Installations).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAF/PAC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretary of the Air Force, Office of Public Affairs, Directorate for Community Relations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">US</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">United States.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">USDAO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">United States Defense Attache Office.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>Section C—Terms
</HD2>
<P><I>Aircraft.</I> Any contrivance now known or hereafter invented, used, or designated for navigation of or flight in navigable airspace as defined in the Federal Aviation Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Airfield.</I> An area prepared for the accommodation (including any buildings, installations, and equipment), landing, and take-off of aircraft. 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized Credit Letter.</I> A letter of agreement that qualified operators must file with the Air Force to purchase Air Force aviation fuel and oil on a credit basis under the provisions of AFM 67-1, vol 1, part three, chapter 1, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures. 
</P>
<P><I>Civil Aircraft.</I> Any United States or foreign-registered aircraft owned by non-Governmental entities, and foreign Government-owned aircraft that are operated for commercial purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>Civil Aviation.</I> All civil aircraft of any national registry, including: 
</P>
<P><I>Commercial Aviation.</I> Civil aircraft that transport passengers or cargo for hire. 
</P>
<P><I>General Aviation.</I> Civil aircraft that do not transport passengers or cargo for hire. 
</P>
<P><I>Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF).</I> US registered aircraft, certificated under FAR part 121, obligated by contract to provide aircraft and crews to the Department of Defense during contingencies or war. 
</P>
<P><I>DD Form 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance.</I> A certificate that shows the amount of third-party liability insurance carried by the user and assures the United States Government of advance notice if changes in coverage occur. 
</P>
<P><I>DD Form 2401, Civil Aircraft Landing Permit.</I> A license which, when validated by an Air Force approving authority, authorizes the civil aircraft owner or operator to use Air Force airfields. 
</P>
<P><I>DD Form 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement.</I> An agreement, completed by the user, which releases the United States Government from all liabilities incurred in connection with civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields. 
</P>
<P><I>Government Aircraft.</I> Aircraft owned, operated, or controlled for exclusive, long-term use by any department or agency of either the United States or a foreign Government; and aircraft owned by any United States State, County, Municipality or other political subdivision; or any aircraft for which a Government has the liability responsibility. In the context of this instruction, it includes foreign registered aircraft, which are normally commercially operated, that have been wholly chartered for use by foreign Government heads of State for official State visits. 
</P>
<P><I>Government Furnished or Bailed Aircraft.</I> US Government-owned aircraft provided to a Government contractor for use in conjunction with a specific contractual requirement. 
</P>
<P><I>Installation Commander.</I> The individual with ultimate responsibility for operating the airfield and for base operations (normally a wing or group commander), as determined by the MAJCOM. 
</P>
<P><I>Joint-Use Agreement.</I> An agreement between the Air Force and a local Government agency that establishes a public airport on an Air Force airfield. 
</P>
<P><I>Loaned Aircraft.</I> US Government-owned aircraft made available for use by another US Government agency. This does not include aircraft leased or loaned to non-Governmental entities. Such aircraft will be considered as civil aircraft for purposes of this instruction. 
</P>
<P><I>Military Aircraft.</I> Aircraft used exclusively in the military services of the US or a foreign Government and bearing appropriate military and national markings or carrying appropriate identification. 
</P>
<P><I>Official Government Business.</I> Activities that support or serve the needs of US Federal agencies located at or in the immediate vicinity of an Air Force installation, including nonappropriated fund entities. For elected or appointed Federal, State, and local officeholders, official business is activity performed in fulfilling duties as a public official.
</P>
<P><I>Other Agreement.</I> An agreement between the Air Force and a local Government agency for temporary use of an Air Force runway when a local civil airport is unavailable, or to accommodate a special event or project. 
</P>
<P><I>Scheduled Air Carrier.</I> An air carrier that holds a scheduled air carrier certificate and provides scheduled service year round between two or more points.
</P>
<P><I>Unauthorized Landing.</I> A landing at an Air Force airfield by a civil aircraft without prior authority (approved DD Form 2401 and 24 hours prior notice).
</P>
<P><I>User.</I> The person, corporation, or other responsible entity operating civil aircraft at Air Force airfields.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 2 to Part 855—Weather Alternate List
</HEAD>
<FP-1>ALTUS AFB OK
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ANDERSEN AFB GUAM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANNON AFB NM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOBBINS AFB GA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DYESS AFB TX
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EARECKSON AFS AK *
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>* Formerly Shemya AFB.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>EGLIN AFB FL
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EIELSON AFB AK
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ELLSWORTH AFB SD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ELMENDORF AFB AK
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAIRCHILD AFB WA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>GRAND FORKS AFB ND
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HILL AFB UT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HOWARD AFB PA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>KADENA AB OKINAWA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>KELLY AFB TX
</FP-1>
<FP-1>KUNSAN AB KOREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LANGLEY AFB VA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LAUGHLIN AFB TX
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MALMSTROM AFB MT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>McCHORD AFB WA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>McCONNELL AFB KS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MINOT AFB ND
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MT HOME AFB ID
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NELLIS AFB NV
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OFFUTT AFB NE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSAN AB KOREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PLANT 42, PALMDALE CA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TRAVIS AFB CA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TYNDALL AFB FL
</FP-1>
<FP-1>YOKOTA AB JAPAN


</FP-1>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 3 to Part 855—Landing Permit Application Instructions
</HEAD>
<P>A3.1. DD Form 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance: The insurance company or its authorized agent must complete and sign the DD Form 2400. Corrections to the form made using a different typewriter, pen, or whiteout must be initialed by the signatory. THE FORM CANNOT BE COMPLETED BY THE AIRCRAFT OWNER OR OPERATOR. Upon expiration, the DD Form 2400 must be resubmitted along with DD Form 2401 for continued use of Air Force airfields. The DD Form 2400 may be submitted to the decision authority by either the user or insurer.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0701-0050)
</APPRO>
<P>A3.1.1. Block 1, Date Issued. The date the DD Form 2400 is completed by the signatory.
</P>
<P>A3.1.2. Block 2a and 2b, Insurer Name, Address. The name and address of the insurance company.
</P>
<P>A3.1.3. Block 3a and 3b. Insured Name, Address. The name and address of the aircraft owner and or operator. (The name of the user must be the same on all the forms.)
</P>
<P>A3.1.4. Block 4a, Policy Number(s). The policy number must be provided. Binder numbers or other assigned numbers will not be accepted in lieu of the policy number.
</P>
<P>A3.1.5. Block 4b, Effective Date. The first day of current insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>A3.1.6. Block 4c, Expiration Date. The last day of current insurance coverage. The DD Form 2400 is valid until one day before the insurance expiration date. A DD Form 2400 with the statement “until canceled,” in lieu of a specific expiration date, is valid for two years from the issue date.
</P>
<P>A3.1.7. Block 5, Aircraft Liability Coverage. The amount of split limit coverage. All boxes in block 5 must be completed to specify the coverage for: each person (top line, left to right) outside the aircraft (bodily injury) and each passenger; and the total coverage per accident (second line, left to right) for: persons outside the aircraft (bodily injury), property damage, and passengers. IF BLOCK 5 IS USED, BLOCK 6 SHOULD NOT BE USED. All coverages must be stated in US dollars. ALL SEATS THAT CAN BE USED FOR PASSENGERS MUST BE INSURED. See Table 2 for required minimum coverage.
</P>
<P>A3.1.8. Block 6, Single Limit. The maximum amount of coverage per accident. IF BLOCK 6 IS USED, BLOCK 5 SHOULD NOT BE USED. The minimum coverage required for a combined single limit is determined by adding the minimums specified in the “each accident” line of Table 2. All coverages must be stated in US dollars. ALL SEATS THAT CAN BE USED FOR PASSENGERS MUST BE INSURED.
</P>
<P>A3.1.9. Block 7, Excess Liability. The amount of coverage which exceeds primary coverage. All coverages must be stated in US dollars. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.10. Block 8, Provisions of Amendments or Endorsements of Listed Policy(ies). Any modification of this block by the insurer or insured invalidates the DD Form 2400. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.11. Block 9a, Typed Name of Insurer's Authorized Representative. Individual must be an employee of the insurance company, an agent of the insurance company, or an employee of an insurance broker. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.12. Block 9b, Signature. The form must be signed in blue ink so that hand scribed, original signatures are easy to identify. Signature stamps or any type of facsimile signature cannot be accepted. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.13. Block 9c, Title. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.14. Block 9d, Telephone Number. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.1.15. THE REVERSE OF THE FORM MAY BE USED IF ADDITIONAL SPACE IS REQUIRED. 
</P>
<P>A3.2. DD Form 2401, Civil Aircraft Landing Permit. A separate DD Form 2401 must be submitted for each purpose of use (Table 1). 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0701-0050)
</APPRO>
<P>A3.2.1. Block 1a. The name of the owner or operator. (The name of the user must be the same on all the forms.) 
</P>
<P>A3.2.2. Block 1b. This block should only be completed if the applicant is a subsidiary, division, etc, of another company. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.3. Block 1c. Business or home address, whichever is applicable, of applicant. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.4. Block 2. List the airfields where the aircraft will be operating. The statement “Any US Air Force Installation Worldwide” is acceptable for users performing AMC and White House Press Corps charters. “All Air Force airfields in the CONUS” is acceptable, if warranted by official Government business, for all users. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.5. Block 3. Self-explanatory. (Users will not necessarily be denied landing rights if pilots are not instrument rated and current.) 
</P>
<P>A3.2.6. Block 4. Provide a brief explanation of purpose for use. The purposes normally associated with use of Air Force airfields are listed in Table 1. If use for other purposes is requested, it may be approved if warranted by unique circumstances. (The verification specified for each purpose of use must be included with the application.) 
</P>
<P>A3.2.7. Block 5. EXCEPT AS NOTED FOR BLOCK 5C, ALL ITEMS MUST BE COMPLETED. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.8. Block 5a and Block 5b. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.9. Block 5c. If the DD Form 2400, Certificate of Insurance, indicates coverage for “any aircraft of the listed model owned and or operated,” the same statement can be used in block 5c in lieu of specific registration numbers. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.10. Block 5d. The capacity provided must reflect only the number of crew required to operate the aircraft. The remaining seats are considered passenger seats. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.11. Block 5e. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.12. Block 5d. A two-way radio is required. Landing rights will not necessarily be denied for lack of strobe lights, a transponder, or IFR capabilities. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.13. Block 6a. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.14. Block 6b. If the applicant is an individual, this block should not be completed. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.15. Block 6c. This block should contain a daytime telephone number. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.16. Block 6d. The form must be signed in blue ink so that hand scribed, original signatures are easy to identify. Signature stamps or any type of facsimile signature cannot be accepted. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.17. Block 6e. Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.18. THE REVERSE OF THE FORM MAY BE USED IF ADDITIONAL SPACE IS REQUIRED. 
</P>
<P>BLOCKS 7A THROUGH 14C ARE NOT COMPLETED BY THE APPLICANT. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.19. Blocks 7a and 7b. The expiration date of a permit is determined by the insurance expiration date or the purpose of use. For example, the dates of an air show will determine the expiration date of a permit approved for participation in the air show. If the insurance expiration is used to determine the permit expiration date, the landing permit will expire one day before the insurance expiration date shown on the DD Form 2400, or 2 years from the date the permit is issued when the insurance expiration date either exceeds 2 years or is indefinite (for example, “until canceled”). 
</P>
<P>A3.2.20. APPROVED PERMITS CANNOT BE CHANGED WITHOUT THE CONSENT OF THE APPROVING AUTHORITY. 
</P>
<P>A3.2.21. DD FORMS 2400 AND 2401 MUST BE RESUBMITTED TO RENEW A LANDING PERMIT. (Corporations must resubmit the DD Form 2402 every five years.) 
</P>
<P>A3.3. DD Form 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement. A form submitted and accepted by an approving authority for an individual remains valid and need not be resubmitted to the same approving authority, unless canceled for cause. Forms submitted by companies, organizations, associations, etc, must be resubmitted at least every five years. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0701-0050)
</APPRO>
<P>A3.3.1. Block 2a(1). This block should contain the user's name if the applicant is a company. If the hold harmless agreement is intended to cover other entities of a parent company, their names must also be included in this block. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.2. Block 2a(2). This block should contain the user's address if the applicant is a company. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.3. Block 2b(1). This block should contain the name of the individual applying for a landing permit or the name of a corporate officer that is authorized to legally bind the corporation from litigation against the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.4. Block 2b(2). This block should contain the address of the individual applying for a landing permit. A company address is only required if it is different from the address in block 2a(2). 
</P>
<P>A3.3.5. Block 2b(3). The form must be signed in blue ink so that hand scribed, original signatures are easy to identify. Signature stamps or any type of facsimile signature cannot be accepted. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.6. Block 2b(4). This block should only be completed when the applicant is a company, organization, association, etc. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.7. Block 3a(1). If the applicant is a company, organization, association, etc, the form must be completed and signed by the corporate secretary or a second corporate officer (other than the officer executing DD Form 2402) to certify the signature of the first officer. As necessary, the US Air Force also may require that the form be authenticated by an appropriately designated third official. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.8. Block 3a(2). The form must be signed in blue ink so that hand scribed, original signatures are easy to identify. Signature stamps or any type of facsimile signature cannot be accepted. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.9. Block 3a(3). Self-explanatory. 
</P>
<P>A3.3.10. Block 4. Self-explanatory. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 4 to Part 855—Sample Joint-Use Agreement
</HEAD>
<HD2>Joint-Use Agreement Between an Airport Sponsor and the United States Air Force
</HD2>
<P>This Joint Use Agreement is made and entered into this ____ day of ____ 19__, by and between the Secretary of the Air Force, for and on behalf of the United States of America (“Air Force”) and an airport sponsor (“Sponsor”) a public body eligible to sponsor a public airport. 
</P>
<P>WHEREAS, the Air Force owns and operates the runways and associated flight facilities (collectively “flying facilities”) located at Warbucks Air Force Base, USA (“WAFB”); and 
</P>
<P>WHEREAS, Sponsor desires to use the flying facilities at WAFB to permit operations by general aviation aircraft and commercial air carriers (scheduled and nonscheduled) jointly with military aircraft; and 
</P>
<P>WHEREAS, the Air Force considers that this Agreement will be in the public interest, and is agreeable to joint use of the flying facilities at WAFB; and 
</P>
<P>WHEREAS, this Agreement neither addresses nor commits any Air Force real property or other facilities that may be required for exclusive use by Sponsor to support either present or future civil aviation operations and activities in connection with joint use; and 
</P>
<P>WHEREAS, the real property and other facilities needed to support civil aviation operations are either already available to or will be diligently pursued by Sponsor; 
</P>
<P>NOW, THEREFORE, it is agreed: 
</P>
<HD3>1. Joint Use 
</HD3>
<P>a. The Air Force hereby authorizes Sponsor to permit aircraft equipped with two-way radios capable of communicating with the WAFB Control Tower to use the flying facilities at WAFB, subject to the terms and conditions set forth in this Agreement and those Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) applicable to civil aircraft operations. Civil aircraft operations are limited to 20,000 per calendar year. An operation is a landing or a takeoff. Civil aircraft using the flying facilities of WAFB on official Government business as provided in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-1001, Civil Aircraft Landing Permits, are not subject to this Agreement. 
</P>
<P>b. Aircraft using the flying facilities of WAFB under the authority granted to Sponsor by this Agreement shall be entitled to use those for landings, takeoffs, and movement of aircraft and will normally park only in the area made available to Sponsor and designated by them for that purpose. 
</P>
<P>c. Government aircraft taking off and landing at WAFB will have priority over all civil aircraft at all times. 
</P>
<P>d. All ground and air movements of civil aircraft using the flying facilities of WAFB under this Agreement, and movements of all other vehicles across Air Force taxiways, will be controlled by the WAFB Control Tower. Civil aircraft activity will coincide with the WAFB Control Tower hours of operation. Any additional hours of the WAFB Control Tower or other essential airfield management, or operational requirements beyond those needed by the Air Force, shall be arranged and funded (or reimbursed) by Sponsor. These charges, if any, shall be in addition to the annual charge in paragraph 2 and payable not less frequently than quarterly. 
</P>
<P>e. No civil aircraft may use the flying facilities for training. 
</P>
<P>f. Air Force-owned airfield pavements made available for use under this Agreement shall be for use on an “as is, where is” basis. The Air Force will be responsible for snow removal only as required for Government mission accomplishment. 
</P>
<P>g. Dust or any other erosion or nuisance that is created by, or arises out of, activities or operations by civil aircraft authorized use of the flying facilities under this Agreement will be corrected by Sponsor at no expense to the Air Force, using standard engineering methods and procedures. 
</P>
<P>h. All phases of planning and construction of new runways and primary taxiways on Sponsor property must be coordinated with the WAFB Base Civil Engineer. Those intended to be jointly used by Air Force aircraft will be designed to support the type of military aircraft assigned to or commonly transient through WAFB. 
</P>
<P>i. Coordination with the WAFB Base Civil Engineer is required for planning and construction of new structures or exterior alteration of existing structures that are owned or leased by Sponsor. 
</P>
<P>j. Sponsor shall comply with the procedural and substantive requirements established by the Air Force, and Federal, State, interstate, and local laws, for the flying facilities of WAFB and any runway and flight facilities on Sponsor property with respect to the control of air and water pollution; noise; hazardous and solid waste management and disposal; and hazardous materials management. 
</P>
<P>k. Sponsor shall implement civil aircraft noise mitigation plans and controls at no expense to and as directed by the Air Force, pursuant to the requirements of the WAFB Air Installation Compatible Use Zone (AICUZ) study; the FAA part 150 study; and environmental impact statements and environmental assessments, including supplements, applicable to aircraft operations at WAFB. 
</P>
<P>l. Sponsor shall comply, at no expense to the Air Force, with all applicable FAA security measures and procedures as described in the Airport Security Program for WAFB. 
</P>
<P>m. Sponsor shall not post any notices or erect any billboards or signs, nor authorize the posting of any notices or the erection of any billboards or signs at the airfield of any nature whatsoever, other than identification signs attached to buildings, without prior written approval from the WAFB Base Civil Engineer. 
</P>
<P>n. Sponsor shall neither transfer nor assign this Agreement without the prior written consent of the Air Force. 
</P>
<HD3>2. Payment 
</HD3>
<P>a. For the purpose of reimbursing the Air Force for Sponsor's share of the cost of maintaining and operating the flying facilities of WAFB as provided in this Agreement, Sponsor shall pay, with respect to civil aircraft authorized to use those facilities under this Agreement, the sum of (specify sum) annually. Payment shall be made quarterly, in equal installments. 
</P>
<P>b. All payments due pursuant to this Agreement shall be payable to the order of the Treasurer of the United States of America, and shall be made to the Accounting and Finance Officer, WAFB, within thirty (30) days after each quarter. Quarters are deemed to end on December 31, March 31, June 30, and September 30. Payment shall be made promptly when due, without any deduction or setoff. Interest at the rate prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States shall be due and payable on any payment required to be made under this Agreement that is not paid within ten (10) days after the date on which such payment is due and end on the day payment is received by the Air Force. 
</P>
<HD3>3. Services 
</HD3>
<P>Sponsor shall be responsible for providing services, maintenance, and emergency repairs for civil aircraft authorized to use the flying facilities of WAFB under this Agreement at no cost to the Air Force. If Air Force assistance is required to repair an aircraft, Sponsor shall reimburse the Air Force for all expenses of such services. Any required reimbursement shall be paid not less frequently than quarterly. These charges are in addition to the annual charge specified in paragraph 2. 
</P>
<HD3>4. Fire Protection and Crash Rescue 
</HD3>
<P>a. The Air Force maintains the level of fire fighting, crash, and rescue capability required to support the military mission at WAFB. The Air Force agrees to respond to fire, crash, and rescue emergencies involving civil aircraft outside the hangars or other structures within the limits of its existing capabilities, equipment, and available personnel, only at the request of Sponsor, and subject to subparagraphs b, c, and d below. Air Force fire fighting, crash, and rescue equipment and personnel shall not be routinely located in the airfield movement area during nonemergency landings by civil aircraft. 
</P>
<P>b. Sponsor shall be responsible for installing, operating, and maintaining, at no cost to the Air Force, the equipment and safety devices required for all aspects of handling and support for aircraft on the ground as specified in the FARs and National Fire Protection Association procedures and standards. 
</P>
<P>c. Sponsor agrees to release, acquit, and forever discharge the Air Force, its officers, agents, and employees from all liability arising out of or connected with the use of or failure to supply in individual cases, Air Force fire fighting and or crash and rescue equipment or personnel for fire control and crash and rescue activities pursuant to this Agreement. Sponsor further agrees to indemnify, defend, and hold harmless the Air Force, its officers, agents, and employees against any and all claims, of whatever description, arising out of or connected with such use of, or failure to supply Air Force fire fighting and or crash and rescue equipment or personnel. 
</P>
<P>d. Sponsor will reimburse the Air Force for expenses incurred by the Air Force for fire fighting and or crash and rescue materials expended in connection with providing such service to civil aircraft. The Air Force may, at its option, with concurrence of the National Transportation Safety Board, remove crashed civil aircraft from Air Force-owned pavements or property and shall follow existing Air Force directives and or instructions in recovering the cost of such removal. 
</P>
<P>e. Failure to comply with the above conditions upon reasonable notice to cure or termination of this Agreement under the provisions of paragraph 7 may result in termination of fire protection and crash and rescue response by the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>f. The Air Force commitment to assist Sponsor with fire protection shall continue only so long as a fire fighting and crash and rescue organization is authorized for military operations at WAFB. The Air Force shall have no obligation to maintain or provide a fire fighting, and crash and rescue organization or fire fighting and crash and rescue equipment; or to provide any increase in fire fighting and crash and rescue equipment or personnel; or to conduct training or inspections for purposes of assisting Sponsor with fire protection. 
</P>
<HD3>5. Liability and Insurance 
</HD3>
<P>a. Sponsor will assume all risk of loss and or damage to property or injury to or death of persons by reason of civil aviation use of the flying facilities of WAFB under this Agreement, including, but not limited to, risks connected with the provision of services or goods by the Air Force to Sponsor or to any user under this Agreement. Sponsor further agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the Air Force against, and to defend at Sponsor expense, all claims for loss, damage, injury, or death sustained by any individual or corporation or other entity and arising out of the use of the flying facilities of WAFB and or the provision of services or goods by the Air Force to Sponsor or to any user, whether the claims be based in whole, or in part, on the negligence or fault of the Air Force or its contractors or any of their officers, agents, and employees, or based on any concept of strict or absolute liability, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>b. Sponsor will carry a policy of liability and indemnity insurance satisfactory to the Air Force, naming the United States of America as an additional insured party, to protect the Government against any of the aforesaid losses and or liability, in the sum of not less than (specify sum) bodily injury and property damage combined for any one accident. Sponsor shall provide the Air Force with a certificate of insurance evidencing such coverage. A new certificate must be provided on the occasion of policy renewal or change in coverage. All policies shall provide that: (1) No cancellation, reduction in amount, or material change in coverage thereof shall be effective until at least thirty (30) days after receipt of notice of such cancellation, reduction, or change by the installation commander at WAFB, (2) any losses shall be payable notwithstanding any act or failure to act or negligence of Sponsor or the Air Force or any other person, and (3) the insurer shall have no right of subrogation against the United States. 
</P>
<HD3>6. Term of Agreement 
</HD3>
<P>This Agreement shall become effective immediately and shall remain in force and effect for a term of 25 years, unless otherwise renegotiated or terminated under the provisions of paragraph 7, but in no event shall the Agreement survive the termination or expiration of Sponsor's right to use, by license, lease, or transfer of ownership, of the land areas used in connection with joint use of the flying facilities of WAFB. 
</P>
<HD3>7. Renegotiation and Termination 
</HD3>
<P>a. If significant change in circumstances or conditions relevant to this Agreement should occur, the Air Force and Sponsor may enter into negotiations to revise the provisions of this Agreement, including financial and insurance provisions, upon sixty (60) days written notice to the other party. Any such revision or modification of this Agreement shall require the written mutual agreement and signatures of both parties. Unless such agreement is reached, the existing agreement shall continue in full force and effect, subject to termination or suspension under this section. 
</P>
<P>b. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Agreement, the Air Force may terminate this Agreement: (1) At any time by the Secretary of the Air Force, giving ninety (90) days written notice to Sponsor, provided that the Secretary of the Air Force determines, in writing, that paramount military necessity requires that joint use be terminated, or (2) at any time during any national emergency, present or future, declared by the President or the Congress of the United States, or (3) in the event that Sponsor ceases operation of the civil activities at WAFB for a period of one (1) year, or (4) in the event Sponsor violates any of the terms and conditions of this Agreement and continues and persists therein for thirty (30) days after written notification to cure such violation. In addition to the above rights, the Air Force may at any time suspend this agreement if violations of its terms and conditions by Sponsor create a significant danger to safety, public health, or the environment at WAFB. 
</P>
<P>c. The failure of either the Air Force or Sponsor to insist, in any one or more instances, upon the strict performance of any of the terms, conditions, or provisions of this Agreement shall not be construed as a waiver or relinquishment of the right to the future performance of any such terms, conditions, or provisions. No provision of this Agreement shall be deemed to have been waived by either party unless such waiver be in writing signed by such party. 
</P>
<HD3>8. Notices 
</HD3>
<P>a. No notice, order, direction, determination, requirement, consent, or approval under this Agreement shall be of any effect unless it is in writing and addressed as provided herein. 
</P>
<P>b. Written communication to Sponsor shall be delivered or mailed to Sponsor addressed: The Sponsor, 9000 Airport Blvd, USA. 
</P>
<P>c. Written communication to the Air Force shall be delivered or mailed to the Air Force addressed: Commander, WAFB, USA. 
</P>
<HD3>9. Other Agreements not Affected 
</HD3>
<P>This Agreement does not affect the WAFB-Sponsor Fire Mutual Aid Agreement. 
</P>
<P>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the respective duly authorized representatives of the parties hereto have executed this Agreement on the date set forth below opposite their respective signatures.
</P>
<FP-1>UNITED STATES AIR FORCE
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force (Installations)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Sponsor Representative


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.6.3.1.5.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 5 to Part 855—Sample Temporary Agreement
</HEAD>
<HD2>Letter of Agreement for Temporary Civil Aircraft Operations at Warbucks AFB, USA
</HD2>
<P>This letter of agreement establishes policies, responsibilities, and procedures for commercial air carrier operations at Warbucks AFB, USA, (WAFB) for the period (date)  through  (date) Military requirements will take precedence over civil aircraft operations. Should a conflict arise between air carrier and Air Force operational procedures, Air Force procedures will apply. 
</P>
<HD3>Authorized Users 
</HD3>
<P>The following air carriers are authorized use, provided they have a civil aircraft landing permit approved at HQ USAF/XOOBC for such use:
</P>
<FP-1>Flyaway Airlines 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Recreation Airlines 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Economy Airlines 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PacAir Transport 
</FP-1>
<HD3>Schedules
</HD3>
<P>The Bunker International Airport (BIA) manager or air carrier station managers will ensure that the WAFB Airfield Manager is provided current airline schedules during the approved period of use. Every effort will be made to avoid disruption of the air carriers' schedules; however, it is understood that the installation commander will suspend or change flight plans when required to preclude interference with military activities or operations. 
</P>
<HD3>Passenger and Luggage Handling 
</HD3>
<P>The BIA terminal will be used for passenger loading and unloading. Security checks will be performed at the terminal before loading passengers on buses. Luggage on arriving aircraft will be directly offloaded onto vehicles and delivered to the BIA terminal. Each arriving and departing bus or vehicle caravan will be accompanied by a credentialed representative of the airline or BIA to ensure its integrity enroute. Buses or vehicles transporting passengers to board an aircraft will not depart WAFB until the passengers are airborne. Unless an emergency exists, arriving passengers will not deplane until the buses are available for transportation to the BIA terminal. All checked luggage will be picked up at BIA and delivered directly to the departing aircraft. Buses will proceed directly to the aircraft at WAFB alert ramp. Luggage on arriving aircraft will be directly offloaded onto a vehicle parked on the WAFB alert ramp. WAFB will be notified, in advance, if a local funeral home requires access for pickup or delivery of deceased persons. 
</P>
<HD1>Aircraft Handling and Ground Support Equipment 
</HD1>
<P>Air Force-owned fuel will not be provided. The air carriers will provide their own ground support equipment. Refueling equipment from BIA will be prepositioned at WAFB on the alert ramp. The Air Force shall not be responsible for any damage or loss to such equipment, and BIA expressly assumes all risks of any such loss or damage and agrees to indemnify and hold the United States harmless against any such damage or loss. No routine aircraft maintenance will be accomplished at WAFB. Emergency repairs and or maintenance are only authorized to avoid extended parking and storage of civil aircraft at WAFB. 
</P>
<HD1>Customs and Security
</HD1>
<P>The installation commander will exercise administrative and security control over both the aircraft and passengers on WAFB. Customs officials will be transported to and from the base by air carrier representatives. The installation commander will cooperate with customer, health, and other public officials to expedite arrival and departure of the aircraft. Air carrier representatives will notify the WAFB Airfield Manager, in advance, of armed security or law enforcement officers arriving or departing on a flight. BIA officials and air carrier representatives must provide the WAFB Airfield Manager a list of employees, contractors, and vehicles requiring flightline access. Temporary passes will be issued to authorized individuals and vehicles. 
</P>
<HD1>Fire, Crash, and Rescue Services 
</HD1>
<P>BIA will provide technical information and training for WAFB Fire Department personnel prior to  (date)  . Fire, Crash, and Rescue Services will be provided in an emergency, but fire trucks will not routinely park on the flightline for aircraft arrivals and departures. BIA will reimburse WAFB for all such services. 
</P>
<HD1>Liability and Indemnification 
</HD1>
<P>The Air Force shall not be responsible for damages to property or injuries to persons which may arise from or be incident to the use of WAFB by BIA under this Agreement, or for damages to the property of BIA or injuries to the person of BIA's officers, agents, servants, employees, or invitees. BIA agrees to assume all risks of loss or damage to property and injury or death to persons by reason of or incident to the use of WAFB under this Agreement and expressly waives any and all claims against the United States for any such loss, damage, personal injury, or death caused by or occurring as a consequence of such use. BIA further agrees to indemnify, save, and hold the United States, its officers, agents, and employees harmless from and against all claims, demands, or actions, liabilities, judgments, costs, and attorneys fees, arising out of, claimed on account of, or in any manner predicated upon personal injury, death or property damage resulting from, related to, caused by, or arising out of the use of WAFB under this Agreement.
</P>
<HD1>Fees
</HD1>
<P>Landing and parking fees will be charged in accordance with to AFI 10-1001, Civil Aircraft Landing Permits. Charges will be made in accordance with the appropriate Air Force Instructions for any services or supplies required from WAFB. The WAFB Airfield Manager will be responsible for consolidating all charges which will be billed to BIA not later than  (date)  by the Accounting and Finance Office. 
</P>
<P>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the respective duly authorized representatives of the parties hereto have executed this Agreement on the date set forth below opposite their respective signatures.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>BIA Representative (Name and Title)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>DATE
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>WAFB Representative (Name and Title)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>DATE


</FP-DASH>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="861" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 861—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORTATION QUALITY AND SAFETY REVIEW PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>10 U.S.C. 2640, 8013. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 65698, Oct. 28, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 861.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.1   References.</HEAD>
<P>The following references apply to this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) 10 U.S.C. 2640, Charter Air Transportation of Members of the Armed Forces. 
</P>
<P>(b) Department of Defense Directive 4500.53, <I>Department of Defense Commercial Air Transportation Quality and Safety Review Program.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Department of Defense Directive 4500.53, <I>Department of Defense Commercial Air Transportation Quality and Safety Review Program,</I> charges the Commander-in-Chief (CINC), United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), with ensuring the establishment of safety requirements and criteria for evaluating civil air carriers and operators (hereinafter collectively referred to as “air carriers”) providing air transportation and operational support services to the Department of Defense (DOD). It also charges the CINC with ensuring the establishment of a Commercial Airlift Review Board (CARB) and providing policy guidance and direction for its operation. This part establishes DOD quality and safety criteria for air carriers providing or seeking to provide air transportation and, at the discretion of the CARB or higher authority, operational support services to the DOD. This part also includes the operating procedures of the CARB. The CARB has the authority to suspend air carriers from DOD use or take other actions when issues of air carrier quality and air safety arise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Air carrier.</I> Individuals or entities that operate commercial fixed and rotary wing aircraft in accordance with the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR Chapter I) or equivalent regulations issued by a country's Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) and which provide air transportation or operational support services. Commercial air carriers under contract with, or operating on behalf of the DOD shall have a FAA or CAA certificate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Air transportation services.</I> The transport of DOD personnel or cargo by fixed or rotary wing commercial aircraft, where such services are acquired primarily for the transportation of DOD personnel and cargo, through donation or any form of contract, tender, blanket ordering agreement, Government charge card, Government or commercial transportation request (TR), bill of lading, or similar instruments. Air transportation services also include medical evacuation services, paratrooper drops, and charter airlift and group travel arranged by the Military Service Academies, foreign military sales, nonappropriated fund instrumentalities by other DOD and non-DOD activities for DOD personnel. All air carriers providing air transportation services to DOD must have a FAA or CAA certificate. The policy contained in this Directive shall not apply to individually procured, discretionary air travel, such as that associated with military leave or pass. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil Aviation Authority (CAA).</I> The CAA refers to the organization within a country that has the authority and responsibility to regulate civil aviation. The term CAA is used throughout this part since these requirements are applicable to both U.S. and foreign carriers doing business with DOD. The term CAA thus includes the U.S. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Code sharing.</I> Code sharing is a marketing arrangement in which an air carrier places its designator code on a flight operated by another air carrier and sells tickets for that flight. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DOD approval.</I> DOD approval in the context of this part refers to the process by which air carriers seeking to provide passenger or cargo airlift services (hereinafter referred to as air transportation services) to the DOD must be screened and evaluated by the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office or other entity authorized by the CARB, and approved for DOD use by the CARB. Once initial approval is obtained, a DOD approved air carrier must remain in an approved status to be eligible for DOD business. Although not generally required, the CARB or higher authority may, on a case-by-case basis, require DOD approval of air carriers providing operational support services to DOD. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DOD air carrier safety and quality review process.</I> Includes four possible levels of review with increasing authority. The responsibilities of each are described in more detail in the reference in § 861.1 (b). These levels consist of the: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office; 
</P>
<P>(2) DOD Commercial Airlift Review Board (CARB); 
</P>
<P>(3) Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Transportation Command, or USCINCTRANS; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Secretary of Defense. (<E T="04">Note:</E> A DOD-level body, the Commercial Airlift Review Authority, or CARA, provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Defense.) 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) International Safety Assessment (IASA) program and categories.</I> The FAA IASA program assesses the ability of a foreign country's CAA to adhere to international standards established by the United Nation's technical agency for aviation, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). The FAA has established ratings for the status of countries as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Category 1—Does comply with ICAO standards.</I> A country's CAA has been found to license and oversee air carriers in accordance with ICAO aviation safety standards. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Category 2—Does not comply with ICAO standards.</I> A country's CAA does not meet ICAO standards for aviation oversight. Operations to the U.S. by a carrier from a Category 2 country are limited to those in effect at the time a country is classified as Category 2 and are subjected to heightened FAA surveillance. Expansion or changes in services to the U.S. are not permitted while a country is in Category 2 status unless the carrier arranges to have new services conducted by an air carrier from a Category 1 country. Category 2 countries that do not have operations to the U.S. at the time of the FAA assessment are not permitted to commence such operations unless it arranges to have its flights conducted by an air carrier from a Category 1 country. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-rated.</I> A country's CAA is labeled “non-rated” if it has not been assessed by the FAA. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>GSA City Pair Program.</I> A program managed by the General Services Administration in which U.S. air carriers compete for annual contracts awarding U.S. Government business for specific domestic and international scheduled service city pair routes. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Group travel.</I> Twenty-one or more passengers on orders from the same organization traveling on the same date to the same destination to attend the same function. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Letter of Warning.</I> A notice to a DOD approved air carrier of a failure to satisfy safety or airworthiness requirements which, if not remedied, may result in temporary nonuse or suspension of the air carrier by the DOD. Issuance of a <I>Letter of Warning</I> is not a prerequisite to a suspension or other action by the CARB or higher DOD authority. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>On-site Capability Survey.</I> The most comprehensive evaluation performed by DOD's Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office. Successful completion of this evaluation is required of most air carriers before they may be approved to provide air transportation services to DOD. Once approved, air carriers are subject to periodic On-site Capability Surveys, as specified at Enclosure 3 in the reference in § 861.1(b). 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Operational support services.</I> Missions performed by air carriers that use fixed or rotary-winged aircraft to provide services other than air transportation services as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. Examples include, but are not limited to, range instrumentation and services, target-towing, sling loads, and electronic countermeasures target flights. Air carriers providing only operational support services do not require advance DOD approval and are not subject to the initial or periodic on-site survey requirements under this part, unless directed by the CARB or higher authority. All air carriers providing operational support services to DOD must have a FAA or CAA certificate and are required to maintain applicable FAA or CAA standards absent deviation authority obtained pursuant to 14 CFR 119.55 or similar CAA rules. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Performance assessments.</I> Reviews conducted by U.S. air carriers when evaluating foreign air carriers with which they have code share arrangements, using performance-based factors. Such assessments include reviewing a variety of air carrier data including history, safety, scope/size, financial condition, equipment, flight operations and airworthiness issues. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Performance evaluations.</I> Reviews conducted by DOD as directed in the references in § 861.1(a) and (b). These evaluations include a review of air carrier flight operations, maintenance departments, safety programs and other air carrier areas as necessary. Performance evaluations are not conducted on-site, but rely on information collected primarily from the FAA and the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Preflight safety inspection.</I> A visual safety inspection of the interior and exterior of an air carrier's aircraft performed by DOD personnel in accordance with the references in § 861.1(a) and (b). 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Suspension.</I> The exclusion of an air carrier from providing services to the DOD. The period of suspension will normally: 
</P>
<P>(1) Remain in effect until the air carrier furnishes satisfactory evidence that the conditions causing the suspension have been remedied and has been reinstated by the CARB, or; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be for a fixed period of time as determined at the discretion of the CARB. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Temporary nonuse.</I> The immediate exclusion of a DOD approved air carrier from providing services to the DOD pending a decision on suspension. Normally, temporary nonuse will be for a period of 30 days or less. However, by mutual agreement of the CARB and the air carrier involved, a suspension hearing or decision may be delayed and the air carrier continued in a temporary nonuse status for an extended period of time. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Voluntarily provided safety-related information.</I> Information which consists of nonfactual safety-related data, reports, statements, and other information provided to DOD by an air carrier at any point in the evaluation process described in this Part. It does not include factual safety-related information, such as statistics, maintenance reports, training records, flight planning information, and the like. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.4   DOD air transportation quality and safety requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The DOD, as a customer of air transportation and operational support services, expects air carriers used by DOD to employ programs and business practices that not only ensure good service but also enhance the safety, operational, and maintenance standards established by applicable Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) regulations. Accordingly, and as required by the references in § 861.1 (a) and (b), the DOD has established a set of quality and safety criteria and requirements that reflect the type programs and practices DOD seeks from air carriers providing services to DOD. Air carriers must meet and maintain these requirements in order to be eligible for DOD business. Air carriers providing air transportation services to DOD either directly by contract or agreement, or indirectly through the General Services Administration (GSA) City Pair Program or some other arrangement, must be approved by DOD prior to providing such services and remain in an approved status throughout the contract, agreement, or arrangement performance period. This approval entails successful completion of initial and recurring on-site surveys as well as periodic performance evaluations in accordance with the reference in § 861.1(b). The quality and safety criteria and requirements set forth in this part complement rather than replace the CAA criteria applicable to air carriers. Air carriers normally remain fully subject to applicable CAA regulations (CARs) while performing business for the DOD, even when the aircraft involved is used exclusively for DOD missions. The inspection and oversight criteria set forth in this part do not, as a general rule, apply to air carriers providing only operational support services to DOD. However, in the event concerns relating to the safety of such a carrier arise, the CARB or higher authority may, on a case-by-case basis, direct an appropriate level of oversight under the authority of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The evaluation, quality and safety criteria and requirements set forth in this part apply to air carriers providing or seeking to provide air transportation services to DOD. 
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign air carriers performing portions of GSA City Pair routes awarded to U.S. air carriers under a code-sharing arrangement, as well as foreign air carriers providing individually-ticketed passenger service to DOD personnel traveling on official business, may be subject to limited oversight and review pursuant to § 861.6. 
</P>
<P>(3) The inspection and oversight requirements, as well as the quality and safety criteria of this part may, on a case-by-case basis and at the discretion of the CARB or higher authority, be applied to air carriers seeking to provide or providing operational support services as defined in § 861.3(l). 
</P>
<P>(4) The inspection and oversight requirements of this part do not apply to aircraft engaged in medical transport services if procured under emergency conditions to save life, limb or eyesight. Likewise, the inspection and oversight requirements of this part are not applicable when DOD is not involved in the procurement of the medical transportation services. For example, when specific medical treatment is obtained on an individual basis by or for DOD personnel with medical transportation provided, as needed, at the direction of the non-DOD medical care giver. This includes situations where DOD, through TRICARE or otherwise, pays for such transportation as part of the costs of medical services provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope and nature of the evaluation program</I>—(1) <I>Evaluation requirement.</I> The provision of air transportation services under a contract or agreement with or on behalf of DOD, requires the successful completion of an initial on-site survey and approval by the CARB under this part in order to be eligible for DOD business. In addition, U.S. air carriers awarded contracts under the GSA City Pair Program, including those that perform part of the contract under a code-sharing arrangement with the U.S. air carrier awarded the contract, must successfully complete an initial on-site survey and be approved by the CARB for DOD use under this part prior to beginning performance of the GSA contract. Once approved by DOD, air carriers providing air transportation services are subject to recurring on-site surveys and performance evaluations and assessments throughout the duration of the relevant contract or agreement. The frequency and scope of these surveys and performance reviews will be in accordance with Enclosure 3 of the reference in § 861.1(b). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office of primary responsibility.</I> Evaluations are performed by the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office located at Scott Air Force Base, Illinois. The mailing address of this office is HQ AMC/DOB, 402 Scott Drive Unit 3A1, Scott AFB IL 62225-5302. The website address is <I>https://public.scott.af.mil/hqamc/dob/index.htm.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Items considered in the evaluation process.</I> The specifics of the applicable DOD contract or agreement (if any), the applicable CAA regulations, and the experienced judgment of DOD personnel will be used to evaluate an air carrier's capability to perform services for DOD. The survey may also include, with the air carrier's coordination, observation of cockpit crew performance, as well as ramp inspections of selected company aircraft. In the case of air carriers seeking to provide air transportation services, after satisfactory completion of the initial survey and approval by the CARB as a DOD air carrier, follow-up surveys will be conducted on a recurring basis and when otherwise required to validate adherence to DOD quality and safety requirements. DOD personnel will also assess these quality and safety requirements when conducting periodic air carrier performance evaluations. The size of an air carrier, along with the type and scope of operations will be considered during the on-site survey. For example, while an air taxi operator may not have a formal flight control function, such as a 24-hour dispatch organization, that same air taxi operator is expected to demonstrate some type of effective flight following capability. On the other hand, a major air carrier is expected to have a formal flight control or dispatch function. Both, however, will be evaluated based on the effectiveness and quality of whatever flight following function they do maintain. In the case of air carriers seeking to provide operational support services, the type, scope and frequency of evaluation, if any, performed by DOD or other entity will be as directed by the CARB or higher authority. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Status of aircraft performing services for DOD.</I> All air carriers providing air transportation or operational support services to the DOD shall have FAA or CAA air carrier or commercial operator certificates and shall remain under FAA and/or CAA regulatory and safety oversight during performance of the DOD mission. Aircraft performing services for or on behalf of DOD shall be on the air carrier's operating certificate, and remain on that certificate while performing the DOD mission. The installation of any special equipment needed to perform services for DOD shall be FAA or CAA approved or an appropriate FAA or CAA waiver obtained. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evaluation requirements.</I> The air carrier requirements stated in this part provide the criteria against which would-be DOD and GSA City Pair Program air carrier contractors, as well as air carriers providing services on behalf of DOD, may be subjectively evaluated by DOD. These requirements are neither all-inclusive nor inflexible in nature. They are not replacements for the certification criteria and other regulations established by the CAA. Rather, these requirements complement CAA certification criteria and regulations and describe the enhanced level of service required by DOD. The relative weight accorded these requirements in a given case, as well as the determination of whether an air carrier meets or exceeds them, is a matter within the sole discretion of the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office and the CARB, subject to the statutory minimums provided in the reference in § 861.1(a). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality and safety requirements—prior experience.</I> U.S. and foreign air carriers applying for DOD approval in order to conduct air transportation services for or on behalf of DOD under a contract or agreement with DOD, the GSA City Pair Program, or by some other arrangement are required to possess 12 months of continuous service equivalent to the service sought by DOD. In applying this requirement, the following guidance will be used by DOD authorities: 
</P>
<P>(i) “12 months” refers to the 12 calendar months immediately preceding the request for DOD approval. 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Continuous” service means the carrier must have performed revenue-generating services of the nature for which DOD approval is sought, as an FAA part 121, 125, 127, or 135 (14 CFR 121, 125, 127, or 135) air carrier (or foreign CAA equivalent if appropriate) on a recurring, substantially uninterrupted basis. The services must have occurred with such frequency and regularity as to clearly demonstrate the carrier's ability to perform and support sustained, safe, reliable, and regular services of the type DOD is seeking. Weekly flight activity is normally considered continuous, while sporadic or seasonal operations (if such operations are the only operations conducted by the carrier) may not suffice to establish a carrier's ability to perform and support services in the sustained, safe, reliable, and regular manner required by DOD. The ability of a carrier to perform services of the type sought by DOD may be called into question if there have been lengthy periods of time during the qualifying period in which the carrier has not operated such services. Consequently, any cessation, or nonperformance of the type of service for which approval is sought may, if it exceeds 30 days in length during the qualifying period and depending on the underlying factual circumstances, necessitate “restarting” the 12-month continuous service period needed to obtain DOD approval. 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Equivalent to the services sought by DOD” means service offered to qualify for DOD approval must be substantially equivalent to the type of service sought by DOD. The prior experience must be equivalent in difficulty and complexity with regard to the distances flown, weather systems encountered, international and national procedures, the same or similar aircraft, schedule demands, aircrew experience, number of passengers handled, frequency of operations, and management required. There is not a set formula for determining whether a particular type of service qualifies. The performance of cargo services is not considered to be “substantially equivalent” to the performance of passenger services, and may not be used to meet the 12 continuous months requirement for passenger services. However, when a carrier already providing cargo services to DOD applies to carry passengers, the CARB may consider the carrier's cargo performance and experience in assessing whether a carrier is qualified to carry passengers on a specific type or category of aircraft, over certain routes or stage lengths, or under differing air traffic control, weather, or other conditions. The following examples are illustrative and not intended to reflect or predict CARB action in any given case: 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>Coyote Air has operated commercial passenger commuter operations in the U.S. for a number of years flying a variety of twin-engine turboprop aircraft. They have also been a DOD-approved cargo carrier, providing international cargo services using DC-10 freighter aircraft. Coyote Air purchases a passenger version DC-10, and seeks DOD approval to provide international passenger service for DOD. The CARB may decide that although Coyote Air has provided passenger services for 12 continuous months, those services are not substantially equivalent to those being sought by DOD. While the carrier may have considerable operational experience with the DC-10, its commuter passenger operations are not substantially equivalent to the service now proposed—international passenger services on large jet aircraft.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE>Acme Air has been a DOD-approved cargo carrier for several years, operating domestic and international missions with MD-11 freighter aircraft. At the same time, Acme has been performing commercial international passenger services with B-757 aircraft. Acme Air purchases a MD-11 passenger aircraft and applies to perform passenger services for DOD using the MD-11. Assuming Acme has performed B-757 passenger service for 12 continuous months immediately preceding its application, the CARB may consider these passenger services substantially equivalent to those proposed since both involve the operation of large multi-engine aircraft in an international environment. The CARB may also consider Acme's operational history with its MD-11 freighter aircraft in determining whether the carrier is competent to provide MD-11 passenger service in the same environment.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iv) Once approved by DOD, an air carrier's failure to maintain continuous operations of the type for which approval has been granted may, at the discretion of the CARB, be grounds for nonuse or suspension under this part, rendering the carrier ineligible for DOD business during the nonuse or suspension period. Any cessation or nonperformance of the type of service for which approval has been obtained may, if it exceeds 30 days in length and depending on the circumstances, provide the basis for the CARB to take appropriate action. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality and safety requirements—air carrier management.</I> Management has clearly defined safety as the number one company priority, and safety is never sacrificed to satisfy passenger concern, convenience, or cost. Policies, procedures, and goals that enhance the CAA's minimum operations and maintenance standards have been established and implemented. A cooperative response to CAA inspections, critiques, or comments is demonstrated. Proper support infrastructure, including facilities, equipment, parts, and qualified personnel, is provided at the certificate holder's primary facility and en route stations. Personnel with aviation credentials and experience fill key management positions. An internal quality audit program or other method capable of identifying in-house deficiencies and measuring the company's compliance with their stated policies and standards has been implemented. Audit results are analyzed in order to determine the cause, not just the symptom, of any deficiency. The result of sound fiscal policy is evident throughout the company. Foreign code-sharing air carrier partners are audited at least every two years using DOD-approved criteria and any findings resolved. Comprehensive disaster response plans and, where applicable, family support plans, must be in place and exercised on a regular basis. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quality and safety requirements—operations</I>—(i) <I>Flight safety.</I> Established policies that promote flight safety. These policies are infused among all aircrew and operational personnel who translate the policies into practice. New or revised safety-related data are promptly disseminated to affected personnel who understand that deviation from any established safety policy is unacceptable. An audit system that detects unsafe practices is in place and a feedback structure informs management of safety policy results including possible safety problems. Management ensures that corrective actions resolve every unsafe condition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Flight operations.</I> Established flight operations policies and procedures are up-to-date, reflect the current scope of operations, and are clearly defined to aviation department employees. These adhered-to procedures are further supported by a flow of current, management-generated safety and operational communications. Managers are in touch with mission requirements, supervise crew selection, and ensure the risk associated with all flight operations is reduced to the lowest acceptable level. Flight crews are free from undue management pressure and are comfortable with exercising their professional judgment during flight activities, even if such actions do not support the flight schedule. Effective lines of communication permit feedback from line crews to operations managers. Personnel records are maintained and reflect such data as experience, qualifications, and medical status. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Flight crew hiring.</I> Established procedures ensure that applicants are carefully screened, including a review of the individual's health and suitability to perform flight crew duties. Consideration is given to the applicant's total aviation background, appropriate experience, and the individual's potential to perform safely. Freedom from alcohol abuse and illegal drugs is required. If new-hire cockpit crewmembers do not meet industry standards for experience and qualification, then increased training and management attention to properly qualify these personnel are required.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Aircrew training.</I> Training, including recurrent training, which develops and refines skills designed to eliminate mishaps and improve safety, is essential to a quality operation. Crew coordination training that facilitates full cockpit crews training and full crew interaction using standardized procedures and including the principles of Crew Resource Management (CRM) is required. Programs involving the use of simulators or other devices that can provide realistic training scenarios are desired. Captain and First Officer training objectives cultivate similar levels of proficiency. Appropriate emergency procedures training (<I>e.g.,</I> evacuation procedures) is provided to flight deck and flight attendant personnel as a total crew whenever possible; such training focuses on cockpit and cabin crews functioning as a coordinated team during emergencies. Crew training—be it pilot, engineer, or flight attendant—is appropriate to the level of risk and circumstances anticipated for the trainee. Training programs have the flexibility to incorporate and resolve recurring problem areas associated with day-to-day flight operations. Aeromedical crews must also be trained in handling the specific needs of the categories of patients normally accepted for transportation on the equipment to be used. Trainers are highly skilled in both subject matter and training techniques. Training received is documented, and that documentation is maintained in a current status. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Captain upgrade training.</I> A selection and training process that considers proven experience, decision making, crew resource management, and response to unusual situations, including stress and pressure, is required. Also important is emphasis on captain responsibility and authority. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Aircrew scheduling.</I> A closely monitored system that evaluates operational risks, experience levels of crewmembers, and ensures the proper pairing of aircrews on all flights is required. New captains are scheduled with highly experienced first officers, and new or low-time first officers are scheduled with experienced captains. Except for aircraft new to the company, captains and first officers assigned to DOD charter passenger missions possess at least 250 hours combined experience in the type aircraft being operated. The scheduling system involves an established flight duty time program for aircrews, including flight attendants, carefully managed so as to ensure proper crew rest and considers quality-of-life factors. Attention is given to the stress on aircrews during strikes, mergers, or periods of labor-management difficulties. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>In-flight performance.</I> Aircrews, including flight attendants and flight medical personnel, are fit for flight duties and trained to handle normal, abnormal, and emergency situations. They demonstrate crew discipline and a knowledge of aviation rules; use company-developed standardized procedures; adhere to checklists; and emphasize safety, including security considerations, throughout all preflight, in-flight, and postflight operations. Qualified company personnel evaluate aircrews and analyze results; known performance deficiencies are eliminated. Evaluations ensure aircrews demonstrate aircraft proficiency in accordance with company established standards. Flight crews are able to determine an aircraft's maintenance condition prior to flight and use standardized methods to accurately report aircraft deficiencies to the maintenance activity. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Operational control/support.</I> Effective mission control includes communications with aircrews and the capability to respond to irregularities or difficulties. Clear written procedures for mission preparation and flight following aircraft and aircrews are provided. There is access to weather, flight planning, and aircraft maintenance data. There are personnel available who are knowledgeable in aircraft performance and mission requirements and that can correctly respond to emergency situations. There is close interface between operations and maintenance, ensuring a mutual awareness of aircraft operational and maintenance status. Procedures to notify DOD in case of an accident or serious incident have been established. Flight crews involved in such accidents or incidents report the situation to company personnel who, in turn, have procedures to evaluate the flight crew's capability to continue the mission. Aircraft involved in accidents or incidents are inspected in accordance with Civil Aviation Regulations and a determination made as to whether or not the aircraft is safe for continued operations. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>DOD charter procedures.</I> Detailed procedures addressing military charter requirements are expected. The level of risk associated with DOD charter missions does not exceed the risks inherent in the carrier's non-DOD daily flight operations. Complete route planning and airport analyses are accomplished, and actual passenger and cargo weights are used in computing aircraft weight and balance. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quality and safety requirements—maintenance.</I> Maintenance supervisors ensure all personnel understand that in spite of scheduling pressure, peer pressure, supervisory pressure, or other factors, the airplane must be airworthy prior to flight. Passenger and employee safety is a paramount management concern. Quality, completeness, and integrity of work are trademarks of the maintenance manager and maintenance department. Nonconformance to established maintenance practices is not tolerated. Management ensures that contracted maintenance, including repair and overhaul facilities, is performed by maintenance organizations acceptable to the CAA. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maintenance personnel.</I> Air carriers are expected to hire and train the number of employees required to safely maintain the company aircraft and support the scope of the maintenance operations both at home station (the company's primary facility) and at en route locations. These personnel ensure that all maintenance tasks, including required inspections and airworthiness directives, are performed; that maintenance actions are properly documented; and that the discrepancies identified between inspections are corrected. Mechanics are fit for duty, properly certificated, the company verifies certification, and these personnel possess the knowledge and the necessary aircraft-specific experience to accomplish the maintenance tasks. Noncertified and inexperienced personnel received proper supervision. Freedom from alcohol abuse and illegal drugs is required. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quality assurance.</I> A system that continuously analyzes the performance and effectiveness of maintenance activities and maintenance inspection programs is required. This system evaluates such functions as reliability reports, audits, component tear-down reports, inspection procedures and results, tool calibration program, real-time aircraft maintenance actions, warranty programs, and other maintenance functions. The extent of this program is directly related to the air carrier's size and scope of operation. The cause of any recurring discrepancy or negative trend is researched and eliminated. Action is taken to prevent recurrence of these discrepancies and preventive actions are monitored to ensure effectiveness. The results of preventive actions are provided to appropriate maintenance technicians. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maintenance inspection activity.</I> A process to ensure required aircraft inspections are completed and the results properly documented is required. Also required is a system to evaluate contract vendors, suppliers, and their products. Inspection personnel are identified, trained (initial and recurrent), and provided guidance regarding inspector responsibility and authority. The inspection activity is normally a separate entity within the maintenance department. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maintenance training.</I> Training is conducted commensurate with the size and type of maintenance function being performed. Continuing education and progressive experience are provided for all maintenance personnel. Orientation, familiarization, on-the-job, and appropriate recurrent training for all full and part-time personnel are expected. The use of such training aids as mockups, simulators, and computer-based training enhances maintenance training efforts and is desired. Training documentation is required; it is current, complete, well maintained, and correctly identifies any special authorization such as inspection and airworthiness release. Trainers are fully qualified in the subject manner. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Maintenance control.</I> A method to control maintenance activities and track aircraft status is required. Qualified personnel monitor maintenance preplanning, ensure completion of maintenance actions, and track deferred discrepancies. Deferred maintenance actions are identified to supervisory personnel and corrected in accordance with the criteria provided by the manufacturer or regulatory agency. Constant and effective communications between maintenance and flight operations ensure an exchange of critical information. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Aircraft maintenance program.</I> Aircraft are properly certified and maintained in a manner that ensures they are airworthy and safe. The program includes the use of manufacturer's and CAA information, as well as company policies and procedures. Airworthiness directives are complied with in the prescribed time frame, and service bulletins are evaluated for applicable action. Approved reliability programs are proactive, providing management with visibly on the effectiveness of the maintenance program; attention is given to initial component and older aircraft inspection intervals and to deferred maintenance actions. Special tools and equipment are calibrated. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Maintenance records.</I> Maintenance actions are well documented and provide a complete record of maintenance accomplished and, for repetitive actions, maintenance required. Such records as aircraft log books and maintenance documentation are legible, dated, clean, readily identifiable, and maintained in an orderly fashion. Inspection compliance, airworthiness release, and maintenance release records, etc., are completed and signed by approved personnel. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Aircraft appearance.</I> Aircraft exteriors, including all visible surfaces and components, are clean and well maintained. Interiors are also clean and orderly. Required safety equipment and systems are available and operable. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Fueling and servicing.</I> Aircraft fuel is free from contamination, and company fuel facilities (farms) are inspected and results documented. Procedures and instructions pertaining to servicing, handling, and storing fuel and oil meet established safety standards. Procedures for monitoring and verifying vendor servicing practices are included in this program. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Maintenance manuals.</I> Company policy manuals and manufacturer's maintenance manuals are current, available, clear, complete, and adhered to by maintenance personnel. These manuals provide maintenance personnel with standardized procedures for maintaining company aircraft. Management policies, lines of authority, and company maintenance procedures are documented in company manuals and kept in a current status. 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Maintenance facilities.</I> Well maintained, clean maintenance facilities, adequate for the level of aircraft repair authorized in the company's CAA certificate are expected. Safety equipment is available in hangars, shops, etc., and is serviceable. Shipping, receiving, and stores areas are likewise clean and orderly. Parts are correctly packaged, tagged, segregated, and shelf life properly monitored. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Quality and safety requirements—security.</I> Company personnel receive training in security responsibilities and practice applicable procedures during ground and in-flight operations. Compliance with provisions of the appropriate standard security program, established by the Transportation Security Administration or foreign equivalent, is required for all DOD missions. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Quality and safety requirements—specific equipment requirements.</I> Air carriers satisfy DOD equipment and other requirements as specified in DOD agreements. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Quality and safety requirements—oversight of commuter or foreign air carriers in code-sharing agreements.</I> Air carriers awarded a route under the Passenger Standing Route Order (PSRO) program, the GSA City Pair Program, or other DOD program, that includes performance of a portion of the route by a commuter or foreign air carrier with which it has a code-sharing arrangement, must have a formal procedure in place to periodically review and assess the code-sharing air carrier's safety, operations, and maintenance programs. The extent of such reviews and assessments must be consistent with, and related to, the code-sharing air carrier's safety history. These procedures must also provide for actual inspections of the foreign code-sharing air carrier if the above reviews and assessments indicate questionable safety practices. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Quality and safety requirements—aeromedical transport requirements.</I> (i) The degree of oversight is as determined by the CARB or higher authority. When an inspection is conducted, DOD medical personnel may also participate to assess the ability to provide the patient care and any specialty care required by DOD. The CARB's review will be limited solely to issues related to flight safety. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Portable Electronic Devices (PEDs) used in the provision of medical services or treatment on board aircraft are tested for non-interference with aircraft systems and the results documented to show compliance with 14 CFR 91.21 or other applicable CAA regulations. If there are no CAA regulations, actual use/inflight testing of the same or similar model PED prior to use with DOD patients is the minimum requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.5   DOD Commercial Airlift Review Board procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section establishes procedures to be used by the DOD when, in accordance with references in§ 861.1(a) and (b): 
</P>
<P>(1) An air carrier is subject to review or other action by the DOD Commercial Airlift Review Board, or CARB; 
</P>
<P>(2) A warning, suspension, temporary nonuse, or reinstatement action is considered or taken against a carrier by the CARB; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An issue involving an air carrier is referred by the CARB to higher authority for appropriate action. 
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures apply to air carriers seeking to provide or already providing air transportation services to DOD. It also applies to U.S. or foreign air carriers providing operational support services to DOD which, on a case-by-case basis and at the discretion of the CARB or higher authority, require some level of oversight by DOD. 
</P>
<P>(c) An air carrier's sole remedy in the case of a suspension decision by the CARB is the appellate process under this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Quality and safety issues relating to air carriers used, or proposing to be used, by DOD, per reference (b) must be referred to the CARB for appropriate disposition. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CARB responsibilities.</I> As detailed in the reference in § 861.1(b), the CARB provides a multifunctional review of the efforts of the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office and is the first level decision authority in DOD on quality and safety issues relating to air carriers. Responsibilities include, but are not limited to: the review and approval or disapproval of air carriers seeking initial approval to provide air transportation service to DOD; the review and approval or disapproval of air carriers in the program that do not meet DOD quality and safety requirements; the review and approval or disapproval of air carriers in the program seeking to provide a class of service different from that which they are currently approved; taking action to suspend, reinstate, or place into temporary nonuse or extended temporary nonuse, DOD approved carriers; taking action, on an as needed basis, to review, suspend, reinstate, or place into temporary nonuse or extended temporary nonuse, an air carrier providing operational support services to DOD; and, referring with recommendations, issues requiring resolution or other action by higher authority. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CARB administrative procedures</I>—(1) <I>Membership.</I> The CARB will consist of four voting members appointed by USCINCTRANS from USTRANSCOM and its component commands. These members and their alternates will be general officers or their civilian equivalent, with experience in the operations, maintenance, transportation, or air safety fields. A Chairman and alternate will be designated. Nonvoting CARB members will be appointed as necessary by USCINCTRANS. A non-voting recorder will also be appointed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decisions.</I> Decisions of the CARB will be taken by a majority vote of the voting members present, with a minimum of three voting members (or their alternates) required to constitute a quorum. In the event of a tie, the Chair of the CARB will decide the issue. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Meetings of the CARB.</I> The CARB may meet either in person or by some electronic means. It will be convened by either USCINCTRANS or the Chair of the CARB. The meeting date, time, and site of the CARB will be determined at the time of the decision to convene the CARB. Minutes of CARB meetings will be taken by the recorder, summarized, and preserved with all other records relating to the CARB meeting. The recorder will ensure the air carrier and appropriate DOD and federal agencies are notified of the CARB's decision(s) and reasons therefore. In the event of a fatal accident, the CARB shall convene as soon as possible but not later than 72 hours after notification by the Chair. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>CARB operating procedures</I>—(1) <I>Placing an air carrier into temporary nonuse.</I> (i) In case of a fatal aircraft accident or for other good cause, two or more voting members of the CARB may jointly make an immediate determination whether to place the air carrier involved into a temporary nonuse status pending suspension proceedings. Prior notice to the air carrier is not required. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The carrier shall be promptly notified of the temporary nonuse determination and the basis therefore. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Temporary nonuse status terminates automatically if suspension proceedings are not commenced, as set out in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, within 30 days of inception unless the CARB and air carrier mutually agree to extend the temporary nonuse status. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Suspension of an air carrier.</I> (i) On a recommendation of the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office or any individual voting member of the CARB, the CARB shall consider whether or not to suspend a DOD approved air carrier. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the CARB determines that suspension may be appropriate, it shall notify the air carrier that suspension action is under consideration and of the basis for such consideration. The air carrier will be offered a hearing within 15 days of the date of the notice, or other such period as granted by the CARB, at which the air carrier may be present and may offer evidence. The hearings shall be as informal as practicable, consistent with administrative due process. Formal rules of evidence do not apply. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The types of evidence which may be considered includes, but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Information and analysis provided by the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office. 
</P>
<P>(B) Information submitted by the air carrier. 
</P>
<P>(C) Information relating to action that may have been taken by the air carrier to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Correct the specific deficiencies that led the CARB to consider suspension; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Preclude recurring similar deficiencies. 
</P>
<P>(D) Other matters the CARB deems relevant. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The CARB's decisions on the reception or exclusion of evidence shall be final. 
</P>
<P>(v) Air carriers shall have the burden of proving their suitability to safely perform DOD air transportation and/or operational support services by clear and convincing evidence.
</P>
<P>(vi) After the conclusion of such hearing, or if no hearing is requested and attended by the air carrier within the time specified by the CARB, the CARB shall consider the matter and make a final decision whether or not to suspend the air carrier or to impose such lesser sanctions as appropriate. The air carrier will be notified of the CARB's decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reinstatement.</I> (i) The CARB may consider reinstating a suspended carrier on either CARB motion or carrier motion, unless such carrier has become ineligible in the interim.
</P>
<P>(ii) The carrier has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that reinstatement is warranted. The air carrier must satisfy the CARB that the deficiencies, which led to suspension, have been corrected and that action has been implemented to preclude the recurrence of similar deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air carrier evidence in support of reinstatement will be provided in a timely manner to the CARB for its review. The CARB may independently corroborate the carrier-provided evidence and may, at its option, convene a hearing and request the participation of the air carrier.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Appeal of CARB decisions.</I> (i) An air carrier placed in suspension by the CARB may administratively appeal this action to USCINCTRANS. An appeal, if any, must be filed in writing, with the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Office, and postmarked within 15 workdays of receipt of notice of the CARB's suspension decision. In the sole discretion of USCINCTRANS, and for good cause shown, the suspension may be stayed pending action on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air carriers shall not be entitled to a de novo hearing or personal presentation before the appellate authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) The decision of the appellate authority is final and is not subject to further administrative review or appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Referral of issues to higher authorities.</I> The approval or disapproval of an air carrier for use by DOD, the placing of approved carriers into temporary nonuse status, and the suspension and reinstatement of approved carriers, are all decisions which must be made by the CARB. Other matters may be referred by the CARB to USCINCTRANS for appropriate action, with or without recommendations by the CARB. The CARB will forward for decision, through USCINCTRANS to the Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology and Logistics) (USD(AT&amp;L)), all air carrier use/nonuse recommendations involving foreign air carriers other than those providing charter transportation or operational support service to the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.6   DOD review of foreign air carriers.</HEAD>
<P>Foreign air carriers providing or seeking to provide services to DOD shall be subject to review and, if appropriate, approval by DOD. Application of the criteria and requirements of this part and the degree of oversight to be exercised by DOD, if any, over a foreign air carrier depends upon the type of services performed and, in some instances, by the quality of oversight exercised by the foreign air carrier's CAA. The scope and frequency of the review of any given foreign air carrier under this part will be at the discretion of the CARB or higher authority.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Foreign air carriers seeking to provide or providing air transportation services under a contract or Military Air Transportation Agreement with DOD, or pursuant to another arrangement entered into by, or on behalf of, DOD.</I> Foreign air carriers seeking to provide or providing air transportation services under a contract or Military Air Transportation Agreement with DOD, must meet all requirements of § 861.4, and be approved by the CARB in accordance with § 861.5. This includes foreign air carriers seeking to provide, or providing, airlift services to DOD personnel pursuant to an arrangement entered into by another federal agency, state agency, foreign government, international organization, or other entity or person on behalf of, or for the benefit of, DOD, regardless of whether DOD pays for the airlift services provided. For purposes of establishing the degree of oversight and review to be conducted under the DOD Commercial Air Transportation Quality and Safety Review Program, such foreign air carriers are considered the same as U.S. carriers. In addition, they must have an operating certificate issued by the appropriate CAA using regulations which are the substantial equivalent of those found in the U.S. FARs, and must maintain such certification throughout the term of the contract or agreement. The CAA responsible for exercising oversight of the foreign air carrier must meet ICAO standards as determined by ICAO, or the FAA under the FAA's International Aviation Safety Assessment Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign air carriers providing passenger services under the GSA City Pair Program.</I> Foreign air carriers performing any portion of a route awarded to a U.S. air carrier under the GSA City Pair Program pursuant to a code-sharing agreement with that U.S. air carrier, are generally not subject to DOD survey and approval under §§ 861.4 and 861.5. However, DOD will periodically review the performance of such foreign carriers. This review may consist of recurring performance evaluations, periodic examination of the U.S. code-sharing carrier's operational reviews and assessments of the foreign carrier and, where appropriate and agreed to by the air carriers concerned and DOD, on-site surveys of the foreign air carrier. Such carriers must also meet the 12 months prior experience requirement of § 861.4(e)(1). The CARB or higher authority may prescribe additional review requirements. Should circumstances warrant, use of these air carriers by DOD passengers on official business may be restricted or prohibited as necessary to assure the highest levels of passenger safety.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other foreign air carriers carrying individually ticketed DOD passengers on official business.</I> Foreign air carriers carrying individually ticketed DOD passengers on official business are not subject to DOD survey and approval under §§ 861.4 and 861.5. However, the DOD Air Carrier Survey and Analysis Division may periodically review the performance of such carriers. Reviews may include voluntary on-site surveys as directed by the CARB or higher authority. In the event questions relating to the safety and continued use of the carrier arise, the matter may be referred to the CARB for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign air carriers from countries in which the CAA is not in compliance with ICAO standards.</I> Unless otherwise authorized, use by DOD personnel on official business of foreign air carriers from countries in which the CAA is not in compliance with ICAO standards is prohibited except for the last leg into and the first leg out of the U.S. on such carriers. This includes foreign air carriers performing any portion of a route awarded to a U.S. air carrier under the GSA City Pair Program pursuant to a code-sharing agreement with that U.S. air carrier.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>On-site surveys.</I> The scope of the on-site survey of a foreign air carrier will be at the discretion of the CARB. In the event a foreign air carrier denies a request made under this part to conduct an on-site survey, the CARB will consider all available information and make a use/nonuse recommendation to DOD. If placed in nonuse status by DOD, such air carriers will not be used unless, in accordance with the reference in § 861.1 (b), in the judgment of the appropriate Combatant Commander, no acceptable alternative to using the carrier exists and the travel is mission essential.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign carriers providing operational support services to DOD.</I> Such carriers are subject to DOD oversight, on a case-by-case basis, to the extent directed by the CARB or higher authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.6.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.7   Disclosure of voluntarily provided safety-related information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In accordance with paragraph (h) of the reference in § 861.1 (a), DOD may withhold from public disclosure safety-related information voluntarily provided to DOD by an air carrier for the purposes of this part if DOD determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The disclosure of the information would, in the future, inhibit an air carrier from voluntarily providing such information to DOD or another Federal agency for the purposes of this part or for other air safety purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) The receipt of such information generally enhances the fulfillment of responsibilities under this part or other air safety responsibilities involving DOD or another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing requests for disclosure of voluntarily provided safety-related information.</I> Requests for public disclosure will be administratively processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 806, Air Force Freedom of Information Act Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of voluntarily provided safety-related information to other agencies.</I> The Department of Defense may, at its discretion, disclose voluntarily provided safety-related information submitted under this part by an air carrier, to other agencies with safety responsibilities. The DOD will provide such information to another agency only upon receipt of adequate assurances that it will protect the information from public disclosure, and that it will not release such information unless specifically authorized.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="32:6.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—ORGANIZATION AND MISSION—GENERAL 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="865" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 865—PERSONNEL REVIEW BOARDS 
</HEAD>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 59613, Sept. 28, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 865.0" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.0   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets up procedures for correction of military records to remedy error or injustice. It tells how to apply for correction of military records and how the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR, or the Board) considers applications. It defines the Board's authority to act on applications. It directs collecting and maintaining information subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1034 and 1552. System of Records notice F035 SAFCB A, Military Records Processed by the Air Force Correction Board, applies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.1   Setup of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The AFBCMR operates within the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force according to 10 U.S.C. 1552. The Board consists of civilians in the executive part of the Department of the Air Force who are appointed and serve at the pleasure of the Secretary of the Air Force. Three members constitute a quorum of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.2   Board responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Considering applications.</I> The Board considers all individual applications properly brought before it. In appropriate cases, it directs correction of military records to remove an error or injustice, or recommends such correction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recommending action.</I> When an applicant alleges reprisal under the Military Whistleblowers Protection Act, 10 U.S.C. 1034, the Board may recommend to the Secretary of the Air Force that disciplinary or administrative action be taken against those responsible for the reprisal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deciding cases.</I> The Board normally decides cases on the evidence of the record. It is not an investigative body. However, the Board may, in its discretion, hold a hearing or call for additional evidence or opinions in any case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.3   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Who may apply:
</P>
<P>(1) In most cases, the applicant is a member or former member of the Air Force, since the request is personal to the applicant and relates to his or her military records.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant with a proper interest may request correction of another person's military records when that person is incapable of acting on his or her own behalf, is missing, or is deceased. Depending on the circumstances, a child, spouse, civilian employee or former civilian employee, former spouse, parent or other close relative, an heir, or a legal representative (such as a guardian or executor) of the member or former member may be able to show a proper interest. Applicants will send proof of proper interest with the application when requesting correction of another person's military records. An application may be returned when proper interest has not been shown.
</P>
<P>(3) A member, former member, employee or former employee, dependent, and current or former spouse may apply to correct a document or other record of any other military matter that affects them (This does not include records pertaining to civilian employment matters). Applicants will send proof of the effect of the document or record upon them with the application when requesting a correction under this provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Getting forms.</I> Applicants may get a DD Form 149, “Application for Correction of Military Record Under the Provisions of Title 10 U.S.C. 1552,” and Air Force Pamphlet 36-2607, “<I>Applicants' Guide to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR),”</I> from:
</P>
<P>(1) Any Air Force Military Personnel Flight (MPF) or publications distribution office.
</P>
<P>(2) Most veterans' service organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) The Air Force Review Boards Office, SAF/MRBR, 550 C Street West, Suite 40, Randolph AFB TX 78150-4742.
</P>
<P>(4) The AFBCMR, 1535 Command Drive, EE Wing 3rd Floor, Andrews AFB MD 20762-7002.
</P>
<P>(5) Thru the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/eforms/dd0149.pdf</I> (DD Form 149) and <I>http://www.e-publishing.af.mil/shared/media/epubs/AFPAM36-2607.pdf</I> (Air Force Pamphlet 36-2607).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation.</I> Before applying, applicants should:
</P>
<P>(1) Review Air Force Pamphlet 36-2607.
</P>
<P>(2) Discuss their concerns with MPF, finance office, or other appropriate officials. Errors can often be corrected administratively without resort to the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) Exhaust other available administrative remedies (otherwise the Board may return the request without considering it).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submitting the application.</I> Applicants should complete all applicable sections of the DD Form 149, including at least:
</P>
<P>(1) The name under which the member served.
</P>
<P>(2) The member's social security number or Air Force service number.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(4) The specific records correction being requested.
</P>
<P>(5) Proof of proper interest if requesting correction of another person's records.
</P>
<P>(6) The applicant's original signature.
</P>
<P>(e) Applicants should mail the original signed DD Form 149 and any supporting documents to the Air Force address on the back of the form.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Meeting time limits.</I> Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered, or, with due diligence, should have been discovered. In accordance with federal law, time on active duty is not included in the 3 year period. An application filed later is untimely and may be denied by the Board on that basis.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board may excuse untimely filing in the interest of justice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the application is filed late, applicants should explain why it would be in the interest of justice for the Board to waive the time limits.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Stay of other proceedings.</I> Applying to the AFBCMR does not stay other proceedings.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Counsel representation.</I> Applicants may be represented by counsel, at their own expense.
</P>
<P>(1) The term “counsel” includes members in good standing of the bar of any state, accredited representatives of veterans' organizations recognized under by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 5902(a)(1), and other persons determined by the Executive Director of the Board to be competent to represent the interests of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) See DoDD 7050.06, <I>Military Whistleblower Protection</I> 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> <I>and</I> AFI 90-301, <I>Inspector General Complaints Resolution,</I> for special provisions for counsel in cases processed under 10 U.S.C. 1034.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available via the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/705006p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(i) <I>Page limitations on briefs.</I> Briefs in support of applications:
</P>
<P>(1) May not exceed 25 double-spaced typewritten pages.
</P>
<P>(2) Must be typed on one side of a page only with not more than 12 characters per inch.
</P>
<P>(3) Must be assembled in a manner that permits easy reproduction.
</P>
<P>(4) Responses to advisory opinions must not exceed 10 double-spaced typewritten pages and meet the other requirements for briefs.
</P>
<P>(5) These limitations do not apply to supporting documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(6) In complex cases and upon request, the Executive Director of the Board may waive these limitations.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Withdrawing applications.</I> Applicants may withdraw an application at any time before the Board's decision. Withdrawal does not stay the 3-year time limit.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Authority to reject applications.</I> The Executive Director may return an application without action, if, after consultation with legal counsel, he or she determines that the application is clearly frivolous, or the remedy that is requested is beyond the authority of the Board. This authority may not be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.4   Board actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board information sources.</I> The applicant has the burden of providing sufficient evidence of material error or injustice. However, the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) May get additional information and advisory opinions on an application from any Air Force organization or official.
</P>
<P>(2) May ask the applicant to furnish additional information regarding matters before the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants will be given an opportunity to review and comment on advisory opinions and additional information obtained by the Board. They will also be provided with a copy of correspondence to or from the Air Force Review Boards Agency with an entity outside the Air Force Review Boards Agency in accordance with the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1556.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration by the Board.</I> A panel consisting of at least three board members considers each application. One panel member serves as its chair. The panel's actions and decisions constitute the actions and decisions of the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) The panel may decide the case in executive session or authorize a hearing. When a hearing is authorized, the procedures in § 865.4(f), of this part, apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board deliberations.</I> Normally only members of the Board and Board staff will be present during deliberations. The panel chair may permit observers for training purposes or otherwise in furtherance of the functions of the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Board hearings.</I> The Board in its sole discretion determines whether to grant a hearing. Applicants do not have a right to a hearing before the Board.
</P>
<P>(1) The Executive Director will notify the applicant or counsel, if any, of the time and place of the hearing. Written notice will be mailed 30 days in advance of the hearing unless the notice period is waived by the applicant. The applicant will respond not later than 15 days before the hearing date, accepting or declining the offer of a hearing and, if accepting, provide information pertaining to counsel and witnesses. The Board will decide the case in executive session if the applicant declines the hearing or fails to appear.
</P>
<P>(2) When granted a hearing, the applicant may appear before the Board with or without counsel and may present witnesses. It is the applicant's responsibility to notify witnesses, arrange for their attendance at the hearing, and pay any associated costs.
</P>
<P>(3) The panel chair conducts the hearing, maintains order, and ensures the applicant receives a full and fair opportunity to be heard. Formal rules of evidence do not apply, but the panel observes reasonable bounds of competency, relevancy, and materiality. Witnesses other than the applicant will not be present except when testifying. Witnesses will testify under oath or affirmation. A recorder will record the proceedings verbatim. The chair will normally limit hearings to 2 hours but may allow more time if necessary to ensure a full and fair hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) Additional provisions apply to cases processed under 10 U.S.C. 1034. See DoDD 7050.06, <I>Military Whistleblower Protection</I> 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>, and AFI 90-301, <I>Inspector General Complaints Resolution.</I>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained via the Internet at <I>http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/corres/pdf/705006p.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(g) The Board will not deny or recommend denial of an application on the sole ground that the issue already has been decided by the Secretary of the Air Force or the President of the United States in another proceeding.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Board decisions.</I> The panel's majority vote constitutes the action of the Board. The Board will make determinations on the following issues in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the provisions of the Military Whistleblowers Protection Act apply to the application. This determination is needed only when the applicant invokes the protection of the Act, or when the question of its applicability is otherwise raised by the evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the application was timely filed and, if not, whether the applicant has demonstrated that it would be in the interest of justice to excuse the untimely filing. When the Board determines that an application is not timely, and does not excuse its untimeliness, the application will be denied on that basis.
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the applicant has exhausted all available and effective administrative remedies. If the applicant has not, the application will be denied on that basis.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the applicant has demonstrated the existence of a material error or injustice that can be remedied effectively through correction of the applicant's military record and, if so, what corrections are needed to provide full and effective relief.
</P>
<P>(5) In Military Whistleblowers Protection Act cases only, whether to recommend to the Secretary of the Air Force that disciplinary or administrative action be taken against any Air Force official whom the Board finds to have committed an act of reprisal against the applicant. Any determination on this issue will not be made a part of the Board's record of proceedings and will not be given to the applicant, but will be provided directly to the Secretary of the Air Force under separate cover (Sec 865.2b, of this part).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Record of proceedings.</I> The Board staff will prepare a record of proceedings following deliberations which will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and vote of each Board member.
</P>
<P>(2) The application.
</P>
<P>(3) Briefs and written arguments.
</P>
<P>(4) Documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(5) A hearing transcript if a hearing was held.
</P>
<P>(6) Advisory opinions and the applicant's related comments.
</P>
<P>(7) The findings, conclusions, and recommendations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(8) Minority reports, if any.
</P>
<P>(9) Other information necessary to show a true and complete history of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Minority reports.</I> A dissenting panel member may prepare a minority report which may address any aspect of the case.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Separate communications.</I> The Board may send comments or recommendations to the Secretary of the Air Force as to administrative or disciplinary action against individuals found to have committed acts of reprisal prohibited by the Military Whistleblowers Protection Act and on other matters arising from an application not directly related to the requested correction of military records. Such comments and recommendations will be separately communicated and will not be included in the record of proceedings or given to the applicant or counsel.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Final action by the Board.</I> The Board acts for the Secretary of the Air Force and its decision is final when it:
</P>
<P>(1) Denies any application (except under 10 U.S.C. 1034).
</P>
<P>(2) Grants any application in whole or part when the relief was recommended by the official preparing the advisory opinion, was unanimously agreed to by the panel, and does not affect an appointment or promotion requiring confirmation by the Senate, and does not affect a matter for which the Secretary of the Air Force or his or her delegee has withheld decision authority or required notification before final decision.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board sends the record of proceedings on all other applications to the Secretary of the Air Force or his or her designee for final decision.
</P>
<P>(m) The Board may identify DoD or Air Force policies, instructions, guidance or practices that are leading to, or likely to lead to unsound business decisions, unfair results, waste of government funds or public criticism. The Board will forward such observations directly to the appropriate offices of the Secretariat and/or Air Staff for review and evaluation. Such observations will not be included in the record of proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.5" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.5   Decision of the Secretary of the Air Force.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may direct such action as he or she deems appropriate on each case, including returning the case to the Board for further consideration. Cases returned to the Board for further reconsideration will be accompanied by a brief statement of the reasons for such action. If the Secretary does not accept the Board's recommendation, the Secretary's decision will be in writing and will include a brief statement of the grounds for his/her final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions in cases under the Military Whistleblowers Protection Act.</I> The Secretary will issue decisions on such cases within 180 days after receipt of the case and will, unless the full relief requested is granted, inform applicants of their right to request review of the decision by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). Applicants will also be informed:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the name and address of the official to whom the request for review must be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) That the request for review must be submitted within 90 days after receipt of the decision by the Secretary of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(3) That the request for review must be in writing and include the applicant's name, address, and telephone number; a copy of the application to the AFBCMR and the final decision of the Secretary of the Air Force; and a statement of the specific reasons the applicant is not satisfied with the decision of the Secretary of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(4) That the request must be based on the Board record; requests for review based on factual allegations or evidence not previously presented to the Board will not be considered under this paragraph but may be the basis for reconsideration by the Board under § 865.6.
</P>
<P>(c) In cases under § 865.5(b) of this part which involve additional issues not cognizable under that paragraph, the additional issues may be considered separately by the Board under § 865.3 and § 865.4 of this part. The special time limit in § 865.5 (b) does not apply to the decision concerning these additional issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decisions in high profile or sensitive cases.</I> Prior to taking final action on a BCMR application that has generated, or is likely to generate, significant public or Congressional interest, the Secretarial designee will provide the case record of proceedings through Secretarial channels to OSAF so that the Secretary can determine whether to decide the case personally or take other action the Secretary deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.6" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.6   Reconsideration of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may reconsider an application if the applicant submits newly discovered relevant evidence that was not reasonably available when the application was previously considered. The Executive Director or Team Chiefs will screen each request for reconsideration to determine whether it contains new evidence. New arguments about, or analysis of, evidence already considered, and additional statements which are cumulative to those already in the record of proceedings will not be considered new evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If the request contains new evidence, the Executive Director or his/her designee will refer it to a panel of the Board for a decision. The Board will decide the relevance and weight of any new evidence, whether it was reasonably available to the applicant when the application was previously considered, and whether it was submitted in a timely manner. The Board may deny reconsideration if the request does not meet the criteria for reconsideration. Otherwise the Board will reconsider the application and decide the case either on timeliness or merit as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) If the request does not contain new evidence, the Executive Director or his/her designee will return it to the applicant without referral to the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 856.7" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 856.7   Action after final decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Action by the Executive Director.</I> The Executive Director or his/her designee will inform the applicant or counsel, if any, of the final decision on the application. If any requested relief was denied, the Executive Director will advise the applicant of reconsideration procedures and, for cases processed under the Military Whistleblowers Protection Act, review by the SecDef. The Executive Director will send decisions requiring corrective action to the Chief of Staff, U.S. Air Force, for necessary action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Settlement of claims.</I> The Air Force is authorized, under 10 U.S.C. 1552, to pay claims for amounts due to applicants as a result of correction of military records.
</P>
<P>(1) The Executive Director will furnish the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) with AFBCMR decisions potentially affecting monetary entitlement or benefits. DFAS will treat such decisions as claims for payment by or on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) DFAS settles claims on the basis of the corrected military record. Computation of the amount due, if any, is a function of DFAS. Applicants may be required to furnish additional information to DFAS to establish their status as proper parties to the claim and to aid in deciding amounts due.
</P>
<P>(3) Earnings received from civilian employment during any period for which active duty pay and allowances are payable will be deducted from the settlement. Amounts found due will be offset by the amount of any existing indebtedness to the government in compliance with the Debt Collection Act of 1982 or successor statutes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public access to decisions.</I> After deletion of personal information, AFBCMR decisions will be made available for review and copying at an electronic public reading room.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.8" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.8   Miscellaneous provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the request of the Board, all Air Force activities and officials will furnish the Board with:
</P>
<P>(1) All available military records pertinent to an application.
</P>
<P>(2) An advisory opinion concerning an application. The advisory opinion will include an analysis of the facts of the case and of the applicant's contentions, a statement of whether or not the requested relief can be done administratively, and a recommendation on the timeliness and merit of the request. Regardless of the recommendation, the advisory opinion will include instructions on specific corrective action to be taken if the Board grants the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to records.</I> Applicants will have access to all records considered by the Board, except those classified or privileged. To the extent practicable, applicants will be provided unclassified or nonprivileged summaries or extracts of such records considered by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of expenses.</I> The Air Force has no authority to pay expenses of any kind incurred by or on behalf of an applicant in connection with a correction of military records under 10 U.S.C. 1034 or 1552.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form adopted:</I> DD Form 149.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Air Force Discharge Review Board</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 8012, 70A Stat. 488; sec. 1553, 72 Stat. 1267, 10 U.S.C. 8012, 1553.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 37384, Aug. 18, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 865.100" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes policies for the review of discharges and dismissals under 32 CFR part 70, “Discharge Review Boards Procedures and Standards,” 47 FR 37770, August 26, 1982. 1982, and explains the jurisdiction, authority, and actions of the Air Force Discharge Review Board. It applies to all Air Force activities. This subpart is affected by the Privacy Act of 1974. The system of records cited in this subpart is authorized by 10 U.S.C. 1553 and 8012. Each data gathering form or format which is required by this subpart contains a Privacy Act Statement, either incorporated in the body of the document or in a separate statement accompanying each such document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.101" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.101   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Title 10 U.S.C., section 1553.
</P>
<P>(b) Title 38 U.S.C., sections 101 and 3103, as amended by Pub. L. 95-126, October 8, 1977.
</P>
<P>(c) DOD Directive 5000.19, “Policies for the Management and Control of Information Requirements,” March 12, 1976.
</P>
<P>(d) DOD Directive 5000.11, “Data Elements and Data Codes Standardization Program,” December 7, 1964.
</P>
<P>(e) DOD Directive 5000.12-M “DOD Manual for Standard Data Elements,” December 1981.
</P>
<P>(f) DOD Directive 1332.14, “Enlisted Administrative Separations,” January 28, 1982.
</P>
<P>(g) DOD Directive 5400.7, “DOD Freedom of Information Act Program,” March 24, 1980; title 5 U.S.C., section 552.
</P>
<P>(h) DOD Directive 5400.11, “Department of Defense Privacy Program,” June 9, 1982; title 5 U.S.C., section 552a.
</P>
<P>(i) Title 10 U.S.C., chapter 47, Uniform Code of Military Justice.
</P>
<P>(j) Wood v. Secretary of Defense, Civ. No. 77-0684 (D.D.C.) (Order, December 3, 1981).
</P>
<P>(k) Urban Law Institute of Antioch College, Inc. v. Secretary of Defense, Civ. No. 76-0530, (D.D.C.) (Stipulation of Dismissal, January 31, 1977) (Order and Settlement Agreement, July 30, 1982).
</P>
<P>(l) Air Force Regulation 35-41, Vol III, Separation Procedures for USAFR Members, dated October 30, 1975.
</P>
<P>(m) Air Force Regulation 36-2, Officer Personnel, Administrative Discharge Procedures, August 2, 1976.
</P>
<P>(n) Air Force Regulation 36-3, Officer Personnel, Administrative Discharge Procedures, August 2, 1976.
</P>
<P>(o) Air Force Regulation 36-12, Officer Personnel, Administrative Separation of Commissioned Officers and Warrant Officers, July 15, 1977.
</P>
<P>(p) Air Force Regulation 39-10, Separation Upon Expiration of Term of Service, for Convenience of Government, Minority, Dependency and Hardship, January 3, 1977.
</P>
<P>(q) Air Force Manual 39-12, Separation for Unsuitability, Misconduct, Resignation, or Request for Discharge for the Good of the Service and Procedures for the Rehabilitation Program, September 1, 1966.
</P>
<P>(r) Air National Guard Regulation 39-10, Enlisted Personnel-Separation, December 30, 1971.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.102" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.102   Statutory authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force Discharge Review Board (DRB) was established within the Department of the Air Force under section 301 of the Serviceman's Readjustment Act of 1944, as amended (now 10 U.S.C. 1553) and further amended by Pub. L. 95-126 dated October 8, 1977.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.103" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.103   Definition of terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant.</I> A former member of the Armed Forces who has been dismissed or discharged administratively in accordance with Military Department regulations or by sentence of a court-martial (other than a general court-martial) and under statutory regulatory provisions whose application is accepted by the DRB concerned or whose case is heard on the DRB's own motion. If the former member is deceased or incompetent, the term “applicant” includes the surviving spouse, next-of-kin, or legal representative who is acting on behalf of the former member. When the term “applicant” is used in this subpart, it includes the applicant's counsel or representative, except that the counsel or representative may not submit an application for review, waive the applicant's right to be present at a hearing, or terminate a review without providing the DRB an appropriate power of attorney or other written consent of the former member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complainant.</I> A former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint in accordance with § 865.121 of this subpart with respect to the decisional document issued in the former member's own case; or a former member of the Armed Forces (or the former member's counsel) who submits a complaint stating that correction of the decisional document will assist the former member in preparing for an administrative or judicial proceeding in which the former member's own discharge will be at issue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counsel or representative.</I> An individual or agency designated by the applicant who agrees to represent the applicant in a case before the DRB. It includes, but is not limited to: a lawyer who is a member of the bar of a federal court or of the highest court of a state; an accredited representative designated by an organization recognized by the Administrator of Veterans Affairs; a representative from a state agency concerned with veterans affairs; and representatives from private organizations or local government agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discharge.</I> A general term used in this subpart that includes dismissal and separation or release from active or inactive military status, and actions that accomplish a complete severance of all military status. This term also includes the assignment of a reason for such discharge and characterization of service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Discharge review.</I> The process by which the reason for separation, the procedures followed in accomplishing separation, and characterization of service are evaluated. This includes determinations made under the provisions of title 38 U.S.C. 3103(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discharge Review Board (DRB).</I> An administrative board constituted by the Secretary of the Air Force and vested with discretionary authority to review discharges and dismissals under the provisions of title 10 U.S.C. 1553.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regional Discharge Review Board.</I> A DRB that conducts discharge reviews in a location outside the National Capital Region (NCR).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>DRB President.</I> The senior line officer of any DRB convened for the purpose of conducting discharge reviews.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hearing.</I> A review involving an appearance before the DRB by the applicant or on the applicant's behalf by a counsel or representative.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Record review.</I> A review of the application, available service records, and additional documents (if any) submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>National Capital Region (NCR).</I> The District of Columbia; Prince Georges and Montgomery Counties in Maryland; Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William Counties in Virginia; and all cities and towns included within the outer boundaries of the foregoing counties.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Director, Air Force Personnel Council.</I> The person designated by the Secretary of the Air Force who is responsible for the supervision of the Discharge Review function.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.104" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.104   Secretarial responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of the Air Force is responsible for the overall operation of the Discharge Review program within the Department of the Air Force. The following delegation of authority have been made:
</P>
<P>(a) To the Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force (Manpower, Reserve Affairs and Installations) to act for the Secretary of the Air Force in all discharge review actions subject to review by the Secretary as specified in § 865.113 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) To the Director, Air Force Personnel Council, for operation of all phases of the discharge review function and authority to take action in the name of the Secretary of the Air Force in all discharge review actions except those specified in § 865.113 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.105" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.105   Jurisdiction and authority.</HEAD>
<P>The DRB has jurisdiction and authority in cases of former military personnel who, at the time of their separation from the Service, were members of the US Army Aviation components (Aviation Section, Signal Corps; Air Service; Air Corps; or Air Forces) prior to September 17, 1947, or the US Air Force. The DRB does not have jurisdiction and authority concerning personnel of other armed services who at the time of their separation, were assigned to duty with the Army Air Forces or the US Air Force.
</P>
<P>(a) The DRB's review is based on the former member's available military records, issues submitted by the former member, or his counsel and on any other evidence that is presented to the DRB. The DRB determines whether the type of discharge or dismissal the former member received is equitable and proper; if not, the DRB instructs the USAF Manpower and Personnel Center (AFMPC) to change the discharge reason or to issue a new character of discharge according to the DRB's findings.
</P>
<P>(b) The DRB is not authorized to revoke any discharge, to reinstate any person who has been separated from the military service, or to recall any person to active duty.
</P>
<P>(c) The DRB, on its own motion, may review a case that appears likely to result in a decision favorable to the former military member, without the member's knowledge or presence. In this case, if the decision is:
</P>
<P>(1) Favorable, the DRB directs AFMPC to notify the former member accordingly at the member's last known address.
</P>
<P>(2) Unfavorable, the DRB returns the case to the files without any record of formal action; the DRB then reconsiders the case without prejudice in accordance with normal procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.106" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.106   Application for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Applications shall be submitted to the Air Force DRB on DD Form 293, Application for Review of Discharge or Dismissal from the Armed Forces of the United States (OMB Approval No. 0704-0004) with such other statements, affidavits, or documentation as desired. It is to the applicant's advantage to submit such documents with the application or within 60 days thereafter in order to permit a thorough screening of the case. The DD Form 293 is available at most DOD installations and regional offices of the Veterans Administration, or by writing to: DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A motion or request for review must be made within 15 years after the date of discharge or dismissal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicant's responsibilities.</I> An applicant may request a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Character of discharge.</I> DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in character of discharge (for example, General Discharge to Honorable Discharge; Under Other Than Honorable Conditions Discharge to General or Honorable Discharge). Only a person separated on or after 1 October 1982 while in an entry level status may request a change from other than an honorable discharge to Entry Level Separation. A request for review from an applicant who does not have an Honorable Discharge will be treated as a request for a change to an Honorable Discharge unless the applicant requests a specific change to another character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reason for discharge.</I> DD Form 293 provides an applicant an opportunity to request a specific change in the reason for discharge. If an applicant does not request a specific change in the reason for discharge, the DRB will presume that the request for review does not involve a request for change in the reason for discharge. Under its responsibility to examine the propriety and equity of an applicant's discharge, the DRB will change the reason for discharge if such a change is warranted.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must ensure that issues submitted to the DRB are consistent with the request for change in discharge set forth in “Board Action Requested” of the DD Form 293. If an ambiguity is created by a difference between an applicant's issue and the requested action, the DRB will respond to the issue in the context of the action requested in “Board Action Requested.” In the case of a Personal Appearance hearing, the DRB will attempt to resolve the ambiguity.
</P>
<P>(d) If the member is deceased or mentally incompetent, the spouse, next-of-kin, or legal representative may, as agent for the member, submit the application for the review along with proof of the member's death or mental incompetency.
</P>
<P>(e) Applicants forward their requests for review to the USAF Manpower and Personnel Center-mailing address: AFMPC/MPCDOA1, Randolph AFB TX 78150. AFMPC will obtain all available military records of the former members from the National Personnel Records Center.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Withdrawal of application.</I> An applicant shall be permitted to withdraw an application without prejudice at any time before the scheduled review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Submission of issues on DD Form 293.</I> Issues must be provided to the DRB on DD Form 293 before the DRB closes the review process for deliberation and should be submitted in accordance with the guidelines of this subpart for submission of issues.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Issues must be clear and specific.</I> An issue must be stated clearly and specifically in order to enable the DRB to understand the nature of the issue and its relationship to the applicant's discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate listing of issues.</I> Each issue submitted by an applicant should be listed separately. Submission of a separate statement for each issue provides the best means of ensuring that the full import of the issue is conveyed to the DRB.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of DD Form 293.</I> DD Form 293 provides applicants with a standard format for submitting issues to the DRB, and its use:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides a means for an applicant to set forth clearly and specifically those matters that, in the opinion of the applicant, provide a basis for changing the discharge;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists the DRB in focusing on those matters considered to be important by an applicant;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assists the DRB in distinguishing between a matter submitted by an applicant in the expectation that it will be treated as a decisional issue under § 865.112, and those matters submitted simply as background or supporting materials;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the applicant with greater rights in the event that the applicant later submits a complaint under § 865.121 of this subpart concerning the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(v) Reduces the potential for disagreement as to the content of an applicant's issue.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> If the applicant makes an additional written submission, such as a brief, in support of the application, the applicant may incorporate by reference specific issues set forth in the written submission in accordance with the guidance on DD Form 293. The reference shall be specific enough for the DRB to identify clearly the matter being submitted as an issue. At a minimum, it shall identify the page, paragraph, and sentence incorporated. Because it is to the applicant's benefit to bring such issues to the DRB's attention as early as possible in the review, applicants who submit a brief are strongly urged to set forth all issues as a separate item at the beginning of the brief. If it reasonably appears that the applicant inadvertently has failed expressly to incorporate an issue which the applicant clearly identifies as an issue to be addressed by the DRB, the DRB shall respond to such an issue in accordance with §§ 865.111 and 865.112 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effective date of the new DD Form 293.</I> With respect to applications received before November 27, 1982, the DRB shall consider issues clearly and specifically stated in accordance with the rules in effect at the time of submission. With respect to applications received on or after November 27, 1982, if the applicant submits an obsolete DD Form 293, the application will be returned with a copy of the revised DD Form 293 for reaccomplishment. The DRB will only respond to the issues submitted on the new form in accordance with 32 CFR part 70, 47 FR 37770, August 26, 1982 and this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Relationship of issues to character of or reason for discharge.</I> If the application applies to both character of and reason for discharge, the applicant is encouraged, but not required, to identify the issue as applying to the character of or reason for discharge (or both). Unless the issue is directed at the reason for discharge expressly or by necessary implication, the DRB will presume that it applies solely to the character of discharge. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Relationship of issues to the standards for discharge review.</I> The DRB reviews discharges on the basis of issues of propriety and equity. The standards used by the DRB are set forth in § 865.120 of this subpart. The applicant is encouraged to review those standards before submitting any issue upon which the applicant believes a change in discharge should be based. The applicant is also encouraged, but not required, to identify an issue as pertaining to the propriety or the equity of the discharge. This will assist the DRB in assessing the relationship of the issue to propriety or equity under § 865.112(d) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Citation of matter from decisions.</I> The primary function of the DRB involves the exercise of discretion on a case-by-case basis. Applicants are not required to cite prior decisions as the basis for a change in discharge. If the applicant wishes to bring the DRB's attention to a prior decision as background or illustrative material, the citation should be placed in a brief or other supporting documents. If, however, it is the applicant's intention to submit an issue that sets forth specific principles and facts from a specific cited decision, the following requirements apply with respect to applications received on or after November 27, 1982.
</P>
<P>(1) The issue must be set forth or expressly incorporated in the “Applicant's Issue” portion of DD Form 293.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant's issue cites a prior decision (of the DRB, another Board, an agency, or a court), the applicant shall describe the specific principles and facts that are contained in the prior decision and explain the relevance of cited matter to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(3) To insure timely consideration of principles cited from unpublished opinions (including decisions maintained by the Armed Forces Discharge Review Board/Correction Board Reading Room), the applicant must provide the DRB with copies of such decisions or of the relevant portion of treatise, manual, or similar source in which the principles were discussed. At the applicant's request, such materials will be returned.
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant fails to comply with the requirements above, the decisional document shall note the defect, and shall respond to the issue without regard to the citation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Identification by the DRB of issues submitted by an applicant.</I> The applicant's issues shall be identified in accordance with this section after a review of all materials and information is made.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Issues on DD Form 293.</I> The DRB shall consider all items submitted as issues by an applicant on DD Form 293 (or incorporated therein) in accordance with this part. With respect to applications submitted before November 27, 1982, the DRB shall consider all issues clearly and specifically stated in accordance with the rules in effect at the time of the submission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amendment of issues.</I> The DRB shall not request or instruct an applicant to amend or withdraw any matter submitted by the applicant. Any amendment or withdrawal of an issue by an applicant shall be confirmed in writing by the applicant. This provision does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit by DRB's authority to question an applicant as to the meaning of such matter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Preclude the DRB from developing decisional issues based upon such questions:
</P>
<P>(iii) Prevent the applicant from amending or withdrawing such matter any time before the DRB closes the review process for deliberation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevent the DRB from presenting an applicant with a list of proposed decisional issues and written information concerning the right of the applicant to add to, amend, or withdraw the applicant's submission. The written information will state that the applicant's decision to take such action (or decline to do so) will not be used against the applicant in the consideration of the case.
</P>
<P>(3) Additional Issues Identified During a Hearing. The following additional procedure shall be used during a hearing in order to promote the DRB's understanding of an applicant's presentation. If before closing the hearing for deliberation, the DRB believes that an applicant has presented an issue not listed on DD Form 293, the FRB may so inform the applicant, and the applicant may submit the issue in writing or add additional written issues at that time. This does not preclude the DRB from developing its own decisional issues.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Notification of possible bar to benefits.</I> Written notification shall be made to each applicant whose record indicates a reason for discharge that bars receipt of benefits under 38 U.S.C. 3103(a). This notification will advise the applicant that separate action by the Board for Correction of Military Records or the Veterans Administration may confer eligibility for VA benefits. Regarding the bar to benefits based upon the 180 days consecutive unauthorized absence, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) Such absence must have been included as part of the basis for the applicant's discharge under other than honorable conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Such absence is computed without regard to the applicant's normal or adjusted expiration of term of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.107" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.107   DRB composition and meeting location.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DRB consists of five members, with the senior line officer acting as the presiding officer. The presiding officer convenes, recesses and adjourns the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to holding hearings in Washington, DC, the DRB, as a convenience to applicants, periodically conducts hearings at selected locations throughout the Continental United States. Reviews are conducted at locations central to those areas with the greatest number of applicants. A continuing review and appraisal is conducted to ensure the selected hearing locations are responsive to a majority of applicants. Administrative details and responsibilities for Regional Boards are outlined in § 865.124.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.108" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.108   Availability of records and documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before applying for discharge review, potential applicants or their designated resentatives may, and are encouraged to obtain copies of their military personnel records by submitting a General Services Administration Standard Form 180, Request Pertaining to Military Records, to the National Personnel Records Center (NPRC) 9700 Page Boulevard, St. Louis, Mo 63132; thus avoiding any lengthy delays in the processing of the application (DD Form 293) and the scheduling of reviews.
</P>
<P>(1) Once the application for discharge review (DD Form 293) is submitted, an applicant's military records are forwarded to the DRB where they cannot be reproduced. Submission of a request for an applicant's military records, including a request under the Freedom of Information Act or Privacy Act after the DD Form 293 has been submitted, shall result automatically in the termporary suspension of processing of the application for discharge review until the requested records are sent to an appropriate location for copying, are copied, and returned to the headquarters of the DRB. Processing of the application shall then be resumed at whatever stage of the discharge review process is practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Applicants and their designated representatives also may examine their military personnel records at the site of their scheduled review before the hearing. The DRB shall notify applicants and their designated representatives of the dates the records are available for examination in their standard scheduling information.
</P>
<P>(b) The DRB is not authorized to provide copies of documents that are under the cognizance of another government department, office, or activity. Applications for such information must be made by the applicant to the cognizant authority. The DRB shall advise the applicant of the mailing address of the government department, office, or activity to which the request should be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) If the official records relevant to the discharge review are not available at the agency having custody of the records, the applicant shall be so notified and requested to provide such information and documents as may be desired in support of the request for discharge review. A period of not less than 30 days shall be allowed for such documents to be submitted. At the expiration of this period, the review may be conducted with information available to the DRB. 
</P>
<P>(d) The DRB may take steps to obtain additional evidence that is relevant to the discharge under consideration beyond that found in the official military records or submitted by the applicant, if a review of available evidence suggests that it would be incomplete without the additional information, or when the applicant presents testimony or documents that require additional information to evaluate properly. Such information shall be made available to the applicant, upon request, with appropriate modifications regarding classified material.
</P>
<P>(1) In any case heard on the request of an applicant, the DRB shall provide the applicant and counsel or representative, if any, at a reasonable time before initiating the decision process, a notice of the availability of all regulations and documents to be considered in the discharge review, except for documents in the official personnel or medical records and any documents submitted by the applicant. The DRB shall also notify the applicant or counsel or representative (i) of the right to examine such documents or to be provided with copies of documents upon request; (ii) of the date by which such request must be received; and (iii) of the opportunity to respond within a reasonable period of time to be set be the DRB.
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary to acquaint the applicant with the substance of a classified document, the classifying authority, on the request of the DRB, shall prepare a summary of or an extract from the document, deleting all reference to source of information and other matters, the disclosure of which, in the opinion of the classifying authority, would be detrimental to the national security interest of the United States. Should preparation of such summary be deemed impracticable by the classifying authority, information from the classified source shall not be considered by the DRB in its review of the case.
</P>
<P>(e) Current Air Force numbered publications may be obtained from the Chief, Central Base Administration at any major Air Force installation or by writing:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>HQ USAF/DASJL, Washington, DC 20330
</FP-1>
<FP>   or
</FP>
<FP-1>DA Military Review Boards Agency, Attention: SPBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, Washington, DC 20310</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.109" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.109   Procedures for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant is entitled, by law, to appear in person at his or her request before the DRB in open session and to be represented by counsel of his or her own selection. The applicant also may present such witnesses as he or she may desire.
</P>
<P>(b) There are two types of reviews. They are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Record Review.</I> A review of the application, available service records, and additional documents (if any) submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing.</I> A personal appearance before the DRB by the applicant with or without counsel, or by the counsel only.
</P>
<P>(c) The Government does not compensate or pay the expenses of the applicant, applicant's witnesses, or counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) A summary of the available military records of the applicant is prepared for use by the DRB in the review process. A copy of the summary is available to the applicant and/or his or her counsel, upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) When an applicant has requested a personal appearance and/or representation by counsel on the DD Form 293, the DRB sends written notice of the hearing time and place to the applicant and designated counsel. Evidence of such notification will be placed in the applicant's record.
</P>
<P>(f) Personal appearance hearings shall be conducted with recognition of the rights of the individual to privacy. Accordingly, presence at hearings of individuals other than those whose presence is required will be limited to persons authorized by the presiding officer and/or expressly requested by the applicant, subject to reasonable limitations based upon available space.
</P>
<P>(g) Formal rules of evidence shall not be applied in DRB proceedings. The presiding officer shall rule on matters of procedure and shall ensure that reasonable bounds of relevancy and materiality are maintained in the taking of evidence and presentation of witnesses. Applicants and witnesses may present evidence to the DRB panel either in person or by affidavit or through counsel. If an applicant or witness testifies under oath or affirmation, he or she is subject to questioning by Board members.
</P>
<P>(h) There is a presumption of regularity in the conduct of governmental affairs. This presumption can be applied in any review unless there is substantial credible evidence to rebut the presumption.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Failure to appear at a hearing or respond to scheduling notice.</I> (1) Except as otherwise authorized by the Secretary of the Air Force, further opportunity for a personal appearance hearing shall not be made available in the following circumstances to an applicant who has requested a hearing.
</P>
<P>(i) When the applicant and/or a designated counsel or representative has been sent a letter containing the date and location of a proposed hearing and fails to make a timely response; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the applicant and/or a designated representative, after being notified by letter of the time and place of the hearing, fails to appear at the appointed time, either in person or by representative, without having made a prior, timely request for a postponement or withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) In such cases, the applicant shall be deemed to have waived his/her right to a hearing, and the DRB shall complete its review of the discharge. Further request for a hearing shall not be granted unless the applicant can demonstrate that the failure to appear or respond was due to circumstances beyond the applicant's control.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Continuance and postponements.</I> (1) A continuance of a discharge review hearing may be authorized by the presiding officer of the Board concerned, provided that such continuance is of a reasonable duration and is essential to achieving a full and fair hearing. Where a proposal for continuance is indefinite, the pending application shall be returned to the applicant with the option to resubmit when the case is fully ready for review.
</P>
<P>(2) Postponements of scheduled reviews normally shall not be permitted other than for demonstrated good and sufficient reason set forth by the applicant in a timely manner, or for the convenience of the government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A discharge review shall not be subject to reconsideration except:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the only previous consideration of the case was on the motion of the DRB;
</P>
<P>(2) When the original discharge review did not involve a personal appearance hearing and a personal appearance is now desired, and the provisions of § 865.109(j) do not apply;
</P>
<P>(3) Where changes in discharge policy are announced subsequent to an earlier review of an applicant's discharge, and the new policy is made expressly retroactive;
</P>
<P>(4) Where the DRB determines that policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration, provided that such changes in policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded an applicant in such proceeding;
</P>
<P>(5) Where an individual is to be represented by a counsel/representative, and was not so represented in any previous consideration of the case.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the case was not previously considered under the uniform standards published pursuant to Pub. L. 95-126 and application is made for such consideration within 15 years after the date of discharge; or
</P>
<P>(7) On the basis of presentation of new, substantial, relevant evidence not available to the applicant at the time of the original review. The decision as to whether evidence offered by an applicant in support of a request for reconsideration is in fact new, substantial, relevant, and was not available to the applicant at the time of the original review will be based on a comparison of such evidence with the evidence considered in the previous discharge review. If this comparison shows that the evidence submitted would have had a probable effect on matters concerning the propriety or equity of the discharge, the request for reconsideration shall be granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.110" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.110   Decision process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DRB shall meet in plenary session to review discharges and exercise its discretion on a case-by-case basis in applying the standards set forth in this regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer is responsible for the conduct of the discharge review. The presiding officer shall convene, recess, and adjourn the DRB as appropriate, and shall maintain an atmosphere of dignity and decorum at all times.
</P>
<P>(c) Each board member shall act under oath or affirmation requiring careful, objective consideration of the application. They shall consider all relevant material and competent information presented to them by the applicant. In addition, they shall consider all available military records, together with such other records as may be in the files and relevant to the issues before the DRB.
</P>
<P>(d) The DRB shall identify and address issues after a review of the following material obtained and presented in accordance with this subpart and 32 CFR part 70: available official military records, documentary evidence submitted by or on behalf of the applicant, presentation of testimony by or on behalf of the applicant, oral or written arguments presented by or on behalf of the applicant, and any other relevant evidence. 
</P>
<P>(e) Application of Standards:
</P>
<P>(1) When the DRB determines that an applicant's discharge was improper, the DRB will determine which reason for discharge should have been assigned based upon the facts and circumstances properly before the discharge authority in view of the regulations governing reasons for discharge at the time the applicant was discharged.
</P>
<P>(2) When the board determines that an applicant's discharge was inequitable, any change will be based on the evaluation of the applicant's overall record of service and relevant regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Voting shall be conducted in closed session, a majority of the five members' votes constituting the DRB's decision.
</P>
<P>(g) Details of closed session deliberations of a DRB are privileged information and shall not be divulged.
</P>
<P>(h) A formal minority opinion may be submitted in instances of disagreement between members of a board. The opinion must cite findings, conclusions and reasons which are the basis for the opinion. The complete case with the majority and minority recommendations will be submitted to the Director, Air Force Personnel Council.
</P>
<P>(i) The DRB may request advisory opinions from staff offices of the Air Force. These opinions are advisory in nature and are not binding on the DRB in its decision making process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.111" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.111   Response to items submitted as issues by the applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an issue submitted by an applicant contains two or more clearly separate issues, the DRB should respond to each issue under the guidance of this section as if it had been set forth separately by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) If an applicant uses a “building block” approach (that is, setting forth a series of conclusions on issues that lead to a single conclusion purportedly warranting a change in the applicant's discharge), normally there should be a separate response to each issue.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not preclude the DRB from making a single response to multiple issues when such action would enhance the clarity of the decisional document, but such response must reflect an adequate response to each separate issue.
</P>
<P>(d) An item submitted as an issue by an applicant in accordance with this regulation shall be addressed as a decisional issue under § 865.112 of this subpart in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) When the DRB decides that a change in discharge should be granted, and the DRB bases its decision in whole or in part on the applicant's issue; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the DRB does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, and the decision is based in whole or in part on the DRB's disagreement with the merits of an issue submitted by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the applicant receives the full change in discharge requested (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted and the basis shall be addressed as a decisional issue even if that basis is not addressed as an issue by the applicant. No further response is required to other issues submitted by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the applicant does not receive the full change in discharge requested with respect to either the character of or reason for discharge (or both), the DRB shall address the items submitted by the applicant unless one of the following responses is applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Duplicate issues.</I> The DRB may state that there is a full response to the issue submitted by the applicant under a specified decisional issue. This respose may be used only when one issue clearly duplicates another or the issue clearly requires discussion in conjunction with another issue. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Citations without principles and facts.</I> The DRB may state that any issue, which consists of a citation of a previous decision without setting forth any principles and facts from the decision that the applicant states are relevant to the applicant's case, does not comply with the requirements of § 865.106(g)(1) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unclear issues.</I> The DRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because the meaning of the item is unclear. An issue is unclear if it cannot be understood by a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered under § 865.110(d) of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonspecific issues.</I> The DRB may state that it cannot respond to an item submitted by the applicant as an issue because it is not specific. A submission is considered not specific if a reasonable person familiar with the discharge review process after a review of the materials considered under § 865.110(d), cannot determine the relationship between the applicant's submission and the particular circumstances of the case. This response may be used only if the submission is expressed in such general terms that no other response is applicable. For example, if the DRB disagrees with the applicant as to the relevance of matters set forth in the submission, the DRB normally will set forth the nature of the disagreement under the guidance in § 865.112 of this subpart with respect to decisional issues, or it will reject the applicant's position on the basis of § 865.111(f)(1) or § 865.111(f)(2). If the applicant's submission is so general that none of those provisions is applicable, then the DRB may state that it cannot respond because the item is not specific. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.112" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.112   Decisional issues.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decisional document shall discuss the issues that provide a basis for the decision whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge. In order to enhance clarity, the DRB should not address matters other than issues relied upon in the decision or raised by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partial Change.</I> When the decision changes a discharge but does not provide the applicant with the full change in discharge requested, the decisional document shall address both the issues upon which change is granted and the issues upon which the DRB denies the full change requested. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship of Issue to Character of or Reason for Discharge.</I> Generally, the decisional document should specify whether a decisional issue applies to the character of or reason for discharge (or both), but it is not required to do so. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship of an Issue to Propriety or Equity.</I> (1) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to both propriety and equity, the DRB will consider it under both standards.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant identifies an issue as pertaining to the propriety of the discharge (for example, by citing a propriety standard or otherwise claiming that a change in discharge is required as a matter of law), the DRB shall consider the issue solely as a matter of propriety. Except as provided in § 865.112(d)(4), the DRB is not required to consider such an issue under the equity standards. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant's issue contends that the DRB is required as a matter of law to follow a prior decision by setting forth an issue of propriety from the prior decision and decribing its relationship to the applicant's case, the issue shall be considered under the propriety standards and addressed under § 865.112(e) or § 865.112(f). 
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant's issue sets forth principles of equity contained in a prior DRB decision, describes the relationship to the applicant's case, and contends that the DRB is required as a matter of law to follow the prior case, the decisional document shall note that the DRB is not bound by its discretionary decisions in prior cases under the standards in § 865.120 of this subpart. However, the principles cited by the applicant, and the description of the relationship of the principles to the applicant's case, shall be considered under the equity standards and addressed under § 865.112(h) or § 865.112(i). 
</P>
<P>(5) If the applicant's issue cannot be identified as a matter of propriety or equity, the DRB shall address it as an issue of equity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change of discharge: Issues of propriety.</I> If a change in the discharge is warranted under the propriety standards the decisional document shall state that conclusion and list the errors or expressly retroactive changes in policy that provide a basis for the conclusion. The decisional document shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the error or change in policy to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not granting the full change shall be addressed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Denial of the full change requested: Issues of propriety.</I> If the decision rejects the applicant's position on an issue of propriety, or if it is otherwise decided on the basis of an issue of propriety that the full change in discharge requested by the applicant is not warranted, the decisional document shall note that conclusion. The decisional document shall list reasons for its conclusion on each issue of propriety under the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(1) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a part, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the DRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the particular circumstances in the case.
</P>
<P>(2) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstance, including a factor required by applicable Air Force regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the DRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(i) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise identified by members of the DRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence, and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the DRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption.
</P>
<P>(3) If the DRB disagrees with the position of the applicant on an issue of propriety, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in § 842.112(f) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(i) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant).
</P>
<P>(ii) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(iii) The DRB may reject an applicant's position by stating that the applicant's issue of propriety is not a matter upon which the DRB grants a change in discharge, and by providing an explanation for this position. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with one or more other specified issues, the explanation will address all such specified issues.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the DRB agreed with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(v) If the applicant takes the position that the discharge must be changed because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. If the organization empowered to correct the record is within the Department of the Air Force, the DRB should provide the applicant with a brief description of the procedures for requesting correction of the record. If the DRB on its own motion cites this issue as a decisional issue on the basis of equity, it shall address the issue as such.
</P>
<P>(vi) When an applicant's issue contains a general allegation that a certain course of action violated his or her constitutional rights, respond in appropriate cases by noting that the action was consistent with statutory or regulatory authority, and by citing the presumption of constitutionality that attaches to statutes and regulations. If, on the other hand, the applicant makes a specific challenge to the constitutionality of the action by challenging the application of a statute or regulation is a particular set of circumstances, it is not sufficient to respond solely by citing the presumption of constitutionality of the statute or regulation when the applicant is not challenging the constitutionality of the statute or regulation. Instead, the response must address the specific circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Denial of the full change in discharge requested when propriety is not at issue.</I> If the applicant has not submitted an issue of propriety and the DRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of propriety to change the discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect. The DRB is not required to provide any further discussion as to the propriety of the discharge.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Change of discharge: Issues of equity.</I> If the DRB concludes that a change in the discharge is warranted under equity standards the decisional document shall list each issue of equity upon which this conclusion is based. The DRB shall cite the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the issue to the applicant's case. If the change in discharge does not constitute the full change requested by the applicant, the reasons for not giving the full change requested shall be discussed.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Denial of the full change requested: Issues of equity.</I> If the DRB rejects the applicant's position on an issue of equity, or if the decision otherwise provides less than the full change in discharge requested by the applicant, the decisional document shall note that conclusion. The DRB shall list reasons for its conclusions on each issue of equity in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If a reason is based in whole or in part upon a part, statute, constitutional provision, judicial determination, or other source of law, the DRB shall cite the pertinent source of law and the facts in the record that demonstrate the relevance of the source of law to the exercise of discretion on the issue of equity in the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(2) If a reason is based in whole or in part on a determination as to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of an event or circumstance, including a factor required by applicable Air Force regulations to be considered for determination of the character of and reason for the applicant's discharge, the DRB shall make a finding of fact for each such event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(i) For each such finding, the decisional document shall list the specific source of the information relied upon. This may include the presumption of regularity in appropriate cases. If the information is listed in the service record section of the decisional document, a citation is not required.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a finding of fact is made after consideration of contradictory evidence in the record (including information cited by the applicant or otherwise identified by members of the DRB), the decisional document shall set forth the conflicting evidence, and explain why the information relied upon was more persuasive than the information that was rejected. If the presumption of regularity is cited as the basis for rejecting such information, the decisional document shall explain why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption. In an appropriate case, the explanation as to why the contradictory evidence was insufficient to overcome the presumption of regularity may consist of a statement that the applicant failed to provide sufficient corroborating evidence, or that the DRB did not find the applicant's testimony to be sufficiently credible to overcome the presumption.
</P>
<P>(3) If the DRB disagrees with the position of the applicant on an issue of equity, the following guidance applies in addition to the guidance in § 865.112(i) (1) and (2):
</P>
<P>(i) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why it disagrees with the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant).
</P>
<P>(ii) The DRB may reject the applicant's position by explaining why the principles set forth in the applicant's issue (including principles derived from cases cited by the applicant) are not relevant to the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(iii) The DRB may reject an applicant's position by explaining why the applicant's issue is not a matter upon which the DRB grants a change in discharge as a matter of equity. When the applicant indicates that the issue is to be considered in conjunction with other specified issues, the explanation will address all such issues.
</P>
<P>(iv) The DRB may reject the applicant's position on the grounds that other specified factors in the case preclude granting relief, regardless of whether the DRB agreed with the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(v) If the applicant takes the position that the discharge should be changed as a matter of equity because of an alleged error in a record associated with the discharge, and the record has not been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for corrective action, the DRB may respond that it will presume the validity of the record in the absence of such corrective action. However, the DRB will consider whether it should exercise its equitable powers to change the discharge on the basis of the alleged error. If it declines to do so, the DRB shall explain why the applicant's position did not provide a sufficient basis for the change in the discharge requested by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) When the DRB concludes that aggravating factors outweigh mitigating factors, the DRB must set forth reasons such as the seriousness of the offense, specific circumstances surrounding the offense, number of offenses, lack of mitigating circumstances, or similar factors. The DRB is not required, however, to explain why it relied on any such factors unless the applicability or weight of such factors are expressly raised as an issue by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(5) If the applicant has not submitted any issues and the DRB has not otherwise relied upon an issue of equity for a change in discharge, the decisional document shall contain a statement to that effect, and shall note that the major factors upon which the discharge was based are set forth in the service record portion of the decisional document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.113" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.113   Recommendations by the Director of the Personnel Council and Secretarial Review Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the Personnel Council may forward cases for consideration by the Secretarial Reviewing Authority (SRA) under rules established by the Secretary of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(b) The following categories of dicharge review requests are subject to the review of the Secretary of the Air Force or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P>(1) Cases in which a minority of the DRB panel requests their submitted opinions be forwarded for consideration (refer to § 865.110(h)).
</P>
<P>(2) Cases when required in order to provide information to the Secretary on specific aspects of the discharge review function which are of interest to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Any case which the Director, Air Force Personnel Council believes is of significant interest to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretarial Reviewing Authority is the Secretary of the Air Force or the official to whom he has delegated this authority. The SRA may review the types of cases described above before issuance of the final notification of a decision. Those cases forwarded for review by the SRA shall be considered under the standards set forth in § 865.121 and DOD Directive 1332.28.
</P>
<P>(d) There is no requirement that the Director of the Personnel Council submit a recommendation when a case is forwarded to the SRA. If a recommendation is submitted, however, it should be in accordance with the guidelines described below.
</P>
<P>(e) Format for Recommendation. If a recommendation is provided, it shall contain the Director's views whether there should be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both). If the Director recommends such a change, the particular change to be made shall be specified. The recommendation shall set forth the Director's position on decisional issues submitted by the applicant in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Adoption of the DRB's Decisional document. The recommendation may state that the Director has adopted the decisional document prepared by the majority. The Director shall ensure that the decisional document meets the requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) Adoption of the Specific Statements From the Majority. If the Director adopts the views of the majority only in part, the recommendation shall cite the specific matter adopted from the majority. If the Director modifies a statement submitted by the majority, the recommendation shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(3) Response to Issues Not Included in Matter Adopted From the Majority. The recommendation shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the majority:
</P>
<P>(i) The issues on which the Director's recommendation is based. Each such decisional issue shall be addressed by the Director in accordance with § 865.112 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant under § 865.111 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reasons for rejecting the conclusions of the majority with respect to decisional issues which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in greater relief for the applicant than that afforded by the Director's recommendation. Each issue shall be addressed in accordance with § 865.112 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) Copies of the proposed decisional document on cases that have been forwarded to the SRA (except for cases reviewed on the DRB's own motion without the participation of the applicant or the applicant's counsel) shall be provided to the applicant and counsel or representative, if any. The document will include the Director's recommendation to the SRA, if any. Classified information shall be summarized.
</P>
<P>(g) The applicant shall be provided with a reasonable period of time, but not less than 25 days, to submit a rebuttal to the SRA. An issue in rebuttal consists of a clear and specific statement by the applicant in support of or in opposition to the statements of the DRB or Director on decisional issues and other clear and specific issues that were submitted by the applicant. The rebuttal shall be based solely on matters in the record when the DRB closed the case for deliberation or in the Director's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Review of the Decisional document.</I> If corrections in the decisional document are required, the decisional document shall be returned to the DRB for corrective action. The corrected decisional document shall be sent to the applicant and counsel or representative, if any, but a further opportunity for rebuttal is not required unless the correction produces a different result or includes a substantial change in the discussion by the DRB or Director of the issues raised by the majority or the applicant.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>The Addendum of the SRA.</I> The decision of the SRA shall be in writing and shall be appended as an addendum to the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The SRA's Decision.</I> The addendum shall set forth the SRA's decision whether there will be a change in the character of or reason for discharge (or both); if the SRA concludes that a change is warranted, the particular change to be made shall be specified. If the SRA adopts the decision recommended by the DRB or the Director, the decisional document shall contain a reference to the matter adopted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discussion of Issues.</I> In support of the SRA's decision, the addendum shall set forth the SRA's position on decisional issues, items submitted by an applicant and issues raised by the DRB and the Director. The addendum will state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The SRA has adopted the Director's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SRA has adopted the proposed decisional document prepared by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the SRA adopts the views of the DRB or the Director only in part, the addendum shall cite the specific statements adopted. If the SRA modifies a statement submitted by the DRB or the Director, the addendum shall set forth the modification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to Issues Not Included in Master Adopted From the DRB or the Director.</I> The addendum shall set forth the following if not adopted in whole or in part from the DRB or the Director:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the issues on which the SRA's decision is based. Each such decisional issue shall be addressed by the SRA. This includes reasons for rejecting the conclusion of the DRB or the Director with respect to decisional issues which, if resolved in the applicant's favor, would have resulted in change to the discharge more favorable to the applicant than that afforded by the SRA's decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SRA's response to items submitted as issues by the applicant will be in accordance with § 865.111 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Response to Rebuttal.</I> (i) If the SRA grants the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), that fact shall be noted, the decisional document shall be addressed accordingly, and no further response to the rebuttal is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the SRA does not grant the full change in discharge requested by the applicant (or a more favorable change), the addendum shall list each issue in rebuttal submitted by an applicant and shall set forth the response of the SRA under the following:
</P>
<P>(A) If the SRA rejects an issue in rebuttal, the SRA may respond in accordance with the principles in § 865.112 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(B) If the matter adopted by the SRA provides a basis for the SRA's rejection of the rebuttal material, the SRA may note that fact and cite the specific matter adopted that responds to the issue in rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(C) If the matter submitted by the applicant does not meet the requirements for rebuttal material in paragraph (g) of this section, that fact shall be noted.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Index Entries.</I> Appropriate index entries shall be prepared for the SRA's actions for matters that are not adopted from the DRB's proposed decisional document. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.114" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.114   Decisional document.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A decisional document shall be prepared for each review conducted by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the decisional decument shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The date, character of, and reason for discharge or dismissal certificate issued to the applicant upon separation from the military service, including the specific regulatory authority under which the discharge or dismissal certificate was issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The circumstances and character of the applicant's service as extracted from military records and information provided by other government authority or the applicant, such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Date of enlistment (YYMMDD).
</P>
<P>(ii) Period of enlistment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Age at enlistment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Length of service.
</P>
<P>(v) Periods of unauthorized absence.
</P>
<P>(vi) Conduct and efficiency ratings (numerical or narrative).
</P>
<P>(vii) Highest rank achieved.
</P>
<P>(viii) Awards and decorations.
</P>
<P>(ix) Educational level.
</P>
<P>(x) Aptitude test scores.
</P>
<P>(xi) Incidents of punishment pursuant to Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice (including nature and date of offense or punishment).
</P>
<P>(xii) Conviction by court-martial.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Prior military service and type of discharge received.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the type of documents submitted by or on behalf of the applicant (including a written brief, letters of recommendation, affidavits concerning the circumstances of the discharge, or other documentary evidence), if any.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement whether the applicant testified, and a list of the type of witnesses, if any, who testified on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(5) A notation whether the application pertained to the character of discharge, the reason for discharge, or both.
</P>
<P>(6) The DRB's conclusions on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the character of or the reason for discharge should be changed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific changes to be made, if any.
</P>
<P>(7) A list of the items submitted as issues on DD Form 293 or expressly incorporated therein and such other items submitted as issues by the applicant that are identified as inadvertently omitted under § 865.106(g)(4). If the issues are listed verbatim on DD Form 293, a copy of the relevant portion of the form may be attached. Issues that have been withdrawn or modified with the consent of the applicant need not be listed.
</P>
<P>(8) The response to items submitted as issues by the applicant under the guidance in § 865.111.
</P>
<P>(9) A list of decisional issues and a discussion of such issues under the guidance of § 865.112.
</P>
<P>(10) Minority views, if any, when authorized under the rules of the Secretary of the Air Force.
</P>
<P>(11) The recommendation of the Director when required by § 865.113.
</P>
<P>(12) Any addendum of the SRA when required by § 865.113.
</P>
<P>(13) Advisory opinions, including those containing factual information, when such opinions have been relied upon for final decision or have been accepted as a basis for rejecting any of the applicant's issues. Such advisory opinions or relevant portions thereof that are not fully set forth in the discussion of decisional issues or otherwise in response to items submitted as issues by the application shall be incorporated by reference. A copy of the opinions incorporated by reference shall be appended to the decision and included in the record of proceedings.
</P>
<P>(14) A record of the DRB member's names and votes.
</P>
<P>(15) Index entries for each decisional issue under appropriate categories listed in the Subject/Category listing.
</P>
<P>(16) An authentication of the document by an appropriate official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.115" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.115   Issuance of decisions following discharge review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant and counsel or representative, if any, shall be provided with a copy of the decisional document and of any further action in review. The applicant (and counsel, if any) shall be notified of the availability of the complaint process in accordance with § 865.121 of this subpart and of the right to appeal to the Board for the Correction of Military Records. Final notification of decisions shall be issued to the applicant with a copy to the counsel or representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) Notification to applicants with copies to counsel or representatives, shall normally be made through the U.S. Postal Service. Such notification shall consist of a notification of the decision, together with a copy of the decisional document.
</P>
<P>(c) Notification of HQ AFMPC/MPCDOAl shall be for the purpose of appropriate action and inclusion of review matter in the military records. Such notification shall bear appropriate certification of completeness and accuracy.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions on review by Secretarial Reviewing Authority, when occurring, shall be provided to the applicant and counsel or representative in the same manner as the notification of the review decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.116" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.116   Records of DRB proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the proceedings in any review have been concluded, a record thereof will be prepared. Records may include written records, electromagnetic records, or a combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the record will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The application for review (DD Form 293).
</P>
<P>(2) A record of the testimony in verbatim, summarized, or recorded form at the option of the DRB.
</P>
<P>(3) Documentary evidence or copies thereof considered by the DRB other than the military record.
</P>
<P>(4) Brief/arguments submitted by or on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(5) Advisory opinions considered by the DRB, if any.
</P>
<P>(6) The findings, conclusions, and reasons developed by the DRB.
</P>
<P>(7) Notification of the DRB's decision to the cognizant custodian of the applicant's records, or reference to the notification document.
</P>
<P>(8) Minority reports, if any.
</P>
<P>(9) A copy of the decisional document. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.117" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.117   Final disposition of the record of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>The original record of proceedings and all appendices thereto shall in all cases be incorporated in the military record of the applicant and returned to the custody of the National Personnel Records Center (NPRC), St. Louis, Missouri. If a portion of the original record cannot be stored with the service record, the service record shall contain a notation as to the place where the record is stored.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.118" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.118   Availability of Discharge Review Board documents for public inspection and copying.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the decisional document prepared in accordance with § 865.114 of this subpart, shall be made available for public inspection and copying promptly after a notice of final decision is sent to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent required to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, identifying details of the applicant and other persons will be deleted from documents made available for public inspection and copying. Names, addresses, social security numbers, and military service numbers must be deleted. Written justification shall be made for all other deletions and shall be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(c) The DRB shall ensure that there is a means for relating a decisional document number to the name of the applicant to permit retrieval of the applicant's records when required in processing a complaint in accordance with § 865.121 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Any other privileged or classified material contained in or appended to any documents required to be furnished the applicant and counsel/representative or made available for public inspection and copying may be deleted therefrom only if a written statement of the basis for the deletions is provided the applicant and counsel/representative and made available for public inspection. It is not intended that the statement be so detailed as to reveal the nature of the withheld material.
</P>
<P>(e) DRB documents made available for public inspection and copying shall be located in the Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Boards Reading Room. The documents shall be indexed in usable and concise form so as to enable the public and those who represent applicants before the DRB to isolate from all these decisions that are indexed those cases that may be similar to an applicant's case and that indicate the circumstances under and/or reasons for which the DRB or the Secretary of the Air Force granted or denied relief. 
</P>
<P>(1) The reading file index shall include, in addition to any other items determined by the DRB, the case number, the date, character of, reason for, and authority for the discharge. It shall further include the decisions of the DRB and reviewing authority, if any, and the issues addressed in the statement of findings, conclusions and reasons.
</P>
<P>(2) The index shall be maintained at selected permanent locations throughout the United States. This ensures reasonable availability to applicants at least 30 days before a regional board review. The index shall also be made available at sites selected for regional Boards for such periods as the DRB is present and in operation. An applicant who has requested a regional board review shall be advised in the notice of scheduled hearings.
</P>
<P>(3) The Armed Forces Discharge Review/Correction Board Reading Room shall publish indexes quarterly for the DRB. The DRB shall be responsible for timely submission to the Reading Room of individual case information required for update of indexes. These indexes shall be available for public inspection or purchase (or both) at the Reading Room. This information will be provided to applicants in the notice of acceptance of the application.
</P>
<P>(4) Correspondence relating to matters under the cognizance of the Reading Room (including request for purchase of indexes) shall be addressed to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DA Military Review Board Agency, Attention: SFBA (Reading Room), Room 1E520, The Pentagon, Washington DC 20310</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.119" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.119   Privacy Act information.</HEAD>
<P>Information protected under the Privacy Act is involved in discharge review functions. The provisions of 32 CFR part 286a will be observed throughout the processing of a request for review of discharge or dismissal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.120" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.120   Discharge review standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objective of review.</I> The objective of a discharge review is to examine the propriety and equity of the applicant's discharge and to effect changes, if necessary. The standards of review and the underlying factors which aid in determining whether the standards are met shall be historically consistent with criteria for determining honorable service. No factors shall be established which require automatic change or denial of a change in a discharge. Neither the DRB nor the Secretary of the Air Force shall be bound by any methodology of weighing of the factors in reaching a determination. In each case, the DRB or Secretary of the Air Force shall give full, fair, and impartial consideration to all applicable factors prior to reaching a decision. An applicant may not receive a less favorable discharge than that issued at the time of separation. This does not preclude correction of clerical errors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Propriety.</I> A discharge shall be deemed to be proper unless in the course of discharge review, it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(1) There exists an error of fact, law, procedures, or discretion associated with the discharge at the time of issuance; and that the rights of the applicant were prejudiced thereby (such error shall constitute prejudicial error, if there is substantial doubt that the discharge would have remained the same if the error had not been made); or
</P>
<P>(2) A change in policy by the Air Force made expressly retroactive to the type of discharge under consideration, requires a change in the discharge. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a record associated with the discharge at the time of issuance involves a matter in which the primary responsibility for corrective action rests with another organization (for example, another Board, agency, or court), the DRB will recognize an error only to the extent that the error has been corrected by the organization with primary responsibility for correcting the record.
</P>
<P>(d) The primary function of the DRB is to exercise its discretion on issues of equity by reviewing the individual merits of each application on a case-by-case basis. Prior decisions in which the DRB exercised its discretion to change a discharge based on issues of equity (including the factors cited in such decisions or the weight given to factors in such decisions) do not blind the DRB in its review of subsequent cases because no two cases present the same issues of equity.
</P>
<P>(e) The following applies to applicants who received less than fully honorable administrative discharges because of their civilian misconduct while in an inactive reserve component and who were discharged or had their discharge reviewed on or after April 20, 1971: the DRB shall either recharacterize the discharge to honorable without any additional proceedings or additional proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Court's Order of December 3, 1981, in Wood v. Secretary of Defense to determine whether proper grounds exist for the issuance of a less than honorable discharge, taking into account that:
</P>
<P>(1) An Under Other Than Honorable (formerly Undesirable) Discharge for an inactive reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have affected directly the performance of military duties;
</P>
<P>(2) A General Discharge for an inactive reservist can only be based upon civilian misconduct found to have had an adverse impact on the overall effectiveness of the military, including military morale and efficiency. 
</P>
<P>(f) The following applies to applicants who received less than fully honorable administrative discharges (between June 21, 1971 and March 2, 1982) because evidence developed by or as a direct result of complusory urinalysis testing was introduced in the discharge proceedings. Applicants who believe they are members of the above category will so indicate this by writing “CATEGORY W” in block 7 of their DD Form 293. AFMPC/MPCDOA1 will expedite processing these applications to the designated “CATEGORY W” reviewer. For class members the designated reviewer shall either recharacterize the discharge to honorable without any additional proceedings or complete a review to determine whether proper ground exists for the issuance of a less than honorable discharge. If the applicant is determined not to be a class member, the application is returned to normal review procedure channels. If new administrative proceedings are initiated, the former service member must be notified of:
</P>
<P>(1) The basis of separation other than drug abuse or use or possession of drugs based upon compelled urinalysis that was specified in the commander's report and upon which the Air Force now seeks to base a less than honorable discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) The full complement of procedural protections that are required by current regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Name, address and telephone number of an Area Defense Counsel with whom the former service member has a right to consult, and
</P>
<P>(4) The right to participate in the new proceedings to be conducted at the Air Force base nearest the former service member's current address, or to elect to maintain his or her present character of discharge.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Equity.</I> A discharge shall be deemed to be equitable unless:
</P>
<P>(1) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that the policies and procedures under which the applicant was discharged differ in material respects from policies and procedures currently applicable on a service-wide basis to discharges of the type under consideration provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Current policies or procedures represent a substantial enhancement of the rights afforded an applicant in such proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is substantial doubt that the applicant would have received the same discharge if relevant current policies and procedures had been available to the applicant at the time of the discharge proceedings under consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of issuance, the discharge was inconsistent with standards of discipline in the Air Force; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the course of a discharge review, it is determined that a change is warranted based upon consideration of the applicant's military record and other evidence presented to the DRB viewed in conjunction with the factors listed in this section and the regulations under which the applicant was discharged, even though the discharge was determined to have been otherwise equitable and proper at the time of issuance. Areas of consideration include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Quality of Service, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Service History, including date of enlistment, period of enlistment, highest rank achieved, conduct or efficiency ratings (numerical or narrative).
</P>
<P>(B) Awards and decorations.
</P>
<P>(C) Letters of commendation or reprimand. 
</P>
<P>(D) Combat service.
</P>
<P>(E) Wounds received in action.
</P>
<P>(F) Record of promotions and demotions.
</P>
<P>(G) Level of responsibility at which the applicant served.
</P>
<P>(H) Other acts of merit that may not have resulted in a formal recognition through an award or commendation.
</P>
<P>(I) Length of service during the period which is the subject of the discharge review.
</P>
<P>(J) Prior military service and type of discharge received or outstanding post-service conduct to the extent that such matters provide a basis for a more thorough understanding of the performance of the applicant during the period of service which is the subject of the discharge review.
</P>
<P>(K) Convictions by court-martial.
</P>
<P>(L) Record of non-judicial punishment.
</P>
<P>(M) Convictions by civil authorities while a member of the Air Force, reflected in the discharge proceedings or otherwise noted in military records. 
</P>
<P>(N) Record of periods of unauthorized absence.
</P>
<P>(O) Records relating to a discharge in lieu of court-martial.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capability to Serve, as evidenced by factors such as:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Total Capabilities.</I> This includes an evaluation of matters such as age, educational level, and aptitude scores. Consideration may also be given to whether the individual met normal military standards of acceptability for military service and similar indicators of an individual's ability to serve satisfactorily, as well as ability to adjust to the military service.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Family/Personal Problems.</I> This includes matters in extenuation or mitigation of the reason for discharge that may have affected the applicant's ability to serve satisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Arbitrary or Capricious Actions.</I> This includes actions by individuals in authority which constitute a clear abuse of such authority and which, although not amounting to prejudicial error, may have contributed to the decision to discharge or to the characterization of service.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Discrimination.</I> This includes unauthorized acts as documented by records or other evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.121" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.121   Complaints concerning decisional documents and index entries.</HEAD>
<P>Former members of the Air Force or their counsel or representative may submit complaints with respect to the decisional document issued in the former member's case.
</P>
<P>(a) All complaints should be processed in accordance with 32 CFR part 70 and should be forwarded to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary of Defense, Manpower, Reserve Affairs and Logistics, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20331</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The Air Force Discharge Review Board will respond to all complaints in accordance with 32 CFR part 70. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.122" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.122   Summary of statistics for Discharge Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Air Force Discharge Review Board shall prepare and provide to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense (Military Personnel and Force Management) DASD(MP&amp;FM), Office of the ASD(MRA&amp;L), a semiannual report of discharge review actions in accordance with § 865.125.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.123" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.123   Approval of exceptions to directive.</HEAD>
<P>Only the Secretary of the Air Force may authorize or approve a waiver of, or exception to, any part of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.124" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.124   Procedures for regional hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Composition of the board for these hearings consists of three members from Washington with augmentation by two members from nearby local Air Force resources. The nearest Air Force installation or Air Force Reserve Unit is tasked to provide two officers to serve as members of the DRB. Active duty members will serve on the board as an additional duty. Reserve members will be on a temporary tour of active duty (TTAD) for the duration of the hearings. Detailed information must be provided to the individuals selected to serve before each hearing date. The administrative staff in Washington processes all cases for regional hearings, establishes hearing dates, and returns the records to the Manpower and Personnel Center at Randolph AFB, Texas, when the case is finalized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.125" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.125   Report requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Semi-annual reports will be submitted by the 20th day of April and October for the preceding 6-month reporting period (1 October through 31 March and 1 April through 30 September). The reporting period will be inclusive from the first through the last days of each reporting period. The report will contain four parts:
</P>
<P>(a) Part 1—Regular Cases are all those that are not included in part 2 below.
</P>
<P>(b) Part 2—Other cases include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Reconsideration of President Ford's memorandum of 19 January 1977.
</P>
<P>(2) Special Discharge Review Program cases.
</P>
<P>(3) Statutes of Limitation Cases—those heard under Pub. L. 95-126 by waiver of 10 U.S.C. 1553.
</P>
<P>(c) Part 3—Total—combine parts 1 and 2.
</P>
<P>(d) Part 4—Cases outstanding include all those eligible cases in which a DD Form 293 has been received but has not been heard by the Discharge Review Board as the reporting date for this report. Reports will be prepared by the Air Force Discharge Review Board and submitted to the Army Discharge Review Board (executive agent for DRB matters).



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 865.126" NODE="32:6.1.1.7.8.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 865.126   Sample report format.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Summary of Statistics for Air Force Discharge Review Board
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">RCS: DD-M(SA) 1489
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Record review 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Hearing 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Total 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applied 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number approved 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Part 1 Regular Cases. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Part 2 Other. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Part 3 Total. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Part 4 Cases Outstanding.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Identify numbers separately for regional DRB hearings. Use of additional footnotes to clarify or amplify the statistic being reported is encouraged.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H [RESERVED]   " NODE="32:6.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="I" NODE="32:6.1.1.9" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—MILITARY PERSONNEL 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="888-888g" NODE="32:6.1.1.9.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 888-888g [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="S J" NODE="32:6.1.1.10" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTERS J-M  [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="N" NODE="32:6.1.1.11" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER N—TERRITORIAL AND INSULAR REGULATIONS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="935" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 935—WAKE ISLAND CODE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 48, Pub. L. 86-624, 74 Stat. 424; E.O. 11048, Sept. 1, 1962, 27 FR 8851, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 632; agreement between the Department of Interior and Department of the Air Force, dated 19 June 1972, 37 FR 12255; and Secretary of the Air Force Order 111.1, dated 26 April 1999. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 16999, Apr. 9, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.1" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The local civil and criminal laws of Wake Island consist of this part and applicable provisions of the laws of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this part, Wake Island includes Wake, Peale, and Wilkes Islands, and the appurtenant reefs, shoals, shores, bays, lagoons, keys, territorial waters, and superadjacent airspace of them. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.2" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to provide— 
</P>
<P>(a) For the civil administration of Wake Island; 
</P>
<P>(b) Civil laws for Wake Island not otherwise provided for; 
</P>
<P>(c) Criminal laws for Wake Island not otherwise provided for; and 
</P>
<P>(d) A judicial system for Wake Island not otherwise provided for. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.3" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the Air Force or his successor in office. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commander</I> means the Commander, Wake Island. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commander, Wake Island</I> means the Commander of Pacific Air Forces or such subordinate commissioned officer of the Air Force to whom he may delegate his authority under this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) He or his includes both the male and female sexes, unless the context implies otherwise.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Judge</I> includes Judges of the Wake Island Court and Court of Appeals. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16999, Apr. 9, 2002, as amended at 90 FR 34763, July 24, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.4" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.4   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This part was originally applicable at 0000 June 25, 1972. Amendments to this part apply April 10, 2002. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Civil Administration Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.10" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.10   Designation and delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The civil administration authority at Wake Island is vested in the Secretary of the Air Force. That authority has been delegated to the General Counsel of the Air Force with authority to redelegate all or any part of his functions, powers, and duties under this part to such officers and employees of the Air Force as he may designate, but excluding redelegation of the power to promulgate, amend, or repeal this part, or any part thereof. Such redelegation must be in writing and must be in accordance with any applicable Secretary of the Air Force Orders. Such redelegation may be further redelegated subject to such restrictions as the delegating authority may impose. A redelegation may also be made to a commissioned officer serving in another United States military service who exercises military command, but such redelegation must explicitly and specifically list the powers redelegated and shall not include the power or authority to issue permits, licenses, or other outgrants unless individually approved by the Air Force official who made the redelegation. The Commander is the agent of the Secretary, his delegate and designee when carrying out any function, power, or duty assigned under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The authority of the General Counsel to appoint Judges shall not be delegated. 
</P>
<P>(c) Judges and officers of the court may not redelegate their powers or authorities except as specifically noted in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.11" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.11   Permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Permits in effect on the dates specified in § 935.4 continue in effect until revoked or rescinded by the Commander. Permits issued by the Commander shall conform to the requirements of Air Force Instruction 32-9003 (Available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.). No permit or registration shall be issued under other authority that is inconsistent with this part. The Commander may issue island permits or registration for— 
</P>
<P>(1) Businesses, including any trade, profession, calling, or occupation, and any establishment where food or beverages are prepared, offered, or sold for human consumption. 
</P>
<P>(2) Self-propelled motor vehicles, except aircraft, including attached trailers. 
</P>
<P>(3) Vehicle operators. 
</P>
<P>(4) Boats. 
</P>
<P>(5) Food handlers. 
</P>
<P>(6) Drugs, narcotics, and poisons. 
</P>
<P>(7) Construction. 
</P>
<P>(8) Burials. 
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent it is not inconsistent with this part, any permit or registration issued pursuant to Air Force directives or instructions as applicable to Wake Island shall constitute a permit or registration under this section, and no other permit or registration shall be required. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.12" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.12   Functions, powers, and duties.</HEAD>
<P>The Commander may— 
</P>
<P>(a) Appoint Peace Officers; 
</P>
<P>(b) Direct the abatement of any public nuisance upon failure of any person to comply with a notice of removal; 
</P>
<P>(c) Direct sanitation and fire prevention inspections; 
</P>
<P>(d) Establish records of vital statistics; 
</P>
<P>(e) Direct the registration and inspections of motor vehicles, boats, and aircraft; 
</P>
<P>(f) Impose quarantines; 
</P>
<P>(g) Direct the impoundment and destruction of unsanitary food, fish, or beverages; 
</P>
<P>(h) Direct the evacuation of any person from a hazardous area; 
</P>
<P>(i) Commission notaries public; 
</P>
<P>(j) Establish and maintain a facility for the restraint or confinement of persons and provide for their care; 
</P>
<P>(k) Direct the removal of any person from Wake Island and prohibit his future presence on the island; 
</P>
<P>(l) Issue traffic regulations that are not inconsistent with this part, and post traffic signs; 
</P>
<P>(m) Prohibit the posting, distribution, or public display of advertisements, signs, circulars, petitions, or similar materials, soliciting, picketing, or parading in any public place or area if he determines it would interfere with public business or endanger the health and safety of persons and property on Wake Island; 
</P>
<P>(n) Perform or direct any other acts, not inconsistent with this part or applicable laws and regulations, if he considers it necessary for protection of the health or safety of persons and property on Wake Island; and 
</P>
<P>(o) Issue any order or notice necessary to implement this section. Any order or notice issued pursuant to Air Force directives and instructions as applicable to Wake Island shall constitute an order or notice issued pursuant to this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.13" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.13   Revocation or suspension of permits and registrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commander may revoke or suspend any island permit or registration for cause, with or without notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) The holder of any revoked or suspended permit or registration may demand a personal hearing before the Commander within 30 days after the effective date of the revocation or suspension. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a hearing is demanded, it shall be granted by the Commander within 30 days of the date of demand. The applicant may appear in person and present such documentary evidence as is pertinent. The Commander shall render a decision, in writing, setting forth his reasons, within 30 days thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a hearing is not granted within 30 days, a written decision is not rendered within 30 days after a hearing, or the applicant desires to appeal a decision, he may, within 30 days after the latest of any of the foregoing dates appeal in writing to the General Counsel, whose decision shall be final. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.14" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.14   Autopsies.</HEAD>
<P>The medical officer on Wake Island, or any other qualified person under his supervision, may perform autopsies upon authorization of the Commander or a Judge of the Wake Island Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.15" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.15   Notaries public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent he considers there to be a need for such services, the Commander may commission one or more residents of Wake Island as notaries public. The Commander of Pacific Air Forces may not redelegate this authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person applying for commission as a notary public must be a citizen of the United States and shall file an application, together with evidence of good character and a proposed seal in such form as the Commander requires, with a fee of $50 which shall be deposited in the Treasury as a miscellaneous receipt. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon determining there to be a need for such a service and after such investigation as he considers necessary, the Commander may commission an applicant as a notary public. Commissions shall expire 3 years after the date thereof, and may be renewed upon application upon payment of a fee of $25. 
</P>
<P>(d) Judges and the Clerk of the Wake Island Court and the Island Attorney shall have the general powers of a notary public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.16" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.16   Emergency authority.</HEAD>
<P>During the imminence and duration of any emergency declared by him, the Commander may perform or direct any acts necessary to protect life and property. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Civil Law</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.20" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.20   Applicable law.</HEAD>
<P>Civil acts and deeds taking place on Wake Island shall be determined and adjudicated as provided in this part; and otherwise, as provided in the Act of June 15, 1950 (64 Stat. 217) (48 U.S.C. 644a), according to the laws of the United States relating to such an act or deed taking place on the high seas on board a merchant vessel or other vessel belonging to the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.21" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.21   Civil rights, powers, and duties.</HEAD>
<P>In any case in which the civil rights, powers, and duties of any person on Wake Island are not otherwise prescribed by the laws of the United States or this part, the civil rights, powers, and duties as they obtain under the laws of the State of Hawaii will apply to persons on Wake Island. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Criminal Law</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.30" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.30   General.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to any act made criminal in this part, any act committed on Wake Island that would be criminal if committed on board a merchant vessel or other vessel belonging to the United States is a criminal offense and shall be adjudged and punished according to the laws applicable on board those vessels on the high seas. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Petty Offenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.40" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.40   Criminal offenses.</HEAD>
<P>No person may on Wake Island— 
</P>
<P>(a) Sell or give an alcoholic beverage manufactured for consumption (including beer, ale, or wine) to any person who is not at least 21 years of age; 
</P>
<P>(b) Procure for, engage in, aid or abet in, or solicit for prostitution; 
</P>
<P>(c) Use any building, structure, vehicle, or public lands for the purpose of lewdness, assignation, or prostitution; 
</P>
<P>(d) Possess or display (publicly or privately) any pornographic literature, film, device, or any matter containing obscene language, that tends to corrupt morals; 
</P>
<P>(e) Make any obscene or indecent exposure of his person; 
</P>
<P>(f) Commit any disorderly, obscene, or indecent act; 
</P>
<P>(g) Commit any act of voyeurism (Peeping Tom); 
</P>
<P>(h) Enter upon any assigned residential quarters or areas immediately adjacent thereto, without permission of the assigned occupant; 
</P>
<P>(i) Discard or place any paper, debris, refuse, garbage, litter, bottle, can, human or animal waste, trash, or junk in any public place, except into a receptacle or place designated or used for that purpose; 
</P>
<P>(j) Commit any act of nuisance; 
</P>
<P>(k) With intent to provoke a breach of the peace or under such circumstances that a breach of the peace may be occasioned thereby, act in such a manner as to annoy, disturb, interfere with, obstruct, or be offensive to any other person; 
</P>
<P>(l) Be drunk in any public place; 
</P>
<P>(m) Use any profane or vulgar language in a public place; 
</P>
<P>(n) Loiter or roam about Wake Island, without any lawful purpose, at late and unusual hours of the night; 
</P>
<P>(o) Lodge or sleep in any place without the consent of the person in legal possession of that place; 
</P>
<P>(p) Grossly waste any potable water; 
</P>
<P>(q) Being a male, knowingly enter any area, building, or quarters reserved for women, except in accordance with established visiting procedures; 
</P>
<P>(r) Smoke or ignite any fire in any designated and posted “No Smoking” area, or in the immediate proximity of any aircraft or fueling pit; 
</P>
<P>(s) Enter any airplane parking area or ramp, unless he is on duty therein, is a passenger under appropriate supervision, or is authorized by the Commander to enter that place; 
</P>
<P>(t) Interfere or tamper with any aircraft or servicing equipment or facility, or put in motion the engine of any aircraft without the permission of its operator; 
</P>
<P>(u) Post, distribute, or publicly display advertisements, signs, circulars, petitions, or similar materials, or solicit, picket, or parade in any public place or area where prohibited by the Commander pursuant to § 935.12; 
</P>
<P>(v) Import onto or keep on Wake Island any plant or animal not indigenous to the island, other than military working dogs or a guide dog for the blind or visually-impaired accompanying its owner; or 
</P>
<P>(w) Import or bring onto or possess while on Wake Island any firearm, whether operated by air, gas, spring, or otherwise, or explosive device, including fireworks, unless owned by the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.50" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.50   Petty offenses.</HEAD>
<P>Whoever is found guilty of a violation of any provision of subpart E of this part is subject to a fine of not more than $500 or imprisonment of not more than 6 months, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.51" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.51   Motor vehicle violations.</HEAD>
<P>Whoever is found guilty of a violation of subpart N of this part is subject to a fine of not more than $100, imprisonment of not more than 30 days, or suspension or revocation of his motor vehicle operator's permit, or any combination or all of these punishments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.52" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.52   Violations of Subpart O or P of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whoever is found guilty of a violation of subpart O or P of this part is subject to a fine of not more than $100, or imprisonment of not more than 30 days, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) The penalties prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section are in addition to and do not take the place of any criminal penalty otherwise applicable and currently provided by the laws of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.53" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.53   Contempt.</HEAD>
<P>A Judge may, in any civil or criminal case or proceeding, punish any person for disobedience of any order of the Court, or for any contempt committed in the presence of the Court, by a fine of not more than $100, or imprisonment of not more than 30 days, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Judiciary</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.60" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.60   Wake Island Judicial Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The judicial authority under this part is vested in the Wake Island Court and the Wake Island Court of Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Wake Island Court and the Wake Island Court of Appeals shall each have a seal approved by the General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(c) Judges and Clerks of the Courts may administer oaths. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.61" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.61   Wake Island Court.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The trial judicial authority for Wake Island is vested in the Wake Island Court. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Wake Island Court consists of one or more Judges, appointed by the General Counsel as needed. The term of a Judge shall be for one year, but he may be re-appointed. When the Wake Island Court consists of more than one Judge, the General Counsel shall designate one of the Judges as the Chief Judge who will assign matters to Judges, determine when the Court will sit individually or en banc, and prescribe rules of the Court not otherwise provided for in this Code. If there is only one Judge appointed, that Judge shall be the Chief Judge. 
</P>
<P>(c) Sessions of the Court are held on Wake Island or Hawaii at times and places designated by the Chief Judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.62" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.62   Island Attorney.</HEAD>
<P>There is an Island Attorney, appointed by the General Counsel as needed. The Island Attorney shall serve at the pleasure of the General Counsel. The Island Attorney represents the United States in the Wake Island Court and in the Wake Island Court of Appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.63" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.63   Public Defender.</HEAD>
<P>There is a Public Defender, appointed by the General Counsel as needed. The Public Defender shall serve at the pleasure of the General Counsel. The Public Defender represents any person charged with an offense under this part who requests representation and who is not able to afford his own legal representation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.64" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.64   Clerk of the Court.</HEAD>
<P>There is a Clerk of the Court, who is appointed by the Chief Judge. The Clerk shall serve at the pleasure of the Chief Judge. The Clerk maintains a public docket containing such information as the Chief Judge may prescribe, administers oaths, and performs such other duties as the Court may direct. The Clerk is an officer of the Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.65" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.65   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Wake Island Court has jurisdiction over all offenses under this part and all actions of a civil nature, cognizable at law or in equity, where the amount in issue is not more than $1,000, exclusive of interests and costs, but not including changes of name or domestic relations matters. 
</P>
<P>(b) The United States is not subject to suit in the Court. 
</P>
<P>(c) The United States may intervene in any matter in which the Island Attorney determines it has an interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.66" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.66   Court of Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appellate judicial authority for Wake Island is vested in the Wake Island Court of Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Wake Island Court of Appeals consists of a Chief Judge and two Associate Judges, appointed by the General Counsel as needed. The term of a judge shall be for one year, but he may be reappointed. The Chief Judge assigns matters to Judges, determines whether the Court sits individually or en banc, and prescribes rules of the Court not otherwise provided for in this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Sessions of the Court of Appeals are held in the National Capital Region at times and places designated by the Chief Judge. The Court may also hold sessions at Wake Island or in Hawaii. 
</P>
<P>(d) A quorum of the Court of Appeals will consist of one Judge when sitting individually and three Judges when sitting en banc. 
</P>
<P>(e) The address of the Court of Appeals is—Wake Island Court of Appeals, SAF/GC, Room 4E856, 1740 Air Force Pentagon, Washington, DC 20330-1740. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.67" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.67   Clerk of the Court of Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>There is a Clerk of the Court of Appeals, who is appointed by the Chief Judge. The Clerk serves at the pleasure of the Chief Judge. The Clerk maintains a public docket containing such information as the Chief Judge may prescribe, administers oaths, and performs such other duties as the Court directs. The Clerk is an officer of the Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.68" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.68   Jurisdiction of the Court of Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>The Court of Appeals has jurisdiction over all appeals from the Wake Island Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.69" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.69   Qualifications and admission to practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may be appointed a Judge, Island Attorney, or Public Defender under this part who is not a member of the bar of a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States or of the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person, other than an officer or employee of the Department of the Air Force, appointed as a Judge, Island Attorney, Public Defender, or to any other office under this part shall, prior to entering upon the duties of that office, take an oath, prescribed by the General Counsel, to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution of the United States. Such oath may be administered by any officer or employee of the Department of the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(c) Civilian officers and employees of the Department of the Air Force may be appointed as a Judge, Island Attorney, Public Defender, or Clerk, as an additional duty and to serve without additional compensation. Officers and employees of the Department of the Air Force, both civilian and military, who serve in positions designated as providing legal services to the Department and who are admitted to practice law in an active status before the highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or territory of the United States, or of the District of Columbia, and are in good standing therewith, are admitted to the Bar of the Wake Island Court and the Wake Island Court of Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(d) No person may practice law before the Wake Island Court or the Wake Island Court of Appeals who is not admitted to Bar of those courts. Any person admitted to practice law in an active status before the highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or territory of the United States, or of the District of Columbia, and in good standing therewith, may be admitted to the Bar of the Wake Island Court and the Wake Island Court of Appeals. Upon request of the applicant, the Court, on its own motion, may grant admission. A grant of admission by either court constitutes admission to practice before both courts. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Statute of Limitations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.70" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.70   Limitation of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No civil action may be filed more than 1 year after the cause of action arose. 
</P>
<P>(b) No person is liable to be tried under this part for any offense if the offense was committed more than 1 year before the date the information or citation is filed with the Clerk of the Wake Island Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Subpoenas, Wake Island Court</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.80" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.80   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Judge or the Clerk of the Court shall issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses. The subpoena must include the name of the Court and the title, if any, of the proceeding; and shall command each person to whom it is directed to attend and give testimony at the time and place specified therein. The Clerk may issue a subpoena for a party requesting it, setting forth the name of the witness subpoenaed. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Judge or the Clerk may also issue a subpoena commanding the person to whom it is directed to produce the books, papers, documents, or other objects designated therein. The Court may direct that books, papers, documents, or other objects designated in the subpoena be produced before the Court at a time before the trial or before the time when they are to be offered into evidence. It may, upon their production, allow the books, papers, documents, or objects or portions thereof to be inspected by the parties and their representatives. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any peace officer or any other person who is not a party and who is at least 18 years of age may serve a subpoena. Service of a subpoena shall be made by delivering a copy thereof to the person named. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Clerk of the Court shall assess and collect a witness fee of $40 for each subpoena requested by any party other than the United States, which shall be tendered to the witness as his witness fee together with service of the subpoena. Witnesses subpoenaed by the Island Attorney shall be entitled to a fee of $40 upon presentment of a proper claim therefor on the United States. No duly summoned witness may refuse, decline, or fail to appear or disobey a subpoena on the ground that the witness fee was not tendered or received. 
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a showing that the evidence is necessary to meet the ends of justice and that the defendant is indigent, the Public Defender may request the Court to direct the Island Attorney to obtain the issuance of a subpoena on behalf of a defendant in a criminal case. Witnesses so called on behalf of the defendant shall be entitled to the same witness fees as witnesses requested by the Island Attorney. 
</P>
<P>(f) Subpoenas may be credited only to persons or things on Wake Island. 
</P>
<P>(g) No person who is being held on Wake Island because of immigration status shall be entitled to a witness fee, but shall nevertheless be subject to subpoena like any other person. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Civil Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.90" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.90   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C.) apply to civil actions in the Court to the extent the presiding Judge considers them applicable under the circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(b) There is one form of action called the “Civil Action.” 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as otherwise provided for in this part, there is no trial by jury. 
</P>
<P>(d) A civil action begins with the filing of a complaint with the Court. The form of the complaint is as follows except as it may be modified to conform as appropriate to the particular action:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>In the Wake Island Court
</HD1>
<FP>[Civil Action No. ___]
</FP>
<FP-1>______ (<I>Plaintiff</I>) vs. _______, (<I>Defendant</I>)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Complaint 
</HD3>
<FP>______ plaintiff alleges that the defendant is indebted to plaintiff in the sum of $___ that plaintiff has demanded payment of said sum; that defendant has refused to pay; that defendant resides at _____ on Wake Island; that plaintiff resides at ______.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.91" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.91   Summons.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of a complaint, a Judge or Clerk of the Court shall issue a summons in the following form and deliver it for service to a peace officer or other person specifically designated by the Court to serve it: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>In the Wake Island Court
</HD1>
<FP>[Civil Action No. ___]
</FP>
<FP-1>________ (<I>Plaintiff</I>), vs. ________ (<I>Defendant</I>)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Summons
</HD3>
<P>To the above-named defendant: 
</P>
<P>You are hereby directed to appear and answer the attached cause at ______ on ______ day of ___ 20—, at ______ -.M. and to have with you all books, papers, and witnesses needed by you to establish any defense you have to said claim. 
</P>
<P>You are further notified that in case you do not appear, judgment will be given against you, for the amount of said claim, together with cost of this suit and the service of this order.
</P>
<P>Dated: ______, 20 ______. (Clerk, Wake Island Court) ________</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.92" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.92   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A peace officer or other person designated by the Court to make service shall serve the summons and a copy of the complaint at Wake Island upon the defendant personally, or by leaving them at his usual place of abode with any adult residing or employed there. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a corporation, partnership, joint stock company, trading association, or other unincorporated association, service may be made at Wake Island by delivering a copy of the summons and complaint to any of its officers, a managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.93" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.93   Delivery of summons to plaintiff.</HEAD>
<P>The Clerk of the Court shall promptly provide a copy of the summons to the plaintiff, together with notice that if the plaintiff fails to appear at the Court at the time set for the trial, the case will be dismissed. The trial shall be set at a date that will allow each party at least 7 days, after the pleadings are closed, to prepare. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.94" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.94   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may, at his election, file an answer to the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(b) The defendant may file a counterclaim, setoff, or any reasonable affirmative defense. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant elects to file a counterclaim, setoff, or affirmative defense, the Court shall promptly send a copy of it to the plaintiff. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.95" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.95   Proceedings; record; judgment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding Judge is responsible for the making of an appropriate record of each civil action. 
</P>
<P>(b) All persons shall give their testimony under oath or affirmation. The Chief Judge shall prescribe the oath and affirmation that may be administered by any Judge or the Clerk of the Court. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each party may present witnesses and other forms of evidence. In addition, the presiding Judge may informally investigate any controversy, in or out of the Court, if the evidence obtained as a result is adequately disclosed to all parties. Witnesses, books, papers, documents, or other objects may be subpoenaed as provided for in § 935.80 for criminal cases. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Court may issue its judgment in writing or orally from the bench. However, if an appeal is taken from the judgment, the presiding Judge shall, within 10 days after it is filed, file a memorandum of decision as a part of the record. The Judge shall place in the memorandum findings of fact, conclusions of law, and any comments that he considers will be helpful to a thorough understanding and just determination of the case on appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.96" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.96   Execution of judgment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after 60 days after the date of entry of judgment (or such other period as the Court may prescribe), the judgment debtor has not satisfied the judgment, the judgment creditor may apply to the Court for grant of execution on the property of the judgment debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon a writ issued by the Court, any peace officer may levy execution on any property of the judgment debtor except— 
</P>
<P>(1) His wearing apparel up to a total of $300 in value; 
</P>
<P>(2) His beds, bedding, household furniture and furnishings, stove, and cooking utensils, up to a total of $300 in value; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Mechanics tools and implements of the debtor's trade up to a total of $200 in value. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within 60 days after levy of execution, a peace officer shall sell the seized property at public sale and shall pay the proceeds to the Clerk of the Court. The Clerk shall apply the proceeds as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) First, to the reasonable costs of execution and sale and court costs. 
</P>
<P>(2) Second, to the judgment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Third, the residue (if any) to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(d) In any case in which property has been seized under a writ of execution, but not yet sold, the property seized shall be released upon payment of the judgment, court costs, and the costs of execution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.97" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.97   Garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a judgment debtor fails to satisfy a judgment in full within 60 days after the entry of judgment (or such other period as the Court may prescribe), the Court may, upon the application of the judgment creditor issue a writ of garnishment directed to any person having money or property in his possession belonging to the judgment debtor or owing money to the judgment debtor. The following are exempt from judgment: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ninety percent of so much of the gross wages as does not exceed $200 due to the judgment debtor from his employer. 
</P>
<P>(2) Eighty percent of so much of the gross wages as exceeds $200 but does not exceed $500 due to the judgment debtor from his employer. 
</P>
<P>(3) Fifty percent of so much of the gross wages as exceeds $500 due to the judgment debtor from his employer. 
</P>
<P>(b) The writ of garnishment shall be served on the judgment debtor and the garnishee and shall direct the garnishee to pay or deliver from the money or property owing to the judgment debtor such money or property as the Court may prescribe. 
</P>
<P>(c) The garnished amount shall be paid to the Clerk of the Court, who shall apply it as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) First, to satisfy the costs of garnishment and court costs. 
</P>
<P>(2) Second, to satisfy the judgment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Third, the residue (if any) to the judgment debtor. 
</P>
<P>(d) Funds of the debtor held by the United States are not subject to garnishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Criminal Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.100" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.100   Bail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who is arrested on Wake Island for any violation of this part is entitled to be released on bail in an amount set by a Judge or Clerk of the Court, which may not exceed the maximum fine for the offense charged. If the defendant fails to appear for arraignment, trial or sentence, or otherwise breaches any condition of bail, the Court may direct a forfeiture of the whole or part of the bail and may on motion after notice to the surety or sureties, if any, enter a judgment for the amount of the forfeiture. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief Judge of the Wake Island Court may prescribe a schedule of bail for any offense under this part which the defendant may elect to post and forfeit without trial, in which case the Court shall enter a verdict of guilty and direct forfeiture of the bail. 
</P>
<P>(c) Bail will be deposited in cash with the Clerk of the Court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.101" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.101   Seizure of property.</HEAD>
<P>Any property seized in connection with an alleged offense (unless the property is perishable) is retained pending trial in accordance with the orders of the Court. The property must be produced in Court, if practicable. At the termination of the trial, the Court shall restore the property or the funds resulting from the sale of the property to the owner, or make such other proper order as may be required and incorporate its order in the record of the case. Any item used in the commission of the offense, may, upon order of the Court, be forfeited to the United States. All contraband, which includes any item that is illegal for the owner to possess, shall be forfeited to the United States; such forfeiture shall not relieve the owner from whom the item was taken from any costs or liability for the proper disposal of such item. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.102" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.102   Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any offense may be prosecuted by a written information signed by the Island Attorney. However, if the offense is one for which issue of a citation is authorized by this part and a citation for the offense has been issued, the citation serves as an information. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the information shall be delivered to the accused, or his counsel, as soon as practicable after it is filed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each count of an information may charge one offense only and must be particularized sufficiently to identify the place, the time, and the subject matter of the alleged offense. It shall refer to the provision of law under which the offense is charged, but any error in this reference or its omission may be corrected by leave of Court at any time before sentence and is not grounds for reversal of a conviction if the error or omission did not mislead the accused to his prejudice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.103" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.103   Motions and pleas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon motion of the accused at any time after filing of the information or copy of citation, the Court may order the prosecutor to allow the accused to inspect and copy or photograph designated books, papers, documents, or tangible objects obtained from or belonging to the accused, or obtained from others by seizure or process, upon a showing that the items sought may be material to the preparation of his defense and that the request is reasonable. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the Court is satisfied that it has jurisdiction to try the accused as charged, it shall require the accused to identify himself and state whether or not he has counsel. If he has no counsel, but desires counsel, the Court shall give him a reasonable opportunity to procure counsel. 
</P>
<P>(c) When both sides are ready for arraignment, or when the Court determines that both sides have had adequate opportunities to prepare for arraignment, the Court shall read the charges to the accused, explain them (if necessary), and, after the reading or stating of each charge in Court, ask the accused whether he pleads “guilty” or “not guilty”. The Court shall enter in the record of the case the plea made to each charge. 
</P>
<P>(d) The accused may plead “guilty” to any or all of the charges against him, except that the Court may in its discretion refuse to accept a plea of guilty, and may not accept a plea without first determining that the plea is made voluntarily with understanding of the nature of the charge. 
</P>
<P>(e) The accused may plead “not guilty” to any or all of the charges against him. The Court shall enter a plea of not guilty if the answer of the accused to any charge is such that it does not clearly amount to a plea of guilty or not guilty. 
</P>
<P>(f) The accused may, at any stage of the trial, with the consent of the Court, change a plea of not guilty to one of guilty. The Court shall then proceed as if the accused had originally pleaded guilty. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.104" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.104   Sentence after a plea of guilty.</HEAD>
<P>If the Court accepts a plea of guilty to any charge or charges, it shall make a finding of guilty on that charge. Before imposing sentence, the Court shall hear such statements for the prosecution and defense, if any, as it requires to enable it to determine the sentence to be imposed. The accused or his counsel may make any reasonable statement he wishes in mitigation or of previous good character. The prosecution may introduce evidence in aggravation, or of bad character if the accused has introduced evidence of good character. The Court shall then impose any lawful sentence that it considers proper. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.105" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.105   Trial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the accused pleads not guilty, he is entitled to a trial on the charges in accordance with procedures prescribed in the Rules of Criminal Procedure for the U.S. District Courts (18 U.S.C.), except as otherwise provided for in this part, to the extent the Court considers practicable and necessary to the ends of justice. There is no trial by jury. 
</P>
<P>(b) All persons shall give their testimony under oath or affirmation. The Chief Judge shall prescribe the oath and affirmation that may be administered by any Judge or the Clerk of the Court. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon completion of the trial, the Court shall enter a judgment consisting of a finding or findings and sentence or sentences, or discharge of the accused. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Court may suspend any sentence imposed, may order the revocation of any Island automobile permit in motor vehicle cases, and may place the accused on probation. It may delay sentencing pending the receipt of any presentencing report ordered by it. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Appeals and New Trials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.110" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.110   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party to an action may, within 15 days after judgment, appeal an interlocutory order, issue of law, or judgment, except that an acquittal may not be appealed, by filing a notice of appeal with the Clerk of the Wake Island Court and serving a copy on the opposing party. Judgment is stayed while the appeal is pending. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receiving a notice of appeal with proof of service on the opposing party, the Clerk shall forward the record of the action to the Wake Island Court of Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(c) The appellant shall serve on the opposing party and file a memorandum setting forth his grounds of appeal with the Wake Island Court of Appeals within 15 days after the date of the judgment. The appellee may serve and file a reply memorandum within 15 days thereafter. An appeal and the reply shall be deemed to be filed when deposited in the U.S. mail with proper postage affixed, addressed to the Clerk, Wake Island Court of Appeals, at his address in Washington, DC. The period for filing an appeal may be waived by the Court of Appeals when the interests of justice so require. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Court of Appeals may proceed to judgment on the record, or, if the Court considers that the interests of justice so require, grant a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(e) The decision of the Court of Appeals shall be in writing and based on the record prepared by the Wake Island Court, on the proceedings before the Court of Appeals, if any be had, and on any memoranda that are filed. If the Court of Appeals considers the record incomplete, the case may be remanded to the Wake Island Court for further proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(f) The decision of the Court of Appeals is final. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.111" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.111   New trial.</HEAD>
<P>A Judge of the Wake Island Court may order a new trial as required in the interest of justice, or vacate any judgment and enter a new one, on motion made within a reasonable time after discovery by the moving party of matters constituting the grounds upon which the motion for new trial or vacation of judgment is made. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Peace Officers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.120" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.120   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Peace officers— 
</P>
<P>(a) Have the authority of a sheriff at common law; 
</P>
<P>(b) May serve any process on Wake Island that is allowed to be served under a Federal or State law; the officer serving the process shall execute any required affidavit of service; 
</P>
<P>(c) May conduct sanitation or fire prevention inspections; 
</P>
<P>(d) May inspect motor vehicles, boats, and aircraft; 
</P>
<P>(e) May confiscate property used in the commission of a crime; 
</P>
<P>(f) May deputize any member of the Air Force serving on active duty or civilian employee of the Department of the Air Force to serve as a peace officer; 
</P>
<P>(g) May investigate accidents and suspected crimes; 
</P>
<P>(h) May direct vehicular or pedestrian traffic; 
</P>
<P>(i) May remove and impound abandoned or unlawfully parked vehicles, boats, or aircraft, or vehicles, boats, or aircraft interfering with fire control apparatus or ambulances; 
</P>
<P>(j) May take possession of property lost, abandoned, or of unknown ownership; 
</P>
<P>(k) May enforce quarantines; 
</P>
<P>(l) May impound and destroy food, fish, or beverages found unsanitary; 
</P>
<P>(m) May be armed; 
</P>
<P>(n) May exercise custody over persons in arrest or confinement; 
</P>
<P>(o) May issue citations for violations of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(p) May make arrests, as provided for in § 935.122. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.121" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.121   Qualifications of peace officers.</HEAD>
<P>Any person appointed as a peace officer must be a citizen of the United States and have attained the age of 18 years. The following persons, while on Wake Island on official business, shall be deemed peace officers: special agents of the Air Force Office of Special Investigations, members of the Air Force Security Forces, agents of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, United States marshals and their deputies, officers and agents of the United States Secret Service, agents of the United States Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms, agents of the United States Customs Service, and agents of the United States Immigration and Naturalization Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.122" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.122   Arrests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may make an arrest on Wake Island, without a warrant, for any crime (including a petty offense) that is committed in his presence. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any peace officer may, without a warrant, arrest any person on Wake Island who violates any provision of this part or commits a crime that is not a violation of this part, in his presence, or that he reasonably believes that person to have committed. 
</P>
<P>(c) In making an arrest, a peace officer must display a warrant, if he has one, or otherwise clearly advise the person arrested of the violation alleged, and thereafter require him to submit and be taken before the appropriate official on Wake Island. 
</P>
<P>(d) In making an arrest, a peace officer may use only the degree of force needed to effect submission, and may remove any weapon in the possession of the person arrested. 
</P>
<P>(e) A peace officer may, whenever necessary to enter any building, vehicle, or aircraft to execute a warrant of arrest, force an entry after verbal warning. 
</P>
<P>(f) A peace officer may force an entry into any building, vehicle, or aircraft whenever— 
</P>
<P>(1) It appears necessary to prevent serious injury to persons or damage to property and time does not permit the obtaining of a warrant; 
</P>
<P>(2) To effect an arrest when in hot pursuit; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To prevent the commission of a crime which he reasonably believes is being committed or is about to be committed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.123" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.123   Warrants.</HEAD>
<P>Any Judge may issue or direct the Clerk to issue a warrant for arrest if, upon complaint, it appears that there is probable cause to believe an offense has been committed and that the person named in the warrant has committed it. If a Judge is not available, the warrant may be issued by the Clerk and executed, but any such warrant shall be thereafter approved or quashed by the first available Judge. The issuing officer shall— 
</P>
<P>(a) Place the name of the person charged with the offense in the warrant, or if his name is not known, any name or description by which he can be identified with reasonable certainty; 
</P>
<P>(b) Describe in the warrant the offense charged; 
</P>
<P>(c) Place in the warrant a command that the person charged with the offense be arrested and brought before the Wake Island Court; 
</P>
<P>(d) Sign the warrant; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Issue the warrant to a peace officer for execution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.124" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.124   Release from custody.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Judge may authorize the Clerk to issue pro forma orders of the Court discharging any person from custody, with or without bail, pending trial, whenever further restraint is not required for protection of persons or property on Wake Island. Persons not so discharged shall be brought before a Judge or U.S. Magistrate as soon as a Judge or Magistrate is available. Judges may discharge defendants from custody, with or without bail or upon recognizance, or continue custody pending trial as the interests of justice and public safety require. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.125" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.13.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.125   Citation in place of arrest.</HEAD>
<P>In any case in which a peace officer may make an arrest without a warrant, he may issue and serve a citation if he considers that the public interest does not require an arrest. The citation must briefly describe the offense charged and direct the accused to appear before the Wake Island Court at a designated time and place. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Motor Vehicle Code</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.130" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.130   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to self-propelled motor vehicles (except aircraft), including attached trailers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.131" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.131   Right-hand side of the road.</HEAD>
<P>Each person driving a motor vehicle on Wake Island shall drive on the right-hand side of the road, except where necessary to pass or on streets where a sign declaring one-way traffic is posted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.132" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.132   Speed limits.</HEAD>
<P>Each person operating a motor vehicle on Wake Island shall operate it at a speed— 
</P>
<P>(a) That is reasonable, safe, and proper, considering time of day, road and weather conditions, the kind of motor vehicle, and the proximity to persons or buildings, or both; and 
</P>
<P>(b) That does not exceed 40 miles an hour or such lesser speed limit as may be posted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.133" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.133   Right-of-way.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A pedestrian has the right-of-way over vehicular traffic when in the vicinity of a building, school, or residential area. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case in which two motor vehicles have arrived at an uncontrolled intersection at the same time, the vehicle on the right has the right-of-way. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the driver of a motor vehicle enters an intersection with the intent of making a left turn, he shall yield the right-of-way to any other motor vehicle that has previously entered the intersection or is within hazardous proximity. 
</P>
<P>(d) When being overtaken by another motor vehicle, the driver of the slower vehicle shall move it to the right to allow safe passing. 
</P>
<P>(e) The driver of a motor vehicle shall yield the right-of-way to emergency vehicles on an emergency run. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.134" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.134   Arm signals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person operating a motor vehicle and making a turn or coming to a stop shall signal the turn or stop in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) A signal for a turn or stop is made by fully extending the left arm as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Left turn—extend left arm horizontally. 
</P>
<P>(2) Right turn—extend left arm upward. 
</P>
<P>(3) Stop or decrease speed—extend left arm downward. 
</P>
<P>(c) A signal light or other device may be used in place of an arm signal prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section if it is visible and intelligible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.135" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.135   Turns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person making a right turn in a motor vehicle shall make the approach and turn as close as practicable to the right-hand curb or road edge. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person making a left turn in a motor vehicle shall make the approach and turn immediately to the right of the center of the road, except that on multi-lane roads of one-way traffic flow he may make the turn only from the left lane. 
</P>
<P>(c) No person may make a U-turn in a motor vehicle if he cannot be seen by the driver of any approaching vehicle within a distance of 500 feet. 
</P>
<P>(d) No person may place a vehicle in motion from a stopped position, or change from or merge into a lane of traffic, until he can safely make that movement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.136" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.136   General operating rules.</HEAD>
<P>No person may, while on Wake Island— 
</P>
<P>(a) Operate a motor vehicle in a careless or reckless manner; 
</P>
<P>(b) Operate or occupy a motor vehicle while he is under the influence of a drug or intoxicant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Consume an alcoholic beverage (including beer, ale, or wine) while he is in a motor vehicle; 
</P>
<P>(d) Operate a motor vehicle that is overloaded or is carrying more passengers than it was designed to carry; 
</P>
<P>(e) Ride on the running board, step, or outside of the body of a moving motor vehicle; 
</P>
<P>(f) Ride a moving motor vehicle with his arm or leg protruding, except when using the left arm to signal a turn; 
</P>
<P>(g) Operate a motor vehicle in a speed contest or drag race; 
</P>
<P>(h) Park a motor vehicle for a period longer than the posted time limit; 
</P>
<P>(i) Stop, park, or operate a motor vehicle in a manner that impedes or blocks traffic; 
</P>
<P>(j) Park a motor vehicle in an unposted area, except adjacent to the right-hand curb or edge of the road; 
</P>
<P>(k) Park a motor vehicle in a reserved or restricted parking area that is not assigned to him; 
</P>
<P>(l) Sound the horn of a motor vehicle, except as a warning signal; 
</P>
<P>(m) Operate a tracked or cleated vehicle in a manner that damages a paved or compacted surface; 
</P>
<P>(n) Operate any motor vehicle contrary to a posted traffic sign; 
</P>
<P>(o) Operate a motor vehicle as to follow any other vehicle closer than is safe under the circumstances; 
</P>
<P>(p) Operate a motor vehicle off of established roads, or in a cross-country manner, except when necessary in conducting business; 
</P>
<P>(q) Operate a motor vehicle at night or when raining on the traveled part of a street or road, without using operating headlights; or 
</P>
<P>(r) Operate a motor vehicle without each passenger wearing a safety belt; this shall not apply to military combat vehicles designed and fabricated without safety belts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.137" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.137   Operating requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each person operating a motor vehicle on Wake Island shall— 
</P>
<P>(a) Turn off the highbeam headlights of his vehicle when approaching an oncoming vehicle at night; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Comply with any special traffic instructions given by an authorized person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.138" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.138   Motor bus operation.</HEAD>
<P>Each person operating a motor bus on Wake Island shall—
</P>
<P>(a) Keep its doors closed while the bus is moving with passengers on board; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Refuse to allow any person to board or alight the bus while it is moving. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.139" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.139   Motor vehicle operator qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may operate a privately owned motor vehicle on Wake Island unless he has an island operator's permit. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commander may issue an operator's permit to any person who is at least 18 years of age and satisfactorily demonstrates safe-driving knowledge, ability, and physical fitness. 
</P>
<P>(c) No person may operate, on Wake Island, a motor vehicle owned by the United States unless he holds a current operator's permit issued by the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each person operating a motor vehicle on Wake Island shall present his operator's permit to any peace officer, for inspection, upon request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.140" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.14.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.140   Motor vehicle maintenance and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who has custody of a motor vehicle on Wake Island shall present that vehicle for periodic safety inspection, as required by the Commander. 
</P>
<P>(b) No person may operate a motor vehicle on Wake Island unless it is in a condition that the Commander considers to be safe and operable. 
</P>
<P>(c) No person may operate a motor vehicle on Wake Island unless it is equipped with an adequate and properly functioning— 
</P>
<P>(1) Horn; 
</P>
<P>(2) Wiper, for any windshield; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rear vision mirror; 
</P>
<P>(4) Headlights and taillights; 
</P>
<P>(5) Brakes; 
</P>
<P>(6) Muffler; 
</P>
<P>(7) Spark or ignition noise suppressors; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Safety belts. 
</P>
<P>(d) No person may operate a motor vehicle on Wake Island if that vehicle is equipped with a straight exhaust or muffler cutoff. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Registration and Island Permits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.150" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.150   Registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who has custody of any of the following on Wake Island shall register it with the Commander. 
</P>
<P>(1) A privately owned motor vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(2) A privately owned boat. 
</P>
<P>(3) An indigenous animal, military working dog, or guide dog for the blind or visually-impaired accompanying its owner. 
</P>
<P>(4) A narcotic or dangerous drug or any poison. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who obtains custody of an article described in paragraph (a) (4) of this section shall register it immediately upon obtaining custody. Each person who obtains custody of any other article described in paragraph (a) of this section shall register it within 10 days after obtaining custody. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.151" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.151   Island permit for boat and vehicle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may use a privately owned motor vehicle or boat on Wake Island unless he has an island permit for it. 
</P>
<P>(b) The operator of a motor vehicle shall display its registration number on the vehicle in a place and manner prescribed by the Commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.152" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.152   Activities for which permit is required.</HEAD>
<P>No person may engage in any of the following on Wake Island unless he has an island permit: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any business, commercial, or recreational activity conducted for profit, including a trade, profession, calling, or occupation, or an establishment where food or beverage is prepared, offered, or sold for human consumption (except for personal or family use). 
</P>
<P>(b) The practice of any medical profession, including dentistry, surgery, osteopathy, and chiropractic. 
</P>
<P>(c) The erection of any structure or sign, including a major alteration or enlargement of an existing structure. 
</P>
<P>(d) The burial of any human or animal remains, except that fish and bait scrap may be buried at beaches where fishing is permitted, without obtaining a permit. 
</P>
<P>(e) Keeping or maintaining an indigenous animal. 
</P>
<P>(f) Importing, storing, generating, or disposing of hazardous materials. 
</P>
<P>(g) Importing of solid wastes and importing, storing, generating, treating, or disposing of hazardous wastes, as they are defined in the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations (40 CFR chapter I). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Public Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.160" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.160   Emergency requirements and restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>In the event of any fire, crash, search and rescue, natural disaster, national peril, radiological hazard, or other calamitous emergency— 
</P>
<P>(a) No person may impede or hamper any officer or employee of the United States or any other person who has emergency authority; 
</P>
<P>(b) No unauthorized persons may congregate at the scene of the emergency; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Each person present shall promptly obey the instructions, signals, or alarms of any peace officer, fire or crash crew, or other authorized person, and any orders of the Commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.161" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.161   Fire hazards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person engaged in a business or other activity on Wake Island shall, at his expense, provide and maintain (in an accessible location) fire extinguishers of the type, capacity, and quantity satisfactory for protecting life and property in the areas under that person's control. 
</P>
<P>(b) To minimize fire hazards, no person may store any waste or flammable fluids or materials except in a manner and at a place prescribed by the Commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.162" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.162   Use of special areas.</HEAD>
<P>The Commander may regulate the use of designated or posted areas on Wake Island, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Restricted areas—which no person may enter without permission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prohibited activities areas—in which no person may engage in any activity that is specifically prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(c) Special purpose areas-in which no person may engage in any activity other than that for which the area is reserved. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.163" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.163   Unexploded ordnance material.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who discovers any unexploded ordnance material on Wake Island shall refrain from tampering with it and shall immediately report its site to the Commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.164" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.164   Boat operations.</HEAD>
<P>The operator of each boat used at Wake Island shall conform to the limitations on its operations as the Commander may prescribe in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 935.165" NODE="32:6.1.1.11.10.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 935.165   Floating objects.</HEAD>
<P>No person may anchor, moor, or beach any boat, barge, or other floating object on Wake Island in any location or manner other than as prescribed by the Commander. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="O" NODE="32:6.1.1.12" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER O—SPECIAL INVESTIGATION [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="S P" NODE="32:6.1.1.13" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTERS P-S [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="T" NODE="32:6.1.1.14" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER T—ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION






</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="900-999" NODE="32:6.1.1.14.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 900-999 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="32:6.2" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Other Regulations Relating to National Defense 


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XII" NODE="32:6.2.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XII—DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE, DEFENSE LOGISTICS AGENCY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A [RESERVED]   " NODE="32:6.2.1.15" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.1.16" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—MISCELLANEOUS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1200-1279" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1200-1279 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1280" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1280—INVESTIGATING AND PROCESSING CERTAIN NONCONTRACTUAL CLAIMS AND REPORTING RELATED LITIGATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. 125; 28 U.S.C. 2672; and DoD Directive 5105.22 dated December 9, 1965. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 19470, June 3, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1280.1" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1280.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part 1280 provides procedures for investigating and processing claims and related litigation: 
</P>
<P>(1) By civilian and military personnel of DLA for property lost or damaged incident to service (31 U.S.C. 240 through 243). 
</P>
<P>(2) Incident to use of Government vehicles and other property of the United States not cognizable under other law (10 U.S.C. 2737). 
</P>
<P>(3) Based on Negligence of Civilian and Military Employees under the Federal Tort Claims Act, 28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 2671 through 2680. 
</P>
<P>(4) In favor of the United States, other than contractual, for loss, damage, or destruction of real or personal property in the possession, custody, or control of DLA. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part 1280 is applicable to HQ DLA and DLA field activities, except nonappropriated funds and related activities established pursuant to DSAR 1330.2, Open Messes and Other Military Sundry Associations and Funds, and DSAR 1330.4, Civilian Nonappropriated Funds and Related Activities. Claims involving these activities are processed pursuant to the regulations referenced therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1280.2" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1280.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims Investigating Officer.</I> A military officer or civilian employee of DLA, appointed in accordance with this part 1280, to investigate and process claims within the purview of this part 1280. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member of the Army, member of the Navy, member of the Marine Corps, member of the Air Force.</I> Officers and enlisted personnel of these Military Services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1280.3" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1280.3   Significant changes.</HEAD>
<P>This revision provides current citations to the Army regulations which have superseded those previously prescribed for the processing of some claims. It reflects the new Army claims processing procedures effected upon the reorganization of the Army. Finally, it provides specific procedures for Air Force processed claims. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1280.4" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1280.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DLA field activities.</I> (1) Heads of DLA Primary Level Field Activities are responsible for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Designating a qualified individual under their command, preferably one experienced in the conduct of investigations, as the Claims Investigating Officer for the activity. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorizing Heads of subordinate activities to appoint Claims Investigating Officers where necessary. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commander, DLA Administrative Support Center (DLASC) is responsible for designating a qualified individual, preferably one experienced in the conduct of investigations, as the Claims Investigating Officer for DLASC and HQ DLA. 
</P>
<P>(3) Claims Investigating Officers are responsible for the expeditious conduct of all investigations and the processing of reports in accordance with appropriate Departmental regulations as prescribed by this part 1280. To ensure prompt investigation of every incident while witnesses are available, and before damage has been repaired, the duties of personnel as Claims Investigating Officers will ordinarily have priority over any other assignments they may have. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Counsel, DLA Field Activities are responsible for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Receiving claims reports and information about related litigation, and processing these reports and information in accordance with this part 1280 and appropriate Departmental regulations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing directions and guidance to Claims Investigating Officers in the investigation and processing of claims. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Counsel, DLA (DLAH-G) is responsible for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Providing guidance to Counsel at DLA field activities on all claims and litigation matters within the purview of this part 1280. 
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving claims reports and information on related litigation forwarded to HQ DLA, Attention: DLAH-G, and processing these in accordance with this part 1280 and appropriate Departmental regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintaining this part 1280 in a current status and reviewing it annually. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1280.5" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1280.5   Procedures. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of the Military Department regulations mentioned herein may be obtained from the Departments of the Army and Navy, and the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Claims by military and civilian personnel of DLA for property lost or damaged incident to service (31 U.S.C. 240 through 243).</I> (1) The Claims Investigating Officer will conduct his investigation and prepare all necessary forms and reports in accordance with the appropriate portions of AR 27-20 where the claimant is a member of the Army or a DLA civilian employee; JAGINST 5800.7A where the claimant is a member of the Navy or Marine Corps; or AFM 112-1 where the claimant is a member of the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(2) The completed report will be forwarded by the Claims Investigating Officer to one of the following activities for settlement: 
</P>
<P>(i) Where the claimant is a DLA civilian employee or a member of the Army; the Staff Judge Advocate designated in AR 27-20, appendix F, as the Area Claims Authority where the claim arose. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the claimant is a member of the Navy or Marine Corps the cognizant adjudicating authority as listed in JAGINST 5800.7A, paragraph 2124. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the claimant is a member of the Air Force; the Base Staff Judge Advocate of the nearest Air Force Base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims incident to the use of Government property not cognizable under any other law (10 U.S.C. 2737).</I> (1) The Claims Investigating Officer will conduct his investigation and prepare all necessary forms and reports in accordance with the appropriate portions of AR 27-20 where the claimant is a member of the Army or a DLA civilian employee; JAGINST 5800.7A where the claimant is a member of the Navy or Marine Corps; or AFM 112-1 where the claimant is a member of the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(2) The completed report will be forwarded by the Claims Investigating Officer to the Counsel for his activity or, if the activity has no Counsel, to the next higher echelon having such a position. 
</P>
<P>(3) The activity Counsel receiving the Claims Investigating Officer's report will review the report, and take all necessary action to assure that it is complete and in accordance with the appropriate regulation. He will forward the report together with his comments and recommendations to one of the following activities for settlement. Where the incident giving rise to the claim was occasioned by an act or omission of: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DLA civilian personnel.</I> Counsel, DLA. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>A member of the Army.</I> The Staff Judge Advocate designated in AR 27-20, appendix F, as the Area Claims Authority where the claim arose. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>A member of the Navy or Marine Corps.</I> The Director of the Navy Law Center in the Naval District in which the incident giving rise to the claim occurred. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>A member of the Air Force.</I> The Base Staff Judge Advocate of the Air Force Base nearest the place where the incident giving rise to the claim occurred. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act arising from negligence of DLA military or civilian personnel.</I> (1) The Claims Investigating Officer will conduct his investigation and prepare all necessary forms and reports in accordance with the appropriate portions of AR 27-20 where the claim involves a member of the Army or a DLA civilian employee; JAGINST 5800.7A where the claim involves a member of the Navy or Marine Corps; or AFM 112-1 where the claim involves a member of the Air Force. 
</P>
<P>(2) The completed report of investigation will be forwarded by the Claims Investigating Officer to one of the following activities for settlement. Where the incident giving rise to the claim was occasioned by an act or omission of: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DLA civilian personnel or a member of the Army.</I> The Staff Judge Advocate designated in AR 27-20, appendix F, as the Area Claims Authority where the incident giving rise to the claim occurred. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>A member of the Navy or Marine Corps.</I> The Director of the Navy Law Center in the Naval District in which the incident giving rise to the claim occurred. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>A member of the Air Force.</I> The Base Staff Judge Advocate of the Air Force Base nearest the place where the incident giving rise to the claim occurred. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tort claims in favor of the United States for damage to or loss or destruction of DLA property, or property in its custody or control.</I> (1) These claims will be investigated and processed in accordance with the provisions of AR 27-40, Chapter 5, except: 
</P>
<P>(i) The duties of the claims officer will be performed by the Claims Investigating Officer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The duties of the Staff Judge Advocate will be performed by Counsel, except where the property is a GSA motor pool system vehicle (see paragraph (e) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(iii) The reports of the Claims Investigating Officer will be furnished direct to Counsel for his activity or, if his activity has no Counsel, to the next higher echelon having such a position. 
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to reports referred to them, Counsel are authorized to give receipts for any payments received and to execute releases where payment in full is received, except where the property is a GSA motor pool system vehicle (see paragraph (e) of this section). Offers of compromise will be processed pursuant to DSAM 7000.1, chapter 12, section V, paragraph 120502. 
</P>
<P>(v) Where payment in full is not received after reasonable efforts have been made to collect the claim administratively, Counsel will refer the case directly to the U.S. Attorney unless: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The amount of the claim exceeds $10,000, in which event the case will be referred to Counsel, DLA. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The amount of the debt is less than $250; or the record clearly shows that the debtor is unable to pay; or the debtor cannot be located; in which event the file may be closed and the debt treated as an uncollectible which does not have to be referred to the General Accounting Office. 
</P>
<P>(2) If, at any stage of the processing of a claim under this paragraph (d), a claim is filed against the Government arising out of the same incident, or it becomes apparent that one will be filed, the claim under this paragraph (d) will be treated as a counterclaim, and included under the report filed in accordance with the applicable paragraph of this part 1280. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claims involving GSA motor pool system vehicles.</I> (1) Where a motor pool system vehicle issued to a DLA activity is involved in an accident giving rise to a claim under the Federal Tort Claims Act, the claim will be handled pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of damage to a motor pool system vehicle which is not due to the fault of the operator, Counsel receiving the report will submit the report to GSA's Regional Counsel for the region that issued the vehicle pursuant to the Federal Property Management Regulation, § 101-39.805. Damages to motor pool system vehicles caused by the negligence of vehicle operator employed by DLA or caused by the negligence or misconduct of any other officer or employee of DLA are reimbursed to General Services Administration (GSA). Determination affixing responsibility will be made by the Counsel to which the report is referred, after considering the views of GSA. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting legal proceedings.</I> (1) All process and pleadings served on any personnel or activity of DLA, and related to a claim covered by this part 1280 or involving an incident which may give rise to a claim covered by this part 1280, together with other immediately available data concerning the commencement of legal proceedings, will be promptly referred to Counsel for the activity involved, or, if the activity has no Counsel, to the next higher echelon having such a position. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any Military Service member or civilian employee of DLA (or his personal representative) against whom a domestic civil action or proceeding is brought for damage to property, or for personal injury or death, on account of his operation of a motor vehicle (Government- or privately-owned) in the scope of his employment (28 U.S.C. 2679) will: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon receipt of process and pleadings or any other information regarding the commencement of such action or proceeding, immediately inform the Head of his activity and Counsel as specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly deliver all process and pleadings served upon him, or an attested true copy thereof, to Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of information or process and pleadings pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) or (2) of this section, Counsel will promptly prepare and process reports in accordance with the appropriate portions of AR 27-40 except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the incident giving rise to the litigation was occasioned by an act or omission of a member of the Navy or Marine Corps, or a member of the Air Force, information and reports required to be furnished to The Judge Advocate General of the Army will be furnished instead to The Judge Advocate General of the Navy and Air Force respectively. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the litigation is under the Federal Tort Claims Act and no administrative claim has been filed, Counsel will immediately advise the U.S. Attorney and furnish him a report of all information the activity has with respect to the claim and an affidavit by the Claims Investigating Officer to the effect that no administrative claim has been filed. Two copies of the foregoing will be provided to the appropriate Military Service Judge Advocate General. If an administrative claim has been filed and has been referred to a Military Service, a copy of the process and pleadings and any information not previously furnished will be sent to the appropriate Military Service Judge Advocate General. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1290" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1290—PREPARING AND PROCESSING MINOR OFFENSES AND VIOLATION NOTICES REFERRED TO U.S. DISTRICT COURTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Defense Instruction 6055.4; 18 U.S.C. 13, 3401, and 3402.
<FTREF/>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Reference (a) may be purchased from the Commander, U.S. Army AG Publications Center, 2800 Eastern Blvd., Baltimore, MD 21220; reference (b) from the Defense Logistics Agency (DASC-IP), Cameron Station, Alexandria, VA 22314; references (c), (d), and (e) from the Superintendent of Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402.</P></FTNT>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 55859, Sept. 28, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1290.1" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.1   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DLAR 5720.1/AR 190-5/OPNAVINST 11200.5B/AFR 125-14/MCO 5110.1B, Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision. 
</P>
<P>(b) DLAR 5710.1, Authority of Military Commanders To Issue Security Orders and Regulations for the Protection of Property or Places Under Their Command. 
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 1, 3401 and 3402, title 18, U.S.C. 
</P>
<P>(d) Rules of procedures for the Trial of Minor Offenses before United States Magistrates. 
</P>
<P>(e) Section 13, title 18, U.S.C., Assimilative Crimes Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.2" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part 1290 implements DoD Instruction 6055.4, Department of Defense Traffic Safety Program, and sets forth basic objectives and procedures applicable to implementation of the Federal Magistrate System by DLA. This part 1290 is applicable to HQ DLA, Defense Supply Centers (DSC's), less Defense Fuel Supply Center and Defense Industrial Supply Center, and to Defense Depots, less Defense Depot Mechanicsburg. DLA activities/personnel tenant on other DoD activities will abide by the requirements of the host. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part 1290 provides Heads of DLA primary level field activities (PLFAs) with a means of exercising effective control over violators who are not otherwise under their jurisdiction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.3" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of HQ DLA that the Heads of DLA PLFAs will take such steps as are necessary to prevent offenses. Emphasis will be placed on prevention rather than apprehension and prosecution of offenders. 
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures outlined in this part 1290 may, at the discretion of the Head of the activity concerned, be invoked in lieu of the provisions of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) to deal with minor offenses of a civil nature, other than violations of state traffic laws, committed by military personnel. These procedures may also be invoked to deal with nontraffic minor offenses committed by civilian personnel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.4" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part 1290 the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<FP>This part 1290 supersedes part 1290 April 26, 1972. 
</FP>
<P>(a) <I>Law Enforcement Personnel.</I> Persons authorized by the Head of the PLFA to direct, regulate, control traffic; to make apprehensions or arrests for violations of traffic regulations; or to issue citations or tickets. Personnel so designated will include the Command Security Officer and all other personnel in 080, 083, 085, or 1800 series positions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minor Federal Offenses.</I> Those offenses for which the authorized penalty does not exceed imprisonment for a period of 1 year, or a fine of not more than $1000, or both (18 U.S.C. 3401f). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petty Federal Offenses.</I> Those offenses for which the authorized penalty does not exceed imprisonment for a period of 6 months or a fine of not more than $500, or both (18 U.S.C. 1(3)).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A petty offense is a type of minor offense.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Violation Notice.</I> DD Form 1805, Violation Notice, which will be used to refer all petty offenses to the U.S. Magistrate/District Courts for disposition.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A complaint, made under oath on forms provided by the magistrate, is the prescribed form for charging minor offenses other than petty offenses.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.5" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.5   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DoD Instruction 6055.4 requires that all traffic violations occurring on DoD installations be referred to the appropriate United States Magistrate, or State or local system magistrate, in the interest of impartial judicial determination and effective law enforcement. Exceptions will be made only for those rare violations in which military discipline is the paramount consideration, or where the Federal court system having jurisdiction has notified the PLFA commander it will not accept certain offenses for disposition. 
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, the Federal Magistrate System applies state traffic laws and appropriate Federal laws to all personnel while on Federal property (section 13, title 18 U.S.C., Assimilative Crimes Act). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.6" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.6   Significant changes.</HEAD>
<P>This revision incorporates the DoD requirement for referral of traffic violations occurring on military installations to the Federal or local magistrate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.7" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.7   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>HQ DLA</I>—(1) <I>The Command Security Officer, DLA (DLA-T)</I> will: 
</P>
<P>(i) Exercise staff supervision over the Magistrate system within DLA. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide guidance and assistance to DLA activities concerning administrative and procedural aspects of this part 1290. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The Counsel, DLA (DLA-G)</I> will provide guidance and assistance to DLA activities concerning legal aspects of this part 1290. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Heads of DLA Primary Level Field Activities</I> will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and put into effect the necessary regulatory and supervisory procedures to implement this part 1290. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure implementing directives authorize law enforcement/security force (080, 083, 085 and 1800 series) personnel to issue DD Form 1805. 
</P>
<P>(3) Periodically publish in the PLFA Daily or Weekly Bulletin, a listing of offenses for which mail-in procedures apply, with the amount of the fine for each, and a listing of offenses requiring mandatory appearance of the violator before the U.S. Magistrate. The listings will indicate that they are not necessarily all inclusive and that they are subject to change. A copy of the listings will be provided to the local Union representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.8" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.8   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The U.S. Magistrate Court Provides DLA</I> with: 
</P>
<P>(1) The means to process and dispose of certain categories of minor offenses by mail. Under this system, U.S. Magistrate and District Courts will, by local court rule, preset fines for the bulk of petty violations (Federal or Assimilated) and permit persons charged with such violations, who do not contest the charge nor wish to have a court hearing, to pay their fines by using mail-in, preaddressed, postage paid envelopes furnished to them with the violation notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) Efficient, minimal commitment of judicial and clerical time by using uniform procedures which centralize the collection of fines, the scheduling of mandatory hearings or hearings where violators request them, and the keeping of violator records. 
</P>
<P>(3) A simple but sure method of accounting for fines collected and tickets issued. 
</P>
<P>(4) Impartial enforcement of minor offense laws. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Court Appearances</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory Appearances.</I> (i) As required by the Administrative Office of the United States Courts, each District Court will determine, by local court rule, those offenses requiring mandatory appearance of violators. PLFA Counsels will coordinate with local magistrates or district courts and secure a court approved list of offenses requiring mandatory appearance of violators before the local U.S. Magistrate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mandatory appearance offense categories normally include: 
</P>
<P>(A) Indictable offenses. 
</P>
<P>(B) Offenses resulting in accidents. 
</P>
<P>(C) Operation of motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating alcohol or a narcotic or habit producing or other mind altering drug, or permitting another person who is under the influence of intoxicating alcohol, or a narcotic or habit producing or mind altering drug to operate a motor vehicle owned by the defendant or in his/her custody or control. 
</P>
<P>(D) Reckless driving or speeding. 
</P>
<P>(2) Voluntary Appearances—(i) <I>Requested by violators at the time DD Form 1805 is issued.</I> (A) Personnel issuing DD Form 1805 will refer violator for hearings before U.S. Magistrates in each instance where a hearing is requested by the violator. 
</P>
<P>(B) Command security officers will provide security force personnel with necessary information to facilitate scheduling violators to appear before U.S. Magistrates. Box B of the DD Form 1805 will be marked by the issuing official for each violator requesting a hearing. Additionally procedures set forth in appendix A will be accomplished by the official issuing violation notice. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requested by violators by mail.</I> (A) Voluntary appearance procedures are also available for violators who are not present at the time a DD Form 1805 is issued (i.e., parking violations) or who subsequently decide to voluntarily appear before a U.S. Magistrate rather than pay the fine indicated in the DD Form 1805. 
</P>
<P>(B) Violators who use the mail-in procedure to voluntarily appear before a U.S. Magistrate must follow the instructions in Box B of the DD Form 1805 (violator copy). The violator will be notified by the clerk of the District Court of the time and place to appear for the scheduled hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.9" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.9   Forms and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information on preparation and issue of DD Form 1805.</I> (1) The U.S. Magistrate system is based on use of a four-ply ticket designed to provide legal notice to violators and records required by the court, law enforcement authorities, and, if appropriate, the state motor vehicle departments. The DD Form 1805 is printed on chemically carbonized paper and prenumbered in series for accounting control. Heads of DLA primary level field activities are responsible for maintaining accountability for each ticket issued and stocks on hand. 
</P>
<P>(2) DLA field activity Counsels will coordinate with the U.S. Magistrate of the judicial district in which the activity is located and maintain the information listed below: 
</P>
<P>(i) List of petty offenses for which mail-in procedure is authorized and the amount of the fine for each specific offense. The District Court address will be prestamped on the violator's copy of the DD Form 1805 by the applicable issuing authority. 
</P>
<P>(ii) List of minor offenses requiring mandatory appearance of the violator before the magistrate. The name and location of the magistrate before whom violators will appear. Schedule will be coordinated with nearest Military Service activity and appearance will be conducted jointly whenever possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issue procedures for DD Form 1805.</I> (1) Information entered on the DD Form 1805 is dependent upon two considerations: 
</P>
<P>(i) The type of violation, i.e., parking, (such as blocking a fire lane) moving traffic violation, or nontraffic offenses. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the offense cited requires the mandatory appearance of the violator before a U.S. Magistrate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Preparation and disposition of DD Form 1805: 
</P>
<P>(i) See illustration in appendix B for petty offenses where the mail-in fine procedures are authorized. 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the fine for a specific offense must be recorded in the lower right corner of the DD Form 1805. This amount will always be predetermined by the U.S. Magistrate and provided to on duty enforcement personnel by the activity security officer or equivalent authority. When violation notices are issued for an offense (e.g., parking violation) and the offender is absent, all entries concerning the violator will be left blank. 
</P>
<P>(B) Disposition of DD Form 1805 will be as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fourth copy (envelope) will be issued to the violator or placed on the vehicle of the violator. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Copies one (white copy), two (yellow copy), and three (pink copy) will be returned to the Security Officer's office. The Security Officer will forward copies one and two, by letter of transmittal, to the appropriate U.S. District Court. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Copy three will be filed at the Security Office or equivalent issuing authority. DLA Form 1454, Vehicle Registration/Driver Record, will be annotated with each traffic offense. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When DD Form 1805 is used to cite personnel for mail-in type violations, the appropriate supervisor will be provided an information copy of DLA Form 635, Security/Criminal Incident Report, denoting the date, time, place, and type of violation, and the amount of fine assessed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Heads of DLA primary level field activities or their representative will not accept or otherwise collect any fines or keep records of fines paid or not paid. They also will take no action concerning nonpayment delinquencies except where warrants are subsequently issued for the violator concerned by the appropriate court authorities. 
</P>
<P>(iv) See illustrations in appendices C and D for minor offenses requiring the mandatory appearance of violators before the U.S. Magistrate: 
</P>
<P>(A) Mail-in fine procedures will not apply in mandatory appearance cases. The law enforcement authority issuing a violation notice for an offense requiring mandatory appearance of the violator, will place a check mark in “Box A”, DD Form 1805. The name and location of the U.S. Magistrate before whom the violator must appear will be inserted on the line below “United States District Court” as shown in appendix C. The date and time of the initial appearance will be entered in the space provided in “Box A”. It is the violator's responsibility to verify the date, time, and place of required court appearances. 
</P>
<P>(B) Disposition of DD Form 1805 will be as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fourth copy (envelope) will be issued to the violator. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Copies one (white copy), two (yellow copy), and three (pink copy) will be returned to the Security Officer's office. The Security Officer will forward copies one and two, by transmittal as soon as possible, to the magistrate before whom the violator is scheduled to appear. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Copy three will be filed in the office of the Security Officer or equivalent issuing authority. 
</P>
<P>(C) When DD Form 1805 is used to cite personnel for mandatory appearance type offenses, the individual's supervisor will be provided an information copy of DLA Form 635, denoting the date, time, place, and type of violation, and the date the violator is scheduled to appear before the U.S. Magistrate. 
</P>
<P>(v) Additional information governing preparation of DD Form 1805 is provided as appendix A. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.10.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1290—Preparation Guide for DD Form 1805, Violation Notice
</HEAD>
<P>All violations will require: 
</P>
<P>Last four digits of the Social Security Number of the Issuing guard/police officer (placed in space marked “Officer No.”). Date of notice (is also violation date unless otherwise shown) and time. Description of violation, including place noted. Violation code number and issuing location code number (as determined by local Magistrate/District Court). Examples are shown at appendices B, C, and D. 
</P>
<HD2>In addition to above items 
</HD2>
<P>Parking offenses require: Vehicle description (make, color, body type), licensing state, auto license number; and, if violator is present: Driver permit number, driver address, driver's name (all of above items and); moving traffic offenses require: Birth date and sex, race (if it appears on driver's permit), height and weight. 
</P>
<P>Nontraffic offenses require: Statute violated, person's name, person's address, birth date, and sex; and, if applicable: Race, height, and weight. 
</P>
<P>All mailable disposition offenses—amount of fine (collateral). 
</P>
<P>All mandatory court offenses—Above data, as appropriate, and the place of court (i.e., Magistrate Court Address), the date and time of appearance (if known by officer), and check mark in Box “A”.



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.10.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1290—Ticket Sample—A Parking Violation

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec25oc91.006.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.10.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1290—Ticket Sample—A Moving Violation

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec25oc91.007.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.3.0.1.10.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1290—Ticket Sample—A Nontraffic Violation

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec25oc91.008.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1292" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1292—SECURITY OF DLA ACTIVITIES AND RESOURCES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>DoD Directive 5200.8 and in accordance with Sec. 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950, 50 U.S.C. 797.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 13216, Feb. 20, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1292.1" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>“To establish policy, assign responsibilities, and prescribe procedures for the issuance of security regulations and orders by Heads of DLA activities. This part 1292 implements DoD Directive 5200.8, Security of Military Installations and Resources, and is applicable to HQ DLA, DLA field activities and property/places subject to the jurisdiction or administration of the Defense Logistics Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.2" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Military Heads of DLA field activities are authorized to issue or approve necessary security regulations and orders for the protection of property and places under their jurisdiction/administration. Regulations and orders for the protection of property and personnel of subordinate activities headed by civilians shall be promulgated by the military commander in the chain of command immediately above such subordinate activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Regulations and orders for the protection of property and personnel of primary level field activities (PLFAs) headed by civilians, and subordinate activities of such PLFAs which likewise are headed by civilians, shall be promulgated by the Director, DLA/Deputy Director/Deputy Director, CAS.
</P>
<P>(c) Heads of DLA field activities that are tenants on a military reservation, post, camp, station, installation, base, or Government-owned or leased facility administered by another command or agency are responsible for protection of property and places under their command and may issue security regulations and orders in fulfillment of their responsibility to protect property and places under their jurisdiction and administration. However, separate security regulations and orders should not be issued when the host has issued security regulations and orders that afford protection to the DLA activity.
</P>
<P>(d) Detailed physical security and emergency plans developed in conjunction with these security regulations and orders will be as prescribed by DLAM 5710.1, Physical Security Manual, and DLA War and Emergency Support Plan (WESP), part II, Annex A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.3" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.3   Background.</HEAD>
<P>Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 (appendix A) authorizes the Secretary of Defense to designate military commanders to promulgate or approve regulations and orders for the protection of property and places under their command. DoD Directive 5200.8 designates military commanders of Army, Navy, Air Force, and Defense Agency activities as having authority to promulgate regulations and orders pursuant to the Internal Security Act of 1950. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.4" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.4   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>HQ DLA.</I> (1) The Director, DLA/Deputy Director/Deputy Director, CAS will issue necessary security regulations and orders for PLFAs headed by civilians.
</P>
<P>(2) The Command Security Officer, DLA (DLA-T) will:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide technical staff guidance on the issuance of security regulations and orders.
</P>
<P>(ii) Keep the Director, DLA informed of violations of regulations/orders as reported.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Field Activities.</I> (1) The Heads of Primary Level Field Activities will:
</P>
<P>(i) Publish a physical security plan which provides proper and economical use of personnel and equipment to prevent or minimize loss or damage from theft, espionage, sabotage, and other criminal or disruptive activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Report violations of security regulations and orders to HQ DLA, ATTN: DLA-T, in accordance with DLAR 5705.1, Reporting of Security and Criminal Violations.
</P>
<P>(2) The Military Heads of DLA field activities will issue security regulations and orders as necessary for the protection of places and property under their jurisdiction pursuant to the provisions of this part 1292 and other pertinent directives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.5" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.5   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Security regulations and orders will be promulgated by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Written directives of the activity Head.
</P>
<P>(2) Signs and similar media.
</P>
<P>(3) Orally, when required by a contingency/emergency.
</P>
<P>(b) Written directives and orders will contain so much of the following statement as is pertinent: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This order (directive, bulletin, etc.) is issued pursuant to section 21, Internal Security Act of 1950, 50 U.S.C. 797, DoD Directive 5200.8, DLAR 5710.1, (directive issued by the Head of a DLA field activity subordinate to HQ DLA).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Signs used as the sole vehicle for issuing a security regulation or order must contain a recitation of the authority under which issued and the title of the authorized official who issued the regulation or order. DLAM 5710.1, chapter 3, contains instructions on the exact wording of such signs.
</P>
<P>(d) Oral orders will include a statement which clearly indicates the authority for issuance similar to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Written security orders and regulations will be posted in conspicuous and appropriate places to ensure widest dissemination. The posting of a general security regulation/order, or a listing of applicable directives, will suffice provided it cites the authority to issue such directive. The posting of voluminous, individual security regulations and orders will be avoided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.4.0.1.6.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1292—Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950
</HEAD>
<FP><I>797. Security regulations and orders; penalty for violation</I>
</FP>
<P>(a) Whoever willfully shall violate any such regulation or order as, pursuant to lawful authority, shall be or has been promulgated or approved by the Secretary of Defense, or by any military commander designated by the Secretary of Defense, or by the Director of the National Advisory Committee for Aeronautics, for the protection or security of military or naval aircraft, airports, airport facilities, vessels, harbors, ports, piers, waterfront facilities, bases, forts, posts, laboratories, stations, vehicles, equipment, explosives, or other property or places subject to the jurisdiction, administration, or in the custody of the Department of Defense, any Department or agency of which said Department consists, or any officer or employee of said Department or agency, or of the National Advisory Committee for Aeronautics or any officer or employee thereof, relating to fire hazards, fire protection, lighting, machinery, guard service, disrepair, disuse or other unsatisfactory conditions thereon, or the ingress thereto or egress or removal of persons therefrom, or otherwise providing for safeguarding the same against destruction, loss, or injury by accident or by enemy action, sabotage or other subversive actions, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be liable to a fine of not to exceed $5,000 or to imprisonment for not more than one year or both.
</P>
<P>(b) Every such regulation or order shall be posted in conspicuous and appropriate places. Sept. 23, 1950, c. 1024, Title I, Par. 21, 64 Stat. 1005.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1293-1299" NODE="32:6.2.1.16.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1293-1299 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVI" NODE="32:6.2.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVI—SELECTIVE SERVICE SYSTEM</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1600-1601" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1600-1601 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1602" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1602—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4643, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1602.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.1   Definitions to govern.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in section 16 of the Military Selective Service Act, and the definitions contained in this part shall govern in the interpretation of the regulations of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.2   Administrative classification.</HEAD>
<P>A reclassification action relating to a registrant's claim for Class 1-C, 1-D-D, 1-D-E, 1-H, 1-O-S, 1-W, 3-A-S, 4-A-A, 4-A, 4-B, 4-C, 4-F, 4-G, 4-T, or 4-W. These classes shall be identified as administrative classes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.3   Aliens and nationals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>alien</I> means any person who is not a citizen or national of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>national of the United States</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A citizen of the United States, or
</P>
<P>(2) A person, though not a citizen of the United States, who owes allegiance to the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.4   Area office.</HEAD>
<P>The Selective Service Office which is responsible for all administrative and operational support for the one or more local boards within its jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.5   Area office staff.</HEAD>
<P>The compensated employees, civilian and military, of the Selective Service System employed in an area office will be referred to as the area office staff.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.6   Board.</HEAD>
<P>The word <I>board</I> when used alone, unless the context otherwise indicates, includes a local board, district appeal board, and the National Appeal Board and panels thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.7   Classification.</HEAD>
<P>Classification is the exercise of the power to determine claims or questions with respect to inclusion for or exemption or deferment from training and service under Selective Service Law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.8   Classifying authority.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>classifying authority</I> refers to any official or board who is authorized in § 1633.1 to classify a registrant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.9   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified the period of days allowed a registrant or other person to perform any act or duty required of him shall be counted as beginning on the day following that on which the notice is issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.10   County.</HEAD>
<P>The word <I>county</I> includes, where applicable, counties, independent cities, and similar subdivisions, such as the independent cities of Virginia and the parishes of Louisiana.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.11   District appeal board.</HEAD>
<P>A district appeal board or a panel thereof of the Selective Service System is a group of not less than three civilian members appointed by the President to act on cases of registrants in accordance with the provisions of parts 1651 and 1656 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 20543, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.12   Governor.</HEAD>
<P>The word <I>Governor</I> includes, where applicable, the Governor of each of the States of the United States, the Mayor of the District of Columbia, the Governor of Puerto Rico, the Governor of the Virgin Islands, and the Governor of Guam.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.13" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.13   Judgmental Classification.</HEAD>
<P>A classification action relating to a registrant's claim for Class 1-A-O, 1-O, 2-D, 3-A, or 4-D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.14" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.14   Local board.</HEAD>
<P>A local board or a panel thereof of the Selective Service System is a group of not less than three civilian members appointed by the President after nomination by a Governor to act on cases of registrants in accord with the provisions of part 1648 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.15" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.15   Local board of jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>The local board of jurisdiction is the local board to which a registrant is assigned and which has authority, in accord with the provisions of this chapter, to determine his claim or to issue to him an order. <I>His local board</I> and <I>registrant's local board</I> refer to the local board of jurisdiction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.16" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.16   MEPS.</HEAD>
<P>A Military Entrance Processing Station is a military installation to which registrants are ordered to report for examination or induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.17" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.17   Military service.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>military service</I> includes service in the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, and the Coast Guard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.18" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.18   National Appeal Board.</HEAD>
<P>The National Appeal Board or a panel thereof of the Selective Service System is a group of not less than three civilian members appointed by the President to act on cases of registrants in accord with the provisions of part 1653 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.19" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.19   Numbers.</HEAD>
<P>Cardinal numbers may be expressed by Arabic or Roman symbols.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.20" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.20   Registrant.</HEAD>
<P>A <I>registrant</I> is a person registered under the Selective Service Law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.21" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.21   Selective Service Law.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Selective Service Law</I> includes the Military Selective Service Act, all rules and regulations issued thereunder, and Proclamations of the President pertaining to registration under that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.22" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.22   Singular and plural.</HEAD>
<P>Words importing the singular number shall include the plural number, and words importing the plural number shall include the singular, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.23" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.23   State.</HEAD>
<P>The word <I>State</I> includes, where applicable, the several States of the United States, the City of New York, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and Guam.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.24" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.24   Claim.</HEAD>
<P>A <I>claim</I> is a request for postponement of induction or classification into a class other than 1-A.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.25" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.2.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.25   Director.</HEAD>
<P><I>Director</I> is the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1605" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1605—SELECTIVE SERVICE SYSTEM ORGANIZATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4644, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>National Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.1   Director of Selective Service.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service shall be responsible directly to the President. The Director of Selective Service is hereby authorized and directed:
</P>
<P>(a) To prescribe such rules and regulations as he shall deem necessary for the administration of the Selective Service System, the conduct of its officers and employees, the distribution and performance of its business, and the custody, use, and preservation of its records, papers, and property.
</P>
<P>(b) To issue such public notices, orders, and instructions, as shall be necessary for carrying out the functions of the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P>(c) To obligate and authorize expenditures from funds appropriated for carrying out the functions of the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P>(d) To appoint and to fix, in accordance with provisions of chapter 51 and subchapter III of chapter 53 of title 5 U.S.C., relating to classification and General Schedule pay rates, the compensation of such officers, agents, and employees as shall be necessary for carrying out the functions of the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P>(e) To procure such space as he may deem necessary for carrying out the functions of the Selective Service System by lease pursuant to existing statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) To obtain by purchase, loan, or gift such equipment, supplies, printing, binding, and blankbook work for the Selective Service System as he may deem necessary to carry out the functions of the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P>(g) To perform such other duties as shall be required of him under the Selective Service Law or which may be delegated to him by the President.
</P>
<P>(h) To delegate any of his authority to such officers, agents, or persons as he may designate and to provide for the subdelegation of any such authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.6   National Appeal Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There is hereby created and established within the Selective Service System a civilian agency of appeal which shall be known as the National Appeal Board. The President shall appoint not less than three members to the National Appeal Board, and he shall designate one member as chairman.
</P>
<P>(b) The President shall appoint members of the National Appeal Board from among citizens of the United States who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are not active or retired members of the Armed Forces or any reserve component thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) Have not served as a member of the National Appeal Board for a period of more than five years;
</P>
<P>(3) Are at least 18 years of age;
</P>
<P>(4) Are able to devote sufficient time to duties of the Board; and
</P>
<P>(5) Are willing to fairly and uniformly apply Selective Service Law.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A majority of the members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business, and a majority of the members present at any meeting at which a quorum is present, shall decide any question.
</P>
<P>(2) The National Appeal Board may sit <I>en banc,</I> or upon the request of the Director or as determined by the chairman of the National Appeal Board, in panels, each panel to consist of at least three members. The Chairman of the National Appeal Board shall designate the members of each panel and he shall designate one member of each panel as chairman. A majority of the members of a panel shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business, and a majority of the members present at any meeting at which a quorum is present, shall decide any question. Each panel of the National Appeal Board shall have full authority to act on all cases assigned to it.
</P>
<P>(3) The National Appeal Board or a panel thereof shall hold meetings in Washington, DC, and upon request of the Director or as determined by the Chairman of the National Appeal Board, at any other place.
</P>
<P>(d) The National Appeal Board or panel thereof shall classify each registrant whose classification has been appealed to the President under part 1653 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) No member of the National Appeal Board shall act on the case of a registrant who is the member's first cousin or closer relation either by blood, marriage, or adoption, or who is the member's employer, employee or fellow employee or stands in the relationship of superior or subordinate of the member in connection with any employment, or is a partner or close business associate of the member, or is a fellow member or employee of the National Appeal Board. A member of the National Appeal Board must disqualify himself in any matter in which we would be restricted for any reason in making an impartial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) Each member of the National Appeal Board while on the business of the National Appeal Board away from his home or regular place of business shall receive actual travel expenses and per diem in lieu of subsistence in accordance with rates established by Federal Travel Regulations.
</P>
<P>(g) The Director shall pay the expenses of the members of the National Appeal Board in accord with applicable Federal Travel Regulations and shall furnish that Board and its panels necessary personnel, suitable office space, necessary facilities and services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8890, Mar. 20, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Region Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.7   Region Manager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the direction and control of the Director of Selective Service, the Region Manager of Selective Service for each region shall be in immediate charge of the Region Headquarters and shall be responsible for carrying out the region functions of the Selective Service System in the various States assigned to the region.
</P>
<P>(b) The Region Manager will perform such duties as are prescribed by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.8   Staff of Region Headquarters for Selective Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to applicable law, and within the limits of available funds, the staff of each region for Selective Service shall consist of as many officers, either military or civilian, as shall be authorized by the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with limitations imposed by the Director of Selective Service, the Region Manager is authorized to appoint such civilian personnel as he considers are required in the operation of the Region Headquarters.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>State Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.11   Governor.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor is authorized to recommend a person to be appointed by the President as State Director of Selective Service for his State, who shall represent the Governor in all Selective Service matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.12   State Director of Selective Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State Director of Selective Service for each State, subject to the direction and control of the Director of Selective Service, shall be in immediate charge of the State Headquarters for Selective Service in his State. The State Headquarters for Selective Service shall be an office of record for Selective Service operations only, and no records other than Selective Service records shall be maintained in such office.
</P>
<P>(b) The State Director of Selective Service will perform such duties as are prescribed by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.13" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.13   Staff of State Headquarters for Selective Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to applicable law and within the limits of available funds, the staff of each State Headquarters for Selective Service shall consist of as many officers, either military or civilian, as shall be authorized by the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with limitations imposed by the Director of Selective Service, the State Director of Selective Service is authorized to appoint such civilian personnel as he considers are required in the operation of the State Headquarters for Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.14" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.14   State Director of Selective Service for New York City.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor of the State of New York is authorized to recommend a person to be appointed by the President as State Director of Selective Service for New York City, who shall represent the Governor in all Selective Service matters within the City of New York. Subject to the direction and control of the Director of Selective Service, the State Director of Selective Service for New York City shall be in immediate charge of the State Headquarters for Selective Service for New York City and shall perform such duties as are prescribed by the Director of Selective Service. The State Director of Selective Service for the State of New York shall have no jurisdiction in Selective Service matters within the City of New York. The State headquarters of Selective Service for New York City shall be an office of record for Selective Service operations only, and no records other than Selective Service records shall be maintained in such office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>District Appeal Boards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.21" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.21   Area.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service shall establish one or more district appeal boards in each of the Federal Judicial Districts in the several states of the United States, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. The Director of Selective Service may establish panels of appeal boards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.22" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.22   Composition and appointment of district appeal boards.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service will prescribe the number of members for the district appeal boards. The President shall appoint members of district appeal boards from among citizens of the United States who are residents of the area for which the respective boards have jurisdiction. The Director of Selective Service shall furnish necessary personnel, suitable office space, facilities and services to support each district appeal board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.23" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.23   Designation.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service shall assign each district appeal board within a Federal Judicial District a specific identification by which it shall be known. If a district appeal board consists of more than one panel, each panel shall have a specific identifying number. Such numbers shall be assigned in numerical sequence beginning with numeral 1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.24" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.24   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The district appeal board shall have jurisdiction to review and to affirm or change any local board decision appealed to it when:
</P>
<P>(1) An appeal is submitted by a registrant from a local board in its area; or
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal is submitted to it from a local board not in the appeal board area by a registrant whose principal place of employment or residence is located within the jurisdiction of the appeal board; or
</P>
<P>(3) An appeal is submitted or transferred to it by the Director of Selective Service to assure the fair and equitable administration of the Law.
</P>
<P>(b) The district appeal board shall have jurisdiction to review and to affirm or change any Alternative Service Office Manager decision appealed to it by an Alternative Service Worker pursuant to part 1656 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4644, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 69 FR 20543, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.25" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.25   Disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No member of a district appeal board shall act on the case of a registrant who is the member's first cousin or closer relation, either by blood, marriage, or adoption, or who is the member's employer, employee, or fellow employee, or stands in the relationship of superior or subordinate of the member in connection with any employment, or is a partner or close business associate of the member, or is a fellow member or employee of the board.
</P>
<P>(b) A member of a district appeal board must disqualify himself in any matter in which he would be restricted for any reason in making an impartial decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a quorum of the district appeal board or a panel thereof cannot act on the case of a registrant that it has been assigned, and there is no other panel of the district appeal board to which the case may be transferred, the district appeal board shall transmit such case to the director of Selective Service for transfer to another district appeal board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.26" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.26   Organization and meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Each district appeal board, or panel thereof, shall elect a chairman and a vice-chairman at least every two years. A majority of the members of the board when present at any meeting shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. A majority of the members present at any meeting at which a quorum is present shall decide any question. Every member, unless disqualified, shall vote on every question or classification. In case of a tie vote on a question or classification, the board shall postpone action until the next meeting. If the question or classification remains unresolved at the next meeting, the file will be transferred for classification in accord with § 1605.25(c). If any member is absent so long as to hamper the work of the board, the chairman, a member of the board or panel concerned, or an area office employee shall report that fact to the Director of Selective Service and such action as appropriate shall be taken. If, through death, resignation, or other causes, the membership of the board falls below the prescribed number of members, the board or panel shall continue to function, provided a quorum of the prescribed membership is present at each official meeting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.27" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.27   Minutes of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>A Selective Service compensated employee will keep the minutes of each appeal board meeting. In the absence of a compensated employee the minutes will be kept by an appeal board member.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.28" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.4.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.28   Signing official papers.</HEAD>
<P>Official documents issued and minutes of meetings maintained by a district appeal board may be signed by any member of the board, or by any compensated employee of the Selective Service System authorized to perform administrative duties for the board, except when otherwise prescribed by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Local Boards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.51" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.51   Area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service shall divide each State into local board areas and establish local boards. There shall be at least one local board in each county except where the Director of Selective Service establishes an intercounty board. When more than one local board is established within the same geographical jurisdiction, registrants residing in that area will be assigned among the boards as prescribed by the Director of Selective Service. The Director of Selective Service may establish panels of local boards.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4644, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.52" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.52   Composition of local boards.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service shall prescribe the number of members of local boards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.53" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.53   Designation.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service shall assign each local board within a State a specific identifying number by which it shall be known. Such identifying numbers shall be assigned in numerical sequence beginning with the numeral 1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.54" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.54   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>The local board shall have full authority to perform all acts within its jurisdiction authorized by law, to include the acting on any claim presented to it when:
</P>
<P>(a) The claim is submitted by a registrant who is assigned to it; or
</P>
<P>(b) The claim is transferred to it from another board in the manner provided in these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(c) The claim is submitted or tranferred to it by the Director of Selective Service to assure the fair and equitable administration of the Law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.55" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.55   Disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No member of a local board shall act on the case of a registrant who is the member's first cousin or closer relation, either by blood, marriage, or adoption, or who is the member's employer, employee, or fellow employee, or stands in the relationship of superior or subordinate of the member in connection with any employment, or is a partner or close business associate of the member, or a fellow member or employee of the area office.
</P>
<P>(b) A member of the local board must disqualify himself in any matter in which he would be restricted, for any reason, in making an impartial decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a quorum of a local board cannot act on the case of a registrant, the area office supervisor shall cause such case to be transferred to another board within the area office. In those instances where only one board exists in an area office, the case should be transmitted to the nearest area office for transfer to a board under its jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.56" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.56   Organization and meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Each local board shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman at least every two years. A majority of the membership of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. A majority of the members present at any meeting at which a quorum is present shall decide any question or classification. Every member present, unless disqualified, shall vote on every question or classification. In case of a tie vote on any question or classification, the board shall postpone action on the question or classification until it can be decided by a majority vote at the next meeting. If the question or classification remains unresolved at the next meeting, the file will be transferred for classification in accord with § 1605.55(c). If any member is absent so long as to hamper the work of the board, the chairman, a member of the board, or a Selective Service compensated employee shall report that fact to the Director of Selective Service and appropriate action shall be taken. If through death, resignation, or other cause, the membership of a board falls below the prescribed number, it shall continue to function provided a quorum of the prescribed membership is present at each official meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.58" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.58   Minutes of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>A compensated employee of the appropriate area office will keep the minutes of each meeting of a local board. In the absence of a compensated employee the minutes will be kept by a board member. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.59" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.5.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.59   Signing official papers.</HEAD>
<P>Official papers issued by a local board may be signed by any member of the board or compensated employee of the area office, or any compensated employee of the Selective Service System whose official duties require him to perform administrative duties at the area office except when otherwise prescribed by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Area Office Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.60" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.6.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.60   Area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service shall prescribe the number of area offices to be established and shall define the boundaries thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The area office shall be an office of record and responsible for all administrative and operational support of the one or more local boards within its jurisdiction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.61" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.6.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.61   Staff of area offices for selective service.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to applicable law and within the limits of available funds, the staff of each area office shall consist of as many compensated employees, either military or civilian, as shall be authorized by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpreters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.81" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.3.0.7.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.81   Interpreters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The local board, district appeal board and the National Selective Service Appeal Board are authorized to use interpreters when necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The following oath shall be administered by a member of the board or a compensated employee of the System to an interpreter each time he or she interprets:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Do you swear (or affirm) that you will truly interpret in the matter now in hearing?</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Any interpreter who fails to respond in the affirmative shall not be permitted to function in this capacity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4644, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1609" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1609—UNCOMPENSATED PERSONNEL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4647, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1609.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.1   Uncompensated positions.</HEAD>
<P>Members of local boards, district appeal boards, and all other persons volunteering their services to assist in the administration of the Selective Service Law shall be uncompensated. No person serving without compensation shall accept remuneration from any source for services rendered in connection with Selective Service matters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.2   Citizenship.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall be appointed to any uncompensated position in the Selective Service System who is not a citizen of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.3   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The President, upon the recommendation of the respective Governors, will consider for appointment as a member of a local board, any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is within the age limits prescribed by the Military Selective Service Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a citizen of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is a resident of the county in which the local board has jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is not an active or retired member of the Armed Forces or any reserve component thereof; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has not served as a member of a Selective Service board for a period of more than 20 years; and
</P>
<P>(6) Is able to perform such duties as necessary during standby status; and
</P>
<P>(7) Is able to devote sufficient time to board affairs; and
</P>
<P>(8) Is willing to fairly and uniformly apply Selective Service Law.
</P>
<P>(b) The President, upon the recommendation of the Director of Selective Service, will consider for appointment as a member of a district appeal board any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is within the age limits prescribed by the Military Selective Service Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a citizen of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is a resident of the Federal Judicial District in which the district appeal board has jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is not an active or retired member of the Armed Forces or any reserve component thereof; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has not served as a member of a Selective Service board for a period of more than 20 years; and
</P>
<P>(6) Is able to perform such duties as necessary during standby status; and
</P>
<P>(7) Is able to devote sufficient time to the district appeal board affairs; and
</P>
<P>(8) Is willing to fairly and uniformly apply Selective Service Law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.4   Oath of office.</HEAD>
<P>Every person who undertakes to render voluntary uncompensated service in the administration of the Selective Service Law shall execute an Oath of Office and Waiver of Pay before he enters upon his duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.5   Suspension.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service may suspend from duty any uncompensated person engaged in the administration of the Selective Service Law pending his consideration of the advisability of removing such person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.6   Removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service may remove any uncompensated person engaged in the administration of the Selective Service Law.
</P>
<P>(b) The Governor may recommend to the Director of Selective Service the removal, for cause, of the State Director or any uncompensated person engaged in the administration of the Selective Service Law in his State. The Director of Selective Service shall make such investigation of the Governor's recommendation as he deems necessary, and upon completion of his investigation, he shall take such action as he deems proper.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1609.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.4.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1609.7   Use of information.</HEAD>
<P>Any information or records obtained by compensated or uncompensated personnel during the performance of their official duties, including proceedings before the boards, shall be restricted to official use by the personnel of the Selective Service System except as specifically authorized by law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1615" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1615—ADMINISTRATION OF REGISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623, 36 FR 19963, 3 CFR, 1971-1975 Comp., p. 614, as amended by E.O. 12608, 52 FR 34617, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 245.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 48130, July 18, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1615.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.1   Registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registration under selective service law consists of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Completing a registration card or other method of registration prescribed by the Director of Selective Service by a person required to register; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The recording of the registration information furnished by the registrant in the records (master computer file) of the Selective Service System. Registration is completed when both of these actions have been accomplished.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of Selective Service will furnish to each registrant a verification notice that includes a copy of the information pertaining to his registration that has been recorded in the records of the Selective Service System together with a correction form. If the information is correct, the registrant should take no action. If the information is incorrect, the registrant should forthwith furnish the correct information to the Director of Selective Service. If the registrant does not receive the verification notice within 90 days after he completed a method of registration prescribed by the Director, he shall advise in writing the Selective Service System, P.O. Box 94638, Palatine, IL 60094-4638. 
</P>
<P>(c) The methods of registration prescribed by the Director include completing a Selective Service Registration Card at a classified Post Office, registration on the Selective Service Internet web site (<I>http://www.sss.gov</I>), telephonic registration, registration on approved Federal and State Government forms, registration through high school and college registrars, and Selective Service remainder mailback card.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 48130, July 18, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 47670, Aug. 3, 2000; 65 FR 60101, Oct. 10, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.2   Responsibility of Director of Selective Service in registration.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the President by proclamation or other public notice fixes a day or days for registration, the Director of Selective Service shall take the necessary steps to prepare for registration and, on the day or days fixed, shall supervise the registration of those persons required to present themselves for and submit to registration. The Director of Selective Service shall also arrange for and supervise the registration of those persons who present themselves for registration at times other than on the day or days fixed for any registration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.3   Registration procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Persons required by selective service law and the Proclamation of the President to register shall be registered in accord with procedures prescribed by the Director of Selective Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.4   Duty of persons required to register.</HEAD>
<P>A person required by selective service law to register has the duty: 
</P>
<P>(a) To complete the registration process by a method prescribed by the Director of Selective Service and to record thereon his name, date of birth, sex, Social Security Account Number (SSAN), current mailing address, permanent residence, telephone number, date signed, and signature, if requested; and 
</P>
<P>(b) To submit for inspection, upon request, evidence of his identity to a person authorized to accept the registration information. Evidence of identity may be a birth certificate, motor vehicle operator's license, student's identification card, United States Passport, or a similar document. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 48130, July 18, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 60101, Oct. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.5   Persons not to be registered.</HEAD>
<P>No person who is not required by selective service law or the Proclamation of the President to register shall be registered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.6   Selective service number.</HEAD>
<P>Every registrant shall be given a selective service number. The Social Security Account Number will not be used for this purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.7   Evidence of registration.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service Shall issue to each registrant written evidence of his registration. The Director of Selective Service will replace that evidence upon written request of the registrant, but such request will not be granted more often than once in any period of six months. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.8   Cancellation of registration.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service may cancel the registration of any particular registrant or of a registrant who comes within a specified group of registrants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.5.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.9   Registration card or form.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of these regulations, the terms Registration Card and Registration Form are synonomous. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1618" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1618—NOTICE TO REGISTRANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1618.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.6.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1618.1   Abandonment of rights or privileges.</HEAD>
<P>If a registrant fails to claim and exercise any right or privilege within the required time, he shall be deemed to have abandoned the right or privilege unless the Director of Selective Service, for good cause, waives the time limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1618.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.6.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1618.2   Filing of documents.</HEAD>
<P>A document other than a registration card received by an element of the Selective Service System will be considered to have been filed on the date that it is received: <I>Provided,</I> That a document that is received which was transmitted by the United States Postal Service (USPS) and was enclosed in a cover that bears a legible USPS postmark date will be deemed to have been received on that date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1618.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.6.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1618.4   Transmission of orders and other official papers to registrants.</HEAD>
<P>Personnel of the Selective Service System will transmit orders or other official papers addressed to a registrant by handing them to him personally or mailing them to him to the current mailing address last reported by him in writing to the Selective Service System.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1621" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1621—DUTY OF REGISTRANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1621.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.7.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.1   Reporting by registrants of their current status.</HEAD>
<P>Until otherwise notified by the Director of Selective Service, it is the duty of every registrant who registered after July 1, 1980:
</P>
<P>(a) To notify the System within 10 days of any change in the following items of information that he provided on his registration form: name, current mailing address and permanent residence address; and 
</P>
<P>(b) To submit to the classifying authority, all information concerning his status within 10 days after the date on which the classifying authority mails him a request therefor, or within such longer period as may be fixed by the classifying authority; and
</P>
<P>(c) Who has a postponement of induction, or has been deferred or exempted from training and service, to notify the System immediately of any changes in facts or circumstances relating to the postponement, deferment or exemption; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Who has a postponement of examination, to notify the System immediately of any changes in facts or circumstances relating to the postponement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24454, July 1, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1621.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.7.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.2   Duty to report for and submit to induction.</HEAD>
<P>When the Director of Selective Service orders a registrant for induction, it shall be the duty of the registrant to report for and submit to induction at the time and place ordered unless the order has been canceled. If the time when the registrant is ordered to report for induction is postponed, it shall be the continuing duty of the registrant to report for and submit to induction at such time and place as he may be reordered. Regardless of the time when or the circumstances under which a registrant fails to report for induction when it is his duty to do so, it shall thereafter be his continuing duty from day to day to report for and submit to induction at the place specified in the order to report for induction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1621.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.7.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.3   Duty to report for and submit to examination.</HEAD>
<P>When the Director orders a registrant for examination, it shall be the duty of the registrant to report for and submit to examination at the time and place ordered unless the order has been canceled. If the time when the registrant is ordered to report for examination is postponed, it shall be the continuing duty of the registrant to report for and submit to examination at such time and place as he may be reordered. Regardless of the time when, or the circumstances under which a registrant fails to report for examination when it is his duty to do so, it shall thereafter be his continuing duty from day to day to report for and submit to examination at the place specified in the order to report for examination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8890, Mar. 20, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1624" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1624—INDUCTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1624.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.1   Random selection procedures for induction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service shall from time to time establish a random selection sequence for induction by a drawing to be conducted in the place and on a date the Director shall fix. The random selection method shall use 365 days, or when appropriate, 366 days to represent the birthdays (month and day only) of all registrants who, during the specified calendar year(s) attain their 18th year of birth. The drawing, commencing with the first day selected, and continuing until all 365 days or, when appropriate 366 days are drawn, shall be accomplished impartially. The random sequence number thus determined for any registrant shall apply to him so long as he remains subject to induction for military training and service by random selection.
</P>
<P>(b) The date of birth of the registrant that appears on his Selective Service Registration Record on the day before the lottery is conducted to establish his random selection sequence will be conclusive as to his date of birth in all matters pertaining to his relations with the Selective Service System.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.2   Issuance of induction orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service, upon receipt of a call from the Secretary of Defense for persons to be inducted into the Armed Forces in accord with § 1624.4, shall issue orders to report for induction to registrants whose registration records are in the master computer file at the beginning of any day on which orders are issued. Orders shall be issued in such numbers and at such times as will assure that such call or requisition is filled. The names contained in the Selective Service System data base on a given day will constitute the valid list of registrants from which induction orders can be issued on that day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.3   Age selection groups.</HEAD>
<P>Age selection groups are established as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The age 20 selection group for each calendar year consists of registrants who have attained or will attain the age of 20 in that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The age 21 selection group for each calendar year consists of registrants who have attained or will attain the age of 21 in that year and, in like manner, each age selection group will be so designated through age group 25.
</P>
<P>(c) The age 26 through 34 selection groups consist of registrants who meet the following three criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) They have attained or will attain the age of 26 through 34, respectively, during the calendar year; <I>and</I>
</P>
<P>(2) They have been previously ordered to report for induction but have not been inducted; <I>and</I>
</P>
<P>(3) They have been classified in one of the following classes:
</P>
<P>(i) Class 1-D-D.
</P>
<P>(ii) Class 2-D.
</P>
<P>(iii) Class 3-A.
</P>
<P>(iv) Class 4-B.
</P>
<P>(v) Class 4-F.
</P>
<P>(d) The age 19 selection group for each calendar year consists of registrants who have attained the age of 19 in that year.
</P>
<P>(e) The age 18 selection group shall consist of registrants who have attained the age of 18 years and six months and who have not attained the age of 19 years in the order of their dates of birth with the oldest being selected first. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.4   Selection and/or rescheduling of registrants for induction.</HEAD>
<P>A registrant in Class 1-A or a registrant subsequently classified 1-A-0 shall be selected and ordered or rescheduled to report for induction in the following categories and in the order indicated: <I>Provided,</I> That a registrant who has been identified in accord with the procedures prescribed by the Director of Selective Service as one who will become a member of one of the following categories on the next January 1, may, prior to January 1, be selected and ordered to report for induction on a date after January 1 as a member of such category.
</P>
<P>(a) Volunteers for induction in the order in which they volunteered.
</P>
<P>(b) Registrants whose postponements have expired in the order of expiration.
</P>
<P>(c) Registrants who previously have been ordered to report for induction and whose exemptions or deferments have expired, in the order of their random sequence number (RSN) established by random selection procedures in accord with § 1624.1
</P>
<P>(d) Registrants in the age 20 selection group for the current calendar year in the order of their random sequence number (RSN) established by random selection procedures in accord with § 1624.1.
</P>
<P>(e) Registrants in each succeeding age selection group commencing with age 21 selection group and terminating with the age 34 selection group, in turn, within the group, in the order of their random sequence number (RSN) established by random selection procedures in accord with § 1624.1.
</P>
<P>(f) Registrants in the age 19 selection group for the current calendar year in the order of their random sequence number (RSN) established by random selection procedures in accord with § 1624.1.
</P>
<P>(g) Registrants in the age 18 year and six months selection group and who have not attained the age of 19 in the order of their date of birth with the oldest being selected first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.5   Order to report for induction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately upon determining which persons are to be ordered for induction, the Director of Selective Service shall issue to each person selected an Order to Report for Induction. The order will be sent to the current address most recently provided by the registrant to the Selective Service System. The date specified to report for induction shall be at least 10 days after the date on which the Order to Report for Induction is issued. The filing of a claim for reclassification in accord with § 1633.2 of this chapter delays the date the registrant is required to report for induction until not earlier than the tenth day after the claim is determined to have been abandoned or is finally determined is finally determined in accord with the provisions of this chapter. A claim is finally determined when the registrant does not have the right to appeal the last classification action with respect to the claim or he fails to exercise his right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who has been ordered for induction who is distant from the address to which the order was sent must either report at the time and place specified in the order, or voluntarily submit himself for induction processing at another MEPS on or before the day that he was required to report in accordance with his induction order.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of Selective Service may direct the cancellation of any Order to Report for Induction at any time.
</P>
<P>(d) Any Order to Report for Induction issued by the Director of Selective Service to a registrant who is an alien, who has not resided in the United States for one year will be void. Such order will be deemed only to be an order to produce evidence of his status. When an alien registrant has been within the United States for two or more periods (including periods before his registration) and the total of such periods equals one year, he shall be deemed to have resided in the United States for one year. In computing the length of such periods, any portion of one day shall be counted as a day. Upon establishing a one year residency, the alien registrant will be assigned to the age selection group corresponding to his age.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.6   Postponement of induction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of the death of a member of the registrant's immediate family, extreme emergency involving a member of the registrant's immediate family, serious illness or injury of the registrant, or other emergency beyond the registrant's control, the Director, after the Order to Report for Induction has been issued, may postpone for a specific time the date when such registrant shall be required to report. The period of postponement shall not exceed 60 days from the date of the induction order. When necessary, the Director may grant one further postponement, but the total postponement shall not exceed 90 days from the reporting date on the induction order.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any registrant who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction at a high school or similar institution of learning and is issued an order to report for induction shall, upon presentation of appropriate facts in the manner prescribed by the Director of Selective Service, have his induction postponed:
</P>
<P>(i) Until the time of his graduation therefrom; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Until he attains the twentieth anniversary of his birth; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Until the end of his last academic year, even if he has attained the twentieth anniversary of his birth; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Until he ceases satisfactorily to pursue such course of instruction, whichever is the earliest.
</P>
<P>(2) Any registrant who, while satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction at a college, university, or similar institution of learning, is ordered to report for induction shall, upon the presentation of appropriate facts in the manner prescribed by the Director of Selective Service, have his induction postponed:
</P>
<P>(i) Until the end of the semester or term, or in the case of his last academic year, the end of the academic year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Until he ceases to satisfactorily pursue such course of instruction, whichever is the earlier.
</P>
<P>(3) A postponement authorized by this subsection may be terminated by the Director of Selective Service for cause upon no less than 10 days notice to the registrant.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director of Selective Service may authorize a delay of induction for any registrant whose date of induction conflicts with a religious holiday historically observed by a recognized church, religious sect or religious organization of which he is a member. Any registrant so delayed shall report for induction on the next business day following the religious holiday.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) The Director of Selective Service may authorize a postponement of induction to a registrant when:
</P>
<P>(1) The registrant qualifies and is scheduled for a State or National examination in a profession or occupation which requires certification before being authorized to engage in the practice of that profession or occupation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The registrant has been accepted in the next succeeding class as a cadet at the U.S. Military Academy, or the U.S. Air Force Academy, or the U.S. Coast Guard Academy; or as a midshipman at the U.S. Naval Academy, or the U.S. Merchant Marine Academy; or
</P>
<P>(3) The registrant is a ROTC applicant who has been designated to participate in the next succeeding ROTC field training program prior to enrollment in the ROTC; or
</P>
<P>(4) The registrant has been accepted as a ROTC scholarship student in the next succeeding ROTC program at a college or university.
</P>
<P>(g) The Director of Selective Service shall issue to each registrant whose induction is postponed a written notice thereof.
</P>
<P>(h) No registrant whose induction has been postponed shall be inducted into the Armed Forces during the period of any such postponement. A postponement of induction shall not render invalid the Order to Report for Induction which has been issued to the registrant, but shall operate only to postpone the reporting date, and the registrant shall report on the new date scheduled without having issued to him a new Order to Report for Induction.
</P>
<P>(i) Any registrant receiving a postponement under the provisions of this section, shall, after the expiration of such postponement, be rescheduled to report for induction at the place to which he was originally ordered.
</P>
<P>(j) The initial determination of claims for all postponements is made by area office compensated personnel. After a denial of a claim for a student postponement, the registrant may request the local board to consider the claim. Such registrant shall be afforded an opportunity to appeal before the board in accord with the procedures of §§ 1648.4 and 1648.5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4648, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.7   Expiration of deferment or exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall issue an Order to Report for Induction to a registrant who is liable for induction whenever his deferment or exemption expires.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.8   Transfer for induction.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Selective Service may direct that a registrant or registrants in a specified group of registrants be transferred for induction to such MEPS as he may designate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.9   Induction into the Armed Forces.</HEAD>
<P>Registrants in classes 1-A and 1-A-0, who have been ordered for induction and found qualified under standards prescribed by the Secretary of Defense, will be inducted at the MEPS into the Armed Forces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1624.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.8.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1624.10   Order to report for examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service may order any registrant in Class 1-A who has filed a claim for classification in a class other than Class 1-A or whose induction has been postponed, to report for an Armed Forces examination to determine acceptability for military service. The date specified to report for examination shall be at least 7 days after the date on which the Order to Report for Examination is issued. Such registrant will not be inducted until his claim for reclassification has been decided or abandoned.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting date for examination may be postponed for any reason a reporting date for induction may be postponed in accord with § 1624.6 (b), (d) or (f)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) If a registrant fails to report for or complete an examination, the local board will determine that he has abandoned his claim.
</P>
<P>(d) If a registrant is determined not acceptable for military service, he will be reclassified in Class 4-F.
</P>
<P>(e) If a registrant is determined acceptable for military service, the processing of his claim will be completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1627" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1627—VOLUNTEERS FOR INDUCTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4650, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1627.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.9.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.1   Who may volunteer.</HEAD>
<P>Any registrant who has attained the age of 17 years, who has not attained the age of 26 years, and who has not completed his active duty obligation under the Military Selective Service Act, when inductions are authorized, may volunteer for induction into the Armed Forces unless he;
</P>
<P>(a) Is classified in Class 4-F or is eligible for Class 4-F; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Has been found temporarily unacceptable with reexamination believed justified (RBJ) and the period of time specified for his return for examination has not been terminated and the basis for his temporary rejection continues to exist; or
</P>
<P>(c) Is an alien who has not resided in the United States for a period of at least one year; or
</P>
<P>(d) Has not attained the age of 18 years and does not have the consent of his parent or guardian for his induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.9.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.2   Registration of volunteers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person who is required to be registered but who has failed to register volunteers for induction, he shall be registered.
</P>
<P>(b) In registering a volunteer, the area office shall follow the procedure set forth in § 1615.3 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.9.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.3   Classification of volunteers.</HEAD>
<P>When a registrant who is eligible to volunteer files an Application for Voluntary Induction, he shall be classified in Class 1-A and processed for induction. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1630" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1630—CLASSIFICATION RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.,</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4651, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1630.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.2   Classes.</HEAD>
<P>Each registrant shall be classified in one of the classes prescribed in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.10   Class 1-A: Available for unrestricted military service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All registrants available for unrestricted military service shall be in Class 1-A.
</P>
<P>(b) All registrants in the selection groups as determined by the Director of Selective Service are available for unrestricted Military Service, except those determined by a classifying authority to be eligible for exemption or deferment from military service or for noncombatant or alternative service, or who have random sequence numbers (RSNs) determined by the Director not to be required to fill calls by the Secretary of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.11   Class 1-A-0: Conscientious objector available for noncombatant military service only.</HEAD>
<P>In accord with part 1636 of this chapter any registrant shall be palced in Class 1-A-0 who has been found, by reason of religious, ethical, or moral belief, to be conscientiously opposed to participation in combatant military tranining and service in the Armed Forces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.12   Class 1-C: Member of the Armed Forces of the United States, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or the Public Health Service.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 1-C shall be placed:
</P>
<P>(a) Every registrant who is or who becomes by enlistment or appointment, a commissioned officer, a warrant officer, a pay clerk, an enlisted man or an aviation cadet of the Regular Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or the Public Health Service.
</P>
<P>(b) Every registrant who is a cadet, United States Military Academy; or midshipman, United States Naval Academy; or a cadet, United States Air Force Academy; or cadet, United States Coast Guard Academy.
</P>
<P>(c) Every registrant who by induction becomes a member of the Army of the United States, the United States Navy, the United States Marine Corps, the Air Force of the United States, or the United States Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(d) Exclusive of periods for training only, every registrant who is a member of a reserve component of the Armed Forces and is on active duty, and every member of the reserve of the Public Health Service on active duty and assigned to staff the various offices and bureaus of the Public Health Service including the National Institutes of Health, or assigned to the Coast Guard, the Bureau of Prisons of the Department of Justice, Environmental Protection Agency, or the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or who are assigned to assist Indian tribes, groups, bands, or communities pursuant to the Act of August 5, 1954 (68 Stat. 674), as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.13" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.13   Class 1-D-D: Deferment for certain members of a reserve component or student taking military training.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 1-D-D shall be placed any registrant who:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Has been selected for enrollment or continuance in the Senior (entire college level) Army Reserve Officer's Training Corps, or the Air Force Reserve Officer's Training Corps, or the Naval Reserve Officer's Training Corps, or the Naval and Marine Corps officer candidate program of the Navy, or the platoon leader's class of the Marine Corps, or the officer procurement programs of the Coast Guard and the Coast Guard Reserve, or is appointed an ensign, U.S. Naval Reserve while undergoing professional training; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has agreed in writing to accept a commission, if tendered, and to serve subject to order of the Secretary of the military department having jurisdiction over him (or the Secretary of Transportation with respect to the U.S. Coast Guard), not less than 2 years on active duty after receipt of a commission; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Has agreed to remain a member of a regular or reserve component until the eighth anniversary of his receipt of a commission. Such registrant shall remain eligible for Class 1-D-D until completion or termination of the course of instruction and so long thereafter as he continues in a reserve status upon being commissioned except during any period he is eligible for Class 1-C under the provision of § 1630.12; or
</P>
<P>(b) Is a fully qualified and accepted aviation cadet applicant of the Army, Navy, or Air Force, who has signed an agreement of service and is within such numbers as have been designated by the Secretary of Defense. Such registrant shall be retained in Class 1-D-D during the period covered by such agreement but in no case in excess of four months; or
</P>
<P>(c) Is other than a registrant referred to in paragraph (a) or (d) of this section who: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the issuance of orders for him to report for induction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the date scheduled for his induction and pursuant to a proclamation by the Governor of a State to the effect that the authorized strength of any unit of the National Guard of that State cannot be maintained by the enlistment or appointment of persons who have not been issued orders to report for induction; or
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the date scheduled for his induction and pursuant to a determination by the President that the strength of the Ready Reserve of the Army Reserve, Naval Reserve, Marine Corps Reserve, Air Force Reserve, or Coast Guard Reserve cannot be maintained by the enlistment or appointment of persons who have not been issued orders to report for induction:
</P>
<FP>enlists or accepts an appointment before attaining the age of 26 years, in the Ready Reserve of any Reserve component of the Armed Forces, the Army National Guard, or the Air National Guard. Such registrant shall remain eligible for Class 1-D-D so long as he serves satisfactorily as a member of an organized unit of such Ready Reserve or National Guard, or satisfactorily performs such other Ready Reserve service as may be prescribed by the Secretary of Defense, or serves satisfactorily as a member of the Ready Reserve of another reserve component, the Army National Guard, or the Air National Guard, as the case may be; or
</FP>
<P>(d) At any time has enlisted in the Army Reserve, the Naval Reserve, the Marine Corps Reserve, the Air Force Reserve, or the Coast Guard Reserve and who thereafter has been commissioned therein upon graduation from an Officer's Candidate School of such Armed Force and has not has been ordered to active duty as a commissioned officer. Such registrant shall remain eligible for Class 1-D-D so long as he performs satisfactory service as a commissioned officer in an appropriate unit of the Ready Reserve, as determined under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the department concerned; or
</P>
<P>(e) Is serving satisfactorily as a member of a reserve component of the Armed Forces and is not eligible for Class 1-D-D under the provisions of any other paragraph of this section: <I>Provided:</I> That, for the purpose of this paragraph, a member of a reserve component who is in the Standby Reserve or the Retired Reserve shall be deemed to be serving satisfactorily unless the Armed Forces of which he is a member informs the Selective Service System that he is not serving satisfactorily.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24455, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.14" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.14   Class 1-D-E: Exemption of certain members of a reserve component or student taking military training.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 1-D-E shall be placed any registrant who:
</P>
<P>(a) Is a student enrolled in an officer procurement program at a military college the curriculum of which is approved by the Secretary of Defense; or
</P>
<P>(b) Has been enlisted in the Delayed Entry Program (DEP) at least ten days prior to his scheduled induction date; or
</P>
<P>(c) Has been transferred to a reserve component of the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps or Coast Guard after a period of extended active duty, which was not for training only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.15" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.15   Class 1-H: Registrant not subject to processing for induction.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 1-H shall be placed any registrant who is not eligible for Class 1-A and is not currently subject to processing for induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.16" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.16   Class 1-O: Conscientious objector to all military service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registrant whose acceptability for military service has been satisfactorily determined and who, in accord with part 1636 of this chapter, has been found, by reason of religious, ethical, or moral belief, to be conscientiously opposed to participation in both combatant and noncombatant training and service in the Armed Forces shall be classified in Class 1-O.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the written request of the registrant filed with his claim for classification in Class 1-O, the local board will consider his claim for classification in Class 1-O before he is examined. If the local board determines that the registrant would qualify for Class 1-O if he were acceptable for military service, it will delay such classification until he is found acceptable for military service. Upon the written request of such registrant, he will be deemed acceptable for military service without examination only for the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8891, Mar. 20, 1987; 52 FR 12641, Apr. 17, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.17" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.17   Class 1-O-S: Conscientious objector to all military service (separated).</HEAD>
<P>Any registrant who has been separated from the Armed Forces (including their reserve components) by reason of conscientious objection to participation in both combatant and noncombatant training and service in the Armed Forces shall be classified in Class 1-O-S unless his period of military service qualifies him for Class 4-A. A registrant in Class 1-O-S will be required to serve the remainder of his obligation under the Military Selective Service Act in Alternative Service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8891, Mar. 20, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.18" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.18   Class 1-W: Conscientious objector ordered to perform alternative service.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 1-W shall be placed any registrant who has been ordered to perform alternative service contributing to the mainenance of the national health, safety, or interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.26" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.26   Class 2-D: Registrant deferred because of study preparing for the ministry.</HEAD>
<P>In accord with part 1639 of this chapter any registrant shall be placed in Class 2-D who has requested such deferment and:
</P>
<P>(a) Who is preparing for the ministry under the direction of a recognized church or religious organization; and
</P>
<P>(b) Who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction required for entrance into a recognized theological or divinity school in which he has been pre-enrolled; or
</P>
<P>(c) Who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction in or at the direction of a recognized theological or divinity school; or
</P>
<P>(d) Who having completed theological or divinity school is a student in a full-time graduate program or is a full-time intern. The registrant's studies must be related to and lead to entry into service as a regular or duly ordained minister of religion, and satisfactory progress in these studies as required by the school in which the registrant is enrolled must be maintained for continued eligibility for the deferment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.30" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.30   Class 3-A: Registrant deferred because of hardship to dependents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accord with part 1642 of this chapter any registrant shall be classified in Class 3-A:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose induction would result in extreme hardships to his wife when she alone is dependent upon him for support; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whose deferment is advisable because his child(ren), parent(s), grrandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) is dependent upon him for support; or
</P>
<P>(3) Whose deferment is advisable because his wife and his child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) are dependent upon him for support.
</P>
<P>(b) The classification of each registrant in Class 3-A will not be granted for a period longer than 365 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.31" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.31   Class 3-A-S: Registrant deferred because of hardship to dependents (separated).</HEAD>
<P>Any registrant who has been separated from active military service by reason of dependency or hardship shall be placed in Class 3-A-S unless his period of military service qualifies him for Class 4-A or 1-D-E. No registrant shall be retained in Class 3-A-S for more than six months. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.40" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.40   Class 4-A: Registrant who has completed military service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In Class 4-A shall be placed any registrant other than a registrant eligible for classification in Class 1-C, 1-D-D, or 1-D-E who is within any of the following categories: 
</P>
<P>(1) A registrant who was discharged or transferred to a reserve component of the Armed Forces for the convenience of the Government after having served honorably on active duty for a period of not less than six months in the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, or the Coast Guard; or
</P>
<P>(2) A registrant who has served honorably on active duty for a period of not less than one year in the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the Marine Corps, or the Coast Guard; or
</P>
<P>(3) A registrant who has served on active duty for a period of not less than twenty-four months as a commissioned officer in the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or the Public Health Service, provided that such period of active duty in the Public Health Service as a commissioned Reserve Officer shall have been performed by the registrant while assigned to staff any of the various offices and bureaus of the Public Health Service including the National Institutes of Health, or while assigned to the Coast Guard, or the Bureau of Prisons of the Department of Justice, Environmental Protection Agency, or the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, or who are assigned to assist Indian tribes, groups, bands or communities pursuant to the Act of August 5, 1954 (68 Stat. 674), as amended;
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) A registrant who has completed six years of satisfactory service as a member of one or more of the Armed Forces including the Reserve components thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of computation of periods of active duty referred to in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), or (3) of this section, no credit shall be allowed for:
</P>
<P>(1) Periods of active duty training performed as a member of a reserve component pursuant to an order or call to active duty solely for training purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Periods of active duty in which the service consisted solely of training under the Army specialized training program, the Army Air Force college training program, or any similar program under the jurisdiction of the Navy, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard; or
</P>
<P>(3) Periods of active duty as a cadet at the United States Military Academy, United States Air Force Academy, or United States Coast Guard Academy, or as a midshipman at the United States Naval Academy, or in a preparatory school after nomination as a principal, alternate, or candidate for admission to any such academies; or
</P>
<P>(4) Periods of active duty in any of the Armed Forces while being processed for entry into or separation from any educational program or institute referred to in paragraph (b) (2) or (3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(5) Periods of active duty of members of the Reserve of the Public Health Service other than when assigned to staff any of the various offices and bureaus of the Public Health Service, including the National Institute of Health, or the Coast Guard or the Bureau of Prisons of the Department of Justice, Environmental Protection Agency, or the Environmental Science Services Administration, or who are assigned to assist Indian tribes, groups, bands, communities pursuant to the Act of August 5, 1954 (68 Stat. 674), as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4651, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.41" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.41   Class 4-B: Official deferred by law.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-B shall be placed any registrant who is the Vice President of the United States, a governor of a State, Territory or possession, or any other official chosen by the voters of the entire State, Territory or Possession; a member of a legislative body of the United States or of a State, Territory or Possession; a judge of a court of record of the United States or of a State, Territory or Possession, or the District of Columbia.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.42" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.42   Class 4-C: Alien or dual national.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-C shall be placed any registrant who:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishes that he is a national of the United States and of a country with which the United States has a treaty or agreement that provides that such person is exempt from liability for military service in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Is an alien and who has departed from the United States prior to being issued an order to report for induction or alternative service that has not been canceled. If any registrant who is classified in Class 4-C pursuant to this paragraph returns to the United States he shall be classified anew.
</P>
<P>(c) Is an alien and who has registered at a time when he was required by the Selective Service Law to present himself for and submit to registration and thereafter has acquired status within one of the groups of persons exempt from registration.
</P>
<P>(d) Is an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence as defined in paragraph (2) of section 101(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C. 1101), and who by reason of occupational status is subject to adjustment to nonimmigrant status under paragraph (15)(A), (15)(E), or (15)(G) or section 101(a) but who executes a waiver in accordance with section 247(b) of that Act of all rights, privileges, exemptions, and immunities which would otherwise accrue to him as a result of that occupational status. A registrant placed in Class 4-C under the authority of this paragraph shall be retained in Class 4-C only for so long as such occupational status continues.
</P>
<P>(e) Is an alien and who has not resided in the United States for one year, including any period of time before his registration. When such a registrant has been within the United States for two or more periods and the total of such period equals one year, he shall be deemed to have resided in the United States for one year. In computing the length of such periods, any portion of one day shall be counted as a day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.43" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.43   Class 4-D: Minister of religion.</HEAD>
<P>In accord with part 1645 of this chapter any registrant shall be placed in Class 4-D who is a:
</P>
<P>(a) Duly ordained minister of religion; or
</P>
<P>(b) Regular minister of religion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.44" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.44   Class 4-F: Registrant not acceptable for military service.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-F shall be placed any registrant who is found by the Secretary of Defense, under applicable physical, mental or administrative standards, to be not acceptable for service in the Armed Forces; except that no such registrant whose further examination or re-examination is determined by the Secretary of Defense to be justified shall be placed in Class 4-F until such further examination has been accomplished and such registrant continues to be found not acceptable for military service. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.45" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.45   Class 4-G: Registrant exempted from service because of the death of his parent or sibling while serving in the Armed Forces or whose parent or sibling is in a captured or missing in action status.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-G shall be placed any registrant who, except during a period of war or national emergency declared by Congress, is: 
</P>
<P>(a) A surviving son or brother: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whose parent or sibling of the whole blood was killed in action or died in the line of duty while serving in the Armed Forces of the United States after December 31, 1959, or died subsequent to such date as a result of injuries received or disease incurred in the line of duty during such service; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Whose parent or sibling of the whole blood is in a captured or missing status as a result of such service in the Armed Forces during any period of time; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The sole surviving son of a family in which the father or one or more siblings were killed in action before January 1, 1960 while serving in the Armed Forces of the United States, or died after that date due to injuries received or disease incurred in the line of duty during such service before Janaury 1, 1960.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4651, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.46" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.46   Class 4-T: Treaty alien.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-T shall be placed any registrant who is an alien who established that he is exempt from military service under the terms of a treaty or international agreement between the United States and the country of which he is a national, and who has made application to be exempted from liability for training and service in the Armed Forces of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.47" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.47   Class 4-W: Registrant who has completed alternative service in lieu of induction.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-W shall be placed any registrant who subsequent to being ordered to perform alternative service in lieu of induction has been released from such service after satisfactorily performing the work for a period of 24 months, or has been granted an early release by the Director of Selective Service after completing at least 6 months of satisfactory service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.48" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.10.0.8.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.48   Class 4-A-A: Registrant who has performed military service for a foreign nation.</HEAD>
<P>In Class 4-A-A shall be placed any registrant who, while an alien, has served on active duty for a period of not less than 12 months in the armed forces of a nation determined by the Department of State to be a nation with which the United States is associated in mutual defense activities and which grants exemptions from training and service in its armed forces to citizens of the United States who have served on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States for a period of not less than 12 months; <I>Provided:</I> That all information which is submitted to the Selective Service System concerning the registrant's service in the armed forces of a foreign nation shall be written in the English language. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1633" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1633—ADMINISTRATION OF CLASSIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4654, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1633.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.1   Classifying authority.</HEAD>
<P>The following officials are authorized to classify registrants into the indicated classes established by part 1630 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service may in accord with the provisions of this chapter classify a registrant into any class for which he is eligible except Classes 1-A-0, 1-0, 2-D, 3-A, and 4-D: <I>Provided,</I> That, the Director may not reclassify a registrant other than a volunteer for induction, into Class 1-A out of another class prior to the expiration of the registrant's entitlement to such classification. The Director may, before issuing an induction order to a registrant, appropriately classify him if the Secretary of Defense has certified him to be a member of an armed force or reserve component thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The National Selective Service Appeal Board may in accord with part 1653 of this chapter classify a registrant into any class for which he is eligible.
</P>
<P>(c) A district appeal board may in accord with part 1651 of this chapter classify a registrant into any class for which he is eligible.
</P>
<P>(d) A local board may in accord with part 1648 of this chapter classify a registrant into Class 1-A-0, 1-0, 2-D, 3-A, or 4-D for which he is eligible.
</P>
<P>(e) A local board may also classify a registrant into Class 1-C, 1-D-D, 1-D-E, 1-O-S, 1-W, 3-A-S, 4-A, 4-A-A, 4-B, 4-C, 4-F, 4-G, 4-T or 4-W for which he is eligible upon request by the registrant for a review of a classification denial action under § 1633.1(f). No individual shall be classified into Class 4-F unless the Secretary of Defense has determined that he is unacceptable for military service. 
</P>
<P>(f) Compensated employees of an area office may in accord with § 1633.2 may classify a registrant into an administrative class for which he is eligible. No individual shall be classified into Class 4-F unless the Secretary of Defense has determined that he is unacceptable for military service. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4654, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24456, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.2   Claim for other than Class 1-A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registrant who has received an order to report for induction may, prior to the day he is scheduled to report, submit to the Selective Service System a claim that he is eligible to be classified into any class other than Class 1-A. The registrant may assert a claim that he is eligible for more than one class other than Class 1-A. The registrant cannot subsequently file a claim with respect to a class for which he was eligible prior to the day he was originally scheduled to report. Information and documentation in support of claims for reclassification and postponement of induction shall be filed in accordance with instructions from the Selective Service System. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any registrant who has received an order to report for induction that has not been canceled may, at any time before his induction, submit a claim that he is eligible to be classified into any class other than Class 1-A based upon events over which he has no control that occurred on or after the day he was originally scheduled to report for induction. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Claims will be filed with the area office supporting the local board of jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(2) Claims will be considered by the local board identified in paragraph (c)(1) or its supporting area office as prescribed in this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The initial determination of claims for all administrative classifications are made by area office compensated personnel. After a denial of a claim for an administrative classification the registrant may request the local board to consider the claim. 
</P>
<P>(e) The initial determination of a judgmental classification is made by a local board.
</P>
<P>(f) A registrant may request and shall be granted a personal appearance whenever a local or appeal board considers his claim for reclassification. Personal appearances will be held in accord with parts 1648, 1651 and 1653 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) A registrant who has filed a claim for classification in Class 1-A-O or Class 1-0 shall be scheduled for a personal appearance in accord with § 1648.4 before his claim is considered.
</P>
<P>(h) If granted, a deferment or exemption supersedes the original order to report for induction. When a deferment or exemption expires or ends, a new order to report for induction will be issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.3   Submission of claims.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise expressly provided by the Director, no document relating to any registrant's claims or potential claims will be retained by the Selective Service System and no file relating to a registrant's possible classification status will be established prior to that registrant being ordered to report for induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.4   Information relating to claims for deferment or exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The registrant shall be entitled to present all relevant written information which he believes to be necessary to assist the classifying authority in determining his proper classification; such information may include documents, affidavits, and depositions. The affidavits and depositions shall be as concise and brief as possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.5   Securing information.</HEAD>
<P>The classifying authority is authorized to request and receive information whenever such information will assist in determining the proper classification of a registrant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.6   Consideration of classes.</HEAD>
<P>Claims of a registrant will be considered in inverse order of the listing of the classes below. When grounds are established to place a registrant in one or more of the classes listed in the following table, the registrant shall be classified in the lowest class for which he is determined to be eligible, with Class 1-A-O considered the highest class and Class 1-H considered the lowest class, according to the following table: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Class 1-A-O: Conscientious Objector Available for Noncombatant Military Service Only.
</P>
<P>Class 1-O: Conscientious Objector to all Military Service.
</P>
<P>Class 1-O-S: Conscientious Objector to all Military Service (Separated).
</P>
<P>Class 2-D: Registrant Deferred Because of Study Preparing for the Ministry.
</P>
<P>Class 3-A: Registrant Deferred Because of Hardship to Dependents.
</P>
<P>Class 3-A-S: Registrant Deferred Because of Hardship to Dependents (Separated).
</P>
<P>Class 4-D: Minister of Religion.
</P>
<P>Class 1-D-D: Deferment for Certain Members of a Reserve Component or Student Taking Military Training.
</P>
<P>Class 4-B: Official Deferred by Law.
</P>
<P>Class 4-C: Alien or Dual National.
</P>
<P>Class 4-G: Registrant Exempted From Service Because of the Death of his Parent or Sibling While Serving in the Armed Forces or Whose Parent or Sibling is in a Captured or Missing in Action Status.
</P>
<P>Class 4-A: Registrant Who Has Completed Military Service.
</P>
<P>Class 4-A-A: Registrant Who Has Performed Military Service For a Foreign Nation.
</P>
<P>Class 4-W: Registrant Who Has Completed Alternative Service in Lieu of Induction.
</P>
<P>Class 1-D-E: Exemption of Certain Members of a Reserve Component or Student Taking Military Training.
</P>
<P>Class 1-C: Member of the Armed Forces of the United States, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, or the Public Health Service.
</P>
<P>Class 1-W: Conscientious Objector Ordered to Perform Alternative Service in Lieu of Induction.
</P>
<P>Class 4-T: Treaty Alien.
</P>
<P>Class 4-F-: Registrant Not Acceptable for Military Service.
</P>
<P>Class 1-H: Registrant Not Subject to Processing for Induction.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.7   General principles of classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each classified registrant in a selection group is available for unrestricted military service until his eligibility for noncombatant service, alternative service, or deferment or exemption from service has been determined by a classifying authority.
</P>
<P>(b) The classifying authority in considering a registrant's claim for classification shall not discriminate for or against him because of his race, creed, color or ethnic background and shall not discriminate for or against him because of his membership or activity in any labor, political, religious, or other organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4654, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.8   Basis of classification.</HEAD>
<P>The registrant's classification shall be determined on the basis of the official forms of the Selective Service System and other written information in his file, oral statements, if made by the registrant at his personal appearance before the board, and oral statements, if made by the registrant's witnesses at his personal appearance. Any information in any written summary of the oral information presented at a registrant's personal appearance that was prepared by an official of the Selective Service System or by the registrant will be placed in the registrant's file. The file shall be subject to review by the registrant during normal business hours.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.9   Explanation of classification action.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a classifying authority denies the request of a registrant for classification into a particular class or classifies a registrant in a class other than that which he requested, it shall record the reasons therefor in the registrant's file.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.10   Notification to registrant of classification action.</HEAD>
<P>The Director will notify the registrant of any classification action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.11   Assignment of registrant to a local board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant is assigned to the local board that has jurisdiction over his permanent address that he last furnished the Selective Service System prior to the issuance of his induction order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may change a registrant's assignment when he deems it necessary to assure the fair and equitable administration of the Selective Service Law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1633.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.11.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1633.12   Reconsideration of classification.</HEAD>
<P>No classification is permanent. The Director of Selective Service may order the reconsideration of any classification action when the facts, upon which the classification is based, change or when he finds that the registrant made a misrepresentation of any material fact related to his claim for classification. No action may be taken under the preceding sentence of this paragraph unless the registrant is notified in writing of the impending action and the reasons thereof, and is given an opportunity to respond in writing within 10 days of the mailing of the notice. If the Director orders a reconsideration of a classification in accord with this paragraph, the claim will be treated in all respects as if it were the original claim for that classification.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1636" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1636—CLASSIFICATION OF CONSCIENTIOUS OBJECTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4655, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1636.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.1   Purpose; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part govern the consideration of a claim by a registrant for classification in Class 1-A-0 (§ 1630.11 of this chapter), or Class 1-0 (§ 1630.17 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of this paragraph shall apply in the interpretation of the provisions of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Crystallization of a Registrant's Beliefs.</I> The registrant's becoming conscious of the fact that he is opposed to participation in war in any form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Noncombatant Service.</I> Service in any unit of the Armed Forces which is unarmed at all times; any other military assignment not requiring the bearing of arms or the use of arms in combat or training in the use of arms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Noncombatant Training.</I> Any training which is not concerned with the study, use, or handling of arms or other implements of warfare designed to destroy human life.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.2   The claim of conscientious objection.</HEAD>
<P>A claim to classification in Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0, must be made by the registrant in writing. Claims and documents in support of claims may only be submitted after the registrant has received an order to report for induction or after the Director has made a specific request for submission of such documents. All claims or documents in support of claims received prior to a registrant being ordered to report for induction or prior to the Director's specific request for such documentation will be returned to the registrant and no file or record of such submission will be established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.3   Basis for classification in Class 1-A-0.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant must be conscientiously opposed to participation in combatant training and service in the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant's objection may be founded on religious training and belief; it may be based on strictly religious beliefs, or on personal beliefs that are purely ethical or moral in source or content and occupy in the life of a registrant a place parallel to that filled by belief in a Supreme Being for those holding more traditionally religious views.
</P>
<P>(c) A registrant's objection must be sincere.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4655, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.4   Basis for classification in Class 1-0.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant must be conscientiously opposed to participation in war in any form and conscientiously opposed to participation in both combatant and noncombatant training and service in the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant's objection may be founded on religious training and belief; it may be based on strictly religious beliefs, or on personal beliefs that are purely ethical or moral in source or centent and occupy in the life of a registrant a place parallel to that filled by belief in a Supreme Being for those holding more traditionally religious views.
</P>
<P>(c) A registrant's objection must be sincere. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.5   Exclusion from Class 1-A-0 and Class 1-0.</HEAD>
<P>A registrant shall be excluded from Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0:
</P>
<P>(a) Who asserts beliefs which are of a religious, moral or ethical nature, but who is found not to be sincere in his assertions; or
</P>
<P>(b) Whose stated objection to participation in war does not rest at all upon moral, ethical, or religious principle, but instead rests solely upon considerations of policy, pragmatism, expediency, or his own self-interest or well-being; or
</P>
<P>(c) Whose objection to participation in war is directed against a particular war rather than against war in any form (a selective objection). If a registrant objects to war in any form, but also believes in a theocratic, spiritual war between the forces of good and evil, he may not by reason of that belief alone be considered a selective conscientious objector.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.6   Analysis of belief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant claiming conscientious objection is not required to be a member of a <I>peace church</I> or any other church, religious organization, or religious sect to qualify for a 1-A-0 or 1-0 classification; nor is it necessary that he be affiliated with any particular group opposed to participation in war in any form.
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant who identifies his beliefs with those of a traditional church or religious organization must show that he basically adheres to beliefs of that church or religious organization whether or not he is actually affiliated with the institution whose teachings he claims as the basis of his conscientious objection. He need not adhere to <I>all</I> beliefs of that church or religious organization.
</P>
<P>(c) A registrant whose beliefs are not religious in the traditional sense, but are based primarily on moral or ethical principle should hold such beliefs with the same strength or conviction as the belief in a Supreme Being is held by a person who is religious in the traditional sense. Beliefs may be mixed; they may be a combination of traditional religious beliefs and nontraditional religious, moral or ethical beliefs. The registrant's beliefs must play a significant role in his life but should be evaluated only insofar as they pertain to his stated objection to his participation in war.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the registrant is or has been a member of a church, religious organization, or religious sect, and where his claim of a conscientious objection is related to such membership, the board may properly inquire as to the registrant's membership, the religious teachings of the church, religious organization, or religious sect, and the registrant's religious activity, insofar as each relates to his objection to participation in war. The fact that the registrant may disagree with or not subscribe to some of the tenets of his church or religious sect does not necessarily discredit his claim.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The history of the process by which the registrant acquired his beliefs, whether founded on religious, moral, or ethical principle is relevant to the determination whether his stated opposition to participation in war in any form is sincere.
</P>
<P>(2) The registrant must demonstrate that his religious, ethical, or moral convictions were acquired through training, study, contemplation, or other activity comparable to the processes by which traditional religious convictions are formulated. He must show that these religious, moral, or ethical convictions, once acquired, have directed his life in the way traditional religious convictions of equal strength, depth, and duration have directed the lives of those whose beliefs are clearly founded in traditional religious conviction.
</P>
<P>(f) The registrant need not use formal or traditional language in describing the religious, moral, or ethical nature of his beliefs. Board members are not free to reject beliefs because they find them incomprehensible or inconsistent with their own beliefs.
</P>
<P>(g) Conscientious objection to participation in war in any form, if based on moral, ethical, or religious beliefs, may not be deemed disqualifying simply because those beliefs may influence the registrant concerning the Nation's domestic or foreign policy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4655, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.7   Impartiality.</HEAD>
<P>Boards may not give preferential treatment to one religion over another, and all beliefs whether of a religious, ethical, or moral nature are to be given equal consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.8   Considerations relevant to granting or denying a claim for classification as a conscientious objector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the registrant has submitted a claim for classification as a conscientious objector and his file is complete, a determination of his sincerity will be made based on:
</P>
<P>(1) All documents in the registrant's file folder; and
</P>
<P>(2) The oral statements of the registrant at his personal appearance(s) before the local and/or appeal board; and
</P>
<P>(3) The oral statements of the registrant's witnesses, if any, at his personal appearance(s) before the local board; and
</P>
<P>(4) The registrant's general demeanor during his personal appearance(s).
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant's stated convictions should be a matter of conscience.
</P>
<P>(c) The board should be convinced that the registrant's personal history since the crystallization of his conscientious objection is not inconsistent with his claim and demonstrates that the registrant's objection is not solely a matter of expediency. A recent crystallization of beliefs does not in itself indicate expediency.
</P>
<P>(d) The information presented by the registrant should reflect a pattern of behavior in response to war and weapons which is consistent with his stated beliefs. Instances of violent acts or conviction for crimes of violence, or employment in the development or manufacturing of weapons of war, if the claim is based upon or supported by a life of nonviolence, may be indicative of inconsistent conduct.
</P>
<P>(e) The development of a registrant's opposition to war in any form may bear on his sincerity. If the registrant claims a recent crystallization of beliefs, his claim should be supported by evidence of a religious or educational experience, a traumatic event, an historical occasion, or some other special situation which explains when and how his objection to participation in war crystallized.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event that a registrant has previously worked in the development of or manufacturing of weapons of war or has served as a member of a military reserve unit, it should be determined whether such activity was prior to the stated crystallization of the registrant's conscientious objector beliefs. Inconsistent conduct prior to the actual crystallization of conscientious objector beliefs is not necessarily indicative of insincerity. But, inconsistent conduct subsequent to such crystallization may indicate that registrant's stated objection is not sincere.
</P>
<P>(g) A registrant's behavior during his personal appearance before a board may be relevant to the sincerity of his claim.
</P>
<P>(1) Evasive answers to questions by board members or the use of hostile, belligerent, or threatening words or actions, for example, may in proper circumstances be deemed inconsistent with a claim in which the registrant bases his objection on a belief in nonviolence.
</P>
<P>(2) Care should be exercised that nervous, frightened, or apprehensive behavior at the personal appearance is not misconstrued as a reflection of insincerity.
</P>
<P>(h) Oral response to questions posed by board members should be consistent with the written statements of the registrant and should generally substantiate the submitted information in the registrant's file folder; any inconsistent material should be explained by the registrant. It is important to recognize that the registrant need not be eloquent in his answers. But, a clear inconsistency between the registrant's oral remarks at his personal appearance and his written submission to the board may be adequate grounds, if not satisfactorily explained, for concluding that his claim is insincere.
</P>
<P>(i) The registrant may submit letters of reference and other supporting statements of friends, relatives and acquaintances to corroborate the sincerity of his claim, although such supplemental documentation is not essential to approval of his claim. A finding of insincerity based on these letters or supporting statements must be carefully explained in the board's decision, specific mention being made of the particular material relied upon for denial of classification in Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4655, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24457, July 1, 1987; 60 FR 13908, Mar. 15, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.9   Types of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are the types of decisions which may be made by a board when a claim for classification in Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0 has been considered.
</P>
<P>(a) Decision to grant a claim for classification in Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0, as requested, based on a determination that the truth or sincerity of the registrant's claim is not refuted by any information contained in the registrant's file or obtained during his personal appearance.
</P>
<P>(b) Decision to deny a claim for classification in Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0 based on all information before the board, and a finding that such information fails to meet the tests specified in § 1636.3 or 1636.4 of this part. If supported by information contained in the registrant's file or obtained during his personal appearance the board may find that the facts presented by the registrant in support of his claim are untrue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4655, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 53 FR 25328, July 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.12.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.10   Statement of reasons for denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Denial of a conscientious objector claim by a board must be accompanied by a statement specifying the reason(s) for such denial as prescribed in §§ 1633.9, 1651.4 and 1653.3 of this chapter. The reason(s) must, in turn, be supported by evidence in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(b) If a board's denial is based on statements by the registrant or on a determination that the claim is inconsistent or insincere, this should be fully explained in the statement of reasons accompanying the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1639" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1639—CLASSIFICATION OF REGISTRANTS PREPARING FOR THE MINISTRY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4657, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1639.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.1   Purpose; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part shall govern the consideration of a claim by a registrant for classification in Class 2-D (§ 1630.26 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of this paragraph shall apply to the interpretation of the provisions of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>ministry</I> refers to the vocation of a <I>duly ordained minister of religion</I> or <I>regular minister of religion</I> as defined in part 1645 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>recognized church or religious organization</I> refers to a church or religious organization established on the basis of a community of faith and belief, doctrines and practices of a religious character, and which engages primarily in religious activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>recognized theological or divinity school</I> refers to a theological or divinity school whose graduates are acceptable for ministerial duties either as an ordained or regular minister by the church or religious organization sponsoring a registrant as a ministerial student.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>graduate program</I> refers to a program in which the registrant's studies are officially approved by his church or religious organization for entry into service as a regular or duly ordained minister of religion.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>full-time intern</I> applies to a program that must run simultaneous with or immediately follow the completion of the theological or divinity training and is required by a recognized church or religious organization for entry into the ministry.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction</I> means maintaining a satisfactory academic record as determined by the institution while receiving full-time instructions in a structured learning situation. A full-time course of instruction does not include instructions received pursuant to a mail order program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.2   The claim for Class 2-D.</HEAD>
<P>A claim to classification in Class 2-D must be made by the registrant in writing, such document being placed in his file folder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.3   Basis for classification in Class 2-D.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In Class 2-D shall be placed any registrant who is preparing for the ministry under the direction of a recognized church or religious organization; and
</P>
<P>(1) Who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction required for entrance into a recognized theological or divinity school in which he has been pre-enrolled or accepted for admission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction in a recognized theological or divinity school; or
</P>
<P>(3) Who, having completed theological or divinity school, is a student in a full-time graduate program or is a full-time intern, and whose studies are related to and lead toward entry into service as a regular or duly ordained minister of religion. Satisfactory progress in these studies as determined by the school in which the registrant is enrolled, must be maintained for qualification for the deferment.
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant's classification shall be determined on the basis of the written information in his file folder, oral statements, if made by the registrant at his personal appearance before a board, and oral statements, if made by the registrant's witnesses at his personal appearance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4657, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.4   Exclusion from Class 2-D.</HEAD>
<P>A registrant shall be excluded from Class 2-D when:
</P>
<P>(a) He fails to establish that the theological or divinity school is a recognized school; or
</P>
<P>(b) He fails to establish that the church or religious organization which is sponsoring him is so recognized; or
</P>
<P>(c) He ceases to be a full-time student; or
</P>
<P>(d) He fails to maintain satisfactory academic progress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.5   Impartiality.</HEAD>
<P>Boards may not give precedence to any religious organization or school over another, and all are to be given equal consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.6   Considerations relevant to granting or denying claims for Class 2-D.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The registrant's claim for Class 2-D must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement from a church or religious organization that the registrant is preparing for the ministry under its direction; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Current certification to the effect that the registrant is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction required for entrance into a recognized theological or divinity school in which he has been pre-enrolled; or
</P>
<P>(3) Current certification to the effect that the registrant is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction in a recognized theological or divinity school; or
</P>
<P>(4) Current certification to the effect that the registrant, having completed theological or divinity school, is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time graduate program or is a full-time intern, whose studies are related to and lead toward entry into service as a regular or duly ordained minister of religion.
</P>
<P>(b) A board may require the registrant to obtain from the church, religious organization, or school detailed information in order to determine whether or not the theological or divinity school is in fact a recognized school or whether or not the church or religious organization which is sponsoring the registrant is recognized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4657, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.7   Types of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A board may grant a classification into Class 2-D until the end of the academic school year.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the expiration of a 2-D classification, a board shall review any request for extension of the classification in the same manner as the first request for Class 2-D. This section does not relieve a registrant of his duties under § 1621.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The board may deny a claim for Class 2-D when the evidence fails to merit any of the criteria established in this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4657, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1639.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.13.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1639.8   Statement of reason for denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Denial of a claim for a ministerial student deferment by a board must be accompanied by a statement specifying the reason(s) for such denial as prescribed in §§ 1633.9, 1651.4 and 1653.3 of this chapter. The reason(s) must in turn, be supported by evidence in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(b) If a board's denial is based on statements by the registrant or his witnesses at a personal appearance, this must be fully explained in the statement of reasons accompanying the denial. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1642" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1642—CLASSIFICATION OF REGISTRANTS DEFERRED BECAUSE OF HARDSHIP TO DEPENDENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4658, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1642.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.1   Purpose; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part govern the consideration of a claim by a registrant for classification in Class 3-A (§ 1630.30 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions apply to the interpretation of the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>dependent</I> shall apply to the wife, child, parent, grandparent, brother or sister of a registrant.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>child</I> includes an unborn child, a stepchild, a foster child or a legally adopted child, who is legitimate or illegitimate, but shall not include any person 18 years of age or older unless he or she is physically or mentally handicapped.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>parent</I> shall include any person who has stood in the place of a parent to the registrant for at least 5 years preceding the 18th anniversary of the registrant's date of birth and is now supported in good faith by the registrant.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>brother</I> or <I>sister</I> shall include a person having one or both parents in common with the registrant, who is either under 18 years of age or is physically or mentally handicapped.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>support</I> includes but is not limited to financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(6) Hardship is the unreasonable deprivation of a dependent of the financial assistance, personal care or companionship furnished by the registrant when that deprivation would be caused by the registrant's induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.2   The claim for classification in Class 3-A.</HEAD>
<P>A claim for classification in Class 3-A must be made by the registrant in writing. Prior to the consideration of the claim, the registrant shall submit supporting documentation, such documents being placed in his file folder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.3   Basis for classification in Class 3-A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In Class 3-A shall be placed any registrant:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose induction would result in extreme hardship to his wife when she alone is dependent upon him for support; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Whose deferment is advisable because his child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) is dependent upon him for support; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Whose deferment is advisable because his wife and child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) are dependent upon him for support.
</P>
<P>(b) In its consideration of a claim by a registrant for classification in Class 3-A, the board will first determine whether the registrant's wife, child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) is dependent upon the registrant for support. Support may be financial assistance, personal care or companionship. If financial assistance is the basis of support, the registrant's contribution must be a substantial portion of the necessities of the dependent. Under most circumstances 40 to 50% of the cost of the necessities may be considered substantial. If that determination is affirmative, the board will determine whether the registrant's induction would result in extreme hardship to his wife when she is the only dependent, or whether the registrant's deferment is advisable because his child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) is dependent upon him for support, or because his wife and his child(ren), parent(s), grandparent(s), brother(s), or sister(s) are dependent upon him for support. A deferment is advisable whenever the registrant's induction would result in hardship to his dependents.
</P>
<P>(c) The registrant's classification shall be determined on the basis of the written information in his file, oral statements, if made by the registrant at his personal appearance before a board, and oral statements, if made by the registrant's witnesses at his personal appearances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.4   Ineligibility for Class 3-A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant is ineligible for Class 3-A when:
</P>
<P>(1) He assumed an obligation to his dependents specifically for the purpose of evading training and service; or
</P>
<P>(2) He acquired excessive financial obligations primarily to establish his dependency claim; or
</P>
<P>(3) His dependents would not be deprived of reasonable support if the registrant is inducted; or
</P>
<P>(4) There are other persons willing and able to assume the support of his dependents; or
</P>
<P>(5) The dependents would suffer only normal anguish of separation from the registrant if he is inducted; or
</P>
<P>(6) The hardship to a dependent is based solely on financial conditions and can be removed by payment and allowances which are payable by the United States to the dependents of persons who are serving in the Armed Forces; or
</P>
<P>(7) The hardship to the dependent is based upon considerations that can be eliminated by payments and allowances which are payable by the United States to the dependents of persons who are serving in the Armed Forces.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4658, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.5   Impartiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Boards shall consider all questions in a claim for classification in Class 3-A with equal consideration of race, creed, color, sex or ethnic background. 
</P>
<P>(b) Boards may not give precedence to one type of dependency hardship over another.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.6   Considerations relevant to granting or denying claims for Class 3-A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The registrant's claim for Class 3-A must include the following, with documentation, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Registrant's and his dependent's marital status;
</P>
<P>(2) Physician's statement concerning any dependent who is physically or mentally handicapped;
</P>
<P>(3) Employment status of registrant and his dependents; and
</P>
<P>(b) Each case must be weighed carefully and decided on its own merits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.7   Types of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A board may grant a classification into Class 3-A for such period of time it deems appropriate but in no event the period exceed one year.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the expiration of a 3-A classification a board shall review any request for an extension of the classification as if it were the first request for that classification, and the fact that the registrant was placed in Class 3-A under apparently similar circumstances will not be a factor in the decision of the board. This section does not relieve a registrant from his duties under § 1621.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) A board shall deny a claim for Class 3-A when the evidence fails to meet the criteria established in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4658, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1642.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.14.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1642.8   Statement of reason for denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Denial of a claim for Class 3-A by a board must be accompanied by a statement specifying the reason(s) for such denial as prescribed in §§ 1633.9, 1651.4 and 1653.3 of this chapter. The reason must in turn, be supported by evidence in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(b) If a board's denial is based on statements by the registrant or his witnesses at a personal appearance, this must be fully explained in the statement of reasons accompanying the denial. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1645" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1645—CLASSIFICATION OF MINISTERS OF RELIGION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.</I>; E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4660, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1645.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.1   Purpose; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part govern the consideration of a claim by a registrant for classification in Class 4-D (§ 1630.43 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of this paragraph shall apply in the interpretation of the provisions of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>duly ordained minister of religion</I> means a person:
</P>
<P>(i) Who has been ordained in accordance with the ceremonial ritual or discipline of a church, religious sect, or organization established on the basis of a community of faith and belief, doctrines and practices of a religious character; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Who preaches and teaches the doctrines of such church, sect, or organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Who administers the rites and ceremonies thereof in public worship; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Who, as his regular and customary vocation, preaches and teaches the principles of religion; and
</P>
<P>(v) Who administers the ordinances of public worship as embodied in the creed or principles of such church, sect, or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>regular minister of religion</I> means one who as his customary vocation preaches and teaches the principles of religion of a church, a religious sect, or organization of which he is a member, without having been formally ordained as a minister of religion, and who is recognized by such church, sect, or organization as a regular minister.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>regular or duly ordained minister of religion</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who irregularly or incidentally preaches and teaches the principles of religion of a church, religious sect, or organization; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who has been duly ordained a minister in accordance with the ceremonial rite or discipline of a church, religious sect or organization, but who does not regularly, as a bona fide vocation, teach and preach the principles of religion and administer the ordinances of public worship, as embodied in the creed or principles of his church, sect, or organization.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>vocation</I> denotes one's regular calling or full-time profession.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.2   The claim for minister of religion classification.</HEAD>
<P>A claim to classification in Class 4-D must be made by the registrant in writing, such document being placed in his file folder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.3   Basis for classification in Class 4-D.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with part 1630 of this chapter any registrant shall be placed in Class 4-D who is a:
</P>
<P>(a) Duly ordained minister of religion; or
</P>
<P>(b) Regular minister of religion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.4   Exclusion from Class 4-D.</HEAD>
<P>A registrant is excluded from Class 4-D when his claim clearly shows that:
</P>
<P>(a) He is not a regular minister or a duly ordained minister; or
</P>
<P>(b) He is a duly ordained minister of religion in accordance with the ceremonial rite or discipline of a church, religious sect or organization, but who does not regularly as his bona fide vocation, teach and preach the principles of religion and administer the ordinances of public worship, as embodied in the creed or principles of his church, sect, or organization; or
</P>
<P>(c) He is a regular minister of religion, but does not regularly, as his bona fide vocation, teach and preach the principles of religion; or
</P>
<P>(d) He is not recognized by the church, sect, or organization as a regular minister of religion; or
</P>
<P>(e) He is a duly ordained minister of religion but does not administer the ordinances of public worship, as embodied in the creed of his church, sect, or organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.5   Impartiality.</HEAD>
<P>Boards may not give preferential treatment to one religion or sect over another and no preferential treatment will be given a duly ordained minister over a regular minister.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.6   Considerations relevant to granting or denying a claim for Class 4-D.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board shall first determine whether the registrant is requesting classification in Class 4-D because he is a regular minister of religion or because he is a duly ordained minister of religion.
</P>
<P>(b) If the registrant claims to be a duly ordained minister of religion, the board will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the registrant has been ordained, in accordance with the ceremonial ritual or discipline of a church, religious sect, or organization established on the basis of a community of faith and belief, doctrines and practices of religious character, to preach and teach the doctrines of such church, sect, or organization and to administer the rites and ceremonies thereof in public worship; and
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the registrant as his regular, customary, and bona fide vocation, preaches and teaches the principles of religion and administers the ordinances of public worship, as embodied in the creed or principles of the church, sect, or organization by which the registrant was ordained.
</P>
<P>(c) If the registrant claims to be a regular minister of religion, the board will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the registrant as his customary and regular calling or customary and regular full-time profession, preaches and teaches the principles of religion of a church, a religious sect, or organization of which he is a member, without having been formally ordained as a minister of religion; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the registrant is recognized by such church, sect, or organization as a regular minister.
</P>
<P>(d) If the board determines that the registrant is a regular minister of religion or duly ordained minister of religion he shall be classified in Class 4-D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.7   Evaluation of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In evaluating a claim for classification in Class 4-D, the board will not consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The training or abilities of the registrant for duty as a minister; or
</P>
<P>(2) The motive or sincerity of the registrant in serving as a minister.
</P>
<P>(b) The board should be careful to ascertain the actual duties and functions of registrants seeking classification in Class 4-D, such classification being appropriate only for leaders of the various religious groups, not granted to members of such groups generally.
</P>
<P>(c) Preaching and teaching the principles of one's sect, if performed part-time or half-time, occasionally or irregularly, are insufficient to establish eligiblity for Class 4-D. These activities must be regularly performed and must comprise the registrant's regular calling or full-time profession. The mere fact of some secular employment on the part of a registrant requesting classification in Class 4-D does not in itself make him ineligible for that class.
</P>
<P>(d) The board should request the registrant to furnish any additional information that it believes will be of assistance in the consideration of the registrant's claim for classification in Class 4-D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.8   Types of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the board determines that the registrant is a regular minister of religion or a duly ordained minister of religion, he shall be classified in Class 4-D.
</P>
<P>(b) The board will deny a claim for Class 4-D when the evidence fails to meet the criteria established in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1645.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.15.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1645.9   Statement of reason for denial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Denial of a 4-D claim by a board must be accompanied by a statement specifying the reason(s) for such denial as prescribed in §§ 1633.9, 1651.4 and 1653.3 of this chapter. The reason(s) must in turn, be supported by evidence in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(b) If the board's denial is based on statements by the registrant or his witnesses at a personal appearance or on documentation in the registrant's file, such basis will be fully explained in the statement of reasons accompanying the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1648" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1648—CLASSIFICATION BY LOCAL BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.</I>; E.O. 11623.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1648.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.1   Authority of local board.</HEAD>
<P>A local board shall consider and determine all claims which it receives in accord with § 1633.2 or § 1648.6 of this chapter. No action shall be taken by the board in the absence of a quorum of its prescribed membership. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1648.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.3   Opportunity for personal appearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant who has filed a claim for classification in Class 1-A-O or Class 1-O shall be scheduled for a personal appearance in accord with § 1648.4 before his claim is considered.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant who has filed a claim for classification in Class 2-D, Class 3-A, or Class 4-D, shall, upon his written request, be afforded an opportunity to appear in person before the board before his claim for classification is considered.
</P>
<P>(c) Any registrant who has filed a claim for classification in an administrative class and whose claim has been denied, shall be afforded an opportunity to appear before the board if he requests that the denial of such claim be reviewed by the board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4661, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1648.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.4   Appointment for personal appearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 10 days (unless the registrant requests an earlier appointment) in advance of the meeting at which he may appear, the registrant shall be informed of the time and place of such meeting and that he may present evidence, including witnesses, bearing on his classification.
</P>
<P>(b) Should the registrant who has filed a claim for classification in Class 1-A-O or Class 1-O fail to appear at his scheduled personal appearance, the board will not consider his claim for classification in Class 1-A-O or Class 1-O. The board shall consider any written explanation of such failure that has been filed within 5 days (or extension thereof granted by the board) after such failure to appear. It the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was for good cause it shall reschedule the registrant's personal appearance. If the board does not receive a timely written explanation of the registrant's failure to appear for his scheduled personal appearance or if the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was not for good cause, the registrant will be deemed to have abandoned his claim for Class 1-A-O or 1-O and will be notified that his claim will not be considered. The board will notify the registrant in writing of its action under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a registrant who has filed a claim for a class other than Class 1-A-0 or Class 1-0 for whom a personal appearance has been scheduled, fails to appear in accord with such schedule, the board shall consider any written explanation of such failure that has been filed within 5 days (or extension thereof granted by the board) after such failure to appear. If the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was for good cause it shall reschedule the registrant's personal appearance. If the board does not receive a timely written explanation of the registrant's failure to appear for his scheduled personal appearance or if the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was not for good cause, the registrant will be deemed to have abandoned his request for personal appearance and the board will proceed to classify him on the basis of the material in his file. The board will notify the registrant in writing of its action under this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4661, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24458, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1648.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.5   Procedures during personal appearance before the local board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A quorum of the prescribed membership of a board shall be present during all personal appearances. Only those members of the board before whom the registrant appears shall classify him.
</P>
<P>(b) At any such appearance, the registrant may present evidence, including witnesses; discuss his classification; direct attention to any information in his file; and present such further information as he believes will assist the board in determing his proper classification. The information furnished should be as concise as possible.
</P>
<P>(c) The registrant may present the testimony of not more than three witnesses unless it is the judgment of the board that the testimony of additional witnesses is warranted. The registrant may summarize in writing, the oral information that he or his witnesses presented. Such summary shall be placed in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(d) A summary will be made of all oral testimony given by the registrant and his witnesses at his personal appearance and such summary shall be placed in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(e) If the registrant does not speak English adequately he may appear with a person to act as interpreter for him. The interpreter shall be sworn in accordance with § 1605.81(b). Such interpreter will not be deemed to be a witness unless he testifies in behalf of the registrant.
</P>
<P>(f) During the personal appearance only the registrant or his witnesses may address the board or respond to questions of the board and only the registrant and the board will be allowed to address questions to witnesses. A registrant may, however, be accompanied by an advisor of his choosing and may confer with the advisor before responding to an inquiry or statement by the board: <I>Provided,</I> That, those conferences do not substantially interfere with or unreasonably delay the orderly process of the personal appearance.
</P>
<P>(g) If, in the opinion of the board, the informal, administrative nature of the personal appearance is unduly disrupted by the presence of an advisor, the board chairman may require the advisor to leave the hearing room. In such case, the board chairman shall put a statement of reasons for his action in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(h) The making of verbatim transcripts, and the using of cameras or other recording devices are prohibited in proceedings before the board. This does not prevent the registrant or Selective Service from making a written summary of all testimony presented.
</P>
<P>(i) Proceedings before the local boards shall be open to the public only upon the request of or with the permission of the registrant. The board chairman may limit the number of persons attending the hearing in order to maintain order. If during the hearing the presence on nonparticipants in the proceeding becomes disruptive, the chairman may close the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4661, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1648.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.6   Registrants transferred for classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before a board of jurisdiction has undertaken the classification of a registrant, the file may, at his request, be transferred for classification to a local board nearer to his current address than is the local board of jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of Selective Service may transfer a registrant to another board for classification at any time when:
</P>
<P>(1) A board cannot act on the registrant's claim because of disqualification under the provisions of § 1605.55 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) He deems such transfer to be necessary in order to assure equitable administration of the Selective Service Law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4661, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1648.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.16.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1648.7   Procedures upon transfer for classification.</HEAD>
<P>A board to which a registrant is transferred for classification shall classify the registrant in the same manner it would classify a registrant assigned to it. When the classification has been decided by the transfer board, the file will be returned to the local board of jurisdiction in the manner prescribed by the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4661, Feb. 1, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1651" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1651—CLASSIFICATION BY DISTRICT APPEAL BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4662, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1651.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1651.1   Who may appeal to a district appeal board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service may appeal from any determination of a local board when he deems it necessary to assure the fair and equitable administration of the Selective Service Law: <I>Provided,</I> That, no such appeal will be taken after the expiration of the appeal period prescribed in § 1651.2.
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant may appeal to a district appeal board the denial of his claim for a judgmental classification by the local board. The registrant may appeal to a district appeal board the denial of his claim for an administrative classification by the local board whenever its decisions is not unanimous.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4662, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1651.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1651.2   Time within which registrants may appeal.</HEAD>
<P>The registrant who wishes to appeal must file the appeal with his local board within 15 days after the date he is mailed a notice of classification action. The registrant who wishes a personal appearance before the district appeal board must file the request at the same time he files the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1651.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1651.3   Procedures for taking an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Director of Selective Service appeals to a district appeal board he shall place in the registrant's file a written statement of his reasons for taking such appeal. When an appeal is taken by the Director, the registrant will be notified that the appeal has been taken, the reason therefor, and that the registrant may appear in person before the appeal board in accord with § 1651.4(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant may appeal the classification action of the local board by filing with it a written notice of appeal. The registrant's notice of appeal need not be in a particular form but must include the name of the registrant and his request. Any notice shall be liberally construed so as to permit the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) The registrant may also request an opportunity to appear in person before the district appeal board and such appeal will be considered by the board having jurisdiction over the local board which last classified him. 
</P>
<P>(d) The registrant may attach to his appeal a statement specifying the reasons he believes the classification action that he is appealing is inappropriate, directing attention to any information in his file, and setting out any information relevant to his claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1651.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1651.4   Review by district appeal board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal to the district appeal board is determined by the classification of the registrant in a class other than 1-A or by its refusal to take such action. No action shall be taken by the board in the absence of a quorum of its prescribed membership.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the adjudication of an appeal, the clerk of the appeal board or any compensated employee authorized to perform the administrative duties of the board shall review the file to insure that no procedural errors have occurred during the history of the current claim. Files containing procedural errors will be returned to the local board that classified the registrant for any additional processing necessary to correct such errors.
</P>
<P>(c) Files containing procedural errors that were not detected during the initial screening but which subsequently surfaced during processing by the appeal board, will be acted on and the board will take such action necessary to correct the errors and process the appeal to completion.
</P>
<P>(d) A board shall consider appeals in the order of their having been filed.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of the registrant's file, a board shall ascertain whether the registrant has requested a personal appearance before the board. If no such request has been made, the board may classify the registrant on the bases of the material in his file.
</P>
<P>(f) Not less than 10 days (unless the registrant requests an earlier appointment) in advance of the meeting at which his classification will be considered, the board shall inform any registrant with respect to whom the Director of Selective Service has appealed or who has requested a personal appearance that he may appear at such meeting and present written evidence bearing on his classification.
</P>
<P>(g) During the personal appearance, only the registrant may address the board or respond to questions of the board. The registrant will not be permitted to present witnesses at the personal appearance before the district appeal board. A registrant may, however, be accompanied by an advisor of his choosing and may confer with the advisor before responding to an inquiry or statement by the board: <I>Provided,</I> That, those conferences do not substantially interfere with or unreasonably delay the orderly process of the personal appearance. 
</P>
<P>(h) If, in the opinion of the board, the informal, administrative nature of the hearing is unduly disrupted by the presence of an advisor during the personal appearance, the board chairman may require the advisor to leave the hearing room. In such case, the board chairman shall put a statement of reasons for his action in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(i) Whenever a registrant who has filed a claim for whom a personal appearance has been scheduled, fails to appear in accord with such schedule, the board shall consider any written explanation of such failure that has been filed within 5 days (or extension thereof granted by the board) after such failure to appear. If the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was for good cause it shall reschedule the registrant's personal appearance. If the board does not receive a timely written explanation of the registrant's failure to appear for his scheduled personal appearance or if the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was not for good cause, the registrant will be deemed to have abandoned his request for personal appearance and he will be classified on the basis of the material in his file. The board will notify the registrant in writing of its action under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(j) A quorum of the prescribed membership of a board shall be present during all personal appearances. Only those members of the board before whom the registrant appears shall classify him.
</P>
<P>(k) At any personal appearance, the registrant may: Present his oral testimony; point out the class or classes in which he thinks he should have been placed; and direct attention to any information in his file. The registrant may present any additional written information he believes will assist the board in determining his proper classification. The information furnished should be as concise as possible.
</P>
<P>(l) The registrant may summarize in writing the oral information that he presented. Such summary shall be placed in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(m) A summary will be made of oral testimony given by the registrant at his personal appearance and such summary shall be placed in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(n) A district appeal board shall classify a registrant who has requested a personal appearance after he:
</P>
<P>(1) Has appeared before the board; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has withdrawn his request to appear; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has abandoned his right to an opportunity to appear; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Has failed to appear.
</P>
<P>(o) In considering a registrant's appeal, a board shall not receive or consider any information other than the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Information contained in the registrant's file; and
</P>
<P>(2) Oral statements by the registrant during the registrant's personal appearance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Written evidence submitted by the registrant to the board during his personal appearance.
</P>
<P>(p) In the event a board classifies the registrant in a class other than that which he requested, it shall record its reasons therefor in the file.
</P>
<P>(q) The making of verbatim transcripts, and the using of cameras or other recording devices are prohibited in proceedings before the board. This does not prevent the registrant or Selective Service from making a written summary of his testimony.
</P>
<P>(r) Proceedings before the appeal boards shall be open to the public only upon the request of or with the permission of the registrant. The board chairman may limit the number of persons attending the hearing in order to maintain order. If during the hearing the presence of non-participants in the proceedings becomes disruptive the chairman may close the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4662, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1651.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.17.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1651.5   File to be returned after appeal to the district appeal board is decided.</HEAD>
<P>When the appeal to a district appeal board has been decided, the file shall be returned as prescribed by the Director of Selective Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1653" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1653—APPEAL TO THE PRESIDENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 4663, Feb. 1, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1653.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.18.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1653.1   Who may appeal to the President.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Selective Service may appeal to the President from any non-unanimous determination of a district appeal board when he deems it necessary to assure the fair and equitable administration of the Selective Service Law: <I>Provided,</I> That, no such appeal will be taken after the expiration of the appeal period prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) When a registrant has been classified by a district appeal board and one or more members of the board dissented from that classification, he may within 15 days after a notice thereof has been mailed, appeal to the President and may request a personal appearance before the National Selective Service Appeal Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1653.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.18.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1653.2   Procedures for taking an appeal to the President.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Director of Selective Service appeals to the President he shall place in the registrant's file a written statement of his reasons for taking such appeal. When an appeal is taken by the Director the registrant will be notified that the appeal has been taken, the reasons therefor, and that the registrant may appear in person before the National Board in accord with § 1653.1(b).
</P>
<P>(b) An appeal to the President by the registrant shall be taken by filing a written notice of appeal with the local board that classified him. He may at the same time file a written request to appear before the National Selective Service Appeal Board. Such notice need not be in any particular form but must state the name of the registrant and the fact that he wishes the President to review the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1653.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.18.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1653.3   Review by the National Appeal Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal to the President is determined by the National Appeal Board by its classification of the registrant in a class other than 1-A or by its refusal to take such action. No action shall be taken by the board in the absence of a quorum of its prescribed membership.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the adjudication of an appeal, the clerk of the appeal board or any compensated employee authorized to perform the administrative duties of the board shall review the file to insure that no procedural errors have occurred during the history of the current claim. Files containing procedural errors will be returned to the board where the errors occurred for any additional processing necessary to correct such errors.
</P>
<P>(c) Files containing procedural errors that were not detected during the initial screening but which subsequently surfaced during processing by the appeal board, will be acted on and the board will take such action necessary to correct the errors and process the appeal to completion.
</P>
<P>(d) The board shall consider appeals in the order of their having been filed.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of the registrant's file, the board shall ascertain whether the registrant has requested a personal appearance before the board. If no such request has been made, the board may classify the registrant on the basis of the material in his file.
</P>
<P>(f) The board shall proceed to classify any registrant who has not requested a personal appearance after the specified time in which to request a personal appearance has elapsed.
</P>
<P>(g) Not less than 10 days in advance of the meeting at which his claim will be considered, the board shall inform any registrant with respect to whom the Director of Selective Service has appealed or who has requested a personal appearance that he may appear at such meeting and present written evidence bearing on his classification.
</P>
<P>(h) During the personal appearance only the registrant may address the board or respond to questions of the board. The registrant will not be permitted to present witnesses at the personal appearance before the National Appeal Board. A registrant may, however, be accompanied by an advisor of his choosing and may confer with the advisor before responding to an inquiry or statement by the board: <I>Provided,</I> That, those conferences do not substantially interfere with or unreasonably delay the orderly process of the personal appearance.
</P>
<P>(i) If, in the opinion of the board, the informal, administrative nature of the personal appearance is unduly disrupted by the presence of an advisor, the board chairman may require the advisor to leave the hearing room. In such a case, the board chairman shall put a statement of reasons for his action in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(j) Whenever a registrant who has filed a claim for whom a personal appearance has been scheduled fails to appear in accord with such schedule, the board shall consider any written explanation of such failure that has been filed within five days (or extension thereof granted by the board) after such failure to appear. If the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was for good cause it shall reschedule the registrant's personal appearance. If the board does not receive a timely written explanation of the registrant's failure to appear for his scheduled personal appearance or if the board determines that the registrant's failure to appear was not for good cause, the registrant will be deemed to have abandoned his request for personal appearance and the board will proceed to classify him on the basis of the material in his file. The registrant will be notified in writing of its action under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(k) A quorum of the prescribed membership of a board shall be present during all personal appearances. Only those members of the board before whom the registrant appears shall classify him.
</P>
<P>(l) At any such appearance, the registrant may: Present oral testimony; point out the class or classes in which he thinks he should have been placed; and direct attention to any information in his file. The registrant may present such further written information as he believes will assist the board in determining his proper classification. The information furnished should be as concise as possible.
</P>
<P>(m) The registrant may summarize in writing the oral information that he presented and any such summary shall be placed in his file.
</P>
<P>(n) A summary will be made of the oral testimony given by the registrant at his personal appearance and such summary shall be placed in the registrant's file.
</P>
<P>(o) The board shall classify a registrant who has requested a personal appearance after he:
</P>
<P>(1) Has appeared before the National Board; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has withdrawn his request to appear; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has waived his right to an opportunity to appear; or
</P>
<P>(4) Has failed to appear.
</P>
<P>(p) Whenever the National Board or the panel thereof to which a case has been assigned cannot act on the case of a registrant, and there is no other panel of the National Board to which the case may be transferred, the decision of the District Appeal Board will be final.
</P>
<P>(q) In considering a registrant's appeal, the board shall not receive or consider any information other than the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Information contained in the registrant's file; and
</P>
<P>(2) Oral statements by the registrant at the registrant's personal appearance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Written evidence submitted by the registrant to the board during his personal appearance.
</P>
<P>(r) In the event that the board classifies the registrant in a class other than that which he requested, it shall record its reasons therefor in his file.
</P>
<P>(s) The making of verbatim transcripts, and the using of cameras or other recording devices are prohibited in proceedings before the board. This does not prevent the registrant or Selective Service from making a written summary of his testimony.
</P>
<P>(t) Proceedings before the National Appeal Board are closed to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4663, Feb. 1, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1653.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.18.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1653.4   File to be returned after appeal to the President is decided.</HEAD>
<P>When the appeal to the President has been decided, the file shall be returned as prescribed by the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1656" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1656—ALTERNATIVE SERVICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 6(j) Military Selective Service Act; 50 U.S.C. App. 456(j).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1656.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.1   Purpose; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part govern the administration of registrants in Class 1-W and the Alternative Service Program.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of this paragraph shall apply in the interpretation of the provisions of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Alternative Service (AS).</I> Civilian work performed in lieu of military service by a registrant who has been classified in Class 1-W.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative Service Office (ASO).</I> An office to administer the Alternative Service Program in a specified geographical area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative Service Office Manager (ASOM).</I> The head of the ASO.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative Service Work.</I> Civilian work which contributes to the maintenance of the national health, safety or interest, as the Director may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alternative Service Worker (ASW).</I> A registrant who has been found to be qualified for service and has been ordered to perform alternative service (Class 1-W).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Creditable Time.</I> Time that is counted toward an ASWs fulfillment of his alternative service obligation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Director.</I> The Director of Selective Service, unless used with a modifier.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Employer.</I> Any institution, firm, agency or corporation engaged in lawful activity in the United States, its territories or possessions, or in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, that has been approved by Selective Service to employ ASWs.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Job Assignment.</I> A job with an eligible employer to which an ASW is assigned to perform his alternative service.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Job Bank.</I> A current inventory of alternative service job openings.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Job Matching.</I> A comparison of the ASW's work experience, education, training, special skills, and work preferences with the requirements of the positions in the job bank.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Job Placement.</I> Assignment of the ASW to alternative service work. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Open Placement.</I> The assignment of ASWs without employer interview to employers who have agreed to employ all ASWs assigned to them up to an agreed number. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.2   Order to perform alternative service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The local board of jurisdiction shall order any registrant who has been classified in Class 1-O or 1-O-S to perform alternative service at a time and place to be specified by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) When the local board orders a registrant to perform alternative service, it shall be the duty of the registrant to report for and perform alternative service at the time and place ordered unless the order has been canceled. If the time when the registrant is ordered to report for alternative service is postponed, it shall be the continuing duty of the registrant to report for and perform alternative service at such time and place as he may be reordered. Regardless of the time when or the circumstances under which a registrant fails to report for and perform alternative service when it is his duty to do so, it shall thereafter be his continuing duty from day to day to report for and perform alternative service at the place specified in the order to report for and perform alternative service.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may authorize a delay of reporting for alternative service for any registrant whose date of induction conflicts with a religious holiday historically observed by a recognized church, religious sect or religious organization of which he is a member. Any registrant so delayed shall report for alternative service on the next business day following the religious holiday. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Any registrant who is satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction at a high school or similar institution of learning and is issued an order to perform alternative service shall, upon presentation of appropriate facts in the manner prescribed by the Director of Selective Service, have his date to report to perform alternative service postponed:
</P>
<P>(i) Until the time of his graduation therefrom; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Until he attains the twentieth anniversary of his birth; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Until the end of his last academic year, even if he has attained the twentieth anniversary of his birth; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Until he ceases satisfactorily to pursue such course of instruction, whichever is the earliest.
</P>
<P>(2) Any registrant who, while satisfactorily pursuing a full-time course of instruction at a college, university or similar institution of learning, is ordered to perform alternative service shall, upon the presentation of appropriate facts in the manner prescribed by the Director of Selective Service, have his date to report to perform alternative service.
</P>
<P>(i) Until the end of the semester or term, or in the case of his last academic year, the end of the academic year; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Until he ceases to satisfactorily pursue such course of instruction, whichever is the earlier.
</P>
<P>(e) After the order to perform alternative service has been issued, the Director may postpone for a specific time the date when such registrant is required to report in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of the death of a member of the registrant's immediate family, extreme emergency involving a member of the registrant's immediate family, serious illness or injury of the registrant, or other emergency beyond the registrant's control. The period of postponement shall not exceed 60 days from the date of the order to perform alternative service. When necessary, the Director may grant one further postponement but the total postponement shall not exceed 90 days from the reporting date on the order to perform alternative service. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the registrant qualifies and is scheduled for a State or National examination in a profession or occupation which requires certification before being authorized to engage in the practice of that profession or occupation. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Director shall issue to each registrant whose reporting date to perform alternative service is postponed a written notice thereof. 
</P>
<P>(g) A postponement of reporting date to perform alternative service shall not render invalid the order to report for alternative service which has been issued to the registrant, but shall operate only to postpone the reporting date, and the registrant shall report on the new date scheduled without having issued to him a new order to report for alternative service. 
</P>
<P>(h) Any registrant receiving a postponement under the provisions of this section, shall, after the expiration of such postponement, be rescheduled to report for alternative service at the place to which he was originally ordered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8891, Mar. 20, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.3   Responsibility for administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director in the administration of the Alternative Service Program shall establish and implement appropriate procedures to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assure that the program complies with the Selective Service Law; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide information to ASWs about their rights and duties; 
</P>
<P>(3) Find civilian work for ASWs; 
</P>
<P>(4) Place ASWs in jobs approved for alternative service; 
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor the work performance of ASWs placed in the program; 
</P>
<P>(6) Order reassignment and authorize job separation; 
</P>
<P>(7) Issue certificates of completion; 
</P>
<P>(8) Specify the location of Alternative Service Offices; 
</P>
<P>(9) Specify the geographical area in which the ASOs shall have jurisdiction over ASWs; 
</P>
<P>(10) Refer to the Department of Justice, when appropriate, any ASW who fails to perform satisfactorily his alternative service; 
</P>
<P>(11) Perform all other functions necessary for the administration of the Alternative Service Program; and 
</P>
<P>(12) Delegate any of his authority to such office, agent or person as he may designate and provide as appropriate for the subdelegation of such authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Region Director shall be responsible for the administration and operation of the Alternative Service Program in his Region as prescribed by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(c) The State Director shall perform duties for the administration and operation of the Alternative Service Program in his State as prescribed by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ASOM shall perform duties for the administration and operation of the Alternative Service Program as prescribed by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(1) The ASO shall be an office of record that is responsible for the administration and operation of the Alternative Service Program in its assigned geographical area of jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(2) The staff of each ASO shall consist of as many compensated employees as shall be authorized by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(3) Appointment of civilians to ASO positions requiring direct dealing with ASWs will be made as soon as feasible. 
</P>
<P>(e) The manager of an area office shall perform duties for Alternative Service as prescribed by the Director. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.4   Alternative Service Office: jurisdiction and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Jurisdiction over the ASW will be transferred from the area office immediately after his classification in Class 1-W to the ASO that administers the Alternative Service Program in the area in which he is assigned to perform alternative service. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ASO shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate and approve jobs and employers for Alternative Service; 
</P>
<P>(2) Order the ASW to report for alternative service work; 
</P>
<P>(3) Issue such orders as are required to schedule the ASW for job interviews; 
</P>
<P>(4) Issue such orders as are required to schedule the ASW for job placement; 
</P>
<P>(5) Monitor the ASW's job performance; 
</P>
<P>(6) Issue a certificate of satisfactory completion of the ASW's Alternative Service obligation; 
</P>
<P>(7) Return the ASW to the jurisdiction of the area office from which he was directed to perform Alternative Service; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Perform such other actions the Director may authorize as necessary to administer the Alternative Service Program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.5   Eligible employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director will determine in accordance with the Selective Service Law which civilian employment programs or activities are appropriate for Alternative Service work.
</P>
<P>(1) Employers which are considered appropriate for Alternative Service assignments are limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The U.S. Government or a state, territory or possession of the United States or a political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico;
</P>
<P>(ii) Organizations, associations or corporations primarily engaged either in a charitable activity conducted for the benefit of the general public or in carrying out a program for the improvement of the public health, welfare or environment, including educational and scientific activities in support thereof, when such activity or program is not principally for the benefit of the members of such organization, association or corporation or for increasing the membership thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Employment programs or activities generally considered to be appropriate for Alternative Service work include:
</P>
<P>(i) Health care services, including but not limited to hospitals, nursing homes, extended care facilities, clinics, mental health programs, hospices, community outreach programs and hotlines;
</P>
<P>(ii) Educational services, including but not limited to teachers, teacher's aides, counseling, administrative support, parent counseling, recreation, remedial programs and scientific research;
</P>
<P>(iii) Environmental programs, including but not limited to conservation and firefighting, park and recreational activities, pollution control and monitoring systems, and disaster relief;
</P>
<P>(iv) Social services, including but not limited to sheltered or handicapped workshops, vocational training or retraining programs, senior citizens activities, crisis intervention and poverty relief;
</P>
<P>(v) Community services, including but not limited to fire protection, public works projects, sanitation services, school or public building maintenance, correctional facility support programs, juvenile rehabilitation programs, and
</P>
<P>(vi) Agricultural work.
</P>
<P>(b) An organization desiring to employ ASWs is encouraged to submit a request in writing to the Director or an ASOM for approval. Such requests will be considered at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) Selective Service shall negotiate employment agreements with prospective employers with the objective of obtaining an adequate number of agreements to assure the timely placement of all ASWs. Participating employers will provide prospective job listings to Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(d) Selective Service shall also negotiate employment agreements with eligible employers wherein the employer will agree to hire a specified number of ASWs for open placement positions.
</P>
<P>(e) A registrant classfied in Class 1-O or Class 1-O-S may seek his own alternative service work by identifying a job with an employer he believes would be appropriate for Alternative Service assignments and by having the employer advise the ASO in writing that he desires to employ the ASW. The acceptability of the job and employer so identified will be evaluated in accordance with § 1656.5(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 17627, May 14, 1986; 52 FR 8892, Mar. 20, 1987; 54 FR 27001, June 27, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.6   Overseas assignments.</HEAD>
<P>Alternative Service job assignments outside the United States, its territories or possessions or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, will be allowed when:
</P>
<P>(a) The employer is deemed eligible to employ ASWs and is based in the United States, its territories or possessions, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico;
</P>
<P>(b) The job meets the criteria listed in § 1656.5(a);
</P>
<P>(c) The ASW and the employer submit a joint application to Selective Service for the ASW to be employed in a specific job;
</P>
<P>(d) The employer satisfies Selective Service that the employer has the capability to supervise and monitor the overseas work of the ASW; and
</P>
<P>(e) International travel is provided without expense to Selective Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.7   Employer responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Employers participating in the Alternative Service Program are responsible for:
</P>
<P>(a) Complying with the employment agreement with Selective Service;
</P>
<P>(b) Providing a clear statement of duties, responsibilities, compensation and employee benefits to the ASW;
</P>
<P>(c) Providing full-time employment for ASWs;
</P>
<P>(d) Assuring that wages, hours and working conditions of ASWs confrom with Federal, state and local laws;
</P>
<P>(e) Providing adequate supervision of ASWs in their employ; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Providing nondiscriminatory treatment of ASWs in their employ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.8   Employment agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nature of Agreement.</I> Before any ASW is placed with an employer, Selective Service and the employer shall enter into an employment agreement that specifies their respective duties and responsibilities under the Alternative Service Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on Selective Service.</I> The Selective Service System shall not act in any controversy involving ASW's wages, hours and working conditions except to the extent any of these subjects is specifically covered in § 1656.7, § 1656.9, or the employment agreement between Selective Service and the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigating and Negotiating.</I> Whenever there is evidence that an employer appears to be in violation of § 1656.7, Selective Service will investigate the matter. If the investigation produces substantial evidence of violations of § 1656.7, Selective Service will resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of Employment Agreement.</I> If a resolution of a dispute cannot be reached by negotiation within a reasonable time, the Selective Service System shall terminate the employment agreement and shall reassign the ASW.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.9   Alternative service worker's responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant classified in Class 1-W is required to comply with all orders issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant classified in Class 1-W is liable to perform 24 months of creditable time toward completion of Alternative Service, unless released earlier by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.10   Job placement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Selective Service will maintain a job bank for the exclusive purpose of placing ASWs in alternative service jobs.
</P>
<P>(b) An ASW who has identified his own job in accordance with § 1656.5(e) of this part may be assigned by the ASO in that job pending review of the job by Selective Service. If the job is then approved as Alternative Service Work in accordance with § 1656.5(a) the ASW will receive creditable time beginning with the date he was placed on the job by Selective Service. If the job is not approved he will not receive creditable time and will be placed by Selective Service in a position approved for Alternative Service Work. Selective Service must review the job within 30 calendar days of the time it assigned the ASW to begin work. If the elapsed time from date of placement to the date of Selective Service review exceeds 30 days, the ASW will receive creditable time from the date of placement regardless of the final determination of employer eligibility made by Selective Service. If the placement is ultimately determined to be inappropriate for Alternative Service the ASW will be reassigned in accordance with § 1656.12.
</P>
<P>(c) In making job interview referrals and in making assignments of ASWs to jobs, Selective Service will consider the compatibility of the ASW's skills, work experience, and preferences with the qualification criteria for the job.
</P>
<P>(d) When An ASW is hired, the ASO will issue a Job Placement Order specifying the employer, the time, date and place to report for his alternative service work.
</P>
<P>(e) The ASO will normally place the ASW in an alternative service job within 30 calendar days after classification in Class 1-W.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.11   Job performance standards and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards of Performance.</I> An ASW is responsible for adhering to the standards of conduct, attitude, appearance and performance demanded by the employer of his other employees in similar jobs. If there are no other employees, the standards shall conform to those that are reasonable and customary in a similar job.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to Perform.</I> An ASW will be deemed to have failed to perform satisfactorily whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) He refuses to comply with an order of the Director issued under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) He refuses employment by an approved employer who agrees to hire him;
</P>
<P>(3) His employer terminates the ASW's employment because his conduct, attitude, appearance or performance violates reasonable employer standards; or
</P>
<P>(4) He quits or leaves his job without reasonable justification, and has not submitted an appeal of his job assignment to the District Appeal Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanctions for ASW's Failure to Perform.</I> (1) The sanctions for failure to meet his Alternative Service obligation are job reassignment, loss of creditable time during such period and referral to the Department of Justice for failure to comply with the Military Selective Service Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to invoking any of the sanctions discussed herein, the ASO will conduct a review as prescribed in § 1656.17 of all allegations that an ASW has failed to perform pursuant to any of the provisions of § 1656.11(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.12   Job reassignment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for Reassignment.</I> The Director may reassign an ASW whenever the Director determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The job assignment violates the ASW's religious, moral or ethical beliefs or convictions as to participation in a war that led to his classification as a conscientious objector or violates § 1656.5(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An ASW experiences a change in his mental or physical condition which renders him unfit or unable to continue performing satisfactorily in his assigned job;
</P>
<P>(3) An ASW's dependents incur a hardship which is not so severe as to justify a suspension of the Order to Perform Alternative Service under § 1656.15;
</P>
<P>(4) The ASW's employer ceases to operate an approved program or activity;
</P>
<P>(5) The ASW's employer fails to comply with terms and conditions of these regulations or;
</P>
<P>(6) Continual and severe differences between the ASW's employer and ASW remain unresolved.
</P>
<P>(7) The sanctions authorized in § 1656.11 should be applied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who May Request Reassignment.</I> Any ASW may request reassignment to another job. An employer may request job reassignment of an ASW who is in his employ.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method for Obtaining a Reassignment.</I> All requests for reassignment must be in writing with the reasons specified. The request may be filed with the ASO of jurisdiction at any time during an ASW's alternative service employment. An ASW must continue in his assigned job, if available, until the request for assignment is approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.13" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.13   Review of alternative service job assignments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Review of ASW job assignments will be accomplished in accordance with the provisions of this subsection.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the ASW believes that his job assignment violates his religious, moral or ethical beliefs or convictions as to participation in war that led to his classification as a conscientious objector or is in violation of the provisions of this part he may request a reassignment by the ASOM, as provided for in § 1656.12.
</P>
<P>(c) The ASOM shall reassign the ASW if the ASOM concludes that the ASW's work assignment violates his religious, moral or ethical beliefs or convictions as to participation in war which led to his classification as a CO or is in violation of the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ASOM does not reassign the ASW, the ASW may, within 15 days after the date of mailing of the decision of the ASOM, request a review of his job assignment by a District Appeal Board.
</P>
<P>(e) It shall be the function of the District Appeal Board to determine whether or not an ASW's job assignment violates the ASW's religious, moral, or ethical beliefs of convictions as to participation in war which led to his classification as a conscientious objector or is in violation of the provisions § 1656.5(a) of this part. In making the former determination, the Review Board must be convinced by the ASW that if the ASW performed the job, his convictions as to participation in war would be violated in a similar way as if the ASW had participated in war.
</P>
<P>(f) The District Appeal Board may affirm the assignment or order the reassignment of the ASW in any matter considered by it.
</P>
<P>(g) Procedures of the District Appeal Board are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appeals to the Board shall be in writing, stating as clearly as possible the ground for the appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) The ASW may appear before the Board at his request. He may not be represented by counsel or present witnesses. The ASOM or his representative may represent the Selective Service System at the hearing and present evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board's determination will be based on all documents in the ASW's file folder and statements made at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The decision of the Board will be binding only in the case before it. A decision of a Board will not be relied upon by a Board in any other case.
</P>
<P>(5) A decision of the Board is not subject to review within the Selective Service System.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.14" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.14   Postponement of reporting date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The reporting date in any of the following orders may be postponed in accord with this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Report for Job Placement;
</P>
<P>(2) Report for a Job Interview; or
</P>
<P>(3) Report to an Employer to Commence Employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for Postponement.</I> A request for postponement of a reporting date specified in an order listed in paragraph (a) must be made in writing and filed prior to the reporting date with the office which issued the order. Such requests must include a statement of the nature of the emergency and the expected period of its duration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grounds for Postponement.</I> An ASW may, upon presentation of the appropriate facts in his request, be granted a postponement based on one or more of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The death of a member of his immediate family;
</P>
<P>(2) An extreme emergency involving a member of his immediate family;
</P>
<P>(3) His serious illness or injury; or
</P>
<P>(4) An emergency condition directly affecting him which is beyond his control.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis for Considering Request.</I> The ASW's eligibility for a postponement shall be determined by the office of jurisdiction based upon official documents and other written information contained in his file. Oral statements made by the ASW or made by another person in support of the ASW shall be reduced to writing and placed in the ASW's file.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duration of Postponement.</I> The initial postponement shall not exceed 60 days from the reporting date in the order. When necessary, the Director may grant one further postponement, but the total postponement period shall not exceed 90 days from the reporting date in the order invovled.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination of Postponement.</I> (1) A postponement may be terminated by the Director for cause upon no less than ten days written notice to the ASW.
</P>
<P>(2) Any postponement shall be terminated when the basis for the postponement has ceased to exist. 
</P>
<P>(3) It is the responsibility of the ASW promptly to notify in writing the office that granted the postponement whenever the basis for which his postponement was granted ceases to exist.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of Postponement.</I> A postponement of the reporting date in an order shall not render the order invalid, but shall only serve to postpone the date on which the ASW is to report. The ASW shall report at the expiration or termination of the postponement.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Religious Holiday.</I> The Director may authorize a delay of reporting under any of the orders specified for an ASW whose date to report conflicts with a religious holiday historically observed by a recognized church, religious sect or religious organization of which he is a member. Any ASW so delayed shall report on the next business day following the religious holiday.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.15" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.15   Suspension of order to perform alternative service because of hardship to dependents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever, after an ASW has begun work, a condition develops that results in hardship to his dependent as contemplated by § 1630.30(a) of this chapter which cannot be alleviated by his reassignment under § 1656.12 (a)(3) of this part, the ASW may request a suspension of Order to Perform Alternative Service. If the local board that ordered the ASW to report for Alternative Service determines he would be entitled to classification in Class 3-A, assuming that the ASW were eligible to file a claim for that class, further compliance with his order shall be suspended for a period not to exceed 365 days, as the local board specifies. Extensions of not more than 365 days each may be granted by the local board so long as the hardship continues until the ASW's liability for training and service under the Military Selective Service Act terminates.
</P>
<P>(b) An ASW may file a request for the suspension of his Order to Perform Alternative Service with the ASO. This request must be in writing, state as clearly as possible the basis for the request, and be signed and dated by the ASW. The ASW must continue working in his assigned job until his request for the suspension of his Order to Perform Alternative Service has been approved.
</P>
<P>(c) Local boards shall follow the procedures established in parts 1642 and 1648 of this chapter to the extent they are applicable in considering a request for the suspension of an Order to Perform Alternative Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.16" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.16   Early release—grounds and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Rule of Service Completion.</I> An ASW will not be released from alternative service prior to completion of 24 months of creditable service unless granted an early release.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasons For Early Release.</I> The Director may authorize the early release of an ASW whenever the ASO determines that the ASW:
</P>
<P>(1) Has failed to meet the performance standards of available alternative service employment because of physical, mental or moral reasons;
</P>
<P>(2) No longer meets the physical, mental or moral standards that are required for retention in the Armed Forces based on a physical or mental examination at a MEPS or other location designated by Selective Service;
</P>
<P>(3) Is planning to return to school and has been accepted by such school and scheduled to enter within 30 days prior to the scheduled completion of his alternative service obligation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Has been accepted for employment and that such employment will not be available if he remains in alternative service the full 24 months. Such early release shall not occur more than 30 days before the scheduled completion of his alternative service obligation; or
</P>
<P>(5) Has enlisted in or has been inducted into the Armed Forces of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reclassification and Records.</I> Upon granting an early release to an ASW, the Director will reclassify the ASW and transfer his records in accordance with § 1656.19 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.17" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.17   Administrative complaint process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the ASOM learns that the ASW may have failed to perform satisfactorily his work (see § 1656.11(b)) or he receives a complaint by an employer or an ASW involving the ASW's work other than matters described in § 1656.8(b) of this part, he shall take necessary action to:
</P>
<P>(1) Interview, as appropriate, all parties concerned to obtain information relevant to the problems or complaints;
</P>
<P>(2) Place a written summary of each interview in the ASW's file and employer's file;
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the persons interviewed that they may prepare and submit to him within ten days after the interview their personal written statements concerning the problem;
</P>
<P>(4) Place such statements in the ASW's file; and
</P>
<P>(5) Resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer or ASW may seek a review of the decision pursuant to § 1656.17(a)(5). Such request must be filed in writing with the ASO, for action by the State Director of Selective Service, within ten days after the date the notice of the decision is transmitted to the ASW and employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.18" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.18   Computation of creditable time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Creditable time starts when the ASW begins work pursuant to an Order to Perform Alternative Service or 30 days after the issuance of such order, whichever occurs first. Creditable time will accumulate except for periods of:
</P>
<P>(1) Work of less than 35 hours a week or an employer's full-time work week whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves of absence in a calendar year of more than 5 days in the aggregate granted by the employer to the ASW to attend to his personal affairs unless such absence is approved by the ASOM;
</P>
<P>(3) Time during which an ASW fails or neglects to perform satisfactorily his assigned Alternative Service;
</P>
<P>(4) Time during which the ASOM determines that work of the ASW is unsatisfactory because of his failure to comply with reasonable requirements of his employer;
</P>
<P>(5) Time during which the ASW is not employed in an approved job because of his own fault; or
</P>
<P>(6) Time during which the ASW is in a postponement period or his Order to Perform Alternative Service has been suspended.
</P>
<P>(b) Creditable time will be awarded for periods of travel, job placement and job interviews performed under orders issued by Selective Service. Creditable time may be awarded for normal employer leave periods.
</P>
<P>(c) Creditable time will be awarded to an ASW for the time lost after he leaves his job assignment following his request for reassignment on the basis of § 1656.13(b) of this part until he is reassigned pursuant to § 1656.13 (c) or (f) of this part. Creditable time for the corresponding period will be lost if neither the ASOM nor the District Appeal Board orders the ASW's reassignment on the basis of § 1656.12(a)(1) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16676, Apr. 19, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 20544, Apr. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.19" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.19   Completion of alternative service.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of 24 months of creditable time served in alternative service or when released early in accordance with § 1656.16(b) (3) or (4):
</P>
<P>(a) The ASW shall be released from the Alternative Service Program; and
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall issue to the ASW a Certificate of Completion and the registrant shall be reclassified in Class 4-W in accordance with § 1630.47 of this chapter, and
</P>
<P>(c) The ASW's records shall be returned to the area office of jurisdiction after the ASW has completed his obligation or has been separated from the Alternative Service Program for any reason.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1656.20" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.19.0.8.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1656.20   Expenses for emergency medical care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims for payment of actual and reasonable expenses for emergency medical care, including hospitalization, of ASWs who suffer illness or injury, and the transportation and burial of the remains of ASWs who suffer death as a direct result of such illness or injury will be paid in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “emergency medical care, including hospitalization”, as used in this section, means such medical care or hospitalization that normally must be rendered promptly after occurrence of the illness or injury necessitating such treatment. Discharge by a physician or facility subsequent to such medical care or hospitalization shall terminate the period of emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims will be considered only for expenses:
</P>
<P>(1) For which only the ASW is liable and for which there is no legal liability for his reimbursement except in accord with the provisions of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) That are incurred as a result of illness or injury that occurs while the ASW is acting in accord with orders of Selective Service to engage in travel or perform work for his Alternative Service employer.
</P>
<P>(d) No claim shall be allowed in any case in which the Director determines that the injury, illness, or death occurred because of the negligence or misconduct of the ASW.
</P>
<P>(e) No claim shall be paid unless it is presented to the Director within one year after the date on which the expense was incurred.
</P>
<P>(f) Cost of emergency medical care including hospitalization greater than usual and customary fees for service established by the Social Security Administration, will <I>prima facie</I> be considered unreasonable. Payment for burial expenses shall not exceed the maximum that the Administrator of Veteran's Affairs may pay under the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 902(a) in any one case.
</P>
<P>(g) Payment of claims when allowed shall be made only directly to the ASW or his estate unless written authorization of the ASW or the personal representative of his estate has been received to pay another person. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1657" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1657—OVERSEAS REGISTRANT PROCESSING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>; E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 24459, July 1, 1987, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1657.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.1   Purpose; definition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part apply to the processing of overseas registrants, and, where applicable, they supersede inconsistent provisions in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) An overseas registrant is a registrant whose bona fide current address most recently provided by him to the Selective Service System is outside the United States, its territories or possessions, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Canada and Mexico.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1657.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.2   Local boards.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall establish local boards with jurisdiction to determine claims of overseas registrants. Such boards shall consist of three or more members appointed by the President. The Director shall prescribe the geographic jurisdiction of each board, and designate or establish an area office to support it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1657.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.3   District appeal boards.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall establish district appeal boards with jurisdiction to determine appeals of claims of overseas registrants. Such boards shall consist of three or more members appointed by the President. The Director shall prescribe the geographic jurisdiction of each board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1657.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.4   Consideration of claims.</HEAD>
<P>An overseas registrant's claim shall be determined by a local board (or its supporting area office) or appeal board as may be established in accord with this part or, upon the request of the registrant filed no later than the filing of his claim for reclassification, by the board having geographic jurisdiction over his permanent address within the United States last reported by him to the Selective Service System prior to issuance of his induction order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1657.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.5   Place of induction.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may order an overseas registrant to any place in the world for induction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1657.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.20.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1657.6   Transportation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall furnish transportation for an overseas registrant from the place at which the registrant's order to report for induction was sent to the place he is required to report for induction. If such registrant is not inducted, the Director shall furnish him transportation from the place he reported for induction to the place to which his order to report for induction was sent.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the personal appearance before a local board or appeal board of an overseas registrant is required or permitted by regulation, travel expenses incurred in personally appearing before the board shall be at the registrant's own expense.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1659" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1659—EXTRAORDINARY EXPENSES OF REGISTRANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11623.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1659.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.21.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1659.1   Claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims for payment of actual and reasonable expenses of:
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency medical care, including hospitalization of registrants who suffer illness or injury; and
</P>
<P>(2) The transportation and burial of the remains of registrants who suffer death while acting under orders issued by or under the authority of the Director of Selective Service will be paid in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims for payment of expenses incurred for the purposes set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall be presented to the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The term <I>emergency medical care, including hospitalization,</I> as used in this section, shall be construed to mean such medical care or hospitalization that normally must be rendered promptly after an occurrence of illness or injury. Discharge by a physician or facility subsequent to such medical care or hospitalization shall be justification to terminate the period of emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) The death of a registrant shall be deemed to have occurred while acting under orders issued by or under the authority of the Director of Selective Service if it results directly from an illness or injury suffered by the registrant while so acting and occurs prior to the completion of an emergency medical care, including hospitalization, occasioned by such illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(d) No such claim shall be paid unless it is presented within the period of one year from the date on which the expenses were incurred.
</P>
<P>(e) No such claim shall be allowed in case it is determined that the cause of injury, illness, or death was due to negligence or misconduct of the registrant.
</P>
<P>(f) Burial expenses shall not exceed the maximum prescribed in Section 11 of the Military Selective Service Act in any one case.
</P>
<P>(g) Payment of such claims when allowed shall be made only:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly to the person or facility with which the expenses were incurred; or
</P>
<P>(2) By reimbursement to the registrant, a relative of the registrant, or the legal representative of the registrant's estate, for original payment of such expenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4664, Feb. 1, 1982] 






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1660" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1660—RELEASE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION IN LITIGATION AND PRESENTATION OF WITNESS TESTIMONY BY SSS PERSONNEL (TOUHY REGULATION)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 50 U.S.C. 3809; and E.O. 11623, 36 FR 19963, 3 CFR, 1971-1975 Comp., p. 614, as amended by E.O. 13286, 68 FR 10619, 3 CFR, 2003 Comp., p. 166.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 59451, Aug. 29, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1660.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for the release of official information in litigation and the presentation of witness testimony by Selective Service System (SSS) personnel pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 301 and the Supreme Court's decision in <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Applies to all SSS personnel (see § 1660.3), in particular, members and personnel of the Office of the Director, National Headquarters Directorates and Offices, Region Offices, Data Management Center, the National Appeals Board, District Appeals Boards, Local Boards (including panels, multicounty, and intercounty boards), and all other organizational entities within the SSS (referred to collectively in this part as the “SSS Components”).
</P>
<P>(b) Is intended only to provide guidance for the internal operations of the SSS, without displacing the responsibility of the Department of Justice to represent the United States in litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) Does not preclude official comments on matters in litigation.
</P>
<P>(d) Does not apply to the release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative proceedings or investigations conducted by or for a SSS Component.
</P>
<P>(2) Security-clearance adjudicative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative proceedings conducted by or for the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or the Merit Systems Protection Board.
</P>
<P>(4) Negotiated grievance proceedings conducted in accordance with a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests by Government counsel representing the United States or a Federal agency in litigation.
</P>
<P>(6) Disclosures to Federal, State, local, or foreign authorities related to investigations or other law-enforcement activities.
</P>
<P>(e) Does not affect in any way existing laws or SSS programs governing:
</P>
<P>(1) The release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony in grand jury proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) Freedom of Information Act requests submitted pursuant to 32 CFR part 1662, even if the records sought are related to litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Privacy Act requests submitted pursuant to 32 CFR part 1665, even if the records sought are related to litigation.
</P>
<P>(4) The release of official information outside of litigation.
</P>
<P>(f) Does not create any right or benefit (substantive or procedural) enforceable at law against the SSS or the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Court.</I> A Federal, State, or local court, tribunal, commission, board, or other adjudicative body of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Demand.</I> An order or subpoena by a court of competent jurisdiction for the production or release of official information or for the presentation of witness testimony by SSS personnel at deposition or trial.
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure.</I> The release of official information in litigation or the presentation of witness testimony by SSS personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Legal advisor.</I> (1) The General Counsel of the SSS (SSS GC).
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal advisor designated by the SSS GC.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation.</I> All pretrial (<I>e.g.,</I> discovery), trial, and post-trial stages of existing judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before a court, whether foreign or domestic.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation request.</I> Any written request by a party in litigation or the party's attorney for the production or release of official information or for the presentation of witness testimony by SSS personnel at deposition, trial, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Official information.</I> All information of any kind and however stored that is in the custody and control of the SSS, relates to information in the custody and control of the SSS, or was acquired by SSS personnel due to their official duties or status.
</P>
<P><I>Personnel.</I> (1) Employees of the SSS.
</P>
<P>(2) Present and former (<I>e.g.,</I> retired, separated) Service members assigned to, detailed to, or otherwise affiliated with the SSS.
</P>
<P>(3) Present and former (<I>e.g.,</I> retired, separated) employees of another Federal agency assigned to, detailed to, or otherwise affiliated with the SSS.
</P>
<P>(4) Any individuals who are or were supervised by an SSS official and who perform or have performed services for the SSS through a contractual arrangement.
</P>
<P>(5) Any individuals who perform or have performed services for the SSS as a volunteer board member (local, panel, multicounty, intracounty, district appeals).
</P>
<P>(6) Members of the National Appeals Board.
</P>
<P><I>SSS Components.</I> The SSS Components consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) National Headquarters Directorates and Offices.
</P>
<P>(3) Region Offices.
</P>
<P>(4) Data Management Center.
</P>
<P>(5) the National Appeals Board.
</P>
<P>(6) District Appeals Boards.
</P>
<P>(7) Local Boards (including panels, multicounty, and intercounty boards).
</P>
<P>(8) All other organizational entities within the SSS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the SSS to make official factual information, both testimonial and documentary, reasonably available for use in Federal courts, State courts, foreign courts, and other governmental proceedings unless that information is classified, privileged, or otherwise protected from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) SSS personnel, as defined in § 1660.3, however, shall not provide such official information, testimony, or documents, submit to interview, or permit a view or visit, without the authorization required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) SSS personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony concerning official SSS information, subjects, personnel, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the Department of Justice, or with the written special authorization required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section constitute a regulatory general order, applicable to all SSS personnel individually, and need no further implementation. A violation of the provisions in paragraphs (b) and (c) is the basis for appropriate administrative procedures with respect to civilian employees. Moreover, violations of this paragraph (d) by SSS personnel may, under certain circumstances, be actionable under 18 U.S.C. 207.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a showing by a requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances, and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the SSS or the United States, the SSS GC may, in their sole discretion, and pursuant to the guidance contained in this part, grant such written special authorization for SSS personnel to appear and testify as expert or opinion witnesses at no expense to the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.5   Responsibilities—the Selective Service System General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The SSS GC has overall responsibility for the policy in this part, oversees the implementation of its procedures throughout the SSS, and provides supplemental guidance as appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.6   Responsibilities—the SSS Component heads.</HEAD>
<P>The SSS Component heads implement the policy and procedures in this part and, through the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor, provide guidance for their respective components.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.7   Procedures—authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a litigation request or demand, and after any required coordination with the Department of Justice, the SSS GC and other SSS legal advisor (see § 1660.3) are authorized to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the respective SSS Components may release official information originated by or in the custody of such components.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether personnel assigned to, detailed to, or affiliated with the respective SSS Components may be contacted, interviewed, or used as witnesses concerning official information or, in exceptional circumstances, as expert witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) Impose conditions or limitations on disclosures approved pursuant to this paragraph (a) (<I>e.g.,</I> approve the release of official information only to a Federal judge for in-camera review).
</P>
<P>(4) Assert claims of privilege or protection before any court.
</P>
<P>(b) The SSS GC may assume primary responsibility for responding to any litigation request or demand.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.8   Procedures—factors to consider.</HEAD>
<P>In making a determination pursuant to § 1660.7(a), the SSS GC and other SSS legal advisor will consider whether:
</P>
<P>(a) The litigation request or demand is overbroad, unduly burdensome, or otherwise inappropriate under applicable law or court rules, or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The disclosure would be improper (<I>e.g.,</I> the information is irrelevant, cumulative, or disproportional to the needs of the case) under the rules of procedure governing the litigation from which the request or demand arose.
</P>
<P>(c) The official information or witness testimony is privileged or otherwise protected from disclosure under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) The disclosure would violate a statute, Executive order, regulation, or policy.
</P>
<P>(e) The disclosure would reveal:
</P>
<P>(1) Information properly classified pursuant to 44 U.S.C. chapters 21, 22, 31, 33, and 35; 5 U.S.C. 102, 105, 552, and 552a; Executive Order 12968, “Access to Classified Information,” August 2, 1995, as amended; Intelligence Community Directive 703, “Protection of Classified National intelligence, Including Sensitive Compartmental Information (SCI),” June 21, 2013; Executive Order 12958, “Classified National Security Information,” April 17, 1995, as amended; and Presidential Memorandum, “Implementation of the Executive Order, `Classified National Security Information,' ” December 29, 2009.
</P>
<P>(2) Controlled Unclassified Information pursuant to Executive Order 13556, “Controlled Unclassified Information,” November 4, 2010, as amended; and 32 CFR part 2002.
</P>
<P>(3) Technical data withheld pursuant to 32 CFR part 250.
</P>
<P>(4) Information protected by the Privacy Act, which may not be disclosed in the absence of written consent, a routine use, or other authority listed in 5 U.S.C. 552a(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Information otherwise exempt from unrestricted disclosure.
</P>
<P>(f) The disclosure would:
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with an ongoing law enforcement proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Compromise a constitutional right of another.
</P>
<P>(3) Expose an intelligence source or confidential informant.
</P>
<P>(4) Divulge a trade secret or similar confidential information.
</P>
<P>(5) Be otherwise inappropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.9   Procedures—requirements and determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A litigation request or demand must describe, in writing and with specificity, the nature of the official information or witness testimony sought, its relevance to the litigation, and other pertinent details addressing the factors in § 1660.8.
</P>
<P>(b) A litigation request or demand must be submitted at least 30 days before the desired date to the Selective Service System, General Counsel, 1501 Wilson Blvd., Suite 800, Arlington, Virginia 22209.
</P>
<P>(c) Personnel and former personnel (<I>e.g.,</I> retired employees and Reserve Service Members, past volunteers) who receive a litigation request or demand must notify the SSS GC or their SSS legal advisor immediately.
</P>
<P>(d) If another Federal agency originated the responsive information or otherwise has the primary equity with respect to that information, the SSS GC will:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfer the litigation request or demand (or the appropriate portions) to such other agency for action.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the requesting party or issuing court.
</P>
<P>(e) If the litigation request or demand requires a response before a determination can be made, the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor will inform the requesting party or the issuing court (through the Department of Justice) that the request or demand is still under consideration. The SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor also may seek a stay from the court in question until a final determination is made.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon making a final determination pursuant to § 1660.7(a), the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor will inform the requesting party or issuing court.
</P>
<P>(g) If the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor approves the release of official information or the presentation of witness testimony, personnel will limit the disclosure to those matters approved by the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor. Personnel may not release, produce, comment on, or testify about any official information without the prior written approval of the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor.
</P>
<P>(h) If a court orders a disclosure that the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor previously disapproved or has yet to approve, personnel must respectfully decline to comply with the court's order unless the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor directs otherwise.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.10   Procedures—fees.</HEAD>
<P>Parties seeking official information by litigation request or demand may be charged reasonable fees to reimburse expenses associated with the Government's response. These reimbursable expenses may include the cost of:
</P>
<P>(a) Materials and equipment used to search for, copy, and produce responsive information.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel time spent processing and responding to the request or demand.
</P>
<P>(c) Attorney time spent assisting with the Government's response, to include reviewing the request or demand and the potentially responsive information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1660.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.22.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1660.11   Procedures—expert or opinion testimony.</HEAD>
<P>In any legal proceeding before the SSS or in which the United States (including any Federal agency or officer of the United States) is a party:
</P>
<P>(a) The SSS GC shall arrange for an employee to testify as a witness for the United States whenever the attorney representing the United States requests it.
</P>
<P>(b) SSS personnel may testify for the United States both as to facts within their personal knowledge and as an expert or opinion witness. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, SSS personnel may not testify as an expert or opinion witness, with regard to any matter arising out of their official duties or the functions of the SSS, for any party other than the United States in any legal proceeding in which the United States is a party. SSS personnel who receive a demand to testify on behalf of a party other than the United States may testify as to facts within the employee's personal knowledge, provided that the testimony be subject to the prior written approval of the SSS GC or other SSS legal advisor and to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and any applicable claims of privilege, the anticipated testimony is not adverse to the interests of the SSS or the United States Government, and is presented at no cost to the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) SSS personnel may testify as an expert or opinion witness on behalf of the SSS or in any legal proceeding conducted by the SSS or the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1662" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1662—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT (FOIA) PROCEDURES




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 50 U.S.C. 3809; 5 U.S.C. 552 and 552a; 18 U.S.C. 1905; 31 U.S.C. 9701; &amp; E.O. 11623, as amended by E.O. 13286, Feb 28, 2003.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 66570, Aug. 16, 2024, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1662.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.1   Scope and purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to describe the Selective Service System's (SSS) policies and procedures for implementing the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) as set forth at 5 U.S.C. 552. The FOIA mandates disclosure to the public of Federal agency records unless specific exemptions apply. The FOIA also requires an agency to proactively disclose records and make certain records available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) The rules in this part describe how SSS makes records available to the public, including:
</P>
<P>(1) What constitutes a proper request for records;
</P>
<P>(2) How to make a FOIA request;
</P>
<P>(3) Who has the authority to release and withhold records;
</P>
<P>(4) What fees may be charged to process a request for records;
</P>
<P>(5) The timing of determinations regarding release;
</P>
<P>(6) The exemptions that permit the withholding of records;
</P>
<P>(7) A requester's right to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison;
</P>
<P>(8) A requester's right to appeal the Agency's FOIA determination;
</P>
<P>(9) A requester's right to seek assistance from the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) and then go to court if they still disagree with the Agency's release determination; and
</P>
<P>(10) The records available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(c) The rules in this part do not revoke, modify, or supersede the SSS regulations relating to disclosure of information in parts 1660 or 1665 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Selective Service System. Agency may also refer to any executive department, military department, government corporation, government-controlled corporation, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Federal Government, or any independent regulatory agency. A private organization is not an agency even if it is performing work under contract with the Government or is receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Chief FOIA Officer</I> means a senior official of SSS who has an Agency-wide responsibility for ensuring efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA, monitoring implementation of the FOIA throughout SSS, and making recommendations to the Director of Selective Service to improve SSS's implementation of the FOIA. The Director of Selective Service designates a Chief FOIA Officer for the Agency. The Director of Selective Service makes final decisions in response to appeals of the Chief FOIA Officer's determinations.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial interest</I> includes interests relating to business, trade, and profit, as well as non-profit corporations, individuals, unions, and other associations. The interest of a representative of the news media in using the information for news dissemination purposes will not be considered a commercial interest.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> consists of the Office of the Director, National Headquarters Directorates and Offices, Data Management Center, Region Offices, and all other organizational entities within SSS that may maintain Agency records subject to a request under the FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> means the process of reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, to the extent necessary to respond to a request. Copies include paper, electronic records, audiovisual materials, and other formats of Agency records.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, elementary or secondary school, institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, or institution of professional or vocational education, which operates a program of scholarly research. To qualify for this category, a requester must show that the FOIA request is authorized by, and is made under the auspices of, a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further a scholarly research goal of the institution, and not for a commercial use or purpose, or for individual use or benefit.
</P>
<P><I>Exemption</I> means one of the nine exemptions to the mandatory disclosure of records permitted under section 552(b) of the FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Expedited processing</I> means the process set forth in the FOIA that allows requesters to request faster processing of their FOIA request if they meet specific criteria noted in § 1662.12.
</P>
<P><I>Fee category</I> means one of the three categories established by the FOIA to determine whether a requester will be charged fees under FOIA for search, review, and duplication. The categories are: commercial use requests; non-commercial scientific or educational institutions and news media requests; and all other requests.
</P>
<P><I>Fee waiver</I> means the waiver or reduction of fees if a requester meets the requirements set forth in § 1662.13.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA Officer</I> means an SSS official whom the Director of Selective Service has delegated the authority to assist the Chief FOIA Officer in releasing or withholding records; assessing, waiving, or reducing fees in response to FOIA requests; and all other determinations regarding the processing of a FOIA request. In this capacity, the FOIA Officer is authorized to request and receive responsive records that may be maintained by other Agency components. Except for records subject to proactive disclosure pursuant to section (a)(2) of the FOIA, only the Chief FOIA Officer has the authority to release or withhold records or to waive fees in response to a FOIA request.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> means an Agency official who reports to the Agency Chief FOIA Officer and serves as a supervisory official to whom a requester can raise concerns about the service the requester received concerning the processing of the FOIA request. This individual is responsible for increasing transparency in the Agency's FOIA business process, helping requesters understand the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes. The FOIA Public Liaison may be contacted via email at <I>FOIA.Public.Liaison@sss.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>FOIA request</I> means a written request that meets the criteria in § 1662.6.
</P>
<P><I>Freedom of Information Act</I> or <I>FOIA</I> means the law codified at 5 U.S.C. 552 that provides the public with the right to request Agency records from Federal executive branch agencies.
</P>
<P><I>News</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast news to the public at large and publishers of periodicals, including print and online publications that disseminate news and make their products available through a variety of means to the public. SSS does not consider FOIA requests for records that support the news dissemination function of the requester to be commercial use. SSS considers “freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity as working for that entity. A publishing contract provides the clearest evidence that a journalist expects publication; however, SSS also considers a requester's past publication record.
</P>
<P><I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that does not further the commercial, trade, or profit interests of any person or entity and is operated for the purpose of conducting scientific research whose results are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P><I>Online FOIA portal</I> means the electronic application that SSS uses to process FOIA requests. The public may also submit requests directly to SSS via the online <I>FOIA.gov</I>—Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P><I>Other requester</I> means any individual or organization whose FOIA request does not qualify as a commercial-use request, representative of the news media request (including a request made by a freelance journalist), or an educational or non-commercial scientific institution request.
</P>
<P><I>Production</I> means the process of preparing the records for duplication, including the time spent in preparing the records for duplication (<I>i.e.,</I> materials used, records/database retrieval, employee, and contractor time, as well as systems processing time).
</P>
<P><I>Reading room</I> means an electronic location(s) that SSS uses to post records that are made available to the public without a specific request. SSS makes reading room records electronically available to the public through the SSS website, <I>https://www.sss.gov/,</I> including at <I>https://www.sss.gov/foia/.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Record(s)</I> means any information maintained by an Agency, regardless of format, that is made or received in connection with official Agency business that is under the Agency's control at the time of the FOIA request. Record(s) includes any information maintained for an Agency by a third party. Record(s) does not include personal records of an employee, or other information in formally organized and officially designated SSS libraries and reading rooms, where such materials are available under the rules of the particular library.
</P>
<P><I>Redact</I> means delete or mark over.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience.
</P>
<P><I>Request</I> means asking for records, whether or not the requester refers specifically to the FOIA. Requests from federal agencies, subpoenas, and court orders for documents are not included within this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Review,</I> unless otherwise specifically defined in this part, means examining records responsive to a request to determine whether any portions are exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing a record for disclosure (<I>i.e.,</I> doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure), including redacting the record and marking the appropriate FOIA exemptions. It does not include the process of resolving general legal or policy issues regarding exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means the process of identifying, locating, and retrieving records responsive to a request, whether in hard copy or in electronic form or format, or by manual or automated/electronic means.
</P>
<P><I>Special services</I> mean performing additional services outside of those required under the FOIA to respond to a request. Examples include using an overnight mail service to send the Agency's response to a FOIA request.
</P>
<P><I>SSS</I> means the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity that provides trade secrets or commercial or financial information to the Agency, and includes individuals, corporations, other organizational entities, and state and foreign governments.
</P>
<P><I>Tolling</I> means temporarily stopping the running of a time limit. SSS may toll a FOIA request to seek clarification from the requester or to address fee issues, as further described in § 1662.11.
</P>
<P><I>Trade secrets and commercial or financial information</I> means trade secrets and commercial or financial information that are confidential, and are obtained by the Agency from a submitter, such that it may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.3   SSS's FOIA policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Presumption of openness.</I> The Agency will withhold information only if the Chief FOIA Officer reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or if disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to release and withhold records.</I> As described in § 1662.9, the Agency's Chief FOIA Officer has the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Release or withhold records in response to initial requests;
</P>
<P>(2) Grant or deny expedited processing; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reduce or waive fees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records publicly available.</I> The Agency makes available for public inspection, in an electronic format, records that have been requested and released three or more times and other specified records described in § 1662.26.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required record production.</I> The FOIA does not require an Agency to give opinions, conduct research, answer questions, or create records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.4   Relationship between the FOIA and the Privacy Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> The FOIA and the rules in this part apply to all SSS records. The Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, applies to records that are about individuals, but only if the records are in a system of records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requesting your own records.</I> If you have filed a FOIA request and are an individual requesting your own records that are maintained in a system of records, or if you are a parent or legal guardian authorized to act on behalf of a minor or custodian who is seeking the records about a minor or individual who has been declared incompetent, the Agency will handle your request under the Privacy Act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.5   Who can file a FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>Any member of the public may submit a FOIA request to SSS. Under the FOIA, “member of the public” includes requests from individuals, corporations, state, and local agencies, as well as foreign entities. Requests from Federal agencies and Federal or state courts are not covered by the FOIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.6   Requirements of a FOIA request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be considered a FOIA request under this part, the following must occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The request must be written (either by hand or electronically);
</P>
<P>(2) The request must be submitted in accordance with § 1662.7;
</P>
<P>(3) The requester must provide the following required contact information: requester's name, U.S. or foreign postal address, description of records sought, and fee willing to pay. While not required, the Agency encourages requesters to provide us with their email address and phone number; and
</P>
<P>(4) The request must clearly state and reasonably describe what SSS records are requested. Broad, sweeping requests and vague requests are not reasonably described. The requester must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable the Agency to locate the records within a reasonable amount of effort. When known, requests should identify the records sought by providing the name/title of the record, applicable date range, subject matter, offices, or employees involved, and record type. If the request is for electronic communications, such as email records, it would assist SSS if the requestor could provide as much information as possible, such as the names, position titles, or other identifying information about the Agency employees involved, as well as the applicable timeframe. Absent sufficient details, the Agency may be unable to search for or locate the records sought. The greater the date range, the longer it may take to process the request and the greater amount of fees that may be charged.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests that do not meet the required criteria above are not considered proper FOIA requests.
</P>
<P>(c) The FOIA requires an Agency to provide the record in any form or format requested by the person if the record is readily reproducible by the Agency in that form or format. SSS will not search or produce records in response to a FOIA request that the FOIA Officer determines would be unduly burdensome (as defined in case law) to process. FOIA requests are unreasonably burdensome when it is a broad, sweeping request that lacks specificity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.7   Where to submit a FOIA request.</HEAD>
<P><I>Submission of requests.</I> Requesters must submit FOIA requests in writing to the Agency through one of the following options:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Online FOIA portal:</I> link available from the Agency's <I>www.sss.gov/foia</I> website.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Email: FOIA@sss.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mail:</I> SSS, ATTN: Freedom of Information Act Officer, 1501 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 700, Arlington, VA 22209.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.8   Requests not processed under the FOIA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chief FOIA Officer will not process a request under the FOIA and the regulations in this part to the extent it asks for records that are currently publicly available, either from SSS or from another part of the Federal Government, unless the requester does not have access to the internet and cannot retrieve records online. See § 1662.26.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief FOIA Officer will not process a request under the FOIA and the regulations in this part if the records sought are distributed by the Agency as part of its regular program activity, for example, public information leaflets distributed by SSS. See §§ 1662.26 through 1662.28.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief FOIA Officer will not process a request under the FOIA that does not meet the requirements of a FOIA request as defined in § 1662.21. When a request under FOIA does not meet the requirements of § 1662.21, the Chief FOIA Officer will send written correspondence to the requester:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing instructions for how to submit a proper FOIA request; or
</P>
<P>(2) Asking for additional information to make the request a proper FOIA request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.9   Chief FOIA Officer's authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Release determination.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer is authorized to make determinations about:
</P>
<P>(1) Release or withholding of records;
</P>
<P>(2) Expedited processing;
</P>
<P>(3) Charging or waiver of fees; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other matters relating to processing a request for records under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination provided in writing.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer's determination is provided in writing to the requester via emailed communication or, in the absence of the requester's email address, via U.S. postal mail. If the requester disagrees with the FOIA Officer's determination in response to items identified in paragraph (a) of this section, the requester may appeal the determination to the Director of Selective Service, as described in § 1662.16.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.10   Responsibility for responding to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When the Chief FOIA Officer first receives a request for a record and SSS maintains that record, it is the responsibility of SSS to respond to the request. In determining which records are responsive to a request, SSS ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date that it begins its search. If any other date is used, SSS will inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer is authorized to grant or to deny any requests for records that are maintained by SSS. Denials may be appealed to the Director of the Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located by SSS in response to a request, the Chief FOIA Officer will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the Agency must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with SSS but contain within them information of interest to another agency or other Federal Government office, SSS will consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When the Chief FOIA Officer believes that a different agency or component is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the Chief FOIA Officer will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if the Chief FOIA Officer and the originating agency jointly agree that SSS is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the Chief FOIA Officer refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it will document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that Agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its file's records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party was not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if the Chief FOIA Officer locates within its files material originating from an Intelligence Community agency, and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could cause national security harms. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the Chief FOIA Officer will coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on whether the record may be disclosed. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination will then be conveyed to the requester by the Chief FOIA Officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving classified information, the Chief FOIA Officer must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, the Chief FOIA Officer will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or that should consider the information for classification. Whenever the record of SSS contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), the Chief FOIA Officer will refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the Chief FOIA Officer will be handled according to the date that SSS received the perfected FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer may establish agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.11   How does SSS process FOIA requests?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement.</I> (1) The Chief FOIA Officer acknowledges all FOIA requests in writing within ten business days after the Agency's receipt of the request. The acknowledgement email or letter restates the FOIA request and provides the requester with the request's tracking number.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Chief FOIA Officer requires clarification to process the FOIA request, the Chief FOIA Officer will contact the requester either via email, U.S. postal mail, or phone call. The Chief FOIA Officer will attempt to contact requesters twice. If the Chief FOIA Officer does not receive a response to their clarification attempts within 30 calendar days from the date of the first contact to the requester, the Chief FOIA Officer will close the FOIA request due to insufficient information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Perfected requests.</I> FOIA requests are considered “perfected,” <I>i.e.,</I> the 20-business day statutory time begins, when the request meets the requirements of the proper FOIA request listed in § 1662.6. There may be times that the Chief FOIA Officer requires more information from the requester after perfecting a request. The 20-business day period may be extended in unusual circumstances by written notice to the requester. See paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited processing.</I> Unless granted expedited processing, the Chief FOIA Officer processes FOIA requests according to a first-in, first-out basis. See § 1662.12 for information on expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multi-tracking procedures.</I> FOIA requests are categorized as either simple or complex, depending on the nature of the request and the estimated processing time:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simple.</I> For most non-expedited requests, the Chief FOIA Officer makes a determination about release of the record(s) requested within 20 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complex.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer will place into a complex processing queue any request that cannot be completed within 20 business days due to unusual circumstances. The Chief FOIA Officer notifies requesters in writing if it is necessary for SSS to take additional time to process a request and of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services with the OGIS. See § 1662.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> (1) Unusual circumstances exist when there is a need to:
</P>
<P>(i) Search for and collect records from SSS components or locations that are separate from National Headquarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Search for, collect, and review a voluminous number of records that are part of a single request; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) Consult with two or more SSS components or another agency having substantial interest in the request before releasing the records.
</P>
<P>(2) Within the unusual circumstances letter to the requester, the Chief FOIA Officer will provide an estimated date that they will contact the requester with the applicable fee notice and/or further correspondence. The Chief FOIA Officer will also advise the requester that they may modify or narrow the scope of their request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fee notice.</I> FOIA requesters are issued a fee notice from the Chief FOIA Officer that informs them of the estimated search and review time associated with processing their FOIA request. For more information on fees, see § 1662.13.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tolling.</I> (1) The Chief FOIA Officer may stop or toll the 20 business days in two circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The Chief FOIA Officer may stop the clock one time if they require additional information regarding the specifics of the request; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Chief FOIA Officer may stop the clock as many times as needed regarding fee assessments.
</P>
<P>(2) The processing time will resume upon the Chief FOIA Officer's receipt of the requester's response. There may be instances when the Chief FOIA Officer requires multiple clarifications on a FOIA request. After the first request for clarification, any additional clarifications are performed without tolling the clock. Should the requester not respond to any correspondence wherein the Chief FOIA Officer requests clarification, or should the correspondence be returned as undeliverable, the Agency reserves the right to administratively close the FOIA request if the Chief FOIA Officer does not receive a response within 30 business days of the date of their correspondence requesting clarification.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Retrieving records.</I> The Agency is required to furnish copies of records only when they are in the Agency's possession or SSS can retrieve them from storage. The Federal government follows National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) rules on record retention. Records are retained or destroyed under the guidelines of the Federal Records Act.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unproductive searches.</I> SSS will search for records to satisfy a request using methods that can be reasonably expected to produce the requested records. Nevertheless, the Agency may not be able to find the records requested using the information provided by the requester, or they may not exist. If the Chief FOIA Officer advises that SSS is unable to find the records despite a diligent search, the requester may appeal the no records determination to the Director of Selective Service, as described in § 1662.16.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Furnishing records.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer will provide the requester with the record(s) requested unless disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or disclosure is prohibited by law. When information within a responsive record(s) is exempt from disclosure, the information is redacted and the applicable FOIA exemption(s) are noted within the redacted cell. The Chief FOIA Officer will make reasonable efforts to provide the records in the form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format. The Chief FOIA Officer may provide individual records as the Agency processes them on a rolling basis, or the Chief FOIA Officer may release all responsive records once the request is completed. See § 1662.14 for more information on the release of records by SSS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.12   Expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Expedited processing must be requested at the same time as the FOIA request. The Chief FOIA Officer provides expedited processing when the requester can demonstrate a “compelling need” for the requested information, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) When there is an imminent threat to the life or safety of a person;
</P>
<P>(2) When the request is from the media, or others primarily engaged in disseminating information, and shows an immediate urgency to inform the public about actual or alleged government activities; or
</P>
<P>(3) When the requester can show, in detail and to the Chief FOIA Officer's satisfaction, that a prompt response is needed because the requester may be denied a legal right, benefit, or remedy without the requested information, and that it cannot be obtained elsewhere in a reasonable amount of time.
</P>
<P>(b) Only the Chief FOIA Officer may make the decision to grant or deny expedited processing. Requests that do not meet the “compelling need” criteria will be processed normally. If the Chief FOIA Officer does not grant the request for expedited processing, the requester may appeal the denial to the Director of Selective Service. In the appeal letter, the requester should explain why they believe their request demonstrates a “compelling need,” such as describing how the request meets the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section. The process described in § 1662.16 will apply to these appeals.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.13" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.13   Fees associated with processing FOIA requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, the Chief FOIA Officer shall charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (i) of this section. Because the fee amounts provided below already account for the direct costs associated with a given fee type, the Chief FOIA Officer should not add any additional costs to charges calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search.</I> (i) Requests made by educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media are not subject to search fees. Search fees shall be charged for all other requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (b) of this section. The Chief FOIA Officer may properly charge for time spent searching even if the Agency does not locate any responsive records or if the Chief FOIA Officer determines that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by personnel searching for requested records, including electronic searches that do not require new programming, the fees shall be as follows: professional—$10.00; and clerical/administrative—$4.75.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesters shall be charged the direct costs associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. Requesters shall be notified by the Chief FOIA Officer of the costs associated with creating such a program and must agree to pay the associated costs before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by the Agency at a Federal records center operated by NARA, additional costs shall be charged in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> Duplication fees shall be charged to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (b) of this section. The Chief FOIA Officer shall honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where it is readily reproducible in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, the Chief FOIA Officer shall provide one copy per request at a cost of five cents per page. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, components shall charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. Where paper documents must be scanned to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester shall pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, the Chief FOIA Officer shall charge the direct costs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> Review fees shall be charged to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees shall be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, <I>i.e.,</I> the review conducted by the Chief FOIA Officer to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with the Agency's re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees shall be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) No search fees will be charged for requests by educational institutions (unless the records are sought for commercial use), non-commercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Agency fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, the Chief FOIA Officer may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Chief FOIA Officer has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and they provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Chief FOIA Officer has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply, and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Chief FOIA Officer may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees if the following steps are taken. The Chief FOIA Officer must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and the Chief FOIA Officer must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Chief FOIA Officer may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, the Chief FOIA Officer shall provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) When, after first deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, a total fee calculated under paragraph (a) of this section is $25.00 or less for any request, no fee will be charged.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When the Chief FOIA Officer determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the Chief FOIA Officer shall notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review, or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the Chief FOIA Officer shall advise the requester accordingly. If the requester is a non-commercial use requester, the notice shall specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and shall advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which a requester has been notified that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request shall not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a non-commercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing to the Chief FOIA Officer, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. The Agency is not required to accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the Chief FOIA Officer estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, they shall toll the processing of the request when they notify the requester of the estimated fees more than the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The Chief FOIA Officer shall inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) The Agency shall make available the FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA professional to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges for other services.</I> Although not required to provide special services, if the Chief FOIA Officer chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service shall be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charging interest.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges shall be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the Chief FOIA Officer. The Chief FOIA Officer shall follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the Chief FOIA Officer reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Chief FOIA Officer may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Chief FOIA Officer may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, the Chief FOIA Officer will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters shall not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraph (g)(2) or (g)(3) of this section, the Chief FOIA Officer shall not require the requester to make an advance payment before work on a request is commenced or continued. Payment owed for work already completed (<I>i.e.,</I> payment before copies are sent to a requester) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the Chief FOIA Officer determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, they may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. The Chief FOIA Officer may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when they receive a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to the Agency within 30 calendar days of the billing date, the Chief FOIA Officer may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and the Chief FOIA Officer may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before the FOIA Officer begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where the Chief FOIA Officer has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which the Chief FOIA Officer requires advance payment, the request shall not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the Chief FOIA Officer's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily based fee schedule program, the Chief FOIA Officer shall inform the requester of the contact information for that program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief FOIA Officer must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when they determine, based on all available information, that disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In deciding whether this standard is satisfied the component must consider the factors described in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the requested information would be likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The Chief FOIA Officer will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the Chief FOIA Officer will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) FOIA requires an Agency requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is an identified commercial interest, the Chief FOIA Officer must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. The Chief FOIA Officer ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the Chief FOIA Officer and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request later so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester shall be required to pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.14" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.14   Release of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records previously released.</I> If the Agency has released a record, or a part of a record, to others in the past, the Chief FOIA Officer will ordinarily release it to the requester, as well. However, the Chief FOIA Officer will not release it to a requester if a statute forbids this disclosure; an exemption applies that was not previously applicable; or if the previous release was unauthorized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Withholding records.</I> Section 552(b) of the FOIA explains the nine exemptions under which the Chief FOIA Officer may withhold records requested under the FOIA. Within §§ 1662.18 through 1662.25, the Agency describes the FOIA exemptions and explain how the Chief FOIA Officer applies them to disclosure determinations. In some cases, more than one exemption may apply to the same document. Section 552(b) of the FOIA, while providing nine exemptions from mandatory disclosure, does not itself provide any assurance of confidentiality by the Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reading room.</I> If the record(s) requested are already publicly available, either in the SSS electronic reading room or elsewhere online, such as at <I>www.sss.gov,</I> SSS will direct the requester to the publicly available record(s), unless the requester does not have access to the internet.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Poor copy.</I> If the Chief FOIA Officer cannot make a legible copy of a record to be released, they do not attempt to reconstruct it. Instead, the Chief FOIA Officer will furnish the best copy possible and note its poor quality in their reply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.15" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.15   FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief FOIA Officer notifies requesters of their right to seek dispute resolution from the FOIA Public Liaison or OGIS within the SSS fee notices, responses to determinations identified in § 1662.9(a), and responses to appeals.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>FOIA Public Liaison.</I> If requesters have questions about the response to their request or wish to seek dispute resolutions services within SSS, the requester may contact the FOIA Public Liaison via email to <I>FOIA.Public.Liaison@sss.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>OGIS.</I> OGIS is an entity outside of SSS that offers mediation services to resolve disputes between FOIA requesters and Federal agencies as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. OGIS' contact information will be provided in any decision letter issued by the Chief FOIA Officer and Director of Selective Service.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.16" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.16   Appeals of the Chief FOIA Officer's determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal requirements.</I> If a requester disagrees with the Chief FOIA Officer's determination in response to items specified in § 1662.9, the requester may appeal the decision to the Director of Selective Service. The appeal must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Be submitted in writing via the avenues identified in § 1662.7;
</P>
<P>(2) Be received within 90 days from the date of the determination the requester is appealing; and
</P>
<P>(3) Explain what the requester is appealing and include additional information to support the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement.</I> The Director of Selective Service acknowledges all appeals in writing within 10 business days after their receipt of the appeal. The acknowledgement is provided via email or, when the requester does not provide an email address, via U.S. postal mail. The acknowledgement email or letter restates the FOIA appeal and provides the requester with the appeal's tracking number.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing timeframe.</I> FOIA appeals are categorized as either simple or complex, based on the designation of the initial request.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simple.</I> Generally, the Director of Selective Service makes a determination about release of the requested record(s) within 20 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complex.</I> Appeals of complex requests cannot be completed within 20 business days due to unusual circumstances. During the Director of Selective Service's processing of the appeal, they will need to consult with appropriate SSS component(s), including legal counsel; therefore, the Director of Selective Service generally requires more than 20 business days to issue a final decision on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final decision.</I> The Director of Selective Service makes decisions on appeals of the Chief FOIA Officer's determinations.
</P>
<P>(1) The Director of Selective Service's final decision is provided in writing to the requester via email or, in the absence of the requester's email address, via U.S. postal mail.
</P>
<P>(2) The final decision letter will explain the basis of the decision (for example, the reasons why an exemption applies).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disagreement with final decision.</I> If a requester disagrees with the final decision issued by the Director of Selective Service, they may seek assistance from OGIS, as described in § 1662.15. Requesters may also ask a U.S. District Court to review the Director of Selective Service's final decision. See 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.17" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.17   U.S. District Court action.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director of Selective Service, upon review, affirms the denial of the Chief FOIA Officer's determination of items specified in § 1662.9(a), requesters may ask a U.S. District Court to review that denial. See 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.18" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.18   The FOIA Exemption 1: National defense and foreign policy.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure records that are specifically authorized under criteria established by an executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such executive order.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.19" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.19   The FOIA Exemption 2: Internal personnel rules and practices.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure records that are related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.20" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.20   The FOIA Exemption 3: Records exempted by other statutes.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure records if another statute specifically allows or requires the agency to withhold them. The Chief FOIA Officer may use another statute to justify withholding only if it prohibits disclosure; it sets forth criteria to guide the Chief FOIA Officer's decision on releasing; or identifies types of material to be withheld.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.21" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.21   The FOIA Exemption 4: Trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure trade secrets as well as commercial or financial information that is obtained from a person that is either privileged or confidential. SSS will allow submitters to designate information as trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information at the time of submission or within a reasonable time thereafter. Submitters must use good faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under the FOIA exemptions. These designations expire ten years after the due date of the submission unless the submitter requests a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Steps of submitters notice</I>—(1) <I>The submitter's notice.</I> When trade secrets or confidential commercial or financial information is requested under the FOIA, the Chief FOIA Officer will provide written submitter's notice if they have substantial reason to believe that information in the records could reasonably be considered exempt under the FOIA Exemption 4. The submitter's notice will describe and include a copy of the trade secret, or commercial or financial information requested. In cases involving many submitters, SSS may publish a submitter's notice to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure instead of sending individual notifications. The submitter's notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Chief FOIA Officer determines the information is fully exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information has been previously published or made generally available; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure of the information is required by statute other than the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter's opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (i) The submitter must respond to the notice within five business days of the Chief FOIA Officer issuing the submitter's notice or the information may be released in accordance with these regulations and the FOIA. A submitter who fails to respond within five business days will be considered to have no objection to the disclosure of the information. The Chief FOIA Officer is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a submitter objects to disclosure, the submitter should provide the Chief FOIA Officer with a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. To rely on Exemption 4 as basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Chief FOIA Officer will consider a submitter's timely made objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever the Chief FOIA Officer decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, they must provide the following to the submitter:
</P>
<P>(i) A Release Over Objection letter explaining the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections did not meet the requirements for withholding under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the information as SSS intends to release it; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the Chief FOIA Officer's intent to disclose the information five business days from the date on the Release Over Objection letter unless the submitter files an action in a U.S. District Court to prevent the release.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> When a submitter's notice is issued for a request that is the subject of a lawsuit, the Chief FOIA Officer shall notify the submitter of the lawsuit within the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requester notification.</I> To the extent the Chief FOIA Officer expects substantial delays in the processing of FOIA requests due to the Agency's communications with the submitter, they will notify the requester in writing via email, or when the requester's email is not provided, via U.S. postal mail.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.22" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.22   The FOIA Exemption 5: Internal documents.</HEAD>
<P>This exemption covers inter-agency or intra-agency government documents that fall within an evidentiary privilege recognized in civil discovery. Such internal government communications include an agency's communications with an outside consultant or other outside person, with a court, or with Congress, when those communications are for a purpose similar to the purpose of privileged intra-agency communications. Some of the most commonly applicable privileges are described in the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Deliberative process privilege.</I> This privilege protects the decision-making processes of government agencies. Information is protected under this privilege if it is pre-decisional and deliberative. The purpose of the privilege is to prevent injury to the quality of the agency decision-making process by encouraging open and frank internal discussions, by avoiding premature disclosure of decisions not yet adopted, and by avoiding the public confusion that might result from disclosing reasons that were not in fact the ultimate grounds for an agency's decision. Purely factual material in a deliberative document is within this privilege only if it is inextricably intertwined with the deliberative portions so that it cannot reasonably be segregated, if it would reveal the nature of the deliberative portions, or if its disclosure would in some other way make possible an intrusion into the decision-making process. The privilege continues to protect pre-decisional documents even after a decision is made; however, the Chief FOIA Officer will release pre-decisional deliberative communications that were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records are requested, unless disclosure is otherwise prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attorney work product privilege.</I> This privilege protects records prepared by or for an attorney in anticipation of or for litigation. It includes documents prepared for purposes of administrative and court proceedings. This privilege extends to information directly prepared by an attorney, as well as materials prepared by non-attorneys working for an attorney.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attorney-client communication privilege.</I> This privilege protects confidential communications between an attorney and the attorney's client where legal advice is sought or provided.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.23" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.23   The FOIA Exemption 6: Clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure records about individuals if disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.24" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.24   The FOIA Exemption 7: Law enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA exempts from disclosure information or records that the government has compiled for law enforcement purposes. The records may apply to actual or potential violations of either criminal or civil laws or regulations. The Agency can withhold these records only to the extent that releasing them would cause harm in at least one of the following situations:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement proceedings.</I> Pursuant to the FOIA Exemption 7(A) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(a)), the Chief FOIA Officer may withhold information whose release could reasonably be expected to interfere with prospective or ongoing law enforcement proceedings. Investigations of fraud and mismanagement, employee misconduct, and civil rights violations may fall into this category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fair trial or impartial adjudication.</I> Under the FOIA Exemption 7(B) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(b)), the FOIA exempts from disclosure records whose release would deprive a person of a fair trial or an impartial adjudication because of prejudicial publicity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personal privacy.</I> Under the FOIA Exemption 7(C) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(c)), the FOIA exempts from disclosure personally identifiable information of individuals when the disclosure could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidential sources and information.</I> Pursuant to the FOIA Exemption 7(D) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(d)), the FOIA exempts from disclosure the identity of confidential sources, as well as the records obtained from the confidential sources in criminal investigations or by an agency conducting a lawful national security investigation. A confidential source may be an individual; a state, local, or foreign government agency; or any private organization. The exemption applies whether the source provides information under an express promise of confidentiality or under circumstances from which such an assurance could be reasonably inferred; however, inferred confidentiality is determined in a case-by-case analysis. Also protected from mandatory disclosure is any information which, if disclosed, could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the system of confidentiality that assures a flow of information from sources to investigatory agencies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Techniques and procedures.</I> Under the FOIA Exemption 7(E) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(e)), the FOIA exempts from disclosure records reflecting special techniques or procedures of investigation or prosecution, not otherwise generally known to the public. In some cases, it is not possible to describe even in general terms those techniques without disclosing the very material to be withheld. The Chief FOIA Officer may also withhold records whose release would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if this disclosure could reasonably be expected to create a risk that someone could circumvent requirements of law or of regulation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Life and physical safety.</I> Under the FOIA Exemption 7(F) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)(f)), the Chief FOIA Officer may withhold records whose disclosure could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual. This protection extends to threats and harassment, as well as to physical violence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.25" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.25   The FOIA Exemptions 8 and 9: Records on financial institutions; records on wells.</HEAD>
<P>Exemption 8 exempts from disclosure records about regulation or supervision of financial institutions. Exemption 9 exempts from disclosure geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.26" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.26   Records available for public inspection.</HEAD>
<P>Under the FOIA, SSS is required to make available for public inspection in an electronic format:
</P>
<P>(a) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as orders, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency's statements and interpretations of policy that have been adopted but are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(c) Administrative staff manuals and instructions that affect the public; and
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of records, regardless of form or format, that an agency determines will likely become the subject of subsequent requests, as well as records that have been requested and released three or more times, unless said materials are published and copies are offered to sale.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.27" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.27   Where records are published.</HEAD>
<P>Materials SSS is required to publish pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) are published in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(a) By publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of Selective Service System regulations, and by their subsequent inclusion in the Code of Federal Regulations;
</P>
<P>(b) By publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of appropriate general notices; and/or
</P>
<P>(c) By other forms of publication, when incorporated by reference in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1662.28" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.23.0.8.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1662.28   Publications for sale through the Government Publishing Office.</HEAD>
<P>The public may purchase publications containing information pertaining to the program, organization, functions, and procedures of SSS from the electronic U.S. Government Bookstore maintained by the Government Publishing Office. The publications for sale include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Title 50, Chapter 49, of the United States Code (the Military Selective Service Act);
</P>
<P>(b) Title 32, Subtitle B, Chapter XVI, of the Code of Federal Regulations (Selective Service System Regulations);
</P>
<P>(c) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> issues; and
</P>
<P>(d) Legal Aspects of the Selective Service System.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1665" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1665—PRIVACY ACT PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 3801 <I>et seq.;</I> and 5 U.S.C. 552a.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1665.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.1   Rules for determining if an individual is the subject of a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals desiring to know if a specific system of records maintained by the Selective Service System (SSS) contains a record pertaining to them should address their inquiries in writing or by electronic means to the Selective Service System, ATTN: Records Manager, Public and Intergovernmental Affairs Directorate, Arlington, VA 22209-2425. Online inquiries in English and Spanish may be made at: Contact Us | Selective Service System: Selective Service System (sss.gov) or by email using <I>PrivacyAct@sss.gov.</I> The written or electronic inquiry should contain the following information: name and address of the requester, email address of subject (for electronic requests only), identity of the systems of records, and nature of the request. It should also include identifying information specified in the applicable SSS System of Record Notices to assist in identifying the request, such as location of the record, if known, full name, birth date, time periods in which the records are believed to have been complied, etc. SSS Systems of Record Notices subject to the Privacy Act is in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and copies of the notices will be available upon request to the records manager. A compilation of such notices will also be made and published by the Office of Federal Register, in accord with 5 U.S.C. 552a(f). Requesters seeking copies of their registration records with the SSS may first seek to obtain their registration number and related information by visiting <I>https://www.sss.gov/verify/</I> and making the request. To make this request, the individual must provide their last name, social security number and date of birth when completing the required fields to access their registration information online. For other documentation requests such as for a registration Status of Information Letter (SIL), the individual must make the request electronically or in writing and send via the United States Postal Service (USPS).
</P>
<P>(b) For requesters who make a hand-written request for USPS delivery or electronic request for information to SSS, will ordinarily be informed of whether the named system of records contains a record pertaining to the requester within 10 days of receipt of such a request (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays). Such a response will also contain or reference the procedures which must be followed by the individual making the request in order to gain access to the record.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a response cannot be made within 10 days, the records manager will inform the requester of the reason for the delay and the date by which a response may be anticipated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982; 69 FR 1525, Jan. 9, 2004, as amended at 89 FR 35005, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.2   Requests for access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requirement for written or electronic requests. Individuals desiring to gain access to a record pertaining to them in a system of records maintained by SSS must submit their request in writing or electronically (as specified in § 1665.1(a)) in accord with the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Content of the request.</I> (i) The request for access to a record in a system of records shall be addressed to the records manager, at the address cited above, and shall name the system of records or contain a description of such system of records. The request should state that the request is pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974. In the absence of specifying solely the Privacy Act of 1974 and, if the request may be processed under both the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act and the request specifies both or neither act, the procedures under the Privacy Act of 1974 will be employed. The individual will be advised that the procedures of the Privacy Act will be utilized, of the existence and the general effect of the Freedom of Information Act, and the difference between procedures under the two acts (e.g. fees, time limits, access). The request should contain necessary information to verify the identity of the requester (see § 1665.2(b)(2)(vi)). In addition, the requester should include any other information which may assist in the rapid identification of the record for which access is being requested (e.g., maiden name, dates of employment, etc.) as well as any other identifying information contained in and required by SSS Notice of Systems of Records.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the request for access follows a prior request under § 1665.1, the same identifying information need not be included in the request for access if a reference is made to that prior correspondence, or a copy of the SSS response to that request is attached.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the individual specifically desires a copy of the record, the request should so specify.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SSS action on request.</I> A request for access will ordinarily be answered within 10 days, except when the records manager determines that access cannot be afforded in that time, in which case the requester will be informed of the reason for the delay and an estimated date by which the request will be answered. Normally access will be granted within 30 days from the date the request was received by the Selective Service System. At a minimum, the answer to the request for access shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that there is a record as requested or a statement that there is not a record in the system of records maintained by SSS;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement as to whether access will be granted only by providing copy of the record through the mail; or the address of the location and the date and time at which the record may be examined. In the event the requester is unable to meet the specified date and time, alternative arrangements may be made with the official specified in § 1665.2(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement, when appropriate, that examination in person will be the sole means of granting access only when the records manager has determined that it would not unduly impede the requester's right of access;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of fees charged, if any (see § 1665.6) (Fees are applicable only to requests for copies);
</P>
<P>(v) The name, title, and telephone number of the SSS official having operational control over the record; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The documentation required by SSS to verify the identity of the requester. At a minimum, SSS's verification standards include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Current or former SSS employees.</I> Current or former SSS employees requesting access to a record pertaining to them in a system of records maintained by SSS may, in addition to the other requirements of this section, and at the sole discretion of the official having operational control over the record, have his or her identity verified by visual observation. If the current or former SSS employee cannot be so identified by the official having operational control over the records, identification documentation will be required. Employee identification cards, annuitant identification, drivers licenses, or the <I>employee copy</I> of any official personnel document in the record are examples of acceptable identification validation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Other than current or former SSS employees.</I> Individuals other than current or former SSS employees requesting access to a record pertaining to them in a system of records maintained by SSS must produce identification documentation of the type described herein, prior to being granted access. The extent of the identification documentation required will depend on the type of record to be accessed. In most cases, identification verification will be accomplished by the presentation of two forms of identification. Any additional requirements are specified in the system notices published pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Access granted by mail.</I> For records to be accessed by mail, the records manager shall, to the extent possible, establish identity by a comparison of signatures in situations where the data in the record is not so sensitive that unauthorized access could cause harm or embarrassment to the individual to whom they pertain. No identification documentation will be required for the disclosure to the requester of information required to be made available to the public by 5 U.S.C. 552. When in the opinion of the records manager the granting of access through the mail could reasonably be expected to result in harm or embarrassment if disclosed to a person other than the individual to whom the record pertains, a notarized statement of identity or some similar assurance of identity will be required.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Unavailability of identification documentation.</I> If an individual is unable to produce adequate identification documentation the individual will be required to sign a statement asserting identity and acknowledging that knowingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to a record about another person under false pretenses may result in a fine of up to $5,000. In addition, depending upon the sensitivity of the records sought to be accessed, the official having operational control over the records may require such further reasonable assurances as may be considered appropriate e.g., statements of other individuals who can attest to the identity of the requester. No verification of identity will be required of individuals seeking access to records which are otherwise available to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552, Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Access by the parent of a minor, or legal guardian.</I> A parent of a minor, upon <I>presenting suitable personal identification,</I> may access on behalf of the minor <I>any record pertaining to the minor</I> maintained by SSS in a system of records. A legal guardian may similarly act on behalf of an individual declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction. <I>Absent a court order or consent,</I> a parent or legal guardian has no absolute right to have access to a record about a child. Minors are not precluded from exercising on their own behalf rights given to them by the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Granting access when accompanied by another individual.</I> When an individual requesting access to his or her record in a system of records maintained by SSS wishes to be accompanied by another individual during the course of the examination of the record, the individual making the request shall submit to the official having operational control of the record, a signed statement authorizing that person access to the record.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Denial of access for inadequate identification documentation.</I> If the official having operational control over the records in a system of records maintained by SSS determines that an individual seeking access has not provided sufficient identification documentation to permit access, the official shall consult with the records manager prior to finally denying the individual access.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Review of decision to deny access.</I> Whenever the records manager determines, in accordance with the procedures herein, that access cannot be granted the response will also include a statement of the procedures to obtain a review of the decision to deny in accord with § 1665.5.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Exceptions.</I> (A) Nothing in these regulations shall be construed to entitle an individual the right to access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. The mere fact that records in a system of records are frequently the subject of litigation does not bring those systems of records within the scope of this provision. This provision is not intended to preclude access by an individual to the records which are available to that individual under the other processes such as the Freedom of Information Act or the rules of civil procedure.
</P>
<P>(B) Within any system of records pertaining to possible violations of the Military Selective Service Act, the identity of or any information pertaining to any individual who provides information relating to a suspected violator will not be revealed to the suspected violator. This exemption is made under the provision of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982, as amended at 89 FR 35005, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.3   Access to the accounting of disclosures from records.</HEAD>
<P>Rules governing the granting of access to the accounting of disclosure are the same as those for granting accesses to the records (including verification of identity) outlined in § 1665.2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.4   Requests to amend records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for written or electronic requests.</I> Individuals desiring to amend a record that pertains to them in a system of records maintained by SSS must submit their request in writing or electronically (as specified in § 1665.1(a)) in accord with the procedures set forth herein. Records not subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 will not be amended in accord with these provisions. However, individuals who believe that such records are inaccurate may bring this to the attention of SSS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> (1)(i) The requests to amend a record in a system of records shall be addressed to the records manager. Included in the request shall be the name of the system and a brief description of the record proposed for amendment. In the event the request to amend the record is the result of the individual's having gained access to the record in accordance with the provisions concerning access to records as set forth above, copies of previous correspondence between the requester and SSS will serve in lieu of a separate description of the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the individual's identity has been previously verified pursuant to § 1665.2(b)(2)(vi), further verification of identity is not required as long as the communication does not suggest that a need for verification is present. If the individual's identity has not been previously verified, SSS may require identification validation as described in § 1665.2(b)(2)(vi). Individuals desiring assistance in the preparation of a request to amend a record should contact the records manager at the address cited above.
</P>
<P>(iii) The exact portion of the record the individual seeks to have amended should be clearly indicated. If possible, the proposed alternative language should also be set forth, or at a minimum, the facts which the individual believes are not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete should be set forth with such particularity as to permit SSS not only to understand the individual's basis for the request, but also to make an appropriate amendment to the record.
</P>
<P>(iv) The request must also set forth the reasons why the individual believes his record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. In order to avoid the retention by SSS of personal information merely to permit verification of records, the burden of persuading SSS to amend a record will be upon the individual. The individual must furnish sufficient facts to persuade the official in charge of the system of the inaccuracy, irrelevancy, timeliness or incompleteness of the record.
</P>
<P>(v) Incomplete or inaccurate requests will not be rejected categorically. The individual will be asked to clarify the request as needed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SSS action on the request.</I> To the extent possible, a decision, upon a request to amend a record will be made within 10 days, (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays). The response reflecting the decisions upon a request for amendment will include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The decision of the Selective Service System whether to grant in whole, or deny any part of the request to amend the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for determination for any portion of the request which is denied.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of the official with whom an appeal of the denial may be lodged.
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of the official designated to assist, as necessary and upon request of, the individual making the request in preparation of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the review of the appeal with SSS (see § 1665.5).
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of any other procedures which may be required of the individual in order to process the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) If the nature of the request for the correction of the system of records precludes a decision within 10 days, the individual making the request will be informed within 10 days of the extended date for a decision. Such a decision will be issued as soon as it is reasonably possible, normally within 30 days from the receipt of the request (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays) unless unusual circumstances preclude completing action within that time. If the expected completion date for the decision indicated cannot be met, the individual will be advised of the delay of a revised date when the decision may be expected to be completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982, as amended at 89 FR 35005, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.5   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the requester is dissatisfied with the SSS response, the requester can appeal an adverse determination denying the request to the appellate authority listed in the notification of denial letter. The appeal must be made in writing or electronically (as specified in § 1665.1(a)), and it must be postmarked (or sent by email) within 60 calendar days of the date of the letter denying the initial request for records or amendment of information. The appeal should include a copy of the SSS determination (including the assigned request number, if known). For the quickest possible handling, the appeal whether in writing or by email should specify that it is a “Privacy Act Appeal.” If the requester is dissatisfied with the SSS response, the requester can appeal an adverse determination denying an initial request to access or amend a record in accordance with the provisions of §§ 1665.2 and 1665.4. The requester should submit the appeal in writing or electronically (as specified in § 1665.1(a)) and, to the extent possible, include the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Individuals desiring assistance in the preparation of their appeal should contact the records manager at the address provided herein.
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal should contain a brief description of the record involved or in lieu thereof, copies of the correspondence from SSS in which the request to access or to amend was denied and also the reasons why the requester believes that access should be granted or the disputed information amended. The appeal should make reference to the information furnished by the individual in support of his claim and the reasons as required by §§ 1665.2 and 1665.4 set forth by SSS in its decision denying access or amendment. Appeals filed without a complete statement by the requester setting forth the reasons for review will, of course, be processed. However, in order to make the appellate process as meaningful as possible, the requester's disagreement should be set forth in an understandable manner. In order to avoid the unnecessary retention of personal information, SSS reserves the right to dispose of the material concerning the request to access or amend a record if no appeal in accord with this section is received by SSS within 180 days of the mailing by SSS of its decision upon an initial request. A appeal received after the 180 day period may, at the discretion of the records manager, be treated as an initial request to access or amend a record.
</P>
<P>(c) The appeal should be addressed to the Director of Selective Service.


</P>
<P>(d) The appellant will be notified of the decision on his or her appeal in writing or by email within 20 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays) from the date of receipt by SSS of the individual's request for review unless the <I>appeal authority</I> extends the 20 days period for good cause. The extension and the reasons therefore will be sent by SSS to the requester within the initial 20-day period. Such extensions should not be routine and should not normally exceed an additional 30 days. If the decision affirms the adverse determination in whole or in part, the notification will include a brief statement of the reason(s) for the affirmation, including any exemptions applied, and will inform the appellant of the Privacy Act provisions for judicial review of the appellate authority's decision, a description of the steps the individual may take to obtain judicial review of such a decision, a statement that the individual may file a concise statement with SSS setting forth the individual's reasons for his disagreement with the decision, and the procedures for filing such a statement of disagreement. The Director of Selective Service has the authority to determine the <I>conciseness</I> of the statement, <I>considering</I> the scope of the disagreement and the complexity of the issues. Upon the filing of a proper, concise statement by the individual, any subsequent disclosure of the information in dispute will be clearly noted so that the fact that the record is disputed is apparent, which shall include a copy of the concise statement furnished and a concise statement by SSS setting forth its reasons for not making the requested changes, if SSS chooses to file such a statement. A notation of a dispute is required to be made only if an individual informs SSS of their disagreement with its determination in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. A copy of the individual's statement, and if it chooses, SSS's statement will be sent to any prior transferee of the disputed information who is listed on the accounting required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(c). If the reviewing official determines that the record should be amended in accord with the individual's request, SSS will promptly correct the record, advise the individual, and inform previous recipients if an accounting of the disclosure was made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c). The notification of correction pertains to information actually disclosed. If the adverse determination is reversed or modified, in whole or in part, the appellant will be notified in writing of this decision and the request will be reprocessed in accordance with that appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(e) In order to seek a judicial review of a denial of a request for access to records, a requester must first file an appeal under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) An appeal ordinarily will not be acted on if the request becomes a matter of litigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982, as amended at 89 FR 35005, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.6   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitions against charging fees.</I> Individuals will not be charged for:
</P>
<P>(1) The search and review of the record.
</P>
<P>(2) Any copies of the record produced as a necessary part of the process of making the record available for access, or
</P>
<P>(3) Any copies of the requested record when it has been determined that access can only be accomplished by providing a copy of the record through the mail.
</P>
<P>(4) Where a registrant has been charged under the Military Selective Service Act and must defend himself in a criminal prosecution, or where a registrant submits to induction and thereafter brings habeas corpus proceedings to test the validity of his induction, the Selective Service System will furnish to him, or to any person he may designate, one copy of his Selective Service file free of charge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> The Director of Selective Service may at no charge, provide copies of a record if it is determined the production of the copies is in the interest of the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee schedule and method of payment.</I> Fees will be charged as provided below except as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Duplication of records.</I> Records will be duplicated at a rate of $.25 per page.
</P>
<P>(2) Fees should be paid in full prior to issuance of requested copies. In the event the requester is in arrears for previous requests, copies will not be provided for any subsequent request until the arrears have been paid in full.
</P>
<P>(3) Remittance shall be in the form of cash, a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the order of the Selective Service System and mailed or delivered to the records manager, Selective Service System, 1501 Wilson Blvd., Suite 700, Arlington, VA 22209.
</P>
<P>(4) A receipt of fees paid will be given upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982; 69 FR 1525, Jan. 9, 2004, as amended at 89 FR 35006, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.7   Information available to the public or to those seeking confirmation of SSS registration status to convey benefits related to registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) SSS maintains a record which contains the name, Selective Service number, and registration status of those that have registered with SSS.
</P>
<P>(b) Any compensated employee of SSS may disclose to an entity seeking to convey a benefit related to SSS registration status by law whether the individual has or has not registered with SSS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7224, Feb. 18, 1982; 69 FR 1525, Jan. 9, 2004, as amended at 89 FR 35006, May 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.8   Systems of records exempted from certain provisions of this act.</HEAD>
<P>The SSS will not provide requesters information exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k), (<I>e.g.,</I> the SSS will not reveal to the suspected violator the informant's name or other identifying information relating to the informant).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 35006, May 1, 2024] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1665.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.24.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1665.9   SSS Compliance with the Social Security Fraud Prevention Act of 2017 to limit the use of Social Security numbers on documents mailed by the Selective Service System (SSS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) A document that SSS sends by mail shall not include the Social Security number (SSN) of an individual, except where the Director of Selective Service (or other Agency official whom the Director of Selective Service may designate) determines that it is necessary. If so, the SSN must be truncated to the extent feasible, as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) The document shall include no more than the last four digits of the SSN; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the document needs to include more digits, then only where they are:
</P>
<P>(i) Required by law (including, but not limited to, a statute, court order, or other legal mandate);
</P>
<P>(ii) Needed to identify a specific individual when no adequate substitute is available; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Needed to fulfill some other compelling SSS business need.
</P>
<P>(b) No portion of an SSN may be visible on the outside of any SSS mailing.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, “mail” and “mailing” means printed documents or correspondence, and does not include emails or any other documents, correspondence, or communications in electronic form.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this section shall apply to mail sent by SSS, including mailings by a contractor on SSS's behalf, on or after November 13, 2023.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 78641, Nov. 16, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1690" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1690 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1697" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1697—SALARY OFFSET
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514, and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 48098, Nov. 21, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1697.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation provides procedures for the collection by administrative offset of a federal employee's salary without his/her consent to satisfy certain debts owed to the federal government. These regulations apply to all federal employees who owe debts to the Selective Service System and to current employees of the Selective Service System who owe debts to other federal agencies. This regulation does not apply when the employee consents to recovery from his/her current pay account.
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation does not apply to debts or claims arising under:
</P>
<P>(1) The Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, 26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.:</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The tariff laws of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any case where a collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108).
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation does not apply to any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's selection of coverage or a change in coverage under a federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less.
</P>
<P>(d) This regulation does not preclude the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection action where appropriate under the standards implementing the Federal Claims Collection Act 31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.</I> 4 CFR parts 101 through 105 and 45 CFR part 1177.
</P>
<P>(e) This regulation does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774 or 32 U.S.C. 716 or in any way questioning the amount or validity of the debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the General Accounting Office. This regulation does not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver pursuant to other statutory provisions applicable to the particular debt being collected.
</P>
<P>(f) Matters not addressed in these regulations should be reviewed in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards at 4 CFR 101.1 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of the part the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means an executive agency as is defined at 5 U.S.C. 105 including the U.S. Postal Service and the U.S. Postal Rate Commission; a military department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; an agency or court in the judicial branch, including a court as defined in section 610 of title 28 U.S.C., the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multidistrict Litigation; an agency of the legislative branch including the U.S. Senate and House of Representatives; and other independent establishments that are entities of the federal government.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> means an amount owed to the United States from sources which include loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the United States from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interests, fines, forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice) and all other similar sources.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of Selective Service or his designee.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means the amount that remains from an employee's federal pay after required deductions for social security, federal, state or local income tax, health insurance premiums, retirement contributions, life insurance premiums, federal employment taxes, and any other deductions that are required to be withheld by law.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a current employee of an agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces (Reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means an individual responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed, and who renders a decision on the basis of such hearing. A hearing official may not be under the supervision or control of the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<P><I>Paying Agency</I> means the agency that employs the individual who owes the debt and authorizes the payment of his/her current pay.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his/her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774., 32 U.S.C. 716, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), or any other law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations are to be followed when:
</P>
<P>(1) The Selective Service System is owed a debt by an individual currently employed by another federal agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The Selective Service System is owed a debt by an individual who is a current employee of the Selective Service System; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Selective Service System employs an individual who owes a debt to another federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.4   Notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deductions shall not be made unless the employee is provided with written notice signed by the Director of the debt at least 30 days before salary offset commences.
</P>
<P>(b) The written notice shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the debt is owed and an explanation of its nature and amount;
</P>
<P>(2) The agency's intention to collect the debt by deducting from the employee's current disposable pay account;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount, frequency, proposed beginning date, and duration of the intended deduction(s);
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of interest, penalties, and administrative charges, including a statement that such charges will be assessed unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards at 4 CFR 101.1 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect or request and receive a copy of government records relating to the debt;
</P>
<P>(6) The opportunity to establish a written schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt;
</P>
<P>(7) The right to a hearing conducted by an impartial hearing official;
</P>
<P>(8) The methods and time period for petitioning for hearings;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the timely filing of a petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) A statement that a final decision on the hearing will be issued not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) A statement that any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5 U.S.C., part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any other applicable statutes or regulations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729 through 3731 of title 31 U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18 U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and 
</P>
<P>(13) Unless there are contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, a statement that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.5   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> (1) An employee must file a petition for a hearing in accordance with the instructions outlined in the agency's notice to offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing may be requested by filing a written petition addressed to the Director of Selective Service stating why the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt. The petition for a hearing must be received by the Director no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of the notice to offset unless the employee can show good cause for failing to meet the deadline date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) The hearing will be presided over by an impartial hearing official. 
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing shall conform to procedures contained in the Federal Claims Collection Standards 4 CFR 102.3(c). The burden shall be on the employee to demonstrate that the existence or the amount of the debt is in error.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.6   Written decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing official shall issue a written opinion no later than 60 days after the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The written opinion will include: a statement of the facts presented to demonstrate the nature and origin of the alleged debt; the hearing official's analysis, findings and conclusions; the amount and validity of the debt, and the repayment schedule, if applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.7   Coordinating offset with another federal agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Selective Service System as the creditor agency.</I> (1) When the Director determines that an employee of a federal agency owes a delinquent debt to the Selective Service System, the Director shall as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Arrange for a hearing upon the proper petitioning by the employee; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Certify in writing to the paying agency that the employee owes the debt, the amount and basis of the debt, the date on which payment is due, the date the government's right to collect the debt accrued, and that Selective Service System regulations for salary offset have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management; 
</P>
<P>(iii) If collection must be made in installments, the Director must advise the paying agency of the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Advise the paying agency of the actions taken under 5 U.S.C. 5514(b) and provide the dates on which action was taken unless the employee has consented to salary offset in writing or signed a statement acknowledging receipt of procedures required by law. The written consent or acknowledgement must be sent to the paying agency; 
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is in the process of separating, the Selective Service System must submit its debt claim to the paying agency as provided in this part. The paying agency must certify any amounts already collected, notify the employee and send a copy of the certification and notice of the employee's separation to the creditor agency. If the creditor agency is aware that the employee is entitled to Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund or similar payments, it must certify to the agency responsible for making such payments the amount of the debt and that the provisions of this part have been followed; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) If the employee has already separated and all payments due from the paying agency have been paid, the Director may request, unless otherwise prohibited, that money payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund or other similar funds be collected by administrative offset as provided under 5 CFR 831.1801 or other provisions of law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Selective Service System as the paying agency.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a properly certified debt claim from another agency, deductions will be scheduled to begin at the next established pay interval. The employee must receive written notice that the Selective Service System has received a certified debt claim from the creditor agency, the amount of the debt, the date salary offset will begin, and the amount of the deduction(s). The Selective Service System shall not review the merits of the creditor agency's determination of the validity or the amount of the certified claim.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee transfers to another agency after the creditor agency has submitted its debt claim to the Selective Service System and before the debt is collected completely, the Selective Service System must certify the total amount collected. One copy of the certification must be furnished to the employee. A copy must be furnished the creditor agency with notice of the employee's transfer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.8   Procedures for salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deductions to liquidate an employee's debt will be by the method and in the amount stated in the Director's notice of intention to offset as provided in § 1697.4. Debts will be collected in one lump sum where possible. If the employee is financially unable to pay in one lum sum, collection must be made in installments.
</P>
<P>(b) Debts will be collected by deduction at officially established pay intervals from an employee's current pay account unless alternative arrangements for repayment are made with the approval of the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) Installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size of installment deductions must bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. The deduction for the pay intervals for any period must not exceed 15% of disposable pay unless the employee has agreed in writing to a deduction of a greater amount.
</P>
<P>(d) Unliquidated debts may be offset against any financial payment due to a separated employee including but not limited to final salary or leave payment in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.9" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.9   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Selective Service System will refund promptly any amounts deducted to satisfy debts owed to the Selective Service System when the debt is waived, found not owed to the Selective Service System, or when directed by an administrative or judicial order. 
</P>
<P>(b) The creditor agency will promptly return any amounts deducted by the Selective Service System to satisfy debts owed to the creditor agency when the debt is waived, found not owed, or when directed by an administrative or judicial order.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless required by law, refunds under this subsection shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.10" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.10   Statute of Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>If a debt has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the agency's right to collect the debt first accrued, the agency may not collect by salary offset unless facts material to the government's right to collect were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials who were charged with the responsibility for discovery and collection of such debts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.11" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.11   Non-waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any part of a debt collected under these regulations will not be construed as a waiver of any rights that employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law unless there are statutes or contract(s) to the contrary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1697.12" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.26.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1697.12   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Charges may be assessed for interest, penalties, and administrative costs in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 4 CFR 102.13 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1698" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1698—ADVISORY OPINIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Military Selective Service Act, 50 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>; E.O. 11623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 24460, July 1, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1698.1" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part prescribe the procedures for requesting and processing requests for advisory opinions relative to a named individual's liability for registration under the Military Selective Service Act (MSSA), 50 U.S.C. App. 451 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.2" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.2   Requests for advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any male born after December 31, 1959 who has attained 18 years of age may request an advisory opinion as to his liability to register under MSSA. A parent or guardian of such person who is unable to make a request for an advisory opinion may request an advisory opinion for him. Any Federal, state or municipal governmental agency may request an advisory opinion as to the liability of any male person born after December 31, 1959 who has attained 18 years of age to register under MSSA.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for advisory opinions shall be in writing and addressed to Director of Selective Service, ATTN: SIL, P.O. Box 94638, Palatine, IL 60094-4638. With respect to the person concerning whom an advisory opinion is requested, the following should be furnished: full name, address, date of birth, Social Security Account Number, basis for the opinion that the registration requirement is inapplicable to him, and, if applicable, basis for his assertion that his failure to register “. . . was not a knowing and willful failure to register.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24460, July 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 47670, Aug. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.3" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.3   Requests for additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may request additional appropriate information from the requester for an advisory opinion.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director will forward a copy of the request by a Federal, state or municipal governmental agency for an advisory opinion to the person to whom the request pertains and invite his comments on it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.4" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.4   Confidentiality of advisory opinions and requests for advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>Advisory opinions will be confidential except as provided in § 1698.6. Requests for advisory opinions will be confidential except as provided in § 1698.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.5" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.5   Basis of advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>Advisory opinions will be based on the request therefor, responses to requests for information, and matters of which the Director can take official notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.6" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.6   Issuance of advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>A copy of the advisory opinion will be furnished, without charge, to the requester therefor and to the individual to whom it pertains. A copy of an advisory opinion will be furnished, without charge, to any Federal, state, or municipal governmental agency upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.7" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.7   Reconsideration of advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Director has reason to believe that there is substantial error in the information on which an advisory opinion is based, he may reconsider it and issue an appropriate revised opinion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1698.8" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.27.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1698.8   Effect of advisory opinion.</HEAD>
<P>The Selective Service System will not take action with respect to any person concerning whom the Director has issued an advisory opinion insonsistent with that advisory opinion.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1699" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1699—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY SELECTIVE SERVICE SYSTEM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>9 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 35219, Aug. 30, 1985, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1699.101" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.102" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.103" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Selective Service System.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such disease and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addition and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (l) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Development Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.104-1699.109" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.104-1699.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.110" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, within one year of the effective date of this part, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (a) of this section, maintain on file and make available for public inspection—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.111" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the agency head finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and its regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.112-1699.129" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.112-1699.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.130" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aids, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under, any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped person is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.131-1699.139" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.131-1699.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.140" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.141-1699.148" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.141-1699.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.149" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.149   Program accessibility: discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1699.150, no qualified handicapped persons shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subject to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.150" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.150   Program accessibility: existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1699.150(a) would result in such alterations or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4141 through 4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section within sixty days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, at the time, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the officials responsible for implementation of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.151" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.151   Program accessibility: new construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handcapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 14-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.152-1699.159" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.152-1699.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.160" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aid where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's), or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signs at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1699.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.161-1699.169" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.161-1699.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1699.170" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1699.170   Compliance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) Responsibility for implementation and operation of this section shall be vested in the Associate Director for Administration.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible and usable to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusion of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy of each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 1699.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Director of Selective Service.
</P>
<P>(j) The agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the agency determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it receives the additional information to make its determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1699.171-1699.999" NODE="32:6.2.2.17.28.0.8.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1699.171-1699.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="32:6.2.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OFFICE OF THE DIRECTOR OF NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE </HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1700" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1700—PROCEDURES FOR DISCLOSURE OF RECORDS PURSUANT TO THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT 




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 50 U.S.C. 3023-3025; Pub. L. 108-458, 118 Stat. 3638.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 48726, July 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1700.1" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued under the authority of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552; the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, 50 U.S.C. 3023-3025; and the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004, Public Law 108-458, 118 Stat. 3638.
</P>
<P>(b) This part prescribes procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) ODNI administration of the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(2) Requesting records from ODNI pursuant to the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(3) Filing an administrative appeal with ODNI of an initial adverse decision under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains the rules that ODNI follows in processing requests for records under the FOIA. The rules in this part should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.2" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Direct costs</I> are those expenditures which ODNI actually incurs in the processing of a FOIA request. It includes, but is not limited to, the salary of the employee performing the work and costs associated with duplication. It does not include overhead factors such as space.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees</I> are those direct costs which may be assessed considering the categories established by the FOIA. Requesters should submit information to assist ODNI in determining the proper fee category. ODNI may draw reasonable inferences from the identity and activities of the requester in making fee determinations. The fee categories include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request.</I> A request seeking information for a use or purpose that furthers the requester's commercial, trade, or profit interests, including pursuit of those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational institution.</I> Any institution that operates a program or programs of scholarly research. To be in this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scholarly research. ODNI may seek assurance from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution.</I> An institution that is not operated on a commercial basis and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. To be in this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scientific research.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Representative of the news media.</I> Any person or entity that actively gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that concerns current events or that would be of interest to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Freedom of Information Act, FOIA,</I> or <I>the Act</I> is the statute as codified at 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> is the individual designated by the Chief FOIA Officer to assist FOIA requesters with concerns about ODNI's processing of their FOIA requests, including assistance in resolving disputes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information Review &amp; Release Group (“IRRG”) Chief</I> is the ODNI employee to whom the Chief of the ODNI Information Management Office (IMO) has delegated their responsibility for processing FOIA requests.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ODNI</I> is the Office of the Director of National Intelligence and its component organizations. This does not include other members of the Intelligence Community as defined in 50 U.S.C. 3003, or other federal entities subsequently designated in accordance with this authority, unless specifically designated and included in this part or in the notice of a system of records.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>OGIS</I> is the Office of Government Information Services within the National Archives and Records Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pages</I> are paper copies of standard office size or the dollar value equivalent in other media.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Person</I> is an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization other than an agency.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Record</I> is any document, irrespective of physical or electronic form, made or received by ODNI in pursuance of federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business and appropriate for preservation by ODNI as evidence of the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of ODNI or because of the informational value of the data contained therein.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reproduction</I> is the generation of a copy of a requested record in a form appropriate for release.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Requester</I> is a person, organization, or other entity who submits a written or electronic communication requesting information on or concerning the FOIA program, the availability of records from ODNI, or both.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Review</I> means all time expended in examining a record to determine whether any portion must be withheld pursuant to law and in effecting any required deletions. This does not include personnel hours expended in resolving general legal or policy issues.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Search</I> means all time expended in looking for and retrieving material that may be responsive to a request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.3" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about the FOIA program at ODNI, or to file a FOIA request, a written submission should be sent, either by mail to the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, IRRG Chief, Information Management Office, Washington, DC 20511, or by email to <I>DNI-FOIA@dni.gov.</I> To check on the status of a pending case, an individual may either call the ODNI FOIA Office at (703) 275-1313 or email the ODNI FOIA Office at <I>DNI-FOIA@dni.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.4" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.4   Requirements for making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FOIA requests must be submitted in writing. They may be sent to the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, IRRG Chief, Information Management Office, Washington, DC 20511; by email to <I>DNI-FOIA@dni.gov;</I> or through the FOIA portal at <I>https://www.foia.gov.</I> For the most expeditious handling, the request letter and envelope, or subject line of the electronic transmission, should be marked “Freedom of Information Act Request.” The requester shall provide contact information, such as a phone number, email address, or mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) A requester who is making a request for records about themselves must comply with the verification of identity requirements provided in the ODNI Privacy Act regulations, 32 CFR 1701.7(d).
</P>
<P>(c) Where a request for records pertains to a third party, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that third party or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that third party. Such notarized authorization or declaration should authorize disclosure of the requested records to the requester. If the third party is deceased, the requester should submit proof of that fact (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). As an exercise of administrative discretion, ODNI can require a requester to supply additional information to verify that a third party has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests must describe the records sought with sufficient detail to enable ODNI personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. In general, requesters should include as much detail as possible about the specific records or the types of records that they are seeking, such as the date, title, name, author, recipient, or subject matter of the record. Before or after submitting their requests, requesters may contact the FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they are seeking and to receive assistance in describing the records. If ODNI determines that a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, ODNI shall inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the agency's response to the request may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(e) A request should specify the preferred format (including electronic) to convey the records requested. ODNI will accommodate a request for a specific format if the record is readily available in that format. When the format of the response is not specified, ODNI will provide responsive records in the most convenient format.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.5" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.5   Processing of requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On receipt of a request, IMO's IRRG staff will send an acknowledgement letter to the requester which will provide an assigned request number for future reference and, if fees will be charged, shall confirm the requester's agreement to pay fees.
</P>
<P>(b) To determine which records are responsive to the request, IRRG staff will task relevant ODNI components to search all places likely to contain potentially responsive records. The ODNI components ordinarily will include records in their possession as of the date that they begin their search unless the request specifically included an end date for the search. If another date is used, the IRRG staff will inform the requester of the date used and the reason for its use. The potentially responsive records will be sent to IRRG staff for responsiveness review and application of relevant exemptions, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) When reviewing responsive records, ODNI will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the agency will ordinarily proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) When the record originates with ODNI but contains information of interest to another agency or other Federal Government office, ODNI will typically consult with that other agency or office prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) When ODNI believes that a different agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, ODNI typically will refer the record to that agency and ask that agency to respond to the requester concerning that record (provided the other agency is subject to FOIA).
</P>
<P>(i) Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record will be presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if ODNI and the originating agency jointly agree that ODNI is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If another agency accepts responsibility for responding to a particular record, ODNI will notify the requester of the referral. When appropriate and available, the notice will include a point of contact for the other agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. For instance, if ODNI locates within its file's materials originating with another Intelligence Community element, and the involvement of that element in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then disclosing or attributing the involvement of that Intelligence Community element could cause damage to the national security. In such an instance, and to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, ODNI will coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosure of the record. ODNI will then inform the requester of the release determination.
</P>
<P>(d) When a request is made for information that is classified, ODNI must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. When a request involves a record containing classified information that has been classified by another agency, ODNI will refer that portion of the request to the agency that originated the information, or has the primary interest in it, as appropriate. Similarly, when a record contains information that ODNI has derivatively classified (for example, when ODNI's classification is based on information originally classified by another agency), ODNI must refer that portion of the request to the agency that originally classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(e) ODNI will notify the requester of its determination to grant, deny, or refer the FOIA request. ODNI will release reasonably segregable, non-exempt information. For any adverse determination—including those regarding any disputed fee matter; a denial of a request for a fee waiver; a determination to withhold a record in whole or in part; a determination that a record does not exist or cannot be located; or a denial of a request for expedited processing—the notice will include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the determination to deny the request in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied in denying the request. The notice will indicate, if feasible, the amount of information deleted and the exemption under which a deletion is made on the released portion of the record, unless including that information would harm an interest protected by the exemption;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of information withheld, if applicable, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation. Such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable FOIA exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the adverse determination may be appealed and a description of the requirements for an appeal; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the FOIA Public Liaison, and the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.6" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.6   Time frames for ODNI responses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ODNI will ordinarily respond to requests according to their order of receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) When evaluating requests, ODNI may use two or more processing tracks by distinguishing between simple and more complex requests based on the amount of work or time needed to process the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, ODNI will respond to a FOIA request within 20 days after receipt of the request. A request is received by ODNI, for purposes of commencing the 20-day time frame for its response, on the day that the request is received by the IMO or, in any event, not later than ten days after the request is first received by any ODNI component.
</P>
<P>(d) ODNI must determine whether to grant or deny, in whole or in part, an administrative appeal submitted in accordance with § 1700.7 within 20 days after receipt of the appeal, unless the time frame for a response to an appeal is extended in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) ODNI may toll the 20-day time frame set forth in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section for one of the two reasons cited below, as permitted by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(A)(ii). If ODNI tolls the time frame, the tolling period ends upon receipt of the requester's response.
</P>
<P>(1) Once, to await information that the ODNI has reasonably requested from the requester; or
</P>
<P>(2) As necessary, to clarify with the requester issues regarding the fee assessment.
</P>
<P>(f) Whenever the statutory time limit for processing a request cannot be met because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and ODNI extends the time limit on that basis, ODNI will notify the requester in writing, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which processing of the request can be expected to be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 days, ODNI shall, as described by the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing. ODNI shall make available its designated FOIA contact and its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose and notify the requester of the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS.
</P>
<P>(g) For the purposes of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, ODNI may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. ODNI will notify the requester(s) of the decision to aggregate.
</P>
<P>(h) Requests and appeals shall be processed on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve a compelling need. For this purpose, a “compelling need” involves either:
</P>
<P>(1) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(i) A request for expedited processing must be in writing and may be made at any time.
</P>
<P>(j) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. Under this paragraph (h), a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—an urgency that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, ODNI may waive the formal certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(k) The IMO will decide within 10 days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing of its decision whether to grant or deny such a request. If expedited processing is granted, the request shall be given priority, placed in the processing track for expedited requests, and shall be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision shall be acted on expeditiously.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.7" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.7   Administrative appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A requester may appeal any adverse determination to a person designated by the Director of National Intelligence (the “Designee”). The Designee will act on behalf of the Director of National Intelligence on all appeals under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes subject to litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The appeal must be transmitted if sent by email, or postmarked if sent by U.S. mail, within 90 days after the date of the adverse determination letter. The appeal shall clearly identify the ODNI determination that is being appealed, including the assigned ODNI case request number. For the most expeditious handling, the subject line of the electronic transmission, or appeal letter and envelope, should be marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(d) On receipt of any appeal involving classified information, the Designee must take appropriate action to ensure compliance with applicable classification rules.
</P>
<P>(e) ODNI's decision on an appeal shall be in writing. A decision upholding ODNI's original determination will contain a statement that identifies the reasons for affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision will provide the requester with notification of the statutory right to file a lawsuit and will inform the requester of the mediation services offered by OGIS as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If ODNI's decision is remanded or modified on appeal, the requester will be notified of that determination in writing. ODNI will thereafter further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.8" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.8   Procedures for requests implicating confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by ODNI from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides information, either directly or indirectly, to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or within a reasonable time thereafter, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected under FOIA Exemption 4. These designations shall expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) ODNI will provide the submitter with prompt written notice of confidential commercial information when records containing such information are responsive to a FOIA request and ODNI determines that it may be required to disclose the records. The notice shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Give the submitter an opportunity to object to disclosure of the information, in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the confidential commercial information requested or include copies of the requested record(s) or record portion(s) containing the information; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the submitter of the time frame in which it must respond to the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) ODNI will allow the submitter seven days to respond to the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section. If the submitter objects to the disclosure of the information, in whole or in part, they must provide ODNI with a detailed written statement of the objection. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the information under any FOIA exemption and, when relying on FOIA Exemption 4, it must explain why the information is a trade secret, or commercial or financial information that is privileged and confidential. If the submitter fails to respond within the time frame specified in the notice or an extended time frame if requested by the submitter, ODNI will conclude that the submitter has no objection to disclosure of the information. ODNI will only consider information that it receives within the time frame specified in the notice or an extended time frame if requested by the submitter. Any information provided by a submitter under this Part may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.


</P>
<P>(e) ODNI will consider the submitter's objection and specific grounds for non-disclosure in deciding whether to disclose confidential commercial information. Whenever ODNI decides to disclose information over the submitter's objection, it will provide written notice to the submitter that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the bases for withholding were not sustained in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which shall be a reasonable time after the notice.
</P>
<P>(f) The notice requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) ODNI determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (a) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such a case, ODNI shall, within a reasonable time prior to the date the disclosure will be made, give the submitter written notice of the final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<P>(g) Whenever ODNI provides a submitter with the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section, ODNI also will provide notice to the requester that notice and an opportunity to object to the disclosure are being provided to the submitter. ODNI also must notify the requester when it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information, and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.9" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.9   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Search, review, and reproduction fees will be charged in accordance with the provisions below relating to the schedule, limitations, and category of requester. Applicable fees will be due even if a subsequent search locates no responsive records or some or all of the responsive records must be denied under one or more of the exemptions of the FOIA. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(1) ODNI will charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs in processing a FOIA request. Fees may be charged for search, review or duplication. As a matter of administrative discretion, ODNI may release records without charge or at a reduced rate whenever ODNI determines that the interest of the U.S. Government would be served. ODNI will use the most efficient and least costly methods to comply with a request. ODNI may charge for search time even if no records are located or the records located are exempt from disclosure. If ODNI fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees, unless the circumstances outlined in paragraph (o) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) With regard to manual searches for records, ODNI will charge the salary rate(s) (calculated as the basic rate of pay plus 16 percent of that basic rate to cover benefits) of the employee(s) performing the search.
</P>
<P>(c) In calculating charges for computer searches for records, ODNI will charge the actual direct cost of providing the service, including the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners, directly attributable to searching for records potentially responsive to the FOIA request and the portion of the salary of the operators/programmers performing the search.
</P>
<P>(d) ODNI may only charge requesters seeking records for commercial use for time spent reviewing records to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure. Charges may be assessed only for the initial review—that is, the review undertaken the first time IRRG staff analyzes the applicability of a specific exemption to a particular record or portion of a record. Records or portions of records withheld in full under an exemption that is subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed again to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. ODNI may assess the costs for such subsequent review. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage.
</P>
<P>(e) Records will be duplicated at a rate of $.50 per page, except that ODNI may adjust this rate from time to time by rule published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> For copies prepared by computer, such as tapes, CDs, DVDs, or printouts, ODNI will charge the actual cost, including operator time, of production. For other methods of reproduction or duplication, ODNI will charge the actual direct costs of producing the document(s). If ODNI estimates that duplication charges are likely to exceed $25.00, it will notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester indicated in advance their willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. The notice will offer an opportunity to confer with IRRG staff to reformulate the request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost. If ODNI notifies a requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designate some amount of fees they are willing to pay, or in the case of a non-commercial use requester who has not yet been provided with their statutory entitlements, the requester designates that they seek only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The ODNI's IRRG staff or FOIA Public Liaison are available to assist requesters with reformulating requests to meet their needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(f) ODNI will charge the requester the full costs of providing them with the following services:
</P>
<P>(1) Certifying that records are true copies; or
</P>
<P>(2) Sending records by special methods such as express mail.
</P>
<P>(g) ODNI may assess interest charges on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the bill was sent. Interest shall be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by ODNI.
</P>
<P>(h) ODNI will not charge a search fee for requests by educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media. A search fee will be charged for a commercial use request.
</P>
<P>(i) ODNI will not charge duplication fees for requests by educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media for a non-commercial use request if ODNI fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request.
</P>
<P>(j) Except for a commercial use request, ODNI will not charge for the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(k) A requester may not file multiple requests, each seeking portions of a record or records, solely for the purpose of avoiding payment of fees. When ODNI reasonably believes that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, has submitted requests that constitute a single request involving clearly related matters, ODNI may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly.
</P>
<P>(l) ODNI may not require a requester to make payment before ODNI begins work to satisfy the request or to continue work on a request, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) ODNI estimates or determines that the allowable charges that the requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250.00; or
</P>
<P>(2) The requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged within 30 calendar days of the date of billing.
</P>
<P>(m) In cases in which ODNI requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of ODNI's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(1) Upon completion of all required review and the receipt of accrued fees (or promise to pay fees), ODNI will promptly inform the requester in writing of those records or portions of records that will be released and those that will be denied.
</P>
<P>(2) For records to be released, ODNI will provide paper copies or records on electronic media, if requested and available.
</P>
<P>(3) For records not released or partially released, ODNI shall explain the reasons for any denial and give notice of a right of administrative appeal. For partial releases, redactions will be applied to ensure requesters can see the placement and general length of withholdings with the applicable exemption(s) clearly with respect to each withholding.
</P>
<P>(n) Fee waiver requests and appeals. Upon written request, ODNI may waive or reduce fees that are otherwise chargeable under this part. If a fee waiver or reduction in fees is requested, the requester must demonstrate that a waiver or reduction in fees is in the public interest because disclosure of the requested records is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the requester's commercial interest. After processing, actual fees must exceed $25.00 for ODNI to require payment of fees. Appeals should be resolved prior to the initiation of processing and the incurring of costs. However, fee waiver requests will be accepted at any time prior to ODNI's decision regarding the request, except when processing has been initiated.
</P>
<P>(o) If the ODNI has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the ODNI may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (h) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken.
</P>
<P>(1) The ODNI must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and ODNI must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) If this exception is satisfied, the ODNI may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 48726, July 28, 2023; 88 FR 51234, Aug. 3, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1700.10" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.1.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1700.10   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed so as to enlarge, diminish, modify, or alter the powers or authority of the ODNI; or construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1701" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1701—ADMINISTRATION OF RECORDS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 401-442; 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 16532, Mar. 28, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Protection of Privacy and Access to Individual Records Under the Privacy Act of 1974</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.1" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.1   Purpose, scope, applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes the policies and procedures the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI) will follow in implementing the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended. This subpart sets forth the procedures ODNI must follow in collecting and maintaining personal information from or about individuals, as well as procedures by which individuals may request to access or amend records about themselves and request an accounting of disclosures of those records by the ODNI. In addition, this subpart details parameters for disclosing personally identifiable information to persons other than the subject of a record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to all records in systems of records maintained by ODNI directorates, centers, mission managers and other sub-organizations [hereinafter called “components”] that are retrieved by an individual's name or personal identifier.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart governs the following individuals and entities:
</P>
<P>(1) All ODNI staff and components must comply with this subpart. The terms “staff” and “component” are defined in § 1701.2.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless specifically exempted, this subpart also applies to advisory committees and councils within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) which provide advice to: Any official or component of ODNI; or the President, and for which ODNI has been delegated responsibility for providing service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relation to Freedom of Information Act.</I> The ODNI shall provide a subject individual under this subpart all records which are otherwise accessible to such individual under the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.2" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P><I>Access</I> means making a record available to a subject individual.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the ODNI or any of its components.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> means any directorate, mission manager, or other sub-organization in the ODNI or reporting to the Director, that has been designated or established in the ODNI pursuant to Section 103 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, including the National Counterterrorism Center (NCTC), the National Counterproliferation Center (NCPC) and the Office of the National Counterintelligence Executive (ONCIX), or such other offices and officials as may be established by law or as the Director may establish or designate in the ODNI, for example, the Program Manager, Information Sharing Environment (ISE) and the Inspector General (IG).
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure</I> means making a record about an individual available to or releasing it to another party.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA</I> means the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I>, when used in connection with the Privacy Act, means a living person who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. It does not include sole proprietorships, partnerships, or corporations.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means information about an individual and includes, but is not limited to, vital statistics; race, sex, or other physical characteristics; earnings information; professional fees paid to an individual and other financial information; benefit data or claims information; the Social Security number, employer identification number, or other individual identifier; address; phone number; medical information; and information about marital, family or other personal relationships.
</P>
<P><I>Maintain</I> means to establish, collect, use, or disseminate when used in connection with the term record; and, to have control over or responsibility for a system of records, when used in connection with the term system of records.
</P>
<P><I>Notification</I> means communication to an individual whether he is a subject individual.
</P>
<P><I>Office of the Director of National Intelligence</I> means any and all of the components of the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the ODNI including, but not limited to, information such as an individual's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history that contains the individual's name, or an identifying number, symbol, or any other identifier assigned to an individual. When used in this subpart, record means only a record that is in a system of records.
</P>
<P><I>Routine</I> use means the disclosure of a record outside ODNI, without the consent of the subject individual, for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which the record was collected. It does not include disclosure which the Privacy Act otherwise permits pursuant to subsection (b) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Staff</I> means any current or former regular or special employee, detailee, assignee, employee of a contracting organization, or independent contractor of the ODNI or any of its components.
</P>
<P><I>Subject</I> individual means the person to whom a record pertains (or “record subject”).
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I> means a group of records under ODNI's control from which information about an individual is retrieved by the name of the individual or by an identifying number, symbol, or other particular assigned to the individual. Single records or groups of records which are not retrieved by a personal identifier are not part of a system of records,


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.3" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>Privacy Act requests and appeals and inquiries regarding this subpart or about ODNI's Privacy Act program must be submitted in writing to the Director, Information Management Office (D/IMO), Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Washington, DC 20511 (by mail or by facsimile at 703-482-2144) or to the contact designated in the specific Privacy Act System of Records Notice. Privacy Act requests with the required identification statement and signature pursuant to paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 1701.7 of this subpart must be filed in original form.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.4" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.4   Privacy Act responsibilities/policy.</HEAD>
<P>The ODNI will administer records about individuals consistent with statutory, administrative, and program responsibilities. Subject to exemptions authorized by the Act, ODNI will collect, maintain and disclose records as required and will honor subjects' rights to view and amend records and to obtain an accounting of disclosures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.5" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.5   Collection and maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ODNI will not maintain a record unless:
</P>
<P>(1) It is relevant and necessary to accomplish an ODNI function required by statute or Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(2) It is acquired to the greatest extent practicable from the subject individual when ODNI may use the record to make any determination about the individual;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual providing the record is informed of the authority for providing the record (including whether providing the record is mandatory or voluntary), the principal purpose for maintaining the record, the routine uses for the record, and what effect refusing to provide the record may have;
</P>
<P>(4) It is maintained with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness as is reasonably necessary to ensure fairness to the individual in the determination;
</P>
<P>(b) Except as to disclosures made to an agency or made under the FOIA, ODNI will make reasonable efforts prior to disseminating a record about an individual, to ensure that the record is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete;
</P>
<P>(c) ODNI will not maintain or develop a system of records that is not the subject of a current or planned public notice;
</P>
<P>(d) ODNI will not adopt a routine use of information in a system without notice and invitation to comment published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 30 days prior to final adoption of the routine use;
</P>
<P>(e) To the extent ODNI participates with a non-Federal agency in matching activities covered by section (8) of the Act, ODNI will publish notice of the matching program in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(f) ODNI will not maintain a record which describes how an individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment unless expressly authorized by statute or by the subject individual, or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity;
</P>
<P>(g) When required by the Act, ODNI will maintain an accounting of all disclosures of records by the ODNI to persons, organizations or agencies;
</P>
<P>(h) Each ODNI component shall implement administrative, physical and technical controls to prevent unauthorized access to its systems of records, to prevent unauthorized disclosure of records, and to prevent physical damage to or destruction of records;
</P>
<P>(i) ODNI will establish rules and instructions for complying with the requirements of the Privacy Act, including notice of the penalties for non-compliance, applicable to all persons involved in the design, development, operation or maintenance of any system of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.6" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.6   Disclosure of records/policy.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), ODNI will not disclose any record which is contained in a system of records by any means (written, oral or electronic) without the consent of the subject individual unless disclosure without consent is made for reasons permitted under applicable law, including:
</P>
<P>(a) Internal agency use on a need-to-know basis;
</P>
<P>(b) Release under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) if not subject to protection under the FOIA exemptions;
</P>
<P>(c) A specific “routine use” as described in the ODNI's published compilation of Routine Uses Applicable to More Than One ODNI System of Records or in specific published Privacy Act Systems of Records Notices (available at <I>http://www.dni.gov</I>);
</P>
<P>(d) Release to the Bureau of the Census, the National Archives and Records Administration, or the Government Accountability Office, for the performance of those entities' statutory duties;
</P>
<P>(e) Release in non-identifiable form to a recipient who has provided written assurance that the record will be used solely for statistical research or reporting;
</P>
<P>(f) Compelling circumstances in which the health or safety of an individual is at risk;
</P>
<P>(g) Release pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction or to a governmental entity for a specifically documented civil or criminal law enforcement activity;
</P>
<P>(h) Release to either House of Congress or to any committee, subcommittee or joint committee thereof to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(i) Release to a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(e) of Title 31.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.7" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.7   Requests for notification of and access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to request.</I> Unless records are not subject to access (see paragraph (b) of this section), individuals seeking access to records about themselves may submit a request in writing to the D/IMO, as directed in Sec. 1701.3 of this subpart, or to the contact designated in the specific Privacy Act System of Records Notice. To ensure proper routing and tracking, requesters should mark the envelope “Privacy Act Request.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records not subject to access.</I> The following records are not subject to review by subject individuals:
</P>
<P>(1) Records in ODNI systems of records that ODNI has exempted from access and correction under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k), by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or where those exemptions require that ODNI can neither confirm nor deny the existence or nonexistence of responsive records (see § 1701.10(c)(iii)).
</P>
<P>(2) Records in ODNI systems of records that another agency has exempted from access and correction under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k), by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or where those exemptions require that ODNI can neither confirm nor deny the existence or nonexistence of responsive records (see § 1701.10(c)(iii)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Description of records.</I> Individuals requesting access to records about themselves should, to the extent possible, describe the nature of the records, why and under what circumstances the requester believes ODNI maintains the records, the time period in which they may have been compiled and, ideally, the name or identifying number of each Privacy Act System of Records in which they might be included. The ODNI publishes notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that describe its systems of records. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> compiles these notices biennially and makes them available in hard copy at large reference libraries and in electronic form at the Government Printing Office's World Wide Web site, <I>http://www.gpoaccess.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of identity.</I> A written request for access to records about oneself must include full (legal) name, current address, date and place of birth, and citizenship status. Aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence must provide their Alien Registration Number and the date that status was acquired. The D/IMO may request additional or clarifying information to ascertain identity. Access requests must be signed and the signature either notarized or submitted under 28 U.S.C. 1746, authorizing statements made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification of guardianship or representational relationship.</I> The parent or guardian of a minor, the guardian of an individual under judicial disability, or an attorney retained to represent an individual shall provide, in addition to establishing the identity of the minor or individual represented as required in paragraph (d) of this section, evidence of such representation by submitting a certified copy of the minor's birth certificate, court order, or representational agreement which establishes the relationship and the requester's identity.
</P>
<P>(f) ODNI will permit access to or provide copies of records to individuals other than the record subject (or the subject's legal representative) only with the requester's written authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.8" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.8   Requests to amend or correct records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to request.</I> Unless the record is not subject to amendment or correction (see paragraph (b) of this section), individuals (or guardians or representatives acting on their behalf) may make a written amendment or correction request to the D/IMO, as directed in § 1701.3 of this subpart, or to the contact designated in a specific Privacy Act System of Records. Requesters seeking amendment or correction should identify the particular record or portion subject to the request, explain why an amendment or correction is necessary, and provide the desired replacement language. Requesters may submit documentation supporting the request to amend or correct. Requests for amendment or correction will lapse (but may be re-initiated with a new request) if all necessary information is not submitted within forty-five (45) days of the date of the original request. The identity verification procedures of paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 1701.7 of this subpart apply to amendment requests.
</P>
<P>(b). (1) Records which are determinations of fact or evidence received (e.g., transcripts of testimony given under oath or written statements made under oath; transcripts of grand jury proceedings, judicial proceedings, or quasi-judicial proceedings, which are the official record of those proceedings; pre-sentence records that originated with the courts) and
</P>
<P>(2) Records in ODNI systems of records that ODNI or another agency has exempted from amendment and correction under Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k) by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.9" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.9   Requests for an accounting of record disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to request.</I> Except where accountings of disclosures are not required to be kept (see paragraph (b) of this section), record subjects (or their guardians or representatives) may request an accounting of disclosures that have been made to another person, organization, or agency as permitted by the Privacy Act at 5 U.S.C. 552a(b). This accounting contains the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or agency to which the disclosure was made. Requests for accounting should identify each record in question and must be made in writing to the D/IMO, as indicated in § 1701.3 of this subpart, or to the contact designated in a specific Privacy Act System of Records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting not required.</I> The ODNI is not required to provide accounting of disclosure in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosures for which the Privacy Act does not require accounting, i.e., disclosures to employees within the agency and disclosures made under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosures made to law enforcement agencies for authorized law enforcement activities in response to written requests from the respective head of the law enforcement agency specifying the law enforcement activities for which the disclosures are sought; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures from systems of records that have been exempted from accounting requirements under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k), by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.10" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.10   ODNI responsibility for responding to access requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement of requests.</I> Upon receipt of a request providing all necessary information, the D/IMO shall acknowledge receipt to the requester and provide an assigned request number for further reference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tasking to component.</I> Upon receipt of a proper access request, the D/IMO shall provide a copy of the request to the point of contact (POC) in the ODNI component with which the records sought reside. The POC within the component shall determine whether responsive records exist and, if so, recommend to the D/IMO:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether access should be denied in whole or part (and the legal basis for denial under the Privacy Act); or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether coordination with or referral to another component or federal agency is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coordination and referrals</I>—(1) <I>Examination of records.</I> If a component POC receiving a request for access determines that an originating agency or other agency that has a substantial interest in the record is best able to process the request (e.g., the record is governed by another agency's regulation, or another agency originally generated or classified the record), the POC shall forward to the D/IMO all records necessary for coordination with or referral to the other component or agency, as well as specific recommendations with respect to any denials.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of referral.</I> Whenever the D/IMO refers all or any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, the D/IMO shall notify the requester of the referral.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> (i) In processing a request, the ODNI shall decline to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of any responsive records whenever the fact of their existence or nonexistence:
</P>
<P>(A) May reveal protected intelligence sources and collection methods (50 U.S.C. 403-1(i)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is classified and subject to an exemption appropriately invoked by ODNI or another agency under subsections (j) or (k) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) In such event, the ODNI will inform the requester in writing and advise the requestor of the right to file an administrative appeal of any adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for response.</I> The D/IMO shall respond to a request for access promptly upon receipt of recommendations from the POC and determinations resulting from any necessary coordination with or referral to another agency. The D/IMO may determine to update a requester on the status of a request that remains outstanding longer than reasonably expected.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>ODNI action on requests for access</I>—(1) <I>Grant of access.</I> Once the D/IMO determines to grant a request for access in whole or in part, the D/IMO shall notify the requester in writing and come to agreement with the requester about how to effect access, whether by on-site review or duplication of the records. If a requester is accompanied by another person, the requester shall be required to authorize in writing any discussion of the records in the presence of the other person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Denial of access.</I> The D/IMO shall notify the requester in writing when an adverse determination is made denying a request for access in any respect. Adverse determinations, or denials, consist of a determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part; a determination that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; a determination that what has been requested is not a record subject to the Privacy Act; or a determination that the existence of a record can neither be confirmed nor denied. The notification letter shall state:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason(s) for the denial; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedure for appeal of the denial under § 1701.14 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.11" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.11   ODNI responsibility for responding to requests for amendment or correction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement of request.</I> The D/IMO shall acknowledge receipt of a request for amendment or correction of records in writing and provide an assigned request number for further reference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tasking of component.</I> Upon receipt of a proper request to amend or correct a record, the D/IMO shall forward the request to the POC in the component maintaining the record. The POC shall promptly evaluate the proposed amendment or correction in light of any supporting justification and recommend that the D/IMO grant or deny the request or, if the request involves a record subject to correction by an originating agency, refer the request to the other agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on request for amendment or correction.</I> (1) If the POC determines that the request for amendment or correction is justified, in whole or in part, the D/IMO shall promptly:
</P>
<P>(i) Make the amendment, in whole or in part, as requested and provide the requester a written description of the amendment or correction made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide written notice of the amendment or correction to all persons, organizations or agencies to which the record has been disclosed (if an accounting of the disclosure was made);
</P>
<P>(2) Where the D/IMO has referred an amendment request to another agency, the D/IMO, upon confirmation from that agency that the amendment has been effected, shall provide written notice of the amendment or correction to all persons, organizations or agencies to which ODNI previously disclosed the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If the POC determines that the requester's records are accurate, relevant, timely and complete, and that no basis exists for amending or correcting the record, either in whole or in part, the D/IMO shall inform the requester in writing of:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason(s) for the denial; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedure for appeal of the denial under Sec. 1701.15 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.12" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.12   ODNI responsibility for responding to requests for accounting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement of request.</I> Upon receipt of a request for accounting, the D/IMO shall acknowledge receipt of the request in writing and provide an assigned request number for further reference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tasking of component.</I> Upon receipt of a request for accounting, the D/IMO shall forward the request to the POC in the component maintaining the record. The POC shall work with the component's information management officer and the systems administrator to generate the requested disclosure history.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on request for accounting.</I> The D/IMO will notify the requester when the accounting is available for on-site review or transmission in paper or electronic medium.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of court-ordered disclosures.</I> The D/IMO shall make reasonable efforts to notify an individual whose record is disclosed pursuant to court order. Notice shall be made within a reasonable time after receipt of the order; however, when the order is not a matter of public record, the notice shall be made only after the order becomes public. Notice shall be sent to the individual's last known address and include a copy of the order and a description of the information disclosed. No notice shall be made regarding records disclosed from a criminal law enforcement system that has been exempted from the notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of emergency disclosures.</I> ODNI shall notify an individual whose record it discloses under compelling circumstances affecting health or safety. This notice shall be mailed to the individual's last known address and shall state the nature of the information disclosed; the person, organization, or agency to which it was disclosed; the date of disclosure; and the compelling circumstances justifying the disclosure. This provision shall not apply in circumstances involving classified records that have been exempted from disclosure pursuant to subsection (j) or (k) of the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.13" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.13   Special procedures for medical/psychiatric/psychological records.</HEAD>
<P>Current and former ODNI employees, including current and former employees of ODNI contractors, and unsuccessful applicants for employment may seek access to their medical, psychiatric or psychological testing records by writing to: Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505, and provide identifying information as required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 1701.7 of this subpart. The Central Intelligence Agency's Privacy Act Regulations will govern administration of these types of records, including appeals from adverse determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.14" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.14   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may appeal denials of requests for access, amendment, or accounting by submitting a written request for review to the Director, Information Management Office (D/IMO) at the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Washington, DC 20511. The words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” should be written on the letter and the envelope. The appeal must be signed by the record subject or legal representative. No personal appearance or hearing on appeal will be allowed.
</P>
<P>(b) The D/IMO must receive the appeal letter within 45 calendar days of the date the requester received the notice of denial. The postmark is conclusive as to timeliness. Copies of correspondence from ODNI denying the request to access or amend the record should be included with the appeal, if possible. At a minimum, the appeal letter should identify:
</P>
<P>(1) The records involved;
</P>
<P>(2) The date of the initial request for access to or amendment of the record;
</P>
<P>(3) The date of ODNI's denial of that request; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the reasons supporting the request for reversal of the initial decision. The statement should focus on information not previously available or legal arguments demonstrating that the ODNI's decision is improper.
</P>
<P>(c) Following receipt of the appeal, the Director of Intelligence Staff (DIS) shall, in consultation with the Office of General Counsel, make a final determination in writing on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) Where ODNI reverses an initial denial, the following procedures apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If ODNI reverses an initial denial of access, the procedures in paragraph (e)(1) of § 1701.10 of this subpart will apply.
</P>
<P>(2) If ODNI reverses its initial denial of a request to amend a record, the POC will ensure that the record is corrected as requested, and the D/IMO will inform the individual of the correction, as well as all persons, organizations and agencies to which ODNI had disclosed the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If ODNI reverses its initial denial of a request for accounting, the POC will notify the requester when the accounting is available for on-site review or transmission in paper or electronic medium.
</P>
<P>(e) If ODNI upholds its initial denial or reverses in part (<I>i.e.</I>, only partially granting the request), ODNI's notice of final agency action will inform the requester of the following rights:
</P>
<P>(1) Judicial review of the denial under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1), as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) Opportunity to file a statement of disagreement with the denial, citing the reasons for disagreeing with ODNI's final determination not to correct or amend a record. The requester's statement of disagreement should explain why he disputes the accuracy of the record.
</P>
<P>(3) Inclusion in one's record of copies of the statement of disagreement and the final denial, which ODNI will provide to all subsequent recipients of the disputed record, as well as to all previous recipients of the record where an accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.15" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.15   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>ODNI shall charge fees for duplication of records under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, in the same way in which it will charge for duplication of records under § 1700.7(g), ODNI's regulation implementing the fee provision of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.16" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.16   Contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any approved contract for the operation of a Privacy Act system of records to accomplish a function of the ODNI will contain the Privacy Act provisions prescribed by the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR) at 48 CFR part 24, requiring the contractor to comply with the Privacy Act and this subpart. The contracting component will be responsible for ensuring that the contractor complies with these contract requirements. This section does not apply to systems of records maintained by a contractor as a function of management discretion, e.g., the contractor's personnel records.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the contract contains a provision requiring the contractor to comply with the Privacy Act and this subpart, the contractor and any employee of the contractor will be considered employees of the ODNI for purposes of the criminal penalties of the Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.17" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.1.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.17   Standards of conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> ODNI will ensure that staff are aware of the provisions of the Privacy Act and of their responsibilities for protecting personal information that ODNI collects and maintains, consistent with Sec. 1701.5 and 1701.6 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criminal penalties</I>—(1) <I>Unauthorized disclosure.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any ODNI staff who, by virtue of employment, has possession or access to ODNI records which contain information identifiable with an individual, the disclosure of which is prohibited by the Privacy Act or by these rules, and who, knowing that disclosure of the specific material is prohibited, willfully discloses the material in any manner to any person or agency not entitled to receive it.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unauthorized maintenance.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any ODNI staff who willfully maintains a system of records without meeting the requirements of subsection (e)(4) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a. The D/IMO, the Civil Liberties Protection Officer, the General Counsel, and the Inspector General are authorized independently to conduct such surveys and inspect such records as necessary from time to time to ensure that these requirements are met.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unauthorized requests.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed upon any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from the ODNI under false pretenses.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemption of Record Systems Under the Privacy Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.20" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.20   Exemption policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The DNI has determined that invoking exemptions under the Privacy Act and continuing exemptions previously asserted by agencies whose records ODNI receives is necessary: to ensure against the release of classified information essential to the national defense or foreign relations; to protect intelligence sources and methods; and to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of intelligence, investigative and law enforcement processes. Accordingly, as authorized by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, subsections (j) and (k), and in accordance with the rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedures Act, 5 U.S.C. 553, the ODNI shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise its authority pursuant to subsections (j) and (k) of the Privacy Act to exempt certain ODNI systems of records or portions of systems of records from various provisions of the Privacy Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Continue in effect and assert all exemptions claimed under Privacy Act subsections (j) and (k) by an originating agency from which the ODNI obtains records where the purposes underlying the original exemption remain valid and necessary to protect the contents of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related policies.</I> (1) The exemptions asserted apply to records only to the extent they meet the criteria of subsections (j) and (k) of the Privacy Act, whether claimed by the ODNI or the originator of the records.
</P>
<P>(2) Discretion to supersede exemption: Where complying with a request for access or amendment would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect a counterterrorism or law enforcement interest, and unless prohibited by law, the D/IMO may exercise his discretion to waive the exemption. Discretionary waiver of an exemption with respect to a record will not obligate the ODNI to waive the exemption with respect to any other record in an exempted system of records. As a condition of such discretionary access, ODNI may impose any restrictions (<I>e.g.</I>, concerning the location of file reviews) deemed necessary or advisable to protect the security of agency operations, information, personnel, or facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Records in ODNI systems also are subject to protection under 50 U.S.C. 403-1(i), the provision of the National Security Act of 1947 which requires the DNI to protect intelligence sources and methods from unauthorized disclosure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.21" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.21   Exemption of the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI) systems of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ODNI exempts the systems of records listed in § 1701.22 from the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3); (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4); (e)(1) and (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) to the extent that information in the system is subject to exemption pursuant to paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(5) of the Act as noted in § 1701.22. ODNI also derivatively preserves the exempt status of records it receives from source agencies when the reason for the exemption remains valid, as set forth in § 1701.20.
</P>
<P>(b) Systems of records utilized by the Office of the Intelligence Community Inspector General (ICIG) are additionally exempted from the requirements of paragraphs (c)(4); (e)(2); (e)(3); (e)(5); (e)(8); (e)(12); and (g) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) to the extent that information in the system is subject to exemption pursuant to paragraph (j)(2) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a).
</P>
<P>(c) Exemption of records in these systems from any or all of the enumerated requirements may be necessary for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) From paragraph (c)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (accounting of disclosures) because an accounting of disclosures from records concerning the record subject would specifically reveal an intelligence or investigative interest on the part of ODNI or the recipient agency and could result in release of properly classified national security or foreign policy information.
</P>
<P>(2) From paragraph (c)(4) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (notice of amendment to record recipients) because the system is exempted from the access and amendment provisions of paragraph (d) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(3) From paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (record subject's right to access and amend records) because affording access and amendment rights could alert the record subject to the investigative interest of intelligence or law enforcement agencies or compromise sensitive information classified in the interest of national security. In the absence of a national security basis for exemption, records in this system may be exempted from access and amendment to the extent necessary to honor promises of confidentiality to persons providing information concerning a candidate for position. Inability to maintain such confidentiality would restrict the free flow of information vital to a determination of a candidate's qualifications and suitability.
</P>
<P>(4) From paragraph (e)(1) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (maintain only relevant and necessary records) because it is not always possible to establish relevance and necessity before all information is considered and evaluated in relation to an intelligence concern. In the absence of a national security basis for exemption under paragraph (k)(1) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), records in this system may be exempted from the relevance requirement pursuant to paragraphs (k)(2) and (5) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) because it is not possible to determine in advance what exact information may assist in determining the qualifications and suitability of a candidate for position. Seemingly irrelevant details, when combined with other data, can provide a useful composite for determining whether a candidate should be appointed.
</P>
<P>(5) From paragraph (e)(2) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (collection directly from the individual) because application of this provision would alert the subject of a counterterrorism investigation, study, or analysis to that fact, permitting the subject to frustrate or impede the activity. Counterterrorism investigations necessarily rely on information obtained from third parties rather than information furnished by subjects themselves.
</P>
<P>(6) From paragraph (e)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (provide Privacy Act Statement to subjects furnishing information) because the system is exempted from requirements in paragraph (e)(2) of the Privacy Act to collect information directly from the subject.
</P>
<P>(7) From paragraphs (e)(4)(G) and (H) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (publication of procedures for notifying subjects of the existence of records about them and how they may access records and contest contents) because the system is exempted from provisions in paragraph (d) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) regarding access and amendment, and from the requirement in paragraph (f) of the Privacy Act to promulgate agency rules for notification, access, and amendment. Nevertheless, ODNI has published notice concerning notification, access, and contest procedures because it may in certain circumstances determine it appropriate to provide subjects access to all or a portion of the records about them in a system of records.
</P>
<P>(8) From paragraph (e)(4)(I) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (identifying sources of records in the system of records) because identifying sources could result in disclosure of properly classified national defense or foreign policy information, intelligence sources and methods, and investigatory techniques and procedures. Notwithstanding its exemption from this requirement, ODNI identifies record sources in broad categories sufficient to provide general notice of the origins of the information it maintains in its systems of records.
</P>
<P>(9) From paragraph (e)(5) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (maintain timely, accurate, complete and up-to-date records) because many of the records in the system are derived from other domestic and foreign agency record systems over which ODNI exercises no control. In addition, in collecting information for counterterrorism, intelligence, and law enforcement purposes, it is not possible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time and the development of additional facts and circumstances, seemingly irrelevant or dated information may acquire significance. The restrictions imposed by paragraph (e)(5) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) would limit the ability of intelligence analysts to exercise judgment in conducting investigations and impede development of intelligence necessary for effective counterterrorism and law enforcement efforts.
</P>
<P>(10) From paragraph (e)(8) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (notice of compelled disclosures) because requiring individual notice of legally compelled disclosure poses an impossible administrative burden and could alert subjects of counterterrorism, law enforcement, or intelligence investigations to the previously unknown fact of those investigations.
</P>
<P>(11) From paragraph (e)(12) of the Privacy Act (public notice of matching activity) because, to the extent such activities are not otherwise excluded from the matching requirements of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), publishing advance notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> would frustrate the ability of intelligence analysts to act quickly in furtherance of analytical efforts.
</P>
<P>(12) From paragraph (f) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (agency rules for notifying subjects to the existence of records about them, for accessing and amending records, and for assessing fees) because the system is exempt from provisions in paragraph (d) of the Privacy Act regarding access and amendment of records by record subjects. Nevertheless, ODNI has published agency rules concerning notification of a subject in response to his request if any system of records named by the subject contains a record pertaining to him and procedures by which the subject may access or amend the records. Notwithstanding exemption, ODNI may determine it appropriate to satisfy a record subject's access request.
</P>
<P>(13) From paragraph (g) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) (civil remedies) to the extent that the civil remedies relate to provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a from which this rule exempts the system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31195, July 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.22" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.22   ODNI systems of records subject to exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ODNI systems of records subject to exemption:
</P>
<P>(1) Manuscript, Presentation, and Resume Review Records (ODNI-01), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Executive Secretary Action Management System Records (ODNI-02), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Public Affairs Office Records (ODNI-03), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Office of Legislative Affairs Records (ODNI-04), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(5) ODNI Guest Speaker Records (ODNI-05), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(6) Office of General Counsel Records (ODNI-06), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(7) Intelligence Community Customer Registry (ODNI-09), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(8) Office of Intelligence Community Equal Employment Opportunity and Diversity Records (ODNI-10), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(9) Office of Protocol Records (ODNI-11), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(10) Intelligence Community Security Clearance and Access Approval Repository (ODNI-12), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(11) Security Clearance Reform Research and Oversight Records (ODNI-13), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(12) Civil Liberties and Privacy Office Complaint Records (ODNI-14), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(13) Mission Outreach and Collaboration Records (ODNI-15), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(14) ODNI Human Resource Records (ODNI-16), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(15) ODNI Personnel Security Records (ODNI-17), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(16) ODNI Freedom of Information Act, Privacy Act, and Mandatory Declassification Review Request Records (ODNI-18), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(17) ODNI Information Technology Systems Activity and Access Records (ODNI-19), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(18) ODNI Security Clearance Reciprocity Hotline Records (ODNI-20), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (5).
</P>
<P>(19) ODNI Information Technology Network Support, Administration and Analysis Records (ODNI-21), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(20) Insider Threat Program Records (ODNI-22), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(b) ODNI/National Counterintelligence and Security Center (NCSC) systems of records:
</P>
<P>(1) Damage Assessment Records (ODNI/NCIX-001), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(2) Counterintelligence Trends Analyses Records (ODNI/NCSC-002), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(3) Continuous Evaluation Records (ODNI/NCSC-003), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<P>(c) ODNI/National Counterterrorism Center (NCTC) systems of records:
</P>
<P>(1) NCTC Access Authorization Records (ODNI/NCTC-002), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) NCTC Telephone Directory (ODNI/NCTC-003), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) NCTC Knowledge Repository (ODNI/NCTC-004), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(4) NCTC Current (ODNI/NCTC-005), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(5) NCTC Partnership Management Records (ODNI/NCTC-006), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(6) NCTC Tacit Knowledge Management Records (ODNI/NCTC-007), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(7) NCTC Terrorism Analysis Records (ODNI/NCTC-008), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(8) Terrorist Identities Records (ODNI/NCTC-009), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(d) ODNI/Office of the Intelligence Community Inspector General (ICIG) systems of records:
</P>
<P>(1) OIG Human Resources Records (ODNI/OIG-001), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (5).
</P>
<P>(2) OIG Experts Contact Records (ODNI/OIG-002), 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) and (5).
</P>
<P>(3) OIG Investigation and Interview Records (ODNI/OIG-003), 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2); (k)(1), (2), and (5).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31197, July 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Routine Uses Applicable to More Than One ODNI System of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.30" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.30   Policy and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ODNI proposes the following general routine uses to foster simplicity and economy and to avoid redundancy or error by duplication in multiple ODNI systems of records and in systems of records established hereafter by ODNI or by one of its components.
</P>
<P>(b) These general routine uses may apply to every Privacy Act system of records maintained by ODNI and its components, unless specifically stated otherwise in the System of Records Notice for a particular system. Additional general routine uses may be identified as notices of systems of records are published.
</P>
<P>(c) Routine uses specific to a particular System of Records are identified in the System of Records Notice for that system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1701.31" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.2.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1701.31   General routine uses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted on Standard Forms 85 and 86 and supplemental forms thereto (questionnaires for employment in, respectively, “non-sensitive” and “national security” positions within the Federal government), a record that on its face or in conjunction with other information indicates or relates to a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal, administrative or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute, particular program statute, regulation, rule or order issued pursuant thereto, may be disclosed as a routine use to an appropriate federal, state, territorial, tribal, local law enforcement authority, foreign government or international law enforcement authority, or to an appropriate regulatory body charged with investigating, enforcing, or prosecuting such violations.
</P>
<P>(b) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use, subject to appropriate protections for further disclosure, in the course of presenting information or evidence to a magistrate, special master, administrative law judge, or to the presiding official of an administrative board, panel or other administrative body.
</P>
<P>(c) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to representatives of the Department of Justice or any other entity responsible for representing the interests of the ODNI in connection with potential or actual civil, criminal, administrative, judicial or legislative proceedings or hearings, for the purpose of representing or providing advice to: The ODNI; any staff of the ODNI in his or her official capacity; any staff of the ODNI in his or her individual capacity where the staff has submitted a request for representation by the United States or for reimbursement of expenses associated with retaining counsel; or the United States or another Federal agency, when the United States or the agency is a party to such proceeding and the record is relevant and necessary to such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use in a proceeding before a court or adjudicative body when any of the following is a party to litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and the ODNI, Office of General Counsel, determines that use of such records is relevant and necessary to the litigation: The ODNI; any staff of the ODNI in his or her official capacity; any staff of the ODNI in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice has agreed to represent the staff or has agreed to provide counsel at government expense; or the United States or another Federal agency, where the ODNI, Office of General Counsel, determines that litigation is likely to affect the ODNI.
</P>
<P>(e) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to representatives of the Department of Justice and other U.S. Government entities, to the extent necessary to obtain advice on any matter within the official responsibilities of such representatives and the responsibilities of the ODNI.
</P>
<P>(f) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to a Federal, state or local agency or other appropriate entities or individuals from which/whom information may be sought relevant to: A decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee or other personnel action; the issuing or retention of a security clearance or special access, contract, grant, license, or other benefit; or the conduct of an authorized investigation or inquiry, to the extent necessary to identify the individual, inform the source of the nature and purpose of the inquiry, and identify the type of information requested.
</P>
<P>(g) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to any Federal, state, local, tribal or other public authority, or to a legitimate agency of a foreign government or international authority to the extent the record is relevant and necessary to the other entity's decision regarding the hiring or retention of an employee or other personnel action; the issuing or retention of a security clearance or special access, contract, grant, license, or other benefit; or the conduct of an authorized inquiry or investigation.
</P>
<P>(h) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to a Member of Congress or Congressional staffer in response to an inquiry from that Member of Congress or Congressional staffer made at the written request of the individual who is the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(i) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed to the Office of Management and Budget in connection with the review of private relief legislation, as set forth in Office of Management and Budget Circular No. A-19, at any stage of the legislative coordination and clearance process as set forth in the Circular.
</P>
<P>(j) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to any agency, organization, or individual for authorized audit operations, and for meeting related reporting requirements, including disclosure to the National Archives and Records Administration for records management inspections and such other purposes conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906, or successor provisions.
</P>
<P>(k) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to individual members or staff of Congressional intelligence oversight committees in connection with the exercise of the committees' oversight and legislative functions.
</P>
<P>(l) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use pursuant to Executive Order to the President's Foreign Intelligence Advisory Board, the President's Intelligence Oversight Board, to any successor organizations, and to any intelligence oversight entity established by the President, when the Office of the General Counsel or the Office of the Inspector General determines that disclosure will assist such entities in performing their oversight functions and that such disclosure is otherwise lawful.
</P>
<P>(m) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, or others when access to the record is necessary to perform the function or service for which they have been engaged by the ODNI.
</P>
<P>(n) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to a former staff of the ODNI for the purposes of responding to an official inquiry by a Federal, state, or local government entity or professional licensing authority or facilitating communications with a former staff of the ODNI that may be necessary for personnel-related or other official purposes when the ODNI requires information or consultation assistance, or both, from the former staff regarding a matter within that person's former area of responsibility.
</P>
<P>(o) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to legitimate foreign, international or multinational security, investigatory, law enforcement or administrative authorities in order to comply with requirements imposed by, or to claim rights conferred in, formal agreements and arrangements to include those regulating the stationing and status in foreign countries of Department of Defense military and civilian personnel.
</P>
<P>(p) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to any Federal agency when documents or other information obtained from that agency are used in compiling the record and the record is relevant to the official responsibilities of that agency, provided that disclosure of the recompiled or enhanced record to the source agency is otherwise authorized and lawful.
</P>
<P>(q) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when: The security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has or may have been compromised; and the compromise may result in economic or material harm to individuals (e.g., identity theft or fraud), or harm to the security or integrity of the affected information or information technology systems or programs (whether or not belonging to the ODNI) that rely upon the compromised information; and disclosure is necessary to enable ODNI to address the cause(s) of the compromise and to prevent, minimize, or remedy potential harm resulting from the compromise.
</P>
<P>(r) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to a Federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, or multinational agency or entity or to any other appropriate entity or individual for any of the following purposes: to provide notification of a serious terrorist threat for the purpose of guarding against or responding to such threat; to assist in coordination of terrorist threat awareness, assessment, analysis, or response; or to assist the recipient in performing authorized responsibilities relating to terrorism or counterterrorism.
</P>
<P>(s) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use for the purpose of conducting or supporting authorized counterintelligence activities as defined by section 401a(3) of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, to elements of the Intelligence Community, as defined by section 401a(4) of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended; to the head of any Federal agency or department; to selected counterintelligence officers within the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(t) A record from a system of records maintained by the ODNI may be disclosed as a routine use to a Federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, or multinational government agency or entity, or to other authorized entities or individuals, but only if such disclosure is undertaken in furtherance of responsibilities conferred by, and in a manner consistent with, the National Security Act of 1947, as amended; the Counterintelligence Enhancement Act of 2002, as amended; Executive Order 12333 or any successor order together with its implementing procedures approved by the Attorney General; and other provisions of law, Executive Order or directive relating to national intelligence or otherwise applicable to the ODNI. This routine use is not intended to supplant the other routine uses published by the ODNI.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1702" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1702—PROCEDURES GOVERNING THE ACCEPTANCE OF SERVICE OF PROCESS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>The Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004, Pub. L. No. 108-458, 118 Stat. 3638 (2004); National Security Act of 1947, as amended, 50 U.S.C. § 401 <I>et seq.;</I> Executive Order 12333, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 11479, Mar. 18, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1702.1" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1702.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the ODNI policy concerning service of process upon the ODNI and ODNI employees in their official, individual or combined official and individual capacities. This part is intended to ensure the orderly execution of ODNI affairs and is not intended to impede the legal process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1702.2" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1702.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part the following terms have the following meanings:
</P>
<P><I>DNI.</I> The Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel.</I> The ODNI's General Counsel, Acting General Counsel or Deputy General Counsel.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI.</I> The Office of the Director of National Intelligence and all of its components, including, but not limited to, the National Counterintelligence Executive, the National Counterterrorism Center, the National Counterproliferation Center, the Program Manager for the Information Sharing Environment, and all national intelligence centers and program managers the DNI may establish.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI Employee.</I> Any current or former employee, contractor, independent contractor, assignee or detailee to the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>OGC.</I> The Office of the General Counsel of the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>Process.</I> A summons, complaint, subpoena or other document properly issued by or under the authority of, a federal, state, local or other government entity of competent jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1702.3" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1702.3   Procedures governing acceptance of service of process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of process upon the ODNI or an ODNI employee in the employee's official capacity.
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service. Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel, personal service of process upon the ODNI or an ODNI employee in the employee's official capacity, may be accepted only by an OGC attorney at ODNI Headquarters. The OGC attorney shall write or stamp “Service Accepted In Official Capacity Only” on the return of service form.
</P>
<P>(2) Mail service. Where service of process by registered or certified mail is authorized by law, only an OGC attorney may accept such service of process upon the ODNI or an ODNI employee in the employee's official capacity, unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel. The OGC attorney shall write or stamp, “Service Accepted In Official Capacity Only,” on the waiver of personal service form. Service of process by mail must be addressed to the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Office of General Counsel, Washington, DC 20511, and the envelope must be conspicuously marked “Service of Process.”
</P>
<P>(b) Service of process upon an ODNI employee solely in the employee's individual capacity.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Generally.</I> ODNI employees will not be required to accept service of process in their purely individual capacity on ODNI facilities or premises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal Service.</I> Subject to the sole discretion of the General Counsel, process servers generally will not be allowed to enter ODNI facilities or premises for the purpose of serving process upon an ODNI employee solely in the employee's individual capacity. Except for the DNI, the Principal Deputy Director of National Intelligence, and the Director of the Intelligence Staff, the OGC is not authorized to accept service of process on behalf of any ODNI employee in the employee's individual capacity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mail Service.</I> Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel, ODNI employees are not authorized to accept or forward mailed service of process directed to another ODNI employee in that employee's individual capacity. Any such process will be returned to the sender via appropriate postal channels.
</P>
<P>(c) Service of Process Upon an ODNI employee in a combined official and individual capacity. Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel, service of process, in person or by mail, upon an ODNI employee in the employee's combined official and individual capacity, may be accepted only for the ODNI employee in the employee's official capacity by an OGC attorney at ODNI Headquarters. The OGC attorney shall write or stamp, “Service Accepted In Official Capacity Only,” on the return of service form.
</P>
<P>(d) Acceptance of service of process shall not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to jurisdiction, propriety of service, improper venue or any other defense in law or equity available under the laws or rules applicable to the service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1702.4" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1702.4   Notification to Office of General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>An ODNI employee who receives or has reason to expect to receive, service of process in an official, individual or combined individual and official capacity in a matter that may involve testimony or the furnishing of documents that could reasonably be expected to involve ODNI interests, shall promptly notify the OGC ((703) 275-2527) prior to responding to the service in any manner, and if possible, before accepting service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1702.5" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.3.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1702.5   Interpretation.</HEAD>
<P>Any questions concerning interpretation of this regulation shall be referred to the Office of General Counsel for resolution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1703" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1703—PRODUCTION OF ODNI INFORMATION OR MATERIAL IN PROCEEDINGS BEFORE FEDERAL, STATE, LOCAL OR OTHER GOVERNMENT ENTITY OF COMPETENT JURISDICTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>The Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004, Public Law No. 108-458, 118 Stat. 3638 (2004); National Security Act of 1947, as amended, 50 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.;</I> Executive Order 12333, as amended; and <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 11480, Mar. 18, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1703.1" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policy and procedures with respect to the production or disclosure of material contained in the files of the ODNI, information relating to or based upon material contained in the files of the ODNI, and information acquired by any person while such person was an employee of the ODNI as part of the performance of that person's official duties or because of that person's association with the ODNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.2" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Defenses:</I> Any and all legal defenses, privileges or objections available to the ODNI in response to a demand.
</P>
<P><I>Demand:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Any subpoena, order or other legal summons issued by a federal, state, local or other government entity of competent jurisdiction with the authority to require a response on a particular matter or a request for appearance of an individual where a demand could issue.
</P>
<P>(2) Any request for production or disclosure which may result in the issuance of a subpoena, order, or other legal process to compel production or disclosure.
</P>
<P><I>DNI:</I> The Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel:</I> The ODNI's General Counsel, Acting General Counsel or Deputy General Counsel.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI:</I> The Office of the Director of National Intelligence and all of its components, including, but not limited to, the Office of the National Counterintelligence Executive, the National Counterterrorism Center, the National Counterproliferation Center, the Program Manager for the Information Sharing Environment, and all national intelligence centers and program managers the DNI may establish.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI Employee:</I> Any current or former employee, contractor, independent contractor, assignee or detailee to the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI Information or Material:</I> Information or material that is contained in ODNI files, related to or based upon material contained in ODNI files or acquired by any ODNI employee as part of that employee's official duties or because of that employee's association with the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>OGC:</I> The Office of the General Counsel of the ODNI.
</P>
<P><I>OGC Attorney:</I> Any attorney in the OGC.
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding:</I> Any matter before a court of law, administrative law judge, administrative tribunal or commission or other body that conducts legal or administrative proceedings, and includes all phases of the proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Production or Produce:</I> The disclosure of ODNI information or material in response to a demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.3" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.3   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No ODNI employee shall respond to a demand for ODNI information or material without prior authorization as set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended only to provide procedures for responding to demands for production of documents or information, and does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by any party against the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.4" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.4   Procedure for production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a demand is made for ODNI information or material, the employee who received the demand shall immediately notify OGC ((703) 275-2527). The OGC and the ODNI employee shall then follow the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The OGC may assert any and all defenses before any search for potentially responsive ODNI information or material begins. Further, in its sole discretion the ODNI may decline to begin a search for potentially responsive ODNI information or material until a final and non-appealable disposition of any or all of the asserted defenses is made by the federal, state, local or government entity of competent jurisdiction. When the OGC determines that it is appropriate to search for potentially responsive ODNI information and material, the OGC will forward the demand to the appropriate ODNI offices or entities with responsibility for the ODNI information or material sought in the demand. Those ODNI offices or entities shall then search for and provide to the OGC all potentially responsive ODNI information and material. The OGC may then assert any and all defenses to the production of what it determines is responsive ODNI information or material.
</P>
<P>(c) In reaching a decision on whether to produce responsive ODNI information or material, or to object to the demand, the OGC shall consider whether:
</P>
<P>(1) Any relevant privileges are applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable rules of discovery or procedure require production;
</P>
<P>(3) Production would violate a statute, regulation, executive order or other provision of law;
</P>
<P>(4) Production would violate a non-disclosure agreement;
</P>
<P>(5) Production would be inconsistent with the DNI's responsibility to protect intelligence sources and methods, or reveal classified information or state secrets;
</P>
<P>(6) Production would violate a specific ODNI policy issuance or instruction; and
</P>
<P>(7) Production would unduly interfere with the orderly conduct of ODNI functions.
</P>
<P>(d) If oral or written testimony is sought by a demand in a case or matter in which the ODNI is not a party, a reasonably detailed description of the testimony sought in the form of an affidavit, or a written statement if that is not feasible, by the party seeking the testimony or its attorney must be furnished to the OGC.
</P>
<P>(e) The OGC shall notify the appropriate employees of all decisions regarding responses to demands and provide advice and counsel for the implementation of the decisions.
</P>
<P>(f) If response to a demand is required before a decision is made whether to provide responsive ODNI information or material, an OGC attorney will request that a Department of Justice attorney appear with the ODNI employee upon whom that demand has been made before the court or other competent authority and provide it with a copy of this regulation and inform the court or other authority as to the status of the demand. The court will be requested to stay the demand pending resolution by the ODNI. If the request for a stay is denied or there is a ruling that the demand must be complied with irrespective of instructions rendered in accordance with this Part, the employee upon whom the demand was made shall, if directed to do so by the General Counsel or its designee, respectfully decline to comply with the demand under the authority of <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951), and this regulation.
</P>
<P>(g) ODNI officials may delegate in writing any authority given to them in this part to subordinate officials.
</P>
<P>(h) Any individual or entity not an ODNI employee as defined in this part who receives a demand for the production or disclosure of ODNI information or material acquired because of that person's or entity's association with the ODNI should notify the OGC ((703) 275-2527) for guidance and assistance. In such cases the provisions of this regulation shall be applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.5" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.4.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.5   Interpretation.</HEAD>
<P>Any questions concerning interpretation of this Regulation shall be referred to the OGC for resolution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1704" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1704—MANDATORY DECLASSIFICATION REVIEW PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 3001; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR, 2009 Comp, p. 298.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 24019, Apr. 25, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1704.1" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of 32 CFR 2001.33; Section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526 (or successor Orders); the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes procedures, subject to limitations set forth below, for requesters to request a mandatory declassification review of information classified under Executive Order 13526 or predecessor or successor orders. Section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526 and these regulations are not intended to and do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States, its agencies, officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.2" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means the authority of the agency that originates information, or its successor in function, to regulate access to the information. (32 CFR 2001.92)
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means U.S. Federal Government working day, which excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail.
</P>
<P><I>D/IMD</I> means the Director of the Information Management Division and the leader of any successor organization, who serves as the ODNI's manager of the information review and release program.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any <I>Executive agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any <I>Military department,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the executive branch that comes into the possession of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form, that is owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the U.S. Government; it does not include information originated by the incumbent President, White House Staff, appointed committees, commissions or boards, or any entities within the Executive Office that solely advise and assist the incumbent President.
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, or a U.S. Government contractor who, at the sole discretion of the ODNI, has a subject matter or other interest in the documents or information at issue.
</P>
<P><I>NARA</I> means the National Archives and Records Administration.
</P>
<P><I>ODNI</I> means the Office of the Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means Executive Order 13526, “Classified National Security Information” (December 29, 2009) or successor Orders.
</P>
<P><I>Originating element</I> means the element that created the information at issue.
</P>
<P><I>Presidential libraries</I> means the libraries or collection authorities established under the Presidential Libraries Act (44 U.S.C. 2112) and similar institutions or authorities as may be established in the future.
</P>
<P><I>Referral</I> means coordination with or transfer of action to an interested party.
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I> means any person or organization submitting an MDR request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.3" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.3   Contact information.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on the regulation in this part or to submit a request for a MDR, please direct your communication by mail to the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Director of the Information Management Division, Washington, DC 20511; by facsimile to (703) 874-8910; or by email to <I>DNI-FOIA@dni.gov.</I> For general information on the ODNI MDR program or status information on pending MDR cases, call (703) 874-8500.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.4" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.4   MDR program feedback.</HEAD>
<P>The ODNI welcomes suggestions for improving the administration of our MDR program in accordance with Executive Order 13526. Suggestions should identify the specific purpose and the items for consideration. The ODNI will respond to all communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.5" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.5   Guidance.</HEAD>
<P>Address all communications to the point of contact as specified in § 1704.3. Clearly describe, list, or label said communication as an MDR Request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.6" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.6   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>MDR requests will not be accepted from a foreign government entity or any representative thereof. MDR requests will not be accepted for documents required to be submitted for prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement; for information that is the subject of pending litigation; nor for any document or material containing information from within an operational file exempted from search and review, publication, and disclosure under the FOIA. If the ODNI has reviewed the requested information for declassification within the past two years, the ODNI will not conduct another review, but the D/IMD will notify the requester of this fact and the prior review decision. Requests will not be accepted from requesters who have outstanding fees for MDR or FOIA requests with the ODNI or another federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.7" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.7   Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>An MDR request shall describe the document or material containing the information with sufficient specificity to enable the ODNI to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.8" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.8   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any search, review, and reproduction fees will be charged in accordance with the provisions below relating to schedule, limitations, and category of requester. Applicable fees will be due even if a subsequent search locates no responsive records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency discretion to waive fees.</I> Records will be furnished without charge or at a reduced rate when ODNI determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) As a matter of administrative discretion, the interest of the United States Government would be served, or
</P>
<P>(2) It is in the public interest to provide responsive records because the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of the operations or activities of the United States Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> If you request an MDR, it shall be considered a firm commitment by you to pay all applicable fees chargeable under this regulation, up to and including the amount of $25.00. When making a request, you may specify a willingness to pay a greater or lesser amount.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advance payment.</I> The ODNI may require an advance payment of up to 100 percent of the estimated fees when projected fees exceed $250.00, not including charges associated with the first 100 pages of production and two hours of search (when applicable), or when the requester previously failed to pay fees in a timely fashion, for fees of any amount. ODNI will hold in abeyance for 45 days those requests where advance payment has been requested.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Schedule of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The schedule of fees for services performed in responding to requests for records is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Personnel Search and Review</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clerical/Technical</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quarter Hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$ 5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Professional/Supervisory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quarter Hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manager/Senior Professional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quarter Hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Computer Search and Production</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Search (online)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flat Rate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Search (offline)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flat Rate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other activity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per minute</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tapes (mainframe cassette)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tapes (mainframe cartridge)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tapes (mainframe reel)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tapes (PC 9mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diskette (3.5”)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CD (bulk recorded)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CD (recordable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Telecommunications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per minute</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paper (mainframe printer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per page</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paper (PC b&amp;w laser printer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per page</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paper (PC color printer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per page</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Paper Production</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Photocopy (standard or legal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per page</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preprinted (if available)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per 100 pages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Published (if available)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per item</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NTIS</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Application of schedule.</I> Personnel search time includes time expended in manual paper records searches, indices searches, review of computer search results for relevance, and personal computer system searches. In any event in which the actual cost to ODNI of a particular item is less than the above schedule (<I>e.g.,</I> a large production run of a document resulting in a cost less than $5.00 per hundred pages), then the actual lesser cost will be charged.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other services.</I> For all other types of output, production, or reproduction (<I>e.g.,</I> photographs, maps, or published reports), ODNI will charge actual cost or amounts authorized by statute. Determinations of actual cost shall include the commercial cost of the media, the personnel time expended in making the item to be released, and an allocated cost of the equipment used in making the item, or, if the production is effected by a commercial service, then that charge shall be deemed the actual cost for purposes of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations on collection of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> No fees will be charged if the cost of collecting the fee is equal to or greater than the fee itself. That cost includes the administrative costs to ODNI of billing, receiving, recording, and processing the fee for deposit to the Treasury Department and, as of the date of these regulations, is deemed to be $10.00.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Associated requests.</I> If it appears that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert have requested portions of an apparently unitary request for the purpose of avoiding the assessment of fees, ODNI may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. Requests from multiple requesters will not be aggregated without clear evidence. ODNI will not aggregate multiple unrelated requests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.9" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.9   Determination by originator or interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The originating element(s) of the classified information (document) is always an interested party to any mandatory declassification review. Other interested parties may become involved through a referral by the D/IMD when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required determinations:</I> These parties shall respond in writing to the D/IMD with a finding as to the classified status of the information, including the category of protected information as set forth in section 1.4 of the Order, and if older than ten years, the basis for the extension of classification time under sections 1.5 and 3.3 of the Order. These parties shall also indicate whether withholding is otherwise authorized and warranted in accordance with sections 3.5(c) and 6.2(d) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time.</I> Responses to the requester shall be provided on a first-in/first-out basis, taking into account the business requirements of the originating element(s) and other interested parties, and, in accordance with Executive Order 13526, ODNI will respond to requesters within one year of the receipt of requests.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deciding official.</I> The IMD FOIA Branch Chief, in consultation with the D/IMD and the Classification Management Branch Chief, will ordinarily be the deciding official on initial reviews of MDR requests to the ODNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.10" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.5.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.10   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative.</I> Appeals of initial decisions must be received in writing by the D/IMD within 60 days of the date of mailing of the ODNI's decision. The appeal must identify with specificity the documents or information to be considered on appeal and it may, but need not, provide a factual or legal basis for the appeal.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exceptions.</I> No appeal shall be accepted from a foreign government entity or any representative thereof. Appeals will not be accepted for documents required to be submitted for prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement; for information that is the subject of pending litigation; nor for any document or material containing information from within an operational file exempted from search and review, publication, and disclosure under the FOIA. No appeals shall be accepted if the requester has outstanding fees for information services at ODNI or another federal agency. In addition, no appeal shall be accepted if the information in question has been the subject of a declassification review within the previous two years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receipt, recording, and tasking.</I> The D/IMD will record each appeal received under this part and acknowledge receipt to the requester.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appellate authority.</I> The ODNI Chief Management Officer (CMO), after consultation with all interested parties or ODNI component organizations, as well as the Office of General Counsel, will make a final determination on the appeal within 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final appeal.</I> The D/IMD will prepare and communicate the ODNI administrative appeal decision to the requester, NARA, Presidential library, and referring agency, as appropriate. Correspondence will include a notice, if applicable, that a further appeal of ODNI's final decision may be made to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP) established pursuant to section 5.3 of Executive Order 13526. Action by that Panel will be the subject of rules to be promulgated by the Information Security Oversight Office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1705-1799" NODE="32:6.2.3.17.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1705-1799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVIII" NODE="32:6.2.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVIII—NATIONAL COUNTERINTELLIGENCE CENTER</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1800" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1800—PUBLIC ACCESS TO NACIC RECORDS UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT (FOIA)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49879, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended (5 U.S.C. 552); and section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403). It prescribes procedures for:
</P>
<P>(a) Requesting information on available NACIC records, or NACIC administration of the FOIA, or estimates of fees that may become due as a result of a request;
</P>
<P>(b) Requesting records pursuant to the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(c) Filing an administrative appeal of an initial adverse decision under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the United States National Counterintelligence Center acting through the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days when NACIC is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; otherwise ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of NACIC pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the NACIC manager of the information review and release program instituted under the Freedom of Information Act;
</P>
<P><I>Direct-costs</I> means those expenditures which an agency actually incurs in the processing of a FOIA request; it does not include overhead factors such as space; it does include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pages</I> means paper copies of standard office size or the dollar value equivalent in other media;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reproduction</I> means generation of a copy of a requested record in a form appropriate for release;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review</I> means all time expended in examining a record to determine whether any portion must be withheld pursuant to law and in effecting any required deletions but excludes personnel hours expended in resolving general legal or policy issues; it also means personnel hours of professional time;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Search</I> means all time expended in looking for and retrieving material that may be responsive to a request utilizing available paper and electronic indices and finding aids; it also means personnel hours of professional time or the dollar value equivalent in computer searches;
</P>
<P><I>Expression of interest</I> means a written communication submitted by a member of the public requesting information on or concerning the FOIA program and/or the availability of documents from NACIC;
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f);
</P>
<P><I>Fees</I> means those direct costs which may be assessed a requester considering the categories established by the FOIA; requesters should submit information to assist NACIC in determining the proper fee category and NACIC may draw reasonable inferences from the identity and activities of the requester in making such determinations; the fee categories include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial</I> means a request in which the disclosure sought is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester and which furthers such commercial, trade, income or profit interests;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-commercial educational or scientific institution</I> means a request from an accredited United States educational institution at any academic level or institution engaged in research concerning the social, biological, or physical sciences or an instructor or researcher or member of such institutions; it also means that the information will be used in a specific scholarly or analytical work, will contribute to the advancement of public knowledge, and will be disseminated to the general public;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means a request from an individual actively gathering news for an entity that is organized and operated to publish and broadcast news to the American public and pursuant to their news dissemination function and not their commercial interests; the term <I>news</I> means information which concerns current events, would be of current interest to the general public, would enhance the public understanding of the operations or activities of the U.S. Government, and is in fact disseminated to a significant element of the public at minimal cost; freelance journalists are included in this definition if they can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through such an organization, even though not actually employed by it; a publication contract or prior publication record is relevant to such status;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All other</I> means a request from an individual not within categories (h)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;
</P>
<P><I>Freedom of Information Act</I> or “<I>FOIA</I>” means the statutes as codified at 5 U.S.C. 552;
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of NACIC, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the U.S. Government official who originated the document at issue or successor in office or such official who has been delegated release or declassification authority pursuant to law;
</P>
<P><I>Potential requester</I> means a person, organization, or other entity who submits an expression of interest;
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably described records</I> means a description of a document (record) by unique identification number or descriptive terms which permit a NACIC employee to locate documents with reasonable effort given existing indices and finding aids;
</P>
<P><I>Records or agency records</I> means all documents, irrespective of physical or electronic form, made or received by NACIC in pursuance of federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business and appropriate for preservation by NACIC as evidence of the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of NACIC or because of the informational value of the data contained therein; it does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Books, newspapers, magazines, journals, magnetic or printed transcripts of electronic broadcasts, or similar public sector materials acquired generally and/or maintained for library or reference purposes; to the extent that such materials are incorporated into any form of analysis or otherwise distributed or published by NACIC, they are fully subject to the disclosure provisions of the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(2) Index, filing, or museum documents made or acquired and preserved solely for reference, indexing, filing, or exhibition purposes; and
</P>
<P>(3) Routing and transmittal sheets and notes and filing or destruction notes which do not also include information, comment, or statements of substance;
</P>
<P><I>Responsive records</I> means those documents (i.e., records) which NACIC has determined to be within the scope of a FOIA request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about the FOIA program at NACIC, or to file a FOIA request (or expression of interest), please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Executive Secretariat Office, National Counterintelligence Center, 3W01 NHB, Washington, DC 20505. Such inquiries will also be accepted by facsimile at (703)874-5844. For general information or status information on pending cases only, the telephone number is (703)874-4121. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>NACIC welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the Freedom of Information Act. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. NACIC will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing of FOIA Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.11" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>Members of the public shall address all communications to the NACIC Coordinator as specified at § 1800.03 and clearly delineate the communication as a request under the Freedom of Information Act and this regulation. NACIC employees receiving a communication in the nature of a FOIA request shall expeditiously forward same to the Coordinator. Requests and appeals on requests, referrals, or coordinations received from members of the public who owe outstanding fees for information services at this or other federal agencies will not be accepted and action on all pending requests shall be terminated in such circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.12" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.12   Requirements as to form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> No particular form is required. A request need only reasonably describe the records of interest. This means that documents must be described sufficiently to enable a professional employee familiar with the subject to locate the documents with a reasonable effort. Commonly this equates to a requirement that the documents must be locatable through the indexing of our various systems. Extremely broad or vague requests or requests requiring research do not satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information for fee determination.</I> In addition, a requester should provide sufficient personal identifying information to allow us to determine the appropriate fee category. A requester should also provide an agreement to pay all applicable fees or fees not to exceed a certain amount or request a fee waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Otherwise.</I> Communications which do not meet these requirements will be considered an expression of interest and NACIC will work with, and offer suggestions to, the potential requester in order to define a request properly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.13" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.13   Fees for record services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Search, review, and reproduction fees will be charged in accordance with the provisions below relating to schedule, limitations, and category of requester. Applicable fees will be due even if our search locates no responsive records or some or all of the responsive records must be denied under one or more of the exemptions of the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee waiver requests.</I> Records will be furnished without charge or at a reduced rate whenever NACIC determines:
</P>
<P>(1) That, as a matter of administrative discretion, the interest of the United States Government would be served, or
</P>
<P>(2) That it is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of the operations or activities of the United States Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester; NACIC shall consider the following factors when making this determination:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the subject of the request concerns the operations or activities of the United States Government; and, if so,
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the disclosure of the requested documents is likely to contribute to an understanding of United States Government operations or activities; and, if so,
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the disclosure of the requested documents will contribute to public understanding of United States Government operations or activities; and, if so,
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the disclosure of the requested documents is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of United States Government operations and activities; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure; and, if so,
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the disclosure is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee waiver appeals.</I> Denials of requests for fee waivers or reductions may be appealed to the Director, NACIC via the Coordinator. A requester is encouraged to provide any explanation or argument as to how his or her request satisfies the statutory requirement set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for fee waiver requests and appeals.</I> It is suggested that such requests and appeals be made and resolved prior to the initiation of processing and the incurring of costs. However, fee waiver requests will be accepted at any time prior to the release of documents or the completion of a case, and fee waiver appeals within forty-five (45) days of our initial decision subject to the following condition: if processing has been initiated, then the requester must agree to be responsible for costs in the event of an adverse administrative or judicial decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> In order to protect requesters from large and/or unanticipated charges, NACIC will request specific commitment when it estimates that fees will exceed $100.00. NACIC will hold in abeyance for forty-five (45) days requests requiring such agreement and will thereafter deem the request closed. This action, of course, would not prevent an individual from refiling his or her FOIA request with a fee commitment at a subsequent date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deposits.</I> NACIC may require an advance deposit of up to 100 percent of the estimated fees when fees may exceed $250.00 and the requester has no history of payment, or when, for fees of any amount, there is evidence that the requester may not pay the fees which would be accrued by processing the request. NACIC will hold in abeyance for forty-five (45) days those requests where deposits have been requested.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Schedule of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The schedule of fees for services performed in responding to requests for records is established as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Personnel Search and Review
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Clerical/Technical_Quarter hour_$ 5.00_Professional/Supervisory_Quarter hour_ 10.00__Manager/Senior Professional_Quarter hour_18.00</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Computer Search and Production
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Search (on-line)_Flat rate_10.00_Search (off-line)_Flat rate_30.00_Other activity_Per minute_10.00_Tapes (mainframe cassette)_Each_9.00_Tapes (mainframe cartridge)_Each_9.00_Tapes (mainframe reel)_Each_20.00_Tapes (PC 9mm)_Each_25.00_Diskette (3.5″)
</FP>
<FP>_Each_4.00_CD (bulk recorded)_Each_10.00_CD (recordable)_Each_20.00_ Telecommunications _Per minute_.50_ Paper (mainframe printer)_Per page_.10_Paper (PC b&amp;w laser printer)_Per page_.10_Paper (PC color printer)_Per page_1.00</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Paper Production
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Photocopy (standard or legal)_Per page_.10_Microfiche_Per frame_.20_Pre-printed (if available)_Per 100 pages_5.00_Published (if available)_Per item_NTIS_</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Application of schedule.</I> Personnel search time includes time expended in either manual paper records searches, indices searches, review of computer search results for relevance, personal computer system searches, and various reproduction services. In any event where the actual cost to NACIC of a particular item is less than the above schedule (e.g., a large production run of a document resulted in a cost less than $5.00 per hundred pages), then the actual lesser cost will be charged.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other services.</I> For all other types of output, production, or reproduction (e.g., photographs, maps, or published reports), actual cost or amounts authorized by statute. Determinations of actual cost shall include the commercial cost of the media, the personnel time expended in making the item to be released, and an allocated cost of the equipment used in making the item, or, if the production is effected by a commercial service, then that charge shall be deemed the actual cost for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Limitations on collection of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> No fees will be charged if the cost of collecting the fee is equal to or greater than the fee itself. That cost includes the administrative costs to NACIC of billing, receiving, recording, and processing the fee for deposit to the Treasury Department and, as of the date of these regulations, is deemed to be $10.00.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests for personal information.</I> No fees will be charged for requesters seeking records about themselves under the FOIA; such requests are processed in accordance with both the FOIA and the Privacy Act in order to ensure the maximum disclosure without charge.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fee categories.</I> There are four categories of FOIA requesters for fee purposes: “commercial use” requesters, “educational and non-commercial scientific institution” requesters, “representatives of the news media” requesters, and “all other” requesters. The categories are defined in § 1800.2, and applicable fees, which are the same in two of the categories, will be assessed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) “Commercial use” requesters: Charges which recover the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and duplicating responsive records (if any);
</P>
<P>(2) “Educational and non-commercial scientific institution” requesters as well as “representatives of the news media” requesters: Only charges for reproduction beyond the first 100 pages;
</P>
<P>(3) “All other” requesters: Charges which recover the full direct cost of searching for and reproducing responsive records (if any) beyond the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time which will be furnished without charge.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Associated requests.</I> A requester or associated requesters may not file a series of multiple requests, which are merely discrete subdivisions of the information actually sought for the purpose of avoiding or reducing applicable fees. In such instances, NACIC may aggregate the requests and charge the applicable fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.14" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.14   Fee estimates (pre-request option).</HEAD>
<P>In order to avoid unanticipated or potentially large fees, a requester may submit a request for a fee estimate. Pursuant to the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, NACIC will endeavor within twenty (20) days to provide an accurate estimate, and, if a request is thereafter submitted, NACIC will not accrue or charge fees in excess of our estimate without the specific permission of the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—NACIC Action On FOIA Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.21" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.21   Processing of requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Requests meeting the requirements of §§ 1800.11 through 1800.13 shall be accepted as formal requests and processed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and these regulations. Pursuant to the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, upon receipt, NACIC shall within twenty (20) days record each request, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the NACIC components reasonably believed to hold responsive records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Database of “officially released information.”</I> As an alternative to extensive tasking and as an accommodation to many requesters, NACIC maintains a database of “officially released information” which contains copies of documents released by NACIC. Searches of this database can be accomplished expeditiously. Moreover, requests that are specific and well-focused will often incur minimal, if any, costs. Requesters interested in this means of access should so indicate in their correspondence. Consistent with the mandate of the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, on-line electronic access to these records is available to the public. Detailed information regarding such access is available from the point of contact specified in § 1800.3.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> In processing a request, NACIC shall decline to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of any responsive records whenever the fact of their existence or nonexistence is itself classified under Executive Order 12958 and may jeopardize intelligence sources or methods protected pursuant to section 103(c)(6) of the National Security Act of 1947. In such circumstances, NACIC, in the form of a final written response, shall so inform the requester and advise of his or her right to an administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for response.</I> Pursuant to the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, NACIC will utilize every effort to determine within the statutory guideline of twenty (20) days after receipt of an initial request whether to comply with such a request. However, should the volume of requests require that NACIC seek additional time from a requester pursuant to § 1800.33, NACIC will inform the requester in writing and further advise of his or her right to file an administrative appeal of any adverse determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.22" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.22   Action and determination(s) by originator(s) or any interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial action for access.</I> (1) NACIC components tasked pursuant to a FOIA request shall search all relevant record systems within their cognizance. They shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether a record exists;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine whether and to what extent any FOIA exemptions apply;
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve the disclosure of all non-exempt records or portions of records for which they are the originator; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Forward to the Coordinator all records approved for release or necessary for coordination with or referral to another originator or interested party.
</P>
<P>(2) In making these decisions, the NACIC component officers shall be guided by the applicable law as well as the procedures specified at § 1800.31 and § 1800.32 regarding confidential commercial information and personal information (about persons other than the requester).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referrals and coordinations.</I> As applicable and within twenty (20) days, pursuant to the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, of receipt by the Coordinator, any NACIC records containing information originated by other NACIC components shall be forwarded to those entities for action in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section and return. Records originated by other federal agencies or NACIC records containing other federal agency information shall be forwarded to such agencies within twenty (20) days of our completion of initial action in the case for action under their regulations and direct response to the requester (for other agency records) or return to NACIC (for NACIC records).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.23" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.23   Payment of fees, notification of decision, and right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees in general.</I> Fees collected under this part do not accrue to the National Counterintelligence Center and shall be deposited immediately to the general account of the United States Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of decision.</I> Upon completion of all required review and the receipt of accrued fees (or promise to pay such fees), NACIC will promptly inform the requester in writing of those records or portions of records which may be released and which must be denied. With respect to the former, NACIC will provide copies; with respect to the latter, NACIC shall explain the reasons for the denial, identify the person(s) responsible for such decisions by name and title, and give notice of a right of administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of reading room.</I> As an alternative to receiving records by mail, a requester may arrange to inspect the records deemed releasable at a NACIC “reading room” in the metropolitan Washington, DC area. Access will be granted after applicable and accrued fees have been paid. Requests to review or browse documents in our database of “officially released records” will also be honored in this manner to the extent that paper copies or electronic copies in unclassified computer systems exist. All such requests shall be in writing and addressed pursuant to § 1800.3. The records will be available at such times as mutually agreed but not less than three (3) days from our receipt of a request. The requester will be responsible for reproduction charges for any copies of records desired.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Administrative Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.31" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.31   Procedures for business information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information obtained by NACIC by a submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request except in accordance with this section. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Business information</I> means commercial or financial information in which a legal entity has a recognized property interest;
</P>
<P><I>Confidential commercial information</I> means such business information provided to the United States Government by a submitter which is reasonably believed to contain information exempt from release under exemption (b)(4) of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm;
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity who provides confidential commercial information to the United States Government; it includes, but is not limited to, corporations, businesses (however organized), state governments, and foreign governments; and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be confidential commercial information and hence protected from required disclosure pursuant to exemption (b)(4). Such designations shall expire ten (10) years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process in event of FOIA request</I>—(1) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> NACIC shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of receipt of a Freedom of Information Act request encompassing business information whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) The submitter has in good faith designated the information as confidential commercial information, or
</P>
<P>(ii) NACIC believes that disclosure of the information could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The information was submitted within the last ten (10) years unless the submitter requested and provided acceptable justification for a specific notice period of greater duration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of notice.</I> This notice shall either describe the exact nature of the confidential commercial information at issue or provide copies of the responsive records containing such information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response by submitter.</I> (i) Within seven (7) days of the above notice, all claims of confidentiality by a submitter must be supported by a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Specify that the information has not been disclosed to the public;
</P>
<P>(B) Explain why the information is contended to be a trade secret or confidential commercial information;
</P>
<P>(C) Explain how the information is capable of competitive damage if disclosed;
</P>
<P>(D) State that the submitter will provide NACIC and the Department of Justice with such litigation defense as requested; and
</P>
<P>(E) Be certified by an officer authorized to legally bind the corporation or similar entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) It should be noted that information provided by a submitter pursuant to this provision may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision and notice of intent to disclose.</I> (i) NACIC shall consider carefully a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to its final determination. If NACIC decides to disclose a document over the objection of a submitter, NACIC shall provide the submitter a written notice which shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(C) A specified disclosure date which is seven (7) days after the date of the instant notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) When notice is given to a submitter under this section, NACIC shall also notify the requester and, if NACIC notifies a submitter that it intends to disclose information, then the requester shall be notified also and given the proposed date for disclosure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> If a requester initiates a civil action seeking to compel disclosure of information asserted to be within the scope of this section, NACIC shall promptly notify the submitter. The submitter, as specified above, shall provide such litigation assistance as required by NACIC and the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exceptions to notice requirement.</I> The notice requirements of this section shall not apply if NACIC determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The information should not be disclosed in light of other FOIA exemptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information has been published lawfully or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure of the information is otherwise required by law or federal regulation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The designation made by the submitter under this section appears frivolous, except that, in such a case, NACIC will, within a reasonable time prior to the specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 49879, Sept. 14, 1999; 64 FR 53769, Oct. 4, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.32" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.32   Procedures for information concerning other persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Personal information concerning individuals other than the requester shall not be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act if the proposed release would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. See 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6). For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Personal information</I> means any information about an individual that is not a matter of public record, or easily discernible to the public, or protected from disclosure because of the implications that arise from Government possession of such information.
</P>
<P><I>Public interest</I> means the public interest in understanding the operations and activities of the United States Government and not simply any matter which might be of general interest to the requester or members of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination to be made.</I> In making the required determination under this section and pursuant to exemption (b)(6) of the FOIA, NACIC will balance the privacy interests that would be compromised by disclosure against the public interest in release of the requested information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Otherwise.</I> A requester seeking information on a third person is encouraged to provide a signed affidavit or declaration from the third person waiving all or some of their privacy rights. However, all such waivers shall be narrowly construed and the Coordinator, in the exercise of his discretion and administrative authority, may seek clarification from the third party prior to any or all releases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.33" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.33   Allocation of resources; agreed extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> NACIC components shall devote such personnel and other resources to the responsibilities imposed by the Freedom of Information Act as may be appropriate and reasonable considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The totality of resources available to the component,
</P>
<P>(2) The business demands imposed on the component by the Director of NACIC or otherwise by law,
</P>
<P>(3) The information review and release demands imposed by the Congress or other governmental authority, and
</P>
<P>(4) The rights of all members of the public under the various information review and disclosure laws.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discharge of FOIA responsibilities.</I> Components shall exercise due diligence in their responsibilities under the FOIA and must allocate a reasonable level of resources to requests under the Act in a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis and utilizing two or more processing queues to ensure that smaller as well as larger (i.e., project) cases receive equitable attention. The Information and Privacy Coordinator is responsible for management of the NACIC-wide program defined by this part and for establishing priorities for cases consistent with established law. The Director, NACIC shall provide policy and resource direction as necessary and render decisions on administrative appeals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for extension of time.</I> When NACIC is unable to meet the statutory time requirements of the FOIA, it will inform the requester that the request cannot be processed within the statutory time limits, provide an opportunity for the requester to limit the scope of the request so that it can be processed within the statutory time limits, or arrange with the requester an agreed upon time frame for processing the request, or determine that exceptional circumstances mandate additional time in accordance with the definition of “exceptional circumstances” per section 552(a)(6)(C) of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, effective October 2, 1997. In such instances NACIC will, however, inform a requester of his or her right to decline our request and proceed with an administrative appeal or judicial review as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.34" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.34   Requests for expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> All requests will be handled in the order received on a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis. Exceptions to this section will only be made in accordance with the following procedures. In all circumstances, however, and consistent with established judicial precedent, requests more properly the scope of requests under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure (or other federal, state, or foreign judicial or quasi-judicial rules) will not be granted expedited processing under this or related (e.g., Privacy Act) provisions unless expressly ordered by a federal court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> Requests for expedited processing will be approved only when a compelling need is established to the satisfaction of NACIC. A requester may make such a request with a certification of “compelling need” and, within ten (10) days of receipt, NACIC will decide whether to grant expedited processing and will notify the requester of its decision. The certification shall set forth with specificity the relevant facts upon which the requester relies and it appears to NACIC that substantive records relevant to the stated needs may exist and be deemed releasable. A “compelling need” is deemed to exist:
</P>
<P>(1) When the matter involves an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information and the information is relevant to a subject of public urgency concerning an actual or alleged Federal government activity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—NACIC Action On FOIA Administrative Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.41" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.41   Appeal authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, NACIC will make final NACIC decisions from appeals of initial adverse decisions under the Freedom of Information Act and such other information release decisions made under parts 1801, 1802, and 1803 of this chapter. Matters decided by the Director, NACIC will be deemed a final decision by NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.42" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.42   Right of appeal and appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of Appeal.</I> A right of administrative appeal exists whenever access to any requested record or any portion thereof is denied, no records are located in response to a request, or a request for a fee waiver is denied. NACIC will apprise all requesters in writing of their right to appeal such decisions to the Director, NACIC through the Coordinator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements as to time and form.</I> Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within forty-five (45) days of the date of NACIC's initial decision. NACIC may, for good cause and as a matter of administrative discretion, permit an additional thirty (30) days for the submission of an appeal. All appeals shall be in writing and addressed as specified in § 1800.3. All appeals must identify the documents or portions of documents at issue with specificity and may present such information, data, and argument in support as the requester may desire.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> No appeal shall be accepted if the requester has outstanding fees for information services at this or another federal agency. In addition, no appeal shall be accepted if the information in question has been the subject of a review within the previous two (2) years or is the subject of pending litigation in the federal courts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt, recording, and tasking.</I> NACIC shall promptly record each request received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the office(s) which originated or has an interest in the record(s) subject to the appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time for response.</I> NACIC shall attempt to complete action on an appeal within twenty (20) days of the date of receipt. The volume of requests, however, may require that NACIC request additional time from the requester pursuant to § 1800.33. In such event, NACIC will inform the requester of the right to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.43" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.43   Determination(s) by Office Chief(s).</HEAD>
<P>Each Office Chief in charge of an office which originated or has an interest in any of the records subject to the appeal, or designee, is a required party to any appeal; other interested parties may become involved through the request of the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance. These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the exempt status of the information. This response shall be provided expeditiously on a “first-in, first-out” basis taking into account the business requirements of the parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the various information review and release laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.44" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.44   Action by appeals authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation of docket.</I> The Coordinator shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the Director, NACIC; the complete record of the request consisting of the request, the document(s) (sanitized and full text) at issue, and the findings of concerned Office Chiefs or designee(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision by the Director, NACIC.</I> The Director, NACIC shall personally decide each case; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Director, NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.45" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.1.5.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.45   Notification of decision and right of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall promptly prepare and communicate the decision of the Director, NACIC to the requester. With respect to any decision to deny information, that correspondence shall state the reasons for the decision, identify the officer responsible, and include a notice of a right to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1801" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1801—PUBLIC RIGHTS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49884, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) and section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose in general.</I> This part prescribes procedures for a requester, as defined herein:
</P>
<P>(1) To request notification of whether the National Counterintellingence Center (NACIC) maintains a record concerning them in any non-exempt portion of a system of records or any non-exempt system of records;
</P>
<P>(2) To request a copy of all non-exempt records or portions of records;
</P>
<P>(3) To request that any such record be amended or augmented; and
</P>
<P>(4) To file an administrative appeal to any initial adverse determination to deny access to or amend a record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other purposes.</I> This part also sets forth detailed limitations on how and to whom NACIC may disclose personal information and gives notice that certain actions by officers or employees of the United States Government or members of the public could constitute criminal offenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the United States National Counterintelligence Center acting through the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days when NACIC is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of NACIC pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the NACIC manager of the information review and release program instituted under the Privacy Act;
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f);
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of NACIC, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>Maintain</I> means maintain, collect, use, or disseminate;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the U.S. Government official who originated the document at issue or successor in office or such official who has been delegated release or declassification authority pursuant to law;
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act</I> or <I>PA</I> means the statute as codified at 5 U.S.C. 552a;
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means an item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by NACIC in a system of records;
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I> or <I>individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence who is a living being and to whom a record might pertain;
</P>
<P><I>Responsive record</I> means those documents (records) which NACIC has determined to be within the scope of a Privacy Act request;
</P>
<P><I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which the record is maintained;
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of NACIC from which records are retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to that individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about the Privacy Act program at NACIC, or to file a Privacy Act request, please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Executive Secretariat Office, National Counterintelligence Center, 3W01 NHB, Washington, DC 20505. Requests with the required identification statement pursuant to § 1801.13 must be filed in original form by mail. Subsequent communications and any inquiries will be accepted by mail or facsimile at (703) 874-5844 or by telephone at (703) 874-4121. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>NACIC welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the Privacy Act. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. NACIC will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing Of Privacy Act Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.11" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>Members of the public shall address all communications to the contact specified at § 1801.3 and clearly delineate the communication as a request under the Privacy Act and this regulation. Requests and administrative appeals on requests, referrals, and coordinations received from members of the public who owe outstanding fees for information services at this or other federal agencies will not be accepted and action on existing requests and appeals will be terminated in such circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.12" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.12   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> No particular form is required. All requests must contain the identification information required at § 1801.13.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For access.</I> For requests seeking access, a requester should, to the extent possible, describe the nature of the record sought and the record system(s) in which it is thought to be included. Requesters may find assistance from information described in the Privacy Act Issuances Compilation which is published biennially by the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In lieu of this, a requester may simply describe why and under what circumstances it is believed that NACIC maintains responsive records; NACIC will undertake the appropriate searches.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>For amendment.</I> For requests seeking amendment, a requester should identify the particular record or portion subject to the request, state a justification for such amendment, and provide the desired amending language.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.13" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.13   Requirements as to identification of requester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Individuals seeking access to or amendment of records concerning themselves shall provide their full (legal) name, address, date and place of birth, and current citizenship status together with a statement that such information is true under penalty of perjury or a notarized statement swearing to or affirming identity. If NACIC determines that this information is not sufficient, NACIC may request additional or clarifying information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for aliens.</I> Only aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence (PRAs) may file a request pursuant to the Privacy Act and this part. Such individuals shall provide, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section, their Alien Registration Number and the date that status was acquired.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement for representatives.</I> The parent or guardian of a minor individual, the guardian of an individual under judicial disability, or an attorney retained to represent an individual shall provide, in addition to establishing the identity of the minor or individual represented as required in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, evidence of such representation by submission of a certified copy of the minor's birth certificate, court order, or representational agreement which establishes the relationship and the requester's identity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure otherwise.</I> If a requester or representative fails to provide the information in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section within forty-five (45) days of the date of our request, NACIC will deem the request closed. This action, of course, would not prevent an individual from refiling his or her Privacy Act request at a subsequent date with the required information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.14" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.14   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>No fees will be charged for any action under the authority of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, irrespective of the fact that a request is or may be processed under the authority of both the Privacy Act and the Freedom of Information Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Action On Privacy Act Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.21" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.21   Processing requests for access to or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Requests meeting the requirements of § 1801.11 through § 1801.13 shall be processed under both the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and the applicable regulations, unless the requester demands otherwise in writing. Such requests will be processed under both Acts regardless of whether the requester cites one Act in the request, both, or neither. This action is taken in order to ensure the maximum possible disclosure to the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt, recording and tasking.</I> Upon receipt of a request meeting the requirements of §§ 1801.11 through 1801.13, NACIC shall within ten (10) days record each request, acknowledge receipt to the requester, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the office(s) reasonably believed to hold responsive records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> In processing a request, NACIC shall decline to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of any responsive records whenever the fact of their existence or nonexistence is itself classified under Executive Order 12958 and that confirmation of the existence of a record may jeopardize intelligence sources and methods protected pursuant to section 103(c)(6) of the National Security Act of 1947. In such circumstances, NACIC, in the form of a final written response, shall so inform the requester and advise of his or her right to an administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for response.</I> Although the Privacy Act does not mandate a time for response, our joint treatment of requests under both the Privacy Act and the FOIA means that the NACIC should provide a response within the FOIA statutory guideline of ten (10) days on initial requests and twenty (20) days on administrative appeals. However, the volume of requests may require that NACIC seek additional time from a requester pursuant to § 1801.33. In such event, NACIC will inform the requester in writing and further advise of his or her right to file an administrative appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.22" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.22   Action and determination(s) by originator(s) or any interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial action for access.</I> NACIC offices tasked pursuant to a Privacy Act access request shall search all relevant record systems within their cognizance. They shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether responsive records exist;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether access must be denied in whole or part and on what legal basis under both Acts in each such case;
</P>
<P>(3) Approve the disclosure of records for which they are the originator; and
</P>
<P>(4) Forward to the Coordinator all records approved for release or necessary for coordination with or referral to another originator or interested party as well as the specific determinations with respect to denials (if any).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial action for amendment.</I> NACIC offices tasked pursuant to a Privacy Act amendment request shall review the official records alleged to be inaccurate and the proposed amendment submitted by the requester. If they determine that NACIC's records are not accurate, relevant, timely or complete, they shall promptly:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the amendment as requested;
</P>
<P>(2) Write to all other identified persons or agencies to whom the record has been disclosed (if an accounting of the disclosure was made) and inform of the amendment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the Coordinator of such decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action otherwise on amendment request.</I> If the NACIC office records manager declines to make the requested amendment (or declines to make the requested amendment) but agrees to augment the official records, that manager shall promptly:
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth the reasons for refusal; and
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the Coordinator of such decision and the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referrals and coordinations.</I> As applicable and within ten (10) days of receipt by the Coordinator, any NACIC records containing information originated by other NACIC offices shall be forwarded to those entities for action in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section and return. Records originated by other federal agencies or NACIC records containing other federal information shall be forwarded to such agencies within ten (10) days of our completion of initial action in the case for action under their regulations and direct response to the requester (for other NACIC records) or return to NACIC (for NACIC records).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> This section shall not be construed to allow access to systems of records exempted by the Director, NACIC pursuant to subsections (j) and (k) of the Privacy Act or where those exemptions require that NACIC can neither confirm nor deny the existence or nonexistence of responsive records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.23" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.23   Notification of decision and right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>Within ten (10) days of receipt of responses to all initial taskings and subsequent coordinations (if any), and dispatch of referrals (if any), NACIC will provide disclosable records to the requester. If a determination has been made not to provide access to requested records (in light of specific exemptions) or that no records are found, NACIC shall so inform the requester, identify the denying official, and advise of the right to administrative appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Administrative Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.31" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.31   Special procedures for medical and psychological records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When a request for access or amendment involves medical or psychological records and when the originator determines that such records are not exempt from disclosure, NACIC will, after consultation with the Director of Medical Services, CIA, determine:
</P>
<P>(1) Which records may be sent directly to the requester and
</P>
<P>(2) Which records should not be sent directly to the requester because of possible medical or psychological harm to the requester or another person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for records to be sent to physician.</I> In the event that NACIC determines, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, that records should not be sent directly to the requester, NACIC will notify the requester in writing and advise that the records at issue can be made available only to a physician of the requester's designation. Upon receipt of such designation, verification of the identity of the physician, and agreement by the physician:
</P>
<P>(1) To review the documents with the requesting individual,
</P>
<P>(2) To explain the meaning of the documents, and
</P>
<P>(3) To offer counseling designed to temper any adverse reaction, NACIC will forward such records to the designated physician.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure if physician option not available.</I> If within sixty (60) days of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the requester has failed to respond or designate a physician, or the physician fails to agree to the release conditions, NACIC will hold the documents in abeyance and advise the requester that this action may be construed as a technical denial. NACIC will also advise the requester of the responsible official and of his or her rights to administrative appeal and thereafter judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.32" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.32   Requests for expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests will be handled in the order received on a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis. Exceptions to this rule will only be made in circumstances that NACIC deems to be exceptional. In making this determination, NACIC shall consider and must decide in the affirmative on all of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) That there is a genuine need for the records; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the personal need is exceptional; and
</P>
<P>(3) That there are no alternative forums for the records sought; and
</P>
<P>(4) That it is reasonably believed that substantive records relevant to the stated needs may exist and be deemed releasable.
</P>
<P>(b) In sum, requests shall be considered for expedited processing only when health, humanitarian, or due process considerations involving possible deprivation of life or liberty create circumstances of exceptional urgency and extraordinary need. In accordance with established judicial precedent, requests more properly the scope of requests under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure (or equivalent state rules) will not be granted expedited processing under this or related (e.g., Freedom of Information Act) provisions unless expressly ordered by a federal court of competent jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.33" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.33   Allocation of resources; agreed extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> NACIC components shall devote such personnel and other resources to the responsibilities imposed by the Privacy Act as may be appropriate and reasonable considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The totality of resources available to the component,
</P>
<P>(2) The business demands imposed on the component by the Director, NACIC or otherwise by law,
</P>
<P>(3) The information review and release demands imposed by the Congress or other governmental authority, and
</P>
<P>(4) The rights of all members of the public under the various information review and disclosure laws.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discharge of Privacy Act responsibilities.</I> Offices shall exercise due diligence in their responsibilities under the Privacy Act and must allocate a reasonable level of resources to requests under the Act in a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis and utilizing two or more processing queues to ensure that smaller as well as larger (i.e., project) cases receive equitable attention. The Information and Privacy Coordinator is responsible for management of the NACIC-wide program defined by this part and for establishing priorities for cases consistent with established law. The Director, NACIC shall provide policy and resource direction as necessary and shall render decisions on administrative appeals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for extension of time.</I> While the Privacy Act does not specify time requirements, our joint treatment of requests under the FOIA means that when NACIC is unable to meet the statutory time requirements of the FOIA, NACIC may request additional time from a requester. In such instances NACIC will inform a requester of his or her right to decline our request and proceed with an administrative appeal or judicial review as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Action On Privacy Act Administrative Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.41" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.41   Appeal authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, NACIC will make final NACIC decisions from appeals of initial adverse decisions under the Privacy Act and such other information release decisions made under 32 CFR parts 1800, 1802, and 1803 of this chapter. Matters decided by the Director, NACIC will be deemed a final decision by NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.42" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.42   Right of appeal and appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of Appeal.</I> A right of administrative appeal exists whenever access to any requested record or any portion thereof is denied, no records are located in response to a request, or a request for amendment is denied. NACIC will apprise all requesters in writing of their right to appeal such decisions to the Director, NACIC through the Coordinator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements as to time and form.</I> Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within forty-five (45) days of the date of NACIC's initial decision. NACIC may, for good cause and as a matter of administrative discretion, permit an additional thirty (30) days for the submission of an appeal. All appeals to the Director, NACIC shall be in writing and addressed as specified in § 1801.3. All appeals must identify the documents or portions of documents at issue with specificity, provide the desired amending language (if applicable), and may present such information, data, and argument in support as the requester may desire.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> No appeal shall be accepted if the requester has outstanding fees for information services at this or another federal agency. In addition, no appeal shall be accepted if the information in question has been the subject of an administrative review within the previous two (2) years or is the subject of pending litigation in the federal courts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt, recording, and tasking.</I> NACIC shall promptly record each administrative appeal, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the office chief in charge of the office(s) which originated or has an interest in the record(s) subject to the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.43" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.43   Determination(s) by Office Chiefs.</HEAD>
<P>Each Office Chief in charge of an office which originated or has an interest in any of the records subject to the appeal, or designee, is a required party to any appeal; other interested parties may become involved through the request of the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance. These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the exempt or non-exempt status of the information including citations to the applicable exemption and/or their agreement or disagreement as to the requested amendment and the reasons therefore. Each response shall be provided expeditiously on a “first-in, first-out” basis taking into account the business requirements of the parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the various information review and release laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.44" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.44   Action by appeals authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation of docket.</I> The Coordinator shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the Director, NACIC; the complete record of the request consisting of the request, the document(s) (sanitized and full text) at issue, and the findings of any concerned office chiefs or designee(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision by the Director, NACIC.</I> The Director, NACIC shall personally decide each case; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Director, NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.45" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.5.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.45   Notification of decision and right of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Coordinator shall promptly prepare and communicate the decision of the Director, NACIC to the requester. With respect to any decision to deny information or deny amendment, that correspondence shall state the reasons for the decision, identify the officer responsible, and include a notice of the right to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For amendment requests.</I> With further respect to any decision to deny an amendment, that correspondence shall also inform the requester of the right to submit within forty-five (45) days a statement of his or her choice which shall be included in the official records of NACIC. In such cases, the applicable record system manager shall clearly note any portion of the official record which is disputed, append the requester's statement, and provide copies of the statement to previous recipients (if any are known) and to any future recipients when and if the disputed information is disseminated in accordance with a routine use.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Prohibitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.51" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.6.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.51   Limitations on disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>No record which is within a system of records shall be disclosed by any means of communication to any individual or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record would be:
</P>
<P>(a) To those officers and employees of NACIC which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties;
</P>
<P>(b) Required under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;
</P>
<P>(c) For a routine use as defined in § 1801.02(m), as contained in the Privacy Act Issuances Compilation which is published biennially in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and as described in sections (a)(7) and (e)(4)(D) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(d) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of U.S.C. Title 13;
</P>
<P>(e) To a recipient who has provided NACIC with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable;
</P>
<P>(f) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or designee to determine whether the record has such value;
</P>
<P>(g) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of that agency or instrumentality has made a written request to NACIC specifying the particular information desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;
</P>
<P>(h) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual;
</P>
<P>(i) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee;
</P>
<P>(j) To the Comptroller General or any of his authorized representatives in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office; or
</P>
<P>(k) To any agency, government instrumentality, or other person or entity pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction of the United States or constituent states.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.52" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.6.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.52   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unauthorized disclosure.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any officer or employee of NACIC who, by virtue of employment, has possession of or access to NACIC records which contain information identifiable with an individual, the disclosure of which is prohibited by the Privacy Act or by these rules, and who, knowing that disclosure of the specific material is so prohibited, willfully discloses the material in any manner to any person or agency not entitled to receive same.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unauthorized maintenance.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any officer or employee of NACIC who willfully maintains a system of records without meeting the requirements of section (e)(4) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a. The Coordinator and the Director of NACIC are authorized independently to conduct such surveys and inspect such records as necessary from time to time to ensure that these requirements are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unauthorized requests.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed upon any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from NACIC under false pretenses.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1801.63" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.2.7.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1801.63   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to authority granted in section (k) of the Privacy Act, the Director, NACIC has determined to exempt from section (d) of the Privacy Act those portions and only those portions of all systems of records maintained by NACIC that would consist of, pertain to, or otherwise reveal information that is:
</P>
<P>(a) Classified pursuant to Executive Order 12958 (or successor or prior Order) and thus subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1) and 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1);
</P>
<P>(b) Investigatory in nature and compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of section (j)(2) of the Act; provided however, that if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which they are otherwise eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, then such material shall be provided to that individual except to the extent that the disclosure would reveal the identity of a source who furnished the information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality;
</P>
<P>(c) Maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056;
</P>
<P>(d) Required by statute to be maintained and used solely as statistical records;
</P>
<P>(e) Investigatory in nature and compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality;
</P>
<P>(f) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the federal service the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process; or
</P>
<P>(g) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1802" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1802—CHALLENGES TO CLASSIFICATION OF DOCUMENTS BY AUTHORIZED HOLDERS PURSUANT TO SECTION 1.9 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 12958
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Executive Order 12958, 60 FR 19825, 3 CFR 1996 Comp., p. 333-356 (or successor Orders).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49889, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement § 1.9 of Executive Order (E.O.) 12958 and section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes procedures for authorized holders of information classified under the various provisions of E.O. 12958, or predecessor Orders, to seek a review or otherwise challenge the classified status of information to further the interests of the United States Government. This part and § 1.9 of E.O. 12958 confer no rights upon members of the general public, or authorized holders acting in their personal capacity, both of whom shall continue to request reviews of classification under the mandatory declassification review provisions set forth at § 3.6 of E.O. 12958.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings as indicated:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the United States National Counterintelligence Center acting through the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P><I>Authorized holders</I> means any member of any United States executive department, military department, the Congress, or the judiciary (Article III) who holds a security clearance from or has been specifically authorized by NACIC to possess and use on official business classified information, or otherwise has Constitutional authority pursuant to their office;
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days when NACIC is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any requirement of this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Challenge</I> means a request in the individual's official, not personal, capacity and in furtherance of the interests of the United States;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of NACIC pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator acting in the capacity of the Director of NACIC;
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form, that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the United States Government, and
</P>
<P>(2) Lawfully and actually in the possession of an authorized holder and for which ownership and control has not been relinquished by NACIC;
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of NACIC, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the NACIC officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a NACIC officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of this Order;
</P>
<P><I>This Order</I> means Executive Order 12958 of April 17, 1995, or successor Orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For information on this part or to file a challenge under this part, please direct your inquiry to the Director, National Counterintelligence Center, Washington, DC 20505. The commercial (non-secure) telephone is (703) 874-4117; the classified (secure) telephone for voice and facsimile is (703) 874-5829.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>NACIC welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the Executive Order. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. NACIC will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing Of Challenges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.11" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.11   Prerequisites.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to reliance on this part, authorized holders are required to first exhaust such established administrative procedures for the review of classified information. Further information on these procedures is available from the point of contact, § 1802.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.12" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.12   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>The challenge shall include identification of the challenger by full name and title of position, verification of security clearance or other basis of authority, and an identification of the documents or portions of documents or information at issue. The challenge shall also, in detailed and factual terms, identify and describe the reasons why it is believed that the information is not protected by one or more of the § 1.5 provisions, that the release of the information would not cause damage to the national security, or that the information should be declassified due to the passage of time. The challenge must be properly classified; in this regard, until the challenge is decided, the authorized holder must treat the challenge, the information being challenged, and any related or explanatory information as classified at the same level as the current classification of the information in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.13" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.13   Identification of material at issue.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized holders shall append the documents at issue and clearly mark those portions subject to the challenge. If information not in documentary form is in issue, the challenge shall state so clearly and present or otherwise refer with specificity to that information in the body of the challenge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.14" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.14   Transmission.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized holders must direct challenge requests to NACIC as specified in § 1802.3. The classified nature of the challenge, as well as the appended documents, require that the holder transmit same in full accordance with established security procedures. In general, registered U.S. mail is approved for SECRET, non-compartmented material; higher classifications require use of approved Top Secret facsimile machines or NACIC-approved couriers. Further information is available from NACIC as well as corporate or other federal agency security departments.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Action On Challenges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.21" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.21   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall within ten (10) days record each challenge received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the authorized holder, and task the originator and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within five (5) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.22" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.22   Challenges barred by res judicata.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall respond on behalf of the Director, NACIC and deny any challenge where the information in question has been the subject of a classification review within the previous two (2) years or is the subject of pending litigation in the federal courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.23" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.23   Response by originator(s) and/or any interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The originator of the classified information (document) is a required party to any challenge; other interested parties may become involved through the request of the Director, NACIC or the originator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination.</I> These parties shall respond in writing to the Director, NACIC with a mandatory unclassified finding, to the greatest extent possible, and an optional classified addendum. This finding shall agree to a declassification or, in specific and factual terms, explain the basis for continued classification including identification of the category of information, the harm to national security which could be expected to result from disclosure, and, if older than ten (10) years, the basis for the extension of classification time under §§ 1.6 and 3.4 of this Order. These parties shall also provide a statement as to whether or not there is any other statutory, common law, or Constitutional basis for withholding as required by § 6.1(c) of this Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time.</I> The determination(s) shall be provided on a first in, first out basis with respect to all challenges pending under this section and shall be accomplished expeditiously taking into account the requirements of the authorized holder as well as the business requirements of the originator including their responsibilities under the Freedom of Information Act, the Privacy Act, or the mandatory declassification review provisions of this Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.24" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.24   Designation of authority to hear challenges.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, NACIC is the NACIC authority to hear and decide challenges under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.25" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.25   Action on challenge.</HEAD>
<P>Action by Coordinator. The Coordinator shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the Director, NACIC; the complete package consisting of the challenge, the information at issue, and the findings of the originator and interested parties shall also be provided. The Director, NACIC shall personally decide each case; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Director, NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.26" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.3.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.26   Notification of decision and prohibition on adverse action.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall communicate the decision of NACIC to the authorized holder, the originator, and other interested parties within ten (10) days of the decision by the Coordinator. That correspondence shall include a notice that no adverse action or retribution can be taken in regard to the challenge and that an appeal of the decision may be made to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP) established pursuant to § 5.4 of this Order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Right of Appeal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1802.31" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.3.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1802.31   Right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>A right of appeal is available to the ISCAP established pursuant to § 5.4 of this Order. Action by that body will be the subject of rules to be promulgated by the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1803" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1803—PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR MANDATORY DECLASSIFICATION REVIEW OF CLASSIFIED INFORMATION PURSUANT TO SECTION 3.6 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 12958
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 3.6 of Executive Order 12958 (or successor Orders) and Section 102 of the National Security Act, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49890, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement § 3.6 of Executive Order (E.O.) 12958 (or successor Orders); and Section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes procedures, subject to limitations set forth below, for members of the public to request a declassification review of information classified under the various provisions of this or predecessor Orders. Section 3.6 of E.O. 12958 and these regulations do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States, its agencies, officers, or employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings as indicated:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the United States National Counterintelligence Center acting through the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days when NACIC is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any requirement of this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of NACIC pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the NACIC manager of the information review and release program instituted under the mandatory declassification review provisions of Executive Order 12958;
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f);
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form that is owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the United States Government; it does not include information originated by the incumbent President, White House Staff, appointed committees, commissions or boards, or any entities within the Executive Office that solely advise and assist the incumbent President;
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of NACIC, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>NARA</I> means the National Archives and Records Administration;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the NACIC officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a NACIC officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of this Order;
</P>
<P><I>Presidential libraries</I> means the libraries or collection authorities established by statute to house the papers of former Presidents Hoover, Roosevelt, Truman, Eisenhower, Kennedy, Johnson, Nixon, Ford, Carter, Reagan, Bush and similar institutions or authorities as may be established in the future;
</P>
<P><I>Referral</I> means coordination with or transfer of action to an interested party;
</P>
<P><I>This Order</I> means Executive Order 12958 of April 17, 1995 or successor Orders;


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part or to request a declassification review, please direct your communication to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, National Counterintelligence Center, 3W01 NHB, Washington, DC 20505. Such inquiries will also be accepted by facsimile at (703) 874-5844. For general or status information only, the telephone number is (703) 874-4121. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>NACIC welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the mandatory declassification review program established under Executive Order 12958. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. NACIC will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing of Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.11" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>Members of the public shall address all communications to the point of contact specified above and clearly delineate the communication as a request under this part. Requests and appeals on requests received from members of the public who owe outstanding fees for information services under this Order or the Freedom of Information Act at this or another federal agency will not be accepted until such debts are resolved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.12" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.12   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>The request shall identify the document(s) or material(s) with sufficient specificity (e.g., National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) Document Accession Number or other applicable, unique document identifying number) to enable NACIC to locate it with reasonable effort. Broad or topical requests for records on a particular subject may not be accepted under this provision. A request for documents contained in the various Presidential libraries shall be effected through the staff of such institutions who shall forward the document(s) in question for NACIC review. The requester shall also provide sufficient personal identifying information when required by NACIC to satisfy requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.13" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.13   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>Requests submitted via NARA or the various Presidential libraries shall be responsible for reproduction costs required by statute or regulation. Requests made directly to NACIC will be liable for costs in the same amount and under the same conditions as specified in part 1800 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—NACIC Action on MDR Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.21" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.21   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Information and Privacy Coordinator shall within ten (10) days record each mandatory declassification review request received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing (if received directly from a requester), and shall thereafter task the originator and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within ten (10) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.22" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.22   Requests barred by res judicata.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall respond to the requester and deny any request where the information in question has been the subject of a classification review within the previous two (2) years or is the subject of pending litigation in the federal courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.23" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.23   Determination by originator or interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The originator of the classified information (document) is a required party to any mandatory declassification review request; other interested parties may become involved through a referral by the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required determinations.</I> These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the classified status of the information including the category of protected information as set forth in § 1.5 of this Order, and, if older than ten (10) years, the basis for the extension of classification time under §§ 1.6 and 3.4 of this Order. These parties shall also provide a statement as to whether or not there is any other statutory, common law, or Constitutional basis for withholding as required by § 6.1(c) of this Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time.</I> This response shall be provided expeditiously on a first-in, first-out basis taking into account the business requirements of the originator or interested parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.24" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.3.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.24   Notification of decision and right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall communicate the decision of NACIC to the requester within ten (10) days of completion of all review action. That correspondence shall include a notice of a right of administrative appeal to the Director, NACIC pursuant to § 3.6(d) of this Order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—NACIC Action on MDR Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.31" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.31   Requirements as to time and form.</HEAD>
<P>Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within forty-five (45) days of the date of mailing of NACIC's initial decision. It shall identify with specificity the documents or information to be considered on appeal and it may, but need not, provide a factual or legal basis for the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.32" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.32   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall promptly record each appeal received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester, and task the originator and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within ten (10) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.33" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.33   Determination by NACIC Office Chiefs.</HEAD>
<P>Each NACIC Office Chief in charge of an office which originated or has an interest in any of the records subject to the appeal, or designee, is a required party to any appeal; other interested parties may become involved through the request of the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance. These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the classified status of the information including the category of protected information as set forth in § 1.5 of this Order, and, if older than ten (10) years, the basis for continued classification under §§ 1.6 and 3.4 of this Order. These parties shall also provide a statement as to whether or not there is any other statutory, common law, or Constitutional basis for withholding as required by § 6.1(c) of this Order. This response shall be provided expeditiously on a “first-in, first-out” basis taking into account the business requirements of the parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.34" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.34   Appeal authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, NACIC will make final NACIC decisions from appeals of initial denial decisions under E.O. 12958. Matters decided by the Director, NACIC will be deemed a final decision by NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.35" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.35   Action by appeals authority.</HEAD>
<P>Action by the Director, NACIC. The Coordinator shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the Director, NACIC; the complete record of the request consisting of the request, the document(s) (sanitized and full text) at issue, and the findings of the originator and interested parties. The Director, NACIC shall personally decide each case; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Director, NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.36" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.4.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.36   Notification of decision and right of further appeal.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall communicate the decision of the Director, NACIC to the requester, NARA, or the particular Presidential Library within ten (10) days of such decision. That correspondence shall include a notice that an appeal of the decision may be made to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP) established pursuant to § 5.4 of this Order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Further Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1803.41" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.4.5.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1803.41   Right of further appeal.</HEAD>
<P>A right of further appeal is available to the ISCAP established pursuant to § 5.4 of this Order. Action by that Panel will be the subject of rules to be promulgated by the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1804" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1804—ACCESS BY HISTORICAL RESEARCHERS AND FORMER PRESIDENTIAL APPOINTEES PURSUANT TO SECTION 4.5 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 12958
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 4.5 of Executive Order 12958 (or successor Orders) and Presidential Decision Directive/NSC 24 “U.S. Counterintelligence Effectiveness,” dated May 3, 1994.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49892, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement § 4.5 of Executive Order 12958 (or successor Orders); and Presidential Decision Directive/NSC 24, U.S. Counterintelligence Effectiveness, dated May 3, 1994.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This part prescribes procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Requesting access to NACIC records for purposes of historical research, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesting access to NACIC records as a former Presidential appointee.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4.5 of Executive Order 12958 and this part do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States, its agencies, officers, or employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the United States National Counterintelligence Center acting through the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days when NACIC is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any requirement of this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of NACIC pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the NACIC Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the NACIC manager of the historical access program established pursuant to Section 4.5 of this Order;
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f);
</P>
<P><I>Former Presidential appointee</I> means any person who has previously occupied a policy-making position in the executive branch of the United States Government to which they were appointed by the current or former President and confirmed by the United States Senate;
</P>
<P><I>Historian or historical researcher</I> means any individual with professional training in the academic field of history (or related fields such as journalism) engaged in a research project leading to publication (or any similar activity such as academic course development) reasonably intended to increase the understanding of the American public into the operations and activities of the United States government;
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form that is owned by, produced by or for, or is under the control of the United States Government;
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of NACIC, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the NACIC officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a NACIC officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of this Order;
</P>
<P><I>This Order</I> means Executive Order 12958 of April 17, 1995 or successor Orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about historical access to NACIC records, or to make a formal request for such access, please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Executive Secretariat, 3W01 NHB, National Counterintelligence Center, Washington, DC 20505. Inquiries will also be accepted by facsimile at (703) 874-5844. For general information only, the telephone number is (703) 874-4121. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>NACIC welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the historical access program established pursuant to Executive Order 12958. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. NACIC will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requests for Historical Access</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.11" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.11   Requirements as to who may apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Historical researchers:</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Any historian engaged in a historical research project as defined above may submit a request in writing to the Coordinator to be given access to classified information for purposes of that research. Any such request shall indicate the nature, purpose, and scope of the research project.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional considerations.</I> In light of the very limited resources for NACIC's various historical programs, it is the policy of NACIC to consider applications for historical research privileges only in those instances where the researcher's needs cannot be satisfied through requests for access to reasonably described records under the Freedom of Information Act or the mandatory declassification review provisions of Executive Order 12958 and where issues of internal resource availability and fairness to all members of the historical research community militate in favor of a particular grant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Former Presidential appointees.</I> Any former Presidential appointee as defined herein may also submit a request to be given access to any classified records which they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity. Such appointees may also request approval for a research associate but there is no entitlement to such enlargement of access and the decision in this regard shall be in the sole discretion of NACIC. Requests from appointees shall be in writing to the Coordinator and shall identify the records of interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.12" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.12   Designations of authority to hear requests.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, NACIC has designated the Coordinator, as the NACIC authority to decide requests for historical and former Presidential appointee access under Executive Order 12958 (or successor Orders) and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.13" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.13   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Information and Privacy Coordinator shall within ten (10) days record each request for historical access received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing and take the following action:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance with general requirements.</I> The Coordinator shall review each request under this part and determine whether it meets the general requirements as set forth in § 1804.11; if it does not, the Coordinator shall so notify the requester and explain the legal basis for this decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on requests meeting general requirements.</I> For requests which meet the requirements of § 1804.11, the Coordinator shall thereafter task the originator(s) of the materials for which access is sought and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within ten (10) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.14" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.14   Determinations by tasked officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required determinations.</I> The tasked parties as specified below shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with recommended findings to the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) That a serious professional or scholarly research project by the requester is contemplated;
</P>
<P>(2) That such access is clearly consistent with the interests of national security (by originator and interested party, if any);
</P>
<P>(3) That a non-disclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester (or research associate, if any) and other appropriate steps have been taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
</P>
<P>(4) That a pre-publication agreement has been or will be executed by the requester (or research associate, if any) which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript by the Deputy Director of NACIC;
</P>
<P>(5) That the information requested is reasonably accessible and can be located and compiled with a reasonable effort (by the Deputy Director of NACIC and the originator);
</P>
<P>(6) That it is reasonably expected that substantial and substantive government documents and/or information will be amenable to declassification and release and/or publication (by the Deputy Director of NACIC and the originator);
</P>
<P>(7) That sufficient resources are available for the administrative support of the researcher given current mission requirements (by the Deputy Director of NACIC and the originator); and,
</P>
<P>(8) That the request cannot be satisfied to the same extent through requests for access to reasonably described records under the Freedom of Information Act or the mandatory declassification review provisions of Executive Order 12958 (by the Coordinator, the Deputy Director of NACIC and the originator).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time.</I> These responses shall be provided expeditiously on a first-in, first-out basis taking into account the business requirements of the tasked offices and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act. NACIC will utilize its best efforts to complete action on requests under this part within thirty (30) days of date of receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.15" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.15   Action by hearing authority.</HEAD>
<P>Action by Coordinator. The Coordinator shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the Director, NACIC, the complete record of the request consisting of the request and the findings of the tasked parties. The Director, NACIC shall decide requests on the basis of the eight factors enumerated at § 1804.14(a). The Director, NACIC shall personally decide each case; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Director, NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.16" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.16   Action by appeal authority.</HEAD>
<P>The record compiled (the request, the memoranda filed by the originator and interested parties, and the previous decision(s)) as well as any memorandum of law or policy the referent desires to be considered, shall be certified by the Coordinator and shall constitute the official record of the proceedings and must be included in any subsequent filings. In such cases, the factors to be determined as specified in § 1804.14(a) will be considered by the Director, NACIC de novo and that decision shall be final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.17" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.17   Notification of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall inform the requester of the decision of the Director, NACIC within ten (10) days of the decision and, if favorable, shall manage the access for such period as deemed required but in no event for more than two (2) years unless renewed by the Director, NACIC in accordance with the requirements of § 1804.14(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1804.18" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.5.2.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1804.18   Termination of access.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall cancel any authorization whenever the security clearance of a requester (or research associate, if any) has been canceled or whenever the Director, NACIC determines that continued access would not be in compliance with one or more of the requirements of § 1804.14(a).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1805" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1805—PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS OR DISCLOSURE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION IN PROCEEDINGS BEFORE FEDERAL, STATE OR LOCAL GOVERNMENT ENTITIES OF COMPETENT JURISDICTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 104; Presidential Decision Directive/NSC 24 “U.S. Counterintelligence Effectiveness, dated May 3, 1994; 50 U.S.C. 403g; United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951); E.O. 12333; E.O. 12356; U.S. v. Snepp 444 U.S. 507 (1980).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49894, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1805.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.6.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policy and procedures with respect to the production or disclosure of:
</P>
<P>(a) Material contained in the files of NACIC,
</P>
<P>(b) Information relating to or based upon material contained in the files of NACIC,
</P>
<P>(c) Information acquired by any person while such person is an employee of NACIC as part of the performance of that person's official duties or because of that person's association with NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.6.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the National Counterintelligence Center and includes all staff elements of the NACIC.
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I> means any subpoena, order or other legal summons (except garnishment orders) that is issued by a federal, state or local government entity of competent jurisdiction with the authority to require a response on a particular matter, or a request for appearance of an individual where a demand could issue.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any officer, any staff, contract or other employee of NACIC, any person including independent contractors associated with or acting on behalf of NACIC; and any person formerly having such relationships with NACIC.
</P>
<P><I>Production or produce</I> means the disclosure of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any material contained in the files of NACIC; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any information relating to material contained in the files of NACIC, including but not limited to summaries of such information or material, or opinions based on such information or material; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any information acquired by persons while such persons were employees of NACIC as a part of the performance of their official duties or because of their official status or association with NACIC; in response to a demand upon an employee of NACIC.
</P>
<P><I>NACIC Counsel</I> is the NACIC employee designated to manage legal matters and regulatory compliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.6.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.3   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employee shall produce any materials or information in response to a demand without prior authorization as set forth in this part. This part also applies to former employees to the extent consistent with applicable non-disclosure agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended only to provide procedures for responding to demands for production of documents or information, and is not intended to, does not, and may not be relied upon to, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by any party against the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.6.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.4   Procedure for production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a demand for production is made upon an employee, the employee shall immediately notify NACIC Counsel, who will follow the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) NACIC Counsel and the Office Chiefs with responsibility for the information sought in the demand shall determine whether any information or materials may properly be produced in response to the demand, except that NACIC Counsel may assert any and all legal defenses and objections to the demand available to NACIC prior to the start of any search for information responsive to the demand. NACIC may, in its sole discretion, decline to begin any search for information responsive to the demand until a final and non-appealable disposition of any such defenses and objections raised by NACIC has been made by the entity or person that issued the demand.
</P>
<P>(c) NACIC officials shall consider the following factors, among others, in reaching a decision:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether production is appropriate in light of any relevant privilege;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether production is appropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the procedures governing the case or matter in which the demand arose; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure would violate a statute, including but not limited to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure would reveal classified information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure would improperly reveal trade secrets or proprietary confidential information without the owner's consent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure would interfere with the orderly conduct of NACIC's functions.
</P>
<P>(d) If oral or written testimony is sought by a demand in a case or matter in which the NACIC is not a party, a reasonably detailed description of the testimony sought, in the form of an affidavit or, if that is not feasible, a written statement, by the party seeking the testimony or by the party's attorney must be furnished to the NACIC Counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) The NACIC Counsel shall be responsible for notifying the appropriate employees and other persons of all decisions regarding responses to demands and providing advice and counsel as to the implementation of such decisions.
</P>
<P>(f) If response to a demand is required before a decision is made whether to provide the documents or information sought by the demand, NACIC Counsel, after consultation with the Department of Justice, shall appear before and furnish the court or other competent authority with a copy of this part and state that the demand has been or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate NACIC officials, and shall respectfully request the court or other authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the required instructions.
</P>
<P>(g) If the court or any other authority declines to stay the demand pending receipt of instructions in response to a request made in accordance with § 1805.4(g) or rules that the demand must be complied with regardless of instructions rendered in accordance with this part not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee upon whom the demand has been made shall, if so directed by NACIC Counsel, respectfully decline to comply with the demand under the authority of <I>United States ex. rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951), and this part.
</P>
<P>(h) With respect to any function granted to NACIC officials in this part, such officials are authorized to delegate in writing their authority in any case or matter or category thereof to subordinate officials.
</P>
<P>(i) Any non-employee who receives a demand for the production or disclosure of NACIC information acquired because of that person's association or contacts with NACIC should notify NACIC Counsel, (703) 874-4121, for guidance and assistance. In such cases, the provisions of this part shall be applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1806" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1806—PROCEDURES GOVERNING ACCEPTANCE OF SERVICE OF PROCESS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 104; Presidential Decision Directive/NSC 24 “U.S. Counterintelligence Effectiveness”, dated May 3, 1994; 50 U.S.C. 403g; E.O. 12333.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49895, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1806.1" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the authority of NACIC personnel to accept service of process on behalf of the NACIC or any NACIC employee.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended to ensure the orderly execution of the NACIC's affairs and not to impede any legal proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) NACIC regulations concerning employee responses to demands for production of official information before federal, state or local government entities are set out in part 1805 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.2" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>NACIC</I> means the National Counterintelligence Center and include all staff elements of NACIC.
</P>
<P><I>Process</I> means a summons complaint, subpoena, or other official paper (except garnishment orders) issued in conjunction with a proceeding or hearing being conducted by a federal, state, or local government entity of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any NACIC officer, any staff, contract, or other employee of NACIC, any person including independent contractors associated with or acting for or on behalf of NACIC, and any person formerly having such a relationship with NACIC.
</P>
<P><I>NACIC Counsel</I> refers to the NACIC employee designated by NACIC to manage legal issues and regulatory compliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.3" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.3   Procedures governing acceptance of service of process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of Process Upon the NACIC or a NACIC Employee in an Official Capacity</I>—(1) <I>Personal Service.</I> Unless otherwise expressly authorized by NACIC Counsel, or designee, personal service of process may be accepted only by NACIC Counsel, Director, NACIC, or Deputy Director, NACIC, located at Central Intelligence Agency Headquarters, Langley, Virginia.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mail Service.</I> Where service of process by registered or certified mail is authorized by law, unless expressly directed otherwise by the NACIC Counsel or designee, personal service of process may be accepted only by NACIC Counsel, Director, NACIC, or Deputy Director, NACIC. Process by mail should be addressed as follows: NACIC Counsel, National Counterintelligence Center, Washington, DC 20505.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of Process Upon a NACIC Employee Solely in An Individual Capacity</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> NACIC will not provide the name or address of any current or former NACIC employee to individuals or entities seeking to serve process upon such employee solely in his or her individual capacity, even when the matter is related to NACIC activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal Service.</I> Subject to the sole discretion of appropriate officials of the CIA, where NACIC is physically located, process servers generally will not be allowed to enter CIA Headquarters for the purpose of serving process upon any NACIC employee solely in his or her individual capacity. Subject to the sole discretion of the Director, NACIC, process servers will generally not be permitted to enter NACIC office space for the purpose of serving process upon a NACIC employee solely in his or her individual capacity. The NACIC Counsel, the Director, NACIC, and the Deputy Director, NACIC are not permitted to accept service of process on behalf of a NACIC employee in his or her individual capacity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mail Service.</I> Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the NACIC Counsel, or designee, NACIC personnel are not authorized to accept or forward mailed service of process directed to any NACIC employee in his or her individual capacity. Any such process will be returned to the sender via appropriate postal channels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of Process Upon a NACIC Employee in a Combined Official and Individual Capacity</I>—Unless expressly directed otherwise by the NACIC Counsel, or designee, any process to be served upon a NACIC employee in his or her combined official and individual capacity, in person or by mail, can be accepted only by NACIC Counsel, Director, NACIC, or Deputy Director, NACIC, National Counterintelligence Center, Langley, Virginia.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service of Process Upon a NACIC Counsel.</I> The documents for which service is accepted in official capacity only shall be stamped “Service Accepted in Official Capacity Only.” Acceptance of Service of Process shall not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to jurisdiction, propriety of service, improper venue, or any other defense in law or equity available under the laws or rules applicable to the service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.4" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.4   Notification to NACIC Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>A NACIC employee who receives or has reason to expect to receive service of process in an individual, official, or combined individual and official capacity, in a matter that may involve or the furnishing of documents and that could reasonably be expected to involve NACIC interests, shall promptly notify the NACIC Counsel. Such notification should be given prior to providing the requestor, personal counsel or any other representative, any NACIC information and prior to the acceptance of service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.5" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.7.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.5   Authority of NACIC Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any questions concerning interpretation of this part shall be referred to the NACIC Counsel for resolution


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1807" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1807—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE NATIONAL COUNTERINTELLIGENCE CENTER
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 104, Presidential Decision Directive/NSC 24 U.S. Counterintelligence Effectiveness, dated May 3, 1994, 29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 49896, Sept. 14, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1807.101" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.102" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.103" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms means—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the NACIC. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, materials in Braille, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. The CIA, where NACIC is physically located, may prohibit from any of its facilities any auxiliary aid, or category of auxiliary aid that the Center for CIA Security (CCS) determines creates a security risk or potential security risk. CCS reserves the right to examine any auxiliary aid brought into the NACIC facilities at CIA Headquarters.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the NACIC's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the NACIC of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It must be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties must describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of NACIC or an official or employee of the NACIC acting for the Director under a delegation of authority.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with disabilities</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase—
</P>
<P>(1) Physical or mental impairment includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Cardiovascular; Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term physical or mental impairment includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, drug addiction, and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) Major life activities includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Is regarded as having an impairment means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the NACIC as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward the impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the NACIC as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with disabilities</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any NACIC program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a handicap who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the NACIC can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other NACIC program or activity, an individual with disabilities who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Qualified individual with a disability as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1614.203(a)(6), which is made applicable to this part by § 1807.140.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-002, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by the NACIC and not to federally assisted programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.104-1807.110" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.104-1807.110   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.111" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The NACIC shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons, such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the NACIC, and make that information available to them in such manner as the Director finds necessary to apprise those persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.112-1807.129" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.112-1807.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.130" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with disabilities shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity conducted by the NACIC.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The NACIC, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities an opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with disabilities with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless that action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with disabilities in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The NACIC may not deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The NACIC may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would:
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The NACIC may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would:
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under, any program or activity conducted by the NACIC; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) The NACIC, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(6) The NACIC may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the NACIC establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the NACIC are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of persons without disabilities from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The NACIC shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.131-1807.139" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.131-1807.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.140" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with disabilities shall, solely on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the NACIC. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1979 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.141-1807.148" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.141-1807.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.149" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.149   Program accessibility: discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1807.150, no qualified individual with disabilities shall, because the NACIC's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the NACIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.150" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.150   Program accessibility: existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The NACIC shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This program does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the NACIC to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Require the NACIC to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.
</P>
<P>(ii) The NACIC has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1807.150(a) would result in that alteration or those burdens.
</P>
<P>(iii) The decision that compliance would result in that alteration of those burdens must be made by the Director after considering all of the NACIC's resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an action would result in that alteration or those burdens, the NACIC shall take any other action that would not result in the alteration of burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> (1) The NACIC may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The NACIC is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities if other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the NACIC shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.151" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.151   Program accessibility: new construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of, the NACIC shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities in compliance with the definitions, requirements, and standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines, 36 CFR part 1191.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.152-1807.159" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.152-1807.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.160" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NACIC shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The NACIC shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids if necessary to afford an individual with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the NACIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the NACIC shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the NACIC communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The NACIC shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not require the NACIC to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where NACIC personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the NACIC has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1807.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the NACIC head or his or her designee after considering all NACIC resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the NACIC shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.161-1807.169" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.161-1807.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.170" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.8.0.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the NACIC.
</P>
<P>(b) The NACIC shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity, is responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to NACIC, Director, Washington, DC 20505.
</P>
<P>(d) The NACIC shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The NACIC may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the NACIC receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The NACIC shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, The NACIC shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing:
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the NACIC of the letter required by paragraph (g) of this section. The NACIC may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(j) The NACIC shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the NACIC determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it receives the additional information to make its determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The Director may delegate the authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1808-1899" NODE="32:6.2.4.17.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1808-1899 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XIX" NODE="32:6.2.5" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XIX—CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1900" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1900—PUBLIC ACCESS TO CIA RECORDS UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT (FOIA)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 50 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 3141; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373, 3 CFR, 2005 Comp., p. 216; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR, 2009 Comp., p. 298.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 23341, Apr. 17, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="8" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.01" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.01   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended (5 U.S.C. 552); and in accordance with the CIA Information Act of 1984 (50 U.S.C. 3141); section 102A(i) of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 3024(i)); and section 6 of the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, as amended (50 U.S.C. 3507). It contains procedures that CIA follows in processing requests for records submitted under the FOIA. The procedures in this part should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB Fee Guidelines).
</P>
<P>(b) Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) are processed in accordance with CIA's Privacy Act regulations, set forth at 32 CFR part 1901, as well as under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Other than as expressly provided in this part, this part creates no right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.02" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>CIA</I> means the United States Central Intelligence Agency acting through the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency Release Panel (ARP)</I> means the Agency's forum for reviewing information review and release policy, assessing the adequacy of resources available to all Agency declassification and release programs, and considering administrative appeals in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days</I> means calendar days when the Agency is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) business days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) business days may be added if responding by international mail.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief FOIA Officer</I> means the senior CIA official, at the CIA's equivalent of the Assistant Secretary level, who has been designated by the Director of the CIA (DCIA) to have Agency-wide responsibility for the CIA's efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator</I> or <I>Coordinator</I> means the official who serves as the Agency manager of information review and release activities implementing the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures that CIA actually incurs in the processing of a FOIA request; it does not include overhead factors such as space; it does include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pages,</I> which means paper copies of standard office size or the dollar value equivalent in other media;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication,</I> which means generation of a copy of a requested record in a form appropriate for release;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review,</I> which means all time expended in preparing a record for release, including examining a record to determine whether any portion must be withheld pursuant to law and in effecting any necessary deletions but excludes personnel hours expended in resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Search,</I> which means all time expended in looking for and retrieving material that may be responsive to a request utilizing available paper and electronic indices and finding aids, including time spent determining whether records located during a search are responsive to the request.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fees</I> means those direct costs which a requester may be assessed considering the categories established by the FOIA; the fee categories include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use.</I> Requests in which the disclosure sought is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester and which furthers such commercial, trade, income or profit interests, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational or non-commercial scientific institution, or a representative of the news media</I>—(i) <I>Educational or non-commercial scientific institution.</I> Requests made under the auspices of an accredited United States institution engaged in scholarly or scientific research and which are for information not for commercial use, but rather intended to be used in specific scholarly or scientific works.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Representative of the news media.</I> Requests from any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large, and individual or corporate publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. “Freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would be the clearest proof that publication is expected, but the Agency may also look to the past publication record of a requestor in making this determination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>All other.</I> Requests not described in paragraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> means the CIA supervisory official(s) who shall assist in the resolution of any disputes between a FOIA requester and the Agency and to whom a FOIA requester may direct a concern regarding the service he or she has received from CIA and who shall respond on behalf of the Agency as prescribed in this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FOIA Requester Service Center</I> means the office within the CIA where a FOIA requester may direct inquiries regarding the status of a FOIA request he or she filed at the CIA, requests for guidance on narrowing or further defining the nature of scope of his or her FOIA request, and requests for general information about the FOIA program at the CIA.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.03" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.03   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the public seeking to file a FOIA request or an administrative appeal must direct a written request or appeal via mail to: Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505, or online at: <I>https://www.foia.cia.gov/foia_request/form,</I> in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Requesters may view the status of pending FOIA requests at <I>https://www.cia.gov/readingroom/request/status.</I> In addition, inquiries regarding the status of a FOIA request, obtaining guidance on narrowing or further defining the nature or scope of a FOIA request, or obtaining general information about the FOIA program at CIA, may be directed to the CIA FOIA Requester Service Center, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505, via facsimile at (703) 613-3007, or via telephone at (703) 613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted.
</P>
<P>(c) Concerns, suggestions, comments, or complaints regarding the service received from CIA or regarding the Agency's general administration of the FOIA may be directed to the FOIA Public Liaison, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505, via facsimile at 703-613-3007, or via telephone at 703-613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.04" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.04   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The CIA remains committed to administering a results-oriented and citizen-centered FOIA program, to processing requests in an efficient, timely and appropriate manner, and to working with requesters and the public to continuously improve Agency FOIA operations. The Agency welcomes suggestions, comments, or complaints regarding its administration of the FOIA. Members of the public shall address all such communications to the FOIA Public Liaison as specified at § 1900.03(c). The Agency may respond as determined feasible and appropriate under the circumstances. Requesters seeking to raise concerns about the service received from the CIA FOIA Requester Service Center may contact the FOIA Public Liaison after receiving an initial response from the CIA FOIA Requester Service Center. The FOIA Public Liaison shall be responsible for assisting in reducing delays and assisting in the resolution of disputes between a FOIA requester and the Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Filing of FOIA Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Members of the public shall address all communications to the CIA Coordinator as specified at § 1900.03. Any requests for access to records which are not directed to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, in accordance with the requirements set forth in §§ 1900.03 and 1900.12, shall not be considered proper FOIA requests.
</P>
<P>(b) The CIA shall not process a request for records under the FOIA or an appeal of an adverse determination regarding a FOIA request submitted by a member of the public who owes outstanding fees for information services at this or other Federal agencies and will terminate the processing of any pending requests submitted by such persons to the CIA.
</P>
<P>(c) The CIA shall not accept requests for records under the FOIA submitted by any government entity, other than a State, territory, commonwealth, or district of the United States, or any subdivision thereof, or from any representative of such a government entity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.12   Requirements as to form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> (1) Requests must reasonably describe the records of interest sought by the requester, as set forth at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3). This means that documents must be described sufficiently so that Agency professionals who are familiar with the subject area of the request are able, with a reasonable effort, to determine which particular records are within the scope of the request. In order to assist CIA in identifying the specific records sought, all requesters are encouraged to be as specific as possible in describing the records they are seeking by including, for example, the relevant date or date range, the title of the record, the type of record (such as memorandum or report), the specific event or action to which the record refers, and the subject matter. Requests for electronic communications should attempt to specify a sender, recipient, date range, and subject or keyword. Extremely broad or vague requests or requests requiring research do not satisfy the requirement that a request be “reasonably described.”
</P>
<P>(2) Requesters must provide a physical mailing address or email address where CIA can send a response or other correspondence related to the request.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to provide the required information in this section may result in a delay or declination in processing the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements as to identification of requester.</I> (1) Individuals seeking access to records concerning themselves shall provide their full (legal) name, address, date and place of birth together with a signed statement that such information is true under penalty of perjury or a notarized statement swearing to or affirming identity. If the Agency determines that this information is not sufficient, the Agency may request additional or clarifying information.
</P>
<P>(2) Attorneys or other individuals retained to represent a requester shall provide evidence of such representation by submission of a representational agreement or other document which establishes the relationship with the requester.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to provide the required information in this section may result in a delay or declination in processing the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information for fee determination.</I> A requester should provide sufficient information to allow the Agency to determine the appropriate fee category for the request and the Agency may draw reasonable inferences from the identity and activities of the requester in making such a determination. A requester should also provide an agreement to pay all applicable fees or fees not to exceed a certain amount or request a fee waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional communication with requester.</I> Although the Agency is not required to answer questions, create records, or perform research in response to a FOIA request, when the request lacks sufficient clarity to allow the records to be located with a reasonable effort, the Agency will provide the requester with an opportunity to narrow or further define the nature or scope of the request. Additionally, individuals may contact the CIA FOIA Requester Service Center for the purpose of obtaining recommendations as to how to frame or narrow a particular request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.13   Fees for record services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Search, review, and duplication fees will be charged in accordance with the provisions in paragraphs (b) through (j) of this section relating to schedule, limitations, and category of requester. Applicable fees will be due even if our search locates no responsive records or some or all of the responsive records must be denied under one or more of the exemptions of the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee waiver requests.</I> Records will be furnished without charge or at a reduced rate whenever the Agency determines:
</P>
<P>(1) That, as a matter of administrative discretion, the interest of the United States Government would be served; or
</P>
<P>(2) That it is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of the operations or activities of the United States Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee waiver appeals.</I> Denials of requests for fee waivers or reductions may be appealed to the Chair of the Agency Release Panel via the Coordinator. A requester is encouraged to provide any explanation or argument as to how his or her request satisfies the statutory requirement set forth in § 1900.01.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for fee waiver requests and appeals.</I> Fee waiver requests and appeals must be directed to the Coordinator in accordance with §§ 1900.03 and 1900.11. It is suggested that such requests and appeals be made and resolved prior to the initiation of processing and the incurring of costs. However, fee waiver requests will be accepted at any time prior to the release of documents or the completion of a case, and fee waiver appeals within forty-five (45) business days of our initial decision subject to the following condition: If processing has been initiated, then the requester must agree to be responsible for costs in the event of an adverse administrative or judicial decision. When making fee waiver requests or appeals, no particular format is required other than a statement of the basis for the request or appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> In order to protect requesters from large and/or unanticipated charges, the Agency will request a specific commitment from the requester to pay applicable fees when the Agency estimates that fees will exceed $25.00. The Agency will toll for forty-five (45) business days requests requiring such agreement and will thereafter deem the request closed in the absence of a response from the requester. This action, of course, would not prevent a requester from refiling the FOIA request with a fee commitment at a subsequent date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deposits.</I> The Agency may require an advance deposit of up to 100 percent of the estimated fees when fees may exceed $250.00 and the requester has no history of payment, or when, for fees of any amount, there is evidence that the requester previously failed to pay fees in a timely fashion. The Agency will toll for forty-five (45) business days those requests where deposits have been requested and will thereafter deem the request closed in the absence of a response from the requester.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Schedule of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The schedule of fees for services performed in responding to requests for records is established as follows:
</P>
<HD1>Table 1 to Paragraph (g)(1)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17ap23.010.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Application of schedule.</I> Personnel search time includes time expended in either manual paper records searches, indices searches, review of computer search results for relevance, personal computer system searches, and various duplication services. In any event where the actual cost to the Agency of a particular item is less than listed in the schedule in table 1 to paragraph (g)(1) of this section (<I>e.g.,</I> a large production run of a document resulted in a cost less than $5.00 per hundred pages), then the actual lesser cost will be charged. Items published and available at the National Technical Information Service (NTIS) may also be available from CIA pursuant to this part at the NTIS price as authorized by statute.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other services.</I> For all other types of output, production, or duplication (<I>e.g.,</I> photographs, maps, or published reports), actual cost or amounts authorized by statute will be charged. Determinations of actual cost shall include the commercial cost of the media, the personnel time expended in making the item to be released, and an allocated cost of the equipment used in making the item, or, if the production is effected by a commercial service, then that charge shall be deemed the actual cost for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, CIA shall assess fees as follows unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use requesters.</I> Charges which recover the full direct costs related to search, review, and duplication of responsive records (if any);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational or non-commercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media.</I> Charges for duplication of responsive records (if any) beyond the first 100 pages; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>All other requesters.</I> Charges which recover the full direct costs related to search and duplication of responsive records (if any) beyond the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limitations on collection of fees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> No fees will be charged if the cost of collecting the fee is equal to or greater than the fee itself. That cost includes the administrative costs to the Agency of billing, receiving, recording, and processing the fee for deposit to the Treasury Department and, as of April 17, 2023, is deemed to be $25.00.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests for personal information.</I> No fees will be charged for U.S. citizens or lawful permanent residents seeking records about themselves under the Privacy Act; such requests are processed in accordance with both the FOIA and the Privacy Act in order to ensure the maximum disclosure without charge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Untimely response.</I> If CIA fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits for responding to a request, CIA will not charge search fees or, in the case of requesters in the educational or non-commercial scientific institutions or representatives of the news media category, duplication fees, except as set forth in paragraph (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special circumstances.</I> (i) If CIA determines that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and the Agency has provided timely written notice to the requester, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused an additional ten (10) business days.
</P>
<P>(ii) If CIA determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Agency may charge search fees or, in the case of requesters in the educational or non-commercial scientific institutions or representatives of the news media category, duplication fees if the Agency has provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and has discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with the requirements of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, CIA may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a court determines that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined in the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C), a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Associated requests.</I> A requester or associated requesters may not file a series of multiple requests, which are merely discrete subdivisions of the information actually sought for the purpose of avoiding or reducing applicable fees. In such instances, the Agency may aggregate the requests and charge the applicable fees.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.14   Fee estimates (pre-request option).</HEAD>
<P>In order to avoid unanticipated or potentially large fees, a requester may submit a request for a fee estimate. The Agency will endeavor within twenty (20) business days to provide an accurate estimate, and, if a request is thereafter submitted, the Agency will not accrue or charge fees in excess of our estimate without the specific permission of the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>CIA Action on FOIA Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.21" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.21   Processing of requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Requests meeting the requirements of §§ 1900.11 through 1900.13 shall be considered proper FOIA requests and will be processed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, this part, and in accordance with any other applicable statutes. Upon receipt, the Agency shall within ten (10) business days record each request, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the CIA components reasonably believed to hold responsive records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Previously-released records.</I> As an alternative to extensive tasking, search, and review, some requesters may wish to consider limiting the scope of their requests to previously released records. Searches of such records can often be accomplished expeditiously. Moreover, requests for such records that are specific and well-focused will often incur minimal, if any, costs. Requesters interested in limiting their requests to previously released Agency information, in lieu of traditional processing of a FOIA request, should so indicate in their correspondence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> In processing a request, the Agency shall decline to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of any responsive records whenever the mere fact of their existence or nonexistence is itself classified under Executive Order 13526 (or successor orders), or revealing of intelligence sources and methods protected pursuant to section 102A(i)(1) of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended. In such circumstances, the Agency, in the form of a final written response, shall so inform the requester and advise the requester of the right to an administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for response.</I> The Agency will make every effort to respond to a proper FOIA request within the statutory 20-business day time period after receipt of the request. However, the Agency may seek additional time from a requester in accordance with § 1900.33.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.22" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.22   Action and determination(s) by originator(s) or any interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial action for access.</I> (1) CIA components tasked pursuant to a FOIA request shall conduct a reasonable search of all relevant record systems within their areas of responsibility which have not been exempted from search, review, and disclosure under the FOIA by the CIA Information Act of 1984 and which are reasonably likely to contain records responsive to the request. They shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether any responsive records exist;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine whether, and to what extent, any FOIA exemptions, as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(b), apply to the responsive records;
</P>
<P>(iii) Review the exempt records to determine whether they contain any reasonably segregable, non-exempt material;
</P>
<P>(iv) Approve the disclosure of all non-exempt records, or portions of records, within their areas of responsibility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Forward to the Coordinator all records approved for release or necessary for coordination with or referral to another component or interested party.
</P>
<P>(2) In making the decisions discussed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the CIA component officers shall be guided by the applicable law as well as the procedures specified at §§ 1900.31 and 1900.32 regarding confidential commercial or financial information and personal information (about persons other than the requester).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referrals and coordinations.</I> As applicable, any CIA records containing information originated by other CIA components shall be forwarded to those entities for appropriate action in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. Records originated by other Federal agencies or CIA records containing other Federal agency information shall be forwarded to such agencies for appropriate action in accordance with the applicable procedures of each agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.23" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.10.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.23   Payment of fees, notification of decision, and right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees in general.</I> Fees collected under this part do not accrue to the Central Intelligence Agency and shall be deposited immediately to the general account of the United States Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of decision.</I> Upon completion of all required review and the receipt of accrued fees (or promise to pay such fees), the Agency will promptly inform the requester of its determination regarding the request. With respect to any records that the Agency determines may be released, the Agency will provide copies. For any records or portions of records that the Agency determines must be denied, the Agency shall explain the reasons for the denial, identify the person(s) responsible for such decisions by name and title, and give notice of a right of administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of reading room.</I> As an alternative to receiving records by mail, a requester may arrange to inspect the records deemed releasable at a CIA “reading room” in the metropolitan Washington, DC, area. Access will be granted after applicable and accrued fees have been paid. All such requests shall be in writing and addressed pursuant to § 1900.03. The records will be available at such times as mutually agreed but not less than three (3) business days from our receipt of a request. The requester will be responsible for duplication charges for any copies of records desired. The Agency has an electronic FOIA reading room on its website, located at <I>www.cia.gov/readingroom,</I> which contains records that the Agency has previously publicly released under FOIA as well as under other information review and release activities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Administrative Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.31" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.31   Procedures for business information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information obtained by the Central Intelligence Agency from a submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request except in accordance with this section. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Business information</I> means confidential commercial or financial information obtained by the United States Government from a submitter that is reasonably believed to contain information exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity who provides confidential commercial information to the United States Government; it includes, but is not limited to, corporations, businesses (however organized), state governments, and foreign governments. This term does not include any other Federal Government entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial or financial information.</I> A submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be confidential commercial or financial information and hence protected from required disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). Such designations shall expire ten (10) years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process in event of FOIA request</I>—(1) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> The Agency shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of receipt of a Freedom of Information Act request encompassing business information if, after reviewing the request, the responsive records, and, if applicable, any appeal by the requester, the Agency determines that it may be required to release the records, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The submitter has in good faith designated the information as confidential commercial or financial information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Agency believes the information may be exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b), but is unable to make that determination without additional information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The information was submitted within the last ten (10) years unless the submitter requested and provided acceptable justification for a specific notice period of greater duration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of notice.</I> This notice shall either describe the exact nature of the confidential commercial or financial information at issue or provide copies of the responsive records containing such information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response by submitter.</I> (i) The Agency shall specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must respond to the notice described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with a detailed statement identifying any claims of confidentiality, supported by a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Specify that the information has not been disclosed to the public;
</P>
<P>(B) Explain why the information is contended to be a trade secret or confidential commercial information;
</P>
<P>(C) Explain how the information is capable of competitive damage if disclosed;
</P>
<P>(D) State that the submitter will provide the Agency and the Department of Justice with such litigation defense as requested; and
</P>
<P>(E) Be certified by an officer authorized to legally bind the corporation or similar entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) It should be noted that information provided by a submitter pursuant to this provision may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(iii) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice shall be considered to have no objections to disclosure of the business information identified therein.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision and notice of intent to disclose.</I> (i) The Agency shall consider carefully a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to its final determination. If the Agency determines that if must disclose the requested records, notwithstanding the submitter's objections, the Agency shall provide the submitter a written notice which shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(C) A specified disclosure date which is seven (7) business days after the date of the instant notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) When notice is given to a submitter under this section, the Agency shall also notify the requester and, if the Agency notifies a submitter that it intends to disclose information, then the requester shall be notified also and given the proposed date for disclosure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> If a requester initiates a civil action seeking to compel disclosure of information asserted to be within the scope of this section, the Agency shall promptly notify the submitter. The submitter, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, shall provide such litigation assistance as required by the Agency and the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exceptions to notice requirement.</I> The notice requirements of this section shall not apply if the Agency determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The information should not be disclosed in light of other FOIA exemptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information has been published lawfully or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure of the information is otherwise required by law or Federal regulation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The designation made by the submitter under this section appears frivolous, except that, in such a case, the Agency will, within a reasonable time prior to the specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.32" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.32   Procedures for information concerning other persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personal information concerning individuals other than the requester shall not be disclosed in response to a FOIA request if, as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6), the release of such information would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. <I>Personal information</I> is any information about an individual that is not a matter of public record, or easily discernible to the public, or protected from disclosure because of the implications that arise from Government possession of such information. <I>Public interest</I> means the public interest in understanding the operations and activities of the United States Government and not simply any matter which might be of general interest to the requester or members of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) In making the required determination under this section and pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6), the Agency will balance the privacy interests that would be compromised by disclosure against the public interest in release of the requested information.
</P>
<P>(c) A requester seeking information on a third party is encouraged to provide a signed affidavit or declaration from the third party waiving all or some of their privacy rights, or to submit proof that the third party is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate, a published obituary, etc.). Third-party waivers shall be narrowly construed and the Coordinator, in the exercise of the Coordinator's discretion and administrative authority, may seek clarification from the third party prior to any or all releases.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.33" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.33   Allocation of resources; agreed extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Agency components shall devote such personnel and other resources to the responsibilities imposed by the Freedom of Information Act as may be appropriate and reasonable considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The totality of resources available to the component;
</P>
<P>(2) The business demands imposed on the component by the DCIA or otherwise by law;
</P>
<P>(3) The information review and release demands imposed by the Congress or other governmental authority; and
</P>
<P>(4) The rights of all members of the public under the various information review and disclosure laws.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discharge of FOIA responsibilities</I>—(1) <I>Chief FOIA Officer.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer shall monitor the Agency's compliance with the requirements of the FOIA and administration of its FOIA program. The Chief FOIA Officer shall keep the DCIA, the General Counsel of the CIA, and other officials appropriately informed regarding the Agency's implementation of the FOIA and make recommendations, as appropriate. The Chief FOIA Officer shall designate one or more CIA FOIA Public Liaisons. The CIA FOIA Public Liaison shall be responsible for assisting in reducing delays and assisting in the resolution of disputes between requesters and the Agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multi-track processing.</I> The Agency shall exercise due diligence in its responsibilities under the FOIA. The Agency shall designate a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing, as set forth in § 1900.34. In addition, although the Agency will generally process requests and administrative appeals on a “first in, first out” basis, based upon a reasonable allocation of available resources, the Agency may designate additional processing queues that distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the estimated amount of time or work needed to complete the processing of the request. The Agency may provide requesters in a slower queue an opportunity to limit the scope of their request in order to qualify for faster processing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for extension of time.</I> When the Agency is unable to meet the statutory time requirements of the FOIA due to unusual circumstances, as defined in the FOIA, and the Agency extends the time limit on that basis, the Agency shall, before the expiration of the 20-business day time limit to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of an estimated date by which processing of the request is expected to be completed. When the extension exceeds 10 business days, the Agency shall, as described in the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the scope of the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. CIA's FOIA Requester Service Center or the CIA FOIA Public Liaison are available to assist in this process. The Agency shall also alert the requester to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) to provide dispute resolution services.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.34" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.34   Requests for expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing requests.</I> Requests for expedited processing shall be submitted to the Coordinator in accordance with §§ 1900.03, 1900.11, and 1900.12. Such requests will be approved only when a compelling need is established to the satisfaction of the Agency. Within ten (10) calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Agency will decide whether to grant expedited processing and will notify the requester of its decision. A <I>compelling need</I> is deemed to exist:
</P>
<P>(1) When the matter involves an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information and the information is relevant to a subject of public urgency concerning an actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expedited processing appeals.</I> Denials of requests for expedited processing may be appealed to the CIA's Agency Release Panel via the Coordinator and shall be acted upon expeditiously.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>CIA Action on FOIA Administrative Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.41" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.41   Designation of authority to hear appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency Release Panel (ARP).</I> Appeals of initial adverse decisions under the FOIA shall be reviewed by the ARP which shall issue the final Agency decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ARP membership.</I> The ARP is chaired by the Director, Enterprise Data Management (EDM) (or the Deputy Director, EDM, acting on the Director's behalf), and is composed of the Information Review Officers from the various Directorates, a voting representative of the Office of General Counsel, as well as the representatives of the various CIA release programs and offices. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as Executive Secretary of the ARP. The Chair may request interested parties to participate when special equities or expertise are involved.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.42" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.42   Right of appeal and appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of appeal.</I> A right of administrative appeal exists whenever access to any requested record or any portion thereof is denied, or no records are located in response to a request. In addition, requesters may appeal denials of requests for expedited processing and fee waivers, as well as the adequacy of a search for records responsive to a request. The Agency will apprise all requesters in writing of their right to file an administrative appeal to the ARP through the Coordinator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements as to time and form.</I> Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within ninety (90) calendar days of the date of the Agency's initial decision. The Agency may, for good cause and as a matter of administrative discretion, permit an additional thirty (30) business days for the submission of an appeal. All appeals shall be in writing and addressed as specified in § 1900.03. All appeals must identify the documents or portions of documents at issue with specificity and may present such information, data, and argument in support as the requester may desire.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> No appeal shall be processed if the requester has outstanding fees for information services at this or another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt, recording, and tasking.</I> The Agency shall promptly record each request received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the relevant components for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time for response.</I> The Agency shall attempt to complete action on an appeal within twenty (20) business days of the date of receipt, except for appeals of denial of expedited processing, for which the Agency shall attempt to complete action within ten (10) business days of the date of receipt. The current volume of requests, however, often requires that the Agency request additional time from the requester pursuant to § 1900.33. In such event, the Agency will inform the requester of the right to judicial review.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.43" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.43   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.44" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.44   Action by appeals authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Coordinator, acting in the capacity of Executive Secretary of the ARP, shall place administrative appeals of FOIA requests ready for adjudication on the agenda at the next occurring meeting of that Panel. The Executive Secretary shall provide the ARP membership with a summary of the request and issues raised on appeal for the Panel's consideration and make available to the Panel the complete administrative record of the request consisting of the request, the document(s) at issue (in redacted and full-text form), if any, and the findings and recommendations of the relevant components.
</P>
<P>(b) The ARP shall determine whether an appeal before the Panel is meritorious. The ARP may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. Issues shall be decided by a majority of the members present. In all cases of a divided vote, before the decision of the ARP becomes final, any member of the ARP may by written memorandum to the Executive Secretary of the ARP, refer such matters to the CIA Chief Data Officer (CDO) for resolution. In the event of a disagreement with any decision by the CDO, Directorate or Independent Office heads may appeal to the CIA Chief Operating Officer (COO) for a final Agency decision. The final Agency decision shall reflect the vote of the ARP, unless the CDO or COO disagrees with the ARP and makes a superseding final Agency decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Appeals of denials of requests for fee waivers or reductions and/or denial of requests for expedited processing shall go directly from the Coordinator to the Agency Release Panel for a final Agency determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1900.45" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.1.0.12.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1900.45   Notification of decision and right of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary of the ARP shall promptly prepare and communicate the final Agency decision to the requester. With respect to any adverse Agency determination, that correspondence shall state the reasons for the decision, and include a notice of a right to judicial review.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1901" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1901—PUBLIC RIGHTS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>National Security Act of 1947, as amended; Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, as amended; Privacy Act, as amended; and Executive Order 12958 (or successor Orders). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 32488, June 16, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.01" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.01   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a); sec. 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403); and sec. 6 of the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403g). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose in general.</I> This part prescribes procedures for a requester, as defined herein: 
</P>
<P>(1) To request notification of whether the Central Intelligence Agency maintains a record concerning them in any non-exempt portion of a system of records or any non-exempt system of records; 
</P>
<P>(2) To request a copy of all non-exempt records or portions of records; 
</P>
<P>(3) To request that any such record be amended or augmented; and 
</P>
<P>(4) To file an administrative appeal to any initial adverse determination to deny access to or amend a record. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other purposes.</I> This part also sets forth detailed limitations on how and to whom the Agency may disclose personal information and gives notice that certain actions by officers or employees of the United States Government or members of the public could constitute criminal offenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.02" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>CIA</I> means the United States Central Intelligence Agency acting through the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Days</I> means calendar days when the Agency is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of the CIA pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Coordinator</I> means the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the Agency manager of the information review and release program instituted under the Privacy Act; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f); 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintain</I> means maintain, collect, use, or disseminate; 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Originator</I> means the U.S. Government official who originated the document at issue or successor in office or such official who has been delegated release or declassification authority pursuant to law; 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Privacy Act</I> or <I>PA</I> means the statute as codified at 5 U.S.C. 552a; 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Record</I> means an item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Central Intelligence Agency in a system of records; 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Requester</I> or <I>individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence who is a living being and to whom a record might pertain; 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Responsive record</I> means those documents (records) which the Agency has determined to be within the scope of a Privacy Act request; 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which the record is maintained; 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of the Central Intelligence Agency from which records are retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to that individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.03" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.03   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about the Privacy Act program at CIA, or to file a Privacy Act request, please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC. 20505. Requests with the required identification statement pursuant to 32 CFR 1901.13 must be filed in original form by mail. Subsequent communications and any inquiries will be accepted by mail or facsimile at (703) 613-3007 or by telephone at (703) 613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.04" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.04   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The Agency welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the Privacy Act. Many requesters will receive pre-paid, customer satisfaction survey cards. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. The Agency will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Filing of Privacy Act Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>Members of the public shall address all communications to the contact specified at § 1901.03 and clearly delineate the communication as a request under the Privacy Act and this regulation. Requests and administrative appeals on requests, referrals, and coordinations received from members of the public who owe outstanding fees for information services at this or other federal agencies will not be accepted and action on existing requests and appeals will be terminated in such circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.12   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> No particular form is required. All requests must contain the identification information required at § 1901.13. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For access.</I> For requests seeking access, a requester should, to the extent possible, describe the nature of the record sought and the record system(s) in which it is thought to be included. Requesters may find assistance from information described in the Privacy Act Issuances Compilation which is published biannually by the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In lieu of this, a requester may simply describe why and under what circumstances it is believed that this Agency maintains responsive records; the Agency will undertake the appropriate searches. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>For amendment.</I> For requests seeking amendment, a requester should identify the particular record or portion subject to the request, state a justification for such amendment, and provide the desired amending language. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.13   Requirements as to identification of requester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Individuals seeking access to or amendment of records concerning themselves shall provide their full (legal) name, address, date and place of birth, and current citizenship status together with a statement that such information is true under penalty of perjury or a notarized statement swearing to or affirming identity. If the Agency determines that this information is not sufficient, the Agency may request additional or clarifying information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for aliens.</I> Only aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence (PRAs) may file a request pursuant to the Privacy Act and this part. Such individuals shall provide, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section, their Alien Registration Number and the date that status was acquired. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement for representatives.</I> The parent or guardian of a minor individual, the guardian of an individual under judicial disability, or an attorney retained to represent an individual shall provide, in addition to establishing the identity of the minor or individual represented as required in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, evidence of such representation by submission of a certified copy of the minor's birth certificate, court order, or representational agreement which establishes the relationship and the requester's identity. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure otherwise.</I> If a requester or representative fails to provide the information in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section within forty-five (45) days of the date of our request, the Agency will deem the request closed. This action, of course, would not prevent an individual from refiling his or her Privacy Act request at a subsequent date with the required information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.14.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.14   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>No fees will be charged for any action under the authority of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, irrespective of the fact that a request is or may be processed under the authority of both the Privacy Act and the Freedom of Information Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Privacy Act Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.21" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.15.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.21   Processing requests for access to or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Requests meeting the requirements of 32 CFR 1901.11 through 1901.13 shall be processed under both the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and the applicable regulations, unless the requester demands otherwise in writing. Such requests will be processed under both Acts regardless of whether the requester cites one Act in the request, both, or neither. This action is taken in order to ensure the maximum possible disclosure to the requester. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt, recording and tasking.</I> Upon receipt of a request meeting the requirements of §§ 1901.11 through 1901.13, the Agency shall within ten (10) days record each request, acknowledge receipt to the requester, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the components reasonably believed to hold responsive records. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> In processing a request, the Agency shall decline to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of any responsive records whenever the fact of their existence or nonexistence is itself classified under Executive Order 12958 or revealing of intelligence sources and methods protected pursuant to section 103(c)(5) of the National Security Act of 1947. In such circumstances, the Agency, in the form of a final written response, shall so inform the requester and advise of his or her right to an administrative appeal. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for response.</I> Although the Privacy Act does not mandate a time for response, our joint treatment of requests under both the Privacy Act and the FOIA means that the Agency should provide a response within the FOIA statutory guideline of ten (10) days on initial requests and twenty (20) days on administrative appeals. However, the current volume of requests require that the Agency often seek additional time from a requester pursuant to 32 CFR 1901.33. In such event, the Agency will inform the requester in writing and further advise of his or her right to file an administrative appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.22" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.15.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.22   Action and determination(s) by originator(s) or any interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial action for access.</I> CIA components tasked pursuant to a Privacy Act access request shall search all relevant record systems within their cognizance. They shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether responsive records exist; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether access must be denied in whole or part and on what legal basis under both Acts in each such case; 
</P>
<P>(3) Approve the disclosure of records for which they are the originator; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Forward to the Coordinator all records approved for release or necessary for coordination with or referral to another originator or interested party as well as the specific determinations with respect to denials (if any). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial action for amendment.</I> CIA components tasked pursuant to a Privacy Act amendment request shall review the official records alleged to be inaccurate and the proposed amendment submitted by the requester. If they determine that the Agency's records are not accurate, relevant, timely or complete, they shall promptly: 
</P>
<P>(1) Make the amendment as requested; 
</P>
<P>(2) Write to all other identified persons or agencies to whom the record has been disclosed (if an accounting of the disclosure was made) and inform of the amendment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the Coordinator of such decisions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action otherwise on amendment request.</I> If the CIA component records manager declines to make the requested amendment or declines to make the requested amendment but agrees to augment the official records, that manager shall promptly: 
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth the reasons for refusal; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the Coordinator of such decision and the reasons therefore. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referrals and coordinations.</I> As applicable and within ten (10) days of receipt by the Coordinator, any CIA records containing information originated by other CIA components shall be forwarded to those entities for action in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section and return. Records originated by other federal agencies or CIA records containing other federal agency information shall be forwarded to such agencies within ten (10) days of our completion of initial action in the case for action under their regulations and direct response to the requester (for other agency records) or return to the CIA (for CIA records). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of certain exemptions.</I> This section shall not be construed to allow access to systems of records exempted by the Director of Central Intelligence pursuant to subsections (j) and (k) of the Privacy Act or where those exemptions require that the CIA can neither confirm nor deny the existence or nonexistence of responsive records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.23" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.15.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.23   Notification of decision and right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>Within ten (10) days of receipt of responses to all initial taskings and subsequent coordinations (if any), and dispatch of referrals (if any), the Agency will provide disclosable records to the requester. If a determination has been made not to provide access to requested records (in light of specific exemptions) or that no records are found, the Agency shall so inform the requester, identify the denying official, and advise of the right to administrative appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Administrative Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.31" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.31   Special procedures for medical and psychological records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When a request for access or amendment involves medical or psychological records and when the originator determines that such records are not exempt from disclosure, the Agency will, after consultation with the Director of Medical Services, determine: 
</P>
<P>(1) Which records may be sent directly to the requester and 
</P>
<P>(2) Which records should not be sent directly to the requester because of possible medical or psychological harm to the requester or another person. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for records to be sent to physician.</I> In the event that the Agency determines, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, that records should not be sent directly to the requester, the Agency will notify the requester in writing and advise that the records at issue can be made available only to a physician of the requester's designation. Upon receipt of such designation, verification of the identity of the physician, and agreement by the physician: 
</P>
<P>(1) To review the documents with the requesting individual, 
</P>
<P>(2) To explain the meaning of the documents, and 
</P>
<P>(3) To offer counseling designed to temper any adverse reaction, the Agency will forward such records to the designated physician. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure if physician option not available.</I> If within sixty (60) days of the paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the requester has failed to respond or designate a physician, or the physician fails to agree to the release conditions, the Agency will hold the documents in abeyance and advise the requester that this action may be construed as a technical denial. The Agency will also advise the requester of the responsible official and of his or her rights to administrative appeal and thereafter judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.32" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.32   Requests for expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests will be handled in the order received on a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis. Exceptions to this rule will only be made in circumstances that the Agency deems to be exceptional. In making this determination, the Agency shall consider and must decide in the affirmative on all of the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) That there is a genuine need for the records; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That the personal need is exceptional; and 
</P>
<P>(3) That there are no alternative forums for the records sought; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That it is reasonably believed that substantive records relevant to the stated needs may exist and be deemed releasable. 
</P>
<P>(b) In sum, requests shall be considered for expedited processing only when health, humanitarian, or due process considerations involving possible deprivation of life or liberty create circumstances of exceptional urgency and extraordinary need. In accordance with established judicial precedent, requests more properly the scope of requests under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure (or equivalent state rules) will not be granted expedited processing under this or related (e.g., Freedom of Information Act) provisions unless expressly ordered by a federal court of competent jurisdiction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.33" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.33   Allocation of resources; agreed extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Agency components shall devote such personnel and other resources to the responsibilities imposed by the Privacy Act as may be appropriate and reasonable considering: 
</P>
<P>(1) The totality of resources available to the component, 
</P>
<P>(2) The business demands imposed on the component by the Director of Central Intelligence or otherwise by law, 
</P>
<P>(3) The information review and release demands imposed by the Congress or other governmental authority, and 
</P>
<P>(4) The rights of all members of the public under the various information review and disclosure laws. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discharge of Privacy Act responsibilities.</I> Components shall exercise due diligence in their responsibilities under the Privacy Act and must allocate a reasonable level of resources to requests under the Act in a strictly “first-in, first-out” basis and utilizing two or more processing queues to ensure that smaller as well as larger (i.e., project) cases receive equitable attention. The Information and Privacy Coordinator is responsible for management of the Agency-wide program defined by this part and for establishing priorities for cases consistent with established law. The Director, Information Management through the Agency Release Panel shall provide policy and resource direction as necessary and shall make determinations on administrative appeals. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for extension of time.</I> While the Privacy Act does not specify time requirements, our joint treatment of requests under the FOIA means that when the Agency is unable to meet the statutory time requirements of the FOIA, the Agency may request additional time from a requester. In such instances the Agency will inform a requester of his or her right to decline our request and proceed with an administrative appeal or judicial review as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Privacy Act Administrative Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.41" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.41   Establishment of appeals structure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Two administrative entities have been established by the Director of Central Intelligence to facilitate the processing of administrative appeals under the Freedom of Information Act. Their membership, authority, and rules of procedure are as follows. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Historical Records Policy Board (“HRPB” or “Board”).</I> This Board, the successor to the CIA Information Review Committee, acts as the senior corporate board in the CIA on all matters of information review and release. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Membership.</I> The HRPB is composed of the Executive Director, who serves as its Chair, the Deputy Director for Administration, the Deputy Director for Intelligence, the Deputy Director for Operations, the Deputy Director for Science and Technology, the General Counsel, the Director of Congressional Affairs, the Director of the Public Affairs Staff, the Director, Center for the Study of Intelligence, and the Associate Deputy Director for Administration/Information Services, or their designees. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorities and activities.</I> The HRPB, by majority vote, may delegate to one or more of its members the authority to act on any appeal or other matter or authorize the Chair to delegate such authority, as long as such delegation is not to the same individual or body who made the initial denial. The Executive Secretary of the HRPB is the Director, Information Management. The Chair may request interested parties to participate when special equities or expertise are involved. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency Release Panel (“ARP” or “Panel”).</I> The HRPB, pursuant to its delegation of authority, has established a subordinate Agency Release Panel. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Membership.</I> The ARP is composed of the Director, Information Management, who serves as its Chair; the Information Review Officers from the Directorates of Administration, Intelligence, Operations, Science and Technology, and the Director of Central Intelligence Area; the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator; the Chief, Historical Review Group; the Chair, Publications Review Board; the Chief, Records Declassification Program; and representatives from the Office of General Counsel, the Office of Congressional Affairs, and the Public Affairs Staff. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorities and activities.</I> The Panel shall meet on a regular schedule and may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. The Panel shall advise and assist the HRPB on all information release issues, monitor the adequacy and timeliness of Agency releases, set component search and review priorities, review adequacy of resources available to and planning for all Agency release programs, and perform such other functions as deemed necessary by the Board. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as Executive Secretary of the Panel. The Chair may request interested parties to participate when special equities or expertise are involved. The Panel, functioning as a committee of the whole or through individual members, will make final Agency decisions from appeals of initial adverse decisions under the Freedom of Information Act and such other information release decisions made under 32 CFR parts 1901, 1907, and 1908. Issues shall be decided by a majority of members present; in all cases of a divided vote, any member of the ARP then present may refer such matter to the HRPB by written memorandum to the Executive Secretary of the HRPB. Matters decided by the Panel or Board will be deemed a final decision by the Agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.42" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.42   Right of appeal and appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of Appeal.</I> A right of administrative appeal exists whenever access to any requested record or any portion thereof is denied, no records are located in response to a request, or a request for amendment is denied. The Agency will apprise all requesters in writing of their right to appeal such decisions to the CIA Agency Release Panel through the Coordinator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements as to time and form.</I> Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within forty-five (45) days of the date of the Agency's initial decision. The Agency may, for good cause and as a matter of administrative discretion, permit an additional thirty (30) days for the submission of an appeal. All appeals to the Panel shall be in writing and addressed as specified in 32 CFR 1901.03. All appeals must identify the documents or portions of documents at issue with specificity, provide the desired amending language (if applicable), and may present such information, data, and argument in support as the requester may desire. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> No appeal shall be accepted if the requester has outstanding fees for information services at this or another federal agency. In addition, no appeal shall be accepted if the information in question has been the subject of an administrative review within the previous two (2) years or is the subject of pending litigation in the federal courts. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt, recording, and tasking.</I> The Agency shall promptly record each administrative appeal, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and thereafter effect the necessary taskings to the Deputy Director(s) in charge of the directorate(s) which originated or has an interest in the record(s) subject to the appeal. As used herein, the term Deputy Director includes an equivalent senior official within the DCI-area as well as a designee known as the Information Review Officer for a directorate or area. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.43" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.43   Determination(s) by Deputy Director(s).</HEAD>
<P>Each Deputy Director in charge of a directorate which originated or has an interest in any of the records subject to the appeal, or designee, is a required party to any appeal; other interested parties may become involved through the request of the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance. These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the exempt or non-exempt status of the information including citations to the applicable exemption and/or their agreement or disagreement as to the requested amendment and the reasons therefore. Each response shall be provided expeditiously on a “first-in, first-out” basis taking into account the business requirements of the parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the various information review and release laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.44" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.44   Action by appeals authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation of docket.</I> The Coordinator, acting as the Executive Secretary of the Agency Release Panel, shall place administrative appeals of Privacy Act requests ready for adjudication on the agenda at the next occurring meeting of that Panel. The Executive Secretary shall provide a summation memorandum for consideration of the members; the complete record of the request consisting of the request, the document(s) (sanitized and full text) at issue, and the findings of the concerned Deputy Director(s) or designee(s). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision by the Agency Release Panel.</I> The Agency Release Panel shall meet and decide requests sitting as a committee of the whole. Decisions are by majority vote of those present at a meeting and shall be based on the written record and their deliberations; no personal appearances shall be permitted without the express permission of the Panel. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision by the Historical Records Policy Board.</I> In any cases of divided vote by the ARP, any member of that body is authorized to refer the request to the CIA Historical Records Policy Board which acts as the senior corporate board for the Agency. The record compiled (the request, the memoranda filed by the originator and interested parties, and the previous decision(s)) as well as any memorandum of law or policy the referent desires to be considered, shall be certified by the Executive Secretary of the Agency Release Panel and shall constitute the official record of the proceedings and must be included in any subsequent filings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.45" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.17.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.45   Notification of decision and right of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Executive Secretary of the Agency Release Panel shall promptly prepare and communicate the decision of the Panel or Board to the requester. With respect to any decision to deny information or deny amendment, that correspondence shall state the reasons for the decision, identify the officer responsible, and include a notice of the right to judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For amendment requests.</I> With further respect to any decision to deny an amendment, that correspondence shall also inform the requester of the right to submit within forty-five (45) days a statement of his or her choice which shall be included in the official records of the CIA. In such cases, the applicable record system manager shall clearly note any portion of the official record which is disputed, append the requester's statement, and provide copies of the statement to previous recipients (if any are known) and to any future recipients when and if the disputed information is disseminated in accordance with a routine use. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Prohibitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.51" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.18.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.51   Limitations on disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>No record which is within a system of records shall be disclosed by any means of communication to any individual or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record would be: 
</P>
<P>(a) To those officers and employees of this Agency which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties; 
</P>
<P>(b) Required under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; 
</P>
<P>(c) For a routine use as defined in § 1901.02(m), as contained in the Privacy Act Issuances Compilation which is published biennially in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and as described in §§ (a)(7) and (e)(4)(D) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(d) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of U.S.C. Title 13; 
</P>
<P>(e) To a recipient who has provided the Agency with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable; 
</P>
<P>(f) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or designee to determine whether the record has such value; 
</P>
<P>(g) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of that agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the CIA specifying the particular information desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought; 
</P>
<P>(h) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual; 
</P>
<P>(i) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee; 
</P>
<P>(j) To the Comptroller General or any of his authorized representatives in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office; or 
</P>
<P>(k) To any agency, government instrumentality, or other person or entity pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction of the United States or constituent states. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.52" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.18.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.52   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unauthorized disclosure.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any officer or employee of the CIA who, by virtue of employment, has possession of or access to Agency records which contain information identifiable with an individual, the disclosure of which is prohibited by the Privacy Act or by these rules, and who, knowing that disclosure of the specific material is so prohibited, willfully discloses the material in any manner to any person or agency not entitled to receive same. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unauthorized maintenance.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed against any officer or employee of the CIA who willfully maintains a system of records without meeting the requirements of section (e)(4) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C.552a. The Coordinator and the Inspector General are authorized independently to conduct such surveys and inspect such records as necessary from time to time to ensure that these requirements are met. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unauthorized requests.</I> Criminal penalties may be imposed upon any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from the CIA under false pretenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.61" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.19.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.61   Purpose and authority.</HEAD>
<P><I>Purpose of exemptions.</I> This part sets forth those systems of records or portions of systems of records which the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from the procedures established by this regulation and from certain provisions of the Privacy Act: 
</P>
<P>(a) The purpose of the following specified general exemption of polygraph records is to prevent access and review of records which intimately reveal CIA operational methods. The purpose of the general exemption from the provisions of sections (c)(3) and (e)(3) (A)-(D) of the Privacy Act is to avoid disclosures that may adversely affect ongoing operational relationships with other intelligence and related organizations and thus reveal or jeopardize intelligence sources and methods or risk exposure of intelligence sources and methods in the processing of covert employment applications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of the general exemption from sections (d), (e)(4)(G), (f)(1), and (g) of the Privacy Act is to protect only those portions of systems of records which if revealed would risk exposure of intelligence sources and methods or hamper the ability of the CIA to effectively use information received from other agencies or foreign governments. 
</P>
<P>(c) It should be noted that by subjecting information which would consist of, reveal, or pertain to intelligence sources and methods to separate determinations by the Director of Central Intelligence under the provision entitled <I>“General exemptions,”</I> 32 CFR 1901.62 regarding access and notice, an intent is established to apply the exemption from access and notice only in those cases where notice in itself would constitute a revelation of intelligence sources and methods; in all cases where only access to information would reveal such source or method, notice will be given upon request. 
</P>
<P>(d) The purpose of the general exemption for records that consist of, pertain to, or would otherwise reveal the identities of employees who provide information to the Office of the Inspector General is to implement section 17 of the CIA Act of 1949, as amended, 50 U.S.C. 403q(e)(3), and to ensure that no action constituting a reprisal or threat of reprisal is taken because an employee has cooperated with the Office of Inspector General. 
</P>
<P>(e) The purpose of the specific exemptions provided for under section (k) of the Privacy Act is to exempt only those portions of systems of records which would consist of, reveal, or pertain to that information which is enumerated in that section of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) In each case, the Director of Central Intelligence currently or then in office has determined that the enumerated classes of information should be exempt in order to comply with dealing with the proper classification of national defense or foreign policy information; protect the identification of persons who provide information to the CIA Inspector General; protect the privacy of other persons who supplied information under an implied or express grant of confidentiality in the case of law enforcement or employment and security suitability investigations (or promotion material in the case of the armed services); protect information used in connection with protective services under 18 U.S.C. 3056; protect the efficacy of testing materials; and protect information which is required by statute to be maintained and used solely as statistical records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.62" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.19.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.62   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to authority granted in section (j) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from all sections of the Act—except sections 552a(b); (c) (1) and (2); (e) (1), (4) (A)-(F), (5), (6), (7), (9), (10), and (11); and (i)—the following systems of records or portions of records in a system of record: 
</P>
<P>(1) Polygraph records. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to authority granted in section (j) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from sections (c)(3) and (e)(3) (A)-(D) of the Act all systems of records maintained by this Agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to authority granted in section (j) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from notification under sections (e)(4)(G) and (f)(1) those portions of each and all systems of records which have been exempted from individual access under section (j) in those cases where the Coordinator determines after advice by the responsible components that confirmation of the existence of a record may jeopardize intelligence sources and methods. In such cases the Agency must neither confirm nor deny the existence of the record and will advise a requester that there is no record which is available pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974. 
</P>
<P>(d) Pursuant to authority granted in section (j) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from access by individuals under section (d) of the Act those portions and only those portions of all systems of records maintained by the CIA that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consist of, pertain to, or would otherwise reveal intelligence sources and methods; 
</P>
<P>(2) Consist of documents or information provided by any foreign government entity, international organization, or, any United States federal, state, or other public agency or authority; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Consist of information which would reveal the identification of persons who provide information to the CIA Inspector General. 
</P>
<P>(e) Pursuant to authority granted in section (j) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from judicial review under section (g) of the Act all determinations to deny access under section (d) of the Act and all decisions to deny notice under sections (e)(4)(G) and (f)(1) of the Act pursuant to determination made under paragraph (c) of this section when it has been determined by an appropriate official of the CIA that such access would disclose information which would: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consist of, pertain to, or otherwise reveal intelligence sources and methods; 
</P>
<P>(2) Consist of documents or information provided by any foreign government entity, international organization, or, any United States federal, state, or other public agency or authority; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Consist of information which would reveal the identification of persons who provide information to the CIA Inspector General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1901.63" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.2.0.19.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1901.63   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to authority granted in section (k) of the Privacy Act, the Director of Central Intelligence has determined to exempt from section (d) of the Privacy Act those portions and only those portions of all systems of records maintained by the CIA that would consist of, pertain to, or otherwise reveal information that is: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classified pursuant to Executive Order 12958 (or successor or prior Order) and thus subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1) and 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1); 
</P>
<P>(b) Investigatory in nature and compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of section (j)(2) of the Act; provided however, that if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which they are otherwise eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, then such material shall be provided to that individual except to the extent that the disclosure would reveal the identity of a source who furnished the information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality; 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056; 
</P>
<P>(d) Required by statute to be maintained and used solely as statistical records; 
</P>
<P>(e) Investigatory in nature and compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for federal civilian employment, military service, federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality; 
</P>
<P>(f) Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the federal service the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process; or 
</P>
<P>(g) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the United States Government under an express promise of confidentiality, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise of confidentiality. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1903" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1903—CONDUCT ON AGENCY INSTALLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 3515.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1903.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency installation.</I> For the purposes of this part, the term Agency installation means property owned, leased, or controlled by the Central Intelligence Agency, property controlled and occupied by the Federal Highway Administration located immediately adjacent to the CIA Headquarters Compound, and property owned, leased, or controlled by the Office of the Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person.</I> An officer of the Security Protective Service, or any other Central Intelligence Agency employee who has been authorized by the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency pursuant to section 15 of the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949 to enforce the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Blasting agent.</I> The term is defined for the purposes of this part as it is defined in 18 U.S.C. 841.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled Substance.</I> Any drug or other substance, or immediate precursor that has been defined as a controlled substance in the Controlled Substances Act (Title 21 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Explosive materials.</I> The term is defined for the purposes of this part as it is defined in 18 U.S.C. 841.
</P>
<P><I>Operator.</I> A person who operates, drives, controls, or otherwise has charge of, or is in actual physical control of a mechanical mode of transportation or any other mechanical equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Permit.</I> A written authorization to engage in uses or activities that are otherwise prohibited, restricted, or regulated.
</P>
<P><I>Possession.</I> Exercising direct physical control or dominion, with or without ownership, over the property.
</P>
<P><I>State law.</I> The applicable and non-conflicting laws, statutes, regulations, ordinances, and codes of the State(s) and other political subdivision(s) within whose exterior boundaries an Agency installation or a portion thereof is located.
</P>
<P><I>Traffic.</I> Pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, and other conveyances, either singly or together, while using any road, path, street, or other thoroughfare for the purpose of travel.
</P>
<P><I>Vehicles.</I> Any vehicle that is self-propelled or designed for self-propulsion, any motorized vehicle, and any vehicle drawn by or designed to be drawn by a motor vehicle, including any device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or can be transported or drawn upon a roadway, highway, hallway, or pathway; to include any device moved by human or animal power. Whether required to be licensed in any State or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Weapons.</I> Any firearms or any other loaded or unloaded pistol, rifle, shotgun, or other weapon which is designed to, or may be readily converted to expel a projectile by ignition of a propellant, by compressed gas, or which is spring-powered. Any bow and arrow, crossbow, blowgun, spear gun, hand-thrown spear, sling-shot, irritant gas device, explosive device, or any other implement designed to discharge missiles; or a weapon, device, instrument, material, or substance, animate or inanimate, that is used for or is readily capable of, causing death or serious bodily injury, including any weapon the possession of which is prohibited under the laws of the State in which the Agency installation or portion thereof is located; except that such term does not include a closing pocket knife with a blade of less than 2 
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in length or 2 ounces or less of irritant gas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.2" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to all Agency installations, and to all persons entering on to or when on an Agency installation. They supplement the provisions of Title 18, United States Code, relating to crimes and criminal procedures, and those provisions of State law that are federal criminal offenses by virtue of the Assimilative Crimes Act, 18 U.S.C. 13. The Director of the Central Intelligence Agency, or his or her designee, may suspend the applicability of this part, or a portion thereof, on any Agency installation, or any portion of the installation, covered under this part. Where necessary and when consistent with national security requirements notices will be posted on the affected Agency installation to indicate that the applicability of this part or a portion thereof has been suspended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.3" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.3   State law applicable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless specifically addressed by the regulations in this part, traffic safety and the permissible use and operation of vehicles within an Agency installation are governed by State law. State law that is now or may later be in effect is adopted and made a part of the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Violating a provision of State law is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.4" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.4   Vehicles and traffic safety.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Open container of alcoholic beverage.</I> (1) Each person within the vehicle is responsible for complying with the provisions of this section that pertain to carrying an open container. The operator of the vehicle is the person responsible for complying with the provisions of this section that pertain to the storage of an open container.
</P>
<P>(2) Carrying or storing a bottle, can, or other receptacle containing an alcoholic beverage that is open or has been opened, or whose seal is broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed, within a vehicle on an Agency installation is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) An open container stored in the trunk of a vehicle or, if a vehicle is not equipped with a trunk, to an open container stored in some other portion of the vehicle designated for the storage of luggage and not normally occupied by or readily accessible to the operator or passenger; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An open container stored in the living quarters of a motor home or camper. 
</P>
<P>(4) For the purpose of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a utility compartment or glove compartment is deemed to be readily accessible to the operator and passengers of a vehicle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operating under the influence of alcohol, drugs, or controlled substances.</I> (1) <I>Prohibited conduct.</I> Operating or being in actual physical control of a vehicle is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(i) While under the influence of alcohol;
</P>
<P>(ii) While under the influence of any narcotic drug or any other self-administered intoxicant or drug of whatsoever nature, or any combination of such drugs, to a degree that impairs one's ability to drive or operate any motor vehicle;
</P>
<P>(iii) While under the combined influence of alcohol and any drugs or drugs to a degree that impairs one's ability drive or operate any motor vehicle; or
</P>
<P>(iv) While the alcohol concentration in the operator's blood is 0.08 grams or more of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or 0.08 grams or more alcohol per 210 liters of breath. Provided, however, that if the applicable State law that applies to operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol establishes more restrictive limits of alcohol concentration in the operator's blood or breath, those limits supersede the limits specified in this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall also apply to an operator who is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol or another drug.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test.</I> (i) At the request or direction of an authorized person who has probable cause to believe that an operator of a vehicle within an Agency installation has violated a provision of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the operator shall submit to one or more tests of blood, breath, saliva, or urine for the purpose of determining blood alcohol, drug, and controlled substance content. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusal by an operator to submit to a test is prohibited and may result in detention and citation by an authorized person. Proof of refusal many be admissible in any related judicial proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any test or tests for the presence of alcohol, drugs, and controlled substances shall be determined by and administered at the direction of an officer of the Security Protective Service. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any test shall be conducted by using accepted scientific methods and equipment of proven accuracy and reliability and operated by personnel certified in its use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Presumptive levels.</I> (i) The results of chemical or other quantitative tests are intended to supplement the elements of probable cause used as the basis for the arrest of an operator charged with a violation of this section. If the alcohol concentration in the operator's blood or breath at the time of the testing is less than the alcohol concentration specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section this fact does not give rise to any presumption that the operator is or is not under the influence of alcohol. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section are not intended to limit the introduction of any other competent evidence bearing upon the question of whether the operator, at the time of the alleged violation, was under the influence of alcohol, a drug or drugs, or a controlled substance, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998; 64 FR 27041, May 18, 1999, as amended at 88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.5" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.5   Enforcement of parking regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A vehicle parked in any location without authorization, pursuant to a fraudulent, fabricated, copied or altered parking permit, or parked contrary to the directions of posted signs or markings shall be subject to any penalties imposed by this section and the vehicle may be removed from the Agency installation at the owner's risk and expense.
</P>
<P>(b) The use, attempted use, or possession of a fraudulent, fabricated, copied, or altered parking permit is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) The blocking of entrances, driveways, sidewalks, paths, loading platforms, or fire hydrants on an Agency installation is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(d) This section may be supplemented or the applicability suspended from time to time by the CIA Director of Security, or by his or her designee, by the issuance and posting of such parking directives as may be required, and when so issued and posted, such directives shall have the same force and effects as if made a part thereof.
</P>
<P>(e) Long term parking (parking in excess of 72 hours) is permitted only in designated areas and with express approval consistent with CIA internal guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) Proof that a vehicle was parked in violation of the regulations of this section or directives may be taken as prima facie evidence that the registered owner was responsible for the violation.
</P>
<P>(g) Any violation of this section may result in relocation of the vehicle or removal of the vehicle from the Agency installation at the owner's risk and expense. The Central Intelligence Agency assumes no responsibility for the payment of any fees or costs related to the removal or storage of the vehicle, which may be charged to the owner of the vehicle by the towing organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.6" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.6   Admission on to an Agency installation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Access on to any Agency installation shall be controlled and restricted to ensure the orderly and secure conduct of Agency business. Admission on to an Agency installation or into a restricted area on an Agency installation shall be limited to Agency employees and other persons with proper authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) All persons entering on to or when on an Agency installation shall, when required and/or requested, produce and display proper identification to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(c) All personal property, including but not limited to any packages, briefcases, electronic devices, other containers or vehicles brought on to, on, or being removed from an Agency installation are subject to inspection and search by authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(d) A full search of a person or any personal property, to include electronic devices, may accompany an investigative stop or an arrest.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons entering on to an Agency installation or into a restricted area who refuse to permit an inspection and search will be denied further entry and will be ordered to leave the Agency installation or restricted area pursuant to § 1903.7(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) All persons entering on to or when on any Agency installation shall comply with all official signs of a prohibitory, regulatory, or directory nature at all times while on the Agency installation.
</P>
<P>(g) All persons entering on to or when on any Agency installation shall comply with the instructions or directions of authorized persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.7" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.7   Trespassing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Entering, or remaining on any Agency installation without proper authorization is prohibited. Failure to obey an order to leave given under this section by an authorized person, or reentry or attempted reentry onto the Agency installation after being ordered to leave or after being instructed not to reenter by an authorized person under this section is also prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who violates the provisions of this part may be ordered to leave the Agency installation by an authorized person. A violator's reentry may also be prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.8" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.8   Interfering with Agency functions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Interference.</I> Threatening, resisting, intimidating, or intentionally interfering with a government employee or agent engaged in an official duty, or on account of the performance of an official duty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Violation of a lawful order.</I> Violating the lawful order of an authorized person to maintain order and control, public access and movement during fire fighting operations, law enforcement actions, and emergency operations that involve a threat to public safety or government resources, or other activities where the control of public movement and activities is necessary to maintain order and public health or safety.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>False information.</I> Knowingly giving false information:
</P>
<P>(1) To an authorized person investigating an accident or violation of law or regulation; or
</P>
<P>(2) On an application for a permit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>False report.</I> Knowingly giving a false report for the purpose of misleading an authorized person in the conduct of official duties, or making a false report that causes a response by the government to a fictitious event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.9" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.9   Explosives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Using, possessing, storing, or transporting explosives, blasting agents, ammunition or explosive materials is prohibited on any Agency installation, except as authorized by the CIA Director of Security. When permitted, the use, possession, storage, and transportation shall be in accordance with applicable Federal and State laws, and shall also be in accordance with applicable Central Intelligence Agency rules and regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Using, possessing, storing, or transporting items intended to be used to fabricate an explosive or incendiary device, either openly or concealed, except for official purposes is prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20762, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.10" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.10   Weapons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, knowingly possessing or causing to be present a weapon on an Agency installation, or attempting to do so is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) Knowingly possessing or causing to be present a weapon on an Agency installation, incident to hunting or other lawful purposes is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) To any person who has received authorization from the CIA Director of Security, or from his or her designee, to possess, carry, transport, or use a weapon in support of the Agency's mission or for other lawful purposes as determined by the CIA Director of Security; or
</P>
<P>(2) To the lawful performance of official duties by an officer, agent, or employee of the United States, a State, or a political subdivision thereof, who is authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of any violation of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.11   Restrictions on photographic, transmitting, and recording equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise authorized under this section, the following are prohibited on Agency installations:
</P>
<P>(1) Possessing a camera, other visual or audio recording devices, or electronic transmitting equipment of any kind.
</P>
<P>(2) Carrying a camera, other visual or audio recording devices, or electronic transmitting equipment of any kind.
</P>
<P>(3) Using a camera, other visual or audio recording devices, or electronic transmitting equipment of any kind.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to any person using, possessing or storing a government or privately owned cellular telephone or pager while on any Agency installation. The Central Intelligence Agency may regulate or otherwise administratively control cellular telephones and pagers outside the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to any officer, agent, or employee of the United States, a State, or a political subdivision thereof, who may enter on to an Agency installation to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of any violation of law.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not apply to any person who has received approval from the CIA Director of Security, or from his or her designee, to carry, transport, or use a camera, other visual or audio recording devices, or electronic transmitting equipment while on an Agency installation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.12   Alcoholic beverages and controlled substance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alcoholic beverages.</I> The possession or transportation of alcoholic beverages in closed containers and their consumption on an Agency installation will be administratively controlled by the Agency outside the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controlled substances.</I> The following are prohibited on an Agency installation:
</P>
<P>(1) The delivery of a controlled substance, except when distribution is made by a licensed physician or pharmacist in accordance with applicable Federal or State law, or as otherwise permitted by Federal or State law. For the purpose of this paragraph, delivery means the actual, attempt, or constructive transfer of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(2) The possession of a controlled substance, unless such substance was obtained by the possessor directly from, or pursuant to a valid prescription or ordered by, a licensed physician or pharmacist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.13   Under the influence while on an Agency installation.</HEAD>
<P>Presence on an Agency installation when under the influence of alcohol, a drug, or a controlled substance or a combination thereof to a degree that interferes with, impedes or hinders the performance of the official duties of any government employee, or damages government or personal property is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.14   Disorderly conduct.</HEAD>
<P>A person commits disorderly conduct when, with intent to cause public alarm, nuisance, jeopardy, or violence, or knowingly or recklessly creating a risk thereof, such person commits any of the following prohibited acts:
</P>
<P>(a) Engages in fighting or threatening, or in violent behavior.
</P>
<P>(b) Acts in a manner that is physically threatening or menacing, or acts in a manner that is likely to inflict injury or incite an immediate breach of peace.
</P>
<P>(c) Makes noises that are unreasonable considering the nature and purpose of the actor's conduct, location, time of day or night, and other factors that would govern the conduct of a reasonable prudent person under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) Uses obscene language, an utterance, or gesture, or engages in a display or act that is obscene.
</P>
<P>(e) Impedes or threatens the security of persons or property, or disrupts the performance of official duties by employees, officers, contractors or visitors on an Agency installation or obstructs the use of areas on an Agency installation such as entrances, foyers, lobbies, corridors, concourses, offices, elevators, stairways, roadways, driveways, walkways, or parking lots.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.15" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.15   Preservation of property.</HEAD>
<P>The following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Property damage.</I> Destroying or damaging private or Government property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Theft.</I> The theft of private or Government property.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Creation of hazard.</I> The creation of hazard to persons or things, the throwing of articles of any kind from or at buildings, vehicles, or persons while on an Agency installation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Improper disposal.</I> The improper disposal of trash or rubbish while on an Agency installation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.16" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.16   Restriction on animals.</HEAD>
<P>Animals, except for those animals used for the assistance of persons with disabilities, or animals under the charge and control of the Central Intelligence Agency, shall not be brought onto an Agency installation for other than official purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.17" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.17   Soliciting, vending, and debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>Commercial or political soliciting, vending of all kinds, displaying or distributing commercial advertising, collecting private debts or soliciting alms on any Agency installation is prohibited. This does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) National or local drives for funds for welfare, health, or other purposes as authorized by 5 CFR parts 110 and 950 and sponsored or approved by the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency, or by his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(b) Personal notices posted on authorized bulletin boards and in compliance with Central Intelligence Agency internal guidance governing the use of such authorized bulletin boards advertising to sell or rent property of Central Intelligence Agency employees, their immediate families, or other persons with proper authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.18" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.18   Distribution of materials.</HEAD>
<P>Distributing, posting, or affixing materials, such as pamphlets, handbills, or flyers, on any Agency installation is prohibited except as authorized by § 1903.17(b), or by other authorization from the CIA Director of Security, or from his or her designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.19" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.19   Gambling.</HEAD>
<P>Gambling in any form, or the operation of gambling devices, is prohibited. This prohibition shall not apply to the vending or exchange of chances by licensed blind operators of vending facilities for any lottery set forth in a State law and authorized by the provisions of the Randolph-Sheppard Act (Title 20 U.S.C. 107 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.20" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.3.0.20.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.20   Penalties and effects on other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whoever shall be found guilty of violating any rule or regulation enumerated in this part is subject to the penalties permitted by 50 U.S.C. 3515(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part shall be construed to abrogate or supersede any other Federal law or any non-conflicting State or local law, ordinance or regulation applicable to any location where the Agency installation is situated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44786, Aug. 21, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 20763, Apr. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1904" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1904—PROCEDURES GOVERNING ACCEPTANCE OF SERVICE OF PROCESS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 403g; 50 U.S.C. 403(d)(3); E.O. 12333 sections 1.8(h), 1.8(i), 3.2. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 41458, Aug. 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1904.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4.0.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the limits of authority of CIA personnel to accept service of process on behalf of the CIA or any CIA employee. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended to ensure the orderly execution of the Agency's affairs and not to impede any legal proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) CIA regulations concerning employee responses to demands for production of official information in proceedings before federal, state, or local government entities are set out in part 1905 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.2" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4.0.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>CIA</I> means the Central Intelligence Agency and include all staff elements of the Director of Central Intelligence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Process</I> means a summons, complaint, subpoena, or other official paper (except garnishment orders) issued in conjunction with a proceeding or hearing being conducted by a federal, state, or local governmental entity of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means any CIA officer, any staff, contract, or other employee of CIA, any person including independent contractors associated with or acting for or on behalf of CIA, and any person formerly having such a relationship with CIA. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General Counsel</I> includes the Deputy General Counsel or Acting General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.3" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4.0.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.3   Procedures governing acceptance of service of process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of Process Upon the CIA or a CIA Employee in An Official Capacity</I>—(1) <I>Personal service.</I> Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel, or designee, personal service of process may be accepted only by attorneys of the Office of General Counsel at CIA Headquarters in Langley, Virginia. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mail service.</I> Where service of process by registered or certified mail is authorized by law, unless expressly directed otherwise by the General Counsel or designee, such process may only be accepted by attorneys of the Office of General Counsel. Process by mail should be addressed as follows: Litigation Division, Office of General Counsel, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of Process Upon a CIA Employee Solely in An Individual Capacity</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Consistent with section 6 of the CIA Act of 1949, as amended, 50 U.S.C. 403g, CIA will not provide the name or address of any current or former employee of CIA to individuals or entities seeking to serve process upon such employee solely in his or her individual capacity, even where the matter is related to CIA activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal Service.</I> Subject to the sole discretion of appropriate officials of the CIA, process servers generally will not be allowed to enter CIA facilities or premises for the purpose of serving process upon any CIA employee solely in his or her individual capacity. The Office of General Counsel is not authorized to accept service of process on behalf of a CIA employee—except the Director and Deputy Director of Central Intelligence—in his or her individual capacity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mail Service.</I> Unless otherwise expressly authorized by the General Counsel, or designee, CIA personnel are not authorized to accept or forward mailed service of process directed to any CIA employee in his or her individual capacity. Any such process will be returned to the sender via appropriate postal channels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of Process Upon a CIA Employee in A Combined Official and Individual Capacity.</I> Unless expressly directed otherwise by the General Counsel, or designee, any process to be served upon a CIA employee in his or her combined official and individual capacity, in person or by mail, can be accepted only by attorneys of the Office of General Counsel at CIA Headquarters in Langley, Virginia.
</P>
<P>(d) The documents for which service is accepted in official capacity only shall be stamped “Service Accepted in Official Capacity Only.” Acceptance of service of process shall not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to jurisdiction, propriety of service, improper venue, or any other defense in law or equity available under the laws or rules applicable to the service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.4" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4.0.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.4   Notification to CIA Office of General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>A CIA employee who receives or has reason to expect service of process in an individual, official, or combined individual and official capacity, in a matter that may involve testimony or the furnishing of documents and that could reasonably be expected to involve Agency interests, shall promptly notify the Litigation Division, Office of General Counsel (703-874-3118). Such notification should be given prior to providing the requestor, counsel or other representative any Agency information, and prior to accepting service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.5" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.4.0.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.5   Authority of General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any questions concerning interpretation of this regulation shall be referred to the Office of General Counsel for resolution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1905" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1905—PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS OR DISCLOSURE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION IN PROCEEDINGS BEFORE FEDERAL, STATE OR LOCAL GOVERNMENTAL ENTITIES OF COMPETENT JURISDICTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 403(d)(3); 50 U.S.C. 403g; United States ex rel. <I>Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951); E.O. 12333 §§ 1.8(i), 1.5(h), 3.2; E.O. 12356; U.S. v. Snepp, 444 U.S. 507 (1980). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 41459, Aug. 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1905.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.5.0.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policy and procedures with respect to the production or disclosure of (a) material contained in the files of CIA, (b) information relating to or based upon material contained in the files of CIA, and (c) information acquired by any person while such person was an employee of CIA as part of the performance of that person's official duties or because of that person's association with CIA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.2" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.5.0.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>CIA</I> or <I>Agency</I> means the Central Intelligence Agency and includes all staff elements of the Director of Central Intelligence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Demand</I> means any subpoena, order, or other legal summons (except garnishment orders) that is issued by a federal, state, or local governmental entity of competent jurisdiction with the authority to require a response on a particular matter, or a request for appearance of an individual where a demand could issue. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means any officer, any staff, contract, or other employee of CIA; any person including independent contractors associated with or acting on behalf of CIA; and any person formerly having such a relationship with CIA. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Production</I> or <I>produce</I> means the disclosure of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any material contained in the files of CIA; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any information relating to material contained in the files of CIA, including but not limited to summaries of such information or material, or opinions based on such information or material; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any information acquired by persons while such persons were employees of CIA as a part of the performance of their official duties or because of their official status or association with CIA; 
</P>
<FP>in response to a demand upon an employee of CIA. 
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>General Counsel</I> includes the Deputy General Counsel or Acting General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.3" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.5.0.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.3   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employee shall produce any materials or information in response to a demand without prior authorization as set forth in this part. This part applies to former employees to the extent consistent with applicable nondisclosure agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is intended only to provide procedures for responding to demands for production of documents or information, and is not intended to, does not, and may not be relied upon to, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by any party against the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.4" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.5.0.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.4   Procedure for production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a demand for production is made upon an employee, the employee shall immediately notify the Litigation Division, Office of General Counsel, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505 (703/874-3118), which shall follow the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel of CIA and Deputy Directors or Heads of Independent Offices with responsibility for the information sought in the demand, or their designees, shall determine whether any information or materials may properly be produced in response to the demand, except that the Office of General Counsel may assert any and all legal defenses and objections to the demand available to CIA prior to the start of any search for information responsive to the demand. CIA may, in its sole discretion, decline to begin any search for information responsive to the demand until a final and non-appealable disposition of any such defenses and objections raised by CIA has been made by the entity or person that issued the demand.
</P>
<P>(c) CIA officials shall consider the following factors, among others, in reaching a decision:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether production is appropriate in light of any relevant privilege;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether production is appropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the procedures governing the case or matter in which the demand arose; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure would violate a statute, including but not limited to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure would be inconsistent with the statutory responsibility of the Director of Central Intelligence to protect intelligence sources and methods;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure would violate a specific CIA regulation or directive;
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure would reveal classified information;
</P>
<P>(v) Disclosure would improperly reveal trade secrets or proprietary confidential information without the owner's consent; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Disclosure would unduly interfere with the orderly conduct of CIA's functions.
</P>
<P>(d) If oral or written testimony is sought by a demand in a case or matter in which the CIA is not a party, a reasonably detailed description of the testimony sought, in the form of an affidavit or, if that is not feasible, a written statement, by the party seeking the testimony or by the party's attorney must be furnished to the CIA Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) The Office of General Counsel shall be responsible for notifying the appropriate employees and other persons of all decisions regarding responses to demands and providing advice and counsel as to the implementation of such decisions.
</P>
<P>(f) If response to a demand is required before a decision is made whether to provide the documents or information sought by the demand, an attorney from the Office of General Counsel, after consultation with the Department of Justice, shall appear before and furnish the court or other competent authority with a copy of this Regulation and state that the demand has been or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate CIA officials, and shall respectfully request the court or other authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions.
</P>
<P>(g) If the court or other authority declines to stay the demand pending receipt of instructions in response to a request made in accordance with § 1905.4(g), or rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of instructions rendered in accordance with this part not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee upon whom the demand has been made shall, if so directed by the General Counsel of CIA, or designee, respectfully decline to comply with the demand under the authority of <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951), and this Regulation.
</P>
<P>(h) With respect to any function granted to CIA officials in this part, such officials are authorized to delegate in writing their authority in any case or matter or category thereof to subordinate officials.
</P>
<P>(i) Any nonemployee who receives a demand for the production or disclosure of CIA information acquired because of that person's association or contacts with CIA should notify CIA's Office of General Counsel, Litigation Division (703/874-3118) for guidance and assistance. In such cases the provisions of this regulation shall be applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1906" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1906—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>19 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 39610, Sept. 1, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1906.101" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.102" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the Agency except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve handicapped persons in the United States. This regulation will apply to the Agency only to the extent consistent with the National Security Act of 1947 (50 U.S.C. 402 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended; the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949 (50 U.S.C. 403a <I>et seq.</I>), as amended; and other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.103" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms means—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, materials in braille, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. The Central Intelligence Agency may prohibit from any of its facilities any auxiliary aid, or category of auxiliary aid, that the Office of Security (OS) determines creates a security risk or potential security risk. OS reserves the right to examine any auxiliary aid brought into an Agency facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the Agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It must be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties must describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of Central Intelligence or an official or employee of the Agency acting for the Director under a delegation of authority.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances or other real or personal property. 
</P>
<P><I>Individual with handicaps</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Cardiovascular; Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, drug addiction, and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward the impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the Agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with handicaps</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any Agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the Agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other Agency program or activity, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 1906.140.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-002, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by the Agency and not to federally assisted programs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.104-1906.109" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.104-1906.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.110" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency shall, within one year of the effective date of this part, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effect thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and to the extent modification of any of those policies and practices is required, the Agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency shall, for at least 3 years following completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file, and make available for public inspection— 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.111" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Agency shall make available, to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons, such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the Agency, and make that information available to them in such manner as the Director finds necessary to apprise those persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.112-1906.129" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.112-1906.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.130" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity conducted by the Agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicap the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class of individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless that action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The Agency may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The Agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(4) The Agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under, any program or activity conducted by the Agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(5) The Agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(6) The Agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the Agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis on handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the Agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits or a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to individuals with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.131-1906.139" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.131-1906.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.140" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with handicaps shall, solely on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1979 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.141-1906.148" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.141-1906.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.149" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1906.150, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the Agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with handicaps, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.150" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This program does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the Agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Require the Agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1906.150(a) would result in that alteration or those burdens.
</P>
<P>(iii) The decision that compliance would result in that alteration or those burdens must be made by the Director after considering all of the Agency's resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an action would result in that alteration or those burdens, the Agency shall take any other action that would not result in the alteration or burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> (1) The Agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(2) The Agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities if other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing that Act.
</P>
<P>(4) In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The Agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section within 60 days of the effective date of this part except that if structural changes in facilities are undertaken, the changes shall be made within 3 years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> (1) In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the Agency shall develop, within 6 months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete those changes.
</P>
<P>(2) The Agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan must be made available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan must, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(i) Identify physical obstacles in the Agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.151" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of, the Agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4151-4175), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19-607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.152-1906.159" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.152-1906.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.160" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The Agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids if necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Agency. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the Agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where Agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1906.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Agency head or his or her designee after considering all Agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1906.161-1906.169" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1906.161-1906.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1906.170" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.6.0.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1906.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs and activities conducted by the Agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity, is responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to Central Intelligence Agency, Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity, Washington, DC 20505. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The Agency may extend this time period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the Agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157) is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, The Agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the Agency of the letter required by § 1906.170(g). The Agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(j) The Agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the Agency determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it receives the additional information to make its determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The Director may delegate the authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1907" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1907—CHALLENGES TO CLASSIFICATION OF DOCUMENTS BY AUTHORIZED HOLDERS PURSUANT TO SEC. 1.8 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 13526 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Executive Order 13526 75 FR 707, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., P. 298-327; section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947; section 6 of the CIA Act of 1949. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 32494, June 16, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="20" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.01" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.01   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority:</I> This Part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement section 1.8 of E.O. 13526, section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, and section 6 of the CIA Act of 1949.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose:</I> This part prescribes procedures for non-Agency personnel who are authorized holders of CIA information, to challenge the classification status, whether classified or unclassified, based on a good faith belief that the current status of CIA information is improper. This part and section 1.8 of Executive Order 13526 confer no rights upon members of the general public or individuals who are not authorized holders of CIA information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59031, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.02" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings as indicated: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>CIA</I> means the United States Central Intelligence Agency acting through the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized holder</I> means anyone who has satisfied the conditions for access to classified information stated in section 4.1(a) of Executive Order 13526 and who has been granted access to such information; the term does not include anyone authorized such access by section 4.4 of Executive Order 13526. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ddays</I> means calendar days when the Agency is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this CFR part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Challenge</I> means a request in the individual's official, not personal, capacity and in furtherance of the interests of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of the CIA pursuant to federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Coordinator</I> means the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator acting in the capacity of Executive Secretary of the Agency Release Panel; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form, that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the United States Government, and
</P>
<P>(2) Lawfully and actually in the possession of an authorized holder and for which ownership and control has not been relinquished by the CIA; 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue; 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Originator</I> means the CIA officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a CIA officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of this Order; 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>The Order</I> means Executive Order 13526 of December 29, 2009 and published at 75 FR 707 (or successor Orders).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Chief, Classification Management and Collaboration Group</I> refers to the Agency official authorized to make the initial Agency determination with respect to a challenge of the classification status of CIA information.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Agency Release Panel</I> refers to the Agency's forum for reviewing information review and release policy, the adequacy of resources available to all Agency declassification and release programs, and hearing appeals in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 32494, June 16, 1997, as amended at 76 FR 59031, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.03" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.03   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For information on this part or to file a challenge under this part, please direct your inquiry to the Executive Secretary, Agency Release Panel, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505. The commercial (non-secure) telephone is (703) 613-1287; the classified (secure) telephone for voice and facsimile is (703) 613-3007. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.04" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.04   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The Agency welcomes suggestions or complaints with regard to its administration of the Executive Order. Letters of suggestion or complaint should identify the specific purpose and the issues for consideration. The Agency will respond to all substantive communications and take such actions as determined feasible and appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Filing of Challenges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.11   Prerequisites.</HEAD>
<P>The Central Intelligence Agency has established liaison and procedures with many agencies for declassification issues. Prior to reliance on this Part, authorized holders are required to first exhaust such established administrative procedures for the review of classified information. Further information on these procedures is available from the point of contact, see 32 CFR 1907.03. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.12   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>The challenge shall include identification of the challenger by full name, Executive Branch agency, title of position, and information required for verification of access, security clearance, and status as an authorized holder of the CIA information in question. In addition, the challenger must clearly identify documents or portions of documents at issue and identify and describe the reasons why it is believed that the information is improperly classified. The challenge, itself, must be properly marked and classified and, in this regard, the authorized holder must assume the current classification status and marking of the information is correct until determined otherwise unless the challenger asserts that the information marked unclassified should be classified or that the information should be classified at a higher level, in which case the challenger should mark the challenge and related documents at the asserted classification level.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59031, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.13   Identification of material at issue.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized holders shall append the documents at issue and clearly mark those portions subject to the challenge. If information not in documentary form is in issue, the challenge shall state so clearly and present or otherwise refer with specificity to that information in the body of the challenge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.14   Transmission.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized holders must direct challenge requests to the CIA as specified in § 1907.03. The classified nature of the challenge, as well as the appended documents, require that the holder transmit same in full accordance with established security procedures. In general, registered U.S. mail is approved for SECRET, non-compartmented material; higher classifications require use of approved Top Secret facsimile machines or CIA-approved couriers. Further information is available from the CIA as well as corporate or other federal agency security departments. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Challenges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.21" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.21   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documents required to be submitted for prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement is not covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Agency receives a classification challenge to information that has been the subject of a challenge within the past two years, the Agency is not required to process the challenge beyond informing the challenger of this fact and the prior review decision; advising the challenger of the right to appeal a final Agency decision to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP); and informing the challenger that if they wish to exercise this right, they must do so through Chief, Classification Management and Collaboration Group who will then forward the appeal to the ISCAP.
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency is not required to process classification challenges to information that is the subject of pending litigation. If the information that is the subject of a challenge falls into this category, the Agency will take no action on the challenge and will notify the challenger of this fact within 10 business days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59031, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.22" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.22   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.23" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.23   Designation of authority to hear challenges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chief, Classification Management and Collaboration Group</I> shall be responsible for the initial Agency decision in a classification challenge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency Release Panel (ARP).</I> Appeals of denials of classification challenges shall be reviewed by the ARP which shall issue the final Agency decision in accordance with 1907.25(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ARP membership:</I> The ARP is chaired by the Chief, Information Review and Release Group and composed of the Information Review Officers from the various Directorates and the Director, Central Intelligence Agency area, as well as the representatives of the various release programs and offices. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as Executive Secretary of the Panel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59032, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.24." NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.24.   Initial determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Formal challenges shall be directed to the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator (Coordinator) who shall promptly forward the challenge to the C/CMCG for action. The C/CMCG shall be responsible for the administrative processing of the challenge consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 10 business days of receipt of a challenge, the Coordinator shall record the receipt of the challenge and provide the challenger with written acknowledgement of the Agency's receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Agency shall render an initial written response to a challenge within 60 business days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(d) If the C/CMCG determines that the Agency is unable to respond with a determination within 60 business days of receipt of the challenge, C/CMCG will inform the Coordinator who will provide the challenger with written notice of the date by which the Agency will respond and a statement that if no Agency response is received within 120 business days, the challenger has the right to have the challenge forwarded to the ISCAP, and may exercise this right through C/CMCG who will then forward the challenge to ISCAP.
</P>
<P>(e) The C/CMCG, after consultation with the originator of the information and other parties shall inform the Coordinator of the initial decision on the challenge and the Coordinator shall promptly inform the challenger of the decision in writing and inform the challenger of the right to appeal to the ARP if the challenge was denied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59032, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.25" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.25   Action on appeal of initial Agency determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The challenger may, within 45 calendar days of receiving notice of a denial of the challenge, appeal the denial to the ARP by sending the appeal and any supplementary information in support of the challenge to the Executive Secretary of the ARP (ES/ARP).
</P>
<P>(b) Within 10 business days of receipt of an appeal, the ES/ARP will record receipt, provide the challenger with written acknowledgement, and forward the appeal to C/CMCG, the appropriate IMTOs, originator, and other appropriate parties, who shall review the appeal and related materials, and within 30 business days provide a written recommendation to the ARP.
</P>
<P>(c) The ARP shall meet on a regular schedule and may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. Issues shall be decided by a majority of the members present. In all cases of a divided vote, before the decision of the ARP becomes final, any member of the ARP may by written memorandum to the ES/ARP, refer such matters to the Director, Information Management Services (D/IMS) for decision. In the event of a disagreement with any decision by D/IMS related to the classification challenge, Directorate heads may appeal to the Associate Deputy Director, CIA (ADD) for resolution. The final Agency decision shall reflect the vote of the ARP, unless changed by the D/IMS or the ADD.
</P>
<P>(d) The ES/ARP shall promptly provide the challenger with written notice of the final Agency decision and, if the appeal is denied, inform the challenger of the right to appeal to the ISCAP through C/CMCG, who will forward the appeal to the ISCAP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59032, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.26" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.26   Prohibition on adverse action.</HEAD>
<P>Agency correspondence to the challenger shall include a notice that CIA will take no adverse action or retribution against the challenger for bringing the classification challenge in good faith. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59032, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Right of Appeal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1907.31" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.7.0.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1907.31   Right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>A right of appeal may be available to the ISCAP established pursuant to section 5.3 of the Order. Action by that body will be the subject of rules to be promulgated by the Information Security Oversight Office. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59032, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1908" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1908—PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR MANDATORY DECLASSIFICATION REVIEW OF CLASSIFIED INFORMATION PURSUANT TO SEC. 3.5 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 13526
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Executive Order 13526 75 FR 707, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., p. 298-327 (or successor orders).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 32495, June 16, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="24" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.01" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.01   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority:</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement section 3.5 of E.O. 13526 (or successor Orders); the CIA Information Act of 1984), as amended (50 U.S.C. 431; section 102 of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 403); and section 6 of the CIA Act of 1949, as amended (5 U.S.C. 403g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose:</I> This part prescribes procedures, subject to limitations set forth below, for members of the public to request a declassification review of information classified under the Executive Order 13526 or predecessor Orders. Section 3.5 of Executive Order 13526 and these regulations are not intended to and do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States, its agencies, officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59033, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.02" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings as indicated:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>CIA</I> means the United States Central Intelligence Agency acting through the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Days</I> means calendar days when the Agency is operating and specifically excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of the CIA pursuant to Federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Coordinator</I> means the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the Agency manager of the information review and release program instituted under the mandatory declassification review provisions of Executive Order 13526;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department, or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f);
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form that is owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the United States Government; it does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Information within the scope of the CIA Information Act, or
</P>
<P>(2) Information originated by the incumbent President, White House Staff, appointed committees, commissions or boards, or any entities within the Executive Office that solely advise and assist the incumbent President;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>NARA</I> means the National Archives and Records Administration;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Originator</I> means the CIA officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a CIA officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of this Order;
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Presidential libraries</I> means the libraries or collection authorities established by statute to house the papers of former Presidents Hoover, Roosevelt, Truman, Eisenhower, Kennedy, Nixon, Ford, Carter, Reagan, Bush and similar institutions or authorities as may be established in the future;
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Referral</I> means coordination with or transfer of action to an interested party;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>The Order</I> means Executive Order 13526 of December 29, 2009 and published at 75 FR 707 (or successor Orders);
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Agency Release Panel (ARP)</I> refers to the Agency's forum for reviewing information review and release policy, the adequacy of resources available to all Agency declassification and release programs, and hearing appeals in accordance with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 32495, June 16, 1997, as amended at76 FR 59033, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.03" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.03   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part or to request a declassification review, please direct your communication to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505. Such inquiries will also be accepted by facsimile at (703) 613-3007. For general or status information only, the telephone number is (703) 613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.04" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.04   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The Agency welcomes suggestions, comments, or complaints with regard to its administration of the mandatory declassification review program established under Executive Order 13526. Members of the public shall address such communications to the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator. The Agency will respond as determined feasible and appropriate under the circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Filing of Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.11   Preliminary information.</HEAD>
<P>Members of the public shall address all communications to the point of contact specified above and clearly delineate the communication as a request under this regulation. Requests and appeals on requests received from members of the public who owe outstanding fees for information services under this Order or the Freedom of Information Act at this or another federal agency will not be accepted until such debts are resolved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.12   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Mandatory Declassification Review requests will not be accepted from an individual who is not a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence, nor from a foreign government entity or any representative thereof. Declassification review requests will not be accepted for documents required to be submitted for prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement; for information that is the subject of pending litigation; nor for any document or material containing information contained within an operational file exempted from search and review, publication, and disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. If the Agency has reviewed the requested information for declassification within the past two years, the Agency will not conduct another review, but the Coordinator will notify requester of this fact, the prior review decision, and of applicable appeal rights pursuant to section 3.5(e) of the Order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59033, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.13" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.13   Requirements as to form.</HEAD>
<P>The request shall describe the document or material containing the information with sufficient specificity to enable the Agency to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59033, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.14" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.14   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of payment.</I> Fees may be paid in cash, by a check drawn on or money order made payable to the Treasurer of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reproduction fees.</I> Requesters submitting requests via NARA or the various Presidential libraries or making requests directly to this Agency shall be responsible for reproduction costs as follows: Fifty cents per page and $10.00 per CD. There is a minimum fee of $15.00 per request for reproductions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Search and review fees.</I> Requesters making requests directly to this agency also shall be liable for search and review fees as follows.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Search fees.</I> Applicable fees will be due even if our search locates no responsive information or some or all of the responsive information must be withheld under applicable authority.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Computer searching.</I> (1) Clerical/Technical—$20.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) Professional/Supervisory—$40.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(3) Manager/Senior Professional—$72.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Manual searching.</I> (1) Clerical/Technical—$20.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) Professional/Supervisory—$40.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(3) Manager/Senior Professional—$72.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Document review.</I> (1) Professional/Supervisory—$40.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) Manager/Senior Professional—$72.00 per hour (or fraction thereof).
</P>
<P>(3) CIA will not charge review fees for time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the responsive information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59033, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.21" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.21   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Information and Privacy Coordinator shall within ten (10) days record each mandatory declassification review request received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing (if received directly from a requester), and shall thereafter task the originator and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within ten (10) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.22" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.22   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.23" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.23   Determination by originator or interested party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The originator of the classified information (document) is a required party to any mandatory declassification review request; other interested parties may become involved through a referral by the Coordinator when it is determined that some or all of the information is also within their official cognizance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required determinations:</I> These parties shall respond in writing to the Coordinator with a finding as to the classified status of the information, including the category of protected information as set forth in section 1.4 of the Order, and, if older than ten years, the basis for the extension of classification time under sections 1.5 and 3.3 of the Order. These parties shall also indicate whether withholding is otherwise authorized and warranted in accordance with sections 3.5(c) and 6.2(d) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time.</I> This response shall be provided expeditiously on a “first-in, first-out” basis taking into account the business requirements of the originator or interested parties and consistent with the information rights of members of the general public under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 32495, June 16, 1997, as amended at76 FR 59034, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.24" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.24   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.31" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.31   Requirements as to time and form.</HEAD>
<P>Appeals of decisions must be received by the Coordinator within forty-five (45) days of the date of mailing of the Agency's initial decision. It shall identify with specificity the documents or information to be considered on appeal and it may, but need not, provide a factual or legal basis for the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.32" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.32   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall promptly record each appeal received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester, and task the originator and other interested parties. Additional taskings, as required during the review process, shall be accomplished within ten (10) days of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.33" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.33   Designation of authority to hear appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeals:</I> Appeals of initial denial decisions under the Mandatory Declassification Request provisions of Executive Order 13526 shall be reviewed by the Agency Release Panel, which shall issue the final Agency decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Membership:</I> The Agency Release Panel (ARP) is chaired by the Chief, Information Review and Release Group and composed of the Information Review Officers from the various Directorates and the Director, Central Intelligence Agency area, as well as the representatives of the various release programs and offices. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as Executive Secretary of the ARP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions:</I> The ARP shall meet on a regular schedule and may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. Issues shall be decided by a majority of the members present. Any member of the ARP disagreeing with the results of a vote may appeal the decision in writing to the Director, Information Management Services (D/IMS). The appeal shall set forth clearly and concisely the reasons D/IMS should reverse the ARP's decision. Upon receiving the written appeal, D/IMS shall have ten business days to affirm or reverse, in writing the APR's decision and shall so notify the appellant. In the event of a disagreement with any declassification and release decision by D/IMS, Directorate heads may appeal to the Associate Deputy Director of CIA (ADD) for resolution. The final Agency decision shall reflect the vote of the ARP, unless changed by the D/IMS or the ADD.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59034, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.34" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.34   Establishment of appeals structure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Two administrative entities have been established by the Director of Central Intelligence to facilitate the processing of administrative appeals under the mandatory declassification review provisions of this Order. Their membership, authority, and rules of procedure are as follows. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Historical Records Policy Board (“HRPB” or “Board”).</I> This Board, the successor to the CIA Information Review Committee, acts as the senior corporate board in the CIA on all matters of information review and release. It is composed of the Executive Director, who serves as its Chair, the Deputy Director for Administration, the Deputy Director for Intelligence, the Deputy Director for Operations, the Deputy Director for Science and Technology, the General Counsel, the Director of Congressional Affairs, the Director of the Public Affairs Staff, the Director, Center for the Study of Intelligence, and the Associate Deputy Director for Administration/Information Services, or their designees. The Board, by majority vote, may delegate to one or more of its members the authority to act on any appeal or other matter or authorize the Chair to delegate such authority, as long as such delegation is not to the same individual or body who made the initial denial. The Executive Secretary of the HRPB is the Director, Information Management. The Chair may request interested parties to participate when special equities or expertise are involved. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency Release Panel (“ARP” or “Panel”).</I> The HRPB, pursuant to its delegation of authority, has established a subordinate Agency Release Panel. This Panel is composed of the Director, Information Management, who serves as its Chair; the Information Review Officers from the Directorates of Administration, Intelligence, Operations, Science and Technology, and the Director of Central Intelligence Area; the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator; the Chief, Historical Review Group; the Chair, Publications Review Board; the Chief, Records Declassification Program; and representatives from the Offices of General Counsel and Congressional Affairs, and the Public Affairs Staff. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as the Executive Secretary of the Panel. The Panel advises and assists the HRPB on all information release issues, monitors the adequacy and timeliness of Agency releases, sets component search and review priorities, reviews adequacy of resources available to and planning for all Agency release programs, and performs such other functions as deemed necessary by the Board. The Chair may request interested parties to participate when special equities or expertise are involved. The Panel, functioning as a committee of the whole or through individual members, will make final Agency decisions from appeals of initial denial decisions under E.O. 12958. Issues not resolved by the Panel will be referred by the Panel to the HRPB. Matters decided by the Panel or Board will be deemed a final decision by the Agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.35" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.35   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.36" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.25.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.36   Notification of decision and right of further appeal.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary of the Agency Release Panel shall promptly prepare and communicate the final Agency decision to the requester, NARA, or the particular Presidential Library. That correspondence shall include a notice, if applicable, that an appeal of the decision may be made to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP) established pursuant to section 5.3 of the Order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59034, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Further Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.41" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.8.0.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.41   Right of further appeal.</HEAD>
<P>A right of further appeal may be available to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel established pursuant to section 5.3 of the Order. Action by that Panel will be the subject of rules to be promulgated by the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59034, Sept. 23, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1909" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1909—ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED CIA INFORMATION BY HISTORICAL RESEARCHERS AND CERTAIN FORMER GOVERNMENT PERSONNEL PURSUANT TO SEC. 4.4 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 13526
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Executive Order 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., p. 298-327 (or successor Orders).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 64063, Sept. 19, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1909.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of and in order to implement section 4.4 of Executive Order 13526, as amended (or successor Orders); section 1.6 of Executive Order 12333, as amended (or successor Orders); section 102A of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended; and section 6 of the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1947, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes procedures for waiving the need-to-know requirement for access to classified information with respect to persons:
</P>
<P>(1) Requesting access to classified CIA information as historical researchers;
</P>
<P>(2) Requesting access to classified CIA information as a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee; or
</P>
<P>(3) Requesting access to classified CIA information as a former President or Vice President.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.2" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency Release Panel or Panel or ARP</I> means the CIA Agency Release Panel established pursuant to part 1900 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>CIA</I> means the Unites States Central Intelligence Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of the CIA pursuant to Federal statute or legal privilege to regulate official or public access to records.
</P>
<P><I>Coordinator</I> means the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator who serves as the CIA manager of the historical access process established pursuant to section 4.4 of the Order.
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means business days. Three (3) days may be added to any time limit imposed on a requester by this part if responding by U.S. domestic mail; ten (10) days may be added if responding by international mail;
</P>
<P><I>Director of Security</I> means the CIA official responsible for making determinations regarding all security and access approvals and overseeing execution of the necessary secrecy, nondisclosure, and/or prepublication review agreements as may be required.
</P>
<P><I>Former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee</I> means any person who has previously occupied a senior policy-making position in the Executive branch of the United States Government to which they were appointed or designated by the current or a former President or Vice President.
</P>
<P><I>Historical researcher</I> means any individual with professional training in the academic field of history (or related fields such as journalism) engaged in a historical research project that is intended for publication (or any similar activity such as academic course development) and that is reasonably intended to increase the understanding of the American public regarding the operations and activities of the United States Government. This term also means anyone selected by a former President or Vice President, or by a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee, to assist them in historical research as a research associate.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form that is owned by, produced by or for, or is under the control of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or U.S. Government contractor who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue;
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means the CIA officer who originated the information at issue, or successor in office, or a CIA officer who has been delegated declassification authority for the information at issue in accordance with the provisions of the Order.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means Executive Order 13526 of December 29, 2009 and published at 75 FR 707 (or successor Orders).
</P>
<P><I>Senior Agency Official</I> means the official designated by the DCIA under section 5.4(d) of the Order to direct and administer the CIA's program under which information is classified, safeguarded, and declassified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.3" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.3   Contact for general information and requests.</HEAD>
<P>For general information on this part, to inquire about access to CIA information under this part, or to make a formal request for such access, please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505. Inquiries will also by accepted by facsimile at (703) 613-3007. For general information only, the telephone number is (703) 613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.4" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.4   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The CIA welcomes suggestions, comments, or complaints with regard to its administration of the historical access provisions of Executive Order 13526. Members of the public shall address all such communications to the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator. The CIA will respond as determined feasible and appropriate under the circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.5" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.5   Requirements as to who may apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Historical researchers</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Any historical researcher as defined above may submit a request in writing to the Coordinator to be given access to classified information for purposes of that research. Any such request shall indicate the nature, purpose, and scope of the research project.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional considerations.</I> In light of the very limited Agency resources, it is the policy of the Agency to consider applications for access by historical researchers (other than research associates) only in those instances where the researcher's needs cannot be satisfied through requests for access to reasonably described records under the Freedom of Information Act or the mandatory declassification review provisions of Executive Order 13526, and where issues of internal resource availability and fairness to all members of the historical research community militate in favor of a particular grant.
</P>
<P>(b) Former Presidential and Vice Presidential appointees or designees. Any former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee as defined herein may also submit a request to be given access to any classified items which they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity. Requests from such appointees or designees shall be in writing to the Coordinator and shall identify the records containing the classified information of interest. Such appointees or designees may also request approval for a research associate, but there is no entitlement to such enlargement of access and the decision in this regard shall be in the sole discretion of the Senior Agency Official.
</P>
<P>(c) Former Presidents and Vice Presidents. Any former President or Vice President may submit a request for access to classified CIA information. Requests from former Presidents or Vice Presidents shall be in writing to the Coordinator and shall identify the records containing the classified information of interest. A former President or Vice President may also request approval for a research associate, but there is no entitlement to such enlargement of access and the decision in this regard shall be in the sole discretion of the Senior Agency Official


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.6" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.6   Designation of authority to waive need-to-know and grant historical access requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Agency Release Panel (ARP)</I> is designated to review requests and shall issue a recommendation to the Senior Agency Official who shall issue the final CIA decision whether or not to waive the need-to-know and grant requests for access by historical researchers, by former Presidential and Vice Presidential appointees and designees, or by former Presidents and Vice Presidents under Executive Order 13526 (or successor Orders) and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ARP Membership.</I> The ARP is chaired by the Director, Information Management Services and composed of the Chief, Information Review and Release Group, the Chief, Classification Management Program Office, the Information Review Officers from the various Directorates and the DCIA area, as well as the representatives of the various release programs and offices within CIA. The Information and Privacy Coordinator also serves as Executive Secretary of the ARP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.7" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.7   Receipt, recording, and tasking.</HEAD>
<P>The Information and Privacy Coordinator shall within ten (10) days make a record of each request for access received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance with general requirements.</I> The Coordinator shall review each request under this part and determine whether it meets the general requirements as set forth in § 1909.5 and notify the requester that the request has been accepted for consideration if it does. If it does not, the Coordinator shall so notify the requester and explain the basis for this decision and any steps that can be taken to perfect the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on requests meeting general requirements.</I> For requests which meet the requirements of § 1909.5, the Coordinator shall thereafter task the Director, Center for the Study of Intelligence, the originator(s) of the information for which access is sought, and other interested parties to review the request and provide their input concerning whether or not the required determinations set forth in § 1909.8 can be made. Additional taskings may be directed as required during the review process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.8" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.8   Determinations on requests for access by former Presidents and Vice Presidents, former Presidential and Vice Presidential appointees or designees, and historical researchers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required determinations for former Presidents and Vice Presidents.</I> In order to recommend approval of an access request made by a former President or Vice President, the ARP must make the following determinations in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security;
</P>
<P>(2) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
</P>
<P>(3) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript; and,
</P>
<P>(4) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required determinations for former Presidential and Vice Presidential appointees or designees.</I> In order to recommend approval of an access request made by a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee, the ARP must make the following determinations in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) That the requester has previously occupied a senior policy-making position to which the requester was appointed or designated by the President or Vice President;
</P>
<P>(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security;
</P>
<P>(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
</P>
<P>(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
</P>
<P>(5) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
</P>
<P>(6) That access will be limited to items that the person originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required determinations for a research associate of a former President or Vice President, or of a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee.</I> In order to recommend approval of a request for historical access by a research associate, the ARP must make the following determinations in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) That the requester has been selected as a research associate of a former President or Vice President, or of a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee;
</P>
<P>(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security, and one factor in that determination is that an appropriate security check has been conducted and a security clearance or access has been issued by an appropriate U.S. Government agency;
</P>
<P>(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
</P>
<P>(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
</P>
<P>(5) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
</P>
<P>(6) That, in the case of a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee, access by the research associate will be limited to items that the Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee who selected the research associate originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required determinations for a historical researcher (other than a research associate).</I> In order to recommend approval of an access request made by a historical researcher (other than a research associate to which paragraph (c) of this section applies) the ARP must make the following determinations in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) That a serious professional or scholarly research project by the requester is contemplated;
</P>
<P>(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security, and one factor in that determination is that an appropriate security check has been conducted and a security clearance or access has been issued by an appropriate U.S. Government agency;
</P>
<P>(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester, and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
</P>
<P>(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester, which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
</P>
<P>(5) That the information requested is reasonably accessible and can be located and compiled with a reasonable effort;
</P>
<P>(6) That it is reasonably expected that substantial and substantive Government documents and/or information will be amenable to declassification and release and/or publication;
</P>
<P>(7) That sufficient resources are available for the administrative support of the historical researcher given current requirements; and,
</P>
<P>(8) That the request cannot be satisfied to the same extent through requests for access to reasonably described records under the Freedom of Information Act or the Mandatory Declassification Review provisions of Executive Order 13526.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.9" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.9   Action by the ARP.</HEAD>
<P>The ARP shall meet on a regular schedule and may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. A recommendation to the Senior Agency Official concerning whether or not to grant requests for access to classified CIA information by former Presidents or Vice Presidents, by former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees or designees, or by historical researchers shall be made by a majority vote of the members present.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.10" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.10   Final CIA decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a recommendation by the ARP concerning whether or not to grant access to classified CIA information under this part, the Senior Agency Official may, in his sole discretion, waive the need-to-know requirement and approve such access only if he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines in writing that access is consistent with the interests of national security;
</P>
<P>(2) Takes appropriate steps to protect classified information from unauthorized disclosure or compromise and ensures that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
</P>
<P>(3) Limits any access granted to former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees and designees (or any research associate they select) to the items that the former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of the Central Intelligence Agency reserves the authority to make a superseding decision concerning whether or not to waive the need-to-know requirement and to grant access to classified CIA information under this part in any case only if he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines in writing that access is consistent with the interests of national security;
</P>
<P>(2) Takes appropriate steps to protect classified information from unauthorized disclosure or compromise, and ensures that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
</P>
<P>(3) Limits any historical access granted to former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees and designees (or any research associate they select) to the items that the former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity.
</P>
<P>(c) The Senior Agency Official also may make a determination that a successive request for historical access falls within the scope of an earlier waiver of the “need-to-know” criterion under section 4.4 of the Order, so long as the extant waiver is no more than two years old.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.11" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.11   Notification of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary shall inform the requester of the final CIA decision and, if favorable, shall manage the access for such period of time as deemed required, but in no event for more than two years unless renewed by the Senior Agency Official, in accordance with the requirements of this part for waiving need-to-know and granting access in the first instance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1909.12" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.9.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1909.12   Termination of access.</HEAD>
<P>The Coordinator shall cancel any authorization and deny any further access whenever the Director of Security cancels the security clearance of any person who has been granted access to classified CIA information under the part; or whenever the Senior Agency Official, or the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency, determines that continued access would no longer be consistent with the requirements of this part; or at the conclusion of the authorized period of up to two years if there is no renewal under § 1909.11.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1910" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1910—DEBARMENT AND SUSPENSION PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 401-442; 50 U.S.C. 403a-403u; 48 CFR ch. 1, subpart 9.4.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.10.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), in accordance with its authorities under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, as amended, and the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, has an established debarment and suspension process in accordance with subpart 9.402(d) of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). This process and the causes for debarment and suspension are consistent with those found in FAR 9.406 and 9.407. The rights of CIA contractors in all matters involving debarment and suspension are hereby governed by the provisions of subpart 9.4 of the FAR.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 63064, Oct. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1911" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1911—SPECIAL PROCEDURES FOR DISCRETIONARY ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED HISTORICAL CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY RECORDS REQUESTED BY OTHER FEDERAL AGENCIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.;</I> Executive Order 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., p. 298-327, (or successor Orders); Executive Order 12333, 40 FR 235, 3 CFR 1981 Comp., p. 200 (or successor Orders).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 52591, Aug. 9, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1911.1" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.11.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, as amended, Executive Order 13526 (or successor Orders), and section 1.6 of Executive Order 12333, as amended (or successor Orders).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes procedures for providing, as a matter of discretion, appropriately cleared staff and contractor personnel of other Federal agencies with access to classified historical CIA records that their agency has requested when such access is not expressly required by statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.2" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.11.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency Release Panel (ARP)</I> means the CIA Agency Release Panel set forth in part 1900 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>CIA</I> means the United States Central Intelligence Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means ownership or the authority of the CIA pursuant to Federal statute or privilege to regulate official or public access to records.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any executive department, military department or other establishment or entity included in the definition of agency in 5 U.S.C. 552(f).
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means any knowledge that can be communicated or documentary material, regardless of its physical form that is owned by, produced by or for, or is under the control of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means any official in the executive, military, congressional, or judicial branches of government, United States or foreign, or under U.S. Government contract who, in the sole discretion of the CIA, has a subject matter or physical interest in the documents or information at issue.
</P>
<P><I>Records</I> mean records as defined by 44 U.S.C. 3301.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.3" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.11.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to requests for access to current information or finished intelligence that is routinely disseminated to other Federal agencies in support of the CIA's intelligence, counterintelligence, or special activities responsibilities, or for administrative purposes. This part applies to special requests for access to classified historical CIA records in furtherance of historical research and not expressly required by statute that fall outside of the regular channels and procedures that CIA has already established to provide information to U.S. Government customers. Examples include, but are not limited to, a Federal agency, including a branch of the military, conducting research in preparation for the production of a set of historical studies, an official agency history, or a review of past military activities, that require access to classified historical CIA records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.4" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.11.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.4   Federal agency requests for access and processing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Federal agency requests.</I> Cleared staff and contractor personnel, working for a Federal agency, and seeking access to classified CIA historical records in an official capacity, shall send the request to the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator (Coordinator) identifying the particular records needed, the purpose for which the records are needed, whether declassification of the information contained in the records will be required, and the position and security clearances or security approvals held by the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special procedures.</I> The Coordinator shall review the request and solicit input from the Director of the Center for the Study of Intelligence and other interested parties concerning whether or not the required determinations set forth in paragraph (c) of this section can be made. After considering any input received, the Coordinator will either make or not make the determinations set forth in paragraph (c), in consultation with the ARP, and forward the request and the Coordinator's recommendation to the Chief, Information Review and Release Group (IRRG), Information Management Services for decision on whether or not to provide the access requested. A negative determination by the Chief of IRRG shall be reviewed by the Director, Information Management Services, who shall issue the final CIA decision whether or not to grant the request for access.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determinations.</I> As a condition precedent for access, the Coordinator must make all of the following determinations with respect to each request:
</P>
<P>(1) That the requester is a current staff employee or contractor of the U.S. Government;
</P>
<P>(2) That the requester is currently cleared, or security approved, for access to classified information and that the specific clearance or security approval and access levels of that individual has been officially recorded;
</P>
<P>(3) That the scope of the request for information is clearly delineated;
</P>
<P>(4) That the information requested is reasonably accessible and can be located and compiled with a reasonable effort;
</P>
<P>(5) That a nondisclosure agreement with a prepublication review clause has been executed by the requester;
</P>
<P>(6) That all notes and any resulting document will be appropriately safeguarded, that further access will be appropriately limited, and that no further dissemination of information such as that marked ORCON (Dissemination and Extraction of Information Controlled by Originator) or HUMINT (Human Intelligence) shall be made beyond the requesting agency unless CIA permission is obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) That if the resulting document containing CIA information or equities is intended to be declassified, the document will be submitted to the Coordinator for declassification review;
</P>
<P>(8) That the information and documents will remain classified until a final declassification review and release decision is made by CIA; and,
</P>
<P>(9) That the request for access is an official agency request, made in the requester's official capacity on behalf of the requester's agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) With respect to requests for access to CIA information and equities residing outside of CIA, upon a favorable CIA determination in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, the CIA will notify both the requester and the agency holding the records with CIA equities. The requester will need to follow the access requirements of the agency holding the records in addition to any access requirements mandated by CIA.
</P>
<P>(2) If access to classified historical CIA records is granted, as a rule, such access shall be provided on CIA premises only. No copies of any classified historical CIA records shall be provided to the requester for reference and use on requester premises without the express approval of the Director, Information Management Services. In exceptional cases, if the provision of classified CIA historical records to the requester for reference and use on requester premises is permitted, the classified CIA historical records provided shall not be disclosed or disseminated beyond the requesting agency, and shall be returned to CIA or destroyed when use of the records has ended. Similarly, any notes taken that are derived from classified historical CIA records that have been accessed in accordance with this part shall not be disclosed or disseminated beyond the requesting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1912-1999" NODE="32:6.2.5.17.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1912-1999 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XX" NODE="32:6.2.6" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XX—INFORMATION SECURITY OVERSIGHT OFFICE, NATIONAL ARCHIVES AND RECORDS ADMINISTRATION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2000" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2000—ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2001" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2001—CLASSIFIED NATIONAL SECURITY INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 5.1(a) and (b), E.O. 13526, (75 FR 707, January 5, 2010).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 37254, June 28, 2010, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope of Part</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.1" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued under Executive Order. (E.O.) 13526, <I>Classified National Security Information</I> (the Order). Section 5 of the Order provides that the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) shall develop and issue such directives as are necessary to implement the Order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Order provides that these directives are binding on agencies. Section 6.1(a) of the Order defines “agency” to mean any “Executive agency” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any “Military department” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the executive branch that comes into the possession of classified information.
</P>
<P>(c) For the convenience of the user, the following table provides references between the sections contained in this part and the relevant sections of the Order.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFR section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Related section of E.O. 13526
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.10 Classification standards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1, 1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.11 Original classification authority</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.12 Duration of classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.13 Classification prohibitions and limitations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.14 Classification challenges</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.15 Classification guides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.16 Fundamental classification guidance review</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.20 General</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.21 Original classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6(a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.22 Derivative classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.23 Classification marking in the electronic environment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.24 Additional requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.25 Declassification markings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5, 1.6, 3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.26 Automatic declassification exemption markings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.30 Automatic declassification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3, 3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.31 Systematic declassification review</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.32 Declassification guides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3, 3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.33 Mandatory review for declassification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5, 3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.34 Referrals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3, 3.6, 3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.35 Discretionary declassification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.36 Classified information in the custody of private organizations or individuals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.37 Assistance to the Department of State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.40 General</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.41 Responsibilities of holders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.42 Standards for security equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.43 Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.44 Reciprocity of use and inspection of facilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.45 Information controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1, 4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.46 Transmission</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1, 4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.47 Destruction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1, 4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.48 Loss, possible compromise, or unauthorized disclosure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1, 4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.49 Special access programs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.50 Telecommunications, automated information systems, and network security</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1, 4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.51 Technical security</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.52 Emergency authority</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.53 Open storage areas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.54 Foreign government information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.55 Foreign disclosure of classified information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1(i)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.60 Self-Inspections, General</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.70 Security Education and Training, General</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.71 Coverage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3(d), 2.1(d), 3.7(b), 4.1(b), 5.4(d)(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.80 Prescribed standard forms</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2(b)(7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.90 Agency annual reporting requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3(c), 5.2(b)(4), 5.4(d)(4), 5.4(d)(8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.91 Other agency reporting requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3(d), 1.7(c)(3), 1.9(d), 2.1(d), 5.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001.92 Definitions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.10" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.10   Classification standards.</HEAD>
<P><I>Identifying or describing damage to the national security.</I> Section 1.1(a) of the Order specifies the conditions that must be met when making classification decisions. Section 1.4 specifies that information shall not be considered for classification unless its unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable or describable damage to the national security. There is no requirement, at the time of the decision, for the original classification authority to prepare a written description of such damage. However, the original classification authority must be able to support the decision in writing, including identifying or describing the damage, should the classification decision become the subject of a challenge or access demand pursuant to the Order or law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.11" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.11   Original classification authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Agencies shall establish a training program for original classifiers in accordance with subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for original classification authority.</I> Agencies not possessing such authority shall forward requests to the Director of ISOO. The agency head must make the request and shall provide a specific justification of the need for this authority. The Director of ISOO shall forward the request, along with the Director's recommendation, to the President through the National Security Advisor within 30 days. Agencies wishing to increase their assigned level of original classification authority shall forward requests in accordance with the procedures of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting delegations of original classification authority.</I> All delegations of original classification authority shall be reported to the Director of ISOO. This can be accomplished by an initial submission followed by updates on a frequency determined by the senior agency official, but at least annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.12" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.12   Duration of classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining duration of classification for information originally classified under the Order</I>—(1) <I>Establishing duration of classification.</I> Except for information that should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source or a human intelligence source or key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, an original classification authority shall follow the sequence listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section when determining the duration of classification for information originally classified under this Order.
</P>
<P>(i) The original classification authority shall attempt to determine a date or event that is less than 10 years from the date of original classification and which coincides with the lapse of the information's national security sensitivity, and shall assign such date or event as the declassification instruction.
</P>
<P>(ii) If unable to determine a date or event of less than 10 years, the original classification authority shall ordinarily assign a declassification date that is 10 years from the date of the original classification decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) If unable to determine a date or event of 10 years, the original classification authority shall assign a declassification date not to exceed 25 years from the date of the original classification decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration of classification of special categories of information.</I> The only exceptions to the sequence in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If an original classification authority is classifying information that should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source or a human intelligence source, the duration shall be up to 75 years and shall be designated with the following marking, “50X1-HUM;” or
</P>
<P>(ii) If an original classification authority is classifying information that should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, the duration shall be up to 75 years and shall be designated with the following marking, “50X2-WMD.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extending duration of classification for information classified under the Order.</I> Extensions of classification are not automatic. If an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information does not extend the classification of information assigned a date or event for declassification, the information is automatically declassified upon the occurrence of the date or event.
</P>
<P>(1) If the date or event assigned by the original classification authority has not passed, an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information may extend the classification duration of such information for a period not to exceed 25 years from the date of origin of the record.
</P>
<P>(2) If the date or event assigned by the original classification authority has passed, an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information may reclassify the information in accordance with the Order and this Directive only if it meets the standards for classification under sections 1.1 and 1.5 of the Order as well as section 3.3 of the Order, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) In all cases, when extending the duration of classification, the original classification authority must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the information continues to meet the standards for classification under the Order; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Make reasonable attempts to notify all known holders of the information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of information classified under prior orders</I>—(1) <I>Specific date or event.</I> Unless declassified earlier, information marked with a specific date or event for declassification under a prior order is automatically declassified upon that date or event. If the specific date or event has not passed, an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information may extend the duration in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the date or event assigned by the original classification authority has passed, an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information may only reclassify information in accordance with the standards and procedures under the Order and this Directive. If the information is contained in records determined to be permanently valuable, and the prescribed date or event will take place more than 25 years from the date of origin of the document, the declassification of the information will instead be subject to section 3.3 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indefinite duration of classification.</I> For information marked with X1, X2, X3, X4, X5, X6, X7, or X8; “Originating Agency's Determination Required” or its acronym “OADR,” “Manual Review” or its acronym “MR;” “DCI Only;” “DNI Only;” and any other marking indicating an indefinite duration of classification under a prior order; or in those cases where a document is missing a required declassification instruction or the instruction is not complete:
</P>
<P>(i) A declassification authority, as defined in section 3.1(b) of the Order, may declassify it;
</P>
<P>(ii) An original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information may re-mark the information to establish a duration of classification of no more than 25 years from the date of origin of the document, consistent with the requirements for information originally classified under the Order, as provided in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless declassified earlier, such information contained in records determined to be permanently valuable shall remain classified for 25 years from the date of its origin, at which time it will be subject to section 3.3 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Release of imagery acquired by space-based intelligence reconnaissance systems.</I> The duration of classification of imagery as defined in E.O. 12951, <I>Release of Imagery Acquired by Space-Based Intelligence Reconnaissance Systems,</I> that is otherwise marked with an indefinite duration, such as “DCI Only” or “DNI Only,” shall be established by the Director of National Intelligence in accordance with E.O. 12951 and consistent with E.O. 13526. Any such information shall be remarked in accordance with instructions prescribed by the Director of National Intelligence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.13" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.13   Classification prohibitions and limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Declassification without proper authority.</I> Classified information that has been declassified without proper authority, as determined by an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information, remains classified and administrative action shall be taken to restore markings and controls, as appropriate. All such determinations shall be reported to the senior agency official who shall promptly provide a written report to the Director of ISOO.
</P>
<P>(1) If the information at issue is in records in the physical and legal custody of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) and has been made available to the public, the original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information shall, as part of determining whether the restoration of markings and controls is appropriate, consider whether the removal of the information from public purview will significantly mitigate the harm to national security or otherwise draw undue attention to the information at issue. Written notification, classified when appropriate under the Order, shall be made to the Archivist, which shall include a description of the record(s) at issue, the elements of information that are classified, the duration of classification, and the specific authority for continued classification. If the information at issue is more than 25 years of age and the Archivist does not agree with the decision, the information shall nonetheless be temporarily withdrawn from public access and shall be referred to the Director of ISOO for resolution in collaboration with affected parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reclassification after declassification and release to the public under proper authority.</I> In making the decision to reclassify information that has been declassified and released to the public under proper authority, the agency head must approve, in writing, a determination on a document-by-document basis that the reclassification is required to prevent significant and demonstrable damage to the national security. As part of making such a determination, the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The information must be reasonably recoverable without bringing undue attention to the information which means that:
</P>
<P>(i) Most individual recipients or holders are known and can be contacted and all instances of the information to be reclassified will not be more widely disseminated;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the information has been made available to the public via a means such as Government archives or reading room, consideration is given to length of time the record has been available to the public, the extent to which the record has been accessed for research, and the extent to which the record and/or classified information at issue has been copied, referenced, or publicized; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the information has been made available to the public via electronic means such as the internet, consideration is given as to the number of times the information was accessed, the form of access, and whether the information at issue has been copied, referenced, or publicized.
</P>
<P>(2) If the reclassification concerns a record in the physical custody of NARA and has been available for public use, reclassification requires notification to the Archivist and approval by the Director of ISOO.
</P>
<P>(3) Any recipients or holders of the reclassified information who have current security clearances shall be appropriately briefed about their continuing legal obligations and responsibilities to protect this information from unauthorized disclosure. The recipients or holders who do not have security clearances shall, to the extent practicable, be appropriately briefed about the reclassification of the information that they have had access to, their obligation not to disclose the information, and be requested to sign an acknowledgement of this briefing.
</P>
<P>(4) The reclassified information must be appropriately marked in accordance with section 2001.24(l) and safeguarded. The markings should include the authority for and the date of the reclassification action.
</P>
<P>(5) Once the reclassification action has occurred, it must be reported to the National Security Advisor and to the Director of ISOO by the agency head or senior agency official within 30 days. The notification must include details concerning paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification by compilation.</I> A determination that information is classified through the compilation of unclassified information is a derivative classification action based upon existing original classification guidance. If the compilation of unclassified information reveals a new aspect of information that meets the criteria for classification, it shall be referred to an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information to make an original classification decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.14" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.14   Classification challenges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Challenging classification.</I> Authorized holders, including authorized holders outside the classifying agency, who want to challenge the classification status of information shall present such challenges to an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information. An authorized holder is any individual who has been granted access to specific classified information in accordance with the provisions of the Order to include the special conditions set forth in section 4.1(h) of the Order. A formal challenge under this provision must be in writing, but need not be any more specific than to question why information is or is not classified, or is classified at a certain level.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency procedures.</I> (1) Because the Order encourages authorized holders to challenge classification as a means for promoting proper and thoughtful classification actions, agencies shall ensure that no retribution is taken against any authorized holders bringing such a challenge in good faith.
</P>
<P>(2) Agencies shall establish a system for processing, tracking and recording formal classification challenges made by authorized holders. Agencies shall consider classification challenges separately from Freedom of Information Act or other access requests, and shall not process such challenges in turn with pending access requests.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency shall provide an initial written response to a challenge within 60 days. If the agency is unable to respond to the challenge within 60 days, the agency must acknowledge the challenge in writing, and provide a date by which the agency will respond. The acknowledgment must include a statement that if no agency response is received within 120 days, the challenger has the right to forward the challenge to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (Panel) for a decision. The challenger may also forward the challenge to the Panel if an agency has not responded to an internal appeal within 90 days of the agency's receipt of the appeal. Agency responses to those challenges it denies shall include the challenger's appeal rights to the Panel.
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever an agency receives a classification challenge to information that has been the subject of a challenge within the past two years, or that is the subject of pending litigation, the agency is not required to process the challenge beyond informing the challenger of this fact and of the challenger's appeal rights, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional considerations.</I> (1) Challengers and agencies shall attempt to keep all challenges, appeals and responses unclassified. However, classified information contained in a challenge, an agency response, or an appeal shall be handled and protected in accordance with the Order and this Directive. Information being challenged for classification shall remain classified unless and until a final decision is made to declassify it.
</P>
<P>(2) The classification challenge provision is not intended to prevent an authorized holder from informally questioning the classification status of particular information. Such informal inquiries should be encouraged as a means of holding down the number of formal challenges and to ensure the integrity of the classification process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.15" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.15   Classification guides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation of classification guides.</I> Originators of classification guides are encouraged to consult users of guides for input when developing or updating guides. When possible, originators of classification guides are encouraged to communicate within their agencies and with other agencies that are developing guidelines for similar activities to ensure the consistency and uniformity of classification decisions. Each agency shall maintain a list of its classification guides in use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General content of classification guides.</I> Classification guides shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the subject matter of the classification guide;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the original classification authority by name and position, or personal identifier;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify an agency point-of-contact or points-of-contact for questions regarding the classification guide;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the date of issuance or last review;
</P>
<P>(5) State precisely the elements of information to be protected;
</P>
<P>(6) State which classification level applies to each element of information, and, when useful, specify the elements of information that are unclassified;
</P>
<P>(7) State, when applicable, special handling caveats;
</P>
<P>(8) State a concise reason for classification which, at a minimum, cites the applicable classification category or categories in section 1.4 of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(9) Prescribe a specific date or event for declassification, the marking “50X1-HUM” or “50X2-WMD” as appropriate, or one or more of the exemption codes listed in 2001.26(a)(2), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The exemption has been approved by the Panel under section 3.3(j) of the Order;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Panel is notified of the intent to take such actions for specific information in advance of approval and the information remains in active use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The exemption code is accompanied with a declassification date or event that has been approved by the Panel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dissemination of classification guides.</I> Classification guides shall be disseminated as necessary to ensure the proper and uniform derivative classification of information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reviewing and updating classification guides.</I> (1) Agencies shall incorporate original classification decisions into classification guides as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Originators of classification guides are encouraged to consult the users of guides and other subject matter experts when reviewing or updating guides. Also, users of classification guides are encouraged to notify the originator of the guide when they acquire information that suggests the need for change in the instructions contained in the guide.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.16" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.16   Fundamental classification guidance review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Performance of fundamental classification guidance reviews.</I> An initial fundamental classification guidance review shall be completed by every agency with original classification authority and which authors security classification guides no later than June 27, 2012. Agencies shall conduct fundamental classification guidance reviews on a periodic basis thereafter. The frequency of the reviews shall be determined by each agency considering factors such as the number of classification guides and the volume and type of information they cover. However, a review shall be conducted at least once every five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage of reviews.</I> At a minimum, the fundamental classification guidance review shall focus on:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluation of content.
</P>
<P>(i) Determining if the guidance conforms to current operational and technical circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining if the guidance meets the standards for classification under section 1.4 of the Order and an assessment of likely damage under section 1.2 of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluation of use:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining if the dissemination and availability of the guidance is appropriate, timely, and effective; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An examination of recent classification decisions that focuses on ensuring that classification decisions reflect the intent of the guidance as to what is classified, the appropriate level, the duration, and associated markings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Participation in reviews.</I> The agency head or senior agency official shall direct the conduct of a fundamental classification guidance review and shall ensure the appropriate agency subject matter experts participate to obtain the broadest possible range of perspectives. To the extent practicable, input should also be obtained from external subject matter experts and external users of the reviewing agency's classification guidance and decisions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports on results.</I> Agency heads shall provide a detailed report summarizing the results of each classification guidance review to ISOO and release an unclassified version to the public except when the existence of the guide or program is itself classified.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Identification and Markings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.20" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>A uniform security classification system requires that standard markings or other indicia be applied to classified information. Except in extraordinary circumstances, or as approved by the Director of ISOO, the marking of classified information shall not deviate from the following prescribed formats. If markings cannot be affixed to specific classified information or materials, the originator shall provide holders or recipients of the information with written instructions for protecting the information. Markings shall be uniformly and conspicuously applied to leave no doubt about the classified status of the information, the level of protection required, and the duration of classification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.21" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.21   Original classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Primary markings.</I> At the time of original classification, the following shall be indicated in a manner that is immediately apparent:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Classification authority.</I> The name and position, or personal identifier, of the original classification authority shall appear on the “Classified By” line. An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: David Smith, Chief, Division 5</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>or
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: ID#IMNO1</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Agency and office of origin.</I> If not otherwise evident, the agency and office of origin shall be identified and follow the name on the “Classified By” line. An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: David Smith, Chief, Division 5, Department of Good Works, Office of Administration.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Reason for classification.</I> The original classification authority shall identify the reason(s) for the decision to classify. The original classification authority shall include on the “Reason” line the number 1.4 plus the letter(s) that corresponds to that classification category in section 1.4 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(i) These categories, as they appear in the Order, are as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Military plans, weapons systems, or operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Foreign government information;
</P>
<P>(C) Intelligence activities (including covert action), intelligence sources or methods, or cryptology;
</P>
<P>(D) Foreign relations or foreign activities of the United States, including confidential sources;
</P>
<P>(E) Scientific, technological, or economic matters relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(F) United States Government programs for safeguarding nuclear materials or facilities;
</P>
<P>(G) Vulnerabilities or capabilities of systems, installations, infrastructures, projects, plans, or protection services relating to the national security; or
</P>
<P>(H) The development, production, or use of weapons of mass destruction.
</P>
<P>(ii) An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: David Smith, Chief, Division 5, Department of Good Works, Office of Administration Reason: 1.4(g)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Declassification instructions.</I> The duration of the original classification decision shall be placed on the “Declassify On” line. When declassification dates are displayed numerically, the following format shall be used: YYYYMMDD. Events must be reasonably definite and foreseeable. The original classification authority will apply one of the following instructions:
</P>
<P>(i) A date or event for declassification that corresponds to the lapse of the information's national security sensitivity, which is equal to or less than 10 years from the date of the original decision. The duration of classification would be marked as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: David Smith, Chief, Division 5, Department of Good Works, Office of Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reason: 1.4(g)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Declassify On: 20201014 or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Declassify On: Completion of Operation</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) A date not to exceed 25 years from the date of the original decision. For example, on a document that contains information classified on October 10, 2010, apply a date up to 25 years on the “Declassify On” line:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: David Smith, Chief, Division 5, Department of Good Works, Office of Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reason: 1.4(g)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Declassify On: 20351010</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) If the classified information should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source or a human intelligence source, no date or event is required and the marking “50X1-HUM” shall be used in the “Declassify On” line; or
</P>
<P>(iv) If the classified information should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, no date or event is required and the marking “50X2-WMD” shall be used in the “Declassify On” line.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overall marking.</I> The highest level of classification is determined by the highest level of any one portion within the document and shall appear in a way that will distinguish it clearly from the informational text.
</P>
<P>(1) Conspicuously place the overall classification at the top and bottom of the outside of the front cover (if any), on the title page (if any), on the first page, and on the outside of the back cover (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) For documents containing information classified at more than one level, the overall marking shall be the highest level. For example, if a document contains some information marked “Secret” and other information marked “Confidential,” the overall marking would be “Secret.”
</P>
<P>(3) Each interior page of a classified document shall be marked at the top and bottom either with the highest level of classification of information contained on that page, including the designation “Unclassified” when it is applicable, or with the highest overall classification of the document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portion marking.</I> Each portion of a document, ordinarily a paragraph, but including subjects, titles, graphics, tables, charts, bullet statements, sub-paragraphs, classified signature blocks, bullets and other portions within slide presentations, and the like, shall be marked to indicate which portions are classified and which portions are unclassified by placing a parenthetical symbol immediately preceding the portion to which it applies.
</P>
<P>(1) To indicate the appropriate classification level, the symbols “(TS)” for Top Secret, “(S)” for Secret, and “(C)” for Confidential will be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Portions which do not meet the standards of the Order for classification shall be marked with “(U)” for Unclassified.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where portions are segmented such as paragraphs, sub-paragraphs, bullets, and sub-bullets and the classification level is the same throughout, it is sufficient to put only one portion marking at the beginning of the main paragraph or main bullet. If there are different levels of classification among these segments, then all segments shall be portion marked separately in order to avoid over-classification of any one segment. If the information contained in a sub-paragraph or sub-bullet is a higher level of classification than its parent paragraph or parent bullet, this does not make the parent paragraph or parent bullet classified at that same level. Each portion shall reflect the classification level of that individual portion and not any other portions. At the same time, any portion, no matter what its status, is still capable of determining the overall classification of the document.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dissemination control and handling markings.</I> Many agencies require additional control and handling markings that supplement the overall classification markings. See § 2001.24(j) for specific guidance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of origin of document.</I> The date of origin of the document shall be indicated in a manner that is immediately apparent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.22" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.22   Derivative classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Information classified derivatively on the basis of source documents or classification guides shall bear all markings prescribed in § 2001.20 and § 2001.21, except as provided in this section. Information for these markings shall be carried forward from the source document or taken from instructions in the appropriate classification guide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identity of persons who apply derivative classification markings.</I> Derivative classifiers shall be identified by name and position, or by personal identifier, in a manner that is immediately apparent on each derivatively classified document. If not otherwise evident, the agency and office of origin shall be identified and follow the name on the “Classified By” line. An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Classified By: Peggy Jones, Lead Analyst, Research and Analysis Division or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Classified By: ID # IMN01</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Source of derivative classification.</I> (1) The derivative classifier shall concisely identify the source document or the classification guide on the “Derived From” line, including the agency and, where available, the office of origin, and the date of the source or guide. An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Derived From: Memo, “Funding Problems,” October 20, 2008, Office of Administration, Department of Good Works or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Derived From: CG No. 1, Department of Good Works, dated October 20, 2008</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) When a document is classified derivatively on the basis of more than one source document or classification guide, the “Derived From” line shall appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Derived From: Multiple Sources</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The derivative classifier shall include a listing of the source materials on, or attached to, each derivatively classified document.
</P>
<P>(2) A document derivatively classified on the basis of a source document that is itself marked “Multiple Sources” shall cite the source document on its “Derived From” line rather than the term “Multiple Sources.” An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Derived From: Report entitled, “New Weapons,” dated October 20, 2009, Department of Good Works, Office of Administration</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Reason for classification.</I> The reason for the original classification decision, as reflected in the source document(s) or classification guide, is not transferred in a derivative classification action.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Declassification instructions.</I> (1) The derivative classifier shall carry forward the instructions on the “Declassify On” line from the source document to the derivative document, or the duration instruction from the classification or declassification guide, unless it contains one of the declassification instructions as listed in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If the source document is missing the declassification instruction, then a calculated date of 25 years from the date of the source document (if available) or the current date (if the source document date is not available) shall be carried forward by the derivative classifier.
</P>
<P>(2) When a document is classified derivatively on the basis of more than one source document or more than one element of a classification guide, the “Declassify On” line shall reflect the longest duration of any of its sources.
</P>
<P>(3) When a document is classified derivatively either from a source document(s) or a classification guide that contains one of the following declassification instructions, “Originating Agency's Determination Required,” “OADR,” or “Manual Review,” “MR,” or any of the exemption markings X1, X2, X3, X4, X5, X6, X7, and X8, the derivative classifier shall calculate a date that is 25 years from the date of the source document when determining a derivative document's date or event to be placed in the “Declassify On” line.
</P>
<P>(i) If a document is marked with the declassification instructions “DCI Only” or “DNI Only” and does not contain information described in E.O. 12951, “Release of Imagery Acquired by Space-Based National Intelligence Reconnaissance Systems,<I>”</I> the derivative classifier shall calculate a date that is 25 years from the date of the source document when determining a derivative document's date or event to be placed in the “Declassify On” line.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a document is marked with “DCI Only” or “DNI Only” and the information is subject to E.O. 12951, the derivative classifier shall use a date or event as prescribed by the Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P>(4) When determining the most restrictive declassification instruction among multiple source documents, adhere to the following hierarchy for determining the declassification instructions for the “Declassify On” line:
</P>
<P>(i) 50X1-HUM or 50X2-WMD, or an ISOO-approved designator reflecting the Panel approval for classification beyond 50 years in accordance with section 3.3(h)(2) of the Order;
</P>
<P>(ii) 25X1 through 25X9, with a date or event;
</P>
<P>(iii) A specific declassification date or event within 25 years;
</P>
<P>(iv) Absent guidance from an original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information, a calculated 25-year date from the date of the source document.
</P>
<P>(5) When declassification dates are displayed numerically, the following format shall be used: YYYYMMDD.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Overall marking.</I> The derivative classifier shall conspicuously mark the classified document with the highest level of classification of information included in the document, as provided in § 2001.21(b).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Portion marking.</I> Each portion of a derivatively classified document shall be marked immediately preceding the portion to which it applies, in accordance with its source, and as provided in § 2001.21(c).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dissemination control and handling markings.</I> Many agencies require additional control and handling markings that supplement the overall classification markings. See § 2001.24(j) for specific guidance.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Date of origin of document.</I> The date of origin of the document shall be indicated in a manner that is immediately apparent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.23" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.23   Classification marking in the electronic environment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Classified national security information in the electronic environment shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to all requirements of the Order.
</P>
<P>(2) Marked with proper classification markings to the extent that such marking is practical, including portion marking, overall classification, “Classified By,” “Derived From,” “Reason” for classification (originally classified information only), and “Declassify On.”
</P>
<P>(3) Marked with proper classification markings when appearing in an electronic output (<I>e.g.,</I> database query) in which users of the information will need to be alerted to the classification status of the information.
</P>
<P>(4) Marked in accordance with derivative classification procedures, maintaining traceability of classification decisions to the original classification authority. In cases where classified information in an electronic environment cannot be marked in this manner, a warning shall be applied to alert users that the information may not be used as a source for derivative classification and providing a point of contact and instructions for users to receive further guidance on the use and classification of the information.
</P>
<P>(5) Prohibited from use as source of derivative classification if it is dynamic in nature (<I>e.g.,</I> wikis and blogs) and where information is not marked in accordance with the Order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Markings on classified e-mail messages.</I> (1) E-mail transmitted on or prepared for transmission on classified systems or networks shall be configured to display the overall classification at the top and bottom of the body of each message. The overall classification marking string for the e-mail shall reflect the classification of the header and body of the message. This includes the subject line, the text of the e-mail, a classified signature block, attachments, included messages, and any other information conveyed in the body of the e-mail. A single linear text string showing the overall classification and markings shall be included in the first line of text and at the end of the body of the message after the signature block.
</P>
<P>(2) Classified e-mail shall be portion marked. Each portion shall be marked to reflect the highest level of information contained in that portion. A text portion containing a uniform resource locator (URL) or reference (<I>i.e.,</I> link) to another document shall be portion marked based on the classification of the content of the URL or link text, even if the content to which it points reflects a higher classification marking.
</P>
<P>(3) A classified signature block shall be portion marked to reflect the highest classification level markings of the information contained in the signature block itself.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject lines shall be portion marked to reflect the sensitivity of the information in the subject line itself and shall not reflect any classification markings for the e-mail content or attachments. Subject lines and titles shall be portion marked before the subject or title.
</P>
<P>(5) For a classified e-mail, the classification authority block shall be placed after the signature block, but before the overall classification marking string at the end of the e-mail. These blocks may appear as single linear text strings instead of the traditional appearance of three lines of text.
</P>
<P>(6) When forwarding or replying to an e-mail, individuals shall ensure that, in addition to the markings required for the content of the reply or forward e-mail itself, the markings shall reflect the overall classification and declassification instructions for the entire string of e-mails and attachments. This will include any newly drafted material, material received from previous senders, and any attachments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Marking Web pages with classified content.</I> (1) Web pages shall be classified and marked on their own content regardless of the classification of the pages to which they link. Any presentation of information to which the web materials link shall also be marked based on its own content.
</P>
<P>(2) The overall classification marking string for every web page shall reflect the overall classification markings (and any dissemination control or handling markings) for the information on that page. Linear text appearing on both the top and bottom of the page is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) If any graphical representation is utilized, a text equivalent of the overall classification marking string shall be included in the hypertext statement and page metadata. This will enable users without graphic display to be aware of the classification level of the page and allows for the use of text translators.
</P>
<P>(4) Classified Web pages shall be portion marked. Each portion shall be marked to reflect the highest level of information contained in that portion. A portion containing a URL or reference to another document shall be portion marked based on the classification of the content of the URL itself, even if the content to which it points reflects a higher classification marking.
</P>
<P>(5) Classified Web pages shall include the classification authority block on either the top or bottom of the page. These blocks may appear as single linear text strings instead of the traditional appearance of three lines of text.
</P>
<P>(6) Electronic media files such as video, audio, images, or slides shall carry the overall classification and classification authority block, unless the addition of such information would render them inoperable. In such cases, another procedure shall be used to ensure recipients are aware of the classification status of the information and the declassification instructions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Marking classified URLs.</I> URLs provide unique addresses in the electronic environment for web content and shall be portion marked based on the classification of the content of the URL itself. The URL shall not be portion marked to reflect the classification of the content to which it points. URLs shall be developed at an unclassified level whenever possible. When a URL is classified, a classification portion mark shall be used in the text of the URL string in a way that does not make the URL inoperable to identify the URL as a classified portion in any textual references to that URL. An example may appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>http://www.center.xyz/SECRET/filename_(S).html</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>http://www.center.xyz/filename2_(TS).html</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>http://www.center.xyz/filename_(TS//NF).html</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Marking classified dynamic documents and relational databases.</I> (1) A dynamic page contains electronic information derived from a changeable source or ad hoc query, such as a relational database. The classification levels of information returned may vary depending upon the specific request.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a mechanism for determining the actual classification markings for dynamic documents, the appropriate classification markings shall be applied to and displayed on the document. If such a mechanism does not exist, the default should be the highest level of information in the database and a warning shall be applied at the top of each page of the document. Such content shall not be used as a basis for derivative classification. An example of such an applied warning may appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This content is classified at the [insert system-high classification level] level and may contain elements of information that are unclassified or classified at a lower level than the overall classification displayed. This content may not be used as a source of derivative classification; refer instead to the pertinent classification guide(s).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) This will alert the users of the information that there may be elements of information that may be either unclassified or classified at a lower level than the highest possible classification of the information returned. Users shall be encouraged to make further inquiries concerning the status of individual elements in order to avoid unnecessary classification and/or impediments to information sharing. Resources such as classification guides and points of contact shall be established to assist with these inquiries.
</P>
<P>(4) Users developing a document based on query results from a database must properly mark the document in accordance with § 2001.22. If there is doubt about the correct markings, users should contact the database originating agency for guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Marking classified bulletin board postings and blogs.</I> (1) A blog, an abbreviation of the term “web log,” is a Web site consisting of a series of entries, often commentary, description of events, or other material such as graphics or video, created by the same individual as in a journal or by many individuals. While the content of the overall blog is dynamic, entries are generally static in nature.
</P>
<P>(2) The overall classification marking string for every bulletin board or blog shall reflect the overall classification markings for the highest level of information allowed in that space. Linear text appearing on both the top and bottom of the page is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) Subject lines of bulletin board postings, blog entries, or comments shall be portion marked to reflect the sensitivity of the information in the subject line itself, not the content of the post.
</P>
<P>(4) The overall classification marking string for the bulletin board posting, blog entry, or comment shall reflect the classification markings for the subject line, the text of the posting, and any other information in the posting. These strings shall be entered manually or utilizing an electronic classification tool in the first line of text and at the end of the body of the posting. These strings may appear as single linear text.
</P>
<P>(5) Bulletin board postings, blog entries, or comments shall be portion marked. Each portion shall be marked to reflect the highest level of information contained in that portion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Marking classified wikis.</I> (1) Initial wiki submissions shall include the overall classification marking string, portion marking, and the classification authority block string in the same manner as mentioned above for bulletin boards and blogs. All of these strings may appear as single line text.
</P>
<P>(2) When users modify existing entries which alter the classification level of the content or add new content, they shall change the required markings to reflect the classification markings for the resulting information. Systems shall provide a means to log the identity of each user, the changes made, and the time and date of each change.
</P>
<P>(3) Wiki articles and entries shall be portion marked. Each portion shall be marked to reflect the highest level of information contained in that portion.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Instant messaging, chat, and chat rooms.</I> (1) Instant messages and chat conversations generally consist of brief textual messages but may also include URLs, images, or graphics. Chat discussions captured for retention or printing shall be marked at the top and bottom of each page with the overall classification reflecting all of the information within the discussion and, for classified discussions, portion markings and the classification authority block string shall also appear.
</P>
<P>(2) Chat rooms shall display system-high overall classification markings and shall contain instructions informing users that the information may not be used as a source for derivative classification unless it is portion marked, contains an overall classification marking, and a classification authority block.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Attached files.</I> When files are attached to another electronic message or document, the overall classification of the message or document shall account for the classification level of the attachment and the message or document shall be marked in accordance with § 2001.24(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reserved.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.24" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.24   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marking prohibitions.</I> Markings other than “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential” shall not be used to identify classified national security information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmittal documents.</I> A transmittal document shall indicate on its face the highest classification level of any classified information attached or enclosed. The transmittal shall also include conspicuously on its face the following or similar instructions, as appropriate:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Unclassified When Classified Enclosure Removed or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Upon Removal of Attachments, This Document is (Classification Level)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign government information.</I> Unless otherwise evident, documents that contain foreign government information should include the marking, “This Document Contains (indicate country of origin) Information.” Agencies may also require that the portions of the documents that contain the foreign government information be marked to indicate the government and classification level, using accepted country code standards, <I>e.g.,</I> “(Country code—C).” If the identity of the specific government must be concealed, the document shall be marked, “This Document Contains Foreign Government Information,” and pertinent portions shall be marked “FGI” together with the classification level, <I>e.g.,</I> “(FGI-C).” In such cases, a separate record that identifies the foreign government shall be maintained in order to facilitate subsequent declassification actions. If the fact that information is foreign government information must be concealed, the markings described in this paragraph shall not be used and the document shall be marked as if it were wholly of U.S. origin. When classified records are transferred to NARA for storage or archival purposes, the accompanying documentation shall, at a minimum, identify the boxes that contain foreign government information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Working papers.</I> A working paper is defined as documents or materials, regardless of the media, which are expected to be revised prior to the preparation of a finished product for dissemination or retention. Working papers containing classified information shall be dated when created, marked with the highest classification of any information contained in them, protected at that level, and if otherwise appropriate, destroyed when no longer needed. When any of the following conditions applies, working papers shall be controlled and marked in the same manner prescribed for a finished document at the same classification level:
</P>
<P>(1) Released by the originator outside the originating activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Retained more than 180 days from the date of origin; or
</P>
<P>(3) Filed permanently.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other material.</I> Bulky material, equipment, and facilities, etc., shall be clearly identified in a manner that leaves no doubt about the classification status of the material, the level of protection required, and the duration of classification. Upon a finding that identification would itself reveal classified information, such identification is not required. Supporting documentation for such a finding must be maintained in the appropriate security facility.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unmarked materials.</I> Information contained in unmarked records, or presidential or related materials, and which pertains to the national defense or foreign relations of the United States, created, maintained, and protected as classified information under prior orders shall continue to be treated as classified information under the Order, and is subject to its provisions regarding declassification.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Classification by compilation/aggregation.</I> Compilation of items that are individually unclassified may be classified if the compiled information meets the standards established in section 1.2 of the Order and reveals an additional association or relationship, as determined by the original classification authority. Any unclassified portions will be portion marked (U), while the overall markings will reflect the classification of the compiled information even if all the portions are marked (U). In any such situation, clear instructions must appear with the compiled information as to the circumstances under which the individual portions constitute a classified compilation, and when they do not.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Commingling of Restricted Data (RD) and Formerly Restricted Data (FRD) with information classified under the Order.</I> (1) To the extent practicable, the commingling in the same document of RD or FRD with information classified under the Order should be avoided. When it is not practicable to avoid such commingling, the marking requirements in the Order and this Directive, as well as the marking requirements in 10 CFR part 1045, <I>Nuclear Classification and Declassification,</I> must be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic declassification of documents containing RD or FRD is prohibited. Documents marked as containing RD or FRD are excluded from the automatic declassification provisions of the Order until the RD or FRD designation is properly removed by the Department of Energy. When the Department of Energy determines that an RD or FRD designation may be removed, any remaining information classified under the Order must be referred to the appropriate agency in accordance with the declassification provisions of the Order and this Directive.
</P>
<P>(3) For commingled documents, the “Declassify On” line required by the Order and this Directive shall not include a declassification date or event and shall instead be annotated with “Not Applicable (or N/A) to RD/FRD portions” and “See source list for NSI portions.” The source list, as described in § 2001.22(c)(1)(ii), shall include the declassification instruction for each of the source documents classified under the Order and shall not appear on the front page of the document.
</P>
<P>(4) If an RD or FRD portion is extracted for use in a new document, the requirements of 10 CFR part 1045 must be followed.
</P>
<P>(5) If a portion classified under the Order is extracted for use in a new document, the requirements of the Order and this Directive must be followed. The declassification date for the extracted portion shall be determined by using the source list required by § 2001.22(c)(1)(ii), the pertinent classification guide, or consultation with the original classification authority with jurisdiction for the information. However, if a commingled document is not portion marked, it shall not be used as a source for a derivatively classified document.
</P>
<P>(6) If a commingled document is not portion marked based on appropriate authority, annotating the source list with the declassification instructions and including the “Declassify on” line in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section are not required. The lack of declassification instructions does not eliminate the requirement to process commingled documents for declassification in accordance with the Order, this Directive, the Atomic Energy Act, or 10 CFR part 1045 when they are requested under statute or the Order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information (TFNI).</I> (1) As permitted under 42 U.S.C. 2162(e), the Department of Energy shall remove from the Restricted Data category such information concerning the atomic energy programs of other nations as the Secretary of Energy and the Director of National Intelligence jointly determine to be necessary to carry out the provisions of 50 U.S.C. 403 and 403-1 and safeguarded under applicable Executive orders as “National Security Information” under a process called transclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) When Restricted Data information is transclassified and is safeguarded as “National Security Information,” it shall be handled, protected, and classified in conformity with the provisions of the Order and this Directive. Such information shall be labeled as “TFNI” and with any additional identifiers prescribed by the Department of Energy. The label “TFNI” shall be included on documents to indicate the information's transclassification from the Restricted Data category and its declassification process governed by the Secretary of Energy under the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Automatic declassification of documents containing TFNI is prohibited. Documents marked as containing TFNI are excluded from the automatic declassification provisions of the Order until the TFNI designation is properly removed by the Department of Energy. When the Department of Energy determines that a TFNI designation may be removed, any remaining information classified under the Order must be referred to the appropriate agency in accordance with the declassification provisions of the Order and this Directive.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Approved dissemination control and handling markings.</I> (1) Dissemination control and handling markings identify the expansion or limitation on the distribution of the information. These markings are in addition to, and separate from, the level of classification.
</P>
<P>(2) Only those external dissemination control and handling markings approved by ISOO or, with respect to the Intelligence Community by the Director of National Intelligence for intelligence and intelligence-related information, may be used by agencies to control and handle the dissemination of classified information pursuant to agency regulations and to policy directives and guidelines issued under section 5.4(d)(2) and section 6.2(b) of the Order. Such approved markings shall be uniform and binding on all agencies and must be available in a central registry.
</P>
<P>(3) If used, the dissemination control and handling markings will appear at the top and bottom of each page after the level of classification.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Portion marking waivers.</I> (1) An agency head or senior agency official may request a waiver from the portion marking requirement for a specific category of information. Such a request shall be submitted to the Director of ISOO and should include the reasons that the benefits of portion marking are outweighed by other factors. The request must also demonstrate that the requested waiver will not create impediments to information sharing. Statements citing administrative burden alone will ordinarily not be viewed as sufficient grounds to support a waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) Any approved portion marking waiver will be temporary with specific expiration dates.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for portion marking waivers from elements of the Intelligence Community (to include pertinent elements of the Department of Defense) should include a statement of support from the Director of National Intelligence or his or her designee. Requests for portion marking waivers from elements of the Department of Defense (to include pertinent elements of the Intelligence Community) should include a statement of support from the Secretary of Defense or his or her designee. Requests for portion marking waivers from elements of the Department of Homeland Security should include a statement of support from the Secretary of Homeland Security or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(4) A document not portion marked, based on an ISOO-approved waiver, must contain a warning statement that it may not be used as a source for derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(5) If a classified document that is not portion marked, based on an ISOO-approved waiver, is transmitted outside the originating organization, the document must be portion marked unless otherwise explicitly provided in the waiver approval.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Marking information that has been reclassified.</I> Specific information may only be reclassified if all the conditions of section 1.7(d) of the Order and its implementing directives have been met.
</P>
<P>(1) When taking this action, an original classification authority must include the following markings on the information:
</P>
<P>(i) The level of classification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity, by name and position, or by personal identifier of the original classification authority;
</P>
<P>(iii) Declassification instructions;
</P>
<P>(iv) A concise reason for classification, including reference to the applicable classification category from section 1.4 of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(v) The date the reclassification action was taken.
</P>
<P>(2) The original classification authority shall notify all known authorized holders of this action.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Marking of electronic storage media.</I> Classified computer media such as USB sticks, hard drives, CD ROMs, and diskettes shall be marked to indicate the highest overall classification of the information contained within the media.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.25" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.25   Declassification markings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A uniform security classification system requires that standard markings be applied to declassified information. Except in extraordinary circumstances, or as approved by the Director of ISOO, the marking of declassified information shall not deviate from the following prescribed formats. If declassification markings cannot be affixed to specific information or materials, the originator shall provide holders or recipients of the information with written instructions for marking the information. Markings shall be uniformly and conspicuously applied to leave no doubt about the declassified status of the information and who authorized the declassification.
</P>
<P>(b) The following markings shall be applied to records, or copies of records, regardless of media:
</P>
<P>(1) The word, “Declassified;”
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the declassification authority, by name and position, or by personal identifier, or the title and date of the declassification guide. If the identity of the declassification authority must be protected, a personal identifier may be used or the information may be retained in agency files.
</P>
<P>(3) The date of declassification; and
</P>
<P>(4) The overall classification markings that appear on the cover page or first page shall be lined with an “X” or straight line. An example might appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><E T="0511">SECRET</E>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Declassified by David Smith, Chief, Division 5, August 17, 2008</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.26" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.26   Automatic declassification exemption markings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marking information exempted from automatic declassification at 25 years.</I> (1) When the Panel has approved an agency proposal to exempt permanently valuable information from automatic declassification at 25 years, the “Declassify On” line shall be revised to include the symbol “25X” plus the number(s) that corresponds to the category(ies) in section 3.3(b) of the Order. Except for when the exemption pertains to information that should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source, or a human intelligence source, or key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, the revised “Declassify On” line shall also include the new date for declassification as approved by the Panel, not to exceed 50 years from the date of origin of the record. Records that contain information, the release of which should clearly and demonstrably be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source or a human intelligence source, or key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, are exempt from automatic declassification at 50 years.
</P>
<P>(2) The pertinent exemptions, using the language of section 3.3(b) of the Order, are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>25X1: reveal the identity of a confidential human source, a human intelligence source, a relationship with an intelligence or security service of a foreign government or international organization, or a non-human intelligence source; or impair the effectiveness of an intelligence method currently in use, available for use, or under development.
</P>
<P>25X2: reveal information that would assist in the development, production, or use of weapons of mass destruction;
</P>
<P>25X3: reveal information that would impair U.S. cryptologic systems or activities;
</P>
<P>25X4: reveal information that would impair the application of state-of-the-art technology within a U.S. weapon system;
</P>
<P>25X5: reveal formally named or numbered U.S. military war plans that remain in effect, or reveal operational or tactical elements of prior plans that are contained in such active plans;
</P>
<P>25X6: reveal information, including foreign government information, that would cause serious harm to relations between the United States and a foreign government, or to ongoing diplomatic activities of the United States;
</P>
<P>25X7: reveal information that would impair the current ability of United States Government officials to protect the President, Vice President, and other protectees for whom protection services, in the interest of the national security, are authorized;
</P>
<P>25X8: reveal information that would seriously impair current national security emergency preparedness plans or reveal current vulnerabilities of systems, installations, or infrastructures relating to the national security; or
</P>
<P>25X9: violate a statute, treaty, or international agreement that does not permit the automatic or unilateral declassification of information at 25 years.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The pertinent portion of the marking would appear as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Declassify On: 25X4, 20501001</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Documents should not be marked with a “25X” marking until the agency has been informed that the Panel concurs with the proposed exemption.
</P>
<P>(5) Agencies need not apply a “25X” marking to individual documents contained in a file series exempted from automatic declassification under section 3.3(c) of the Order until the individual document is removed from the file and may only apply such a marking as approved by the Panel under section 3.3(j) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(6) Information containing foreign government information will be marked with a date in the “Declassify On” line that is no more than 25 years from the date of the document unless the originating agency has applied for and received Panel approval to exempt foreign government information from declassification at 25 years. Upon receipt of Panel approval, the agency may use either the 25X6 or 25X9 exemption markings, as appropriate, in the “Declassify On” followed by a date that has also been approved by the Panel. An example might appear as: 25X6, 20600129, or 25X9, 20600627. The marking “subject to treaty or international agreement” is not to be used at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marking information exempted from automatic declassification at 50 years.</I> Records exempted from automatic declassification at 50 years shall be automatically declassified on December 31 of a year that is no more than 75 years from the date of origin unless an agency head, within five years of that date, proposes to exempt specific information from declassification at 75 years and the proposal is formally approved by the Panel.
</P>
<P>(1) When the information clearly and demonstrably could be expected to reveal the identity of a confidential human source or a human intelligence source, the marking shall be “50X1-HUM.”
</P>
<P>(2) When the information clearly and demonstrably could reveal key design concepts of weapons of mass destruction, the marking shall be “50X2-WMD.”
</P>
<P>(3) In extraordinary cases in which the Panel has approved an exemption from declassification at 50 years under section 3.3(h) of the Order, the same procedures as those under § 2001.26(a) will be followed with the exception that the number “50” will be used in place of the “25.”
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for exemption from automatic declassification at 50 years from elements of the Intelligence Community (to include pertinent elements of the Department of Defense) should include a statement of support from the Director of National Intelligence or his or her designee. Requests for automatic declassification exemptions from elements of the Department of Defense (to include pertinent elements of the Intelligence community) should include a statement of support from the Secretary of Defense or his or her designee. Requests for automatic declassification exemptions from elements of the Department of Homeland Security should include a statement of support from the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Marking information exempted from automatic declassification at 75 years.</I> Records exempted from automatic declassification at 75 years shall be automatically declassified on December 31 of the year that has been formally approved by the Panel.
</P>
<P>(1) Information approved by the Panel as exempt from automatic declassification at 75 years shall be marked “75X” with the appropriate automatic declassification exemption category number followed by the approved declassification date or event.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for exemption from automatic declassification at 75 years from elements of the Intelligence Community (to include pertinent elements of the Department of Defense) should include a statement of support from the Director of National Intelligence or his or her designee. Requests for automatic declassification exemptions from elements of the Department of Defense (to include pertinent elements of the Intelligence community) should include a statement of support from the Secretary of Defense or his or her designee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Declassification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.30" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.30   Automatic declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All departments and agencies that have original classification authority or previously had original classification authority, or maintain records determined to be permanently valuable that contain classified national security information, shall comply with the automatic declassification provisions of the Order. All agencies with original classification authority shall cooperate with NARA in managing automatic declassification of accessioned Federal records, presidential papers and records, and donated historical materials under the control of the Archivist.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presidential papers, materials, and records.</I> The Archivist shall establish procedures for the declassification of presidential, vice-presidential, or White House materials transferred to the legal custody of NARA or maintained in the presidential libraries.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified information in the custody of contractors, licensees, certificate holders, or grantees.</I> Pursuant to the provisions of the National Industrial Security Program, agencies must provide security classification/declassification guidance to such entities or individuals who possess classified information. Agencies must also determine if classified Federal records are held by such entities or individuals, and if so, whether they are permanent records of historical value and thus subject to section 3.3 of the Order. Until such a determination has been made by an appropriate agency official, such records shall not be subject to automatic declassification, or destroyed, and shall be safeguarded in accordance with the most recent security classification/declassification guidance provided by the agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transferred information.</I> In the case of classified information transferred in conjunction with a transfer of functions, and not merely for storage, the receiving agency shall be deemed to be the originating agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unofficially transferred information.</I> In the case of classified information that is not officially transferred as described in paragraph (d) of this section but that originated in an agency that has ceased to exist and for which there is no successor agency, the agency in possession shall serve as the originating agency and shall be responsible for actions for those records in accordance with section 3.3 of the Order and in consultation with the Director of the National Declassification Center (NDC).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Processing records originated by another agency.</I> When an agency uncovers classified records originated by another agency that appear to meet the criteria for referral according to section 3.3(d) of the Order, the finding agency shall identify those records for referral to the originating agency as described in § 2001.34.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Unscheduled records.</I> Classified information in records that have not been scheduled for disposal or retention by NARA is not subject to section 3.3 of the Order. Classified information in records that become scheduled as permanently valuable when that information is already more than 20 years old shall be subject to the automatic declassification provisions of section 3.3 of the Order five years from the date the records are scheduled. Classified information in records that become scheduled as permanently valuable when that information is less than 20 years old shall be subject to the automatic declassification provisions of section 3.3 of the Order at 25 years.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary records and non-record materials.</I> Classified information contained in records determined not to be permanently valuable or non-record materials shall be processed in accordance with section 3.6(c) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foreign government information.</I> The declassifying agency is the agency that initially received or classified the information. When foreign government information appears to be subject to automatic declassification, the declassifying agency shall determine whether the information is subject to a treaty or international agreement that does not permit automatic or unilateral declassification. The declassifying agency shall also determine if another exemption under section 3.3(b) of the Order, such as the exemption that pertains to United States foreign relations, may apply to the information. If the declassifying agency believes such an exemption may apply, it should consult with any other concerned agencies in making its declassification determination. The declassifying agency or the Department of State, as appropriate, may consult with the foreign government prior to declassification.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Assistance to the Archivist of the United States.</I> Agencies shall consult with the Director of the NDC established in section 3.7 of the Order concerning their automatic declassification programs. At the request of the Archivist, agencies shall cooperate with the Director of the NDC in developing priorities for the declassification of records to ensure that declassification is accomplished efficiently and in a timely manner. Agencies shall consult with NARA and the Director of the NDC before reviewing records in their holdings to ensure that appropriate procedures are established for maintaining the integrity of the records and that NARA receives accurate and sufficient information about agency declassification actions, including metadata and other processing information, when records are accessioned by NARA. This data shall include certification by the agency that the records have been reviewed in accordance with Public Law 105-261, section 3161 governing Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Use of approved declassification guides.</I> Approved declassification guides are the sole basis for the exemption from automatic declassification of specific information as provided in section 3.3(b) of the Order and the sole basis for the continued classification of information under section 3.3(h) of the Order. These guides must be prepared in accordance with section 3.3(j) of the Order and include additional pertinent detail relating to the exemptions described in sections 3.3(b) and 3.3(h) of the Order, and follow the format required of declassification guides as described in § 2001.32. During a review under section 3.3 of the Order, it is expected that agencies will use these guides to identify specific information for exemption from automatic declassification. It is further expected that the guides or detailed declassification guidance will be made available to the NDC under section 3.7(b) of the Order and to appropriately cleared individuals of other agencies to support equity recognition.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Automatic declassification date.</I> No later than December 31 of the year that is 25 years from the date of origin, classified records determined to be permanently valuable shall be automatically declassified unless automatic declassification has been delayed for any reason as provided in § 2001.30(n) and sections 3.3(b) and (c) of the Order. If the date of origin of an individual record cannot be readily determined, the date of original classification shall be used instead.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Exemption from Automatic Declassification at 25, 50, or 75 years.</I> Agencies may propose to exempt from automatic declassification specific information, either by reference to information in specific records, in specific file series of records, or in the form of a declassification guide, in accordance with section 3.3(j) of the Order. Agencies may propose to exempt information within five years of, but not later than one year before the information is subject to automatic declassification. The agency head or senior agency official, within the specified timeframe, shall notify the Director of ISOO, serving as the Executive Secretary of the Panel, of the specific information being proposed for exemption from automatic declassification.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Delays in the onset of automatic declassification</I>—(1) <I>Media that make a review for possible declassification exemptions more difficult or costly.</I> An agency head or senior agency official shall consult with the Director of the NDC before delaying automatic declassification for up to five years for classified information contained in media that make a review for possible declassification more difficult or costly. When determined by NARA or jointly determined by NARA and another agency, the following may be delayed due to the increased difficulty and cost of conducting declassification processing:
</P>
<P>(i) Records requiring extraordinary preservation or conservation treatment, to include reformatting, to preclude damage to the records by declassification processing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records which pose a potential menace to health, life, or property due to contamination by a hazardous substance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Electronic media if the media is subject to issues of software or hardware obsolescence or degraded data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referred records.</I> Records containing classified information that originated with other agencies or the disclosure of which would affect the interests or activities of other agencies and could reasonably be expected to fall under one or more of the exemption categories of section 3.3(b) of the Order shall be identified prior to the onset of automatic declassification for later referral to those agencies. Declassification reviewers shall be trained periodically on other agency equities to aid in the proper identification of other agency equities eligible for referral.
</P>
<P>(i) Information properly identified as a referral to another agency contained in records accessioned by NARA or in the custody of the presidential libraries shall be subject to automatic declassification only after the referral has been made available by NARA for agency review in accordance with § 2001.34, provided the information has not otherwise been properly exempted by an equity holding agency under section 3.3 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information properly identified as a referral to another agency contained in records maintained in the physical, but not legal, custody of NARA shall be subject to automatic declassification after accessioning and in accordance with § 2001.34, provided the information has not otherwise been properly exempted by an equity holding agency under section 3.3 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Newly discovered records.</I> An agency head or senior agency official must consult with the Director of ISOO on any decision to delay automatic declassification of newly discovered records no later than 90 days, from the discovery of the records. The notification shall identify the records, their volume, the anticipated date for declassification, and the circumstances of the discovery. An agency may be granted up to three years from the date of discovery to make a declassification, exemption, or referral determination. If referrals to other agencies are properly identified, they will be handled in accordance with subparagraphs 2(i) and 2(ii) above.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Integral file blocks.</I> Classified records within an integral file block that are otherwise subject to automatic declassification under section 3.3 of the Order shall not be automatically declassified until December 31 of the year that is 25 years from the date of the most recent record within the file block. For purposes of automatic declassification, integral file blocks shall contain only records dated within ten years of the oldest record in the file block. Integral file blocks applied prior to December 29, 2009, that cover more than ten years remain in effect until December 31, 2012, unless an agency requests an extension from the Director of ISOO on a case-by-case basis prior to December 31, 2011, which is subsequently approved.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>File series exemptions.</I> Agencies seeking to delay the automatic declassification of a specific series of records as defined in section 6.1(r) of the Order because it almost invariably contains information that falls within one or more of the exemption categories under section 3.3(b) must submit their request in accordance with section 3.3(c) of the Order to the Director of ISOO, serving as Executive Secretary of the Panel, at least one year prior to the onset of automatic declassification. Once approved by the Panel, the records in the file series exemption remain subject to section 3.5 of the Order. This delay applies only to records within the specific file series. Copies of records within the specific file series or records of a similar topic to the specific file series located elsewhere may be exempted in accordance with exemptions approved by the Panel.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Redaction standard.</I> Agencies are encouraged but are not required to redact documents that contain information that is exempt from automatic declassification under section 3.3 of the Order, especially if the information that must remain classified comprises a relatively small portion of the document. Any such redactions shall be performed in accordance with policies and procedures established in accordance with § 2001.45(d).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data.</I> (1) Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data are excluded from the automatic declassification requirements in section 3.3 of the Order because they are classified under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Restricted Data concerns:
</P>
<P>(i) The design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons;
</P>
<P>(ii) The production of special nuclear material, <I>e.g.,</I> enriched uranium or plutonium; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The use of special nuclear material in the production of energy.
</P>
<P>(2) Formerly Restricted Data is information that is still classified under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, but which has been removed from the Restricted Data category because it is related primarily to the military utilization of atomic weapons.
</P>
<P>(3) Any document marked as containing Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data or identified as potentially containing unmarked Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data shall be referred to the Department of Energy in accordance with § 2001.34(b)(8).
</P>
<P>(4) Automatic declassification of documents containing Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data is prohibited. Documents marked as containing Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data are excluded from the automatic declassification provisions of the Order until the Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data designation is properly removed by the Department of Energy. When the Department of Energy determines that a Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data designation may be removed, any remaining information classified under the Order must be referred to the appropriate agency in accordance with the declassification provisions of the Order and this Directive.
</P>
<P>(5) Any document containing information concerning foreign nuclear programs that was removed from the Restricted Data category in order to carry out provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, shall be referred to the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(6) The Secretary of Energy shall determine when information concerning foreign nuclear programs that was removed from the Restricted Data category in order to carry out the provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, may be declassified. Unless otherwise determined, information concerning foreign nuclear programs (<I>e.g.,</I> intelligence assessments or reports, foreign nuclear program information provided to the U.S. Government) shall be declassified when comparable information concerning the United States nuclear program is declassified. When the Secretary of Energy determines that information concerning foreign nuclear programs may be declassified, any remaining information classified under the Order must be referred to the appropriate agency in accordance with the declassification provisions of the Order and this Directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.31" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.31   Systematic declassification review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Agencies shall establish systematic review programs for those records containing information exempted from automatic declassification. This includes individual records as well as file series of records. Agencies shall prioritize their review of such records in accordance with priorities established by the NDC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.32" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.32   Declassification guides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation of declassification guides.</I> Beginning one year after the effective date of this directive, declassification guides must be submitted to the Director of ISOO, serving as the Executive Secretary of the Panel, at least one year prior to the onset of automatic declassification for approval by the Panel. Currently approved guides remain in effect until a new guide is approved, to the extent they are otherwise applied consistent with section 3.3(b) of the Order. The information to be exempted must be narrowly defined, with sufficient specificity to allow the user to identify the information with precision. Exemptions must be based upon specific content and not type of document. Exemptions for general categories of information are not acceptable. Agencies must prepare guides that clearly delineate between the exemptions proposed under sections 3.3(b), 3.3(h)(1) and (2), and 3.3(h)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General content of declassification guides.</I> Declassification guides must be specific and detailed as to the information requiring continued classification and clearly and demonstrably explain the reasons for continued classification. Declassification guides shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be submitted by the agency head or the designated senior agency official;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the date of issuance or last review;
</P>
<P>(3) State precisely the information that the agency proposes to exempt from automatic declassification and to specifically declassify;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify any related files series that have been exempted from automatic declassification pursuant to section 3.3(c) of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent a guide is used in conjunction with the automatic declassification provisions in section 3.3 of the Order, state precisely the elements of information to be exempted from declassification to include:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate exemption category listed in section 3.3(b), and, if appropriate, section 3.3(h) of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A date or event for declassification that is in accordance with section 3.3(b) or section 3.3(h).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Internal review and update.</I> Agency declassification guides shall be reviewed and updated as circumstances require, but at least once every five years. Each agency shall maintain a list of its declassification guides in use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dissemination of guides.</I> (1) Declassification guides shall be disseminated within the agency to be used by all personnel with declassification review responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Declassification guides or detailed declassification guidance shall be submitted to the Director of the NDC in accordance with section 3.7(b)(3) of the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.33" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.33   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>U.S. originated information</I>—(1) <I>Regulations.</I> Each agency shall publish, and update as needed or required, in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> regulations concerning the handling of mandatory declassification review requests, to include the identity of the person(s) or office(s) to which requests should be addressed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Processing</I>—(i) <I>Requests for classified records in the custody of the originating agency.</I> A valid mandatory declassification review request must be of sufficient specificity to allow agency personnel to locate the records containing the information sought with a reasonable amount of effort. Requests for broad types of information, entire file series of records, or similar non-specific requests may be denied by agencies for processing under this section. In responding to mandatory declassification review requests, agencies shall make a final determination within one year from the date of receipt. When information cannot be declassified in its entirety, agencies shall make reasonable efforts to release, consistent with other applicable laws, those declassified portions of the requested information that constitute a coherent segment. Upon denial, in whole or in part, of an initial request, the agency shall also notify the requestor of the right of an administrative appeal, which must be filed within 60 days of receipt of the denial. Agencies receiving mandatory review requests are expected to conduct a line-by-line review of the record(s) for public access and are expected to release the information to the requestor, unless that information is prohibited from release under the provisions of a statutory authority, such as, but not limited to, the Freedom of Information Act, (5 U.S.C. 552), as amended, the Presidential Records Act of 1978 (44 U.S.C. 2201-2207), or the National Security Act of 1947 (Pub. L. 235, 61 Stat. 496, 50 U.S.C. Chapter 15).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requests for classified records in the custody of an agency other than the originating agency.</I> When an agency receives a mandatory declassification review request for records in its possession that were originated by another agency, it shall refer the request and the pertinent records to the originating agency. However, if the originating agency has previously agreed that the custodial agency may review its records, the custodial agency shall review the requested records in accordance with declassification guides or guidelines provided by the originating agency. Upon receipt of a request from the referring agency, the originating agency shall promptly process the request for declassification and release in accordance with this section. The originating agency shall communicate its declassification determination to the referring agency. The referring agency is responsible for collecting all agency review results and informing the requestor of any final decision regarding the declassification of the requested information unless a prior arrangement has been made with the originating agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Appeals of denials of mandatory declassification review requests.</I> The agency appellate authority shall normally make a determination within 60 working days following the receipt of an appeal. If additional time is required to make a determination, the agency appellate authority shall notify the requester of the additional time needed and provide the requester with the reason for the extension. The agency appellate authority shall notify the requestor in writing of the final determination and of the reasons for any denial. The appellate authority must inform the requestor of his or her final appeal rights to the Panel.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Appeals to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel.</I> In accordance with section 5.3(c) of the Order, the Panel shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the rules and procedures for bringing mandatory declassification appeals before it.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Records subject to mandatory declassification review.</I> Records containing information exempted from automatic declassification in accordance with section 3.3(c) of the Order or with § 2001.30(n)(1) are still subject to the mandatory declassification review provisions of section 3.5 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign government information.</I> Except as provided in this paragraph, agencies shall process mandatory declassification review requests for classified records containing foreign government information in accordance with this section. The declassifying agency is the agency that initially received or classified the information. When foreign government information is being considered for declassification, the declassifying agency shall determine whether the information is subject to a treaty or international agreement that does not permit automatic or unilateral declassification. The declassifying agency or the Department of State, as appropriate, may consult with the foreign government(s) prior to declassification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cryptologic information.</I> Mandatory declassification review requests for cryptologic information shall be processed in accordance with special procedures issued by the Secretary of Defense and, when cryptologic information pertains to intelligence activities, the Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intelligence information.</I> Mandatory declassification review requests for information pertaining to intelligence sources, methods, and activities shall be processed in accordance with special procedures issued by the Director of National Intelligence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees.</I> In responding to mandatory declassification review requests for classified records, agency heads may charge fees in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 9701 or relevant fee provisions in other applicable statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests filed under mandatory declassification review and the Freedom of Information Act.</I> When a requester submits a request both under mandatory declassification review and the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), the agency shall require the requestor to select one process or the other. If the requestor fails to select one or the other, the request will be treated as a FOIA request unless the requested materials are subject only to mandatory declassification review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FOIA and Privacy Act requests.</I> Agency heads shall process requests for declassification that are submitted under the provisions of the FOIA, as amended, or the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended, in accordance with the provisions of those Acts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Redaction standard.</I> Agencies shall redact documents that are the subject of an access demand unless the overall meaning or informational value of the document is clearly distorted by redaction. The specific reason for the redaction, as provided for in section 1.4 or 3.3(b) of the Order, as applicable, must be included for each redaction. Information that is redacted due to a statutory authority must be clearly marked with the specific authority that authorizes the redaction. Any such redactions shall be performed in accordance with policies and procedures established in accordance with § 2001.45(d).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limitations on requests.</I> Requests for mandatory declassification review made to an element of the Intelligence Community by anyone other than a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence, may be denied by the receiving Intelligence Community element. Documents required to be submitted for pre-publication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement are not subject to mandatory declassification review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.34" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.34   Referrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Referrals are required under sections 3.3(d)(3) and 3.6(b) of the Order in order to ensure the timely, efficient, and effective processing of reviews and requests and in order to protect classified information from inadvertent disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic declassification.</I> The referral process for records subject to automatic declassification entails identification of records containing classified information that originated with other agencies or the disclosure of which would affect the interests or activities of other agencies. Those records that could reasonably be expected to fall under one or more of the exemptions in section 3.3(b) of the Order are eligible for referral. The referral process also entails formal notification to those agencies, making the records available for review by those agencies, and recording final agency determinations.
</P>
<P>(1) In accordance with section 3.3(d)(3) of the Order, the identification of records eligible for referral is the responsibility of the primary reviewing agency and shall be completed prior to the date of automatic declassification established by section 3.3(a) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as otherwise determined by the Director of the NDC, primary reviewing agencies shall utilize the Standard Form 715, <I>Government Declassification Review Tab,</I> to tab and identify any Federal record requiring referral and record the referral in a manner that provides the referral information in an NDC database system.
</P>
<P>(3) Notification of referral of records accessioned into NARA or in the custody of the presidential libraries, and making the records available for review, is the responsibility of NARA and shall be accomplished through the NDC.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 180 days of the effective date of this provision, the NDC shall develop and provide the affected agencies with a comprehensive and prioritized schedule for the resolution of referrals contained in accessioned Federal records and Presidential records. The schedule shall be developed in consultation with the affected agencies, consider the public interest in the records, and be in accordance with the authorized delays to automatic declassification set forth in section 3.3(d) of the Order. The initial schedule shall cover the balance of the first effective fiscal year and four subsequent fiscal years. Thereafter, the schedule shall cover five fiscal years. The NDC shall consult with the affected agencies and update and provide such schedules annually.
</P>
<P>(5) The NDC shall provide formal notification of the availability of a referral to the receiving agency and records will be subject to automatic declassification in accordance with the schedule promulgated by the NDC in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, unless the information has been properly exempted by an equity holding agency under section 3.3 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(6) Records in the physical but not legal custody of NARA shall be subject to automatic declassification after accessioning and in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Agencies that establish a centralized facility as described in section 3.7(e) may make direct referrals provided such activities fall within the priorities and schedule established by the NDC and the activity is otherwise coordinated with the NDC. In such cases, the centralized facility is responsible for providing formal notification of a referral to receiving agencies and for making the records available for review or direct formal referral to agencies by providing a copy of the records unless another mechanism is identified in coordination with the NDC. As established in section 3.3(d)(3)(B), referrals to agencies from a centralized agency records facility as described in section 3.7(e) of the Order will be automatically declassified up to three years after the formal notification has been made, if the receiving agency fails to provide a final determination.
</P>
<P>(8) Records marked as containing Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data or identified as potentially containing unmarked Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data shall be referred to the Department of Energy through the NDC. If the Department of Energy confirms that the document contains Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data, it shall then be excluded from the automatic declassification provisions of the Order until the Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data designation is properly removed.
</P>
<P>(i) When the Department of Energy provides notification that a Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data designation is not appropriate or when it is properly removed, the record shall be processed for automatic declassification through the NDC.
</P>
<P>(ii) In all cases, should the record be the subject of an access demand made pursuant to the Order or provision of law, the information classified pursuant to Executive order (rather than the Atomic Energy Act, as amended) must stand on its own merits.
</P>
<P>(9) The NDC, as well as any centralized agency facility established under section 3.7(e) of the Order, shall track and document referral actions and decisions in a manner that facilitates archival processing for public access. Central agency facilities must work with the NDC to ensure documentation meets NDC requirements, and transfer all documentation on pending referral actions and referral decisions to the NDC when transferring the records to NARA.
</P>
<P>(10) In all cases, receiving agencies shall acknowledge receipt of formal referral notifications in a timely manner. If a disagreement arises concerning referral notifications, the Director of ISOO will determine the automatic declassification date and notify the senior agency official, as well as the NDC or the primary reviewing agency.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Remote Archives Capture (RAC).</I> Presidential records or materials scanned in the RAC process shall be prioritized and scheduled for review by the NDC. The initial notification shall be made to the agency with primary equity, which shall have up to one year to act on its information and to identify all other equities eligible for referral. All such additional referrals in an individual record shall be made at the same time, and once notified by the NDC of an eligible referral, such receiving agencies shall have up to one year to review the records before the onset of automatic declassification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agencies eligible to receive referrals.</I> The Director of ISOO will publish annually a list of those agencies eligible to receive referrals for each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Systematic declassification review.</I> The identification of equities shall be accomplished in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Priorities for review will be established by the NDC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Identification of interests other than national security.</I> Referrals under sections 3.3(d)(3) and 3.6(b) of the Order shall be assumed to be intended for later public release unless withholding is otherwise authorized and warranted under applicable law. If a receiving agency proposes to withhold any such information, it must notify the referring agency at the time they otherwise respond to the referral. Such notification shall identify the specific information at issue and the pertinent law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.35" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.35   Discretionary declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 3.1(d) of the Order, agencies may declassify information when the public interest in disclosure outweighs the need for continued classification.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may also establish a discretionary declassification program that is separate from their automatic, systematic, and mandatory review programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.36" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.36   Classified information in the custody of private organizations or individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized holders.</I> Agencies may allow for the holding of classified information by a private organization or individual provided that all access and safeguarding requirements of the Order have been met. Agencies must provide declassification assistance to such organizations or individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Others.</I> Anyone who becomes aware of organizations or individuals who possess potentially classified national security information outside of government control must contact the Director of ISOO for guidance and assistance. The Director of ISOO, in consultation with other agencies, as appropriate, will ensure that the safeguarding and declassification requirements of the Order are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.37" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.4.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.37   Assistance to the Department of State.</HEAD>
<P>Heads of agencies shall assist the Department of State in its preparation of the Foreign Relations of the United States (FRUS) series by facilitating access to appropriate classified materials in their custody and by expediting declassification review of documents proposed for inclusion in the FRUS. If an agency fails to provide a final declassification review determination regarding a Department of State referral within 120 days of the date of the referral, or if applicable, within 120 days of the date of a High Level Panel decision, the Department of State, consistent with 22 U.S.C. 4353 and any implementing agency procedures, may seek the assistance of the Panel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safeguarding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.40" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.40   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Classified information, regardless of its form, shall be afforded a level of protection against loss or unauthorized disclosure commensurate with its level of classification.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for foreign government information, agency heads or their designee(s) may adopt alternative measures, using risk management principles, to protect against loss or unauthorized disclosure when necessary to meet operational requirements. When alternative measures are used for other than temporary, unique situations, the alternative measures shall be documented and provided to the Director of ISOO. Upon request, the description shall be provided to any other agency with which classified information or secure facilities are shared. In all cases, the alternative measures shall provide protection sufficient to reasonably deter and detect loss or unauthorized disclosure. Risk management factors considered will include sensitivity, value, and crucial nature of the information; analysis of known and anticipated threats; vulnerability; and countermeasure benefits versus cost.
</P>
<P>(c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) classified information shall be safeguarded in compliance with U.S. Security Authority for NATO Instruction (USSAN) 1-07. Other foreign government information shall be safeguarded as described herein for U.S. information except as required by an existing treaty, agreement or other obligation (hereinafter, obligation). When the information is to be safeguarded pursuant to an existing obligation, the additional requirements at § 2001.54 may apply to the extent they were required in the obligation as originally negotiated or are agreed upon during amendment. Negotiations on new obligations or amendments to existing obligations shall strive to bring provisions for safeguarding foreign government information into accord with standards for safeguarding U.S. information as described in this Directive.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Need-to-know determinations.</I> (1) Agency heads, through their designees, shall identify organizational missions and personnel requiring access to classified information to perform or assist in authorized governmental functions. These mission and personnel requirements are determined by the functions of an agency or the roles and responsibilities of personnel in the course of their official duties. Personnel determinations shall be consistent with section 4.1(a) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(2) In instances where the provisions of section 4.1(a) of the Order are met, but there is a countervailing need to restrict the information, disagreements that cannot be resolved shall be referred by agency heads or designees to either the Director of ISOO or, with respect to the Intelligence Community, the Director of National Intelligence, as appropriate. Disagreements concerning information protected under section 4.3 of the Order shall instead be referred to the appropriate official named in section 4.3 of the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.41" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.41   Responsibilities of holders.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized persons who have access to classified information are responsible for:
</P>
<P>(a) Protecting it from persons without authorized access to that information, to include securing it in approved equipment or facilities whenever it is not under the direct control of an authorized person;
</P>
<P>(b) Meeting safeguarding requirements prescribed by the agency head; and
</P>
<P>(c) Ensuring that classified information is not communicated over unsecured voice or data circuits, in public conveyances or places, or in any other manner that permits interception by unauthorized persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.42" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.42   Standards for security equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage.</I> The Administrator of the General Services Administration (GSA) shall, in coordination with agency heads originating classified information, establish and publish uniform standards, specifications, qualified product lists or databases, and supply schedules for security equipment designed to provide secure storage for classified information. Whenever new secure storage equipment is procured, it shall be in conformance with the standards and specifications established by the Administrator of the GSA, and shall, to the maximum extent possible, be of the type available through the Federal Supply System.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Destruction.</I> Effective January 1, 2011, only equipment listed on an Evaluated Products List (EPL) issued by the National Security Agency (NSA) may be utilized to destroy classified information using any method covered by an EPL. However, equipment approved for use prior to January 1, 2011, and not found on an EPL, may be utilized for the destruction of classified information until December 31, 2016. Unless NSA determines otherwise, whenever an EPL is revised, equipment removed from an EPL may be utilized for the destruction of classified information up to six years from the date of its removal from an EPL. In all cases, if any such previously approved equipment needs to be replaced or otherwise requires a rebuild or replacement of a critical assembly, the unit must be taken out of service for the destruction in accordance with this section. The Administrator of the GSA shall, to the maximum extent possible, coordinate supply schedules and otherwise seek to make equipment on an EPL available through the Federal Supply System.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.43" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.43   Storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Classified information shall be stored only under conditions designed to deter and detect unauthorized access to the information. Storage at overseas locations shall be at U.S. Government-controlled facilities unless otherwise stipulated in treaties or international agreements. Overseas storage standards for facilities under a Chief of Mission are promulgated under the authority of the Overseas Security Policy Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for physical protection</I>—(1) <I>Top Secret.</I> Top Secret information shall be stored in a GSA-approved security container, a vault built to Federal Standard (FED STD) 832, or an open storage area constructed in accordance with § 2001.53. In addition, supplemental controls are required as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For GSA-approved containers, one of the following supplemental controls:
</P>
<P>(A) Inspection of the container every two hours by an employee cleared at least to the Secret level;
</P>
<P>(B) An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) with the personnel responding to the alarm arriving within 15 minutes of the alarm annunciation. Acceptability of Intrusion Detection Equipment (IDE): All IDE must be in accordance with standards approved by ISOO. Government and proprietary installed, maintained, or furnished systems are subject to approval only by the agency head; or
</P>
<P>(C) Security-In-Depth coverage of the area in which the container is located, provided the container is equipped with a lock meeting Federal Specification FF-L-2740.
</P>
<P>(ii) For open storage areas covered by Security-In-Depth, an IDS with the personnel responding to the alarm arriving within 15 minutes of the alarm annunciation.
</P>
<P>(iii) For open storage areas not covered by Security-In-Depth, personnel responding to the alarm shall arrive within five minutes of the alarm annunciation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secret.</I> Secret information shall be stored in the same manner as Top Secret information or, until October 1, 2012, in a non-GSA-approved container having a built-in combination lock or in a non-GSA-approved container secured with a rigid metal lockbar and an agency head approved padlock. Security-In-Depth is required in areas in which a non-GSA-approved container or open storage area is located. Except for storage in a GSA-approved container or a vault built to FED STD 832, one of the following supplemental controls is required:
</P>
<P>(i) Inspection of the container or open storage area every four hours by an employee cleared at least to the Secret level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An IDS with the personnel responding to the alarm arriving within 30 minutes of the alarm annunciation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidential.</I> Confidential information shall be stored in the same manner as prescribed for Top Secret or Secret information except that supplemental controls are not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Combinations.</I> Use and maintenance of dial-type locks and other changeable combination locks.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Equipment in service.</I> Combinations to dial-type locks shall be changed only by persons authorized access to the level of information protected unless other sufficient controls exist to prevent access to the lock or knowledge of the combination. Combinations shall be changed under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Whenever such equipment is placed into use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a person knowing the combination no longer requires access to it unless other sufficient controls exist to prevent access to the lock; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever a combination has been subject to possible unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment out of service.</I> When security equipment is taken out of service, it shall be inspected to ensure that no classified information remains and the combination lock should be reset to a standard combination of 50-25-50 for built-in combination locks or 10-20-30 for combination padlocks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Key operated locks.</I> When special circumstances exist, an agency head may approve the use of key operated locks for the storage of Secret and Confidential information. Whenever such locks are used, administrative procedures for the control and accounting of keys and locks shall be included in implementing regulations required under section 5.4(d)(2) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repairs.</I> The neutralization and repair of GSA-approved security containers and vault doors will be in accordance with FED STD 809.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.44" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.44   Reciprocity of use and inspection of facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a facility is authorized, approved, certified, or accredited for classified use, then all agencies desiring to conduct classified work in the designated space(s) at the same security level shall accept the authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation without change, enhancements, or upgrades provided that no waiver, exception, or deviation has been issued or approved. In the event that a waiver exception, or deviation was granted in the original accreditation of the designated space(s), an agency seeking to utilize the designated facility space may require that a risk mitigation strategy be implemented or agreed upon prior to using the space(s).
</P>
<P>(b) Subsequent security inspections or reviews for authorization, approval, certification, or accreditation purposes shall normally be conducted no more frequently than annually unless otherwise required due to a change in the designated facility space(s) or due to a change in the use or ownership of the facility space(s). This does not imply a formal one-year inspection or review requirement or establish any other formal period for inspections or review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.45" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.45   Information controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Agency heads shall establish a system of control measures which assure that access to classified information is provided to authorized persons. The control measures shall be appropriate to the environment in which the access occurs and the nature and volume of the information. The system shall include technical, physical, and personnel control measures. Administrative control measures which may include records of internal distribution, access, generation, inventory, reproduction, and disposition of classified information shall be required when technical, physical and personnel control measures are insufficient to deter and detect access by unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combinations.</I> Combinations to locks used to secure vaults, open storage areas, and security containers that are approved for the safeguarding of classified information shall be protected in the same manner as the highest level of classified information that the vault, open storage area, or security container is used to protect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computer and information system passwords.</I> Passwords shall be protected in the same manner as the highest level of classified information that the computer or system is certified and accredited to process. Passwords shall be changed on a frequency determined to be sufficient to meet the level of risk assessed by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reproduction.</I> Reproduction of classified information shall be held to the minimum consistent with operational requirements. The following additional control measures shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Reproduction shall be accomplished by authorized persons knowledgeable of the procedures for classified reproduction;
</P>
<P>(2) Unless restricted by the originating agency, Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential information may be reproduced to the extent required by operational needs, or to facilitate review for declassification;
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of classified information shall be subject to the same controls as the original information; and
</P>
<P>(4) The use of technology that prevents, discourages, or detects the unauthorized reproduction of classified information is encouraged.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Forms.</I> The use of standard forms prescribed in subpart  H of this part is mandatory for all agencies that create and/or handle national security information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Redaction</I>—(1) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> Classified information may be subject to loss, compromise, or unauthorized disclosure if it is not correctly redacted. Agencies shall establish policies and procedures for the redaction of classified information from documents intended for release. Such policies and procedures require the approval of the agency head and shall be sufficiently detailed to ensure that redaction is performed consistently and reliably, using only approved redaction methods that permanently remove the classified information from copies of the documents intended for release. Agencies shall ensure that personnel who perform redaction fully understand the policies, procedures, and methods and are aware of the vulnerabilities surrounding the process.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Technical guidance for redaction.</I> Technical guidance concerning appropriate methods, equipment, and standards for the redaction of classified electronic and optical media shall be issued by NSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.46" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.46   Transmission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Classified information shall be transmitted and received in an authorized manner which ensures that evidence of tampering can be detected, that inadvertent access can be precluded, and that provides a method which assures timely delivery to the intended recipient. Persons transmitting classified information are responsible for ensuring that intended recipients are authorized persons with the capability to store classified information in accordance with this Directive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dispatch.</I> Agency heads shall establish procedures which ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) All classified information physically transmitted outside facilities shall be enclosed in two layers, both of which provide reasonable evidence of tampering and which conceal the contents. The inner enclosure shall clearly identify the address of both the sender and the intended recipient, the highest classification level of the contents, and any appropriate warning notices. The outer enclosure shall be the same except that no markings to indicate that the contents are classified shall be visible. Intended recipients shall be identified by name only as part of an attention line. The following exceptions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) If the classified information is an internal component of a packable item of equipment, the outside shell or body may be considered as the inner enclosure provided it does not reveal classified information;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the classified information is an inaccessible internal component of a bulky item of equipment, the outside or body of the item may be considered to be a sufficient enclosure provided observation of it does not reveal classified information;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the classified information is an item of equipment that is not reasonably packable and the shell or body is classified, it shall be concealed with an opaque enclosure that will hide all classified features;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specialized shipping containers, including closed cargo transporters or diplomatic pouch, may be considered the outer enclosure when used; and
</P>
<P>(v) When classified information is hand-carried outside a facility, a locked briefcase may serve as the outer enclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Couriers and authorized persons designated to hand-carry classified information shall ensure that the information remains under their constant and continuous protection and that direct point-to-point delivery is made. As an exception, agency heads may approve, as a substitute for a courier on direct flights, the use of specialized shipping containers that are of sufficient construction to provide evidence of forced entry, are secured with a combination padlock meeting Federal Specification FF-P-110, are equipped with an electronic seal that would provide evidence of surreptitious entry and are handled by the carrier in a manner to ensure that the container is protected until its delivery is completed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transmission methods within and between the U.S., Puerto Rico, or a U.S. possession or trust territory</I>—(1) <I>Top Secret.</I> Top Secret information shall be transmitted by direct contact between authorized persons; the Defense Courier Service or an authorized government agency courier service; a designated courier or escort with Top Secret clearance; electronic means over approved communications systems. Under no circumstances will Top Secret information be transmitted via the U.S. Postal Service or any other cleared or uncleared commercial carrier.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secret.</I> Secret information shall be transmitted by:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the methods established for Top Secret; U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail, as long as the Waiver of Signature block on the U.S. Postal Service Express Mail Label shall not be completed; and cleared commercial carriers or cleared commercial messenger services. The use of street-side mail collection boxes is strictly prohibited; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Agency heads may, when a requirement exists for overnight delivery within the U.S. and its Territories, authorize the use of the current holder of the GSA contract for overnight delivery of information for the Executive Branch as long as applicable postal regulations (39 CFR. Chapter I) are met. Any such delivery service shall be U.S. owned and operated, provide automated in-transit tracking of the classified information, and ensure package integrity during transit. The contract shall require cooperation with government inquiries in the event of a loss, theft, or possible unauthorized disclosure of classified information. The sender is responsible for ensuring that an authorized person will be available to receive the delivery and verification of the correct mailing address. The package may be addressed to the recipient by name. The release signature block on the receipt label shall not be executed under any circumstances. The use of external (street side) collection boxes is prohibited. Classified Communications Security Information, NATO, and foreign government information shall not be transmitted in this manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidential.</I> Confidential information shall be transmitted by any of the methods established for Secret information or U.S. Postal Service Certified Mail. In addition, when the recipient is a U.S. Government facility, the Confidential information may be transmitted via U.S. First Class Mail. However, Confidential information shall not be transmitted to government contractor facilities via first class mail. When first class mail is used, the envelope or outer wrapper shall be marked to indicate that the information is not to be forwarded, but is to be returned to sender. The use of streetside mail collection boxes is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transmission methods to a U.S. Government facility located outside the U.S.</I> The transmission of classified information to a U.S. Government facility located outside the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or a U.S. possession or trust territory, shall be by methods specified above for Top Secret information or by the Department of State Courier Service. U.S. Registered Mail through Military Postal Service facilities may be used to transmit Secret and Confidential information provided that the information does not at any time pass out of U.S. citizen control nor pass through a foreign postal system.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transmission of U.S. classified information to foreign governments.</I> Such transmission shall take place between designated government representatives using the government-to-government transmission methods described in paragraph (d) of this section or through channels agreed to by the National Security Authorities of the two governments. When classified information is transferred to a foreign government or its representative a signed receipt is required.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Receipt of classified information.</I> Agency heads shall establish procedures which ensure that classified information is received in a manner which precludes unauthorized access, provides for inspection of all classified information received for evidence of tampering and confirmation of contents, and ensures timely acknowledgment of the receipt of Top Secret and Secret information by an authorized recipient. As noted in paragraph (e) of this section, a receipt acknowledgment of all classified material transmitted to a foreign government or its representative is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.47" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.47   Destruction.</HEAD>
<P>Classified information identified for destruction shall be destroyed completely to preclude recognition or reconstruction of the classified information in accordance with procedures and methods prescribed by agency heads. The methods and equipment used to routinely destroy classified information include burning, cross-cut shredding, wet-pulping, melting, mutilation, chemical decomposition or pulverizing. Agencies shall comply with the destruction equipment standard stated in § 2001.42(b) of this Directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.48" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.48   Loss, possible compromise or unauthorized disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any person who has knowledge that classified information has been or may have been lost, possibly compromised or disclosed to an unauthorized person(s) shall immediately report the circumstances to an official designated for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cases involving information originated by a foreign government or another U.S. government agency.</I> Whenever a loss or possible unauthorized disclosure involves the classified information or interests of a foreign government agency, or another U.S. government agency, the department or agency in which the compromise occurred shall advise the other government agency or foreign government of the circumstances and findings that affect their information or interests. However, foreign governments normally will not be advised of any security system vulnerabilities that contributed to the compromise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inquiry/investigation and corrective actions.</I> Agency heads shall establish appropriate procedures to conduct an inquiry/investigation of a loss, possible compromise or unauthorized disclosure of classified information, in order to implement appropriate corrective actions, which may include disciplinary sanctions, and to ascertain the degree of damage to national security.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports to ISOO.</I> In accordance with section 5.5(e)(2) of the Order, agency heads or senior agency officials shall notify the Director of ISOO when a violation occurs under paragraphs 5.5(b)(1), (2), or (3) of the Order that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is reported to oversight committees in the Legislative branch;
</P>
<P>(2) May attract significant public attention;
</P>
<P>(3) Involves large amounts of classified information; or
</P>
<P>(4) Reveals a potential systemic weakness in classification, safeguarding, or declassification policy or practices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Department of Justice and legal counsel coordination.</I> Agency heads shall establish procedures to ensure coordination with legal counsel whenever a formal action, beyond a reprimand, is contemplated against any person believed responsible for the unauthorized disclosure of classified information. Whenever a criminal violation appears to have occurred and a criminal prosecution is contemplated, agency heads shall use established procedures to ensure coordination with:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Justice, and
</P>
<P>(2) The legal counsel of the agency where the individual responsible is assigned or employed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.49" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.49   Special access programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The safeguarding requirements of this Directive may be enhanced for information in special access programs (SAP), established under the provisions of section 4.3 of the Order by the agency head responsible for creating the SAP. Agency heads shall ensure that the enhanced controls are based on an assessment of the value, critical nature, and vulnerability of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant interagency support requirements.</I> Agency heads must ensure that a Memorandum of Agreement/Understanding is established for each SAP that has significant interagency support requirements, to appropriately and fully address support requirements and supporting agency oversight responsibilities for that SAP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.50" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.50   Telecommunications automated information systems and network security.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency head shall ensure that classified information electronically accessed, processed, stored or transmitted is protected in accordance with applicable national policy issuances identified in the Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) issuances and the Intelligence Community Directive (ICD) 503, <I>Intelligence Community Information Technology Systems Security Risk Management, Certification, and Accreditation.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.51" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.51   Technical security.</HEAD>
<P>Based upon the risk management factors referenced in § 2001.40 of this directive, agency heads shall determine the requirement for technical countermeasures such as Technical Surveillance Countermeasures and TEMPEST necessary to detect or deter exploitation of classified information through technical collection methods and may apply countermeasures in accordance with NSTISSI 7000, <I>TEMPEST Countermeasures for Facilities,</I> and SPB Issuance 6-97, <I>National Policy on Technical Surveillance Countermeasures.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.52" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.52   Emergency authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agency heads or any designee may prescribe special provisions for the dissemination, transmission, safeguarding, and destruction of classified information during certain emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(b) In emergency situations, in which there is an imminent threat to life or in defense of the homeland, agency heads or designees may authorize the disclosure of classified information to an individual or individuals who are otherwise not routinely eligible for access under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit the amount of classified information disclosed to the absolute minimum to achieve the purpose;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit the number of individuals who receive it;
</P>
<P>(3) Transmit the classified information via approved Federal Government channels by the most secure and expeditious method to include those required in § 2001.46, or other means deemed necessary when time is of the essence;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide instructions about what specific information is classified and how it should be safeguarded; physical custody of classified information must remain with an authorized Federal Government entity, in all but the most extraordinary circumstances;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide appropriate briefings to the recipients on their responsibilities not to disclose the information and obtain a signed nondisclosure agreement;
</P>
<P>(6) Within 72 hours of the disclosure of classified information, or the earliest opportunity that the emergency permits, but no later than 30 days after the release, the disclosing authority must notify the originating agency of the information by providing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the disclosed information;
</P>
<P>(ii) To whom the information was disclosed;
</P>
<P>(iii) How the information was disclosed and transmitted;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reason for the emergency release;
</P>
<P>(v) How the information is being safeguarded; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the briefings provided and a copy of the nondisclosure agreements signed.
</P>
<P>(7) Information disclosed in emergency situations shall not be required to be declassified as a result of such disclosure or subsequent use by a recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.53" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.53   Open storage areas.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes the minimum construction standards for open storage areas.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Construction.</I> The perimeter walls, floors, and ceiling will be permanently constructed and attached to each other. All construction must be done in a manner as to provide visual evidence of unauthorized penetration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Doors.</I> Doors shall be constructed of wood, metal, or other solid material. Entrance doors shall be secured with a built-in GSA-approved three-position combination lock. When special circumstances exist, the agency head may authorize other locks on entrance doors for Secret and Confidential storage. Doors other than those secured with the aforementioned locks shall be secured from the inside with either deadbolt emergency egress hardware, a deadbolt, or a rigid wood or metal bar which extends across the width of the door, or by other means approved by the agency head.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vents, ducts, and miscellaneous openings.</I> All vents, ducts, and similar openings in excess of 96 square inches (and over 6 inches in its smallest dimension) that enter or pass through an open storage area shall be protected with either bars, expanded metal grills, commercial metal sounds baffles, or an intrusion detection system.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Windows.</I> (1) All windows which might reasonably afford visual observation of classified activities within the facility shall be made opaque or equipped with blinds, drapes, or other coverings.
</P>
<P>(2) Windows within 18 feet of the ground will be constructed from or covered with materials which provide protection from forced entry. The protection provided to the windows need be no stronger than the strength of the contiguous walls. Open storage areas which are located within a controlled compound or equivalent may eliminate the requirement for forced entry protection if the windows are made inoperable either by permanently sealing them or equipping them on the inside with a locking mechanism and they are covered by an IDS (either independently or by the motion detection sensors within the area).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.54" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.54   Foreign government information.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements described below are additional baseline safeguarding standards that may be necessary for foreign government information, other than NATO information, that requires protection pursuant to an existing treaty, agreement, bilateral exchange or other obligation. NATO classified information shall be safeguarded in compliance with USSAN 1-07. To the extent practical, and to facilitate its control, foreign government information should be stored separately from other classified information. To avoid additional costs, separate storage may be accomplished by methods such as separate drawers of a container. The safeguarding standards described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section may be modified if required or permitted by treaties or agreements, or for other obligations, with the prior written consent of the National Security Authority of the originating government, hereafter “originating government.”
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Top Secret.</I> Records shall be maintained of the receipt, internal distribution, destruction, access, reproduction, and transmittal of foreign government Top Secret information. Reproduction requires the consent of the originating government. Destruction will be witnessed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secret.</I> Records shall be maintained of the receipt, external dispatch and destruction of foreign government Secret information. Other records may be necessary if required by the originator. Secret foreign government information may be reproduced to meet mission requirements unless prohibited by the originator. Reproduction shall be recorded unless this requirement is waived by the originator.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential.</I> Records need not be maintained for foreign government Confidential information unless required by the originator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restricted and other foreign government information provided in confidence.</I> In order to assure the protection of other foreign government information provided in confidence (<I>e.g.,</I> foreign government “Restricted,” “Designated,” or unclassified provided in confidence), such information must be classified under the Order. The receiving agency, or a receiving U.S. contractor, licensee, grantee, or certificate holder acting in accordance with instructions received from the U.S. Government, shall provide a degree of protection to the foreign government information at least equivalent to that required by the government or international organization that provided the information. When adequate to achieve equivalency, these standards may be less restrictive than the safeguarding standards that ordinarily apply to U.S. Confidential information. If the foreign protection requirement is lower than the protection required for U.S. Confidential information, the following requirements shall be met:
</P>
<P>(1) Documents may retain their original foreign markings if the responsible agency determines that these markings are adequate to meet the purposes served by U.S. classification markings. Otherwise, documents shall be marked, “This document contains (insert name of country) (insert classification level) information to be treated as U.S. (insert classification level).” The notation, “Modified Handling Authorized,” may be added to either the foreign or U.S. markings authorized for foreign government information. If remarking foreign originated documents or matter is impractical, an approved cover sheet is an authorized option;
</P>
<P>(2) Documents shall be provided only to persons in accordance with sections 4.1(a) and (h) of the Order;
</P>
<P>(3) Individuals being given access shall be notified of applicable handling instructions. This may be accomplished by a briefing, written instructions, or by applying specific handling requirements to an approved cover sheet;
</P>
<P>(4) Documents shall be stored in such a manner so as to prevent unauthorized access;
</P>
<P>(5) Documents shall be transmitted in a method approved for classified information, unless this method is waived by the originating government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Third-country transfers.</I> The release or disclosure of foreign government information to any third-country entity must have the prior consent of the originating government if required by a treaty, agreement, bilateral exchange, or other obligation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.55" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.5.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.55   Foreign disclosure of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Classified information originating in one agency may be disseminated by any other agency to which it has been made available to a foreign government or international organization of governments, or any element thereof, in accordance with statute, the Order, directives implementing the Order, direction of the President, or with the consent of the originating agency, unless the originating agency has determined that prior authorization is required for such dissemination and has marked or indicated such requirement on the medium containing the classified information. Markings used to implement this section shall be approved in accordance with § 2001.24(j). With respect to the Intelligence Community, the Director of National Intelligence may issue policy directives or guidelines pursuant to section 6.2(b) of the Order that modify such prior authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Self-Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.60" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.60   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets standards for establishing and maintaining an ongoing agency self-inspection program, which shall include regular reviews of representative samples of the agency's original and derivative classification actions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility.</I> The senior agency official is responsible for directing and administering the agency's self-inspection program. The senior agency official shall designate agency personnel to assist in carrying out this responsibility. The program shall be structured to provide the senior agency official with information necessary to assess the effectiveness of the classified national security information program within individual agency activities and the agency as a whole, in order to enable the senior agency official to fulfill his or her responsibility to oversee the agency's program under section 5.4(d) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approach.</I> The senior agency official shall determine the means and methods for the conduct of self-inspections.
</P>
<P>(1) Self-inspections should evaluate the adherence to the principles and requirements of the Order and this directive and the effectiveness of agency programs covering original classification, derivative classification, declassification, safeguarding, security violations, security education and training, and management and oversight.
</P>
<P>(2) Regular reviews of representative samples of the agency's original and derivative classification actions shall encompass all agency activities that generate classified information. They shall include a sample of varying types of classified information (in document and electronic format such as e-mail) to provide a representative sample of the activity's classification actions. The sample shall be proportionally sufficient to enable a credible assessment of the agency's classified product. Agency personnel who are assigned to conduct reviews of agencies' original and derivative classification actions shall be knowledgeable of the classification and marking requirements of the Order and this directive, and have access to pertinent security classification guides. In accordance with section 5.4(d)(4) of the Order, the senior agency official shall authorize appropriate agency officials to correct misclassification actions.
</P>
<P>(3) Self-inspections should include a review of relevant security directives and instructions, as well as interviews with producers and users of classified information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency.</I> Self-inspections shall be regular, ongoing, and conducted at least annually with the senior agency official setting the frequency on the basis of program needs and the degree of classification activity. Activities that generate significant amounts of classified information shall include a representative sample of their original and derivative classification actions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Coverage.</I> The senior agency official shall establish self-inspection coverage requirements based on program and policy needs. Agencies with special access programs shall evaluate those programs in accordance with sections 4.3(b)(2) and (4) of the Order, at least annually.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting.</I> Agencies shall document the findings of self-inspections internally.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Internal.</I> The senior agency official shall set the format for documenting self-inspection findings. As part of corrective action for findings and other concerns of a systemic nature, refresher security education and training should address the underlying cause(s) of the issue.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>External.</I> The senior agency official shall report annually to the Director of ISOO on the agency's self-inspection program. This report shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the agency's self-inspection program to include activities assessed, program areas covered, and methodology utilized;
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment and a summary of the findings of the agency self-inspections in the following program areas: Original classification, derivative classification, declassification, safeguarding, security violations, security education and training, and management and oversight;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specific information with regard to the findings of the annual review of the agency's original and derivative classification actions to include the volume of classified materials reviewed and the number and type of discrepancies that were identified;
</P>
<P>(iv) Actions that have been taken or are planned to correct identified deficiencies or misclassification actions, and to deter their reoccurrence; and
</P>
<P>(v) Best practices that were identified during self-inspections.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Security Education and Training</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.70" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.7.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.70   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets standards for agency security education and training programs. Implementation of these standards should:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that all executive branch employees who create, process, or handle classified information have a satisfactory knowledge and understanding of classification, safeguarding, and declassification policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Increase uniformity in the conduct of agency security education and training programs; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reduce instances of over-classification or improper classification, improper safeguarding, and inappropriate or inadequate declassification practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility.</I> The senior agency official is responsible for the agency's security education and training program. The senior agency official shall designate agency personnel, as necessary, to assist in carrying out this responsibility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approach.</I> Security education and training should be tailored to meet the specific needs of the agency's security program and the specific roles employees are expected to play in that program. The agency official(s) responsible for the program shall determine the means and methods for providing security education and training. Training methods may include briefings, interactive videos, dissemination of instructional materials, on-line presentations, and other media and methods. Each agency shall maintain records about the programs it has offered and employee participation in them.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency.</I> The frequency of agency security education and training will vary in accordance with the needs of the agency's security classification program, subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial training shall be provided to every person who has met the standards for access to classified information in accordance with section 4.1 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(2) Original classification authorities shall receive training in proper classification and declassification prior to originally classifying information and at least once each calendar year thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) Persons who apply derivative classification markings shall receive training in the proper application of the derivative classification principles of the Order prior to derivatively classifying information and at least once every two years.
</P>
<P>(4) Each agency shall provide some form of refresher security education and training at least annually for all its personnel who handle or generate classified information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.71" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.7.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.71   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each department or agency shall establish and maintain a formal security education and training program which provides for initial training, refresher training, specialized training, and termination briefings. This subpart establishes fundamental security education and training standards for original classification authorities, derivative classifiers, declassification authorities, security managers, classification management officers, security specialists, and all other personnel whose duties significantly involve the creation or handling of classified information. Agency officials responsible for the security education and training programs should determine the specific training to be provided according to the agency's program and policy needs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial training.</I> All cleared agency personnel shall receive initial training on basic security policies, principles, practices, and criminal, civil, and administrative penalties. Such training must be provided in conjunction with the granting of a security clearance, and prior to accessing classified information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training for original classification authorities.</I> Original classification authorities shall be provided detailed training on proper classification and declassification, with an emphasis on the avoidance of over-classification. At a minimum, the training shall cover classification standards, classification levels, classification authority, classification categories, duration of classification, identification and markings, classification prohibitions and limitations, sanctions, classification challenges, security classification guides, and information sharing.
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel shall receive this training prior to originally classifying information.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to this initial training, original classification authorities shall receive training in proper classification and declassification at least once each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(3) Original classification authorities who do not receive such mandatory training at least once within a calendar year shall have their classification authority suspended until such training has taken place.
</P>
<P>(i) An agency head, deputy agency head, or senior agency official may grant a waiver of this requirement if an individual is unable to receive this training due to unavoidable circumstances. All such waivers shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever such a waiver is granted, the individual shall receive the required training as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Training for persons who apply derivative classification markings.</I> Persons who apply derivative classification markings shall receive training in the proper application of the derivative classification principles of the Order, emphasizing the avoidance of over-classification. At a minimum, the training shall cover the principles of derivative classification, classification levels, duration of classification, identification and markings, classification prohibitions and limitations, sanctions, classification challenges, security classification guides, and information sharing.
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel shall receive this training prior to derivatively classifying information.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to this preparatory training, derivative classifiers shall receive such training at least once every two years.
</P>
<P>(3) Derivative classifiers who do not receive such mandatory training at least once every two years shall have their authority to apply derivative classification markings suspended until they have received such training.
</P>
<P>(i) An agency head, deputy agency head, or senior agency official may grant a waiver of this requirement if an individual is unable to receive this training due to unavoidable circumstances. All such waivers shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever such a waiver is granted, the individual shall receive the required training as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other specialized security education and training.</I> Classification management officers, security managers, security specialists, declassification authorities, and all other personnel whose duties significantly involve the creation or handling of classified information shall receive more detailed or additional training no later than six months after assumption of duties that require other specialized training.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Annual refresher security education and training.</I> Agencies shall provide annual refresher training to employees who create, process, or handle classified information. Annual refresher training should reinforce the policies, principles and procedures covered in initial and specialized training. Annual refresher training should also address identification and handling of other agency-originated information and foreign government information, as well as the threat and the techniques employed by foreign intelligence activities attempting to obtain classified information, and advise personnel of penalties for engaging in espionage activities. Annual refresher training should also address issues or concerns identified during agency self-inspections.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Termination briefings.</I> Except in extraordinary circumstances, each agency shall ensure that each employee who is granted access to classified information and who leaves the service of the agency receives a termination briefing. Also, each agency employee whose clearance is withdrawn or revoked must receive such a briefing. At a minimum, termination briefings must impress upon each employee the continuing responsibility not to disclose any classified information to which the employee had access and the potential penalties for non-compliance, and the obligation to return to the appropriate agency official all classified documents and materials in the employee's possession.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other security education and training.</I> Agencies are encouraged to develop additional security education and training according to program and policy needs. Such security education and training could include:
</P>
<P>(1) Practices applicable to U.S. officials traveling overseas;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for protecting classified information processed and stored in automated information systems;
</P>
<P>(3) Methods for dealing with uncleared personnel who work in proximity to classified information;
</P>
<P>(4) Responsibilities of personnel serving as couriers of classified information; and
</P>
<P>(5) Security requirements that govern participation in international programs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Standard Forms</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.80" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.8.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.80   Prescribed standard forms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The purpose of the standard forms is to promote the implementation of the government-wide information security program. Standard forms are prescribed when their use will enhance the protection of national security information and/or will reduce the costs associated with its protection. The use of the standard forms prescribed is mandatory for agencies of the executive branch that create or handle national security information. As appropriate, these agencies may mandate the use of these forms by their contractors, licensees, or grantees who are authorized access to national security information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers.</I> Except for the SF 312, “Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement,” and the SF 714, “Financial Disclosure Report,” (which are waiverable by the Director of National Intelligence, as the Security Executive Agent, under E.O. 13467, <I>Reforming Processes Related to Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information</I>) only the Director of ISOO may grant a waiver from the use of the prescribed standard forms. To apply for a waiver, an agency must submit its proposed alternative form to the Director of ISOO along with its justification for use. The Director of ISOO will review the request and notify the agency of the decision. Waivers approved prior to December 29, 2009, remain in effect and are subject to review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability.</I> Agencies may obtain copies of the standard forms prescribed by ordering through FEDSTRIP/MILSTRIP or from the GSA Consumer Global Supply Centers, or the GSA Advantage on-line service. Some of these standard forms can be downloaded from the GSA Forms Library.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standard Forms.</I> Standard forms required for application to national security information are as follows.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>SF 311, Agency Security Classification Management Program Data:</I> The SF 311 is a data collection form completed by only those executive branch agencies that create and/or handle classified national security information. The form is a record of classification management data provided by the agencies. The agencies submit the completed forms on an annual basis to ISOO, no later than November 15 following the reporting period, for inclusion in a report to the President.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The SF 312 is a nondisclosure agreement between the United States and an employee of the Federal Government or one of its contractors, licensees, or grantees. The prior execution of this form by an individual is necessary before the United States Government may grant that individual access to classified information, with the exception of an emergency as defined in section 4.2(b) of the Order.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SF 312 may be filled out electronically or by hand, then must be signed. It may be signed by hand and scanned, if the implementing agency permits and the scanned version is done in a way that constitutes a legally enforceable facsimile. Alternatively, the form may be digitally signed if the implementing agency permits, and if the digital signature mechanism employs public key cryptography in a way that meaningfully guarantees authenticity (<I>i.e.,</I> that the digital signature was made by the person it claims to have been made by); consent (<I>i.e.,</I> that the person who digitally signed the form meant to do so); and integrity (<I>i.e.,</I> that the SF 312 has not changed since the signature was made). Digital signatures created using Personal Identity Verification (PIV) cards or common access cards (CACs) issued by the U.S. Government that are compliant with Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 (HSPD-12), or its successor, meet the requirements of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii). They include public key infrastructure (PKI), digital signature certificates issued by a certificate authority (CA), and a PIN the signer must enter in order to digitally sign. Agencies may choose to use other digital signature mechanisms than the PIV or CAC cards, as long as they meet the requirements of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii). The form may not be signed using other forms of electronic signature (e-signature), such as typing “/s/[first and last name]” or attaching an image of a handwritten signature.
</P>
<P>(iii) The SF 312 is the current authorized form; if an employee originally signed the now outdated SF 189 or SF 189-A, or a form under an approved waiver, as agreement to nondisclosure, the forms remain valid. The SF 189 and SF 189-A are no longer available for use with new employees.
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of the “Security Debriefing Acknowledgement” portion of the SF 312 is optional at the discretion of the implementing agency. If an agency chooses not to record its debriefing by signing/dating the debriefing section of the SF 312, then the agency shall provide an alternative record.
</P>
<P>(v) An authorized representative of a contractor, licensee, grantee, or other non-Government organization, acting as a designated agent of the United States, may witness the execution of the SF 312 by another non-Government employee, and may accept it on behalf of the United States. Also, an employee of a United States agency may witness the execution of the SF 312 by an employee, contractor, licensee, or grantee of another United States agency, provided that an authorized United States Government official or, for non-Government employees only, a designated agent of the United States subsequently accepts by signature the SF 312 on behalf of the United States. If the SF 312 is digitally signed, it does not require a witness to observe and verify the digital signature, and therefore also does not require an official to subsequently accept the signature.
</P>
<P>(vi) The provisions of the SF 312, the SF 189, and the SF 189-A do not supersede the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 2302, which pertain to the protected disclosure of information by Government employees, or any other laws of the United States.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each agency must retain its executed copies of the SF 312, SF 189, and SF 189-A in file systems from which an agreement can be expeditiously retrieved in the event that the United States must seek its enforcement or a subsequent employer must confirm its prior execution. The original (either in paper form or electronic form), or a legally enforceable facsimile that is retained in lieu of the original, such as microfiche, microfilm, computer disk, or electronic storage medium, must be retained for 50 years following its date of execution. For agreements executed by civilian employees of the United States Government, an agency may store the executed copy of the SF 312 and SF 189 in the United States Office of Personnel Management's Official Personnel Folder as a long-term (right side) document for that employee. An agency may permit its contractors, licensees, and grantees to retain the executed agreements of their employees during the time of employment. Upon the termination of employment, the contractors, licensee, or grantee shall deliver the original or legally enforceable facsimile of the executed SF 312, SF 189, or SF 189-A of that employee to the Government agency primarily responsible for his or her classified work. A contractor, licensee, or grantee of an agency participating in the National Industrial Security Program shall provide the copy or legally enforceable facsimile of the executed SF 312, SF 189, or SF 189-A of a terminated employee to their cognizant security office. Each agency shall inform ISOO of the file systems that it uses to store these agreements for each category of affected individuals.
</P>
<P>(viii) Only the Director of National Intelligence, as the Security Executive Agent, may grant an agency's request for a waiver from the use of the SF 312. To apply for a waiver, an agency must submit its proposed alternative nondisclosure agreement to the Director of the Special Security Center (SSC), Office of the Director of National Intelligence, along with a justification for its use. The Director, SSC, shall request a determination about the alternative agreement's enforceability from the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(ix) The national stock number for the SF 312 is 7540-01-280-5499.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SF 700, Security Container Information:</I> The SF 700 provides the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of employees who are to be contacted if the security container to which the form pertains is found open and unattended. The form also includes the means to maintain a current record of the security container's combination and provides the envelope to be used to forward this information to the appropriate agency activity or official. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a security container information form is required, the SF 700 shall be used. Parts 2 and 2A of each completed copy of SF 700 shall be classified at the highest level of classification of the information authorized for storage in the security container. A new SF 700 must be completed each time the combination to the security container is changed. The national stock number for the SF 700 is 7540-01-214-5372.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>SF 701, Activity Security Checklist:</I> The SF 701 provides a systematic means to make a thorough end-of-day security inspection for a particular work area and to allow for employee accountability in the event that irregularities are discovered. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that an activity security checklist is required, the SF 701 will be used. Completion, storage, and disposition of SF 701 will be in accordance with each agency's security regulations. The national stock number for the SF 701 is 7540-01-213-7899.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>SF 702, Security Container Check Sheet:</I> The SF 702 provides a record of the names and times that persons have opened, closed, or checked a particular container that holds classified information. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a security container check sheet is required, the SF 702 will be used. Completion, storage, and disposal of the SF 702 will be in accordance with each agency's security regulations. The national stock number of the SF 702 is 7540-01-213-7900.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>SF 703, TOP SECRET Cover Sheet:</I> The SF 703 serves as a shield to protect Top Secret classified information from inadvertent disclosure and to alert observers that Top Secret information is attached to it. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a TOP SECRET cover sheet is required, the SF 703 will be used. The SF 703 is affixed to the top of the Top Secret document and remains attached until the document is downgraded, requiring the appropriate classification level cover sheet, declassified, or destroyed. When the SF 703 has been appropriately removed, it may, depending upon its condition, be reused. The national stock number of the SF 703 is 7540-01-213-7901.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>SF 704, SECRET Cover Sheet:</I> The SF 704 serves as a shield to protect Secret classified information from inadvertent disclosure and to alert observers that Secret information is attached to it. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a SECRET cover sheet is required, the SF 704 will be used. The SF 704 is affixed to the top of the Secret document and remains attached until the document is downgraded, requiring the appropriate classification level cover sheet, declassified, or destroyed. When the SF 704 has been appropriately removed, it may, depending upon its condition, be reused. The national stock number of the SF 704 is 7540-01-213-7902.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>SF 705, CONFIDENTIAL Cover Sheet:</I> The SF 705 serves as a shield to protect Confidential classified information from inadvertent disclosure and to alert observers that Confidential information is attached to it. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a CONFIDENTIAL cover sheet is required, the SF 705 will be used. The SF 705 is affixed to the top of the Confidential document and remains attached until the document is destroyed. When the SF 705 has been appropriately removed, it may, depending upon its condition, be reused. The national stock number of the SF 704 is 7540-01-213-7903.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>SF 706, TOP SECRET Label:</I> The SF 706 is used to identify and protect electronic media and other media that contain Top Secret information. The SF 706 is used instead of the SF 703 for media other than documents. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a TOP SECRET label is required, the SF 706 will be used. The SF 706 is affixed to the medium containing Top Secret information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. The national stock number of the SF 706 is 7540-01-207-5536.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>SF 707, SECRET Label:</I> The SF 707 is used to identify and protect electronic media and other media that contain Secret information. The SF 707 is used instead of the SF 704 for media other than documents. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a SECRET label is required, the SF 707 will be used. The SF 707 is affixed to the medium containing Secret information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. The national stock number of the SF 707 is 7540-01-207-5537.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>SF 708, CONFIDENTIAL Label:</I> The SF 708 is used to identify and protect electronic media and other media that contain Confidential information. The SF 708 is used instead of the SF 705 for media other than documents. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a CONFIDENTIAL label is required, the SF 708 will be used. The SF 708 is affixed to the medium containing Confidential information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. The national stock number of the SF 708 is 7540-01-207-5538.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>SF 709, CLASSIFIED Label:</I> The SF 709 is used to identify and protect electronic media and other media that contain classified information pending a determination by the classifier of the specific classification level of the information. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a CLASSIFIED label is required, the SF 709 will be used. The SF 709 is affixed to the medium containing classified information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. When a classifier has made a determination of the specific level of classification of the information contained on the medium, either the SF 706, SF 707, or SF 708 shall be affixed on top of the SF 709 so that only the SF 706, SF 707, or SF 708 is visible. The national stock number of the SF 709 is 7540-01-207-5540.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>SF 710, UNCLASSIFIED Label:</I> In a mixed environment in which classified and unclassified information are being processed or stored, the SF 710 is used to identify electronic media and other media that contain unclassified information. Its function is to aid in distinguishing among those media that contain either classified or unclassified information in a mixed environment. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that an UNCLASSIFIED label is required, the SF 710 will be used. The SF 710 is affixed to the medium containing unclassified information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. However, the label is small enough so that it can be wholly covered by a SF 706, SF 707, SF 708, or SF 709 if the medium subsequently contains classified information. The national stock number of the SF 710 is 7540-01-207-5539.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>SF 711, DATA DESCRIPTOR Label:</I> The SF 711 is used to identify additional safeguarding controls that pertain to classified information that is stored or contained on electronic or other media. If an agency determines, as part of its risk management strategy, that a DATA DESCRIPTOR label is required, the SF 711 will be used. The SF 711 is affixed to the electronic medium containing classified information in a manner that would not adversely affect operation of equipment in which the medium is used. The SF 711 is ordinarily used in conjunction with the SF 706, SF 707, SF 708, or SF 709, as appropriate. Once the label has been applied, it cannot be removed. The SF 711 provides spaces for information that should be completed as required. The national stock number of the SF 711 is 7540-01-207-5541.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>SF 714, Financial Disclosure Report:</I> When required by an agency head or by the Director of National Intelligence, as the Security Executive Agent, the SF 714 contains information that is used to make personnel security determinations, including whether to grant a security clearance; to allow access to classified information, sensitive areas, and equipment; or to permit assignment to sensitive national security positions. The data may later be used as a part of a review process to evaluate continued eligibility for access to classified information or as evidence in legal proceedings. The SF 714 assists law enforcement agencies in obtaining pertinent information in the preliminary stages of potential espionage and counter terrorism cases.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>SF 715, Government Declassification Review Tab:</I> The SF 715 is used to record the status of classified national security information reviewed for declassification. The SF 715 shall be used in all situations that call for the use of a tab as part of the processing of records determined to be of permanent historical value. The national stock number for the SF 715 is 7540-01-537-4689.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 37254, June 28, 2010, as amended at 87 FR 17952, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Reporting and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.90" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.9.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.90   Agency annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegations of original classification authority.</I> Agencies shall report delegations of original classification authority to ISOO annually in accordance with section 1.3(c) of the Order and § 2001.11(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statistical reporting.</I> Each agency that creates or safeguards classified information shall report annually to the Director of ISOO statistics related to its security classification program. The Director will instruct agencies what data elements are required, and how and when they are to be reported.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting for costs.</I> (1) Information on the costs associated with the implementation of the Order will be collected from the agencies. The agencies will provide data to ISOO on the cost estimates for classification-related activities. ISOO will report these cost estimates annually to the President. The agency senior official should work closely with the agency comptroller to ensure that the best estimates are collected.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Defense, acting as the executive agent for the National Industrial Security Program under E.O.12829, as amended, <I>National Industrial Security Program,</I> and consistent with agreements entered into under section 202 of E.O. 12989, as amended, will collect cost estimates for classification-related activities of contractors, licensees, certificate holders, and grantees, and report them to ISOO annually. ISOO will report these cost estimates annually to the President.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Self-Inspections.</I> Agencies shall report annually to the Director of ISOO as required by section 5.4(d)(4) of the Order and outlined in § 2001.60(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.91" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.9.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.91   Other agency reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information declassified without proper authority.</I> Determinations that classified information has been declassified without proper authority shall be promptly reported in writing to the Director of ISOO in accordance with § 2001.13(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reclassification actions.</I> Reclassification of information that has been declassified and released under proper authority shall be reported promptly to the National Security Advisor and the Director of ISOO in accordance with section 1.7(c)(3) of the Order and § 2001.13(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fundamental classification guidance review.</I> The initial fundamental guidance review is to be completed no later than June 27, 2012. Agency heads shall provide a detailed report summarizing the results of each classification guidance review to ISOO and release an unclassified version to the public in accordance with section 1.9 of the Order and § 2001.16(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Violations of the Order.</I> Agency heads or senior agency officials shall notify the Director of ISOO when a violation occurs under sections 5.5(b)(1), (2), or (3) of the Order and § 2001.48(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2001.92" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.2.9.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2001.92   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accessioned records</I> means records of permanent historical value in the legal custody of NARA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized person</I> means a person who has a favorable determination of eligibility for access to classified information, has signed an approved nondisclosure agreement, and has a need-to-know.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification management</I> means the life-cycle management of classified national security information from original classification to declassification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cleared commercial carrier</I> means a carrier that is authorized by law, regulatory body, or regulation, to transport Secret and Confidential material and has been granted a Secret facility clearance in accordance with the National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> means the authority of the agency that originates information, or its successor in function, to regulate access to the information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee</I> means a person, other than the President and Vice President, employed by, detailed or assigned to, an agency, including members of the Armed Forces; an expert or consultant to an agency; an industrial or commercial contractor, licensee, certificate holder, or grantee of an agency, including all subcontractors; a personal services contractor; or any other category of person who acts for or on behalf of an agency as determined by the appropriate agency head.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Equity</I> refers to information:
</P>
<P>(1) Originally classified by or under the control of an agency;
</P>
<P>(2) In the possession of the receiving agency in the event of transfer of function; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the possession of a successor agency for an agency that has ceased to exist.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exempted</I> means nomenclature and markings indicating information has been determined to fall within an enumerated exemption from automatic declassification under the Order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Facility</I> means an activity of an agency authorized by appropriate authority to conduct classified operations or to perform classified work.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Federal record</I> includes all books, papers, maps, photographs, machine-readable materials, or other documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics, made or received by an agency of the United States Government under Federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business and preserved or appropriate for preservation by that agency or its legitimate successor as evidence of the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of the Government or because of the informational value of data in them. Library and museum material made or acquired and preserved solely for reference, and stocks of publications and processed documents are not included. (44 U.S.C. 3301)
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Newly discovered records</I> means records that were inadvertently not reviewed prior to the effective date of automatic declassification because the appropriate agency personnel were unaware of their existence.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Open storage area</I> means an area constructed in accordance with § 2001.53 of this part and authorized by the agency head for open storage of classified information.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Original classification authority with jurisdiction over the information</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The official who authorized the original classification, if that official is still serving in the same position;
</P>
<P>(2) The originator's current successor in function;
</P>
<P>(3) A supervisory official of either; or
</P>
<P>(4) The senior agency official under the Order.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Permanent records</I> means any Federal record that has been determined by the National Archives to have sufficient value to warrant its preservation in the National Archives. Permanent records include all records accessioned by the National Archives into the National Archives and later increments of the same records, and those for which the disposition is permanent on SF 115s, Request for Records Disposition Authority, approved by the National Archives on or after May 14, 1973.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Permanently valuable information</I> or <I>permanent historical value</I> refers to information contained in:
</P>
<P>(1) Records that have been accessioned by the National Archives;
</P>
<P>(2) Records that have been scheduled as permanent under a records disposition schedule approved by the National Archives; and
</P>
<P>(3) Presidential historical materials, presidential records or donated historical materials located in the National Archives, a presidential library, or any other approved repository.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Presidential papers, historical materials, and records</I> means the papers or records of the former Presidents under the legal control of the Archivist pursuant to sections 2111, 2111 note, or 2203 of title 44, U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Redaction</I> means the removal of classified information from copies of a document such that recovery of the information on the copy is not possible using any reasonably known technique or analysis.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Risk management principles</I> means the principles applied for assessing threats and vulnerabilities and implementing security countermeasures while maximizing the sharing of information to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Security-in-depth</I> means a determination by the agency head that a facility's security program consists of layered and complementary security controls sufficient to deter and detect unauthorized entry and movement within the facility. Examples include, but are not limited to, use of perimeter fences, employee and visitor access controls, use of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), random guard patrols throughout the facility during nonworking hours, closed circuit video monitoring or other safeguards that mitigate the vulnerability of open storage areas without alarms and security storage cabinets during nonworking hours.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Supplemental controls</I> means prescribed procedures or systems that provide security control measures designed to augment the physical protection of classified information. Examples of supplemental controls include intrusion detection systems, periodic inspections of security containers or areas, and security-in-depth.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Temporary records</I> means Federal records approved by NARA for disposal, either immediately or after a specified retention period. Also called <I>disposable records.</I>
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Transclassification</I> means information that has been removed from the Restricted Data category in order to carry out provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, and safeguarded under applicable Executive orders as “National Security Information.”
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Unscheduled records</I> means Federal records whose final disposition has not been approved by NARA. All records that fall under a NARA approved records control schedule are considered to be scheduled records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2002" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2002—CONTROLLED UNCLASSIFIED INFORMATION (CUI)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 13556, 75 FR 68675, 3 CFR, 2010 Comp., pp. 267-270.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 63336, Sept. 14, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.1" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the executive branch's Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Program (the CUI Program) and establishes policy for designating, handling, and decontrolling information that qualifies as CUI.
</P>
<P>(b) The CUI Program standardizes the way the executive branch handles information that requires protection under laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies, but that does not qualify as classified under Executive Order 13526, Classified National Security Information, December 29, 2009 (3 CFR, 2010 Comp., p. 298), or any predecessor or successor order, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011, <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) All unclassified information throughout the executive branch that requires any safeguarding or dissemination control is CUI. Law, regulation (to include this part), or Government-wide policy must require or permit such controls. Agencies therefore may not implement safeguarding or dissemination controls for any unclassified information other than those controls consistent with the CUI Program.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to the CUI Program, agencies often employed <I>ad hoc,</I> agency-specific policies, procedures, and markings to handle this information. This patchwork approach caused agencies to mark and handle information inconsistently, implement unclear or unnecessarily restrictive disseminating policies, and create obstacles to sharing information.
</P>
<P>(e) An executive branch-wide CUI policy balances the need to safeguard CUI with the public interest in sharing information appropriately and without unnecessary burdens.
</P>
<P>(f) This part applies to all executive branch agencies that designate or handle information that meets the standards for CUI. This part does not apply directly to non-executive branch entities, but it does apply indirectly to non-executive branch CUI recipients, through incorporation into agreements (see §§ 2002.4(c) and 2002.16(a) for more information).
</P>
<P>(g) This part rescinds Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) Office Notice 2011-01: Initial Implementation Guidance for Executive Order 13556 (June 9, 2011).
</P>
<P>(h) This part creates no right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
</P>
<P>(i) This part, which contains the CUI Executive Agent (EA)'s control policy, overrides agency-specific or <I>ad hoc</I> requirements when they conflict. This part does not alter, limit, or supersede a requirement stated in laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies or impede the statutory authority of agency heads.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.2" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.2   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NARA incorporates certain material by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, NARA must publish notice of change in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. You may inspect all approved material incorporated by reference at NARA's textual research room, located at National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road; Room 2000; College Park, MD 20740-6001. To arrange to inspect this approved material at NARA, contact NARA's Regulation Comments Desk (Strategy and Performance Division (SP)) by email at <I>regulation_comments@nara.gov</I> or by telephone at 301.837.3151. All approved material is available from the sources listed below. You may also inspect approved material at the Office of the Federal Register (OFR). For information on the availability of this material at the OFR, call 202-741-6030 or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), by mail at 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 1070; Gaithersburg, MD 20899-1070, by email at <I>inquiries@nist.gov,</I> by phone at (301) 975-NIST (6478) or Federal Relay Service (800) 877-8339 (TTY), or online at <I>http://nist.gov/publication-portal.cfm.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) FIPS PUB 199, Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems, February 2004. IBR approved for §§ 2002.14(c) and (g), and 2002.16(c).
</P>
<P>(2) FIPS PUB 200, Minimum Security Requirements for Federal Information and Information Systems, March 2006. IBR approved for §§ <E T="03"/> 2002.14(c) and (g), and 2002.16(c).
</P>
<P>(3) NIST Special Publication 800-53, Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations, Revision 4, April 2013 (includes updates as of 01-22-2015), (NIST SP 800-53). IBR approved for §§ 2002.14(c), (e), (f), and (g), and 2002.16(c).
</P>
<P>(4) NIST Special Publication 800-88, Guidelines for Media Sanitization, Revision 1, December 2014, (NIST SP 800-88). IBR approved for § 2002.14(f).
</P>
<P>(5) NIST Special Publication 800-171, Protecting Controlled Unclassified Information in Nonfederal Systems and Organizations, June 2015 (includes updates as of January 14, 2016), (NIST SP 800-171). IBR approved for § 2002.14(h).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.4" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> (also Federal agency, executive agency, executive branch agency) is any “executive agency,” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; the United States Postal Service; and any other independent entity within the executive branch that designates or handles CUI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency CUI policies</I> are the policies the agency enacts to implement the CUI Program within the agency. They must be in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry and approved by the CUI EA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agreements and arrangements</I> are any vehicle that sets out specific CUI handling requirements for contractors and other information-sharing partners when the arrangement with the other party involves CUI. Agreements and arrangements include, but are not limited to, contracts, grants, licenses, certificates, memoranda of agreement/arrangement or understanding, and information-sharing agreements or arrangements. When disseminating or sharing CUI with non-executive branch entities, agencies should enter into written agreements or arrangements that include CUI provisions whenever feasible (see § 2002.16(a)(5) and (6) for details). When sharing information with foreign entities, agencies should enter agreements or arrangements when feasible (see § 2002.16(a)(5)(iii) and (a)(6) for details).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authorized holder</I> is an individual, agency, organization, or group of users that is permitted to designate or handle CUI, in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Classified information</I> is information that Executive Order 13526, “Classified National Security Information,” December 29, 2009 (3 CFR, 2010 Comp., p. 298), or any predecessor or successor order, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, requires agencies to mark with classified markings and protect against unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Controlled environment</I> is any area or space an authorized holder deems to have adequate physical or procedural controls (<I>e.g.,</I> barriers or managed access controls) to protect CUI from unauthorized access or disclosure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Control level</I> is a general term that indicates the safeguarding and disseminating requirements associated with CUI Basic and CUI Specified.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Controlled Unclassified Information</I> (CUI) is information the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls. However, CUI does not include classified information (see paragraph (e) of this section) or information a non-executive branch entity possesses and maintains in its own systems that did not come from, or was not created or possessed by or for, an executive branch agency or an entity acting for an agency. Law, regulation, or Government-wide policy may require or permit safeguarding or dissemination controls in three ways: Requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information but providing no specific controls, which makes the information CUI Basic; requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information and providing specific controls for doing so, which makes the information CUI Specified; or requiring or permitting agencies to control the information and specifying only some of those controls, which makes the information CUI Specified, but with CUI Basic controls where the authority does not specify.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Controls</I> are safeguarding or dissemination controls that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits agencies to use when handling CUI. The authority may specify the controls it requires or permits the agency to apply, or the authority may generally require or permit agencies to control the information (in which case, the agency applies controls from the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>CUI Basic</I> is the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified in this section), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>CUI categories and subcategories</I> are those types of information for which laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies require or permit agencies to exercise safeguarding or dissemination controls, and which the CUI EA has approved and listed in the CUI Registry. The controls for any CUI Basic categories and any CUI Basic subcategories are the same, but the controls for CUI Specified categories and subcategories can differ from CUI Basic ones and from each other. A CUI category may be Specified, while some or all of its subcategories may not be, and vice versa. If dealing with CUI that falls into a CUI Specified category or subcategory, review the controls for that category or subcategory on the CUI Registry. Also consult the agency's CUI policy for specific direction from the Senior Agency Official.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>CUI category or subcategory markings</I> are the markings approved by the CUI EA for the categories and subcategories listed in the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>CUI Executive Agent (EA)</I> is the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), which implements the executive branch-wide CUI Program and oversees Federal agency actions to comply with the Order. NARA has delegated this authority to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>CUI Program</I> is the executive branch-wide program to standardize CUI handling by all Federal agencies. The Program includes the rules, organization, and procedures for CUI, established by the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>CUI Program manager</I> is an agency official, designated by the agency head or CUI SAO, to serve as the official representative to the CUI EA on the agency's day-to-day CUI Program operations, both within the agency and in interagency contexts.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>CUI Registry</I> is the online repository for all information, guidance, policy, and requirements on handling CUI, including everything issued by the CUI EA other than this part. Among other information, the CUI Registry identifies all approved CUI categories and subcategories, provides general descriptions for each, identifies the basis for controls, establishes markings, and includes guidance on handling procedures.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>CUI senior agency official (SAO)</I> is a senior official designated in writing by an agency head and responsible to that agency head for implementation of the CUI Program within that agency. The CUI SAO is the primary point of contact for official correspondence, accountability reporting, and other matters of record between the agency and the CUI EA.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>CUI Specified</I> is the subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use that differ from those for CUI Basic. The CUI Registry indicates which laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies include such specific requirements. CUI Specified controls may be more stringent than, or may simply differ from, those required by CUI Basic; the distinction is that the underlying authority spells out specific controls for CUI Specified information and does not for CUI Basic information. CUI Basic controls apply to those aspects of CUI Specified where the authorizing laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies do not provide specific guidance.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Decontrolling</I> occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with this part and the CUI Registry, removes safeguarding or dissemination controls from CUI that no longer requires such controls. Decontrol may occur automatically or through agency action. See § 2002.18.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Designating</I> <I>CUI</I> occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with this part and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory. The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Designating agency</I> is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Disseminating</I> occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to an agency.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Document</I> means any tangible thing which constitutes or contains information, and means the original and any copies (whether different from the originals because of notes made on such copies or otherwise) of all writings of every kind and description over which an agency has authority, whether inscribed by hand or by mechanical, facsimile, electronic, magnetic, microfilm, photographic, or other means, as well as phonic or visual reproductions or oral statements, conversations, or events, and including, but not limited to: Correspondence, email, notes, reports, papers, files, manuals, books, pamphlets, periodicals, letters, memoranda, notations, messages, telegrams, cables, facsimiles, records, studies, working papers, accounting papers, contracts, licenses, certificates, grants, agreements, computer disks, computer tapes, telephone logs, computer mail, computer printouts, worksheets, sent or received communications of any kind, teletype messages, agreements, diary entries, calendars and journals, printouts, drafts, tables, compilations, tabulations, recommendations, accounts, work papers, summaries, address books, other records and recordings or transcriptions of conferences, meetings, visits, interviews, discussions, or telephone conversations, charts, graphs, indexes, tapes, minutes, contracts, leases, invoices, records of purchase or sale correspondence, electronic or other transcription of taping of personal conversations or conferences, and any written, printed, typed, punched, taped, filmed, or graphic matter however produced or reproduced. Document also includes the file, folder, exhibits, and containers, the labels on them, and any metadata, associated with each original or copy. Document also includes voice records, film, tapes, video tapes, email, personal computer files, electronic matter, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, including materials used in data processing.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Federal information system</I> is an information system used or operated by an agency or by a contractor of an agency or other organization <I>on behalf of an agency.</I> 44 U.S.C. 3554(a)(1)(A)(ii).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Foreign entity</I> is a foreign government, an international organization of governments or any element thereof, an international or foreign public or judicial body, or an international or foreign private or non-governmental organization.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Formerly Restricted Data (FRD)</I> is a type of information classified under the Atomic Energy Act, and defined in 10 CFR 1045, Nuclear Classification and Declassification.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Handling</I> is any use of CUI, including but not limited to marking, safeguarding, transporting, disseminating, re-using, and disposing of the information.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Lawful Government purpose</I> is any activity, mission, function, operation, or endeavor that the U.S. Government authorizes or recognizes as within the scope of its legal authorities or the legal authorities of non-executive branch entities (such as state and local law enforcement).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Legacy material</I> is unclassified information that an agency marked as restricted from access or dissemination in some way, or otherwise controlled, prior to the CUI Program.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Limited dissemination control</I> is any CUI EA-approved control that agencies may use to limit or specify CUI dissemination.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Misuse of CUI</I> occurs when someone uses CUI in a manner not in accordance with the policy contained in the Order, this part, the CUI Registry, agency CUI policy, or the applicable laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies that govern the affected information. This may include intentional violations or unintentional errors in safeguarding or disseminating CUI. This may also include designating or marking information as CUI when it does not qualify as CUI.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>National Security System</I> is a special type of information system (including telecommunications systems) whose function, operation, or use is defined in National Security Directive 42 and 44 U.S.C. 3542(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Non-executive branch entity</I> is a person or organization established, operated, and controlled by individual(s) acting outside the scope of any official capacity as officers, employees, or agents of the executive branch of the Federal Government. Such entities may include: Elements of the legislative or judicial branches of the Federal Government; state, interstate, tribal, or local government elements; and private organizations. Non-executive branch entity does not include foreign entities as defined in this part, nor does it include individuals or organizations when they receive CUI information pursuant to federal disclosure laws, including the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>On behalf of an agency</I> occurs when a non-executive branch entity uses or operates an information system or maintains or collects information for the purpose of processing, storing, or transmitting Federal information, and those activities are not incidental to providing a service or product to the Government.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Order</I> is Executive Order 13556, Controlled Unclassified Information, November 4, 2010 (3 CFR, 2011 Comp., p. 267), or any successor order.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Portion</I> is ordinarily a section within a document, and may include subjects, titles, graphics, tables, charts, bullet statements, sub-paragraphs, bullets points, or other sections.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Protection</I> includes all controls an agency applies or must apply when handling information that qualifies as CUI.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Public release</I> occurs when the agency that originally designated particular information as CUI makes that information available to the public through the agency's official public release processes. Disseminating CUI to non-executive branch entities as authorized does not constitute public release. Releasing information to an individual pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 or disclosing it in response to a FOIA request also does not automatically constitute public release, although it may if that agency ties such actions to its official public release processes. Even though an agency may disclose some CUI to a member of the public, the Government must still control that CUI unless the agency publicly releases it through its official public release processes.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Records</I> are agency records and Presidential papers or Presidential records (or Vice-Presidential), as those terms are defined in 44 U.S.C. 3301 and 44 U.S.C. 2201 and 2207. Records also include such items created or maintained by a Government contractor, licensee, certificate holder, or grantee that are subject to the sponsoring agency's control under the terms of the entity's agreement with the agency.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Required or permitted (by a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy)</I> is the basis by which information may qualify as CUI. If a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires that agencies exercise safeguarding or dissemination controls over certain information, or specifically permits agencies the discretion to do so, then that information qualifies as CUI. The term 'specifically permits' in this context can include language such as “is exempt from” applying certain information release or disclosure requirements, “may” release or disclose the information, “may not be required to” release or disclose the information, “is responsible for protecting” the information, and similar specific but indirect, forms of granting the agency discretion regarding safeguarding or dissemination controls. This does not include general agency or agency head authority and discretion to make decisions, risk assessments, or other broad agency authorities, discretions, and powers, regardless of the source. The CUI Registry reflects all appropriate authorizing authorities.
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Restricted Data (RD)</I> is a type of information classified under the Atomic Energy Act, defined in 10 CFR part 1045, Nuclear Classification and Declassification.
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Re-use</I> means incorporating, restating, or paraphrasing information from its originally designated form into a newly created document.
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>Self-inspection</I> is an agency's internally managed review and evaluation of its activities to implement the CUI Program.
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>Unauthorized disclosure</I> occurs when an authorized holder of CUI intentionally or unintentionally discloses CUI without a lawful Government purpose, in violation of restrictions imposed by safeguarding or dissemination controls, or contrary to limited dissemination controls.
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Uncontrolled unclassified information</I> is information that neither the Order nor the authorities governing classified information cover as protected. Although this information is not controlled or classified, agencies must still handle it in accordance with Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements.
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Working papers</I> are documents or materials, regardless of form, that an agency or user expects to revise prior to creating a finished product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.6" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.6   CUI Executive Agent (EA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2(c) of the Order designates NARA as the CUI Executive Agent (EA) to implement the Order and to oversee agency efforts to comply with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) NARA has delegated the CUI EA responsibilities to the Director of ISOO. Under this authority, ISOO staff carry out CUI oversight responsibilities and manage the Federal CUI program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.8" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.8   Roles and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CUI EA:
</P>
<P>(1) Develops and issues policy, guidance, and other materials, as needed, to implement the Order, the CUI Registry, and this part, and to establish and maintain the CUI Program;
</P>
<P>(2) Consults with affected agencies, Government-wide policy bodies, State, local, Tribal, and private sector partners, and representatives of the public on matters pertaining to CUI as needed;
</P>
<P>(3) Establishes, convenes, and chairs the CUI Advisory Council (the Council) to address matters pertaining to the CUI Program. The CUI EA consults with affected agencies to develop and document the Council's structure and procedures, and submits the details to OMB for approval;
</P>
<P>(4) Reviews and approves agency policies implementing this part to ensure their consistency with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry;
</P>
<P>(5) Reviews, evaluates, and oversees agencies' actions to implement the CUI Program, to ensure compliance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry;
</P>
<P>(6) Establishes a management and planning framework, including associated deadlines for phased implementation, based on agency compliance plans submitted pursuant to section 5(b) of the Order, and in consultation with affected agencies and OMB;
</P>
<P>(7) Approves categories and subcategories of CUI as needed and publishes them in the CUI Registry;
</P>
<P>(8) Maintains and updates the CUI Registry as needed;
</P>
<P>(9) Prescribes standards, procedures, guidance, and instructions for oversight and agency self-inspection programs, to include performing on-site inspections;
</P>
<P>(10) Standardizes forms and procedures to implement the CUI Program;
</P>
<P>(11) Considers and resolves, as appropriate, disputes, complaints, and suggestions about the CUI Program from entities in or outside the Government; and
</P>
<P>(12) Reports to the President on implementation of the Order and the requirements of this part. This includes publishing a report on the status of agency implementation at least biennially, or more frequently at the discretion of the CUI EA.
</P>
<P>(b) Agency heads:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure agency senior leadership support, and make adequate resources available to implement, manage, and comply with the CUI Program as administered by the CUI EA;
</P>
<P>(2) Designate a CUI senior agency official (SAO) responsible for oversight of the agency's CUI Program implementation, compliance, and management, and include the official in agency contact listings;
</P>
<P>(3) Approve agency policies, as required, to implement the CUI Program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and maintain a self-inspection program to ensure the agency complies with the principles and requirements of the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(c) The CUI SAO:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be at the Senior Executive Service level or equivalent;
</P>
<P>(2) Directs and oversees the agency's CUI Program;
</P>
<P>(3) Designates a CUI Program manager;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures the agency has CUI implementing policies and plans, as needed;
</P>
<P>(5) Implements an education and training program pursuant to § 2002.30;
</P>
<P>(6) Upon request of the CUI EA under section 5(c) of the Order, provides an update of CUI implementation efforts for subsequent reporting;
</P>
<P>(7) Submits to the CUI EA any law, regulation, or Government-wide policy not already incorporated into the CUI Registry that the agency proposes to use to designate unclassified information for safeguarding or dissemination controls;
</P>
<P>(8) Coordinates with the CUI EA, as appropriate, any proposed law, regulation, or Government-wide policy that would establish, eliminate, or modify a category or subcategory of CUI, or change information controls applicable to CUI;
</P>
<P>(9) Establishes processes for handling CUI decontrol requests submitted by authorized holders;
</P>
<P>(10) Includes a description of all existing waivers in the annual report to the CUI EA, along with the rationale for each waiver and, where applicable, the alternative steps the agency is taking to ensure sufficient protection of CUI within the agency;
</P>
<P>(11) Develops and implements the agency's self-inspection program;</P>
<P>(12) Establishes a mechanism by which authorized holders (both inside and outside the agency) can contact a designated agency representative for instructions when they receive unmarked or improperly marked information the agency designated as CUI;
</P>
<P>(13) Establishes a process to accept and manage challenges to CUI status (which may include improper or absent marking);
</P>
<P>(14) Establish processes and criteria for reporting and investigating misuse of CUI; and
</P>
<P>(15) Follows the requirements for the CUI SAO listed in § 2002.38(e), regarding waivers for CUI.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director of National Intelligence: After consulting with the heads of affected agencies and the Director of ISOO, may issue directives to implement this part with respect to the protection of intelligence sources, methods, and activities. Such directives must be in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Key Elements of the CUI Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.10" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.10   The CUI Registry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CUI EA maintains the CUI Registry, which:
</P>
<P>(1) Is the authoritative central repository for all guidance, policy, instructions, and information on CUI (other than the Order and this part);
</P>
<P>(2) Is publicly accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes authorized CUI categories and subcategories, associated markings, applicable decontrolling procedures, and other guidance and policy information; and
</P>
<P>(4) Includes citation(s) to laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies that form the basis for each category and subcategory.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies and authorized holders must follow the instructions contained in the CUI Registry in addition to all requirements in the Order and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.12" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.12   CUI categories and subcategories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) CUI categories and subcategories are the exclusive designations for identifying unclassified information that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits agencies to handle by means of safeguarding or dissemination controls. All unclassified information throughout the executive branch that requires any kind of safeguarding or dissemination control is CUI. Agencies may not implement safeguarding or dissemination controls for any unclassified information other than those controls permitted by the CUI Program.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may use only those categories or subcategories approved by the CUI EA and published in the CUI Registry to designate information as CUI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.14" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.14   Safeguarding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General safeguarding policy.</I> (1) Pursuant to the Order and this part, and in consultation with affected agencies, the CUI EA issues safeguarding standards in this part and, as necessary, in the CUI Registry, updating them as needed. These standards require agencies to safeguard CUI at all times in a manner that minimizes the risk of unauthorized disclosure while allowing timely access by authorized holders.
</P>
<P>(2) Safeguarding measures that agencies are authorized or accredited to use for classified information and national security systems are also sufficient for safeguarding CUI in accordance with the organization's management and acceptance of risk.
</P>
<P>(3) Agencies may increase CUI Basic's confidentiality impact level above moderate only internally, or by means of agreements with agencies or non-executive branch entities (including agreements for the operation of an information system on behalf of the agencies). Agencies may not otherwise require controls for CUI Basic at a level higher than permitted in the CUI Basic requirements when disseminating the CUI Basic outside the agency.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized holders must comply with policy in the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry, and review any applicable agency CUI policies for additional instructions. For information designated as CUI Specified, authorized holders must also follow the procedures in the underlying laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CUI safeguarding standards.</I> Authorized holders must safeguard CUI using one of the following types of standards:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CUI Basic.</I> CUI Basic is the default set of standards authorized holders must apply to all CUI unless the CUI Registry annotates that CUI as CUI Specified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CUI Specified.</I> (i) Authorized holders safeguard CUI Specified in accordance with the requirements of the underlying authorities indicated in the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies governing a specific type of CUI Specified are silent on either a safeguarding or disseminating control, agencies must apply CUI Basic standards to that aspect of the information's controls, unless this results in treatment that does not accord with the CUI Specified authority. In such cases, agencies must apply the CUI Specified standards and may apply limited dissemination controls listed in the CUI Registry to ensure they treat the information in accord with the CUI Specified authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protecting CUI under the control of an authorized holder.</I> Authorized holders must take reasonable precautions to guard against unauthorized disclosure of CUI. They must include the following measures among the reasonable precautions:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish controlled environments in which to protect CUI from unauthorized access or disclosure and make use of those controlled environments;
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonably ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot access or observe CUI, or overhear conversations discussing CUI;
</P>
<P>(3) Keep CUI under the authorized holder's direct control or protect it with at least one physical barrier, and reasonably ensure that the authorized holder or the physical barrier protects the CUI from unauthorized access or observation when outside a controlled environment; and
</P>
<P>(4) Protect the confidentiality of CUI that agencies or authorized holders process, store, or transmit on Federal information systems in accordance with the applicable security requirements and controls established in FIPS PUB 199, FIPS PUB 200, and NIST SP 800-53, (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2), and paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protecting CUI when shipping or mailing.</I> When sending CUI, authorized holders:
</P>
<P>(1) May use the United States Postal Service or any commercial delivery service when they need to transport or deliver CUI to another entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Should use in-transit automated tracking and accountability tools when they send CUI;
</P>
<P>(3) May use interoffice or interagency mail systems to transport CUI; and
</P>
<P>(4) Must mark packages that contain CUI according to marking requirements contained in this part and in guidance published by the CUI EA. See § 2002.20 for more guidance on marking requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reproducing CUI.</I> Authorized holders:
</P>
<P>(1) May reproduce (<I>e.g.,</I> copy, scan, print, electronically duplicate) CUI in furtherance of a lawful Government purpose; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must ensure, when reproducing CUI documents on equipment such as printers, copiers, scanners, or fax machines, that the equipment does not retain data or the agency must otherwise sanitize it in accordance with NIST SP 800-53 (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Destroying CUI.</I> (1) Authorized holders may destroy CUI when:
</P>
<P>(i) The agency no longer needs the information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Records disposition schedules published or approved by NARA allow.
</P>
<P>(2) When destroying CUI, including in electronic form, agencies must do so in a manner that makes it unreadable, indecipherable, and irrecoverable. Agencies must use any destruction method specifically required by law, regulation, or Government-wide policy for that CUI. If the authority does not specify a destruction method, agencies must use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Guidance for destruction in NIST SP 800-53, Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations, and NIST SP 800-88, Guidelines for Media Sanitization (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any method of destruction approved for Classified National Security Information, as delineated in 32 CFR 2001.47, Destruction, or any implementing or successor guidance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Information systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.</I> In accordance with FIPS PUB 199 (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2), CUI Basic is categorized at no less than the moderate confidentiality impact level. FIPS PUB 199 defines the security impact levels for Federal information and Federal information systems. Agencies must also apply the appropriate security requirements and controls from FIPS PUB 200 and NIST SP 800-53 (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2) to CUI in accordance with any risk-based tailoring decisions they make. Agencies may increase CUI Basic's confidentiality impact level above moderate only internally, or by means of agreements with agencies or non-executive branch entities (including agreements for the operation of an information system on behalf of the agencies). Agencies may not otherwise require controls for CUI Basic at a level higher or different from those permitted in the CUI Basic requirements when disseminating the CUI Basic outside the agency.
</P>
<P>(h) Information systems that process, store, or transmit CUI are of two different types:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal information system is an information system used or operated by an agency or by a contractor of an agency or other organization on behalf of an agency. An information system operated on behalf of an agency provides information processing services to the agency that the Government might otherwise perform itself but has decided to outsource. This includes systems operated exclusively for Government use and systems operated for multiple users (multiple Federal agencies or Government and private sector users). Information systems that a non-executive branch entity operates on behalf of an agency are subject to the requirements of this part as though they are the agency's systems, and agencies may require these systems to meet additional requirements the agency sets for its own internal systems.
</P>
<P>(2) A non-Federal information system is any information system that does not meet the criteria for a Federal information system. Agencies may not treat non-Federal information systems as though they are agency systems, so agencies cannot require that non-executive branch entities protect these systems in the same manner that the agencies might protect their own information systems. When a non-executive branch entity receives Federal information only incidental to providing a service or product to the Government other than processing services, its information systems are not considered Federal information systems. NIST SP 800-171 (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2) defines the requirements necessary to protect CUI Basic on non-Federal information systems in accordance with the requirements of this part. Agencies must use NIST SP 800-171 when establishing security requirements to protect CUI's confidentiality on non-Federal information systems (unless the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy listed in the CUI Registry for the CUI category or subcategory of the information involved prescribes specific safeguarding requirements for protecting the information's confidentiality, or unless an agreement establishes requirements to protect CUI Basic at higher than moderate confidentiality).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.16" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.16   Accessing and disseminating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy</I>—(1) <I>Access.</I> Agencies should disseminate and permit access to CUI, provided such access or dissemination:
</P>
<P>(i) Abides by the laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies that established the CUI category or subcategory;
</P>
<P>(ii) Furthers a lawful Government purpose;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not restricted by an authorized limited dissemination control established by the CUI EA; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not otherwise prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dissemination controls.</I> (i) Agencies must impose dissemination controls judiciously and should do so only to apply necessary restrictions on access to CUI, including those required by law, regulation, or Government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Agencies may not impose controls that unlawfully or improperly restrict access to CUI.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marking.</I> Prior to disseminating CUI, authorized holders must label CUI according to marking guidance issued by the CUI EA, and must include any specific markings required by law, regulation, or Government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reasonable expectation.</I> To disseminate CUI to a non-executive branch entity, authorized holders must reasonably expect that all intended recipients are authorized to receive the CUI and have a basic understanding of how to handle it.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Agreements.</I> Agencies should enter into agreements with any non-executive branch or foreign entity with which the agency shares or intends to share CUI, as follows (except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Information-sharing agreements.</I> When agencies intend to share CUI with a non-executive branch entity, they should enter into a formal agreement (see § 2004.4(c) for more information on agreements), whenever feasible. Such an agreement may take any form the agency head approves, but when established, it must include a requirement to comply with Executive Order 13556, Controlled Unclassified Information, November 4, 2010 (3 CFR, 2011 Comp., p. 267) or any successor order (the Order), this part, and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sharing CUI without a formal agreement.</I> When an agency cannot enter into agreements under paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section, but the agency's mission requires it to disseminate CUI to non-executive branch entities, the agency must communicate to the recipient that the Government strongly encourages the non-executive branch entity to protect CUI in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry, and that such protections should accompany the CUI if the entity disseminates it further.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Foreign entity sharing.</I> When entering into agreements or arrangements with a foreign entity, agencies should encourage that entity to protect CUI in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry to the extent possible, but agencies may use their judgment as to what and how much to communicate, keeping in mind the ultimate goal of safeguarding CUI. If such agreements or arrangements include safeguarding or dissemination controls on unclassified information, the agency must not establish a parallel protection regime to the CUI Program: For example, the agency must use CUI markings rather than alternative ones (<I>e.g.,</I> such as SBU) for safeguarding or dissemination controls on CUI received from or sent to foreign entities, must abide by any requirements set by the CUI category or subcategory's governing laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies, etc.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pre-existing agreements.</I> When an agency entered into an information-sharing agreement prior to November 14, 2016, the agency should modify any terms in that agreement that conflict with the requirements in the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry, when feasible.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Agreement content.</I> At a minimum, agreements with non-executive branch entities must include provisions that state:
</P>
<P>(i) Non-executive branch entities must handle CUI in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry;
</P>
<P>(ii) Misuse of CUI is subject to penalties established in applicable laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The non-executive branch entity must report any non-compliance with handling requirements to the disseminating agency using methods approved by that agency's SAO. When the disseminating agency is not the designating agency, the disseminating agency must notify the designating agency.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exceptions to agreements.</I> Agencies need not enter a written agreement when they share CUI with the following entities:
</P>
<P>(i) Congress, including any committee, subcommittee, joint committee, joint subcommittee, or office thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) A court of competent jurisdiction, or any individual or entity when directed by an order of a court of competent jurisdiction or a Federal administrative law judge (ALJ) appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3501;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Comptroller General, in the course of performing duties of the Government Accountability Office; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals or entities, when the agency releases information to them pursuant to a FOIA or Privacy Act request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controls on accessing and disseminating CUI</I>—(1) <I>CUI Basic.</I> Authorized holders should disseminate and encourage access to CUI Basic for any recipient when the access meets the requirements set out in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CUI Specified.</I> Authorized holders disseminate and allow access to CUI Specified as required or permitted by the authorizing laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies that established that CUI Specified.
</P>
<P>(i) The CUI Registry annotates CUI that requires or permits Specified controls based on law, regulation, and Government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the absence of specific dissemination restrictions in the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy, agencies may disseminate CUI Specified as they would CUI Basic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Receipt of CUI.</I> Non-executive branch entities may receive CUI directly from members of the executive branch or as sub-recipients from other non-executive branch entities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited dissemination.</I> (i) Agencies may place additional limits on disseminating CUI only through use of the limited dissemination controls approved by the CUI EA and published in the CUI Registry. These limited dissemination controls are separate from any controls that a CUI Specified authority requires or permits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Using limited dissemination controls to unnecessarily restrict access to CUI is contrary to the goals of the CUI Program. Agencies may therefore use these controls only when it furthers a lawful Government purpose, or laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies require or permit an agency to do so. If an authorized holder has significant doubt about whether it is appropriate to use a limited dissemination control, the authorized holder should consult with and follow the designating agency's policy. If, after consulting the policy, significant doubt still remains, the authorized holder should not apply the limited dissemination control.
</P>
<P>(iii) Only the designating agency may apply limited dissemination controls to CUI. Other entities that receive CUI and seek to apply additional controls must request permission to do so from the designating agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) Authorized holders may apply limited dissemination controls to any CUI for which they are required or permitted to restrict access by or to certain entities.
</P>
<P>(v) Designating entities may combine approved limited dissemination controls listed in the CUI Registry to accommodate necessary practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of disseminating CUI.</I> (1) Before disseminating CUI, authorized holders must reasonably expect that all intended recipients have a lawful Government purpose to receive the CUI. Authorized holders may then disseminate the CUI by any method that meets the safeguarding requirements of this part and the CUI Registry and ensures receipt in a timely manner, unless the laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies that govern that CUI require otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) To disseminate CUI using systems or components that are subject to NIST guidelines and publications (<I>e.g.,</I> email applications, text messaging, facsimile, or voicemail), agencies must do so in accordance with the no-less-than-moderate confidentiality impact value set out in FIPS PUB 199, FIPS PUB 200, NIST SP 800-53 (incorporated by reference, see § 2002.2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.18" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.18   Decontrolling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies should decontrol as soon as practicable any CUI designated by their agency that no longer requires safeguarding or dissemination controls, unless doing so conflicts with the governing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may decontrol CUI automatically upon the occurrence of one of the conditions below, or through an affirmative decision by the designating agency:
</P>
<P>(1) When laws, regulations or Government-wide policies no longer require its control as CUI and the authorized holder has the appropriate authority under the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy;
</P>
<P>(2) When the designating agency decides to release it to the public by making an affirmative, proactive disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) When the agency discloses it in accordance with an applicable information access statute, such as the FOIA, or the Privacy Act (when legally permissible), if the agency incorporates such disclosures into its public release processes; or
</P>
<P>(4) When a pre-determined event or date occurs, as described in § 2002.20(g), unless law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires coordination first.
</P>
<P>(c) The designating agency may also decontrol CUI:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to a request by an authorized holder to decontrol it; or
</P>
<P>(2) Concurrently with any declassification action under Executive Order 13526 or any predecessor or successor order, as long as the information also appropriately qualifies for decontrol as CUI.
</P>
<P>(d) An agency may designate in its CUI policies which agency personnel it authorizes to decontrol CUI, consistent with law, regulation, and Government-wide policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Decontrolling CUI relieves authorized holders from requirements to handle the information under the CUI Program, but does not constitute authorization for public release.
</P>
<P>(f) Authorized holders must clearly indicate that CUI is no longer controlled when restating, paraphrasing, re-using, releasing to the public, or donating it to a private institution. Otherwise, authorized holders do not have to mark, review, or take other actions to indicate the CUI is no longer controlled.
</P>
<P>(1) Agency policy may allow authorized holders to remove or strike through only those CUI markings on the first or cover page of the decontrolled CUI and markings on the first page of any attachments that contain CUI.
</P>
<P>(2) If an authorized holder uses the decontrolled CUI in a newly created document, the authorized holder must remove all CUI markings for the decontrolled information.
</P>
<P>(g) Once decontrolled, any public release of information that was formerly CUI must be in accordance with applicable law and agency policies on the public release of information.
</P>
<P>(h) Authorized holders may request that the designating agency decontrol certain CUI.
</P>
<P>(i) If an authorized holder publicly releases CUI in accordance with the designating agency's authorized procedures, the release constitutes decontrol of the information.
</P>
<P>(j) Unauthorized disclosure of CUI does not constitute decontrol.
</P>
<P>(k) Agencies must not decontrol CUI in an attempt to conceal, or to otherwise circumvent accountability for, an identified unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(l) When laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies require specific decontrol procedures, authorized holders must follow such requirements.
</P>
<P>(m) The Archivist of the United States may decontrol records transferred to the National Archives in accordance with § 2002.34, absent a specific agreement otherwise with the designating agency. The Archivist decontrols records to facilitate public access pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 2108 and NARA's regulations at 36 CFR parts 1235, 1250, and 1256.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.20" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.20   Marking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General marking policy.</I> (1) CUI markings listed in the CUI Registry are the only markings authorized to designate unclassified information requiring safeguarding or dissemination controls. Agencies and authorized holders must, in accordance with the implementation timelines established for the agency by the CUI EA:
</P>
<P>(i) Discontinue all use of legacy or other markings not permitted by this part or included in the CUI Registry; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uniformly and conspicuously apply CUI markings to all CUI exclusively in accordance with the part and the CUI Registry, unless this part or the CUI EA otherwise specifically permits. See paragraph (a)(6) of this section and §§ 2002.38, Waivers of CUI requirements, and 2002.36, Legacy materials, for more information.
</P>
<P>(2) Agencies may not modify CUI Program markings or deviate from the method of use prescribed by the CUI EA (in this part and the CUI Registry) in an effort to accommodate existing agency marking practices, except in circumstances approved by the CUI EA. The CUI Program prohibits using markings or practices not included in this part or the CUI Registry. If legacy markings remain on information, the legacy markings are void and no longer indicate that the information is protected or that it is or qualifies as CUI.
</P>
<P>(3) An agency receiving an incorrectly marked document should notify either the disseminating entity or the designating agency, and request a properly marked document.
</P>
<P>(4) The designating agency determines that the information qualifies for CUI status and applies the appropriate CUI marking when it designates that information as CUI.
</P>
<P>(5) If an agency has information within its control that qualifies as CUI but has not been previously marked as CUI for any reason (for example, pursuant to an agency internal marking waiver as referenced in § 2002.38 (a)), the agency must mark it as CUI prior to disseminating it.
</P>
<P>(6) Agencies must not mark information as CUI to conceal illegality, negligence, ineptitude, or other disreputable circumstances embarrassing to any person, any agency, the Federal Government, or any of their partners, or for any purpose other than to adhere to the law, regulation, or Government-wide policy authorizing the control.
</P>
<P>(7) The lack of a CUI marking on information that qualifies as CUI does not exempt the authorized holder from abiding by applicable handling requirements as described in the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(8) When it is impractical for an agency to individually mark CUI due to quantity or nature of the information, or when an agency has issued a limited CUI marking waiver, authorized holders must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status using an alternate marking method that is readily apparent (for example, through user access agreements, a computer system digital splash screen (<I>e.g.,</I> alerts that flash up when accessing the system), or signs in storage areas or on containers).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The CUI banner marking.</I> Designators of CUI must mark all CUI with a CUI banner marking, which may include up to three elements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The CUI control marking (mandatory).</I> (i) The CUI control marking may consist of either the word “CONTROLLED” or the acronym “CUI,” at the designator's discretion. Agencies may specify in their CUI policy that employees must use one or the other.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and instructions for using the CUI control marking.
</P>
<P>(iii) Authorized holders who designate CUI may not use alternative markings to identify or mark items as CUI.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CUI category or subcategory markings (mandatory for CUI Specified).</I> (i) The CUI Registry lists the category and subcategory markings, which align with the CUI's governing category or subcategory.
</P>
<P>(ii) Although the CUI Program does not require agencies to use category or subcategory markings on CUI Basic, an agency's CUI SAO may establish agency policy that mandates use of CUI category or subcategory markings on CUI Basic.
</P>
<P>(iii) However, authorized holders must include in the CUI banner marking all CUI Specified category or subcategory markings that pertain to the information in the document. If law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires specific marking, disseminating, informing, distribution limitation, or warning statements, agencies must use those indicators as those authorities require or permit. However, agencies must not include these additional indicators in the CUI banner marking or CUI portion markings.
</P>
<P>(iv) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and instructions for using CUI category and subcategory markings.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited dissemination control markings.</I> (i) CUI limited dissemination control markings align with limited dissemination controls established by the CUI EA under § 2002.16(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) Agency policy should include specific criteria establishing which authorized holders may apply limited dissemination controls and their corresponding markings, and when. Such agency policy must align with the requirements in § 2002.16(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and instructions for using limited dissemination control markings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Using the CUI banner marking.</I> (1) The content of the CUI banner marking must apply to the whole document (<I>i.e.,</I> inclusive of all CUI within the document) and must be the same on each page of the document that includes CUI.
</P>
<P>(2) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidelines and instructions for using the CUI banner marking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CUI designation indicator (mandatory).</I> (1) All documents containing CUI must carry an indicator of who designated the CUI within it. This must include the designator's agency (at a minimum) and may take any form that identifies the designating agency, including letterhead or other standard agency indicators, or adding a “Controlled by” line (for example, “Controlled by: Division 5, Department of Good Works.”).
</P>
<P>(2) The designation indicator must be readily apparent to authorized holders and may appear only on the first page or cover. The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and requirements for using CUI designation indicators.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CUI decontrolling indicators.</I> (1) Where feasible, designating agencies must include a specific decontrolling date or event with all CUI. Agencies may do so in any manner that makes the decontrolling schedule readily apparent to an authorized holder.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized holders may consider specific items of CUI as decontrolled as of the date indicated, requiring no further review by, or communication with, the designator.
</P>
<P>(3) If using a specific event after which the CUI is considered decontrolled:
</P>
<P>(i) The event must be foreseeable and verifiable by any authorized holder (<I>e.g.,</I> not based on or requiring special access or knowledge); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The designator should include point of contact and preferred method of contact information in the decontrol indicator when using this method, to allow authorized holders to verify that a specified event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(4) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and instructions for using limited dissemination control markings.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Portion marking CUI.</I> (1) Agencies are permitted and encouraged to portion mark all CUI, to facilitate information sharing and proper handling.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized holders who designate CUI may mark CUI only with portion markings approved by the CUI EA and listed in the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(3) CUI portion markings consist of the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) The CUI control marking, which must be the acronym “CUI”;
</P>
<P>(ii) CUI category/subcategory portion markings (if required or permitted); and
</P>
<P>(iii) CUI limited dissemination control portion markings (if required).
</P>
<P>(4) When using portion markings:
</P>
<P>(i) CUI category and subcategory portion markings are optional for CUI Basic. Agencies may manage their use by means of agency policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorized holders permitted to designate CUI must portion mark both CUI and uncontrolled unclassified portions.
</P>
<P>(5) In cases where portions consist of several segments, such as paragraphs, sub-paragraphs, bullets, and sub-bullets, and the control level is the same throughout, designators of CUI may place a single portion marking at the beginning of the primary paragraph or bullet. However, if the portion includes different CUI categories or subcategories, or if the portion includes some CUI and some uncontrolled unclassified information, authorized holders should portion mark all segments separately to avoid improper control of any one segment.
</P>
<P>(6) Each portion must reflect the control level of only that individual portion. If the information contained in a sub-paragraph or sub-bullet is a different CUI category or subcategory from its parent paragraph or parent bullet, this does not make the parent paragraph or parent bullet controlled at that same level.
</P>
<P>(7) The CUI Registry contains additional, specific guidance and instructions for using CUI portion markings and uncontrolled unclassified portion markings.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commingling CUI markings with Classified National Security Information (CNSI).</I> When authorized holders include CUI in documents that also contain CNSI, the decontrolling provisions of the Order and this part apply only to portions marked as CUI. In addition, authorized holders must:
</P>
<P>(1) Portion mark all CUI to ensure that authorized holders can distinguish CUI portions from portions containing classified and uncontrolled unclassified information;
</P>
<P>(2) Include the CUI control marking, CUI Specified category and subcategory markings, and limited dissemination control markings in an overall banner marking; and
</P>
<P>(3) Follow the requirements of the Order and this part, and instructions in the CUI Registry on marking CUI when commingled with CNSI.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Commingling restricted data (RD) and formerly restricted data (FRD) with CUI.</I> (1) To the extent possible, avoid commingling RD or FRD with CUI in the same document. When it is not practicable to avoid such commingling, follow the marking requirements in the Order and this part, and instructions in the CUI Registry, as well as the marking requirements in 10 CFR part 1045, Nuclear Classification and Declassification.
</P>
<P>(2) Follow the requirements of 10 CFR part 1045 when extracting an RD or FRD portion for use in a new document.
</P>
<P>(3) Follow the requirements of the Order and this part, and instructions in the CUI Registry if extracting a CUI portion for use in a new document.
</P>
<P>(4) The lack of declassification instructions for RD or FRD portions does not eliminate the requirement to process commingled documents for declassification in accordance with the Atomic Energy Act, or 10 CFR part 1045.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Packages and parcels containing CUI.</I> (1) Address packages that contain CUI for delivery only to a specific recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) Do not put CUI markings on the outside of an envelope or package, or otherwise indicate on the outside that the item contains CUI.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transmittal document marking requirements.</I> (1) When a transmittal document accompanies CUI, the transmittal document must include a CUI marking on its face (“CONTROLLED” or “CUI”), indicating that CUI is attached or enclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) The transmittal document must also include conspicuously on its face the following or similar instructions, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) “When enclosure is removed, this document is Uncontrolled Unclassified Information”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) “When enclosure is removed, this document is (control level); upon removal, this document does not contain CUI.”
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Working papers.</I> Mark working papers containing CUI the same way as the finished product containing CUI would be marked and as required for any CUI contained within them. Handle them in accordance with this part and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Using supplemental administrative markings with CUI.</I> (1) Agency heads may authorize the use of supplemental administrative markings (<I>e.g.</I> “Pre-decisional,” “Deliberative,” “Draft”) for use with CUI.
</P>
<P>(2) Agency heads may not authorize the use of supplemental administrative markings to establish safeguarding requirements or disseminating restrictions, or to designate the information as CUI. However, agencies may use these markings to inform recipients of the non-final status of documents under development to avoid confusion and maintain the integrity of an agency's decision-making process.
</P>
<P>(3) Agencies must detail requirements for using supplemental administrative markings with CUI in agency policy that is available to anyone who may come into possession of CUI with these markings.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized holders must not incorporate or include supplemental administrative markings in the CUI marking scheme detailed in this part and the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(5) Supplemental administrative markings must not duplicate any CUI marking described in this part or the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Unmarked CUI.</I> Treat unmarked information that qualifies as CUI as described in the Order, § 2002.8(c), and the CUI Registry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.22" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.22   Limitations on applicability of agency CUI policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agency CUI policies do not apply to entities outside that agency unless a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits the controls contained in the agency policy to do so, and the CUI Registry lists that law, regulation, or Government-wide policy as a CUI authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may not include additional requirements or restrictions on handling CUI other than those permitted in the Order, this part, or the CUI Registry when entering into agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.24" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.24   Agency self-inspection program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency must establish a self-inspection program pursuant to the requirement in § 2002.8(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) The self-inspection program must include:
</P>
<P>(1) At least annual review and assessment of the agency's CUI program. The agency head or CUI SAO should determine any greater frequency based on program needs and the degree to which the agency engages in designating CUI;
</P>
<P>(2) Self-inspection methods, reviews, and assessments that serve to evaluate program effectiveness, measure the level of compliance, and monitor the progress of CUI implementation;
</P>
<P>(3) Formats for documenting self-inspections and recording findings when not prescribed by the CUI EA;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures by which to integrate lessons learned and best practices arising from reviews and assessments into operational policies, procedures, and training;
</P>
<P>(5) A process for resolving deficiencies and taking corrective actions; and
</P>
<P>(6) Analysis and conclusions from the self-inspection program, documented on an annual basis and as requested by the CUI EA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—CUI Program Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.30" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.30   Education and training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CUI SAO must establish and implement an agency training policy. At a minimum, the training policy must address the means, methods, and frequency of agency CUI training.
</P>
<P>(b) Agency training policy must ensure that personnel who have access to CUI receive training on designating CUI, relevant CUI categories and subcategories, the CUI Registry, associated markings, and applicable safeguarding, disseminating, and decontrolling policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies must train employees on these matters when the employees first begin working for the agency and at least once every two years thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) The CUI EA reviews agency training materials to ensure consistency and compliance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.32" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.32   CUI cover sheets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies may use cover sheets for CUI. If an agency chooses to use cover sheets, it must use CUI EA-approved cover sheets, which agencies can find on the CUI Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may use cover sheets to identify CUI, alert observers that CUI is present from a distance, and serve as a shield to protect the attached CUI from inadvertent disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.34" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.34   Transferring records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When feasible, agencies must decontrol records containing CUI prior to transferring them to NARA.
</P>
<P>(b) When an agency cannot decontrol records before transferring them to NARA, the agency must:
</P>
<P>(1) Indicate on a Transfer Request (TR) in NARA's Electronic Records Archives (ERA) or on an SF 258 paper transfer form, that the records should continue to be controlled as CUI (subject to NARA's regulations on transfer, public availability, and access; see 36 CFR parts 1235, 1250, and 1256); and
</P>
<P>(2) For hard copy transfer, do not place a CUI marking on the outside of the container.
</P>
<P>(c) If the agency does not indicate the status as CUI on the TR or SF 258, NARA may assume the agency decontrolled the information prior to transfer, regardless of any CUI markings on the actual records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.36" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.36   Legacy materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies must review documents created prior to November 14, 2016 and re-mark any that contain information that qualifies as CUI in accordance with the Order, this part, and the CUI Registry. When agencies do not individually re-mark legacy material that qualifies as CUI, agencies must use an alternate permitted marking method (see § 2002.20(a)(8)).
</P>
<P>(b) When the CUI SAO deems re-marking legacy documents to be excessively burdensome, the CUI SAO may grant a legacy material marking waiver under § 2002.38(b).
</P>
<P>(c) When the agency re-uses any information from legacy documents that qualifies as CUI, whether the documents have obsolete control markings or not, the agency must designate the newly-created document (or other re-use) as CUI and mark it accordingly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.38" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.38   Waivers of CUI requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limited CUI marking waivers within the agency.</I> When an agency designates information as CUI but determines that marking it as CUI is excessively burdensome, an agency's CUI SAO may approve waivers of all or some of the CUI marking requirements while that CUI remains within agency control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limited legacy material marking waivers within the agency.</I> (1) In situations in which the agency has a substantial amount of stored information with legacy markings, and removing legacy markings and designating or re-marking it as CUI would be excessively burdensome, the agency's CUI SAO may approve a waiver of these requirements for some or all of that information while it remains under agency control.
</P>
<P>(2) When an authorized holder re-uses any legacy information or information derived from legacy documents that qualifies as CUI, they must remove or redact legacy markings and designate or re-mark the information as CUI, even if the information is under a legacy material marking waiver prior to re-use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exigent circumstances waivers.</I> (1) In exigent circumstances, the agency head or the CUI SAO may waive the provisions and requirements established in this part or the CUI Registry for any CUI while it is within the agency's possession or control, unless specifically prohibited by applicable laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies.
</P>
<P>(2) Exigent circumstances waivers may apply when an agency shares the information with other agencies or non-Federal entities. In such cases, the authorized holders must make recipients aware of the CUI status of any disseminated information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>For all waivers.</I> (1) The CUI SAO must still ensure that the agency appropriately safeguards and disseminates the CUI. See § 2002.20(a)(7);
</P>
<P>(2) The CUI SAO must detail in each waiver the alternate protection methods the agency will employ to ensure protection of CUI subject to the waiver;
</P>
<P>(3) All marking waivers apply to CUI subject to the waiver only while that agency continues to possess that CUI. No marking waiver may accompany CUI when an authorized holder disseminates it outside that agency;
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized holders must uniformly and conspicuously apply CUI markings to all CUI prior to disseminating it outside the agency unless otherwise specifically permitted by the CUI EA; and
</P>
<P>(5) When the circumstances requiring the waiver end, the CUI SAO must reinstitute the requirements for all CUI subject to the waiver without delay.

 </P>
<P>(e) The CUI SAO must:
</P>
<P>(1) Retain a record of each waiver;
</P>
<P>(2) Include a description of all current waivers and waivers issued during the preceding year in the annual report to the CUI EA, along with the rationale for each waiver and the alternate steps the agency takes to ensure sufficient protection of CUI; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notify authorized recipients and the public of these waivers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.44" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.44   CUI and disclosure statutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> The fact that an agency designates certain information as CUI does not affect an agency's or employee's determinations pursuant to any law that requires the agency or the employee to disclose that information or permits them to do so as a matter of discretion. The agency or employee must make such determinations according to the criteria set out in the governing law, not on the basis of the information's status as CUI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CUI and the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).</I> Agencies must not cite the FOIA as a CUI safeguarding or disseminating control authority for CUI. When an agency is determining whether to disclose information in response to a FOIA request, the agency must base its decision on the content of the information and applicability of any FOIA statutory exemptions, regardless of whether an agency designates or marks the information as CUI. There may be circumstances in which an agency may disclose CUI to an individual or entity, including through a FOIA response, but such disclosure does not always constitute public release as defined in this part. Although disclosed via a FOIA response, the agency may still need to control the CUI while the agency continues to hold the information, despite the disclosure, unless the agency otherwise decontrols it (or the agency includes in its policies that FOIA disclosure always results in public release and the CUI does not otherwise have another legal requirement for its continued control).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CUI and the Whistleblower Protection Act.</I> This part does not change or affect existing legal protections for whistleblowers. The fact that an agency designates or marks certain information as CUI does not determine whether an individual may lawfully disclose that information under a law or other authority, and does not preempt or otherwise affect whistleblower legal protections provided by law, regulation, or executive order or directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.46" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.46   CUI and the Privacy Act.</HEAD>
<P>The fact that records are subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 does not mean that agencies must mark them as CUI. Consult agency policies or guidance to determine which records may be subject to the Privacy Act; consult the CUI Registry to determine which privacy information must be marked as CUI. Information contained in Privacy Act systems of records may also be subject to controls under other CUI categories or subcategories and the agency may need to mark that information as CUI for that reason. In addition, when determining whether the agency must protect certain information under the Privacy Act, or whether the Privacy Act allows the agency to release the information to an individual, the agency must base its decision on the content of the information and the Privacy Act's criteria, regardless of whether an agency designates or marks the information as CUI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.48" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.48   CUI and the Administrative Procedure Act (APA).</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in the regulations in this part alters the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) or the powers of Federal administrative law judges (ALJs) appointed thereunder, including the power to determine confidentiality of information in proceedings over which they preside. Nor do the regulations in this part impose requirements concerning the manner in which ALJs designate, disseminate, control access to, decontrol, or mark such information, or make such determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.50" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.50   Challenges to designation of information as CUI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authorized holders of CUI who, in good faith, believe that its designation as CUI is improper or incorrect, or who believe they have received unmarked CUI, should notify the disseminating agency of this belief. When the disseminating agency is not the designating agency, the disseminating agency must notify the designating agency.
</P>
<P>(b) If the information at issue is involved in Government litigation, or the challenge to its designation or marking as CUI arises as part of the litigation, the issue of whether the challenger may access the information will be addressed via the litigation process instead of by the agency CUI program. Challengers should nonetheless notify the agency of the issue through the agency process described below, and include its litigation connection.
</P>
<P>(c) CUI SAOs must create a process within their agency to accept and manage challenges to CUI status. At a minimum, this process must include a timely response to the challenger that:
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledges receipt of the challenge;
</P>
<P>(2) States an expected timetable for response to the challenger;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides an opportunity for the challenger to define a rationale for belief that the CUI in question is inappropriately designated;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives contact information for the official making the agency's decision in this matter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Ensures that challengers who are authorized holders have the option of bringing such challenges anonymously, and that challengers are not subject to retribution for bringing such challenges.
</P>
<P>(d) Until the challenge is resolved, authorized holders should continue to safeguard and disseminate the challenged CUI at the control level indicated in the markings.
</P>
<P>(e) If a challenging party disagrees with the response to a challenge, that party may use the Dispute Resolution procedures described in § 2002.52.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.52" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.52   Dispute resolution for agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies governing the CUI involved in a dispute set out specific procedures, processes, and requirements for resolving disputes, agencies must follow those processes for that CUI. This includes submitting the dispute to someone other than the CUI EA for resolution if the authority so requires. If the CUI at issue is involved in litigation, the agency should refer the issue to the appropriate attorneys for resolution through the litigation process.
</P>
<P>(b) When laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies governing the CUI do not set out specific procedures, processes, or requirements for CUI dispute resolution (or the information is not involved in litigation), this part governs.
</P>
<P>(c) All parties to a dispute arising from implementing or interpreting the Order, this part, or the CUI Registry should make every effort to resolve the dispute expeditiously. Parties should address disputes within a reasonable, mutually acceptable time period, taking into consideration the parties' mission, sharing, and protection requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) If parties to a dispute cannot reach a mutually acceptable resolution, either party may refer the matter to the CUI EA.
</P>
<P>(e) The CUI EA acts as the impartial arbiter of the dispute and has the authority to render a decision on the dispute after consulting with all affected parties. If a party to the dispute is also a member of the Intelligence Community, the CUI EA must consult with the Office of the Director of National Intelligence when the CUI EA receives the dispute for resolution.
</P>
<P>(f) Until the dispute is resolved, authorized holders should continue to safeguard and disseminate any disputed CUI at the control level indicated in the markings, or as directed by the CUI EA if the information is unmarked.
</P>
<P>(g) Parties may appeal the CUI EA's decision through the Director of OMB to the President for resolution, pursuant to section 4(e) of the Order. If one of the parties to the dispute is the CUI EA and the parties cannot resolve the dispute under paragraph (c) of this section, the parties may likewise refer the matter to OMB for resolution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.54" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.54   Misuse of CUI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CUI SAO must establish agency processes and criteria for reporting and investigating misuse of CUI.
</P>
<P>(b) The CUI EA reports findings on any incident involving misuse of CUI to the offending agency's CUI SAO or CUI Program manager for action, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2002.56" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.3.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2002.56   Sanctions for misuse of CUI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent that agency heads are otherwise authorized to take administrative action against agency personnel who misuse CUI, agency CUI policy governing misuse should reflect that authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Where laws, regulations, or Government-wide policies governing certain categories or subcategories of CUI specifically establish sanctions, agencies must adhere to such sanctions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.3.5.27.1.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2002—Acronyms
</HEAD>
<FP-1>CNSI—Classified National Security Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Council or the Council—The CUI Advisory Council
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CUI—Controlled unclassified information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EA—The CUI Executive Agent (which is ISOO)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOIA—Freedom of Information Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FRD—Formerly Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ISOO—Information Security Oversight Office at the National Archives and Records Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NARA—National Archives and Records Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OMB—Office of Management and Budget within the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of the Executive Office of the President
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PM—the agency's CUI program manager
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RD—Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SAO—the senior agency official [for CUI]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TR—Transfer Request in NARA's Electronic Records Archives (ERA)


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2003" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2003—INTERAGENCY SECURITY CLASSIFICATION APPEALS PANEL (ISCAP) BYLAWS, RULES, AND APPEAL PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 75 FR 1013, 3 CFR, 2010 Comp., p. 298
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 40261, July 9, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Bylaws</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.1" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.1   Purpose (Article I).</HEAD>
<P>The Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (hereafter “ISCAP” or “the Panel”) advises and assists the President in the discharge of his constitutional and discretionary authority to protect the national security of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.2" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.2   Authority (Article II).</HEAD>
<P>ISCAP was established by, and receives its authority from, Executive Order 13526 “Classified National Security Information” (hereafter the “Order”), December 29, 2009, section 5.3(a)(1), and the Order's implementing directives. Section 5.3(c) of the Order directs ISCAP to issue bylaws, rules, and procedures and to publish them in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.3" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.3   Functions (Article III).</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its purpose, the Panel:
</P>
<P>(a) Decides appeals by people who have filed classification challenges under section 1.8 of the Order;
</P>
<P>(b) Approves, denies, or amends agency exemptions from automatic declassification under section 3.3 of the Order;
</P>
<P>(c) Decides appeals by people or entities who have filed requests for mandatory declassification review under section 3.5 of the Order; and
</P>
<P>(d) Informs senior agency officials and the public, as appropriate, of final Panel decisions on appeals under sections 1.8 and 3.5 of the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.4" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.4   Membership (Article IV).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Member organizations and members.</I> (1) The Departments of State, Defense, and Justice, the National Archives and Records Administration, the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, and the National Security Advisor each have a member on the Panel.
</P>
<P>(2) Additionally, the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency may appoint a temporary representative, who meets the member criteria, to participate as a voting member in all Panel deliberations and associated support activities concerning classified information originated by the Central Intelligence Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternate member.</I> Each member organization also designates in writing an alternate, or alternates, to represent it on all occasions when the primary member is unable to participate. When serving for a primary member, an alternate assumes all the rights and responsibilities of that primary member, including voting. The alternate member must meet the member criteria. The member organization head, or the organization's deputy or senior agency official for the Order, makes the written designation of an alternate, addressed to the ISCAP Chair.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Selection criteria for member.</I> (1) Members must be senior-level agency Federal officials or employees, full-time or permanent part-time, and must be designated to serve as a member on the Panel by the respective agency head.
</P>
<P>(2) Panel members must meet security access criteria in order to fulfill the Panel's functions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Member vacancies.</I> Vacancies among the primary members must be filled as quickly as possible. The Chair, working through the Executive Secretary, takes all appropriate measures to encourage the organization to fill the vacancy quickly. In the interim, the organization's designated alternate serves as its member.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liaisons.</I> Each member organization also designates in writing an individual or individuals (hereafter “liaisons”) to serve as liaison to the Executive Secretary in support of the primary member and alternate(s). The liaisons meet at the call of the Executive Secretary. The agency head, or the deputy or senior agency official for the Order, makes the written designation, addressed to the ISCAP Chair.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Chair.</I> The President of the United States selects the Chair from among the primary members.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Vice Chair.</I> The members may elect from among the primary members a Vice Chair who:
</P>
<P>(1) Chairs meetings that the Chair is unable to attend; and
</P>
<P>(2) Serves as Acting Chair during a vacancy in the Chair of the ISCAP.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Executive Secretary.</I> The Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO), National Archives and Records Administration, is the Executive Secretary of the Panel and oversees the Panel's support staff.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.5" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.5   Meetings (Article V).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The primary purpose of ISCAP meetings is to discuss and bring formal resolution to matters before the Panel and carry out the functions listed in § 2003.3, Article III, of these bylaws.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Frequency.</I> The Panel meets at the call of the Chair, who schedules meetings as necessary for the Panel to fulfill its functions in a timely manner. The Chair also convenes the ISCAP when requested by a majority of its member organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quorum.</I> Panel meetings may be held only when a quorum is present. For this purpose, a quorum requires the presence of at least five primary or alternate members.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendance.</I> As determined by the Chair, attendance at Panel meetings is limited to only the people necessary for the Panel to fulfill its functions in a complete and timely manner. The members may arrange briefings by substantive experts from individual departments or agencies, after consultation with the Chair.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agenda.</I> The Chair establishes the agenda for all meetings. Any member or the Executive Secretary may submit potential items for the agenda. Acting through the Executive Secretary, the Chair distributes the agenda and supporting materials to the members as soon as possible before a scheduled meeting.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minutes.</I> The Executive Secretary and staff prepare each meeting's minutes, and distribute draft minutes to each member. The minutes include a record of the members present at the meeting and the result of each vote. At each Panel meeting, the Chair reads or references the previous meeting's draft minutes. At that time the minutes are corrected, as necessary, approved by the membership, and certified by the Chair. The approved minutes are maintained among the Panel's records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.6" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.6   Voting (Article VI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motions.</I> When the Panel is required to make a decision or recommendation to resolve a matter before it, the Chair requests or accepts a motion for a vote. Any member, including the Chair, may make a motion for a vote. No second is required to bring any motion to a vote. A quorum must be present when a vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> Only the member, including the Chair, may vote on a motion before the ISCAP, with each represented member organization having one vote.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting procedures at meetings.</I> Votes are ordinarily taken and tabulated by a show of hands.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Passing a motion.</I> In response to a motion, members may vote affirmatively, negatively, or abstain from voting. A motion passes when it receives a majority of affirmative votes of the members voting. In circumstances in which members abstain from voting, a Panel decision to reverse an agency's classification decision requires the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the members present.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Votes in a non-meeting context.</I> The Chair may call for a vote of the membership outside the context of a formal ISCAP meeting. An alternate member may also participate in such a vote if the primary member cannot be present. The Executive Secretary records and retains such votes in a documentary form and immediately reports the results to the Chair and other primary or alternate members, including all notes of concurrence or dissent. If a member expresses dissent to taking a non-meeting vote, any member may request the Chair call a meeting of the members to discuss the issue under consideration and to hold an in-person vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.7" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.7   Support Staff (Article VII).</HEAD>
<P>The staff of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO), National Archives and Records Administration, provides program and administrative support for the Panel. The Executive Secretary supervises the staff in this function pursuant to the direction of the Chair and ISCAP. On an as-needed basis, the Panel may seek detailees from agencies to augment the ISOO staff in support of the ISCAP. All staff must meet security access criteria in order to fulfill the Panel's functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.8" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.8   Records (Article VIII).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Integrity of ISCAP Records.</I> The Executive Secretary maintains records that are produced by or presented to the ISCAP or its staff in the performance of the Panel's functions, consistent with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access requests or Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests for ISCAP records.</I> The Panel refers any FOIA request or other access request for information that originated within an agency other than the ISCAP to that agency for processing. The Panel processes requests for information originated by the ISCAP in accordance with 44 U.S.C. sections 2201-2207 (Presidential Records Act).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition.</I> The Executive Secretary maintains Panel records in accordance with 44 U.S.C. sections 2201-2207 (Presidential Records Act).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.9" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.9   Reports to the President (Article IX).</HEAD>
<P>ISOO includes pertinent information and data about the activities of the Panel in ISOO's reports to the President of the United States. The Panel also includes such information in any reports it may make to the President. The Chair, in coordination with the other members of the ISCAP and the Executive Secretary, determines what information and data to include in each report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.10" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.1.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.10   Approval, amendment, and publication of bylaws, rules, and procedures (Article X).</HEAD>
<P>Approval and amendment of Panel bylaws, rules, and procedures requires the affirmative vote of at least four members. The Executive Secretary submits approved bylaws, rules, procedures, and their amendments, for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appeal Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.11" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.11   Appeals of agency decisions regarding classification challenges under section 1.8 of the Order.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized holders of information who, in good faith, believe that its classification status is improper may challenge an agency's classification of the information in accordance with agency procedures. After challenging the classification at the agency level, the authorized holder may appeal the agency's decision to the ISCAP.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> The ISCAP will consider and decide appeals from classification challenges that otherwise meet the standards of the Order if:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal is filed in accordance with these procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) The appellant has previously challenged the classification action at the agency that originated, or is otherwise responsible for, the information in question. The previous challenge must have followed the agency's established procedures or, if the agency has failed to establish procedures, the appellant must have filed a written challenge directly with the agency head or designated senior agency official, as defined in section 5.4(d) of the Order;
</P>
<P>(3) The appellant has:
</P>
<P>(i) Received a final agency decision denying his or her challenge; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not received—
</P>
<P>(A) An initial written response to the classification challenge from the agency within 120 days of its filing, or
</P>
<P>(B) A written response to an agency level appeal within 90 days of the filing of the appeal;
</P>
<P>(4) There is no action pending in the federal courts regarding the information in question;
</P>
<P>(5) The information in question has not been the subject of a FOIA or mandatory declassification review within the past two years; and
</P>
<P>(6) The information in question has not been the subject of a prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of appeals.</I> Appeals may be submitted to the Panel by email or mail. Appeals should be sent via email to: <I>ISCAP@nara.gov</I> or by mail to: Executive Secretary, Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel; Attn: Classification Challenge Appeals; c/o Information Security Oversight Office; National Archives and Records Administration; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 503; Washington, DC 20408.
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal must contain enough information for the Executive Secretary to be able to obtain all pertinent documents about the classification challenge from the affected agency.
</P>
<P>(2) No classified information should be included within the initial appeal correspondence. The Executive Secretary will arrange for the transmittal of classified information from the agency after receiving the appeal. If it is impossible for the appellant to file an appeal without including classified information, prior arrangements must be made by contacting the Panel in one of the two methods listed above.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timeliness of appeals.</I> An appeal to the ISCAP must be filed within 60 days of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the final agency decision; or
</P>
<P>(2) The agency's failure to meet the time frames established in paragraph (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rejection of appeals.</I> If the Executive Secretary determines that an appeal does not meet the requirements of the Order or these bylaws, the Executive Secretary notifies the appellant in writing that the appeal will not be considered by the ISCAP. The notification includes an explanation of why the appeal is deficient.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preparation of appeals and creation of appeals files.</I> The Executive Secretary notifies the designated senior agency official, and, if applicable, the primary member, alternate, or liaison of the affected agency(ies) when an appeal is lodged. Under the direction of the ISCAP, the Executive Secretary supervises the preparation of an appeal file, pertinent portions of which are presented to the members of the Panel for review prior to a vote on the appeal. The appeal file eventually includes all records pertaining to the appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Resolution of appeals.</I> The Panel may vote to affirm the agency's decision, to reverse the agency's decision in whole or in part, or to remand the matter to the agency for further consideration. A decision to reverse an agency's decision requires the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the members present. In circumstances in which members abstain from voting, a Panel decision to reverse an agency's classification decision requires the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the members present.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification.</I> The Executive Secretary promptly notifies the appellant and the designated senior agency official in writing of the Panel's decision.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Agency appeals.</I> Within 60 days of receipt of an ISCAP decision that reverses a final agency decision, the agency head may petition the President through the National Security Advisor to overrule the Panel's decision. The information at issue remains classified until the President has issued a decision.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protection of classified information.</I> All persons involved in the appeal will make every effort to minimize the inclusion of classified information in the appeal file. Any classified information contained in the appeal file is handled and protected in accordance with the Order and its implementing directives. Information being challenged for classification remains classified unless and until a final decision is made to declassify it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Maintenance and disposition of file.</I> The Executive Secretary maintains the appeal file among the ISCAP's records in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 2201-2207 (the Presidential Records Act).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.12" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.12   Review of agency exemptions from automatic declassification under section 3.3 of the Order.</HEAD>
<P>All classified records that are more than 25 years old and have been determined to have permanent historical value under title 44, United States Code, are automatically declassified whether or not the records have been reviewed. However, agency heads may exempt information that would otherwise fall into this category on specific bases set out in section 3.3 of the Order. The ISCAP reviews and approves, denies, or amends agency proposals to exempt such information from automatic declassification.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency notification of exemptions.</I> The agency head or designated senior agency official notifies the Executive Secretary of proposed agency exemptions in accordance with the requirements of the Order and its implementing directives. Agencies provide any additional information or justification that the Executive Secretary believes is necessary or helpful in order for the ISCAP to review and decide on the exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation of the exemptions files.</I> The Executive Secretary notifies the Chair of an agency's submission. At the direction of the ISCAP, the Executive Secretary supervises the preparation of an exemption file, pertinent portions of which are presented to the members of the Panel for review prior to a vote on the exemptions. The exemption file eventually includes all records pertaining to the ISCAP's consideration of the agency's exemptions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resolution.</I> The Panel may vote to approve an agency exemption, to deny an agency exemption, to amend an agency exemption, or to remand the matter to the agency for further consideration. A decision to deny or amend an agency exemption requires the affirmative vote of a majority of the members present.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification.</I> The Executive Secretary promptly notifies the designated senior agency official in writing of the Panel's decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agency appeals.</I> Within 60 days of receipt of an ISCAP decision that denies or amends an agency exemption, the agency head may petition the President through the National Security Advisor to overrule the Panel's decision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection of classified information.</I> All persons involved in the appeal will make every effort to minimize the inclusion of classified information in the appeal file. Any classified information contained in the exemption file is handled and protected in accordance with the Order and its implementing directives. Information that the agency maintains is exempt from declassification remains classified unless and until a final decision is made to declassify it.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintenance and disposition of file.</I> The Executive Secretary maintains the exemption file among the ISCAP's records in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 2201-2207 (the Presidential Records Act).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.13" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.13   Appeals of agency decisions denying declassification under mandatory review provisions in section 3.5 of the Order.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3.5 of the Order requires agencies to conduct a mandatory declassification review, upon request, of classified information that meets the requirements set out in the Order. An agency may deny such a review for specific reasons set out in section 5.3(a) of the Order. If an agency denies a request for such review, a person may appeal the denial through the agency's appeal process. After that process, a person may further appeal to the ISCAP.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> The ISCAP considers and decides appeals from denials of mandatory review for declassification requests that otherwise meet the standards of the Order if:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal is filed in accordance with these procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) The appellant has previously filed a request for mandatory declassification review at the agency that originated, or is otherwise responsible for, the information in question, and filed an appeal at the agency level. The request and appeal must have followed the agency's established procedures or, if the agency has failed to establish procedures, the appellant must have filed a written request directly with the agency head or designated senior agency official;
</P>
<P>(3) The appellant has:
</P>
<P>(i) Received a final agency decision denying his or her request; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not received—
</P>
<P>(A) An initial decision on the request for mandatory declassification review from the agency within one year of its filing, or
</P>
<P>(B) A final decision on an agency level appeal within 180 days of the filing of the appeal;
</P>
<P>(4) There is no action pending in the federal courts regarding the information in question;
</P>
<P>(5) The information in question has not been the subject of an access review by the Federal courts or the ISCAP within the past two years; and
</P>
<P>(6) The information in question is not the subject of a prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of appeals.</I> Appeals may be submitted to the Panel by email or mail. Appeals should be sent via email to: <I>ISCAP@nara.gov</I> or by mail to: Executive Secretary, Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel; Attn: Mandatory Declassification Review Appeals; c/o Information Security Oversight Office; National Archives and Records Administration; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 503; Washington, DC 20408.
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal must contain enough information for the Executive Secretary to be able to obtain all pertinent documents about the mandatory declassification review appeal from the affected agency.
</P>
<P>(2) No classified information should be included within the initial appeal correspondence. The Executive Secretary will arrange for the transmittal of classified information from the agency after receiving the appeal. If it is impossible for the appellant to file an appeal without including classified information, prior arrangements must be made by contacting the Panel in one of the two methods listed above.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timeliness of appeals.</I> An appeal to the ISCAP must be filed within 60 days of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the final agency decision; or
</P>
<P>(2) The agency's failure to meet the time frames established in paragraph (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rejection of appeals.</I> If the Executive Secretary determines that an appeal does not meet the requirements of the Order or these bylaws, the Executive Secretary notifies the appellant in writing that the appeal will not be considered by the ISCAP. The notification includes an explanation of why the appeal is deficient.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preparation of appeals and creation of appeals files.</I> The Executive Secretary notifies the senior agency official or primary member, alternate, or liaison of the affected agency(ies) when an appeal is lodged. Under the direction of the ISCAP, the Executive Secretary supervises the preparation of an appeal file, pertinent portions of which are presented to the members of the Panel for review prior to a vote on the appeal. The appeal file eventually includes all records pertaining to the appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Narrowing appeals.</I> To expedite the resolution of appeals and minimize backlogs, the Executive Secretary consults as relevant with appellants and agencies to narrow or prioritize the information subject to the appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resolution of appeals.</I> The Panel may vote to affirm the agency's decision, to reverse the agency's decision in whole or in part, or to remand the matter to the agency for further consideration. A decision to reverse an agency's decision requires the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the members present. In circumstances in which members abstain from voting, a Panel decision to reverse an agency's classification decision requires the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the members present.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notification.</I> The Executive Secretary promptly notifies the appellant and designated senior agency official in writing of the Panel's decision.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Agency appeals.</I> Within 60 days of receipt of an ISCAP decision that reverses a final agency decision, the agency head may petition the President through the National Security Advisor to overrule the Panel's decision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protection of classified information.</I> All persons involved in the appeal will make every effort to minimize the inclusion of classified information in the appeal file. Any classified information contained in the appeal file is handled and protected in accordance with the Order and its implementing directives. Information that is subject to an appeal from an agency decision denying declassification under the mandatory review provisions of the Order remains classified unless and until a final decision is made to declassify it.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Maintenance and disposition of file.</I> The Executive Secretary shall maintain the appeal file among the ISCAP's records in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 2201-2207 (Presidential Records Act).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.14" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.14   Dissemination of ISCAP decisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary informs senior agency officials and the public of final ISCAP decisions on appeals under sections 1.8 and 3.5 of the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2003.15" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.4.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2003.15   Additional functions.</HEAD>
<P>As directed by the President through the National Security Advisor, the ISCAP performs such additional advisory functions as are consistent with, and supportive of, the successful implementation of the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2004" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2004—NATIONAL INDUSTRIAL SECURITY PROGRAM (NISP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 102(b)(1) of E.O. 12829 (January 6, 1993), as amended by E.O. 12885 (December 14, 1993), E.O. 13691 (February 12, 2015), and section 4 of E.O. 13708 (September 30, 2015).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 19951, May 7, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Implementation and Oversight</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.1" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets out the National Industrial Security Program (“NISP” or “the Program”) governing the protection of agency classified information released to Federal contractors, licensees, grantees, and certificate holders. It establishes uniform standards throughout the Program, and helps agencies implement requirements in E.O. 12829, National Industrial Security Program, as amended by E.O. 12558 and E.O.13691 (collectively referred to as “E.O. 12829”), E.O. 13691, Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing, and E.O. 13587, Structural Reforms to Improve the Security of Classified Networks and the Responsible Sharing and Safeguarding of Classified Information. It applies to any executive branch agency that releases classified information to current, prospective, or former Federal contractors, licensees, grantees, or certificate holders. However, this part does not stand alone; users should refer concurrently to the underlying executive orders for guidance. ISOO maintains policy oversight over the NISP as established by E.O.12829.
</P>
<P>(b) This part also does not apply to release of classified information pursuant to criminal proceedings. The Classified Information Procedures Act (CIPA) (18 U.S.C. Appendix 3) governs release of classified information in criminal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part supersedes the authority of the Secretary of Energy or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011, <I>et seq.</I>) (collectively referred to as “the Atomic Energy Act”); the authority of the Director of National Intelligence (or any intelligence community element) under the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-458), the National Security Act of 1947 as amended (50 U.S.C. 401, <I>et seq.</I>), and E.O. 12333 (December 4, 1981), as amended by E.O. 13355, Strengthened Management of the Intelligence Community (August 27, 2004) and E.O. 13470, Further Amendments to Executive Order 12333 (July 30, 2008) (collectively referred to as “E.O. 12333”); or the authority of the Secretary of Homeland Security, as the Executive Agent for the Classified National Security Information Program established under E.O. 13549, Classified National Security Information Program for State, Local, Tribal, and Private Sector Entities (August 18, 2010), or as established by E.O. 13284, Amendment of Executive Orders, and Other Actions, in Connection with the Establishment of the Department of Homeland Security (January 23, 2003). In exercising these authorities, CSAs make every effort to facilitate reciprocity, avoid duplication of regulatory requirements, and facilitate uniform standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.4" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.4   Definitions that apply to this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access</I> is the ability or opportunity to gain knowledge of classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency(ies)</I> are any “Executive agency” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any “Military department” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the executive branch that releases classified information to private sector entities. This includes component agencies under another agency or under a cross-agency oversight office (such as ODNI with CIA), which are also agencies for purposes of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified Critical Infrastructure Protection Program (CCIPP)</I> is the DHS program that executes the classified infrastructure protection program designated by E.O. 13691, “Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing.” The Government uses this program to share classified cybersecurity-related information with employees of private sector entities that own or operate critical infrastructure. Critical infrastructure refers to systems and assets, whether physical or virtual, so vital to the United States that incapacitating or destroying such systems and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, national public health or safety, or any combination thereof. These entities include banks and power plants, among others. The sectors of critical infrastructure are listed in Presidential Policy Directive 21, <I>Critical Infrastructure Security and Resilience</I> (February 12, 2013).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified Critical Infrastructure Protection Program (CCIPP) security point of contact (security POC)</I> is an official whom a CCIPP entity designates to maintain eligibility information about the entity and its cleared employees, and to report that information to DHS. The CCIPP security POC must be eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Classified information</I> is information the Government designates as requiring protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security, pursuant to E.O. 13526, Classified National Security Information, or any predecessor order, and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Classified information includes national security information (NSI), restricted data (RD), and formerly restricted data (FRD), regardless of its physical form or characteristics (including tangible items other than documents).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cognizance</I> is the area over which a CSA has operational oversight. Normally, a statute or executive order establishes a CSA's cognizance over certain types of information, programs, or non-CSA agencies, although CSAs may also have cognizance through an agreement with another CSA or non-CSA agency or an entity. A CSA may have cognizance over a particular type(s) of classified information based on specific authorities (such as those listed in § 2004.1(c)), and a CSA may have cognizance over certain agencies or cross-agency programs (such as DoD's cognizance over non-CSA agencies as the EA for NISP, or ODNI's oversight (if applicable) of all intelligence community elements within the executive branch). Entities fall under a CSA's cognizance when they enter or compete to enter contracts or agreements to access classified information under the CSA's cognizance, including when they enter or compete to enter such contracts or agreements with a non-CSA agency or another entity under the CSA's cognizance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Cognizant security agencies (CSAs)</I> are the agencies E.O. 12829, sec. 202, designates as having NISP implementation and security responsibilities for their own agencies (including component agencies) and any entities and non-CSA agencies under their cognizance. The CSAs are: Department of Defense (DoD); Department of Energy (DOE); Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC); Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI); and Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cognizant security office (CSO)</I> is an organizational unit to which the head of a CSA delegates authority to administer industrial security services on behalf of the CSA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contracts or agreements</I> are any type of arrangement between an agency and an entity or an agency and another agency. They include, but are not limited to, contracts, sub-contracts, licenses, certificates, memoranda of understanding, inter-agency service agreements, other types of documents or arrangements setting out responsibilities, requirements, or terms agreed upon by the parties, programs, projects, and other legitimate U.S. or foreign government requirements. FOCI mitigation or negation measures, such as Voting Trust Agreements, that have the word “agreement” in their title are not included in the term “agreements” within this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Controlling agency</I> is an agency that owns or controls the following categories of proscribed information and thus has authority over access to or release of the information: NSA for communications security information (COMSEC); DOE for restricted data (RD); and ODNI for sensitive compartmented information (SCI).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Entity</I> is a generic and comprehensive term which may include sole proprietorships, partnerships, corporations, limited liability companies, societies, associations, institutions, contractors, licensees, grantees, certificate holders, and other organizations usually established and operating to carry out a commercial, industrial, educational, or other legitimate business, enterprise, or undertaking, or parts of these organizations. It may reference an entire organization, a prime contractor, parent organization, a branch or division, another type of sub-element, a sub-contractor, subsidiary, or other subordinate or connected entity (referred to as “sub-entities” when necessary to distinguish such entities from prime or parent entities), a specific location or facility, or the headquarters/official business location of the organization, depending upon the organization's business structure, the access needs involved, and the responsible CSA's procedures. The term “entity” as used in this part refers to the particular entity to which an agency might release, or is releasing, classified information, whether that entity is a parent or subordinate organization.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Entity eligibility determination</I> is an assessment by the CSA as to whether an entity is eligible for access to classified information of a certain level (and all lower levels). Eligibility determinations may be broad or limited to specific contracts, sponsoring agencies, or circumstances. A favorable determination results in eligibility to access classified information under the cognizance of the responsible CSA to the level approved. When the entity would be accessing categories of information such as RD or SCI for which the CSA for that information has set additional requirements, CSAs must also assess whether the entity is eligible for access to that category. Some CSAs refer to their favorable determinations as facility security clearances (FCL). A favorable entity eligibility determination does not convey authority to store classified information.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Foreign interest</I> is any foreign government, element of a foreign government, or representative of a foreign government; any form of business enterprise or legal entity organized, chartered, or incorporated under the laws of any country other than the United States or its territories; and any person who is not a United States citizen or national.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Government contracting activity (GCA)</I> is an agency component or subcomponent to which the agency head delegates broad authority regarding acquisition functions. A foreign government may also be a GCA.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Industrial security services</I> are those activities performed by a CSA to verify that an entity is protecting classified information. They include, but are not limited to, conducting oversight reviews, making eligibility determinations, and providing agency and entity guidance and training.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Insider(s)</I> are entity employees who are eligible to access classified information and may be authorized access to any U.S. Government or entity resource (such as personnel, facilities, information, equipment, networks, or systems).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Insider threat</I> is the likelihood, risk, or potential that an insider will use his or her authorized access, wittingly or unwittingly, to do harm to the national security of the United States. Insider threats may include harm to entity or program information to the extent that the information impacts the entity's or agency's obligations to protect classified information.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Insider threat response action(s)</I> are actions (such as investigations) an agency takes to ascertain whether an insider threat exists, and actions the agency takes to mitigate the threat. Agencies may conduct insider threat response actions through their counterintelligence (CI), security, law enforcement, or inspector general organizations, depending on the statutory authority and internal policies that govern the agency.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Insider threat program senior official (SO)</I> is the official an agency head or entity designates with responsibility to manage, account for, and oversee the agency's or entity's insider threat program, pursuant to the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards. An agency may have more than one insider threat program SO.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Key managers and officials (KMO)</I> are the senior management official (or authorized executive official under CCIPP), the entity's security officer (or security POC under CCIPP), the insider threat program senior official, and other entity employees whom the responsible CSA identifies as having authority, direct or indirect, to influence or decide matters affecting the entity's management or operations, its contracts requiring access to classified information, or national security interests. They may include individuals who hold majority ownership interest in the entity (in the form of stock or other ownership interests).
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Proscribed information</I> is information that is classified as top secret (TS) information; communications security (COMSEC) information (excluding controlled cryptographic items when un-keyed or utilized with unclassified keys); restricted data (RD); special access program information (SAP); or sensitive compartmented information (SCI).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Security officer</I> is a U.S. citizen employee the entity designates to supervise and direct security measures implementing NISPOM (or equivalent; such as DOE Orders) requirements. Some CSAs refer to this position as a facility security officer (FSO). The security officer must complete security training specified by the responsible CSA, and must have and maintain an employee eligibility determination level that is at least the same level as the entity's eligibility determination level.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Senior agency official for NISP (SAO for NISP)</I> is the official an agency head designates to direct and administer the agency's National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Senior management official (SMO)</I> is the person in charge of an entity. Under the CCIPP, this is the authorized executive official with authority to sign the security agreement with DHS.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Sub-entity</I> is an entity's branch or division, another type of sub-element, a sub-contractor, subsidiary, or other subordinate or connected entity. Sub-entities fall under the definition of “entity,” but this part refers to them as sub-entities when necessary to distinguish such entities from prime contractor or parent entities. See definition of “entity” in paragraph (k) of this section for more context.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.10" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.10   Responsibilities of the Director, Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).</HEAD>
<P>The Director, ISOO:
</P>
<P>(a) Implements E.O. 12829, including ensuring that:
</P>
<P>(1) The NISP operates as a single, integrated program across the executive branch of the Federal Government (<I>i.e.,</I> such that agencies that release classified information to entities adhere to NISP principles);
</P>
<P>(2) A responsible CSA oversees each entity's NISP implementation in accordance with § 2004.22;
</P>
<P>(3) All agencies that contract for classified work include the Security Requirements clause, 48 CFR 52.204-2, from the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), or an equivalent clause, in contracts that require access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(4) Those agencies for which the Department of Defense (DoD) serves as the CSA or provides industrial security services have agreements with DoD defining the Secretary of Defense's responsibilities on behalf of their agency;
</P>
<P>(5) Each CSA issues directions to entities under their cognizance that are consistent with the NISPOM insider threat guidance;
</P>
<P>(6) CSAs share with each other, as lawful and appropriate, relevant information about entity employees that indicates an insider threat; and
</P>
<P>(7) CSAs conduct ongoing analysis and adjudication of adverse or relevant information about entity employees that indicates an insider threat.
</P>
<P>(b) Raises an issue to the National Security Council (NSC) for resolution if the EA's NISPOM coordination process cannot reach a consensus on NISPOM security standards (see § 2004.20(d)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.11" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.11   CSA and agency implementing regulations, internal rules, or guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each CSA implements NISP practices in part through policies and guidelines that are consistent with this regulation, so that agencies for which it serves as the CSA are aware of appropriate security standards, engage in consistent practices with entities, and so that practices effectively protect classified information those entities receive (including foreign government information that the U.S. Government must protect in the interest of national security).
</P>
<P>(b) Each CSA must also routinely review and update its NISP policies and guidelines and promptly issue revisions when needed (including when a change in national policy necessitates a change in agency NISP policies and guidelines).
</P>
<P>(c) Non-CSA agencies may choose to augment CSA NISP policies or guidelines as long as the agency policies or guidelines are consistent with the CSA's policies or guidelines and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.12" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.12   ISOO review of agency NISP implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) ISOO fulfills its oversight role based, in part, on information received from NISP Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC) members, from on-site reviews that ISOO conducts under the authority of E.O. 12829, and from any submitted complaints and suggestions. ISOO reports findings to the responsible CSA or agency.
</P>
<P>(b) ISOO reviews agency policies and guidelines to ensure consistency with NISP policies and procedures. ISOO may conduct reviews during routine oversight visits, when a problem or potential problem comes to ISOO's attention, or after a change in national policy that impacts agency policies and guidelines. ISOO provides the responsible agency with findings from these reviews.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.20" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.20   National Industrial Security Program Executive Agent and Operating Manual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The executive agent (EA) for NISP is the Secretary of Defense. The EA:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides industrial security services for agencies that are not CSAs but that release classified information to entities. The EA provides industrial security services only through an agreement with the agency. Non-CSA agencies must enter an agreement with the EA and comply with EA industrial security service processes before releasing classified information to an entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides services for other CSAs by agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Issues and maintains the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) in consultation with all affected agencies and with the concurrence of the other CSAs.
</P>
<P>(b) The NISPOM sets out the procedures and standards that entities must follow during all phases of the contracting process to safeguard any classified information an agency releases to an entity. The NISPOM requirements may apply to the entity directly (<I>i.e.,</I> through FAR clauses or other contract clauses referring entities to the NISPOM) or through equivalent contract clauses or requirements documents that are consistent with NISPOM requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) The EA, in consultation with all affected agencies and with the concurrence of the other CSAs, develops the requirements, restrictions, and safeguards contained in the NISPOM. The EA uses security standards applicable to agencies as the basis for developing NISPOM entity standards to the extent practicable and reasonable.
</P>
<P>(d) The EA also facilitates the NISPOM coordination process, which addresses issues raised by entities, agencies, ISOO, or the NISPPAC, including requests to create or change NISPOM security standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.22" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.22   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency categories and general areas of responsibility.</I> Federal agencies fall into three categories for the purpose of NISP responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CSAs.</I> CSAs are responsible for carrying out NISP implementation within their agency, for providing NISP industrial security services on behalf of non-CSA agencies by agreement when authorized, and for overseeing NISP compliance by entities that access classified information under the CSA's cognizance. When the CSA has oversight responsibilities for a particular non-CSA agency or for an entity, the CSA also functions as the responsible CSA;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-CSA agencies.</I> Non-CSA agencies are responsible for entering agreements with a designated CSA for industrial security services, and are responsible for carrying out NISP implementation within their agency consistently with the agreement, the CSA's guidelines and procedures, and this regulation; or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agencies that are components of another agency.</I> Component agencies do not have itemized responsibilities under this regulation and do not independently need to enter agreements with a CSA, but they follow, and may have responsibilities under, implementing guidelines and procedures established by their CSA or non-CSA agency, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsible CSA role.</I> (1) The responsible CSA is the CSA (or its delegated CSO) that provides NISP industrial security services on behalf of an agency, determines an entity's eligibility for access, and monitors and inspects an entity's NISP implementation.
</P>
<P>(2) In general, the goal is to have one responsible CSA for each agency and for each entity, to minimize the burdens that can result from complying with differing CSA procedures and requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) With regard to agencies, NISP accomplishes this goal by a combination of designated CSAs and agreements between agencies and CSAs.
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to entities, CSAs strive to reduce the number of responsible CSAs for a given entity as much as possible. To this end, when more than one CSA releases classified information to a given entity, those CSAs agree on which is the responsible CSA. However, due to certain unique agency authorities, there may be circumstances in which a given entity is under the oversight of more than one responsible CSA.
</P>
<P>(3) Responsible CSA for agencies:
</P>
<P>(i) In general, each CSA serves as the responsible CSA for classified information that it (or any of its component agencies) releases to entities, unless it enters an agreement otherwise with another CSA.
</P>
<P>(ii) DoD serves as the responsible CSA for DHS with the exception of the CCIPP, based on an agreement between the two CSAs.
</P>
<P>(iii) DoD serves as the responsible CSA on behalf of all non-CSA agencies, except CSA components, based on E.O. 12829 and its role as NISP EA.
</P>
<P>(iv) ODNI serves as the responsible CSA for CIA.
</P>
<P>(4) Responsible CSA for entities: When determining the responsible CSA for a given entity, the involved CSAs consider, at a minimum: retained authorities, the information's classification level, number of contracts requiring access to classified information, location, number of Government customers, volume of classified activity, safeguarding requirements, responsibility for entity employee eligibility determinations, and any special requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) Responsible CSAs may delegate oversight responsibility to a cognizant security office (CSO) through CSA policy or by written delegation. The CSA must inform entities under its cognizance if it delegates responsibilities. For purposes of this rule, the term CSA also refers to the CSO.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CSA responsibilities.</I> (1) The CSA may perform GCA responsibilities as its own GCA.
</P>
<P>(2) As CSA, the CSA performs or delegates the following responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(i) Designates a CSA senior agency official (SAO) for NISP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies the insider threat program senior official (SO) to the Director, ISOO;
</P>
<P>(iii) Shares insider threat information with other CSAs, as lawful and appropriate, including information that indicates an insider threat about entity employees eligible to access classified information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Acts upon and shares—with security management, GCAs, insider threat program employees, and Government program and CI officials—any relevant entity-reported information about security or CI concerns, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(v) Submits reports to ISOO as required by this part; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Develops, coordinates, and provides concurrence on changes to the NISPOM when requested by the EA.
</P>
<P>(3) As a responsible CSA, the CSA also performs or delegates the following responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(i) Determines whether an entity is eligible for access to classified information (see § 2004.32);
</P>
<P>(ii) Allocates funds, ensures appropriate investigations are conducted, and determines entity employee eligibility for access to classified information (see § 2004.36);
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviews and approves entity safeguarding measures, including making safeguarding capability determinations (see § 2004.38);
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducts periodic security reviews of entity operations (see § 2004.26) to determine that entities: effectively protect classified information provided to them; and follow NISPOM (or equivalent) requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Provides and regularly updates guidance, training, training materials, and briefings to entities on:
</P>
<P>(A) Entity implementation of NISPOM (or equivalent) requirements, including: responsibility for protecting classified information, requesting NISPOM interpretations, establishing training programs, and submitting required reports;
</P>
<P>(B) Initial security briefings and other briefings required for special categories of information;
</P>
<P>(C) Authorization measures for information systems processing classified information (except DHS) (see § 2004.40);
</P>
<P>(D) Security training for security officers (or CCIPP POCs) and other employees whose official duties include performing NISP-related functions;
</P>
<P>(E) Insider threat programs in accordance with the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards for Executive Branch Insider Threat Programs; and
</P>
<P>(F) Other guidance and training as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(vi) Establishes a mechanism for entities to submit requests for waivers to NISPOM (or equivalent) provisions;
</P>
<P>(vii) Reviews, continuously analyzes, and adjudicates, as appropriate, reports from entities regarding events that:
</P>
<P>(A) Impact the status of the entity's eligibility for access to classisfied information;
</P>
<P>(B) Impact an employee's eligibility for access;
</P>
<P>(C) May indicate an employee poses an insider threat;
</P>
<P>(D) Affect proper safeguarding of classified information; or
</P>
<P>(E) Indicate that classified information has been lost or compromised;
</P>
<P>(viii) Verifies that reports offered in confidence and so marked by an entity may be withheld from public disclosure under applicable exemptions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552);
</P>
<P>(ix) Requests any additional information needed from an entity about involved employees to determine continued eligibility for access to classified information when the entity reports loss, possible compromise, or unauthorized disclosure of classified information; and
</P>
<P>(x) Posts hotline information on its website for entity access, or otherwise disseminates contact numbers to the entities for which the CSA is responsible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-CSA agency head responsibilities.</I> The head of a non-CSA agency that is not a CSA component and that releases classified information to entities, performs the following responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(1) Designates an SAO for the NISP;
</P>
<P>(2) Identifies the insider threat program SO to ISOO to facilitate information sharing;
</P>
<P>(3) Enters into an agreement with the EA (except agencies that are components of another agency or a cross-agency oversight office) to act as the responsible CSA on the agency's behalf (see paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section);
</P>
<P>(4) Performs, or delegates in writing to a GCA, the following responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides appropriate education and training to agency personnel who implement the NISP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes FAR security requirements clause 52.204-2, or equivalent (such as the DEAR clause 952.204-2), and a contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) into contracts and solicitations that require access to classified information (see § 2004.30); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reports to the appropriate CSA adverse information and insider threat activity pertaining to entity employees having access to classified information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.24" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.24   Insider threat program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Responsible CSAs oversee and analyze entity activity to ensure entities implement an insider threat program in accordance with the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards for Executive Branch Insider Threat Programs (via requirements in the NISPOM or its equivalent) and guidance from the CSA. CSA oversight responsibilities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Verifying that entities appoint insider threat program SOs;
</P>
<P>(2) Requiring entities to monitor, report, and review insider threat program activities and response actions in accordance with the provisions set forth in the NISPOM (or equivalent);
</P>
<P>(3) Providing entities with access to data relevant to insider threat program activities and applicable reporting requirements and procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) Providing entities with a designated means to report insider threat-related activity; and
</P>
<P>(5) Advising entities on appropriate insider threat training for entity employees eligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(b) CSAs share with other CSAs any insider threat information reported to them by entities, as lawful and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.26" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.26   Reviews of entity NISP implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible CSA conducts recurring oversight reviews of entities' NISP security programs to verify that the entity is protecting classified information and is implementing the provisions of the NISPOM (or equivalent). The CSA determines the scope and frequency of reviews. The CSA generally notifies entities when a review will take place, but may also conduct unannounced reviews at its discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) CSAs make every effort to avoid unnecessarily intruding into entity employee personal effects during the reviews.
</P>
<P>(c) A CSA may, on entity premises, physically examine the interior spaces of containers not authorized to store classified information in the presence of the entity's representative.
</P>
<P>(d) As part of a security review, the CSA:
</P>
<P>(1) Verifies that the entity limits entity employees with access to classified information to the minimum number necessary to perform on contracts requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) Validates that the entity has not provided its employees unauthorized access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(3) Reviews the entity's self-inspection program and evaluates and records the entity's remedial actions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Verifies that the GCA approved any public release of information pertaining to a contract requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) As a result of findings during the security review, the CSA may, as appropriate, notify:
</P>
<P>(1) GCAs if there are unfavorable results from the review; and
</P>
<P>(2) A prime entity if the CSA discovers unsatisfactory security conditions pertaining to a sub-entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The CSA maintains a record of reviews it conducts and the results. Based on review results, the responsible CSA determines whether an entity's eligibility for access to classified information may continue. See § 2004.32(g).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.28" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.28   Cost reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies must annually report to the Director, ISOO, on their NISP implementation costs for the previous year.
</P>
<P>(b) CSAs must annually collect information on NISP implementation costs incurred by entities under their cognizance and submit a report to the Director, ISOO.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.30" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.30   Security classification requirements and guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract or agreement and solicition requirements.</I> (1) The GCA must incorporate FAR clause 52.204-2, Security Requirements (or equivalent set of security requirements), into contracts or agreements and solicitations requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The GCA must also include a contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) with each contract or agreement and solicitation that requires access to classified information. The contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) must identify the specific elements of classified information involved in each phase of the contract or agreement life-cycle, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Level of classification;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entity will access or store the classified information, and any requirements or limitations on transmitting classified information outside the entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any special accesses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any classification guides or other guidance the entity needs to perform during that phase of the contract or agreement;
</P>
<P>(v) Any authorization to disclose information about the contract or agreement requiring access to classified information; and
</P>
<P>(vi) GCA personnel responsible for interpreting and applying the contract security specifications (or equivalent guidance).
</P>
<P>(3) The GCA revises the contract security classification specification (or equivalent guidance) throughout the contract or agreement life-cycle as security requirements change.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidance.</I> Classification guidance is the exclusive responsibility of the GCA. The GCA prepares classification guidance in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.15, and provides appropriate security classification and declassification guidance to entities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for clarification and classification challenges.</I> (1) The GCA responds to entity requests for clarification and classification challenges.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible CSA assists entities to obtain appropriate classification guidance from the GCA, and to obtain a classification challenge response from the GCA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Instructions upon contract or agreement completion or termination.</I> (1) The GCA provides instructions to the entity for returning or disposing of classified information upon contract or agreement completion or termination, or when an entity no longer has a legitimate need to retain or possess classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The GCA also determines whether the entity may retain classified information for particular purposes after the contract or agreement terminates, and if so, provides written authorization to the entity along with any instructions or limitations (such as which information, for how long, etc).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.32" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.32   Determining entity eligibility for access to classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility determinations.</I> (1) The responsible CSA determines whether an entity is eligible for access to classified information. An entity may not have access to classified information until the responsible CSA determines that it meets all the requirements in this section. In general, the entity must be eligible to access classified information at the appropriate level before the CSA may consider any of the entity's subsidiaries, sub-contractors, or other sub-entities for eligibility. However, when the subsidiary will perform all classified work, the CSA may instead exclude the parent entity from access to classified information rather than determining its eligibility. In either case, the CSA must consider all information relevant to assessing whether the entity's access poses an unacceptable risk to national security interests.
</P>
<P>(2) A favorable access eligibility determination is not the same as a safeguarding capability determination. Entities may access classified information with a favorable eligibility determination, but may possess classified information only if the CSA determines both access eligibility and safeguarding capability, based on the GCA's requirement in the contract security classification specification (or equivalent).
</P>
<P>(3) If an entity has an existing eligibility determination, a CSA will not duplicate eligibility determination processes performed by another CSA. If a CSA cannot acknowledge an entity eligibility determination to another CSA, that entity may be subject to duplicate processing.
</P>
<P>(4) Each CSA maintains a record of its entities' eligibility determinations (or critical infrastructure entity eligibility status under the CCIPP, for DHS) and responds to inquiries from GCAs or entities, as appropriate and to the extent authorized by law, regarding the eligibility status of entities under their cognizance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Process.</I> (1) The responsible CSA provides guidance to entities on the eligibility determination process and on how to maintain eligibility throughout the period of the agreement or as long as an entity continues to need access to classified information in connection with a legitimate U.S. or foreign government requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA coordinates with appropriate authorities to determine whether an entity meets the eligibility criteria in paragraph (e) of this section. This includes coordinating with appropriate U.S. Government regulatory authorities to determine entity compliance with laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) An entity cannot apply for its own eligibility determination. A GCA or an eligible entity must sponsor the entity to the responsible CSA for an eligibility determination. The GCA or eligible entity may sponsor an entity at any point during the contracting or agreement life-cycle at which the entity must have access to classified information to participate (including the solicitation or competition phase). An entity with limited eligibility granted under paragraph (f) of this section may sponsor a sub-entity for a limited eligibility determination for the same contract, agreement, or circumstance so long as the sponsoring entity is not under FOCI (see § 2004.34(i)).
</P>
<P>(4) The GCA must include enough lead time in each phase of the acquisition or agreement cycle to accomplish all required security actions. Required security actions include any eligibility determination necessary for an entity to participate in that phase of the cycle. The GCA may award a contract or agreement before the CSA completes the entity eligibility determination. However, in such cases, the entity may not begin performance on portions of the contract or agreement that require access to classified information until the CSA makes a favorable entity eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(5) When a CSA is unable to make an eligibility determination in sufficient time to qualify an entity to participate in the particular procurement action or phase that gave rise to the GCA request (this includes both solicitation and performance phases), the GCA may request that the CSA continue the determination process to qualify the entity for future classified work for any GCA, provided that the processing delay was not due to the entity's lack of cooperation. Once the CSA determines that an entity is eligible for access to classified information, but a GCA does not award a contract or agreement requiring access to classified information to the entity, or the entity's eligibility status changes, the CSA terminates the entity eligibility determination in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) A favorable eligibility determination allows an entity to access classified information at the determined eligibility level, or lower.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA must ensure that all entities needing access to classified information as part of a legitimate U.S. or foreign government requirement have or receive a favorable eligibility determination before accessing classified information. This includes both prime or parent entities and sub-entities, even in cases in which an entity intends to have the classified work performed only by sub-entities. A prime or parent entity must have a favorable eligibility determination at the same classification level or higher than its sub-entity(ies), unless the CSA determined that the parent entity could be effectively excluded from access (see paragraph (a)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) If a parent and sub-entity need to share classified information with each other, the CSA must validate that both the parent and the sub-entity have favorable eligibility determinations at the level required for the classified information prior to sharing the information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DHS Classified Critical Infrastructure Protection Program (CCIPP).</I> DHS shares classified cybersecurity information with certain employees of entities under the Classified Critical Infrastructure Protection Program (CCIPP). The CCIPP applies only to entities that do not need to store classified information, have no other contracts or agreements already requiring access to classified information, and are not already determined eligible for access to classified information. DHS establishes and implements procedures consistent with the NISP to determine CCIPP entity eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligibility criteria.</I> An entity must meet the following requirements to be eligible to access classified information:
</P>
<P>(1) It must need to access classified information as part of a legitimate U.S. Government or foreign government requirement, and access must be consistent with U.S. national security interests as determined by the CSA;
</P>
<P>(2) It must be organized and existing under the laws of any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or an organized U.S. territory (Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Marianas Islands, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands); or an American Indian or Alaska native tribe formally acknowledged by the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, of the U.S. Department of the Interior;
</P>
<P>(3) It must be located in the United States or its territorial areas;
</P>
<P>(4) It must have a record of compliance with pertinent laws, regulations, and contracts (or other relevant agreements);
</P>
<P>(5) Its KMOs must each have and maintain eligibility for access to classified information that is at least the same level as the entity eligibility level;
</P>
<P>(6) It and all of its KMOs must not be excluded by a Federal agency, contract review board, or other authorized official from participating in Federal contracts or agreements;
</P>
<P>(7) It must meet all requirements the CSA or the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy establishes for access to the type of classified information or program involved; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the CSA determines the entity is under foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI), the responsible CSA must:
</P>
<P>(i) Agree that sufficient security measures are in place to mitigate or negate risk to national security interests due to the FOCI (see § 2004.34);
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine that it is appropriate to grant eligibility for a single, narrowly defined purpose (see § 2004.34(i)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine that the entity is not eligible to access classified information.
</P>
<P>(9) DoD and DOE cannot award a contract involving access to proscribed information to an entity effectively owned or controlled by a foreign government unless the Secretary of the agency first issues a waiver (see 10 U.S.C. 2536). A waiver is not required if the CSA determines the entity is eligible and it agrees to establish a voting trust agreement (VTA) or proxy agreement (PA) (see § 2004.34(f)) because both VTAs and PAs effectively negate foreign government control.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limited entity eligibility determination.</I> CSAs may choose to allow GCAs to request limited entity eligibility determinations (this is not the same as limited entity eligibility in situations involving FOCI when the FOCI is not mitigated or negated; for more information on limited entity eligibility in such FOCI cases, see § 2004.34(i)). If a CSA permits GCAs to request a limited entity eligibility determination, it must set out parameters within its implementing policies that are consistent with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The GCA, or an entity with limited eligibility, must first request a limited entity eligibility determination from the CSA for the relevant entity and provide justification for limiting eligibility in that case;
</P>
<P>(2) Limited entity eligibility is specific to the requesting GCA's classified information, and to a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance;
</P>
<P>(3) The entity must otherwise meet the requirements for entity eligibility set out in this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The CSA documents the requirements of each limited entity eligibility determination it makes, including the scope of, and any limitations on, access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(5) The CSA verifies limited entity eligibility determinations only to the requesting GCA or entity. In the case of multiple limited entity eligibility determinations for a single entity, the CSA verifies each one separately only to its requestor; and
</P>
<P>(6) CSAs administratively terminate the limited entity eligibility when there is no longer a need for access to the classified information for which the CSA approved the limited entity eligibility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Terminating or revoking eligibility.</I> (1) The responsible CSA terminates the entity's eligible status when the entity no longer has a need for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible CSA revokes the entity's eligible status if the entity is unable or unwilling to protect classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) The CSA coordinates with the GCA(s) to take interim measures, as necessary, toward either termination or revocation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.34" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.34   Foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FOCI determination.</I> A U.S. entity is under foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) when:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign interest has the power to direct or decide matters affecting the entity's management or operations in a manner that could:
</P>
<P>(i) Result in unauthorized access to classified information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Adversely affect performance of a contract or agreement requiring access to classified information; and
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign interest exercises that power:
</P>
<P>(i) Directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(ii) Through ownership of the U.S. entity's securities, by contractual arrangements, or other similar means;
</P>
<P>(iii) By the ability to control or influence the election or appointment of one or more members to the entity's governing board (<I>e.g.,</I> board of directors, board of managers, board of trustees) or its equivalent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Prospectively (<I>i.e.,</I> is not currently exercising the power, but could).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CSA guidance.</I> The CSA establishes guidance for entities on filling out and submitting a Standard Form (SF) 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests (OMB Control No. 0704-0194), and on reporting changes in circumstances that might result in a determination that the entity is under FOCI or is no longer under FOCI. The CSA also advises entities on the Government appeal channels for disputing CSA FOCI determinations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FOCI factors.</I> To determine whether an entity is under FOCI, the CSA analyzes available information to determine the existence, nature, and source of FOCI. The CSA:
</P>
<P>(1) Considers information the entity or its parent provides on the SF 328/CF 328 (OMB Control No. 0704-0194), and any other relevant information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Considers in the aggregate the following factors about the entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Record of espionage against U.S. targets, either economic or Government;
</P>
<P>(ii) Record of enforcement actions against the entity for transferring technology without authorization;
</P>
<P>(iii) Record of compliance with pertinent U.S. laws, regulations, and contracts or agreements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Type and sensitivity of the information the entity would access;
</P>
<P>(v) Source, nature, and extent of FOCI, including whether foreign interests hold a majority or minority position in the entity, taking into consideration the immediate, intermediate, and ultimate parent entities;
</P>
<P>(vi) Nature of any relevant bilateral and multilateral security and information exchange agreements;
</P>
<P>(vii) Ownership or control, in whole or in part, by a foreign government; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any other factor that indicates or demonstrates foreign interest capability to control or influence the entity's operations or management.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Entity access while under FOCI.</I> (1) If the CSA is determining whether an entity is eligible to access classified information and finds that the entity is under FOCI, the CSA must consider the entity ineligible for access to classified information. The CSA and the entity may then attempt to negotiate FOCI mitigation or negation measures sufficient to permit a favorable eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA may not determine that the entity is eligible to access classified information until the entity has put into place appropriate security measures to negate or mitigate FOCI or is otherwise no longer under FOCI. If the degree of FOCI is such that no mitigation or negation efforts will be sufficient, or access to classified information would be inconsistent with national security interests, then the CSA will determine the entity ineligible for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) If an entity comes under FOCI, the CSA may allow the existing eligibility status to continue while the CSA and the entity negotiate acceptable FOCI mitigation or negation measures, as long as there is no indication that classified information is at risk. If the entity does not actively negotiate mitigation or negation measures in good faith, or there are no appropriate measures that will remove the possibility of unauthorized access to classified information or adverse effect on the entity's performance of contracts or agreements involving classified information, the CSA will take steps, in coordination with the GCA, to terminate eligibility.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FOCI and entities under the CCIPP.</I> DHS may sponsor, as part of the CCIPP, a U.S. entity that is under FOCI, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of DHS proposes appropriate FOCI risk mitigation or negation measures (see paragraph (f) of this section) to the other CSAs and ensures the anticipated release of classified information:
</P>
<P>(i) Is authorized for release to the country involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not include information classified under the Atomic Energy Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not impede or interfere with the entity's ability to manage and comply with regulatory requirements imposed by other Federal agencies, such as the State Department's International Traffic in Arms Regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) If the CSAs agree the mitigation or negation measures are sufficient, DHS may proceed to enter a CCIPP information sharing agreement with the entity. If one or more CSAs disagree, the Secretary of DHS may seek a decision from the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs before entering a CCIPP information sharing agreement with the entity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mitigation or negation measures to address FOCI.</I> (1) The CSA-approved mitigation or negation measures must assure that the entity can offset FOCI by effectively denying unauthorized people or entities access to classified information and preventing the foreign interest from adversely impacting the entity's performance on contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) Any mitigation or negation measures the CSA approves for an entity must not impede or interfere with the entity's ability to manage and comply with regulatory requirements imposed by other Federal agencies (such as Department of State's International Traffic in Arms Regulation).
</P>
<P>(3) If the CSA approves a FOCI mitigation or negation measure for an entity, it may agree that the measure, or particular portions of it, may apply to all of the present and future sub-entities within the entity's organization.
</P>
<P>(4) Mitigation or negation measures are different for ownership versus control or influence.
</P>
<P>(5) Methods to mitigate foreign control or influence (unrelated to ownership) may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigning specific oversight duties and responsibilities to independent board members;
</P>
<P>(ii) Formulating special executive-level security committees to consider and oversee matters that affect entity performance on contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifying or terminating loan agreements, contracts, agreements, and other understandings with foreign interests;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diversifying or reducing foreign-source income;
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrating financial viability independent of foreign interests;
</P>
<P>(vi) Eliminating or resolving problem debt;
</P>
<P>(vii) Separating, physically or organizationally, the entity component performing on contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(viii) Adopting special board resolutions;
</P>
<P>(ix) A combination of these methods, as determined by the CSA; or
</P>
<P>(x) Other actions that effectively negate or mitigate foreign control or influence.
</P>
<P>(6) Methods to mitigate or negate foreign ownership include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Board resolutions.</I> The CSA and the entity may agree to a board resolution when a foreign interest does not own voting interests sufficient to elect, or is otherwise not entitled to representation on, the entity's governing board. The resolution must identify the foreign shareholders and their representatives (if any), note the extent of foreign ownership, certify that the foreign shareholders and their representatives will not require, will not have, and can be effectively excluded from, access to all classified information, and certify that the entity will not permit the foreign shareholders and their representatives to occupy positions that might enable them to influence the entity's policies and practices, affecting its performance on contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Security control agreements (SCAs).</I> The CSA and the entity may agree to use an SCA when a foreign interest does not effectively own or control an entity (<I>i.e.,</I> the entity is under U.S. control), but the foreign interest is entitled to representation on the entity's governing board. At least one cleared U.S. citizen must serve as an outside director on the entity's governing board.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special security agreements (SSAs).</I> The CSA and the entity may agree to use an SSA when a foreign interest effectively owns or controls an entity. The SSA preserves the foreign owner's right to be represented on the entity's board or governing body with a direct voice in the entity's business management, while denying the foreign owner majority representation and unauthorized access to classified information. When a GCA requires an entity to have access to proscribed information, and the CSA proposes an SSA as the mitigation measure, the CSA makes a national interest determination (NID) as part of determining an entity's eligibility for access. See paragraph (h) of this section for more information on NIDs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Voting trust agreements (VTAs) or proxy agreements (PAs).</I> The CSA and the entity may agree to use one of these measures when a foreign interest effectively owns or controls an entity. The VTA and PA are arrangements that vest the voting rights of the foreign-owned stock in cleared U.S. citizens approved by the CSA. Under the VTA, the foreign owner transfers legal title in the entity to the trustees approved by the CSA. Under the PA, the foreign owner conveys their voting rights to proxy holders approved by the CSA. The entity must be organized, structured, and financed to be capable of operating as a viable business entity independently from the foreign owner. Both VTAs and PAs can effectively negate foreign ownership and control; therefore, neither imposes any restrictions on the entity's eligibility to have access to classified information or to compete for contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information, including those involving proscribed information. Both VTAs and PAs can also effectively negate foreign government control.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Combinations of the measures in paragraphs (f)(6)(i) through (iv) of this section or other similar measures that effectively mitigate or negate the risks involved with foreign ownership.</I> CSAs must identify combination agreements in a way that distinguishes them from other agreements (<I>e.g.,</I> a combination SSA-proxy agreement cannot be identified as either an SSA or a proxy agreement beause those names would not distinguish the combination agreement from either of the other types). CSAs must also coordinate terms in combination agreements with the controlling agency prior to releasing proscribed information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Standards for FOCI mitigation or negation measures.</I> The CSA must include the following requirements as part of any FOCI mitigation or negation measures, to ensure that entities implement necessary security and governing controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Annual certification and annual compliance reports by the entity's governing board and the KMOs;
</P>
<P>(2) The U.S. Government remedies in case the entity is not adequately protecting classified information or not adhering to the provisions of the mitigation or negation measure;
</P>
<P>(3) Supplements to FOCI mitigation or negation measures as the CSA deems necessary. In addition to the standard FOCI mitigation or negation measure's requirements, the CSA may require more procedures via a supplement, based upon the circumstances of an entity's operations. The CSA may place these requirements in supplements to the FOCI mitigation or negation measure to allow flexibility as circumstances change without having to renegotiate the entire measure. When making use of supplements, the CSA does not consider the FOCI mitigation measure final until it approves the required supplements (<I>e.g.,</I> technology control plan, electronic communication plan); and
</P>
<P>(4) For agreements to mitigate or negate ownership (PAs, VTAs, SSAs, and SCAs), the following additional requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FOCI oversight.</I> The CSA verifies that the entity establishes an oversight body consisting of trustees, proxy holders or outside directors, as applicable, and those officers or directors whom the CSA determines are eligible for access to classified information (see § 2004.36). The entity's security officer is the principal advisor to the oversight body and attends their meetings. The oversight body:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintains policies and procedures to safeguard classified information in the entity's possession with no adverse impact on performance of contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information; and
</P>
<P>(B) Verifies the entity is complying with the FOCI mitigation or negation measure and related documents, contract security requirements or equivalent, and the NISP;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Qualifications of trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors.</I> The CSA determines eligibility for access to classified information for trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors at the classification level of the entity's eligibility determination. Trustees, proxy holders, and outside directors must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Be a U.S. citizen residing in the United States who can exercise management prerogatives relating to their position in a way that ensures that the foreign owner can be effectively insulated from the entity or effectively separated from the entity's classified work;
</P>
<P>(B) Be completely disinterested individuals with no prior involvement with the entity, the entities with which it is affiliated, or the foreign owner and its affiliates. Individuals who are serving as trustees, proxy holders, or outside directors as part of a mitigation measure for the entity are not considered to have prior involvement solely by performing that role; and
</P>
<P>(C) Be involved in no other circumstances that may affect an individual's ability to serve effectively, such as the number of boards on which the individual serves or the length of time serving on any other boards;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Annual meeting.</I> The CSA meets at least annually with the oversight body to review the purpose and effectiveness of the FOCI mitigation or negation agreement; establish a common understanding of the operating requirements and their implementation; and provide guidance on matters related to FOCI mitigation and industrial security. These meetings include a CSA review of:
</P>
<P>(A) Compliance with the approved FOCI mitigation or negation measure;
</P>
<P>(B) Problems regarding practical implementation of the mitigation or negation measure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Security controls, practices, or procedures and whether they warrant adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Annual certification.</I> The CSA reviews the entity's annual report; addresses, and resolves issues identified in the report; and documents the results of this review and any follow-up actions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>National interest determination (NID)</I>—(1) <I>Requirement for a NID.</I> (i) The CSA must determine whether allowing an entity access to proscribed information under an SSA is consistent with national security interests of the United States as part of making an entity eligibility determination in cases in which:
</P>
<P>(A) The GCA requires an entity to have access to proscribed information;
</P>
<P>(B) The entity is under FOCI; and
</P>
<P>(C) The CSA proposes an SSA to mitigate the FOCI.
</P>
<P>(ii) This determination is called a national interest determination (NID). A favorable NID confirms that an entity's access to the proscribed information under an SSA is consistent with national security interests. If the CSA is unable to render a favorable NID, it must consider other FOCI mitigation measures instead of an SSA or reassess the entity's eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>NID process.</I> (i) The CSA makes the NID for any categories of proscribed information for which the entity requires access.
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases in which any category of the proscribed information is controlled by another agency (ODNI for SCI, DOE for RD, NSA for COMSEC), the CSA asks that controlling agency to concur on the NID for that category of information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The CSA informs the GCA and the entity when the NID is complete. In cases involving SCI, RD, or COMSEC, the CSA also informs the GCA and the entity when a controlling agency concurs or non-concurs on that agency's category of proscribed information. The entity may begin accessing a category of proscribed information once the CSA informs the GCA and the entity that the controlling agency concurs, even if other categories of proscribed information are pending concurrence.
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity's access to SCI, RD, or COMSEC remains in effect so long as the entity remains eligible for access to classified information and the contract or agreement (or program or project) which imposes the requirement for access to those categories of proscribed information remains in effect, except under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) The CSA, GCA, or controlling agency becomes aware of adverse information that impacts the entity eligibility determination;
</P>
<P>(B) The CSA's threat assessment pertaining to the entity indicates a risk to one of the categories of proscribed information;
</P>
<P>(C) The CSA becomes aware of any material change regarding the source, nature, and extent of FOCI; or
</P>
<P>(D) The entity's record of NISP compliance, based on CSA reviews in accordance with § 2004.26, becomes less than satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(v) Under any of these circumstances, the CSA determines whether an entity may continue being eligible for access to classified information, it must change the FOCI mitigation measure in order to remain eligible, or the CSA must terminate or revoke access.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Process for concurring or non-concurring on a NID.</I> (i) Each controlling agency tells the CSAs what information the controlling agency requires to consider a NID. ODNI identifies the information it requires to assess a NID for access to SCI, DOE identifies the information it requires to assess a NID for access to RD, and NSA identifies the information it requires to assess a NID for access to COMSEC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CSA requests from the GCA justification for access, a description of the proscribed information involved, and other information the controlling agency requires to concur or non-concur on the NID.
</P>
<P>(iii) The CSA requests concurrence on the NID from the controlling agency for the relevant category of proscribed information (ODNI for SCI, DOE for RD, NSA for COMSEC), and provides the information that controlling agency identified.
</P>
<P>(iv) The relevant controlling agency (ODNI for SCI, DOE for RD, NSA for COMSEC) responds in writing to the CSA's request for concurrence.
</P>
<P>(A) The controlling agency may concur with the NID for access under a particular contract or agreement, access under a program or project, or for all future access to the same category of proscribed information.
</P>
<P>(B) If the relevant controlling agency does not concur with the NID, the controlling agency informs the CSA in writing, citing the reasons why it does not concur. The CSA notifies the applicable GCA and, in coordination with the GCA, then notifies the entity. The entity cannot have access to the category of proscribed information under the control of that agency (<I>i.e.,</I> if ODNI does not concur, the entity may not have access to SCI; if DOE does not concur, the entity may not have access to RD; and if NSA does not concur, the entity may not have access to COMSEC). The CSA, in consultation with the applicable GCA, must decide whether the reason the controlling agency did not concur otherwise affects the entity's eligibility for access to classified information (see § 2004.32(g)), or requires changing the FOCI mitigation measure (see paragraph (f) of this section).
</P>
<P>(v) When an entity is eligible for access to classified information that includes a favorable NID for SCI, RD, or COMSEC, the CSA does not have to request a new NID concurrence for the same entity if the access requirements for the relevant category of proscribed information and terms remain unchanged for:
</P>
<P>(A) Renewing the contract or agreement;
</P>
<P>(B) New task orders issued under the contract or agreement;
</P>
<P>(C) A new contract or agreement that contains the same provisions as the previous one (this usually applies when the contract or agreement is for a program or project); or
</P>
<P>(D) Renewing the SSA.
</P>
<P>(vi) When making the decision whether or not to concur with a NID for proscribed information under its control, the controlling agency will not duplicate work already performed by the GCA during the contract award process or by the CSA when determining entity eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing for concurrence process.</I> (i) The CSA requests NID concurrence from the controlling agency as soon as the CSA has made a NID, if the entity needs access to SCI, RD, or COMSEC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The controlling agency provides a final, written concurrence or non-concurrence to the CSA within 30 days after receiving the request for concurrence from the CSA.
</P>
<P>(iii) In cases when a controlling agency requires clarification or additional information from the CSA, the controlling agency responds to the CSA within 30 days to request clarification or additional information as needed, and to coordinate a plan and timeline for concurring or non-concurring. The controlling agency must provide written updates to the CSA every 30 days until it concurs or non-concurs. In turn, the CSA provides the GCA and the entity with updates every 30 days.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limited eligibility determinations (for entities under FOCI without mitigation or negation).</I> (1) In exceptional circumstances when an entity is under FOCI, the CSA may decide that limited eligibility for access to classified information is appropriate when the entity is unable or unwilling to implement FOCI mitigation or negation measures (this is not the same as limited eligibility in other circumstances; for more information on limited eligibility in other cases, see § 2004.32(f)).
</P>
<P>(2) The GCA first decides whether to request a limited eligibility determination for the entity and must articulate a compelling need for it to the CSA that is in accordance with U.S. national security interests. The GCA must verify to the CSA that access to classified information is essential to contract or agreement performance, and accept the risk inherent in not mitigating or negating the FOCI. See § 2004.32(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) The CSA may grant a limited eligibility determination if the GCA requests and the entity meets all other eligibility criteria in § 2004.32(e).
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign government may sponsor a U.S. sub-entity of a foreign entity for limited eligibility when the foreign government desires to award a contract or agreement to the U.S. sub-entity that involves access to classified information for which the foreign government is the original classification authority (<I>i.e.,</I> foreign government information), and there is no other need for the U.S. sub-entity to have access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(5) Limited eligibility determinations are specific to the classified information of the requesting GCA or foreign government, and specific to a single, narrowly defined contract, agreement, or circumstance of that GCA or foreign government.
</P>
<P>(6) The access limitations of a favorable limited eligibility determination apply to all of the entity's employees, regardless of citizenship.
</P>
<P>(7) A limited eligibility determination is not an option for entities that require access to proscribed information when a foreign government has ownership or control over the entity. See § 2004.32(e)(9).
</P>
<P>(8) The CSA administratively terminates the entity's limited eligibility when there is no longer a need for access to the classified information for which the CSA made the favorable limited eligibility determination. Terminating one limited eligibility status does not impact other ones the entity may have.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.36" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.36   Determining entity employee eligibility for access to classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Making employee eligibility determinations.</I> (1) The responsible CSA:
</P>
<P>(i) Determines whether entity employees meet the criteria established in the Security Executive Agent Directive (SEAD) 4, National Security Adjudicative Guidelines (December 10, 2016). Entity employees must have a legitimate requirement (<I>i.e.,</I> need to know) for access to classified information in the performance of assigned duties and eligibility must be clearly consistent with the interest of the national security.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notifies entities of its determinations of employee eligibility for access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminates eligibility status when there is no longer a need for access to classified information by entity employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible CSA maintains:
</P>
<P>(i) SF 312s, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreements, or other approved nondisclosure agreements, executed by entity employees, as prescribed by ODNI in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.80 and E.O. 13526; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of its entity employee eligibility determinations, suspensions, and revocations.
</P>
<P>(3) CSAs ensure that entities limit the number of employees with access to classified information to the minimum number necessary to work on contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(4) The CSA determines the need for event-driven reinvestigations for entity employees.
</P>
<P>(5) CSAs use the Federal Investigative Standards (FIS) issued jointly by the Suitability and Security Executive Agents.
</P>
<P>(6) The CSA provides guidance to entities on:
</P>
<P>(i) Requesting employee eligibility determinations, to include guidance for submitting fingerprints; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Granting employee access to classified information when the employee has had a break in access or a break in employment.
</P>
<P>(7) If the CSA receives adverse information about an eligible entity employee, the CSA should consider and possibly investigate, as authorized, to determine whether the employee's eligibility to access classified information remains clearly consistent with the interests of national security. If the CSA determines that an entity employee's continued eligibility is not in the interest of national security, the CSA implements procedures leading to suspension and ultimate revocation of the employee's eligible status, and notifies the entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultants.</I> A consultant is an individual under contract or agreement to provide professional or technical assistance to an entity in a capacity requiring access to classified information. A consultant is considered an entity employee for security purposes. The CSA makes eligibility determinations for entity consultants in the same way it does for entity employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reciprocity.</I> The responsible CSA determines if an entity employee was previously investigated or determined eligible by another CSA. CSAs reciprocally accept existing employee eligibility determinations in accordance with applicable and current national level personnel security policy, and must not duplicate employee eligibility investigations conducted by another CSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limited access authorization (LAA).</I> (1) CSAs may make LAA determinations for non-U.S. citizen entity employees in rare circumstances, when:
</P>
<P>(i) A non-U.S. citizen employee possesses unique or unusual skill or expertise that the agency urgently needs to support a specific U.S. Government contract or agreement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. citizen with those skills is not available.
</P>
<P>(2) A CSA may grant LAAs up to the secret classified level.
</P>
<P>(3) CSAs may not use LAAs for access to:
</P>
<P>(i) Top secret (TS) information;
</P>
<P>(ii) RD or FRD information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that a Government-designated disclosure authority has not determined releasable to the country of which the individual is a citizen;
</P>
<P>(iv) COMSEC information;
</P>
<P>(v) Intelligence information, to include SCI;
</P>
<P>(vi) NATO information, except as follows: Foreign nationals of a NATO member nation may be authorized access to NATO information subject to the terms of the contract, if the responsible CSA obtains a NATO security clearance certificate from the individual's country of citizenship. NATO access is limited to performance on a specific NATO contract;
</P>
<P>(vii) Information for which the U.S. Government has prohibited foreign disclosure in whole or in part; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Information provided to the U.S. Government by another government that is classified or provided in confidence.
</P>
<P>(4) The responsible CSA provides specific procedures to entities for requesting LAAs. The GCA must concur on an entity's LAA request before the CSA may grant it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.38" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.38   Safeguarding and marking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safeguarding approval.</I> (1) The CSA determines whether an entity's safeguarding capability meets requirements established in 32 CFR part 2001, and other applicable national level policy (<I>e.g.,</I> Atomic Energy Act for RD). If the CSA makes a favorable determination, the entity may store classified information at that level or below. If the determination is not favorable, the CSA must ensure that the entity does not possess classified information or does not possess information at the classification level denied or a higher level.
</P>
<P>(2) The CSA maintains records of its safeguarding capability determinations and, upon request from GCAs or entities, and as appropriate and to the extent authorized by law, verifies that it has made a favorable safeguarding determination for a given entity and at what level.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marking.</I> The GCA provides guidance to entities that meets requirements in 32 CFR 2001.22, 2001.23, 2001.24, and 2001.25, Derivative classification, Classification marking in the electronic environment, Additional requirements, and Declassification markings; ISOO's marking guide, <I>Marking Classified National Security Information;</I> and other applicable national level policy (<I>e.g.,</I> Atomic Energy Act for RD) for marking classified information and material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.40" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.40   Information system security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible CSA must authorize an entity information system before the entity can use it to process classified information. The CSA must use the most complete, accurate, and trustworthy information to make a timely, credible, and risk-based decision whether to authorize an entity's system.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible CSA issues to entities guidance that establishes protection measures for entity information systems that process classified information. The responsible CSA must base the guidance on standards applicable to Federal systems, which must include the Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014 (FISMA), Public Law 113-283, and may include National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) publications, Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) publications, and Federal information processing standards (FIPS).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2004.42" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2004.42   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.5.3.27.8.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2004—Acronym Table
</HEAD>
<P>For details on many of these terms, see the definitions at § 2004.4.
</P>
<FP-1>CCIPP—Classified Critical Infrastructure Protection Program
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CCIPP POC—Entity point of contact under the CCIPP program
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CIA—Central Intelligence Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CSA—Cognizant security agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CNSS—Committee on National Security Systems
</FP-1>
<FP-1>COMSEC—Communications security
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CSO—Cognizant security office
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DHS—Department of Homeland Security
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoD—Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOE—Department of Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EA—Executive agent (the NISP executive agent is DoD)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E.O.—Executive Order
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FAR—Federal Aquisition Regulation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOCI—Foreign ownership, control, or influence
</FP-1>
<FP-1>GCA—Government contracting activity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insider threat program SO—insider threat senior official (for an agency or for an entity)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ISOO—Information Security Oversight Office of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>KMO—Key managers and officials (of an entity)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LAA—Limited access authorization
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NID—National interest determination
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NISPOM—National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NRC—Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NSA—National Security Agency
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ODNI—Office of the Director of National Intelligence
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PA—Proxy agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RD—Restricted data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SF—Standard Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SAO—Senior agency official for NISP
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SAP—Special access program
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SCA—Security control agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SCI—Sensitive compartmented information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SSA—Special security agreement
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TS—Top secret (classification level)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VT—Voting trust


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2005-2099" NODE="32:6.2.6.17.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2005-2099 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXI" NODE="32:6.2.7" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXI—NATIONAL SECURITY COUNCIL</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2100-2101" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2100-2101 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2102" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2102—RULES AND REGULATIONS TO IMPLEMENT THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a (f) and (k). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 47746, Oct. 9, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2102.1" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Insofar as the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) applies to the National Security Council (hereafter NSC), it provides the American public with expanded opportunities to gain access to records maintained by the NSC Staff which may pertain to them as individuals. These regulations are the exclusive means by which individuals may request personally identifiable records and information from the National Security Council. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NSC Staff, in addition to performing the functions prescribed in the National Security Act of 1947, as amended (50 U.S.C. 401), also serves as the supporting staff to the President in the conduct of foreign affairs. In doing so the NSC Staff is acting not as an agency but as an extension of the White House Office. In that the White House Office is not considered an agency for the purposes of this Act, the materials which are used by NSC Staff personnel in their role as supporting staff to the President are not subject to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974. A description of these White House Office files is, nevertheless, appended to the NSC notices of systems of files and will be published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) In general, Records in NSC files pertain to individual members of the public only if these individuals have been (1) employed by the NSC, (2) have corresponded on a foreign policy matter with a member of the NSC or its staff, or (3) have, as a U.S. Government official, participated in an NSC meeting or in the preparation of foreign policy-related documents for the NSC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.2" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following regulations set forth procedures whereby individuals may seek and gain access to records concerning themselves and will guide the NSC Staff response to requests under the Privacy Act. In addition, they outline the requirements applicable to the personnel maintaining NSC systems of records. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations, published pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-579, Section 552a (f) and (k), 5 U.S.C. (hereinafter the Act), advise of procedures whereby an individual can: 
</P>
<P>(1) Request notification of whether the NSC Staff maintains or has disclosed a record pertaining to him or her in any non-exempt system of records; 
</P>
<P>(2) Request a copy of such record or an accounting of that disclosure; 
</P>
<P>(3) Request an amendment to a record; and, 
</P>
<P>(4) Appeal any initial adverse determination of any request under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) These regulations also specify those systems of records which the NSC has determined to be exempt from certain provisions of the Act and thus not subject to procedures established by this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.3" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these regulations: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual.</I> A citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintain.</I> Includes maintain, collect, use or disseminate. Under the Act it is also used to connote control over, and, therefore, responsibility for, systems of records in support of the NSC statutory function (50 U.S.C. 401, <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Systems of Records.</I> A grouping of any records maintained by the NSC from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some other identifying particular assigned to the individual. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination.</I> Any decision made by the NSC or designated official thereof which affects the individual's rights, opportunities, benefits, etc. and which is based in whole or in part on information contained in that individual's record. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Routine Use.</I> With respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such a record in a manner which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure.</I> The granting of access or transfer of a record by any means. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.4" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.4   Procedures for determining if an individual is the subject of a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals desiring to determine if they are the subject of a record or system of records maintained by the NSC Staff should address their inquiries, marking them plainly as a <I>PRIVACY ACT REQUEST,</I> to: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Staff Secretary, National Security Council, Room 374, Old Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20506.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>All requests must be made in writing and should contain: 
</FP>
<P>(1) A specific reference to the system of records maintained by the NSC as listed in the NSC Notices of Systems and Records (copies available upon request); or 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the record or systems of records in sufficient detail to allow the NSC to determine whether the record does, in fact, exist in an NSC system of records. 
</P>
<P>(b) All requests must contain the printed or typewritten name of the individual to whom the record pertains, the signature of the individual making the request, and the address to which the reply should be sent. In instances when the identification is insufficient to insure disclosure to the individual to whom the information pertains in view of the sensitivity of the information, NSC reserves the right to solicit from the requestor additional identifying information. 
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to all requests under the Act will be made by the Staff Secretary, or by another designated member of the NSC Staff authorized to act in the name of the Staff Secretary in responding to a request under this Act. Every effort will be made to inform the requestor if he or she is the subject of a specific record or system of records within ten working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal Federal Holidays) of receipt of the request. Such a response will also contain the procedures to be followed in order to gain access to any record which may exist and a copy of the most recent NSC notice, as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> on the system of records in which the record is contained. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever it is not possible to respond in the time period specified above, the NSC Staff Secretary or a designated alternate will, within ten working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal Federal Holidays), inform the requestor of the reasons for the delay (e.g., insufficient requestor information, difficulties in record location, etc.), steps that need to be taken in order to expedite the request, and the date by which a response is anticipated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.13" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.13   Requirements for access to a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals requesting access to a record or system of records in which there is information concerning them must address a request in writing to the Staff Secretary of the NSC (see § 2102.1). Due to restricted access to NSC offices in the Old Executive Office Building where the files are located, requests cannot be made in person. 
</P>
<P>(b) All written requests should contain a concise description of the records to which access is requested. In addition, the requestor should include any other information which he or she feels would assist in the timely identification of the record. Verification of the requestor's identity will be determined under the same procedures used in requests for learning of the existence of a record. 
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent possible, any request for access will be answered by the Staff Secretary or a designated alternate within ten working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays) of the receipt of the request. In the event that a response cannot be made within this time, the requestor will be notified by mail of the reasons for the delay and the date upon which a reply can be expected. 
</P>
<P>(d) The NSC response will forward a copy of the requested materials unless further identification or clarification of the request is required. In the event access is denied, the requestor shall be informed of the reasons therefore and the name and address of the individual to whom an appeal should be directed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.15" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.15   Requirements for requests to amend records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals wishing to amend a record contained in the NSC systems of records pertaining to them must submit a request in writing to the Staff Secretary of the NSC in accordance with the procedures set forth herein. 
</P>
<P>(b) All requests for amendment or correction of a record must state concisely the reason for requesting the amendment. Such requests should include a brief statement which describes the information the requestor believes to be inaccurate, incomplete, or unnecessary and the amendment or correction desired. 
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent possible, every request for amendment of a record will be answered within ten working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal holidays) of the receipt of the request. In the event that a response cannot be made within this time, the requestor will be notified by mail of the reasons for the delay and the date upon which a reply can be expected. A final response to a request for amendment will include the NSC Staff determination on whether to grant or deny the request. If the request is denied, the response will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The reasons for the decision; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the individual to whom an appeal should be directed; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the process for review of the appeal within the NSC; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any other procedures which may be required of the individual in order to process the appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.21" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.21   Procedures for appeal of determination to deny access to or amendment of requested records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals wishing to appeal an NSC Staff denial of a request for access or to amend a record concerning them must address a letter of appeal to the Staff Secretary of the NSC. The letter must be received within thirty days from the date of the Staff Secretary's notice of denial and, at a minimum, should identify the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The records involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The dates of the initial request and subsequent NSC determination; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A brief statement of the reasons supporting the request for reversal of the adverse determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Within thirty working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal Federal holidays) of the date of receipt of the letter of appeal, the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs (hereinafter the “Assistant”), or the Deputy Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs (hereinafter the “Deputy Assistant”), acting in his name, shall issue a determination on the appeal. In the event that a final determination cannot be made within this time period, the requestor will be informed of the delay, the reasons therefor and the date on which a final response is expected. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the original request was for access and the initial determination is reversed, a copy of the records sought will be sent to the individual. If the initial determination is upheld, the requestor will be so advised and informed of the right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g). 
</P>
<P>(d) If the initial denial of a request to amend a record is reversed, the records will be corrected and a copy of the amended record will be sent to the individual. In the event the original decision is upheld by the Assistant to the President, the requestor will be so advised and informed in writing of his or her right to seek judicial review of the final agency determination, pursuant to section 552a(g) of title 5, U.S.C. In addition, the requestor will be advised of his right to have a concise statement of the reasons for disagreeing with the final determination appended to the disputed records. This statement should be mailed to the Staff Secretary within ten working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal Federal Holidays) of the date of the requestor's receipt of the final determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.31" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.31   Disclosure of a record to persons other than the individual to whom it pertains.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), the NSC will not disclose a record concerning an individual to another person or agency without the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record pertains.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.41" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.41   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals will not be charged for: 
</P>
<P>(1) The first copy of any record provided in response to a request for access or amendment; 
</P>
<P>(2) The search for, or review of, records in NSC files; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any copies reproduced as a necessary part of making a record or portion thereof available to the individual. 
</P>
<P>(b) After the first copy has been provided, records will be reproduced at the rate of twenty-five cents per page for all copying of four pages or more. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Staff Secretary may provide copies of a record at no charge if it is determined to be in the interest of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Staff Secretary may require that all fees be paid in full prior to the issuance of the requested copies. 
</P>
<P>(e) Remittances shall be in the form of a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the “United States Treasury” and mailed to the Staff Secretary, National Security Council, Washington, DC 20506. 
</P>
<P>(f) A receipt for fees paid will be given only upon request. Refund of fees paid for services actually rendered will not be made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.51" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.51   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Title 18, U.S.C. section 1001, Crimes and Criminal Procedures, makes it a criminal offense, subject to a maximum fine of $10,000 or imprisonment for not more than five years or both, to knowingly and willfully make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements or representations in any matter within the jurisdiction of any agency of the United States. Section (i)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) makes it a misdemeanor, subject to a maximum fine of $5,000, to knowingly and willfully request or obtain any record concerning an individual under false pretenses. Sections (i)(1) and (2) of 5 U.S.C. 552a provide penalties for violations by agency employees, of the Privacy Act or regulations established thereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2102.61" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.2.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2102.61   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to subsection (k) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), the Staff Secretary has determined that certain NSC systems of records may be exempt in part from sections 553(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4), (G), (H), (I), and (f) of title 5, and from the provisions of these regulations. These systems of records may contain information which is classified pursuant to Executive Order 11652. To the extent that this occurs, records in the following systems would be exempt under the provision of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>NSC 1.1—Central Research Index, 
</FP>
<FP>NSC 1.2—NSC Correspondence Files, and 
</FP>
<FP>NSC 1.3—NSC Meetings Registry.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2103" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2103—REGULATIONS TO IMPLEMENT E.O. 12065—INCLUDING PROCEDURES FOR PUBLIC ACCESS TO DOCUMENTS THAT MAY BE DECLASSIFIED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12065 and Information Security Oversight Office Directive No. 1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 2384, Jan. 11, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.1" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.1   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12065, “National Security Information,” dated June 28, 1978.
</P>
<P>(b) Information Security Oversight Office, Directive No. 1, “National Security Information,” dated October 2, 1978.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.2" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to ensure, consistent with the authorities listed in § 2103.1, that national security information processed by the National Security Council Staff is protected from unauthorized disclosure, but only to the extent, and for such period, as is necessary to safeguard the national security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.3" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation governs the National Security Council Staff Information Security Program. In consonance with the authorities listed in § 2103.1, it establishes the policy and procedures for the security classification, downgrading, declassification, and safeguarding of information that is owned by, is produced for or by, or is under the control of the National Security Council Staff.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Original Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.11" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.11   Basic policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the National Security Council Staff to make available to the public as much information concerning its activities as is possible, consistent with its responsibility to protect the national security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.12" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.12   Level of original classification.</HEAD>
<P>Unnecessary classification, and classification at a level higher than is necessary, shall be avoided. If there is reasonable doubt as to which designation in section 1-1 of Executive Order 12065 is appropriate, or whether information should be classified at all, the less restrictive designation should be used, or the information should not be classified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.13" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.13   Duration of original classification.</HEAD>
<P>Original classification may be extended beyond six years only by officials with Top Secret classification authority. This extension authority shall be used only when these officials determine that the basis for original classification will continue throughout the entire period that the classification will be in effect and only for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(a) The information is “foreign government information” as defined by the authorities in § 2301.1;
</P>
<P>(b) The information reveals intelligence sources and methods;
</P>
<P>(c) The information pertains to communication security;
</P>
<P>(d) The information reveals vulnerability or capability data, the unauthorized disclosure of which can reasonably be expected to render ineffective a system, installation, or project important to the national security;
</P>
<P>(e) The information concerns plans important to the national security, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably can be expected to nullify the effectiveness of the plan;
</P>
<P>(f) The information concerns specific foreign relations matters, the continued protection of which is essential to the national security;
</P>
<P>(g) Disclosure of the information would place a person's life in immediate jeopardy; or
</P>
<P>(h) The continued protection of the information is specifically required by statute.
</P>
<FP>Even when the extension authority is exercised, the period of original classification shall not be greater than twenty years from the date or original classification, except that the original classification of “foreign government information” pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may be for a period of thirty years. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.14" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.14   Challenges to classification.</HEAD>
<P>If holders of classified information believe that the information is improperly or unnecessarily classified, or that original classification has been extended for too long a period, they should discuss the matter with their immediate superiors or the classifier of the information. If these discussions do not satisfy the concerns of the challenger, the matter should be brought to the attention of the chairperson of the NSC Information Security Oversight Committee (see § 2103.51 of this part).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Derivative Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.21" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.21   Definition and application.</HEAD>
<P>Derivative classification is the act of assigning a level of classification to information that is determined to be the same in substance as information that is currently classified. Thus, derivative classification may be accomplished by any person cleared for access to that level of information, regardless of whether the person has original classification authority at that level.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Declassification and Downgrading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.31" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.31   Declassification authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Staff Secretary, Staff Counsel, and Director of Freedom of Information of the National Security Council Staff are authorized to declassify NSC documents after consultation with the appropriate NSC Staff members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.32" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.32   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt.</I> (1) Requests for mandatory review for declassification under section 3-501 of Executive Order 12065 must be in writing and should be addressed to :
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>National Security Council, ATTN: Staff Secretary (Mandatory Review Request), Old Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20506.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The requestor shall be informed of the date of receipt of the request. This date will be the basis for the time limits specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the request does not reasonably describe the information sought, the requestor shall be notified that, unless additional information is provided or the request is made more specific, no further action will be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review.</I> (1) The requestor shall be informed of the National Security Council Staff determination within sixty days of receipt of the initial request.
</P>
<P>(2) If the determination is to withhold some or all of the material requested, the requestor may appeal the determination. The requestor shall be informed that such an appeal must be made in writing within sixty days of receipt of the denial and should be addressed to the chairperson of the National Security Council Classification Review Committee.
</P>
<P>(3) The requestor shall be informed of the appellate determination within thirty days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees.</I> (1) Fees for the location and reproduction of information that is the subject of a mandatory review request shall be assessed according to the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Search for records.</I> $5.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a clerical employee; $8.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a professional employee. No fee shall be assessed for searches of less than one hour. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reproduction of documents.</I> Documents will be reproduced at a rate of $.25 per page for all copying of four pages or more. No fee shall be assessed for reproducing documents that are three pages or less, or for the first three pages of longer documents.
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is anticipated that the fees chargeable under this section will amount to more than $25, and the requestor has not indicated in advance a willingness to pay fees as high as are anticipated, the requestor shall be promptly notified of the amount of the anticipated fee or such portion thereof as can readily be estimated. In instances where the estimated fees will greatly exceed $25, an advance deposit may be required. Dispatch of such a notice or request shall suspend the running of the period for response by the NSC Staff until a reply is received from the requestor.
</P>
<P>(3) Remittances shall be in the form either of a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the Treasury of the United States and mailed to the Staff Secretary, National Security Council, Washington, DC 20506.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) A receipt for fees paid will be given only upon request. Refund of fees paid for services actually rendered will not be made.
</P>
<P>(6) If a requestor fails to pay within thirty days for services rendered, further action on any other requests submitted by that requestor shall be suspended.
</P>
<P>(7) The Staff Secretary, National Security Council may waive all or part of any fee provided for in this section when it is deemed to be in either the interest of the NSC Staff or of the general public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.33" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.33   Downgrading authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Staff Secretary, Staff Counsel, and Director of Freedom of Information of the National Security Council Staff are authorized to downgrade NSC documents, after consultation with the appropriate NSC Staff members.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safeguarding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.41" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.41   Reproduction controls.</HEAD>
<P>The Staff Secretary shall maintain records to show the number and distribution of all Top Secret documents, of all documents covered by special access programs distributed outside the originating agency, and of all Secret and Confidential documents that are marked with special dissemination or reproduction limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Implementation and Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.51" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.51   Information Security Oversight Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The NCS Information Security Oversight Committee shall be chaired by the Staff Counsel of the National Security Council Staff. The Committee shall be responsible for acting on all suggestions and complaints concerning the administration of the National Security Council information security program. The chairperson, who shall represent the NSC Staff on the Interagency Information Security Committee shall also be responsible for conducting an active oversight program to ensure effective implementation of Executive Order 12065.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2103.52" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.3.6.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2103.52   Classification Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The NSC Classification Review Committee shall be chaired by the Staff Secretary of the National Security Council. The Committee shall decide appeals from denials of declassification requests submitted pursuant to section 3-5 of Executive Order 12065. The Committee shall consist of the chairperson, the NSC Director of Freedom of Information, and the NSC Staff member with primary subject matter responsibility for the material under review. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2104-2199" NODE="32:6.2.7.17.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2104-2199 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXIV" NODE="32:6.2.8" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXIV—OFFICE OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY POLICY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2400" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2400—REGULATIONS TO IMPLEMENT E.O. 12356; OFFICE OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY POLICY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12356 and Information Security Oversight Office Directive No. 1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 10821, Mar. 15, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.1" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12356 “National Security Information,” dated April 2, 1982, 47 FR 14874 (Apr. 6, 1982); 47 FR 15557 (Apr. 12, 1982) and Order of Designation of May 7, 1982, 47 FR 20105 (May 11, 1982).
</P>
<P>(b) Information Security Oversight Office, Directive No. 1, “National Security Information,” dated June 23, 1982, 47 FR 27836 (June 25, 1982) (Directive No. 1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.2" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this Regulation is to ensure, consistent with the authorities of § 2400.1 that information of the Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP) relating to national security is protected from unauthorized disclosure, but only to the extent and for such period as is necessary to safeguard the national security. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.3" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This Regulation governs the Office of Science and Technology Policy Information Security Program. In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12356 and Directive No. 1 it establishes, for uniform application throughout the Office of Science and Technology Policy, the policies and procedures for the security classification, downgrading, declassification and safeguarding of information that is owned by, produced for or by, or under the control of the office of Science and Technology Policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.4" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.4   Atomic Energy Material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this Regulation supersedes any requirement made by or under the Atomic Energy act of 1954, as amended. “Restricted Data” and information designated as “Formerly Restricted Data” shall be handled, protected, classified, downgraded, and declassified in conformity with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued pursuant thereto by the Department of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Original Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.5" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.5   Basic policy.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Executive Order 12356, as implemented by Directive No. 1 and this Regulation, provides the only basis for classifying information. The policy of the Office of Science and Technology Policy is to make available to the public as much information concerning its activities as is possible, consistent with its responsibility to protect the national security. Information may not be classified unless its disclosure reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.6" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.6   Classification levels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) National security information (hereinafter “classified information”) shall be classified at one of the following three levels:
</P>
<P>(1) “Top Secret” shall be applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(2) “Secret” shall be applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(3) “Confidential” shall be applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided by statute, no other terms shall be used to identify classified information. Markings other than “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential,” such as “For Official Use Only,” shall not be used to identify national security information. In addition, no other term or phrase shall be used in conjunction with one of the three authorized classification levels, such as “Secret Sensitive” or “Agency Confidential.” The terms “Top Secret”, “Secret”, and “Confidential” should not be used to identify nonclassified executive branch information.
</P>
<P>(c) Unnecessary classification, and classification at a level higher than is necessary shall be scrupulously avoided.
</P>
<P>(d) If there is reasonable doubt about the need to classify information, it shall be safeguarded as if it were classified “Confidential” pending a determination by an original classification authority, who shall make this determination within thirty (30) days. If there is reasonable doubt about the appropriate level of classification the originator of the information shall safeguard it at the higher level of classification pending a determination by an original classification authority, who shall make this determination within thirty (30) days. Upon the determination of a need for classification and/or the proper classification level, the information that is classified shall be marked as provided in § 2400.12 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.7" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.7   Original classification authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Authority for original classification of information as Top Secret shall be exercised within OSTP only by the Director and by such principal subordinate officials having frequent need to exercise such authority as the Director shall designate in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) The authority to classify information originally as Secret shall be exercised within OSTP only by the Director, other officials delegated in writing to have original Top Secret classification authority, and any other officials delegated in writing to have original Secret classification authority.
</P>
<P>(c) The authority to classify information originally as Confidential shall be exercised within OSTP only by officials with original Top Secret or Secret classification authority and any officials delegated in writing to have original Confidential classification authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.8" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.8   Limitations on delegation of original classification authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, OSTP is the only official authorized to delegate original classification authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Delegations of original classification authority shall be held to an absolute minimum.
</P>
<P>(c) Delegations of original classification authority shall be limited to the level of classification required.
</P>
<P>(d) Original classification authority shall not be delegated to OSTP personnel who only quote, restate, extract or paraphrase, or summarize classified information or who only apply classification markings derived from source material or as directed by a classification guide.
</P>
<P>(e) The Executive Director, OSTP, shall maintain a current listing of persons or positions receiving any delegation of original classification authority. If possible, this listing shall be unclassified.
</P>
<P>(f) Original classification authority may not be redelegated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptional Cases.</I> When an employee, contractor, licensee, or grantee of OSTP that does not have original classification authority originates information believed by that person to require classification, the information shall be protected in a manner consistent with these Regulations as provided in § 2400.6(d) of this part. The information shall be transmitted promptly as provided in these Regulations to the official in OSTP who has appropriate subject matter interest and classification authority with respect to this information. That official shall decide within thirty (30) days whether to classify this information. If the information is not within OSTP's area of classification responsibility, OSTP shall promptly transmit the information to the responsible agency. If it is not clear which agency has classification responsibility for this information, it shall be sent to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office. The Director shall determine the agency having primary subject matter interest and forward the information, with appropriate recommendations, to that agency for a classification determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.9" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.9   Classification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information may be classified only if it concerns one or more of the categories cited in Executive Order 12356, as subcategorized below, <I>and</I> an official having original classification authority determines that its unauthorized disclosure, either by itself or in the context of other information, reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(1) Military plans, weapons or operations;
</P>
<P>(2) The vulnerabilities or capabilities of systems, installations, projects, or plans relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(3) Foreign government information;
</P>
<P>(4) Intelligence activities (including special activities), or intelligence sources or methods;
</P>
<P>(5) Foreign relations or foreign activities of the United States;
</P>
<P>(6) Scientific, technological, or economic matters relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(7) United States Government programs for safe-guarding nuclear materials or facilities;
</P>
<P>(8) Cryptology;
</P>
<P>(9) A confidential source; or 
</P>
<P>(10) Other categories of information which are related to national security and that require protection against unauthorized disclosure as determined by the Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy. Each such determination shall be reported promptly to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<P>(b) Foreign government information need not fall within any other classification category listed in paragraph (a) of this section to be classified.
</P>
<P>(c) Certain information which would otherwise be unclassified may require classification when combined or associated with other unclassified or classified information. Classification on this basis shall be fully supported by a written explanation that, at a minimum, shall be maintained with the file or referenced on the record copy of the information.
</P>
<P>(d) Information classified in accordance with this section shall not be declassified automatically as a result of any unofficial publication or inadvertent or unauthorized disclosure in the United States or abroad of identical or similar information. Following an inadvertent or unauthorized publication or disclosure of information identical or similar to information that has been classified in accordance with Executive Order 12356 or predecessor orders, OSTP, if the agency of primary interest, shall determine the degree of damage to the national security, the need for continued classification, and in coordination with the agency in which the disclosure occurred, what action must be taken to prevent similar occurrences. If the agency of primary interest is other than OSTP, the matter shall be referred to that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.10" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.10   Presumption of damage.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized disclosure of foreign government information, the identity of a confidential foreign source, or intelligence sources or methods, is presumed to cause damage to the national security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.11" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.11   Duration of classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information shall be classified as long as required by national security considerations. When it can be determined, a specific date or event for declassification shall be set by the original classification authority at the time the information is originally classified.
</P>
<P>(b) Automatic declassification determinations under predecessor Executive Orders shall remain valid unless the classification is extended by an authorized official of the originating agency. These extensions may be by individual documents or categories of information. The originating agency shall be responsible for notifying holders of the information of such extensions.
</P>
<P>(c) Information classified under predecessor Executive Orders and marked for declassification review shall remain classified until reviewed for declassification under the provisions of Executive Order 12356.
</P>
<P>(d) Information classified under predecessor Executive Orders that does not bear a specific date or event for declassification shall remain classified until reviewed for declassification. The authority to extend the classification of information subject to automatic declassification under predecessor Orders is limited to those officials who have classification authority over the information and are designated in writing to have original classification authority at the level of the information to remain classified. Any decision to extend this classification on other than a document-by-document basis shall be reported to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.12" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.12   Identification and markings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the time of original classification, the following information shall be shown on the face of all classified documents, or clearly associated with other forms of classified information in a manner appropriate to the medium involved, unless this information itself would reveal a confidential source or relationship not otherwise evident in the document or information:
</P>
<P>(1) One of the three classification levels defined in § 2400.6 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the original classification authority if other than the person whose name appears as the approving or signing official;
</P>
<P>(3) The agency and office of origin; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date or event for declassification, or the notation “Originating Agency's Determination Required.”
</P>
<P>(b) Each classified document shall, by marking or other means, indicate which portions are classified, with the applicable classification level, and which portions are not classified. The Director OSTP may, for good cause, grant and revoke waivers of this requirement for specified classes of documents or information. The Director of the Information Security Oversight Office shall be notified of any waivers.
</P>
<P>(c) Marking designations implementing the provisions of Executive Order 12356, including abbreviations, shall conform to the standards prescribed in Directive No. 1 issued by the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<P>(d) Foreign government information shall either retain its original classification or be assigned a United States classification that shall ensure a degree of protection at least equivalent to that required by the entity that furnished the information.
</P>
<P>(e) Information assigned a level of classification under predecessor Executive Orders shall be considered as classified at that level of classification despite the omission of other required markings. Omitted markings may be inserted on a document by the officials specified in § 2400.18 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.13" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.2.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.13   Limitations on classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In no case shall information be classified in order to conceal violations of law, inefficiency, or administrative error; to prevent embarrassment to a person, organization, or agency; to restrain competition; or to prevent or delay the release of information that does not require protection in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(b) Basic scientific research information not clearly related to the national security may not be classified.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may reclassify information previously declassified and disclosed if it is determined in writing that (1) the information requires protection in the interest of national security; and (2) the information may reasonably be recovered. These reclassification actions shall be reported promptly to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office. Before reclassifying any information, the Director shall consider the factors listed in § 2001.6 of Directive No. 1, which shall be addressed in the report to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<P>(d) Information may be classified or reclassified after OSTP has received a request for it under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) or the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552), or the mandatory review provisions of Executive Order 12356 (section 3.4) if such classification meets the requirements of this Order and is accomplished personally and on a document-by-document basis by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Derivative Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.14" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.14   Use of derivative classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Derivative classification is (1) the determination that information is in substance the same as information currently classified, and (2) the application of the same classification markings. Persons who only reproduce, extract, or summarize classified information, or who only apply classification markings derived from source material or as directed by a classification guide, need not possess original classification authority. If a person who applies derivative classification markings believes that the paraphrasing, restating, or summarizing of classified information has changed the level of or removed the basis for classification, that person must consult an appropriate official of the originating agency or office of origin who has the authority to declassify, downgrade or upgrade the information.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons who apply derivative classification markings shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Observe and respect original classification decisions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Carry forward to any newly created documents any assigned authorized markings. The declassification date or event that provides the longest period of classification shall be used for documents classified on the basis of multiple sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.15" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.15   Classification guides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OSTP shall issue and maintain classification guides to facilitate the proper and uniform derivative classification of information. These guides shall be used to direct derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(b) The classification guides shall be approved, in writing, by the Director or by officials having Top Secret original classification authority. Such approval constitutes an original classification decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Each classification guide shall specify the information subject to classification in sufficient detail to permit its ready and uniform identification and categorization and shall set forth the classification level and duration in each instance. Additionally, each classification guide shall prescribe declassification instructions for each element of information in terms of (1) a period of time, (2) the occurrence of an event, or (3) a notation that the information shall not be automatically declassified without the approval of OSTP.
</P>
<P>(d) The classification guides shall be kept current and shall be fully reviewed at least every two years. The Executive Director, OSTP shall maintain a list of all OSTP classification guides in current use.
</P>
<P>(e) The Executive Director, OSTP shall receive and maintain the record copy of all approved classification guides and changes thereto. He will assist the originator in determining the required distribution.
</P>
<P>(f) The Director may, for good cause, grant and revoke waivers of the requirement to prepare classification guides for specified classes of documents or information. The Director of the Information Security Oversight Office shall be notified of any waivers. The Director's decision to waive the requirement to issue classification guides for specific classes of documents or information will be based, at a minimum, on an evaluation of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The ability to segregate and describe the elements of information;
</P>
<P>(2) The practicality of producing or disseminating the guide because of the nature of the information;
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated usage of the guide as a basis for derivative classification; and
</P>
<P>(4) The availability of alternative sources for derivatively classifying the information in a uniform manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.16" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.16   Derivative classification markings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documents classified derivatively on the basis of source documents or classification guides shall bear all markings prescribed in § 2400.12 of this part and Directive No. 1 as are applicable. Information for these markings shall be taken from the source document or instructions in the appropriate classification guide. When markings are omitted because they may reveal a confidential source or relationship not otherwise evident, as described in § 2400.12 of this part, the information may not be used as a basis for derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(b) The authority for classification shall be shown as directed in Directive No. 1. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Declassification and Downgrading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.17" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.17   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>Declassification of information shall be given emphasis comparable to that accorded classification. Information classified pursuant to Executive Order 12356 and prior orders shall be declassified or downgraded as soon as national security considerations permit. Decisions concerning declassification shall be based on the loss of sensitivity of the information with the passage of time or on the occurrence of an event which permits declassification. When information is reviewed for declassification pursuant to this regulation, that information shall be declassified unless the designated declassification authority determines that the information continues to meet the classification requirements prescribed in § 2400.9 of this part despite the passage of time. The Office of Science and Technology Policy officials shall coordinate their review of classified information with other agencies that have a direct interest in the subject matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.18" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.18   Declassification and downgrading authority.</HEAD>
<P>Information shall be declassified or downgraded by the official who authorized the original classification, if that official is still serving the same position; the originator's successor; a supervisory official of either; or officials delegated such authority in writing by the Director, OSTP. The Executive Director, OSTP shall maintain a current listing of persons or positions receiving those delegations. If possible, these listings shall be unclassified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.19" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.19   Declassification by the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) determines that information is classified in violation of Executive Order 12356, the Director, ISOO may require the information to be declassified by the agency that originated the classification. Any such decision by the Director ISOO may be appealed by the Director, OSTP to the National Security Council. The information shall remain classified, pending a prompt decision on the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.20" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.20   Systematic review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permanent records.</I> Systematic review is applicable only to those classified records, and presidential papers or records that the Archivist of the United States, acting under the Federal Records Act, has determined to be of sufficient historical or other value to warrant permanent retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-permanent records.</I> Non-permanent classified records shall be disposed of in accordance with schedules approved by the Administrator of General Services under the Records Disposal Act. These schedules shall provide for the continued retention of records subject to an ongoing mandatory review for declassification request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Office of Science and Technology Policy Responsibility.</I> The Director, OSTP, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue guidelines for systematic declassification review and, if applicable, for downgrading. These guidelines shall be developed in consultation with the Archivist and the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office and be designated to assist the Archivist in the conduct of systematic reviews;
</P>
<P>(2) Designate experienced personnel to provide timely assistance to the Archivist in the systematic review process;
</P>
<P>(3) Review and update guidelines for systematic declassification review and downgrading at least every five years unless earlier review is requested by the Archivist.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign Government Information.</I> Systematic declassification review of foreign government information shall be in accordance with guidelines issued by the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special procedures.</I> The Office of Science and Technology Policy shall be bound by the special procedures for systematic review of classified cryptologic records and classified records pertaining to intelligence activities (including special activities) or intelligence sources or methods issued by the Secretary of Defense and the Director of Central Intelligence, respectively. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.21" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.21   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, all information classified under Executive Order 12356 or predecessor orders shall be subject to a review for declassification by the Office of Science and Technology Policy, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The request is made by a United States citizen or permanent resident alien, a federal agency, or a State or local government; and
</P>
<P>(2) The request is made in writing and describes the document or material containing the information with sufficient specificity to enable the Office of Science and Technology Policy to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests should be addressed to: Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Executive Office of the President, Washington, DC 20506. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the request does not reasonably describe the information sought to allow identification of documents containing such information, the requester shall be notified that unless additional information is provided or the request is made more specific, no further action will be taken.
</P>
<P>(d) Information originated by a President, the White House Staff, by committees, commissions, or boards appointed by the President, or others specifically providing advice and counsel to a President or acting on behalf of a President is exempted from the mandatory review provisions of § 2400.24(a) of this part. The Archivist of the United States shall have the authority to review, downgrade and declassify information under the control of the Administrator of General Services or the Archivist pursuant to sections 2107, 2107 note, or 2203 of title 44, United States Code. Review procedures developed by the Archivist shall provide for consultation with agencies having primary subject matters interest and shall be consistent with the provisions of applicable laws or lawful agreements that pertain to the respective presidential papers or records. Any decision by the Archivist may be appealed to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office. Agencies with primary subject matter interest shall be notified promptly of the Director's decision on such appeals and may further appeal to the National Security Council. The information shall remain classified pending a prompt decision on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) Office of Science and Technology Policy officials conducting a mandatory review for declassification shall declassify information no longer requiring protection under Executive Order 12356. They shall release this information unless withholding is otherwise authorized under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(f) Office of Science and Technology Policy responses to mandatory review requests shall be governed by the amount of search and review time required to process the request. Normally the requester shall be informed of the Office of Science and Technology Policy determination within thirty days of receipt of the original request (or within thirty days of the receipt of the required amplifying information in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section). In the event that a determination cannot be made within thirty days, the requester shall be informed of the additional time needed to process the request. However, OSTP, shall make a final determination within one year from the date of receipt of the request except in unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(g) When information cannot be declassified in its entirety, OSTP will make a reasonable effort to release, consistent with other applicable law, those declassified portions of that requested information the constitute a coherent segment.
</P>
<P>(h) If the information may not be released in whole or in part, the requester shall be given a brief statement as to the reason for denial, and notice of the right to appeal the determination in writing within sixty days of receipt of the denial to the chairperson of the Office of Science and Technology Policy Review Committee. If appealed, the requester shall be informed in writing of the appellate determination within thirty days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(i) When a request is received for information originated by another agency, the Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Forward the request to such agency for review together with a copy of the document containing the information requested, where practicable, and where appropriate, with the Office of Science and Technology Policy recommendation to withhold or declassify and release any of the information;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the requester of the referral unless the agency to which the request is referred objects to such notice on grounds that its association with the information requires protection; and
</P>
<P>(3) Request, when appropriate, that the agency notify the Office of Science and Technology Policy of its determination.
</P>
<P>(j) If the request requires the rendering of services for which fees may be charged under title 5 of the Independent Offices Appropriation Act, 31 U.S.C. 483a, the Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy, may calculate the anticipated amount of fees to be charged.
</P>
<P>(1) Fees for the location and reproduction of information that is the subject of a mandatory review request shall be assessed according to the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Search for records.</I> $5.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a clerical employee; $8.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a professional employee. No fee shall be assessed for searches of less than one hour.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reproduction of documents.</I> Documents will be reproduced at a rate of $.25 per page for all copying of four pages or more. No fee shall be assessed for reproducing documents that are three pages or less, or for the first three pages of longer documents.
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is anticipated that the fees chargeable under this section will amount to more than $25, and the requestor has not indicated in advance a willingness to pay fees as high as are anticipated, the requester shall be promptly notified of the amount of the anticipated fee or such portion thereof as can readily be estimated. In instances where the estimated fees will greatly exceed $25, an advance deposit may be required. Dispatch of such a notice or request shall suspend the running of the period for response by OSTP until a reply is received from the requester. 
</P>
<P>(3) Remittances shall be in the form either of a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittances shall be made to the Treasury of the United States and mailed to the Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Executive Office of the President, Washington, DC 20506. 
</P>
<P>(4) A receipt for fees paid will be given only upon request. Refund of fees paid for services actually rendered will not be made. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a requester fails to pay within thirty days for services rendered, further action on any other requests submitted by that requestor shall be suspended. 
</P>
<P>(6) The Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy may waive all or part of any fee provided for in this section when it is deemed to be in either the interest of the OSTP or the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.22" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.22   Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act requests.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Science and Technology Policy shall process requests for declassification that are submitted under the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, or the Privacy Act of 1974, in accordance with the provisions of those Acts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.23" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.23   Prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>In response to a request for information under the Freedom of Information Act, the Privacy Act of 1974, or the mandatory review provisions of Executive Order 12356 and Directive No. 1, or this regulation:
</P>
<P>(a) The Office of Science and Technology Policy shall refuse to confirm or deny the existence or non-existence of requested information whenever the fact of its existence or non-existence is itself classifiable under Executive Order 12356.
</P>
<P>(b) When the Office of Science and Technology Policy receives any request for documents in its custody that were classified by another agency, it shall refer copies of the request and the requested documents to the originating agency for processing, and may, after consultation with the originating agency, inform the requester of the referral. In cases which the originating agency determines in writing that a response under paragraph (a) of this section is required, the Office of Science and Technology Policy shall respond to the requester in accordance with that paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.24" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.4.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.24   Downgrading.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When it will serve a useful purpose, original classification authorities may, at the time of original classification, specify that downgrading of the assigned classification will occur on a specified date or upon the occurrence of a stated event. 
</P>
<P>(b) Classified information marked for automatic downgrading is downgraded accordingly without notification to holders. 
</P>
<P>(c) Classified information not marked for automatic downgrading may be assigned a lower classification designation by the originator or by an official authorized to declassify the same information. Prompt notice of such downgrading shall be provided to known holders of the information. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safeguarding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.25" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.25   Access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person is eligible for access to classified information provided that a determination of trustworthiness has been made by agency heads or designated officials and provided that such access is essential to the accomplishment of lawful and authorized Government purposes. A personnel security clearance is an indication that the trustworthiness decision has been made. Procedures shall be established by the head of each office to prevent access to classified information before a personnel security clearance has been granted. The number of people cleared and granted access to classified information shall be maintained at the minimum number that is consistent with operational requirements and needs. No one has a right to have access to classified information solely by virtue of rank or position. The final responsibility for determinating whether an individual's official duties require possession of or access to any element or item of classified information, and whether the individual has been granted the appropriate security clearance by proper authority, rests with the individual who has authorized possession, knowledge, or control of the information and not with the prospective recipient. These principles are equally applicable if the prospective recipient is an organizational entity, other Federal agencies, contractors, foreign governments, and others. 
</P>
<P>(b) When access to a specific classification category is no longer required for the performance of an individual's assigned duties, the security clearance will be administratively adjusted, without prejudice to the individual, to the classification category, if any, required.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy may create special access programs to control access, distribution, and protection of particularly sensitive information classified pursuant to Executive Order 12356 or predecessor orders if:
</P>
<P>(1) Normal management and safeguarding procedures do not limit access sufficiently;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of persons with access is limited to the minimum necessary to meet the objective of providing extra protection for the information;
</P>
<P>(3) The special access program is established in writing; and
</P>
<P>(4) A system of accounting for the program is established and maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.26" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.26   Access by historical researchers and former Presidential appointees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement in Section 4.1(a) of Executive Order 12356 that access to classified information may be granted only as is essential to the accomplishment of authorized and lawful Government purposes may be waived as provided in paragraph (b) of this section for persons who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are engaged in historical research projects, or
</P>
<P>(2) Previously have occupied policy-making positions to which they were appointed by the President.
</P>
<P>(b) Waivers under paragraph (a) of this section may be granted only if the Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines in writing that access is consistent with the interest of national security;
</P>
<P>(2) Takes appropriate steps to protect classified information from unauthorized disclosure or compromise, and ensures that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 12356;
</P>
<P>(3) Limits the access granted to former presidential appointees to items that the person originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as a presidential appointee; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has received a written agreement from the researcher or former presidential appointee that his notes can be reviewed by OSTP for a determination that no classified material is contained therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.27" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.27   Storage of classification information.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever classified information is not under the personal control and observation of an authorized person, it will be guarded or stored in a locked security container approved for the storage and protection of the appropriate level of classified information as prescribed in § 2001.43 of Directive No. 1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.28" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.28   Dissemination of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Heads of OSTP offices shall establish procedures consistent with this Regulation for dissemination of classified material. The originating official may prescribe specific restrictions on dissemination of classified information when necessary.
</P>
<P>(a) Classified information shall not be disseminated outside the executive branch except under conditions that ensure that the information will be given protection equivalent to that afforded within the executive branch.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided by directives issued by the President through the National Security Council, classified information originating in one agency may not be disseminated outside any other agency to which it has been made available without the consent of the originating agency. For purposes of this Section, the Department of Defense shall be considered one agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.29" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.29   Accountability and control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each item of Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential information is subject to control and accountability requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The Security Officer will serve as Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO) for the Office of Science and Technology Policy and will be responsible for the supervision of the Top Secret control program. He/she will be assisted by an Assistant Top Secret Control Officer (ATSCO) to effect the Controls prescribed herein for all Top Secret material.
</P>
<P>(c) The TSCO shall receive, transmit, and maintain current access and accountability records for Top Secret information. The records shall show the number and distribution of all Top Secret documents, including any reproduced copies.
</P>
<P>(d) Top Secret documents and material will be accounted for by a continuous chain of receipts.
</P>
<P>(e) An inventory of Top Secret documents shall be made at least annually.
</P>
<P>(f) Destruction of Top Secret documents shall be accomplished only by the TSCO or the ATSCO.
</P>
<P>(g) Records shall be maintained to show the number and distribution of all classified documents covered by special access programs, and of all Secret and Confidential documents which are marked with special dissemination and reproduction limitations.
</P>
<P>(h) The Security Officer will develop procedures for the accountability and control of Secret and Confidential information. These procedures shall require all Secret and Confidential material originated or received by OSTP to be controlled. Control shall be accomplished by the ATSCO.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.30" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.30   Reproduction of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Documents or portions of documents and materials that contain Top Secret information shall not be reproduced without the consent of the originator or higher authority. Any stated prohibition against reproduction shall be strictly observed. Copying of documents containing classified information at any level shall be minimized. Specific reproduction equipment shall be designated for the reproduction of classified information and rules for reproduction of classified information shall be posted on or near the designated equipment. Notices prohibiting reproduction of classified information shall be posted on equipment used only for the reproduction of unclassified information. All copies of classified documents reproduced for any purpose including those incorporated in a working paper are subject to the same controls prescribed for the document from which the reproduction is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.31" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.31   Destruction of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Classified information no longer needed in current working files or for reference or record purposes shall be processed for appropriate disposition in accordance with the provisions of chapters 21 and 33 of title 44, U.S.C., which governs disposition of classified records. Classified information approved for destruction shall be destroyed in accordance with procedures and methods prescribed by the Director, OSTP, as implemented by the Security Officer. These procedures and methods must provide adequate protection to prevent access by unauthorized persons and must preclude recognition or reconstruction of the classified information or material.
</P>
<P>(b) All classified information to be destroyed will be provided to the ATSCO for disposition. Controlled documents will be provided whole so that accountability records may be corrected prior to destruction by the ATSCO.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.32" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.32   Transmittal of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>The transmittal of classified information outside of the Office of Science and Technology Policy shall be in accordance with procedures of § 2001.44 of Directive No. 1. The Security Officer shall be responsible for resolving any questions relative to such transmittal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.33" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.5.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.33   Loss or possible compromise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who has knowledge of the loss or possible compromise of classified information shall immediately report the circumstances to the Security Officer. The Security Officer shall notify the Director and the agency that originated the information as soon as possible so that a damage assessment may be conducted and appropriate measures taken to negate or minimize any adverse effect of the compromise.
</P>
<P>(b) The Security Officer shall initiate an inquiry to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine cause,
</P>
<P>(2) Place responsibility, and
</P>
<P>(3) Take corrective measures and appropriate administrative, disciplinary, or legal action.
</P>
<P>(c) The Security Officer shall keep the Director advised on the details of the inquiry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Foreign Government Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.34" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.34   Classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Foreign government information classified by a foreign government or international organization of governments shall retain its original classification designation or be assigned a United States classification designation that will ensure a degree of protection equivalent to that required by the government or organization that furnished the information. Original classification authority is not required for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) Foreign government information that was not classified by a foreign entity but was provided with the expectation, expressed or implied, that it be held in confidence must be classified because Executive Order 12356 states a presumption of damage to the national security in the event of unauthorized disclosure of such information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.35" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.35   Duration of classification.</HEAD>
<P>Foreign government information shall not be assigned a date or event for automatic declassification unless specified or agreed to by the foreign entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.36" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.36   Declassification.</HEAD>
<P>Officials shall respect the intent of this Regulation to protect foreign government information and confidential foreign sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.37" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.37   Mandatory review.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this paragraph, OSTP shall process mandatory review requests for classified records containing foreign government information in accordance with § 2400.21. The agency that initially received or classified the foreign government information shall be responsible for making a declassification determination after consultation with concerned agencies. If OSTP receives a request for mandatory review and is not the agency that received or classified the foreign government information, it shall refer the request to the appropriate agency for action. Consultation with the foreign originator through appropriate channels may be necessary prior to final action on the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.38" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.6.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.38   Protection of foreign government information.</HEAD>
<P>Classified foreign government information shall be protected as is prescribed by this regulation for United States classified information of a comparable level.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Security Education</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.39" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.7.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.39   Responsibility and objectives.</HEAD>
<P>The OSTP Security Officer shall establish a security education program for OSTP personnel. The program shall be sufficient to familiarize all OSTP personnel with the provisions of Executive Order 12356 and Directive No. 1, and this regulation. It shall be designed to provide initial, refresher, and termination briefings to impress upon them their individual security responsibilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Office of Science and Technology Policy Information Security Program Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.40" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.40   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, OSTP is the senior OSTP official having authority and responsibility to ensure effective and uniform compliance with and implementation of Executive Order 12356 and its implementing Directive No. 1. As such, the Director, OSTP, shall have primary responsibility for providing guidance, oversight and approval of policy and procedures governing the OSTP Information Security Program. The Director, OSTP, may approve waivers or exceptions to the provisions of this regulation to the extent such action is consistent with Executive Order 12356 and Directive No. 1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.41" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.41   Office Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Science and Technology Policy Review Committee (hereinafter referred to as the Office Review Committee) is hereby established and will be responsible for the continuing review of the administration of this Regulation with respect to the classification and declassification of information or material originated or held by the Office of Science and Technology Policy. The Office Review Committee shall be composed of the Executive Director who shall serve as chairperson, the Assistant Director for National Security &amp; Space, and the Security Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.42" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.42   Security Officer.</HEAD>
<P>Under the general direction of the Director, the Special Assistant to the Executive Director will serve as the Security Officer and will supervise the administration of this Regulation. He/she will develop programs, in particular a Security Education Program, to insure effective compliance with and implementation of the Information Security Program. Specifically he/she also shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain a current listing by title and name of all persons who have been designated in writing to have original Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential Classification authority. Listings will be reviewed by the Director on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain the record copy of all approved OSTP classification guides.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain a current listing of OSTP officials designated in writing to have declassification and downgrading authority.
</P>
<P>(d) Develop and maintain systematic review guidelines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.43" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.43   Heads of offices.</HEAD>
<P>The Head of each unit is responsible for the administration of this regulation within his area. These responsibilities include:
</P>
<P>(a) Insuring that national security information is properly classified and protected;
</P>
<P>(b) Exercising a continuing records review to reduce classified holdings through retirement, destruction, downgrading or declassification;
</P>
<P>(c) Insuring that reproduction of classified information is kept to the absolute minimum;
</P>
<P>(d) Issuing appropriate internal security instructions and maintaining the prescribed control and accountability records on classified information under their jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.44" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.44   Custodians.</HEAD>
<P>Custodians of classified material shall be responsible for providing protection and accountability for such material at all times and particularly for locking classified material in approved security equipment whenever it is not in use or under direct supervision of authorized persons. Custodians shall follow procedures which insure that unauthorized persons do not gain access to classified information or material by sight or sound, and classified information shall not be discussed with or in the presence of unauthorized persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.45" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.45   Information Security Program Review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, OSTP, shall require an annual formal review of the OSTP Information Security Program to ensure compliance with the provisions of Executive Order 12356 and Directive No. 1, and this regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The review shall be conducted by a group of three to five persons appointed by the Director and chaired by the Executive Director. The Security Officer will provide any records and assistance required to facilitate the review.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and recommendations of the review will be provided to the Director for his determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.46" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.1.8.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.46   Suggestions or complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Persons desiring to submit suggestions or complaints regarding the Office of Science and Technology Policy Information Security Program should do so in writing. This correspondence should be addressed to: Executive Director, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Executive Office of the President, Washington, DC 20506. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2402" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2402—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373, 3 CFR, 2005 Comp., p. 216.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 70055, Nov. 4, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2402.1" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part prescribe procedures by which individuals may obtain access to the Office of Science and Technology Policy's (OSTP) agency records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, as well as the procedures OSTP must follow in response to requests for records under the FOIA. The regulations should be read together with the FOIA and the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB's) “Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines,” which provides information about access to records. All requests for access to information contained within a system of records pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, shall be processed in accordance with these regulations as well as those contained in 32 CFR part 2403.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.2" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.2   Delegation of authority and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of OSTP designates the OSTP General Counsel as the Chief FOIA Officer and hereby delegates to the Chief FOIA Officer the authority to act upon all requests for agency records and to re-delegate such authority at his or her discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief FOIA Officer shall designate a FOIA Public Liaison, who shall serve as the supervisory official to whom a FOIA requester can raise concerns about the service the FOIA requestor has received following an initial request. The FOIA Public Liaison will be listed on the OSTP website (<I>https://www.whitehouse.gov/ostp/foia</I>) and may re-delegate the FOIA Public Liaison's authority at his or her discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director establishes a FOIA Requester Service Center that shall be staffed by the Chief FOIA Officer and the FOIA Public Liaison. The contact information for the FOIA Requester Service Center is: Address: Office of Science and Technology Policy, Eisenhower Executive Office Building, 1650 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20504; Telephone: (202) 456-4444; Fax: (202) 395-1224; Email: <I>ostpfoia@ostp.eop.gov.</I> Updates to this contact information will be made on the OSTP website.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.3" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.3   General policy and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-exempt records available to public.</I> Except for records exempt from disclosure by 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1), OSTP's agency records subject to the FOIA are available to any requester who requests them in accordance with these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record availability on the OSTP website.</I> OSTP shall make records available on its website in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), as amended, and other documents that, because of the nature of their subject matter, are likely to be the subject of FOIA requests. To save both time and money, OSTP strongly urges requesters to review documents available on the OSTP website before submitting a request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the terms defined in the FOIA and the definitions included in OMB's “Uniform Freedom of Information Act Fee Schedule and Guidelines” apply unless otherwise defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>agency record</I> means a record that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Either created or obtained by OSTP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Under OSTP's control at the time the FOIA request is received.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of a person who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers his or her commercial, trade, or profit interests, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. OSTP shall determine, whenever reasonably possible, the use to which a requester will put the requested records. When it appears that the requester will put the records to a commercial use, either because of the nature of the request itself or because OSTP has reasonable cause to doubt a requester's stated use, OSTP shall provide the requester a reasonable opportunity to submit further clarification.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms <I>disclose</I> and <I>disclosure</I> refer to making records available, upon request, for examination and copying, or furnishing a copy of records.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>direct cost</I> means those expenditures OSTP actually incurred in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in response to a FOIA request. Direct costs include the salary of the personnel performing the work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses, such as the cost of space, heating, or lighting of the facility in which the records are stored.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>duplication</I> means the making of a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, microform, audiovisual materials, or electronic records (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic tape or disk), among others.
</P>
<P>(7) The term <I>educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education that operates a program of scholarly research. To fall within this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but rather are sought to further scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(8) The term <I>fee waiver</I> means the waiver or reduction of processing fees if a requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(9) The term <I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> means an agency official who is responsible for assisting requesters in defining the scope of their request to reduce processing time, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<P>(10) The term <I>non-commercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis, as that term is defined in these regulations, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. To fall within this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but rather are sought to further scientific research.
</P>
<P>(11) The term <I>perfected request</I> means a FOIA request for records that reasonably describes the records sought and has been received by OSTP in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 2402.4.
</P>
<P>(12) The terms <I>representative of the news media</I> and <I>news media requester</I> mean any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this clause, the term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of news) who make their products available for purchase by, subscription by, or through free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve, such as through electronic or digital means, such news sources shall be considered to be news media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the Government may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(13) The term <I>requester</I> means any person, including an individual, partnership, corporation, association, Native American tribe, or other public or private organization, other than a Federal agency that requests access to records.
</P>
<P>(14) The term <I>review</I> means the process of examining documents located in response to a request that is for a commercial use to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It includes the processing of any documents for disclosure—<I>i.e.,</I> doing all that is necessary to excise exempt information and otherwise prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(15) The term <I>search</I> refers to the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. It includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and also includes reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form or format.
</P>
<P>(16) The term <I>working day</I> means a regular Federal working day between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. It does not include Saturdays, Sundays, or legal Federal holidays. Any requests received after 5:00 p.m. on any given working day will be considered received on the next working day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.4" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.4   Procedure for requesting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Format of requests.</I>(1) <I>In general.</I> Requests for information must be made in writing and may be delivered by mail, fax, or electronic mail, as specified in § 2402.2(c). All requests must be made in English. Requests for information may specify the preferred format (including electronic formats) of the response. When a requester does not specify the preferred format of the response, OSTP shall produce scanned records to be delivered electronically.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records in electronic formats.</I> (i) OSTP shall provide responsive records in the format requested if the record or records are readily reproducible by OSTP in that format. OSTP shall make reasonable efforts to maintain its records in formats that are reproducible for the purposes of disclosure. For purposes of this paragraph, the term <I>readily reproducible</I> means, with respect to electronic format, a record that can be downloaded or transferred intact to an electronic medium using equipment currently in use by the agency processing the request. Even though some records may initially be readily reproducible, the need to segregate exempt records from nonexempt records may cause the releasable material to be not readily reproducible.
</P>
<P>(ii) In responding to a request for records, OSTP shall make reasonable efforts to search for the records in electronic format, except where such efforts would interfere with the operation of the agency's automated information system(s). For purposes of this paragraph, the term <I>search</I> means to locate, manually or by automated means, agency records for the purpose of identifying those records that are responsive to a request.
</P>
<P>(iii) Searches for records maintained in electronic format may require the application of codes, queries, or other minor forms of programming to retrieve the requested records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attachment restrictions.</I> To protect OSTP's computer systems, OSTP will not accept files sent as email attachments or as web links. A requester may submit a request by postal mail, by fax, or in the body of the email text.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> A request must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable OSTP personnel to locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, a requester should include specific information that may assist OSTP personnel in identifying the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record. In general, a requester should include as much detail as possible about the specific records or the types of records sought. Before submitting a request, a requester may contact the OSTP FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records sought and to receive assistance in describing the records. If, after receiving a request, OSTP determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought or that the request will be unduly burdensome to process, OSTP shall inform the requester of the additional information that is needed or how the request may be modified. A Requester attempting to reformulate or modify such a request may discuss their requests with OSTP's FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of receipt.</I> A request that complies with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is deemed a “perfected request.” A perfected request is deemed received on the actual date it is received by OSTP. A request that does not comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is deemed received when information sufficient to perfect the request is actually received by OSTP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contact information.</I> A request must contain contact information, such as the requester's phone number, email address, or mailing address, to enable OSTP to communicate with the requester about the request and provide released records. If OSTP cannot contact the requester, or the requester does not respond within 30 calendar days to OSTP's requests for clarification, OSTP will administratively close the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Types of records not available.</I> The FOIA does not require OSTP to:
</P>
<P>(1) Compile or create records solely for the purpose of satisfying a request for records;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide records not yet in existence, even if such records may be expected to come into existence at some future time; or
</P>
<P>(3) Restore records destroyed or otherwise disposed of, except that OSTP must notify the requester of the destruction or disposal of the requested records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.5" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.5   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, OSTP will ordinarily include only records in its possession as of the date it begins its search for records. If any other date is used, OSTP shall inform the requester of that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> OSTP shall make initial determinations to grant or deny, in whole or in part, a request for records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Granting of requests.</I> When OSTP determines that any responsive records shall be made available, OSTP shall notify the requester in writing and provide copies of the requested records in whole or in part. Records disclosed in part shall be marked or annotated to show the exemption(s) applied to the withheld information and the amount of information withheld unless doing so would harm the interest protected by an applicable exemption. If a requested record contains exempted material along with nonexempt material, all reasonably segregable material shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adverse determinations.</I> If OSTP makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect, it must notify the requester of that adverse determination in writing. Adverse determinations include decisions that: The requested record is exempt from disclosure, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought, but only if, after discussion with the FOIA Public Liaison, the requester refuses to modify the terms of the request; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester; denials involving fees or fee waiver matters; and denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of adverse determinations.</I> Any adverse determination issued by OSTP must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the adverse determination, including any FOIA exemption applied by the agency in denying access to a record unless such inclusion would harm the interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(2) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the adverse determination may be appealed under § 2402.8 of this subpart and a description of the appeal requirements; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from OSTP's FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultations, referrals, and coordinations.</I> When OSTP receives a request for a record in its possession, it shall determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA and, if so, whether it should be disclosed as a matter of administrative discretion. If OSTP determines that it is best able to process the record in response to the request, then it shall do so. If OSTP determines that it is not best able to process the record, then it shall proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originating with OSTP contain information of interest to another Federal agency, OSTP should typically consult with that Federal agency prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When OSTP believes that a different Federal agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, OSTP should typically refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency creating the record is presumed to be the agency best able to determine whether the record should be disclosed. If OSTP and another Federal agency jointly agree that the agency processing the request is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever OSTP refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, OSTP must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral.
</P>
<P>(iii) After OSTP refers a record to another Federal agency, the agency receiving the referral shall make a disclosure determination and respond directly to the requester. The referral of a record is not an adverse determination and no appeal rights accrue to the requester therefrom.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the Federal agency to which a referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as an exemption that protects personal privacy or national security interests. For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its files records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party is not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion into the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if an agency locates within its files material originating with an Intelligence Community agency, and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could harm national security interests. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, OSTP will coordinate with the agency that created the record to seek its views on disclosure of the record. OSTP will then notify the requester of the disclosure determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.6" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.6   Timing of responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> OSTP shall ordinarily respond to requests in order of their receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determinations.</I> OSTP will exercise all reasonable efforts to make an initial determination acknowledging and granting, partially granting, or denying a request for records within twenty (20) working days after receiving a perfected request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extensions of response time in “unusual circumstances.”</I> (1) The twenty (20)-working day period provided in paragraph (b) of this section may be extended if unusual circumstances arise. If an extension is necessary, OSTP shall promptly notify the requester of the extension, briefly state the reasons for the extension, and estimate when a response will be issued. Unusual circumstances warranting extension are:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of the agency having substantial subject-matter interest therein.
</P>
<P>(2) After OSTP notifies the requester of the reasons for the delay, the requester will have an opportunity to modify the request or arrange for an alternative time frame for completion of the request. To assist in this process, OSTP shall advise the requester of the availability of OSTP's FOIA Public Liaison to aid in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and OSTP, and notify the requester of his or her right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(3) If no initial determination is made at the end of the twenty-day period provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, including any extension provided for in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the requester may appeal the action to the FOIA Appeals Officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expedited processing of request.</I> (1) A requester may make a request for expedited processing at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) When a request for expedited processing is received, OSTP must determine whether to grant the request for expedited processing within ten (10) calendar days of its receipt. Requests will receive expedited processing if one of the following compelling needs is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The requester can establish that failure to receive the records quickly could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester is primarily engaged in disseminating information and can demonstrate that an urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity exists.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. As a matter of administrative discretion, OSTP may waive the formal certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) Administrative appeals of denials of expedited processing will be given expeditious consideration. If the FOIA Appeals Officer upholds the denial of expedited processing, that decision is immediately subject to judicial review in the appropriate Federal district court.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multi-track processing.</I> (1) OSTP may use multi-track processing in responding to requests. Multi-track processing means placing simple requests that require limited review in one processing track and placing more voluminous and complex requests in one or more other processing tracks. Requests in each track are processed on a first-in, first-out basis.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Track one—expedited requests.</I> Track one is made up of requests that sought and received expedited processing as provided for in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Track two—simple requests.</I> Track two is for requests of simple to moderate complexity that do not require consultations with other entities and do not involve voluminous records.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Track three—complex requests.</I> Track three is for complex requests that involve voluminous records, require lengthy or numerous consultations, raise unique or novel legal questions, or require submitter review under § 2402.7.
</P>
<P>(2) OSTP may provide requesters with requests in slower track(s) the opportunity to limit the scope of their requests in order to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of faster track(s). OSTP will do so by contacting the requester by letter, telephone, email, or facsimile, whichever is more efficient in each case. When providing a requester with the opportunity to limit the scope of a request, OSTP shall also advise the requester of OSTP's FOIA Public Liaison to aid in the resolution of any dispute arising between the requester and OSTP as well as the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> OSTP may aggregate requests if it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a single requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, involve related matters and constitute a single request that otherwise would involve unusual circumstances. For example, OSTP may aggregate multiple requests for similar information filed by a single requester within a short period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.7" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.7   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information obtained by OSTP from a submitter will be disclosed under the FOIA only under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means records provided to the government by a submitter that arguably contain material exempt from release under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity from whom OSTP directly or indirectly obtains confidential commercial information. The term includes corporations; State, local, and tribal governments; universities; non-profit organizations; associations; and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation of business information.</I> Either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, a submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). These designations will expire ten years after the date of submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> OSTP shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal that seeks its business information in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object to disclosure of any specified portion of that information. The notice shall either describe the business information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish notification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where notice is required.</I> Notice shall be given to a submitter whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4); or
</P>
<P>(2) OSTP has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> OSTP will allow a submitter reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section and will specify that time period within the notice. If a submitter has any objection to disclosure, the submitter must provide a detailed written statement of objections. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of information withheld under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), the submitter must demonstrate the reasons the submitter believes the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to adequately respond to the notice within the time specified, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by the submitter that OSTP does not receive within the time specified shall not be considered by OSTP. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> OSTP shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose business information. Whenever OSTP determines that disclosure is appropriate over the objection of a submitter, OSTP shall, within a reasonable number of days prior to disclosure, provide the submitter with written notice of the intent to disclose, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's objections to disclosure was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which shall be a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions to notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of paragraphs (d) and (g) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) OSTP determines that the information should not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987;
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such a case, OSTP shall, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information, but no opportunity to object will be offered; or
</P>
<P>(5) The information requested was not designated by the submitter as exempt from disclosure in accordance with this part, when the submitter had an opportunity to do so at the time of submission of the information or a reasonable time thereafter, unless OSTP has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the information would result in competitive harm.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of business information, OSTP shall promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notice to requesters.</I> Whenever OSTP provides a submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (d) of this section, OSTP shall also notify the requester(s). Whenever OSTP notifies a submitter of its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (g) of this section, OSTP shall also notify the requester(s). Whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of business information, OSTP shall notify the requester(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.8" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.8   Appeal of denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to administrative appeal.</I> A requester has the right to appeal to the FOIA Appeals Officer any adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of appeal.</I> (1) <I>Time for appeal.</I> To be considered timely, an appeal must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted no later than ninety (90) calendar days after the date of the initial adverse determination or after the time limit for response by OSTP has expired. Prior to submitting an appeal, the requester must pay in full any outstanding fees associated with the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of appeal.</I> An appeal shall be initiated by filing a written notice of appeal. The notice shall specify the tracking number assigned to the FOIA request by OSTP and be accompanied by copies of the original request and adverse determination. To expedite the appellate process and give the requester an opportunity to present his or her arguments, the notice should contain a brief statement of the reason(s) why the requester believes the adverse determination to be in error. Requesters may submit appeals by mail or electronically. If sent by regular mail, appeals shall be sent to: Chief FOIA Officer, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Eisenhower Executive Office Building, 1650 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20504. Appeals sent via electronic mail shall be submitted to <I>ostpfoia@ostp.eop.gov.</I> Updates to this contact information will be made on the OSTP website. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both the appeal letter and envelope, if submitted by mail, or subject line of the transmission, if submitted electronically, with “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> The FOIA Appeals Officer shall make a determination in writing on the appeal under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(A)(ii) within twenty (20) working days after the receipt of the appeal. If the denial is wholly or partially upheld, the Chief FOIA Officer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the requester that judicial review is available pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B)-(G); and
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the requester that the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers mediation services to resolve disputes between FOIA requesters and Federal agencies as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. Contact information for OGIS is: Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road-OGIS, College Park, MD 20740, Email: <I>ogis@nara.gov,</I> Telephone: 202-741-5770, Facsimile: 202-741-5769, Toll-free: 1-877-684-6448.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dispute resolution services.</I> Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If OSTP agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by the Office of Government Information Services, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Before seeking judicial review of OSTP's adverse determination in Federal district court, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.9" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.9   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees generally required.</I> OSTP shall use the most efficient and least costly methods to comply with requests for documents made under the FOIA. OSTP shall charge fees in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section unless fees are waived or reduced in accordance with § 2402.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of fees.</I> In general, fees for searching, reviewing, and duplication will be based on the direct costs of these services, including the average hourly salary (basic pay plus 16% for benefits) of the personnel conducting the search, reviewing the records for exemption, or duplicating the records. Charges for time less than a full hour will be in increments of quarter hours.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search fees.</I> Search fees may be charged even if responsive documents are not located or are located but withheld on the basis of an exemption. However, search fees shall not be charged or shall be limited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Educational, scientific, or news media requests.</I> No search fee shall be charged if the request is not sought for a commercial use and is made by an educational or non-commercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or by a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other non-commercial requests.</I> No search fee shall be charged for the first two hours of searching if the request is not for a commercial use and is submitted by an entity that is not an educational or scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requests for records about oneself.</I> No search fee shall be charged to search for records performed under the terms of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review fees.</I> Review fees shall be assessed only with respect to those requesters who seek records for a commercial use. A review fee shall be charged for the initial examination of documents located in response to a request to determine whether the documents may be withheld from disclosure and for the redaction of document portions exempt from disclosure. Records or portions of records withheld under an exemption that is subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed again to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. The costs for such subsequent review are also assessable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duplication fees.</I> Records will be photocopied at a rate of ten cents ($0.10) per page. For other methods of reproduction or duplication, OSTP will charge the actual direct costs of producing the document(s). Duplication fees shall not be charged for the first 100 pages of copies unless the copies are requested for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation of requests.</I> When OSTP determines that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to evade the assessment of fees by submitting multiple requests in place of a single, more complex request, OSTP may aggregate any such requests and assess fees accordingly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fees likely to exceed $25.</I> If total fee charges are likely to exceed $25, OSTP shall notify the requester of the estimated amount to be charged. The notification shall offer the requester an opportunity to confer with the FOIA Public Liaison to reformulate the request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost. OSTP may administratively close a submitted FOIA request if the requester does not respond in writing within thirty (30) calendar days after the date on which OSTP notifies the requester of the fee estimate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advance payments.</I> Fees may be paid upon provision of the requested records, except that payment may be required prior to that time if the requester has previously failed to pay fees or if OSTP determines that the total fees will exceed $250. When payment is required in advance of the processing of a request, the time limits prescribed in § 2402.6 shall not be deemed to begin until OSTP has received payment of the assessed fees. If the requester has previously failed to pay fees or charges are likely to exceed $250, OSTP shall notify the requester of the estimated cost and:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain satisfactory assurance from the requester, in writing, of full payment; or
</P>
<P>(2) OSTP may require the requester to pay the full amount of any fees owed or make an advance payment of the full amount of OSTP's estimated charges.
</P>
<P>(3) If OSTP does not receive an adequate response, assurance, or advance payment within thirty (30) calendar days of a fee determination or notification issued under the authority of this section, OSTP will administratively close the corresponding request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other charges.</I> OSTP will recover the full costs of providing services, such as those enumerated below, when it elects to provide them:
</P>
<P>(1) Certifying that records are true copies; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sending records by special methods, such as express mail.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Remittances.</I> Remittances shall be made either via personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or by postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the order of the Treasury of the United States and mailed to the Chief FOIA Officer, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Eisenhower Executive Office Building, 1650 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20504. Updates to this contact information will be made on the OSTP website.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Receipts and refunds.</I> OSTP will provide a receipt for fees paid upon request. OSTP will not refund fees paid for services actually rendered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.10" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.10   Waiver of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> OSTP shall waive part or all of the fees assessed under § 2402.9 if, based upon information provided by a requester or otherwise made known to OSTP, the disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest. Disclosure is in the public interest if it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of government operations or activities and is not primarily for commercial purposes. Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees shall be considered on a case-by-case basis. To determine whether a fee waiver requirement is met, OSTP shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the Federal Government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of the requested information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information already in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially similar form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. OSTP will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, OSTP will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) OSTP will identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters are encouraged to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, OSTP will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. OSTP will ordinarily presume that when a news media requester has satisfied the conditions in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not receive the benefit of this presumption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of fee waivers.</I> A request for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when a request for records is first submitted to the agency and should address the criteria referenced in paragraph (a) of this section. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date of the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clarification.</I> Where OSTP has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, OSTP may seek clarification from the requester before assigning the request to a specific category for fee assessment purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> Except as described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, if OSTP fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits for responding to a request, it may not charge search fees. In addition, subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, if OSTP does not comply with the FOIA's time limits for responding to a request, it may not charge duplication fees when records are not sought for a commercial use and the request is made by an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(1) If OSTP determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and provides timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, then a failure to comply with the statutory time limit shall be excused for an additional ten (10) days.
</P>
<P>(2) If OSTP determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, then OSTP may charge search fees and duplication fees, where applicable, if the following steps are taken. OSTP must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Discuss with the requester via postal mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) If a court determines that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, then a failure to comply with the statutory time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.11" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.11   Maintenance of statistics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OSTP shall maintain records sufficient to allow accurate reporting of FOIA processing statistics, as required under 5 U.S.C. 552(e) and all guidelines for the preparation of annual FOIA reports issued by the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) OSTP shall annually, on or before February 1 of each year, prepare and submit to the Attorney General an annual report compiling the statistics maintained in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section for the previous fiscal year. A copy of the report will be available for public inspection on the OSTP website.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2402.12" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.2.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2402.12   Disclaimer.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to entitle any person, as a right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2403-2499" NODE="32:6.2.8.17.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2403-2499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXVII" NODE="32:6.2.9" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXVII—OFFICE FOR MICRONESIAN STATUS NEGOTIATIONS</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2700" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2700—SECURITY INFORMATION REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12065, National Security Regulation of June 28, 1978 (43 FR 28949, July 31, 1978); Information Security Oversight Office Directive No. 1 (43 FR 46280, October 5, 1978). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 51574, Sept. 4, 1979, unless otherwise noted. Correctly designated at 44 FR 51990, Sept. 6, 1979. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.1" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.1   References.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12065, “National Security Information,” June 28, 1978, (hereinafter E.O. 12065). 
</P>
<P>(b) Information Security Oversight Office, Directive No. 1, “National Security Information,” October 2, 1978, (hereinafter ISOO Directive No. 1). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.2" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this Regulation is to ensure, consistent with the authorities listed in § 2700.1, that national security information originated and/or held by the Office for Micronesian Status Negotiations (OMSN), which includes the Status Liaison Office, Saipan, Northern Mariana Islands (SLNO), is protected. To ensure that such information is protected, but only to the extent and for such period as is necessary, this regulation identifies the information to be protected and prescribes certain classification, declassification and safeguarding procedures to be followed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.3" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This Regulation supplements E.O. 12065 within OMSN with regard to National Security Information. In consonance with the authorities listed in § 2700.1, it establishes general policies and certain procedures for the classification, declassification and safeguarding of information which is owned by, is produced for or by, or is under the control of OMSN. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Original Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.11" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.11   Basic policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> It is the policy of OMSN to make available to the public as much information concerning its activities as is possible, consistent with its responsibility to protect the national security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safeguarding national security information.</I> Within the Federal Government there is some information which because it bears directly on the effectiveness of our national defense and the conduct of our foreign relations, must be subject to some constraints for the security of our nation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Balancing test.</I> To balance the public's interest in access to government information with the need to protect certain national security information from disclosure, these regulations indentify the information to be protected, prescribe classification, downgrading, declassification, and safeguarding procedures to be followed, and establish education, monitoring and sanctioning systems to insure their effectiveness. When questions arise as whether the need to protect information may be outweighed by the public interest in disclosure of the information, they shall be referred to OMSN pursuant to § 2700.32(b) for a determination whether the public interest in disclosure outweighs the damage to national security that might reasonably be expected from disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.12" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.12   Criteria for and level of original classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Policy.</I> Documents or other material are to be classified only when protecting the national security requires that the information they contain be withheld from public disclosure. Information may not be classified to conceal violations of law, inefficiency, or administrative error, or to prevent embarrassment to a person, organization or agency, or to restrain competition. No material may be classified to limit dissemination, or to prevent or delay public release, unless its classification is consistent with E.O. 12065.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> To be eligible for classification, information must meet two requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) First, it must deal with one of the criteria set forth in section 1-301 of E.O. 12065; 
</P>
<P>(2) Second, the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations or his delegate who has original classification authority must determine that unauthorized disclosure of the information or material can reasonably be expected to cause at least identifiable harm to the national security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification designations.</I> Only three designations of classification are authorized—“Top Secret,” “Secret,” “Confidential.” No other classification designation is authorized or shall have force.
</P>
<P>(d) Unnecessary classification, and classification at a level higher than is necessary, shall be avoided. If there is reasonable doubt as to which designation in section 1-1 of E.O. 12065 is appropriate, or whether information should be classified at all, the less restrictive designation should be used, or the information should not be classified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.13" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.13   Duration of original classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information or material which is classified after December 1, 1978, shall be marked at the time of classification with the date or event for declassification or a date for review for declassification. This date or event shall be as early as national security permits and shall be no more than six years after original classification except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Only the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations may authorize a classification period exceeding six years. Originally classified information that is so designated shall be identified with the authority and reason for extension. This authority shall be used sparingly. In those cases where extension of classification is warranted, a declassification date or event, or a date for review shall be set. This date or event shall be early as national security permits and shall be no more than twenty years after original classification except that for foreign information the date or event may be up to thirty years after original classification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.14" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.14   Challenges to classification.</HEAD>
<P>If holders of classified information believe the information is improperly or unnecessarily classified, or that original classification has been extended for too long a period, they should discuss the matter with their immediate superiors or the classifier of the information. If these discussions do not satisfy the concerns of the challenger, the matter should be brough to the attention of the chairman of the OMSN Information Security Oversight Committee, established pursuant to § 2700.51. Action on such challenges shall be taken within 30 days from date of receipt and the challenger shall be notified of the results. When requested, anonymity of the challenger shall be preserved.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Derivative Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.21" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.21   Definition and application.</HEAD>
<P>Derivative classification is the act of assigning a level of classification to information which is determined to be the same in substance as information which is currently classified. Thus, derivative classification may be accomplished by any person cleared for access to that level of information, regardless of whether the person has original classification authority at that level.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.22" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.22   Classification guides.</HEAD>
<P>OMSN shall issue classification guides pursuant to section 2-2 of E.O. 12065. These guides, which shall be used to direct derivative classification, shall identify the information to be protected in specific and uniform terms so that the information involved can be readily identified. The classification guides shall be approved in writing by the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations. Such approval constitutes an original classification decision. The classification guides shall be kept current and shall be reviewed at least every two years.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Declassification and Downgrading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.31" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.31   Declassification authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, OMSN, is authorized to declassify OMSN originated documents after consultation with the appropriate OMSN staff members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.32" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.32   Declassification general.</HEAD>
<P>Declassification of classified information shall be given emphasis comparable to that accorded to classification. The determination to declassify information shall not be made on the basis of the level of classification assigned, but on the loss of the sensitivity of the information with the passage of time, and with due regard for the public interest in access to official information. At the time of review, any determination not to declassify shall be based on a determination that despite the passage of time since classification, release of information reasonably could still be expected to cause at least identifiable damage to the national security. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.33" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.33   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All information classified under the Order or prior orders, except as provided for in section 3-503 of E.O. 12065 shall be subject to review for declassification upon request of a member of the public, a government employee, or an agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt.</I> (1) Requests for mandatory review for declassification under section 3-501 of E.O. 12065 must be in writing and should be addressed to: Office for Micronesian Status Negotiations, ATTN: Security Officer (Mandatory Review Request), Room 3356, Department of the Interior, Washington, DC 20240.
</P>
<P>(2) The requestor shall be informed of the date of receipt of the request at OMSN. This date will be the basis for the time limits specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the request does not reasonably describe the information sought, the requestor shall be notified that, unless additional information is provided or the request is made more specific, no further action will be taken.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to paragraph (b)(7) of this section, if the information requested is in the custody of and under the exclusive declassification authority of OMSN, OMSN shall determine whether the information or any reasonably segregable portion of it no longer requires protection. If so, OMSN shall promptly make such information available to the requester, unless withholding it is otherwise warranted under applicable law. If the information may not be released, in whole or in part, OMSN shall give the requester a brief statement of the reasons, a notice of the right to appeal the determination to the agency review committee, and notice that such an appeal must be filed with the review committee within 60 days.
</P>
<P>(5) When OMSN receives a request for information in a document which is in its custody, but which was classified by another agency, it shall refer the request to the appropriate agency for review, together with a copy of the document containing the information requested, where practicable. OMSN shall also notify the requester of the referral, unless the association of the reviewing agency with the information requires protection. The reviewing agency shall review a document in coordination with any other agency involved with the classification or having a direct interest in the subject matter. The reviewing agency shall respond directly to the requester in accordance with the pertinent procedures described above and, if requested, shall notify OMSN of its determination.
</P>
<P>(6) Requests for declassification of classified documents originated by OMSN or another agency but in the possession and control of the Administrator of General Services, pursuant to 44 U.S.C 2107 or 2107 <I>Note,</I> shall be referred by the Archivist to the agency of origin for processing and for direct response to the requests. The Archivist will inform requesters of such referrals.
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of requests for documents containing foreign government information, OMSN, if it is also the agency which initially received the foreign government information, shall determine whether the foreign government information in the document may be declassified and released in accordance with agency policies or guidelines, consulting with other agencies of subject matter interest as necessary. If OMSN is not the agency which received the foreign government information, it shall refer the request to the latter agency, which shall take action on the request. In those cases where available agency policies or guidelines do not apply, consultation with the foreign originator through appropriate channels may be advisable prior to final action on the request.
</P>
<P>(8) If any agency makes a request on behalf of a member of the public, the request shall be considered as a request by that member of the public and handled accordingly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review.</I> (1) Within sixty days from its receipt, OMSN shall inform the requestor of the determination of the mandatory review for declassification.
</P>
<P>(2) If the determination is to withhold some or all of the material requested, the requestor may appeal the determination. The requestor shall be informed that an appeal must be made in writing within sixty days of receipt of the denial and should be addressed to the chairperson of the OMSN Classification Review Committee established pursuant to § 2700.52. 
</P>
<P>(3) No agency in possession of a classified document may, in response to a request for the document made under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) or under section 3-5 of E.O. 12065, refuse to confirm the existence or non-existence of the document, unless the fact of its existence or non-existence would itself be classifiable. 
</P>
<P>(4) The requestor shall be informed of the appellate determination within thirty days of receipt of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(5) In considering requests for mandatory review, OMSN may decline to review again any request for material which has been recently reviewed and denied, except insofar as the request constitutes an appeal under paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing of Requests.</I> The processing of requests by OMSN shall be as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Security Officer or his designee shall record the request, and arrange for search and review of the documents. The documents will be reviewed for declassification in accordance with these regulations or any applicable guidelines. If the documents remain classified and are not to be released, in whole or in part, the reviewing office will also prepare a letter informing the requester as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The letter to the requester shall be signed by the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations, his Deputy or the Status Liaison Officer. The Security Officer or his designee shall record disposition of the case and forward the letter of denial to the requester. 
</P>
<P>(2) If any request requires obtaining the views of other agencies, the receiving office shall arrange coordination of review with such other agencies. 
</P>
<P>(3) When all documents involved in the request are declassified and released, the receiving office will send a release statement, to the requester, and shall inform the requester of any fees due before releasing documents. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of documents of agency origin requested by a Presidential Library on behalf of a member of the public, if there is a partial denial, the letter will advise the requester as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, but the requester will be referred to the Archivist for copies of the released document, with portions excised. The receiving office will transmit such documents, with portions marked to be excised, to Archives which will transmit them with portions excised to the Presidential Library for its records and for use in the case of further similar requests. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Security Officer or his designee shall also coordinate requests from other agencies seeking the views of OMSN as to declassification of documents originated by such other agencies but involving information of primary subject matter interest to OMSN. The Security Officer or his designee will transmit the documents to the reviewing individual for a determination as to declassification and will coordinate the reply of OMSN to the requesting agency. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeals.</I> (1) The President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations shall receive appeals for denial of documents by OMSN. Such appeals shall be addressed to President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations, Suite 3356, Interior Department Building, Washington, DC 20240. The appeal must be received in OMSN within 60 days of the date of the original denial letter or the final release of documents, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appeals shall be decided within 30 days of their receipt. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> (1) Fees for the location and reproduction of information which is the subject of a mandatory review request shall be assessed according to the following schedule: 
</P>
<P>(i) Search for records: $5.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a clerical employee; $8.00 per hour when the search is conducted by a professional employee. No fee shall be assessed for searches of less than one hour. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reproduction of documents: Documents will be reproduced at a rate of $.25 per page for all copying of four pages or more. No fee shall be assessed for reproducing documents which are three pages or less, or for the first three pages of longer documents. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is anticipated that the fees chargeable under this section will amount to more than $25.00, and the requestor has not indicated in advance a willingness to pay fees as high as are anticipated, the requestor shall be promptly notified of the amount of the anticipated fee or such portion thereof as can readily be estimated. In instances where the estimated fees will greatly exceed $25.00, an advance deposit may be required. Dispatch of such a notice or request shall suspend the running of the period for response by OMSN until a reply is received from the requestor. 
</P>
<P>(3) Remittance shall be in the form either of a personal check or bank draft on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittance shall be made payable to Treasurer of the United States and mailed to the address noted in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) A receipt for fees paid will be provided only upon request. Refund of fees for services actually rendered will not be made. 
</P>
<P>(5) OMSN may waive all or part of any fee provided for in this section when it is deemed to be in either the interest of OMSN or of the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.34" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.34   Downgrading authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Security Officer, OMSN is authorized to downgrade OMSN originated documents after consultation with the staff member who is charged with functional responsibility for the subject matter under question. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safeguarding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.41" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.41   General restrictions on access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of need-to-know.</I> Classified information shall be made available to a person only when the possessor of the classified information establishes in each instance, except as provided in section 4-3 of E.O. 12065, that access is essential to the accomplishment of official Government duties or contractual obligations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of Trustworthiness.</I> A person is eligible for access to classified information only after a showing of trustworthiness as determined by the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations based upon appropriate investigations in accordance with applicable standards and criteria. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.42" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.42   Responsibility for safeguarding classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Policy.</I> The specific responsibility for the maintenance of the security of classified information rest with each person having knowledge or physical custody therof, no matter how obtained. The ultimate responsibility for safeguarding classified information rests on each supervisor to the same degree that supervisor is charged with functional responsibility. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security and Top Secret Control Officers.</I> The Director, OMSN, and the Status Liaison Officer, Saipan, are assigned specific security responsibilities as Security Officer and Top Secret Control Officer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handling.</I> All documents bearing the terms “Top Secret,” “Secret” and “Confidential” shall be delivered to the Top Secret Control Officer or his designee immediately upon receipt. All potential recipients of such documents shall be advised of the names of such designees and updated information as necessary. In the event that the Top Secret Control Officer or his designees are not available to receive such documents, they shall be turned over to the office supervisor and secured, unopened, in a designated combination safe located in OMSN or SLNO, as appropriate until the Top Secret Control Officer is available. All materials not immediately deliverable to the Top Secret Control Officer shall be delivered at the earliest opportunity. Under no circumstances shall classified material that cannot be delivered to the Top Secret Control Officer be stored other than in the designated safe. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Storage.</I> All classified documents shall be stored in the designated combination safe or safes located in OMSN or SLNO as appropriate. The combination shall be changed as required by ISOO Directive No. 1, section IV F (5)(a). The combinations shall be known only to the Security Officer and his designees with the appropriate security clearance. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security Education Program.</I> The Security Officer shall establish a program of briefings to familiarize personnel with the provisions of E.O. 12065 and implementing directives. Such briefings shall be held once per year, or more frequently. Before any new or newly assigned employee enters on duty, he shall be given instruction in sufficient detail in security procedures and practices to inform him of his responsibilities arising from his access to classified data. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Access by Historical Researchers and Former Presidential Appointees.</I> In keeping with provisions 4-301 and 4-302 of E.O. 12065, the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations shall designate appropriate officials to determine, prior to granting access to classified information, the propriety of such action in the interest of national security and assurance of the recipient's trustworthiness and need-to-know. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.43" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.43   Reproduction controls.</HEAD>
<P>OMSN and SLNO shall maintain records to show the number and distribution of all OMSN originated classified documents. Reproduction of classified material shall take place only in accordance with section 4-4 of E.O. 12065 and any limitations imposed by the originator. Should copies be made, they are subject to the same controls as the original document. Records showing the number of distribution of copies shall be maintained by the Office Supervisor and the log stored with the original documents. These measures shall not restrict reproduction for the purposes of mandatory review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.44" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.44   Administrative sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>Officers and employees of the United States Government assigned to OMSN shall be subject to appropriate administrative sanctions if they knowingly and willingly commit a violation under section 5-5 of E.O. 12065. These sanctions may include reprimand, suspension without pay, removal, termination of classification authority, or other sanction in accordance with applicable law or the applicable regulations of the agency from which they are assigned to OMSN. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Implementation and Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.51" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.51   Information Security Oversight Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The OMSN Information Security Oversight Committee shall be chaired by the Security Officer, OMSN. The Committee shall be responsible for acting on all suggestions and complaints concerning the administration of the OMSN information security program. The chairperson shall also be responsible for conducting an active oversight program to ensure effective implementation of E.O. 12065. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.52" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.1.6.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.52   Classified Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The OMSN Classification Review Committee shall be chaired by the President's Personal Representative for Micronesian Status Negotiations. The Committee shall decide appeals from denials of declassification requests submitted pursuant to section 3-5 of E.O. 12065. The Committee shall consist of the President's Personal Representative, Department of Defense/Legal Advisor and Political/Economic Advisor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2701-2799" NODE="32:6.2.9.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2701-2799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXVIII" NODE="32:6.2.10" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXVIII—OFFICE OF THE VICE PRESIDENT OF THE UNITED STATES</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2800" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2800—SECURITY PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12065, 43 FR 28949, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 190; (Information Security Oversight Office, Directive No. 1, 43 FR 46280, 32 CFR ch. II. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 66591, Nov. 20, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2800.1" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To establish procedures and provide guidance for the security of classified information and material within the Office of the Vice President.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.2" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.2   Guiding directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12065, June 28, 1978, Subject: National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(b) Information Security Oversight Office, Directive No. 1, October 2, 1978, Subject: National Security Information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.3" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The classification, declassification, safeguarding and handling of classified information within the Office of the Vice President will comply with the letter and spirit of those directives listed in § 2800.2. All personnel of the Office of the Vice President are responsible individually for complying with the provisions of these regulations are in all respects. The provisions of these regulations applicable to all personnel assigned or detailed to the Office of the Vice President.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.4" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.4   General information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staff Security Officer/Top Secret Control Officer.</I> A Vice Presidential Staff Security Officer and Assistant Staff Security Officer will be assigned to perform the duties as outlined in these regulations. They will normally be on the staff of the Assistant to the Vice President for National Security Affairs. The Staff Security Officer and Assistant Staff Security Officer will serve as Top Secret Control Officer and Assistant Top Secret Control Officer and custodians of classified material for the Office of the Vice President respectively, and will be responsible for the overall supervision of the Top Secret Control program. They will maintain positive control over the movement of all Top Secret material under their jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Custodian, Office of the Assistant to the Vice President for Congressional Relations.</I> The Assistant to the Vice President for Congressional Relations, Office of the President of the Senate, will be designated as Custodian of classified material for that office. He will be responsible for compliance with the instructions contained herein. In this capacity, he will be charged with safeguarding classified material necessary to the operation of the office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>National Security Classifications.</I> Classifications of National Security Information are defined in Executive Order 12065, sections 1-102 through 1-104. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited Markings.</I> (1) The caveats “FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY” and “ADMINISTRATIVELY RESTRICTED” are used within the Office of the Vice President to designate certain unclassified information which requires control. These caveats will under no circumstances be applied to information which qualifies as classified information. Further, neither they nor other terms will be used in conjunction with the prescribed security classifications of CONFIDENTIAL, SECRET and TOP SECRET. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unclassified information bearing either of the foregoing administrative designations cannot be protected from release under the national security exemption of the Freedom of Information Act (although other exemptions may be available). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security Clearances.</I> No person shall be given access to classified information or material unless a favorable background investigation has been completed determining that the individual is trustworthy and that access is necessary for the performance of official duties. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Security Clearance Procedures.</I> (i) The Counsel to the Vice President will: 
</P>
<P>(A) Be responsible for the processing of full field investigations for personnel assigned to the Vice President's staff. Department of Defense detailees are processed by the Defense Investigative Service. 
</P>
<P>(B) Inform the Staff Security Office of individuals whose full field investigations have been satisfactorily completed and approved and of any subsequent changes. 
</P>
<P>(C) Notify the Staff Security Office as soon as he/she is aware that a staff member is planning to terminate his/her employment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Staff Security Office will provide newly cleared persons with a security orientation briefing covering policy and procedures for handling classified information and material. After the briefing individuals will sign a Statement of Understanding of Security Procedures (Attachment 1). This statement will be kept on file by the Staff Security Office. 
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no such thing as an “Interim Security Clearance” for persons employed by or detailed to the Office of the Vice President. Under <I>no</I> circumstances will uncleared persons be given access to classified material. Access to classified material will be denied until the individual has had a satisfactorily completed background investigation, has received the security orientation briefing and signed the Statement of Understanding of Security Procedures. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Staff Security Office, as part of an individual's departure debriefing, will remind them of their continuing responsibilities to protect classified information to which they have had access during the performance of their official duties. After being debriefed, the individual will sign a Security Termination Statement acknowledging his responsibilities (Attachment 2). 
</P>
<P>(2) Satisfactory completion of a background investigation does not in itself grant an individual access to classified information. Individual clearances for access to classified information or material will be controlled by the Staff Security Office and certified in writing on an individual basis. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Access to Classified Material.</I> Each member of the staff who has custody or possession of classified information is responsible for providing the required degree of protection from unauthorized disclosure at all times. 
</P>
<P>(1) Classified information and material will only be disclosed to an individual after it has been determined that the individual possesses the required clearance and has a valid “need to know.” Persons releasing the information shall be responsible in every case for determining the recipient's eligibility for access. 
</P>
<P>(2) Access to Sensitive Compartmented Intelligence Information will be controlled by the Assistant to the Vice President for National Security Affairs. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Custody and safekeeping of Classified Material.</I> (1) Classified material addressed to the Office of the Vice President will normally be delivered to and receipted for by the Staff Security Office where it will be entered into the classified material control system. 
</P>
<P>(i) Staff members receiving classified material from any source by any means will personally deliver such material to the Staff Security Office for appropriate entry into the classified control system. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Conversely, members of the staff desiring to transmit classified material will deliver the material to the Staff Security Office for handling in accordance with paragraph (h)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage of Classified Material.</I> (i) Classified material will be stored only in accordance with the provisions of ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraph IV-F-1 through 4. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing of unclassified material in security containers is prohibited except where the unclassified material is an integral part of a file which contains classified material. If extenuating circumstances necessitate the use of a security container for storing only unclassified material, the container will be marked with a sign stating “This container is not used to store classified material” or “Do not store classified material in this container.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record of safe locations.</I> The Staff Security Office will assign numbers to all security containers used to store classified material in the Office of the Vice President. A record of safe numbers, locations and date of last combination change will be maintained in the Staff Security Office. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changing of lock combinations.</I> Combinations of security containers will be changed by the Staff Security Office or the Secret Service. This service may be requested by contacting the Staff Security Office. Combinations will be changed in accordance with the provisions of ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraph IV-F-5. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Records of combinations.</I> Records of combinations shall be maintained by the Staff Security Office. Whenever a combination is changed, the new combination and other required information will be recorded on GSA Optional Form 63. The sealed envelope will then be delivered to the Staff Security Office for retention in the vault safe. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Custodians.</I> Each container used for storage of classified material within the Office of the Vice President will have assigned a primary and alternate custodian. Responsibility for security of these containers shall rest with those persons, and their names shall be affixed on the outside of the top drawer of each container positioned so as to be readily discernible. Optional Form 63 shall be used for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Handling of Classified Material</I>—(1) <I>Use of cover sheets.</I> A separate cover sheet indicating the classification of the material will be fastened to the top page of cover of each CONFIDENTIAL, SECRET or TOP SECRET document. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unattended documents.</I> Classified material will be under the direct supervision of a person with an appropriate security clearance and a verified need-to-know at all times when in use. Special care will be taken to insure that classified material is not left unsecured or unattended in an office. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Working papers.</I> Working papers are documents, including drafts, photographs, etc., created to assist in the formulation and preparation of finished papers. Working papers containing classified information will be marked with the appropriate classification and provided the same degree of protection as that given to other documents of an equal category of classification. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communications security.</I> Classified information shall not be discussed over any voice communications device except as authorized over <I>approved</I> secure communications circuits. This restriction also applies to electrical transmission of classified material via any unsecure circuitry involving teletypes, DEX equipment or other systems of a like nature. Appropriate secure facilities for the discussion or transmittal of classified material may be arranged by contacting the Staff Security Office. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transmittal of Classified Material</I>—(i) <I>Outside the Office of the Vice President and the White House Complex.</I> The Staff Security Office is responsible for transmitting or transferring all classified material outside the Office of the Vice President and the White House Complex in accordance with the provisions of ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraphs I, G and H. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Within the Office of the Vice President and the White House Complex.</I> Transfer or movement of classified material will be accomplished only by properly cleared persons handcarrying the material to the recipient. The material shall be carried in an envelope marked with the appropriate classification. <I>Use of see through messenger envelopes is not authorized.</I> Recipients will sign a receipt (GSA Optional Form 112) for all material classified SECRET and TOP SECRET. Whenever TOP SECRET material is transferred, the Staff Security Office will be notified in order to maintain accurate accountability of the material. Classified material will never be delivered to an uncleared person, left in an unoccupied office, or sent through unclassified mail delivery/distribution systems. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Staff members requiring the use of classified material at conferences or meetings held outside the Washington, DC Metropolitan area and who intend to use commercial transportation shall provide the material to the Staff Security Office far enough in advance to assure that the material will be available on or before the date needed. This requirement does not apply when utilizing government/military transportation. In this case, material may be handcarried. The Staff Security Office will brief each staff member prior to departure concerning security requirements or arrangements needed to safeguard the material while away from his office. For meetings or conferences within the Washington, DC Metropolitan area, members may handcarry classified material. Use of classified material during a conference or meeting requires increased awareness and precautionary handling to avoid security violations and/or compromises. Staff members using classified material during a meeting or conference are responsible for ensuring that the material is properly protected at all times, and that personnel present posses appropriate clearances for the material being presented. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Visits to foreign countries.</I> Special precautions must be taken when visiting foreign countries to ensure classified material is protected at all times. For all visits to foreign countries a member of the staff will be appointed as custodian for all classified material required for the success of the mission. This individual will be the holder of a diplomatic passport which exempts him from customs inspections. Individual so designated will coordinate with United States embassy personnel in the country to be visited for securing of classified material within the embassy compound or other appropriate secure area during the course of the visit. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Preparation and marking of Classified Material.</I> All classified material originating within the office of the Vice President will be prepared and marked by properly authorized and cleared personnel in accordance with ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraphs I, G, and H. A sample letter is attached for your guidance (Attachment 3). Derivitive information will be prepared and classified in accordance with ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraphs II A through C. Questions concerning procedures should be directed to the Staff Security Office. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reproduction of Classified Material.</I> (i) Reproduction of classified material will be accomplished only by properly cleared persons. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reproduction of TOP SECRET material will be accomplished only by a member of the Staff Security Office or a designated representative of that office. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Accountability of reproduced classified material will be maintained by informing the Staff Security Office of the reproduction of SECRET and TOP SECRET material, the number of copies reproduced and their disposition. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Reproduction machines can retain the imagery of material passed through them. Therefore, to avoid inadvertent disclosure of classified information through subsequent use of machines, staff members will <I>always</I> run machines through four cycles (four blank pages) after the last page of the classified material has been reproduced. These pages will be destroyed in the same manner as classified material. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Destruction of Classified Material.</I> (i) SECRET and TOP SECRET material will be given to the Staff Security Office for destruction to insure destruction is properly recorded and destroyed material is removed from the classified control system. 
</P>
<P>(ii) CONFIDENTIAL material may be destroyed in the holder's office by tearing lengthwise and placing in a “Burn Bag” specifically designated for classified material. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Classified waste material will be separated from other office waste material and placed in “Burn Bags.” Classified waste material includes working papers, notes, drafts of classified correspondence, carbon paper, typewriter ribbons and any other material containing information requiring destruction. “Burn Bags” will be collected daily by a member of the White House Executive Protective Service who will then dispose of the bags in a secure facility. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Typewriter ribbons.</I> Classified material can be reproduced from imprints on used typewriter ribbons. Therefore, ribbons which are used in the preparation of classified material must be safeguarded accordingly, i.e., they will be stored in a safe at the close of business, destroyed as classified waste when no longer serviceable, etc. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Inventories.</I> The Staff Security Office will conduct inventories of all TOP SECRET material charged to the Office of the Vice President at least annually to determine the adequacy of control procedures and insure accountability. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loss or compromise.</I> Any person who has knowledge of loss of possible compromise of classified information shall promptly report the circumstances to the Staff Security Office for appropriate action in accordance with ISOO Directive No. 1, paragraph IV, H. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Penalties.</I> Any individual breach of security may warrant penalties up to and including the separation of the individual from his employment or criminal prosecution. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Special access.</I> Special access authority is required for release of Sensitive Compartmented Intelligence Information. The names of personnel cleared for access to this category of information are on file in the Staff Security Office. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.5" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.5   Policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic policy.</I> Except as provided in the Atomic Energy Act of 1943, as amended, Executive Order 12065, as implemented by ISOO Directive No. 1, provides the only basis for classifying information. It is the policy of this office to make available to the public as much information concerning its activities as possible consistent with the need to protect the national security. Accordingly, security classification shall be applied only to protect the national security. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of classification.</I> Classification shall not be continued longer than necessary for the protection of national security. Each decision to classify requires a simultaneous determination of the duration such classification must remain in effect. For further guidance, refer to sections 1-401 and 1-402, E.O. 12065. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Declassification.</I> Declassification of information shall be given emphasis comparable to that accorded to classification. Decisions concerning declassification shall be based on the loss of the information's sensitivity with the passage of time or upon the occurrence of a declassification event. For further guidance, refer to sections 3-102, 3-103 and 3-104 of E.O. 12065. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Systematic review for declassification.</I> Systematic review for declassification will be in accordance with sections 3-204, 3-401 and 3-503 of E.O. 12065. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mandatory review requests.</I> Requests from a member of the public, a government employee, or an agency, to declassify and release information will be acted upon within 60 days provided the request reasonably identifies the information. After review, the information or any reasonably segregable portion thereof that no longer requires protection, shall be declassified and released, except as provided in section 3-503, E.O. 12065, unless withholding is otherwise warranted under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Classification guides.</I> The Chief Counsel, National Security Council, has determined that, in view of the limited amount of material originally classified by this office, the preparation and publication of classification guides is not required. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access to Classified Information by historical researchers and former Presidential appointees.</I> Access may be granted under the provisions of section 4-3 of E.O. 12065; however, access is permissive and not mandatory. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.6" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.6   Delegation of classification and declassification authority.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the provisions of sections 1-201 and 3-103 of E.O. 12065 of June 28, 1978, the following officials within the Office of the Vice President, are designated to originally classify and declassify information as “SECRET” and/or “CONFIDENTIAL”: 
</P>
<P>(a) Chief of Staff to the Vice President. 
</P>
<P>(b) Counsel to the Vice President. 
</P>
<P>(c) Executive Assistant to the Vice President. 
</P>
<P>(d) Assistant to the Vice President for National Security Affairs. 
</P>
<P>(e) Assistant to the Vice President for Issues Development and Domestic Policy. 
</P>
<P>(f) Additionally, the following individuals are designated to declassify “SECRET” and/or “CONFIDENTIAL” information in accordance with section 3-103 of E.O. 12065: 
</P>
<P>(i) Staff Security Officer/Top Secret Control Officer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assistant Staff Security Officer/Assistant Top Secret Control Officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2800.7" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2800.7   Designation of chairperson for Ad Hoc Committees.</HEAD>
<P>The Counsel to the Vice President is designated as the responsible official to chair Ad Hoc Committees as necessary to act on all suggestions and complaints with respect to the administration of the information security program. 



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.8.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 1 to Part 2800—Employment Agreement &amp; Indoctrination Statement

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.054.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.055.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.8.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 2 to Part 2800—Security Termination Statement

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec25oc91.011.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.1.0.27.8.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Attachment 3 to Part 2800—Sample

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec25oc91.012.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2801-2899" NODE="32:6.2.10.17.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2801-2899 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
</BODY>
</TEXT>
</DLPSTEXTCLASS>
